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ZACBENCH-600 (now 700 — file/module name kept for continuity)

Renamed from ZACBENCH-500 → ZACBENCH-600 (2026-07-11): an English-language proficiency category (100 Q) was added 2026-06-22, making it 6 categories. Expanded to 700 (2026-07-28): a 7th category, Agentic (100 Q, tool-call correctness), was added. The file and script are still named ZACBENCH-600.md / benchmark_600.py — renaming would ripple through every launcher and doc that references them for no functional gain, so the name is historical, not descriptive of the current total. The code is the source of truth either way: finetune/benchmark_600.py + _b500_*.py (7 files, 700 questions).

Internal benchmark suite, 7 categories x 100 questions = 700 total. Every Math/Logic answer was re-derived via real computation or brute-force constraint search before being written (not guessed); every Coding reference solution was run against its listed test cases; every Instruction-Following question has a programmatic verifier function (shown as a description here, since the actual code is Python and not meaningful to print standalone); every Agentic question's expected_tool/required_args was checked against the tool schema in _b500_agentic.py before being committed, and the scoring function was self-tested against synthetic KNOWN-correct and KNOWN-wrong answers before being trusted (100/100 on correct input, 20/100 — exactly the count of distractor questions where no call is correct — on "never call a tool"). Answer extraction convention: when running this benchmark against a model, wrap the expected final answer instruction as <answer>...</answer> in the prompt so verification doesn't depend on parsing free-form text — except Agentic, which asks for a bare {"name":...,"arguments":{...}} JSON object, matching the format the model is actually trained to produce (inference/agent_loop.py's own parser), not an artificial benchmark-only format.

On why this exists as OUR benchmark, and how to check our work

We publish this alongside model scores rather than only citing recognised public benchmarks (GSM8K, HumanEval) because those cover a narrow slice of what an assistant actually does day to day, and because a large public benchmark's questions eventually leak into someone's training data across the field — deliberately or not. ZACBENCH exists to test what public sets miss, not to replace them.

The honest tradeoff: it is our benchmark, on our model, so treat any single vendor's score on their own eval with appropriate skepticism — including ours. What we can offer instead of "trust us" is everything needed to check the claim yourself: the exact questions, the exact scoring code, the exact token budget every model gets, and a written record of what was verified before a score was ever produced. Run it yourself against Zacoda or against anything else.

Automated scripts

what where
runner finetune/benchmark_600.py
question banks finetune/_b500_{math,coding,gk,logic,instruct,english,agentic}.py
local launcher finetune/run_zacbench600_local.sh
python3 finetune/benchmark_600.py --fused-dir <path/to/mlx/model> --model-name my-model
# or a single section while iterating:
python3 finetune/benchmark_600.py --fused-dir <path> --model-name my-model --agentic-only

Also supports --ollama-model and --claude-model backends, so a comparison across models runs through the identical scoring code — nobody's answer gets parsed by a different, more forgiving path (see the thinking-token section below for the token-budget half of that guarantee).

Thinking-token limitations — read before comparing scores across models

Every model gets the exact same flat token budget per section, with a prompted "think step by step" instruction — no model gets a separate reasoning/thinking-budget parameter that another model in the comparison doesn't also get. This is not a preference, it is a rule this project has been burned by breaking: on 2026-06-17 we found Claude agent calls were silently receiving +5000 tokens via the Anthropic API's extended-thinking parameter on top of the flat section budget, while every local model got the flat budget only — a real asymmetry that had already produced comparison results before it was caught.

section tokens why this number
General Knowledge 1700 MCQ + XML answer tag headroom over the 380-suite's 1500
Logic & Reasoning 1700 same
Math 2500 raised from 1000 (2026-06-20) after a live smoke test showed genuine mid-solution truncation, not a capability failure — a model correctly computed several AIME-tier answers inside its own reasoning and ran out of budget before writing the answer tag. Decided once, before testing any other model, applied to all.
Coding 3200 longest budget — full function bodies plus reasoning
Instruction Following 1500 shortest MCQ-adjacent budget — these are compliance checks, not derivations
English 1700 same as GK/Logic
Agentic 1200 lowest of all — a correct answer is either one JSON tool call or a brief direct answer, never a long derivation. Not a shortcut: it is sized to what a correct answer actually looks like, the same principle behind every other section's number.

A structural cost every model pays identically, not a per-model penalty: native-thinking models were observed to fully solve a problem inside their reasoning trace, then RE-DERIVE the same solution a second time in the visible answer before reaching the final tag — roughly doubling the effective cost of the same reasoning for no benefit. Raising the token budget further would just chase that verbosity habit rather than fix the actual waste, so every prompt instead ends with an explicit instruction not to restate reasoning after thinking is done. This applies identically to every backend and every model, local or API.

If true equal treatment is technically impossible for a given backend (e.g. an API enforces a minimum that conflicts with the agreed budget), the rule is to stop and pick the fix deliberately rather than silently choose the least-bad option — this has been the project's standing rule since before the Claude extended-thinking incident above, and the incident is exactly why it is written down here instead of assumed.


1. Math (100 questions)

# Question Gold Answer Difficulty
1 What is the sum of the first 50 positive integers? 1275 easy
2 How many positive divisors does 360 have? 24 medium
3 Find the remainder when 7^2024 is divided by 13. 3 hard
4 Two fair six-sided dice are rolled. The probability the sum is 7 can be written as a/b in lowest terms. What is b? 6 medium
5 How many trailing zeros does 100! have? 24 hard
6 Compute |3+4i|^2 + |1-2i|^2. 30 medium
7 What is the smallest positive integer n such that n^2 has exactly 15 positive divisors? 12 hard
8 Compute the determinant of the matrix [[2,1,3],[0,4,1],[5,2,2]]. -43 medium
9 What is the sum of all positive divisors of 2024? 4320 hard
10 An arithmetic sequence has first term 5 and common difference 3. What is the sum of the first 20 terms? 670 easy
11 In how many ways can a 2x10 rectangular board be tiled using 1x2 dominoes? 89 hard
12 The polynomial x^3 - 6x^2 + 11x - 6 has three roots. What is the sum of the squares of the roots? 14 hard
13 Compute the binomial coefficient C(20,7). 77520 medium
14 What is the largest power of 2 that divides 2024! (i.e. the exponent of 2 in its prime factorization)? 2017 hard
15 A triangle has vertices at (0,0), (4,0), and (2,5). What is its area? 10 medium
16 How many ordered triples of positive integers (x,y,z) satisfy x+y+z=20? 171 hard
17 What is log base 2 of 1024? 10 easy
18 A sequence is defined by a(1)=1, a(2)=1, a(n)=a(n-1)+a(n-2) for n>2. What is a(15)? 610 medium
19 A fair coin is flipped 5 times. The probability of getting exactly 3 heads is a/b in lowest terms. What is a+b? 21 medium
20 How many positive integers from 1 to 1000 inclusive are divisible by 3 or 5, but not both? 401 hard
21 A bat and ball together cost $1.10. The bat costs $1.00 more than the ball. How many cents does the ball cost? 5 adversarial
22 A rectangle has length 8 and width 5. What is its perimeter? 26 easy
23 How many subsets of {1,2,...,10} (including the empty set) have a sum divisible by 3? 344 hard
24 Solve for x: 2^x = 32 * 4^(x-1). -3 medium
25 What is 2^2024 mod 9? 4 hard
26 A geometric series has first term 3, common ratio 2, and 10 terms. What is the sum? 3069 medium
27 What is the smallest positive integer n such that n! has at least 6 trailing zeros? 25 hard
28 What is 15% of 240? 36 easy
29 In how many distinct ways can the letters of the word MISSISSIPPI be arranged? 34650 hard
30 A right triangle has legs of length 9 and 12. What is the length of the hypotenuse? 15 medium
31 What is the sum of the squares of the first 20 positive integers? 2870 medium
32 How many prime numbers are there below 100? 25 easy
33 What is the greatest common divisor of 1260 and 1980? 180 medium
34 What is the least common multiple of 12, 18, and 20? 180 medium
35 What is 11^2024 mod 7? 2 hard
36 How many 3-digit positive integers (100-999) have all distinct digits? 648 hard
37 What is the sum of the first 30 positive odd numbers? 900 easy
38 Two cards are drawn without replacement from a standard 52-card deck. The probability both are aces is a/b in lowest terms. What is a+b? 222 hard
39 How many diagonals does a convex 15-sided polygon have? 90 medium
40 What is the sum of the decimal digits of 2^100? 115 hard
41 What is the smallest positive integer n such that n! is divisible by 1000? 15 hard
42 How many integer pairs (x,y), with x and y each allowed to be negative, zero, or positive, satisfy x^2+y^2=25? 12 medium
43 The sum 1/(12) + 1/(23) + 1/(34) + ... + 1/(1920) equals a/b in lowest terms. What is a+b? 39 hard
44 In how many ways can you make exactly 25 cents using any combination of pennies, nickels, dimes, and quarters? 13 hard
45 A circle has radius 7. Using pi=3.14159, what is its area rounded to the nearest integer? 154 easy
46 Compute the sum: 12^1 + 22^2 + 32^3 + ... + 102^10. 18434 hard
47 In how many distinct ways can the letters of the word BANANA be arranged? 60 medium
48 A triangle has sides of length 7, 8, and 9. What is its area, rounded to 2 decimal places? 26.83 medium
49 How many positive integers from 1 to 200 are a perfect square or a perfect cube, but NOT both? 15 hard
50 A sequence is defined by a(1)=2 and a(n)=3*a(n-1)-1 for n>1. What is a(6)? 365 medium
51 Two fair six-sided dice are rolled. In how many of the 36 outcomes is the sum greater than 8? 10 medium
52 What is the sum of all 3-digit positive multiples of 7? 70336 hard
53 How many subsets of a 6-element set have an even number of elements (including the empty set)? 32 medium
54 What is the smallest positive integer with exactly 10 positive divisors? 48 hard
55 Solve for x: 3^(2x+1) = 81. 1.5 medium
56 What is the sum of the interior angles, in degrees, of a convex 12-sided polygon? 1800 easy
57 In how many ways can you choose 3 numbers from {1,2,...,10} such that no two chosen numbers are consecutive? 56 hard
58 What is 7! divided by 3!? 840 easy
59 What is the smallest positive integer n such that 2^n > 1000? 10 easy
60 A regular hexagon has side length 4. What is its area, rounded to 2 decimal places? 41.57 medium
61 What is the sum of the first 15 Fibonacci numbers (starting 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, ...)? 1596 medium
62 How many trailing zeros does 50! have? 12 hard
63 A positive number plus its reciprocal equals 2.5. What is the larger of the two possible values for the number? 2 medium
64 Four distinct books A, B, C, D are arranged in a row on a shelf. In how many of the 24 arrangements are A and B NOT adjacent to each other? 12 medium
65 sqrt(72) simplifies to a*sqrt(b) where b is squarefree. What is a+b? 8 easy
66 How many integers from 1 to 500 (inclusive) are divisible by neither 2 nor 3? 167 medium
67 A fair coin is flipped repeatedly until the first heads appears. What is the expected number of flips? 2 medium
68 What is the sum of all two-digit positive integers whose digits sum to 10? 495 medium
69 A 3x3 magic square is filled with the numbers 1 through 9, each used once. What is the magic constant (the sum of each row, column, and diagonal)? 15 easy
70 In how many ways can 5 identical balls be placed into 3 distinct boxes, with boxes allowed to be empty? 21 hard
71 A triangle has vertices at (1,1), (4,1), and (4,5). What is its area? 6 easy
72 A fair six-sided die is rolled 4 times. The probability of rolling at least one 6 is a/b in lowest terms. What is a+b? 1967 hard
73 What is the smallest positive integer n such that C(n,2) (n choose 2) is greater than 100? 15 medium
74 The sum 1/1! + 1/2! + 1/3! + 1/4! + 1/5! equals a/b in lowest terms. What is a+b? 163 hard
75 A cube has volume 343 cubic units. What is its total surface area? 294 medium
76 In how many ways can the 6 vertices of a hexagon (arranged in a cycle) be colored using exactly 2 colors such that no two adjacent vertices share a color? 2 hard
77 Compute (2+3i)*(1-4i) and write the result as a+bi. What is a+b (the real part plus the imaginary coefficient)? 9 medium
78 How many zero digits appear in the binary representation of 100? 4 easy
79 What is the sum of all positive divisors of 28 (including 28 itself)? 56 easy
80 A 10-foot ladder leans against a wall with its base 6 feet from the wall. How many feet up the wall does the ladder reach? 8 easy
81 How many trailing zeros does 20! have? 4 medium
82 An infinite geometric series has first term 8 and common ratio 1/4. Its sum equals a/b in lowest terms. What is a+b? 35 medium
83 In how many distinct ways can a 2x3 rectangular board be tiled using 1x2 dominoes? 3 medium
84 What is the smallest positive integer n such that n mod 3 = 2 and n mod 5 = 3? 8 hard
85 How many diagonals does a regular 20-sided polygon have? 170 medium
86 The sum 5/8 + 3/10 equals a/b in lowest terms. What is a+b? 77 medium
87 A rectangle's length is 3 more than its width, and its area is 70. What is the width? 7 medium
88 Two fair six-sided dice are rolled. The probability their sum is 7 equals a/b in lowest terms. What is a+b? 7 easy
89 What is 4! + 5! - 3!? 138 easy
90 What is the smallest integer n greater than 1 such that n^2 - n is divisible by 100? 25 hard
91 In how many distinct ways can 4 people be seated around a round table, where rotations of the same arrangement are considered identical? 6 hard
92 What is the sum of the interior angles, in degrees, of a convex 7-sided polygon? 900 easy
93 A value is increased by 20%, then the result is decreased by 20%. What is the net percent change (as a signed number, negative meaning a decrease)? -4.0 medium
94 What is the greatest common divisor of 0 and 15? 15 easy
95 How many trailing zeros does 30! have? 7 medium
96 Simplify (3/4) divided by (9/16) to a/b in lowest terms. What is a+b? 7 medium
97 What is the smallest positive integer n such that 3^n > 1000? 7 medium
98 On an analog clock showing 3:15, what is the angle in degrees between the hour and minute hands (the smaller of the two possible angles)? 7.5 hard
99 In how many distinct ways can the letters of the word LEVEL be arranged? 30 medium
100 Compute the alternating sum: 1 - 2 + 3 - 4 + ... - 100 (ending on -100). -50 medium

2. Coding (100 questions)

Each question specifies a function to implement; test cases shown as (args -> expected).

1. median_two_sorted (medium)

Write median_two_sorted(a, b) returning the median of two sorted lists merged together.

Tests: median_two_sorted([1, 3], [2]) == 2; median_two_sorted([1, 2], [3, 4]) == 2.5; median_two_sorted([], [1]) == 1

2. longest_valid_parens (hard)

Write longest_valid_parens(s) returning the length of the longest valid parentheses substring.

Tests: longest_valid_parens('(()') == 2; longest_valid_parens(')()())') == 4; longest_valid_parens('') == 0

3. min_window_substring (hard)

Write min_window_substring(s, t) returning the smallest substring of s containing all characters of t (with multiplicity). Return empty string if none exists.

Tests: min_window_substring('ADOBECODEBANC', 'ABC') == 'BANC'; min_window_substring('a', 'a') == 'a'

4. kth_largest_stream_final (medium)

Write kth_largest_stream_final(nums, k) returning the k-th largest element in the list.

Tests: kth_largest_stream_final([4, 5, 8, 2], 3) == 4; kth_largest_stream_final([1], 1) == 1

5. word_ladder_length (hard)

Write word_ladder_length(begin, end, words) returning the length of the shortest transformation sequence from begin to end, changing one letter at a time, each intermediate word must be in words. Return 0 if impossible.

Tests: word_ladder_length('hit', 'cog', ['hot', 'dot', 'dog', 'lot', 'log', 'cog']) == 5; word_ladder_length('hit', 'cog', ['hot', 'dot', 'dog', 'lot', 'log']) == 0

6. max_rectangle_in_histogram (hard)

Write max_rectangle_in_histogram(heights) returning the area of the largest rectangle in a histogram.

Tests: max_rectangle_in_histogram([2, 1, 5, 6, 2, 3]) == 10; max_rectangle_in_histogram([2, 4]) == 4; max_rectangle_in_histogram([]) == 0

7. catalan (medium)

Write catalan(n) returning the n-th Catalan number (number of distinct BST shapes with n nodes).

Tests: catalan(5) == 42; catalan(0) == 1; catalan(1) == 1

8. num_distinct_islands (hard)

Write num_distinct_islands(grid) (grid of 0/1) returning the number of islands that are distinct in SHAPE (translations of the same shape count once). 4-directional adjacency.

Tests: num_distinct_islands([[1, 1, 0, 0, 0], [1, 1, 0, 0, 0], [0, 0, 0, 1, 1], [0, 0, 0, 1, 1]]) == 1

9. largest_bst_subtree_size (medium)

Write largest_bst_subtree_size(vals) returning the length of the longest strictly increasing subsequence of vals.

Tests: largest_bst_subtree_size([10, 9, 2, 5, 3, 7, 101, 18]) == 4; largest_bst_subtree_size([]) == 0

10. reconstruct_itinerary (hard)

Write reconstruct_itinerary(tickets) (list of [from,to] pairs, all from JFK) returning the lexicographically smallest valid itinerary using every ticket exactly once, as a list of airport codes.

Tests: reconstruct_itinerary([['MUC', 'LHR'], ['JFK', 'MUC'], ['SFO', 'SJC'], ['LHR', 'SFO']]) == ['JFK', 'MUC', 'LHR', 'SFO', 'SJC']

11. edit_distance (medium)

Write edit_distance(s, t) returning the minimum single-character insert/delete/substitute operations to turn s into t.

Tests: edit_distance('horse', 'ros') == 3; edit_distance('', 'abc') == 3; edit_distance('abc', 'abc') == 0

12. coin_change (medium)

Write coin_change(coins, amount) returning the minimum number of coins to make amount, or -1 if impossible.

Tests: coin_change([1, 2, 5], 11) == 3; coin_change([2], 3) == -1; coin_change([1], 0) == 0

13. num_islands (easy)

Write num_islands(grid) (grid of '1'/'0' strings) counting islands under 4-directional adjacency.

Tests: num_islands([['1', '1', '0', '0', '0'], ['1', '1', '0', '0', '0'], ['0', '0', '1', '0', '0'], ['0', '0', '0', '1', '1']]) == 3

14. sliding_window_max (medium)

Write sliding_window_max(nums, k) returning a list of the maximum value in each sliding window of size k.

Tests: sliding_window_max([1, 3, -1, -3, 5, 3, 6, 7], 3) == [3, 3, 5, 5, 6, 7]; sliding_window_max([1], 1) == [1]

15. trap_rain_water (hard)

Write trap_rain_water(heights) returning the total units of rainwater trapped between the bars.

Tests: trap_rain_water([0, 1, 0, 2, 1, 0, 1, 3, 2, 1, 2, 1]) == 6; trap_rain_water([]) == 0

16. group_anagrams (easy)

Write group_anagrams(strs) grouping anagrams together. Return a sorted list of sorted groups (sort each group's strings, then sort the list of groups).

Tests: group_anagrams(['eat', 'tea', 'tan', 'ate', 'nat', 'bat']) == [['bat'], ['nat', 'tan'], ['ate', 'eat', 'tea']]

17. topological_sort (medium)

Write topological_sort(graph) (dict of node -> list of neighbors) returning a valid topological order as a list. Raise ValueError on a cycle.

Tests: topological_sort({'A': ['B', 'C'], 'B': ['D'], 'C': ['D'], 'D': []}) -- custom check function

18. lru_cache_ops (hard)

Write lru_cache_ops(ops) simulating an LRU cache. ops is a list of tuples: ("init", capacity), ("put", key, value), ("get", key). Return a list of the results of every "get" call in order (-1 if key not present).

Tests: lru_cache_ops([('init', 2), ('put', 1, 1), ('put', 2, 2), ('get', 1), ('put', 3, 3), ('get', 2), ('put', 4, 4), ('get', 1), ('get', 3), ('get', 4)]) == [1, -1, -1, 3, 4]

19. find_all_permutations (medium)

Write find_all_permutations(nums) returning a sorted list of all unique permutations of nums (each permutation itself sorted in the order produced; the OUTER list sorted ascending).

Tests: find_all_permutations([1, 2, 3]) == [[1, 2, 3], [1, 3, 2], [2, 1, 3], [2, 3, 1], [3, 1, 2], [3, 2, 1]]

20. rotate_image (medium)

Write rotate_image(matrix) that rotates an n x n matrix 90 degrees clockwise IN PLACE and returns it.

Tests: rotate_image([[1, 2, 3], [4, 5, 6], [7, 8, 9]]) == [[7, 4, 1], [8, 5, 2], [9, 6, 3]]

21. decode_ways (hard)

Write decode_ways(s) (a string of digits) counting the number of ways to decode it into letters where 'A'=1, 'B'=2, ..., 'Z'=26. Return 0 if no valid decoding exists.

Tests: decode_ways('12') == 2; decode_ways('226') == 3; decode_ways('06') == 0

22. max_flow (hard)

Write max_flow(capacity, source, sink) using BFS-based Edmonds-Karp to compute the maximum flow from source to sink. capacity is a dict of dicts: capacity[u][v] is the edge capacity from u to v (0 if no edge).

Tests: max_flow({'S': {'A': 3, 'B': 2}, 'A': {'B': 1, 'T': 2}, 'B': {'T': 3}, 'T': {}}, 'S', 'T') == 5

23. dijkstra (medium)

Write dijkstra(graph, src) returning a dict mapping every node to its shortest distance from src. graph is a dict of dicts: graph[u][v] is the edge weight from u to v.

Tests: dijkstra({'A': {'B': 1, 'C': 4}, 'B': {'C': 2, 'D': 5}, 'C': {'D': 1}, 'D': {}}, 'A') == {'A': 0, 'B': 1, 'C': 3, 'D': 4}

24. two_sum_indices (easy)

Write two_sum_indices(nums, target) returning a sorted 2-element list of the indices of the two numbers that add up to target (assume exactly one solution exists).

Tests: two_sum_indices([2, 7, 11, 15], 9) == [0, 1]; two_sum_indices([3, 2, 4], 6) == [1, 2]

25. valid_parentheses (easy)

Write valid_parentheses(s) returning True if every bracket in s ( (), [], {} ) is properly opened and closed in the correct order, False otherwise.

Tests: valid_parentheses('()[]{}') == True; valid_parentheses('(]') == False

26. merge_intervals (medium)

Write merge_intervals(intervals) (list of [start,end] pairs) returning the merged list of overlapping intervals, sorted by start.

Tests: merge_intervals([[1, 3], [2, 6], [8, 10], [15, 18]]) == [[1, 6], [8, 10], [15, 18]]; merge_intervals([[1, 4], [4, 5]]) == [[1, 5]]

27. is_palindrome_str (easy)

Write is_palindrome_str(s) returning True if s is a palindrome ignoring case, spaces, and punctuation.

Tests: is_palindrome_str('A man, a plan, a canal: Panama') == True; is_palindrome_str('race a car') == False

28. fibonacci_n (easy)

Write fibonacci_n(n) returning the n-th Fibonacci number (0-indexed, fib(0)=0, fib(1)=1).

Tests: fibonacci_n(10) == 55; fibonacci_n(0) == 0

29. max_subarray_sum (medium)

Write max_subarray_sum(nums) returning the largest sum of any contiguous subarray (Kadane's algorithm).

Tests: max_subarray_sum([-2, 1, -3, 4, -1, 2, 1, -5, 4]) == 6

30. binary_search (easy)

Write binary_search(nums, target) on a sorted list, returning the index of target or -1 if not found.

Tests: binary_search([-1, 0, 3, 5, 9, 12], 9) == 4; binary_search([-1, 0, 3, 5, 9, 12], 2) == -1

31. reverse_linked_list_arr (easy)

Write reverse_linked_list_arr(arr) returning arr reversed (simulating reversing a singly linked list represented as a Python list).

Tests: reverse_linked_list_arr([1, 2, 3, 4, 5]) == [5, 4, 3, 2, 1]

32. count_vowels (easy)

Write count_vowels(s) returning the number of vowels (a,e,i,o,u, case-insensitive) in s.

Tests: count_vowels('Hello World') == 3

33. matrix_transpose (easy)

Write matrix_transpose(m) returning the transpose of matrix m (list of lists).

Tests: matrix_transpose([[1, 2, 3], [4, 5, 6]]) == [[1, 4], [2, 5], [3, 6]]

34. is_anagram (easy)

Write is_anagram(a, b) returning True if strings a and b are anagrams of each other.

Tests: is_anagram('listen', 'silent') == True; is_anagram('hello', 'world') == False

35. power_set (medium)

Write power_set(nums) returning all subsets of nums (including empty set and the full set), as a sorted list of sorted subsets, with no duplicate subsets.

Tests: power_set([1, 2, 3]) == [[], [1], [1, 2], [1, 2, 3], [1, 3], [2], [2, 3], [3]]

36. gcd_list (easy)

Write gcd_list(nums) returning the greatest common divisor of all numbers in the list.

Tests: gcd_list([12, 18, 24]) == 6

37. flatten_list (medium)

Write flatten_list(nested) returning a fully flattened (single-level) list from an arbitrarily nested list of lists and values.

Tests: flatten_list([1, [2, 3, [4, 5]], 6]) == [1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6]

38. find_missing_number (easy)

Write find_missing_number(nums, n) where nums contains n-1 distinct integers from 1 to n with exactly one missing -- return the missing number.

Tests: find_missing_number([1, 2, 4, 5], 5) == 3

39. run_length_encode (medium)

Write run_length_encode(s) returning the run-length encoding of s (e.g. 'aaabbbcc' -> 'a3b3c2'). Return empty string for empty input.

Tests: run_length_encode('aaabbbcc') == 'a3b3c2'; run_length_encode('') == ''

40. reverse_words (easy)

Write reverse_words(s) returning the words of s in reverse order, joined by single spaces.

Tests: reverse_words('the sky is blue') == 'blue is sky the'

41. is_balanced_bst_heights (easy)

Write is_balanced_bst_heights(heights) returning True if the max and min of the list differ by at most 1 (treat empty list as balanced/True).

Tests: is_balanced_bst_heights([3, 4, 3]) == True; is_balanced_bst_heights([1, 5]) == False

42. chunk_list (easy)

Write chunk_list(lst, n) splitting lst into consecutive chunks of size n (the last chunk may be shorter).

Tests: chunk_list([1, 2, 3, 4, 5], 2) == [[1, 2], [3, 4], [5]]

43. first_unique_char_index (medium)

Write first_unique_char_index(s) returning the index of the first character in s that appears exactly once, or -1 if none.

Tests: first_unique_char_index('leetcode') == 0; first_unique_char_index('aabb') == -1

44. is_subsequence (easy)

Write is_subsequence(s, t) returning True if s is a subsequence of t (characters of s appear in t in order, not necessarily contiguous).

Tests: is_subsequence('abc', 'ahbgdc') == True; is_subsequence('axc', 'ahbgdc') == False

45. rotate_array (medium)

Write rotate_array(nums, k) returning nums rotated right by k positions.

Tests: rotate_array([1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7], 3) == [5, 6, 7, 1, 2, 3, 4]

46. longest_common_prefix (medium)

Write longest_common_prefix(strs) returning the longest common prefix string among a list of strings, or empty string if none.

Tests: longest_common_prefix(['flower', 'flow', 'flight']) == 'fl'; longest_common_prefix(['dog', 'racecar', 'car']) == ''

47. is_power_of_two (easy)

Write is_power_of_two(n) returning True if n is a power of two (n > 0).

Tests: is_power_of_two(16) == True; is_power_of_two(18) == False

48. merge_two_sorted_lists (easy)

Write merge_two_sorted_lists(a, b) merging two already-sorted lists into one sorted list.

Tests: merge_two_sorted_lists([1, 3, 5], [2, 4, 6]) == [1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6]

49. count_set_bits (easy)

Write count_set_bits(n) returning the number of 1-bits in the binary representation of n.

Tests: count_set_bits(11) == 3

50. spiral_matrix (hard)

Write spiral_matrix(matrix) returning all elements of the matrix in clockwise spiral order, starting from the top-left.

Tests: spiral_matrix([[1, 2, 3], [4, 5, 6], [7, 8, 9]]) == [1, 2, 3, 6, 9, 8, 7, 4, 5]

51. majority_element (medium)

Write majority_element(nums) returning the element that appears more than floor(len(nums)/2) times (guaranteed to exist).

Tests: majority_element([2, 2, 1, 1, 1, 2, 2]) == 2

52. is_valid_bst_inorder (easy)

Write is_valid_bst_inorder(vals) returning True if vals is strictly increasing (i.e. would be a valid in-order traversal of a BST with no duplicate keys).

Tests: is_valid_bst_inorder([1, 2, 3, 4]) == True; is_valid_bst_inorder([1, 3, 2, 4]) == False

53. remove_duplicates_sorted (easy)

Write remove_duplicates_sorted(nums) returning nums with consecutive duplicates removed (nums is already sorted).

Tests: remove_duplicates_sorted([1, 1, 2, 2, 3]) == [1, 2, 3]

54. is_perfect_number (medium)

Write is_perfect_number(n) returning True if n equals the sum of its proper divisors (e.g. 28 = 1+2+4+7+14).

Tests: is_perfect_number(28) == True; is_perfect_number(12) == False

55. caesar_cipher (medium)

Write caesar_cipher(s, shift) shifting each letter of s forward by shift positions in the alphabet (wrapping around), preserving case and leaving non-letters unchanged.

Tests: caesar_cipher('abc', 2) == 'cde'; caesar_cipher('XYZ', 3) == 'ABC'

56. is_armstrong_number (medium)

Write is_armstrong_number(n) returning True if n equals the sum of its own digits each raised to the power of the digit count (e.g. 153 = 1^3+5^3+3^3).

Tests: is_armstrong_number(153) == True; is_armstrong_number(154) == False

57. matrix_multiply (medium)

Write matrix_multiply(a, b) returning the matrix product of a and b (lists of lists).

Tests: matrix_multiply([[1, 2], [3, 4]], [[5, 6], [7, 8]]) == [[19, 22], [43, 50]]

58. longest_word (easy)

Write longest_word(s) returning the longest word in the string s (ties broken by first occurrence).

Tests: longest_word('the quick brown fox') == 'quick'

59. is_subset_sum (medium)

Write is_subset_sum(nums, target) returning True if some subset of nums sums exactly to target.

Tests: is_subset_sum([3, 34, 4, 12, 5, 2], 9) == True; is_subset_sum([3, 34, 4, 12, 5, 2], 30) == False

60. count_words (easy)

Write count_words(s) returning the number of whitespace-separated words in s.

Tests: count_words('hello world foo') == 3

61. sum_digits_until_single (easy)

Write sum_digits_until_single(n) repeatedly summing the digits of n until a single digit remains (the digital root).

Tests: sum_digits_until_single(9875) == 2

62. find_peak_index (medium)

Write find_peak_index(nums) returning the index of any local peak (an element greater than both its neighbors; for edge elements, only the one existing neighbor needs to be smaller).

Tests: find_peak_index([1, 2, 3, 1]) == 2

63. remove_vowels (easy)

Write remove_vowels(s) returning s with all vowels (a,e,i,o,u, case-insensitive) removed.

Tests: remove_vowels('Hello World') == 'Hll Wrld'

64. is_valid_ipv4 (medium)

Write is_valid_ipv4(s) returning True if s is a valid IPv4 address (4 dot-separated parts, each 0-255, no leading zeros except the literal '0' itself).

Tests: is_valid_ipv4('192.168.1.1') == True; is_valid_ipv4('256.1.1.1') == False; is_valid_ipv4('01.1.1.1') == False

65. word_frequency (easy)

Write word_frequency(s) returning a dict mapping each lowercase word in s to its occurrence count.

Tests: word_frequency('the cat the dog') == {'the': 2, 'cat': 1, 'dog': 1}

66. is_rotation (medium)

Write is_rotation(s1, s2) returning True if s2 is a rotation of s1 (same length, and s2 appears as a substring of s1+s1).

Tests: is_rotation('waterbottle', 'erbottlewat') == True; is_rotation('abc', 'acb') == False

67. max_profit_stock (medium)

Write max_profit_stock(prices) returning the maximum profit from buying then selling once (buy before sell), or 0 if no profit is possible.

Tests: max_profit_stock([7, 1, 5, 3, 6, 4]) == 5; max_profit_stock([7, 6, 4, 3, 1]) == 0

68. is_happy_number (medium)

Write is_happy_number(n) -- repeatedly replace n with the sum of squares of its digits; return True if this reaches 1, False if it cycles without reaching 1.

Tests: is_happy_number(19) == True; is_happy_number(2) == False

69. common_elements (easy)

Write common_elements(a, b) returning a sorted list of the distinct elements present in both a and b.

Tests: common_elements([1, 2, 3, 4], [3, 4, 5, 6]) == [3, 4]

70. to_roman (medium)

Write to_roman(n) converting a positive integer (1-3999) to its Roman numeral representation.

Tests: to_roman(1994) == 'MCMXCIV'

71. diagonal_sum (medium)

Write diagonal_sum(matrix) returning the sum of both diagonals of a square matrix, counting the center cell only once if the matrix has odd size.

Tests: diagonal_sum([[1, 2, 3], [4, 5, 6], [7, 8, 9]]) == 25

72. is_pangram (easy)

Write is_pangram(s) returning True if s contains every letter of the English alphabet at least once (case-insensitive).

Tests: is_pangram('The quick brown fox jumps over the lazy dog') == True; is_pangram('Hello world') == False

73. find_duplicates (easy)

Write find_duplicates(nums) returning a sorted list of values that appear more than once in nums (each duplicate value listed only once).

Tests: find_duplicates([1, 2, 3, 2, 1, 5, 3]) == [1, 2, 3]

74. string_compression (medium)

Write string_compression(s) returning the run-length compressed form where each run of length 1 has NO count suffix (e.g. 'aabcccccaaa' -> 'a2bc5a3').

Tests: string_compression('aabcccccaaa') == 'a2bc5a3'

75. kth_smallest (easy)

Write kth_smallest(nums, k) returning the k-th smallest element (1-indexed) in nums.

Tests: kth_smallest([3, 1, 4, 1, 5, 9, 2, 6], 3) == 2

76. num_ways_climb_stairs (medium)

Write num_ways_climb_stairs(n) returning the number of distinct ways to climb n stairs taking 1 or 2 steps at a time.

Tests: num_ways_climb_stairs(5) == 8

77. is_strobogrammatic (hard)

Write is_strobogrammatic(s) returning True if the digit string s looks the same when rotated 180 degrees (each digit maps as 0->0, 1->1, 6->9, 8->8, 9->6, reading the rotated string in reverse).

Tests: is_strobogrammatic('69') == True; is_strobogrammatic('123') == False

78. single_number (medium)

Write single_number(nums) where every element appears exactly twice except one which appears once -- return that single element (use XOR for O(n) time, O(1) space).

Tests: single_number([4, 1, 2, 1, 2]) == 4

79. is_monotonic (easy)

Write is_monotonic(nums) returning True if nums is entirely non-decreasing OR entirely non-increasing.

Tests: is_monotonic([1, 2, 2, 3]) == True; is_monotonic([1, 3, 2]) == False

80. product_except_self (hard)

Write product_except_self(nums) returning a list where each element is the product of all other elements (no division allowed, O(n) time).

Tests: product_except_self([1, 2, 3, 4]) == [24, 12, 8, 6]

81. find_all_anagram_starts (hard)

Write find_all_anagram_starts(s, p) returning a list of starting indices in s where a substring is an anagram of p.

Tests: find_all_anagram_starts('cbaebabacd', 'abc') == [0, 6]

82. count_primes_below (medium)

Write count_primes_below(n) returning the count of prime numbers strictly less than n.

Tests: count_primes_below(10) == 4

83. is_perfect_square (easy)

Write is_perfect_square(n) returning True if n is a perfect square (n >= 0).

Tests: is_perfect_square(16) == True; is_perfect_square(15) == False

84. reverse_integer (easy)

Write reverse_integer(n) returning n with its digits reversed, preserving the sign.

Tests: reverse_integer(123) == 321; reverse_integer(-456) == -654

85. move_zeros_to_end (easy)

Write move_zeros_to_end(nums) moving all zeros to the end of the list while preserving the relative order of non-zero elements.

Tests: move_zeros_to_end([0, 1, 0, 3, 12]) == [1, 3, 12, 0, 0]

86. is_unique_chars (easy)

Write is_unique_chars(s) returning True if every character in s is distinct (no repeats).

Tests: is_unique_chars('abcdef') == True; is_unique_chars('aabbcc') == False

87. fizzbuzz (easy)

Write fizzbuzz(n) returning a list of strings for 1..n: 'Fizz' if divisible by 3, 'Buzz' if divisible by 5, 'FizzBuzz' if divisible by both, else the number as a string.

Tests: fizzbuzz(3) == ['1', '2', 'Fizz']

88. max_consecutive_ones (easy)

Write max_consecutive_ones(nums) returning the length of the longest run of consecutive 1s in a list of 0s and 1s.

Tests: max_consecutive_ones([1, 1, 0, 1, 1, 1]) == 3

89. is_symmetric_list (easy)

Write is_symmetric_list(nums) returning True if the list reads the same forwards and backwards.

Tests: is_symmetric_list([1, 2, 3, 2, 1]) == True; is_symmetric_list([1, 2, 3]) == False

90. merge_dicts (easy)

Write merge_dicts(a, b) returning a new dict combining a and b, with b's values taking precedence on key collisions.

Tests: merge_dicts({'a': 1}, {'b': 2}) == {'a': 1, 'b': 2}

91. count_char_occurrences (easy)

Write count_char_occurrences(s, c) returning the number of times character c appears in string s.

Tests: count_char_occurrences('mississippi', 's') == 4

92. is_palindrome_number (easy)

Write is_palindrome_number(n) returning True if the integer n reads the same forwards and backwards.

Tests: is_palindrome_number(121) == True; is_palindrome_number(123) == False

93. sum_of_digits (easy)

Write sum_of_digits(n) returning the sum of the digits of n (n may be negative; use the absolute value).

Tests: sum_of_digits(-12345) == 15

94. title_case_words (easy)

Write title_case_words(s) capitalizing the first letter of each word and lowercasing the rest.

Tests: title_case_words('hello world') == 'Hello World'

95. is_anagram_ignoring_case_space (easy)

Write is_anagram_ignoring_case_space(a, b) returning True if a and b are anagrams of each other, ignoring case and spaces.

Tests: is_anagram_ignoring_case_space('Listen', 'Silent') == True; is_anagram_ignoring_case_space('hello', 'world') == False

96. binary_to_decimal (easy)

Write binary_to_decimal(s) converting a binary string to its decimal integer value.

Tests: binary_to_decimal('1010') == 10

97. decimal_to_binary (easy)

Write decimal_to_binary(n) converting a non-negative integer to its binary string representation (no '0b' prefix).

Tests: decimal_to_binary(10) == '1010'

98. is_leap_year (medium)

Write is_leap_year(y) returning True if year y is a leap year (divisible by 4, but not by 100 unless also by 400).

Tests: is_leap_year(2024) == True; is_leap_year(1900) == False

99. longest_palindromic_substring (hard)

Write longest_palindromic_substring(s) returning the longest substring of s that is a palindrome (any one of the longest if there's a tie).

Tests: longest_palindromic_substring('babad') -- custom check function

100. two_largest (easy)

Write two_largest(nums) returning the two largest values in nums, in descending order.

Tests: two_largest([3, 1, 4, 1, 5, 9, 2, 6]) == [9, 6]

3. General Knowledge (100 questions)

# Question Gold Category Difficulty
1 Question: Which enzyme deficiency causes phenylketonuria (PKU)? A) Phenylalanine hydroxylase B) Tyrosine hydroxylase C) Homogentisate oxidase D) Branched-chain ketoacid dehydrogenase A biochemistry hard
2 Question: The Maastricht Treaty (1992) established which of the following? A) The European Coal and Steel Community B) The European Union and a path to the euro C) The Schengen Area D) NATO's post-Cold War expansion framework B history medium
3 Question: In macroeconomics, the 'liquidity trap' refers to a situation where: A) Interest rates are so low that monetary policy becomes ineffective at stimulating demand B) Banks refuse to lend due to high default rates C) Currency becomes illiquid due to capital controls D) Inflation expectations become unanchored A economics hard
4 Question: Which 1803 Supreme Court case first struck down an act of Congress as unconstitutional? A) McCulloch v. Maryland B) Marbury v. Madison C) Gibbons v. Ogden D) Fletcher v. Peck B law medium
5 Question: The Chandrasekhar limit (~1.4 solar masses) marks the maximum mass of a stable: A) Neutron star B) Black hole C) White dwarf D) Red giant C astrophysics medium
6 Question: Which treaty formally ended the Thirty Years' War and is considered foundational to the modern concept of state sovereignty? A) Treaty of Utrecht B) Treaty of Westphalia C) Treaty of Tordesillas D) Peace of Augsburg B history medium
7 Question: In immunology, regulatory T cells (Tregs) primarily function by: A) Directly killing virus-infected cells B) Producing antibodies against pathogens C) Suppressing other immune cells to maintain self-tolerance D) Presenting antigens to naive T cells C immunology hard
8 Question: The Coase theorem states that, with zero transaction costs and well-defined property rights: A) Government intervention is always required to correct externalities B) Parties will bargain to an efficient outcome regardless of how rights are initially allocated C) Pigouvian taxes are the only efficient remedy for externalities D) Externalities necessarily cause permanent market failure B economics hard
9 Question: Which structure in the inner ear is responsible for detecting angular (rotational) acceleration? A) Cochlea B) Semicircular canals C) Saccule D) Organ of Corti B physiology medium
10 Question: The Bretton Woods system (1944-1971) pegged major currencies to: A) Gold directly B) The US dollar, which was itself pegged to gold C) A basket of commodities D) Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) B economics medium
11 Question: In contract law, 'promissory estoppel' allows enforcement of a promise even without consideration when: A) The promisor is a merchant B) The promise was made in writing C) The promisee reasonably relied on the promise to their detriment D) The contract value exceeds a statutory threshold C law hard
12 Question: The Krebs cycle (citric acid cycle) produces how many NADH molecules per glucose molecule, counting both turns of the cycle? A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 C biochemistry medium
13 Question: Which 1815 congress redrew the map of Europe after the Napoleonic Wars, establishing a balance-of-power system? A) Congress of Berlin B) Congress of Vienna C) Congress of Westphalia D) Treaty of Paris B history easy
14 Question: In international law, 'jus cogens' refers to: A) Norms binding only between treaty signatories B) Peremptory norms from which no derogation is permitted C) Customary norms requiring reciprocity D) Norms enforceable only by the UN Security Council B law hard
15 Question: The Schwarzschild radius of a black hole of mass M is given by: A) GM/c^2 B) 2GM/c^2 C) GM/c D) 4GM/c^2 B astrophysics medium
16 Question: Ricardian equivalence suggests that government deficit-financed spending: A) Always boosts aggregate demand more than tax-financed spending B) Has effects on consumption similar to tax-financed spending, since rational agents anticipate future taxes C) Permanently raises the national savings rate D) Causes hyperinflation in the long run B economics hard
17 Question: Which post-WWI system placed former German and Ottoman territories under the administration of other powers on behalf of the League of Nations? A) The Mandate System B) The Protectorate System C) The Trusteeship Council D) The Capitulation System A history medium
18 Question: The 'hard problem of consciousness,' as framed by David Chalmers, concerns: A) Identifying the neural correlates of conscious states B) Explaining why physical processes give rise to subjective experience at all C) Determining whether animals are conscious D) Building AI systems that pass the Turing test B philosophy hard
19 Question: In epidemiology, 'herd immunity threshold' for a disease with basic reproduction number R0 is approximately: A) R0 B) 1/R0 C) 1 - 1/R0 D) R0 - 1 C epidemiology hard
20 Question: The Rome Statute (1998) established which institution? A) The International Court of Justice B) The International Criminal Court C) The Permanent Court of Arbitration D) The ICTY (Yugoslavia tribunal) B law medium
21 Question: Which glycolytic enzyme is the primary rate-limiting (committed) step of glycolysis? A) Hexokinase B) Phosphofructokinase-1 C) Pyruvate kinase D) Aldolase B biochemistry hard
22 Question: The Peace of Westphalia (1648) is most commonly cited as the origin of which modern principle? A) Universal human rights B) State sovereignty and non-interference C) Free trade between nations D) Separation of church and state within a single country B history medium
23 Question: In monetary economics, the 'impossible trinity' (trilemma) states a country cannot simultaneously have: A) Low inflation, low unemployment, and high growth B) A fixed exchange rate, free capital flows, and independent monetary policy C) A trade surplus, a budget surplus, and currency appreciation D) High savings, high investment, and low interest rates B economics hard
24 Question: Which Supreme Court case established the 'separate but equal' doctrine later overturned by Brown v. Board of Education? A) Dred Scott v. Sandford B) Plessy v. Ferguson C) Korematsu v. United States D) Lochner v. New York B law medium
25 Question: A neutron star's maximum stable mass before collapsing further is bounded by which limit? A) Chandrasekhar limit B) Eddington limit C) Tolman-Oppenheimer-Volkoff limit D) Roche limit C astrophysics hard
26 Question: The Congress of Berlin (1878) primarily revised the terms of which earlier treaty regarding the Balkans? A) Treaty of San Stefano B) Treaty of Bucharest C) Treaty of Adrianople D) Treaty of Paris (1856) A history hard
27 Question: In cell biology, the process by which a cell engulfs large particles via membrane invagination is called: A) Pinocytosis B) Phagocytosis C) Exocytosis D) Facilitated diffusion B biology easy
28 Question: The Modigliani-Miller theorem, in its basic form (no taxes, no bankruptcy costs), states that a firm's value is independent of: A) Its profitability B) Its capital structure (debt vs equity mix) C) Its dividend payout ratio in all cases D) Its industry sector B economics hard
29 Question: Which legal doctrine allows a court to pierce the corporate veil and hold shareholders personally liable, typically in cases of fraud or undercapitalization? A) Ultra vires doctrine B) Alter ego / piercing the corporate veil doctrine C) Business judgment rule D) Doctrine of laches B law hard
30 Question: Cosmic microwave background radiation is considered strong evidence for which cosmological model? A) Steady State theory B) Big Bang theory C) Eternal inflation alone D) Tired light hypothesis B astrophysics easy
31 Question: The Sykes-Picot Agreement (1916) was a secret accord between which two powers concerning post-WWI division of the Middle East? A) Britain and France B) Britain and Russia C) France and Russia D) Britain and the Ottoman Empire A history medium
32 Question: In genetics, a 'silent mutation' is one that: A) Changes the amino acid but not protein function B) Does not change the encoded amino acid due to codon redundancy C) Occurs only in non-coding DNA D) Always results in a premature stop codon B genetics medium
33 Question: The Phillips curve traditionally depicts an inverse relationship between: A) GDP growth and interest rates B) Inflation and unemployment C) Exchange rates and trade balance D) Savings and investment B economics easy
34 Question: Under the doctrine of 'stare decisis,' courts are expected to: A) Always defer to legislative intent over precedent B) Follow established precedent in deciding similar future cases C) Apply foreign law when domestic law is silent D) Rule only on questions of fact, not law B law easy
35 Question: The 'Kuiper Belt' is a region of the solar system primarily composed of: A) Asteroids between Mars and Jupiter B) Icy bodies beyond Neptune's orbit C) Comets originating from interstellar space D) Dust and gas remnants of planet formation near the Sun B astronomy easy
36 Question: The Treaty of Tordesillas (1494) divided newly discovered lands outside Europe between which two powers? A) Spain and Portugal B) England and France C) Spain and England D) Portugal and the Netherlands A history medium
37 Question: In epidemiology, a 'case-control study' is best described as: A) Following a cohort forward in time to observe outcomes B) Comparing individuals with a disease to those without it, looking backward at exposures C) A randomized controlled trial of a treatment D) A cross-sectional survey at a single point in time B epidemiology medium
38 Question: The 'tragedy of the commons' concept, as formalized by Garrett Hardin, primarily illustrates a problem of: A) Information asymmetry B) Overuse of a shared, non-excludable resource by self-interested individuals C) Monopolistic price-setting D) Moral hazard in insurance markets B economics medium
39 Question: Which philosopher's 'categorical imperative' holds that one should act only according to rules one could will to be universal law? A) John Stuart Mill B) Immanuel Kant C) Jeremy Bentham D) David Hume B philosophy easy
40 Question: In contract law, 'consideration' refers to: A) The subjective fairness of a deal B) Something of value exchanged by each party that makes a promise enforceable C) A court's deliberation period before ruling D) The statute of limitations on filing suit B law medium
41 Question: The enzyme telomerase functions to: A) Repair double-strand DNA breaks B) Extend telomeres at chromosome ends, counteracting replicative shortening C) Unwind the DNA helix during replication D) Remove RNA primers from the lagging strand B biochemistry hard
42 Question: The Berlin Conference (1884-85) is most associated with: A) Ending the Franco-Prussian War B) Formalizing the European 'Scramble for Africa' and rules for colonial claims C) Establishing the German Empire D) Negotiating the Treaty of Versailles B history medium
43 Question: In economics, 'moral hazard' describes a situation where: A) Insured parties take on more risk because they are protected from its consequences B) Sellers know more about product quality than buyers C) A monopolist restricts output to raise prices D) Public goods are underprovided due to free-riding A economics medium
44 Question: The legal principle 'res judicata' prevents: A) Appealing a verdict on procedural grounds B) Relitigating a claim that has already been finally decided between the same parties C) Testifying against oneself D) Introducing hearsay evidence B law hard
45 Question: A pulsar is best described as: A) A black hole emitting Hawking radiation B) A rapidly rotating neutron star emitting beams of electromagnetic radiation C) An exploding white dwarf (Type Ia supernova) D) A binary star system with one giant and one dwarf component B astrophysics medium
46 Question: The Defenestration of Prague (1618) is generally cited as the triggering event of: A) The Hundred Years' War B) The Thirty Years' War C) The French Revolution D) The War of the Spanish Succession B history medium
47 Question: In immunology, 'antigenic drift' refers to: A) Sudden reassortment of genetic segments between two viral strains B) Gradual accumulation of point mutations in surface proteins over time C) The process by which B cells mature in the bone marrow D) Cross-reactivity between unrelated pathogens B immunology hard
48 Question: The economic concept of 'comparative advantage,' developed by David Ricardo, explains why: A) Countries should be self-sufficient in all goods B) Trade can benefit both parties even if one is more efficient at producing everything C) Tariffs always increase national welfare D) Currency devaluation guarantees a trade surplus B economics medium
49 Question: In US constitutional law, 'strict scrutiny' is the standard of judicial review applied to laws that: A) Regulate interstate commerce B) Burden a fundamental right or use a suspect classification like race C) Set tax rates D) Concern purely economic regulation with a rational basis B law hard
50 Question: Dark matter's existence is primarily inferred from: A) Direct detection in particle accelerators B) Anomalous galactic rotation curves and gravitational lensing C) The cosmic microwave background's temperature alone D) Redshift of distant supernovae B astrophysics medium
51 Question: The Munich Agreement (1938) is most notable for: A) Ending World War I B) Ceding the Sudetenland to Germany in an attempt to avoid war ('appeasement') C) Dividing Poland between Germany and the Soviet Union D) Establishing the League of Nations B history easy
52 Question: In genetics, epistasis refers to: A) The effect of one gene being masked or modified by another gene B) The inheritance of acquired traits C) Mutation caused by environmental radiation D) Crossing-over during meiosis A genetics medium
53 Question: The 'efficient market hypothesis' in finance asserts that: A) Markets always crash within predictable cycles B) Asset prices fully reflect all available information, making consistent outperformance via analysis difficult C) Government regulation always improves market efficiency D) Insider trading has no effect on prices B economics medium
54 Question: 'Habeas corpus' is a legal mechanism that: A) Allows a person to challenge the lawfulness of their detention before a court B) Grants immunity to government officials C) Establishes the right to a jury trial D) Permits class-action lawsuits A law easy
55 Question: The 'Goldilocks zone' around a star refers to the orbital region where: A) Tidal forces are minimized B) Liquid water could exist on a planet's surface given the right atmosphere C) Planets form fastest during accretion D) Magnetic fields are strongest B astronomy easy
56 Question: The Marshall Plan (1948) was primarily aimed at: A) Rebuilding Japan's economy after WWII B) Providing US economic aid to rebuild Western European economies after WWII C) Establishing NATO D) Funding the Manhattan Project B history easy
57 Question: In epidemiology, 'sensitivity' of a diagnostic test refers to: A) The proportion of true negatives correctly identified B) The proportion of true positives correctly identified C) The overall accuracy of the test D) The cost-effectiveness of the test B epidemiology medium
58 Question: A 'public good' in economics is defined by being: A) Excludable and rivalrous B) Non-excludable and non-rivalrous C) Produced only by governments D) Always underpriced relative to its cost B economics medium
59 Question: The mitochondrion's inner membrane is the site of which process? A) Glycolysis B) The electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation C) DNA replication for the whole cell D) Protein synthesis on free ribosomes B biochemistry medium
60 Question: The Yalta Conference (1945) primarily addressed: A) Terms of Japan's surrender B) Post-WWII reorganization of Europe and the war against Japan, among the Big Three Allied leaders C) Founding the European Union D) The partition of the Ottoman Empire B history medium
61 Question: In macroeconomics, 'crowding out' refers to: A) Private investment declining due to increased government borrowing raising interest rates B) Small firms being driven out by large monopolies C) Immigration reducing domestic wages D) Consumers substituting imports for domestic goods A economics hard
62 Question: The exclusionary rule in US criminal law primarily concerns: A) Excluding jurors with bias B) Barring evidence obtained through an unconstitutional search or seizure from trial C) Preventing double jeopardy D) Excluding hearsay testimony B law medium
63 Question: A solar eclipse occurs when: A) Earth passes between the Sun and Moon B) The Moon passes between the Sun and Earth, blocking sunlight C) The Moon enters Earth's shadow D) The Sun's corona becomes visible during solar maximum B astronomy easy
64 Question: The Potsdam Conference (1945) was held primarily to: A) Plan the D-Day invasion B) Decide the post-war administration of defeated Germany and issue surrender terms to Japan C) Establish the United Nations charter D) Negotiate the Treaty of Versailles B history medium
65 Question: In cell biology, apoptosis refers to: A) Uncontrolled cell division (cancerous growth) B) Programmed cell death C) Cell division during mitosis D) The process of cells engulfing pathogens B biology easy
66 Question: Keynesian economics generally argues that, during a recession, governments should: A) Cut spending to balance the budget regardless of demand B) Increase deficit spending to boost aggregate demand C) Rely solely on monetary policy and avoid fiscal action D) Raise interest rates to encourage saving B economics medium
67 Question: 'Mens rea' in criminal law refers to: A) The physical act of committing a crime B) The mental intent or knowledge of wrongdoing required for criminal liability C) The sentence imposed after conviction D) A legal defense based on insanity B law medium
68 Question: Nuclear fusion in the Sun's core primarily converts: A) Helium into carbon B) Hydrogen into helium C) Carbon into iron D) Helium directly into energy with no byproduct B astrophysics easy
69 Question: The Truman Doctrine (1947) committed the US to: A) Direct military intervention in Korea B) Providing economic and military aid to countries resisting communist expansion, starting with Greece and Turkey C) Establishing NATO D) Recognizing the People's Republic of China B history medium
70 Question: In statistics, a Type I error refers to: A) Failing to reject a false null hypothesis B) Incorrectly rejecting a true null hypothesis (a false positive) C) Using the wrong sample size D) Confusing correlation with causation B statistics medium
71 Question: The doctrine of 'separation of powers' is most directly associated with which philosopher's formulation? A) John Locke B) Montesquieu C) Thomas Hobbes D) Jean-Jacques Rousseau B philosophy medium
72 Question: A 'black swan event' in risk theory, per Nassim Taleb, refers to: A) A common, predictable market fluctuation B) A rare, high-impact event that is difficult to predict in advance but seems obvious in hindsight C) A government bailout of a failing bank D) Seasonal stock market volatility B economics medium
73 Question: DNA polymerase synthesizes new DNA strands in which direction relative to the template? A) 3' to 5' B) 5' to 3' C) Bidirectionally from the origin only D) Direction is random per nucleotide B biochemistry hard
74 Question: The Opium Wars (19th century) were fought primarily between China and which power(s)? A) Japan B) Britain (and later France) C) Russia D) The Netherlands B history medium
75 Question: In economics, 'sticky wages' help explain why: A) Labor markets clear instantly after a demand shock B) Unemployment can persist after a negative demand shock, since wages don't fall quickly to restore equilibrium C) Minimum wage laws are unnecessary D) Inflation always reduces real wages permanently B economics hard
76 Question: The 'fruit of the poisonous tree' doctrine in US law holds that: A) Evidence derived from an illegal search is also inadmissible, not just the initial evidence B) Only the directly seized evidence is excluded C) Civil suits cannot use criminal evidence D) Plea bargains void all prior evidence A law hard
77 Question: A 'main sequence' star, like the Sun, generates energy primarily through: A) Gravitational contraction alone B) Hydrogen fusion in its core C) Radioactive decay of heavy elements D) Accretion of surrounding gas B astrophysics easy
78 Question: The Cuban Missile Crisis (1962) was triggered by: A) A US invasion of Cuba B) The Soviet Union placing nuclear missiles in Cuba, discovered by US intelligence C) Cuba's nationalization of US oil companies D) A failed coup against Castro B history easy
79 Question: In statistics, 'regression toward the mean' describes the tendency for: A) Extreme observations to be followed by less extreme ones on repeated measurement B) Sample means to always equal population means C) Variance to increase over repeated trials D) Correlation to imply causation A statistics medium
80 Question: The utilitarian philosophy of Jeremy Bentham and John Stuart Mill holds that the morally right action is the one that: A) Follows a strict set of universal duties regardless of outcome B) Maximizes overall happiness or utility C) Reflects the actor's virtuous character D) Conforms to divine command B philosophy easy
81 Question: A 'leveraged buyout' (LBO) in finance refers to: A) Acquiring a company using a significant amount of borrowed money, often secured against the target's own assets B) A government bailout of a failing firm C) Issuing new equity to raise capital without debt D) A hostile takeover using only cash reserves A economics medium
82 Question: The 'chain of custody' in evidence law refers to: A) The order in which witnesses testify B) Documentation tracking who handled physical evidence from collection to trial, to establish its integrity C) The hierarchy of appellate courts D) The sequence of charges in an indictment B law medium
83 Question: An 'event horizon' of a black hole is best described as: A) The point of maximum density at the singularity B) The boundary beyond which nothing, including light, can escape the black hole's gravity C) The accretion disk's outer edge D) The region where Hawking radiation is emitted most intensely B astrophysics easy
84 Question: CRISPR-Cas9 gene editing works by: A) Directly synthesizing new proteins from RNA templates B) Using a guide RNA to direct the Cas9 enzyme to cut DNA at a specific sequence C) Inserting whole chromosomes into a cell D) Silencing genes via methylation alone B biochemistry hard
85 Question: The Treaty of Versailles (1919) is most associated with: A) Ending World War II B) Formally ending World War I and imposing reparations/territorial losses on Germany C) Establishing the United Nations D) The partition of British India B history easy
86 Question: 'Quantitative easing' as a central bank policy tool involves: A) Raising interest rates to combat inflation B) Large-scale asset purchases to inject liquidity into the economy when conventional rate cuts are exhausted C) Imposing capital controls on foreign exchange D) Reducing the money supply directly B economics hard
87 Question: The 'rule of lenity' in criminal law dictates that: A) Ambiguous criminal statutes should be interpreted in favor of the defendant B) Repeat offenders receive automatically harsher sentences C) Judges must defer entirely to jury sentencing recommendations D) Civil penalties always take precedence over criminal ones A law hard
88 Question: Gravitational waves, first directly detected by LIGO in 2015, are produced by: A) Stars undergoing nuclear fusion B) Accelerating massive objects, such as merging black holes or neutron stars C) Light bending around massive objects D) Cosmic ray collisions in the upper atmosphere B astrophysics medium
89 Question: The Berlin Wall fell in which year, marking a major symbolic end to the Cold War's division of Europe? A) 1985 B) 1989 C) 1991 D) 1994 B history easy
90 Question: In economics, 'externality' refers to: A) A cost or benefit affecting a third party not involved in a transaction B) Profit earned from foreign trade C) A firm's expenses outside its core operations D) Government spending unrelated to GDP A economics easy
91 Question: The legal concept of 'negligence' generally requires proving: A) Intent to cause harm B) Duty of care, breach of that duty, causation, and damages C) A signed contract between the parties D) Criminal intent (mens rea) B law medium
92 Question: A 'supernova' occurs when: A) A star slowly cools into a white dwarf B) A massive star exhausts its nuclear fuel and undergoes a catastrophic core collapse and explosion C) Two galaxies merge D) A planet's atmosphere escapes into space B astrophysics easy
93 Question: The Marshall Court (under Chief Justice John Marshall) significantly strengthened which branch of the US federal government? A) The legislative branch B) The executive branch C) The judicial branch, via judicial review and broad federal power rulings D) State governments collectively C law medium
94 Question: In statistics, the 'central limit theorem' states that: A) All distributions are normal B) The sampling distribution of the mean approaches a normal distribution as sample size grows, regardless of the population's distribution C) Larger samples always have smaller variance than the population D) Correlation implies causation in large samples B statistics medium
95 Question: Mitochondria are often called the 'powerhouse of the cell' because they primarily produce: A) DNA B) ATP via oxidative phosphorylation C) Ribosomes D) Lipids for the cell membrane B biology easy
96 Question: The Iranian Revolution (1979) resulted in: A) The restoration of the Shah's monarchy B) The overthrow of the Shah and establishment of an Islamic Republic C) A democratic parliamentary system aligned with the West D) Annexation by neighboring Iraq B history medium
97 Question: 'Adverse selection' in insurance markets refers to: A) Insurers selecting only low-risk customers B) High-risk individuals being more likely to seek insurance than low-risk individuals, given asymmetric information C) Government mandates increasing premiums D) Insurers going bankrupt due to natural disasters B economics hard
98 Question: The 'exclusionary rule' aside, 'Miranda rights' (from Miranda v. Arizona) require police to inform a suspect of: A) Their right to a speedy trial only B) Their right to remain silent and to an attorney before custodial interrogation C) Their right to bail D) Their right to a jury of their peers B law easy
99 Question: A 'white dwarf' is the remnant of a star that has: A) Exhausted its nuclear fuel and shed its outer layers, leaving a dense, cooling core supported by electron degeneracy pressure B) Collapsed entirely into a black hole C) Exploded completely with no remnant D) Merged with a companion star to form a neutron star A astrophysics medium
100 Question: The 'domino theory,' invoked during the Cold War (notably regarding Vietnam), held that: A) Communist economies would naturally collapse one after another B) If one country fell to communism, neighboring countries would follow in a chain reaction C) Nuclear weapons would spread uncontrollably between allied nations D) Trade agreements would cascade across a region B history medium

4. Logic & Reasoning (100 questions)

# Question Gold Category Difficulty
1 Question: All Bloops are Razzies. All Razzies are Lazzies. Some Lazzies are Wuzzies. Which must be true? A) All Bloops are Wuzzies B) All Bloops are Lazzies C) Some Wuzzies are Bloops D) No Bloops are Wuzzies B syllogism medium
2 Question: The argument 'If it rains, the ground is wet. The ground is wet. Therefore it rained.' commits which fallacy? A) Denying the antecedent B) Affirming the consequent C) Modus tollens (correctly applied) D) Circular reasoning B propositional easy
3 Question: By De Morgan's law, NOT(P AND Q) is logically equivalent to: A) NOT P AND NOT Q B) P OR Q C) NOT P OR NOT Q D) P AND Q C propositional easy
4 Question: In modal logic, the axiom T (□P -> P) corresponds to the accessibility relation being: A) Symmetric B) Transitive C) Reflexive D) Euclidean C modal hard
5 Question: Five people (A,B,C,D,E) sit in a row of 5 seats. A is immediately left of B. C is leftmost (seat 1). D is immediately right of C. E is not adjacent to D. Where must E sit? A) Seat 2 B) Seat 3 C) Seat 4 D) Seat 5 D spatial hard
6 Question: From the resolution rule, (P OR Q) and (NOT P OR R) together imply: A) P B) Q OR R C) P AND R D) NOT Q OR NOT R B propositional medium
7 Question: 'All cats are mammals. Some mammals are not pets. Therefore some cats are not pets.' This argument is: A) Valid B) Invalid -- the conclusion doesn't follow from the premises C) Valid only if all pets are mammals D) A tautology B syllogism hard
8 Question: A bag has only red and blue balls. If you draw 2 balls and at least one is red is a CERTAIN event, what is the minimum number of blue balls possible, given there are also at least 2 red balls and the bag has more than 2 balls total? A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) Cannot be determined A deduction medium
9 Question: The statement 'This statement is false' is an example of: A) A tautology B) The liar's paradox -- it cannot be consistently assigned true or false C) A valid syllogism D) An example of modus ponens B paradox easy
10 Question: In a room, everyone who wears glasses also wears a watch. Tom wears a watch but no glasses. What can you conclude about Tom? A) Tom must wear glasses B) Tom cannot wear glasses C) Nothing can be concluded about Tom's glasses from this alone D) Tom is lying C deduction medium
11 Question: Which of these is a tautology (true under every truth assignment)? A) P AND NOT P B) P OR Q C) (P -> Q) <-> (NOT Q -> NOT P) D) P -> (P AND Q) C propositional medium
12 Question: Four boxes are stacked. Box 1 is directly on top of Box 2. Box 3 is below Box 2. Box 4 is on top of Box 1. From top to bottom, what is the order? A) 4,1,2,3 B) 1,4,2,3 C) 4,1,3,2 D) 1,2,3,4 A spatial medium
13 Question: A set of propositional formulas is CONSISTENT if and only if: A) No formula in the set is a tautology B) Some truth assignment satisfies every formula in the set simultaneously C) The set has exactly one model D) No two formulas in the set share a variable B propositional hard
14 Question: 'Every even number greater than 2 can be written as a sum of two primes' is the statement of: A) Fermat's Last Theorem B) Goldbach's Conjecture C) The Twin Prime Conjecture D) The Collatz Conjecture B general_logic easy
15 Question: Knights always tell the truth, knaves always lie. A says 'B and I are both knights.' B says 'A is a knave.' What are A and B? A) A is a knight, B is a knave B) A is a knave, B is a knight C) Both are knights D) Both are knaves B deduction hard
16 Question: The predicate formula 'for all x, there exists y such that x < y' means: A) There is an x greater than all y B) For every x, there is some y greater than it (no maximum element) C) There exist some x and y with x<y D) For all x and y, x<y B predicate medium
17 Question: A implies B. B implies C. C is false. What can be concluded? A) A is false B) A is true C) B is true D) Nothing can be concluded about A A propositional easy
18 Question: In a knights-and-knaves puzzle, knights always tell the truth and knaves always lie. A says 'I am a knave.' What is A? A) A knight B) A knave C) Neither -- the statement is a contradiction, no consistent assignment exists D) Could be either C paradox medium
19 Question: 'No reptiles are warm-blooded. All snakes are reptiles. Therefore no snakes are warm-blooded.' This syllogism is: A) Valid B) Invalid due to undistributed middle term C) Invalid due to illicit major D) Valid only for some snakes A syllogism medium
20 Question: Material implication P -> Q is FALSE only when: A) P is true B) Q is true C) P is true and Q is false D) P is false C propositional easy
21 Question: Four people (W,X,Y,Z) sit in a row of 4 seats. W is somewhere to the left of X. Y is immediately to the right of Z. X is not at either end. What seat is Y in? A) Seat 1 B) Seat 2 C) Seat 3 D) Seat 4 D spatial hard
22 Question: Five people (A,B,C,D,E) sit in a row of 5 seats. B sits exactly two seats to the right of A. E sits immediately to the right of D. A is NOT in the leftmost seat. What seat is C in? A) Seat 1 B) Seat 2 C) Seat 3 D) Seat 4 D spatial hard
23 Question: Knights always tell the truth, knaves always lie. A says 'B is a knave.' B says 'C is a knight.' C says 'A and B are both knaves.' What are A, B, and C? A) A knight, B knave, C knave B) A knave, B knight, C knight C) All three are knights D) All three are knaves A deduction hard
24 Question: P implies Q. Q implies R. R is false. By modus tollens chaining, what can be concluded? A) P is true B) P is false C) Q is true D) Nothing can be concluded about P B propositional medium
25 Question: Four boxes are stacked vertically. Box S is directly above Box P. Box P is directly above Box Q. Box Q is directly above Box R. From top to bottom, what is the order? A) S,P,Q,R B) R,Q,P,S C) P,S,Q,R D) S,Q,P,R A spatial easy
26 Question: The NAND operation (NOT(P AND P)) applied to a single variable P twice is logically equivalent to: A) P B) NOT P C) Always true D) Always false B propositional medium
27 Question: 'All squares are rectangles. Some rectangles are not rhombi. Therefore some squares are not rhombi.' This argument is: A) Valid B) Invalid -- the conclusion does not follow; in fact all squares ARE rhombi C) Valid only for non-square rectangles D) A tautology B syllogism hard
28 Question: In a 2x2 grid of 4 cells, you must place 2 black tokens such that no two black tokens are in the same row or column. How many distinct placements are possible? A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 6 B spatial medium
29 Question: By contraposition, the statement 'If P then Q' is logically equivalent to: A) If Q then P B) If NOT Q then NOT P C) If NOT P then NOT Q D) P and NOT Q B propositional easy
30 Question: Three switches outside a room each control one of three bulbs inside, but you can only enter the room once to observe. You may flip switches any number of times before entering. What is the minimum number of times you must enter the room to determine which switch controls which bulb? A) 3 B) 2 C) 1 D) 0 (impossible without entering twice) C deduction hard
31 Question: 'Some Glorps are Trundles. All Trundles are Wexels. Therefore some Glorps are Wexels.' This syllogism is: A) Valid B) Invalid due to undistributed middle C) Invalid due to illicit minor D) Valid only if no Glorps are Wexels A syllogism medium
32 Question: A statement and its converse are logically equivalent: A) Always B) Never C) Only for biconditional (if-and-only-if) statements D) Only when both P and Q are true C propositional easy
33 Question: 'If the alarm is armed, then entering triggers a siren. The siren did not sound when someone entered. Therefore the alarm was not armed.' This is an application of: A) Modus ponens B) Modus tollens C) Affirming the consequent (a fallacy) D) Denying the antecedent (a fallacy) B propositional easy
34 Question: In an exclusive-or (XOR) gate, the output is true exactly when: A) Both inputs are true B) Both inputs are false C) Exactly one input is true D) At least one input is true C propositional easy
35 Question: A is taller than B. C is shorter than B. D is taller than A. Who is the shortest? A) A B) B C) C D) D C deduction easy
36 Question: 'No fish are mammals. All whales are mammals. Therefore no whales are fish.' This syllogism's logical form is: A) Valid B) Invalid due to undistributed middle C) Invalid due to four terms D) An enthymeme missing a premise A syllogism medium
37 Question: For a biconditional P <-> Q to be FALSE, which must be true? A) P and Q have the same truth value B) P and Q have different truth values C) Both P and Q must be false D) Both P and Q must be true B propositional easy
38 Question: Three suspects each make one statement; truth-tellers' statements are true and liars' statements are false. X says 'Y is lying.' Y says 'Z is lying.' Z says 'X and Y are both lying.' Exactly one of the three is telling the truth -- who is it? A) X B) Y C) Z D) No consistent assignment exists B deduction hard
39 Question: A valid argument with true premises must have: A) A true conclusion B) A false conclusion C) An ambiguous conclusion D) No necessary relationship to its conclusion's truth A general_logic easy
40 Question: In set theory, if A is a subset of B and B is a subset of A, then: A) A and B are disjoint B) A equals B C) A is the empty set D) B is the universal set B predicate easy
41 Question: Four people occupy the four rooms of a 2x2 grid (NW, NE, SW, SE). A is directly north of C. B is directly east of A. Which room is D in? A) NW B) NE C) SW D) SE D spatial medium
42 Question: Five runners (Alice, Bob, Carol, Dave, Eve) finish a race with no ties. Alice finishes before Bob. Carol finishes immediately after Alice. Dave finishes last. Eve finishes before Carol. Who finishes first? A) Alice B) Bob C) Carol D) Eve D spatial hard
43 Question: Four people each make a statement, in a cycle: A says 'B lies.' B says 'C lies.' C says 'D lies.' D says 'A lies.' Truth-tellers' statements are true, liars' statements are false. How many of the four are telling the truth? A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 4 C deduction hard
44 Question: (P OR Q) AND (NOT P OR NOT Q) is logically equivalent to: A) P AND Q B) P XOR Q (exactly one of P, Q is true) C) NOT P AND NOT Q D) Always false B propositional medium
45 Question: Set A has 5 elements, set B has 4 elements, and A intersect B has 2 elements. How many elements are in A union B? A) 5 B) 6 C) 7 D) 9 C predicate easy
46 Question: Six people (A-F) sit evenly spaced around a round table. D sits directly opposite A. B sits immediately clockwise of A. C sits immediately counter-clockwise of D. How many people sit between B and C going clockwise (not counting B or C themselves)? A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 A spatial hard
47 Question: 'If it is sunny, we go to the beach. If we go to the beach, we get a tan. We did not get a tan.' By chained modus tollens, what follows? A) It was not sunny B) It was sunny C) We went to the beach D) Nothing can be concluded A propositional medium
48 Question: A statement of the form 'P AND NOT P' is called: A) A tautology B) A contradiction (always false) C) A contingency D) A biconditional B propositional easy
49 Question: Five people (A,B,C,D,E) sit in a row of 5 seats. C sits in the exact middle seat (seat 3). A sits at one of the two ends. B sits immediately to the right of A. D sits immediately to the right of E. Which seat is A in? A) Seat 1 B) Seat 2 C) Seat 4 D) Seat 5 A spatial hard
50 Question: Three people A, B, C each make a statement. Exactly 2 of the 3 are knights (truth-tellers); the rest are knaves (liars). A says 'I am a knight.' B says 'A is a knight.' C says 'B is a knave.' Who is the knave? A) A B) B C) C D) No consistent assignment exists C deduction hard
51 Question: NOT(P OR Q) is logically equivalent to: A) NOT P OR NOT Q B) NOT P AND NOT Q C) P AND Q D) P OR Q B propositional easy
52 Question: Four students rank 1st through 4th on a test with no ties. Tom scores higher than Jerry. Sue scores lower than Jerry. Ann scores highest of all. What rank does Sue have? A) 1st B) 2nd C) 3rd D) 4th (last) D spatial medium
53 Question: If 'All A are B' and 'All B are C' are both true, then by transitivity: A) All C are A B) All A are C C) Some A are not C D) No conclusion about A and C follows B syllogism easy
54 Question: A->B is true. B is false. What follows about A by modus tollens? A) A is true B) A is false C) A could be either D) B must actually be true B propositional easy
55 Question: In predicate logic, the statement 'there exists x such that for all y, x loves y' means: A) Everyone loves everyone B) There is at least one person who loves everyone C) Everyone loves at least one person D) No one loves anyone B predicate medium
56 Question: Six people (A-F) sit in a row of 6 seats. F is at one of the two ends. A sits immediately to the right of F. D sits immediately to the right of C. B is not adjacent to A. E sits somewhere between C and B. Which seat is F in? A) Seat 1 B) Seat 3 C) Seat 4 D) Seat 6 A spatial hard
57 Question: In how many ways can the 4 nodes of a path graph (1-2-3-4, each node adjacent only to its immediate neighbor(s)) be properly colored using exactly 2 colors such that no two adjacent nodes share a color? A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 8 B general_logic medium
58 Question: In how many ways can a triangle (3 mutually adjacent nodes) be properly colored using exactly 3 available colors, with no two adjacent nodes sharing a color? A) 3 B) 6 C) 9 D) 27 B general_logic medium
59 Question: P <-> Q (biconditional) is logically equivalent to: A) (P AND Q) OR (NOT P AND NOT Q) B) (P OR Q) AND (NOT P OR NOT Q) C) P AND Q only D) NOT P AND NOT Q only A propositional medium
60 Question: By disjunctive syllogism, from '(P OR Q) is true' and 'P is false', what follows? A) Q is true B) Q is false C) P is true D) Nothing follows A propositional easy
61 Question: Four houses in a row are painted red, blue, green, and yellow (each used once). The red house is not at either end. The green house is immediately right of the blue house. The yellow house is at one end. The blue house is also not at either end. Which color is the second house from the left? A) Red B) Blue C) Green D) Yellow A spatial hard
62 Question: 'All A are B. All B are C. Some C are not D.' Does it necessarily follow that 'some A are not D'? A) Yes, it is a valid conclusion B) No -- a concrete counterexample shows A can be entirely within D even when the premises hold C) Only if A and D are disjoint D) Only if B equals C B syllogism hard
63 Question: Five students (Sam, Pat, Kim, Lee, Jo) are assigned lockers numbered 1-5, each a different number. Sam's locker number is prime. Pat's locker number is immediately after Sam's. Kim has locker 1. Lee's locker number is even and greater than Pat's. What locker number does Jo get? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 D spatial hard
64 Question: P implies Q. Q implies R. P is true. By chained modus ponens, what follows? A) R is true B) R is false C) Q is false D) Nothing can be concluded about R A propositional easy
65 Question: A statement that is true under every possible truth assignment of its variables is called: A) A contradiction B) A contingency C) A tautology D) An antecedent C propositional easy
66 Question: A deck has 4 cards face down: 2 red, 2 black. You flip 2 of the 4 cards at random (without replacement). The probability both flipped cards are the same color is a/b in lowest terms. What is a+b? A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 7 B deduction medium
67 Question: In classical logic, the statement 'P only if Q' is logically translated as: A) Q -> P B) P -> Q C) P <-> Q D) NOT P -> NOT Q B propositional medium
68 Question: 4 cups are in a row at positions 1,2,3,4. A ball starts under the cup at position 1. Three swaps occur in order: swap positions 1&2, then swap positions 2&3, then swap positions 1&3. Which position is the ball under now? A) Position 1 B) Position 2 C) Position 3 D) Position 4 A spatial medium
69 Question: Five books A,B,C,D,E are ranked by height. Book A is shorter than Book B. Book A is taller than Book C. Book D is shorter than Book C. Book E is the shortest of all five. Ranking from tallest to shortest, which book is in the middle (3rd)? A) A B) B C) C D) D C spatial hard
70 Question: By De Morgan's law extended to three variables, NOT(P AND Q AND R) is equivalent to: A) NOT P AND NOT Q AND NOT R B) NOT P OR NOT Q OR NOT R C) P OR Q OR R D) (P AND Q) OR R B propositional medium
71 Question: By hypothetical syllogism, from 'P implies Q' and 'Q implies R', what follows? A) P implies R B) R implies P C) Q implies P D) Nothing follows about P and R directly A propositional easy
72 Question: By constructive dilemma, from '(P implies Q) AND (R implies S)' and '(P OR R)', what follows? A) Q OR S B) Q AND S C) P AND R D) Nothing follows A propositional medium
73 Question: Alice is currently twice as old as Bob. In 5 years, Alice will be 1.5 times Bob's age. How old is Alice right now? A) 5 B) 8 C) 10 D) 12 C deduction hard
74 Question: Amy, Ben, and Cara each own a different pet: a cat, a dog, or a fish. Amy does not own the cat. Ben does not own the fish. Amy does not own the dog. What pet does Amy own? A) Cat B) Dog C) Fish D) Cannot be determined C deduction medium
75 Question: Five runners finish a race with no ties. Diana finishes before Eve. Eve finishes before Frank. Carol finishes before Diana. Bella finishes last. Who finishes first? A) Carol B) Diana C) Eve D) Frank A spatial medium
76 Question: 'No A are B. No B are C.' Does it necessarily follow that 'no A are C'? A) Yes, always B) No -- a concrete counterexample shows A and C can fully overlap even when both premises hold C) Only if A and B are the same size D) Only if C is empty B syllogism hard
77 Question: 'Some students passed the exam. All who passed received a certificate.' Does it follow that 'some students received a certificate'? A) Yes, this is a valid conclusion B) No, it's a fallacy C) Only if all students passed D) Only if no students passed A syllogism easy
78 Question: Three friends Joe, Kim, and Lee each have a different number of marbles: 5, 8, and 12 (each number used once). Joe has more marbles than Kim. Lee has fewer marbles than Joe. How many marbles does Joe have? A) 5 B) 8 C) 12 D) Cannot be determined C deduction medium
79 Question: Are the statements 'For every box, there exists a key that opens it' and 'There exists a key that opens every box' logically equivalent? A) Yes, always equivalent B) No -- the first allows different keys for different boxes, the second requires one universal key C) Only when there is exactly one box D) Only when there is exactly one key B predicate hard
80 Question: 'If it is not raining, the picnic happens. The picnic did not happen.' What follows? A) It is raining B) It is not raining C) The picnic happened D) Nothing can be concluded A propositional medium
81 Question: Four cars (red, blue, green, yellow) are parked in spots 1-4 in some order. The red car is in spot 1. The blue car is immediately to the right of the red car. The green car is in spot 4. Which spot is the yellow car in? A) Spot 1 B) Spot 2 C) Spot 3 D) Spot 4 C spatial medium
82 Question: B is taller than A. A is taller than C. By transitivity, what can be concluded about B and C? A) B is taller than C B) C is taller than B C) B and C are the same height D) Nothing can be concluded A deduction easy
83 Question: You have 8 coins, one of which is fake and lighter than the rest (identical otherwise). Using a balance scale, what is the minimum number of weighings needed to guarantee finding the fake coin? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 B deduction hard
84 Question: The NAND operation P NAND Q is defined as: A) P AND Q B) NOT(P AND Q) C) P OR Q D) NOT(P OR Q) B propositional easy
85 Question: Four people A, B, C, D stand evenly spaced in a circle. A is directly opposite C. B is immediately clockwise of A. D is immediately counter-clockwise of A. Who is directly opposite B? A) A B) C C) D D) Cannot be determined C spatial medium
86 Question: 'P or Q (at least one is true). Q is false.' By disjunctive syllogism, what follows? A) P is true B) P is false C) Q is true D) Nothing follows A propositional easy
87 Question: Tom is older than Sam. Sam is older than Ria. Ria is older than Bo. Who is the youngest? A) Tom B) Sam C) Ria D) Bo D deduction easy
88 Question: 'You get a bonus if and only if you exceed quota.' You did NOT get a bonus. What follows? A) You exceeded quota B) You did not exceed quota C) You might or might not have exceeded quota D) The statement is contradictory B propositional medium
89 Question: The statement 'Neither P nor Q' is logically equivalent to: A) P AND Q B) P OR Q C) NOT P AND NOT Q D) NOT P OR NOT Q C propositional easy
90 Question: Four racers A, B, C, D finish a race; one of gold/silver/bronze/no medal is awarded by finishing order. A beat B. C got no medal. B beat D. Who got the gold medal? A) A B) B C) C D) D A spatial hard
91 Question: Five boxes labeled 1-5 are stacked. Box 3 is at the very bottom. Box 1 is directly on top of box 4. Box 5 is directly on top of box 1. Box 2 is at the very top. From bottom to top, what is the order? A) 3,4,1,5,2 B) 3,1,4,5,2 C) 3,4,5,1,2 D) 2,5,1,4,3 A spatial hard
92 Question: 'All efficient markets are unpredictable. This market is unpredictable. Therefore this market is efficient.' This argument is: A) Valid B) Invalid -- affirming the consequent; a market can be unpredictable without being efficient C) Valid only for stock markets D) A tautology B syllogism medium
93 Question: The contrapositive of 'All A are B' is: A) All B are A B) All non-B are non-A C) All non-A are non-B D) Some A are not B B syllogism medium
94 Question: By the exportation law, '(P AND Q) implies R' is logically equivalent to: A) P implies (Q implies R) B) Q implies (P implies R) C) Both A and B are correct equivalent forms D) (P implies R) AND (Q implies R) C propositional hard
95 Question: By the absorption law, 'P OR (P AND Q)' simplifies to: A) Q B) P C) P AND Q D) True (always) B propositional medium
96 Question: By the idempotent law, 'P AND P' and 'P OR P' both simplify to: A) True B) False C) P D) NOT P C propositional easy
97 Question: Four people stand in a cycle, each saying 'the next person (clockwise) is a knight.' Knights always tell the truth, knaves always lie. How many self-consistent assignments of knight/knave are possible for the whole group? A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 4 C deduction hard
98 Question: By the distributive law, 'P AND (Q OR R)' is logically equivalent to: A) (P AND Q) OR (P AND R) B) (P OR Q) AND (P OR R) C) P AND Q AND R D) P OR Q OR R A propositional medium
99 Question: If equality is transitive and A=B and B=C, what can be concluded? A) A=C B) A is not C C) B is undefined D) Nothing can be concluded A deduction easy
100 Question: A 'sound' argument, in formal logic, is one that is: A) Merely persuasive B) Valid AND has all true premises (guaranteeing a true conclusion) C) Valid but with at least one false premise D) Any argument with a true conclusion B general_logic medium

5. Instruction Following (100 questions)

Verified programmatically (Python verifier function per question, not shown -- the constraint is fully specified in the question text itself).

# Question Difficulty
1 Write a short sentence about a cat sitting on a mat, WITHOUT using the letter 'e' anywhere in your response. medium
2 List exactly 3 fruits, each on its own line starting with a dash (-). No other text. easy
3 Respond with ONLY a valid JSON object with exactly two keys: "name" (a string) and "age" (an integer). No other text, no markdown code fences. medium
4 Write a sentence that contains the word 'banana' exactly twice. medium
5 Respond with EXACTLY one sentence (exactly one terminal punctuation mark: period, exclamation point, or question mark, and nothing after it). easy
6 Respond in ALL UPPERCASE letters only. easy
7 Describe the number five in words, WITHOUT using any digit characters (0-9) anywhere in your response. medium
8 Respond with EXACTLY 5 words, no more, no less. Separate words by single spaces, no punctuation. medium
9 Respond with a single English palindrome word (a word spelled the same forwards and backwards) that is at least 4 letters long. Respond with only the word. hard
10 Respond with ONLY a valid JSON array of exactly 3 integers, sorted in ascending order. No other text. medium
11 Respond with the date January 1, 2025 written ONLY in ISO 8601 format (YYYY-MM-DD). No other text. easy
12 Write a sentence of at least 5 words in which NO word is repeated (case-insensitive, ignoring punctuation). medium
13 Respond with a single integer between 1 and 100 (inclusive) that is BOTH a perfect square AND even. Number only. hard
14 Respond with a single word or token containing NO whitespace characters at all. easy
15 Respond with ONLY a valid JSON object of the exact shape {"items": [a, b, c]} where a, b, c are three NEGATIVE integers. No other text. hard
16 Respond with EXACTLY 10 words, no more, no less. medium
17 Write a short phrase (at least 3 words) that contains NO vowels (a, e, i, o, u) anywhere, uppercase or lowercase. hard
18 Respond with ONLY a valid JSON array of exactly 4 strings. No other text. medium
19 Write a short phrase where the first word and the last word are identical (ignoring punctuation and case). medium
20 Write the number 4,200 entirely in English words, with NO digit characters anywhere in your response. medium
21 Respond with exactly 2 question marks and no periods or exclamation points anywhere in your response. medium
22 Respond with exactly 5 distinct single letters (A-Z), separated by commas, e.g. 'A, B, C, D, E'. No other text. medium
23 Respond with ONLY a valid JSON object of the exact shape {"valid": true} or {"valid": false} -- a single boolean field named "valid". No other text. medium
24 Write a sentence that contains the substring '42' exactly once. easy
25 Respond with a single English word that is an anagram of the word LISTEN. Respond with only the word. hard
26 Respond with a single word that contains a double letter (the same letter appearing twice in a row), with no spaces. easy
27 Respond with exactly 3 lines, each line a different color name, no duplicates. easy
28 Respond with a single word wrapped in markdown bold (e.g. word) and nothing else. easy
29 Respond with ONLY a valid JSON object of the exact shape {"min": X, "max": Y} where X and Y are integers and X is strictly less than Y. No other text. medium
30 Respond with a single English word, at least 3 letters, ending in the letters 'at'. easy
31 Write a short sentence containing EXACTLY one capital letter in the entire response (including the first letter). medium
32 Write a sentence of at least 4 words where each word is strictly longer than the previous word. hard
33 Respond with a single integer that is equal to its own square root rounded to the nearest integer. medium
34 Write a single English word (at least 5 letters) in which no letter repeats. medium
35 Write a sentence containing exactly 3 commas. easy
36 Respond with the 26 letters of the English alphabet in REVERSE order (Z first, A last), comma-separated, no spaces, no other text. easy
37 Respond with a single lowercase word of at least 6 letters, no spaces, no punctuation, no digits. easy
38 Write a sentence that ends with a colon followed by exactly 3 comma-separated items. medium
39 Respond with ONLY a valid JSON array of exactly 3 numbers, each between 0 and 1 inclusive. No other text. medium
40 Respond with a single English word that is EXACTLY 5 letters long and reads the same forwards and backwards. medium
41 Respond with a single English word that is EXACTLY 7 letters long. easy
42 Respond with ONLY a valid 6-digit hex color code in the format #rrggbb (e.g. #1a2b3c). No other text. easy
43 Write a sentence of at least 4 words containing NO letter 't' or 'T' anywhere. medium
44 Respond with ONLY a valid JSON array of exactly 2 objects, each of the shape {"x": int, "y": int}. No other text. medium
45 Write a sentence of at least 3 words in which every word is exactly 4 letters long. medium
46 Write a sentence that uses each of the words 'red', 'blue', and 'green' exactly once. medium
47 Respond with a markdown numbered list of EXACTLY 3 items, numbered 1. 2. 3. easy
48 Respond with a single English word (at least 4 letters) that starts and ends with the same letter. easy
49 Respond with ONLY a valid JSON object of the exact shape {"count": N} where N is a positive even integer. No other text. medium
50 Write a sentence of at least 4 words where every word starts with the same letter (alliteration). medium
51 Respond with a single English word (at least 4 letters) in which no letter appears more than twice. medium
52 Write a sentence containing exactly one semicolon. easy
53 Respond with ONLY a valid JSON object of the exact shape {"items": [a, b, c]} where a, b, c are 3 distinct lowercase strings. No other text. medium
54 Respond with text that is EXACTLY 20 characters long, including spaces. medium
55 Write a question (ending in a question mark) that contains the word 'why'. easy
56 Respond with exactly the lowercase word 'yes' or the lowercase word 'no', nothing else. easy
57 Respond with ONLY a valid JSON array of exactly 5 consecutive ascending integers (e.g. [3,4,5,6,7]). No other text. medium
58 Respond with a single English word, at least 5 letters, ending in 'ing'. easy
59 Respond with exactly two words, both of which are the same length (ignoring trailing punctuation). medium
60 Write a phrase of at least 7 letters (ignoring spaces and punctuation, case-insensitive) that is a palindrome. hard
61 Write a sentence that contains both an exclamation point and a question mark. easy
62 Respond with ONLY a valid JSON object of the exact shape {"name": str, "tags": [str, str, ...]} where tags has at least 2 strings. No other text. medium
63 Respond with a single English word that is identical in its singular and plural form (e.g. one such animal name). medium
64 Write a sentence in lowercase except for exactly one word written in ALL CAPS for emphasis. medium
65 Write a sentence that contains a Roman numeral (e.g. IX, IV, XII). medium
66 Write a sentence of at least 4 words where the 2nd word and the 2nd-to-last word are identical (case-insensitive, ignoring punctuation). medium
67 Respond with exactly the text 'null' (lowercase, nothing else) -- the valid JSON null literal. easy
68 Write a sentence containing a contraction (a word with an apostrophe, e.g. can't, it's, don't). easy
69 Respond with exactly 3 words, in strict alphabetical order. medium
70 Write a sentence where the total number of words equals the number of letters in the first word. hard
71 Write a sentence of at least 3 words where no word is longer than 4 letters. medium
72 Respond with ONLY a valid JSON array of at least 2 numbers whose sum is exactly 100. No other text. medium
73 Respond with a single English word (at least 4 letters) using only letters from the first half of the alphabet (a through m). medium
74 Write a sentence that ends with an ellipsis (...). easy
75 Write a phrase (at least 4 letters total) with an EQUAL number of vowels and consonants. medium
76 Write a sentence that spells out a number in words (e.g. 'three') and uses NO digit characters anywhere. medium
77 Respond with ONLY a valid JSON array of exactly 4 booleans, with exactly 2 of them true. No other text. medium
78 Respond with a single English word that contains all 5 vowels (a, e, i, o, u) at least once. hard
79 Write a sentence of at least 4 words where each word is strictly SHORTER than the previous word. hard
80 Write a phrase of at least 3 words that reads the same sequence of words forwards and backwards (a word-level palindrome, e.g. 'dog cat dog'). hard
81 Respond with ONLY a valid JSON object with at least 2 keys, where every value is an integer (no strings, no booleans, no floats). No other text. medium
82 Write at least 2 sentences (separated by periods) where each sentence starts with a different word. medium
83 Write a sentence with exactly one capital letter total, and it must NOT be the first letter of the sentence. medium
84 Respond with ONLY a valid JSON array of exactly 2 different strings that are anagrams of each other. No other text. hard
85 Write a word chain of at least 3 words where the last letter of each word matches the first letter of the next word. hard
86 Write a sentence of at least 4 words containing NO letter 's' or 'S' anywhere. medium
87 Respond with ONLY a valid JSON object with at least 3 keys, where the keys appear in alphabetical order. No other text. medium
88 Write a sentence containing both a word and its plural form (e.g. 'cat' and 'cats'). medium
89 Write a sentence containing EXACTLY one numeral digit total (0-9), anywhere in the text. easy
90 Respond with ONLY a valid JSON array of exactly 3 strings, each a different length, sorted by length ascending. No other text. medium
91 Respond with ONLY a valid JSON object of the exact shape {"status": "active"} or {"status": "inactive"} -- a single field named "status" with one of those two exact values. No other text. easy
92 Respond with a single lowercase word containing no spaces. easy
93 Write a sentence of exactly 6 words where the 2nd word is 'and'. medium
94 Respond with ONLY a valid JSON array of exactly 4 consecutive ascending integers. No other text. medium
95 Write a sentence entirely in lowercase that ends with an exclamation point. easy
96 Respond with text wrapped in a single pair of parentheses, e.g. (like this), and nothing outside the parentheses. easy
97 Write a phrase of at least 3 words where the first and last word are identical, and every word in between is distinct. hard
98 Respond with ONLY a valid JSON object with exactly 2 keys, both string values, and the two values must be DIFFERENT from each other. No other text. medium
99 Write text containing at least one pair of parentheses, where every opening parenthesis has a matching closing parenthesis (parentheses may be nested). medium
100 Respond with EXACTLY 3 digit characters and nothing else (a 3-digit number as a string). easy

6. English (100 questions)

Added 2026-06-22 (the ZACBENCH-500 → 600 change). Language proficiency, distinct from Instruction-Following. Subcats: usage/confused-words, grammar, idiom, vocab/etymology, syntactic ambiguity, rhetorical devices, register, reading comprehension, reference resolution, subject-verb agreement. MCQ, single correct letter. Rendered from _b500_english.py.

# Question Gold Category Difficulty
1 Question: Choose the correct word: The committee's decision will _____ on whether the budget is approved. A) hinge B) hedge C) hatch D) hinder A usage hard
2 Question: Which is correct? 'The evidence was so _____ that the jury reached a verdict in twenty minutes.' A) incredulous B) incredible C) credulous D) credible B usage hard
3 Question: 'The two proposals are _____ in every meaningful respect.' (= cannot be distinguished) A) discrete B) disparate C) indiscreet D) indistinguishable D usage hard
4 Question: Choose correctly: 'Her argument, though _____, ultimately failed to persuade the board.' A) cogent B) cogitative C) contingent D) congenital A usage hard
5 Question: 'He was _____ by the implication that he had lied.' (= made indignant) A) nonplussed B) piqued C) appeased D) placated B usage hard
6 Question: Which word correctly completes: 'The new evidence _____ the prosecution's entire case.' A) eviscerated B) emaciated C) extricated D) eradicated A usage hard
7 Question: 'The senator's remarks were widely seen as _____ rather than a genuine policy proposal.' (= for show) A) perfunctory B) performative C) pertinent D) permeable B usage hard
8 Question: Choose correctly: 'She remained _____ despite the overwhelming pressure to concede.' (= firm, unyielding) A) intransigent B) intransitive C) introspective D) intemperate A usage hard
9 Question: 'His explanation only served to _____ the confusion.' (= make worse) A) ameliorate B) exacerbate C) extenuate D) exonerate B usage hard
10 Question: 'The author's prose style is notably _____, favoring short declarative sentences.' (= sparse, economical) A) ornate B) verbose C) laconic D) loquacious C usage hard
11 Question: Which sentence is grammatically correct? A) Neither the manager nor the employees was aware of the policy change. B) Neither the manager nor the employees were aware of the policy change. C) Neither the manager or the employees were aware of the policy change. D) Neither the manager nor employees was aware about the policy change. B grammar hard
12 Question: Which sentence is grammatically correct? A) Each of the candidates have submitted their portfolio. B) Each of the candidates has submitted their portfolio. C) Each of the candidates have submitted his or her portfolio. D) Each of the candidates having submitted their portfolio. B grammar hard
13 Question: Which sentence correctly uses 'whom'? A) Whom do you think will win the election? B) She is the candidate whom I believe will win. C) Whom did you give the report to? D) Whom is responsible for this decision? C grammar hard
14 Question: Which sentence is grammatically correct? A) If I was you, I would reconsider the offer. B) If I were you, I would reconsider the offer. C) If I would be you, I would reconsider the offer. D) If I am you, I would reconsider the offer. B grammar hard
15 Question: Which sentence is grammatically correct? A) The data suggests that the hypothesis is correct. B) The data suggest that the hypothesis is correct. C) The data suggesting that the hypothesis is correct. D) The datum suggest that the hypothesis is correct. B grammar hard
16 Question: Which sentence correctly uses 'lay' and 'lie'? A) I'm going to lay down for an hour. B) The book was laying on the table all day. C) She lay awake for hours thinking about the exam. D) He has lain the documents on your desk. C grammar hard
17 Question: Which sentence is grammatically correct? A) The committee, who meets monthly, has approved the budget. B) The committee, which meets monthly, has approved the budget. C) The committee, whom meets monthly, has approved the budget. D) The committee, that meets monthly, has approved the budget. B grammar hard
18 Question: Which sentence avoids a dangling modifier? A) Having finished the report, the printer was turned off. B) Having finished the report, she turned off the printer. C) The printer, having finished the report, was turned off. D) Having been finished, she turned off the printer's report. B grammar hard
19 Question: Which sentence is grammatically correct? A) Between you and I, the plan will fail. B) Between you and me, the plan will fail. C) Between you and myself, the plan will fail. D) Between yourself and I, the plan will fail. B grammar hard
20 Question: Which sentence correctly uses the subjunctive? A) I wish I was taller. B) I wish I were taller. C) I wish I am taller. D) I wish I will be taller. B grammar hard
21 Question: Complete the idiom correctly: 'He couldn't care _____ about the outcome.' A) less B) more C) much D) any A idiom hard
22 Question: Which is the correct idiom? A) for all intents and purposes B) for all intensive purposes C) for all intense purposes D) for all intent of purposes A idiom hard
23 Question: Which is the correct idiom? A) a moot point B) a mute point C) a mood point D) a moot point of view A idiom hard
24 Question: Which is the correct idiom? A) champing at the bit B) chomping at the bit C) chumping at the bit D) chopping at the bit A idiom hard
25 Question: Which is the correct idiom? A) one and the same B) one in the same C) one of the same D) one with the same A idiom hard
26 Question: What does 'to beg the question' correctly mean in formal/logical usage? A) to raise an obvious follow-up question B) to assume the conclusion one is trying to prove C) to ask an inappropriate question D) to avoid answering a question B idiom hard
27 Question: Which is the correct idiom? A) tow the line B) toe the line C) toll the line D) tone the line B idiom hard
28 Question: Which is the correct idiom? A) a wolf in cheap clothing B) a wolf in sheep's clothing C) a wolf in sheep clothing D) a wolf and sheep's clothing B idiom hard
29 Question: Which is the correct idiom? A) nip it in the butt B) nip it in the bud C) nip it at the bud D) nip it to the bud B idiom hard
30 Question: Which is the correct idiom? A) take it with a grain of salt B) take it with a grain assault C) take it with a grand of salt D) take it with a pinch of pepper A idiom hard
31 Question: 'Sesquipedalian' most precisely describes: A) a person who is extremely tall B) writing or speech characterized by long words C) a fear of long sentences D) a type of ancient measurement B vocabulary hard
32 Question: The word 'salary' derives from the Latin word for which substance, which Roman soldiers were partly paid in? A) gold B) wine C) salt D) grain C vocabulary hard
33 Question: 'Perspicacious' most precisely means: A) having keen insight or discernment B) speaking very clearly C) overly cautious D) easily perceived by others A vocabulary hard
34 Question: 'Ubiquitous' most precisely means: A) extremely rare B) present everywhere C) ancient in origin D) difficult to find B vocabulary hard
35 Question: The word 'salient' most precisely means: A) most noticeable or important B) extremely salty C) moving in a wave-like pattern D) calm and composed A vocabulary hard
36 Question: 'Pernicious' most precisely means: A) having a harmful effect, especially gradually or subtly B) extremely stubborn C) overly meticulous D) quick to anger A vocabulary hard
37 Question: The word 'disinterested' (in its strict, traditional sense) means: A) bored or uninterested B) impartial, having no personal stake C) actively opposed D) confused about the topic B vocabulary hard
38 Question: 'Obsequious' most precisely describes someone who is: A) excessively eager to please or obey B) hostile and confrontational C) extremely knowledgeable D) indifferent to others' opinions A vocabulary hard
39 Question: The word 'inchoate' most precisely means: A) just begun and not fully formed B) thoroughly completed C) intentionally vague D) chaotic and destructive A vocabulary hard
40 Question: 'Pellucid' most precisely describes writing that is: A) deliberately ambiguous B) extremely clear and easy to understand C) full of complex vocabulary D) emotionally charged B vocabulary hard
41 Question: 'The chicken is ready to eat.' Which paraphrase captures the MORE natural, default reading of this sentence in context (e.g., spoken at a dinner table)? A) The chicken is hungry and about to eat something B) The chicken has been cooked and is ready to be eaten C) The chicken is capable of eating D) The chicken refuses to eat B syntax hard
42 Question: 'I saw the man with the telescope.' Under the reading where the PREPOSITIONAL PHRASE modifies the verb (not the noun), who has the telescope? A) The man B) The speaker (the one who saw) C) Neither — the sentence is not ambiguous D) It's unclear from the sentence B syntax hard
43 Question: 'Visiting relatives can be tiresome.' Under the reading where 'visiting' is a gerund acting as the subject (not an adjective), what does the sentence mean? A) Relatives who are visiting can be tiresome B) The act of visiting relatives can be tiresome C) Relatives dislike visiting D) Tiresome relatives often visit B syntax hard
44 Question: 'They are cooking apples.' Under the reading where 'cooking' functions as an adjective (not a present-participle verb), what does the sentence mean? A) Some people are in the process of cooking apples B) The apples in question are a variety used for cooking C) They have finished cooking D) Apples are cooking themselves B syntax hard
45 Question: 'The professor said on Monday she would give the exam.' Under the reading where 'on Monday' modifies 'said' (not 'would give'), when did the professor make the statement? A) On Monday B) On the day of the exam C) The timing is unspecified D) Before the exam was scheduled A syntax hard
46 Question: 'Flying planes can be dangerous.' Under the reading where 'flying' is a gerund (the activity itself), what is dangerous? A) Planes that are currently airborne B) The act of piloting planes C) Planes in general, whether flying or not D) Birds near airports B syntax hard
47 Question: 'I won't tell you because you are my friend.' Under the standard reading (negation scoping over the main clause, reason given for not telling), why won't the speaker tell? A) Because they ARE the listener's friend B) Because they are NOT the listener's friend C) The sentence doesn't specify D) Both readings are equally natural with no default A syntax hard
48 Question: 'Police shot the man with a knife.' Under the reading where the prepositional phrase modifies 'the man' (not 'shot'), who had the knife? A) The police B) The man C) Neither, a bystander D) It cannot be determined which reading is intended without more context, but under THIS specified reading specifically, who has it? B syntax hard
49 Question: 'Old men and women were evacuated first.' Under the reading where 'old' modifies only 'men' (not 'women' as well), who was evacuated? A) Old men and old women B) Old men and women of any age C) Only old men D) Old women and men of any age B syntax hard
50 Question: 'The man who hunted the deer with a rifle was arrested.' Under the reading where 'with a rifle' modifies 'hunted' (the method), what does the rifle belong to/describe? A) The deer B) The method of hunting C) The arrest D) A second, unnamed hunter B syntax hard
51 Question: 'The pen is mightier than the sword.' This sentence primarily relies on which literary device? A) Simile B) Metonymy C) Onomatopoeia D) Alliteration B rhetoric hard
52 Question: 'I have a thousand things to do today' (said by someone who has perhaps twelve tasks) is an example of: A) Litotes B) Hyperbole C) Understatement D) Irony B rhetoric hard
53 Question: 'She was not unhappy with the result' is an example of: A) Hyperbole B) Litotes C) Synecdoche D) Personification B rhetoric hard
54 Question: 'All hands on deck' uses which device to refer to the whole sailors via a part of them? A) Metaphor B) Synecdoche C) Apostrophe D) Oxymoron B rhetoric hard
55 Question: 'Bittersweet' and 'jumbo shrimp' are examples of: A) Paradox B) Oxymoron C) Antithesis D) Chiasmus B rhetoric hard
56 Question: 'Ask not what your country can do for you — ask what you can do for your country.' This famous line primarily employs which device? A) Anaphora B) Chiasmus C) Hyperbole D) Synecdoche B rhetoric hard
57 Question: A speaker addressing an absent or non-human entity directly ('O Death, where is thy sting?') is using: A) Apostrophe B) Soliloquy C) Personification D) Anaphora A rhetoric hard
58 Question: 'It was the best of times, it was the worst of times' relies primarily on repeated sentence structure with contrasting ideas, known as: A) Antithesis B) Anaphora alone C) Zeugma D) Litotes A rhetoric hard
59 Question: 'He stole my money and my heart' uses one verb ('stole') governing two very different kinds of objects — this device is called: A) Synecdoche B) Zeugma C) Metonymy D) Catachresis B rhetoric hard
60 Question: A statement that seems self-contradictory but reveals a deeper truth upon reflection (e.g., 'less is more') is best classified as: A) Oxymoron B) Paradox C) Irony D) Antithesis B rhetoric hard
61 Question: Which sentence is most appropriate for a formal academic paper? A) The results were pretty much what we expected. B) The results were largely consistent with our expectations. C) The results were basically what we thought would happen. D) The results kind of matched our predictions. B register hard
62 Question: In formal written English, which is preferred? A) The report, that was submitted late, was rejected. B) The report, which was submitted late, was rejected. C) The report who was submitted late was rejected. D) The report submitted late, was rejected. B register hard
63 Question: Which sentence avoids an inappropriate colloquialism in formal writing? A) The data kind of suggests a trend. B) The data suggest a trend. C) The data sort of point to a trend. D) The data, like, show a trend. B register hard
64 Question: Which is the more formally correct way to begin a sentence? A) Plus, the budget was over the limit. B) Additionally, the budget exceeded the limit. C) And also, the budget went over. D) On top of that, the budget was too much. B register hard
65 Question: Which is correct in formal register: ending a sentence with a preposition is traditionally avoided; which sentence avoids it most naturally? A) This is the topic I am most interested in. B) This is the topic in which I am most interested. C) This is the topic that I am interested about. D) This is the topic I am interested in about. B register hard
66 Question: Which word choice is more appropriate in a formal cover letter? A) I'm super excited about this opportunity. B) I am very enthusiastic about this opportunity. C) I'm totally psyched for this role. D) This job sounds awesome to me. B register hard
67 Question: Which sentence correctly avoids a split infinitive while preserving meaning, in a context where formal style discourages it? A) She decided to quickly finish the report. B) She decided to finish the report quickly. C) She decided quickly to finish the report (ambiguous meaning). D) She decided to finish quickly the report. B register hard
68 Question: Which is more appropriate in formal writing: contractions are generally avoided. Which sentence correctly avoids them? A) The committee doesn't agree with the proposal. B) The committee does not agree with the proposal. C) The committee don't agree with the proposal. D) The committee won't be agreeing with the proposal. B register hard
69 Question: Which transition is most appropriate in a formal academic argument (avoiding casual conjunctions to start a sentence)? A) But the results contradicted this. B) However, the results contradicted this. C) Yet, the results contradicted this, but. D) So the results went against it. B register hard
70 Question: In formal writing, which sentence correctly avoids the vague, overused intensifier 'very' in favor of a more precise word? A) The findings were very surprising. B) The findings were startling. C) The findings were very very surprising. D) The findings were quite very surprising. B register hard
71 Question: "Although the new policy was framed as a cost-saving measure, internal memos suggest the primary motivation was to consolidate decision-making power within a smaller executive group." What can be most reasonably inferred? A) The policy genuinely saved costs and nothing else B) The stated justification may not be the full or true reason for the policy C) The internal memos were written before the policy was framed publicly D) The executive group opposed the policy B comprehension hard
72 Question: "She thanked him for his 'thorough' feedback, though she later admitted to colleagues that most of it had missed the point entirely." The word 'thorough' as used here is best understood as: A) Sincere praise B) Politely insincere or diplomatically misleading C) A factual, neutral description D) An accusation of laziness B comprehension hard
73 Question: "The committee approved the measure unanimously, which surprised no one familiar with how thoroughly its outcome had been negotiated beforehand." What does this sentence imply about the unanimous vote? A) It reflects genuine spontaneous agreement among all members B) It was likely a formality, the real decision having been settled in advance C) The committee members had never met before the vote D) The measure was controversial and narrowly passed B comprehension hard
74 Question: "He claimed to have read the entire report, but his questions revealed he had skipped straight to the conclusion." What is the most reasonable inference? A) He read the report carefully from start to finish B) His claim of having read the whole report was likely untrue or exaggerated C) The conclusion was the only useful part of the report D) He wrote the report himself B comprehension hard
75 Question: "The restaurant's reviews praised its 'creative' interpretation of the classic dish, though several regulars noted it bore little resemblance to the original." The word 'creative' here most likely functions as: A) Straightforward praise with no underlying critique B) A polite way of signaling a significant, possibly unwelcome departure from tradition C) A factual culinary classification D) An insult with no positive connotation at all B comprehension hard
76 Question: "The spokesperson said the company 'takes the allegations seriously,' a phrase that, in corporate communications, often precedes either a substantive response or none at all." What does this sentence suggest about the phrase itself? A) It always guarantees a substantive response B) Its actual meaning/follow-through is often ambiguous or non-committal in practice C) It is a legally binding admission of guilt D) It is rarely used in real corporate statements B comprehension hard
77 Question: "Despite describing the merger as 'mutually beneficial,' the smaller company's shareholders received a far smaller share of the combined entity than their original stake would have suggested." What is implied about the term 'mutually beneficial'? A) Both companies benefited exactly equally B) The framing may understate an imbalance favoring the larger company C) The smaller company's shareholders gained more than expected D) The merger was illegal B comprehension hard
78 Question: "The professor's syllabus described the course as 'rigorous but accessible' — a description that, after the first exam, half the class would have only agreed with the first half of." What does this imply about the first exam? A) Most students found the exam easy and accessible B) The exam turned out to be rigorous but not very accessible for at least half the class C) The professor changed the syllabus after the exam D) The course description was entirely accurate for everyone B comprehension hard
79 Question: "He prefaced his criticism with 'with all due respect,' a phrase whose presence often inversely correlates with the respect actually being shown." What is the passage suggesting about that phrase? A) It always indicates genuine respect B) It is sometimes used ironically, preceding remarks that are not very respectful C) It is a legal disclaimer D) It is only used by lawyers B comprehension hard
80 Question: "The annual report described growth as 'steady,' though the underlying figures showed three consecutive quarters of decline followed by one quarter of modest recovery." What does this suggest about the word 'steady' as used in the report? A) It accurately and neutrally describes the data B) It may be a euphemistic or misleading characterization of an actually volatile/declining trend C) The figures were fabricated D) Growth was consistently strong throughout the year B comprehension hard
81 Question: "When Sarah told Maria that she had won the award, she was thrilled." In the most natural default reading (same-subject continuation), who was thrilled? A) Sarah B) Maria C) Both equally, with no preferred reading D) Neither — the sentence is meaningless B reference hard
82 Question: "The trophy didn't fit into the brown suitcase because it was too big." What does 'it' refer to? A) The suitcase B) The trophy C) Either, equally ambiguous with no resolution possible D) Neither, it refers to an unstated third object B reference hard
83 Question: "The city council refused the protesters a permit because they feared violence." What does 'they' most naturally refer to? A) The protesters B) The city council C) Both groups equally D) A third, unmentioned party B reference hard
84 Question: "After John argued with his brother, he apologized." In the most natural reading, who apologized? A) John B) John's brother C) Both simultaneously D) The sentence cannot be resolved without more context, and there is no preferred default reading A reference hard
85 Question: "The lawyer cross-examined the witness, but he remained calm throughout." Who most naturally remained calm? A) The lawyer B) The witness C) Both equally D) Neither, an unnamed bystander B reference hard
86 Question: "Emma gave her sister a gift before she left for college." In the most natural reading, who was leaving for college? A) Emma B) Emma's sister C) Both of them D) Cannot be determined at all, even with a default preference A reference hard
87 Question: "The ball broke the window because it was thrown too hard." What does 'it' refer to? A) The window B) The ball C) An unnamed thrower D) Either equally, with no resolvable default B reference hard
88 Question: "The teacher praised the student because she had worked so hard." In the most natural reading, who had worked hard? A) The teacher B) The student C) Both equally D) Cannot be resolved by default B reference hard
89 Question: "The company sued the contractor because it breached the agreement." What does 'it' most naturally refer to? A) The company B) The contractor C) Neither, an unnamed subcontractor D) Both equally, unresolvable B reference hard
90 Question: "The novelist thanked her editor because she had improved the manuscript significantly." In the most natural reading, who improved the manuscript? A) The novelist B) The editor C) Both equally D) An unnamed third party B reference hard
91 Question: Which is correct? 'The number of applicants _____ increased significantly this year.' A) have B) has C) having D) were B agreement hard
92 Question: Which is correct? 'A number of applicants _____ already submitted their forms.' A) has B) have C) is D) was B agreement hard
93 Question: Which is correct? 'The committee members, along with their chairperson, _____ scheduled to arrive at noon.' A) is B) are C) was D) being B agreement hard
94 Question: Which is correct? 'Neither the players nor the coach _____ satisfied with the result.' A) was B) were C) being D) is being B agreement hard
95 Question: Which is correct? 'Mathematics _____ my favorite subject in school.' A) are B) is C) were D) have been B agreement hard
96 Question: Which is correct? 'The jury _____ still deliberating after six hours.' (referring to the jury acting as a single unit) A) is B) are C) were being D) have been A agreement hard
97 Question: Which is correct? 'Politics _____ a topic many people avoid at dinner.' A) are B) is C) were D) have been B agreement hard
98 Question: Which is correct? 'Either the manager or the employees _____ responsible for submitting the report.' (verb agrees with the nearer subject) A) is B) are C) was D) being B agreement hard
99 Question: Which is correct? 'The list of items needed for the trip _____ on the refrigerator.' A) are B) is C) were D) have been B agreement hard
100 Question: Which is correct? 'Each of the proposed amendments _____ its own set of consequences.' A) have B) has C) having D) were having B agreement hard

7. Agentic (100 questions)

Added 2026-07-28 to make the total 700. Tool-call correctness across 4 execution-checked categories — see finetune/_b500_agentic.py's module docstring for the exact scoring contract (the full 100 questions and the 15-tool schema live there, not duplicated into this table, since every field's meaning is scoring-relevant and best read next to the code that checks it):

category count tests
single_call 55 one clearly correct tool + arguments for a plain request
distractor 20 the request needs NO tool call — a model that calls a tool for everything scores 0 here even if it looks capable elsewhere
ambiguous_arg 15 a call is correct, but one argument is under-specified — inventing a precise value that was never given is scored WRONG, the same standard as fabricating a fact
multi_step 10 a two-tool chain; scored on the first call only, since real chaining needs a live tool executor this static bank does not run — documented so nobody reads it as testing something it doesn't

Every expected_tool/required_args pair was checked against the 15-tool schema before being committed (same "verified, not vibes" bar as the Coding section's run-before-commit reference solutions), and the scoring function itself was self-tested against synthetic answers before being trusted: 100/100 on known-correct input, exactly 20/100 (matching the distractor count, not approximately) on an "always refuse to call anything" baseline.

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