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2
Chronic urethral obstruction because of urinary calculi, prostatic hyperophy, tumors, normal pregnancy, tumors, uterine prolapse or functional disorders cause hydronephrosis which by definition is used to describe dilatation of renal pelvis and calculus associated with progressive atrophy of the kidney due to obstructi...
medmcqa_0
Chronic urethral obstruction due to benign prismatic hyperplasia can lead to the following change in kidney parenchyma
Hyperplasia
Hyperophy
Atrophy
Dyplasia
null
Chronic urethral obstruction due to benign prismatic hyperplasia can lead to the following change in kidney parenchyma
Anatomy
Urinary tract
Atrophy
0
single
2
PILONIDAL SINUS/DISEASE (Jeep Bottom; Driver's Bottom) Pilus--hair; Nidus--nest It is epithelium lined tract, situated sho distance behind the anus, containing hairs and unhealthy diseased granula- tion tissue. It is due to penetration of hairs through the skin into subcutaneous tissue. It forms granuloma/unhealthy gra...
medmcqa_7
Per rectum examination is not a useful test for diagnosis of
Anal fissure
Hemorrhoid
Pilonidal sinus
Rectal ulcer
null
Per rectum examination is not a useful test for diagnosis of
Surgery
Urology
Pilonidal sinus
7
single
2
Remifentanil is the shortest acting opioid due to its metabolism by plasma esterase → dose adjustment is not needed in liver or kidney disease. It is more potent than alfentanil : Order of potency is Sufentanil > Fentanyl = Remifentanil > Alfentanil.
medmcqa_8
Characteristics of Remifentanyl
ab
bc
Metabolised by plasma esterase, Short half life, More potent than Alfentanyl
bcd
{ "a": "Metabolised by plasma esterase", "b": "Short half life", "c": "More potent than Alfentanyl", "d": "Dose reduced in hepatic and renal disease", "e": "Duration of action more than Alfentanyl" }
Characteristics of Remifentanyl – a) Metabolised by plasma esteraseb) Short half lifec) More potent than Alfentanyld) Dose reduced in hepatic and renal diseasee) Duration of action more than Alfentanyl
Anaesthesia
null
Metabolised by plasma esterase, Short half life, More potent than Alfentanyl
8
single
2
One of the most impoant pharmacokinetic changes associated with aging is decreased renal elimination of drugs. After age 40, creatinine clearance decreases an average of 8 mL/min/1.73 m2/decade; however, the age-related decrease varies substantially from person to person. Serum creatinine levels often remain within nor...
medmcqa_12
The pharmakokinetic change occurring in geriatric patient is due to
Gastric absorption
Liver metabolism
Renal clearance
Hypersensitivity
null
The pharmakokinetic change occurring in geriatric patient is due to
Anatomy
General anatomy
Renal clearance
12
single
3
Urine microscopy for malignant cytology "Painless haematuria is by far the most common symptom of bladder cancer and should be regarded as indicative of a bladder carcinoma until proven otherwise." Bailey & Love 25/e p1336 (24/e p1363) Cigarette smoking is the main etiological factor and accounts ,for about 50% of blad...
medmcqa_14
A 60 yr old chronic smoker presents with painless gross hematuria of 1 day duration. Investigation of choice to know the cause of hematuria
USG
X-ray KUB
Urine routine
Urine microscopy for malignant cytology cells
null
A 60 yr old chronic smoker presents with painless gross hematuria of 1 day duration. Investigation of choice to know the cause of hematuria
Surgery
null
Urine microscopy for malignant cytology cells
14
single
2
null
medmcqa_15
With which of the following receptors theophylline has an antagonistic interaction ?
Histamine receptors
Bradykinin receptors
Adenosine receptors
Imidazoline receptors
null
With which of the following receptors theophylline has an antagonistic interaction ?
Pharmacology
null
Adenosine receptors
15
single
0
Maturation (cement)—The process of hardening a cement matrix through hydration with oral fluids to achieve greater mechanical strength. Ref: Phillip’s Science of Dental Materials ed 12 pg 309
medmcqa_18
The process of hardening a cement matrix through hydration with oral fluids to achieve greater mechanical strength is known as:
Maturation
Setting
Hardening
Mineralization
null
The process of hardening a cement matrix through hydration with oral fluids to achieve greater mechanical strength is known as:
Dental
null
Maturation
18
single
2
Chronic pyelonephritis is characterized by renal inflammation and scarring induced by recurrent or persistent renal infection, vesicoureteral reflux, or other causes of urinary tract obstruction. VUR is a congenital condition that results from incompetence of the ureterovesical valve due to a sho intramural segment Ref...
medmcqa_24
The most common cause of renal scaring in a 3 year old child is -
Trauma
Tuberculosis
Vesicoureteral reflux induced pyelonephritis
Interstitial nephritis
null
The most common cause of renal scaring in a 3 year old child is
Medicine
Kidney
Vesicoureteral reflux induced pyelonephritis
24
single
1
All patients with a history of snake bite should be observed for 8-12 h after the bite, if the skin is broken and the offending snake cannot be positively identified as non-poisonous. Ref: Krishnan vij ; 5th ed; Page no: 484
medmcqa_25
A 6hours old snake bite patient comes to emergency with mild local edema at the injury site. On examination no abnormalities detected and lab repos are normal. Most appropriate management is
Incision and suction
Wait and watch
Local subcutaneous antisnake venom
Intravenous antisnake venom
null
A 6hours old snake bite patient comes to emergency with mild local edema at the injury site. On examination no abnormalities detected and lab repos are normal. Most appropriate management is
Forensic Medicine
Poisoning
Wait and watch
25
single
1
Intracranial CSF leaks cause bacterial meningitis, about 80% are caused by S. Pneumoniae. Other causative organisms are meningococcus, Hemophilus species and S.aurues. Ref: Clinical Pediatric Neurology By Ronald B. David, Page 217
medmcqa_26
Which of the following agents is most commonly associated with recurrent meningitis due to CSF leaks?
Meningococci
Pneumococci
Hemophilus Influenza
E. Coli
null
Which of the following agents is most commonly associated with recurrent meningitis due to CSF leaks?
Pediatrics
null
Pneumococci
26
single
1
(b) Facial nerve repair(Ref. Scott Brown, 6th ed., 1404)Since generally following trauma the facial nerve injury occurs as sudden onset. Facial decompression should be the best option.
medmcqa_27
Treatment of choice in traumatic facial nerve injury is:
Facial sling
Facial nerve repair
Conservative management
Systemic corticosteroids
null
Treatment of choice in traumatic facial nerve injury is:
ENT
Facial Nerve And Its Disorders
Facial nerve repair
27
single
1
Ans. B i.e. Demonstrations Demonstration involves showing by reason or proof explaining or making clear by use of examples or experiments. Put more simply, demonstration means to clearly show
medmcqa_28
What is the best method of informing the rural population about Oral rehydration technique: March 2013 (d, f)
Chalk and talk/Lecture
Demonstrations
Role play
Flash cards
null
What is the best method of informing the rural population about Oral rehydration technique: March 2013 (d, f)
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
Demonstrations
28
single
0
null
medmcqa_29
Lymph vessel which drain the posterior 1/3 rd of the tongue:
Basal vessel.
Marginal vessel.
Central vessel.
Lateral vessel.
null
Lymph vessel which drain the posterior 1/3 rd of the tongue:
Anatomy
null
Basal vessel.
29
single
0
Left lateral decubitus view demonstrates the air between dense shadow of liver and the abdominal wall.
medmcqa_34
25 year old patient Suspected to have a pneumoperitoneum. Patient is unable to stand. Best x-ray view is
Left lateral decubitus view
Right lateral decubitus view
Supine
Prone
null
25 year old patient Suspected to have a pneumoperitoneum. Patient is unable to stand. Best x-ray view is
Radiology
null
Left lateral decubitus view
34
single
2
Aspergillus species are widely distributed on decaying plants, producing chains of conidia. Aspergillus species unlike Candida species do not form the pa of normal flora of humans. They are ubiquitous in the environment; hence transmission of infection is mostly exogenous. Aspergillus transmission occurs by inhalation ...
medmcqa_35
What is the most probable poal of entry of Aspergillus?
Puncture wound
Blood
Lungs
Gastrointestinal tract
null
What is the most probable poal of entry of Aspergillus?
Microbiology
Mycology
Lungs
35
single
1
null
medmcqa_38
If solid line represent the rigid height, then the following diagram with excessive inter arch space is classified in?
Class - 1
Class - 2
Class - 3
Class - 4
null
If solid line represent the rigid height, then the following diagram with excessive inter arch space is classified in?
Dental
null
Class - 2
38
single
0
Ans. is 'a' i.e Rt. Leg and perineum Paracentral lobule:On the medial surface of cerebral hemisphere, the U shaped gyrus around the end of the central sulcus is the paracentral lobule.Motor cortex is located in the precentral gyrus on the superolateral surface of the hemisphere and in the anterior part of the paracentr...
medmcqa_42
During Sx for meningioma, the left paracentral lobule was injured. It would lead to paresis of
Rt. Leg and perineus
Left face
Right face
Right shoulder & trunk
null
During Sx for meningioma, the left paracentral lobule was injured. It would lead to paresis of
Anatomy
Cerebrum
Rt. Leg and perineus
42
single
0
Chronic Subdural Empyema It may be primary infection of subdural space from sinusitis focus causing suppuration and pus formation. It can be complication of the chronic subdural haematoma. It is due to secondary bacterial infection of collected clot/fluid. Infection is from sinusitis scalp (common)/through earlier trau...
medmcqa_43
Which of the following bacterial meningitis is associated with sudural effusion?
H. influenza
Neisseria meningitits
Streptococcus pneumonia
Enterococcus
null
Which of the following bacterial meningitis is associated with sudural effusion?
Surgery
Trauma
H. influenza
43
single
0
null
medmcqa_47
Of the various modalities used in the treatment of re-threatening effects of hyperkalemia which one of the following as the most rapid onset of action ?
Hemodialysis
Sodium bicarbonate infusion
Insulin and glucose infusion
Intravenous calcium gluconate
null
Of the various modalities used in the treatment of re-threatening effects of hyperkalemia which one of the following as the most rapid onset of action ?
Medicine
null
Hemodialysis
47
single
1
Ans : B (NAD+) & C (NADPH) In chronic alcoholism rate limiting component for alcohol metabolism is NAD* & NADPHOxidation of ethanol by alcohol dehydrogenaseQ & NADQ leads to excess production of NADHSome metabolism of ethanol takes place via a cytochrome P450 dependent microsomal ethanol oxidising systme (MEOS) Q invol...
medmcqa_48
In chronic alcoholism the rate limiting component for alcohol metabolism excluding enzymes is/are : (PGI Dec 2008)
NADP
NAD+
NADPH
FADH
null
In chronic alcoholism the rate limiting component for alcohol metabolism excluding enzymes is/are : (PGI Dec 2008)
Biochemistry
Biosynthesis of Fatty Acids and Eicosanoids
NAD+
48
single
2
National Iodine deficiency disorder programme , 1992: - National goitre control programme, 1962 is conveed to NIDDCP, 1992 - Impact indicators: Major indicator - Urinary iodine excretion levels ( generally measured in pregnant women over 24hrs) Others - Neonatal hypothyroidism , Goitre - Level of salt iodinisation: 30 ...
medmcqa_49
Minimum level of iodine iodized salt reaching the consumer level according to iodine programme should be:-
5 ppm
30 ppm
15 ppm
20 ppm
null
Minimum level of iodine iodized salt reaching the consumer level according to iodine programme should be:-
Social & Preventive Medicine
Other NHPs
15 ppm
49
single
3
New recommended regimen/Schedule (New guidelines( Type of prophylaxis Regimen Post exposure Intramuscular Essen Regimen (1-1-1-1-1) Day 0,3,7,14,28 Post exposure intradermal Updated Thai Red Cross Regimen (2-2-2-0-2) Day 0,3,7,28 Post exposure in vaccinated individuals Day 0,3 Pre-exposure prophylaxis Day 0,7,21/28 Min...
medmcqa_51
Pre-exposure prophylaxis for rabies is given on days
0, 3, 7, 14, 28, 90
0, 3, 7, 28, 90
0, 3
0, 7, 28
null
Pre-exposure prophylaxis for rabies is given on days
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable diseases
0, 7, 28
51
single
3
Ans. Gross negligence
medmcqa_58
According to recent SC judgment, doctor can be charged for medical negligence under 304-A, only if: AIIMS 12
He is from corporate hospital
Negligence is from inadveent error
Simple negligence
Gross negligence
null
According to recent SC judgment, doctor can be charged for medical negligence under 304-A, only if: AIIMS 12
Forensic Medicine
null
Gross negligence
58
single
0
An antigen is any substance that causes an immune system to produce antibodies against it. Antigens are usually peptides, polysaccharides or lipids. In general, molecules other than peptides (saccharides and lipids) qualify as antigens but not as immunogens since they cannot elicit an immune response on their own. Ref:...
medmcqa_59
Which of the following is very difficult to induce antibody -
Polysaccharide
Protein
Antigen
Effector
null
Which of the following is very difficult to induce antibody
Microbiology
Immunology
Polysaccharide
59
single
1
Ans. b. SuxamethoniumSuxamethonium is the drug most commonly responsible for causing malignant hyperthermia.'Drugs causing malignant hyperthermia are- succinylcholine (most common cause), halothane (MC inhalational agent), iso/des/sevo/methoxy- fluranes, lignocaine, TCA, MAO inhibitors and phenothiazines.''Thiopentone ...
medmcqa_63
Drug causing malignant hyperthermia:(Asked twice in the exam)
Cisatracurium
Suxamethonium
Propofol
Thiopentone
null
Drug causing malignant hyperthermia:(Asked twice in the exam)
Anaesthesia
Complications Of Anaesthesia
Suxamethonium
63
single
2
Electrical Fetal hea monitoring is useful as: (1) Provides accurate information, (2) Helpful in diagnosing fetal distress, (3) Directs about intervention to prevent fetal death or morbidity, (4) It is superior to intermittent monitoring methods.
medmcqa_67
Which of the following is the best procedure done for intrapaum fetal monitoring:
Fetal echocardiography
Fetal scalp pH
Continuous electrical fetal hea monitoring
Physical examination
null
Which of the following is the best procedure done for intrapaum fetal monitoring:
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Intra Uterine Growth Restriction, Intrapaum and Antepaum Fetal Surviellance
Continuous electrical fetal hea monitoring
67
single
3
The spirometer is a simple device for measuring gas volumes. The frequently used water spirometer, rolling seal spirometer and bellows spirometer. The last two are not water-filled and are more poable. The VT, IRV, ERV, IC, and VC can all be measured with a spirometer (as can the forced expiratory volume in 1 second , ...
medmcqa_68
Which of the following is measured by the device, Bellow's spirometer?
TLC
RV
Closing volume
ERV
null
Which of the following is measured by the device, Bellow's spirometer?
Physiology
null
ERV
68
single
0
Ans: a (Salmonella typhimurium) Ref: Ananathanarayan,7th ed, p. 303Of the above given, S. typhimurium causes food poisoningSalmonella gastroenteritisS. typhimurium is the most common cause of food poisoning due to salmonella species.Incubation period--6-24 hrsFood poisoning is never caused by S. typhi. Source of transm...
medmcqa_69
Which of the following is a newly emerging food poisoning organism
Salmonella typhimurium
Enterococcus
Diphtheria
Pseudomonas
null
Which of the following is a newly emerging food poisoning organism
Microbiology
Enterobecteriaceae
Salmonella typhimurium
69
single
3
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Endothelium The most acceptable hypothesis for the pathogenesis of atherosclerosis is "the response to injury hypothesis". According to this hypothesis, atherosclerosis is a chronic inflammatory response of the aerial wall initiated by injury to endothelium. Pathogenesis of atherosclerosis Following s...
medmcqa_70
Atherosclerosis initiation by fibroblast plaque is mediated by injury to ?
Smooth muscle
Media
Adventitia
Endothelium
null
Atherosclerosis initiation by fibroblast plaque is mediated by injury to ?
Pathology
null
Endothelium
70
single
3
Monocyte is considered as the second line of defence.   Phagocytosis by Macrophages. Macrophages are the end-stage product of monocytes that enter the tissues from the blood. When activated by the immune system, they are much more powerful phagocytes than neutrophils, often capable of phagocytizing as many as 100 bacte...
medmcqa_71
The WBC that is considered “second line of defence” is:
Neutrophil
Eosinophil
Basophil
Monocyte
null
The WBC that is considered “second line of defence” is:
Physiology
null
Monocyte
71
single
0
Pulse oxymetry- Based on Beer Lambert law Utilization of a probe that transmits red (640 mm) and infrared light Photo detector as a receptor site Different absorption ability of light by oxygenated and deoxygenated haemoglobin leads to changes in the amount of light differently absorbed by the vascular bed before reac...
medmcqa_73
Determination of Pulp vitality by pulse oximeter based on:
Beer's law.
Pascal's law.
Doppler law.
Poisslues law.
null
Determination of Pulp vitality by pulse oximeter based on:
Dental
null
Beer's law.
73
single
2
null
medmcqa_74
An Isograft indicates transfer of tissues between -
Unrelated donors
Related donors
Monozygotic twins
From the same individual
null
An Isograft indicates transfer of tissues between
Surgery
null
Monozygotic twins
74
single
3
Facial muscle involvement is not seen with Becker and Limb-girdle muscular dystrophy Emery Dreifuss and Becker are XLR disease so can't be present in a girl child. Hence by exclusion the diagnosis is Dx: Scapulo-Faciohumeraldystrophy. Facio-Scapulo-humeral dystrophy Autosomal dominant inheritance and has an onset in ch...
medmcqa_77
A 14-year-old girl presents with quadriparesis, facial palsy, winging of scapula and ptosis. There is h/o similar illness in father and brother but less severe. Her CPK level is also raised (500IU/L). She is probably suffering from?
Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy
Becker muscular dystrophy
Limb-girdle dystrophy
Scapulofaciohumeral dystrophy
null
A 14-year-old girl presents with quadriparesis, facial palsy, winging of scapula and ptosis. There is h/o similar illness in father and brother but less severe. Her CPK level is also raised (500IU/L). She is probably suffering from?
Medicine
Myasthenia Gravis and Muscular dystrophy
Scapulofaciohumeral dystrophy
77
single
1
Extensor digitorum Hybrid muscles are the muscles having more than one nerve supply Pctoralis major: lateral & medial pectoral nerves Brachialis: additional proprioceptive fibres from radial nerve, in addition to its muscular nerve, musculocutaneous nerve. Extensor digitorum is supplied by the posterior interosseous ne...
medmcqa_79
Which of the following muscle is not a hybrid muscle
Pectoralis major
Extensor digitorum
Flexor digitorum profundus
Brachialis
null
Which of the following muscle is not a hybrid muscle
Surgery
null
Extensor digitorum
79
single
1
Ref:Parks 23rd edition pg 849. 1SD : confidence limit = 68% 2SD : confidence limit = 95% 3SD : confidence limit = 99.7%
medmcqa_82
One standard detion in normal standard curev includes value-
50%
68%
95%
100%
null
One standard detion in normal standard curev includes value-
Social & Preventive Medicine
Biostatistics
68%
82
single
1
Ans. is 'b' i.e., EBV EBV encephalomyelitis shows :Abnormal white matter with perivascular infiltrates of inflammatory cells and foam cells.Some myelin is replaced by lipid-filled macrophages and hyperplastic astrocytes.
medmcqa_83
Foam cells are seen in infection with which virus ?
Measles
EBV
Molluscum contagiosum
RSV
null
Foam cells are seen in infection with which virus ?
Microbiology
null
EBV
83
single
0
null
medmcqa_84
During extraction of the upper first molar, the mesio buccal root is missing and is suspected to have been pushed into the maxillary sinus. The best position for the patient immediately after the incident is
To position the patient upright
To position the patients in a semi inclined posture to visualize the perforation
Trendelenberg position
Reverse trendelenberg position
null
During extraction of the upper first molar, the mesio buccal root is missing and is suspected to have been pushed into the maxillary sinus. The best position for the patient immediately after the incident is
Surgery
null
To position the patient upright
84
single
1
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Opposite side [Ref: Dhingra 5th/e p. 48}o Each ear is irrigated twice : once with cold water (70C below the body temperature, i. e. 300C) and then with warm water (70C above the body temperature, i.e. 440C).o Cold water provokes nystagmus towards the opposite ear, while warm water provokes nystagmus t...
medmcqa_91
In caloric test, cold water stimulation causes movement of eye -
Some side
Opposite side
Up
Do\vn
null
In caloric test, cold water stimulation causes movement of eye
ENT
Assessment of Vestibular Function
Opposite side
91
single
0
The history and findings are consistent with a lobar pneumonia. The most common etiologic agent of lobar pneumonia is Streptococcus pneumoniae. ESSENTIALS OF DIAGNOSIS Productive cough, fever, rigors, dyspnea, early pleuritic chest pain Consolidating lobar pneumonia on chest radiograph Lancet-shaped gram-positive diplo...
medmcqa_93
A 12-year-old girl presents to the casualty with symptoms of fever, shoness of breath, and cough. A chest X-ray reveals complete consolidation of the lower lobe of the left lung. Cultures of the lower lobe of the left lung would most likely reveal which organism?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Staphylococcus aureus
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
null
A 12-year-old girl presents to the casualty with symptoms of fever, shoness of breath, and cough. A chest X-ray reveals complete consolidation of the lower lobe of the left lung. Cultures of the lower lobe of the left lung would most likely reveal which organism?
Microbiology
null
Streptococcus pneumoniae
93
single
0
Ovulation occurs due to the effect of increased concentration of LH. In the pre-ovulatory phase of the menstrual cycle, the ovarian follicle will undergo a series of transformations called cumulus expansion, which is stimulated by FSH. This is followed by LH surge.
medmcqa_96
Which of the following hormonal activity is expected immediately prior to Ovulation?
LH surge
FSH surge
Progestrone surge
Estrogen surge
null
Which of the following hormonal activity is expected immediately prior to Ovulation?
Physiology
null
LH surge
96
single
0
Radiological signs: The lesion presents as a chance radiographic finding. It is a round or an ovoid (<3 cm) uniform radiolucency with a well-defined, usually corticated, margin. Stafne’s bone cavity is non-expansile and is found below the mandibular canal just anterior to the angle of the mandible. The location of Staf...
medmcqa_99
The radiograph of a 32 year old patient is shown below. The patient is asymptomatic and the lesion revealed in the radiograph is an accidental finding. The most likely diagnosis is:
Stafne’s bone cavity
Radicular Cyst
Dentigerous cyst
Lateral periodontal cyst
null
The radiograph of a 32 year old patient is shown below. The patient is asymptomatic and the lesion revealed in the radiograph is an accidental finding. The most likely diagnosis is:
Radiology
null
Stafne’s bone cavity
99
single
1
Agent factors :- * Caused by group B arbovirus (flavivirus) * The main reservoirs are Ardeid birds and pigs * Pigs are amplifiers of the virus and they do not manifest ove symptoms but circulates the virus Host factors :- * Most common in the age group of <15 years of age * Man - incidental dead end host * Affects othe...
medmcqa_101
Which of the following disease with bird, ahropod and human chain
Malaria
Japanese encephalitis
Paragonimus
Plague
null
Which of the following disease with bird, ahropod and human chain
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable diseases
Japanese encephalitis
101
single
0
Disruption of the endothelium exposes subendothelial Von willebrand factor (VWF) and collagen, which promotes platelet adherence and activation. Deficiency of Von willebrand factor (VWF) causes ↓ Platelet adhesion (↑ BT) ↓ Intrinsic pathway activity (↑ aPTT)
medmcqa_104
A 28 year old female teacher is found to have a prolonged bleeding time and normal platelet count. She had a bleeding of "easy bleeding" with frequent bleeding of the gums, epistaxis, cutaneous bleeding and menorrhagia, further testing revealed a deficiency of Von willebrand factor. Which of the following thrombogenic ...
Adhesion
Aggregation
Formation of fibrinogen bridges
Conformational change with activation of phospholipid surface
null
A 28 year old female teacher is found to have a prolonged bleeding time and normal platelet count. She had a bleeding of "easy bleeding" with frequent bleeding of the gums, epistaxis, cutaneous bleeding and menorrhagia, further testing revealed a deficiency of Von willebrand factor. Which of the following thrombogenic ...
Pathology
null
Adhesion
104
single
2
Ans. is 'c' i.e., 6 months
medmcqa_105
Ifa Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within?
1 month
3 months
6 months
1 year
null
Ifa Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within?
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
6 months
105
single
0
Xenobiotics are compounds which may be accidently ingested or taken as drugs or compounds produced in the body by bacterial metabolism. The cytochrome P-450 enzyme family is involved in the biotransformation reaction of xenobiotics. They are heme containing membrane proteins localized in the smooth endoplasmic reticulu...
medmcqa_107
Which of the following is the main enzyme responsible for activation of xenobiotics?
Cytochrome P-450
Glucuronyl transferase
Glutathione S-transferase
NADPH cytochrome P-450-reductase
null
Which of the following is the main enzyme responsible for activation of xenobiotics?
Biochemistry
null
Cytochrome P-450
107
single
0
LDL receptors  Familial hypercholesterolemia (type IIa) is due to deficiency of functional LDL receptors as a result of different types of mutations.
medmcqa_108
In Familial hypercholesterolemia there is deficiency of
LDL receptor
Apoprotein A
Apo protein C
Lipoprotein lipase
null
In Familial hypercholesterolemia there is deficiency of
Biochemistry
null
LDL receptor
108
single
2
Ans. (C). Adequate liquor amniiThe photograph shows maceration, a sign of intrauterine death.Conditions favoring maceration: Intact membranes; adequate liquor amnii & NO air.
medmcqa_112
Which of the following condition is necessary prerequisite for this change?
Rupture of membranes
Scanty liquor amnii
Adequate liquor amnii
Air inside the uterine cavity
null
Which of the following condition is necessary prerequisite for this change?
Forensic Medicine
Sexual Offenses
Adequate liquor amnii
112
single
2
Higher Intakes of Vitamin D May Be Beneficial There is evidence that Vitamin D intake considerably higher than that required to maintain calcium homeostasis reduce the risk of insulin resistance, obesity, and the metabolic syndrome, as well as various cancers. There is growing evidence that higher vitamin D status is p...
medmcqa_115
Which of the following vitamin reduces the risk of insulin resistance, obesity, and the metabolic syndrome?
Vitamin A
Vitamin C
Vitamin D
Vitamin B12
null
Which of the following vitamin reduces the risk of insulin resistance, obesity, and the metabolic syndrome?
Biochemistry
vitamins
Vitamin D
115
single
3
Answer is D (Coarctation of Aoa) Coarctation of Aoa is a high risk cardiac lesion fior the development of infective endocarditis and an indication fir antibiotic prophyloxis.
medmcqa_117
Antiboiotic Prophylaxis for infective endocarditis is indicated in:
Isolated secundum ASD
Mitral valve prolapse without regurgitation
Prior coronary aery bypass graft
Coarctation of aoa
null
Antiboiotic Prophylaxis for infective endocarditis is indicated in:
Medicine
null
Coarctation of aoa
117
single
2
null
medmcqa_121
Secondary retention for a removable partial denture is provided by
The indirect retainer
The direct retainer
Intimate contact between the denture bases and the underlying tissues
Direct and indirect retainers
null
Secondary retention for a removable partial denture is provided by
Dental
null
Intimate contact between the denture bases and the underlying tissues
121
single
1
In judicial hanging, a rope to allow a drop of five to seven metres according to the weight, build and age of the person, is looped round the neck, with the knot under the angle of the jaw. This causes fracture-dislocation usually at the level of the second and third, or third and fouh cervical veebrae. Ref: The essent...
medmcqa_126
Where does the "knot" is put in the neck during judicial hanging?
The back of the neck
Under angle of jaw
Below the chin
Choice of hangman
null
Where does the "knot" is put in the neck during judicial hanging?
Forensic Medicine
null
Under angle of jaw
126
single
1
Popliteus rotates the tibia medially on the femur or, when the tibia is fixed, rotates the femur laterally on the tibia. At the beginning of flexion of the fully extended knee, lateral femoral rotation by popliteus muscle unlocks the joint.Must know:Locking of knee joint is due to the the action of quadriceps femoris, ...
medmcqa_128
Which of the following muscle acts as unlocker of knee?
Gracilis
Popliteus
Saorius
Biceps femoris
null
Which of the following muscle acts as unlocker of knee?
Anatomy
null
Popliteus
128
single
3
A chronic smoker with painless gross hematuria should be suspected as having bladder cancer. The most common form of bladder cancer is transitional cell carcinoma (TCC). Tobacco use, followed by occupational exposure to various carcinogenic materials such as automobile exhaust or industrial solvents are the most freque...
medmcqa_129
A 60 yr old chronic smoker presents with painless gross hematuria of 1 day duration. Which is the investigation of choice to know the cause of hematuria?
USG
X-ray KUB
Urine routine
Urine microscopy for malignant cytology cells
null
A 60 yr old chronic smoker presents with painless gross hematuria of 1 day duration. Which is the investigation of choice to know the cause of hematuria?
Surgery
null
Urine microscopy for malignant cytology cells
129
single
2
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Polymerase chain reactionRef: Harrison, 17th/e, p. 1074,19th/e, p. 1165 and Ananthanarayan, 9th/e, p. 415Amplification assays such as ligase chain reaction and polymerase chain reaction are the most sensitive chlamydial diagnostic method.Other methods are:(a) Cell culture: Sensitivity (60-80%).(b) Dir...
medmcqa_130
The most sensitive method for detecting cervical Chlamydia trachomatis infection is:
Direct fluorescent antibody test
Enzyme immunoassay
Polymerase chain reaction
Culture on irradiated McConkey cells
null
The most sensitive method for detecting cervical Chlamydia trachomatis infection is:
Microbiology
Bacteria
Polymerase chain reaction
130
single
2
null
medmcqa_131
A labourer involved with repair-work of sewers was admitted with fever, jaundice and renal failure. The most appropriate test to diagnose the infection in this patient is -
Weil Felix test
Paul Bunnell test
Microscopic agglutination test
Microimmunofluorescence test
null
A labourer involved with repair-work of sewers was admitted with fever, jaundice and renal failure. The most appropriate test to diagnose the infection in this patient is
Microbiology
null
Microscopic agglutination test
131
single
3
null
medmcqa_136
A 40-year old diabetic patient presents with proptosis of one eye and black eschar over palate. The likely organism is :
Pseudomonas
Candida
E. coli
Mucor
null
A 40-year old diabetic patient presents with proptosis of one eye and black eschar over palate. The likely organism is :
Medicine
null
Mucor
136
single
0
Ans. A: Proptosis Graves' ophthalmopathy (also known as thyroid eye disease (TED), dysthyroid/thyroid-associated orbitopathy (TAO), Graves' orbitopathy) is an autoimmune inflammatory disorder affecting the orbit around the eye, characterized by upper eyelid retraction, swelling (edema), redness (erythema), conjunctivit...
medmcqa_142
Grave's ophthalmopathy mostly presents as September 2010
Proptosis
Ptosis
Reduced intraocular tension
Increased power of convergence
null
Grave's ophthalmopathy mostly presents as September 2010
Ophthalmology
null
Proptosis
142
single
0
When LDH-1 is greater than LDH-2, it is referred to as flipped LDH and is indicative of MI. LDH-1 isoenzyme is found primarily in hea muscle and is lesser in concentration than the LDH-2 Isoenzyme which is primarily found in RBC. When the concentration of LDH-1 is observed to be greater than LDH2. It is referred to as ...
medmcqa_144
Flipped LDH indicating Myocardial Infarction is represented by:
LDH-1> LDH-2
LDH-2 > LDH-1
LDH-4 > LDH-5
LDH-5 > LDH-4
null
Flipped LDH indicating Myocardial Infarction is represented by:
Medicine
C.V.S
LDH-1> LDH-2
144
single
3
null
medmcqa_145
Dimension stability of hydrocollids may be achieved by
optimizing w:p
using cold water
prolonged manipulation
using humidor
null
Dimension stability of hydrocollids may be achieved by
Dental
null
using humidor
145
single
2
All the above mentioned are ultrasound findings associated with increased risk of aneuploidy although the highest association is seen with cystic hygroma Nuchal translucency and cystic hygroma are both measured in the first trimesterTrisomy 21 is the most common aneuploidy associated with increased NT and cystic hygrom...
medmcqa_147
Which of the following ultrasound finding has the highest association with aneuploidy?
Choroid plexus cyst
Nuchal translucency
Cystic hygroma
Single umbilical aery
null
Which of the following ultrasound finding has the highest association with aneuploidy?
Microbiology
All India exam
Cystic hygroma
147
single
0
Functions: Transpo Systems An essential role of biomembranes is to allow movement of all compounds necessary for the normal function of a cell across the membrane barrier. These compounds include a vast array of substances like sugars, amino acids, fatty acids, steroids, cations and anions to mention a few. These compo...
medmcqa_148
Which of the following is not a component of transpo system?
Receptor activation
Selective gate
Non-selective channel
Energy coupling system
null
Which of the following is not a component of transpo system?
Biochemistry
Respiratory chain
Receptor activation
148
single
1
Comfo zones: In deg C of corrected effective temperature Pleasant and cool 20 Comfoable and cool 20-25 (69-76F) Comfoable 25- 27 (77-80F) Hot and uncomfoable 27-28 Extremely hot 28+ Intolerably hot 30+. Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 25th Edition, Pg 792
medmcqa_150
To feel comfoable and cool in a factory the conrrected effective temperature ( in degree Farenheit) should be -
Less tha 69
Between 69 and 76
Between 77 and 80
Between 81 and 82
null
To feel comfoable and cool in a factory the conrrected effective temperature ( in degree Farenheit) should be
Social & Preventive Medicine
Environment and health
Between 69 and 76
150
single
1
Ans. is 'b' i.e., APTT o Factor VIII is a part of the intrinsic pathway of coagulation. The test used to identity1 the defects in the intrinsic and common pathways of coagulation is PTT. Thus prolonged PTT is a feature of patient with factor VIII deficiency.o Patients with hemophilia have deficiency of factor VIII that...
medmcqa_151
Test used for factor VIII deficiency identification is-
PT
APTT
D dimer
FDP
null
Test used for factor VIII deficiency identification is-
Pathology
Bleeding Disorders
APTT
151
single
0
Chronic subdral haematoma
medmcqa_153
Headache, apathy and deteriorating level of consciousness occurring weeks after head injury suggests;
Chronic subdral haematoma.
Pontine hemorrhage
Continuing cerebral.
Depressed skull fracture.
null
Headache, apathy and deteriorating level of consciousness occurring weeks after head injury suggests;
Surgery
null
Chronic subdral haematoma.
153
single
0
Ans. A. (A)A. Anterior Talofibular ligamentAnkle sprains: Usually caused by the falls from height or twists of ankle. When the plantar-flexed foot is excessively inverted, the anterior and posterior talofibular and calcaneofibular ligaments are stretched and torn. The anterior talofibular ligament is most commonly torn...
medmcqa_154
A 27-year female wearing high heels stumbled and sustained inversion injury at ankle. Which ligament is most likely to be injured in the given case?
A
B
C
D
null
A 27-year female wearing high heels stumbled and sustained inversion injury at ankle. Which ligament is most likely to be injured in the given case?
Anatomy
Lower Extremity
A
154
single
0
Asymmetric tonic reflex (ATNR) diappears by 6-7 months postnatally The tonic neck reflex is produced by manually rotating the infant&;s head to 1 side and observing for the characteristic fencing posture (extension of the arm on the side to which the face is rotated and flexion of the conralateral arm) An obligatory to...
medmcqa_155
Asymmetric tonic neck reflex (ATNR) disappears at ______
6 months
5 months
9 months
8 months
null
Asymmetric tonic neck reflex (ATNR) disappears at ______
Pediatrics
New born infants
6 months
155
single
1
Hypeension due to an occlusive lesion of a renal aery is renovascular hypeensionIn the initial stages, the mechanism of hypeension generally is related to activation of the renin-angiotensin system. Obstruction of the renal aery leads to decreased renal perfusion pressure, thereby stimulating renin secretion. Over time...
medmcqa_158
Which of the following is the most specific and sensitive screening test for renovascular hypeension?
HRCT
CT Angiography
Captopril enhanced radionucleotide scan
Doppler ultrasound of renal aeries
null
Which of the following is the most specific and sensitive screening test for renovascular hypeension?
Medicine
All India exam
CT Angiography
158
single
2
Even severe AS may exist for many years without producing any symptoms because of the ability of the hyperophied LV to generate the elevated intraventricular pressures required to maintain a normal stroke volume. Most patients with pure or predominant AS have gradually increasing obstruction over years, but do not beco...
medmcqa_160
A 63 year old man presents with a triad of angina, syncope and congestive hea failure. Which of the following valvular hea lesion can be suspected-
antral stenosis
Tricuspid regurgitation
Aoic stenosis
Aoic regurgitation
null
A 63 year old man presents with a triad of angina, syncope and congestive hea failure. Which of the following valvular hea lesion can be suspected-
Medicine
C.V.S
Aoic stenosis
160
single
3
null
medmcqa_161
Generalised thickening of cortical and cancellous bones is seen in
Osteopetrosis
Pagets disease
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Infantile hyperostosis
null
Generalised thickening of cortical and cancellous bones is seen in
Pathology
null
Infantile hyperostosis
161
single
3
Myoglobinuria REF: Harrison's Internal Medicine 17th edition chapter 382, Physiology and pathology of the urine by john dixon p. 49 Red color urine may be due to hemoglobin or myoglobin. In the question clue is given that patient is an athlete who competed in an event which lead to sternous exercise and hence increased...
medmcqa_162
An athelete presented with red coloured urine after 2 days of history of severe exeion. The most probable cause is?
Hemoglobinuria
Hemosiderinuria
Hematuria
Myoglobinuria
null
An athelete presented with red coloured urine after 2 days of history of severe exeion. The most probable cause is?
Surgery
null
Myoglobinuria
162
single
1
There are 6 established hypothalamic releasing and inhibiting hormones : Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH), Thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH), Growth hormone releasing hormone (GRH), Growth  hormone inhibiting hormone (GIH), Luteinizing hormone releasing hormone (LHRH) and Prolactin inhibiting hormone(PIH).
medmcqa_164
Which of the following is released from hypothalamus?
Orexin
Cortisol releasing hormone
Neuropeptide
Ghrelin
null
Which of the following is released from hypothalamus?
Physiology
null
Cortisol releasing hormone
164
single
0
Vitamin Functions Deficiency Disease D Maintenance of calcium balance Enhances intestinal absorption of Ca2+ and mobilizes bone mineral Regulation of gene expression and cell differentiation Rickets = poor mineralization of bone Osteomalacia = bone demineralization Reference: Harper; 30th edition; Page no: 550
medmcqa_167
Which of the following vitamin enhances intestinal absorption of calcium?
Vitamin D
Vitamin K
Vitamin B1
Vitamin B2
null
Which of the following vitamin enhances intestinal absorption of calcium?
Biochemistry
vitamins
Vitamin D
167
single
2
Habitual aboion is the most impoant indication for surgical treatment of women who have a double uterus. The aboion rate in women who have a double uterus is to three times greater than that of the general population. Best diagnosis of the condition is made by laparohysteroscopy. Strassmans Metroplasty
medmcqa_168
Which of these is the most impoant indication for Strassmans Metroplasty done for a bicornuate uterus?
Infeility
Menorrhagia
Repeated early pregnancy losses
Associated vaginal atresia
null
Which of these is the most impoant indication for Strassmans Metroplasty done for a bicornuate uterus?
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Mullerian Abnormalities
Repeated early pregnancy losses
168
single
3
Reference: Harpers illustrated biochemistry 30th edition page 275
medmcqa_173
In a patient with a type of familial dyslipidemias he presented with palmar Xanthomas and he ias at increased risk of atherosclerosis and CAD.In Lipid profile there was elevation of triacylglycerols and cholesterol.And the IDL and chylomicrons were elevated.What is the pathophysiology of the condition?
LDL deficiency
VLDL overproduction
Apo C-2 deficiency
Apo E deficiency
null
In a patient with a type of familial dyslipidemias he presented with palmar Xanthomas and he ias at increased risk of atherosclerosis and CAD.In Lipid profile there was elevation of triacylglycerols and cholesterol.And the IDL and chylomicrons were elevated.What is the pathophysiology of the condition?
Biochemistry
Metabolism of lipid
Apo E deficiency
173
single
2
Answer is C (Ca lung with ectopic ACTH production); Lack of suppression to dexamethasone challenge (ACTH producing tumor) and presence of hemoptysis (Carcinoma lung) in a patient with Cushinoid features suggests a diagnosis of Carcinoma lung with ectopic ACTH secretion. As a method of diagnostic workup of any patient w...
medmcqa_177
A patient with cushinoid features presents with hemoptysis; he shows no response to dexamethasone suppression test; most likely diagnosis here is:
Adrenal hyperplasia
Adrenal adenoma
Ca lung with ectopic ACTH production
Pituitary microadenoma
null
A patient with cushinoid features presents with hemoptysis; he shows no response to dexamethasone suppression test; most likely diagnosis here is:
Medicine
null
Ca lung with ectopic ACTH production
177
single
0
Since cannabis causes very mild withdrawal symptoms hence, no symptomatic treatment is required. LSD and other hallucinations also do not cause any withdrawal symptoms .
medmcqa_178
Symptomatic treatment is not required in withdrawal of:
Cannabis
Morphine
Alcohol
Cocaine
null
Symptomatic treatment is not required in withdrawal of:
Psychiatry
Substance Related and Addictive Disorders
Cannabis
178
single
2
The Transplantation of Human Organs Act 1994, amended in 2011, and 2012 Chapter VI and VII deals with the trial and punishment of offences under this act. Under this act, doctors involved will be punished for a period of 2-5yrs. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr. PC IGNATIUS PAGE NO: 389
medmcqa_180
Under transplantation of humans organs act, the punishment for the doctor involved is
< 1 year
< 2 years
2-5 years
> 5 years
null
Under transplantation of humans organs act, the punishment for the doctor involved is
Forensic Medicine
Medical Jurisprudence
2-5 years
180
single
0
Ans. is. a. Ecthyma gangrenosum
medmcqa_181
Staphylococcus aureus does not cause which of the following skin infection:
Ecthyma gangrenosum
Bullous impetigo
Botryomycosis
Cellulitis
null
Staphylococcus aureus does not cause which of the following skin infection:
Microbiology
null
Ecthyma gangrenosum
181
single
0
Cornea Verticillata This is a whorl-like opacity in the corneal epithelium seen in patients on long-term treatment with medication such as amiodarone, chloroquine, phenothiazines and indomethacin. It is also seen in patients with Fabry disease and its carrier state. The condition is generally asymptomatic, harmless an...
medmcqa_184
A patient on amiodarone is diagnosed to have cornea verticillata. What should be management –
Stop the drug
Penetrating keratoplasty
Lamellar keratoplasty
Observation
null
A patient on amiodarone is diagnosed to have cornea verticillata. What should be management –
Ophthalmology
null
Stop the drug
184
single
2
Ref:Robbins Basic Pathology (9th Edition),page no.478,479 Sarcoidosis Although sarcoidosis is considered here as an example of a restrictive lung disease, it is impoant to note that sarcoidosis is a multisystem disease of unknown etiology characterized by noncaseating granulomas in many tissues and organs. MORPHOLOGY T...
medmcqa_188
Mediastinal lymph node calcification is seen in which one of the following-
Metastatic neoplasm
Lymphoma
Sarcoidosis
Bronchiectasis
null
Mediastinal lymph node calcification is seen in which one of the following-
Pathology
Respiratory system
Sarcoidosis
188
single
2
The Ty21a vaccine is licensed for use in individuals > 5 years. A three dose regimen is recommended. Vaccine is administered on alternate days: 0n days 1, 3 and 5. Ref: Park 21st edition, page 215.
medmcqa_190
The number of doses recommended for oral Ty21a typhoid vaccine is:
14
5
3
1
null
The number of doses recommended for oral Ty21a typhoid vaccine is:
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
3
190
single
1
Ethosuximide and valproate are the drugs of choice for absence seizures and are more effective than lamotrigineReference: Katzung Pharmacology; 12th edition; Page no: 418
medmcqa_191
The drug used in petit mal seizures and has a narrow spectrum of antiepileptic activity is
Lamotrigine
Ethosuximide
Phenytoin
Primidone
null
The drug used in petit mal seizures and has a narrow spectrum of antiepileptic activity is
Pharmacology
Central Nervous system
Ethosuximide
191
single
2
Answer is C (PET Scan) : PET scan has- not been mentioned as a test to investigate syncope in Harrisons text. It is the single best answer of exclusion. Electrophysiological tests and 24 hour ECG Holter monitoring are indicated in patients where history suggests a cardiac disease. Upright tilt table testing is indicate...
medmcqa_192
Which test is not useful in a patient with history of Syncopal attack?
Electrophysiological testing
Tilt Table testing
PET Scan
Holter monitoring
null
Which test is not useful in a patient with history of Syncopal attack?
Medicine
null
PET Scan
192
single
1
The axial skeleton shapes the longitudinal axis of the human body. Coracoclavicular ligament suspends the scapula from the lower one third of the clavicle and forms a strong bond between them. The weight of the upper limb is transmitted to the axial skeleton through this ligament. A fracture of the clavicle, medial to ...
medmcqa_195
In a 24 year old man weight of the upper limb is transmitted to the axial skeleton by:
Coracoacromial ligament
Coracoclavicular ligament
Costoclavicular ligament
Coracohumeral ligament
null
In a 24 year old man weight of the upper limb is transmitted to the axial skeleton by:
Anatomy
null
Coracoclavicular ligament
195
single
0
Freely filterable substances by glomerulus -        Water -        Na+ -        Cl- -        HCO3- -        Inulin -        Glucose -        Creatinine   -        Free Calcium or phosphate
medmcqa_200
Which of the following is freely filtered by kidney across glomerular capillariesa) Albumin (across glomerular capillaries)b) Globulinc) Creatinined) HCO3 e) Glucose
cde
acd
bde
ade
null
Which of the following is freely filtered by kidney across glomerular capillariesa) Albumin (across glomerular capillaries)b) Globulinc) Creatinined) HCO3 e) Glucose
Physiology
null
cde
200
single
1
THYROID HORMONE SYNTHESIS AND SECRETIONThyroid hormones are synthesized in the colloid, near the apical cell membrane of the follicular cells. Catalyzed by the enzyme thyroidal peroxidase, iodide in the thyroid cell is oxidized to iodine.The iodine enters the colloid and is rapidly bound at the 3 position to tyrosine m...
medmcqa_209
Which of the following iodinated compound is present in a maximum concentration in the thyroid?
Monoiodotyrosine (MIT)
Diiodotyrosine (DIT)
T3
Reverse T3
null
Which of the following iodinated compound is present in a maximum concentration in the thyroid?
Microbiology
All India exam
Diiodotyrosine (DIT)
209
single
0
null
medmcqa_212
One of the constituents of the commonly used metered dose inhalers in bronchial asthma which is an air pollutant & dangerous to earth's stratosphere is -
Flurocarbons
Salbutamol
Ozone
Oxygen
null
One of the constituents of the commonly used metered dose inhalers in bronchial asthma which is an air pollutant & dangerous to earth's stratosphere is
Medicine
null
Flurocarbons
212
single
2
terbutaline can be given as s.c (0.25mg) in asthma.
medmcqa_217
Which of the following drugs can be administered by subcutaneous route?
Albuterol
Metaproterenol
Terbutaline
Pirbuterol
null
Which of the following drugs can be administered by subcutaneous route?
Pharmacology
null
Terbutaline
217
single
2
Ans. C: Debilitation after major surgery Acute bacterial parotitis is now infrequent, but its historical impoance. Mumps and bacterial parotitis were differentiated by 1800, but neither was effectively treated. The moality rate for bacterial parotitis was 80%. Before antibiotics and intravenous administration of fluids...
medmcqa_219
Bacterial pyogenic parotitis affecting the parotid gland is most common after: March 2008
Uveo-parotid fever
Mumps
Debilitation after major surgery
After administration of iodine
null
Bacterial pyogenic parotitis affecting the parotid gland is most common after: March 2008
Surgery
null
Debilitation after major surgery
219
single
1
High grade squamous intraepithelial lesion have a propensity to progress and become invasive, therefore need investigations and treatment Ref: Shaw Gynecology 17 e pg 410.
medmcqa_220
Patient diagnosed as squamous cell intraepithelial lesion which of the following has the highest risk for progression to carcinoma;
Low grade squamous intraepithelial neoplasia
High grade squamous intraepithelial neoplasia
Squamous intraepithelial associated with HPV 16
Squamous intraepithelial neoplasia associated with HIV
null
Patient diagnosed as squamous cell intraepithelial lesion which of the following has the highest risk for progression to carcinoma;
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Gynaecological oncology
High grade squamous intraepithelial neoplasia
220
single
1
The following are the adverse effect following immunisation: Vaccine reaction - Here the event is caused by the inherent propeies of the vaccine when given correctly. Programme error - In this case the event is as a result of error in preparation, handling or administration of the vaccine. Coincidental - The event afte...
medmcqa_222
You are the medical officer in charge of the immunisation programme at a sub-centre and you are informed by the local ASHA worker that one of the children who was immunised has has been dizzy. On fuher investigation it was confirmed that the symptoms were due to anxiety of pain of the injection and not as a result of t...
Vaccine reaction
Injection reaction
Programme error
Coincidental
null
You are the medical officer in charge of the immunisation programme at a sub-centre and you are informed by the local ASHA worker that one of the children who was immunised has has been dizzy. On fuher investigation it was confirmed that the symptoms were due to anxiety of pain of the injection and not as a result of t...
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
Injection reaction
222
single
2
Bicipital aponeurosis lies superficial to the brachial aery and median nerve. -lies deep to superficial veins. -provides protection for the deeper structures during venepuncture at cubital fossa. -routinely released to decompress the median nerve
medmcqa_223
Bicipital aponeurosis lies over which structure in cubital fossa:-
Median cubital vein
Radial nerve
Brachial aery
Anterior interosseous aery
null
Bicipital aponeurosis lies over which structure in cubital fossa:-
Anatomy
Muscles of arm and forearm region & Cubital fossa
Brachial aery
223
single
1
Suppression is pushing of unwanted feelings into unconscious which has reached conscious awareness.
medmcqa_224
Postponing paying attention of conscious impulse or conflict is a mature defence mechanism known as -
Sublimation
Suppression
Humor
Anticipation
null
Postponing paying attention of conscious impulse or conflict is a mature defence mechanism known as
Psychiatry
null
Suppression
224
single
3
• Risks of colonoscopy: Perforation and hemorrhage • MC site of bleeding after colonoscopy: Stalk after polypectomy. • MC site of perforation during colonoscopy: Sigmoid colon • Perforation can be caused by excessive air pressure, tearing of the antimesenteric border of the colon from excessive pressure on colonic loop...
medmcqa_225
The commonest site of perforation during colonoscopy is -
Caecum
Hepatic flexure
Splenic flexure
Sigmoid colon
null
The commonest site of perforation during colonoscopy is
Surgery
null
Sigmoid colon
225
single
0
Ref Robbins 9/e p106 Incised wound for the formation of collagen and new tissue, thick layer of epithelial ,and granulation tissue formation along with new blood vessels requires atleast 4_5 days
medmcqa_228
After an incised wound ,new collagen fibrils are seen along with a thick layer of growing epithelium.The approximate age of the wound is
4-5days
About 1week
12-24hrs
24-48 hrs
null
After an incised wound ,new collagen fibrils are seen along with a thick layer of growing epithelium.The approximate age of the wound is
Anatomy
General anatomy
4-5days
228
single
2
Ans: C (Saphenofemoral incompetency) Ref : 74 A Manual on Clinical Surgery S. DasExplanation:Clinical Examination of Varicose VeinsBrodie-Trendelenherg TestDone to determine the incompetency of Saphenofemoral valve.Patient is placed in recumbent position.Limbs are raised to empty the veins. Veins are milked proximally ...
medmcqa_230
Trendlenburg's test done for varicose veins is for detection of:
Perforator in competency
Deep veins patency
Saphenofemoral incompetency
Site of perforators
null
Trendlenburg's test done for varicose veins is for detection of:
Surgery
Varicose Veins
Saphenofemoral incompetency
230
single
1
null
medmcqa_231
Arrange the following 4 enzymes of gluconeogenesis in sequence: A. Pyruvate carboxylase B. Glucose - 6 - phosphatase C. Phosphoenol pyruvate carboxy kinase D. Fructose 1,6 Bisphosphatase
D-C-A-B
A-C-D-B
B-A-D-C
C-D-B-A
null
Arrange the following 4 enzymes of gluconeogenesis in sequence: A. Pyruvate carboxylase B. Glucose - 6 - phosphatase C. Phosphoenol pyruvate carboxy kinase D. Fructose 1,6 Bisphosphatase
Biochemistry
Gluconeogenesis
A-C-D-B
231
single
1
<p> Leptospirosis is the most wide zoonotic disease in the world. Reference:Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,K.Park,23rd edition,page no:291. <\p>
medmcqa_233
Most common widespread zoonotic disease in the world is -
Rabies
Leptospirosis
Brucella
Anthrax
null
Most common widespread zoonotic disease in the world is
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable diseases
Leptospirosis
233
single
2
Inherited hyperammonemias are a group of six diseases caused by inborn deficiencies of the enzymes of the Krebs-Henseleit urea cycle. The enzymes involved are: 1. N-acetyl glutamate synthetase 2. Arbamyl phosphate synthetase (CPS) 3. Ornithine transcarbamylase (OTC) 4. Argininosuccinic acid synthetase (citrullinemia) 5...
medmcqa_236
Inherited hyperammonemia is a result of deficiency of which enzyme of Krebs-Henseleit urea cycle?
Malate dehydrogenase
Isocitrate dehydrogenase
N-acetyl glutamate synthetase
Succinate dehydrogenase
null
Inherited hyperammonemia is a result of deficiency of which enzyme of Krebs-Henseleit urea cycle?
Biochemistry
null
N-acetyl glutamate synthetase
236
single
3
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Doppler o Color doppler ultrasonography is the screening method of choice (not simple USG : option a is incorrect),o Carotid angiography is the investigation of choice for diagnosis,o MRI is the investigation of choice for demyelinating disorder, e.g. multiple sclerosis.Investigations in nervous syste...
medmcqa_238
Carotid artery stenosis screening invivo choice is -
USG
CT
MRI
Doppler
null
Carotid artery stenosis screening invivo choice is
Radiology
Head and Neck Imaging
Doppler
238
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