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Answer the following multi question from the subject Pharmacology (Topic: Chemotherapy). | Hepatotoxic drugs are all EXCEPT: Options:
A: Methotrexate
B: Isoniazid
C: Cycloserine
D: Ethionamide | Correct option: C - Cycloserine
Explanation: Methotrexate (Mtx): It is one of the oldest and highly efficacious antineoplastic drugs; inhibits dihydrofolate reductase (DHFRase)-blocking the conversion of dihydrofolic acid (DHFA) to tetrahydrofolic acid (THFA) which is an essential coenzyme required for one carbon trans... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following multi question from the subject Pharmacology (Topic: None). | All of the following pharmaceutical agents cause gynaecomastia, EXCEPT: Options:
A: INH
B: Cimetidine
C: Digitalis
D: Pyrazinamide | Correct option: D - Pyrazinamide
Explanation: Pyrazinamide will cause gynaecomastia. List of drugs which cause gynaecomastia are: Hormones Androgens and anabolic steroids Chorionic gonadotropin Estrogens and estrogen agonists Growth hormone Environmental estrogens Antiandrogens or inhibitors of androgen synthesis Cypro... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Forensic Medicine (Topic: Forensic Toxicology - Concepts, Statutes, Evidence, and Techniques). | Antidote used in methyl alcohol poisoning is? Options:
A: EDTA
B: Alpha methyl dopa
C: Acetyl cysteine
D: Fomepizole | Correct option: D - Fomepizole
Explanation: ANSWER; (D) FomepizoleREF: APPENDIX-42 below for list of "Antidotes" APPENDIX - 42AntidotesAntidotePoison/drug/toxinN-AcetylcysteineAcetaminophenCarbon tetrachlorideOther hepatotoxinsAmyl nitrite, sodium nitrite and sodium thiosulfate (Cyanide antidote kit)NitrilesBromatesChl... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Biochemistry (Topic: Vitamins and Minerals). | A 38 year old female patient was on Isoniazid therapy for tuberculosis. She developed rashes on the exposed pas of her body. She has disoriented memory. Family members gives history of diarrhea also. What is the diagnosis: Options:
A: Tuberculosis skin lesions
B: Niacin deficiency
C: Isoniazid neuropathy
D: Some other ... | Correct option: B - Niacin deficiency
Explanation: Isoniazid inhibits the endogenous synthesis of niacin. So the patient has developed pellagra i.e. dermatitis, dementia and diarrhea. Prolonged treatment with isoniazid leads to pyridoxine deficiency, which is required for endogenous synthesis of niacin. | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following multi question from the subject Anatomy (Topic: Respiratory system). | All of the following statements about silicosis are true except Options:
A: Pleural plaques
B: Prediliction for upper lobes
C: Calcific hilar lymphadenopathy
D: Associated with tuberculosis | Correct option: A - Pleural plaques
Explanation: With long-term, less intense exposure, small rounded opacities in the upper lobes may appear on the chest radiograph after 15-20 years of exposure, usually without associated impairment of lung function (simple silicosis). Calcification of hilar nodes may occur in as man... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Radiology (Topic: Imaging of Alveolar Lung Disease). | Perihilar fluffy opacities on chest X-ray is seen in(Jipmer 92) Options:
A: Pulmonary embolism
B: Pericardial effusion
C: Pulmonary arterial hypertension
D: Pulmonary venous hypertension | Correct option: D - Pulmonary venous hypertension
Explanation: X Ray Findings - Chest Heart & Blood Vessels * Flask-shaped / Pear-shaped / Leathe- bottle / Money-bag shaped heart - Pericardial effusion * Boot-shaped heart / Coer-en-sabot - Fallot's tetralogy * Box shaped appearance - Tricuspid atresia * Jug Handle appe... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Pathology (Topic: None). | Immune granulomas are not seen in - Options:
A: Tuberculosis
B: Syphilis
C: Silicosis
D: Berryliosis | Correct option: C - Silicosis
Explanation: Ans. is 'c' i.e., Silicosis o In silicosis, there is non-immune granuloma. | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Radiology (Topic: Miscellaneous). | "Phantom calyx/Amputated calyx" on IVU is feature of? Options:
A: Tuberculosis
B: Hydronephrosis
C: Bilharziasis
D: UPJ obstruction | Correct option: A - Tuberculosis
Explanation: Ans. A. TuberculosisEarly renal tb: IVUAdvanced renal tb: CTRadiologic findings in renal tb include:a. Urographic demonstration (ivu) of diminished excretion of the contrast medium, focally or generally.b. Poorly defined one or more calyces.c. Cavitation communicating with ... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Pharmacology (Topic: None). | Which one of the following anti-tuberculous drug
has excellent penetration into the cerebrospinal fluid? Options:
A: Ethambutol
B: Pyrazinamide
C: Streptomycin
D: Rifampicin | Correct option: B - Pyrazinamide
Explanation: None | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Pathology (Topic: None). | In tuberculosis the cytokine causing fever is Options:
A: ILI
B: IL2
C: IL3
D: IL4 | Correct option: @ - Unknown
Explanation: | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following multi question from the subject Surgery (Topic: Kidney & Ureturs). | A 50 years old male has hematuria and abdominal pain the cause can be all except Options:
A: Renal stone
B: Renal cell cancer
C: BPH
D: Urothelial carcinoma | Correct option: C - BPH
Explanation: (C) (BPH) (1331-33 Bailey & Love 26th)BENIGH PROSTATIC HYPERTROPHY:Primary symptom of bph arise because of difficulty in voiding urine due to obstruct ion of urethra by the prostate. They consist of hesitancy, poor urinary flow, and a sensation of incomplete emptyingNon specific sym... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Microbiology (Topic: None). | The medium used for Mycobacterium tuberculosis is - Options:
A: Sabouraud's medium
B: LJ medium
C: Pike's medium
D: NIH medium | Correct option: B - LJ medium
Explanation: None | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Orthopaedics (Topic: Tuberculosis of Bone & Joints). | Commonest site of bone and joint tuberculosis? Options:
A: Spine
B: Femur
C: Knee
D: Hip | Correct option: A - Spine
Explanation: Ans. a (Spine) (Ref. Harrison's medicine 17th ed., Ch. 158).Skeletal tuberculosis is more common in children. It is due to haematogenous spread from a primary site, usually the lungs. The spine is the most common site of infection and is present in over 50% of children. This is fo... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Pharmacology (Topic: Mycobacterial Diseases (TB, Leprosy and MAC)). | Which anti-tubercular agent is associated with side effects as respiratory syndrome, cutaneous syndrome, flu like syndrome and abdominal syndrome? Options:
A: PAS
B: Pyrazinamide
C: Rifampicin
D: Streptomycin | Correct option: C - Rifampicin
Explanation: Flu like syndrome is an adverse effect of Rifampicin (R) Rifampicin (R) It is a derivative of rifamycin (other derivatives are rifabutin and rifapentine). It is bactericidal against both dividing and non-dividing mycobacterium and acts by inhibiting DNA dependent RNA polymera... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Ophthalmology (Topic: None). | Scleritis is most commonly associated with: Options:
A: Polyaeritis nodosa
B: Tuberculosis
C: Rheumatoid ahritis
D: Sarcoidosis | Correct option: C - Rheumatoid ahritis
Explanation: Ans. Rheumatoid ahritis | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Pathology (Topic: None). | Koenen tumor seen in ? Options:
A: Neurofibromatosis
B: Tuberous sclerosis
C: Struge weber syndrome
D: Tuberculosis | Correct option: B - Tuberous sclerosis
Explanation: Ans. is 'b' i.e., Tuberous sclerosis Periungual fibromas (Koenen's tumors) :? Present in 20% of patients of tuberous sclerosis. Develop in adult life. Small, pink, sausage-shaped growths arising from under the nail folds; may disto the nail plate. | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Microbiology (Topic: None). | A 15-year-old girl in a rural community has swollen, painful lymph nodes in her right axilla. Physical examination reveals multiple scratches on her right arm with a papule associated with one of the scratch marks. She states that the scratches occurred about 5 days ago. What type of animal is the most likely source of... | Correct option: A - Cat or kitten
Explanation: This patient has the classic symptoms of cat scratch disease caused by the bacillus Baonella henselae. The disease is self-limited with the onset of symptoms occurring 3-10 days following an inoculating scratch. The organism can be isolated from kittens, typically less tha... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Surgery (Topic: G.I.T). | Familial polyposis coli is due to Options:
A: Abnormality of chromosomes five
B: Abnormality of chromosomes
C: Intestinal tuberculosis
D: Intussusception | Correct option: A - Abnormality of chromosomes five
Explanation: .desmoid tumour is often associated with the familial polyposis colon (FAP), osteomas, odontomes epidermal cysts-- Gardner's syndrome.it is usually due to genetic abnormality involving chromosome 5. ref:SRB&;s manual of surgery ,ed 3,pg no 776 | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Pharmacology (Topic: None). | Ethambutol should be used very cautiously in childhood tuberculosis due to which of its side effect ? Options:
A: Ocular toxicity
B: Renal damage
C: Hepatotoxicity
D: Neurotoxicity | Correct option: A - Ocular toxicity
Explanation: None | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following multi question from the subject Medicine (Topic: None). | True regarding presentation of primary T.B. is Options:
A: B/L pleural effusion with negative Tuberculin test
B: U/L hilar lymphadenopathy
C: Sustained chronic pyrexia
D: B/L pleural effusion with positive tuberculin test | Correct option: B - U/L hilar lymphadenopathy
Explanation: Answer is B (Unilateral hilar lymphadenopathy): Unilateral hilar lymphadenopathy as pa of the primary complex is a characteristic feature of primary tuberculosis Primary tuberculosis: It is the first infection with tubercle bacilli in individuals who have not b... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Social & Preventive Medicine (Topic: None). | CTL inducing vaccines, Recombinant Adeno-associated Virus Vaccine (rAAV) and Modified Vaccinia Ankara (MVA) are being developed for Options:
A: Tuberculosis
B: HIV/AIDS
C: Malaria
D: Leprosy | Correct option: B - HIV/AIDS
Explanation: Ever since 1987, more than 30 HIV candidate vaccines have been tested in Clinical trials Phases I/II; Some of them are:
– AIDSVAX (gp 120 based vaccine): only vaccine in Phase III trials
– Cytotoxic T-Lymphocytes (CTL) Inducing vaccine
– Recombinant adeno- associated virus (rA... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Microbiology (Topic: None). | Maurer's dots are seen in which species of plasmodium? Options:
A: P ovale
B: P vivax
C: P falciparum
D: P malariae | Correct option: @ - Unknown
Explanation: | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Pediatrics (Topic: All India exam). | In a mother with active tuberculosis, treatment for infant is Options:
A: Isoniazid prophylaxis
B: No treatment
C: Full treatment with HRE
D: Treatment with Isoniazid and rifampicin | Correct option: A - Isoniazid prophylaxis
Explanation: Prevention of perinatal TB If the mother has active disease, ATT should be staed for motherNeonate should be given INH prophylaxis till mother is sputum negative or at least 6 monthsRoutine BCG vaccinationSeparation of mother and neonate is not required and breastf... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Social & Preventive Medicine (Topic: Tuberculosis). | Most rapid diagnosis of pulmonary TB can be done by - Options:
A: Sputum culture
B: Sputum microscopy
C: Radiometric BACTEC method
D: Genexpert | Correct option: B - Sputum microscopy
Explanation: Ans- BSputum Microscopy takes about less than a hr where as gene expert 2hrs.Rapid detection is by Microscopy.More sensitive & Specific is GeneXpertWhat is the Xpert MTB/RIF Assay?The Xpert MTB/RIF assay is a new test that is revolutionizing tuberculosis (TB) control b... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following multi question from the subject Medicine (Topic: None). | Acquired cause of pure red cell aplasia are all except: Options:
A: ABO incompatibility in bone marrow transplantation
B: Lymphoma
C: Drug induced-NSAIDs
D: Chromosome 5q deletion syndrome (5q monosomy) | Correct option: C - Drug induced-NSAIDs
Explanation: Answer- C. Drug induced-NSAIDsNSAIDs are not the cause of Acquired pure red cell aplasia.Acquired pure red cell aplasia:Cancer: Thymoma, Lymphoid malignancies, Paraneoplastic to solid tumors.Drugs: Phenytoin, azathioprine, Chloramphenicol, Procainamide, isoniazid | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Medicine (Topic: Respiratory). | Increased serum amylase in pleural effusion is seen in Options:
A: Rheumatoid arthritis
B: Tuberculosis
C: Malignancy
D: Pulmonary embolism | Correct option: C - Malignancy
Explanation: (Malignancy) (269- CMDT-08) (1658-H17th)Serum amylase level in PE - suggest pancreatits, pancreatic pseudocyst, adenocarcinoma of the lung or pancreas or esophageal rupture, - MalignancyGlucose < 60 mg/ dL - occurs in Malignancy, Bacterial infections, Rheumatoid pleuriticIncr... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Social & Preventive Medicine (Topic: None). | Treatment of choice for sputum positive pulmonary tuberculosis detected in Ist trimester of pregnancy: Options:
A: Defer till second trimester
B: Sta cat. I immediately
C: Sta cat. II immediately
D: Sta cat. III immediately | Correct option: B - Sta cat. I immediately
Explanation: Sta cat. I immediately Repeat May 10 | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following multi question from the subject Dental (Topic: Dermatitis). | Drug causing erythroderma are all except - Options:
A: Phenytoin
B: Penicillin
C: Gold
D: Carbamazapine | Correct option: B - Penicillin
Explanation: <p>ERYTHRODERMA:- Erythema and scaling involving more than 90% of the body surface area. When scaling is the predominant feature-exfoliative dermatitis. Etiology:- 1. Pre existing skin disease-psoriasis,lichen planus,contact dermatitis,seborrheuc dermatitis,crusted scabies. 2... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Microbiology (Topic: None). | LJ media is used for ? Options:
A: Bacillus antracis
B: M. tuberculosis
C: Leptospira
D: Legionella | Correct option: B - M. tuberculosis
Explanation: Ans. is 'b' i.e., M tuberculosis The solid medium most widely employed for routine culture of tubercular is Lowenstein - Jensen Medium (L.J. medium). | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Social & Preventive Medicine (Topic: None). | A patient of pulmonary tuberculosis was put on anti-tuberculosis therapy. He was given Rifampicin, INH, Ethambutol and Pyrazinamide He should be advised to have a supplement of Options:
A: Niacin
B: Riboflavin
C: Pyridoxine
D: Thiamine | Correct option: C - Pyridoxine
Explanation: None | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Pharmacology (Topic: Anti Microbial). | Drug causing visual disturbance - Options:
A: Pyrazinamide
B: Rifampin
C: Ethambutol
D: PAS | Correct option: C - Ethambutol
Explanation: Ans. is 'c' i.e., Ethambutol Adverse effect of Ethambutolo Ethambutol is relatively non toxic.o The main adverse effect of Ethambutol is retrobulbar optic neuritis (^unilateral or B/L/o This causes:-# Loss of visual activityRed-green colour blindness# Central scotomaPeriphera... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Pathology (Topic: None). | Most common cause of mitral valve disease:March 2013 Options:
A: Infective endocarditis
B: Myxoma
C: Tuberculosis
D: Rheumatic fever | Correct option: D - Rheumatic fever
Explanation: Ans. D i.e. Rheumatic feverRheumatic feverIt is an inflammatory disease that occurs following a Streptococcus pyogenes infection, such as streptococcal pharyngitis or scarlet fever.Believed to be caused by antibody cross-reactivity that can involve the hea, joints, skin,... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Microbiology (Topic: parasitology). | Man is secondary host for - Options:
A: Malaria
B: Tuberculosis
C: Filariasis
D: Relapsing fever | Correct option: A - Malaria
Explanation: Intermediate host-man Definitive host-mosquito Asexual development-manSexual development-mosquito Sporozoite infective form.Sporozoites are present in the salivary gland of the mosquito .Man gets infection by the bite of female anopheles mosquito (refer pgno:55 baveja 3 rd editi... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following multi question from the subject Pathology (Topic: Cellular Pathology). | Foci of granulomatous inflammation show all of the following except? Options:
A: Eosinophils
B: Epithelioid cells
C: Fibrosis
D: Lymphocytes | Correct option: A - Eosinophils
Explanation: Ans- (a) EosinophilsRef: Robbiris pathology 9th ed. /97* A special form of chronic inflammation is seen in response to tissue invasion by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.* Macrophages and multinucleated giant cells accumulate about the organisms, and fibrous tissue form about the... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Social & Preventive Medicine (Topic: None). | In RNTCP what is the schedule for sputum examination after beginning the chemotherapy, in category I patients - Options:
A: 2, 4 and 6 months
B: 1, 2 and 3 months
C: 3, 5 and 6 months
D: 1, 3 and 5 months | Correct option: A - 2, 4 and 6 months
Explanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e., 2, 4 and 6 months o In category I, sputum examination is done at 2 months after the treatment, i.e. at the end of intensive phase of treatment. i) If test is negative, continuation phase is staed and sputum is tested again at 4 and 6 months. If test i... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Pathology (Topic: None). | The most common cause of Addison's disease is Options:
A: Autoimmune adrenalitis
B: Meningococcal septicemia
C: Malignancy
D: Tuberculosis | Correct option: A - Autoimmune adrenalitis
Explanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e., Autoimmune adrenalitis o Most common cause (60%-70%) of primary adrenocoicol insufficiency (Addison'discases) is autoimmune adrenelitis. o Other common cause are. Tuberculosis -*Most common cause of Addison's disease in India . AIDS Metastatic ca... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Ophthalmology (Topic: Conjunctiva). | Trantas spots are seen in - Options:
A: Vernal conjunctivitis
B: Eczematous conjunctivitis
C: Ophthalmia nodosa
D: Tularemia | Correct option: A - Vernal conjunctivitis
Explanation: Tranta's spots (Horner tranta's spots) are descrete white raised dots along the limbus and are composed of degeneraed eosinophils. Ref: Parson's 22nd/e p.180-181 & 21st/e p.178; Khurana 7th/e p.81 & 4th/e p.74,75 | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Social & Preventive Medicine (Topic: Health Programmes in India). | New RNTCP initiative for Tuberculosis surveillance using case based web based IT system is Options:
A: NIKSHAY
B: NISCHAY
C: E-DOTS
D: NIRBHAYA | Correct option: A - NIKSHAY
Explanation: (A) NIKSHAY[?]REVISED NATIONAL TUBERCUIOSIS CONTROL PROGRAMME (RNTCP)oIn 1993, in order to overcome these lacunae, the Government of India decided to give a new thrust to TB control activities by revitalizing the NTP, with the assistance from international agencies.oThe Revised ... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Pharmacology (Topic: Immunomodulator). | TNF (alpha inhibitors) used in rheumatoid arthritis is Options:
A: Infliximab
B: Rituximab
C: D-penicillamine
D: Cycloserine | Correct option: A - Infliximab
Explanation: (Infliximab): (2/2- 683- 84 - KDT 7t)INFLIXIMAB - is a chimeral monoclonal antibody which binds and neutralizes TNF-alpha* TNF-alpha inhibitors mainly suppress macrophage and T-cell function; inflammatory changes in the joint regress and new erosions are slowed* Quicker respo... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Pediatrics (Topic: None). | The most common cause of renal scarring in a 3 year old child is – Options:
A: Trauma
B: Tuberculosis
C: Vesicoureteral reflux induced pyelonephritis
D: Interstitial nephritis | Correct option: C - Vesicoureteral reflux induced pyelonephritis
Explanation: The small scarred kidney in childhood:. Risdon RA] 'Reflux nephropathy is now a generally accepted term to describe small scarred kidneys discovered during childhood; it recognizes the close association between this renal lesion and vesicoure... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Anatomy (Topic: Bacteriology). | The drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis for H.influenzae is Options:
A: Rifampin
B: Ceftriaxone
C: Penicillin
D: Erythromycin | Correct option: A - Rifampin
Explanation: Oral rifampin is the drug of choice | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Social & Preventive Medicine (Topic: Concept of Health and Disease). | Disease imported in a country, which was not otherwise present? Options:
A: Epornithic disease
B: Zoonotic disease
C: Exotic disease
D: Epizootic disease | Correct option: C - Exotic disease
Explanation: Ans. c (Exotic) (Ref. Park PSM 22nd/pg. 90)Exotic diseaseDisease imported in a country, which was not otherwise present.Epizootic disease# Disease affecting a large number of population at the same time within a particular region or geographic area.# Epizootic disease has... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following multi question from the subject Anatomy (Topic: General anatomy). | Non caseating granuloma are seen in all except Options:
A: Byssinosis
B: Hodgkin's lymphoma
C: Metastatic carcinoma of lung
D: Tuberculosis | Correct option: C - Metastatic carcinoma of lung
Explanation: The fungal and mycobacterial granuloma are usually associated with central caseating necrosis ,but all large caseating granuloma come from small no caseating granuloma . granuloma can be seen in Hodgkin's disease and byssinosis So metastatic carcinoma of lun... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Social & Preventive Medicine (Topic: Communicable diseases). | The standard regimen for satisfactory treatment of paucibacillary leprosy consists of Options:
A: Dapsone alone for 12 months
B: Dapsone and rifampicin for 6 months
C: Dapsone and clofazimine for 6 months
D: Dapsone and ethionamide for 12 months | Correct option: B - Dapsone and rifampicin for 6 months
Explanation: WHO Recommended treatment regimens 6-month regimen for Paucibacillary (PB) Leprosy Dapsone Rifampicin Adult50 - 70 kg 100 mgGiven daily 600 mgGiven once a month under supervision Child10 - 14 years 50 mgGiven daily 450 mgGiven once a month under super... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following multi question from the subject Pharmacology (Topic: None). | All of the following drugs can produce hyperuricemia EXCEPT : Options:
A: Ethambutol
B: Pyrazinamide
C: Sulfinpyrazone
D: Hydrochlorothiazide | Correct option: C - Sulfinpyrazone
Explanation: None | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following multi question from the subject Medicine (Topic: None). | All of the following statements about chronic constrictive pericarditis are true except Options:
A: Commonest cause in India is 'Idiopathic'
B: Kussmaul's sign is present
C: Ascitis is not in propoion to edema
D: Right ventricular End Diastolic pressure is raised | Correct option: A - Commonest cause in India is 'Idiopathic'
Explanation: Answer is A (Commonest cause in India is 'Idiopathic') The commonest cause of constrictive pericarditis in developing countries including India is tuberculosis Commonest cause of constrictive pericarditis in India is Tuberculosis Commonest cause ... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following multi question from the subject Anatomy (Topic: All India exam). | All of the following are combinations of poisoning and their specific antidote except Options:
A: Morphine-Naloxone
B: Mercury salts-Dimercaprol
C: Organophosphorous insecticide-atropine
D: Copper salts-Penicillamine | Correct option: B - Mercury salts-Dimercaprol
Explanation: PoisonsAntidotesAcids b-aminoproprionitrileAlpha adrenergic Phentolamine AmantinsBenzyl penicillin Arsenic Dimercaprol, Unithiol Benzodiazepines Flumazenil Beryllium Aurintricarboxylic acid, Sodium salicylate Beta adrenergics Propranolol Beta blockers Glucagon ... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Social & Preventive Medicine (Topic: Community Healthcare). | Basic laboratory service is not available at PHC for which disease - Options:
A: TB
B: Malaria
C: Syphilis
D: Leprosy | Correct option: D - Leprosy
Explanation: Ans. is 'd' i.e., Leprosy Basic laboratory services at PHCRoutine urine, stool and blood tests.Bleeding time, clotting time.Diagnosis of RTI/STDs with wet mounting, Grama stain, etc.Sputum testing for tuberculosis (if designated as a microscopy center under RNTCP).Blood smear ex... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Microbiology (Topic: None). | Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS is: Options:
A: Cryptococcosis
B: Tuberculosis
C: Candidiasis
D: Aspergillosis | Correct option: C - Candidiasis
Explanation: None | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Pharmacology (Topic: Chemotherapy). | INH induced peripheral neuropathy results from deficiency of vitamin Options:
A: B1
B: B2
C: B12
D: B6 | Correct option: D - B6
Explanation: Pyridoxine (vitamin B6) is admistered for the prevention as well as treatment of Isoniazid induced peripheral neuropathy Ref KDT 6/e p741 | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Social & Preventive Medicine (Topic: Communicable diseases). | Which of the following drug is not used in MDB under RNTCP Options:
A: Levofloxacin
B: Cycloserine
C: PAS
D: Ethionamide | Correct option: C - PAS
Explanation: Regimen for MDR-TB This regimen comprises of 6 drugs Kanamycin, Levofloxacin, Ethionamide, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol and Cycloserine during 6-9 months of the intensive phase and 4 drugs-Levovfloxacin, Ethionamide, Ethambutol and Cycloserine during the 18 months of the continuation ph... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Orthopaedics (Topic: None). | Pott's spine is commonest in the spine - Options:
A: Cevical
B: Thoracic
C: Lumbar
D: Sacral | Correct option: B - Thoracic
Explanation: Maheshwari has mentioned that Dorsolumbar region is the most common site of spinal tuberculosis. Which is absolutely correct. However, It is worth noting that dorsolumbar region refers to combination of lower dorsal and upper lumbar.
The exact frequency for each segment is as f... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Surgery (Topic: G.I.T). | Most common cause of intestinal obstruction is? Options:
A: Ileocaecal tuberculosis
B: Carcinoma colon
C: Intussusception
D: Adhesions | Correct option: D - Adhesions
Explanation: .Adhesions and bands are the commonest causes of intestinal obstruction in Western countries. In India, hernia and then adhesions are the two common causes of intestinal obstruction.Clinical features * Pain abdomen--colicky type and recurrent and episodic * Distension, vomitin... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Medicine (Topic: Virology). | Treatment of choice for HIV and TB along with Rifampicin is? Options:
A: Saquinavir
B: Nevirapine
C: Ritonavir
D: Amprenavir | Correct option: C - Ritonavir
Explanation: ANSWER: (C) RitonavirREF: Harrisons 17th ed chapter 182Ritonavir has a high affinity for several isoforms of cytochrome P450, and its use can result in large increases in the plasma concentrations of drugs metabolized by this pathway. Rifampicin is metabolized by the pathway a... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Pharmacology (Topic: None). | Fastest acting drug in leprosy is - Options:
A: Rifampicin
B: Dapsone
C: Clofazimine
D: Ethionamide | Correct option: A - Rifampicin
Explanation: Ans. is `a' i.e., Rifampicin "Rifampicin is the most active agent for leprosy". | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Medicine (Topic: Rheumatoid Arthritis). | Which of the following antibodies is the most specific for the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis? Options:
A: IgA
B: IgG
C: IgM
D: Anti-CCP | Correct option: D - Anti-CCP
Explanation: Ans. d. Anti-CCP (Ref: Harrison 19/e p2136, 18/e p2745; CMDT 09/727)Anti-CCP antibodies are the most specific blood test for the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis."Anti CCP antibodies are the most specific blood test for rheumatoid arthritis (specificity ~95%)."- CMDT 09/727"An... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Pharmacology (Topic: None). | Which of the following anti–tubercular agent does not cause hepatotoxicity ? Options:
A: Isoniazid
B: Rifampicin
C: Ethambutol
D: Pyrazinamide | Correct option: C - Ethambutol
Explanation: None | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Social & Preventive Medicine (Topic: None). | National Tuberculosis Institute is located at Options:
A: Bangalore
B: Chingelput
C: New Delhi
D: Chennai | Correct option: A - Bangalore
Explanation: None | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following multi question from the subject Pharmacology (Topic: General Pharmacology). | Regarding drug conversion which of the following is considered as useless Options:
A: Inactive drug to inactive metabolite
B: Active drug to active metabolite
C: Inactive drug to active metabolite
D: all the above | Correct option: A - Inactive drug to inactive metabolite
Explanation: Ans) a ( Inactive drug ...) Ref Goodman and gilman ll'h ed, KDT 7"1 ed, general pharmacologyDirect pick from KDTBiotrasformation means chemical alteration of drug in the body.lt is needed to render nonpolar compounds polar, so that they are not reabs... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Microbiology (Topic: Mycology). | A woman who pricked her finger w hile pruning some rose bushes develops a local pustule thatprogressed to an ulcer. Several nodules then developed along the local lymphatic drainage.The most likely etiological agent would be? Options:
A: Aspergillus fiimigatus
B: Candida albicans
C: Histoplasma capsula turn
D: Sporothr... | Correct option: D - Sporothrix schenckii
Explanation: Ans. is 'd' i.e., Sporothrix schenckii o Nodules along the lymphatics after plant prick suggest the diagnosis of sporotrichosis.Sporotrichosiso Sporotrichosis is caused by the thermally dimorphic fungus sporothrix schenckii.o Because S.schenckii naturally found in s... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject ENT (Topic: Disorders of Middle Ear (Otitis Media)). | Patient with thin painless otorrhoea, multiple perforations of the tympanic membrane and failure to respond to antimicrobial treatment. What is the most probable causative organism - Options:
A: Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B: Staphylococcus aureus
C: Candida albicans
D: Aspegillusfumigatus | Correct option: A - Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Explanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e., Mycobacterium tuberculosiso Thin painless otorrhoea, multiple perforations of the tympanic membrane and failure to respond to antimicrobial treatment are the features of tubercular otitis media and it is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.T... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Skin (Topic: None). | Anti leprosy drug causing ichthyoses is ? Options:
A: Dapsone
B: Clofazamine
C: Rifampicin
D: Clarithromycin | Correct option: D - Clarithromycin
Explanation: Ans. is 'd' i.e., Clofazamine Acquired ichthyosis (Ichthyosis acquista) Acquired ichthyosis is seen in : ? Deficiency :- Protein, Vitamin A, Kwashiorkor, Marasmus. Infection :- Leprosy, AIDS Senile ichthyosis :- Elderly Systemic diseases :- SLE, DM, hypothyroidism, Sarcoi... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following multi question from the subject Pathology (Topic: Respiration). | A 44-year-old man, a nonsmoker, has experienced a 3-kg weight loss over the past 3 months. He recently developed a low-grade fever and cough with mucoid sputum production, and after 1 week, he noticed blood-streaked sputum. On physical examination, his temperature is 37.7deg C. There are bilateral crackles in the left ... | Correct option: A - Acid-fast bacilli
Explanation: This "coin lesion" on imaging of his lungs could be an infectious granuloma, a neoplasm, or a hamartoma. His fever suggests infection, and the CT finding of decreased central attenuation in the nodule suggests necrosis in a neoplasm or caseous necrosis in a granuloma. ... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Pathology (Topic: dermatology and infectious disease). | The most impoant function of epithelioid cells in tuberculosis is - Options:
A: Phagocytosis
B: Secretory
C: Antigenic
D: Healing | Correct option: B - Secretory
Explanation: Epithelioid cells. These are so called because of their epithelial cell-like appearance, are modified macrophages/ histiocytes which are somewhat elongated, having a vesicular and lightly-staining slipper-shaped nucleus, and pale staining abundant cytoplasm with hazy outlines ... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Pathology (Topic: All India exam). | A 25 yr old male having fever & malaise since 2 weeks, ahritis of ankle joint and tender erythematous nodules over the shin. Diagnosis is? Options:
A: Erythema nodosum
B: Erythema marginatum
C: Weber Christian disease
D: Uicarial vasculitis | Correct option: A - Erythema nodosum
Explanation: Erythema nodosum is most common on the shins, but it may also occur on other areas of the body (buttocks, calves, ankles, thighs, and arms). The lesions begin as flat, firm, hot, red, painful lumps approximately an inch across. Within a few days they may become purplish... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Microbiology (Topic: None). | The following pathogen does not satisfy "Koch's postulates" - Options:
A: Bacillus anthracis
B: Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C: Clostridium tetani
D: Lepra bacilli | Correct option: D - Lepra bacilli
Explanation: Koch postulates
Robert Koch proposed a series of postulates that have been applied broadly to link many specific bacterial species with a particular disease.
Koch's postulates are :
The microorganism should be found in all cases of the disease in question and its distri... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following multi question from the subject Medicine (Topic: Respiratory). | A 30-year-old man presents with coughing up blood and sputum. There is no associated dyspnea, fever, or pleuritic chest pain. His past medical history is significant for recurrent pneumonias and a chronic cough productive of foul-smelling purulent sputum. The sputum production is usually worse when lying down and in th... | Correct option: A - bronchiectasis
Explanation: (a) Source: (Kasper, p. 1542) Bronchiectasis is defined as a permanent abnormal dilatation of large bronchi due to destruction of the wall. It is a consequence of inflammation, usually an infection. Other causes include toxins or immune response. Persistent cough and puru... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following multi question from the subject Anatomy (Topic: Other topics and Adverse effects). | The primary reason for the use of drug combination in the treatment of tuberculosis is Options:
A: Ensure patient compliance with the drug regimen
B: Enhance activity against metabolically inactive mycobacteria
C: Delay or prevent emergency of resistance
D: Provide prophylaxis against other bacterial infection | Correct option: C - Delay or prevent emergency of resistance
Explanation: Ref-KDT 6/e p745 The bacteria that cause tuberculosis (TB) can develop resistance to the antimicrobial drugs used to cure the disease. Multidrug-resistant TB (MDR-TB) is TB that does not respond to at least isoniazid and rifampicin, the 2 most po... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Medicine (Topic: None). | A person with involvement of upper respiratory tract, lungs and kidney shows evidence of granulomas on histo pathology. The most likely diaglosis is: Options:
A: Wegener's Granulomatosis
B: Goodpasture Syndrome
C: Tuberculosis
D: Sarcoidosis | Correct option: A - Wegener's Granulomatosis
Explanation: Answer is A (Wegener's Granulomatosis) The charachteristic triad of vasculitis involving the upper respiratory tract, the lower respiratory tract (Lungs) and kidney along with granuloma formation on histopatholgy suggests a diagnosis of Wegener's granulomatosis. | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Radiology (Topic: All India exam). | 40 year old male presented to OPD with fever and breathlessness. His Xray is shown below. The most probable diagnosis is Options:
A: Tuberculosis
B: Pleural effusion
C: Pneumonia
D: Bronchogenic carcinoma | Correct option: C - Pneumonia
Explanation: . | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following multi question from the subject Social & Preventive Medicine (Topic: Other NHPs). | Integrated management of neonatal and childhood illness includes all except: Options:
A: Malaria
B: Respiratory infections
C: Diarrhea
D: Tuberculosis | Correct option: D - Tuberculosis
Explanation: Integrated management of neonatal and childhood (IMNCI) illnesses: 1. Diarrhea. 2. Measles. 3. Pneumonia. 4. Malaria. 5. Severe malnutrition and nutritional counseling. | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following multi question from the subject Pharmacology (Topic: Miscellaneous (Pharmacology)). | All of the following are enzyme inducers of cytochrome p450 EXCEPT Options:
A: Phenytoin
B: Rifampicin
C: Isoniaz id
D: Erythromycin | Correct option: D - Erythromycin
Explanation: (D) Erythromycin # Enzyme inducers: Phenytoin, phenobarbitone, primidone, carbamazepine, rifampin. Erythromycin is a CYP3A2 inhibitor.Mnemonic: GPRS Cell Phone - Griseofulvin, Phenytoin, Pifampcin, Smoking, Carbamazepine, Phenobarbitone | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Pharmacology (Topic: NEET 2019). | DOC for prophylaxis against Diphtheria is:- Options:
A: Erythromycin
B: Rifampicin
C: Cloxacillin
D: Ciprofloxacin | Correct option: A - Erythromycin
Explanation: Erythromycin is macrolide group of drug which binds irreversibly to a site on the 50s subunit of bacterial ribosome thus inhibiting translocation steps of protein synthesis. It is used to eliminate the carrier state of Corynebacterium Diphtheriae. Rifampicin: Blocks RNA tra... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Unknown (Topic: None). | Web based program for monitoring TB is: Options:
A: Nikshay
B: Nischay
C: Nikusth
D: e-DOTS | Correct option: A - Nikshay
Explanation: Ref. Foundations of Community medicine. Page. 740
To keep a track of the TB patients across the country, the Government of India has introduced a system called NIKSHAY.
The word is combination of two Hindi words NI and KSHAY meaning eradication of tuberculosis.
NIKSHAY (www.n... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following multi question from the subject Medicine (Topic: All India exam). | a patient who had undergone renal allograft transplantation 6months back on treatment with azathioprine and prednisolone conmes to the hospital with history of fevr night sweats cough and breathlessness on xray a cavity is seen in the right apical region along with classification.auramine rhodamine staining of sputum s... | Correct option: C - INH,PYRAZINAMIDE,ETHAMBUTOL,SPTREPTOMYCIN
Explanation: MEDICAL MANAGEMENT PULMONARY TB is treated primarily with antituberculosis agents for 6 to 12 months. * Pharmacological management * First line antitubercular medications * Streptomycin 15mg/kg/day. * Isoniazid or INH (Nydrazid) 5 mg/kg (300 mg ... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Pharmacology (Topic: Chemotherapy). | Drug which produces Steven Johnson's syndrome in HIV infected individuals is: Options:
A: Paraaminosalicylate
B: Cycloserine
C: Thioacetazone
D: Rifampicin | Correct option: C - Thioacetazone
Explanation: Thiacetazone (Tzn, Amithiozone) Thiacetazone was found to be the best out of many derivatives. It was tried in the west, formd to be hepatotoxic. and discarded. In India, interest in Tzn was revived in the 1960s for oral use along with INH as a substitute for PAS. Though, ... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Pathology (Topic: None). | In tuberculosis infection, T Helper cells (TH1) production which helps in elimination of tubercle bacilli is enhanced by which factor produced by activated B cells? Options:
A: IL - 1
B: IL - 2
C: IL - 4
D: IL - 12 | Correct option: @ - Unknown
Explanation: | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following multi question from the subject Medicine (Topic: C.V.S). | All are features, seen in cardiac tamponade ,EXCEPT- Options:
A: Raised jvp
B: Muffled hea sounds
C: Rapid x descent
D: Pulses pardoxus | Correct option: C - Rapid x descent
Explanation: Rapid Y descent seen in cardiac tamponade Cardiac tamponade, also known as pericardial tamponade, is when fluid in the pericardium (the sac around the hea) builds up, resulting in c of the hea. Onset may be rapid or gradual.Symptoms typically include those of cardiogenic... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Pathology (Topic: Histo Pathology). | Caseous necrosis is seen in? Options:
A: CMV infection
B: Staphylococcal infection
C: Treponemal infection
D: HSV infection | Correct option: C - Treponemal infection
Explanation: Ans. is 'c' i.e., Treponemal infection o Caseous necrosis is a feature of syphilis which is caused by tremonemal infection.Caseous necrosiso It is a variant of coagulative necrosis. It is most commonly encountered when cell death is attributable to certain organisms... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Pharmacology (Topic: None). | In leprosy, the best bactericidal agent is : Options:
A: Clofazimine
B: Dapsone
C: Rifampicin
D: Ethionamide | Correct option: C - Rifampicin
Explanation: Best and the fastest acting drug for leprosy is rifampicin.
Clofazamine and dapsone are bacteriostatic agents. | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Microbiology (Topic: FMGE 2018). | Which of the following is the most likely cause in a case of granuloma? Options:
A: Cat scratch disease
B: Trench fever
C: Leprosy
D: Syphilis | Correct option: A - Cat scratch disease
Explanation: Various granulomatous diseases and their causitive agents. Tubeculosis -Mycobacterium tuberculosis Leprosy -Mycobacterium Leprae Syphilis -Treponema palidium Cat-scratch disease - Baonella henselae (Gram-negative bacillus) Crohn disease (inflammatory bowel disease)- ... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following multi question from the subject Pathology (Topic: None). | Granulomatous inflammatory reaction is caused by all, EXCEPT : Options:
A: M. Tuberculosis
B: M. Leprae
C: Yersinia pestis
D: Mycoplasma | Correct option: D - Mycoplasma
Explanation: . Mycoplasma | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Pathology (Topic: Liver). | Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia is seen in - Options:
A: Rotor syndrome
B: Dubin-Johnson syndrome
C: Gilbert syndrome
D: Bile duct obstruction | Correct option: C - Gilbert syndrome
Explanation: Ans. is 'c' i.e., Gilbert syndrome {Ref: Harrison 18th/e p. 325 fig (42.1), 326 table (42.1); 17th/ep. 263 t. (43.1)]Causes of isolated hyperbilirubinemiaIsolated Indirect hyperbilirubinemiaIsolated Direct hyperbilirubinemiaA) Inherited conditionsInherited conditionso C... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following multi question from the subject Medicine (Topic: None). | SIADH secretion is seen in all except : Options:
A: Lung abscess
B: Interstitial Nephritis
C: Vinka alkaloids
D: Bronchial adenoma | Correct option: B - Interstitial Nephritis
Explanation: Answer is B (Interstitial nephritis) : SIADH is not associated with interstitial nephritis Causes of SIADH include: Neoplasm Neurologic Drugs Ca Lung Thymoma Guillain-Barre-syndrome Vasopressin or DDAVP Ca Duodenum Mesothelioma Multiple sclerosis Chlorpropamide Ca... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following multi question from the subject Microbiology (Topic: parasitology). | Which of the following is true about malaria - Options:
A: Size of RBC is enlarged in Vivax infection
B: Size of RBC is enlarged in Falciparum infection
C: Schuffner's dots are seen in Malariae
D: Relapse is seen in Falciparum infection | Correct option: A - Size of RBC is enlarged in Vivax infection
Explanation: vivax falciparum malariae ovalae RBC Enlarged, pale, with Schuffner's dots Normal size, Maurer's clefts, sometimes basophilic stippling Normal, occasionally Ziemann's stippling Enlarged, oval Schuffner's dots fimbriated,prominent TEXTBOOK OF ME... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following multi question from the subject Social & Preventive Medicine (Topic: None). | The definition of extensively drug resistant TB includes resistance to all of the following drugs, EXCEPT: Options:
A: Rifampicin
B: Ethambutol
C: Isoniazide
D: Amikacin | Correct option: B - Ethambutol
Explanation: Cases of TB that are resistant to almost all second line drugs are termed extensively drug resistant tuberculosis (XDR TB), when M. tuberculosis is resistant to at least rifampicin and isoniazid (i.e. MDR-TB) and resistant to a fluoroquinolone and resistant to one or more of ... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Dental (Topic: None). | Drug induced pemphigus is most commonly caused by – Options:
A: Penicillamine
B: Phenytoin sodium
C: Carbamazepine
D: Penicillin | Correct option: A - Penicillamine
Explanation: Drug induced pemphigus is caused by penicillamine, rifampicin and captopril. | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Pathology (Topic: None). | The most common cause of Addison's disease is:~ Options:
A: Autoimmune adrenalitis
B: Meningococcal septicemia
C: Malignancy
D: Tuberculosis | Correct option: A - Autoimmune adrenalitis
Explanation: . Autoimmune adrenalitis | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following multi question from the subject Medicine (Topic: None). | True about TB in HIV infection -a) Less susceptibility to ATTb) Same susceptibility to ATTc) Faster progression of ATTd) TB more common in AIDS Options:
A: c
B: d
C: bd
D: ac | Correct option: C - bd
Explanation: Treatment of T.B. in H.I.V. patient
In general, the standard treatment regimens are equally efficacious in HIV negative and HIV positive patients.
Therapy for T.B. is generally the same in the HIV infected patient as in the HIV negative patient.
Initiation of combination antiretrovi... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following multi question from the subject Pharmacology (Topic: All India exam). | All the following are true about Retinitis spunctata albescens except NOT RELATED-OPTHALMOLOGY Options:
A: Autosomal dominant
B: Retinal pigmenta on in epithelium
C: Paicularly involves posterior pole of retina
D: White dots on fundus examination | Correct option: C - Paicularly involves posterior pole of retina
Explanation: . | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Pharmacology (Topic: Chemotherapy). | Anti Leprotic drug useful for lepra reactions Options:
A: Dapsone
B: Rifampicin
C: Minocycline
D: Clofazamine | Correct option: D - Clofazamine
Explanation: Lepra reactions occur due to hypersensitivity reaction to dapsone.Two types are known type 1 lepra reaction is treated usingcoicosteroids and clofazamine and type 2 with Clofazamine - an anti-inflammatory drug apa from thalidomide and coicosteroids, chloroquine,aspirin,cholc... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following multi question from the subject Microbiology (Topic: None). | Positive tuberculin test means? Options:
A: Resistance to TB
B: Susceptibility to TB
C: Hypersensitivity
D: None of the above | Correct option: C - Hypersensitivity
Explanation: Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hypersensitivity A positive tuberculin test indicates hypersensitivity to tuberculoprotein, it may be due to : Active infection Subclinical infection Past infection BCG vaccination In overwhelming tuberculosis (fulminant cases) due to depressed cellula... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Microbiology (Topic: Bacteria). | Which of the following stains positive with modified AFB stain? Options:
A: Bacilus anthrax
B: Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C: Cryptosporidium parvum
D: Actinomycetes | Correct option: C - Cryptosporidium parvum
Explanation: Ans. c (Cryptosporidium parvum) (Ref. Ananthanarayan microbiology 6th ed. 371; Harsh Mohan Pathology 4th ed., 32)ACID FAST STAINING IS POSITIVE WITH-# Mycobacterium tuberculosis# Mycobacterium leprae# Nocardia# Cyclospora# Cryptosporidium parvum (Modified AFB stai... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following multi question from the subject Social & Preventive Medicine (Topic: None). | Effective leprosy control programme may be indicated by all of the following except – Options:
A: Increasing number of children affected
B: Decreased grade 2 disability
C: Low MDR resistant, multibacillary cases
D: High new case detection rate | Correct option: A - Increasing number of children affected
Explanation: Evaluation off programme:
There are two main types of indicators in leprosy control
a) Operational indicators
These are related to case-finding, treatment, relapses & disabilities for e.g.
Relapse rate - One of the best indicators of the effica... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Social & Preventive Medicine (Topic: Health Planning and Management). | Under HBNC, remuneration not given to ASHA for: Options:
A: Institutional delivery
B: Registration of birth
C: Giving first dose of OPV and DPT
D: Measuring birth weight of neonates | Correct option: D - Measuring birth weight of neonates
Explanation: Ans. d. Measuring birth weight of neonates (Ref: Park 23/e p449, 20/e p822, 385, 379-380)ASHA doesn't receive financial remuneration for measuring the birth weight of neonates.Under HBNC, the ASHA will be paid Rs 250/- for the care of the mother and th... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Anatomy (Topic: G.I.T). | Transverse ulcers are seen in Options:
A: Typhoid
B: Tuberculosis
C: Amoebiaisis
D: Ulcerative colitis | Correct option: B - Tuberculosis
Explanation: Robbins page no Pg p376 This very rare affection of unknown origin, achieves a macroscopic and microscopic aspect similar to that described by Cruveillhier at the level of the stomach. The authors present a case of ulcer located on the transverse colon, at the free margin, ... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Pharmacology (Topic: None). | Peripheral neuritis is a complication of Options:
A: Isoniazid
B: Ethambutol
C: Rifampicin
D: Pyrazinamide | Correct option: A - Isoniazid
Explanation: None | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following multi question from the subject Surgery (Topic: G.I.T). | True about small bowel diveicula Options:
A: Contains all the layers of bowel wall
B: Seen in terminal ileum
C: Radiographically not visualized
D: Surgical treatment is not required | Correct option: A - Contains all the layers of bowel wall
Explanation: .Eighty percent of intestinal obstruction occurs in small bowel; 20% in colon. 70% of colonic obstruction is due to malignancy. Other 30% is due to volvulus; divei-culitis, inflammatory cause like tuberculosis, etc.small bowel diveicula usually cont... | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following single question from the subject Pharmacology (Topic: None). | The most effective antitubercular drug against slow multiplying intracellular mycobacteria ? Options:
A: Rifampicin
B: Isoniazid
C: Pyrazinamide
D: Ethambutol | Correct option: A - Rifampicin
Explanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e., Rifampicin o Isoniazid is bacteriostatic for resting bacilli, but is bactericidal for rapidly dividing microorganisms. -- G & G o The bactericidal action of rifampicin covers all subpopulations of TB bacilli. | medMCQA_tb |
Answer the following multi question from the subject Pharmacology (Topic: General pharmacology). | All of the following can cause SLE-like syndrome except Options:
A: Isoniazid
B: Penicillin
C: Hydralazine
D: Sulphonamide | Correct option: B - Penicillin
Explanation: Hydralazine, procainamide, sulphonamide, isoniazid- causes SLE like syndrome Also, these drugs undergo acetylation Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed | medMCQA_tb |
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