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135
e9ad821a-c438-4965-9f77-760819dfa155
Chronic urethral obstruction due to benign prismatic hyperplasia can lead to the following change in kidney parenchyma
Hyperplasia
Hyperophy
Atrophy
Dyplasia
2c
single
Chronic urethral obstruction because of urinary calculi, prostatic hyperophy, tumors, normal pregnancy, tumors, uterine prolapse or functional disorders cause hydronephrosis which by definition is used to describe dilatation of renal pelvis and calculus associated with progressive atrophy of the kidney due to obstruction to the outflow of urine Refer Robbins 7yh/9,1012,9/e. P950
Anatomy
Urinary tract
e3d3c4e1-4fb2-45e7-9f88-247cc8f373b3
Which vitamin is supplied from only animal source:
Vitamin C
Vitamin B7
Vitamin B12
Vitamin D
2c
single
Ans. (c) Vitamin B12 Ref: Harrison's 19th ed. P 640* Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin) is synthesized solely by microorganisms.* In humans, the only source for humans is food of animal origin, e.g., meat, fish, and dairy products.* Vegetables, fruits, and other foods of nonanimal origin doesn't contain Vitamin B12 .* Daily requirements of vitamin Bp is about 1-3 pg. Body stores are of the order of 2-3 mg, sufficient for 3-4 years if supplies are completely cut off.
Biochemistry
Vitamins and Minerals
5c38bea6-787a-44a9-b2df-88f4218ab914
All of the following are surgical options for morbid obesity except -
Adjustable gastric banding
Biliopancreatic diversion
Duodenal Switch
Roux en Y Duodenal By pass
3d
multi
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Roux en Y Duodenal Bypass Bariatric surgical procedures include:a. Vertical banded gastroplastyb. Adjustable gastric bandingc. Roux-en Y gastric bypass (Not - Roux-en Y Duodenal Bypass)d. Biliopancreatic diversione. Duodenal switcho The surgical treatment of morbid obesity is known as bariatric surgery.o Morbid obesity is defined as body mass index of 35 kg/m2 or more with obesity related comorbidity, or BMI of 40 kg/m2 or greater without comorbidity.o Bariatric operations produce weight loss as a result of 2 factors. One is restriction of oralintake. The other is malabsorbtion of ingested food.o Gastric restrictive procedures include Vertical banded gastroplasty & Adjustable gastric bandingo Malabsorbtive procedures include Biliopancreatic diversion, and Duodenal switcho Roux-en Y gastric bypass has features of both restriction and malabsorptionBariatric Operations: Mechanism of ActionRestrictiveVertical banded gastroplastyLaparoscopic adjustable gastric bandingLargely Restrictive/Mildly MalabsorptiveRoux-en-Y gastric bypassLargely Malabsorptive/Mildly RestrictiveBiliopancreatic diversionDuodenal switch
Surgery
Surgical Treatment Obesity
cdeedb04-fbe9-432c-937c-d53ac24475de
Following endaerectomy on the right common carotid, a patient is found to be blind in the right eye. It is appears that a small thrombus embolized during surgery and lodged in the aery supplying the optic nerve. Which aery would be blocked?
Central aery of the retina
Infraorbital aery
Lacrimal aery
Nasociliary aretry
0a
multi
The central aery of the retina is a branch of the ophthalmic aery. It is the sole blood supply to the retina; it has no significant collateral circulation and blockage of this vessel leads to blindness. The branches of this aery are what you view during a fundoscopic exam. Note: The infraorbital aery is a branch of the maxillary aery. It comes through the infraorbital foramen, inferior to the eye. It supplies the maxillary sinus, the maxillary incisors, canine and premolar teeth, and the skin of the cheek below the orbit. The supraorbital aery is another branch of the maxillary aery. It comes through the supraorbital foramen and supplies blood to the muscles, skin and fascia of the forehead. The lacrimal aery is a branch of the ophthalmic aery that supplies the lacrimal gland. The nasociliary aery doesn't exist, but there is a nasociliary nerve that travels with the ophthalmic aery. Ref: Moon D.A., Foreman K.B., Albeine K.H. (2011). Chapter 18. Orbit. In D.A. Moon, K.B. Foreman, K.H. Albeine (Eds), The Big Picture: Gross Anatomy.
Ophthalmology
null
dc6794a3-b108-47c5-8b1b-3b4931577249
Growth hormone has its effect on growth through?
Directly
IG1-1
Thyroxine
Intranuclear receptors
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., IGI-1GH has two major functions :-i) Growth of skeletal system :- The growth is mediated by somatomedins (IGF). Increased deposition of cailage (including chondroitin sulfate) and bone with increased proliferation of chondrocytes and osteocytes.ii) Metabolic effects :- Most of the metabolic effects are due to direct action of GH. These include gluconeogenesis, decreased peripheral utilization of glucose (decreased uptake), lipolysis and anabolic effect on proteins.
Physiology
null
5ab84ea8-12d1-47d4-ab22-668ebf01e64c
Scrub typhus is transmitted by: September 2004
Louse
Tick
Mite
Milk
2c
single
Ans. C i.e. Mite
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
a83de6e4-9427-4480-b404-d96621ebb640
Abnormal vascular patterns seen with colposcopy in case of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia are all except
Punctation
Mosaicism
Satellite lesions
Atypical vessels
2c
multi
Abnormal vascular pattern include punctation, mosaicism and atypical vessels.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
f3bf8583-231b-4b7a-828c-179b0f9ccdd9
Per rectum examination is not a useful test for diagnosis of
Anal fissure
Hemorrhoid
Pilonidal sinus
Rectal ulcer
2c
single
PILONIDAL SINUS/DISEASE (Jeep Bottom; Driver's Bottom) Pilus--hair; Nidus--nest It is epithelium lined tract, situated sho distance behind the anus, containing hairs and unhealthy diseased granula- tion tissue. It is due to penetration of hairs through the skin into subcutaneous tissue. It forms granuloma/unhealthy granulation tissue in the deeper plane. It is of infective origin and occurs in sacral region between the buttocks, umbilicus, axilla. Other indications of per rectal examination are:Carcinoma rectum, Stricture rectum, Polyps, BPH and carcinoma prostate, Secondaries in the rectovesical pouch (Blumer shelf), Sphincter tone, Pelvic abscess (is felt as boggy swelling), to feel the internal opening of anal fistulas, in bimanual palpation of the bladder or pelvic tumours, in acute abdominal conditions--it reveals dilated empty rectum with tenderness.Reference : page 967 and 952 SRB's manual of surgery 5th edition
Surgery
Urology
73515f05-e947-4801-8077-3abdeca95c84
Characteristics of Remifentanyl – a) Metabolised by plasma esteraseb) Short half lifec) More potent than Alfentanyld) Dose reduced in hepatic and renal diseasee) Duration of action more than Alfentanyl
ab
bc
abc
bcd
2c
single
Remifentanil is the shortest acting opioid due to its metabolism by plasma esterase → dose adjustment is not needed in liver or kidney disease. It is more potent than alfentanil : Order of potency is Sufentanil > Fentanyl = Remifentanil > Alfentanil.
Anaesthesia
null
53f79833-21b0-4336-8ef4-404c687ec807
Hypomimia is ?
Decreased ability to copy
Decreased execution
Deficit of expression by gesture
Deficit of fluent speech
2c
single
Ans. C. Deficit of expression by gestureHypomimiaHypomimia or amimia is a deficit or absence of expression by gesture or mimicry.This is usually most obvious as a lack of facial expressive mobility (mask - like facies).This is a feature of frontal subcoical disease.
Psychiatry
null
b3d1eb6c-3909-4011-ad10-d55538b81456
Naglers reaction is shown by
Clostridium tetani
Clostridium botulinum
Clostridium perfringens
Clostridium septicum
2c
single
Nagler's reaction - when Clostridium perfringens is grown in media containing 6 % agar, 5% Fildes peptic digest of sheep blood and 20% human serum, with antitoxin spread on one half of plate, colonies in the other half without antitoxin will be surrounded by a zone of opacity. No opacity around the colonies on the half of plate with antitoxin, this is due to the specific neutralization of the alpha-toxin. This specific lecithinase effect, known as the Nagler's reaction. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Page no: 263
Microbiology
Bacteriology
e529be7c-f360-4dba-b313-7f3fc240697a
Which of the following statements are True/False? 1. Hirsutism, which is defined as androgen-dependent excessive male pattern hair growth, affects approximately 25% of women. 2. Virilization refers to a condition in which androgen levels are sufficiently high to cause additional signs and symptoms. 3. Frequently, patients with growth hormone excess (i.e., acromegaly) present with hirsutism. 4. A simple and commonly used method to grade hair growth is the modified scale of Ferriman and Gallwey. 5. Scores above 8 suggest excess androgen-mediated hair growth.
1, 2, 3 True & 4, 5 false
1, 3, 5 True & 2, 4 false
2, 4, 5 True & 1, 3 false
1, 2, 3, 4 True & 5 false
2c
multi
Here statement 1 & 3 are wrong. It is actually a direct pick from harrison, an impoant topic for entrance examinations hirsutism is seen in 10% of woman. Acromegaly rarely causes hirsutism. Ref: Harrisons Principles of Medicine, 18th Edition, Pages 380-382
Medicine
null
4e6de6fe-8c69-4553-827d-417ce597f3ac
The pharmakokinetic change occurring in geriatric patient is due to
Gastric absorption
Liver metabolism
Renal clearance
Hypersensitivity
2c
single
One of the most impoant pharmacokinetic changes associated with aging is decreased renal elimination of drugs. After age 40, creatinine clearance decreases an average of 8 mL/min/1.73 m2/decade; however, the age-related decrease varies substantially from person to person. Serum creatinine levels often remain within normal limits despite a decrease in GFR because older adults generally have less muscle mass and are generally less physically active than younger adults and thus produce less creatinine. Maintenance of normal serum creatinine levels can mislead clinicians who assume those levels reflect normal kidney function. Decreases in tubular function with age parallel those in glomerular function. Refer katzung 11/e p1039
Anatomy
General anatomy
d64eabcf-da66-438f-a53f-7137d3bba9dd
True regarding lag phase is?
Time taken to adpt in the new environment
Growth occurs exponentially
The plateau in lag phase is due to cell death
It is the 2nd phase in bacterial growth curve
0a
multi
Lag phase: Immediately following the seeding of a culture medium, there is no appreciable number, though there may be an increase in the size of the cells. This initial period is the time required for the adaptation to the new environment, during which the necessary enzymes and metabolic intermediates are built up in adequate quantities for multiplication to proceed. The duration of the lag phase varies with the species, sizes of the inoculation, nature of the culture media and the environmental factors such as temperature REF:Ananthanarayan & Panicker's Textbook of Microbiology 8th edition pg no: 24
Microbiology
general microbiology
35a7eac4-fd96-4184-9a5f-86bba82a5b62
A 60 yr old chronic smoker presents with painless gross hematuria of 1 day duration. Investigation of choice to know the cause of hematuria
USG
X-ray KUB
Urine routine
Urine microscopy for malignant cytology cells
3d
single
Urine microscopy for malignant cytology "Painless haematuria is by far the most common symptom of bladder cancer and should be regarded as indicative of a bladder carcinoma until proven otherwise." Bailey & Love 25/e p1336 (24/e p1363) Cigarette smoking is the main etiological factor and accounts ,for about 50% of bladder cancers Among the given options 'urine microscopy' is the best choice for investigating a pt. with high suspicion for bladder ca. This is not a good screening test but a positive result is highly specific. The best investigation would be cystoscopy & biopsy. Investigations for bladder cancer 1. Urinary cytology - Exfoliated cells from both normal and neoplastic urothelium can be readily identified in voided urine. Examination of cytological specimens can detect the malignant cells either at the time of initial presentation or during follow-up. Cytological examination may be especially useful in screening high-risk population and assessing the response to treatment. 2. Cystourethroscopy and tumor resection - The diagnosis and initial staging of bladder cancer is made by cystoscopy and transurethral resection. 3.Imaging (IVP, CT, MRI) - Although various imaging techniques can detect bladder cancer, its presence is confirmed by cystoscopy & biopsy. - Therefore imaging modalities are used to image the upper urinary tract and, when infiltrating bladder tumors are detected to assess the depth of muscle wall infiltration and the presence of local & distant metastasis. - Intravenous urography remains one of the most common imaging tests for the evaluation of hematuria. However, intravenous pyelography is increasingly being replaced by computed tomography (CT) urography, which is more accurate, for evaluation of the entire abdominal cavity, renal parenchyma, and ureters in patients with hematuria. Bladder tumors may be recognized as pedunculated, radiolucent filling defects projecting into the lumen; nonpapillary, infiltrating tumors may result in fixation or flattening of the bladder wall. 4. Urinary tumor markers - - Several new tests have been developed in order to overcome the shocomings of urinary cytology such as the low sensitivity for low-grade superficial tumors and inter-observer variability. - Commercially available tests include, the BTA test, the BTA stat test, the BTA TRAK assay determination of urinary nuclear matrix protein (NMP22), Immunocyt and UroVysion . - These tests can detect cancer specific proteins in urine (BTA/NMP22) or augment cytology by identifying cell surface or cytogenetic markers in the nucleus. Other tests under investigation include identification of the Lewis X antigen on exfoliated urothelial cells, and the determination of telomerase activity in exfoliated cells. - These tests have been demonstrated to enhance detection of bladder cancer when used either individually or in combination with cytology. They have been used to detect both new index tumors as well as recurrent tumors.
Surgery
null
fabd82e2-8b86-429a-8adb-ac46dde1aba6
With which of the following receptors theophylline has an antagonistic interaction ?
Histamine receptors
Bradykinin receptors
Adenosine receptors
Imidazoline receptors
2c
single
null
Pharmacology
null
f79a972f-3611-4cdc-837e-ce2f9393f592
Hyper viscosity is seen in
Cryoglobulinemia
Multiple myeloma
MGUS
Lymphoma
0a
single
Ref William hematology 6/e p1268 The term cryoglobulinemia refers to the presence in the serum of proteins that precipitate at temperatures below 37 degrees C and redissolve on rewarming. ... The elective treatment for hyperviscosity syndrome, whether associated with monoclonal, mixed, or polyclonalcryoglobulinemia, is plasma exchange.
Anatomy
General anatomy
b1a4e1b8-fb3d-40e4-9da7-ebc8a9c0963b
For a positively skewed curve which measure of central tendency is largest
Mean
Mode
Median
All are equal
0a
multi
A distribution is negatively skewed, or skewed to the left, if the scores fall toward the higher side of the scale and there are very few low scores. In positively skewed distributions, the mean is usually greater than the median, which is always greater than the mode. Ref :
Social & Preventive Medicine
Biostatistics
26ac2e3d-bbd7-44d6-968a-feeb54cf1a92
The process of hardening a cement matrix through hydration with oral fluids to achieve greater mechanical strength is known as:
Maturation
Setting
Hardening
Mineralization
0a
single
Maturation (cement)—The process of hardening a cement matrix through hydration with oral fluids to achieve greater mechanical strength. Ref: Phillip’s Science of Dental Materials ed 12 pg 309
Dental
null
56b5a2d2-044c-4b80-b778-6fa762206f52
Superior vena cava is derived from:
Aortic arch
Pharyngeal arch
Cardinal vein
Vitelline vein
2c
single
Ans. C Cardinal veinRef; hangman's essesntial medical Embroyology pg. 57# During early embryonic development (through 4th week), paired cardinal veins drain the body. Anterior cardinal veins drain the head and upper limb buds, while posterior cardinal veins drain the body. Both the anterior and posterior veins on each side unite at the common cardinal veins that flow into the sinus venosus and ultimately into the common atrium (Image).# Anterior cardinal veins are retained. An anastomosis between the two forms the left brachiocephalic vein, and anterior segments from both form the jugular system for the head and neck (Image).# Most of the posterior segment on the left disappears except for that forming the left superior intercostal vein, whereas the right posterior segment forms the superior vena cava.Extra mileDefects of SVC Development* Double inferior vena cava occurs when the left supracardinal vein persists, thereby forming an additional inferior vena cava below the level of the kidneys.* Left superior vena cava occurs when the left anterior cardinal vein persists, forming a superior vena cava on the left side. The right anterior cardinal vein abnormally regresses.* Double superior vena cava occurs when the left anterior cardinal vein persists, forming a superior vena cava on the left side. The right anterior cardinal vein also forms a superior vena cava on the right side.
Anatomy
Embryology
9ecbc05b-b255-47b5-b7b1-bf55f0f21abd
Testicular artery usually arises from
Abdominal aorta below renal artery
Renal artery
Internal iliac artery
Ext iliac artery
0a
multi
Ans) a (Abdominal aorta ....) Ref Chaurasia vol 2 pg 186Testicular artery is a branch of abdominal aorta given off at the level of vertebrae L2.Venous drainageVeins emerging from the testis forms pampiniform plexus. Plexus condenses into 4 veins at the superficial inguinal ring & into 2 veins at the deep inguinal ring.Ultimately one vein is formed which drains into IVC (on right side) or left renal vein (on left side).
Surgery
Testis & Scrotum
2583b8c8-aeaa-47c0-86fb-5efc9f386de6
Position of vocal cord in cadaver is:
Median
Paramedian
Intermediate
Full Abduction
2c
single
The vocal fold of the excised larynx is known to be located at an intermediate position(the so-called cadaver position).
ENT
null
e9038cb9-56db-473d-9d3f-440f130295ec
Organisms that has not been cultured successfully so far is-
Leptospira
Treponema pallidum
Bordetella
Staphylococcus
1b
multi
null
Microbiology
null
b77af8ce-2e9c-4979-a544-a2331f86f6b1
Normal waist hip ratio of a female is below
0.7
0.8
0.9
1
1b
single
WHO CUT-OFF POINTS OF WHR Indicator CUT-OFF points Risk of metabolic complications Waist circumference >94 cm (M) >80 cm (W) Increased Hip cirrcumference >102 cm (M) >88 cm (W) Substantially increased Waist-Hip ratio >= 0.95(M) >= 0.80(W) Substantially increased Ref: Park 23rd edition Pgno : 400 WC & WHR, WHO Consultation 2008
Social & Preventive Medicine
Non communicable diseases
f5df7424-6485-43fa-ba98-6de498561a76
The most common cause of renal scaring in a 3 year old child is -
Trauma
Tuberculosis
Vesicoureteral reflux induced pyelonephritis
Interstitial nephritis
2c
single
Chronic pyelonephritis is characterized by renal inflammation and scarring induced by recurrent or persistent renal infection, vesicoureteral reflux, or other causes of urinary tract obstruction. VUR is a congenital condition that results from incompetence of the ureterovesical valve due to a sho intramural segment Ref Harrison20th edition pg 234
Medicine
Kidney
99ae24e6-10c3-48b5-8c69-a8784ce4a4fc
A 6hours old snake bite patient comes to emergency with mild local edema at the injury site. On examination no abnormalities detected and lab repos are normal. Most appropriate management is
Incision and suction
Wait and watch
Local subcutaneous antisnake venom
Intravenous antisnake venom
1b
single
All patients with a history of snake bite should be observed for 8-12 h after the bite, if the skin is broken and the offending snake cannot be positively identified as non-poisonous. Ref: Krishnan vij ; 5th ed; Page no: 484
Forensic Medicine
Poisoning
a822c6ea-6cfd-44c1-890f-6fac4b97e16d
Which of the following agents is most commonly associated with recurrent meningitis due to CSF leaks?
Meningococci
Pneumococci
Hemophilus Influenza
E. Coli
1b
single
Intracranial CSF leaks cause bacterial meningitis, about 80% are caused by S. Pneumoniae. Other causative organisms are meningococcus, Hemophilus species and S.aurues. Ref: Clinical Pediatric Neurology By Ronald B. David, Page 217
Pediatrics
null
69e9312c-9be5-4efe-a981-6bd7be0ef65b
Treatment of choice in traumatic facial nerve injury is:
Facial sling
Facial nerve repair
Conservative management
Systemic corticosteroids
1b
single
(b) Facial nerve repair(Ref. Scott Brown, 6th ed., 1404)Since generally following trauma the facial nerve injury occurs as sudden onset. Facial decompression should be the best option.
ENT
Facial Nerve And Its Disorders
108ff605-0712-4a5b-8a74-aa8cbefc3d07
What is the best method of informing the rural population about Oral rehydration technique: March 2013 (d, f)
Chalk and talk/Lecture
Demonstrations
Role play
Flash cards
1b
single
Ans. B i.e. Demonstrations Demonstration involves showing by reason or proof explaining or making clear by use of examples or experiments. Put more simply, demonstration means to clearly show
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
24b17b1d-0dac-4da1-b215-22451784b9b6
Lymph vessel which drain the posterior 1/3 rd of the tongue:
Basal vessel.
Marginal vessel.
Central vessel.
Lateral vessel.
0a
single
null
Anatomy
null
e7f60d58-db4c-4067-981b-2988a9de88ff
Risk factors associated with post-operative nausea and vomiting following strabismus surgery are all except -
Age < 3years
Duration of anesthesia > 30 mins
Personal or family history of post - op nausea and vomiting
Personal or family history of motion sickness
0a
multi
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Age < 3 years Post operative nausea and vomiting (PONY) following strabismus surgery It can cause post - op wound dehiscence, hematoma, orbital hemorrhage and aspiration. 30 % of all procedures are associated with PONV. Major risk factors are: Age > 3years Duration of anesthesia > 30 mins Personal or family history of post - op nausea and vomiting Personal or family history of motion sickness Medical management of PONV includes: dimenhydrinate, metoclopramide, droperidol, dexamethasone, ondansatron
Anaesthesia
null
7f11c629-b766-486f-a98e-6de0a2be8ae3
All are True about Acute Osteomyelitis except
Common in children
Severe pain
Involves Epiphyseal plate
Treatment involves 6 weeks of Antibiotics
2c
multi
null
Orthopaedics
null
7a14deed-5c09-443b-9221-10f3a70fb6a4
Anterolateral ahroscopy of knee is for:
To see patellofemoral aiculation
To see the posterior cruciate ligament
To see the anterior poion of lateral meniscus
To see the periphery of the posterior horn of medial meniscus
0a
single
Standard poals in knee ahroscopy Anterolateral poal Almost all the structures within the knee joint can be seen except- posterior cruciate ligament anterior poion of the lateral meniscus periphery of the posterior horn of the medial meniscus in tight knees. Anteromedial poal Additional viewing of lateral compament Posteromedial poal Used for viewing the posteromedial structures For repair or removal of the displaced posterior horn of meniscal tears Superolateral poal Used for diagnostically viewing the dynamics of patella-femoral joint, excision of medial plica.
Orthopaedics
Spos Injury
05e92aa4-f149-49d2-bfb3-48263f7de421
Regarding vaginal candidiasis which one of the following is false:
Cottage cheese like secretions are seen
Intense pruritus
Most common in non-pregnant women
Buds and hyphae seen in KOH preparation
2c
multi
Ans. C. Most common in non-pregnant womenCandidiasis is caused by Candida albinism which thrives in an acidic medium with an abundant supply of carbohydrates. It is found commonly in pregnancy, and in patients on oral contraceptives, antibiotics and. corticosteroids. It is also seen in patients with diabetes. It causes a profuse discharge and intense pruritus with soreness of vagina and dysuria. Vagina and vulva are edematous and excoriated and the white patches of cheesy material on the vagina and vulva can be easily identified. A 10%KOH smear shows the buds and hyphae of the Candida organism. Nystatin or ketoconazole vaginal tablets used for one week are curative when used along with a cream of the same medication for External use.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Miscellaneous (Obs)
d27fbb91-ef90-4092-9175-636be25c357f
25 year old patient Suspected to have a pneumoperitoneum. Patient is unable to stand. Best x-ray view is
Left lateral decubitus view
Right lateral decubitus view
Supine
Prone
0a
single
Left lateral decubitus view demonstrates the air between dense shadow of liver and the abdominal wall.
Radiology
null
2b42ac45-27a8-4304-b28d-7554722e76ba
What is the most probable poal of entry of Aspergillus?
Puncture wound
Blood
Lungs
Gastrointestinal tract
2c
single
Aspergillus species are widely distributed on decaying plants, producing chains of conidia. Aspergillus species unlike Candida species do not form the pa of normal flora of humans. They are ubiquitous in the environment; hence transmission of infection is mostly exogenous. Aspergillus transmission occurs by inhalation of airborne conidia. Risk Factors for invasive aspergillosis are: Glucocoicoid use (the most impoant risk factor) Profound neutropenia or Neutrophil dysfunction Underlying pneumonia or COPD, tuberculosis or sarcoidosis Antitumor necrosis factor therapy.
Microbiology
Mycology
836756cc-2b92-483b-a8cc-302b578a9eaa
For TOF management in antenatal period includes ?
Balloon valvotomy
Open hea surgery
Karyotyping
Aspirin
2c
multi
Ans. is 'c' i.e., KaryotypingTOF has been associated with untreated maternal diabetes, phenylketonuria, and intake of retinoic acid.Associated chromosomal anomalies occur in 30% cases and include trisomies 21, 18, 13 and 22q11 microdeletion, especially in pulmonary atresia and absent pulmonary valve syndrome (APVS).There is also a high association with extra - cardiac anomalies in paicular, abdominal and thoracic abnormalities.When a TOF is diagnosed during fetal life, karyotyping and targeted morphologic ultrasound examination should be offered.Isolated TOF - Good prognosis in TOF with pulmonary stenosis (>90% survival after surgery).However, other forms of TOF such as pulmonary atresia and absent pulmonary valve syndrome do not have a good prognosis (moderate prognosis for pulmonary atresia and bad prognosis for APVS).
Pediatrics
null
08255d75-8015-4389-b7ce-7621634c98d2
What change will be seen in vertebral column in ochronosis-
Calcification of disc
Bamboo spine
Increased disc space
None
0a
multi
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Calcification of discAlkaptonuria# It is due to deficiency of homogentisate oxidase. As a result homogentisic acid (homogentisate) is excreted execessively in urine, There are three important characteristic features in alkaptonuria-Urine becomes dark after being exposed to air. It is due spontaneous oxidation of homogentisate into benzoquinone acetate, which polvmerse to form black-brown pigment alkapton which imparts a characteristic black-brown colour to urine.Alkapton deposition occurs in sclera, ear, nose, cheeks and intervertebral disc space. A condition called ochronosis. There may be calcification of intervertebral discs.Onchronosis arthritis affecting shoulder, hips, knee.# Benedict's test is strongly positive in urine and so is the ferric chloride (FeClyl test. Benedict's reagent gives a greenish brown precipitate with brownish black supematent. Feh ling's reagent (FeClj gives blue green colour.
Orthopaedics
Anatomy of Bone & Fracture Healing
55b3bce3-3a08-4770-a6c6-c416160de22e
If solid line represent the rigid height, then the following diagram with excessive inter arch space is classified in?
Class - 1
Class - 2
Class - 3
Class - 4
1b
single
null
Dental
null
476a3ecd-7c42-4c85-9982-1ce80c95ab82
Pearsonian measure of skewness -
Mode - Mean/ SD
Mean - Mode/ SD
SD/Mode - mean
Mean - Mode/ SD
1b
single
Ans. is b' i.e., Mean-Mode Measures of Skewness o There are following measures of skewness 1. Karl pearson's measure The formula for measuring skewness is divided into a) absolute measure Skewness = Mean - Mode b) relative measure The relative measure is known as the Coefficient of Skewness and is more frequently used than the absolute measure of skewness. Fuher, when a comparison between two or more distributions is involved, it is the relative measure of Skewness which is used.
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
509f300d-f354-48fb-a2c9-fb1a55cb8e00
Following are the causes of sudden loss of vision except ?
Angle closure glaucoma
Endophthalmitis
Central serous retinopathy
Corneal ulceration
3d
multi
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Corneal ulceration
Ophthalmology
null
cb8dbb33-9f74-4e01-8ac3-fe295178d2a1
All of the following are features of Lymph node histology except
Subcapsular sinus present
Both Efferent and Afferent are present
Coex and Medulla are present
Red pulp and White pulp are present
3d
multi
Red pulp and White pulp are present in spleenHistologically, a lymph node is subdivided into three regions: coex, paracoex, and medulla. All three regions have a rich supply of sinusoids, enlarged endothelially lined spaces through which lymph percolates.The afferent lymph vessels pierce the capsule on the convex surface of the node and empty their lymph into the subcapsular sinus. This sinus is continuous with the coical sinuses and delivers the lymph into the medullary sinuses, eventually to enter the efferent lymphatic vessels.Reference: Krishna Garg Histology; 5th edition; Page no: 92
Anatomy
General anatomy
21ab1846-bbea-4bca-bd03-8933fa61ea5d
During Sx for meningioma, the left paracentral lobule was injured. It would lead to paresis of
Rt. Leg and perineus
Left face
Right face
Right shoulder & trunk
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e Rt. Leg and perineum Paracentral lobule:On the medial surface of cerebral hemisphere, the U shaped gyrus around the end of the central sulcus is the paracentral lobule.Motor cortex is located in the precentral gyrus on the superolateral surface of the hemisphere and in the anterior part of the paracentral lobule.Stimulation in this area results in movements in the opposite half of the body.The body is represented upside down in this area.A look at the motor homunculus in Ganong will show that the leg and perineum are represented in the paracentral lobule.
Anatomy
Cerebrum
af3f9375-99f2-4495-8e66-c875d70c9612
Which of the following bacterial meningitis is associated with sudural effusion?
H. influenza
Neisseria meningitits
Streptococcus pneumonia
Enterococcus
0a
single
Chronic Subdural Empyema It may be primary infection of subdural space from sinusitis focus causing suppuration and pus formation. It can be complication of the chronic subdural haematoma. It is due to secondary bacterial infection of collected clot/fluid. Infection is from sinusitis scalp (common)/through earlier trauma wound/haematogenous. Commonly Gram positive organisms cause empyema like streptococci (viridans/milleri) but other virulent organisms like Gram negative bacteria (H.influenzae) occasionally can cause. There is coical venous thrombophlebitis and coical infarction. Headache, fever, meningism and convulsions are the features. MRI is ideal than CT to diagnose. Treatment: Antibiotics, craniotomy and drainage; anticonvulsants, ICU care, proper monitoring, regular follow up. Condition has got 10% moality. Ref: SRB's Manual of Surgery 5th edition Pgno : 1097
Surgery
Trauma
af913acc-4ca3-4266-a199-86b667524325
All of the following statements are true regarding hyperophy, except:
Occurs due to synthesis and assembly of additional intracellular components.
There is an increase in the size of the cells.
Cells capable of division respond to stress by hyperophy and hyperplasia.
There is an increase in the number of cells.
3d
multi
The increased size of the cells is due to the synthesis and assembly of additional intracellular structural components. Hyperophy refers to an increase in the size of cells, which results in an increase in the size of the affected organ. Cells capable of division may respond to stress by undergoing both hyperplasia and hyperophy. The hyperophied organ has no new cells, just larger cells.
Pathology
Reversible Cell Injury
90c75fdd-c6c6-4320-8411-9a5a750b5c5d
Glucose sympo occurs with:
Na+
Ca++
K+
Cl-
0a
single
A i.e. Na+
Physiology
null
4fb5da8e-6fa9-4308-829d-bef54d70af7c
All are true about temporal arteritis except -
Can leads to sudden bilateral blindness
More corrunon in females
Worsen on exposure to heat
Mostly affects elderly
2c
multi
null
Medicine
null
9595ba1f-bc34-42ab-8603-45961b925ad0
Of the various modalities used in the treatment of re-threatening effects of hyperkalemia which one of the following as the most rapid onset of action ?
Hemodialysis
Sodium bicarbonate infusion
Insulin and glucose infusion
Intravenous calcium gluconate
0a
single
null
Medicine
null
b801715b-75b9-41bd-8f3c-828469d01266
In chronic alcoholism the rate limiting component for alcohol metabolism excluding enzymes is/are : (PGI Dec 2008)
NADP
NAD+
NADPH
FADH
1b
single
Ans : B (NAD+) & C (NADPH) In chronic alcoholism rate limiting component for alcohol metabolism is NAD* & NADPHOxidation of ethanol by alcohol dehydrogenaseQ & NADQ leads to excess production of NADHSome metabolism of ethanol takes place via a cytochrome P450 dependent microsomal ethanol oxidising systme (MEOS) Q involving NADPH & O2:, This system increase in activity in chronic alcoholism & may account for the increased metabolic clearnce in this condition.Ethanol + NADPH + H+ O2 MEOS Acetaldehyde
Biochemistry
Biosynthesis of Fatty Acids and Eicosanoids
12b668e8-af03-47d7-bc80-41dec978da4d
Minimum level of iodine iodized salt reaching the consumer level according to iodine programme should be:-
5 ppm
30 ppm
15 ppm
20 ppm
2c
single
National Iodine deficiency disorder programme , 1992: - National goitre control programme, 1962 is conveed to NIDDCP, 1992 - Impact indicators: Major indicator - Urinary iodine excretion levels ( generally measured in pregnant women over 24hrs) Others - Neonatal hypothyroidism , Goitre - Level of salt iodinisation: 30 ppm at production level 15 ppm at consumer level - Two-in-one salt: 40mcg iodine + 1mg iron/gm of salt MBI kits- Field Test Kits that allow Iodised salt manufacturers, quality controllers, health inspectors, social workers, NGO activists and even school children to assess the amount of iodine in iodised salt.
Social & Preventive Medicine
Other NHPs
8a72ed74-b546-481b-bf0c-0c812ce2f3df
True statement regarding specific death rates
Specific for age and sex
Identify particular group or groups "at risk" for preventive action
Find out cause or disease specific
All of the above
3d
multi
(A1I of the above) (54- Park 20th)Specific death rates - may be (a) cause or disease specific e.g. TB, cancer, accidents (b) Related to specific groups e.g. age specific, sex specific, age and sex specific etc.* Rates can also be made specific for many others variables such as income, religion, race, housing etc.* Specific death rates can help us to identify particular groups or groups "at risk" for preventive action. They permit comparisons between different causes within the same populations* Specific death rates are obtained mainly in countries in which a satisfactory civil registration system operates and in which a high proportion of death is certified medically.
Social & Preventive Medicine
Concept of Health and Disease
6d21ae16-b1b7-42d3-ba62-7e310d8b0198
Pre-exposure prophylaxis for rabies is given on days
0, 3, 7, 14, 28, 90
0, 3, 7, 28, 90
0, 3
0, 7, 28
3d
single
New recommended regimen/Schedule (New guidelines( Type of prophylaxis Regimen Post exposure Intramuscular Essen Regimen (1-1-1-1-1) Day 0,3,7,14,28 Post exposure intradermal Updated Thai Red Cross Regimen (2-2-2-0-2) Day 0,3,7,28 Post exposure in vaccinated individuals Day 0,3 Pre-exposure prophylaxis Day 0,7,21/28 Minimum potency: 2.5 IU per IM dose Zagreb regimen of rabies Vaccine (Intramuscular Post-exposure) : 1. 4-dose abbreted multisite regimen 2-0-1-0-1 (2 doses on Day 0,1 dose on Day 7, 1 dose on day 21 Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 297-298
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable diseases
bf09d252-e987-480b-9a17-fe566ad398b9
Regarding Sjogren's syndrome, all are true except: September 2010
Keratoconjuctivitis sicca
Rheumatoid ahritis
Epiphora
Autoimmune in nature
2c
multi
Ans. C: Epiphora SjOgren's syndrome (also known as "Mikulicz disease" and "Sicca syndrome", is a systemic autoimmune disease in which immune cells attack and destroy the exocrine glands that produce tears and saliva SjOgren's syndrome can exist as a disorder in its own right (Primary Sjogren's syndrome) or it may develop years after the onset of an associated rheumatic disorder such as rheumatoid ahritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, scleroderma, primary biliary cirrhosis etc. (Secondary SjOgren's syndrome)
Ophthalmology
null
a79732e1-a0c9-4e81-bce6-fbcacaaab4e7
Best indicator of antemoum drowning is :
Froth in mouth and nostrils
Cutis anserina
Washerman's hand
Water in nose
0a
single
A i.e. Fine froth in mouth & nostril
Forensic Medicine
null
432ce240-2b6c-47aa-afd7-18bd49806239
Splenomegaly may be a feature of: March 2013
Megaloblastic anemia
Sickle cell anemia
Thalassemia
G6PD deficiency
1b
single
Ans. B i.e. Sickle cell anemia Splenomegaly Splenomegaly refers strictly to spleen enlargement, and is distinct from hyperspineism , which connotes overactive function by a spleen of any size. Splenomegaly and hypersplenism should not be confused. Each may be found separately, or they may coexist. Clinically if a spleen is palpable, it means it is enlarged as it has to undergo enlargement by at least two folds to become palpable. However, the tip of the spleen may be palpable in a newborn baby up to 3 months of age Early sickle cell anemia may present with splenomegaly
Pathology
null
e6c29c8b-af47-4dd6-8154-663358bed3b8
Gp2b3A inhibitors are all except -
Abciximab
Eptifibatide
Tirofiban
Prasugrel
3d
multi
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Prasugrel Glycoproteins lIb / IIIa inhibitorso The platelet glycoprotein mediates platelet aggregation via binding of adhesive proteins such as fibrinogen and Von Willebrand factor.o GP lib / Ilia inhibitors, inhibit platelet aggregation by blocking GPIIb / IlIa.o They are more complete inhibitors than either aspirin or clopidogrel / ticlopidinejj because they inhibit final pathway in platelet aggregation (whether it is mediated by ADP or TXA2), while aspirin blocks only TXA2 pathway and clopidogrel blocks only ADP pathway,o Drugs are -o In addition to inhibiting Gp lib / Ilia receptor, abciximab also inhibits ay(33 receptor (which binds vitronectin) and amb2 (a leukocyte integerin). This action is responsible for anti-inflammatory and antiproliferative properties of abciximab.
Pharmacology
Antiplatelets and Fibrinolytics
81b24099-1d53-4130-ac61-72364a99d53f
True of case control studies -
It proceeds from cause to effect
Odds ratio can be calculated
Incidence can be calculated
Needs many patients
1b
multi
null
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
c08137c8-34c0-4f03-9b07-227dfeb8ec8e
All of the following could include the mechanism or function of oxigenases, EXCEPT:
Incorporate 2 atoms of oxygen
Incorporate 1 atom of oxygen
Required for hydroxylation of steroids
Required for carboxylation of drugs
3d
multi
Carboxylation is a function of carboxylase enzymes which belong to the class of 'Ligases'. It is not a function of oxygenase enzymes. Monoxygenases incorporate one atom of oxygen and play an impoant role in hydroxylation of steroids. Dioxygenases incorporate 2 atoms of oxygen into the substrate. Ref: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th Edition, Page 96, 97; Enzyme Assays: High-Throughput Screening, Genetic Selection and Fingerprinting edited by Jean-Louis Reymond, 2006, Page 85.
Biochemistry
null
95a23ec3-c2d6-40f4-890f-bece76c568cd
According to recent SC judgment, doctor can be charged for medical negligence under 304-A, only if: AIIMS 12
He is from corporate hospital
Negligence is from inadveent error
Simple negligence
Gross negligence
3d
single
Ans. Gross negligence
Forensic Medicine
null
3c3ba303-b196-45de-8ced-6c888c9e0d4e
Which of the following is very difficult to induce antibody -
Polysaccharide
Protein
Antigen
Effector
0a
single
An antigen is any substance that causes an immune system to produce antibodies against it. Antigens are usually peptides, polysaccharides or lipids. In general, molecules other than peptides (saccharides and lipids) qualify as antigens but not as immunogens since they cannot elicit an immune response on their own. Ref: Ananthanarayan & Panikers textbook of microbiology 9th edition pg:88
Microbiology
Immunology
452b1926-6027-40a1-a934-6d58f2a8caed
Prevalence is a:
Rate
Ratio
Propoion
None of the above
2c
multi
Tools of measurement in epidemics: - Rate = x 1000/ 10000/ 100000 ; a is pa of b - Ratio = a/b ; a is not a pa of b - Propoion = x 100 = % ; a is pa of b Prevalence = No. of all current cases of a disease at a time /Estimated total population at that time X 100 Hence, Prevalence is a propoion (Prevalence is NOT a Ratio): Numerator is a pa of denominator & is always expressed in percentage. Incidence is rate.
Social & Preventive Medicine
Epidemiology
9531838e-9009-47d8-8d6e-3880fab47804
S2 is best appreciated in -
3rd left intercostal space
2nd right intercostal space
4th left intercostal space
5th left intercostal space
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., 3rd left intercostal space o Best areas to auscultate for both components of the second heart sound (A2 and P2) are either the left sternal border at the level of second intercostal space (Pulmonic area) or the left sternal border at the level of third intercostal space (Erb s point).
Medicine
General
764ad788-556b-49cd-b976-c93086492894
Position of limb in posterior dislocation of hip -
Flexion, abduction & external rotation
Flexion, adduction & internal rotation
Flexion, adduction & external rotation
Flexion, abduction & internal rotation
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Flexion, adduction & internal rotation Hip conditionDeformitySynovitisArthritisPosterior dislocationAnterior dislocationFemoral neck fractureIntertrochantric fractureFlexion, abduction, external rotation, apparent lengtheningFlexion, adduction, internal rotation, true shorteningFlexion, adduction, internal rotation, apparent & true shorteningFlexion, abduction, external rotation, true lengtheningExternal rotation, later adduction & flexionMarked external rotation, later adduction & flexion
Orthopaedics
Congenital Dislocation of Hip (C.D.H.)
52e6dc81-fb25-495d-b941-543e03158f7c
Drug causing malignant hyperthermia:(Asked twice in the exam)
Cisatracurium
Suxamethonium
Propofol
Thiopentone
1b
single
Ans. b. SuxamethoniumSuxamethonium is the drug most commonly responsible for causing malignant hyperthermia.'Drugs causing malignant hyperthermia are- succinylcholine (most common cause), halothane (MC inhalational agent), iso/des/sevo/methoxy- fluranes, lignocaine, TCA, MAO inhibitors and phenothiazines.''Thiopentone and pancuronium are protective drugs for malignant hyperthermia, as these raise the triggering threshold.''In malignant hyperthermia susceptible patients, safe anesthetics are N2O, Non-depolarizing muscle relaxants (atracurium), opiates, tranquilizers, etomidate, barbiturates (thiopentone) and propofol.'Malignant Hyperthermia* Autosomal dominant genetic disorder of skeletal muscle* Occurs in susceptible individuals due to exposure to some triggering agents, typically Suxamethonium or volatile agents, which cause an abnormal increase in intracellular calcium.* It is caused by dysregulation of excitation-contraction coupling in skeletal muscle.Triggering Agents:* Succinylcholine (most common cause)* Halothane (MC inhalational agent)* Halogenated Anesthesia:- Fluranes: Isoflurane, desflurane, sevoflurane. methoxy-flurane- Ether- Cyclopropane* Lignocaine* TCA* MAO inhibitors* PhenothiazinesClinical Features:* Rise in end tidal CO2 (1st sign)* Masseter muscle rigidity (MMR) and tachycardia are earliest sign* Hypermetabolic features, metabolic acidosis, fever, hyperthermia* Sympathetic over activity: Tachycardia, arrhythmia, unstable BP. initial hypertension* Muscle damage: Masseter muscle spasm, generalized rigidity, hyperkalemiaTretment:* Triggering agent must be stopped and hyperventilate with 100% oxygen* The mainstay of therapy is immediate administration of IV dantrolene.* Dantrolene is the only drug effective in reversing the symptoms and preventing the episode.
Anaesthesia
Complications Of Anaesthesia
91d73a6d-7f5b-44bb-b0ac-477ea9338efb
Household insectiside used for malaria-
Malathion
Pyrethrum
Paris green
Permethrin
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Malathion* Insectisides used for control of malaria are-i) Residual sprapy-# In residual spray, spraying of houses with residual insectisides is done. Residual insectisides remains active over extended periods i.e., they have residual action even after the time of spray.# Commonly used residual insectisides are - Malathion, DDT, Lindane, propoxure (OMS-33).ToxicantDosage in g/m2Average duration of effectiveness (months)DDT1 to 26 to 12Lindane0-53Malathion23OMS-3323ii) Space spray# Space sprays are those where the insecticidal formation is sprayed into the atmosphere in the form of a mist or fog to kill insect. Action is short lived and temporary since there is no residual action.# The most commonly used space spray insecticide is Pyrethrum.# New equipment has been developed to use residual insectiside as space spray by ultra low volume (ULV) technique. Malathions and fenthion are most commonly used.
Social & Preventive Medicine
Environment and Health
d9f648af-a752-4368-999d-05e13c345ce0
False about obstructive jaundice
Unconjugated bilirubin
Pruritus
Pale stools
Icterus
0a
multi
Obstructive jaundice Most common surgical cause of obstructive jaundice is CBD stones Characterized by dark urine, pale coloured stools, icterus and Pruritus Presence of urobilinogen in urine rules out obstructive jaundice USG is the best test to differentiate medical from surgical jaundice Unconjugated bilirubin is normal Ref: Harrison's 19th edition Pg no : 1998
Anatomy
G.I.T
0e3852f0-45a6-493c-96d5-aefe1e0fa769
All of the following structure lies outside the cavernous sinus except
Sphenoidal air sinus
Internal carotid aery
Foramen lacerum
Maxillary nerve
3d
multi
structures outside the sinus: 1. Superiorly: optic tract, optic chiasma, olfactory tract, internal carotid aery and anterior perforated substance. 2.inferiorly: foramen lacerum and the junction of the body and greater wing of the sphenoid bone 3.medically: hypophysis cerebri and sphenoidal air sinus 4.laterally: temporal lobe with uncus 5.below laterally: mandibular nerve 6.anteriorly: superior orbital fissure and apex of the orbit 7.posteriorly: apex of the petrous temporal and the crus cerebri of the midbrain Ref BDC volume 3:sixth edition pg 193
Anatomy
Head and neck
1d4ccb9d-1924-4aa6-b07c-0ed46fe31c20
Which of the following is the best procedure done for intrapaum fetal monitoring:
Fetal echocardiography
Fetal scalp pH
Continuous electrical fetal hea monitoring
Physical examination
2c
single
Electrical Fetal hea monitoring is useful as: (1) Provides accurate information, (2) Helpful in diagnosing fetal distress, (3) Directs about intervention to prevent fetal death or morbidity, (4) It is superior to intermittent monitoring methods.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Intra Uterine Growth Restriction, Intrapaum and Antepaum Fetal Surviellance
236d1eb1-f2e1-43b0-90f3-f88deff358cb
Which of the following is measured by the device, Bellow's spirometer?
TLC
RV
Closing volume
ERV
3d
single
The spirometer is a simple device for measuring gas volumes. The frequently used water spirometer, rolling seal spirometer and bellows spirometer. The last two are not water-filled and are more poable. The VT, IRV, ERV, IC, and VC can all be measured with a spirometer (as can the forced expiratory volume in 1 second , forced vital capacity , and forced expiratory flow ). The RV, the FRC, and the TLC, however, cannot be determined with a spirometer because the subject cannot exhale all the gas in the lungs. The lung volumes not measurable with spirometry can be determined by the nitrogen-washout technique, by the helium-dilution technique, and by body plethysmography. The FRC is usually determined, and RV (which is equal to FRC minus ERV) and the TLC (which is equal to VC plus RV) are then calculated from volumes obtained by spirometry. Ref: Levitzky M.G. (2007). Chapter 3. Alveolar Ventilation. In M.G. Levitzky (Ed), Pulmonary Physiology, 7e.
Physiology
null
a2630da3-17a1-4149-b424-4b04b2c42f1c
Which of the following is a newly emerging food poisoning organism
Salmonella typhimurium
Enterococcus
Diphtheria
Pseudomonas
0a
single
Ans: a (Salmonella typhimurium) Ref: Ananathanarayan,7th ed, p. 303Of the above given, S. typhimurium causes food poisoningSalmonella gastroenteritisS. typhimurium is the most common cause of food poisoning due to salmonella species.Incubation period--6-24 hrsFood poisoning is never caused by S. typhi. Source of transmission: poultry, meat, milk and milk products.C/F-nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, abdominal cramps, fever.Blood culture is usually negativeNoteS. aureus is the most common cause of food poisoning in the westIP and clinical features of various bacteria causing food poisoiningIncubation period Organism responsible 1- hrs S. aureus-nausea, vomiting, diarrheaB. cereus-nausea, vomiting 8-16 hrs C. perfringes-abdominal cramps, diarrhoea (vomiting rare)B. cereus-abdominal cramps, diarrhoea, vomiting > 16 hrs Vibrio cholera-watery diarrhoeaETEC-watery diarrhoeaEHEC-bloody diarrhoeaSalmonella species-inflammatory diarrhoeaCamphylobacter jej uni-inflammatory diarrhoeaShigella species- dysentryV. parahaemolyticus-dysentry
Microbiology
Enterobecteriaceae
f94f9f8f-fb28-44f0-9381-3dca473e305d
Atherosclerosis initiation by fibroblast plaque is mediated by injury to ?
Smooth muscle
Media
Adventitia
Endothelium
3d
single
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Endothelium The most acceptable hypothesis for the pathogenesis of atherosclerosis is "the response to injury hypothesis". According to this hypothesis, atherosclerosis is a chronic inflammatory response of the aerial wall initiated by injury to endothelium. Pathogenesis of atherosclerosis Following stages occurs in the pathogenesis of Atherosclerosis: Endothelial injury Earliest stages of the development of atherosclerosis are mediated by the inflammatory cascade. Inflammation mediated injury to endothelium is the cornestone in the development of atherosclerosis. After injury, endothelium is activated and there is increased expression of adhesion molecule-VCAM-1 and there is increased permeability to endothelium. TNF is the major cytokine to induce this expression. Migration of leukocytes When VCAM-1 is expressed on endothelium, leukocytes adhere to the endothelium. Leukocytes than cross the endothelial barrier and begin to accumulate in subendothelial intimal space. Macrophages engulf LDL cholesterol and form foam cells - formation of earliest lesion, i.e. fatty streak. Macrophages also form oxygen free radicals that cause oxidation of LDL to yield oxidized LDL (modified LDL). Smooth muscle cell migration and proliferation Inflammatory cells in subendothelial intimal space secrete cytokines, mainly PDGF, TGF-ct and FGF which cause migration of smooth muscle cells from media to subendothelial intimal space as well as their proliferation. Maturation of plaque Smooth muscle cells synthesize extracellular matrix (especially collegen) and conve a fatty streak into a mature fibrofatty atheroma, and contribute to the progressive growth of atherosclerotic lesions.
Pathology
null
bdf94942-49c0-4d9a-b990-a7bfb7099857
The WBC that is considered “second line of defence” is:
Neutrophil
Eosinophil
Basophil
Monocyte
3d
single
Monocyte is considered as the second line of defence.   Phagocytosis by Macrophages. Macrophages are the end-stage product of monocytes that enter the tissues from the blood. When activated by the immune system, they are much more powerful phagocytes than neutrophils, often capable of phagocytizing as many as 100 bacteria. They also have the ability to engulf much larger particles, even whole RBCs or, occasionally, malarial parasites, whereas neutrophils are not capable of phagocytizing particles much larger than bacteria. Also, after digesting particles, macrophages can extrude the residual products and often survive and function for many more months. Reference: GUYTON AND HALL TEXTBOOK OF MEDICAL PHYSIOLOGY, THIRTEENTH EDITION(INTERNATIONAL EDITION ) page no 458
Physiology
null
cbc8a1b1-532c-490e-a17d-9168083fabae
Mark the true statement regarding use of Lithium in maniac-depressive psychosis?
Monotherapy for acute episodes
Monitoring of serum concentration is not useful for guiding dose adjustment
Can result in leucocytosis
Can result in hypehyroidism on long term use
2c
multi
Lithium Use : Prophylaxis of mania alone, with sedatives in acute mania. Monitoring of S. concentration is significant to know the toxicity of drug S/E of Lithium Lithium use for a long time causes benign and reversible T-wave flattening Seizures Polyuria and compensatory polydipsia Dermatitis, folliculitis, vasculitis Weight gain
Pharmacology
Psychiatric Illness
2b7ff41e-66e4-467a-97ec-9ea4e5e98cbc
Determination of Pulp vitality by pulse oximeter based on:
Beer's law.
Pascal's law.
Doppler law.
Poisslues law.
0a
single
Pulse oxymetry- Based on Beer Lambert law Utilization of a probe that transmits red (640 mm) and infrared light Photo detector as a receptor site Different absorption ability of light by oxygenated and deoxygenated haemoglobin leads to changes in the amount of light differently absorbed by the vascular bed before reaching the photo detector.
Dental
null
c5165fb3-3a59-49ed-9de0-4dbbced2cf08
An Isograft indicates transfer of tissues between -
Unrelated donors
Related donors
Monozygotic twins
From the same individual
2c
single
null
Surgery
null
e197f947-1bdd-4efd-887a-b72faa9441c5
All of the following are causes of congenital blindness Except
Toxoplasmosis
Congenital rubella
Vitamin A deficiency
Cataract
2c
multi
Causes of congenital blindness:ToxoplasmosisCongenital cataractsGenetic diseaseCongenital rubellaCongenital glaucomaUsher syndrome(Refer: Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics, SAE, 1st edition, pg no. 318 - 319)
Pediatrics
All India exam
b15c5039-0f3c-4195-8331-35b9632899c7
Hypersecretory glaucoma is seen in –
Epidemic dropsy
Marfan's syndrome
Hypertension
Diabetes
0a
single
"In epidemic dropsy, glaucoma is wide angle glaucoma, with normal chamber and angle. Outflow is within normal limits. The queous shows raised level of histamin, prostaglandin and protein suggesting that glaucoma is hypersecretory". _ Mukherjee
Ophthalmology
null
01b9f068-4db2-45e5-94b8-19d4f7d290f7
A 14-year-old girl presents with quadriparesis, facial palsy, winging of scapula and ptosis. There is h/o similar illness in father and brother but less severe. Her CPK level is also raised (500IU/L). She is probably suffering from?
Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy
Becker muscular dystrophy
Limb-girdle dystrophy
Scapulofaciohumeral dystrophy
3d
single
Facial muscle involvement is not seen with Becker and Limb-girdle muscular dystrophy Emery Dreifuss and Becker are XLR disease so can't be present in a girl child. Hence by exclusion the diagnosis is Dx: Scapulo-Faciohumeraldystrophy. Facio-Scapulo-humeral dystrophy Autosomal dominant inheritance and has an onset in childhood or young adulthood. Facial weakness is the initial manifestation-->inability to smile, whistle or fully close the eyes. Weakness of the shoulder girdles-->makes arm elevation difficult. Scapular winging becomes apparent with attempts at abduction and forward movement of the arms. The serum CK level may be normal or mildly elevated. No specific treatment is available, ankle-foot ohoses are helpful for foot-drop.
Medicine
Myasthenia Gravis and Muscular dystrophy
44e3f7ec-ad90-49bc-9f91-54f959bae81b
Which of the following is true statement regarding human eye
Cornea cut off wavelength upto 400 nm
Normal eye medium will permit wavelength of 400- 700 nm
Even after cataract surgery UV rays are not penetrated
Lens will not reflect light
1b
multi
Ans. b (normal rye medium will permit wavelength of 400- 700 ntn) Ref: yanoff 3rd ed p 383, internet sitesCornea and lens act as special filters absorbing the more energetic wavelength of the electromagnetic spectrum that can damage the retina. Cornea absorbs wavelength below 295nm where as lens absorbs strongly in the long U V B (300 - 315) and most of the UV A (315 - 400) wave-lengths. Eye light transmittance is relatively high in the 400nm-700nm range.
Ophthalmology
Anatomy
6a19df3c-6af0-4673-8e2b-02d86ddc7523
Which of the following muscle is not a hybrid muscle
Pectoralis major
Extensor digitorum
Flexor digitorum profundus
Brachialis
1b
single
Extensor digitorum Hybrid muscles are the muscles having more than one nerve supply Pctoralis major: lateral & medial pectoral nerves Brachialis: additional proprioceptive fibres from radial nerve, in addition to its muscular nerve, musculocutaneous nerve. Extensor digitorum is supplied by the posterior interosseous nerve only.
Surgery
null
161fc4a5-e9fb-44c6-9a4b-2d734cf01ebc
Delayed union of fracture of a bone follo-wing a surgical treatment may be due to
Infection
Inadequate circulation
Inadequate mobilization
All of the above
3d
multi
D i.e. All
Surgery
null
f18b19db-efc0-40d3-accd-5d2dcb3b1879
What is the pressure of inspiration?
Intrapleuarl
Transpulmonary
Trans chest wall
Alveolar pressure
0a
multi
Ans: a (Intrapleural) Ref: Ganong,22nd ed,p. 6651The main pressure in lung related to inspiration is intrapleural pressure.Intrapleural pressure.The pressure in the intrapleural space between the lungs and chest wall is intrapleural pressure.Intrapleural pressure changes from -2.5 to -6 mmHg during inspiration. During strong inspiratory effort it may reach up to -30 mmHg.Transpulmonary pressureIt is the difference between alveolar pressure and intrapleural pressure. It is the measure of elastic forces in the lungs.Alveolar pressure or intrapulmonary pressureIt is the pressure inside the lung alveoli. When no air flows the alveolar pressure is considered to be equal to the atmospheric pressure, i.e., 0 cm of water.During inspiration it decreases to -1 cm of water.During expiration it increases to+1 cm of water.
Physiology
Respiratory System
cdfbd205-6f98-4cdc-9d76-29c0e9887cef
One standard detion in normal standard curev includes value-
50%
68%
95%
100%
1b
single
Ref:Parks 23rd edition pg 849. 1SD : confidence limit = 68% 2SD : confidence limit = 95% 3SD : confidence limit = 99.7%
Social & Preventive Medicine
Biostatistics
d000623f-eba6-4e64-8cc0-3ed932403fce
Foam cells are seen in infection with which virus ?
Measles
EBV
Molluscum contagiosum
RSV
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., EBV EBV encephalomyelitis shows :Abnormal white matter with perivascular infiltrates of inflammatory cells and foam cells.Some myelin is replaced by lipid-filled macrophages and hyperplastic astrocytes.
Microbiology
null
fc374693-12de-4ca4-8854-34bd1a9c686b
During extraction of the upper first molar, the mesio buccal root is missing and is suspected to have been pushed into the maxillary sinus. The best position for the patient immediately after the incident is
To position the patient upright
To position the patients in a semi inclined posture to visualize the perforation
Trendelenberg position
Reverse trendelenberg position
0a
single
null
Surgery
null
ffa5b47b-7d02-489f-9bcf-f6753b2be449
Rescue P.C.I is done for which of the following?
Persistent chest pain with ST elevation > 60 min after thrombolysis
Persistent chest pain with ST elevation > 30 min after thrombolysis
Persistent Chest pain with ST elevation >90 min after thrombolysis
Pain with ST elevation for >120minutes after thrombolysis
2c
single
Option C = Rescue P.C.I. After thrombolysis ST Elevation begin to reduce If ST Elevation persisting in spite of thrombolysis. So it's failure of thrombolysis | within 90 minutes Rescue PCI Types of PCI Primary PCI done for STEMI (Door to device time < 90 minutes). Delayed PCI done for Unstable Angina NSTEMI Rescue PCI Failure of thrombolysis (within 90 minutes).
Medicine
Acute coronary syndrome
fefb2a6d-129a-4ebd-9100-fcdb862c98a2
Fever associated with infection
Accelerates bacterial and viral replication
Left shifts the oxygen dissociation curve
Is due to interleukin-1 released from CD4 T-helper cells
Increase oxygen release to tissue
3d
single
Fever right shifts the oxygen dissociation curve, which allows for a greater release of oxygen to the tissue, making oxygen easily available to neutrophils and monocytes for use in the oxygen-dependent myeloperoxidase system of bactericidal killing. Having more oxygen available to tissue also enhances wound healing. In addition, fever interferes with bacterial and viral replication by providing a hostile environment for incubation. Fever is produced by the release of interleukin-I from macrophages. Interleukin-I, in turn, stimulates the hypothalamus to synthesize prostaglandins, which interact with the thermoregulatory center to produce fever.
Physiology
General physiology
8cf45c14-9de1-4f72-a51c-e0ab03cd4518
Last organ to putrefy in females is?
Liver
Uterus
Brain
Breast
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Uterus Order of putrefactiono Order of appearance of putrefaction from earliest to last is : larynx, trachea > stomach, intestine > spleen, liver > brain, lungs > heart > kidney, bladder > uterus/prostate > bone.o Amongst the soft tissues uterus in female and prostate in malesm are last to undergo putrefaction, as uterus and prostate resist putrefaction. Otherwise bones are last to undergo putrefaction, overall.
Forensic Medicine
Injuries
567e1d6a-5444-4e1a-b07a-98417b051c28
Hamartomatous lung tissue is?
Hypoplasia of lung
Congenital cyst
Lobar sequestration
Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation
3d
single
Ans. (d) Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 670; 8th/pg 679)Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation (CCAM): Hamartomatous Q or dysplastic lung tissue, usually confined to one lobe.
Pathology
Respiration
c50f51df-27d7-43e6-9be6-4b89df294edb
Test for diagnosis of pyogenic meningitis is?
Widal
CSF PCR
CSF examination
PET scan
2c
single
ANSWER: (C) CSF examinationREF: Harrison 17th ed chapter 376The diagnosis of bacterial meningitis is made by examination of the CSF. The need to obtain neuroimaging studies (CT or MRI) prior to LP requires clinical judgment.A broad-range PCR can detect small numbers of viable and nonviable organisms in CSF and is expected to be useful for making a diagnosis of bacterial meningitis in patients who have been pretreated with oral or parenteral antibiotics and in whom Gram's stain and CSF culture are negative
Microbiology
Bacteria
22c45247-65d6-4168-aa89-428eb6ccf1c3
Causes of thickened gallbladder wall on ultrasound examination are all except:
Postprandial state
Cholecystitis
Congestive cardiac failure
Kawasaki disease
3d
multi
Ans: D (Kawasaki disease) Ref: Manual of Emergency Critical Care Ultrasound Vicke E Noble. 2nd ed. Pg 156Explanation:Kawasaki disease is associated with hydrops of gallbladder.Gallbladder Wall Thickening A gallbladder wall that is thickened is a sign of inflammation. This is a non-specific finding, and many other pathologic processes, as well as a postprandial gallbladder, can give you falsely elevated measurements.It is important to measure the wall of the anterior gallbladder surface because of the acoustic enhancement artifact mentioned.Because sound waves travel through a fluid-filled structure, no attenuation occurs. Thus, when those sound weaves hit the back of the gallbladder, they will be so strong that they will obscure an accurate picture of the wall thickness.For gallbladder wall thickness, greater than 3 mm is abnormal.Differential for Thickened Gallbladder WallPostprandialRenal failureAscitesHepatitisHypoalbuminemiaHIV/AIDSAdenomyomatosisMultiple myelomaCholecystitisCongestive heart failure
Radiology
Abdominal Radiography
0210576a-e7fd-40c4-b51e-acd13de82132
In caloric test, cold water stimulation causes movement of eye -
Some side
Opposite side
Up
Do\vn
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Opposite side [Ref: Dhingra 5th/e p. 48}o Each ear is irrigated twice : once with cold water (70C below the body temperature, i. e. 300C) and then with warm water (70C above the body temperature, i.e. 440C).o Cold water provokes nystagmus towards the opposite ear, while warm water provokes nystagmus towardssame ear (COWS Cold - oppsite, Warm - same).
ENT
Assessment of Vestibular Function
b9c3c5cc-127b-46a2-bfdc-d23bd2412409
Which of the following is not false about annual risk of TB
ARI of 1% = 75 new cases
Current ARI in India is 1.7%
It is represents new cases of TB
It is assessed by tuberculin conversion in previously non-vaccinated children
3d
multi
Incidence of TB infection (Annual infection rate, Annual risk of Infection ARI) : Percentage of population under study who will be newly infected (not diseased or cases) with TB among Non-infected in 1 year. Expresses attacking force of TB in community In developing countries 1% ARI corresponds to: 50 SS +ve cases per 100,000 general population Tuberculin conversion index is the "best indicator for evaluation of TB problem and its trend" in the community. Current ARI in India : 1.5% Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 190-191
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable diseases
f6c9fd05-bcda-4397-bcaa-a17d65107ad3
A 12-year-old girl presents to the casualty with symptoms of fever, shoness of breath, and cough. A chest X-ray reveals complete consolidation of the lower lobe of the left lung. Cultures of the lower lobe of the left lung would most likely reveal which organism?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Staphylococcus aureus
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
0a
single
The history and findings are consistent with a lobar pneumonia. The most common etiologic agent of lobar pneumonia is Streptococcus pneumoniae. ESSENTIALS OF DIAGNOSIS Productive cough, fever, rigors, dyspnea, early pleuritic chest pain Consolidating lobar pneumonia on chest radiograph Lancet-shaped gram-positive diplococci on Gram stain of sputum Ref: Papadakis MA, McPhee SJ, "Pneumonia, Pneumococcal." Quick Medical Diagnosis & Treatment
Microbiology
null
19de7ff4-cb68-4c51-afe3-07a425f20c91
IgA deposits on skin biopsy
Henoch Schouleiln puspura
Giant cell aeritis
Microscopic polyangitis
Wegener's granulomatosis
0a
single
A.i.e. Henosch Schonlein purpura
Skin
null
8705fb60-c237-4804-a9cf-8adbb631bcd3
A Dentin 'Primer'?
Etches the dentin
It increases the surface energy & wets the dentin surface
Removes the smear layer
Conditions the dentin
1b
single
null
Dental
null
d0b35238-78a6-454d-9bc9-65180db85bbb
Which of the following hormonal activity is expected immediately prior to Ovulation?
LH surge
FSH surge
Progestrone surge
Estrogen surge
0a
single
Ovulation occurs due to the effect of increased concentration of LH. In the pre-ovulatory phase of the menstrual cycle, the ovarian follicle will undergo a series of transformations called cumulus expansion, which is stimulated by FSH. This is followed by LH surge.
Physiology
null
e2e8a056-13c0-457f-945f-da4fdb9afbd6
Following are fibrous joints :
Pubic symphysis
Fronto parietal suture
Manubrio sternal joint
Inf. radio ulnar joint
1b
single
B. i.e. Frontoparietal sutureSkull sutures (except sphen-occipital), vomer- sphenoid rostrum schindylesisQ, inferior tibiofibular syndesmosis and dentoalveolar gomphosis (tooth socket) joints are fibrous joints. A Schindylesis is a specialized suture where a rigid bone fits into a groove on a neighbouring element eg a cleft between the alae of vomer, which receives the rostrum of the sphenoid. (i.e. vomer - sphenoidal rostrum junction)Q- Epiphyseo-diaphyseal growth plateQ, costochondral, 1st chondrosternal and sphenoocipital joints are synchondrosis/ syncendrosis or primary cailaginous joints; whereas, symphysis pubis, symphysis menti, sacrococcygeal, interveebral and manubriosternal jointsQ are symphyses or secondary cailaginous joints.Aicular cailage of most (not all) synol joints are lined by hyaline cailage Q. In some synol joints the cavity is paially or completely subdivided into two by an aicular disc, made up of fibrocailage eg. Temporomadibular jt, sternoclavicular jt, menisci of knee joint. More mobile the joint the more commonly it discloates eg shoulder jtQ. MCP Jt. is a condylar - synol joint
Anatomy
null
df59eac7-87b1-4805-9c47-0caf96a3450d
For exhumation the order should be passed by -
Chief judicial magistrate
Executive magistrate
Police officer
Session judge
1b
single
The body is exhumed only when, there is written order from the executive magistrate.
Forensic Medicine
null
aeb420c2-ede8-48bc-9400-a5ae531f15ee
The radiograph of a 32 year old patient is shown below. The patient is asymptomatic and the lesion revealed in the radiograph is an accidental finding. The most likely diagnosis is:
Stafne’s bone cavity
Radicular Cyst
Dentigerous cyst
Lateral periodontal cyst
0a
single
Radiological signs: The lesion presents as a chance radiographic finding. It is a round or an ovoid (<3 cm) uniform radiolucency with a well-defined, usually corticated, margin. Stafne’s bone cavity is non-expansile and is found below the mandibular canal just anterior to the angle of the mandible. The location of Stafne’s bone cavity distinguishes it from odontogenic lesions, whose origin is within the alveolar bone.
Radiology
null

Dataset Card for MedMCQA

Dataset Summary

MedMCQA is a large-scale, Multiple-Choice Question Answering (MCQA) dataset designed to address real-world medical entrance exam questions.

MedMCQA has more than 194k high-quality AIIMS & NEET PG entrance exam MCQs covering 2.4k healthcare topics and 21 medical subjects are collected with an average token length of 12.77 and high topical diversity.

Each sample contains a question, correct answer(s), and other options which require a deeper language understanding as it tests the 10+ reasoning abilities of a model across a wide range of medical subjects & topics. A detailed explanation of the solution, along with the above information, is provided in this study.

MedMCQA provides an open-source dataset for the Natural Language Processing community. It is expected that this dataset would facilitate future research toward achieving better QA systems. The dataset contains questions about the following topics:

  • Anesthesia
  • Anatomy
  • Biochemistry
  • Dental
  • ENT
  • Forensic Medicine (FM)
  • Obstetrics and Gynecology (O&G)
  • Medicine
  • Microbiology
  • Ophthalmology
  • Orthopedics
  • Pathology
  • Pediatrics
  • Pharmacology
  • Physiology
  • Psychiatry
  • Radiology
  • Skin
  • Preventive & Social Medicine (PSM)
  • Surgery

Supported Tasks and Leaderboards

multiple-choice-QA, open-domain-QA: The dataset can be used to train a model for multi-choice questions answering, open domain questions answering. Questions in these exams are challenging and generally require deeper domain and language understanding as it tests the 10+ reasoning abilities across a wide range of medical subjects & topics.

Languages

The questions and answers are available in English.

Dataset Structure

Data Instances

{
    "question":"A 40-year-old man presents with 5 days of productive cough and fever. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is isolated from a pulmonary abscess. CBC shows an acute effect characterized by marked leukocytosis (50,000 mL) and the differential count reveals a shift to left in granulocytes. Which of the following terms best describes these hematologic findings?",
    "exp": "Circulating levels of leukocytes and their precursors may occasionally reach very high levels (>50,000 WBC mL). These extreme elevations are sometimes called leukemoid reactions because they are similar to the white cell counts observed in leukemia, from which they must be distinguished. The leukocytosis occurs initially because of the accelerated release of granulocytes from the bone marrow (caused by cytokines, including TNF and IL-1) There is a rise in the number of both mature and immature neutrophils in the blood, referred to as a shift to the left. In contrast to bacterial infections, viral infections (including infectious mononucleosis) are characterized by lymphocytosis Parasitic infestations and certain allergic reactions cause eosinophilia, an increase in the number of circulating eosinophils. Leukopenia is defined as an absolute decrease in the circulating WBC count.",
    "cop":1,
    "opa":"Leukemoid reaction",
    "opb":"Leukopenia",
    "opc":"Myeloid metaplasia",
    "opd":"Neutrophilia",
    "subject_name":"Pathology",
    "topic_name":"Basic Concepts and Vascular changes of Acute Inflammation",
    "id":"4e1715fe-0bc3-494e-b6eb-2d4617245aef",
    "choice_type":"single"
}

Data Fields

  • id : a string question identifier for each example
  • question : question text (a string)
  • opa : Option A
  • opb : Option B
  • opc : Option C
  • opd : Option D
  • cop : Correct option, i.e., 1,2,3,4
  • choice_type ({"single", "multi"}): Question choice type.
    • "single": Single-choice question, where each choice contains a single option.
    • "multi": Multi-choice question, where each choice contains a combination of multiple suboptions.
  • exp : Expert's explanation of the answer
  • subject_name : Medical Subject name of the particular question
  • topic_name : Medical topic name from the particular subject

Data Splits

The goal of MedMCQA is to emulate the rigor of real word medical exams. To enable that, a predefined split of the dataset is provided. The split is by exams instead of the given questions. This also ensures the reusability and generalization ability of the models.

The training set of MedMCQA consists of all the collected mock & online test series, whereas the test set consists of all AIIMS PG exam MCQs (years 1991-present). The development set consists of NEET PG exam MCQs (years 2001-present) to approximate real exam evaluation.

Similar questions from train , test and dev set were removed based on similarity. The final split sizes are as follow:

Train Test Valid
Question # 182,822 6,150 4,183
Vocab 94,231 11,218 10,800
Max Ques tokens 220 135 88
Max Ans tokens 38 21 25

Dataset Creation

Curation Rationale

Before this attempt, very few works have been done to construct biomedical MCQA datasets (Vilares and Gomez-Rodr, 2019), and they are (1) mostly small, containing up to few thousand questions, and (2) cover a limited number of Medical topics and Subjects. This paper addresses the aforementioned limitations by introducing MedMCQA, a new large-scale, Multiple-Choice Question Answering (MCQA) dataset designed to address real-world medical entrance exam questions.

Source Data

Initial Data Collection and Normalization

Historical Exam questions from official websites - AIIMS & NEET PG (1991- present) The raw data is collected from open websites and books

Who are the source language producers?

The dataset was created by Ankit Pal, Logesh Kumar Umapathi and Malaikannan Sankarasubbu

Annotations

Annotation process

The dataset does not contain any additional annotations.

Who are the annotators?

[Needs More Information]

Personal and Sensitive Information

[Needs More Information]

Considerations for Using the Data

Social Impact of Dataset

[Needs More Information]

Discussion of Biases

[Needs More Information]

Other Known Limitations

[Needs More Information]

Additional Information

Dataset Curators

[Needs More Information]

Licensing Information

[Needs More Information]

Citation Information

If you find this useful in your research, please consider citing the dataset paper

@InProceedings{pmlr-v174-pal22a,
  title = 	 {MedMCQA: A Large-scale Multi-Subject Multi-Choice Dataset for Medical domain Question Answering},
  author =       {Pal, Ankit and Umapathi, Logesh Kumar and Sankarasubbu, Malaikannan},
  booktitle = 	 {Proceedings of the Conference on Health, Inference, and Learning},
  pages = 	 {248--260},
  year = 	 {2022},
  editor = 	 {Flores, Gerardo and Chen, George H and Pollard, Tom and Ho, Joyce C and Naumann, Tristan},
  volume = 	 {174},
  series = 	 {Proceedings of Machine Learning Research},
  month = 	 {07--08 Apr},
  publisher =    {PMLR},
  pdf = 	 {https://proceedings.mlr.press/v174/pal22a/pal22a.pdf},
  url = 	 {https://proceedings.mlr.press/v174/pal22a.html},
  abstract = 	 {This paper introduces MedMCQA, a new large-scale, Multiple-Choice Question Answering (MCQA) dataset designed to address real-world medical entrance exam questions. More than 194k high-quality AIIMS &amp; NEET PG entrance exam MCQs covering 2.4k healthcare topics and 21 medical subjects are collected with an average token length of 12.77 and high topical diversity. Each sample contains a question, correct answer(s), and other options which requires a deeper language understanding as it tests the 10+ reasoning abilities of a model across a wide range of medical subjects &amp; topics. A detailed explanation of the solution, along with the above information, is provided in this study.}
}

Contributions

Thanks to @monk1337 for adding this dataset.

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