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45258d3d-b974-44dd-a161-c3fccbdadd88
Which of the following is not true for myelinated nerve fibers:
Impulse through myelinated fibers is slower than non-myelinated fibers
Membrane currents are generated at nodes of Ranvier
Saltatory conduction of impulses is seen
Local anesthesia is effective only when the nerve is not covered by myelin sheath
0a
multi
null
Physiology
null
b944ada9-d776-4c2a-9180-3ae5f393f72d
Which of the following is not true about glomerular capillaries')
The oncotic pressure of the fluid leaving the capillaries is less than that of fluid entering it
Glucose concentration in the capillaries is the same as that in glomerular filtrate
Constriction of afferent aeriole decreases the blood flow to the glomerulas
Hematocrit of the fluid leaving the capillaries is less than that of the fluid entering it
0a
multi
Ans-a. The oncotic pressure of the fluid leaving the capillaries is less than that of fluid entering it Guyton I LpJ1 4-.;anong 23/e p653-6_)Glomerular oncotic pressure (due to plasma protein content) is higher than that of filtrate oncotic pressure in Bowman's capsule"Since glucose is freely filtered and the fluid in the Bowman's capsule is isotonic with plasma, the concentration of glucose in the filtrate is the same as in the capillaries
Physiology
null
b64a9cd7-d076-4c55-8be1-f9c44fece6cc
A 29 yrs old woman with a pregnancy of 17 week has a 10 years old boy with down syndrome. She does not want another down syndrome kid; best advice to her is
No test is required now as her age is below 35 years
Ultra sound at this point of time will definitely tell her that next baby will be down syndromic or not
Amniotic fluid samples plus chromosomal analysis will definitely tell her that next baby will be down syndromic or not
blood screening at this point of time will clear the exact picture
2c
single
null
Medicine
null
ce49098b-cc48-4168-859e-936e3e0c7459
Which of the following are not a branch of external carotid Aery in Kiesselbach's plexus.
Sphenopalatine aery
Anterior ethmoidal aery
Greater palatine aery
Septal branch of superior labial aery
1b
single
*Kiesselbach's plexus: Antero superior pa is supplied by ANTERIOR & POSTERIOR ETHMOIDAL AERIES which are branches of ophthalmic aery, branch of INTERNAL CAROTID AERY. Antero inferior pa is supplied by SUPERIOR LABIAL AERY - branch of facial aery, which is branch of EXTERNAL CAROTID AERY. Postero superior pa is supplied by SPHENO-PALATINE AERY - branch of MAXILLARY aery, which is branch of ECA. POSTERO INFERIOR pa is supplied by branches of GREATER PALATINE AERY - branch of ECA Antero inferior pa/vestibule of septum contain anastomosis b/w septal ramus of superior labial branch of facial aery & branches of sphenopalatine, greater palatine & anterior ethmoidal aeries. These form a large capillary network called KIESSELBACH'S PLEXUS If dryness persists, bleeding will occur Therefore, in given options, Anterior ethmoidal aery is a branch of ICA not ECA
Anatomy
AIIMS 2017
26160738-1887-4252-86d4-1719a5a80bd3
About N. gonorrhoea, all are true except
Most common cause of urethritis in male
All stains are highly susceptible to penicillin
Wide spread axoregnic stains cause disseminated gonococcal infection
Found exclusively in human beings
1b
multi
null
Microbiology
null
67add9f9-94b5-40b2-904d-fb4965fb8309
In Erythroblastosis fetalis not involved is –
Anti C
Anti D
Anti E
Anti Lewis
3d
single
Erythroblastosis fetalis is caused by the transplacental passage of maternal antibody active against paternal RBC antigens of the infant and is characterized by an increased rate of RBC destruction. Although more than 60 different RBC antigens are capable of eliciting an antibody response, significant disease is associated primarily D antigen of Rh group and with A 0 incompatibility. Other rare antigens involved are - C or E antigen of Rh group RBC antigens - Cw, Cx, Cu, K (kell), M, Duffy, S, P, MNS, Xg, Lutheran, Diego and Kidd. Anti-Lewis antibodies do not cause disease.
Pediatrics
null
6bfe528d-3481-47e2-bc3d-d38c56b5f0cc
A dentist suffered from Hepatitis B infection 3 months back. His laboratory tests are normal, but he is not allowed by the medical board to do surgical practice. He is:
Inactive carrier
Healthy carrier
Convalescent carrier
Paradoxical carrier
2c
multi
Convalescent carrier is the host who continues to harbor the microorganism even after recovering from the clinical disease caused by the same pathogen. Key Points  HBsAg: The antigen appears in blood during incubation period and is detectable in most patients during the prodrome and acute phase of the disease. Persistent presence of HBsAg in blood for at least 6 months indicates the carrier state and also indicates the risk of chronic hepatitis and hepatic carcinoma. It is not detectable in the serum during convalescent stage. The presence of HBsAg alone does not necessarily indicate the replication of complete virion, and the patients may not have symptoms of liver damage.  Parija SC. Textbook of Microbiology & Immunology. Elsevier Health Sciences; 2014. Page:74,553
Microbiology
null
849b1909-c988-4d0b-8eaf-a716707cbe97
Which pa of brachial plexus do not give branches
Root
Division
Cord
Trunk
1b
single
Answer: B. DivisionDivision does not give branches
Anatomy
null
1482f619-ffc5-4773-b48e-995421bcab06
A patient presents with carcinoma of the larynx involving the left false cords, left arytenoid and the left aryepiglottic folds with bilateral mobile true cords. Treatment of choice is -
Vertical hemilaryngectomy
Horizontal partial hemilaryngectomy
Total laryngectomy
Radiotherapy followed by chemotherapy
0a
multi
In the Patient Involvement of unilateral false cord, aryepiglottic folds and arytenoids with mobile cord suggest supraglottic cancer in T2 stage (morem than one subsites of supraglottis are involved). For T2 stage radiotherpy is best. But it is not given in options. Hence we will go for voice conserving surgery-vertical hemilaryngectomy. Vertical hemilaryngectomy means excision of one half of larynx, one half of supraglottis, glottis and subglottis.
ENT
null
0e7917ea-310b-4477-9897-f4901f728448
Which of the following lipoproteins does not move towards charged end in electrophoresis?
VLDL
LDL
HDL
Chylomicrons
3d
single
Based on electrophoretic separation from cathode to anode, the order of lipoprotein in an electrophoretogram is  Chylomicron LDL (β Lipoprotein) VLDL (Pre β Lipoprotein) IDL (Broad β Lipoprotein) HDL (α Lipoprotein)
Biochemistry
null
7627eb54-4499-45d0-ba1f-1c8dbc6f2342
Iron is present in all, EXCEPT
Myoglobin
Cytochrome
Catalase
Pyruvate kinase
3d
multi
null
Biochemistry
null
890982b8-3906-44be-aff1-437a7c6c373d
In a couple for treatment of infeility from the last four years, female paner is normal. Male paner has 0.8 ml semen volume per ejaculate on two repeated samples and absent fructose, with no sperms on examination under microscope. What is the next line of management?
Per-rectal examination to check ejaculatory duct obstruction
Give antioxidants
Testicular biopsy
Transrectal ultrasound to detect duct obstruction
3d
single
Answer- D. Transrectal ultrasound to detect duct obstructionAbsent fructose with no sperms in ejaculate is suggestive of obstruction of vas deferens with seminal vesicle agenesis or obstruction. Next line of management in this patient would be transrectal ultrasound to detect duct obstruction.Transrectal Ultrasound-High-frequency (5-7) mHz transrectal ultrasound (TRUS) offers superb imaging of the prostate, seminal vesicles, and ejaculatory ducts.Due to both accuracy and convenience, TRUS has replaced surgical vasography in the diagnosis of obstructive lesions that cause infeility.
Surgery
null
069b7516-54c4-4e5d-acf7-a7c92fdd2a01
The zygomatic bone does not articulate with:
Frontal bone
Maxillary bone
Nasal bone
Temporal bone
2c
single
null
Dental
null
d1d16eda-c34e-4492-bee4-1b8c4246daf3
Due to which of the following enzyme deficiency, vitamin C cannot be synthesised in humans?
L-Glucuronic acid oxidase
L-Gulonic acid reductase
L-Gulonolactone oxidase
L-Gulonolactone reductase
2c
single
L-Gulonolactone oxidase produces Vitamin C Uronic acid pathway, but only in plants & most animals. Humans cannot make vitamin C due to absence of L-Gulonolactone oxidase enzyme.(See fig) Uronic acid pathway- glucose is conveed to glucuronic acid, pentoses and, in some animals, to ascorbic acid (not in man). ADDITIONAL EDGE: Uronic Acid Pathway synthesize Glucuronic Acid, Pentoses and Vit C Uses of Glucuronic acid: Incorporated into proteoglycans (Glucuronate used) Acts as a conjugating agent (Phase II conjugation reactions like bilirubin conjugation)
Biochemistry
AIIMS 2018
87d8663f-e0cd-4766-87b7-5312dfc4cd62
Which of the following type of failure may occur, if the coefficient of thermal expansion of ceramic is much lower than that of metal?
Cohesive failure of ceramic
Adhesive failure of metal ceramic bond
Cohesive failure of metal
Cohesive failure of metal ceramic bond
1b
single
A thermal contraction mismatch that results from a higher coefficient of contraction of porcelain (αP is greater than αM) will introduce residual tangential and hoop tensile stresses. The additive effect of tangential tensile stress induced in the porcelain by the intraoral force can exceed the tensile strength of the porcelain and causes crack propagation in the porcelain veneer. When the contraction coefficient of the porcelain is much lower than that of the metal (αP much lower than αM), porcelain cracking or metal-ceramic bond failure can occur near the metal-porcelain interface. This incompatibility failure is likely caused by the development of radial tensile stresses that exceed the tensile strength of porcelain. Contraction coefficient of the porcelain - αP   Contraction coefficient of the metal - αM   Phillip’s 12th edition page 423
Dental
null
bbd0ab20-0dce-48f8-ba8f-288d205feb3c
A 10 years old child has lytic lesions in upper femur, the differential diagnosis can be all except :
Plasmacytoma
Browns tumour
Metastasis
Histiocytosis
0a
multi
Plasmocytoma can be easily ruled out. It is a localized form of multiple myeloma which usually occurs in 5th to 7th decade. Metastasis, histiocytosis and brown tumor can cause lytic bone lesions in childhood.
Pediatrics
null
d2398cd6-b205-4fb3-a4c4-9e575662b0bf
Which is not involved in iron metabolism?
Transthyretin
Ceruloplasmin
Hepcidin
Ferropoin
0a
single
Transferrin is used for transpoing iron throughout the body BUT Transthyretin (Option a) - transpos Thyroxine & Retinol binding protein. So, it is NOT involved in iron metabolism WITH RESPECT TO OTHER OPTIONS: (Option b) Ceruloplasmin is a Cu containing enzyme also having Ferroxidase activity. Ferroxidase conves Fe +2 to Fe +3 (i.e. Ferrous to ferric). Ferric form of iron is required for transpo by transferrin in plasma. (Option c) Hepcidin regulates iron transpo in circulation. (Option d) Ferritin & Haemosiderin are proteins for iron storage. Haemosiderin has higher iron content than Ferritin.
Biochemistry
AIIMS 2017
aa32b0f3-dd63-455c-8de0-9fd429edfd20
A 14 year girl presented with absent thelarche.On examination uterus was present. Investigations showed high FSH. karyotype is XY.What is the probable diagnosis?
Gonadal dysgenesis
Kallman syndrome
Androgen insensitivity syndrome
Adrenal hyperplasia
0a
multi
Ans. A. Gonadal dysgenesisRef: Clinical Gynecologic Endocrinoktgt Infeility, 8" ed.Gonadal dysgenesis (Swyer Syndrome):Uncommon form of gonadal dysgenesis, characterized by a 46,XY karyotype.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
0449cf80-87b3-4345-8c80-f007398c4fab
Waldeyer's lymphatic chain is formed by all except
Palatine tonsils
Pharyngeal tonsils
Tubal and lingual tonsils
Post auricular nodes
3d
multi
null
Anatomy
null
cfa28a58-dd1f-4852-b34f-d150a9fd9011
Which of the following statement is false statement about snake-bites?
Anti-venom is not effective in humpnosed pit viper bite
Cobra venom is neurotoxic
Atropine premedication should be used before administering Neostigmine
Neostigmine has a role in krait bite.
3d
multi
Ans: D. Neostigmine has a role in krait bite.(Ref: Parikh 6/e p9.47: Harrison 19/e p2736; Snake Bite: Indian Guidelines and Protocol p 425)Role of neostigmine in snake-bite:An anticholinesterase.Paicularly effective in postsynaptic neurotoxins (cobra).Not useful against presynaptic neurotoxin (common krait & Russell's viper).Polyvalent Anti-snake venom - Ineffective against humpnosed pit viper (Hypnale).
Forensic Medicine
null
18796d06-7762-4185-b0ca-c1b527502073
Which of the following is not true about stamp cusp?
Maintain vertical height of face
Facial incline might contact in MI
Sharp cusps and prominent ridges are present
Not recalled
2c
multi
null
Dental
null
c87fcef2-1b7d-44e2-85c0-618b956f675e
In DIC following are seen except
Fibrinogen decreased
Thrombocytopenia
Normal APTT
PT elevation
2c
multi
null
Medicine
null
0c240f5f-b2d4-4229-8a70-5c2bd42f2144
According to Transplantation of Human Organs Act, which of the following doctors is/are not authorized to declare brainstem death?
RMP incharge of the hospital
Treating physician
Neurosurgeon
Surgeon doing liver transplant
3d
single
Ans: D. Surgeon doing liver transplant(Ref: Transplantation of Human Organs and Tissue Rules)In the case of brain-stem death of the donor, a ceificate has been signed by all the members of the Board of medical expes; Where a neurologist or a neurosurgeon is not available, an anesthetist or intensivist nominated by the Registered Medical Practitioner and who is not member of the transplantation team for the recipient concerned, may ceify the brain stein death as a member of the Board.Because of vested interest, surgeon doing liver transplant cannot declare a person brain dead.
Forensic Medicine
null
539291d5-becc-4ccc-8862-9d9ff4fcc121
The clot formed is not stable unless extensive cross-linking occurs. This extensive cross-linking of blood clot is done by:
Plasmin
Thrombin
HMWK
Factor XIII
3d
single
Ans: D. Factor XIIIConversion of fibrinogen into cross-linked fibrin:Thrombin directly conves soluble fibrinogen into fibrin monomers.Fibrin monomers polymerize into an insoluble clot & also amplifies coagulation process - By activating factor XI, factors V & VIII.Also stabilizes secondary hemostatic plug - By activating factor XIII.Factor XIII - Covalently cross-links fibrin.Ref: Robbing 9/e 11 9
Physiology
null
7e567a6e-46f6-4f48-bd14-21e53726f1ff
Replacing amino acid will not change its functions
Glutamine to Asparagine
Aspaate and Glutamate
Alanine to tryptophan
None of these
0a
multi
Answer- A. Glutamine to Asparagine* Glutamine and Asparagine are Amide group containing amino acids.* These belongs to same category (hydrophilic /Homophilic) so no alteration in function
Biochemistry
null
2dd59aba-38c0-4aff-a000-1bcb640254ff
Drug adveisement letter is a necessary component of each drug formulation and contains various information about the drug like drug dosing, frequency and half-life. Which of the following information need not be given in the drug adveisement letter?
Research papers and other aicles proving efficacy of the drug
Date of expiry of the drug
Rare, but serious life threatening adverse-effects
Common, not so serious adverse-effects
1b
single
Ans: B. Date of expiry of the drug(Ref Goodman Gilman 12/e p1883; Manual of Experimental and Clinical Pharmacology/p 345).Date of drug expiry need not to be given in drug adveisement letter.Regulated according to The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.Amended (Food and Drug Administration Modernization Act of 1997).Permits use of print & television adveising for prescription drugs.Drug adveisements:Contain summary information relating to side effects, contraindications & effectiveness.Current adveising regulations:Specify that this information disclosure needs to include all risk information in a product's approved labeling or must direct consumers to healthcare professionals to obtain this information.Print adveisements:Include reprinting of risk-related sections of product's approved labeling (package inse).Television adveising:Not includes reprinting of risk-related.Note:Adveisements cannot be false or misleading or omit material facts.Must present fair balance between effectiveness & risk information.
Pharmacology
null
58ffad4a-5613-4d26-88b2-a4bb2ce2b9e6
Which of the following drugs can be stopped abruptly without any withdrawal symptoms?
Esctilaopram
Fluoxetine
Fluvoxamine
Seraline
1b
single
Answer- B. FluoxetineFluoxetine has the lowest incidence of discontinuation syndrome among several antidepressants including paroxetin and venlafaxine. The longer half life of fluoxetine will avoid any withdrawal symptoms because this medication effectively tapers itself from the patient's system over a few days.
Pharmacology
null
9823097b-b309-4de3-9a14-d93ff757fd5f
Reflex which never disappear:
Walking and stepping reflex
Limb placement reflex
Parachute reflex
All of the above
3d
multi
null
Dental
null
e28c04ac-2003-4fa1-8b5c-7f36776cfa8a
Which of the following is not the component of qSOFA?
Respiratory rate >22/min
Systolic BP<100 mmHg
Altered mental status
Unequally dilated pupils
3d
multi
qSOFA: Quick - SOFA Sequential 0rgan Failure Assessment Score. QRS - MS Score*Mn: Q- Quick SofaR- RR > 22/min - 1S- SBP < 100 mmHg -1MS= Altered Mental Status. - 1 Score Moality0 - < 1%1 - 2-3%2 - > 10%
Surgery
AIIMS 2019
2639d0ba-ef15-4ba4-92fe-ee27b5758fbf
Which of these conditions does not require SABE prophylaxis
MR
ASD
MS
CABG
3d
single
null
Surgery
null
97028381-fe2a-4c81-9f67-b3125061d7ae
Which of these is not a theory of TMJ ankylosis?
Calcification in the soft tissues around the joint space
Synovial fluid attracting calcium ions
Lateral displacement of fracture condyle with fusion with zygomatic bone
Condylar burst
1b
single
null
Surgery
null
6920ce2b-f9c9-49aa-9e6e-c94aeb13e709
Endocrine glands that are not influenced by the pituitary gland include the:
Thyroid gland, testes, and adrenal medulla
Adrenal medulla, parathyroids, and the islets of langerhans
Adrenal cortex, parathyroids and ovaries
Pancreas, adrenal medulla and thyroid gland
1b
single
null
Physiology
null
58194611-8ffd-4405-83b2-f8e5798b095d
All these are Included In active tissue engineering, except
Antigens fibroblasts
Bilayered cell therapy
Enamel matrix derivative
Acellular dermal matrix
3d
multi
null
Dental
null
4df0486d-1aba-4df0-9a1f-fd86bb8acc9a
Which of the following structure is not present on floor of third ventricle?
Optic stalk
Third nerve
Infundibulum
Mammillary body
1b
single
Answer- B (Third nerve)The third nerve (Oculomotor) does not form the floor of the third ventricle although it lies in close relation to the floor.The anterior wall of the third ventricle is formed by Lamina terminalis, Anterior commissure, Anterior columns of the fornixThe posterior wall is formed by the Pineal body, Posterior commissure, Cerebral aqueduct.The roof is formed by Body of fornix and the ependyma lining the undersurface of the tela choroidea of the third ventricle.The floor of the third ventricle is formed by Optic chiasma, Tuber cinereum, Infundibulum, the Mammillary bodies, Posterior perforated substance, and Tegmentum of the midbrain. The lateral wall is formed by the Medial surface of the thalamus, Hypothalamus, and the Hypothalamic sulcus.
Anatomy
null
c5b472d1-468e-437e-97fc-9b1c2411af53
What we will define it "ratio of no. of death under 1 year of age to total live birth per 1000 live births per year"?
Infant mortality rate
Child mortality rate
Child morbidity rate
Life expectancy rate
0a
single
null
Dental
null
b687604e-5145-4aa3-ba07-56c624e501ec
Which of the following defines the pressure in the vascular system in the absence of blood flow? (Asked twice)
Pulse pressure
Critical closing pressure
Mean circulatory filling pressure
Perfusion pressure
2c
single
Answer- C. Mean circulatory filling pressureMean Circulatory Filling pressure (MCFP) is equilibrium pressure that is reached throughout the cardiovascular system when cardiac output is stopped completely. MCFP can be measured by stopping blood flow (e.g., by stopping hea pumping by giving shock to hea with electricity) and allowing the pressure throughout the circulatory system to reach equilibrium. MCFP is equilibrium pressure everywhere in circulation.
Physiology
null
8d0b854f-93fb-43ae-a1b9-d489ea68103b
A 2 month old girl has failure to thrive, polyuria and medullary nephrocalcinosis affecting both kidneys. Investigations show blood pH 7.48, bicarbonate 25 mEq/l, potassium 2 mEq/l, sodium 126 mEq/l and chloride 88 mEq/l. The most likely diagnosis is -
Distal renal tubular acidosis
Primary hyperaldosteronism
Bartter syndrome
Pseudohypoaldosteronism
2c
multi
Clinical features of the infant --> Polyuria, Growth retardation, Medullary Nephrocalcinosis Electrolyte abnormalities: - Decreased potassium (Normal 3.5 — 5.0 meq/L)                 o Normal Bicarbonate (Normal 21-30 meq/L) Decreased sodium (Normal 136 — 145 ineq/L)                    o Increased pH (Normal 7.38 — 7.44 meq/L) Decreased Chloride (Normal 98 — 106 meq/L) C/F and electrolyte abnormalities in Bartter's syndrome a Hypokalemia                                o Polyurea and Nocturea (d/t hypokalemia) Metabolic alkalosis                    ❑ Increased urinary chloride (cause Hypochloremia) Normal to low blood pressure o Hypomagnesemia (seen in minority of patient) Growth retardation                    o Hypercalciurea (causes nephrocalcinosis which is visible on ultrasound) Other options Distal renal tubular acidosis      - It can be easily ruled out as it causes acidosis not alkalosis Primary hyperaldosteronism - In primary hyperaldosteronism, Sodium level is always increased and the B.F. is high. Pseudo hypoaldosteronism             - Aldosterone level is normal or increased but there are features of aldosterone deficiency such as decreased sodium and increased potassium.
Pediatrics
null
e6478418-d6bb-47d3-b31c-a19b3a149a6c
All are features of Neonatal Tetanus except –
Refusal to feed is common initial symptom
Caused by clostridium tetani
Usually occurs in 1st 2 days of life
Mortality is 50–75%.
2c
multi
Neonatal Tetanus It is caused by clostridium tetani Clinical features Symptoms of neonatal tetanus starts by 5-15 days after birth, never in the first 2 days of life and rarely after the age of 2 weeks. (ft is commonly k/a as 811! day disease) Common initial symptoms are Excessive unexplained crying, Refusal of feeds, Apathy Prognosis —> Mortality rate varies from 50-75%.
Pediatrics
null
0ada062a-c400-4012-af5e-31144ba41401
Scammon's growth curve. False is
Neural tissues-Most of the growth is completed by 6 years
Lymphoid tissues — growth reaches 200% by age 13 and regresses afterwards
Genital tissues — most of the growth is completed by the age of puberty
None of the above
2c
multi
null
Dental
null
b0060b73-4e6b-4537-a556-c1fb94a65c4a
A 25-year-old lady presents with sudden severe bilateral loss of vision, more so on the right side, with no perception of light. Rest of the examination including pupillary reflexes, fundus and optokinetic nystagmus are normal. She was able to touch the tips of her fingers with her right eye closed but not with her left eye closed. The most like1 tgnosis is:
Optic neuritis
Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy
CMV retinitis
Functional vision loss
3d
single
Ans. d. Functional vision loss (Ref Kanski 6/e p 477, 790, 792-793)The most likely diagnosis in this young lady who presents with sudden severe bilateral loss of vision, more so on the right side, with no perception of light and normal examination findings including pupillary reflexes, fundus and optokinetic nystagmus, who is able to touch tips of her finger with right eye closed but not with left eye closed, is functional vision loss.
Ophthalmology
null
a5d733b4-18d3-468c-8aaa-bbcb66cbb07e
Adverse effects of salbutamol are all except
Tremors
Tachycardia
Hypoglycemia
Hypokalemia
2c
multi
Salbutamol is a beta 2 agonist. Adverse effects of beta 2 agonists: Tremors Tachycardia Tolerance Hypokalemia (by enhancing potassium uptake into muscles) Hypoxia Hyperglycemia (by stimulating glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis) Note: Tolerance occurs to only long acting beta 2 agonists .
Pharmacology
AIIMS 2018
71166b66-1d91-490c-8bf2-ff1a44fc6ba5
Which of the following is not true for incubation period?
For determining isolation period of a disease
To prevent infection among contacts
For quarantine of disease
To differentiate among secondary cases and co-primary cases
0a
multi
null
Dental
null
e4749151-5d65-4cf3-b663-67e75d1da084
A young male present with loose motions and intermittent abdominal pain over the past 1 year. Wet mount stool specimen showed the presence of multiple ova which are more than 100u in diameter. The causative organisms for the disease shall not include?
Fasciola gigantica
Gastrodiscoides hominis
Echinostoma ilocanum
Opisthorchis viverrini
3d
multi
null
Microbiology
null
33a697bc-627a-4a24-b381-19c181fcdded
Method of choice for a New born child not passing urine for 36 hours :
Ultrasound of kidney & bladder
CT Scan
Cystoscopy
X–ray pelvis
0a
single
A history of Anuria suggests Acute Renal failure. Ultrasonography is the ideal imaging tool in Renal failure because of its non dependence on Renal function. As it allows visualization of : Pelvicalyceal system ofAssessment of Renal Size o Structural anomalies and calculi . Note - In this question DTPA scan has not been provided as an option. So, the best answer is USG.
Pediatrics
null
cd3ee63d-d3f2-44ea-a18c-dbf9bf1c57cf
Bacteria free zone of dentinal caries is
a)Zone of decomposed dentin
Zone of bacterial invasion
Zone of decalcification
Zone of dentinal sclerosis
3d
single
null
Pathology
null
5bc29ae1-a1a8-4c3b-a11e-e469be9f0640
Which is not a type of Gracey curvettes?
# 1-2
# 11-12
# 13-14
# 5-16
3d
single
null
Dental
null
16f26f56-f5ab-4542-910b-eca95b907278
Estimation of the blood sugar is relevant in all except –
Birth asphyxia
Large for date baby
Baby of hypothyroid mother
Rh Incompatibility
2c
multi
ARDS (Birth asphyxia), Rh incompatibility (if causes erythroblastosis fetalis) and large for date baby of diabetic mother are prone for hypoglycemia.
Pediatrics
null
3f6665ca-6b69-4345-88c2-72c2befd4d18
Which of the following muscle is not supplied by the nerve marked in the diagram?
Superior oblique
Medial rectus
Inferior rectus
Inferior oblique
0a
single
The nerve marked in the diagram is oculomotor nerve. It supplies superior rectus, inferior rectus, medial rectus and inferior oblique. Superior oblique is supplied by Trochlear nerve.
Ophthalmology
AIIMS 2019
d2ca31a3-800c-4bf7-b150-a3981acc7587
Which of the following statements is false in relation to myofacial pain dysfunction syndrome?
Mainly affects young females
Is caused by muscle fatigue due to chronic oral habits as grinding and clenching
Treatment involves construction of occlusal guard and stress free emotional condition
The perioral musculature becomes hypotonic
3d
multi
null
Pathology
null
aefae2fe-eb5f-411d-95a2-e7823c010a40
Which of the following features is not seen in Crouzon syndrome?
Midface hypoplasia
Syndactyly
Beak shaped nose
Ocular hypertelorism
1b
single
Crouzon syndrome can have following appearances/conditions
Pathology
null
e59188f6-856a-4300-a2fa-176a8a1b030a
A 55- year old diabetic patient presents with transient obscuration in vision for 2-3 days followed by sudden loss of vision. Which of the following would be the best test to evaluate the symptoms?
Serum ACE levels
Quantiferon-Gold TB test
Elevated homocysteine levels
Serum creatinine levels
3d
single
Answer- D. Serum creatinine levelsDM can lead to both retinopathy and nephropathy, Serum creatinine levels would be the best for kidney function and evaluation of patient symptoms.
Medicine
null
92f20736-5ed3-4785-928d-5a4bdaf622a1
A 38-years old patient who had a total abdominal hysterectomy presents 2 months postop complaining of leakage of urine from the vagina. On examination, no fistula can be identified. Dilute methylene blue (100mL) is injected into the bladder through a Foley catheter and a tampon is placed in the vagina. The patient is asked to walk for about 15 minutes, after which the patient is found to be wet, but there is no blue stain anywhere on the tampon. Which of the following is true:-
100mL was probably not enough methylene blue, and the test should be repeated with a higher volume
The patient probably has stress incontinence not a fistula
The patient probably has a ureterovaginal fistula
The patient most likely has small apical vesicovaginal fistula that was too small to leak the dye in 15 minutes
2c
multi
Methylene blue Swab Test-- A catheter is introduced into the bladder through the urethra, The vaginal cavity is packed with three sterile swabs, 50-100 mL of dilute methylene blue dye is injected into the bladder through the catheter. If there is a VVF present, the methylene blue dye stains the uppermost swab.If the lowermost swab gets stained, the leak is from the urethra--> urethrovaginal fistula Swabs do not take up the stain, but get wet with urine, the leak is from the ureter-->ureterovaginal fistula
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
AIIMS 2018
c86f02db-18ea-4ef1-a03a-1bee6d661c7b
Which of the following is not an example of a syndrome caused by uniparental disomy?
Prader-Willi syndrome
Angelman syndrome
Russell-Silver syndrome
Bloom syndrome
3d
single
Answer- D. Bloom syndromeUniparental disomy is the term used when both chromosome of a pair of chromosome is a person with normal number of chromosome, have been inherited from only one parent (Normally one chromosome of a pair is inherited from only one parent).The two chromosomes inherited from the same parent maybe identical (Uniparental isodisomy) or different (Uniparental heterodisomy).In Uniparental isodisomy, both chromosomes in the pair are identical; consequently the genes on both chromosomes are also identical.Angelman syndrome, Prader-Willi syndrome and Russell-Silver syndrome are ossociated with uniparental disomy.
Pediatrics
null
c1069842-8261-4a97-b1bb-5faeaacc6435
Patient is a known case of epilepsy, taking levetiracetam 1 gm BD. He is now seizure free from 2 years but he developed agitation and anger issues interfering with day to day activities as a result of the drug intake. What should be the next best step?
Stop levetiracetam and sta on a different antiepileptic
Discontinue the drug as he is seizure free
Slowly taper the drug over next 6 months
Continue levetiracetam since a 5-year seizure free interval is needed
2c
multi
Answer- C. Slowly taper the drug over next 6 monthsStopping or switching an antiepileptic is based on seizure free period & compliance or adverse effects of the drug.Withdrawal of therapy should be gradual over 2-3 monlhs, in the question 6 months. Anti-epileptic drug therapy shouldnever he stopped abruptly. Even if new drug is to be added/replaced, the previous drug should be gradually stoppedotherwise it can lead to breakthrough seizures.
Pharmacology
null
783aaf31-fd64-4f4e-aa67-93c00cb407ad
Which of the following is not associated with haemorrhage?
Ecchymosis
Petechiae
Melanosis
Purpura
2c
single
null
Pathology
null
9c176b2e-017d-4b57-902a-3637bdf4dff8
Which of the following is not an effect of efferent aeriole constriction :
Decreased GFR
Increased glomerular hydrostatic pressure
Decreased blood flow in peritubular vessels
Increased oncotic pressure in peritubular vessels
0a
single
Constriction of efferent aeriole has biphasic effect on GFR. At moderate levels of constriction, It increases glomerular hydrostatic pressure resulting in increasing GFR If efferent aeriolar constriction is severe; It decreases renal blood flow; filtration fraction & glomerular colloid osmotic pressure increases as efferent aeriolar resistance increases resulting in colloid osmotic pressure exceeds increase in glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure resulting in decrease in GFR. Blood from efferent aerioles enter peritubular capillaries, so if efferent aeriole is constricted, less blood enters peritubular capillaries, which results in increase in oncotic pressure in peri tubular capillaries.
Physiology
AIIMS 2017
a18a805c-102a-4493-9a14-9fef1f17862f
All are true about widal test except
Base lines differ depending on the endemicity of the disease
O antibodies last longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection
H antigen cannot differentiate between subtypes
High titre value in a single widal test is not confirmative
1b
multi
null
Microbiology
null
2902efec-b01a-417c-94b9-406e94662f27
According to the new RNTCP guidelines, the following is not a suspect of tuberculosis
Confirmed extra-pulmonary tuberculosis patient with cough of 2 weeks or more
HIV-positive patient with cough of any duration
Contacts of sputum positive tuberculosis patient with cough of any duration
Any individual having cough of duration 2 weeks or more
0a
single
Ans: A. Confirmed extra-pulmonary tuberculosis patient with cough of 2 weeks or more(Ref: Park 24/e p188-189, 23/e p178: 22/e p 168; htip://tbcindia.nic.in)A contact of confirmed extra-pulmonary tuberculosis patient - TB suspect.If persistent cough of any duration (2 weeks is not required).TB suspects:Pulmonary TB Suspect:Defined as:Any individual having cough of >2 weeks.Contacts of smear positive TB patients having cough of any duration.Suspected/confirmed extra-pulmonary TB patient having cough of any duration.HIV-positive patient having cough of any duration.MDR-TB Suspect:Any TB patient who fails an RNTCP Category failing I or III treatment regimen.Any RNTCP Category II patient with sputum smear positive at end of 4th month of treatment or later.Close contacts of MDR-TB patients with smear positive pulmonary TB.
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
535bf03d-8714-46a8-84a0-13bf499129f7
Which of the following does not require 5'capping?
tRNA of alanine
mRNA for histone
U6 snRNA
siRNA
0a
single
Ans: A. tRNA of alanineSmall nuclear RNAs contain a unique 5'-caps. Sm-class snRNAs are found with 5'-trimethylguanosine caps, while Lsm-class snRNAs are found with S'-monomethyl phosphate caps.mRNAs do have a 7-methylguanylate cap, abbreted m7G.tRNAs and rRNAs don't require 5' capping. They have other modifications.
Biochemistry
null
9a5e8865-e37c-41af-a902-1c10423dbdd4
A 10 year old boy following a road traffic accident presents to the casualty with contaminated wound over the left leg. He has received his com- plete primary immunization before preschool age and received a booster of DT at school entry age. All of following can be done except :
Injection of TT
Injection of human antiserum
Broad spectrum antibiotics
Wound debridement and cleaning
1b
multi
null
Microbiology
null
8b42e1df-196b-4d7a-bbd7-39fe76dee239
A male child with Fanconi syndrome with nephrocalcinosis has a variant of dent disease. All are true except :
Hypercalciuria
Proteinuria
Similar presentation in father
Rickets
2c
multi
Dent's disease : Dent's disease, a familial proximal tubular syndrome, is an X-linked recessive disorder of proximal tubules characterized by : Hypercalciuria and nephrocalcinosis and nephrolithiasis. Low-molecular-weight proteinuria. Metabolic bone disease/Rickets. Progressive renal failure. Marked inale predominance. In addition to above features, other renal proximal tubular defect can cause: (i) Fanconi syndrome (Aminoaciduria, proteinuria, phosphaturia). (i) Glycosuria, uricosuria and kalliuresis. (iii) Impaired urinary acidification. Dent's disease occurs due to mutations that inactivate a voltage-gated chloride transporter, CLC-.5. In some cases, it is associated with mutations in the OCRL-1 gene that is also mutated in the oculocerebral syndrome of Lowe. Coming back to question. Dent's disease is an X-linked renal tubular disorder. X-linked disease cannot be transmitted from male to male i.e., from father to son.
Pediatrics
null
46f87e87-5b3e-465d-ae94-bd65b5f333c2
Which of the following is not involved in blood clotting?
Calcium
Prothrombin
Fibrinogen
Fe+2
3d
single
null
Physiology
null
e62b12e5-0a92-44d3-95b0-33bbf59bd891
DNA Methylation is not related with?
Mismatch repair
DNA Replication
Gene silencing
Capping
3d
single
Capping of mRNA in eukaryotes: 7-Methyl Guanosine cap is added at the 5' end of mRNA by enzyme Guanylyl Transferase. So, this is RNA methylation, not DNA. DNA methylation Epigenetic mechanism Transfer of methyl group to C5 position of cytosine to form 5-methyl cytosine. DNA replication Dnmt (DNA methyl transferases) during DNA replication to copy DNA methylation pattern from parental strand to daughter strand Mismatch repair -Identify parent strand with help of CH3
Biochemistry
AIIMS 2020
8a8401da-6bcd-46d5-bf27-72371291311e
Which of the following is not transmitted by lice
Q fever
Trench fever
Relapsing fever
Epidemic typhus
0a
single
null
Dental
null
c70d078e-2a95-4779-b8d5-6050a5b58394
Minimum concentration of oxygen needed in NO analgesia
10%
20%
30%
40%
2c
single
null
Pharmacology
null
991ff4a7-4adc-4136-854d-b6c007d5d1be
Winged rubber dam retainer in endodontics advantages are all except
Radiographs are good showing full length of canals
Stability
Provide extra bucco-lingual retraction
Dam, clamp and frame placed in one operation
0a
multi
null
Dental
null
206f23c8-9973-48b9-9f26-2601d4d61e25
Main cause of RPD failure is:
Improper clasp design
Insufficient contact of teeth
Insufficient contact of teeth and improper clasp design
None of the above
2c
multi
null
Dental
null
93d8bac0-76ae-4440-91c0-fa3b724bbc65
Which of the following will not decrease mother to child transmission of HIV?
Avoid breastfeeding
Vaginal delivery
Zidovudine given to mother antenataly and to neonate after bih
Vitamin A supplementation given to mother
1b
single
Answer- B (Vaginal delievery)Vaginal delivery increases risk of mother to childhood transmission of HIV.'HIV can be transmitted through breast milk, avoiding breast feeding decreases the mother to child transmission of HIV.'
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
4c0b406e-5d78-4f1d-99ca-c51f8d240e4f
A 38 years old female presented to the emergency with extensive burns. The patient had grade 3 burns on the face, back, upper arms and forearms along with singeing of hairs. Which of the following is not a proof of inhalation burns?
Yellow colored sputum
Blackish soot deposit on posterior pa of tongue
Hoarseness & stridor of voice
Singeing of eyebrows and facial hair
0a
single
Ans: A. Yellow colored sputum(Ref Reddy 33/e p325-326: Parikh 6/e p4. /60)Yellow sputum/ phlegm = Mostly a sign of bacterial infection.In burns takes time to develop.Grade 3 burns:Sputum with carbonaceous colored.Singeing of facial hair, burns on face, soot marks & singed eyebrows or facial hair - Indicative of acute burns inhalational injury.Features of inhalation injury:Characteristic:History of fire in an enclosed space.Burns of face.Singed nasal & facial hair.Inflamed pharyngeal mucosa.Carbonaceous sputum.Evidence of edematous glottis (e.g., hoarseness).
Forensic Medicine
null
e0952660-983f-4990-a8c6-d6b6bc19aca3
Which of the following groups of fibres are not attached to alveolar bone?
Transseptal
Horizontal
Oblique
Apical
0a
single
null
Dental
null
74d6497b-16bd-44f8-bba0-a9a139482e77
Wave patterns of EEF, ECG and EMG are depicted below. The B pattern belongs to (Figure was not provided in the exam):
NREM sleep
REM sleep
Wakefulness
Quiet wakefulness
2c
single
Answer- C. WakefulnessBeta (B) Wave- Parietal and frontal region. Patients awake, at rest with eyes open.
Physiology
null
18d1c316-555c-4528-a9c4-e8ce1a613179
18 year old female presents with an ovarian mass, her serum bio marker are found to be normal except for LDH, which is found to be elevated. The most likely diagnosis is:
Dysgerminoma
Endodermal sinus tumor
Malignant terratoma
Mucinous cystadeno carcinoma
0a
multi
NOTE :- * Young girls with - Germ cell tumor Ovarian mass * Old women with - Epithelial serous tumor Ovarian mass Biomarkers Dysgerminoma | LDH, | placental alkaline Po4 Endodermal sinus tumor a feto protein and antitrypsin
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
AIIMS 2017
3b38f235-0a3f-4781-ae19-a7858523b39f
Tuberculous otitis media is characterized by all except -
Multiple perforations
Pale granulations
Pain
Thin odourless fluid
2c
multi
Tubercular Otitis Media Important points: ––Seen mainly in children and young adult Q ––It is secondary to pulmonary tuberculosis. Q ––Route of spread - Mainly through eustachian tube (not blood borne). Q Symptoms: 1. Patients often present with chronic painless otorrhoea (usually foul smelling) which is resistant to antibiotic treatment Q 3. Severe conductive type hearing loss Q. (sometimes due to involvement of labyrinth may be SNHL) 4. Facial nerve palsy may be the presenting symptom in childrenQ 5. Cough; fever and night sweats may be present in patients with tuberculous infection in other organ system. O/E –– Multiple perforationsQ in tympanic membrane (This feature was once considered characteristic of TB but now is seldom seen). –– Middle ear and mastoid are filled with pale granulation tissueQ (It is a characteristic of tuberculous otitis media) Complications: (Early onset of these symptoms is seen) ––Mastoiditis ––Osteomyelitis ––Postauricular fistula ––Facial nerve palsy
ENT
null
4fbc569b-3b88-490f-b1b9-0af7c459eee0
Which of following is not a tumor suppressor gene?
pRb
FHIT
PTCH
c-erbB1
3d
single
null
Pathology
null
f6bb3faa-6ccb-4838-a2d9-1ae2f2d63e7d
Which type of oral candidiasis does not presents with white patch?
Chronic atrophic candidiasis
Chronic hyperplastic candidiasis
Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis
Pseudomembranous candidiasis
0a
single
Ans: A. Chronic atrophic candidiasisChronic erythematous (atrophic) candidiasis appears as a red, raw-looking lesion instead of a white patch seen in all other types.Erythematous (atrophic) candidiasis:Appears as a red, raw-looking lesion.Subtypes of erythematous candidiasis:Denture-related stomatitis, angular stomatitis, median rhomboid glossitis & antibiotic-induced stomatitis.Since they are commonly erythematous/atrophic.Precede pseudomembrane formation,.Left when membrane is removed, or arise de novo.Tongue:Loss of lingual papillae, leaving a smooth area on tongue.Occurs on dorsum of tongue in long-term coicosteroids or antibiotic patient.But occasionally it can occur after only a few days of using a topical antibiotic.This is usually termed 'antibiotic sore mouth/stomatitis' because it is commonly painful as well as red.
Skin
null
fa5def89-71cb-4aba-9c23-af07401b10b0
Which of the following statements is false about apoptosis?
No inflammation
Intact plasma membrane
Swelling of organelles
Affected by dedicated genes
2c
multi
Apoptosis is genetically regulated, hence apoptosis is sometimes referred to as programmed cell death. Plasma membrane remains intact in apoptosis hence there is no leakage of enzymes and inflammation. Apoptosis cause activation of caspase and proteases which cause cells to shrink. Hence organelle swelling is not a feature of apoptosis. Characteristic feature of apoptosis microscopically is chromatin condensation.
Pathology
AIIMS 2018
04adb80a-e020-4328-a871-e403f6d5861f
Which of the following appliances is not used for slow maxillary expansion?
Jack screw
Coffin spring
Quad helix appliance
Hyrax appliance
3d
single
Hyrax appliance  This type of expander uses the Hyrax (hygienic rapid expansion) screw. It has heavy wires that are adapted, welded and soldered to the palatal aspects of the bands in the permanent molars. It is used for Rapid palatal expansion. Examples of slow expansion:  Jack screw Coffin spring Quad helix appliance Textbook of ORTHODONTICS Sridhar Premkumar
Dental
null
e1dcedf1-efe7-42a8-91db-9add25a08681
All are diseases of skin except
Erythema multiforme
Keratosis folticularis
Erythema migrans
Psoriasis form lesion
2c
multi
Option 'C' erythema migrans is other name of ectopic geographic tongue / annulus migrans in which lesions are not always restricted to the tongue, and similar irregular or circinate lesions occurring elsewhere in the oral cavity.
Pathology
null
d8b70d4b-8a90-4739-b18a-33c1d42b9708
A screening test is used in same way in two similar populations, but the proportion of false positive results among those who test positive in population A is lower than among those who test positive in population B. What is the likely explanation for this finding?
The prevalence of disease is higher in population A
The prevalence of disease is lower in population A
The specificity of the test is lower in population A
The specificity of the test is higher in population A
0a
multi
Total population having the disease : ‘a + c’ (TP + FN) Total population not having the disease : ‘b + d’ (FP + TN) Total population: a + b + c + d = TP + FP + FN + TN PPV depends on sensitivity, specificity and prevalence of disease in the population. Now in this question, a screening test is used in same way in two similar populations; thereby the screening test will have similar sensitivity and specificity in both populations. PPV = a/ (a + (b) X 100, thus b (False Positive rate) is inversely proportional to PPV; and PPV is directly proportional to Prevalence of disease in a population. So, False Positive rate (FP rate) is inversely proportional to the prevalence of disease in the population. Therefore, if the same screening test is having lower FP rate in population A (as compared to a similar population B), then this could be explained by higher prevalence of disease in population A Also,
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
7d79778c-de93-4463-b0d4-13ae234adaa8
Denture cleaning tablets include all, EXCEPT
Hydrogen peroxide
Alkaline material
Sodium perborate
Detergent
0a
multi
null
Dental
null
4032c899-2223-435f-a007-c513fd59a065
A child has bilirubin of 4 mg. Conjugated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase are normal, bile salts and bile in urine are absent. However urobilinogen in urine is raised. What is the likely diagnosis –
Obstructive jaundice
Rotor's syndrome
Biliary cholestasis
Hemolytic jaundice
3d
single
Important clues provided in question are - Increased total bilirubin I So, T unconjugated bilirubin Normal conjugated bilirubin Amongst the given options, only hemolytic jaundice causes increased unconjugated bilirubin. Remaining three cause conjugated hyperbilirubinemia.
Pediatrics
null
2ab8b27b-1646-4886-8378-f2f11f84a79e
Which acid does not show coagulation necrosis on contact?
HC1
H,SO4
HF
HNO3
2c
single
Ans: C. HF(Ref Reddy 34/e p493, 33/e p530; Principles of Clinical Toxicology 3/e p220; Forensic Pathology 3/ep241, 110).HF does not show coagulation necrosis on contact.Hydrofluoric acid causes liquefaction necrosis.
Forensic Medicine
null
b0ed6bc7-e3ee-4e1b-abf2-b0fecb47c96c
In a blood sample antiserum A and antiserum B and Rh +ve factor is added. No agglutination is seen. This is:
O group and Rh+ve
O group and Rh-ve
AB group and Rh+ve
AB group and Rh-ve
1b
single
null
Physiology
null
86155521-ea6f-485e-b258-14c51d44578e
A 19-year-old woman presented with primary amenorrhea, sho stature, webbed neck and widely spaced nipples. Examination showed weak pulses in lower extremity and streak ovaries, raised FSH, no oocyte in histology of ovary. Karyotype most likely to be present:KCET 12; JIPMER 12; AIIMS 13; PGI 13
45XO
47XXY
46XY
46XX
0a
single
Ans. 45XOTurner's syndrome is a genetic disease with a karyotype of 45, X or 46, XX/45, X (mosaicism) or other structural abnormalities of X chromosomes.With conventional chromosomal studies, about 50% of Turner syndrome patients show a 45,X pattern.* Mosaicism of 45,X with other cell lines such as 46,XX, 46,XY, or 47,XXX are common.* Structural abnormalities of an X chromosome (deletions, rings, or translocations), either isolated or mosaic with a 45,X or 46,XX cell line, are also seen.* With modern cytogenetic techniques, mosaicism is increasingly being detected.* The sho stature in Turner syndrome appears to be caused by the absence of one copy of the SHOX gene, which is located on the sho arm of the X chromosome.
Forensic Medicine
null
c68dea51-2e4e-4276-89b2-30b2337be400
When a dentist says that " I cannot fix your teeth if you do not open your mouth wide:" He is employing:
Problem ownership.
Voice control
Tolerance.
Flexibility.
0a
single
Problem ownership: Negative messages like 'You must sit still'; undermine the rapport between child and dentist. "You" messages carry the implication that the child is wrong. Instead "I" messages increase the flow of information. Eg: I cannot fix your teeth if you do not open your mouth wide. This is called problem ownership.
Dental
null
78b95ab4-b15f-4942-b618-8b36e946a5d0
A 55-year-old male presents with severe backache for 10 days and urinary incontinence with a H/o Interveebral lumbar disc prolapse. There is no H/o fever or weight loss. What is the likely diagnosis?
Potts spine
Multiple myeloma
Cauda equine syndrome
Bone metastasis
2c
single
Ans: C: Cauda equine syndromeRef: Apley!c system of ohopaedics and fracture 9" ed., pg. 246,480Cauda equina is tuft of fibres which begins at the end of spinal cord.Compression over this pa may cause cauda equina syndrome.Causes of Cauda equina syndrome are:Lumbar disc herniation, Spinal canal stenosis, Trauma, Abscess etc.
Surgery
null
62b9add2-a5e9-451f-92c2-2eee629ee143
A 4 year old child sustained a fracture in central incisor one month ago. On examination, a necrotic pulp was seen with no other pathological findings. The treatment of choice is:
Watchful observation
Extraction followed by space maintainer
Pulpectomy and root canal filling with gutta percha
Endodontic treatment and root canal filling with ZOE
3d
single
A 4 year old child sustained a fracture in central incisor one month ago. On examination, a necrotic pulp was seen with no other pathological findings. The treatment of choice is endodontic treatment and root canal filling with ZOE.
Dental
null
f23569ea-da84-4e74-aa14-69c64f04424d
Which is not true about vibrio cholera
It is non-halophilic
Grows on simple media
Man is the only natural host
Cannot survive in extracellular environment
3d
multi
null
Microbiology
null
ee3171ee-b65b-477b-9a73-ea8316b648aa
All of the following are features of systemic Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis except –
Uveitis
Rash
Fever
Hepatosplenomegaly
0a
multi
The eye manifestation are seen in Pauciarticular and Polyarticular JRA but not in systemic JRA. Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis can be divided in 3 major clinical types
Pediatrics
null
a1bea2c7-217e-4240-a208-541618437eec
Beta 3 glucan assay testing not done for
Invasive candidiasis
Aspergillosis
Pneumocystis carnii
Mucormycosis
3d
single
Beta 3 glucan assay is used to detect the presence of beta 3 glucan in the fungal cell wall. It is used for Invasive candidiasis, Aspergillosis, Pneumocystis cranii but not for Mucormycosis.
Microbiology
AIIMS 2019
870f28d5-6352-429f-a3c0-a881671f6d37
Which of the following is not ture about increased intracraniaL pressure
Headache
Nausea / vomiting
Muscle twitching
Somnolence
2c
single
null
Surgery
null
10b14133-7f8a-43dd-ab66-b0cfd0c784c2
In which stage of neurocysticercosis, there is no edema?
Vesicular
Vesicular colloidal
Granular nodular
Nodular calcified
3d
single
Ans. d. Nodular calcified (Ref Robbins 9/e1)395, SA, 1)392-393)Surrounding edema is seen in the colloidal vesicular and granular nodular stages.StageCyst wallScolexCommentVesicularNon-enhancingWall defined membraneOnly one ble scolexEccentric hyperdense hole-with-dot" appearanceSuggestive of ble larvaColloidalRing Enhancing with perilesional edemaDegenerating scolexFluid becomes more turbidEarliest stage in the cyst involution - larval degenerationGranularFocal nodular enhancing necrotic lesions with perilesional edemaDegenerating scolexEosinophilic structure Bladder and scolex are in various stages of disintegationCalcifiedSmall hyperdense nodules without perilesional edema
Pathology
null
f3f3ad74-951f-4907-913d-f5c6c6c2dd2a
Which of the following is not a pa of the quadruple test for antenatal detection of Down syndrome?
AFP
Estriol
Beta HCG
Inhibin B
3d
single
TRIPLE TEST b Hcg || a feto protein || Estriol || QUADRAPLE TEST BHcg || A feto protein || Estriol || Inhibin A ||
Pathology
AIIMS 2018
eddd8435-1826-40ba-97d9-83a73e23a5f3
The drug not belonging to amide group
Procaine
Xylocaine
Lignocaine
Bupivacaine
0a
single
null
Pharmacology
null
90b7e4be-4395-4305-9f19-8499bc1bff4a
A 20 years old boy presented with persistent cervical lymphadenopathy for the past 1 year. Histopathology of lymph node shows Reed-Sternberg cells with focal nodularity and background of T reactive lymphocytes. The cells were positive for CD20, LCA, EMA and negative for CD15 and CD30 and EBV negative. Diagnosis is:
Nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin's lymphoma
Lymphocyte rich Hodgkin's lymphoma
Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
Small cell lymphoma
0a
multi
Answer- A. Nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin's lymphomaThis tumor contains so-called L&H (lymphocytic and histiocytic) variants, which have a multilobed nucleus resembling a popcorn kernel ("popcorn cell"). Eosinophils and plasma cells are usually scant or absent. In contrast to the Reed-Sternberg cells found in classical forms of HL, L&E variants express B-cell markers typical of germinal-cenler B cells, sach as CD20 and BCL6, and are usually negative for CD15 and CD30.Histological diagnosis is established by presence of Reed-Sterntrerg cells along with background of mixed inflammation consisting of neutrophils, plasma cells, eosinophils & histiocytes.Reed-Sternberg cells are large and are either multinucleated or have a bilobed nucleus (thus resembling an "owl's eye" appearance) with prominent eosinophilic inclusion-like nucleoli.Reed-Sternberg cells are CD30 & CD15 positive, usually negative for CD20 & CD45.Nodular sclerosisMC subtype; usually stage I or ll disease frequent mediastinal involvementMore common in females, most patients young adults
Pathology
null
18c1a5f9-d998-414e-bb9c-991191c10710
A patient with a history of diabetes for one year with no other complications should have an ophthalmic examination?
As early as feasible
After 5 years
After 10 years
Only after visual symptoms level
0a
single
Answer- A i.e. As early as feasibleAll diabetic (IDDM & NIDDM both) aged over 12 years and/or entering pubey should be screened (visual activity measurement and fundus examination by ophthalmoscopy)For retinopathy. and those with risk for visual loss referred to an ophthalmologist.Type I DM (IDDM) require ophthalmoscopic examination within 3 years of diagnosis and annual review. (If lt is diagnosed before the age of pubey).Type II DM (NIDDM) require ophthalmoscopic examination at the time of diagnosis (because it is usually diagnosed after the age of 12 years) and annual review.
Ophthalmology
null
849108f1-8775-44ab-982d-c8907f399efc
A 16-year old girl was brought with primary amenorrhea. Her mother mentioned that she staed developing breast at the age of 12. She was prescribed OCPs 2 years back by a doctor with no effect. She was having normal stature and was a football player. On examination, breasts were well developed (Tanner's stage 5) and pubic hair was minimal (Tanner's stage 1). What is the most probable diagnosis?
Premature ovarian failure
Turner's syndrome
Miillerian agenesis
Androgen insensitivity
3d
multi
Ans: D. Androgen insensitivity(Ref: Shawl 16/e p141, 15/e p111-112; Novaks 14/1037-1038; Dutta Gvnae 6/e p424)Most likely diagnosis here is androgen insensitivity syndrome.Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome:Also referred as "Testicular feminization".An X-linked recessive condition.Results in failure of normal masculinization of external genitalia in chromosomally male individuals.Testes produce normal amounts of mullerian-inhibiting factor (MIF), also known as mullerian-inhibiting substance (MIS) or anti-mullerian hormone/factor (AMH/AMF),Features:Absence of fallopian tubes, a uterus, or proximal (upper) vagina.Identified in newborn period - By presence of inguinal masses & later identified as testes during surgery.Sometimes diagnosed in teenage years during primary amenorrhea evaluation.Absence of pubic & axillary hair in adolescent patients.Scanty body hair & lack of acne.Yet normal breast - Due to testosterone to estradiol conversion.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
a9eb877d-bc11-4923-88b2-97193a8d52eb
Absence of which of the given milestones in a 3 year old child should be called delayed development?
Hopping on one leg
Drawing square
Feeding by spoon
Catching a ball reliably
2c
multi
18 Months Walks up/down stairs with help Throws a ball overhand Jumps in place Builds 3-4 blocks tower Turns 2-3 book pages Scribbles Uses cup and spoon 10+ word vocabulary Identifies common objects Has temper tantrums Understands ownership ("mine") Imitates others 3-4 years old Movements milestones Hops and stands on one foot up to five seconds Goes upstairs and downstairs without suppo Kicks ball forward Throws b all overhand Catches bounced ball most of the time Moves forward and backward with agility Milestones in hand and finger skills Copies square shapes Draws a person with two to four body pas Uses scissors Draws circles and squares Begins to copy some capital letters
Pediatrics
AIIMS 2017
27a7c775-991f-4c8d-8ba3-3783c3bf92db
All of the following drugs require dose reduction in renal failure except?
Amphotericin B
Vancomycin
Gentamicin
Doxycycline
3d
multi
Those drugs which are secreted in bile do not require dose reduction in renal disease. Doxycycline is secreted in bile, so it is safe in renal failure Drugs (commonly asked) safe in renal diseases include: Safe (Cef): Cefoperazone, Ceftriaxone In The: Tigecycline R: Rifampicin E: Erythromycin N: Nafcillin A: Ampicillin L: Lincosamides (Clindamycin) Disease: Doxycycline
Pharmacology
AIIMS 2018
28b7a6ea-c657-4da7-81dc-88457a064655
Which of the following is not used in osteoporosis?
Milnacipran
PTH
Strontium ranelate
Denosumab
0a
single
Ans: A. Milnacipran(Ref. Goodman Gilman 12/e p1299; Katzung 13/e p761-762, 12/e p775; Harrison 19/e p2493, 18/c' p3120; Apley 9/e p /3 I-133)Milnacipran:Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI).Approved for treatment of pain in fibromyalgia, not in osteoporosis.Drugs useful in OsteoporosisInhibit Bone ResorptionStimulates Bone Both actionBisphosphonates: Alendronate, risedronate & etidronateCalcium receptor agonist: CinacalcetCalcitoninSERMs: Tamoxifen, raloxifeneGallium nitrateRANKL inhibitors: DonesumabTeriparatideCalciumCalcitriolFluorideStrontium ranelate
Pharmacology
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