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046ddc6f-759d-4234-b6a8-89ad6017ef3a | Which of the following instrument does not have 4 digits? | GMT | Excavators | Enamel hatchet | None | 2c
| multi | Three-Number Formula
It is used for the instruments in which cutting edge is at right angle to the long axis of the blade.
Eg: Enamel hatchet
Four-Number Formula
It is used for the instruments in which primary cutting edge is not at right angle to long axis of the blade.
Eg: GMT, excavators | Dental | null |
66445905-f680-4952-8f35-71253c0c525d | A child presented at 2 years of age with delayed motor development, mental retardation and finger biting. He was normal at bih. He subsequently develops cerebral palsy ahritis and dies due to renal failure at age of 25 years. What is the likely enzyme deficiency implicated? | Hexosaminidase deficiency | Adenosine deaminase deficiency | HGP deficiency | Ornithine transcarbamoylase deficiency | 2c
| single | Ans: C. HGP deficiency(Ref: Nelson 20/e p746-747)Lesch-Nyhan syndrome:Complete HGP deficiency characterized by hyperuricemia, self-mutilative behavior, choreoathetosis, spasticity & mental retardation.HP gene:Located on X chromosome.Affected males - Hemizygous for mutant gene.Carrier females - Asymptomatic.Paial HP deficiency:Kelley!Seegmiller syndrome associated with hyperuricemia without CNS manifestations.Hyperuricemia - Due to urate overproduction a Causing uric acid crystalluria, nephrolithiasis, obstructive uropathy & gouty ahritis.Early diagnosis and appropriate therapy with allopurinol can prevent or eliminate all the problems attributable to hyperuricemia without affecting behavioral or neurologic abnormalities. | Pediatrics | null |
5c578aa4-a6fd-4de5-b0f6-adb926564122 | Embalming without issuing death ceificate is punishable under section: | IPC 201 | IPC 297 | IPC 299 | IPC 498 | 0a
| single | Answer- A. IPC 201Embalming without issuing death ceiJicate is punishable under section IPC 201.'ln a medico legal case, condueting embalming before autopsy invites liabilities, under section 201 IPC (causing disappearance of evidence of offence, or giving false information to screen offender). | Forensic Medicine | null |
dd6f308c-9900-47f6-b41b-978022bb7700 | A child can walk upstairs one step at a time, can ride cycle but can't jump can also speak sentences, can tell his/her name gender but finds difficult to narrate the story.What is her actual developmental age | 1 yrs | 2 | 3 | 4 | 1b
| multi | Ans. b) 2yearsGROSS MOTOR MILESTONES: AgeMilestone3 monthsNeck holding 5 monthsRolls over6monthsSitting suppoed8monthsSitting without suppo9monthsStands with suppo12monthsStands without suppo, Walks but falls15monthsWalks alone, Creeps upstairs18monthsRuns, explores drawers2 yearsWalks upstairs (baby steps), Jumps3 yearsWalks upstairs (alternate feet), rides tricycle4 yearsHops on one foot, walks downstairs (alternate feet) | Pediatrics | null |
794f0675-d04f-4133-be9c-96d3ba44238e | Which one of the following is not an Indication for antibiotic therapy In patients with acute abscess? | Fever | Deep inaccessible pocket | Horizontal bone loss | Regional lymphadenopathy | 2c
| single | null | Dental | null |
4a073cec-41b0-49ef-aa57-a010c2bfe5d9 | Which of the following sensation is NOT perceived by spinal nucleus of trigeminal nerve | Touch | Pain | Temperature | Proprioception | 3d
| single | Trigeminal nerve nuclei - one Motor nucleus (in pons) two sensory nuclei Motor nucleus: - In pons Controls muscles of mastication (1st pharyngeal arch) Sensory nuclei: 1. Main sensory nucleus: In pons Receives fine touch & vibration senses 2. Mesencephalic sensory nucleus: - In mid brain Receives proprioception from eyeball, mandible & tongue 3. Spinal sensory nucleus: In medulla oblongata & spinal cord Receives pain, temperature, crude touch | Anatomy | AIIMS 2018 |
0fc0b4ce-9bfd-48a2-920d-88c67e2c4e9c | A 26 years old healthy female got pregnant for 1st time and LSCS was done for fetal distress. Mild hypeension was present during pregnancy. Two days after delivery she had headache and seizures but proteinuria was not seen. CT scan shows 2 x 3 cm parasagittal hematoma. Diagnosis is: | Eclampsia | Hypeensive intracranial hemorrhage | Sagittal sinus thrombosis | Pituitary apoplexy | 2c
| single | Answer- C. Sagittal sinus thrombosisVenous sinus thrombosis of the lateral or sagittal sinus or of small coical veins (coical vein thrombosis) occurs as a complication of oral contraceptive use, pregnancy and the postpaum period, inflammatory bowel disease, intracranial infections (meningitis), and dehydration.Patients present with headache and may also have focal neurologic signs (especially paraparesis) and seizures. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null |
2f3d5cee-6729-4e65-b18a-76cf1368c054 | A patient is not responding even after undergoing multiple platelet transfusion. Which of the following will be the best treatment for him? | Random platelet donor | Single platelet donor | HLA matched platelet | Irradiated platelets | 2c
| single | null | Surgery | null |
62e089d3-5425-4349-8edc-3ce132c0bf66 | Which of the following doesn't occur in 5' to 3' direction? | DNA repair | DNA replication | RNA editing | Transcription | 2c
| single | The 5' is upstream; the 3' is downstream. DNA and RNA are synthesized in the 5' to 3' direction In DNA Replication whenever synthesis occurs new nucleotide is added to 3' end In transcription, RNA is getting synthesized in 5' to 3' direction RNA editing It occurs in 3'-5' direction Post transcriptional modification in which differential RNA processing occurs. Also called chemical modification of RNA, in which mostly Cytosine gets conveed to Uracil. DNA Replication ,Proof reading DNA Repair 3'-5' exonuclease activity Mostly endonuclease activity, but sometimes it is 5'-3' exonuclease activity. | Biochemistry | AIIMS 2019 |
251fc405-17b6-4179-9800-1cb17a52a1a1 | About Bacteroids. True are all except | Susceptible to many antibiotics | Present mainly in mixed infections | Most common species is B fragilis | Bile resistant anerobes | 0a
| multi | null | Microbiology | null |
8a5481db-d909-4ff3-9f52-52f004f3c6fb | All of the following are the complications in the new born of a diabetic mother except – | Hyperbilirubinemia | Hyperglycemia | Hypocalcemia | Hypomagnesemia | 1b
| multi | null | Pediatrics | null |
8919343b-cb06-4265-8e82-209b335117b3 | Which of the following malignancy is not caused by Human Papilloma Virus (HPV) infection? | Carcinoma base of tongue | Cervical carcinoma | Tonsillar carcinoma | Nasopharyngeal carcinoma | 3d
| single | Ans: D. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma(Ref Ananthanaravan 10/e p557, 9/e p553)Human infections caused by HPVDiseasesSerotypeSkin was (Plantar wa, common wa, flat wa &Epidermodysplasia verruciformis)1, 2, 43,Papilloma (Laryngeal, Oral)6, 11Condyloma acuminatum (genital wa)6, 11Oral squamous cell carcinoma16, 18Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN)6, 11Carcinoma cervix16, 18, 31, 33, 35, 42-44 Infectious AgentLymphoid MalignancyHIVDiffuse large B cell lymphomadegBurkitt's lymphomadeg | Microbiology | null |
1281d564-b7ac-4129-bf70-e5def93db9a0 | A girl suffering from browning of teeth, wearing of enamel but not cavitatory. OPG shows obliteration of pulp with narrowing of canal & deposition of secondary dentin, she gave the history that out of her 4 brothers, 2 are suffering from the same disease. She is suffering from | Amelogenesis imperfecta | Dentinogenesis imperfecta | Fluorosis | Odontodysplasia | 1b
| single | null | Pathology | null |
cbed1f88-337c-4896-b58b-daa523d9baf0 | A 50-year-old male has fever for the past l-week with abdominal ilistention and loss of appetite. It is not responding to antibiotics and antimatarials. widal test is negative but RK39 dipstick test is positive.Which of the following drugs can be used in the above patient? | Bedaquiline | Linezolid | Fluconazole | Liposomal AmPhotericin B | 3d
| multi | Ans: D. Liposomal AmPhotericin BRef Katzung, I3'h ed, Pg. 901-902RK39 dipstick test is a rapid immunochromatographic test being widely used in the diagnosis of visceral leishmaniasis.Out of the given options Liposomal Amphotericin B is the only drug which is used to treat visceral leishmaniasis. | Pharmacology | null |
0ab83c33-04bd-468e-804e-50dce1bdfa19 | A 55 years old male patient presents with 4 cm x 5 cm lump in right neck. FNAC assessment revealed it to be a squamous cell carcinoma. Clinical assessment of the oral cavity, pharynx, hypopharynx and larynx did not yield any tumor. Whole body PET scan did not show any increased uptake except for the neck mass. A diagnosis of unknown primary was made. According to AJCC system of classification, the TNM status of the tumor would be: | T1N2M0 | TON2aMO | T1N2aMO | TxN2aMx | 3d
| multi | Answer- D (TxN2aMx)Tx: Unknown primary (T status cannot be assessed)N2a: Metastasis in single ipsilateral LN, >3 cm but 56 cm in greatest diinension.Mx: Unknown presence or absence of metastasis | Surgery | null |
b32bfca8-6485-4558-a470-b5cc8c213072 | A patient has an infectious process associated with maxillary right Lateral incisor that tooth is deeply carious and non-restorable. His temperature is 102°F. The patient has not been able to chew for the past 24 hours. The right side of the face is swollen. The patient cannot open his right eye, on palpation the area is soft, painful to touch and tissue rebound when palpated; treatment for the patient should be | Aspiration | Antibiotics of Heat only | Incision and Drainage | Antibiotics, heat and fluid | 0a
| single | null | Surgery | null |
6fc6f438-00bc-4695-8aa8-e6c3f85e75a3 | Which of the following organisms is NOT implicated in the etiology of Periodontal disease | Bacteroides | Wolinella | Neisseria | Eikenella | 2c
| single | null | Dental | null |
c5033993-1bb5-4691-98c5-757d134b572f | Which of the following is not true about the salivary gland output in Sjogren's syndrome? | Increase in sodium concentration | Increase in phosphate concentration | Decreased output of salivary glands <0.5 ml/min | Increase in IgA concentration | 1b
| multi | Ans: B. Increase in phosphate concentration(Ref Harrison 19/e p2166; Oxford Textbook of Rheumatology 4/e p1049, Textbook of Oral & Maxillofacial Surgery (Elsevier)/402)Phosphate concentration of saliva is decreased in Sjogren's syndrome.Sjogren's syndrome:Increased sodium & chloride concentration.Decreased phosphate concentrations.Increased IgA.Decreased salivary flow rate. | Medicine | null |
c50595f4-3310-4c33-840e-2e06dbf4ea50 | A patient complains of sensitivity in a Mandibular premolar. A well condensed class V amalgam restoration was placed in that tooth 5 months ago, with no discomfort for the first 4 months. Since then it has become increasingly sensitive. The problem probably relates to: | Marginal leakage | Fractured restoration | Irreversible pulpal damage | Tooth brush abrasion | 2c
| single | null | Dental | null |
1caa69d3-f51e-4afb-8432-abeb59fe1161 | Hypertonic solution is used in all except | Prolonged bowel surgery | Cardiac type IV shock | Brain injury | Burn | 1b
| multi | null | Surgery | null |
baacab5b-7e28-4b0d-b78e-73253e5c7dde | A young marathon runner is paicipating in a marathon competition. After running for 100 m, he develops at the anteromedial aspect of tibia which was mild to sta with, but increased on fuher running. X ray was normal. The doctor ordered a bonescan. What is the likely diagnosis? | Lisfranc fracture | Jones fracture | Shin splint | Nutcracker fracture | 2c
| single | Shin splints (stress fracture) are seen in runners, army recruits or any vigorous physical activity. STRESS/FATIGUE FRACTUREStress fracture is due to imbalance between load and resistance of bone. It is of 2 types:1. Fatigue Fracture: caused by application of abnormal stress on normal bone.2. Insufficiency Fracture: caused by normal activity on weak bone. Sites of Stress FracturesLower Extremity* March fracture is a stress fatigue fracture of second metatarsal neck > 3rd metatarsal neck.* The most common site is metatarsal neck followed by tibia (proximal third in children, middle third in athlete and lower third in elderly).* Tibia stress fracture = Shin splints* Femoral neck (inferomedial compression side in young and superior tension side in older patients).* Rarely fibula lower end (runners fracture). Upper Extremity* Olecranon is most common site of upper limb stress fractures. Pelvis and SpinePars inter aicularis of 5th lumbar veebral (causing spondylolysis) is commonest in spine. Clinical Presentation* Load related pain often bilateral* The hallmark physical finding is tenderness with palpation and stress. InvestigationMRI provide excellent sensitivity and superior specificity compared to bone scan in differentiating from infections or tumors.Bone scan is preferable for bilateral cases due to feasibility, also bilateral cases go in our of stress fracture as compared to Infection or tumor and also can scan the whole body.* Treatment is symptomatic with cast and cessation of activity. | Orthopaedics | AIIMS 2019 |
0f49668c-7988-48a6-ba11-ad49aa561259 | A man presents it n rashes on face and also complains of decreased mental function. He is also having few macular lesions on his skin. On CT scan, intracranial calcification was seen. His wife is normal. His 10-year old daughter is also normal but his 6-year old son is also having similar skin lesions. What would be the most likely diagnosis? | Neurofibrornatosis-1 | Neurofibromatosis-2 | Xeroderma pigmentosum | Autosomal dominant inheritance | 3d
| single | Answer- D. Autosomal dominant inheritanceClinical findings like rashes on face, decreased mental function with macular lesions on the skin and intracranial calcification on CT scan is highly suggestive of tuberous sclerosis, which has an autosomal dominant condition. | Skin | null |
6c1d34b8-cd40-4ca9-8d17-c64a1fde6a83 | Not a feature of infective endocarditis: | Myocardial abscess. | Vegetation along cusps. | Thrombus in left atria. | Perforation of cusp. | 2c
| single | null | Medicine | null |
42924e5a-723d-478f-ab78-a46ec8e8041b | A pregnant lady with persistent late, variable deceleration with cervical dilatation of 6 cm shifted to OT for surgery. Which of the following is not done in Mmn: | Supine position | O2 inhalation | I.V. fluid | Subcutaneous terbutaline | 0a
| single | “Deceleration is defined as a decrease in fetal heart rate below the base line of 15 beats per minute or more.”
Variable deceleration is seen in case of cord-compression/prolapse. In case of cord-compression/prolapse patient should not be allowed to rest in supine position as it will lead to more pressure on the cord. In cord prolapse the patient is allowed to rest in exaggerated elevated Sims position with a pillow under the hip.
Management of Non-reassuring fetal status (Fetal Distress)
Lateral positioning avoids compression of vena cava and aorta by the gravid uterus. This increases cardiac output and uteroplacental perfusion.
Oxygen is administered to the mother with mask to improve fetal SaO2.
Correction of dehydration by IV fluids (crystalloids) improves intravascular volume and uterine perfusion.
Correction of maternal hypotension (following epidural analgesia) with immediate infusion of 1 litre of Crystalloid (Ringer’s solution).
Stoppage of oxytocin to improve fetal oxygenation. Fetal hypoxia may be due to strong and sustained uterine contractions. With reassuring FHR and in absence of fetal acidemia, oxytocin may be restarted.
Tocolytic (Injection terbutaline 0.25 mg S.C.) is given when uterus is hypertonic and there is nonreassuring FHR.
Amnioinfusion is the process to increase the intrauterine fluid volume with warm normal saline (500 ml). Indications are:
– Oligohydramnios and cord compression
– To dilute or to wash out meconium
– To improve variable or prolonged decelerations.
Advantages : Reduces cord compression, meconium aspiration, and improves Apgar score. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null |
5cd996c6-190d-41cf-b6e4-bc1a2846b8e5 | Absent thumb, radial deviation of wrist, bowing of forearm with thrombocytopenia which investigation need not to be done ? | Echocardiography | Bone marrow examination | Platelet count | Karyotyping | 0a
| single | Characteristic features such as absent thumb and thrombocytopenia suggests Fanconis anemia.
FEATURES OFFANCONISANEMIA
Skin pigment change --> Darkened areas of the skin, cafe-au-lait spots, vitiligo
Upper limb --> Absent or hypoplastic thumb, absent or hypoplastic radii, dysplastic ulnae, clinodactyly
Gonads —> Abnormal or atrophic testis
Head and face -p Microcephaly, sprengels deformity, spina bifida
Kidneys —+ Ectopic or pelvic, horseshoe, hypoplastic or dysplastic
Abnormal eyes/eyelid
Hematological abnormalities
Pancytopenia+ thrombocytopenia and neutropenia these are the most common and most serious symptoms of
Fanconis anemia.
one marrow failure ---> Its a major complication of Fanconis anemia
Acute myeloid leukemia ---> Fanconis anemia have elevated risks of developing acute myeloid leukemia.
Myelodysplastic syndromes —> Increased risk of myelodysplastic syndrome in Fanconis anemia.
Common tests for Fanconis anemia include :
Complete blood count (CBC) o Bone marrow biopsy o Chromosomal breakage analysis
HLA tissue typing o Hearing test o Hand X-ray and other imaging studies
Developmental test o Ultrasound of the kidneys
Amniocentesis or chorionic vinous crimpling | Pediatrics | null |
57320c34-592b-45bb-91ff-bc7fc682b88c | Placenta grade 3, 35+3 weeks pregnancy, and absent end diastolic flow Doppler; next ,management is:- | Dexamethasone and terminate after 48 hours | Terminate after 37 weeks | Talk with pediatrician and termination | Monitor | 2c
| single | * Absent end diastolic flow : fetal compromise ( hence terminate pregnancy by caesarean section if > 34 weeks)* Reverse end diastolic flow : impending doom of death ( terminate pregnancy irrespective of gestational age)* Steroids are given if pregnancy < 34 weeks | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | AIIMS 2018 |
3e736802-2e0b-405c-b429-eac535efb755 | Anti D is required in all cases except | Aboion at 63 days | Manual removal of placenta | Amniocentesis of 16 Weeks | Intrauterine transfusion at 28 weeks | 3d
| multi | Anti D prophylaxis administered in : Invasive prenatal diagnosis - eg, amniocentesis, chronic villus biopsy Antepaum hemorrhage External cephalic version of the fetus Ectopic pregnancy Evacuation of molar pregnancy Intrauterine death and stillbih Intrauterine procedures (inseion of shunts, embryo reduction) Therapeutic termination of pregnancy Delivery - Normal, instrumental or caesarean section | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | AIIMS 2019 |
ea496b07-bc2b-4d34-a2ca-5d16c07ad2bc | CSF leakage is diagnosed by all except | Tram Line | β 2- transferrin level | increase in glucose | increase in proteins | 2c
| multi | null | Surgery | null |
ecdd79d8-53c3-4d56-ad8f-695b9122d0e4 | Lead cause following except | Uroporphyrinuria | Sideroblastic anemia | Basophilic stippling | Macrocytic anemia | 3d
| multi | null | Medicine | null |
1caf6e69-ee58-47fd-8e04-6f736055365c | All are true about trauma from occlusion except | Trauma to Marginalized gingiva | Reversible | Reduction in height of alveolar crest | No pocket | 0a
| multi | null | Dental | null |
8e2f6880-49c5-47aa-871e-00ae485e9ca9 | Tissue conditioners are not used for long as they | Harden in mouth | Are expensive | Are difficult to fabricate | Cause ridge resorption | 0a
| single | null | Dental | null |
e192d2c5-03ce-4e51-a043-89a27a3144ce | Type I collagen is present in all EXCEPT | Ligament | Aponeurosis | Bone | Cailage | 3d
| multi | COLLAGEN TYPE DISTRIBUTION Type 1 Tendons, ligament, fascia, bones, aponeurosis, derives, meninges (90% of total collagen), seen in old scars They form the fibrous basics of bones & fibrocailage Type 2 Hyaline & elastic cailage, vitreous body Type 3 Reticular fibers of skin, ligaments, blood vessels & internal organs, healing Type 4 Basement membrane, lens, capsule PATHOLOGIES: Collagenopathies Type I: Osteogenesis imperfecta Type IV: Alpo syndrome | Anatomy | AIIMS 2018 |
60a30040-3784-41dc-b81d-be50cde12679 | After planning an implant in lower molar region, patient complains of inability to chew by other teeth on same side. What should be your first step in treating this patient | Reduce the centric fossa | Reduce the supporting cusp | Check the occlusion in centric | None | 2c
| multi | It’s a universal rule: To remove any occlusal prematurity, 1st step is to check the occlusion in centric. | Dental | null |
e448b7f6-af8c-4683-8b76-ec282a126797 | A 10–month old baby previously normal, suddenly becomes distressed in his crib. The external appearance of genitalia was normal, except hyperpigmentation. lood glucose showed a level of 30 mg%. What is the most probable diagnosis ? | 21 hydroxylase deficiency | Hyperinsulinism | Familial glucocorticoid deficiency | Cushing's syndrome | 2c
| multi | Familial glucocorticoid deficiency :
Familial glucocorticoid deficiency is a rare autosomal recessive condition.
It is characterized by adrenal insufficiency.
The pathological examination of the adrenal gland reveals that :-
Zona glomerulosa ---> well preserved.
Zona fasciculata ---> atrophied.
Zona reticularis ---> atrophied.
This causes low cortisol concentration because the zona fasciculata is primarily responsible for glucocorticoid production.
Because the zona glomerulosa is well preserved mineralocorticoid action is usually unaffected.
Low circulating serum cortisol results in lack of feedback inhibition to the hypothalamus which results in increased ACTH secretion from pituitary.
Clinical features :
Patients with familial glucocorticoid deficiency generally presents with signs and symptoms of adrenal insufficiency with the important distinction that mineralocorticoid production is always normal.
The most common initial presenting sign is deep hyperpigmentation of the skin, mucous membrane or both as a result of the action of adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) on cutaneous melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH) receptors.
The symptoms are compatible with glucocorticoid deficiency. Many patients presents with recurrent hypoglycemia or severe infections.
In the neonatal period, frequent presenting signs include - feeding problems, failure to thrive, regurgitation and hypoglycemia manifesting as seizures. | Pediatrics | null |
8729556c-a513-42d6-abc1-ed7f6c9ca397 | A man comes with history of abnormal excessive blinking and grunting. He says he has no control over his symptoms, which have risen in frequency of late. This has staed affecting his social life making him depressed. Which of the following medications should be used in him? | Risperidone | Imipramine | Carbamazepine | Methylphenidate | 0a
| single | Ans: A. Risperidone(Ref Kaplan and Sadock 11/e p1091; Niraj Ahuja 7/e p168).* This case suggests motor & vocal tics associated with Tourette's disorder.Treatment:* Pharmacotherapy - treatment of choice - Antipsychotics (haloperidol & resperidone). - DOC - Haloperidol.Other useful drugs:* Resperidone, Olanzapine, Aripiprazole.* SSRIs - Fluoxetine for co-morbid obsessive-compulsive symptoms.* Methylphenidate & Imipramine - Used in ADHD child.* Adjunct - Behavior therapy. | Psychiatry | null |
fea90807-a035-4903-b7ab-078ba7cd2023 | Complete the missing step in the flow cha shown below: | Intubate, spO2, ECG monitor | CPAP and ECG monitor | PPV, spO2 and ECG monitor | spO2 and ECG monitor only | 2c
| multi | PPV, spO2 and ECG monitor | Pediatrics | AIIMS 2019 |
77bc7a7f-2138-438d-a372-089c4f806090 | In which of the following microvilli are not present? | Gallbladder | Duodenum | Collecting duct | Proximal convoluted tubule | 2c
| multi | Ans: C. Collecting duct Microvilli - Finger-like cell surface extensions.Usually 0.1 mm in diameter & up to 2 mm long.Absorptive surfaces of epithelial enterocytes of small intestine - Arranged in regular parallel series & constitute striated border.In gallbladder epithelium & proximal kidney tubules - Are less regular constitute "brush border". | Anatomy | null |
ad724a47-320a-4b79-81d9-8bea8da0f4a5 | Without supervision, allowed to give dentures | Denturist | Hygienist | School Dental nurse | Dental therapist | 0a
| multi | null | Dental | null |
636a3c09-3bda-40dd-bf94-c497bd39d8f6 | Which one of the following drugs are not used in hea failure? | Metoprolol | Nesiritide | Trimetazidine | Sacubitril | 2c
| single | Ans. C.Trimetazidine* Trimetazidine is not used in hea failure.* Trimetazidine is a newer antianginal drug that is a pFOX inhibitor which paially inhibits the fatty acid oxidation pathway in the myocardium. This decreases the oxygen requirement of the hea. | Pharmacology | null |
7ee5bbf7-1b68-4ac0-943d-c4486ba7892f | All of the following conditions are true regarding false positive results on EPT testing except? | Immature apex | Improper Isolation | Partial Pulpal Necrosis | Anxiety | 0a
| multi | null | Dental | null |
666e12f6-d2f8-4ba5-97ff-1078dc287def | A nurse got accidental prick from the HIV infected needle. Which of the following statements is false regarding the management of this nurse? | Zidovudine is used as monotherapy for post-exposure prophylaxis | Washing hands with soap and water is advised | Baseline viral markers of health care personnel should be done at the time of presentation | Follow up viral markers of health care personnel should be measured at 6 weeks | 0a
| multi | Post exposure prophylaxisTreatment should be staed within 72 hours of exposure, preferably as early as possible At first the wound is washed with soap and water. Secondly before initiating drug therapy blood samples are taken to measure the baseline viral markers Then three drug therapy is given for 28 days. The drugs include 2 NI PLUS a protease inhibitor (or alternative drug). Commonly used therapy include Tenofovir + Lamivudine + Atazanavir/r After 6 weeks again viral markers are measured to check for the infection. Post-exposure prophylaxis of HIV infection For adults and adolescents Preferred 2 NI: Tenofovir (300 mg) + Emtricitabine (200 mg) daily Preferred PI: Lopinavir/r (400 + 100 mg) or Atazanavir/r (300 + 100 mg) daily Alternative 3rd drug: Darunavir/r (600 + 100 mg BD) or Raltegravir/r (400 mg BD) or Eirenz (600 mg daily) For children <= 10 years Preferred 2 NI: Zidovudine + Lamivudine Alternative 3rd drug: Atazanavir/r or Darunavir/r or Eirenz or Raltegravir Preferred PI: Lopinavir Alternative 3rd drug: Atazanavir/r or Darunavir/r or Eirenz or Raltegravir Duration of regimen: 4 weeks | Pharmacology | AIIMS 2019 |
7aa9be4f-bb90-4284-8816-b7360a1a444b | All of the following increases calcium absorption from the gut except | Phytates | Vitamin D | Alkaline pH in the gut | Protein in diet | 2c
| multi | Ans: C. Alkaline pH in gut Factors increasing Calcium AbsorptionFactors decreasing Calcium AbsorptionVitamin DdegParathormonedegAcidic pHdegLactosedegAmino acidsdeg (protein rich diet)OxalatesdegPhytatesdegAlkaline pHdegHigh phosphatedegHigh Mg2+CaffeinesdegDietary fibersdeg | Physiology | null |
5bcec4d3-777e-4593-b9a0-fa97999f8481 | A screening test is used in the same way in two similar populations but the proportion of false positive results in population A is lower than that in population B. what is the likely explanation? | The specificity of the test is lower in population A | The prevalence of the disease is lower in population A | The prevalence of the disease is higher in population A | The specificity of test is higher in population A | 2c
| multi | null | Dental | null |
7f6a2842-7816-4a42-821c-d6e066a36fb4 | If untreated, percentage of mother to child transmission of HIV during delivery without intervention in a non-breast fed child is: | 40-50% | 10-15% | 15-30% | 5% | 2c
| single | Answer- C. 15-30%'In the absence of any intervention, an estimated 15-30% of mothers with HIY infection will transmit the infection duringprcgnsncy and delivery. and 10-20% will transmit the infection, through breast feeding. Veical transmission of IIIV-Loccurs mostly during the intrapaum period (50-70%).'- COGDT l0/e p692 | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null |
ce4876e4-6a17-465e-a1c4-6353dad02e85 | A 12 years old boy came with complaints of 4 hypopigmented patches on back and on left arm. The patches had loss of sensation. Which of the following is the treatment for this case? | Rifampicin (450 mg) + Dapsone (50 mg) + Clofazimine (150 mg) monthly and 50 mg daily | Rifampicin (600 mg) + Dapsone (150 mg) only | Rifampicin (450 mg) + Dapsone (50 mg) + Clofazimine (150 mg) monthly and 50 mg alternate days | Rifampicin (600 mg) + Dapsone (150 mg) + Clofazimine (300 mg) monthly and 50 mg daily | 2c
| single | Answer- C. Rifampicin (450 mg) + Dapsone (50 mg) + Clofazimine (150 mg) monthly and 50 mg alternate daysThe clinical history fits the patient into multibacillary leprosy and requires extensive multidrug therapy for 12 months.Since the patient is aged 12 years, doses are Rifompicin (450 mg) * Dapsone (50 mg) + Clofazimine (150 mg) monthly and 50 mg alternate days. | Skin | null |
2066f9f0-3eb8-4f40-8ca3-39406b885674 | Lateral pharyngeal space is not connected directly by: | Buccal space | Sublingual space | Submandibular space | Retropharyngeal space | 0a
| single | null | Surgery | null |
8e7413da-351b-468d-8168-961cd50bda0a | A patient presented with intermittent fever, no weight loss, no anorexia, but with a retroperitoneal mass. Peripheral smear findings were normal. Gross & microscopy of the mass is given. What's the diagnosis? | NHL | Castleman disease | Angiolymphoid hyperplasia | Ig G4 disease | 1b
| single | Onion skin appearance of lymph node is characteristic for Castleman disease It is alympho proliferative disorder. It has 2 variants: Unicentric Has 2 variants: 1)Highly vasculara More common , patients are asymptomatic Histology: -Twinning- Presence of two germinal centers -Onion skin pattern-Lymphocytes causes thickening of mantle zone -Lollipop lesions- Sclerosed blood vessel that infiltrate lymph node germinal center Multicentric ?Associated with immune suppression ?Presents as : Hepatomegaly Splenomegaly Night sweats Fever 2)Plasma cell varianta Less common, patients are symptomatic: - Weight loss -Night sweats -Fever Histology: Plasma cells in interfollicular areas causing hyperplasia of germinal center Lymph node architecture is distoed but LN is preserved in unicentric variant | Pathology | AIIMS 2018 |
b0551251-13ff-4dba-b185-e8b5c850d656 | Which among the following is not true about ankylosing spondylitis? | Enthesis is the primary site of pathology | More common in Females | TNF plays an impoant role in the pathogenesis of ankylosing spondylitis | Sacroiliitis is the earliest manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis | 1b
| multi | Ans.B. More common in FemalesAnkylosing spondylitis is more common in males.(M:F is between 2:1 to 3:1).There is preferential involvement of entheses ( Site of attachment of ligament or tendon to the bone).TNF a plays a major role in immunopathogenesis.Sacroiliitis is often the first manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis. Synovitis, pannus, subchondral granulation tissue and marrow edema, enthesitis and chondroid differentiation are also found. | Surgery | null |
d0b07125-fc73-4874-9663-29e54ed5413a | Regarding ASO titre all are seen except – | ASO can be increased in school children | May be negative in post streptococcal glomerulonephritis | ASO titre included in major criteria in jones criteria | May not be elevated in 20% cases of carditis | 2c
| multi | Evidence of antecedent group 'A' streptococcal infection
Positive throat cultures or rapid streptococcal antigen tests for group A streptococcoci are less reliable for antecedent infection capable of producing rheumatic fever because they do not distinguish between recent infection and chronic pharyngeal carriage (as many people are carrier of this bacteria).
Antibody tests are the most reliable laboratory evidence of antecedent streptococcal infection capable of producing g acute rheumatic fever. The onset of clinical manifestations of acute rheumatic fever coincides with the peak of the streptococcal antibody response.
The antibodies used commonly for serological tests are antistreptolysin 0 (ASO), antideoxyribonuclease (Anti-DNAse) and antihyaluronidase.
ASO titre is well standardized and therefore is most widely used test. It has following features.
Elevated in 80% of patients with acute rheumatic fever (So, 20% patients do not show elevated titre) Sensitivity is 80%.
It is elevated in 20% of normal individuals perticularly in healthy school children of elementary school age (20% false positive).
ASO titers of at least 333 Todd units in children and 250 Todd units in adults are considered elevated.
It is included in minor criteria of jones criteria (not in major criteria).
Anti DNAse B titers of 240 Todd units or greater in children and 1200 Todd units or greater in adults are considered elevated.
If three antibody tests (ASO, anti-DNAse and anti-hyaluronidase) are used simultaneously, a titer for at least one antibody test is elevated in 95% of cases —> Sensitivity of combined three antibody tests is 95%.
The streptozyme test is a simple slide agglutination test for extra-cellular streptococcal antigen absorbed to red blood cells (passive hemagglutination) test. It is almost 100% sensitive but specificity is very low and it is less standardized and less reproducible than the other antibody tests. Therefore, it should not be used as a diagnostic test for evidence of antecedent group A streptococcal infection.
About option 'b'
ASO titre may not be elevated in PSGN if PSGN develops secondary to skin infection. | Pediatrics | null |
a43a0fc3-9d61-45a2-8ebd-f90bb31af019 | Which of the following is not the branch of external carotid aery in Kiesselbach's plexus? | Anterior Ethmoidal aery | Sphenopalatine aery | Greater palatine aery | Septal branch of superior labial aery | 0a
| single | NASAL SEPTUM Internal Carotid System 1. Anterior ethmoidal aery 2. Posterior ethmoidal aery External Carotid System Branches of ophthalmic aery 1. Sphenopalatine aery (branch of maxillary aery) gives Nasopalatine and posterior medial nasal branches. 2. Septal branch of greater palatine aery (branch of maxillary aery). 3. Septal branch of superior labial aery (branch of facial aery). LATERAL WALL Internal carotid System 1. Anterior ethmoidal 2. Posterior ethmoidal External Carotid System Branches of ophthalmic aery 1. Posterior lateral nasal branches 2. Greater palatine aery 3. Nasal branch of anterior superior dental 4. Branches of facial aery To nasal vestibule From sphenopalatine aery From maxillary aery From infraorbital branch of maxillary aery | ENT | AIIMS 2017 |
ebd1b3d6-5161-432c-86a2-532c2ce66765 | Regarding Japanese encephalitis vaccine, what is not true? | Not given for infants less than 6 months | Two primary doses given to children in the one to three year age group | Booster doses are given after I year and repeated every 3 years | In endemic areas vaccination is given to cover children between one to nine years age group. | 3d
| multi | Ans: D. In endemic areas vaccination is given to cover children between one to nine years age group.(Ref Park 24/e p303, p261; Indian Journal of Pediatrics,. Vol. 51, October 15, 2015 p785).Japanese Encephalitis Vaccine:In endemic areas, vaccine is given to cover children between 1-15 years (Not 1 to 9 yrs).2 primary doses 4 weeks apa, booster after 1 year and 3 years until the age of 10-15 years.Booster after 1 year and then repeated every 3 years.Minimum age: According to US-FDA-2 months. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null |
08b59e2f-a96d-4e2a-b21b-b5292982e74a | Role of Negative reinforcement: | Makes negative to positive | Makes positive to negative | Makes negative to more negative | None of the above | 2c
| multi | Negative reinforcer is withdrawal of thing which increases the frequency of positive behavior. It makes negative to positive.
Negative reinforcement makes negative to more negative, means if the patient shows tamper tantrum, you send the patient back without treatment, this will be negative reinforcement for him to escape from situation. | Dental | null |
1740412a-70a5-4b66-9bc0-dc70e03c4c27 | All are features of reversible cell injury EXCEPT | ER swelling | Dens deposition of mitochondria | Bleb | Detachment of ribosome | 1b
| multi | Answer- B. DENS DEPOSITION OF MITOCHONDRIAThe ultrastructural changes (seen on electron microscopy) are:-Plasma membrane alterations - Blebbing blunting loss of microvilli.Mitochondrial changes - Swelling, small amorphous densities.Dilatation of ER and detachment of ribosomeNuclear alterations | Pathology | null |
f90b63af-1880-4eee-9405-bb1ef156af1e | All of the following are true about the given instrument except | Can be done in prone or lateral position | To find out infiltrative and granulomatous disorders | Breath holding not necessary | Platelet count of 40000 is a contraindication | 3d
| multi | Given instrument is Bone marrow biopsy needle Bone marrow biopsy can be done in prone or lateral position. Most common site is posterior iliac crest. In obese person, preferred site is anterior superior iliac spine In newly born, preferred site is superficial bone i.e. tibia. To find out infiltrative and granulomatous disorders. Breath holding is not necessary in bone marrow biopsy. During biopsy of other organs like liver , breath holding is necessary. During any bleeding disorder, RBC or WBC disorder or hypo activity of bone marrow, bone marrow biopsy is done . Even in severe thrombocytopenia , Bone marrow biopsy is done. | Pathology | AIIMS 2019 |
e4281c68-9e8b-4802-9c1d-edf0de6c7195 | Which diseases are infectious but not communicable? | Measles | Mumps | Scarlet fever | Tetanus | 3d
| single | null | Pathology | null |
395a115c-ac63-49db-8cca-eaef6396794a | A 20-year-old male presents with hard painless testicular swellingon investigation AFP is 3080. No paraaoic or iliac nodes as well as no mediastinal lymph nodes found. usG shows uniform echotexture and small areas of necrosis surrounding structures are normal.What is the next best steP: | FNAC | Trucut bioPsY | High inguinal orchidectomy | PET-CT | 2c
| multi | Ans. C. High inguinal orchidectomyRe.f: Sabiston textbook of surgery,2AI' ed., ch-72, pg. 2102-2104Initial treatment of suspected testicular tumour is radical inguinal orchiectomy, which involves removal of the testicle and sperrnatic cord at the level of the inguinal ring.Because of the characteristic and well-described lymph drainage of the testicle there is no role or trans-scrotal biopsy or orchiectomy. | Surgery | null |
00b083b3-b213-4b45-bbc4-301c4156576c | Which of the following is not true about latent phase of labour? | According to ACOG it stas after 3-4 cm cervical dilatation but they are planning to increase it to 5 cm | Begins at the end of active phase and is a pa of 1st stage of labour | Patient may present with false labour due to mild cramps | Stas with contractions of the uterus | 2c
| multi | Answer- C. Patient may present with false labour due to mild crampsIt stas at the point at which mother perceives true labour pains and ends when cervix is 3cm dilated and 1.5 cm/hour for parous cervix.Duration in nulliparous is 6-8 hours and 5.3 hours in multiparous (average 4-6 hours).Mainly concerned with cervical effacement | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null |
1cb974a5-a714-4590-8ba8-9989c6620e23 | Tongue develops from all of the following except | Tuberculum impar | Hypobranchial eminence | Lingual swellings | Arytenoid swellings | 3d
| multi | null | Anatomy | null |
bcc3680a-8167-4c75-ba0c-b7c94cb440b6 | All of the following are done to remove Confounding except | Randomization | Random Selection | Matching | Blinding | 1b
| multi | Confounding factor - related to both the exposure and the outcome It leads to mistaken outcomes in the study, which leads to error in the study. Endemic Goitre is usually found in high altitudes, showing thereby an association between the two. However, we know that the goiter is not because of altitude but because of environmental deficiency of Iodine. Methods used to control confounding: Methods used to control confounding: METHOD UTILITY IN CONTROLLING CONFOUNDING 1. Randomization Most ideal method 2. Restriction Limiting study to people who have paicular characteristics 3. Matching Mostly useful in case control studies 4. Stratification Useful for larger studies 5. Statistical Modeling When many confounding variables exist simultaneously 6. Blinding Bias is also a type of confounding | Social & Preventive Medicine | AIIMS 2019 |
da529e73-61fe-4b52-81b1-8686b6a62ffd | A patient is taking drugs for rheumatoid ahritis and has a history of cataract surgery 1 year back, the patient presented with sudden painless loss of vision, probable diagnosis is? | CME | Macularhole | Chloroquine toxicity | Chronic choroiditis | 2c
| single | Patient of rheumatoid ahritis are given hydroxychloroquine which cause painless loss of vision due to bull's eye maculopathy characterized by a foveolar island of pigment surrounded by a depigmented zone of RPE atrophy, which is itself encircled by a hyperpigmented ring (A). There is moderate to severe reduction in VA (6/36-6/60). A more substantial macular lesion follows, with widespread RPE atrophy surrounding the fovea (B). Later retinal aerioles may become attenuated, and pigment clumps can form in the peripheral retina.(C) | Ophthalmology | AIIMS 2018 |
4e9c6e74-1604-4599-91c2-02d22adcb765 | Hormone Replacement therapy is not indicated in: | Hot flashes | Prevention of CAD | Osteoporosis | Vaginal atrophy | 1b
| single | H indicated in menopausal women to overcome the sho term and long term consequences of estrogen deficiency. Indications of hormone replacement therapy in a menopausal woman Relief of vasomotor symptoms: hot flushes Prevention and treatment of osteoporosis Urogenital atrophy Premature Menopause Hormone Replacement Therapy is NOT indicated for prevention or treatment of cardiovascular disease. Natural estrogens produced in the body till menopause are cardioprotective, however Hormone Replacement Therapy (containing exogenous estrogens and progesterones)is not cardioprotective, n fact it is detrimental to hea when used for long term. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | AIIMS 2019 |
822d5c68-39fe-40e8-97ef-f50d7af91ebb | A neonate develops encephalitis without any skin lesions. Most probable causative organisms is – | HSV I | HSV II | Meningococci | Streptococci | 1b
| single | Herpes simplex viruses
Herpes simplex is an important cause of encephalitis in the neonate, the infection acquired during delivery from the vaginal tract.
But it cause vesicular, ulcerative skin lesions
Even though it causes skin lesions, its our best option, as Nelson writes -
" The hallmark of neonatal HSV infection- the vescicular ulcerative skin lesions are presnt in only 30 to 43% of children at presentation; one third will never manifest skin lesions."
Out of the.two types of Herpes; Neonatal herpes is mainly caused by type II IISV (75 to 80%).
About other options
Meningpcocci
Its a rare cause of infection in neonates as neonates have antibodies (from mother) against meningiococcus which protects them for the initial 3 to 6 months of life.
Streptococci
Though streptococcus B is a common infection of neonates, it does not cause encephalitis.
RAIN TUMORS
You will frequently read the terms --> Infratentorial, supratentorial, Posterior cronial fossa in relation of Brain tumours, so I am giving very brief introduction
Supratentorial region of the brain is located above the tentorium cerebelli; and contains the cerebrum.
The infratentorial region of the brain is located below the tentorium cerebelli and contains the cerebellum and brainstem.
Brain stem and cerebellum are contained in the posterior cranial fossil.
As brain stem and cerebellum are infratentorial in location and contained in posterior cranial fossa -› Their tumors are infratentorial posterior fossa tumors, e.g., cerebellar astrocytoma, brainstem glioma, medulloblastoma (cerebeller). | Pediatrics | null |
ba4a3d15-f1cf-4072-b836-ecf2785657e3 | Which does not cross placenta: | Heparin | Morphine | Naloxone | Warfarin | 0a
| single | Heparin does not cross placenta and is safe during pregnancy.
It is the drug of choice for the management and prophylaxis of venous thromboembolism during pregnancy. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null |
9698b531-5c6a-41f5-ad09-9eaa05779681 | A patient presented with intermittent fever, no weight loss, no anorexia, but with a retroperitoneal mass. Peripheral smear findings were normal. Microscopy of the mass is given. What's the diagnosis? | NHL | Castleman disease | Angiolymphoid hyperplasia | Ig G4 disease | 1b
| single | Onion skin appearance of lymph node is characteristic for Castleman disease It is alympho proliferative disorder. It has 2 variants: Unicentric Has 2 variants: 1)Highly vasculara More common , patients are asymptomatic Histology: -Twinning- Presence of two germinal centers -Onion skin pattern-Lymphocytes causes thickening of mantle zone -Lollipop lesions- Sclerosed blood vessel that infiltrate lymph node germinal center Multicentric ?Associated with immune suppression ?Presents as : Hepatomegaly Splenomegaly Night sweats Fever 2)Plasma cell varianta Less common, patients are symptomatic: - Weight loss -Night sweats -Fever Histology: Plasma cells in interfollicular areas causing hyperplasia of germinal center Lymph node architecture is distoed but LN is preserved in unicentric variant | Pathology | AIIMS 2018 |
d5d4cd74-e0f0-4e39-bc84-cc7551c627bd | A patient with tubercular meningitis was taking ATT regularly. At end of 1 month of regular intake of drugs deterioration in sensorium is noted in condition of the patient. Which of the following investions is not required on emergency evaluation ?. | MRI | NCCT | CSF examination | Liver function tests | 3d
| single | Ans. D (Ref Harrison 19/e pi 111, ThIe p3414)When bacterial meningitis is suspected, blood cultures should be immediately obtained and empirical antimicrobial and adjunctive dexamethasone therapy initiated without delay.The diagnosis of bacterial meningitis is made by examination of the CSF. The need to obtain neuroimaging studies (CT or MRI) prior to LP requires clinical judgment. | Medicine | null |
5029ecd7-0f3f-495a-b662-b45589a2f9d7 | A baby is born with meconium stained liquor which of the following is taken account of in terming a baby vigorous except – | Tone | Colour | HR | Respiration | 1b
| multi | Resuscitation of neonate born through meconium-stained liquer (MSL)
When baby passes meconium in utero, there is a chance that the mecomium will be aspirated into infant's mouth and potentially into the trachea and lungs.
Appropriate steps must be taken immediately after delivery to reduce the risk of serious consequences resulting from aspiration of meconium.
Intrapartum nasopharyngeal suctioning just after the delivery of head is no longer recommended as it does not reduce the risk of meconium aspiration syndrome and, on rare occasions, may cause nasophagngeal trauma or a cardiac arrhythmia.
The first step after delivery is to identify whether the newborn is vigrous or non-vigrous : -
A) Vigrous newborn
A newborn is classified as vigrous, if he has all the three signs are present : -
Strong respiratory effort
Good muscle tone
Heart rate greater than 100
The vigrous child does not require any tracheal suctioning and the usual initial steps of resuscitation are provided, i.e., provide warniith, positioning, suctioning of mouth and nose (not tracheal suctioning); Dry, stimulate and 02 if necessary.
B) Non-vigrous newborn
If any of the above three signs is present, the newborn is classified as non-vigrous.
For non-vigrous child, the initial steps are modified : -
Place the baby under radiant wanner and postpone suctioning to prevent stimulation of posterior pharyngeal wall that can cause bradycardia.
Residual meconium in the mouth and posterior pharynx should be removed by suctioning under direct vision using a laryngoscope.
The trachea should then be intubated and mechonium suctioned from the lower airway. Tracheal suctioning is best done by applying suction directly to the endotracheal tube.
After providing initial steps, the further management is same as with resucitation for other conditions. | Pediatrics | null |
fd2aca85-4353-4ac2-9eac-0a043f681685 | Which of the following arteries does not supply the circle of Willis? | Anterior cerebral | Middle cerebral | Posterior-inferior cerebral | Posterior communicating | 2c
| single | null | Anatomy | null |
2975d2c6-d494-4adf-ba6e-97df6cd7f341 | Which of the following muscle do NOT work for inversion of foot? | Extensor hallucis longus | Tibialis anterior | Tibialis posterior | Peroneus longus | 3d
| multi | Movement Muscle Accessory muscle INVERSION Tibialis anterior Tibialis posterior Extensor hallucis longus Flexor digitorum longus Flexor hallucis longus EVERSION Peroneus longus Peroneus brevis Peroneus teius | Anatomy | AIIMS 2018 |
ae3d3724-3fd3-433f-9f38-53dfc516e32f | X,Y,Z are the ee ions pet meaule..\\ and V=-30. If at resting membrane potential (RMP), when there is no net electro genic transfer, what is the value of Z? | 20 | -20 | 80 | -80 | 2c
| single | Ans. c. +80 Resting membrane potential (RMP) is the static state of a membrane, where the net transmembrane electric flux is zero. Non-electrogenic transfer at RMP means X+Y+Z = 0 . Since X = -50 and Y= -30, then Z must be +80 since (-80 +80 = 0) | Physiology | null |
218972be-3960-421c-bdc4-8a7627c5e548 | A child presented at 18 months of age who has never been vaccinated before. Which vaccines will you administer? | DPT, OPV and MMR | Pentavalent vaccine alone | BCG and OPV | MMR, OPV, Rotavirus | 0a
| single | Age Vaccine At bih BCG, bOPV-0, Hep B-0 6 weeks bOPV-1, Pentavalent-1, Rotavirus-1*, fIPV-1, PCV-1* 10 weeks bOPV-2, Pentavalent-2, Rotavirus-2* 14 weeks bOPV-3, Pentavalent-3, Rotavirus-3*, fIPV-2, PCV-2* 9 months MR-1*, JE-1*, PCV-3* 16-24 months DPT-B1, bOPV-B, JE-2*, MR-2* 5-6 years DPT-B2 11-13 yrs HPV-1*, HPV-2* BCG and Pentavalent can be given only up to 1st yr. of age, as per national immunization schedule | Pediatrics | AIIMS 2017 |
5e4ed012-82d6-41c4-840f-6301167cf8f4 | For propofol all are true except | Has a rapid recovery rate | Used for induction & maintenance of anesthesia | Causes vomiting after use | Causes sedation | 2c
| multi | null | Surgery | null |
5aee6779-b362-43fd-acd1-10790f873db9 | Following a blunt trauma abdomen, a patient had renal laceration and urinoma. Even after 12 days, urinoma persisted, but the patient was stable and there was no fever. Next step in management would be: | Percutaneous exploration and repair | Wait and watch | J-shaped urinary stent | Percutaneous nephrostomy | 2c
| multi | Ans. c. J-shaped urinary stentManagement of urinoma is by endoscopic intervention, with cystoscopy, retrograde pyelography, placement of a ureteral stent, urethral catheter drainage, and intravenous antibiotics."Although most post-traumatic urinomas are asymptomatic and have a spontaneous resolution rate approaching 85%, urinomas will occasionally persist.A small amount of urinary extravasation is usually not significant as long as they do not become infected.Initially, we treat the trauma by ureteric stentingOnly for large urinoma, we drain by percutaneous drainage. | Surgery | null |
30bbcf29-59e9-4d70-9616-e37190efe906 | Which of the following is unlikely to cause enamel hypoplasia? | Rickets | Fluoride | Congenital syphilis | Cleidocranial dysostosis | 3d
| single | null | Pathology | null |
bf0eabec-95a0-46e1-a9b7-dae6c29dadde | Asphyxial injury in a term baby is characterized by all except – | Seizures | Differential hypotonia (lower limbs > upper limbs) | Altered sensorium | Difficulty in clearing oral secretions | 1b
| multi | Effects ofAsphaxia :
Central nervous system- Cardiovascular
Hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy o Myocardial ischemia
Infarction o Poor contractility
Intracranial hemorrhage o Tricuspid insufficiency
Seizures o Hypotension
Cerebral edema o Pulmonary
Hypotonia o Pulmonary hypertension
Hypertonia o Pulmonary hemorrhage
o Respiratory distress syndrome
Renal —> Acute tubular or cortical necrosis
Adrenal —> Adrenal hemorrhage
Metabolic --> SIADH, Hyponatremia, Hypoglycemia, Hypocalcemia, Myoglobinuria
Integument -+ Subcutaneous fat necrosis
Hematology -p DIC
Gastrointestinal —> Perforation, Ulceration with hemorrhage, Necrosis
During asphyxia the infant may remain hypotonic or change from hypotonia to extreme hypertonia or their tone may appear normal. These changes are seen simultaneously and the change in muscle tone is also of the same degree in both the limbs. | Pediatrics | null |
ff42704e-3996-4abe-a5b6-574344e7aaf0 | Which of the following is not an etiological factor for pancreatitis? | Abdominal trauma | Hyperlipidemia | Islet cell hyperplasia | Germline mutations in the cationic trypsinogen gene | 2c
| single | Ans. c. Islet cell hyperplasiaGallstones including microlithiasis (MC). Alcohol (2"d MC). Hyperiglyceridemia. ERCPO. Blunt abdominal trauma | Surgery | null |
4e279118-325a-45d5-b39d-2bb12dc7283b | Which one of the following does not classify as locally advanced breast cancer? | Tumour more than 4cm | Inflammatory breast cancer | Chest wall involvement | Skin involvement | 0a
| multi | Answer- A. Tumour more than 4cmLocally advanced breast cancer-T4 N2 N3 M0 | Surgery | null |
3fd3c12f-96c0-4fb6-b429-d421f52daf31 | Robinson's classification of ameloblastoma does not include: | Multicentric | Non-functional | Anatomically benign | Clinically persistent | 0a
| multi | null | Pathology | null |
9ac2ec17-8b1e-4ebb-98f9-e5c839f702f1 | Which of the following material is not applied for root conditioning after placement of MTA? | Tetracycline | Citric acid | Polyacrylic acid | EDTA | 3d
| single | Based on periodontal research, it would appear that if a root surface conditioning agent were to be used during periradicular surgery, EDTA might be the most appropriate solution. However, the manufacturer (personnel communication, Dr. Torabinejad) has advised against the use of EDTA when mineral trioxide aggregate (MTA) is used as a root-end filling material, because it may interfere with the hard tissue–producing effect of MTA.
Reference: Cohen Pathways of pulp 11th ed page no 416 | Dental | null |
8166d3f8-edfa-4bc7-af7d-2da15469a001 | The retrocuspid papilla is found approx 1mm below the free gingiva on the attached gingiva lingual to: | Mandibular canine. | Maxillary canine. | Mandibular premolars | Maxillary premolars. | 0a
| single | null | Dental | null |
dea59f76-e4ae-491a-a2e7-62563ab83040 | A child underwent a tonsillectomy at 6 years of age with no complications. He underwent a preoperative screening for bleeding at the age of 12 years before an elective laparotomy, and was found to have a prolonged partial thromboplastin time, but normal prothrombin time. There was no family history of bleeding. The patient is likely to have acquired Vitamin K deficiency: | Acquired Vitamin K deficiency | Acquired liver disease | Factor XII deficiency | Mild hemophilia A | 2c
| single | null | Medicine | null |
065971a5-7b85-4a6d-a657-8d152956f946 | All are drugs which lower IOP except | Clonidine | Mannitol | Dexamethasone | Acetazolamide | 2c
| multi | Drugs which lower Intra Ocular presuure are : 1 CLONIDINE 2 MANNITOL Anti glaucoma drugs 3 ACETAZOLAMIDE But , DEXAMETHASONE is a topical steroid and raises the intra ocular pressure. | Ophthalmology | AIIMS 2019 |
f955fff3-f4ec-41be-a119-a43e2024120e | False about innervation of parotid gland: | Postganglionic parasympathetic fibre secretomotor | Preganglionic parasympathetic fibre relay in Otic ganglion | Preganglionic parasympathetic nerve begin in inferior petrosal nucleus | Sympathetic nerve are vasomotor | 2c
| multi | Ans. C. Preganglionic parasympathetic nerve begin in inferior petrosal nucleusNerve supply:PARASYMPATHETIC:auriculo temporal nerveSYMPATHETIC SUPPLY- plexus around the external carotid aery.SENSORY NERVES: auriculotemporal nerve, except for parotid fascia & overlying skin which are innervated by Great auricular nerve (C2, C3). | Anatomy | null |
460ac269-4f1c-4305-b286-b5fd124289f8 | Which of the following cephalometric analysis does not reveal the severity of anteroposterior jaw dysplasia? | Down's analysis | Steiner analysis | Tweed's analysis | Wit's analysis | 2c
| single | Down's analysis provides information by which we can determine whether the individual’s pattern shows comparatively harmonious relations or not and whether dysplasia present in a person is in the facial skeleton, the dentition or in both.
Steiner concluded that it might not be possible to correct dentition according to ideal norms in non-growing patients whose skeletal relations cannot be altered. The imperative here is to come up with an acceptable compromise for the dentition, one that will mask the underlying skeletal deformity as much as possible. This can be achieved using Steiner’s sticks, which allow calculations to be carried out for a particular ANB value.
In addition to commonly used sagittal discrepancy indicators, that is angle ANB, sagittal maxilla mandibular relationship should be reconfirmed with other variables which include WITS appraisal, A–B plane angle and beta angle.
Key Concept:
Tweed’s analysis (originally undertaken in 1954) is primarily based on inclination of the mandibular incisors to the basal bone and the latter’s association with the vertical relation of the mandible to the cranium. Tweed’s analysis is clinically oriented. It does not directly assess the jaws.
Reference: Orthodontics: Diagnosis and Management of Malocclusion and Dentofacial Deformities 3rd O P Kharbanda, pdf no 1016,997,981,2463 | Dental | null |
03d8e823-bd18-40d1-bdb2-b67cb77fa0e8 | Which of the following Glomerulonephritis has Nephrotic syndrome except - | FSGS | Post-infectious Glomerulonephritis | MPGN | Minimal Change Disease | 1b
| multi | Answer- B. Post-infectious GlomerulonephritisFocal segmental glomerulosclerosis is characterised by a sclerosis of segments of some glomerules. It is likely to present as a nephrotic syndrome.Membranous glomerulonephritis may cause either nephrotic or a nephritic syndrome.Post-infectious glomerulonephritis- present with malaise, a slight fever, nausea and a mild nephritic syndrome of moderately increased blood pressure, gross haematuria, and smoky-brown urine.Membranoproliferative GN (MPGN), also known as mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis- present with the nephritic syndrome, hypocomplementemia. | Pathology | null |
5ce7355d-9557-4269-9c69-0aff12299627 | Deciduous teeth do not show fluorosis because: | Placenta acts as a barrier | Fluoride is taken up by the fast growing skeletal tissue | The calcification time of deciduous teeth is less | All of the above | 3d
| multi | Option 1: Placenta acts as a barrier.
Some authors have said that the placenta acts as a complete barrier to fluoride, others have said that it is only partial. Some have said that the placenta only acts as a barrier, when there is a sudden increase in the maternal plasma fluoride level.
Option 2: Fluoride is taken up by the fast-growing skeletal tissue.
Fluoride’s actions on bone cells predominate as anabolic effects both in vitro and in vivo. More recently, fluoride has been shown to induce osteoclastogenesis.
Option 3: The calcification time of deciduous teeth is less. | Dental | null |
b32d6655-6939-4b8d-b7da-e7274a017cfd | Which of the following statement is not true about glomerular basement membrane? | Type III collagen is present | Glomerular basement membrane is stained with PAS | Glomerular basement membrane acts as filtration barrier | Glomerular basement membrane is involved in charge dependent filtration | 0a
| multi | Ans. a. Type III collagen is present Type IV collagens (not the type HI collagen) are the main components of the basement membrane, together with laminin."The basement membrane is synthesized by contributions from the overlying epithelium and underlying mesenchymal cells, forming a flat lamellar "chicken wire" mesh (although labeled as a membrane; it is quite porous). The major constituents are amorphous nonfibrillar type IV collagen and lantinin." '"Type IV collagens have long but interrupted triple-helical domains and form sheets instead of fibrils; they are the main components of the basement membrane, together with laminin | Pathology | null |
87fab9d2-9419-49c1-93bf-59d0a311e8de | A 70 years old hypeensive patient with stage 5 chronic kidney disease was diagnosed recently with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. He doesn't want to take injectable insulin. Which of the following oral hypoglycemic agents will be preferred in this patient, which won't require any renal dose modification? | Linagliptin | Repaglinide | Vildagliptin | Glimepiride | 0a
| single | Answer- A. Linagliptinlinagliptin has the ability to be safely dosed in chronic kidney disease patients. Chronic kidney disease is a major complication in type 2 diabetesLinagliptin .No dose required linagliptin for patients with renal impairment | Pharmacology | null |
69f1a181-5580-4146-ba87-bbd3980f948c | Which of the following vessel is not ligated in case of epistaxis control? | Maxillary aery | Anterior ethmoidal aery | Internal carotid aery | External carotid aery | 2c
| single | Answer- C. Internal carotid aerySurgical ligation of vessels or embolization is the last reso to control epistaxis when all other methods fail. Internal carotid aery is not ligated in case of epistaxis control, as it is the msinvessel supplying the central nervous system."Endoscopy identifies the source of posterior epistaxis in over 80 percent of the cases. Ligation should be performed as close as possible to the likely bleeding point. Thus the hierarchy of ligation is: Sphenopalatine aery; internal maxillary aery; external carotid aery; anterior/posterior ethmoidal aery. | ENT | null |
edd2f617-40bb-4a40-9598-059172c2618f | Morphine should not be used in the treatment of:- | Ischemic pain | Biliary colic | Cancer pain | Post operative pain | 1b
| single | Morphine (an opioid) is a strong analgesic. It is used in treatment of all types of pain like Crush injury, Fracture, MI, cancer pain, post-operative pain etc. However in Biliary colic (e.g. due to any stone blocking bile duct), morphine constricts sphincter of Oddi and increase the intrabiliary pressure. This increases the chances of rupture of bile duct. Therefore opioids like morphine are contra-indicated in biliary colic. | Pharmacology | AIIMS 2018 |
f07a7a11-ae84-4843-a8a2-9f77447fb954 | Most commonly implicated drug for acute liver failure is - | Paracetamol | Valproate | Warfarin | Tetracyclines | 0a
| single | Ans. A. Paracetamol Acute liver failure after administration of paracetamol at the maximum recommended daily dose in adults.Paracetamol is the most commonly used analgesic and antipyretic in the world; it can be bought without prescription in most countries despite being the commonest cause of acute liver failure in western Europe.Prescribing information suggests that it is safe to use in adults in divided doses that total 4 g daily.Malnutrition, starvation, chronic alcohol misuse, and concomitant use of drugs that induce cytochrome P450 enzymes increase the risk of hepatotoxicity induced by paracetamol. | Pharmacology | null |