Source: http://www.ascentgroundschool.com/private-pilot/lesson-6-federal-aviation-regulations-part-2
Timestamp: 2018-08-21 08:20:19
Document Index: 616850335

Matched Legal Cases: ['art 2', 'ART 91', 'ART 830', 'ART 91', 'ART 830', 'art 2', 'art 2']

Lesson 6 - Federal Aviation Regulations: Part 2 - Ascent Ground School - BETA
Private Pilot | Lesson 6 - Federal Aviation Regulations: Part II
6.1 FAR PART 91—GENERAL OPERATING AND FLIGHT RULES
6.2 NTSB PART 830—NOTIFICATION AND REPORTING OF AIRCRAFT ACCIDENTS OR INCIDENTS AND OVERDUE AIRCRAFT
In emergencies, a pilot may deviate from the FARs to the extent needed to maintain the safety of the airplane and passengers. The pilot in command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of that aircraft.
However, a written report of any deviations from FARs should be filed with the FAA, but only upon request.
The pilot in command is responsible for determining that the airplane is airworthy prior to every flight.
The airworthiness certificate, the FAA registration certificate, and the aircraft flight manual or operating limitations must be aboard.
The acronym ARROW can be used as a memory aid.
R adio station license (FCC requirement for international flight)1
O perating limitations2, including
1 The FCC (Federal Communications Commission), requires the radio station license. As of January 1, 1997, the radio station license is required only for international flights.
2 The operating limitations of an airplane may be found in the current FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.
No pilot in command of a civil aircraft may allow any object to be dropped from that aircraft in flight that creates a hazard to persons or property.
This FAR does not prohibit the dropping of any object if reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property. (A roll of bio-degradable toilet paper is always good for fun!)
No person may act as a crewmember of a civil airplane while having .04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood or if any alcoholic beverages have been consumed within the preceding 8 hr.
No person may act as a crewmember of a civil airplane if using any drug that affects the person's faculties in any way contrary to safety.
Pilots may not allow a person who is obviously intoxicated or under the influence of drugs to be carried in a civil airplane unless the person is a medical patient under proper care or in an emergency.
Basically, it's "8 hours, bottle to throttle." And, "say no to drugs."
Pilots are required to familiarize themselves with all available information concerning the flight prior to every flight, and specifically to determine:
For any flight, runway lengths at airports of intended use and the airplane's takeoff and landing requirements, and
For IFR flights or those not in the vicinity of an airport,
Weather reports and forecasts,
Any known traffic delays.
During takeoff and landing, and while en route, each required flight crewmember shall keep his/her safety belt fastened while at his/her station.
If shoulder harnesses are available they must be used for takeoff and landing.
Pilots must ensure that each occupant is briefed on how to use the safety belts and, if installed, shoulder harness.
Pilots must notify all occupants to fasten their safety belts before taxiing, taking off, or landing.
All passengers of airplanes must wear their safety belts during taxi, takeoffs, and landings.
A passenger who has not reached his/her second birthday may be held by an adult.
Sport parachutists may use the floor of the aircraft as a seat (but still must use safety belts).
No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation.
Aircraft in distress have the right-of-way over all other aircraft.
When two aircraft are approaching head on or nearly so, the pilot of each aircraft should turn to his/her right, regardless of category.
When two aircraft of different categories are converging, the right-of-way depends upon who has the least maneuverability. Thus, the right-of-way belongs to:
Gliders over
Airships over
Airplanes or Rotorcraft.
When aircraft of the same category are converging at approximately the same altitude, except head on or nearly so, the aircraft to the other's right has the right-of-way.
If an airplane of the same category as yours is approaching from your right side, it has the right-of-way.
When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the aircraft at the lower altitude has the right-of-way. This rule shall not be abused by cutting in front of or overtaking another aircraft.
An aircraft towing or refueling another aircraft has the right-of-way over all engine-driven aircraft.
91.115 Right-of-Way Rules: Water Operations
The speed limit is 250 kt. (288 MPH) when flying below 10,000 ft. MSL and in Class B airspace.
When flying under Class B airspace or in VFR corridors through Class B airspace, the speed limit is 200 kt. (230 MPH).
When at or below 2,500 ft. AGL and within 4 NM of the primary airport of Class C or Class D airspace, the speed limit is 200 kt. (230 MPH).
Over congested areas (cities, towns, settlements, or open-air assemblies), a pilot must maintain an altitude of 1,000 ft. above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 ft. of the airplane.
The minimum altitude over other than congested areas is 500 ft. AGL.
Over open water or sparsely populated areas, an airplane may not be operated closer than 500 ft. to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
Altitude in all areas must be sufficient to permit an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface if a power unit fails.
Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to the current local altimeter setting.
If the current local altimeter setting is not available, use the departure airport elevation.
The altimeter of an airplane is required to be set to 29.92 at or above 18,000 ft. MSL,
To guarantee vertical separation of airplanes above 18,000 ft. MSL.
When an ATC clearance is obtained, no pilot may deviate from that clearance, except in an emergency, unless an amended clearance is obtained. If you feel a rule deviation will occur, you should immediately advise ATC.
If you receive priority from ATC in an emergency, you must, upon request, file a detailed report within 48 hr. to the chief of that ATC facility even if no rule has been violated.
During an in-flight emergency, the pilot in command may deviate from the FARs to the extent necessary to handle the emergency.
The pilot should notify ATC about the deviation as soon as possible. If ATC priority is given, and a request for a report is made, then a written report must be submitted in 48 hr.
Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings and takeoffs at all tower controlled airports regardless of weather conditions.
A non-tower satellite airport, within the same Class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport, requires radio communications be established and maintained with the primary airport's control tower.
Class C airspace is controlled airspace which requires radio communication with ATC.
A pilot must establish two-way radio communication prior to entering Class C airspace and maintain it while within Class C airspace, regardless of weather conditions.
Class B airspace is controlled airspace usually found at the much larger airports with very high traffic volumes.
Requirements for operating within Class B airspace:
A pilot must hold at least a private pilot certificate or a student pilot certificate with the appropriate logbook endorsements.
Authorization from ATC, regardless of weather conditions.
The airplane must have a two-way communications radio and a transponder equipped with Mode C encoding, which permits ATC to obtain an altitude readout on its radar screen.
A VOR receiver is required only when operating IFR, and
With certain exceptions, all aircraft within a 30-NM radius of a Class B airport and from the surface up to 10,000 ft. MSL (even if you do not intend to land at that Class B airport) must have an operable transponder with Mode C.
Student pilot operations in Class B airspace are only permitted with appropriate logbook endorsements.
For flight through Class B airspace, the student pilot must
Receive ground and flight instructions pertaining to that specific Class B airspace area.
Have a CFI logbook endorsement within 90 days for solo flight in that specific Class B airspace area.
For takeoffs and landings at an airport within Class B airspace, the student pilot must
Have a CFI logbook endorsement within 90 days for solo flight at that specific airport.
No student pilot may take off or land at the following airports:
Restricted areas are a type of Special Use Airspace within which your right to fly is limited.
Restricted areas have unusual and often invisible hazards to aircraft (i.e., balloons, military operations, etc.). Although restricted areas are not always in use during the times posted in the legend of sectional charts, permission to fly in that airspace must be obtained from the controlling agency. The controlling agency is listed for each restricted area at the bottom of sectional charts.
Since Class A airspace requires operation under IFR at specific flight levels assigned by ATC, VFR flights are prohibited.
During the day, FARs require fuel sufficient to fly to the first point of intended landing and then for an additional 30 min., assuming normal cruise speed.
At night, sufficient fuel to fly an additional 45 min. is required.
Airspace Flight
Visibility Distance from
Class B 3 SM Clear of clouds
Class C 3 SM 500 ft. below
1,000 ft. above
2,000 ft. horiz.
Class D 3 SM 500 ft. below
3 SM 500 ft. below
5 SM 500 ft. below
1 SM horiz.
1,200 ft. or less above the surface (regardless of MSL altitude)
Day 1 SM Clear of Clouds
Night, except as
provided in 1. below
More than 1,200 ft. above the surface but less than 10,000 ft. MSL
Day 1 SM 500 ft. below
Night 3 SM 500 ft. below
More than 1,200 ft.
and at or above
5 SM 1,000 ft. below
An airplane may be operated clear of clouds in Class G airspace at night below 1,200 ft. AGL when the visibility is less than 3 SM but more than 1 SM in an airport traffic pattern and within 1/2 NM of the runway.
Except when operating under a special VFR clearance .
You may not operate your airplane beneath the ceiling under VFR within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an airport when the ceiling is less than 1,000 ft.
You may not take off, land, or enter the traffic pattern of an airport in Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace unless the ground visibility is at least 3 SM.
If ground visibility is not reported, flight visibility must be at the least 3 SM.
Special VFR clearances can be requested in Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace areas.
The flight requirements are to remain clear of clouds and have visibility of at least 1 SM.
Flight under special VFR clearance at night is only permitted if the pilot has an instrument rating and the aircraft is IFR equipped.
Special VFR is an ATC clearance obtained from the control tower. If there is no control tower, you should obtain the clearance from the appropriate air traffic control facility.
Specific altitudes are required for VFR cruising flight at more than 3,000 ft. AGL and below 18,000 ft. MSL.
These altitudes prescribed are based upon the magnetic course (not magnetic heading).
These altitudes are prescribed in ft. above mean sea level (MSL).
Use an odd thousand-foot MSL altitude plus 500 ft. for magnetic courses of 0° to 179°. So, that would give you 3,500, 5,500, 7,500 ft., etc when flying generally East.
Use an even thousand-foot MSL altitude plus 500 ft. for magnetic courses of 180° to 359°. And, that would give you 4,500, 6,500, 8,500 ft., etc when flying generally West.
As a memory aid, remember the saying, "East is ODD, West is EVEN odder."
The aircraft's airworthiness certificate, registration certificate, and operating limitations must be aboard an aircraft during flight.
When activated, ELTs transmit simultaneously on 121.5 and 243.0 MHz.
It is recommended that you monitor 121.5 on your aircraft's radio before shut down (after landing) to ensure that your aircraft's ELT has not been activated.
ELT batteries must be replaced (or recharged, if rechargeable) after 1 cumulative hr. of use or after 50% of their useful life expires.
ELTs may only be tested on the ground during the first 5 min. after the hour -- airborne checks are not permitted.
For any operations between sunset and sunrise (this includes simply taxiing on the ground), aircraft must display lighted position (navigation) lights, except in Alaska.
All occupants must be provided with oxygen in an airplane operated at cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 ft. MSL.
Pilots and crewmembers may not operate an airplane at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 ft. MSL up to and including 14,000 ft. MSL for more than 30 min. without supplemental oxygen.
Pilots and crewmembers must use supplemental oxygen at cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000 ft. MSL.
All aircraft must have and use an altitude encoding transponder when operating
Within Class A airspace
Within Class B airspace
Within 30 NM of the Class B airspace primary airport
Within and above Class C airspace
Above 10,000 ft. MSL except at and below 2,500 ft. AGL
Aerobatic flight includes all intentional maneuvers that
Are not necessary for normal flight and
Involve an abrupt change in the airplane's attitude.
When visibility is less than 3 SM;
When altitude is less than 1,500 ft. above the ground;
Within 4 NM of the centerline of any Federal airway; or
Over any congested area or over an open-air assembly of people.
With certain exceptions, each occupant of an aircraft must wear an approved parachute during
any intentional maneuver exceeding 60° bank, or
A nose-up or nose-down attitude of 30°.
A chair-type parachute must be packed by a certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding 120 days.
91.313 Restricted Category Civil Aircraft: Operating Limitations
Restricted category civil aircraft may not normally be operated
Over densely populated areas,
In congested airways, or
Near a busy airport where passenger transport is conducted.
91.319 Aircraft Having Experimental Certificates: Operating Limitations
No person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental or restricted certificate over a densely populated area or in a congested airway unless authorized by the FAA.
91.403 General
The owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily responsible for maintaining that aircraft in an airworthy condition and for complying with all Airworthiness Directives (ADs).
An operator is a person who uses, or causes to use or authorizes to use, an aircraft for the purpose of air navigation, including the piloting of an aircraft, with or without the right of legal control (i.e., owner, lessee, or otherwise).
Thus, the pilot in command is also responsible for ensuring that the aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition and that there is compliance with all ADs.
Each owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service.
91.407 Operation after Maintenance, Preventive Maintenance, Rebuilding, or Alteration
When aircraft alterations or repairs change the flight characteristics, the aircraft must be test flown and approved for return to service prior to carrying passengers.
The pilot test flying the aircraft must be at least a private pilot and rated for the type of aircraft being tested.
Annual inspections expire on the last day of the 12th calendar month after the previous annual inspection.
All aircraft that are used for compensation or hire including flight instruction must be inspected on a 100-hr. basis in addition to the annual inspection.
100-hr. inspections are due every 100 hr. from the prior due time, regardless of when the inspection was actually performed.
No person may use an ATC transponder unless it has been tested and inspected within the preceding 24 calendar months.
An airplane may not be flown unless it has been given an annual inspection within the preceding 12 calendar months.
The annual inspection expires after 1 year, on the last day of the month of issuance.
The completion of the annual inspection and the airplane's return to service should be appropriately documented in the airplane maintenance records. The documentation should include the current status of airworthiness directives and the method of compliance.
The airworthiness of an airplane can be determined by a preflight inspection and a review of the maintenance records.
Ascent Quick Quiz - 6.1 FAR PART 91—General Operating and Flight Rules
Question 1: The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the
Question 2: Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?
Question 3: Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found?
Question 4: Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft?
Question 5: No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with
Question 6: A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding
Question 7: Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft?
Question 8: Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include
Question 9: In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to
Question 10: Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?
Question 11: Flight crewmembers are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during
Question 12: Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crewmembers are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened?
Question 13: Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which persons in an aircraft and when?
Question 14: With respect to passengers, what obligation, if any, does a pilot in command have concerning the use of safety belts?
Question 15: With certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during
Question 16: No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight
Question 17: An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane's position, which aircraft has the right-of-way?
Question 18: When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft
Question 19: Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?
Question 20: What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head-on collision course?
Question 21: What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on?
Question 22: Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?
Question 23: Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic?
Question 24: A seaplane and a motorboat are on crossing courses. If the motorboat is to the left of the seaplane, which has the right-of-way?
Question 25: When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is
Question 26: Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL?
Question 27: When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is
Question 28: Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C airspace is
Question 29: Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure?
Question 30: Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?
Question 31: Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas?
Question 32: Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area?
Question 33: Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimeter setting?
Question 34: If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter?
Question 35: At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to 29.92, when climbing to cruising flight level?
Question 36: When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator?
Question 37: When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance?
Question 38: If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, the pilot in command may
Question 39: When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance, unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to this regulation is
Question 40: What action, if any, is appropriate if the pilot deviates from an ATC instruction during an emergency and is given priority?
Question 41: Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings or takeoffs
Question 42: A non-tower satellite airport, within the same Class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport, requires radio communications be established and maintained with the
Question 43: Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace?
Question 44: What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?
Question 45: What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?
Question 46: With certain exceptions, all aircraft within 30 miles of a Class B primary airport from the surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL must be equipped with
Question 47: Under what condition, if any, may pilots fly through a restricted area?
Question 48: In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited?
Question 49: What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane?
Question 50: What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane?
Question 51: The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is
Question 52: VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of
Question 53: For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is
Question 54: The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are
Question 55: The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL is
Question 56: What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?
Question 57: What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL?
Question 58: During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is
Question 59: During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is
Question 60: No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the
Question 61: During operations at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is
Question 62: Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for VFR flight above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is
Question 63: During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is
Question 64: During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is
Question 65: Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the visibility and ceiling to be at least
Question 66: What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive a special VFR departure clearance in Class D airspace?
Question 67: A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is
Question 68: No person may operate an airplane within Class D airspace at night under special VFR unless the
Question 69: What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night?
Question 70: What is the minimum weather condition required for airplanes operating under special VFR in Class D airspace?
Question 71: Which VFR cruising altitude is acceptable for a flight on a Victor Airway with a magnetic course of 175°? The terrain is less than 1,000 feet.
Question 72: Which cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight on a magnetic course of 135°?
Question 73: Which VFR cruising altitude is appropriate when flying above 3,000 feet AGL on a magnetic course of 185°?
Question 74: Each person operating an aircraft at a VFR cruising altitude shall maintain an odd-thousand plus 500-foot altitude while on a
Question 75: In addition to a valid Airworthiness Certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight?
Question 76: When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on
Question 77: Which procedure is recoommended to ensure that the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) has not been activated?
Question 78: When must batteries in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced or recharged, if rechargeable?
Question 79: When may an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be tested?
Question 80: When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced?
Question 81: When must the battery in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced (or recharged if the battery is rechargeable)?
Question 82: Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft?
Question 83: Unless each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen, no person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry above a maximum cabin pressure altitude of
Question 84: When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used during
Question 85: An operable 4096-code transponder with an encoding altimeter is required in which airspace?
Question 86: An operable 4096-code transponder and Mode C encoding altimeter are required in
Question 87: In which class of airspace is acrobatic flight prohibited?
Question 88: No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when the flight visibility is less than
Question 89: What is the lowest altitude permitted for acrobatic flight?
Question 90: No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when
Question 91: With certain exceptions, when must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute?
Question 92: A chair-type parachute must have been packed by a certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding
Question 93: An approved chair-type parachute may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding
Question 94: Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft?
Question 95: Unless otherwise specifically authorized, no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate
Question 96: The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the
Question 97: Who is responsible for ensuring Airworthiness Directives (AD's) are complied with?
Question 98: The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service lies with the
Question 99: Who is responsible for ensuring appropriate entries are made in maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service?
Question 100: If an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircraft's operation in flight, that aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately-rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to being operated
Question 101: Before passengers can be carried in an aircraft that has been altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics, it must be flight tested by an appropriately-rated pilot who holds at least a
Question 102: A 100-hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours. The 100-hour inspection was actually done at 3309.5 hours. When is the next 100-hour inspection due?
Question 103: An aircraft's annual inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than
Question 104: What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction?
Question 105: An aircraft had a 100-hour inspection when the tachometer read 1259.6. When is the next 100-hour inspection due?
Question 106: No person may use an ATC transponder unless it has been tested and inspected within at least the preceding
Question 107: Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 1993. The next inspection will be due no later than
Question 108: Completion of an annual inspection and the return of the aircraft to service should always be indicated by
Question 109: To determine the expiration date of the last annual aircraft inspection, a person should refer to the
Question 110: Which records or documents shall the owner or operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance with an applicable Airworthiness Directive?
Question 111: The airworthiness of an aircraft can be determined by a preflight inspection and a
Even when no injuries occur to occupants, an airplane accident resulting in substantial damage must be reported to the nearest National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) field office immediately.
The following incidents must also be reported immediately to the NTSB:
Inability of any required crewmember to perform normal flight duties because of in-flight injury or illness
An overdue airplane that is believed to be involved in an accident
An airplane collision in flight
Turbine (jet) engine failures
830.10 Preservation of Aircraft Wreckage, Mail, Cargo, and Records
Prior to the time the Board or its authorized representative takes custody of aircraft wreckage, mail, or cargo, such wreckage, mail, or cargo may not be disturbed or moved except
To remove persons injured or trapped,
To protect the wreckage from further damage, or
830.15 Reports and Statements to Be Filed
The operator of an aircraft shall file a report on Board Form 6120.1/2 within 10 days after an accident.
A report must be filed within 7 days if an overdue aircraft is still missing.
A report on an incident for which immediate notification is required (830.5) shall be filed only when requested by an authorized representative of the Board.
Ascent Quick Quiz - 6.2 NTSB PART 830—Notification and Reporting of Aircraft Accidents or Incidents and Overdue Aircraft
Question 1: If an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office should be notified
Question 2: Which incident would necessitate an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?
Question 3: Which incident requires an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?
Question 4: Which incident requires an immediate notification be made to the nearest NTSB field office?
Question 5: May aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time the NTSB takes custody?
Question 6: The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an accident report within how many days?
Question 7: The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident is required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB
Lesson 6 - Federal Aviation Regulations: Part 2 eFlash Cards
Lesson 6 - Federal Aviation Regulations: Part 2 Study Quiz
Lesson 6 - Federal Aviation Regulations: Part II