Source: http://www.wvlegislature.gov/legisdocs/chamber/2013/RS/com_amends/SB580%20HH_HR%20AM%204-4.htm
Timestamp: 2018-01-22 12:39:57
Document Index: 610503954

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SB580 HH&HR AM 4-4
The Committee on Health and Human Resources moves to amend the bill on page 1, line 17, by striking out everything after the enacting clause and inserting in lieu thereof the following:
“That §30-4-8a, §30-4-10a, §30-4-25, §30-4-26, §30-4-27, §30-4-28 and §30-4-29 of the Code of West Virginia, 1931, as amended, be repealed; that §30-4A-6a, §30-4A-6b, §30-4A-6c, §30-4A-6d and §30-4A-18 of said code be repealed; that §30-4B-5, §30-4B-6, §30-4B-7 and §30-4B-8 of said code be repealed; that §30-4-1, §30-4-2, §30-4-3, §30-4-4, §30-4-5, §30-4-6, §30-4-7, §30-4-8, §30-4-9, §30-4-10, §30-4-11, §30-4-12, §30-4-13, §30-4-14, §30-4-15, §30-4-16, §30-4-17, §30-4-18, §30-4-19, §30-4-20, §30-4-21, §30-4-22, §30-4-23 and §30-4-24 of said code be amended and reenacted; that §30-4A-1, §30-4A-2, §30-4A-3, §30-4A-4, §30-4A-5, §30-4A-6, §30-4A-7, §30-4A-8, §30-4A-9, §30-4A-10, §30-4A-11, §30-4A-12, §30-4A-13, §30-4A-14, §30-4A-15, §30-4A-16 and §30-4A-17 of said code be amended and reenacted; and that §30-4B-1, §30-4B-2, §30-4B-3 and §30-4B-4 of said code be amended and reenacted; all to read as follows:
(a) It is unlawful for any person to practice or offer to practice dentistry or dental hygiene this state without a license, issued under the provisions of this article, or advertise or use any title or description tending to convey or give the impression that they are a dentist or dental hygienist, unless the person is licensed under the provisions of this article.
(1) “AAOMS” means the American Association of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgeons;
(2) “AAPD” means the American Academy of Pediatric Dentistry;
(6) “ASA” means American Society of Anesthesiologists;
(8) “Approved dental hygiene program” means a program that is approved by the board and is accredited or its educational standards are deemed by the board to be substantially equivalent to those required by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association;
(9) “Approved dental school, college or dental department of a university” means a dental school, college or dental department of a university that is approved by the board and is accredited or its educational standards are deemed by the board to be substantially equivalent to those required by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association;
(10) “Authorize” means that the dentist is giving permission or approval to dental auxiliary personnel to perform delegated procedures in accordance with the dentist’s diagnosis and treatment plan;
(12) “Board” means the West Virginia Board of Dentistry;
(15) “Certificate of qualification” means a certificate authorizing a dentist to practice a specialty;
(18) “CRNA” means Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist;
(19) “Delegated procedures” means those procedures specified by law or by rule of the board and performed by dental auxiliary personnel under the supervision of a licensed dentist;
(20) “Dentist Anesthesiologist” means a dentist who is trained in the practice of anesthesiology and has completed an additional approved anesthesia education course;
(21) “Dental assistant” means a person qualified by education, training or experience who aids or assists a dentist in the delivery of patient care in accordance with delegated procedures as specified by the board by rule or who may perform nonclinical duties in the dental office;
(22) “Dental auxiliary personnel” or “auxiliary” means dental hygienists and dental assistants who assist the dentist in the practice of dentistry;
(23) “Dental Hygiene” means the performance of educational, preventive or therapeutic dental services and as further provided in section nine and legislative rule;
(24) “Dental hygienist” means a person licensed by the board to practice provides dental hygiene and other services as specified by the board by rule to patients in the dental office and in a public health setting;
(25) “Dental laboratory” means a business performing dental laboratory services;
(26) “Dental laboratory services” means the fabricating, repairing or altering of a dental prosthesis;
(27) “Dental laboratory technician” means a person qualified by education, training or experience who has completed a dental laboratory technology education program and who fabricates, repairs or alters a dental prosthesis in accordance with a dentist’s work authorization;
(28) “Dental office” means the place where the licensed dentist and dental auxiliary personnel are practicing dentistry;
(29) “Dental prosthesis” means an artificial appliance fabricated to replace one or more teeth or other oral or peri-oral structure in order to restore or alter function or aesthetics;
(30) “Dentist” means an individual licensed by the board to practice dentistry;
(31) “Dentistry” means the evaluation, diagnosis, prevention and treatment of diseases, disorders and conditions of the oral cavity, maxillofacial area and the adjacent and associated structures provided by a dentist;
(32) “Direct supervision” means supervision of dental auxiliary personnel provided by a licensed dentist who is physically present in the dental office or treatment facility when procedures are being performed;
(33) “Facility Permit” means a permit for a facility where sedation procedures are used that correspond with the level of anesthesia provided;
(35) “General supervision” means a dentist is not required to be in the office or treatment facility when procedures are being performed by the auxiliary dental personnel, but has personally diagnosed the condition to be treated, has personally authorized the procedures and will evaluate the treatment provided by the dental auxiliary personnel;
(36) “Good moral character” means a lack of history of dishonesty;
(38) “License” means a license to practice dentistry or dental hygiene;
(39) “Licensee” means a person holding a license;
(40) “Mobile Dental Facility” any self-contained facility in which dentistry or dental hygiene will be practiced which may be moved, towed, or transported from one location to another;
(41) “Other dental practitioner” means those persons excluded from the definition of the practice of dentistry under the provisions of subsections (3), (4) and (5), section twenty-nine, of and also those persons who hold teaching permits which have been issued to them under the provisions of section fourteen, article four of this chapter;
(43) “Pediatric Patient” means infants and children;
(44) “Physician Anesthesiologist” means a physician, MD or DO, who is specialized in the practice of anesthesiology;
(45) “Portable Dental Unit” any non-facility in which dental equipment, utilized in the practice of dentistry, is transported to and utilized on a temporary basis an out-of-office location, including, but not limited to, patient’s homes, schools, nursing homes, or other institutions;
(46) “Public health practice” means treatment or procedures in a public health setting which shall be designated by a rule promulgated by the board to require direct, general or no supervision of a dental hygienist by a dentist;
(47)“Public health setting” means hospitals, schools, correctional facilities, jails, community clinics, long-term care facilities, nursing homes, home health agencies, group homes, state institutions under the West Virginia Department of Health and Human Resources, public health facilities, homebound settings, accredited dental hygiene education programs and any other place designated by the board by rule;
(48) “Qualified Monitor” means an individual who by virtue of credentialing and/or training checks closely and documents the status of a patient undergoing anesthesia and observes utilized equipment;
(50) “Specialty” means the practice of a certain branch of dentistry;
(52) “Work authorization" means a written order for dental laboratory services which has been issued by a licensed dentist or other dental practitioner.
(a) The "West Virginia Board of Dental Examiners" is continued and on July 1, 2013, the board shall be renamed the “West Virginia Board of Dentistry”. The members of the board in office on the date this section takes effect shall, unless sooner removed, continue to serve until their respective terms expire and until their successors have been appointed and qualified.
(c) The West Virginia Dental Association may submit recommendations to the Governor for the appointment of the licensed dentists board members, the West Virginia Association of Dental Hygienists may submit recommendations to the Governor for the appointment of an Dental Hygienist board member, and the West Virginia Dental Assistant Association may submit recommendations to the Governor for the appointment of an Dental Assistant board member.
(5) Place sealants on a patient’s teeth without a prior examination by a licensed dentist: Provided, That for this subdivision, the dental hygienist has a public health practice permit issued by the board, and subject to a collaborative agreement with a supervising dentist and the patient is referred for a dental examination within six months of sealant application;
(d) While in effect, a permittee is subject to the restrictions and requirements imposed by this article. In addition, a permittee may not receive any fee for service other than a salary paid by the hospital or dental school
(a) There is continued a special volunteer dentist and dental hygienist license for dentist and dental hygienists retired or retiring from the active practice of dentistry and dental hygiene who wish to donate their expertise for the care and treatment of indigent and needy patients in the clinic setting of clinics organized, in whole or in part, for the delivery of health care services without charge. The special volunteer dentist or dental hygienist license shall be issued by the board to dentist or dental hygienists licensed or otherwise eligible for licensure under this article and the legislative rules promulgated hereunder without the payment of an application fee, license fee or renewal fee, shall be issued for the remainder of the licensing period, and renewed consistent with the boards other licensing requirements. The board shall develop application forms for the special license provided in this subsection which shall contain the dental hygienist’s acknowledgment that:
(b) Any dentist or dental hygienist who renders any dentistry or dental hygiene service to indigent and needy patients of a clinic organized, in whole or in part, for the delivery of health care services without charge under a special volunteer dentist or dental hygienist license authorized under subsection (a) of this section without payment or compensation or the expectation or promise of payment or compensation is immune from liability for any civil action arising out of any act or omission resulting from the rendering of the dental hygiene service at the clinic unless the act or omission was the result of the dentist’s or dental hygienist’s gross negligence or willful misconduct. In order for the immunity under this subsection to apply, there shall be a written agreement between the dentist or dental hygienist and the clinic pursuant to which the dentist or dental hygienist will provide voluntary uncompensated dental hygiene services under the control of the clinic to patients of the clinic before the rendering of any services by the dentist or dental hygienist at the clinic: Provided, That any clinic entering into such written agreement is required to maintain liability coverage of not less than one million dollars per occurrence.
(d) For purposes of this section, “otherwise eligible for licensure” means the satisfaction of all the requirements for licensure as listed in section ten of this article and in the legislative rules promulgated thereunder, except the fee requirements of subdivision six of that section and of the legislative rules promulgated by the board relating to fees.
(g) A dental corporation holding a certificate of authorization shall cease to engage in the practice of dentistry upon being notified by the board that any of its shareholders is no longer a licensed dentist or when any shares of the corporation have been sold or disposed of to a person who is not a licensed dentist: Provided, That the personal representative of a deceased shareholder has a period, not to exceed twenty-four months from the date of the shareholder’s death, to dispose of the shares; but nothing contained herein may be construed as affecting the existence of the corporation or its right to continue to operate for all lawful purposes other than the practice of dentistry.
§30-5-18. Actions to enjoin violations.
§30-5-19. Complaints; investigations; due process procedure; grounds for disciplinary action.
(2) Being convicted of a felony or other crime involving drugs, violent crime, or moral turpitude;
§30-5-20. Procedures for hearing; right of appeal.
§30-5-21. Judicial review.
§30-4-22. Criminal proceedings; penalties.
(6) A dentists whose practice is confined exclusively to the service of the United States Army, the United States Navy, the United States Air Force, The United States Coast Guard, the United States Public Health Service, the United States Veteran’s Bureau or any other authorized United States government agency or bureau.
(d) Permit holders shall report the names and qualifications of each qualified monitor. Qualified monitors shall apply for certification and pay the appropriate application fees and renewal fees. Qualified monitors are required to renew annually by the 30th day of June. Qualified monitor requirements for each level of sedation are as specified by rule.
(b) When anesthesia services are provided in dental facilities by a MD or DO physician anesthesiologist, dentist anesthesiologist, or CRNA, the dental facility shall be inspected and approved for a Class 4 permit, and the dentist shall have a minimum of a Class 2 permit. If anesthesia services are provided by a CRNA, the dental facility shall be inspected and approved for a Class 4 permit. and the supervising dentist shall have the same level of permit for the level of anesthesia provided by the CRNA.
(7) A defibrillator device: Provided, That this requirement is only for Class 2, 3, and 4 permittees.
(d) Before inducing relative analgesia/minimal sedation by means of nitrous oxide or a single pre-med agent, a practitioner shall:
(e) A practitioner who administers relative analgesia/minimal sedation shall see that the patient’s condition is visually monitored. At all times, the patient shall be observed by a qualified monitor until discharge criteria have been met.
(f) A qualified monitor’s record shall include documentation of all medications administered with dosages, time intervals and route of administration including local anesthesia.
(e) A dentist who induces general anesthesia/deep conscious sedation shall ensure that the patient’s condition is monitored and recorded on a contemporaneous record. The dentist shall use a Qualified Monitor to monitor and record the patient’s condition on a contemporaneous record and a chair side dental assistant. The documented requirements of a Qualified Monitor monitoring general anesthesia/deep conscious sedation cases are as specified by rule. No permit holder may have more than one patient under general anesthesia at the same time.
Prior to issuing a permit, the board shall conduct an on-site inspection of facility, equipment, and auxiliary personnel of the applicant to determine if, in fact, all the requirements for the permit have been met. This inspection or evaluation, if required, shall be carried out by at least two members of the subcommittee. This evaluation is to be carried out in a manner following the principles, but not necessarily the procedures, set forth by the current edition of the AAOMS Office Anesthesia Evaluation Manual. On-site inspections are required and shall be performed for all Class 3a, 3b and 4 permitees. The board may reinspect annually, at its discretion, but shall perform an on-site inspection for all permit holders at least once every five years except Class 2 permit holders. The board reserves the right to conduct an on-site inspection whenever it deems necessary for all permit holders. All on-site inspections shall be held during regular business hours.
(2) Inspection of facilities, which shall include but not be limited to, the inspection of equipment, drugs and patient records and qualified monitor’s certifications and documentation; and
(b) A dentist utilizing a licensed dentist who holds a current anesthesia permit issued by the board shall have his or her office inspected to the level of a class 4 permit as specified by section 10 of this article. The office is only approved at that level when the anesthesia permit holder is present and shall have the number of qualified monitors present as required by this article.
A dentist whose application has been denied for failure to satisfy the requirements in the application procedure or the on-site evaluation shall wait thirty days from the date of the denial prior to reapplying and shall submit to another on-site evaluation prior to receiving a permit. The board and the subcommittee shall promptly reinspect the applicant dentist's facilities, techniques, equipment, and personnel within ninety days after the applicant has made reapplication.
(d) It is unlawful for any dental laboratory or dentist who fabricates a full upper or full lower set of prosthetic dentures not to affix upon the dentures, in a nonremovable manner, the name of the patient, the initials of the dentist’s state of practice and license identification.
(c)A separate work authorization shall be issued for each patient of the dentist or other dental practitioner for whom a dental laboratory service is to be performed.
A dental laboratory and a dentist who engages in dental laboratory services and who fabricates any full upper or full lower set of prosthetic dentures shall affix upon the dentures, in a nonremovable manner, the name of the patient for whom the dentures are made and the initials of the dentist’s state of practice and license identification number.
The board may review the dental laboratory services of a dental laboratory on a random and general basis without any requirement of a formal complaint or suspicion of impropriety.”