Source: http://eddoctor24h.com/c/casas.sr1.html
Timestamp: 2018-10-15 15:46:52
Document Index: 540018897

Matched Legal Cases: ['arts 7', 'art 2', 'art 1', 'arts 5', 'art 1', 'art 6', 'art 3', 'art 2', 'art 2', 'art 2', 'art 3', 'art 1', 'art 6', 'art 2', 'art 9', 'art 6', 'art 1', 'art 1', 'art 1', 'art 1', 'art 8', 'art 1', 'art 5', 'art 1', 'art 5', 'art 8', 'art 1', 'ART 1', 'art%201']

Note: The table of amendments begins with Version 5.0 as the baseline. Version 5.0 replaced Version 4.0 in its entirety. November 2014
1.1.1.1 RULES OF CONSTRUCTION
Throughout these regulations the following word usage applies: (1) Shall indicate a mandatory requirement The words "no person may." or "a person may not."mean that no person is required, authorised, or permitted to do an act described in a regulation. May indicates that discretion can be used when performing an act described in a Will indicates an action incumbent upon the Authority. Includes means "includes but is not limited to." Approved means the Authority has reviewed the method, procedure, or policy in question and issued a formal written approval. Acceptable means the Authority has reviewed the method, procedure, or policy and has neither objected to nor approved its proposed use or implementation. Prescribed means the Authority has issued written policy or methodology which imposes either a mandatory requirement, if the written policy or methodology states "shall," or a discretionary requirement if the written policy or methodology states "may." 1.1.1.2 APPLICABILITY
These regulations shall apply to all persons operating or maintaining the following— (1) SURINAME registered aircraft; Aircraft registered in another Contracting State that are operated by a person licensed by SURINAME, and must be maintained in accordance with the standards of the aircraft State of Registry, wherever that maintenance is performed; Aircraft of other Contracting States operating in SURINAME Those regulations addressing persons certificated under any Part of these regulations apply also to any person who engages in an operation governed by any Part of these regulations without the appropriate certificate, licence, operations specification, or similar document required as part of the Regulations addressing general matters establish minimum standards for all aircraft operated in SURINAME. Specific standards applicable to the holder of a certificate shall apply if they conflict with a more general regulation. Foreign air operators who conduct commercial air transport into, from, or within SURINAME, shall be governed by the provisions of the Operations Specification issued by the Authority, and by those provisions in Parts 7, 8, and 10 that specifically address commercial air transport. Regulations that address AOC holders apply only to operators certificated by SURINAME. Version 5.0
1.1.1.3 ORGANISATION OF REGULATIONS
These regulations are subdivided into five hierarchical categories: (1) Part refers to the primary subject area. Subpart refers to any subdivision of a Part. Section refers to any subdivision of a Subpart. Subsection refers to the title of a regulation and can be a subdivision of a Subpart or Paragraph refers to the text describing the regulations. All paragraphs are outlined alphanumerically in the following hierarchical order: (a), (1), (i), (A). Acronyms used within each Part are defined at the beginning of those Parts, and if a definition is supplied, a note will indicate the Part where the definition is located. Notes appear in Subsections to provide exceptions, explanations, and examples to individual Regulations may refer to Implementing Standards, which provide additional detailed requirements that support the purpose of the subsection, and unless otherwise indicated, have the legal force and effect of the referring regulation. The rules of construction, Subsection 1.1.1.1, apply to Implementing Standards. 1.2 GENERAL ADMINISTRATIVE RULES GOVERNING TESTING, LICENCES, AND
1.2.1.1 DISPLAY AND INSPECTION OF LICENCES AND CERTIFICATES
Pilot licence: (1) To act as a pilot of a civil aircraft of SURINAME registry, a pilot shall have in his or her physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft a valid pilot licence or special purpose authorisation issued under these regulations. To act as a pilot of a civil aircraft of foreign registry within SURINAME, a pilot shall be the holder of a valid pilot licence, and have the pilot licence in his or her physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft. Flight instructor licence: A person who holds a flight instructor licence shall have that licence, or other documentation acceptable to the Authority, in that person's physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when exercising the privileges of that licence. Other airman licence: A person required by any part of these regulations to have an airman's licence shall have it in their physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft or at the work site when exercising the privileges of that licence. Medical certificate: A person required by any part of these regulations to have a current medical certificate shall have it in their physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft or at the work site when exercising the privileges of that certificate. Approved Training Organisation (ATO) certificate: Each holder of a certificate shall display that certificate in a place in the school that is normally accessible to the public and that is not obscured. Aircraft Certificate of Registration: Each owner or operator of an aircraft shall carry the aircraft certificate of registration on the aircraft and have it available for inspection. November 2014
Aircraft Certificate of Airworthiness: Each owner or operator of an aircraft shall display that certificate in the cabin of the aircraft or at the entrance to the aircraft flight deck. Approved Maintenance Organisation (AMO) Certificate: Each holder of an AMO certificate shall prominently display that certificate in a place accessible to the public in the principal business office Aerial work certificate: Each owner or operator of an aircraft engaged in aerial work shall carry that certificate or a copy of that certificate on the aircraft and have it available for inspection. Air operator certificate: Each owner or operator of an aircraft engaged in commercial air transport shall carry the air operator certificate or a copy of that certificate on the aircraft and have it available for inspection. Inspection of licence: Each person who holds an airman or crewmember licence, medical certificate, or authorisation required by these regulations shall present it for inspection upon a request from— (1) The Authority; or Any national or local law enforcement officer 1.2.1.2 CHANGE OF NAME
A holder of a licence or certificate issued under these regulations may apply to change the name on a licence or certificate. The holder shall include with any such request— (1) The current licence or certificate; and A copy of the marriage licence, court order, or other document verifying the name change The Authority will return to the airman the documents specified in paragraph (a) of this subsection. 1.2.1.3 CHANGE OF ADDRESS
The holder of an airman licence or certificate, or approved training organisation certificate who has made a change in permanent mailing address may not, after 30 days from that date, exercise the privileges of the licence or certificate unless the holder has notified the Authority in writing of the new permanent mailing address, or current residential address if the permanent mailing address includes a post office box number. 1.2.1.4 REPLACEMENT OF A LOST OR DESTROYED AIRMAN LICENCE OR MEDICAL CERTIFICATE OR
KNOWLEDGE TEST REPORT
An applicant who has lost or destroyed one of the following documents issued under these regulations shall request a replacement in writing from the office designated by the Authority: (1) An airman licence A medical certificate A knowledge test report The airman or applicant shall state in the request letter— (1) The name of the airman or applicant; The permanent mailing address, or if the permanent mailing address includes a post office box number, the person's current residential address; The social security number or equivalent national identification number; Version 5.0
The date and place of birth of the airman or applicant; and Any available information regarding the— (i) Grade, number, and date of issuance of the licence, and the ratings, if applicable; Date of the medical examination, if applicable; and Date the knowledge test was taken, if applicable. After receiving a facsimile from the Authority confirming that the lost or destroyed document was issued, an airman may carry the facsimile in lieu of the lost or destroyed document for up to 60 days pending the airman's receipt of a duplicate document 1.2.1.5 FALSIFICATION, REPRODUCTION, OR ALTERATION OF APPLICATIONS, LICENCES,
CERTIFICATES, LOGBOOKS, REPORTS, OR RECORDS
No person may make or cause to be made concerning any licence, certificate, rating, qualification, or authorisation, application for or duplicate thereof, issued under these regulations: (1) Any fraudulent or intentionally false statement; Any fraudulent or intentionally false entry in any logbook, record, or report that these regulations require, or used to show compliance with any requirement of these Any reproduction for fraudulent purpose; or Any person who commits any act prohibited under paragraph (a) of this section may have his or her airman licence, rating, certificate, qualification, or authorisation revoked or suspended. 1.2.1.6 VOLUNTARY SURRENDER OR EXCHANGE OF LICENCE
The holder of a licence or certificate issued under these regulations may voluntarily surrender it for: (1) Issuance of a lower grade licence; or Another licence with specific ratings deleted. An applicant requesting voluntary surrender of a licence shall include the following signed statement or its equivalent: "This request is made for my own reasons, with full knowledge that my (insert name of licence or rating, as appropriate) may not be reissued to me unless I again pass the tests prescribed for its issuance." 1.2.1.7 PROHIBITION ON PERFORMANCE DURING MEDICAL DEFICIENCY
A person who holds a current medical certificate issued under these regulations shall not act in a capacity for which that medical certificate is required while that person: (1) Knows or has reason to know of any medical condition that would make the person unable to meet the requirements for the required medical certificate; or Is taking medication or receiving other treatment for a medical condition that results in the person being unable to meet the requirements for the required medical certificate. November 2014
1.2.1.8 PSYCHOACTIVE SUBSTANCE TESTING AND REPORTING
Any person who performs any function requiring a licence, rating, qualification, or authorisation prescribed by these regulations directly or by contract for a certificate holder under the provisions of these regulations may be tested for usage of psychoactive substances. Chemicals considered psychoactive substances are listed in IS 1.2.1.8. Any person subject to these regulations who refuses to submit to a test to indicate the percentage by weight of alcohol in the blood, when requested by a law enforcement officer or the Authority, or refuses to furnish or to authorise the release of the test results requested by the Authority may— (1) Be denied any licence, certificate, rating, qualification, or authorisation issued under these regulations for a period of up to 1 year after the date of that refusal; or Have his or her licence, certificate, rating, qualification, or authorisation issued under these regulations suspended or revoked. Any person subject to these regulations who refuses to submit to a test to indicate the presence of narcotic drugs, marijuana, or depressant or stimulant drugs or substances in the body, when requested by a law enforcement officer or the Authority, or refuses to furnish or to authorise the release of the test results requested by the Authority may— (1) Be denied any licence, certificate, rating, qualification, or authorisation issued under these regulations for a period of up to 1 year after the date of that refusal; or Have his or her licence, certificate, rating, qualification, or authorisation issued under these regulations suspended or revoked. Any person subject to these regulations who is convicted for the violation of any local or national statute relating to the growing, processing, manufacture, sale, disposition, possession, transportation, or importation of narcotic drugs, marijuana, or depressant or stimulant drugs or substances, may— (1) Be denied any licence, certificate, rating, qualification, or authorisation issued under these regulations for a period of up to 1 year after the date of final conviction; or Have his or her licence, certificate, rating, qualification, or authorisation issued under these regulations suspended or revoked. Version 5.0
1.3 INVESTIGATIVE AND ENFORCEMENT PROCEDURES
1.3.1.1 REPORTS OF VIOLATIONS
Any person who knows of a violation of the Civil Aviation Safety and Security ACT or these regulations or orders thereunder should report it to the Authority. Each report made under this section together with any other information the Authority may have that is relevant to the matter reported will be reviewed by the Authority to determine the nature and type of any additional investigation or enforcement action the Authority will take. 1.3.1.2 INVESTIGATIONS—GENERAL
Under the Civil Aviation Safety and Security ACT, the Director CASAS may conduct investigations, hold hearings, issue subpoenas, require the production of relevant document, records, and property, and take evidence and depositions. 1.3.1.3 FORMAL COMPLAINTS
Complaints submitted to the Authority under section 1.3.1.1(a) shall be in a form and manner prescribed by the Authority. ADMINISTRATIVE ACTION
If it is determined that a violation or an alleged violation of the Civil Aviation Safety and Security Act, or an order or regulation issued under it, is appropriate for administrative action, the Authority may take administrative action by one of the following: (1) A "Warning Notice" that shall recite available facts and information about the incident or condition and indicate that it may have been a violation; or A "Letter of Correction" which confirms the Authority's decision in the matter and states the necessary corrective action the alleged violator has taken or agreed to take. If the agreed corrective action is not fully completed, formal certificate action may be taken in accordance with 1.3.3.3. An administrative action under this section does not constitute a formal adjudication of the matter. LEGAL ENFORCEMENT ACTIONS
Note: IS 1.3.3 contains a sample of a sanction guidance table which can be modified to conform to the
penalty provisions in the Civil Aviation Act and to reflect the CASAS enforcement policy. November 2014
1.3.3.1 CERTIFICATE ACTION
Suspension or revocation of a licence or certificate for violation of the regulations (1) The holder of any licence or certificate issued under these regulations who violates any provision of the Civil Aviation Safety and Security Act, as amended, or any regulation or order issued there under, is subject to suspension or revocation of the licence or certificate. Any licence or certificate issued under these regulations ceases to be effective, if it is surrendered, suspended, or revoked. The holder of any licence or certificate issued under these regulations that has been suspended or revoked shall return that licence to the Authority when requested to do so by the Authority. Re-examination or re-inspection of a certificate or licence for lack of qualification (1) Under the Civil Aviation Safety and Security Act, the Authority may re-inspect any civil aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, air operator, school, or approved maintenance organisation, or any civil airman holding a certificate or licence issued under If, as a result of that re-inspection or re-examination, or any other investigation made by the Authority, the Authority determines that a lack of qualification exists, and that safety in air transport and the public interest requires it, the Authority may issue an order to amend, modify, suspend, or revoke the licence or certificate in whole or in part. Procedures for the re-examination of personnel licences, ratings, authorisations, or certificates are set forth in Part 2 of these Regulations. Notice and opportunity to be heard. Unless safety in air transport requires immediate action, prior to a final determination under this section 1.3.3, the Authority shall provide the person with an opportunity to be heard as to why such certificate or licence should not be amended, modified, suspended, or revoked. Reapplication after revocation. Unless otherwise authorised by the Authority, a person whose licence, certificate, rating, or authorisation has been revoked may not apply for any licence, certificate, rating, or authorisation for 1 year after the date of revocation. Reapplication after suspension. Unless otherwise authorised by the Authority, a person whose licence has been suspended may not apply for any licence, rating, or authorisation during the period of suspension. Version 5.0
1.4.1.1 APPLICABILITY
This subpart prescribes procedures for the request, review, and denial or issuance of exemptions from these Regulations. Any interested person may apply to the Authority for an exemption from these Regulations. Only the Authority may issue exemptions, and no person may take or cause to be taken any action not in compliance with these Regulations unless the Authority has issued an applicable exemption Exemptions will only be granted in extraordinary circumstances. REQUIREMENTS FOR APPLICATION
1.4.3.1 GENERAL
Applications for an exemption should be submitted at least 60 days in advance of the proposed effective date, to obtain timely review. The request must contain the applicant's: (1) Street address and mailing address, if different. Telephone number Fax number if available. Email address if available. Agent for all purposes related to the application. If the applicant is not a citizen or legal resident of SURINAME, the application must specify a SURINAME agent for service. 1.4.3.2 SUBSTANCE OF THE REQUEST FOR EXEMPTION
Applications must contain the following: (1) A citation of the specific requirement from which the applicant seeks relief; Description of the type of operations to be conducted under the proposed exemption; The proposed duration of the exemption; An explanation of how the exemption would be in the public interest, that is, benefit the public as a whole. A detailed description of the alternative means by which the applicant will ensure a level of safety equivalent to that established by the Regulation in question A review and discussion of any known safety concerns with the requirement, including information about any relevant accidents or incidents of which the applicant is aware November 2014
If the applicant seeks to operate under the proposed exemption outside of SURINAME airspace, the application must also indicate whether the exemption would contravene any provision of the Standards and Recommended Practices of the International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO). If the applicant seeks emergency processing, the application must contain supporting facts and reasons that the application was not timely filed, and the reasons it is an emergency. The Authority may deny an application if the Authority finds that the applicant has not justified the failure to apply in a timely fashion. REVIEW, PUBLICATION, AND ISSUE OR DENIAL OF THE EXEMPTION
1.4.4.1 INITIAL REVIEW BY THE AUTHORITY
The Authority will review the application for accuracy and compliance with the requirements of If the application appears on its face to satisfy the provisions of 1.4.3 and the Authority determines that a review of its merits is justified, the Authority will publish a detailed summary of the application for comment and specify the date by which comments must be received by the Authority for consideration. If the filing requirements of 1.4.3 have not been met, the Authority will notify the applicant and take no further action until the applicant complies with the requirements of 1.4.3. 1.4.4.2 EVALUATION OF THE REQUEST
After initial review, if the filing requirements have been satisfied, the Authority shall conduct an evaluation of the request to include: (1) A determination of whether an exemption would be in the public interest; A determination, after a technical evaluation, of whether the applicant's proposal would provide a level of safety equivalent to that established by the Regulation; (i) If it appears to the Authority that a technical evaluation of the request would impose a significant burden on the Authority's technical resources, the Authority may deny the exemption on that basis. A determination, if the applicant seeks to operate under the exemption outside of SURINAME airspace, of whether a grant of the exemption would contravene the applicable ICAO Standards and Recommended Practices. An evaluation of comments received from interested parties concerning the proposed A recommendation, based on the preceding elements, of whether the request should be granted or denied, and of any conditions or limitations that should be part of the exemption. 1.4.4.3 NOTIFICATION OF DETERMINATION
The Authority shall notify the applicant by letter and publish a detailed summary of its evaluation and decision to grant or deny the request. The summary shall specify the duration of the exemption and any conditions or limitations to the exemption. If the request is for emergency relief, the Authority will publish the application and/or the Authority's decision as soon as possible after processing the application. Version 5.0
If the exemption affects a significant population of the aviation community of SURINAME the Authority shall also publish the summary in its aeronautical information publications. 1.4.4.4 EXTENSION OF THE EXEMPTION TO OTHER INTERESTED PARTIES
If the Authority determines that an exemption should be granted, other persons or organisations may apply to the Authority to be included in the relief granted. Such applications shall be in accordance with the requirements of 1.4.3. If the Authority determines that the request merits extension of the exemption to the applicant, it shall notify the applicant by letter, specifying the duration of the exemption, and listing any additional conditions that may pertain to the applicant that are not addressed in the underlying November 2014
Note: All definitions used in these regulations have been moved to this subsection for ease of reference. Definitions that are predominately used in specific Parts remain in those Parts for each of reference when using a particular Part. Definitions in this Part use the ICAO definition, where available. Where ICAO uses a same term but with different definitions among the Annexes, all ICAO definitions are noted. For the purpose of these regulations, the following definitions shall apply: (1) Accelerate-stop distance available (ASDA). The length of the take-off run available
plus the length of stopway, if provided. Acceptable. A rule of construction in Part 1.1.1.1 (a)(7) that means the Authority has
reviewed the method, procedure, or policy and has neither objected to nor approved its proposed use or implementation. Acceptance checklist. A document used to assist in carrying out a check on the
external appearance of packages of dangerous goods and their associated documents to determine that all appropriate requirements have been met. Accident. Definition used in a safety management context. An occurrence associated
with the operations of an aircraft which, in the case of a manned aircraft, takes place
between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight until such time as all such persons have disembarked, or in the case of an unmanned aircraft, takes place between the time the aircraft is ready to move with the purpose of flight until such time as it comes to rest at the end of the flight and the primary propulsion system is shut down, in which: (i) a person is fatally or seriously injured as a result of: being in the aircraft, or direct contact with any part of the aircraft, including parts which have become detached from the aircraft, or direct exposure to jet blast, except when the injuries are from natural causes, self-inflicted or inflicted by other persons, or when the injuries are to stowaways hiding outside the areas normally available to the passengers and crew; or the aircraft sustains damage or structural failure which: adversely affects the structural strength, performance or flight characteristics of the aircraft, and would normally require major repair or replacement of the affected component, except for engine failure or damage, when the damage is limited to a single engine, (including its cowlings or accessories), to propellers, wing tips, antennas, probes, vanes, tires, brakes, wheels, fairings, panels, landing gear doors, windscreens, the aircraft skin (such as small dents or puncture holes), or for minor damages to main rotor blades, tail rotor blades, landing gear, and those resulting from hail or bird strike (including holes in the radome); or the aircraft is missing or is completely inaccessible. Note 1: For statistical uniformity only, an injury resulting in death within thirty days of the date of the accident is classified, by ICAO, as a fatal injury. Note 2: An aircraft is considered to be missing when the official search has been terminated and the wreckage has not been located. Note 3: The type of unmanned aircraft system to be investigated is addressed in 5.1 of Annex 13. Version 5.0
Note 4: Guidance for the determination of aircraft damage can be found in Attachment F of Annex 13. Accountable manager. The person acceptable to the Authority who has corporate
authority for ensuring that all activities can be financed and carried out to the standard
required by the Authority, and any additional requirements defined by the operator. The accountable manager may delegate in writing to another person within the organisation, the day to day management but not the overall approval management responsibility. Accredited medical conclusion. The conclusion reached by one or more medical
experts acceptable to the Licensing Authority for the purposes of the case concerned, in consultation with flight operations or other experts as necessary. Accredited representative. As relating to an aircraft accident, a person designated by a
State, on the basis of his or her qualifications, for the purpose of participating in an investigation conducted by another party. Acrobatic flight. Manoeuvres intentionally performed by an aircraft involving an abrupt
change in its attitude, an abnormal attitude, or an abnormal variation in speed.
Acts of unlawful interference. These are acts or attempted acts such as to jeopardise
the safety of civil aviation and transport, i.e., : (i) Unlawful seizure of aircraft in flight Unlawful seizure of aircraft on the ground, Hostage-taking on board an aircraft or on aerodromes, Forcible intrusion on board an aircraft, at an airport or on the premises of an aeronautical facility, Introduction on board an aircraft or at an airport of a weapon or hazardous device or material intended for criminal purposes, Communication of false information as to jeopardize the safety of an aircraft in flight or on the ground, of passengers, crew, ground personnel or the general public, at an airport or on the premises of a civil aviation facility. ADS agreement. An ADS reporting plan that establishes the conditions of ADS data
reporting (i.e., data required by the air traffic services or control unit and frequency of ADS reports that have to be agreed to prior to the provision of the ADS services). Advisor. As relating to an aircraft accident, a person appointed by a State on the basis of
his or her qualifications, for the purpose of assisting its accredited representative in an investigation. (ICAO Annex 13) Advisory airspace. An airspace of defined dimensions, or designated route, within which
air traffic advisory service is available. Advisory route. A designated route along which air traffic advisory service is available.
Aerial work. An aircraft operation in which an aircraft is used for specialised services
such as agriculture, construction, photography, surveying, observation and patrol, search and rescue, aerial advertisement, etc. Aerodrome. A defined area on land or water (including any buildings, installations and
equipment) intended to be used either wholly or in part for the arrival, departure and surface movement of aircraft. November 2014
Aerodrome control tower. A unit established to provide air traffic control service to
aerodrome traffic. Aerodrome operating minima. The limits of usability of an aerodrome for:
Takeoff, expressed in terms of runway visual range and/or visibility and, if necessary, cloud conditions; Landing in 2D instrument approach operations, expressed in terms of visibility and/or runway visual range, minimum descent altitude/height (MDA/H), and, if necessary, cloud conditions; and, Landing in 3D instrument approach operations, expressed in terms of visibility and/or runway visual range and decision altitude/height (DA/H) as appropriate to the type and/or category of operation. Aerodrome traffic zone. An airspace of defined dimensions established around an
aerodrome for the protection of aerodrome traffic. Aeronautical experience. Pilot time obtained in an aircraft, approved flight simulation
training device for meeting the training and flight time requirements of these regulations. Aeronautical product. Any aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller, or subassembly,
appliance, material, part, or component to be installed thereon. Aeroplane. A power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving its lift in flight chiefly from
aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain fixed under given conditions of flight. Aeroplane flight manual. A manual, associated with the certificate of airworthiness,
containing limitations within which the aeroplane is to be considered airworthy, and instructions and information necessary to the flight crew members of the safe operation of Agricultural aircraft operation. The operation of an aircraft for the purpose of—
Dispensing any economic poison; Dispensing any other substance intended for plant nourishment, soil treatment, propagation of plant life, or pest control; or Engaging in dispensing activities directly affecting agriculture, horticulture, or forest preservation, but not including the dispensing of live insects. Aided night flight. For a flight in which a pilot uses night vision goggles, the portion of
the flight in which the pilot uses night vision goggles to maintain visual surface reference. Air navigation facility. Any facility used in, available for use in, or designed for use in
aid of air navigation, including aerodromes, landing areas, lights, any apparatus or equipment for disseminating weather information, for signalling, for radio directional finding, or for radio or other electrical communication, and any other structure or mechanism having a similar purpose for guiding or controlling flight in the air or the landing and takeoff of aircraft. Air operator. Any organisation which undertakes to engage in domestic commercial air
transport or international commercial air transport, whether directly or indirectly or by a lease or any other arrangement. (Law) Version 5.0
Air operator certificate (AOC). A certificate authorising an operator to carry out
specified commercial air transport operations. Air traffic. All aircraft in flight or operating on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome.
Air traffic control clearance. Authorisation for an aircraft to proceed under conditions
specified by an air traffic control unit. Note: For convenience, the term "air traffic control clearance" is frequently abbreviated to "clearance" when used in appropriate context. The abbreviated term "clearance" may be prefixed by the words: taxi, takeoff, departure, en route, approach or landing, to indicate the particular portion of flight to which the air traffic control clearance relates. Air traffic control (ATC) facility. A building holding the persons and equipment
responsible for providing ATC services (e.g., airport tower, approach control, centre). May also be called air traffic control unit. Air traffic control service. A service provided within advisory airspace that promotes the
safe, orderly, and expeditious flow and separation of air traffic at aerodromes and during the approach, departure, and en route environments including aircraft that are operating on IFR flight plans. Also can be called air traffic advisory service or air traffic service Air traffic service (ATS). See Air traffic control service.
Air traffic services airspaces. Airspaces of defined dimensions, alphabetically
designated, within which specific types of flights may operate and for which air traffic services and rules of operation are specified. Note: ATS airspaces are classified as Class A to G. Air traffic services reporting office. A unit established for the purpose of receiving
reports concerning air traffic services and flight plans submitted before departure. Note: An air traffic services reporting office may be established as a separate unit or combined with an existing unit, such as another air traffic services unit, or a unit of the aeronautical information service. Airborne image recorder (AIR). A device that uses a combination of cameras to collect
and record information that reflects the status of various parts of the aircraft (internal and external). Source: EUROCAE ED-112 "Minimum Operational Performance Specification for Crash Protected Airborne Recorder Systems," March 2003, paragraph 1-1.5.1. Note: FAA definition of AIR: Equipment intended to record aircraft flight images and store the data in crash-protected memory to assist in accident or incident investigations. Source: FAA TSO-C176 "Aircraft Cockpit Image recorder Systems," 7/28/2006, paragraph Aircraft. Any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from the reactions of
the air other than the reactions of the air against the earth's surface.
Aircraft accident. An occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which takes
place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight until such time as all such persons have disembarked, in which: (i) A person is fatally or seriously injured as a result of— (A) Being in the aircraft; November 2014
Direct contact with any part of the aircraft, including parts which have become detached from the aircraft; or Direct exposure to jet blast, except when the injuries are from natural causes, self-inflicted or inflicted by other persons, or when the injuries are to stowaways hiding outside the areas normally available to the passengers and crew. The aircraft sustains damage or structural failure which adversely affects the structural strength, performance or flight characteristics of the aircraft, and would normally require major repair or replacement of the affected component, except for engine failure or damage, when the damage is limited to the engine, its cowlings or accessories; or for damage limited to propellers, wing tips, antennas, tires, brakes, fairings, small dents or puncture holes in the aircraft skin; or the aircraft is missing or is completely inaccessible. Note 1 – For statistical uniformity only, an injury resulting in death within thirty days of the date of the date of the accident is classified as a fatal injury by ICAO. Note 2 – An aircraft is considered to be missing when the official search has been terminated and the wreckage has not been located. Aircraft avionics. A term designating any electronic device, including its electrical part,
for use in an aircraft, including radio, automatic flight control and instrument systems. Aircraft category. Classification of aircraft according to specified basic characteristics,
e.g. aeroplane, helicopter, glider, free balloon, airship, powered-lift.
Aircraft certificated for single-pilot operation. A type of aircraft which the State of
Registry has determined, during the certification process, can be operated safely with a minimum crew of one pilot. Aircraft certificated for multi-pilot operation. A type of aircraft which the State of
Registry has determined, during the certification process, can be operated safely with a
minimum crew of two pilots. Aircraft component. Any component part of an aircraft up to and including a complete
powerplant and/or any operational/emergency equipment. Aircraft data recording system. A device or devices that use a combination of data
providers to collect and record parameters that reflect the state and performance of an
aircraft. Source: EUROCAE ED-155 "Minimum Performance Specification for Lightweight Flight Recording Systems," July 2009, paragraph 1-1.5.1 Aircraft engine. Any engine used, or intended to be used, for propulsion of aircraft and
includes all parts, appurtenances, and accessories thereof other than propellers. Aircraft operating manual. A manual, acceptable to the State of the Operator,
containing normal, abnormal and emergency procedures, checklists, limitations,
performance information, details of the aircraft systems, and other material relevant to the operation of the aircraft Note - The aircraft operating manual is part of the operations manual. Aircraft piracy. Any actual or attempted seizure or exercise of control, by force or
violence, or by any other form of intimidation, with wrongful intent, of an aircraft within the
jurisdiction of SURINAME. Version 5.0
Aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot. A type of aircraft that is required to be
operated with a co-pilot as specified in the flight manual or by the air operator certificate. Aircraft technical log. Documentation for an aircraft that includes the maintenance
record for the aircraft and a record for each flight made by the aircraft. The aircraft
technical log is comprised of a journey records section and a maintenance section. Aircraft-type of. All aircraft of the same basic design including all modifications thereto
except those modifications which result in a change in handling or flight characteristics. Airframe. The fuselage, booms, nacelles, cowlings, fairings, airfoil surfaces (including
rotors but excluding propellers and rotating airfoils of a powerplant), and landing gear of an aircraft and their accessories and controls. Airman. This term refers to—
Any individual who engages, as the person in command or as pilot, mechanic, or member of the crew, or who navigates an aircraft while the aircraft is underway; Any individual in charge of the inspection, maintenance, overhauling, or repair of aircraft, and any individual in charge of the inspection, maintenance, overhauling, or repair of aircraft, aircraft engines, propellers, or appliances; or Any individual who serves in the capacity of flight operations officer. Airmanship. The consistent use of good judgement and well-developed knowledge,
skills and attitudes to accomplish flight objectives. Airship. A power-driven lighter than air aircraft.
Airworthiness approval tag (CAA form). A tag (Model CAA Form AAT) that may be
attached to a part. The tag must include the part number, serial number, and current life status of the part. Each time the part is removed from a type certificated product, a new tag must be created or the existing tag must be updated with the current life status. The Model CAA Form AAT has two distinct purposes – (1) as a certification of release to service of a part, component or assembly after maintenance, preventive maintenance, overhaul or rebuilding, and (2) for shipping of a newly manufactured part. Airworthiness data. Any information necessary to ensure that an aircraft or aircraft
component can be maintained in a condition such that airworthiness of the aircraft, or serviceability of operational and emergency equipment, as appropriate, is assured. Airworthiness directive. Continuing airworthiness information that applies to the
following products: aircraft, aircraft engines, propellers, and appliances. An airworthiness directive is mandatory if issued by the State of Design. Airworthiness release. The air operator's aircraft are released for service following
maintenance by a person specifically authorised by the air operator rather than by an individual or maintenance organisation on their own behalf. Note: An airworthiness release is not the same as a maintenance release or a maintenance return to service as described in Parts 5 and 6. Regarding the airworthiness release, in effect, the person signing the release acts in the capacity of an authorised agent for the operator and is certifying that the maintenance covered by the release was accomplished according to the air operator's continuous maintenance programme. Normally, a release is required following inspections prescribed by the air operator's operations specifications and maintenance activities involving inspections, and any other November 2014
significant maintenance. A copy of the airworthiness release must be given to the pilot in command before the aircraft commences operations. In addition, the air operator should designate when an airworthiness release is required. The air operator is obligated to designate, by name or occupational title, each licensed AMT or maintenance organisation authorised to execute the airworthiness release. In addition, the air operator should designate when an airworthiness release is required. Airworthy. The status of an aircraft, engine, propeller or part when it conforms to its
approved design and is in a condition for safe operation Alteration. The alteration of an aircraft/aeronautical product in conformity with an
Alerting service. A service provided to notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft
in need of search and rescue aid, and assist such organisations as required. Alternate aerodrome. An aerodrome to which an aircraft may proceed when it becomes
either impossible or inadvisable to proceed to or land at the aerodrome of intended landing. Alternate aerodromes include the following: (i) Takeoff alternate. An alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft can land should this become necessary shortly after takeoff and it is not possible to use the aerodrome of departure. En-route alternate. An aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land after experiencing an abnormal or emergency condition en route. Destination alternate. An alternate aerodrome to which an aircraft may proceed should it become either impossible or inadvisable to land at the aerodrome of intended landing. Note: The aerodrome from which a flight departs may also be an en-route or a destination alternate aerodrome for that flight. Alternate means of compliance. A pre-approved manner of achieving regulatory
compliance that has been determined to be an acceptable substitute to the regulatory requirements. Note: An example of alternate means of compliance would be the CAA's approval of reduced flight time from 40 hours to 35 hours for a PPL(A) when training is conducted in an Approved Training Organisation. Alternative means of compliance. An approved alternative from those prescribed
approaches that has been demonstrated to consistently achieve or exceed the desired outcomes as intended through regulation. Altimetry system error (ASE). The difference between the altitude indicted by the
altimeter display, assuming a correct altimeter barometric setting, and the pressure altitude corresponding to the undisturbed ambient pressure. Altitude. The vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point,
measured from mean sea level (MSL). Annexes to the Chicago Convention. The documents issued by the International Civil
Aviation Organisation (ICAO) containing the Standards and Recommended Practices applicable to civil aviation. Version 5.0
Anticipated operating conditions. Those conditions which are envisaged to occur
during the operation life of the aircraft taking into account the operations for which the aircraft is made eligible, the conditions so considered being relative to the meteorological state of the atmosphere, to the configuration of terrain, to the functioning of the aircraft, to the efficiency of personnel and to all the factors affecting safety in flight. Anticipated operating conditions do not include: (i) Those extremes which can be effectively avoided by means of operating Those extremes which occur so infrequently that to require the Standards to be met in such extremes would give a higher level of airworthiness that experience has shown to be necessary and practical. Appliances. Instruments, equipment, apparatus, parts, appurtenances, or accessories,
of whatever description, which are used, or are capable of being or intended to be used, in the navigation, operation, or control of aircraft in flight (including parachutes and including communication equipment and any other mechanism or mechanisms installed in or attached to aircraft during flight), and which are not part or parts of aircraft, aircraft engines, or propellers. Approach control service. Air traffic control service for arriving or departing controlled
Approach control unit. A unit established to provide air traffic control service to
controlled flights arriving at, or departing from, one or more aerodromes.
Appropriate ATS or ATC authority. The relevant authority designated by SURINAME
responsible for providing air traffic services in the airspace concerned. Appropriate airworthiness requirements. The comprehensive and detailed
airworthiness codes established, adopted or accepted by a Contracting State for the class of aircraft, engine or propeller under consideration. Appropriate authority.
Regarding flight over the high seas: The relevant authority of the State of Regarding flight other than over the high seas: The relevant authority of the State having sovereignty over the territory being overflown. Approval for return to service. See maintenance release.
Approved. A rule of construction in Part 1.1.1.1 (a)(6) that means the Authority has
reviewed the method, procedure, or policy in question and issued a formal written Approved by the Authority. Approved by the Authority directly or in accordance with a
procedure approved by the Authority.
Approved continuous maintenance programme. A maintenance programme approved
by the State of Registry. Approved curriculum. A set of special training courses in an area of specialization
offered by an ATO which is approved by the Authority. Approved data. Technical information approved by the Authority.
Approved maintenance organisation (AMO). An organisation approved by the
Authority, in accordance with MCAR Part 6, to perform specific aircraft maintenance activities by the Authority. These activities may include the inspection, overhaul, maintenance, repair and/or modification and release to service of aircraft or aeronautical Approved standard. A manufacturing, design, maintenance, or quality standard
approved by the Authority. Approved training. Training carried out under special curricula and supervision
approved by the Authority. Approved training organisation (ATO). An organisation approved by the Authority, in
accordance with MCAR Part 3, to perform flight crew training and other training approved by the Authority. Apron. A defined area, on a land aerodrome, intended to accommodate aircraft for
purposes of loading or unloading passengers, mail or cargo, fueling, parking or maintenance. Area control centre. A unit established to provide air traffic control service to controlled
flights in control areas under its jurisdiction. Area control service. Air traffic control service for controlled flights in control areas.
Area navigation (RNAV). A method of navigation that permits aircraft operations on any
desired flight path within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids or within the limits of the capability of self-contained aids, or a combination of these. Note - Area navigation includes performance-based navigation as well as other operations that do not meet the definitions of performance-based navigation. Article. Any item, including but not limited to, an aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine,
propeller, appliance, accessory, assembly, subassembly, system, subsystem, component, unit, product, or part. ATS or ATC route. A specified route designed for channelling the flow of air traffic as
necessary for the provision of air traffic services, defined by route specifications that include an ATS or ATC route designator, the track to or from significant points (way points), distance between significant points, reporting requirements, and as determined by the appropriate ATS or ATC authority, the lowest safe altitude. Note: The term "ATS" or "ATC" route is used to mean variously, airway, advisory route, controlled or uncontrolled route, arrival or departure route. Authorised instructor. A person who—
Holds a valid ground instructor certificate issued under Part 2 when conducting ground training; Holds a current flight instructor certificate issued under Part 2 when conducting ground training or flight training; or Is authorised by the Authority to provide ground training or flight training under Part 2 and Part 3. Authority. The Civil Aviation Safety Authority Suriname (CASAS) responsible for the
safety and security oversight of civil aviation in SURINAME.
Automatic dependent surveillance (ADS). A surveillance technique in which aircraft
automatically provide, via a data link, data derived from on-board navigation and position- fixing systems, including aircraft identification, four-dimensional position and additional data as appropriate. Automatic dependent surveillance – broadcast (ADS-B). A means by which aircraft,
aerodrome vehicles and other objects can automatically transmit and/or receive data such as identification, position and additional data, as appropriate, in a broadcast mode via a Automatic dependent surveillance – contract (ADS-C). A means by which the terms
of an ADS-C agreement will be exchanged between the ground system and the aircraft,
via a data link, specifying under what conditions ADS-C reports would be initiated, and what data would be contained in the reports. Note. The abbreviated term "ADS contract" is commonly used to refer to ADS event contract, ADS periodic contract or an emergency mode. Aviation Medical examiner. A physician with training in aviation medicine and practical
knowledge and experience of the aviation environment, who is designated by the Authority to conduct medical examinations of fitness of applicants for licences or ratings for which medical requirements are prescribed. Balloon. A non-power-driven lighter-than-air aircraft.
Banner. An advertising medium supported by a temporary framework attached externally
to the aircraft and towed behind the aircraft.
(100) Cabin crew member. A crew member who performs, in the interest of safety of
passengers, duties assigned by the operator or the pilot-in-command of the aircraft, but who shall not act as a flight crew member. Note: Cabin crew may or may not be licensed by the Authority. (101) Calendar day. The period of elapsed time, using Co-ordinated Universal Time or local
time, that begins at midnight and ends 24 hours later in the next midnight. (102) Calendar month. A period of a month beginning and ending with the dates that are
conventionally accepted as marking the beginning and end of a numbered month (as January 1 through January 31 in the Gregorian calendar). (103) Calendar year. A period of a year beginning and ending with the dates that are
conventionally accepted as marking the beginning and end of a numbered year (as January 1 through December 31 in the Gregorian calendar). (104) Calibration. A set of operations, performed in accordance with a definite documented
procedure that compares the measurement performed by a measurement device or working standard with a recognised bureau of standards for the purpose of detecting and reporting or eliminating adjustment errors in the measurement device, working standard, or aeronautical product tested. (105) Cargo aircraft. Any aircraft carrying goods or property but not passengers. In this
context the following are not considered to be passengers: (i) An operator's employee permitted by, and carried in accordance with, the instructions contained in the Operations Manual. November 2014
An authorised representative of an Authority. A person with duties in respect of a particular shipment on board. (106) Causes. As relating to an aircraft accident or incident, actions, omissions, events,
conditions, or a combination thereof which led to the accident or incident. (ICAO Annex (107) Ceiling. The height above the ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud
below 6,000 metres (20,000 feet) covering more than half the sky. (108) Certificate of Airworthiness. A certificate, issued by the State of Registry, when the
aircraft has been deemed fit and safe for flight and in conformity with the type design approved by the State of Design and maintained in accordance with the continuing airworthiness requirements of the State of Registry. Note: Definition of Certificate of Airworthiness is developed by using primarily the definition of Transport Canada with additional ICAO material. (109) Certify as airworthy. The act of completing a maintenance release by a properly
authorised person after the modification, overhaul, repair or inspection of an aircraft or aeronautical product by which the aircraft or aeronautical part is cleared for use in flight as meeting the requirements of the airworthiness certificate of SURINAME. (110) Certifying staff. Those personnel who are authorised by the Approved Maintenance
Organisation in accordance with a procedure acceptable to the Authority to certify aircraft or aircraft components for release to service. (111) Change-over-point. The point at which an aircraft navigating on an ATC route segment
defined by reference to very high frequency omnidirectional radio ranges is expected to transfer its primary navigational references from the facility behind the aircraft to the next facility ahead of the aircraft. Note: Change-over-points are established to provide the optimum balance in respect of signal strength and quality between facilities at all levels to be used and to ensure a common source of azimuth guidance for all aircraft operating along the same portion of a route segment. (112) Check person. A qualified person who is authorised by the Authority to conduct an
evaluation of either an AOC holders flight crew (pilots, flight engineers, or flight navigators), cabin crew, or flight operations officer. Terms that may be used to describe this person, depending upon responsibilities, are: check pilot, check flight engineer, check flight navigator, check cabin crewmember, and check flight operations officer. Check persons for flight crew may be further authorised to perform checks in either an aircraft or simulator as defined below. (i) Check person(aircraft). A person who is qualified, and authorised by the
Authority, to conduct a flight crew evaluation in an aircraft or in a flight simulation
training device for a particular type aircraft, for a particular AOC holder. Check person (simulator). A person who is qualified, and authorised by the
Authority, to conduct a flight crew evaluation, but only in a flight simulation training device for a particular type aircraft, for a particular AOC holder. Version 5.0
(113) Chicago Convention. ("Convention") The Convention on International Civil Aviation
concluded in Chicago, Illinois, of the United States of America, in 1944, in effect, 1947. The Articles of the Chicago Convention govern the actions of the contracting States in matters of international civil aviation safety directly and through the Annexes to the Convention, which set forth ICAO Standards and Recommended Practices. (114) Citizen of SURINAME. This term refers to one of the following:
An individual who is a citizen of SURINAME; A partnership of which each member is a citizen of SURINAME; or A corporation or association created or organised and authorised under the laws of SURINAME. (115) Civil aircraft. Any aircraft other than a state or public aircraft.
(116) Civil aviation. The operation of any civil aircraft for the purpose of general aviation
operations, aerial work or commercial air transport operations. (Law) (117) Clearance limit. The point to which an aircraft is granted an air traffic control clearance.
(118) Cockpit audio recording system. A device that uses a combination of microphones and
other audio and digital inputs to collect and record the aural environment of the cockpit and communications to, from and between the pilots. Source: EUROCAE ED-155 "Minimum Performance Specification for Lightweight Flight Recording Systems," July 2009, paragraph 1-1.5.1. (119) Command and control link (C2). The data link between the remotely piloted aircraft and
the remote pilot station for the purposes of managing the flight. (120) Commercial air transport operation. An aircraft operation involving the transport of
passengers, cargo or mail for remuneration or hire. (121) Commercial air transport. An aircraft operation involving the public transport of
passengers, cargo, or mail for remuneration or hire. (Part 1) (122) Common mark. A mark assigned by the International Civil Aviation Organisation to the
common mark registering authority registering aircraft of an international operating agency on other than a national basis. (123) Common mark registering authority. The authority maintaining the non-national
register or, where appropriate, the part thereof, in which aircraft of an international operating agency are registered. (124) Competency. A combination of skills, knowledge and attitudes required to perform a task
to the prescribed standard. (125) Competency based training and assessment. Training and assessment that are
characterised by a performance orientation, emphasis on standards of performance and their measurement, and the development of training to the specified performance standards. Note: This training process is derived from a job and task analysis and is focused on the achievement of well-defined, benchmarked standards of performance as opposed to training programmes simply focused upon the acquisition of prescribed levels of experience. (126) Competency element. An action that constitutes a task that has a triggering event and a
terminating event that clearly defines its limits, and an observable outcome. November 2014
(127) Competency unit. A discrete function consisting of a number of competency elements.
(128) Complex aeroplane. An aeroplane that has retractable landing gear, flaps, and a
controllable pitch propeller; or in the case of a seaplane, flaps and a controllable pitch propeller. (129) Composite. Structural materials made of substances, including, but not limited to, wood,
metal, ceramic, plastic, fiber-reinforced materials, graphite, boron, or epoxy, with built-in strengthening agents that may be in the form of filaments, foils, powders, or flakes, of a different material (130) Computer system. Any electronic or automated system capable of receiving, storing,
and processing external data, and transmitting and presenting such data in a usable form for the accomplishment of a specific function. (131) Configuration (as applied to the aeroplane) A particular combination of the positions of
the moveable elements, such as wing flaps and landing gear, etc., that affect the aerodynamic characteristics of the aeroplane. (132) Configuration deviation list (CDL). A list established by the organisation responsible for
the type design with the approval of the State of Design which identifies any external parts of an aircraft type which may be missing at the commencement of a flight, and which contains, where necessary, any information on associated operating limitations and performance correction. (133) Congested area. A city town or settlement, or open air assembly of people.
(134) Congested hostile environment. A hostile environment within a congested area.
(135) Consignment. One or more packages of dangerous goods accepted by an operator from
one shipper at one time and at one address, receipted for in one lot and moving to one consignee at one destination address. (136) Contracting States. All States that are signatories to the Convention on International
Civil Aviation (Chicago Convention). (137) Continuing airworthiness. The set of processes by which an aircraft, engine, propeller
or part complies with the applicable airworthiness requirements and remains in a condition for safe operation throughout its operating life. (138) Continuous descent final approach (CDFA). A technique, consistent with stabilized
approach procedures, for flying the final approach segment of a non-precision instrument approach procedures as a continuous descent, without level-off, from an altitude/height at or above the final approach fix altitude/height to a point approximately 15 m (50 ft) above the landing runway threshold or the point where the flare manoeuvre should begin for the type of aircraft flown. (139) Control area. A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the
(140) Controlled aerodrome. An aerodrome at which air traffic control service is provided to
aerodrome traffic. (141) Controlled airspace. An airspace of defined dimensions within which air traffic control
service is provided in accordance with the airspace classification. Note: Controlled airspace is a generic term that covers ATC or ATS airspace Classes A, B, C, D, and E as described in ICAO Annex 11: 2.6. Version 5.0
(142) Controlled flight. Any flight which is subject to an air traffic control clearance.
(143) Controlled flight into terrain. Occurs when an airworthy aircraft is flown, under the
control of a qualified pilot, into terrain (water or obstacles) with inadequate awareness on the part of the pilot of the impending collision. (144) Controller-pilot data link communications (CPDLC). A means of communication
between controller and pilot, using data link for ATC communications. (145) Control zone. A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a
specified upper limit. (146) Conversion. Conversion is the action taken by SURINAME in issuing its own licence on
the basis of a licence issued by another Contracting State for use on aircraft registered in (147) Co-pilot. A licensed pilot serving in any piloting capacity other than as pilot-in-command
but excluding a pilot who is on board the aircraft for the sole purpose of receiving flight instruction. Note: Co-pilot as here defined is synonymous with the term "second-in-command" or "SIC." (148) Corporate aviation operation. The non-commercial operation or use of aircraft by a
company for the carriage of passengers or goods as an aid to the conduct of company business, flown by (a) professional pilot(s) employed to fly the aircraft. (149) Course. A programme of instruction to teach knowledge, skills and/or competencies in a
particular area or subject, or to maintain existing qualifications. (150) Courseware. Instructional material developed for each course or curriculum, including
lesson plans and other aides such as: computer software programmes, audio-visual programmes, workbooks, and handouts. (151) Credit. Recognition of alternative means or prior qualifications.
(152) Crew member. A person assigned by an operator to duty on an aircraft during a flight
(153) Crew resource management. A programme designed to improve the safety of flight
operations by optimising the safe, efficient, and effective use of human resources, hardware, and information through improved crew communication and co-ordination. (154) Critical engine. The engine whose failure would most adversely affect the performance
or handling qualities of an aircraft. (155) Critical phases of flight. Those portions of operations involving taxiing, takeoff and
landing, and all flight operations below 3050 m (10,000 feet), except cruise flight. (156) Critical power-unit(s) . The power-unit(s) failure of which gives the most adverse effect
on the aircraft characteristics relative to the case under consideration. Note – On some aircraft there may be more than one equally critical power-unit. In this case, the expression "the critical power-unit" means one of those critical power-units. (157) Cross country. A flight between a point of departure and a point of arrival following a
pre-planned route using standard navigation procedures. November 2014
(158) Cross-country time. That time a pilot spends in flight in an aircraft which includes a
landing at a point other than the point of departure and, for the purpose of meeting the cross-country time requirements for a private pilot licence (except with a rotorcraft rating), commercial pilot licence, or an instrument rating, includes a landing at an aerodrome which must be a straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure. (159) Cruise climb. An aeroplane cruising technique resulting in a net increase in altitude as
the aeroplane mass decreases. (160) Cruise relief pilot. A flight crew member who is assigned to perform pilot tasks during
cruise flight to allow the PIC or co-pilot to obtain planned rest. (161) Cruising level. A level maintained during a significant portion of a flight.
(162) Current flight plan. The flight plan, including changes, if any, brought about by
subsequent clearances. (163) Curriculum. A set of courses in an area of specialization offered as part of a training
(164) Danger area. An airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the
flight of the aircraft may exist at specified times. (165) Dangerous goods. Articles or substances which are capable of posing a risk to health,
safety, property or the environment and which are shown in the list of dangerous goods in the ICAO Technical Instructions (see definition below) or which are classified according to those Instructions. Note - Dangerous goods are classified in ICAO Annex 18, Chapter 3. (166) Dangerous goods accident. An occurrence associated with and related to the transport
of dangerous goods which results in fatal or serious injury to a person or major property (167) Dangerous goods incident. An occurrence, other than a dangerous goods accident,
associated with and related to the transport of dangerous goods, not necessarily occurring on board an aircraft, which results in injury to a person, property damage, fire, breakage, spillage, leakage of fluid or radiation or other evidence that the integrity of the packaging has not been maintained. Any occurrence relating to the transport of dangerous goods which seriously jeopardises an aircraft or its occupants is deemed to constitute a dangerous goods incident. (168) Dangerous goods transport document. A document specified by the ICAO Technical
Instructions for the Safe Transportation of Dangerous Goods by Air. It is completed by the person who offers dangerous goods for air transport and contains information about those dangerous goods. The document bears a signed declaration indicating that the dangerous goods are fully and accurately described by their proper shipping names and UN numbers (if assigned) and that they are correctly classified, packed, marked, labelled and in a proper condition for transport. Note: See definition below for Technical Instructions. (169) Data link communications. A form of communication intended for the exchange of
messages via a data link. Version 5.0
(170) Data link recording system. A device that records those messages whereby the flight
path of the aircraft is authorised, controlled directly or indirectly, and which are relayed over a digital data-link rather than by voice communication. Source: EUROCAE ED-155 "Minimum Performance Specification for Lightweight Flight Recording Systems," July 2009, paragraph 1-1.5.1. (171) Deadhead transportation. Time spent in transportation on aircraft (at the insistence of
the AOC holder) to or from a crew member's home station. (172) Decision altitude (DA) or decision height (DH). A specified altitude or height in a 3D
instrument approach operation at which a missed approach must be initiated if the required visual reference to continue the approach has not been established. Note 1: Decision altitude (DA) is referenced to mean sea level and decision height (DH) is referenced to the threshold elevation. Note 2: The required visual reference means that section of the visual aids or of the approach area which should have been in view for sufficient time for the pilot to have made an assessment of the aircraft position and rate of change of position, in relation to the desired flight path. In Category III operations with a decision height that required visual reference is that specified for the particular procedure and operation. Note 3: For convenience where both expressions are used they may be written in the form "decision altitude/height" and abbreviated "DA/H". (173) Defined point after takeoff (DPATO). The point, within the takeoff and initial climb
phase, before which the Class 2 helicopter's ability to continue the flight safely, with one engine inoperative, is not assured and a forced landing may be required. (174) Defined point before landing (DPBL). The point, within the approach and landing
phase, after which the Class 2 helicopter's ability to continue the flight safely, with one engine inoperative, is not assured and a forced landing may be required. (175) Design landing mass. The maximum mass of the aircraft at which, for structural design
purposes, it is assumed that it will be planned to land (176) Design takeoff mass. The maximum mass at which the aircraft, for structural design
purposes, is assumed to be planned to be at the start of the take-off run. (177) Design taxing mass. The maximum mass of the aircraft at which structural provision is
made for load liable to occur during use of the aircraft on the ground prior to the start of (178) Designated Examiner. Any person designated by the Authority to act as a
representative of the Authority in examining, inspecting, and testing persons for the purposes of issuing licences, ratings, or certificates. (179) Detect and avoid. The capability to see, sense or detect conflicting traffic or other
hazards and take the appropriate action. (180) Directly in charge. As applied to an Approved Maintenance Organisation in Part 6 -
Means an appropriately licensed person(s) having the responsibility for the work of an approved maintenance organisation that performs maintenance, preventive maintenance, alterations, or other functions affecting aircraft airworthiness. A person directly in charge does not need to physically observe and direct each worker constantly but must be available for consultation on matters requiring instruction or decision from higher authority. November 2014
(181) Director. The Director of CASAS appointed under the Civil Aviation Safety and Security
(182) Discrete source damage. Structural damage of the aeroplane that is likely to result
from: impact with a bird, uncontained fan blade failure, uncontained engine failure, uncontained high-energy rotating machinery failure or similar causes. (183) Dry lease. The lease of an aircraft without the crew.
(184) Dual instruction time. Flight time during which a person is receiving flight instruction
from a properly authorised pilot on board the aircraft. (185) Duty. Any task that flight or cabin crew members are required by the operator to perform,
including for example, flight duty, administrative work, training, positioning and standby when it is likely to induce fatigue. (186) Duty period. As related to an air operator, a period which starts when flight or cabin crew
personnel are required by an operator to report for or to commence a duty and ends when that person is free from all duties. (187) Duty time. The total time from the moment a person identified in these regulations
begins, immediately after a rest period, any work on behalf of the certificate holder until that person is free from all restraint associated with that work. (188) Economic poison. Any substance or mixture of substances intended for—
Preventing, destroying, repelling, or mitigating any insects, rodents, nematodes, fungi, weeds, and other forms of plant or animal life or viruses, except viruses on or in living human beings or other animals, which the SURINAME may declare to Use as a plant regulator, defoliant or desiccant. (189) Effective length of the runway. The distance for landing from the point at which the
obstruction clearance plane associated with the approach end of the runway intersects the centreline of the runway to the far end. (190) Elevated heliport. A heliport located on a raised structure on land.
(191) Enhanced vision system (EVS). A system to display electronic real-time images of the
external scene achieved through the use of image sensors. (192) Emergency locator transmitter (ELT). A generic term describing equipment which
broadcast distinctive signals on designated frequencies and, depending on application, may be automatically activated by impact or be manually activated. An ELT may be any of the following: (i) Automatic fixed ELT. An automatically activated ELT which is permanently attached to an aircraft. Automatic portable ELT. An automatically activated ELT which is rigidly attached to an aircraft but readily removable from the aircraft. Automatic deployable ELT (ELT(AD)). An ELT which is rigidly attached to an aircraft and which is automatically deployed and activated by impact, and in some cases, also be hydrostatic sensors. Manual deployment is also provided. Survival ELT. An ELT which is removable from an aircraft, stowed so as to facilitate its ready use in an emergency, and manually activated by survivors. Version 5.0
ELT battery useful life. The length of time after its date of manufacture or recharge that the battery or battery pack may be stored under normal environmental conditions without losing its ability to allow the ELT to meet the applicable performance standards. ELT battery expiration date. The date of battery manufacture or recharge plus one half of its useful life. (193) Engine. A unit used or intended to be used for aircraft propulsion. It consists of at least
those components and equipment necessary for function and control, but excludes the propeller (if applicable). (194) Enhanced ground proximity warning (EGPWS). A forward looking warning system
that uses the terrain data base for terrain avoidance. (195) Enhanced vision system (EVS). A system to display electronic real-time images of the
external scene achieved through the use of image sensors. (196) Equivalent system of maintenance. An AOC holder may conduct maintenance
activities through an arrangement with an AMO or may conduct its own maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations, so long as the AOC holder's maintenance system is approved by the Authority and is equivalent to that of an AMO, except that the approval for return to service of an aircraft/aeronautical product shall be made by an appropriately licensed aviation maintenance technician or aviation repair specialists in accordance with Part 2, as appropriate. (197) Error. As relates to the flight crew, an action or inaction by the flightcrew that leads to
deviations from organisational or flight crew intentions or expectations. (198) Error management. The process of detecting and responding to errors with
countermeasures that reduce or eliminate the consequences of errors, and mitigate the probability of errors or undesired aircraft state. Note: See Attachment C to Chapter 3 of the Procedures for Air Navigation Services – Training, (ICAO Doc 9868, PANS-TRG) and ICAO Circular 314, Threat and Error Management (TEM) in Air Traffic Control, for a description of undesired states. (199) Estimated off-block time. The estimated time at which the aircraft will commence
movement associated with departure. (200) Estimated time of arrival. For IFR flights, the time at which it is estimated that the
aircraft will arrive over that designated point, defined by reference to navigation aids, from which it is intended that approach procedure will be commenced, or if no navigation aid is associated with the aerodrome, the time at which the aircraft will arrive over the aerodrome. For VFR flights, the time at which it is estimated that the aircraft will arrive over the aerodrome. (201) Extended diversion time operations (EDTO). Any operation by an aeroplane with two
or more turbine engines where the diversion time to an en-route alternate aerodrome is greater than the threshold time established by the State of the Operator. (202) Extended diversion time operations critical fuel. The fuel quantity necessary to fly to
an en-route alternate aerodrome considering at the most critical point on the route, the most limiting system failure. November 2014
(203) Extended diversion time operations significant system. An aeroplane system whose
failure or degradation could adversely affect the safety particular to an EDTO flight, or whose continued functioning is specifically important to the safe flight and landing of an aeroplane during an extended diversion time operations diversion. (204) Extended flight over water. A flight operated over water at a distance of more than
93km (50 NM), or 30 minutes at normal cruising speed, whichever is the lesser, away from land suitable for making an emergency landing. (205) Examiner. Any person designated by the Authority to act as a representative of the
Authority in examining , inspecting, and testing persons and aircraft for the purpose of issuing licences, ratings and certificates. (206) Exception. As it related to dangerous goods in Part 9 - A provision in ICAO Annex 18
which excludes a specific item of dangerous goods from the requirements normally applicable to that item. (207) Expected approach time. The time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft,
following a delay, will leave the holding point to complete its approach for a landing. Note: The actual time of leaving the holding point will depend upon the approach clearance. (208) Extended overwater operation. With respect to aircraft other than helicopters, an
operation over water at a horizontal distance of more than 50 nm from the nearest shoreline; and to helicopters, an operation over water at a horizontal distance of more than 50 nm from the nearest shoreline and more than 50 nm from an offshore heliport (209) Facility. A physical plant, including land, buildings, and equipment, which provides a
means for the conduct of the activities approved by the Authority for an approved or certificated entity. (210) Factor of safety. A design factor used to provide for the possibility of loads greater than
those assumed, and for uncertainties in design and fabrication. (211) Fatal injury. As relates to an aircraft accident, any injury which results in death within 30
days of the accident. (212) Fatigue. A physiological state of reduced mental or physical performance capability
resulting from sleep loss or extended wakefulness, Circadian phase, or workload (mental and/or physical activity) that can impair a crew member's alertness and ability to safely operate an aircraft or perform safety related duties. (213) Fatigue risk management system (FRMS). A data-driven means of continuously
monitoring and managing fatigue-related safety risks, based upon scientific principles and knowledge as well as operational experience that aims to ensure relevant personnel are performing at adequate levels of alertness. (214) Final approach and take-off area (FATO). A defined area over which the final phase of
the approach manoeuvre to hover or landing is completed and from which the take-off manoeuvre is commenced. Where the FATO is to be used by performance Call 1 helicopters, the defined area includes the rejected take-off area available. (215) Final approach segment (FAS). The segment of an instrument approach procedures in
which alignment and descent for landing are accomplished. Version 5.0
(216) Finding. A conclusion by audit personnel that demonstrates non-conformity with a
specific standard. (217) Fire resistant. The capability to withstand the application of heat by a flame for a period
of 5 minutes. Note: The characteristics of an acceptable flame can be found in ISO 2685. (218) Fireproof. The capability to withstand the application of heat by a flame for a period of
15 minutes. Note: The characteristics of an acceptable flame can be found in ISO 2685 (219) Fireproof material. A material capable of withstanding heat as well as or better than
steel when the dimensions in both cases are appropriate for the specific purpose. (220) Flight(s). The period from takeoff to landing.
(221) Flight crew member. A licensed crew member charged with duties essential to the
operation of an aircraft during flight time. (222) Flight data analysis. A process of analysing recorded flight data in order to improve the
safety of flight operations. (223) Flight duty period. A period which commences when a flight or cabin crew member is
required to report for duty that includes a flight or a series of flights and which finishes when the aeroplane finally comes to rest and the engines are shut down at the end of the last flight on which he/she is a crew member. (224) Flight information centre. A unit established to provide flight information service and
alerting service. (225) Flight information region. An airspace of defined dimensions within which flight
information service and alerting service are provided. (226) Flight information service. A service provided for the purpose of giving advice and
information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights. (227) Flight level. A surface of constant atmospheric pressure which is related to a specific
pressure datum, 1,013.2 hectopascals (hPa), and is separated from other surfaces by specific pressure intervals. (228) Flight manual. A manual, associated with the certificate of airworthiness, containing
limitations within which the aircraft is to be considered airworthy, and instructions information necessary to the flight crew members for the safe operation of the aircraft. (229) Flight operations officer/flight dispatcher. A person designated by the operator to
engage in the control and supervision of flight operations, whether licensed or not, suitably qualified in accordance with Annex 1, who supports, briefs and/or assists the pilot-in-command in the safe conduct of the flight. (230) Flight plan. Specified information provided to air traffic services units, relative to an
intended flight or portion of a flight of an aircraft. (231) Filed flight plan. The flight plan as filed with an air traffic service unit by the pilot or
designated representative, without any subsequent changes. (232) Flight recorder. Any type of recorder installed in the aircraft for the purpose of
complementing accident/incident investigation. Note: This could include the cockpit voice recorder (CVR) or flight data recorder (FDR). November 2014
(233) Flight safety document system. A set of inter-related documentation established by the
operator, compiling and organising information necessary for flight and ground operations, and comprising, as a minimum, the operations manual and the operator's maintenance control manual. (234) Flight simulation training device. Any one of the following three types of apparatus in
which flight conditions are simulated on the ground: (i) A flight simulator, which provides an accurate representation of the flight deck
of a particular aircraft type to the extent that the mechanical, electrical, electronic, etc. aircraft systems control functions, the normal environment of flight crew members, and the performance and flight characteristics of that type of aircraft are realistically simulated A flight procedures trainer, which provides a realistic flight deck environment,
and which simulates instrument responses, simple control functions of mechanical, electrical ,electronic, etc., aircraft systems, and the performance and flight characteristics of aircraft of a particular class. A basic instrument flight trainer, which is equipped with appropriate
instruments and which simulates the flight deck environment of an aircraft in flight in instrument flight conditions. (235) Flight status. An indication of whether a given aircraft requires special handling by air
traffic services units or not. (236) Flight time. The period of time that the aircraft moves under its own power for the
purpose of flight and ends when the aircraft comes to rest after it is parked, with engine(s) shut down if applicable. Note: Flight time as here defined is synonymous with the term "block-to-block" time or "chock-to-chock" time in general usage, which is measured from the time an aircraft moves from the loading point until it stops at the unloading point. (237) Flight time— aeroplane. The total time from the moment an aeroplane first moves for
the purpose of taking off until the moment it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight. (238) Flight time—helicopter. The total time from the moment a helicopter's rotor blades start
turning until the moment the helicopter finally comes to rest at the end of the flight, and the rotor blades are stopped. (239) Flight time—glider. The total time occupied in flight, whether being towed or not, from
the moment the glider first moves for the purpose of taking off until the moment it comes to rest at the end of the flight. (240) Flight training. Training, other than ground training, received from an authorised
instructor in flight in an aircraft. (241) Flight visibility. The visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight.
(242) Foreign air operator. Any operator, not being a SURINAME air operator, which
undertakes, whether directly or indirectly or by lease or any other arrangement, to engage in commercial air transport operations within borders or airspace of SURINAME, whether on a scheduled or charter basis. (243) Foreign Authority. The civil aviation authority that issues and oversees the Air Operator
Certificate of the foreign operator. (244) Freight container. See unit load device.
(245) Freight container in the case of radioactive material transport. An article of transport
equipment designed to facilitate the transport of packaged goods, by one or more modes of transport without intermediate reloading. It must be of a permanent enclosed character, rigid and strong enough for repeated use, and must be fitted with devices facilitating its handling, particularly in transfer between aircraft and from one mode of transport to another. A small freight container is that which has either an overall outer dimension less than 1.5 m, or an internal volume of not more than 3m³. Any other freight container is considered to be a large freight container. (246) General aviation operation. An aircraft operation other than a commercial air transport
operation or aerial work operation. (247) Glider. A non-power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving its lift in flight chiefly from
aerodynamic reactions on surfaces, which remain, fixed under given conditions of flight. (248) Ground handling. Services necessary for an aircraft's arrival at, and departure from, an
airport, other than air traffic services. (249) Ground proximity warning system (GPWS). A warning system that uses radar
altimeters to alert the pilots of hazardous flight conditions. (250) Ground visibility. The visibility at an aerodrome, as reported by an accredited observer.
(251) Gyroplane. A heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight by the reactions of the air on
one or more rotors which rotate freely on substantially vertical axes. (252) Handling agent. An agency which performs on behalf of the operator some or all of the
latter's functions including receiving, loading, unloading, transferring or other processing of passengers or cargo. (253) Hazard. A condition or an object with the potential to cause injuries to personnel, damage
to equipment or structures, loss of material, or reduction of ability to perform a prescribed (254) Heading. The direction in which the longitudinal axis of an aircraft is pointed, usually
expressed in degrees from North (true, magnetic, compass or grid. (255) Head-up display (HUD). A display system that presents flight information into the pilot's
forward external field of view. (256) Heavier-than-air aircraft. Any aircraft deriving its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic
(257) Height. The vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered a point,
measured from a specified datum. (258) Helicopter. A heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight chiefly by the reactions of the air
on one or more power-driven rotors on substantially vertical axis. (i) Categories:
Category A. A multi-engined helicopter designed with engine and system isolation features specified in ICAO Annex 8, Part IVB, and capable of operations using take-off and landing data scheduled under a critical engine failure concept which assures adequate designed surface area and adequate performance capability for continued safe flight or safe rejected take-off. November 2014
Category B. A single engine or multi-engined helicopter which does not
meet Category A standards. Category B helicopters have no guaranteed capability to continue safe flight in the event an engine failure, and a forced landing is assumed. Performance classes:
Class 1 helicopter. A helicopter with performance such that, in case of critical engine failure, it is able to land within the rejected takeoff area or safely continue the flight to an appropriate landing area, depending on when the failure occurs. Class 2 helicopter. A helicopter with performance such that, in case of critical engine failure, it is able to safely continue the flight, except when the failure occurs prior to a defined point after takeoff or after a defined point before landing, in which case a forced landing may be required. Class 3 helicopter. A helicopter with performance such that, in case of engine failure at any point in the flight profile, a forced landing must be Note 1: See also definitions for operations in performance Class 1, Class 2 and Class 3, below. Note 2: Helicopters operating as Class 1 or 2 should be certified as Category A. Helicopters operating as Class 3 should be certified as either Category A or B (or equivalent). Note 3: Some States use the term "rotorcraft" as an alternative to "helicopter." (259) Helideck. A heliport located on a floating or fixed offshore structure.
(260) Heliport. An aerodrome or defined area on a structure intended to be used wholly or in
part for the arrival, departure, and surface movement of helicopters. (261) Heliport operating minima. The limits of usability of a heliport for:
Take-off, expressed in terms of runway visual range and/or visibility and, if necessary, cloud conditions; Landing in 2D instrument approach operations, expressed in terms of visibility and/or runway visual range, minimum descent altitude/height (MDA/H) and, if necessary, cloud conditions; and Landing in 3D instrument approach operations, expressed in terms of visibility and/or runway visual range and decision altitude/height (DA/H) appropriate to the type and/or category of the operation. (262) High speed aural warning. A speed warning that is required for turbine-engined
airplanes and airplanes with a Vmo/Mmo greater than 0.80 Vdf/Mdf or Vd/Md. (263) Holdover time. The estimated time de-icing/anti-icing fluid will prevent the formation of
frost or ice and the accumulation of snow on the protected surfaces of an aircraft. Holdover time begins when the final application of de-icing or anti-icing fluid commences and expires when the de-icing or anti-icing fluid applied to the aircraft loses its Version 5.0
(264) Housing. As it related to Approved Maintenance Organisations in Part 6 - Buildings,
hangers, and other structures to accommodate the necessary equipment and materials of a maintenance organisation that— (i) Provide working space for the performance of maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications for which the maintenance organisation is approved and rated; and Provide structures for the proper protection of aircraft, airframes, aircraft engines, propellers, appliances, components, parts, and subassemblies thereof during disassembly, cleaning, inspection, repair, modification, assembly, and testing; and Provide for the proper storage, segregation, and protection of materials, parts, (265) Human factors principles. Principles which apply to aeronautical design, certification,
training, operations and maintenance and which seek safe interface between the human and other system components by proper consideration to human performance. (266) Human performance. Human capabilities and limitations which have an impact on the
safety and efficiency of aeronautical operations (267) ICAO. Where used in this Act, this is an abbreviation for the International Civil Aviation
Organisation. (Law) (268) IFR. The symbol used to designate the instrument flight rules.
(269) IFR flight. A flight conducted in accordance with the instrument flight rules.
(270) IMC. The symbol used to designate instrument meteorological conditions.
(271) Incident. An occurrence other than an accident, associated with the operation of an
aircraft, which affects or could affect the safety of operations. Note: The types of incidents which are of interest for safety–related studies include the incidents listed in Annex 13, Attachment C. (272) Includes. A rule of construction in Part 1.1.1.1(a)(5) that means "includes but is not
(273) Incompatible. Describing dangerous goods, which if mixed, would be liable to cause a
dangerous evolution of heat or gas or produce a corrosive substance. (274) Industry codes of practice. Guidance material developed by an industry body, for a
particular sector of the aviation industry to comply with the requirements of the International Civil Aviation Organisation's Standards and Recommended Practices, other aviation safety requirements and the best practices deemed appropriate. Note: Some States accept and reference industry codes of practice in the development of regulation to meet the requirements of Annex 19, and make available, for the industry codes of practice, their sources and how they may be obtained. (275) Instructions for continued airworthiness. A set of descriptive data, maintenance
planning and accomplishment instructions, developed by a design approval holder in accordance with the certification basis for the product, providing operators with the necessary information for development of their own maintenance programme and accomplishment instructions. (276) Instrument approach categories.
Category one (CAT I) operation. A precision instrument approach and landing
with a decision height not lower than 60 m (200 ft) and with either a visibility not less than 800 m or a runway visual range not less than 550 m. Category two (CAT II) operation. A precision instrument approach and landing
with a decision height lower than 60 m (200ft) but no lower than 30 m (100 ft) and a visual range not less 300 m. Category three A (CAT IIIA) operation. A precision approach and landing with:
a decision height lower than 30 m (100ft) or no decision height; and a runway visual range not less than 175 m. Category three B (CAT IIIB) operation. A precision approach and landing with:
a decision height lower than 15 m (50 ft) or no decision height; and a runway visual range less than 175 m but not less than 50 m. Category three C (CAT IIIC) operation. A precision instrument approach and
landing with no decision height and no runway visual range limitations. Note: Definitions taken from text in ICAO Annex 6, Part 1: 4.2.8.3 and ICAO Annex 6, Part III, Section II: 2.2.8. (277) Instrument approach operations. An approach and landing using instruments for
navigation guidance based on an instrument approach procedure. There are two methods for executing instrument approach operations: (i) A two-dimensional (2D) instrument approach operation, using lateral navigation guidance only; and A three-dimensional (3D) instrument approach operation, using both lateral and vertical navigation guidance. Note: Lateral and vertical navigation guidance refers to the guidance provided either by: (a) a ground-based radio navigation aid; or (b) computer-generated navigation data from ground-based, space-based, self-contained navigation aids or a combination of these. (278) Instrument approach procedure (IAP). A series of predetermined manoeuvres by
reference to flight instruments with specified protection from obstacles from the initial approach fix, or where applicable, from the beginning of a defined arrival route to a point from which a landing can be completed and thereafter, if a landing is not completed, to a position at which holding or en-route obstacle clearance criteria apply. Instrument approach procedures are classified as follows: (i) Non-precision approach (NPA) procedure. An instrument approach
procedures designed for 2D instrument approach operations Type A. Note: Non-precision approach procedures may be flown using a continuous descent final approach technique(CDFA). CDFA with advisory VNAV guidance calculated by on-board equipment (see ICAO Doc 8168, Vol. I, Part I, Section 4, Chapter 1, paragraph 1.8.1) are considered 3D instrument approach operations. CDFA with manual calculation of the required rate of descent are considered 2D instrument approach operations. For more information, see ICAO Doc, 8168, PANS-OPS, Vol. I, Section 1.7 and 1.8. (ii) Approach procedure with vertical guidance (APV). A performance-based
navigation (PBN) instrument approach procedure designed for 3D instrument
approach operations Type B. Version 5.0
Precision approach (PA) procedure. An instrument approach procedure
based on navigation systems (LKS, MLS, GLS and SBAS CAT I) designed for 3D instrument approach operations Type A or B. (279) Isolated aerodrome. A destination aerodrome for which there is no destination alternate
aerodrome suitable for a given aeroplane type. (280) Inspection. The examination of an aircraft or aeronautical product to establish conformity
with a standard approved by the Authority. (Part 1) (281) Instrument approach procedure. A series of predetermined manoeuvres by reference
to flight instruments with specified protection from obstacles from the initial approach fix, or where applicable, from the beginning of a defined arrival route to a point from which a landing can be completed and thereafter, if a landing is not completed, to a position at which holding or en-route obstacle clearance criteria apply. (282) Instrument flight time. Time during which a pilot is piloting an aircraft solely by
reference to instruments and without external reference points. (283) Instrument ground time. Time during which a pilot is practising, on the ground,
simulated instrument flight in a flight simulation training device approved by the Licensing (284) Instrument meteorological conditions (IMC). Meteorological conditions expressed in
terms of visibility, distance from cloud, and ceiling, less than the minima specified for visual meteorological conditions. (285) Instrument time. Time in which cockpit instruments are used as the sole means for
navigation and control, which may be instrument flight time or instrument ground time. (286) Instrument training. Training which is received from an authorised instructor under
actual or simulated instrument meteorological conditions. (287) Integrated survival suit. A survival suit which meets the combined requirement of the
survival suit and life jacket. (288) Interchange agreement. A leasing agreement which permits an air carrier to dry lease
and take or relinquish operational control of an aircraft at an airport. (289) International commercial air transport. The carriage by aircraft of persons or property
for remuneration or hire or the carriage of mail between any two or more countries. (290) International operating agency. An agency of the kind contemplated in Article 77 of the
Convention on International Civil Aviation. (291) Investigation. As relates to an aircraft accident or incident, a process conducted for the
purpose of accident prevention which includes the gathering and analysis of information, the drawing of conclusions, including the determination of causes and, when appropriate, the making of safety recommendations. (ICAO Annex 13) (292) Investigator-in-charge. As relates to an aircraft accident or indent, a person charged, on
the basis of his or her qualifications, with the responsibility for the organisation, conduct and control of an investigation. (ICAO Annex 13) (293) Journey log. A form signed by the PIC of each flight that records the aeroplane's
registration, crew member names and duty assignments, the type of flight, and the date, place, and time of arrival and departure. November 2014
(294) Knowledge test. A test on the aeronautical knowledge areas required for an airman
licence or rating that can be administered in written form or by a computer. (295) Landing area. That part of a movement area intended for the landing or takeoff of an
(296) Land distance available (LDA). The lengthy of runway which is declared available and
suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane landing. (297) Landing decision point. The point used in determining landing performance from which,
an engine failure occurring at this point, the landing may be safely continued or a balked landing initiated. (298) Landing surface. That part of the surface of an aerodrome which the aerodrome
authority has declared available for the normal ground or water run of aircraft landing in a particular direction. (299) Large aeroplane. An aeroplane having a maximum certified takeoff mass of 5,700 kg.
(12,500 lbs.), or more. (300) Level. A generic term relating to the vertical position of an aircraft in flight and meaning
variously, height, altitude or flight level. (301) Licensing Authority. The [AUTHORITY] designated by the Contracting State as
responsible for the licensing of personnel. Note 1: Licensing Authority or Authority can be replaced by the term appropriate to the country adopting these regulations e.g. Minister, Civil Aviation Authority (CAA) or Director, as applicable. Note 2: The Licensing Authority is deemed to have been given the following responsibilities by the Contracting State: (i) Assessment of an applicant's qualifications to hold a licence or rating; Issue and endorsement of licences and ratings; Designation and authorisation of approved persons; Approval of training courses; Approval of the use of flight simulation training devices and authorisation for their use in gaining the experience or in demonstrating the skill required for the issue of a licence or rating; and Validation of licences issued by other Contracting States. (302) Life-limited part. Any part for which a mandatory replacement limit is specified in the
type design, the Instructions for Continued Airworthiness, or the maintenance manual. (303) Lighter-than-air aircraft. Any aircraft supported chiefly by its buoyancy in the air.
(304) Likely. In the context of the medical provisions in for licensing in CARS 2.11 likely means
with a probably of occurring that is unacceptable to the medical assessor. (305) Limit loads. The maximum loads assumed to occur in the anticipated operating
(306) Line check. A check given to a pilot by a check pilot to evaluate the pilot's operational
competency during line operating flight time in an aircraft type he/she is qualified to fly, over a route and area in which the AOC is authorised to operate. Version 5.0
(307) Line maintenance. Any unscheduled maintenance resulting from unforeseen events, or
scheduled checks that contain servicing and/or inspections that do not require specialised training, equipment or facilities. (308) Line operating flight time. Flight time recorded by the PIC or Co-Pilot while in revenue
service for an AOC holder. (309) Load factor. The ratio of a specified load to the weight of the aircraft, the former being
expressed in terms of aerodynamic forces, or ground reactions. (310) Long range overwater flights. Routes on which an aeroplane may be over water and at
more than a distance corresponding to 120 minutes at cruising speed or 740 km (400 NM), whichever is the lesser, away from land suitable for making an emergency landing. (311) Low altitude wind shear warning and guidance system. A system that will issue a
warning of low altitude wind shear and in some cases provide the pilot with guidance information of the escaper manoeuvre. (312) Mach number indicator. An indicator that shows airspeed as a function of the Mach
(313) Maintenance. The performance of tasks required to ensure the continuing airworthiness
of an aircraft, including any one or combination of overhaul, inspection, replacement, defect rectification, and the embodiment of a modification or repair. (314) Maintenance control manual. A document that describes the operator's procedures
necessary to ensure that all scheduled and unscheduled maintenance is performed on the operator's aircraft on time and in a controlled and satisfactory manner. (315) Maintenance organisation's procedures manual. A document endorsed by the head
of the maintenance organisation which details the maintenance organisation's structure and management responsibilities, scope of work, description of facilities, maintenance procedures and quality assurance or inspection systems. (316) Maintenance programme. A document which describes the specific scheduled
maintenance tasks and their frequency of completion and related procedures, such as a reliability programme, necessary for the safe operation of those aircraft to which it applies. (317) Maintenance release. A document which contains a certification confirming that the
maintenance work to which it relates has been completed in a satisfactory manner, either in accordance with the approved data and the procedures described in the maintenance organisation's procedures manual or under an equivalent system. (318) Major alteration. Major alteration means an alteration not listed in the aircraft, aircraft
engine, or propeller specifications – (1) that might appreciably affect weight, balance, structural strength, performance, powerplant, operations, flight characteristics, or other qualities affecting airworthiness; or (2) that cannot be done by elementary operations. (319) Major modification. In respect of an aeronautical product for which a Type certificate
has been issued, a change in the Type Design that has an appreciable effect, or other than a negligible effect, on the mass and balance limits, structural strength, powerplant operation, flight characteristics, reliability, operational characteristics, or other characteristics or qualities affecting the airworthiness or environmental characteristics of an aeronautical product. November 2014
(320) Major repair. Major repair means a repair: (1) that if improperly done might appreciably
affect weight, balance, structural strength, performance, powerplant, operations, flight characteristics, or other qualities affecting airworthiness; or (2) that is not done according to accepted practices or cannot be done by elementary operations. (321) Manoeuvring area. That part of an aerodrome to be used for the takeoff, landing and
taxiing of aircraft, excluding aprons. (322) Master minimum equipment list (MMEL). A list established for a particular aircraft type
by the organisation responsible for the type design with the approval of the State of Design containing items, one or more of which is permitted to be unserviceable at the commencement of a flight. The MMEL may be associated with special operating conditions, limitations or procedures. The MMEL provides the basis for development, review, and approval by the Authority of an individual operator's MEL. (323) Materially altered aircraft. Aircraft having powerplants installed other than those for
which it is certified; or alterations to the aircraft or its components that materially affect flight characteristics. (324) Maximum diversion time. Maximum allowable range, expressed in time, from a point on
a route to an en-route alternate aerodrome. (325) Maximum mass. Maximum certificated take-off-mass.
(326) May. A rule of construction in Part 1.1.1.1(a)(3) that indicates that discretion can be used
when performing an act described in a regulation. (327) Medical assessment. The evidence issued by the Authority that the licence holder
meets specific requirements of medical fitness. (328) Medical assessor. A physician, appointed by the Authority, qualified and experienced in
the practice of aviation medicine and competent in evaluating and assessing medical conditions of flight safety significance. (329) Medical certificate. A document issued by the Authority as acceptable evidence of
physical fitness as required for certain personnel licence holders. (330) Meteorological information. Meteorological reports, analysis, forecast, and any other
statement relating to existing or expected meteorological conditions. (331) Minimum descent altitude (MDA) or minimum descent height (MDH). A specified
altitude or height in a 2D approach operation or circling approach operation below which descent must not be made without the required visual reference. Note 1: Minimum descent altitude (MDA) is referenced to mean sea level and minimum descent height (MDH) is referenced to the aerodrome elevation or to the threshold elevation if that is more than 2 m (7 ft) below the aerodrome elevation. A minimum descent height for a circling approach is referenced to the aerodrome elevation. Note 2: The required visual reference means that section of the visual aids or of the approach area which should have been in view for sufficient time for the pilot to have made an assessment of the aircraft position and rate of change of position, in relation to the desired flight path. In the case of a circling approach the required visual reference is the runway environment. Note 3: For convenience when both expressions are used they may be written in the form "minimum descent altitude/height" and abbreviated "MDA/H". Version 5.0
(332) Minimum equipment list (MEL). A list approved by the Authority which provides for the
operation of aircraft, subject to specified conditions, with particular equipment inoperative, prepared by an operator in conformity with, or more restrictive than, the Master Minimum Equipment List established for the aircraft type. (333) Minister. This term means the Minister responsible for civil aviation, as identified in the
legislation of SURINAME. (334) Minor modification. A modification other than a major modification
(335) Modification. The alteration of an aircraft/aeronautical product in conformity with an
approved standard. (336) Movement area. That part of an aerodrome to be used for takeoff, landing and taxiing of
aircraft, consisting of the manoeuvring area and the apron(s). (337) Navigable airspace. The airspace above the minimum altitudes of flight prescribed in
these Model regulations (Part 8) and includes airspace needed to insure safety in the takeoff and landing of aircraft. (338) Navigation of aircraft. A function which includes the piloting of aircraft (Law)
(339) Navigation specification. A set of aircraft and flight crew requirements needed to
support performance-based navigation operations within a defined airspace. There are two kinds of navigation specifications: (i) Required navigation performance (RNP) specification. A navigation specification based on area navigation that includes the requirement for performance monitoring and alerting, designated by the prefix RNP, e.g. RNP 4, RNP APCH. Area navigational (RNAV) specification. A navigation specification based on area navigation that does not include the requirement for performance monitoring and alerting, designated by the prefix RNAV, e.g. RNAV 5, RNAV 1. Note 1: The Performance-based Navigation (PBN) Manual (Doc 9613), Volume II, contains detailed guidance on navigation specifications. Note 2 - The term RNP, previously defined as "a statement of the navigation performance necessary for operation within a defined airspace", has been removed from this Annex as the concept of RNP has been overtaken by the concept of PBM. The term RNP in this Annex is now solely used in the context of navigation specifications that require performance monitoring and alerting, e.g. RNP 4 refers to the aircraft and operating requirements, including a 4 NM lateral performance with on-board performance monitoring and alerting that are detailed in Doc 9613. (340) Night. The hours between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning
civil twilight or such other period between sunset and sunrise. Civil twilight ends in the evening when the centre of the sun's disc is 6 degrees below the horizon and begins in the morning when the centre of the sun's disc is 6 degrees below the horizon. (341) Obstacle clearance altitude (OCA) or obstacle clearance height (OCH). The lowest
altitude or the lowest height above the elevation of the relevant runway threshold or the aerodrome elevation as applicable, using in establishing compliance with appropriate obstacle clearance criteria. November 2014
(342) Note 1: Obstacle clearance altitude is referenced to mean sea level and obstacle clearance height is referenced to the threshold elevation or in the case of non-precision approach procedures to the aerodrome elevation or the threshold elevation if that is more than 2 m (7 ft) below the aerodrome elevation. An obstacle clearance height for a circling approach procedure is referenced to the aerodrome elevation. Note 2: For convenience when both expressions are used they may be written in the form "obstacle clearance altitude/height" and abbreviated "OCA/H." (343) Obstruction clearance plane. A plane sloping upward from the runway at a slope of
1:20 to the horizontal, and tangent to or clearing all obstructions within a specified area surrounding the runway as shown in a profile view of that area. In the plane view, the centreline of the specified area coincides with the centreline of the runway, beginning at the point where the obstruction clearance plane intersects the centreline of the runway and proceeding to a point at least 450 m (1,500) feet from the beginning point. Thereafter, the centreline coincides with the takeoff path over the ground for the runway (in the case of takeoffs) or with the instrument approach counterpart (for landings), or where the applicable one of these paths has not been established, it proceeds consistent with turns of at least 1.2 km (4,000 foot) radius until a point is reached beyond which the obstruction clearance plane clears all obstructions. This area extends laterally 60 m (200 feet) on each side of the centreline at the point where the obstruction clearance plane intersects the runway and continues at this width to the end of the runway; then it increases uniformly to150 m (500 feet) on each side of the centreline at a point 450 m (1,500 feet) from the intersection of the obstruction clearance plane with the runway; thereafter, it extends laterally 150 m (500 feet) on each side of the centreline. (344) Ornithopter. A heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight chiefly by the reactions of the
air on planes to which a flapping motion is imparted. (345) Operating base. The location from which operational control is exercised.
Note: An operating base is normally the location where personnel involved in the operation of the aeroplane work and the records associated with the operation are located. An operating base has a degree of permanency beyond that of a regular point of (346) Operational control. The exercise of authority over the initiation, continuation, diversion
or termination of a flight in the interest of the safety of the aircraft and the regularity and efficiency of the flight. (347) Operational flight plan. The operator's plan for the safe conduct of the flight based on
considerations of aircraft performance, other operating limitations, and relevant expected conditions on the route to be followed and at the aerodromes or heliports concerned. (348) Operational personnel. Personnel involved in aviation activities who are in a position to
report safety information. Note. Such personnel include, but are not limited to: flight crews; air traffic controllers; aeronautical station operators; maintenance technicians; personnel of aircraft design and manufacturing organisations; cabin crews; flight dispatchers; apron personnel; and, ground handling personnel. Version 5.0
(349) Operations in performance Class 1. Helicopter operations in performance such that, in
the event of critical engine failure, performance is available to enable the helicopter to safety continue the flight to an appropriate landing area, unless the failure occurs prior to reaching the take-off decision point (TDP) or after passing the landing decision point (LDP), in which cases the helicopter must be able to land within the rejected take-off or (350) Operations in performance Class 2. Helicopter operations in performance such that, in
the event of critical engine failure, performance is available to enable the helicopter to safety continue the flight to an appropriate landing area, except when the failure occurs early during the take-off manoeuver or late in the landing manoeuver, in which case a forced landing may be required. (351) Operations in performance Class 3. Helicopter operations in performance such that, in
the event of an engine failure at any time during the flight, a forced landing will be (352) Operations manual. A manual containing procedures, instructions and guidance for use
by operational personnel in the execution of their duties. (353) Operations specifications. The authorisations, conditions and limitations associated with
the air operator certificate and subject to the conditions in the operations manual. Note 1: The operations specifications are part of an operator's certificate (air operator certificate, approved training organisation certificate, approved maintenance organisation certificate, etc.) that is used to administer safety standards and define the provisions and limitations within which the operator may conduct business operations. Operations specifications are issued by the Authority and considered a legal, contractual agreement between the Authority and the operator. (354) Operator. A person, organisation or enterprise engaged in or offering to engage in an
aircraft operation (ICAO). Any person who causes or authorises the operation of an aircraft, such as the owner, lessee, or bailee of an aircraft. Note: In the context of remotely piloted aircraft, an aircraft operation includes the remotely piloted aircraft system. (355) Operator's maintenance control manual. A document which describes the operator's
procedures necessary to ensure that all scheduled and unscheduled maintenance is performed on the operator's aircraft on time and in a controlled and satisfactory manner. (356) Ornithopter. A heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight chiefly by its buoyancy in the
(357) Overhaul. The restoration of an aircraft/aeronautical product using methods, techniques,
and practices acceptable to the Authority, including disassembly, cleaning, and inspection as permitted, repair as necessary, and reassembly; and tested in accordance with approved standards and technical data, or in accordance with current standards and technical data acceptable to the Authority, which have been developed and documented by the State of Design, holder of the type certificate, supplemental type certificate, or a material, part, process, or appliance approval under Parts Manufacturing Authorisation (PMA) or Technical Standard Order (TSO). (358) Overpack. An enclosure used by a single shipper to contain one or more packages and
to form one handling unit for convenience of handling and stowage. November 2014
(359) Package. The complete product of the packing operation consisting of the packaging and
its contents prepared for transport. (360) Packaging. Receptacles and any other components or materials necessary for the
receptacle to perform its containment. (361) Passenger aircraft. An aircraft that carries any person other than a crew member, an
operator's employee in an official capacity, an authorised representative of an appropriate national authority or a person accompanying a consignment or other cargo. (362) Passenger exit seats. Those seats having direct access to an exit, and those seats in a
row of seats through which passengers would have to pass to gain access to an exit, from the first seat inboard of the exit to the first aisle inboard of the exit. A passenger seat having "direct access" means a seat from which a passenger can proceed directly to the exit without entering an aisle or passing around an obstruction. (363) Performance-based navigation (PBN). Area navigation based on performance
requirements for aircraft operating along an ATS route, on an instrument approach procedure or in a designated airspace. Note: Performance requirements are expressed in navigation specifications (RNAV specification, RNP specification) in terms of accuracy, integrity, continuity, availability and functionality needed for the proposed operation in the context of a particular airspace (364) Performance class 1 helicopter. A helicopter with performance such that, in case of
engine failure it is able to land on the rejected take-off area or safely continue the flight to an appropriate landing area. (365) Performance class 2 helicopter. A helicopter with performance such that, in case of
engine failure, it is able to safely continue the flight, except when the failure occurs prior to a defined point after take-off or after a defined point before landing, in which case a forced landing may be required. (366) Performance class 3 helicopter. A helicopter with performance such that, in case of
engine failure at any point in the flight profile, a forced landing must be performed. (367) Performance criteria. A simple, evaluative statement on the required outcome of the
competency element and a description of the criteria used to judge if the required level of performance has been achieved. (368) Person. Any individual, firm, partnership, corporation, company, association, joint stock
association, or body politic, and includes any trustee, receiver, assignee, or other similar representative of these entities. (369) Pilot (to). To manipulate the flight controls of an aircraft during flight time.
(370) Pilot in command (PIC). The pilot responsible for the operation and safety of the aircraft
during flight time. The pilot designated by the operator, or in the case of general aviation, the owner, as being in command and charged with the safe conduct of the flight. (371) Pilot in command (PIC) under supervision. Co-pilot performing, under the supervision
of the PIC, the duties and functions of a PIC, provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the Licensing Authority. (372) Pilot time. That time a person—
Serves as a required pilot; Version 5.0
Receives training from an authorised instructor in an aircraft, or an approved flight simulation training device; or Gives training as an authorised instructor in an aircraft, or an approved flight simulation training device. (373) Point of no return. The last possible geographic point at which an aeroplane can
proceed to the destination aerodrome as well as to an available en route alternate aerodrome for a given flight. (374) Policy. A document containing a position or stance regarding a specific issue.
(375) Procedure. A way of documenting a process.
(376) Process. A set of interrelated or interacted activities which transforms inputs into outputs.
(377) Powered-lift. A heavier-than-air aircraft capable of vertical takeoff, vertical landing, and
low speed flight that depends principally on engine-driven lift devices or engine thrust for lift during these flight regimes and on nonrotating airfoil(s) for lift during horizontal flight. (378) Powerplant. An engine that is used or intended to be used for propelling aircraft. It
includes turbo superchargers, appurtenances, and accessories necessary for its functioning, but does not include propellers. (379) Power-unit. A system of one or more engines and ancillary parts which are together
necessary to provide thrust, independently of the continued operation of any other powered-unit(s), but not including short period thrust-producing devices. (380) Practical test. See Skill test.
(381) Pre-flight inspection. The inspection carried out before flight to insure that the aircraft is
fit for the intended flight. (382) Prescribed. A rule of construction in Part 1.1.1.1.(a)(8) that means the Authority has
issued written policy or methodology which imposes either a mandatory requirement, if the written policy or methodology states "shall," or a discretionary requirement if the written policy or methodology states "may." (383) Primary standard. A standard defined and maintained by a State Authority and used to
calibrate secondary standards. (384) Pressure-altitude. An atmospheric pressure expressed in terms of altitude which
corresponds to that pressure in the Standard Atmosphere. (385) Pressurised aircraft. For airman-licensing purposes, means an aircraft that has a
service ceiling or maximum operating altitude, whichever is lower, above 25,000 feet (386) Preventive maintenance. Simple or minor preservation operations and the replacement
of small standard parts not involving complex assembly operations. (387) Problematic use of substances. The use of one or more psychoactive substances by
aviation personnel in a way that: (i) Constitutes a direct hazard to the user or endangers the lives, health or welfare of others; and/or Causes or worsens an occupational, social, mental or physical problem or November 2014
(388) Proficiency check. A competency test by a licence holder on the areas of operations
contained in the skill test for a particular licence, certificate, rating, or authorisation that is conducted by an authorised representative of the Authority. (389) Prohibited area. An airspace of defined dimensions, above the land areas or territorial
waters of a State, within which the flight of aircraft is prohibited. (390) Propeller. A device for propelling an aircraft that has blades on a powerplant driven shaft
and that, when rotated, produces by its action on the air, a thrust approximately perpendicular to its plane of rotation. It includes control components normally supplied by its manufacturer, but does not include main and auxiliary rotors or rotating airfoils of powerplants. (391) Proper shipping name. The name to be used to describe a particular article or
substance in all shipping documents and notifications and, where appropriate, on (392) Psychoactive substances. Alcohol, opiods, canabinoids, sedatives and hypnotics,
cocaine, other psychostimulants, hallucinogens, and volatile solvents, whereas coffee and tobacco are excluded. (393) Public aircraft. An aircraft used exclusively in the service of any government or of any
political jurisdiction thereof, including the Government of SURINAME, but not including any government owned aircraft engaged in operations which meet the definition of commercial air transport operations. (394) Qualification based training. Training designed to ensure that graduates demonstrate
the necessary minimum skill, knowledge and experience levels to meet the qualification requirements of the licence, rating or privilege. (395) Quality. The totality of features and characteristics of a product or service that bear on its
ability to satisfy stated or implied needs. (396) Quality assurance. Quality assurance, as distinguished from quality control, involves
activities in the business, systems, and technical audit areas. A set of predetermined, systematic actions which are required to provide adequate confidence that a product or service satisfies quality requirements. (397) Quality audit. A systematic and independent examination to determine whether quality
activities and related results comply with planned arrangements and whether these arrangements are implemented effectively and are suitable to achieve objectives. (398) Quality control. The regulatory inspection process through which actual performance is
compared with standards, such as the maintenance of standards of manufactured aeronautical products, and any difference is acted upon. (399) Quality inspection. That part of quality management involving quality control. In other
words, inspections accomplished to observe events/actions/documents, etc., in order to verify whether established operational procedures and requirements are fulfilled during the accomplishment of the event or action, and whether the required standard is achieved. Student stage checks and skill tests are quality inspections, and they are also quality control functions. (400) Quality management. A management approach focused on the means to achieve
product or service quality objectives through the use of its four key components: quality planning; quality control; quality assurance; and quality improvement. Version 5.0
(401) Quality manager. The manager responsible for the monitoring function and for
requesting remedial action. (402) Quality manual. The document containing the relevant information pertaining to the
organisation's quality assurance system. (403) Quality of training. The outcome of the training that meets stated or implied needs
within the framework of set standards. (404) Quality system. Documented organisational procedures and policies; internal audit of
those policies procedures; management review and recommendation for quality (405) Radiotelephony. A form of radiocommunication primarily intended for the exchange of
information in the form of speech. (406) Rated air traffic controller. An air traffic controller holding a licence and valid ratings
appropriate to the privileges to be exercised. (407) Rating. An authorisation entered on or associated with a licence or certificate and
forming part thereof, stating special conditions, privileges or limitations pertaining to such licence or certificate. (408) Rebuild. The restoration of an aircraft/aeronautical product by using methods,
techniques, and practices acceptable to the Authority, when it has been disassembled, cleaned, inspected as permitted, repaired as necessary, reassembled, and tested to the same tolerances and limits as a new item, using either new parts or used parts that conform to new part tolerances and limits. (409) Rendering (a certificate of airworthiness) valid. The action taken by a Contracting
State, as an alternative to issuing its own Certificate of Airworthiness, in accepting a Certificate of Airworthiness issued by any other Contracting State as the equivalent of its own Certificate of Airworthiness. (410) Reference standard. A standard that is used to maintain working standards.
(411) Re-issue of a licence, rating, authorisation or certificate. The administrative action
taken after a licence, rating, authorisation or certificate has lapsed that re-issues the privileges of the licence, rating, authorisation or certificate for a further specified period consequent upon the fulfilment of specified requirements. (412) Remote pilot. A person charged by the operator with duties essential to the operation of
a remotely piloted aircraft and who manipulates the flight controls, as appropriate, during (413) Remote pilot station. The component of the remotely piloted aircraft system containing
the equipment used to pilot the remotely piloted aircraft. (414) Remotely piloted aircraft (RPA). An unmanned aircraft which is piloted from a remote
(415) Remotely piloted aircraft system (RPAS). A remotely piloted aircraft, its associated
remote pilot station(s), the required command and control links and any other components as specified in the type design. (416) Rendering (a licence) valid. The action taken by a Contracting State, as an alternative
to issuing its own licence, in accepting a licence issued by any other Contracting State as the equivalent of its own licence. Also referred to as validation November 2014
(417) Renewal of licence, rating, authorisation or certificate. The administrative action
taken within the period of validity of a licence, rating, authorisation or certificate that allows the holder to continue to exercise the privileges of a licence, rating, authorisation or certificate for a further specified period consequent upon the fulfilment of specified (418) Repair.
The restoration of an aeronautical product to an airworthy condition as defined by the appropriate airworthiness requirements; The restoration of an aeronautical product to an airworthy condition to ensure that the aircraft continues to comply with the design aspects of the appropriate airworthiness requirements used for the issuance of the type certificate for the respective aircraft type, after it has been damaged or subjected to wear. (ICAO Annex 6 definition). (419) Repetitive flight plan (RPL). A flight plan related to a series of frequently recurring,
regularly operated individual flights with identical basic features, submitted by an operator for retention and repetitive use by ATC units. (420) Reporting point. A specified geographical location in relation to which the position of the
aircraft can be reported. (421) Required communication performance (RCP). A statement of the performance
requirements for operational communication in support of specific ATM functions. (422) Required communication performance type (RCP type). A label (e.g. RCP 240) that
represents the values assigned to RCP parameters for communication transaction time, continuity, availability and integrity. (423) Required inspection items. As used in Part 5, maintenance items and/or alterations that
must be inspected by a person other than the one performing the work, and include at least those that could result in a failure, malfunction, or defect endangering the safe operation of the aircraft, if not properly performed or if improper parts or materials are (424) Required navigation performance (RNP). A statement of the navigation performance
necessary for operations with a defined airspace. (425) Rest period. A continuous and defined period of time, subsequent to and/or prior to duty,
during which flight or cabin crew members are free of all duties. (426) Restricted area. An airspace of defined dimensions, above the land areas or territorial
waters of a State, within which the flight of aircraft is restricted in accordance with certain specified conditions. (427) Rotorcraft. A power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight by the reactions of
the air on one or more rotors. (428) Rotorcraft flight manual. A manual, associated with the certificate of airworthiness,
containing limitations within which the rotorcraft is to be considered airworthy, and instructions and information necessary to the flight crew members of the safe operation of (429) Rotorcraft load combinations. Configurations for external loads carried by rotorcraft—
Class A—external load fixed to the rotorcraft, cannot be jettisoned, and does not extend below the landing gear, used to transport cargo. Version 5.0
Class B—external load suspended from the rotorcraft, which can be jettisoned, and is transported free of land or water during rotorcraft operations. Class C—external load suspended from the rotorcraft, which can be jettisoned, but remains in contact with land or water during rotorcraft operation. Class D—external load suspended from the rotorcraft for the carriage of persons. (430) Route sector. A flight comprising take off, departure, cruise of not less than 15 minutes,
arrival, approach and landing phases. (431) RPA observer. A trained and competent person designed by the operator who, by visual
observation of the remotely piloted aircraft, assists the remote pilot in the safe conduct of the flight. (432) Runway. A defined rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and
takeoff of aircraft. (433) Runway-holding position. A designated position intended to protect a runway, an
obstacle limitation surface, or an ILS/MLS critical/sensitive area at which taxiing aircraft and vehicles shall stop and hold, unless otherwise authorised by the aerodrome control (434) Runway visual range (RVR). The range over which the pilot of an aircraft on the centre
line of a runway can see the runway surface markings or the lights delineating the runway or identifying its centre line. (435) Safe forced landing. Unavoidable landing or ditching with a reasonable expectancy of
no injuries to persons in the aircraft or on the surface. (436) Safety. The state in which risks associated with aviation activities, related to, or in direct
support of the operations of aircraft, are reduced and controlled to an acceptable level. (437) Safety-sensitive personnel. Persons who might endanger aviation safety if they perform
their duties and functions improperly including, but not limited to, crew members, aircraft maintenance personnel and air traffic controllers. (438) Safety management system (SMS). A systematic approach to managing safety,
including the necessary organisational structures, accountabilities, policies and (439) Safety performance. A State or service provider's safety achievement as defined by its
safety performance targets and safety performance indicators. (440) Safety performance indicator. A data-based parameter used for monitoring and
assessing performance. (441) Safety performance target. The planned or intended objective for safety performance
indicator(s) over a given period. (442) Safety programme. An integrated set of regulations and activities aimed at improving
(443) Safety recommendation. A proposal of the accident investigation authority of the State
conducting the investigation, based on information derived from the investigation made with the intention of preventing accidents or incidents. (444) Safety risk. The predicted probability and severity of the consequences or outcomes of a
(445) Satellite aviation training organisation. An aviation training organization at a location
other than the aviation training organisation's principal place of business. (446) Satisfactory evidence. A set of documents or activities that a Contracting State accepts
as sufficient to show compliance with an airworthiness requirement. (447) Secondary standards. A standard maintained by comparison with a primary standard.
(448) Serious incident. An incident involving circumstances indicated that an accident nearly
(449) Serious injury. An injury which is sustained by a person in an accident and which:
Requires hospitalisation for more than 48 hours, commencing within seven days from the date the injury was received; Results in a fracture of any bone (except simple fractures of fingers, toes or Involves lacerations which cause severe haemorrhage, nerve, muscle or tendon Involves injury to any internal organ; or Involves second or third degree burns, or any burns affecting more than 5% of the body surface; or Involves verified exposure to infectious substances or injurious radiation. (450) Shall. A rule of construction in Part 1.1.1.1(a)(1) that indicates a mandatory requirement.
(451) Signal area. An area on an aerodrome used for the display of ground signals.
(452) Signature. An individual's unique identification used as a means of authenticating a
record entry or record. A signature may be hand-written, electronic, or any other form acceptable to the Authority. (453) Signed maintenance release. To certify that maintenance work has been completed
satisfactorily in accordance with the applicable Standards of airworthiness, by issuing the maintenance release referred to in MCAR part 5. (454) Significant. In the context of the medical provisions in MCAR 2.11, significant means to
a degree or of a nature that is likely to jeopardise flight safety. (455) Skill test. A competency test on the areas of operations for a licence, certificate, rating,
or authorisation that is conducted by having the applicant respond to questions and demonstrate manoeuvres in flight, or in an approved flight simulation training device, or in a combination of these. (456) Small aeroplane. An aeroplane having a maximum certified takeoff mass of less than
5,700 kg. (12,500 lbs.). (457) Solo flight. Flight time during which a student pilot is the sole occupant of the aircraft, or
that flight time during which the student acts as a PIC of a gas balloon or an airship requiring more than one flight crewmember. (458) Spare parts. Any parts, appurtenances, and accessories of aircraft (other than aircraft
engines and propellers), of aircraft engines (other than propellers), of propellers, and of appliances, maintained for installation or use in an aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller, or appliance, but which at the time are not installed therein or attached thereto. (Law) Version 5.0
(459) Special aircraft jurisdiction of SURINAME. This includes: (Law)
Civil aircraft of SURINAME; and Any other aircraft within the jurisdiction of SURINAME, while the aircraft is in flight, which is from the moment when all external doors are closed following embarkation until the moment when one such door is opened for disembarkation or, in case of a forced landing, until the competent authorities take over the responsibility of the aircraft and the persons and property aboard. (460) Special curricula. A closely supervised, systematic and continuous course of training,
conforming to a planned syllabus or curriculum, and conducted in an approved training organisation. Note: The definition of special curricula has been derived from the note to ICAO Annex 1: (461) Special VFR flight. A VFR flight cleared by air traffic control to operate within a control
zone in meteorological conditions below VMC. (462) Specialised maintenance. Any maintenance not normally performed by an AMO (e.g.,
tire retreating, plating, etc.) (463) Operations specifications. A document issued to a certificate holder by the Authority
describing the scope and limitations of operations. (464) State of Design. The State having jurisdiction over the organisation responsible for the
(465) State of Destination. As relating to dangerous goods, the State in the territory of which
the dangerous goods consignment if finally to be unloaded from an aircraft. (466) State of Manufacture. The State having jurisdiction over the organisation responsible for
the final assembly of the aircraft. (467) State of occurrence. The State in the territory of which an accident or incident occurs.
(468) State of the Operator. The State in which the operator's principal place of business is
located, or, if there is no such place of business, the operator's permanent residence. (469) State of origin. As relating to dangerous goods, the State in which dangerous goods
were first loaded on an aircraft. (470) State of Registry. The State on whose register an aircraft is entered.
Note - In the case of the registration of aircraft of an international operating agency on other than a national basis the States constituting the agency are jointly and severally bound to assume the obligations which, under the Chicago Convention, attached to a State of Registry. See, in this regard the Council Resolution of 14 December 1967 on Nationality and Registration of Aircraft Operated by International Operating Agencies which can be found in Policy and Guidance Material on the Economic Regulation of International Air Transport (Doc 9587). (471) State safety programme (SSP). An integrated set of regulations and activities aimed at
improving safety. November 2014
(472) Substantial damage. Damage or failure which adversely affects the structural strength,
performance, or flight characteristics of the aircraft, and which would normally require major repair or replacement of the affected component. Engine failure or damage limited to an engine if only one engine fails or is damaged, bent fairings or cowling, dented skin, small punctured holes in the skin or fabric, ground damage to rotor or propeller blades, and damage to landing gear, wheels, tires, flaps, engine accessories, brakes, or wingtips are not considered "substantial damage" for the purpose of this substantial damage relating to an aircraft accident. (473) Syllabus (training). The detailed summary or outline describing the main points of a
(474) Synthetic flight trainer. See flight simulation training device.
(475) Takeoff decision point. The point used in determining takeoff performance of a Class 1
helicopter from which, an engine failure occurring at this point, either a rejected takeoff may be made or a takeoff safely continued. (476) Takeoff surface. The part of the surface of an aerodrome which the aerodrome authority
has declared available for the Norman ground or water run of aircraft taking off in a particular direction. (477) Target level of safety (TLS). A generic term representing the level of risk which is
considered acceptable in particular circumstances. (478) Taxiing. Movement of an aircraft on the surface of an aerodrome under its own power,
excluding takeoff and landing. (479) Taxiway. A defined path on a land aerodrome established for the taxiing of aircraft and
intended to provide a link between one part of the aerodrome and another, including: (i) Aircraft stand taxilane. A portion of an apron designated as a taxiway and intended to provide access to aircraft stands only. Apron taxiway. A portion of a taxiway system located on an apron and intended to provide a through taxi route across the apron. Rapid exit taxiway. A taxiway connected to a runway at an acute angle and designed to allow landing aeroplanes to turn off at higher speeds than are achieved on other exit taxiways thereby minimising runway occupancy times. (480) Technical instructions. The latest effective edition of the Technical Instructions for the
Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air (Doc. 9284-AN/905), including the supplement and any addendum, approved and published by decision of the Council of the ICAO. The term "Technical Instructions" is used in this Part. (481) Technical log. A document carried on an aircraft that contains information to meet ICAO
requirements; a technical log contains two independent sections: a journey record section and an aircraft maintenance record section. (482) Terminal control area. A control area normally established at the confluence of ATC
routes in the vicinity of one or more major aerodromes. (483) Terrain awareness warning system. A system that provides the flight crew with
sufficient information and alerting to detect a potentially hazardous terrain situation and so the flight crew may take effective action to prevent a controlled flight into terrain (CFIT) Version 5.0
(484) Threat. As relating to flight, events or errors that occur beyond the influence of an
operational person, increase operational complexity and which must be managed to maintain the margin of safety. (485) Threat management. The process of detecting and responding to the threats with
countermeasures that reduce or eliminate the consequences of threats, and mitigate the probability of errors or undesired aircraft. Note - See Attachment C to Chapter 3 of the Procedures for Air Navigation Services Training (ICAO PANS-TRG, Doc 9868) and ICAO Circular 314, Threat and Error Management (TEM) in Air Traffic Control, for a description of undesired states. (486) Threshold time. The range, expressed in time, established by the State of the Operator,
to an en-route alternate aerodrome, whereby any time beyond requires an extended diversion time operation approval from the State of the Operator. (487) Total estimated elapsed time. For IFR flights, the estimated time required from takeoff
to arrive over that designated point, defined by reference to navigation aids, from which it is intended that an instrument approach procedure will be commenced, or, if no navigation aid is associated with the destination aerodrome, to arrive over the destination aerodrome. For VFR flights, the estimated time required from takeoff to arrive over the destination aerodrome. (488) Total vertical error (TVE). The vertical geometric difference between the actual pressure
altitude flown by an aircraft and its assigned pressure altitude (flight level). (489) Traceability. A characteristic of a calibration, analogous to a pedigree. A traceable
calibration is achieved when each Measurement Device and Working Standard, in a hierarchy stretching back to the National Standard, was itself properly calibrated, and the results properly documented. The documentation provides the information needed to show that all calibrations in the chain of calibrations were properly performed. (490) Track. The projection on the earth's surface of the path of an aircraft, the direction of
which path at any point is usually expressed in degrees from North (true, magnetic or (491) Traffic avoidance advice. Advice provided by an air traffic services unit specifying
manoeuvres to assist a pilot to avoid a collision. (492) Traffic information. Information issued by an air traffic services unit to alert a pilot to
other known or observed air traffic which may be in proximity to the position or intended route of flight and to help the pilot avoid a collision. (493) Training manual. A manual containing the training goals, objectives, standards syllabi,
and curriculum for each phase of the approved training course. (494) Training and procedures manual. A manual containing procedures, instructions and
guidance for use by personnel of an Approved Training Organisation in the execution of their duties in meeting the requirements of the certificate. It may be a combined manual or separated into a Training Manual and a Procedures Manual. (i) Training manual. A manual containing the training goals, objectives, standards,
syllabi, and curriculum for each phase of the approved training course. Procedures manual. A manual containing procedures, instructions and
guidance for use by personnel of the ATO in the execution of their duties in meeting the requirements of the certificate. November 2014
(495) Training programme. Programme that consists of courses, courseware, facilities, flight
training equipment, and personnel necessary to accomplish a specific training objective. It may include a core curriculum and a specialty curriculum. (496) Training specifications. A document issued to an Aviation Training Organisation
certificate holder by the SURINAME that specifies training programme requirements and authorises the conduct of training, checking, and testing with any limitations thereof. (497) Transfer standard. Any standard that is used to compare a measurement process,
system, or device at one location or level with another measurement process, system or device at another location or level. (498) Transition altitude. The altitude at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is
controlled by reference to altitudes. (499) Training time. The time spent receiving from an authorised instructor flight training,
ground training, or simulated flight training in an approved flight simulation training device. (500) Training to proficiency. The process of the check pilot administering each prescribed
manoeuvre and procedure to a pilot as necessary until it is performed successfully during the training period. (501) Type certificate. A document issued by a Contracting State to define the design of an
aircraft type and to certify that this design meets the appropriate airworthiness requirements of that State. (502) Ultimate load. The limit load multiplied by the appropriate factor of safety.
(503) Unaided night flight. For a flight in which a pilot uses night vision goggles, the portion of
the flight in which the pilot does not use night vision goggles to maintain visual surface (504) Undesired aircraft state. Occurs when the flight crew places the aircraft in a situation of
unnecessary risk. (ICAO Annex 1). (505) UN number. The four-digit number assigned by the United Nations Committee of Experts
on the Transport of Dangerous Goods and on the Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labelling of Chemicals to identify an article or substance or a particular group of substances. (506) Unit load device. Any type of freight container, aircraft container, aircraft pallet with a
net, or aircraft pallet with a net over an igloo. (507) Unmanned free balloon. A non-power-driven, unmanned, lighter-than-air aircraft in free
(508) Validation. The action taken by SURINAME as an alternative to issuing its own licence,
in accepting a licence issued by another Contracting State as the equivalent of its own licence for use on aircraft registered in SURINAME. Also may be referred to as rendering a licence valid. (509) VFR. The symbol used to designate the visual flight rules.
(510) VFR flight. A flight conducted in accordance with the visual flight rules.
(511) Visibility. Visibility for aeronautical purposes is the greater of:
The greatest distance at which a black object of suitable dimensions, situated near the ground, can be seen and recognised when observed against a bright Version 5.0
The greatest distance at which lights in the vicinity of 1,000 candelas can be seen and identified against an unlit background. (512) Visual line-of-sight (VLOS) operation. An operation in which the remote pilot or RPA
observer maintains direct unaided visual contact with the remotely piloted aircraft. (513) Visual meteorological conditions. Meteorological conditions expressed in terms of
visibility, distance from cloud, and ceiling, equal to or better than specified minima. Note - The specified minima are contained in Part 8 of the CARS. (514) VMC. The symbol used to designate visual meteorological conditions.
(515) Wet lease. The lease of an aircraft with crew and other back-up.
(516) Will. A rule of construction in Part 1.1.1.1 (a)(4) that indicates an action incumbent upon
1.6 SAFETY MANAGEMENT
1.6.1.1 APPLICABILITY
The subpart prescribes procedures applicable to safety management functions related to, or in direct support of, the safe operation of aircraft, by: (1) specified aviation safety service providers, and Note 1: The safety management provisions for States, contained in ICAO Annex 19, Chapters 3 and 5 and Appendix 1, would typically be contained in the internal orders of the Authority, rather than in regulations. Note 2: The framework for the implementation and maintenance of a State Safety Programme and a safety management system is contained in ICAO Doc 9859 Safety Management Manual, 1.6.1.2 SAFETY MANAGEMENT SYSTEM – AOC, ATO, AND AMO
The AOC, ATO, and AMO shall implement a safety management system acceptable to the Authority that as a minimum shall: (1) contain the components and elements listed in IS 1.6.1.2; and be commensurate with the size of the service provider and the complexity of its aviation products or services. The safety management system shall clearly define lines of safety accountability throughout the organisation, including a direct accountability for safety on the part of senior management. Note 1: Guidance on implementation of an SMS is contained in ICAO Doc 9859 Safety Management Manual. Note 2: And SMS is also required by organisations involved in the type design or manufacture of aircraft, in accordance with ICAO Annex 8, and operators of aerodromes in accordance with ICAO Annex 14, should a State have such service providers. 1.6.1.3 SAFETY MANAGEMENT SYSTEM - GENERAL AVIATION OPERATORS
General aviation operators shall implement an SMS when conducting any of the following An aeroplane with a maximum certificated take-off mass exceeding 5,700 kg; An aeroplane equipped with one or more turbojet engines; or An aeroplane with a seating configuration of more than 9 passenger seats. The SMS should as a minimum include: (1) A process to identify actual and potential safety hazards and assess the associated risks; A process to develop and implement remedial action necessary to maintain an acceptable level of safety; and Provision for continuous monitoring and regular assessment of the appropriateness and effectiveness of safety management activities. Version 5.0
PART 1 — IMPLEMENTING STANDARDS
For ease of reference the number assigned to each implementing standard corresponds to its associated regulation. For example IS: 1.2.1.8 would reflect a standard required in subsection 1.2.1.8. Version 5.0
IS 1.2.1.8
The following are deemed to be psychoactive substances: (1) Sedatives and hypnotics. Cocaine and other stimulants (except caffeine). Volatile solvents. Note: See ICAO Doc 9654, Manual on Prevention of Problematic Use of Substances in the Aviation Workplace. ICAO Doc 9654 LEGAL ENFORCEMENT ACTIONS
These sanction guidance tables provide a recommended approach to assessment of sanctions for violations of these Aviation Regulations. Violation
Recommended Sanction per Violation
Personnel of Air Carriers
1. MAINTENANCE PERFORMED BY
UNAUTHORIZED PERSONNEL:
Exceeding limitations 30 to 45 day suspension 2. FAILURE TO PROPERLY PERFORM
30 to 120 day suspension MAINTENANCE
3. Inspection personnel
a. Failure to make required inspection 30 to 60 day suspension b. Making improper inspection 30 to 120 day suspension c. Improperly releasing an aircraft to service 30 to 60 day suspension 4. Records and Reports
a. Failure to make entries in aircraft log 15 to 60 day suspension b. Failure to make entries in worksheets 15 to 30 day suspension c. Failure to sign off work or inspection 15 to 30 day suspension d. Failure to complete and sign maintenance 15 to 30 day suspension e. Falsification of records or reports 5. RELEASING AIRCRAFT FOR SERVICE
30 to 60 day suspension WITHOUT REQUIRED EQUIPMENT
a. Failure to use pre-flight cockpit checklist 15 to 30 day suspension b. Failure to check aircraft logs, flight 30 to 90 day suspension manifests, weather, etc. 7. TAXIING
a. Failure to adhere to taxi clearance or 30 to 60 day suspension b. Collision while taxiing 30 to 120 day suspension 30 to 180 day suspension d. Taxiing with passenger standing 30 to 60 day suspension a. Takeoff against instruction or clearance 60 to 120 day suspension b. Takeoff below weather minima 60 to 120 day suspension c. Takeoff in overloaded aircraft 60 to 120 day suspension 9. ENROUTE
a. Deviation from clearance or instruction 30 to 90 day suspension b. Operating VFR within clouds 90 day suspension to revocation c. Operation of unairworthy aircraft 30 to 180 day suspension d. Unauthorized departure from flight desk 15 to 30 day suspension e. Operating within restricted or prohibited 30 to 90 day suspension area, or within positive control area with clearance November 2014
f. Operating without required equipment 15 to 120 day suspension g. Fuel mismanagement/exhaustion 30 to 150 day suspension 10. APPROACH TO LANDING
a. Deviation from clearance or instruction in 30 to 90 day suspension b. Approach below weather minimums 45 to 90 day suspension c. Exceeding speed limitation in airport traffic 30 to 60 day suspension 11. LANDING
a. Landing at wrong airport 90 to 180 day suspension b. Deviation from instrument approach 30 to 90 day suspension c. Overweight landing 30 to 90 day suspension 15 to 60 day suspension e. Short or long landing 30 to 180 day suspension f. Wheels up landing 30 to 180 day suspension g. Failure to comply with preferential runway Maximum civil penalty to 15 day suspension 12. UNAUTHORIZED ADMISSION TO FLIGHT
30 to 90 day suspension 13. Failure to close and lock cockpit door
15 to 30 day suspension 14. Acting as flight crewmember while under the
Emergency revocation influence of liquor or drugs, or alcoholic
beverage consumption within 8 hours
15. Denial of authorized entry to flight deck
30 to 60 day suspension 16. Flight and duty time limitations
15 to 90 day suspension 17. Operation without required certificate or
a. Medical certificate 15 to 60 day suspension b. Lack of type rating 180 day suspension to revocation c. Missed proficiency check 30 to 90 day suspension Version 5.0
d. Lack of current experience 30 to 90 day suspension e. Failure to have current certificate or license 3 to 7 day suspension 18. OPERATION WITH KNOWN PHYSICAL
INDIVIDUALS AND GENERAL AVIATION –
OWNERS, PILOTS, AVIATION
1. STUDENT OPERATIONS
a. Carrying passengers b. Solo flight without endorsement 45 to 90 day suspension c. Operation on international flight 60 to 90 day suspension d. Use of aircraft in business 90 to 120 day suspension e. Operation for compensation or hire 2. FLIGHT INSTRUCTORS
a. a. False endorsement of student pilot b. Exceeding flight time limitations 30 to 90 day suspension c. Instruction in aircraft for which he/she is not 30 to 90 day suspension 3. OPERATIONAL VIOLATIONS
a. Operation without valid airworthiness or 30 to 90 day suspension registration certificate b. Failure to close flight plan or file arrival Administrative action c. Operation without valid pilot certificate (no 30 to 180 day suspension d. Operation while pilot certificate is Emergency revocation e. Operation without pilot or medical certificate Administrative action to 15 day suspension in personal possession f. Operation without valid medical certificate 30 to 180 day suspension g. Operation for compensation or hire without 180 day suspension to revocation commercial pilot certificate h. Operation without type or class rating 60 to 120 day suspension November 2014
i. Failure to comply with special conditions of 90 day suspension to revocation medical certificate j. Operation with known physical deficiency 90 day suspension to revocation k. Failure to obtain pre-flight information 30 to 90 day suspension l. Deviation from ATC instruction or clearance 30 to 90 day suspension m. Taxiing, takeoff, or landing without a 30 to 90 day suspension clearance where ATC tower is in opn n. Failure to maintain radio communications in 30 to 60 day suspension airport traffic area o. Failure to comply with airport traffic pattern 30 to 60 day suspension p. Operation in terminal control area without or 60 to 90 day suspension contrary to a clearance q. Failure to maintain altitude in airport traffic 30 to 60 day suspension r. Exceeding speed limitations in traffic area 30 to 60 day suspension s. Operation of unairworthy aircraft 30 to 180 day suspension t. Failure to comply with Airworthiness 30 to 180 day suspension u. Operation without required instruments 30 to 90 day suspension and/or equipment v. Exceeding operating limitations 30 to 90 day suspension w. Operation within prohibited or restricted 30 to 90 day suspension area, or within positive control area x. Failure to adhere to right of way rules 30 to 90 day suspension y. Failure to comply with VFR cruising altitudes 30 to 90 day suspension z. Failure to maintain required minimum altitudes over structures, persons, or Sparsely populated area 60 to 180 day suspension 30 to 120 day suspension aa. Failure to maintain radio watch while under 30 to 60 day suspension bb. Failure to report compulsory reporting points 30 to 60 day suspension Version 5.0
cc. Failure to display position lights 30 to 60 day suspension dd. Failure to maintain proper altimeter settings 30 to 60 day suspension ee. Weather operations: Failure to comply with visibility minimums in 60 to 180 day suspension controlled airspace; Failure to comply with visibility minimums outside controlled airspace; 30 to 120 day suspension Failure to comply with distance from clouds requirements in controlled airspace 60 to 180 day suspension Failure to comply with distance from clouds requirements outside of controlled airspace 30 to 120 day suspension ff. Failure to comply with IFR landing minimums 45 to 180 day suspension gg. Failure to comply with instrument approach 45 to 180 day suspension hh. Careless or reckless operations Fuel mismanagement/exhaustion 30 to 150 day suspension Wheels up landing 30 to 60 day suspension Short or long landing 30 to 90 day suspension Landing on or taking off from closed runway 30 to 60 day suspension Landing or taking off from ramps or other 30 to 120 day suspension Taxiing collision 30 to 90 day suspension Leaving aircraft unattended with motor running 30 to 90 day suspension November 2014
Propping aircraft without a qualified person 30 to 90 day suspension ii. Passenger operations Operation without approved seat belts 30 to 60 day suspension Carrying passengers who are under the 60 to 120 day suspension influence of drugs or alcohol Performing acrobatics when all passengers are not equipped with approved parachutes 60 to 90 day suspension IS 1.6.1.2
SAFETY MANAGEMENT SYSTEM – AOC, ATO AND AMO
The following specifies the framework for the implementation and maintenance of a safety management system (SMS) by an AOC, ATO or AMO. (1) Safety policy and objectives: (i) Management commitment and responsibility. (A) The AOC, ATO or AMO shall define the organisation's safety policy which shall be: 1. in accordance with international and national requirements, signed by the accountable executive of the organisation. The safety policy shall: 1. reflect organisational commitments regarding safety; include a clear statement about the provision of the necessary resources for the implementation of the safety policy; be communicated with visible endorsement throughout the include the safety reporting procedures; clearly indicate which types of operational behaviours are unacceptable; include the conditions under which disciplinary action would Be periodically reviewed to ensure it remains relevant and appropriate to the organisation. Safety accountabilities Version 5.0
The AOC, ATO or AMO shall identify, with respect to the safety performance of the SMS: 1. the accountable executive who, irrespective of other functions, shall have ultimate responsibility and accountability, on behalf of the AOC, ATO or AMO, for the implementation and maintenance of the SMS; the accountabilities of all members of the management, irrespective of other functions, and The AOC, ATO or AMO shall 1. document safety responsibilities, accountabilities and communicate these throughout the organisation, and include a definition of the levels of management authority to make decisions regarding safety risk tolerability. Appointment of key safety personnel (A) The AOC, ATO or AMO shall identify a safety manager to be the responsible individual and focal point or the implementation and maintenance of an effective SMS. Coordination of emergency response planning (A) The AOC, ATO or AMO shall ensure that an emergency response plan that provides for the orderly and efficient transition from normal to emergency operations and the return to normal operations is properly coordinated with the emergency response plans of those organisations it must interface with during the provision of its services. SMS documentation (A) The AOC, ATO or AMO shall develop and maintain: 1. an SMS implementation plan: (a) endorsed by senior management of the organisation, that defines the organisation's approach to the management of safety in a manner that meets the organisation's safety objectives. SMS documentation describing: (a) the safety policy and objectives, the SMS requirements, the SMS processes and procedures, the accountabilities, responsibilities and authorities for processes and procedures and the SMS outputs. November 2014
a safety management systems manual (SMSM) to communicate its approach to the management of safety throughout the organisation. Safety risk management: (i) Hazard identification. (A) The AOC, ATO or AMO shall develop and maintain a formal process that ensures that hazards in operations are identified. The AOC, ATO or AMO shall base its hazard identification on a combination of reactive, proactive and predictive methods of safety data collection. Safety risk assessment and mitigation. (A) The AOC, ATO or AMO shall develop and maintain a formal process that ensures analysis, assessment and control of the safety risks in training operations. Safety assurance: (i) Safety performance monitoring and measurement. (A) The AOC, ATO or AMO shall develop and maintain the means to: 1. verify the safety performance of the organisation, and validate the effectiveness of safety risk controls. The AOC, ATO or AMO shall verify the safety performance of the organisation in reference to the safety performance indicators and safety performance targets of the SMS. The management of change (A) The AOC, ATO or AMO shall develop and maintain a formal process to: 1. identify changes within the organisation which may affect established processes and services; describe the arrangements to ensure safety performance before implementing changes, and eliminate or modify safety risk controls that are no longer needed or effective due to changes in the operational environment. Continuous improvement of the SMS (A) The AOC, ATO or AMO shall develop and maintain a formal process to 1. identify the causes of substandard performance of the SMS] determine the implications of substandard performance of the SMS in operations; and eliminate or mitigate such causes. Safety promotion: (i) Training and education Version 5.0
The AOC, ATO or AMO shall develop and maintain a safety training programme that: 1. ensures that all personnel are trained and competent to perform the SMS duties, and is appropriate to each individual's involvement in the SMS. Safety communication. (A) The AOC, ATO or AMO shall develop and maintain formal means for safety communication that: 1. ensures all personnel are fully aware of the SMS; conveys safety-critical information; explains why particular safety actions are taken; and explains why safety procedures are introduced or changed. November 2014
Source: http://www.casas.sr/cms/data/images/10/CARS%20Part%201.pdf