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Timestamp: 2018-09-22 00:13:15
Document Index: 636150942

Matched Legal Cases: ['arti\n1', 'art 368', 'art 5', 'art 8', 'art 7', 'art 9', 'art 12', 'art 12', 'art 368', 'art 13', 'art 13', 'art 368', 'art 14', 'art 14', 'art 14', 'art 15', 'arty\n1']

East India Company | LawTeacher
LEGAL GK 3
1. the East India Company was established by the British Crown in the year
a) 1857 ad
b) 1600 ad
c) 1605 ad
d) 1757 ad
1. the East India Company commenced its company business in 1612 at
1. under the charter of 1687, a mayor’s court was established at madras. The mayor had to be
a) elected by the Alderman and the Burgesses every year
b) nominated by the company
c) senior-most Alderman
d) nominated by the company on the recommendation of the outgoing mayor
1. the main objective of the regulation act, 1773 were to
a) bring the management of the company under the control of the British Parliament & the British Crown
b) introduce reforms in the company’s government in India
c) provide remedies against illegalities and anarchy committed by the company’s servants in India
1. for the 1st time the system of appeals from India to Privy Council in England was introduced by the charter of
c) 1726
1. under which plan separation between revenue and judicial function was maintained
a) plan of 1772
b) plan of 1774
c) plan of 1780
d) plan of 1782
1. in Raja Nand Kumar trial, nand kumar was charged for the crime of forgery and was hanged in the year 1775. he was sentenced to death under the act of
a) 1726
1. the regulation act empowered the british crown to establish a supreme court at calcutta by issuing a charter in 1774. it also led
a) the abolition of mayor’s court n Calcutta
b) to confer civil, criminal, admiralty, ecclesiastical jurisdiction on the supreme court
d) to establish court of record at other two Presidency towns viz., Bombay & Madras
1. what is the meaning of ‘lex loci’
a) law of land
b) sovereignty is essential for enacting laws
c) law of the land is supreme
d) crown has supreme authority
1. lord Cornwallis introduced the ‘ Cornwallis code’ in 1793. what are the true effects of this code
a) the collector was to collect the revenue only
b) the magesterial powers of the collection of revenue were taken away
c) the court fees were abolished
1. the plan of 1772 under the territories of Bihar, Bengal and Orissa were divided in districts and in each district a collector was appointed. Such plan was drafted under the chairmanship of
d) lord William betick
1. the charter of 1753 was introduced to reform some of the provisions of the charter of 1726. one of the most important provisions was
a) establishment of the court of admirality
b) establishment of the court of revenue
c) establishment of the mayor’s court
1. the transfer of the company’s government to the british crown was proclaimed by Queen Victoria just after the ‘sepoy mutiny’. It was declared on
a) 1st oct, 1857
b) 1st oct, 1858
c) 1st oct, 1859
d) 1st dec, 1859
1. one of the following was not one of the main objectives of the Indian Council Act, 1909
a) increase the size of legislative council
b) enlarge the functions of the legislative council
c) secure the support of the moderate section in the Indian national congress
d) decrease in proportion of the elected members
1. the simon commission placed the recommendation regarding diarchy which had to be abolished in the provinces and also proposed enlargement of the provincial legislature. It was appointed in the year
1. which one of the following act made the central legislature a bicameral i.e, the council of states and the legislative assembly
1. under the government of India act, 1935, the federal court had
a) original jurisdiction only
b) appellate jurisdiction only
c) original, appellate & advisory jurisdictions
d) advisory jurisdiction only
1. quit India revolution was declared by the indian national congress after the failure of the
c) Wavell plan
1. one of the following statements was not made among the simon commission’s recommendation
a) dyarchy to be abolished in the provinces
b) reconstitution of central legislature
c) establishment of the provincial public service commission for all provinces
d) Indian council is not needed to advice the secretary of state for India
1. by the government of the India act, 1919, diarchy was introduced in the provinces and the federal subjects were divided into 2 pair: reserved and transferred. Reserved subjects included
a) ecclesiastical affairs, public accounts, defence & tribal affairs
b) external affairs, ecclesiastical affairs, defence & tribal affairs
c) external affairs, public accounts, defence & tribal affairs
d) ecclesiastical affairs, public accounts, defence and external affairs
1. quit India movement was declared by the india national congress in Bombay session of ACCC on
a) aug 8, 1942
b) aug 9, 1945
c) july 18, 1947
1. the plan of lord mountbatten was accepted by the congress and the muslim league. The british parliament enacted the Indian independence act, 1947. it got royal assent on
a) 3 june, 1947
b) 4 july, 1947
c) 15 july, 1947
d) 18 july, 1947
1. the cabinet mission (1946) did not propose that
a) the union constitution be jointly settled by the entire constituent assembly including representatives of the states
b) there were to be three groups- hindu majority provinces, muslim majority provinces, Bengal & assam
c) the union of india would comprise british india & states
d) the provinces couldnot opt out of their respective groups
1. which one of the following made the Indian legislature bicameral
1. the first attempt at introducing a representative and popular element in administration was made by
a) Indian councils act, 1900
d) Indian councils act, 1919
1. the government of india act, 1935 vested the residuary power in the
b) federal legislature
1. which of the following was not one of the features of the government of india act, 1935
a) provincial autonomy
b) dyarchy of centre & the provinces
c) bicameral legislature
d) all india federation
1. the first session of the constituent assembly was held on
a) 9 dec, 1946
b) 26 nov, 1949
c) 15 aug, 1947
d) 26 jan, 1946
1. which one of the following aimed at providing a federal structure for india
b) Montague-chelmsford reforms act, 1919
c) Charter act, 1831
1. what was the main stipulation of government of india act, 1935
a) a federation was suggested
b) unitary reform of government was recommended
c) complete independence was guaranteed
d) dyarchy was made applicable in provincial level
1. for the first time a bid to bring about centralization in the legislative field was made under
a) act of 1900
c) Indian councils acts, 1861
1. the amendment procedure laid down in the constitution of India is on the pattern of
b) government of india act, 1947
c) constitution of USA
d) constitution of UK
1. the system of the ‘double government’ system was declared by the
b) charter act of 1833
c) act of 1858
1. from which of the countries India has adopted fundamental duties
c) ERSTWHILE USSR
1. the India constitution has borrowed the ideas of preamble from the
a) Italian constitution
b) Canadian constitution
c) French constitution
d) Constitution of USA
1. which of the following sought to change the character of the Indian government from unitary to federal
1. the main recommendation of the cabinet commission include
a) formation of federal union consisting of british Indian provinces and Indian states
b) a constituent assembly to frame a constitution for India
c) an interim government consisting of representatives of various political parties
1. which of the following acts provided for setting up of a board of control in which the british government could fully control the british east india company’s civil, military & revnue affairs in India
b) pitt’s india act, 1784
d) government of india act, 1858
1. the plan of Stafford crips envisaged that after the 2nd world war
1. the act in which for the 1st time statutory rules were framed to separate provincial subjects from the central subjects was the
d) Indian council act, 1892
1. under which one of the following acts was the communal electorate system introduced by the british in india for the 1st time
c) Indian council act, 1861
1. in the federation established by the act of 1935, residuary powers were given to
a) federation legislature
1. which of the following are the principal features of government of India act, 1919
2. introduction of separate communal electorate for muslims
4. expansion & reconstruction of central and provincial legislature
1. 1st attempt at introducing a representative and popular element in the governance of India was made through
d) Government india act, 1919
1. which of the following proved to be the most short lived of all the british constitutional experiments in India
a) government of india acts, 1919
c) Pitt’s india act, 1784
1. which one of the following acts formally introduced the principles of election for the first time
1. Which of the following acts gave representation to Indians for the 1st time in the legislature
b) Indian councils act, 1919
1. the crown took the government of india into its own hands by
a) charter act,1833
Part b ( preamble)
1. in which case it was held by the supreme court that ‘ preamble is the basic feature of the constitution’ ?
a) in re: golaknath case
b) in re: maneka Gandhi
c) in re: swarn singh
d) in re: keshwananda bharti
1. in which case the supreme court held that the preamble is not the part of the constitution?
a) A.k gopalan case
b) Berubari case
c) Minerva mills case
d) A.k anotony case
1. preambleless statute is a rare occurrence. But there are some statutes which do not have a preamble. Which of the following statutes has no preamble
a) government of india act,1935
c) the british north America act
d) constitution of Switzerland
1. sovereignty under constitution belongs to
d) the executant, judiciary & legislature
1. the Indian constitution was adopted by the constituent assembly on
a) 25th aug, 1949
b) 26th nov, 1949
c) 26th jan, 1950
d) 15th aug, 1947
1. the preamble of the constitution of India envisages that
a) it shall stand part of the constitution
b) it could be abrogated or wiped out from the constitution
c) it does not acknowledge, recognize or proclaim anything about the constitution
d) it has separate entity in the constitution
1. in preamble of the constitution equality of status and opportunity refers to
a) public services & public matters only
b) social, political and economic affairs
c) social & economic affairs
1. expression socialist in the preamble has been added by taking the views of
a) marx & laski
b) marx & Gandhi
c) rousseau & Gandhi
d) Gandhi & hegal
1. which of the following statement is correct
a) preamble is a key to the understanding of the minds of founding fathers
b) preamble embodies the ideals, hopes, faith & aspirations of the people
c) preamble embodies the intentions of the founding fathers & objectives of th constitution
d) preamble of the constitution has no importance. It is no more than an introduction to constitution
1. the word socialist secular & unity and integrity of the nation were made to our constitution by
a) preamble of the constitution is the part of the constitution and can be amended under the art 368
b) preamble of the constitution is not a part of the constitution & cannot be amended
c) preamble of the constitution is the part of the constitution & can be amended only if a no change in the basic structure is made
d) preamble can be amended by a parliament simply by an objective resolution
1. the preamble of our constitution is solemnly resolved to secure to its people
a) justice, social, economic & political; liberty of thought, expression belief, faith & worship & equality of status & opportunity
b) fundamental rights & duties
c) civil, political & economic fundamental rights
1. the resolution in the preamble of our constitution is made in the name of
b) constituent assembly of free india
c) constitution of india
1. the preamble to our constitution proclaims that ‘we, the people of India have established
a) a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, republic
b) a sovereign, democratic, republic
c) a sovereign, secular, democratic, socialist, republic
d) a secular, socialist, democratic, sovereign, republic
a) the preamble enumerates the purpose and the objectives that the legislation intended to achieve
b) preamble reflects the intention of the members of the constituent assembly
c) the preamble codifies the regular measures to the citizens
d) envisages only liberty in all spheres
1. the word socialist I preamble, aims to
a) eliminate inequality in economic & political status
b) eliminate inequality in political & religious affairs
c) eliminate inequality in income & status & standards of life
d) eliminate class based society
a) the constitution gives more importance to the society as a whole
b) the constitution is the individual centric or individual oriented
c) the constitution is social-economic pattern of the society but ignores the individual
d) the constitution has not ignored individual but has endeavoured to harmonise the individual interest with permanent interest of the community
1. in the case of Golak Nath v. stae of Punjab, it was remarked that our ‘preamble contains in a nutshell its ideals and aspirations’. Who was the judge
a) Mathew, j.
b) Krishna iyer, j
c) Subba rao, j
d) H.r khanna, j
1. the chairman of the constituent assembly was
b) Jai Prakash Narayan
c) C. rajgopalachari
1. the chairman of the drafting committee of the constitution was
a) DR. B.R AMBEDKAR
c) SIR A. KRISHNA IYER
d) DR RAJENDRA PRASAD
1. faternity mans a sense of common brotherhood to all Indians and is the principle which gives unity & solidarity to social life. It was said by
b) DR. B.R AMBEDKAR
d) C. rajgopalachari
1. the words social justice in the preamble of the constitution, aims the primary duty of the state
a) to make sure that justice was not based on caste , community, race or religion
b) to work for creating a fruitful environment where a reasonable attitude towards social relations strengthened
1. the words socialist & secular were inserted in the preamble by
a) 15th amendment of the constitution
b) 39th amendment of the constitution
c) 42nd amendment of the constitution
d) 44th amendment of the constitution
1. which of the pairs is correctly matched
a) republic head of the state is hereditary monarch
b) sovereign constitution rests on people’s will
c) democratic constitution does not recognize legal supremacy of another
d) secular state is without any religion of its own
1. though the major part of the constitution of india came into force on Jan 26, 1950, the provision relating to citizenship, elections, provincial parliament and temporary and transitional provisions came into force with immediate effect, from
a) 15 AUG, 1949
b) 30 JUNE, 1948
c) 26 NOV, 1949
d) 26 JUNE, 1950
1. preamble of our constitution is of extreme importance and the constitution should be read and interpreted in the light of the grand and noble vision expressed in the preamble. Justice Sikri expressed the above opinion in the case of
a) in re: beru bari union
b) keshavananda bharti v. state of kerela
c) a.k gopalan v. state of madras
d) in re: kerela education bill
1. in accordance with the text of the constitution a reasonable restriction in the interest of the sovereignty & integrity of india can b imposed on the right to
a) freedom of speech & expression
b) move freely throughout the territory of India
c) reside and settle in any part of territory of India
d) carry on any occupation, trade or business
1. unwritten constitution
3. largely based on government of india act, 1935
a) 2 & 1 are correct
c) 3 & 1 are correct
d) 2 & 1 are correct
1. democracy and federalism are essential features of our constitution and basic feature of its structure. This observation was made in S.R Bommai case by
a) J.A.M AHMADI
b) J.J.S VERMA
c) J.P.B. SAWANT
d) J.S.R PANDIAN
1. the text of the preamble of the constitution of India aims to secure
a) fundamental rights to all individuals
b) fundamental duties to citizen of India
c) dignity of the individual and unity and integrity of the nation
d) security of service to government servant
1. in tinsukia electricity company v. state of assam , the supreme court pointed out the term socialist used in the preamble to the constitution of india, means state whose basic policy is to
a) prohibit concentration of wealth and distribute equitability the natural resources
b) prohibit equitability the natural resources
c) distribute equitability the natural resources
d) prohibit concentration of wealth & uplift the living standard of the people
1. the preamble to the constitution of india secures ‘ justice , liberty, equality & faternity’ to
b) those who reside within the territory of india
c) al citizens
d) those citizens who reside within the territory of india
1. ‘justice, social, economic and political’ is:
a) guaranteed by fundamental rights in the constitution of india
b) guaranteed to the people by the writs issued by the supreme court of india
c) an idea enshrined in the preamble to the constitution of india
d) a directive principle of state policy taken into account making enactments
1. consider the following statements with reference to the term ‘secularism’
1. secularism mans the state has no recognized religion of state
2. secularism means that the state treats all the religions equally
3. secularism means that the state regulates the relation of man with god
1. the concept of directive principle of state policy is borrowed from
1. India has borrowed the scheme of federation i.e, ‘ union of states’ from which country?
1. which of the following said that “ in any event, whatever system of government we may establish here must fit in with the temper of the people and be acceptable to them”
b) Dr. B. r ambedkar
c) D.D Basu
d) M.V Pylee
1. by which amendment act ‘ unity of the nation’ was substituted by the ‘unity and integrity of the nation’ in the preamble of the constitution
b) 45th amendment act, 1980
c) 44th amendment act, 1979
1. who among the following said that ‘ the new constitution establishes, indeed a system of government which is at the most quasi-federal, almost devolutionary in character: a unitary state with subsidiary federal features rather than the federal state with unitary feature’.
a) DR KC WHEARE
b) SUBASH KASHYAP
c) DR B.R AMBEDKAR
1. is the preamble a part of the constitution?
a) it is the part of the constitution
b) it is not the part of constitution
c) still this qstn is to be decided by the court
1. which of the following feature is not borrowed from the united kingdom?
a) the cabinet system of government
b) the parliamentary type of government
c) bicameral parliament
d) written constitution
1. the feature power of judicial review borrowed from which of the following country?
Part c( citizenship)
1. the parliament passed the citizenship amendment act, 2003( assented in Jan 2004) which provides the overseas citizenship to the people of Indian Origin in
a) 12 specified countries
b) 16 specified countries
c) 18 specified countries
d) 20 specified countries
1. which of the following articles describe about the person voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a foreign state not to be citizens
a) art 5
b) art 8
c) art 7
d) art 9
1. under the Indian constitution it was held in the case pradeep v. union of india
a) there is only one domicile of the country
b) there are 2 domicile of the union as well as the state
c) in case of jammu & Kashmir, there are two domiciles, one of the union & other of the state
part d ( fundamental rights & the state)
1. the fundamental right secured to the individual are
a) limited to the state action only
b) meant to protect against the conduct of private persons
c) meant to protect persons against police action
1. in the light of the definition of ‘state’ which are not states
b) Institute of constitution & parliamentary affair
c) Council of scientific & industrial affair
d) Prathama bank
1. for the purpose of fundamental rights an authority must come within the definition of ‘state’. Which of the following are not state
b) industrial & finance corporation
c) ncert
d) kerela legislative assembly
1. in the light of the definition of the ‘state’ as including other authorities, which of the following are not states
a) consumer protection society
b) gram panchayat, phoolpur
c) town area committee, ambala
d) Punjab legislative assembly
1. an electricity board terminated services of certain employees arbitrarily without giving notice. Which one of the following alternative remedies can be best adopted by the concerned employees
a) the employees can move to the high court by a writ as electricity board is included within the definition of the state
b) the employees can make an appeal to the state government
c) the employees can move to the high court after getting the permission of electricity board only
d) the employees can directly approach supreme court for violation of a fundamental right
1. which of the following is not State for the purpose of the art 12 of the constitution?
b) A Nationalised Bank
c) Institute of Medical Research
d) Griha Kalyan Kendra
1. in which Indian case it is quoted “ a man’s liberty of movement is regarded so highly by the law of England that it is not to be hindered or prevented except on the surest grounds” ( art 12)
b) joginder kumar case
c) amarawati case
1. in which of the following cases did the supreme court hold that an amendment of the constitution under art 368 was ‘law’ within the meaning of art 13
a) golaknath v. state of Punjab
b) sajjan singh v. state of rajasthan
c) shankari Prasad v. union of india
d) keshavanath bharti v. state of kerela
1. the fundamental rights have
a) retrospective affect
b) have no retrospective affect under art 13(1) or 13(3) b
c) have only future effect
1. in keshavananda bharti v. state of kerelait was held that
a) under the amended art 368, all provisions of the constitution including those enshrined fundamental rights could be amended
b) fundamental rights cannot be amended
c) fundamental rights have the primacy and supremacy than any of the provisions of the constitution
1. art 14 guarantees equality before law and equal protection of law
a) all persons living within the territory of India
b) all persons domiciled in India
c) all Indian citizens living in India
d) all persons natural as well as artificial
1. give response to the statements Equality before law under art 14 of the constitution with reference to
a) laws enacted by legislature
b) orders passed by the executive
c) notifications issued by the government
d) laws enacted by legislature, executive order,etc.
1. on which date the judgement was passed which has changed 50 yrs old law of rent & challenged the doctrine of equality enshrind in art 14
a) 14th APR,2008
b) 16TH APR, 2008
c) 20TH APR, 2008
d) 2ND APR, 2008
1. art 15(1) prohibits the state to discriminate against citizens on the grounds
c) caste and place of birth
1. the expression “equality before law and equal protection of law” means
a) equality before law is a negative concept implying the absence of any special privilege in favour of individuals & equal subject of all classes to the ordinary law
b) equality means, socio-economic balance
c) these two expressions are not applicable to our democratic republic
d) violation of these laws will lead to soci-economi imbalance
1. which one is not correctly matched
a) freedom of speech & expression – include freedom of press
b) freedom conscience - include right to carry and wear kirpans by Sikhs
c) right to personal liberty – include right to carry on any trade or business
d) right to equality- includes principles of natural justice
1. right to work in India is
c) is not a fundamental right but it can b claimed after employment
1. which one of the following statements is correct in respect of state power of reservation in admission to educational institutions
a) caste can be sole criterion
b) poverty can be sole criterion
c) both poverty & caste are relevant criteria
d) residence in rural areas ad lack of educational facilities can be exclusive criteria
1. the press has no fundamental right to publish the proceedings of the legislature because
a) the freedom of press is not fundamental right
b) the press publishes for project
c) each house of the legislature is exclusive master of its proceedings
d) a house of legislature is a court and can regulate access to its proceedings
1. right to freedom of religion cannot be restricted on the ground of
1. on which of the following freedoms can reasonable restrictions be imposed on the ground of security of the state
a) speech & expression
1. under Indian constitution which is not a specific ground on which the state can place restriction on freedom of religion
1. which one of the following pairs is correctly matched
a) writ of habeas corpus- available against private individual as well
b) writ of quo warranto- available against subordinate courts only
c) writ of certiorari- available against autonomous bodies only
d) writ of prohibition- available against public servants only
1. when a writ is issued to an inferior court or tribunal on ground of exceeding the jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of justice, it is called a writ of
1. the appropriate writ issued by the court to quash the appointment of a person to public office is that of
1. which of the following is not a fundamental right
a) right to strike
1. which one of the following fundamental rights have been a subject of maximum controversy & litigation
1. which one of the following is not a fundamental right?
c) right to move freely throught out the country
1. which one of the following fundamental rights was described by dr. b.r. ambedkar as the ‘ heart and soul of constitution’.
1. which one of the following is bulwark of personal remedies
1. which one of the following fundamental rights are restrained by the preventive detention act
a) right to religion
b) right to constitutional remdies
1. the right against exploitation prohibits:
a) traffic in human beings
c) employment of children below 14 yrs in factories, mines, etc
1. the members of union public service commission ( UPSC) are appointed by
1. the term of members of UPSC is ordinarily of
1. the UPSC has advisory power in the following matters
a) methods of recruitment to civil service
b) disciplinary matters affecting a public servant
c) in a only
d) in both a & b
1. the main functions of UPSC are
a) to conduct the examinations for appointment to the services of the union & state as the case may be
b) to hold interviews for the public posts
1. the president in case of union commission & governors in case of State public service commission may remove a member where
a) he is adjudged as insolvent
b) he becomes insane
1. the members of the state commission public service hold office till they attain the age of
1. the term of members of the state public service commission is of
1. its is necessary that the no. of members of public service commission of union as well as of states consists of
a) 15 members
c) Nothing is prescribed
d) At least 10 members
1. on retirement a member of the state public service commission can hold no office under the state government or union government except that of
c) member of UPSC
1. the tenure of gram panchayat & nagar-palika shall be for
c) 5 yrs, unless dissolved earlier
d) Co-extensive with the term of legislative assembly
1. reservation for women in panchayat & nagar-palika is
1. the term of nagar- palika is for
b) 5 yrs, unless dissolved earlier
1. the panchayats are authorized
a) to levy taxes, duties, levy and appropriate the same
b) the panchayats have no power to levy taxes
c) the panchayats are entitled to only grants from the government
d) to levy, collect and appropriate such taxes, duties tolls & fees as they are authorized by the government
1. election to the gram panchayat are
a) to be direct on the basis of adult franchisee
b) by indirect method
c) by legislatures of the states
1. it is obligatory for all states to hav
a) three –tier system
c) some states are exempted from establishing three-tier system
d) it is optional for the states
1. a union territory is administered by
a) president of india directly
b) by the governor of the territory
c) by the chief minister & his council of ministers
d) by the president of India through an administrator appointed by him called the lieutenant governor
1. chairman & other members of the union & state public service commissions are appointed by
b) the president & governor of respective states
c) the prime minister & chief minister of respective states
1. the UPSC has to serve only
a) selected states
b) union territories
c) entire nation
d) depends on the president’s will
1. the president can remove the chairman or any other member of the UPSC in accordance with
a) the inquiry held by the supreme court
b) the misbehaviour proved by the supreme court & it has recommended to the president
c) mental condition, who has been adjudged insolvent
1. the UPSC or state public service commission shall be consulted on
a) all matters regarding procedure of recruitment to civil service & for civil posts
b) on all disciplinary matters affecting persons serving under the government of India or government of state in a civil service capacity
c) on any claim for the award of a person in respect of injuries sustained by person while serving under the government of india
1. a member of the state public service commission can be removed on the ground of misbehaviour only after the enquiry has been held by
a) joint parliamentary committee
c) high court of the concerned state
d) committee constituted by the governor of the state
1. which one of the following is not a function of the UPSC
a) it conducts examination for the appointment to the services of the union
b) it shall be consulted on all matters relating to methods of recruitment to civil services & posts
c) it shall be consulted on all disciplinary matters affecting a person serving the government of India
d) it shall be consulted as regards the reservation of posts for backward classes, scheduled castes & tribes
1. a member of the state public service commission can be removed only by
1. governor on the ground of misbehaviour
2. president on the ground of misbehaviour
3. governor when such member becomes insolvent
a) 1& 2
c) 1& 3
1. regional election commissioner can be appointed by
b) president, in consultation with the election commission
d) president, with the consent of the rajya sabha
1. the largest committee of parliament of india is
1. seats in lok sabha are not reserved for
c) scheduled tribes in autonomous districts
d) anglo-indian
1. the central government gives grants-in-aid to the states out of consolidated fund of india on the basis of the recommendation of the
c) public accounts committee
d) estimates committee
1. the area of lok sabha constituency for the purpose of general election is determined by the
a) delimitation commission
1. finance commission is constituted by the president every year
a) two yrs
b) three yrs
c) five yrs
d) four yrs
1. finances are distributed between the centre & the states on the basis of recommendation of
d) national development centre
1. the composition of UPSC
a) has been laid down in the constitution
b) is determined by the parliament
c) is determined by the president
d) is determined by the home ministry
1. UPSC submits its annual report on its work to
b) the union home minister
1. additional duties can be assigned to UPSC on the recommendation of the
1. the members of the UPSC hold the office
a) during the pleasure of the president
b) as long as they enjoy confidence in parliament
c) for life or till they attain the age of 70 yrs
d) for the term of the six yrs or till they attain the age of 65 yrs
1. the members of all india services are appointed under the signature of
1. the members of UPSC can be removed from the office before the expiry of the term by the
c) president on recommendations of the supreme court
d) prime minister on the recommendation of the supreme court
1. the election commission is responsible for the conduct of election to
c) offices of the president & vice- president
1. the chief election commissioner is
a) elected by the parliament
b) appointed by home minister
c) appointed by prime minister
1. the special status of jammu & Kashmir implies the state has
a) a separate defence force
b) a separate constitution
c) a separate judiciary
1. which of the following committees of parliament is concerned with the regularity & economy of expenditure of the government
1. who was the first cabinet minister to be convicted of murder?
c) lalu Prasad
d) shahabudin
1. which union territory has altered its name recently
1. from 1st oct, 2006 pondicherry is known as
b) pundicherry
c) new colony
d) French Riviera of the east
1. the power to legislate with respect to the collection of rent includes the power to legislate with respect to remission of rent, is based on the theory of
a) ancillary legislation
b) colourable legislation
c) pith & substance
1. how many languages are present in the 8th schedule
1. which one of the following language was not included by the 92nd amendment act, 2003?
1. ‘concurrent list’ includes how many items?
1. when both the seats of the speaker and deputy are vacant, who chooses another member to be speaker or deputy speaker?
1. what is the minimum age for a person to become member of legislative council?
d) Not prescribed in the constitution
1. the legislative council of a state should not exceed the total number of members in the legislative assembly of that state:
1. who has the power to abolish or crate the legislative councils in states?
a) the state assembly
1. which one of the following statements is not true?
a) conduct of the supreme court judge cannot be discussed in the parliament
b) validity of any proceedings of the parliament cannot be questioned in the court
c) no permission is required for a member of a parliament to address the house in his mother-tongue
d) the business in parliament shall be transacted in hindi or English
1. how many members in the house of the people are chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the state?
1. the parliament of the union consists of
b) the house of people the council of states & house of the people
c) the house of the people
1. the council of minister is collectively responsible to the
c) house of the people
1. what can be the maximum interval between the 2 sessions of the each house of parliament?
a) 3 mnths
b) 6 mnths
c) 9 mnths
d) 1 yr
1. the minimum age to become member of the council of states is
a) readjustment to be made after the completion of each census
b) readjustment shall affect the existing house
c) readjustment to be made by the order of the president
1. maximum how many people can represent the union territories in the house of the people
1. who becomes the chairman of the council of states, when vice president of india, discharging the functions of the president of india
a) deputy chairman
c) speaker of the rajya sabha
1. minimum how many days notice is required to move the resolution to remove the Deputy Chairman of the Council Of States?
1. who has the power to dissolve the house of the people?
a) the speaker of the lok sabha
1. every member of either House of Parliament, before taking his seat, makes and subscribes an oath or affirmation according to the form set out in which schedule?
1. when the offices of both the speaker and the deputy speaker is vacant, who will appoint the person to perform the functions of the apeaker?
1. if the speaker of the lok sabha has to resign then, whom will he address his letter of resignaton to?
1. whose decision is final regarding the disqualification of a member of either house of parliament?
1. a person shall not be disqualified for being chosen as a member of either house of parliament, on which one of the following grounds?
a) he holds office to profit under the government
c) he is not a citizen of india
d) he is a law breaker
1. after what time period, the house may declare the seat vacant of any member, when he absents from all meetings without permission of the house?
1. any sum required to satisfy any judgement, decree or award of any court or arbitral tribunal shall be charged on:
a) prime minister’s relief fund
c) fund of ministry of law & justice
d) fund of ministry of home affairs
1. ‘ budget’ is known as:
c) financial statement of the year
d) it has no other name
1. after a money bill has been passed by he house of the people, it is transmitted to the council of states foe its recommendation within how many days?
1. money bill can be introduced in:
a) the house of the people
b) the council of states
c) either of the 2 houses
1. which among the following states has only one House i.e, Legislative Assembly?
1. decisions regarding disqualification of members of lok sabha are taken by
c) minister for parliamentary affairs
d) the parliamentary secretary
1. who the following is considered as the custodian of Lok Sabha
b) leader of the opposition
c) chief whip of the ruling party
1. the term of loksabha is?
a) 5 yrs unless it is dissolved
b) Four yrs from the date of its 1st session
c) 5 yrs from the date of oath taken by the members
d) It is a permanent body of cyclic filing of MP’s
1. members of lok sabha are elected by the way of?
a) people’s representation
b) by the state legislature
d) by electoral college
1. rajya sabha has a term of ?
b) It is a permanent body in which 1/3rd of the members retire after every 2nd yr
1. total strength of council of states consists of
a) 300 members representing states & union territories
b) 260 members
c) 238 members representing states & union territories and 12 nominated by the president
d) 305 members
1. total strength of lok sabha members is
b) 525 from the state & 20 from union territories
c) 525 from the state & 20 from union territories & 2 nominated by the president fro union territory
1. representation of house of people is based on
a) area of the state
1. a member of parliament can claim immunity
a) both from civil as well as criminal cases
b) from civil cases only
c) from criminal cases only
d) cannot claim immunity either from criminal or civil cases
1. after the house is dissolved the speaker is,
a) removed from the office
b) remains as speaker until the first meeting of the house of the people after the dissolution
c) he has to submit his resignation to the president of india within 24 hrs
d) he can continue as speaker for the period of 30 days only
1. council of ministers can be suspended during session
a) by prime minister of india
b) by speaker of lok sabha
c) by chairman of rajya sabha
d) none of the aboce
1. the council of ministers are selected by the
1. give correct response to:
a) council of ministers are collectively responsible to the lok sabha so that the censure of one will become the censure of all
b) they are individually responsible for the acts done by them
c) it is the responsibility of the leader of the house
d) prime minister & home minister are only responsible
1. the oath of the office is administered to the council of ministers by
1. the rajya sabha has 12 nominated members. They are nominated by the President from among the persons having special knowledge or practical experience in
a) literature, science, arts & social sciences
b) literature, science, art & law
c) literature, science, art, law & social work
d) literature, science, art, philosophy, law & social work
1. the Indian parliament consists of
a) lok sabha, rajya sabha & the president
b) lok sabha & rajya sabha
c) house of the people & council of states
a) a person who is a minister in the union government or the state government, is not qualified to be returned to the parliament
b) a person who has declared to be of unsound mind by the competent court, cannot seek election to parliament
c) a person who is an undischarged insolvent , is disqualified from seeking election to either house of parliament or state legislature
d) a person who holds an office of profit under the government is not entitled to seek election to any house of parliament or state legislature
1. a member of parliament has immunity from arrest
a) a member of parliament cannot be arrested and put in prison in a civil,action within a period of 40 days before the commencement of the session and 40 days after the termination of the session
b) a member of parliament cannot be prosecuted in criminal proceedings
c) an MP cannot be detained preventively
d) an MP cannot be arrested for the contempt of court
1. parliamentary privileges are not available to
a) attorney general when he participates in the proceeding of the house of the people
b) minister’s speech made in a house of which he is not member of
c) an individual who is called upon to testify before the house
d) the citizen who distributes pamphlet in the house
1. in case of conflict between fundamental rights of citizens and privileges of parliament
a) parliamentary privilege with true supremacy
b) fundamental rights will prevail over privilege
c) some of the fundamental rights are sacrosanct over which privileges will not prevail
d) generally, parliamentary privileges will prevail but parliament while acting against the fundamental rights of citizens should not violate due process of law
a) newspaper can publish parliamentary proceedings
b) newspapers can publish any part of proceedings with the permission of the speaker
c) newspapers have also the freedom to publish expunged proportions of the speech of an MP
d) parliament has freedom to publish its proceedings
1. which of the following statements is correct
a) no member of parliament can be proceeded with in a court of law for any disclosure he makes in parliament
b) a member of the parliament is protected from any defamatory speech he makes in the parliament & then circulates its copies to the public
c) a member of the parliament has absolute freedom of speech
d) a member of the parliament is protected for any speech he make sin the parliament
1. the speaker may be removed
a) by a resolution of a house passed by the majority of total membership of the house
b) by a resolution of the house passed by 2/3rd majority of members present & voting
c) by a resolution of the house moved after 14 days clear notice & passed by majority of all the then members of the house
1. which one is the correct statement
a) the chairman of rajya sabha is the vice president
b) the position & powers and in all other matters, the position of chairman of the rajya sabha is the same as that of the speaker
1. the speaker is the presiding officer of the lok sabha
a) he is master of the HOUSE & not its servant
b) he can exercise all & every powers of the house
c) he is not above party politics
d) he occupies a position of an umpire & must see that all sctions of the house are given proper opportunity to participate in the proceedings of the house
1. an ordinary bill can originate in either house. It becomes law
a) when it is passed by both the houses & gets the assent of the president
b) as soon as it is passed by both the houses
c) as soon as it is passed by the house in which it originated
a) a money bill deals with imposition, remission, alteration & regulation of tax
b) a money bill deals with regulation of borrowing money & giving of any guarantee by the government
c) a money bill deals with the money of the consolidated fund
d) a money bill is one which provides for the imposition of fines & fees. The lok sabha’s decision is final
1. whenever there are differences between the two houses, a joint sitting can be called by the president on which of the following matters
b) a bill seeking constitutional amendment
c) a bill seeking tax imposition
d) a bill which deals with social legislation
1. the vidhan sabha has a term of
c) 5 yrs unless dissolved earlier
d) 3 yrs unless dissolved earlier
1. the legislature of the state consists of
a) governor, vidhan sabha & vidhan parishad
b) vidhan sabha & vidhan parishad
c) governor & vudhan sabha
1. the vidhan parishad
a) has a term of 6 yrs
b) is a permanent body not subjected to dissolution, 1/3rd of its members retire every second year.
c) Is a body representing certain interests in the share whose members have a term of 6 yrs
d) Is a permanent body
1. elections to the vidhan parishad are held by
1. the no. of seats in vidhan is
a) to be not more than 500 & not less than 60
b) to be more than 500 and not less than 60 but an exception is recognized in the case of one state which has only 32 seats
c) to be more than 400 & not less than 500
d) varies from vidhan sabha to vidhan sabha
1. which of the following statements is incorrect
a) no person can be returned to vidhan sabha unless he has attained the age of 25 yrs
b) no person can be returned to vidhan parishad unless he is of 35yrs of age
c) no person can be returned to vidhan sabha unless his name is registered in the constituency from which he seeks election
1. the power of allocation of seats in the house of people to the states and the constituencies is vested with
c) administrative tribunals
1. money bill can be
a) invalid by rajya sabha
b) invalid by both the houses
c) rajya sabha can reject the money bills
1. who have the right to speak or otherwise take part in the proceedings of either house in any joint sitting of the parliament without voting right
b) auditor & comptroller general of india
d) election commissioner
1. give correct response to
the advice given by the council of ministers to the president & its rejection by him may be
a) questioned by the supreme court
b) it may not be questioned by any court of law
c) the rejection of the advice by the president is unconstitutional
d) it may be questioned by the prime minister
1. the union parliament is composed of
a) the house of people, the council of states & the president
b) the president, vice-president & the prime minister
c) the legislative assemblies, the legislative council & the governor
d) the house of people, the state legislative assemblies & the legislative councils
1. the quorum to constitute a meeting of the house of parliament shall be
a) 1/10th of total no. of members
b) 2/3rd of total no. of members
c) 1/3rd of total no. of members
1. prorogation of the house means
1. if a person gets elected to both the houses of parliament or state legislature or is a member of house of parliament as well as house of state legislature
a) he may enjoy membership of bothe the house
b) he may give up one of the seats
c) he must give up one of the seats
d) he must vacate both the seats
1. the constitution provides special procedure for
b) financial bills
c) both money & financial bills
1. a member of either house of parliament shall be disqualified if
a) he is an undischarged insolvent
b) he is disqualified by any law made by parliament
c) he disqualified under any law made by parliament
1. the system of representation of elections to lok sabha & state assemblies is
b) territorial representation
c) functional representation
d) different from one another
1. the attorney general of india holds office during the pleasure of
1. in the event of death or resignation of the prime minister
a) the ministry is dissolved
c) the cabinet may choose another leader
1. representatives of union territories of lok sabha are chosen by
a) direct election
1. rajya sabha has the exclusive authority to
a) impeach the vice-president
b) intimate the impeachment proceedings against the chief election commissioner
c) recommend the creation of new ALL INDIA SERVICES
1. law made by the parliament having extra-territorial operation shall
a) not be deemed invalid
b) be deemed invalid
c) be deemed ultra vires
d) be deemed constitutional
1. what is the minimum gap permissible between two sessions of parliament
a) 6 mnths
b) 4 mnths
c) 6 mnths, 10 days
1. which of the following is a continuing body?
b) legislative assemble
All Answers ltd, 'East India Company | LawTeacher' (Lawteacher.net, September 2018) <https://www.lawteacher.net/free-law-essays/constitutional-law/east-india-company-was-established-by-the-british-crown.php?vref=1> accessed 22 September 2018
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LawTeacher. November 2013. East India Company | LawTeacher. [online]. Available from: https://www.lawteacher.net/free-law-essays/constitutional-law/east-india-company-was-established-by-the-british-crown.php?vref=1 [Accessed 22 September 2018].
LawTeacher. East India Company | LawTeacher [Internet]. November 2013. [Accessed 22 September 2018]; Available from: https://www.lawteacher.net/free-law-essays/constitutional-law/east-india-company-was-established-by-the-british-crown.php?vref=1.
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