Source: http://docplayer.net/22323259-Direction-under-regulation-209-conduct-of-parachute-training-operations.html
Timestamp: 2019-01-18 08:25:25
Document Index: 99447546

Matched Legal Cases: ['art 91', 'art 91', 'art 91', 'ART 101', 'art 101', 'ART 101', 'art 101', 'art 91', 'art 91', 'art 91', 'art 101', 'art 101', 'ART 2', 'ART 2', 'ART 173', 'art 141', 'art 103', 'art 103', 'art 103', 'art 103', 'art 103', 'ART 4', 'art 172', 'art 172', 'art 172']

Direction under regulation 209 conduct of parachute training operations - PDF
Download "Direction under regulation 209 conduct of parachute training operations"
Myron Lawson
1 I, JONATHAN ALECK, Associate Director of Aviation Safety, a delegate of CASA, make this instrument under regulation 209 of the Civil Aviation Regulations 1988 (CAR 1988) and subsection 33 (3) of the Acts Interpretation Act [Signed Jonathan Aleck] Jonathan Aleck Associate Director of Aviation Safety 30 January 2015 Direction under regulation 209 conduct of parachute training operations 1 Duration This instrument: (a) commences on the day after registration; and (b) expires at the end of January 2017, as if it had been repealed by another instrument. 2 Repeal Instrument CASA 239/13 is repealed. 3 Definitions (1) In this instrument: APF means the Australian Parachute Federation Incorporated. APF Jump Pilot authorisation means an authorisation issued by the APF to certify that a pilot is qualified to carry out parachute training operations. APF Jump Pilot Manual means a manual issued by the APF, acceptable to CASA, setting out rules and procedures for a pilot carrying out parachute training operations. ATC means Air Traffic Control. ATC frequency means a radio frequency used by ATC. Chief Instructor means an instructor A approved by the APF in accordance with the APF Operational Regulations to supervise parachute training operations for a training organisation. controlled airspace (CTA) means airspace that is Class A, C, D or E airspace or a GAAP Control Zone. CTAF means a common traffic advisory frequency. Page 1 of 5 pages
2 drop zone means the area within which parachutists taking part in a parachute training operation are required to land. jump aircraft means any aircraft engaged in the dropping of parachutists in parachute training operations. jump pilot means the pilot in command of a jump aircraft. member organisation means an organisation that is a member of the APF. parachute training operation means an aircraft operation involving a descent by a student parachutist or a novice parachutist from the aircraft, and includes any aircraft operation involving a tandem descent by parachutists from the aircraft. training organisation means a member organisation authorised by the APF to conduct parachute training operations. (2) The terms novice parachutist and student parachutist have the same respective meanings as in the APF Operational Regulations as in force when this direction is issued. 4 Application This instrument applies to aircraft engaged in parachute training operations by member organisations. 5 Direction Aircraft engaged in parachute training operations must comply with the conditions set out in this instrument. 6 General Conditions (1) A jump aircraft when dropping parachutists must be operated in accordance with the APF Jump Pilot Manual. (2) A jump pilot must hold an APF Jump Pilot authorisation. (3) A jump aircraft must have a current maintenance release. (4) A jump aircraft that is not a Class A aircraft must either: (a) be maintained in accordance with an approved system of maintenance; or (b) undergo a maintenance release inspection at the earlier of 100 flight hours and 12 months, and have all engines maintained in accordance with: (i) for piston engines requirement 2 of AD/ENG/4; and (ii) for turbine engines requirement 1 of AD/ENG/5. (5) Any alteration of the APF Jump Pilot Manual must be notified to CASA for acceptance. 7 Supervision of parachute training operations (1) Parachute training operations must be conducted under the supervision of a Chief Instructor. (2) Parachute training operations must be conducted in accordance with the APF Operational Regulations as approved by CASA from time to time. 8 Conduct of parachute operations (1) The jump pilot must take all reasonable measures to ensure that: (a) parachutists exit the aircraft only if there is no risk of any part of the aircraft being fouled by parachutists or their equipment when they exit; and Page 2 of 5 pages
3 (b) the operation does not impose any adverse stress on any part of the aircraft structure; and (c) loose objects, that if dropped could create a hazard to persons or property on ground or water, are not carried by parachutists exiting the aircraft. (2) Except in accordance with the APF s Regulatory Schedule 60 as approved by CASA to permit cloud jumping the person in charge of the parachuting operation, the parachutist and the jump pilot must ensure that: (a) a parachute descent is made in meteorological conditions in which the target is clearly visible; and (b) the parachutist does not enter cloud. 9 Equipment (1) A jump aircraft must be equipped with: (a) 2 VHF radio transceivers; or (b) if operating in Class G airspace 1 VHF radio transceiver. (2) The radio transceivers or transceiver must be used to make broadcasts in accordance with this approval. 10 Radio procedures (1) Subject to subsection 10 (5), a broadcast advising the intention to drop parachutists must be made from the jump aircraft not less than 2 minutes before the parachutists exit the aircraft. (2) A broadcast under subsection 10 (1) must be made on all relevant frequencies for the airspace through which the parachutists descend and in which the jump aircraft operates. (3) A broadcast made under subsection 10 (1) must give notice of: (a) the location of the drop zone; and (b) the altitude at which the parachutists will exit the aircraft. (4) The relevant frequencies include: (a) any ATC frequency for airspace used by the jump aircraft; and (b) any other frequency used in airspace through which the parachutists may descend after exiting the aircraft; and (c) where the landing area for the parachutists is located in the vicinity of an aerodrome where an ATC service is not provided the CTAF for the surrounding airspace. (5) A broadcast made by ATC on an ATC frequency advising that parachutists will be dropped at a time stated in the broadcast is taken to be a broadcast on that frequency under subsection 10 (1), subject to meeting the requirements of subsections 10 (3) and 10 (4). 11 Additional requirements in controlled airspace (1) The jump pilot must not allow parachutists to exit a jump aircraft in controlled airspace until he or she has received from ATC: (a) the clearance [Aircraft call-sign] clear to drop ; or (b) clearance in some other form allowing parachutists to exit the aircraft. (2) A jump aircraft must use its VHF radio transceivers to communicate with ATC and to monitor and advise air traffic outside the controlled airspace. Page 3 of 5 pages
4 (3) A jump aircraft must use its VHF radio transceivers to communicate with ATC and to monitor and advise air traffic outside the controlled airspace. (4) Up to and including FL150, ATC may assign to the pilot of a jump aircraft responsibility for not entering an active restricted area that has been designated for non-flying military activities or military flying in which ATC services are not provided. (5) The jump pilot is able to discharge his or her responsibility under subsection 11 (4) by not entering the restricted area and is not required to maintain a minimum distance from it. (6) Unless otherwise agreed with ATC, the jump pilot must keep the aircraft within 3 nautical miles of the centre of the designated drop zone. (7) Unless otherwise agreed with ATC, the jump pilot must drop the parachutists with the reasonable expectation that they will remain within 1 nautical mile of the centre of the drop zone. 12 Additional requirements at aerodromes requiring radio carriage (1) A jump aircraft must not engage in an operation involving parachute descents at, or in the vicinity of, an aerodrome where radio carriage is required, unless the jump pilot uses its VHF radio transceivers to monitor and advise air traffic in the vicinity of the aerodrome and the surrounding areas, using the relevant CTAF and any other relevant frequencies. (2) In addition to the broadcast required under subsection 10 (1), a broadcast advising the intention to drop parachutists at the location specified in the broadcast must be made from the jump aircraft on the relevant frequencies not less than 4 minutes before the parachutists exit the aircraft. (3) A broadcast under subsection 12 (2) must be made on the relevant frequencies specified in subsection 10 (4). (4) The jump pilot must ensure that parachutists do not exit a jump aircraft at, or in the vicinity of, an aerodrome where radio carriage is required, if the descent would take place 15 minutes or less before the estimated time of arrival of an aircraft engaged in regular public transport operations (an RPT aircraft). (5) Subsection 12 (4) does not apply if: (a) the 2 aircraft are in direct radiocommunication with each other; and (b) all parachutists are able to exit the aircraft and land before the RPT aircraft arrives within the circuit area of the aerodrome. (6) After an RPT aircraft arrives at an aerodrome where radio carriage is required, the jump pilot must ensure that parachutists do not exit the aircraft at, or in the vicinity of, the aerodrome until the RPT aircraft has landed and taxied clear of the runway. (7) After an RPT aircraft has broadcast that it is taxiing for departure from an aerodrome where radio carriage and use is required, the jump pilot must ensure that parachutists do not exit the aircraft at, or in the vicinity of, the aerodrome until the RPT aircraft is clear of the circuit area of the aerodrome. Page 4 of 5 pages
5 13 Additional requirements at certified or registered aerodromes (1) The jump pilot must ensure that parachutists do not exit a jump aircraft at a certified or registered aerodrome, unless: (a) the operation is carried out in accordance with a written agreement between a parachute training organisation and the aerodrome operator; and (b) the APF has approved the written agreement as being in accordance with its Operational Regulations and its Training Operations Manual. (2) Subsection 13 (1) does not apply to an operation at a certified or registered aerodrome if written specifications issued under regulation 152 of CAR 1988 require or allow those descents to be conducted differently. (3) The jump pilot must ensure that parachutists do not exit a jump aircraft at a certified or registered aerodrome if the pilot in command of another aircraft is carrying out an instrument approach procedure at the aerodrome. 14 Additional requirements for operations more than feet above mean sea level (AMSL) A flight crew member who is on duty in an unpressurised jump aircraft must be provided with, and continuously use, supplemental oxygen: (a) if the aircraft is above flight level 120; or (b) if the aircraft operates above feet AMSL: (i) for more than 15 minutes during an operation involving parachute descents; or (ii) at night; or (iii) in I.M.C. Note As a direction, this instrument will take priority over AIP ENR provisions in relation to jump aircraft. Page 5 of 5 pages
Nothing may be dropped from a hang glider, paraglider, powered-paraglider or weightshift microlight in flight, except:
HGFA Flight Rules - General Acrobatic Flight 5 HGFA Flight Rules 5.1 General 5.1.1 Acrobatic Flight An aircraft shall not be flown in acrobatic flight of a particular kind unless the flight manual and
Part 91. General Operating and Flight Rules. CAA Consolidation. 1 April 2014. Published by the Civil Aviation Authority of New Zealand
Part 91 CAA Consolidation 1 April 2014 General Operating and Flight Rules Published by the Civil Aviation Authority of New Zealand DESCRIPTION Part 91 is an important rule as it forms the basis of general
PART 101 Unmanned aircraft and rocket operations
Civil Aviation Safety Regulations 1998 (CASR) Part 101 1 PART 101 Unmanned aircraft and rocket operations Note This Part is made up as follows: Subpart 101.A Preliminary 101.005 Applicability of this Part
Part 91. General Operating and Flight Rules. CAA Consolidation. 15 April 2016. Published by the Civil Aviation Authority of New Zealand
Part 91 CAA Consolidation 15 April 2016 General Operating and Flight Rules Published by the Civil Aviation Authority of New Zealand DESCRIPTION Part 91 is an important rule as it forms the basis of general
SPECIAL PURPOSE OPERATIONS SECTION C PARACHUTING OPERATIONS TABLE OF CONTENTS SUB-SECTION 1 - GENERAL...c-1 Applicability...c-1 Definitions...c-1 Approved Organisation...c-1 SUB-SECTION 2 - OPERATING RULES...c-2
THE CIVIL AVIATION ACT (Cap...) THE CIVIL AVIATION (PARACHUTE OPERATIONS) REGULATIONS,... ARRANGEMENT OF REGULATIONS PART I PRELIMINARY
LEGAL NOTICE NO... THE CIVIL AVIATION ACT (Cap...) THE CIVIL AVIATION (PARACHUTE OPERATIONS) REGULATIONS,... ARRANGEMENT OF REGULATIONS Regulation 1. Citation 2. Interpretation 3. Application PART I PRELIMINARY
Non-towered Airport Procedures & Information
Non-towered Airport Procedures & Information Downtown Island Airport (DKX) Knoxville, Tennessee I. Purpose For the past several years, the Downtown Island Airport (DKX) has utilized a temporary tower during
Airspace classification change
Airspace classification change With effect from 06 March 2014 the airspace classification and configuration of the Channel Islands Airspace will be changed: The Channel Islands Control Zone (CTR) will
Operations in the vicinity of non-controlled aerodromes
CAAP 166-1(3) Civil Aviation Advisory Publication This Civil Aviation Advisory Publication (CAAP) provides guidance, interpretation and explanation on complying with the Civil Aviation Regulations 1988
UK AIRSPACE Introduction
UK AIRSPACE Introduction The UK has now adopted the ICAO system for naming of airspace types from A to G. However in the UK there is at present no Class C airspace. Classes A to E are called Controlled
CPL AIR LAW. Privileges and Limitations of a CPL. CASR Classification of operations:
CPL AIR LAW It must be remembered that in the Commercial Pilot Licence examination all of the content of both RPL and PPL air law will be examined again. In fact a large proportion of the questions on
of 24 November 1994 (Status as of 15 July 2015) Please note: this translation does not yet include the amendments of 1.1.2017
English is not an official language of the Swiss Confederation. This translation is provided for information purposes only and has no legal force. DETEC Ordinance on Special Category Aircraft (OSCA) 1
Part 101. CAA Consolidation. 24 September Gyrogliders and Parasails, Unmanned Aircraft (including Balloons), Kites, and Rockets Operating Rules.
Part 101 CAA Consolidation 24 September 2015 Gyrogliders and Parasails, Unmanned Aircraft (including Balloons), Kites, and Rockets Operating Rules. Published by the Civil Aviation Authority of New Zealand
RA Pilots Instrument Rating Scheme
UNCONTROLLED COPY WHEN PRINTED Regulatory Article 2120 RA 2120 - Pilots Instrument Rating Scheme Rationale To carry out their tasks safely, where insufficient external visual references exist, pilots of
EFFECTIVE: 1 OCTOBER 2014 VERSION 6 UPDATED: 03 JUNE 2016 STATUS: MANDATORY
Australian Parachute Federation Ltd Jump Pilot Manual EFFECTIVE: 1 OCTOBER 2014 VERSION 6 UPDATED: 03 JUNE 2016 STATUS: MANDATORY This document is offered free to APF members. Warning Parachuting and flying
Exemption No. 10513A Regulatory Docket No. FAA-2011-1070
January 30, 2013 Exemption No. 10513A Regulatory Docket No. FAA-2011-1070 Mr. Alan M. Hoffberg Board Secretary/Director Angel Flight Southeast, Inc., and Mercy Flight Southeast 8864 Airport Boulevard Leesburg,
Information to VFR pilots
Information to VFR pilots Information to VFR pilots This publication has been prepared by Naviair with the purpose of focusing on flight safety and clarifies topics, which are important to know for VFR
PUBLISHING AND NOTAM GUIDELINES FOR AERODROME OPERATORS
Aeronautical Information Management Documentation PUBLISHING AND NOTAM GUIDELINES FOR AERODROME OPERATORS Airways New Zealand Publishing and NOTAM Guidelines for Aerodrome Operators Aeronautical Information
ENR 0.6 TABLE OF CONTENTS TO PART 2 - ENR
AIP Australia 26 MAY 16 ENR 0.6-1 PART 2 - EN ROUTE (ENR) ENR 0. ENR 0.1 PREFACE - Not applicable ENR 0.2 RECORD OF AIP AMENDMENTS - Not applicable ENR 0.3 RECORD OF AIP SUPPLEMENTS - Not applicable ENR
Pilot Briefing Oslo/Gardermoen
Pilot Briefing Oslo/Gardermoen INTRODUCTION Thank you for taking time to read the briefing for Oslo/Gardermoen Airport. The purpose of this document is not to teach pilots basic procedures and how to fly
LONDON SOUTHEND AIRPORT CLASS D CONTROLLED AIRSPACE GUIDE
CLASS D CONTROLLED AIRSPACE GUIDE Introduction From the 2 nd of April 2015 London Southend Airport (LSA) will be implementing Class D (CAS). This airspace is made up of a Control Zone (CTR) and Control
REPUBLIC OF INDONESIA MINISTRY OF TRANSPORTATION CIVIL AVIATION SAFETY REGULATION (CASR) PART 173 INSTRUMENT FLIGHT PROCEDURE DESIGN LAMPIRAN PERATURAN MENTERI PERHUBUNGAN NOMOR : KM 21 TAHUN 2009 TANGGAL
SECTION 2 - GENERAL. Callsign. Tower Control Service Tower _TWR Active Runway(s) & ATZ/CTR. Approach or Departure or Radar Area or Radar
CHAPTER 1 - AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES OBJECTIVES SECTION 2 - GENERAL 1.1 The objectives of the Air Traffic Services are to: a) Prevent collisions between aircraft; b) Prevent collisions between aircraft moving
Breakdown of separation near Melbourne Airport, Victoria 5 December 2010
The Australian Transport Safety Bureau (ATSB) is an independent Commonwealth Government statutory Agency. The Bureau is governed by a Commission and is entirely separate from transport regulators, policy
FALCON AVIATION ACADEMY, LLC.. FAR 141 TRAINING PROGRAM
PILOT TRAINING PROGRAM PAGE H-1 CURRICULUM: AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT 28 October 2010 REVISED This TCO meets all of the curriculum requirements for the ATP Course contained in Appendix E of FAR Part 141.
New Zealand Airspace
New Zealand Airspace New Zealand Airspace CONTENTS Designated Airspace...3 Special Use Airspace...9 Non-Mandatory Airspace...13 Visual Aeronautical Charts...14 Air Traffic Services...15 Conclusion...17
BUREAU OF AIR ACCIDENT INVESTIGATION Ministry for Infrastructure, Transport & Communications MALTA
The following information is required for a BAAI investigation and will be treated in confidence unless required for the compilation of an accident report in accordance with ICAO Annex 13 and Legal Notice
AVIATION INVESTIGATION REPORT A07A0025 LOSS OF SEPARATION
AVIATION INVESTIGATION REPORT A07A0025 LOSS OF SEPARATION SERCO FACILITIES MANAGEMENT INC. GOOSE BAY, NEWFOUNDLAND AND LABRADOR 13 MARCH 2007 The Transportation Safety Board of Canada (TSB) investigated
You may wish to review the following Canadian Aviation Regulations:
Reference your request for information regarding Unmanned Air Vehicles (UAV). The following information will answer many of your questions. Should you require further information not covered in this document,
IVAO Malta. Local Procedures Full document. V1.2 (01 Sept 2014) MT-AOC (Claude Bezzina) INTERNATIONAL VIRTUAL AVIATION ORGANIZATION
IVAO Malta Local Procedures Full document V1.2 (01 Sept 2014) MT-AOC (Claude Bezzina) INTERNATIONAL VIRTUAL AVIATION ORGANIZATION Objectives of the Air Traffic Control The objectives of the Air Traffic
VATEIR CONTROLLER OPERATIONS MANUAL
VATEIR CONTROLLER OPERATIONS MANUAL Derry/Eglinton Operations- EGAE Version 1 Page1 Contents Ground Procedures.... 3 Introduction:... 3 ATC Clearance... 3 Push and Start... 3 EGAE Taxi Routings.... 4 Tower
CANADIAN AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL PHRASEOLOGY
INTERNATIONAL VIRTUAL AVIATION ORGANISATION CANADIAN AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL PHRASEOLOGY This guide has been designed to aid in memorizing some of the most common phrases used by Canadian controllers. It does
Pre Solo Written Test
Pre-Solo Written Test Remember, all questions are open book. If you use a source to answer a question note the source and page number (or FAR number and page) for easy reference. Draw a diagram whenever
AIP GEN INDIA 1 AUG 2007 GEN ENTRY, TRANSIT AND DEPARTURE OF AIRCRAFT
AIP GEN 1.2-1 1. General GEN 1.2 - ENTRY, TRANSIT AND DEPARTURE OF AIRCRAFT 1.1. International flights into, from or over Indian territory shall be subjected to the current Indian regulations relating
DENEL AEROSPACE SYSTEMS
DENEL AEROSPACE SYSTEMS Current and Future UAV Systems BATELEUR MALE UAV SKUA HTD SKUA HRD SEEKER II SERAPH 2 UCAV DENEL AEROSPACE SYSTEMS SKUA HTD BATELEUR MALE UAV UAV Military & Civilian SKUA HRD Certification
1 GENERAL. Effective: 4 APR 13. E Civil Aviation Authority
AIP New Zealand ENR 1.16-1 ENR 1.16 VFR OPERATIONS 1 GENERAL 1.1 Introduction 1.1.1 This section contains additional instructions, restrictions and warnings related to VFR operations in certain parts of
Safety Regulation Group CAP 660. Parachuting.
Safety Regulation Group CAP 660 www.caa.co.uk Safety Regulation Group CAP 660 July 2008 Civil Aviation Authority 2008 All rights reserved. Copies of this publication may be reproduced for personal use,
A Guide to phraseology
A Guide to phraseology FOR GENERAL AVIATION PILOTS IN EUROPE EGAST Component of ESSI European Aviation Safety Team 2 Good Radiotelephony 4 3 8 4 Departure 15 5 Aerodrome for Helicopters 22 6 Cross Country
Ministry of Civil Aviation ECAR Part 103 Egyptian Civil Aviation Authority. Part 103 ULTRALIGHT VEHICLES. Issue 5, Rev. 0 Dated May, 2012 Page 1
Ministry of Civil Aviation ECAR Part 103 Part 103 ULTRALIGHT VEHICLES Issue 5, Rev. 0 Dated May, 2012 Page 1 U U ECAR Part 103 Ministry of Civil Aviation UTABLE OF CONTENTS 0BITEM SUBPART 4B A: 103.1U
NPPL/XC/REV 09 dated 11 May 2011 ALLOWANCES AGAINST TRAINING
ALLOWANCES AGAINST TRAINING SECTION 1. GENERAL Introduction Holders of a National Private Pilot s Licence (NPPL) with either a Simple Single Engine Aeroplane (SSEA), Self Launching Motor Glider (SLMG),
Midair collision Latrobe Valley Aerodrome, Victoria 1 December 2007 Cessna 172 VH-EUI & Avid Flyer
ATSB TRANSPORT SAFETY REPORT Aviation Occurrence Investigation AO-2007-065 Final Midair collision Latrobe Valley Aerodrome, Victoria 1 December 2007 Cessna 172 VH-EUI & Avid Flyer 28-0929 ATSB TRANSPORT
SPECIAL VFR PROCEDURES LONDON/LONDON CITY
SPECIAL VFR PROCEDURES LONDON/LONDON CITY Effective 10 th February 2004 1 Introduction 1.1 These notes have been written for Special VFR in the London/London City Control Zones but the general principles
Air Traffic Service Providers Entry Control Procedures Manual 3. Approved Provider s Operations Manual
3.1 Operations Manual to Contain or Refer to Information 3.1.1 Content CASR 172.060 The content of an Operations Manual must meet the requirements specified in Subpart C of Civil Aviation Safety Regulations
HOW TO GET YOUR PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE
REPUBLIC OF SINGAPORE FLYING CLUB FOUNDED 1928 HOW TO GET YOUR PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE 700 West Camp Road, #05-01 JTC Aviation One Seletar Aerospace Park, Singapore 797649 Tel: 65-64810200 Fax: 65-64814620
Pilot Briefing Stockholm/Arlanda
Pilot Briefing Stockholm/Arlanda INTRODUCTION Thank you for taking time to read the briefing for Stockholm/Arlanda Airport. The purpose of this document is not to teach pilots basic procedures and how
Part 172 CAA Consolidation 1 February 2016 Air Traffic Service Organisations Certification
Part 172 CAA Consolidation 1 February 2016 Air Traffic Service Organisations Certification Published by the Civil Aviation Authority of New Zealand DESCRIPTION Part 172 prescribes the certification and
CAR PART VIII CAR 4 AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL ORGANISATIONS
CAR PART VIII CAR 4 AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL ORGANISATIONS UNCONTROLLED COPY WHEN DOWNLOADED Check with GCAA Website to verify current version before using FOREWORD 1. The General Civil Aviation Authority (hereinafter
Guide to Visual Flight Rules (VFR) in the UK
Guide to Visual Flight Rules (VFR) in the UK 1. Introduction & Top Tips 2. Aeronautical Information 3. Airspace Classifications 4. Visual Flight Rules 5. Airspace subject to Flight Restrictions and Hazards
VFR Regulations Summary
Gold Seal Online Ground School www.onlinegroundschool.com VFR Regulations Summary Pilot in Command The pilot in command is directly responsible for and the final authority as to the operation of the aircraft.