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Matched Legal Cases: ['art 1', 'arts 1', 'art 2', 'art 1', 'art 2', 'art 3', 'art 4', 'art 4', 'art 4', 'art 2', 'art 5', 'art 2', 'art 1', 'art 1', 'art 2', 'art 1', 'art 3', 'art 3', 'art 3', 'art 4', 'art 5', 'art 4', 'art 4', 'art 2', 'art 4', 'art 3', 'art 2', 'art 2', 'art 3', 'art 2', 'art 3', 'art 1', 'art 3', 'art 2', 'art 2', 'art 1', 'art 1', 'art 1', 'art 3', 'art 2', 'art 1', 'art 3', 'art 3', 'art 3', 'art 1', 'art 5', 'art 3', 'art 3', 'art 3', 'art 1', 'art 4', 'art 3', 'art 1', 'arts 1', 'art 4', 'art 1', 'art 2', 'art 1', 'art 3', 'art 3', 'art 3', 'art 2', 'art 2', 'art 2', 'art 2', 'arts 2', 'art 4', 'art 4', 'art 2', 'art 3', 'art 3', 'art 4', 'art 3', 'art 2', 'art 1', 'art 2', 'art 2', 'art 3', 'art 1', 'art 4', 'art 3', 'art 4', 'art 3', 'arts 2', 'arts 2', 'art 3', 'arts 2', 'art 3', 'art 3', 'art 1', 'arts 2', 'arts 2', 'art 4', 'art 4', 'art 3117702']

BrowseInterestsBiography & MemoirBusiness & LeadershipFiction & LiteraturePolitics & EconomyHealth & WellnessSociety & CultureHappiness & Self-HelpMystery, Thriller & CrimeHistoryYoung AdultBrowse byBooksAudiobooksNews & MagazinesSheet MusicBrowse allUploadSign inJoinCambridge English: PreliminaryPreliminary English Test (PET)
© UCLES 2012 EMC/6768/0Y04
Examination Report 2011 CONTENTS Page Introduction Paper 1 − Reading and Writing Paper 2 − Listening Paper 3 − Speaking Feedback Form 1 3 16 21 26
WEBSITE REFERENCE This report can be downloaded from the Cambridge ESOL website at: www.teachers.CambridgeESOL.org/pet
The final mark a candidate receives in Cambridge English: Preliminary. This score allows candidates to see exactly how they performed. Candidates who have not achieved a Cambridge English: Preliminary passing grade (Council of Europe Level B1). but have demonstrated ability at the Council of Europe level below this are awarded Level A2. based on the performance of candidates and recommendations of examiners. Pass with Merit and Pass.INTRODUCTION This report is intended to accompany the 2011 Cambridge English: Preliminary Past Paper Pack. All applications for Special Consideration must be made through the local Centre as soon as possible after the examination affected. In addition. There is no minimum pass mark for individual components in order to receive an overall pass. where this is relevant (Writing and Speaking) • Comparison with statistics from previous years’ examination performance and candidature. which includes a graphical display of the candidate’s performance in each skill. It has set values for each grade. Listening and Speaking). The overall grades are set according to the following information: • Statistics on individual questions. the Statement of Results includes a standardised score out of 100. shown against the scale Exceptional – Good – Borderline – Weak. Cambridge English: Preliminary has three passing grades: Pass with Distinction. Every candidate is provided with a Statement of Results. Reading & Writing carries 50% of the total marks and Listening and Speaking each carry 25% of the marks.
. allowing comparison across sessions of the examination: Pass with Distinction Pass with Merit Pass Council of Europe Level A2 Fail 90–100 marks 85–89 marks 70–84 marks 45–69 marks 0–44 marks
Special Consideration can be given to candidates affected by adverse circumstances immediately before or during an examination. for those parts of the examination where this is appropriate (Reading and Listening) • Statistics on the candidature • Statistics on the overall candidate performance • Advice. Examples of acceptable reasons for giving Special Consideration include illness and bereavement. It provides a general view of how candidates performed on tasks in each of the papers included in the pack. Candidates below Level A2 receive a Fail grade. also known as Preliminary English Test (PET) is an aggregate of the marks obtained in each of the three papers (Reading & Writing. as well as offering guidance on the preparation of candidates for the exam.
cambridge. collusion or breaking the examination regulations in some other way will be considered by the Cambridge ESOL Malpractice Committee. can be found be in the ELT section of the Cambridge University Press website at www.org/ELT/exams Users of this Examination Report may find it useful to refer simultaneously to the Past Paper Pack for Cambridge English: Preliminary 2011.
.cambridge. including course books. practice tests and supplementary materials. Requests for a check on results may be made through the local Centre. Certificates are issued about four weeks after the issue of Statements of Results. Results may be withheld because further investigation is needed or because of infringement of the regulations. within one month of the issue of Statements of Results.teachers.
Cambridge ESOL produces the following documents which may be of use to teachers or institutions preparing candidates for Cambridge English: Preliminary.CambridgeESOL.org/ELT/exams
Feedback on this report is very welcome and should be sent to Cambridge ESOL using the feedback form at the end of this report.•
Cases of candidates who are suspected of copying.
Candidates’ Statements of Results are issued through their local Centre and are available online approximately five weeks after the examination has been taken.org or www. These can be downloaded from www.org • Regulations (produced annually) • Cambridge English: Preliminary Handbook (for detailed information on the examination and sample materials) • Examination Report (produced in conjunction with the release of certain past papers) Details of all the official preparation materials for Cambridge English: Preliminary. This can be purchased from the Cambridge University Press website at www.CambridgeESOL.
Three-option multiple choice. labels. opinion and writer purpose. Both types of
Four-option multiple-choice cloze. The text is of a factual or narrative nature. Five questions in the form of descriptions of people to match to eight short adapted-authentic texts. emails.
Matching. inference and global meaning. understanding attitude. postcards and post-it notes.
True/False. etc. plus one example. Scanning for specific information while disregarding redundant material. Five questions with an adapted-authentic long text. plus an integrated example. Ten questions with an adapted-authentic long text. Reading for gist. with an adapted-authentic text drawn from a variety of sources.
Processing a factual text. postcards. emails. • Candidate Performance
Part 1. notes. together with ‘personal’ messages such as text messages.
Candidates record their answers on a separate answer sheet..
Understanding of vocabulary and grammar in a short text.
Four-option multiple choice. Ten questions. Five very short discrete texts: signs and messages.
Reading real-world notices and other short texts for the main message. The range of texts covers ‘public’ notices. Questions 1–5: Multiple choice The five multiple-choice questions in this task test understanding of short texts. and understanding the lexicostructural patterns in the text. Reading for detailed comprehension. Each of the 35 questions carries one mark.
Reading multiple texts for specific information and detailed comprehension. The answers for Parts 1–5 are scanned by computer. This is weighted so that the Reading component represents 25% of the total marks for the whole examination. signs and labels.
A partly matches the couple’s requirements. international atmosphere’. the correct answer is F but several weaker candidates chose A or H instead. but they also needed to match the meaning of ‘if you don’t require transport’ in the text with the wording of C – ‘if you are going to travel to the musical independently’. The texts in this test were an email to a friend about missing them at a party. For a full list of these topics. A. although the writer was positive about the food. C. and occasionally some inference. see the Cambridge English: Preliminary Handbook. This is an example of ‘going sightseeing’. In Question 5. an internal school notice to students about a trip to see a show. This distractor contained several words identical to or similar to words in the text – ‘operating’. a public notice in a swimming pool. Candidates generally performed well on this part. ‘railway staff’ – but there is no suggestion of ‘instructions’ in the text so it cannot be the right answer. but Questions 7 and 9 proved more challenging for weaker candidates. Part 2. so is not suitable. an understanding of the verb ‘tick’ would have aided candidates to rule out B. ‘available’. requires candidates to understand the phrase ‘by themselves’ and to realise that ‘can only be operated by railway staff’ in the text equates with ‘cannot use the lifts by themselves’. with most candidates able to choose the correct answer. which on the whole appeared to be an accessible one. The correct answer. Here. but it challenged weaker candidates. This highlights the importance of recognising paraphrase and examples of the people’s requirements in the texts. a recognition of paraphrase. the correct answer. B. the focus question says ‘What has Tash enjoyed most?’ Here. Question 2 was the least challenging of the five. whereas they want ‘traditional food’. the type of food is not right for them as the chef ‘mixes ingredients from many countries to create his own recipes’. © UCLES 2012 4
. Selecting the correct answer in Part 1 demands a close reading of both text and options. offers this and is outside the city – the people want to ‘get away from the city’. However. it is not what she ‘enjoyed most’. Option A. This is to be found in F. in relation to visiting a 17th century palace. Here. See recommendations for candidate preparation on page 7. many of whom chose option C. is confirmed in the text by the phrase ‘the best thing so far’. Most of the stronger candidates answered Question 4 correctly. though Questions 3 and 4 were challenging. The task was handled reasonably well. which has ‘good old-fashioned dishes that have been popular for generations’. For Question 3. Question 9 was the most challenging of the five and Question 10 the least challenging.text occur in a range of settings and reflect core Preliminary topics. which partly matches the requirements in that the chef ‘uses unusual ingredients from around the world’. D is in the city centre so cannot be the correct answer. Some weaker candidates chose C – ‘eating different food’ – matching this with ‘amazing local dishes’. candidates had to decide which of the three things the writer thought was the best. Questions 6–10: Matching The topic for this session was restaurants. a public notice about use of lifts and a holiday postcard. For Question 7. in that it offers ‘countryside views’ and ‘an outside dining area’. The requirements described in Question 9 include ‘trying new and unusual dishes’ in a ‘lively. However. and the correct answer. They may also have already used option A as their answer for Question 7. it is possible that weaker candidates did not know the phrasal verb ‘get away’. Many weaker candidates chose option D here. H is in the city and serves pizza. many weaker candidates decided on option B rather than the correct answer. However.
taken from a magazine. Common sources for this text are magazine or website articles. 19 and 20. Candidates sometimes get confused between ‘few’ and ‘a few’ (meaning ‘some’) and here. thinking that this was the first time that Jennifer had been on a riding holiday. where possible. As in Part 2. These sentences follow the order of information in the text. ‘As a teenager I’d been on week-long trips’. you could ride all day without seeing another person’. Candidates have to decide whether ten sentences about the text are correct or incorrect. who chose A instead of B. the most challenging of the set of ten. Part 3. and for 15. which is generally less straightforward to process and understand than factual information. Questions 21–25: Multiple choice Part 4 tests attitude and opinion. See further recommendations for candidate preparation on page 8. The least challenging questions were 12 and 15. the text says ‘I’d never had a riding holiday quite like this before’ and later. through reference to nature and the environment. and every requirement that is mentioned there needs to be found in a text for it to be suitable. which are usually factual in content. This session’s text was an article about a woman’s horse-riding holiday in Spain. candidates need to employ skimming and scanning skills to locate the precise information stated in each question. The Part 4 text for this session was about a school in South Africa. It was also important for them to understand the exact focus of the question (Hermione’s riding group) as otherwise. which possibly provided more accessible matches across the question wording and text: for 12. The task was done reasonably well by the majority of candidates. Part 4. where students learn their subjects outside. Question 17. which is then confirmed by the later reference to ‘week-long trips’. See recommendations for candidate preparation on pages 7 and 8. The task was handled well by most candidates and the topic seemed accessible.For Reading Part 2. However. in particular Questions 17. Question 20 was probably challenging because of the use of ‘few’ in the question. ‘carried their luggage’ with ‘send our bags ahead’ makes it a ‘B’ answer (incorrect). by ‘apart from the occasional farmer. It is essential that candidates read on in the text rather than choosing their answer prematurely – the words highlighted in bold above are the first indication that the answer is B. candidates could have been distracted by what the text said about non-riding partners – ‘someone who has never ridden a horse’. candidates will have to demonstrate a good understanding of paraphrase. ‘went on a riding course’ with ‘took a short series of lessons at a riding school’ confirms it as an ‘A’ answer (correct). but some of the questions were more challenging. making this a B answer. in order to select the right answers. Questions 11–20: True/False The text for this task is the longest in the Reading component but will always contain some redundant information. Question 19 was answered incorrectly by many of the weaker candidates. judging by the fact that the least
. required candidates to equate ‘some experience’ in the question with ‘riders must be a good intermediate standard’ in the text. Candidates should beware of ‘wordspotting’ – choosing an answer on the basis of identical words and phrases in question and text. they needed to understand that the meaning of ‘few’ was ‘not many’ ─ ‘Few people used the tracks’ is confirmed in the penultimate sentence of the text.
which may illustrate that the meaning of the adjective was unknown to them. While the text in D contains a lot of ‘true’ information. candidates need to consider the text as a whole. The correct answer was B. namely that ‘she wanted to stay in the area’. but many students chose other incorrect options A and C. 29. Several of the weaker candidates chose option D for Question 23. Nearly 90% of the stronger candidates chose option C. This question focuses on why Jane Bartlett started the school and option A confirms her reason. Question 29 required candidates to understand which preposition follows the adjective ‘grateful’ – the correct answer being ‘to’. ‘recognise’. ‘with’. so they couldn’t have ‘disliked their school’. and check each preposition against it. Questions 26–35: Multiple-choice cloze This multiple-choice cloze task tests mainly vocabulary but some questions focus on grammatical areas of language. used here in the present tense.
. The majority of the weaker candidates chose option C. Question 25 is always global in nature so. with different functions commonly highlighted. The task proved accessible and many of the stronger candidates answered most questions correctly. but this is not what the text focuses on. Questions 27 and 35 were the least challenging. For example in this session. Option D is ruled out because her children had only just ‘reached school age’ when she opened the school. the options were ‘suggest’. ‘give information about’. which focuses on Bebel’s childhood in a musical family.’ Question 21 always tests writer purpose and the wording of the four options reflects this. Part 5. Even though there are only five questions. each one needs to be thought about carefully and all four options checked against the text. the correct answer. Candidates must allow enough time for this part of the paper. but weaker candidates found Questions 28. candidates needed to eliminate the other three options as being unsuitable in the context of the whole sentence. as in Question 21. Here. Option C is plausible in that people reading the article might think that the White Star School could be ‘the best way to educate a child’ but the writer is not ‘advising people’. option B. Question 28 tested the differences in meaning of the verbs ‘consider’. points that a White Star School teacher would plausibly state – ‘regularly take children out into the countryside and show them our country’s wonderful wildlife’ – this option is ruled out by its initial statement ‘the only school in the city to regularly take children out…’ The school is not in the city and therefore D is wrong. candidates needed to focus on the word before the gap. A says ‘suggest ways that children can help the environment’. whereas the correct answer was A. See recommendations for candidate preparation on page 9.challenging question was Question 22 – ‘The most unusual thing about White Star School is (option C) the teaching method. The text for this session was about the Brazilian singer Bebel Gilberto and was supported by a photograph of her. ‘remembers’ and to confirm this as the correct answer. They must also read all four options carefully. but many weaker candidates chose option D instead. ‘advise’ and ‘describe’. The correct answer is D. This shows how important it is for candidates to understand the meaning of different function verbs. ‘believe’ and ‘remember’. 30 and 31 more challenging.
teachers could ask their students to produce similar short texts including text messages. The correct answer was D. and an awareness of purpose and function is good preparation for Writing Part 2. published practice tests or Cambridge ESOL’s own online practice material. In this way. set them regular short writing tasks for homework or in class that mirror the length and complexity of the Part 1 messages. so that they can process the eight texts efficiently. whereas many weaker candidates were attracted to A. it can be helpful to focus in detail on the people’s descriptions. Students at this level should be confident in producing short texts of thanks. testing four conjunctions. ‘reached’. B or C. ‘whether’. • RECOMMENDATIONS FOR CANDIDATE PREPARATION
Part 1 Many of the public notices used in this part are found only in English-speaking countries. apology. students could be given just the short texts and asked to explain their meaning. and could perhaps be persuaded to switch to English as the default language for a period. Part 2 Students should be trained in skimming and scanning. so that students become familiar with the use of paraphrase in this part as well as in subsequent parts of the Reading component. Students could be asked to highlight identical words in text and options and then to discuss these examples in pairs. judging by the fact that the majority of the weaker candidates went for the three distractor options A. Texts of this type often use modal verbs and conditional clauses. Many students would undoubtedly be amenable to using their mobile phones to send text messages to their friends in English. 7
. As initial training for this task. Students need to be made aware of the dangers of ‘word spotting’ across text and options and this could be made clear through reference to a past paper. Question 31 had a grammatical focus.Question 30 focused on another set of verbs – ‘reached’. As a training activity. etc. ‘joined’. ‘joined’ and ‘arrived’ – and the correct answer was C. rather than the correct answer. they might learn from or be helped by the predictive text facility on their phones. suggestion. perhaps discussing them in pairs and suggesting possible paraphrases. Over 80% of the stronger candidates chose this option. To make students more aware of the scope of personal messages. explaining why options are correct or incorrect according to the meaning of the text. so candidates need to be confident in their understanding of these structures. Some candidates entering Cambridge English: Preliminary may not be familiar with this B1 level conjunction. As for the personal messages. asking students to underline key words and phrases and then to think further about these. post-it notes and postcards. so teachers may wish to familiarise their students with examples drawn from past papers. either orally or in writing. They could then suggest different ways of expressing the meaning. ‘connected’. It would be worth spending some time in class looking at the contrasting language used in public notices and personal messages. See recommendations for candidate preparation on pages 9 and 10. emails.
To reinforce this. and appreciate the relevance of exemplification and paraphrase. students could be given two texts to choose between for each person’s requirements. where only the text is handed out to students. It may be instructive to concentrate on the wording of the ten sentences that form the questions for this part. This type of practice activity could also be done with a task from a past paper or online practice material. students could be given just the sentences with B answers and be asked to explain why these statements are incorrect. so represents a substantial part of the whole Reading component. This practice activity not only improves reading comprehension and paraphrase. As mentioned in Part 1 above.
. Key language areas such as comparison and conditional structures are quite likely to appear and. so that they initially have some guidance and support. For weaker students. They can then work out any paraphrased language for themselves. it is useful to indicate approximately where each answer comes in a text.Students at B1 level need to expand their vocabulary and one way of doing this that will also provide useful preparation for the exam is to take the topic areas listed in the Cambridge English: Preliminary Handbook and encourage students to build up lists of vocabulary for each of them. an online resource showing which words and phrases students commonly know at each level of the Common European Framework of Reference (CEFR). For a simple introduction to this part. with the key parts underlined or highlighted. This could be done as a pairwork activity or for homework with any Part 3 task from a past paper or practice test. the words ‘few’ and ‘a few’ may also cause problems for students. working closely with the text and underlining the relevant parts. Since the essence of this task is paraphrase recognition. it would be helpful for students to be given a factual text and asked to try to express elements of its content in other ways. Part 3 Exposure in class to a range of factual texts of medium length is important for this part. and authentic brochures and leaflets can also work well as practice material. as this session demonstrated. Teachers can also refer to the English Vocabulary Profile. students could underline identical words in texts and questions and explain why the text is not the correct match. It contains the longest text and has ten questions. students can focus more closely on meaning. The internet provides a readily available source of appropriate texts. yet the task is designed so that not every word of the text needs to be read closely. students need to be shown that ‘word spotting’ will rarely lead them to the right answer. as well as useful phrases and collocations. Confident students might also be asked to draft their own correct and incorrect sentences about a text they have chosen and to then exchange their task with another student. and better understand what the task requires them to do. In this way. but also creates a realistic context for writing at sentence level. The ‘wrong’ text should contain some distraction – so for example texts A and E from this version could be given to students for Question 6 and students asked to underline the parts of each text that match a requirement in the description. Developing confident scanning skills at this level will enable students to read more efficiently in this part. It may be useful to discuss with students how much time they think should be spent on Part 3. Students should be confident in their ability to reject incorrect statements about a text. As a training activity.
and encouraged to read text and options carefully but within a time limit. This could be developed into a group reading activity. which could be paraphrased as: ‘Luis isn’t very keen on preparing his own meals. ‘think’ and ‘say’. Students also need to recognise the language of opinion. Students should be given adequate practice in answering Question 25. for a detailed description of B1 level vocabulary.Students could also work with factual texts that include a narrative thread.’ Always encourage students to reformulate ideas in this way. Remember to tell students that Questions 22. To practise answering multiple-choice questions that focus on detailed meaning. the writer purpose question. When training students in how to approach the Reading Part 4 task in the exam itself. or a historical piece of some kind.. one student might say ‘I don’t really enjoy cooking for myself’. Part 5 To perform well in this part. in order to decide which text their paragraphs fit into and where in each narrative they come.
. ‘compare’. As this session showed. by close reference to the text. In order to sensitise students to the wording of Part 4 questions. Candidates should be familiar with many of these verbs. discuss with students whether it might be better to answer the questions out of the order given: as Questions 21 and 25 test overall understanding of the text. students need to have a solid grasp of B1 level structures (see the Cambridge English: Preliminary Handbook for a list of grammatical areas tested) and a fairly broad knowledge of vocabulary (teachers can refer to the English Vocabulary Profile. choose a past paper task and give them the text and five questions without any ABCD options. as these will dictate what their answer should be based on – someone’s own words shown in quotes. Part 4 It is clear that students need to have an understanding of different function verbs. so students need to read each one carefully and check it against the content of the whole text. 23 and 24 always match the order of information in the text. For example. as was the case for this session. ‘warn’. etc. Students could also explain why the distractor options are wrong. with students being given paragraphs from one of several texts and having to formulate sentences that capture the main points of their paragraphs. give students the correct answer to a question and ask them to quote the parts of the text that confirm this answer. which are key to other parts of the Cambridge English: Preliminary examination as well (Writing Part 2. To activate some relevant vocabulary for this part. Suitable examples of texts would be someone’s experiences on a course or holiday. This will illustrate to them how much text is typically involved for each question. after they have considered the text in depth. such as ‘advise’. students’ opinions on a given topic could be elicited and written on the board. Listening Part 4). for other members of the class to then suggest paraphrases for them. Work on part of speech awareness and specific practice of structures such as modals. Draw students’ attention to words such as ‘believe’. ‘suggest’. students might find it easier to answer these last. ‘describe’. conjunctions and the passive are particularly relevant here. as it will develop their productive vocabulary. for example. distractor options often contain some correct information. as already mentioned. which are particularly relevant to Question 21. quantifiers. asking them to answer the questions with reference to the text. often testing distinct paragraphs.
It may be better to introduce the actual exam task by giving students a choice of only two or three options at first. Students may also be interested in creating their own multiple-choice short texts.
. Even when working with past papers. where students have to explain which word in a set of four or five is different and why. and word square searches. This is essential. This provides an easier version of the task and also focuses students on the spaces in the text rather than the options. which they can exchange among their peers. containing fifteen words belonging to the same topic. The internet will provide an accessible source for texts on topics that particularly interest them. checking the words either side of the space before deciding on their answers. for they need to see the context and grammatical clues surrounding each space.Regular vocabulary activities in class that revise and extend students’ knowledge and offer initial preparation for the exam include ‘odd one out’ exercises. Practice of dependent prepositions and phrasal verb particles is also relevant here. Exercises that encourage students to group words by part of speech are also useful. suggest that students try to fit all four options in the space. rather than four.
In this part of the Writing component. quantifiers and
. organisation and language. using a different structural pattern. Coherent organisation. The prompt takes the form of a rubric or short input text to respond to. so that the sentence still has the same meaning. plus an integrated example. note. with four separate assessment criteria for content.WRITING PART TASK TYPES AND FORMAT TASK FOCUS NUMBER OF QUESTIONS
Sentence transformations. Candidates are given sentences and then asked to complete similar sentences with no more than three words. • Candidate Performance
Short communicative message. communicative achievement. This gives a total of 25.
A longer piece of continuous writing. if used consistently. Candidates are presented with a choice of two questions. everything must be correctly spelled. which represents 25% of the total marks for the whole examination. the sentences were about learning to windsurf. See the new Cambridge English: Preliminary Handbook for further details. Different structures and transformations were tested: tenses. Five questions. ‘too/enough’. Candidates have to fill in the missing part of the second sentence so that it means the same as the first sentence.
Questions 1–5 carry one mark each. Question 6 is worth a maximum of 5 marks and Question 7/8 is worth a maximum of 15 marks. email etc.
A short piece of writing (35–45 words) focusing on communication of specific messages. spelling and punctuation are also assessed.
Control and understanding of B1/Preliminary grammatical structures. Candidates are prompted to write a short message in the form of a postcard. For this session. This session used an analytical mark scheme for Writing Part 3. Rephrasing and reformulating information. Candidates are primarily assessed on their ability to use and control a range of B1/Threshold-level language. Questions 1–5: Sentence transformations This sentence-transformation task requires a short answer of at most three words. American English is acceptable. an informal letter or a story.
Writing about 100 words focusing on control and range of language. comparatives. but more typically of one or two words only. that are theme-related.
However. candidates had to reply to a friend. that didn’t match the meaning of the first sentence. It is essential for candidates to read the whole question carefully to ensure that they cover all three bulleted content points. Question 6: Short communicative message The testing focus of the Writing Part 2 task is on task achievement. the letter. Question 7. These answers received a mark of 1 on the Content scale of the new mark scheme. Part 2. so lost marks. some candidates produced the correct verb form ‘have’ but omitted the word ‘enough/any’ and so lost the mark for an incomplete answer. For this session. a few candidates named the shop but did not say where it was. Some candidates failed to pick up on the element of ‘disappoint’ but were still able to write a reasonable answer. with a ‘t’ added. candidates did not explicitly ask but expressed a wish to go there with the friend. In Question 5. Question 7 or 8: Continuous writing The assessment of Writing Part 3 represents 60% of the total marks available on the Writing component. candidates had to write an email to a friend about a new shop. There were also several mis-spellings of ‘enough’ – including ‘enought’ with a ‘t’ at the end. and produce a communicative message that is in line with the task rubric. and the conjunction ‘even though’. In Question 2. Most candidates performed the task satisfactorily and used relevant vocabulary. although some candidates ‘inverted’ it and asked for advice rather than giving it. with candidates giving a range of examples of what was sold in the shop. Candidates are required to write between 35 and 45 words and are penalised if they write much below this. apparently strong candidates fail to deal with one of the three points and so do not score more than three marks out of five for Part 2. candidates had to ask the friend to go to the shop. giving advice about the friend’s dilemma – whether to accept an aunt’s offer of a trip to the theatre to see a boring play or to risk disappointing her by declining the offer. The second point was generally handled well. See recommendations for candidate preparation on page 13. This was treated as point attempted rather than point clearly communicated. Questions 2 and 5 were the most challenging for candidates. As in Question 2. In this task. Occasionally. However. several candidates produced other conjunctions that do not combine with ‘even’. there is no automatic penalty for answers longer than 45 words so candidates shouldn’t spend unnecessary time cutting their piece of writing to an exact length. For the third point. Sometimes. was an accessible topic and seemed to work well. which seemed a very accessible task for them. the correct answer was ‘though/if’ and strong candidates were able to answer correctly. there were also mis-spellings of ‘though’. their answer is likely to lack clarity and will be penalised accordingly. See recommendations for candidate preparation on page 13. There were very few misinterpretations of the task. If they write a lot more than 45 words.their lexical equivalents. Weaker candidates re-used a lot of the language from the task rubrics and extract from the friend’s letter. including ‘although’ and ‘when’. For the first point. Part 3. whereas stronger candidates displayed
. discussing what is required in each space and checking each other’s answers. irregular past tenses and gerund forms. since the main emphasis in Part 1 is on structural transformations. focusing on key problem areas such as pluralisation.a good range of language. in order to give themselves more time to perform well on Writing Part 3. students should be given plenty of opportunities for writing sample Part 2 messages of an appropriate length. So if for example a verb is given in the passive. Students could also work through past papers in pairs. See recommendations for candidate preparation on page 14. sometimes it was felt that the target reader was not ‘fully informed’ and in these cases. Correct spelling is also essential. Given the problem of inadvisable editing that sometimes arises in respect of the word limits. students need to have a good grasp of B1 level structures and be able to apply these accurately. the story. Some of the stories did not refer to the ‘yellow door’ but if they were about a house. It is worth explaining to students that. In this way. They should be discouraged from using any phrases that appear on the question paper. Part 2 Regular practice in writing short communicative messages will benefit not only this part but also Reading Part 1. explaining. Students should be taught useful expressions and other language appropriate to common functional areas. Stronger candidates produced imaginative answers and were able to use a range of structures. inviting. However. • RECOMMENDATIONS FOR CANDIDATE PREPARATION
Part 1 As this part largely tests structural knowledge. so time should be spent in class practising spelling. Students could be encouraged to email each other in English or to write notes to each other. asking. The Cambridge English: Preliminary Handbook contains a list of the grammatical areas covered in Cambridge English: Preliminary on pages 7–8. such as apologising. and suitable vocabulary. including accurate tenses. and were able to use more complex structures such as accurate use of conditionals. Question 8. this was taken to be relevant. It is also useful for students to revise the different forms of irregular verbs. suggesting and thanking. comparative forms. in order to give them a better feel for what an answer of approximately 35–45 words looks like in their own handwriting. They should also be encouraged not to spend too long on this short task. teachers could use past papers to produce adapted sets of sentences. all that is required is the active form of the same verb. students would understand what is involved in the task without having to come up with the answers for themselves. fewer marks were awarded on the Content scale. had the title: ‘The house with the yellow door’ and was a popular choice. since this may not be the most natural way of communicating a given function in informal language and will not show their true language ability. they rarely have to bring new vocabulary into the second sentence in order to answer the question successfully. As an introduction to Writing Part 1. where the answer is given along with one or two incorrect answers.
Part 3 Students should be given regular opportunities to write extended answers of around 100 words. ‘suddenly’ and ‘(un)fortunately’ can also act as useful sequence and discourse markers. for example. a middle and an end. the inclusion of a variety of structures is perhaps less obvious. It is important for a story to have a beginning. and varying how they start their sentences. Work on linking devices would also be beneficial. using a variety of adjectives instead of ‘playing safe’ with one or two. students will need to be confident in their use of informal opening and closing formulae and be able to draw on a range of informal expressions. Some class work on phrasal verbs may also be advantageous. They should be encouraged to experiment with ways of including a good range of structures and vocabulary in the letters they write for homework. and for this reason. Looking at a selection of letter tasks from past papers in class may be beneficial. For the letter. Students should regularly be encouraged to be more ambitious. For the story. They should be encouraged to use adverbs to raise the level of language in their stories: words such as ‘immediately’.
. where comments on accuracy on the first draft are supplemented by suggestions for improving the language range used. While it is generally clear that a good variety of topic vocabulary can be used in the letter task. It is often useful to ask students to write a first and second draft. students should look critically at their own work and attempt to improve the organisation and development of their practice stories if necessary. students should revise narrative tenses and consult irregular verb tables in order to improve their accuracy of past tense forms. to brainstorm all the possible structures that could be used.
check with your teacher that you have covered the core Preliminary topics in class. write much more than 45 words in Writing Part 2. use a pen on the answer sheet. check your answers and transfer them accurately to the answer sheet. make sure that you read as widely as possible in English so that you get regular exposure to authentic reading texts of different types (factual. as ambitious language is rewarded. write more than three words to fill a space in Writing Part 1. be ambitious and use a range of language in Writing Part 3. worry too much about minor errors in Writing Part 3. leaving yourself enough time for Writing Part 3. leave any answers blank. narrative and opinion-based). which carries 15 marks. use the time well. There isn’t enough time to do this and it isn’t necessary.
DO DO DO DO DO DO DO DO DO DO DO DON’T DON’T DON’T DON’T DON’T DON’T DON’T DON’T
. It is usually possible to guess the meaning from the context. study any examples given (Reading Part 1 and Part 5. as this may affect the clarity of your answer. make sure that you mark the correct box for your choice of question in Writing Part 3. approach the test calmly and confidently. answer both questions in Writing Part 3. read the instructions for each part carefully. spend time making a full rough copy for Writing Part 3. You must choose between the letter and the story. including skimming and scanning. Writing Part 1). consider all multiple-choice options before choosing your answer. You should use a pencil. develop a range of reading skills. even if you are unsure of the answer. especially for Reading Part 4. panic if there is a word in a text that you don’t understand. keep a vocabulary notebook organised by topic.•
DOs and DON’Ts for PAPER 1 READING and WRITING
make sure you are familiar with the various test formats in Paper 1 through practice tests and past papers. read each text carefully before attempting the questions.
Multiple-choice Longer monologue or interview (with one main speaker). with stronger candidates choosing the correct option and weaker candidates selecting the other options.
. Longer monologue. whilst Questions 6 and 7 proved to be the most challenging.
Candidates record their answers on a separate answer sheet. Taken as a whole. especially Questions 1 and 2. Longer informal dialogue. The answers for Part 3 are marked by teams of trained markers. The early questions were quite high scoring.
Gap-fill. and to identify the attitudes and opinions of the speakers. plus one example. Six three-option multiple-choice questions. 2 and 4.PAPER 2 – LISTENING
Multiple choice (discrete). See recommendations for candidate preparation on pages 17 and 18.
True/False. Seven discrete three-option multiplechoice questions with visuals. the set of questions was of average difficulty and discriminated well.
Part 1. Six gaps to fill in.
Listening for detailed meaning. Questions 1–7: Multiple choice This part of the test contains seven short listening texts. This set of questions was well answered by the majority of candidates.
Listening to identify key information from short exchanges. Each question carries one mark. each accompanied by a question and three visual images. Candidates need to write one or more words in each space. A computer scans the answers for Parts 1. understand and interpret information.
Listening to identify specific information and detailed meaning. Candidates are asked a question and must choose the correct visual image from a choice of three in order to answer the question in the context of what they hear on the recording. so the Listening component has a total of 25 marks.
Listening to identify. representing 25% of the total marks for the whole examination. Candidates need to decide whether six statements are correct or incorrect. Short neutral or informal monologues or dialogues.
Questions 14–19: Gap-fill This task tests the candidates’ ability to listen out for and write down specific information from the listening text. as it involved processing the phrases: ‘only trouble is …… applications are often refused. They should be ready to find the key information at
. Candidates should read and listen to the wording of this focus question very carefully so that they are sure what information they are listening for. but wasted time and effort in writing down information that was already given. weaker candidates failed to retrieve the correct information from the text. See recommendations for candidate preparation on page 19. Part 4. and 24 proved to be the most accessible to candidates whilst Question 25 was more challenging. discriminate well between weak and strong candidates. including both monologues and dialogues. speaker(s) and focus question.
Part 1 Unlike other parts of the Listening test. for example putting the answer ‘School’ for Question 14 or ‘Africa’ for Question 19. and then check their answers the second time. We’ll see. Again. See recommendations for candidate preparation on pages 18 and 19.Part 2. proved more challenging. Questions 20. Question 17. A range of unambiguous mis-spellings was accepted. Weaker candidates tended to choose option B in Question 10. Question 11 proved to be more challenging and discriminated well between weaker and stronger candidates. for example where candidates wrote ‘buds’. for example those who wrote ‘at the sportscentre’ for Question 14 were given the mark. Questions 8–13: Multiple choice This is a three-option multiple-choice task which tests understanding of the detailed meaning of a longer text. perhaps hearing the words ‘teacher’ and ‘argument’ but failing to pick up that this was not actually what happened. These questions did. for example. In Question 2. Candidates should be reminded that the information they are listening for is not already on the task page. the three sports are all mentioned. but where this affected meaning. for example. Candidates generally find this the most challenging part of the test. Part 1 asks candidates to listen to a series of separate recordings. See recommendations for candidate preparation on page 18. Candidates should try to tick the correct box the first time they hear each text. 9 and 13. Some weaker candidates located the correct part of the text. but only one of them is proposed for ‘next week’. The question is written above the three picture options and is also read out on the recording. In other questions. there was good discrimination between weak and strong candidates on this task.’ to get the answer B. The questions were generally well within the candidates' competence with a high proportion getting the right answer to Questions 8. each with its own context. the mark could not be given. Questions 20–25: True/False This true-false task focuses on candidates’ ability to understand opinion and attitude as well as factual information. although most managed to write acceptable answers for Questions 14 and 16. Candidates coped very well with this task. 23. which tested the word ‘birds’. Part 3. but were unsure of this word. however.
’ The other options are wrong because although they relate to what Jane says. Question 10 asks about Jane’s test flight. Part 3 In Part 3. whilst the question prompt asks us about ‘people who are at least …… years old’. For example. and using the wording of the questions to guide them through the text and prevent them from losing their place as they listen. whilst the corresponding piece of text is cued by the interviewer saying: ‘Did you take a test’.any point in the recording. there is information about the listening text. Therefore. the information on the page represents an indication. Each question is cued by words in the text that correspond closely to the wording of the question. the key information may come from either speaker. For example. The spoken and written rubrics also supply further information about both the topic (e. This task involves listening for detail in order to pick out the correct option and disregard the incorrect ones. For example. in note or sentence form. An important strategy for candidates to develop is listening for such cues. As in Part 2. and the speaker (e. The words or numbers that candidates need to write will all be heard on the recording. If candidates write ‘sportscentre and are for children 8 to 12 years old’ this is also correct and would get the mark. for example in Question 5.g. however. Some questions focus on information or opinions coming from one of the speakers.
. This is useful information for candidates as it will give them a context for what they hear and so helps them to listen out for the type of information which is missing. which is difficult now I’m working. the wording of the listening text. but the first one we hear about is not the one that he did on the programme. a woman called Jane Brown). the questions are unlikely to repeat the exact wording of the text in the multiple-choice options. Most of the gaps require a single word. candidates are told about the topic (e. events in the city of Marchford) and the type of text (e.g. For example. the answer to Question 14 is ‘Sportscentre’. a number or a short noun phrase as an answer and candidates should be discouraged from attempting to transcribe longer pieces of text. Part 2 In the Part 2 rubric. candidates need to listen for the meaning of what they hear and match this to the closest idea amongst the options. For example. For example. so candidates need to listen for the meaning of the listening text in order to locate the correct information.’ What Jane says is: ‘…it takes a lot of time. This is useful information for candidates as it will give them a context for what they hear and for the questions on the page. The listening text for Part 2 has a clear structure with a discrete piece of text relating to each question. a radio announcement). and the answer is option C ‘she has little spare time. but they will have wasted time writing information which is not part of the key and risk missing the answer to the next question whilst doing so. in Question 15 the speaker tells us that the classes ‘are for young people aged 13 and above’. In other questions. learning to fly). in Question 13 we are asked why Jane doesn’t fly now. Once the initial cue is established. they don’t tell us her reason for not flying. to a certain extent. in the form in which they need to be written. in Question 4 the announcer mentions all three jobs. for example Question 7. which is both printed on the page and read out on the recording. and this is indicated in the focus question. not necessarily at the beginning or end. The questions are well spaced so that there is plenty of time for candidates to write their answers as they listen. but this is not a dictation.g. of what the candidates are going to hear. the wording of the prompts on the page echoes.g.
so far’. and think about the exact meaning of each of the statements. e. and simple reporting verbs.
. in this task.g. making films about wild animals) and the name of the speakers (e. but should not become over-concerned about spelling. there is information about the listening text. as these may be tested.. high frequency words. Candidates also need to make sure they are listening for the opinion of the correct speaker. etc.g.g. but Tom’s response which gives us the answer: ‘It was the most satisfying thing I’ve done. ‘boring’.g. For example. such as ‘Saturday’ in Question 16. as a range of misspellings is accepted as long as the answer is clear. a man called Tom and a woman called Caroline). ‘My dad was a vet and our house was full of animals. ‘thinks’. in Question 17 more than one spelling of ‘birds’ was accepted as correct.’ Several of the questions test attitude and opinion and candidates should be familiar with adjectives which express feelings such as ‘keen’. and three on Caroline’s. they are unlikely to hear the exact words repeated on the recording and so should be listening out for synonyms and parallel expressions. in the text relating to Question 23. For example. where it is Caroline who mentions California. The skill of selecting and recording relevant information is a useful one for candidates to practise in the classroom and during their preparation for the Cambridge English: Preliminary examination. candidates are listening for specific information and there will be some information in the recording which is not relevant to the questions. which is both printed on the page and read out on the recording. Caroline says: ‘I knew I wasn’t clever enough’ which gives us the answer B. paying special attention to whether positive or negative views are being expressed. e.g. we need to have listened to what Caroline has said previously. However. ‘(dis)agree’. To understand what he is referring to.g. should be correctly spelt. Question 20. three questions clearly focus on Tom’s views. e. ‘disappointed’ etc. This is useful information for candidates as it will give them a context for what they hear and for the questions on the page. e. but it is always necessary to listen to both speakers. For example. Candidates should read the questions carefully.Candidates should check their final answers to make sure they are clearly written and unambiguous. As in Parts 2 and 3. ‘hopes’.. but the rest of what she says is phrased positively. Part 4 In the Part 4 rubric. In this task. Candidates should listen for the gist of what speakers are saying.. candidates are told about the topic (e.
because what you thought was right while you were listening was probably right! use a pen on the answer sheet.DOs and DON’Ts for PAPER 2 LISTENING
read the instructions carefully for each part so you have an idea of the topic. as some parts of the listening may not be tested. worry too much if you don’t hear the answer to a question the first time. answer all the questions even if you are not sure of the answer. check your answers and listen for any missing answers when you hear the recording for the second time. transfer your answers to the answer sheet only when you are told to do so at the end of the test. check that the options you choose in Part 2 really do answer the question or finish the sentence. panic if you don’t understand everything while listening.
DO DO DO DO DO DO DO DO DO DON’T DON’T DON’T
. change your answers when you are transferring them to the answer sheet. answer as much as you can when you hear the recording for the first time. write only one or two words or a number in Part 3. You have probably understood more than you think you have. You will hear everything twice. You should use a pencil. think about what kind of words to listen for in Part 3. look at the question paper material (text and pictures) for each part before the listening text for that part begins. remember that you are told which speaker is which in Part 4. mark/write your answers on the question paper as you listen. and think about what kind of information you have to listen for.
Grammar and Vocabulary This refers to the accurate and appropriate use of grammatical structures and vocabulary in order to meet the task requirements at B1 level. The topic of the conversation develops the theme established in Part 3.
The candidates talk together about their opinions. One of the examiners acts as an interlocutor and the other as an assessor. The interlocutor sets up the activity using a standardised rubric. discuss alternatives. preferences. The assessor awards marks to each candidate for performance throughout the test according to the four Analytical Criteria (Grammar and Vocabulary. The interlocutor sets up the activity using a standardised rubric.PAPER 3 – SPEAKING
Each candidate interacts with the interlocutor. Candidates who do not have immediate access to the vocabulary they need should be able to convey their intended meaning by using alternative words or phrases without extensive repetition. using standardised questions. Candidates interact with each other. which assesses the candidates’ overall effectiveness in tackling the tasks.
Candidates are awarded marks by both examiners.
Extended turn. make recommendations and negotiate agreement. Using functional language to make and respond to suggestions. Describing photographs and managing discourse. The interlocutor awards marks according to the Global Achievement Scale.
Giving information of a factual. and Interactive Communication).
. while the assessor takes no part in the interaction. Simulated situation. in a longer turn. The Speaking Test represents 25% of the total marks for the whole examination. The interlocutor asks the candidates questions in turn. The test takes ten to twelve minutes and consists of four parts. Visual stimulus is given to the candidates to aid the discussion task. The candidates respond to questions about present circumstances. The interlocutor directs the Speaking Test. A colour photograph is given to each candidate in turn and they are asked to talk about it for up to a minute. Candidates interact with each other. using appropriate vocabulary. past experiences and future plans. Both photographs relate to the same topic. habits etc. Discourse Management. personal kind. likes/dislikes. experiences. Pronunciation.
See recommendations for candidate preparation on page 23. and interacted meaningfully with their partner to reach a conclusion or decision. Global Achievement This refers to the candidates’ overall ability to deal with the tasks and to convey meaning appropriately. candidates are expected to produce responses which are extended beyond short phrases. It includes the ability to use strategies to maintain or repair communication. Feedback indicates that the candidates were generally well prepared and that the materials were well received. Stronger candidates extended their responses to the more open-ended questions with details that backed up their answers. Interactive Communication This refers to the ability to take part in the interaction and fulfil the task requirements by initiating and responding appropriately. See recommendations for candidate preparation on pages 23 and 24. or required additional prompts from the interlocutor. Part 2 Candidates who performed well in this part listened carefully to the interlocutor’s instructions. free-time activities. Some weaker candidates had problems spelling their name in English. well-prepared candidates talked about each of the suggestions given by the visual prompts and gave reasons for their opinions.
Candidate performance in this administration was consistent with that of previous years. candidates’ pronunciation will be influenced by features of their first language. etc. Weaker candidates tended to give one-word or two-word answers to all questions and failed to develop their answers. thought about the task and its context. studies or work. this refers to the ability to produce comprehensible utterances to fulfil the task requirements. In this way. and use basic cohesive devices. The questions are usually predictable ones about daily routines. At B1 level. they summarised the reasons for their final choice to signal that they had completed the task. These candidates involved their partner by asking for an opinion and following up on the points made. Part 1 Candidates tended to perform well in this part. Candidates’ responses are also expected to be mostly relevant.Discourse Management At B1 level. Where time allowed. For example. Pronunciation In general. despite hesitation. it is recognised that even in the top assessment band. in ‘New Theatre’ (see Part 2 in the 2011 Past Paper Pack). they kept the discussion going for the allotted 2−3 minutes.
See recommendations for candidate preparation on page 24. Some candidates spent time unsuccessfully trying to produce sophisticated positional language (e. as illustrated by the visual prompts. etc. home town.g. etc. they should be able to give information about their work or studies. Part 2 Candidates should be given practice in talking together about an imaginary situation. etc. For example. Credit will be given. See recommendations for candidate preparation on page 24. however. to those candidates able to use repair strategies to prevent communication breaking down. the objects in view.Part 3 In this part of the test. ‘in the top right-hand corner’) which is not expected at this level. Strong candidates were able to deal with unknown items of vocabulary by using paraphrase strategies.
Candidates at this level are not expected to speak perfectly. Part 1 Candidates should be given practice in the everyday language of talking about themselves. they should learn to make use of simple phrases for asking the interlocutor or their partner to repeat or rephrase something they have not understood. family. and so wasted opportunities to demonstrate their range of B1 level vocabulary and expressions. In class. Weaker candidates sometimes addressed their comments to the interlocutor rather than the partner. additional prompts were provided by the interlocutor. candidates have the chance to demonstrate their range of vocabulary and their ability to organise language in describing a photograph. The sample materials show people spending time alone (see 2011 Past Paper Pack).). Part 4 Candidates who performed well in this part of the test listened carefully to the instructions and understood that they should talk together with their partner. as well as commenting on the overall context (the location. home. Strong candidates spoke for the full time allotted and talked about the people and activities in the foreground (their clothes. failing to bring their partner into the discussion. They should also practise spelling their names using English letters. what they are doing. but also elicited those of their partner and responded to what their partner said. such as providing a fuller description of objects and activities when they were unsure of the specific word to use.). They need to understand that they are talking about the specific situation described in the instructions. they should practice using picture prompts as the basis for discussion. talking about both when they preferred to be alone (1) and what they liked doing when they were alone (2). Where candidates were unable to fill the allotted time. nor understand everything that is said to them. They should also learn to use paraphrase strategies when they cannot call to mind a particular word or phrase needed for a task. and not just generally about the topic. Strong candidates not only gave their own views. or produced a lengthy monologue. free-time activities. For example. They also covered both elements of the task.
or is not. a good idea. They should be familiar with the language of agreement and disagreement and be able to explain why they think something is. however.) which might seem obvious. they will demonstrate their range of vocabulary. not only be given practice in talking about their opinions and personal experiences. candidates need to be given practice in talking about photographs. ‘next to’. ‘You can see it is summer because the sun is shining and they are wearing summer clothes. and not issues raised by the broader context. they are only expected to comment on the actual content of the images they are shown. using prepositions and other simple expressions to locate aspects of the picture (e. Part 3 For this task. however. Candidates should. They should be encouraged to give a detailed description. They should also be able to link their ideas together in a simple way. ‘behind’.’ Part 4 As this part of the test is a conversation between the candidates. but should learn how to pick up and develop the points made by their partner and how to invite their partners to comment.
. colours. mentioning even those details (clothes. etc. and then ask for the partner’s views about a related issue.Candidates also need to practice asking for their partner’s opinions and suggestions as well as supplying reasons for their own opinions.g. a candidate might tell his/her partner interesting things about themselves. they should be encouraged to look at each other and show interest in what their partner is saying.g. For example. but also in how to elicit these ideas from their partner. e. At this level. therefore. etc.) and back up what they say with examples. ‘in front of’. In this way. Candidates should not attempt to ‘hold the floor’ with long individual turns in this part. weather.
concentrate on the actual content of the photo and describe the photo thoroughly in Part 3.
. talk to the examiner rather than your partner in Parts 2 and 4. or much better at speaking English than you. talk to your partner and not the examiner in Parts 2 and 4. try to relax and enjoy the test. The examiners look at each candidate’s performance individually. listen carefully to the examiner’s questions. let exam nerves prevent you from speaking. make sure you have some phrases to get around the problem of words you don’t know in Part 3. both in and out of class. Examiners can’t give marks to silent candidates. speak for too long without involving your partner in Parts 2 and 4. try to talk about things/ideas outside the photo in Part 3. worry if you think your partner in the test is not as good as you. stop talking if you come to a word you do not know in Part 3. ask the examiner for clarification if necessary. answer the examiner’s questions clearly and try to give extended answers to open-ended questions in Part 1. remember that the examiners are sympathetic listeners and want you to give your best possible performance. show interest in what your partner is saying and ask your partner questions in Parts 2 and 4. worry too much if you don’t know a word.•
DOs and DON’Ts for PAPER 3 SPEAKING
practise your spoken English as much as possible before the test. speak clearly so that both examiners can hear you. listen to and look at your partner and give your partner a chance to speak in Parts 2 and 4.
worry too much about making grammatical mistakes.
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