Source: https://sdlegislature.gov/Rules/PrinterRule.aspx?Rule=20:43&Type=All
Timestamp: 2019-04-25 21:46:48+00:00

Document:
(5) The signature of the person making the petition.
Source: SL 1975, ch 16, § 1; 6 SDR 87, effective March 2, 1980; 12 SDR 151, 12 SDR 155, effective July 1, 1986; 43 SDR 16, effective August 15, 2016.
Cross-Reference: Procedure to initiate rules, SDCL 1-26-13.
20:43:01:02. Agency action on petition for declaratory ruling. After receiving a petition for a declaratory ruling, the board may request from the petitioner any additional information required for the issuance of a ruling. When necessary. the board shall set a hearing date when testimony can be given by parties of interest in the declaratory ruling. Unless the petitioner agrees to a longer period of time, the board shall issue a declaratory ruling within 90 days after the receipt of the petition, within 90 days following the receipt of further requested information, or within 45 days following a hearing held on the petition. The board's action on the petition is the final order of the board in the matter and starts the time running within which an appeal may be taken on its action.
Source: SL 1975, ch 16, § 1; 6 SDR 87, effective March 2, 1980; 12 SDR 151, 12 SDR 155, effective July 1, 1986; 18 SDR 132, effective February 17, 1992; 43 SDR 16, effective August 15, 2016.
20:43:01:03. Board meetings on rules or rulings. The board may hold a meeting by telephone conference call to decide on any petitions filed pursuant to SDCL 1-26-13 or 1-26-15.
Source: SL 1975, ch 16, § 1; 6 SDR 87, effective March 2, 1980; 12 SDR 151, 12 SDR 155, effective July 1, 1986.
Law Implemented: SDCL 1-26-13, 1-26-15.
20:43:01:04. Procedures in contested cases.Repealed.
Source: SL 1975, ch 16, § 1; 6 SDR 87, effective March 2, 1980; 12 SDR 151, 12 SDR 155, effective July 1, 1986; repealed, 13 SDR 23, effective September 3, 1986.
20:43:01:05. Board hearings -- Procedure. A record of the hearing in a contested case shall be taken by court reporter or recording equipment.
Source: SL 1975, ch 16, § 1; 6 SDR 87, effective March 2, 1980; 12 SDR 151, 12 SDR 155, effective July 1, 1986; 13 SDR 23, effective September 3, 1986; 18 SDR 132, effective February 17, 1992; 43 SDR 16, effective August 15, 2016.
20:43:02:01. Transferred to §§ 20:43:03:01, 20:43:03:04, 20:43:03:08, and 20:43:03:10.
Source: 18 SDR 132, effective February 17, 1992; 19 SDR 32, effective September 6, 1992; 20 SDR 166, effective April 11, 1994; 26 SDR 37, effective September 20, 1999; 27 SDR 57, effective December 12, 2000; repealed, 38 SDR 172, effective April 25, 2012.
20:43:02:02. Transferred to § 20:43:03:05.
20:43:02:03. Content of exams. Repealed.
Source: SL 1975, ch 16, § 1; 6 SDR 87, effective March 2, 1980; 12 SDR 151, 12 SDR 155, effective July 1, 1986; 18 SDR 132, effective February 17, 1992; 20 SDR 166, effective April 11, 1994; 27 SDR 57, effective December 12, 2000; repealed, 38 SDR 172, effective April 25, 2012.
Source: SL 1975, ch 16, § 1; 6 SDR 87, effective March 2, 1980; 12 SDR 151, 12 SDR 155, effective July 1, 1986; 13 SDR 23, effective September 3, 1986; 26 SDR 37, effective September 20, 1999; repealed, 38 SDR 172, effective April 25, 2012.
(9) Completed fingerprint cards necessary to conduct a state and federal criminal background check.
An applicant for a license to practice as a dentist shall pass a written examination administered by the board on the relevant administrative rules and statutes. A cut score of 70 percent is considered passing.
To be considered, a complete application and all supporting documentation must be received at least 30 days before the board meeting to be considered. If requested, an applicant shall appear for a personal interview conducted by the board on a date set by the board.
Source: SL 1975, ch 16, § 1; 6 SDR 87, effective March 2, 1980; 12 SDR 151, 12 SDR 155, effective July 1, 1986; 18 SDR 132, effective February 17, 1992; 20 SDR 166, effective April 11, 1994; 26 SDR 37, effective September 20, 1999; 27 SDR 57, effective December 12, 2000; 38 SDR 172, effective April 25, 2012; 45 SDR 35, effective September 19, 2018.
General Authority: SDCL 36-6A-14(3), 36-6A-44, 36-6A-50(13).
Law Implemented: SDCL 36-6A-14(3), 36-6A-44.
(5) A remediation policy to address candidate deficiencies.
Source: 45 SDR 35, effective September 19, 2018.
General Authority: SDCL 36-6A-14(3), 36-6A-44(4).
Law Implemented: SDCL 36-6A-14(3), 36-6A-44(4).
20:43:03:03. Reciprocity requirements -- Fees. Repealed.
Source: SL 1975, ch 16, § 1; 6 SDR 87, effective March 2, 1980; 8 SDR 95, effective February 15, 1982; 12 SDR 151, 12 SDR 155, effective July 1, 1986; repealed, 18 SDR 132, effective February 17, 1992.
(10) Completed fingerprint cards necessary to conduct a state and federal criminal background check.
To be considered, a complete application and all supporting documentation must be received at least 30 days before the board meeting. If requested, an applicant for licensure by credential verification shall appear for a personal interview conducted by the board on a date set by the board.
Source: SL 1975, ch 16, § 1; 6 SDR 87, effective March 2, 1980; 8 SDR 95, effective February 15, 1982; 12 SDR 151, 12 SDR 155, effective July 1, 1986; 19 SDR 32, effective September 6, 1992; 26 SDR 37, effective September 20, 1999; 38 SDR 172, effective April 25, 2012; 45 SDR 35, effective September 19, 2018.
General Authority: SDCL 36-6A-14(3), 36-6A-47, 36-6A-50(18).
Law Implemented: SDCL 36-6A-14(3), 36-6A-47, 36-6A-50(18).
20:43:03:04.01. Requirements for foreign-trained dentists and dental hygienists. Repealed.
Source: 18 SDR 132, effective February 17, 1992; 26 SDR 37, effective September 20, 1999; 38 SDR 172, effective April 25, 2012; 45 SDR 35, effective September 19, 2018.
20:43:03:04.02. Requirements for temporary registration of dentists and dental hygienists. The board may issue a temporary registration for a specified period of time if an applicant has met all requirements for a license to practice as a dentist or a dental hygienist or if an applicant has met all requirements of SDCL 36-6A-49 and submits a fee of $50.
Source: 18 SDR 132, effective February 17, 1992; 20 SDR 166, effective April 11, 1994; 38 SDR 172, effective April 25, 2012; 45 SDR 35, effective September 19, 2018.
General Authority: SDCL 36-6A-14(3), 36-6A-44, 36-6A-44.2, 36-6A-47, 36-6A-47.1, 36-6A-49, 36-6A-49.1, 36-6A-50(9).
Law Implemented: SDCL 36-6A-14(3), 36-6A-44, 36-6A-44.2, 36-6A-47, 36-6A-47.1, 36-6A-49, 36-6A-49.1, 36-6A-50(9).
20:43:03:05. Jurisprudence examination -- Fee. Each jurisprudence examination must be submitted to the board with the examination fee of $225 for a dentist or $115 for a dental hygienist.
Source: Transferred from § 20:43:02:02, 45 SDR 35, effective September 19, 2018.
General Authority: SDCL 36-6A-47(10), 36-6A-47.1(10), 36-6A-50(1)(2).
Law Implemented: SDCL 36-6A-47(10), 36-6A-47.1(10), 36-6A-50(1)(2).
20:43:03:06. Annual renewal of license -- Renewal fees. Each person licensed to practice as a dentist or dental hygienist in South Dakota shall annually procure a certificate of registration from the board by July first. Each person licensed to practice as a dentist or a dental hygienist shall maintain a current cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) card. The board accepts only the American Heart Association for the Healthcare Provider, the American Red Cross for the Professional Rescuer, or an equivalent program approved by the board. A dentist shall pay an annual registration fee of $150 plus a continuing education fee of $20, and a dental hygienist shall pay an annual registration fee of $75 plus a continuing education fee of $20.
Source: SL 1975, ch 16, § 1; 6 SDR 87, effective March 2, 1980; 8 SDR 95, effective February 15, 1982; 12 SDR 151, 12 SDR 155, effective July 1, 1986; 13 SDR 164, effective May 10, 1987; 16 SDR 133, effective February 15, 1990; 38 SDR 172, effective April 25, 2012; 45 SDR 35, effective September 19, 2018.
General Authority: SDCL 36-6A-14(5)(6), 36-6A-50(3)(4)(7)(10)(17), 36-6A-52.
Law Implemented: SDCL 36-6A-50(3)(4)(7)(10)(17), 36-6A-52.
20:43:03:07. Continuing education requirements -- Dentists. A dentist shall complete at least 100 hours of board approved continuing education in each five-year licensure cycle. One hour of continuing education may be earned for each hour of attendance at a board approved continuing education course.
(4) The provider organization must be approved by the Academy of General Dentistry Program Approval For Continuing Education.
Credit for nutrition continuing education is limited to 15 hours per five-year licensure cycle. Credit for practice management continuing education is limited to 10 hours per five-year licensure cycle. Credit for home study continuing education is limited to 30 hours per five-year licensure cycle. Credit for cardiopulmonary resuscitation continuing education is limited to 15 hours per five-year licensure cycle. Credit for clinical continuing education is unlimited per five-year licensure cycle. Up to five hours of clinical continuing education may be earned for attendance at exhibits at a state, regional, or national dental conference.
The board's continuing education guidelines shall be reviewed annually.
Source: SL 1975, ch 16, § 1; 5 SDR 68, effective February 13, 1979; 6 SDR 87, effective March 2, 1980; 12 SDR 151, 12 SDR 155, effective July 1, 1986; 13 SDR 23, effective September 3, 1986; 18 SDR 132, effective February 17, 1992; 20 SDR 166, effective April 11, 1994; 26 SDR 37, effective September 20, 1999; 35 SDR 67, effective September 25, 2008; 37 SDR 131, effective January 6, 2011; 38 SDR 172, effective April 25, 2012; 45 SDR 35, effective September 19, 2018.
General Authority: SDCL 36-6A-14(1)(3)(11)(14), 36-6A-55.
Law Implemented: SDCL 36-6A-14(1)(3)(11)(13), 36-6A-55.
20:43:03:07.01. Continuing education requirements -- Dental hygienists. A dental hygienist shall complete at least 75 hours of board approved continuing education in each five-year licensure cycle. One hour of continuing education may be earned for each hour of attendance at a board approved continuing education course.
Five hours of the required 75 hours must be dental radiography continuing education. Credit for dental radiography continuing education is limited to 20 hours per five-year licensure cycle. Credit for nutrition continuing education is limited to 15 hours per five-year licensure cycle. Credit for practice management continuing education is limited to 10 hours per five-year licensure cycle. Credit for home study continuing education is limited to 30 hours per five-year licensure cycle. Credit for cardiopulmonary resuscitation continuing education is limited to 15 hours per five-year licensure cycle. Credit for clinical continuing education is unlimited per five-year licensure cycle. Up to five hours of clinical continuing education may be earned for attendance at exhibits at a state, regional, or national dental conference.
The board's continuing education guidelines will be reviewed annually.
Source: 13 SDR 23, effective September 3, 1986; 18 SDR 132, effective February 17, 1992; 20 SDR 18, effective August 16, 1993; 20 SDR 166, effective April 11, 1994; 26 SDR 37, effective September 20, 1999; 35 SDR 67, effective September 25, 2008; 38 SDR 172, effective April 25, 2012; 45 SDR 35, effective September 19, 2018.
General Authority: SDCL 36-6A-14(1)(3)(11), 36-6A-55.
20:43:03:07.02. Transferred to § 20:43:08:09.01.
(8) A copy of the applicant's current cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) card. The board accepts only the American Heart Association for the Healthcare Provider, the American Red Cross for the Professional Rescuer, or an equivalent program approved by the board.
An applicant for a license to practice as a dental hygienist shall pass a written examination administered by the board on the relevant administrative rules and statutes. A cut score of 70 percent is considered passing.
To be considered, a complete application and all supporting documentation must be received at least 30 days before the board meeting. If requested, an applicant shall appear for a personal interview conducted by the board on a date set by the board.
General Authority: 36-6A-14(3), 36-6A-44.2, 36-6A-50(14).
(4) A remediation policy to address candidate deficiencies.
General Authority: SDCL 36-6A-14(3), 36-6A-44.2(4).
Law Implemented: SDCL 36-6A-14(3), 36-6A-44.2(4).
General Authority: SDCL 36-6A-14(3), 36-6A-47.1, 36-6A-50(18).
Law Implemented: SDCL 36-6A-14(3), 36-6A-47.1, 36-6A-50(18).
20:43:03:11. Lost or destroyed license or registration -- Replacement. A fee of $15 is required for replacement of a lost or destroyed license or registration.
Source: SL 1975, ch 16, § 1; 6 SDR 87, effective March 2, 1980; 12 SDR 151, 12 SDR 155, effective July 1, 1986; 20 SDR 166, effective April 11, 1994; 45 SDR 35, effective September 19, 2018.
20:43:04:01 Recognized specialty practice -- Qualifications.
20:43:04:03 Inspections for safety and sanitation.
20:43:04:04 Dental hygienist -- Practice -- Supervision.
20:43:04:06 Additional duties of dental hygienist.
20:43:04:07 Mobile office or unit--Authority to operate.
Dentists that meet the qualifications of this section must disclose in all advertisements the specialty area in which they practice. Dentists that do not meet the qualifications of this section must disclose in all advertisements that they are a general dentist. This disclaimer shall be clearly legible with print equal to or larger than the print advertising the service or clearly audible with speech volume and pace equal to the advertisement.
This section does not apply to those dentists who began limiting their practices to a recognized specialty prior to April 20, 1972. Declaration to the public of a specialty practice or the inference of specialty status in any other area is a violation of SDCL 36-6A-29 and this section.
Source: SL 1975, ch 16, § 1; 6 SDR 87, effective March 2, 1980; 11 SDR 73, effective November 27, 1984; 12 SDR 151, 12 SDR 155, effective July 1, 1986; 18 SDR 132, effective February 17, 1992; 37 SDR 131, effective January 6, 2011.
General Authority: SDCL 36-6A-14(1), 36-6A-28, 37-6A-29.
20:43:04:02. Dental technician's written work order. Repealed.
Source: SL 1975, ch 16, § 1; 6 SDR 87, effective March 2, 1980; 12 SDR 151, 12 SDR 155, effective July 1, 1986; repealed, 32 SDR 188, effective May 15, 2006.
20:43:04:03. Inspections for safety and sanitation. The board may suspend or revoke any license issued, after opportunity for hearing as provided in SDCL 1-26, for failure of a dentist to maintain the dentist's entire dental office in a clean and sanitary condition without any accumulation of trash, debris, or filth. The dental office must be maintained in full compliance with all health requirements of the city or county, or both, in which it is located. The dentist must maintain the office in compliance with the Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health Care Settings, 2003, of the Center for Disease Control and Prevention. The dentist must permit inspection of the dental office at any time by anyone authorized by the board.
Source: SL 1975, ch 16, § 1; 6 SDR 87, effective March 2, 1980; 10 SDR 75, effective January 23, 1984; 12 SDR 151, 12 SDR 155, effective July 1, 1986; 18 SDR 132, effective February 17, 1992; 26 SDR 37, effective September 20, 1999; 38 SDR 172, effective April 25, 2012.
Reference: Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health Care Settings, 2003, Center for Disease Control and Prevention. Copies may be obtained from the Center for Disease Control and Prevention free of charge at http://www.cdc.gov/.
20:43:04:04. Dental hygienist -- Practice -- Supervision. A licensed hygienist may practice dental hygiene as allowed by SDCL 36-6A-40 and may perform a hygienist's duties in a public or private institution under general supervision of a licensed dentist. A licensed dental hygienist may in addition perform preliminary examination of the oral cavity and surrounding structures, including periodontal screenings; complete prophylaxis; placement of sealants; and polishing of restorations. This section does not apply to licensed dental hygienists employed by the United States Public Health Service.
Source: SL 1975, ch 16, § 1; 6 SDR 87, effective March 2, 1980; 12 SDR 151, 12 SDR 155, effective July 1, 1986; 18 SDR 132, effective February 17, 1992.
20:43:04:05. Transferred to § 20:43:08:10.
20:43:04:05.01. Transferred to § 20:43:08:11.
20:43:04:06. Additional duties of dental hygienist. In addition to the duties prescribed in SDCL chapter 36-6A and § 20:43:04:04, a dental hygienist, under direct supervision of a dentist, may perform all services permitted other registered dental assistants and dental assistants.
Source: SL 1975, ch 16, § 1; 6 SDR 87, effective March 2, 1980; 10 SDR 75, effective January 23, 1984; 12 SDR 151, 12 SDR 155, effective July 1, 1986; 19 SDR 32, effective September 6, 1992; 26 SDR 37, effective September 20, 1999; 37 SDR 131, effective January 6, 2011; 42 SDR 19, effective August 17, 2015.
20:43:04:07. Mobile office or unit -- Authority to operate. Authorization to operate a mobile dental office or unit shall be secured from the Board of Dentistry.
20:43:04:08. Transferred to §§ 20:43:09:01 and 20:43:09:03.
20:43:04:09. Transferred to § 20:43:09:11.
20:43:04:10. Transferred to § 20:43:09:01.
20:43:04:11. Transferred to § 20:43:09:04.
20:43:04:12. Transferred to § 20:43:09:05.
Source: SL 1975, ch 16, § 1; 6 SDR 87, effective March 2, 1980; 9 SDR 49, effective October 25, 1982; 12 SDR 151, 12 SDR 155, effective July 1, 1986; 43 SDR 16, effective August 15, 2016.
Source: SL 1975, ch 16, § 1; repealed, 6 SDR 87, effective March 2, 1980.
20:43:05:06. Change in place of business.Repealed.
20:43:06:04 Change in ownership or management.
20:43:06:05 Renewal of certificate of registration.
(6) Any other information required by the board to ensure compliance with SDCL chapter 47-12 and this chapter.
The board shall have the authority to hold any proceeding necessary for the processing of any application.
Source: SL 1975, ch 16, § 1; 6 SDR 87, effective March 2, 1980; 12 SDR 151, 12 SDR 155, effective July 1, 1986; 26 SDR 37, effective September 20, 1999; 44 SDR 101, effective December 18, 2017.
General Authority: SDCL 36-6A-14(20), 47-12-3, 47-12-8.
Law Implemented: SDCL 36-6A-14(9)(19), 47-12-8.
20:43:06:02. Procedure after application. Repealed.
Source: SL 1975, ch 16, § 1; 6 SDR 87, effective March 2, 1980; 12 SDR 151, 12 SDR 155, effective July 1, 1986; 44 SDR 101, effective December 18, 2017.
20:43:06:03. Applicant required to pay expenses for special meeting. Repealed.
20:43:06:04. Change in ownership or management. Prior to any change in ownership or management of an entity registered under SDCL chapter 47-12, including any proposed admission, removal, or change of a director, manager, member, partner, or shareholder, the entity shall provide notice of the proposed action to the board, at least thirty days prior to the action, on a form prescribed by the board. In its notice, the entity shall provide the board with the name, license or registration number and status, and address of any proposed director, manager, member, partner, or shareholder, if applicable, and a description of the proposed change in ownership. Any change in ownership under this section, other than removal of a director, manager, member, partner, or shareholder, must be approved by the board for the entity to maintain its certificate of registration under SDCL chapter 47-12. The board shall have the authority to request additional information or to hold any other proceeding necessary for the evaluation and approval of any change in ownership.
General Authority: SDCL 36-6A-14(20), 47-12-1, 47-12-3, 47-12-8.
Law Implemented: SDCL 36-6A-14(19), 47-12-8.
20:43:06:05. Renewal of certificate of registration. Each registered corporation shall submit, on or before July 1 of each year, an application for renewal of its certificate of registration. The application shall be accompanied by the required renewal fee of $25.
Source: SL 1975, ch 16, § 1; 6 SDR 87, effective March 2, 1980; 12 SDR 151, 12 SDR 155, effective July 1, 1986; 38 SDR 172, effective April 25, 2012; 44 SDR 101, effective December 18, 2017.
General Authority: SDCL 36-6A-14(20), 47-12-12.
Law Implemented: SDCL 36-6A-14(9)(19), 47-12-12.
20:43:07:06 Approval of programs -- Application.
20:43:07:08 Examination and proficiency evaluation.
20:43:07:09 Fee for certificate of registration -- Renewal.
20:43:07:10 Continuing education requirements -- Dental radiographers.
20:43:07:12 Prohibited use of radiation.
20:43:07:13 General safety provisions to protect persons from radiation exposures.
20:43:07:14 Requirements of x-ray film processing and darkroom.
(4) "Student," a person enrolled in or participating in an approved program or course of study.
Source: 11 SDR 73, effective November 27, 1984; 12 SDR 151, 12 SDR 155, effective July 1, 1986.
General Authority: SDCL 36-6A-14, 36-6A-21.
Law Implemented: SDCL 36-6A-14, 36-6A-21.
20:43:07:02. Minimum eligibility requirements. The minimum requirements for a dental radiographer are graduation from high school or its equivalent and attainment of eighteen years of age.
Source: 11 SDR 73, effective November 27, 1984; 12 SDR 151, 12 SDR 155, effective July 1, 1986; 19 SDR 32, effective September 6, 1992.
(6) Familiarization with federal and state regulations pertaining to services offered.
Source: 11 SDR 73, effective November 27, 1984; 12 SDR 151, 12 SDR 155, effective July 1, 1986; 26 SDR 37, effective September 20, 1999.
20:43:07:04. Exemptions to training requirements.Repealed.
Source: 11 SDR 73, effective November 27, 1984; 12 SDR 151, 12 SDR 155, effective July 1, 1986; repealed, 26 SDR 37, effective September 20, 1999.
20:43:07:05. Qualification by endorsement. A person who has a current certificate in dental radiography issued by another state, jurisdiction, agency, or recognized professional registry may, upon presentation of the certificate to the board, be considered to meet the requirements of §20:43:07:08 provided that the board finds that the standards and procedures for qualification in the state, jurisdiction, agency, or recognized professional registry which issued the certificate are equivalent to the standards in this chapter.
(3) It meets the requirements in § 20:43:07:03.
Application for approval of a program of learning shall be made to the board.
20:43:07:07. Application for registration. Each person desiring to engage in dental radiography except a licensed dentist or dental hygienist shall apply for registration to the board prior to engaging in dental radiography. The application shall be made on a form furnished by the board and shall be filled out completely. The application shall contain a statement that the requirements of this chapter of rules have been read and understood by the applicant and shall document the training, experience, and education that qualify the applicant to engage in dental radiography.
Source: 11 SDR 73, effective November 27, 1984; 12 SDR 151, 12 SDR 155, effective July 1, 1986; 18 SDR 132, effective February 17, 1992.
General Authority: SDCL 36-6A-14, 36-6A-50.
20:43:07:08. Examination and proficiency evaluation. An applicant for registration as a dental radiographer must pass a written examination administered by the board or the Dental Assisting National Board or any substantially similar test approved by the board.
An applicant must complete the hands-on film placement and exposure as specified in § 20:43:07:03(1).
Source: 11 SDR 73, effective November 27, 1984; 12 SDR 151, 12 SDR 155, effective July 1, 1986; 18 SDR 132, effective February 17, 1992; 26 SDR 37, effective September 20, 1999.
20:43:07:09. Fee for certificate of registration -- Renewal. When an applicant successfully passes the examination, the board shall issue a certificate of registration upon payment of a fee of $40 for initial registration. By July 1 of each year a dental radiographer shall submit a renewal fee of $20. The registrant shall display the registration in the office.
Source: 11 SDR 73, effective November 27, 1984; 12 SDR 151, 12 SDR 155, effective July 1, 1986; 38 SDR 172, effective April 25, 2012.
General Authority: SDCL 36-6A-14(6), 36-6A-50(10) and (16).
Law Implemented: SDCL 36-6A-14(6), 36-6A-50(10) and (16).
20:43:07:10. Continuing education requirements -- Dental radiographers. A dental radiographer shall complete at least five hours of board approved continuing education in dental radiography in each five-year licensure cycle. One hour of continuing education may be earned for each hour of attendance at a board approved continuing education course. The board's continuing education guidelines shall be reviewed annually.
Source: 26 SDR 37, effective September 20, 1999; 32 SDR 188, effective May 15, 2006; 45 SDR 35, effective September 19, 2018.
General Authority: SDCL 36-6A-14(1)(7), 36-6A-55.
20:43:07:11. License registration. An annual license granted by the Department of Health is required to house dental radiographic machines in a dental office. The location, number, and type of machine shall be reported on forms supplied by the Department of Health. The licensee shall notify the Department of Health in writing within 30 days after any change in the location or other information about radiography machines, devices, or other radiation sources.
Source: 26 SDR 37, effective September 20, 1999.
(4) The target to skin distance shall be at seven inches and the machine may not have a pointed cone.
(3) The patient's record shall contain the type of radiographic examination, date the examination was performed, and the identity of the machine operator.
20:43:07:14. Requirements of x-ray film processing and darkroom. A dental office using radiographic x-ray machines shall have available suitable equipment for handling and processing radiographic film in accordance with the manufacturer's directions.
(3) "Certificate of competency," a certificate attesting that a dental assistant is qualified to perform expanded functions by successfully completing a registered dental assistant examination as described in § 20:43:08:06.
Source: 19 SDR 32, effective September 6, 1992; 42 SDR 19, effective August 17, 2015.
General Authority: SDCL 36-6A-14, 36-6A-26.
Law Implemented: SDCL 36-6A-14, 36-6A-41.
20:43:08:02. Dental assistant -- Requirements. The minimal requirements for a dental assistant are graduation from high school or its equivalent and attainment of eighteen years of age.
Source: 19 SDR 32, effective September 6, 1992.
(3) Hold a certificate of competency from the board.
Law Implemented: SDCL 36-6A-41, 36-6A-42.
20:43:08:04. Qualifications by endorsement. A person who has a current certificate to perform expanded functions issued by another state, jurisdiction, agency, or recognized professional registry may, upon presentation of the certificate to the board be considered to meet the requirements of § 20:43:08:03 if the board finds that the standards and procedures for qualification in the state, jurisdiction, agency, or recognized professional registry which issued the certificate are equivalent to the standards of this chapter.
Law Implemented: SDCL 36-6A-14, 36-6A-41, 36-6A-42.
(2) It is conducted by individuals who are qualified by special education, training, and experience to conduct the program of learning in expanded functions.
Application for approval of programs of learning shall be made to the board.
20:43:08:06. Certificate of competency -- Examination. An applicant for a certificate of competency must pass a written examination on expanded functions administered by the board or the dental assisting national board or any substantially similar test. The applicant must also present to the board written documentation from a South Dakota dentist attesting to the clinical proficiency of the applicant who has performed expanded functions under personal supervision of the dentist for at least 180 days. The passing grade for the examination is 75.
General Authority: SDCL 36-6A-14, 36-6A-41.
Law Implemented: SDCL 36-6A-14, 36-6A-42.
20:43:08:07. Exemption to training requirements.Repealed.
Source: 19 SDR 32, effective September 6, 1992; repealed, 26 SDR 37, effective September 20, 1999.
20:43:08:08. Application for registration. Each person desiring to engage in performing expanded functions, except a licensed dentist or dental hygienist, shall apply for registration to the board before engaging in such expanded functions. The application shall be made on a form furnished by the board and shall be filled out completely. The application shall contain a statement that the requirements of this chapter has been read and understood by the applicant and shall document the training, experience, and education that qualify the applicant to engage in performing expanded functions.
General Authority: SDCL 36-6A-14, 36-6A-41, 36-6A-42.
20:43:08:09.01. Continuing education requirements -- Registered dental assistants. A registered dental assistant shall complete at least 60 hours of board approved continuing education in each five-year licensure cycle. One hour of continuing education may be earned for each hour of attendance at a board approved continuing education course.
Source: Transferred from § 20:43:03:07.02, 45 SDR 35, effective September 19, 2018.
20:43:08 :10. Delegation of duties -- Supervision. Subject to the dentist exercising full responsibility, a dental assistant may perform duties and procedures incidental to patient treatment while under the direct or indirect supervision of a licensed dentist or under personal supervision of a licensed dental hygienist. A registered dental assistant may perform expanded function procedures only under the direct supervision of a dentist.
Source: SL 1975, ch 16, § 1; 6 SDR 87, effective March 2, 1980; 12 SDR 151, 12 SDR 155, effective July 1, 1986; 14 SDR 118, effective March 24, 1988; transferred from § 20:43:04:05, 19 SDR 32, effective September 6, 1992; 42 SDR 19, effective August 17, 2015.
(7) Those procedures allocated by SDCL 36-6A-40 and by §§ 20:43:04:04 and 20:43:04:06 to dental hygienists with the exception of placement of sealants and coronal polishing following a prophylaxis by a dentist or dental hygienist.
Source: 6 SDR 87, effective March 2, 1980; 12 SDR 151, 12 SDR 155, effective July 1, 1986; transferred from § 20:43:04:05.01, 19 SDR 32, effective September 6, 1992; 32 SDR 188, effective May 15, 2006; 42 SDR 19, effective August 17, 2015; 42 SDR 83, effective December 3, 2015.
20:43:09:03 General anesthesia and deep sedation permit requirements.
20:43:09:04 Moderate sedation permit requirements.
20:43:09:04.01 Employing or contracting with licensed anesthesia provider that provides general anesthesia, deep sedation, or moderate sedation in dental office.
20:43:09:04.02 Utilizing licensed anesthesia provider for general anesthesia and deep sedation or moderate sedation in ambulatory surgery center or hospital.
20:43:09:05 Nitrous oxide inhalation analgesia permit requirements -- Dentists.
20:43:09:06 Nitrous oxide inhalation analgesia permit requirements -- Dental hygienists and registered dental assistants.
20:43:09:06.01 Local anesthesia permit requirements -- Dental hygienists.
20:43:09:08 Application for permits -- Renewal.
20:43:09:09 Reports of adverse conditions.
20:43:09:10 Permit requirements to monitor patients under general anesthesia, deep sedation, or moderate sedation.
20:43:09:10.01 Delegation of injection of medication.
20:43:09:13 Equipment -- Moderate sedation.
20:43:09:13.01 Equipment -- General anesthesia and deep sedation.
(8) "Accredited," a program accredited by the American Dental Association Commission on Dental Accreditation.
Source: 9 SDR 49, effective October 25, 1982; 12 SDR 151, 12 SDR 155, effective July 1, 1986; transferred from §§ 20:43:04:08 and 20:43:04:10, 19 SDR 32, effective September 6, 1992; 37 SDR 131, effective January 6, 2011.
20:43:09:02. Prohibitions. A dentist licensed in this state may not administer general anesthesia and deep sedation, moderate sedation, or nitrous oxide inhalation analgesia unless the dentist has obtained the permit required in § 20:43:09:03, 20:43:09:04, or 20:43:09:05.
Any dentist who advertises sedation using terms other than minimal sedation or nitrous oxide inhalation analgesic must have a general anesthesia and deep sedation or moderate sedation permit.
Source: 19 SDR 32, effective September 6, 1992; 37 SDR 131, effective January 6, 2011.
Law Implemented: SDCL 36-6A-14, 36-6A-16.
(e) Completion of an accredited residency in dental anesthesiology.
(4) Employs auxiliary personnel who hold a permit to monitor patients under general anesthesia, deep sedation, or moderate sedation. A dentist with a general anesthesia and deep sedation permit may not administer general anesthesia or deep sedation or monitor a patient without the presence and assistance of qualified auxiliary personnel.
A dentist shall apply the current standard of care to continuously monitor and evaluate the patient's blood pressure, pulse, respiratory function, and cardiac activity.
A general anesthesia and deep sedation permit precludes the need for a moderate sedation or a nitrous oxide inhalation analgesia permit.
Source: 9 SDR 49, effective October 25, 1982; 12 SDR 151, 12 SDR 155, effective July 1, 1986; transferred from § 20:43:04:08, 19 SDR 32, effective September 6, 1992; 26 SDR 37, effective September 20, 1999; 37 SDR 131, effective January 6, 2011; 42 SDR 83, effective December 3, 2015.
(4) Employs auxiliary personnel who hold a permit to monitor patients under general anesthesia, deep sedation, or moderate sedation. A dentist with a moderate sedation permit may not administer moderate sedation or monitor a patient without the presence and assistance of qualified auxiliary personnel.
A dentist using a parenteral route of administration must limit the use of pharmacological agents to those for which there are reversal agents.
A dentist providing moderate sedation to a child under 12 years of age must also document appropriate training in pediatric sedation techniques, according to the Guidelines for Monitoring and Management of Pediatric Patients During and After Sedation for Diagnostic and Therapeutic Procedures, and in pediatric resuscitation, including the recognition and management of pediatric airway and respiratory problems and must sign an affidavit certifying that the dentist understands the requirements of the Guidelines for Monitoring and Management of Pediatric Patients During and After Sedation for Diagnostic and Therapeutic Procedures.
A dentist using moderate sedation must adhere to the standards of the Guidelines for the Use of Sedation and General Anesthesia by Dentists. A dentist intending to produce a given level of sedation must be able to rescue a patient whose level of sedation becomes deeper than initially intended. A dentist using moderate sedation must be proficient in airway management and advanced life support and capable of providing intravenous access. A dentist using moderate sedation shall apply the current standard of care to continuously monitor and evaluate the patient's blood pressure, pulse, respiratory function, and cardiac activity.
If moderate sedation results in a general anesthetic state, the requirements in § 20:43:09:03 for general anesthesia and deep sedation apply.
A moderate sedation permit precludes the need for a nitrous oxide inhalation analgesia permit.
Source: 9 SDR 49, effective October 25, 1982; 12 SDR 151, 12 SDR 155, effective July 1, 1986; transferred from § 20:43:04:11, 19 SDR 32, effective September 6, 1992; 37 SDR 131, effective January 6, 2011; 42 SDR 83, effective December 3, 2015.
References: "Guidelines for Teaching Pain Control and Sedation to Dentists and Dental Students," 2012 Edition, American Dental Association. Copies may be obtained from the American Dental Association at www.ada.org free of charge. "Guidelines for the use of Sedation and General Anesthesia by Dentists," 2012 Edition, American Dental Association. Copies may be obtained from the American Dental Association at www.ada.org free of charge. "Guidelines for Monitoring and Management of Pediatric Patients During and After Sedation for Diagnostic and Therapeutic Procedures: An Update," 2011 Edition, American Academy of Pediatrics. Copies may be obtained from the American Academy of Pediatrics at www.aapd.org free of charge.
(7) Ensure that the licensed anesthesia provider holds anesthesia privileges at a licensed ambulatory surgery center or licensed hospital.
Source: 37 SDR 131, effective January 6, 2011; 42 SDR 83, effective December 3, 2015.
20:43:09:04.02. Utilizing licensed anesthesia provider for general anesthesia and deep sedation or moderate sedation in ambulatory surgery center or hospital. No permit is required if a dentist utilizes the services of a licensed anesthesia provider for dental patients in an ambulatory surgery center or hospital.
Source: 37 SDR 131, effective January 6, 2011.
(4) Employs auxiliary personnel who are certified in administering basic life support by the American Heart Association for the Healthcare Provider, the American Red Cross for the Professional Rescuer, or an equivalent program approved by the board.
A dentist may administer nitrous oxide inhalation analgesia in combination with a single enteral drug to achieve a minimally depressed level of consciousness only if the maximum recommended dose of the enteral drug is not exceeded. Incremental dosing may be utilized. A dentist may not administer nitrous oxide inhalation analgesia used in combination with more than one enteral drug or by dosing a single enteral drug in excess of the maximum recommended dose unless the dentist holds the appropriate general anesthesia and deep sedation permit or moderate sedation permit.
Source: 9 SDR 49, effective October 25, 1982; 12 SDR 151, 12 SDR 155, effective July 1, 1986; transferred from § 20:43:04:12, 19 SDR 32, effective September 6, 1992; 37 SDR 131, effective January 6, 2011; 42 SDR 83, effective December 3, 2015.
Reference: "Guidelines for Teaching Pain Control and Sedation to Dentists and Dental Students," 2012 Edition, American Dental Association. Copies may be obtained from the American Dental Association at www.ada.org free of charge.
(b) Completed the course more than thirteen months prior to application, has legally administered nitrous oxide inhalation analgesia for a period of time during the three years preceding application, and provides written documentation from a dentist that has employed or supervised the applicant, attesting to the current clinical proficiency of the applicant to administer nitrous oxide inhalation analgesia.
Source: 19 SDR 32, effective September 6, 1992; 32 SDR 188, effective May 15, 2006; 37 SDR 131, effective January 6, 2011; 42 SDR 19, effective August 17, 2015; 42 SDR 83, effective December 3, 2015.
Law Implemented: SDCL 36-6A-14(1)(3)(7)(10)(13)(14)(22), 36-6A-40.
(b) Completed the course more than thirteen months prior to application, has legally administered local anesthesia for a period of time during the three years preceding application, and provides written documentation from a dentist that has employed or supervised the applicant, attesting to the current clinical proficiency of the applicant to administer local anesthesia.
20:43:09:06.02. Minimal sedation. A dentist may administer minimal sedation without a permit. A dentist administering minimal sedation must have appropriate access to oxygen and suction and emergency drugs and must meet the standards of the Guidelines for the Use of Sedation and General Anesthesia by Dentists. A dentist may not administer or prescribe for self-administration more than the maximum recommended dose of a single enteral drug for a patient at the same setting unless the dentist holds the appropriate general anesthesia and deep sedation permit or moderate sedation permit.
Reference: "Guidelines for the Use of Sedation and General Anesthesia by Dentists," 2012 Edition, American Dental Association. Copies may be obtained from the American Dental Association at www.ada.org free of charge.
20:43:09 :07. Noncompliance. A violation of any provision of this chapter may result in revocation or suspension of a permit or in other disciplinary measures.
Source: 19 SDR 32, effective September 6, 1992; 37 SDR 131, effective January 6, 2011; 42 SDR 83, effective December 3, 2015.
20:43:09 :08. Application for permits -- Renewal. The application for a permit to administer general anesthesia and deep sedation or moderate sedation must include a fee of $50. The application for a permit for a dentist, dental hygienist or registered dental assistant to administer nitrous oxide inhalation analgesia must include a fee of $40. The application for a permit for a dental hygienist to administer local anesthesia must include a fee of $40.
The board may issue a temporary permit to an applicant that has met the applicable requirements of this chapter, but before all processing and any applicable inspection have been completed. The duration of this temporary permit shall be determined by the board, but may not exceed one year. The temporary permit of an applicant who fails an inspection is automatically suspended. Upon suspension, the applicant may request another inspection.
A general anesthesia and deep sedation permit or moderate sedation permit must be renewed annually. The annual fee for a general anesthesia and deep sedation permit or a moderate sedation permit is $50. A re-evaluation of the credentials and facility of the permit holder may be conducted for permit renewal. Any person renewing a general anesthesia and deep sedation permit or moderate sedation permit must be able to demonstrate continued competency as required by the board.
A nitrous oxide inhalation analgesia permit, local anesthesia permit, and permit to monitor patients under general anesthesia, deep sedation, or moderate sedation must be renewed annually. The annual fee for a nitrous oxide inhalation analgesia permit for a dentist is $40. The annual fee for a nitrous oxide inhalation analgesia permit for a dental hygienist is $20. The annual fee for a nitrous oxide inhalation analgesia permit for a registered dental assistant is $20. The annual fee for a permit to administer local anesthesia for a dental hygienist is $20. There is no annual fee for a permit to monitor patients under general anesthesia, deep sedation, or moderate sedation.
Failure to properly renew a general anesthesia and deep sedation permit, moderate sedation permit, nitrous oxide inhalation analgesia permit, local anesthesia permit, or a permit to monitor patients under general anesthesia, deep sedation, or moderate sedation constitutes an automatic suspension of the permit.
Source: 19 SDR 32, effective September 6, 1992; 37 SDR 131, effective January 6, 2011; 38 SDR 172, effective April 25, 2012; 42 SDR 19, effective August 17, 2015; 42 SDR 83, effective December 3, 2015.
20:43:09:09. Reports of adverse conditions. All dentists must notify the board within 72 hours after any death or any incident which results in temporary or permanent physical or mental injury requiring medical treatment of the patient during, or as a result of, general anesthesia and deep sedation, moderate sedation, or nitrous oxide inhalation analgesia. A complete written report of the incident must be submitted to the board within 30 days. The report shall be submitted on a form provided by the board.
Failure to comply with reporting requirements constitutes an automatic suspension of the permit to administer general anesthesia and deep sedation, moderate sedation, or nitrous oxide inhalation analgesia.
(b) Completed the course more than thirteen months prior to application, has legally monitored patients receiving analgesic or anesthetic agents for a period of time during the two years preceding application, and provides written documentation from a dentist that has employed or supervised the applicant, attesting to the current clinical proficiency of the applicant to monitor patients under general anesthesia, deep sedation, or moderate sedation.
Source: 19 SDR 32, effective September 6, 1992; 37 SDR 131, effective January 6, 2011; 42 SDR 19, effective August 17, 2015; 42 SDR 83, effective December 3, 2015.
(6) The supervising dentist authorizes the procedure by verbal command, clearly articulating the specific medication and the amount of the medication to be administered and the dental hygienist, registered dental assistant, or dental assistant repeats the verbal command back to the supervising dentist before injecting medication through an intravenous site.
Source: 42 SDR 83, effective December 3, 2015.
(4) Adjusting an electronic device to provide medications, such as an infusion pump, to a setting directed by the supervising dentist.
20:43:09 :11. Inspection of facilities. The board may at any time require an on-site inspection of the facility, equipment, and personnel to determine if the requirements of this chapter are being met. The dentist is responsible for all costs associated with an inspection. The on-site inspection should be performed by two board approved inspectors. However, if utilizing two board approved inspectors presents a hardship, the board may allow the inspection to be performed by one board approved inspector.
Each dentist who applies for a general anesthesia and deep sedation or moderate sedation permit must have an on-site inspection conducted at the primary office within twelve months of application or prior to expiration of the temporary permit, whichever is earlier. The board may require inspection of a dentist's satellite office at any time. If the dentist does not have a primary office located in South Dakota, the on-site inspection may be conducted at a satellite office located in South Dakota.
Following the initial inspection, each dentist must have an on-site inspection conducted at the primary office at least once in each five year licensure cycle. If the dentist does not have a primary office located in South Dakota the dentist may submit, subject to board approval, a report from a successful inspection conducted at the primary office located in a different state. An on-site inspection of the satellite office may also be required by the board.
Failing an on-site inspection constitutes an automatic suspension of the permit and may subject the dentist to disciplinary proceedings.
Source: 9 SDR 49, effective October 25, 1982; 12 SDR 151, 12 SDR 155, effective July 1, 1986; transferred from § 20:43:04:09, 19 SDR 32, effective September 6, 1992; 37 SDR 131, effective January 6, 2011; 42 SDR 83, effective December 3, 2015.
(6) Simulated emergencies in the surgical areas of the dental office with participation by members of the staff that are trained to handle emergencies. Emergencies shall be listed on the board approved inspection form.
(h) A board approved emergency cart that must be available and readily accessible and includes the necessary and appropriate drugs and equipment to resuscitate a non-breathing and unconscious patient and provide continuous support while the patient is transported to a medical facility. There must be documentation that all emergency equipment and drugs are checked and maintained on a prudent and regularly scheduled basis.
Source: 37 SDR 131, effective January 6, 2011; 41 SDR 108, effective January 6, 2015.
Source: 41 SDR 108, effective January 6, 2015.
20:43:09:14. Clinical guidelines. A dentist who provides any level of sedation must meet the standards of the Guidelines for the Use of Sedation and General Anesthesia by Dentists for thorough patient assessment, pre-operative preparation, recovery and discharge, and management of emergencies.
Reference: "Guidelines for the Use of Sedation and General Anesthesia by Dentists," 2007 Edition, American Dental Association. Copies may be obtained from the American Dental Association at www.ada.org free of charge.
(2) Received intravenous line training.
Source: 37 SDR 131, effective January 6, 2011; 42 SDR 19, effective August 17, 2015.
Law Implemented: SDCL 36-6A-40, 36-6A-41.
20:43:09:16. Anesthesia credentials committee. The anesthesia credentials committee is a peer review committee appointed by the board to assist the board in the administration of this chapter. The committee shall include at least one member of the board, up to five additional dentists that hold a general anesthesia and deep sedation or moderate sedation permit, and up to one additional dentist that does not hold a general anesthesia and deep sedation or moderate sedation permit. The board shall appoint the chair.
(4) Other duties as delegated by the board or board president.
(9) Through a program administered by the South Dakota Department of Corrections.
Source: 38 SDR 172, effective April 25, 2012.
General Authority: SDCL 36-6A-40.1, 36-6A-40.2.
Law Implemented: SDCL 36-6A-40.1, 36-6A-40.2.
(2) Completion of a minimum of 4,000 practice hours. A minimum of 2,000 of those hours must have been completed within three years preceding application.
Source: 38 SDR 172, effective April 25, 2012; 43 SDR 16, effective August 15, 2016.
(6) Verification of completion of a minimum of 2,000 practice hours within three years preceding application.
(5) The collaborative agreement must be maintained by the dentist and the dental hygienist in each location where collaborative supervision is provided and must be made available to the board upon request. The dentist and dental hygienist must review the agreement annually.
20:43:10:05. Reporting requirements. Each dental hygienist who has rendered services under collaborative supervision must complete a summary report and submit the information to the board at the completion of a program or, in the case of an ongoing program, annually.
20:43:10:06. Termination of agreement. If any provision of the collaborative agreement is violated, the registration may be suspended or revoked by the Board.

References: § 1
 § 1
 § 1
 § 1
 § 1
 § 20
 § 1
 § 1
 § 1
 § 1
 § 1
 § 20
 § 1
 § 1
 § 20
 § 1
 § 1
 § 1
 § 1
 § 1
 § 20
 § 20
 § 20
 § 1
 § 20
 § 20
 § 20
 § 20
 § 1
 § 1
 § 1
 § 1
 § 1
 §20
 § 20
 § 20
 § 20
 § 20
 § 20
 § 1
 § 20
 § 20
 § 20
 § 20
 § 20
 § 20
 § 20
 § 20