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Answer the following medical question: | What is the relationship between Noonan syndrome and polycystic renal disease? | Noonan's syndrome is an eponymic designation that has been used during the last 8 years to describe a variable constellation of somatic and visceral congenital anomalies, which includes groups of patients previously referred to as male Turner's, female pseudo-Turner's and Bonnevie-Ullrich syndromes. It is now recognized that both sexes may show the stigmas of this condition and, unlike Turner's syndrome, there is no karyotype abnormality although there is often a familial pattern. The most commonly observed anomalies include webbing of the neck, hypertelorism, a shield-shaped chest and short stature. Congenital heart disease, principally pulmonary stenosis, and sexual infantilism often with cryptorchidism in the male subject are additional associated anomalies in this syndrome. Renal anomalies have been described rarely and usually consist of rotational errors, duplications and hydronephrosis. We report the first case of an infant who displayed many of the stigmas of Noonan's syndrome and also showed early evidence of frank renal failure secondary to renal dysplasia with cystic disease. |
Answer the following medical question: | What is the relationship between Noonan syndrome and polycystic renal disease? | 10% of patients with Noonan syndrome have renal abnormalities but most do not need treatment. |
Answer the following medical question: | What is the relationship between Noonan syndrome and polycystic renal disease? | Genitourinary. Renal abnormalities, generally mild, are present in 11% of individuals with NS. Dilatation of the renal pelvis is most common. Duplex collecting systems, minor rotational anomalies, distal ureteric stenosis, renal hypoplasia, unilateral renal agenesis, unilateral renal ectopia, and bilateral cysts with scarring are reported less commonly. |
Answer the following medical question: | Do 5 mg. Zolmitriptan tabkets contain gluten? | Zolmitriptan tablets are available as 2.5 mg (yellow and functionally-scored) and 5 mg (pink, not scored) film coated tablets for oral administration. The film coated tablets contain anhydrous lactose NF, microcrystalline cellulose NF, sodium starch glycolate NF, magnesium stearate NF, hydroxypropyl methylcellulose USP, titanium dioxide USP, polyethylene glycol 400 NF, yellow iron oxide NF (2.5 mg tablet), red iron oxide NF (5 mg tablet), and polyethylene glycol 8000 NF. Zolmitriptan orally disintegrating tablets are available as 2.5 mg and 5 mg white uncoated tablets. The orally disintegrating tablets contain mannitol USP, microcrystalline cellulose NF, crospovidone NF, aspartame NF [see WARNINGS AND PRECAUTIONS (5.9)], sodium bicarbonate USP, citric acid anhydrous USP, colloidal silicon dioxide NF, magnesium stearate NF and orange flavor SN 027512. |
Answer the following medical question: | Are amphetamine salts of 20 mg dosage gluten free? | Active Ingredients Amphetamine Aspartate Amphetamine Sulfate Dextroamphetamine Saccharate Dextroamphetamine Sulfate Inactive Ingredients FD&C Blue No. 1 FD&C Yellow No. 6 Silicon Dioxide (Colloidal) Microcrystalline Cellulose Sucrose Magnesium Stearate Pregelatinized Corn Starch |
Answer the following medical question: | Are amphetamine salts of 20 mg dosage gluten free? | A single entity amphetamine product combining the neutral sulfate salts of dextroamphetamine and amphetamine, with the dextro isomer of amphetamine saccharate and d, l-amphetamine aspartate. In addition, each tablet contains the following inactive ingredients: colloidal silicon dioxide, compressible sugar, corn starch, magnesium stearate, microcrystalline cellulose and saccharin sodium. The 12.5, 15, 20 and 30 mg also contain FD&C yellow no. 6 aluminum lake. |
Answer the following medical question: | What are the treatments and precautions for VDRL positive (syphilis) patients? | Syphilis If the RPR, VDRL, or TRUST tests are positive, one of the following tests will be needed to confirm the diagnosis: FTA-ABS (fluorescent treponemal antibody test); MHA-TP; TP-EIA; TP-PA. Syphilis can be treated with antibiotics, such as: Doxycycline (type of tetracycline given to people who are allergic to penicillin); Penicillin G benzathine. Length of treatment depends on how severe the syphilis is, and factors such as the person's overall health. Several hours after getting treatment for the early stages of syphilis, people may experience the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction. This process is caused by an immune reaction to the breakdown products of the infection. Follow-up blood tests must be done at 3, 6, 12, and 24 months to ensure that the infection is gone. Avoid sexual contact when the chancre is present. Use condoms until two follow-up tests have shown that the infection has been cured, to reduce the chance of transmitting the infection. All sexual partners of the person with syphilis should also be treated. Syphilis can spread very easily in the primary and secondary stages. |
Answer the following medical question: | How much glucagon is in my GlucaGen kit? | GLUCAGEN glucagon hydrochloride injection, powder, for solution Ingredient Name: GLUCAGON HYDROCHLORIDE (UNII: 1H87NVF4DB) (GLUCAGON - UNII:76LA80IG2G) Basis of Strength: GLUCAGON Strength:1 mg in 1 mL |
Answer the following medical question: | How much glucagon is in my GlucaGen kit? | DOSAGE FORMS AND STRENGTHS GlucaGen is supplied in a vial, alone, or accompanied by Sterile Water for Reconstitution (1 mL) also in a vial (10 pack or diagnostic kit). It is also supplied as GlucaGen HypoKit, a presentation with a disposable prefilled syringe containing 1 mL Sterile Water for Reconstitution. When the glucagon powder is reconstituted with Sterile Water for Reconstitution (if supplied) or with Sterile Water for Injection, USP, it forms a solution of 1 mg/mL (1 unit/mL) glucagon for subcutaneous, intramuscular, or intravenous injection (appearance of the powder may vary, and occasionally the powder may appear compacted). |
Answer the following medical question: | Can the administration of anesthesia, during hip replacement surgery, have any negative cognitive effects, especially on patients demonstrating FXTAS? | Likewise, we don't know whether other developmental processes, or environmental factors, affect the expression of FXTAS. For example, although it hasn't been rigorously studied, investigators at UC Davis are interested in the possibility that surgery under a general anesthetic may affect the progression of FXTAS. |
Answer the following medical question: | Can the administration of anesthesia, during hip replacement surgery, have any negative cognitive effects, especially on patients demonstrating FXTAS? | Typically patients with FXTAS do not tolerate surgery with general anesthesia well and further deterioration in both motor and cognitive abilities is typically seen (Jacquemont et al 2004). Therefore, surgery should be avoided if at all possible. |
Answer the following medical question: | Can a birth control drug called Ocella cause Deep Vein Thrombosis? | Some studies show that women who take oral contraceptives that contain drosperinone (Beyaz, Gianvi, Loryna, Ocella, Safyral, Syeda, Yasmin, Yaz, and Zarah) may be more likely to develop deep vein thrombosis (a serious or life-threatening condition in which blood clots that form in the veins, usually in the legs and may move through the body to the lungs) than women who take oral contraceptives that do not contain drosperinone. However, other studies do not show this increased risk. Before you begin taking oral contraceptives, talk to your doctor about the risk that you will develop blood clots and about which oral contraceptive or other method of birth control may be the best choice for you.Oral contraceptives may cause other side effects. Call your doctor if you have any unusual problems while taking this medication. |
Answer the following medical question: | What, besides cipro, penicillin, and drugs containing dairy products, can my doctor prescribe for my bad UTI? | Antibiotic Regimen. Oral antibiotic treatment cures nearly all uncomplicated urinary tract infections, although the rate of recurrence remains high. The following antibiotics are commonly used for uncomplicated UTIs: * The standard regimen is a 3-day course of trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, commonly called TMP-SMX (Bactrim, Septra, generic). TMP-SMX combines an antibiotic with a sulfa drug. A single dose of TMP-SMX is sometimes prescribed in mild cases, but cure rates are generally lower than with 3-day regimens. Allergies to sulfa are common and may be serious. * Nitrofurantoin (Furadantin, Macrobid, Macrodantin, generic) is another first-line option. It is usually taken daily for 5 days. * Fosfomycin (Monurol) is not as effective as other antibiotics but may be used during pregnancy. Resistance rates to this drug are very low. * Fluoroquinolone antibiotics, also called quinolones, are only recommended for UTIs when other antibiotics cannot be used. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro, generic) is the quinolone antibiotic most commonly prescribed. Quinolones are usually given over a 3-day period. Pregnant women should not take these drugs. * Other antibiotics may also be used, including amoxicillin-clavulanate cefdinir, cefaclor, and cefpodoxime-proxetil. These drugs may be prescribed when other antibiotics are not appropriate. They are usually given in 3 - 7 day regimens. Antibiotic Regimen. Oral antibiotic treatment cures nearly all uncomplicated urinary tract infections, although the rate of recurrence remains high. The following antibiotics are commonly used for uncomplicated UTIs: The standard regimen is a 3-day course of trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, commonly called TMP-SMX (Bactrim, Septra, generic). TMP-SMX combines an antibiotic with a sulfa drug. A single dose of TMP-SMX is sometimes prescribed in mild cases, but cure rates are generally lower than with 3-day regimens. Allergies to sulfa are common and may be serious. Nitrofurantoin (Furadantin, Macrobid, Macrodantin, generic) is another first-line option. It is usually taken daily for 5 days. Fosfomycin (Monurol) is not as effective as other antibiotics but may be used during pregnancy. Resistance rates to this drug are very low. Fluoroquinolone antibiotics, also called quinolones, are only recommended for UTIs when other antibiotics cannot be used. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro, generic) is the quinolone antibiotic most commonly prescribed. Quinolones are usually given over a 3-day period. Pregnant women should not take these drugs. Other antibiotics may also be used, including amoxicillin-clavulanate cefdinir, cefaclor, and cefpodoxime-proxetil. These drugs may be prescribed when other antibiotics are not appropriate. They are usually given in 3 - 7 day regimens. |
Answer the following medical question: | Can a streptococcus infection cause other diseases such as wegeners? | Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA), previously known as Wegener's granulomatosis, is a rare disease. The cause of GPA is unknown. It can affect people at any age. Men and women are equally affected. It is more common in whites. Symptoms may include joint pain, weakness, tiredness, and cold symptoms such as a runny nose that doesn't get better. Doctors use blood tests, chest X-rays, and biopsies to diagnose GPA and rule out other causes of the symptoms. |
Answer the following medical question: | Can a streptococcus infection cause other diseases such as wegeners? | Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener's) - GPA - is serious but treatable. * The cause of GPA is unknown. * GPA often affects the sinuses, lungs, and kidneys. It can lead to kidney failure if not treated.The cause of GPA is unknown. GPA often affects the sinuses, lungs, and kidneys. It can lead to kidney failure if not treated. |
Answer the following medical question: | Can a streptococcus infection cause other diseases such as wegeners? | Wegener's granulomatosis triggered by infection? Wegener's granulomatosis is a systemic disease of unknown origin, although recent studies suggest that auto-immune mechanisms and infection play a role in the pathogenesis of this disease. During follow-up, nasal carriage of Staphyloccocus Aureus could be documented. An overview of Wegener's granulomatosis will be provided with emphasis on the potential role of acute infections as a trigger for Wegener's granulomatosis and the head and neck manifestations. |
Answer the following medical question: | Can a streptococcus infection cause other diseases such as wegeners? | Types of Group A Streptococcal Infections Cellulitis and Erysipelas Cellulitis is inflammation of the skin and deep underlying tissues. Erysipelas is an inflammatory disease of the upper layers of the skin. Group A strep (streptococcal) bacteria are the most common cause of cellulitis and erysipelas. To learn more visit the Medline Plus cellulitis site (link is external) or visit the MedlinePlus erysipelas site (link is external). Impetigo Impetigo is an infection of the top layers of the skin and is most common among children ages 2 to 6 years. It usually starts when bacteria get into a cut, scratch, or insect bite. To learn more visit the MedlinePlus impetigo site (link is external). Scarlet Fever Scarlet fever - or scarlatina - is a bacterial infection caused by group A Streptococcus or "group A strep." This illness affects a small percentage of people who have strep throat or, less commonly, streptococcal skin infections. To learn more visit the MedlinePlus scarlet fever site (link is external). Severe Strep Infections Some types of group A strep bacteria cause severe infections, such as Bacteremia (bloodstream infections) - To learn more visit visit the MedlinePlus sepsis site (link is external). Toxic shock syndrome (multi-organ infection) - To learn more visit the MedlinePlus toxic shock syndrome site (link is external). Necrotizing fasciitis (flesh-eating disease) - To learn more visit the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention necrotizing fasciitis site (link is external). Strep Throat Many things can cause that unpleasant, scratchy, and sometimes painful condition known as a sore throat. Viruses, bacteria, allergens, environmental irritants (such as cigarette smoke), chronic postnasal drip, and fungi can all cause a sore throat. While many sore throats will get better without treatment, some throat infections - including strep throat - may need antibiotic treatment. To learn more visit the MedlinePlus strep throat site (link is external). |
Answer the following medical question: | Can a streptococcus infection cause other diseases such as wegeners? | The sources of disease caused by group B strep bacteria are unknown. Group B strep bacteria are common in the gastrointestinal tract (the part of your body that digests food, including the stomach and intestines) of men and women and may be a source of some infection. Types of Infection and Symptoms Symptoms depend on the part of the body that is infected. Below are common diseases caused by group B strep bacteria in adults and their symptoms. Bacteremia and sepsis (blood infections) symptoms include: Fever Chills Low alertness Pneumonia (lung infection) symptoms include: Fever and chills Cough Rapid breathing or difficulty breathing Chest pain Skin and soft-tissue infections often appear as a bump or infected area on the skin that may be: Red Swollen or painful Warm to the touch Full of pus or other drainage These skin infections may also be accompanied by a fever. Bone and joint infections often appear as pain in the infected area and might also include: Fever Chills Swelling Stiffness or inability to use affected limb or joint Rarely in adults, group B strep bacteria can cause meningitis (infection of the fluid and lining surrounding the brain and spinal cord). |
Answer the following medical question: | How can I narrow my search to find information regarding pain(joint) medication suitable to use with a person who has diabetes type 2. | Diabetes and Sick Days: What Meds are OK Pain and fever reducers Examples: Tylenol, Aspirin Effect on diabetes: No effect. Use cautiously if you have renal disease. Anti-inflammatory Examples: Ibuprofen, such as Advil, Motrin, Nuprin Effect on diabetes: No effect. Also should be used carefully if you have renal disease. |
Answer the following medical question: | Could or does second hand smoke contribute or is a cause for getting Early AMD? | Smoking increases a person's chances of developing AMD by two to five fold. Because the retina has a high rate of oxygen consumption, anything that affects oxygen delivery to the retina may affect vision. Smoking causes oxidative damage, which may contribute to the development and progression of this disease. Learn more about why smoking damages the retina, and explore a number of steps you can take to protect your vision. |
Answer the following medical question: | Could or does second hand smoke contribute or is a cause for getting Early AMD? | AIM: To undertake a systematic review of the literature on the effect of environmental tobacco smoke (ETS) and eye disease. RESULTS: Seven studies evaluated the possible relationship between ETS and an eye disease. These studies referred to refractive errors in children (n = 2), cataract (n = 1), age-related macular degeneration (n = 3) and Grave ophthalmopathy (n = 1). The data available were insufficient to establish conclusive relationships between ETS and these eye diseases. CONCLUSION: Very scarce data exist in the literature on the effect of ETS on diseases of the eye. It seems appropriate that ETS should be included in future studies addressing the effect of smoking on eye disease. |
Answer the following medical question: | Does fertilization of an egg have to take place before there can be a molar pregnancy? If so, when does it take place? | Hydatidiform mole (HM) is a rare mass or growth that forms inside the womb (uterus) at the beginning of a pregnancy. It is a type of gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD). HM, or molar pregnancy, results from abnormal fertilization of the oocyte (egg). It results in an abnormal fetus. The placenta grows normally with little or no growth of the fetal tissue. The placental tissue forms a mass in the uterus. On ultrasound this mass often has a grape-like appearance, as it contains many small cysts. |
Answer the following medical question: | Does fertilization of an egg have to take place before there can be a molar pregnancy? If so, when does it take place? | A molar pregnancy is caused by an abnormally fertilized egg. Human cells normally contain 23 pairs of chromosomes. One chromosome in each pair comes from the father, the other from the mother. In a complete molar pregnancy, all of the fertilized egg's chromosomes come from the father. Shortly after fertilization, the chromosomes from the mother's egg are lost or inactivated and the father's chromosomes are duplicated. The egg may have had an inactive nucleus or no nucleus. In a partial or incomplete molar pregnancy, the mother's chromosomes remain but the father provides two sets of chromosomes. As a result, the embryo has 69 chromosomes instead of 46. This can happen when the father's chromosomes are duplicated or if two sperm fertilize a single egg. |
Answer the following medical question: | Does fertilization of an egg have to take place before there can be a molar pregnancy? If so, when does it take place? | An ultrasound of a complete molar pregnancy - which can be detected as early as eight or nine weeks of pregnancy - may show: No embryo or fetus No amniotic fluid A thick cystic placenta nearly filling the uterus Ovarian cysts An ultrasound of a partial molar pregnancy may show: A growth-restricted fetus Low amniotic fluid A thick cystic placenta |
Answer the following medical question: | How do symptoms of arthritis differ from onset of HNPP, and what are the treatments for these respective disorders? | Hereditary neuropathy with liability to pressure palsies is characterized by recurrent episodes of numbness, tingling, and loss of muscle function (palsy) in the region associated with the affected nerve, usually an arm, hand, leg, or foot. An episode can last from several minutes to several months, but recovery is usually complete. Repeated incidents, however, can cause permanent muscle weakness or loss of sensation. This disorder is also associated with pain in the limbs, especially the hands. |
Answer the following medical question: | How do symptoms of arthritis differ from onset of HNPP, and what are the treatments for these respective disorders? | The pattern and location of symptoms can vary depending on the type of arthritis. Generally, people with arthritis feel pain and stiffness in and around one or more joints. The onset of arthritis symptoms can develop gradually or suddenly. Arthritis is most often a chronic disease, so symptoms may come and go, or persist over time. |
Answer the following medical question: | How do symptoms of arthritis differ from onset of HNPP, and what are the treatments for these respective disorders? | Pressure palsies are most commonly the result of environmentally acquired physical compression of peripheral nerves. The most common are carpal tunnel syndrome with compression of the median nerve at the wrist, peroneal pressure palsy with compression of the superficial peroneal nerve at the fibular head, and ulnar nerve compression at the elbow. The signs and symptoms of compression neuropathy in hereditary neuropathy with liability to pressure palsies (HNPP) are the same as those of the acquired type. Thus, HNPP is part of the broad differential diagnosis of both compression neuropathies and general peripheral neuropathies, including the hereditary neuropathies and Charcot-Marie-Tooth (CMT) syndrome (see CMT Overview). |
Answer the following medical question: | What are the symptoms associated with Giant Cell Vasculitis? What is the treatment? | Giant cell arteritis can be difficult to diagnose because its early symptoms resemble those of many common conditions. For this reason, your doctor will try to rule out other possible causes of your problem. To help diagnose giant cell arteritis, you may have some or all of the following tests and procedures: Physical exam. In addition to asking about your symptoms and medical history, your doctor is likely to perform a thorough physical exam, paying particular attention to your temporal arteries. Often, one or both of these arteries are tender with a reduced pulse and a hard, cord-like feel and appearance. Blood tests. If your doctor thinks you might have giant cell arteritis, you're likely to have a blood test that checks your erythrocyte sedimentation rate - commonly referred to as the sed rate. This test measures how quickly red blood cells fall to the bottom of a tube of blood. Red cells that drop rapidly may indicate inflammation in your body. You may also have a test that measures C-reactive protein (CRP), a substance your liver produces when inflammation is present. The same tests may be used to follow your progress during treatment. Biopsy. The best way to confirm a diagnosis of giant cell arteritis is by taking a small sample (biopsy) of the temporal artery. The procedure is performed on an outpatient basis during local anesthesia, usually with little discomfort or scarring. The sample is examined under a microscope in a laboratory. If you have giant cell arteritis, the artery will often show inflammation that includes abnormally large cells, called giant cells, which give the disease its name. It's possible to have giant cell arteritis and still have a negative biopsy result. If the results aren't clear, your doctor may advise another temporal artery biopsy on the other side of your head. Imaging tests may be used for diagnosing giant cell arteritis and for monitoring your response to treatment. Possible tests include: Magnetic resonance angiography (MRA). This test combines the use of magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) with the use of a contrast material that produces detailed images of your blood vessels. Let your doctor know ahead of time if you're uncomfortable being confined in a small space because the test is conducted in a tube-shaped machine. Doppler ultrasound. This test uses sound waves to produce images of blood flowing through your blood vessels. Positron emission tomography (PET). Using an intravenous tracer solution that contains a tiny amount of radioactive material, a PET scan can produce detailed images of your blood vessels and highlight areas of inflammation. |
Answer the following medical question: | What are the symptoms associated with Giant Cell Vasculitis? What is the treatment? | GCA treatment usually involves high doses of corticosteroids. Typically, the dose is 40-60 milligrams (mg) per day of prednisone (Deltasone, Orasone, etc.). Headaches and other symptoms quickly decrease with treatment, and the sedimentation rate declines to a normal range. The high dose of corticosteroids usually continues for a month, and then the dose is slowly decreased. The speed at which your doctor lowers the dose may change if you have recurring symptoms of GCA or large increases in the sedimentation rate. In most cases, though, the prednisone dose can be reduced to about 5 - 10 mg per day over a few months. Patients are usually tapered off this medicine by one to two years. GCA rarely returns after treatment. Actemra (tocilizumab) was approved May 2017 by the FDA to treat adults with giant cell arteritis. |
Answer the following medical question: | How do I find out if my fibromyalgia is genetic? | Is fibromyalgia hereditary? Answers from Kevin C. Fleming, M.D. Fibromyalgia isn't passed directly from parents to children, but the disorder does appear to cluster within families. The odds of developing fibromyalgia are several times higher in the immediate families of people with fibromyalgia than in families in which no one has fibromyalgia. In fact, studies of DNA from family members of people with fibromyalgia and other chronic pain syndromes have turned up a number of genes that could help explain why these disorders seem to run in families. Each of these genes plays a role in your nervous system's response to pain. Some of the same genes are also associated with depression and anxiety, which may be the reason why certain antidepressant medications help reduce fibromyalgia symptoms. |
Answer the following medical question: | How do I find out if my fibromyalgia is genetic? | Although the etiology of FM remains unknown, it is thought to involve some combination of genetic susceptibility and environmental exposure that triggers further alterations in gene expression. Because FM shows marked familial aggregation, most previous research has focused on genetic predisposition to FM and has revealed associations between genetic factors and the development of FM, including specific gene polymorphisms involved in the serotonergic, dopaminergic, and catecholaminergic pathways. The aim of this review was to discuss the current evidence regarding genetic factors that may play a role in the development and symptom severity of FM. |
Answer the following medical question: | How do I find out if my fibromyalgia is genetic? | That's why it can take a long time to go from fibromyalgia symptoms to a fibromyalgia diagnosis. Fibromyalgia can't be easily confirmed or ruled out through a simple laboratory test. Your doctor can't detect it in your blood or see it on an X-ray. Instead, fibromyalgia appears to be linked to changes in how the brain and spinal cord process pain signals. Because there is no test for fibromyalgia, your doctor must rely solely on your group of symptoms to make a diagnosis. Because a genetic factor appears to be involved in fibromyalgia, your doctor may also want to know if any other members of your immediate family have experienced similar symptoms. |
Answer the following medical question: | What is burning mouth syndrome and how do you find a doctor who can treat it? | BMS is hard to diagnose. One reason is that people with BMS often don't have a mouth problem that the doctor or dentist can see during an exam. Your dentist or doctor may refer you to a specialist. Specialists who diagnose BMS include dentists who specialize in oral medicine or oral surgery. Other specialists include doctors who are ear, nose, and throat specialists; gastroenterologists; or dermatologists. |
Answer the following medical question: | Can I stop using the patch (menopausal hormone therapy) after only 4.5 months? | Climara (Estradiol Transdermal System) Patients should be started at the lowest dose. Six (6.5, 9.375, 12.5, 15, 18.75 and 25 cm2 ) Climara systems are available. For the treatment of vasomotor symptoms, treatment should be initiated with the 6.5 cm2 (0.025 mg/day) Climara system applied to the skin once weekly. The dose should be adjusted as necessary to control symptoms. Clinical responses (relief of symptoms) at the lowest effective dose should be the guide for establishing administration of the Climara system, especially in women with an intact uterus. Attempts to taper or discontinue the medication should be made at 3- to 6-month intervals. |
Answer the following medical question: | Can I stop using the patch (menopausal hormone therapy) after only 4.5 months? | How Do I Stop Therapy? If you are on menopausal hormone therapy, talk with your health care provider about whether or not to stop it.Also ask about the best way to discontinue the treatment.You can stop abruptly or by gradually reducing the dose over several months.With either method of stopping the medication, you may have menopause-like symptoms. |
Answer the following medical question: | Is it harmful to use peroxide drops in the ear followed by a warm water flush to clean out ear wax? | To clean the ears, wash the external ear with a cloth, but do not insert anything into the ear canal. Most cases of ear wax blockage respond to home treatments used to soften wax. Patients can try placing a few drops of mineral oil, baby oil, glycerin, or commercial drops in the ear. Detergent drops such as hydrogen peroxide or carbamide peroxide (available in most pharmacies) may also aid in the removal of wax. Irrigation or ear syringing is commonly used for cleaning and can be performed by a physician or at home using a commercially available irrigation kit. Common solutions used for syringing include water and saline, which should be warmed to body temperature to prevent dizziness. Ear syringing is most effective when water, saline, or wax dissolving drops are put in the ear canal 15 to 30 minutes before treatment. |
Answer the following medical question: | What is the stability, effectiveness and toxicity of sevoflurane once the product container has been opened? | We prepared a 20% sevoflurane lipid emulsion using caprylic triglyceride (i.e., medium-chain triglyceride). In rats, this emulsion was an effective anesthetic and was not associated with adverse events. The emulsion was stable after consecutive evaluation for 365 days and for 180 minutes after the vial was opened. |
Answer the following medical question: | What is the stability, effectiveness and toxicity of sevoflurane once the product container has been opened? | Sevoflurane is stable when stored under normal room lighting conditions. No discernible degradation of sevoflurane occurs in the presence of strong acids or heat. Sevoflurane is not corrosive to stainless steel, brass, aluminum nickel-plated brass, chrome-plated brass or copper beryllium alloy. |
Answer the following medical question: | The questioner is seeking information on a condition that affects children and is called Oppositional Defiant Disorder. | Oppositional defiant disorder is a pattern of disobedient, hostile, and defiant behavior toward authority figures. This disorder is more common in boys than in girls. Some studies have shown that it affects 20% of school-age children. However, most experts believe this figure is high due to changing definitions of normal childhood behavior. It may also possibly have racial, cultural, and gender biases. This behavior typically starts by age 8. However, it may start as early as the preschool years. This disorder is thought to be caused by a combination of biological, psychological, and social factors. Symptoms include: Actively does not follow adults' requests; Angry and resentful of others; Argues with adults; Blames others for own mistakes; Has few or no friends or has lost friends; Is in constant trouble in school; Loses temper; Is spiteful or seeks revenge; Is touchy or easily annoyed. To fit this diagnosis, the pattern must last for at least 6 months and must be more than normal childhood misbehavior. The pattern of behaviors must be different from those of other children around the same age and developmental level. The behavior must lead to significant problems in school or social activities. Children with symptoms of this disorder should be evaluated by a psychiatrist or psychologist. The best treatment for the child is to talk with a mental health professional in individual and possibly family therapy. The parents should also learn how to manage the child's behavior. Medicines may also be helpful, especially if the behaviors occur as part of another condition (such as depression, childhood psychosis, or ADHD). Some children respond well to treatment, while others do not. |
Answer the following medical question: | I want information on Beckwith-Wieddeman Syndrome. | Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome is a condition that affects many parts of the body. It is classified as an overgrowth syndrome, which means that affected infants are considerably larger than normal (macrosomia) and tend to be taller than their peers during childhood. Growth begins to slow by about age 8, and adults with this condition are not unusually tall. In some children with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome, specific parts of the body on one side or the other may grow abnormally large, leading to an asymmetric or uneven appearance. This unusual growth pattern, which is known as hemihyperplasia, usually becomes less apparent over time. The signs and symptoms of Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome vary among affected individuals. Some children with this condition are born with an opening in the wall of the abdomen (an omphalocele) that allows the abdominal organs to protrude through the belly-button. Other abdominal wall defects, such as a soft out-pouching around the belly-button (an umbilical hernia), are also common. Some infants with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome have an abnormally large tongue (macroglossia), which may interfere with breathing, swallowing, and speaking. Other major features of this condition include abnormally large abdominal organs (visceromegaly), creases or pits in the skin near the ears, low blood sugar (hypoglycemia) in infancy, and kidney abnormalities. Children with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome are at an increased risk of developing several types of cancerous and noncancerous tumors, particularly a form of kidney cancer called Wilms tumorand a form of liver cancer called hepatoblastoma. Tumors develop in about 10 percent of people with this condition and almost always appear in childhood. Most children and adults with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome do not have serious medical problems associated with the condition. Their life expectancy is usually normal. |
Answer the following medical question: | What are Citrobacter infections and what drugs are used in its treatment? | There are no comparative studies of antibiotic therapy for Citrobacter infections. Thus, treatment of Citrobacter infections follows the principles for treatment of other Enterobacteriaceae infections. Based on the in vitro antimicrobial susceptibilities described above, aminoglycosides, fluoroquinolones, carbapenems, and the fourth-generation cephems, such as cefepime and cefpirome, would appear to be preferred therapeutic agents for C. freundii infections. |
Answer the following medical question: | What are Citrobacter infections and what drugs are used in its treatment? | Citrobacter species are a common cause of nosocomial infections associated with patients that are undergoing prolonged hospital treatments. C. freundii has recently been reported to express resistance to broad-spectrum antibiotincs including piperacillin, piperacillintazobactam, vancomycin and cephalosporins. Isolation of ceftriaxone-resistant Citrobacter freundii (CRCF) has been associated with the overprescribed broad spectrum antibiotics. |
Answer the following medical question: | What are Citrobacter infections and what drugs are used in its treatment? | The resistance of C. freundii to antibiotics in 1999 (n = 10), compared with the period from 1996 through 1998 (n = 26), increased 66% for ciprofloxacin, 36% for ticarcillin/clavulanate, 70% for piperacillin/tazobactam, and 62.8% for piperacillin, but remained uniformly susceptible to imipenem/cilastatin and the new fluoroquinolone (levofloxacin). This increase in resistance was attributable to the use of third-generation cephalosporin instead of first-generation cephalosporins. |
Answer the following medical question: | I have a toddler, 22 months, who may have back problems. What kind of doctor should I see. | The history and physical exam will help determine the severity and acuity of the patient's back pain. If there are no red flag issues, send the patient to be evaluated by a physical therapist who provides care for children and follow up with the patient in clinic. If the history and physical uncover red flag issues, request appropriate radiographs and lab tests. See Page 2 for a guide to imaging studies. If screening radiographs point to a serious orthopedic condition, request an MRI or refer the patient to an orthopedic specialist who will get the necessary MRI. |
Answer the following medical question: | Is bloody drainage normal with otitis media after starting antibiotics? | With a severe ear infection, pressure may build up and cause the eardrum to rupture. Pus and blood may drain out. This usually relieves pain and pressure, and in most cases the eardrum heals on its own. |
Answer the following medical question: | Is bloody drainage normal with otitis media after starting antibiotics? | Middle ear infections may cause pain, hearing loss, and spontaneous rupture of the eardrum, resulting in a perforation. In this case,there may be infected or bloody drainage from the ear. Infections can cause a hole in the eardrum as a side effect of otitis media. |
Answer the following medical question: | Show the comparable effects of the beta-blocker, Carvedilol, and the blood pressure regulatory drug, Hydralazine, and define if there is any contraindication for these drugs being combined. | In addition, carvedilol produced a slight but significant inhibition of the pressor responses to serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine), which was nearly identical in magnitude to that seen with hydralazine. |
Answer the following medical question: | Show the comparable effects of the beta-blocker, Carvedilol, and the blood pressure regulatory drug, Hydralazine, and define if there is any contraindication for these drugs being combined. | Interaction between Coreg and Hydralazine: There is no known interaction between Coreg and Hydralazine in our records. However, an interaction may still exist. Always consult your doctor before taking these medications together. Do not stop taking the medications without a physician's advice. |
Answer the following medical question: | Is there an adverse drug interaction reported between Phentermine hydrochloride and Dicyclomine hydrochloride? | There is no drug interactions reported by people who take Phentermine hydrochloride and Dicyclomine hydrochloride together yet. This review analyzes the effectiveness and drug interactions between Phentermine hydrochloride and Dicyclomine hydrochloride. It is created by eHealthMe based on reports from FDA, and is updated regularly. |
Answer the following medical question: | Is dementia inherited? Can one develop dementia without inheriting it? | Scientists know genes are involved in Alzheimer's. Two categories of genes influence whether a person develops a disease: risk genes and deterministic genes. Alzheimer's genes have been found in both categories. 1. Risk genes increase the likelihood of developing a disease, but do not guarantee it will happen. Researchers have found several genes that increase the risk of Alzheimer's. apolipoprotein E-e4, or APOE-e4, is the first risk gene identified and remains the one with strongest impact. 2. Deterministic genes directly cause a disease, guaranteeing that anyone who inherits one will develop the disorder. Scientists have discovered variations that directly cause Alzheimer's disease in the genes coding three proteins: amyloid precursor protein (APP), presenilin-1 (PS-1) and presenilin-2 (PS-2). |
Answer the following medical question: | Is dementia inherited? Can one develop dementia without inheriting it? | The majority of dementia is not inherited, but this depends very much on the particular cause of dementia. Some (rare) causes of dementia are very clearly 'inherited', for example, Huntington's disease. This is an 'autosomal dominant' disease which means that only one faulty copy of the gene is needed in order to inherit the disease. If you have inherited the gene you will get the disease if you live long enough. It does not skip a generation. Some other dementias have both inherited and non-inherited forms. In the case of fronto-temporal dementias, 30 to 50 per cent of cases are inherited. Most cases of Alzheimer's disease are not inherited. |
Answer the following medical question: | What is sleep apnea and how effective is surgery in treating it? | Surgery is an effective and safe treatment option for many patients with snoring and sleep apnea, particularly those who are unable to use or tolerate CPAP. Proper patient and procedure selection is critical to successful surgical management of obstructive sleep apnea. Talk to your Ear, Nose and Throat doctor for a complete evaluation and to learn what treatment may be best for you. |
Answer the following medical question: | What is sleep apnea and how effective is surgery in treating it? | Some people who have sleep apnea might benefit from surgery. The type of surgery and how well it works depend on the cause of the sleep apnea. Surgery is done to widen breathing passages. It usually involves shrinking, stiffening, or removing excess tissue in the mouth and throat or resetting the lower jaw. Surgery to shrink or stiffen excess tissue is done in a doctor's office or a hospital. Shrinking tissue may involve small shots or other treatments to the tissue. You may need a series of treatments to shrink the excess tissue. To stiffen excess tissue, the doctor makes a small cut in the tissue and inserts a piece of stiff plastic. Surgery to remove excess tissue is done in a hospital. You're given medicine to help you sleep during the surgery. After surgery, you may have throat pain that lasts for 1 to 2 weeks. |
Answer the following medical question: | I take Loperamide for chronic diahrrea, stopping periodically to have a movement, which is loose. Is there a way for a happy medium? | IMODIUM - loperamide hydrochloride capsule Chronic Diarrhea Adults: The recommended initial dose is 4 mg (two capsules) followed by 2 mg (one capsule) after each unformed stool until diarrhea is controlled, after which the dosage of IMODIUM should be reduced to meet individual requirements. When the optimal daily dosage has been established, this amount may then be administered as a single dose or in divided doses. The average daily maintenance dosage in clinical trials was 4 to 8 mg (two to four capsules). A dosage of 16 mg (eight capsules) was rarely exceeded. If clinical improvement is not observed after treatment with 16 mg per day for at least 10 days, symptoms are unlikely to be controlled by further administration. IMODIUM administration may be continued if diarrhea cannot be adequately controlled with diet or specific treatment. |
Answer the following medical question: | I take Loperamide for chronic diahrrea, stopping periodically to have a movement, which is loose. Is there a way for a happy medium? | A focused workup of chronic diarrhea may yield a specific diagnosis, including diarrhea-predominant IBS (dIBS), functional diarrhea, diabetic diarrhea, bile acid-induced diarrhea, and microscopic colitis. Ideally, therapeutic decisions are specifically tailored to target the underlying pathophysiology, including, for example, gluten restriction for celiac disease, rotating antibiotics for small bowel bacterial overgrowth, budesonide therapy for collagenous colitis, and loperamide for treatment of functional diarrhea. It is also important to assess the role of diet and medications in chronic diarrhea. However, if no specific causes are identified following workup, empiric therapy with simple opiate antidiarrheals such as loperamide may be effective. If this proves unsuccessful, the use of more potent agents, including codeine and opium, may be considered. |
Answer the following medical question: | Is uveitis an autoimmune disease? | Uveitis is swelling and irritation of the uvea. The uvea is the middle layer of the eye. The uvea provides most of the blood supply to the retina. Uveitis can be caused by autoimmune disorders. These diseases occur when the body's immune system attacks and destroys healthy body tissue by mistake. Examples are: Ankylosing spondylitis; Psoriasis; Reactive arthritis; Rheumatoid arthritis; Sarcoidosis. Ulcerative colitis Uveitis can also be caused by infections such as: AIDS; Cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis; Herpes zoster infection; Histoplasmosis; Kawasaki disease; Syphilis; Toxoplasmosis; Tuberculosis. Exposure to toxins or injury can also cause uveitis. In many cases, the cause is unknown. |
Answer the following medical question: | How much urine does an average human bladder hold, in fluid oz., cups or milliliters (ml)? | Normal functional bladder capacity in adults ranges from approximately 300 to 400 ml (58,59). |
Answer the following medical question: | How much urine does an average human bladder hold, in fluid oz., cups or milliliters (ml)? | A healthy bladder can hold one and a half to two cups (300-400mls) of urine during the day and about four cups (800mls) at night. It is normal to pass urine five or six times a day if you drink between 6-8 glasses of fluid. It is usual to empty your bladder when you get out of bed in the morning, three times during the day, and before you go to bed at night. As we age this pattern may change, as older people tend to make more urine at night. |
Answer the following medical question: | How does one taper off the drug Amlodipine and start Atenolol to avoid adverse side effects? | Abrupt cessation may precipitate angina, MI, arrhythmias, or rebound HTN; discontinue by tapering over 1-2 weeks. Do not abruptly discontinue without physician's advice. |
Answer the following medical question: | How does one taper off the drug Amlodipine and start Atenolol to avoid adverse side effects? | If you have been using this medicine regularly for several weeks, do not suddenly stop using it. Stopping suddenly may cause your chest pain or high blood pressure to come back or get worse. Check with your doctor for the best way to reduce gradually the amount you are taking before stopping completely. |
Answer the following medical question: | At what age should one receive shingles vaccine? | A single dose of shingles vaccine is recommended for adults 60 years of age and older. |
Answer the following medical question: | dear sir i had car accident 2 months a go . other person blood splash one me and i saw a lot of blood on my hand and some on face . not sure about eye . i didn't wash it immediatly and until 15 minute later then i washed it . am i risk hiv ? thank you . | You can get or transmit HIV only through specific activities. Most commonly, people get or transmit HIV through sexual behaviors and needle or syringe use. Only certain body fluids-blood, semen (cum), pre-seminal fluid (pre-cum), rectal fluids, vaginal fluids, and breast milk-from a person who has HIV can transmit HIV. These fluids must come in contact with a mucous membrane or damaged tissue or be directly injected into the bloodstream (from a needle or syringe) for transmission to occur. Mucous membranes are found inside the rectum, vagina, penis, and mouth. In extremely rare cases, HIV has been transmitted by Contact between broken skin, wounds, or mucous membranes and HIV-infected blood or blood-contaminated body fluids. |
Answer the following medical question: | dear sir i had car accident 2 months a go . other person blood splash one me and i saw a lot of blood on my hand and some on face . not sure about eye . i didn't wash it immediatly and until 15 minute later then i washed it . am i risk hiv ? thank you . | Non-sexual Transmission HIV can be transmitted by contact between infectious fluids and bleeding cuts or open sores in the skin. However, healthy intact skin does not allow HIV to enter the body and provides an excellent barrier against the virus. Non-sexual transmission is rare. The rare circumstances where non-sexual transmission has occurred typically involve medical settings or accident scenes where there is a very large volume of blood exposure or a needle stick. |
Answer the following medical question: | How do I safely dispose of Hydrogen Peroxide? | Hydrogen peroxide solutions can be disposed of with no special treatment. You can safely pour them down the drain of a sink or into a toilet. |
Answer the following medical question: | What are the causes of congenital diaphragmatic hernia? Are there long-term pulmonary sequelae? Can marrying your cousin cause this? | Congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH) can occur as an isolated finding, as part of a genetic syndrome or chromosome abnormality, or with additional birth defects of unknown cause.[5] Some cases have been linked to in utero exposures.[6] In the majority of cases, the cause is not known.[5] |
Answer the following medical question: | What are the causes of congenital diaphragmatic hernia? Are there long-term pulmonary sequelae? Can marrying your cousin cause this? | Isolated congenital diaphragmatic hernia is rarely inherited. In almost all cases, there is only one affected individual in a family. When congenital diaphragmatic hernia occurs as a feature of a genetic syndrome or chromosomal abnormality, it may cluster in families according to the inheritance pattern for that condition. |
Answer the following medical question: | What are the causes of congenital diaphragmatic hernia? Are there long-term pulmonary sequelae? Can marrying your cousin cause this? | The contents of your child's abdomen, including the stomach, intestines, liver and spleen may go through the hole and into his chest. This prevents the normal development of the lung on that side, and may also affect the growth of the other lung. And when your child's lungs don't fully develop, he will have trouble breathing after he is born. Complications of a CDH may include: Chronic lung disease: This serious condition can require your child to have oxygen or medications after being discharged from the hospital. |
Answer the following medical question: | Is the shingles virus contagious in the workplace, especially where food is being prepared? | Shingles cannot be passed from one person to another. However, the virus that causes shingles, the varicella zoster virus, can be spread from a person with active shingles to another person who has never had chickenpox. In such cases, the person exposed to the virus might develop chickenpox, but they would not develop shingles. The virus is spread through direct contact with fluid from the rash blisters caused by shingles. A person with active shingles can spread the virus when the rash is in the blister-phase. A person is not infectious before the blisters appear. Once the rash has developed crusts, the person is no longer contagious. Shingles is less contagious than chickenpox and the risk of a person with shingles spreading the virus is low if the rash is covered. |
Answer the following medical question: | Is the shingles virus contagious in the workplace, especially where food is being prepared? | A person can not get shingles from a person that has it. However, the virus that causes chickenpox and shingles can be spread from a person with active shingles to a person who has never had chickenpox or been vaccinated through direct contact with the rash. The person exposed would develop chickenpox, not shingles. The virus is not spread through sneezing, coughing or casual contact. A person with shingles can spread the disease when the rash is in the blister-phase. Once the rash has developed crusts, the person is no longer contagious. A person is not infectious before blisters appear or if pain persists after the rash is gone (post-herpetic neuralgia). The risk of spreading shingles is low if the rash is covered. People with shingles should keep the rash covered, not touch or scratch the rash, and wash their hands often to prevent the spread of shingles. Once the rash has developed crusts, the person is no longer contagious. |
Answer the following medical question: | What is the reason that there is so little research being done to help to investigate causes and to find a cure for Antiphosoholipid Syndrome? | Antiphospholipid syndrome can be caused by an underlying condition, such as an autoimmune disorder, infection or certain medications, or you can develop the syndrome without an underlying cause. |
Answer the following medical question: | What is the reason that there is so little research being done to help to investigate causes and to find a cure for Antiphosoholipid Syndrome? | Doctors generally use medications that reduce your blood's tendency to clot to help prevent complications of antiphospholipid syndrome. If you have thrombosis, standard initial treatment involves a combination of blood-thinning (anticoagulant) medications. |
Answer the following medical question: | Are confusion and facial itch possible side effects of methadone? | The major hazards of methadone are respiratory depression and, to a lesser degree, systemic hypotension. Respiratory arrest, shock, cardiac arrest, and death have occurred. The most frequently observed adverse reactions include lightheadedness, dizziness, sedation, nausea, vomiting, and sweating. These effects seem to be more prominent in ambulatory patients and in those who are not suffering severe pain. In such individuals, lower doses are advisable. Other adverse reactions include the following: (listed alphabetically under each subsection) Body as a Whole asthenia (weakness), edema, headache Cardiovascular (also see WARNINGS: CARDIAC CONDUCTION EFFECTS) - arrhythmias, bigeminal rhythms, bradycardia, cardiomyopathy, ECG abnormalities, extrasystoles, flushing, heart failure, hypotension, palpitations, phlebitis, QT interval prolongation, syncope, T-wave inversion, tachycardia, torsade de pointes, ventricular fibrillation, ventricular tachycardia Digestive abdominal pain, anorexia, biliary tract spasm, constipation, dry mouth, glossitis Hematologic and Lymphatic reversible thrombocytopenia has been described in opioid addicts with chronic hepatitis Metabolic and Nutritional hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, weight gain Nervous agitation, confusion, disorientation, dysphoria, euphoria, insomnia, seizures Respiratory pulmonary edema, respiratory depression (see WARNINGS: RESPIRATORY DEPRESSION) Skin and Appendages pruritis, urticaria, other skin rashes, and rarely, hemorrhagic urticaria Special Senses hallucinations, visual disturbances Urogenital amenorrhea, antidiuretic effect, reduced libido and/or potency, urinary retention or hesitancy Maintenance on a Stabilized Dose During prolonged administration of methadone, as in a methadone maintenance treatment program, there is usually a gradual, yet progressive, disappearance of side effects over a period of several weeks. However, constipation and sweating often persist. |
Answer the following medical question: | What is methylprednisolone and how does it affect the body? | Methylprednisolone, a corticosteroid, is similar to a natural hormone produced by your adrenal glands. It is often used to replace this chemical when your body does not make enough of it. It relieves inflammation (swelling, heat, redness, and pain) and is used to treat certain forms of arthritis; skin, blood, kidney, eye, thyroid, and intestinal disorders (e.g., colitis); severe allergies; and asthma. Methylprednisolone is also used to treat certain types of cancer. This medication is sometimes prescribed for other uses; ask your doctor or pharmacist for more information. |
Answer the following medical question: | What is methylprednisolone and how does it affect the body? | Methylprednisolone (By mouth) meth-il-pred-NIS-oh-lone Treats many diseases and conditions, including problems related to inflammation. This medicine is a corticosteroid. Drug classes: Endocrine-Metabolic Agent, Immune Suppressant Uses of This Medicine: Methylprednisolone provides relief for inflamed areas of the body. It is used to treat a number of different conditions, such as inflammation (swelling), severe allergies, adrenal problems, arthritis, asthma, blood or bone marrow problems, eye or vision problems, lupus, skin conditions, kidney problems, ulcerative colitis, and flare-ups of multiple sclerosis. Methylprednisolone is a corticosteroid (cortisone-like medicine or steroid). It works on the immune system to help relieve swelling, redness, itching, and allergic reactions. This medicine is available only with your doctor's prescription. |
Answer the following medical question: | What is methylprednisolone and how does it affect the body? | Methylprednisolone (By injection) meth-il-pred-NIS-oh-lone Treats inflammation, severe allergies, flare-ups of ongoing illnesses, and many other medical problems. May also be used to decrease some symptoms of cancer. This medicine is a corticosteroid (cortisone-like medicine or steroid). Drug classes: Endocrine-Metabolic Agent, Immune Suppressant Uses of This Medicine: Methylprednisolone injection provides relief for inflamed areas of the body. It is used to treat a number of different conditions, such as inflammation (swelling), severe allergies, adrenal problems, arthritis, asthma, blood or bone marrow problems, eye or vision problems, lupus, skin conditions, kidney problems, ulcerative colitis, and flare-ups of multiple sclerosis. Methylprednisolone is a corticosteroid (cortisone-like medicine or steroid). It works on the immune system to help relieve swelling, redness, itching, and allergic reactions. This medicine is available only with your doctor's prescription. |
Answer the following medical question: | Why should Simvastatin be taken in the evening, rather than morning? | Simvastatin comes as a tablet to take by mouth. It usually is taken once a day in the evening. Take simvastatin at around the same time every day. |
Answer the following medical question: | Why should Simvastatin be taken in the evening, rather than morning? | Most manufacturers of statins recommend that they are taken at night, on the basis of physiological studies which show that most cholesterol is synthesised when dietary intake is at its lowest. Simvastatin is probably best taken at night because concentrations of total cholesterol and of low density lipoprotein are significantly greater when it is taken in the morning. |
Answer the following medical question: | How long does prednisone stay in the body after discontinuation of the medication after a tapering of dosage. Are chills, fever and abdominal pain common when discontinuing this drug? Is there anything else we should know? | If you abruptly stop taking prednisone or taper off too quickly, you might experience prednisone withdrawal symptoms: Severe fatigue Weakness Body aches Joint pain Prednisone is similar to cortisol, a hormone naturally made by your adrenal glands. If you take prednisone for more than a few weeks, your adrenal glands decrease cortisol production. A gradual reduction in prednisone dosage gives your adrenal glands time to resume their normal function. The amount of time it takes to taper off prednisone depends on the disease being treated, the dose and duration of use, and other medical considerations. A full recovery can take anywhere from a week to several months. Contact your doctor if you experience prednisone withdrawal symptoms as you are tapering off the drug |
Answer the following medical question: | How long does prednisone stay in the body after discontinuation of the medication after a tapering of dosage. Are chills, fever and abdominal pain common when discontinuing this drug? Is there anything else we should know? | If you are taking prednisone to treat a long-lasting disease, the medication may help control your condition but will not cure it. Continue to take prednisone even if you feel well. Do not stop taking prednisone without talking to your doctor. If you suddenly stop taking prednisone, your body may not have enough natural steroids to function normally. This may cause symptoms such as extreme tiredness, weakness, slowed movements, upset stomach, weight loss, changes in skin color, sores in the mouth, and craving for salt. Call your doctor if you experience these or other unusual symptoms while you are taking decreasing doses of prednisone or after you stop taking the medication. |
Answer the following medical question: | Can electrical high voltage shock cause swallowing difficulty? | An electrical injury is damage to the skin or internal organs when a person comes into direct contact with an electrical current. Symptoms may include: Changes in alertness (consciousness) Broken bones Heart attack (chest, arm, neck, jaw, or back pain) Headache Problems with swallowing, vision, or hearing Irregular heartbeat Muscle spasms and pain Numbness or tingling Breathing problems or lung failure Seizures Skin burns |
Answer the following medical question: | Can electrical high voltage shock cause swallowing difficulty? | An electrical injury is damage to the skin or internal organs when a person comes into direct contact with an electrical current. Symptoms may include: Changes in alertness (consciousness) Broken bones Heart attack (chest, arm, neck, jaw, or back pain) Headache Problems with swallowing, vision, or hearing Irregular heartbeat Muscle spasms and pain Numbness or tingling Breathing problems or lung failure Seizures Skin burns |
Answer the following medical question: | Will an unopened, unrefrigerated calcitonin salmon nasal spray be as effective as if it had been refrigerated? The directions say it needs to be refrigerated . | Store unopened bottle in refrigerator between 2 degrees to 8 degrees C (36 degrees to 46 degrees F). Protect from freezing. Store bottle in use at room temperature between 20 degrees to 25 degrees C (68 degrees to 77 degrees F) in an upright position, for up to 30 days (2 mL fill) or 35 days (3.7 mL fill). |
Answer the following medical question: | Will an unopened, unrefrigerated calcitonin salmon nasal spray be as effective as if it had been refrigerated? The directions say it needs to be refrigerated . | Calcitonin salmon remained stable in nasal spray after being stored for three days at 25 or 40 degrees C |
Answer the following medical question: | I want information on Schmorl's nodes. | Schmorl nodes, also referred as intravertebral disc herniations, refer to protrusions of the cartilage of the intervertebral disc through the vertebral body endplate and into the adjacent vertebra. The protrusions may contact the marrow of the vertebra, leading to inflammation. |
Answer the following medical question: | I want information on Schmorl's nodes. | First described in 1927, a Schmorl's node (SN) is the herniation of nucleus pulposus (NP) through the cartilaginous and bony end plate into the body of the adjacent vertebra. SNs are common findings on imaging, and although most SNs are asymptomatic, some have been shown to become painful lesions. In this manuscript, we review the literature regarding the epidemiology, clinical presentation, pathogenesis, imaging, and management of SNs. |
Answer the following medical question: | What is sleep paralysis and how does it affect the body? | Sleep Paralysis This condition prevents you from moving or speaking while falling asleep or waking up. However, you're fully conscious (aware) during this time. Sleep paralysis usually lasts just a few seconds or minutes, but it can be scary. |
Answer the following medical question: | What is sleep paralysis and how does it affect the body? | Isolated sleep paralysis is a type of paralysis that occurs when a person just goes to sleep or upon waking from sleep. It is not associated with another sleep disorder. Episodes of isolated sleep paralysis last from a few seconds to 1 or 2 minutes. During these episodes the person is unable to move or speak. Breathing is not affected. These spells end on their own or when the person is touched or moved. In rare cases, the person may have dream-like sensations or hallucinations, which may be scary to them. |
Answer the following medical question: | WHAT exercises can I do, safely, with asthma? | Exercise-induced bronchoconstriction (EIB), also called exercise-induced asthma, is a narrowing of the airways in the lungs that is triggered by physical activity. EIB is common in patients with chronic asthma, who frequently experience flare-ups while exercising. But it can also occur in otherwise healthy individuals who experience asthma symptoms only when they exercise. Symptoms of Exercise-Induced Asthma If you have EIB, you may have problems breathing within five to 20 minutes after exercise. Symptoms of EIB are similar to those of chronic asthma, but the timing of the symptoms is closely linked with physical activity. Your symptoms may include: * Wheezing * Tight chest * Cough * Shortness of breath * Chest pain (rarely) Triggers People with EIB are typically very sensitive to both low temperatures and dry air. Air is usually warmed and humidified by the nose, but during demanding activity people breathe more through their mouths. This allows cold, dry air to reach your lower airways and your lungs without passing through your nose, triggering asthma symptoms. Air pollutants, high pollen levels and viral respiratory infections may also be triggers. Other causes of symptoms while exercising include being out of shape, poorly controlled nasal allergies or vocal cord issues. Even the sport you choose can affect your symptoms. Swimming is considered less likely to cause asthma symptoms because the warm, humid environment of the pool does not aggravate the airways. Warm-weather activities and those requiring only short bursts of energy are also recommended. These include: * Hiking * Baseball * Golf * Walking * Leisure biking Because cold, dry air can make symptoms worse, as can activities that require continuous exertion, it is recommended that individuals with EIB avoid sports like: * Cross-country skiing * Running * Soccer * Basketball * Hockey |
Answer the following medical question: | WHAT exercises can I do, safely, with asthma? | Fortunately, having asthma, even exercise-induced asthma, doesn't have to keep you out of the game. In fact, as many as one in 12 Olympic athletes take asthma medication. The trick is to make sure asthma is well controlled with medication and to choose your activity carefully. Some are good choices, others may be more of a challenge. ... One recent study found that adults who walked three times a week for 12 weeks actually improved asthma control and fitness levels without provoking an attack. ... One study found that people who practiced Hatha yoga two-and-a-half hours a week for 10 weeks were able to cut down on their asthma medication. The same benefit would probably result from Tai Chi, a martial art that also emphasizes breathing, says Dr. Graham. ... |
Answer the following medical question: | How soon before going to bed should I take Ambien? | If you are taking the tablets, extended-release tablets, sublingual tablets (Edluar), or oral spray, you will take the medication as needed, not more than one time a day, immediately before bedtime. You will probably become very sleepy soon after you take zolpidem and will remain sleepy for some time after you take the medication. Plan to go to bed right after you take zolpidem tablets, extended-release tablets, sublingual tablets (Edluar), and oral spray and to stay in bed for 7 to 8 hours. |
Answer the following medical question: | How soon before going to bed should I take Ambien? | Administration Instructions Patients should be counseled to take AMBIEN right before they get into bed and only when they are able to stay in bed a full night (7-8 hours) before being active again. AMBIEN tablets should not be taken with or immediately after a meal. Advise patients NOT to take AMBIEN if they drank alcohol that evening. |
Answer the following medical question: | Define a Branch Bundle Block, it's symptoms and known treatments. | Bundle branch block is a condition in which there's a delay or obstruction along the pathway that electrical impulses travel to make your heart beat. The delay or blockage may occur on the pathway that sends electrical impulses to the left or the right side of the bottom chambers (ventricles) of your heart. Bundle branch block sometimes makes it harder for your heart to pump blood efficiently through your circulatory system. There's no specific treatment for bundle branch block itself. However, any underlying health condition that caused bundle branch block, such as heart disease, will need to be treated. In most people, bundle branch block doesn't cause any symptoms. Sometimes, people with the condition don't even know they have a bundle branch block. For those people who do have signs and symptoms, they may include: Fainting (syncope); Feeling as if you're going to faint (presyncope) |
Answer the following medical question: | If a person is allergic to Penicillin, is he likely to be allergic to Cephalexin also? | Administration of cephalothin, cephalexin, cefadroxil, and cefazolin in penicillin-allergic patients is associated with a significant increase in the rate of allergic reactions; whereas administration of cefprozil, cefuroxime, cefpodoxime, ceftazidime, and ceftriaxone is not. |
Answer the following medical question: | What is the success rate of heart ablation? Can arrhythmia occur after ablation? | Cardiac ablation carries a risk of complications, including: Bleeding or infection at the site where your catheter was inserted Damage to your blood vessels where the catheter may have scraped as it traveled to your heart Puncture of your heart Damage to your heart valves Damage to your heart's electrical system, which could worsen your arrhythmia and require a pacemaker to correct Blood clots in your legs or lungs (venous thromboembolism) Stroke or heart attack Narrowing of the veins that carry blood between your lungs and heart (pulmonary vein stenosis) Damage to your kidneys from dye used during the procedure Death in rare cases |
Answer the following medical question: | What is the success rate of heart ablation? Can arrhythmia occur after ablation? | Catheter ablation is a procedure that uses radiofrequency energy (similar to microwave heat) to destroy a small area of heart tissue that is causing rapid and irregular heartbeats. Destroying this tissue helps restore your heart's regular rhythm. The procedure is also called radiofrequency ablation. Catheter ablation is a low-risk procedure that is successful in most people who have it. |
Answer the following medical question: | What is the success rate of heart ablation? Can arrhythmia occur after ablation? | Success Rates for Catheter Ablation at the University of Michigan Paroxysmal atrial fibrillation can be eliminated in 70-75 percent of patients with a single procedure. When the procedure is repeated in patients who still have atrial fibrillation after the first procedure, the overall success rate is approximately 85-90 percent. Persistent atrial fibrillation can be eliminated in approximately 50 percent of patients with a single procedure. In about 30 percent of patients who undergo ablation of chronic atrial fibrillation, the atrial fibrillation is replaced by a different kind of short circuit referred to as "left atrial flutter." These patients are treated temporarily with medications and the left atrial flutter sometimes goes away on its own within a few months. If it does not, you may need a second catheter ablation procedure to eliminate the flutter. In these cases, the overall success rate is approximately 75-85 percent. If the atrial fibrillation has been persistent for more than 1-2 years, almost all patients will require more than one ablation procedure before a normal heart rhythm is restored. |
Answer the following medical question: | What is the success rate of heart ablation? Can arrhythmia occur after ablation? | Do you need treatment? Most arrhythmias are considered harmless and are left untreated. Once your doctor has documented that you have an arrhythmia, he or she will need to find out whether it's abnormal or merely reflects the heart's normal processes. He or she will also determine whether your arrhythmia is clinically significant - that is, whether it causes symptoms or puts you at risk for more serious arrhythmias or complications of arrhythmias in the future. If your arrhythmia is abnormal and clinically significant, your doctor will set a treatment plan. |
Answer the following medical question: | Is fildena like viagra and how does it work? | Erectile dysfunction: Viagra and other oral medications Sildenafil (Viagra), vardenafil (Levitra, Staxyn), tadalafil (Cialis) and avanafil (Stendra) are oral medications that reverse erectile dysfunction by enhancing the effects of nitric oxide, a natural chemical your body produces that relaxes muscles in the penis. This increases blood flow and allows you to get an erection in response to sexual stimulation. |
Answer the following medical question: | Is fildena like viagra and how does it work? | Fildena contains Sildenafil Citrate, a common ingredient used in various leading branded ED pills like kamagra etc. and which are available over the counter. Sildenafil Citrate was originally developed by British scientists and then brought to market by the US-based pharma. Sildenafil Citrate helps treat erectile dysfunction (trouble having an erection). Helps a man have an erection or have a better erection with his penis during sex. It also treats pulmonary arterial hypertension (high blood pressure in the lungs) in both men and women. Fildena is the latest ED pill launched by Fortune Healthcare which has more than two decade's experience in producing ED pills. Fildena has the same trust and guarantee of millions of worldwide patients who have earlier used other ED pills like Filagra, Filitra and Tadalista all manufactured by Fortune Healthcare. |
Answer the following medical question: | I have normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH) and would like information on exercise or support groups. | Management of NPH Diagnosing normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH) can be frustrating. Symptoms of gait disturbance, mild dementia and poor bladder control occur with other health conditions that affect people over 60. These conditions may also coexist with hydrocephalus, creating a challenge to clear and accurate diagnosis and making treatment difficult. Visit our community portals for age and life stage specific resources. Be informed and current about normal pressure hydrocephalus by tuning into interactive, free webinars on a variety of topics. |
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