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ced0e6e7-048a-467e-aa7e-e10def9ebb5e
Which of the following is not used as a disinfectant?
1-2% Cetrimide
100% Alcohol
2% Lysol
5% Chloroxylene
1b
single
A 70% solution of alcohol takes more time in evaporation from the surface, increasing the contact time. Therefore, 70% isopropyl alcohol is suitable for disinfection.  100% isopropyl alcohol coagulates the protein instantly creating a protein layer that protects the remaining protein from further coagulation.
Microbiology
null
9a704b1d-b36c-4f55-b1f1-89af27e8c346
A 27 years old pregnant lady comes with severe jaundice and altered sensorium. On examination, the patient is deeply icteric, not responding to commands and pelvic sonogram reveals intrauterine fetal death. Serum bilirubin levels are 28.8 mg/dL (direct = 18.6 mg/dL), AST levels are 1063 and ALT levels are 1191. The viral markers are as follows. What is the likely diagnosis?Anti-HAV IgGReactiveAnti-HAV IgMNonreactiveHbSAgNon reactiveAnti-HbSAgNonreactiveAnti-HBc IgMNonreactiveAnti-HBc IgGReactiveAnti-HCV IgGNonreactiveAnti-HEV IgMReactiveAnti-HEV IgGNon reactive
Acute hepatitis E superimposed on chronic liver failure due to hepatitis B
Fulminant hepatitis due to hepatitis B infection
Acute hepatitis E with chronic hepatitis A
Fulminant hepatitis due to hepatitis E infection
3d
single
Ans: D. Fulminant hepatitis due to hepatitis E infection(Ref: Harrison 191e p2018, 18/e p2546)In the question, anti-HBc IgG is reactive but HbsAg is negative, the case is a recovered case from hepatitis B.Hepatitis A is rarely chronic, can he ruled out from the given options.Anti-HAV IgG suggests recovered case from HAV infections.Anti-HEV 1gM is an indicator of acute hepatitis E infection.History of pregnancy and high serum bilirubin with raised AST and ALT is suggestive of fulminant hepatitis E.Commonly Encountered Serologic Patterns of Hepatitis B InfectionHBsAgAnti-HBsAnti-HBcHBeAgAnti-HBeInterpretation+-IgM+-* Acute hepatitis B, high infectivity+-IgG+-* Chronic hepatitis B, high infectivitydeg+ IgG-+* Late acute or chronic hepatitis B, low infectivitydeg* HBeAg-negative (`precore-mutant) hepatitis B (chronic or rarely acute)
Medicine
null
92ffd21c-7c27-4993-ba50-4145217b05cb
Dengue shock syndrome is characterized by the following except :
Hepatomegaly
Pleural effusion
Thrombocytopenia
Decreased haemoglobin
3d
multi
Dengue hemorrhagic fever : Fever. Minor or Major hemorrhgic manifestations. Hepatomegaly. Thrombocytopenia 100,000/mm3. Hypoalbuminemia. Objective evidence of increased capillaty permeability (hematocrit 20%). Pleural effusion (by chest radiograph). ​​Criteria for Dengue shock syndrome : It includes those for dengue hemorrhagic fever plus, Hypotension or narrow pulse.
Pediatrics
null
6d740ff7-c57b-4f62-a953-14e8b41fba76
Endotoxin of gram -ve bacteria that do not cause pathogenesis of natural disease
Mycobacterium
Klebsiella
Vibrio
E.coli
2c
single
null
Microbiology
null
ce7d3beb-17f5-416a-9584-6fdf807f4d99
A 24 years old female presented with patchy hair loss in the right temporal and occipital region. Examination revealed non- scarring alopecia with multiple small broken hairs. Scrapings from scalp showed mild inflammation, peri-follicular hemorrhage and surrounding mild lymphocytic infiltration. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Alopecia areata
Androgenic alopecia
Loose anagen hair
Trichotillomania
3d
multi
Ans: D. Trichotillomania (Ref: Rooks 8/e p55, Fitzputrick 6/e p/55).Patchy hair loss in the right temporal and occipital region in a 24-years-old female non- scarring alopecia with multiple small broken hairs and mild (sparsity) of a perifollicular inflammatory infiltrate is highly suggestive of trichotillomania.
Skin
null
46872392-e33f-464f-a194-93ea23830da9
Which of the following cranial nerve not associated with olfaction?
XII
IX
V
X
0a
single
Ans. A. XIIXII nerve is a motor nerve; does not play role in olfaction and gustation.Cranial Nerves -- Components and FunctionsNumberNameFunctionIOlfactory nerve Smell sensationIIOptic nerve VisionIIIOculomotor Turns eyeball upward, downward,and medially; Raises upper eyelid, alsoconstricts pupil; accommodates eyeIVTrochlear nerve It helps in turning eyeball downwardand laterallyVTrigeminalMaxillarydivisionSupplies dura mater of anterior paof middle cranial fossa, conjunctiva ofinferior eyelid, skin of face over maxilla;teeth of upper jaw; mucous membrane NumberNameFunction OphthalmicdivisionSupplies cornea, superior conjunctiva,skin of dorsum of external nose,forehead, scalp, superior eyelids, andalso mucous nasal cavity, ethmoid,frontal and sphenoid sinuses MandibulardivisionSkin of lower lip, buccal, parotid andtemporal regions of face, external ear(Auricle, tympanic membrane andacoustic meatus), mucous membraneof mouth and anterior two-third paof tongue. Supplies 4 muscles of mastication,mylohyoid, anteriorbelly of digastric, tensor tympani andtensor veli palatini VI Abducent Lateral rectus muscle turns eyeballlaterally NumberName FunctionVIIFacial Taste from anterior two-thirdsof tongue, from floor of mouth andpalate Muscles of face and scalp,stapedius muscle, posterior belly ofdigastric and stylohyoid muscles Submandibular and sublingualsalivary glands,the lacrimal gland, andglands of nose and palate VIII VestibulocochlearCochlear Organ of Coi--hearing VestibularFrom utricle and saccule andsemicircular canals--positionand movement of headIXGlossopharyngeal General sensation and taste fromposterior one-third of tongue andpharynx; carotid sinus (baroreceptor);and carotid body (chemoreceptor) NumberName Function Stylopharyngeus muscle--assistsswallowingParasympathetic parotid salivary gland X Vagus Hea and great thoracic blood vessels;larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs;alimentary tract from pharynx tosplenic flexure ofcolon; liver, kidneys, and pancreas XI Spinal accessory Cranial rootSternocleidomastoid and trapeziusmuscles Cranial root Muscles of soft palate (excepttensor veli palatini), pharynx (exceptstylopharyngeal), and larynx (exceptcricothyroid) in branches of vagus XII Hypoglossal Muscles of tongue (exceptpalatoglossus) controlling its shape andmovement
Anatomy
null
436d7d2f-93e5-4a85-84b5-f4c701863126
True about Levator Ani except -
Converge downwards & medially
Suppos viscera
Made up of iliococcygeus & pubococcygeus
Attached to pelvic brim
3d
multi
Ans. D. Attached to pelvic brimThe levator ani is made up of three pas:Iliococcygeus musclePubococcygeus musclePuborectalis muscleOrigin & Inseion:The levator ani arises, in front, from the posterior surface of the superior pubic ramus lateral to the symphysis behind, from the inner surface of the spine of the ischium and between these two points, from the obturator fascia.The fibers pass downward and backward to the middle line of the floor of the pelvis The most posterior are inseed into the side of the last two segments of the coccyx; those placed more anteriorly unite with the muscle of the opposite side, in a median fibrous ridge called the anococcygeal body or raphe, which extends between the coccyx and the margin of the anus.Action: Suppos the viscera in pelvic cavity
Anatomy
null
ba5d61e1-087e-402b-9ea9-a4cc20f97c57
Best medium to transport/store an avulsed tooth, which is not to be reimplanted immediately? (OR) the medium which maintains the vitality of PDl and thus indicated for long duration transport of an avulse tooth
Viaspan
Hanks balanced salt solution
Coconut water
Milk
0a
single
null
Dental
null
1488b57a-2f58-4b18-8124-e94d25e980fb
True statements regarding the calculation of HDI are all of the following except
In gross enrolment, only secondary education is considered, not primary education
1/3rd weightage is given to adult literacy
2/3`dweightage is given to gross enrolmen
Country's achievement is computed on the basis of adult literacy
3d
multi
Ans. d. Country's achievement is computed on the basis of adult literacyThe knowledge and education index of a country is computed on the basis of adult literacy rate and combined gross enrollment ratio."
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
2e0115a1-4971-407d-b5a1-ec1a70e6e066
Asymptomatic hep B is common in 2-3% normal population, but there is increased risk of transmission into hepatocellular carcinoma. Why?
Inability to induce inflammation to remove the organism
High level of transaminases
High rate of proliferation of virus
Integration of viral DNA with host DNA
3d
single
Option A- Explanation for carrier stage Option C- Refers to high infectivity of the virus so basically higher chances of infection but not cancer. Option D- This leads to inhibition of apoptosis so might cause cancer of liver (HCC)
Medicine
AIIMS 2017
10050537-157e-47df-8995-ca68cd67467e
Which anti-cholinergic drug doesn't cross the blood brain barrier and placenta?
Glycopyrrolate bromide
Hyoscine bromide
Hyoscine butylbromide
Atropine
0a
single
null
Pharmacology
null
78a1bd5f-291f-4708-a187-40fd3bc901e2
Which of the following is carcinoma of the skin, spreads by local invasion and has no tendency to metastasise?
Malignant melanoma
Basal cell carcinoma
Fibrosarcoma
Leukoplakia
1b
single
null
Pathology
null
71c8c85f-92ee-40ad-b1dd-42c8a9dacff7
True about cardiolipin is all except
Found in inner mitochondrial membrane
Play role in process of apoptosis
Is Diphosphatidyl glycerol
Has choline base which has labile methyl group
3d
multi
Cardiolipin (diphosphatidylglycerol) is a phospholipid present in mitochondria.   It is formed from phosphatidylglycerol, which in turn is synthesized from CDP-diacylglycerol and glycerol 3-phosphate. Cardiolipin, found in the inner membrane of mitochondria, has a key role in mitochondrial structure and function and is also thought to be involved in programmed cell death (apoptosis). Cephalin: Has choline base which has labile methyl group.   Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 30th edition page no 248
Biochemistry
null
dcb2ad3a-cefa-4fde-9b24-b694b287f9d7
Transverse symphyseal fracture of mandible can be managed by all of the following, except
Lag screws
2 mm compression plate
2.5 mm monocortical plate
1.5 mm single miniplates
3d
multi
null
Surgery
null
64be099e-1057-4cd8-b5f1-f2e521c9ba6e
Second messenger for smooth muscle relaxation mediated by NO is:
Ca'
cAMP
cGMP
Magnesium
2c
single
Ans: C. cGMPRef.: Harper 30/e p290, 437)Second messenger for smooth muscle relaxation mediated by NO is cGMP."GTP serves as an allosteric regulator and as an energy source for protein synthesis, and cGMP serves as a second messenger in response to nitric oxide (NO) during relaxation of smooth muscle.
Biochemistry
null
559675a7-0767-47f2-bd6e-fc2279032447
If a bacteria were susceptible to both penicillin and Erythromycin, then it would not be appropriate to treat the patients with both antibiotics at the same time because
Penicillin is inactivated by erythromycin
Erythromycin exerts its effects extracellularly
Erythromycin enhances the β-lactamases activity
Penicillin is only effective against growing cells
3d
multi
null
Pharmacology
null
1230c97d-c9b4-4b1d-8ced-986a8031ac45
Which of the following is false about indirect opthalmoscopy?
Convex lens is used
Image is viual and erect
Magnification is 4-5 times
It is so bright that regular haziness is penetrated
1b
multi
Answer- B. Image is viual and erectIndirect Ophthalmoscopy:Convex lens is used of +16 to +18 DiopterImage is real and inveedMagnification is 4-5 timesIt is so bright that regular haziness is penetrated, useful for hazy media.
Ophthalmology
null
e4d56110-a077-483b-a4c3-8f6665e999c3
A child with 22-25 stool/day, 3 day old pneumonitis, no passage of urine from 36 hours. low B.P. Blood pH – 7.21. Urine Na+–18 meq/L, S. Urea 120, serum Creatinine 1.2 indicate –
Acute cortical necrosis
Acute tubular necrosis
Pre–renal Azotemia
Acute medullary necrosis
2c
single
History and clinical features of the child suggests that he is suffering from acute renal failure. From the given values we have to get the cause of this renal failure. H/o diarrhea with low BP suggest dehydration —> a cause of prerenal ARE
Pediatrics
null
a318b5cf-a25d-4860-878c-e1d0295fa46f
A child who was normal at bih develops chronic liver failure and muscle weakness at 3 months of age. On investigations, serum glucose is low, along with ketoacidosis and decreased pH. ALT and AST are raised. Blood lactate and uric acid levels are normal. Intravenous glucagon given after meals raises the blood glucose levels, but does not raise glucose when given after an overnight fast. Liver biopsy shows increased glycogen in liver. Which is the enzyme likely to be defective in this child?
Glucose-6-phosphatase
Muscle phosphorylase
Branching enzyme
Debranching enzyme
3d
single
Ans: D: Debranching enzyme(Ref: Nelson 20/e p717-720; Harrison 19/e p433 e-2, 18Ie p3200, 3201)In this child, a combination of liver and muscle involvement with ketoacidosis and raised liver enzymes points towards Type III glycogen storage disease, i.e. Cori's disease caused by deficiency of debranching enzyme.Type IIIa Glycogen Storage Disease or Cori's Disease or Forbes Disease:Due to deficiency ofglycogen debranching enzyme activity.Debranching enzyme, together with phosphorylase, is responsible for complete degradation of glycogen. When debranching enzyme is defective, glycogen breakdown is incomplete and an abnormal glycogen with sho outer branch chains and resembling limit dextrin accumulates.Deficiency of glycogen debranching enzyme causes hepatomegaly, hypoglycemia, sho stature, variable skeletal myopathy & variable eardiomyopathy.
Pediatrics
null
eb64ac60-ebb7-4851-8bbc-9251026bcbbc
Which is false about apoptosis?
No inflammation
Plasma membrane intact
Organelle swelling
Affected by dedicated genes
2c
multi
Apoptosis is genetically regulated, hence apoptosis is sometimes referred to as programmed cell death. Plasma membrane remains intact in apoptosis hence there is no leakage of enzymes and inflammation Apoptosis cause activation of caspase and protease which cause cells to shrink . Hence organelle swelling is not a feature of apoptosis. It is a feature of reversible cell injury or necrosis Characteristic feature of apoptosis microscopically is chromatin condensation
Pathology
AIIMS 2018
2a994738-a611-44f3-abcc-729abd519c1b
During polymerisation of acrylic resin, above what temperature benzoyl peroxide form free radicals?
25°C
37°C
45°C
60°C
3d
multi
The most commonly employed initiator is benzoyl peroxide, which is activated rapidly between 50°C and 100°C to release two free radicals per benzoyl peroxide molecule. Reference: PHILLIPS’ SCIENCE OF DENTAL MATERIALS, 12th ed page no 101
Dental
null
693ea854-071d-4da2-a9b2-09c7b831b9d9
Test to exclude a disease
Positive predictivity
Negative predictivity
Specificity
Sensitivity
2c
single
null
Dental
null
1ca4f1ef-d7dd-4909-bb00-e0c5700e2bf8
AIDS, secondary infection will be all except
Rubella
HSV
Candida
kaposis sarcoma
0a
multi
null
Dental
null
5ffac163-ef01-4c80-9439-6c5074d32b95
NN hick of the following tractions is not used in lower limb?
Gallows
Bryant
Dunlop
Perkin
2c
multi
Ans: C. Dunlop(Ref Maheshwari 5/e p27)Dunlop traction:Used for supracondylar fracture of humerus, not for lower limb. Moleskin covered with elastic bandage:Uses of TractionsNameUseBryant's Traction('Fracture shaft of femur in children <2 yearsGallow's TractiondegFracture shaft of femur in children <2 yearsRussel's TractiondegFracture shaft of femur in older childrenPerkin's TractiondegFracture shaft of femur in adults90deg-90deg TractionFracture shaft of femur in childrenAgnes-Hunt TractionCorrection of Hip deformityWell-Leg TractionCorrection of adduction or abduction deformity of hipDunlop TractionSupracondylar fracture of humerusSmith's TractionSupracondylar fracture of humerusCalcaneal TractionOpen fractures of ankle or legMetacarpal TractionOpen forearm fracturesHead-Halter TractionCervical spine injuriesCrutchfield TractiondegCervical spine injuriesHalo-Pelvic TractionScoliosis
Surgery
null
abcdfc38-ab30-4fe8-8bd8-e8a7cb5b35e1
Which is not true about Juvenile periodontitis
Rate of bone loss is faster than normal periodontitis
There is predilection for female patients
The inflammatory process starts about simultaneously as the bone loss
Frequently bilateral symmetrical patterns of bone loss Occur
2c
multi
null
Dental
null
96134923-f73b-48f4-8361-c964c3ab16b2
An elderly, hypeensive patient presented with sudden onset headache, vomiting, neck rigidity without focal neurological deficit. Diagnosis:
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Ischemic stroke
Subdural hemorrhage
Meningitis
0a
single
Ans. a. Subarachnoid hemorrhage (Ref Harrison l9/e p1784, I8/e p2262-2263; Sobiston I9/e p1880-1882; Schwaz 9/e p1534-1536; Bailey 25/e p304)An elderly, hypeensive patient presented with sudden onset headache, vomiting, neck rigidity without focal neurological deficit, diagnosis in this case is subarachnoid hemorrhage.
Medicine
null
65f3f017-4699-470d-baaa-0743a0a5d10a
Infective endocarditis is not seen in –
ASD
TOF
VSD
MR
0a
single
Endocarditis tends to occur in : High pressure areas (left side of heart) Downstream from sites where blood flows at a high velocity through a narrow orifice from a high to low-pressure chamber (distal to constriction in Coarctation of aorta) Endocarditis is unusual in sites with a small pressure gradient as ASD Infective endocarditis is very rare in patients of ASD Endocarditis occurs more frequently in patients with valvular incompetence than in those with pure stenosis. Risk of endocarditis in various lesions are :
Pediatrics
null
b3aa72de-f85c-407f-892b-9dae7d953417
Which of the following drugs does not affect DNA synthesis?
Rifampicin
Linezolid
Nitrofurantoin
Metronidazole
1b
single
Ans: B. Linezolid(Ref Goodman Gilman I3/e p796, 12/e p1537; Katzung 12/e p817; KDT 7/e p758, 817, 6/e p669)Linezolid inhibits protein synthesis by binding to the P site of the 50S ribosomal subunit and preventing formation of the larger ribosomal-fMet-tRNA complex that initiates protein synthesis.Nitrofurantoin - Works by damaging bacterial DNA.Metronidazole - Forms toxic free radical metabolites in the bacterial cell that damage DNA.Rifampicin - Inhibit DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
Pharmacology
null
ba74314a-2adf-4b6a-8c74-2c8c7f5b641f
A 5-year old boy passed 18 loose stools in last 24 hours and vomited twice in last 4 hours. He is irritable but drinking fluids. The optional therapy for this child is:
Intravenous fluids
Oral rehydration therapy
Intravenous fluid initially for 4 hours followed by oral fluids
Plain water ad libitum
1b
multi
null
Medicine
null
7180b273-ff8e-4ef1-ba53-231ad5eba164
In a 19 years old patient, with a swelling over the left angle of the mandible, temperature of 38°C and negative history of trauma, one should suspect:
Spontaneous fracture of the mandible
Pericoronal infection
Mumps
Sjogren's syndrome
1b
single
null
Surgery
null
d5a3e0d8-3ce2-455c-96c6-b5b9fec203a0
Borders of major connectors adjacent to gingival crevices, should be no closer to the crevice than?
1-2 mm
2-3 mm
3-6 mm
7-10 mm
2c
single
In maxillary arch, border of major connector must be no closer than 6 mm to gingival crevices of teeth. In mandibular arch, border of major connector must be no closer than 3 mm to gingival crevices of teeth.
Dental
null
3f14a758-0e86-43ba-a517-ce29c38b6dbf
All of the following are used for screening cancers in females except
CA-125: Ovarian cancer
Office endometrial aspirate: Endometrial carcinoma
Pap smear: Cervical cancer
Mammography: Breast cancer
1b
multi
Ans. b. Office endometrial aspirate: Endometrial carcinomaOffice endometrial aspirate is not used for screening of Endometrial carcinoma.Transvaginal ultrasound and endometrial sampling have been advocated as screening tests for endometrial cancer but benefit from routine screening have not been shown.`Screening for endometrial cancer should currently not be undeaken because of a lack of an appropriate, cost-effective and acceptable test that reduces moality. Routine PAP testing is an inadequate test that reduces moality. Routine PAP testing is inadequate and endometrial cytology assessment is too insensitive and non-specific to be useful in screening for endometrial cancer even in a high-risk population.' Screening TestDisease ScreenedPapanicolaou (Pap's) smearCervical cancerMammographyBreast cancerCA-125Ovarian cancerScreening TestThe screening test is used to search for an unrecognized disease or defect, in apparently healthy individuals, using rapidly applied tests, examination or other proceduresScreening TestDisease ScreenedPapanicolaou (Pap's) smearCervical cancerQMammographyBreast cancerQBimanual oral examinationOral cancerQELISAHIVQUrine for sugar, Random blood sugarDiabetes mellitusQAFPDevelopmental anomalies in fetusQDRE + PSAProstate cancerQFecal occult blood testColorectal cancerQCA-125Ovarian cancerQ
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
e321f1c5-710f-47d9-9632-b2a45152ea9d
In case of nodal metastasis, which is not seen on CT scan
Spiculated node
Size more than 6 mm
Necrotic node
Rounded node
0a
single
null
Surgery
null
22353c7c-1ec6-4e29-9d81-81e5fb97e58d
The average no of muscle fibres attached to one golgi tendon oragn are
3-Jan
10-May
15-Oct
15-75
2c
single
null
Physiology
null
cd0edc92-8fb3-4f97-b0ce-d74446009179
A person was advised by his ohopedic surgeon to get regular dressing of his wound done. But the patient did not give much care. During follow-up, patient was repeatedly told to get the dressing done timely but patient didn't do the dressing himself, saying that he was busy. Finally the wound enlarged and the underlying bone developed osteomyelitis. Which of the following statement is true regarding above-mentioned situation?
Doctor is guilty under "Last clear chance" doctrine
Doctor is not guilty under "Contributory negligence"
Doctor is punishable under avoidable negligence
Doctor is guilty as he prescribed wrong medicines
0a
multi
Ans: A. Doctor is guilty under "Last clear chance" doctrine(Ref Reddy 34/e p38, 33/e p40)Last Clear Chance Doctrine:Possibility of doctor saving the patient (plaintiff) by dressing wound properly the 2nd time, hence curing without osteomyelitis development.Hence, doctor is paly guilty for the outcome (osteomyelitis).Criteria included:Failure of doctor to prevent damage resulting from negligent act of patient, even after getting clear time, he cannot plead contributory negligence in civil cases.Elements of proof:Defendant- Doctor.Defendant recognized the danger & acquired a duty to avoid it.Defendant failed to avoid danger.Plaintiff - Patient.Plaintiff placed themselves in a situation of risk or danger through their own negligence.Plaintiff could not avoid the danger.Plaintiff was injured as a result of the defendant's failure.
Forensic Medicine
null
d190d5c8-74f3-46fa-afd1-4ff1f830f1c2
Not true about fresh frozen plasma
Supplies major coagulation factors
ABO match not required
Should be used in replacement of factors in DIC/Trauma
To be used within 30 minutes of having trauma
3d
multi
null
Medicine
null
be27a690-a4c2-41e8-bc61-70ccc70dcea5
About psedomonas. All are true except
Strict aerobes
Can grow in disinfectants in hospital
Infection is mostly due to endogenous source
Most common organism in burn patient
2c
multi
null
Microbiology
null
48d1692a-1a88-4247-8a54-7947e03d6d62
Optimal anti-rotational design in a blade is incorporated by offset not greater than?
2 mm
5 mm
3 mm
6 mm
0a
single
null
Dental
null
6e7dc35e-f7f1-4c23-a661-6c5eb5a1afe8
Which of the following is not true for S/S spreader compared to Ni-Ti Spreader?
Less depth penetration is achieved with Ni-Ti spreader is achieved
More Flexibility with Ni-Ti spreader is achieved
Less stress Generated in Ni-Ti spreaded condensation
Less incidence of root Fracture with Ni-Ti spreader
0a
multi
null
Dental
null
97a84ea2-f289-4103-a306-a1cb3526c24e
All are true about legionella pneumophilia except
a) quatic bodies are main habitat
It can replicate in amoeba
Urine test is a reliable method
Person to person transmission
3d
multi
null
Microbiology
null
da131385-8cb4-4fbe-8f90-8ae12467eadd
In “Tip of Iceberg Phenomenon”, submerged portion does not consist of
Healthy population
Carriers
Undiagnosed cases
Latent period
0a
single
null
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
9962b697-f58a-4ac3-9ca5-05cde28164b4
A lady presents with complaints of abdominla pain. CECT shows bilateral papillary necrosis. Which of the following test shall not be done to investigate the cause of her papillary necrosis?
Urine acidification test
Sickling test
Urine -PCR for TB
Bacterial culture of urine
0a
multi
Ans. a. Urine acidification test(Ref: Harrison 19/e p1860, 18/e p2372)Urine acidification test is mainly done to diagnose A (Renal tubular acidosis), not the causes of papillary necrosis.
Medicine
null
f6e3d46a-cc26-4eea-a659-5d1fa1c3b784
Which of the following is not a component of quick SOFA (qSOFA) scoring?
Bilateral undilated pupils
Altered Mentation
Glasgow Coma Score
SBP <= 100 mm Hg
0a
single
Answer- A. Bilateral undilated pupilsAssessmentqSOFA scoreLow blood pressure (SBP <= 100 mmHg)1High respiratory rate (>= 22 breaths/min)1Altered mentation (GCS <= 14)1
Surgery
null
bee09bc5-3c41-4d41-8da8-a307dfd4228e
Which one of the following is not used as an abrasive in the dentifrice
Calcium carbonate
Silica
Sodium Chloride
Amylase
3d
single
null
Dental
null
0d106c90-f1d1-4255-8979-04fce15f34b2
Nitrous oxide alone is not used as a G.A agent because of
Difficulty in maintaining an adequate oxygen concentration
Expense of the agent and its exposure hazards
Adverse effect on liver
Poor analgesic property
0a
single
null
Surgery
null
732dd200-d2b0-4b84-9919-dd651bcf5301
A pregnant woman with G3P2L0 presented to you with a pregnancy at period of gestation of 9 weeks. She has a history of conization one year back currently on follow up with no recurrence on PAP smean She also has the history of preterm bihs at 30 and 32 weeks during her last 2 pregnancy. What is your next step in the management of this patient?
USG to see cervical length
Cervical cerclage
Complete bed rest
Abdominal cerclage
0a
multi
Ans: A. USG to see cervical lengthRef NICE guidelines; ACOG guidelines; SOGC guidelines.The current review fromACOG recommends cervical cerclage for women with a current singleton pregnancy, prior spontaneous preterm bih at less than 34 weeks of gestation, and cervical length less than 25 mm.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
df493519-1b08-442e-853c-edd9ca4f6f57
Acetone free methyl alcohol is present in Leishmann's stain for:
It fixes cells to the slide
It colors the red cells
It prevents the cells from sticking to the slide surface
It stops metabolic and enzymatic activity of the cell
3d
single
Answer- D. It stops metabolic and enzymatic activity of the cellTt is a type ofAcidic dye stains the basic components of cell & basic dye stains the acidic components of cell.Leishman's stain contains eosin & methylene blue in acetone free methyl alcohol.Methyl alcohol acts as a fixative.Acetone if present, will destroy the cell membraneMethylene blue ("polychromed"), the basic dye and eosin, the acidic dye exists as thiazine eosinate, which dissociates into the component dyes, when diluted with distilled water.Methyl blue stains the nucleus & basophilic granules of WBC, whereas eosin stains the eosinophilic granules.It is generally used to differentiate & identily leucocytes, malaria parasites & trypanosomas
Pathology
null
7095637c-81c9-42f8-8484-54c3eedf5623
Schizonts and late trophozoite stages of plasmodium falciparum not seen in peripheral blood smear because:
They are sequestered in the spleen
Due to adherence to the capillary endothelium, they are not seen in peripheral blood
Due to antigen-antibody reaction and removal
They are seen in mosquito blood
1b
single
Ans: B. Due to adherence to the capillary endothelium, they are not seen in peripheral blood(Ref: Harrison 1y/e p1371, Jawetz 27/e p719)Plasmodium falciparum:Only ring stages or gametocytes are seen in infected peripheral blood.Schizonts & late trophozoite stages of Plasmodium falciparum are not seen in infected peripheral blood.Parasites make red cells sticky a Tend to be retained in deep capillary beds (except in overwhelming fatal infections).
Microbiology
null
d4549997-d19b-48eb-bd9a-aa3c29c82dec
A 6 year old patient with extra cusp on maxillary central incisor is associated with all, except
Mohr's syndrome
Sturge-Weber Syndrome
Rubinstein Taybi Syndrome
Proteus Syndrome
3d
multi
null
Pathology
null
2a74f19e-1c3b-4318-ba5b-0812f80d895e
Which of these is not true about randomization in a clinical trial?
Reduces confounding
Decreases selection bias
Ensures comparability of two groups
Increases external validity of the trial
3d
multi
Ans: D. Increases external validity of the trial(Ref Park 24/e p87, 23/e p82, 22/e p79)External validity is the validity of generalized (causal) inferences in scientific research, usually based on experiments as experimental validity.In other words, it is the extent to which the results of a study can be generalized to other situations and to other people.This cannot be ensured by randomization.
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
71aace23-dcbd-489a-b9b7-b3f52adfc9f1
About carey coombs murmur which is false –
Delayed diastole murmur
Seen in rheumatic fever
Can be associated with AR
Low pitched murmur
2c
multi
Carey-Coombs Murmur Heard in patients with acute rheumatic fever. Occurs due to inflammation of mitral valve cusps or excessive left atrial blood flow as a consequence of MR. Soft middiastolic murmur usually follows
Pediatrics
null
2d98e8a0-829a-47ef-87e1-c6bbd54473a1
Which of the following is not an adverse effect of Escitalopram?
Nausea
Vivid dreams
Anorgasmia
Sialorrhoea
3d
single
Adverse effects of SSRI's MC: GI side effects- Nausea, Vomiting Dyspepsia, Diarrhea Sexual side effects- Decreased libido, Anorgasmia, Delayed ejaculation Increased sweating Decreased platelet aggregation Vivid dreams Sialorrhea is a very common side effect of Clozapine.
Psychiatry
AIIMS 2018
46a92416-5681-4333-8b2e-70f85fc10632
Which of the following is not an autoimmune disorder?
Ulcerative colitis
Grave's disease
Rheumatoid ahritis
SLE
0a
single
Ans: A. Ulcerative colitis(Ref Harrison 19/e p377, 18/e p2723)Autoimmune Diseases Organ SpecificOrgan Nonspecific (Systemic)Grave's diseaseVitiligoSystemic lupus erythematosusHashimoto's thyroiditisAutoimmune hemolytic anemiaRheumatoid ahritisAutoimmune polyglandular syndromeAutoimmune thrombocytopenic purpuraSystemic necrotizing vasculitisType 1 diabetes mellitusPernicious anemiaGranulomatosis with polyangitisInsulin-resistant diabetes mellitusMyasthenia gravis(Wegener's)Immune-mediated infeilityMultiple sclerosisAntiphospholipid syndromeAutoimmune Addison's diseaseGuillain-Barre syndromeSjogren's syndromPemphigus vulgarisStiff-man syndrome Pemphigus foliaceusAcute rheumatic fever Dermatitis herpetiformisSympathetic ophthalmia Autoimmune alopeciaGoodpasture's syndrome
Medicine
null
9adb4841-8e99-4f24-8f3e-54c8d169f62b
Lesion of the marked structure affects all EXCEPT (AIIMS May 2019)
Superior rectus
Superior oblique
Inferior oblique
Medial rectus
1b
multi
Nerve pointed in diagram is oculomotor nerve (cranial nerve III) Extrinsic muscles of the eyeball are innervated by 3 cranial nerves. 3 | lateral rectus innervated by 6th cranial nerve Superior oblique by 4th cranial nerve Remaining muscles by 3rd cranial nerve. Among these 3 cranial nerves, oculomotor nerve is most medial, trochlear is most lateral & abducens pierces dura mater b/w these two at base of cranial cavity. MUSCLE OF EYE ACTION SUPERIOR RECTUS ELEVATION, ADDUCTION, MEDIAL ROTATION OF EYE BALL. LEVATOR PALPEBRAE SUPERIORIS ELEVATION OF UPPER EYELID MEDIAL RECTUS ADDUCTION OF EYEBALL. INFERIOR RECTUS DEPRESSION, ADDUCTION, LATERAL ROTATION OF EYEBALL. INFERIOR OBLIQUE ELEVATION, ABDUCTION, LATERAL ROTATION OF EYEBALL SUPERIOR OBLIQUE DEPRESSION, ABDUCTION, MEDIAL ROTATION OF EYEBALL CILIARIS AND SPHINCTER PUPILLAE CONSTRICTS CILIARY BODY & PUPIL
Anatomy
AIIMS 2019
6f1fdbc9-920f-4bff-b2eb-ba300fd9cc59
Which of these findings is not specific of blast injury?
Abrasion
Bruise
Puncture laceration
Fracture
3d
single
Ans: D. Fracture(Ref: Reddy 34/e 1)225-227, 33/e p239-240; Parikh 6/e p4.183; Sabiston 19/e p6I2-613; Bailey 26/e p430 25/e p422-423)Fracture is not specific of blast injury.Marshall's triad:Diagnostic of explosive injury.Includes bruises, abrasions & puncture lacerations.
Forensic Medicine
null
53d58d7a-d546-4b1a-88a7-fa7348ff08a5
All are secondary colonizers except
S. sanguis
P. intermedia
Fusobacteria
P. gingivalis
0a
multi
null
Dental
null
3f41f911-cf5c-4227-b32b-7efd0b2fc191
Midazolam cannot be given by which of the following routes:
Oral
Inhalation
Intra muscular
Intra venous
1b
single
null
Dental
null
018e350b-8675-4b2d-99a2-eba98fe07f31
All are signs of hydrocephalus in a neonate except –a) Enlarged headb) Sunset signc) Crack post signd) Depressed fontanelle
ab
cd
bd
ac
1b
multi
"Cracked pot or inacewan sign indicates raised intracranial pressure after sutures and fontanels have closed" Fontanelle is wide and bulging (not depressed) Signs of Increased intracranial tension in infants Separation of cranial sutures —> Earliest sign Wide bulging anterior fontanelle Increased head circumference Papilledema does not occur in infants because separation of sutures and open fontanelle compensate for increase in the intracranial pressure. However, if ICT rises very rapidly papilledema may occur. Macewan or cracked pot sign occurs after sutures and fontanelle have closed (not in neonate) Projectile vomiting Headache -3 Particularly in early morning Diplopia & sixth nerve palsy Sun set sign --> Eyes deviate downward because of impingement of the dilated suprapineal recess.
Pediatrics
null
5969f19a-3697-4e23-a8de-b63dbe06997e
Regarding Influenza, not true statement is
Secondary attack rate 5-15%
Virus shedding present before the patient presents with symptoms
1-5 years age is not a high risk age group
Aquatic birds are reservoir
2c
multi
- High risk age group of influenza include, - those > 65 years & - those < 5 years
Social & Preventive Medicine
AIIMS 2019
65491c14-e081-4a90-94be-d0db9ef0325f
A 13 year old girl with soft painful swelling on posterior aspect of thigh. Color Doppler showed multiple venous channels without any major arterial feeder. All of the following are liquid embolizing agents except
Cyanoarylate
Sodiumtetradecyl sulphate
Polyvinyl alcohol
Absolute alcohol
2c
multi
Polyvinyl alcohol is not a liquid embolizing agent.
Surgery
null
17529d1c-10a7-46d0-8f1c-070aa64234e5
Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of multiple myeloma?
Increased Ig levels in serum
Positive ANA
Plasmacytosis
M spike on electrophoresis
1b
single
Ans. B. Positive ANASerum electrophoresis: Abnormal spike in the region of gamma globulin (myeloma spike) is present in 90% of cases.* Bone marrow plasmacytosis in multiple myeloma is characteristically more than 30%.* The immunoglobulin least commonly involved in Multiple Myeloma is IgD.* The immunoglobulin most commonly involved in Multiple Myeloma is IgG. - Low haemoglobin, - high ESR (usually very high), - increased total protein, - A/G ratio reversed, - increased serum calcium, - normal alkaline phosphatase. - Urine: Bence Jones proteins are found in 30% of cases.
Medicine
null
955c6422-0b51-40dd-b6ea-bb0e88ffa035
All are true about enamel rods except
Length of enamel rods is same as the thickness of enamel
Enamel rods are narrow at DEJ and wide at tooth surface.
Under light microscope seen as Fish scale
Tail is more resistant to caries than the core
0a
multi
Enamel rods have wavy path, hence length of enamel rod is more than the thickness of the enamel.
Dental
null
44588787-ffcc-4c4c-b31b-5616520ee30f
Nausea and vomiting postoperatively can be because of all except
Blood ingested
N2O
Opioid
Acetaminophen
3d
multi
null
Pharmacology
null
9859d4a2-274f-47eb-b20f-ca5309440793
Disease caused by Staphylococcus aureus which is not mediated through a toxin is
Food poisoning
Septicemic shock
Toxic shock syndrome
Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome
1b
single
Answer- B. Septicemic shockSepticemia is mainly due to endotoxin like activity as seen in Gram-negative bacilli and not due to exotoxin. Clinically, Staphylococcus aureus sepsis presents like that documented for sepsis due to other bacteria. Septicemic shock is not directly caused due to toxins and other virulence factors play a role like protein A, fibrinolysin and coagulase, which are anti-phagocytic, suppress host immunity and helps in the spread of infection. Septicemia is mainly due to endotoxin tike activity as seen in Gram-negative bacilli and not due to exotoxin. S.aureus produces free types of toxin: cytotoxins, pyrogenic toxin superantigens, and exfoliative toxins. Both epidemiologic data and studies in animals suggest that antitoxin antibodies are protective against illness in TSS' staphylococcal food poisoning, and staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS). Illness develops after toxin synthesis and absorption and the subsequent toxin-initiated host response
Microbiology
null
7c521214-ce91-4932-8158-f97bf43d4aac
Which of the following Slatements is not true?
Parathyroid hormone-related protein is responsible for causing hypercalcemia in cancer patients
The unionized fraction of calcium in the plasma is an impoant determinant of PTH secretion
Mg2+ influences PTH secretion in the same direction as Ca2+ but is a less potent secretagogue
Ca2+influences PTH secretion by acting on a calcium sensor G-protein coupled receptor located in the parathyroid gland
1b
multi
Ans. b. The unionized fraction of calcium in the plasma is an impoant determinant of PTH secretion"Circulating ionized calcium acts directly on the parathyroid glands in a negative feedback fashion to regulate the secretion of PTH."Magnesium is required to maintain normal parathyroid secretory responses. Impaired PTH release along with diminished target responses to PTH account fir the hypocalcaemia that occasionally occurs in magnesium deficiency
Medicine
null
14085677-1f80-45fe-a525-0118e462b77c
Latest technique by which bone graft is obtained without damaging vital structure, vessels/veins is based on?
Piezoelectric vibration
Osteotome
Ultrasonic/soft lasers
Electrocautery
0a
single
null
Dental
null
4bab5fce-dd4d-4196-906d-11354ffa1c8d
Which of the following is not a cause of Squamous cell Carcinoma for Head & Neck:
EBV
HPV
Betel Nut
Vitamin A
3d
single
Risk factors for head and neck cancer Tobacco Alcohol Prolonged sun exposure Viruses (HPV) & (EBV) Gender M>F, age > 40yrs Poor oral / dental hygiene; betel nut consumption Environmental or occupational factors Poor nutrition - vitamin A & B deficiency, iron deficiency In question they have mentioned vitamin A NOT vitamin A deficiency
ENT
AIIMS 2019
9ed9f8aa-4e8c-4b69-adcf-e7c6093d3926
Health education includes all except
Development of reflexive behavior
Appeals to reason
Positive instilled behaviour
People to think for themselves
0a
multi
null
Dental
null
da70d380-7647-4452-8dbb-ade1663b6d5b
A 36 year old female is found to have a large pituitary mass on MRI imaging. She underwent transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. Postop replacement of which of the following hormone is not needed?
L-Thyroxine
Estradiol
Glucocoicoids
Mineralocoicoids
3d
single
Aldosterone is majorly regulated by K+ & plasma volume The following factors play essential roles in aldosterone regulation: 1. | K+ concentration in ECF - | Aldosterone 2. | Angiotensin concentration in ECF - | Aldosterone3. | Na++ in ECF - decreases aldosterone very slightly4. ACTH from anterior pituitary - necessary for aldosterone sec but has little effect on controlling the rate of secretion in most physiological conditions. ACTH appears to play a permissive role in regulation of aldosterone of these, K+ ion conc. & RAAS are the most potent in regulating aldosterone secretion. Regulated by Hormone TSH Thyroid FSH Estrogen ACTH Glucocoicoids
Physiology
AIIMS 2019
e1a006e0-911e-407d-93d5-ce39ae7f6137
Recently two methods of cPAP; conventional and bubble cPAP were compared. In the conventional method, 90 out of 160 showed extubation failure while 40 out of 160 showed extubation failure in bubble method, which test would be the best to compare the statistical significance between the rates of extubation failure in the two tests?
Chi square test
Student's test
Paired t test
Analysis of variance
0a
single
null
Dental
null
91a17b74-aed0-4875-8808-3561874556ed
Which is not true
Actinomycin D is a mono clonal antibody
Actinomycin D is not a cell specific but It's a cell cycle specific
Vinblastine is not a cell specific but its a cycle/phase specific
None of above
1b
multi
null
Dental
null
727846e5-b373-427f-bf08-541ec8c75262
A patient complains of loss of visual acuity, deafness and enlargement of maxilla:
Paget's disease
Osteomalacia
Fibrous dysplasia
Osteogenesis imperfecta
0a
single
null
Pathology
null
2c37d934-7b5e-4e0d-9b34-55ae75466301
Which of the following structure is not removed in radical neck dissection-
Spinal accessory nerve
Submandibular
Tail of parotid
Level 2 b lymph nodes
2c
single
Answer- CStructures removed during radical neck dissection-The classic operation involves resection of the cervical lymphatics and lymph nodes and those structures closely associated:the internal jugular vein,the accessory nerve,the submandibular gland, andthe sternocleidomastoid muscle.
Surgery
null
ce496f69-f41a-4589-9da2-c8bdb4a87226
Contraindication of band and Loop space maintainer are all except
High caries susceptibility
Single tooth missing in posterior region
Moderate to severe space loss
Lower anterior crowding
1b
multi
null
Dental
null
27c7d7fa-8a10-4b19-9c70-36002caff287
Following are true about bronchial cyst except –
Mostly mediastinal
50–70% occur in lungs
Usually multiloculated
Are infected quite often
1b
multi
Only 15% of bronchogenic cysts occur in lungs (pulmonary parenchyma). Bronchogenic cysts Bronchogenic cyst is a congenital lung defect, which develops from abnormal lung budding of primitive foregut. Most of the bronchogenic cyst arise in the mediastinum, where they are usually located in the mid mediastinum  near carina. About 15% of Bronchogenic cyst also occurs in pulmonary parenchyma. When located in the lung they are more common in right lung and lower lobe. They are lined by cuboidal or ciliated columnar epithelial cells and are usually filled with mucoid material. Complications of Bronchogenic cyst :- Infection of the cyst leading to lung abscess (illediastinal bronchogenic cysts do not communicate with the bronchi but those situated within the lung may communicate with the airways leading to abscess formation). Compression can produce either hyperinflation of the lung or atelactasis due to obstruction. Tension pneumothorax (d/t rupture of cyst that communicates with bronchus).
Pediatrics
null
2bd4a99b-c158-4dac-8632-ae800f490a9e
An investigator wants to study the association between maternal intake of iron supplements (Yes or No) and birth weights (in gm) of new born babies. He collects relevant data from 100 pregnant women and their newborns. What statistical test of hypothesis would you advise for the investigator in this situation?
Chi-square test
Unpaired or independent t - test
Analysis of variance
Student t — test
1b
single
null
Dental
null
d95f1158-fa4b-4229-98c5-40f4dc2bacec
A 3.5 kg male infant born at term after an uncomplicated pregnancy and delivery develops respiratory distress sholy after bih and requires mechanical ventilation. The chest radiograph reveals a normal cardiothymic silhouette but a diffuse ground glass appearance to the lung fields. Surfactant replacement fails to improve gas exchange. Over the first week life, the hypoxemia worsens. Results of routing culture and echocardiographic findings are negative. A term female sibling died at 1 month of age with respiratory distress. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Neonatal pulmonary alveolar proteinosis
Meconium aspiration
Total anomalous pulmonary venous return
Disseminated herpes simplex infection
0a
single
Ans: A. Neonatal pulmonary alveolar proteinosis(Ref. Nelson 20/e p852, 2119)Suggestive of neonatal pulmonary alveolar proteinosis.Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis:Disorder characterized by intra-alveolar accumulation of pulmonary surfactant.Two clinically distinct forms of pulmonary alveolar proteinosis are seen:Fatal form: Presenting sholy after bih (congenital PAP)Gradually progressive form: Presenting in older infants & children.Clinical manifestation:Immediately apparent in the newborn period & rapidly leads to respiratory failure.Clinically and radiographically indistinguishable from more common disorders of the newborn that lead to respiratory failure including pneumonia, generalized bacterial infection, respiratory distress syndrome and total anomalous pulmonary venous return with obstruction.
Pediatrics
null
2dd32cdf-f8c0-43d1-9d73-0b6e0d6a5216
Lingually placed mandibular posteriors will cause all, except
Gagging
Speech difficulties
Excessive pressure on ridge
Tongue interference
2c
multi
null
Dental
null
87e68531-25dc-4647-a84c-28b40279d8fe
An affected male does not have affected children but an affected female always has affected children. Type of inheritance?
X linked recessive
Autosomal recessive
X linked dominant
Mitochondrial
3d
single
Mitochondrial inheritance- an affected female passes disease to all her offspring but the affected male can not. Because mitochondrial dna is present in cytoplasm, the child receives cytoplasm and mitochondria of the mother's ovum. Diseases of mitochondrial inheritance- Kearn sayre syndrome Leber hereditary optic neuropathy MELAS (Mitochondrial encephalopathy, lactic acidosis, stroke like syndrome) MERRF (myoclonic epilepsy with ragged red fibres) NARP ( neuropathy ataxia retinitis pigmentosa) CPEO (Chronic progressive external ophthalmoplegia) Pearson syndrome.
Pediatrics
AIIMS 2019
3e2eed94-4bdb-4c13-9cfa-f267716b34d4
A 2-year-old child with fever and barking cough for last 2 days presented to the pediatric emergency at 2.30 am. On examination, respiratory rate is 36/ min, temperature of 39 degC and stridor heard only on crying. No other abnormality is found. What is the next best step in management?
High-dose dexamethasone
Racemic epinephrine nebulization
Reassurance
Intravenous antibiotics
0a
multi
Ans: A. High-dose dexamethasone(Ref Ghai 8/e p376, 398: Nelson 20/e p2032-2034)Diagnostic of laryngotracheobronchitis or croup of mild severity.Hence, high-dose dexamethasone will be the treatment of choice.Treatment:Cornerstone of Treatment: Glucocoicoids & nebulized epinephrinedegGlucocoicoids:Useful in mild, moderate & severe croup.Dexamethasone is most effective coicosteroid. Nebulized epinephrine:Useful in moderate to severe distress.By adrenergic stimulation causes,Constriction of precapillary aerioles.Decreases capillary hydrostatic pressure leading to fluid resorption from interstitium.Improvement in laryngeal mucosal edema.Antibiotics are not indicatedHeliox (mixture of oxygen & helium) has low viscosity & low specific gravity.Allows for greater laminar airflow through respiratory tract.Considered in treatment of children with severe croup.
Pediatrics
null
d54441de-71d8-45b6-9a0a-b394581af745
Coarctation of aorta is associated with all, except –
Turner's syndrome
Bicuspid aortic valve
Pulmonary stenosis
Atresia of aortic arch
2c
multi
Coarctation of Aorta is a quite common structural abnoimality. Males are affected twice often as females although females with Turner syndrome frequently have a coarctation. Two classic forms of coarctation ofAorta have been described. 1) An infantile form with tubular hypoplasia of the Aortic arch proximal to a P A that is often asymptomatic in childhod. (This is known as coarctation syndrome). 2)An "adult" form in which there is discrete ridge like infolding of the Aorta just opposite to closed ductus arteriosus. Although coarctation of Aorta may occur as a solitary defect it is accompanied by - Bicuspid aortic valve in 50% cases and may be associated with -: Congenital Aortic stenosis, ASD, VSD, mitral regurgitation and Berry aneurysm of the circle of willis.
Pediatrics
null
aa1f0b19-488f-475f-b792-397b41536ca7
Which of the following structures is not found in a living pulp?
Collagen fibres
Haversian fibres
Non-myelinated nerve fibres
Reticulum
1b
single
null
Dental
null
4f3977a7-1243-421b-a401-63aa119c0e66
Which of the following drugs is not used in detoxifica-tion of chronic alcoholics?
Flumazenil
Disulfiram
Acamprosate
Naltrexone
0a
single
Ans: A. Flumazenil(Ref: Goodman Gilman 12/e p468; Kaaung 13/e p3 7 7, 394, 12/e p381, 399; KDT 6/e p385; Harrison 19/e p2727, 8/c 1)2727)Flumazenil:GABAa receptor antagonist.Used intravenously to treat benzodiazepine overdoses.Help reverse anesthesia.Not used in alcohol detoxification.Rest given drugs have a role in alcohol detoxification.
Pharmacology
null
ccb55b07-8a29-4e45-a38c-8f0db374c703
CA maxillary sinus stage III (T3 No Mo), treatment of choice is / Ca maxillary sinus is treated by -
Radiotherapy
Surgery + Radiotherapy
Chemotherapy
Chemotherapy + Surgery
1b
single
null
ENT
null
6b874c35-3e1a-4158-b37c-34fd4c6350a7
A 15 years old boy presents with loose motions and intermittent abdominal pain over the past 1 year. Wet mount stool specimen showed the presence of multiple ova, which are more than 100 p in diameter. The causative organism for the disease shall not include:
Fasciola gigantica
Gastrodiscoides hominis
Echinostoma ilocanum
Opistorchis viverrini
3d
multi
Answer- D (Opistorchis viverrini)Inhabit the bile duct of fish eating animalsCaused by ingestion of raw or under cooked freshwater fishAbdominal discomfo, gasFatigue is typicalAssociated with bile duct cancer
Microbiology
null
aceab90d-6cc0-4cac-82d4-8fcda05ea933
8 year old child had fractured his maxillary central incisor 10 months ago. The pulp shows no response. There is no periapical lesion in the radiograph. The treatment of choice is
Ca(OH)2 Pulp capping
Formocresol pulpotomy
Conventional root canal treatment
Complete debridement and apexification
3d
single
null
Dental
null
6a906cd3-6215-401c-80c5-c239ce10f06e
All the following are seen in thyrotoxicosis except
Tremor
Increased temperature
Slow pulse rate
Exophthalmos
2c
multi
null
Surgery
null
73e6bf44-0d77-408b-8610-ad1f6e4b3734
6 yr old child H/O fever 5 days back which is now afebrile with normal muscle mass, tone and reflex, no neurological deficit but pain on palpating muscles and CPK levels 2000, diagnosis is
GBS
Dermatomyositis
DMD
Acute viral myositis
3d
single
Ans.D. Acute viral myositisThe clinical picture suggests the most probable diagnosis is Viral myositis. The specific history of URI suggests influenza myositis. Infectious myositis has a male predominance and are typically seen in young adults. The typical presentation of the childhood form includes fever, malaise, and rhinorrhea which is usually followed in 1-7 days by severe pain, especially in the calves. The muscle pain is usually worse with movement and the symptoms last for about a week. Muscle weakness, tenderness, and swelling are usually seen with more severity in adults and the Proximal muscles are affected predominantly.In children, toe walking and wide-based gait may be seen because of the involvement of the gastrocnemius-soleus muscles. Lab features of influenza myositis includeElevated CK may be as high as 500 times normalUrine myoglobin is usually positive
Pediatrics
null
0df1e153-5d4b-44b2-bd64-8e14c181a974
MHC antigens are absent on?
Platelet
Erythrocyte
Neutrophil
Monocyte
1b
single
Ans: B. Erythrocyte(Ref: Ananthanarayan 10/e p141-143, 8/e p 132-135)MHC antigens:Absent on erythrocytes.HLA antigens:Class 1 antigens (A, B and C) - Found on surface of viually all nucleated cells.Principal antigens.Involved in graft rejection & cell-mediated cytolysis.Function as components of hormone receptors.HLA class II antigens:More restricted in distribution.Found only on cells of immune system-macrophages, dendritic cell activated T cells & mainly on B cells.
Pathology
null
ea95e89d-6de0-424d-968e-b1af4512871f
92. A clinical trail was conducted with 15225 hypeensive patients alloted in the intervention group (New drug) and control group (Old drug) respectively. Results of the research study are given in the following table. Calculate the absolute risk reduction (ARR) and relative risk (RR): Control group (old drug)Intervention group (new drug)Developed HT complications18001620Did not develop HT complications1342513605Total subjects1522515225
ARR = 10% and RR = 0.9
ARR = 1% and IZR = 9
ARR = 1% and RR = 0.9
ARIZ = 10% and RR = 9
2c
multi
Ans. C. ARR = 1% and RR = 0.9(Ref. Park 24/e p83)In the given situation, absolute risk reduction (ARR) is 1% and relative risk (RR) is 0.9.Relative Risk (RR)Attributable Risk (AR)Population Attributable Risk (PAR)RR=IExp/INon-Exp AR=(IExp-INon-Exp)/INon-ExpX100 AR=(Total-INon-exp)/ITotalX100RR is the ratio of the risk in the exposed divided by the risk in the unexposed.AR indicates the number of cases of a disease among exposed individuals that can be attributed to that exposureIt is excess risk or risk differenceUseful measure of extent of public health problem caused by an exposure PAR indicates the number (or propoion) of cases that would not occur in a population if the factor were eliminated. Control group (old drug)Intervention group (New drug)Developed HT complications18001620Did not develop HT complications1342513605Total subjects1522515225IC = Incidence of events (hypeensive complications) in the control group = 1800/15225 = 0.118 = 11.8%IT = Incidence of events (hypeensive complications) in the treatment group = 1620/15225 = 0.106 = 10.6%Absolute risk reduction (ARR) is also known as risk difference.ARR = IC-IT = 11.8 -10.6 = 1.2%Relative risk (RR) = IT/IC = 0.106/0.118 = 0.9
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
9064db4c-83a8-4110-9a87-b4c4669bb225
Metal oxides are added in porcelain provide all except
Strength
Improve bonding
Cosmetic
Impart colour
0a
multi
null
Dental
null
825a499b-6eac-41df-b015-85662bfe6aa9
A 55 year old male presents with a lesion of 2.5*3.5 cm on lateral border of tongue with induration. There is no associated lymphadenopathy. What is the staging according to the 8th AJCC guidelines?
T2N0M0
T3N2M0
T4N3M0
T3N2M0
0a
single
Ans: A. T2N0M0Ref: AJCC Cancer staging munual I'h ed., ch-7, pg. 79,90Cancer of the lip and oral cavity TNM staging AJCC UICC 2017
ENT
null
753a7a8e-6da4-419b-9efb-0b74581d3992
A patient with Tubercular meningitis was taking ATT regularly. At end of 1 month of regular intake of drugs deterioration in sensorium is noted in condition of the patient despite good compliance for drugs. Which of the following investigations is not required as emergency condition?
MRI
NCCT
CSF examination
Liver function tests
2c
single
Answer- C. CSF examinationAltered sensorium might be due to raised intracranial tension and lumbar punctare can precipitate the ominous herniation of the brain. So, lumbar puncture (for CSF examination) is not required on emergency evaluation in the above mentioned patient.Altered sensorium in a patient of Turbercular meningitis, who was taking ATT from the last one month maybe due toHepatic encephalopathy secondary to hepatotoxicity of ATT. Hence, LFT should be performed.Diagnosis:Lumbar puncture is cornerstone of diagnosis (should not be done in cases or raised ICT).CSF examination reveals high leukocyte counto (usually predominance of lymphocytes but often with a predominance of neutrophils in the early stage), a protein content of I to 8 g/L (100 to 800 mg/dl) and a low glucose concentration.Culture of CSF is diagnostic in 80% cases.CT or MRI may show hydrocephalus and abnormal enhancement of basal cisterns or ependyma.
Medicine
null
2c7e29e5-6824-4217-af1e-7c5b40d57ea5
A 40 years old female currently on a drug for psychiatric illness and hypeension presents with NYHA class III hea failure with dyspnea, pedal edema and K+ levels of 5.5 mEq/L and creatinine 2.5 mg%. Which of the following drug is best avoided?
Carvedilol
Enalapril
Spironolactone
Digoxin
2c
single
Answer- C. Spironolactone In this case patient is having heafailure with hyperkalemia and renal dysfunction with psychiatric illness. Spironolactone and enalapril, both causes hyperkalemia hut spironolactone csuses CNS depression also. Digoxin causes hypokalemia In this patient, spironolactone should be avoided.Mechanism of ActionPharmacologic antagonist of aldosterone in collecting tubulesWeak antagonism of androgen receptorsWeak inhibitor of testosterone synthesis
Medicine
null
cb27bde3-31d6-452b-9d4e-cc6351540089
Which of the following is a soft tissue cyst which do not produce any radiographic changes
Nasolabial cyst
Nasopalatine cyst
Mid alveolar cyst
Palatine cyst
0a
single
null
Pathology
null
a6abadc2-5c2e-4dce-9cfa-1464b3be8c8d
Giemsa stained smear cannot detect
Coxiella burnetti
Baonella
Toxoplasmosis
E. Chaffnessis
0a
single
Giemsa stained smear can detect Baonella, tachyzoites of Toxoplasma Gondii, E.chaffnessis but not for CoxiellaBurnetti which causes Q fever but can be detected by serology.
Microbiology
AIIMS 2019
4aee5e25-9f51-4b6d-9950-0b6f19f7c9a0
Gardner syndrome does not include:
Osteomas
Epidermoid cysts
Osteosarcoma
Impacted permanent teeth
2c
single
null
Pathology
null
7f2895f8-0a13-45fc-bfd1-a3d5b7fbb121
Pediatric patient presented with 45 mins h/o continuous convulsions.CASE 1: SR told to give iv lorazepam but J.R cant secured iv line. Then what he has given?
Rectal diazepam
Inhalation Phenobarbital
IV carbamazepine
Subcutaneous midazolam
0a
single
Answer A. Rectal diazepamBenzodiazepines are Drug of Choice and in pediatric patients rectal route should be preffered.Reference - <a href="
Pediatrics
null
99f08890-7505-4062-9293-1f135de62e5c
A 16-year-old male complains of nasal obstruction and recurrent epistaxis for several months. On CT scan of Nose and Paranasal Sinuses, an enhancing mass is seen in the nasopharynx with minimal extension into sphenoid sinus and no lateral extension. What is the stage of this lesion?
IA
IB
IIA
IIB
1b
single
Session's/ Radowski staging for Juvenile Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma Stage I Stage I a Limited to nasal cavity / nasopharynx Stage I b Extension into one or more sinuses. Stage II Stage II a Minimal extension into pterygopalatine fossa pterygomaxillary fissure. Stage II b Fills pterygomaxillary fossa, bowing the posterior wall of maxillary antrum anteriorly extending into the orbit the inferior orbital fissure without orbital erosion. Stage II c Infratemporal fossa extension without check or pterygoid plate involvement. Stage III Stage III a Erosion of skull base (middle cranial fossa or pterygoids) with minimal intracranial spread. Stage III b Erosion of skull base with intracranial extension with or without cavernous sinus involvement.
ENT
AIIMS 2018
d9801e88-03ce-46a5-87fe-fa3d8b61fadf
A morbidly obese diabetic woman was on failed metformin therapy. She has the history of pancreatitis and family history of bladder cancer. Patient does not want to take injections. Which of the following would be suitable to reduce her glucose levels?
Liraglutide
Sitagliptin
Canagliflozin
Pioglitazone
2c
single
Ans. C. Canagliflozin Canagliflozin is a Sodium-Glucose Co-Transpoer 2 Inhibitor, given orally and reduces body weight. For the given clinical scenario, Canagliflozin is the preferred drug, as Sitagliptin increases the risk of acute pancreatitis, use of pioglitazone is associated with a small increased risk of bladder cancer and Liraglutide is given subcutaneously.
Pharmacology
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