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You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is Omega oxidation of fathy acids occur? and explain in detail?
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is A 'saphenous vein cutdown' is a procedure used to locate the great saphenous vein at the ankle. To find this vein, the skin would be incised: and explain in detail?
At the ankle, the great saphenous vein travels anterior to the medial malleolus. At the knee, it travels posterior to the medial condyle of the femur. However, saphenous cut-downs are done at the ankle, not the knee, so anterior to the medial malleolus is the correct answer. The other impoant relationship to remember is that the lesser saphenous vein travels posterior to the lateral malleolus.
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is Which of the following can be given in hepatic as well as in renal failure – and explain in detail?
None
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is During the following procedure, optimum interval between uterine incision and delivery should be less than ______ seconds. and explain in detail?
Ans. D 90 secondsRef: Datta, 8th ed. pg. 673The image shows LSCS being performed, with the head being delivered by hooking fingers carefully between the lower uterine flap. The head is delivered by elevation and flexion using the palm as fulcrum and the optimum time between the uterine incision and delivery should be less than 90 seconds.
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is All of the following show ulnar nerve injury EXCEPT: and explain in detail?
Ans. B Abductor pollicis palsyRef: BDC, 6th ed. vol. I pg. 109-110, 120* In ulnar nerve palsy grip is weak due to paralysis of intrinsic muscles (all interossei, lateral 3rd& 4th lumbricals, hypothenar and adductor pollicis muscles).* Sensory supply of ulnar nerve is medial 1 1/2 fingers.* Abductor pollicis is supplied by median nerve.* Finger drop i.e. loss of extension of metacarpophalangeal joint is seen in Radial & Posterior interosseous nerve palsySigns of Ulnar Nerve palsy (remembered as BCDEF)* Book test/Fromet sign: While holding the book between thumb and rest of hand, there is overaction of flexor pollicis longus due to adductor pollicis nerve palsy.* Claw hand: Clawing of medial 2 digits* Card test: for testing palmar interossei, i.e. adduction of fingers. (PAD)* aDDuctor pollicis paralysis: Adduction of thumb lost* Egawa's test: To test dorsal interossei i.e. abduction of fingers (DAB).* Froment signExtra Mile* In low ulnar nerve palsy forearm muscles are spared but the clawing is more (as compared to high ulnar n. palsy) this phenomenon is known as ulnar paradox.* Lower the lesion, more the clawing.
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What is Increased amylase may be seen in all of the following except: and explain in detail?
Answer is B (Appendicitis) Appendicitis alone does not cause increased amylase. Perforated appendix, may be associated with increased amylase. Causes of Hyperamvlasemia and Hyperamylasuria: Pancreatiti Disease Non Pancreatic Disorders Other Abdominal Disorders I. Pancreatitis A. Acute I. Renal insufficiency II. Salivary gland lesions I. Biliary tract disease : cholecystitis, choledocholithiasis B. Chronic : ductal obstruction A. Mumps II. Intraabdominal disease C. Complications of pancreatitis B. Calculus A. Perforated or penetrating peptic I. Pancreatic pseudocyst C. Irradiation sialadenitis ulcer 2. Pancreatogenous ascites D. Maxillofacial surgery B. Interstitial obstruction or 3. Pancreatic abscess III. Tumor hypermamylasemia infarction 4. Pancreatic necrosis A. Carcinoma of the lung C. Ruptured ectopic pregnancy II. Pancreatic trauma B. Carcinoma of the esophagus D. Peritonitis III. Pancreatic carcinoma C. Breast carcinoma, ovarian carcinoma E. Aoic aneurysm IV. Macroamylasemia F. Chronic liver disease V. Burns G. Postoperative hyperamylasemia VI. Diabetic ketoacidosis VII. Pregnancy VIII. Renal transplantation IX. Cerebral trauma X. Drugs : morphine
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What is A recognised cause of stridor in newborn – and explain in detail?
Stridor Stridor refers to the physical finding of excessively noisy breathing and is generally due to airway obstruction. Causes of Stridor in a child. Infections Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis) Epiglottitis Bacterial tracheitis Retropharyngeal abscess Congenital Laryngomalacia Vocal cord palsy Subglottic stenosis Vascular ring Saccular cyst Neoplasms Subglottic hemangioma Laryngeal papillomas Cystic hygroma, when it occurs in larynx then it can cause respiratory tract obstruction - Nelson 18th/ep. 1773
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is What is the lining of the lacrimal gland alveoli? and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Pyramidal cells Histology of lacrimal gland* Alveoli of the gland are lined by pyramidal cells, which show lightly stained apical secretary granules.* Myoepithelial cells occur between the alveolar cells and their basal lamina.* Stroma of the gland consists of loose connective tissue.* Ducts of the gland are lined by simple cuboidal epithelium.* The lacrimal gland is a compound tubuloacinar gland, it is made up of many lobules separated by connective tissue, each lobule contains many acini. The acini contain only serous cells and produce a watery serous secretion.* Each acinus consists of a grape-like mass of lacrimal gland cells with their apices pointed to a central lumen.* The central lumen of many of the units converge to form intralobular ducts, and then they unite to from interlobular ducts. The gland lacks striated ducts.
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is 6 weeks old female baby found unconscious suddenly in the crib. She was previously healthy. Normal blood pressure, hyperpigmentation of genitals, blood glucose 30 mg/dl. Diagnosis is aEUR' and explain in detail?
Familial glucocoicoid deficiency Familial glucocoicoid deficiency is a rare autosomal recessive condition. It is characterized by adrenal insufficiency. The pathological examination of the adrenal gland reveals that:- This causes low coisol concentration because the zona fasciculata is primarily responsible for glucocoicoid production. Because the zona glomerulosa is well preserved mineralocoicoid action is usually unaffected. Low circulating serum coisol results in lack of feedback inhibition to the hypothalamus which results in increased ACTH secretion from pituitary. Clinical features Patients with .familial glucocoicoid deficiency generally presents with signs and symptoms of adrenal insufficiency with the impoant distinction that mineralocoicoid production is always normal. The most common initial presenting sign is "deep hyperm,ementation" of the skin, mucous membrane or both as a result of the action of adrenocoicotrophic hormone (ACTH) on cutaneous melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH) receptors. The symptoms are compatible with glucocoicoid deficiency. Many patients presents 4vith recurrent hypoglycemia or severe infections. - In the neonatal period, frequent presenting signs include - feeding problems, failure to thrive, regurgitation and hypoglycemia manifesting as seizures
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is Longest acting glucocorticoids is: and explain in detail?
None
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is Which of the following is associated with hypersensitive pneumonitis and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'c' Byssinosis None of the options mentioned are known to cause hypersensitivity pneumonitis but out of these Byssinosis is most closely related to Hypersensitivity pneumonitis.Hypersensitivity pneumonitis describes a spectrum of immunologically mediated*, predominantly interstitial lung disorders caused by intense, often prolonged exposure to inhaled organic dusts and related occupational antigens.Etiology: Inhalation of organic dust most commonly spores of thermophilic fungi*.Depending on the occupation or exposure of specific antigen numerous names have been given to hypersensitivity pneumonitis.Farmer's lung - Thermophilic actinomycete on Mouldy hay or grain dust*.Pigeon breeder's lung - Proteins from serum excreta or feathers of the birds.Air conditioner lung (or Humidifier lung) - Thermophilic bacteria in heated water reservoirs.Also rememberHypersensitivity pneumonitis in a type III & Type IV (both) hypersensitivity reaction*.
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is A 20-year-old male presented to the OPD with a deep boring pain in the upper end of left tibia which worsened at night/while walking and is relieved by rest. On examination, there is effusion in the knee joint along with tenderness and thickening of the bone. X-ray of the concerned area was taken. MRI of the concerned area was also done. and explain in detail?
Brodie abscess is an intraosseous abscess related to a focus of subacute pyogenic osteomyelitis. It has a predilection for ends (metaphysis) of tubular bones: Proximal/distal tibial metaphysis (most common) Carpal and tarsal bones Rarely traversing the open growth plate; epiphysis (in children and infants). X-ray features: - Lytic lesion often in an oval configuration that is oriented along the long axis of the bone Surrounded by a thick dense rim of reactive sclerosis that fades imperceptibly into surrounding bone Periosteal new-bone formation +/- adjacent soft-tissue swelling MRI features: - The penumbra sign is a characteristic magnetic resonance (MR) feature of subacute osteomyelitis. It is seen as a discrete peripheral zone of marginally higher signal intensity than the central bony abscess cavity and the surrounding lower signal intensity of the reactive new bone and edema.
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is Which of the following is not a major criteria for diagnosis of multiple myeloma? and explain in detail?
"Lytic bone lesions" is not a major criteria for the diagnosis of multiple myeloma. It is a minor criteria for the diagnosis of multiple myeloma. So "Lytic bone lesions" is the single best answer of choice. Ref: The Washingtom Manual of Surgical Pathology: Depament of Pathology By Peter A Humphrey, Loius P.Dehner, Ohn D. Pfeifer, Page 565.
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is Upon evaluation of an immediate postoperative panoramic film of a dental implant replacing tooth #30, you measure a distance of 1.5 mm from the apex of the implant to the inferior alveolar nerve canal. This is a titanium implant in an otherwise healthy patient. Which of the following actions is indicated? and explain in detail?
Implants should be placed a minimum of 2 mm from the inferior alveolar canal.
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What is Micro-Wick is used in the treatment of and explain in detail?
Microwick: It is a small wick made of polyvinyl acetate and measures 1 mm x 9 mm. It is meant to deliver drugs from external canal to the inner ear and thus avoid repeated intratympanic injections. It requires a tympanostomy tube (grommet) to be inseed into the tympanic membrane and the wick is passed through it. When soaked with drug, wick delivers it to the round window to be absorbed into the inner ear. It has been used to deliver steroids in sudden deafness and genta-micin to destroy vestibular labyrinth in Meniere's disease. Ref: Dhingra 7e pg 115.
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is Ovulation is presumed to have occurred if progesterone level is __________ on day 21 and explain in detail?
Ovulation can be safely assumed to have occurred if progesterone level exceeds 3 ng / mL on cycle day 21.
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is Overdose of vitamin A mainly affects _________ and explain in detail?
Hypervitaminosis A Common in arctic explorers who eat polar bear liver Organelle damaged in hypervitaminosis is Lysosomes Acute toxicity: Pseudotumor cerebri (headache, dizziness, vomiting, stupor, and blurred vision, symptoms that may be confused with a brain tumor) and exfoliative dermatitis. In the liver, hepatomegaly and hyperlipidemia Chronic toxicity: If intake of > 50,000 IU/day for > 3 months Weight loss, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, bony exostosis, bone and joint pain, decreased cognition, hepatomegaly progresses to cirrhosis In pregnancy, retinoids cause teratogenic effects. ref DM Vasudevan 8th ed page 457
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is De Quervains thyroiditis and explain in detail?
De Quervains thyroiditis, also known as subacute granulomatous thyroiditis or giant cell thyroiditis, is a member of the group of thyroiditis conditions known as resolving thyroiditis. People of all ages and genders may be affected. Presentation Patients will experience a hyperthyroid period as the cellular lining of colloid spaces fails, allowing abundant colloid into the circulation, with neck pain and fever. Patients typically then become hypothyroid as the pituitary reduces TSH production and the inappropriately released colloid is depleted before resolving to euthyroid. The symptoms are those of hyperthyroidism and hypothyroidism. In addition, patients may suffer from painful dysphagia. There are multi-nucleated giant cells on histology. Thyroid antibodies can be present in some cases
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is Transverse lie is caused by all except ? and explain in detail?
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is Which of the following drug cause the following effect? (colonoscopic view) and explain in detail?
Bismuth cause tongue and stool discoloration. Senna(irritant purgative) cause colon pigmentation - melanosis coli. ref: katzung 12th ed
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What is Quartz tungsten light cure device, minimum output of energy should not be less than and explain in detail?
None
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is PQLI lies between: and explain in detail?
Ans. (c) 0 and 100Ref: K. Park 23rd ed. /17PQLI (Physical Quality of Life IndexHDI (Human Development Index)Literacy rateLiteracy rateInfant mortality rateIncomeLife expectancy (at 1 year)Life expectancy () birth)Range: 0 and 100Range: 0 and +1Value in India: 650.547Also Know* Range of correlation coefficient; 1 to +1
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is A 60 year old male presented with acute chest pain of 4 hours duration. Electrocardiographic examination revealed new Q wave with ST segment depression. He succumed to his illness within 24 hours of admission. The hea revealed presence of a transmural haemorrhagic area over the septum and anterior wall of the left ventricle. Light microscopic examination is most likely to reveal: and explain in detail?
Patient had a myocardial infarction, histology of the cardiac muscle fibres done at 24 hours after an MI shows necrotic myofibres with presence of neutrophils. Ref: Robbins Pathology, 6th Edition, Page 558
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is Ponatinib and explain in detail?
Ponatinib (trade name Iclusig eye-KLOO-sig, previously AP24534) is an oral drug developed by ARIAD Pharmaceuticals for the treatment of chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) and Philadelphia chromosome–positive (Ph+) acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL). It is a multi-targeted tyrosine-kinase inhibitor. Some forms of CML, those that have the T315I mutation, are resistant to current therapies such as imatinib. Ponatinib has been designed to be effective against these types of tumors.The United States Food and Drug Administration approved the drug as a candidate in December 2012, but temporarily suspended sales on 31 October 2013 because of "the risk of life-threatening blood clots and severe narrowing of blood vessels". This suspension was partially lifted on Dec. 20, 2013 with ponatinib being issued revised prescribing information, a new "Black Box Warning" and a "Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy" in place to better evaluate the risks and benefits of using the drug. In the US it can cost $138,000 a year, which has been criticized. Approvals and indications Ponatinib was approved by the US FDA on December 14, 2012, for patients with resistant or intolerant CML and Ph+ ALL, based on results of the PACE phase II trial reported days earlier at the annual ASH meeting. Because the approval was under the FDA Accelerated Approval program the applicant was required to carry out additional studies. Based on these additional studies, the FDA granted in 2016 full approval and updated the label to include patients with chronic phase, accelerated phase, or blast phase chronic myeloid leukemia and Philadelphia chromosome-positive acute lymphoblastic leukemia for whom no other tyrosine kinase inhibitor therapy is indicated. Approval was also granted for T315I-positive and T315I-positive Philadelphia chromosome positive acute lymphoblastic leukemia. Adverse effects The United States Food and Drug Administration issued a partial clinical hold on new trial enrollment for ponatinib on October 9, 2013, due to an increased number of blood clots observed in patients taking the drug. The EPIC trial was later canceled on October 18. Subsequent studies of 449 patients treated during 4 years with ponatinib for chronic phase chronic myelogenous leukemia found the following adverse reactions. 150 Patients experienced cardiac vascular (21% of patients), peripheral vascular (12%), and cerebrovascular (9%) arterial occlusive events. Venous thromboembolic events occurred in 6% of patients. The most common all-grade adverse events included hypertension (69%), rash (63%), abdominal pain (48%), fatigue (47%), headache (43%), arterial ischemia (42%), dry skin (42%), constipation (41%), arthralgia (32%), nausea (28%), pyrexia (26%), peripheral neuropathy (24%), myalgia (24%), pain in extremity (23%), back pain (21%), and diarrhea (20%). In addition, there have been reported cases of the posterior reversible encephalopathy syndrome. Recently, an analogue of ponatinib was developed that retained anti-tumor efficacy but had reduced cardiovascular toxicity in experimental models. Clinical trials In 2010 ARIAD announced result from a Phase I study of ponatinib in patients with resistant and refractory chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) and Philadelphia-positive acute lymphoblastic leukemia (Ph+ ALL). The study demonstrated that in chronic-phase CML patients treated with ponatinib, 66 percent of patients in the trial achieved a major cytogenetic response, including 100 percent of patients who also had a T315I mutation.The PACE (Ponatinib Ph+ ALL and CML Evaluation) pivotal phase II trial started enrolling patients in September 2010 and is designed to provide definitive clinical data for regulatory approval in this setting. Good results were reported in December 2012.The EPIC (Evaluation of Ponatinib versus Imatinib in CML) phase-III trial began in June 2012 and was halted on October 18, 2013. Mechanism of action The primary target for ponatinib is BCR-ABL, an abnormal tyrosine kinase that is the hallmark of CML and Ph+ ALL. CML is characterized by an excessive and unregulated production of white blood cells by the bone marrow due to a genetic abnormality that produces the BCR-ABL protein. After a chronic phase of production of too many white blood cells, CML typically evolves to more aggressive phases such as accelerated or blast crisis. Ph+ ALL is a subtype of acute lymphoblastic leukemia that carries the Ph+ chromosome that produces BCR-ABL. It has a more aggressive course than CML and is often treated with a combination of chemotherapy and tyrosine kinase inhibitors
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is All of the following syndromes are associated with AML except – and explain in detail?
Etiology of AML Hereditary - Down syndrome, Klinefelter syndrome, Patau syndrome, Fanconi anemia, Bloom syndrome, Ataxia telangiectasia, Kotsman syndrome. Radiation Chemical and other exposure Benzene, smoking, ethylene oxide, paint, herbicide and pesticides. Drugs Alkalating agents, Topoisomerase II inhibitors, Chloramphenicol, phenylbutazone and less commonly chloroquine, thethoxypsoralen can result in bone marrow failure that may result in AML. Note : Turner syndrome also causes leukemia - Nelson 18th/e p. 2117 table 495.1
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is A 57 year old recently retired demolitions worker complains of increasing shoness of breath. The patient was a chronic heavy cigarette smoker through his adult life but quit about a year before presentation. A chest CT was performed.Which of the following steps is not appropriate in the evaluation of this patient? and explain in detail?
A. PA chest radiograph shows a large mass in the left upper lobe (arrow). B. Coronal contrast-enhanced CT study shows a left upper lobe lung mass (arrow). C. Axial CT study shows a left upper lobe lung mass (white arrow) and enlarged mediasintal lymph nodes (black arrow). D. Axial CT study shows multiple liver masses (arrows) Answer: (d), follow-up CT in 3 to 6 months to document stability of the lesion is not an appropriate next step in evaluation of this patient, and thus (d) is the correct answer. Positron emission tomography (PET scan) is an appropriate next step, which would be expected to show hypermetabolism in the lesion as well as any metastatic deposits, and thus (a) is not the correct answer. Bronchoscopy with sampling of the lesion is an appropriate next step, and therefore (b) is not the correct answer. Computed tomography directed biopsy of the lesion is also an appropriate next step, and thus (d) is not the correct answer.
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is Which of the following is the most impoant effector pathway for action of Nitric Oxide: and explain in detail?
The most impoant effector pathway for NO is activation of the soluble form of guanylyl cyclase. Soluble guanylate cyclase (sGC) catalyses the conversion of guanosine 5&;-triphosphate (GTP) to cyclic guanosine 3&;5&;-monophosphate (cGMP) Ref: Harper
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is Targetoid hemosiderotic hemangioma and explain in detail?
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is A 35-year-old man is admitted after severing his arm on industrial machinery. His airway is patent and there is no identifiable hindrance to breathing. Hispulse is 110 beats/min, blood pressure is 130/105 mmHg, and respiratory rate is 25 breaths/min. Which stage of shock is this patient in? and explain in detail?
The following table illustrates the clinical signs of the different stages of hypovolaemic shock. Class I Class II Class III Class IV Percent blood loss Up to 15 15-30 30-40 >40 Pulse rate <100 >100 >120 >140 Blood pressure Normal Normal | | Pulse pressure Normal | | | Respiratory rate 14-20 20-30 30-40 >35 Urine output (mL/h) >30 20-30 5-15 <5 Mental status Slight anxiety Mild anxiety Anxious, confused Confused
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is Vasomotor reversal of Dale is due to: and explain in detail?
None
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What is Which ion of hydroxyapatite crystals is substituted by Fluoride imparts more strength? and explain in detail?
None
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What is An Anganwadi worker works as a cadre for which of the following programme? and explain in detail?
An Anganwadi worker works under the ICDS scheme. Each worker caters to about 1000 population. She undergoes training for a period of 4 months and forms an impoant link of the community to the health services. Ref: Park 21st edition page: 839.
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What is The confirmatory test for pulp vitality is and explain in detail?
None
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What is All are substrates for gluconeogenesis except and explain in detail?
Substrates for gluconeogenesis- lactate,glucogenic amino acids such as alanine,glycerol,propionyl CoA.Ref: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 119
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What is Which of the follow ing causes decrease in BP - and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'c' i.e, NOo Substances which cause vasodilatation, can cause fall in BP.o Substances which cause vasoconstriction, can cause rise in BP.Vasodilators (cause decrease in BP)Vasoconstrictors (casue increase in BP)o Kinins (Bradykinin)o PGEL,o PGI, (Prostacyclin)o VTPo ANPo Nitric oxide (NO)o Adrenaline & Noradrenalineo ADM (Vasopressin)o Angiotensin IIo Endothelinso PGF2o Thromhoxane-A,
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What is One of the following is not a 5HT receptors on antagonist and explain in detail?
Lanreotide is a medication used in the management of acromegaly and symptoms caused by neuroendocrine tumors, most notably carcinoid syndrome. It is a long-acting analogue of somatostatin, like octreotide Refer kDT 6/e p166
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What is Insulin-dependent glucose transpo is through and explain in detail?
Glucose transpoers are a wide group of membrane proteins that facilitate the transpo of glucose over a plasma membrane. Because glucose is a vital source of energy for all life these transpoers are present in almost cells.GLUT4Found in adipose tissues and striated muscle (skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle). GLUT 4 Is the insulin-regulated glucose transpoer. Responsible for insulin-regulated glucose storage. Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology;24th edition; page no-434
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What is Treatment of chronic phase of CML is : and explain in detail?
None
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What is Which one of the following is the least likely cause of this patient's symptoms of retrobulbar swelling and diplopia? and explain in detail?
Answer A. DermatomyositisCerebral venous thrombosis can present with retrobulbar pain and vision changes. Risks for cerebral venous thrombosis include infections (sinus and ear), hypercoagulopathy, cancer, trauma, and the use of certain drugs. In this case, sinus infection can spread with direct extension or travel from mucosal veins to the venous sinuses.
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What is Woodruff's plexus is seen at and explain in detail?
Woodruff's Plexus - Site of posterior epistaxis in adults. Plexus of veins situated inferior to posterior end of inferior turbinate Ref: Dhingra 7e pg 197.
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What is Today vaginal sponge failure rate is? and explain in detail?
Ans. (b) 9%Ref: Appendix-115 for "METHODS OF CONTRACEPTION"
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What is Ann Arbor classification is used for? and explain in detail?
Robbins basic pathology 9th edition page no 442,tabke11-10 By this classification hodgkins and non hodgkins lymphoma are divided into 4stages
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What is All are true about Cubital fossa Except and explain in detail?
None
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What is Vaccines are sterilised by - and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Heat inactivation . Vaccines of nonsporing bacteria are heat inactivated in special vaccine bath at 60degC for one hour.
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What is Which of the following statements about anti-epileptics is false? and explain in detail?
prolongation of Na+ channel inactivation and suppression of high frequency firing has been demonstrated. In addition, it may directly block voltage sensitive Na+ channels, thus stabilizing the presynaptic membrane and preventing release of excitatory neurotransmitters, mainly glutamate and aspaate. Ref KD Tripati 8thh ed.
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What is When a drug is evaluated for its usefulness in controlled conditions, it is termed as a trial signifying - and explain in detail?
None
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What is Hypehyroid state is characterized by ? and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., LipolysisIn hypehyroidism all effects of thyroid hormone are aggravated :-i) Calorigenic effect :- Thyroid hormones enhance oxygen consumption, and hence the basal metabolic rate (BMR). This may be at least paly due to increase in the activity of membrane Nall(' ATPase. Thyroid hormones also increase the number and activity of mitochondria, which may be the cause or the effect of increase in oxygen consumption. By increasing the BMR, thyroid hormones raise body temperature, loss of body weight and increase urinary nitrogen loss.ii) Growth and development :- Thyroid hormones are essential for normal growth and development.iii) Carbohydrate metabolism :- Thyroid hormones have both hypoglycemic and hyperglycemic effects. The hypoglycemic effect is the increased glycolysis. The hyperglycemic effects are stimulation of glycogenolysis and glucoconeogenesis. The net effect is hyperglycemia and depletion of glycogen.iv) Fat metabolism :- Thyroid hormone stimulates both lipogenesis and lipolysis. The lipolysis exceeds lipogenesis. Thus thyroid hormones moblize fat from adipose tissue, leading to an increase in plasma concentration of FFAs.v) Protein metabolism : - Thyroid hormone has a protein anabolic effect but in large doses, it has a protein catabolic effect. Thus thyroid hormone increases both protein synthesis and protein degradation.vi) Cardiovascular effects :- The thyroid hormones increase the hea rate, cardiac contractility, stroke volume and cardiac output, and consequently also the systolic BP. But the diastolic BP may fall due to vasodilatation in several vascular beds with decrease in peripheral vascular resistance. The cardiovascular effects of thyroid hormones are paly mediated by potentiation of effects of catecholamines.vii) GIT :- Thyroid hormones increase GI secretion, absorption and motility.viii) Nervous system :- Thyroid hormones are essential for normal formation of synapses and myelination in the developing brain.ix) Respiratory system :- Thyroid hormones increase the rate and depth of respiration.About option a & dIn low concentration thyroid hormone increases protein synthesis, but in high concentration (as in hypehyroidism) it is catabolic.Hypehyroidism causes decrease in cholesterol due thyroxine induced increased LDL receptor synthesis in liver, and consequent increase in the removal of LDL from circulation.
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What is All are true regarding viral was except and explain in detail?
D i.e., Veruca vulgaris is associated with HPV7
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What is One of the following is NOT a protozoal infection and explain in detail?
None
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What is Warfarin therapy is monitored by: and explain in detail?
Ans. (a) PT INR(Ref: Wintrobe's 12th ed/pg 1489)Patients with recurrent thrombosis should receive longterm warfarin therapy at a dosage to maintain an international normalized ratio (INR) value of 2.0 to 3.0.
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What is Amputated digits are preserved in- and explain in detail?
Ans. is None Schwaz 9/e writes- "The amputated pa should be wrapped in moistened gauze and placed in a sealed plastic bag. This bag should then be placed in an ice water bath. Do not use dry ice and do not allow the pa to contact ice directly; frostbite can occur in the amputated pa, which will decrease its chance of survival after replantation. Bleeding should be controlled in the proximal stump by as minimal a means as necessary, and the stump dressed with a nonadherent gauze and bulky dressing." According to Schwaz 8th edtition answer was - Plastic bag in ice.According to it: The amputated digits should be cleansed under saline solution, wrapped in a saline-moistened gauze, and placed in a plastic bag. The plastic bag containing the pa is then placed on (not packed in) a bed of ice in a suitable container. - The amputated pa should never be immersed in nonphysiological solution such as antiseptics or alcohol.
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What is Hanup disease is mainly due to: and explain in detail?
Hanup's disease is an autosomal recessive disorder, in which there is: * Defect in neutral amino acid transpoer (tryptophan) * Failure to absorb tryptophan from intestine and also reabsorb it from kidneys =Clinical feature: Aminoaciduria i.e. tryptophan in urine Pellagra (niacin deficiency ) like symptoms (neurological and dermatologic), despite an adequate intake of both tryptophan and niacin. NORMAL AND ABNORMAL ROUTES OF TRYPTOPHAN METABOLISM
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What is Vitelline vein forms and explain in detail?
Inderbir Singh'sHuman embryology Tenth edition Pg 265 The pas of right and left vitelline that lie outside the substance of the liver undergo alterations leading to formation of poal vein 2 vitelline veins shows anastomosis before opening into sinus venosus that is 1dorsal and 2 ventral (proximal and distal). At dorsal anastomosis spleenic and superior mesentric vein joins vitelline vein poal vein is formed by:Dorsal anastomosis ventral anastomosis Right vitelline vein
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What is In a trauma patient, who is in shock was given 500ml of normal saline over 5-10 minutes. Blood pressure improved for 15 minutes and again it began to fall. Your inference is and explain in detail?
Dynamic fluid response: The shock status can be determined dynamically by the cardiovascular response to the rapid administration of a fluid bolus. In total, 250-500 mL of fluid is rapidly given (over 5-10 minutes) and the cardiovascular responses in terms of hea rate, blood pressure and central venous pressure are observed.Patients can be divided into 'responders', 'transient responders' and 'non-responders'.Responders have an improvement in their cardiovascular status that is sustained. These patients are not actively losing fluid but require filling to a normal volume status.Transient responders have an improvement, but this then reves to the previous state over the next 10-20 minutes. These patients have moderate ongoing fluid losses (either ove haemorrhage or fuher fluid shifts reducing intravascular volume). Non-responders are severely volume depleted and are likely to have major ongoing loss of intravascular volume, usually through persistent uncontrolled haemorrhage.Bailey and love 27e pg: 16
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What is Dandruff and explain in detail?
Dandruff is a skin condition that mainly affects the scalp. Symptoms include flaking and sometimes mild itchiness. It can result in social or self-esteem problems. A more severe form of the condition, which includes inflammation of the skin, is known as seborrhoeic dermatitis.The cause is unclear, but believed to involve a number of genetic and environmental factors; the condition may worsen in the winter. It is not due to poor hygiene, and the underlying mechanism involves the excessive growth of skin cells. Diagnosis is based on symptoms.There is no known cure for dandruff. Antifungal cream, such as ketoconazole, or salicylic acid may be used to try to improve the condition. Dandruff affects about half of adults, with males more often affected than females. In addition, people in all areas of the world are affected. Onset is usually at puberty, and it becomes less common after the age of 50. Signs and symptoms The main symptoms of dandruff are an itchy scalp and flakiness. Red and greasy patches of skin and a tingly feeling on the skin are also symptoms. Causes The cause is unclear but believed to involve a number of genetic and environmental factors. As the skin layers continually replace themselves, cells are pushed outward where they die and flake off. For most individuals, these flakes of skin are too small to be visible. However, certain conditions cause cell turnover to be unusually rapid, especially in the scalp. It is hypothesized that for people with dandruff, skin cells may mature and be shed in 2–7 days, as opposed to around a month in people without dandruff. The result is that dead skin cells are shed in large, oily clumps, which appear as white or grayish flakes on the scalp, skin and clothes. According to one study, dandruff has been shown to be possibly the result of three factors: Skin oil, commonly referred to as sebum or sebaceous secretions The metabolic by-products of skin micro-organisms (most specifically Malassezia yeasts) Individual susceptibility and allergy sensitivity. Microorganisms Older literature cites the fungus Malassezia furfur (previously known as Pityrosporum ovale) as the cause of dandruff. While this species does occur naturally on the skin surface of people both with and without dandruff, in 2007, it was discovered that the responsible agent is a scalp specific fungus, Malassezia globosa, that metabolizes triglycerides present in sebum by the expression of lipase, resulting in a lipid byproduct: oleic acid. During dandruff, the levels of Malassezia increase by 1.5 to 2 times its normal level. Oleic acid penetrates the top layer of the epidermis, the stratum corneum, and evokes an inflammatory response in susceptible people which disturbs homeostasis and results in erratic cleavage of stratum corneum cells. Seborrhoeic dermatitis In seborrhoeic dermatitis, redness and itching frequently occur around the folds of the nose and eyebrow areas, not just the scalp. Dry, thick, well-defined lesions consisting of large, silvery scales may be traced to the less common condition of scalp psoriasis. Inflammation can be characterized by redness, heat, pain or swelling, and can cause sensitivity. Inflammation and extension of scaling outside the scalp exclude the diagnosis of dandruff from seborrhoeic dermatitis
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What is Sedimentation coefficient of Ig E is: and explain in detail?
Ans : b 8S Ref: Ananthanarayanan 8th editionSvedberg unit - a sedimentation constant of 1 x 1013sec. Sedimentation unit is studied by ultracentrifugation - for diversity of antibody moleculeIgG -7IgA -7IgM -19Ig D -7IgE -8
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What is For how many hours can breast milk be stored in the refrigerator? and explain in detail?
Breast milk stored in the refrigerator should be used within 24 hours. Refrigerated or frozen milk should be thawed rapidly by holding under running tepid water and used completely within 24 hours after thawing. Milk should be microwaved. Expressed breast milk Stored for Room Temperature 6 hours In refrigerator 24 hours Frozen milk 3 months A difference of opinion among authors is noted regarding the refrigeration of expressed breast milk. Nelson&;s (21st edition, pgno: 324) mentions that breast milk can be refrigerated and used within 48 hours and frozen for around 6 months . However AIIMS in colloboration with WHO recommends that breast milk can be refrigerated upto 24 hours and frozen at -20oC for about 3 months . Ref: Nelson Textbook of pediatrics 20th edition Pgno: 288 Aiims Protocols in Neonatology
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What is When observations are made before and after the exposure to the factor, it is and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Paired T-test o Paired T - test : is applied to paired data when each individual gives a pair of observation, such as when observations are made both before and after the play of a factor. e.g. Pulse rate before and after administration of a drug.
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What is Skin test are used for which hypersensitivity reactions? and explain in detail?
Type I hypersensitivity reaction is IgE dependent. When a small shocking dose of an antigen is administered intradermally to a sensitised host, there will be a local wheal and flare response. This is cutaneous anaphylaxis. Cutaneous anaphylaxis ( skin test for typ I hypersensitivity ), is useful in testing for hypersensitivity and in identifying the allergen responsible in atopic diseases. Reference : Anathanarayan & paniker's 9th edition, pg no: 163,164 <\p>
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What is Bohler's angle is decreased in fracture of - and explain in detail?
Bohler's Tuber Joint Angle and Crucial Angle of Gissane are measured for Intra Articular Fractures of Calcaneum.
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What is Inhibition of glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis is caused by and explain in detail?
Insulin, a key inhibitor of hepatic glucose production, has effects on both glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesisRef: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition
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What is Arrange the steps in cellular changes in inflammation in the sequence: 1. Chemotaxis 2. Diapedesis3. Margination4. Respiratory burst 5. Phagocytosis and explain in detail?
Steps in cellular changes in inflammation: In the lumen: margination, rolling, and adhesion to endothelium Migration across the endothelium and vessel wall - Transmigration or diapedesis Chemotaxis - After exiting the circulation, leukocytes move in the tissues toward the site of injury by a process called chemotaxis Recognition of the offending agents by TLRs and other receptors Leucocyte activation Phagocytosis - involves sequential steps: Recognition and attachment of the paicle to be ingested by the leukocyte; Engulfment, with subsequent formation of a phagocytic vacuole; and Killing of the microbe and degradation of the ingested material (O2 Respiratory burst)
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What is All are contents of axilla, except and explain in detail?
AXILLA: Is a pyramidal space situated between the upper pa of the arm and the chest wall. CONTENTS: 1)Axillary aery and its branches. 2)Axillary vein and its tributaries. 3)Infraclavicular pa of the brachial plexuses. 4)Five groups of axillary lymph nodes and the associated lymphatics. 5)The long thoracic and intercostobrachial nerves. 6)Axillary fat and aerolar tissue in which the other contents are embedded. REF: BD Chaurasia 7th edition page no:50.
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What is Nesiritide is broken down by and explain in detail?
Nesiritide is a brain natriuretic (BNP) analog broken by neutral endopeptidase (NEP).Sacubitril is a drug inhibits NEP. Used now a days in ccf.Ref: Katzung 11th ed .pg 303
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What is Aschoff bodies in Rheumatic heart disease show all of the following features, except - and explain in detail?
Aschoff body is the microscopic lesion that is diagnostic of rheumatic fever. It is characterized by an area of granular fibrinoid necrosis surrounded by :- a. Histiocytes b. Lymphocytes c. Plasma cells d. Fibroblasts e. Collagen f. Anitschkow cells - Anitschkow cells are actually histiocytes which have become multinucleated to form Aschoff giant cells. Aschoff bodies can occur in any layer* of the heart but they are most commonly seen in subendocardial region* and the myocardial interstitium.
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What is A 20 years female is diagnosed to have pterygium. She does not have any clinical symptoms except lor cosmetic concern. Treatment should be - and explain in detail?
Pterygium is an asymptomatic condition in the early stages, except for cosmetic intolerance. Surgical excision is the only satisfactory treatment, which may be indicated for: (1) cosmetic reasons, (2) continued progression threatening to encroach onto the pupillary area (once the pterygium has encroached pupillary area, wait till it crosses on the other side), (3) diplopia due to interference in ocular movements. ref: A K KHURANA OPHTALMOLOGY,E4, Page-81
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What is Which of the following drug can casue thyroid dysfunction? and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Amiodarone Drugs causing hypothyroidism -o Lithiumo Sulfonamideo Phenobarbitoneo Phenytoino Amiodaroneo Paraminosalycylie acid (PAS)o Rifampicino Carbamazepine
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What is Withdrawal reflex is also known as ? and explain in detail?
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What is Irreversible cell injury - and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Mitochondrial densities Formation of amorphous densities in the mitochondrial matrix is a feature of irreversible injury.Mechanism of reversible injury Note:o Earliest change of reversible cell injury is cellular swelling.o Myelin figures (laminated structure) derived from damaged membrane of organelles and plasma membrane, first appear during reversible injury, but become more pronounced in irreversible injury.
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What is Carbamazepine in elderly patient can cause and explain in detail?
- Carbamazepine DOC for focal seizures DOC for trigeminal neuralgia Used for Diabetes insipidus Bipolar disorder Adverse effect - Release of ADH (leading to dilutional hyponatremia), Agranulocytosis, Aplastic anaemia
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What is Taste buds are absent in and explain in detail?
None
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What is Memory disturbance of ECT recovers in - and explain in detail?
Amnesia after ECT is almost always reversible within few weeks to 2 months. Remember Amnesia for the memory of 6 months before ECT → Retrograde amnesia for 6 months. Amnesia for 2 months after ECT → Antegrade amnesia for 2 months.
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What is A 50-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department unconscious following a motor vehicle accident. She is placed on telemetry to monitor her vitals continuously, and she remains hypotensive despite receiving a bolus of fluids and being placed on IV fluids. She regains consciousness and her pulse is 180/mm. Her ECG shows regularly spaced narrow, QRS complexes. No P wave is visible in most leads, but there is a small downward deflection immediately following QRS complexes in lead II. A carotid massage is performed, and her pulse is reduced to 80/rn in. Stimulation of the afferent fibres in which of the following nerves most likely resulted in the favourable response observed? and explain in detail?
None
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What is Mid-day meal programme provides and explain in detail?
Ans. (b) 1/3 calories, 1/2 proteinsRef : K. Park 23rd ed. / 661-62* Mid-day meal program is also known as National Program of Nutritional Support to primary education.* The main advantage of this program is to influence more children towards schools in order to improve the literacy.* This meal only act as a supplement and NOT as a substitute to home diet.* This meal should provide 1/3 of the total calories requirement and 1/2 of the total protein requirement.
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What is Pendred's syndrome is due to a defect in - and explain in detail?
None
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What is Mechanism of action of dantroline is? and explain in detail?
Ans. (b) Binds to ryanodine receptors to block release of Ca++Ref: Lippincott 5thed 344
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What is All of the following segments of liver drains into right hepatic duct EXCEPT: and explain in detail?
Segment III belongs to left liver and drains bile into left (not right) hepatic duct. Right liver has segment V, VI, VII and VIII which drain into right hepatic duct. Caudate lobe (segment I) drains into both right and left hepatic duct.
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What is A 40-year-old female complains of heavy menstrual bleeding and dysmenorrhoea. On USG-an echogenic area of 20 weeks of pregnancy is seen in the uterus. Tenderness is present. Most likely diagnosis is: and explain in detail?
Ans. is a, i.e. Fibroid uterusIn this case: point which favours the fibroid are1. Size of growth = 20 weeks size2. Menorrhagia and dysmenorrhea3. Age of patientThe point which goes against it is tenderness seen in uterus. (This is seen in Adenomyosis, but in adenomyosis size of uterus is never more than 10-12 weeks pregnant uterus size).Remember: In a big fibroid some tenderness can be seen due to necrosis of fibroid.
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What is All of following are anti platelet EXCEPT: and explain in detail?
Ref: KDT 6th ed. pg. 608* Antiplatelet drugs interfere with platelet function and are useful in prophylaxis of thromboembolic disorders.* Platelets express several glycoprotein (GP) receptors on their surface like GP IIa/IIIb.* These receptors are not exposed normally, but once exposed due to some injury they make the platelets sticky.* Upon injury thromboxane A2 (TXA2) and ADP produced, which expose the sticky receptors (GP IIa/ IIIb) that crosslinks the platelets, inducing aggregation.* Prostacyclin (PGI2) synthesized in the intima of blood vessel is an inhibitor of TXA2. Normally, a balance between PGI2 and TXA2 is required to control thrombus formation.Antiplatelet drugs and their target of inhibitionAntiplatelet drugsTarget of inhibitionAspirinInhibit TXA2Clopidogrel and TiclodipineInhibit ADP irreversibly by binding with P2Y12 receptorCangrelor, TicagrelorInhibit ADP reversiblyAbciximabTirofibanEptifibatideInhibit GP IIb/IIIaFibrin is associated with clotting. Agents which lyse this fibrin is known as Fibrinolytics.Overdose of fibrinolytic agents causes results in excessive intravascular fibrinolysis resulting in bleeding.Tranexamic acid is a specific antidote for fibrinolytic agents. Antifibrinolytic drugs are:* Epsilon Amino Caproic acid (EACA)* Tranexamic acid
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What is Exclusive breastfeeding is done till: and explain in detail?
Exclusive breastfeeding is recommended till the age of 6 months; thereafter 'complimentary feeding' is staed.
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What is In a family, the father has widely spaced eyes, increased facial hair and deafness. One of the three children has deafness with similar facial features. The mother is normal. Which one of the following is most likely pattern of inheritance in this case? and explain in detail?
A i.e. Autosomal dominant (most likely) Waardenburg's Syndrome (WS) is a rare autosomal dominant syndrome characterized by pigmentary disturbances (skin, hair, iris), sensorineural hearing loss, and other developmental anomalies such as dystopia canthorum (widely spaced eyes) and blepharophimosis. The syndrome that closest matches the features provided in the question is Waardeburg syndrome type-I. This is inherited as an autosomal dominant fashion and hence is the answer of exclusion. As the question does not provide us with details as to the sex of the three children, a sex linked inheritance pattern cannot be worked out. Also the combined presentation of an affected father, unaffected mother and one affected child among three children is possible with both an autosomal dominant and an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern. In absence of any more details, the answer to this question cannot be deduced through the exploration of various permutations and combinations. How both autosomal dominant and autosomal recessive inheritance can be responsible for the above combination: Autosomal Dominant Autosomal recessive (A-affected allele and a normal allele) If the disease is transmitted in an Autosomal Dominant then :Father (affected) will be either 'AA' or 'Aa' Mother (unaffected) will be 'aa' If father is AA and mother aa, the offsprings will be 1. aA - 100% affected If father is Aa and mother aa, the offsprings will Aa - 50% affected aa - 50% not affected The scenario in the above question therefore is possible autosomal dominant inheritance if father is Aa and mother is aa (A'-affected allele and 'a' normal allele) If the disease is transmitted in an Autosomal recessive form :Father (affected) will be 'AA' Mother (unaffected) may be 'aa' or 'Aa' If father is AA and mother aa, the offsprings will be 1. aA - 100% not affected, (but carriers) If father is AA and mother Aa, the offsprings will be Aa - 50% not affected, carrier AA - 50% affected The scenario in the above question therefore is possible with autosomal recessive inheritance if father is aa and mother is Aa
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What is All of the following statements are false except and explain in detail?
Ans. (a) Very severe NPDR has a 45%. chance of progression to high risk PDR within 1 yearOption a - In the ETDRS, it was found that Severe NPDR had a 15% chance and Very severe NPDR a 45% chance of progression to high risk PDR within 1 year.Option b - Contraindicated if FAZ > 1000 microns Option c - PRP should be done in multiple sittings Option d - In ETDRS study, aspirin use did not alter progression of retinopathy and did not reduce the risk of vitreous hemorrhage.
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What is Snow banking is seen in? and explain in detail?
Ans. is d i.e., Intermediate uveitis Pars planitis (Intermediate uveitis) denotes the inflammation of pars plana pa of ciliary body and most peripheral pa of the retina. Most common symptom is floaters; defective vision may also occur. Fundus examination in pars planitis reveals whitish exudates present near the ora serrata in the inferior quadrant. These typical exudates are referred as snow ball opacities. These may coalesce to form a grey white pique called snow banking.
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What is Which of the following is true of thyroid nodules during pregmancy and explain in detail?
Sonography can detect nodules if larger than 0.5cm. FNAC is excellent diagnostic method. Most thyroid carcinomas are well differentiated and have indolent course in pregnancy.
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What is Sabin Feldman dye test is used for diagnosis of: and explain in detail?
Ref. Textbook of Microbiology and Immunology BY Parija. Page. 500   Toxoplasma: Tests include Sabin-Feldman dye test, which tests for IgG antibodies ELISAs targeted at IgM, IgA and IgE Differential agglutination tests and IgG avidity tests. Sabin Feldman Dye test The test measures the total amount of antibody in serum which is capable of complement mediated killing of toxoplasma tachyzoites. Serum is diluted across a microtitre plate and the end point is the dilution at which 50% of the tachyzoites are dead
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What is The neotatal kidney achieves concertratiug ability equivalent to adult's kidney by - and explain in detail?
None
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What is Which of the following does not supply medulla oblongata? and explain in detail?
B D CHAURASIAS HUMAN ANATOMY Volume 3 Sixth edition Superior cerebellar aery ; it arises close to superior border of pons .it wind posterior along superior border of pons and middle cerebellar pedencule supply both
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What is In CSSM programme drug of choice for Pneumonia: and explain in detail?
None
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What is Galton's system is used for: and explain in detail?
Ans. Dactylography
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What is Action of ciliary muscle: and explain in detail?
Ciliary muscleIt is a ring of striated smooth muscle in the eye's middle layer (vascular layer)It controls accommodation for viewing objects at varying distances and regulates the flow of aqueous humour into Schlemm's canal.It changes the shape of the lens within the eye, not the size of the pupil which is carried out by the sphincter pupillae muscle.The muscle has only parasympathetic innervation.
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What is All of the following are suggestive of behcets Except and explain in detail?
Criteria for Bechet's syndrome Essential criteriaNon-essential criteriaOther clinical featuresRecurrent oral ulceration Painful Shallow with central yellowish necrotic base Heals without scarring Recurrent genital ulcers - scrotal scarring, do not involve glans or urethra Eye - panuveitis, retinal vasculitis Skin - Erythema nodosum, Pseudofolliculitis, Papulopustular lesions, acneform nodules Positive pathergy test Non deforming ahritis of knee, ankles Thrombophlebitis Dural vein thrombosis Mucosal ulceration of GITPulmonary aery vasculitis (Refer: Mohindra's Fundamentals of Ohopedics, 2nd edition, pg no. 527)
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What is Drug not to be given in ischemic heart disease is: and explain in detail?
Ans. (C) Isoproterenol(Ref: KDT 8/e p585)Isoproterenol is a b adrenergic agonist and is C/I in IHD as it can increase myocardial oxygen demand by causing tachycardia.
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What is A non-neoplastic hereditary bone lesion, histologically similar to central giant cell granuloma, affects children and shows a bilateral involvement of the jaws with `eye to heaven' appearance clinically is and explain in detail?
None
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What is All of the following statement regarding measles are true except -a) Rash appears first on legb) Koplik spot are seen on retinac) Long term complication may be seen in form of SSPEd) Caused by RNA viruse) I-P is 2-3 days and explain in detail?
Measles  Measles is caused by a RNA virus of paramyxovirus. Measles in also known as rubella The only source of infection is a case of measles, carriers are not known to occur. Infective period → 4 days before and 5 days after the appearance of rash. Infective material → Secretions of nose, throat and respiratory tract Age group → 6 month to 3 years. Immunity → One attack of measles generally confers lifelong immunity.  Transmission →  Droplet infection through respiratory tract Infection through conjunctiva. Incubation period → 10 days from exposure to onset of fever. 14 days from exposure to appearance of rash. 7 days for live vaccine of measles. Clinical manifestations 1) Prodromal stage Begins 10 days after the infection and lasts until day 14. Characterized by fever, coryza with sneezing and nasal discharge, redness of the eyes, lacrimation and photophobia. A day or two before the appearance of rash, Koplik's spots appear on buccal mucosa opposite the 1st and 2nd lower molars. Koplik's spots are pathognonzonic of measles. 2)    Eruptive phase Maculopapular rash which begins behind the ear and spread rapidly in a few hour over the face and neck extends doWn the body. 3) Post measles stage Weight loss                       Growth retardation           Diarrhea Cancrum oris         Reactivation of pulmonary TB      Candidiasis
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What is All of the following are true regarding diuretics except: March 2008 and explain in detail?
Ans. C: Thiazides act by inhibiting Sodium-potassium-chloride cotranspo High Efficacy diuretics: - High ceiling diuretics/Loop diuretics, such as furosemide, inhibit the body's ability to reabsorb sodium (by inhibiting sodium-potassium-chloride cotranspo) at the ascending loop in the kidney which leads to a retention of water in the urine as water normally follows sodium back into the extracellular fluid (ECF). Other examples of high ceiling loop diuretics include ethacrynic acid, torasemide and bumetanide. Medium efficacy diuretics: - Thiazide-type diuretics such as hydrochlorothiazide, Clopamide, act on the distal convoluted tubule and inhibit the sodium-chloride sympoer leading to retention of water in the urine, as water normally follows penetrating solutes. The sho-term anti-hypeensive action is based on the fact that thiazides decrease preload, decreasing blood pressure. On the other hand the long-term effect is due to an unknown vasodilator effect that decreases blood pressure by decreasing resistance. - Thiazide like diuretics includes chlohalidone, metolazone, xipamide, indapamide Weak/adjunctive drugs: - Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors inhibit the enzyme carbonic anhydrase which is found in the proximal convoluted tubule. This results in several effects including bicarbonate retention in the urine, potassium retention in urine and decreased sodium absorption. Drugs in this class include acetazolamide and methazolamide. - Potassium-sparing diuretics do not promote the secretion of potassium into the urine; thus, potassium is spared and not lost as much as in other diuretics. The term "potassium-sparing" refers to an effect rather than a mechanism or location; nonetheless, the term almost always refers to two specific classes that have their effect at similar locations: Aldosterone antagonists: spironolactone, which is a competitive antagonist of aldosterone. Aldosterone normally adds sodium channels in the principal cells of the collecting duct and late distal tubule of the nephron. Spironolactone prevents aldosterone from entering the principal cells, preventing sodium reabsorption. A similar agent is potassium canreonate. Epithelial sodium channel blockers: amiloride and triamterene. Osmotic diuretics as mannitol are filtered in the glomerulus, but cannot be reabsorbed. Their presence leads to an increase in the osmolarity of the filtrate. To maintain osmotic balance, water is retained in the urine.
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What is To control pain in long standing cancer cases, the recommended route of administration is: and explain in detail?
Oral route is the preferred route for administration of analgesics in cancer patients, even for long standing pain due to ease of dosing, reliability and convenience.
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What is An 18 year old, previously healthy female presents to the student health service with fever, vomiting, and diarrhea. On physical examination, she is hypotensive and has an erythematous, red, sunburn-like skin rash. She is currently menstruating, and has been using super absorbent tampons. Which of the following findings from a positive blood culture would confirm your suspected diagnosis? and explain in detail?
This is a multi-step microbiology question that requires you to diagnose the illness, identify the microorganism, and remember its key feature. The first pa should be easy: everything about this vignette suggests toxic shock syndrome. The organism in question is therefore Staphylococcus aureus, which is coagulase positive. All of the other choices are classic features of other impoant pathogenic microorganisms: Acid-fast organisms, refers to Mycobacteria. (In addition, Nocardia species are paially acid fast). EMB agar refers to a selective and differential medium used to isolate and identify enteric gram-negative bacteria. Gram-positive bacteria will not grow on EMB agar because the addition of eosin inhibits their growth. Non Lactose fermenters will have colorless colonies, while fermentation of this sugar will cause the colonies to appear pink or purple. Thayer-Main media is a growth medium for pathogenic Neisseria species. It contains the antibiotic vancomycin, which kills gram-positive organisms such as Staphylococcus aureus. Ref: Ray C.G., Ryan K.J. (2010). Chapter 24. Staphylococci. In C.G. Ray, K.J. Ryan (Eds), Sherris Medical Microbiology, 5e.
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What is What is common in both acute and chronic pancreatitis? and explain in detail?
Pseudo cyst typically arise following an attack of acute pancreatitis ,but can develop in chronic pancreatitis or after pancreatic trauma Bailey & Love ,26th,1133.
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What is If a new effective treatment is initiated for a communicable disease and all the other factors remain the same, which of the following is most likely to happen? and explain in detail?
In an infectious disease case, as the prevalence comes down, the number of infective people in the community also comes down and hence incidence also comes down.
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What is Incidence of diarrhoea in a community can be calculated by- and explain in detail?
Coho study is also known as incidence study. The cohos are identified prior to the appearance of disease under investigation. The study group so defined are observed over a period of time to determine the frequency of disease among them. (refer pgno:75 park 23rd edition)