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You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is Which of the following sensation are transmitted by the Dorsal Tract/Posterior column and explain in detail?
Sensations carried by posterior column -        Proprioception, Vibration, kinesthesia, fine touch. Sensations carried by anterolateral column -        Temperature, pain (lateral) and crude touch (anterior)
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What is A 50 year old male patient came with the complaint of palpitations. Examination of pulse revealed irregular heabeat and advised ECG recording. Spread of cardiac impulse is fastest in which of the following structure and explain in detail?
Conduction speed in cardiac tissue: Tissue Conduction Rate SA node 0.05 Atrial pathways 1 AV node 0.05 Bundle of His 1 Purkinje system 4 Ventricular muscle 1 Purkinje fibers also have the ability of firing at a rate of 15-40 beats per minute if upstream conduction or pacemaking ability is compromised. In contrast, the SA node in normal state can fire at 60-100 beats per minute. In sho, they generate action potentials, but at a slower rate than sinoatrial node. This capability is normally suppressed. Thus, they serve as the last reso when other pacemakers fail. When a Purkinje fiber does fire, it is called a premature ventricular contraction or PVC, or in other situations can be a ventricular escape. It plays a vital role in the circulatory system. Reference: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology; 25th edition; Page no: 522
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What is Which of the following is the commonest protein in mammalian cells? and explain in detail?
Microfilaments are long solid fibers with a 4 to 6 nm diameter that are made up of actin. Although actin is most often associated with muscle contraction, it is present in all types of cells. It is the most abundant protein in mammalian cells, sometimes accounting for as much as 15% of the total protein in the cell. Ref: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology 23rd edition, Chapter 2.
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is Hyoglossus muscle inserts into and explain in detail?
Key Concept:  Hyoglossus muscle inserts into lateral part of tongue.
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What is Moist heat kills all of the following except- and explain in detail?
None
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is Selective grinding for equilibrating complete dentures is best accomplished after processing when the dentures are: and explain in detail?
None
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is Mesothelioma is most commonly caused by? and explain in detail?
Ans. (a) AsbestosisRef: Harrison 19th ed. /1689* Working with asbestos is the most common risk factor for mesothelioma.* Indeed, the relationship between asbestos and mesothelioma is so strong that many consider mesothelioma a "signal" or "sentinel" tumor.* In rare cases, mesothelioma has also been associated with irradiation of the chest or abdomen, intrapleural thorium dioxide (thorotrast) as a contrast medium, and inhalation of other fibrous silicates, such as erionite.
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is A labourer presented with chronic cough. X-ray shows "egg shell" calcification in hilar nodes which are diagnostic of: and explain in detail?
Very early silicosis may be seen only on CT, although in the later stages of the process, the small nodules and conglomerate masses are readily seen on either conventional radiographs or CT images. Hilar and mediastinal lymph nodes may calcify in the periphery of the lymph node, a type of calcification known as eggshell calcification. An acute form of silicosis radiographically resembles pulmonary edema. Ref: Chiles C., Gulla S.M. (2011). Chapter 4. Radiology of the Chest. In M.Y. Chen, T.L. Pope, D.J. Ott (Eds), Basic Radiology, 2e.
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What is M.C.site of Atopic dermatitis – and explain in detail?
Sites of itching patch in atopic dermatitis Infant Face (especially cheeks), extensors of forearm & legs. Childhood & adult → Flexures (antecubital fossa, Popliteal fossa).
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What is Which of the following statement is FALSE regarding hepatic duct? and explain in detail?
Segment I, the caudate lobe, has its own biliary drainage. Variations of this are common, and in 78% of individuals the caudate lobe drains into both the left and right hepatic duct. The right and left hepatic ducts are formed by the confluence of the segmental ducts within the substance of the liver. The left lobar duct forms in the umbilical fissure from the union of ducts from segments II, III and IV. Right hepatic ducts drains segments V to VIII and arise from the junction of the right anterior and posterior sectoral ducts. Left hepatic duct drains segments II, III and IV that constitutes the left liver. The left hepatic duct traverses beneath the left liver at the base of segment IV, just above and behind the left branch of poal vein, crosses the anterior edge of that vein and joints the right hepatic duct to constitute the hepatic ductal confluence.
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is A patient treated for infertility with clomiphene citrate presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain and distension with ascites, the probable cause is - and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'd' Hyperstimulation syndrome (Ref : Shaws 13/e, p 304, 305 (12th/e, p. 242)). History of clomiphene citrate intake and the presence of ascites abdominal pain and distension strongly suggests ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome.Hyperstimulation syndrome results from clomiphene citrate intake.Other drugs which cause hyperstimulation syndrome:FSH/LH therapy (most commonly seen with this)*.GnRHC/F of hyperstimulation syndromeAscites, hydrothoraxGastrointestinal (abdominal pain, distension).Cerebrovascular accidentsRenal failureTorsion and hemorrhage in ovarian cyst.CoagulopathyLiver dysfunctionIt must be fairly obvious to you by now why I opted for hyperstimulation syndrome.Now lets see other options.Multifetal pregnancy - Clomiphene administration causes multiple pregnancy in about 10% cases. But the symptoms and signs of multiple pregnancy are altogether different from that of the patient.Ectopic Pregnancy - It's not mentioned anywhere that clomiphene administration causes ectopic pregnancy.Uterine rupture- Clomiphene administration has no effect on uterus. ' .
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is A 76 year old male comes with a history of frequent falls and difficulty in looking downwards and laterally. The diaganosis is - and explain in detail?
None
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is Normal anionic gap is seen in one of the following - and explain in detail?
None
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is A pregnant woman at 32 weeks gestation presents to OPD for routine antenatal checkup and an examination she has pedal edema and her BP on repeated recordings is 150/100 mm of Hg. Her urine protein is 2+. Which of the following will be the first line drug of choice in the patient? and explain in detail?
Ans. is d, i.e. NifedipineThis patient came for antenatal checkup and was detected with high BP at 32 weeks which indicates that it is PIH. In PIH Metoprolol and Losartan is contraindicated. Now the choice is between Methyldopa and Nifedipine. Between the two, methyldopa is used for the management of chronic hypertension and Nifedipine is used for the management of PIH.
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is Within 2hrs of birth, type of bacteria which colonies the oral cavity of the foetus is: and explain in detail?
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is All of the following has HLAB27 associated with uveitis except ? and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Behcets syndrome A few examples of HLA-associated diseases with uveitis are as follows : i) HLA-B27 : Acute anterior uveitis associated with ankylosing spondylitis and also in Reiter's syndrome. ii) HLA-B5 : Uveitis in Behcet's disease. iii) HLA-DR4 and DW15 : Vogt Koyanagi Harada's disease.
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What is Which one of the following is not true for an a-helix: and explain in detail?
D i.e. Long stretches of left handed a- helices occur in proteins
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What is Q30 Which of the following is not a type of wax: and explain in detail?
Japan wax and cocoa butter are the types of fat.
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What is A patient of known valvular disease requires dental extraction. Pretreatment prophylaxis should be given with: and explain in detail?
None
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What is Poorly controlled diabetes with blood sugar of 450 mg% is associated with: and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Hyponatremia
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What is Immunoglobulin implicated in atopy and anaphylaxis is: and explain in detail?
None
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is Hypersensitivity vasculities seen in - and explain in detail?
None
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What is The term Bennett's fracture is used to describe and explain in detail?
D i.e. Fracture dislocation of trapezometacarpal joint
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What is Variable decelerations on electronic fetal monitoring in a woman who is in labour indicates : and explain in detail?
Umbilical cord compression
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What is Cotton wool spots in diabetic retinoaEUR' pathy are due to: and explain in detail?
Retinal nerve infarcts
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What is Hallpike maneuver is done for: and explain in detail?
Hallpike maneuver is done for BPPV (benign paroxysmal positional veigo) due to displacement of otoconia into posterior semicircular canal. Diagnosis confirmed by Hallpike's maneuver. The Patient sits on a couch & examiner holds the patients head, turn it 450 to the right and then places the patient in a supine position so that his head hangs 300 below the horizontal. Patients eyes are observed for nystagmus. test is repeated with head turned to left and then again in straight head hanging position. In BPPV - veigo, nystagmus appears after a latent period of 2-20 seconds lasts for less than 1min.
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What is Dermal nitrate test is done for and explain in detail?
D i.e. Gun powder
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What is Paranasal sinuses are affected by both benign and malignant neoplasms. Commonest benign tumour of paranasal sinuses are: and explain in detail?
Osteomas are the most common tumors of the paranasal sinuses. They are most commonly seen in the frontal sinus followed in turn by those of ethmoid and maxillary. They may remain asymptomatic. Treatment is indicated when they become symptomatic.
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What is Satiety center is located in which nucleus of hypothalamus ? and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'C' i.e., VentromedialThe ventromedial nucleus is located in the basomedial hypothalamus, and is a critical node of the neural circuitry of female sexual behavior - so, not surprisingly . This ventromedial hypothalamus is classically known as a "satiety center"
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What is Looser's zone occurs in and explain in detail?
Looser's zone or pseudofracture typically occurs in, pubic rami, Femoral neck, medial border of scapulae, ribs, metatarsals and long bones.
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What is Drug emerging as the agent of choice for initial treatment of tourette syndrome - and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., ClonidineTounette syndromeo Mild and non disbling-Education and counselling without pharmacological tic suppression therapyo With bothersome Tics-Tetrabenzineo Only focal or vocal motor Tics-Botulinum toxin injection into the affected muscleso With ADHD-Guanafacine or clonidine
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What is Which of the following is not true about Galeazzi fracture dislocation? and explain in detail?
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is Crown lengthening may be required if the crown height from the crestal bone is less than and explain in detail?
None
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What is Multiple dentigerous cysts are present in: and explain in detail?
Most dentigerous cysts are solitary. Bilateral and multiple cysts are usually found in association with a number of syndromes including cleidocranial dysplasia and Maroteaux-Lamy syndrome. In the absence of these syndromes, bilateral dentigerous cysts are rare. Reference: Shafer’s Textbook of ORAL PATHOLOGY Eighth Edition page no 67
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What is PTH like substance is produced by which type of lung malignacy - and explain in detail?
ACTH & ADH → Small cell carcinoma (predominantly) PTH               → Squamous cell Ca
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What is Pain in vertex is seen in: and explain in detail?
- In sphenoiditis, vertex headache is common, but pain can be localized in frontal, temporal, periorbital, or occipital regions or can be vague or occur anywhere in the craniofacial region
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What is In case of burning fire in a closed room, death occurs due to: and explain in detail?
Ans. (b) CO poisoningRef: The essentials of FSM by KS Narayan Reddy 31st ed./582
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What is Conducting zone of the respiratory system is: and explain in detail?
Of the 23 generations, trachea is considered as 0th generation, and trachea and first 16 generations are called "conducting zone". Last 7 generations are called "respiratory zone"; gas exchange occurs in these generations. The gas exchange areas include respiratory bronchioles and alveoli.
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What is Amaurosis fugax is due to - and explain in detail?
Amaurosis fugax refers to sudden temporary and painless monocular visual loss occurring due to a transient failure of retinal circulation. COMMON CAUSES: Carotid transient ischemic attack, embolization of retinal circulation, papilloedema, giant cell aeritis, Raynaud's disease, migraine, as a prodromal symptom of central retinal aery or carotid aery occlusion, hypeensive retinopathy, and venous stasis retinopathy. Reference: Comprehensive Opthalmology, A K Khurana; 6th edition.pg no331.
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What is Malignant otitis externa results from infection by which of the following organisms and explain in detail?
Pseudomonas aeroginosa
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What is Regarding severe combined immunodeficiency disease ,which of the following statement is true and explain in detail?
Ref Robbins 8/e p234;9/e p239 SCID represent a constellation of genetically distinct syndrome, all having in common defect in both humoral and cell mediated immune response
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What is True about prion protein diseases is all, except- and explain in detail?
caused by ifectious prpteins.brain biopsy is daignostic REF:ANATHANARAYANAN MICROBIOLOGY NINTH EDITION PAGE.557
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What is Verapamil is not associated with: and explain in detail?
Thiazides and beta-blockers are not safe in diabetic patients
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What is Which of the following pubeal events in girls is not oestrogen dependent? and explain in detail?
The presence of Estrogen in a pubeal girl stimulates the formation of Breast development, Production of cervical mucus Vaginal cornification. As estrogen levels increase, menses begins. Ovarian estrogen production late in pubey is at least in pa responsible for termination of the pubeal growth spu, thereby determining adult height. Hair growth during pubey is caused by androgens from the adrenal gland and, later, the ovary
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What is Death caused by act done with intent to cause miscarriage is punishable by and explain in detail?
Section 314 in The Indian Penal Code: Death caused by act done with intent to cause miscarriage. Whoever, with intent to cause the miscarriage of a woman with child, does any act which causes the death of such woman, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine. If the act was done without woman's consent, shall be punished either with or with the punishment above mentioned. Ref - Krishnan Vij 5th edition , <a href="
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What is Radiological factors indicating an unstable pelvis are all except and explain in detail?
ref : maheswari 9th ed
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What is Which is not a biological derivative of tyrosine? and explain in detail?
Uses of tyrosine: =Melatonin is formed from tryptophan not from tyrosine Tip to remember:- Tyrosine (smaller name) - Melanin (smaller name) Tryptophan (bigger name) - Melatonin (bigger name) Extra information:- Phenylalanine is conveed to tyrosine by enzyme Phenylalanine Hydroxylase. Therefore tyrosine is non-essential as it can be synthesized in body from phenylalanine. Other uses of tryptophan are- Synthesis of vitamin B3 and serotonin
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What is Cell rich zone is rich in and explain in detail?
None
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What is The marked area gives rise to which of the following diseases ? and explain in detail?
The marked area is Fossa of Rosenmuller ANGIOFIBROMA-The tumour usually arises from the lateral wall of the posterior nasal cavity close to the sphenopalatine foramen and the pterygoid base. NASOPHARYNGEAL CARCINOMA-Mostly arises from Fossa of Rosenmuller INVEED PAPILLOMA-Usually arises from lateral nasal wall i.e. Middle turbinate of ethmoid recess, with secondary extension into paranasal sinuses. ANTROCHOANAL POLYP-Arises from mucosa of maxillary antrum near its accessory ostium.
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What is All are true regarding tuberous sclerosis except and explain in detail?
C i.e. Cafe au lait macules exclude the diagnosis. Tuberous sclerosis is autosomal dominant disorderQ presenting with classical Vogt's triad of epilepsy, low intelligence/mental retardation/ delayed mile stones and adenoma sebaceum (arjgiofibroma of face)Q and ashleaf (stippled or Confetti) hypomelanotic offwhite macules mostly on trunk & buttockQ. (Acronym-Epiloia)
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What is Most common dose limiting toxicity of chemotherapeutic agent ? and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Myelosuppression "Myelosuppression with depression of both antibody and cell mediated immunity is the single most important dose limiting factor with cytotoxic agents and carries life threatening consequences".Repeated blood monitoring is essential and transfusion of red cells and platelets may be necessary.Cell growth factors e.g. the natural (granulocyte colony stimulating factor (filgrastim) are available to protect against or resolve neutropenia.
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What is What is the characteristic histological finding of chronic radiation pneumonitis? and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Foam cells in vessel wall Radiation-Induced Lung Diseases Radiation pneumonitis is a well-known complication of therapeutic radiation of thoracic tumors (lung, esophageal, breast, mediastinal). It most often involves the lung within the radiation po and occurs in both acute and chronic forms. Acute radiation pneumonitis (lymphocytic alveolitis or hypersensitivity pneumonitis) occurs 1 to 6 months after irradiation in 3% to 44% of patients, depending on dose and age. It is manifest with fever, Dyspnea out of propoion to the volume of lung irradiated, pleural effusion, and infiltrates that usually correspond to an area of previous irradiation. With steroid therapy, these symptoms may resolve completely in some patients, while in others there is progression to chronic radiation pneumonitis (pulmonary fibrosis). Chronic radiation pneumonitis (pulmonary fibrosis) : The latter is a consequence of the repair of injured endothelial and epithelial cells. It may also occur without antecedent pulmonary symptoms. Morphologic changes are those of diffuse alveolar damage, including severe atypia of hyperplastic type II cells and fibroblasts. Epithelial cell atypia and foam cells within vessel walls are also characteristic of radiation damage.
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What is A young male presented with dyspnea, bleeding and petechial hemorrhage in the chest after 2 days following fracture shaft of the femur right side. Most likely cause is and explain in detail?
(Fat -embolism) (855-56-CSDT 12th) (178-Anaesthesia- A. yadav 3rd)FAT-EMBOLISM - Fracture through a large marrow filled cavity almost inevitably results in small showers of fat emboli being swept to the lungs. This can usually be accommodated without serious consequences, but in some cases (and especially in those with multiple injuries and severe shock or in patients with associated chest injuries) it results in progressive respiratory distress and multi - organ failure (ARDS)* Blood gases should be measured soon after admission, and may suspicious signs such as shortness of breath, restless ness or a rise in temperature or pulse rate should prompt a search for petechal hemorrhages over the upper body axillae and conjunctivae* TRIAD of fat embolism - Dyspnea, confusion and petechial haemorrhage.* Capnography show fall in endtidal CO2 (ETCO2 may become zero if embolus is large enough to block the main pulmonary artery* Coagulation abnormalities like increased clotting time and decreased platelets* Serum lipase is increased* Air embolism - occure during the placement or removal of central venous catheters* Amniotic fluid-embolism - occur during active labour* Fat embolism - occur from long bones fractures- Characterised by respiratory insufficiency, Coagulopathy, encephalopathy and an upper body petechial rash* Pulmonary embolism - results from septic emboli, tumour emboli from atrial myxoma or IVC extension of renal cell carcinoma and parasitic emboli**DVT remains the most common source of pulmonary thromboembolism
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What is Investigation of choice for posterior urethral value is and explain in detail?
Micturating cystourethrogram is investigation of choice for posterior urethral value.
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What is Which of the following antiepileptic is not associated with congenital malformation when used in pregnant woman? and explain in detail?
Phenytoin, Valproic acid and Phenobarbitone when given during pregnancy are teratogenic. Valproate given during pregnancy causes neural tube defects. Phenytoin produces fetal hydantoin syndrome and carbamazepine is associated with the development of minor foetal malformations. Phenobarbitone is not associated with teratogenic effects. Ref: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology By K D Tripathi 5th Edition, Page 371,4.
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What is Peritoneum is opened in all of the following sterilization procedures except: and explain in detail?
Vasectomy consists of dividing the vas deferens and disrupting the passage of sperms. It is done through a small incision in the scrotum under local anesthesia (LA). There is no need to open the peritoneum.
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What is "Orphan Annie eye nuclei" is characteristic histologic feature of which of the following thyroid malignancy ? and explain in detail?
Orphan Annie nuclei is a characteristic intranuclear inclusion seen mainly in papillary carcinoma of thyroid. Ultrastructurally they are seen as membrane bound spheroidal masses of cytoplasm intruding into the nuclei. Intranuclear inclusions are less commonly seen in hyalinizing trabecular adenomas, medullary carcinoma, huhle cell carcinoma as well as anaplastic carcinoma.
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What is CART WHEEL APPEARANCE is a feature of which of the defensive cells of the pulp and explain in detail?
None
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What is Occupational exposure to Benzene may lead to: and explain in detail?
Benzene is known to cause cancer, based on evidence from studies in both people and lab animals. The link between benzene and cancer has largely focused on leukemia and other cancers of blood cells.
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What is The inheritance pattern of familial retinoblastoma and explain in detail?
In hereditary retinoblastoma, mutations in the RB1 gene appear to be inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. Autosomal dominant inheritance means that one copy of the altered gene in each cell is sufficient to increase the risk of cancer. Refer robbins 1339
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What is Commonest cancer in males is- and explain in detail?
Prostate cancer is the most common malignancy in men in the UK, with a prevalence of 105 per 100 000 population. It is also common in nohern Europe and the USA (paicularly in the African American population) but is rare in China and Japan. It is uncommon in India but the incidence is increasing. Prostate cancer rarely occurs before the age of 50 and has a mean age at presentation of 70 years. Ref - davidsons 23e p438
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What is The most preferred acute emetic for emesis induced by anticancer drugs is and explain in detail?
None
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What is Cause of vasodilation in spider nevi and explain in detail?
B i.e. EstrogenIn chronic liver disease (especially cirrhosis) and pregnancy, impaired estrogen metabolism and consequent hyper estroenemiaQ leads to spider angiomata/nevi (superficial, toous aerioles, that unlike simple telangiectases, typically fill from the center outwards and occur invariably on upper half of body) and palmar erythema (mottled redness of thenar & hypothenar eminences).
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What is Theory which says about disease due to social strain and explain in detail?
None
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What is True about ASHA are all except - and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Skilled bih attendant Accredited Social Health ActivistiASHA) ASHA is the central component of the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) National Rural Health Mission (NRIIM) was launched to address the health needs of rural population, especially the vulnerable sections of society o One of the key components of the National Rural Health Mission is to provide every village in the country with a trained female community health activist - `ASHA' or Accredited Social Health Activist. Selected from the village itself and accountable to it, the ASHA will be trained to work as an interface between the community and the public health system. Following are the key components of ASHA: ASHA must primarily be a woman resident of the village - married/ widowed/ divorced, preferably in the age group of 25 to 45 years. o She should be a literate woman with formal education up to class eight. This may be relaxed only if no suitable person with this qualification is available. o ASHA will be the first po of call for any health related demands of deprived sections of the population, especially women and children, who find it difficult to access health services o ASHA will be a health activist in the community who will create awareness on health and its social determinants and mobilize the community towards local health planning and increased utilization and accountability of the existing health services. She would be a promoter of good health practices. She will counsel women on bih preparedness, impoance of safe delivery, breastfeeding and complementary feeding, immunization, contraception and prevention of common infections including Reproductive Tract Infection/ Sexually Transmitted Infection ( Is/STI s) and care of the young child o She will arrange esco/accompany pregnant women & children requiring treatment/ admission to the nearest pre-identified health facility i.e. Primary Health Centre/ Community Health Centre/ First Referral Unit (PHC/CHC /FRU). o ASHA will provide primary medical care for minor ailments such as diarrhoea, fevers, and first aid for minor injuries. She will be a provider of Directly Observed Treatment Sho-course (DOTS) under Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme She will also act as a depot holder for essential provisions being made available to every habitation like Oral Rehyd ration Therapy (ORS), Iron Folic Acid Tablet (IFA), chloroquine, Disposable Delivery Kits (DDK), Oral Pills & Condoms, etc. A Drug Kit will be provided to each ASHA. o The general norm will be 'One ASHA per 1000 population'. In tribal, hilly, dese areas the norm could be relaxed to one ASHA per habitation, dependant on workload etc. o ASHA would be an honorary volunteer and would not receive any salary or honorarium. Her work would be so tailored that it does not interfere with her normal livelihood.
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What is For Status epilepticus, treatment of choice is: September 2012 and explain in detail?
Ans. D i.e. Lorazepam
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What is Which of the following is the ratelimiting enzyme in the biosynthesis of catecholamines? and explain in detail?
Tyrosine hydroxylase is the rate-limiting enzyme in the biosynthesis of catecholamines. Tyrosine is first hydroxylated to form 3,4- dihydroxyphenylalanine (DOPA) by the enzyme tyrosine hydroxylase. This enzyme is abundant in the central nervous system, the sympathetic ganglia, and the adrenal medulla Reference: Harpers illustrated biochemistry 30th edition
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What is cGMP acts as second massenger for ? and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Nitric acidActivation of GC (Guanylyl cyclase) results in increased synthesis and intracellular accumulation of cGMP.cGMP acts through cGMP dependent protein kinase.Hormone acting through cGMP are atrial natriuretic peptide and nitric oxide.
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What is Antibiotics recommended for treatment of bacterial vaginosis according to CDC include all except and explain in detail?
Erythromycin is not included in regimens for treatment of bacterial vaginosis.
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What is Respiratory quotient after heavy carbohydrate meal is: and explain in detail?
Ans. A. 1* Respiratory quotient is defined as CO2 eliminated/O2 consumed.* For glucose, with the molecular formula, C6 H12 O6 , the complete oxidation equation is C6 H12 O6 +6O2 -6CO2 +6H2 O.* Thus, the RQ=6CO2 /6O2 =1.* Insulin, which increases lipid storage and decreases fat oxidation, is positively associated with increases in the respiratory quotient. A positive energy balance will also lead to an increased respiratory quotient.Name of the food stuffRespiratory quotientCarbohydrates1Proteins0.8-0.9Fat0.7Oxalic acid4.0Mixed diet0.8Malic acid1.33
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What is In a village of 100 children, 60% are immunized against measles. One child travelled and returned with measles and infected other 26 children. What is the secondary attack rate - and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., 67% Total children = 100 o Immunized children = 60 o Primary case =1 o Total no. of susceptible contacts = 100 - (60+1) = 39 o No. of Susceptible developed disease = 26 26 SAR = _______________ x 100 = 67% 39
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What is A 2-year-old child had burns on buttocks, both legs, face, neck and singeing of hair. Total surface area burnt: JIPMER 14 and explain in detail?
Ans. 37%
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What is Loss of pulmonary surfactant in premature infant ? and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pulmonary edema; 'b' i.e., Collapse of alveoli & 'c' i.e., Elastic recoil of lungs Effects of surfactant deficiency o Decreased compliance Increased elastic recoil o Atelectasis o Interstitial edema o Hyaline membrane formation
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What is Circadian rhythm is influenced by: and explain in detail?
Ans: D (Supra chiasmatic nucleus) Ref: W F Ganong. Central and Peripheral Neurophysiology. In: Review of Medical Physiology. 24th ed. California: McGraw-Hill Companies; 2012, p278.Explanation:Circadian rhythm is dependent on the supra-chias- matic nuclei (SCN) located bilaterally above the optic chiasm. (See Table 2 Below)
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What is All are true for Grave's disease except: March 2012 and explain in detail?
Ans: A i.e. Commoner in males Grave's disease Graves' disease usually occurs in younger women & is frequently associated with eye signs 50% of the patients have a family history of autoimmune endocrine disease Hyperplasia & hyperophy of thyroid tissue is due to abnormal thyroid stimulating antibodies (TSH-RAbs).
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What is Which of the following is true about parasympathetic nervous system? and explain in detail?
None
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What is Frequency distribution is studied by and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Histogram
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What is Most common cause of postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is and explain in detail?
Ans. a (Atonic uterus). (Ref. Textbook of Obstetrics by Dutta, 3rd ed., 424)*Most Common Cause Of Primary PPH is atonicity of the uterus (80%)*Most Common Cause Of secondary PPH is retained bits of cotyledon or membrane.RISK FACTORS FOR POSTPARTUM HEMORRHAGE# Multiple Gestations# Large baby# Polyhydramnios# Multiparity (particularly grand multiparity, more than 5 term pregnancies)# Prolonged labor (uterine inertia)# Labor augmented with Pitocin# General Anesthesia# Placenta Previa# Abruptio Placentae# Magnesium Sulfate infusion
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What is Emotional effect to a physical response is given by: and explain in detail?
Ans. D. Hippocampus"Emotions, behaviour; and "Limbic system"a. Hypothalamus and limbic system are intimately concerned with emotional expression and with the genesis of emotions.b. Limbic system is applied to the part of brain that consists of a rim of cortical tissue (Allocortex and juxta cortex) around hilum of cerebral hemisphere Amygdala Hippocampus and Septal nucleic. The major - connections of the limbic system are forming a closed circuit known as Papez circuit;d. one characteristic of the limbic system is the paucity of connections between it and the neocortexe. Another characteristic of limbic circuit is their prolong after discharge following stimulation.
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What is Central centrifugal cicatricial alopecia and explain in detail?
Central centrifugal cicatricial alopecia (CCCA), is a type of alopecia first noticed in African Americans in the 1950s and reported by LoPresti et al. in 1968 as a result of application of petrolatum followed by a stove-heated iron comb. The original theory was that the hot petrolatum would travel down to the hair root, burn the follicle, and after repetitive injury scarring would result. Later CCCA was realized to affect men and women without a history significant for use of such styling techniques. Consequently, the terms "follicular degeneration syndrome" per Sperling and Sau in 1992 and then CCCA per Olsent et al. in 2003 were evolved. Plausible contributing factors may include other African-American styling techniques such as relaxers, tight braids, heavy extensions, certain oils, gels or pomades. Presentation CCCA usually begins at the central (sagittal) midline of the scalp. It is symmetric and exhibits scarring as the name suggests. It involves solely the top of the scalp or may progress to Hamilton–Norwood scale Type VI or VII. Early symptoms may include pruritus, dysesthesias and tenderness. On examination the skin is thin with few follicular ostia and later in the disease the scalp may appear shiny. Cause The mechanism of pathology of CCCA remains unknown; thus, the cause has only been postulated and not proven. CCCA is suspected to have a multi-factored cause. However, one theory involves pressure exerted on the internal root sheath leading to damage, which leads to the recruitment of inflammatory cells and the result of scarring. African Americans are found to be at increased risk. Historically, some have hypothesized that CCCA represents an end stage of traction alopecia. However, the veracity of this theory is low as many patients who have CCCA have not employed traction hairstyling. Histopathologic features Histopathologic features include a perifollicular lymphocytic infiltrate, concentric lamellar fibrosis (layers of fibroblasts in the papillary dermis), sebaceous gland loss and premature disintegration of the internal root sheath. Additionally, granulomatous inflammation secondary to follicular rupture has been noted. Perifollicular erythema and follicular keratosis is usually absent. Treatment Treatments for CCCA remain investigational. Altering hair care practices has not been proven to assist in hair rejuvenation. High-dose topical steroids, antibiotics, immunomodulators such as tacrolimus (Protopic) and pimecrolimus (Elidel), and anti-androgen/5alpha Reductase inhibitors have been used with unknown efficacy.: 648–9 : 760 Epidemiology CCCA tends to present itself in the 20s and progresses over 20–30 years. One should consider this diagnosis in African Americans with what appears to be a female-pattern hair loss. Terminology The terminology of CCCA has been a source of regular confusion. Recent clarifications have been made, with the term "central centrifugal cicatritial alopecia" adopted as a diagnostic category by the North American Hair Research Society
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What is Job syndrome is due to and explain in detail?
The autosomal dominant hyper-IgE syndrome also known as Job syndrome, characterized by the clinical triad of high serum IgE, recurring staphylococcal skin abscesses, and recurrent pneumonia with the formation of pneumatoceles.There is a defective immune response involving T lymphocytes, neutrophils and the cytokines they produce, especially interferon-gamma. Excessive levels of interferon-gamma result in marked elevation of immunoglobulin E.Disorders of phagocytosis:1.Chronic granulomatous disease2.Myeloperoxidase deficiency3.Chediak-Higashi syndrome4.Leukocyte G6PD deficiency5.Job's syndrome6.Tuftsin deficiency7.Lazy leukocyte syndrome8.Hyper- IgE syndrome9.Actin-binding protein deficiency10. Shwachman's diseaseRef: Ananthanarayan 9th edition, p172
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What is All is true about branches of internal carotid aery EXCEPT: and explain in detail?
Posterior communicating aery is given in cerebral pa of internal carotid aery.
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What is A patient presents with acute gastroenteritis in a dehydrated state. Which of the following conditions is highly suggestive of pre-renal renal failure? and explain in detail?
None
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What is pH of amniotic fluid is - and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., 7.2 * pH of amniotic fluid is 7.0-7.5.* The volume of amniotic fluid at term is 800 mL.* An osmolarity of 250 mOsmol/L of amniotic fluid is suggestive of fetal lung maturity.* Fetal urine is the major component of amniotic fluid.
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What is Storage form of free energy in the cell is: and explain in detail?
ATP is the storage form of free energy in most of the cells of the body. Creatine phosphate or Phospho-creatine is the immediate source of ATP in muscles for first 8-10 seconds. High energy compounds in biological systems are : ATP GTP UTP Creatine Phosphate Phosphoenol Pyruvate Coenzyme A 1,3-bisphospho glycerate Carbamoyl Phosphate
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What is Unused syringe needles are disposed in which of the following? and explain in detail?
Plastic wrappers of surgical syringes are disposed in black bags. Discarded drugs, incinerator ash, food and paper waste are also put in the black bags. Blue bags for used and unused sharps. It may also contain solid disposable wastes. Red bags for microbiology/biotechnology waste, contaminated solid waste, syringes, IV sets, urobags, blood bags, gloves, catheters etc. Yellow bag for human tissues, organs, body pas, microbiology cultures, stocks and vaccines, human and animal cell cultures, contaminated wastes like cotton, dressing, plaster casts, linens, beddings, and other such material contaminated with blood or body fluids.
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What is Appendices epipioicae is a feature of - and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Colon [Ref BDC 6'Ve VoL Up. 266}Characteristic features of large intestine3 longitudinal bands, formed by longitudinal muscle coat, called Taeniae coli.Sacculation or haustrationFat filled peritoneal pouches called appendices epiploicae. These are not found in appendix, caecum, and rectum.Greater part is fixed except for appendix, transverse colon and sigmoid colon.Pyere's patches (present in small intestine) are not present.
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What is Basal lamina of blood vessel in CNS is secreted by and explain in detail?
None
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What is C3b is converted to C3 convertase by and explain in detail?
C3b is converted to C3 convertase by Factor B, Factor D, Properdin.
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What is Deep inguinal ring is present in? and explain in detail?
Ans. c (Fascia transversalis). (Ref. Bailey and Love, Surgery 25th/pg.885, BD Chaurasia, Vol 1, 2nd/151).BOUNDARIES OF INGUINAL CANALAnterior - Apponeurosis of external oblique & reinforced laterally by origin of internal obliquePosterior - fascia transversalis, reinforced in medial l/3rd by conjoint tendonFloor - Inguinal ligamentRoof - Arching fibers of internal oblique & transversus abdominis# Inguinal canal is 4 cm long.# Deep inguinal ring:- is an oval opening in fascia transversalis, situated half inch above the midinguinal point and just lateral to inferior epigastric artery.- It transmits spermatic cord in males and round ligament of uterus in females.- Direct hernia occurs through it.# Superficial inguinal ring:- is triangular defect in aponeurosis of external oblique.
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What is All of the following are clinical manifestations of Epstein Barr virus (EBV), EXCEPT: and explain in detail?
The classic syndrome associated with primary infection of Epstein Barr virus (EBV) is infectious mononucleosis. EBV is associated with Burkitt lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma, Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphomas, and gastric carcinoma. AIDS patients are susceptible to EBV-associated lymphomas and oral hairy leukoplakia, a wa-like growth that develops on the tongue; it is an epithelial focus of EBV replication. Hematologic complications, including hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and neutropenia, are more common. Neurologic involvement can include aseptic meningitis, encephalitis, isolated neuropathy such as Bell palsy, and Guillain-Barre syndrome. Ref: Brooks G.F., Carroll K.C., Butel J.S., Morse S.A., Mietzner T.A. (2013). Chapter 33. Herpesviruses. In G.F. Brooks, K.C. Carroll, J.S. Butel, S.A. Morse, T.A. Mietzner (Eds), Jawetz, Melnick, & Adelberg's Medical Microbiology, 26e.
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What is Most common cranial nerve involved in CSOM is - and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., VII Complications of otitis mediaa. Extracranial complicationsb. Intracranial complicationso Mastoiditiso Petrositis/Gradenigo syndromeo Facial paralysiso Labyrinthitiso Osteomyelitis of temporal boneo Septicaemia or pyaemiao Meningitiso Extradural abscesso Subdural abscesso Otogenic Brain Abscesso Lateral sinus thrombophlebitiso Otitic hydrocephalus
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What is A female who underwent laproscopic appendicectomy for acute appendicitis, on post op. day 2 bumped her nose on to a table. She developed difficulty in breathing and examination showed a swelling in the anterior part of the nasal septum. Next line of management is - and explain in detail?
None
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What is "I am dead" is a form of and explain in detail?
(A) Nihilistic delusion # Delusion of control: This is a false belief that another person, group of people, or external force controls one's general thoughts, feelings, impulses, or behavior.> Nihilistic delusion: This is a false belief that one does not exist or has become deceased.> Delusional jealousy (or delusion of infidelity): A person with this delusion falsely believes that a person is lying to them or that a spouse or lover is having an affair, with no proof to back up their claim.> Delusion of guilt or sin (or delusion of self-accusation): This is a false feeling of remorse or guilt of delusional intensity.> Delusion of mind being read: The false belief that other people can know one's thoughts.> Delusion of reference: The person falsely believes that insignificant remarks, events, or objects in one's environment have personal meaning or significance.> Erotomania: A delusion where someone believes another person is in love with them.> Religious delusion: Any delusion with a religious or spiritual content. These may be combined with other delusions, such as grandiose delusions (the belief that the affected person is a god, or chosen to act as a god, for example).> Somatic delusion: A delusion whose content pertains to bodily functioning, bodily sensations, or physical appearance. Usually the false belief is that the body is somehow diseased, abnormal, or changed--for example, infested with parasites.> Delusions of parasitosis (DOP) or delusional parasitosis: a delusion in which one feels infested with an insect, bacteria, mite, spiders, lice, fleas, worms, or other organisms. Affected individuals may also report being repeatedly bitten. In some cases, entomologists are asked to investigate cases of mysterious bites. Sometimes physical manifestations may occur including skin lesions.> Delusion of poverty: The person strongly believes that he is financially incapacitated. Although this type of delusion is less common now, it was particularly widespread in the days before state support.
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What is After 3 weeks of percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography a patient presented with pain upper abdomen, melena and jaundice. Best investigation for this patient should be: and explain in detail?
The case is classical presentation of HEMOBILIA. The most common predisposing factor is PTC. . Investigation of choice for diagnosis - ANGIOGRAPHY RX:Conservative management in most patients ANGIOGRAPHY + EMBOLIZATION- for rest of patients.
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What is Following fistulous conditions give rise to maximum fluid and electrolyte imbalance - and explain in detail?
• Enterocutaneous fistulas are classified according to their location and volume of daily output. • These factors dictate both treatment and morbidity and mortality rates. • In general, the more proximal the fistula in the ‘intestine’ (but not the stomach), the more serious the problem, with greater fluid and electrolyte loss. • Maximum fluid and electrolyte imbalance occur in duodenal fistulas
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What is Which of the following is not a feature of Organophosphate poisoning? and explain in detail?
ANSWER: (A) MydriasisREF: Textbook of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology: Principles and Practice, 5/e By Krishan Vij page 533Miosis not Mydriasis is seen in OPC poisoningSee APPENDIX-42 ANTIDOTES & TOXICOLOGY APPENDIX - 42AntidotesAntidotePoison/drug/toxinN-AcetylcysteineAcetaminophenCarbon tetrachlorideOther hepatotoxinsAmyl nitrite, sodium nitrite and sodium thiosulfate (Cyanide antidote kit)NitrilesBromatesChloratesCyanide (e.g., HCN, KCX and NaCN)Mustard agentsNitroprussideSmoke inhalation (combustion of synthetic materials)Antivenin, Crotalidae Polyvalent (Equine Origin)Pit viper envenomation (e.g. rattlesnakes, cottonmouths, timber rattlers and copperheads)Antivenin, Crotalidae Polyvalent Immune Fab - Ovine (CroFab)Pit viper envenomation (e.g.. rattlesnakes, cottonmouths, timber rattlers and copperheads)Atropine sulfateAlpba2 agonists (e.g., clonidine)Alzheimer drugs (e.g., donepezil, galantamine, rivastigmine, tacrine)Antimyesthenk agents (e.g., pyridostigmine)Bradyarrhythmia-producing agents (e.g., beta blockers, calcium channel blockers and digitalis glycosides)Cholinergic agonists (e.g., bethanechol) .Muscarine-containing mushrooms Nerve agents (sarin, soman, tabun and VX)Organophosphate and carbamate insecticidesDigoxin immune FabCardiac glycoside-containing plants (foxglove and oleander)Digitoxin, DigoxinEthanolEthylene glycolMethanolFlumazenilBenzodiazepinesZaleplonZolpidemFolic acid and Folinic acid (Leucovorin)Formaldehyde/Formie AcidMethanolMethotrexate, trimetrexatePyrimethamineTrimethoprimFomepizoleEthylene glycolMethanolGlucagonBeta blockersCalcium channel blockersHypoglycemiaHypoglycemic agentsHydroxocobalaminNitrilesBromatesChloratesCyanide (e.g., HCN, KCN and NaCN)Mustard agents NitroprussideSmoke inhalation (combustion of synthetic materials)Hyperbaric oxygen (HBO)Carbon monoxideCarbon tetrachlorideCyanideHydrogen sulfideMethemoglobinemiaMethylene blueMethemoglobin-inducing agents including;Aniline dyesDapsoneLocal anesthetics (e.g., benzocaine)MetoclopramideNaphthaleneNitrates and nitritesNitrobenzenePhenazopyridineNalmefene and NaloxoneACE inhibitorsAlpha2 agonists (e.g., clonidine)Imidazoline decongestants (e.g., oxymetazoline and tetrahydrozoline) LoperamideOpioids (e.g., codeine, fentanyl, heroin, meperidine, morphine)Physostigmine salicylateAntihistaminesAtropine and other anticholinergic agentsDhatura poisoningIntrathecal baclofenPhytonadione (Vitamin Kl)Long-acting anticoagulant rodenticides (e.g., brodifacoum and bromadiolone) WarfarinPralidoxime chloride (2-PAM)Antimyesthenic agents (e.g., pyridostigmine)Nerve agents (sarin, soman, tabun and VX)Organophosphate insecticidesTacrineProtamine sulfateEnoxaparinHeparinPyridoxine hydrochloride (Vitamin B6)Acrylamide Ethylene glycol Hydrazine Isoniazid (INH)Sodium bicarbonateChlorine gasHyperkalemiaSerum Alkalinization:Agents producing a quinidine-like effect as noted by widened QRS complex on EKG (e.g., amantadine, carbamazepine, chloroquine,cocaine, diphenhydramine, flecainide,tricyclic antidepressants, quinidine)Urine Alkalinization:Weakly acidic agents (chlorpropamide, methotrexate, phenobarbital and salicylates)Deferoxamine and DeferasiroxAcute iron poisoningDimercaprol (BAL in oil)Hydrofluoric acid (HF)Hyperkalemia (not digoxin-induced)HypermagnesemiaCalcium disodium EDTA (Versenate)Acute arsenic poisoning,Acute mercury poisoning,Lead poisoning (in addition to EDTA)Dicobalt EDTACyanide poisoningSucdmer/ Dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA)Lead poisoning,Arsenic poisoning,Mercury poisoningDimercapto-propane sulfonate (DMPS)Severe acute arsenic poisoning,Severe acute mercury poisoningD-Penicillamine (Cuprimine)Mainly in: copper toxicityOccasionally adjunctive therapy in: Gold toxicity, Arsenic poisoning, Lead poisoning, Rheumatoid arthritisBotulinum antitoxin * Bivalent (types AB)<< Trivalent (types ABE)Food-borne botulismWound botulismBotulism as a biological weaponNote: Not currently recommended for infant botulismL-CarnitineValproic acidCyproheptadine HCLMedications causing serotonin symdromeDantrolene sodiumMedications causing neuroleptic malignant symdrome (NMS)Medications causing malignant hyperthermiaInsulin and dextroseBeta blockersCalcium channel blockers (diltiazem, nifedipine, verapamil)Octreotide acetateSulfonylurea hypoglycemic agents (e.g., glipizide, glyburide)Sodium thiosulfateBromatesChloratesMustard agentsNitroprussideThiamineEthanolEthylene glycolPrussian blue, ferric hexacyan ofer rateRadioactive cesium (Cs-137), radioactive thallium (Tl-201), and nonradioactive thallium
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What is In disaster situation, how many colour codes are used for triage: September 2009 and explain in detail?
Ans. D: None of the above Triage in a non-combat situation is conducted much the same as in civilian medicine. A battlefield situation, however, requires medics and corpsmen to rank casualties for precedence. The 4 triage categories (with corresponding color codes), in precedence, are: Red/ Immediate: The casualty requires immediate medical attention and will not survive if not seen soon. Any compromise to the casualty's respiration, hemorrhage control, or shock control could be fatal. Yellow/Delayed: The casualty requires medical attention within 6 hours. Injuries are potentially life-threatening, but can wait until the immediate casualties are stabilized and evacuated. Green/ Minimal: "Walking wounded," the casualty requires medical attention when all higher priority patients have been evacuated, and may not require stabilization or monitoring. Black/ Expectant: The casualty is expected not to reach higher medical suppo alive without compromising the treatment of higher priority patients. Care should not be abandoned, spare any remaining time and resources after Immediate and Delayed patients have been treated.
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What is Which of the following does not cause mydriasis? and explain in detail?
Pilocarpine cause miosis, not mydriasis Sympathomimetic drugs cause contraction of dilator pupillae and thus result in active mydriasis whereas parasympathomimetic drugs contract sphincter pupillae leading to active miosis. Parasympatholytic drugs like atropine stop the action of ACh on sphincter pupillae resulting in passive mydriasis. Effect Mechanism Drug Group Responsible Examples Active mydriasis Contraction of dilator pupillae Sympathomimetic drugs Phenylephrine ,Cocaine, Amphetamines Passive mydriasis Relaxation of sphincter pupillae Anti-cholinergic drugs Atropine ,Homatropine, Tropicamide Cyclopentolate Active miosis Contraction of sphincter pupillae Cholinergic drugs Pilocarpine, Physostigmine Passive miosis Relaxation of dilator pupillae Anti-adrenergic drugs Clonidine
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What is One is not the indication of total parenteral nutrition ? and explain in detail?
Ans is 'c' i.e. Chronic liver disease Parenteral nutrition involves the continuous infusion of a hyperosmolar solution containing carbohydrates, proteins, fat and other necessary nutrients through an indwelling catheter inseed into (usually) the superior vena cava. Indications for Total parenteral Nutrition (Ref: Sabiston 18/e p168, 17/e p162) The principal indications for parenteral nutrition are found in seriously ill patients when use of the gastrointestinal tract for feeding is not possible. In some instances intravenous nutrition may be used to supplement inadequate oral intake. (A)As primary therapy I. Gastrointestinal cutaneous fistula including enteroenteric, enterocolic, enterovesical or enterocutaneous fistula. 2. Renal failure (Acute tubular necrosis) 3. Sho bowel syndrome 4. Severe burns 5. Hepatic failure (acute decompensation superimposed on cirrhosis) 6. Crohn's ds 7. Anorexia nervosa (B) As a suppoive therapy I. Acute radiation enteritis Acute chemotherapy toxicity Prolonged ileus Weight loss preliminary to major surgery (C) Areas under Intensive study Patients with cancer Patients with sepsis About Pancreatitis TPN was once a preferred route of providing nutritional suppo to patients with sever acute pancreatitis, but now jejunal enteral feeding is the preferred method with TPN required for few cases when - there is delay in providing jejuna] enteral nutrition to patient with significant malnutrition for more than 3- 4 days there is persistent ileus there is exacerbation of pancreatitis after enteral nutrition