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You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Somatostatin is produced by: and explain in detail? | Ans: c (D cell) Ref: Robbins, 7th ed, p. 1189Alpha cell-GlucagonsBeta cell-insulinD cell-somatostatinF cell-pancreatic polypeptideSomatostatinomaVIPomaMost common site - Head of pancreasOther names - Vemer Morrison syndrome. Water diarrhea syndrome, WDHA syndromeClinical features - Diabetes mellitus - Gall bladder diseasePancreatic cholera- DiarrhoeaMost common site - Tail of pancreas- SteatorrhoeaClinical features - Watery diarrhea - Hypokalaemia- Hypochlorhydria- Metabolic acidosis- Hypercalcaemia- hyperglycaemiaInsulinomaIt is an endocrine tumour of beta cells. Only 5-15% are malignant.Most common site of Insulinoma -distributed equally all over pancreasWhipple's triad1) Symptoms consistent with hypoglycaemia2) A low plasma glucose concentration3) Relief of symptoms after the plasma glucose level is raisedThese features are typically seen in insulinoma. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Kerley-B lines are seen when pulmonary venous pressure is: and explain in detail? | Ans. 20 mmHg |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is a patient had mocturnal eneuresis with depressive symptoms and was staed on antidepressent, what is the drug and explain in detail? | TCA * MECHANISM This is an antidepressant with three rings. It acts by blocking the transpoers of neurotransmitters resulting in increased neurotransmitters in synapse DRUGS AMITRYPTILLINE IMIPRAMINE CLOMIPRAMINE DESIPRAMINE NORIPTILLINE DOXEPINE * USE AMITRYPTILLINE========PAIN WITH DEPRESSION IMIPRAMINE==========CHILDHOOD ENEURESIS CLOMIPRAMINE========OCD * SIDE EFFECTS ANTI HISTAMINERGIC==== sedation, weight gain ANTI MUSCURANIC=======dryness of mouth ANTI ADRENERGIC========hypotension, giddiness SWITCH TO MANIA when used in BIPOLAR DEPRESSION Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopisis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, 955 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Functions of basal ganglia include and explain in detail? | The clear and best known function of basal ganglia is planning and programming of motor functions. Mainly- Complex actions such as writing alphabets and skilled movements such as using scissors to cut. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Spalding's sign is seen in and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'd' i.e. Maceration Spalding's sign Overriding of the cranial bones on one another, due to liquefaction of brain matter and softening of the ligamentous structures supporting the vault. It usually appears 7 days after death. It is a sign of Maceration in a dead-born child. Still Stillbornad-born child Still born child is one, which is bom after 28th wk of pregnancy and which did not breathe or show any other signs of life, at any time after being completely bom The child was alive in utero, but ied during the process of birth. Dead born child a dead bom child is one which has died in utero, and shows one of the following signs Rigor mortis at delivery Maceration This is the process of aseptic autolysis of the fetus dead in utero and is the usual change It occurs when the dead fetus remains in the uterus for 3-4 days surrounded by liquor amnii but with the exclusion of air, It does not occur if the dead fetus is bom within about 24 hrs. It is characterised by softening and degeneration of tissues. The process is aseptic because the fetus is enclosed in the membranes in a sterile condition. * Signs of maceration are The earliest sign of maceration is skin slippage which can be seen in 12 hrs after the death of the child in utero. Appearance of gas in heart and great vessels (Robert's sign) Collapse of the vertebral column The body of the macerated fetus is soft, flaccid and flattens out when placed on a level surface. It has a sweetish disagreeable odour. The skin is red or purple Large blebs appear at 24 hrs which contains thin fluid The epidermis detaches easily and leaves moist and greasy areas. The umbilical cord is thickened and soft The bony junctions both in the skull and in this joints are lax and abnormally mobile. Spalding sign is seen * If the membranes are ruptured after the death of the fetus and air enters into liquor amnii, the fetus undergoes putrefaction instead of maceration. 3) Mummification Mummification results when the death of a fetus occurs from a deficient supply of blood or when liquor amnii is scanty, and when no air has entered the uterus. The fetus is dried up & shrivelled. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which of the following is responsible for dental caries? and explain in detail? | Dental caries are believed to be caused by viridians streptococci which also includes S. Salivarius along with the ones given above. Pathogenesis of dental carries: Changes in chemical composition of dental plaque fluid following sucrose exposure reflects a combination of interrelated factors and processes that include diffusion, bacterial metabolism, buffering and the influences of saliva. 4 Types of Caries: Pit & Fissure Caries : Caused by S mutans, S sanguis, Other streptococci, Lactobacillus sp, Actinomyces sp Smooth surface Caries: Caused by S mutans, S salivarius Root surface: Caused by A viscosus, A naeslundi, Othr filamentous rods, S mutans, S sanguis, S salivarius Deep dentinal caries: Caused by Lactobacillus sp, A naeslundi, A viscosus, Othr filamentous rods, S mutans |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Excess intake of retinol causes: and explain in detail? | An excess intake of retinol causes nausea, vomiting, anorexia and sleep disorders followed by skin desquamation and then an enlarged liver and papillar edema. Ref: Park 22nd edition, page 571 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is The following tests are used to check the efficiency of pasteurization of mild except - and explain in detail? | Ans is 'd' i.e., Methylene blue test `Methylene blue Reduction test' is an indirect test Jar detection of microorganism in milk. It is carried out on milk prior to the process of pasterurization and is not used to check the efficiency of pasteruization. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Characteristic feature of the ECG is ? and explain in detail? | Mobitz type I second-degree A V block (A V Wenckebach block) is characterized by progressive PR interval prolongation prior to block of an atrial impulse. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which of the following represent the mechanism of action of tetracycline? and explain in detail? | Tetracyclines are bacteriostatic antibiotics. It inhibits protein synthesis by binding to 30S ribosomal subunit, and prevents the attachment of aminoacyl tRNA to the mRNA - ribosome complex. As a result peptide chain fails to grow. Ref: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 5th Edition, Page 668-73 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Most common tumor to extend from intracranial to orbit is- and explain in detail? | *Meningiomas commonly arise from the dura of sphenoid wing, i.e.sphenoid wing meningioma. Ref:Opthalmic oncology p.84. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is A primigravida with full term pregnancy in labor for 1 day is brought to casualty after dia handing. On examination she is dehydrated, slightly pale, bulse 100/min, BP120/80 mm Hg. abdominal examination reveals a fundal height of 36 weeks, cephalic presentation, foetal hea absent, mild uterine contractions present. On PV examination, cervix is fully dialted, head is at +1 station, caput with moulding present, pelvis adequate. Diy, infected discharge is present. What would be the best management option after initial work-up? and explain in detail? | Indication ABSOLUTE RELATIVE Central placenta prae CPD Or contractedpelvis pelvic mass causing obstruction advanced carcinoma cervix cephalopelvic dispropoion previous CS delivery non reassuring FHR(fetal distress) dystocia D.C.DUTTA&;S TEXTBOOK OF OBSTETRICS,Pg no:589,7th edition |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is A 25 years old man marries a 13 years girl and has intercourse with her, this constitutes rape as she is- and explain in detail? | Sexual intercourse with wife, even with her consent is rape, if she is below 15 years of age. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Mania is a and explain in detail? | According to ICD-10 mood disorders are classified as Manic episodes Depressive episodes Bipolar mood disorder Recurrent depressive disorder Persistent mood disorder Other mood disorders (including mixed effective episodes and recurrent brief depressive disorder) (Ref: a sho textbook of psychiatry, Niraj Ahuja, 7th edition, pg no.69) |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is The tendency of colonic carcinoma to metastasize is best assessed by and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Nuchal cord and explain in detail? | A nuchal cord is when the umbilical cord becomes wrapped around the fetuss neck. Symptoms present in the baby shortly after birth from a prior nuchal cord may include duskiness of face, facial petechia, and bleeding in the whites of the eye. Complications can include meconium, respiratory distress, anemia, and stillbirth. Multiple wraps are associated with greater risk.The diagnosis may be suspected if there is a decrease in the babys heart rate during delivery. Nuchal cords are typically checked for by running the finger over the babys neck once the head has delivered. Ultrasound may pick up the condition before labor.If detected during delivery, management includes trying to unwrap the cord or if this is not possible clamping and cutting the cord. Delivery can typically take place as normal and outcomes are generally good. Rarely long term brain damage or cerebral palsy may occur. Nuchal cords occur in about a quarter of deliveries. The condition has been described at least as early as 300 BC by Hippocrates.
Signs and symptoms
Symptoms of a prior nuchal cord shortly after birth in the baby may include duskiness of face, facial petechia, and bleeding in the whites of the eye. Complications can include meconium, respiratory disease, anemia, and still birth.
Diagnosis
In 1962, J. Selwyn Crawford MD from the British Research Council defined a nuchal cord as one that is wrapped 360 degrees around the fetal neck. Crawford commented "It is all the more remarkable, therefore, that little work has been done. to analyze its effects during labor and delivery". To date, there is no prospective case control double-blind study looking at nuchal cords and observational studies vary in opinion as to the degree of poor outcomes. Also not included in these studies is which umbilical cord form (of the 8 different possible structures) was considered a nuchal cord.Ultrasound diagnosis of a cord around the neck was first described in 1982. “Coils occur in about 25% of cases and ordinarily do no harm, but occasionally they may be so tight that constriction of the umbilical vessels and consequent hypoxia result.” Williams Obstetrics 16th Edition, has only one single sentence in the entire textbook regarding cords around the neck. By contrast, the First Edition of the Encyclopædia Britannica from 1770 had 20 pages of information about Umbilical Cord Pathology with drawings of Umbilical Cord Entanglement. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists has these images on its brochure. There are currently three recent texts on ultrasonography which demonstrate the ability of ultrasound to identify umbilical cord issues with reliability as of 2009.A study published in 2004 was done to establish the sensitivity of ultrasound in the diagnosis of a nuchal cord. Each of 289 women, induced the same day, underwent a transabdominal ultrasound scan with an Aloka 1700 ultrasound machine with a 3.5 MHz abdominal probe, using gray-scale and color Doppler imaging immediately prior to induction of labor. Presence of the cord was sought in the transverse and sagittal plane of the neck. A nuchal cord was diagnosed if the cord was visualized lying around at least 3 of the 4 sides of the neck. A cord was actually present at delivery in 52 of the 289 women. Only 18 of the 52 cords or 35% of the nuchal cords were detected on ultrasound done immediately before delivery, and 65% of nuchal cords were not detected. Of the 237 cases where there was no cord at delivery, ultrasound had false positive results, i.e. diagnosed a cord in 44 of the 237 cases (19%) in which there was no cord present at all. In this study, ultrasound was only 35% accurate at finding a single loop, and only 60% accurate at detecting a nuchal cord wrapped multiple times around the neck.In no study was it possible by ultrasound to distinguish between a loose or a tight cord, although at least 3 attempted to do so. Peregrine concludes that ultrasound diagnosis of nuchal cords will only be useful if doctors are able to do so reliably and predict which of those fetuses are likely to have a problem., However, perinatologists routinely look for umbilical cord issues in monoamniotic twins. Studies have shown an improvement in outcomes where cord entanglement was prenatally identified in these cases. Ultrasound measurement of the velocity of flow in the cord may be useful in the management of twins and chronically growth-retarded fetuses. Of course this depends on the training of the sonographer |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Eustachian tube opens into middle ear cavity at: and explain in detail? | The tympanic end of the eustachian tube is bony and is situated in the anterior wall of middle ear.The pharyngeal end of the tube is slit like and is situated in the lateral wall of the nasopharynx, 1-1.25 cm behind the posterior end of inferior tubinate. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is A patient on aspirin will have an increase in: and explain in detail? | Aspirin, even in small doses, irreversibly inhibits TXA2 synthesis by platelets. Thus, it interferes with platelet aggregation and bleeding time is prolonged to nearly twice the normal value. long-term intake of large dose decreases the synthesis of clotting factors in the liver and predisposes to bleeding; can be prevented by prophylactic vit K therapy. ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY;7TH EDITION; KD TRIPATHI; PAGE NO 196 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Hypoprothrombinemia and explain in detail? | Hypoprothrombinemia is a rare blood disorder in which a deficiency in immunoreactive prothrombin (Factor II), produced in the liver, results in an impaired blood clotting reaction, leading to an increased physiological risk for spontaneous bleeding. This condition can be observed in the gastrointestinal system, cranial vault, and superficial integumentary system, affecting both the male and female population. Prothrombin is a critical protein that is involved in the process of hemostasis, as well as illustrating procoagulant activities. This condition is characterized as an autosomal recessive inheritance congenital coagulation disorder affecting 1 per 2,000,000 of the population, worldwide, but is also attributed as acquired.
Signs and symptoms
There are various symptoms that are presented and are typically associated to a specific site that they appear at. Hypoprothrombinemia is characterized by a poor blood clotting function of prothrombin. Some symptoms are presented as severe, while others are mild, meaning that blood clotting is slower than normal. Areas that are usually affected are muscles, joints, and the brain, however, these sites are more uncommon.The most common symptoms include:
Easy bruising
Oral mucosal bleeding - Bleeding of the membrane mucus lining inside of the mouth.
Soft tissue bleeding.
Hemarthrosis - Bleeding in joint spaces.
Epistaxis - Acute hemorrhages from areas of the nasal cavity, nostrils, or nasopharynx.
Women with this deficiency experience menorrhagia: prolonged, abnormal heavy menstrual bleeding. This is typically a symptom of the disorder when severe blood loss occurs.Other reported symptoms that are related to the condition:
Prolonged periods of bleeding due to surgery, injury, or post birth.
Melena - Associated with acute gastrointestinal bleeding, dark black, tarry feces.
Hematochezia - Lower gastrointestinal bleeding, passage of fresh, bright red blood through the anus secreted in or with stools. If associated with upper gastrointestinal bleeding, suggestive of a more life-threatening issue.Type I: Severe hemorrhages are indicators of a more severe prothrombin deficiency that account for muscle hematomas, intracranial bleeding, postoperative bleeding, and umbilical cord hemorrhage, which may also occur depending on the severity, respectively.
Type II: Symptoms are usually more capricious, but can include a variety of the symptoms described previously. Less severe cases of the disorder typically do not involve spontaneous bleeding.
Causes
Hypoprothrombinemia can be the result of a genetic defect, may be acquired as the result of another disease process, or may be an adverse effect of medication. For example, 5-10% of patients with systemic lupus erythematosus exhibit acquired hypoprothrombinemia due to the presence of autoantibodies which bind to prothrombin and remove it from the bloodstream (lupus anticoagulant-hypoprothrombinemia syndrome). The most common viral pathogen that is involved is Adenovirus, with a prevalence of 50% in postviral cases.
Inheritance
Autosomal recessive condition in which both parents must carry the recessive gene in order to pass the disease on to offspring. If both parents have the autosomal recessive condition, the chance of mutation in offspring increases to 100%. An individual will be considered a carrier if one mutant copy of the gene is inherited, and will not illustrate any symptoms. The disease affects both men and women equally, and overall, is a very uncommon inherited or acquired disorder.
Non-inheritance and other factors
There are two types of prothrombin deficiencies that occur depending on the mutation:Type I (true deficiency), includes a missense or nonsense mutation, essentially decreasing prothrombin production. This is associated with bleeding from birth. Here, plasma levels of prothrombin are typically less than 10% of normal levels.Type II, known as dysprothrombinemia, includes a missense mutation at specific Xa factor cleavage sites and serine protease prothrombin regions. Type II deficiency creates a dysfunctional protein with decreased activity and usually normal or low-normal antigen levels. A vitamin K-dependent clotting factor is seldom seen as a contributor to inherited prothrombin deficiencies, but lack of Vitamin K decreases the synthesis of prothrombin in liver cells.Acquired underlying causes of this condition include severe liver disease, warfarin overdose, platelet disorders, and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
It may also be a rare adverse effect to ceftriaxone.
Mechanism
Hypoprothrombinemia is found to present itself as either inherited or acquired, and is a decrease in the synthesis of prothrombin. In the process of inheritance, it marks itself as an autosomal recessive disorder, meaning that both parents must be carriers of the defective gene in order for the disorder to be present in a child. Prothrombin is a glycoprotein that occurs in blood plasma and functions as a precursor to the enzyme, thrombin, which acts to convert fibrinogen into fibrin, therefore, fortifying clots. This clotting process is known as coagulation.The mechanism specific to prothrombin (factor II) includes the proteolytically cleaving, breakdown of proteins into smaller polypeptides or amino acids, of this coagulation factor in order to form thrombin at the beginning of the cascade, leading to stemming of blood loss. A mutation in factor II would essentially lead to hypoprothrombinemia. The mutation is presented on chromosome 11.Areas where the disease has been shown to present itself at include the liver, since the glycoprotein is stored in this area.
Acquired cases are results from an isolated factor II deficiency. Specific cases include:
Vitamin K deficiency: In the liver, vitamin K plays an important role in the synthesis of coagulation factor II. Bodys capacity in the storage of vitamin K is typically very low. Vitamin K-dependent coagulation factors have a very short half-life, sometimes leading to a deficiency when a depletion of vitamin K occurs. The liver synthesizes inactive precursor proteins in the absence of vitamin K (liver disease). Vitamin K deficiency leads to impaired clotting of the blood and in some cases, causes internal bleeding without an associated injury.
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC): Involving abnormal, excessive generation of thrombin and fibrin within the blood. Relative to hypoprothrombinemia, due to increased platelet aggregation and coagulation factor consumption involved in the process.
Anticoagulants: warfarin overdose: Used as a treatment for prevention of blood clots, however, like most drugs, side effects have been shown to increase risk of excessive bleeding by functioning in the disruption of hepatic synthesis of coagulation factors II, VII, IX, and X. Vitamin K is an antagonist to warfarin drug, reversing its activity, causing it to be less effective in the process of blood clotting. Warfarin intake has been shown to interfere with Vitamin-K metabolism.
Diagnosis
Diagnosis of inherited hypoprothrombinemia, relies heavily on a patients medical history, family history of bleeding issues, and lab exams performed by a hematologist |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is In which of the following multiple lesions are not seen? and explain in detail? | Osteoid osteoma: Zone of sclerosis surrounding a radiolucent pa is seen POLYOSTOTIC BONE LESIONS Fibrous dysplasia Enchondroma Osteochondroma Ewing's sarcoma Giant cell tumor (Goltz syndrome) Metastasis Multiple myeloma Bone infarction Osteomyelitis |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Rhinopyma is and explain in detail? | D i.e. Sebaceous gland hyperophy |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Thomsen friedensreich phenomenon is ? and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Red cell agglutination by all blood group sera Thomsen-Freidenreich Phenomenon Red cell suspensions contaminated with ceain bacteria, e.g. pseudomonas aeruginosa, become agglutinable by all blood group sera and even by normal human sera. This is known as Thomsen Friedenreich phenomenon and is due to unmasking of a hidden antigen normally present on all human erythryocytes, i.e. T-antigen. Anti-T agglutinins are normally present in human sera. Such panagglutinability of red cells has occasionally been observed in persons suffering from systemic bacterial infections. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is In bacterial endophthalmitis systemic steroids should be and explain in detail? | Ans. Staed after 12-24 hours of intensive antibiotic therapy |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is About AFP all are true except and explain in detail? | AFP increased in
wrong gestational age
Rh isoimmunisation
open neural tube defects
multiple pregnancy
IUFD
Anterior abdominal wall defects
renal anomalies |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is True regarding changes during pregnancy:a) Hyperplasia of parathyroidb) Hyperplasia of thyroidc) Increased Pigmentationd) Decreased BMRe) Increased Insulin and explain in detail? | In pregnancy- there is hyperplasia of the Thyroid, Parathyroid, Pituitary and Adrenal Cortex
Although the size of thyroid gland increases, patient remains euthyroid.
Basal metabolic rate increases
There is hyperinsulinemia during pregnancy (due to insulin resistance) so as to ensure continuous supply of glucose to fetus.
Skin changes during pregnancy
During pregnancy, skin undergoes varying degrees of pigmentation, which varies among individuals. The dark line running centrally below the umbilicus is called the lineanigra.
Chloasma: It is hyperpigmentation of the skin around the cheeks, forehead and eyes. The pigmentation is thought to be due to increased levels of endorphins and melanocyte stimulating hormone and disappears spontaneously after delivery |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Balanitis plasmacellularis and explain in detail? | |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is The abductor of vocal cord is and explain in detail? | Ans. a (Posterior cricoarytenoid) (Ref BDC vol. 3/4th/243)Posterior Cricoarytenoid is known to be the only abductor of the larynx. It opens space between the vocal cords (abduct) by rotating the arytenoids laterally (abduct), causing the vocal cords to separate opening the rima glottidis. Posterior cricoarytenoid muscle is called the safety muscle because ail the intrinsic muscles are adductors of the vocal cords except posterior cricoarytenoids which are abductors. The cricothyroid muscle is the only tensor of the larynx aiding with phonation and should not to be confused with the posterior cricoarytenoid muscles, which are the only muscles directly responsible for opening (abducting) the space between the vocal cords.Laryngeal muscleAction1.Aryepiglottic MuscleDraws the epiglottis posteriorly and downward during swallowing2.Oblique ArytenoidDraws arytenoid cartilages together, adducting vocal folds3.Transverse ArytenoidDraws arytenoid cartilages together, adducting vocal folds4.ThyroarytenoideusDraws arytenoid cartilage forward, relaxing and adducting the vocal folds5.Vocalis muscle^Relaxes segments of the vocal ligament, thereby adjusting voice pitch.Educational Points# Larynx begins at C4 & ends at C7 vertebral levels Q# The only intrinsic muscle of larynx that lies outside the laryngeal framework is Cricothyroid.LIGAMENTS OF LARYNX# The extrinsic ligaments of the larynx are those connecting the thyroid cartilage and epiglottis with the hyoid bone and the cricoid cartilage with the trachea.# The intrinsic ligaments of the larynx are those connecting several cartilages ofthe organ to each other. They are considered the elastic membrane of the larynx.A Structural ligaments - hold larynx, hyoid and trachea together1. Thyrohyoid membrane-link thyroid cartilage to hyoid bone;medial part is median thyrohyoid ligament.2. Cricothyroid membrane - links cricoid to thyroid cartilage; thickened medial and anterior part called Median cricothyroid ligament.3. Cricotracheal ligament - links cricoid to first tracheal cartilage.4. Quadrangular membrane - links arytenoid to epiglottis; lower free edge is called vestibular ligament.5. Thyroepiglottic ligament - links epiglottis to thyroid cartilage.B. Functional LigamentsConus elasticus - elastic membrane forming vibrating lips; arises from entire upper edge of arch of cricoid; attaches anteriorly to thyroid cartilage, posteriorly to vocal processes of arytenoid cartilages; upper free edges are thickened to form vocal ligaments; opening between vocal ligaments is called rima glottidis. Functions of conus elasticus: Sound production and Closing rima glottidis. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Most common cause of hypercalcemic crisis is -a) Carcinoma breastb) Parathyroid hyperplasiac) Parathyroid adenomad) Paget's disease and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which is not seen in Hemolytic uremic syndrome - and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Winging of scapula is due to paralysis of...... nerve: and explain in detail? | A. i.e. Long thoracic nerve Winging of scapula is excessive prominence of medial border of scapula seen in injury to long thoracic nerve (n. of bell)Q due to paralysis of serratus anteriorQ |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Endometrial biopsy to detect ovulation is done on which day of the menstual cycle ? and explain in detail? | |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Structures passing through superior orbital fissure and explain in detail? | superior orbital fissure * lateral pa lacrimal and frontal nerves, trochlear nerve, superior ophthalmic vein, meningeal branch of lacrimal aery, anastomotic branch of middle meningeal aery, which anastomoses with recurrent branch of lacriamal aery. * middle pa Upper and lower divisions of oculomotor nerve, nasociliary nerve, abducent nerve *medial pa Inferior ophthalmic vein .sympathetic nerve from plexus around internal carotid aery <img alt="" src=" /> Ref BDC volume 3; 6th edition pg 56 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Acetyl coA carboxylase enzyme is present in and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Both cytosol and mitochondria Impoant carboxylases are :? i) Cytosolic : Acetyl CoA carboxylase-1 (ACC-1). ii) Mitochondria! : Acetyl CoA carboxylase-2 (ACC-2), pyruvate carboxylase, propionyl CoA carboxylase, f3-methyl corotonyl CoA carboxylase. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Under leprosy eradication programme the managment of single lesion is - and explain in detail? | <p> Rifampicin+Dapsone Treatment of single skin lesion of leprosy: -previously ROM therapy. -1.Rifampicin 600mg. 2.Ofloxacin 400mg. 3.Minocycline 100 mg. Currently:6 month treatment as for paucibacillary (PBL) leprosy(Rifampicin and dapsone for 6 months) Reference:National Health Programmes of India by Dr.J.Kishore,8th e,pg no:361 ,Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,K.Park,23rd edition,page no:323. <\p> |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is In a child the normal resolution visual acuity levels such as that of adults i.e. 6/6 is attained by which age? and explain in detail? | . |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which of the following statements regarding mature cytoplasmic messenger RNA is true ? and explain in detail? | |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Gutzmann pressure in pubuophonia is given and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Thorium induced tumor- and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Angiosarcoma of livero There is sufficient evidence for the carcinogenecity of thorium dioxide in humanso When administered by intravascular injection thorium dioxide has been reported to have induced numerous cases of malignant neoplasms.o Thorotrost (thorium dioxide) is commonly associated with liver neoplasm.o The most common liver neoplasm associated with thorium exposure :-Angiosarcoma of the liverCholangiocarcinomaHepatocellular carcinomao Other tumours that are associated with thorium exposure areCarcinomas and sarcomas of the renal pelvisLeukemiaOsteosarcomasAngiosarcomas of the livero Thorium dioxide is a radioactive heavy white crystalline powdero Thorium dioxide was used as a radiopaque medium for x-ray imaging in certain medical diagnostic procedures but was practically discarded after 1945 because carcinogenecity has been reported with thorotrost. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Most severe type of malignant melanoma mostly arises from: and explain in detail? | Ans: (b) Arising de novoRook's Dermatology and Essentials in DermatologyMost severe type is Nodular melanoma. It often arises de novo and carries the worst prognosis. MALIGNANT MELANOMA - SUBTYPESSuperficial spreading melanoma is by far the most frequent type of melanoma.Most common sites: In female - leg and the In males - back.If the melanoma is developing in a pre-existing naevus, which occurs in approximately 50% of lesions, the irregular appearance of the growing melanoma may contrast strikingly with the more regularly pigmented and outlined residual naevus component.All patients with suspected malignant melanoma should have an excision biopsy of the lesion carried out with a margin of 1-2 mm of clinically normal skin.Incisional or punch biopsies should NOT be performed in suspected melanoma because of sampling error, because an inaccurate tumour thickness may be obtained due to biopsy trauma, and also because the overall shape and symmetry of the whole lesion is important to the diagnosis of melanocytic lesions. There is a theoretical risk of displacing melanoma cells deeper into the dermis.The essential pathological features of superficial spreading melanoma are the presence of a focus of malignant melanoma cells invading the dermis with areas of in situ malignant change in the adjacent epidermis.MELANOCYTE DIFFERENTIATION MARKERSS100gp100/HMB-45TyrosinaseMART-1/Me!an-AHMW_MAAS100 is less specific than the other three, but highly sensitive and therefore is usually used in combination with at least one of the others.Invasive melanomas up to 2 mm thick may be safely treated with a minimal excision margin of 1 cm.In patients with thicker tumours, the recommended excision margin is 2 to 3 cm.TYPES OF MELANOMAA. Superficial spreading melanomaMost common subtypeAccounts for 70% casesPresents as flat or slightly elevated brown lesionVariegate pigmentation (Black, blue or pink discolouration)Prognosis is worse than lentigo maligna melanoma typeB. Nodular melanomaPresents as a dark brown to black papule or dome shaped noduleUlcerates and bleeds with minor traumaRapid growth over weeks to monthsCarries Worst Prognosis*C. Lentigo maligna melanoma (Hutchinson's freckle)Slowly grows over 5-20 yearsArises in only a small percentage of the intra-epithelial precursor lesion, the lentigo malignaMalignant Melanoma in situGood prognosisD. Acral lentiginous melanomaLeast common subtypeOccurs on the palms, soles, beneath the nail plate (Subungual variant)Pigment spread to the proximal or lateral nailfolds (Hutchinson sign) - Hallmark of this subtypePrognosis is worse than superficial spreading melanoma subtypeE. Amelanotic melanomaNonpigmentedPink or flesh coloredMimics basal cell carcinoma or Squamous cell carcinomaMost commonly occurs in the setting of melanoma metastasis to the skinInability of the poorly differentiated cancer cells to synthesize melanin pigment |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is All except one are deformities associated with Leprosy and explain in detail? | Clutton's joints are associated with syphilis. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is A patient present painful vesicles in ear, and tongue. He is also complaining of facial weakness and hearing loss. Dignosis is - and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Ramsay hunt syndromeRamsay hunt syndromeo It is lower motor neuron type of facial palsy due to Varicella (herpes) zoster. Pain is often a prominent feature and vesicles are seen in the ipsilateral ear, on the hard palate and/or on anterior two third of tongue. It may involve other cranial nerves-V, VIII, IX and X and cervical branches (C2, C3 & C4) that have anastomotic communications with facial nerve. This results in features like:Anaesthesia of faceGiddinessHearing impairment along with VII nerve palsy.o The mechanism of disease is reactivation of the latent varicella zoster virus in the geniculate ganglion. The onset of palsy is preceeded by pain which may persist & become excruciating. When the rash is absent it is known as zoster sine herpete.o The prognosis of Ramsay Hunt syndromr is worse than Bells palsy. Persistent weakness is observed in 30-50% of patients and only 10% recover completely after complete loss of function without treatment.o Treatment recommended is prednisone (steroid) combined with acyclvir. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Cell wall deficient organism is? and explain in detail? | Mycoplasma are a group of bacteria that are devoid of cell wall and so are highly pleomorphic with no shape or size. They lack cell wall precursors like muramic acid or diaminopimelic acid. The cells are bounded by a soft trilaminar unit membrane containg sterols Ref :Ananthanarayan & paniker's Textbook of microbiology 9th edition pg no 386 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Human anatomical waste is put in: March 2007 and explain in detail? | Ans. A: Yellow Colour coded biomedical waste bags ? Yellow plastic bags for human anatomical, animal, microbiological and soiled waste. Red disinfected container or plastic bags microbiological waste, solid waste (IV tubes, catheters, etc.) -Blue or White plastic bag or puncture proof containers sharps, disposable tubings, etc . - Black Plastic bag or puncture proof containers discarded medicines, incineration ash, chemical waste. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is A 40-yr-old male repoed with recurrent episodes of oral ulcers, large areas of denuded skin and flaccid vesiculobullous eruptions. Which of the following would be the bedside investigation helpful in establishing the diagnosis? and explain in detail? | The given patient has pemphigus vulgaris. The Tzanck test/Tzanck Smear, is scraping of an ulcer base to look for Tzanck cells. It ia a simple test which can be done bedside in a patient of pemphigus. It shows numerous acantholytic keratinocytes. - rounded and more or less uniform in size, with a relatively large nuclear : cytoplasmic ratio with a perinuclear pale halo, with the peripheral pa of the cell staining more darkly. Skin biopsy and immunofluroscence is more conclusive but is a laboratory test. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is In the grading of Trachoma, Trachomatous Inflammation-follicular is defined as the presence of and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is True about pancreatic carcinoma -a) Head is the most common siteb) Pain is the most common symptomc) Obstruction of bile & pancreatic secretion is commond) 80% cases respond well to resection and explain in detail? | Pancreatic cancer has a very bad prognosis — with a 5-year survival of only 5%.
Only possible effective tlt is complete surgical resection.
Such curative resection is possible only in 10-15% of patients (usually those individuals with a tumor in the pancreatic head). The 5 year survival rate following such resection is only 10%. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is This ECG is of a 23 year old medical student who complained of an irregular heabeat. Other than an irregular pulse, his hea was clinically normal. What does the ECG show? and explain in detail? | The ECG shows a hea rate of 100/min with normal axis. P wave and PR interval are in normal limits. Wide complex qRS is noted in lead II, III indicating Ventricular extra-systoles or premature ventricular contractions. ST segment and QT interval are within normal limits. In young and asymptomatic individuals extra-systoles do not indicate any significant hea disease. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Most sensitive antibody for SLE: and explain in detail? | Autoantibodies in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) Antibody Clinical Utility Antinuclear antibodies Best screening test/Most sensitive Anti-ds DNA Specific, correlate with disease activity, nephritis, vasculitis Anti-Sm Most Specific for SLE, marker for CNS lupus Anti-RNP Not specific for SLE Anti-Ro/La (SS-A) Sicca syndrome, neonatal lupus with congenital hea block Anti-histone Drug-induced lupus |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Spigelian hernia is and explain in detail? | |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Acute Gouty ahritis is seen early following treatment with: and explain in detail? | Allopurinol |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Von Geirke’s occurs due to deciency
of and explain in detail? | o Glucose – 6- phosphatase is deficient in Von Gierke’s disease |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which of the following is NOT an amide : and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Procaine 61]Explained earlier |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is A 20yr old patient with swelling in waist joint Histopathology shows spindle cells and verrocay bodies Most likely diagnosis and explain in detail? | Histopathology of Schwannoma shows Antoni A pattern Antoni B pattern and verrocay bodies/ ref : robbins 10th ed |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is 30 year old lady was on the OT and during the mastoidectomy, after having inhalational anaesthesia, suddenly developed fever, increased hea rate, raised BP, acidosis and arrythmia. What is the next best intervention? and explain in detail? | This patient is showing features of malignant hypehermia which would have occured secondary to inhalation of halogenated anaesthetics. The mainstay of therapy for an MH crisis is immediate administration of intravenous dantrolene. Malignant Hypehermia : It is an autosomal dominant genetic disorder of skeletal muscle that occurs in susceptible individuals due to exposure to some triggering agents, typically succinylcholine or volatile agents which cause an abnormal rise in intracellular calcium. Clinical features 1. rise in end tidal C02 (1st sign), 2.Masseter muscle spasm 3.tachypnoea (in spontaneously breathing), 4.unstable BP, 5.fall in 02 saturation, 6.cyanosis 7.hypehermia (late) 8.sweating. Blood gas analysis shows increasing hypoxemia and rising pC02, metabolic acidosis, hyperkalemia, increased creatine kinase levels, Moality increases commonly due to ventricular fibrillation. Susceptible individuals : Patient with muscular dystrophy e.g Duchenne Paediatric age (more chance), younger age (less than 15yrs), male sex, eye, head or neck surgeries. Malignant Hypehermia : It is an autosomal dominant genetic disorder of skeletal muscle that occurs in susceptible individuals due to exposure to some triggering agents, typically succinylcholine or volatile agents which cause an abnormal rise in intracellular calcium. Clinical features - 1.rise in end tidal C02 (1st sign) 2.Masseter muscle spasm 3.tachypnoea (in spontaneously breathing) 4.unstable BP 5.fall in 02 saturation 6.cyanosis 7.hypehermia (late) 8.sweating. Blood gas analysis shows increasing hypoxemia and rising pC02, metabolic acidosis, hyperkalemia, increased creatine kinase levels . Moality increases commonly due to ventricular fibrillation. Susceptible individuals : Patient with muscular dystrophy e.g Duchenne Paediatric age (more chance), younger age (less than 15yrs), male sex, eye, head or neck surgeries. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is A 25-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department with a bullet wound in the neck just above the middle of the right clavicle and first rib. Radiographic examination reveals collapse of the right lung and a tension pneumothorax. Injury to which of the following respiratory structures resulted in the pneumothorax? and explain in detail? | The parietal pleura can be divided regionally into costal, diaphragmatic, mediastinal, and cervical portions, depending upon local topographic relations. Another name for the cervical pleura is the cupula. This forms the dome of the plura, projecting into the neck above the first rib and corresponding to the area of injury. The costal pleura lines the internal surfaces of the ribs and intercostal spaces. The mediastinal pleura lies between the lungs and the organs in the mediastinum. The right primary bronchus and upper lobe bronchus are not in the vicinity of the right clavicle or first rib. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is The drugs that form complexes with pyridoxal are: and explain in detail? | Ans. D. Both (A) and (B)Isoniazid (anti-tuberculosis drug) and penicillamine (used to treat rheumatoid arthritis and cystinuria) are two drugs that complex with pyridoxal and pyridoxal phosphate resulting in a deficiency in this vitamin. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which local anaesthetic causes vasoconstriction: and explain in detail? | A i.e. Cocaine |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is All statements concerning the conjoint tendon are true, except and explain in detail? | CONJOINT TENDON:- Falx inguinalisFormation: fusion of lowest aponeurotic fibres of internal oblique and of the transversus muscle. It forms the posterior wall of inguinal canal. Medially: continuous with the anterior wall of rectus sheath.Laterally: free It may be continuous with an inconstant ligamentous band, interfoveolar ligament, which connects lower border of transversus abdominis to the superior ramus of pubis. Conjoint tendon strengthens the anterior abdominal wall at site where it is weakened by the superficial inguinal ring. {Reference: BDC 6E} |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Metamerism is commonly seen with: and explain in detail? | |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Skin involvement in toxic epidermal necrolysis- and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., > 30% Erythema mtiltiformeo It is an acute , often self limited eruption characterized by a distinctive clinical eruption, the hallmark of which is target lesions (Iris lesions). EM can present with wide spectrum of severity which can be classified into1. Ery thema multiforme minorIt is simply referred to as erythema multiforme (i.e. if not specified about other 2 types, erythema multiforme means EM minor). Localized eruption of skin with or without mucosal involvement.2. Steven- Johnson syndrome (SJS)y There are mucosal erosions with pruritic macules. In this epidermal detatchment is 10-30% of the body surface area.3. Toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN)When skin detachment is more then 30% of BSA. It is also called Lyell's syndrome.o Therefore TEN & SJS are considered as single syndrome i.e. SJS-TEN syndrome (Erythema multiforme major). If area involved is more than 30% it is TEN & if area involved is 10-30%, it is SJS. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is WHAT IS ATKINS DIET ? and explain in detail? | ATKINS DIET Atkins Diet * The Atkins Diet is a popular low-carbohydrate diet and lifelong eating plan created in 1972 by cardiologist Robe C. Atkins. * The Atkins Diet restricts carbohydrates while emphasizing protein and fats. * The Atkins Diet has several phases for weight loss and maintenance, staing out with a very low carbohydrate eating plan. * The Atkins Diet, formally called the Atkins Nutritional Approach, has been detailed in many books and is credited with launching the low-carb diet trend. REF : VASUDEVAN 8TH ED |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Pheochromocytoma is a neoplasm derived from and explain in detail? | Pheochromocytomas are neoplasms composed of chromaffin cells, which synthesize and release catecholamines and in some instances peptide hormones. Pheochromocytomas that develop in extra-adrenal paraganglia are designated paragangliomas Robbins 9e pg: 1134 Ref img |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Auditory impulse relays to and explain in detail? | (B) Medial geniculate body > The afferent fibers in the auditory division of the eighth cranial nerve end in dorsal and ventral cochlear nuclei.> From there, auditory impulses pass by various routes to the inferior colliculi, the centers for auditory reflexes, and via the medial geniculate body in the thalamus to the auditory cortex.> Other impulses enter the reticular formation. Information from both ears converges on each superior olive, and beyond this, nrnst of the neurons respond to inputs from both sides.> The primary auditory cortex is Brodmann's area 41. In humans, low tones are represented anterolaterally and high tones postero-medially in the auditory cortex. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is All the following are characteristic of Turner Syndrome EXCEPT and explain in detail? | Turner syndrome include Significant growth retardation, leading to abnormally sho stature (below the third percentile); swelling of the nape of the neck due to distended lymphatic channels (in infancy) that is seen as webbing of the neck in older children; low posterior hairline; cubitus valgus (an increase in the carrying angle of the arms); shieldlike chest with widely spaced nipples; high-arched palate; lymphedema of the hands and feet; a variety of congenital malformations such as horseshoe kidney, bicuspid aoic valve, and coarctation of the aoa. Cardiovascular abnormalities are the most common cause of death in childhood. In adolescence, affected girls fail to develop normal secondary sex characteristics; the genitalia remain infantile, breast development is minimal, little pubic hair appears. Most patients have primary amenorrhea, transformation of the ovaries into white streaks of fibrous stroma devoid of follicles. The mental status is normal Umbilical hernia is not a complication of Turner's syndrome (Robbins Basic Pathology,9th edition,pg no. 240) |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is All are true regarding staphylococcal toxin except ? and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Mainly endotoxin Impoant facts about virulence factors . Clumping factor is bound coagulase which is responsible for the slide coagulase test. . Coagulase (free coagulase) - Acts along with a coagulase reacting factor (CRF) in plasma. - Eight type of coagulase have been identified, most human strains form coagulase A. - Most constant association of virulence is production of enzyme coagulase and to lesser extent with mannitol fermentation. . Heat stable nuclease (DNAase) is a characteristic feature of staph aureus. . Staphylococcus produces five cytolytic toxins, consisting of four hemolysins (alpha, beta, gamma and delta) and a leucocidin. . a - hemolysin is the most impoant hemolysin. . Beta - hemolysin is a sphingomyelinase. It exhibits a hot-cold phenomenon, the hemolysis being initiated at 37degC, but becoming evident only after chilling. . Leucocidin is also called the Panton-valentine toxin. . Staphylococcal leucocidin and gamma lysin have been grouped as synergohymenotropic toxins. . Toxic shock syndrome toxin (TSST) and enterotoxins are superantigens which are potent activators of T lymphocytes and lead to an excessive and dysregulated immune response with release of cytokines IL-1, IL-2, TNF-a and IFN - y. . Enterotoxin is responsible for food poisoning. . Exfoliative (epidermolytic toxin) - Responsible for staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (S.S.S.S.). - Severe form of SSSS is known as Ritter disease in newborn and toxic epidermal necrolysis in older patients. Milder forms are pemphigus neonatorum and bullous impetigo. . Staphylococcus does not produce endotoxin. Endotoxin is produced by gram (-) ye organisms, the only gram (+) ye organism secreting endotoxin is listeria. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Smooth muscle contraction due to release of calcium, occurs because of ? and explain in detail? | In Smooth muscles, rise in intracellular leads to binding of 4 Ca++ ions with calmodulin. Calcium-calmodulin complex then activates myosin light chain kinase (MLCK). MLCK phosphorylates the regulatory light chain of myosin; this phosphorylation then leads to interaction of myosin with actin. Calmodulin is structurally and functionally related to troponin. Troponin is present in skeletal muscles and initiates contraction by causing a conformational change in the tropomyosin molecule which then uncovers the active sites on the actin filament. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which of the following do not cause hardness of water ? and explain in detail? | * Temporary hardness is a type of water hardness caused by the presence of dissolved bicarbonate minerals (calcium bicarbonate and magnesium bicarbonate). * Permanent hardness is caused by dissolved calcium sulfate (which is not removed by boiling ref : park 21st ed |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Methotrexate resistance occurs by - and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Overproduction of DHFR \Ref: Goodman Gilman 11/ep. 1336; Katzung 10/ep. 887\Mechanism of action of methotrexateMethotrexate enter the cell by reduced folate carrierOnce inside the cell methotrexate is poly glutamylated.The poly glutamylated forms of methotrexate are potent inhibitors of dihydrofolate reductaseThe poly glutamased forms of methotrexate are converted back to mono glutamate form in lysosomes by the glutamyl hydrolase and is subsequently effluxed from the cellMethotrexate resistance can occur through any of the following five mechanismDecreased entry into the cell due to impaired transportDecreased retention as a consequence of lack of polyglutamate formationAn increase in DHFRAn altered mutated DHFR that binds less avidly than the normal enzyme to the drug.Increased level of lysosomal enzyme l glutamyl hydrolase that hydrolyse methotrexate poly glutamatesDecreased transportA common mechanism of methotrexate resistance is reduced folate transport carrierThe decreased transport is common mechanism to methotrexate resistance in relapsed ALL.Impaired PolvslutammationThe poly glutamated forms of methotrexate inhibits dihydrofolate reductase.The intracellular content of polyglutamate derivatives of methotrexate is controlled by a balance between fol polyglutamate synthetase and glutamyl hydrolase activity.Fol polyglutamate synthetase produces polyglutamate while l glutamyl hydrolase converts its bact to mono glutamate formA lower content of methotrexate polyglutamate could be due to decreased synthesis or an increased catabolism of methotrexate poly glutamates by l glutamate hydrolase.Increased DHFRThe main mechanism of action of methotrexate is inhibition of the enzyme DHFR.Methotrexate is a tight binding inhibitor of DHFR and the concentration of methotrexate required to achieve enzyme activity increases in direct proportion to the amount of enzyme in target cells.If is now well established that an important mechanism of resistance of cells to methotrexate is an increase in DHFR production due to amplification of the DHFR geneMutation in DHFRMutation is DHFR genes may be responsible for methotrexate resistance. Mutation in DHFR causes production of altered forms of DHFR that have decreased affinity for the inhibitor. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which of the following is not true about Xenon anaesthesia – and explain in detail? | Advantages of xenon : Inert, Minimal cardiovascular effects, nonexplosive, Rapid induction & recovery, Environmental friendly, does not trigger malignant hyperthermia.
Disadvantages of xenon : High cost, low potency, No commercially available anaesthesia equipment. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is A 60 year old lady comes with blood stained discharge from the nipple with family history of breast cancer. Next best step for her will be and explain in detail? | Ans. (d) MRI(Ref Schwart 10th edition Page 527)* Mammography - IOC for women >35 years* Mammography - IOC for Screening purpose* MRI- IOC for screening in High risk Women* Mammography - IOC for detecting Ductal carcinoma In-situ lesions* Mammography - IOC to detect Micro calcifications (Which is the only feature for DCIS)* USG - IOC for women <35 years* MRI - IOC for Implanted breasts* MRI - IOC for doing Breast Conservative surgery in Cancer breast* MRI - IOC for Scarred breast* PET scan - IOC for detecting local and distant recurrences |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Mastoid reservoir phenomenon is positive in - and explain in detail? | Mastoid reserve phenomenon is filling up of meatus with pus immediately after cleaning. It is seen in mastoiditis.
Ref. SK De, p 107, 98 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Uses of atropine are A/E - and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., MioticCLINICAL USES OFATROPINE Remember - ATROPAA As mydriatic - cycloplegicT --> 'Traveller's diarrhoeaR --> Rapid (early) onset mushroom poisoning0 --> Organophosphate poisoningP --> Preanaesthetic medicationA Arrhythmias (brady-arrhythmias)Atropine is also used with neostigmine in mysthenia gravis to decrease anti,nuscarinic side effects of neostigmine --> As atropine blocks muscarinic receptors, use of atropine prevents muscarinic side effects of neostigmine, while neostigmine retains its benficial effects in mysthenics which are due to nicotinic receptors. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is After suffering a severe bout of pneumonia, a 46-year-old renal transplantation patient develops a lung abscess. She has been receiving immunosuppression therapy since her last kidney transplantation 3 years ago. What is the most appropriate treatment? and explain in detail? | Antibiotics and vigorous attempts to obtain bronchial drainage will treat the abscess adequately in the majority of cases. Lung abscesses commonly are associated with aspiration pneumonia, where the abscess is found posteriorly. In the presence of an unexplained lung abscess, bronchoscopy is essential to exclude a foreign body or tumor that could cause bronchial obstruction. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Adult with progressive pallor, hyper-segmented neutrophils and MCV>100 shows? and explain in detail? | Ans. (b) Megaloblastic anaemiaRef: Harrison 19th ed. / 81 e-3fThe presence of macrocytes with hyper segmented neutrophils confirms the answer as megaloblastic anaemia. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Gas gangrene is not caused by? and explain in detail? | |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Fibroids cause infertility and pregnancy wastage because and explain in detail? | Fibroids are associated with endometrial inflammation and vascular changes that may disrupt implantation. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Investigation of choice in pyloric stenosis- and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., USG o "The diagnosis of HP S is made by ultrasound scan or UGI series " - Sabistono "When olive cannot be palpated, ultrasonsgaraphy can diagnose the condition accurately in 95% of patients. Criteria for USG diagnosis include a channel length of> 16 mm and pylonic thickness of > 4 mm " - Schwartz |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Osteoahritis does not involve which of the following joints? and explain in detail? | Osteoahritis predominantly involves the weight-bearing joints, including the knees, hips, cervical and lumbosacral spine, and feet. Other commonly affected joints include the distal interphalangeal (DIP) and proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints of the hands. Osteoahritis rarely affects the elbow, wrist or ankle joints. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is The hormone associated with cold adaption is: and explain in detail? | B i.e. Thyroxine |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Most common manifestation of congenital toxoplasmosis and explain in detail? | Most common - Chorioretinitis
In adults - Cervical lymphadenopathy. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Maximum oxygen is transpoed in blood and explain in detail? | About 99% of the O2 transpoed combines with the O2carrying protein hemoglobinRef: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology Twenty-Third Edition Page No:609 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Development of the urinary bladder is from- and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Urogenital Sinus * The urinary bladder (except trigone) is derived from vesicourethral canal, cranial part of urogenital sinus (endodermal). Trigone is derived from Absorbed part of Wolffian duct/mesonephric duct (mesodermal). |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Features of hypothyroidism in infancy include the following except - and explain in detail? | There is delayed closure of posterior fontanelle. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Macintosh indicator is used for ? and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Localization of extradural space Various methods have been used to locate the epidural (extra dural space), most of which rely on subatmospheric pressure. These are :- Loss of resistance to air or saline (most common technique). Gutierrez's method : A hanging drop of saline on the hub of needle is drawn in as the epidural space is entered (more reliable in thorocic than lumbar region). Odom 's indicator : A fine-bore glass tube filled with saline and a bubble that moves in response to a drop in pressure. Macintosh's indicator : A small rubber balloon filled with air connected to an adaptor causing it to deflate on entering the epidural space. Macintosh's spring-loaded needle. Ultrasonic localization. Oxford epidular space detector. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is On fundoscopic examination of a patient of giant cell aeritis, who has had history of sudden & painless loss of vision two days back, the surgeon finds orange reflex. He also notices segmentation of blood column in vessels. These vessels are - & patient had suffered from- and explain in detail? | B. i.e. Retinal veins & CRAO |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Contact dermatitis is a type of Hypersensitivity and explain in detail? | Table 74.1 CLASSIFICATION OF ADVERSE DRUG REACTIONS BASED ON IMMUNE PATHWAY Type Key Pathway Key Immune Mediators Adverse Drug Reaction Type Type I IgE IgE Uicaria, angioedema, anaphylaxis Type II IgG-mediated cytotoxicity IgG Drug-induced hemolysis, thrombocytopenia (e.g. penicillin) Type III Immune complex IgG + antigen Vasculitis, serum sickness, drug-induced lupus Type IV a T lymphocyte-mediated macrophage inflammation IFN-g, TNF-a TH1 cells Tuberculin, skin test, contact dermatitis Type IV b T lymphocyte-mediated eosinophil inflammation IL-4, IL-5, IL-13 TH2 cells Eosinophils Drug-induced hypersensitivity syndrome (DIHS)Morbilliform eruption Type IV c T lymphocyte-mediated cytotoxic T lymphocyte inflammation Cytotoxic T lymphocytes GranzymePerforin Granulysin (Stevens-johnson syndrome (SJS)/ toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) only) SJS/TEN Morbilliform eruption Type IV d T lymphocyte-mediated neutrophil inflammation CXCLB, IL-17, GM-CSF Neutrophils Acute generalized exanthematous pustulosis (AGEP) |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Man hit by a car is thrown up and hits road divider falls on the ground sustains head injury then run over by another car. Cause of head injury is and explain in detail? | Transpoation injuriesPrimary impact injuriesInjuries are caused when the vehicle hits the victim (PEDESTRIAN).Injuries are in the form of imprint abrasions or patterned bruises, Bumper fractureThe detection of primary impact injury will help to find out the relative position of the vehicle and the pedestrian.Primary impact injury can serve as an impoant evidence for the mechanism of traumaSecondary impact injuries Injuries caused due to subsequent 2nd impact of same vehicle.Injuries may be any of the hard blunt force injuries: abrasions, grazedabrasion, stretch lacerationsAfter the secondary impact, the victim is thrown onto the groundSecondary injuries Injuries caused by falling on the ground or on other stationary objects.Found on pas opposite to primary impact or head(Refer: Rajesh Bardale - Principle of Forensic Medicine & Toxicology, 1stedition, pg no: 240,241) |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is ADH acts on - and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'c' i.e.. Collecting ductAnti diuretic hormone (ADH)o ADH (vasopressin) is a nonapeptide secreted by posterior pitutary (neurohypophysis) along with oxytocin,o It is synthesized in hypothalamus (Supraoptic and paraventricular area) nerve cell bodies as large precursor peptide along with its binding protein neurophysin and is transported down the axons to nerve endings in the median eminence and pars nervosa.o The two main physiological stimuli for ADH release are rise in plasma osmolarity and contraction of ECF volume.o Other factors which can influence ADH secretion are:Inhibit ADH secretion: Cold environemnt. ethyl alcoholStimulate ADH secretion: Pain, exercise, stress, sleep and drugs like morphine ADH (Vasopressin) receptorsV1 receptorsV2 receptorsV1aV1b (also called V3)o Kidney - | water permeabilityo Blood vessels - vasodilatationo Release of vWF & Factor VIII from endotheliumo Blood vessels - vasoconstrictiono Visceral smooth muscle -contractiono Liver - glycogeno lysiso Platelet - aggregationAnterior pituitary- release of ACTHo V2 receptors are more sensitive to ADH than V1 receptors.o Mechanism of action in kidney - Activation of V, receptors increase cAMP formation intracellularly - activation of cAMP dependent protein kinase A - Exocytosis of aquaporin -2 water channel to apical membrane - | water permeability. V2 receptor activation also increases permeability of CD to urea by stimulating the urea transporter.The characteristic feature of cells lining the collecting duct is their responsivenessto Antidiuretic hormone (ADH).If ADH is presentIf ADH is absentCollecting duct cells become permeable to water.Concentrated urine is passed.Collecting duct cells are impermeable to water.Hypotonic fluid which enters the collecting duct is passed as such (Dilute urine). |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Late deaths in burns is due to - and explain in detail? | Answer is 'a' i.e. Sepsis "Following successful resucitation, most acute morbidity and viually all moality in severely burned patients are related to infection." - Schwaz This is because thermal injury causes profound immunosuppression that is propoional to the TBSA of the burn. Also know Inspite of the burn patient at significant risk to infection, prophylactic systemic antibiotics are not pa of modern burn care, as they do not reduce septic complications and only lead to increased bacterial resistance. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Most common cause of pubey menorrhagia: and explain in detail? | Causes of Abnormal Uterine Bleeding Pregnancy Anovulation Coagulopathies Exogenous Hormones Infections Systemic or Endocrine Problems Anatomic Causes Investigations: Pregnancy testing, regardless of sexual activity Hb : Anaemia PLT : Thrombocytopenia PT & APTT : Coagulopathies VWD : Ristocetin cofactor activity & antigen, factor VIII; blood grouping and typing Thyroid functions Serum progesterone : day 22-24; 3ng/ml LFT & RFT : Suspected cases 95% abnormal uterine bleeding is due to AUB in adolescents It is due to immaturity of Hypothalamic-Pituitary-Ovarian axis leading to anovulatory cycles Reference: TEXTBOOK OF GYNAECOLOGY; SHEILA BALAKRISHNAN; 2nd edition; Page no: 51 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Right 12th nerve damage leads to? and explain in detail? | Ans. (b) Tongue deviation to right on protrusionRef: Harrison 19th ed. / Ch 367Following a lesion of the hypoglossal nucleus or nerve* ATROPHY of the muscles of the IPSILATERAL one-half of the tongue occurs.* FASCICULATIONS (tiny, spontaneous contractions) can be seen.* Upon protrusion, the tongue will deviate TOWARD the side of the lesion (i.e.} same side). This is due to the unopposed action of the genioglossus muscle on the normally innervated side of the tongue (the genioglossus pulls the tongue forward).The corticobulbar input to the hypoglossal nucleus arises from motor cortex and is predominantly CROSSED. Thus, a lesion in motor cortex will result in deviation of the tongue toward the opposite side or CONTRALATERAL to the lesion. In contrast to the atrophy and fasciculations seen in lesions of the hypoglossal nucleus and nerve (lower motor neuron), NO such signs are present after lesions of the corticobulbar tract. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Ashley's flap is: and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Abdominal Ultra-sonography in a 3 year old boy shows a solid well circumscribed hypo-echoic renal mass. Most likely diagnosis is: and explain in detail? | Nephroblastoma (Wilm's tumour) is the commonest renal tumour in children and on USG appears a well circumscribed hypo echoic, solid mass. Ref: Differential Diagnosis in Abdominal Ultrasound By Bisset, 3rd Edition, 2008, Preview |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is NOT true about ASO titre: and explain in detail? | ASO titre may be positive due to streptococcal infection even in normal people.in some individuals with rheutamatic carditis ASO titre may not be elevated. In PSGN the titre of anti DNA se B antibody is elevated more commonly than ASLO. (ref Robbins 9/e559,8th/566) |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which fungal infection is commonest in neutropenia- and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Marker of apoptosis is? and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., CD95 * CD 95 is a marker of extrinsic pathway of apoptosis. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Jaundice in a new born at birth or before 24 hours is commonly due to – and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is The arterial blood glucose concentration in normal humans after a meal is in the range of: and explain in detail? | Ans. C. 120 to 150 mg/dLUnlike patients who have diabetes, healthy humans are capable of keeping their blood glucose within a relatively narrow range after a meal, 120 to 150 mg/dL. Blood levels of 30 to 50 mg/dL and 50 to 70 mg/dL indicate hypoglycemia, and blood levels of 220 to 250 mg/dL and 300 to 350 mg/dL indicate hyperglycemia. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Initial 2cm of Duodenum does not get arterial supply by and explain in detail? | Initial 2cm of Duodenum ( Duodenal Cap) is not supplied by Superior pancreaticoduodinal artery. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Disease of dermoepidermal junction is - and explain in detail? | intra epidermal cleavage subcorneal/upperspinous pemphigus erythematosus pemphigus foliaceous subcorneal pustular dermatosis type of IgA pemphigus staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome bullous impetigo spinous layer hailey hailey disease herpes simplex and herpes zoster insect bites friction blister suprabasal pemphigus vulgaris , pemphigus vegetans paraneoplastic pemphigus transient acantholytic disorder intraepidermal type of IgA pemphigus subepidermal cleavage basal keratinocyte vacuolation or lysis epidermolysis bullosa simplex erythema multiforme stevens johnsons syndrome/toxic epidermal necrolysis fixed drug eruption bullous lichen planus basement menbrane zone damage bullous pemphigoid pempghigoid gestationis mucous membrane pemphigoid dermatitis herpitiformis linear IgA DISEASE EPIDERMOLYSIS BULLOSA JUNCTIONAL epidermolysis bullosa acquisita bullous lupus erythematosus |