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What is Thanatology is the science which deals with - and explain in detail?

Thanatology or deathlore is the scientific study of death and the losses brought about as a result. It investigates the mechanisms and forensic aspects of death, such as bodily changes that accompany death and the post-moem period, as well as wider psychological and social aspects related to death. Ref : Internet

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What is A 63-year-old man is in stable condition after an acute myocardial infarction when he became hypotensive for 3 hours before paramedical personnel arrived. Over the next week, the serum urea nitrogen level increases to 48 mg/dL, the serum creatinine level increases to 5 mg/dL, and the urine output decrease. He undergoes hemodialysis for the next 2 weeks and then develops marked polyuria, with urine output of 2 to 3 L/day. His renal function gradually returns to normal. Release of which of the following substances most likely participated in the elevation of BUN, creatinine, and reduced urinary output? and explain in detail?

The most common cause of acute tubular necrosis is ischemic injury. The hypotension that develops after myocardial infarction causes decreased renal blood flow, with intrarenal vasoconstriction. Sublethal endothelial injury from reduced renal blood flow leads to the increased release of the vasoconstrictor endothelin and diminished amounts of the vasodilators nitric oxide and prostaglandin. The ischemic form of acute tubular injury is often accompanied by the rupture of the basement membrane (tubulorrhexis). An initiating phase that lasts approximately 1 day is followed by a maintenance phase during which progressive oliguria and increasing blood urea nitrogen levels occur, with salt and water overload. This is followed by a recovery phase, during which there is a steady increase in urinary output and hypokalemia. Eventually, the tubular function is restored. Treatment of this acute renal failure results in the recovery of nearly all patients. Aldosterone plays a role in sodium absorption. Erythropoietin drives RBC production. Natriuretic peptide increases when there is congestive heart failure, but does not lead to renal ischemia. Vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone) controls free water clearance.

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What is Iron deficiency causes- and explain in detail?

In Fe deficiency anemia the red cells become microcytic and hypochromic & poikilocytosis become more marked . Ref:Postgraduate Hematology by Victor Hoffbrand pg39 Ref Robbins 9/e pg422

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What is Treatment of acute femoral embolus is- and explain in detail?

None

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What is Radiation exposure can leads to which thyroid carcinoma? and explain in detail?

ANSWER: (B) Papillary carcinomaREF: APPENDIX-111 for "THYROID CARCINOMA"Repeat Pathology 2008

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What is Which antimalarial drug can be safely administered in baby with glucose–6–phosphagte dehydrogenase deficiency ? and explain in detail?

None

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What is Which of the following special amino acid is not formed by post-translational modification? and explain in detail?

Ans. D. SelenocysteineSelenocysteine is formed by cotranslational modification. All others are derived amino acids. Derived amino acids are formed by post-translational modification.

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What is Which of the fallowing lesions are seen in van recklinghausen's disease of skin and explain in detail?

None

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What is Activity of extrinsic pathway of blood coagulation is measured by : and explain in detail?

None

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What is The drug of choice for a patient with a combination of primary generalized tonic clonic seizure and absence seizures is: and explain in detail?

None

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What is Chandipura virus multiplies in and explain in detail?

Chandipura virus multiplies in sandflies and Aedes Mosquitoes.

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What is Which Antibody crosses placenta? and explain in detail?

Ans. (a) IgG1(Ref: Maternal, Fetal, & Neonatal Physiology: A Clinical Perspective; pg 484)All four IgG subclasses cross, although the IgG1 and IgG3 subclasses are predominate.IgG1 crosses earliest in pregnancy & is the primary immunoglobulin transferred before 28 weeks.IgG3 crosses later & does not reach maternal levels until after 32-33 weeks

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What is Mael sign is seen in - and explain in detail?

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What is Most common cause of glomerulonephritis? and explain in detail?

Ans. (a) P.S.G.NRef: Harrison 19th ed. /1837* Acute glomerulonephritis (GN) comprises a specific set of renal diseases in which an immunologic mechanism triggers inflammation and proliferation of glomerular tissue that can result in damage to the basement membrane, mesangium, or capillary endothelium.* Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN) is the archetype of acute GN. Acute nephritic syndrome is the most serious and potentially devastating form of the various renal syndromes.* Most often, the patient is a boy, aged 2-14 years, who suddenly develops puffiness of the eyelids and facial edema in the setting of a post-streptococcal infection. The urine is dark and scanty, and the blood pressure may be elevate* Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN) is defined as any glomerular disease characterized by extensive crescents (usually >50%) as the principal histologic finding and by a rapid loss of renal function (usually a 50% decline in the glomerular filtration rate within 3 mo) as the clinical correlate.

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What is Urinary metabolite of progesterone and explain in detail?

Pregnanediol is most abundant plasma as well as urinary metabolite of progesterone. In plasma 80 % is bound to albumin and 18 % to coicosteroid binding globulin. Progesterone has sho half-life and in liver it is conveed to Pregnanediol and conjugated to glucoronic acid and excreted in urine. Ref: Ganong review of Medical physiology 22nd edition Pgno: 443

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What is Lingula is a pa of: and explain in detail?

Left upper lobe

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What is Dose of lignocaine for spinal anesthesia is `)/0 of: and explain in detail?

5%

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What is Endoscopy is useful in diagnosis of peptic ulcer in following sutuations except - and explain in detail?

None

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What is Which of the following is the most common central nervous system parasitic infection ? and explain in detail?

Ans. is 'd' i.e., Neurocysticercosis Neurocysticercosis is the most common parasitic disease of the CNS world wide.

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What is Treatment of choice for Bilateral retinoblastoma and explain in detail?

None

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What is Post-tetanic potentiation is due to and explain in detail?

Post-tetanic potentiation one form of plastic change it is the production of enhanced postsynaptic potentials in response to stimulation. This enhancement lasts up to 60s and occurs after a brief tetanizing train of stimuli in the presynaptic neuron. The tetanizing stimulation causes Ca2+ to accumulate in the presynaptic neuron to such a degree that the intracellular binding sites that keep cytoplasmic Ca2+ low are overwhelmed. Ref: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology 26th edition

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What is What is the normal pH range of blood? and explain in detail?

Plasma pH of normal healthy individual is slightly alkaline and ranges between 7.35 - 7.45. pH of a solution is defined as the logarithm to the base 10 of the reciprocal of the H+ concentration, that is negative logarithm of the H+. pH of water at 25 degree celsius in which H+ and OH- ions are present in equal numbers is 7.0. For each pH unit less than 7.0, the H+ ion is increased 10 fold, for each pH unit above 7.0 it is decreased 10 fold. Ref: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 24e, chapter 1

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What is DNA transfer in bacteria phage is: and explain in detail?

Transformation There is direct uptake of donor DNA by the recipient cell, which may be natural or forced. Transduction - donor DNA is carried in a bacteriophage and is transferred to the recipient by the mechanism used for phage infection , two type lytic and lysogenic Lysogenic conversion, bacteriophages exhibit two types of cycles, virulent or lytic cycle where the host bacterium is lysed and the temperate or nonlytic cycle where host bacterium is unharmed. Eg diphteria Conjugation- The donor cell contributes energy and building blocks to the synthesis of a new DNA strand, which is physically transferred into the recipient cell, usually by a tube called a sex pilus. Transferable drug resistance mediated by the R factor is the most impoant method of drug resistance Mutational resistance is of great impoance in tuberculosis. If a patient is treated with streptomycin alone, initially the appear and multiply unchecked. If two or more anti-re-population by resistant mutants does not occur, as a mutant resistant to one drug will be destroyed by the other drug.

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What is Intrabony defects are and explain in detail?

None

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What is Protein purification and separation can be done by all except: and explain in detail?

D i.e. DensitometrySDS polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis is method of protein seperation & purification on the basis of molecular sizeQ. Whereas electrophoretic mobility of protein in native (non-denaturating) gel electrophoresis and 2-D gel electrophoresis depends on both charge (PI) and its mass (hydrodynamic size). Densitometry is a method to quantitate protein in tissueQ.

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What is According to American Psychiatric Association, criteria for prolonged seizure after ECT, if the seizure lasts more than and explain in detail?

Answer- D. 180 secProlonged seizure is defined as one that lasts for more than 3 minutes""Duration of more than 3 minutes is the criterion for prolonged seizures according to the American psychiatric association (1990)"

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What is All of the following are definitive signs of pregnancy, EXCEPT: and explain in detail?

The abrupt cessation of menstruation in a healthy reproductive-aged woman who previously has experienced spontaneous, cyclical, predictable menses is highly suggestive of pregnancy. But there is appreciable variation in the length of the ovarian--and thus menstrual--cycle among women, and even in the same woman. Thus, amenorrhea is not a reliable indication of pregnancy until 10 days or more after expected menses onset. Ref: Cunningham F.G., Leveno K.J., Bloom S.L., Hauth J.C., Rouse D.J., Spong C.Y. (2010). Chapter 8. Prenatal Care. In F.G. Cunningham, K.J. Leveno, S.L. Bloom, J.C. Hauth, D.J. Rouse, C.Y. Spong (Eds), Williams Obstetrics, 23e.

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What is Bias arising as a result of selective survival among prevalent case? and explain in detail?

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What is N K cells activity is enhanced by ? and explain in detail?

Ans. is 'c' i.e., IL-2 IL-2 acts as a growth factor for N K cells. Null cells (Large granular lymphocytes) Null cells are called so because they lack features of surface markers of both B and T lymphocytes. The account for 5 to 10% of peripheral blood lymphocytes. They are also called "large granular lymphocytes (LGL)"as they contain large azurophilic cytoplasmic granules. They express Surface receptors for the Fc poion of IgG (CD-16) NCAM-I (CD56) They proliferate in response to IL-2 Many LGL express some lineage marker paicularly CD-8, CD-2. LGLs arise in both bone marrow and thymic microenvironment. Members of this group are : 1. Antibody dependent cytotoxic cells (ADCC) ADCC possess surface receptors for the Fc pa of Ig. Capable of lysing or killing target cells sensitized with IgG. 2. Natural killer cells (NK Cells) Possess spontaneous cytotoxicity towards various target cells : - Virus infected cells Malignant cells Transplanted foreign cells Cytotoxicity is not antibody dependent or MHC restricted Activity is nonimmune as it does not require sensitization by prior antigenic contact. They have CD-56 and CD-16 on their surface IL-2 acts as a growth factor Natural killer cell activity is augmented by interferon. They release perforin which causes transmembrane pores through which TNF-f3 enters the cell and induce apoptosis. NK cells are activated to LAK cells in the presence of IL-2 Usually CD-3 negative but subset of NK cells are CD-3 positive called NK/T cells. NK cells secrete TNF-a, GMCSF, perforin, IL-4. NK cells do not kill normal cells. Why is it so? lets see : ? The NK cells express activating and inhibiting receptors. The functional activity of the NK cells is regulated by a balance between signal from these receptors. MHC class I molecules has inhibiting signal on NK cells and normal cell are not killed because inhibiting signals from normal MHC class I molecules overside activating signals. The ability of NK cells to kill target cells is inversly related to target cell expression of MHC class I molecule. If virus infection or neoplastic transformation reduces the expression of MHC I, inhibitory signals are interrupted and lysis of target cells occur. 3. Lymphokine activated killer (LAK) cells These are NK - cells treated with IL-2 Kill tumor cells more efficiently than unstimulated NK cents.

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What is Respiratory acidosis is characterized by primary: and explain in detail?

Respiratory acidosis is caused by CO2 retention - excess carbonic acid.

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What is Spongiform degeneration of cerebral cortex occurs in - and explain in detail?

Ans. is 'a' i.e., Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease o On microscopic examination, in Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease the pathognomonic finding is a spongiform transformation of the cerebral cortex and, often, deep gray matter structures (caudate, putamen); this consists of a multifocal process that results in the uneven formation of small, apparently empty, microscopic vacuoles of varying sizes within the neuropil and sometimes in the perikaryon of neurons. In advanced cases, there is severe neuronal loss, reactive gliosis, and sometimes expansion of the vacuolated areas into cystlike spaces ("status spongiosus").o Kuru plaques are extracellular deposits of aggregated abnormal protein; they are Congo red-positive as well as PAS-positive and occur in the cerebellum in cases of Gerstmann-Strdussler-Scheinker syndrome; they are present in abundance in the cerebral cortex in cases of variant CJD.o In all forms of prion disease, immunohistochemical staining demonstrates the presence of proteinase-K-resistant PrPsc in tissue.o Fatal familial insomnia does not show spongiform pathology. Instead, the most striking alteration is neuronal loss and reactive gliosis in the anterior ventral and dorsomedial nuclei of the thalamus; neuronal loss is also prominent in the inferior olivary nuclei.Some important questions on Prions diseaseo Disease confined to nervous system.o Caused by infection proteinaceous particles called prions.o Characterized by neurodegeneration and spongiform changes.o Usually have long incubation period.o Disease is usually chronic progressive disease.o The disease is invariably fatal.o The host shows no inflammatory response and no immune res pons.

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What is Normal asymptomatic case of myocardial infarction previously treated with antiplatelet and thrombolytic therapy. Secondary prophylaxis for this patients with and explain in detail?

(Beta- blockers) (324- CMDT-08) (1543-H17th)Secondary prevention of MI* b -blockers improve survival rates, primarily by reducing the incidence of sudden death in high -risk subjects of patients through their value may be less in patients without complications with small infection and normal exercise tests* b -blockade should be avoided in patients with decompensated heart failure, decompensated asthma or high degrees of AV block* Antiplatelet agent - aspirin and clopidogrel are recommended

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What is Increased LDH helps in diagnosis of? and explain in detail?

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What is The ligand binding by one of the following is calcium dependent: and explain in detail?

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What is Bennett's fracture is fracture dislocation of base of --- metacarpal: and explain in detail?

D i.e. 1st

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What is Stagnant hypoxia is seen in and explain in detail?

Stagnant hypoxia, as its name implies, refers to situations in which blood flow is abnormally low as occurs in shock, syncope or other "low-flow" states. In terms of oxygen transpo, decreased blood flow (hypoperfusion) is the primary limitation, and thus, the problem resides with the cardiovascular system Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number: 353,354,355

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What is Pulsus bisiferiens is seen in all except and explain in detail?

Ref Harrison 19 th ed pg 1526 Pulsus bisferiens, also known as biphasic pulse, is an aoic waveform with two peaks per cardiac cycle, a small one followed by a strong and broad one. It is a sign of problems with the aoic valve, including aoic stenosis and aoic regurgitation, as well as hyperophic cardiomyopathy causing subaoic stenosis.

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What is Subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord is due to deficiency of - and explain in detail?

<p> Vitamin B 12 Complex organometallic compound with a cobalt atom. Vitamin B12 cooperates with folate in the synthesis of DNA, so deficiency leads to megaloblastosis. Good sources are liver, kidney, meat , fish, eggs, milk and cheese. Liver is the main storage source. Deficiency:- Associated with megaloblastic anemia( pernicious anemia), demyelinating neurological lesions in spinal cord and infeility. The symptoms include paresthesia( numbness and tingling) of fingers and toes. In advanced stages, confusion, loss of memory and psychosis. Neurological symptoms of pernicious anemia are believed to be due to accumulation of methylmalonyl CoA that interferes in myelin sheath formation. {Reference: Park&;s textbook of community medicine 23 rd edition}

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What is Which of the following is NOT a feature of HIV infection in childhood – and explain in detail?

"Kaposi sarcoma, commonly seen in men with advanced HIV disease, has been reported only rarely in children". Clinical manifestations of HIV infection in children Failure to thrive is universal                                                                    P. carinii pneumonia → M.C. AIDS-defining illness in children       Recurrent and chronic bacterial infections (first sign).                         Otitis, Sinusitis, Pneumonia                                                                   Hepatosplenomegaly                                                                                Anemia / Thrombocytopenia / Neutropenia     Lymphadenopathy         Dermatological complications    Candidiasis     Hepatitis Lymphoid interstitial pneumonia    Cardiomyopathy

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What is Microvesicular steatohepatosis seen in and explain in detail?

Option a, c, d have macrovesicular steatosis.

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What is In early AIDS infection of ELISA is negative what should be done - and explain in detail?

None

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What is A man, after skinning a dead animal, developed a pustule on his hand. A smear prepared from the lesion showed the presence of Gram positive bacilli in long chains which were positive for McFadyean's reaction. The most likely aetiological agent is- and explain in detail?

None

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What is Hegar sign? and explain in detail?

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What is A 40 years old male patient presented to surgery OPD with history of serous discharge from an external opening located in perianal region(posterior openings). On examination, the location of external opening was at 4'O clock position. What is the location of internal opening? and explain in detail?

Goodsall's Rule: Anterior openings - Straight tracks - Location of external & internal openings are in the same position. Eg: Location of external opening is 1'0 clock position the location of internal opening is also at 1'0 clock position Posterior openings - Curved tracks - Location of external & internal opening - Not same - Eg: External opening - 4,5,6,7,8,'O clockInternal opening - 6'O clock position Exceptions 1. Multiple external openings: - Posterior rule is applied - Internal opening - posteriorly in midline 2. Location of external opening > 3cms from anal verge: - Posterior rule will be applied

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What is Which of the following drug has a orable effect on lipid metabolism? and explain in detail?

Clonidine is central sympatholytic and central alpha 2 agonist. It can cause lipid mobilization. It is implicated to be used for weight gain but, the use is not yet official Ref: Tripati 8th edition

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What is Which of the following is not used in acute attack of severe pain due to gout ? and explain in detail?

Ans. is 'c' i.e., Febuxostat

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What is For the immediately life-threatening injuries of the chest "Flail chest", select the proper intervention (SELECT 1 INTERVENTION) and explain in detail?

Flail chest describes the paradoxical motion of the chest wall that occurs when consecutive ribs are broken in more than one place, usually following blunt trauma to the thorax. Respiratory distress may ensue when the noncompliant flail segment interferes with generation of adequate positive and negative intrathoracic pressure needed to move air through the trachea. In addition, a blow sufficiently violent to cause a flail chest may also contuse the underlying pulmonary parenchyma, which compounds the respiratory distress. Treatment consists of stabilizing the chest wall. Although some temporary benefit may be gained by external buttressing of the chest (e.g., with sandbags, or by turning the patient onto the affected side), endotracheal intubation provides rapid and safe control of the airway, as well as stabilization of the chest internally by positive pressure ventilation.

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What is Which of the following Sulfonamides is used as eye drops? and explain in detail?

1. Sulfacetamide - used as cream to treat skin infections and as eye drops to treat eye infections. 2. It is active against both Gram+ve and Gram-ve bacteria. 3. Its high aqueous solubility is about 90 times that of Sulfadiazine. Solutions of the sodium salt of the drug are employed extensively in the management of ophthalmic infections. Very high aqueous concentrations are not irritating to the eye and are effective against susceptible microorganisms. The drug penetrates into ocular fluids and tissues in high concentration.

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What is A young man is brought to the emergency depament with head injury following a motor vehicle accident. The patient is unconscious. BEST prognostic factor for head injury is: and explain in detail?

In severe head injury, the clinical features of eye opening, motor responses of the limbs, and verbal output have been found to be generally predictive of outcome. These three responses are assessed by the Glasgow Coma Scale; a score between 3 and 15 is assigned. Over 85% of patients with aggregate scores of Ref: Ropper A.H. (2012). Chapter 378. Concussion and Other Head Injuries. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds), Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e.

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What is All the following are true regarding FASTexcept and explain in detail?

None

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What is Which of the following is removed in extended right colectomy? and explain in detail?

Right colectomy/Hemicolectomy Ileocolic, right colic vessels & Right branches of the middle colic vessels are ligated divided 10 cm of terminal ileum are usually included in the resection Extended Right colectomy/Hemicolectomy Ileocolic, Right colic vessels & Middle Colic vessels at their base Right colon & proximal transverse colon are resected. Transverse Colectomy - Ligation of Middle colic vessels - Resection of Transverse colon Left colectomy/ Hemicolectomy - Left branches of Middle colic vessels, Left colic vessels & first branches of Sigmoid vessels are ligated Sigmoid colectomy - Ligation & division of sigmoid branches of IMA. Colectomy Pa removed Extended right colectomy A, B, C, D, E, F, G Sigmoid colectomy A+B-J,K Left colectomy G, H, I Transverse colectomy D, E, F, G, H

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What is Golden hour of fracture femur is? and explain in detail?

Ans. is 'a' i.e., 1 hr after injury Golden Hour It is the first hour from the time of trauma. It is the most critical for life and for the limb bility following fracture femur. Best prognosis is for the patients with fracture femur are for those who reach the OR in the golden hour. The emergency medical team should not take more than 10 minutes from the time of trauma in patients with fracture femur to decide and sta shifting the patient. This is described as "Platinum Ten". Thus, Golden hour -1 hour from the time of injury. Platinum hour - ten minutes from the time of injury.

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What is When does switchover from fetal to adult haemoglobin synthesis begins and explain in detail?

36 weeks of gestation is the period where conversion of fetal hemoglobin to adult hemoglobin occurs. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition

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What is Root value of radial nerve is: and explain in detail?

Radial nerve is the continuation of posterior cord. Root value of posterior cord is C5,6,7,8 ,T1 (has 5 root values) Posterior cord is formed by posterior divisions of upper, middle and lower trunks. It supplies posterior compament of upper limb.

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What is Slowest conductig nerve fibre is and explain in detail?

Postganglionic autonomic fibres are type C fibres which are unmyelinated. Hence they are slowest conducting nerve fibre.

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What is Rotavirus vaccine is - and explain in detail?

Ans. is 'a' i.e., Live oral * The Rotavirus vaccines are live -attenuated vaccines given orally.* Two new vaccines are now in use -i) RV5 oralpentavalent vaccine (Rota teq) Contains five reassortant rotaviruses developed from 5 human strains on bovine rotavirus background ii) RV1 monovalent vaccine (Rotarix) contains one live attenuated rotavirus strain * The administration of Rotarix (2 doses) and Rota Teq (3 doses) needs to be completed by 32 weeks of age to minimize any potential risk of intusscusception.

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What is Advantages of binocular indirect ophthalmoscopy are all except and explain in detail?

.

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What is Not a content of sphenopalatine fossa and explain in detail?

None

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What is Visual acuity of 6/60 is classified as? and explain in detail?

Low vision REF: khurana 4'h ed p. 444 Category (grade) Level Normal vision (0) 6/6 to 6/18 Low vision (1) Less than 6/18 to 6/60 Low vision (2) Less than 6/60 to 3/60 Blindness (3) Less than 3/60 to 1/60 Blindness (4) Less than 1/60 to light perception Blindness (5) No light perception

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What is Assessment and aiding for development of funds for the National Blindness control Programme is done by ? and explain in detail?

Ans. is b' i.e., World Bank

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What is The shoest diameter of fetal head is : and explain in detail?

Fetal head diameters Largest transverse diameter is biparietal diameter measuring approximately 9.5cms Shoest transverse diameter is bitemporal diameter measuring approximately 8cms Reference: William's Obstetrics; 24th Edition; Chapter 5 The transverse diameters of fetal skull which are concerned with the mechanism of labor are -- Biparietal diameter--9.5 cm (3 3/4 ''): It extends between two parietal eminences. Whatever may be the position of the head, this diameter nearly always engages. -- Super-subparietal--8.5 cm (3 1/2 ''): It extends from a point placed below one parietal eminence to a point placed above the other parietal eminence of the opposite side. -- Bitemporal diameter--8 cm (3 1/4 ''): It is the distance between the anteroinferior ends of the coronal suture. -- Bimastoid diameter -- 7.5 cm (3''): It is the distance between the tips of the mastoid processes. The diameter is incompressible and it is impossible to reduce the length of the bimastoid diameter by obstetrical operation. reference: D C Dutta Textbook of Obstetrics 7th edition page 85

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What is In case of hepatic porphyria the safe anticonvulsant is and explain in detail?

(A) Clonazepam > Seizures can be due to neurologic effects or to hyponatremia.> Treatment of seizures is difficult because virtually all antiseizure drugs (except bromides) may exacerbate> AIP (clonazepam may be safer than phenytoin or barbiturates).

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What is NO is synthesized by all except - and explain in detail?

Platelets o Three isoforms of NO synthase have been identified Neuronal NOS (nNOS or NOS-1); (ii) Macrophage or inducible NOS (iNOS orNOS-2); and (Hi) Endothelial NOS (eNOS or NOS-3). NOS-1 and NOS-3 are constitutive enzymes, whereas NOS2 is inducible in inflammatory' conditions. o NOS-1 and NOS-3 are activated by Ca +2Q o NO synthase is a very complex enzyme, employing five redox cofactors: NADPH, FAD, FMN, heme, and tetrahydrobiopterin Q .

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What is Durkheim work was related to ? and explain in detail?

Ans. is 'c' i.e., Division of labor Four major works of Durkheim are :? Division of Labor in society. Rules of sociological methods. Suicide Elementary forms of religious life.

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What is Isotopes used in relief of metastatic bone pain includes – a) Strontium–89b) I–131c) Gold–198d) P–32e) Rhenium–l86 and explain in detail?

Radiopharmaceuticals (radioactive isotopes) used for metastatic bone pain are strantium (Sr"), Samarium (Sm153), Rhenium (Re186), Phosphorus (P32), and Tin (Sn117). Some guides have included I-131 also as the answer, but Iodine-131 is not used for metastatic bone pain.

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What is In cranial synostosis scaphyocephaly there is premature closure of which suture ? and explain in detail?

None

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What is Nitrogen narcosis is caused due to and explain in detail?

Nitrogen has anesthetic effect on body The precise mechanism is not well understood, but it appears to be the direct effect of gas dissolving into nerve membranes and causing temporary disruption in nerve transmissions. While the effect was first observed with air, other gases including argon, krypton and hydrogen cause very similar effects at higher than atmospheric pressure. Some of these effects may be due to antagonism at NMDAreceptors and potentiation of GABAA receptors,similar to the mechanism of nonpolar anesthetics such diethyl ether or ethylene. However, their reproduction by the very chemically inactive gas argon makes them unlikely to be a strictly chemical bonding to receptors in the usual sense of a chemical bond. An indirect physical effect - such as a change in membrane volume - would therefore be needed to affect the ligand-gated ion channels of nerve cells.Trudell et al. have suggested non-chemical binding due to the attractive van der Waals force between proteins and ine gases. Similar to the mechanism of ethanol's effect, the increase of gas dissolved in nerve cell membranes may cause altered ion permeability propeies of the neural cells' lipid bilayers. The paial pressure of a gas required to cause a measured degree of impairment correlates well with the lipid solubility of the gas: the greater the solubility, the less paial pressure is needed. An early theory, the Meyer-Oveon hypothesis, suggested that narcosis happens when the gas penetrates the lipids of the brain's nerve cells, causing direct mechanical interference with the transmission of signals from one nerve cell to another. More recently, specific types of chemically gated receptors in nerve cells have been identified as being involved with anesthesia and narcosis. However, the basic and most general underlying idea, that nerve transmission is altered in many diffuse areas of the brain as a result of gas molecules dissolved in the nerve cells' fatty membranes, remains largely unchallenged Ref guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12/e p1036

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What is Hyperparathyroidism causes - and explain in detail?

Radiological features of bone are : Rarefaction of bones, salt pepper skull, loss of lamina dura, sub-periosteal resorption of bone, multiple cysts, Brown's tumor, and collapse of vertebrae with biconvex disc.

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What is A patient with ITP has low platelet count and is being planned for splenectomy. What is the best time for platelet infusion in this patient? and explain in detail?

None

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What is A 34 weeks pregnant with complaints of leaking vaginal discharge. What examination will confirm premature rupture of membranes in this patient? and explain in detail?

C i.e. Speculum examRef: Williams' Textbook of ObstetricsExplanation:>>The question is about the 'confirmatory test' for PROM.Preterm Premature Rupture of MembranesThis term defines spontaneous rupture of the fetal membranes before 37 completed weeks and before labour onset.Diagnosis of Ruptured Membranes:Sterile speculum examination-ruptured membranes are diagnosed if amniotic fluid pools in the posterior fornix or clear fluid flows from cervical canal.Litmus test-PH of vaginal secretions normally ranges from 4.5 to 5.5 whereas that of amniotic fluid is usually 7.0 to 7.5. Therefore red litmus paper turns blue.Microscopic ferning.Nitrazine test-yellow nitrazine paper turns blue.Arborization or ferning of vaginal fluid-Amniotic fluid crystallizes to form fern like pattern due to relative concentrations of sodium chloride, proteins and carbohydrates.Detection of alpha fetoprotein in vaginal vault has been used to identify amniotic fluid.0.1% Nile blue sulfate test (orange coloured cells seen).USG will show oligohydramniosFalse positive tests results may occur with coexistent blood, semen, or bacterial vaginosis where results may occur due to scant fluid.

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What is Retrograde ejaculation and explain in detail?

Retrograde ejaculation occurs when semen which would be ejaculated via the urethra is redirected to the urinary bladder. Normally, the sphincter of the bladder contracts before ejaculation, sealing the bladder which besides inhibiting the release of urine also prevents a reflux of seminal fluids into the male bladder during ejaculation. The semen is forced to exit via the urethra, the path of least resistance. When the bladder sphincter does not function properly, retrograde ejaculation may occur. It can also be induced deliberately by a male as a primitive form of male birth control (known as coitus saxonicus) or as part of certain alternative medicine practices. The retrograde-ejaculated semen, which goes into the bladder, is excreted with the next urination. Signs and symptoms Retrograde ejaculation is sometimes referred to as a "dry orgasm." Retrograde ejaculation is one symptom of male infertility. A man may notice during masturbation that despite the occurrence of orgasm, no accompanying ejaculation was produced. Another underlying cause for this phenomenon may be ejaculatory duct obstruction. During a male orgasm, sperm are released from the epididymis and travel via small tubes called the vas deferens. The sperm mix with seminal fluid in the seminal vesicles, prostate fluid from the prostate gland, and lubricants from the bulbourethral gland. During climax, muscles at the end of the bladder neck tighten to prevent retrograde flow of semen. In retrograde ejaculation, these bladder neck muscles are either very weak or the nerves controlling the muscles have been damaged. Causes A malfunctioning bladder sphincter, leading to retrograde ejaculation, may be a result either of: Autonomic nervous system dysfunction. (Dysautonomia) Operation on the prostate. It is a common complication of transurethral resection of the prostate, a procedure in which prostate tissue is removed, slice by slice, through a resectoscope passed along the urethra.It can also be caused by a retroperitoneal lymph node dissection for testicular cancer if nerve pathways to the bladder sphincter are damaged, with the resulting retrograde ejaculation being either temporary or permanent. Modern nerve-sparing techniques seek to reduce this risk; however, it may also occur as the result of Green Light Laser prostate surgery. Surgery on the bladder neck accounted for about ten percent of the cases of retrograde ejaculation or anejaculation reported in a literature review.Retrograde ejaculation is a common side effect of medications, such as tamsulosin, that are used to relax the muscles of the urinary tract, treating conditions such as benign prostatic hyperplasia. By relaxing the bladder sphincter muscle, the likelihood of retrograde ejaculation is increased. The medications that mostly cause it are antidepressant and antipsychotic medication, as well as NRIs such as atomoxetine; patients experiencing this phenomenon tend to quit the medications.Retrograde ejaculation can also be a complication of diabetes, especially in cases of diabetics with long term poor blood sugar control. This is due to neuropathy of the bladder sphincter. Post-pubertal males (aged 17 to 20 years) who experience repeated episodes of retrograde ejaculation are often diagnosed with urethral stricture disease shortly after the initial complaint arises. It is currently not known whether a congenital malformation of the bulbous urethra is responsible, or if pressure applied to the base of the penis or perineum immediately preceding ejaculatory inevitability may have inadvertently damaged the urethra. This damage is most often seen within 0.5 cm of the ejaculatory duct (usually distal to the duct). Conditions which can affect bladder neck muscle Medications to treat high blood pressure, benign prostate hyperplasia, mood disorders, surgery on the prostate and nerve injury (which may occur in multiple sclerosis, spinal cord injury or diabetes). Diagnosis Diagnosis is usually determined after a medical professional performs a urinalysis on a urine specimen that is obtained shortly after ejaculation. In cases of retrograde ejaculation, the specimen will contain an abnormal level of sperm. Especially in case of orgasmic anejaculation, anejaculation can often be confused with retrograde ejaculation, and they share some fundamental aspects of the cause. Urinalysis is used to distinguish between them. Tests The genitals are physically examined to ensure that there are no anatomical problems. The urine will be tested for the presence of semen. If there are no sperm in the urine, it may be due to damage to the prostate as a result of surgery or prior radiation therapy. Treatments The treatment depends on the cause. Medications may work for retrograde ejaculation but only in a few cases. Surgery rarely is the first option for retrograde ejaculation and the results have proven to be inconsistent. Medications do not help retrograde ejaculation if there has been permanent damage to the prostate or the testes from radiation. Medications also do not help if prostate surgery has resulted in damage to the muscles or nerves. Medications only work if there has been mild nerve damage caused by diabetes, multiple sclerosis, or mild spinal cord injury. Medications Tricyclic antidepressants like imipramine. Antihistamines like chlorphenamine. Decongestants like ephedrine and phenylephrine.These medications tighten the bladder neck muscles and prevent semen from going backwards into the bladder. However, the medications do have many side effects and they have to be taken at least 1–2 hours prior to sexual intercourse. In many cases, the medications fail to work at the right time because most men are not able to predict when they will have an orgasm. Infertility treatments If a couple is experiencing infertility as a result of retrograde ejaculation and medications are not helping, the collection of the semen collection may undergo a special procedure. First, the patient alkalinizes his urine by intake of sodium bicarbonate (3g dissolved in water in the evening before bed, and then another dose after complete bladder emptying right before going to the laboratory)

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What is Targeted intervention programmes for HIV are done among the following group of people, EXCEPT: and explain in detail?

The basic purpose of the targeted interventions for HIV is to reduce the rate of transmission of HIV among the most vulnerable population such as, Sex workers Intravenous drug users Homosexual men Truckers Migrant laborers Street children The main activities under these intervention projects are behaviour change, communication, treatment for STDs and creating an enabling environment that will facilitate behaviour change. Ref: Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 19th edition, Page 359.

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What is A lady with 38 weeks of pregnancy is admitted in view of first episode of painless bout of bleeding yesterday. O/E: Hb 10.5g%, BP 124/78 mmHg, uterus relaxed, and head is un-engaged and floating. FHS regular. Next line of management is: and explain in detail?

This is a case of placenta pre (painless bleeding, relaxed uterus, and floating head all point to placenta pre). Since the lady is already 38 weeks, there is no need for conservative management since maturity is already achieved. The best management is a Cesarean section here If the same patient presented at less than 36 weeks, the answer would be wait and watch. If there was fetal distress at any stage after 28 weeks with APH, the answer would be LSCS If there was maternal hemodynamic instability, the answer would be blood and IV fluids, followed by emergency LSCS.

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What is An 18-year-old girl presented with multiple nasal polypi in both nostrils with nasal obstruction and sinusitis. CT scan shows dense shadows in the sinuses. Histopathology did not show fungal invasion of tissues. All of the following treatments can be given except: and explain in detail?

The clinical picture and CT findings in the above patient indicate a diagnosis of allergic fungal rhinosinusitis. It is a type I hypersensitivity presenting with nasal polypi. CT findings are hyperdense material in the sinus cavity. Histologically no tissue invasion by fungus is seen though fungus can be stained and cultured from the tissues. Since tissue invasion by fungus is absent, there is no need for amphotericin B, though all other modes of treatment would be required to treat nasal polypi and type I hypersensitivity reaction.

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What is The following are the psychiatric sequalae after stroke in elderly and explain in detail?

A i.e. Depression

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What is A mother with 10 weeks pregnancy and who had previously delivered a baby with open neural tube defect which statement is true and explain in detail?

Ans. is a i.e Sodium valproate causes open neural tube defect Sodium valproate "used during pregnancy, has produced neural tube defects in the offspring; therefore should be avoided". KDT 5/e, p 375 Therefore option "a" is correct "The risk of recurrence of anencephaly is 5% after one affected child and 13% after two affected children deg''

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What is Apoenzyme is ? and explain in detail?

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What is Antibodies against double stranded DNA and smooth muscle antigens are virtually diagnostic of: and explain in detail?

Ans. b (Systemic Lupus Erythematosus). (Ref. Robbin's Pathologic Basis of Disease 7th/131: H 18th/Table 319-1)Autoantibodies in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)AntibodyPrevalence, %Clinical UtilityAntinuclear antibodies98Best screening test; repeated negative tests make SLE unlikelyAnti-dsDNA70High titers are SLE-specific and in some patients correlate with disease activity, nephritis, vasculitisAnti-Sm25Specific for SLE; no definite clinical correlations; most patients also have anti-RNP; more common in blacks and Asians than whitesAnti-RNP40Not specific for SLE; high titers associated with syndromes that have overlap features of several rheumatic syndromes.Anti-Ro (SS-A)30Not specific for SLE; associated with sicca syndrome, predisposes to subacutecutaneous lupus, and to neonatal lupus with congenital heart block; associated with decreased risk for nephritisAnti-La (SS-B)10Usually associated with anti-Ro; associated with decreased risk for nephritisAntihistone70More frequent in drug-induced lupus than in SLEAntiphospholipid50Three tests available-ELISAs for cardiolipin and P 2G1, sensitive prothrombin time (Dilute Russell Viper Venom Time DRVVT); predisposes to clotting, fetal loss, thrombocytopeniaAntierythrocyte60Measured as direct Coombs' test; a small proportion develops overt hemolysisAntiplatelet30Associated with thrombocytopenia but sensitivity and specificity are not good; this is not a useful clinical testAntineuronal (includes anti-glutamate receptor)60In some series a positive test in CSF correlates with active CNS lupus.Antiribosomal P20In some series a positive test in serum correlates with depression or psychosis due to CNS lupusAlso remember: AutoantibodyAssociated disorder1Anti-IgG (rheumatoid factor)Rheumatoid arthritis2AnticentromereScleroderma (CREST)3Anti-Scl-70Scleroderma (diffuse)4AntimitochondrialPrimary biliary cirrhosis5Antigiiadin , Anti-glutaminase, Anti-reticulinCeliac disease6Anti-basement membraneGoodpasture's syndrome7Anti-epithelial cellPemphigus vulgaris8Antimicrosomal, antithyroglobulinHashimoto's thyroiditis9Anti-Jo-1Polymyositis, dermatomyositis10Anti-SS-A (anti-Ro)Sjogren's syndrome11Anti-SS-B (anti-La)Sjogren's syndrome12Anti-Ul RNP (ribonucleoprotein)Mixed connective tissue disease13Anti-smooth muscleAutoimmune hepatitis14Anti-glutamate decarboxylaseType 1 diabetes mellitus15c-ANCAWegener's granulomatosis16p-ANCAOther vasculitides17Antisaccharomyces cervicaeCrohn's disease18Anti-kuSLE

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What is Which of the hepatitis prevalent in pregnancy ? and explain in detail?

Ans. is 'd' i.e., Hepatitis E

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What is In a patient with mild ulcerative colitis, mainstay of treatment is and explain in detail?

The mainstay of therapy for mild to moderate UC is sulfasalazine and the other 5-ASA agents.The majority of patients with moderate to severe UC benefit from oral or parenteral glucocoicoids.Azathioprine and 6-mercaptopurine (6-MP) are purine analogues commonly employed in the management of glucocoicoid-dependent IBD. Antibiotics have no role in the treatment of active or quiescent UC.Metronidazole is effective in active inflammatory, fistulous, and perianal CD and may prevent recurrence after ileal resection.Ref: Harrison 19e pg: 1960

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What is A 20 year old female is diagnosed with granulosa cell tumor of the ovary. Which of the following biomarkers would be most useful for follow-up of patient? and explain in detail?

Inhibin is secreted by granulosa cells and elevated tissue and serum levels of which are useful for identifying granulosa tumor and monitoring treated patients. Mutations of the FOXL2 gene is observed in 97% of adult granulosa cell tumors. Granulosa cell tumor: Marker is inhibin. Inhibin has been studied in women with granulosa cell tumors. It is a peptide hormone produced by ovarian granulosa cells that play a role in the regulation of FSH secretion by the pituitary. It is composed of an alpha subunit and 1 of 2 beta subunits (BA or BB). Although inhibin A and inhibin B levels can both be elevated in patients with granulosa cell tumors, inhibin B level is usually elevated in a higher propoion of these tumors.

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What is A 30 year old lady presents with obsessions and compulsions and is diagnosed to have OCD. Which of the following is not true about her condition? and explain in detail?

Obsessive compulsive disorder is an anxiety disorder, characterised by recurrent obsessions or compulsions which cause marked distress and functional impairment. In this, patients have insight about the illness but are unable to resist their actions. This is ego dystonic. Ego syntonic traits are seen in patients with personality disorders. Something that goes with the ego is called ego syntonic and something that goes against the ego is called ego dystonic. Reference: Current Diagnosis & Treatment: Psychiatry, 2e chapter 21

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What is Patient complaints of muscle weakness. It was rivers on administration of neostigmine because and explain in detail?

(Ref: Katzung 11/e p105) Neostigmine acts by inhibiting the enzyme acetylcholinesterase. This enzyme is involved in degradation of ACh,consequently neostigmine inereases the synaptic level of ACh. Muscle weakness can be improved by stimulation of NM receptors at muscle end plate due to increased ACh.

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What is Aery in anatomical snuffbox is and explain in detail?

Radial nerve along with superficial branch of radial nerve and cephalic vein are the contents of anatomical snuff box.Brachial aery passes from medial side of arm to its anterior aspect.Ulnar aery passes over the flexor retinaculum in the forearm.B D Chaurasia 7th edition Page no: 136

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What is Schiller Duval bodies are seen in and explain in detail?

Refer Robbins page no 1031

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What is Which cell type(s) have action potentials in the retina of the human eye? and explain in detail?

Ganglion cells are the only cell type in the retina that have action potentials. The axons of ganglion cells comprise the optic nerve. Bipolar cells, cones, rods, horizontal cells, and other cell types in the retina signal information by electrotonic conduction, which allows a graded response propoional to light intensity Extra edge Order of neurons Cells 1st-order neurons Photoreceptors (Rods and cones) 2nd-order neurons Bipolar cells 3rd-order neurons Ganglion cells (Optic nerve) 4th-order neurons Axons from the LGB (optic radiation)

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What is A 64-year-old man presents with headache and left-sided upper extremity weakness. The MRI of brain is given below. What does an MRI exhibits ? and explain in detail?

Glioblastoma multiforme -Endothelial proliferationor necrosison histology makes the tumorgrade IV. - Know asbutterfly tumoras it crosses midline - Seen inolder patient (> 50 years) - Grows rapidly, - Tumor often contains a necrotic core that occurs as its growth surpasses its blood supply. - MRI Irregular shape, Poor demarcation from surrounding brain tissue Presence of variable amount of surrounding white-matter edema. -Treatment: Cytoreductive surgeryfollowed byEB. The extent of tumor resectionbhas asignificant effecton time to tumorprogressionand mediansurvival. Carmustineandcisplatinhave been the primary agents used againstmalignant gliomas. Temozolomide has shown some promise in the management ofnewly diagnosedandrecurrent GBM,with an overall surl time of 13.6 months. -Median survivaltime forGBMis<1 year.

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What is Radio labelled DNA was allowed to replicate twice in a non-radioactive environment. Which of the following is true? and explain in detail?

Ans. B. Half of the DNA will have no radioactivity(Ref: Harper 31/e page 363)Semiconservative Nature of DNA Replication proved by Meselson and Stahl states that half of the parent strand is conserved during replication in the daughter strand.After one replication all the DNA will have radioactivity.After two replication half of the DNA will have radioactivity.

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What is Central stellate scar is seen in and explain in detail?

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What is A 45-year-old male, Sanjeev was brought to the emergency with severe agitation and aggressive behavior. He was staed on haloperidol and the patient became responsive and cooperative. After 8 days of treatment, he developed high grade fever, diarrhea, confusion and muscle rigidity. Which of the following should be used for the treatment of this condition? and explain in detail?

(Ref: Katzung 11/e p499) Diagnosis in this patient is neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS). It is an adverse effect caused by typical antipsychotic drugs like haloperidol. It presents clinically with four primary features: (1) hypehermia, (2) extreme generalized rigidity, (3) autonomic instability, and (4) altered mental status. Dantrolene is drug of choice for this condition.

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What is What is the treatment of appendicular carcinoma 3cm x 2cm in size in 24 year old male? and explain in detail?

Ans. is 'a' i.e., Right hemicolectomy o Has been explained in previous sessions

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What is Climbing fibres of cerebellar cortex are - and explain in detail?

Ans. is 'a' i.e., Olivocerebellar fibers o Input (afferent) cerebellum comes from two fibers.Climbing fibers (olivocerebellar fibers) bring information from inferior olivary nuclei only.Mossy fibers bring information from all other parts of the body.

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What is The commonest cause of intestinal obstruction in children is – and explain in detail?

Intussusception Intussusception occurs when a portion of the alimentary tract is telescoped into an adjacent segment. It is the most common cause of intestinal obstruction between 3 months and 6 years of age. It is more common in males. Intusssception may be → i) Ileocolic (most common)     ii) Cecocolic                          iii) Ileoileal The upper portion of bowel that invaginates into lower portion is called intussusceptum. The lower portion which receives telescoped upper portion is called intussuscipiens.

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What is In patient with high clinical suspicion of pulmonary thromboembolism, best investigation would be? and explain in detail?

B i.e. CT angiography Spiral or helical chest CT scan with intravenous contrast (CT pulmonary angiography) is the principal imaging test for the diagnosis of pulmonary embolsmQ. It acquires image with < 1 m resolution and visualizes up to 6th order branches and small peripheral emboli with a resolution superior to conventional invasive contrast pulmonary angiography. It obtains excellent images of right & left ventricle and can be used for diagnosis as well as risk stratification. In patients with pulmonary embolism, RV enlargement indicates 5 times more likelihood of death within next 30 days. Inadequate breath holding can impair the image quality b/o change in aerial flow rates and motion aefact during breathing. The advent of multidetector CT (MDCT) allows examination of whole lung during single breath -hold. It is noninvasive. Ventilation - perfusion lung scanning is now second line diagnostic testa for PE, and mostly used in patients who cannot tolerate intravenous contrast. Its utility is greatest when accompanied with a normal chest x-ray implying that a ventilation - perfusion mismatch is not due to parenchymal disease. High probability (>80%) scan have 2 large segmental V-P mismatches (perfusion defects & normal ventilation) with a normal chest radiograph. And very low probability scans have micropaicles (10 - 100 1.1 m) of Tc99 micro - aggregate albumin (MAA) in patients lying supine. Ventilation scintigraphy is performed by inhalating Krypton - 81, (best), Xenon 133, Tc99 - diethylenetriamine penta acetic acid (DTPA), or technegas. Last two can't be administered during perfusion scan as both are labelled with Tc99. Eight images (anterior, posterior, obtique & lateral on both sides) are aquired. Conventional pulmonary angiography: Non invasive CT with contrast have viually replaced invasive pulmonary angiography as a diagnostic tool. However, it remains the gold standard testa.

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What is A 30 yr old mail presents with complaints of dysphagia with regurgitation and foul breath. On examination, pallor is present along with bilateral lung crepitations. The most likely diagnosis is: and explain in detail?

Zenker's diveiculum is an outpouching of the cervical esophagus. Mucosa of the esophagus protrudes through an anatomically weak area between the cricopharyngeus inferiorly and the thyropharyngeus. Zenker diveiculum often causes clinical manifestations such as dysphagia, regurgitation, cough, halitosis. A simple barium swallow will normally reveal the diveiculum. Endoscopy should not be performed due to the risk of perforating the diveiculum. Surgery is indicated for large diveicula.

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What is Painful eye movement is a feature of : and explain in detail?

Anterior uveitis , also known as iridocyclitis and iritis, is the inflammation of the iris and anterior chamber. Anywhere from two-thirds to 90% of uveitis cases are anterior in location. Injection, photophobia, pain, and blurred vision usually accompany iritis (anterior uveitis or iridocyclitis). Ref : Braverman R.S. (2012). Chapter 16. Eye. In W.W. Hay, Jr., M.J. Levin, R.R. Deterding, J.J. Ross, J.M. Sondheimer (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Pediatrics, 21e.

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What is Epiretinal membrane is seen in - and explain in detail?

Ans. is 'a' i.e. Posterior vitreous detachment o Epiretinal membrane is a disease of the eye in response to changes in the vitreous humor or more rarely, diabetes. It is also called macular pucker.o Sometimes, as a result of immune system response to protect the retina, cells converge in the macular area as the vitreous ages and pulls away in posterior vitreous detachment (PVD).o PVD can create minor damage to the retina, stimulating exudate, inflammation, and leucocyte response. These cells can form a transparent layer gradually and, like all scar tissue, tighten to create tension on the retina which may bulge and pucker (e.g., macular pucker), or even cause swelling or macular edema.

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What is All are benefits of repeated phlebotomy in hemochromatosis, EXCEPT: and explain in detail?

Reversal of testicular atrophy is generally not seen after multiple sittings of phlebotomy in hemochromatosis. Ref: Schiffs Disease of The Live, 11th Edition, Page 835

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What is Anti-LKM antibodies are a series of autoantibodies directed against enzymes in the endoplasmic reticulum of hepatocytes and other cells that are mainly associated with various liver diseases. All of the following are TRUE about LKM antibodies, EXCEPT: and explain in detail?

Anti-LKM1 (liver-kidney microsomal) antibodies are seen in chronic hepatitis C and patients with autoimmune hepatitis type 2, and are directed against a 33-amino-acid sequence of cytochrome P450 IID6. Anti-LKM antibodies seen in hepatitis D (anti-LKM3) are directed against uridine diphosphate glucuronosyltransferase. Anti-LKM2 is associated with drug-induced hepatitis and it is directed against a cytochrome P450 enzyme. Ref: Longo D.L., Fauci A.S., Kasper D.L., Hauser S.L., Jameson J.L., Loscalzo J. (2012). Chapter 306. Chronic Hepatitis. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds), Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e.

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What is Optic tract is related to - and explain in detail?

Medial geniculate body → Auditory pathway Lateral geniculate body → Optic (visual) pathway