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73qzxl
when you cancel a download where does the data already downloaded go ?
explainlikeimfive
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/73qzxl/eli5_when_you_cancel_a_download_where_does_the/
{ "a_id": [ "dnsg0zf" ], "score": [ 7 ], "text": [ "The space allocated for the entire program, it just becomes unmarked and available for rewriting. " ] }
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18zpsd
Does Space-time have an elastic modulus?
For background (and to ensure everyone that I'm not entirely full of it) I'm an Engineering student specializing in Structural Engineering. I was thinking about the implications of gravitational waves and the fact that they exist makes me think that space-time and matter are two entirely different things that interact with each other--that matter and energy merely influence deformations in space-time and past that have no true interaction with it. This is somewhat analogous, in my opinion, to structural mechanics. It seems to me as though the bending of space-time due to mass/energy is similar to a bar of concrete or steel yielding in response to physical or thermal stresses. So my question is--should my intuition satisfy reality to a certain extent--what exactly is the relationship between the bending of space and time and mass-energy? I know that Energy is related to mass via c2, and that there are likely some considerable complications from the puzzling nature of time, but does a general relationship between the two (or four I guess) exist? If so, what is it?
askscience
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/18zpsd/does_spacetime_have_an_elastic_modulus/
{ "a_id": [ "c8jguyd" ], "score": [ 8 ], "text": [ "The relationship between the bending of space-time and mass-energy, as you say, is that the Ricci tensor minus its trace times the metric (where the metric is a 4x4 matrix that describes the pythagorean theorem through spacetime and the Ricci tensor is a differential function of the metric) is equal to a constant (8 pi G/c^4 ) times the stress energy tensor, which is an extension of the stress tensor from mechanics.\n\nSpacetime does have elastic (and viscous) properties, which are manifested as gravitational radiation. I'm not sure you can easily ascribe a modulus to it, but the shear induced by a change in the distribution of mass is proportional to the second time derivative of the moment of inertia." ] }
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coxuub
- what is the method for calculating how much sand you need in an hour glass of various sizes and times?
explainlikeimfive
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/coxuub/elif_what_is_the_method_for_calculating_how_much/
{ "a_id": [ "ewlv3x4", "ewm0y79" ], "score": [ 2, 2 ], "text": [ "Though that is needed what’s more important first is the size of the tight canal they have to travel through, and the size of the grain. Then the volume of sand can be calculated", "you just need a clock. \n\nFill the hourglass, wait an hour, dispose the rest, and seal the glass." ] }
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17aya9
Is gravity the only force that can produce a black hole? Could an extremely strong electomagnetic field create one? Also, is there a way to vary the strength of the weak and strong force in the lab? Could these forces be adjusted in a confined area?
askscience
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/17aya9/is_gravity_the_only_force_that_can_produce_a/
{ "a_id": [ "c83uqey" ], "score": [ 12 ], "text": [ "According to the theory of General Relativity, it is mass-energy which warps spacetime, and if that energy comes in the form of photons, it can form an event horizon just like with matter, forming a [kugelblitz](_URL_0_)." ] }
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[ [ "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kugelblitz_(astrophysics\\)" ] ]
164nvy
How does blubber keep mammals warm despite nerves in the skin that sense the extreme cold?
We've been taught since we were children that whales and other mammals keep warm using a thick layer of blubber. But doesn't the surface of their skin sense the extreme cold? Or do they have duller cold receptors? I understand how the body can be insulated by the blubber but when the skin comes in contact with icy cold waters how does the animal bear that temperature? (it may seem like a silly question at first but i think it deserves consideration)
askscience
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/164nvy/how_does_blubber_keep_mammals_warm_despite_nerves/
{ "a_id": [ "c7sp0q5", "c7sr240", "c7srd1o" ], "score": [ 5, 2, 2 ], "text": [ "There is a tolerance system involved. Whales don't dive from land to water so their receptor have time to adjust when they enter cold water(they enter gradually). For seals, bears and other \"furry\" mammals there is an extra thin layer of air/water that gets trapped in the fur and acts as an insulating layer. Even if they jump into cold water the receptors \"get used\" to the temperature and their signals get blocked after a while and only get reactivated when their signal changes(water temperature changes).", "Also, I believe the main role of **blubber** is to keep the internal organs warm. So it doesn't really matter if you actually 'feel' cold as far as the important bits inside are warm and protected. ", "You're confused about the perception of cold and the actuality of being cold. You're also confusing YOUR experience of cold with an animal's. Humans get very unhappy and uncomfortable when they are too cold. Animals that are adapted to cold climates don't necessarily do that. It wouldn't make evolutionary sense for an animal that lives in cold water and can tolerate swimming in the cold water without trouble for hours to find the cold troubling. Humans need to get out of the cold to maintain homeostasis, because they don't have blubber." ] }
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1k53gn
what does it imply when i read that "patents will expire"?
Shouldn't patents be for eternity? With reference to this article: _URL_0_
explainlikeimfive
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/1k53gn/eli5_what_does_it_imply_when_i_read_that_patents/
{ "a_id": [ "cblgfdo", "cblgfsm", "cblh0ug", "cbliujn", "cbllsxa", "cblmoza" ], "score": [ 25, 11, 2, 7, 2, 2 ], "text": [ "I'm sure some people with patents would like that, but patents are first and foremost a way for *the public to buy inventions*, or rather information about the way inventions work. To get a patent, you have to tell the world how your invention works, and in exchange you get a limited time to be the only one who can market it (or you can license others to use it). After that time, the patented invention is in the public domain, free for anyone to make, use and sell. ", "Eternal patents would stall technological advance, because the only owner of the technology would use it only for himself, or sell it to others for very high prices. Patents expiring after X years allow the inventor to have some profit, and delay technological advance only slightly.", "The standard minimum length of a patent is 20 years as agreed upon by all members of the world trade organisation (which includes almost every country in the world). But individual countries can choose to extend this and the US often pushes for other countries to do so as well when negotiating trade agreements", "You are confusing patents with copyright.\n\nI tell you how the European Patent Office has it's regulations.\n\nIf you create a genuinly new technology, like the magnetic levitation train, you are allowed to patent it. Ofcourse the intention is to protect the creators financial interest and to give companies a motivation to invest in research and developement.\n\nAs a result you are allowed to prohibit competitors from using your product in the open market for 20 years. So you get the monopoly on your invention. But on the other site you have to specify exactly how the new technology works or which formula you use for your medication or taste (Coca Cola), thus giving your competitors the ability to do their own research and developement on your invention. \n\nAs soon as the patent expires, they are allowed to use your invention for the open market. This means that they can use your formula to create and sell the same product as you did the last 20 years. This is the reason why many products like Coca Cola, WD-40 and Duct Tape never got patented, because by keeping the formula a secret you can outlast your market position over the 20 year period, if you are able to keep the \"manual\" for your invention secret.\n\nBest example is Bayer and Aspirin. They had a 25 years patent on Aspirin and could sell it overpriced. As soon as the patent expired, every company could reproduce Aspirin and sell it at the cheapest cost, thus making it affordable for more people.\n\nA patent lasts regularly for 20 years. The only exception is the pharmacy industry, in which the patent lasts 25 years, because of the increased time of research, developement, clinical examination and the time to get the product through the admission board.\n\nCopyright doesn't last for an eternity either. The time when the copyright expires is scheduled to 100 years. After the copyright expires, you are allowed to pirate an ebook without fearing contribution.\n\nIn light of future patent expirations regarding 3d-printers, we can expect competition to enter the market, thus making 3d-printers more affordable.\n\nHope your questioned got explained.\n", "Patents are granted for inventions that are novel, useful and inventive. The purpose of a patent is to stimulate innovation by making the teachings of an invention public, but giving the assignee of the patent a period during which he may prevent others from practicing the invention. In order to grant a patent it has to be written in such a way that somebody skilled in the art could repeat the invention themselves. Most patents have a term of 20 years from the filing date (which may be several years prior to the grant and even the publishing of the patent). Patents may expire earlier if the fees are not paid. Once a patent has expired anybody can practice the invention. A patent's life cannot be extended, but improvements to an invention can be patented (i.e. a 4 leg stool providing more stability than a 3 leg stool).", "As a society, we recognise that someone who has invented something deserves sole ownership over this item so they can reap reward for their skill/effort/intelligence etc. At the same time though, we recognise the importance of sharing information, and the benefits that come from competition.\n\nThe purpose of patents to to give the person/company who invented something time to reap reward and give that person/company time to improve ahead of competition, but they don't last forever because it's best for society to have competition. If there was only one producer of everything (the patent holders) prices would be significantly higher." ] }
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[ "http://mashable.com/2013/07/22/3d-printing-patents/" ]
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4pnity
Why do car horns sound like they do and which car was the first to make the sound we hear today??
AskHistorians
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/4pnity/why_do_car_horns_sound_like_they_do_and_which_car/
{ "a_id": [ "d4mshr5", "d4my4dw", "d4o6bte" ], "score": [ 5, 54, 6 ], "text": [ "I don't have an answer, but I'd like to say /r/askscience may also provide good answers to this interesting question. ", "Most modern cars use a dual tone car horn that actually produces two different notes. The interaction of these two frequencies creates harmonics and are easier for humans to distinguish from general noise. Because of historic manufacturing legacies, most car manufacturers have the same tones in all their cars, and depending on the era, most cars of a single country of origin would have tones in the same key. These common horn keys (F, G & C) are all in the middle octaves, probably because it's easy for humans to hear (we've evolved acoustic and mental sensitivities to noises that are similar in tone to our voice). Most modern horns use a vibrating plate of metal to generate its tone, but trains and semi-trucks take advantage of their onboard air compressors to make really loud sounds.", "Marketing plays a big role in what a horn sounds like. You can't have a weedy sounding horn on a big luxury car or a bull deep horn on a sub compact.\n\nA classic example of marketing driven sound though is the horns fitted to the 68 Roadrunner. Chrysler paid $50K a year to Warner Brothers for the rights to the image and \"Meep! Meep!\" sound of their Road Runner character. And then they paid $284 for retooling and a 47 cent cost penalty per unit (a significant investment on a per car basis in 67) to get a manufacturer to build a horn that would emulate the sound.\n\nSource: [Jack Smith, Project Manager for the Road Runner.](_URL_0_)" ] }
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[ [], [], [ "http://www.allpar.com/corporate/bios/jack-smith-roadrunner.html" ] ]
1x5kmy
is it possible to freeze fire?
explainlikeimfive
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/1x5kmy/is_it_possible_to_freeze_fire/
{ "a_id": [ "cf8b89a", "cf8bh8u", "cf8ez3p" ], "score": [ 7, 3, 2 ], "text": [ "As fire is hot gas, freezing it would just give you frozen CO2 and maybe some soot.", "No, because the heat necessary for fire is absent in frozen substances. Also, fire can be thought of here as an action that is stopped by freezing.", "What is see as fire is simply energized atoms giving off light, so no\n" ] }
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ck7arp
What are we to make of the story of the Israelites' slavery in Egypt and subsequent Exodus and its reflection on Ancient Israelite society?
Asked this last week, but noticed the theme this week and it seems to fit so trying again! Anyways, as I understand it, the academic consensus is that the story of Exodus is entirely mythic. There was no Egyptian captivity, or otherwise a time of exile there, and likewise the flight from Egypt is also a creation. But certainly there was intended meaning to the story. What do scholars see as the, ahem, genesis of the story of Exodus? What purpose did the crafting and continuation of this narrative serve within Israelite society? How does it relate to the actual relationship that existed between Israel and Egypt in the period that it nominally would have happened? I know that this is the first time we even see Israel mentioned, in 1209 BCE, but not much else. I don't want to speculate, but is the myth in any way commentary on the reality of their relationship with a stronger, more powerful neighbor?
AskHistorians
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/ck7arp/what_are_we_to_make_of_the_story_of_the/
{ "a_id": [ "evkfie5" ], "score": [ 14 ], "text": [ "As for the consensus, yes. I think this is generally the case that most believe that the Exodus was almost entirely fabricated on the basis of oral tradition. Personally, I’m disinclined from saying it was made up entirely whole cloth. The reason for this sets up the reasons for why I think it was written in the first place. \n\nAs you’re already aware, the Exodus narrative is central—and has been central—to Israelite and Jewish identity. In the early stages of state formation, hopeful leaders need narratives they can use to rally support as they approach national identity. (E.g., as stupid as it was, “And who has a better story than Bran” would have worked at the beginning of rallying public support for the creation of Westeros—similar to how Aegon the Conqueror did, but I guess D & D kind of forgot how such things work. But I digress.)\n\nSo, why was it written? Ultimately it’s a difficult question to answer, as any honest archaeological work will tell you there’s no proof for the event and so reconstructing such history is nearly impossible beyond being conjectural. So, my theory: there were traditional social memories of *some* kind of relationship between Egypt and what would become Israel. This shouldn’t be surprising, because we do have record of Egyptian involvement in the Levant thanks to the Merneptah Stela (usually cited as 1204 BCE) and the Tale of Wenamun. Merneptah is difficult because we don’t quite fully understand the determinative used with the name Israel. It means “people group,” but it appears in a larger list of cities destroyed by Pharaoh Merneptah. ¯\\\\\\_(ツ)_/¯ It’s possible there was a very small, Proto-Israelite presence in Egypt at some point that would have served as the source of such memories, but we can’t be too certain. These memories were obviously derivative of multiple sources (hence the presence of what we call doublets—two slightly different accounts of the same story; e.g., did Moses receive the Law at Sinai or Horeb? Was his father in law’s name Jethro, Ruel, or Hobab?). These traditions were eventually put into writing, expanded, edited, and redacted to eventually come into their final form as we have it (read: them, there’s no singular source for us for these texts). These exodus traditions were used as a form of social identity construction—an integral part of state formation and preservation. The use of national literature would become far more important in later periods—especially for the Deuteronomist, who ***loved*** to use the Exodus as a central theme for explaining his perspective throughout the Deuteronomistic History (Joshua, Judges, Samuel, Kings). \n\nI don’t think it’s necessarily commentary on Israel’s relationship with Egypt as Egypt kind of falls off pretty significantly after the Iron I. I think it’s national literature, intended to construct social identity by constructing a literary Other. The othering process creates an in/out relationship that early Israelites could identify with—especially in light of the nearby Philistine threat during the Iron I–IIA, eventual Assyrian involvement in the southern Levant in the Iron IIB and later, Babylonian incursions and deportations in the 6th c. BCE, etc. \n\nA couple of sources that might help:\n\nI. Finkelstein, *The Bible Unearthed* — he’s a little over the top with the low chronology, but deals with a lot of important stuff in a very accessible way. \n\nW. Propp’s Exodus commentary is top notch in the Anchor Bible series.\n\nE: fixed a couple of typos." ] }
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2zqz3z
I often hear people say that the Irish Potato Famine was more a genocide than a true famine. How accurate is this claim?
AskHistorians
http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/2zqz3z/i_often_hear_people_say_that_the_irish_potato/
{ "a_id": [ "cploq1d", "cplorom", "cplvaxl", "cpm0wm6", "cpm3o1e" ], "score": [ 57, 149, 237, 5, 3 ], "text": [ "According to Cecil Woodham-Smith (in her 1962 book The Great Hunger), the English gave minimal aid mainly due to a rigid ideological belief in free markets. It seems that both political parties, but especially the Whigs who were in power during the worst of it, really believed that the market would provide all that was needful regardless of context, and that any aid would make things worse. \n\nTheir evident dislike of the Irish made this an easy belief for them to sustain. ", "Calling the Irish Potato Famine a genocide is fairly contentious, and is almost exclusively a political thought. There were certainly a number of political and socioeconomic factors arising from the British rule of Ireland, including widespread poverty in the aftermath of (and despite) Catholic emancipation in 1829, which led to Irish farmers being unable to effectively produce crops. But there were also a multitude of biological reasons, predominantly lack of genetic diversity among potato crops and the rapid spread of blight, which shared an equal if not greater (and ultimately causative) part in the incipiency of the Potato Famine. This is particularly important, as the 1948 United Nations General Assembly Resolution 26 explicitly defines genocide as an act committed with intent to destroy a racial, ethnic, religious or national group. The British government maintained a fair deal of discriminatory and anti-Irish policies and laws during that time, but the famine itself did not arise out of intent, nor any explicit action on the British government's part to target the Irish population. Their response to the famine, while arguably weak and to a point ineffective, was ultimately intended to halt the effects of the famine by providing relief to those affected through public works. So by the United Nations' definition, the Irish Potato Famine would not be classified a genocide, but there is room for discussion on to exactly what extent the policies and reactions by the British government either caused or exacerbated the famine.", "I had a chuckle to see another North Korea flair in this topic of all places. Cheers, /u/koliano! \n\nThis isn't my area of expertise, so a really detailed answer is beyond me. However, the Irish famine is a pretty common topic while you're studying periods of mass hunger, and it was something I saw pop up occasionally while reading about the mechanics behind North Korea's famine (1994-1998). There's something that I think might provide some helpful context for your question -- namely, how we study and think about famine has changed a lot over the last 40 years, and the line between \"genocide\" and \"famine\" has gotten blurrier as we recognize that famine is not really an accident.\n\nSo -- was the Irish \"potato famine\" a genocide against the Irish?\n\n**Short answer:** The English didn't commit genocide by the strictest definition of the term, but they did create the circumstances that led to the famine.\n\n**Long answer:** As others have pointed out, there's a troublesome and often politically-charged distinction to be made between genocide and famine:\n\n - **Genocide implies intent.** It's not enough for millions of people to die: Somebody has to *want them dead* and engineer a way to do it, or capitalize on a situation likely to result in mass death. Nobody wants to be told they were responsible for genocide; it's a severe blow to the moral and political authority of the country involved. The Turks resist efforts to characterize [what the Armenians call the \"Great Crime\"](_URL_1_) as genocide. Russia will tell you to fuck off when you raise the issue of the [Holodomor](_URL_3_) and Stalin's being a huge asshole to the Ukrainians. The Chinese government [only recently stopped censoring public discussion of the famine](_URL_6_) related to the Great Leap Forward. Nobody wants to admit to having committed genocide or -- if it's not genocide by the technical definition of the term -- anything that looks like it.\n - By contrast, **famine is seen as a tragedy that nobody could have prevented.** Crops fail. Drought happens. Diseases, predators, and wildfires kill livestock. Earthquakes and floods destroy your ability to move food around. Something bad happens that interferes with your society's ability to grow, store, or transport food, and lots of people die despite your best efforts. Famine is the second horseman of the apocalypse, perennial as the grass, cold and grimly present as its brothers pestilence, war, and death. It is ubiquitous in human history and the immutable lesson is that it can happen to anyone.\n\nExcept it doesn't. Certain human societies have been strangely resistant to famine despite weathering the same shocks that caused mass starvation in similar circumstances elsewhere. \n\nHistorians and economists had a collective \"Eureka!\" moment in the late 20th century when we realized that famine DOESN'T just happen, and that it probably never has. Hunger can happen despite your best efforts to prevent it, but *famine is the result of politics*.\n\n**Before we go any farther, we need to talk about a guy named Amartya Sen.** He's an Indian economist and historian who's written a lot of really famous and influential pieces about a variety of topics, and he was awarded the 1999 Nobel Prize for his work on welfare economics. In terms of popular reach, he's probably best-known for [a 1990 essay on \"More Than 100 Million Women Are Missing,\"](_URL_0_) which addressed the result of sex-selective abortions in Asia. However, in the academic world he's arguably most famous for [his work on famine in human history](_URL_2_), and in particular a theory that sounds bananas when you first hear it, and then more and more frighteningly plausible.\n\nI'll break it into two parts:\n \n - **Sen argued that no famine over the last 1,000 years can be attributed to anything other than primarily man-made causes.** This took a while to get traction; we're used to saying that X famine was caused by a flood, or Y famine happened because of a drought, etc. Sen pointed out that natural disasters and crop failures are actually pretty common, but famines aren't usually the result. Left to their own devices, humans are pretty good at finding and storing food as proof against unpredictable shortages. In order to create a famine, you have to have a bad, unstable, and/or corrupt political/economic system that can't weather a sudden shock and is thrown into crisis. We've gotten used to blaming the shock (e.g., the flood, the drought), when in reality it's just a convenient excuse. The real cause is the shitty and inflexible system that existed before it. \n - **Sen further argued that no famine has occurred in a democracy with a free press.** The basic idea is that government that isn't accountable to its people is notoriously unresponsive to its needs, and a free press is good at noticing and publicizing problems that government needs to address. There have been some quibbles over this, mostly related to pockets of continuing hunger in India, but for the most part this is a pretty uncontroversial theory.\n\nSen published [his first work on famine in 1981](_URL_4_) and has studied the issue on and off since. His work has heavily colored subsequent discussions of hunger and the political systems that create/d it, and it's a big part of the reason we're disposed to evaluate past famines differently these days. Interestingly, the 1981 piece is primarily about [another famine that the British had a hand in](_URL_5_) (the 1943 Bengal famine) due to rice and transport ship confiscations setting off a price panic.\n\n**So let's consider the Irish potato famine :** Again, I have to leave the nitty-gritty details to someone with a better command of this period than I've got, but I can tell you about the commentary that the Irish famine attracts when historians and statisticians are discussing the mechanics of hunger in modern works.\n\nThe potato blight has been commonly cited as the reason that the famine happened, and it's entirely true that it played a role. The lack of genetic diversity among the strain of potatoes being grown in Ireland at the time made the island incredibly susceptible to the blight. However, it was a classic example of a \"shock\" that revealed the underlying corruption in the economic system that surrounded it. The blight may have started the famine, but it didn't actually cause it (if that distinction makes any sense).\n\n**So what did cause it?** Britain's Corn Laws were an aggressively protectionist series of tariffs enacted with the intent to keep grain prices high for the benefit of domestic producers. (TL:DR: Landowners didn't want to compete against cheap grain from abroad and also had to pay their farm laborers a living wage, so Parliament levied high taxes on foreign grain and tweaked them as necessary to try to bump domestic grain to what they considered ideal prices.) The Irish poor (of whom there were many, for a variety of very complicated historical and socioeconomic reasons) were largely unable to afford grain as a result of the Corn Laws, and on the generally-small holdings they farmed (for which they paid punitive rents to largely absentee English landlords) could only grow potatoes in sufficient quantity to feed their families. \n\nThe potato was thus the staple food, and the blight an utter catastrophe. When potatoes were no longer available, the poor burned through their meager savings quickly to buy grain, and when that ran out, they starved en masse. Parliament repealed the Corn Laws two years into the famine, but it was too little and too late, and also didn't address the other systemic issues (principally landlord exploitation) that contributed to the famine.\n\nSo it's pretty apparent why the genocide/famine distinction is a touchy one here: \n\n - **Did the English commit genocide against the Irish?** Not as such. \n - **Did they create the circumstances that led to the famine?** Yes, and most historians judge the government's response to the famine as woefully inadequate, to compound the issue.\n", "I've done a lot of research on this subject and I've recently posted a very detailed answer in a different subreddit. I will copy-paste that answer here, including the sources, and [link the actual discussion](_URL_2_) so you can also check out other -very hostile- replies and my answers to those :\n\nThere is a lot of misconception about the Irish famine in this thread. I have done a lot of research on this very same subject in my capacity as a historian and I can't help but share what I've encountered. It might not be read by many people considering this was posted 7 hours ago, but it's worth a shot. History incoming, skip if you're not interested.\n\nI see that it's still common practice to solely put the Irish famine on the English government. I even see someone saying how it was genocide and that the harvest was more than sufficient to feed all Irish citizens. That's just completely incorrect. Genocide implies a deliberate strategy and malintent. What actually happened was a lot more complex and way less malificent. The potato famine was caused by the phytopthora infestans, a previously unknown type of fungus. It's suspected to have arrived from Southern America and it might have been only moderately succesful for awhile due to various reasons, one of which is meteorological conditions. Before 1700, cultivation of the potato wasn't that widespread. Its leaves are poisenous and the edible part lies underground, so it was actually considered to be a demonic plant and it was only sometimes given to animals as sustenance. However, once people discovered how efficient it was (resilient, high calories, grows anywhere) it quickly blew up and became one of the most important foodstuffs in Europe. When the phytopthora infestans finally struck, it destroyed upto 90% of the harvest in Central Europe. It hit hardest in Ireland, Belgium and northern France, but other regions weren't spared either. The extent of the damage was very regionally specific however, so the isolated position of Ireland already put it at a heavy disadvantage. Regions in both Germany and France could rely on the supply from less central regions to alleviate their needs. The same could be said for Belgium, but both Belgium and Ireland were mostly left to their own devices.\n\nHowever one major difference between Belgium and Ireland was the fact that poor farmers in Ireland mostly relied on the monoculture of the potato to complement their diet while agriculture in Belgium was vastly more diverse. At the same time, the government in Belgium was still very new and it's power was rooted in a long tradition of municipal power. While Ireland was largely dependent on the English government, which was still controlled by 'laissez-faire' entrepeneurs. Communication between Ireland and the English government could also be called sporadic and troublesome at best. Despite this rough communication and the reluctance to abandon their 'laissez-faire' ways, the English government made some attempts to intervene in Ireland. Unfortunatly, most of what they did came either too late, was a grossly incompetent action or it backfired because of miscommunication - which honestly has been the trend ever since. So in short, it wasn't some malificent ploy by the English government to starve the Irish. It was a famine with far-reaching consequences allover Europe exacerbated by the monocultural tradition of Ireland, horrible infrastructure and it's geographical and political isolation. The incompetence of the English government didn't help either, but they lacked the tools and the mindset to do so. They often reacted just as poorly to regional issues.\n\nAs K.H Connell stated in his article on the potato in Ireland, no government could have prevented the catastrophe that was the Irish Famine. That being said, there were power structures and laws in place that exacerbated the situation to some extent, one could blame the Brittish government for not adressing these in time. However, given the swift occurence of the disease, the general lack of infrastructure to assess or adress the situation and the prevalance of 'laissez-faire' politics, it can hardly be called malintent.\n\nConnell, K. H., ‘The Potato in Ireland’, in: Past & Present, 1962\n\n**EDIT : Because a lot of people are saying that the export of produce shows the malintent of the English government, check out my other comments. The farmers in Ireland were 'forced' to sell in bulk to the market. This was practically the same for every other region in Central Europe struck by famine.**\n\n**EDIT 2 : Two threads on /r/Askhistorians telling the same exact story from a slightly different perspective :**\n\n1. [Would you classify the Irish Potato Famine a genocide? If so, why?](_URL_1_)\n2. [Historians, what's your take on the argument that the Irish Potato Famine was in essence an act of genocide perpetrated by the British government?](_URL_0_).\n\n**EDIT 3 : I can see how many people are still calling bullshit and feel very strongly about this. To prove that this isn't as controversial in historiography as you might think, I'll post a few sources by reputable historians, so you can check it out yourself.**\n\n**Sources : **\n\n- CONNELL, K. H., ‘The Potato in Ireland’, in: Past & Present, 1962\n\n- VANHAUTE, Eric, ‘”So worthy an example to Ireland”. The subsistence and industrial crisis of 1845-1850 in Flanders’, in: Vanhaute, Eric, Paping, Richard & Ó Gráda, Cormac, When the Potato failed. Causes and Effects of the Last European Subsistence Crisis, 1845-1850, Corn Publication Series. Comparative Rural History of the North Sea Area 9, 2007\n\n- VIVIER, Nadine, ‘A memorable crisis but not a potato crisis’, in: Vanhaute, Eric, Paping, Richard & Ó Gráda, Cormac, When the Potato failed. Causes and Effects of the Last European Subsistence Crisis, 1845-1850, Corn Publication Series. Comparative Rural History of the North Sea Area 9, 2007\n\n- SCHELLEKENS, Jona, Irish Famines and English Mortality in the Eighteenth Century, in: The Journal of Interdisciplinary History, 1996\n\n- Ó GRÁDA, Cormac, ‘Markets and Famines in Pre-industrial Europe’, in: The Journal of Interdisciplinary History, 2005\n\n- MOKYR, Joel, ‘Industrialization and Poverty in Ireland and the Netherlands’, in: The Journal of Interdisciplinary History, 1980\n\n- MAHLERWEIN, Gunther, ‘The consequences of the potato blight in South Germany’, in: Vanhaute, Eric, Paping, Richard & Ó Gráda, Cormac, When the Potato failed. Causes and Effects of the Last European Subsistence Crisis, 1845-1850, Corn Publication Series. Comparative Rural History of the North Sea Area 9, Turnhout, 2007\n\n- KINEALY, Christine, A death-dealing famine: the great hunger in Ireland, Londen, 1997.\n", "I don't find the debate over the term genocide very useful in regards to the Famine. British attitudes,even at government level were very complex and varied during the crisis. Thrre are some essential points to keep in mind :\n\n1. The crop failure was enormous. Sen and his popularisers do not really address how an early nineteenth century state could have addressed such a deep and prolonged agricultural collapse. Even closing the ports would only have made food cheaper, it would not have given the food to the starving.\n\n2. British policy was initially very radical for the time with a huge intervention in the economy. It changed for a range of political, economic and ideological reasons. This change certainly exacerbated the crisis but it was not primarily designed to increase the casualties. Despicable yes, genocidal no. \n\n3. There were some in the government who believed the Famine was an act of divine providence acting through the laws of economics. I explain this to students as seeing the Famine as a 'downsizing'. I don't think 'genocidal' deals with this attitude in a historical way. One of the reasons for it, for example was a belief that the British State should not bail out the Irish economic elite.\n\nTo summarise the Famine was the outcome of a natural disaster combined with a particular response from state which made things much worse. We should criticise the British government response both in hindsight and in historic terms but I am not convinced that debating genocide accomplishes much.\n\nA couple of useful sources:\n\nPeter Gray, *Famine, Land and Politics: British Government and Irish Society, 1843-50* (1999)\n\nLiam Kennedy, *The Great Irish Famine and the Holocaust* _URL_1_ \n\nCharles Read, *Ireland and the perils of fixed exchange rates*, _URL_0_" ] }
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[ [], [], [ "http://ucatlas.ucsc.edu/gender/Sen100M.html", "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Armenian_Genocide", "http://www.nytimes.com/2003/03/01/arts/does-democracy-avert-famine.html", "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Holodomor", "http://www.oxfordscholarship.com/view/10.1093/0198284632.001.0001/acprof-9780198284635", "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bengal_famine_of_1943", "http://www.theatlantic.com/international/archive/2012/05/after-50-years-of-silence-china-slowly-confronts-the-great-leap-forward/257797/" ], [ "http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/w4ifx/historians_whats_your_take_on_the_argument_that/", "http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/1sko51/would_you_classify_the_irish_potato_famine_a/", "http://www.reddit.com/r/todayilearned/comments/2zl01y/til_just_16_years_after_being_forcibly_relocated/cpkaq4d?context=3" ], [ "http://www.historyandpolicy.org/policy-papers/papers/ireland-and-the-perils-of-fixed-exchange-rates", "http://www.qub.ac.uk/sites/irishhistorylive/IrishHistoryResources/Articlesandlecturesbyourteachingstaff/TheGreatIrishFamineandtheHolocaust/" ] ]
2yscdv
why do all drives or partitions defragment all files, but the system one (c: or other) is always fragmented, even if i just defragmented it?
Literally what the title states. [Why all other partitions defragment normally and completely](_URL_1_) [whereas the system partition is as red as the USSR even if I just finished defragmenting it?](_URL_0_) Are some system files in use that can't be moved? If so, can I defrag the C: drive while Windows aren't booted yet?
explainlikeimfive
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/2yscdv/eli5_why_do_all_drives_or_partitions_defragment/
{ "a_id": [ "cpcgltc" ], "score": [ 3 ], "text": [ "Yes, there are some system files that can't be moved while the system is running. Also, the system partition is used all the time - programs always create and delete temporary files, which usually reside on the system drive.\n\nThe same defragmentation software you used has a [boot time defrag](_URL_0_) option." ] }
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[ "http://puu.sh/gx4L3/393e83674f.png", "http://puu.sh/gx4Lj/f21c8dcaae.png" ]
[ [ "https://www.piriform.com/docs/defraggler/defraggler-settings/boot-time-defrag" ] ]
wvvwz
How much does color affect temperature? Details in post.
If I wore a black shirt, how much hotter would I be then if I wore a white shirt.
askscience
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/wvvwz/how_much_does_color_affect_temperature_details_in/
{ "a_id": [ "c5gw9sd", "c5gxa5z" ], "score": [ 3, 4 ], "text": [ "Well a white shirt reflects all the light and a black one absorbs it, the difference in how warm you would be however depends strongly on the amount of sunlight. \n\nMr Wizard can help: [Relevant video](_URL_0_)\n", "Color (or more specifically, frequency and wavelength) are supremely important when it comes to radiation heat transfer. Any time light strikes an object, three things can happen to the light. \n\n* The energy of the light can get absorbed by the surface.\n* It can be reflected off of the surface.\n* It can be transmitted through the surface.\n\nAny time radiation strikes an object, all three of those effects must add up to the amount of energy the light initially had ([First Law of Thermodynamics](_URL_0_) - Conservation of energy). Now, where it gets interesting is that a material's absorptivity, reflectivity, and transmissivity are unique to each material, but are also specific to the wavelength of the light.\n\nFor an example, let's say that you're looking at a small piece of blue glass in a stained glass window. The blue glass is reflecting some of the light back out (the glistening of the sun off the outer surface.) Another portion of the light is getting absorbed by the glass. The portion of light that gets absorbed gets converted to heat (and a portion of this heat gets radiated back out of the material.) Whatever remaining light gets transmitted through the glass. This is the light you'll be seeing on the inside. The fact that the light transmitted through the glass was blue means that of all the light shone at the glass, the blue frequencies of light are allowed to pass through, while the portion of the light that was everything **BUT** blue was the component that was reflected and absorbed.\n\nFor this reason, if you wear a black shirt in the sun, the shirt will absorb more light and will reach a higher temperature. While a white shirt will reflect more light than a black shirt would, white shirts have a tendency to become transparent when wet so if you're sweating, your skin will actually be exposed to more radiation in a white shirt than a black shirt even though the temperature of the white shirt will be lower." ] }
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[ [ "http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=G8okS-T1xmc&feature=relmfu" ], [ "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/First_law_of_thermodynamics" ] ]
tcppr
Why do plants have longer lifespans than animals?
Plants can live for ~10,000 years. Turtles can live ~250 years. Is there some sort of microbiological/biological explanation? Also what causes changes in lifespans across different species?
askscience
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/tcppr/why_do_plants_have_longer_lifespans_than_animals/
{ "a_id": [ "c4lizx5" ], "score": [ 3 ], "text": [ "Differences in life spans across species, or even Kingdom, boundaries is a pretty fascinating topic of research. I've had some exposure to a researcher whose done some work with animals, but I'm not very up to date with the current state of the research. But I can talk about plants. One of the big differences between plant and animal cells is totipotency. Plant cells are totipotent, meaning that an individual cell, if isolated and grown on a suitable culture medium, can grow into a plant that is genetically identical to the mother plant. You can't really do that with animal cells. Granted, plant cells in the wild aren't necessarily exposed to some of those same conditions, so perennial plants retain stem-cell like meristematic tissue (e.g. dormant buds) that can be activated in case of damage to the rest of the tree. The ramifications of this for longevity is that any damage done to a plant can be fixed relatively easily. It's not like limb regeneration in some reptiles or other animals, it's like limb substitution. You can see the results after a big storm that removes a lot of limbs from a tree, where the tree then starts to grow very bushy with lots of new stems. The animal equivalent would be like cutting off your arm and having a new one grow out your chest. So damages done to a perennial plant aren't necessarily \"fixed\", but circumvented through creation of new structure. The other important thing about how plants respond to damage is that they have a sectored vascular system so that part of a tree (or other type of perennial) can survive even if the whole plant can't. If a human's peripheral limbs can't survive, we can amputate and the person will survive, but if any organs can't survive, the human dies. \n\nThe other issue for some plants is the ability for clonal growth. A good example is aspen forests, where you might be looking at an entire forest of trees that originated from the same mother tree. If the original tree dies, the same genetic material from that tree persists in genetically identical clones. Some of my genes persist in my daughter, but not all of them, so she's not identical to me in a genetic (or even physical) sense. \n\nOf course, there's other factors that play major roles in determining life span that have to do with metabolism, resistance to factors that affect senescence, etc.\n\nI'm not sure if you can access [this article](_URL_0_), but it describes in pretty basic terms why trees can live so long relative to other organisms" ] }
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[ [ "http://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S1568163702000259" ] ]
7mus96
why is it so hard to rip open a package with wet hands (even if it has a notch for ripping)?
It seems like I can get a proper grip but it just doesn't go.
explainlikeimfive
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/7mus96/eli5_why_is_it_so_hard_to_rip_open_a_package_with/
{ "a_id": [ "drwrzcu" ], "score": [ 3 ], "text": [ "When your hands are wet they are lubricated by the wetness. This reduces friction, which reduces your ability to grab and rip a package open." ] }
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4crrr6
At what point in history were women knowledgeable enough about their cycles to understand when they might be ovulating?
And what exactly would that knowledge entail? According to the wikipedia article (_URL_0_) most signs were discovered in the 20th century, but it also talks about St. Augustine mentioning periodic abstinence to avoid pregnancy. Can anyone provide more information?
AskHistorians
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/4crrr6/at_what_point_in_history_were_women_knowledgeable/
{ "a_id": [ "d1kxs5a" ], "score": [ 9 ], "text": [ "Well, of course many of them would not have known before my collection of all the knowledge in the Empire of our beloved emperor Vespasianus, long may he reign, in my well known encyclopaideia, the history of the natural world. In fact, I have gathered many strange and interesting phenomena about the female menstruation! Did you know that menstrual blood can reportedly have the most peculiar effects? It turns new wine sour, it can make crops barren, fruits fall of the trees when touched by it, and even whole hives of bees have been known to die! (see book VII, 15)\n\nI should probably warn you also, if you didn't know this already, that intercourse with a menstruating woman during a solar or lunar eclipse, or when moon and sun are in conjunction, can and probably will kill you (see book XXVIII, 23). \n\nNow, where was I? Ah, yes, conception! Well, it has long been understood that blood is necessary for the generation of new life. Aristotle informs us how the female blood quickened by the male sperm (which is the highest form of blood, cooked to its very essence - which women can't do, owing to their lower body temperature) will bring forth new life. You can read about this in particular in his *Generation of Animals*. Thus, when menstruation stops in their 40th or 50th year, they are no longer fertile. \n\nIn any case, almost all my contemporaries agree with me^1 in that the chances for conception are the highest shortly after the beginning and towards the end of the menstrual cycle (book VII, 67).\n\n\n\n\n* 1 This was the state of the ancient medical knowledge on the subject - the real reason was unknown, since the mechanics of conception were viewed from a very idiosyncratic point, with blood and it's derivate sperm at the centre. Views differed about the nature of the female part in this, Aristotles view is of course very passive, while Galenos attributed sperm to the woman as well, having an equal part and thus accounting for the transmission of the mother's characteristics in the following generation. In any case, the circular reoccurence of menstruation and it's connection to fertility was well known at least to the educated circles. " ] }
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[ "https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fertility_awareness" ]
[ [] ]
2hvzwq
Could constant cough lead to emphysema?
During lunch today, my colleagues and I were discussing on cough and its effect on the human respiratory system. One of them said that chronic cough can lead to emphysema as it can cause tears to the alveolar walls. I would like to ask you experts if what she said is true, and if possible elaborate on the matter as my understanding on the human respiratory system is quite limited. Thanks in advance. Have a nice day, fellow Redditors. DM
askscience
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/2hvzwq/could_constant_cough_lead_to_emphysema/
{ "a_id": [ "ckwu6bb" ], "score": [ 2 ], "text": [ "I am not aware of any studies that show cough alone can cause damage to the alveoli. \n\nI wouldn't expect to see a lot of alveolar damage due to chronic cough alone (in the absence of any kind of obstruction), anyway. \n\nThe physical act of coughing is the result of compression of the lungs while holding the only opening (the glottis) shut, and then opening the glottis fast, releasing a blast of air. \n\nThis will cause a backpressure in the lungs, but because the source of the compression is outside the lungs, each alveolus will experience pretty much the same pressure. Because neighboring alveoli will have the same pressure, there is no differential, you aren't going to get any tearing.\n\nAlso, the violent movement in cough is an exhalation; a shrinking of the lungs. This means that the violent portion of the cough isn't stretching the alveolar walls. If anything, it's compressing them. \n\nHOWEVER...most of the time, chronic cough is just a symptom of something else; typically some kind of chronic obstruction, inflammation, or infection. And those will cause both alveolar damage *and* cough. Also, if there is an obstruction, you may get places where neighboring alveoli *do* have a pressure differential, and the wall can be stressed or rupture. \n\nSo although chronic cough is often associated with emphysema, chronic cough is not known to be a cause of emphysema. " ] }
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50jfif
why do nearly all space photographs seem 2d?
So i saw this pic in r/space _URL_0_ and it looks amazing, and then i wondered why pictures like this and other space pictures look 2D rather than 3D, like is the nebula 'explosion' going towards the telescope too and we just can't see that? Or is it actually only going out sideways???
explainlikeimfive
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/50jfif/eli5_why_do_nearly_all_space_photographs_seem_2d/
{ "a_id": [ "d74inxh", "d74kr5f" ], "score": [ 7, 2 ], "text": [ "Pictures create the illusion of depth using one or more of several methods, such as linear perspective, aerial perspective, etc., all of which are pretty impossible in astrophotography. \n\nAnother issue is that the image is taken of an object millions of miles away, and the only background are the stars which are also millions of miles away. This makes it very difficult for your brain to even perceive depth or size. The lack of anything in the foreground and the lack of much of a background add to the \"flatness\" of the image.", "Google the term \"perspective distortion\" it's pretty much because we're too far away and the farther away you get from an object the flatter it and it's background will appear. " ] }
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[ "https://i.imgur.com/Lq9BTQL.jpg" ]
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5ks15f
Wouldn't large scale mining on the moon have a negative impact on Earth? Assuming large deposits of valuable minerals are found in it
If the moon's gravity is related to the tides in the ocean, couldn't taking away a large portion of its mass have a significant potential impact?
askscience
https://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/5ks15f/wouldnt_large_scale_mining_on_the_moon_have_a/
{ "a_id": [ "dbq71zx", "dbqcjci" ], "score": [ 9, 18 ], "text": [ "You'll probably want to have a look at the following previous discussions of this and related topics:\n\n_URL_2_\n\n_URL_1_\n\n_URL_3_\n\n_URL_0_", "No. The moon is simply way too big that mining operations as we know it could have any noticable impact on tides.\n\nThe total amount of all mining humans have done on earth since ever is smaller than the margin of error we have on the our estimation on mass of the moon." ] }
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[ [ "https://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/u0xxk/how_much_can_we_mine_from_the_moon_before_it/", "https://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/19myrc/space_mining_how_feasible_would_it_be_to_catapult/", "https://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/1v37xw/is_there_potential_for_mining_on_the_moon/", "https://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/uy0yi/mining_astronomical_bodies_luna_asteroids_etc_is/" ], [] ]
6y3mri
What will happen to a piece of wood, placed in a "pot"with no oxygen and then placed over a fire?
also the same question but what if the "pot" was pressurised?
askscience
https://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/6y3mri/what_will_happen_to_a_piece_of_wood_placed_in_a/
{ "a_id": [ "dmkfwuf" ], "score": [ 39 ], "text": [ "That's basically a way to make charcoal. By starving the wood of oxygen you allow the moisture and volatile compounds to be burned off leaving you with a mostly pure carbon. It's important that it has some kind of vent though because the steam and volatile compounds will pressurize the container." ] }
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100vjc
Gravitational time dilation for solar systems relative to distance from galactic centre.
Not quite sure how to phrase my question, but I will try my best. Is there, or would there be, a significant relative difference in the passage of time between a solar system close to the gravitational centre of the galaxy compared to one on the outer fringe? Or to put it another way. If there were civilizations inhabiting one system near the centre and one on the edge, would there be a difference comparative to say clocks aboard satellites relative to those on the ground? **EDIT:** Thanks for all your answers. :)
askscience
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/100vjc/gravitational_time_dilation_for_solar_systems/
{ "a_id": [ "c69j6aq", "c69kfyj", "c69kh5s", "c69nk15" ], "score": [ 3, 3, 10, 3 ], "text": [ "There is already a difference between our satellites' clocks and our ground based clocks due to relativity. More mass/gravity will create more relativistic effects.", "The gravitational time dilation is proportional to the square-root of the gravitational potential. This effect will be dominated by whatever body is attracting you the most strongly (typically the planet under your feet). In that sense, the civilization's passage of time would be different for species living on planets of different *g*.\n\nIf the planets were the same size, the system's star, other planets, and moons would probably contribute more before the location in the MW.", "Well, the truth is that once you get far enough from an object's Schwarzschild radius, the effect isn't very significant. The equation for gravitational time dilation is:\n\nt_0 = t_f*sqrt(1-r_0/r) \n\nwhere t_0 is the observed time, t_f is \"proper time\" (time when you're far enough from the source that you're not affected by its gravity, but also at rest relative to the source), r_0 is the Schwarzschild radius, and r is the distance you are from the center.\n\nThe Sun's Schwarzschild radius is 3 km, which is to say that if the sun's mass were compressed to a single point, that point would create a black hole whose event horizon would have a radius of 3 km. The sun currently has a radius of about 7\\*10^5 km, which means that a second on the surface of the sun would be about sqrt(1-3/7*10^(-5)) = 1.000002 times as long as a \"proper\" second.\n\nI don't exactly know how far the most inner stars are from the galactic centre, but I know that they have to be far enough that the gravity gradient (the difference between the force of gravity at two points different distances from the source) would be low enough that stars could maintain a fusion cycle. I haven't done the math here, but intuitively I'd assume that if they're far enough away that they can hold a shape on the order of 10^5 km, they're far enough that the gravitational time dilation wouldn't affect them too much.\n\nEDIT: Accidentally a caret.", "Let's do an example. Let's look at universe consisting of only the Sun, Mercury, and Earth. The problem breaks down into two components.\n\nComponent 1: Time dialation at Mercury's orbit is 3.11e-5 s/yr faster relative to the surface of the Sun. Similarly, the Earth sees a 3.335e-5 s/yr faster clock relative to the Sun's surface. Due to this component, clocks tick 2.4e-7 s/yr faster on Earth than on Mercury.\n\nComponent 2: For an object 9.169e10 meters away from Mercury (distance to Earth), a clock ticks 1.5e-6 s/yr faster than on Mercury. However, for an object 9.169e10 meters away from Earth, a clock ticks 1.0987e-5 s/yr faster than on Earth. The net result for this component is clocks ticking 9.398e-6 s/yr faster on Mercury than on Earth.\n\nAdding the components together, a clock ticks faster on Mercury by about 0.000009 s/yr. However, for a massless satellite at Mercury's distance and one at Earth's distance, the satellite closer to the sun would tick slower by 2.4e-7 s/yr.\n\nThe time dilation due to the difference in planet properties is almost 40 times stronger than the differences in orbital radii, and they have opposite sign. You can safely ignore the effects of the Sun in this case.\n\n\nAddressing your question: The dialation effects for differences in MW radii will be small, and the planets, and host stars will play a more crucial role. As I stated, the distribution of dark matter is such that the potential actually doesn't drop much at all as you get further from the MW center. This confusing observation helped support the idea that there was something else outhere adding mass.\n\nCalculator: _URL_0_\n\nEDIT: 9.398e-6 s/yr is equivalent to 13 hours over 5 Billion years (the age of the Solar System)." ] }
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[ [], [], [], [ "http://karypace.byethost33.com/science/autheory.php" ] ]
2m908h
Would quantum computing make it easier to simulate molecular systems?
I work in nanoscience, and one of the major limitations of trying to use computers to predict things on a molecular scale is that any simulation based on quantum mechanics takes FOREVER. If major advances in quantum computing occur in the next few decades, would that fundamentally change how we simulate systems of molecules? Or would we just be using a faster computer to run the same algorithms? In other words, in the future, will running simulations of quantum mechanics be no big thing, just like newtonian mechanics is now? Or will it still scale just as badly?
askscience
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/2m908h/would_quantum_computing_make_it_easier_to/
{ "a_id": [ "cm37mzo" ], "score": [ 2 ], "text": [ "In principle, the answer is yes. Since a quantum computer is itself a quantum mechanical system, it inherently is able to deal with quantum mechanical features. This is what Feynman had in mind when he proposed quantum computing in the 1980s, though this proposal has little to do with what we now mean by \"(universal) quantum computer\".\n\nInstead of running a full-blown algorithm on a generic quantum computer, it can be easier to build a quantum system one can \"easily\" control which mimics the system you want to simulate. (In more precise terms: You map the Hamiltonian of the system you want to simulate to the Hamiltonian of a system you can experimentally control.) This is actually done quite a bit for solid state systems already, you can find more information here: _URL_0_" ] }
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[ [ "http://www.nature.com/nphys/insight/quantum-simulation/index.html" ] ]
29fsop
If I am seeing a full moon, does someone a few timezones away see a full moon too?
I live on the east coast of Canada. If tonight I see a full moon, do people in the western part of the country see a full moon as well? Someone please explain this to me.
askscience
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/29fsop/if_i_am_seeing_a_full_moon_does_someone_a_few/
{ "a_id": [ "cikj37k", "cikjfuq" ], "score": [ 11, 7 ], "text": [ "Yes the moon will be full (or close enough to it) for everyone on earth. The full moon happens with the sun and the moon are on opposite sides of the earth, so that the side of the moon facing the earth is illuminated by the sun.\n\nFun fact: the side of the moon facing earth is always the same side, since the moon rotates at just the right speed so that as it orbits the same side is always facing us. This is caused by a phenomenon called tidal locking.", "Yes pretty much, the Moon is most full when it's directly overhead. On the night of a full Moon, at midnight somebody on the west coast will see the same full Moon as you did four hours before.\n\nBut if you're looking at the same time, there will be a slight difference. A lunar month is about 29.5 days, so each hour away from full is 360/(24\\*29.5) or 0.5 degrees. Then if you're in the Atlantic time zone and it's midnight, you'll see a full Moon, but your compatriot in the Pacific time zone will see the lunar terminator off by about 2 degrees from completely full, though they might have a hard time telling the difference between that and full.\n\nOf course, a time zone is an hour wide, so you'd have to make adjustments for your exact locations within your respective time zones." ] }
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750eve
how does the accelerator pedal in cars work?
I have two theories in my mind but they can be both wrong. 1st theory: When the pedal is pushed a little, the car accelerates and then remain at a certain constant speed if the pedal is maintained at the same position. If the pedal is pushed further, the car accelerates and then remain at a higher constant speed as long as the pedal is maintained at the same position. 2nd theory: When the pedal is pushed a little, the car keeps accelerating at a slow rate and speed keeps changing at a slow rate. If the pedal is pressed further, the car keeps accelerating at a faster rate and speed keeps changing at a fast rate.
explainlikeimfive
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/750eve/eli5_how_does_the_accelerator_pedal_in_cars_work/
{ "a_id": [ "do2hrds", "do2hst7", "do2j6xd" ], "score": [ 5, 3, 2 ], "text": [ "In most cars, pushing the accellerator (or gas ) pedal increases the flow of fuel to the engine. This means the engine will output more power, causing the car to accellerate.\n\nHowever, this accelleration doesn't continue forever. Mainly because as a car's speed increases, the amount of wind resistance increases as well, that's like a force pushing against the car forcing it to slow down.\n\nSo when you press the accellerator, the engine will push the car harder, and as it speeds up, the air will push harder against it. Once they reach an equilibrium, the car stops accellerating and instead maintains a constant speed.", "In new cars it's electronic. You push it and it tells the engine how much gas and oxygen to let in (for combustion).\n\nOlder cars have a cable attached to the pedal that connects to the throttle body (lets air in the engine). My pushing the pedal it in return pulls the cable and opens the throttle body butterfly valve. More oxygen = more power, so the more you push the pedal the more oxygen gets sucked in which in turn accelerates the car.", "Do you drive yet? That would make it all seem a bit clearer I think.\n\nThe pedal controls the flow of fuel and air to the engine, which controls how much power it produces. This is not a linear process, the speed the engine is rotating at (the RPM) also comes into it, as well as the load it's under.\n\nBasically under constant conditions you would hold the pedal steady. If you ease up the car slows down, if you press down the engine works harder and the car accelerates, up to the point where the power you are now telling it to make matches the new load (primarily the wind resistance goes up rapidly with speed) at which point the car will go at a steady, faster speed than before.\n\nOften when driving you will give it a lot more gas to get the speed to change quickly then ease up as you approach the speed you want to be going at.\n\nFundamentally once you have been driving for even a short time this all works by feedback, you don't need to know the principle of how it acts to use it. I love to understand how things like this work too, but overthinking it can actually hurt you, the feedback loop breaks if you think about it too much!" ] }
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1m33tb
what would happen if i threw a plugged in toaster into the bathtub with me?
why does this happen?
explainlikeimfive
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/1m33tb/eli5_what_would_happen_if_i_threw_a_plugged_in/
{ "a_id": [ "cc5bajc" ], "score": [ 4 ], "text": [ "With current building codes, probably not much. Any outlet near a tub is a GFCI outlet, which means it has extra protection against exactly this sort of thing. The most likely thing will be that it will short out and trip its breaker before anything happens to you.\n\nIf you used an extension cord and ran it from an outlet further away, you'd have a slightly larger chance of something bad happening. If the electrical current happens to go through you on the way to the ground (probably via the drain), and it hits your heart, it could disrupt it and kill you." ] }
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8fpr62
how does a new computer know the date when you turn it on, even if not connected to the internet?
explainlikeimfive
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/8fpr62/eli5_how_does_a_new_computer_know_the_date_when/
{ "a_id": [ "dy5hqj4", "dy5hqzx" ], "score": [ 10, 5 ], "text": [ "There is a small battery on the motherboard which runs a variety of things including a clock. If your computer forgets the time when it turns off this battery is likely dead. They typically last 3 to 5 years.", "They are pre set in the factory. The onboard battery keeps the setting. Depending on where tho board was made and where you are will determine how accurate it remains" ] }
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21buag
Is it true that sniffing markers/petrol kills brain cells?
It's what you always hear during your childhood - don't sniff glue/markers/petrol, it kills brain cells. Is there any truth in this? Do any substances kill brain cells in this manner? How does an inhaled gas/odour particles in the nose destroy cells in the brain? Many thanks.
askscience
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/21buag/is_it_true_that_sniffing_markerspetrol_kills/
{ "a_id": [ "cgbp69k" ], "score": [ 5 ], "text": [ "_URL_0_\n\nIt's not that it's odour particles in your nose, it's often that you're inhaling asphyxiants. They bind to receptors in your lungs which keep you from getting actual oxygen. This causes hypoxia, which can lead to cell death. Your brain needs a constant source of oxygen and you can't regrow brain cells easily if they do die. \n\nPeople do this intentionally because the lack of oxygen leads to delirium and hallucinations and other problems just caused by your brain not being able to function properly.\n\nThere's other chemicals in various inhalants that are going to be absorbed into your blood and have an effect, but the main reason people use them is that they prevent you from properly delivering oxygen to your brain and make you feel funny, and that's also the main mechanism that causes brain cells to die. " ] }
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[ [ "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Intoxicative_inhalant" ] ]
2y5xub
Would people in the middle ages agree that the Barbarians won?
Would people think that it was okay to say that Rome eventually lost, and not try to find some way of saying that the empire survived in some form or another? Or would they try to associate their culture and nation with that of the the Roman empire? Obviously, there is the Holy Roman Empire, but that doesn't speak for what England thought about the Saxons or Huns. Would they be okay with saying that the Barbarians eventually beat the Roman Empire?
AskHistorians
http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/2y5xub/would_people_in_the_middle_ages_agree_that_the/
{ "a_id": [ "cp6qxtr", "cp75za6" ], "score": [ 11, 9 ], "text": [ "While the Western Roman Empire collapsed in the 5th century, the Eastern Half existed in one form or another until the 15th century. \n\nRegarding the Barbarians defeating the Roman Empire, it would be fair to say that what the Barbarians did and the Franks in particular is adopt and absorb Rome into their political and religious structure and eventually shifted away from the still existing Roman (Byzantine) Empire in Constantinople. The event that best highlights this was the crowing of Charlemagne as Emperor of the Romans on Christmas 800. What this did was de jure reestablish the Western Empire much to the anger of the Byzantines, who both viewed themselves as the true Roman Empire and that no Barbarian had the right to proclaim themselves as a Roman Emperor. \n\nOne book I'd recommend looking at regarding late antiquity and the Barbarians' relationship with Rome/Byzantium is Christopher Wickham's Inheritance of Rome. In short, the Byzantine Empire throughout its history called itself the Roman Empire and its people as Romans while the Franks at the least viewed themselves as the continuation of the Western Empire. ", "Their relationship woth Roman history was complicated, but no - they did not say the barbarians won.\n\nIn the Frankish kingdoms, texts like Gregory of Tours' Ten Books say that Clovis, who modern historians consider a barbarian, considered himself to be a Roman consul. Theoderic (king of Ostrogothic Italy) was recognized as a Roman official by the Byzantine government. Anglo-Saxon elites often tried to look Byzantine, and after the conversion to Christianity there was a strong push in england to bring church government and architecture in line with roman models. Visigothic kings in Spain enacted law codes which were based on roman law, and while they distinguished between their roman and gothic subjects, there isn't clear evidence that they saw themselves as breaking from their Roman history.\n\nMost Roman and some Byzantine sources make a big deal about the differences between romans and barbarians, but archaeological evidence, and evidence from the barbarians' descriptions of themselves (when they start to appear, later) isn't clear cut. Some sources make a big deal of the differences between barbarian kings and romans, others stress the roman titles the barbarians held. Some texts play up this tension, as though challenging the audience to decide what qualities really make someone a real Roman (ie, who's more of a 'barbarian' - the barbarians who live in Rome, or Emperor Justinian?).\n\nPeople in the past were comfortable with complexity, and didn't have the simple understanding of the fall of the Roman empire that you get in popular discussions of the subject today. They were comfortable playing up their roman past when it was useful, and playing up other parts of their history when circumstances called for it." ] }
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56ty1f
Were the Picts Celtic or non-Indo-European people according to modern historians?
AskHistorians
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/56ty1f/were_the_picts_celtic_or_nonindoeuropean_people/
{ "a_id": [ "d8n1pvh" ], "score": [ 7 ], "text": [ "Perhaps an expert will come along and answer this for you, but in the meantime I had a quick look and got what appears to me to be a general consensus towards the Picts being of mainly Celtic origin. Cunliffe summarises the issue as follows:\n\n > \"The Irish, Attocotti, and Picts were probably Celtic peoples, althought some linguists claim to be able to detect a pre-Indo-European element in the Pictish language.\" (263).\n\nOf course, this quote demonstrates (at least in 1997) that nothing is 'known' on this matter, but we do have probability. A few more recent articles I have found seem to support the assertion that the Picts were of Celtic origin (Keys 41, Snow 46), but Teutonic influences later mixed in amongst the population of Scotland and became somewhat dominant, yet the modern 'Scottish' identity betrays a mix of linguistic influences including \"Gaelic, English, Welsh, Norse, French, Flemish and Latin\" (Hammond 6-8, 26-7). Celtic and non-Indo-European languages could also have co-existed:\n\n > \"Though it is fashionable for scholars to ignore it, a non-Indo-European language does seem to be visible in the inscriptions of Pictland, which have never convincingly been interpreted as Celtic. The presence of such a language is supported by the ancient river names, so long as they are not emended. When Isaac analysed Ptolemy’s river names in Britain, he found between thirty-four and forty-one Celtic ones and six non-Indo-European ones, and five of those six rivers turned out to be in north-east Scotland. This is indeed what one might expect on the far edge of an island on the far edge of Europe\" (Sims-Williams 431-2).\n\nI've only collected some bits and pieces here and I'm a total layman on this matter so I may have horrible embarrased myself. But the summary of Cunliffe seems reasonable on the matter: that is, that the Picts were predominantly Celtic and perhaps had a smaller non-Indo-European aspect.\n\nSources: \n\nCunliffe, Barry, The Ancient Celts, London: Penguin Books, 1999 (1997).\n\nHammond, Matthew H., \"Ethnicity and the Writing of Medieval Scottish History\", *The Scottish Historical Review*, 85, 219, 2006, 1-27.\n\nKeys, David, \"Rethinking the Picts,\" *Archaeology*, 57, 5, 2004, 40-4.\n\nSims-Williams, Dean, \"Bronze and Iron Age Celtic Speakers: What we don't know, what we can't know, and what could we know? Language, Genetics and Archaeology in the 21st Century\", *The Antiquaries Journal*, 92, 2012, 427-49.\n\nSnow, Dean R., \"Scotland's Irish Origins\", *Archaeology*, 54, 4, 2001, 46-51.\n" ] }
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2qajhc
What did the Russians do the German 6th army after they were captured?
AskHistorians
http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/2qajhc/what_did_the_russians_do_the_german_6th_army/
{ "a_id": [ "cn4ckdr" ], "score": [ 10 ], "text": [ "The captured members of the German 6th Army were by in large sent to Siberia, or at least to the east of the country to get them as far from the battle lines as possible. They were basically used for forced labor, suffered from ill clothing and malnutrition and general poor treatment. Out of the roughly 100K+ prisoners of the 6th, only @6,000 survived the war to be repatriated, some were not released until the early 1950s. \n\n(Christina Morina, *Legacies of Stalingrad: Remembering the Eastern Front in Germany since 1945*)" ] }
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1mnn6q
Is there a situation where crossing two beams of light could interfere with the way the beams look/act after they cross paths?
For instance, if you pointed two lasers at each other in an X pattern, is it possible that one might come off at a different angle, or that the color might change? I thought of this because in one of my classes there are two projectors that cross paths to project lecture slides on angled screens, if that makes sense. And I was thinking that of enough photons "collided" or something of that nature if the image on the screen could change. I clearly know little about light so bear with me.
askscience
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/1mnn6q/is_there_a_situation_where_crossing_two_beams_of/
{ "a_id": [ "ccayzm5", "ccb0oa8" ], "score": [ 10, 5 ], "text": [ "The short answer is yes, it is indeed possible for light to interact with light, though it happens only at very high intensity, around 10^24 W/cm^2 for ~1 micron wavelength light (not far from realization in the laboratory given the present state and trajectory of high intensity laser technology). This is about two orders of magnitude higher in intensity than we can make in the laboratory today and will probably be reached in a decade or so, allowing for direct probing of quantum electrodynamics in the laboratory using high-intensity lasers. \n\n[This article](_URL_0_) describes one such experiment. The essential physics is that at high enough laser intensity, one starts to \"polarize\" the vacuum, creating virtual electron-positron pairs that interact with the incident light as a nonlinear dielectric. Such dielectric behavior of the vacuum allows for the creation of a \"matterless double-slit\" in the article. The physics of this process is described well by quantum electrodynamics.\n\nYour projectors are many, many orders of magnitude lower in intensity, so this bit of exotica is not occurring in your classroom. \n\n[Edit: fixed some awkward wording.] ", "Maxwell's equations, and the wave equations that we can derive from them, describe the behavior of light in classical physics. The wave equation in classical free space, and most normal materials, is linear. Solutions to linear differential equations follow the [superposition principle](_URL_3_). The superposition principle tells us that the sum of two (or more) solutions of the wave equation will itself be a solution to that wave equation.\n\nThat tells us something important. A wave, in a linear medium (one whose wave equation is linear), cannot interact with another wave in that medium. You will see constructive and destructive interference where the two waves overlap, but the waves will emerge from that overlap area unchanged.\n\nHowever, there are [non-linear media](_URL_5_) (Click through the links on that page; those are some of the coolest results in classical optics, imho.) which can induce the effects you mention. Non-linear effects can require quite large intensities. Non-linear effects come down to photons interacting with other photons and the material they are passing through, so it is not explicitly just two photons interacting. However, at least classically, the medium always has to be considered to understand the behavior of light within it.\n\nIn Quantum Electrodynamics, you can (theoretically) get [direct photon-photon scattering](_URL_1_). Note that they talk about using the [Vulcan laser](_URL_2_) and the [XFEL](_URL_0_), incredibly powerful, and in the XFEL's case not even built yet, lasers, and see ~10 and ~10^4 scattered photons, respectively. That tells us this is a very small effect in everyday life. [__Pers response](_URL_4_) is also a good description of another form of this in QED.\n\nOverall, would you get these effects from the overlap of the output of two projectors? No. We can, however, create, and we often use, some very cool forms of exactly what you are talking about." ] }
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[ [ "http://www.nature.com/nphoton/journal/v4/n2/abs/nphoton.2009.261.html" ], [ "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/European_x-ray_free_electron_laser", "http://arxiv.org/abs/hep-ph/0512033", "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vulcan_laser", "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Superposition_principle", "http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/1mnn6q/is_there_a_situation_where_crossing_two_beams_of/ccayzm5", "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nonlinear_optics" ] ]
dxiuif
The Roman Emperor Claudius I is popularly depicted as either a bumbling fool, or a secret genius pretending to be a bumbling fool. What is the historical evidence for either view?
AskHistorians
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/dxiuif/the_roman_emperor_claudius_i_is_popularly/
{ "a_id": [ "f7tgaja" ], "score": [ 41 ], "text": [ "Since I've already been talking about Claudius quite a bit this weekend, I might as well field this question too...\n\nOur understanding of Claudius' talents has been shaped by the nature and biases of the literary sources. There are only four that provide (more or less) independent accounts of his reign: Josephus' *Jewish Antiquities*, Tacitus' *Annals*, Suetonius' *Life of Claudius*, and the *Roman History* of Cassius Dio. Each author had a literary and political agenda, and shaped his portrait of Claudius accordingly. \n\nJosephus, a Jewish protege of the Flavians, was motivated to present Claudius in a generally positive light. Claudius, after all, had been poisoned (or so it was assumed) to make room for Nero; and since the Flavians wanted to blacken the memory of Nero, Claudius was ripe for rehabilitation. \n\nTacitus, whose great themes were the rise of imperial tyranny and the decadence of the Senate, found ample material in the reign of Claudius, and presented the emperor as an indecisive man driven to tyranny by the machinations of his wives and freedmen. \n\nSuetonius was a biographer, not an historian. In keeping with ancient ideas on the relative functions of those genres, he emphasized the moral qualities and failings of his subject, and accentuated the paradoxical rise of a court fool to the imperial seat. \n\nCassius Dio, writing in the early third century, presents a basically positive but rather cursory portrait of Claudius, in which the emperor's achievements are his own, and his failings those of this scheming courtiers. \n\nModern \"popular\" conceptions of Claudius tend to be dominated by Robert Graves' *I, Claudius* and *Claudius the God* and the BBC series based on them. Graves drew heavily on Suetonius, who provides a fascinating wealth of detail about the emperor's odd personal mannerisms. The idea that Claudius was a secret genius really grows out of Graves' novels, which show a highly intelligent but awkward man trying to survive in a vicious imperial household. \n\nSo where does the truth lie? It is clear that Claudius was a competent administrator - his recorded measures are reasonable, and occasionally even far-sighted. It is equally clear that he was a bumbling politician, prone to being used and conspired against. \n\nOne of our very few unvarnished views of Claudius comes from the so-called Lyon Tablet, a bronze panel that records verbatim a speech the emperor made in the Senate to advocate citizenship. This is our one real glimpse into how Claudius always spoke - and it is fascinating. The emperor rambles on about historical minutiae, and has to be reminded repeatedly (by senators shouting from the benches) to get to the point. We see, in other words, an obviously intelligent and learned man, but also one awkward in manner and speech. The Lyon Tablet seems to more or less confirm Suetonius' comments on Claudius' behavior as emperor. Claudius was definitely smart - but we should not imagine him as a secret mastermind." ] }
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3co06x
why does it not matter to climate change that the earth was hotter during certain periods of the past?
_URL_0_ On most climate sites I hear the argument of how the Earth was hotter in the past when compared to today, and we lived just fine. I feel like this is a flawed argument. However, I will admit I'm not well versed in climate change. Can someone explain if the temperatures of the past have any meaning to the climate of today. If this argument is not flawed then it would seem that increased Earth temperatures would be unimportant, to some extent. Again this seems wrong to me, but I can't explain why.
explainlikeimfive
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/3co06x/eli5why_does_it_not_matter_to_climate_change_that/
{ "a_id": [ "csxav2x" ], "score": [ 2 ], "text": [ "Even if we totally accept the argument that climate change has occurred on this scale and with this rapidity before, there's nothing to suggest that it won't be extremely disruptive to our way of life. Regions that are fertile today may become barren, regions that may be farmed in the future may be remote or poorly suited to growing crops. The majority of the human population lives on the edge of the ocean. So we have to shift all our food production around, we have to move our cities. These things don't turn on a dime, and we have a huge population to move and feed. Think of the difficulties right now with Syrian refugees, feeding and housing them. That's < 10 million displaced people. Imagine billions, right when the food infrastructure is suddenly needing massive changes." ] }
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[ "http://www.longrangeweather.com/global_temperatures.htm" ]
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p03s5
shorting the dow
explainlikeimfive
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/p03s5/eli5_shorting_the_dow/
{ "a_id": [ "c3lg70r" ], "score": [ 6 ], "text": [ "The two main reasons you would short the Dow would be: [1] If you think the DOW will go down. [2] To hedge against some other position. Hedging is another matter and I won't go into it here.\n\nSeeing as it is ELI5 I will use an example that is easier to understand (gold as it is traded in dollars not an index like the DOW).\n\nAssume there is a gold dealer that you know that will let you borrow any amount of gold you like at current market prices at any time, and will also buy it back off you at current market prices at any time. This is what many financial institutions offer.\n\nSay gold is currently worth $1700 and you think it is going to go down in price. A method of speculating that it will go down would be to 'go short' on gold. Going short is where you profit on downward movements in prices. Going long is where you profit of upward movements in prices.\n\nGoing short: Firstly, you would borrow an amount of gold. Let's say you borrow 100 ounces at $1700. You have borrowed $1700 x 100 = $170,000 worth of gold. The dealer essentially has given you $170,000 and has said \"now you owe me 100 ounces of gold\". Say in a weeks time gold is now worth $1600. You still owe the dealer 100 ounces. You decide to take your profit. To pay off your debts you will have to give the dealer back his 100 ounces. To settle your debts you will have to buy 100 ounces of gold and then ship them to the dealer. This will cost you $1600 x 100 = $160,000.\n\nSo in summary you borrowed $170,000 from the dealer, a week later you cleared your debts with a $160,000 payment. You have profited the difference of $10,000 from the price of gold going down.\n\nNotes: [1] I have ignored transactions costs and interest payments. \n[2] The DOW is exactly the same sort of situation except it is an index that you are trading on the movement of.\n[3] Hope this helps!" ] }
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5v3nbv
[Experiment] Which method would get the boiled water to lower temperature within the same amount of time?
You have two cups half full with boiled water. 1. In one cup, let's call it cup "A", you fill the other half with cold water straight away and wait 10 min. 2. In the other cup, let's call it cup "B", you wait 5 min before you fill the other half with cold water, then wait another 5 min. 3. In which cup the water's temperature will be lower in the end of the 10 min? *Assuming all the variables are the same in both of the methods. In example, same water's starting temperature, cup's size and material, etc. Apologizes for the English, it's not my native language.
askscience
https://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/5v3nbv/experiment_which_method_would_get_the_boiled/
{ "a_id": [ "ddz18l0" ], "score": [ 48 ], "text": [ "Do the experiment and report back, it's really easy. Any kitchen thermometer will do. To avoid having an effect from fresh tap water being cooler than room temperature, while the other case has 5 minutes to warm up the tap water I suggest using water that has been left at room temperature for 20 minutes. \n\nTo get good readings I suggest you note down the temperature in both cases at 10-20 s intervals and draw the graphs.\n\nThere are two main mechanisms at work, heat loss through generation of steam (you need energy for the phase transition) and heat loss to the surroundings, which is proportional to the difference in temperature. My gut feeling is that the second mechanism will end up at a lower temperature, but I'd do the experiment and then I'd know with certainty. \n\n**----------------------------------------------------------**\n\nEdit: OK, I've done it for you, we got talking about it and I just needed to see what happens. See here for a picture of the [setup](_URL_0_) and the [results](_URL_1_). After finding two thermometers it only took 20 minutes or so - perfect for a coffee break.\n\nThe black cups were used for mixing and measuring the temperatures, the red ones held equal amounts of room temperature (20 C) cold water, the green ones were used to measure equal amounts of freshly boiled water before pouring them into the black cups. As I'm using two equal fresh cups, the second batch does not get an advantage by coming into contact with a preheated cup.\n\nCup A got the hot and cold water at T=0 (with a little stirring from the thermometer), Cup B got the hot water only, with cold added after 5 minutes.\n\nAs expected Cup B cooled quickest while it was hottest, and this larger early loss of heat proved decisive. After equilibration of the mixed fluids Cup B had an advantage of 2 C, which it kept nearly constant during the next 5 minutes. After 10 minutes the final temperatures were: Cup A: 47.5 C and Cup B 45 C.\n\nSo in conclusion, if you want the lowest mixing temperature after 10 minutes, add the cold water after taking advantage of the rapid initial cooling due to the large temperature difference.\n\n\n\n" ] }
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[ [ "http://imgur.com/S9Fqa2h", "http://imgur.com/S6EwIBg" ] ]
jc5si
[li5] a lake in northern canada freezes solid over the winter. what happens to the fish? would fish even live there?
Inspired by Catcher in the Rye.
explainlikeimfive
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/jc5si/li5_a_lake_in_northern_canada_freezes_solid_over/
{ "a_id": [ "c2awnd2", "c2awnd2" ], "score": [ 2, 2 ], "text": [ "The surface freezes, but the water below remains liquid. The lake remains in equilibrium, such that there is an equal amount of water freezing, as there is ice melting underneath the surface.\n\nThe part that makes *me* wonder, is how fish can survive those temperatures.", "The surface freezes, but the water below remains liquid. The lake remains in equilibrium, such that there is an equal amount of water freezing, as there is ice melting underneath the surface.\n\nThe part that makes *me* wonder, is how fish can survive those temperatures." ] }
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4hy9jj
Adding salt to a supercooled liquid?
Liquid's can be supercooled and remain in liquid phase due to a lack of nucleation sites. What would happen if salt was added to supercooled beer, for example? Would the salt act as seed crystals causing crystallization , or would it lower the freezing point--resulting in no change?
askscience
https://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/4hy9jj/adding_salt_to_a_supercooled_liquid/
{ "a_id": [ "d2tt432" ], "score": [ 5 ], "text": [ "It would depend on how deeply supercooled the liquid is. Deeply supercooled solutions (say, beer below -20 & deg;C) would be extremely sensitive to agitation and vibration, so even the act of stirring in the salt would probably trigger a nucleation event. The salt itself would not serve as a \"seed crystal\", because its lattice is not matched to the crystalline structure of ice, but the process of adding the salt could create a sufficient perturbation to initiate nucleation in the supercooled liquid.\n\n\n-\n\n\nIf the degree of supercooling is low or moderate (e.g., beer above -10 & deg;C) , then adding the salt would lower the equilibrium freezing temperature (and also lower the nucleation temperature), thus reducing the supercooling (if temperature is held constant)." ] }
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63mgte
how do choloroplasts have their own dna but 95% of the proteins in chloroplasts are encoded by nuclear genes?
I was reading about chloroplast DNA because I learned that it was circular (which blew my mind), and I read about how 95% of the approximately 3000 proteins in chloroplasts are encoded by genes in the nucleus. I'm just wondering how it came to be that chloroplasts are their own thing with their own DNA but also need the nucleus to for 95% of their proteins? Did they used to have that in their DNA but lost it because it was redundant to have two sets of DNA making the same proteins? Obviously you won't be able to stick to the ELI5 format, but thanks to anyone willing to explain!
explainlikeimfive
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/63mgte/eli5_how_do_choloroplasts_have_their_own_dna_but/
{ "a_id": [ "dfvc2ao" ], "score": [ 13 ], "text": [ "Essentially Chloroplasts (and mitochondria) were originally free bacteria. Chloroplasts descend from cyano-bacteria, which means they can photosynthesise.\n\nYou get things like [lichen](_URL_0_) today, which are a mixture of fungal cells, and cyanobacteria living together. At some point in the past, the ancestor of all plants was something like this. A cyanobacteria was engulfed into a \"plant\" cell, which resulted in the double-membrane structure. This would confer the plant cell a survival advantage, as it could now get energy directly form the sugars produced by the internal cyanobateria.\n\nHowever, if the cyanobacteria reproduced out of control, it would kill it's host cell. Sometimes bacterial chromosomes (the circular loops) will lose a chunk, which drifts off. If this DNA migrates to the nucleus, it can be integrated into the plant cell itself. Now, the proteins are produced by the DNA encoded in the nucleus, but originally they came from the bacteria!\n\nOver time many genes have migrated to the nucleus, which domesticates the chloroplasts, since they cannot reproduce without the nucleus making proteins for them. Proteins which are made at a large rate have stayed inside the chloroplasts themselves.\n\nNow the chloroplasts are part of the plant, but originally they were free living bacteria who gradually become tamed." ] }
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[ [ "https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lichen" ] ]
2vwqoh
how exactly does a transformator transform energy to a lower voltage?
*transformer, sorry everyone :p
explainlikeimfive
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/2vwqoh/eli5_how_exactly_does_a_transformator_transform/
{ "a_id": [ "coljtwz", "colp8mt", "colwmp0" ], "score": [ 4, 2, 2 ], "text": [ "Do you mean a transformer? The EMF induced in the secondary coil is proportional to the rate of change of magnetic flux through the coil. More loops means a higher magnetic field (and therefore flux) inside the secondary coil. Less coils means less flux and therefore less induced EMF.\n\nSo in a step-down transformer, the primary coil has more loops than the secondary coil.", "Magnetic fields induce voltage into conductors (like copper wire). To increase a magnetic field, one trick is to coil copper wire. The flow of electricity creates a magnetic field along the length of the wire, but it is relatively weak. If you coil the wire, the field compounds it's effects and changes it's magnetic flow to be around the entire coil instead of the wire alone. Certain materials are also used to further increase magnetism by allowing magnetic field lines to move.\n\nLike electricity, magnetic field flux lines move through materials differently. Magnetic field flow is called reluctance. Iron is very reluctant, and allows the magnet field lines to become stronger. Placing an iron core inside a coil increases the magnetic field strength, which increases the ability it has to induce voltage into a nearby copper conductor. \n\nSmaller coil, higher voltage, next to a large coil, and you've stepped down the voltage, but what you lose in volts has become amperage. If you use a higher amperage, larger coil, and place a circuit with a smaller coil next to it, you induce a higher voltage. Again, you lose the amperage, but gain the voltage, or electrical pressure. \n\n\n", "Hey there! Totally not my field, but I minored in physics in my undergrad years!\n\nThink of electricity as water in a hose. In this analogy, the current (measured in amperes) would be analogous to current of the water through the pipe- as in, how much water moves through a given section in a period of time. Voltage would be the speed of the water both in the hose and coming out the end of the hose. How does this help us understand transformers?\n\n\nLet's say you want to increase the voltage of the electricity. This can be done without having to raise the power supply at all, using what's called a transformer. Put your thumb over the end of the hose- suddenly the water starts shooting out, and you can feel the increase of pressure under your thumb. The amount of water passing through any given section of the hose at any point in time has not changed at all, but by shrinking the opening with your thumb, in order to keep the current constant, the water has to speed up coming out the end, which lets you [spray your backyard enemies](_URL_1_) with a more effective water laser. \n\nHow does a transformer actually do this, since there's no real \"hole\" to shrink? Easy! Take a piece of metal (your transformer's \"core\") and wrap your wires around it like [this.](_URL_0_) (Please note that the transformer setup in this diagram would do the opposite, and *decrease* the voltage) \n\nAll moving electric charges (in this case, the electrons moving through the wire wrapped around the left side of the core) create a magnetic field. As you can see, the left side has fewer turns than the right side. The electrons in the wire on the right are influenced by the magnetic field created by the ones on the left, and they begin moving. This creates an \"induced\" current in the right side. Energy must be conserved! Because there are more coils on the right, there are more electrons under the influence than you started with! So the voltage decreases (or increases) based on how many turns of wire are wrapped around each side.\n\nUnfortunately, there is one discrepancy with the hose analogy- the current in the wire has to increase if the voltage decreases, (so that energy is conserved across the transformer) and vise versa. \n\n\nThe core plays a pretty important role, too! It magnifies the electromagnetic effects because it is full of electrons that mimic the ones in the wire.\n\nDoes that help? (It's been a looong time since undergrad so if I've bungled it anyone is welcome to correct me)" ] }
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[ [], [], [ "http://i.imgur.com/eGYjvvq.jpg", "http://i.imgur.com/aXzTWRV.jpg" ] ]
5v8weh
how do people with a hearing impairment think words? i think the way words sound to me - how does it work for others?
explainlikeimfive
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/5v8weh/eli5_how_do_people_with_a_hearing_impairment/
{ "a_id": [ "de06l0h" ], "score": [ 14 ], "text": [ "You know that thing you do when you're thinking to yourself and your move your mouth as if you were speaking, but without actually speaking? That's called [subvocalization](_URL_0_), and you do it even when you don't want to. Whenever you read, whenever you think to yourself, you're subvocalizing subconsciously. When your brain is recalling language, it activates every part associated with that, including the parts required to actually speak it, even if you aren't speaking it.\n\nDeaf people do the same thing with the muscles in their arms, hands, and fingers. They \"subvocalize\" whatever sign language they use (also, as an aside, there is no single universal sign language: there is American Sign Language [ASL], British Sign Language [BSL], Australian Sign Language [Auslan], French Sign Language [which for historical reasons is the basis of American Sign Language], etc.). Their muscles twitch slightly, imitating the nerve signals that would normally be required for signing, just not fully activating the muscles to sign in the same way that you don't fully activate the muscles in your mouth and larynx.\n\nMind, that is for those who are *Deaf* (capital D Deaf). Meaning, those who are part of the Deaf community and most likely know a sign language as their first and primary language. If someone is lower case d deaf (someone who cannot hear but isn't part of the community), or hard-of-hearing (but still capable of understanding spoken language, even if it's with a cochlear implant) they probably still think in whatever spoken language they learned before they lost their hearing. If you could magically hear their thoughts, it probably wouldn't sound very familiar, but then again, someone from the [American Southeast](_URL_2_) listening in on the thoughts of someone from [certain parts of England](_URL_1_) would probably be very confused." ] }
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[ [ "https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Subvocalization", "https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=oezh9RwLpkA", "https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=gAqm5ls8Ep8" ] ]
3jxds0
if the worst nfl teams always get the first (or early) round draft picks, why do the same teams continue to suck year after year?
They get the best players from college year after year... Shouldn't they be at least mediocre after a while?
explainlikeimfive
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/3jxds0/eli5_if_the_worst_nfl_teams_always_get_the_first/
{ "a_id": [ "cut39fk", "cut3bvb", "cut3ou4", "cut3zok", "cut79vk" ], "score": [ 2, 9, 2, 5, 2 ], "text": [ "One issue was that for quite a while draft picks from about the first half of the first round were overpaid (which becomes really important in the salary cap era) relative to likely production while picks late in the first round and especially 2nd round tended to be the best value (expected production/pay). \n\nThe NFL is designed to involve a high degree of randomness (short games, 16 games to a season) so bad teams tend to be very poorly managed in ways that aren't too visible so even with good talent the factors that caused consistent underperformance prior to the draft continue to cause underperformance after multiple early selections. ", "The overall \"best\" player isn't necessarily the best fit for a team and its needs. Consistently getting high draft picks and not much improvement is a sign of poor management, simple as that.\n\n ", "Look at the Raiders from about 2002 till last year. They wasted all their draft picks on people who were \"fast\" and \"big.\" Al Davis constantly squandered their draft picks because he though if he could compile as many fast SEC player as he could then he would have a Super Bowl team, regardless of the fact that the teams had little discipline or structure. Jamarcus Russel, Rolondo McClain, Darren McFadden, and Fabian Washington all come to mind. Good individual players in college, just didn't help the Raiders win", "Drafting players is not an exact science. Success in the college game does not guarantee success in the NFL.\n\nEven when a top draft works out, one guy cannot carry an entire team.\n\nInjuries. Football is a very violent game. An injury can sideline a player, hamper his performance short term, or prevent him from ever reaching his full potential. ", "hey /u/grizzy19, I think /u/meowingtons-phd can explain this fairly well, no?" ] }
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32bsrm
what happens when im thinking of nothing?
You always hear that men can think of absolutely npthing. I know i can sit there and.just stare at nothing. What actually happens when.this occurs?
explainlikeimfive
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/32bsrm/eli5_what_happens_when_im_thinking_of_nothing/
{ "a_id": [ "cq9q6wl" ], "score": [ 2 ], "text": [ "Honestly you probably just get lost in studying the visual aspects of the thing you're looking at. I don't believe you can ever be truly without a thought. " ] }
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18sseo
How does the history of Nazi Germany and the Holocaust affect modern Germany?
On a trip to Germany I visited the Jewish Museum in Berlin and became very interested in how Germans now-a-days view their history, particularly Nazi Germany and the Holocaust. Around the corner was the Berlinische Galerie which contained some fantastic art that gave an insight into the identity struggle of many German artists, post-war, post-wall, post-EU formation. Just looking for some insight into how the atrocities of WW2 impacted future generations? (First post in AskHistorians, hope I'm doing it right)
AskHistorians
http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/18sseo/how_does_the_history_of_nazi_germany_and_the/
{ "a_id": [ "c8hq1hi", "c8hqoeb", "c8hqqtx", "c8hsqo0", "c8htbll", "c8iaixy" ], "score": [ 9, 8, 3, 3, 12, 2 ], "text": [ "This isn't actually a question about *history*, I'm sorry to say. You seem to be asking about how *current-day* Germans view their history, and are influenced by it.\n\nAs such, I would recommend [r/Germany](_URL_1_) or [r/AskACountry](_URL_0_). It's also possible that the sociologists or historians at [r/AskSocialScience](_URL_2_) could help you (we don't discuss the current-day, but they do).\n", "I think the question is suitable for /r/AskHistorians. Where do you wanna draw the line between things that are \"history\" and things happening now? Is my coffee from this morning history because it's past? Besides, if the admins from the \"current-day\" subreddits say that this quesion is about history, it might never get answered.\n\nWWII belongs to the field of contemporary history because, according to its definition, people who lived through this are still alive. Having a living source of history (unlike e.g. archeological sites in the field of antiquity) is a blessing that only historians of contemporary history have. I think the effects of WWII have the greatest impact on the nowadays German situation and can be discussed here.", "_URL_0_\n\natleast a little relevant.", "I can answer this somewhat. I have a History degree and I took a few graduate level classes on Genocide in the context of History and implications such as Memory and Identity. I think in the generation born after World War II their was a lot of anger with their parents for tolerating and in many cases assisting with the Holocaust. Their was a deeper bond between West Germany and Israel than many other nations in Europe, reparation agreements and defense agreements etc. It must also be said that East Germany was a lot different. The Nazis were overnight replaced by the Stazi and under Communist rule, the Holocaust was barely recognized or discussed. Now that the Cold War is over, you see a new youth generation that may not have the connection or sense of guilt for what happened 60-70 years ago. I think it has impacted German political identity to a great degree by eliminating the prussian sense of militaritism and establishing democratic govt as the appropiate one. \n\nGood book: \n\n_URL_0_", "How the past is interpreted and processed is perhaps the most important question for an historian, so I think the question is very relevant.\n\nGermany has tried to find ways to come to terms with the past. The English language has actually used German terms for struggle, mainly [Vergangenheitsbewältigung](_URL_1_) and Geschichtsaufarbeitung. Both concepts refer to the attempt to understand what has happened and to learn from it.\n\nThat's obviously a very generalized answer. What actually happened is, as always, way more complex. \n\nIt starts with the Four Ds of the allied occupation forces. Denazification, Demilitarization, Democratization, Decentralization (sometimes also Deindustrialization and Decartellization). The Allies tried from the beginning to instill a general feeling of guilt and shame to the German people. Visits to the Camps, screenings of videos of war crimes, the whole Nuremberg-thing. On the other hand, there was an obvious continuity of personnel. Germany was a highly industrialized and bureaucratic nation... replacing all officials and elites that had already worked under the NS regime was just impossible.\n\nWhat impact this had on the German people is actually very hard to say. To a certain degree, it just wasn't important. Many people had lost their homes, everybody was mourning over some lost family member, some had lost everything. They were sick of ideology and more occupied with the task of finding a new place to live and enough coal to make it through the winter. The 1950s are usually seen as a very unpolitical time in Germany... there was so much to do, so much to worry about that after the initial shock of losing the war, bigger problems took the scene.\n\nThis changes with the 1960s and especially with movement of the new left. This new generation, who were in their late teens or early twenties in 1967 and couldn't remember Hitler, started to ask questions about the past of their parents and grandparents. This is where deep and hidden conflicts between the generations break open. (See, for example, Heinrich Bölls novel \"Das Vermächtnis\" about a Nazi-officer who manages to easily find his way back in the post-war society. Böll wrote it in 1948, but couldn't find a publisher.)\nThis struggle and the inability of the older generations to properly \"answer\" these questions lead to the belief of the radicalized elements of the left that fascism was always lurking behind the boring lives of boring people in a capitalistic society. \n\nAnyway... to wrap this whole thing up a bit:\nOn an academic level, this whole question leads to the [Historikerstreit](_URL_0_)\n\nFor that, I recommend an article by Götz Aly: The logic of horror, which tries to summarize the whole dispute:\n > \n > Twenty years ago the \"Historikerstreit\", or \"historians' dispute\", flared up, a decisive conflict on the historical interpretation of the Holocaust and the Germans' understanding of themselves. In the article \"Vergangenheit, die nicht vergehen will\" (the past that does not want to pass) in the Frankfurter Allgemeine Zeitung on June 6, 1986, historian Ernst Nolte maintained the Holocaust should be viewed in the light of the entirety of 20th century European history. Nolte further explained the murder of the Jews as a reaction to the mechanism of extermination in Soviet Russia: \"Was not the 'Gulag Archipelago' prior to 'Auschwitz'?\" In an answer in Die Zeit, philosopher Jürgen Habermas accused Nolte of playing down German guilt, and insisted on the singular nature of the Holocaust. The ensuing debate on German guilt and its historical interpretation involved all major German historians.\n\n_URL_2_", "There was similar topic some weeks ago, _URL_0_\n\nI added to a post myself there, but this is mostly based on personal experience as a german and a political scientist, rather than being based on specific historical research. I have, on the other hand read the works of german historians on the subject, which greatly influenced my perceiption regarding these effects. My basic points on the subject were the following:\n\nGermany lacks a right wing, compared to other states. I am not talking about extrem-right / far-right here, we have those, but we lack a \"normal\" right wing. While some people might argue, that the Christian Democratic Union might be the german \"right wing\", they are actual centre and rarely, very rarely we have some politicians that make rightist statements. It is nothing compared to the right wing in the USA, for example. Our general population and the media react very harsh to rightist statements and rightist statements are often answered by nazi comparisons. This means that our political spectrum is somewhat limited. I am a member of the social democrat party myself so it does not really bother me, but it is an interesting non the less.\n\nMy grandfather was a german soldier, later officer in WW2, never joined the NSDAP (the Nazi Party), after the war became a president for a labour union (I am not sure if this is the right translation) and a politician for the social democrats. Two years ago, I wrote a paper on the 68 movement in germany and talked to him a lot, after reading some sources. After the war, even if americans tried to raise awareness about the holocaust and the collective guilt, it was ignored because other things ( like rebuilding the country) was more important than reflecting on the past. During the 60's, basicly when reconstructing the nation was \"finished\", their children started asking about WW2, the Holocaust and guilt, after learning about it in school and realizing that their own parents might have done something horrible during that time. While this did not really affect my own grandparents, this caused a real conflict between the two generations and (together with other problems) caused huge debates, protests and criticism. To this day, german people that lived during the Nazi-Era mostly accept a collective guilt, but they do not accept a personal / individual guilt. While my grandparents never voted for Hitler and never joined the NSDAP (my grandmother was too young at that time and my grandfather got around it), my grandfather told me that he does not hold any grudge against anyone, who was a normal citizen and voted for the NSDAP. If you look at the circumstances, the weimarer republic was a time of failed democracy and unstable governments. This is not an excuse, but it helps understand what went on in the voters minds. The generation that was born after WW2, in my opinion, always felt more guilt and strangely more responsible to prevent anything like that from happening again, than the generation that actually \"caused\" all that misery.\n\nThe Kosovo War is a very good example for two colliding ideals in Germany, that are still debated today. Germany, by our constitution, is not allowed to participate in a war-of-aggression. They found a way around this, because the first war the bundeswehr took part in, was labeled as a humanitarian intervention. The idea behind it, the responsibility to protect, was well received in germany. Our then-foreign-minister, Joschka Fischer, member of germanys green (and pacifism)political party, actually compared the situation in yugoslawia to the holocaust and said that germany will not let something like the holocaust happen ever again. „Ich habe nicht nur gelernt: Nie wieder Krieg. Ich habe auch gelernt: Nie wieder Auschwitz.“\n\n\n\n" ] }
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[ [ "http://www.reddit.com/r/askacountry", "http://www.reddit.com/r/germany", "http://www.reddit.com/r/AskSocialScience" ], [], [ "http://www.reddit.com/r/germany/comments/i6h3u/german_redditors_how_do_you_feel_every_time/" ], [ "http://books.google.com/books/about/Divided_Memory.html?id=yahqnBEEbQEC" ], [ "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Historikerstreit", "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vergangenheitsbew%C3%A4ltigung", "http://www.signandsight.com/features/800.html" ], [ "http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/yhg4w/how_did_german_society_change_after_the_holocaust/" ] ]
wqotr
What pieces of medieval/Renaissance garb still exist?
I have a strong interest in medieval/Renaissance history, and I really enjoy looking at actual examples of medieval/Renaissance textiles. Armor is relatively easy to find (the main museum in my nearest major city has several examples), but what's out there for dresses, shoes, etc?
AskHistorians
http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/wqotr/what_pieces_of_medievalrenaissance_garb_still/
{ "a_id": [ "c5fm717", "c5fnshp", "c5fnvfj", "c5fsiuj" ], "score": [ 2, 6, 2, 3 ], "text": [ "Well, I think that some of the material on the effigy of Elizabeth at Westminster is in fact original (c. 1600) but that's a bit later than you want. The Black Prince's surcoat, helm, and gauntlets (ca. 1350) survive at Canterbury but they've [lost pretty much all color](_URL_1_) and replicas hang over the tomb. One very interesting discovery was the cache at Herjolfsnes in Greenland, which gave great insight into the clothing of the era. [This book may be a place to start.](_URL_0_) Apparently these have been used as the basis for \"replica fashions\" available for purchase. I'm not sure what survived further south--scraps certainly, and I recall seeing Merovingian boots (what was left of them) on display somewhere but I don't remember which museum. ", "A room in an Austrian castle, sealed off in the 15th century, was recently opened. It contained many textiles, including undergarments and shoes. [Check out this write-up](_URL_0_)--at this point, the publicly available information seems quite scant, but I'm eager for the publication of an article on the finds!", "[The Orkney Hood](_URL_0_) and the [Llan-gors textile](_URL_1_) are two pieces that have \"survived\".", "More than you would expect. Textiles are found in many archaeological investigations. Of course, they only survive in anaerobic (usually waterlogged) conditions, but these aren't as seldom as one might think. Latrines especially are found in many medieval cities and some of them reach the watertable and are therefore waterlogged. Shoes especially, being made of tough leather, survive more often than one would think. Museums in most European cities have medieval leather goods and textile fragments on display. But of course most of these are just that: fragments. Whole articles of clothing survive seldomly for the simple reason that they weren't usually thrown away. \n\nThose that do survive until today are often liturgical clothing that were kept by the church. Some profane clothing of the upper classes may have survived without entering the ground, if so they are found in textile historical collections of major museums. I'm not sure if these go as far back as the renaissance, though. The oldest clothing I have seen in museums is probably 18th century.\n\n\nEdit: [Here's one such collection I visited](_URL_1_) (available in German, French or Italian. The actual objects are [here](_URL_2_).). I wasn't far off, it goes back [to the 17th century](_URL_0_) but most items are from the 18th onward.\n" ] }
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[ [ "http://books.google.com/books/about/Woven_into_the_earth.html?id=SnzWAAAAMAAJ", "http://mediumaevum.tumblr.com/post/6033316324/the-recreated-surcoat-of-the-black-prince-hanging" ], [ "http://www.medievalists.net/2012/07/17/medieval-lingerie-discovery-in-austria-reveals-what-really-was-worn-under-those-tunics/" ], [ "http://www.orkneyjar.com/history/orkneyhood.htm", "http://www.museumwales.ac.uk/en/rhagor/article/1936/" ], [ "http://webcollection.nationalmuseum.ch/de/php/detail.php?id=2071&amp;typ=25&amp;highlight=&amp;20jh=&amp;gesamt=305&amp;pos=80&amp;suchtyp=mix", "http://webcollection.nationalmuseum.ch/de/sammlungen/textilien/", "http://webcollection.nationalmuseum.ch/de/php/sammlung.php?typ=25" ] ]
20ruq1
Why do things bounce?
Now that I think about it, this everyday thing seems very strange.
askscience
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/20ruq1/why_do_things_bounce/
{ "a_id": [ "cg68vcd" ], "score": [ 6 ], "text": [ "Solid object deform when you apply forces to them. If an object has elasticity, it will tend to return to its original shape. Now imagine the case of a ball dropped. The ball gains some kinetic energy in its descent, and this energy, at impact serves to deform the both the ball as well as the ground. If the ground or the ball (or both) hold some elasticity, they will attempt to return to their original shape, which will apply a force opposite in direction to the initial force applied. \n\nIf an object bounces in a collision, the collision is elastic to some extent and energy is conserved in the system as it is transferred from the motion of the object into the compression of the object, into the internal restoring forces of the object, and back out into the object as kinetic energy, giving it motion in the direction opposite the initial direction\n\nEDIT: To comment on elasticity, when an elastic object is deformed, the structure as a whole is disturbed from its minimal energy state, and will subsequently to return to this minimal energy state from the higher energy state (provided the object is not permanently deformed and a new minimal energy state created)." ] }
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8opgc7
Why did Charles Cornwallis not face Washington directly after surrendering at Yorktown? Was this an attempt to slight Washington, and, if so, was it seen as dishonorable or childish?
Subsequently, did Washington send his second in command as a slight to Cornwallis?
AskHistorians
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/8opgc7/why_did_charles_cornwallis_not_face_washington/
{ "a_id": [ "e05i59n" ], "score": [ 21 ], "text": [ " Gen. Charles Cornwallis, 1st Marquess and 2nd Earl Cornwallis, [surrendered to American forces on October 19th, 1781](_URL_0_) after two days of a ceasefire. It came after a week of fighting where British troops failed to advance or make any dent in the American and French forces who had surrounded them and were well\\-fortified. The loss was quite shocking, with over 8,000 British troops being captured by the Americans. The negotations for the surrender were held by Cornwallis' subordinates, which was not unsusual for 18th century warefare. What was unusual is that Gen. Cornwallis did not attend the surrender ceremony, claiming an illness prevented him from coming. \n\nBrigadier General Charles O'Hara was the office in charge and led the British army onto the field. Reports say that Gen. O'Hara attempted to surrender to French General Jean\\-Baptiste Donatien de Vimeur, comte de Rochambeau , who refused to address O'Hara, and and pointed to Washington instead. O'Hara offered his sword in a ceremonial position of surrender, but Washington refused and had Major Gen. Benjamin Lincoln accept it, thus initiating the formal surrender of the British Army at Yorktown.\n\nWhile it might seem dishonorable to us that Cornwallis did not take to the field, neither his loss of Yorktown nor his refusal to take to the field was largely seen as dishonorable in the eyes of his countrymen. Having just suffered the arguably most embarrasing defeat in 18th century British history \\(in the eyes of the British\\), Cornwallis may have very\\-well been ill and unable to attend. As some historians have noted, \"[Although the Yorktown capitulation decided the war in favour of the colonists, Cornwallis remained in high esteem at home.](_URL_1_)\" Cornwallis went on to become governor of Indian just four years after his defeat at Yorktown. He went on to have an impressive career, including a promotion to marquess in 1792. It appears that his loss at Yorktown did not hold back his future successes. " ] }
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[ [ "http://www.visitingyorktown.com/surrender.html", "https://www.britannica.com/biography/Charles-Cornwallis-1st-Marquess-and-2nd-Earl-Cornwallis" ] ]
18ma7k
what is the difference between fruits and flowers?
Like in terms of function
explainlikeimfive
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/18ma7k/eli5_what_is_the_difference_between_fruits_and/
{ "a_id": [ "c8g0yw5", "c8g5rvh" ], "score": [ 5, 2 ], "text": [ "A flower is the reproductive structure in flowering plants (called angiosperms). The purpose of a flower is to offer up & receive pollen from other flowers. \nFlowers are often brightly coloured & scented to attract animals, & offer up substances like nectar to lure insects/birds into the flower, where they can pick up pollen from the flower, that they will carry to the next flower they visit.\n\nPollen is the equivalent to sperm in animals. If it reaches a flower of the same type & it gets transmitted to the female part of the flower, it will fertilise it. The pollinated flower will then develop seeds that will potentially grow into another plant if it is in the right conditions.\n\nTo get to the right conditions though, the seed often needs to be protected & transported. Some plants have again encouraged animals to help transport the seeds by providing them with another incentive to collect their seeds: by encasing them inside a tasty fruit. The flower will develop into the fleshy body of the fruit surrounding the seeds, which animals will pick & carry or eat.\n\nMost seeds in edible fruit are strong enough to pass through through an animal's digestive tract, so they will be pooped out some distance from the parent plant, where it will be able to grow without having to compete with its parent for nutrients.\n\nOther, inedible, fruits are just there to protect the seed from being crushed or otherwise destroyed, eg. to deter them from being eaten, because the seeds wouldn't be able to survive the digestive process.\n\n**TL;DR**: Some plants have structures called flowers to receive pollen from other plants so they can become fertilised & produce seeds. These flowers then develop into fruits that protect the seeds & help them be transported.", "Send flowers to your girlfriend or wife on her birthday.\n\nSend fruits to your grandma when she's in hospital." ] }
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e8t117
How did Napoleon III's reforms affect the later development of France's economy?
Since we're on the topic of great reformers, his social and infrastructural reforms, as well as their immediate effects, are extremely famous. I want to know what their long-term consequences were, specifically when it comes to economic growth.
AskHistorians
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/e8t117/how_did_napoleon_iiis_reforms_affect_the_later/
{ "a_id": [ "fafadcq" ], "score": [ 17 ], "text": [ "Napoleon III's probably most lasting economic reforms took place in the education and financial sectors. While in the short-term the lowering of tariffs across the board spurred productivity growth and encouraged foreign trade, in the long-term the true determinants of economic growth are threefold: population growth, human capital (i.e. education), and increased liquidity of capital. Modernizing the French agricultural industry helped to mitigate the famines that routinely decimated early-modern France and the new public education system (which competed with the existing Catholic school based system) further served to improve literacy and otherwise prepared children for the \"real world.\" \n\nThat being said, the legacy of Napoleon III persists mostly in the form of the large number of banks that he encouraged or supported. BNP Paribas (a combination of Banque Nationale de Paris and Paris Bank), Societe-Generale, Credit Lyonnais (which merged with Credit Agricole), are all banks that were created during the Second French Empire. They quickly grew to be some of the world's largest banks and persist even to this day as some of the largest and most sophisticated financial institutions. Without the financial bedrock that they were able to provide (in tandem with a surplus of gold into global markets that increased the currency supply), it is unlikely that Napoleon III could have been able to finance any of the fiscal and infrastructure reforms that he needed to modernize France. The now-defunct Credit Mobiliere, for instance, was a major contributor to the finance of French railways, French public transit, and even the French intervention into the Crimean War. The rise of the French banking sector also worked well with the increased savings of French workers, which provided a sufficient capital base for investment and further growth." ] }
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ailmth
Why was Theodore Roosevelt known as the "Trust Buster" when Taft broke up more trusts?
AskHistorians
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/ailmth/why_was_theodore_roosevelt_known_as_the_trust/
{ "a_id": [ "eepmr53" ], "score": [ 10 ], "text": [ "I'm confused by this question. Roosevelt gained his reputation as a trust buster during his presidency. Taft had not served as president yet. How would people know not to declare Roosevelt a trust buster because his successor would use the Sherman Act more aggressively?" ] }
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35mffu
"unincorporated" small town
What does Mayberry Unincorporated mean? Are they advertising a negative?
explainlikeimfive
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/35mffu/eli5unincorporated_small_town/
{ "a_id": [ "cr5rj8k", "cr5tf3h" ], "score": [ 3, 2 ], "text": [ "Some people see unincorporated as a positive. In a city, there's essentially four levels of government that people live under: city, county, state and federal. In an unincorporated region, it's just county, state and federal. Less government is a plus to some.", "It means there is no formal city level government, all services are provided by the county or the state.\n\nIt is not a negative, a lot of unincorporated towns don't have the tax base to pay for city government.\n\nThey put that on the signs:\n\n* the signs are often made to the state's standards\n* to let you know it is a smaller community that might not have services like gas, food, or lodging\n* if you need law enforcement, you need to contact the sheriff or state patrol " ] }
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1hieqe
How is the historical argument of David Graeber's "Debt: The First 5000 Years" viewed?
Crossposting from /r/AskSocialScience/ due to popular request. Original thread [here](_URL_1_). I'm primarily asking about the whole history of money Graeber presents, not the anti-capitalist opinions he promotes in the same book. Although I guess if you want to talk about those too, who am I to stop you? For those unaware of the book's argument, it's summarized in some detail [here](_URL_0_). I guess I don't really expect anyone to judge the book's merit on this interview alone; but it was interesting enough to make me buy the book, so I figured someone might enjoy it.
AskHistorians
http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/1hieqe/how_is_the_historical_argument_of_david_graebers/
{ "a_id": [ "cauour0", "caurmlf" ], "score": [ 8, 3 ], "text": [ "I always find it hilarious when non-lawyers discuss legal topics (e.g. money and contracts).\n\nSo, without giving this gentleman from Yale too much credit, and taking into account that only so much can be expected from him as long as he is speaking outside of his area of speciality, I present to you the first error:\n\n\"The story goes back at least to Adam Smith and in its own way it’s the founding myth of economics.\"\n\nRight. If he had even done cursory research he would have discovered that the Roman jurists also regarded \"purchase and sale for cash\" (emptio venditio) as a sub-category of the barter transaction (permutatio). The Romans also referred to the creation of currency as being something which happened temporally later than the barter economy.\n\n\"Now, I’m an anthropologist and we anthropologists have long known this is a myth simply because if there were places where everyday transactions took the form of: “I’ll give you twenty chickens for that cow,” we’d have found one or two by now.\"\n\nThere are such places. I often barter with other people, even in my own town. For me, this takes the form of me offering some service in exchange for another service (e.g., my neighbor and I each receive each other's packages free of charge). Every now and then I engage in item-for-item barter as well. However, the point is: barter and trade for money co-exist and are readily observable in many contexts today. (Although perhaps not in Yale classrooms.)\n\n\"[...]how does that broad sense of ‘I owe you one’ turn into a precise system of measurement[...]\"\n\nMore importantly, when does it become legally necessary to enforce the \"I owe you one\" if the other person refuses to comply. When do social sanctions no longer work? When is an organized system of contract enforcement necessary? All of this goes well beyond anthropology.\n\n\"You say that by the time historical records start to be written in the Mesopotamia around 3200 BC a complex financial architecture is already in place.\"\n\nThis is the narrator, not the author. But the Mesopotamian financial system is not excessively complex. Money lending and credit did exist but no banks or fractional reserve banking existed. Also, to say the least, there were no stocks, bonds or currency fluctuations.\n\n\"This was the great social evil of antiquity – families would have to start pawning off their flocks, fields and before long, their wives and children would be taken off into debt peonage.\"\n\nDebt-peonage is under-rated. Happy to expand on this if anyone asks.\n\nAnd calling slavery on account of debt a \"social evil\" is the worst presentism.\n\n\"Once you recognize that money is just a social construct, a credit, an IOU, then first of all what is to stop people from generating it endlessly?\"\n\nIt's not, it's a mode of exchange, and that is how it functions. If you generate it endlessly it ceases to be meaningful as a mode of exchange. That stops people from generating it endlessly, as presumably those people have an interest in maintaining the mode of exchange's function.\n\nThe rest of the interview is all present-day bullshitting about the EU debt crisis.\n\nI'll spare everybody my opinions on that kerfuffle.", "So, could you list specific things that you're interested in? The fact of the matter is that Graeber says an enormous number of things, many of which are true, a few of which are not true, some of which are possibly mislreading. To go page by page would be quite hard! :)\n\nThe biggest issue with the book, to my mind, was that Graeber's framing device (the conceptual connection between money and debt) suffers from Graeber's ignorance of economic concepts. Specifically, he thinks that if he shows people didn't go around handing each other gold coins, he's proven that money wasn't important at a certain period in history. Likewise, if people engaged in barter didn't demand their stuff c.i.f., he says the must not have been bartering. But the concept of a money is a liquid medium of exchange and store of value, and either you have some solution to the problem that a lack of money poses, or you don't. (You can also see his confusion in the scorn he heaps on historians of currency for failing to consider the broad socio-economic ramifications of the money system in their work. He has trouble understanding the distinction between the two.)\n\nWhen I read it I remember thinking that the intellectual history of economics and the history of the monetary system since WWI were not solid, in a way that made me a little tentative about Graeber's interesting accounts of lands, cultures, and eras about which I know nothing. If you want specifics I can check my notes. He also has a somewhat unhappy way of using footnotes - often footnotes I checked because I wanted to know what sort of evidence he was using were footnoted to *an entire book* (rather than to a specific page), or added some additional factoid without sourcing the claim in the body of the text.\n\nThat said, i thought it was a fun read and on the whole fascinating." ] }
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[ "http://www.nakedcapitalism.com/2011/08/what-is-debt-%E2%80%93-an-interview-with-economic-anthropologist-david-graeber.html", "http://www.reddit.com/r/AskSocialScience/comments/1hi0g3/how_is_the_historical_argument_of_david_graebers/?sort=confidence" ]
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dz46kc
what exactly happens to person when they're only awake during the night?
explainlikeimfive
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/dz46kc/eli5_what_exactly_happens_to_person_when_theyre/
{ "a_id": [ "f8550kp" ], "score": [ 2 ], "text": [ "You get really fucked up. Shift work is worse as my body can attest. But straight nights causes your body to go all haywire. Basically your body doesn't work well, not receiving Vitamin D, Metabolism diminishes, you're more likely to have heart conditions, blue like also messes you up on nights. I can't recall the article but it was State side where they studied a neighbourhood with new installed LED street lights (blue light spectrum) vs without and there were higher domestic disturbance police calls then the neighbourhoods with regular condescent or halogen street lighting same income range for households and such.\n\n_URL_2_\n\n_URL_1_\n\n_URL_0_\n\nThat's just the first page of Google," ] }
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[ [ "https://www.google.com/url?sa=t&amp;source=web&amp;rct=j&amp;url=https://getsling.com/blog/effects-of-working-night-shifts/&amp;ved=2ahUKEwiM3abPmvnlAhVIdt8KHV9XAJYQFjAJegQIAhAB&amp;usg=AOvVaw0wgpaXtKt7OKHr0kJqdGp5&amp;cshid=1574267340387", "https://www.google.com/url?sa=t&amp;source=web&amp;rct=j&amp;url=https://time.com/3657434/night-work-early-death/&amp;ved=2ahUKEwiM3abPmvnlAhVIdt8KHV9XAJYQFjAEegQIDRAW&amp;usg=AOvVaw15z3RYj1n8cmRNuEw1NvpN", "https://www.sleepfoundation.org/shift-work-disorder/what-shift-work-disorder/living-coping-shift-work-disorder" ] ]
ah9jen
is there a correlation between how hard you blow and the size of a bubble? if not what defines the size of a bubble?
explainlikeimfive
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/ah9jen/eli5_is_there_a_correlation_between_how_hard_you/
{ "a_id": [ "eecho61", "eecig26" ], "score": [ 3, 2 ], "text": [ "It's liquid tension - the harder you blow the more force is pushed against the inside of the bubble which has more potential to pop it. A slow smooth bubble will allow more surface area without breaking liquid tension ", "Well, assuming that you blow softly enough to avoid the bubble to explode, I think the harder you blow the bigger the bubble gets. Maybe this behavior is linked to some elastic properties of the surface of the bubble: when you stop blowing, the air exits from the bubble if the surface is still open. So, when you blow, some air enters in the bubble, but at the same time some air exits. I think the key is that approximately the same amount of air per time exits from the bubble due to the elastic properties of the surface, while you can vary the amount of air entering the bubble if you blow softer or harder." ] }
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agq09t
why is snot green.
explainlikeimfive
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/agq09t/eli5_why_is_snot_green/
{ "a_id": [ "ee835r4" ], "score": [ 4 ], "text": [ "When your body first makes it, it's clear. But it's like fly paper. It's there to catch debris going into your nose. So stuff gets mixed in, and if you do have an infection, your white blood cells can turn it green (something in them is oxidizing in the atmosphere)" ] }
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1jrn3p
why did the special effects industry move from bluescreen to greenscreen?
explainlikeimfive
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/1jrn3p/eli5_why_did_the_special_effects_industry_move/
{ "a_id": [ "cbhlz33" ], "score": [ 3 ], "text": [ "_URL_0_\n\nThis portion:\n\nProcessing a green backdrop[edit source | editbeta]\nGreen is currently used as a backdrop more than any other color because image sensors in digital video cameras are most sensitive to green, due to the bayer pattern allocating more pixels to the green channel, mimicking the human eye's increased sensitivity to green light.[6] Therefore, the green camera channel contains the least \"noise\" and can produce the cleanest key/matte/mask. Additionally, less light is needed to illuminate green, again because of the higher sensitivity to green in image sensors.[7] Bright green has also become favored since a blue background may match a subject's eye color or common items of clothing, such as jeans, or a dark-navy suit." ] }
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[ [ "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chroma_key" ] ]
l6fix
citizens united v. federal election commission
The court case and the outcome from the ruling.
explainlikeimfive
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/l6fix/eli5_citizens_united_v_federal_election_commission/
{ "a_id": [ "c2q6dmb", "c2q8ws5", "c2q6dmb", "c2q8ws5" ], "score": [ 10, 3, 10, 3 ], "text": [ "It used to be that corporations were allowed to run things called **Issue Ads**, but were not allowed to support actual candidates. So they could run an ad saying, \"Support Solar Energy\" but not \"Support Candidate 'A.'\"\n\nCitizens United decided that this was an unreasonable restraint on a corporation's and union's rights and that they should be able to spend money in support of candidates. This has angered a lot of people who feel that the decision opened yet another door by which corporations can influence elections and buy favor with candidates. An influence that individuals can't match.\n\nHowever, direct contributions from Corporations and Unions direct to candidates' campaigns were not in question and are still banned under current law.", "The majority opinion came down along the lines that \"freedom of the press\" means freedom for every form of press. It means that the government cannot state which corporations and groups get to have press rights and which do not. If media organizations get to spend time publicly advocating for a candidate, then anyone or anything claiming to be press gets that right. Justice Kennedy (a moderate) was in this camp, so were the conservative members of the court. And so was the ACLU.\n\nBecause of this ruling, freedom of the press is even more free. The technicality in this is that 501(c)(4) nonprofit groups get a unique scenario of keeping their donors private, while also being able to be involved in political media speech. This is where most of the firestorm and bitterness in the ruling comes from. To fix it, Congress has tried to find some legislation which would insist that 501(c)(4) groups must disclose donors money equal to the amount they use to fund any media productions. Congress recently floated the DISCLOSE Act, but it had issues, and most Republican senators felt it was unconstitutional, and the ACLU shared that sentiment. It didn't pass.", "It used to be that corporations were allowed to run things called **Issue Ads**, but were not allowed to support actual candidates. So they could run an ad saying, \"Support Solar Energy\" but not \"Support Candidate 'A.'\"\n\nCitizens United decided that this was an unreasonable restraint on a corporation's and union's rights and that they should be able to spend money in support of candidates. This has angered a lot of people who feel that the decision opened yet another door by which corporations can influence elections and buy favor with candidates. An influence that individuals can't match.\n\nHowever, direct contributions from Corporations and Unions direct to candidates' campaigns were not in question and are still banned under current law.", "The majority opinion came down along the lines that \"freedom of the press\" means freedom for every form of press. It means that the government cannot state which corporations and groups get to have press rights and which do not. If media organizations get to spend time publicly advocating for a candidate, then anyone or anything claiming to be press gets that right. Justice Kennedy (a moderate) was in this camp, so were the conservative members of the court. And so was the ACLU.\n\nBecause of this ruling, freedom of the press is even more free. The technicality in this is that 501(c)(4) nonprofit groups get a unique scenario of keeping their donors private, while also being able to be involved in political media speech. This is where most of the firestorm and bitterness in the ruling comes from. To fix it, Congress has tried to find some legislation which would insist that 501(c)(4) groups must disclose donors money equal to the amount they use to fund any media productions. Congress recently floated the DISCLOSE Act, but it had issues, and most Republican senators felt it was unconstitutional, and the ACLU shared that sentiment. It didn't pass." ] }
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300x0u
How did the US Marines and National Guard come to have their own air arms?
I gather the USMC's air arm goes back at least as far as WW2, so I guess it was to do with combined-ops in the Pacific, but if the USMC is part of the US Navy, wouldn't Navy fliers be doing that anyway?
AskHistorians
http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/300x0u/how_did_the_us_marines_and_national_guard_come_to/
{ "a_id": [ "cpoim20", "cpov6m7" ], "score": [ 15, 2 ], "text": [ "Let me correct a few misconceptions.\n\nThe US Marine Corps is NOT a part of the US Navy. It falls under the Department of the Navy for administrative purposes but is a separate arm in its own right for operational purposes. Furthermore, Marine Aviation did not come about in World War 2. It dates back, for all intents and purposes, to this man: _URL_0_ This is Lieutenant Colonel Alfred Austell Cunningham, and the photo was taken in 1912. As this is not directly related to your question, if you want follow-up on this, go to Wikipedia: _URL_1_ (it's a nice article with references).\n\nMarine Aviation was created Feb 26 in Philadelphia, Pennsylvania, when Cunningham was instructed to organize an Aviation Company for the Advanced Base Force. In 1919, Major Cunningham was assigned to command the new Aviation Section, Headquarters Marine Corps. So, by 1941 the air arm of the USMC was already well established, even if not very powerful (they were flying goddamn Brewster Buffaloes as their main fighter aircraft).\n\nAnd now to answer your question: why did the USMC (I know I'm skipping the National Guard, sorry) get its own air arm? Because it needed one. The USMC utilizes Navy ships, but it's an independent force, and thus has to rely mainly on itself in conducting operations, especially once the marines get further away from the coast. Probably if the USMC brass in 1917 hadn't thought of creating its own air arm, some provisions would have been made eventually for the Navy to provide all types of air support.\n\nSource & further reading: *The United States Marine Corps: A Chronology, 1775 to the Present*, by John C. Fredriksen. ABC-Clio, Santa Barbara, CA, 2011.", "To add to /u/tlumacz post, the reason the Marine Corps has kept its air arm is because the entire doctrine of the Marine Corps is centered around the Marine Corps Air-Ground Task Force\n\nFor instance, take a Marine Expeditionary Unit (MEU): it consists of around 2,200 battle-ready Marines (including some tanks, armored vehicles, artillery, etc.) and their air support in the form of a medium lift squadron (MV-22 Ospreys), heavy lift helicopters (CH-53E Super Stallions), and air support aircraft (AH-1/UH-1s Cobras/Hueys, and AV-8B Harriers).\n\nThe MEU also has the equipment (such as bulldozers, forklifts, etc.) to sustain any sort of expeditionary warfare from the sea virtually anywhere in the world. In addition, they have the supplies to engage in full combat for 15 days without resupply. \n\nIn essence, the Marine Corps operates using Navy ships (the MEUs are deployed onboard amphibious assault ship groups) but is otherwise capable of deploying virtually anywhere in the world, hence their reputation as America's 911 force. Their air arm is completely dedicated to these combined air-ground forces with their helicopters/tiltrotors providing logistical support as well as air support and their fixed-wing assets specializing primarily in air-to-ground operations.\n\nThe Navy's own aviation isn't always going to be present, especially since it is centered around carrier aviation, for which a supercarrier won't always be present.\n\nThere is a historical precedence for this as well: the Battle of Guadalcanal, where the Marines on the island were virtually left to fend for themselves after US naval defeats off the island forced the Navy to withdraw for a period of time. The Marines thus had to rely upon their own ground and air assets for a time." ] }
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[ [ "https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/c/c1/AACunningham_1stMarineAviator.jpg", "https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Alfred_A._Cunningham" ], [] ]
l7dxe
Would we know if another animal on our planet reached a state of sentience/sapience to the level of reason?
Would we be able to tell if say whales were able of thoughts and speech on a level that makes them more sentient/sapient than other animals? Since we wouldn't understand them and they wouldn't understand us, could we both be on a level of higher intelligence and never even realize the other was like that? They likely wouldn't develop the same sort of "culture" as we have since you know, they're whales. And I'm just using whales as an example. Any living thing could be used here (birds, insects, trees, elephants).
askscience
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/l7dxe/would_we_know_if_another_animal_on_our_planet/
{ "a_id": [ "c2qey8o", "c2qg0wu", "c2qey8o", "c2qg0wu" ], "score": [ 3, 2, 3, 2 ], "text": [ "It all depends on how you define sentience:\n\n* Elephants are known to [grieve and bury their dead.](_URL_6_)\n\n* Apes are known to [wage war on each other,](_URL_0_) (I've seen actual footage of an attack in a forest but can't find it now) [make tools,](_URL_5_) and even [weapons](_URL_1_)\n\n* Chimps are commonly used for studying behavior relating to humans and exhibit [jealousy and a sense of fairness](_URL_2_). I've read elsewhere that in a similar experiment, grapes were traded as currency [in one case with Capuchins in exchange for sex.](_URL_3_)\n\n* Dolphins are known to [kill for sport/fun](_URL_4_)", "I think we would know. As mentioned, any animal which shows signs of being particularly bright gets studied very intensely for signs of intelligence. Apes and some other animals are more sentient/sapient than other animals, although I think there's quite a gap between them and humanity. \n\nBut to more directly address your question: If some animal was sitting there thinking deep thoughts to itself but never saying anything or doing anything in the environment with that intelligence, all we would see is a suspiciously large brain with no apparent use. But this is extremely unlikely, since it would be a huge waste of resources. If the animal was _using_ its intelligence, then we could discover it. And probably would. For instance, if the animals were using language we would be able to discover that, even if they never spoke directly to us (and much more easily if they were willing to interact). It might take longer if they used some sensory modality like smell. If they used tools or modified their environment on a human level we would _certainly_ notice that. \n\nAlso, we can rule out the intelligence of trees and insects, unless you are talking about something way outside of any known science. They just don't have anything in them which can store and transmit and process that kind of information.\n\nTL:DR We'd know an animal had human level intelligence if it made use of it.", "It all depends on how you define sentience:\n\n* Elephants are known to [grieve and bury their dead.](_URL_6_)\n\n* Apes are known to [wage war on each other,](_URL_0_) (I've seen actual footage of an attack in a forest but can't find it now) [make tools,](_URL_5_) and even [weapons](_URL_1_)\n\n* Chimps are commonly used for studying behavior relating to humans and exhibit [jealousy and a sense of fairness](_URL_2_). I've read elsewhere that in a similar experiment, grapes were traded as currency [in one case with Capuchins in exchange for sex.](_URL_3_)\n\n* Dolphins are known to [kill for sport/fun](_URL_4_)", "I think we would know. As mentioned, any animal which shows signs of being particularly bright gets studied very intensely for signs of intelligence. Apes and some other animals are more sentient/sapient than other animals, although I think there's quite a gap between them and humanity. \n\nBut to more directly address your question: If some animal was sitting there thinking deep thoughts to itself but never saying anything or doing anything in the environment with that intelligence, all we would see is a suspiciously large brain with no apparent use. But this is extremely unlikely, since it would be a huge waste of resources. If the animal was _using_ its intelligence, then we could discover it. And probably would. For instance, if the animals were using language we would be able to discover that, even if they never spoke directly to us (and much more easily if they were willing to interact). It might take longer if they used some sensory modality like smell. If they used tools or modified their environment on a human level we would _certainly_ notice that. \n\nAlso, we can rule out the intelligence of trees and insects, unless you are talking about something way outside of any known science. They just don't have anything in them which can store and transmit and process that kind of information.\n\nTL:DR We'd know an animal had human level intelligence if it made use of it." ] }
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[ [ "http://www.telegraph.co.uk/science/science-news/3317461/Apes-of-war...-is-it-in-our-genes.html", "http://www.washingtonpost.com/wp-dyn/content/article/2007/02/22/AR2007022201007.html", "http://www.emorywheel.com/detail.php?n=24747", "http://www.nytimes.com/2005/06/05/magazine/05FREAK.html?pagewanted=all", "http://www.newscientist.com/blog/environment/2008/09/dolphin-serial-killers.html", "http://video.nationalgeographic.com/video/player/animals/mammals-animals/apes/gorilla_lowland_tools.html", "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Elephant_cognition#Death_ritual" ], [], [ "http://www.telegraph.co.uk/science/science-news/3317461/Apes-of-war...-is-it-in-our-genes.html", "http://www.washingtonpost.com/wp-dyn/content/article/2007/02/22/AR2007022201007.html", "http://www.emorywheel.com/detail.php?n=24747", "http://www.nytimes.com/2005/06/05/magazine/05FREAK.html?pagewanted=all", "http://www.newscientist.com/blog/environment/2008/09/dolphin-serial-killers.html", "http://video.nationalgeographic.com/video/player/animals/mammals-animals/apes/gorilla_lowland_tools.html", "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Elephant_cognition#Death_ritual" ], [] ]
1zejft
what's up with the "num lk" on keyboards and what possible scenario would i want the number pad to not work?
At work sometimes this confounds me, because somehow the num lk gets turned on and I think I'm typing numbers during a phone call and then look at the screen, and nope, nothing. Num lk. Why? What's the possible benefit? Or even the purpose? Very curious.
explainlikeimfive
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/1zejft/whats_up_with_the_num_lk_on_keyboards_and_what/
{ "a_id": [ "cfsya8n" ], "score": [ 3 ], "text": [ "Num lock turns the numpad into arrows.\n\n_URL_0_" ] }
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[ [ "https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Num_lock" ] ]
2z6goe
do birds stop migrating? i mean, do i have birds in my city that consider this home base, or is every bird i see just pit stopping on their way to somewhere else?
explainlikeimfive
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/2z6goe/eli5_do_birds_stop_migrating_i_mean_do_i_have/
{ "a_id": [ "cpg31hq", "cpg352i", "cpg4qp1" ], "score": [ 2, 2, 2 ], "text": [ "Some birds stay all winter long. Robins and crows are 2 that I can think of. Bald eagles too.", "Not all bird species are migratory, others are not. Chances are there are some permanent resident birds in your city.", "Went to a great lecture by university ornithologist and learned a lot. Birds may migrate south, then the more northern of the same species comes in to the area like a domino effect. Think of robins. The ones you see in northern u.s. are Canadian. The ones in Georgia are from Northern U.S., etcetera. We have a flock of Canada geese that stay with us at a small series of man-made lakes in the southwest all year. They have presently divided up again into their mated pairs for nesting. They raise their families separately then come back together as a flock in the fall. They always win my parenting award, above the other geese, ducks and swans because they are such dedicated parents, even when their offspring are almost adults. \n" ] }
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3ot4qx
Why are some planets / moons in our solar system so uniformly colored?
My question mostly concerns our Moon (but extends to Mars, Mercury, etc.). The leading theory is that our Moon is made from debris that was encircling the Earth after the Earth collided with another object (a planetismal). I realize that there was no life on Earth at the time (so no vegetation), but how can it be that the Moon seemingly is composed of material that is so different from what we have on Earth and why is it so uniformly colored (a gray) when Earth is not (even dis-regarding the affect of vegetation and life). If the Moon is made of dust from the Earth and this planetismal, why are there not LARGE patches of different material with widely-varying colors, instead of just a uniform gray? This question stems from the fact that I find it interesting looking at pictures of our planets almost all have a uniform color (some don't like Jupiter) and it does make it seem like there is a "Creator" to a naive eye. Note: I am not proposing there actually is a "Creator", I am not religious, but I would like a good explanation for how planetary formations happen such that surfaces are not "patchy" with many different colors.
askscience
https://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/3ot4qx/why_are_some_planets_moons_in_our_solar_system_so/
{ "a_id": [ "cw0w8ue" ], "score": [ 4 ], "text": [ "I might not be the best person to answer this question, but I'll take a stab at it. \n\nDisregarding life, vegetation, atmosphere, and the ocean (none of which are present in the moon), the Earth would actually look quite a bit more homogeneous than it does now. Much of the variation that would be present would be sure to the fact that the earth is geologically active. The Grand Canyon is red because it is made of sandstone, Mauna Kea is black because it is made of basalt, etc. By contrast, the moon is largely geologically inactive. It has neither liquid water nor atmosphere, so there are no sedimentary rocks. It is not as massive as earth, so there wouldn't be much metamorphization (if that's a word). Those metamorphic rocks that did form would never be brought to the surface because the moon doesn't have tectonic activity. \n\nIn short, the moon looks homogeneous because there are not any processes that would make it heterogeneous. " ] }
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2lh7ae
do people who speak "faster" languages think faster?
I think about this a lot; how in my head I "talk" to myself in English and process my thoughts at normal talking speed. Do certain languages process certain information faster (get the point across faster) and thus people who think in those languages think faster? Are there people / is there a way to train yourself to speak faster to yourself in your own mind and think faster than others?
explainlikeimfive
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/2lh7ae/eli5_do_people_who_speak_faster_languages_think/
{ "a_id": [ "clupto1" ], "score": [ 2 ], "text": [ "No, Spanish has more consonant clusters and news reporters etc will always talk really fast but they're producing the same amount of information. Another example would be written Chinese where each character has a whole meaning which is different to english which depends on an alphabet to build words. Even though a few Chinese characters can say what a lot of English words do, it takes about the same amount of time to extract the same amount of information. This is because, in reading, you skip most of the letters, ie you recognise whole words without recognising individual letters.\n\nYou can train your brain to think and react faster, just keep using it productively. Don't be stuck in the same routines all the time, read and learn more things, exercise more, challenge yourself with new ideas." ] }
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1cbl89
How does movement on a quantum scale work?
I've never really understood this: Let's say you throw a ball from point A to point B. You apply force and accelerate the ball so it reaches a certain speed. Now if you zoom in and watch it in slow motion, the ball still goes from one point in space to another in a certain time. Between that are smaller fractions of time with smaller fractions of space. Now, do you get to a point, where you can't cut time and space in smaller pieces, or does that point never come? Because if it comes I can't imagine how quantum particles would go from one point to another with no intermediary states, but on the other hand I can't imagine that time and space have an "infinite resolution" if you know what I mean. I know that quantum particles can't be measured in their definite speed and position at the same time, but still, don't they have to be *somewhere*?
askscience
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/1cbl89/how_does_movement_on_a_quantum_scale_work/
{ "a_id": [ "c9f0cw1", "c9f2ndl" ], "score": [ 3, 4 ], "text": [ "First for a rather unsatisfying answer. Are time and space continuous? We're not sure, but most likely- yes. Current theory points to them being so. But the more important aspect is:\n\n > I know that quantum particles can't be measured in their definite speed and position at the same time, but still, don't they have to be somewhere?\n\nNo, they don't have to be \"somewhere.\" This is a common misunderstanding- that it is a measurement problem. It's not a measurement problem, it's a characteristic of particles. Particles do not have definite positions or momentums (or Energies or times). Particles aren't really particles at all, they are \"wave packets\" with a spread out position and velocity. ", " > they have to be somewhere?\n\nA tidal wave has to be somewhere, but you can't determine its location more precisely that a few meters. For a ship, you could define it's center of mass and find that location very precisely, but something like a wave doesn't even have a well-defined shape." ] }
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s2tks
When batteries run out in a Gameboy then you turn it back on, it can run for a short while. Why?
askscience
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/s2tks/when_batteries_run_out_in_a_gameboy_then_you_turn/
{ "a_id": [ "c4anyqg" ], "score": [ 26 ], "text": [ "While the device is on it is consuming power. Placing an electrical load on the battery causes the voltage to \"sag\" a little. Once the voltage sags below a certain point, the device detects it as a dead battery. Turning off the device relieves the batteries of the load and the chemical reaction inside the cells quickly recovers the voltage to a point above what the device considers \"dead.\" As soon as you turn the device on again it consumes what little power was generated in the down time and reverts to \"dead\" status." ] }
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pqt8z
why is turning your computer off at the powerpoint, rather than shutting it down properly, bad?
I have a sneaking suspicion I have stuffed up my PC doing this because it randomly restarts all the time, particularly during startup.
explainlikeimfive
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/pqt8z/why_is_turning_your_computer_off_at_the/
{ "a_id": [ "c3rho2z", "c3rhplg", "c3rhqdw", "c3rjvv6", "c3rkhl2", "c3rl1xa", "c3rmnni", "c3rpvkp", "c3rqh3a" ], "score": [ 7, 41, 25, 2, 2, 3, 2, 3, 5 ], "text": [ "many modern operating systems load particular files during startup which should properly be released prior to turning off the computer. If those files are not released properly it can cause problems. Not always - but it's possible. \n\nDevelopers of OS's know that people will power off the computer without a proper shutdown. To help prevent problems that come from unreleased files, the OS's are mostly built to release important files when they are not in use, or to make the necessary corrections on bootup. \n\nErrors can still happen though. I've seen Windows kick back errors from unreleased registry files", "When you're done brushing your teeth, you can carefully wash your toothbrush and put it in its little holder. You can also just throw it down onto the countertop and walk away. Doing it that way will *usually* work, but there's a chance that someone will knock it onto the floor or get some hair on it.\n\nTurning off a computer is the same way.", "Certain operations really need to be allowed to finish without interruption. One example that comes to mind is hard drive access. Different systems do this in different ways, so I'll make up a simple example.\n\nSuppose when you save a new file you write it to the disk like this:\n\n1. Find the next bit of empty space\n2. Write a header that says \"This file is called 'myfile.txt' and is 10MB long\"\n3. Write the file data\n\nAnd to read a file you do this:\n\n1. Find the header with the right name\n2. Read how long the file is from the header\n3. Read out that much data from the disk\n\nAs I said, stupidly simple, no system actually works that way, it's an example.\n\nBut suppose that you're writing that file and 5MB of the way through you power the machine off. Now you have a header that says it's for a 10MB file with only 5MB of actual file after it. Perhaps when you come to write the next file, \"myotherfile.txt\", it looks for the next empty space and finds it after the 5MB of data you wrote, so that's where it puts the next file. Now if you try to read myfile.txt, you get the first 5MB of the file, followed by the header for myotherfile.txt, and then the first 5MB or so of myotherfile.txt, which is completely not what you thought was there. And if you try to make a change to the second half of myfile.txt, you completely clobber myotherfile.txt, since you've overwritten its header.\n\nReal file-systems are more complicated, but that's the kind of problem you get, when the machine is halfway through doing something which can't be left half-done.\n\nEdit: One common thing in computing is the problem you get when more than one system wants to use the same resource. Like you're on skype and you're browsing the web, and both programs want to use the network card to send data, but they can't both use it at the same time. One way to solve that problem is with locks. A program claims the resource and 'locks' it, uses it for what it needs to do, then releases the lock. Other programs that want to use the resource at the same time try to get the lock and find they can't, so they know they have to wait. Problem is, what happens if something claims the lock, and then the system is powered off while it's working? It never gets a chance to release the lock, so the resource stays locked and nothing can use it. Again no network system actually works like that, but lock-file problems are something that can happen if you power off a machine while it's working.", "Because software developers are lazy technicians with no sense of responsibility (as opposed to wise old professors that are seeking a higher truth in computer science).\n\nSoftware from the 1970s used to just lose their data, with no useful recovery of work partially done because it was easier to write software that way. The problem was solved in a theoretical sense with the concept of checkpoints, and transaction based databases, but, in fact, developers were so lazy that nobody noticed that these were essentially solved problems.\n\nBasically the problem is that disk writes are not atomic, so if you experience power loss during a file write, when you try to read the file later it may suffer from one or all of 1) Being unable to read the data from the file properly, 2) Being unable to know where or when the file begins or ends, and therefore assigning invalid sectors to it, or removing sectors or truncating the file, 3) Corrupting the file system, causing many files on the disk to be lost. This was the state of things in the ancient bad old days of hacked up quick and dirty computer design.\n\nSince this lesson hasn't really been learned in the intervening 40 years, you have a situation where software doesn't save partial work, unless the user explicitly tells the program to save the work. This idiotic thinking has permeated through every level of software including the operating system.\n\nIts not that nothing has happened in the past 40 years. Things have gotten simultaneously better and worse: Modern file systems tend to have self-integrity tests (that can take hours to run, when the system detects that the OS was shut down in the middle of a write) so you can examine it to see if the file system is corrupted and recover it to some degree. But at the same time, software has gotten much more complicated to the point where complete sound actions require the writing (and flushing) of *multiple* files. This means that even if your file system is perfectly ok, and no file-level corruption whatsoever has happened -- your system may still be hosed, because the software no longer knows how to interpret the state that your files are in.\n\nAt least one version of Microsoft word actually stored its \"undo buffers\" in temporary files, and relied on the disk caching to make this fast enough for people not to notice. They didn't stop to consider that this just increased the number of disk corruption scenarios which would lead to more CHKDSKs when rebooting.\n\nThis answer may seem snarky or sarcastic, but I assure you, it is not in the least. You can ask the most learned expert, and bring with you the most complete expertise, and if you ask this question in that setting you will not get a useful answer. Nobody really knows. (Especially in the Windows world.) In all situations (from applications to drivers to OS-level tasks) there are well known solutions for supporting \"instant shut off\" (or equivalently: \"unexpected power loss\"), with basically no negative repercussions. In the Windows world there is, in fact, *NO* layer of software which even attempts to solve this problem.\n\nSo database vendors get to charge an arm and a leg selling \"journalling file system solutions\" (file systems that auto-repair very quickly on every reboot) when, of course, this should just be free and default on any OS. And, of course, ACID, is this complex problem that basically boils down to over-the-top, intensive testing to implement (disk driver vendors often violate the rules when implementing their driver/hardware that makes this very difficult to implement perfectly.)\n\n**tl;dr** Because software developers are lazy.\n", "I hope no one minds if I use this to ask something I've been wondering.\n\nI remember when you told Windows 98 and ME to shutdown you would still have to manually turn it off once it went to a screen saying it was safe. \n\nWhat software leap took place around 2000 or XP that made the computers able to automatically turnoff?", "Your hard drive has a write cache(likely defaulted to enabled). A write cache is kind of like a glass, which I put your juice(data/information) into, prior to your drinking of the juice(writing of the data) where it's stored in your tummy(platter).\n\nIf you happen to terminate power during the period of the write cache being filled yet prior to or during the cache contents being written to the media... you can/may experience data loss or more rarely data corruption. Scandisk should typically fix any issues caused by these scenarios, yes, scheduling it for next boot(if needed) and checking both options(automatically fix and scan for/attempt recovery of bad sectors) is suggested.\n\nSo... in other words, if you happen to knock over the glass(unplug) during its filling of juice, or prior to your drinking(writing) the juice(data)), then no juice for you. Your tummy never actually receives that delicious juice.\n\nDisabling the write cache will hinder write performance, as the cache on the drive is usually the only part actually (capable of) saturating the bus link. Kind of like you could drink your juice from the carton, but to drink the same amount as you could quickly pour into a large glass... that would simply take more time.\n\nTo trouble shoot your problem, first dust the inside of it;\nif not fixed i'd suggest a live cd/usb drive with burn in tools(or other bootable storage device), also check the SMART status of your drives, and scandisk wouldn't hurt\nif you can successfully run tools like memtest and superpi your memory and CPU are likely fine; and it's probably your hard drive, which could be physically damaged or could just need a reformat/reinstall of windows\n\nbeyond that sporadic restarts can be caused by thermals(stress-tests or highly resource-intensive software could cause) or a bad power supply\n\nKnowing what CPU you have can also be helpful. Some have defects which greatly increase their tendency to break(become unstable) overtime, especially when ran with barely adequate stock coolers that get clogged and probably never cleaned....\n\nYou'll likely have better luck actually solving your issue(s) over in [r/techsupport](_URL_0_)", "Think of it like this, you are in a class room and you represent a computer. Your teacher(The user of the computer) asks you to take out a piece of paper and start writing a story. So you start writing a story and suddenly your teacher/user walks by and just snatches up the story without you being able to finish it. \n\nBasically you want your computer to let everything do their shutdowns and close out any data buffers or any memory they have to get cleared out and dumped before just shutting down the computer. ", "It's like making someone go to bed by shooting them with a tranquilizer dart when they're in the middle of playing baseball, as opposed to asking them to change into their pajamas and lie down in a nice comfy bed.", "I'll have a go. \n\nIf I don't give you any warning before bed-time, but just pick you up and put you into bed and turn off the light, your toys are still everywhere, you wouldn't have brushed your teeth, and it would just generally be poor form. You'd survive, but everyone would be miserable in the morning. You'd wake up in a grump, with bad breath, and have to spend the first 10 minutes putting all your toys away from the night before.\n\nIf however, I tell you you have to go to bed in half an hour, you can put everything away, put on your pyjamas, brush your teeth, and climb into bed ready for a good night sleep and a fresh start in the morning.\n\nYour PC is much the same, just because there's no programs open doesn't mean there isn't a bunch of stuff it needs to do before it shuts down. ie: close some files; finish writing something to the harddrive; finish upgrading something which was being used earlier, whatever.\n\nAn abrupt power out isn't going to \"break\" your PC, usually. Because it can probably work out what needs to be done next time you power it on. But of course, there is certainly potential for problems, and it will take some time to work it out.\n\nTL;DR 5 year olds need a little warning before bedtime, your pc does too.\n\nedit: just [noticed sirwootalot](_URL_0_) used the same analogy about an hour before me. hats off to you sir." ] }
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[ [], [], [], [], [], [ "http://www.reddit.com/r/techsupport" ], [], [], [ "http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/pqt8z/why_is_turning_your_computer_off_at_the/c3rpvkp" ] ]
12s18h
the legalization of marijuana in colorado.
I mean, duh, legalized. But can you grow it? Sell your own? What else is going on?
explainlikeimfive
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/12s18h/eli5_the_legalization_of_marijuana_in_colorado/
{ "a_id": [ "c6xn8tx", "c6xox24", "c6xp6d6", "c6xp9w2", "c6xpeht", "c6xpf3i", "c6xpn1d", "c6xpy77", "c6xq7bx", "c6xqryv", "c6xsa7o", "c6xt06d", "c6xu0ft", "c6xwuyg" ], "score": [ 140, 26, 10, 36, 45, 13, 35, 7, 4, 19, 2, 3, 4, 2 ], "text": [ "According to [this article](_URL_0_) people 21 years of age can purchase it from specially regulated retail stores, and adults can grow up to 6 plants for personal use. Public use and driving under the influence is still illegal.", "Does anyone have a guess as to what effect this will have on the state of Colorado? I'm forecasting thousands of people coming in come April...", "Anyone know how this will work under federal law? Can you still be arrested somehow for having marijuana in your pocket?", "If I am not from Colorado could I still buy pot there?", "South Park episode imminent. ", "Don't forget about Washington State!", "Your turn Illinois go go ", "Its been passed, but the rules of regulation have not been set.\nSo no-one can do anything yet until that happens, more than likely you soooo basicly you can buy it like medicinal marijuana, you can grow a certain amount or maybe not depends how the government wants to tax it. You will be able to smoke it in public or within certain areas more then likely you wont be able to drive under the influence of it, job interviews with drug test (i wont say can't) but will struggle to refuse you a job if you test positive to THC. Really it depends on how Colorado decides on what is legal use and what is illegal.\nP.S Colorado you have changed the game of cannabis laws and I cannot thank-you enough, my next hit will be in toast to you.", "Further question, hopefully I'm not too late. Could a Colorado resident be denied employment for having thc show on a drug test? I've never heard of such things happening because of alcohol or tobacco use but I wouldn't be surprised. ", "Can someone explain pot usage for the rest of the US? What happens if I vacation to Colorado, smoke a bit there on my vacation, then come back to my home state of NJ and I have to take a drug test for a job? I was well within my rights to smoke in CO but it would ring up as a positive in CO. Is there anything cut and dry about these circumstances?", "So basically you can but it if you're 21+, you just can't use it in public?", "So what about those currently sitting in jail for doing something that is no longer illegal? Do they get immediately released? Does each individual need to file a motion to the court asking to have their convictions voided?", " > I mean, duh, legalized. But can you grow it? Sell your own? What else is going on\n\nEL10G: marilization of legajuana above the color of state-ado", "_URL_0_\n\nThis /r/Seattle thread can answer any question you have about it, and probably already has." ] }
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[ [ "http://www.dailycamera.com/2012election/ci_21941918/nation-watches-colorados-marijuana-legalization-vote" ], [], [], [], [], [], [], [], [], [], [], [], [], [ "http://www.reddit.com/r/Seattle/comments/12s0c2/initiative_502_legalization_of_marijuana_has/" ] ]
2z94mr
why does mankind need a higher power like god to explain our existence?
explainlikeimfive
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/2z94mr/eli5_why_does_mankind_need_a_higher_power_like/
{ "a_id": [ "cpgqy5z", "cpgqzhc", "cpgrun0", "cpgt69v", "cpgtnb7" ], "score": [ 3, 32, 4, 3, 2 ], "text": [ "I don't think we do, personally. A lot of people disagree with me in a variety of directions on the issue, though.\n\nFor those that do disagree with me, it's a satisfying answer to a lot of very hard questions that we don't have other solid answers for, such as \"where did everything come from?\" and \"why are we here?\"", "Long story short? Fear. Fear of what we can't understand, fear of the unknown, fear of what comes next. They take comfort in having answers, even if they are completely bullshit. ", "Let's imagine the past. The murky origins of humanity, lost to prehistory.\n\nOg tells people that he has some ideas to improve village life. Some people agree with Og's ideas, some people disagree. Each person has their own superstitions. Like Tu, who thinks that a certain type of spearhead catches more fish. Or Uk, who thinks that a certain *other* type of spearhead catches more fish. Humans, at this point, aren't advanced enough to weed out selection bias to come up with good data. It ends up this huge constant debate. Og doesn't have any particular authority beyond his own merits as leader. The first time something fails, his people start to question him about it.\n\nMeanwhile, Ug tells people that the fire in the mountain told him how village life should be. Ug's people can't debate it, the fire only listens to the special keepers of the faith. When something fails, they don't blame the speartip (when one is generally almost as good as any other), they blame the fire's displeasure. And Ug knows how to make the fire happy again.\n\nStretch it out a bit, and you can imagine Ug's people know that Og's people don't listen to the fire in the mountain. Their way of life is strange and scary, they are 'them' to Ug's people's 'us'. Imagine Ug telling everyone that Og can't protect them from the fire's displeasure when he doesn't even admit the fire is real.\n\nOr worse yet, imagine Og tells his people one thing about what the fire in the mountain wants, while Ug tells his people something else. They can't *both* be right. This is something that the people will have to settle. And \"a life better lived\" isn't really an answer. Og's people are *disgracing* the fire by using those speartips they've chosen.\n\nThrow in tens of thousands of generations of reinforcement, and you end up with the situation we face now.", "Ever been to a funeral? Its sad. It is much more comforting to rationalize that they are not truly gone", "We need something we can grab on when we are unsure of what's coming after death." ] }
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bczb31
how to plants that react to touch like the venus flytrap of the sensitive mimosa work?
What goes on on a chemical/cellular level?
explainlikeimfive
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/bczb31/eli5_how_to_plants_that_react_to_touch_like_the/
{ "a_id": [ "ekuomyz" ], "score": [ 6 ], "text": [ "If I remember correctly, for the Venus flytrap, there’s sensitive hairs on at the ‘clamping’ area. It takes lots of energy though, so when one hair is triggered, there’s a timing mechanism that’s set off. Only if multiple hairs are ‘moved’ within a set timeframe does the plant exert substantial energy to close the trap.\n\nNot an explanation on the cellular scale though, hope someone can explain further too!" ] }
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42p7c7
If mesons carry the force that binds protons and neutrons together, do other composite bosons (like helium nuclei, for example) carry their own forces as well?
If not, why not?
askscience
https://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/42p7c7/if_mesons_carry_the_force_that_binds_protons_and/
{ "a_id": [ "czc6szj" ], "score": [ 4 ], "text": [ "The answer is kind of yes and no. The mesons that bind nucleons together (via what's often called the residual strong force) act as gauge bosons (much like the fundamental force carriers) associated with emergent broken symmetries of QCD, so they actually play something of a special role.\n\nBut in a more general sense, the mesons aren't actually 'carrying the force' independently of the gluon (the gauge bosons of the strong force). [Here](_URL_1_) is a Feynman diagram showing the interaction between a proton and a neutron via a pion, where the pion is clearly behaving as a force-carrying particle (the proton and neutron are interacting through it). However, if you look deeper, you would see [this](_URL_0_). \n\nIn a direct strong force interaction, two color-charge carrying particles would exchange a gluon. In this pion exchange, something more complicated is going on. The individual quarks that compose the nucleons are only ever interacting directly via gluons, but the end result is analogous to trading a pion. \n\nI suppose something similar could in principle happen with any composite particle, but the likelihood of such an interaction will vanish astonishingly quickly as the complexity of the particle increases. For example if you wanted to draw an interaction between two particles via the exchange of a helium nucleus, you would have to add *a lot* of extra quarks and gluons to that second diagram, and in general, every vertex (a point where multiple particle lines meet) in a Feynman diagram will reduce the likelihood of that interaction actually occurring, and therefore would correspond to a very weak interaction." ] }
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[ [ "https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/2/2e/Pn_Scatter_Quarks.svg", "https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/b/b8/Pn_scatter_pi0.png" ] ]
322d57
Is it possible that the dark matter is actually stars with Dyson spheres around them so we can't see them?
Aliens
askscience
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/322d57/is_it_possible_that_the_dark_matter_is_actually/
{ "a_id": [ "cq7eqot" ], "score": [ 13 ], "text": [ "Nice idea, but it won't work. There are a few reasons:\n\n(1) We know dark matter does not feel the electromagnetic force. If the dark matter were Dyson spheres, from absorbing the energy of the stars they surround, they would radiate in the infrared, and so we'd detect this. In fact, people have looked, and [no Dyson spheres](_URL_0_) have been found.\n\n(2) Dyson spheres would be an example of MACHOs (massive compact halo objects), which more conventionally includes things like brown dwarves (stars that didn't quite ignite). Searches for MACHOs show that the vast majority of dark matter cannot be in MACHO form.\n\n(3) Studies of the cosmic microwave background radiation give us the ratio of ordinary to non-ordinary matter in the universe (there has to be a certain amount of matter that interacts with ordinary matter via gravitation but does not interact with photons). Without dark matter, this doesn't work.\n\n" ] }
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[ [ "http://arxiv.org/abs/0811.2376" ] ]
4t73jx
why aren't aol-style chat rooms still a thing?
Or are they? I just Googled "[chatrooms](_URL_0_)", and there were results, but none hosted by any site I've ever heard of before. Granted, original chat rooms existed well before the age of social media, but they were wildly popular, and showed that Internet users were eager to chat with strangers. Forums like Reddit aren't the same as real-time chat.
explainlikeimfive
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/4t73jx/eli5_why_arent_aolstyle_chat_rooms_still_a_thing/
{ "a_id": [ "d5f2otl", "d5ia3zc" ], "score": [ 5, 2 ], "text": [ "They are. Most proprietary formats have died out, but many people still user IRC. The Freenode network is the most popular, and many communities have channels there. You might have better luck just logging onto Freenode or looking for IRC directories.\n\nThere are more ad-hoc sites like Tinychat, or group conversations hosted on services like Discord, that are similar as well.", "I too find this quite interesting, as you have mentioned forum-style internet discussions with strangers like reddit are still very much active.\n\nAdditionally while newer social networks like FB have options like chatting, non-real-time discussions are the preferred communication style on these platforms.\n\nSomehow the USPs of chatrooms:\n\n* Real-time interaction\n* Connecting to strangers instead of people you already know\n* Discussions with multiple people at once\n\ndo not seem to hold a high appeal. In a way this makes sense to me, as non-real-time communication options are almost always preferred. Most people I know (and especially in my generation) prefer texting to talking over the phone. It´s easier to answer when you are ready or do it while doing something else.\n\nAdditionally chatrooms are often technologically inferior (or used to be) and don´t allow the same features like other social networks (sharing media, allow for personalisation and identity verification).\n\nSo my best guess is this, chatrooms have been overtaken by alternatives (social networks, forums, texting, Skype, etc.) that offered much of the same benefits while improving on other features. What made chatrooms unique just wasn´t as attractive as we thought it was." ] }
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[ "https://www.google.com/search?q=chatrooms" ]
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ejbtpr
How do chemists produce a weakened state of a disease to create vaccines? How can they confidently determine the disease is ready to be used as a vaccination?
I’m not antivax, I’m just genuinely curious and I can imagine a few methods how they would do this, but I’m wondering about the official method
askscience
https://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/ejbtpr/how_do_chemists_produce_a_weakened_state_of_a/
{ "a_id": [ "fczauje", "fd0391a", "fcx2mr0", "fcx2ub7", "fcx3muk", "fcx9gmr", "fcxazvk", "fcxbczy", "fcxcn49", "fcxepy1", "fcxfiso", "fcxglmx", "fcxi8j1", "fcxjikj", "fcxnavi", "fcy51ua", "fcyfhrq", "fcyrnsp", "fcysj8x", "fcyx7hr" ], "score": [ 4, 3, 4, 15, 217, 2621, 11, 2, 5, 2, 221, 2, 5, 4, 2, 4, 3, 2, 19, 3 ], "text": [ "Here's another analogy for how some vaccines are made. Think of the latest smartphone model as a new disease virus/bacteria. It has its outer appearance and inner hardware/software.\n\nFor phone case and screen protector designers they get a mould of the phone to base their designs off. It's non functional and is strictly a shape reference. No battery, no software, no hardware. That's your vaccine.", "in short there are a lot of methods that they make vaccines. You can do live viruses where we have genetically modified their dna structure so that they dont make the bad proteins. We can use live viruses and kill the dna only so that the protein remains. We can combine viruses that are similar but dont infect humans as badly. We can take similar viruses that have such similar envelopes that our body will treat the new virus the same way (giving someone cowpox) to vaccinate against smallpox. Back in the dark ages of medicine, taking smallpox scrapings and snorting them into the nasal mucosa was an effective way to give a person a milder illness, with immunity later on - albiet it was still extremely dangerous.\n\nIn essence we are trying to find what our body recognizes, and its usually the outside part of a pathogen. The folded up amino acids (and possible carbohydrate links) form a protein that is unique to that pathogen that our body recognizes as an \"antigen\". \n\nTo answer your question, In the US we do our damned hardest to manufacture only the antigen part of a virus. Flu changes its antigens yearly and thats why we need new vaccines each year. As I alluded to above, there are a ton of ways to make a vaccine. But we can easily use PCR on a sample of the vaccines to see if there is any DNA (or RNA) that could possibly be replicated. Everyone else pretty much answered the nitty gritty parts of the manufacturing process. so... Heres a graph\n\n_URL_0_", "Antibodies identify specific parts/ regions to bind and neutralize antigen. Vaccines carries either neutralized antigens or some part of antigen having the specific binding region.\nInitial attack of antibodies take time but when we come across antigens in real life for second time our antibodies are ready to attack antigen.", "They grow the bacteria/viruses that cause that disease in a lab, in order to get more material, so that they can create more vaccines.\nThen, they take a part of that germ culture and inactivate/impair it in order to make them unable to do any harm, while still triggering an immune response.\nThe weakening is done using heat, which causes the internal biological processes of that germ to collapse, thus killing it. You can also use some other methods in order to achieve this, such as using chemicals like alcohol, which causes the cytoplasm of the bacteria to coagulate, killing it.\nOh, and since the immune system doesn't require the germ to be intact, you can also break the germ apart and inject the remaining pieces of it. Afterall, in order to kill a bacteria, the immune system could attack only the cellular membrane, so just a piece of a germ's membrane should do the job.", "There are many stages to vaccine manufacturing. \nFirst, the antigen is generated. Viruses are grown either on primary cells like chicken eggs (e.g., for influenza) or on continuous cell lines like cultured human cells. Bacteria are grown in bioreactors. Similarly, a recombinant protein derived from the virus or bacteria can also be generated in yeast or cell cultures. After the antigen is generated, it will be isolated from the cells that were utilized to generate it. The virus could be required to be deactivated, perhaps with no later purification needed. The recombinant proteins need many operations that involve ultrafiltration and column chromatography. Lastly, the vaccine is formulated with the addition of adjuvant, stabilizers and preservatives as needed. The adjuvant will enhance the immune response of the antigen, the stabilizers increase the storage life and preservatives allow the use of multidose vials.\nCombination vaccines are more difficult to develop and manufacture due to the potential incompatibilities and interactions among the antigens and other substances used.\n\n\nBeside the active vaccine itself, the following excipients and residual manufacturing compounds are present or may be present in vaccine preparations:\n\nAluminium salts or gels are added as adjuvants. These are added to promote an earlier and more potent response, and more persistent immune response to the vaccine; they allow for a lower vaccine dosage.\n\nAntibiotics are added to some vaccines to stop the growth of bacteria during production and storage of the vaccine.\n\nFormaldehyde is used to inactivate bacterial products for toxoid vaccines. Formaldehyde is also used to inactivate unwanted viruses and kill bacteria that might contaminate the vaccine during production.", "It depends on the vaccine.\n\nThe simplest to imagine are whole-cell vaccines against bacterial diseases: simply kill off the bacteria. Since they are dead they can no longer infect anyone - but they will still contain all the antigens (structures that antibodies can bind to) that will make the immune system recognize them, which will teach the body to fight them.\n\nOther ones are more interesting. For example, the tetanus vaccine is an inactivated form of the toxin (tetanospasmin) produced by the bacteria that cause tetanus (*Clostridium tetani*) instead of the bacteria themselves. The toxin is a protein that can be inactivated by e.g. formaldehyde: this denatures the protein (imagine cooking an egg - heat denatures the egg white and turns it solid) enough to make it essentially harmless while still being recognizable by the immune system.\n\nMany vaccines against viruses use another process, by first growing the viruses in the human cells that are their original hosts and then [passing them through cell cultures that they are not adapted to, like e.g. chicken cells](_URL_0_). Viruses are finely tuned, so as they adapt to those other cells, they start to lose the capacity to effectively infect the original human cells - but again, they will still contain all the bits that will make the body recognize them.\n\nThen there are modern methods like recombinant vaccines, where you use modern gene editing techniques to create the specific antigens you are after.\n\nAs for how they can \"confidently determine the disease is ready to be used as a vaccination\": testing, testing, testing and more testing. Testing in cell cultures. Testing in animals. Testing in people: clinical trials upon clinical trials to determine if the vaccine is safe, if it produces the desired antibodies, and then finally to see if it actually works in practice - and works better than any alternatives already out there. \nAnd then there is constant quality control testing of the product itself, to make sure that the plant is still making exactly what they think they are making.", "There are multiple answers given here, but these address other types of vaccines then the one in question. What OP is asking is how they weaken diseases used in live attenuated vaccines. It is good to note that such vaccines must contain living cells, so these vaccines are mostly used for bacteria and not viruses (as these don't live).\n\nBacteria have so-called virulence factors that contribute to invasion and persistence inside a host organism. So these promote its survival and replication. What biologists (not chemists) for instance do is utilizing other existent or generated strains of bacteria without certain virulence factors. Thereby they use a less or non disease-inducing forms of the pathogen for vaccination. These attenuated strains can still induce an effective memory response but will generally not make you ill, unless you have a compromised immune system. As also mentioned by others, certain adjuvants are added to the vaccine to boost the immune response, which allows for a lower dose of pathogen.", "It depends on the organism or virus you are trying to make a vaccine of. Hep B makes viral particles called Dane particles and the genetic material is usually stored inside. When the genes for the outer coat are put in to a bacteria to mass produce the proteins, they automatically construct themselves in to dane particles that have no infectious material in them so it was easy to make that vaccine. Others viureses and organisms are grown in the lab in culture and are selected for over time for slow growing or poor infection rates. This is NOT rocket science kids!", "You're getting many different answers here, because there are many different methods.\n\nThe first vaccine was against smallpox, and they used cow pox. Cow pox was closely related to Smallpox, close enough that a successful immune response against cow pox would also protect you against smallpox, but cow pox was infectious to cows, not humans,so it could not cause a lethal infection in humans. This is an example of using a weakened virus to defend against a stronger one. This is still a viable method and is used in some flu vaccinations for example.\n\nAnother method is to kill the virus and inject it's remains into a human. The immune system will attack the dead virus and figure out how to take it apart. Then if a real virus infects the human their immune system is already primed to destroy it. This can be done even with just parts of a virus instead of a whole dead virus. This is how the polio vaccine was invented, they took a polio virus and killed it with formalin, then injected the dead virus.", "I'd like to share the particularly interesting strategy for the oral typhoid vaccine.\n\nYou take pills of the live bacteria for a week. You just straight up eat the active and infectious typhoid bacteria. The only reason you don't get sick is that you're eating a mutated version of typhoid that dies very quickly.\n\nWild.", "Everyone has answered well enough, so I'll just add this tidbit: chemists don't make vaccines, medical researchers do - specifically immunologists, vaccinologists, and epidemiologists all work together to figure out how to defeat a disease.", "So more on this topic, why do they add adjuvants. I know it's to make a stronger immune response but how does this exactly work? Like how do the aluminum salts or gel help the body's immune system react quicker or more efficiently. (I'm honestly just curious, I don't know much about vaccine science so plz explain it like I'm 5)", "Live vaccines are weakened forms of a pathogen (a microscopic organism capable of causing disease). Early forms of these were organisms that were naturally less harmful to humans, but still protected us against more serious diseases - a key example of this being how cowpox infections were used as an early vaccination for smallpox.\n\nModern forms of a live vaccine are typically pathogens that have been modified to reduce their ability to cause disease, which can be achieved in a variety of ways, such as:\n\n* **Serial passage:** This involves growing several iterations of a pathogen in conditions that are different to our own body. Pathogens may be grown at temperatures that are below our body temperature, or grown in the cells of animals that are suitably different from humans. Over time, the pathogens will evolve to grow in these conditions, making them less suited to grow in humans.\n* **Gene editing:** Through altering the genetic material in a pathogen, it is possible to disrupt the function of some of its genes. By disrupting genes that are involved in a pathogen's ability to cause disease, it is possible to weaken it.\n\nDead vaccines are those where there are no live pathogens present. These are also produced by a variety of methods, such as:\n\n* **Sub-unit vaccines:** Certain parts of pathogens that are capable of stimulating the immune system are isolated and made into a vaccine.\n* **Killed organisms:** Substances are used to completely kill the pathogen (such as formaldehyde). This prevents it from causing disease, but still allows it to stimulate the immune system.\n\nTo ensure safety and effectiveness, vaccines go through a series of rigorous testing phases. Initial tests will be carried out on cells from the immune system in the lab, to ensure the vaccine stimulates these cells. This will be followed by tests in animal models, where the ability of the vaccine to protect against disease and the safety of the vaccine is assessed. These tests are followed by clinical trials in humans, which start with very small samples in a very controlled environment, and progress to studies in larger groups.", "Some are remarkably simple. The rabies vaccine [originally](_URL_0_) consisted of air-dried rabies virus; the virus is quite fragile, and is killed upon drying.\n\n > The method involved developing a consistent source of virulent virus by taking pieces of spinal cord from a rabid street dog and inoculating by trepanation under the dura mater (dura) into the cranium of a rabbit, and then passing it from rabbit to rabbit 20–25 times until the virus was consistently virulent. When Pasteur had established a way to obtain rabbits with spinal cord material that was consistently virulent, he took pieces of the spinal cord, each a few centimeters long, and exposed them to dry air. The exposure to dry air (ensured by fragments of potassium in the bottom of the container) gradually decreased the virulence until it totally disappeared.\n\nIIRC this eventually turned into rabies virus that was attenuated by treatment with phenol and formalin- infected sheep -- > sheep brain extracted -- > treated in a blender with phenol and/or formalin -- > injected into humans.\n\nNow it's raised in [human diploid cells,](_URL_1_) killed, and prepared for injection.", "For vaccines against viruses you can have a “dead” virus, basically a shell of a virus capable of being recognized as such but unable to inject dna into cells or replicate. You can also have “live attenuated” virus which still has its proteins for entering cells but doesn’t contain all the dna required to reproduced functional viruses in the cells. Neither type can infect you with the disease since there is no way they can replicate and are fairly quickley cleared out once your immune system finds them (and remembers them)\n\nThe dead form of the vaccine can be made with chemicals to “kill” the virus. Live attenuated is more difficult and i belive it is done by editing the DNA or RNA in the virus so only a few dysfunctional proteins can be made but replication isnt possible. \n\nLive attenuated vaccines are better because they activate more of the immune system. That is, they activate the immune response inside cells and outside of cells.", "There are a few ways, as others have said. \n\nSome viruses (live-attenuated) are grown in conditions that will force them to adapt to reproduce in this new environment - it might be really low/high temperatures, pH, or even in a different animal. With enough time the virus will be unable to infect human cells, and without the ability to infect a virus is harmless inside the human body. This is how several live-virus vaccines are made, typically with chicken eggs being used to grow the virus before being used in the final formulations. \n\nOther types of attenuated vaccines use chemicals to render them unable to infect cells. It’s the same concept as above, except with the use of chemicals instead of growth conditions. \n\nSome vaccines use chemicals as a way to cleave off the desired proteins/pieces of the pathogen in order to elicit the immune response. The flu vaccine is a great example - the virus is grown, the liquid is pooled, and a chemical (formalin) is added that basically gives the virus a haircut. They are then able to specifically select the right proteins from solution and only use those proteins in further processing. \n\nMany types of vaccines today are recombinant vaccines, which use an organism (yeast, E. coli, etc.) to create and excrete the right proteins. This one has absolutely no virus or bacteria in the process. \n\nAs for making sure they can’t infect cells, there are quite a few quality control tests in place to make sure the process is robust and safe. The harvested fluid will be grown with control cells (ones not exposed to virus/bacteria) and incubated are optimal conditions that would normally allow for replication. The control cells are then screened for presence of virus. If this test fails, the entire process is halted and the material can’t be used in future manufacturing, and likely discarded. \n\nRecombinant or non-live vaccines have similar quality control steps in place to make sure the proper levels of proteins are selected and used. \n\nI work in vaccine manufacturing so if you have additional questions, let me know!", "By weakened I’m going to assume you mean attenuated (live weakened).\n\nThey use a process called cell passage. It’s when foreign cell types, either from cell cultures or animals are used to change the type of cell the virus infects. You inject (“pass”) the pathogen into the foreign cell type over and over again, with each new generation of the pathogen becoming more specifically able to target the foreign cell type because of successive adaptations (you can call them mutations if it makes it easier to understand). In a way you are kind of putting the pathogen in a situation where natural selection pressure is much more rapid and isolated, with the target for mutation / adaptation being the pathogens cell specificity for their improved survival in the culture (new host).\n\nWhat you get at the end of this process is the same virus, with the same antigens, but now it only binds to foreign / animal cells. \n\nWhen injected into humans as a vaccine it is unable to produce disease because it cannot pass on its genetic material into the human cells, because it requires binding to human cells as a prerequisite to injecting their genetic material to reproduce.", "There’s a good book for children called “Pioneer Germ Fighters.” I read it to my children, but I found it quite engaging myself. It put these concepts into plain English. If you’re wanting to understand how vaccines came about and how early scientists discovered and refined the very mechanism you describe, check it out.", "Hmm might get buried but my job is manufacturing vaccines. My background is in biochemistry. \n\nThe one that we make is just the outer shell of the virus that would normally contain the viral DNA/RNA. To do this we use yeast cells to express the proteins that make up the outer shell and then it basically folds into the right shape on its own. The body then can recognize the outside of the virus.", "Viruses have certain types are structures that are vulnerable to destruction of or detachment from the overall virus. With rare exceptions, viruses can't really shed pieces and continue to be effective.\n\nViruses can be broken down or disabled all the ways you might expect. Heat, acid or base treatment, other chemical treatments or light treatment. Then you just get a microscope and see what you got. Then you take what you got and test it.\n\nYou could probably do it yourself if you had a ready population of sick people and people willing to let you experiment on them." ] }
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2nc41t
why are / were there flag bearers in armies
Makes no sense to me; but then again I don't know much about the military. Like [this](_URL_0_).
explainlikeimfive
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/2nc41t/eli5_why_are_were_there_flag_bearers_in_armies/
{ "a_id": [ "cmca600", "cmcaebh" ], "score": [ 3, 6 ], "text": [ "I believe it was to allow commanders and allied units to identify troops at a distance or amid the confusion of battle.\n \nUnit standards/colors/flags/heraldry are also things of history and pride, carried before a unit to remind them of battles and soldiers past who perished or were victorious beneath it.\nThey are often adorned with names or years of decisive campaign or battle victories, a sign of a units prowess in battle and experience on the battlefield. \nAbove all else, today they signify the sacrifice of those who came before us, and those who make the sacrifice today.", "It's to accomplish the same thing as radios and computers in today's modern armies. Communication. Imagine a battlefield filled with thousands of people, many wearing the same uniform. But each small unit with a different mission. The flag or more precisely guidon is a point of rally for those in the small unit as well as asifthatwouldhappen mentioned commanders to I'd their troops. Fun fact the guidon bearer is a place of honor only for the most ferocious warrior, if the guidon was seized by enemy forces all communication between commander and unit would cease so the guidon bearer must be able to defend all attacks. This tradition is carried in today in the us marine corps as place of honor for the most worthy marine for all other marines to follow. " ] }
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[ "http://edmondata.publishpath.com/Websites/edmondata/images/Blog_images/romansoldiers.jpg" ]
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23987y
sports eli5: why are sports playoffs like hockey and baseball best out of 7 but american football is single elimination?
It seems like a system where an NFL team has a bad day and they immediately loose from the playoffs.
explainlikeimfive
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/23987y/sports_eli5_why_are_sports_playoffs_like_hockey/
{ "a_id": [ "cgupjy7", "cguqun1", "cguqxcg" ], "score": [ 12, 5, 4 ], "text": [ "football is *way* too demanding physically to be played multiple times a week. this in addition to if they did have a series and it was played out once a week the playoffs would last months. ", "football is too physically intense to do a best of 7, or even best of 3. players are already pushed to their limit with 16 games + playoffs. the NFL has been wanting to make the regular season 18 games for a while now and every player is against it.\n\nalso as harrison3bane said the playoffs would last forever even if it was just bo3's. you'd be looking at potentially 12 weeks of postseason play (assuming the Super Bowl was a series too). not only is that too long, but it's too short of an offseason for players to heal and train. ", "In the NFL, individual games are more influential to begin with. An MLB season has 162 games, an NHL season has 82 games, and an NFL season has 16 games. This means that proportionally, a regular season football game has the equivalent effect of a baseball team playing 10 games or a hockey team playing 5 games. In a league where a bad game or two can easily be the difference between winning a division and being eliminated from getting into the playoffs, it's not a huge change to have must-win games in the postseason.\n\nAlso, there's the issue of player safety. You can play other sports on consecutive days if you want. Football, though, has constant hitting between players, leading to many injuries. You need a week off between games. If you implemented long playoff series, you'd wind up with a longer postseason than regular season. You'd also probably get more injuries. There have been recent efforts to add 2 games to the season, but that plan is not getting much support from the players' union due to safety reasons. " ] }
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1blewc
I'm an innkeeper during the High Middle Ages in Europe. What is my life like?
I've always imagined that this would be a fascinating way to see and understand this period. I have an image of all different kinds of people coming through my establishment for all kinds of reasons for all kinds of places. I guess a corollary question would be that considering how politically disunited Medieval Europe was (with some exceptions, notably England), how much travel/communication existed between different fiefdoms? Or have I played too many fantasy games?
AskHistorians
http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/1blewc/im_an_innkeeper_during_the_high_middle_ages_in/
{ "a_id": [ "c982kwv" ], "score": [ 6 ], "text": [ "As far as customers at your inn are concerned, you would most often see the traveling lords and vassals, members of the church, and possibly a small number of the artisan/merchant class. Serfs themselves were forbidden from leaving their fiefs without explicit permission and instruction from their local lord, and in some respects, were thought of as property much like the land itself. The result of this restricting ownership is that the \"riff-raff\" is kept out of your inn (so long as its primarily not a tavern). Merchants and artisans, aside from nobles and clergymen, were the only ones that could potentially have the funds and impetus to travel. \n\n" ] }
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2hv3ss
They say as babies our bones are mostly cartilage. How does this change occur as we grow older and why is it advantageous to do so?
Just a question I thought of while trying to fall asleep.
askscience
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/2hv3ss/they_say_as_babies_our_bones_are_mostly_cartilage/
{ "a_id": [ "ckwwvk1" ], "score": [ 2 ], "text": [ "Bone growth can occur by one of two processes: endochondral ossification and intramembranous ossification. But to understand those in detail you have to understand exactly what bone is.\n\nBone is a highly active tissue, with important hormonal, structural, hematological, and immunological functions. Your skeleton receives 25% of the cardiac output at rest, one of the highest of any organ. The majority of bone is composed of extracellular matrix, there are in fact very few cells in bone tissue. Additionally, there are several types of cells that make up the cells within bone tissue. The 4 major bone-cell types are osteocytes, osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and osteoprogenitor cells. Osteoprogenitor cells are like bone-stem cells. They can differentiate into different cell lines depending on the needs of the tissue. These are generally mesenchymal stem cells (MSCs). MSCs can become osteoblasts or osteocytes (among a host of other cell lines including muscle and cartilage) but cannot become osteoclasts. Osteoblasts are the work horses of bone tissue, and actively secrete extracellular matrix (ECM) made up of collagen, hydroxyapatite (HA) and calcium phosphate (CaP). Osteoclasts function as a foil to osteoblasts, and actively destroy the ECM. These cells are derived from the hematapoetic cell linage (white blood cells, specifically macrophages). Osteocytes are long lived stellate-shaped cells that have become trapped within the ECM they secreted (as osteoblasts) and have terminally differentiated (essentially gone into retirement). Osteocytes have a role in hormonal regulation in bone. All these cells work in concert to actively remodel and maintain mature bone tissue.\n\nIn endochondral ossification, the ECM of bone is laid down in a sort of 'trial structure' where the collagen is laid down but the ECM is not ossified (mineralized). This occurs in the long bones such as the femur, tibia, humerus, radius, ulna, and facial bones. This first allows the general shape of the bone to come to form without wasting valuable mineral resources (collagen is a protein, and essentially ubiquitous in the body). During gestation, the collagenous structure is resorbed and then partially ossified except at the ends, the epiphyseal plate. This is the 'growth plate' visible in pediatric x-rays as a non-ossified line across the bone. It's not that the bone is discontinuous, but rather the ECM is not yet ossified. This allows the bone to grow in length by simply depositing mineralized ECM along the epiphyseal line, displacing the growth plate. At puberty, hormonal changes cause phenotypic changes in the cells at the growth plate and the growth line ossifies, or closes.\n\nIn intramenbranous ossification, there is no 'trial phase' where the collagen is resorbed but instead the ossification occurs directly. this occurs in the flat bones of the skull, sternum, vertebrae, pelvis, and ribs. While these bones do grow during life, they are much more important as protective entities and therefore their ossification is prioritized. \n\nIn all bone growth, osteoclasts help break bone down so that osteoblasts can lay more, new bone down. Essentially, you have to destroy what is already there to grow bigger. \n\nThis is a very brief overview so if you have further questions feel free to reply or message me. Hope this helps." ] }
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gf6nu
Why is physics so goddamn confusing? An acceleration question.
This is something that has bothered me for a long time. Newtonian physics treats acceleration as linear; the acceleration curve of an object is irreducible as you zoom in on the origin of the graph. But in practical terms, there HAS to be a moment at which an object goes from a state of rest to having some velocity. This would imply to me that there is a step in the function, and that would mean there is a moment of infinite acceleration. For this purpose, I would ask that a single atomic particle be considered, so things like inter atomic forces in bulk material need not be considered. Is it enough that a particle doesn't actually have a fixed point and therefore acceleration just changes the probability curve? Or is acceleration irreducible all the way to Planck time? Why do I think of such things?!? Thanks for the help askscience! Edit: It seems I did not quantify my question well enough. I will think about how to word it better and come back. Edit 2: I feel I replied to Amarkov most succinctly by saying this: "I suppose i should have stipulated that I am more curious about what is happening IF space-time is discrete, and if space time is NOT discrete, how there can be no transition from static velocity to an accelerating one, because an irreducibly small acceleration profile seems nonsensical in a physical sense." Edit 3: I am an engineer so I understand my calculus and how the models work. My question has nothing to do with the models per-se, rather whether and how they break down on some time scale. Edit 4: Okay, so I am not asking a question bout Newtonian physics. I understand it just fine. maybe if I say the way i replied to another response, my goal will be more understood. "what i am trying to say, apparently unsuccessfully, is that there is a point at which an object goes from zero acceleration to a non zero acceleration. the math says you can zoom in on the acceleration profile to as small a timescale as you like without ever seeing this move from non zero acceleration. you can plot an acceleration curve in femtoseconds and it will still look like an acceleration curve. i want to know if there is a limit to how far in you can zoom, as in i want to know what is happening around planck time. it seems to me, from a rational view, that there is a time when the object is not accelerating and then an instant later, the object is. how small that instance is and what happens in between is what im curious about"
askscience
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/gf6nu/why_is_physics_so_goddamn_confusing_an/
{ "a_id": [ "c1n4j3s", "c1n4kqy", "c1n4lkt", "c1n4sol", "c1n5br2", "c1n5rjt", "c1n614o" ], "score": [ 14, 5, 2, 6, 2, 2, 2 ], "text": [ "I don't understand what problem you're asking about. It's very possible for a mathematical function to go from zero to nonzero without its derivative jumping to infinity, so if you're modeling velocity as a mathematical function there's no problem here. In addition, there's nothing special about zero velocity; if you do claim that an object has to go through discontinuous acceleration to get from zero to nonzero velocity, then you're also claiming it has to go through discontinuous acceleration to get between *any* two velocities. \r\n\r\nNow, if space and time do happen to be discrete, then it's true that velocity and acceleration functions won't actually be continuous. But except on very small scales, they will LOOK continuous, which is all you need for newtonian physics to make sense.", "Sorry what's your question?", " > there HAS to be a moment at which an object goes from a state of rest to having some velocity.\n\nLet v(t) describe the velocity of a particle, initially at rest, that accelerates at a constant rate starting at time t=0. So v(t) = 0 for t < 0, and v(t) = t for t > = 0. What is the first instant at which v(t) > 0?\n\n(Or, to head off potential objections about further derivatives: let v(t) = 0 for t < = 0, v(t) = e^-1/t for t > 0.)", "You're getting at something that in general confuses many people, and that is simply that Physics is about models.\n\nNewton *modeled* the way reality appears to behave with mathematics, and for the most part, it is a pretty accurate model, *insomuch* as we can make predictions with the model that are verifiable by experiment and generally jive with our common sense interpretation of reality (though this second part is not always true; see: gyroscopes). But the mathematics do not dictate how reality behaves; we craft our mathematical models after observation.\n\nNow, in the context of your question: Newtonian physics models reality as continuous, and in that model there *is no* exact moment in time when a particle experiencing a force jumps from zero velocity to some nonzero velocity. If a force defined by some differentiable function acts on a particle, then it experiences a continuous acceleration and a continuous velocity.\n\nIf we really want to get to that small of a level, the Newtonian models do not work quite so well. We need wave functions, and then, *yes* it does become something of a probability question, but not quite in the sense you mean, I don't think.\n\nThe moral is, extensions of the mathematical models of Physics to philosophical questions often yield results that do not make physical sense. It's because they're models, not necessarily the dicta of some divine Creator; though it is of course our aim as physicists to make them as accurate as possible, and maybe even one day we will have the perfect model. That day has not yet come.\n\nAnd this is a philosophical question. Zeno posed a series of paradoxes, the most famous of which is probably Achilles and the Tortoise. I recommend reading up on them and then contrasting that mode of thought to Newton's and the idea of continuity and differentiability. You may find solace in that.\n\nAlso, you may find solace in the fact that you are not alone in your difficulties. George Berkeley, a famous critic of Newton, wrote a book called *The Analyst* in which he famously derided a concept we teach now to High School students as nearly self-evident: the derivative. \"May we not call them the ghosts of departed quantities?\" Indeed, they do not seem to bear much physical meaning.\n\nBut the model is useful.\n\n(You get huge kudos for your question! Most people do not think so deeply of the things they learn.)", "Bohm, in his book on quantum mechanics, discusses Zeno's paradoxes \nin a qm world. In qm, there is no particle, but only a probability wave \nspread over space. I think of that wave as a cloud. It is easier to imagine\nthe wave advancing in parts, even if each part is advancing in discrete\nunits, e.g. the front advances a step or two with the back then catching\nup, than to think of an indivisible particle taking discrete steps. \n\nDue to Heisenberg uncertainty, you can't pinpoint position and momentum \nsimultaneously. Acceleration imparts momentum. Time and energy are \nanother non-commuting pair. The more precisely you measure one, the \nless you know about the other. As a particle gains energy from acceleration,\nthe less you know about when it was accelerated. There is no precise time\nof acceleration, which was one of your claims. The probability of motion\nincreases over some region of space, with the probabilities distributed over\nthat region.\n\nThus, there is no discontinuity.", "Layman here:\n\nI think there are a variety of ideas being passed around this thread, but I believe in the end they all deal with Planck time.\n\nFirst of all, we should realize two things: on a macro-scale, acceleration (jerk, snap, etc.) are all continuous; and on a micro-scale nothing is ever still.\n\nHowever, on a quantum scale, we start to get into a discrete zone.\n\nIt's debatable whether space or time is discrete, but I believe we do know that electron movement is discrete and instantaneous. This would fit nicely with a discrete theory of space-time. And the amount of acceleration (, jerk, snap, etc.) would be based on that discrete amount in Planck time - the step function as the OP has pointed out.\n\nIf the discreteness is a myth, and it's continuous all the way down, then the quantum motion of the electron may help to describe the continuous ramp-up through snap, jerk, acceleration, etc., at which point Planck time is also applicable, because the motion of the electron is quantized.", "An object is only at rest from certain reference points, which basically means that a zero velocity is no different from any other non-zero velocity, thus what you're saying is that, in order for thing to accelerate, they always need to be accelerating at an infinite rate, which doesn't really make any sense. Calculus basically \"solves\" the problem you're pointing out, although since you say you understand calculus and the models, I don't think I can make it more clear.. It is pretty non-intuitive though, yes." ] }
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2syu0j
My mom inherited a photo album which once belonged to a WW2 German soldier. Can anyone recognize any of these faces? (imgur link)
AskHistorians
http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/2syu0j/my_mom_inherited_a_photo_album_which_once/
{ "a_id": [ "cnu5k7c", "cnu5rnx", "cnu8c5k", "cnu8xgg", "cnufys6" ], "score": [ 7, 4, 2, 11, 2 ], "text": [ "I'd be interested if anyone knows what those stars are on their chests in several photos:\n\n_URL_0_\n\nEven though it was my first thought, I'm pretty sure there wouldn't be any German soldiers wearing the Jewish Star.\n\nIs it a name tag for a party maybe? Some sort of coarse anti-semitic humor?", "10th one down looks to be Himmler", "Is there any reason why I might recognise the majority of these pictures? Do you know where-else they have been shown?", "Ok! I think I have something\n\nHitler receives a briefing on the tactical situation in Poland from General List (with glasses). Behind Hitler are General Keitel and General Yodl (with forage cap) both of the Supreme Armed Forces HQ. Sept 1939. \n_URL_0_\n\nList?\n_URL_3_\n_URL_4_\n\nKeitel (back) and List?\n_URL_2_\n\nKeitel 2nd from right?\n_URL_1_\n\n\nEdit:\nKeitel?\n_URL_4_", "#18-Parent \"Les Magasins Réunis\" and its subsidiary \"Magasin modernes\"\n\nMagasins Modernes, Dijon FR: _URL_0_\nIt now belong to Galeries Lafayette: _URL_1_" ] }
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[ [ "http://i.imgur.com/L6Ps3wR.jpg" ], [], [], [ "http://www.allworldwars.com/image/146/WithHitlerInPoland065.jpg", "http://i.imgur.com/k3BvwiV.jpg", "http://i.imgur.com/wmJzjI2.jpg", "http://i.imgur.com/P7HyplD.jpg", "http://i.imgur.com/P0nb5SQ.jpg" ], [ "http://dijon1900.blogspot.fr/2008/04/la-rue-de-la-libert-les-modernes.html", "http://www.bienpublic.com/edition-dijon-ville/2014/09/27/galeries-lafayette-de-dijon-90-ans-de-grands-magasins" ] ]
5bm74x
How much social mobility was there in the Late Roman Republic? What could a city dwelling plebeian do to improve his station?
I often read of freedmen and equites in this period who rose to great heights, but what about the poor city dwellers of Rome? What could they do, besides joining the army?
AskHistorians
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/5bm74x/how_much_social_mobility_was_there_in_the_late/
{ "a_id": [ "d9q9t5l" ], "score": [ 18 ], "text": [ "The \"average\" urban inhabitant was an impoverished day laborer who live on the edge of starvation and was semi-homeless. In all likelihood he would die in the same condition he lived, probably relatively early due to the disease rampant in the more crowded parts of the city. He had no education, although he might have some functional literacy. He had next to no connections. If he was lucky enough to know a trade he might be decently well-off, but only a minority of the urban poor were skilled laborers of any kind. He owned no property of his own and he and his family (which might be quite large, given mortality in the city) lived essentially a hand-to-mouth existence daily--in short, it kind of sucked.\n\nThe older view of the urban poor as a parasitic \"idler population\" living on state largess has been thoroughly torn to shreds by this point. The urban plebs had to work to survive, and work quite hard. Day-laborers in the city either found work or did not--a day without work might be a day without food. State-subsidized grain, initially with a reduced price following the Gracchi and then for free following Clodius, maintained limits on the amount that could be collected per family, and though it might have been barely enough to feed an individual it wasn't close to sufficient for a family. The more regulated grain prices of the Augustan Period helped the urban poor to purchase additional grain on the market, but in the late Republic the price of grain was notorious for fluctuation, both by natural famine and artificial manipulation and market speculation. Further, free grain was only available during a brief period between Clodius' tribunate and Pompey's assumption of the *cura annonae*--under Augustus a further requirement, a hereditary token, was added and the state-subsidized grain became the hereditary privilege of a relative few. Besides grain (most day laborers could probably afford little else to eat on a regular basis) and the need to buy clothes, rents in the city were notoriously high. They were often paid daily, which might have been somewhat accommodating given the need to migrate through the city looking for work, but their high cost probably meant that for many laborers a day without work might have been a day without food or shelter. To pay for all this were wages, paid daily according to the ability to find work, at staggeringly low values. Cicero's comment of a denarius a day for even an unskilled slave is almost certainly inflated, but even if we take it for the norm it's depressingly low given what we know about the cost of food and rent--for a family, which might have multiple members unable to work but consuming resources, it might be devastating. \n\nIf this new opinion of the urban poor is rehabilitating in comparison to the \"idler population\" of the past, it also has serious repercussions when speaking of the involvement of the urban poor in politics and their social mobility. There's something of a debate about how \"democratic\" the Republic was, and central to it is how much the urban population, the vast majority of which was horribly poor, actually was involved and kept up. There's a great deal of evidence that suggests that no matter how much the urban poor might have *wanted* to be involved (a question which itself is debatable) a good chunk of it simply could not. A day listening to a *contio* might be a day's work missed, and with it an empty stomach. Those who missed work, we can be sure, might have found themselves able to participate--there are lots of propositions regarding what the work-less did on their off days. But ideally this didn't happen, at least not often or by choice. Besides this the urban poor was a rather impermanent population. Disease swept through the slums of the city, and *insulae* caught fire or collapsed constantly due to shoddy building techniques, more concerned with saving construction money than good workmanship. Seasonal laborers entered the city during the slow part of the agricultural year to make a quick buck or two at the monumental building projects or down at the Tiber warehouses--with them they brought new diseases and caught some that they had never been exposed to before. Even the \"real\" urban population was semi-migratory, since their constant search for work and daily rents probably forced many of them to move around periodically. The case has been plausibly made that those most capable of regular political participation were the so-called *plebs media*, those members of the urban poor who had skilled trades and possibly owned a little shop or business of their own. They were hardly well-off, but they were not so wretchedly poor as to be unable to leave their shop for a day for fear of starvation. We hear of fabulously wealthy freedmen like Trimalchio, mostly people who inherited some wealth from their former masters. Most freedmen were part of this *plebs media*, however--in fact, they may have dominated it. Our epigraphical evidence is problematic, but something like 60% of goldsmiths, to take a common example of city workmen present in inscriptions, are freedmen--of the other 40% nearly all are slaves. There are problems with assuming this is strictly representative, but it is certainly telling--the number of skilled freeborn laborers in our inscriptions is incredibly small, even given the general trend for freedmen to be more prevalent in epigraphic material than poor freeborns. \n\n\"Social mobility,\" no matter how we're defining it, was probably out of reach for most of the urban poor, barring a colonization project or the like. Contrary to what you suggest, military enlistment was rare in the city, most soldiers were country boys. For an unskilled laborer the chances of getting out of abject poverty were slim--with a skilled trade this was more likely. It's probably not *that* surprising that freedmen appear more common in skilled trades, since many freed slaves would have been trained in a trade while slaves, and had close ties with patrons that they could take advantage of to help start businesses--for most freeborn day-laborers, many of whom were coming into the city for the first time, such connections did not exist. Skilled workers, and therefore freedmen, were more likely to rise to minor or local magistracies--a Hadrianic inscription set up by nearly 300 *magistri vici* (the minor elected magistrates who oversaw the *vici*, or neighborhoods--their duties and power in the late Republic are uncertain, but under Augustus they were more or less just there to maintain local cults and little else) lists only 13% of its members as clearly freeborn. In the Augustan Period membership in the *vigiles* or other minor associations might be a good way to start moving up, although this was probably a dead end. More promising might be work as one of the attendants of a magistrate, the *apparitores*. The most famous of these were the lictors--this office was often held by ex-centurions, but *apparitores* included scribes and messengers and so forth, which were frequently freedmen but could also be of course freeborn, usually members of the *plebs media*. A patron's influence was often crucial--one famous inscription set up for a deceased freedman notes that this freedman's son was able to secure a military tribunate thanks to the help of their patron and his former master. Patrons generally had much closer ties to their former slaves, however, than to just any poor shit, and of the poor shits that weren't their slaves familiar faces like the butcher and other skilled laborers were more likely to receive help--who the hell remembers the poor day-laborer, a face in a sea of faces, who might not even be alive a week from now? From there there might be ways forward, although it might take years or generations--your children were more likely to get somewhere than you were" ] }
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avi3gy
how will the james webb space telescope look for alien life? where will astronomers look first and what type of life might it detect?
[deleted]
explainlikeimfive
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/avi3gy/eli5_how_will_the_james_webb_space_telescope_look/
{ "a_id": [ "ehfavmr" ], "score": [ 3 ], "text": [ "So there are 2 ways we can observe planets:\n\n1) When a planet passes between us and a distant star, the light dims. It also changes the color of the star's light. The difference in color and the amount of dimness tell us about the size of the planet and the chemical composition of it's light reflecting atmosphere (if it has on) and its surface.\n\n2) Put a light shield between the telescope and the star. The point is to block out the star's light so it doesn't saturate the camera, even if it's a very distant star, and a mere point of light. This will allow the camera to resolve the light reflecting off the planets in its orbit. We can see these planets this way without them being directly between us and the star, and we should be able to see more light from them.\n\nThere's also a way to detect planets without seeing them, and that's to measure the wobble in a star's orbit, but this only really works with planets large enough to make a detectable wobble, so, gas giants.\n\nIf I were an astrophysicist looking for life - I'd look for atmospheric chemicals that are signs of life. There are organic compounds built from amino acids, methane, that comes from organic processes, but these might not be totally reliable. We have one example of life, and that's here on Earth. Life here is aerobic, it relies on oxygen, and plants produce it as a byproduct (life began here before we had an oxygen atmosphere as well). But the dead ringer about an oxygen atmosphere is that oxygen is chemically very reactive, so it would not exist in abundance in an atmosphere on its own, and would inevitably all react with its environment to make other compounds. If we find an oxygen rich atmosphere, the only way we know how that could happen is from life.\n\nAnd that's it, our search for life is searching for life as we understand it. There may be other forms of life, like on our early Earth, but not likely. Life here is made of hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and carbon. These also happen to be the 4 most abundant elements in the universe, aside from helium, which is chemically inert. They're also the 4 most chemically reactive - you can make more molecules out of carbon alone than you can make out of all the other elements combined. If life is going to form, it's likely going to do so using the most abundant, reactive materials around. Exotic forms of life formed out of rarer and more exotic elements aren't necessarily impossible, but unlikely. So we're looking for what we know. And if we spot something really weird, and we can't explain it any other way, maybe we just might consider the possibility of exotic life." ] }
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3kqw7x
What attempts have there been throughout recent history (most likely during genocides) to specifically erase the culture of a group?
And when I say culture, I don't just mean works that are externally from that culture, but also works that possess the internal ideals and values of the culture? What attempts have there been to completely erase *ideas* from existence?
AskHistorians
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/3kqw7x/what_attempts_have_there_been_throughout_recent/
{ "a_id": [ "cv05104" ], "score": [ 2 ], "text": [ "Raphael Lemkin, the man who coined the term \"genocide\", defined it this way:\n\n > Generally speaking, genocide does not necessarily mean the immediate destruction of a nation, except when accomplished by mass killings of all members of a nation. It is intended rather to signify a coordinated plan of different actions aiming at the destruction of essential foundations of the life of national groups, with the aim of annihilating the groups themselves. The objectives of such a plan would be the disintegration of the political and social institutions, of culture, language, national feelings, religion, and the economic existence of national groups, and the destruction of the personal security, liberty, health, dignity, and even the lives of the individuals belonging to such groups.\n\nFrom this perspective, mass killings are an *instrument* of genocide, not the definition of it.\n\nIn any case, a case can be made that the treatment of native american groups by the US government qualifies. For the last several hundred years, one of the prevailing attitudes held by officials towards natives was the \"kill the indian, save the man\" ethos. In other words, initiatives focused on assimilating natives into mainstream US society, usually by abandoning previous cultural traditions. The Dawes Act of 1887, for example, granted the President the authority to divide reservation land into individually owned plots, trying to make native americans private citizens of contemporary US society rather than members of tribal organizations. For some groups, this disrupted traditions of communal living that had wide-ranging impacts on their way of life. This was one of a number of attempts to compel large, semi-sedentary native groups to become sedentary farmers and property owners. \n\nBesides this, the Bureau of Indian Affairs regularly adopted policies to encourage the use of English and conversion to Christianity at the expense of indigenous traditions. " ] }
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6bp2gt
if everybody has dynamic ip addresses now, how do websites ban people?
explainlikeimfive
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/6bp2gt/eli5_if_everybody_has_dynamic_ip_addresses_now/
{ "a_id": [ "dhocq6r", "dhocwv6", "dhod0dc" ], "score": [ 2, 2, 3 ], "text": [ "First, where did you get, that **everybody** has dynamic IP? The answer is, they don't", "1. Everyone doesn't. Your ISP MAY use dynamic IPs, it may not. (Assuming you have already considered NAT/PAT, meaning, just because the computers inside your house are switching IP addresses does NOT mean main IP address Verizon gives out for your whole house switches. \n\n2. There are other things they do to track you too. Tracking cookies. Browser settings, etc. ", "Many people don't have dynamic IP's, and there are other ways to determine someone's identity, especially the average child who gets banned and wants back. Having said that, as you can see from the endless parade of \"young\" accounts in places like T_D, Politics, and anything with \"New\" in it... there are limits. A dedicated, informed, and slightly careful person who doesn't actually care about any one identity is essentially impossible to ban. \n\nMost people don't want to make an endless stream of new accounts though, all while pretending to be different people. If they don't do that, then over time they're busted again and banned. In short, it can be hard for the average user to get what they want out of a site *and* be banned... even if they dodge that ban.\n\nThe problem is that if your only goal is spread a message by whatever means, spam ads, or just troll... then you don't care about any of that, do you? If that's your game, then bans are just the cost of doing business, you switch your IP (with a paid service) and roll a new account. You see a *lot* of that in any sub where politics is at play.\n\nThe thing is... *most* people using Reddit aren't just trolls (even tif they think they are) or shills... they want to interact with people, they want to be known, they want to express themselves. You can't do that under a ban on Reddit, and on a smaller site it's *much* easier to spot that NewGuy0001 sounds exactly like OldGuy1000, has the same views, etc.\n\n" ] }
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f0a1z3
Why was there no invasion by sea of the north of Germany?
You'd think that should have been done, but from my knowledge, it wasn't even a thought.
AskHistorians
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/f0a1z3/why_was_there_no_invasion_by_sea_of_the_north_of/
{ "a_id": [ "fgsvvic" ], "score": [ 2 ], "text": [ "While more can be said, I've previously discussed British plans for amphibious assaults during WWI in the following threads:\n\n* [\nI was listening to the podcast on the Battle of Jutland, and \"..Land a million Russians north of Berlin, and boom..The War's over in a few weeks\" caught my ear.](_URL_2_)\n* [Why didn't the triple entente stage a naval invasion behind the western front in WW1?](_URL_3_)\n* [Had the North Sea theatre been secured by the British, could the Entente have landed in Northern Germany in WW1?](_URL_0_)\n* [Was landing soldiers behind enemy trench lines ever considered by either side on the Western Front during WWI?](_URL_1_)" ] }
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[ [ "https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/4i5a6a/had_the_north_sea_theatre_been_secured_by_the/d2v5wbd/", "https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/45l3ap/was_landing_soldiers_behind_enemy_trench_lines/czywz8v/", "https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/7se8ot/i_was_listening_to_the_podcast_on_the_battle_of/", "https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/5i3eog/why_didnt_the_triple_entente_stage_a_naval/db52hdv/" ] ]
2whko5
what was the quiet revolution in quebec?
I'm trying to understand a general sense of what the Quiet Revolution was in Quebec, but I'm having trouble understanding.
explainlikeimfive
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/2whko5/eli5_what_was_the_quiet_revolution_in_quebec/
{ "a_id": [ "coqxgjz" ], "score": [ 6 ], "text": [ "\"The Quiet Revolution, which is a term applied to the changes that took place in Quebec from the late 1950's to the late 60's, was a time of great change in the province. The politics and social life of Quebec had been dictated by the Provincial Premier Maurice Duplessis since the 1930's and in a sense it was a throw back to the conservative movement in Quebec when Laurier was trying to break the church, business, nationalistic hold on the province in the 1890's.\n\nQuebec had developed slowly under Duplessis and the Union Nationale and at the cost of personal freedom and real progress. A pent up demand for change was released when Duplessis died in 1959 and this was signified by the election of a Liberal government in 1960. Suddenly government action seemed to be the answer to everything. Taking control of the hydro-electric power in the province, nationalising industry and services, legislating rights for the French Canadians, many of who were beginning to describe themselves as Quebecois rather then any type of Canadian.\n\nThe sixties were a period of increased government involvement in social affairs in many western countries and Canada was no exception but in Quebec the restless energy of change incorporated a revived feeling of nationalism which Duplessis had suppressed for a generation. Young French Canadiens were looking at who ran their province and the English Canadian control over business and decision making. The general revolutionary tendencies in other countries and societies during that era took on a nationalistic twist in Quebec and a new feeling of independence and empowerment developed.\n\nAs the Liberals pushed through their dynamic changes provincially, the Federal Government plugged along under Diefenbaker and then Pearson with no real dynamic emphasis on change. Some who joined the Liberal revolution such as Rene Leveque pushed hard for the taking control of events by the government and hence, in his mind, the Quebecois, but as he came o recognize the limitations of the power of the provincial government, his believes evolved towards new frontiers and the choice between additional change through the powers of the Federal Government or re-establishing the rules and division of powers between the feds and the provinces. This was the first step towards sovereignty association or separatism.\n\nMost Quebecers and Canadians felt that something was happening in Quebec, changes that were hard to identify, shifts in attitudes and objectives and an arising new option for French Canadians to consider. The young were ultimately influenced by the quickening pace of social change around the world and, for some, their sharp turn to the left also included the option of violence.\n\nThe term quiet really refers to change that occurred that was not announced, not broadcast, not displayed or described. It referred to the acceptance by many Quebecers that there might be another way, one that challenged the status quo, demanded equal rights for the French language, recognition of the Quebecois as a unique nationality with unique needs and aspirations and above all one in which the French Canadians were true masters in their own province.\n\nThe progression of this political change would ultimately lead to violence as objectives were not meet, aspirations unfulfilled and demands no caved into. This would lead to one of the most tumultuous and fierce confrontations in Canada over the place of the French Canadians in Canada and ironically the two leading protagonists would both be French Canadian with Pierre \nTrudeau defending Canadian Federalism and Rene Levesque fighting for an independent Quebec.\"\n\nSource: _URL_0_" ] }
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[ [ "http://www.canadahistory.com/sections/eras/cold%20war/Quiet%20Revolution.html/" ] ]
5e5s9h
so, murdering is pretty illegal. in times of war, why is it not illegal to kill an enemy soldier and why aren't there ramifications for it? is there a special set of laws in place when nations are at war?
explainlikeimfive
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/5e5s9h/eli5_so_murdering_is_pretty_illegal_in_times_of/
{ "a_id": [ "da9vcdr" ], "score": [ 2 ], "text": [ "Yes, there are certain international 'laws' and treaties that we use to regulate a war. The two most famous ones are the Hague Conventions of 1889 and 1907. In these treaties the participating nations outlined what is wrong (a war crime) during a war, and what is considered to be acceptable. They also tried to distinguish between combatants and noncombatants, i.e. soldiers and civilians. According to those treaties it is legal for combatants of either side to kill the other sides combatants. It is generally prohibited to harm/attack/kill civilians/noncombatans, even though we know that in recent times those rules were not followed. \nFeel free to ask anything more. " ] }
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40fr66
Why is veiling a practice done today and in history almost entirely by women? Why isn't veiling done among men?
[deleted]
AskHistorians
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/40fr66/why_is_veiling_a_practice_done_today_and_in/
{ "a_id": [ "cytwl6q" ], "score": [ 14 ], "text": [ "I'm not sure the premise of the question here is accurate for two reasons. \n\n1) Veiling suggests a covering of the *face*. There is - to my knowledge anyway - no religion that mandates a full face covering. Even the examples you cite are not veils covering the face, but various forms of hair coverings (so hijab, \"Christian veils\", habits, etc.). While the niqab and the burqa both cover the face in some Islamic traditions, they are not a majority by any means, even among Muslims. But I'm going to assume that this is just an issue with terminology, which brings me to my second point:\n\n2) There are several religions in which men are instructed to cover their heads for religious purposes. Two of the most famous would be Judaism (*Yarmulke* a.k.a. *kippah*) and Sikhism (*Dastar* a.ka. Turban). In both cases the wearing of a head covering is mandated by the religion itself for various reasons, but mostly as a sign of devotion to God. In fact, the term *yarmulke* even means \"reverence to God\" in ~~Hebrew~~ Yiddish, and the requirement is not limited to Jews alone. If you've ever been inside a synagogue - especially a conservative or orthodox one - you were very likely given a paper or simple cloth *kippah* to cover your head while inside the grounds/building. As for Sikhs, I know less about that religion, but as I understand it, baptized Sikhs are forbidden from cutting their hair, again as a sign of devotion to God, and are required to wear the Dastar as a sign of piety and devotion. I should note, as well, that among Catholic and some Orthodox clergy (so among men), a form of skullcap called a *Zucchetto* is also quite common, although whether its mandated or not, I couldn't say. \n\nedit: words \nedit 2: thanks for the correction u/alice-in-canada-land" ] }
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5hhsk4
hi, i'm not smart but i know how to read, can someone tell me why rockets/spaceships don't go straight up into space but instead curve ? and are they controlling that or does it happen naturally?
explainlikeimfive
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/5hhsk4/eli5_hi_im_not_smart_but_i_know_how_to_read_can/
{ "a_id": [ "db0b125", "db0b5p8", "db0b655" ], "score": [ 5, 3, 3 ], "text": [ "An orbit requires a large sideways velocity in order to avoid falling back to Earth. But air gets in the way of going that fast so they first get high then turn to the side to accelerate. They certainly control every aspect of that curved launch path.", "It is called a gravity turn. In order to maintain orbit the craft must not only reach space but also reach orbital velocity. This speed is what keeps the vehicle on space. Any slower and it would fall back to earth. ", "They curve on purpose.\n\nOrbit is not just going into space and magically floating, gravity is still affecting you but you're just moving so fast around the earth that you literally miss the ground as you fall. In order to achieve this, you need to be moving at a speed of 28000km/h parallel to the surface of the earth.\n\nRockets curve towards their orbital direction as they fly up in order to give themselves a headstart in achieving orbital velocity and ultimately to save time and fuel while doing so. " ] }
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5o2cwj
Has anyone in the CIA faced legal consequences for MKUltra, or for covering up MKUltra?
The Wikipedia article glosses over this completely for some reason. I'd assume that drugging American citizens against their will would be highly illegal, and later trying to destroy all records of this would also be illegal, right?
AskHistorians
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/5o2cwj/has_anyone_in_the_cia_faced_legal_consequences/
{ "a_id": [ "dcgvfet" ], "score": [ 16 ], "text": [ "Project MK-ULTRA was first exposed in 1975 by the Church Committee and Gerald Ford's Rockefeller Commission. It got a lot of bad press, coming on the heels of Watergate at a time when outrage over the executive branch and distrust of gov't officials was already widespread ([you can see the WashPo article for it here.](_URL_1_))\n\nA guy named John Marks read this in the Rockefeller Commission report: “The drug program was part of a much larger CIA program to study possible means for controlling human behavior. Other studies explored the effects of radiation, electric-shock, psychology, psychiatry, sociology, and harassment substances.\" Marks filed a FOIA request for all the information the CIA had on behavior control but it turned out that post-1963/Watergate, then-CIA director Richard Helms ordered all MK-ULTRA evidence to be burned. Marks' FOIA request turned up the only documents that were spared from the purge- some retired records of the Budget and Fiscal Section of the CIA. These documents were overlooked when the Church Committee and the Rockefeller Commission asked for the documents previously. [Source.](_URL_3_)\n\nSo following Marks' FOIA requests there's [a spate of Congressional hearings](_URL_0_). Senator Edward Kennedy spearheaded these and they weren't more than a slap on the wrist for the CIA. Plus, it had already been over a decade since MK-ULTRA had ended, and most of the employees directly involved in it had either retired or moved on to other jobs. No employees involved with MK-ULTRA ever faced repercussions for the project. Every CIA official testifying before Congress in 1977 emphasized how they were merely there to provide helpful information about the actions of the generation of agency officials before their time. Even the senators conducting the questioning stated \"It should be clear we are focusing on events that happened over 12 or as long as 25 years ago.\" So even in these hearings, there was a distinct sense that the testing had been finished, the agents responsible all shuttled off to different projects or different jobs altogether, and the climate had entirely changed.\n\nSome people who had been unwitting experimentation subjects did sue the U.S. government, including Wayne Ritchie, who had a breakdown after a Christmas party back in 1957. MK-ULTRA agent Ike Feldman, in a sworn deposition, called Ritchie \"a nitwit\" who \"had been given a full head and deserved to suffer\". But even then, the court found [insufficient evidence that Ritchie was an unwitting subject at all](_URL_2_) (this goes to the difficulty of litigating cases in which you were never supposed to have known you were being experimented on in the first place.) It's also important to note that MK-ULTRA researchers specifically targeted vulnerable populations like criminals with drug abuse backgrounds (including people in prison) or johns spending a night with prostitutes (the CIA set up [safe houses](_URL_4_) with two-way mirrors to watch prostitutes engaging with these men, with the full knowledge that the men would already be in too compromising a situation to press charges). \n\nThe only Supreme Court case related to this, CIA v. Sims, grew out of Marks' FOIA requests. The case was about whether or not the CIA should release the names of university/hospital researchers funded through MK-ULTRA outreach-type programs (there were university researchers doing work on sleep deprivation and interrogation methods and isolation's effect on self-image). The Supreme Court ruled in favor of the CIA, saying that it wouldn't be able to uphold national security if it couldn't guarantee confidentiality of intelligence sources. [Or as Chief Justice Burger wrote it](_URL_5_), \"We seriously doubt whether a potential intelligence source will rest assured knowing that judges, who had little or no background in the delicate business of intelligence gathering, will order his identity revealed only after examining the facts of the case.\" So if anything the only major case to grow out of the entire debacle of a project only reinforced the CIA's discretionary powers.\n\nTL;DR: Yes, it was illegal, but it was super hard to hold anyone accountable. Mostly due to a deliberate efforts by the CIA. They failed in the MK-ULTRA experiments to figure out a way to productively induce amnesia in people, but they did a great job erasing their own records and effectively employing institutional amnesia." ] }
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[ [ "http://www.nytimes.com/packages/pdf/national/13inmate_ProjectMKULTRA.pdf", "http://www.ifeveryoneknew.com/resources/Wash-Post-Jun-11-19752.jpg", "http://www.sfgate.com/bayarea/article/SAN-FRANCISCO-Ex-marshal-s-appeal-in-LSD-case-2494040.php", "http://www.wanttoknow.info/mk/search-manchurian-candidate.pdf", "http://archives.sfweekly.com/sanfrancisco/operation-midnight-climax-how-the-cia-dosed-sf-citizens-with-lsd/Content?oid=2184385", "https://supreme.justia.com/cases/federal/us/471/159/" ] ]
8rlemd
why do automotive engines idle around the same rpm regardless of number of cylinder count?
I understand that rpm stands for revolutions per minute which is what prompts the question. My logic would dictate that that a four cylinder engine would take less time to make a full revolution than a six, eight, ten, etc. which would increase the amount of full revolutions per minute at a stable smooth idle over a larger cylinder count engine. I have owned many different cars over the years including four, six, eight and even one 10 cylinder pick-up truck and every vehicle I have owned seams to idle at around the same range.
explainlikeimfive
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/8rlemd/eli5_why_do_automotive_engines_idle_around_the/
{ "a_id": [ "e0s8sfc", "e0sgo0m" ], "score": [ 4, 2 ], "text": [ "So the alternator can charge the battery. And you will have enough torque to move effectively.", "One revolution in a four cylinder engine is the same as one revolution in a ten cylinder engine. In each, one revolution will take each piston away from and then back to its starting point in its cylinder. \n\nHowever, in order for the pistons to effectively draw in a big enough charge of air/gas mixture to make the engine run and accelerate smoothly from a stop, they must be moving at a rate fast enough to do so. This determines the idle speed. \n\nOne engine I had had a higher idle speed specified- a VW bug, air cooled. This was so the fan would spin fast enough to keep the thing from overheating." ] }
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64ifex
why are there no huge animals?
explainlikeimfive
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/64ifex/eli5_why_are_there_no_huge_animals/
{ "a_id": [ "dg2doib" ], "score": [ 4 ], "text": [ "Oxygen percentage in the atmosphere. When it was about twice as much as it is now, we had dinosaurs and insects as large as dogs. Give it a little higher percentage and who knows what could have roamed the earth" ] }
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5ryduh
how to companies benefit from letting you file your taxes for free
explainlikeimfive
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/5ryduh/eli5_how_to_companies_benefit_from_letting_you/
{ "a_id": [ "ddb4gh7" ], "score": [ 2 ], "text": [ "E-filing your taxes costs them basically nothing. So while you're doing your 1040EZ for free they can advertise their other services to you.\n\nIt's a good way to get your eyeballs on their site for a guaranteed 20-30 minutes." ] }
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2qw2o7
why do farts sometines feel like bubbles popping when they come out?
explainlikeimfive
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/2qw2o7/eli5_why_do_farts_sometines_feel_like_bubbles/
{ "a_id": [ "cna35r6" ], "score": [ 15 ], "text": [ "The gases that were initially roaming free and occupying the wider breadths of your intestines now have to squeeze into the narrow constriction of your sphincter. This pressurizes them akin to packing into a bubble, and as the sphincter relaxes and contracts that gives you your pop." ] }
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5yc2pe
since we're all moving at very high speed in space caused by the 1.rotation and 2.revolution of our a.planet, b.solar system, c.galaxy, etc.. how do we know that our measurements of distance are accurate?
Since length contracts with high speed, how do we know that our measurements of distance to other star systems aren't actually shorter than what we observe. Same thing about time.. could it be that we're actually living longer than what we think (compared to an alien observer who's granted also in movement) because our spaceship earth is travelling at high speed all the time?
explainlikeimfive
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/5yc2pe/eli5_since_were_all_moving_at_very_high_speed_in/
{ "a_id": [ "deov08v", "deovcpa" ], "score": [ 8, 9 ], "text": [ "We are not travelling at relativistic speeds, so the effects are present but are frequently negligible. Even considering the speed of the our galaxy, we are at 0.2% of the speed of light, which is fast, but relativistically slow (~600km/s).\n\nIf my calculations are correct, if we compare our planet (aged 4.543 billion years), traveling with the milky way, with a reference planet static in space (impossible?), the difference between the two due to the speed of the galaxy will be of 9000 years (in 4.5 BILLION). If we consider the time dilation due to gravity, this number can be slightly larger.\n\nRegarding the several types of movement, the same applies: the distances are SO large that it doesn't matter if the earth is revolving around the sun or not.\nSo, if we say an object is at 4.5 Billion years from earth, there will be an error in this value due to relativity. But the error should be very low.", "That's the basis of one of Einsteins biggest theories. The gist of it goes that all observations around you are based off of the Frame of reference you are in. \n\nFor example. Two astronauts are next to each other and use a jetpack to move away in opposite directions. To one astronaut it would seem that he is standing still and the other guy is moving away. To the other it would be the same thing but he would be standing still. For a third guy looking at both astronauts, the two would be moving away from eachother. It's literally all relative. \n\nWith time it gets a little trickier. Because as you go faster time begins to slow down. But it's the same general idea. If your moving fast enough, time would seem to go normally to you. But if someone was staying still relative to you, they would see you slowing down more and more the faster you go. \n\nSo for every human being on earth going basically the same speed. It really doesn't matter because most measurements are going to be the same. We actually have to consider this with satellites in space. They are moving much faster compared to us. So we have to compensate for their clocks going a tiny bit slower than us. " ] }
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2j24il
What did Eva Perón actually do for Argentina?
Many Argentines seem to regard Eva Perón as almost a mythical being who championed for the common people's rights (women's suffrage in particular) and welfare. However, reading her biographies and comparing pre- and post-Perón makes me wonder if she made any *real* tangible effects on the Argentine social hierarchy and descamisados' general welfare. It seems she has given them a hope and many promises, but only few of them seem to have come true.
AskHistorians
http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/2j24il/what_did_eva_perón_actually_do_for_argentina/
{ "a_id": [ "cl87ak5" ], "score": [ 13 ], "text": [ "To some extent, I agree with your assessment. The praise lavished on her, going so far as to call her a saint, goes beyond the scope of her accomplishments. She didn’t end poverty in Argentina. She didn’t destroy inequality. She didn’t create an worker-centered economy that withstood the shocks of modernity. And she didn’t somehow prevent the period of state terror that rocked Argentina in the coming decades (how could she after all?). \n\nHowever, I think the accomplishments you mentioned are still worthy of significant praise. First, one cannot understand Eva without contextualizing her position within the Peronist system. The recent historiography on the Peróns demonstrates that their system offered tangible financial and workplace benefits for the average person. The working classes were not manipulated by eloquent demagogues saying whatever the people wanted to hear; their followers had a lot more agency in this movement than is often acknowledged. The working classes adored Juan and Eva because they offered viable change for people that had previously been excluded from Argentine political discourses. As a central figure of this movement, she gained a massive following who regarded her in many ways as “one of them.” Her speeches captivated audiences and rocketed her to fame because the message of the Peróns was one that people wanted to hear. She died at the peak of her popularity, which in some ways allowed Juan to use her image as a symbol that transcended her legitimate legacy.\n\nBut when we examine her accomplishments from a historical perspective, Eva contributed some important changes beyond worker involvement that resonated throughout twentieth century Argentine society. Though not the only woman involved, she played a significant role in the women’s suffrage movement, helping to break down a culture heavily influenced by machismo. She was also one of the first Argentine women to take center stage in the political arena for which she was initially ridiculed. She formed the Partido Peronista Femenino, which eventually helped more women serve in Argentina’s congress than at any other time in Argentina’s history. She championed anti-discrimination laws that guaranteed equality of the sexes before the law and within marriages. Though women’s rights struggled following Perón’s downfall, these changes were adopted by later Argentine governments. She also worked to protect the rights of the elderly, who had largely been ignored by previous governments; this included writing equality into the Argentine constitution. \n\nIn terms of welfare, her foundation constructed dozens of hospitals, retirement homes, shelters, and schools around Argentina, distributed millions of charitable items each year to needy families, and found jobs for hundreds of thousands of unemployed workers in the provinces. Her foundation also provided free medical check-ups for over 300,000 needy children. According to Tomás Eloy Martínez in *Santa Evita*, “in the first six months of 1951, Evita gave away twenty-five thousand houses and almost three million packages containing medicine, furniture, clothing, and toys.” All of this in less than a decade before she passed away. The effects of this state welfare resonated in Argentine political culture throughout the twentieth century as the government struggled to strike an appropriate balance between free market economics and the welfare culture that Eva helped establish. It would be wrong to say that Eva was the sole contributor to this phenomenon, but she certainly contributed to a period whose effects still reverberate both positively and negatively.\n\nIn this light, it is hard to ignore her influence, especially in the area of women’s rights and political culture. And perhaps this illuminates a little bit the place of women’s history in our imaginations. How much should we value personal and political accomplishments in the historical narrative? What is the place of individuals and their complicated legacies when they don’t fit as well in our traditional definitions success and failure? " ] }
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1rlsts
In the High Middle Ages, what sort of unarmed combat training did knights receive?
During the High Middle Ages, knights would obviously be trained extensively in armed combat. But how would they have been trained in unarmed combat? Would it basically just be folk wrestling, or was it more codified? Are there are modern martial arts that are similar? Would they train in armour? Thanks for any answers you can give.
AskHistorians
http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/1rlsts/in_the_high_middle_ages_what_sort_of_unarmed/
{ "a_id": [ "cdot0tj" ], "score": [ 2 ], "text": [ "I actually do some of this!* It's a lot of grappling and what is best compared to judo. You train mostly out of armor, but most of it translates very well to armored combat too. The only differences between armored and unarmored are the places you can hit and your center gravity. Punching someone in plate isn't going to accomplish much, the most you can hope for is to put them off balance (which very important actually.) That, in armor you need almost squat, since you'll be wearing so much more weight up high. \n\nIt's 2am thanksgiving where I am, but I'll try and edit in some links later.\n\n[Grappling]( _URL_0_ )\n\n[Illustrations from Talhoffer's second treatise]( _URL_1_)\n\n\n\n*not very well, but still." ] }
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[ [ "http://wiktenauer.com/wiki/Grappling", "http://commons.wikimedia.org/wiki/File:Ms.Thott.290.2%C2%BA_050r.jpg" ] ]
2pv2c4
what is the difference between casualty and property insurance?
I can't seem to get the difference between casualty and property insurance...but it seems like they are used interchangeably. Thank you!
explainlikeimfive
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/2pv2c4/eli5what_is_the_difference_between_casualty_and/
{ "a_id": [ "cn0aige" ], "score": [ 3 ], "text": [ "Casualty is for people and property is for items?" ] }
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dgs35l
can fighter aircraft detect when they’ve been “locked on” like in the movies, if they can, how do they know?
explainlikeimfive
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/dgs35l/eli5_can_fighter_aircraft_detect_when_theyve_been/
{ "a_id": [ "f3ebedz", "f3eeynw", "f3eg65o", "f3eg6jz", "f3eh00o", "f3ejccm", "f3em7z8", "f3esb33", "f3f1gyf" ], "score": [ 5785, 363, 3, 15, 96, 6, 14, 2, 4 ], "text": [ "Yes, it's absolutely possible for a fighter craft to know it's been locked onto.\n\nIn order to home in on something, you have to know where it is, and one way to know where things are is to use *radar* -- that is, send out a beam of radio waves that bounces off of objects and comes back to the transmitter, painting a picture of what's around it. A radar system has to scan the entire sky, so the number of times the radar track hits a target aircraft in a minute is relatively low.\n\nWhen a radar system sees something it wants, it turns on a different radar that scans much more quickly to provide more accurate tracking data to the missile. Aircraft can determine how quickly they're being painted by radar; if they're being painted very rapidly, that probably means a radar-tracking missile has acquired them.\n\nThere are other types of missile guidance that are harder to detect; heat-seeking missiles, for example, don't rely on signals bounced off the target, so an aircraft can't know one's on its tail.", "Think of radar like a flashlight in a Dark room. You can see what the flashlight beam is on, but the flash light can be seen from a long ways off. When the radar warnings detect radar that is of a certain type, the pilot can be alerted. The bandwidth of energy of a radar emitter have a specific fingerprint making them pretty easy to identify.", "Also, it's not just fighters that are equipped with sensors to alert them that they have been locked on to. Pretty much every military aircraft made in the last few decades and many ships and ground vehicles have the same suite of sensors", "If I shine a flashlight in your eyes, do you know I'm shining a flashlight into your eyes? Yes, if your eyes are open and the light being emitted is a frequency your eyes can detect.\n\nRADAR is an acronym, standing for radio detection and ranging. Radio waves are electromagnetic radiation, like visible light. If an aircraft has been 'locked on' to by a tracking RADAR, that means (in a simplified way) that a 'flashlight' of radio-wave light (it can also be done with lasers, some using infrared light, aka, LIDAR) is being directed at the aircraft and is tracking the aircraft as it moves -- as a target it has been 'painted' or 'illuminated.'\n\nIf the aircraft has sensors which are sensitive to (can pick up) the frequencies of radio waves (or infrared laser) being used, then yes, it can detect the tracking, like picking up an FM radio station.\n\nETA: SPEEEELLLINGK", "I'll add some more to what others have said.\n\nModern fighter jets (3rd gen and onwards) are equipped with an RWR systems (radar warning receivers), which are essentially a set of antennas mounted around the aircraft. Those antennas pick up radar signals, identify them and display them to a pilot on a screen in the cockpit. RWR system not only has a capability to detect a lock, but it also picks up all types of radar signals, so it can also be used to locate a radar source which isn't locking you.\n\nNATO use a code \"nails\" to describe a regular radar signal and \"spike\" to call out a lock. It's important to remember that the only difference between a lock and a normal signal is focus and intensity, so the RWR can easily recognize between the two.\n\n\nNow, the more complicated bit is that modern fighter jets are equipped with a system called TWS (track while scan), which allows to lock an aircraft without \"spiking\" it. So a locked plane will still receive a \"nails\" signal but won't recognize it as a lock. On top of that, Fox 3 missiles (common nowadays) are equipped with their own radar, and don't rely on a donated lock to track their target, therefore it's entirely possible and common to fire a long range missile without actually locking the target. Such target would only receive a lock warning once the missiles radar activates, which leaves little time for reaction.\n\nAll of that above refers to radar guided missiles. \nHeatseaking missiles (much shorter range) do not send radar signals and are therefore harder to detect, though if you're close enough to be on a receiving end of one, you propably have visual on the enemy and you're able to visually identify a launch. Some aircraft (e.g A-10, C-130) are equipped with heatseeker detection systems but they're relatively rare.\n\n\nIf you have any more questions about modern (or vintage) air combat, fire away.", "Yes.\n\nFire control radars used for tracking are like a flashlight. If you're lit up by the flashlight beam, then you know that you're being tracked.", "Radar can be detected. It's basically radio waves, we've been able to triangulate the position of radio emitters for decades.\n\nThe British found that out the hard way in the Falkands War. They went down there with active radar on nearly everything they had but the Argentines had an American-made AWACS (Airborn Warning and Control System) that could detect active radar from twice the distance that radar itself could detect things. \n\nThis is why the Argentine airforce despite being outnubered and outdated could inflict so much damage on the British naval forces. the Argentines were literally hunting for sources of radio transmission and the British had them equipped on everything they brought", "Imagine you and another person are standing in a room.\n\nYou're facing the wall and the person is behind you. They're looking at you, but there's no way you can know that. This is 'passive' tracking and is generally impossible to detect because the person looking at you is just observing the light waves reflected from your body (although some aircraft have systems that use radar to detect missiles that are heading their way, I believe).\n\nNow imagine the room is dark. The person behind you starts sweeping a flashlight back and forth looking for you. You'll know when they see you, because you can see the light on the wall in front of you. This is more like radar, which is 'active' tracking.", "Here in late 2019, you can't fool a heat seeker with a \"hotter\" source. You CAN make your decoys mimic your engine's heat signature. \nThe best you can hope for, with \"dumb\" decoys, is to blind the heat seeker. \nSOURCE: never flew a plane. Don't know jack shit about how things work. Broke my thumb with a big Estwing hammer. Read a lot of scifi." ] }
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2hzymy
Did flightless birds like ostriches evolve from surviving Dromaesaurs or flying birds?
I have a hypothesis that since smaller creatures survived the K-Pg extinction, Dromaeosaurs similar to mini Velociraptors would have lived on, evolving into giant predatory birds like Gastornis, since they had no use for their arms without giant sauropod targets. Could that possibly be the case, or did such big birds really just come from infrequent bird flyers or did they come from the dinosaurs? Basically, did ostriches grow big or fail to grow small?
askscience
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/2hzymy/did_flightless_birds_like_ostriches_evolve_from/
{ "a_id": [ "ckxxgnf" ], "score": [ 4 ], "text": [ "There was a great article in National Geographic from May of this year that explains this. [Here it is.](_URL_0_)\n\nHere is the basic answer though: all flightless birds likely trace their ancestry back to a flying relative. They likely began in the southern section of Pangea and when that broke up they were dispersed and each land-locked group evolved in place. " ] }
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[ [ "http://news.nationalgeographic.com/news/2014/05/140513-flightless-birds-ostriches-moas-evolution-science/" ] ]
282ang
After decolonization in Africa why did so many nations keep the native language of their colonizers as their official language rather than returning to their historic, local languages?
AskHistorians
http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/282ang/after_decolonization_in_africa_why_did_so_many/
{ "a_id": [ "ci6ot92" ], "score": [ 21 ], "text": [ "The borders you see today are not necessarily drawn based off which group of people live where. But more remnants of colonial administrative districts. Two different peoples speaking two different languages will fall back on the common one, regardless of its origins. Therefore the use of ex-colonial languages.\n\n_URL_1_\nNotice the similarities? Ethiopia, Somalia, Cameroon, Angola, The Congo, Sudan and a number of coastal west african nations are basically the same as they were drawn by the colonists. Here specifically the 1914 partitions.\n\n\nHere is a very detailed ethno-linguistic map with which you can zoom in on, compare it with the borders drawn in 1914, and those present on the map, or a modern one. \n_URL_0_\nEven the \"uniform\" Green section denoting Guinean languages is fractured as each colour represents a language group, rather than a language. There is no guarantee of decent intelligibility between two languages. People speak english, French, etc because it the administrative language before independence and it was the only one with which they could seriously communicate between ethnic groups that spoke different languages. \n\nThis is somewhat of a generalization however because recent changes in borders are changing the trend. For example, in this old map, the Sudan is a single country. The country split into two in 2011. As you can see, the southern part of Sudan which split was dominated by a different ethno-linguistic group than the North.\n\nEDIT: Added a map, elaborated a little." ] }
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[ [ "http://www.chaz.org/Arch/Turkana/Namoratunga/Geography/Linguistics_large.jpg", "http://www.metmuseum.org/toah/ht/11/sfc/africa_1914.jpg" ] ]
7kil2p
how do cinemagraphs work?
I recently stumbled across r/cinemagraphs and can't stop watching those things, they're beautiful! But I can't wrap my head around how they work. [This](_URL_0_) one over here for example is only one(!) second long but I still can't see a cut in there. How come this looks like it's moving forever? I tried googling it but only got some photoshop tutorials on how to make those things and since I have absolutely no clue how to use photoshop I didn't understand much. I also searched this subreddit and someone asked 2 years ago already but didn't get any answers.
explainlikeimfive
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/7kil2p/eli5_how_do_cinemagraphs_work/
{ "a_id": [ "drewjb4", "dreyazn" ], "score": [ 5, 4 ], "text": [ "They are .gifs someone takes a video or a segment of a video and they cut and play with it until it's seamless. \n\nThe start of the .gif has to match the end as best the editor can perceive.", "You start out by picking a piece of video that can be looped. There are several ways of going about this.\n\nThe easiest way is to find a piece of footage that actually loops. For instance, a bicycle wheel spinning.\n\nThe second way is finding a piece of footage that has a repetitious movement that doesn't exactly loop but is complex enough to hide the repetition in its complexity.\n\nFinally, you can make a rough loop and then go in to edit each and every frame of video by hand until it loops. This is more manageable than it sounds since these types of images usually are really short.\n\nSince most of these cinemagraphs take scenes out of movies, the last part is picking only one part out of a scene to loop. In your river example for instance, the people standing there would probably be moving. Even if they're not really doing anything, people don't stand perfectly still.\n\nSo you take one frame you like, mask out the parts you want to be static and non-moving and use those as a mask on top of your repeating animation.\n\nIncidentally, it's a lot easier to do this in Adobe AfterEffects (video special effects software) than it is to do in photoshop. Although you might end up using both." ] }
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[ "https://i.imgur.com/eIXQvyI.gifv" ]
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265vhl
in gay marriage ban challenges, why is there never a reference to the full faith and credit clause?
If I understand things correctly (not a lawyer, obviously), the Full Faith and Credit clause essentially states that contracts and such entered into in one state will be recognized fully in any other state. Am I wrong on that point? If I am right, why do none of the lawsuits against marriage bans seem to refer to that in their arguments? I would expect that, in addition to saying that there is a degree of discrimination involved, in-state, that there could also be said to be a violation of the rights of other states to have their statutes respected. I am very interested to see how people respond to this! Thanks for your time and attention.
explainlikeimfive
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/265vhl/eli5_in_gay_marriage_ban_challenges_why_is_there/
{ "a_id": [ "chnxo1a", "chnxpky", "chnz3y9", "cho0q6g" ], "score": [ 6, 2, 3, 2 ], "text": [ "Because they are not arguing for their marriages in one state to be recognized in another state (most of the time), they are arguing for the right to be married in that state. Different point on the timeline. For the Full Faith and Credit clause to be in effect, the couple would have to be married already, which is largely not the case.", "I hope someone gives you an answer, but it may be worth mentioning that straight marriages, such as those between first cousins, are not recognized in all states.", "Because that only works for certain contracts and agreements.\n\nFor instance, driver's licenses, all the states have agreed to these licenses, therefore all licenses are reciprocated between all states. Because a Driver's License is essentially a contract between you and the government saying \"I agree to follow the rules of the road, and in return I have rights and permissions to use these roads within the confines of what is lawful *insert legal jargon*\"\n\nStraight marriage is it's own contract in most states, with the introduction of gay marriage, they didn't simply change it to say \"marriage between any two people is ok\" they simply added another category which included homosexual marriage.\n\nThe states without gay marriage, don't have that particular grouping, and therefore, it is not shared.\n\nAnother good example, is gun ownership. Most, if not all, states allow you to own a gun. But some states have outlawed handguns. Some more have outlawed open carry. And even more outlaw concealed carry.\n\nGetting a concealed carry license is entering into a contract with the government, essentially saying \"I will follow these rules, and in return the government will not arrest me for carrying my gun in a concealed manner\"\n\nBut, not all states reciprocate all these licenses. For instance, in Georgia, concealed carry only requires you to sign some forms. Whereas in North Carolina, you need to take a course and so forth to prove you know what you are doing. NC has the license reciprocated in almost all states with concealed carry, Georgia not so much.\n\nIt's the same sort of thing with marriage licenses in that, yes, they are all marriages, but the specifics are different enough that they don't have to be recognized by all states.", "It is, in fact, been used, at least indirectly.\n\nIn 2007, a federal court ruled the state of Oklahoma had to list both gay adoptive parents on birth certificate, and in 2013, an dying Ohio man won the right to have his gay spouse listed on his death certificate.\n\nIt also should be noted that state level gay marriage hasn't been around very long, and DOMA made pressing claims more difficult, so a lot of these things are still working their way through the courts.\n\nAlso, while I don't have the specific legal argument why it wouldn't apply directly to marriage, Full Faith and Credit was never used to challenge interracial marriage bans, either.\n\n" ] }
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