svakulenk0/qrecc huggingface dataset:
Question: Why is learning a second language difficult?
Answer: Children have a much easier time with the grammar because they learn in a different way than adults do

Question: At what age is learning a second language harder and why?
Answer: Evidence indicates it becomes harder to learn a language other than our mother tongue as we progress through adulthood. Now, a new study suggests that children are highly skilled at learning the grammar of a new language up until the age of 17 or 18, much longer than previously thought

Question: If I already know English, which language would be the easiest to learn?
Answer: 1. Norwegian. This may come as a surprise, but we have ranked Norwegian as the easiest language for English speakers to pick up. Norwegian is a member of the Germanic family of languages — just like English!

Question: How can I begin learning Norwegian as a second language?
Answer: Loecsen is a free online course for basic Norwegian language preparation

Question: Is Norwegian easier to learn than Spanish?
Answer: Norwegian. If Spanish is easy thanks to the high amount of learning opportunities, Norwegian is closer to English in terms of grammar and word order. ... Norwegian verbs have one of the easiest conjugations in Europe (closer to English than to German) – one verb form per tense.

Question: What other languages are closest to Norwegian?
Answer: Danish and Norwegian are the two languages that are the most similar, among the Scandinavian languages. As a group, Danish, Swedish and Norwegian are all very similar and it is common for people from all three countries to be able to understand each other

Question: Describe some of Norwegian's similarities with Danish.
Answer: Danish and Norwegian are very similar, or indeed almost identical when it comes to vocabulary, but they sound very different from one another.

Question: How did the English, Spanish, Norwegian, and Danish languages evolve?
Answer: Along with the other North Germanic languages, Danish is a descendant of Old Norse, the common language of the Germanic peoples who lived in Scandinavia during the Viking Era.

Question: How is Germanic related to Old Norse?
Answer: Old Norse was a North Germanic language spoken from the 9th to the 13th century in Scandinavia and Scandinavian overseas settlements. It was not a descendant of German, however, Proto-Norse is believed to have evolved as a northern dialect of Proto-Germanic.

Question: Are there advantages of knowing multiple languages?
Answer: The many cognitive benefits of learning languages are undeniable. People who speak more than one language have improved memory, problem-solving and critical-thinking skills, enhanced concentration, ability to multitask, and better listening skills.
Question: Why is Boise called the city of trees?
Answer: Boise has long been called the “City of Trees,” but in 1863, when the town was platted on a dry sagebrush plain between the newly established military post and Boise River, the nearest trees to be seen were cottonwoods and willows along the river and pines and firs miles away

Question: How did Boise get its name?
Answer: The name may instead derive from earlier mountain men who named the river that flows through it. ... Set in a high-desert area, the tree-lined valley of the Boise River became a distinct landmark, an oasis dominated by cottonwood trees. They called this La rivière boisée, which means the wooded river.“

Question: What is there to do in the summer in Boise?
Answer: Things to Do in Boise in July 2019McCall Independence Day: 10 Days of Fourth of July Fun. | McCall. ...Alive After Five. | The Grove Plaza. ...City of Boise 4th of July Fireworks. | Ann Morrison Park. ...Meridian Independence Day. | Storey Park. ...Eagle Fun Days. | Downtown Eagle. ...Music on the Mountain. | Bogus Basin. ...Lavender Festival. | ...Saturday Markets.

Question: What are popular hiking trails in Boise?
Answer: Best Hikes in Boise. Best Hikes Close to Town. Table Rock (3.2 miles) Lower Hulls Gulch (4.4 miles) Five Mile Gulch (7 miles) Hulls Gulch Interpretive Trail (7 miles) Castle Rock (2 miles) Elephant Rock (.5 miles) Dry Creek Trail (up to 14 miles) Stack Rock Trail (9 miles)

Question: Tell me about the Oregon Trail Reserve in Boise.
Answer: The Oregon Trail Reserve is a 77 acre site in Southeast Boise. The area features a scenic view of the Boise Front and the historic Kelton Ramp, a path forged by overland travelers heading down the rim to the Boise River.

Question: Tell me about the history of the Boise Greenbelt.
Answer: In 1962, the City of Boise hired a consultant, Atkinson & Associates, to create Boise's first comprehensive plan. The plan suggested the city should acquire land along the Boise River to create a continuous green belt of public lands stretching the entire length of the community.

Question: What is the controversy around the Boise Greenbelt?
Answer: The former Idaho state land was offered on condition that ...they shall construct certain improvements on the State land consisting of a bike path, lakes, pedestrian bridges (where the latter are required to assure a continuous linkage of greenbelt next to the Boise River for the length of the Riverside Village project)..., but these terms have never been met.
Question: What is the main function of a virtual machine?
Answer: The virtual machine function is a function for the realization of virtual machine environment. This function enables you to create multiple independent virtual machines on one physical machine by virtualizing resources such as the CPU, memory, network and disk that are installed on a physical machine.

Question: What are a virtual machine's advantages?
Answer: The main advantages of virtual machines:Multiple OS environments can exist simultaneously on the same machine, isolated from each other;Virtual machine can offer an instruction set architecture that differs from real computer's;Easy maintenance, application provisioning, availability and convenient recovery.

Question: Describe some of a virtual machine's disadvantages.
Answer: Disadvantages: Virtual machines are less efficient than real machines because they access the hardware indirectly. Running software on top of the host operating system means that it will have to request access to the hardware from the host.

Question: How do virtual machines work?
Answer: A virtual machine app creates a virtualized environment—called, simply enough, a virtual machine—that behaves like a separate computer system, complete with virtual hardware devices. The VM runs as a process in a window on your current operating system.

Question: What are the main types of Virtual Machines?
Answer: Examples of virtualization platforms adapted to such hardware include KVM, VMware Workstation, VMware Fusion, Hyper-V, Windows Virtual PC, Xen, Parallels Desktop for Mac, Oracle VM Server for SPARC, VirtualBox and Parallels Workstation.

Question: What is the role of virtual machines in cloud computing?
Answer: For the maintenance of resources in cloud computing environment, virtualization is a necessity as it makes it easier. Virtualization in Cloud Computing increases security as it protects both the integrity of guest virtual machines and cloud components.

Question: How is a container different than a virtual machine?
Answer: Virtual machines and containers differ in several ways, but the primary difference is that containers provide a way to virtualize an OS so that multiple workloads can run on a single OS instance. With VMs, the hardware is being virtualized to run multiple OS instances.

Question: What is the advantage of Docker?
Answer: Docker allows engineering teams to be smaller and more effective. Docker containers ensure consistency across multiple development, release cycles and standardising your environment.

Question: How is Docker related Kurbenetes?
Answer: The Docker engine itself is responsible for running the actual container image built by running 'docker build'. ... When used together, both Docker and Kubernetes are great tools for developing a modern cloud architecture, but they are fundamentally different at their core.
Question: How was Netflix started?
Answer: Originally, CEO Reed Hastings told several outlets said he got the idea for Netflix after Blockbuster charged him a $40 late fee for “Apollo 13.” ... When it arrived in one piece, they decided to start Netflix.

Question: How did Netflix originally work?
Answer: Netflix was launched on April 14, 1998, as the world's first online DVD rental store, with only 30 employees and 925 titles available, which was almost the entire catalogue of DVDs in print at the time, through the pay-per-rent model with rates and due dates that were similar to its bricks-and-mortar rival, Blockbuster

Question: What is Netflix's relationship with Blockbuster?
Answer: Netflix CEO Reed Hastings approached Blockbuster CEO John Antioco. Hastings wanted Blockbuster to buy Netflix for $50 million.

Question: When did Netflix shift from DVDs to a streaming service?
Answer: Two years later, in 2007, America saw the launch of the feature Netflix is best known for - streaming. That year also saw the beginnings of a move away from the traditional DVD rental format

Question: What are Netflix's other competitors than Blockbuster?
Answer: The biggest competitive threat to Netflix is probably Amazon.com Inc. (AMZN).

Question: How does Netflix compare to Amazon Prime Video?
Answer: If you are not a Prime member, you can subscribe to Prime Video for a flat rate of $8.99 a month. Unlike Netflix, Amazon Prime Video has no tiers for HD or 4K HDR content.

Question: Describe Netflix's subscriber growth over time.
Answer: Netflix's paid memberships grew by 2.7 million from April to June, less than half of the 5.5 million it added during the same period last year. In fact, it lost around 130,000 subscribers in the U.S., where it has more market penetration.

Question: How has Netflix changed the way TV is watched?
Answer: Netflix has changed how consumers access film and TV. They're no longer tied to the TV and forced to sit through commercials.

Question: How has Netflix impacted society?
Answer: The Netflix Effect is when a new series catapults an unknown actor to fame - overnight - a result of millions of people binge watching a show

Question: How has Netflix impacted dating and relationships?
Answer: According to survey done by Netflix (of course), 25 per cent of people will find a person more attractive based on the TV shows they watch, while 27 per cent insist that enjoying the same shows is important.
Question: What was the first artificial satellite?
Answer: History changed on October 4, 1957, when the Soviet Union successfully launched Sputnik I. The world's first artificial satellite was about the size of a beach ball (58 cm.or 22.8 inches in diameter), weighed only 83.6 kg. or 183.9 pounds, and took about 98 minutes to orbit the Earth on its elliptical path.

Question: What are the types of satellite orbits?
Answer: There are essentially three types of Earth orbits: high Earth orbit, medium Earth orbit, and low Earth orbit. Many weather and some communications satellites tend to have a high Earth orbit, farthest away from the surface

Question: What are the important classes of artificial satellites?
Answer: Common types include military and civilian Earth observation satellites, communications satellites, navigation satellites, weather satellites, and space telescopes. Space stations and human spacecraft in orbit are also satellites.

Question: How do satellite navigation systems work?
Answer: Satellite Navigation is based on a global network of satellites that transmit radio signals in medium earth orbit. ... The signal contains data that a receiver uses to compute the locations of the satellites and to make other adjustments needed for accurate positioning

Question: What is the Galileo system and why is it important?
Answer: Galileo is to play an important part of the Medium Earth Orbit Search and Rescue system (MEOSAR). Galileo satellites will be able to pick up signals from emergency beacons carried on ships, planes or persons and ultimately send these back to national rescue centres.

Question: Why did the Galileo system create tension with the US?
Answer: Since Galileo was designed to provide the highest possible precision (greater than GPS) to anyone, the US was concerned that an enemy could use Galileo signals in military strikes against the US and its allies (some weapons like missiles use GNSSs for guidance). The frequency initially chosen for Galileo would have made it impossible for the US to block the Galileo signals without also interfering with its own GPS signals.

Question: What are Cubesats?
Answer: A CubeSat is a type of miniaturized satellite for space research that is made up of multiples of 10 cm × 10 cm × 11.35 cm cubic units. CubeSats have a mass of no more than 1.33 kilograms per unit, and often use commercial off-the-shelf components for their electronics and structure.

Question: What are Cubesats' advantages?
Answer: Their small size makes it possible to rapidly build and test, making CubeSats an ideal and affordable way to explore new technologies and ideas.

Question: What are Cubesats used for?
Answer: CubeSats are miniature satellites that have been used exclusively in low Earth orbit for 15 years, and are now being used for interplanetary missions as well. In the beginning, they were commonly used in low Earth orbit for applications such as remote sensing or communications

Question: What is Cubesats' future?
Answer: MarCO, short for Mars Cube One, was the first interplanetary mission to use a class of mini-spacecraft called CubeSats
Question: How do I save for a child's college education in the US?
Answer: Use the '2K rule' to save for your kid's college educationFidelity recommends you multiply your child's age by $2,000 to figure out how much you should save.A tax-advantaged 529 plan can boost your college savings.The average 529 plan investor has more than $32,600 in their account when their scholar reaches age 17.

Question: What is a 529 plan?
Answer: A 529 plan is a tax-advantaged investment vehicle in the U.S. designed to encourage saving for the future higher education expenses of a designated beneficiary.

Question: How does a 529 plan work?
Answer: A 529 college savings plan is a specialized savings account that is used to save money for college. ... The money in a 529 plan may be used to pay for the college expenses and K-12 tuition of the beneficiary, tax-free.

Question: What are the main advantages of a 529 plan?
Answer: 529 plans offer unsurpassed income tax breaks.Although contributions are not deductible, earnings in a 529 plan grow federal tax-free and will not be taxed when the money is taken out to pay for college.

Question: What about disadvantages of a 529 plan?
Answer: Disadvantages of 529 PlansLimited Investment Options. ...The Fees May Be High. ...A 10% Penalty Applies to Non-Qualified Withdrawals. ...Time Isn't Always On Your Side.

Question: How long have 529 plans been around?
Answer: Congress created them in 1996 and they are named after section 529 of the Internal Revenue code. “Qualified tuition program” is the legal name.

Question: What are the types of 529 plans?
Answer: There are two main types of 529 plans: the college savings plan and the prepaid tuition plan.

Question: What can the 529 plans funds be used for?
Answer: Money saved in a 529 plan can also be used to pay expenses associated with college or other post-secondary training institutions. ... While funds from a 529 account can be used to pay for expenses required for college, not all expenses qualify.

Question: What happens if the 529 plans funds are not used?
Answer: If you truly have no other use for your leftover 529 plan savings, you can always take a non-qualified distribution. Your contributions will never be taxed or penalized, since they were made with after-tax dollars.

Question: How does a ESA compare to a a 529 plan?
Answer: With an ESA, you can choose almost any kind of option—stocks, bonds, mutual funds. You can't do that with a 529 plan.
Question: Describe the Afra tanker scale.
Answer: AFRA uses a scale that classifies tanker vessels according to deadweight tons, a measure of a ship's capacity to carry cargo

Question: Why was the Afra tanker scale developed?
Answer: The term is based on the Average Freight Rate Assessment (AFRA), a tanker rate system created in 1954 by Shell Oil to standardise shipping contract terms. Due to their favorable size, Aframax tankers can serve most ports in the world.

Question: What are supertankers?
Answer: Supertankers are the largest tankers, and the largest man-made mobile structures. They include very large crude carriers (VLCC) and ULCCs with capacities over 250,000 DWT.

Question: Describe supertankers' invention.
Answer: The first oil tankers were two sail-driven tankers that were built in 1863 on England's River Tyne. first ocean-going oil-tank steamer, the Vaderland, was designed and built by Palmers Shipbuilding and Iron Company of the United Kingdom for the American-Belgian Red Star Line in 1873,

Question: What are the important factors led to supertankers' development?
Answer: In the early 1850s, oil began to be exported from Upper Burma, then a British colony. The oil was moved in earthenware vessels to the river bank where it was then poured into boat holds for transportation to Britain.

Question: What was the role of the Six-Day War in supertankers' development?
Answer: The most instantaneous impact was on shipping rates. Oil tankers, en route from the Arabian Gulf to Europe, were forced to take the much longer route around Africa, creating a surge in demand in the time-charter market that was not immediately met by supply.

Question: How many barrels can a VLCC ship carry?
Answer: They include very large crude carriers (VLCC) and ULCCs with capacities over 250,000 DWT. These ships can transport 2,000,000 barrels (320,000 m3) of oil/318,000 metric tons.

Question: What is the largest VLCC ship in the world?
Answer: Batillus

Question: Describe crude oil washing for supertankers.
Answer: Crude oil washing (COW) is a system whereby oil tanks on a tanker are cleaned out between voyages not with water, but with crude oil - the cargo itself. The solvent action of the crude oil makes the cleaning process far more effective than when water is used.
Question: Is Red Bull bad for you?
Answer: Despite these increases, moderate and occasional intake of Red Bull is unlikely to cause serious heart problems in healthy adults.

Question: Can Red Bull kill you?
Answer: And it can kill you. The WHO study also reports that adults who consume energy drinks may be increasing their risk of hypertension and type 2 diabetes (caffeine reduces insulin sensitivity)

Question: How much Red Bull can you drink in a day?
Answer: Per multiple references a standard Red Bull contains 80 mg of caffeine (but most producers would make different products). A daily long term limit for caffeine ingestion is 400 mg per day (so five cans is at that limit), but that's related to side effects, not risk of death.

Question: What is taurine?
Answer: Taurine is a type of amino acid found in many foods and often added to energy drinks

Question: What are taurine's health effects?
Answer: Taurine promotes cardiovascular health, insulin sensitivity, electrolyte balance, hearing function, and immune modulation. In animal research, taurine protected against heart failure, reducing mortality by nearly 80%.

Question: In general, what are the effects of consuming energy drinks?
Answer: Top 10 Energy Drink Side EffectsPalpitations / tachycardia.Tremor / shaking.Agitation / restlessness.Gastrointestinal upset.Chest pain/ischemia.Dizziness/syncope.Paresthesia (tingling or numbing of the skin)Insomnia.

Question: Why are energy drinks harmful when mixed with alcohol?
Answer: When alcohol is mixed with caffeine, the caffeine can mask the depressant effects of alcohol, making drinkers feel more alert than they would otherwise. As a result, they may drink more alcohol and become more impaired than they realize, increasing the risk of alcohol-attributable harms

Question: What is the argument for energy drinks age restriction to kids?
Answer: Children and teenagers drink them more than adults, even though industry labelling guidelines state that any soft drink with more than 150mg of caffeine per litre must carry a warning about its content and state that it is not recommended for children.

Question: Where are energy drinks banned to minors?
Answer: No state has banned the sale of energy drinks to minors
Question: What is worth seeing in Washington D.C.?
Answer: Most prominent at its center point is the Washington Monument, and war memorials include those to veterans of World War II, the Korean War, and Vietnam. ... If you look at a Washington, D.C. attractions map, you'll notice that many of them line the National Mall, so you're likely to spend a lot of time here.

Question: Which Smithsonian museums in Washington D.C. are the most popular?
Answer: The National Air and Space Museum was the most visited Smithsonian museum in 2018, with approximately 6.2 million visits.

Question: Why is the National Air and Space Museum important?
Answer: The Smithsonian's National Air and Space Museum collects, preserves, studies, and exhibits artifacts, archival materials, and works of art related to the history, culture, and science of aviation and spaceflight and the study of the universe.

Question: Is the Spy Museum in Washington D.C. free?
Answer: Unlike the Smithsonian Museums, the International Spy Museum is a private museum and does charge admission.

Question: What is there to do in Washington D.C. after the museums close?
Answer: Top 5 Places to Go in D.C. After 5 p.m.Night Walk of the National Mall. If you've been to D.C., you've likely walked the National Mall during the day, along with all of the other tourists, to see the iconic monuments. ...Madams Organ. ...National Portrait Gallery. ...The Kennedy Center. ...Capital One Arena.

Question: What is the best time to visit the reflecting pools in Washington D.C.?
Answer: The best time to visit Washington D.C. is typically in the fall (September to November).The weather is comfortable, crowds are smaller and there's still plenty to do around the city.

Question: Are there any famous foods in Washington D.C.?
Answer: Korean fried chicken Bul Korean restaurant in Adams Morgan is unequivocally the apex of Korean food in D.C. When you go, go with friends and share the K.F.C.

Question: What is a DC half smoke?
Answer: A half-smoke is a local sausage delicacy found in Washington, D.C., and the surrounding region. Similar to a hot dog, but usually larger, spicier, and with more coarsely-ground meat, the sausage is often half-pork and half-beef, smoked, and served with herbs, onion, and chili sauce.

Question: Tell me about DC half smoke's history.
Answer: The original half-smoke is considered to be the sausage distributed by D.C.'s Briggs and Co. meatpackers, originating in around 1950, though Raymond Briggs started selling his half-smokes in about 1930.
Question: Describe the oceanic crust.
Answer: Oceanic crust is about 6 km (4 miles) thick. It is composed of several layers, not including the overlying sediment.

Question: What are the main layers in the oceanic crust?
Answer: The crust and the solid mantle layer together constitute oceanic lithosphere. Oceanic crust is primarily composed of mafic rocks, or sima, which is rich in iron and magnesium.

Question: How does the oceanic crust differ from the continental crust?
Answer: Oceanic crust is primarily composed of mafic rocks, or sima, which is rich in iron and magnesium.

Question: Which of the oceanic crust and the continental crust is younger and why?
Answer: oceanic crust is destroyed due to subduction and new crust is created at mid oceanic ridges. The continental crust being less dense does not subduct unless it's continent-continent collision.

Question: Where is the youngest oceanic crust found?
Answer: The youngest crust of the ocean floor can be found near the seafloor spreading centers or mid-ocean ridges. As the plates split apart, magma rises from below the Earth's surface to fill in the empty void.

Question: Where is the oldest oceanic crust found?
Answer: The oldest large-scale oceanic crust is in the west Pacific and north-west Atlantic — both are about up to 180-200 million years old. However, parts of the eastern Mediterranean Sea are remnants of the much older Tethys ocean, at about 270 and up to 340 million years old.

Question: What is seafloor spreading?
Answer: the formation of new areas of oceanic crust, which occurs through the upwelling of magma at midocean ridges and its subsequent outward movement on either side.

Question: What is the significance of seafloor spreading?
Answer: Seafloor spreading helps explain continental drift in the theory of plate tectonics. ... The motivating force for seafloor spreading ridges is tectonic plate slab pull at subduction zones, rather than magma pressure, although there is typically significant magma activity at spreading ridges.

Question: How is ocean crust formed?
Answer: Oceanic crust is continuously being created at mid-ocean ridges. As plates diverge at these ridges, magma rises into the upper mantle and crust.

Question: Is ocean crust being recycled?
Answer: Subduction zones are plate boundaries where old oceanic crust is recycled back into the mantle. This explains why the Earth's circumference does not expand with the production of new oceanic crust and why, in comparison to continents, the seafloor has very little accumulation of sediment.
Question: What is Darwin's theory in a nutshell?
Answer: Darwinism is a theory of biological evolution developed by the English naturalist Charles Darwin (1809–1882) and others, stating that all species of organisms arise and develop through the natural selection of small, inherited variations that increase the individual's ability to compete, survive, and reproduce.

Question: How was Darwin's theory developed?
Answer: Unlike Lamarck, Darwin proposed common descent and a branching tree of life, meaning that two very different species could share a common ancestor. Darwin based his theory on the idea of natural selection: it synthesized a broad range of evidence from animal husbandry, biogeography, geology, morphology, and embryology.

Question: How can fossils be used to understand Darwin's theory?
Answer: This supports Darwin's theory of evolution, which states that simple life forms gradually evolved into more complex ones. Evidence for early forms of life comes from fossils.

Question: What is modern evidence for Darwin's theory?
Answer: Important modern-day examples of evolution include the emergence of drug-resistant bacteria and pesticide-resistant insects.

Question: What is the impact of Darwin's theory on modern biology?
Answer: Darwin founded a new branch of life science, evolutionary biology

Question: Compare and contrast microevolution and macroevolution.
Answer: Microevolution happens on a small scale (within a single population), while macroevolution happens on a scale that transcends the boundaries of a single species.

Question: What is the relationship of Darwin's theory to speciation?
Answer: Darwin indicated that species could form by the evolution of one species splitting into two, or via a population diverging from its extant ancestor to the point it was a new species.
Question: How can you tell if someone is suffering from depression?
Answer: You may be depressed if, for more than two weeks, you've felt sad, down or miserable most of the time, or have lost interest or pleasure in usual activities, and have also experienced several of the signs and symptoms across at least three of the categories below.

Question: What are common types of depression?
Answer: he four most common types of depression are major depression, persistent depressive disorder(formerly known as dysthymia), bipolar disorder, and seasonal affective disorder.

Question: What causes depression?
Answer: Rather, there are many possible causes of depression, including faulty mood regulation by the brain, genetic vulnerability, stressful life events,

Question: What is the role of brain chemicals in depression?
Answer: A chemical imbalance in the brain is said to occur when there’s either too much or too little of certain chemicals, called neurotransmitters, in the brain. Neurotransmitters are natural chemicals that help facilitate communication between your nerve cells.

Question: Does a lack of sunlight cause depression?
Answer: If you're not careful, a lack of sunlight can actually lead to a form of clinical depression

Question: How can you treat SAD?
Answer: Treatment includes light therapy (phototherapy), talk therapy, and medications.

Question: What is the role of melatonin in SAD?
Answer: Melatonin Improves Mood In Winter Depression. ... Researchers at Oregon Health and Science University (OHSU) have found that melatonin, a naturally occurring brain substance, can relieve the doldrums of winter depression, also known as seasonal affective disorder, or SAD

Question: How are anxiety and depression related?
Answer: Depression and anxiety commonly occur together and have similar treatments: counseling (psychotherapy) or medication, such as antidepressants, or both.

Question: What treatments exist for depression?
Answer: Some people get psychotherapy. They also might take antidepressants or follow other treatments.

Question: What is CBT and how does it work as a treatment for depression?
Answer: Treatment involves developing more balanced and constructive ways to respond to stressors. Ideally these new responses will help minimize or eliminate the troubling behavior or disorder.
Question: What is a real-time database?
Answer: A real-time database is a database system which uses real-time processing to handle workloads whose state is constantly changing.

Question: How does a real-time database differ from traditional databases?
Answer: A real-time database is a database system which uses real-time processing to handle workloads whose state is constantly changing. This differs from traditional databases containing persistent data, mostly unaffected by time.

Question: What are the advantages of real-time processing in real-time databases?
Answer: Ideal for processing large volumes of data/transaction for it increases efficiency rather than processing each individually.Can be done or processed independently during less-busy times or at a desired designated time.

Question: What are examples of important real-time databases?
Answer: For example, a stock market changes very rapidly and is dynamic. The graphs of the different markets appear to be very unstable and yet a database has to keep track of current values for all of the markets of the New York Stock Exchange.

Question: What are important applications of real-time databases?
Answer: Real-time processing means that a transaction is processed fast enough for the result to come back and be acted on right away. Real-time databases are useful for accounting, banking, law, medical records, multi-media, process control, reservation systems, and scientific data analysis.

Question: What are important cloud options for real-time databases?
Answer: Amazon Web Services. ...Microsoft Azure SQL Database. ...Microsoft Azure DocumentDB. ...Cloud SQL by Google. ...Oracle Database as a Service.

Question: Tell me about the Firebase DB.
Answer: The Firebase Realtime Database is a cloud-hosted NoSQL database that lets you store and sync data between your users in realtime.

Question: How is Firebase DB used in mobile apps?
Answer: The client app uses the Firebase Realtime Database to store and sync messages and to record user-event logs.
Question: Which weekend sports have the most injuries?
Answer: Which sports cause the most injuries to high school athletes?Volleyball: 14,304.Softball: 18,119.Wrestling/boxing/martial arts: 18,174.Gymnastics/cheerleading/dance: 22,671.Baseball: 27,208.Soccer: 45,475.Football: 118,886.Basketball: 119,589.

Question: What are the most common types of injuries?
Answer: The most common types of sports injuries include:Sprains. Overstretching or tearing the ligaments results in a sprain. ...Strains. Overstretching or tearing muscles or tendons results in a sprain. ...Knee injuries. ...Swollen muscles. ...Achilles tendon rupture. ...Fractures. ...Dislocations. ...Rotator cuff injury.

Question: What is the ACL?
Answer: The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) is one of the key ligaments that help stabilize your knee joint. The ACL connects your thighbone (femur) to your shinbone (tibia).

Question: What is an injury for the ACL?
Answer: An ACL injury is a tear or sprain of the anterior cruciate (KROO-she-ate) ligament (ACL) — one of the major ligaments in your knee. ACL injuries most commonly occur during sports that involve sudden stops or changes in direction, jumping and landing — such as soccer, basketball, football and downhill skiing.

Question: Tell me about the RICE method.
Answer: RICE is a mnemonic acronym for four elements of treatment for soft tissue injuries: rest, ice, compression, and elevation.

Question: Is there disagreement about the RICE method?
Answer: They suggested the acronym MICE to replace RICE, where Rest is replaced with Movement. The Whartons advocated that once fracture or catastrophic injury is excluded: movement is best, not rest, to treat an injury.

Question: What is arnica used for in sports injuries?
Answer: Arnica is used for bruises, sprains, muscle soreness, and muscle spasms often associated with sports activity. Arnica is also used to treat muscular aches, joint pain, and arthritis.

Question: What are some ways to avoid sports injuries?
Answer: Five Ways to Avoid Sports InjuriesWear protective gear, such as helmets, protective pads, and other gear.Warm up and cool down.Know the rules of the game.Watch out for others.Don't play when you're injured.
Question: Tell me about the benefits of yoga.
Answer: Other physical benefits of yoga include:increased flexibility.increased muscle strength and tone.improved respiration, energy and vitality.maintaining a balanced metabolism.weight reduction.cardio and circulatory health.improved athletic performance.protection from injury

Question: Does yoga help in reducing stress?
Answer: Yoga is a mind-body practice that combines physical poses, controlled breathing, and meditation or relaxation. Yoga may help reduce stress, lower blood pressure and lower your heart rate.

Question: What are some of the main types of yoga?
Answer: Anusara. Developed by American yogi John Friend in 1997, Anusara yoga is a relative newcomer to the yoga world. ...Ashtanga. Ashtanga is based on ancient yoga teachings, but it was popularized and brought to the West by K. Pattabhi Jois (pronounced pah-tah-bee joyce) in the 1970s. ...Bikram. ...Hatha. ...Hot Yoga. ...Iyengar. ...Vinyasa.

Question: What type of yoga is best for losing weight?
Answer: If your goal is weight loss, choosing one of the vigorous, flowing styles of yoga, such as Ashtanga, Vinyasa or Power Yoga, is the smart choice. These classes traditionally last 90 minutes, and can most definitely have a cardiovascular benefit

Question: What are common poses in Bikram yoga?
Answer: Below, you'll find the 26 poses of Bikram yoga, so you can try it out for yourself at home!Standing Deep Breathing: Pranayama. Image credit: Bikram yoga. ...Half Moon Pose. ...Awkward Pose. ...Eagle Pose. ...Standing Head-to-Knee Pose. ...Standing Bow-Pulling Pose. ...Balancing Stick Pose. ...Standing Separate Leg Stretching Pose.

Question: Why is mindful breathing important in yoga?
Answer: Mindful breathing exercises can do wonders for your brain, a new study suggests. Lately, more and more studies have confirmed that yoga and mindfulness benefit the brain as much as the body.

Question: Does mindful breathing help relieve asthma?
Answer: Meditation for stress relief is one adjunctive treatment that may help you get control of your asthma
Question: Who are The Avengers?
Answer: The Avengers are a fictional team of superheroes appearing in limited series comic books published by Marvel Comics. ... Labeled Earth's Mightiest Heroes, the Avengers originally consisted of Ant-Man, the Hulk, Iron Man, Thor, and the Wasp.

Question: Tell me about The Avengers' first appearance.
Answer: First appearance The Avengers #1 (September, 1963)

Question: Who is the most powerful of The Avengers and why?
Answer: Thor. Although stronger than most of his mortal teammates, Thor is far from the strongest Avenger.

Question: What is the relationship of Spider-Man to The Avengers?
Answer: While Tom Holland's Spider-Man was “knighted” as an Avenger by Tony Stark (Robert Downey Jr.) in Avengers: Infinity War

Question: Why is Batman not a member of The Avengers?
Answer: Why isn't Batman an Avenger? Simply put, because he is a DC character and not a Marvel character.

Question: Tell me about the origins of the Justice League in the DC universe.
Answer: Originally consisting of Superman, Batman, Wonder Woman, The Flash/Barry Allen, Green Lantern/Hal Jordan, Aquaman and the Martian Manhunter, they first appeared together as the Justice League of America (JLA) in The Brave and the Bold #28 (March 1960).

Question: Who are the important members of the Justice League?
Answer: The seven original members of the Justice League pictured from left to right: Green Lantern, Flash, Superman, Batman, Wonder Woman, Aquaman and Martian Manhunter.

Question: Did the Justice League or The Avengers come first?
Answer: The precursor to the Justice League was the Justice Society of America, who first appeared nearly two decades earlier, in All-Star Comics #3 of December 1940. The first appearance of the Avengers as a team was in their self-titled series, in September 1963.
Question: What is blockchain?
Answer: A blockchain, originally block chain, is a growing list of records, called blocks, that are linked using cryptography. Each block contains a cryptographic hash of the previous block, a timestamp, and transaction data.

Question: What problem does blockchain solve?
Answer: Blockchain technology solves the Byzantine General's Problem using a proof-of-work consensus algorithm

Question: How does blockchain work?
Answer: A Blockchain is a type of diary or spreadsheet containing information about transactions. Each transaction generates a hash

Question: What are the types of blockchain networks?
Answer: Currently, there are at least four types of blockchain networks — public blockchains, private blockchains, consortium blockchains and hybrid blockchains.

Question: Tell me about blockchain's invention.
Answer: Blockchain was invented by a person (or group of people) using the name Satoshi Nakamoto in 2008 to serve as the public transaction ledger of the cryptocurrency bitcoin.

Question: How is blockchain related to cryptocurrencies?
Answer: The blockchain is the technology that is serves as the distributed ledger that forms the network. ... Cryptocurrencies are the tokens used within these networks to send value and pay for these transactions.

Question: How is Bitcoin generated?
Answer: New bitcoins are generated by a competitive and decentralized process called mining. This process involves that individuals are rewarded by the network for their services.

Question: How secure is blockchain?
Answer: Private keys are even more secure as they are considerably longer. It is in this way that blockchain offers a greater level of security to the individual user as it removes the need for weak and easily compromised passwords and online identities.

Question: What are blockchain's other uses in business?
Answer: Within the context of data and business intelligence storage, blockchain can be used to drastically improve security and decrease dependency on central entities.

Question: What are the implications of blockchain for society?
Answer: The management of assets on a blockchain have a number of advantages, from which impact investing could potentially benefit: greater transparency, enhanced security, improved traceability, increased efficiency and speed of transactions, and reduced costs.
Question: What is nominal GDP?
Answer: Nominal GDP is GDP evaluated at current market prices. Therefore, nominal GDP will include all of the changes in market prices that have occurred during the current year due to inflation or deflation.

Question: Why is nominal GDP not a good measure?
Answer: The problem comes when you're comparing GDP across different time periods. Nominal GDP includes “growth” in the value of output due to inflation as well as production

Question: What is the between nominal and real GDP?
Answer: Nominal GDP is the sum-total of the economic output produced in a year valued at the current market price. Real GDP is the sum-total of the economic output produced in a year values at a pre-determined base market price.

Question: How is nominal GDP related to gross national income?
Answer: The gross national income (GNI), previously known as gross national product (GNP), is the total domestic and foreign output claimed by residents of a country, consisting of gross domestic product (GDP), plus factor incomes earned by foreign residents, minus income earned in the domestic economy by nonresidents

Question: What is the meaning of GNI?
Answer: Gross national income (GNI) is the sum of value added by all resident producers plus any product taxes (less subsidies) not included in the valuation of output plus net receipts of primary income (compensation of employees and property income) from abroad.

Question: How is inflation affected by high GDP growth?
Answer: Higher production leads to a lower unemployment rate, further fueling demand. Increased wages lead to higher demand as consumers spend more freely. This leads to higher GDP combined with inflation.

Question: What is the relationship between inflation and unemployment?
Answer: The Phillips curve argues that unemployment and inflation are inversely related: as levels of unemployment decrease, inflation increases.

Question: What is frictional unemployment and why is it important?
Answer: Frictional unemployment is when workers are jobless and looking for work in a healthy economy. It doesn't matter if they leave voluntarily or are fired.

Question: Is frictional unemployment bad for the economy?
Answer: An increase in frictional unemployment means more workers are moving toward better positions. In fact, frictional unemployment benefits the economy.

Question: How can the government reduce the level of frictional unemployment?
Answer: Frictional unemployment can be reduced by bringing better information about jobs to the worker.
Question: Tell me about lavender plants.
Answer: Lavandula is a genus of 47 known species of flowering plants in the mint family, Lamiaceae. It is native to the Old World and is found from Cape Verde and the Canary Islands, Europe across to northern and eastern Africa, the Mediterranean, southwest Asia to southeast India.

Question: What are the different types of lavender plants?
Answer: List of the Primary Types of LavenderEnglish Lavender (Lavandula angustifolia) ...French Lavender or Spanish Lavender (Lavandula stoechas) ...French Lavender (Lavandula dentata) ...Portuguese Lavender (Lavandula latifolia) ...Egyptian Lavender (Lavandula multifida)

Question: What places are famous for lavender plants?
Answer: Valensole Plauteau is located in the south of France and their lavender fields cover over 300 square miles. The best time to visit in during the blooming season in July.

Question: Are lavender plants safe to eat?
Answer: As a member of the same family as many of our most popular herbs, it is not surprising that lavender is edible and that it's use in food preparation is also returning. Flowers and leaves can be used fresh, and both buds and stems can be used dried.

Question: What variety of lavender is best for cooking?
Answer: Although most varieties of lavender can be used in cooking, some varieties are more widely used, such as Lavandula angustifolia, particularly 'Munstead' (USDA zones 5 through 8). These lavenders have the sweetest fragrance among all species of lavender, which creates flavor in cooking

Question: How is lavender used in cooking?
Answer: Grind the lavender in a herb or coffee grinder or mash it with mortar and pestle. The spikes and leaves of culinary lavender can be used in most dishes in place of rosemary in most recipes.

Question: What foods is lavender good for cooking with?
Answer: Lavender's sweet, fragrant flavor complements a range of foods, both sweet and savory. Ingredients lavender goes well with include strawberries, blueberries, pears, lemon, orange, honey, sage, rosemary, oregano, thyme, black pepper, and chocolate.

Question: What are the health benefits of lavender oil?
Answer: What Are Possible Health Benefits of Lavender?May Help Improve Sleep. ...Could Help Treat Skin Blemishes. ...May Offer a Natural Remedy for Pain. ...Reduce Blood Pressure and Heart Rate. ...Could Relieve Asthma Symptoms. ...Lessens Menopausal Hot Flashes. ...Help Combat Fungus Growth. ...Potentially Promotes Hair Growth.

Question: Are there any side effects of lavender oil?
Answer: Although not all side effects are known, lavender is thought to be likely safe for most people. Stop using lavender and call your healthcare provider at once if you have: severe drowsiness.
Question: Why is blood red?
Answer: Each hemoglobin protein is made up subunits called hemes, which are what give blood its red color. More specifically, the hemes can bind iron molecules, and these iron molecules bind oxygen.

Question: What are red blood cells?
Answer: The main job of red blood cells, or erythrocytes, is to carry oxygen from the lungs to the body tissues and carbon dioxide as a waste product, away from the tissues and back to the lungs. Hemoglobin (Hgb) is an important protein in the red blood cells that carries oxygen from the lungs to all parts of our body.

Question: How are red blood cells created?
Answer: Production of red blood cells is controlled by erythropoietin, a hormone produced primarily by the kidneys. Red blood cells start as immature cells in the bone marrow and after approximately seven days of maturation are released into the bloodstream.

Question: How is oxygen transported in blood?
Answer: The red blood cells contain a pigment called haemoglobin, each molecule of which binds four oxygen molecules. Oxyhaemoglobin forms. The oxygen molecules are carried to individual cells in the body tissue where they are released.

Question: What is anemia?
Answer: a condition marked by a deficiency of red blood cells or of hemoglobin in the blood, resulting in pallor and weariness.

Question: What are the symptoms of anemia?
Answer: Symptoms common to many types of anemia include the following:Easy fatigue and loss of energy.Unusually rapid heart beat, particularly with exercise.Shortness of breath and headache, particularly with exercise.Difficulty concentrating.Dizziness.Pale skin.Leg cramps.Insomnia.

Question: Can anemia go away?
Answer: Your iron deficiency anemia symptoms should start to go away after about a week of taking iron supplements. Your doctor will check your blood to see if it has improved.

Question: What are anemia's possible causes?
Answer: Known causes of hemolytic anemia may include: Inherited conditions, such as sickle cell anemia and thalassemia. Stressors such as infections, drugs, snake or spider venom, or certain foods

Question: How is anemia treated?
Answer: Treatment for this form of anemia usually involves taking iron supplements and changing your diet. If the cause of iron deficiency is loss of blood — other than from menstruation — the source of the bleeding must be located and the bleeding stopped. This might involve surgery.

Question: What foods contain high levels of iron?
Answer: Here are 11 healthy foods that are high in iron.Shellfish. Share on Pinterest. ...Spinach. Spinach provides many health benefits for very few calories. ...Liver and Other Organ Meats. Organ meats are extremely nutritious. ...Legumes. Legumes are loaded with nutrients. ...Red Meat. ...Pumpkin Seeds. ...Quinoa. ...Turkey.

Question: What improves iron absorption?
Answer: You can improve your body's absorption by eating foods containing vitamin C, vitamin A, meat, fish and poultry during your meals