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Answer the question based on the following context: The aim of this study was to evaluate the relationship between vitamin D levels and hemostatic factors like tissue factor pathway inhibitor (TFPI). Patients who had 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 (25(OH)D3) levels measured were included. Coagulation and hemostatic parameters were evaluated. Patients were divided into 3 groups based on 25(OH)D3 levels as group 1 (25(OH)D3<10 ng/mL, n = 25), group 2 (25(OH)D3 = 10-19.9 ng/mL, n = 22), and group 3 (25(OH)D3 ≥ 20 ng/mL, n = 28). A total of 75 patients with a mean age of 39 (range 18-57) years were included in the study. Prothrombin time was longer in group 3 than in group 2 (P = .043). The TFPI levels were higher in group 3 than in the other groups (P<.001). There was a strong positive correlation between 25(OH)D3 and TFPI levels (r = .47, P<.001).

Question: Is there any association between thrombosis and tissue factor pathway inhibitor levels in patients with vitamin D deficiency?

Further studies are needed for evaluation of the role of TFPI in hemostasis and thrombotic process in patients with vitamin D deficiency.

Answer the question based on the following context: The significance of the possible presence of infection on the Pap smear of asymptomatic women based on cytological criteria is practically unknown. A total of 1117 asymptomatic nonpregnant women had Pap smear tests and vaginal as well as cervical cultures completed (622 with and 495 without inflammation on the Pap smear). Out of the 622 women with inflammation on Pap test, 251 (40.4%) had negative cultures (normal flora present), while 371 (59.6%) women had positive cultures with different pathogens. In contrast, the group of women without inflammation on Pap test displayed significantly increased percentage of negative cultures (67.1%, P<0.001) and decreased percentage of positive cultures (32.9%, P<0.001). Bacterial vaginosis was diagnosed more frequently in both groups and significantly more in the group with inflammation on Pap smear compared to the group without inflammation (P<0.02).

Question: Inflammation on the cervical papanicolaou smear: evidence for infection in asymptomatic women?

A report of inflammatory changes on the cervical Pap smear cannot be used to reliably predict the presence of a genital tract infection, especially in asymptomatic women. Nevertheless, the isolation of different pathogens in about 60% of the women with inflammation on the Pap smear cannot be overlooked and must be regarded with concern.

Answer the question based on the following context: Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA) is a potentially valuable method for assessing lean mass and body fat levels in children from different ethnic groups. We examined the need for ethnic- and gender-specific equations for estimating fat free mass (FFM) from BIA in children from different ethnic groups and examined their effects on the assessment of ethnic differences in body fat. Cross-sectional study of children aged 8-10 years in London Primary schools including 325 South Asians, 250 black African-Caribbeans and 289 white Europeans with measurements of height, weight and arm-leg impedance (Z; Bodystat 1500). Total body water was estimated from deuterium dilution and converted to FFM. Multilevel models were used to derive three types of equation {A: FFM = linear combination(height+weight+Z); B: FFM = linear combination(height(2)/Z); C: FFM = linear combination(height(2)/Z+weight)}. Ethnicity and gender were important predictors of FFM and improved model fit in all equations. The models of best fit were ethnicity and gender specific versions of equation A, followed by equation C; these provided accurate assessments of ethnic differences in FFM and FM. In contrast, the use of generic equations led to underestimation of both the negative South Asian-white European FFM difference and the positive black African-Caribbean-white European FFM difference (by 0.53 kg and by 0.73 kg respectively for equation A). The use of generic equations underestimated the positive South Asian-white European difference in fat mass (FM) and overestimated the positive black African-Caribbean-white European difference in FM (by 4.7% and 10.1% respectively for equation A). Consistent results were observed when the equations were applied to a large external data set.

Question: Are ethnic and gender specific equations needed to derive fat free mass from bioelectrical impedance in children of South asian, black african-Caribbean and white European origin?

Ethnic- and gender-specific equations for predicting FFM from BIA provide better estimates of ethnic differences in FFM and FM in children, while generic equations can misrepresent these ethnic differences.

Answer the question based on the following context: Antidepressants are effective in treating interferon-α/ribavirin (IFN-α/RBV)-associated depression during or after treatment of chronic hepatitis C (CHC). Whether antidepressant prophylaxis is necessary in this population remains under debate. Comprehensive searches were performed in Medline, Embase, Cochrane Controlled Trials Register and PubMed. Reference lists were searched manually. The methodology was in accordance with the 2009 PRISMA (Preferred Reporting Items for Systematic Reviews and Meta-Analysis) Statement. We identified six randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled trials involving 522 CHC patients treated with pegylated (PEG)-IFN-α plus RBV. The antidepressants used were escitalopram, citalopram, and paroxetine, which are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). The rates of depression (17.9% vs. 31.0%, P = 0.0005), and rescue therapy (27.4% vs. 42.7%, P<0.0001) in the SSRI group were significantly lower than those in the placebo group. The rate of sustained virological response (SVR) (56.8% vs. 50.0%, P = 0.60) and drug discontinuation (18.7% vs. 21.1%, P = 0.63) in the SSRI group did not differ significantly to those in the placebo group. In terms of safety, the incidence of muscle and joint pain (40.8% vs. 52.4%, P = 0.03) and respiratory problems (29.3% vs. 40.1%, P = 0.03) were lower, but the incidence of dizziness was significantly higher (22.3% vs. 10.2%, P = 0.001) in the SSRI group.

Question: Can antidepressants prevent pegylated interferon-α/ribavirin-associated depression in patients with chronic hepatitis C: meta-analysis of randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled trials?

Prophylactic SSRI antidepressants can significantly reduce the incidence of PEG-IFN-α/RBV-associated depression in patients with CHC, with good safety and tolerability, without reduction of SVR.

Answer the question based on the following context: Although the negative effects of roads on the genetics of animal populations have been extensively reported, the question of whether roads reduce gene flow in volant, urban bird populations has so far not been addressed. In this study, we assess whether highways decreased gene flow and genetic variation in a small passerine bird, the tree sparrow (Passer montanus). We assessed genetic differences among tree sparrows (Passer montanus) sampled at 19 sites within Beijing Municipality, China, using 7 DNA microsatellites as genetic markers. AMOVA showed that genetic variation between sites, between urban and rural populations, and between opposite sides of the same highway, were very weak. Mantel tests on all samples, and on urban samples only, indicated that the age and number of highways, and the number of ordinary roads, were uncorrelated with genetic differences (F ST) among tree sparrows from different urban sites. Birds sampled at urban sites had similar levels of genetic diversity to those at rural sites. There was, however, evidence of some weak genetic structure between urban sites. Firstly, there were significant genetic differences (F ST) between birds from opposite sides of the same highway, but no significant F ST values between those from sites that were not separated by highways. Secondly, birds from eleven urban sites had loci that significantly deviated from the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium but no such deviation was found in birds from rural sites.

Question: Do major roads reduce gene flow in urban bird populations?

We cannot, therefore, conclusively reject the hypothesis that highways have no effect on the gene flow of tree sparrow populations. Furthermore, since the significance of these results may increase with time, we suggested that research on the influence of highways on gene flow in urban bird populations needs to be conducted over several decades.

Answer the question based on the following context: Measurement of intra-abdominal pressure (IAP) is an important parameter in the surveillance of intensive care unit patients. Standard values of IAP during pregnancy have not been well defined. The aim of this study was to assess IAP values in pregnant women before and after cesarean delivery. This prospective study, carried out from January to December 2011 in a French tertiary care centre, included women with an uneventful pregnancy undergoing elective cesarean delivery at term. IAP was measured through a Foley catheter inserted in the bladder under spinal anaesthesia before cesarean delivery, and every 30 minutes during the first two hours in the immediate postoperative period. The study included 70 women. Mean IAP before cesarean delivery was 14.2 mmHg (95%CI: 6.3-23). This value was significantly higher than in the postoperative period: 11.5 mmHg (95%CI: 5-19.7) for the first measurement (p = 0.002). IAP did not significantly change during the following two postoperative hours (p = 0.2). Obese patients (n = 25) had a preoperative IAP value significantly higher than non-obese patients: 15.7 vs. 12.4; p = 0.02.

Question: Are standard intra-abdominal pressure values different during pregnancy?

In term pregnancies, IAP values are significantly higher before delivery than in the post-partum period, where IAP values remain elevated for at least two hours at the level of postoperative classical abdominal surgery. The knowledge of these physiological changes in IAP values may help prevent organ dysfunction/failure when abdominal compartment syndrome occurs after cesarean delivery.

Answer the question based on the following context: To examine the prevalence of refractive errors in children aged 3-6 years in China. Children were recruited for a trial of a home-based amblyopia screening kit in Guangzhou preschools, during which cycloplegic refractions were measured in both eyes of 2480 children. Cycloplegic refraction (from 3 to 4 drops of 1% cyclopentolate to ensure abolition of the light reflex) was measured by both autorefraction and retinoscopy. Refractive errors were defined as followed: myopia (at least -0.50 D in the worse eye), hyperopia (at least +2.00 D in the worse eye) and astigmatism (at least 1.50 D in the worse eye). Different definitions, as specified in the text, were also used to facilitate comparison with other studies. The mean spherical equivalent refractive error was at least +1.22 D for all ages and both genders. The prevalence of myopia for any definition at any age was at most 2.5%, and lower in most cases. In contrast, the prevalence of hyperopia was generally over 20%, and declined slightly with age. The prevalence of astigmatism was between 6% and 11%. There was very little change in refractive error with age over this age range.

Question: Refractive errors in 3-6 year-old Chinese children: a very low prevalence of myopia?

Previous reports of less hyperopic mean spherical equivalent refractive error, and more myopia and less hyperopia in children of this age may be due to problems with achieving adequate cycloplegia in children with dark irises. Using up to 4 drops of 1% cyclopentolate may be necessary to accurately measure refractive error in paediatric studies of such children. Our results suggest that children from all ethnic groups may follow a similar pattern of early refractive development, with little myopia and a hyperopic mean spherical equivalent over +1.00 D up to the age of 5-6 years in most conditions.

Answer the question based on the following context: To evaluate immediate perineal and neonatal morbidity associated with instrumental rotations performed with Thierry's spatulas for the management of persistent posterior occiput (OP) positions. Retrospective study including all persistent occiput posterior positions with vaginal OP delivery, from August 2006 to September 2007. Occiput anterior deliveries following successful instrumental rotation were included as well. We compared maternal and neonatal immediate outcomes between spontaneous deliveries, rotational and non rotational assisted deliveries, using χ(2) and Anova tests. 157 patients were enrolled, comprising 46 OP spontaneous deliveries, 58 assisted OP deliveries and 53 deliveries after rotational procedure. Instrumental rotation failed in 9 cases. Mean age and parity were significantly higher in the spontaneous delivery group, while labor duration was shorter. There were no significant differences in the rate of severe perineal tears and neonatal adverse outcomes between the 3 groups.

Question: Instrumental rotation for persistent fetal occiput posterior position: a way to decrease maternal and neonatal injury?

Instrumental rotation using Thierry's spatulas was not associated with a reduced risk of maternal and neonatal morbidity for persistent OP deliveries. Further studies are required to define the true interest of such procedure in modern obstetrics.

Answer the question based on the following context: To assess the clinical value of dual tracers Positron emission tomography/computed tomography (PET/CT) (18)F-fluoroestradiol ((18)F-FES) and (18)F-fluorodeoxyglucose ((18)F-FDG) in predicting neoadjuvant chemotherapy response (NAC) of breast cancer. Eighteen consecutive patients with newly diagnosed, non-inflammatory, stage II and III breast cancer undergoing NAC were included. Before chemotherapy, they underwent both (18)F-FES and (18)F-FDG PET/CT scans. Surgery was performed after three to six cycles of chemotherapy. Tumor response was graded and divided into two groups: the responders and non-responders. We used the maximum standardized uptake value (SUVmax) to qualify each primary lesion. Pathologic analysis revealed 10 patients were responders while the other 8 patients were non-responders. There was no statistical difference of SUVmax-FDG and tumor size between these two groups (P>0.05). On the contrary, SUVmax-FES was lower in responders (1.75±0.66 versus 4.42±1.14; U=5, P=0.002); and SUVmax-FES/FDG also showed great value in predicting outcome (0.16±0.06 versus 0.54±0.22; U=5, P=0.002).

Question: Can positron emission tomography/computed tomography with the dual tracers fluorine-18 fluoroestradiol and fluorodeoxyglucose predict neoadjuvant chemotherapy response of breast cancer?

Our study showed (18)F-FES PET/CT might be feasible to predict response of NAC. However, whether the use of dual tracers (18)F-FES and (18)F-FDG has complementary value should be further studied.

Answer the question based on the following context: Landmark clinical trials have led to optimal treatment recommendations for patients with diabetes. Whether optimal treatment is actually delivered in practice is even more important than the efficacy of the drugs tested in trials. To this end, treatment quality indicators have been developed and tested against intermediate outcomes. No studies have tested whether these treatment quality indicators also predict hard patient outcomes. A cohort study was conducted using data collected from>10.000 diabetes patients in the Groningen Initiative to Analyze Type 2 Treatment (GIANTT) database and Dutch Hospital Data register. Included quality indicators measured glucose-, lipid-, blood pressure- and albuminuria-lowering treatment status and treatment intensification. Hard patient outcome was the composite of cardiovascular events and all-cause death. Associations were tested using Cox regression adjusting for confounding, reporting hazard ratios (HR) with 95% confidence intervals. Lipid and albuminuria treatment status, but not blood pressure lowering treatment status, were associated with the composite outcome (HR = 0.77, 0.67-0.88; HR = 0.75, 0.59-0.94). Glucose lowering treatment status was associated with the composite outcome only in patients with an elevated HbA1c level (HR = 0.72, 0.56-0.93). Treatment intensification with glucose-lowering but not with lipid-, blood pressure- and albuminuria-lowering drugs was associated with the outcome (HR = 0.73, 0.60-0.89).

Question: Do treatment quality indicators predict cardiovascular outcomes in patients with diabetes?

Treatment quality indicators measuring lipid- and albuminuria-lowering treatment status are valid quality measures, since they predict a lower risk of cardiovascular events and mortality in patients with diabetes. The quality indicators for glucose-lowering treatment should only be used for restricted populations with elevated HbA1c levels. Intriguingly, the tested indicators for blood pressure-lowering treatment did not predict patient outcomes. These results question whether all treatment indicators are valid measures to judge quality of health care and its economics.

Answer the question based on the following context: Recent research has identified younger women as an "at-risk" population with rising prevalence of cardiac risk factors and excess mortality risk following acute myocardial infarction (AMI). However, population-based data on trends in AMI hospitalization and early mortality post AMI among younger adults is scarce. We, therefore, aimed to provide a 10-year, descriptive analysis of these trends in a Canadian setting. We assessed trends and sex differences in AMI hospitalization and 30-day mortality rates using negative binomial and logistic regression, respectively. From 2000 to 2009, there were 70,628 AMI hospitalizations in adults aged ≥20 years, in British Columbia, Canada, with 17.1% of cohort being younger adults ≤55 years. Overall, age-standardized AMI rates (per 100,000 population) declined similarly in men (295.8 to 247.7) and women (152.1 to 128.8) [sex-year interaction p=0.81]. However, these trends differed according to age (age-sex-year interaction p=0.02) with increased rates observed only in younger women (+1.7% per year; p=0.04). The 30-day mortality rates declined similarly for women (19.4% to 13.9%) and men (13.0% to 9.3%) (sex-year interaction p=0.33). Yet, younger women continued to have excess mortality risk, compared with younger men, even in the most recent period [odds ratio: (2008-09)=1.61 (95% onfidence interval: 1.25, 2.08)].

Question: Do younger women fare worse?

While the overall AMI hospitalization and 30-day mortality rates significantly declined in women and men, hospitalization rates in women ≤55 years increased and their excess risk of 30-day mortality persisted. These findings highlight the need to intensify strategies to reduce the incidence of AMI and improve outcomes after AMI in younger women.

Answer the question based on the following context: The optimal learner to simulator ratio for procedural skills training is not known. Research in motor learning suggests observational training in pairs, termed 'dyad training', may be as effective as directed self-regulated learning (DSRL). This study was conducted to compare the relative effectiveness and efficiency of dyad versus DSRL training of simulation-based lumbar puncture (LP). We conducted a two-group randomised equivalence trial. First-year internal medicine residents (n = 50) were randomly assigned to learn LP either in dyads or as individual learners on a simulator, using a directed self-regulated approach (i.e. the learning sequence was defined for them, but they defined the pace of learning). Participants were videotaped performing a simulated LP on a pre-test, an immediate post-test, and a 6-week delayed retention test. In duplicate, blinded raters independently evaluated all trainee performances using a previously validated 5-point global rating scale (GRS) and 35-item checklist. Our analyses showed no significant differences (p = 0.69) on pre-test, post-test or retention test GRS scores between the dyad (mean ± standard deviation [SD] scores by test: 2.39 ± 0.57, 3.48 ± 0.62, 3.12 ± 0.85, respectively) and DSRL (mean ± SD scores by test: 2.67 ± 0.50, 3.34 ± 0.77, 3.21 ± 0.79, respectively) groups. Both groups improved significantly from pre-test to post-test (p < 0.001) and retained that performance following the 6-week delay. Dyad participants experienced significantly greater pre-test to post-test gains than DSRL participants (p = 0.02). There was no significant difference in total practice time between the groups (20.94 minutes for individuals and 24.20 minutes for dyads; p = 0.175).

Question: Are two heads better than one?

Our results indicate that learning in pairs is as effective as independent DSRL. Dyad training permits the more efficient use of simulators as two learners use the same resources as an individual.

Answer the question based on the following context: Minimal hepatic encephalopathy (MHE) is diagnosed when hepatic patients perform worse on psychometric tests compared to healthy controls. This study aimed to evaluate probiotics as alternative therapy in MHE. This is an open-label randomised controlled trial, performed in the Department of Tropical Medicine and Infectious Diseases, Tanta University Hospitals, from March 2010 to January 2012. A total of 90 patients with MHE were allocated by simple randomisation to three parallel equal groups. Group A received lactulose, group B a probiotic (Lactobacillus acidophilus) and group C served as the control. After informed consent, patients were tested for gut micrecology, fasting blood ammonia, liver functions and magnetic resonance spectroscopy (MRS) examination to study brain metabolites, mainly choline (Cho), myo-inositol (mI), glutamine+glutamate (Glx) and creatinin (Cre). Patients who developed overt encephalopathy were excluded from analysis. The whole battery of investigations was repeated in the same order after 4weeks. The probiotic was better tolerated than lactulose. The relative risk reduction (RRR) of developing overt encephalopathy was 60% in the case of lactulose and 80% in the case of probiotic, with a number needed to treat (NNT) of 2.4 and 2.3, respectively. The differential but not total microecology count was significantly shifted towards saccharolytic rather than proteolytic bacteria. The mI/Cre and (Cho+mI)/Glx ratios were significantly increased and the Glx/Cre ratio was significantly reduced after 1month-follow-up in the probiotic group compared to the lactulose group and in both treatment groups compared to the control group.

Question: Can Lactobacillus acidophilus improve minimal hepatic encephalopathy?

Both probiotic and lactulose therapy can improve blood ammonia and psychometric tests in MHE and reduce the risk of developing overt encephalopathy. MRS showed more improvement in the levels of brain neurometabolites in the probiotic group.

Answer the question based on the following context: Perforation of the nasal septum is a frustrating problem frequently reported in the literature. Surprisingly, in most reports, iatrogenic perforation during septoplasty and electrocautery are the leading causes of this complication. This article presents the management of septal perforations and the indications for an extracorporeal approach. Fourteen patients with septal perforations were referred for treatment. Treatment was chosen based on defect size. Flaps, extracorporeal repair, or no treatment was used as indicated. Two of 14 perforations were small and were repaired by local flaps, 5 cases were treated by extracorporeal repair, and the 7 remaining cases required no surgical procedure.

Question: Management of perforations of the nasal septum: can extracorporeal septoplasty be an effective option?

The extracorporeal technique, when indicated, can be used effectively for the repair of nasal septum perforations in selected cases.

Answer the question based on the following context: During the last decade laparoscopy has increasingly been advocated as the primary investigative procedure for the management of the non-palpable testis. We reviewed the medical records in a consecutive series of boys with non-palpable testis to examine the contribution of the initial inguinal approach in the management of unilateral non-palpable testis. Among the 183 consecutive patients with cryptorchidism from 2003 to 2012, there were 21 patients with unilateral and three with bilateral non-palpable testes. All unilateral patients then underwent inguinal and scrotal exploration through an inguinal incision. For those patients with an intra-abdominal peeping testis, the gonad was placed into the scrotum after meticulous cranial mobilization of the spermatic cord. Patient age ranged from 11 months to 144 months (mean age: 23 months). Among the 21 unilateral cases, testicular absence or atrophy was confirmed in seven patients with a scrotal nubbin in six, and blind-ending vas and vessels at the external inguinal ring in one patient. Among the remaining 14 patients with sizeable testes, 12 testes were intra-abdominal peeping testes and two testicles were seen within the distal inguinal canal, which may be missed on physical examination owing to patient obesity. The intra-abdominal peeping testicle had the opened processus vaginalis entering the internal ring in which testicle was found. These were fixed into the scrotum successfully by cranial mobilization of spermatic vessel sometimes cutting the internal oblique muscle and by Prentiss and Fowler-Stephen's maneuver. Diagnostic laparoscopy was done on three patients with bilateral cases.

Question: Inguinal approach for the management of unilateral non-palpable testis: is diagnostic laparoscopy necessary?

Given the result that most of nubbins are within the scrotum and testes with intra-abdominal peeping testes are fixed down safely into the scrotum, the inguinal approach may suffice for the management of unilateral non-palpable testis. Laparoscopy should be reserved for patients with bilateral non-palpable undescended testes.

Answer the question based on the following context: To determine whether evaluation of the first occurring symptom and bother of mixed urinary incontinence (MUI) might help in the clinical assessment of incontinent women. Prospective observational study carried out in a tertiary referral urogynaecology unit in London. Women who underwent urodynamic investigations for MUI were asked whether stress or urgency incontinence was the first occurring symptom and which was the most bothersome one. Sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value (PPV) and negative predictive value (NPV) for the first occurring symptom and most bothersome component of their mixed urinary incontinence symptoms in relation to the urodynamic diagnosis were calculated. One hundred and eighty women with MUI were studied. Initial or most bothersome urgency urinary incontinence (UUI) had a good specificity and PPV for diagnosing detrusor overactivity (DO). When UUI was the initial and most bothersome symptom the specificity and NPV increased up to 93% and 73%. Stress urinary incontinence (SUI) as first occurring or most bothersome had a moderate specificity, PPV and NPV for diagnosing urodynamic stress incontinence (USI). When SUI was the initial and most bothersome symptom the specificity, PPV and NPV increased up to 91%, 70% and 78%. Initial or most bothersome UUI with antecedent or most bothersome SUI had a high specificity and good NPV for a mixed urodynamic diagnosis of DO and USI.

Question: Does the onset or bother of mixed urinary incontinence symptoms help in the urodynamic diagnosis?

Determination of the first occurring and most bothersome symptom in women with MUI relates closely to the urodynamic diagnosis. Therefore, our symptom-guided approach may in some cases provide useful information directing the clinician towards a more appropriate therapy when urodynamics are inconclusive or cannot be performed.

Answer the question based on the following context: Educational attainment has been shown to influence access to and quality of health care. However, the influence of educational attainment on decision-making at the end of life with possible or certain life-shortening effect (ELDs ie intensified pain and symptom alleviation, non-treatment decisions, euthanasia/physician-assisted suicide, and life-ending acts without explicit request) is scarcely studied. This paper examines differences between educational groups pertaining to prevalence of ELDs, the decision-making process and end-of-life treatment characteristics. We performed a retrospective survey among physicians certifying a large representative sample of Belgian deaths in 2007. Differences between educational groups were adjusted for relevant confounders (age, sex, cause of death and marital status). Intensified pain and symptom alleviation and non-treatment decisions are more likely to occur in higher educated than in lower educated patients. These decisions were less likely to be discussed with either patient or family, or with colleague physicians, in lower educated patients. A positive association between education and prevalence of euthanasia/assisted suicide (acts as well as requests) disappeared when adjusting for cause of death. No differences between educational groups were found in the treatment goal in the last week, but higher educated patients were more likely to receive opioids in the last day of life.

Question: Is educational attainment related to end-of-life decision-making?

There are some important differences and possible inequities between educational groups in end-of-life decision-making in Belgium. Future research should investigate whether the found differences reflect differences in knowledge of and adherence to patient preferences, and indicate a discrepancy in quality of the end of life.

Answer the question based on the following context: Since the introduction of laparoscopic surgery for cholecystectomy in 1989, the growth of minimally invasive surgery (MIS) has increased significantly in the United States. There is a growing concern that the pendulum has now shifted too far toward MIS and that current general surgery residents' exposure to open abdominal procedures is lacking. We sought to analyze trends in open vs MIS intra-abdominal procedures performed by residents graduating from US general surgery residency programs over the past twelve years. We conducted a retrospective analysis of the data from the ACGME national resident case log reports for graduating US general surgery residents from 2000 to 2011. We analyzed the average number of cases per graduating chief resident for the following surgical procedures: appendectomy, inguinal/femoral hernia repair, gastrostomy, colectomy, antireflux procedures, and cholecystectomy. For all the procedures analyzed, except antireflux procedures, a statistically significant increase in the number of MIS cases was seen. The increases in MIS procedures were as follows: appendectomy, 8.5 to 46 (542%); inguinal/femoral hernia repair, 7.6 to 23.3 (265%); gastrostomy, 1.4 to 3 (114%); colectomy, 1.8 to 18.2 (1011%); and cholecystectomy, 84 to 105.7 (26%). The p value was set at<0.001 for all procedures. There has been a concomitant decrease in the number of open procedures. The numbers of open appendectomy decreased from 30.9 to 15.5 (p<0.0001), open inguinal/femoral hernia repair from 52.1 to 48 (p = 0.0038), open gastrostomy from 7.7 to 4.9 (p = 0.0094), open colectomy from 48 to 40.7 (p<0.0001), open cholecystectomy from 15.5 to 10.4 (p = 0.0005), and open antireflux procedures from 4.7 to 1.7 (p<0.001). An analysis conducted over time reveals that the rates of increase in MIS procedures in 5 of the 6 categories continue to rise, whereas the rates of open appendectomy, open colectomy, and open antireflux procedures continue to decrease. However, the rates of decline of open hernia repairs and open gastrostomies seem to have plateaued.

Question: Are open abdominal procedures a thing of the past?

The performance of open procedures in general surgery residency has declined significantly in the past 12 years. The effect of the decline in open cases in surgical training and practice remains to be determined.

Answer the question based on the following context: Our country faces a shortage of surgeons; hence, we may anticipate the development of new surgery residencies. Therefore, the question of the effect of a new program on operating room times (ORT) is important. Our primary aim was to compare ORT of 3 common procedures done by attendings alone vs ORT of cases with residents. We queried records of 1458 patients from the JFK Medical Center database for laparoscopic cholecystectomy, open inguinal hernia repair, and laparoscopic appendectomy from July 2010 to July 2012. We divided the sample into 2 groups: "attending alone" (2010-2011) and "with residents" (2011-2012). The ORT was calculated by "Cut time" and "Close time," as recorded in the OR. ORT for both groups was calculated using the unpaired t test. Of the total number of patients, 778 underwent laparoscopic cholecystectomy, 407 underwent open inguinal hernia repair, and 273 underwent laparoscopic appendectomy; of these, 620, 315, and 211 procedures, respectively, were done by the attending alone and 158, 92, and 62, respectively, were done with residents. Differences in ORT for the 3 types of surgery were statistically significant (p<0.001). There was no statistical significance when comparing the first half with the second half of the academic year for residents' ORT.

Question: Does a new surgical residency program increase operating room times?

Resident involvement increases ORT. Cost analysis considering OR time and anesthesia time vs federal funding for Graduate Medical Education is complicated. The benefit of new programs in diminishing the shortage of surgeons cannot be underestimated.

Answer the question based on the following context: The purposes of this study were (1) to examine whether posterior delamination is hidden to the most commonly used posterior viewing portal compared with differential rotator cuff portals and (2) to observe posterior delamination patterns so that a treatment-based classification system may be proposed. One-hundred thirty consecutive patients undergoing arthroscopic rotator cuff repair by 4 different surgeons were evaluated for the presence of posterior delamination viewable through the posterior, posterolateral, and lateral portals. Randomized arthroscopic pictures were viewed by 2 independent blinded observers, and the Fleiss κ was used to assess inter-reliability agreement. In addition, patterns of posterior delamination and surgical treatment were assessed. The incidence of posterior delamination was 88%. Only 11% of cases were visualized through the posterior portal, whereas 70% and 100% were visualized through the posterolateral and lateral portals, respectively. The Fleiss κ was 0.78 (95% confidence interval, 0.73 to 0.83), indicating substantial agreement. Three general patterns of posterior delamination with specific surgical repair strategies were identified and subclassified into 5 types: type A1, full-thickness tears with extensive posterior delamination separating the rotator cuff into 2 layers and sometimes with dissociation of the rotator cable; type A2, bursal-sided partial-thickness tears with posterior delamination; type B1, delamination with an L-shaped bursal layer tear and crescent-shaped articular layer tear; type B2, a partial-thickness articular-sided tear with extensive posterior delamination; and type C, extensive degeneration with multiple longitudinal bursal-sided tears.

Question: Is posterior delamination in arthroscopic rotator cuff repair hidden to the posterior viewing portal?

The incidence of posterior delamination is extremely high, and most of these lesions are missed if one is viewing from just the posterior portal. Differential rotator cuff portals are needed to appreciate and treat posterior delamination. Patterns of delamination can be classified according to surgical repair strategy. It is important to recognize that the rotator cable may delaminate from the cuff and not to mistake it for a "retracted" articular layer, as previously described.

Answer the question based on the following context: To study the impact of previous pelvic surgery on the onset of clinically bothersome urodynamic stress incontinence (USI). Retrospective case-cohort study at a District General Hospital of 305 women undergoing surgery for urodynamic stress incontinence: case note and computer records review of patients undergoing USI surgery. The main outcome measures were age at index USI surgery, and duration from previous pelvic surgery to index surgery. 305 women were included, of whom 118 had previous pelvic surgery including abdominal hysterectomy (TAH) (n=74), vaginal hysterectomy (n=23), anterior colporrhaphy (n=27) and posterior colporrhaphy (n=25). The mean age in the previous surgery group was 62.4 years (95% CI 60.2-64.6, range 32-87) and 53.2 years in the no previous surgery group (95% CI 51.4-55, range 30-88). There were no differences in the mean BMI (28.4 vs. 27.5), or mean parity (2.4 vs. 2.5). The median duration from previous surgery to the index USI surgery was 222 months (abdominal hysterectomy), 96 months (vaginal hysterectomy), 78 months (anterior colporrhaphy), and 72 months (posterior colporrhaphy).

Question: Does previous pelvic surgery hasten the onset of clinically bothersome urodynamic stress incontinence?

Previous pelvic surgery does not seem to accelerate the onset of USI, as women without previous pelvic surgery presented at a significantly earlier age (53.2 years) with clinically bothersome USI than those who had previous surgery (62.4 years). Posterior colporrhaphy had the shortest interval to index USI surgery amongst previous operations.

Answer the question based on the following context: Although 'integrated' public health policies are assumed to be the ideal way to optimize public health, it remains hard to determine how far removed we are from this ideal, since clear operational criteria and defining characteristics are lacking. A literature review identified gaps in previous operationalizations of integrated public health policies. We searched for an approach that could fill these gaps. We propose the following defining characteristics of an integrated policy: (1) the combination of policies includes an appropriate mix of interventions that optimizes the functioning of the behavioral system, thus ensuring that motivation, capability and opportunity interact in such a way that they promote the preferred (health-promoting) behavior of the target population, and (2) the policies are implemented by the relevant policy sectors from different policy domains.

Question: 'Are we there yet?

Our criteria should offer added value since they describe pathways in the process towards formulating integrated policy. The aim of introducing our operationalization is to assist policy makers and researchers in identifying truly integrated cases. The Behavior Change Wheel proved to be a useful framework to develop operational criteria to assess the current state of integrated public health policies in practice.

Answer the question based on the following context: We report a case of cryptococcal infection that underwent in a patient with a medical history of asymptomatic sarcoidosis. This finding seems to be not incidental. A 35-years-old female was referred to hospital for a community-acquired pneumonia with pleural involvement. A physical examination showed a pleural syndrome. Chest imaging showed a parenchymal involvement with pleural effusion and numerous mediastinal nodes. Fiberoptic bronchoscopy revealed an obstruction of the right apical bronchus of the lower lobe. Biopsies and bronchoalveolar lavage confirmed a cryptococcal infection. The disease was considered as disseminated with a urinary and neurologic involvement. The outcome was fair under prolonged antifungal therapy.

Question: Cryptococcal infection and sarcoidosis: a coincidence?

Cryptococcal infection is generally associated with immunosuppression. We suggest that sarcoidosis, although non symptomatic, may be a condition that promote the onset of cryptococcal infection. Even rare, cryptococcal infection is the most frequent opportunistic infection recorded with sarcoidosis patients. Histologic similarities between sarcoidosis and cryptococcal infection and the role of the macrophages which phagocyte the Cryptococcus neoformans are one of the hypothesis to assess these pathologic findings. A register is warranted to recover all opportunistic infection related to sarcoidosis in order to better understand the pathogeny.

Answer the question based on the following context: It has been demonstrated that there are a lot of different prognostic factors which are worthy of consideration whereas diabetes mellitus (DM) has not been clearly or consistently identified as a prognostic value in advanced non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC). The aim of this study was to investigate the prognostic significance of the characteristics of patients in advanced NSCLC. Specifically, we investigated the impact of DM for progression-free survival (PFS) and overall survival (OS) in patients receiving first-line platinum-based doublets chemotherapy. We retrospectively reviewed 442 patients with advanced NSCLC. DM and other potential prognostic variables were chosen for analysis in this study. Univariate and multivariate analyses were conducted to identify prognostic factors associated with survival. The results of univariate analysis for OS were identified as having prognostic significance: performance status (p<0.001), stage (p<0.001), DM (p<0.001), liver metastasis (p=0.02) and brain metastasis (p<0.001). Stage, diabetes mellitus, and liver metastasis were identified as having prognostic significance for PFS. Multivariate analysis showed that poor performance status, presence of DM and advanced stage were considered independent negative prognostic factors for OS (p 0.001, p<0.001 and p<0.001 respectively). Furthermore, DM and stage were considered independent negative prognostic factors for PFS (p 0.005 and p 0.001 respectively).

Question: Is diabetes mellitus a negative prognostic factor for the treatment of advanced non-small-cell lung cancer?

In conclusion, DM at the time of diagnosis was associated with the negative prognostic importance for PFS and OS in the advanced stage patients who were receiving first-line platinum-based doublets chemotherapy. In addition poor performance status and advanced stage were identified as negative prognostic factors.

Answer the question based on the following context: It remains unknown whether initial opioid dosing should optimally be fixed or weight-based. We wish to determine whether pain response after an initial fixed dose of intravenous hydromorphone varied by total body weight. We enrolled a convenience sample of emergency department adults aged 18 to 65 years with acute pain requiring intravenous opioids and administered 1 mg of hydromorphone. Our primary outcome was the correlation of total body weight with the reduction in pain at 30 minutes, as measured with a numeric rating scale. Our secondary outcomes contrasted total body weight by other measures of efficacy (numeric rating scale<3, pain relief, satisfaction, and desire for more analgesics) and adverse events (nausea, vomiting, and pruritus). We also performed a multivariate analysis to control for variables that might affect the relationship of pain response to total body weight. We enrolled 163 subjects with a range of weights from 45 to 157 kg, and their mean numeric rating scale pain reduction at 30 minutes was 5.3. Pain reduction did not correlate with weight in either univariate or multivariable models. Secondary outcomes were also similar, except greater pruritus in lower-weight subjects.

Question: Does initial hydromorphone relieve pain best if dosing is fixed or weight based?

Pain response to a fixed 1 mg intravenous dose of hydromorphone did not vary by total body weight in this sample of adults aged 18 to 65 years, suggesting no advantage to weight-based over fixed opioid dosing.

Answer the question based on the following context: Emergency departments (EDs) face increasing service demands and the imposition of treatment targets which has led to continual process redesign and changes in staff skill mix and functions. To identify extended ED pharmacist roles that could improve medication management and to implement and evaluate one such role change. A focus group of clinicians sought to redesign processes around ED medication management. Preparation of medication charts for patients admitted from ED was selected. Baseline data were obtained to define elements of existing medication charting processes. Suitably trained ED pharmacists' trialled the effectiveness of making therapeutic suggestions on a medication chart 'sticker' or by direct 'consultation' with medical staff. At the conclusion of the study focus groups at each site evaluated clinical staff perceptions of the change. Focus group participants thought that ED pharmacists could undertake extended roles in analgesia, nausea control, antibiotic cover, addiction management and preparation of medication charts for admitted patients. In the pre-intervention audit (n = 140), 74% required at least one intervention by the ward pharmacists to address medication discrepancies. Ward pharmacists detected 292 medication discrepancies (median 1, IQR 0-3). In the 'sticker' intervention the ED pharmacist made 84 therapeutic suggestions of which 66 (78.6%) were accepted by medical staff. In the 'consultation' intervention 230 therapeutic suggestions were made of which 219 (95.2%) were accepted. The qualitative evaluation found that pharmacist-prepared medication charts within the processes established were deemed safe, timely, accurate, complete and legible.

Question: Can a redesign of emergency pharmacist roles improve medication management?

Support exists for ED pharmacists to expand their medication-related roles. ED pharmacists can safely prepare medication charts in a timely fashion and their therapeutic suggestions within a 'consultative' framework are more beneficial than written advice. However, issues relating to resourcing, hours of service, service focus, statutory restrictions and training support for extended roles require resolution.

Answer the question based on the following context: To determine whether preoperative cystometry and a pressure flow study (PFS) are necessary in patients with end-stage renal disease from nonurologic causes who will undergo renal transplantation. From April 2009 to June 2010, 30 patients scheduled to undergo renal transplantation were prospectively evaluated with cystometry and PFS. The evaluation was performed immediately before and 6 months after renal transplantation. The inclusion criteria were age>18 years and end-stage renal disease secondary to nonurologic disease. Improvement in the cystometry and PFS parameters was observed after the return of diuresis at 6 months after transplantation. The parameter changes from baseline to the 6-month evaluation were as follows: first sensation of bladder filling, 88.8-168.7 mL (P = .0005); first desire to void, 137.2-251.1 mL (P<.0001); maximal cystometric capacity, 221.2-428.7 mL (P<.0001); bladder compliance, 73.9-138.6 mL/cm H2O (P = .03); and maximal flow rate, 8.1-15.8 mL/s (P<.0001). The Abrams-Griffiths number in the men decreased from 31.8 to 15.2 (P = .002). No significant changes were observed in the detrusor pressure at the maximal flow rate or the postvoid residual urine volume. Patients with a 24-hour urine output<200 mL tended to have had significantly worse parameters before transplantation.

Question: Bladder function evaluation before renal transplantation in nonurologic disease: is it necessary?

Significant improvement in the cystometry and PFS parameters was observed in patients with end-stage renal disease, without urologic disease, 6 months after transplantation, and was associated with recovery of the glomerular filtration rate and urine output by the renal graft.

Answer the question based on the following context: Differential association of obesity in bipolar and unipolar Major Depressive Episode (MDE) has not been systematically studied. We explore the relationships between obesity and history of manic and hypomanic symptoms in a large national clinical sample of MDE patients. The sample comprised 571 consecutive patients with a DSM-IV diagnosis of MDE enrolled in a 7 months period. The study involved 30 psychiatric facilities for outpatients, distributed throughout Italy. Diagnosis was formulated by psychiatrists with extensive clinical experience in the diagnosis and treatment of mood disorders. In all patients height (meters) and weight (kilograms) were systematically measured at the moment of the clinical evaluation. The severity of depressive and anxious symptomatology was self-evaluated by the means of Zung's questionnaires for depression and anxiety. For the evaluation of lifetime manic or hypomanic features, Hypomania Check List-32 was also administered. Obese and Non-Obese subgroups were identified on the basis of a>30 BMI cut off point. BMI ≤30 was observed in 86 (15.1%) of our MDE patients. The Obese and Non-Obese subgroups did not report differences as regards to age and gender distribution. Obese patients reported a lower number of years of education in comparison with Non-Obese patients. As regards to marital status, Obese patients were more frequently married in comparison with the Non-Obese patients. Obese patients were more frequently belonging to the bipolar group than Non-Obese patients. Obese subjects also reported more frequently than Non-Obese an HCL total score>14. The effect of educational level, marital status and bipolar-unipolar distinction on the probability of Obese group membership was analyzed by stepwise logistic regression. Bipolar subtype resulted to be the strongest predictor of Obesity. Pharmacological treatments and co-morbidity with other psychiatric disorders are not explored and accounted for in our analyses.

Question: Does obesity predict bipolarity in major depressive patients?

Obesity in our national sample of patients with MDE is associated with bipolar subtype and (hypo)manic symptoms. These findings suggest the possibility that the presence of obesity in patients with MDE might be related to bipolarity. A common impulsive-addictive diathesis is proposed as mediating mechanism. Further longitudinal studies in clinical and non-clinical populations are necessary to better define the burden and the role of the association between obesity and bipolarity.

Answer the question based on the following context: To estimate the use of cardiovascular medicines and its distribution by age and sex. Observational study. Region of Murcia. Daily doses of cardiovascular drugs prescribed and dispensed in all the pharmacies of the Region per 1,000 inhabitants-day (DHD). A comparison was made of consumption rates (DHD) by age and sex. The probability of receiving antiplatelet drugs increases with age, with the proportion of men being higher. The use of beta-blockers and angiotensin II increases with age up to 79 years, with an increased consumption in men up to 65 years. The probability of receiving treatment with calcium channel blockers, ACE inhibitors, or statins, linearly increases with age, and the proportion of men under treatment exceeds that of women in the early ages, tending to equalize beyond 80 years.

Question: Analysis of medications dispensed to control the main cardiovascular risks in the Murcia Region: are there gender differences?

This study shows that the cardiovascular disease prevention focuses on people aged 40 to 74 years. Access by women to cardiovascular therapy occurs with a delay of 3-5 years, depending on the treatment subgroup. Changes should be promoted to encourage rational and equitable access and use of the drugs.

Answer the question based on the following context: Measles is a viral infection that was almost eradicated, but it is re-emerging in Spain and Europe in recent years. The aim of this study was to describe the microbiological, clinical and epidemiological characteristics of a measles outbreak that occurred in Guadalajara (Spain) from June to August 2012. A descriptive and retrospective study was conducted. A total of 117 samples (including serum, urine and pharyngeal swabs) from 52 patients were analyzed for measles. Measles was diagnosed in 50 patients, 41 of them by microbiological diagnosis, and 9 by epidemiological link. The patients were grouped in four community outbreaks. No imported cases were observed. Positive IgM and positive CRP were detected in 25 patients, positive CRP only in 11 and positive IgM only in 5. The genotype D4 was identified in 13 patients and the genotype A in a post-vaccine case. The age groups most affected were adults between 20-34 years of age (38%) and younger than 15 months (26%). The large majority (86%) of patients were unvaccinated (44% Roma population, 27% younger than 15 months, 11% ideological reasons), 6% had one vaccine dose. The signs/symptoms were: rash and fever, 100%, cough, 82%, and conjunctivitis 50%. Almost one-third (32%) of patients were hospitalized, and 28% had complications.

Question: Re-emergence of measles in the province of Guadalajara, Spain. Is it time to establish new strategies for its elimination?

It is very important to intensify the epidemiological surveillance of infections in the elimination phase. The increased incidence of measles was associated to unvaccinated pockets, presenting a challenge for Public Health Centers. These agencies should prepare strategies to obtain a higher vaccine coverage for the eradication of measles.

Answer the question based on the following context: Patients with Cystic Fibrosis are prone to develop sinonasal disease. Studies in genotype-phenotype correlations for sinonasal disease are scarce and inconclusive. In this observational study several aspects of sinonasal disease were investigated in 104 adult patients with CF. In each patient a disease specific quality of life questionnaire (RSOM-31), nasal endoscopy and a CT scan of the paranasal sinuses were performed. Patients were divided into two groups, class I-III mutations and class IV-V mutations, based on their CFTR mutations. The prevalence of rhinosinusitis in adult patients with CF was 63% and the prevalence of nasal polyps 25%. Patients with class I-III mutations had significantly smaller frontal sinuses, sphenoid sinuses, more opacification in the sinonasal area and more often osteitis/neoosteogenesis of the maxillary sinus wall compared to patients with class IV and V mutations.

Question: Sinonasal manifestations of cystic fibrosis: a correlation between genotype and phenotype?

These data suggest more severe sinonasal disease in patients with class I-III mutations compared to patients with class IV-V mutations.

Answer the question based on the following context: A questionnaire was proposed at vascular surgery consultations and vascular and cardiac functional explorations, at the M Pavillon of the Édouard-Herriot hospital, Lyon, France. In five months, 395 questionnaires (135 cases and 260 controls) were analyzed. The global knowledge score was statistically higher for cases than for controls (cases 3.23±1.81; controls 2.77±2.03; P=0.037). Cases did not abide by monitoring and dietary rules better, except as regards the management of diabetes. Regular physical activity was statistically more prevalent among controls than among cases. Cases mainly received their information from their doctors (general practitioner for 59% of controls and 78% of cases, cardiologist for 25% of controls and 57% of cases) while controls got their information more through magazines or advertising.

Question: Is a patient's knowledge of cardiovascular risk factors better after the occurrence of a major ischemic event?

Our results show that after a major ischemic event, cases' knowledge of risk factors is better than the rest of the population without improved rules lifestyle changes. This suggests the usefulness of evaluating a therapeutic education program for atheromatous disease.

Answer the question based on the following context: During the symposium held by the French Arthroscopy Society on rotator cuff tears in patients over 70 years of age, the absence of studies into potential specific pathological features in this age group was pointed out. Here, our main objective was to describe magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) findings in this patient population. Tendons and muscles are smaller, lamellar dissection more prominent, and dystrophic changes more marked in patients over 70 years of age. We retrospectively studied 50 patients with isolated supraspinatus tears, including 25 younger than 50 and 25 older than 70 years of age. Tear size and retraction were evaluated according to Patte; tendon thickness, lamellar dissection, and fatty infiltration according to Goutallier; muscle size according to Thomazeau; and the tangent sign according to Zanetti. In contradiction to our study hypothesis, lateral tendon thickness was similar in the two age groups. Medial thickness of the tendon-muscle junction, however, was greater in the younger group. Lamellar dissection was more marked and fatty infiltration more severe in the older group. As expected, marked muscle wasting and a positive tangent sign were noted in over two-thirds of patients in the older group.

Question: Rotator cuff tear imaging in patients over 70 years: specific MRI findings?

This preliminary study in a small number of patients identified specific MRI features of supraspinatus tears in patients older than 70 years compared to younger patients. A larger study would be useful to confirm these findings.

Answer the question based on the following context: Generic substitution has been permitted for several years in France and is promoted in order to reduce health expenditures. However, reluctance concerning use of generic drugs exists for different reasons: suspicions about their efficacy and/or safety, differences in content (excipients) and discussions about bioequivalency. The aim of our study was to determine whether or not the substitution ratio differs according to pharmacological classes used in primary care. We conducted a descriptive study in the French Health Insurance Database using reimbursement data on drugs prescribed and delivered in the Midi-Pyrénées administrative district between March 2010 and March 2011. We selected different pharmacological classes largely used in primary care. For each class, a substitution ratio was calculated (DDD of generics delivered/DDD of brand name plus generics). A Chi(2) test was used in order to detect a difference between these substitution ratios. The global substitution ratio was 72.32%. Values varied from 28.36% for thyroid hormones to 90.39% for antibiotics, with significant statistical difference (P<0.001). The substitution ratio was less than 50% for thyroid hormones (28.36%) and antiepileptics (45.28%). Higher substitution ratios were observed for protein pump inhibitors (88.81%), statins (87.81%), antidepressors (87.37%) and diuretics (86.1%).

Question: Generic substitution in primary care in 2011: differences according to pharmacological classes?

This study highlights major differences in terms of the generic substitution ratio between different pharmacological classes. This difference can be explained in part by published guidelines. Further studies are needed to ascertain the precise point of view of patients, general practitioners and pharmacists concerning this issue.

Answer the question based on the following context: Endovenous radiofrequency ablation (RFA) is a safe and effective treatment for varicose veins caused by saphenous reflux. Deep venous thrombosis (DVT) is a known complication of this procedure. The purpose of this study is to describe the frequency of DVT after RFA and the associated predisposing factors. A retrospective analysis was performed using prospectively collected data from December 2008 to December 2011; a total of 277 consecutive office-based RFA procedures were performed at a single institution using the VNUS ClosureFast catheter (VNUS Medical Technologies, San Jose, CA). Duplex ultrasonography scans were completed 2 weeks postprocedure in all patients. Risk factors assessed for the development of DVT included: great versus small saphenous vein (SSV) treated, right versus left side treated, number of radiofrequency cycles used, hypercoagulable state, history of DVT, tobacco use, medications (i.e., oral contraceptives, aspirin, warfarin, and clopidogrel), and vein diameter at the junction of the superficial and deep systems. Seventy-two percent of the patients were women, 56% were treated on the right side, and 86% were performed on the great saphenous vein (GSV). The mean age was 54 ± 14 years (range: 23-88 years). Three percent of patients had a preprocedure diagnosis of hypercoagulable state, and 8% had a history of previous DVT. On postprocedural ultrasound, thrombus protrusion into the deep system without occlusion (endovenous heat-induced thrombosis) was present in 11 patients (4%). DVT, as defined by thrombus protrusion with complete occlusion of the femoral or popliteal vein, was identified in 2 patients (0.7%). Previous DVT was the only factor associated with postprocedural DVT (P = 0.018). Although not statistically significant, there was a trend toward a higher risk of DVT in SSV-treated patients. Factors associated with endovascular heat-induced thrombosis alone were male sex (P = 0.02), SSV treatment (P = 0.05), aspirin use (P = 0.008), and factor V Leiden deficiency (P = 0.01).

Question: Deep venous thrombosis after saphenous endovenous radiofrequency ablation: is it predictable?

The use of RFA to treat patients with symptoms caused by saphenous reflux involves a small but definite risk of DVT. This study shows that the risk of post-RFA DVT is greater in patients with previous DVT, with a trend toward an increased risk in patients having treatment of the SSV. Periprocedural anticoagulation may be considered in this subset to reduce the risk of DVT after RFA. Thrombus protrusion without DVT was found to be more likely in patients with hypercoagulability, male sex, SSV treatment, and aspirin use. Additional prospective studies are required to analyze these and other factors that may predict thrombotic events after endovenous RFA.

Answer the question based on the following context: We studied 50 patients (mean age 42 years±14), with no history of cardio-cerebrovascular events and "normal" IMT. We assessed the traditional cardiovascular risk factors, the CCA IMT, and the local stiffness with Quality Arterial Stiffness technology, based on Radio frequency signal (RFQAS-ESAOTE, Italy). CCA distensibility coefficient (DC), compliance coefficient (CC), pulse wave velocity (PWV) and β parameter were measured in patients, with and without traditional cardiovascular risk factors. 25 subjects with risk factors (mean age 49±13) were compared with 25 controls (mean age 36±12). We did not find any significant differences in the IMT measurement between subjects with CV risk factors compared to controls (0.530±0.99 mm vs. 0.626±0.127 mm; P=5.68). The mean DC (0.030±0.014 1/kPa vs. 0.0221±0.016 1/kPa; P<0.05) and CC (1.087±0.47 mm²/kPA vs. 0.864±0.41 mm²/kPA; P<0.05), were significantly lower, while PWV (6.21±1.74 m/s vs. 7.68±2.07 m/s; P<0.05) and β (7.67±4.09 m/s vs. 10.45±5.58 m/s; P<0.05) were significantly higher in subjects with CV risk factors. ROC curves showed that PWV>6.05 m/s better identified, among patients with IMT<0.9 mm, those with cardiovascular risk factors (sensitivity 82.0% specificity 62.0%; AUC 0.73).

Question: Is local stiffness, as measured by radio frequency, more sensitive than intima-media thickness?

Increased stiffness is a result of change both in quantity and quality of the arterial wall. Arterial functional changes and distention alterations may herald the onset of vascular disease before manifestation of symptoms or detection of preclinical atherosclerotic lesions.

Answer the question based on the following context: To evaluate the likelihood of response to IV immunoglobulin (IVIg) by studying consecutive patients presenting with progressive, asymmetric, pure lower motor neuron (LMN) limb weakness, and to determine the clinical phenotype of those who respond. Thirty-one consecutive patients with progressive, focal-onset LMN limb weakness, without evidence of clinical upper motor neuron signs; sensory, respiratory, or bulbar involvement; or evidence of motor nerve conduction block on electrodiagnostic studies, were prospectively included in this study. Each patient underwent treatment with IVIg (2 g/kg) for a minimum of 3 months. Electrodiagnostic studies, a neuromuscular symptom score, and expanded Medical Research Council sum score were documented before and after IVIg treatment. The final diagnosis was determined after prolonged clinical follow-up. Only 3 of 31 patients (10%) responded to IVIg. All responders demonstrated distal upper limb-onset weakness, EMG abnormalities confined to the clinically weak muscles, and a normal creatine kinase. This set of features was also identified in 31% of nonresponders presenting with distal upper limb weakness. Sex, age at onset, number of involved limb regions, and the duration of symptoms before treatment were not significantly different between groups.

Question: Is IVIg therapy warranted in progressive lower motor neuron syndromes without conduction block?

The findings of the present study do not support uniform use of IVIg in patients presenting with progressive asymmetric LMN limb weakness. It is suggested that IVIg treatment be limited to patients who demonstrate clinical and laboratory features suggestive of multifocal motor neuropathy.

Answer the question based on the following context: Thoracoscore is incorporated in the new British Thoracic Society and National Institute of Health and clinical Excellence guidelines to evaluate the operative mortality risk of patients undergoing thoracic surgery. This study examines the accuracy of Thoracoscore in predicting postoperative mortality in patients undergoing pneumonectomy. All patients who underwent pneumonectomy from January 1998 to March 2008 were included. Thoracoscore was calculated based on the following variables: age, sex, American Society of Anaesthesiologists' class, performance status classification, dyspnoea score, priority of surgery, procedure class, Diagnosis group and comorbidities score. Two hundred and forty-three patients with a mean age of 63 ± 9 years were included and 81% were male. The predicted postoperative mortality based on Thoracoscore was 8 ± 2.6% (95% confidence interval (CI) 4.56-11.43), while actual in-hospital mortality was 4.5% (11/243) (95% CI 1.87-7.12). 54% (6/11) of in-hospital mortality was of those who were>70 years old and 73% (8/11) of patients who died in hospital were male. Nine of 11 (82%) patients had pneumonectomy for malignancy. Thoracoscore was divided into four risk groups: low (0-3), moderate (3.1-5), high (5.1-8) and very high (>8). It underestimated mortality in low-risk group while overestimated in high-risk groups. The 30-day, 1-year, 2-year and 3-year observed mortalities were 5.3, 29, 43 and 55%, respectively.

Question: Could Thoracoscore predict postoperative mortality in patients undergoing pneumonectomy?

Although advanced age, the male sex and malignancy proved to be strong predictors of in-hospital mortality in our study, Thoracoscore failed to predict accurate risk of in-hospital mortality in pneumonectomy patients in this study. Further studies are required to validate the Thoracoscore in different subgroups of thoracic surgery.

Answer the question based on the following context: impairment of functional abilities represents a crucial component of dementia diagnosis. Current functional measures rely on the traditional aggregate method of summing raw scores. While this summary score provides a quick representation of a person's ability, it disregards useful information on the item level. to use item response theory (IRT) methods to increase the interpretive power of the Lawton Instrumental Activities of Daily Living (IADL) scale by establishing a hierarchy of item 'difficulty' and 'discrimination'. this cross-sectional study applied IRT methods to the analysis of IADL outcomes. Participants were 202 members of the Scottish Dementia Research Interest Register (mean age = 76.39, range = 56-93, SD = 7.89 years) with complete itemised data available. a Mokken scale with good reliability (Molenaar Sijtsama statistic 0.79) was obtained, satisfying the IRT assumption that the items comprise a single unidimensional scale. The eight items in the scale could be placed on a hierarchy of 'difficulty' (H coefficient = 0.55), with 'Shopping' being the most 'difficult' item and 'Telephone use' being the least 'difficult' item. 'Shopping' was the most discriminatory item differentiating well between patients of different levels of ability.

Question: Lawton IADL scale in dementia: can item response theory make it more informative?

IRT methods are capable of providing more information about functional impairment than a summed score. 'Shopping' and 'Telephone use' were identified as items that reveal key information about a patient's level of ability, and could be useful screening questions for clinicians.

Answer the question based on the following context: Previous research has indicated a relation between obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), childhood traumatic experiences and higher levels of dissociation that appears to relate to negative treatment outcome for OCD. The aim of the present study is to investigate whether childhood trauma and dissociation are related to severity of OCD in adulthood. We also intend to examine the association between treatment resistance, dissociation, and each form of trauma. Participants included 120 individuals diagnosed with OCD; 58 (48.3 %) of them met the criteria for treatment-resistant OCD (resistant group), whereas the other 62 (51.7 %) were labeled as responder group. The intensity of obsessions and compulsions was evaluated using Yale-brown obsessive-compulsive scale (Y-BOCS). All patients were assessed with the traumatic experiences checklist, dissociative experiences scale, beck depression inventory, and beck anxiety inventory. Controlling for clinical variables, resistant group had significantly higher general OCD severity, anxiety, depression, trauma, and dissociation scores than the responders. Correlation analyses indicated that Y-BOCS scores were significantly related to severity of dissociation, anxiety, depression, and traumatic experiences. In a logistic regression analysis with treatment resistance as a dependent variable, high dissociation levels, long duration of illness, and poor insight emerged as relevant predictors, but gender, levels of anxiety, depression, and traumatic experiences did not.

Question: Are trauma and dissociation related to treatment resistance in patients with obsessive-compulsive disorder?

Our results suggest that dissociation may be a predictor of poorer treatment outcome in patients with OCD; therefore, a better understanding of the mechanisms that underlie this phenomenon may be useful. Future longitudinal studies are warranted to verify if this variable represents predictive factors of treatment non-response.

Answer the question based on the following context: Laparoscopic adjustable gastric banding (LAGB) is a commonly performed bariatric procedure. LAGB is frequently complicated by slippage. Possible treatment for slippage is rebanding, but long-term effects are unknown. The aim of this study was to investigate whether rebanding after gastric band slippage is associated with weight loss failure. This was a post hoc analysis of a prospectively collected database of 627 consecutive LAGB patients. Rebanding for slippage was performed in 81 patients. The effect of rebanding on weight loss was evaluated by three analyses: (1) in 81 rebanded patients, weight loss was compared before and after rebanding, separately for patients in whom primary LAGB was successful or unsuccessful; (2) 81 rebanded patients were matched to 81 patients without slippage for prognostic variables and compared for weight loss after rebanding; (3) multivariate logistic regression was performed whether rebanding was independently associated with weight loss failure. The chance of a fair result of rebanding for patients following primary successful (n = 34) and unsuccessful LAGB (n = 22) was 62 and 27 % after median follow-up of 113 and 97 months, respectively. There was no difference in weight loss failure between 81 rebanded patients and 81 matched patients: 54 vs 59 % (P = 0.43). In multivariate analysis, rebanding was not significantly associated with weight loss failure: adjusted odds ratio 1.42; 95 % confidence interval 0.85-2.38; P = 0.18.

Question: Rebanding for slippage after gastric banding: should we do it?

In general, rebanding after LAGB has no negative effect on weight loss. However, patients in whom LAGB was unsuccessful prior to rebanding have poor long-term weight loss results.

Answer the question based on the following context: B type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is a hormone released in response to stretching of the ventricular wall. The role of BNP as a biomarker of bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD) has not been clarified. To determine if plasma BNP concentrations correlate with the severity of BPD. This prospective observational case control study included 60 preterm infants (≤32 weeks); 27 infants had no/mild BPD, 19 had moderate and 14 had severe BPD. BNP levels were measured at 36 ± 2 weeks PMA or within a week of discharge home. Groups were compared using Mann-Whitney's U-test, Kruskal-Wallis, and bivariate regression. Median (IQR) plasma levels of BNP in infants with moderate/severe BPD infants (n = 33) were higher as compared to those with no/mild BPD (n = 27); 27.1 (12.1-43.5) pg/ml versus 9.3 (6-18.5) pg/ml; P < 0.05 (Mann Whitney U). Median (IQR) BNP levels in infants with severe BPD (n = 14), 43.5 (28.4-189) pg/ml differed significantly from levels in those with moderate (n = 19), 22.8 (10.3-27.7) pg/ml; mild (n = 16), 11.5 (6.6-44.5 pg/ml); or no (n = 11), 8.1 (5-12.6 pg/ml) BPD (P < 0.001 Kruskal-Wallis). Based on receiver operating characteristic curves, BNP > 24.4 pg/ml at 36 ± 2 weeks PMA or discharge home was 85.7% sensitive and 76.1% specific for severe BPD.

Question: B-type natriuretic peptide levels in preterm neonates with bronchopulmonary dysplasia: a marker of severity?

An elevation in plasma BNP was significantly associated with severe BPD. We speculate that plasma BNP measurement in infants with BPD may aid in risk-stratification and further targeted therapies.

Answer the question based on the following context: Although previous research has shown the Food Dudes programme increases children's fruit and vegetable consumption at school, the evidence for the effectiveness in the home setting is more equivocal. The school environment is identified as a logical setting for targeting children's fruit and vegetable consumption; however, to produce sustainable changes in behaviour, it is equally important that interventions target consumption in the home setting. This study aimed to establish whether the Food Dudes intervention can influence home consumption of fruit and vegetables and the extent to which any changes in eating behaviour following the intervention were maintained in the long term. A total of 34 children aged 4-11 years from eight primary schools (four intervention and four control groups) in the West Midlands, United Kingdom, completed a 7-day photographic food diary at baseline (prior to the intervention), a 3-month follow-up (post-intervention) and a 12-month follow-up. The Food Dudes programme did not influence either short- or long-term changes in children's consumption of fruit and vegetables at home during weekdays or at the weekend.

Question: Can a school-based intervention increase children's fruit and vegetable consumption in the home setting?

The Food Dudes programme had no effect on changing children's fruit and vegetable consumption in the home environment. Further development of the programme could consider how parental and home environmental factors may be combined with the principles of the Food Dudes programme to influence children's fruit and vegetable consumption in this setting.

Answer the question based on the following context: Gentamicin, one of the most commonly used antibiotics in neonates, has potential toxicity. This study was performed to determine the incidence of potential toxicity of gentamicin in term and preterm neonates. A one-year retrospective study in neonates admitted to Special Baby Care Units at University Hospital of North Durham and Darlington Memorial Hospitals. We reviewed each admission and looked through the case notes in detail to document information about gentamicin administration, dosage and elevated gentamicin levels in the blood. Pre-third dose gentamicin levels>2 mg/L were classified as elevated. Overall, 192 babies (83 term and 109 preterm) had documented gentamicin levels. Of these, 43% (84/192) manifested elevated gentamicin levels. Of the babies with elevated gentamicin levels, 67% (56/84) weighed less than 2.5 kg. When a combination of gestation period and weight was considered, 61% (51/84) of preterm infants weighing<2.5 kg had elevated levels whereas only one term infant<2.5 kg exhibited elevated levels.

Question: Gentamicin use in neonates: should we have a change of practice?

Preterm neonates and specifically low birth weight neonates tolerate gentamicin poorly. Dosage and/or interval of administration of the medication may need modification in this group to minimise toxicity.

Answer the question based on the following context: Antibiotic administration is frequent in terminal patients with cancer, yet the effects on survival are still under debate. The aim of this study was to examine the status of infection and the benefit/burden of antibiotic administration on the survival of terminal patients with cancer with infection. A prospective observational study.SETTING/ We studied 799 patients with terminal cancer who were admitted to a palliative care unit in Taiwan between January 2008 and the end of April 2010. Survival was calculated from the first day of admission to the day of death in the palliative care unit or under home care. A specially designed assessment tool was used daily to evaluate clinical conditions. Afterwards, it was analyzed at different time points in a weekly team meeting. Multivariate Cox proportional hazard analyses were used to examine the benefit/burden of antibiotic administration on survival. Four hundred fifty-five patients were diagnosed as having at least one episode of infection after first admission. A total of 295 of the 378 (78.0%) with infection received antibiotic treatment upon admission. Multivariate Cox proportional hazard analyses showed that antibiotic administration was related to improved survival for patients who were still alive 1 week after admission (hazard ratio: 0.66, 95% confidence interfal [CI]: 0.46-0.95). However, antibiotics would be a hazard to patients' survival if used in the time 2 days prior to death (hazard ratio: 1.54, 95% CI: 1.22-1.94).

Question: Is it appropriate to withdraw antibiotics in terminal patients with cancer with infection?

The results suggest that with good communication between patients, families, and medical staff, withdrawal of antibiotics should be considered if signs of death appear, in order to avoid unnecessary risks. The possible benefit of prolonged survival should be in line with the goal of care, and also take into account preparing the patient for a dignified death.

Answer the question based on the following context: Sixty patients with early insomnia (3-12 months duration) received group cognitive behavioral therapy for insomnia. At pretreatment and at a 1-year follow-up, the patients completed questionnaires indexing two domains of insomnia-related worry (sleeplessness and health), insomnia severity, anxiety, and depression as well as sleep diaries. Decreases in the two worry domains were associated with improvements in all of the outcomes, except for sleep onset latency (SOL), at a medium to large level. Reductions in insomnia-related worry were associated with improvements in insomnia severity, wake after sleep onset (WASO), total sleep time (TST), and depression, but not in SOL or anxiety. While reductions in worry for sleeplessness were related to improvements in insomnia severity and TST, decreases in worry for health were associated with enhancements in WASO and depression.

Question: Are changes in worry associated with treatment response in cognitive behavioral therapy for insomnia?

The findings suggest that reductions in insomnia-related worry might be one process route in which cognitive behavioral therapy operates to improve insomnia symptomatology. The results are discussed in relation to theory, clinical implications, and future research.

Answer the question based on the following context: To describe the documentation of nutrition-related data and wards referral to dieticians in a Belgian university hospital. Retrospective analysis of 506 nursing records. Body weight and height are documented in 22%. "Feeding assistance" and "usual food intake pattern" are documented in 68% of all cases, and in 71% it is marked whether the patient is on a diet. Eight percent of the patients are referred to a dietician, but the indications for these referrals are not clear.

Question: Does documentation in nursing records of nutritional screening on admission to hospital reflect the use of evidence-based practice guidelines for malnutrition?

Given the poor documentation, most likely these patients are not adequately screened for malnutrition as recommended.

Answer the question based on the following context: To compare short-term outcomes of infants who underwent early versus late tracheostomy during their initial hospitalization after birth and determine the association, if any, between tracheostomy timing and outcomes. Retrospective chart review of infants who underwent a tracheostomy during their initial hospitalization at a single site. The median (range) gestational age of our cohort (n = 127) was 28 (23-42) weeks and birth weight was 988 (390-4030) g. Tracheostomy indications included airway lesions (47%), bronchopulmonary dysplasia (25%), both (22%) and others (6%). Median postmenstrual age (PMA) at tracheostomy was 45 (35-75) weeks. Death occurred in 27 (21%) infants and 65 (51%) infants were mechanically ventilated. G-tube was present at discharge in 42 (33%) infants. Infants who underwent early tracheostomy (<45 weeks PMA) (n = 66) had significantly lower gestational ages, weights and respiratory support than the late (≥45 weeks PMA) (n = 61) group. Death (29.5% versus 14%), home ventilation (41% versus 21%) and G tube (44% versus 14%) were significantly more frequent in the late tracheostomy group. On bivariate regression, outcomes were not independently associated with tracheostomy timing, after adjustment for gestational age and respiratory support.

Question: Outcomes of tracheostomy in the neonatal intensive care unit: is there an optimal time?

Of infants who underwent tracheostomy during the initial hospitalization after birth, 21% died. On adjusted analysis, tracheostomy timing was not independently associated with outcomes.

Answer the question based on the following context: To determine if peer risk (having friends who drink or approve of drinking) modifies the effects of a computer-facilitated screening and provider brief advice (cSBA) intervention on adolescent alcohol use. We assessed the intervention effect using logistic regression modeling with generalized estimating equations on a sample of 2,092 adolescents. Effect modification by peer risk was analyzed separately for alcohol initiation (drinking at follow-up in baseline nondrinkers) and cessation (no drinking at follow-up in baseline drinkers) by testing an interaction term (treatment condition by peer risk). Interpretation of the interaction effect was further clarified by subsequent stratification by peer risk. The intervention effect on alcohol cessation was significantly greater among those with peer risk (adjusted relative risk ratios; risk 1.44, 1.18-1.76 vs. no risk .98, .41-2.36) at 3 months' follow-up. There was no such finding for alcohol initiation.

Question: Do risky friends change the efficacy of a primary care brief intervention for adolescent alcohol use?

Alcohol screening and brief provider counseling may differentially benefit adolescent drinkers with drinking friends.

Answer the question based on the following context: This study aimed to evaluate the role of biomarkers as markers of pneumococcal bacteremia in severe community-acquired pneumonia (SCAP). A prospective, single-center, observational cohort study of 108 patients with SCAP admitted to the intensive care department of a university hospital in Portugal was conducted. Leucocytes, C-reactive protein (CRP), lactate, procalcitonin (PCT), d-dimer, brain natriuretic peptide (BNP), and cortisol were measured within 12 hours after the first antibiotic dose. Fifteen patients (14%) had bacteremic pneumococcal pneumonia (BPP). They had significantly higher levels of median CRP (301 [interquartile range, or IQR], 230-350]mg/L vs 201 [IQR, 103-299] mg/L; P = .023), PCT (40 [IQR, 25-102]ng/mL vs 8 [IQR, 2-26] ng/mL; P<.001), BNP (568 [IQR, 478-2841] pg/mL vs 407 [IQR, 175-989]pg/mL; P = .027), and lactate (5.5 [IQR, 4.5-9.8] mmol/L vs 3.1 [IQR, 1.9-6.2]mmol/L; P = .009) than did patients without BPP. The discriminatory power evaluated by the area under the receiver operating characteristic curve (aROC) for PCT (aROC, 0.79) was superior to lactate (aROC, 0.71), BNP (aROC, 0.67), and CRP (aROC, 0.70). At a cutoff point of 17 ng/mL, PCT showed a sensitivity of 87%, a specificity of 67%, a positive predictive value of 30% and a negative predictive value of 97%, as a marker of pneumococcal bacteremia.

Question: Can we predict pneumococcal bacteremia in patients with severe community-acquired pneumonia?

In this cohort, significantly higher PCT, BNP, lactate, and CRP levels were found in BPP, and PCT presented the best ability to identify pneumococcal bacteremia. A PCT serum level lower than 17 ng/mL could identify patients with SCAP unlikely to have pneumococcal bacteremia.

Answer the question based on the following context: Deep brain stimulation for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) has targeted several subcortical nuclei, including the subthalamic nucleus (STN) and the nucleus accumbens. While the most appropriate target is still being looked for, little attention has been given to the side of the stimulated hemisphere in relationship to outcome. We report 2 patients diagnosed with OCD, one having symmetry obsessions and the other one with sexual-religious obsessive thoughts. They were implanted bilaterally with deep electrodes located at both STN and nuclei accumbens. The effectiveness of the stimulation was tested for every possible paired combination of electrodes guided by the Yale-Brown Obsessive Compulsive Scale (Y-BOCS) score reduction. In both cases, the combination of electrodes which best relieved the OCD symptoms was both the left STN and left accumbens. In case 1, the preoperative Y-BOCS score was 33, and 1 month after stimulation it was 16. In case 2, the Y-BOCS scores were 33 and 3, respectively, with the patient being free of obsessions.

Question: Deep brain stimulation for obsessive-compulsive disorder: is the side relevant?

Some reports suggest that lesion stimulation or stimulation of only the right side relieves OCD symptoms. However, anatomical and functional studies are not conclusive as to which side is most affected in OCD. Possibly, each OCD patient has an individualized optimal side to stimulate.

Answer the question based on the following context: The follow-up of the ECLIPSE study, a prospective longitudinal study to identify and define parameters that predict disease progression over 3 years in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), allows the examination of the effect of body composition changes on COPD-related outcomes. Body composition and health status were established in 2,115 COPD patients, 327 smoking and 239 nonsmoking controls at baseline and 3 years, while mortality was recorded in year 2 and 3 in the COPD patients. Associations between fat free mass index (FFMI) and fat mass index (FMI) changes to deterioration in health status and mortality were determined. Change in FFMI and FMI over 3 years was small and comparable between the groups. Underweight and obese patients had the worst health status. Worsening health status was associated with FFMI decrease in underweight patients and FMI increase in overweight/obese patients. While overweight patients had the lowest mortality, FFMI or FMI decrease was associated with a higher mortality.

Question: Changes in body composition in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease: do they influence patient-related outcomes?

Changes in body composition over 3 years were small and comparable in COPD patients and control subjects. Nevertheless, muscle mass decline in underweight and fat mass increase in overweight/obese patients is associated with worsening health status. Overweight is associated with decreased mortality, but muscle mass and fat mass decline are detrimental for mortality.

Answer the question based on the following context: Guidelines advise early angiography in non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) to ensure an optimal outcome. Resource limitations in secondary hospitals in the Western Cape dictate a local guideline to treat NSTEMIs medically with out-patient assessment for angiography, unless mandatory indications for early angiography occur. A retrospective cohort study assessed NSTEMIs at Tygerberg Hospital (TBH), Karl Bremer Hospital (KBH) and Worcester Hospital (WH) over one year. Two cohorts were analysed, secondary hospitals (KBH and WH; SH) and secondary service within a tertiary hospital (TBH). Where differences were found, sub-analysis compared WH and KBH. TBH and SH were similar at baseline and in clinical presentation. Cases at TBH were more likely to receive in-patient angiography (94 vs 51%, p<0.0001), and had a lower in-patient mortality rate (6 vs 23%, p = 0.0326). There was no difference between KBH and WH in sub-analysis.

Question: Non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) in three hospital settings in South Africa: does geography influence management and outcome?

This study confirmed that the management and mortality of NSTEMIs in the public health sector in the Western Cape, South Africa is not influenced by geography, but rather by the level of service available in the hospital of first presentation.

Answer the question based on the following context: To investigate whether a vaginal speculum examination (VSE) prior to a transvaginal scan (TVS) alters the diagnosis or management of women who complain of bleeding in early pregnancy. A prospective study. Women were asked to describe their bleeding as heavy, moderate or light and to consent to VSE prior to TVS. TVS was performed to obtain a final diagnosis of pregnancy outcome. 221 consecutive women were included in the study. In 14.5% (n = 32) complaining of heavy bleeding, blood was seen in all but two VSE and 84% (n = 27) had a miscarriage diagnosed by TVS. Products of conception were removed in 18.8% (n = 6), but this did not alter the subsequent immediate management of any cases. 65.2% (n = 144) of women complained of light bleeding, blood was seen on VSE in 53% (n = 77). Of these women, 25% (n = 19) of those where blood was seen had a miscarriage, compared to 6% (n = 4) of women where blood was not seen. A cervical ectropion was visualised in 11.7% (n = 26) and 2.3% (n = 5) had a cervical polyp. No other clinically significant pathology was detected.

Question: Do women with pain and bleeding in early pregnancy require a vaginal speculum examination as part of their assessment?

The amount of bleeding reported by women in early pregnancy relates well with VSE findings. Performing a VSE did not alter the subsequent management of these patients. This study demonstrates that routine objective assessment of blood by a clinician performing VSE prior to a TVS is unnecessary.

Answer the question based on the following context: To standardize therapy and improve the clinical outcome for chronic haemodialysis (HD) patients, guidelines have been developed for mineral metabolism management. We evaluated compliance with different mineral metabolism guidelines. 2,951 chronic HD patients from 61 dialysis centres in Spain were studied. Mineral metabolism management data from a 1-year period were analysed according to KDOQI, KDIGO, and Spanish guidelines. Only 1% (KDOQI), 6% (KDIGO) and 11% (Spanish guidelines) of patients continuously achieved total calcium (Ca), phosphate (P) and parathyroid hormone (PTH) target-range values during the year with higher percentages if we considered the 1-year average. The yearly Ca, P and iPTH average accomplished Spanish guidelines with different percentage among centres: CA 62-100%, P 59-91%, PTH 61-89%, and 28-77% considering all three targets together. The KDIGO guidelines recommend similar percentages except for P (33-77%). No differences were found related to eKt/V, online haemodiafiltration/HD, weight, body mass index, or dialysis vintage. They were only related to age, blood flow, effective treatment time, and dialysate calcium but without relevant clinical differences. Patients outside the target ranges generated significantly higher treatment costs.

Question: Compliance with mineral metabolism targets in haemodialysis patients: moving backwards?

Compliance with mineral metabolism targets in HD patients was poor and showed a wide variation between treatment centres.

Answer the question based on the following context: We evaluated the vasodilatory effects of two antioxidants, vitamins C (ascorbic acid) and E (α-tocopherol), on radial artery and endothelium-dependent responses in patients awaiting coronary artery bypass surgery. The study was performed in three groups. The first group took 2 g of vitamin C orally (n = 31, vitamin C group), the second group took 2 g of vitamin C with 600 mg of vitamin E orally (n = 31, vitamins C + E group), and the third group took no medication (n = 31, control group). After baseline measurements were taken of the radial artery lumen diameter, flow volume and lumen area in the non-dominant radial artery, occlusion was maintained for five minutes with a pressure cuff placed around the arm. The measurements were taken again at the time of deflating the cuff, and 60 seconds later. The measurements were repeated after medication in two of the groups and after placebo in the third group. We compared values of the vitamin C group with those of the vitamins C + E group, and found that the latter were higher than those of the vitamin C group but not statistically significant. In the control group, there was no statistical difference.

Question: Does vitamin C or its combination with vitamin E improve radial artery endothelium-dependent vasodilatation in patients awaiting coronary artery bypass surgery?

Vitamin C or its combination with vitamin E significantly enhanced endothelium-dependent vasodilatation in the radial circulation of patients with coronary artery disease. Its combination with vitamin E was superior to vitamin C administration alone for endothelial enhancement but this difference was not statistically significant. We hypothesised that vitamin C or its combination with vitamin E may be used as antioxidants for arterial graft patency in patients undergoing coronary artery surgery.

Answer the question based on the following context: Some ischemic strokes in patients with atrial fibrillation (AF) are caused by noncardioembolic etiologies (AF-unrelated stroke), but not AF itself (AF-related stroke). However, most clinical trials on the risk of stroke in AF have not distinguished between these. We investigated the frequency and features of AF-unrelated versus AF-related strokes in patients with AF plus ischemic stroke. We hypothesized that certain clinical factors, including chronicity of AF, treatment at the time of stroke onset and echocardiographic findings, may help to discriminate between AF-related and AF-unrelated strokes. The mechanisms and antithrombotic medications at the time of stroke recurrence in the two groups were also examined. Consecutive patients with ischemic stroke within 7 days of symptom onset and with AF were included. Patients were classified according to the previously published criteria. Clinical factors including CHADS2 and CHA2DS2-VASc scores and transthoracic echocardiographic (TTE) findings were evaluated. Of 522 patients, 424 (81.2%) were grouped as AF-related stroke and the remaining 90 (17.2%) were classified as AF-unrelated stroke. Among the patients with AF-unrelated stroke, 51 (9.8%) were categorized as possible large artery atherosclerosis and 38 (7.3%) as possible small artery occlusion; 1 patient (0.2%) was assigned to miscellaneous cause. The AF-related and AF-unrelated strokes had similar CHADS2 and CHA2DS2-VASc scores. However, compared to AF-unrelated stroke, AF-related stroke was independently associated with female sex (odds ratio, OR, 2.19; 95% confidence interval, CI, 1.18-4.05), sustained AF (OR, 2.09; 95% CI, 1.21-3.59), inadequate anticoagulation at stroke onset (OR, 3.21; 95% CI, 1.33-7.75) and left ventricular dysfunction on TTE (OR, 2.84; 95% CI, 1.40-5.74). We identified 26 patients who experienced 2 strokes during the study period. The initial stroke subtype was a strong predictor of the recurrent stroke mechanism (p<0.001). Among 17 events of AF-related recurrent stroke in these subpopulation, only 2 strokes (11.8%) occurred in a setting of adequate anticoagulation, whereas 4 out of 9 patients (44.4%) who had AF-unrelated strokes at recurrence were sufficiently anticoagulated at the time of admission (p = 0.138).

Question: Is atrial fibrillation always a culprit of stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation plus stroke?

AF is not always a culprit of stroke in patients with AF plus ischemic stroke; approximately one sixth of these cases are unrelated to AF and have distinct characteristics compared to AF-related stroke. There are significant differences in terms of some clinical and TTE parameters between AF-related and AF-unrelated stroke. Future studies are warranted to optimize strategies for risk stratification, treatment and prevention of stroke in these patients.

Answer the question based on the following context: To determine the frequency of cancelled stereotactic biopsy due to non-visualisation of calcifications, and assess associated features and outcome data. A retrospective review was performed on 1,874 patients scheduled for stereotactic-guided breast biopsy from 2009 to 2011. Medical records and imaging studies were reviewed. Of 1,874 stereotactic biopsies, 76 (4 %) were cancelled because of non-visualisation of calcifications. Prompt histological confirmation was obtained in 42/76 (55 %). In 28/76 (37 %) follow-up mammography was performed, and 7/28 subsequently underwent biopsy. Of 27 without biopsy, 21 (78 %) had follow-up. Nine cancers (9/49, 18 %) were found: 6 ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS), 3 infiltrating ductal carcinoma (IDC). Of 54 patients with either biopsy or at least 2 years' follow-up, 9 (17 %) had cancer (95 % CI 8-29). Cancer was present in 7/42 (17 %, 95 % CI 7-31 %) lesions that had prompt histological confirmation (DCIS = 5, IDC = 2) and in 2/28 (7 %, 95 % CI 0.8-24 %) lesions referred for follow-up (DCIS = 1, IDC = 1). Neither calcification morphology (P = 0.2), patient age (P = 0.7), breast density (P = 1.0), personal history (P = 1.0) nor family history of breast cancer (P = 0.5) had a significant association with cancer.

Question: Cancelled stereotactic biopsy of calcifications not seen using the stereotactic technique: do we still need to biopsy?

Calcifications not visualised on the stereotactic unit are not definitely benign and require surgical biopsy or follow-up. No patient or morphological features were predictive of cancer.

Answer the question based on the following context: The correlations between ambulatory blood pressure measurements (ABPM) and serum cystatin C (Cys C), serum creatinine (Cr), microalbumin (MA), and β2-microglobulin (β2-MG) levels in 24 h (24-h) urine were analyzed in children with solitary kidney (SK) and compared to healthy children. Fifty children with normal functioning SK and 25 controls were studied. The ABPM, serum Cys C, serum Cr, MA, and β2-MG levels in 24-h urine were measured in all children. Clinical symptoms and signs, laboratory results, urinary ultrasonography, voiding cystourethrography, and Dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA) scintigraphy results were recorded in the SK group. Four patients with Wilms' tumor and two with renal scarring were excluded from the study. The mean ages of the SK group and controls were 9.6 ± 3.6 and 9.3 ± 3.3 years, respectively. The serum Cys C and Cr levels, 24-h urinary β2-MG and MA levels were similar in both groups (p>0.05). However, 24-h urinary MA excretion was higher in patients living with SK more than 5 years (p = 0.01). Standard deviation scores of ABPM parameters showed no significant correlation with serum Cr, serum Cys C, MA, and β2-MG in 24-h urine of both groups.

Question: Is microalbuminuria a risk factor for hypertension in children with solitary kidney?

Children with SK have increased 24-h urinary MA excretion in the long term, and need prolonged follow-up to detect early deterioration of renal function and to prevent end-organ damage later in life.

Answer the question based on the following context: The study determined if need for rehabilitation in work-related medical rehabilitation (WMR) is more frequently characterised by specific work-related problems than in conventional medical rehabilitation (MR). In 6 rehabilitation centres, persons with back pain (M50, M51, M53, M54) were surveyed about work-related restrictions of work ability at begin of their rehabilitation. Differences in work ability of WMR and MR patients confirmed need-related access. However, these differences were exclusively explained by screening-based access decisions. If access was not supported by a screening, WMR and MR patients did not differ. Decisions by rehabilitation centres compared with decisions by insurance agencies resulted in similar differences between WMR and MR patients.

Question: Specific work-related problems: do they matter in access to work-related medical rehabilitation?

Screening-based decisions about access enable a more need-related access to WMR. As there were no differences between access decisions by rehabilitation centres and insurance agencies, access decisions can be realised already by the insurance agency.

Answer the question based on the following context: The aim of the study was to determine the clinical usefulness of N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide (NT-proBNP) and symmetric dimethylarginine (SDMA) for detection of renal and left ventricular (LV) diastolic dysfunction in chronic kidney disease (CKD) patients and renal transplant (RT) recipients. We included 98 CKD and 44 RT patients. We assessed LV function using pulsed-wave Doppler ultrasound. Diastolic dysfunction was defined when the E:A ratio was<1. Independent predictors of NT-proBNP levels were age, creatinine, and albumin in CKD patients and age and urea in RT patients. Determinants of SDMA in CKD patients were glomerular filtration rate (GFR) and NT-proBNP and creatinine in RT patients. In RT patients with diastolic dysfunction, NT-proBNP and SDMA were significantly higher than in patients without diastolic dysfunction (F = 7.478, P<0.011; F = 2.631, P<0.017). After adjustment for GFR, the differences were not seen. In CKD patients adjusted NT-proBNP and SDMA values for GFR were not significantly higher in patients with diastolic dysfunction than in patients without diastolic dysfunction.

Question: Are levels of NT-proBNP and SDMA useful to determine diastolic dysfunction in chronic kidney disease and renal transplant patients?

NT-proBNP is useful for detection of LV diastolic dysfunction in RT recipients. When evaluating both NT-proBNP and SDMA it is necessary to consider GFR as a confounding factor.

Answer the question based on the following context: This study aimed to reassess whether the Forrest classification is still useful for the prediction of rebleeding and mortality in peptic ulcer bleedings and, based on this, whether the classification could be simplified. Prospective registry data on peptic ulcer bleedings were collected and categorized according to the Forrest classification. The primary outcomes were 30-day rebleeding and all-cause mortality rates. Receiver operating characteristic curves were used to test whether simplification of the Forrest classification into high risk (Forrest Ia), increased risk (Forrest Ib-IIc), and low risk (Forrest III) classes could be an alternative to the original classification. In total, 397 patients were included, with 18 bleedings (4.5%) being classified as Forrest Ia, 73 (18.4%) as Forrest Ib, 86 (21.7%) as Forrest IIa, 32 (8.1%) as Forrest IIb, 59 (14.9%) as Forrest IIc, and 129 (32.5%) as Forrest III. Rebleeding occurred in 74 patients (18.6%). Rebleeding rates were highest in Forrest Ia peptic ulcers (59%). The odds ratios for rebleeding among Forrest Ib-IIc ulcers were similar. In subgroup analysis, predicting rebleeding using the Forrest classification was more reliable for gastric ulcers than for duodenal ulcers. The simplified Forrest classification had similar test characteristics to the original Forrest classification.

Question: Reassessment of the predictive value of the Forrest classification for peptic ulcer rebleeding and mortality: can classification be simplified?

The Forrest classification still has predictive value for rebleeding of peptic ulcers, especially for gastric ulcers; however, it does not predict mortality. Based on these results, a simplified Forrest classification is proposed. However, further studies are needed to validate these findings.

Answer the question based on the following context: Sheep with prion protein (PrP) gene polymorphisms QQ171 and RQ171 were shown to be susceptible to the prion causing L-type bovine spongiform encephalopathy (L-BSE), although RQ171 sheep specifically propagated a distinctive prion molecular phenotype in their brains, characterized by a high molecular mass protease-resistant PrP fragment (HMM PrPres), distinct from L-BSE in QQ171 sheep. The resulting infectious and biological properties of QQ171 and RQ171 ovine L-BSE prions were investigated in transgenic mice expressing either bovine or ovine PrP. In both mouse lines, ovine L-BSE transmitted similarly to cattle-derived L-BSE, with respect to survival periods, histopathology, and biochemical features of PrPres in the brain, as well as splenotropism, clearly differing from ovine classic BSE or from scrapie strain CH1641. Nevertheless and unexpectedly, HMM PrPres was found in the spleen of ovine PrP transgenic mice infected with L-BSE from RQ171 sheep at first passage, reminiscent, in lymphoid tissues only, of the distinct PrPres features found in RQ171 sheep brains.

Question: L-type bovine spongiform encephalopathy in genetically susceptible and resistant sheep: changes in prion strain or phenotypic plasticity of the disease-associated prion protein?

The L-BSE agent differs from both ovine classic BSE or CH1641 scrapie maintaining its specific strain properties after passage in sheep, although striking PrPres molecular changes could be found in RQ171 sheep and in the spleen of ovine PrP transgenic mice.

Answer the question based on the following context: The sensitivity of pinch movement discrimination between the thumb and index finger was assessed with and without elastic resistance. Researchers have examined the effect of elastic resistance on control of single upper-limb movements; however, no one has explored how elastic resistance affects proprioceptive acuity when using two digits simultaneously in a coordinated movement. For this study, 16 right-handed, healthy young adults undertook an active finger pinch movement discrimination test for the right and left hands, with and without elastic resistance. We manipulated pinch movement distance by varying the size of the object that created the physical stop to end the pinch action. Adding elastic resistance from a spring to the thumb-index finger pinch task did not affect accuracy of pinch discrimination measured as either the just noticeable difference, F(1, 15) = 1.78, p = .20, or area under the curve, F(1, 15) = 0.07, p = .80.

Question: Does elastic resistance affect finger pinch discrimination?

Having elastic resistance to generate lever return in pincers, tweezers, and surgical equipment or in virtual instruments is unlikely to affect pinch movement discrimination.

Answer the question based on the following context: To evaluate the use of medications classified as inappropriate according to the Health Plan Employer Data and Information Set (HEDIS) in elderly veterans residing in Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) nursing homes from 2004 to 2009 and to identify participant-specific correlates of use. Retrospective, cross-sectional study using VA administrative data merged with participant-specific data from the Minimum Data Set. VA nursing homes (community living centers (CLCs)). Veterans aged 65 and older residing in CLCs at the time of the prescribed medication use (N = 176,168). The number of exposed veterans aged 65 and older per facility receiving at least one HEDIS high-risk medication was determined. Between 2004 and 2009, 28,970 of 176,168 (mean 16.4 ± 9.5%) veterans received at least one HEDIS high-risk medication. Over the period, the number of veterans receiving high-risk medications decreased steadily from 23.9 ± 10.0% in 2004 to 10.0 ± 6.6% in 2009. Nevertheless, large facility variations remained in 2009, with rates from 0% to 44.4%. Certain characteristics were also associated with HEDIS high-risk medication use, including female sex (odds ratio (OR) = 1.6; 95% confidence interval (CI) = 1.25-2.04), cancer (OR = 1.19, 95% CI = 1.08-1.32), renal disease (OR = 1.16, 95% CI = 1.01-1.33), chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (OR = 1.16, 95% CI = 1.05-1.28), and diabetes mellitus (OR = 1.11, 95% CI = 1.02-1.22). Protective characteristics included age 75 and older (OR = 0.81, 95% CI = 0.73-0.90) and having a diagnosis of moderate (OR = 0.72, 95% CI = 0.64-0.82) or severe (OR = 0.72, 95% CI = 0.61-0.85) cognitive impairment.

Question: Potentially inappropriate medication use in veterans residing in community living centers: have we gotten better?

The use of HEDIS medications among elderly veterans residing in VA nursing homes has markedly improved. Nevertheless, significant variations between facilities and certain subpopulations remain. A low percentage of women at VA CLCs make comparisons with community nursing homes difficult.

Answer the question based on the following context: The objective of this study was to examine whether enrolment in the National Health Insurance Scheme (NHIS) affects the likelihood and timing of utilising antenatal care among women in Ghana. Data were drawn from the Ghana Demographic and Health Survey, a nationally representative survey collected in 2008. The study used a cross-sectional design to examine the independent effects of NHIS enrolment on two dependent variables (frequency and timing of antenatal visits) among 1610 Ghanaian women. Negative binomial and logit models were fitted given that count and categorical variables were employed as outcome measures, respectively. Regardless of socio-economic and demographic factors, women enrolled in the NHIS make more antenatal visits compared with those not enrolled; however, there was no statistical association with the timing of the crucial first visit. Women who are educated, living in urban areas and are wealthy were more likely to attend antenatal care than those living in rural areas, uneducated and from poorer households.

Question: National health insurance scheme enrolment and antenatal care among women in Ghana: is there any relationship?

The NHIS should be strengthened and resourced as it may act as an important tool for increasing antenatal care attendance among women in Ghana.

Answer the question based on the following context: A baseline kidneys, ureters, and bladder (KUB) radiograph, at the time of computed tomography (CT) for ureteral stones, might aid interpretation of future KUBs. The CT scout radiograph might render the baseline KUB redundant, however. We sought to assess the diagnostic utility of baseline KUB for patients with ureteral stones. Patients with ureteral stones were retrospectively identified. All had a baseline KUB in addition to CT and were reassessed after 4 to 60 days with KUB. Each patient's imaging was randomized 1:1 into either "KUB&CT" or "CT" groups. Three urologists independently assessed the imaging: CT (with scout film) and baseline KUB in the KUB&CT group, but only the CT (not KUB) in the CT group. Definitive stone assessment on follow-up KUB was defined as all three reviewers answering either Yes or No (not Indeterminate) to the question of stone passage or migration. Of 154 stones, the mean diameter was 4.8 ± 2.1 mm, density was 914 ± 300 Hounsfield units (HU), with 54.4% in the distal ureter. Stone visibility was 60.4% on KUB vs 43.5% on scout film (P<0.001). Scout film visibility favored the CT group (52.7 vs 35.0%, P = 0.027). After adjusting for body mass index, skin-to-stone distance, size, density, and location, definitive assessment rates were higher in the KUB&CT group (P = 0.047). When reviewers reassessed the CT group using the baseline KUB, they were able to do so definitively in an additional 16 (21.6%, P<0.001). Definitive assessments were associated with higher rates of stone visibility on scout film (86.1 vs 21.1%, P<0.001), KUB (86.1 vs 50.0%, P<0.001), and larger (6.0 vs 3.7 mm, P<0.001), denser stones (1046 vs 802 HU, P<0.001).

Question: Does baseline radiography of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder help facilitate stone management in patients presenting to the emergency department with renal colic?

The addition of a baseline KUB to the CT scout film improves the ability of urologists to determine stone outcome when following patients with KUB imaging and might reduce the subsequent need for additional imaging.

Answer the question based on the following context: Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA), which is linked to the prevalence of obesity, continues to rise in the United States. There are limited data on the risk for sedation-related adverse events (SRAE) in patients with undiagnosed OSA receiving propofol for routine EGD and colonoscopy. To identify the prevalence of OSA by using the STOP-BANG questionnaire (SB) and subsequent risk factors for airway interventions (AI) and SRAE in patients undergoing elective EGD and colonoscopy. Prospective cohort study. Tertiary-care teaching hospital. A total of 243 patients undergoing routine EGD or colonoscopy at Cleveland Clinic. Chin lift, mask ventilation, placement of nasopharyngeal airway, bag mask ventilation, unplanned endotracheal intubation, hypoxia, hypotension, or early procedure termination. Rates of AI and SRAE. Mean age of the cohort was 50 ± 16.2 years, and 41% were male. The prevalence of SB+ was 48.1%. The rates of hypoxia (11.2% vs 16.9%; P = .20) and hypotension (10.4% vs 5.9%; P = .21) were similar between SB- and SB+ patients. An SB score ≥3 was found not to be associated with occurrence of AI (relative risk [RR] 1.07, 95% confidence interval [CI]0.79-1.5) or SRAE (RR 0.81, 95% CI, 0.53-1.2) after we adjusted for total and loading dose of propofol, body mass index (BMI), smoking, and age. Higher BMI was associated with an increased risk for AI (RR 1.02; 95% CI, 1.01-1.04) and SRAE (RR 1.03; 95% CI, 1.01-1.05). Increased patient age (RR 1.09; 95% CI, 1.02-1.2), higher loading propofol doses (RR 1.4; 95% CI, 1.1-1.8), and smoking (RR 1.9; 95% CI, 1.3-2.9) were associated with higher rates of SRAE. Non-randomized study.

Question: Can a validated sleep apnea scoring system predict cardiopulmonary events using propofol sedation for routine EGD or colonoscopy?

A significant number of patients undergoing routine EGD and colonoscopy are at risk for OSA. SB+ patients are not at higher risk for AI or SRAE. However, other risk factors for AI and SRAE have been identified and must be taken into account to optimize patient safety.

Answer the question based on the following context: There is accumulating evidence that greater availability of green space in a neighbourhood is associated with health benefits for the local population. One mechanism proposed for this association is that green space provides a venue for, and therefore encourages, physical activity. It has also been suggested that socio-economic health inequalities may be narrower in greener areas because of the equalised opportunity for physical activity green spaces provide. However, research exploring associations between the availability of green space and physical activity has produced mixed results. Limits to the assessment of the type and amount of physical activity which occurs specifically in green space may account for these mixed findings. This observational study was therefore concerned with the extent to which green space is a venue for physical activity and whether this could account for narrower socio-economic health inequalities in greener neighbourhoods. Secondary analysis of cross sectional data on 3679 adults (16+) living in urban areas across Scotland matched with a neighbourhood level measure of green space availability. Associations between green space availability and both total physical activity, and activity specifically within green space, were explored using logistic regression models. Interactions between socio-economic position and physical activity were assessed. All models adjusted for age, sex and household income. The availability of green space in a neighbourhood was not associated with total physical activity or that specifically in green space. There was no evidence that income-related inequalities in physical activity within green space were narrower in greener areas of Scotland.

Question: Is level of neighbourhood green space associated with physical activity in green space?

Physical activity may not be the main mechanism explaining the association between green space and health in Scotland. The direct effect of perceiving a natural environment on physiological and psychological health may offer an alternative explanation.

Answer the question based on the following context: The incidence of lung cancer cases among HIV-infected individuals is increasing with time. It is unclear whether HIV-infected individuals receive the same care for lung cancer as immunocompetent patients because of comorbidities, the potential for interaction between antiretroviral agents and cancer chemotherapy, and concerns regarding complications related to treatment or infection. The objective of this study was to assess the effect of HIV infection on receipt of guidance-concordant care, and its impact on overall survival among non-small cell lung cancer Medicare beneficiaries. The study design was a matched case-control design where each HIV patient was matched by age group, sex, race, and lung cancer stage at diagnosis with 20 controls randomly selected among those who were not HIV infected. The patients included in this study were Medicare beneficiaries diagnosed with non-small cell lung cancer between 1998 and 2007, who qualified for Medicare on the basis of age and were 65 years of age or older at the time of lung cancer diagnosis. HIV infection status was based on Medicare claims data. A total of 174 HIV cases and 3480 controls were included in the analysis. Odds ratios for receiving guidance-concordant care and hazard ratios for overall survival were estimated. HIV infection was not independently associated with the receipt of guidance-concordant care. Among stage I/II patients, median survival times were 26 and 43 months, respectively, for those with and without HIV infection (odds ratio=1.48, P=0.021).

Question: Do HIV-infected non-small cell lung cancer patients receive guidance-concordant care?

HIV infection was not associated with receipt of guidance-concordant care but reduced survival in early-stage patients.

Answer the question based on the following context: Antidepressants include a relatively wide spectrum of drugs that increase the synaptic concentration of monoamines, mostly through neurotransmitter reuptake blockade. The bed nucleus of stria teminalis (BNST) is considered a relay station in mediating the activation of stress response but also in the acquisition and expression of emotions. BNST is richly innervated by monoamines and sends back projections to the nucleus of origin. We previously showed that the administration of selective blockers of norepinephrine transporter (NET) increases the extracellular concentration (output) of dopamine, suggesting that dopamine could be captured by NET in the BNST. The aim of this study, carried out by means of in vivo microdialysis, was to ascertain the acute effects that antidepressants with varying mechanisms of action have on dopamine and norepinephrine output in the BNST. We observed that all the antidepressants tested (5-20 mg/kg i.p.) increased the output of catecholamines, dose dependently. In particular, the maximum increases (as a percent of basal) for norepinephrine and dopamine respectively, were as follows: desipramine, 239 and 137; reboxetine, 185 and 128; imipramine, 512 and 359; citalopram, 95 and 122; fluoxetine, 122 and 68; bupropion, 255 and 164.

Question: Antidepressants share the ability to increase catecholamine output in the bed nucleus of stria terminalis: a possible role in antidepressant therapy?

These results suggest that catecholamine transmission in the BNST may be part of a common downstream pathway that is involved in the action mechanism of antidepressants. Consequently, it is hypothesized that a dysfunction of neuronal transmission in this brain area may have a role in the etiology of affective disorders.

Answer the question based on the following context: Clinically valid cardiac evaluation via treadmill stress testing requires patients to achieve specific target heart rates and to successfully complete the cardiac examination. A comparison of the standard Bruce protocol and the ramped Bruce protocol was performed using data collected over a 1-y period from a targeted patient population with a body mass index (BMI) equal to or greater than 30 to determine which treadmill protocol provided more successful examination results. The functional capacity, metabolic equivalent units achieved, pressure rate product, and total time on the treadmill as measured for the obese patients were clinically valid and comparable to normal-weight and overweight patients (P<0.001). Data gathered from each protocol demonstrated that the usage of the ramped Bruce protocol achieved more consistent results in comparison across all BMI groups in achieving 80%-85% of their age-predicted maximum heart rate.

Question: Comparison of Bruce treadmill exercise test protocols: is ramped Bruce equal or superior to standard bruce in producing clinically valid studies for patients presenting for evaluation of cardiac ischemia or arrhythmia with body mass index equal to or greater than 30?

This study did not adequately establish that the ramped Bruce protocol was superior to the standard Bruce protocol for the examination of patients with a BMI equal to or greater than 30.

Answer the question based on the following context: To evaluate the reliability of the spectral domain handheld OCT (HH-OCT) in assessing foveal morphology in children with and without nystagmus. Forty-nine subjects with nystagmus (mean age 43.83 months; range, 1-82 months) and 48 controls (mean age 43.02 months; range, 0 to 83 months) were recruited and scanned using HH-OCT. A minimum of two separate volumetric scans on the same examination day of the fovea were obtained. The images were imported into ImageJ software where manual retinal layer segmentation of the central foveal B-scan was performed. Agreement between scans was assessed by determining the intraclass correlation coefficients (ICC) and Bland-Altman plots. Both the nystagmus and control groups showed an excellent degree of reproducibility between two examinations with ICCs greater than 0.96 for central macular thickness (CMT) and greater than 0.8 for the outer nuclear layer and outer segment of the photoreceptors. The nerve fiber layer, ganglion cell layer, outer plexiform layer, inner segment of the photoreceptors, and retinal pigment epithelium were less reliable with ICCs of less than 0.7. There was no difference in the reliability of scans obtained in children with nystagmus as compared with controls and both groups had good intereye agreement with ICCs greater than 0.94 for CMT.

Question: Is handheld optical coherence tomography reliable in infants and young children with and without nystagmus?

We have shown for the first time that the HH-OCT provides reliable measurements in children with and without nystagmus. This is important, as the HH-OCT will have a greater diagnostic and prognostic role in young children with nystagmus and other eye diseases in the future.

Answer the question based on the following context: Understanding the factors contributing to improved postoperative patient outcomes remains paramount. For complex abdominal operations such as pancreaticoduodenectomy (PD), the influence of provider and hospital volume on surgical outcomes has been described. The impact of resident experience is less well understood. We reviewed perioperative outcomes after PD at a single high-volume center between 2006 and 2012. Resident participation and outcomes were collected in a prospectively maintained database. Resident experience was defined as postgraduate year (PGY) and number of PDs performed. Forty-three residents and four attending surgeons completed 686 PDs. The overall complication rate was 44 %; PD-specific complications (defined as pancreatic fistula, delayed gastric emptying, intraabdominal abscess, wound infection, and bile leak) occurred in 28 % of patients. The overall complication rates were similar when comparing PGY 4 to PGY 5 residents (55.3 vs. 43.0 %; p > 0.05). On univariate analysis, there was a difference in PD-specific complications seen between a PGY 4 as compared to a PGY 5 resident (44 vs. 27 %, respectively; p = 0.016). However, this was not statistically significant when adjusted for attending surgeon. Logistic regression demonstrated that as residents perform more cases, PD-specific complications decrease (OR = 0.97; p < 0.01). For a resident's first PD case, the predicted probability of a PD-specific complication is 27 %; this rate decreases to 19 % by resident case number 15.

Question: Does resident experience affect outcomes in complex abdominal surgery?

Complex cases, such as PD, provide unparalleled learning opportunities and remain an important component of surgical training. We highlight the impact of resident involvement in complex abdominal operations, demonstrating for the first time that as residents build experience with PD, patient outcomes improve. This is consistent with volume-outcome relationships for attending physicians and high-volume hospitals. Maximizing resident repetitive exposure to complex procedures benefits both the patient and the trainee.

Answer the question based on the following context: The objectives of this study were to compare early predictive marker of the metabolic syndrome with proopiomelanocortin (POMC) methylation status and to determine the association among birth weight, ponderal index, and cord blood methylation status. We collected pregnancy outcome data from pregnant women, cord blood samples at delivery, and blood from children (7-9 years old; n = 90) through a prospective cohort study at Ewha Womans University, MokDong Hospital (Seoul, Korea), from 2003-2005. POMC methylation was assessed by pyrosequencing. We divided subjects into three groups according to cord blood POMC methylation: the low methylation (<10th percentile), mid-methylation, and high methylation (>90th percentile) groups. We analyzed the association of POMC methylation status at birth with adiposity and metabolic components using ANCOVA and multiple linear regression analysis. Birth weights (P = 0.01) and ponderal indices (P = 0.01) in the high POMC methylation group were significantly lower than in the mid-POMC methylation group. In terms of metabolic components of childhood, blood triglycerides (57.97, 67.29 vs. 113.89 mg/dL; P = 0.03, 0.01) and insulin (7.10, 7.64 vs. 10.13 μIU/mL; P = 0.05, 0.02) at childhood were significantly higher in the high POMC methylation group than in the low and mid-POMC methylation group.

Question: Can proopiomelanocortin methylation be used as an early predictor of metabolic syndrome?

High POMC methylation in cord blood was associated with lower birth weight, and children with high POMC methylation in cord blood showed higher triglycerides and higher insulin concentrations in blood. Thus, POMC methylation status in cord blood may be an early predictive marker of future metabolic syndrome.

Answer the question based on the following context: The purpose of the study is to explain the cause-effect relationship in three patients who reported combined ruptures of the Achilles tendon and the gastrosoleus complex 6 months after they had received corticosteroids injections for the management of retrocalcaneal bursitis. Three cryopreserved cadavers (three men, three left legs) were examined to assess the anatomic connection between the retrocalcaneal bursa and the Achilles tendon (distal and anterior fibers). Blue triptan medium contrast was injected. An unexpected connection between the retrocalcaneal bursa and the anterior fibers of the Achilles tendon was found in all instances.

Question: Can local corticosteroid injection in the retrocalcaneal bursa lead to rupture of the Achilles tendon and the medial head of the gastrocnemius muscle?

Local corticosteroid injection of the retrocalcaneal bursa may help the symptoms of retrocalcanear bursitis, but pose a risk of Achilles tendon rupture. This risk-benefit has to be taken into account when corticosteroid injections are prescribed to professional and high-level athletes.

Answer the question based on the following context: Our aim was to investigate if patients with suspected myocardial infarction (MI) and a new or presumed new left bundle branch block (nLBBB) were treated according to the ESC reperfusion guidelines and to compare them with patients having a previously known LBBB (oLBBB). Furthermore, we investigated the prevalence of ST-segment concordance in this population. Retrospective data was collected from the Swedeheart registry for patients admitted to the cardiac care unit at Örebro University Hospital with LBBB and suspected MI during 2009 and 2010. The patients were divided in two age groups;<80 or ≥80 years and analysed for LBBB chronicity (nLBBB or oLBBB), MI, and reperfusion treatment. We also compared our data with the national Swedeheart database for 2009. A total of 99 patients fulfilled the inclusion criteria. A diagnosis of MI was significantly more common in the group ≥80 years compared to the group<80 years (53.8 vs. 25%, p=0.007). The rate of MI was similar in the groups with nLBBB and oLBBB (33 and 37% respectively, p=0.912). Of the 36 patients with a final diagnosis of MI, only eight (22%) had nLBBB. Reperfusion treatment, defined as an acute coronary angiography with or without intervention, was significantly more often performed in patients with nLBBB compared to patients with oLBBB (42 vs. 8%, p<0.001). The rate of MI and reperfusion treatment did not differ between our institution and the Swedish national data. ST-concordance was present in only two cases, one of which did not suffer an MI.

Question: Left bundle branch block and suspected myocardial infarction: does chronicity of the branch block matter?

The proportion of patients receiving reperfusion treatment was low, but higher in nLBBB, reflecting a partial adherence to the guidelines. We found no correlation between LBBB chronicity and MI. Furthermore, only a minority of the MIs occurred in patients with nLBBB. ST-concordance was found in only one of 36 MI cases, indicating lack of sensitivity for this test.

Answer the question based on the following context: The aim was to examine the potential influence of social isolation and low societal participation on the future risk of receiving disability pension among individuals in Sweden. A specific aim was to describe differences depending on disability pension diagnoses, and how the results were modified by sex and age. The study comprised representative samples of Swedish women and men, who had been interviewed in any of the annual Swedish Surveys of Living Conditions between 1990 and 2007. Information on disability pension and diagnoses was added from the Swedish Social Insurance Agency's database (1991-2011). The mean number of years of follow-up for the 53920 women and men was twelve years (SD 5.5), and the study base was restricted to the ages 20 to 64 years of age. The predictors were related to disability pension by Cox's proportional hazards regression. Social isolation and low societal participation were associated with future disability pension also after control for age, year of interview, socio demographic conditions and self reported longstanding illness. Lone individuals were at increased risk of disability pension, and the effect of living without children was modified by sex and age. An increase in risk was particularly noticeable among younger women who reported that they had sparse contacts with others, and no close friend. Both women and men who reported that they did not participate in political discussions and who could not appeal on a decision by a public authority were also at increased risk. The effects of social isolation were mainly attributed to disability pension with mental diagnoses, and to younger individuals.

Question: Does social isolation and low societal participation predict disability pension?

The study suggests that social isolation and low societal participation are predictors of future disability pension. Social isolation and low societal participation increased particularly the risk of future disability pension in mental diagnoses among younger individuals.

Answer the question based on the following context: Encouraging patients to be more vigilant about their care challenges the traditional dynamics of patient-healthcare professional interactions. This study aimed to explore, from the perspectives of both patients and frontline healthcare staff, the potential consequences of patient-mediated intervention as a way of pushing safety improvement through the involvement of patients. Qualitative study, using purposive sampling and semi-structured interviews with patients, their relatives and healthcare professionals. Emergent themes were identified using grounded theory, with data coded using NVIVO 8. 16 patients, 4 relatives, (mean age (sd) 60 years (15); 12 female, 8 male) and 39 healthcare professionals, (9 pharmacists, 11 doctors, 12 nurses, 7 health care assistants). Participants were sampled from general medical and surgical wards, taking acute and elective admissions, in two hospitals in north east England. Positive consequences were identified but some actions encouraged by current patient-mediated approaches elicited feelings of suspicion and mistrust. For example, patients felt speaking up might appear rude or disrespectful, were concerned about upsetting staff and worried that their care might be compromised. Staff, whilst apparently welcoming patient questions, appeared uncertain about patients' motives for questioning and believed that patients who asked many questions and/or who wrote things down were preparing to complain. Behavioural implications were identified that could serve to exacerbate patient safety problems (e.g. staff avoiding contact with inquisitive patients or relatives; patients avoiding contact with unreceptive staff).

Question: Seeing it from both sides: do approaches to involving patients in improving their safety risk damaging the trust between patients and healthcare professionals?

Approaches that aim to push improvement in patient safety through the involvement of patients could engender mistrust and create negative tensions in the patient-provider relationship. A more collaborative approach, that encourages patients and healthcare staff to work together, is needed. Future initiatives should aim to shift the current focus away from "checking up" on individual healthcare professionals to one that engages both parties in the common goal of enhancing safety.

Answer the question based on the following context: To evaluate the ability of prostate HistoScanning™ (PHS; Advanced Medical Diagnostics, Waterloo, Belgium) to detect, characterize and locally stage prostate cancer, by comparing it with transrectal ultrasonography (TRUS)-guided prostate biopsies, transperineal template prostate biopsies (TTBs) and whole-mount radical prostatectomy specimens. Study 1. We recruited 24 patients awaiting standard 12-core TRUS-guided biopsies of the prostate to undergo PHS immediately beforehand. We compared PHS with the TRUS-guided biopsy results in terms of their ability to detect cancer within the whole prostate and to localize it to the correct side and to the correct region of the prostate. Lesions that were suspicious on PHS were biopsied separately. Study 2. We recruited 57 patients awaiting TTB to have PHS beforehand. We compared PHS with the TTB pathology results in terms of their ability to detect prostate cancer within the whole gland and to localize it to the correct side and to the correct sextant of the prostate. Study 3. We recruited 24 patients awaiting radical prostatectomy for localized prostate cancer to undergo preoperative PHS. We compared PHS with standardized pathological analysis of the whole-mount prostatectomy specimens in terms of their measurement of total tumour volume within the prostate, tumour volume within prostate sextants and volume of index lesions identified by PHS. The PHS-targeted biopsies had an overall cancer detection rate of 38.1%, compared with 62.5% with standard TRUS-guided biopsies. The sensitivity and specificity of PHS for localizing tumour to the correct prostate sextant, compared with standard TRUS-guided biopsies, were 100 and 5.9%, respectively. The PHS-targeted biopsies had an overall cancer detection rate of 13.4% compared with 54.4% for standard TTB. PHS had a sensitivity and specificity for cancer detection in the posterior gland of 100 and 13%, respectively, and for the anterior gland, 6 and 82%, respectively. We found no correlation between total tumour volume estimates from PHS and radical prostatectomy pathology (Pearson correlation coefficient -0.096). Sensitivity and specificity of PHS for detecting tumour foci ≥0.2 mL in volume were 63 and 53%.

Question: Does prostate HistoScanning™ play a role in detecting prostate cancer in routine clinical practice?

These three independent studies in 105 patients suggest that PHS does not reliably identify and characterize prostate cancer in the routine clinical setting.

Answer the question based on the following context: The effect of periodontal infection on systemic diseases and conditions has been the subject of numerous studies worldwide. It is considered that periodontitis may influence the hyperinflammatory response in patients with severe asthma as a result of immuno-inflammatory changes. This study aims to evaluate the influence of periodontitis on severe asthma in adults. A case-control study was carried out, comprising 220 adult individuals: 113 diagnosed with asthma (case group) and 107 without asthma diagnosis (control group). The diagnosis of periodontitis was established after a full clinical examination using probing depth, clinical attachment level, and bleeding on probing. The diagnosis of severe asthma was based on the criteria recommended by the Global Initiative of Asthma (2012). Descriptive analyses of the variables were performed, followed by bivariate analyses, using the χ(2) test. Association measurements (odds ratio [OR]), with and without adjustment for potential confounders, were obtained. A significance level of 5% was used. The ORunadjusted for the main association was 4.38 (95% confidence interval [CI] = 2.47 to 7.75). In the logistic regression model, after adjusting for age, education level, osteoporosis, smoking habit, and body mass index, the ORadjusted was 4.82 (95% CI = 2.66 to 8.76), which was statistically significant. Individuals with periodontal infection showed, approximately, five times more likelihood to have bronchial inflammation than those without such periodontal tissue infection.

Question: Does periodontal infection have an effect on severe asthma in adults?

The findings demonstrate the influence of periodontitis on severe asthma, given that the frequency of periodontitis is higher in individuals with severe asthma than in those without a diagnosis of bronchial inflammation.

Answer the question based on the following context: Reactivation of toxoplasmic retinochoroiditis is the most frequent form of uveitis in Misiones, Argentina. Fluctuations in the number of patients consulting with this type of uveitis were detected during the last decade. Since the province was consecutively exposed to rainy and dry periods over the last years, we decided to explore whether a relationship between reactivation of toxoplasmic retinochoroiditis and rain might be established according to the data registered during the 2004-2010 period. The frequency of toxoplasmic reactivation episodes increases when precipitation increases (mostly in second and fourth trimesters of each year). Analysis of the independent variables demonstrates that precipitation is a significant predictor of the frequency of reactivation episodes. Although registered toxoplasmic reactivations were more frequent during the third trimester of the year, the association between the third trimester and the reactivation episodes did not reach statistical significance.

Question: Is reactivation of toxoplasmic retinochoroiditis associated to increased annual rainfall?

Prolonged and intense rainfall periods were significantly associated with the reactivation of toxoplasmic retinochoroiditis. Changes promoted by this climatic condition on both the parasite survival in the soil as well as a putative effect on the host immune response due to other comorbidities are discussed.

Answer the question based on the following context: The objective of our work is to search if there is a relation between azathioprine's metabolites (6-thioguanines nucleotides and 6-methyl mercaptopurines) and clinical efficacy and adverse effects of azathioprine in inflammatory bowel disease population. We included patients with Crohn's disease or ulcerative colitis (UC) treated by azathioprine for a duration more than 1 year. Each patient had a dosage of azathioprine metabolites. We included 43 Crohn's disease patients and 7 UC. Azathioprine was indicated for steroid dependancy in 23 cases, to prevent post-operative recurrence in 10 cases, to maintain clinical remission obtained by medical treatment in 17 patients. A clinical response to azathioprine (obtention of remission, absence of recurrence during the follow up) was observed in 34 patients.

Question: Is there any interest to dose the azathioprine's metabolites during inflammatory bowel diseases?

Our work confirms the relation between the doses of azathioprine metabolites and the myelotoxicity due to this molecule.

Answer the question based on the following context: The way in which maternity care is provided affects perinatal outcomes for pregnant adolescents; including the likelihood of preterm birth. The study purpose was to assess the feasibility of recruiting pregnant adolescents into a randomised controlled trial, in order to inform the design of an adequately powered trial which could test the effect of caseload midwifery on preterm birth for pregnant adolescents. We recruited pregnant adolescents into a feasibility study of a prospective, un-blinded, two-arm, randomised controlled trial of caseload midwifery compared to standard care. We recorded and analysed recruitment data in order to provide estimates to be used in the design of a larger study. The proportion of women aged 15-17 years who were eligible for the study was 34% (n=10), however the proportion who agreed to be randomised was only 11% (n = 1). Barriers to recruitment were restrictive eligibility criteria, unwillingness of hospital staff to assist with recruitment, and unwillingness of pregnant adolescents to have their choice of maternity carer removed through randomisation.

Question: Is a randomised controlled trial of a maternity care intervention for pregnant adolescents possible?

A randomised controlled trial of caseload midwifery care for pregnant adolescents would not be feasible in this setting without modifications to the research protocol. The recruitment plan should maximise opportunities for participation by increasing the upper age limit and enabling women to be recruited at a later gestation. Strategies to engage the support of hospital-employed staff are essential and would require substantial, and ongoing, work. A Zelen method of post-randomisation consent, monetary incentives and 'peer recruiters' could also be considered.

Answer the question based on the following context: In antiretroviral treatment the role of therapeutic drug monitoring via measurement of serum levels remains unclear, especially in children.AIM: To quantify exposure to LPV and EFV in children receiving therapy in a routine clinical setting in order to identify risk factors associated with inadequate drug exposure. A prospective study was conducted in a routine clinical setting in Tygerberg Children's Hospital, South Africa. A total of 53 random serum levels were analyzed. Serum concentrations were determined by an established high-performance liquid chromatography method. Of 53 HIV-infected children treated with lopinavir (n = 29, median age 1·83 y) or efavirenz (n = 24, median age 9·3 years), 12 showed serum levels outside the therapeutic range (efavirenz) or below Cmin (lopinavir). Low bodyweight, rifampicin co-treatment, and significant comorbidity were potential risk factors for inadequate drug exposure.

Question: Are lopinavir and efavirenz serum concentrations in HIV-infected children in the therapeutic range in clinical practice?

These findings, together with previous studies, indicate that therapeutic drug monitoring can improve the management of antiretroviral therapy in children at risk.

Answer the question based on the following context: Socio-cultural factors have been hypothesized to be important drivers for inappropriate antibiotic prescribing in ambulatory care. This study sought to assess any potential role in perioperative surgical prophylaxis (PAP) administered for>24 h (PAP>24). Within hospitals, PAP continues to be administered for longer than 24 h, despite unequivocal evidence of ineffectiveness beyond this period. A recently published European Centre for Disease Prevention and Control (ECDC) point prevalence survey (PPS) has reported that in 70% of participating countries, PAP>24 was administered in more than half of the surgical operations surveyed. Correlation and simple linear regression modelling was performed using the PAP>24 proportions for the countries in the ECDC PPS report and the respective scores for the cultural construct of uncertainty avoidance (UA), as detailed by Hofstede. Pearson correlation analysis produced a moderately strong coefficient (r) of 0.50 (95% CI 0.16-0.74; P = 0.007). Simple regression yielded a model of PAP>24 = 29.87 + 0.40UA (R(2) = 0.25; P = 0.007).

Question: Prolonged perioperative surgical prophylaxis within European hospitals: an exercise in uncertainty avoidance?

Cultural factors, namely UA, appear to be an important driver for PAP>24. Any strategy aimed at improving prolonged PAP should be informed by clear knowledge of local socio-cultural barriers, so as to achieve the most successful intervention possible.

Answer the question based on the following context: It would be interesting to the emergency doctor to have at his disposal a helpful diagnostic tool like brain natriuretic peptide (BNP). Such assay is simple, available and reliable. To report our experience on the role of BNP in the etiological diagnosis of acute dyspnea (AD) in emergency room (ER) and to assess the cost-effectiveness ratio of such diagnosis strategy. A prospective study conducted in the ER of Rabta university teaching hospital of Tunis, from March 1st to June 20th 2010, involving 30 consecutive patients presenting to the emergency for AD. All patients underwent echocardiography in their acute phase and benefited from the dosage of BNP during the first 4 hours. The echocardiography parameters were collected by a single operator who was unaware of the results of the BNP dosage. The mean age of patients was 72.8years with a sex ratio of 1.5. AD was of orthopnea type in 9 cases and stage III NYHA dyspnea in the other patients. Clinical and radiological signs of left heart failure were noted in 30% of cases. Ultrasound data have objectified systolic dysfunction in 4 cases, diastolic in 3 cases and systolic plus diastolic in 10 cases. The BNP levels were below 100 pg/ml in 10 cases with pulmonary origin of the AD. A BNP level between 100 and 400 pg/ml was noted in 3 cases. In our study, the clinical probability of AHF prior to performing the test was estimated at 53% and estimated at 100% after the BNP assay. The BNP assay has reduced the length of stay in the emergency department 4 to 5 days and saved nearly 50% of the cost of care per patient.

Question: Is BNP assay useful for the diagnosis of acute dyspnea in emergencies departments?

The BNP assay, has allowed us to confirm the AHF all cases. Given the prognostic value and economic benefit of this test we recommend its use in ER of our country.

Answer the question based on the following context: To investigate the impact of the maximum standardized uptake value (SUVmax), size of primary lung lesion, and %ΔSUVmax on outcome (overall survival (OS) and 2-year disease-free survival (2-year DFS)) of patients with advanced nonsmall-cell lung cancer (NSCLC). 86 stage III-IV NSCLC patients underwent 18 F-FDGPET/CT, before and after chemotherapy, and were classified into subgroups according to the response criteria of the European Organization for Research and Treatment of Cancer. SUVmax values and tumor size with the best prognostic significance were searched. Correlation between the SUVmax value and the initial response to therapy (best response) and the relationship between %ΔSUVmax and OS were assessed. In patients in PD (20/86), the average pretreatment SUVmax was 11.8 ± 5.23, and the mean size of the primary lesion was 43.35 mm ± 16.63. In SD, PR, and CR patients (66/86), the average pretreatment SUVmax was 12.7 ± 8.05, and the mean size of the primary lesion was 41.6 mm ± 21.15. Correlation was identified only for %ΔSUVmax; patients with PD (ΔSUVmax>+25%) showed a worse OS than patients with ΔSUVmax<+25% (CR, PR, and SD) (P = 0.0235).

Question: Is %ΔSUVmax a useful indicator of survival in patients with advanced nonsmall-cell lung cancer?

In stage III-IV NSCLC, among the assessed factors, only %ΔSUVmax may be considered as a useful prognostic factor.

Answer the question based on the following context: There are few Scandinavian studies on the effect of computer assisted orthopedic surgery (CAOS) in total knee arthroplasty (TKA), compared to conventional technique (CON), and there is little information on effects in pain and function scores. This retrospective study has evaluated the effects of CAOS on radiological parameters and pain, function and quality of life after primary TKA. 198 primary TKAs were operated by one surgeon in two district hospitals; 103 CAOS and 95 CON. The groups were evaluated based on 3 months post-operative radiographs and a questionnaire containing the knee osteoarthritis outcome score (KOOS), the EQ-5D index score and a visual analogue scale (VAS) two years after surgery. Multiple linear regression method was used to investigate possible impact from exposure (CON or CAOS). On hip-knee-ankle radiographs, 20% of measurements were>±3° of neutral in the CAOS group and 25% in the CON group (p = 0.37). For the femoral component, the number was 5% for CAOS and 18% for CON (p<0.01). For the tibial component, the difference was not statistically significant (p = 0.58). In the sagittal plane, the surgeon tended to apply more femoral flexion and more posterior tibial slope with CAOS. We observed no statistically or clinically significant difference in KOOS score, VAS or ∆EQ-5D (all p values>0.05), but there was a trend towards better scores for CAOS. Operation time was 3 minutes longer for CON (p = 0.37).

Question: Is the use of computer navigation in total knee arthroplasty improving implant positioning and function?

CAOS can improve radiological measurements in primary TKA, and makes it possible to adjust component placement to the patient's anatomy. Over-all, the two methods are equal in pain, function and quality-of-life scores.

Answer the question based on the following context: Assessment of anatomical complexity with the RENAL (radius; exophytic/endophytic; nearness; anterior/posterior; location) and preoperative aspects and dimensions used for anatomical classification (PADUA) nephrometry indices is used to predict complications related to surgical extirpation treatment for patients with clinical T1a/b renal mass. This single center study aims to investigate the value of these indices to predict complications in a cohort of patients treated with laparoscopic cryoablation (LCA) for cT1 renal mass. Single institution data from consecutive LCA procedures were prospectively collected from December 2006 to April 2013. Renal mass anatomical complexity was categorized according to RENAL and PADUA indices. Comorbidity was assessed by the Charlson-index. Intraoperative complications (IOCs) were reviewed and categorized: blood loss>100 mL, conversion, tumor fracture, and incomplete ablation. Postoperative complications (POCs) were graded using the modified Clavien-index. Univariate and multivariate logistic regression models addressed the risk for complications. Ninety-nine LCA procedures were included. The median RENAL-score was 7.0 (standard deviation [SD] 1.7), and the median PADUA-score was 8.0 (SD 1.6). IOC occurred in 19 procedures (19%). The risk for IOC was significantly correlated (p<0.05) with tumor diameter (mm), surface, volume, the RENAL domains "R-size," "N-nearness to collecting system," "RENAL score," and the PADUA domain "diameter." In multivariate analysis with surgical complication as the independent variable, tumor diameter, surface, and volume were determining factors. A threshold was set for 35 mm tumor diameter, it being predictive for an increased risk for IOC performing LCA. Twenty-three POC occurred in 20 patients. On univariate analysis, the RENAL domain "nearness to collecting system," and no PADUA domains, had a significant association with POC.

Question: Can RENAL and PADUA nephrometry indices predict complications of laparoscopic cryoablation for clinical stage T1 renal tumors?

The RENAL score, and not the PADUA score, is associated with a higher risk for IOC. A noncategorized method of scoring tumor diameter showed a more significant correlation with the risk for IOC than the categorized method of the nephrometry indices. As a result a threshold diameter of 35 mm was established.

Answer the question based on the following context: To estimate the association between contraction patterns in labor and neonatal outcomes. A nested case-control study within a consecutive term birth cohort included women in labor with intrauterine pressure catheters (IUPCs) who reached the second stage. Cases were women delivering neonates with composite morbidity: special care or intensive care unit admission, umbilical artery pH ≤ 7.1 or 5-min Apgar<7. The control group delivered without any components of the composite morbidity. Contraction frequency, duration, relaxation time, Montevideo units (MVUs) and baseline tone in the last 30 min prior to delivery were compared. We used logistic regression to adjust for potential confounders and receiver operating characteristic curves to evaluate the ability of contraction parameters to predict adverse neonatal outcomes. There were 183 cases of adverse neonatal outcomes and 2172 controls without the composite outcome. Contraction duration, relaxation time, MVUs and baseline tone did not significantly differ between the groups. Tachysystole was more common in women with the adverse neonatal outcome (21% versus 15%, p = 0.01). A model including tachysystole, oxytocin use and nulliparity did not adequately predict the adverse outcome (AUC = 0.61).

Question: Can contraction patterns predict neonatal outcomes?

Although tachysystole is associated with adverse neonatal outcomes, uterine activity cannot be used to predict neonatal outcome.

Answer the question based on the following context: The indeterminate fine needle aspiration biopsy (FNAB) results present a clinical dilemma for physicians. The aim of this study was to evaluate the diagnostic accuracy of fluorine-18 fluorodeoxyglucose positron emission tomography (18F-FDG PET) in the detection of these indeterminate lesions. Seven studies (involving a total of 267 patients) published before November 2012 were reviewed. Systematic methods were used to identify, select, and evaluate the methodological quality of the studies as well as to summarize the overall findings of sensitivity and specificity. A total number of 70 patients were confirmed to have malignant lesions, with a cancer prevalence of 26.2% (70/267; ranging from 19.6% to 40.0% in these studies). The pooled sensitivity and specificity of PET or PET/CT for the detection of cancer was 89.0% (95% CI: 79.0% ~ 95.0%) and 55.0% (95% CI: 48.0% ~ 62.0%), respectively. There was no evidence of threshold effects or publication bias. The area [±standard error (±SE)] under the symmetrical sROC curve was 0.7207 ± 0.1041. Although SUVmax was higher in malignant lesions (P<0.01), there was still a great overlap. The best cut-off value of SUVmax for differentiation was 2.05; but with a high sensitivity of 89.8% and low specificity of 42.0%.

Question: Is fluorine-18 fluorodeoxyglucose positron emission tomography useful for the thyroid nodules with indeterminate fine needle aspiration biopsy?

F-FDG PET or PET/CT showed a high sensitivity in detecting thyroid cancers in patients with indeterminate FNAB results. Further examination was strongly recommended when an FDG-avid lesion was detected.

Answer the question based on the following context: The treatment of cholecystocholedochal lithiasis (CCL) requires cholecystectomy and common bile duct (CBD) clearance, which can be achieved surgically or with a combination of surgery and endoscopy. The latter includes a two-stage-approach-preoperative retrograde cholangiography (ERC) and sphincterotomy (ST) followed by delayed laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC), or vice versa-or a one-stage-approach-the rendezvous technique (RVT), where ERC, ST, and LC are performed during the same procedure. No data on the use of RVT in octogenarians have been reported in the literature so far. The study aims to show whether the RVT is as effective in elderly as in younger patients. Moreover, results of RVT are compared with those of a two-stage sequential treatment (TSST) in octogenarians, to identify the best approach to such a population. Prospectively collected data of 131 consecutive patients undergoing RVT for biliary tract stone disease were retrospectively analyzed. Two analyses were performed: (1) results of RVT (operative time, conversion rate, CBD clearance, morbidity/mortality, hospital stay, costs, and need for further endoscopy) were compared between octogenarians and younger patients, and (2) results of RVT in the elderly were compared with those of 27 octogenarians undergoing TSST for CCL. Octogenarians undergoing RVT were in poorer general condition (P<.0001) and had a higher conversion rate (P<.0001) and a longer hospital stay (P<.007) than younger patients. No differences in the rates of CBD clearance, surgery-related morbidity, mortality, and costs were recorded. Although octogenarians undergoing RVT were in poorer general condition than those undergoing TSST, the results of the two approaches were similar.

Question: Rendezvous technique for cholecystocholedochal lithiasis in octogenarians: is it as effective as in younger patients, or should endoscopic sphincterotomy followed by laparoscopic cholecystectomy be preferred?

RVT in the elderly seems to be as cost-effective as in younger patients; nevertheless, it may lead to a higher conversion rate and longer hospital stay. In octogenarians, RVT is not inferior to TSST in the treatment of CCL even for patients in poor condition.

Answer the question based on the following context: This study examined homemade masks as an alternative to commercial face masks. Several household materials were evaluated for the capacity to block bacterial and viral aerosols. Twenty-one healthy volunteers made their own face masks from cotton t-shirts; the masks were then tested for fit. The number of microorganisms isolated from coughs of healthy volunteers wearing their homemade mask, a surgical mask, or no mask was compared using several air-sampling techniques. The median-fit factor of the homemade masks was one-half that of the surgical masks. Both masks significantly reduced the number of microorganisms expelled by volunteers, although the surgical mask was 3 times more effective in blocking transmission than the homemade mask.

Question: Testing the efficacy of homemade masks: would they protect in an influenza pandemic?

Our findings suggest that a homemade mask should only be considered as a last resort to prevent droplet transmission from infected individuals, but it would be better than no protection.

Answer the question based on the following context: The fast development of e-learning and social forums demands us to update our understanding of e-learning and peer learning. We aimed to investigate if higher, pre-defined levels of e-learning or social interaction in web forums improved students' learning ability. One hundred and twenty Danish medical students were randomized to six groups all with 20 students (eCases level 1, eCases level 2, eCases level 2+, eTextbook level 1, eTextbook level 2, and eTextbook level 2+). All students participated in a pre-test, Group 1 participated in an interactive case-based e-learning program, while Group 2 was presented with textbook material electronically. The 2+ groups were able to discuss the material between themselves in a web forum. The subject was head injury and associated treatment and observation guidelines in the emergency room. Following the e-learning, all students completed a post-test. Pre- and post-tests both consisted of 25 questions randomly chosen from a pool of 50 different questions. All students concluded the study with comparable pre-test results. Students at Level 2 (in both groups) improved statistically significant compared to students at level 1 (p>0.05). There was no statistically significant difference between level 2 and level 2+. However, level 2+ was associated with statistically significant greater student's satisfaction than the rest of the students (p>0.05).

Question: Does peer learning or higher levels of e-learning improve learning abilities?

This study applies a new way of comparing different types of e-learning using a pre-defined level division and the possibility of peer learning. Our findings show that higher levels of e-learning does in fact provide better results when compared with the same type of e-learning at lower levels. While social interaction in web forums increase student satisfaction, learning ability does not seem to change. Both findings are relevant when designing new e-learning materials.

Answer the question based on the following context: This pilot study assessed the association between critical illness polyneuropathy (CIP) and decreased heart rate variability (HRV) in intensive care patients. All patients admitted to the intensive care unit and expected to be ventilated for at least 72 hours were included and underwent weekly electromyograms and HRV analyses for three weeks. HRV was assessed by time domain analysis of 24h recording electrocardiograms, and alterations in HRV were assessed as the square root of the mean squared differences of successive RR intervals (RMSSD) ≤ 15. We evaluated 26 patients, 12 men and 14 women, median age 64 years. During follow-up, 12 patients died and 9 developed CIP. CIP was not associated with age, sex, simplified acute physiology score II and treatment agents. Altered RMSSD tended to be associated with onset of CIP (P=0.06). Altered RMSSD occurred earlier or at the same time as electromyogram abnormalities in all CIP patients, but the difference was not significant.

Question: Is critical illness polyneuropathy associated with decreased heart rate variability?

Altered HRV, may be associated with the onset of CIP in ICU patients. Although not statistically significant (P=0.06), altered RMSSD may be a surrogate marker of CIP in ICU patients undergoing mechanical ventilation. The physiological pathway linking HRV and CIP remains uncertain.

Answer the question based on the following context: To evaluate whether the Child Behavior Checklist Dysregulated Profile (CBCL-DP) can be used as an effective predictor of psychopathological severity as indicated by suicidality and comorbidities, as well as a predictor of pediatric bipolar disorder (PBD). CBCL-DP scores for 397 youths seeking treatment for mood disorders were calculated by summing the t-scores of the Anxious/Depressed, Aggressive Behaviors, and Attention Problems subscales such that a clinical cut-off of 210 was used to indicate the presence of a dysregulated profile. Suicidality and an increased number of diagnoses were used as markers of illness severity. Those with a dysregulated profile presented more severe suicidal ideation when compared to those without the profile. They also had a significantly larger number of Axis I diagnoses. Groups did not differ in the amount of individuals diagnosed with PBD. Suicidal ideation was assessed by a third-party informant and not from the youths themselves. No other forms of suicidal behavior such as self-harm or suicide attempt were measured. Also there may not be complete convergence between parental reports on behavior and youth reports, which might have affected the results.

Question: The CBCL dysregulated profile: an indicator of pediatric bipolar disorder or of psychopathology severity?

These findings suggest that the CBCL-DP is an effective indicator of psychopathological severity through its association with more comorbidities and more severe suicidality. Earlier detection of psychopathological severity through an initial screening tool could aid clinicians in planning treatment and providing quicker and more structured care based on the client's needs.

Answer the question based on the following context: This study investigated gender differences in the relationship between alcohol consumption and cognitive impairment among older adults in South Korea. Using data from the Korean Longitudinal Study of Ageing, 2,471 females and 1,657 males were analyzed separately. Cognitive impairment was measured based on the Korean version of the Mini-Mental State Exam score. Logistic regression was conducted to examine the relationship between alcohol consumption and cognitive impairment among Korean older adults. Multivariate analysis showed that compared to moderate drinkers, past drinkers were more likely to be cognitively impaired for women, while heavy drinkers were more likely to be cognitively impaired for men.

Question: Alcohol consumption and cognitive impairment among Korean older adults: does gender matter?

Findings suggest that the relationship between alcohol consumption and cognition varies with gender. Clinicians and service providers should consider gender differences when developing strategies for the prevention and treatment of alcohol-related cognitive decline among older adults.

Answer the question based on the following context: In 2005, after the identification of cardiovascular safety concerns with the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), the FDA issued a black box warning recommending against the use of NSAIDs following cardiac surgery. The goal of this study was to assess the postoperative safety of ketorolac, an intravenously administered NSAID, after cardiac surgery. Retrospective observational study. Single center, regional hospital. A total of 1,309 cardiac surgical patients (78.1% coronary bypass, 28.0% valve) treated between 2006 and 2012. A total of 488 of these patients received ketorolac for postoperative analgesia within 72 hours of surgery. Ketorolac-treated patients were younger, had better preoperative renal function, and underwent less complex operations compared with non-ketorolac patients. Ketorolac was administered, on average, 8.7 hours after surgery (mean doses: 3.1). Postoperative outcomes for ketorolac-treated patients were similar to those expected using Society of Thoracic Surgery database risk-adjusted outcomes. In unadjusted analysis, patients who received ketorolac had similar or better postoperative outcomes compared with patients who did not receive ketorolac, including gastrointestinal bleeding (1.2% v 1.3%; p = 1.0), renal failure requiring dialysis (0.4% v 3.0%; p = 0.001), perioperative myocardial infarction (1.0% v 0.6%; p = 0.51), stroke or transient ischemic attack (1.0% v 1.7%; p = 0.47), and death (0.4% v 5.8%; p<0.0001). With adjustment in a multivariate model, treatment with ketorolac was not a predictor for adverse outcome in this cohort (odds ratio: 0.72; p = 0.23).

Question: Black box warning: is ketorolac safe for use after cardiac surgery?

Ketorolac appears to be well-tolerated for use when administered selectively after cardiac surgery. Although a black box warning exists, the data highlights the need for further research regarding its perioperative administration.

Answer the question based on the following context: In head and neck cancer, diffusion weighted MRI (DWI) can predict response early during treatment. Treatment-induced changes and DWI-specific artifacts hinder an accurate registration between apparent diffusion coefficient (ADC) maps. The aim of the study was to develop a registration tool which calculates and visualizes regional changes in ADC. Twenty patients with stage IV HNC treated with primary radiotherapy received an MRI including DWI before and early during treatment. Markers were manually placed at anatomical landmarks on the different modalities at both time points. A registration method, consisting of a fully automatic rigid and nonrigid registration and two semi-automatic thin-plate spline (TPS) warps was developed and applied to the image sets. After each registration step the mean registration errors were calculated and ΔADC was compared between good and poor responders. Adding the TPS warps significantly reduced the registration error (in mm, 6.3 ± 6.2 vs 3.2 ± 3.3 mm, p<0.001). After the marker based registration the median ΔADC in poor responders was significantly lower than in good responders (7% vs. 21%; p<0.001).

Question: Redefining the target early during treatment. Can we visualize regional differences within the target volume using sequential diffusion weighted MRI?

This registration method allowed for a significant reduction of the mean registration error. Furthermore the voxel-wise calculation of the ΔADC early during radiotherapy allowed for a visualization of the regional differences of ΔADC within the tumor.