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Answer the question based on the following context: The linea aspera is the rough, longitudinal crest on the posterior surface of the femoral shaft. Most orthopedic surgeons depend on the linea aspera as an intraoperative landmark identifying the true posterior aspect of the femur. We investigated the position of the linea aspera to verify whether the surgeon can rely on this accepted belief. One hundred and thirty-three femora from 73 patients were evaluated. Four CT cuts were done of the mid femur, and we measured the angle of rotation of the linea aspera at each cut. The linea aspera was externally rotated in most femora evaluated; average angles of rotation were 15.4°, 14°, 11.7°, and 11.5° at 10, 15, 20, and 25 cm from the intercondylar line, respectively. The angle of rotation of the linea aspera was positively correlated with femoral neck anteversion angle and negatively with age.

Question: The linea aspera as a guide for femoral rotation after tumor resection: is it directly posterior?

The linea aspera is exactly posterior in a minority of individuals, while it is externally rotated to varying degrees in the majority of individuals. The degree of rotation was positively correlated with femoral neck anteversion angle, and negatively with age. To avoid implant malrotation, accurate estimation of the rotation angle should be determined preoperatively.

Answer the question based on the following context: To compare the diagnostic performance of automated imaging for glaucoma. Prospective, direct comparison study. Adults with suspected glaucoma or ocular hypertension referred to hospital eye services in the United Kingdom. We evaluated 4 automated imaging test algorithms: the Heidelberg Retinal Tomography (HRT; Heidelberg Engineering, Heidelberg, Germany) glaucoma probability score (GPS), the HRT Moorfields regression analysis (MRA), scanning laser polarimetry (GDx enhanced corneal compensation; Glaucoma Diagnostics (GDx), Carl Zeiss Meditec, Dublin, CA) nerve fiber indicator (NFI), and Spectralis optical coherence tomography (OCT; Heidelberg Engineering) retinal nerve fiber layer (RNFL) classification. We defined abnormal tests as an automated classification of outside normal limits for HRT and OCT or NFI ≥ 56 (GDx). We conducted a sensitivity analysis, using borderline abnormal image classifications. The reference standard was clinical diagnosis by a masked glaucoma expert including standardized clinical assessment and automated perimetry. We analyzed 1 eye per patient (the one with more advanced disease). We also evaluated the performance according to severity and using a combination of 2 technologies. Sensitivity and specificity, likelihood ratios, diagnostic, odds ratio, and proportion of indeterminate tests. We recruited 955 participants, and 943 were included in the analysis. The average age was 60.5 years (standard deviation, 13.8 years); 51.1% were women. Glaucoma was diagnosed in at least 1 eye in 16.8%; 32% of participants had no glaucoma-related findings. The HRT MRA had the highest sensitivity (87.0%; 95% confidence interval [CI], 80.2%-92.1%), but lowest specificity (63.9%; 95% CI, 60.2%-67.4%); GDx had the lowest sensitivity (35.1%; 95% CI, 27.0%-43.8%), but the highest specificity (97.2%; 95% CI, 95.6%-98.3%). The HRT GPS sensitivity was 81.5% (95% CI, 73.9%-87.6%), and specificity was 67.7% (95% CI, 64.2%-71.2%); OCT sensitivity was 76.9% (95% CI, 69.2%-83.4%), and specificity was 78.5% (95% CI, 75.4%-81.4%). Including only eyes with severe glaucoma, sensitivity increased: HRT MRA, HRT GPS, and OCT would miss 5% of eyes, and GDx would miss 21% of eyes. A combination of 2 different tests did not improve the accuracy substantially.

Question: Can Automated Imaging for Optic Disc and Retinal Nerve Fiber Layer Analysis Aid Glaucoma Detection?

Automated imaging technologies can aid clinicians in diagnosing glaucoma, but may not replace current strategies because they can miss some cases of severe glaucoma.

Answer the question based on the following context: The initial experience with ABO incompatible (ABOi) orthotopic liver transplantations (OLTs) was dismal. In the current study, we investigated whether ABOi pediatric OLTs could achieve acceptable patient outcomes. The option for ABOi transplantation is vital because critically ill children have limited access to donor liver allografts. Kaplan-Meier and multivariate Cox analysis was performed on data collected from 13,179 pediatric OLT recipients in the United Network for Organ Sharing database, including 540 ABOi recipients. We also analyzed 18 pediatric recipients of ABOi OLTs at Texas Children's Hospital. Recipients were divided into 2 groups: transplanted between 1987 to 2002 (remote era) and 2002 to 2013 (modern era). Analysis revealed 4 main points. First, there was a significant (p<0.01) improvement in ABOi OLT survival in the modern era. Second, threshold analysis revealed superior outcomes (p<0.01) for OLT recipients younger than 2 years of age. Third, survival outcomes for ABOi and ABO-identical OLTs were the same for recipients younger than 2 years: ABOi was 91.8% (1 year) and 88.4% (5 year), and ABO identical was 91.5% (1 year) and 86.7% (5 year) (p = 0.94). Lastly, we found identical OLT results when analyzing our own institutional experience. To date, there has been a 92.9% survival rate in the modern era compared with 75% in the remote era. All recipients younger than 2 years (n = 9) are still alive, compared with 78% of those older than 2 years.

Question: Pediatric Liver Transplantation Across the ABO Blood Group Barrier: Is It an Obstacle in the Modern Era?

This analysis revealed a significant improvement in the survival of ABOi liver transplant recipients in the modern era. Importantly, ABOi liver transplantation can be performed in recipients younger than 2 years of age with equivalent outcomes compared with ABO-identical recipients.

Answer the question based on the following context: As major actors in sports activities, sports coaches can play a significant role in health education and contribute to the psychological well-being of young people. However, not all participants in sports activities experience sports positively, which reduces the potential benefits for health. The present study investigates if coaches' efforts to promote health increase young athletes' enjoyment, self-esteem and perceived health in daily life and decrease sport dropout. To control for the variability between teams and between clubs, multilevel modeling was applied. A sample of 342 young football players completed questionnaires assessing their perceptions of coaches' Health Promotion (HP) activities, enjoyment of sports, dropout intentions, self-esteem and perceived health in daily life. HP general score was positively related to enjoyment and perceived health as well as negatively dropout intentions. Players perceiving their coaches as promoting fair and play (Respect for oneself and others) scored higher on their perceptions of enjoyment in sport, self-esteem and self-reported health, and lower on dropout intentions. Moreover, players recognizing their coaches as encouraging their healthy lifestyle also reported higher perceptions of sport enjoyment, whereas player's perceived coaches' activities on substance use were associated with lower participants' enjoyment.

Question: Are coaches' health promotion activities beneficial for sport participants?

These results support the importance of developing HP in sports clubs. Especially, promoting respect of oneself and others seems to be the more beneficial to sport participants.

Answer the question based on the following context: The Affordable Care Act placed a moratorium on physician-owned hospital (POH) expansion. Concern exists that POHs increase costs and target healthier patients. However, limited historical data support these claims and are not weighed against contemporary measures of quality and patient satisfaction. The purpose of this study was to investigate the quality, costs, and efficiency across hospital types. One hundred forty-five hospitals in a single state were analyzed: 8 POHs; 16 proprietary hospitals (PHs); and 121 general, full-service acute care hospitals (ACHs). Multiyear data from the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services Medicare Cost Report and the statewide Health Care Cost Containment Council were analyzed. ACHs had a higher percentage of Medicare patients as a share of net patient revenue, with similar Medicare volume. POHs garnered significantly higher patient satisfaction: mean Hospital Consumer Assessment of Healthcare Providers and Systems summary rating was 4.86 (vs PHs: 2.88, ACHs: 3.10; P = .002). POHs had higher average total episode spending ($22,799 vs PHs: $18,284, ACHs: $18,856), with only $1435 of total spending on post-acute care (vs PHs: $3867, ACHs: $3378). Medicare spending per beneficiary and Medicare spending per beneficiary performance rates were similar across all hospital types, as were complication and readmission rates related to hip or knee surgery.

Question: Are the Affordable Care Act Restrictions Warranted?

POHs had better patient satisfaction, with higher total costs compared to PHs and ACHs. A focus on efficiency, patient satisfaction, and ratio of inpatient-to-post-acute care spending should be weighted carefully in policy decisions that might impact access to quality health care.

Answer the question based on the following context: Large breast size is associated with increased risk of late adverse effects after surgery and radiotherapy for early breast cancer. It is hypothesised that effects of radiotherapy on adipose tissue are responsible for some of the effects seen. In this study, the association of breast composition with late effects was investigated along with other breast features such as fibroglandular tissue distribution, seroma and scar. The patient dataset comprised of 18 cases with changes in breast appearance at 2 years follow-up post-radiotherapy and 36 controls with no changes, from patients entered into the FAST-Pilot and UK FAST trials at The Royal Marsden. Breast composition, fibroglandular tissue distribution, seroma and scar were assessed on planning CT scan images and compared using univariate analysis. The association of all features with late-adverse effect was tested using logistic regression (adjusting for confounding factors) and matched analysis was performed using conditional logistic regression. In univariate analyses, no statistically significant differences were found between cases and controls in terms of breast features studied. A statistically significant association (p<0.05) between amount of seroma and change in photographic breast appearance was found in unmatched and matched logistic regression analyses with odds ratio (95% CI) of 3.44 (1.28-9.21) and 2.57 (1.05-6.25), respectively.

Question: Does breast composition influence late adverse effects in breast radiotherapy?

A significant association was found between seroma and late-adverse effects after radiotherapy although no significant associations were noted with breast composition in this study. Therefore, the cause for large breast size as a risk factor for late effects after surgery and optimally planned radiotherapy remains unresolved.

Answer the question based on the following context: Acinic cell carcinoma (AcCC) is an uncommon salivary gland malignancy. We aim to characterize the clinical and pathologic characteristics of AcCC with and without high-grade transformation (HGT). Importantly, cases of mammary analogue secretory carcinoma, a recently described histologic mimic of AcCC, have been excluded by using cytogenetics and molecular studies. Archival surgical pathology material was obtained for patients diagnosed with AcCC at Mayo Clinic Rochester between 1990 and 2010. Tumors harboring the ETV6-NTRK3 fusion transcript were excluded from analysis by using cytogenetics and molecular studies. Tumors with HGT were characterized by areas with an infiltrative growth pattern, nuclear anaplasia, prominent nucleoli, brisk mitotic activity, geographic necrosis, and stromal desmoplasia. Demographic and clinical data were extracted from the medical records. AcCC with HGT was seen in 8 of 48 cases (17%). Patients with AcCC with HGT were significantly older than patients without HGT (median 69 vs 54 years; P = .04). Angiolymphatic invasion was more common in AcCC with HGT (P = .02). Relapse-free survival and overall survival were significantly worse for cases of AcCC with HGT (hazard ratio 10.4 and 9.3, respectively; P<.0001 for both comparisons). Locoregional recurrence-free survival was not significantly different (P = .12), but distant metastases-free survival was significantly worse in patients with HGT compared with non-HGT patients (P<.0001).

Question: High-grade transformation of acinic cell carcinoma: an inadequately treated entity?

Prognosis for overall survival and distant relapse for AcCC patients with HGT is significantly worse than that for patients without HGT.

Answer the question based on the following context: We aimed to identify the clinical and structural outcomes after arthroscopic repair of full-thickness rotator cuff tears of all sizes with a modified tension band suture technique. Among 63 patients who underwent arthroscopic rotator cuff repair for a full-thickness rotator cuff tear with the modified tension band suture technique at a single hospital between July 2011 and March 2013, 47 were enrolled in this study. The mean follow-up period was 29 months. Visual analog scale scores, range of motion, American Shoulder and Elbow Surgeons scores, Constant scores, and Shoulder Strength Index were measured preoperatively and at the final follow-up. For radiologic evaluation, we conducted magnetic resonance imaging 6 months postoperatively and ultrasonography at the final follow-up. We allocated the small and medium tears to group A and the large and massive tears to group B and then compared clinical outcomes and repair integrity. Postoperative clinical outcomes at the final follow-up showed significant improvements compared with those seen during preoperative evaluations (P < .001). However, group B showed worse clinical results than group A. Evaluation with magnetic resonance imaging performed 6 months postoperatively and ultrasonography taken at the final follow-up revealed that group B showed a significantly higher retear rate than did group A (69% vs. 6%, respectively; P < .001).

Question: Is the arthroscopic modified tension band suture technique suitable for all full-thickness rotator cuff tears?

Arthroscopic repair with the modified tension band suture technique for rotator cuff tears was a more suitable method for small to medium tears than for large to massive tears.

Answer the question based on the following context: A retrospective cohort analysis was conducted comparing paediatric patients with acute forearm fracture in two trauma centres. Demographics and radiographic data from paediatric forearm fractures treated in Trauma Centre A with the aid of a C-arm fluoroscopy were compared to those treated without fluoroscopy in Trauma Centre B. Re-reduction, late displacement, post-reduction deformity, and need for surgical intervention were compared between the two groups. The cohort included 229 children (175 boys and 54 girls, mean age 9.41±3.2 years, range 1-16 years) with unilateral forearm fractures (83 manipulated with fluoroscopy and 146 without). Thirty-four (15%) children underwent re-reduction procedures in the emergency department. Fifty-three (23%) children had secondary displacement in the cast, of which 18 were operated on, 20 were re-manipulated, and the remaining 15 were kept in the cast with an acceptable deformity. Twenty-nine additional children underwent operation for reasons other than secondary displacement. There were no significant differences in re-reduction and surgery rates or in post-reduction deformities between the two groups.

Question: Does fluoroscopy improve outcomes in paediatric forearm fracture reduction?

The use of fluoroscopy during reduction of forearm fractures in the paediatric population apparently does not have a significant effect on patient outcomes. Reductions performed without fluoroscopy were comparably accurate in correcting deformities in both coronal and sagittal planes.

Answer the question based on the following context: This retrospective study enrolled 60 patients who underwent fluid analysis for ADA and chest CT and were diagnosed with tuberculosis by culture or polymerase chain reaction of pleural fluid and sputum. The presence of centrilobular nodules, consolidation, cavitation, and mediastinal lymphadenopathy at CT were evaluated. The relationship between ADA values and the pattern of pulmonary involvement of tuberculosis was analysed. Pulmonary involvement was seen in 42 of the 60 patients. A centrilobular nodular pattern was seen in 37 and consolidation in 22. In 17 patients, both findings were identified. A centrilobular nodular pattern was more common than consolidation or cavitary lesions. When ADA values were high, pulmonary involvement was more frequent (p=0.002). Comparing low and high ADA groups using an obtained cut-off value of 80 IU/l, the high group had more frequent pulmonary involvement (p<0.001).

Question: Can pleural adenosine deaminase (ADA) levels in pleural tuberculosis predict the presence of pulmonary tuberculosis?

Patients with tuberculous pleurisy who had high ADA values had a higher probability of manifesting pulmonary tuberculosis. High ADA values may help predict contagious pleuroparenchymal tuberculosis. The most common pulmonary involvement of tuberculous pleurisy showed a centrilobular nodular pattern.

Answer the question based on the following context: To determine the effect of synchronous endometrial endometrioid cancer (SEEC) on the prognosis of patients with Stage 1 endometrioid ovarian cancer (EOC). Clinicopathological data of cases with Stage 1 EOC from January 2000 to November 2013 were retrieved from the computerized database of Etlik Zubeyde Hanim Women's Health and Research Hospital. Of the 31 patients included in the study, 15 patients had primary synchronous endometrial and ovarian cancer (SEOC) (Group 1) and 16 patients had EOC alone (Group 2). Ovarian cancer substage and grade were compared between the two groups, and no significant differences were found. Most of the patients with SEEC had Grade 1 tumours (n=13, 86.7%). In Group 1, nine (60.0%) patients had endometrial tumours with superficial myometrial invasion, and six (40.0%) patients had deep myometrial invasion. Median follow-up was 94 months. Ten-year disease-free survival rates were 92.9% for Group 1 and 84.6% for Group 2 (p=0.565).

Question: Does synchronous endometrioid endometrial cancer have any prognostic effect on Stage I endometrioid ovarian cancer?

Patients with Stage 1 EOC have excellent long-term survival. The presence of SEEC does not influence the prognosis of patients with Stage 1 EOC, even in the presence of deep myometrial invasion.

Answer the question based on the following context: In recent years, Lactoferrin (LF) has become an object of interest to neonatologists. To date, there have been no studies on the presence of LF in neonatal meconium. The aim of the study was to assess LF concentrations in successive portions of meconium passed in the first days of extrauterine life and to calculate the total amount of LF accumulated in the fetal intestine in utero. The LF concentrations were determined using the ELISA Kit in meconium samples (n = 81), collected serially from neonates (n = 20). The sum of LF amounts in all portions of meconium passed by a neonate was considered to represent the total accumulation of this protein in the fetal intestine in utero. The LF concentration in a single meconium portion was [μg/g]: mean ± SD = 45.07 ± 78.53, median = 18.98, range = 1.69-511.43. The total LF accumulation in the fetal intestine was [μg]: mean ± SD = 757.23 ± 745.41, median = 514.73, range = 20.48-2749.55. LF concentrations increased in the last meconium portions compared with the first portions passed immediately after birth (p = 0.017).

Question: Meconium lactoferrin levels in neonates: can we predefine normal values?

Very large differences in LF concentrations between meconium portions and in the total LF accumulation between the neonates suggest the influence of intrauterine factors on the variations in fetal intestinal LF concentrations.

Answer the question based on the following context: There is controversy about the prophylactic effect of anti-thymocyte globulin (ATG) on graft versus host disease (GVHD) in the setting of matched related-donor hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT). This study assessed the inf luences of ATG on the incidences of acute and chronic GVHD and other clinical outcomes in matched related-donor HSCT. Sixty-one patients received allogeneic HSCT from human leukocyte antigen-matched, related donors. Patients received busulfan/fludarabine conditioning regimens and standard GVHD prophylaxis with or without additional ATG. There was no significant difference in the cumulative incidences of overall acute GVHD, grade II to IV acute GVHD at day 100, and chronic GVHD during the follow-up period between the ATG and non-ATG groups. Three-year overall survival rates were very similar, but three year disease-free survival of the non-ATG group was higher than that of the ATG group (56.2% for ATG vs. 63.1% for non-ATG, p = 0.597). Relapse rate at 3 years in the ATG group was slightly higher than that of the non-ATG group (37.5% vs. 20%, p = 0.29). Non-relapse mortality rate at 3 years was lower in the ATG group (6.25% vs. 15.6%, p = 0.668).

Question: Does anti-thymocyte globulin have a place in busulfan/fludarabine conditioning for matched related donor hematopoietic stem cell transplantation?

Although the addition of ATG doesn't guarantee a reduction in the incidences of acute and chronic GVHD, pre-transplantation ATG may result in lower non-relapse mortality in the context of matched related-donor HSCT with a busulfan/fludarabine conditioning regimen. However, caution is needed when using ATG because of a possibility to increase relapse rate.

Answer the question based on the following context: Venous blood is the usual sample for measuring various biomarkers, including 25-hydroxyvitamin D (25OHD). However, it can prove challenging in infants and young children. Hence the finger-prick capillary collection is an alternative, being a relatively simple procedure perceived to be less invasive. We elected to validate the use of capillary blood sampling for 25OHD quantification by liquid chromatography tandem-mass spectrometry (LC/MS-MS). Venous and capillary blood samples were simultaneously collected from 15 preschool-aged children with asthma 10days after receiving 100,000IU of vitamin-D3 or placebo and 20 apparently healthy adult volunteers. 25OHD was measured by an in-house LC/MS-MS method. The venous 25OHD values varied between 23 and 255nmol/l. The venous and capillary blood total 25OHD concentrations highly correlated (r(2)=0.9963). The mean difference (bias) of capillary blood 25OHD compared to venous blood was 2.0 (95% CI: -7.5, 11.5) nmol/l.

Question: Assessing vitamin D nutritional status: Is capillary blood adequate?

Our study demonstrates excellent agreement with no evidence of a clinically important bias between venous and capillary serum 25OHD concentrations measured by LC/MS-MS over a wide range of values. Under those conditions, capillary blood is therefore adequate for the measurement of 25OHD.

Answer the question based on the following context: The aim of the study was to evaluate right atrial (RA) phasic function in hypertensive patients with different left ventricular (LV) geometric patterns by using two-dimensional (2DE) and three-dimensional (3DE) echocardiography. This cross-sectional study involved 177 hypertensive patients who underwent 2DE and 3DE examination. The updated criteria of LV geometry that included LV mass index, LV end-diastolic diameter, and relative wall thickness were applied. Using this classification, patients were separated into six groups: normal geometry, concentric remodeling, eccentric nondilated LV hypertrophy (LVH), concentric LVH, dilated LVH, and concentric-dilated LVH. Two-dimensional echocardiography and 3DE RA volumes were significantly higher in concentric and dilated LVH than in other LV geometric types. RA reservoir function, estimated by total 2DE and 3DE RA emptying fraction (EF), was decreased in subjects with dilated LVH compared with normal geometric and concentric LV remodeling patterns. RA conduit function assessed with 2DE and 3DE RA passive EF, gradually reduced from normal LV geometry to dilated LVH. RA pump function was increased in patients with concentric and dilated LVH than in subjects with normal LV geometry and concentric remodeling. 2DE strain analysis confirmed these findings about RA phasic function. Concentric LVH and dilated LVH were associated with RA enlargement and dysfunction irrespectively of main demographic and clinical parameters.

Question: Does Left Ventricular Geometric Patterns Impact Right Atrial Phasic Function?

Left ventricular geometric patterns have significant impact on RA phasic function in hypertensive patients. Concentric and dilated LVH patterns have the most prominent negative effect on RA morphological and functional remodeling.

Answer the question based on the following context: Life expectancy of patients with transfusion-dependent thalassemias has increased with the development of improved treatment over the last few decades. However, β-thalassemia disorder still has considerable lifetime treatment demands and heightened risk of frequent complications due to transfusion-transmitted infections and iron overload, which may affect thalassemic patients' functioning in different domains. The vast majority of published studies on thalassemic patients have focused on children and adolescent functioning, and little research has examined adults. Hence, the current study was planned to examine the functioning and resilience of adult thalassemic patients in a comprehensive way. We examined multidimensional resilience and functioning across different domains (psychological adjustment, treatment adherence, social functioning and occupational functioning). We also examined demographic and medical variables that may relate to resilience and functioning. Participants were adult patients [n = 38; age M = 31·63, standard deviation (SD) = 7·72; 72% female] with transfusion-dependent thalassemia in treatment in a hospital in the northeastern United States. The results suggest that most adult thalassemic patients tend to be resilient, demonstrating good functioning in four main domains: psychological adjustment, treatment adherence, social functioning and occupational functioning.

Question: Evidence for multidimensional resilience in adult patients with transfusion-dependent thalassemias: Is it more common than we think?

Despite the considerable demands of their illness, adult thalassemic patients appeared to be adapting well, demonstrating evidence of multidimensional resilience.

Answer the question based on the following context: In this study, our aim was to determine total oxidative stress and asymmetric dimethylarginine (ADMA) levels in patients with masked hypertension (MHT) and to examine their association with blood pressure. Fifty patients diagnosed with MHT and 48 healthy volunteers without any known chronic diseases have been included in this study. When compared to the control group, patients with MHT had higher levels of mean ADMA (p<0.001), total oxidant status (TOS) (p<0.001), and oxidative stress index (OSI) (p<0.001), and a lower mean total antioxidant status (TAS) (p<0.001) level. While a positive correlation was determined between the systolic blood pressure (SBP) and diastolic blood pressure (DBP) levels with ADMA, TOS, and OSI levels, a negative correlation was determined with the TAS level. During the stepwise multivariable logistic regression analysis, age (OR = 1.221; p = 0.003), body mass index (OR = 1.512; p = 0.005), low density lipoprotein (OR = 0.925; p = 0.016), ADMA (OR = 1.200; p = 0.002), and OSI (OR = 3.750; p = 0.002) levels were determined to be the predictors of MHT. During the linear regression analysis, it was determined that the independent risk factors of SBP and DBP are ADMA and OSI, and the independent risk factor of TOS, OSI, and ADMA is SBP. Our study found out that oxidative stress and ADMA levels of patients with MHT are higher than those of the control group. ADMA and OSI were determined to be predictors of MHT.

Question: Are increased oxidative stress and asymmetric dimethylarginine levels associated with masked hypertension?

Based on these results, it could be said that oxidative stress, and therefore the ADMA level, could have an effect on the etiopathogenesis of MHT.

Answer the question based on the following context: Early studies have shown that near-infrared monitoring with tissue oximetry shows promise in providing earlier detection of free flap vascular compromise. However, large-scale clinical evaluation of this technology on flap outcome has not previously been established. This study examines the effect of tissue oximetry on flap reexploration rates and salvage over a 10-year period. The learning curve for this new technology is also assessed. A retrospective review was performed of prospectively maintained data on all microsurgical breast reconstructions performed at an academic institution from 2004 to 2014. Patients were divided into two separate cohorts--standard clinical monitoring and standard clinical monitoring plus tissue oximetry--and rates of reexploration and flap salvage were compared. Subgroup analysis (tertiles) was performed to assess outcomes with increasing experience. A total of 380 flaps (36.2 percent) received standard clinical monitoring, and 670 flaps (63.8 percent) received additional tissue oximetry monitoring. The rate of flap salvage before implementation of tissue oximetry monitoring was 57.7 percent and increased to 96.6 percent (p<0.001). The number of complete flap losses decreased from 11 (2.9 percent) to one (0.1 percent) with the use of tissue oximetry (p<0.001). Subgroup analysis demonstrated significantly fewer reexplorations in the third tertile.

Question: Does Increased Experience with Tissue Oximetry Monitoring in Microsurgical Breast Reconstruction Lead to Decreased Flap Loss?

Inclusion of continuous tissue oximetry in the postoperative monitoring protocol of microsurgical breast reconstruction is associated with significantly improved salvage rates and fewer flap losses. Furthermore, learning curve assessment demonstrates that use of tissue oximetry can decrease the rate of reexploration over time.

Answer the question based on the following context: Although the place of death has a great influence on the quality of death and dying for cancer patients, whether the survival time differs according to the place of death is unclear. The primary aim of this study was to explore potential differences in the survival time of cancer patients dying at home or in a hospital. This multicenter, prospective cohort study was conducted in Japan from September 2012 through April 2014 and involved 58 specialist palliative care services. Among the 2426 patients recruited, 2069 patients were analyzed for this study: 1582 receiving hospital-based palliative care and 487 receiving home-based palliative care. A total of 1607 patients actually died in a hospital, and 462 patients died at home. The survival of patients who died at home was significantly longer than the survival of patients who died in a hospital in the days' prognosis group (estimated median survival time, 13 days [95% confidence interval (CI), 10.3-15.7 days] vs 9 days [95% CI, 8.0-10.0 days]; P = .006) and in the weeks' prognosis group (36 days [95% CI, 29.9-42.1 days] vs 29 days [95% CI, 26.5-31.5 days]; P = .007) as defined by Prognosis in Palliative Care Study predictor model A. No significant difference was identified in the months' prognosis group. Cox proportional hazards analysis revealed that the place of death had a significant influence on the survival time in both unadjusted (hazard ratio [HR], 0.86; 95% CI, 0.78-0.96; P < .01) and adjusted models (HR, 0.87; 95% CI, 0.77-0.97; P = .01).

Question: Multicenter cohort study on the survival time of cancer patients dying at home or in a hospital: Does place matter?

In comparison with cancer patients who died in a hospital, cancer patients who died at home had similar or longer survival. Cancer 2016;122:1453-1460. © 2016 American Cancer Society.

Answer the question based on the following context: A prospective, randomized, placebo-controlled, double-blind trial. The aim of this study was to investigate whether the local administration of depomedrol decreases the severity of dysphagia after anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF) surgery using bone morphogenetic protein (BMP). Although recombinant human BMP-2 is effective in promoting arthrodesis, many physicians avoid using it in anterior cervical spine fusions due to concern for increased incidence of dysphagia, significant pre-vertebral swelling, and airway compromise. Pilot studies have shown that the local application of depomedrol may decrease the incidence of postoperative dysphagia. We performed a prospective, randomized trial to evaluate the efficacy of local depomedrol application in reducing the severity of postoperative dysphagia following anterior cervical fusions using low-dose rhBMP-2. We hypothesized that locally administered depomedrol reduces dysphagia following such surgeries. Fifty patients between 18 and 70 years of age, undergoing 1, 2, and 3-level ACDFs, were randomized to 1 of 2 groups: BMP-2 with depomedrol or BMP-2 with saline. Patients were followed for 4 weeks postoperatively by the study administrator. Dysphagia was measured at 5 time intervals (postoperative days 1, 4, 7, 14, and 28) using a 4-point Modified Dysphagia Scoring System. Additional data regarding overall length of hospital stay and the administration of dysphagia-directed treatments were also recorded. Twenty-seven patients were randomized to the treatment (depomedrol) group and 23 were randomized to the control (saline) group. The 2 groups were nearly identical in terms of their demographic and operative characteristics. Patients receiving depomedrol experienced decreased dysphagia incidence and magnitude at all time intervals, with differences reaching statistical significance on postoperative days 4, 7, 14, and 28 (P < 0.05).

Question: Can Dysphagia Following Anterior Cervical Fusions With rhBMP-2 Be Reduced With Local Depomedrol Application?

This study provides Level 1 evidence that locally administered depomedrol on a collagen sponge significantly decreases postoperative dysphagia incidence and magnitude following anterior cervical spine fusion using low-dose rhBMP-2.

Answer the question based on the following context: A prospective, randomized study on patients with lumbar spinal stenosis who received a decision support intervention to facilitate their treatment choice. The aim of this study was to assess the impact of telephone health coaching (HC) in addition to a video decision aid (DA) compared with a DA alone for patients with spinal stenosis. Treatment options for lumbar spinal stenosis include surgical and nonsurgical approaches. Patient DAs and HC have been shown to help patients make an informed treatment choice consistent with personal preferences. Eligible patients with spinal stenosis were identified by an orthopedic surgeon or a nonsurgical spine specialist. Consenting participants were randomly assigned to either a video DA or a video DA along with HC (DA + HC). Patients completed baseline and follow-up questionnaires at 2 weeks, and 6 months after the decision support intervention(s). Ninety-eight patients were randomized to the DA + HC group and 101 to the DA-only group; 168 of 199 (84%) patients completed responses at all time points. Both groups showed improved understanding of spinal stenosis treatments and progress in decision making after watching the DA (P < 0.001). At 2 weeks, more patients in the coaching group had made a treatment decision (DA + HC 74% vs. DA only 52%, P < 0.01). At 6-month follow-up, the uptake of surgery was similar for both groups (DA + HC 21% had surgery vs. DA only 17%); satisfaction with the treatments received was similar for both groups (DA + HC, 84% satisfied vs. DA only, 85%).

Question: Can Decision Support Help Patients With Spinal Stenosis Make a Treatment Choice?

These results suggest that watching the video DA improved patient knowledge and reduced decisional uncertainty about their spinal stenosis treatment choice. The addition of telephone coaching helped some patients choose a treatment more quickly; 6-month decisional outcomes were similar for both groups.

Answer the question based on the following context: To compare electrical activity in the anterior temporal and masseter muscles on the habitual (HMS) and non-habitual mastication side (NHMS), during mastication and in the mandibular postural position. In addition, the increase in electrical activity during mastication was assessed for the HMS and NHMS, analysing both working (WSM) and non-working side during mastication (NWSM). A total of 28 healthy women (18-32 years) participated in the study. They were submitted to Kazazoglu's test to identify the HMS. Bioresearch 'Bio EMG' software and bipolar surface electrodes were used in the exams. The exams were conducted in the postural position and during the unilateral mastication of raisins, on both the HMS and NHMS. The working and non-working side on HMS and NHMS were assessed separately. The obtained data were then statistically analysed with SPSS 20.0, using the Paired Samples Test at a significance level of 95%. The differences in the average EMG values between HMS and NHMS were not statistically significant in the postural position (Temporal p=0.2; Masseter p=0.4) or during mastication (Temporal WSM p=0.8; Temporal NWSM p=0.8; Masseter WSM p=0.6; Masseter NWSM p=0.2). Differences in the increase in electrical activity between the masseter and temporal muscles occurred on the working side, on the HMS and NHMS (p=0.0), but not on the non-working side: HMS (p=0.9) and NHMS (p=0.3). The increase in electrical activity was about 35% higher in the masseter than in the temporal muscle.

Question: Does the habitual mastication side impact jaw muscle activity?

Mastication side preference does not significantly impact electrical activity of the anterior temporal and masseter muscles during mastication or in postural position.

Answer the question based on the following context: From April 6th 2015, all small shops in the UK were required to cover up tobacco products at point of sale (POS) to protect children from exposure. As part of a larger 5-year study to measure the impact of the legislation in Scotland, an audit was conducted to assess level and nature of compliance with the ban immediately following its introduction. A discreet observational audit was conducted 7-14 days post implementation which took measures of physical changes made to cover products, server/assistant practices, tobacco signage and advertising, and communication of price information. The audit was conducted in all small retail outlets (n = 83) selling tobacco in four communities in Scotland selected to represent different levels of urbanisation and social deprivation. Data were analysed descriptively. Compliance with the legislation was high, with 98% of shops removing tobacco from permanent display and non-compliance was restricted almost entirely to minor contraventions. The refurbishment of shops with new or adapted tobacco storage units resulted in the removal of nearly all commercial brand messages and images from POS, dropping from 51% to 4%. The majority of shops stored their tobacco in public-facing storage units (81%). Most shops also displayed at least one generic tobacco message (88%).

Question: Are Retail Outlets Complying with National Legislation to Protect Children from Exposure to Tobacco Displays at Point of Sale?

Compliance with Scottish prohibitions on display of tobacco products in small retail outlets was high immediately after the legislation implementation date. However, although tobacco branding is no longer visible in retail outlets, tobacco storage units with generic tobacco messages are still prominent. This points towards a need to monitor how the space vacated by tobacco products is utilised and to better understand how the continuing presence of tobacco storage units influences people's awareness and understanding of tobacco and smoking. Countries with existing POS bans and who are considering such bans should pay particular attention to regulations regarding the use of generic signage and where within the retail setting tobacco stocks can be stored.

Answer the question based on the following context: To evaluate seed placement accuracy in permanent breast seed implant brachytherapy (PBSI), to identify any systematic errors and evaluate their effect on dosimetry. Treatment plans and postimplant computed tomography scans for 20 PBSI patients were spatially registered and used to evaluate differences between planned and implanted seed positions, termed seed displacements. For each patient, the mean total and directional seed displacements were determined in both standard room coordinates and in needle coordinates relative to needle insertion angle. Seeds were labeled according to their proximity to the anatomy within the breast, to evaluate the influence of anatomic regions on seed placement. Dosimetry within an evaluative target volume (seroma + 5 mm), skin, breast, and ribs was evaluated to determine the impact of seed placement on the treatment. The overall mean (±SD) difference between implanted and planned positions was 9 ± 5 mm for the aggregate seed population. No significant systematic directional displacements were observed for this whole population. However, for individual patients, systematic displacements were observed, implying that intrapatient offsets occur during the procedure. Mean displacements for seeds in the different anatomic areas were not found to be significantly different from the mean for the entire seed population. However, small directional trends were observed within the anatomy, potentially indicating some bias in the delivery. Despite observed differences between the planned and implanted seed positions, the median (range) V90 for the 20 patients was 97% (66%-100%), and acceptable dosimetry was achieved for critical structures.

Question: Seed Placement in Permanent Breast Seed Implant Brachytherapy: Are Concerns Over Accuracy Valid?

No significant trends or systematic errors were observed in the placement of seeds in PBSI, including seeds implanted directly into the seroma. Recorded seed displacements may be related to intrapatient setup adjustments. Despite observed seed displacements, acceptable postimplant dosimetry was achieved.

Answer the question based on the following context: Although recurrences and toxicity occur after vaginal cuff (VC) brachytherapy, little is known about dosimetry due to the inability to clearly visualize the VC on computed tomography (CT). T2-weighted (T2W) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is superior to CT in this setting, and we hypothesized that it could provide previously unascertainable dosimetric information. In a cohort of 32 patients who underwent cylinder-based brachytherapy for endometrial cancer with available MR simulation images, the VC was retrospectively contoured on T2W images, and cases were replanned to treat the upper VC to a dose of 7 Gy/fraction prescribed to 5 mm. Relevant dose-volume parameters for the VC were calculated. T2W MRI identified significant underdosing not observed on CT or T1-weighted imaging. Over two-thirds (69%) of patients had at least 1 cm(3) of VC that received less than 75% of the prescription dose and half (50%) of patients had a least 1 cm(3) of VC that received less than 50% of the prescription dose. The mean minimum point dose to the VC was 2.4 Gy, or 34% of the intended prescription dose (range: 0.53-6.4 Gy).

Question: MRI-Based Evaluation of the Vaginal Cuff in Brachytherapy Planning: Are We Missing the Target?

We identified previously unreported VC underdosing in over two-thirds of our patients, with most of these patients having volumes of undistended VC that received less than half of the prescription dose. The maximum dimension was along the craniocaudal axis in some patients or left-right/anterior-posterior axis in others, suggesting that suture material may be restricting access to the vaginal apex and that alternative applicators may be needed when the diameter of the apex is larger than the introitus. Additional follow-up will be needed to determine whether underdosing is associated with isolated VC failure or whether low failure rates across the cohort suggest that some patients are being exposed to excessive dose and unnecessary risk of toxicity.

Answer the question based on the following context: Sitting pelvic tilt dictates the proximity of the rim of the acetabulum to the proximal femur and, therefore, the risk of impingement in patients undergoing total hip arthroplasty (THA). Sitting position is achieved through a combination of lumbar spine segmental motions and/or femoroacetabular articular motion in the lumbar-pelvic-femoral complex. Multilevel degenerative disc disease (DDD) may limit spine flexion and therefore increase femoroacetabular flexion in patients having THAs, but this has not been well characterized. Therefore, we measured standing and sitting lumbar-pelvic-femoral alignment in patients with radiographic signs of DDD and in patients with no radiographic signs of spine arthrosis.QUESTIONS/ We asked: (1) Is there a difference in standing and sitting lumbar-pelvic-femoral alignment before surgery among patients undergoing THA who have no radiographic signs of spine arthrosis compared with those with preexisting lumbar DDD? (2) Do patients with lumbar DDD experience less spine flexion moving from a standing to a sitting position and therefore compensate with more femoroacetabular flexion compared with patients who have no radiographic signs of arthrosis? Three hundred twenty-five patients undergoing primary THA had preoperative low-dose EOS spine-to-ankle lateral radiographs in standing and sitting positions. Eighty-three patients were excluded from this study for scoliosis (39 patients), spondylolysis (15 patients), not having five lumbar vertebrae (7 patients), surgical or disease fusion (11 patients), or poor image quality attributable to high BMI (11 patients). In the remaining 242 of 325 patients (75%), two observers categorized the lumbar spine as either without radiographic arthrosis or having DDD based on defined radiographic criteria. Sacral slope, lumbar lordosis, and proximal femur angles were measured, and these angles were used to calculate lumbar spine flexion and femoroacetabular flexion in standing and sitting positions. Patients were aligned in a standardized sitting position so that their femurs were parallel to the floor to achieve approximately 90° of apparent hip flexion. After controlling for age, sex, and BMI, we found patients with DDD spines had a mean of 5° more posterior pelvic tilt (95% CI, -2° to -8° lower sacral slope angles; p<0.01) and 7° less lumbar lordosis (95% CI, -10° to -3°; p<0.01) in the standing position compared with patients without radiographic arthrosis. However, in the sitting position, patients with DDD spines had 4° less posterior pelvic tilt (95% CI, 1°-7° higher sacral slope angles; p = 0.02). From standing to sitting position, patients with DDD spines experienced 10° less spine flexion (95% CI, -14° to -7°; p<0.01) and 10° more femoroacetabular flexion (95% CI, 6° to 14°; p<0.01).

Question: Does Degenerative Lumbar Spine Disease Influence Femoroacetabular Flexion in Patients Undergoing Total Hip Arthroplasty?

Most patients undergoing THA sit in a similar range of pelvic tilt, with a small mean difference in pelvic tilt between patients with DDD spines and those without radiographic arthrosis. However, in general, the mechanism by which patients with DDD of the lumbar spine achieve sitting differs from those without spine arthrosis with less spine flexion and more femoroacetabular flexion.

Answer the question based on the following context: Metastatic bone disease is a substantial burden to patients and the healthcare system as a whole. Metastatic disease can be painful, is associated with decreased survival, and is emotionally traumatic to patients when they discover their disease has progressed. In the United States, more than 250,000 patients have metastatic bone disease, with an estimated annual cost of USD 12 billion. Prior studies suggest that patients who receive prophylactic fixation for impending pathologic fractures, compared with those treated for realized pathologic fractures, have decreased pain levels, faster postoperative rehabilitation, and less in-hospital morbidity. However, to our knowledge, the relative economic utility of these treatment options has not been examined.QUESTIONS/ We asked: (1) Is there a cost difference between a cohort of patients treated surgically for pathologic fractures compared with a cohort of patients treated prophylactically for impending pathologic lesions? (2) Do these cohorts differ in other ways regarding their utilization of healthcare resources? We performed a retrospective study of 40 patients treated our institution. Between 2011 and 2014, we treated 46 patients surgically for metastatic lesions of long bones. Of those, 19 (48%) presented with pathologic fractures; the other 21 patients (53%) underwent surgery for impending fractures. Risk of impending fracture was determined by one surgeon based on appearance of the lesion, subjective symptoms of the patient, cortical involvement, and location of the lesion. At 1 year postoperative, four patients in each group had died. Six patients (13%) were treated for metastatic disease but were excluded from the retrospective data because of a change in medical record system and inability to obtain financial records. Variables of interest included total and direct costs per episode of care, days of hospitalization, discharge disposition, 1-year postoperative mortality, and descriptive demographic data. All costs were expressed as a cost ratio between the two cohorts, and total differences between the groups, as required per medical center regulations. All data were collected by one author and the medical center's financial office. Mean total cost was higher in patients with pathologic fractures (cost unit [CU], 642 ± 519) than those treated prophylactically without fractures (CU, 370 ± 171; mean difference, 272; 95% CI, 19-525; p = 0.036). In USD, this translates to a mean of nearly USD 21,000 less for prophylactic surgery. Mean direct cost was 41% higher (nearly USD 12,000) in patients with a pathologic fracture (CU, 382 ± 300 versus 227 ± 93; mean difference, 155; 95% CI, 9-300; p = 0.038). Mean length of stay was longer in patients with pathologic fractures compared with the group treated prophylactically (8 ± 6 versus 4 ± 3 days; mean difference, 4; 95% CI, 1-7; p = 0.01).

Question: Is Prophylactic Intervention More Cost-effective Than the Treatment of Pathologic Fractures in Metastatic Bone Disease?

These findings show economic and clinical value of prophylactic stabilization of metastatic lesions when performed for patients with painful lesions compromising the structural integrity of long bones. Patients sustaining a pathologic fracture may represent a more severe, sicker demographic than patients treated for impending pathologic lesions.

Answer the question based on the following context: Both the material and geometry of a total knee arthroplasty (TKA) component influence the induced periprosthetic bone strain field. Strain, a measure of the local relative deformation in a structure, corresponds to the mechanical stimulus that governs bone remodeling and is therefore a useful in vitro biomechanical measure for assessing the response of bone to new implant designs and materials. A polyetheretherketone (PEEK) femoral implant has the potential to promote bone strains closer to that of natural bone as a result of its low elastic modulus compared with cobalt-chromium (CoCr).QUESTIONS/ In the present study, we used a Digital Image Correlation (DIC) technique to answer the following question: Does a PEEK TKA femoral component induce a more physiologically normal bone strain distribution than a CoCr component? To achieve this, a DIC test protocol was developed for periprosthetic bone strain assessment using an analog model; the protocol aimed to minimize errors in strain assessment through the selection of appropriate analysis parameters. Three synthetic bone femurs were used in this experiment. One was implanted with a CoCr femoral component and one with a PEEK femoral component. The third (unimplanted) femur was intact and used as the physiological reference (control) model. All models were subjected to standing loads on the corresponding polyethylene (ultrahigh-molecular-weight polyethylene) tibial component, and speckle image data were acquired for surface strain analysis using DIC in six repeat tests. The strain in 16 regions of interest on the lateral surface of each of the implanted bone models was plotted for comparison with the corresponding strains in the intact case. A Wilcoxon signed-rank test was used to test for difference at the 5% significance level. Surface analog bone strain after CoCr implantation indicated strain shielding (R2= 0.6178 with slope, β = 0.4314) and was lower than the intact case (p = 0.014). The strain after implantation with the PEEK implant deviated less from the intact case (R2= 0.7972 with slope β = 0.939) with no difference (p = 0.231).

Question: Does a PEEK Femoral TKA Implant Preserve Intact Femoral Surface Strains Compared With CoCr?

The strain shielding observed with the contemporary CoCr implant, consistent with clinical bone mineral density change data reported by others, may be reduced by using a PEEK implant.

Answer the question based on the following context: Primary malignant tumors located near the acetabulum are usually managed by resection of the tumor with wide margins that include the acetabulum. These resections are deemed P2 resections by the Enneking and Dunham classification. There are various methods to perform the subsequent hip reconstruction. Unfortunately, there is no consensus as to the best management. In general, patients undergoing resection at this level will have substantial levels of pain and disability as measured by the Musculoskeletal Tumor Society (MSTS) scoring system. We believe there is a subset of patients whose tumors in this location can be resected while preserving all or most of the weightbearing acetabulum using navigation and careful surgical planning.QUESTIONS/ (1) What complications were associated with this resection; (2) what oncological outcomes (histological margins and local recurrence) were achieved; and (3) what is the function achieved by these patients? This was a retrospective study of patients with periacetabular primary malignancy. From 2008 to 2014, we treated 12 patients who had periacetabular primary malignant tumors and in five, we performed resection with the weightbearing portion spared. During this period, our general indications to perform a resection that spared the acetabulum were the tumor with its resection margin not involving the weightbearing portion of the acetabulum. However, we did not perform this procedure in patients who had more cranial lesion involving the weightbearing portion or whose hip stability might be in question after the tumor excision. Three patients were women and the other two were men. Four were chondrosarcomas, whereas the other one was synovial sarcoma. Ages ranged from 46 to 60 years (average, 53 years). Minimum followup was 14 months (median, 37 months; range, 14-88 months); no patients were lost to followup before a 1-year minimum was achieved, and all patients have been seen within the last 9 months. There were no intraoperative or early postoperative complications. None of the five patients had a positive margin by histological assessment. No local recurrences were detected. The median functional score by MSTS was 28 out of 30 (range, 27-30).

Question: Is It Possible and Safe to Perform Acetabular-preserving Resections for Malignant Neoplasms of the Periacetabular Region?

The roof of the acetabulum is the weightbearing portion of the acetabulum. It also maintains the stability of the hip. With precise preoperative planning of the resection and accurate execution of the procedure, the hip-sparing approach through partial acetabular resection can be performed in selected patients with malignant periacetabular neoplasms. Navigation makes it possible to minimize the amount of bone resection. In this preliminary report of a small number of patients, we had adequate short-term local tumor control. We believe the function is good, but we do not have a comparison group of patients to document improved function.

Answer the question based on the following context: Due to complex multimodal treatments and a lengthy natural history of disease, the impact of radiation therapy for well-differentiated thyroid cancer (WDTC) is challenging to evaluate. We analysed the effect of dose escalation, as enabled by intensity-modulated radiation therapy (IMRT), on preventing local-regional failure (LRF) of microscopic and macroscopic WDTC. We performed a retrospective review of WDTC patients treated with IMRT from 1998-2011. Diagnostic imaging demonstrating first LRF was registered to the simulation CT containing the treated radiation isodose volumes. Areas of disease progression were contoured and the relationships of LRFs with isodose volumes were recorded. Thirty patients had a median follow-up of 56 months (range = 1-139). Seventeen (57%) had gross residual, five (17%) had microscopic residual and eight (27%) had clear margins at the time of IMRT. Nine patients (30%) developed LRF, at a median time of 44 months (range = 0-116). Of these, six (67%) had been radiated to gross disease and one (11%) had microscopic residual. In the seven analysable cases, only one (14%) LRF occurred within the 70 Gy isodose volume. Marginal LRFs were: four (57%) outside 70 Gy, one (14%) outside 60 Gy and one (14%) outside 50 Gy. All but one recurrence (86%) occurred in the perioesophageal region.

Question: Does radiation dose matter in thyroid cancer?

Local-regional failure was seen most in patients who had gross disease at the time of IMRT, almost always occurred outside of the 70 Gy volume and was frequently in the area of oesophageal sparing. Meticulous surgical dissection, especially in the perioesophageal region, should be prioritised to prevent long-term LRF.

Answer the question based on the following context: Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) recurrence remains a key issue after liver transplantation. This study aimed to determine a subgroup of HCC patients within the Milan criteria who could achieve a theoretical goal of zero recurrence rates after liver transplantation. Between 1999 and 2009, 179 patients who received liver transplantation for HCC within the Milan criteria were retrospectively included. Analysis of the factors associated with HCC recurrence was performed to determine the subgroup of patients at the lowest risk of recurrence. Seventy-two percent of the patients received a bridging therapy, including 54 liver resections. Eleven (6.1%) patients recurred within a delay of 19+/-22 months and ultimately died. Factors associated with recurrence were serum alpha-fetoprotein level>400 ng/mL, satellite nodules, poor differentiation, microvascular invasion and cholangiocarcinoma component. Recurrence rates decreased from 6.1% to 3.1% in patients without any of these factors.

Question: Liver transplantation for hepatocellular carcinoma: is zero recurrence theoretically possible?

Among HCC patients within the Milan criteria, selecting patients with factors based on histology would allow tending towards zero recurrence, and prior histological assessment by liver biopsy or resection may be essential to rule out poorly differentiated tumors, microvascular invasion, and cholangiocarcinoma component.

Answer the question based on the following context: Staple line leak after sleeve gastrectomy (SG) is a rare but dreaded complication with a reported incidence of 0% to 8%. Many surgeons routinely test the staple line with an intraoperative leak test (IOLT), but there is little evidence to validate this practice. In fact, there is a theoretical concern that the leak test may weaken the staple line and increase the risk of a postop leak. Retrospective review of all SGs performed over a 7-year period was conducted. Cases were grouped by whether an IOLT was performed, and compared for the incidence of postop staple line leaks. The ability of the IOLT for identifying a staple line defect and for predicting a postoperative leak was analyzed. Five hundred forty-two SGs were performed between 2007 and 2014. Thirteen patients (2.4%) developed a postop staple line leak. The majority of patients (n = 494, 91%) received an IOLT, including all 13 patients (100%) who developed a subsequent clinical leak. There were no (0%) positive IOLTs and no additional interventions were performed based on the IOLT. The IOLT sensitivity and positive predictive value were both 0%. There was a trend, although not significant, to increase leak rates when a routine IOLT was performed vs no routine IOLT (2.6% vs 0%, P = .6).

Question: Routine intraoperative leak testing for sleeve gastrectomy: is the leak test full of hot air?

The performance of routine IOLT after SG provided no actionable information, and was negative in all patients who developed a postoperative leak. The routine use of an IOLT did not reduce the incidence of postop leak, and in fact was associated with a higher leak rate after SG.

Answer the question based on the following context: Acute bronchiolitis is the most frequent lower respiratory tract infection in infants. Only small subsets of patients develop severe disease resulting in hospitalization despite having no identifiable risk factors. There is still a debate as to the role of capnometry in assessing ventilation in children with acute respiratory distress, and bronchiolitis in particular. This was a prospective, single blind cohort study in which children younger than two years presenting to the emergency department (ED) with bronchiolitis were included. Our primary outcome was the correlation between the end tidal CO2 (EtCO2) and the clinical decision of hospital admission and discharge. Our secondary outcome measure was the correlation of EtCO2 upon arrival to the ED and clinical measures of bronchiolitis severity. Finally, by using multivariate models, we looked for other parameters that could contribute to the prediction of illness severity. One hundred and fourteen children with bronchiolitis were evaluated. Their median EtCO2 upon arrival to the ED was 34 mmHg (range 24-65 mmHg). EtCO2 values upon admission or discharge were not statistically different among patients who were hospitalized and among those who were discharged from the ED. Among admitted patients, we found no correlation between capnometry readings at admission and number of oxygen desaturation days, nor with the length of hospitalization. Wang clinical respiratory severity score was found, by using multivariate models, to predict nasogastric tube need, oxygen desaturation days, and length of hospitalization.

Question: Is capnometry helpful in children with bronchiolitis?

Capnometry readings upon arrival to the ED did not predict hospital admission or hospital discharge eligibility. Among hospitalized patients, EtCO2 did not correlate with the evaluated disease severity measures. Wang score was found to be the most consistent predictor of significant outcomes.

Answer the question based on the following context: Timely implementation of recommended interventions can provide health benefits to patients and cost savings to the health service provider. Effective approaches to increase the implementation of guidance are needed. Since investment in activities that improve implementation competes for funding against other health generating interventions, it should be assessed in term of its costs and benefits. In 2010, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence released a clinical guideline recommending natriuretic peptide (NP) testing in patients with suspected heart failure. However, its implementation in practice was variable across the National Health Service in England. This study demonstrates the use of multi-period analysis together with diffusion curves to estimate the value of investing in implementation activities to increase uptake of NP testing. Diffusion curves were estimated based on historic data to produce predictions of future utilization. The value of an implementation activity (given its expected costs and effectiveness) was estimated. Both a static population and a multi-period analysis were undertaken. The value of implementation interventions encouraging the utilization of NP testing is shown to decrease over time as natural diffusion occurs. Sensitivity analyses indicated that the value of the implementation activity depends on its efficacy and on the population size.

Question: Estimating the Cost-Effectiveness of Implementation: Is Sufficient Evidence Available?

Value of implementation can help inform policy decisions of how to invest in implementation activities even in situations in which data are sparse. Multi-period analysis is essential to accurately quantify the time profile of the value of implementation given the natural diffusion of the intervention and the incidence of the disease.

Answer the question based on the following context: To test how attribute framing in a discrete choice experiment (DCE) affects respondents' decision-making behavior and their preferences. Two versions of a DCE questionnaire containing nine choice tasks were distributed among a representative sample of the Dutch population aged 55 to 65 years. The DCE consisted of four attributes related to the decision regarding participation in genetic screening for colorectal cancer (CRC). The risk attribute included was framed positively as the probability of surviving CRC and negatively as the probability of dying from CRC. Panel mixed-logit models were used to estimate the relative importance of the attributes. The data of the positively and negatively framed DCE were compared on the basis of direct attribute ranking, dominant decision-making behavior, preferences, and importance scores. The majority (56%) of the respondents ranked survival as the most important attribute in the positively framed DCE, whereas only a minority (8%) of the respondents ranked mortality as the most important attribute in the negatively framed DCE. Respondents made dominant choices based on survival significantly more often than based on mortality. The framing of the risk attribute significantly influenced all attribute-level estimates and resulted in different preference structures among respondents in the positively and negatively framed data set.

Question: Survival or Mortality: Does Risk Attribute Framing Influence Decision-Making Behavior in a Discrete Choice Experiment?

Risk framing affects how respondents value the presented risk. Positive risk framing led to increased dominant decision-making behavior, whereas negative risk framing led to risk-seeking behavior. Attribute framing should have a prominent part in the expert and focus group interviews, and different types of framing should be used in the pilot version of DCEs as well as in actual DCEs to estimate the magnitude of the effect of choosing different types of framing.

Answer the question based on the following context: Health states defined by multiattribute instruments such as the EuroQol five-dimensional questionnaire with five response levels (EQ-5D-5L) can be valued using time trade-off (TTO) or discrete choice experiment (DCE) methods. A key feature of the tasks is the order in which the health state dimensions are presented. Respondents may use various heuristics to complete the tasks, and therefore the order of the dimensions may impact on the importance assigned to particular states. To assess the impact of different EQ-5D-5L dimension orders on health state values. Preferences for EQ-5D-5L health states were elicited from a broadly representative sample of members of the UK general public. Respondents valued EQ-5D-5L health states using TTO and DCE methods across one of three dimension orderings via face-to-face computer-assisted personal interviews. Differences in mean values and the size of the health dimension coefficients across the arms were compared using difference testing and regression analyses. Descriptive analysis suggested some differences between the mean TTO health state values across the different dimension orderings, but these were not systematic. Regression analysis suggested that the magnitude of the dimension coefficients differs across the different dimension orderings (for both TTO and DCE), but there was no clear pattern.

Question: Valuing Health Using Time Trade-Off and Discrete Choice Experiment Methods: Does Dimension Order Impact on Health State Values?

There is some evidence that the order in which the dimensions are presented impacts on the coefficients, which may impact on the health state values provided. The order of dimensions is a key consideration in the design of health state valuation studies.

Answer the question based on the following context: The aim of this study was to compare the efficacy, safety, and cost-effectiveness of 3-factor prothrombin complex concentrate (3F-PCC) vs 4-factor prothrombin complex concentrate PCC (4F-PCC) in trauma patients requiring reversal of oral anticoagulants. All consecutive trauma patients with coagulopathy (international normalized ratio [INR] ≥1.5) secondary to oral anticoagulants who received either 3F-PCC or 4F-PCC from 2010 to 2014 at 2 trauma centers were reviewed. Efficacy was determined by assessing the first INR post-PCC administration, and successful reversal was defined as INR less than 1.5. Safety was assessed by reviewing thromboembolic events, and cost-effectiveness was calculated using total treatment costs (drug acquisition plus transfusion costs) per successful reversal. Forty-six patients received 3F-PCC, and 18 received 4F-PCC. Baseline INR was similar for 3F-PCC and 4F-PCC patients (3.1 ± 2.3 vs 3.4 ± 3.7, P = .520). The initial PCC dose was 29 ± 9 U/kg for 3F-PCC and 26 ± 6 U/kg for 4F-PCC (P = .102). The follow-up INR was 1.6 ± 0.6 for 3F-PCC and 1.3 ± 0.2 for 4F-PCC (P = .001). Successful reversal rates in patients were 83% for 4F-PCC and 50% for 3F-PCC (P = .022). Thromboembolic events were observed in 15% of patients with 3F-PCC vs 0% with 4F-PCC (P = .177). Cost-effectiveness favored 4F-PCC ($5382 vs $3797).

Question: Is there a difference in efficacy, safety, and cost-effectiveness between 3-factor and 4-factor prothrombin complex concentrates among trauma patients on oral anticoagulants?

Three-factor PCC and 4F-PCC were both safe in correcting INR, but 4F-PCC was more effective, leading to better cost-effectiveness. Replacing 3F-PCC with 4F-PCC for urgent coagulopathy reversal may benefit patients and institutions.

Answer the question based on the following context: Clinical application of gentamicin may cause nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity. Our study is the first study to investigate the protective effects of edaravone against the gentamicin-induced ototoxicity. We investigated the protective effect of intraperitoneal (i.p.) edaravone application against gentamicin-induced ototoxicity in guinea pigs. Fourteen guinea pigs were divided into two equal groups consisting of a control group and a study group. One-hundred sixty milligrams per kilogram subcutaneous gentamicin and 0.3 mL i.p. saline were applied simultaneously once daily to seven guinea pigs in the control group (group 1). One-hundred sixty milligrams per kilogram gentamicin was applied subcutaneously and 3 mg/kg edaravone was applied intraperitoneally once daily for 7 days simultaneously to seven guinea pigs in the study group (group 2). Following the drug application, auditory brainstem response measurements were performed for the left ear on the 3rd and 7th days. Hearing threshold values of the group 1 and group 2 measured in the 3rd day of the study were detected as 57.14 ± 4.88 and 82.86 ± 7.56, respectively. This difference was statistically significant ( p<0.05). Hearing threshold values of the group 1 and group 2 measured in the 7th day of the study were detected as 87.14 ± 4.88 and 62.86 ± 4.88, respectively. This difference was statistically significant ( p<0.05).

Question: Could edaravone prevent gentamicin ototoxicity?

A statistically significant difference between the average threshold values of edaravone-administered group 2 and that of group 1 without edaravone was found. These differences show that systemic edaravone administration could diminish ototoxic effects of gentamicin and the severity of the hearing loss.

Answer the question based on the following context: We evaluated the value of Gadoxetic acid-enhanced liver MRI in the preoperative staging of colorectal cancer and estimated the clinical impact of liver MRI in the management plan of liver metastasis. We identified 108 patients who underwent PET/CT and liver MRI as preoperative evaluation of colorectal cancer, between January 2011 and December 2013. We evaluated the per nodule sensitivity of PET/CT and liver MRI for liver metastasis. Management plan changes were estimated for patients with metastatic nodules newly detected on liver MRI, to assess the clinical impact. We enrolled 131 metastatic nodules (mean size 1.6 cm) in 41 patients (mean age 65 years). The per nodule sensitivities of PET/CT and liver MRI were both 100% for nodules measuring 2 cm or larger but were significantly different for nodules measuring less than 2 cm (59.8% and 95.1%, resp., P = 0.0001). At least one more metastatic nodule was detected on MRI in 16 patients. Among these, 7 patients indicated changes of management plan after performing MRI.

Question: Does the Gadoxetic Acid-Enhanced Liver MRI Impact on the Treatment of Patients with Colorectal Cancer?

Gadoxetic acid-enhanced liver MRI detected more metastatic nodules compared with PET/CT, especially for small (<2 cm) nodules. The newly detected nodules induced management plan change in 43.8% (7/16) of patients.

Answer the question based on the following context: This study aims to verify the effect of hypercholeresterolaemia on implant and bone augmentation failures. A retrospective cohort study was conducted on 268 sequential patients scheduled for implant and bone augmentation surgery under conscious sedation in a private practice. Total serum cholesterol (TC) levels were assessed via blood tests before surgery. Patients were divided into two groups: TC<200 mg/dl and TC>200 mg/dl. A 6-month post-loading follow-up was scheduled both for implants and grafts. The outcomes considered were implant failure (removal) and graft infection/failure. The effect of cholesterol on early implant and grafting failure was investigated according to a logistic regression model. Two hundred and twenty-seven patients fulfilled inclusion criteria; 139 had hypercholesterolemia. The 6-month post-loading overall implant failure rate was 6.25% at patient level (2.00% at implant level). Partial or total graft infection rate was 10.2%. High TC increased by 7.48 times the odds of the grafting failure (P = 0.047; 95% CI: -0.94 to 59.23), whilst it did not modify the odds of implant failure (P = 0.749; 95% CI: 0.28 to 2.49).

Question: Is a high level of total cholesterol a risk factor for dental implants or bone grafting failure?

High total serum cholesterol levels tend to increase graft failure rates whilst it did not influence implant failures.

Answer the question based on the following context: For postmastectomy radiation therapy by proton beams, the usual bony landmark based radiograph setup technique is indirect because the target volumes are generally superficial and far away from major bony structures. The surface imaging setup technique of matching chest wall surface directly to treatment planning computed tomography was evaluated and compared to the traditional radiograph-based technique. Fifteen postmastectomy radiation therapy patients were included, with the first 5 patients positioned by standard radiograph-based technique; radiopaque makers, however, were added on the patient's skin surface to improve the relevance of the setup. AlignRT was used to capture patient surface images at different time points along the process, with the calculated position corrections recorded but not applied. For the remaining 10 patients, the orthogonal x-ray imaging was replaced by the AlignRT setup procedure followed by a beamline radiograph at the treatment gantry angle only as confirmation. The position corrections recorded during all fractions for all patients (28-31 each) were analyzed to evaluate the setup accuracy. The time spent on patient setup and treatment delivery was also analyzed. The average position discrepancy over the treatment course relative to the planning computed tomography was significantly larger in the radiograph only group, particularly in translations (3.2 ± 2.0 mm in vertical, 3.1 ± 3.0 mm in longitudinal, 2.6 ± 2.5 mm in lateral), than AlignRT assisted group (1.3 ± 1.3 mm in vertical, 0.8 ± 1.2 mm in longitudinal, 1.5 ± 1.4 mm in lateral). The latter was well within the robustness limits (±3 mm) of the pencil beam scanning treatment established in our previous studies. The setup time decreased from an average of 11 minutes using orthogonal x-rays to an average of 6 minutes using AlignRT surface imaging.

Question: Can surface imaging improve the patient setup for proton postmastectomy chest wall irradiation?

The use of surface imaging allows postmastectomy chest wall patients to be positioned more accurately and substantially more efficiently than radiograph only-based techniques.

Answer the question based on the following context: The American Urological Association (AUA) guidelines recommend partial nephrectomy (PN) as the gold standard for treatment of small renal masses (SRMs). This study examines the change in utilization of partial and radical nephrectomies at teaching and nonteaching institutions from 2003 to 2012. The data sample for this study came from the Healthcare Cost and Utilization Project Nationwide Inpatient Sample from 2003 to 2012. International Classification of Diseases, Ninth Revision and Clinical Modification codes were used to identify patients undergoing PN and radical nephrectomy for renal masses limited to the renal parenchyma. Teaching hospitals were defined, but not limited to any institution with an American Medical Association-approved residency program. Linear regression, bivariate, multivariate, and odds ratio analysis were used to demonstrate statistical significance. 39,685 patients were identified in teaching hospitals, and 22,239 were identified in nonteaching hospitals. Prior to the 2009 AUA guidelines, cumulative rates of PN were 33% vs 20% in teaching vs nonteaching hospitals (p < 0.0001) compared with postguideline rates of 48% vs 33% in teaching vs nonteaching hospitals (p < 0.0001).

Question: Partial Nephrectomy for Small Renal Masses: Do Teaching and Nonteaching Institutions Adhere to Guidelines Equally?

During the 10-year study period, the use of PN to treat SRMs has significantly increased in both teaching hospitals and in nonacademic centers; however, these changes are occurring at a slower rate in nonteaching hospitals.

Answer the question based on the following context: "Grit" can be defined as the passion and perseverance for long-term goals, and it can be measured by a validated scale. It has been associated with success in diverse fields such as basic military training and spelling tests. Surgical training is arduous with large number of trainees reporting burnout, and it could be expected that grit is a fundamental requirement to complete training. This study aimed to examine the relationship of grit in surgical training, whether grit varies by grade of surgeon, and the association of grit with burnout. This was a prospective survey-based study, using the validated tools Short Grit Scale and Oldenburg Burnout Inventory. UK-based ear, nose, and throat doctors based in secondary care were invited to participate. Ear, nose, and throat surgeons were used as the sample population, with subgroups of core trainees (core surgical trainees), specialist registrars (higher surgical training), and consultants. A total of 102 participants completed the study (33 core surgical trainees, 49 mid-career trainees in higher surgical training, and 22 consultants). Consultants were significantly grittier than trainees (p<0.05). Grit had a significant inverse relationship with burnout (r = -0.54, p<0.05). There was a nonsignificant trend of reduced burnout in consultants. Age and sex were not associated with grit or burnout.

Question: Survival of the Grittiest?

These findings reinforce the concept that grit is fundamentally important to completion of surgical training. In addition, grittier individuals are more likely to resist burnout than their less gritty counterparts. These findings carry implications for retention and recruitment of trainee surgeons, and further study is required to investigate whether surgical training influences grit levels or selects out the grittiest trainees to survive to completion.

Answer the question based on the following context: An increase in intra-abdominal pressure causes a decrease in the splanchnic blood flow and the intramucosal pH of the bowel, as well as increasing the risk of ischemia in the colon. The aim of the present study is to evaluate the effect of hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT) on the ischemia caused by laparoscopy in colonic anastomosis in an experimental model of laparoscopic colonic surgery. We divided 30 male Wistar albino rats into three groups: Group A was the control (open colon anastomosis); Group B received LCA (laparoscopic colon anastomosis); while Group C received both LCA and HBOT. Each group contained ten animals. We placed Group C (LCA and HBOT) in an experimental hyperbaric chamber into which we administered pure oxygen at 2.1 atmospheres absolute 100% oxygen for 60 min for ten consecutive days. The anastomotic bursting pressure value was found to be higher in the open surgery group (226 ± 8.8) (Group A). The result for Group C (213 ± 27), which received HBOT, was better than that for Group B (197 ± 27). However, there was no statistically significant difference between Group B and Group C. Group A showed better healing than the other groups, while significant differences in the fibroblast proliferation scores were found between Groups A and B. In terms of tissue hydroxyproline levels, a significant difference was found between Groups A and B and between Groups A and C, but not between Groups B and C.

Question: Does hyperbaric oxygen therapy reduce the effects of ischemia on colonic anastomosis in laparoscopic colon resection?

HBOT increases the oxygen level in the injured tissue. Although HBOT might offer several advantages, it had only a limited effect on the healing of colonic anastomosis in rats with increased intra-abdominal pressure in our study.

Answer the question based on the following context: Mammography, unlike MRI, is relatively geographically accessible. Additional travel time is often required to access breast MRI. However, the amount of additional travel time and whether it varies on the basis of sociodemographic or breast cancer risk factors is unknown. The investigators examined screening mammography and MRI between 2005 and 2012 in the Breast Cancer Surveillance Consortium by (1) travel time to the closest and actual mammography facility used and the difference between the two, (2) women's breast cancer risk factors, and (3) sociodemographic characteristics. Logistic regression was used to examine the odds of traveling farther than the closest facility in relation to women's characteristics. Among 821,683 screening mammographic examinations, 76.6% occurred at the closest facility, compared with 51.9% of screening MRI studies (n = 3,687). The median differential travel time among women not using the closest facility for mammography was 14 min (interquartile range, 8-25 min) versus 20 min (interquartile range, 11-40 min) for breast MRI. Differential travel time for both imaging modalities did not vary notably by breast cancer risk factors but was significantly longer for nonurban residents. For non-Hispanic black compared with non-Hispanic white women, the adjusted odds of traveling farther than the closest facility were 9% lower for mammography (odds ratio, 0.91; 95% confidence interval, 0.87-0.95) but more than two times higher for MRI (odds ratio, 2.64; 95% confidence interval, 1.36-5.13).

Question: Travel Burden to Breast MRI and Utilization: Are Risk and Sociodemographics Related?

Breast cancer risk factors were not related to excess travel time for screening MRI, but sociodemographic factors were, suggesting the possibility that geographic distribution of advanced imaging may exacerbated disparities for some vulnerable populations.

Answer the question based on the following context: Open and arthroscopic approaches have been described to address femoroacetabular impingement (FAI). Despite good outcomes, there is a subset of patients who subsequently require total hip arthroplasty (THA). However, there is a paucity of data on the outcomes of THA after surgery for FAI. The purpose of this study was to determine whether clinical outcomes of THA are affected by prior open or arthroscopic treatment of FAI. This case-matched retrospective review included 23 patients (24 hips) that underwent THA after previous surgery for FAI (14 arthroscopic and 10 open) and compared them to 24 matched controls with no history of prior surgery on the operative hip. The controls were matched for age, sex, surgical approach, implants used, and preoperative modified Harris hip score (mHHS) did not differ between groups. The primary outcome measure was the mHHS. Operative time, blood loss, and the presence of heterotopic ossification after THA were also compared between groups. There was no significant difference in mean mHHS between the FAI treatment group 92.9 ± 12.7 and controls 95.2 ± 6.6 (P = .43) at a mean follow-up after THA of 33 (24-70) months. Increased operative times were noted for THA after surgical hip dislocation (SHD; mean 109.3 ± 29.8) compared to controls (mean 88.0 ± 24.2; P<.05). There was no significant difference in blood loss between groups. The occurrence of heterotopic ossification was significantly higher after SHD compared to controls (P<.05).

Question: Does Prior Surgery for Femoroacetabular Impingement Compromise Hip Arthroplasty Outcomes?

Clinical outcomes after THA are not affected by prior open or arthroscopic procedures for FAI. However, increased operative times and an increased risk of heterotopic ossification were noted after SHD.

Answer the question based on the following context: Demonstrate the need for increased education regarding otolaryngology-related manifestations of human papillomavirus (HPV). Highlight a need to incorporate otolaryngology-related manifestations of HPV in vaccine counseling. Survey. Tertiary care academic children's hospital. Pediatric residents, fellows, and staff. An online survey was made available regarding HPV education and vaccination. Participants (N = 348) initiated the survey representing 28.4%, 25.6%, and 19.0% postgraduate year 1, 2, and 3 residents, respectively, as well as 17.5% chief residents/fellows and 9.5% attendings. Participants rated their prior education as none or fair regarding recurrent respiratory papillomatosis (63.8%) and oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma (68.3%). In contrast, 60.6% and 70.9% rated their education on genital warts and cervical cancer correspondingly as good or excellent. When asked what was routinely discussed during HPV vaccine counseling, 63.3% reported "never" discussing recurrent respiratory papillomatosis and 52.9% "never" discussing oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma. A range from 92.7% to 95.5% responded that there was a need for increased education regarding HPV and its role in recurrent respiratory papillomatosis and oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma.

Question: Human Papillomavirus Vaccination Counseling in Pediatric Training: Are We Discussing Otolaryngology-Related Manifestations?

Increased education about HPV and its otolaryngology-related manifestations should be undertaken to increase provider, patient, and parent awareness of recurrent respiratory papillomatosis and oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma. We propose that discussing the risks of otolaryngology-related disease be routinely included in HPV vaccination counseling.

Answer the question based on the following context: It is commonly believed that eating habits, specially the sweet eating habit, can predict results after bariatric surgery; for this reason, it is considered one of the selection criteria when deciding the surgical technique. However, there is not enough evidence of its impact on the results after sleeve gastrectomy (SG). To evaluate the relationship between the sweet eating habit and weight loss after SG. Cross-sectional retrospective study. Group A: nonobese subjects, and group B: patients who underwent SG and had ≥6 months follow-up. Demographics, anthropometrics, percentage excess weight loss (%EWL) at 6, 12, and 24 months, and eating habits before surgery were analyzed. Sweet eating consumption was classified as follows: mild, moderate, and severe. Uni- and bivariate logistic regression analysis according to each variable was performed. Between 2006 and 2011, 157 patients underwent SG at our institution; 36% were male, age 41 years old, and initial body mass index 46 kg/m(2). Mean %EWL at 6, 12, and 24 months was 66%, 77%, and 70%, respectively. Sweet eating consumption: Mild: 59%; Moderate: 38%; and Severe: 3%. No difference was found in sweet eating patterns among groups A and B; %EWL for mild, moderate, and severe sweet eaters at 6 months was 66 ± 16, 66 ± 14, and 65 ± 10, respectively (P = non-significant [NS]). The same analysis was made at 12 months: 76 ± 20, 79 ± 18, and 78 ± 11 (P = NS). At 24 months, only mild and moderate sweet eaters were available for comparison: 69 ± 23 and 73 ± 19, respectively (P = NS).

Question: Sweet Eating Habit: Does This Affect the Results After Sleeve Gastrectomy?

Preliminary data suggested that preoperative sweet eating habit would not predict results after SG in terms of weight loss.

Answer the question based on the following context: In 2012, 4,743 pedestrians were killed in the United States, representing 14% of total traffic fatalities. The number of pedestrians injured was higher at 76,000. Therefore, 36 out of 52 of the largest cities in the United States have adopted a citywide target of reducing pedestrian fatalities. The number of cities adopting the reduction goal during 2011 and 2012 increased rapidly with 8 more cities. We examined the scaling relationship of pedestrian fatality counts as a function of the population size of 115 to 161 large U.S. cities during the period of 1994 to 2011. We also examined the scaling relationship of nonpedestrian and total traffic fatality counts as a function of the population size. For the data source of fatality measures we used Traffic Safety Facts Fatality Analysis Reporting System/General Estimates System annual reports published each year from 1994 to 2011 by the NHTSA. Using the data source we conducted both annual cross-sectional and panel data bivariate and multivariate regression models. In the construction of the estimated functional relationship between traffic fatality measures and various factors, we used the simple power function for urban scaling used by Bettencourt et al. ( 2007 , 2010 ) and the refined STIRPAT (stochastic impacts by regression on population, affluence, and technology) model used in Dietz and Rosa ( 1994 , 1997 ) and York et al. ( 2003 ). We found that the scaling relationship display diseconomies of scale or sublinear for pedestrian fatalities. However, the relationship displays a superlinear relationship in case of nonpedestrian fatalities. The scaling relationship for total traffic fatality counts display a nearly linear pattern. When the relationship was examined by the 4 subgroups of cities with different population sizes, the most pronounced sublinear scaling relationships for all 3 types of fatality counts was discovered for the subgroup of megacities with a population of more than 1 million.

Question: Are there higher pedestrian fatalities in larger cities?

The scaling patterns of traffic fatalities of subgroups of cities depend on population sizes of the cities in subgroups. In particular, 9 megacities with populations of more than 1 million are significantly different from the remaining cities and should be viewed as a totally separate group. Thus, analysis of the patterns of traffic fatalities needs to be conducted within the group of megacities separately from the other cities with smaller population sizes for devising prevention policies to reduce traffic fatalities in both megacities and smaller cities.

Answer the question based on the following context: The Affordable Care Act's marketplaces present an important opportunity for expanding coverage but consumers face enormous challenges in navigating through enrollment and re-enrollment. We tested the effectiveness of a behaviorally informed policy tool--plan recommendations--in improving marketplace decisions. Data were gathered from a community sample of 656 lower-income, minority, rural residents of Virginia. We conducted an incentive-compatible, computer-based experiment using a hypothetical marketplace like the one consumers face in the federally-facilitated marketplaces, and examined their decision quality. Participants were randomly assigned to a control condition or three types of plan recommendations: social normative, physician, and government. For participants randomized to a plan recommendation condition, the plan that maximized expected earnings, and minimized total expected annual health care costs, was recommended. Primary data were gathered using an online choice experiment and questionnaire. Plan recommendations resulted in a 21 percentage point increase in the probability of choosing the earnings maximizing plan, after controlling for participant characteristics. Two conditions, government or providers recommending the lowest cost plan, resulted in plan choices that lowered annual costs compared to marketplaces where no recommendations were made.

Question: Can Plan Recommendations Improve the Coverage Decisions of Vulnerable Populations in Health Insurance Marketplaces?

As millions of adults grapple with choosing plans in marketplaces and whether to switch plans during open enrollment, it is time to consider marketplace redesigns and leverage insights from the behavioral sciences to facilitate consumers' decisions.

Answer the question based on the following context: Research demonstrates that physicians benefit from regular feedback on their clinical supervision from their trainees. Several features of effective feedback are enabled by nonanonymous processes (i.e., open feedback). However, most resident-to-faculty feedback processes are anonymous given concerns of power differentials and possible reprisals. This exploratory study investigated resident experiences of giving faculty open feedback, advantages, and disadvantages. Between January and August 2014, nine graduates of a Canadian Physiatry residency program that uses open resident-to-faculty feedback participated in semistructured interviews in which they described their experiences of this system. Three members of the research team analyzed transcripts for emergent themes using conventional content analysis. In June 2014, semistructured group interviews were held with six residents who were actively enrolled in the program as a member-checking activity. Themes were refined on the basis of these data. Advantages of the open feedback system included giving timely feedback that was acted upon (thus enhancing residents' educational experiences), and improved ability to receive feedback (thanks to observing modeled behavior). Although some disadvantages were noted, they were often speculative (e.g., "I think others might have felt …") and were described as outweighed by advantages. Participants emphasized the program's "feedback culture" as an open feedback enabler.

Question: Feedback to Supervisors: Is Anonymity Really So Important?

The relationship between the feedback giver and recipient has been described as influencing the uptake of feedback. Findings suggest that nonanonymous practices can enable a positive relationship in resident-to-faculty feedback. The benefits of an open system for resident-to-faculty feedback can be reaped if a "feedback culture" exists.

Answer the question based on the following context: Considerable debate exists as to whether the bipolar disorders are best classified according to a categorical or dimensional model. This study explored whether there is evidence for a single or multiple subpopulations and the degree to which differing diagnostic criteria correspond to bipolar subpopulations. A mixture analysis was performed on 1081 clinically diagnosed (and a reduced sample of 497 DSM-IV diagnosed) bipolar I and II disorder patients, using scores on hypomanic severity (as measured by the Mood Swings Questionnaire). Mixture analyses were conducted using two differing diagnostic criteria and two DSM markers to ascertain the most differentiating and their associated clinical features. The two subpopulation solution was most supported although the entropy statistic indicated limited separation and there was no distinctive point of rarity. Quantification by the odds ratio statistic indicated that the clinical diagnosis (respecting DSM-IV criteria, but ignoring 'high' duration) was somewhat superior to DSM-IV diagnosis in allocating patients to the putative mixture analysis groups. The most differentiating correlate was the presence or absence of psychotic features.

Question: Are the bipolar disorders best modelled categorically or dimensionally?

Findings favour the categorical distinction of bipolar I and II disorders and argue for the centrality of the presence or absence of psychotic features to subgroup differentiation.

Answer the question based on the following context: The objective of this study was to evaluate possible nonlinear lamotrigine (LTG) pharmacokinetics at elevated concentration. LTG is reported to have linear kinetics, so that elimination rate is linearly proportional to blood concentration and a change in dose is accompanied by a proportionate change in serum concentration. We encountered patients in whom LTG serum concentration increased dramatically in response to minor or no change in LTG dose. We studied this phenomenon in patients with LTG toxicity in one clinic. Using electronic medical records from 1997 to 2014, we identified patients who developed clinical LTG toxicity with LTG serum concentrations>20 mg/l, after tolerating lamotrigine at lower serum concentrations. We reviewed LTG dose change and other changes that preceded the episode of toxicity. Twenty-two patients had at least one episode of LTG toxicity with levels higher than 20 mg/l (of 922 patients with available levels). The peak serum concentration varied from 21.1 to 40.3 mg/l (mean 28.7). The increase in level was explained in three patients (post-delivery in one, addition of valproate in two). In the 18 others, the increase was not explained or it was disproportionate to an increase in LTG dose.

Question: Unexplained spikes in lamotrigine serum concentration: nonlinear elimination?

Spikes in LTG levels and associated clinical toxicity may occur unexpectedly, suggesting that elimination kinetics may be nonlinear in some individuals at serum concentrations in the upper range. Measurement and close monitoring of LTG levels is warranted for new symptoms that could be consistent with lamotrigine toxicity, particularly when the baseline serum concentration has been>10 mg/l.

Answer the question based on the following context: The Social Vulnerability Index (SVI), a publicly available dataset, is used in emergency preparedness to identify communities in greatest need of resources. The SVI includes multiple socioeconomic, demographic, and geographic indicators that also are associated with physical fitness and physical activity. This study examined the utility of using the SVI to explain variation in youth fitness, including aerobic capacity and body mass index. FITNESSGRAM data from 2,126 Georgia schools were matched at the census tract level with SVI themes of socioeconomic, household composition, minority status and language, and housing and transportation. Multivariate multiple regression models were used to test whether SVI factors explained fitness outcomes, controlling for grade level (ie, elementary, middle, high school) and stratified by gender. SVI themes explained the most variation in aerobic fitness and body mass index for both boys and girls (R2 values 11.5% to 26.6%). Socioeconomic, Minority Status and Language, and Housing and Transportation themes were salient predictors of fitness outcomes.

Question: Can the Social Vulnerability Index Be Used for More Than Emergency Preparedness?

Youth fitness in Georgia was related to socioeconomic, demographic, and geographic themes. The SVI may be a useful needs assessment tool for health officials and researchers examining multilevel influences on health behaviors or identifying communities for prevention efforts.

Answer the question based on the following context: Random forests have often been claimed to uncover interaction effects. However, if and how interaction effects can be differentiated from marginal effects remains unclear. In extensive simulation studies, we investigate whether random forest variable importance measures capture or detect gene-gene interactions. With capturing interactions, we define the ability to identify a variable that acts through an interaction with another one, while detection is the ability to identify an interaction effect as such. Of the single importance measures, the Gini importance captured interaction effects in most of the simulated scenarios, however, they were masked by marginal effects in other variables. With the permutation importance, the proportion of captured interactions was lower in all cases. Pairwise importance measures performed about equal, with a slight advantage for the joint variable importance method. However, the overall fraction of detected interactions was low. In almost all scenarios the detection fraction in a model with only marginal effects was larger than in a model with an interaction effect only.

Question: Do little interactions get lost in dark random forests?

Random forests are generally capable of capturing gene-gene interactions, but current variable importance measures are unable to detect them as interactions. In most of the cases, interactions are masked by marginal effects and interactions cannot be differentiated from marginal effects. Consequently, caution is warranted when claiming that random forests uncover interactions.

Answer the question based on the following context: Fractures of the lateral condyle of the third metacarpus (MC3) are a significant welfare concern in horseracing worldwide. The primary aim of this work was to identify magnetic resonance (MR) image-detectable prefracture markers that have the potential for use as a screening tool to identify horses at significant risk of catastrophic fracture. Case-control study of bone-level risk factors for fracture in racehorses. A total of 191 MC3s from horses, with and without lateral condylar fracture of MC3, were subjected to MR imaging. The depth of dense subchondral/trabecular bone was measured at several sites around the distal end of the bone and regression analyses were conducted to identify differences in this depth between horses with and without lateral condylar fracture. Greater depth of dense subchondral/trabecular bone in the palmar half of the lateral parasagittal groove of distal MC3 was associated with an increased likelihood of being from a horse that had sustained a fracture. Receiver operator characteristic analysis was used to identify the optimal cut-off in the depth of dense subchondral/trabecular bone at this site to best discriminate fracture status. Positive and negative predictive values were calculated using the prevalence of fracture within the current study and also a prevalence estimate for the wider racehorse population.

Question: Can we use subchondral bone thickness on high-field magnetic resonance images to identify Thoroughbred racehorses at risk of catastrophic lateral condylar fracture?

There is a requirement to identify suitable prescreening test(s) to eliminate many true negative horses and increase the prevalence of prefracture pathology in the sub population that would be screened using MR imaging, in turn maximising the positive predictive value of this test.

Answer the question based on the following context: This paper aims to illustrate the steps needed to produce reliable correlative modelling for arthropod vectors, when process-driven models are unavailable. We use ticks as examples because of the (re)emerging interest in the pathogens they transmit. We argue that many scientific publications on the topic focus on: (i) the use of explanatory variables that do not adequately describe tick habitats; (ii) the automatic removal of variables causing internal (statistical) problems in the models without considering their ecological significance; and (iii) spatial pattern matching rather than niche mapping, therefore losing information that could be used in projections. We focus on extracting information derived from modelling the environmental niche of ticks, as opposed to pattern matching exercises, as a first step in the process of identifying the ecological determinants of tick distributions. We perform models on widely reported species of ticks in Western Palaearctic to derive a set of covariates, describing the climate niche, reconstructing a Fourier transformation of remotely-sensed information. We demonstrate the importance of assembling ecological information that drives the distribution of ticks before undertaking any mapping exercise, from which this kind of information is lost. We also show how customised covariates are more relevant to tick ecology than the widely used set of "Bioclimatic Indicators" ("Biovars") derived from interpolated datasets, and provide programming scripts to easily calculate them. We demonstrate that standard pre-tailored vegetation categories also fail to describe tick habitats and are best used to describe absence rather than presence of ticks, but could be used in conjunction with the climate based suitability models.

Question: Perspectives on modelling the distribution of ticks for large areas: so far so good?

We stress the better performance of climatic covariates obtained from remotely sensed information as opposed to interpolated explanatory variables derived from ground measurements which are flawed with internal issues affecting modelling performance. Extracting ecological conclusions from modelling projections is necessary to gain information about the variables driving the distribution of arthropod vectors. Mapping exercises should be a secondary aim in the study of the distribution of health threatening arthropods.

Answer the question based on the following context: Exposure to welding fume increases the risk of pneumococcal infection; whether such susceptibility extends to other respiratory infections is unclear. We report findings from a survey and from medical consultation data for workers in a large shipyard in the Middle East. Between January 2013 and December 2013, we collected cross-sectional information from 529 male workers variously exposed to welding fume. Adjusted ORs for respiratory symptoms (cough, phlegm, wheezing, shortness of breath and 'chest illness') were estimated using multivariable logistic regression. Subsequently, we examined consultation records from 2000 to 2011 for 15 954 workers who had 103 840 consultations for respiratory infections; the associations between respiratory infections and levels of welding exposure were estimated using a count regression model with a negative binomial distribution. 13% of surveyed workers reported respiratory symptoms with a higher prevalence in winter, particularly among welders. The adjusted OR in welders versus other manual labourers was 1.72 (95% CI 1.02 to 3.01) overall and 2.31 (1.05 to 5.10) in winter months; no effect was observed in summer. The risk of consultation for respiratory infections was higher in welders than in manual labourers, with an adjusted incidence rate ratio of 1.45 (1.59 to 1.83) overall, 1.47 (1.42 to 1.52) in winter and 1.33 (1.23 to 1.44) in summer (interaction, p<0.001).

Question: Are welders more at risk of respiratory infections?

The observation that respiratory symptoms and consultations for respiratory infection in welders are more common in winter may indicate an enhanced vulnerability to a broad range of infections. If confirmed, this would have important implications for the occupational healthcare of a very large, global workforce.

Answer the question based on the following context: Chronic idiopathic pain syndromes are major causes of personal suffering, disability, and societal expense. Dietary n-6 linoleic acid has increased markedly in modern industrialized populations over the past century. These high amounts of linoleic acid could hypothetically predispose to physical pain by increasing the production of pro-nociceptive linoleic acid-derived lipid autacoids and by interfering with the production of anti-nociceptive lipid autacoids derived from n-3 fatty acids. Here, we used a rat model to determine the effect of increasing dietary linoleic acid as a controlled variable for 15 weeks on nociceptive lipid autacoids and their precursor n-6 and n-3 fatty acids in tissues associated with idiopathic pain syndromes. Increasing dietary linoleic acid markedly increased the abundance of linoleic acid and its pro-nociceptive derivatives and reduced the abundance of n-3 eicosapentaenoic acid and docosahexaenoic acid and their anti-nociceptive monoepoxide derivatives. Diet-induced changes occurred in a tissue-specific manner, with marked alterations of nociceptive lipid autacoids in both peripheral and central tissues, and the most pronounced changes in their fatty acid precursors in peripheral tissues.

Question: Dietary linoleic acid-induced alterations in pro- and anti-nociceptive lipid autacoids: Implications for idiopathic pain syndromes?

The present findings provide biochemical support for the hypothesis that the high linoleic acid content of modern industrialized diets may create a biochemical susceptibility to develop chronic pain. Dietary linoleic acid lowering should be further investigated as part of an integrative strategy for the prevention and management of idiopathic pain syndromes.

Answer the question based on the following context: Health care organizations have used different strategies to implement quality improvement (QI) programs but with only mixed success in implementing and spreading QI organization-wide. This suggests that certain organizational strategies may be more successful than others in developing an organization's improvement capability. To investigate this, our study examined how the primary focus of grant-funded QI efforts relates to (1) key measures of grant success and (2) organization-level measures of success in QI and organizational learning. Using a mixed-methods design, we conducted one-way analyses of variance to relate Veterans Affairs administrative survey data to data collected as part of a 3.5-year evaluation of 29 health care organization grant recipients. We then analyzed qualitative evidence from the evaluation to explain our results. We found that hospitals that focused on developing organizational infrastructure to support QI implementation compared with those that focused on training or conducting projects rated highest (at α = .05) on all 4 evaluation measures of grant success and all 3 systemwide survey measures of QI and organizational learning success.

Question: Building Systemwide Improvement Capability: Does an Organization's Strategy for Quality Improvement Matter?

This study adds to the literature on developing organizational improvement capability and has practical implications for health care leaders. Focusing on either projects or staff training in isolation has limited value. Organizations are more likely to achieve systemwide transformation of improvement capability if their strategy emphasizes developing or strengthening organizational systems, structures, or processes to support direct improvement efforts.

Answer the question based on the following context: Medical research using human participants must conform to the basic ethical principles found in the Declaration of Helsinki (DoH) of the World Medical Association. The purpose of this review was to assess whether journals in China have improved in regard to the fulfillment of ethical disclosure procedures for clinical trials of anti-dementia drugs. Four medical databases were searched for articles reporting clinical trials of oral anti-dementia drugs published in China in 2003, 2009, and 2014. The frequencies of reporting of informed consent from participants (ICP), approval of a regional ethical committee (REC), reference to DoH, and study registration were estimated respectively. Statistical analyses were conducted with SPSS v21 software. Among those randomized controlled trials published in 2003, 2009, and 2014, disclosure of REC approval was present for 2.67%, 1.15%, and 6.84%; statements of ICP were included in 9.33%, 7.76%, and 17.34%; reference to DoH was found for 4.00%, 1.44%, and 7.45%; and study registration reporting was included in 2.67%, 2.59%, and 9.28%, respectively. Improvements to reporting rates between 2009 and 2014 were seen, with more than twice as many trials reporting REC approval, ICP, reference to DoH, and study registration compared with 2009.

Question: Do Chinese Researchers Conduct Ethical Research and Use Ethics Committee Review in Clinical Trials of Anti-Dementia Drugs?

Compared with 2003 and 2009, reporting rates for REC approval, ICP, reference to DoH, and study registration for clinical trials of anti-dementia drugs were enhanced in 2014 in the major medical journals of China. However, biomedical publications without definite statements of ethical considerations remain common, and this continues to be seen in Chinese journals. It is imperative that measures are taken to reinforce the ethical protection in clinical trials in China.

Answer the question based on the following context: While age is a known risk factor in trauma, markers of frailty are growing in their use in the critically ill. Frailty markers may reflect underlying strength and function more than chronologic age, as many modern elderly patients are quite active. However, the optimal markers of frailty are unknown. A retrospective review of The Crash Injury Research and Engineering Network (CIREN) database was performed over an 11-year period. Computed tomographic images were analyzed for multiple frailty markers, including sarcopenia determined by psoas muscle area, osteopenia determined by Hounsfield units (HU) of lumbar vertebrae, and vascular disease determined by aortic calcification. Overall, 202 patients were included in the review, with a mean age of 58.5 years. Median Injury Severity Score was 17. Sarcopenia was associated with severe thoracic injury (62.9% vs. 42.5%; p = 0.03). In multivariable analysis controlling for crash severity, sarcopenia remained associated with severe thoracic injury (p = 0.007) and osteopenia was associated with severe spine injury (p = 0.05). While age was not significant in either multivariable analysis, the association of sarcopenia and osteopenia with development of serious injury was more common with older age.

Question: Are frailty markers associated with serious thoracic and spinal injuries among motor vehicle crash occupants?

Multiple markers of frailty were associated with severe injury. Frailty may more reflect underlying physiology and injury severity than age, although age is associated with frailty.

Answer the question based on the following context: In the era of bare metal stents (BMSs), alloys have been considered to be better materials for stent design than stainless steel. In the era of biodegradable polymer drug-eluting stents (BP-DESs), the safety and efficacy of BP-DESs with different metal platforms (stainless steel or alloys) have not yet been reported, although their polymers are eventually absorbed, and only the metal platforms remain in the body. This study sought to determine the clinical safety and efficacy of BP-DESs with different platforms compared with other stents (other DESs and BMSs). PubMed, Embase and Clinical Trials.gov were searched for randomized controlled trials (RCTs) that compared BP-DESs with other stents. After performing pooled analysis of BP-DESs and other stents, we performed a subgroup analysis using two classification methods: stent platform and follow-up time. The study characteristics, patient characteristics and clinical outcomes were abstracted. Forty RCTs (49 studies) comprising 34,850 patients were included. Biodegradable polymer stainless drug-eluting stents (BP-stainless DESs) were superior to the other stents [mainly stainless drug-eluting stents (DESs)] in terms of pooled definite/probable stent thrombosis (ST) (OR [95% CI]= 0.76[0.61-0.95], p = 0.02), long-term definite/probable ST (OR [95% CI]= 0.73[0.57-0.94], p = 0.01), very late definite/probable ST (OR [95% CI]= 0.56[0.33-0.93], p = 0.03) and long-term definite ST. BP-stainless DESs had lower rates of pooled, mid-term and long-term target vessel revascularization (TVR) and target lesion revascularization (TLR) than the other stainless DESs and BMSs. Furthermore, BP-stainless DESs were associated with lower rates of long-term death than other stainless DESs and lower rates of mid-term myocardial infarction than BMSs. However, only the mid-term and long-term TVR rates were superior in BP-alloy DESs compared with the other stents.

Question: Can Platforms Affect the Safety and Efficacy of Drug-Eluting Stents in the Era of Biodegradable Polymers?

Our results indirectly suggest that BP-stainless DESs may offer more benefits than BP-alloy DESs in the era of BP-DESs. Further well-designed RCTs comparing BP-stainless with BP-alloy DESs are needed to confirm which platform is better.

Answer the question based on the following context: Suburethral sling is the gold standard treatment for stress urinary incontinence (SUI). Short-term cure rates are high, but only few studies are available for longer assessment after transobturator tape procedure. The objectives of this study were to assess mid-term functional outcome for Monarc(®) transobturator tape after initial success, and to identify risk factors for recurrence. We conducted a single centre retrospective study (2004-2013) on consecutive women with SUI who underwent Monarc(®) transobturator tape procedure and were initially cured at the postoperative medical consultation. Pre- and postoperative data (age, weight, height, body mass index, hormonal status, surgical history, associated organ prolapse [Baden and Walker], associated urinary symptoms, postoperative complications [Clavien-Dindo]) were extracted from the electronic medical record. Subjective cure was defined by a score of zero from the ICIQ-SF questionnaire, no second intervention for recurrent SUI and no need for pads at latest news. Statistical analysis was performed using SAS(®) v9.3 (P<0.05). One hundred and thirty-three consecutive women underwent TOT Monarc(®) procedure, and 125 women were cured in the short-term. Among these women, 103 (82%) were available for mid-term evaluation. Sixty-four women (62%) had pure stress urinary incontinence. The mean follow-up period was 51 months [2-119]. At last follow-up, cure rate was 61%. Seventy-eight percent of women with recurrent urinary incontinence had SUI. Other women had mixed urinary incontinence (3/40), or de novo urgency (6/40). In univariate analysis, we could not identify pejorative prognostic factors for mid-term failure.

Question: Is initial success after Monarc(®) suburethral sling durable at mid-term evaluation?

In our experience, mid-term functional outcome after Monarc(®) transobturator tape procedure seems to deteriorate. After 4 years of follow-up, 61% of the women who were initially cured were still free from any leakage.

Answer the question based on the following context: Early cannulation arteriovenous grafts (ecAVGs) are advocated as an alternative to tunnelled central venous catheters (TCVCs). A real-time observational "virtual study" and budget impact model was performed to evaluate a strategy of ecAVG as a replacement to TCVC as a bridge to definitive access creation. Data on complications and access-related bed days was collected prospectively for all TCVCs inserted over a six-month period (n = 101). The feasibility and acceptability of an alternative strategy (ecAVGs) was also evaluated. A budget impact model comparing the two strategies was performed. Autologous access in the form of native fistula was the goal wherever possible. We found 34.7% (n = 35) of TCVCs developed significant complications (including 17 culture-proven bacteraemia and one death from line sepsis). Patients spent an average of 11.9 days/patient/year in hospital as a result of access-related complications. The wait for TCVC insertion delayed discharge in 35 patients (median: 6 days). The ecAVGs were a practical and acceptable alternative to TCVCs in over 80% of patients. Over a 6-month period, total treatment costs per patient wereGBP5882 in the TCVC strategy and GBP4954 in the ecAVG strategy, delivering potential savings ofGBP927 per patient. The ecAVGs had higher procedure and re-intervention costs (GBP3014 vs. GBP1836); however, these were offset by significant reductions in septicaemia treatment costs (GBP1322 vs. GBP2176) and in-patient waiting time bed costs (GBP619 vs. GBP1870).

Question: Are early cannulation arteriovenous grafts (ecAVG) a viable alternative to tunnelled central venous catheters (TCVCs)?

Adopting ecAVGs as an alternative to TCVCs in patients requiring immediate access for haemodialysis may provide better individual patient care and deliver cost savings to the hospital.

Answer the question based on the following context: Economic disadvantage may adversely influence the outcomes of infants with gastroschisis (GS). Gastroschisis International (GiT) is a network of seven paediatric surgical centres, spanning two continents, evaluating GS treatment and outcomes. A 2-year retrospective review of GS infants at GiT centres. Primary outcome was mortality. Sites were classified into high, middle and low income country (HIC, MIC, and LIC). MIC and LIC were sometimes combined for analysis (LMIC). Disability adjusted life years (DALYs) were calculated and centres with the highest mortality underwent a needs assessment. Mortality was higher in the LICs and LMICs: 100% in Uganda and Cote d'Ivoire, 75% in Nigeria and 60% in Malawi. 29% and 0% mortality was reported in South Africa and the UK, respectively. Septicaemia was the commonest cause of death. Averted and non-avertable DALYs were nil in Uganda and Cote d'Ivoire (no survivors). In the UK (100% survival) averted DALYs (met need) was highest, representing death and disability prevented by surgical intervention. Performance improvement measures were agreed: a prospectively maintained GS register; clarification of the key team members of a GS team and management pathway.

Question: Gastroschisis: Bellwether for neonatal surgery capacity in low resource settings?

We propose the use of GS as a bellwether condition for assessing institutional capacity to deliver newborn surgical care. Early access to care, efficient multidisciplinary team working, appropriate resuscitation, avoidance of abdominal compartment syndrome, stabilization prior to formal closure and proactive nutritional interventions may reduce GS-associated burden of disease in low resource settings.

Answer the question based on the following context: The incidence and management of antitumoral compound extravasation that occurred in our medical day hospital unit were registered in a 10-year period. A total of 114 episodes were consecutively recorded out of an estimated number of 211,948 administrations performed (0.05%). Type of compound, localization, timing, symptoms, treatment, resolution, or sequelae were documented. Extravasations after anthracyclines (17/114), platinum compounds (34/114), vinca alkaloids (7/114), and taxanes (34/114) were more frequently associated with edema and erythema ± pain. Five cases of monoclonal antibodies extravasation were observed without sequelae. With the involvement of an interdisciplinary task force and the use of dedicated guidelines, conservative management was successful in all patients. In the great majority of cases, recovery was complete within 48 hours after antidote administration. The support of our pharmacy was crucial. Physiatric evaluation was considered in several cases. No patients required surgery.

Question: Cytotoxic extravasation: an issue disappearing or a problem without solution?

We confirm that the adopted standardized approach to this event resulted in a satisfactory outcome and could be suggested as appropriate for managing extravasation in a large clinical context.

Answer the question based on the following context: Preoperative percutaneous transabdominal wall biopsy may be considered to diagnose gastrointestinal stromal tumour (GIST) and plan preoperative treatment with tyrosine kinase inhibitors when an endoscopic biopsy is not possible. Hypothetically, a transabdominal wall biopsy might lead to cell seeding and conversion of a local GIST to a disseminated one. We investigated the influence of preoperative needle biopsy on survival outcomes. We collected the clinical data from hospital case records of the 397 patients who participated in the Scandinavian Sarcoma Group (SSG) XVIII/Arbeitsgemeinschaft Internistische Onkologie (AIO) randomised trial and who had a transabdominal fine needle and/or core needle biopsy carried out prior to study entry. The SSG XVIII/AIO trial compared 1 and 3 years of adjuvant imatinib in a patient population with a high risk of GIST recurrence after macroscopically radical surgery. The primary end-point was recurrence-free survival (RFS), and the secondary end-points included overall survival (OS). A total of 47 (12.0%) out of the 393 patients with data available underwent a percutaneous biopsy. No significant difference in RFS or OS was found between the patients who underwent or did not undergo a percutaneous biopsy either in the entire series or in subpopulation analyses, except for a statistically significant RFS advantage for patients who had a percutaneous biopsy and a tumour ≥10 cm in diameter.

Question: Needle biopsy through the abdominal wall for the diagnosis of gastrointestinal stromal tumour - Does it increase the risk for tumour cell seeding and recurrence?

A preoperative diagnostic percutaneous biopsy of a suspected GIST may not increase the risk for GIST recurrence in a patient population who receive adjuvant imatinib after the biopsy.

Answer the question based on the following context: The aim of this study was to assess the impact of two teaching interventions (ultrasound and arthroscopy) in a peer teaching (PT) environment on anatomy examination scores and also to examine the influence of gender and learning style on these scores. We randomly assigned 484 second year medical students to one of three groups: musculoskeletal ultrasound (MSUS), arthroscopy (ASC) and control (CON). The MSUS- and the ASC-group attended two additional training sessions in ultrasound or arthroscopy; the CON-group received no additional lessons. Students were asked to complete Kolb's Learning Style Inventory test. We assessed differences in anatomical knowledge (multiple choice (MC) exam) and subjective evaluation with respect to gender and learning style. There were no relevant differences between the three groups regarding the MC exam. Acceptance of the peer teaching concept was good. All students preferred ultrasound to arthroscopy and thought that they learned more from ultrasound despite the fact that they rated the instructors as less competent and needed more time to gain in-depth knowledge. There was no significant effect of gender on evaluation results. Arthroscopy was best enjoyed by accommodators according to Kolb's Inventory and least by divergers, who found that they had learned a lot through ultrasound. The improvement in spatial conceptualization was greatest for accommodators and worst for assimilators.

Question: Multidimensional approach to teaching anatomy-Do gender and learning style matter?

Gender and learning style had no impact on quantitative parameters. Qualitative analysis, however, revealed differences for learning style and further evaluation is warranted to assess the impact on medical education.

Answer the question based on the following context: Perioperative allogeneic blood transfusions have been associated with decreased survival after surgical resection of primary and metastatic cancer. Studies investigating this association for patients undergoing resection of bone metastases are scarce and controversial. We assessed (1) whether exposure to perioperative allogeneic blood transfusions was associated with decreased survival after surgery for spinal metastases and (2) if there was a dose-response relationship per unit of blood transfused. Additionally, we explored the risk factors associated with survival after surgery for spinal metastases.STUDY DESIGN/ This is a retrospective cohort study from two university medical centers. There were 649 patients who had operative treatment for metastatic disease of the spine between 2002 and 2014. Patients with lymphoma or multiple myeloma were also included. We excluded patients with a revision procedure, kyphoplasty, vertebroplasty, and radiosurgery alone. The outcome measure was survival after surgery. The date of death was obtained from the Social Security Death Index and medical charts. Blood transfusions within 7 days before and 7 days after surgery were considered perioperative. A multivariate Cox proportional hazard model was used to assess the relationship between allogeneic blood transfusion as exposure versus non-exposure, and subsequently as continuous value; we accounted for clinical, laboratory, and treatment factors. Four hundred fifty-three (70%) patients received perioperative blood transfusions, and the median number of units transfused was 3 (interquartile range: 2-6). Exposure to perioperative blood transfusion was not associated with decreased survival after accounting for all explanatory variables (hazard ratio [HR]: 1.03; 95% confidence interval [CI]: 0.80-1.31; p=.841). Neither did we find a dose-response relationship (HR: 1.01; 95% CI: 0.98-1.04; p=.420). Other factors associated with worse survival were older age, more severe comorbidity status, lower preoperativehemoglobin level, higher white blood cell count, higher calcium level, primary tumor type, previous systemic therapy, poor performance status, presence of lung, liver, or brain metastasis, and surgical approach.

Question: Are allogeneic blood transfusions associated with decreased survival after surgical treatment for spinal metastases?

Perioperative allogeneic blood transfusions were not associated with decreased survival after surgery for spinal metastases. More liberal transfusion policies might be warranted for patients undergoing surgery for spinal metastasis, although careful consideration is needed as other complications may occur.

Answer the question based on the following context: PET with O-(2-(18)F-fluoroethyl)-l-tyrosine ((18)F-FET) has gained increasing importance for glioma management. With regard to the occurrence of (18)F-FET-negative glioma, we investigated the value of (18)F-FET PET monitoring of primarily (18)F-FET-negative gliomas concerning the detection of progression and malignant transformation. We included 31 patients (26 World Health Organization [WHO] grade II, 5 WHO grade III) with primarily (18)F-FET-negative glioma and available (18)F-FET PET follow-up. (18)F-FET PET analysis comprised maximal tumor-to-background ratio (TBRmax) and dynamic analysis of tumoral (18)F-FET uptake over time (increasing vs. decreasing) including minimal time to peak (TTPmin). PET findings were correlated with MRI and clinical findings of progression as well as histology of recurrent tumors. Twenty-three of 31 patients experienced tumor progression (median progression-free survival, 41.7 mo). Fourteen of 23 patients showed tumoral (18)F-FET uptake concurrent to and 4 of 23 before MRI-derived or clinical signs of tumor progression; 2 of 23 patients presented signs of progression in MRI when no concomitant (18)F-FET PET was available, but subsequent follow-up PET was positive. In 3 of 23 patients, no (18)F-FET uptake was detected at tumor progression. Overall, 20 of 31 primarily (18)F-FET-negative glioma turned (18)F-FET-positive during the follow-up. At first occurrence of tumoral (18)F-FET uptake, TBRmax was significantly higher in patients with malignant transformation (11/20) than in those without malignant progression (3.2 ± 0.9 vs. 1.9 ± 0.5; P = 0.001), resulting in a high detection rate for malignant transformation (for TBRmax>2.46: sensitivity, 82%; specificity, 89%; negative predictive value, 80%; positive predictive value, 90%; and accuracy, 85%). Although static evaluation was superior to dynamic analysis for the detection of malignant transformation (for TTPmin ≤ 17.5 min: sensitivity, 73%; specificity, 67%; negative predictive value, 67%; positive predictive value, 73%; and accuracy, 70%), short TTPmin was associated with an early malignant transformation in the further disease course. Overall, 18 of 31 patients experienced malignant transformation; of these, 16 of 17 (94%) evaluable patients showed (18)F-FET uptake at the time of malignant transformation.

Question: Serial 18F-FET PET Imaging of Primarily 18F-FET-Negative Glioma: Does It Make Sense?

(18)F-FET PET monitoring with static and dynamic evaluation is useful even in primarily (18)F-FET-negative glioma, providing a high detection rate of both tumor progression and malignant transformation, partly before further signs of progression in MRI. Hence, (18)F-FET uptake indicating malignant transformation might influence the patient management.

Answer the question based on the following context: Although various types of segmentectomy are frequently performed for resecting lung tumours at present, there is no clear answer to the question what kind of segmentectomy would be more efficient for performing lymphadenectomy. Learning the embryological mechanism of the segment formation could be one of the methods for selecting the surgical procedure. To investigate the developmental mechanism of the lung, this study focused on 'sharing structure', a unique 3D structure consisting of the bronchi and pulmonary arteries. In the structure, two arteries from different directions, after straddling the bronchus in the central part, share one bronchial tree at the peripheral part. Using computed tomography data obtained before segmentectomy, this study observed the 'sharing structure' in 193 left and right upper lobe cases. This study investigated the relationship between the segmental arterial types and the straddled bronchi, which were straddled by the pulmonary arteries found in the centre of the sharing structure. In the right upper lobes, the straddled bronchi were anterior segmental bronchi. In the left upper lobes, however, the straddled bronchi of the lingular interlobar pulmonary artery type contained no anterior segmental bronchi. But, the straddled bronchi of lingular mediastinal pulmonary artery type contained anterior segmental bronchi in all cases.

Question: Do the lung segments exist continuously from the early stage of the embryonic period as units?

Although pulmonary arteries in almost all sharing structures in the right upper lobes straddled anterior bronchi, those in mediastinal type and interlobar type in the left upper lobe were found to straddle the anterior and apicoposterior bronchi, respectively. These findings indicated that the interlobar type was speculated to be rotating mediastinal type backward in the embryonic period. This study strongly suggested a new concept that 'the lung segments never continuously exist from the early stage of the embryonic period as units, but they are only simple units artificially named by their prevailing bronchial branching patterns'. Therefore, during segmentectomy including lymphadenectomy for pulmonary tumours, the retrieval of the branching patters of pulmonary arteries could allow the segmentectomy to become more efficient with considering the formations of lung lobes.

Answer the question based on the following context: In total, 170 patients who underwent RepTLG (n = 97) or conventional totally laparoscopic gastrectomy (cTLG) (n = 73) were enrolled. Clinicopathological features, operative details, and short-term postoperative outcomes were analyzed retrospectively and compared between groups. There were no significant differences for preoperative comorbidity between the RepTLG and c TLG groups, although patients in the RepTLG group were older than those in the cTLG group (63.5 ± 11.1 vs. 59.3 ± 10.6; p = 0.014). Operating time was shorter in the RepTLG group compared to the cTLG group (187.5 ± 67.7 min vs. 219.6 ± 43.3 min; p < 0.001) and duration of flatus of the RepTLG group was shorter than that of the cTLG group (2.7 ± 0.6 days vs. 2.9 ± 0.8 days; p = 0.016).

Question: Is the 5-ports approach necessary in laparoscopic gastrectomy?

RepTLG is a reliable scar reducing method with good operative and short-term outcomes for the treatment of gastric cancer compared with cTLG.

Answer the question based on the following context: To evaluate whether subacromial osteolysis, one of the major complications of the clavicle hook plate procedure, affects shoulder function. We had performed a retrospective study of 72 patients diagnosed with a Neer II lateral clavicle fracture or Degree-III acromioclavicular joint dislocation in our hospital from July 2012 to December 2013. All these patients had undergone surgery with clavicle hook plate and were divided into two groups based on the occurrence of subacromial osteolysis. By using the Constant-Murley at the first follow-up visit after plates removal, we evaluated patients' shoulder function to judge if it has been affected by subacromial osteolysis. We have analyzed clinical data for these 72 patients, which shows that there is no significant difference between group A (39 patients) and group B (33 patients) in age, gender, injury types or side, and shoulder function (the Constant-Murley scores are 93.38 ± 3.56 versus 94.24 ± 3.60, P>0.05).

Question: Does Subacromial Osteolysis Affect Shoulder Function after Clavicle Hook Plating?

The occurrence of subacromial osteolysis is not rare, and also it does not significantly affect shoulder function.

Answer the question based on the following context: To explore educational factors that influence family medicine residents' (FMRs') intentions to offer palliative care and palliative care home visits to patients. Qualitative descriptive study. A Canadian, urban, specialized palliative care centre. First-year (n = 9) and second-year (n = 6) FMRs. Semistructured interviews were conducted with FMRs following a 4-week palliative care rotation. Questions focused on participant experiences during the rotation and perceptions about their roles as family physicians in the delivery of palliative care and home visits. Participant responses were analyzed to summarize and interpret patterns related to their educational experience during their rotation. Four interrelated themes were identified that described this experience: foundational skill development owing to training in a specialized setting; additional need for education and support; unaddressed gaps in pragmatic skills; and uncertainty about family physicians' role in palliative care.

Question: Are family medicine residents adequately trained to deliver palliative care?

Residents described experiences that both supported and inadvertently discouraged them from considering future engagement in palliative care. Reassuringly, residents were also able to underscore opportunities for improvement in palliative care education.

Answer the question based on the following context: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) can be used to identify biomarkers in Parkinson's disease (PD); R2* values reflect iron content related to high levels of oxidative stress, whereas volume and/or shape changes reflect neuronal death. We sought to assess iron overload in the nigrostriatal system and characterize its relationship with focal and overall atrophy of the striatum in the pivotal stages of PD. Twenty controls and 70 PD patients at different disease stages (untreated de novo patients, treated early-stage patients and advanced-stage patients with L-dopa-related motor complications) were included in the study. We determined the R2* values in the substantia nigra, putamen and caudate nucleus, together with striatal volume and shape analysis. We also measured R2* in an acute MPTP mouse model and in a longitudinal follow-up two years later in the early-stage PD patients. The R2* values in the substantia nigra, putamen and caudate nucleus were significantly higher in de novo PD patients than in controls. Early-stage patients displayed significantly higher R2* values in the substantia nigra (with changes in striatal shape), relative to de novo patients. Measurements after a two-year follow-up in early-stage patients and characterization of the acute MPTP mouse model confirmed that R2* changed rapidly with disease progression. Advanced-stage patients displayed significant atrophy of striatum, relative to earlier disease stages.

Question: Magnetic Resonance Imaging Features of the Nigrostriatal System: Biomarkers of Parkinson's Disease Stages?

Each pivotal stage in PD appears to be characterized by putative nigrostriatal MRI biomarkers: iron overload at the de novo stage, striatal shape changes at early-stage disease and generalized striatal atrophy at advanced disease.

Answer the question based on the following context: A prospective cohort study within care as usual. (1) To explore the psychometric properties of a baseline disability questionnaire designed to collect patients' expectation. (2) To analyze relations between satisfaction with care and treatment success in patients with chronic low back pain (CLBP). (3) To determine the chances of being satisfied with the received care in absence of treatment success. There is a lack of evidence on determinants of treatment satisfaction in patients with CLBP, specifically the role of patient's expectation of disability reduction after treatment. Treatment expectation was measured with questions inspired by the Pain Disability Index (PDI) at baseline. Treatment success was considered if disability at the end of therapy was lower than, or equal to pretreatment expectation. An exploratory factor analysis was performed on the new questionnaire. Binary logistic regression models were used to analyze how much variance of satisfaction with care was explained by treatment success, pain disability at baseline, sex, age, duration of complaints, and pain intensity. The odds ratio of being satisfied when treatment was successful was calculated. Six hundred nine patients were included. The factor structure of the PDI-expectancy had optimal fit with a one factor structure. There were low correlations between the expected and baseline disability, pain intensity, and duration of pain. Correlation between treatment success and satisfaction with care was low (χ = 0.13; P < 0.01). Treatment success had a low contribution to satisfaction with care. Of all participating patients, 51.4% were satisfied with care even when treatment was not successful. The odds ratio for being satisfied was 2.42 when treatment was successful compared to when treatment was not successful.

Question: Can Patients With Low Back Pain Be Satisfied With Less Than Expected?

The PDI-expectancy is internally consistent. Pretreatment expectation contributes uniquely but slightly to satisfaction with care; patients whose treatment was considered successful have 1.38 to 4.24 times higher chance of being satisfied at the end of treatment. Even when treatment was not successful, 51.4% of the patients with CLBP are satisfied with care.

Answer the question based on the following context: To examine whether depressive symptoms after a stroke or a transient ischemic attack (TIA) increase the risk of cognitive impairment and functional deterioration at 2-year follow-up. Participants were survivors of first-ever, mild-to-moderate ischemic stroke or TIA from the TABASCO prospective cohort study who underwent 3T magnetic resonance imaging and were examined by a multiprofessional team 6, 12, and 24 months after the event using direct interviews, depression scales, and neurologic, neuropsychological, and functional evaluations. The main outcome was the development of cognitive impairment, either mild cognitive impairment (MCI) or dementia. MCI was diagnosed by a decline on at least 1 cognitive domain (≥ 1.5 SD) of the Montreal Cognitive Assessment score and/or on the computerized neuropsychological battery, as compared with age- and education-matched published norms. Dementia was diagnosed by a consensus forum that included senior neurologists specializing in memory disorders and a neuropsychologist. Data were obtained from 306 consecutive eligible patients (mean age: 67.1 ± 10.0 years) who were admitted to the department of emergency medicine at the Tel Aviv Medical Center from April 1, 2008, to December 1, 2011, within 72 hours from onset of symptoms of TIA or stroke. Of these patients, 51 (16.7%) developed cognitive impairment during a 2-year follow-up. Multivariate regression analysis showed that a Geriatric Depression Scale (GDS) score ≥ 6 at admission and at 6 months after the event was a significant independent marker of cognitive impairment 2 years after the stroke/TIA (OR = 3.62, 95% CI, 1.01-13.00; OR = 3.68, 95% CI, 1.03-13.21, respectively). A higher GDS score at 6 months was also related to a worse functional outcome (P<.001).

Question: Depressive symptoms following stroke and transient ischemic attack: is it time for a more intensive treatment approach?

Our results support depression screening among stroke and TIA survivors as a tool to identify patients who are prone to have a worse cognitive and functional outcome. These patients may benefit from closer medical surveillance and a more intensive treatment approach.

Answer the question based on the following context: Poor children have higher rates of mental health problems than more affluent peers, also in progressive welfare states such as Norway. Temperamental characteristics may render some children more sensitive to the adverse influence of poor economy. This study examined the direct associations between family income-to-needs and mental health and assessed moderation by early temperamental characteristics (i.e., emotionality). Using data from the Norwegian Mother and Child Cohort Study, associations between income-to-needs across children's first 3 years and internalizing and externalizing problems when children were 5 years old were examined. Differential sensitivity to family income-to-needs was assessed by investigating how emotionality, when children were one-and-a-half and 3 years old, moderated these associations. Significant main effects of income-to-needs and emotionality and a significant interaction effect between income-to-needs and emotionality were found for externalizing problems, but not for internalizing problems.

Question: Low Family Income and Behavior Problems in Norwegian Preschoolers: Is Child Emotionality a Marker for Sensitivity of Influence?

Children in poor families with an emotionally reactive temperament had higher scores on externalizing problems when they were 5 compared with their less emotionally reactive peers.

Answer the question based on the following context: The vitamin D endocrine system, besides multiple other functions, regulates aging in many tissues, including the skin. It protects the skin against the hazardous effects of many skin age-inducing agents, including ultraviolet radiation. Thus, in the present study we aimed to investigate the relationship between facial skin aging and 25-hydroxyvitamin D [25(OH)D] serum levels in healthy Egyptian adults. Sixty-one healthy adult subjects were included. Photodamage scores (erythema/telangiectasias, lentigines, hyperpigmentation and coarse wrinkling) were assessed and graded. Serum vitamin D was measured using enzyme immunoassay and subjects were classified as sufficient, insufficient or deficient according to the vitamin level. The mean 25(OH)D serum level was 43.90 nmol/l. A high prevalence of vitamin D deficiency was detected in the studied subjects regardless of their age or gender. Also, vitamin D levels were not correlated with photodamage scores and were not affected by the Fitzpatrick skin phototype, duration of sun exposure per day or the use of sunscreens (p>0.05 for all).

Question: Serum Vitamin D and Facial Aging: Is There a Link?

Aging is a complex process that is influenced by many genetic and environmental factors. Facial aging is not correlated with serum vitamin D level, and clinical trials using oral or topical vitamin D to combat aging are better predictors of its effects rather than in vivo studies.

Answer the question based on the following context: Lifestyle interventions in adolescents with obesity can result in weight loss following active intervention but individual responses vary widely. This study aimed to identify predictors of weight loss at 12- and 24-months in adolescents with obesity and clinical features of insulin resistance. Adolescents (n = 111, 66 girls, aged 10-17 years) were participants in a randomised controlled trial, the RESIST study, examining the effects of two diets differing in macronutrient content on insulin sensitivity. Eighty-five completed the 12-month program and 24-month follow-up data were available for 42 adolescents. Change in weight was determined by BMI expressed as a percentage of the 95th percentile (BMI95). The study physician collected socioeconomic data at baseline. Physical activity and screen time, and psychological dimensions of eating behavior were self-reported using the validated CLASS and EPI-C questionnaires, respectively. Stepwise multiple regressions were conducted to identify models that best predicted change in BMI95 at 12- and 24-months. Mean BMI95 was reduced at 12-months compared with baseline (mean difference [MD] ± SE: -6.9 ± 1.0, P < 0.001) but adolescents had significant re-gain from 12- to 24-months (MD ± SE: 3.7 ± 1.5, P = 0.017). Participants who achieved greater 12-month weight loss had: greater 3-month weight loss, a father with a higher education, lower baseline external eating and parental pressure to eat scores and two parents living at home. Participants who achieved greater 24-month weight loss had: greater 12-month weight loss and a lower baseline emotional eating score.

Question: Can early weight loss, eating behaviors and socioeconomic factors predict successful weight loss at 12- and 24-months in adolescents with obesity and insulin resistance participating in a randomised controlled trial?

Early weight loss is consistently identified as a strong predictor of long-term weight loss. This could be because early weight loss identifies those more motivated and engaged individuals. Patients who have baseline factors predictive of long-term weight loss failure may benefit from additional support during the intervention. Additionally, if a patient does not achieve early weight loss, further support or transition to an alternate intervention where they may have increased success may be considered.

Answer the question based on the following context: In the framework of PartecipaSalute--an Italian research project aimed to involve lay people, patients' associations and scientific-medical representatives on the health debate --we carried out a survey with the Italian Federation of Medical Societies. The aims of the survey were to know medical societies attitude vs. patients involvement in research activities and healthcare setting and to find out possible projects conducted in partnership with patients associations. A web-questionnaire with 17 closed questions, and three open questions has been prepared on the basis of some experiences published on the literature and through the collaboration of members of the Italian Federation of Medical Societies. A total of 205 medical societies has been contacted by e-mail with a cover letter explaining the aims of the survey. At the end 74 medical societies completed the survey. Medical societies participating to the survey varied widely in terms of years of activity, number of members, and geographical distribution. Remarkably, 36 medical societies respondent organized collaborative initiatives with patients/consumers associations during the last three years. Among these, the most frequent were the preparation of written material for patients, organization of conferences or workshops, and health awareness campaigns. Moreover, 6 medical societies published documents on patients' rights but patients or their associations were involved in only 2 of these initiatives. Advantages and disadvantages reported by medical societies answering are also presented and discussed.

Question: Are Italian medical societies bridging the distance from citizen and patients' associations?

In conclusion, to our knowledge this is the first survey on the value of patients' involvement conducted together with medical societies in Italy, and the results point the way to stronger collaboration in future between patients' associations and medical societies.

Answer the question based on the following context: Contralateral C-7 nerve transfer has been used clinically for more than 20 years. The increased interest in studies of transfer effectiveness at different target muscles, posttransfer cocontraction, and brain plasticity has prompted the need for an animal model. In addition to the conventional electrophysiological, histomorphometric, and biomechanical evaluation modalities, quantitative functional and behavioral evaluation will be crucial in applying this kind of model. The aim of this study was to establish a C-7 transection animal model and quantify the changes in upper-limb joint movement and muscle power. A C-7 nerve transection model was created in Sprague-Dawley rats, the brachial plexus of which resembles the human brachial plexus. The impact of C-7 transection on donor limb function-namely, strength, movement, and coordination-was evaluated in 6 rats. Muscle strength (power reported in g) was measured as a grasping task. The active range of motion (ROM; angle reported in degrees ) of the elbow, wrist, and metacarpophalangeal joints was quantified by computerized video motion analysis. Antiresistance coordinated movement (speed reported in seconds) was assessed by the vertical rope-climbing test. These tests were carried out before surgery and at 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 14, 21, and 28 days after C-7 transection. Repeated-measures 1-way analysis of variance was applied for statistical analysis. When the overall probability value was<0.05, the Dunnett multiple-comparison posttest was used to compare postoperative values with preoperative baseline values. Immediately after C-7 transection, the mean +/- SD grip strength declined from 378.50 +/- 20.55 g to 297.77 +/- 15.04 g. Active elbow extension was impaired, as shown by a significant decrease of the elbow extension angle. The speed of vertical rope climbing was also reduced. Elbow flexion, wrist flexion and extension, and metacarpophalangeal joint flexion and extension were not impaired. Fast recovery of motor function was observed thereafter. Grip strength, range of active elbow extension, and speed of rope climbing returned to baseline values at postoperative Days 4, 8, and 8, respectively.

Question: Quantitative evaluation of movement and strength of the upper limb after transection of the C-7 nerve: is it possible in an animal model?

The ROM and muscle strength of the upper limb in rats can be measured quantitatively in studies that simulate clinical situations. Application of these functional evaluation modalities in a C-7 nerve transection rat model confirmed that transection of C-7 causes only temporary functional dysfunction to the donor limb. The results obtained in this animal model mimic those seen in humans who undergo contralateral C-7 nerve harvesting.

Answer the question based on the following context: Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha) and interleukin-1beta (IL-1beta), produced by endotoxin-activated Kupffer cells, play a key role in the pathogenesis of alcoholic liver cirrhosis (ALC). Alleles TNFA -238A, IL1B -31T and variant IL1RN*2 of repeat polymorphism in the gene encoding the IL-1 receptor antagonist increase production of TNF-alpha and IL-1beta, respectively. Alleles CD14 -159T, TLR4 c.896G and TLR4 c.1196T modify activation of Kupffer cells by endotoxin. We confirmed the published associations between these common variants and genetic predisposition to ALC by means of a large case-control association study conducted on two Central European populations. The study population comprised a Czech sample of 198 ALC patients and 370 controls (MONICA project), and a German sample of 173 ALC patients and 331 controls (KORA-Augsburg), and 109 heavy drinkers without liver disease. Single locus analysis revealed no significant difference between patients and controls in all tested loci. Diplotype [IL1RN 2/ 2; IL1B -31T+] was associated with increased risk of ALC in the pilot study, but not in the validation samples.

Question: Do common genetic variants in endotoxin signaling pathway contribute to predisposition to alcoholic liver cirrhosis?

Although cytokine mediated immune reactions play a role in the pathogenesis of ALC, hereditary susceptibility caused by variants in the corresponding genes is low in Central European populations.

Answer the question based on the following context: A woman's decision to breastfeed may be influenced by her health care practitioners, but breastfeeding knowledge among clinicians is often lacking. Project HELP (Hospital Education in Lactation Practices) was an intensive education program designed to increase breastfeeding knowledge among health care practitioners. The purpose of this study was to determine whether educating practitioners affected breastfeeding initiation and exclusivity rates at hospitals with low breastfeeding rates. Between March 31, 2005, and April 24, 2006, we taught courses at four Massachusetts hospitals with low breastfeeding rates. Each course consisted of three, 4-hour teaching sessions and was offered nine times. The training, taught by public health professionals, perinatal clinicians, and peer counselors, covered a broad range of breastfeeding-related topics, from managing hyperbilirubinemia to providing culturally competent care. Medical records of infants born before and after the intervention were reviewed to determine demographics and infant feeding patterns. Combining data from all hospitals, breastfeeding initiation increased postintervention from 58.5 to 64.7 percent (p = 0.02). An overall increase in exclusive breastfeeding rates was not statistically significant. In multivariate logistic regression for all hospitals combined, infants born postintervention were significantly more likely to initiate breastfeeding than infants born preintervention (adjusted OR 1.32, 95% CI 1.03-1.69).

Question: Hospital Education in Lactation Practices (Project HELP): does clinician education affect breastfeeding initiation and exclusivity in the hospital?

Intensive breastfeeding education for health care practitioners can increase breastfeeding initiation rates.

Answer the question based on the following context: A low-glycemic index diet is effective as a treatment for individuals with diabetes and has been shown to improve pregnancy outcomes when used from the first trimester. A low-glycemic index diet is commonly advised as treatment for women with gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM). However, the efficacy of this advice and associated pregnancy outcomes have not been systematically examined. The purpose of this study was to determine whether prescribing a low-glycemic index diet for women with GDM could reduce the number of women requiring insulin without compromise of pregnancy outcomes. All women with GDM seen over a 12-month period were considered for inclusion in the study. Women (n = 63) were randomly assigned to receive either a low-glycemic index diet or a conventional high-fiber (and higher glycemic index) diet. Of the 31 women randomly assigned to a low-glycemic index diet, 9 (29%) required insulin. Of the women randomly assigned to a higher-glycemic index diet, a significantly higher proportion, 19 of 32 (59%), met the criteria to commence insulin treatment (P = 0.023). However, 9 of these 19 women were able to avoid insulin use by changing to a low-glycemic index diet. Key obstetric and fetal outcomes were not significantly different.

Question: Can a low-glycemic index diet reduce the need for insulin in gestational diabetes mellitus?

Using a low-glycemic index diet for women with GDM effectively halved the number needing to use insulin, with no compromise of obstetric or fetal outcomes.

Answer the question based on the following context: This study was designed to evaluate the safety, feasibility, and short-term outcomes of three-stage minimally invasive surgery for fulminant ulcerative colitis. Using a prospective database, we identified all patients with ulcerative colitis who underwent minimally invasive surgery for both subtotal colectomy and subsequent ileal pouch-anal anastomosis at our institution from 2000 to 2007. Demographics and short-term outcomes were retrospectively evaluated. During seven years, 50 patients underwent minimally invasive subtotal colectomy for fulminant ulcerative colitis; 50 percent were male, with a median age of 34 years. All patients had refractory colitis: 96 percent were taking steroids, 76 percent were recently hospitalized, 59 percent had>/=5 kg weight loss, 57 percent had anemia that required transfusions, 30 percent were on biologic-based therapy, and 96 percent had>/=1 severe Truelove&Witts' criteria. Of these 50 procedures, 72 percent were performed by using laparoscopic-assisted and 28 percent with hand-assisted techniques. The conversion rate was 6 percent. Subsequently, minimally invasive completion proctectomy with ileal pouch-anal anastomosis was performed in 42 patients with a 2.3 percent conversion rate. Median length of stay after each procedure was four days. There was one anastomotic leak and no mortality.

Question: Minimally invasive subtotal colectomy and ileal pouch-anal anastomosis for fulminant ulcerative colitis: a reasonable approach?

A staged, minimally invasive approach for patients with fulminant ulcerative colitis is technically feasible, safe, and reasonable operative strategy, which yields short postoperative length of stay.

Answer the question based on the following context: Although the use of laparoscopy for the management of postoperative complications has been previously well documented for different pathologies, there is scarce information regarding its use after laparoscopic colorectal surgery. Data were prospectively collected from all patients undergoing laparoscopic colorectal surgery between June 2000 to October 2007. Patients were divided into two groups according to the approach used for the reoperation: laparoscopy (Group I) or laparotomy (Group II). Data were statistically analyzed by using Student's t-test and chi-squared test. In all, 510 patients were analyzed. Twenty-seven patients (5.2 percent), 14 men and 13 women (men/women Group I: 10/7 vs. Group II: 4/6; P = not significant (NS)), required a second surgery because of postoperative complications (Group I: 17 (63 percent); Group II: 10 (37 percent)). Mean age was 60 +/- 17 years (Group I: 61.7 +/- 17.7 vs. Group II: 57.1 +/- 16 years; P = NS). Fifteen patients (55.5 percent) had anastomotic leaks (Group I 13/17 (76.5 percent) vs. Group II 2/13 (15 percent); P = 0.004). The were no differences between the groups regarding the length of stay or postoperative complications (Group I: 11.9 +/- 9.6 vs. Group II: 18.1 +/- 19.7 days: P = NS; Group I: 1 vs. Group II: 3; P = NS).

Question: Is a laparoscopic approach useful for treating complications after primary laparoscopic colorectal surgery?

Laparoscopic approach is a useful tool for treating complications after laparoscopic colorectal surgery, especially anastomotic leaks. Randomized, controlled trials are necessary to validate these findings.

Answer the question based on the following context: Assessment of pulmonary congestion in left-sided heart failure is necessary for guiding anticongestive therapy. Clinical examination and chest x-ray are semiquantitative methods with poor diagnostic accuracy and reproducibility. To establish reference values, describe reproducibility, and investigate the diagnostic and monitoring properties in relation to pulmonary congestion of new pulmonary gas exchange parameters describing ventilation/perfusion mismatch (variable fraction of ventilation [fA2] or the drop in oxygen pressure from the mixed alveolar air of the two ventilated compartments to the nonshunted end-capillary blood [DeltaPO(2)]) and pulmonary shunt. Sixty healthy volunteers and 69 patients requiring an acute chest x-ray in a cardiac care unit were included. The gas exchange parameters were estimated by analyzing standard bedside respiratory and circulatory measurements obtained during short-term exposure to different levels of inspired oxygen. Nine patients were classified as having pulmonary congestion using a reference diagnosis and were followed during 30 days of anticongestive therapy. Diagnostic and monitoring properties were compared with chest x-ray, N-terminal probrain natriuretic peptide (NT-proBNP), spirometry values, arterial oxygen tension, alveolar-arterial oxygen difference and venous admixture. The 95% reference intervals for healthy subjects were narrow (ie, fA2 [0.75 to 0.90], DeltaPO(2) [0.0 kPa to 0.5 kPa]and pulmonary shunt [0.0% to 8.2%]). Reproducibility was relatively good with small within subject coefficients of variation (ie, fA2 [0.05], DeltaPO(2) [0.4 kPa] and pulmonary shunt [2.0%]). fA2, DeltaPO(2) and NT-proBNP had significantly better diagnostic properties, with high sensitivities (100%) but low specificities (30% to 40%). During successful anticongestive therapy, fA2, DeltaPO(2), NT-proBNP and spirometry values showed significant improvements.

Question: Can new pulmonary gas exchange parameters contribute to evaluation of pulmonary congestion in left-sided heart failure?

The gas exchange parameter for ventilation/perfusion mismatch but not pulmonary shunt can have a possible role in rejecting the diagnosis of pulmonary congestion and in monitoring anticongestive therapy.

Answer the question based on the following context: Modern examination protocols for computed tomography (CT) often require high injection rates of iodinated contrast media (CM). The purpose of this study was to evaluate the maximum achievable flow rates and stability of different peripheral intravenous catheters (IVC) in vitro and to assess the feasibility of higher injection rates through small IVC in vivo. For in vitro experiments flow measurements followed by high pressure testing of different types of IVC (22, 20, and 18 gauge [G]) were performed. For the in vitro study 91 patients with already inserted 22 or 20G IVC who had been referred for CT received Iopamidol (300 mg iodine/ml) at flow rates between 2 and 5 ml/sec. Complications were documented. The maximal achievable flow rate of the tested IVC in vitro ranged from 5 to 8 ml/sec. No damage was observed during in vitro testing. The initially targeted in vivo flow rate was dropped in 33 of 91 (36 %) patients because the IVC could not be flushed adequately with saline before CM injection. Extravasation of CM occurred in 2 cases. In the remaining 58 patients the standard CT protocol was performed with flow rates of 3 ml/sec through 22G IVC and 5 ml/sec through 20G IVC, respectively. In this group, the extravasation of CM was observed twice (p>0.05).

Question: Peripheral intravenous power injection of iodinated contrast media through 22G and 20G cannulas: can high flow rates be achieved safely?

Even with highly viscous CM, high flow rates can be applied in vitro in 22, 20, and 18G IVC without risking material damage. In vivo power injection of iodinated CM through 22G and 20G IVC seems to be safely achievable in the majority of patients with flow rates of up to 3 ml/sec and 5 ml/sec. Extravasation rates do not differ significantly between patients with high-flow or low-flow injections.

Answer the question based on the following context: The present study was conducted to assess the efficacy of contrast-enhanced ultrasound with low mechanical index in evaluating the response of percutaneous radiofrequency ablation treatment of hepatocellular carcinoma by comparing it with 4-row spiral computed tomography. 100 consecutive patients (65 men and 35 women; age range: 62 - 76 years) with solitary hepatocellular carcinomas (mean lesion diameter: 3.7 cm +/- 1.1 cm SD) underwent internally cooled radiofrequency ablation. Therapeutic response was evaluated at one month after the treatment with triple-phasic contrast-enhanced spiral CT and low-mechanical index contrast-enhanced ultrasound following bolus injection of 2.4 ml of Sonovue (Bracco, Milan). 60 out of 100 patients were followed up for another 3 months. Contrast-enhanced sonographic studies were reviewed by two blinded radiologists in consensus. Sensitivity, specificity, NPV and PPV of contrast-enhanced ultrasound examination were determined. After treatment, contrast-enhanced ultrasound identified persistent signal enhancement in 24 patients (24 %), whereas no intratumoral enhancement was detected in the remaining 76 patients (76 %). Using CT imaging as gold standard, the sensitivity, specificity, NPV, and PPV of contrast enhanced ultrasound were 92.3 % (95 % CI = 75.9 - 97.9 %), 100 % (95 % CI = 95.2 - 100 %), 97.4 % (95 % CI = 91.1 - 99.3 %), and 100 % (95 % CI = 86.2 - 100 %).

Question: Is contrast-enhanced US alternative to spiral CT in the assessment of treatment outcome of radiofrequency ablation in hepatocellular carcinoma?

Contrast-enhanced ultrasound with low mechanical index using Sonovue is a feasible tool in evaluating the response of hepatocellular carcinoma to radiofrequency ablation. Accuracy is comparable to 4-row spiral CT.

Answer the question based on the following context: A total of 123 patients with proximal ureteral stones were investigated in this prospective study performed in a 10-month period. The patients were divided into the group I--86 patients treated with extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL) and the group II--37 patients treated with "Swiss" Lithoclast. In the group I, 49 stones (57%) were classified as impacted, while 20 stones (23.3%) were larger than 100 mm2. In the group II, 26 stones (70.3%) were impacted, and 11 stones (29.7%) were larger than 100 mm2. Stones were defined as impacted by the radiographic, echosonographic as well as endoscopic findings in the group II of patients. Stone size was presented in mm2. Chemical composition of stones were almost the same in both groups of the patients. Generally, there was no statistically significant difference in the treatment success between the groups. However, stones larger than 100 mm2 were statistically more successfully treated endoscopically, while there was no statistical difference in the treatment success of impacted stones between these two groups.

Question: Do stone size and impaction influence therapeutic approach to proximal ureteral stones?

ESWL can by considered as primary first therapeutic approach in treatment of all proximal ureteral stones except for stones larger than 100 mm2 that should primarily be treated endoscopically.

Answer the question based on the following context: To determine whether subjects with or with no detrusor overactivity (DO) determined by urodynamic assessment respond differently to treatment with the antimuscarinic agent tolterodine (extended release formulation, ER). Adult subjects with urinary frequency (average>or=8 voids/24 h) and urgency with or without urgency urinary incontinence (UUI) underwent urodynamic assessment and were stratified according to whether they had DO (positive urodynamics) or not (negative urodynamics). Subjects in each urodynamic stratum were randomized to receive tolterodine-ER (4 mg once daily) or placebo for 12 weeks. Diary cards were completed for 7 days before each study visit (at baseline, week 4, and week 12). The volume per void was recorded for 3 of the 7 days. The difference between the positive and negative urodynamic groups in mean change in volume voided between baseline and 12 weeks was 5.38 mL (95% CI, -93 mL to +15.71 mL). This difference is within the pre-stipulated range defined for equivalence (+/-20 mL, P = 0.31). There was also no significant difference in the change from baseline to 12 weeks between the urodynamics groups in mean number of voids per day or UUI episodes. However, there was significant improvement in the treatment group compared with the placebo group, in the number of voids per 24 h (P = 0.003) and in the mean change in volume voided (P = 0.03), from baseline to 12 weeks, but not in UUI episodes (P = 0.35).

Question: Does urodynamic verification of overactive bladder determine treatment success?

Urodynamics status could not predict treatment outcomes between patients treated with tolterodine-ER or placebo. The results add support to evidence suggesting that urodynamic assessment is not a prerequisite for the treatment of overactive bladder (OAB). Therefore, we recommend that anticholinergic treatment may be initiated to patients with OAB symptoms without the need for urodynamics studies.

Answer the question based on the following context: Many people will consult a medical practitioner about lower bowel symptoms, and the demand for access to general practitioners (GPs) is growing. We do not know if people recognise the symptoms of lower bowel cancer when advising others about the need to consult a doctor. A structured vignette survey was conducted in Western Australia. Participants were recruited from the waiting rooms at five general practices. Respondents were invited to complete self-administered questionnaires containing nine vignettes chosen at random from a pool of 64 based on six clinical variables. Twenty-seven vignettes described high-risk bowel cancer scenarios. Respondents were asked if they would recommend a medical consultation for the case described and whether they believed the scenario was a cancer presentation. Logistic regression was used to estimate the independent effects of each variable on the respondent's judgement. Two-hundred and sixty-eight completed responses were collected over eight weeks. The majority (61%) of respondents were female, aged 40 years and older. A history of rectal bleeding, six weeks of symptoms, and weight loss independently increased the odds of recommending a consultation with a medical practitioner by a factor of 7.64, 4.11 and 1.86, respectively. Most cases that were identified as cancer (75.2%) would not be classified as such on current research evidence. Factors that predict recognition of cancer presentations include rectal bleeding, weight loss and diarrhoea.

Question: Advice to consult a general medical practitioner in Western Australia: could it be cancer?

Within the limitation of this study, respondents recommended that most symptomatic people present to their GP. However, we report no evidence that they recognised a cancer presentation, and duration of symptoms was not a significant variable in this regard. Cases that were identified as 'cancer' could not be classified as high risk on the available evidence.

Answer the question based on the following context: The aim of this study was to report epidemiological data on the prevalence of malocclusion among a group of children, consecutively admitted at a referral mouth breathing otorhinolaryngological (ENT) center. We assessed the association between the severity of the obstruction by adenoids/tonsils hyperplasia or the presence of allergic rhinitis and the prevalence of class II malocclusion, anterior open bite and posterior crossbite. Cross-sectional, descriptive study, carried out at an Outpatient Clinic for Mouth-Breathers. Dental inter-arch relationship and nasal obstructive variables were diagnosed and the appropriate cross-tabulations were done. Four hundred and one patients were included. Mean age was 6 years and 6 months (S.D.: 2 years and 7 months), ranging from 2 to 12 years. All subjects were evaluated by otorhinolaryngologists to confirm mouth breathing. Adenoid/tonsil obstruction was detected in 71.8% of this sample, regardless of the presence of rhinitis. Allergic rhinitis alone was found in 18.7% of the children. Non-obstructive mouth breathing was diagnosed in 9.5% of this sample. Posterior crossbite was detected in almost 30% of the children during primary and mixed dentitions and 48% in permanent dentition. During mixed and permanent dentitions, anterior open bite and class II malocclusion were highly prevalent. More than 50% of the mouth breathing children carried a normal inter-arch relationship in the sagital, transversal and vertical planes. Univariate analysis showed no significant association between the type of the obstruction (adenoids/tonsils obstructive hyperplasia or the presence of allergic rhinitis) and malocclusions (class II, anterior open bite and posterior crossbite).

Question: Prevalence of malocclusion among mouth breathing children: do expectations meet reality?

The prevalence of posterior crossbite is higher in mouth breathing children than in the general population. During mixed and permanent dentitions, anterior open bite and class II malocclusion were more likely to be present in mouth breathers. Although more children showed these malocclusions, most mouth breathing children evaluated in this study did not match the expected "mouth breathing dental stereotype". In this population of mouth breathing children, the obstructive size of adenoids or tonsils and the presence of rhinitis were not risk factors to the development of class II malocclusion, anterior open bite or posterior crossbite.

Answer the question based on the following context: Chemoradiation is the standard of care for the treatment of anal canal cancer, with surgery reserved for salvage. For tumours with uninvolved inguinal nodes, it is standard to irradiate the inguinal nodes prophylactically, resulting in large field sizes, which contribute to acute and late toxicity. The aim of this single-centre retrospective study was to determine if, in selected cases, prophylactic inguinal nodal irradiation could be avoided. Between August 1998 and August 2004, 30 patients with biopsy-proven squamous cell anal canal cancer were treated with chemoradiation using one phase of treatment throughout. A three-field beam arrangement was used without attempting to treat the draining inguinal lymph nodes prophylactically. The radiotherapy dose prescribed was 50Gy in 25 daily fractions over 5 weeks. Concomitant chemotherapy was delivered with the radiation using mitomycin-C 7-12mg/m(2) on day 1 and protracted venous infusional 5-fluorouracil 200mg/m(2)/day throughout radiotherapy. All patients had clinically and radiologically uninvolved inguinal and pelvic nodes and all had primary lesions that were T3 or less. The median age at diagnosis was 65 years (range 41-84). The median follow-up was 41 months (range 24-113). The mean posterior field size was 14x15cm and the mean lateral field size was 12x15cm. All patients achieved a complete response. Ninety-four per cent of patients (28/30) were alive and disease free. The two patients who died did so of unrelated causes and were disease free at death. Four patients relapsed and all were salvaged with surgery; two for local disease requiring abdominoperineal resection, one with an inguinal nodal relapse requiring inguinofemoral block dissection and one for metastatic disease to the liver who underwent liver resection.

Question: Size does matter: can we reduce the radiotherapy field size for selected cases of anal canal cancer undergoing chemoradiation?

This single-centre retrospective study supports the treatment for selected cases of anal canal cancer with smaller than standard radiation fields, avoiding prophylactic inguinal nodal irradiation. Hopefully this will translate into reduced acute and late toxicity. In future studies we would suggest that consideration is given as to whether omission of prophylactic inguinal nodal irradiation for early stage tumours should be explored.

Answer the question based on the following context: The aim of the present study was to evaluate whether or not an elevated ischaemia-modified albumin (IMA) level provides any additional prognostic information to the validated Thrombolysis In Myocardial Infarction (TIMI) risk score in patients with ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) treated with primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). One hundred seven consecutive STEMI patients treated with primary PCI were included. The incidence of 30-day death was the prespecified primary end point. Serum IMA was measured immediately at hospital arrival. The incidence of the primary end point was 6.5%. A significant predictive value of IMA in relation to the primary end point was indicated by an area under the ROC curve of 0.71 (p = 0.01). In the multivariate analysis, increased IMA remained a significant predictor of the primary end point after adjustment for TIMI risk predictors (p = 0.019). The area under the ROC curve for the TIMI risk score was 0.68 (p = 0.03). The addition of IMA to the TIMI risk score did not improve its prognostic value (area under the ROC curve 0.60, p = 0.25).

Question: Does ischemia-modified albumin add prognostic value to the Thrombolysis In Myocardial Infarction risk score in patients with ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction treated with primary angioplasty?

IMA levels obtained at admission are a powerful indicator of short-term mortality in STEMI patients treated with primary PCI, but do not seem to be a marker that adds prognostic information to the validated STEMI TIMI risk score.

Answer the question based on the following context: To compare the effects of 800 mg of valerian with a placebo on sleep quality and symptom severity in people with restless legs syndrome (RLS). A prospective, triple-blinded, randomized, placebo-controlled, parallel design was used to compare the efficacy of valerian with placebo on sleep quality and symptom severity in patients with RLS. Thirty-seven participants were randomly assigned to receive 800 mg of valerian or placebo for 8 weeks. The primary outcome of sleep was sleep quality with secondary outcomes including sleepiness and RLS symptom severity. Data were collected at baseline and 8 weeks comparing use of valerian and placebo on sleep disturbances (Pittsburgh Sleep Quality Index and Epworth Sleepiness Scale) and severity of RLS symptoms (International RLS Symptom Severity Scale) from 37 participants aged 36 to 65 years. Both groups reported improvement in RLS symptom severity and sleep. In a nested analysis comparing sleepy vs nonsleepy participants who received 800 mg ofvalerian (n=17), significant differences before and after treatment were found in sleepiness (P=.01) and RLS symptoms (P=.02). A strong positive association between changes in sleepiness and RLS symptom severity was found (P=.006).

Question: Does valerian improve sleepiness and symptom severity in people with restless legs syndrome?

The results of this study suggest that the use of 800 mg of valerian for 8 weeks improves symptoms of RLS and decreases daytime sleepiness in patients that report an Epworth Sleepiness Scale (ESS) score of 10 or greater. Valerian may be an alternative treatment for the symptom management ofRLS with positive health outcomes and improved quality of life.

Answer the question based on the following context: The authors reviewed their institutional experience with pure low-grade oligodendroglioma (LGO), correlating outcomes with several variables of possible prognostic values. Sixty-nine patients with WHO-classified LGOs were treated between 1992 and 2006 at the McGill University Health Center. Clinical, pathological, and radiological records were carefully reviewed. Demographic characteristics; the nature and duration of presenting symptoms; baseline neurological function; extent of resection; Karnofsky Performance Scale score; preoperative radiological findings including tumor size, location, and absence/presence of enhancement; and pathological data including chromosome arms 1p/19q codeletion and O-methylguanine-DNA methyltransferase promoter gene methylation status were all compiled. The timing and dose of radio- and/or chemotherapy, date of tumor progression, pathological finding at disease progression, treatment at time of disease progression, and status at the last follow-up were also recorded. The median follow-up period was 6.1 years (range 1.3-16.3 years). The majority (78%) of patients presented with seizures; contrast enhancement was initially seen in 16 patients (25%). All patients had undergone an initial surgical procedure: gross-total resection in 27%, partial resection in 59%, and biopsy only in the remaining 13%. Fifteen patients received adjuvant radiotherapy. Data on O-methylguanine-DNA methyltransferase promoter gene methylation status was available in 47 patients (68%) and in all but 1 patient for 1p/19q status. Survival at 5, 10, and 15 years was 83, 63, and 29%, respectively. Multivariate analysis showed that seizures at presentation and the absence of contrast enhancement were the only independent favorable prognostic factors for survival. The 5-, 10-, and 15-year progression-free survival rates were 46, 7.7, and 0%, respectively.

Question: Low-grade oligodendroglioma: an indolent but incurable disease?

This retrospective review confirms the indolent but progressively fatal nature of LGOs. Contrast enhancement was the most evident single prognostic factor. New treatment strategies are clearly needed in the management of this disease.

Answer the question based on the following context: There are three commonly used definitions of the metabolic syndrome, making scientific studies hard to compare. The aim of this study was to investigate agreement in the prevalence of the metabolic syndrome defined by three different definitions and to analyze definition and gender differences. A population-based, cross-sectional study of a total of 4232 participants--2039 men and 2193 women, aged 60 years--was employed. Three different metabolic syndrome definitions were compared: European Group for the Study of Insulin Resistance (EGIR), International Diabetes Federation (IDF), and National Cholesterol Education Program Adult Treatment Panel III (NCEP ATP III). Medical history, socioeconomic information, and lifestyle data were collected by a questionnaire. A medical examination including laboratory tests was performed. Significant factors for the metabolic syndrome were calculated by multivariate logistic regression. Forty five percent of men and 30% of women met the criteria for the metabolic syndrome by any definition, but only 17% of men and 9% of women met the criteria of all three definitions. The highest agreement was found between IDF and NCEP ATP III definition. Two significant associations were identified in both men and women by the three metabolic syndrome definitions; former smokers were highly associated with the metabolic syndrome (odds ratio [OR] congruent with 1.5), and regular physical activity (OR congruent with 0.6) was inversely associated with the metabolic syndrome.

Question: Is a unified definition of metabolic syndrome needed?

Depending on the definition used, different individuals were identified as having the metabolic syndrome, which affects the reliability of interpretations to be made from scientific studies of the metabolic syndrome. Unified criteria are warranted. Physicians facing a physically inactive former smoker may consider diagnosing metabolic syndrome.