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Answer the question based on the following context: We studied whether or not spirituality/religiosity is a relevant resource for patients with chronic pain conditions, and to analyze interrelations between spirituality/religiosity (SpREUK Questionnaire; SpREUK is an acronym of the German translation of "Spiritual and Religious Attitudes in Dealing with Illness"), adaptive coping styles that refer to the concept of locus of disease control (AKU Questionnaire; AKU is an acronym of the German translation of "Adaptive Coping with Disease"), life satisfaction, and appraisal dimensions. In a multicenter cross-sectional study, 580 patients with chronic pain conditions were enrolled. We found that the patients relied on both external powerful sources of disease control and on internal powers and virtues, while Trust in Higher Source (intrinsic religiosity) or Illness as Chance (reappraisal) were valued moderately; Search for Meaningful Support/Access (spiritual quest orientation) was of minor relevance. Stepwise regression analyses revealed that the internal sources of disease control, such as Conscious and Healthy Way of Living and Positive Attitudes, were (apart from the religious denomination) the strongest predictors of patients' reliance on spirituality/religiosity. Both behavioral styles were rated significantly lower in patients who regarded themselves as neither religious nor spiritual. Positive disease interpretations such as Challenge and Value were clearly associated with a spiritual quest orientation and intrinsic religiosity.

Question: Are spirituality and religiosity resources for patients with chronic pain conditions?

The associations between spirituality/religiosity, positive appraisals. and internal adaptive coping strategies indicate that the utilization of spirituality/religiosity goes far beyond fatalistic acceptance, but can be regarded as an active coping process. The findings support the need for further research concerning the contributions of spiritual coping in adjustment to chronic pain.

Answer the question based on the following context: To determine whether publicly reporting hospital scores on antibiotic timing in pneumonia (percentage of patients with pneumonia receiving antibiotics within 4 hours) has led to unintended adverse consequences for patients. Retrospective analyses of 13,042 emergency department (ED) visits by adult patients with respiratory symptoms in the National Hospital Ambulatory Medical Care Survey, 2001-2005. Rates of pneumonia diagnosis, antibiotic use, and waiting times to see a physician were compared before and after public reporting, using a nationally representative hospital sample. These outcomes also were compared between hospitals with different antibiotic timing scores. There were no differences in rates of pneumonia diagnosis (10% vs 11% of all ED visits, P = .72) or antibiotic administration (34% vs 35%, P = .21) before and after antibiotic timing score reporting. Mean waiting times to be seen by a physician increased similarly for patients with and without respiratory symptoms (11-minute vs 6-minute increase, respectively; P = .29). After adjustment for confounders, hospitals with higher 2005 antibiotic timing scores had shorter mean waiting times for all patients, but there were no significant score-related trends for rates of pneumonia diagnosis or antibiotic use.

Question: Reporting hospitals' antibiotic timing in pneumonia: adverse consequences for patients?

Despite concerns, public reporting of hospital antibiotic timing scores has not led to increased pneumonia diagnosis, antibiotic use, or a change in patient prioritization.

Answer the question based on the following context: To examine the necessity and adequacy of basic science training for urologic oncology training programs. Evaluated whether urology physician scientists are adequately trained in the basic sciences. The current urologic oncology training system does not adequately train physician scientists. We propose a major reform to define, train, and maintain the urology physician scientists.

Question: The hybrid of basic science and clinical training for the urologic oncologist: Necessity or waste?

Urology physician scientists have played a major role in advancement of urologic oncology. Major reform is necessary, if we wish to continue to successfully train urologic oncology physician scientists.

Answer the question based on the following context: The role of FDG-PET in radiotherapy target volume definition of the neck was evaluated by comparing eight methods of FDG-PET segmentation to the current CT-based practice of lymph node assessment in head-and-neck cancer patients. Seventy-eight head-and-neck cancer patients underwent coregistered CT- and FDG-PET scans. Lymph nodes were classified as "enlarged" if the shortest axial diameter on CT was 10mm, and as "marginally enlarged" if it was 7-10mm. Subsequently, lymph nodes were assessed on FDG-PET applying eight segmentation methods: visual interpretation (PET(VIS)), applying fixed thresholds at a standardized uptake value (SUV) of 2.5 and at 40% and 50% of the maximum signal intensity of the primary tumor (PET(SUV), PET(40%), PET(50%)) and applying a variable threshold based on the signal-to-background ratio (PET(SBR)). Finally, PET(40%N), PET(50%N) and PET(SBRN) were acquired using the signal of the lymph node as the threshold reference. Of 108 nodes classified as "enlarged" on CT, 75% were also identified by PET(VIS), 59% by PET(40%), 43% by PET(50%) and 43% by PET(SBR). Of 100 nodes classified as "marginally enlarged", only a minority were visualized by FDG-PET. The respective numbers were 26%, 10%, 7% and 8% for PET(VIS), PET(40%), PET(50%) and PET(SBR). PET(40%N), PET(50%N) and PET(SBRN), respectively, identified 66%, 82% and 96% of the PET(VIS)-positive nodes.

Question: Can FDG-PET assist in radiotherapy target volume definition of metastatic lymph nodes in head-and-neck cancer?

Many lymph nodes that are enlarged and considered metastatic by standard CT-based criteria appear to be negative on FDG-PET scan. Alternately, a small proportion of marginally enlarged nodes are positive on FDG-PET scan. However, the results are largely dependent on the PET segmentation tool used, and until proper validation FDG-PET is not recommended for target volume definition of metastatic lymph nodes in routine practice.

Answer the question based on the following context: According to results of the REMATCH trial, left ventricular assist device therapy in patients with severe heart failure has resulted in a 48% reduction in mortality. A decision tool will be necessary to aid in the selection of patients for destination left ventricular assist devices (LVADs) as the technology progresses for implantation in ambulatory Stage D heart failure patients. The purpose of this analysis was to determine whether the Seattle Heart Failure Model (SHFM) can be used to risk-stratify heart failure patients for potential LVAD therapy. The SHFM was applied to REMATCH patients with the prospective addition of inotropic agents and intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) +/- ventilator. The SHFM was highly predictive of survival (p = 0.0004). One-year SHFM-predicted survival was similar to actual survival for both the REMATCH medical (30% vs 28%) and LVAD (49% vs 52%) groups. The estimated 1-year survival with medical therapy for patients in REMATCH was 30 +/- 21%, but with a range of 0% to 74%. The 1- and 2-year estimated survival was</=50% for 81% and 98% of patients, respectively. There was no evidence that the benefit of the LVAD varied in the lower vs higher risk patients.

Question: Can the Seattle heart failure model be used to risk-stratify heart failure patients for potential left ventricular assist device therapy?

The SHFM can be used to risk-stratify end-stage heart failure patients, provided known markers of increased risk are included such inotrope use and IABP +/- ventilator support. The SHFM may facilitate identification of high-risk patients to evaluate for potential LVAD implantation by providing an estimate of 1-year survival with medical therapy.

Answer the question based on the following context: The objective was to determine whether girls were more insulin-resistant than boys. Data from 1009 children (508 males) in 10 elementary schools, between April and September, 2007 were collected. BMI, waist circumference (WC), blood pressure, Tanner stage, lipids, insulin, and glucose were obtained. One hundred and sixty five (16.4%) of the children were obese (>95%ile), and 166 (16.5%) were overweight (85-95%ile). Mean HOMA-IR and insulin were higher among 10.0-13.9-year-old girls than boys. Multiple logistic regression using the 3rd quartile of HOMA-IR as the dependent variable showed that only BMI OR=1.18 (95% CI 1.12-1.24; p<0.001), Tanner OR=1.39 (95% CI 1.12-1.73; p=0.003) and triglycerides 1.005 (95% CI 1.00-1.01; p=0.04) were significantly associated with insulin resistance while sex and HDL-C were not.

Question: Are girls more insulin-resistant than boys?

This study showed that no significant sex-related differences were found, and HOMA-IR was associated with adiposity and pubertal stage suggesting that the higher values of HOMA-IR in girls than in boys could be due to their earlier pubertal development.

Answer the question based on the following context: We compared prostate cancer detection rates for the 2 most commonly used transrectal ultrasound prostate biopsy probes, end fire and side fire, to determine whether the probe configuration affects detection rates. We evaluated 2,674 patients who underwent initial prostate biopsy between 2000 and 2008 with respect to prostate specific antigen, biopsy technique and pathological findings. Patients were divided into 1,124 in whom biopsies were performed with an end fire probe and 1,550 in whom biopsies were performed with a side fire probe. There was a significant difference in the overall cancer detection rate in the end vs side fire arms (45.8% vs 38.5%, p<0.001). In the subsets of patients with prostate specific antigen greater than 4 to 10 ng/ml or less and greater than 10 ng/ml a significant difference persisted (46.4% vs 38.9% and 61.7% vs 49.1%, p<0.004 and<0.015, respectively). There was also a significant difference in detection rates between probes in those who underwent 8 to 19 biopsy cores (p<0.009). Biopsies of greater than 20 cores failed to attain statistical significance (p>0.105). We also found that prostate volume, patient age, prostate specific antigen and hypoechoic findings were independent variables for predicting cancer detection on multivariate analysis (p<0.001).

Question: Does transrectal ultrasound probe configuration really matter?

The type of probe significantly affects the overall prostate cancer detection rate, particularly in patients with prostate specific antigen greater than 4 ng/ml and/or nonsaturation (8 to 19 cores) prostate biopsy. This may be because the end fire probe allows better mechanical sampling of the lateral and apical regions of the peripheral zone, where cancer is most likely to reside. We set the stage for a randomized, controlled trial to confirm our observations.

Answer the question based on the following context: To determine the serum total prostate-specific antigen (tPSA) levels in cirrhotic men and compare them with those in noncirrhotic men. We prospectively evaluated 113 cirrhotic patients listed for liver transplantation using the serum tPSA, total testosterone level, and Child-Pugh liver function score according to age and severity of liver disease. The tPSA levels were compared with those of 661 healthy men. The Mann-Whitney U test was used for statistical analysis, with a significance level of .05. The median age of the cirrhotic and noncirrhotic patients was 55 years (range 28-70) and 58 years (range 46-70), respectively (P<.01). However, when stratified by age group (<49, 50-59, and>60 years), this difference was not significant. The median serum tPSA level was 0.3 ng/mL (range 0.04-9.9) and 1.3 ng/mL (range 0.04-65.8) in the cirrhotic and noncirrhotic group, respectively (P<.0001). Stratifying both groups according to age, the cirrhotic patients had significantly lower tPSA levels than did the noncirrhotic patients. According to the Child-Pugh score (A, B, and C), Child-Pugh class C patients had significantly lower tPSA levels than did Child-Pugh class A patients and also had lower testosterone levels than did Child-Pugh class A and B patients. The tPSA levels correlated significantly with the testosterone levels in the cirrhotic patients (P = .028).

Question: Are total prostate-specific antigen serum levels in cirrhotic men different from those in normal men?

The results of our study have shown that cirrhotic patients have approximately 4 times lower serum tPSA levels than noncirrhotic men. Patients with more severe liver disease have lower tPSA and testosterone levels than patients less affected. The tPSA levels in cirrhotic men are affected by the total testosterone levels.

Answer the question based on the following context: To examine whether explanatory illustrations can improve older adults' comprehension of written health information. Six short health-related texts were selected from websites and pamphlets. Young and older adults were randomly assigned to read health-related texts alone or texts accompanied by explanatory illustrations. Eye movements were recorded while reading. Word recognition, text comprehension, and comprehension of the illustrations were assessed after reading. Older adults performed as well as or better than young adults on the word recognition and text comprehension measures. However, older adults performed less well than young adults on the illustration comprehension measures. Analysis of readers' eye movements showed that older adults spent more time reading illustration-related phrases and fixating on the illustrations than did young adults, yet had poorer comprehension of the illustrations.

Question: The use of illustration to improve older adults' comprehension of health-related information: is it helpful?

Older adults might not benefit from text illustrations because illustrations can be difficult to integrate with the text.

Answer the question based on the following context: Differential risks of occupational injuries by gender have been examined across various industries. With the number of employees in healthcare rising and an overwhelming proportion of this workforce being female, it is important to address this issue in this growing sector. To determine whether compensated work-related injuries among females are higher than their male colleagues in the British Columbia healthcare sector. Incidents of occupational injury resulting in compensated days lost from work over a 1-year period for all healthcare workers were extracted from a standardized operational database and the numbers of productive hours were obtained from payroll data. Injuries were grouped into all injuries and musculoskeletal injuries (MSIs). Detailed analysis was conducted using Poisson regression modelling. A total of 42 332 employees were included in the study of whom 11% were male and 89% female. When adjusted for age, occupation, sub-sector, employment category, health region and facility, female workers had significantly higher risk of all injuries [rate ratio (95% CI) = 1.58 (1.24-2.01)] and MSIs [1.43 (1.11-1.85)]compared to their male colleagues.

Question: Are female healthcare workers at higher risk of occupational injury?

Occupational health and safety initiatives should be gender sensitive and developed accordingly.

Answer the question based on the following context: The aim of this study was to investigate the role of EUS where other investigative techniques had failed to identify the cause of biochemically proven acute pancreatitis. All biliary EUS examinations performed between January 2000 and December 2004 were identified from the radiology computerised database. Forty-two patients (25 male, 17 female; mean age: 53+/-3.2 years) with negative prior radiological investigations underwent EUS. Prior and later radiological investigations, hospital readmission, and the need for further surgical intervention were also analysed. EUS was normal in 17 patients (40.5%) and demonstrated signs of recent acute pancreatitis but no other aetiological factor in 8 patients (19.0%). Cholelithiasis or microlithiasis was identified in 9 patients (21.4%), combined gallstones/microlithiasis and choledocholithiasis in was seen in 6 patients (14.3%). In one patient (2.4%), calculi were seen in the common bile duct but not the gallbladder. In a further case with recurrent acute pancreatitis (2.4%), chronic pancreatitis was diagnosed on EUS. All patients with common bile duct stones underwent ERCP and sphincterotomy, and stones were universally confirmed. One patient with gallbladder calculi alone required an ERCP after developing jaundice whilst awaiting cholecystectomy.

Question: Does endoscopic ultrasound have anything to offer in the diagnosis of idiopathic acute pancreatitis?

EUS provided additional diagnostic information in 17 of the 42 patients (40.5%). Moreover, exclusion of gallstones/microlithiais is also important as it facilitates a search for other causes of pancreatitis. In conclusion, most cases of cholelithiasis can be diagnosed with standard imaging modalities but when these fail to identify a cause, EUS has an important role to play.

Answer the question based on the following context: We recently demonstrated that pulsatile cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB) versus standard linear CPB is associated with better perioperative renal function. Since older subjects have a higher risk of acute renal failure, we have extended our study to evaluate the specific impact of pulsatile CPB on the perioperative renal function in elderly patients. We enrolled 50 patients with normal preoperative renal function: they were stratified by age (65-75 vs. 50-64 years) and randomized to nonpulsatile (group A) or pulsatile CPB (group B). Twenty-seven patients aged>or =50 years and<65 years were randomized to group A (n = 12) or to group B (n = 15) and 23, aged>or =65 years and<or =75 years, to group A (n = 13) or to group B (n = 10). Glomerular filtrate rate (GFR), daily diuresis, lactatemia and other parameters were measured during the pre- and perioperative period. The percent perioperative decrease in GFR was lower in group A than in group B (p<0.001), without differences between older and younger patients. By contrast, perioperative plasma lactate levels were higher in group A than in group B (p<0.001), both in older and younger patients. No difference was observed for 24 h urine output and blood urea nitrogen.

Question: Can pulsatile cardiopulmonary bypass prevent perioperative renal dysfunction during myocardial revascularization in elderly patients?

Pulsatile CPB preserves renal function better than standard CPB even in patients older than 65. CPB could be adopted as the procedure of choice in this subgroup of patients.

Answer the question based on the following context: This study was undertaken to determine the effect of a restricted versus a standard intravenous fluid regimen on urinary retention and readiness for discharge after surgery for benign anorectal disease. A total of 41 ASA I-II patients were randomized into a standard fluid regimen group (group S, n=21) or a restricted fluid regimen group (group R, n=20). Spinal anaesthesia was performed with hyperbaric ropivacaine. Haemodynamic variables were noted. Hypotension, headache, analgesia requirement, nausea and vomiting, thirst and urinary retention were evaluated postoperatively. The Mann-Whitney U and chi-squared tests were used. Patient demographics were comparable between the groups. The area under heart rate versus time curve was higher in group R than in group S (p=0.002). Additional fluid and ephedrine requirements were similar between the groups. First voiding time was longer in group R (p=0.045).

Question: Do we still need to restrict preoperative fluid administration in ambulatory anorectal surgery under spinal anaesthesia?

In minor anorectal surgery under spinal anaesthesia with ropivacaine, standard fluid regimen provides stable haemodynamic variables without urinary retention.

Answer the question based on the following context: Patients with a rectocele often suffer from such symptoms as obstructed defaecation, urine or stool incontinence and pain. The aim of this study was to assess other concomitant pelvic floor disorders and their influence on pelvic function. Included in the study were 37 female patients with a significant rectocele and defaecation disorder. Medical history and symptoms were analysed in terms of validated functional scores. All patients underwent open magnetic resonance defaecography (MRD) in a sitting position. Imaging was analysed for the presence and size of the rectocele, intussusception and other pelvic floor disorders. Patients with a higher body mass index tended to have a larger rectocele, whereas age and vaginal birth did not correlate with the size of the rectocele. In 67.5% of the patients with a previously diagnosed rectocele, an intussusception was diagnosed on MRD. This group suffered from significantly worse urine incontinence (p=0.023) and from accessory enteroceles 64%, compared with 17% (p=0.013) for those with a simple rectocele. Patients with higher grade intussusception suffered more frequently from incontinence than from constipation.

Question: Rectocele and intussusception: is there any coherence in symptoms or additional pelvic floor disorders?

Patients with a symptomatic rectocele frequently have other pelvic floor disorders that significantly influence the pattern of symptoms. Knowledge of all the afflictions is essential for determining the optimal treatment for each individual patient.

Answer the question based on the following context: Portal vein embolization is used in the treatment of hepatocellular cancer, with the purpose of enhancing resectability. However, regeneration is restricted due to hepatocellular injury following chemotherapeutics (e.g. doxorubicin). The aim of this study was to investigate whether hyperbaric oxygenation (HBO) can alleviate the hepatotoxicity of chemotherapy and improve regeneration in the injured liver. Rats were allocated to four experimental groups. Group I rats were subjected to right portal vein ligation (RPVL); rats in groups II and III were administered doxorubicin prior to RPVL, with group III rats being additionally exposed to HBO sessions postoperatively; group IV rats was sham-operated. All rats were sacrificed on postoperative day 7, and liver injury was assessed by measuring alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and aspartate aminotransferase (AST) levels. Protein synthetic ability was determined based albumin levels and liver regeneration by the mitotic index (MI). The AST and ALT values of group II rats were significantly higher than those of group I, but not those of group III. Rats treated with doxorubicin and HBO (groups II and III) showed slightly but not significant differences in albumin levels than those subjected to only RPVL or sham-operated. The MI was significantly increased in groups I, II, and III, with the MI of group III rats significantly higher than those of group I rats.

Question: Can hyperbaric oxygenation decrease doxorubicin hepatotoxicity and improve regeneration in the injured liver?

Based on our results, we conclude that HBO treatment has the potential to diminish doxorubicin-related hepatotoxicity and improve regeneration in the injured liver.

Answer the question based on the following context: Knowledge of the benefits of incorporating medical simulation into healthcare curricula is rapidly increasing. Though impeded by the high cost of complicated technology, medical simulation devices offer the ability to provide safe and controlled training environments, exposure to rare clinical scenarios, as well as unlimited training opportunities. This report describes a novel, inexpensive method of broadcasting normal and abnormal auscultatory findings to a relatively normal appearing stethoscope for use in training of healthcare professionals. Using wireless transmitter broadcasting to a stethoscope fitted with a receiver apparatus, the student is able to perform a typical medical exam with auscultation of an unlimited variety of clinical sounds from anatomically appropriate sources while being observed from another room.

Question: The Ventriloscope: 'am I hearing things?

Implications of this low-cost device include limitless training possibilities worldwide and across disciplines. The simplicity and portability of this device increases potential for use in rapid training of recognition of clinical signs associated with chemical/biological warfare agents, mass casualty incidents and field military applications. This is the first device to simulate clinically relevant sounds in a realistic manner on standardized patients and mannequins. The benefits of such simulation in medical education ultimately serve to increase trainee confidence and consequently, improve patient care and safety.

Answer the question based on the following context: While all graduates from medical schools in the UK are granted the same licence to practise by the medical professional regulatory body, the General Medical Council, individuals institution set their own graduating examination systems. Previous studies have suggested that the equivalence of passing standards across different medical schools cannot be guaranteed. To explore and formally document the graduating examinations being used in the UK Medical Schools and to evaluate whether it is possible to make plausible comparisons in relation to the standard of clinical competence of graduates. A questionnaire survey of all the UK medical schools was conducted, asking for details of graduating examination systems, including the format and content of tests, testing time and standard setting procedures. Graduating assessment systems vary widely across institutions in the UK, in terms of format, length, content and standard setting procedures.

Question: Variations in medical school graduating examinations in the United Kingdom: are clinical competence standards comparable?

We question whether is it possible to make plausible comparisons in relation to the equivalence of standards of graduates from the different UK medical schools, as current quality assurance systems do not allow for formal quantitative comparisons of the clinical competence of graduates from different schools. We suggest that national qualifying level examinations should be considered in the UK.

Answer the question based on the following context: Does the university experience and environment on two very different campuses create perceptions of advantage or disadvantage despite delivery of the same curriculum by the same tutors? Perhaps more importantly, do different types of universities result in varying achievements in learning given similar students? The Hull York Medical School (HYMS) runs the same curriculum with the same faculty on two very different campuses and randomly allocates most students to one or the other. HYMS therefore offers an exceptional opportunity to investigate these questions about the perceptions of educational environment and actual academic achievement controlling as much as possible for design and delivery of the curriculum. The Dundee Ready Education Environment Measure (DREEM) was administered to students in Year 1 and 2 at HYMS to assess perceptions of the course. Examination results were collected for the cohorts to compare actual academic performance on written and clinical examinations. Minimal differences were found in perceptions of educational environment, with those differences found favouring the less 'prestigious' institution. Examination results for written and clinical exams over the first 2 years were found not to differ between campuses.

Question: Can we create an equivalent educational experience on a two campus medical school?

The results of this study indicate that despite perceptions of one university being 'better' than another based on public measures such as league tables, the students' perceptions of educational environment was quite similar and exam performance showed no differences. This suggests that the prestige or ranking of a university based on common measures and perceptions may have far less impact on student learning than careful design and delivery of the curriculum.

Answer the question based on the following context: The effect of chondroitin sulphate (CS) treatment on the friction and deformation characteristics of native and glycosaminoglycan (GAG) deficient articular cartilage was investigated. Friction tests were conducted at 0.4 MPa load, in Static and Dynamic models, to determine the startup coefficient of friction (COF) and dynamic COF, respectively. Native cartilage: For each cartilage pin and plate couple, the COF was determined under three consecutive tests - (1) baseline COF in PBS (2) COF in CS lubricant and (3) COF again in PBS, after 24h CS treatment. GAG deficient cartilage: For each cartilage pin and plate couple, the baseline COF was determined in PBS initially and again following enzymatic treatment to deplete GAGs. The specimens were then soaked in CS solution for 24h and the COF determined again in PBS. In a similar manner, friction tests were replaced with indentation tests to study the deformation of the tissue. CS at 50mg/ml significantly lowered the startup COF of native cartilage both as a lubricant and a treatment solution. In the dynamic model, where the fluid load support is sustained at a high level, CS failed to have any effect on the COF of native cartilage. GAG depletion raised the friction and deformation levels of cartilage, and subsequent CS treatment failed to lower them to their native levels.

Question: Chondroitin sulphate: an effective joint lubricant?

CS proved to be an effective lubricant for cartilage under mixed-mode lubrication conditions. However, supplemental CS that diffused into the specimens had no influence on the fluid load support of cartilage.

Answer the question based on the following context: Skeletal muscle atrophy and decreased expression of slow fibers contribute to exercise capacity limitation in Chronic Heart Failure (CHF). Pro-inflammatory cytokines and free radicals worsen muscle damage. In CHF sarcomeric proteins are oxidized with reduction of muscle twitch efficiency, and VO(2)-max. Beta-blockers with anti-oxidative capacity such as carvedilol have been shown to prevent contractile protein oxidation in CHF rats. Recently a new class of beta-blockers with NO donor activity has been introduced and approved for the treatment of CHF. Since a clinical clear superiority of a beta-blocker has never been shown, we compared nebivolol, that possesses NO donor activity, with bisoprolol, looking at possible differences in skeletal muscle that may have an impact on muscle function and exercise capacity in humans. We therefore studied skeletal muscle apoptosis and wastage, sarcomeric protein composition and oxidation, and muscle efficiency. In the monocrotaline rat model of CHF we compared nebivolol a beta-blocker with vasodilative properties mediated by NO production, with bisoprolol. Nebivolol prevented protein oxidation, while bisoprolol did it only partially, as demonstrated by the oxyblot analysis (Oxy/RP values) (0.90+/-0.14 Controls.; 1.7+/-0.14 CHF; 1.1+/-0.05 bisoprolol; 0.82+/-0.17 nebivolol low; 0.62+/-0.10 nebivolol high). Only nebivolol improved twitch force production and relaxation. Nebivolol prevented fibers shift towards fast isoforms, atrophy, decreased apoptosis and sphingosine levels.

Question: Skeletal muscle proteins oxidation in chronic right heart failure in rats: can different beta-blockers prevent it to the same degree?

Nebivolol seems better than bisoprolol in CHF by decreasing apoptosis and cytokines induced muscle wastage, preventing fibers shift and protein oxidation. Nebivolol by stimulating NO generation may have prevented protein oxidation. It could be speculated that ROS release, pro-inflammatory cytokines production and NF-kappa-B activation may play a key role. These positive changes could produce a favorable impact on exercise capacity in man.

Answer the question based on the following context: While reproductive factors might plausibly be involved in the aetiology of rheumatoid arthritis (RA), the female predominance remains unexplained. A study was undertaken to address the possible impact of live births, pregnancy losses and pregnancy complications on the subsequent risk of RA in a nationwide cohort study. National register data were used to link reproductive histories and later RA hospitalisations in a cohort of 4.4 million Danes. As a measure of relative risk associated with different reproductive histories, ratios of first inpatient RA hospitalisation rates (RRs) were used with 95% confidence intervals (CIs) obtained by Poisson regression analysis. Overall, 7017 women and 3041 men were admitted to hospital with RA in 1977-2004 (88.8 million person-years). The risk of RA was inversely associated with age at birth of first child in both women and men (p for trend<0.001). Overall, nulliparity and a history of pregnancy loss were not associated with RA risk but, compared with one-child mothers, women with two (RR 0.84; 95% CI 0.78 to 0.90) or three (RR 0.83; 95% CI 0.77 to 0.91) children were at reduced risk. The risk of RA was increased in women with a history of hyperemesis (RR 1.70; 95% CI 1.06 to 2.54), gestational hypertension (RR 1.49; 95% CI 1.06 to 2.02) or pre-eclampsia (RR 1.42; 95% CI 1.08 to 1.84).

Question: National cohort study of reproductive risk factors for rheumatoid arthritis in Denmark: a role for hyperemesis, gestational hypertension and pre-eclampsia?

One-child mothers and young parents are at increased risk of RA later in life, possibly due to socioeconomic factors. The novel finding of a significantly increased risk of RA in women whose pregnancies were complicated by hyperemesis, gestational hypertension or pre-eclampsia might reflect reduced immune adaptability to pregnancy in women disposed to RA or a role of fetal microchimerism in the aetiology of RA.

Answer the question based on the following context: To investigate possible associations between risk of acoustic neuroma and exposure to loud noise in leisure and occupational settings. A case-control study was conducted in France within the international INTERPHONE study. The cases were the 108 subjects diagnosed with acoustic neuroma between 1 June 2000 and 31 August 2003. Two controls per case were selected from the electoral rolls and individually matched for gender, age (5 years) and area (local authority district) of residence at the time of the case diagnosis. Multivariate analyses were conducted using conditional logistic regression. Adjustment was made for socioeconomic status. Acoustic neuroma was found to be associated with loud noise exposure (odds ratio (OR) = 2.55; 95% CI 1.35 to 4.82), both in leisure settings, particularly when listening to loud music (OR = 3.88; 95% CI 1.48 to 10.17) and at work (OR = 2.26; 95% CI 1.08 to 4.72). This risk increased with exposure duration (>6 years' leisure exposure: OR = 3.15; 95% CI 1.07 to 9.24). Risk varied according to the type of noise (continuous or explosive vs intermittent).

Question: Can loud noise cause acoustic neuroma?

The present results agree with other recent reports implicating loud noise in the risk of acoustic neuroma.

Answer the question based on the following context: This article examined, using theories from cognitive science, the clinical utility of the Five-Factor Model (FFM) of Personality, an assessment and classification system under consideration for integration into the forthcoming fifth edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM) of Mental Disorders. Specifically, the authors sought to test whether FFM descriptors are specific enough to allow practicing clinicians to capture core features of personality disorders. In two studies, a large nationwide sample of clinical psychologists, psychiatrists, and clinical social workers (N=187 and N=191) were presented case profiles based on symptom formats from either the DSM-IV and/or FFM. Ratings for six aspects of clinical utility for DSM-IV and FFM profiles were obtained and participants provided DSM-IV diagnoses. Prototypic cases (only one personality disorder) and comorbid cases were tested in separate studies. Participants rated the DSM-IV as more clinically useful than the FFM on five out of six clinical utility questions. Despite demonstrating considerable background knowledge of DSM-IV diagnoses, participants had difficulty identifying correct diagnoses from FFM profiles.

Question: Can clinicians recognize DSM-IV personality disorders from five-factor model descriptions of patient cases?

The FFM descriptors may be more ambiguous than the criteria of the DSM-IV and the FFM may therefore be less able to convey important clinical details than the DSM-IV. The findings flag challenges to clinical utility for dimensional-trait systems such as the FFM.

Answer the question based on the following context: There is a mismatch between presenting concerns of adolescents to GPs and behaviours that lead to adolescent morbidity and mortality. Better understanding of health concerns of this target group would enhance communication between health professionals and adolescent patients. To explore and categorize the health concerns of adolescent girls sending unsolicited emails to a teenage girls' magazine. We conducted a content analysis of 1000 systematic randomly selected unsolicited emails submitted to the health column of an Australian adolescent girls' magazine over a 6-month period. Three main foci of concern were identified: Context of Concern, Health Issue of Concern and Advice Sought for Concern. Within Health Issue of Concern, there were five categories: body (47.5%), sex (31.9%), relationship (14.7%), mind (4.7%) and violence and/or safety (1.2%). Concerns within the body and sex categories ranged enormously, but frequently expressed intimate descriptions of anatomy, feelings, sexual practices and relationships. Many concerns occurred in the context of adolescents' relationships with others. The proportion of concerns about physical or psychological symptoms or health issues commonly associated with the adolescent age group (such as health risk behaviours, mental health, pregnancy and sexually transmitted infections) was relatively small.

Question: 'Is it normal to feel these questions ...?

GPs and other health professionals might engage more readily with adolescent patients with a deeper understanding of the concerns that adolescents have about their bodies, relationships and overall health. Seemingly 'trivial' issues, such as normal puberty, could be used as discussion triggers in health consultations to help alleviate anxiety and build rapport.

Answer the question based on the following context: Maternal smoking has repeatedly been associated with increased infant mortality rates. No study has investigated whether smoking cessation influences the risk of infant death. This study estimates infant mortality after the second pregnancy in relation to smoking behavior in both the first and the second pregnancy. We used the Swedish Medical Birth Register to identify women who delivered their first and second singleton infants during 1983-2002. Maternal smoking during the 2 pregnancies was categorized into (1) never smoker, (2) quitter, (3) starter, and (4) persistent smoker. In the second pregnancy, 555,046 live births (of at least 22 completed gestational weeks) were followed for infant death within 1 year. Cox regression was used to estimate hazard ratios (HRs) with 95% confidence intervals (CIs). Compared with infants born to never smokers, the HR (95% CI) of infant mortality in the second pregnancy was 2.0 (1.7-2.4) among infants born to persistently heavy smokers, whereas among women who stopped smoking in the second pregnancy, the HRs were 1.4 (1.0-2.0) among those who had been heavy smokers in the first pregnancy, and 1.0 (0.8-1.2) among those who had been light smokers. The association of smoking during pregnancy with infant mortality was modified by infant's age, and was strongest at 4-15 weeks after birth. The smoking effect on neonatal mortality, but not postneonatal mortality, was mediated by gestational age.

Question: Maternal smoking and infant mortality: does quitting smoking reduce the risk of infant death?

Smoking cessation reduced the risk of infant death. The smoking-related risk of neonatal mortality appears to be mediated by smoking effects on gestational age, a factor that only partly explains the association between smoking and postneonatal mortality.

Answer the question based on the following context: Infective endocarditis (IE) is a rare but life threatening infection after renal transplantation. In addition, coinfection of CMV and IE has not been reported. Therefore, the current study was initiated to determine whether CMV infection is a risk factor for developing of IE after kidney transplantation.MATERIAL/ In a retrospectively study, we analyzed the medical records of 3700 kidney recipients at two transplant centers in Iran, between January 2000 and June 2008 for infective endocarditis. During the study, 15 patients with IE hospitalized in our centers were included. The predominant causative microorganisms (60%) were group D non-enterococcal streptococci and enterococci. Patient survival rate in all recipients was 66% at 6 months. Data analysis showed no significant differences in 6 months patient survival from hospitalization between both groups with and without CMV infection (P=0.2). The presentation time of infective endocarditis in recipients with CMV coinfection was more likely to be early when compared to CMV negative coinfection patients (P=0.03).

Question: Does CMV infection increase the incidence of infective endocarditis following kidney transplantation?

The present study indicates that CMV infection may lead to predispose to infective endocarditis after kidney transplantation. Rapid diagnosis, effective treatment, and prompt recognition of complications in kidney transplant recipients are essential to good patient outcome.

Answer the question based on the following context: Prevention of iatrogenic injuries is of paramount importance in difficult laparoscopic cholecystectomies (LC). The objective of this study was to analyze the effectiveness of cholangiography using a pre-inserted endoscopic naso-biliary drain (ENBD) for navigation during difficult cholecystectomies. The study design was a retrospective case analysis. In 508 patients who underwent LC in a tertiary referral university hospital from 1996 through 2007, difficult cholecystectomy was anticipated in 26 patients due to possibly aberrant biliary anatomy (four patients), unclear cystic duct anatomy during magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) and/or endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) (three patients), and acute cholecystitis (19 patients). An ENBD was inserted during ERCP prior to LC for cholangiography (ENBDC) to facilitate safe dissection during LC. Prevalence of biliary complications was assessed as the main outcome measurement. The majority (68%) of the patients who underwent ENBDC had complicated cholecystitis. Advanced technical expertise was not required for insertion of an ENBD. In retrospect, ENBDC was useful in prevention of a possible catastrophe in 69% of cases. Open conversion was necessary in five patients and biliary complications occurred in five patients only in the non-ENBD group. There were no procedure-related complications. One limitation of the study was that it was not randomized and there was no comparison with patients without ENBDC.

Question: Prevention of iatrogenic bile duct injuries in difficult laparoscopic cholecystectomies: is the naso-biliary drain the answer?

ENBDC is a useful and safe tool in the prevention of iatrogenic bile duct injuries in LC.

Answer the question based on the following context: Numerous correlational studies have examined whether perceptions of vulnerability or worry are better predictors of health-related behavior. The aim of this experimental study was to explore some of the potential causal relationships involved: Are the effects of a brief smoking cessation intervention (for women attending for cervical smear tests) on intention to stop smoking mediated by perceived vulnerability or worry about cervical cancer? A mediation analysis of an experimental study. Perceived vulnerability to and worry about cervical cancer, and intention to stop smoking in the next month. Questionnaires were completed by 172 (71%) women at 2-week follow-up. Compared with women in the control group, those in the intervention group had higher perceptions of vulnerability, worry, and intention to stop smoking. Personal vulnerability (p<.01) and comparative vulnerability (p<.05) were significant mediators of the relationship between study group and intention to stop smoking. Worry about cervical cancer was not related to intention.

Question: Do perceptions of vulnerability and worry mediate the effects of a smoking cessation intervention for women attending for a routine cervical smear test?

Worry may be a less important construct in relation to disease prevention behaviors such as smoking cessation. More experimental studies comparing different behaviors are needed to determine the causal relationship between worry and outcomes.

Answer the question based on the following context: Progesterone (P(4)) has been clinically shown to prevent the recurrence of preterm birth. The mechanism(s) of action is unclear, but may involve modulation of the immunologic inflammatory response of the lower genital tract. We evaluated the effects of P(4) on interleukin-8 (IL-8) production by vaginal and cervical epithelial cells stimulated with bacterial species that are commonly associated with preterm birth. Vaginal and endocervical epithelial cells were incubated with up to 10,000 ng/mL P(4) overnight and stimulated with heat-killed Escherichia coli, Gardnerella vaginalis, or Ureaplasma urealyticum. Concentrations of IL-8 in conditioned medium were quantified by ELISA and viability of the cell cultures was measured by the reduction of a tetrazolium salt. E. coli, G. vaginalis and U. urealyticum-stimulated IL-8 production for both cell lines. P(4) inhibited basal and bacteria-stimulated IL-8 production for vaginal epithelial cells but enhanced IL-8 production by endocervical cells. P(4) reduced the number of viable cells for both cell lines.

Question: Does progesterone inhibit bacteria-stimulated interleukin-8 production by lower genital tract epithelial cells?

P(4) inhibits IL-8 production by vaginal epithelial cells stimulated with pathogens associated with preterm birth, possibly by reducing the number of viable cells or by inhibiting their proliferation. Although P(4) also reduces proliferation of endocervical cells it also increases their production of IL-8.

Answer the question based on the following context: Activation of the cardiac catheterization laboratory prior to patient arrival at the hospital, based on a prehospital 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG), reduces door-to-balloon time by 10-55 minutes for patients with ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). In emergency medical services (EMS) systems where transmission of the ECG to the emergency department (ED) is not feasible, the ability of paramedics to accurately read 12-lead ECGs is crucial to the success of a prehospital catheterization laboratory activation program. Objective. To determine whether paramedics can accurately diagnose STEMI on a prehospital 12-lead ECG and decide to activate the cardiac catheterization laboratory appropriately. Five chest pain scenarios were generated, with standardized prehospital ECGs accompanying each: three STEMI cases that should result in catheterization laboratory activation and two non-STEMI cases that should not. A convenience sample of paramedics in an urban/suburban EMS system examined each scenario and ECG, and indicated whether the patient had STEMI and whether they would activate the catheterization laboratory. A series of demographic and operational questions were also asked of each participant. We report diagnostic statistics, agreement (kappa), and 95% confidence intervals (CIs). A convenience sample of 103 of 147 eligible paramedics (70%) was enrolled. For STEMI diagnosis, paramedics' sensitivity was 92.6% (95% CI 88.9-95.1) and specificity was 85.4% (79.7-89.8); for catheterization laboratory activation, sensitivity was 88.0% (83.8-91.3) and specificity was 88.3% (83.0-92.2). False-positive activation of the catheterization laboratory occurred in 8.1% (5.4-12.0) of cases. Of the STEMI cases, 94.1% were correctly read as STEMI, and 91.0% had the catheterization laboratory appropriately activated. Of the non-STEMI cases, 14.9% were incorrectly read as STEMI, and 12.0% had the catheterization laboratory inappropriately activated. The paramedics' comfort with calling a "chest pain alert" with no resulting catheterization laboratory activation (the current practice in this system) was not statistically different from their comfort with calling a chest pain alert if that call were to automatically result in catheterization laboratory activation (p>0.05).

Question: Can paramedics read ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction on prehospital 12-lead electrocardiograms?

Paramedics in an urban/suburban EMS system can diagnose STEMI and identify appropriate cardiac catheterization laboratory activations with a high degree of accuracy, and an acceptable false-positive rate, when tested using paper-based scenarios.

Answer the question based on the following context: Morbid obesity is increasingly observed in patients being evaluated for heart transplantation and represents a relative contraindication. We sought to evaluate the influence of pre-transplant obesity on morbidity and mortality after heart transplantation. We retrospectively reviewed 90 consecutive patients with preoperative obesity (BMI>or = 30) and 90 age matched patients with normal weight (BMI 19 - 26) who underwent heart transplantation at our institution between January 1997 and December 2005. Morbidly obese patients experienced higher rates of pre-transplant diabetes (29% vs 15%, p<0.05) and prolonged waiting time before transplantation (191.4+/-136.1 vs 117.4+/-143.2 days, p<0.001). There were no significant differences in post-operative complications including rejection and major and minor infections. There was no difference in actuarial survival between the obese and control groups after a mean follow-up of 4.26+/-2.95 years (p = 0.513, log-rank statistic 0.452). Causes of death did not differ. Cox proportional hazard analysis revealed increased association of peripheral vascular disease (HR 31.718, p = 0.001), and pre operative inotropic support (HR 33.725, p = 0.013) with increased mortality in the obese group.

Question: Pre-transplant obesity in heart transplantation: are there predictors of worse outcomes?

This study suggests morbid obesity does not affect survival or rates of infection and rejection after heart transplantation.

Answer the question based on the following context: To analyse whether prescribing patterns changed after introduction of drug budgets and whether there is an association between drug prescribing patterns and the type of employer and care facility. Data analysed encompassed information on dispensed medicines, by workplaces, prescribed in the Region Vastra Gotaland, Sweden, for the years 2003 and 2006. Workplaces (n = 969) were categorized according to type of employer and type of care facility. Five prescribing indicators reflecting goals for cost-containing prescribing in Region Vastra Gotaland were assessed. Changes over time and differences between different types of employer and care facility were analysed by Mann-Whitney tests. In 2003, workplaces with a public employer had a significantly higher adherence to three of the prescribing indicators compared with private practitioners. Two of these differences remained in 2006. In 2003, none of the prescribing indicators differed between primary care and other care facilities. Three years later workplaces in primary care had a significantly higher adherence to three of the prescribing indicators than other care facilities. There was a statistically significant difference in change between 2003 and 2006 between primary care and other care facilities; there were no differences in change between workplaces with public and private employers.

Question: Prescribing behaviour after the introduction of decentralized drug budgets: is there an association with employer and type of care facility?

Adherence to three of the prescribing indicators increased after the introduction of decentralized drug budgets. Workplaces with a public employer showed greater adherence to two of the prescribing indicators than private sector workplaces.

Answer the question based on the following context: We aimed to determine whether adopting the published recommendations has led to successful implementation of computed tomographic colonography (CTC) in a teaching hospital setting outside the context of a clinical trial. An audit of all the CTC examinations between April 2005 and June 2007 was conducted to determine the following: adequacy of bowel preparation, CTC indications and findings (compared with available colonoscopy), complications and experience of reporting radiologist. The most common indications for the 111 CTC patients reviewed included exclusion of synchronous colonic tumours, incomplete colonoscopy and altered bowel habit. Only 16% of ascending colon/caecal segments was clear of faecal or fluid contamination. The rectum and sigmoid colon were free of contamination in 78% and 74% of cases respectively. Appropriately trained radiologists reported 91% of studies. Thirty-two percent of studies were normal. The most common positive findings were diverticular disease or a rectal tumour. Sensitivity, specificity and positive predictive value were 89%, 94% and 90% respectively (all polyps) with a sensitivity of 98.5% for lesions>5 mm in size. Twenty-five percent of patients had extra colonic abnormalities. There were no recorded complications.

Question: Two-year audit of computed tomographic colonography in a teaching hospital: are we meeting the standard?

Our CTC practice is within accepted published guidelines. Bowel preparation is suboptimal in a significant proportion of cases and faecal tagging is being implemented.

Answer the question based on the following context: Echocardiographic measurements of left ventricular (LV) myocardial displacement may produce different results depending on the choice of employed modality and subjective adjustments during data acquisition and analysis. In this study, left ventricular longitudinal systolic displacement was quantified in 57 patients (31 women and 26 men, 50 +/- 16 years) using colour (colour TD) and spectral tissue Doppler (spectral TD) before and after temporal filtering (30 to 70 milliseconds in 20-millisecond steps) and changed offline gain saturation (0%, 50% and 100%), respectively. The results were compared with those obtained with anatomic M-mode. Whereas only minor differences occurred between the results of colour TD and anatomic M-mode measurements, spectral TD significantly overestimated the results obtained with both these methods. However, the limits of agreement between the results produced by all three studied methods were not clinically acceptable in any of the cases. The spectral TD displacement values increased along with increasing offline gain saturation whereas the effect of temporal filtering on colour Doppler measurements was insignificant.

Question: Measurements of left ventricular myocardial longitudinal systolic displacement using spectral and colour tissue Doppler: time for a reassessment?

Measurements of LV myocardial longitudinal displacement employing spectral TD, colour TD or anatomic M-mode produce different results, thus discouraging interchangeable use of these modalities. Whereas the results of spectral TD measurements can be significantly altered by changing offline gain setting, the effect of temporal filtering on colour TD measurements is insignificant, a fact that increases clinical practicality of the latter method.

Answer the question based on the following context: Although disaster simulation trainings were widely used to test hospital disaster plans and train medical staff, the teaching performance of the instructors in disaster medicine training has never been evaluated. The aim of this study was to determine whether the performance indicators for measuring educational skill in disaster medicine training could indicate issues that needed improvement. The educational skills of 15 groups attending disaster medicine instructor courses were evaluated using 13 measurable performance indicators. The results of each indicator were scored at 0, 1 or 2 according to the teaching performance. The total summed scores ranged from 17 to 26 with a mean of 22.67. Three indicators: 'Design', 'Goal' and 'Target group' received the maximum scores. Indicators concerning running exercises had significantly lower scores as compared to others.

Question: Can performance indicators be used for pedagogic purposes in disaster medicine training?

Performance indicators could point out the weakness area of instructors' educational skills. Performance indicators can be used effectively for pedagogic purposes.

Answer the question based on the following context: Sentinel node (SN) biopsy to predict axillary involvement in breast cancer patients is a common practice. After a positive SN, additional metastases are present in an unpredictable percentage, as variable as 13-66%, of axillary clearances. Our aim is to define variables associated with non-sentinel node (NSN) metastases and to determine the predictive value of a derived clinical decision rule. A consecutive series of patients with a positive SN submitted to SN biopsy plus axillary dissection was evaluated from June 1999 to December 2004 (n=143). Patient-, tumour- and SN-related variables were analysed in relation to the presence of additional metastasis. Univariate and multivariate analyses were done and predictive values of a clinical decision rule based on significant variables were estimated. A total of 66 patients had metastasis in non-sentinel axillary nodes. No significant differences were present between this group and those with only the SN metastasised. Significant and independent association was found between NSN positivity and increasing tumour size, the presence of multifocality and the presence of peritumoral lymph channel invasion.

Question: Predictive factors for non-sentinel lymph node involvement in breast cancer patients with a positive sentinel node: should we consider sentinel node-related factors?

A first derivation of a simple rule based on tumour-related variables concurs to define the presence of NSN metastasis. Care should be taken when including SNrelated variables in these algorithms.

Answer the question based on the following context: Traffic-related pollution is associated with cardiovascular disease in general, but previous studies suggested that low socioeconomic status (SES) groups might be more susceptible towards a negative impact. We examined whether the association between long-term exposure to high traffic and early signs of coronary artery disease is modified by SES. Individual-level medical and social data from a population-based study were linked with census information on neighbourhood socioeconomic characteristics. Residential exposure to traffic was defined as proximity to major roads using a geographical information system. We studied associations between high traffic and coronary artery calcification (CAC) within strata of SES to examine effect modification. Data stem from an epidemiological study in Germany including 2264 women and 2037 men (45-75 years). High traffic and low SES were both associated with higher amounts of calcification (>or=75th age-specific percentile). More participants with low SES lived close to major roads while stratified analyses did not indicate higher susceptibility in low SES groups. Participants with low SES and simultaneous exposure to high traffic had highest levels of CAC. For example, the prevalence of high calcification was 23.9% in better-educated men with low traffic exposure but 37.7% in lower-educated men with high traffic exposure (women: 22.0% vs 28.1%).

Question: Traffic exposure and subclinical cardiovascular disease: is the association modified by socioeconomic characteristics of individuals and neighbourhoods?

High traffic exposure was associated with coronary calcification in all social groups, but as low SES individuals had higher calcification in general and were also more often exposed to traffic, existing inequalities could be further shaped by traffic exposure.

Answer the question based on the following context: We studied 45 patients with chondrosarcoma, without metastasis at diagnosis, who were surgically treated between January 2000 and December 2004 to evaluate the risk factors associated with local recurrence and metastasis. Fourteen (31%) patients had had some major prior intervention, either in the form of an open biopsy or a curettage / unplanned excision, before presenting to us. Eight patients had pathologic fractures at presentation. None of the patients received adjuvant chemotherapy or radiotherapy. The follow-up duration ranged from 8-75 months. All survivors had a minimum follow-up of 36 months (range 36-75 months). There were 11 grade 1 (24.5%), 23 grade 2 (51%), and 11 grade 3 (24.5%) chondrosarcomas. Thirty-two (71%) patients had tumors that were larger than 8 cm in the greatest dimension. Margins were adequate in 31 patients. Twenty-five patients had disease relapse; there were four local failures, nine distant failures, and 12 combined failures. At the time of the last review, 12 patients had died, 11 were alive with disease, and 22 were free of disease. The cumulative event-free survival was 44% and the overall survival was 73%.

Question: Chondrosarcoma of bone: does the size of the tumor, the presence of a pathologic fracture, or prior intervention have an impact on local control and survival?

Grade of tumor, size of tumor, and adequacy of resection might be important predictors of outcome. Local recurrence is a prelude to distant metastasis and portends poor ultimate survival. The presence of a pathological fracture could indicate biologically aggressive disease, and limb salvage in these cases should be advised with caution. Even in cases where there has been a prior unplanned intervention, local control can be achieved by subsequent adequate resection.

Answer the question based on the following context: Using a retrospective cohort design, we compared the early educational performance of 6957 National Service male conscripts. The presence of mental illness was assessed using the Composite International Diagnostic Interview. Academic performance was assessed using the results of a standardized national examination after 6 years of primary education. Adjusting for ethnicity, the scores from this examination revealed that those with schizophrenia spectrum disorders scored significantly lower than those without any mental illness.

Question: Academic attainment: a predictor of psychiatric disorders?

Poor educational attainment predicts the onset of schizophrenia spectrum disorders and could be a possible predictor for this specific group of mental illness.

Answer the question based on the following context: The purpose of this study was to retrospectively evaluate sensitivity and specificity of a single magnetic resonance (MR) arthrography series in abduction external rotation (ABER) position compared with conventional MR arthrography for detection of supraspinatus tendon tears, with arthroscopy as gold standard, and to assess interobserver variability. Institutional review board approval was obtained; informed consent was waived. MR arthrograms of 250 patients (170 men and 80 women; mean age, 36 years) were retrospectively and independently evaluated by three observers. Oblique coronal T1-weighted fat-suppressed images, proton density, and T2-weighted images and axial T1-weighted images and oblique sagittal T1-weighted fat-suppressed images were analyzed to detect supraspinatus tendon tears. Separately, a single T1-weighted fat-suppressed oblique axial series in ABER position was evaluated. Both protocols were scored randomly without knowledge of patients' clinical history and arthroscopy results. Tears were subclassified, based on articular surface integrity and extension (Lee classification). Interobserver agreement was assessed by kappa statistics for all patients. Ninety-two of 250 patients underwent arthroscopy; sensitivity and specificity of ABER and conventional MR arthrography were calculated and compared using paired McNemar test. Weighted kappa values of ABER and conventional MR arthrography were 0.48-0.65 and 0.60-0.67, respectively. According to arthroscopy, 69 of 92 patients had an intact cuff, and 23 patients had a cuff tear (16 partial thickness and seven full thickness). There were no statistically significant differences between ABER and conventional MR arthrography regarding sensitivity (48-61% and 52-70%, respectively) and specificity (80-94% and 91-95%).

Question: Detection of partial-thickness supraspinatus tendon tears: is a single direct MR arthrography series in ABER position as accurate as conventional MR arthrography?

Sensitivity and specificity of a single T1-weighted series in ABER position and conventional MR arthrography are comparable for assessment of rotator cuff tears.

Answer the question based on the following context: Intraductal ultrasonography (IDUS) is a useful procedure for diagnosing microlithiasis in the bile duct but it is not easy to differentiate between tiny echogenicity and real microlithiasis. We compared the echogenicity seen on IDUS and the findings of bile microscopy (BM) of bile that was collected in the common bile duct (CBD) to determine whether the echogenicity seen on IDUS is real microlithiasis. This prospective study involved a total of 30 patients who experienced biliary pain (n = 11), acute cholecystitis (n = 11) or indeterminate pancreatitis (n = 8) without a filling defect or obstruction in the bile duct. IDUS was performed during endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP), followed by bile aspiration for BM. Endoscopic sphincterotomy (EST) was performed if definite echogenic materials were observed on IDUS. Of the 30 patients, 23 (77%) had echogenic materials visible in the CBD on IDUS. Of these 23 patients, 13 (57%) were found to have biliary crystals by BM. The size of the echogenic materials was the only significant factor associated with BM positivity. Using the receiver operating curve, the optimal size of the echogenicity to differentiate real microlithiasis was 1.4 mm.

Question: Are the echogenicities on intraductal ultrasonography really biliary microlithiasis?

Optimal concordance between IDUS and BM was observed when the size of the microlithiasis was greater than 1.4 mm; under these conditions the sensitivity and specificity were 71% and 75%, respectively. This information may be useful when deciding whether to perform endoscopic sphincterotomy.

Answer the question based on the following context: To study the performance of the first-trimester combined test between 2004 and 2006 compared to a previous period to investigate changes in time and identify reasons for sub-optimal performance. Serum samples were analysed for pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A) and the free beta subunit of human chorionic gonadotrophin (f beta-hCG). Nuchal translucency (NT) was measured between 10 and 14 weeks. Tests were considered screen positive, if their calculated Down syndrome (DS) risk was at least 1 in 250 at term. A total of 20,293 singleton pregnancies were included in the analysis. The median maternal age fell from 35.7 to 34.3 years. The overall median weight-corrected multiple of the median (MoM) values of PAPP-A and f beta-hCG were 1.12 and 1.03, respectively. The median MoM value of NT was 0.89 and increased from 0.82 to 0.96. Sixty-six DS cases were detected by the screening test. The detection rate (DR) for DS was 75.9%, with a FPR of 3.3%.

Question: First-trimester Down syndrome screening performance in the Dutch population; how to achieve further improvement?

The performance of the first-trimester test has improved over the years. A better performance of the NT measurement was the main reason, although NT assessment should further be improved. In addition, a better setting of the medians for the biochemical parameters may contribute to a higher DR.

Answer the question based on the following context: The National Institutes of Health Stroke Scale (NIHSS) is a widely used measure of neurological function in clinical trials and patient assessment; inter-rater scoring variability could impact communications and trial power. The manner in which the rater certification test is scored yields multiple correct answers that have changed over time. We examined the range of possible total NIHSS scores from answers given in certification tests by over 7,000 individual raters who were certified. We analyzed the results of all raters who completed one of two standard multiple-patient videotaped certification examinations between 1998 and 2004. The range for the correct score, calculated using NIHSS 'correct answers', was determined for each patient. The distribution of scores derived from those who passed the certification test then was examined. A total of 6,268 raters scored 5 patients on Test 1; 1,240 scored 6 patients on Test 2. Using a National Stroke Association (NSA) answer key, we found that correct total scores ranged from 2 correct scores to as many as 12 different correct total scores. Among raters who achieved a passing score and were therefore qualified to administer the NIHSS, score distributions were even wider, with 1 certification patient receiving 18 different correct total scores.

Question: Is the NIHSS certification process too lenient?

Allowing multiple acceptable answers for questions on the NIHSS certification test introduces scoring variability. It seems reasonable to assume that the wider the range of acceptable answers in the certification test, the greater the variability in the performance of the test in trials and clinical practice by certified examiners. Greater consistency may be achieved by deriving a set of 'best' answers through expert consensus on all questions where this is possible, then teaching raters how to derive these answers using a required interactive training module.

Answer the question based on the following context: Differences in the management of women and men with acute coronary symptoms are well documented, but relatively little is known about practices for patients with ischemic stroke. We sought to determine whether there are sex-associated differences in the utilization of diagnostic tests for ischemic stroke patients treated at academic hospitals in the United States. Medical records were abstracted for consecutive ischemic stroke patients admitted to 32 US academic medical centers from January through June, 2004, as part of the University HealthSystem Consortium Ischemic Stroke Benchmarking Project. We compared the utilization rates of diagnostic tests including neuroimaging (CT or MRI), electrocardiogram (ECG), ultrasound of the carotid arteries, and echocardiography (transthoracic or transesophageal) for women and men. Multivariate logistic regression was used to test for sex differences with adjustment for potential confounders. The study included 1,256 ischemic stroke patients (611 women; 645 men; mean age 66.6 +/- 14.6 years; 56% white). There were no differences between women and men in the use of neuroimaging (odds ratio, OR = 1.37; 95% confidence interval, CI = 0.58-3.24), ECG (OR = 1.00, 95% CI = 0.70-1.44), carotid artery ultrasound (OR = 0.93, 95% CI = 0.72-1.21) or echocardiography (OR = 0.70, 95% CI = 0.70-1.22). The results were similar after covariate adjustment.

Question: Diagnostic evaluation for patients with ischemic stroke: are there sex differences?

Women and men admitted to US academic hospitals receive comparable diagnostic evaluations, even after adjusting for sociodemographic and clinical factors.

Answer the question based on the following context: The aim of this study was to evaluate therapy response in patients undergoing cetuximab-CapIri-based chemoradiation for rectal cancer using dynamic magnetic resonance imaging (dMRI). The volumetric degree of tumor regression and contrast media perfusion were compared to the results of the histopathologic ypTN staging. 33 patients were examined using a 1.5-T scanner with repetitive 2D FLASH sequences after contrast media application. All patients were examined twice - before therapy and immediately before surgery. In all patients, the tumor volume decreased (mean 72 +/- 16%). In 25/33 patients, the slope of the contrast media enhancement curve decreased (mean 31 +/- 20%). In histopathologically proven downstaging after therapy, the decrease in slope was significantly higher than in the group without downstaging, and the decrease in slope was better for distinguishing between 'responder' and 'non-responder' than the decrease in volume.

Question: Can dynamic MR imaging predict response in patients with rectal cancer undergoing cetuximab-based neoadjuvant chemoradiation?

Using dMRI helps to identify responders undergoing cetuximab-based chemoradiation better than volume decrease alone.

Answer the question based on the following context: Racial/ethnic health care disparities are well described in people living with HIV/AIDS, although the processes underlying observed disparities are not well elucidated. A retrospective analysis nested in the University of Alabama at Birmingham 1917 Clinic Cohort observational HIV study evaluated patients between August 2004 and January 2007. Factors associated with appointment nonadherence, a proportion of missed outpatient visits, were evaluated. Next, the role of appointment nonadherence in explaining the relationship between African American race and virologic failure (plasma HIV RNA>50 copies/mL) was examined using a staged multivariable modeling approach. Among 1221 participants, a broad distribution of appointment nonadherence was observed, with 40% of patients missing at least 1 in every 4 scheduled visits. The adjusted odds of appointment nonadherence were 1.85 times higher in African American patients compared with whites [95% confidence interval (CI) = 1.61 to 2.14]. Appointment nonadherence was associated with virologic failure (odds ratio = 1.78, 95% CI = 1.48 to 2.13) and partially mediated the relationship between African American race and virologic failure. African Americans had 1.56 times the adjusted odds of virologic failure (95% CI = 1.19 to 2.05), which declined to 1.30 (95% CI = 0.98 to 1.72) when controlling for appointment nonadherence, a hypothesized mediator.

Question: Racial disparities in HIV virologic failure: do missed visits matter?

Appointment nonadherence was more common in African American patients, associated with virologic failure, and seemed to explain part of observed racial disparities in virologic failure.

Answer the question based on the following context: The prevalence of columnar-lined oesophagus seems to have increased steadily in the past three decades in Europe and North America. Although the vast majority of columnar-lined oesophagus will not progress to malignancy, it is nevertheless important to identify the risk factors associated with this condition. This study investigates whether there has been a change, at diagnosis, in age of columnar-lined oesophagus patients between 1990 and 2005, or an increase in the number of patients aged less than 50 years. Data on age of diagnosis were abstracted from medical records of 7220 patients from 19 centres registered with UK National Barrett's Oesophagus Registry, between the years 1990 and 2005. Linear regression analysis was carried out to assess any trends in the mean age of diagnosis. Overall there was a mean decrease in age at diagnosis for each 1-year increase in time. This equated to a mean decrease of 3 years over the study period, 1990-2005 with the greatest difference being seen in female patients. About 18% of patients in the study were aged less than 50 years at the time of diagnosis. With this group also, the trend was similar, with an increase in the number of patients aged less than 50 years, at the time of diagnosis, with increasing years.

Question: Are newly diagnosed columnar-lined oesophagus patients getting younger?

The mean age of diagnosis of columnar-lined oesophagus has decreased between the years 1990 and 2005 in both men and women, more so in women. This is also reflected in an increase in newly diagnosed columnar-lined oesophagus patients below the age of 50 years.

Answer the question based on the following context: To assess clinical response of dexmedetomidine alone or in combination with conventional sedatives/analgesics after cardiac surgery. Retrospective study. Pediatric cardiac intensive care unit. Infants and neonates after cardiac surgery. We identified 80 patients including 14 neonates, at mean age and weight of 4.1 +/- 3.1 months and 5.5 +/- 2 kg, respectively, who received dexmedetomidine for 25 +/- 13 hours at an average dose of 0.66 +/- 0.26 microgxkgxhr. Overall normal sleep to moderate sedation was documented 94% of the time and no pain to mild pain for 90%. Systolic blood pressure (SBP) decreased from 89 +/- 15 mm Hg to 85 +/- 11 mm Hg (p = .05), heart rate (HR) from 149 +/- 22 bpm to 129 +/- 16 bpm (p<.001), and respiratory rate (RR) remained unchanged. When baseline arterial blood gases were compared with the most abnormal values, pH decreased from 7.4 +/- 0.07 to 7.37 +/- 0.05 (p = .006), Po2 from 91 +/- 67 mm Hg to 66 +/- 29 mm Hg (p = .005), and CO2 increased from 45 +/- 8 mm Hg to 50 +/- 12 mm Hg (p = .001). At the beginning of the study, 37 patients (46%) were mechanically ventilated; and at 48 hours, 13 patients (16%) were still intubated and five patients failed extubation. Three groups of patients were identified: A, dexmedetomidine only (n = 20); B, dexmedetomidine with sedatives/analgesics (n = 38); and C, dexmedetomidine with both sedatives/analgesics and fentanyl infusion (n = 22). The doses of dexmedetomidine and rescue sedatives/analgesics were not significantly different among the three groups but duration of dexmedetomidine was longer in group C vs. A (p = .03) and C vs. B (p = .002). Pain, sedation, SBP, RR, and arterial blood gases were similar. HR was higher in group C vs. B (p = .01). Comparison between neonates and infants showed that infants required higher dexmedetomidine doses, 0.69 +/- 25 microgxkgxhr, and vs. 0.47 +/- 21 microgxkgxhr (p = .003) and had lower HR (p = .01), and RR (p = .009), and higher SBP (p<.001).

Question: Dexmedetomidine use in a pediatric cardiac intensive care unit: can we use it in infants after cardiac surgery?

Dexmedetomidine use in infants and neonates after cardiac surgery was well tolerated in both intubated and nonintubated patients. It provides an adequate level of sedation/analgesia either alone or in combination with low-dose conventional agents.

Answer the question based on the following context: Although vaccination can be a useful tool for control of avian influenza epidemics, it might engender emergence of a vaccine-resistant strain. Field and experimental studies show that some avian influenza strains acquire resistance ability against vaccination. We investigated, in the context of the emergence of a vaccine-resistant strain, whether a vaccination program can prevent the spread of infectious disease. We also investigated how losses from immunization by vaccination imposed by the resistant strain affect the spread of the disease. We designed and analyzed a deterministic compartment model illustrating transmission of vaccine-sensitive and vaccine-resistant strains during a vaccination program. We investigated how the loss of protection effectiveness impacts the program. Results show that a vaccination to prevent the spread of disease can instead spread the disease when the resistant strain is less virulent than the sensitive strain. If the loss is high, the program does not prevent the spread of the resistant strain despite a large prevalence rate of the program. The epidemic's final size can be larger than that before the vaccination program. We propose how to use poor vaccines, which have a large loss, to maximize program effects and describe various program risks, which can be estimated using available epidemiological data.

Question: Paradox of vaccination: is vaccination really effective against avian flu epidemics?

We presented clear and simple concepts to elucidate vaccination program guidelines to avoid negative program effects. Using our theory, monitoring the virulence of the resistant strain and investigating the loss caused by the resistant strain better development of vaccination strategies is possible.

Answer the question based on the following context: the aim of this study was to evaluate prognostic factors in brain abscess (AB) and influence of management with antibiotic prescribing protocols (APP). observational study of a cohort of non-paediatric patients with BA admitted at a 944-bed hospital (1976-2005). Data collection from clinical records has been done according to a standard protocol. We analysed epidemiological, clinical, radiological, microbiological and laboratory data associated with mortality. From 1976 to 1983 (Period I), antibiotic treatment was not done according to any internal APP; from 1983 (Period II), antibiotic management was done according to a APP designed by infectious diseases specialists and neurosurgeons. Predictors of mortality were identified by univariate analysis. The influence of the use of APP in outcome was assessed. 104 patients with BA were included (mean age 45 years; range 12-86); presumed primary pathogenic mechanism of BA was identified in 89%; microbiologic diagnosis was made in 76%. Overall mortality was 16.3%. Factors statistically associated with higher mortality were: age>40 years, ultimately fatal underlying disease, acute severe clinical condition at the onset of BA, altered mental status and inadequate empirical treatment; 33 patients were treated in Period I and 71 in Period II; no statistically significant differences were found between epidemiological, clinical, radiological or microbiological characteristics of the groups except for mean age (>40 years in 36% and 62% respectively in Period I and II). Rates of resolution of BA were 60 vs. 77.4% (p<0.05); relapses 21 vs. 7% (p<0.05) and mortality 18 vs. 15.4% (p>0.05), in Period I and II respectively.

Question: Brain abscess. Evaluation of prognostic factors: does the use of antibiotic prescribing protocols improve outcome?

main prognostic factors associated with mortality in patients with BA are age, rapidly fatal underlying disease, acute severe clinical condition at the onset of BA, altered mental status and inadequate empirical treatment. Empiric treatment according to APP was associated with greater resolution and lower relapse rates.

Answer the question based on the following context: To examine the value of a new screening instrument in a visual-analogue format. We report the design and validation of a new five-dimensional tool called the Emotion Thermometers (ET). This is a combination of five visual-analogue scales in the form of four predictor domains (distress, anxiety, depression, anger) and one outcome domain (need for help). Between March and August 2007, 130 patients attending the chemotherapy suite for their first chemotherapy treatment were asked to complete several questionnaires with validation for distress, anxiety and depression. Of 81 with low distress on the Distress Thermometer (DT), 51% recorded emotional difficulties on the new ET tool, suggesting added value beyond the DT alone. Of those with a broadly defined emotional complication, 93.3% could be identified using the Anxiety Thermometer (AnxT) alone, compared with 54.4% who would be recognized using the DT alone. Using a cut-off of 3v4 on all thermometers against the total Hospital Anxiety and Depression Scale (HADS) score (cut-off 14v15), the optimal thermometer was the Anger Thermometer (sensitivity 61%, specificity 92%). Against HADS anxiety scale, the optimal thermometer was AnxT (sensitivity 92%, specificity 61%) and against the HADS depression scale, the optimal thermometer was the Depression Thermometer (DepT; sensitivity 60%, specificity 78%). Finally, against DSM-IV major depression, the optimal thermometer was the DepT (sensitivity 80%, specificity 79%). Further improvements may be possible by using a combination of thermometers or by repeating the screen.

Question: Can the Distress Thermometer be improved by additional mood domains?

The diagnostic accuracy of the DT can be improved by the inclusion of simple addition linear domains without substantially increasing the time needed to apply the test.

Answer the question based on the following context: OBJECTIVES/ Surgical volumes have been shown in many fields to reflect expertise and to be associated with improved clinical outcomes. We sought to test similar hypotheses that neck dissection is a volume-sensitive procedure wherein the number of lymph nodes harvested and clinical outcomes are correlated with the number of neck dissections performed. We conducted a retrospective analysis of 375 neck dissections. The number of nodes harvested was examined by multiple linear regression before and after mathematical correction for pathologists' variation over time. The prior experiences of the surgeons were also averaged, depending on whether there was regional recurrence after at least 9 months of follow-up. More nodes were found by the pathologists over time, with 2.1 more nodes being found on average for each successive year (P<.001). After correcting for this effect of time, there remained a significant relationship between surgeons' experience and number of nodes harvested (P<.003). Additionally, cases that recurred were operated by less-experienced surgeons (P = .02).

Question: Efficacy of neck dissection: are surgical volumes important?

We have demonstrated that there is a "learning curve" for neck dissection. Our most experienced surgeon harvested on average 11 more nodes than similar specimens submitted by the group of inexperienced surgeons. The effect of experience remains significant even without adjusting for time (P<.001). Surgical experience also affects clinical outcome months after the dissection. This retrospective review supports surgical volume as an indicator of expertise in neck dissection that could be used to assess trainees' progress and for quality assurance in large head and neck units. Laryngoscope, 2009.

Answer the question based on the following context: To quantify Indigenous mortality in the Northern Territory by remoteness of residence. Australian Bureau of Statistics mortality data were used to compare rates of death from chronic disease in the NT Indigenous population with rates in the general Australian population over the period 1998-2003. Rates were evaluated by categories of remoteness based on the Accessibility/Remoteness Index of Australia: outer regional areas (ORAs), remote areas (RAs) and very remote areas (VRAs). Mortality from cardiovascular disease, diabetes and renal disease; standardised mortality ratios (SMRs); percentage change in annual death rates; changes in mortality between 1998-2000 and 2001-2003. In 1998-2000, SMRs for all-cause mortality were 285% in ORAs, 875% in RAs and 214% in VRAs. In 2001-2003, corresponding SMRs were 325%, 731% and 208%. For the period 1998-2003, percentage changes in annual all-cause mortality were 4.4% (95% CI, -2.2%, 11.5%) in ORAs, -5.3% (95% CI, -9.6%, -0.8%) in RAs, and 1.1% (95% CI, -7.2%, 11.3%) in VRAs. In 2001-2003, compared with 1998-2000, changes in the number of Indigenous deaths were +35 in ORAs, -37 in RAs and +32 in VRAs. Similar patterns were observed for cardiovascular mortality.

Question: Patterns of mortality in Indigenous adults in the Northern Territory, 1998-2003: are people living in more remote areas worse off?

Compared with mortality in the general Australian population, Indigenous mortality was up to nine times higher in RAs, three times higher in ORAs and two times higher in VRAs. The fact that rates were lowest in VRAs runs contrary to claims that increasing remoteness is associated with poorer health status. Despite the high death rate in RAs, there was a downward trend in mortality in RAs over the study period. This was partly attributable to a fall in the absolute number of deaths.

Answer the question based on the following context: To determine whether the proportion of babies born large for gestational age (LGA) in New South Wales has increased, and to identify possible reasons for any increase. Population-based study using data obtained from the NSW Midwives Data Collection, a legislated surveillance system of all births in NSW. All 1 273 924 live-born singletons delivered at term (>or = 37 complete weeks' gestation) in NSW from 1990 to 2005. LGA, defined as>90th centile for sex and gestational age using 1991-1994 Australian centile charts; maternal factors associated with LGA were assessed using logistic regression. The proportion of babies born LGA increased from 9.2% to 10.8% (18% increase) for male infants and from 9.1% to 11.0% (21% increase) for female infants. The mean birthweight increased by 23 g for boys and 25 g for girls over the study period. Increasing maternal age, higher rates of gestational diabetes and a decline in smoking contributed significantly to these increases, but did not fully explain them.

Question: Are babies getting bigger?

There is an increasing trend in the proportion of babies born LGA, which is only partly attributable to decreasing maternal smoking, increasing maternal age and increasing gestational diabetes.

Answer the question based on the following context: The authors used results from a 20-year, high-intensity follow-up to measure the influence of ageing, and of age at onset, on the long-term persistence of symptoms in major depressive disorder (MDD). Subjects who completed a 20-year series of semi-annual and then annual assessments with a stable diagnosis of MDD or schizo-affective disorder other than mainly schizophrenic (n=220) were divided according to their ages at intake into youngest (18-29 years), middle (30-44 years) and oldest (>45 years) groups. Depressive morbidity was quantified as the proportion of weeks spent in major depressive or schizo-affective episodes. General linear models then tested for effects of time and time x group interactions on these measures. Regression analyses compared the influence of age of onset and of current age. Analyses revealed no significant time or group x time effects on the proportions of weeks in major depressive episodes in any of the three age groups. Earlier ages of onset were associated with greater symptom persistence, particularly in the youngest group. The proportions of weeks ill showed intra-individual stability over time that was most evident in the oldest group.

Question: Does major depressive disorder change with age?

These results indicate that the persistence of depressive symptoms in MDD does not change as individuals move from their third to their fifth decade, from their fourth to their sixth decade, or from their sixth to their eighth decade. An early age of onset, rather than youth per se, is associated with greater morbidity over two decades.

Answer the question based on the following context: An association between either subfertility or infertility and an elevated risk of certain male cancers has been previously reported. Nothing is known about abnormalities in infertility and general health conditions. To assess whether men with male factor infertility (MFI) are overall less healthy than fertile men, regardless of the reasons for infertility. From September 2006 to September 2007, 344 consecutive European Caucasian men with MFI were enrolled in this prospective case-controlled study. Patients were compared with a control group of 293 consecutive age-comparable fertile men. Infertile men were consecutively attending the outpatient male reproductive clinic at a tertiary academic center. Fertile controls were consecutively recruited by use of advertisements posted within our hospital. Comorbidities of patients and fertile men were objectively scored with the Charlson Comorbidity Index (CCI) according to the International Classification of Diseases modified ninth version (ICD-9-CM) codes. Multivariate linear regression models tested the association between predictors and CCI score, as a proxy of general health status. According to the CCI scores, infertile men had a significantly higher rate of comorbidities compared with the fertile controls (CCI: 0.33 [0.8] vs 0.14 [0.5]; p<0.001; 95% CI: 0.08-0.29). Linear regression analyses showed that although educational status did not have an impact on CCI (β: 0.035; p=0.365), while CCI linearly increased with age (β: 0.196; p<0.001) and body mass index (BMI; β: 0.161; p<0.001). After adjusting for age, BMI, and educational status, a significantly lower CCI was calculated for fertile men and compared with MFI patients (β: -0.199; p<0.001).

Question: Are infertile men less healthy than fertile men?

These results show that MFI accounts for a higher CCI, which may be considered a reliable proxy of a lower general health status.

Answer the question based on the following context: Although public health informatics (PHI) was defined in 1995, both then and still now it is an "emerging" profession. An emergent profession lacks a base of "technical specialized knowledge." Therefore, we analyzed MEDLINE bibliographic citation records of the PHI literature to determine if a base of technical, specialized PHI literature exists, which could lead to the conclusion that PHI has emerged from its embryonic state. A MEDLINE search for PHI literature published from 1980-2006 returned 16,942 records. Record screening by two subject matter experts netted 2493 PHI records that were analyzed by the intervals of previous PHI CBMs 96-4 and 2001-2 for 1980-1995 (I(1980)) and 1996-2000 (I(1996)), respectively, and a new, third interval of 2001-2006 (I(2001)). The distribution of records was 676 (I(1980)), 839 (I(1996)) and 978 (I(2001)). Annual publication rates were 42 (I(1980)), 168 (I(1996)), and 163 (I(2001)). Cumulative publications were accelerating. A subset of 19 (2.5%) journals accounted for 730 (29.3%) of the records. The journal subset average (+/-SD) annual publication rates of 0.7+/-0.6 (I(1980)), 2.9+/-1.9 (I(1996)), and 3.1+/-2.7 (I(2001)) were different, F(3, 64)=7.12, p<.05. Only I(1980) was different (p<.05) from I(1996) or I(2001). Average (+/-SE) annual rate of increase for all journals (8.4+/-0.8 publications per year) was different from the subset of 19 (2.7+/-0.3), t(36)=5.74, p<.05. MeSH first time-to-indexing narrowed from 7.3 (+/-4.3) years to the year (0.5+/-0.8) the term was introduced, t(30)=7.03, p<.05.

Question: The profession of public health informatics: still emerging?

A core set of journals, the proliferation of PHI articles in varied and numerous journals, and rapid uptake of MeSH suggest PHI is acquiring professional authority and now should not be tagged as an "emerging" profession.

Answer the question based on the following context: Each year, as many as two million operations are complicated by surgical site infections in the United States, and surgical patients account for 30% of patients with sepsis. The purpose of this study was to determine recent trends in sepsis incidence, severity, and mortality rate after surgical procedures and to evaluate changes in the pattern of septicemia pathogens over time. Analysis of the 1990-2006 hospital discharge data from the Healthcare Cost and Utilization Project (HCUP) State Inpatient Databases (SID) for New Jersey. Patients>or= 18 years who developed sepsis after surgery were identified using International Classification of Diseases, Ninth Revision, Clinical Modification codes as defined by the Patient Safety Indicator "Postoperative Sepsis" developed by the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ). Severe sepsis was defined as sepsis complicated by organ dysfunction. A total of 1,276,451 surgery discharges (537,843 elective [42.1%] and 738,608 non-elective [57.9%]procedures) were identified. After elective surgery, 5,865 patients (1.09%) developed postoperative sepsis, of whom 2,778 (0.52%) had severe sepsis. The incidence of postoperative sepsis after elective surgery increased from 0.67% to 1.74% (p<0.0001) and severe sepsis after elective surgery from 0.22% to 1.12% (p<0.0001). The sepsis mortality rate for elective procedures showed no significant change over time. The proportion of severe sepsis after elective cases increased from 32.9% to 64.6% (p<0.0002). The rates of postoperative sepsis (4.24%) and severe sepsis (2.28%) were significantly greater for non-elective than for elective procedures (p<0.0002). Non-elective surgical procedures had a significant increase in the rates of postoperative sepsis (3.74% to 4.51%) and severe sepsis (1.79% to 3.15%) over time (p<0.0001) with the proportion of severe sepsis increasing from 47.7% to 69.9% (p<0.0002). The in-hospital mortality rate after non-elective surgery decreased from 37.9% to 29.8% (p<0.0001).

Question: Trends in postoperative sepsis: are we improving outcomes?

Sepsis and death were more likely after non-elective than elective surgery. Sepsis and severe sepsis has increased significantly after elective and non-elective procedures over the last 17 years. The hospital mortality rate was reduced significantly after non-elective surgery, but no improvements were found for elective surgery patients who developed sepsis. Disparities in age, sex, and ethnicity and the development of postoperative surgical sepsis were found. Population-based studies may assist in defining temporal trends, disparities, and outcomes in sepsis not elucidated in smaller studies.

Answer the question based on the following context: Hirsutism is the presence of terminal hairs in women in a male-like pattern. It may result from various causes of androgen excess or may be idiopathic. Controversies exist concerning the presence of insulin resistance in idiopathic hirsutism (IH) or if it is a manifestation of a high body mass index (BMI). To assess insulin resistance in nonobese patients with IH. The study included three groups of age- and BMI-matched nonobese women: 30 patients with IH (group 1), 20 patients with hirsutism associated with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) (group 2) and 20 healthy controls (group 3). The pattern of obesity based on waist to hip ratio (WHR), and insulin resistance based on fasting insulin levels and the homeostasis model assessment of insulin resistance (HOMA-IR) were assessed in all the groups. Sixteen patients with IH and 17 with PCOS had insulin resistance with statistically significant differences in fasting insulin levels and HOMA-IR between the three groups, between patients with IH and healthy controls and between patients with PCOS and healthy controls; there were no significant differences between patients with IH and patients with PCOS. When classified according to the pattern of obesity, 23 patients in group 1, 17 in group 2 and two in group 3 had a WHR>or= 0.85 (android obesity) with highly significant higher values of fasting insulin levels and HOMA-IR in patients with a WHR>or= 0.85 when compared with those with a WHR<0.85.

Question: Is there a role for insulin resistance in nonobese patients with idiopathic hirsutism?

Insulin resistance occurs in nonobese patients with IH and appears to be related to android obesity.

Answer the question based on the following context: To determine whether the new fluoroquinolone prulifloxacin might improve tolerance to Bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG) intravesical therapy in patients with bladder cancer. A series of 72 patients with intermediate- or high-risk nonmuscle-invasive bladder cancer were enrolled in this prospective, randomized, open-label, controlled clinical trial performed at a single tertiary care institution. After complete transurethral resection, patients were randomized to receive induction treatment with BCG and three capsules of prulifloxacin 600 mg or no prophylactic treatment (control group). Adverse events (AEs) were self-recorded by the patients after each instillation and classified by the investigator according to a classification grid considering account duration and intensity. Cystoscopy findings at 3 and 6 months were also recorded. There was no significant difference in baseline symptoms between the groups. Overall, there was a significant decrease in the percentage of patients with at least one AE between instillations in prulifloxacin-treated group. The proportion of patients with moderate to severe AEs after the fourth instillation was significantly less in the prulifloxacin-treated group. There was a significant effect of prulifloxacin on the need for anti-tuberculosis treatment. More patients in the control group stopped or delayed the full induction course of BCG instillations (34% vs 19%, P=0.04). Recurrence rates were not affected by prulifloxacin treatment.

Question: Short-term administration of prulifloxacin in patients with nonmuscle-invasive bladder cancer: an effective option for the prevention of bacillus Calmette-Guérin-induced toxicity?

Prulifloxacin reduces the incidence of moderate to severe AEs from BCG intravesical therapy in patients with nonmuscle-invasive bladder cancer, improving compliance to the induction BCG course. These preliminary findings warrant further clinical research.

Answer the question based on the following context: Traits and mental states are considered to be inter-related parts of theory of mind. Attribution research demonstrates the influential role played by traits in social cognition. However, there has been little investigation into how individuals with autism spectrum disorders (ASD) understand traits. The ability of individuals with ASD to infer traits from descriptions of behavior was investigated by asking participants to read trait-implying sentences and then to choose one of two words that best related to the sentence. In Experiment 1, individuals with ASD performed similarly to matched controls in being faster at choosing the trait in comparison to the semantic associate of one of the words in the sentence. The results from Experiments 1 and 2 provided converging evidence in suggesting that inferring traits from textual descriptions of behavior occurs with relatively little effort. The results of Experiment 3 suggested that making trait inferences took priority over inferring actions or making semantic connections between words.

Question: Do individuals with autism spectrum disorders infer traits from behavior?

Individuals with ASD infer traits from descriptions of behavior effortlessly and spontaneously. The possibility of trait inference being a spared socio-cognitive function in autism is discussed.

Answer the question based on the following context: Studies concerning whether exposure to low levels of maternal alcohol consumption during fetal development is related to child inattention and hyperactivity symptoms have shown conflicting results. We examine the contribution of covariates related to social adversity to resolve some inconsistencies in the extant research by conducting parallel analyses of three cohorts with varying alcohol consumption and attitudes towards alcohol use. We compare three population-based pregnancy-offspring cohorts within the Nordic Network on ADHD from Denmark and Finland. Prenatal data were gathered via self-report during pregnancy and birth outcomes were abstracted from medical charts. A total of 21,678 reports concerning inattention and hyperactivity symptoms in children were available from the Strengths and Difficulties Questionnaire or the Rutter Scale completed by parents and/or teachers. Drinking patterns differed cross-nationally. Women who had at least some social adversity (young, low education, or being single) were more likely to drink than those better off in the Finnish cohort, but the opposite was true for the Danish cohorts. Prenatal alcohol exposure was not related to risk for a high inattention-hyperactivity symptom score in children across cohorts after adjustment for covariates. In contrast, maternal smoking and social adversity during pregnancy were independently and consistently associated with an increase in risk of child symptoms.

Question: Is prenatal alcohol exposure related to inattention and hyperactivity symptoms in children?

Low doses of alcohol consumption during pregnancy were not related to child inattention/hyperactivity symptoms once social adversity and smoking were taken into account.

Answer the question based on the following context: Women with non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) appear to have better survival. This study aimed to evaluate sex differences in NSCLC in recent years. The true effect of gender on the overall survival was analyzed taking other prognostic factors into account. A cohort of consecutive NSCLC patients was prospectively enrolled from January 2002 to December 2005, and followed-up until December 2006. They were clinically and pathologically staged and underwent homogenous treatment algorithms. Demographics, histology, and disease stage between sexes were compared. The clinical prognostic factors to be analyzed in addition to gender included stage, age, smoking history and histology. The overall survival of females and males within relevant subgroups defined by smoking history and histology was also compared. Of the 738 patients, 695 were analyzed with a definite stage (94.2%; 315 females and 380 males), which was similar in both sexes. Females were younger (median age: 59.5 years vs. 65.0 years; P<0.001) and more likely to have adenocarcinoma (81% vs. 60.5%; P<0.001). Patients with earlier stage, younger patients, never-smokers and females had better overall survival in univariate analyses and no significant survival difference was noted between adenocarcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma. Multivariate analyses demonstrated age, smoking history and gender to have a hazard ratio 1.46 (95% confidence interval, CI 1.21-1.76; P<0.001), 1.27 (95% CI 0.97-1.65; P=0.082), and 1.18 (95% CI 0.90-1.55; P=0.226), respectively. Subgroup analyses revealed the survival of never-smoker males with adenocarcinoma was similar to that of females.

Question: Sex-associated differences in non-small cell lung cancer in the new era: is gender an independent prognostic factor?

There are sex-related differences in the clinico-pathologic characteristics and survival of NSCLC patients. The survival advantages of females could be attributed to the younger age and lower smoking prevalence. Never-smokers with adenocarcinoma should be given special attention regardless of sex as they imply better survival with different treatment outcomes.

Answer the question based on the following context: The financing and organization of primary care in the United States has changed dramatically in recent decades. Primary care physicians have shifted from solo practice to larger group practices. The culture of a medical practice is thought to have an important influence on physician behavior. This study examines the effects of practice culture and organizational structure (while controlling for patient and physician characteristics) on the quality of physician decision-making. Data were obtained from a balanced factorial experiment which employed a clinically authentic video-taped scenario of diabetes with emerging peripheral neuropathy. Our findings show that several key practice culture variables significantly influence clinical decision-making with respect to diabetes. Practice culture may contribute more to whether essential examinations are performed than patient or physician variables or the structural characteristics of clinical organizations.

Question: Does the culture of a medical practice affect the clinical management of diabetes by primary care providers?

Attention is beginning to focus on physician behavior in the context of different organizational environments. This study provides additional support for the suggestion that organization-level interventions (especially focused on practice culture) may offer an opportunity to reduce health care disparities and improve the quality of care.

Answer the question based on the following context: Decisions about systemic treatment of women with metastatic breast cancer are often based on estrogen receptor (ER), progesterone receptor (PgR), and Her2 status of the primary tumor. This study prospectively investigated concordance in receptor status between primary tumor and distant metastases and assessed the impact of any discordance on patient management. Biopsies of suspected metastatic lesions were obtained from patients and analyzed for ER/PgR and Her2. Receptor status was compared for metastases and primary tumors. Questionnaires were completed by the oncologist before and after biopsy to determine whether the biopsy results changed the treatment plan. Forty women were enrolled; 35 of them underwent biopsy, yielding 29 samples sufficient for analysis; 3/29 biopsies (10%) showed benign disease. Changes in hormone receptor status were observed in 40% (P = 0.003) and in Her2 status in 8% of women. Biopsy results led to a change of management in 20% of patients (P = 0.002).

Question: Does confirmatory tumor biopsy alter the management of breast cancer patients with distant metastases?

This prospective study demonstrates the presence of substantial discordance in receptor status between primary tumor and metastases, which led to altered management in 20% of cases. Tissue confirmation should be considered in patients with clinical or radiological suspicion of metastatic recurrence.

Answer the question based on the following context: To establish whether or not multiple sclerosis (MS) and neuromyelitis optica (NMO) are different pathological entities, we wondered whether MS patients and NMO patients share the same pattern of human leukocyte antigen (HLA) predisposition. To study a putative association between susceptibility to NMO and HLA class I or class II loci in Caucasians. A total of 39 unrelated Caucasian patients with NMO and six patients at a high risk of converting to NMO were studied. DNA genotyping of HLA class I and class II loci was assessed and allelic frequencies were reported at a high-resolution level. A case-control study by comparing the allelic distribution in the NMO patients with that of a French Caucasian MS group and a French Caucasian healthy group was carried out. The frequencies of HLA-DQA1, DQB1, and HLA-DRB1 DR2 alleles in the NMO group were intermediate between the healthy control group and the MS group. The DPB1*0501 allele was not increased in the NMO group compared with the healthy control group. The distribution of HLA-DRB1 allele enabled to distinguish between NMO-IgG-positive patients and healthy controls (P = 0.01). NMO-IgG-negative patients presented an HLA II pattern closer to that of the MS group (P = 0.01).

Question: Is neuromyelitis optica associated with human leukocyte antigen?

In contrast to the reported results in Asian opticospinal MS, we found no association between the DPB1*0501 allele and NMO in our Caucasian patients. Moreover, we suggest that NMO-IgG-positive patients could represent a distinct NMO group in terms of their genetic susceptibility.

Answer the question based on the following context: To evaluate the efficacy and side effects of concentrated versus dilute botulinum toxin A in treating benign essential blepharospasm. The authors performed a prospective randomized clinical trial of 16 patients with an established diagnosis of benign essential blepharospasm. Patients were randomized to receive low concentration (control, 10 U/ml) injections on one side and high concentration (experimental, 100 U/ml) injections on the other. They were surveyed on a scale of 1 to 10 regarding pain, bruising, and redness immediately after the injection. During their return visit, at an established interval of 1 to 3 months, patients were questioned regarding complications (ptosis, diplopia, tearing, and dry eye), duration of relief, and side preferred. Patients were followed over 8 months for 1 to 6 repeat injections, with the side given the higher concentration alternated at each visit. With 16 patients, there were a total of 42 visits and 84 observations (eyes) documented. Using the Wilcoxon rank sum test, there was a statistically significant reduction in pain scores (1.94 vs. 4.59, p<0.001) on the experimental side versus the control side. Patient assessment revealed no significant difference in bruising, redness, complications of injection, side preference, or length of relief of symptoms.

Question: High versus low concentration botulinum toxin A for benign essential blepharospasm: does dilution make a difference?

Compared with the control, the high concentration botulinum toxin A demonstrated a 58% reduction in perceived pain. Patients did not report a significant difference in efficacy or complications with either dilution.

Answer the question based on the following context: To assess whether TNODS is an independent prognostic factor after adjusting for the lymph node ratio (LNR). The medical literature has suggested that the TNODS is associated with better survival in stage II and III colon cancer. Thus TNODS was endorsed as a quality measure for patient care by American College of Surgeons, National Quality Forum. There is, however, little biologic rationale to support this linkage. : A total of 24,477 stage III colon cancer patients were identified from Surveillance, Epidemiology, and End Results cancer registry and categorized into 4 groups, LNR1 to LNR4, according to LNR interval:<0.07, 0.07 to 0.25, 0.25 to 0.50, and>0.50. Patients were also stratified according to TNODS into high TNODS (>or = 12) and low TNODS (<12) groups. The method of Kaplan-Meier was used to estimate the 5-year survival and the log-rank test was used to test the survival difference among the different groups. Patients with high TNODS have better survival compared with those with low TNODS (5-year survival 51.0% vs. 45.0%, P<0.0001). However, after stratifying by LNR status, there was no significant survival difference between patients with high TNODS and those with low TNODS within strata LNR2 (5-year survival 56.3% vs. 56.0%, P = 0.26). Ironically, patients with high TNODS had significantly worse survival than those with low TNODS within strata LNR3 (5-year survival 41.2% vs. 47.4%, P = 0.0009) and LNR 4 (5-year survival 22.0% vs. 32.1%, P<0.0001).

Question: Should total number of lymph nodes be used as a quality of care measure for stage III colon cancer?

The previously reported prognostic effect of TNODS on node-positive colon cancer was confounded by LNR. This observation calls into question the use of TNODS as a quality measure for colon cancer patients' care.

Answer the question based on the following context: Asthma is associated with significant morbidity. Previous studies highlight significant variations in asthma management approaches within primary care settings where the adoption of published asthma guidelines is typically suboptimal. To determine whether the implementation of an evidence-based asthma care program in community primary care settings leads to improved clinical outcomes in asthma patients. A community-based participatory research project was implemented at 8 primary care practices across Ontario, Canada, consisting of elements based on the Canadian Asthma Consensus Guidelines (asthma care map, program standards, management flow chart and action plan). A total of 1408 patients aged 2-55 years participated. Conditional logistic regression analyses were used to calculate the odds ratios (OR) comparing baseline to follow-up while adjusting for age, gender, socioeconomic status and other covariates. At 12-month follow-up, there were statistically significant reductions in self-reported asthma exacerbations from 77.8% to 54.5% [OR = 0.35; 95% confidence interval (CI): 0.28-0.43]; emergency room visits due to asthma from 9.9% to 5.5% (OR = 0.47; 95% CI: 0.32-0.62); school absenteeism in children from 19.9% to 10.2% (OR = 0.37; 95% CI: 0.25-0.54); productivity loss in adults from 12.0% to 10.3% (OR = 0.49; 95% CI: 0.34-0.71); uncontrolled daytime asthma symptoms from 62.4% to 41.4% (OR = 0.34; 95% CI: 0.27-0.42); and uncontrolled nighttime asthma symptoms from 46.4% to 25.4% (OR = 0.29; 95% CI: 0.23-0.37).

Question: Can a community evidence-based asthma care program improve clinical outcomes?

Development and implementation of a community-based primary care asthma care program led to risk reductions in exacerbations, symptoms, urgent health service use and productivity loss related to asthma.

Answer the question based on the following context: The aim of this study was to identify risk factors and possible predictors of severity of suicidal behavior of children and adolescents. Seventy-seven patients (15 boys and 62 girls) aged 15.5+/-1.6 years on average, hospitalized due to a suicidal attempt in the department of pediatric psychiatry, were examined. Structured interviews with patients and their parents were used to clinically assess circumstances of suicidal behavior, relevant risk factors and severity of suicidal behavior. The results indicated that patients with any previous traumatic experience tended to have somatically less severe suicidal attempts (p=0.050). Intensity of suicidal intent was associated with a history of depression (p=0.014) and anxiety disorders (p=0.004), and the current stress from a mental disorder (p=0.014). Somatic severity of suicidal behavior was significantly associated with intensity of suicidal intent (p=0.014). A history of any trauma (previous traumatic experience predicted less severe suicidal behavior, p=0.053) and the current stress from sexual problems (p=0.067) were identified as predictors of somatic severity of suicidality. These two predictors showed only a trend level of significance. The only significant predictor of intensity of suicidal intent was the current stress from a mental illness (p=0.017).

Question: Suicidal behavior in children and adolescents: does a history of trauma predict less severe suicidal attempts?

Several risk factors of somatic severity of suicidal behavior and intensity of suicidal intent were described. The most important finding of the study was the association between a history of psychological trauma and a tendency to have less somatically severe suicidal behavior.

Answer the question based on the following context: The aim of study was to evaluate the importance of induced abortions for reproduction medicine in Czech Republic. Demographic analysis of data published by EUROSTAT and Czech statistical office. Department of Demography and Geodemography Faculty of Science, Charles University Prague. Widespread use of the liberal abortion law in socialist countries contributed to the decline of fertility rates only to the replacement level. In the Czech Republic total fertility rate dropped below 1.3 in 1995 and it did not increase above 1.5 children per woman till 2007. The increased use of modern contraceptive methods that results in a sharp decline in fertility and in a significant decrease of induced abortions can be documented. The total abortion rate fell from 1.54 abortions per a woman in 1990 to 0.34 in 2007. The proportion of women aged 15-49 years who were prescribed oral contraception increased from 4 percent in 1990 to 48 percent in 2007. An induced abortion is still used largely as a way to avoid birth of additional children by women who already have the number of children they want. This is in sharp contrast with the situation in the majority of Western European countries in which abortion is used mainly by teen-age girls whose attempts to avoid pregnancy have failed.

Question: Induced abortions: still important reproduction loss in the Czech Republic?

In contrast to other demographic characteristics which classify the Czech Republic to Eastern Europe, the level of induced abortion rate is comparable with the levels observed in some Western European countries.

Answer the question based on the following context: In several studies, the prolonged exposure to talc has been associated with development of ovarian cancer. However, some studies have advocated contrary views. The present study aims to investigate histopathological changes and whether long-term talc exposure is associated with potential carcinogenic effects on the female genital organs of rats. The present study was conducted at Dumlupinar University Medical Faculty and a total of 28 Sprague-Dawley rats were included. The experimental animals were allocated into four groups having seven rats each. Groups 1 and 2 served as controls, where the rats in Group 1 did not receive any intervention and Group 2 received intravaginal saline. Groups 3 and 4 received intravaginal or perineal talc application, respectively. Talc was applied for 3 months on a daily basis. Histopathological changes in the peritoneum and female genital system were evaluated. For statistical analyses, Fisher's exact test was carried out using SPSS. In both the groups exposed to talc (Groups 3 and 4), evidence of foreign body reaction and infection, along with an increase in inflammatory cells, were found in all the genital tissues. Genital infection was observed in 12 rats in the study group and 2 rats in the control group. Neoplastic change was not found. However, there was an increase in the number of follicles in animals exposed to talc. No peritoneal change was observed. In the groups not exposed to talc, similar infectious findings were found, but there was a statistically significant difference between the groups (Groups 1 and 2 vs. Groups 3 and 4, P>0.05). Neoplastic change was also not observed in these groups. Four groups were compared in terms of neoplastic effects and infections. In Groups 1, 5 rats were normal, two developed vulvovaginitis and endometritis with overinfection (in both ovaries), and one developed salpingitis (in both fallopian tubes), that is, infection was found in a total of two rats. In Group 2, only one experimental animal had endometritis. All the animals in Groups 3 and 4 developed infections.

Question: Does long-term talc exposure have a carcinogenic effect on the female genital system of rats?

Talc has unfavorable effects on the female genital system. However, this effect is in the form of foreign body reaction and infection, rather than being neoplastic.

Answer the question based on the following context: Anastomotic complications such as leakage and bleeding remain among the most serious complications of laparoscopic colorectal surgery. No perfect method exists for accurate and reliable avoidance of these catastrophes. This study aimed to study the usefulness of routine intraoperative endoscopy (RIOE) by comparing the surgical outcomes for RIOE patients with those for selective intraoperative endoscopy (SIOE) patients. A retrospective chart review was performed for consecutive patients who underwent elective laparoscopic colorectal resections with distal anastomosis between January 2004 and May 2007. One surgeon performed RIOE, whereas the other three surgeons performed SIOE as necessary. All the abnormalities of IOE patients were managed with a subsequent salvage procedure, and the postoperative outcomes were compared between the RIOE and SIOE groups. The study included 107 patients in the RIOE group and 137 patients in the SIOE group. Abnormalities were detected in 11 RIOE patients (10.3%) (six with staple line bleeding, three with positive air leak test results, and two with additional pathology identified). All but one abnormality was laparoscopically managed without conversion to laparotomy. Whereas one patient experienced postoperative staple line bleeding that required a second operation, the remaining 10 patients recovered uneventfully. The mean hospital stay was 6 days (range, 4-9) days. The RIOE group had overall rates of 0% for anastomotic leakage and 0.9% for staple line bleeding. Intraoperative endoscopies were performed for 30 (21.9%) of the 137 patients in the SIOE group. The postoperative outcomes comparison between the RIOE and SIOE groups showed a tendency toward more overall anastomotic complications (0.9% vs. 5.1%) in the SIOE group, which due to the small sample size did not translate into significant differences in terms of staple line bleeding and anastomotic leakage. There also were no significant differences in other outcomes such as ileus, abdominal or pelvic sepsis, reoperation, positive distal margin, distance from distal margins, length of hospital stay, or mortality.

Question: Use of routine intraoperative endoscopy in elective laparoscopic colorectal surgery: can it further avoid anastomotic failure?

Routine IOE for patients undergoing elective laparoscopic colorectal surgery with distal anastomosis can detect abnormalities at or around the anastomosis. Although the RIOE group had fewer postoperative anastomotic complications, due to the small sample size, the 5.7-fold increase in anastomotic failure did not translate into significantly better postoperative outcomes than the SIOE group experienced. A larger-scale single or multicenter prospective randomized study or a metaanalysis including similar studies is necessary for further investigation of this issue.

Answer the question based on the following context: Cytokines may play an important role as inflammatory factors in liver diseases. There is some evidence suggesting a link between adiponectin-biliary function and liver disease. The aim of this study was to clarify the behavior of adipokines in autoimmune hepatitis type 1. We assessed the circulating levels of adiponectin, tumor necrosis factor-alpha, resistin and leptin in 42 patients with autoimmune hepatitis, comparing them with 42 healthy subjects who were matched for age and sex and with 31 patients with nonalcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH), evaluating the associations with markers of cytolysis, cholestasis, and histological severity. Adiponectin and TNF-alpha values were higher in patients compared to controls. The patients showed significantly higher Homeostasis Model Assessment values, suggesting an increased insulin resistance and serum levels of adiponectin positively correlated with gamma-glutamyltranspeptidase and alkaline phosphatase values after a simple regression analysis. Serum levels of resistin positively correlated with elevated aminotransferases and bilirubin values, and serum levels of TNF-alpha positively correlated with elevated alanine-aminotransferase and resistin values. The concentration of adiponectin increased significantly with staging of the disease. Patients with NASH showed lower levels of adiponectin and higher levels of resistin than AIH patients and controls.

Question: Type 1 autoimmune hepatitis and adipokines: new markers for activity and disease progression?

Patients with AIH showed significantly higher adiponectin concentrations than controls despite their higher HOMA-IR values. The significant correlation between adiponectin levels and serological features of cholestasis suggested an association with biliary function. Our results indicate that adiponectin may be a possible marker for disease progression in AIH.

Answer the question based on the following context: Some ongoing trials have suggested that closure of the patent foramen ovale (PFO) may reduce migraine symptoms. We sought to assess the safety and effectiveness of migraine treatment by means of PFO transcatheter closure using paradoxical embolism risk-driven criteria. We enrolled 75 patients (48 women and 27 men, mean age 40 +/- 3.7 years) who were referred to our center over a 12-month period for a prospective study to evaluate severe disabling migraine, despite antiheadache therapy and the PFO. Migraine Disability Assessment Score (MIDAS) was used to assess the incidence of migraine headache and severity. Criteria for intervention included all of the following: basal shunt, curtain shunt pattern on transcranial Doppler, presence of interatrial septal aneurysm, 3 to 4 class MIDAS score, symptomatic significant aura, coagulation abnormalities, migraine refractory to conventional drugs. On the basis of the inclusion criteria, we shortlisted 20 patients (12 women, mean age 35 +/- 6.7 years, mean MIDAS score 38.9 +/- 5.8) for transcatheter closure of PFO and excluded the rest who were referred to the neurologist for medical therapy. The procedure was successful in all of the patients with no perioperative or in-hospital complications. After a mean follow-up of 10 +/- 3.1 months (range 6-14), all patients' migraine symptoms improved (mean MIDAS score 3.0 +/- 2.1, P<0.03) with PFO complete closure in all patients on transesophageal and transcranial Doppler ultrasound.

Question: Transcatheter interatrial shunt closure as a cure for migraine: can it be justified by paradoxical embolism-risk-driven criteria?

In this small pilot series, we adopted the criteria which in our opinion best reflected the risk of paradoxical embolism in these patients. By adopting the proposed criteria, primary transcatheter closure of the PFO resulted in a significant reduction in migraine.

Answer the question based on the following context: The National Kidney Foundation recommends reporting estimates of glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) rather than timed urine collections. When 2 of the 3 major hospitals in our region began reporting eGFR at different times we recognized a natural experiment. We conducted a retrospective, observational study at the 3 major hospitals in Chattanooga, Tennessee. Data were collected on the frequency of timed urines during a 41/2-year period. Regression analysis was used to study the association of the rate of ordering timed urines adjusted for other factors. There was a marked drop in the rate of ordering of timed urines at all 3 hospitals from a mean of 21.8 per 1000 admissions in the first 4 quarter years of the study to 10.9 in the last 4 (15th-18th) quarter years. The drop began before the reporting of eGFR at any hospital. The reporting of eGFR had a small effect (-1.7 per 1000 hospital admissions) that was not statistically significant (P = 0.15).

Question: Does reporting estimated glomerular filtration rate affect ordering of timed urine collections?

There has been a marked drop in the ordering of timed urines in our region. The decline began before the reporting of eGFR at 2 of the hospitals and therefore is attributable to other factors.

Answer the question based on the following context: The ionic detergent sodium dodecyl sulfate (SDS) is a proposed treatment for the removal of antigenic proteins from unfixed biological scaffolds used in tissue engineering. However, questions remain about possible cytotoxic effects of SDS-treated tissues. The study aims were to: (i) develop a sensitive SDS assay for physiological solutions; (ii) measure SDS concentrations in the washing media of SDS-treated tissue; and (iii) determine cytotoxic SDS concentrations in cultured ovine vascular cells. An assay was developed to monitor SDS concentrations at microM levels, based on attenuated total reflectance infrared spectroscopy. Bovine pericardium was treated with SDS (1.0 to 0.01%) and washed for 96 h. The SDS concentration in the washing media was measured at 24-h intervals; data were expressed as microM/g tissue. Ovine vascular cells were cultured in DME media at 37 degrees C for 48 h in various SDS concentrations (10 to 1000 microM). The cells were then counted, and the percentage live cells expressed, based on trypan blue exclusion (n=5). SDS concentrations>or =10 microM significantly reduced (p<0.05) the total cell number, while concentrations>or =100 microM reduced (p<0.05) the percentage live cells of ovine vascular cell cultures. SDS was present in the washing media of SDS-treated bovine pericardium. SDS leaching from bovine pericardium was found to depend on the SDS concentration used for the treatment, and diminished with time.

Question: Does sodium dodecyl sulfate wash out of detergent-treated bovine pericardium at cytotoxic concentrations?

SDS leaches from SDS-treated bovine pericardium at concentrations that are potentially cytotoxic. An understanding of the dynamics of SDS washout, based on a sensitive SDS assay, may lead to the creation of protocols for the preparation of biological scaffolds that are free from cytotoxic leaching.

Answer the question based on the following context: The prevalence of allergic disease is known to be low in Eastern Europe. To assess the association of suspected risk factors, including several closely linked to the hygiene hypothesis, with allergic symptoms and atopic sensitization in young school-aged children. Observational study of 13 889 Belarusian children followed up at age 6.5 years in the Promotion of Breastfeeding Intervention Trial (PROBIT). Allergic symptoms and diseases were based on parental responses to the International Study of Asthma and Allergy in Childhood questionnaire, and prick tests to five common inhalant allergens were performed using standard methods. Significantly increased risks of wheezing and hayfever symptoms in the past 12 months, and of recurrent itchy rash were observed in boys, children with a positive first-degree family atopic history, and those who had received probiotics (especially as prophylaxis with antibiotic use). Pet ownership, contact with farm animals, the presence and number of younger and (especially) older siblings, and residency in rural areas of Western Belarus were associated with reduced risks. Maternal postnatal smoking was associated with wheezing and hayfever symptoms, while the duration of exclusive breastfeeding was not protective against any of the studied outcomes. The risk factors for allergic symptoms were similar in children with positive skin-prick tests to those in the overall cohort.

Question: The low prevalence of allergic disease in Eastern Europe: are risk factors consistent with the hygiene hypothesis?

Many of the risk and protective factors we identified are consistent with those reported in Western countries and with the hygiene hypothesis. Further research on dietary and other environmental and genetic factors is necessary to understand the low prevalence of allergic disease in Belarus and other Eastern European countries.

Answer the question based on the following context: The study aimed to evaluate the usability of DVD simulations, the impact on student learning, clinical placement orientation, and the potential for using DVD simulations to reduce the clinical placement burden on the health care system with nursing students. A total of 11 DVD simulations were developed by Monash University academics. Second year students (N=191) from the Bachelor of Nursing course at Monash University, viewed a range of DVDs. Students' perceptions and attitudes about the clinical relevance of the simulations were assessed by having them complete a 7-point Likert self-report scale. Qualitative data was also collected from two focus groups (N=7). Overall, nursing students perceived the DVD simulations positively in relation to learning attention (M=4.93, SD=1.02, CI 4.25-4.54), learning potential (M=4.45, SD= 1.30, CI 5.13-5.50), clinical relevance to practice (M=5.32, SD=0.65, CI 4.36-4.55), and information processing quality (M=5.62, SD= 1.02, CI 5.47-5.76). The following themes emerged from the focus groups: provided familiarisation for clinical placements, learning wastage occurs in varying amounts, simulations could replace some clinical placement rotations, supportive of multidisciplinary approach and integration, and simulations should have pedagogical integration into weekly clinical cases.

Question: Can interprofessional education DVD simulations provide an alternative method for clinical placements in nursing?

Nursing students reported that the simulations were educationally, professionally, and clinically relevant. The cost benefit of using DVD simulations as an alternative and potential replacement to elements of nursing clinical placements should be investigated further.

Answer the question based on the following context: Symptomatic severe aortic stenosis is an indication for aortic valve replacement. Some patients are denied intervention. This study provides insight into the proportion of conservatively treated patients and into the reasons why conservative treatment is chosen. Of a patient cohort presenting with severe aortic stenosis between 2004 and 2007, medical records were retrospectively analyzed. Only symptomatic patients (n=179) were included. We studied their characteristics, treatment decisions, and survival. Mean age was 71 years, 50% were male. During follow-up (mean 17 months, 99% complete) 76 (42%) patients were scheduled for surgical treatment (63 conventional valve replacement, 10 transcatheter, 1 heart transplantation, 2 waiting list) versus 101 (56%) who received medical treatment. Reasons for medical treatment were: perceived high operative risk (34%), symptoms regarded mild (19%), stenosis perceived non-severe (14%), and patient preference (9%). In 5% the decision was pending at the time of the analysis and in 20% the reason was other/unclear. Mean age of the surgical group was 68 years versus 73 years for medically treated patients (p=0.004). Predicted mortality (EuroSCORE) was 7.8% versus 11.3% (p=0.006). During follow-up 12 patients died in the surgical group (no 30-day operative mortality), versus 28 in the medical group. Two-year survival was 90% versus 69%.

Question: Therapeutic decisions for patients with symptomatic severe aortic stenosis: room for improvement?

A large proportion (56%) of symptomatic patients does not undergo aortic valve replacement. Often operative risk is estimated (too) high or hemodynamic severity and symptomatic status are misclassified. Interdisciplinary team discussions between cardiologists and surgeons should be encouraged to optimize patient selection for surgery.

Answer the question based on the following context: The study was designed to assess retrospectively whether there is a difference in the cancer rates between palpable and nonpalpable probably benign breast nodules detected by sonography. We further investigated the clinicopathologic results of sonographically false-negative cases. This study included 352 women who had undergone sonographically guided core biopsies for 374 BI-RADS category 3 masses between March 2004 and February 2005. No masses were diagnosed with definite malignant findings on mammography. The cancer rates of nonpalpable and palpable masses were compared using Fisher's exact test. The clinicopathologic results of sonographically false-negative cases were investigated. Among the 374 masses, 86 masses (23%) that were lost to follow-up were excluded. Of the 288 masses with follow-up or excision, the cancer rate was 2.4% (7/288). The cancer rate of the nonpalpable masses was 2.1% (4/194) (95% CI, 0.6-5.2%), and the cancer rate of the palpable masses was 3.2% (3/94) (95% CI, 0.6-9.0%), with no statistically significant difference (p = 0.6864). Of the seven cancers, five were diagnosed by a sonographically guided core biopsy and two were diagnosed by surgical excision after a benign biopsy. The seven sonographically false-negative masses in seven patients were identified as three invasive ductal carcinomas, two ductal carcinomas in situ, one mucinous carcinoma, and one papillary carcinoma on the basis of pathology results.

Question: Probably benign breast masses diagnosed by sonography: is there a difference in the cancer rate according to palpability?

There is no statistically significant difference between the cancer rates of palpable and nonpalpable BI-RADS category 3 masses seen on sonography.

Answer the question based on the following context: Several studies have reported male-female differences in the prevalence of symptoms of work-related musculoskeletal disorders (MSD), some arising from workplace exposure differences. The objective of this paper was to compare two strategies analyzing a single dataset for the relationships between risk factors and MSD in a population-based sample with a wide range of exposures. The 1998 Québec Health and Social Survey surveyed 11 735 respondents in paid work and reported "significant" musculoskeletal pain in 11 body regions during the previous 12 months and a range of personal, physical, and psychosocial risk factors. Five studies concerning risk factors for four musculoskeletal outcomes were carried out on these data. Each included analyses with multiple logistic regression (MLR) performed separately for women, men, and the total study population. The results from these gender-stratified and unstratified analyses were compared. In the unstratified MLR models, gender was significantly associated with musculoskeletal pain in the neck and lower extremities, but not with low-back pain. The gender-stratified MLR models identified significant associations between each specific musculoskeletal outcome and a variety of personal characteristics and physical and psychosocial workplace exposures for each gender. Most of the associations, if present for one gender, were also found in the total population. But several risk factors present for only one gender could be detected only in a stratified analysis, whereas the unstratified analysis added little information.

Question: Should studies of risk factors for musculoskeletal disorders be stratified by gender?

Stratifying analyses by gender is necessary if a full range of associations between exposures and MSD is to be detected and understood.

Answer the question based on the following context: To retrospectively determine whether increased/asymmetric FDG uptake on PET without a correlating morphological lesion on fully diagnostic CT indicates the development of a head and neck malignancy. In 590 patients (mean age 55.4 +/- 13.3 years) without a head and neck malignancy/inflammation FDG uptake was measured at (a) Waldeyer's ring, (b) the oral floor, (c) the larynx, and (d) the thyroid gland, and rated as absent (group A), present (group B), symmetric (group B1) or asymmetric (group B2). Differences between groups A and B and between B1 and B2 were tested for significance with the U-test (p<0.05). An average follow-up of about 2.5 years (mean 29.5 +/- 13.9 months) served as the reference period to determine whether patients developed a head and neck malignancy. Of the 590 patients, 235 (40%) showed no evidence of enhanced FDG uptake in any investigated site, and 355 (60%) showed qualitatively elevated FDG uptake in at least one site. FDG uptake values (SUV(max), mean+/-SD) for Waldeyer's ring were 3.0 +/- 0.89 in group A (n = 326), 4.5 +/- 2.18 in group B (n = 264; p<0.01), 5.4 +/- 3.35 in group B1 (n = 177), and 4.1 +/- 1.7 in group B2 (n = 87; p<0.01). Values for the oral floor were 2.8 +/- 0.74 in group A (n = 362), 4.7 +/- 2.55 in group B (n = 228; p<0.01), 4.4 +/- 3.39 in group B1 (n = 130), and 5.1 +/- 2.69 in group B2 (n = 98, p = 0.01). Values for the larynx were 2.8 +/- 0.76 in group A (n = 353), 4.2 +/- 2.05 in group B (n = 237; p<0.01), 4.0 +/- 2.02 in group B1 (n = 165), and 4.6 +/- 2.8 in group B2 (n = 72; p = 0.027). Values for the thyroid were 2.4 +/- 0.63 in group A (n = 404), 3.0 +/- 1.01 in group B (n = 186; p<0.01), 2.6 +/- 0.39 in group B1 (n = 130), and 4.0 +/- 1.24 in group B2 (n = 56; p<0.01). One patient developed a palatine tonsil carcinoma (group B1, SUV(max) 3.2), and one patient developed an oral floor carcinoma (group B1, SUV(max) 3.7).

Question: Incidental head and neck (18)F-FDG uptake on PET/CT without corresponding morphological lesion: early predictor of cancer development?

Elevated/asymmetric head and neck FDG accumulation without a correlating morphological lesion can frequently be found and does not predict cancer development. In populations in which goitre is endemic, FDG uptake by the thyroid is common and not associated with thyroid cancer.

Answer the question based on the following context: Trait negative affect has been implicated as a risk marker for cardiovascular disease, but the mechanisms underlying this association are uncertain. Our aim was to examine associations between trait measures of anger, hostility, depression, and anxiety with endothelial dysfunction via brachial artery flow-mediated dilation (FMD), an early indicator of cardiovascular disease. FMD was examined in 332 healthy older adults. Measures included Beck Anxiety and Depression Inventories, Cook-Medley Hostility Scale, and Spielberger State-Trait Anger Expression Inventory (Anger In, Anger Out, and Trait Anger). Mean age was 60.5 +/- 4.8 years; 83% of participants were Caucasian and 49% were female. FMD was greater in women compared to men (6.17% vs. 4.07%, p<0.001). Women reported significantly greater Anxiety (p<0.001), and men reported greater Hostility (p = 0.004). In separate multivariable linear regression models controlling for cardiovascular risk factors, plus current hormone therapy for women, smaller FMD was associated with higher Anger In for women (beta = -0.222, p = 0.04) and showed a trend with higher Hostility for men (beta = -0.082, p = 0.09).

Question: Is brachial artery flow-mediated dilation associated with negative affect?

Endothelial dysfunction, as indicated by less vasodilatation of the brachial artery, is positively associated with measures of hostility and anger suppression in healthy older adults. Thus, associations between negative affect and cardiovascular health may be apparent early in the disease process.

Answer the question based on the following context: The only curative option for patients with pancreatic cancer is surgical resection. The potential for significant morbidity and mortality following these procedures along with short-term survival benefit has called into question the role of surgery in this disease. Several recent reports have shown that morbidity, mortality, and survival can be improved if these pancreatic resections are performed at centers where large volumes of cases are done annually. A retrospective review of the tumor registry from 1994 to 2003 identified 242 cases of pancreatic cancer diagnosed and/or treated at our institution. During this period, 31/242 (13%) patients underwent surgical resection. Patients' charts were reviewed for diagnosis, stage of tumor, presenting symptoms, surgery, length of stay, and survival. Morbidity and mortality rates were calculated for all patients. Thirty-one resections were performed in 16 males and 15 females. The median age at presentation was 69 years. The most common presenting symptom was painless jaundice. A pancreaticoduodenectomy was the most common procedure (n = 24), while 7 distal pancreatectomies were also performed. Eight surgeons performed the 31 resections with one surgeon performing 12 of the cases. The median length of stay was 16 days. Complications arose in 15/31 (48%) patients. There was no 30-day surgical or in-hospital mortality.

Question: Surgical outcomes following pancreatic resection at a low-volume community hospital: do all patients need to be sent to a regional cancer center?

Major pancreatic surgery can be performed safely at community hospitals. It is imperative that each hospital is responsible for providing morbidity and mortality figures related to pancreatic procedures performed at their institution. In this changing climate of reimbursement and pay for performance, institutions that do not do this may be required to send these cases to regional centers.

Answer the question based on the following context: To compare the preoperative clinical symptoms and associated conditions and findings in operations in age- and sex-matched patients with primary hyperparathyroidism (PHPT) living in the two different regions of the world to determine whether PHPT differs in various countries. Fifty-two patients from Bursa, Turkey were matched with 52 age and sex matched patients from San Francisco, USA. Patients' preoperative symptoms, biochemical and radiologic findings and surgical procedures were documented. More patients in the American Group (15%) had preoperatively persistant or recurrent hyperparathyroidism, P = 0.016. Serum parathyroid hormone levels were higher in Turkish group (546 +/- 75.33 pg/mL) than in American group (146 +/- 75.33 pg/mL). More Turkish patients had osteoporosis (P<0.05). The size of parathyroid adenomas was significantly greater in Turkish patients (25.2 +/- 1.18 mm) than in American patients (17.5 +/- 1.18 mm), P<0.001.

Question: Do patients undergoing parathyroidectomy for primary hyperparathyroidism in San Francisco, CA, and Bursa, Turkey, differ?

Patients with PHPT from Bursa, Turkey have higher plasma parathyroid hormone levels, larger parathyroid adenomas and more severe bone disease than in age and sex matched patients with PHPT in San Francisco.

Answer the question based on the following context: Risk stratification allows preoperative assessment of cardiac surgical risk faced by individual patients and permits retrospective analysis of postoperative complications in the intensive care unit (ICU). The aim of this single-center study was to investigate the prediction of extended ICU stay after cardiac surgery using both the additive and logistic model of the European System for Cardiac Operative Risk Evaluation (EuroSCORE). A retrospective observational study was conducted. We collected clinical data of 1562 consecutive patients undergoing cardiac surgery over a 2-year period at the Antwerp University Hospital, Belgium. EuroSCORE values of all patients were obtained. The outcome measure was the duration of ICU stay in days. The predictive performance of EuroSCORE was analyzed by the discriminatory power of a receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curve. Each EuroSCORE value was used as a theoretical cut-off point to predict duration of ICU stay. Three subsequent ICU stays were defined as prolonged: more than 2, 5 and 7 days. ROC curves were constructed for both the additive and logistic model. Patients had a median ICU stay of 2 days and a mean ICU stay of 5.5 days. Median additive EuroSCORE was 5 (range, 0-22) and logistic EuroSCORE was 3.94% (range, 0.00-87.00). In the additive EuroSCORE model, a predictive value of 0.76 for an ICU stay of>7 days, 0.72 for>5 days and 0.67 for>2 days was found. The logistic EuroSCORE model yielded an area under the ROC curve of 0.77, 0.75 and 0.68 for each ICU length of stay, respectively.

Question: Is EuroSCORE useful in the prediction of extended intensive care unit stay after cardiac surgery?

In our patient database, prolonged length of stay in the ICU correlated positively with EuroSCORE. The logistic model was more discriminatory than the additive in tracing extended ICU stay. The overall predictive performance of EuroSCORE is acceptable and most likely based on the presence of variables that are risk factors for both mortality and extended ICU stay. Hence, EuroSCORE is a useful predicting tool and provides both surgeons and intensivists with a good estimate of patient risk in terms of ICU stay.

Answer the question based on the following context: To compare the prevalence and intensity of victimisation from bullying and the characteristics of the victim of bullying, comparing adolescents with and adolescents without chronic conditions (CC). School survey. Postmandatory schools. A total of 7005 students (48% females) aged 16-20 years, distributed into adolescents with CC (728, 50% females) and controls (6277, 48% females). Chronic condition was defined as having a chronic disease and/or a physical disability. Prevalence of bullying-intensity of bullying-and sociodemographic, biopsychosocial, familial, school and violence context characteristics of the victims of bullying. The prevalence of bullying in our sample was 13.85%. Adolescents with CC were more likely to be victims of bullying (adjusted OR 1.53), and to be victims of two or three forms of bullying (adjusted OR 1.92). Victims of bullying with CC were more likely than non-victims to be depressed (RR 1.57), to have more physical symptoms (RR 1.61), to have a poorer relationship with their parents (RR 1.33), to have a poorer school climate (RR 1.60) and to have been victims of sexual abuse (RR 1.79) or other forms of violence (RR 1.80). Although these characteristics apply to victims in general, in most cases, they are less pronounced among victims without CC.

Question: Are adolescents with chronic conditions particularly at risk for bullying?

CC seems to be a risk factor for victimisation from bullying. Therefore, as adolescents with CC are increasingly mainstreamed, schools should be encouraged to undertake preventive measures to avoid victimisation of such adolescents.

Answer the question based on the following context: To describe sexual behaviour trends in a rural Ugandan cohort in the context of an evolving HIV epidemic, 1993-2006. Sexual behaviour data were collected annually from a population cohort in which HIV serological surveys were also conducted. Behaviour trends were determined using survival analysis and logistic regression. Trends are reported based on the years in which the respective indicators were collected. Between 1993 and 2006, median age at first sex increased from 16.7 years to 18.2 years among 17-20-year-old girls and from 18.5 years to 19.9 years among boys. Both sexes reported a dip in age at sexual debut between 1998 and 2001. One or more casual partners in the past 12 months among men rose from 11.6% in 1997 to 12.7% in 2004 and then declined to 10.2% in 2006. Among women it increased from 1.4% in 1997 to 3.7% in 2004 and then reduced to 1.4% in 2006. The rise in casual partners between 1997 and 2004 was driven mainly by older age groups. Trends in condom use with casual partners varied by age, increasing among those aged 35+ years, declining in the middle age groups and presenting a dip and then a rise in the youngest aged group (13-19 years).

Question: Is sexual risk taking behaviour changing in rural south-west Uganda?

Among youth, risky behaviour declined but increased in the late 1990s/early 2000s. Among those aged 35+ years, condom use rose but casual partners also rose. Several indicators portrayed a temporary increase in risk taking behaviour from 1998 to 2002.

Answer the question based on the following context: Over 2000 improvised rockets (called "Kassam" rockets) have been targeted at the south of Israel from the Gaza strip since 2001. Most of them have injured relatively few people. The first known case of a multicasualty incident (MCI) caused by the landing of a single, improvised rocket is described. The event is described according to the disastrous incidents systematic analysis through components, interactions and results methodology (DISAST-CIR). The rocket hit a military training tent camp in the south of Israel at 01:18 hours. At that time, all soldiers were in bed and were not using any protective gear. A total of 76 soldiers was injured (three severe, eight moderate and 65 mild). The most prevalent types of injuries were upper extremity (33%) and lower extremity (30%) trauma, tinnitus (30%) and acute stress reactions (32%). A total of 67 casualties was evacuated to the nearest level two hospital, Barzilai, in a two-phase distribution characterised by different patterns of injury severity and type. All urgent casualties arrived at hospitals within 1 h 24 minutes, whereas most stress casualties arrived in the later phase. Seven casualties were secondarily transported to level one trauma centres. 42 of the casualties were hospitalised and 17 needed urgent surgery. None has died.

Question: A single, improvised "Kassam" rocket explosion can cause a mass casualty incident: a potential threat for future international terrorism?

A single low-tech mortar with poor accuracy and small warhead (estimated weight of 10 kg only) can cause a large-scale MCI. As international terrorist organisations can easily gain access to improvised rockets, the latter may become a threat in many countries. Emergency systems should thus be prepared for that adverse possibility.

Answer the question based on the following context: To determine whether family history of psychiatric disorder constitutes a risk factor for the development of poststroke depression. A meta-analysis setting: patients examined for depression following stroke seen in acute care, rehabilitation hospital, or outpatient care settings. All patients who were reported in the world's literature in English language publications in which information was provided about the existence or not of poststroke depression and the presence or absence of a family history of psychiatric disorder. The frequency of family history of psychiatric disorder was determined for each study as well as the relationship of family history to the presence of poststroke depression. Based on data obtained from 903 patients with stroke, the fixed model analysis found a risk ratio of 1.51 and the random model a risk ratio of 1.46 for the existence of poststroke depression if there is a positive family history of psychiatric disorder compared with a negative family history.

Question: Is family history of depression a risk factor for poststroke depression?

The existence of a positive family history of psychiatric disorder constitutes a risk factor for development of poststroke depression. The role of family history in poststroke depression, however, appears to be substantially lower than among elderly depressed patients without evidence of vascular disease.

Answer the question based on the following context: A meta-analysis of observational studies on association between cigarette smoking and pancreatic cancer was performed to focus, particularly, on the role of the studies' quality in affecting meta-analysis results. A bibliographic search was carried out on PubMed and EMBASE databases until February 15, 2008. Key words were "pancreatic neoplasms," "pancreatic cancer," "smoking," "smoke," "cigarette," "case-control studies," and "cohort studies." Studies about cigarette smoking and pancreatic cancer were selected and assessed on quality. STATA 9.0 was used. Six cohort studies and 24 case-control studies were selected, with median quality scores of 8 (range, 3) and 10 (range, 8), respectively. Pooled case-control studies' odds ratio (OR) and cohort studies' risk ratio were, respectively, 1.45 (95% confidence interval [CI], 1.33-1.57) and 1.78 (95% CI, 1.64-1.92). After stratifying for quality scoring, high-quality-scored case-control studies yielded an OR of 1.38 (95% CI, 1.27-1.49), whereas the others gave an OR of 1.52 (95% CI, 1.34-1.73). The results of meta-analysis for cohort studies showed a risk ratio of 1.74 (95% CI, 1.61-1.90) and of 2.10 (95% CI, 1.64-2.67), respectively, for high- and low-quality score studies.

Question: Does quality of observational studies affect the results of a meta-analysis?

There is evidence that cigarette smoking is an important risk factor for pancreatic cancer, but the estimate of the association greatly relies on the studies' quality.

Answer the question based on the following context: The degree of xerostomia in patients treated for intermediate-and high-grade non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) of Waldeyer's ring (WR) is unknown. Fifteen patients treated for stage I-IV NHL of WR with radiotherapy (RT) were administered a xerostomia questionnaire. Numerical responses (0 = no xerostomia; 100 = maximum xerostomia) were compared with responses from 5 sets of patients treated for head and neck squamous cell carcinoma who were grouped by amount of parotid in RT field: larynx-only, ipsilateral parotid, bilateral-partial parotid, bilateral-total parotid, parotid-sparing intensity-modulated radiotherapy. Waldeyer's patients' median xerostomia questionnaire score was 31, which was significantly different from the larynx-only group, bilateral-partial parotid group, and bilateral-total parotid group, but not significantly different from the ipsilateral parotid group or parotid-sparing intensity-modulated radiotherapy group.

Question: Xerostomia in long-term survivors of aggressive non-Hodgkin's lymphoma of Waldeyer's ring: a potential role for parotid-sparing techniques?

Xerostomia in survivors WR NHL is a detectable toxicity with severity like that in head and neck squamous cell carcinoma patients who receive ipsilateral parotid irradiation, and warrants parotid-sparing RT techniques.

Answer the question based on the following context: There is currently an experts' agreement discouraging interruption of antiretroviral treatment (ART) during the first trimester of pregnancy in women infected with human immunodeficiency virus type 1 (HIV-1). However, this recommendation is poorly supported by data. We evaluated the effects of discontinuing ART during pregnancy on the rate of mother-to-child transmission. Logistic regression models were performed in a prospective cohort of 937 children who were perinatally exposed to HIV-1 to estimate adjusted odds ratios for confounding factors on mother-to-child transmission, including maternal interruption of ART. Among 937 pregnant women infected with HIV-1, ART was interrupted in 81 (8.6%) in the first trimester and in 11 (1.2%) in the third trimester. In the first trimester, the median time at suspension of ART was 6 weeks (interquartile range [IQR], 5-6 weeks) and the time without treatment was 8 weeks (IQR, 7-11 weeks). In the third trimester, the median time at suspension of ART was 32 weeks (IQR, 23-36 weeks) and the time without treatment was 6 weeks (IQR, 2-9 weeks). The plasma viral load was similar in women who had treatment interrupted in the first trimester and in those who did not have treatment interrupted. Overall, the rate of mother-to-child transmission in the whole cohort was 1.3% (95% confidence interval [CI], 0.7%-2.3%), whereas it was 4.9% (95% CI, 1.9%-13.2%) when ART was interrupted in the first trimester and 18.2% (95% CI, 4.5%-72.7%) when ART was interrupted in the third trimester. In the multiple logistic regression models, only interruption of ART during either the first or the third trimester, maternal mono- or double therapy, delivery by a mode other than elective cesarean delivery, and a viral load at delivery>4.78 log(10) copies/mL were independently associated with an increased rate of mother-to-child transmission.

Question: Is the interruption of antiretroviral treatment during pregnancy an additional major risk factor for mother-to-child transmission of HIV type 1?

Discontinuing ART during pregnancy increases the rate of mother-to-child transmission of HIV-1, either when ART is stopped in the first trimester and subsequently restarted or when it is interrupted in the third trimester. This finding supports recommendations to continue ART in pregnant women who are already receiving treatment for their health.

Answer the question based on the following context: To investigate the value of additional transition zone (TZ) biopsies following 12-core biopsies in the detection and staging of prostate cancer. From October 2006 to March 2007, 199 transrectal sonographic (TRUS)-guided prostate biopsies (group 1) in 12 peripheral zones (PZ) were performed. Another 199 consecutive patients (group 2) underwent two TZ biopsies in addition to twelve PZ biopsies from March 2007 to July 2007. Mean prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level, prostate volume, Gleason score, and cancer detection rate of each group were compared. The anatomic distribution of prostate cancer in group 2 was also analyzed. Prostate cancer was detected in 76 of 199 patients (38.2%) in group 1 and 71 out of 199 patients (35.3%) in group 2. The cancer detection rate, mean PSA level, prostate volume, and Gleason score were not statistically different in the 2 groups. Cancer was detected by additional TZ biopsies alone in just one out of 71 patients (1.4%).

Question: Should transition zone biopsies be added to 12-core systematic biopsies of the prostate?

Routine TZ biopsies following 12-core systematic biopsies are not warranted for the detection of TZ cancer because of their low additional yield.

Answer the question based on the following context: To evaluate the impact of Down syndrome on the early postoperative outcomes of children undergoing complete atrioventricular septal defect repair. Retrospective cohort study. Single tertiary pediatric cardiac center. All children admitted to PICU following biventricular surgical repair of complete atrioventricular septal defect from January 2004 to December 2009. None. A total of 107 children, 67 with Down syndrome, were included. Children with Down syndrome were operated earlier: 4 months (interquartile range, 3.5-6.6) versus 5.7 months (3-8.4) for Down syndrome and non-Down syndrome groups, respectively (p<0.01). There was no early postoperative mortality. There was no significant difference in the prevalence of dysplastic atrioventricular valve between the two groups. Two children (2.9%) from Down syndrome and three children (7.5%) from non-Down syndrome group required early reoperation (p = 0.3). Junctional ectopic tachycardia was the most common arrhythmia, and the prevalence of junctional ectopic tachycardia was similar between the two groups (9% and 10% in Down syndrome and non-Down syndrome, respectively, p = 1). One patient from each group required insertion of permanent pacemaker for complete heart block. Children with Down syndrome had significantly higher prevalence of noncardiac complications, that is, pneumothorax, pleural effusions, and infections (p<0.01), than children without Down syndrome. There was a trend for longer duration of mechanical ventilation in children with Down syndrome (41 hr [20-61 hr] vs 27.5 hr [15-62 hr], p = 0.2). However, there was no difference in duration of PICU stay between the two groups (2 d [1.3-3 d] vs 2 d [1-3 d], p = 0.9, respectively).

Question: Early postoperative outcomes following surgical repair of complete atrioventricular septal defects: is down syndrome a risk factor?

In our study, we found no difference in the prevalence of atrioventricular valve dysplasia between children with and without Down syndrome undergoing complete atrioventricular septal defect repair. This finding contrasts with previously published data, and further confirmatory studies are required. Although clinical outcomes were similar, children with Down syndrome had a significantly higher prevalence of noncardiac complications in the early postoperative period than children without Down syndrome.

Answer the question based on the following context: To evaluate the impact of a health plan-driven employee health and wellness program (known as MyHealth Rewards) on health outcomes (stroke and myocardial infarction) and cost of care. A cohort of Geisinger Health Plan members who were Geisinger Health System (GHS) employees throughout the study period (2007 to 2011) was compared with a comparison group consisting of Geisinger Health Plan members who were non-GHS employees. The GHS employee cohort experienced a stroke or myocardial infarction later than the non-GHS comparison group (hazard ratios of 0.73 and 0.56; P<0.01). There was also a 10% to 13% cost reduction (P<0.05) during the second and third years of the program. The cumulative return on investment was approximately 1.6.

Question: Can health insurance improve employee health outcome and reduce cost?

Health plan-driven employee health and wellness programs similarly designed as MyHealth Rewards can potentially have a desirable impact on employee health and cost.

Answer the question based on the following context: Reconstruction of the anatomic architecture correlates with functional outcome in patients receiving elective total hip arthroplasty. In theory similar rules should apply for bipolar hemiarthroplasty in femoral neck fractures. The influence of anatomic restoration after bipolar hemiarthroplasty on short-term clinical and functional outcome is explored in this study. Patients receiving bipolar hemiarthroplasty for intracapsular femoral neck fractures between 2010 and 2012 were included into a retrospective cohort study. Radiologic and functional outcome parameters were recorded during the acute care phase and geriatric rehabilitation. Postoperative mobilization data were recorded and co-morbidities documented for each case. Outcome parameters were obtained during geriatric rehabilitation: Barthel index, Tinetti score, Timed up and go test, Mini-Mental State Examination. The FO-ratio (ratio of femoral offset to the body weight lever arm), HC-ratio (ratio of the height of the hip center to the pelvic height) and the BWLA ratio (ratio of the body weight lever arm to the pelvic height) were obtained from postoperative radiographs. A total of 193 patients with a median age of 84 (IQR = 78-94, 72% female) were analyzed. The in-hospital mortality rate was 5.7%. There was a high proportion of patients with prior co-morbidities (96% with at least one co-morbidity). During rehabilitation the Barthel index improved significantly (p<0.001) from 40 to 55. The median Tinetti score on rehabilitation discharge was 15.5 (IQR = 10-19.5). The patients significantly improved in the timed up and go test from a median of 22 to 19 s. A significant difference (p<0.001) was found comparing the FO ratios of the operated vs. non-operated side. None of the radiographic measures, representing the reconstructed anatomic hip geometry, significantly influenced the clinical and geriatric outcome.

Question: Restoration of hip architecture with bipolar hemiarthroplasty in the elderly: does it affect early functional outcome?

Applying the short-term functional outcome scores used in this study, optimized anatomic restoration in hemiarthroplasty may not be a major influencing factor in a cohort of elder, multi-morbid patients.

Answer the question based on the following context: Inflammaging is a phenomenon triggered by the conjunction of chronic repetitive and subclinical inflammation from external aggressors and internal inflammatory mechanisms due to the progressive degradation of systems such as the mitochondrial function. Age-related macular degeneration is the leading cause of blindness and visual impairment in patients older than 60 years in developed countries. Remarkable correlations have been documented between common or rare immunological/inflammatory gene polymorphisms and AMD, unequivocally indicating the involvement of inflammation and immune-mediated processes (complement activation) in the pathogenesis of this disease.

Question: Inflammaging: should this term be suitable for age related macular degeneration too?

Altogether these factors also drive this pathologic condition under the general heading of "Inflammaging".

Answer the question based on the following context: Patients with residual poliomyelitis can have advanced degenerative arthritis of the hip in the paralytic limb or the nonparalytic contralateral limb. Although THA is a treatment option for some of these patients, there are few studies regarding THA in this patient population.QUESTIONS/ We therefore reviewed a group of patients with residual poliomyelitis who underwent cementless THA on either their paralytic limb or nonparalytic limb to assess (1) Harris hip scores, (2) radiographic results, including implant loosening, (3) complications, including dislocation, and (4) limb length discrepancy after recovery from surgery. From January 2000 to December 2009, 10 patients with residual poliomyelitis (10 hips, four paralytic limbs and six nonparalytic contralateral limbs) underwent THA using cementless prostheses. Harris hip scores, complications, and leg length discrepancy were determined by chart review, and confirmed by questionnaire and examination; radiographs were reviewed by two observers for this study. Followup was available for all 10 patients at a minimum of 3 years (median, 7 years; range, 3.4-13 years). Surgery was done at the same side of the paralytic limb in four hips and contralateral to the paralytic limb in six. All patients had pain relief and improvement in function; the Harris hip score improved from mean of 68 preoperatively to 92 at last followup (p = 0.043). However, only three patients had complete pain relief. One hip dislocated, which was treated successfully with closed reduction and a hip spica cast for 2 months. There was no loosening or osteolysis in this series. Leg length discrepancy improved after the index operation, but only in the THAs performed in the paralytic limbs.

Question: Total hip arthroplasty performed in patients with residual poliomyelitis: does it work?

Cementless THA may be suitable for painful hips in adult patients with residual poliomyelitis. Nonetheless, these patients should be informed of the possibility of mild residual pain and persistent leg length discrepancy, particularly patients whose THA is performed on the limb that was not affected by polio (ie, the nonparalytic contralateral limb).