Talk:Ditransitive verb

message: The article has: ...ungrammatical when both objects are pronouns:
:*He gave me it. (gave it to me)
:*Jean introduced him her. (introduced her to him)
I find the first example totally acceptable, and the second jarring even without pronouns *Jean introduced Peter Susan.  Is this just me? --Henrygb 00:22, 1 September 2005 (UTC)
replies: text: Both are unacceptable in my 'lect (urban Southern U.S.); we need to fix the article to say this usage varies from one dialect of English to another. --Jim Henry | Talk 15:06, 1 September 2005 (UTC)

text: The next step is internationalization. I'll see what I can contribute, tomorrow. It'd probably be better to move the English usage section to an independent article. --Pablo D. Flores (Talk) 02:46, 2 September 2005 (UTC)
thread_title: Multiple pronoun examples

message: Is both:
;He gave Mary ten dollars. and
;He gave ten dollars to Mary.
considered ditranstive use of the verb "give"?
:I think they're both ditransitive, since in both cases the verb has three arguments: subject and two kinds of object. --Jim Henry (talk) 22:53, 12 September 2008 (UTC)
replies: text: In English a lot of verbs can be intransitive, transitive or ditransitive according to context, without special marking on the verb.  Some other languages mark their verbs for valency, i.e. to make a transitive verb intransitive or vice versa you add a prefix or suffix or whatever; I'm not sure how/whether those languages treat ditransitive verbs differently from monotransitive verbs.  --Jim Henry (talk) 22:53, 12 September 2008 (UTC)
thread_title: Just a quick question

message: We need examples of dechticaetiative or secondary languages.  Esperanto is a split-P language, I think (some ditransitive verbs take their patient as direct object, like "doni", some as a prepositional indirect object, like "provizi" or "regali"), but ideally we want a natural language example of a split-P language too. --Jim Henry (talk) 22:53, 12 September 2008 (UTC)
thread_title: Ditransitive/monotransitive alignment

message: Are read and bake really ditransitive? Their prepositional forms have clear beneficiary adjuncts. I don't think there is any change in sense when they are written in the form without a preposition, so I wouldn't want to say they are semantically ditransitive. I don't know what that construction should be called, but I still think they're bad examples of ditransitive verbs. --Curiousdannii (talk) 11:48, 25 June 2015 (UTC)
thread_title:  Are read and bake really ditransitive? 

message: This article would be more helpful to me if it explained when a sentence is incomplete. I think there are other readers who would find this information useful as well.
 
For example "you gave the impression that ...."
Is that sentence incomplete? 
 "You gave joe the impression that...." is clearly complete because it has both the direct object, "the impression" and the indirect object "joe".  But what about the first example.  Is that an incomplete sentence.
Well anyway it would be nice if this article explained when a sentence with a ditransitive lacking one of the objects is incomplete.
Thanks in advance if some expert in Grammer can explain this.  It would be interesting to me and I believe other readers if the discussion included more than just English. 
But please add the topic of incomplete sentences to this article.  This would make it a lot better. 2601:204:F000:A00:D439:F121:9BE3:8FA9 (talk) 23:10, 25 April 2023 (UTC)
thread_title:  Incomplete sentences