Talk:Twenty-second Amendment to the United States Constitution

message: can anyone help, I know the constitution says so, but what is the reason behind the limitation.  — Preceding unsigned comment added by 84.249.212.212 (talk) 21:13, 25 May 2015 (UTC)
replies: text: I think it's mostly just tradition. Intentionally or not, George Washington effectively set a precedent that a President only serve two terms. FDR broke that tradition, so the tradition was codified into law. —Spencersoft (talk) 07:24, 18 June 2015 (UTC)

text: Possibly the reasoning was, "Roosevelt invited the war in order to get reelected." It may happen with two-term US presidents, but they have only one chance. 2601:600:8500:5B1:218:E7FF:FE7D:6AFA (talk) 09:06, 15 December 2015 (UTC)
replies: text: Nonsense! The reasoning is expressed by Thomas Jefferson, who feared that the possibility of unlimited re-election could result in life-long presidencies and thus monarchical governments. Washington's precedent was used in this way, though not all Presidents (including Washington himself) shared such qualms and tried to win a third term (Grant, Cleveland, T. Roosevelt). Since no president ever had a third term nobody, nobody bothered to actual make this tradition into law. Roosevelt winning a third and fourth term changed that. Roosevelt actually did very little to be nominated for a third term. Str1977 (talk) 11:34, 21 March 2016 (UTC)
replies: text:  My understanding, acquired in history classes, was that this amendment was largely driven by Republican rage over Democratic FDR's four-time success and that even though he was dead they imagined they were somehow taking a stand against him with it. Yes, they were that petty. Both houses of Congress were controlled by the GOP after the 1946 election so that made it easier for them to make this statement. Of course the irony is that the first President to be limited by the 22nd was GOP Eisenhower and not a Democrat.--23.119.204.117 (talk) 17:20, 29 August 2016 (UTC)
thread_title:  The reason for the limitation 

message: This amendment doesn't prevent someone actually being chosen by the people (write-in, for example) for an excessive term as POTUS.  Is this amendment actually more authoritative than the will of the majority's election decisions?  I believe a case could be made successfully that it is not, but I am no legal scholar.  -Ken  — Preceding unsigned comment added by 174.71.78.176 (talk) 14:26, 25 June 2020 (UTC)
replies: text: You’re presenting your layperson’s opinion as fact and inviting discussion on that opinion; this page is not a forum for general discussion. If you have changes to propose, please present them in “change X to Y” format. Thank you. Drdpw (talk) 14:46, 25 June 2020 (UTC)
replies: text: It prevents the electors from voting for that person, Congress from certifying the electoral vote, and the person being administered the oath for a third term. JTRH (talk) 16:37, 25 June 2020 (UTC)

text: You could also ignore all the laws of the land & see how far that gets you. Like Drdpw said, best to have that conversation elsewhere. GoodDay (talk) 18:29, 25 June 2020 (UTC)
thread_title:  What remedy is there if the people defy the 22nd Amendment? 

message: It was stated above that no one had a third term until FDR. This is inaccurate. Cleveland had a third term, although there was a gap between terms 2 and 3.
Most of us believe that the intention of the 22nd Amendment was to prevent a Roosevelt-style third term, but in actual fact, the wording ("No person shall be elected to the office of the President more than twice") would also prevent a Cleveland-style third term. Someone should point this out in the article. — Preceding unsigned comment added by Keeves (talk • contribs) 12:22, June 1, 2022 (UTC)
:Grover Cleveland served two non-consecutive terms, not three terms. -- Vaulter 16:54, 1 June 2022 (UTC)
replies: text: Though he won the popular vote three times, Cleveland was elected to the office of the president only twice. The article is accurate – no one prior to FDR had a third term in office. Also, though the 22nd Amendment would have, were it fully in affect at the time, indeed precluded him (along with Grant and T. Roosevelt) from election to a third term, there is no good reason to point out this bit of hypothetical trivia in the article. Drdpw (talk) 17:24, 1 June 2022 (UTC)
thread_title:  Non-consecutive terms 

message: The amendment states that “But this Article shall not apply to any person holding the office of President when this Article was proposed by the Congress…”. Giving full exemption from the article to the person in office when it was sent to the states (i.e. Truman). Regarding someone in office at the time of ratification, it only says that it doesn’t affect their ability to finish out their term (not their ability to run again). If the provision mentioned in the first paragraph of this comment hadn’t been there, Truman would not have been eligible to run in 1952.
I tried to correct this in the article (with a note explaining the issue), but it was reverted with a note merely saying the original language was correct (which it clearly isn’t).209.134.40.250 (talk) 22:45, 4 June 2022 (UTC)
replies: text: Looking at it again, I see that you are correct. I will restore your edit, Mea culpa. Drdpw (talk) 23:20, 4 June 2022 (UTC)
replies: text: Thanks. One thing, there is now an unclosed parentheses after the first “1952” in the paragraph. I wasn’t sure whether to add a closing parentheses or delete the opening one.209.134.40.250 (talk) 00:40, 5 June 2022 (UTC)
thread_title:  Reason Truman was exempt from the amendment