Talk:Supine

message: The accusative supine in Latin can only be used with verbs of movement. I'll change it if there are no objection. Vegfarandi 19:02, 22 November 2006 (UTC)

message: Can anyone clarify what it means that the second supine is derived from the ablative "or the dative"?
Does this mean that (1) scholars are uncertain whether it came from the dative or the ablative, or (2) scholars believe it somehow came from both the ablative and the dative?
I can believe that proto-Latin really had a full fourth-declension verbal noun.  (There are several fourth declension nouns that are of this form -- sensus, actus, etc.)  And it makes sense that the ablative of these nouns would "become" the second supine.  
But I've never heard of a variant supine mirabile dictui, and I don't see any reference to a dative supine in Bennett or any other source.  So I will remove the "dative" mention unless someone can either explain it or give a source for it. — Lawrence King (talk) 11:14, 23 November 2006 (UTC)
replies: text: This is what my Latin Grammar by Kristinn Ármannsson states. According to him the ablative and dative merged in these nouns, that is, the Romans stopped using the dative form and started to only use the ablative form. (see the note on dativus finalis and ablativus respectivus). I don't know what else to tell you. Don't diz da Kristinn. Vegfarandi 20:18, 4 December 2006 (UTC)
replies: text:  W. M. Lindsay's of Plautus mentions other forms of the "verbal noun ending in -tus" being used in some of his comedies, giving as examples spectatum eo, spectatu redeo, pulcher spectatui and facile factu, etc. --Wtrmute (talk) 18:17, 4 October 2012 (UTC)
thread_title:  From dative? 

message: Is this true? Isn't it the total compound form, like har spist (has eaten), that is called perfektum, while just spist is a form of the perfect participle which is called perfektum partisipp? Is there any Norwegian verb for which the form used with ha (have) is not a form of the perfect (past) participle, but a unique form? (In Swedish this is the case for strong verbs).
85.228.97.169 (talk) 08:29, 4 April 2008 (UTC)
thread_title: "This also applies to Norwegian where the form supine is called perfektum"

message: I don't know if there are other forms, but to the best of my knowledge adfuerunt is the 3rd plural aorist/perfect of adesse, which means to be present, not to come. The proper word would be venerunt, other wise the sentence means "the gladiators were present to fight". Grammatically correct, but awkward, and improperly translated.  —Preceding unsigned comment added by 99.235.165.192 (talk) 03:02, 14 April 2009 (UTC)
thread_title:  "Adfuerunt" 

message: There is a 'dubious' mark and no discussion section about it.
I believe one can find a reference saying that most probably this is true (i.e. that -t originates from the supine). Expected ending from the Common Slavic infinitive form is -ť (palatalized t) or -ti. Expected ending from the CS supine is -t. Indeed, in Czech there is an archaic form -ti in use with the same sense as -t. Linguiloce (talk) 17:43, 5 July 2016 (UTC)
replies: text: This is certainly not true. In Czech, consonants were never palatalised in front of *ь, unlike its neighbour Slovak, for example. Thus, Czech pět against Slovak päť, host against hosť, mol against moľ etc. etc. Guldrelokk (talk) 21:40, 15 March 2018 (UTC)
thread_title:  In Czech, the contemporary infinitive ending -t originates from the supine.[dubious – discuss] 

message: "More archaic forms are pirktun and pirktum." These forms are reconstructed (unattested), it isn't correctly just to say they are more archaic.--Ed1974LT (talk) 13:25, 13 January 2017 (UTC)
thread_title: Lithuanian

message: § Infinitive and supine says
:The supine is formed by dropping the last -i of the infinitive. It is used after verbs that designate motion. For example, the supine would be used in the following sentences, (the supine has been put in bold):
:* V novi svet so odšli iskat bogastvo. (They went to the New World to seek fortune.)
:* Pojdi se solit. (Literally, Go salt yourself. This idiomatic statement is used to express annoyance or refusal)
:* Stekli smo pogasit ogenj. (We ran to put out the fire.)
But what does it mean? The first and third examples illustrate purpose, the reason for going; the second might also, but since it's an idiom the original literal meaning of the supine cannot be unambiguously determined.
--Thnidu (talk) 14:35, 30 April 2020 (UTC)
thread_title:  Slovak