Talk:Representative peer

message: While I find this to be an excellent article, I nonetheless have a few comments, but don't feel comfortable addressing them myself without degrading the overall quality of the currently very coherent article:
* The article cites "Burke's Peerage" without explaining what it is.  Is this a standard reference work of some sort?  A general reader may not be familiar with it.  If it's a book, perhaps it should also be italicized.
* The end section sounds a little bit non-neutral: we seem to be saying that at least some of the decisions of the Law Lords were wrong, and furthermore that Burke's Peerage is wrong on at least one point, and taking these positions ourselves rather than reporting on others who take these positions ("cannot be said to be wholly convincing" is rather non-neutral, for example).
--Delirium 19:25, Jan 20, 2004 (UTC)
Burke's and Debrett's are the standard reference works on the peerage (also Complete Peerage, but that's not been updated since the first half of the century, at latest, I believe).  Likely, articles are needed on these works.  As to the second, Lord Emsworth seems to have taken care of it. john 02:07, 21 Jan 2004 (UTC)
thread_title:  Various comments on the article 

message: Just wondering: Should the current type of representative peer -- that is, those heredetary peers who have been elected by the House of Lords to sit -- be the primary definition for this article, since the other type -- Scottish and Irish peers elected  to sit -- are now of historical interest only? --Jfruh (talk) 12:03, 31 July 2006 (UTC)
replies: text: I'd agree with that, yes. —Nightstallion (?) 22:08, 4 August 2006 (UTC)
thread_title:  Should the current type of representative peer come first? 

message: Nice work, a truly fine article! Howard Cleeves 13:11, 8 April 2007 (UTC)
thread_title:  Bravo! 

message: I know that British peerages were not considered to give Scottish peers the right to sit in the Lords until 1782, as the article states.  What about English peerages?  The Duke of Richmond was also Duke of Lennox in the peerage of Scotland, and certainly continued to sit in the House of Lords after 1711, despite being a Scottish peer.  Were English peerages generally considered to confer that right?  What does that mean about the Duke of Buccleuch, who was restored as Earl of Doncaster in 1743? john k (talk) 14:03, 17 August 2009 (UTC)
thread_title:  Scottish peers 1711-1782 

message: Hi. I've added about a dozen citation needed tags where citations are needed to come sufficiently close to requirement 2C. It would be appropriate in my opinion to go to FACR if these are not covered soon. Grandiose (me, talk, contribs)  16:10, 28 September 2011 (UTC)
thread_title:  Citation situation 

message: Could colonial peers sit in the House of Lords? there were some from Canada for instance (including not just recently created titles but French holdovers like the Baron de Longueuil) if so was there any special provision for them as existed in Ireland and Scotland? Hawjam (talk) 00:26, 14 June 2013 (UTC)
replies: text: No. 14:00, 14 June 2013 (UTC)
thread_title: Colonial Peers

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thread_title:  External links modified 

message: Were RPs elected from/by all Scottish/Irish peers, or only those who did not also hold a peerage of England or GB or UK?
Note that this is two distinct but similar questions: did all vote, and were all eligible? —Tamfang (talk) 07:17, 14 June 2017 (UTC)
thread_title:  subsets? 

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thread_title:  External links modified 

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message: :
Needs rewriting.  I suppose it means that as the Lord Clerk Register called each lord's name that lord would announce his presence; but it could mean that the records imply the presence of the Lord Clerk Register. —Tamfang (talk) 03:53, 15 October 2019 (UTC)
thread_title:  whose presence?