Talk:Morality play

message: I disagree with the element of the article which claims that in a morality play, personificaions of moral attributes attempt to persuade a man towards a more 'Godly' life rather than an evil one, as in actual fact, there will be personifications of both positive and negative (e.g the seven deadly sins) moral values, which will battle to claim the mans soul.
: A better example of why there is an NPOV criterion was never seen. Unless you can back your claim for disagreeing with authorities, this comment had better been kept to yourself - you are entitled to your opinions, but they are not part of the historical record unless you are a dictator affecting the history of a significant part of the world population. The simple fact is that as a descendant of the religious mystery plays and within the socio-cultural framework of the time, they WERE used as a premonitory argument in support of the dogma of the time, which is specifically why they were subsequently suppressed by Puritans a century later on grounds functionally identical to those of the Taliban in recent times, for carrying dogmatically offensive payload.  —Preceding unsigned comment added by 217.136.17.249 (talk) 11:47, 28 November 2010 (UTC)
thread_title: Positive/negative

message: Perhaps something could be mentioned about the usage of "morality plays" to mean socially-conscious allegories and not just religious plays. The old EC Comics would be a good example, also film noir. I agree with the above, the article leaves out the dialectics involved, the contradictions and the struggles. JBDay 19:01, 16 October 2007 (UTC)
replies: text: Not in the sense of the meme. The morality plays were functionally lost in the nineteenth and first half of the twentieth centuries, only reentering the performance repertoire following the reactivation of the York Cycle mystery plays from 1951. There may, however, be an American sub-genre hidden within the racial stereotyping of American plays in the nineteenth century which in turn fed the McCarthy enquiry's disporportionate focus on the theatre arts, and that could be a hook for your thinking. You would have to add a lot of detail to make the bridge, though: simply because it uses a similar dialectic does not place it in an unbroken lineage, not least because the study of historical allegory became resurgent at the very time you are talking about in works like The Crucible - the distinguishing element being the exclusion of the graeco-roman metaphore. Indeed, in works like Oh! What a Lovely War this was deliberately hidden within the class dynamic - unfortunately I speak from first-hand knowledge as a very minor part of the production team, precluding me from posting. More detailed source of the thinking is to be found in the French theatre of the 1950s in works of Anouilh, Cocteau and Sartre in the Antigone tradition. —Preceding unsigned comment added by 217.136.17.249 (talk) 11:32, 28 November 2010 (UTC)
thread_title: Change in Meaning

message: There's a line in this articles that says: "the discrediting of the Catholic belief that during holy communion the sacramental bread does not actually become Jesus’ physical body".  Paring this out: "discrediting the belief that it does not become".  By this line alone, it would seem that Catholics believe the bread does not become the physical body, whereas Protestants believe that the bread does become the physical body.  Since my understanding of these two is exactly backwards of this line (Catholics believe it does become the body, Protestants believe it doesn't), I think the line needs to be rewritten to accurately show the idea it is meant to convey.  Maybe using Transubstantiation as a link would help. Kilyle (talk) 02:02, 7 November 2009 (UTC)
thread_title:  Double Negative 

message: After reformation, all authors became protestants? Or is it about British literature only? 79.117.89.149 (talk) 21:54, 19 August 2013 (UTC)
thread_title:  Pre- and Post- 

message: "The means of redemption, according to the philosophy embedded in post-Reformation morality plays, is dependent upon the audience understanding the truthfulness of Protestant theology and verses and also the deceptiveness and wickedness of Catholic theology, whose best example is the secular play of Calderón. [15]"
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This last clause is rather obscure or even cryptic. Does it eventually mean that Calderon's secular plays are best examples of the "deceptiveness and wickedness of Catholic theology"? (And then why just his secular plays? And why this digression? It would of course be useful in case the Protestant morality plays and their public knew Calderon's works and referred to them, but does the author want to maintain this?)
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Or does it, on the contrary, mean that Calderon, a pious Catholic in his autos sacramentales, used his secular plays as a means to reveal the "deceptiveness and wickedness of Catholic theology"? This would need a far more detailed explanation! Does the author know that "probabilism" was in no way un-Catholic but was a mainstream position in Catholic moral theology? 
Rheinvolk (talk) 09:46, 8 November 2015 (UTC)
thread_title:  Calderon 

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thread_title:  External links modified (February 2018)