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Most common LMN cause of Facial nerve palsy is?: (A) Trauma, (B) Bell's palsy, (C) Infections, (D) Vascular causes | Answer is B. *one of the most common cause of facial weakness is bell's palsy ,a lower motor neuron lesion of the 7th (facial)nerve ,effecting all ages and both sexes *here the lesion is within the facial canal . Ref Harrison20th editionpg 1082-1083 | |
Malignant pustule occurs in -: (A) Melanoma, (B) Gas gangrene, (C) Ovarian tumour, (D) Anthrax | Answer is D. None | |
a child gets good marks in his exam and his father got a bicycle, he staed to read well, what is the line of therapy: (A) positive reinforcement, (B) negative reinforcement, (C) omission, (D) punishment | Answer is A. Behavioral therapy is learning given by BF Skinner , according to him all behaviors are learned phenomenon and thus can be unlearned Positive reinforcement a type of reinforcement when a behavior is rewarded there is more chance that the behavior is repeated Negative reinforcement is that when a behavior i... | |
The most important action of Secretin is to: (A) neutralize the acid from the stomach, (B) increase secretion of bicarbonates by pancreas, (C) decrease gastric secretion, (D) cause contraction of pyloric sphincter | Answer is B. Main Action of Secretin:
Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate by the duct cells of the pancreas and biliary tract. It thus causes the secretion of a watery, alkaline pancreatic juice (with high content of bicarbonate). Its action on pancreatic duct cells is mediated via cAMP.
Secretin causes alk... | |
Which is NOT used in treatment of heroin dependence?: (A) Disulfiram, (B) Buprenorphine, (C) Clonidine, (D) Lofexidine | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Disulfiram o Heroin is diamorphine and is 3 times more potent than morphine.Treatment of morphine or heroin poisoningo Treatment can be divided into:-A. Treatment of toxicity (overdose)# Overdose is a medical emergency, and is treated with opioid antagonist to reverse the complications (r... | |
Aldosterone acts at:: (A) Collecting duct, (B) Glomerulus, (C) Proximal convoluted tubule, (D) Loop of Henle | Answer is A. Ans. A Collecting ductRef: Ganong, 23rd ed. pg. 648* Aldosterone is secreted from adrenal cortex.* Action of aldosterone is localized to distal tubule are collecting duct.* Mechanism: Stimulates Na+K+ ATPase at basolateral end which generate gradient for movement of sodium ion from apical membrane causing ... | |
DNA enzyme for aging:: (A) Telosomerase, (B) Topoisomerase, (C) Telomerase, (D) DNA polymerase | Answer is C. Ans. (c) TelomeraseRef: Harper's Biochemistry, 30th ed. pg. 374, 732, 26th ed. Pg- 318* The ends of each chromosome contain structures called telomeres.* Telomeres consist of short, repeat TG-rich sequences. Human telomeres have a variable number of repeats of the sequence 5'-TTAGGG-3', which can extend fo... | |
Maternal mortality is maximum in which period –: (A) Antepartum, (B) Peripartum, (C) Postpartum, (D) None | Answer is B. Maternal death mostly occur from the third trimester to the first week after birth. Studies show that mortality risks for mothers are particularly elevated in the first two days after birth. | |
Cataract blindness is:: (A) Preventable, (B) Curable, (C) Avoidable, (D) Curable and avoidable | Answer is B. Ans. Curable | |
Investigation of choice for intramedullary SOL is -: (A) MRI, (B) USG, (C) CT, (D) X-ray | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., MRI o Investigation of choice for intramedullary space occupy lesion is MRI. | |
Daclizumab acts through ?: (A) cGMP activation, (B) Adenylcyclase inhibition, (C) IL 2 receptor blocker, (D) IL10 receptor blocker | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., IL 2 receptor blocker Monoclonal antibodies (daclizumab and basiliximab) that block the interleukin 2 receptor and are used in prevention of graft rejection as immunosuppresant. | |
Actinomycetoma is caused by-: (A) Actinomyces, (B) Nocardias, (C) Streptomyces, (D) All | Answer is D. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Actinomyces; 'b' i.e., Nocardia; 'c' i.e., Streptomyces | |
Glycosylated hemoglobin in a normal pregnant lady should be less than:: (A) 4.50%, (B) 5.50%, (C) 6.50%, (D) 7.50% | Answer is C. The cut off for glycosylated hemoglobin in a pregnant lady is less than 6.5 %. | |
'Bird beak' appearance on barium swallow is feature of?: (A) Achalasia cardia, (B) Diffuse esophageal spasm, (C) Caustic stricture, (D) Carcinoma of the esophagus | Answer is A. Ans. A. Achalasia cardia. (Harrison's Medicine, 18th ch. 292; /Fig. 292-5).Achalasia cardia- Megaesophagus/sigmoid esophagus- "Bird beak" deformity- Absence of primary peristalsis below level of cricopharyngeus- Hurst phenomenon (temporary transit through cardia when hydrostatic pressure of barium column i... | |
Which is the first organ to be affected in left ventricular failure?: (A) Lungs, (B) Liver, (C) Kidney, (D) Brain | Answer is A. Ans. (a) LungsRef: Robbin's pathology 9th ed. /529-30* In left ventricular failure, the pooling of blood in lungs will result and will lead to development of pulmonary edema which causes hypoxia and findings of dysnea, orthopnea, pink frothy sputum and death. Hence lungs are immediately affected following ... | |
Neurofibromatosis 1 criteria include all except:: (A) Brain tumor, (B) Acoustic neuromas, (C) Dysplasia of the sphenoidal and tibial bone, (D) Cafe-au-lait spots | Answer is B. In Neurofibromatosis 1 (NF1), two or more of the following clinical manifestations are present: Six or more Cafe-au-lait macules Axillary and inguinal freckling Two or more iris Lisch nodules Two or more neurofibromas or 1 plexiform neurofibroma A distinctive osseous lesion such as sphenoidal and tibial dy... | |
In rectus sheath which branch of aoa make anastmosis with superior epigastric aery: (A) Subclan aery, (B) External iliac aery, (C) Internal iliac aery, (D) External carotid A | Answer is B. The external iliac aeries are two major aeries which bifurcate off the common iliac aeries anterior to the sacroiliac joint of the pelvis. They proceed anterior and inferior along the medial border of the psoas major muscles. They exit the pelvic girdle posterior and inferior to the inguinal ligament about... | |
Pain sensations from the ethmoidal sinus are carried by-: (A) Frontal Nerve, (B) Lacrimal Nerve, (C) Nasocilliary Nerve, (D) Infra orbital Nerve | Answer is C. As discussed in preceeding text, nasociliary nerve–branch of opthalmic division of trigeminal nerve carries pain sensation from ethmoid sinus. | |
Conjunctiva epithelium is:: (A) Pseudostratified, (B) Stratified columnar, (C) Stratified non keratinized squamous, (D) Transitional | Answer is C. C i.e. Stratified non keratinized epithelium Conjunctival epithelium is stratified non keratinized squamous epitheliumQ. Conjunctiva has palpebral (marginal, tarsal, orbital), bulbar & fornix pas. Marginal palpebral conjunctiva has transitional zone (not epithelium) covered with stratified epithelium with ... | |
Which of the following is the national level system that provides annual national as well as state level reliable estimates of fertility and mortality?: (A) Sample registration system, (B) Census, (C) Ad-hoc survey, (D) Sample registration system | Answer is A. Sample Registration System (SRS) was initiated in 1964–65 (on a pilot basis; full scale from 1969–70) to provide national as well as state level reliable estimates of fertility and mortality
• SRS is a dual record system:
Field Investigation: continuous enumeration of births and deaths by an enumerator.
In... | |
How much Potassium is present in the Ringer Lactate solution -: (A) 1 mEq/L, (B) 4 mEq/L, (C) 2 mEq/L, (D) 6 mEq/L | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., 4 mEq/L SolutionVolumebNa+K+Ca2+Mg2+Cl-hco3 (as la- ctate)Dext rose(g/L)mOsm/LExtracellular fluid--14245310327 280-310Lactated ringer's--13043--10928--2730.9% NaCl--154------154----3080.45% NaCl--77------77----154D5W--------------50252D5/0.45% NaCl--77------77--50406D5LR--13043--109285052... | |
Puetz-Jegher syndrome is characterised by: (A) Deafness, (B) Multiple supernumerary teeth, (C) Multiple intestinal polyps, (D) Scleroderma | Answer is C. None | |
Sex worker with discharging ulcer, gram negative diplococci & growth on modified Thayer main media. Diagnosis ?: (A) N. gonococci, (B) Syphilis, (C) LGV, (D) Chaneroid | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., N. gonococci Information in this question are ? Gram negative diplococci. Growth on modified Thayer-main media. o Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a gram negative diplococci and Thayer-main medium is the selective medium for gonococci. Lab diagnosis of gonorrhea Urethral discharge is the most imp... | |
All of the following are true regarding diuretics except:-: (A) Spironolactone is a potassium sparing drug, (B) Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic, (C) Thiazides act by inhibiting sodium-potassium chloride co-transpo, (D) Acetazolamide inhibits carbonic anhydrase enzyme | Answer is C. Name Site of action Example Mechanism Loop diuretics Thick ascending limb of Loop of Henle Furosemide Torsemide Na-K-2Cl sympoer inhibition Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors PCT Acetazolamide Dorzolamide Brinzolamide Carbonic anhydrase inhibition Thiazides DCT Hydrochlohiazide Chlohalidone Na-Cl sympoer inhibi... | |
In case of hypothyroidism which investigation is most informative and most commonly used:: (A) Serum TSH level, (B) Serum T3 and T4 level, (C) Serum calcitonin assay, (D) Serum TRH assay | Answer is A. TSH* Most informative among thyroid function test parameters because of ultra-sensitivity* Can detect subclinical hypothyroidism & subclinical hypehyroidism* Hypothyroidism - TSH |* Hypehyroidism - TSH | | |
. When the confidence level of a testis increased which of the following will happen -: (A) No effect on significance, (B) Previously insignificant value becomes significant, (C) Previously significant value becomes insignificant, (D) No change in hypothesis | Answer is B. None | |
Mobile medical care constitutes all except: (A) Primary health care, (B) Secondary health care, (C) Teiary health care, (D) Near home based | Answer is C. Ref:Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine 25th Ed | |
Monozygotic twins do not have same-: (A) Fingerprints, (B) Genetic make up, (C) Facial appearance, (D) Stature | Answer is A. Ans. is "a' i.e., Fingerprints o Monozygotic twins are a result of the division of the single fertilized egg into two embryos. Thus, they have exactly identical DNA, except for the generally undetectable micromutations that begin as soon as the cell starts dividing.o Fingerprints of the identical twins sta... | |
What is approx fetal weight, if height of uterus is above pubic symphysis is 35 cm and station of head -2?: (A) 2.5 kg, (B) 3 kg, (C) 3.5 kg, (D) 4 kg | Answer is C. Ans. is c, i.e. 3.5 kgRef. Dutta Obs. 9/e, p 68Estimation of fetal weight can be done using Johnson formula:If station of head below ischial spine x 155If fetal head is at or above ischial spine- x 155 Here fetal head is at - 2, i.e. above ischial spine, so it will be (35 - 12) x 155 = 3.5 kg.Also Know:USG... | |
A 44-year-old businessman presents to a physician because of a markedly inflammed and painful right great toe. He states that he just returned from a convention, and had noticed increasing pain in his right foot during his flight back home. Physical examination is remarkable for swelling and erythema of the right great... | Answer is C. The patient has gout, which is due to precipitation of monosodium urate crystals in joint spaces (notably the great toe) and soft tissues (causing tophi, which are often found on the external ears). Colchicine reduces the inflammation caused by the urate crystals by inhibiting leukocyte migration and phago... | |
Which of the following is not a feature Eustachian tube in children: (A) Wider and shoer shoer, (B) Flaccid due to less elastin content, (C) Ostmann's pad of fat is more in volume, (D) Isthmus is straight in children | Answer is C. The Eustachian tube in children is shoer (16-18mm), wider and more horizontal. It is also less taut due to lack of elastin. The above differences make the infant more prone for retrograde reflux of nasopharyngeal secretions and milk while feeding in supine position. Differences between Infant & adult ET IN... | |
Platelet aggregation is blocked by aspirin due to its action on:: (A) Prostacyclin, (B) PGF 2 alpha, (C) Thromboxane A2, (D) Phospholipase C | Answer is C. Ans. c. Thromboxane A2 (Ref: Goodman Gilman 12/e p868; Katzung 12/e p638; KDT 7/e p195, 6/e p186, 609)Aspirin causes several different effects in the body, mainly the reduction of inflammation, analgesia, the prevention of clotting, and the reduction of fever. Much of this is believed to be due to decrease... | |
Medium used for antibiotic sensitivity:: (A) CLED agar, (B) choclolate agar, (C) Mueller-Hinton agar, (D) Salt milk agar | Answer is C. Antibiotic sensitivity testing Antibiotic sensitivity testing is carried out to determine appropriate antibiotic to be used for a paicular strain isolated from clinical specimens. Antibiotic testing can be carried out by two broad methods a) Disc diffusion tests b) Dilution tests REF : ananthanarayana 10th... | |
A person working in an abattoir presented with pustule on hand which turned into ulcer. Which of the following will best help in diagnosis?: (A) Polychrome methylene blue, (B) Carbol fuchsin, (C) Acid fast stain, (D) Calcofluor white | Answer is A. Cutaneous anthrax generally occurs on exposed surfaces of the arms or hands. A pruritic papule develops 1-7 days after entry of the organisms and rapidly changes into a necrotic ulcer. The lesion is called a malignant pustule. The anthrax bacillus is Gram positive and nonacid fast. The spores do not stain ... | |
Which is the cause of hemolysis in G6-PD deficiency?: (A) Hemoglobin defect, (B) Oxidative stress, (C) Membrane defect, (D) Vitamin B12 deficiency | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Oxidative stress * Normally RBCs are protected from oxidant injury by reduced glutathione. Reduced glutathione is generated from oxidized glutathione and the reducing equivalent for this reaction is provided by NADPH. This NADPH is generated in HMP shunt by enzyme Glucose-6-phosphate dehy... | |
Bitemporal hemianopic field defect is characteristic of:: (A) Glaucoma, (B) Optic neuritis, (C) Pituitary tumor, (D) Retinal detachment | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e. Pituitary tumour Bitemporal hemianopia results due to central (sagittal) lesion of the optic chiasma, common causes of which are tumors of the pituitary gland, craniopharyngioma, suprasellar meningioma, glioma of third ventricle, chiasmal arachnoiditis, third ventricular dilatation.Sites o... | |
A 31-year-old woman has new-onset headaches and blood pressure elevation. She also notices that the symptoms come episodically and consist of palpitations, headache, anxiety, and marked blood pressure elevation. She undergoes a workup for secondary causes of hypertension, and is found to have elevated free catecholamin... | Answer is A. Focal myocardial necrosis and inflammatory cell infiltration caused by high circulating levels of catecholamines are seen in about 50% of patients who die with pheochromocytoma.Hypertension can further impair left ventricular function. | |
Macewan's sign is seen in:: (A) Cyanide poisoning, (B) Alcoholism, (C) Lead, (D) Arsenic poison | Answer is B. Alcoholism | |
Phenol red thread test is used for dry eye. This test-: (A) Requires topical anaesthetic agent, (B) Volume of tears isn't measured as it changes color on contact with tears, (C) If the color changes to blue, it depicts surface mucin deficiency, (D) Requiras pH meter for reading result | Answer is B. *Phenol red dye test measures the production of tears without topical anesthesia, as the dye changes its color to red on contact with tears. It doesn't require pH meter for reading the result. Ref: Ophthalmology Yanoff and Duker 4th/e p.277 | |
Vallecula sign is seen in: (A) TB laryngitis, (B) Vocal nodule, (C) Inveed papilloma, (D) Acute epiglottitis | Answer is D. Depressing the tongue with a tongue depressor may show red and swollen epiglottis. Indirect laryngoscopy may show oedema and congestion of supraglottic structure. This examination is avoided for fear of precipitating complete obstruction. It is better done in the operation theatre where facilities for intu... | |
Devic's disease is associated with: (A) Aquaporin 0, (B) Aquaporin 1, (C) Aquaporin 2, (D) Aquaporin 4 | Answer is D. (D) Aquaporin 4 # NEUROMYELITIS OPTICA (NMO) or Devic's disease or Devic's syndrome, is a heterogeneous condition consisting of recurrent and simultaneous inflammation and demyelination of the optic nerve (optic neuritis) and the spinal cord (myelitis).> Currently at least two different causes are proposed... | |
Melanin is formed from which aminoacid?: (A) Phenylalanine, (B) Tyrosine, (C) Tryptophan, (D) Histidine | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., TyrosineAmino acidsBiological important compoundTyrosineCatecholamines (epinephrine, norepinephrine, dopamine), thyroxine, triiodothryonine, melanin.(Note : - Phenylalanine is the precursor of tyrosine, thus it can also give rise to all these compounds through tyrosine (phenylalanine - Ty... | |
An obese 50-year-old woman undergoes a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. In the recovery room she is found to be hypotensive and tachycardic. Her arterial blood gases reveal a pH of 7.29, partial pressure of oxygen of 60 kPa, and partial pressure of CO2 of 54 kPa. The most likely cause of this woman's problem is: (A) Acute... | Answer is C. Because of the ease with which carbon dioxide diffuses across the alveolar membranes, the PaCO2 is a highly reliable indicator of alveolar ventilation. In this postoperative patient with respiratory acidosis and hypoxemia, the hypercarbia is diagnostic of alveolar hypoventilation. Acute hypoxemia can occur... | |
During intraoperative period following capnograph waveform is seen. What does it signify.: (A) Return of spontaneous ventilation, (B) Airway obstruction, (C) Hyperventilation, (D) Oesophageal intubation | Answer is A. Above ETCO2 curve depictsSpontaneous effos It signifies return of spontaneous ventilation and the patient is coming out of the anaesthesia The cleft is K/ACURARE CLEFT Repeat a dose of neuromuscular blocker if you want to maintain the muscle paralysis ??"Malignant hypehermia:Progressive rise in ETCO2 ??"Br... | |
A 3 year old child presents with a history of repeated sinopulmonary infections caused by encapsulated organisms. Which of the following is most likely to be deficient in this case?: (A) IgG4, (B) IgG3, (C) IgG2, (D) IgG1 | Answer is C. Deficiency of IgG2 results in recurrent sinopulmonary infections with encapsulated organisms. Deficiency of IgG1 - Bacterial infections (Diptheria, tetanus) Deficiency of IgG3 - Viral infections Deficiency of IgG4 - Parasitic infections IgG is the only maternal immunoglobulin that is normally transpoed acr... | |
Glucose transpo occur with the help of following ion in absorption in gut region: (A) Na+, (B) K+, (C) Ca+, (D) CI- | Answer is A. Glucose is absorbed into the epithelial cells lining the mucous membrane of the small intestine from their brush border surface by an active transpo mechanism Sodium co-transpo mechanism. Binding of glucose & Na+ to carrier protein: The carrier protein in cell membrane has 2 binding sites, one for sodium &... | |
Thomas splint most troubling is:: (A) Ring, (B) Side bars, (C) Gauze support, (D) Traction attachment | Answer is A. (a) Ringbecause it impinges against proximal thigh. | |
Aziththromyan prophylaxis in trachoma is given when prevalence is above?: (A) 8%, (B) 6%, (C) 4%, (D) 10% | Answer is D. <p> Current WHO recommendations for antibiotic treatment of trachoma District level prevalence is >10% in 1-9 years old children: mass treatment with azythromycin Reference:WHO Trachoma control:A guide for programme managers,2006;page no:21-22. <\p> | |
Does not include in strand field's "seven I" principles of health education: (A) Identification, (B) Involvement, (C) Implementation, (D) Innovation | Answer is C. "SEVEN I" principle of strandfield :
Identification.
Indigenization.
Involvement.
Indoctrination.
Integration.
Influencess.
Innovation. | |
Mechanism of action of ciprofloxacin in gram negative bacteria:-: (A) Inhibition of mycolic acid, (B) Inhibition of topoisomerase IV, (C) Inhibition of DNA gyrase, (D) Inhibition of helicase | Answer is C. MECHANISM OF FLUOROQUINOLONES (FQ) In gram negative bacteria, FQ inhibit DNA gyrase by binding to its A subunit and interfere with cutting and resealing function. In gram positive bacteria, FQ inhibit similar enzyme DNA topoisomerase IV. | |
Most common tumor to extend from intracranial to orbit is –: (A) Astrocytoma, (B) Pituitary adenoma, (C) Craniopharyngioma, (D) Sphenoidal wing meningioma | Answer is D. "Meningiomas are the most common intracranial tumor to extend to the orbit".......... Ophthalmic oncology
Meningiomas commonly arise from the dura of sphenoid wing, i.e. sphenoid wing meningioma. | |
What is the generation time of Mycobacterium leprae?: (A) 2-5 days, (B) 7-10 days, (C) 12-14 days, (D) 20-25 days | Answer is C. Generation time of bacteria refers to the doubling time. Mycobacterium leprae is the slowest growing human bacterial pathogen, it has a doubling time of 14 days. It grows best at 30 degree C, at a temperature lower than body temperature, therefore it grows preferentially in the skin and superficial nerves.... | |
A 35 year old male presents to the urologist for an infeility evaluation. A biopsy of his testis is performed to check sperm production and maturation. A microscopic section reveals only a few germ cells near the basal lamina in the seminiferous tubule. Which of the following cells is the germ cell closest to the basal... | Answer is D. Maturation of germ cells (spermatogenesis) within the seminiferous tubules occurs in a concentric pattern with the less mature spermatogonia near the basal lamina and the mature forms near the tubule center. Spermatogonia are 2N cells and mature into larger primary spermatocytes (4N) . These mature into se... | |
A child has mid-crown fracture in a permanent
maxillary central incisor several months ago, the pulp is now necrotic, radiographic examination reveals an incompletely formed root with an open apex. The treatment of choice is:: (A) Formocresol pulpotomy, (B) Root canal therapy, (C) Calcium hydroxide pulpotomy, (D) Apexi... | Answer is D. Apexification is the process of inducing the development of the root and the apical closure in an immature pulpless tooth with an open apex.
The main aim of apexification is to preserve the Hertwig’s root sheath and apical pulp tissue.
Ref: Textbook of endodontics, Nisha Garg and Amit Garg, 3rd edition, p... | |
In Chronic Viral Hepatitis:: (A) Hepatitis A virus infection is a common cause inchildren, (B) Morphological classification into Chronic ActiveHepatitis and Chronic Persistent Hepatitis areimpoant, (C) Fatty change is pathognomic of Hepatitis C virusinfection, (D) Grading refers to the extent of necrosis andinflammatio... | Answer is D. . Grading refers to the extent of necrosis andinflammations | |
The double decidual sac sign (DDSS) is the best method for ultrasound diagnosis of: (A) Monoamniotic Dichorionic twins, (B) Diamniotic dichorionic twins, (C) Ectopic pregnancy, (D) Normal pregnancy | Answer is D. Double decidual sac sign on USG - Intra-uterine sac (Eccentrically placed) Outer layer - Decidua Parietalis Inner layer - Decidua Capsularis Indicates - Intrauterine pregnancy Intradecidual ring sign is the first sign of pregnancy on USG. | |
Which of the following predisposes to placenta previa?: (A) Primigravida, (B) Singleton pregnancy, (C) Diabetesmellitus, (D) Past cesarean pregnancy | Answer is D. Ans: D | |
All are true regarding Crohn's disease except:: (A) Infertility, (B) Risk of Ca, (C) Medical treatment includes antibiotics, probiotics and TNF alpha blockers, (D) ASCA-negative | Answer is D. Ref: Harrison s Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th edition, pg 2486 Explanation: Crohn's disease- MC site-terminal ileum with rectal sparing, skip areas + It is transmural, hence more of fistula formation More of systemic symptoms, pain, abdominal mass Toxic megacolon - Perforation Intraabdominal absces... | |
Nucleic acids absorb UV light maximally at the wavelength of: (A) 260nm, (B) 280 nm, (C) 410 nm, (D) 320 nm | Answer is A. Nucleic acids absorb UV light maximally at the wavelength of 260 nm 260/280 ratio of pure DNA/RNA is in the range of 1.8 to 2. Amino acids absorb U.V light (not visible light)- colorless. Aromatic amino acids absorb U.V light at 250-290 nm (maximum absorption is at 280nm) because of conjugated double bonds... | |
Children born to mothers with systemic lupus erythematosus are likely to have one of the following anomalies:: (A) Atrial septal defect, (B) Tetralogy of Fallot, (C) Transposition of great vessels, (D) Complete heart block | Answer is D. d. Complete heart block(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2171-2174, Ghai 8/e p 457-461)Congenital complete AV blockIt is presumed to be caused by autoimmune injury of fetal conduction system by maternally derived anti-SSA/Ro, anti-SSB/ La antibodies in a mother with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) or Sjogren syndro... | |
All of the following cause hyperventilation except: (A) Decreased pH in CSF, (B) Decreased plasma HCO3, (C) CO poisoning, (D) Increased adrenergic levels | Answer is C. Arterial hypoxemia is defined as an arterial P02 (partial pressure of oxygen) less than 80 mmHg, who is breathing room air at sea level. And because the partial pressure of a gas is determined by the soluble fraction of gas and not by the amount carried chemically bound to hemoglobin - the Hb does not dete... | |
Stem cells are present where in cornea -: (A) Limbus, (B) Stroma, (C) Epithelium, (D) Descmet's membrane | Answer is A. Answer- A. LimbusLimbal stem cells (also called corneal epithelial stem cells) are stem cells located in the basal epithelial layer of the corneal limbus.Proliferation of limbal stem cells maintains the cornea; for example, replacing cells that are lost tears.Limbal stem cells also prevent the conjunctival... | |
A child brought to casualty with reports of violent shaking by parents. The most likely injury is?: (A) Long bone fracture, (B) Ruptured spleen, (C) Subdural haematoma, (D) Skull bone fracture | Answer is C. Violent shaking (by parent) may cause subdural hematoma; whereas ruptured spleen occurs due to compression of abdomen; long bone fracture due to compression, bending, direct blow, pulling and twisting; and skull fractures due to direct blow.
Caffey (1974) described the effects of shaking as a major cause o... | |
Collagen biosynthesis occurs inside the:: (A) Chondroblasts, (B) Odontoblasts, (C) Osteoblasts, (D) Fibroblasts | Answer is D. None | |
About chi-square test, true is: (A) Less no. of samples are associated with less error, (B) <0.001 is statistically significant, (C) Categories of data used in test need not be mutually exclusive and discrete, (D) Tests correlation and regression | Answer is B. None | |
"Inflation of lungs induces fuher inflation" this is explained by: (A) Hering-Breuer inflation reflex, (B) Hering-Breuer deflation reflex, (C) Head's paradoxical reflex, (D) J-reflex | Answer is C. Head's paradoxical reflex is paradoxical to Hering- Breuer inflation reflex This reflex might be the cause for inflation of the lungs in the newborn when the newborn takes the first breath | |
Most common cause of Acute Aseptic Meningitis in children is: (A) Arbovirus, (B) Respiratory syncytial virus, (C) Enterovirus, (D) Herpes family | Answer is C. (C) Enterovirus # VIRAL CAUSES INCLUDE THE FOLLOWING: Enteroviruses - coxsackievirus, echovirus, poliovirus. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) types 1 and 2 (HSV-1, HSV-2) Varicella-zoster virus. Arboviruses, Epstein-Barr virus, HIV, Influenza virus types A and B, Mumps virus.> Many different viruses can cause me... | |
Reids index is increased in: March 2007: (A) Bronchial asthma, (B) Bronchiectasis, (C) Chronic bronchitis, (D) Pneumonia | Answer is C. Ans. C: Chronic bronchitisThe Reid Index is a mathematical relationship that exists in a human bronchus section observed under the microscope. It is defined as ratio between the thickness of the submucosal mucus secreting glands and the thickness between the epithelium and cailage that covers the bronchi.I... | |
In psychoanalytic terms, obsessive-compulsive disorder is fixed at -: (A) Oedipal stage, (B) Genital stage, (C) Oral stage, (D) Anal stage | Answer is D. OCD results from a regression from the oedipal phase to anal phase of psychosexual development, i.e. In OCD fixation occurs in anal stage (Note - Regression is reversion from higher level of development to lower level of development). | |
Subconjunctival cyst is seen in?: (A) Toxoplasmosis, (B) Cysticercosis, (C) Leishmaniasis, (D) Chaga's disease | Answer is B. Ans. is b i.e., Cysticercosis Parasitic cysts occurs in subconjunctival cysticercus, hydatid cyst and filarial cyst. | |
"Antihistone" antibodies are detectable in:: (A) CREST, (B) PAN, (C) Drug induced Lupus, (D) Intestinal lymphoma | Answer is C. Drug induced Lupus | |
The best method of teaching an urban slum about ORS is -: (A) Lecture, (B) Role play, (C) Demonstration, (D) Flash card | Answer is C. A demonstration is a carefully prepared presentation to show how to perform a skill or procedure.Here a procedure is carried out step by step before an audience or the target group,the demonstrator asceaining that the audience understands how to perform it (refer pgno:864 park 23 rd edition) | |
Tardy ulnar nerve palsy occur as a delayed sequele of: (A) Supracondylar fracture of humerus, (B) Posterior dislocation of elbow, (C) Fracture of lateral condyle of humerus in children, (D) Fracture of Olecranon | Answer is C. C i.e. Fracture lateral condyle humerus | |
High anticholinergic propey is present in the following antihistaminic agent: (A) Astemizole, (B) Diphenhydramine, (C) Terfenadine, (D) Fexofenadine | Answer is B. None | |
Characterstic X Ray finding in ASD is:: (A) Enlarged left ventricle, (B) Enlarged left atria, (C) Pulmonary pletheora, (D) PAH | Answer is C. C i.e. Pulmonary plethora | |
Pain relief in chronic pancreatitis can be obtained by destruction of: (A) Celiac ganglia, (B) Vagus nerve, (C) Anterolateral column of spinal cord, (D) None of the above | Answer is A. Chronic pancreatitis Pain from the pancreas is carried in sympathetic fibres that traverse the Celiac ganglion, reach the sympathetic chain through the splanchnic nerves, and then ascend to the coex Celiac plexus nerve blocks performed either percutaneously or endoscopically have been employed to abolish t... | |
All are true about peritoneal folds except: (A) Median umbilical fold is obliterated to become urachus in adults, (B) Medial umbilical fold is peritoneal fold on medial umbilical ligament, (C) Medial umbilical fold covers allantois, (D) Lateral umbilical fold produced by inferior epigastric vessels | Answer is C. Urachus fistula is a remnant of allantoic diveiculum. It is a diveiculum of hind gut and connects umbilicus to urinary bladder. The lumen of allantoic duct-is obliterated at the time of bih. Median Umblical Ligament is the remanant of urachus. It covers allantois. Urine keeps on dribbling in urachal fistul... | |
The principal characteristics of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder are all of the following except one. Which one is the exception?: (A) Inattention, (B) Mental retardation, (C) Hyperactivity, (D) Impulsivity | Answer is B. Inattention and hyperactivity/impulsivity are the key behaviors of ADHD. Some people with ADHD only have problems with one of the behaviors, while others have both inattention and hyperactivity-impulsivity. Most children have the combined type of ADHD.
In preschool, the most common ADHD symptom is hyperact... | |
21st tooth erupts at:-: (A) 6 years, (B) 8 years, (C) 10 years, (D) 12 years | Answer is A. Eruption is defined as the superior pa of crown of the tooth appearing level with the surface of the alveolar bone.Temporary dentition: total 20 number of teeth, stas at 6 months till 2 years.Permanent dentition: total 32 number of teeth, stas at 6 years completed by 17 - 25 years.1st to erupt is molar 1 (... | |
Most common viral cause of Fulminant hepatic failure in pregnancy?: (A) HAV, (B) HBV, (C) HCV, (D) HEV | Answer is D. HEV- increases risk of fulminant hepatic failure in pregnancy | |
True about diabetic nephropathy -: (A) Microalbuminiuria is not an indicator of long term cardiovascular morbidity., (B) Strict glycemic control cannot prevent microalbuminuria, (C) b-islet cell\/pancreatic transplantation can improve the proteinuria in early stage., (D) Angiotensin receptor blockers have no additive a... | Answer is C. Beta islet cell/ pancreatic transplantation can improve proteinuria in early stages.. Strict control of blood glucose retards the progression of any diabetes related complication Early pathological change and albumin excretion abnormalities is reversible with normalization of plasma glucose Administration ... | |
Which of the following is an adrenergic drug preferred for arresting labour?: (A) Ritodrine, (B) Isoprenaline, (C) Salbutamol, (D) Terbutaline | Answer is A. (Ref: KDT 6/e p323) Isoxsuprine and ritodrine are selective b2 agonists useful as tocolytic agents for arresting labour. Pulmonary edema is an impoant adverse effect of these agents. | |
Sixth cranial nerve palsy causes of left eye causes?: (A) Accomodation paresis in left gaze, (B) Ptosis of left eye, (C) Adduction weakness of left eye, (D) Diplopia in left gaze | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Diplopia in left gaze o Sixth nerve supplies lateral rectus, therefore its palsy results in abduction weakness (not adduction weakness)o In left gaze, there is abduction of left eye and adduction of right eye. If there is paralysis of lateral rectus of left eye (6th nerve paralysis), abdu... | |
Father of modern toxicology -: (A) Paracelsus, (B) Galton, (C) Orfila, (D) Guftason | Answer is C. orfila is known as father of modern toxicology Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 397 | |
5-year-old male brought to casualty by his mother because of episode of sudden vomiting. He has been behaving strangely according to mother. Laboratory findings showed microcytic hypochromic anemia with the above finding. The most probable poisoning is:: (A) Chronic arsenic poisoning, (B) Chronic lead poisoning, (C) Ch... | Answer is B. Ans. (B). Chronic lead poisoningThe above blood picture shows basophilic stippling of RBCs.Basophilic stippling (dots in the red blood cells) is due to the inhibition of 5 pyrimidine nucleotidase enzyme resulting in aggregation of ribosomes.Other findings in blood: Microcytic hypochromic anemia, anisocytos... | |
Submandibular gland is crossed by which nerve?: (A) Lingual, (B) Hypoglossal, (C) Glossopharyngeal, (D) Facial nerve | Answer is D. Submandibular duct is thin-walled and is about 5 cm long.it emerges at the anterior end of the deep pa of the gland and runs forwards on the hyoglossus between the lingual and hypoglossal nerves.at the anterior border of the hyoglossus, the duct is crossed by lingual nerve.it opens on the floor of the mout... | |
Ramesh 40 yrs male patient presenting with polyuria, pain abdomen, nausea, vomitting, altered sensorium was found to have bronchogenic carcinoma. The electrolyte abnormality seen in him would be -: (A) Hypokalemia, (B) Hyperkalemia, (C) Hypocalcaemia, (D) Hypercalcemia | Answer is D. None | |
Folic acid metabolism is inhibited by : a) Sulfonamides b) Methotrexate c) Nitrous oxide d) Trimethoprim e) 5–Flucytosine: (A) acd, (B) abd, (C) bde, (D) ace | Answer is B. None | |
Patient with fixed dilated pupil, with iris atrophy and secondary glaucoma after penetrating keratoplasty is suggestive of:: (A) Benedict's syndrome, (B) Posner-Shlossman syndrome, (C) Kaufmann's syndrome, (D) Urrets Zavalia syndrome | Answer is D. Ans. d. Urrets Zavalia syndrome (Ref: style="font-size: 1.04761904761905em; font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif">icles/PMC1770988)A fixed dilated pupil following penetrating keratoplasty is a well recognized if rare postoperative complication.The mydriasis following penetrating keratoplasty was firs... | |
Treatment of acute asthma include all except-: (A) Prednisolone, (B) Salbutamol, (C) Salmeterol, (D) Ipratropium bromide | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Salmeterol o Long acting Beta - 2 agonists have no role in acute attack of asthma. They are useful in persistent asthma. | |
Characteristic visual field defect in optic chiasma lesion -: (A) Homonymous hemianopia, (B) Bitemporal hemianopia, (C) Upper quadrantanopia, (D) Lower quadrantanopia | Answer is B. Ans, is 'b' i.e,. Bitemporal hemianopia Site of lesionVisual field defectOptic nerveBlindnessOptic cbiasmaBitemporal hemianopiaOptic tractIncongruent homonymous hemianopiaLateral geniculate bodyHomonymous hemianopiaOptic radiation (Total)Homonymous hemianopia, sometimes with macular sparingOptic radiation ... | |
A volunteer Ram will receive a new drug in a phase I clinical trial. The clearance and the volume of distribution of the drug in Ram are 1.386 I/hr and 80 L respectively. The half life of the drug in him would be approximately:: (A) 83 hr, (B) 77 hr, (C) 40 hr, (D) 0.02 hr | Answer is C. None | |
Hand over mouth technique was first described by:: (A) Dr. Evangeline Jordan, (B) Addeston and Gold fried, (C) Dr.G.V.Black, (D) Dr. Goldman | Answer is A. None | |
Most common cause of spontaneous sub-arachnoid haemorrhage is -: (A) Trauma, (B) Hypertension, (C) Berry aneurysm rupture, (D) Raised intracranial tension | Answer is C. None | |
Ehrlich's test is done to detect:: (A) Urinary amylase, (B) Urinary cystine, (C) Abnormal porphyrin, (D) Urobilinogen | Answer is D. D Harper, 26th ed, p. 283 & 25th ed, p. 370 | |
B cell prolymphocytic leukemia patients differ from those with B cell chronic lymphocytic leukemia in: (A) Presenting at a younger age, (B) Having a lower total leucocyte count, (C) Having prominent lymphadenopathy, (D) Having a shorter survival | Answer is D. None | |
Millenium development goals formulated in 2000 were to be achieved by -: (A) 2005, (B) 2015, (C) 2010, (D) 2020 | Answer is B. - During September 2000, representatives of 189 countries met at Millennium Summit in New York to adopt United nations Millennium Declaration. - the goals in the area of development and povey eradication are now referred as Millennium Development Goals. - Governments have set date of 2015 by which they wou... | |
In the stage of Grey hepatization-: (A) WBC's fill the alveoli, (B) RBC's fill the alveoli, (C) Organisms fill the alveoli, (D) Accumulation of fibrin | Answer is D. Ref:Textbook of pathology (Harsh mohan)6th edition,page no. 469 GREY HEPATISATION: LATE CONSOLIDATION This phase lasts for 4 to 8 days Grossly, the affected lobe is firm and heavy. The cut surface is dry, granular and grey in appearance with liverlike consistency .The change in colour from red to grey begi... | |
Twin pregnancy, but due to two different men is called: NEET 14: (A) Superfetation, (B) Superfecundation, (C) Both of the above, (D) None | Answer is B. Ans. Superfecundation | |
Low bih weight baby is defined as baby weighing: September 2006: (A) 1000 gm, (B) 1500 gm, (C) 2000 gm, (D) 2500 gm | Answer is D. Ans. D: 2500 gm Low bih weight (LBW) is defined as a fetus that weighs less than 2500 g (5 lb 8 oz) regardless of gestational age. Other definitions include Very Low Bih Weight (VLBW) which is less than 1500 g, and Extremely Low Bih Weight (ELBW) which is less than 1000 g. Normal Weight at term delivery is... |
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