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A 38-year-old woman complains to her physician of chronic pelvic pain that is much worse during her menstrual periods. Pelvic examination demonstrates an enlarged uterus with multiple palpable masses. Ultrasound shows that a large number of ball-like masses up to 6 cm diameter are present in the uterus. Most cases of t... | Answer is B. The vast majority of leiomyomas are found in the uterine fundus or body; with only 3% being found in the cervix. Of the leiomyomas in the fundus or body, 95% are intramural, with the remainder being located subserosally or submucosally. | |
A 9-month-old girl is brought with PR bleed, vomiting, mass in right lumbar region with masked liver dullness. She is in shock like condition. Management should include all of the following EXCEPT?: (A) Barium enema, (B) IV fluid, (C) Give O2, (D) Nasogastric tube | Answer is A. * In patients with prolonged intussusception with signs of shock, peritoneal irritation, intestinal perforation, reduction (with barium, saline or air) should not be attempted * Urgent laprotomy should be planned * But the first priority is urgent resuscitation ie A, B, C (airway, breathing, circulation). ... | |
Which of the following is not a feature of consolidation: (A) Increased vocal resonance, (B) Dull Percussion note, (C) Bronchial Breath sounds, (D) Tracheal shift to side of consolidation | Answer is D. Answer is D (Tracheal shift to side of consolidation): Trachea stays in midline in consolidation (no mediastinal shift). Consolidation is usually caused by pneumonia. In this situation alveoli are full of inflammatory exudates but the size of the lung is unaffected so the trachea remains in its normal midl... | |
Cadaveric position of vocal cords ?: (A) Midline, (B) 1.5 mm from midline, (C) 3.5 mm from midline, (D) 7.5 mm from midline | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., 3.5 mm from midline Position of vocal cords The position of the vocal cords may be described as being in various positions. These are : ? 1. Median position The vocal cords are in midline. This is the position of normal larynx during phonation and in recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy. 2. Pa... | |
Which one of the following phenomena is closely associated with slow wave sleep:: (A) Dreaming, (B) Atonia, (C) Sleep walking, (D) Irregular hea rate | Answer is C. C i.e. Sleep walking | |
2-year-old child presents with sho stature and cafe-au lait spots. Bone marrow aspiration yields a little material and mostly containing fat. What is your diagnosis:: (A) Fanconi anemia, (B) Dyskeratosis congenita, (C) Tuberous sclerosis, (D) Osteogenesis imperfecta | Answer is A. - All features given in the question suggests the diagnosis of Fanconi anemia Common physical findings in Fanconi Anemia (FA): - Skin pigment changes including Cafe-au-lait spots (55% cases) - Sho stature (in 50% cases) - Microcephaly - Thumb and radial malformations - Renal and cardiac malformations - Hyp... | |
The following statements are true regarding Chlamydia except:: (A) Erthromycin is effective for therapy of Chamydial infections, (B) Their cell wall lacks a peptidoglycan layer, (C) They can grow in cell free culture media, (D) They are obligate intracellular bacteria | Answer is C. Unique properties of Chlamydia are
Chlamydia is an obligate intracellular parasite. This means they can survive only by establishing residence inside
Animal cells
They need their host's ATP as an energy source for their own cellular activity. They are energy parasites using a
Cell membrane transport system... | |
Which of the following tests is best for differentiating ACTH secreting pituitary tumour from Ectopic ACTH production?: (A) 24 hour Urinary free coisol, (B) Overnight dexamethasone suppression test, (C) Low dose dexamethasone suppression test, (D) High dose dexamethasone suppression test | Answer is D. 24 hour urinary coisol levels are elevated in both subsets: ACTH secreting pituitary tumour and Ectopic ACTH secretion. Overnight Dexamethasone suppression test involves overnight 1mg dexamethasone tablet and measurement of 8am morning serum or urinary coisol. It is used to diagnose hypercoisolism but cann... | |
Forceps delivery is done in all except:: (A) Mentoposterior, (B) Deep transverse arrest, (C) After coming head, (D) Maternal heart disease | Answer is A. Option ‘a’
Mentoposterior: Before going on to mentoposterior, lets see mentoanterior.
Mentoanterior
Dutta Obs. 7/e, p 390
In mentoanterior face presentation there is place for spontaneous vaginal delivery and liberal episiotomy is all that is required. In case of delay, forceps delivery is done.
In mentop... | |
Pentamidine therapy causes all, EXCEPT ?: (A) Upper lobe infiltrates, (B) Cavitation, (C) Extrathoracic manifestation, (D) None | Answer is D. Ans. is None o Patients who receive aerosolized pentamidine have increased frequency of upper lobe infiltrates. Pneumothorax also occurs. o Risk factor for extrapulmonary spread in patients with HIV is the administration of aerosolized pentamidine. o In patients with PCP who have been receiving aerosolized... | |
True about hepatitis C virus are all except -: (A) Most common cause of chronic infection, (B) Has live attenuated vaccine, (C) Spread by blood transfusion, (D) Is a flavivirus | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b1 i.e., Has live attenuated vaccineHEPATITIS C VIRUS (HCV)o The hepatitis 'C' virus has been classified as a new' genus Hepacivirus in the family flaviviridae.o The virus can not be cultured but can be cloned in Escherichia coli.o It is the commonest cause of post transfusion hepatitis and chroni... | |
In IMNCI, pneumonia is classified by-: (A) Fast breathing, (B) Wheezing, (C) Fever, (D) Chest indrawing | Answer is A. None | |
Digestion of disaccharides occurs at ?: (A) Mouth, (B) Stomach, (C) Small intestine, (D) Large intestine | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Small intestine Digestion of disaccharides (maltose, sucrose and lactose) occurs by the enzymes present in brush border os small intestinal epithelial cells. Maltase (a-glucosidase) breaks 1: 4 linkages in maltose and maltotriose and releases glucose (two molecules of glucose from maltose... | |
A 30 year old female patient complains of painless hard anterior neck mass. FNAC was inconclusive. Open thyroid biopsy was performed which revealed the fibrous nature of the mass, woody, non tender thyroid, mimicking carcinoma is observed. The diagnosis points towards: (A) De Quervain's thyroiditis, (B) Riedel's thyr... | Answer is B. None | |
A person's X-ray chest showing homogenous opacity on right side with shifting of mediastinum on opposite side. Most probable diagnosis is/are:: (A) Collapse, (B) Pleural effusion, (C) Pneumothorax, (D) Consolidation | Answer is B. Answer- (B) Pleural effusionPneumonectomy chest (Early sip: within 24 hr): Paial filling of thorax, ipsilateral mediastinal shift & diaphragmatic elevation.Homogenous opacityShift of mediastinum to the opposite sideConcave upper border (Ellis's curve) | |
All of the following causes coloured halos except: (A) Corneal edema, (B) Retinal degeneration, (C) Foreign body, (D) Steroids | Answer is B. Halos can sometimes be a normal response to bright lights. Halos can also be caused by wearing eyeglasses or corrective lenses (contact lenses), or they can be a side effect of cataract or LASIK surgery. ... Thehalos are a result in diffraction of light entering your eye | |
Which of the following is not a function of liver ?: (A) Production of albumin, (B) Detoxification of ammonia, (C) Production of vitamin K, (D) Metabolism of drugs | Answer is C. Ans. (c) Production of vitamin KRef: Robbin's pathology 9th ed. Z821* Vitamin K is produced by the bacteria of gut and is used by liver for gamma carboxylation of factor 2/7/9/10.# Liver produces albumin which falls in liver cirrhosis producing ascites/edema.# Ammonia is combined with carbon dioxide to pro... | |
An elderly woman suffering from schizophrenia is on antipsychotic medication. She developed purposeless involuntary facial and limb movements, constant chewing and puffing of cheeks. Which of the following drugs is least likely to be involved in this side effect -: (A) Haloperidol, (B) Clozapine, (C) Fluphenazine, (D) ... | Answer is B. Purposeless involuntary facial and limb movements, constant chewing and puffing of checks suggest the diagnosis of tardive dyskinesia (an extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotics).
Clozapine does not produce extrapyramidal side effects. | |
Cluster testing is used in the detection of-: (A) STD, (B) Diabetes, (C) Measles, (D) Cancer | Answer is A. .Cluster testing is used in the detection of of STD S.here the patients are asked to name other persons of either sex ho move in the same socio-sexual environment.these persons are then screened .this technique ha been shown almost to double the number of cases found ref:park&;s textbook,ed22,pg no 312 | |
Ethmoidal polyp is ?: (A) Due to infection, (B) Single, (C) Recurrent, (D) Occurs in children | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Recurrent | |
Which of the following is not seen in Tuberous sclerosis ?: (A) Shagreen patch, (B) Adenoma sebacecum, (C) McCollon Plaques, (D) Depigmented nevi | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., McCollon Plaques | |
A 35 yr old pregnant female at 40 weeks gestational age presents with pain and regular uterine contractions every 4-5min . On arrival the patient is in a lot of pain and requesting relief immediately. Her cervix is 5 cm dilated. What is most appropriate method of pain control for this patient: (A) Intramuscular morphin... | Answer is D. When complete relief of pain is needed throughout labor epidural analgesia is safest and simplest | |
Schistosomiasis is an example of -: (A) Meta-zoonoses, (B) Cyclo-zoonoses, (C) Direct-zoonoses, (D) Sporo-zoonoses | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Meta-zoonoses Zoonoseso Zoonoses are diseases and infections which are naturally transmitted between vertebrate animal and man.o The zoonoses may be classified according to the direction of transmission of disease : -AnthropozoonosesInfection is transmitted to man from lower vertebrate an... | |
Treatment of hydatid cyst: (A) Excision of cyst, (B) Percutaneous drainage, (C) Conservative management, (D) None | Answer is B. Puncture - aspiration- injection -reaspiration (PAIR) done percutaneously because it is safe, less invasive, easier to do with low morbidity and moality. Reference: SRB 5th edition page no. 604 | |
The structure damaged in the given condition is responsible for all except:: (A) Taste sensation of ant 2/3rd tongue, (B) Lacrimal gland secretion, (C) Parotid gland secretion, (D) Platysma contraction | Answer is C. The condition given here is Bell's palsy i.e. LMN (lower motor neuron) lesion of Facial nerve . In this the ipsilateral half of the face is affected. The facial nerve emerges from the pons of the brainstem, controls: Muscles of facial expression, and Carries taste sensations from the anterior two-third of ... | |
H. pylori has been implicated in all, except: (A) Gastric ulcer, (B) Gastric carcinoma, (C) Gastric lymphoma, (D) GIST | Answer is D. H pylori infection is almost always present in the setting of active chronic gastritis and is present in most patients with duodenal (80% to 95%) and gastric (60% to 90%)ulcers. Most patients with gastric cancer have current or past H. pylori infection.There is also a strong association between mucosa-asso... | |
A 41 year old man presented with swelling over parotid area. He has only mild pain. Which is the commonest tumor of the parotid?: (A) Pleomorphic adenoma, (B) Monomorphic adenoma, (C) Wahin's tumor, (D) Adenocarcinoma | Answer is A. Pleomorphic adenomas or benign mixed tumors, are the most common neoplasms of the salivary glands. They represent approximately 60-70% of all parotid tumors and 90% of submandibular benign tumors. These neoplasms affect females more than males and are commonly seen in the third to sixth decades of life. Hi... | |
Depression is not a side effect of: (A) Propanolol, (B) Oral contraceptives, (C) Reserpine, (D) Flupenthixol | Answer is D. Answer is option4, flupenthisol. The antidepressive and anxiolytic efficacy of flupenthixol has been investigated in numerous controlled and open trials involving patients with endogenous, reactive as well as senile depressions. When administered at a mean daily single or multiple dose of 1-2 mg, flupenthi... | |
Of the following permanent teeth, which is least likely to have two roots?: (A) Maxillary canine, (B) Mandibular canine, (C) Maxillary first premolar, (D) Mandibular first premolar | Answer is A. None | |
Drug of choice for pregnant female suspected of having a baby with congenital adrenal hyperplasia: (A) Dexamethasone, (B) Betamethasone, (C) Hydrocoisone, (D) Prednisolone | Answer is A. Refer Goodman Gilman 12/e p 123 To suppress fetal androgen production effectively band consequent virilization Dexamethasone must be initiated before 10 weeks of gestation To treat congenital adrenal hyperplasia is baby hydrocoisone is used. | |
The drug that inhibits uterine contractility and cause pulmonary edema is :: (A) Ritodrine, (B) Nifedipine, (C) lndomethacin, (D) Atosiban | Answer is A. Ans. is a i.e. Ritodrine Pulmonary edema is a serious complication of beta-adrenergic therapy (ritodrine) and MgSO4. This complication occurs in patients receiving oral or (more common) intravenous treatment. It occurs more frequently in patients who have excessive plasma volume expansion, such as those wi... | |
A patient presents with diarrhoea. analysis of stool on wet mount shows mobile protozoa without RBCs and pus cells. The diagnosis is -: (A) Balantidium coil, (B) Giardiasis, (C) Trichomonas hominis, (D) Entamoeba histolytica | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Giardiasis . Mobile protozoa with absence of RBC's and pus cells in stools in a patient with diarrhoea suggests giardiasis. . In balantidum cob and entomoeba histolytica infections, pus cells and RBC's will be present in stools. Trichomonas hominis is considered as non-pathogenic | |
A clinical study involves patients diagnosed with carcinoma whose tumor stage is T4N1M1. The patients' survival rate 5 years from the time of diagnosis is less than 50%, regardless of therapy. Which of the following clinical findings is most likely to be characteristic of this group of patients?: (A) Cachexia, (B) Card... | Answer is A. Cachexia is a common finding in advanced cancers, and weight loss without dieting in an adult is a "red flag" for malignancy. The exact cause for this is unknown, but increases in circulating factors such as tumor necrosis factor (TNF) may play a role. Cardiac murmurs may occur in the development of nonbac... | |
Thiopentone is absolutely contraindicated in: (A) Porphyria, (B) Moribund patients, (C) Increased intracranial pressure, (D) Meningitis | Answer is A. (Porphyria): (381 -- KDT 7th edition; 536- Goodman 12th7or variegate)Thiopentone can precipitate acut intermittent or variegate porphyria in susceptible individuals therefore contraindicated. The abnormal synthesis of protoporphyrin (important in hemoglobin production) results in excess porphobilinogen. Ba... | |
True regarding the rubens valve is: (A) Is a non-rebreathing valve, (B) Will not allow spontaneous respiration, (C) Is a pressure reducing valve, (D) May jam in expiratory position | Answer is A. Rubens valve is a non – rebreathing valve used in self inflating resuscitation bags. It jams in inspiratory position occasionally. It allows spontaneous breathing . | |
Loeffler's medium is-: (A) Indicator medium, (B) Selective medium, (C) Enrichment medium, (D) Enriched medium | Answer is D. Enriched media The media containing ingredients which enhance their growth-promoting qualities E.g. Blood agar, Chocolate agar and Loeffler medium. The usual media employed for cultivation of the diphtheria bacillus are Loeffler's serum slope and tellurite blood agar. Diphtheria bacilli grow on Loeffler's ... | |
All are true about halothane except -: (A) Tachycardia, (B) Hepatitis, (C) Bronchodilatation, (D) Uterine relaxation | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Tachycardia o Halothane causes bradycardia.Halothaneo It is a volatile liquid with sweet odour, nonirritating and noninflammable.o It is a potent anaesthetic with poor analgesic and muscle relaxant properties,o Halothane causes direct depression of myocardial contractility by reducing int... | |
A man coming from a mountain whose wife died 6 months prior says that his wife appeared to him and asked him to join her. The diagnosis is: (A) Normal grief, (B) Grief psychosis, (C) Bereavement reaction, (D) Supernatural phenomenon | Answer is B. B i.e. Grief psychosis Bereavement, Grief, or Mourning is a psychological reaction of those who survive a significant loss. Differences between normal & abnormal grief:Identifying with a deceased person such as taking on ceain admired traits or treasuring ceain possessions is normal; believing that one is ... | |
Ocular manifestation in giant cell arteritis?: (A) Arteritic AION, (B) Nonarteritic AION, (C) Papilledema, (D) Horners Syndrome | Answer is A. Ans. a. Arteritic AIONAION occurs due to interference of blood supply to anterior part of optic nerve (posterior ciliary artery)AION can be clinically differentiated into:Arteritic AIONNonarteritic AION*. Due to giant cell arteritis*. Due to occlusion of short posterior ciliary artery*. Sudden, severe visu... | |
A 43-year-old man suddenly develops odynophagia. Which organism is most likely to be isolated on throat culture?: (A) Mononucleosis, (B) S. aureus, (C) Normal pharyngeal flora, (D) Group A streptococci | Answer is C. Odynophagia is a sensation of sharp retrosternal pain on swallowing. It is usually caused by severe erosive conditions such as Candida, herpes virus, and corrosive injury following caustic ingestion. | |
Which disease is associated with the Father of Public Health?: (A) Malaria, (B) Cholera, (C) Tuberculosis, (D) Plague | Answer is B. Dr. John Snow was the first to associate Cholera to a sewage-affected drinking water pump in London Ref: 25th edition Park&;s Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, Page no. 25 | |
Caloric test is done for: (A) Semicircular canal, (B) Macula, (C) Saccule, (D) Cochlea | Answer is A. Ans. (a) Semicircular canalRef. Dhingra's ENT 5th ed. / 48* Caloric test is used to assess vestibular function. The basis of this test is to induce nystagmus by thermal stimulation of the vestibular system.* Done by taking water of 2 temperatures, cold (30degC) and hot (44degC).* Position of the test: Supi... | |
In humans, effective renal blood flow is ?: (A) 425, (B) 525, (C) 625, (D) 725 | Answer is C. C i.e., 625 ml | |
Typhoid carriers are detected by following except ?: (A) Isolation of bacteria from urine, (B) Isolation of bacteria from bile, (C) Vi antigen, (D) Widal test | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Widal test | |
Which of the following statements regarding live vaccines is false?: (A) Two live vaccines cannot be administered simultaneously, (B) Booster doses are not required when live vaccines are administered, (C) Single dose gives life long immunity, (D) Live vaccine contains both major and minor antigens | Answer is A. When the administration of two live vaccines is mandatory, it can be given simultaneously but either: ? at different sites of injection or ? at an interval of at least 3 weeks Ref: Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine By K. Park, 19th Edition, Page 97; Immunology for The Health Sciences By Nic... | |
Magnan's symptom is seen in:: (A) Datura, (B) Cocaine, (C) Opium, (D) Cannabis | Answer is B. Altered tactile sensation: the person feel that some insects are crawling on his skin. This is known asMagnan's symptomorcocaine bugs(formication). Cocaine is an alkaloid derived from plantErythroxylon coca. | |
The earliest manifestation of increased intrcranial pressure following head injury is: (A) Ipsilateral pupillary dilatation, (B) Contralateral pupillary dilatation, (C) Altered mental status, (D) Hemiparesis | Answer is C. In general, symptoms and signs that suggest a rise in ICP include altered level of consciousness, headache, vomitingwithout nausea, ocular palcies, back pain and papilledema. If papilledema is protracted, it may lead to visual disturbances, optic atrophy, and eventually blindness. The headache is classical... | |
True about Bochdalek hernia is -: (A) Seen on right side, (B) Anterior position, (C) Differential diagnosis for pleuropericardial cyst, (D) All | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Differential diagnosis for pleuropericardial cyst Differential diagnosis of CDH o Pulmonary sequestration o Cystic adenomatoid malformation o Pleuropericardial cysts | |
Which bone do not contributes to the medial wall of the orbit?: (A) Ethmoid, (B) Lacrimal, (C) Frontal, (D) Zygoma | Answer is D. ANSWER: (D) ZygomaREF: Grays anatomy 39th edition, page 688-690 style="font-size: 1.04761904761905em; color: rgba(0, 0, 0, 1); font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif">part_8/chapter_45.htmlIndirect repeat in December 2010WALLS OF THE ORBIT:The orbit possesses four walls; a roof, lateral wall, floor, an... | |
Swan neck deformity -: (A) Flexion at PIP and DIP joint, (B) Extention at PIP and DIP joint, (C) Flexion at PIP and Extention at DIP joint, (D) Extention at PIP and Flexion at DIP joint | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Extention at PIP and Flexion at DIP joint * Boutonniere deformity: Flexion contracture of PIP joint and extension of DIP joint.* Swan neck deformity: Hyperextension of PIP joint and flexion at DIP joint. | |
A 55-year-old man with recent onset of atrial fibrillation presents with a cold, pulseless left lower extremity. He complains of left leg paresthesia and is unable to dorsiflex his toes. Following a successful popliteal embolectomy, with restoration of palpable pedal pulses, the patient is still unable to dorsi- flex h... | Answer is D. This case illustrates two (among many) conditions that lead to the anterior compartment syndrome, namely, acute arterial occlusion without collateral inflow and rapid reperfusion of ischemic muscle. Treatment for a compartment syndrome is prompt fasciotomy Assessing a compartment syndrome and proceeding wi... | |
Which of the following is not a CT feature ofAdrenal adenoma –: (A) Low attenuation, (B) Homogenous density and well defined borders, (C) Enhances rapidly, contrast stays in it for a relatively longer time and washes out late, (D) Calcification is rare | Answer is C. Adrenal adenoma on contrast-enhanced CT/MRI shows rapid uptake and relatively rapid washout of contrast material than do non adenomasQ.
Adenoma: CT features
Well defined/sharply defined
<5 cm in size
Low attenuation (<10 HU) due to lipid content
Mild homogenous enhancement
Relatively rapid washout of con... | |
Most common cause of death in primary amyloidosis is?: (A) Respiratory failure, (B) Cardiac failure, (C) Renal failure, (D) Septicemia | Answer is B. ANSWER: (B) Cardiac failureREF: Harrison's Internal Medicine 17th edition chapter 324. AmyloidosisThe kidneys are the most frequently affected organ (80%), Renal amyloidosis is usually manifested by proteinuria, which is often in the nephrotic range and associated with significant hypoalbuminemia and edema... | |
Pyoderma-gangrenosum is most commonly associated with -: (A) Ulcerative colitis, (B) Crohns disease, (C) Amoebic colitis, (D) Ischemic colitis | Answer is A. None | |
AML transformation common in - a) Aplastic anemia b) MDS c) Megakaryocytic thrombocytopenia d) None: (A) ab, (B) bc, (C) d, (D) ca | Answer is A. None | |
Which of the following is false about mucocele of gallbladder: (A) Complication of gallstones, (B) Treatment is early cholecystectomy, (C) Obstruction at neck of gallbladder, (D) Gallbladder is never palpable | Answer is D. Mucocele(Hydrops) Mucocele results from Prolonged obstruction of the cystic duct, usually by a large solitary calculus Obstructed GB lumen is progressively distented by mucus (mucocele) or by clear transudate(hydrops) produced by mucosal epithelial cells Clinical features A visible, easily palpable, non te... | |
Most Common Tumour of Eyelid is:: (A) Sebaceeous Ca, (B) BCC, (C) SCC, (D) Malignant melanoma | Answer is B. BCC | |
Intolerance to loud sound, nerve affected is: (A) 5th nerve, (B) 7th nerve, (C) 10th nerve, (D) None | Answer is B. Clinical features of the 7th nerve palsy: Eyeball turns up and out Saliva dribbles Tears flow down Pain in the ear Noise intolerance Loss of taste Ref: Dhingra 7e pg 104. | |
Thyroid hormone formation involves many steps. Which of the following amino acid is the precursor for thyroxine?: (A) Glycine, (B) Tyrosine, (C) Phenylalanine, (D) Iodine | Answer is B. Tyrosine: Tyrosine is the precursor of triiodothyronine and thyroxine. Neural cells conve tyrosine to epinephrine and norepinephrine. While dopa is also an intermediate in the formation of melanin, different enzymes hydroxylate tyrosine in melanocytes. Dopa decarboxylase, a pyridoxal phosphate-dependent en... | |
Once the enamel formation is complete, the tooth will erupt after approximately:: (A) One year, (B) Two years, (C) Three years, (D) Four years | Answer is C. None | |
Sputum positive patient who should be quarantined:: (A) Pregnant women, (B) Old people, (C) Children above 6 years, (D) Children below 6 years | Answer is D. Ans. (d) Children below 6 yearsRef: K. Park 23rd ed. /182-84* About national TB program, if a person is smear positive for TB:# All the family who is in close contact with the patient is given prophylaxis# Children under age 6 is given prophylaxisNote: India's Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programm... | |
Ca 125 is used in diagnosis of -: (A) Ovarian cancer, (B) Gall bladder cancer, (C) Carcinoids, (D) Bronchogenic cancer | Answer is A. None | |
Which of these pathologies is the most common benign tumour of the parotid gland?: (A) Mumps, (B) TB, (C) Heerfordt syndrome, (D) Pleomorphic adenoma | Answer is D. Mumps causes the classic bilateral parotitis, but it can present as a unilateral enlargement in rare cases. Heerfordt syndrome includes sarcoidosis.
Tuberculosis historically was associated with ‘cold abscess’. It is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, an acid-fast bacterium that does not stain with Gram... | |
A patient has ecchymosis and petechiae all over the body with no hepato-splenomegaly. All are true except: (A) Increased megakaryocytes in bone narrow, (B) Bleeding into the joints, (C) Decreased platelet in blood, (D) Disease resolves itself in 80% of Patients in 2-6 | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Bleeding into the joints Features of Acute and Chronic Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura Feature Acute ITP Chronic ITP Peak age of incidence Children 2-6 year Adults, 20-40 year Sex predilection None 3:1 female to male Antecedent infection Common 1-2 week Unusual Onset of bleeding Befor... | |
Which body pa is represented superiorly and medially within the postcentral gyrus?: (A) Upper limb, (B) Lower limb, (C) Abdomen, (D) Genitalia | Answer is B. In the postcentral gyrus (somatosensory area) of each hemisphere, the sensory information from the opposite side of the body is received. The lower limb representation is found in the superior and medial poion of the postcentral gyrus (see the figure below). The lateral poion of the postcentral gyrus recei... | |
A 62 year old man has a 25 year history of alcoholism and liver disease. He visits his physician complaining of pain and swelling of his legs. A decrease in which of the following is the most likely cause of the peripheral edema?: (A) Capillary hydrostatic pressure, (B) Interstitial colloid osmotic pressure, (C) Inters... | Answer is D. The plasma colloid osmotic pressure is often low in alcoholics with chronic liver disease (cirrhosis). The diseased liver cannot produce adequate amounts of albumin, which leads to a decrease in the concentration of albumin in the plasma, i.e., hypoalbuminemia. Because about 75% of the plasma colloid osmot... | |
Most common cause of dissecting hematoma is: (A) Hypeension, (B) Marfan's syndrome, (C) Iatrogenic, (D) Kawasaki | Answer is A. Aoic dissection occurs when blood splays apa the laminar planes of the media to form a blood-filled channel within the aoic wall.Aoic dissection occurs mainly in two age groups: (1)men aged 40 to 60 with antecedent hypeension (more than 90% of cases); and (2) younger patients with connective tissue abnorma... | |
Charcot's triad include: (A) Fever, pain, jaundice, (B) Fever, vomiting, jaundice, (C) Fever, Jaundice, Abd, distension, (D) Fever, chills, jaundice | Answer is A. Charcot's triad is a feature of ascending cholangitis secondary to CBD stones.Intermittent symotoms are produced as the stone moves proximally & floats with relieving of obstruction and subsiding of symotoms.The triad includes fever,jaundice and pain(maybe colicky). SRB's manual of surgery,5th edition,page... | |
Die is commonly seen in -: (A) MlAML, (B) M2AML, (C) M3AML, (D) M4AML | Answer is C. Acute promyelocytic leukaemia (M3) may be associated with a serious coagulation abnormality ,disseminated intravascular coagulation.Reference :Davidson's principles & practices of medicine 22nd edition pg no 383. | |
Thermoregulatory response activated by cold is: (A) Cutaneous vasodilatation, (B) Anorexia, (C) Increased voluntary activity, (D) Increased respiration | Answer is C. None | |
Humans become infected by M.tuberculosis commonly by: (A) Ingestion, (B) Contact, (C) Inhalation, (D) Inoculation | Answer is C. M.tuberculosis is mainly transmitted by direct inhalation of aerosolised bacilli contained in the droplet nuclei of expectorated sputum. Generated while coughing. sneezing,or speaking of infected patients. There may be as many as 3000 infectious nuclei per cough. The tiny droplets may remain suspended in t... | |
Umbilical cord usually separates in newborns on:: (A) Day 1, (B) Day 2-3, (C) Day 7-10, (D) After 1 month | Answer is C. Ans. C. Day 7-10Umbilical cord is the connection between the mother and the fetus in the intrauterine stage and includes two arteries and one vein. It usually separates in children between day 7-10, either by dry gangrene or a residual moist base. | |
Delayed pubey is when primary amenorrhea is seen without development of secondary sexual characters beyond the age of?: (A) 12 years, (B) 14 years, (C) 16 years, (D) 18 years | Answer is C. Delayed pubey: Girls: Absence of secondary sexual characters by 13 yrs of age / Absence of menarche by 16 years of age / within 5 yrs of onset of pubey Boys: Lack of pubeal changes by 14 yrs of age | |
Most common cause of central precocious pubey in girls:: (A) Exogenous estrogen, (B) Idiopathic, (C) CNS tumor, (D) Hypothyroidism | Answer is B. - MCC of central precocious pubey in girls is Idiopathic. - Organic causes are more common in boys. - OTHER CAUSES: Infections - TB, meningitis Injuries - Trauma, neurosurgery, Radiotherapy Tumors - Hypothalamic hamaoma (Gelastic seizures)- MCC of organic central precocious pubey CNS malformations like ara... | |
Which test is used to compare kapian-meier survival curve-: (A) T-test, (B) Chi-square test, (C) Log rank test, (D) Whitneys test | Answer is C. Ans. is 'C' i.e., Log rank test o The Kaplan-Meier estimator is an estimater for estimating the survival function from life time data. o A plot of the Kaplan-Meier estimate of the survival function is a series of horizontal steps of declining magnitude which, wrhen a large enough sample is taken, approache... | |
Apoptotic bodies are: (A) Clumped chromatin bodies, (B) Pyknotic nucleus without organelles, (C) Cell membrane bound with organelles, (D) No nucleus with organelles | Answer is C. In H&E-stained tissue sections, the nuclei of apoptotic cells show various stages of chromatin condensation and aggregation and, ultimately, karyorrhexis; at the molecular level, this is reflected in fragmentation of DNA into nucleosome-sized pieces. The cells rapidly shrink, form cytoplasmic buds, and fra... | |
According to Hellin's law chances of twins in pregnancy are:: (A) 1 in 60, (B) 1 in 70, (C) 1 in 80, (D) 1 in 90 | Answer is C. According to Hellin’s rule
The mathematical frequency of multiple pregnancy is:
Twins 1 in 80
Triplets 1 in (80)2
Quadruplets 1 in (80)3 and so on | |
All of the following are true about OPSI (Overwhelming Postsplenectomy Infection), Except:: (A) Maximum risk is within 1 year of splenectomy, (B) Begins with mild appearing prodrome, (C) May present with septic shock, (D) Usually does not respond to antibiotic treatment | Answer is A. Ans is A (Maximum risk is within 1 year of splenectomy) Overwhelming Postsplenectomy Infection (OPSI) Splenectomised patients are likely to suffer from severe infections. This syndrome is called overwhelming postsplenectomy infection (OPSI). OPSI is among the more devastating sequelae of asplenia and is th... | |
"La-facies sympathique" is a condition seen in cases of: (A) Hanging, (B) Strangulation, (C) Myocardial insufficiency, (D) Railway accidents | Answer is A. * La facies sympathique occurs in hanging* On postmortem examination, in hanging, usually the eyes are closed or partly open and the pupils are usually dilated.Sometimes, when the ligature knot presses on the cervical sympathetic, the eye on the same side may remain open and its pupil dilated (La, facies s... | |
In acute inflammation the tissue response consists of all except: (A) Vasodilation, (B) Exudation, (C) Neutrophilic response, (D) Granuloma formation | Answer is D. Ref Robbins9/e p97 Granulomatous inflammation is a distinctive pattern of chronic inflammation characterized by aggregates of acti- vated macrophages with scattered lymphocytes. Granulo- mas are characteristic of ceain specific pathologic states; consequently, recognition of the granulomatous pattern is im... | |
Which of the following analgesics should not be given in acute MI ?: (A) Methadone, (B) Morphine, (C) Buprenorphine, (D) Pentazocine | Answer is D. None | |
This condition is best treated by:: (A) Intra-keloidal injection of triamcinolone, (B) Wide excision and grafting, (C) Wide excision and suturing (, (D) Deep X-ray therapy | Answer is A. Ans. (a) Intra-keloidal injection of triamcinolone.Diagnosis based on the image is Keloid scar* Characterized by overgrowth of scar tissue beyond the margins of original wound* Occur more commonly in females over sternum, shoulder and face, Black people are more prone for it* Treatment is with intralesiona... | |
Which joint is commonly involved in osteochondritis dissecans?: (A) Ankle joint, (B) Knee joint, (C) Wrist joint, (D) Elbow joint | Answer is B. Kness is the most commonly affected joint. Other joints such as hip, ankle , elbow and shoulder can also be involved. Definition : * Localized condition affecting the aicular surface of a joint with separation of a segment of cailage and subchondral bone * Knee by far the most common joint involved (75% of... | |
renal papillary necrosis is caused by ?: (A) alcohol, (B) cocaine, (C) heroin, (D) morphine | Answer is A. Etiology # Pyelonephritis # Obstruction of the urinary tract # Sickle cell hemoglobinopathies, including sickle cell trait # Tuberculosis # Cinhosis of the liver, chronic alcoholism # Analgesic abuse # Renal transplant rejection, Radiation, Renal vein thrombosis # Diabetes mellitus # Systemic vasculitis Re... | |
Bilateral spider leg sign on IVP is suggestive of:: (A) Polycystic kidney, (B) Hydronephrosis, (C) Hypernephroma, (D) Renal stones | Answer is A. Ans. Polycystic kidney | |
Which of the following will you like to give to a pregnant patient to decrease the risk of neural tube defects in the offspring, if your patient is receiving antiepileptic drugs ?: (A) Folic acid, (B) Vitamin A, (C) Vitamin E, (D) Pyridoxine | Answer is A. None | |
Which is the only living pa of Hydatid cyst?: (A) Adventitia, (B) Germinal epithelium, (C) Laminated membrane, (D) Parenchyma of the organ | Answer is B. Hydatid cyst is caused by Echinococcus granulosus. It has a thick opaque white outer cuticle / laminated layer and an inner thin germinal layer containing nucleated cells. The germinal layer is the site of asexual reproduction. It also secretes the hydatid fluid which fills the cavity. The fluid is clear, ... | |
Von Langenbeck repair is used for treatment of:: (A) Cleft lip, (B) Cleft palate, (C) Septal detion, (D) Saddle nose | Answer is B. Von Langenbeck Repair: Two-stage palate repairs were originally described as a means of treating wide clefts; soft palate repair was done at the same time as lip repair, with the hard palate repaired later after the cleft width had diminished. In a way, this is analogous to lip adhesion; the surgeon is com... | |
Which of the following is not recommended in the treatment of Chronic Low Back Pain:: (A) NSAIDs, (B) Bed Rest for 3 months, (C) Exercises, (D) Epidural steroid Injection | Answer is B. B. i.e. Bed rest for 3 months In low back ache (lumbago) bed rest should not exceed 2 (to 4) daysQ, because bed rest for longer period may lead to debilitating muscle atrophy and increased stiffness. Therefore bed rest > 2 days (Harrison)/>4 days (CDTF) is not recommended. | |
Fatty acid synthase complex contain the following enzymes except:: (A) Enoyl reductase, (B) Ketoacyl reductase, (C) Acetyl: CoA carboxylase, (D) Dehydratase | Answer is C. Ans. C. Acetyl: CoA carboxylase(Ref: Harper 31/e page 217)Six enzyme activities of fatty acid synthase complex are:Ketoacyl SynthaseMalonyl-acetyl transacylaseHydrataseEnoyl reductaseKetoacyl reductaseThioesterase (Deacylase) | |
Not a type of Inguinal hernia: (A) Gibbon's hernia, (B) Valpeall's hernia, (C) Pantaloon's hernia, (D) Sliding hernia | Answer is B. None | |
Which is false regarding Gram positive cocci ?: (A) Staph. saprophyticus causes UTI in females, (B) Micrococci are oxidase positive, (C) Most enterococci are sensitive to penicillin, (D) Pneumococci are capsulated | Answer is C. Unlike streptococci enterococci are not reliably killed by penicillin or ampicillin alone at concentration acheived clinically in the blood or tissues.
Antimicrobial susceptibility testing should be performed routinely on enterococcal isolates.
Other options
Option ‘a’ • Staph. saprophyiticus specially c... | |
Brugada syndrome is characterized by: (A) ST elevation, (B) Prolonged PR interval, (C) Prolonged QT interval, (D) Tall T waves | Answer is A. Brugada syndrome is a rare syndrome characterized by >0.2 mV of ST-segment elevation with a coved ST segment and negative T wave in more than one anterior precordial lead (V1-V3) and episodes of syncope or cardiac arrest due to polymorphic VT in the absence of structural hea disease.Harrison 19e pg: 1497 | |
Malaria causing nephrotic syndrome -: (A) P. vivax, (B) P. Falciparum, (C) P. malariae, (D) P. Ovale | Answer is C. It would appear that quaan malaria causes an immune complex nephritis in some individuals that, once established, is sustained by mechanisms not yet fully explained but which may involve an autoimmune process. Evidence to suppo an immunologic pathogenesis of the renal lesions is provided by the presence of... | |
Commonest site for colonic diverticula is-: (A) Ascending colon, (B) Sigmoid colon, (C) Transverse colon, (D) Descending colon | Answer is B. None | |
Drug of choice for acute severe asthma is: September 2006: (A) Sho acting beta 2 agonists, (B) Long acting beta 2 agonists, (C) Oral theophylline, (D) Inhaled ipratropium bromide | Answer is A. Ans. A: Sho acting beta 2 agonists Severe asthma (Continuous symptoms; activity limitation; frequent exacerbations/hospitalization) requires: Regular high dose of inhaled steroid (800-2000 microgram/ day) through a large volume spacer device and inhaled long acting beta2 agonist (Salmeterol). Additional tr... | |
False statement regarding myocardial infarction and depression is:: (A) Depression is a risk factor for MI, (B) MI is a risk factor for depression, (C) SSRI's can be used post MI for treatment of depression, (D) Only cognitive behavioral therapy is used after MI | Answer is D. The first three options are correct. Depression and myocardial infarction are risk factors for each other. The treatment of depression after MI involves both medications and CBT. | |
Regarding Fanconi anemia, the wrong statement is:: (A) Autosomal dominant, (B) Bone marrow show pancytopenia, (C) Usually aplastic anemia, (D) It is due to defective DNA repair | Answer is A. Fanconi's anemia is an autosomal recessive disease Characterized:- Progressive pancytopenia Increased risk of malignancy (solid tumors and AML) Congenital developmental anomalies like sho stature, cafe au lait spots, abnormalities affecting thumb, radius and genitourinary tract. Fanconi's anemia is associa... | |
According to WHO, what is given to prevent PPH by active management of third stage of labour?: (A) IV PGF2 alpha agonist, (B) IM oxytocin, (C) IV ergometrine, (D) Perrectal prostaglandins | Answer is B. WHO recommendations for prevention of PPH by active management of third stage of labour Components of Active Management of the Third Stage of Labour (WHO)Administration of uterotonic soon after bih of baby.Delayed cord clamping and cutting.Controlled cord traction for delivery of the placenta (Brandt Andre... | |
A multipara with 34 weeks pregnancy tachycardia, fever, hepatospleenomegaly, pallor has :: (A) Malaria, (B) Iron deficiency anaemia, (C) Physiological anaemia, (D) Megaloblastic anaemia | Answer is A. Malaria |
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