Datasets:

reginaboateng

/

Bioasq7b_factoid

like 0

MethPed: an R package for the identification of pediatric brain tumor subtypes. BACKGROUND: DNA methylation profiling of pediatric brain tumors offers a new way of diagnosing and subgrouping these tumors which improves current clinical diagnostics based on histopathology. We have therefore developed the MethPed classifier, which is a multiclass random forest algorithm, based on DNA methylation profiles from many subgroups of pediatric brain tumors. RESULTS: We developed an R package that implements the MethPed classifier, making it easily available and accessible. The package can be used for estimating the probability that an unknown sample belongs to each of nine pediatric brain tumor diagnoses/subgroups. CONCLUSIONS: The MethPed R package efficiently classifies pediatric brain tumors using the developed MethPed classifier. MethPed is available via Bioconductor: http://bioconductor.org/packages/MethPed/.

Which R package could be used for the identification of pediatric brain tumors?

587e2300fc7e8dd84f000004_006

Molecular basis of albinism: mutations and polymorphisms of pigmentation genes associated with albinism. Albinism, caused by a deficiency of melanin pigment in the skin, hair, and eye (oculocutaneous albinism [OCA]), or primarily in the eye (ocular albinism [OA]), results from mutations in genes involved in the biosynthesis of melanin pigment. The lack of melanin pigment in the developing eye leads to fovea hypoplasia and abnormal routing of the optic nerves. These changes are responsible for the nystagmus, strabismus, and reduced visual acuity common to all types of albinism. Mutations in six genes have been reported to be responsible for different types of oculocutaneous and ocular albinism, including the tyrosinase gene (TYR) and OCA1 (MIM# 203100), the OCA2 gene and OCA2 (MIM# 203200), the tyrosinase-related protein-1 gene (TYRP1) and OCA3 (MIM# 203290), the HPS gene and Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome (MIM# 203300), the CHS gene (CHS1), and Chediak-Higashi syndrome (MIM# 214500), and the X-linked ocular albinism gene and OA1 (MIM#300500). The function of only two of the gene products is known tyrosinase and tyrosinase-related protein-1 both of which are enzymes in the melanin biosynthetic pathway. Continued mutational analysis coupled with function/structure studies should aid our understanding of the function of the remaining genes and their role in albinism. Mutation and polymorphism data on these genes are available from the International Albinism Center Albinism Database web site (http://www.cbc.umn.edu/tad).

Which mutated enzyme is responsible for oculocutaneous 1 (OCA1)-type albinism?

58cbb98c02b8c60953000034_103

NKX2-1 mutations in brain-lung-thyroid syndrome: a case series of four patients. Brain-lung-thyroid syndrome (BLTS) characterized by congenital hypothyroidism, respiratory distress syndrome, and benign hereditary chorea is caused by thyroid transcription factor 1 (NKX2-1/TTF1) mutations. We report the clinical and molecular characteristics of four cases presenting with primary hypothyroidism, respiratory distress, and neurological disorder. Two of the four patients presenting with the triad of BLTS had NKX2-1 mutations, and one of these NKX2-1 [c.890_896del (p.Ala327Glyfs*52)] is a novel variant. The third patient without any identified NKX2-1 mutations was a carrier of mitochondrial mutation; this raises the possibility of mitochondrial mutations contributing to thyroid dysgenesis. Although rare, the triad of congenital hypothyroidism, neurological, and respiratory signs is highly suggestive of NKX2-1 anomalies. Screening for NKX2-1 mutations in patients with thyroid, lung, and neurological abnormalities will enable a unifying diagnosis and genetic counseling for the affected families. In addition, identification of an NKX2-1 defect would be helpful in allaying the concerns about inadequate thyroxine supplementation as the cause of neurological defects observed in some children with congenital hypothyroidism.

Mutation of which gene is implicated in the Brain-lung-thyroid syndrome?

56c1f03bef6e394741000053_004

Complete OATP1B1 and OATP1B3 deficiency causes human Rotor syndrome by interrupting conjugated bilirubin reuptake into the liver. Bilirubin, a breakdown product of heme, is normally glucuronidated and excreted by the liver into bile. Failure of this system can lead to a buildup of conjugated bilirubin in the blood, resulting in jaundice. The mechanistic basis of bilirubin excretion and hyperbilirubinemia syndromes is largely understood, but that of Rotor syndrome, an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by conjugated hyperbilirubinemia, coproporphyrinuria, and near-absent hepatic uptake of anionic diagnostics, has remained enigmatic. Here, we analyzed 8 Rotor-syndrome families and found that Rotor syndrome was linked to mutations predicted to cause complete and simultaneous deficiencies of the organic anion transporting polypeptides OATP1B1 and OATP1B3. These important detoxification-limiting proteins mediate uptake and clearance of countless drugs and drug conjugates across the sinusoidal hepatocyte membrane. OATP1B1 polymorphisms have previously been linked to drug hypersensitivities. Using mice deficient in Oatp1a/1b and in the multispecific sinusoidal export pump Abcc3, we found that Abcc3 secretes bilirubin conjugates into the blood, while Oatp1a/1b transporters mediate their hepatic reuptake. Transgenic expression of human OATP1B1 or OATP1B3 restored the function of this detoxification-enhancing liver-blood shuttle in Oatp1a/1b-deficient mice. Within liver lobules, this shuttle may allow flexible transfer of bilirubin conjugates (and probably also drug conjugates) formed in upstream hepatocytes to downstream hepatocytes, thereby preventing local saturation of further detoxification processes and hepatocyte toxic injury. Thus, disruption of hepatic reuptake of bilirubin glucuronide due to coexisting OATP1B1 and OATP1B3 deficiencies explains Rotor-type hyperbilirubinemia. Moreover, OATP1B1 and OATP1B3 null mutations may confer substantial drug toxicity risks.

Which syndrome is associated with OATP1B1 and OATP1B3 deficiency?

571e40a8bb137a4b0c000009_011

H2A histone-fold and DNA elements in nucleosome activate SWR1-mediated H2A.Z replacement in budding yeast. The histone variant H2A.Z is a universal mark of gene promoters, enhancers, and regulatory elements in eukaryotic chromatin. The chromatin remodeler SWR1 mediates site-specific incorporation of H2A.Z by a multi-step histone replacement reaction, evicting histone H2A-H2B from the canonical nucleosome and depositing the H2A.Z-H2B dimer. Binding of both substrates, the canonical nucleosome and the H2A.Z-H2B dimer, is essential for activation of SWR1. We found that SWR1 primarily recognizes key residues within the α2 helix in the histone-fold of nucleosomal histone H2A, a region not previously known to influence remodeler activity. Moreover, SWR1 interacts preferentially with nucleosomal DNA at superhelix location 2 on the nucleosome face distal to its linker-binding site. Our findings provide new molecular insights on recognition of the canonical nucleosome by a chromatin remodeler and have implications for ATP-driven mechanisms of histone eviction and deposition.

Which protein mediates the replacement of H2A by H2A.Z in the yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae?

58a6db8660087bc10a00002c_029

Detailed mechanistic analysis of gevokizumab, an allosteric anti-IL-1β antibody with differential receptor-modulating properties. Interleukin-1β (IL-1β) is a proinflammatory cytokine that is implicated in many autoinflammatory disorders, but is also important in defense against pathogens. Thus, there is a need to safely and effectively modulate IL-1β activity to reduce pathology while maintaining function. Gevokizumab is a potent anti-IL-1β antibody being developed as a treatment for diseases in which IL-1β has been associated with pathogenesis. Previous data indicated that gevokizumab negatively modulates IL-1β signaling through an allosteric mechanism. Because IL-1β signaling is a complex, dynamic process involving multiple components, it is important to understand the kinetics of IL-1β signaling and the impact of gevokizumab on this process. In the present study, we measured the impact of gevokizumab on the IL-1β system using Schild analysis and surface plasmon resonance studies, both of which demonstrated that gevokizumab decreases the binding affinity of IL-1β for the IL-1 receptor type I (IL-1RI) signaling receptor, but not the IL-1 counter-regulatory decoy receptor (IL-1 receptor type II). Gevokizumab inhibits both the binding of IL-1β to IL-1RI and the subsequent recruitment of IL-1 accessory protein primarily by reducing the association rates of these interactions. Based on this information and recently published structural data, we propose that gevokizumab decreases the association rate for binding of IL-1β to its receptor by altering the electrostatic surface potential of IL-1β, thus reducing the contribution of electrostatic steering to the rapid association rate. These data indicate, therefore, that gevokizumab is a unique inhibitor of IL-1β signaling that may offer an alternative to current therapies for IL-1β-associated autoinflammatory diseases.

Which molecule is targeted by the drug Gevokizumab?

550e828c71445a662f000002_003

The new oral anticoagulants: a challenge for hospital formularies. Introduction Over the past 60 years, clinicians have used vitamin K antagonists, primarily warfarin, as the sole oral anticoagulants for managing a variety of thrombotic disorders. Warfarin, which requires frequent monitoring, has a variable dose response, a narrow therapeutic index, and numerous drug and dietary interactions. However, intravenous and subcutaneous agents, such as unfractionated heparin, low-molecular-weight heparin, direct thrombin inhibitors, and pentasaccharide, have been introduced over the past 30 years for managing thromboembolic disorders. Recently, 5 new oral anticoagulants, dabigatran, rivaroxaban, apixaban, endoxaban, and betrixaban, have been introduced into clinical trials. Apixaban, rivaroxaban, endoxaban, and betrixaban are specific direct inhibitors of factor Xa, while dabigatran inhibits factor IIa. These drugs have a pharmacological profile that does not require monitoring in order to adjust therapy, which is the mainstay of warfarin management. In addition, these new medications have not shown any major issues regarding food interactions; rather, they demonstrate the potential for limited drug-drug interactions due to their limited metabolism through the cytochrome P450 system. This unique pharmacokinetic profile may provide clinicians with a new era of managing thromboembolic disorders. Two of these agents, dabigatran and rivaroxaban, have been approved by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for stroke prevention in patients with nonvalvular atrial fibrillation (AF); in addition, rivaroxaban can be used in the prevention of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in total hip and knee arthroplasty during the acute and extended periods of risk. However, the challenge for hospital formularies will be the appropriate use and management of these new medications as they become integrated into outpatient care. In order to better understand the issues that pharmacy and therapeutics committees will encounter, a review of the 2 FDA-approved oral anticoagulants will be evaluated.

Which clotting factor is inhibited by betrixaban?

55200c606b348bb82c000013_077

Gene transfer improves erythroid development in ribosomal protein S19-deficient Diamond-Blackfan anemia. Diamond-Blackfan anemia (DBA) is a congenital bone marrow failure syndrome characterized by a specific deficiency in erythroid progenitors. Forty percent of the patients are blood transfusion-dependent. Recent reports show that the ribosomal protein S19 (RPS19) gene is mutated in 25% of all patients with DBA. We constructed oncoretroviral vectors containing the RPS19 gene to develop gene therapy for RPS19-deficient DBA. These vectors were used to introduce the RPS19 gene into CD34(+) bone marrow (BM) cells from 4 patients with DBA with RPS19 gene mutations. Overexpression of the RPS19 transgene increased the number of erythroid colonies by almost 3-fold. High expression levels of the RPS19 transgene improved erythroid colony-forming ability substantially whereas low expression levels had no effect. Overexpression of RPS19 had no detrimental effect on granulocyte-macrophage colony formation. Therefore, these findings suggest that gene therapy for RPS19-deficient patients with DBA using viral vectors that express the RPS19 gene is feasible.

In which syndrome is the RPS19 gene most frequently mutated?

5a896c26fcd1d6a10c000007_028

Is epineurectomy necessary in the surgical management of carpal tunnel syndrome? BACKGROUND: In this study, it was aimed to determine whether median nerve epineurectomy is beneficial in the surgical management of carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS). MATERIALS AND METHODS: The study enrolled 72 patients including 34 patients without epineurectomy (Group A) and 38 patients with epineurectomy (Group B). Surgery was performed in patients with severe electrodiagnostic CTS findings, CTS duration >1 year and flattening along with hypervascularization in median nerve. All patients were assessed by visual analog scale, two-point discrimination test as well as subjective and objective findings at baseline and on the months 1, 3, and 6 after surgery. RESULTS: The mean age was 58.3 years (42-75 years) in 38 patients who underwent an epineurectomy, whereas it was 61.5 years (41-82 years) in 34 patients who did not have an epineurectomy. The groups were similar with regard to age, gender, duration of symptoms, and preoperative physical findings. Mean visual analog scale (VAS) scores were 1.7 in Group A and 1.8 in Group B. Again, these differences were not significant, on physical examination, the average two-point discrimination in the distribution of the median nerve was 4.9 mm (range: 3-11 mm) in Group A and 5.3 mm (range: 3-10 mm) in Group B. In postoperative evaluations, there was a better improvement in visual analog scale scores, two-point discrimination test and subjective symptoms including dysesthesia, pain and nocturnal pain within first 3 months; however, there was no marked difference in objective and subjective findings on the 6th month. No complication or recurrence was observed. CONCLUSION: We believe that median nerve epineurectomy is unnecessary in the surgical management of primary CTS since it has no influence on the midterm outcomes.

What nerve is involved in carpal tunnel syndrome?

5abcf010fcf4565872000023_001

Molecular and cellular bases of chronic myeloid leukemia. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) is a myeloproliferative disease characterized by the overproduction of granulocytes, which leads to high white blood cell counts and splenomegaly in patients. Based on clinical symptoms and laboratory findings, CML is classified into three clinical phases, often starting with a chronic phase, progressing to an accelerated phase and ultimately ending in a terminal phase called blast crisis. Blast crisis phase of CML is clinically similar to an acute leukemia; in particular, B-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia (B-ALL) is a severe form of acute leukemia in blast crisis, and there is no effective therapy for it yet. CML is induced by the BCR-ABL oncogene, whose gene product is a BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase. Currently, inhibition of BCR-ABL kinase activity by its kinase inhibitor such as imatinib mesylate (Gleevec) is a major therapeutic strategy for CML. However, the inability of BCR-ABL kinase inhibitors to completely kill leukemia stem cells (LSCs) indicates that these kinase inhibitors are unlikely to cure CML. In addition, drug resistance due to the development of BCRABL mutations occurs before and during treatment of CML with kinase inhibitors. A critical issue to resolve this problem is to fully understand the biology of LSCs, and to identify key genes that play significant roles in survival and self-renewal of LSCs. In this review, we will focus on LSCs in CML by summarizing and discussing available experimental results, including the original studies from our own laboratory.

What tyrosine kinase, involved in a Philadelphia- chromosome positive chronic myelogenous leukemia, is the target of Imatinib (Gleevec)?

5324a8ac9b2d7acc7e000018_032

Treatment of infantile-onset spinal muscular atrophy with nusinersen: a phase 2, open-label, dose-escalation study. BACKGROUND: Nusinersen is a 2'-O-methoxyethyl phosphorothioate-modified antisense drug being developed to treat spinal muscular atrophy. Nusinersen is specifically designed to alter splicing of SMN2 pre-mRNA and thus increase the amount of functional survival motor neuron (SMN) protein that is deficient in patients with spinal muscular atrophy. METHODS: This open-label, phase 2, escalating dose clinical study assessed the safety and tolerability, pharmacokinetics, and clinical efficacy of multiple intrathecal doses of nusinersen (6 mg and 12 mg dose equivalents) in patients with infantile-onset spinal muscular atrophy. Eligible participants were of either gender aged between 3 weeks and 7 months old with onset of spinal muscular atrophy symptoms between 3 weeks and 6 months, who had SMN1 homozygous gene deletion or mutation. Safety assessments included adverse events, physical and neurological examinations, vital signs, clinical laboratory tests, cerebrospinal fluid laboratory tests, and electrocardiographs. Clinical efficacy assessments included event free survival, and change from baseline of two assessments of motor function: the motor milestones portion of the Hammersmith Infant Neurological Exam-Part 2 (HINE-2) and the Children's Hospital of Philadelphia Infant Test of Neuromuscular Disorders (CHOP-INTEND) motor function test, and compound motor action potentials. Autopsy tissue was analysed for target engagement, drug concentrations, and pharmacological activity. HINE-2, CHOP-INTEND, and compound motor action potential were compared between baseline and last visit using the Wilcoxon signed-rank test. Age at death or permanent ventilation was compared with natural history using the log-rank test. The study is registered at ClinicalTrials.gov, number NCT01839656. FINDINGS: 20 participants were enrolled between May 3, 2013, and July 9, 2014, and assessed through to an interim analysis done on Jan 26, 2016. All participants experienced adverse events, with 77 serious adverse events reported in 16 participants, all considered by study investigators not related or unlikely related to the study drug. In the 12 mg dose group, incremental achievements of motor milestones (p<0·0001), improvements in CHOP-INTEND motor function scores (p=0·0013), and increased compound muscle action potential amplitude of the ulnar nerve (p=0·0103) and peroneal nerve (p<0·0001), compared with baseline, were observed. Median age at death or permanent ventilation was not reached and the Kaplan-Meier survival curve diverged from a published natural history case series (p=0·0014). Analysis of autopsy tissue from patients exposed to nusinersen showed drug uptake into motor neurons throughout the spinal cord and neurons and other cell types in the brainstem and other brain regions, exposure at therapeutic concentrations, and increased SMN2 mRNA exon 7 inclusion and SMN protein concentrations in the spinal cord. INTERPRETATION: Administration of multiple intrathecal doses of nusinersen showed acceptable safety and tolerability, pharmacology consistent with its intended mechanism of action, and encouraging clinical efficacy. Results informed the design of an ongoing, sham-controlled, phase 3 clinical study of nusinersen in infantile-onset spinal muscular atrophy. FUNDING: Ionis Pharmaceuticals, Inc and Biogen.

Which disease is treated with Nusinersen?

589185cc621ea6ff7e00000b_014

[Relationship between arbekacin-susceptibility and aminoglycoside-resistant gene of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)]. The susceptibility to arbekacin (ABK) of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) was investigated to find out how it related to aac(6')/aph(2") gene. In 49 isolates of MRSA for which MIC of ABK ranged from 0.125 to 64 micrograms/ml, the MICs of ABK for 38 strains carrying aac(6')/aph(2") gene were widely distributed from 0.25 to 64, whereas those for 11 strains without that gene were all < or = 0.5 microgram/ml. Residual rate of ABK activity was higher than that of gentamicin after the reaction with each crude enzyme preparation extracted from 3 isolates of MRSA, carrying aac(6')/aph(2") and aad(4',4") genes. Furthermore, 97 strains of MRSA isolated at Kanagawa prefecture in Japan in 1999 were all sensitive to ABK, although 28 strains of them carried aac(6')/aph(2") gene. These results showed that ABK resistance was not necessarily related to carrying aac(6')/aph(2") gene in clinical isolates of MRSA.

What is MRSA?

58a32efe60087bc10a000013_078

Mechanism-based neddylation inhibitor. Brownell et al. (2010) elucidate the mechanism of action of MLN4924, a NEDD8-activating enzyme inhibitor. MLN4924 requires the activity of the enzyme to generate a NEDD8-adenylate analog that potently and selectively shuts down this posttranslational modification system.

Which enzyme does MLN4924 inhibit?

56ed03862ac5ed1459000004_025

Telomerase antagonist imetelstat inhibits esophageal cancer cell growth and increases radiation-induced DNA breaks. Telomerase is mainly active in human tumor cells, which provides an opportunity for a therapeutic window on telomerase targeting. We sought to evaluate the potential of the thio-phosphoramidate oligonucleotide inhibitor of telomerase, imetelstat, as a drug candidate for treatment of esophageal cancer. Our results showed that imetelstat inhibited telomerase activity in a dose-dependent manner in esophageal cancer cells. After only 1 week of imetelstat treatment, a reduction of colony formation ability of esophageal cancer cells was observed. Furthermore, long-term treatment with imetelstat decreased cell growth of esophageal cancer cells with different kinetics regarding telomere lengths. Short-term imetelstat treatment also increased γ-H2AX and 53BP1 foci staining in the esophageal cancer cell lines indicating a possible induction of DNA double strand breaks (DSBs). We also found that pre-treatment with imetelstat led to increased number and size of 53BP1 foci after ionizing radiation. The increase of 53BP1 foci number was especially pronounced during the first 1h of repair whereas the increase of foci size was prominent later on. This study supports the potential of imetelstat as a therapeutic agent for the treatment of esophageal cancer.

Which enzyme is inhibited by Imetelstat?

56c048acef6e39474100001c_028

K201 (JTV519) suppresses spontaneous Ca2+ release and [3H]ryanodine binding to RyR2 irrespective of FKBP12.6 association. K201 (JTV519), a benzothiazepine derivative, has been shown to possess anti-arrhythmic and cardioprotective properties, but the mechanism of its action is both complex and controversial. It is believed to stabilize the closed state of the RyR2 (cardiac ryanodine receptor) by increasing its affinity for the FKBP12.6 (12.6 kDa FK506 binding protein) [Wehrens, Lehnart, Reiken, Deng, Vest, Cervantes, Coromilas, Landry and Marks (2004) Science 304, 292-296]. In the present study, we investigated the effect of K201 on spontaneous Ca2+ release induced by Ca2+ overload in rat ventricular myocytes and in HEK-293 cells (human embryonic kidney cells) expressing RyR2 and the role of FKBP12.6 in the action of K201. We found that K201 abolished spontaneous Ca2+ release in cardiac myocytes in a concentration-dependent manner. Treating ventricular myocytes with FK506 to dissociate FKBP12.6 from RyR2 did not affect the suppression of spontaneous Ca2+ release by K201. Similarly, K201 was able to suppress spontaneous Ca2+ release in FK506-treated HEK-293 cells co-expressing RyR2 and FKBP12.6. Furthermore, K201 suppressed spontaneous Ca2+ release in HEK-293 cells expressing RyR2 alone and in cells co-expressing RyR2 and FKBP12.6 with the same potency. In addition, K201 inhibited [3H]ryanodine binding to RyR2-wt (wild-type) and an RyR2 mutant linked to ventricular tachycardia and sudden death, N4104K, in the absence of FKBP12.6. These observations demonstrate that FKBP12.6 is not involved in the inhibitory action of K201 on spontaneous Ca2+ release. Our results also suggest that suppression of spontaneous Ca2+ release and the activity of RyR2 contributes, at least in part, to the anti-arrhythmic properties of K201.

The drug JTV519 is derivative of which group of chemical compounds?

54f9b74306d9727f76000004_011

Cardiomyocyte ryanodine receptor degradation by chaperone-mediated autophagy. AIMS: Chaperone-mediated autophagy (CMA) is a selective mechanism for the degradation of soluble cytosolic proteins bearing the sequence KFERQ. These proteins are targeted by chaperones and delivered to lysosomes where they are translocated into the lysosomal lumen and degraded via the lysosome-associated membrane protein type 2A (LAMP-2A). Mutations in LAMP2 that inhibit autophagy result in Danon disease characterized by hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. The ryanodine receptor type 2 (RyR2) plays a key role in cardiomyocyte excitation-contraction and its dysfunction can lead to cardiac failure. Whether RyR2 is degraded by CMA is unknown. METHODS AND RESULTS: To induce CMA, cultured neonatal rat cardiomyocytes were treated with geldanamycin (GA) to promote protein degradation through this pathway. GA increased LAMP-2A levels together with its redistribution and colocalization with Hsc70 in the perinuclear region, changes indicative of CMA activation. The inhibition of lysosomes but not proteasomes prevented the loss of RyR2. The recovery of RyR2 content after incubation with GA by siRNA targeting LAMP-2A suggests that RyR2 is degraded via CMA. In silico analysis also revealed that the RyR2 sequence harbours six KFERQ motifs which are required for the recognition Hsc70 and its degradation via CMA. Our data suggest that presenilins are involved in RyR2 degradation by CMA. CONCLUSION: These findings are consistent with a model in which oxidative damage of the RyR2 targets it for turnover by presenilins and CMA, which could lead to removal of damaged or leaky RyR2 channels.

Which autophagy pathway is trigered by the KFERQ motif of cytosolic proteins?

5540fbce234c5a7c75000001_007

GBshape: a genome browser database for DNA shape annotations. Many regulatory mechanisms require a high degree of specificity in protein-DNA binding. Nucleotide sequence does not provide an answer to the question of why a protein binds only to a small subset of the many putative binding sites in the genome that share the same core motif. Whereas higher-order effects, such as chromatin accessibility, cooperativity and cofactors, have been described, DNA shape recently gained attention as another feature that fine-tunes the DNA binding specificities of some transcription factor families. Our Genome Browser for DNA shape annotations (GBshape; freely available at http://rohslab.cmb.usc.edu/GBshape/) provides minor groove width, propeller twist, roll, helix twist and hydroxyl radical cleavage predictions for the entire genomes of 94 organisms. Additional genomes can easily be added using the GBshape framework. GBshape can be used to visualize DNA shape annotations qualitatively in a genome browser track format, and to download quantitative values of DNA shape features as a function of genomic position at nucleotide resolution. As biological applications, we illustrate the periodicity of DNA shape features that are present in nucleosome-occupied sequences from human, fly and worm, and we demonstrate structural similarities between transcription start sites in the genomes of four Drosophila species.

Which is the genome browser database for DNA shape annotations?

587e1bfdfc7e8dd84f000002_009

MITF mutations associated with pigment deficiency syndromes and melanoma have different effects on protein function. The basic-helix-loop-helix-leucine zipper (bHLHZip) protein MITF (microphthalmia-associated transcription factor) is a master regulator of melanocyte development. Mutations in the MITF have been found in patients with the dominantly inherited hypopigmentation and deafness syndromes Waardenburg syndrome type 2A (WS2A) and Tietz syndrome (TS). Additionally, both somatic and germline mutations have been found in MITF in melanoma patients. Here, we characterize the DNA-binding and transcription activation properties of 24 MITF mutations found in WS2A, TS and melanoma patients. We show that most of the WS2A and TS mutations fail to bind DNA and activate expression from melanocyte-specific promoters. Some of the mutations, especially R203K and S298P, exhibit normal activity and may represent neutral variants. Mutations found in melanomas showed normal DNA-binding and minor variations in transcription activation properties; some showed increased potential to form colonies. Our results provide molecular insights into how mutations in a single gene can lead to such different phenotypes.

Which mutated gene is associated with Waardenburg and Tietz syndromes?

58a57f9460087bc10a00001f_031

Transcriptome analysis identifies Bacillus anthracis genes that respond to CO2 through an AtxA-dependent mechanism. BACKGROUND: Upon infection of a mammalian host, Bacillus anthracis responds to host cues, and particularly to elevated temperature (37°C) and bicarbonate/CO2 concentrations, with increased expression of virulence factors that include the anthrax toxins and extracellular capsular layer. This response requires the presence of the pXO1 virulence plasmid-encoded pleiotropic regulator AtxA. To better understand the genetic basis of this response, we utilized a controlled in vitro system and Next Generation sequencing to determine and compare RNA expression profiles of the parental strain and an isogenic AtxA-deficient strain in a 2 × 2 factorial design with growth environments containing or lacking carbon dioxide. RESULTS: We found 15 pXO1-encoded genes and 3 chromosomal genes that were strongly regulated by the separate or synergistic actions of AtxA and carbon dioxide. The majority of the regulated genes responded to both AtxA and carbon dioxide rather than to just one of these factors. Interestingly, we identified two previously unrecognized small RNAs that are highly expressed under physiological carbon dioxide concentrations in an AtxA-dependent manner. Expression levels of the two small RNAs were found to be higher than that of any other gene differentially expressed in response to these conditions. Secondary structure and small RNA-mRNA binding predictions for the two small RNAs suggest that they may perform important functions in regulating B. anthracis virulence. CONCLUSIONS: A majority of genes on the virulence plasmid pXO1 that are regulated by the presence of either CO2 or AtxA separately are also regulated synergistically in the presence of both. These results also elucidate novel pXO1-encoded small RNAs that are associated with virulence conditions.

Which metabolite activates AtxA?

5710a592cf1c32585100002a_023

Targeting CDK4/6 in patients with cancer. The cyclin D-cyclin dependent kinase (CDK) 4/6-inhibitor of CDK4 (INK4)-retinoblastoma (Rb) pathway controls cell cycle progression by regulating the G1-S checkpoint. Dysregulation of the cyclin D-CDK4/6-INK4-Rb pathway results in increased proliferation, and is frequently observed in many types of cancer. Pathway activation can occur through a variety of mechanisms, including gene amplification or rearrangement, loss of negative regulators, epigenetic alterations, and point mutations in key pathway components. Due to the importance of CDK4/6 activity in cancer cells, CDK4/6 inhibitors have emerged as promising candidates for cancer treatment. Moreover, combination of a CDK4/6 inhibitor with other targeted therapies may help overcome acquired or de novo treatment resistance. Ongoing studies include combinations of CDK4/6 inhibitors with endocrine therapy and phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase (PI3K) pathway inhibitors for hormone receptor-positive (HR+) breast cancers, and with selective RAF and MEK inhibitors for tumors with alterations in the mitogen activated protein kinase (MAPK) pathway such as melanoma. In particular, the combination of CDK4/6 inhibitors with endocrine therapy, such as palbociclib's recent first-line approval in combination with letrozole, is expected to transform the treatment of HR+ breast cancer. Currently, three selective CDK4/6 inhibitors have been approved or are in late-stage development: palbociclib (PD-0332991), ribociclib (LEE011), and abemaciclib (LY2835219). Here we describe the current preclinical and clinical data for these novel agents and discuss combination strategies with other agents for the treatment of cancer.

Which enzyme is inhibited by ribociclib?

5880dba9c872c95565000009_002

Functional variation of MC1R alleles from red-haired individuals. Red hair in humans is associated with variant alleles of the alphaMSH receptor gene, MC1R. Loss of MC1R function in other mammals results in red or yellow hair pigmentation. We show that a mouse bacterial artificial chromosome (BAC) which contains Mc1r will efficiently rescue loss of Mc1r in transgenic mice, and that overexpression of the receptor suppresses the effect of the endogenous antagonist, agouti protein. We engineered the BAC to replace the mouse coding region with the human MC1R sequence and used this in the transgenic assay. The human receptor also efficiently rescued Mc1r deficiency, and in addition, appeared to be completely resistant to the effects of agouti, suggesting agouti protein may not play a role in human pigmentary variation. Three human variant alleles account for 60% of all cases of red hair. We engineered each of these in turn into the BAC and find that they have reduced, but not completely absent, function in transgenic mice. Comparison of the phenotypes of alphaMSH-deficient mice and humans in conjunction with this data suggests that red hair may not be the null phenotype of MC1R.

Which gene is responsible for red hair?

5ace19420340b9f05800000a_034

Phenotypic characterization of endometrial stromal sarcoma of the uterus. Endometrial stromal sarcoma (ESS) of the uterus is a rare uterine malignancy that has not been characterized in detail. To characterize the phenotype of ESS of the uterus, we extracted RNA from ESS and the stroma of normal endometrium using a tissue microdissection system and compared the expression profiles in the two tissues. After suppression subtractive hybridization and differential screening, we detected the metastasis-associated lung adenocarcinoma transcript 1 (MALAT-1) gene as one of the major genes upregulated in ESS, and a full-length placental cDNA clone (CS0DI066YJ10) as one of the major genes downregulated. The results were confirmed by in situ hybridization in four resected specimens of ESS and 36 biopsy specimens of normal endometrial tissue. All ESS (4/4) and all cases of endometrial stromal cells in the proliferative phase (13/13) were positive for MALAT-1, but samples of normal stroma in the secretory phase and menopausal state included some that were negative or weakly positive for MALAT-1 (5/13 and 3/10, respectively). In contrast, all ESS and 12 of 13 cases of stromal cells in the proliferative phase were negative for the full-length placental cDNA clone but 10 of 13 cases of endometrial stromal cells in the secretory phase were positive for transcripts of the gene (P < 0.05). These results indicated that endometrial stromal cells have different phenotypic characteristics between proliferative and secretory phases and the tumor cells of ESS have the phenotypic character of endometrial stromal cells in the proliferative phase.

Is the long non- coding RNA malat-1 up or downregulated in cancer?

53440d2caeec6fbd07000004_003

Abnormal distribution of the non-Abeta component of Alzheimer's disease amyloid precursor/alpha-synuclein in Lewy body disease as revealed by proteinase K and formic acid pretreatment. The precursor of the non-Abeta component of Alzheimer's disease amyloid (NACP) (also known as alpha-synuclein) is a presynaptic terminal molecule that abnormally accumulates in the plaques of Alzheimer's disease (AD) and in the Lewy bodies (LBs) of Lewy body variant of AD, diffuse Lewy body disease, and Parkinson's disease. To better understand the distribution of NACP/alpha-synuclein and its fragments in the LB-bearing neurons and neurites, as well as to clarify the patterns of NACP/alpha-synuclein compartmentalization, we studied NACP/alpha-synuclein immunoreactivity using antibodies against the C-terminal, N-terminal, and NAC regions after Proteinase K and formic acid treatment in the cortex of patients with LBs. Furthermore, studies of the subcellular localization of NACP/alpha-synuclein within LB-bearing neurons were performed by immunogold electron microscopy. These studies showed that the N-terminal antibody immunolabeled the LBs and dystrophic neurites with great intensity and, to a lesser extent, the synapses. In contrast, the C-terminal antibody strongly labeled the synapses and, to a lesser extent, the LBs and dystrophic neurites. Whereas Proteinase K treatment enhanced NACP/alpha-synuclein immunoreactivity with the C-terminal antibody, it diminished the N-terminal NACP/alpha-synuclein immunoreactivity. Furthermore, formic acid enhanced LB and dystrophic neurite labeling with both the C- and N-terminal antibodies. In addition, whereas without pretreatment only slight anti-NAC immunoreactivity was found in the LBs, formic acid pretreatment revealed an extensive anti-NAC immunostaining of LBs, plaques, and glial cells. Ultrastructural analysis revealed that NACP/alpha-synuclein immunoreactivity was diffusely distributed within the amorphous electrodense material in the LBs and as small clusters in the filaments of LBs and neurites. These results support the view that aggregated NACP/alpha-synuclein might play an important role in the pathogenesis of disorders associated with LBs.

Against which protein is the antibody used for immonostaining of Lewy bodies raised?

53189656b166e2b80600001c_018

First-line imatinib mesylate in patients with newly diagnosed accelerated phase-chronic myeloid leukemia. Imatinib mesylate is the sole BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase inhibitor approved as first-line treatment of accelerated-phase (AP) chronic myeloid leukemia (CML). Indication was based on the STI571 0109 study, in which imatinib favorably compared to historical treatments in patients failing prior therapies. The relevance of these results to currently newly diagnosed AP-CML patients remains unknown. We evaluated the benefit of imatinib in 42 newly diagnosed AP-CML patients. In all, 16 patients had hematological acceleration without chromosomal abnormalities in addition to the Philadelphia chromosome (ACAs; HEM-AP), 16 solely had ACAs (ACA-AP) and 10 had hematological acceleration plus ACAs (HEM-AP + ACA). Major cytogenetic responses were achieved in 93.7% of HEM-AP patients, 75% of patients with ACA-AP (P=NS) and 40% of patients with HEM-AP + ACA (P=0.0053). The 24-month failure-free survival rate was 87.5% in HEM-AP patients, 43.8% in ACA-AP patients and 15% in HEM-AP + ACA patients (P=0.022). The 24-month estimate of progression-free survival was 100% in HEM-AP patients, 92.8% in ACA-AP patients and 58.3% in HEM-AP + ACA patients (P=0.0052). In conclusion, frontline imatinib allows favorable outcomes in HEM-AP and ACA-AP patients but appears insufficient for patients with HEM-AP + ACA. Broader-target and/or more potent BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase inhibitors alone or in combination may be considered in this setting.

What tyrosine kinase, involved in a Philadelphia- chromosome positive chronic myelogenous leukemia, is the target of Imatinib (Gleevec)?

5324a8ac9b2d7acc7e000018_014

Tanezumab in the treatment of chronic musculoskeletal conditions. The management of pain associated with chronic musculoskeletal conditions represents a significant challenge for the clinician. There remains a need for novel medications that have a significant analgesic benefit and are also safe and well tolerated. Both pre-clinical and clinical data have provided evidence of the role of nerve growth factor (NGF) in a multitude of pain eliciting conditions. Therefore, the development of monoclonal antibodies to NGF for chronic painful musculoskeletal conditions has generated interest. Areas covered: This manuscript is a review that examines both the pharmacological properties and clinical studies of tanezumab, the most widely studied antibody to NGF, for management of osteoarthritis (OA) and low back pain. In addition, the safety and tolerability profile and development history of tanezumab are also discussed. Expert opinion: Most studies provide strong support for the ability of tanezumab to provide clinically meaningful pain relief in individuals with these conditions, with longer-term studies suggesting durability of effect. The adverse event profile appears favorable, assuming the risk mitigation strategies are effective at reducing the incidence of joint-related side effects. Further data are being collected to define the optimal dose and dosing strategy in both OA and chronic low back pain.

What is the target of tanezumab?

5890e163621ea6ff7e000004_005

Subpallial Enhancer Transgenic Lines: a Data and Tool Resource to Study Transcriptional Regulation of GABAergic Cell Fate. Elucidating the transcriptional circuitry controlling forebrain development requires an understanding of enhancer activity and regulation. We generated stable transgenic mouse lines that express CreER and GFP from ten different enhancer elements with activity in distinct domains within the embryonic basal ganglia. We used these unique tools to generate a comprehensive regional fate map of the mouse subpallium, including sources for specific subtypes of amygdala neurons. We then focused on deciphering transcriptional mechanisms that control enhancer activity. Using machine-learning computations, in vivo chromosomal occupancy of 13 transcription factors that regulate subpallial patterning and differentiation and analysis of enhancer activity in Dlx1/2 and Lhx6 mutants, we elucidated novel molecular mechanisms that regulate region-specific enhancer activity in the developing brain. Thus, these subpallial enhancer transgenic lines are data and tool resources to study transcriptional regulation of GABAergic cell fate.

Which resource has been developed in order to study the transcriptional regulation of GABAergic cell fate?

5a6d196db750ff4455000032_005

Long-term safety and efficacy of teriflunomide: Nine-year follow-up of the randomized TEMSO study. OBJECTIVE: To report safety and efficacy outcomes from up to 9 years of treatment with teriflunomide in an extension (NCT00803049) of the pivotal phase 3 Teriflunomide Multiple Sclerosis Oral (TEMSO) trial (NCT00134563). METHODS: A total of 742 patients entered the extension. Teriflunomide-treated patients continued the original dose; those previously receiving placebo were randomized 1:1 to teriflunomide 14 mg or 7 mg. RESULTS: By June 2013, median (maximum) teriflunomide exposure exceeded 190 (325) weeks per patient; 468 patients (63%) remained on treatment. Teriflunomide was well-tolerated with continued exposure. The most common adverse events (AEs) matched those in the core study. In extension year 1, first AEs of transient liver enzyme increases or reversible hair thinning were generally attributable to patients switching from placebo to teriflunomide. Approximately 11% of patients discontinued treatment owing to AEs. Twenty percent of patients experienced serious AEs. There were 3 deaths unrelated to teriflunomide. Soon after the extension started, annualized relapse rates and gadolinium-enhancing T1 lesion counts fell in patients switching from placebo to teriflunomide, remaining low thereafter. Disability remained stable in all treatment groups (median Expanded Disability Status Scale score < 2.5; probability of 12-week disability progression < 0.48). CONCLUSIONS: In the TEMSO extension, safety observations were consistent with the core trial, with no new or unexpected AEs in patients receiving teriflunomide for up to 9 years. Disease activity decreased in patients switching from placebo and remained low in patients continuing on teriflunomide. CLASSIFICATION OF EVIDENCE: This study provides Class III evidence that long-term treatment with teriflunomide is well-tolerated and efficacy of teriflunomide is maintained long-term.

Which drug was tested in the TEMSO Trial for multiple sclerosis?

589a246078275d0c4a00002a_003

JAK inhibitor tofacitinib for treating rheumatoid arthritis: from basic to clinical. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a representative autoimmune disease characterized by chronic and destructive inflammatory synovitis. The multiple cytokines play pivotal roles in RA pathogenesis by inducing intracellular signaling, and members of the Janus kinase (JAK) family are essential for such signal transduction. An orally available JAK3 inhibitor, tofacitinib, has been applied for RA, with satisfactory effects and acceptable safety in multiple clinical examinations. From phase 2 dose-finding studies, tofacitinib 5 mg and 10 mg twice a day appear suitable for further evaluation. Subsequently, multiple phase 3 studies were carried out, and tofacitinib with or without methotrexate (MTX) is efficacious and has a manageable safety profile in active RA patients who are MTX naïve or show inadequate response to methotrexate (MTX-IR), disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARD)-IR, or tumor necrosis factor (TNF)-inhibitor-IR. The common adverse events were infections, such as nasopharyngitis; increases in cholesterol, transaminase, and creatinine; and decreases in neutrophil counts. Although the mode of action of tofacitinib remains unclear, we clarified that the inhibitory effects of tofacitinib could be mediated through suppression of interleukin (IL)-17 and interferon (IFN)-γ production and proliferation of CD4(+) T cells in the inflamed synovium. Taken together, an orally available kinase inhibitor tofacitinib targeting JAK-mediated signals would be expected to be a new option for RA treatment.

Which JAK (Janus kinase) inhibitor is approved for treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?

53357193d6d3ac6a34000047_013

Andexanet alfa for the reversal of Factor Xa inhibitor related anticoagulation. Andexanet alfa is a specific reversal agent for Factor Xa inhibitors. The molecule is a recombinant protein analog of factor Xa that binds to Factor Xa inhibitors and antithrombin:LMWH complex but does not trigger prothrombotic activity. In ex vivo, animal, and volunteer human studies, andexanet alfa (AnXa) was able to dose-dependently reverse Factor Xa inhibition and restore thrombin generation for the duration of drug administration. Further trials are underway to examine its safety and efficacy in the population of patients experiencing FXa inhibitor-related bleeding.

Andexanet Alfa is an antidote of which clotting factor inhibitors?

5880b073c872c95565000003_016

dsPIG: a tool to predict imprinted genes from the deep sequencing of whole transcriptomes. BACKGROUND: Dysregulation of imprinted genes, which are expressed in a parent-of-origin-specific manner, plays an important role in various human diseases, such as cancer and behavioral disorder. To date, however, fewer than 100 imprinted genes have been identified in the human genome. The recent availability of high-throughput technology makes it possible to have large-scale prediction of imprinted genes. Here we propose a Bayesian model (dsPIG) to predict imprinted genes on the basis of allelic expression observed in mRNA-Seq data of independent human tissues. RESULTS: Our model (dsPIG) was capable of identifying imprinted genes with high sensitivity and specificity and a low false discovery rate when the number of sequenced tissue samples was fairly large, according to simulations. By applying dsPIG to the mRNA-Seq data, we predicted 94 imprinted genes in 20 cerebellum samples and 57 imprinted genes in 9 diverse tissue samples with expected low false discovery rates. We also assessed dsPIG using previously validated imprinted and non-imprinted genes. With simulations, we further analyzed how imbalanced allelic expression of non-imprinted genes or different minor allele frequencies affected the predictions of dsPIG. Interestingly, we found that, among biallelically expressed genes, at least 18 genes expressed significantly more transcripts from one allele than the other among different individuals and tissues. CONCLUSION: With the prevalence of the mRNA-Seq technology, dsPIG has become a useful tool for analysis of allelic expression and large-scale prediction of imprinted genes. For ease of use, we have set up a web service and also provided an R package for dsPIG at http://www.shoudanliang.com/dsPIG/.

How many genes are imprinted in the human genome?

57090c33cf1c325851000013_002

The JNK phosphatase M3/6 is inhibited by protein-damaging stress. Cells respond to stresses such as osmotic shock and heat shock by activating stress-activated protein kinases (SAPKs), including c-Jun N-terminal kinase (JNK) [1]. Activation of JNK requires phosphorylation of threonine and tyrosine residues in the TPY activation loop motif [2, 3] and can be reversed by the removal of either phosphate group. Numerous JNK phosphatases including dual-specificity phosphatases [4, 5], have been identified. Many stimuli activate JNK by increasing its rate of phosphorylation; however, JNK dephosphorylation is inhibited in cells after heat shock [6], suggesting that a JNK phosphatase(s) is inactivated. M3/6 is a dual-specificity phosphatase selective for JNK [7, 8]. We have previously expressed M3/6 in the mouse bone marrow cell line BAF3 in order to show that JNK activation by IL-3 is necessary for cell survival and proliferation [9]. Here we report that M3/6 dissociates from JNK and appears in an insoluble fraction after heat shock. These data identify M3/6 as a JNK phosphatase that is inactivated by heat shock and provide a molecular mechanism for the activation of JNK by heat shock.

Which protein is affected by dusp8 activation?

5148691bd24251bc0500002d_005

Phospholamban phosphorylation by CaMKII under pathophysiological conditions. Sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) Ca2+ ATPase (SERCA2a) transports Ca2+ into the SR, decreasing the cytosolic Ca2+ during relaxation and increasing the SR Ca2+ available for contraction. SERCA2a activity is regulated by phosphorylation of another SR protein: Phospholamban (PLN). Dephosphorylated PLN inhibits SERCA2a. Phosphorylation of PLN by either cAMP or cGMP-dependent protein kinase at Ser16 or the Ca2+-calmodulin-dependent protein kinase (CaMKII), at Thr17, relieves this inhibition, increasing SR Ca2+ uptake and SR Ca2+ load. Thus, PLN is a major player in the regulation of myocardial relaxation and contractility. This review will examine the main aspects of the role of CaMKII and Thr17 site of PLN, on different pathophysiological conditions: acidosis, ischemia/reperfusion (I/R) and heart failure (HF). Whereas CaMKII-activation and PLN phosphorylation contribute to the functional recovery during acidosis and stunning, CaMKII results detrimental in the irreversible I/R injury, producing apoptosis and necrosis. Phosphorylation of Thr17 residue of PLN and CaMKII activity vary in the different models of HF. The possible role of these changes in the depressed cardiac function of HF will be discussed.

Which is the main regulatory molecule of SERCA2A function in the cardiac muscle?

54cb9c94f693c3b16b000005_019

Molecular basis of albinism: mutations and polymorphisms of pigmentation genes associated with albinism. Albinism, caused by a deficiency of melanin pigment in the skin, hair, and eye (oculocutaneous albinism [OCA]), or primarily in the eye (ocular albinism [OA]), results from mutations in genes involved in the biosynthesis of melanin pigment. The lack of melanin pigment in the developing eye leads to fovea hypoplasia and abnormal routing of the optic nerves. These changes are responsible for the nystagmus, strabismus, and reduced visual acuity common to all types of albinism. Mutations in six genes have been reported to be responsible for different types of oculocutaneous and ocular albinism, including the tyrosinase gene (TYR) and OCA1 (MIM# 203100), the OCA2 gene and OCA2 (MIM# 203200), the tyrosinase-related protein-1 gene (TYRP1) and OCA3 (MIM# 203290), the HPS gene and Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome (MIM# 203300), the CHS gene (CHS1), and Chediak-Higashi syndrome (MIM# 214500), and the X-linked ocular albinism gene and OA1 (MIM#300500). The function of only two of the gene products is known tyrosinase and tyrosinase-related protein-1 both of which are enzymes in the melanin biosynthetic pathway. Continued mutational analysis coupled with function/structure studies should aid our understanding of the function of the remaining genes and their role in albinism. Mutation and polymorphism data on these genes are available from the International Albinism Center Albinism Database web site (http://www.cbc.umn.edu/tad).

Which mutated enzyme is responsible for oculocutaneous 1 (OCA1)-type albinism?

58cbb98c02b8c60953000034_041

Autophagy induction reduces mutant ataxin-3 levels and toxicity in a mouse model of spinocerebellar ataxia type 3. Spinocerebellar ataxia type 3 is a neurodegenerative disorder caused by the expansion of the polyglutamine repeat region within the ataxin-3 protein. The mutant protein forms intracellular aggregates in the brain. However, the cellular mechanisms causing toxicity are still poorly understood and there are currently no effective treatments. In this study we show that administration of a rapamycin ester (cell cycle inhibitor-779, temsirolimus) improves motor performance in a transgenic mouse model of spinocerebellar ataxia type 3. Temsirolimus inhibits mammalian target of rapamycin and hence upregulates protein degradation by autophagy. Temsirolimus reduces the number of aggregates seen in the brains of transgenic mice and decreases levels of cytosolic soluble mutant ataxin-3, while endogenous wild-type protein levels remain unaffected. Temsirolimus is designed for long-term use in patients and therefore represents a possible therapeutic strategy for the treatment of spinocerebellar ataxia type 3. Using this disease model and treatment paradigm, we employed a microarray approach to investigate transcriptional changes that might be important in the pathogenesis of spinocerebellar ataxia type 3. This identified ubiquitin specific peptidase-15, which showed expression changes at both the messenger ribonucleic acid and protein level. Ubiquitin specific peptidase-15 levels were also changed in mice expressing another mutant polyglutamine protein, huntingtin. In total we identified 16 transcripts that were decreased in transgenic ataxin-3 mice that were normalized following temsirolimus treatment. In this mouse model with relatively mild disease progression, the number of transcripts changed was low and the magnitude of these changes was small. However, the importance of these transcriptional alterations in the pathogenesis of spinocerebellar ataxia type 3 remains unclear.

Which is the protein implicated in Spinocerebellar ataxia type 3?

57138eb21174fb175500000a_005

Prevalence of dural ectasia in 63 gene-mutation-positive patients with features of Marfan syndrome type 1 and Loeys-Dietz syndrome and report of 22 novel FBN1 mutations. Marfan syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder involving different organ systems. Marfan syndrome type 1 (MFS1) is caused by mutations in the FBN1 gene. Heterozygosity for mutations in the TGFBR1 or TGFBR2 genes cause Loeys-Dietz syndrome (LDS) types 2A and 2B that overlap with MFS1 in their clinical features. The phenotype of MFS1 is defined by the Ghent nosology, which classifies the clinical manifestations in major and minor criteria. Dural ectasia is one of the major criteria for Marfan syndrome but it is rarely tested for. We here report 22 novel and 9 recurrent mutations in the FBN1 gene in 36 patients with clinical features of Marfan syndrome. Sixty patients with identified mutations in the FBN1 gene and three patients with mutations in the TGFBR1 or TGFBR2 genes were examined for dural ectasia. Forty-seven of the 60 patients (78%) with MFS1 showed the dural ectasia criterion and 13 (22%) did not. Thirty-three (55%) patients were suspected of having Marfan syndrome and 24 (73%) of them had dural ectasia. Two of the three patients with LDS had dural ectasia.

Which gene mutations cause the Marfan syndrome?

58d8e6818acda3452900000a_015

Safety and efficacy of two dose levels of taliglucerase alfa in pediatric patients with Gaucher disease. Taliglucerase alfa is a plant cell-expressed beta-glucocerebrosidase approved in the United States, Israel, Australia, Canada, and other countries for enzyme replacement therapy in adults with Type 1 Gaucher disease (GD), for treatment of pediatric patients in the United States, Australia, and Canada, and for the hematologic manifestations of Type 3 GD in pediatric patients in Canada. This multicenter, randomized, double-blind, parallel-dose, 12-month study assessed efficacy and safety of taliglucerase alfa in pediatric patients with GD. Eleven children were randomized to taliglucerase alfa 30U/kg (n=6) or 60U/kg (n=5) per infusion every other week. From baseline to month 12, the following changes were noted in the taliglucerase alfa 30-U/kg and 60-U/kg dose groups, respectively: median hemoglobin concentrations increased by 12.2% and 14.2%; the interquartile ranges of median percent change in hemoglobin levels from baseline were 20.6 and 10.4, respectively; mean spleen volume decreased from 22.2 to 14.0 multiples of normal (MN) and from 29.4 to 12.9 MN; mean liver volume decreased from 1.8 to 1.5 MN and from 2.2 to 1.7 MN; platelet counts increased by 30.9% and 73.7%; and chitotriosidase activity was reduced by 58.5% and 66.1%. Nearly all adverse events were mild/moderate, unrelated to treatment, and transient. One patient presented with treatment-related gastroenteritis reported as a serious adverse event due to the need for hospitalization for rehydration. No patient discontinued. These data suggest that taliglucerase alfa has the potential to be a therapeutic treatment option for children with GD. This study was registered at www.clinicaltrials.gov as NCT01132690.

Which disease is treated with taliglucerase alfa?

5891b125621ea6ff7e00000e_011

Maintenance of DNA methylation: Dnmt3b joins the dance. DNA methylation mostly occurs within the context of CpG dinucleotides and is essential for embryonic development and gene repression. It is generally accepted that DNA methyltransferases carry out specific and non-overlapping functions, Dnmt3a and Dnmt3b being responsible for the establishment of methylation around the time of implantation and Dnmt1 ensuring that methylation is faithfully copied to daughter cells via what has come to be known as "maintenance methylation." This longstanding view has been challenged over the years with the observation that Dnmt1 alone is incapable of perfect maintenance methylation. A new model is emerging that takes into account a contribution of the de novo enzymes Dnmt3a and Dnmt3b in the maintenance of the DNA methylation. We recently showed that certain germ line genes are specific targets of Dnmt3b, and that Dnmt3b remains bound to their promoter regions in somatic cells via interaction with the transcriptional repressor E2F6. It is tempting to consider an ongoing role for Dnmt3b in the methylation of germ line genes in somatic cells. We propose here observations in support of the hypothesis that the maintenance of methylation and subsequent silencing of a handful of germ line genes requires Dnmt3b but not Dnmt1. In addition to suggesting a new role for Dnmt3b in the protection of somatic cells against the promiscuous expression of the germ line program, these observations are of particular interest in the field of carcinogenesis, given that the expression of catalytically inactive Dnmt3b isoforms and aberrant expression of germ line genes are commonly observed in cancer cells.

Which enzyme is involved in the maintenance of DNA (cytosine-5-)-methylation?

51585b28d24251bc0500008d_012

A phase IIb dose-ranging study of the oral JAK inhibitor tofacitinib (CP-690,550) versus placebo in combination with background methotrexate in patients with active rheumatoid arthritis and an inadequate response to methotrexate alone. OBJECTIVE: To compare the efficacy, safety, and tolerability of 6 dosages of oral tofacitinib (CP-690,550) with placebo for the treatment of active rheumatoid arthritis (RA) in patients receiving a stable background regimen of methotrexate (MTX) who have an inadequate response to MTX monotherapy. METHODS: In this 24-week, double-blind, phase IIb study, patients with active RA (n = 507) were randomized to receive placebo or tofacitinib (20 mg/day, 1 mg twice daily, 3 mg twice daily, 5 mg twice daily, 10 mg twice daily, or 15 mg twice daily). All patients continued to receive a stable dosage of MTX. The primary end point was the American College of Rheumatology 20% improvement criteria (ACR20) response rate at week 12. RESULTS: At week 12, ACR20 response rates for patients receiving all tofacitinib dosages > 3 mg twice daily (52.9% for 3 mg twice daily, 50.7% for 5 mg twice daily, 58.1% for 10 mg twice daily, 56.0% for 15 mg twice daily, and 53.8% for 20 mg/day) were significantly (P < 0.05) greater than those for placebo (33.3%). Improvements were sustained at week 24 for the ACR20, ACR50, and ACR70 responses, scores for the Health Assessment Questionnaire disability index, the 3-variable Disease Activity Score in 28 joints using the C-reactive protein level (DAS28-CRP), and a 3-variable DAS28-CRP of <2.6. The most common treatment-emergent adverse events occurring in >10% of patients in any tofacitinib group were diarrhea, upper respiratory tract infection, and headache; 21 patients (4.1%) experienced serious adverse events. Sporadic increases in transaminase levels, increases in cholesterol and serum creatinine levels, and decreases in neutrophil and hemoglobin levels were observed. CONCLUSION: In patients with active RA in whom the response to MTX has been inadequate, the addition of tofacitinib at a dosage > 3 mg twice daily showed sustained efficacy and a manageable safety profile over 24 weeks.

Which JAK (Janus kinase) inhibitor is approved for treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?

53357193d6d3ac6a34000047_024

Isoform-specific p73 knockout mice reveal a novel role for delta Np73 in the DNA damage response pathway. Mice with a complete deficiency of p73 have severe neurological and immunological defects due to the absence of all TAp73 and DeltaNp73 isoforms. As part of our ongoing program to distinguish the biological functions of these isoforms, we generated mice that are selectively deficient for the DeltaNp73 isoform. Mice lacking DeltaNp73 (DeltaNp73(-/-) mice) are viable and fertile but display signs of neurodegeneration. Cells from DeltaNp73(-/-) mice are sensitized to DNA-damaging agents and show an increase in p53-dependent apoptosis. When analyzing the DNA damage response (DDR) in DeltaNp73(-/-) cells, we discovered a completely new role for DeltaNp73 in inhibiting the molecular signal emanating from a DNA break to the DDR pathway. We found that DeltaNp73 localizes directly to the site of DNA damage, can interact with the DNA damage sensor protein 53BP1, and inhibits ATM activation and subsequent p53 phosphorylation. This novel finding may explain why human tumors with high levels of DeltaNp73 expression show enhanced resistance to chemotherapy.

How many TAp73 isoforms have been identified in humans?

5173bdb38ed59a060a000020_048

Dopamine transporter (DAT1) VNTR polymorphism in 12 Indian populations. The dopamine transporter (DAT1) is a membrane spanning protein that binds the neurotransmitter dopamine and performs re-uptake of dopamine from the synapse into a neuron. The gene encoding DAT1 consists of 15 exons spanning 60 kb on chromosome 5p15.32. Several studies have investigated the possible associations between variants in DAT1 gene and psychiatric disorders. The present study aimed to determine the distribution of the variable number of tandem repeat (VNTR) polymorphism in the 3' untranslated region of DAT1 in 12 Indian populations. A total of 471 healthy unrelated individuals in 12 Indian populations from 3 linguistic groups were included in the present study. The analysis was carried out using PCR and electrophoresis. Overall, 4 alleles of the DAT1 40-bp VNTR, ranging from 7 to 11 repeats were detected. Heterozygosity indices were low and varied from 0.114 to 0.406. The results demonstrate the variability of the DAT1 40-bp VNTR polymorphism in Indian populations and revealed a high similarity with East Asian populations.

Which is the chromosome area that the human gene coding for the dopamine transporter (DAT1) is located to?

58a2ced760087bc10a000004_005

CAGEr: precise TSS data retrieval and high-resolution promoterome mining for integrative analyses. Cap analysis of gene expression (CAGE) is a high-throughput method for transcriptome analysis that provides a single base-pair resolution map of transcription start sites (TSS) and their relative usage. Despite their high resolution and functional significance, published CAGE data are still underused in promoter analysis due to the absence of tools that enable its efficient manipulation and integration with other genome data types. Here we present CAGEr, an R implementation of novel methods for the analysis of differential TSS usage and promoter dynamics, integrated with CAGE data processing and promoterome mining into a first comprehensive CAGE toolbox on a common analysis platform. Crucially, we provide collections of TSSs derived from most published CAGE datasets, as well as direct access to FANTOM5 resource of TSSs for numerous human and mouse cell/tissue types from within R, greatly increasing the accessibility of precise context-specific TSS data for integrative analyses. The CAGEr package is freely available from Bioconductor at http://www.bioconductor.org/packages/release/bioc/html/CAGEr.html.

Which tool is used for promoterome mining using CAGE data?

56afe6d40a360a5e45000017_005

SKIP interacts with c-Myc and Menin to promote HIV-1 Tat transactivation. The Ski-interacting protein SKIP/SNW1 associates with the P-TEFb/CDK9 elongation factor and coactivates inducible genes, including HIV-1. We show here that SKIP also associates with c-Myc and Menin, a subunit of the MLL1 histone methyltransferase (H3K4me3) complex and that HIV-1 Tat transactivation requires c-Myc and Menin, but not MLL1 or H3K4me3. RNAi-ChIP experiments reveal that SKIP acts downstream of Tat:P-TEFb to recruit c-Myc and its partner TRRAP, a scaffold for histone acetyltransferases, to the HIV-1 promoter. By contrast, SKIP is recruited by the RNF20 H2B ubiquitin ligase to the basal HIV-1 promoter in a step that is bypassed by Tat and downregulated by c-Myc. Of interest, we find that SKIP and P-TEFb are dispensable for UV stress-induced HIV-1 transcription, which is strongly upregulated by treating cells with the CDK9 inhibitor flavopiridol. Thus, SKIP acts with c-Myc and Menin to promote HIV-1 Tat:P-TEFb transcription at an elongation step that is bypassed under stress.

Which is the histone residue methylated by MLL1?

533be71dfd9a95ea0d000009_008

FullSSR: Microsatellite Finder and Primer Designer. Microsatellites are genomic sequences comprised of tandem repeats of short nucleotide motifs widely used as molecular markers in population genetics. FullSSR is a new bioinformatic tool for microsatellite (SSR) loci detection and primer design using genomic data from NGS assay. The software was tested with 2000 sequences of Oryza sativa shotgun sequencing project from the National Center of Biotechnology Information Trace Archive and with partial genome sequencing with ROCHE 454® from Caiman latirostris, Salvator merianae, Aegla platensis, and Zilchiopsis collastinensis. FullSSR performance was compared against other similar SSR search programs. The results of the use of this kind of approach depend on the parameters set by the user. In addition, results can be affected by the analyzed sequences because of differences among the genomes. FullSSR simplifies the detection of SSRs and primer design on a big data set. The command line interface of FullSSR was intended to be used as part of genomic analysis tools pipeline; however, it can be used as a stand-alone program because the results are easily interpreted for a nonexpert user.

Which tool exists for microsatellite (SSR) loci detection and primer design?

5a6fa61ab750ff4455000060_004

The role of SERCA2a/PLN complex, Ca(2+) homeostasis, and anti-apoptotic proteins in determining cell fate. Intracellular calcium is a major coordinator of numerous aspects of cellular physiology, including muscle contractility and cell survival. In cardiac muscle, aberrant Ca(2+) cycling has been implicated in a range of pathological conditions including cardiomyopathies and heart failure. The sarco(endo)plasmic reticulum Ca(2+) transport adenosine triphosphatase (SERCA2a) and its regulator phospholamban (PLN) have a central role in modulating Ca(2+) homeostasis and, therefore, cardiac function. Herein, we discuss the mechanisms through which SERCA2a and PLN control cardiomyocyte function in health and disease. Emphasis is placed on our newly identified PLN-binding partner HS-1-associated protein X-1 (HAX-1), which has an anti-apoptotic function and presents with numerous similarities to Bcl-2. Recent evidence indicates that proteins of the Bcl-2 family can influence ER Ca(2+) content, a critical determinant of cellular sensitivity to apoptosis. The discovery of the PLN/HAX-1 interaction therefore unveils an important new link between Ca(2+) homeostasis and cell survival, with significant therapeutic potential.

Which protein has been found to interact with phospholamban (PLN) and is also an anti-apoptotic protein?

54f9cb34dd3fc62544000002_006

Signalling to transcription: store-operated Ca2+ entry and NFAT activation in lymphocytes. In cells of the immune system that are stimulated by antigen or antigen-antibody complexes, Ca(2+) entry from the extracellular medium is driven by depletion of endoplasmic reticulum Ca(2+) stores and occurs through specialized store-operated Ca(2+) channels known as Ca(2+)-release-activated Ca(2+) (CRAC) channels. The process of store-operated Ca(2+) influx is essential for short-term as well as long-term responses by immune-system cells. Short-term responses include mast cell degranulation and killing of target cells by effector cytolytic T cells, whereas long-term responses typically involve changes in gene transcription and include T and B cell proliferation and differentiation. Transcription downstream of Ca(2+) influx is in large part funneled through the transcription factor nuclear factor of activated T cells (NFAT), a heavily phosphorylated protein that is cytoplasmic in resting cells, but that enters the nucleus when dephosphorylated by the calmodulin-dependent serine/threonine phosphatase calcineurin. The importance of the Ca(2+)/calcineurin/NFAT signalling pathway for lymphocyte activation is underscored by the finding that the underlying defect in a family with a hereditary severe combined immune deficiency (SCID) syndrome is a defect in CRAC channel function, store-operated Ca(2+) entry, NFAT activation and transcription of cytokines, chemokines and many other NFAT target genes whose transcription is essential for productive immune defence. We recently used a two-pronged genetic approach to identify Orai1 as the pore subunit of the CRAC channel. On the one hand, we initiated a positional cloning approach in which we utilised genome-wide single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) mapping to identify the genomic region linked to the mutant gene in the SCID family described above. In parallel, we used a genome-wide RNAi screen in Drosophila to identify critical regulators of NFAT nuclear translocation and store-operated Ca(2+) entry. These approaches, together with subsequent mutational and electrophysiological analyses, converged to identify human Orai1 as a pore subunit of the CRAC channel and as the gene product mutated in the SCID patients.

Which calcium/calmodulin dependent protein phosphatase is involved in the activation of the family of NFAT transcription factors (Nuclear Factors of Activated T cells)?

54f9c40ddd3fc62544000001_016

Incidence of liver injury among cancer patients receiving chemotherapy in an integrated health system. PURPOSE: Using liver laboratory tests (LLTs), Hy's law is a method used to identify drug-induced liver injury (DILI), after excluding other causes. Elevated LLTs in chemotherapy-exposed patients may result from tumor effects or comorbidities. This study evaluated incidence of Hy's law in chemotherapy-treated cancer patients. METHODS: We identified breast, colorectal, and lung cancer patients diagnosed in 1 January 2000 to 31 December 2007 at a Midwestern health system. Using automated data, potential Hy's law (PHL) cases were defined by patterns of elevated LLTs suggestive of DILI. Among those treated with chemotherapy, we excluded PHL patients with pre-existing conditions that could cause liver injury, producing a cohort meeting Hy's law criteria, according to automated data. Medical record review, conducted among these automated data-derived Hy's law patients, further excluded those with causes of liver injury other than chemotherapy. RESULTS: Using automated data, among chemotherapy-exposed patients (N = 2788), 91 (3.3%) met PHL criteria using LLTs and 64 (2.3%) met Hy's law after excluding underlying liver injury using the International Classification of Diseases, 9th Revision codes. After a medical record review, 62 of 64 patients qualifying as Hy's law through automated data had other potential causes, leaving two patients (0.07%; 95%CI: 0.01-0.24%) with chemotherapy as a likely alternative cause of liver injury. CONCLUSIONS: Abnormal LLTs are common in chemotherapy-treated patients. Medical record review showed that the incidence of Hy's law events is rare. These data provide context for evaluating DILI in clinical trials and postmarketing surveillance of anticancer therapies, understanding that automated data alone may substantially overestimate the number of Hy's law cases.

Hy's law measures failure for what organ?

58f4b25e70f9fc6f0f000011_009

Use of a Vaginal Ring Containing Dapivirine for HIV-1 Prevention in Women. BACKGROUND: Antiretroviral medications that are used as prophylaxis can prevent acquisition of human immunodeficiency virus type 1 (HIV-1) infection. However, in clinical trials among African women, the incidence of HIV-1 infection was not reduced, probably because of low adherence. Longer-acting methods of drug delivery, such as vaginal rings, may simplify use of antiretroviral medications and provide HIV-1 protection. METHODS: We conducted a phase 3, randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled trial of a monthly vaginal ring containing dapivirine, a non-nucleoside HIV-1 reverse-transcriptase inhibitor, involving women between the ages of 18 and 45 years in Malawi, South Africa, Uganda, and Zimbabwe. RESULTS: Among the 2629 women who were enrolled, 168 HIV-1 infections occurred: 71 in the dapivirine group and 97 in the placebo group (incidence, 3.3 and 4.5 per 100 person-years, respectively). The incidence of HIV-1 infection in the dapivirine group was lower by 27% (95% confidence interval [CI], 1 to 46; P=0.046) than that in the placebo group. In an analysis that excluded data from two sites that had reduced rates of retention and adherence, the incidence of HIV-1 infection in the dapivirine group was lower by 37% (95% CI, 12 to 56; P=0.007) than that in the placebo group. In a post hoc analysis, higher rates of HIV-1 protection were observed among women over the age of 21 years (56%; 95% CI, 31 to 71; P<0.001) but not among those 21 years of age or younger (-27%; 95% CI, -133 to 31; P=0.45), a difference that was correlated with reduced adherence. The rates of adverse medical events and antiretroviral resistance among women who acquired HIV-1 infection were similar in the two groups. CONCLUSIONS: A monthly vaginal ring containing dapivirine reduced the risk of HIV-1 infection among African women, with increased efficacy in subgroups with evidence of increased adherence. (Funded by the National Institutes of Health; ClinicalTrials.gov number, NCT01617096 .).

Which infection can be prevented with Dapivirine?

5880b812c872c95565000006_010

Interaction between DNMT1 and DNA replication reactions in the SV40 in vitro replication system. In contrast to normal cells, cancer cells exhibit both genetic and epigenetic instability. These unique properties give rise to genetic and epigenetic heterogeneity in a given population of cancer cells and provide a means for the population to undergo phenotypic progression by clonal selection. DNA methylation at CpG dinucleotides is one of the epigenetic marks that are frequently disturbed in cancer cells. To understand how the CpG methylation pattern is changeable in cancer cells, it is necessary to know how it is faithfully maintained in normal cell proliferation. Toward this goal, we have developed a novel in vitro system that is based on the well-established SV40 in vitro replication system and functions to reconstitute concurrent DNA replication and DNA maintenance methylation reactions. We found that DNA methylation was maintained only when exogenous DNA methyltransferase 1 (DNMT1) and S-adenosyl methionine (SAM) were added to the reaction. We demonstrated that DNMT1 associates with replicating and/or replicated chromatin irrespective of the DNA methylation status of template DNA. Moreover, the PCNA-binding domain (PBD) of DNMT1 is not required for the association. Taken together, we suggest that DNMT1 is recruited to replicating and/or replicated chromatin in a constitutive manner independent of the DNA methylation reaction. The in vitro system described in this report is very useful for analyzing the molecular mechanism underlying the DNA maintenance methylation reaction.

Which enzyme is involved in the maintenance of DNA (cytosine-5-)-methylation?

51585b28d24251bc0500008d_031

Clonal size-variation of rDNA cluster region on chromosome XII of Saccharomyces cerevisiae. Using pulsed-field gel electrophoresis (PFGE), we have demonstrated clonal variation in the size of chromosome XII in a diploid strain of Saccharomyces cerevisiae X2180-2D. The sizes of the two chromosome XII homologues were very different: 2600 (L-type) and 1450 kb (S-type). The frequency with which we detected clonal size variation in the diploid, compared to that of the parental clones, was about 15-50% of the progeny clones and the range of the size variation of the homologues was 2580-2680 kb (L-type) and 1340-1500 kb (S-type), respectively. The homologue of the L-type appeared to be more frequently variable than that of the S-type. The size variation was shown to be derived from size changes in the rDNA cluster region, which is present in chromosome XII, by digesting the chromosome with XhoI, whose cutting site is not present in a rDNA repeat unit, and hybridizing to rDNA probes. The clonal size variation was also investigated in haploids from spores after meiosis. The L-type and S-type chromosomes segregated 2:2 in an ascus and the sizes of all the S-type chromosomes were shifted up, compared to the original diploid, though the L-type ones were stable. The S-type sizes of 1340, 1450 and 1780 kb in the original diploids changed into the ranges of 1475-1610 kb, 1520-1680 kb and 1820-2010 kb, respectively, in the segregants. Furthermore, we observed that the size of S-type chromosomes in haploid cells was gradually increasing in mitosis during successive subcultures.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)

In which yeast chromosome does the rDNA cluster reside?

5710e131a5ed216440000001_017

Studies of complex Ph translocations in cases with chronic myelogenous leukemia and one with acute lymphoblastic leukemia. The BCR/ABL gene fusion, the hallmark of chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) is generated in 2-10% of patients by a variant Ph translocation involving 9q34, 22q11.2, and one or more additional genomic regions. The objective of this study was the characterization by conventional and molecular cytogenetics of complex variant Ph translocations present at diagnosis. FISH studies were performed in 7 cases using the LSI BCR/ABL ES probe allowing the detection of the fusion BCR/ABL gene on the Ph chromosome in all of them and 9q34 deletions in 2 cases. Three cryptic complex rearrangements were detected by FISH studies. The third and the fourth chromosome regions involved in the 8 complex variant translocations were: 1q21, 1p36, 5q31, 11q13, 12q13, 12p13, and 20q12. In conclusion, FISH studies have been useful in the detection of the BCR/ABL rearrangements and 9q34 deletions, and to identify complex rearrangements that differ from the ones previously established by conventional cytogenetics.

Which gene fusion is the result of the "philadelphia translocation" or the "philadelphia chromosome" mutation?

55149f156a8cde6b72000013_001

Efficacy and safety of voretigene neparvovec (AAV2-hRPE65v2) in patients with RPE65-mediated inherited retinal dystrophy: a randomised, controlled, open-label, phase 3 trial. BACKGROUND: Phase 1 studies have shown potential benefit of gene replacement in RPE65-mediated inherited retinal dystrophy. This phase 3 study assessed the efficacy and safety of voretigene neparvovec in participants whose inherited retinal dystrophy would otherwise progress to complete blindness. METHODS: In this open-label, randomised, controlled phase 3 trial done at two sites in the USA, individuals aged 3 years or older with, in each eye, best corrected visual acuity of 20/60 or worse, or visual field less than 20 degrees in any meridian, or both, with confirmed genetic diagnosis of biallelic RPE65 mutations, sufficient viable retina, and ability to perform standardised multi-luminance mobility testing (MLMT) within the luminance range evaluated, were eligible. Participants were randomly assigned (2:1) to intervention or control using a permuted block design, stratified by age (<10 years and > 10 years) and baseline mobility testing passing level (pass at > 125 lux vs <125 lux). Graders assessing primary outcome were masked to treatment group. Intervention was bilateral, subretinal injection of 1·5 × 10 vector genomes of voretigene neparvovec in 0·3 mL total volume. The primary efficacy endpoint was 1-year change in MLMT performance, measuring functional vision at specified light levels. The intention-to-treat (ITT) and modified ITT populations were included in primary and safety analyses. This trial is registered with ClinicalTrials.gov, number NCT00999609, and enrolment is complete. FINDINGS: Between Nov 15, 2012, and Nov 21, 2013, 31 individuals were enrolled and randomly assigned to intervention (n=21) or control (n=10). One participant from each group withdrew after consent, before intervention, leaving an mITT population of 20 intervention and nine control participants. At 1 year, mean bilateral MLMT change score was 1·8 (SD 1·1) light levels in the intervention group versus 0·2 (1·0) in the control group (difference of 1·6, 95% CI 0·72-2·41, p=0·0013). 13 (65%) of 20 intervention participants, but no control participants, passed MLMT at the lowest luminance level tested (1 lux), demonstrating maximum possible improvement. No product-related serious adverse events or deleterious immune responses occurred. Two intervention participants, one with a pre-existing complex seizure disorder and another who experienced oral surgery complications, had serious adverse events unrelated to study participation. Most ocular events were mild in severity. INTERPRETATION: Voretigene neparvovec gene replacement improved functional vision in RPE65-mediated inherited retinal dystrophy previously medically untreatable. FUNDING: Spark Therapeutics.

Which retinal dystrophy related gene is targeted by the AAV2-hRPE65v2 drug?

5a74b1730384be9551000007_003

New case of thyroid dysgenesis and clinical signs of hypothyroidism in Williams syndrome. The authors report a female presenting with congenital heart defects, liver hemangiomas, and facial dysmorphisms admitted to hospital at 3 months of age because of feeding difficulties and poor growth. She had hypotonia and large tongue, "coarse" face, and umbilical hernia in presence of complex congenital cardiovascular malformations. In spite of normal neonatal screening we performed serum levels of thyroid hormones. Thyrotropin level was very high (>50 microU/ml; normal value 0.2-4 microU/ml), while serum free T(3) (FT3) and free T(4) (FT4) levels were normal (FT3 3.6 pg/ml, normal value 2.8-5.6 pg/ml; FT4 11.6 pg/ml, normal value 6.6-14 pg/ml); antithyroid autoantibodies were absent. Thyroid scintigraphy with sodium 99m Tc pertechnetate showed a small ectopic thyroid located in sublingual position, so treatment with L-thyroxine 37.5 microg/24 hr was started with rapid improvement of the clinical picture. At 17 months of age the patient developed the complete characteristic phenotype of Williams syndrome (WS); the clinical diagnosis was proven by fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) analysis which showed hemizygous deletion of the elastin gene on chromosome 7. Recently a case of thyroid hemiagenesis in a child with WS has been reported; our patient underscores the association of hypothyroidism and WS. Moreover, our case shows that clinical manifestations of hypothyroidism may be present and the treatment may be necessary as it is in isolated congenital hypothyroidism.

Which hormone abnormalities are common in Williams syndrome ?

530cefaaad0bf1360c00000d_024

The London APP mutation (Val717Ile) associated with early shifting abilities and behavioral changes in two Italian families with early-onset Alzheimer's disease. BACKGROUND/AIMS: Mutations in the amyloid precursor protein gene were the first to be recognized as a cause of Alzheimer's disease (AD). METHODS: We describe 2 Italian families showing the missense mutation in exon 17 of the amyloid precursor protein gene on chromosome 21 (Val717Ile), known as London mutation. RESULTS: In 1 family, this mutation was responsible for AD in 3 out of 7 siblings and it is also present in a fourth sibling who has only shown signs of executive dysfunction so far. Two subjects of the other family with AD diagnosis were carriers of the same mutation. CONCLUSION: All AD subjects showed a cognitive profile characterized by early impairment in long-term memory, shifting abilities and affective symptoms beginning in the fifth decade of life.

Which disease the London mutation involved in?

58b6978822d300530900000a_006

Abnormal distribution of the non-Abeta component of Alzheimer's disease amyloid precursor/alpha-synuclein in Lewy body disease as revealed by proteinase K and formic acid pretreatment. The precursor of the non-Abeta component of Alzheimer's disease amyloid (NACP) (also known as alpha-synuclein) is a presynaptic terminal molecule that abnormally accumulates in the plaques of Alzheimer's disease (AD) and in the Lewy bodies (LBs) of Lewy body variant of AD, diffuse Lewy body disease, and Parkinson's disease. To better understand the distribution of NACP/alpha-synuclein and its fragments in the LB-bearing neurons and neurites, as well as to clarify the patterns of NACP/alpha-synuclein compartmentalization, we studied NACP/alpha-synuclein immunoreactivity using antibodies against the C-terminal, N-terminal, and NAC regions after Proteinase K and formic acid treatment in the cortex of patients with LBs. Furthermore, studies of the subcellular localization of NACP/alpha-synuclein within LB-bearing neurons were performed by immunogold electron microscopy. These studies showed that the N-terminal antibody immunolabeled the LBs and dystrophic neurites with great intensity and, to a lesser extent, the synapses. In contrast, the C-terminal antibody strongly labeled the synapses and, to a lesser extent, the LBs and dystrophic neurites. Whereas Proteinase K treatment enhanced NACP/alpha-synuclein immunoreactivity with the C-terminal antibody, it diminished the N-terminal NACP/alpha-synuclein immunoreactivity. Furthermore, formic acid enhanced LB and dystrophic neurite labeling with both the C- and N-terminal antibodies. In addition, whereas without pretreatment only slight anti-NAC immunoreactivity was found in the LBs, formic acid pretreatment revealed an extensive anti-NAC immunostaining of LBs, plaques, and glial cells. Ultrastructural analysis revealed that NACP/alpha-synuclein immunoreactivity was diffusely distributed within the amorphous electrodense material in the LBs and as small clusters in the filaments of LBs and neurites. These results support the view that aggregated NACP/alpha-synuclein might play an important role in the pathogenesis of disorders associated with LBs.

Against which protein is the antibody used for immonostaining of Lewy bodies raised?

53189656b166e2b80600001c_022

Genetic variation within coat color genes of MC1R and ASIP in Chinese brownish red Tibetan pigs. Melanocortin receptor 1 (MC1R) and agouti signaling protein (ASIP) are two major genes affecting coat color phenotypes in mammals, and inactivation mutations in the MC1R gene are responsible for red coat color in European pig breeds. Conversely, the gain-of-function ASIP mutations block MC1R signaling and lead to the production of red pheomelanin. Chinese Tibetan pigs have three types of coat color phenotypes, including brownish red, solid black and black with patches of brownish red and white. Herein, we investigated variations of the MC1R and ASIP genes in Tibetan pigs. The results showed that the brownish red Tibet pig had the dominant black MC1R allele (E(D1)). No loss-of-function mutation in MC1R responsible for red coat color in European breeds was observed in this breed. No causal mutation for the red coat color phenotype was found in the coding sequence of the ASIP gene. A novel missense mutation c.157G > A was firstly identified in exon 2 of ASIP, which was further genotyped in 285 pigs from five Chinese breeds and three Western breeds having different coat color phenotypes. Nearly all pigs were GG homozygotes. In conclusion, no functional variant responsible for brownish red coloration was found in the coding region of MC1R and ASIP in Tibetan pigs.

Which gene is responsible for red hair?

5ace19420340b9f05800000a_051

Novel FBN1 gene mutation and maternal germinal mosaicism as the cause of neonatal form of Marfan syndrome. Marfan syndrome (MFS) is an autosomal dominant disorder caused by mutations in the fibrillin 1 gene (FBN1). Neonatal form of MFS is rare and is associated with severe phenotype and a poor prognosis. We report on a newborn girl with neonatal MFS who displayed cyanosis and dyspnea on the first day of life. The main clinical features included mitral and tricuspid valve insufficiency, aortic root dilatation, arachnodactyly, and loose skin. Despite the presence of severe and inoperable heart anomalies, the girl was quite stable on symptomatic treatment and lived up to the 7th month of age when she died due to cardiorespiratory failure. Molecular-genetic studies revealed a novel intronic c.4211-32_-13del mutation in the FBN1 gene. Subsequent in vitro splicing analysis showed this mutation led to exon 35 skipping, presumably resulting in a deletion of 42 amino acids (p.Leu1405_Asp1446del). Interestingly, this mutation is localized outside the region of exons 24-32, whose mutation is responsible for the substantial majority of cases of neonatal MFS. Although the family history of MFS was negative, the subsequent molecular genetic examination documented a mosaicism of the same mutation in the maternal blood cells (10-25% of genomic DNA) and the detailed clinical examination showed unilateral lens ectopy.

Which gene mutations cause the Marfan syndrome?

58d8e6818acda3452900000a_010

Proton pump inhibitors and pain. There may be a relationship between proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) and iron absorption. PPIs may decrease the amount of iron absorbed gastrointestinally specifically due to alteration of the pH in the duodenum. Restless legs syndrome (RLS) is a sensorimotor disorder that includes an urge to move legs, accompanied or caused by uncomfortable and unpleasant sensations in the legs; the urge to move begins or worsens during periods of rest or inactivity, the urge to move is partially or totally relieved by movement, and the urge is worse or only occurs at night. In the majority of the restless leg syndrome population, the sensation is deep seated, often described as being in the shin bones, and most commonly felt between the knee and ankle. It may be described as a creepy, shock-like, tense, electric, buzzing, itchy, or even numb sensation. A subpopulation of this restless leg syndrome patient population experiences restless leg syndrome associated pain (RLSAP) that has been described as a deep "achy pain." This pain has not been found to be relieved by many of the typical over the counter analgesics. Often, constant movement of the legs appears to be the only remedy, as these sensations usually appear during periods of rest. Furthermore, there appears to be an association between iron deficiency and those suffering from Restless Leg Syndrome (RLS). The authors theorize that there may be a possible correlation between PPIs and the symptoms (e.g. pain) associated with RLS. The authors propose that PPIs, such as omeprazole, may interfere with iron absorption in certain patients and that a subpopulation of patients who develop significant iron deficiency characterized by low serum ferritin levels while on PPIs may also develop RLS-like symptoms (including RLSAP). While there is no robust direct evidence to support any associations of PPIs and iron deficiency or PPIs associated with RLS-like symptoms (including RLSAP), it is hoped that this manuscript may spark research efforts on this issue.

Which deficiency is the cause of restless leg syndrome?

530cefaaad0bf1360c000012_009

New anticoagulants: focus on venous thromboembolism. Anticoagulation is recommended for prophylaxis and treatment of venous thromboembolism (VTE) (deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism) and/or arterial thromboembolism. The therapeutic arsenal of anticoagulants available to clinicians is mainly composed by unfractionated heparin (UFH), low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH), fondaparinux and oral vitamin K antagonists (VKA) (i.e. warfarin and acenocumarol). These anticoagulants are effective, but they require parenteral administration (UFH, LMWH, fondaparinux) and/or frequent anticoagulant monitoring (intravenous UFH, oral VKA). Novel anticoagulants in clinical testing include orally active direct factor II inhibitors [dabigatran etexilate (BIBR 1048), AZD0837)], parenteral direct factor II inhibitors (flovagatran sodium), orally active direct factor X inhibitors [rivaroxaban (BAY 59-7939), apixaban, betrixaban, YM150, DU-176b, LY-517717, GW813893, TAK-442, PD 0348292] and new parenteral FXa inhibitors [idraparinux, idrabiotaparinux (biotinilated idraparinux; SSR 126517), ultra-low-molecular-weight heparins (ULMWH: AVE5026, RO-14)]. These new compounds have the potential to complement heparins and fondaparinux for short-term anticoagulation and/or to replace VKA for long-term anticoagulation in most patients. Dabigatran and rivaroxaban have been the firsts of the new oral anticoagulants to be licensed for the prevention of VTE after hip and knee replacement surgery. In the present review, we discuss the pharmacology of new anticoagulants, the key points necessary for interpreting the results of studies on VTE prophylaxis and treatment, the results of clinical trials testing these new compounds and their potential advantages and drawbacks over existing therapies.

Which clotting factor is inhibited by betrixaban?

55200c606b348bb82c000013_096

Oral direct factor Xa inhibitors for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation. Safe and effective stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation (AF) is crucial as the number of patients with this condition continues to increase. Several novel oral anticoagulants are being developed as replacements for warfarin for this indication. Direct factor Xa inhibitors comprise the largest class of oral anticoagulants in development; the inhibition of factor Xa is recognized to be a promising target for therapeutic anticoagulation, partly because of its location in the coagulation cascade. Apixaban, betrixaban, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban are small-molecule, selective inhibitors that directly and reversibly bind to the active site of factor Xa. Their pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic profiles vary, which might allow patient-specific therapy. Several of these agents have been tested in clinical trials for various indications, including AF, with favorable results. In particular, apixaban and rivaroxaban have shown superiority and noninferiority, respectively, to warfarin in phase III clinical trials for stroke prevention in AF. These agents have also been shown to be safe in terms of bleeding risk. Despite these advantages, factor Xa inhibitors have several characteristics, such as potential interactions with other drugs (inhibitors of cytochrome P450 and P-glycoprotein) and the inability to reverse their anticoagulant effects, as well as concerns about poor patient compliance, which must be considered when initiating patients on a novel factor Xa inhibitor.

Which clotting factor is inhibited by betrixaban?

55200c606b348bb82c000013_056

Psoriasin (S100A7) increases the expression of ROS and VEGF and acts through RAGE to promote endothelial cell proliferation. Psoriasin (S100A7), originally identified in psoriasis, is a calcium-binding protein belonging to the multigenic S100 family. In high-grade ductal carcinoma in situ, psoriasin was identified as one of the most abundant transcripts. We have previously shown that psoriasin was induced by reactive oxygen species (ROS). Moreover, the downregulation of psoriasin by short hairpin RNA (shRNA) led to the reduced expression of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and inhibited tumor growth in vivo. The aim of the present study was to investigate whether psoriasin could have direct effects on endothelial cells. In this study we demonstrated that psoriasin increased VEGF expression in mammary epithelial cells. The treatment of endothelial cells with recombinant psoriasin increased proliferation comparable to that of recombinant VEGF protein. No change in proliferation was seen when endothelial cells were infected with psoriasin-expressing adenoviruses, suggesting that the proliferative effect of psoriasin was mediated by a specific receptor. Treatment with sRAGE, targeting the receptor for advanced glycation end products (RAGE), thus inhibited endothelial cell proliferation and tube formation enhanced by recombinant psoriasin. We showed that VEGF expression was not induced by hydrogen peroxide, when psoriasin was silenced by shRNA, which led to the hypothesis that psoriasin induces ROS. Indeed, psoriasin was shown to induce ROS in both endothelial and epithelial cells. Moreover, sRAGE inhibited the psoriasin-dependent generation of ROS in endothelial cells. Finally, treatment with antioxidant Bcl-2 protein abolished the effect of psoriasin on endothelial cell proliferation. Our data suggest that psoriasin expression in mammary epithelial cells leads to increased endothelial cell proliferation in a paracrine manner through RAGE. Psoriasin may therefore play a role in breast cancer progression by promoting oxidative stress response and angiogenesis.

In which condition was protein S100A7 originally identified?

55203ae78e534a4535000001_001

Effects of long-term administration of N-3 polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA) and selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) derivatives in ovariectomized (OVX) mice. We studied the beneficial effects of dietary consumption of n-3 polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA) and two selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) derivatives (SERM-I and SERM-II) and their combined effect on serum lipids, skin dermis and adipose layers, bone marrow adipogenesis, and cytokine secretion in mice. Two different ovariectomized (OVX) models were studied: treatment began immediately post-OVX in one and 3 months post-OVX in the other. Our results showed that n-3 PUFA and both SERMs decreased triglyceride levels in the serum, and that SERMs also decreased serum cholesterol levels while n-3 PUFA had no similar effect. SERMs had no effect on IL-6, IL-1 beta, or IL-10 levels, but they decreased ex vivo tumor necrosis factor (TNF-alpha). N-3 PUFA decreased secretion of non-induced IL-6 and TNF-alpha from cultured BMC and IL-1 beta levels in vivo (i.e., in bone marrow plasma), but its main effect was a significant elevation in the secretion of IL-10, a known anti-inflammatory cytokine. OVX-induced B-lymphopoiesis was not affected by LY-139481 (SERM-I) while LY-353381 (SERM-II) exhibited an estrogen-antagonistic effect in sham and OVX mice and elevated the amount of B-cells in bone marrow. Fish oil consumption prevented the elevation in B-lymphopoiesis caused by OVX, but had no curative effect on established augmented B-lymphopoiesis. This activity could be mediated via the elevation of IL-10 which was shown to suppress B-lymphopoiesis. Both SERMs and n-3 PUFA inhibited the increase in adipose tissue thickness caused by OVX in mice. Our results showed that n-3 PUFA, could prevent some of the deleterious outcomes of estrogen deficiency that were not affected by SERMs. We observed no significant beneficial effects of the combined administration of SERM-I, SERM-II, and PUFA on the studied parameters.The exact mechanism by which polyunsaturated fatty acids exert their activities is still not clear, but peroxisome proliferator-activated receptors (PPARs) might be involved in processes which are modulated by n-3 PUFA.

What is a SERM?

5a74e9ad0384be955100000a_031

A genome-wide study on the perception of the odorants androstenone and galaxolide. Twin pairs and their siblings rated the intensity of the odorants amyl acetate, androstenone, eugenol, Galaxolide, mercaptans, and rose (N = 1573). Heritability was established for ratings of androstenone (h (2) = 0.30) and Galaxolide (h(2) = 0.34) but not for the other odorants. Genome-wide association analysis using 2.3 million single nucleotide polymorphisms indicated that the most significant association was between androstenone and a region without known olfactory receptor genes (rs10966900, P = 1.2 × 10(-7)). A previously reported association between the olfactory receptor OR7D4 and the androstenone was not detected until we specifically typed this gene (P = 1.1 × 10(-4)). We also tested these 2 associations in a second independent sample of subjects and replicated the results either fully (OR7D4, P = 0.00002) or partially (rs10966900, P = 0.010; N = 266). These findings suggest that 1) the perceived intensity of some but not all odorants is a heritable trait, 2) use of a current genome-wide marker panel did not detect a known olfactory genotype-phenotype association, and 3) person-to-person differences in androstenone perception are influenced by OR7D4 genotype and perhaps by variants of other genes.

Which olfactory gene senses androsterone?

5ace17c30340b9f058000009_002

TIRR regulates 53BP1 by masking its histone methyl-lysine binding function. P53-binding protein 1 (53BP1) is a multi-functional double-strand break repair protein that is essential for class switch recombination in B lymphocytes and for sensitizing BRCA1-deficient tumours to poly-ADP-ribose polymerase-1 (PARP) inhibitors. Central to all 53BP1 activities is its recruitment to double-strand breaks via the interaction of the tandem Tudor domain with dimethylated lysine 20 of histone H4 (H4K20me2). Here we identify an uncharacterized protein, Tudor interacting repair regulator (TIRR), that directly binds the tandem Tudor domain and masks its H4K20me2 binding motif. Upon DNA damage, the protein kinase ataxia-telangiectasia mutated (ATM) phosphorylates 53BP1 and recruits RAP1-interacting factor 1 (RIF1) to dissociate the 53BP1-TIRR complex. However, overexpression of TIRR impedes 53BP1 function by blocking its localization to double-strand breaks. Depletion of TIRR destabilizes 53BP1 in the nuclear-soluble fraction and alters the double-strand break-induced protein complex centring 53BP1. These findings identify TIRR as a new factor that influences double-strand break repair using a unique mechanism of masking the histone methyl-lysine binding function of 53BP1.

Which protein is regulated by Tudor interacting repair regulator (TIRR)?

5a774fdcfaa1ab7d2e000008_025

Immunosuppression decreases inflammation and increases AAV6-hSERCA2a-mediated SERCA2a expression. The calcium pump SERCA2a (sarcoplasmic reticulum calcium ATPase 2a), which plays a central role in cardiac contraction, shows decreased expression in heart failure (HF). Increasing SERCA2a expression in HF models improves cardiac function. We used direct cardiac delivery of adeno-associated virus encoding human SERCA2a (AAV6-hSERCA2a) in HF and normal canine models to study safety, efficacy, and the effects of immunosuppression. Tachycardic-paced dogs received left ventricle (LV) wall injection of AAV6-hSERCA2a or solvent. Pacing continued postinjection for 2 or 6 weeks, until euthanasia. Tissue/serum samples were analyzed for hSERCA2a expression (Western blot) and immune responses (histology and AAV6-neutralizing antibodies). Nonpaced dogs received AAV6-hSERCA2a and were analyzed at 12 weeks; a parallel cohort received AAV-hSERCA2a and immunosuppression. AAV-mediated cardiac expression of hSERCA2a peaked at 2 weeks and then declined (to ~50%; p<0.03, 6 vs. 2 weeks). LV end diastolic and end systolic diameters decreased in 6-week dogs treated with AAV6-hSERCA2a (p<0.05) whereas LV diameters increased in control dogs. Dogs receiving AAV6-hSERCA2a developed neutralizing antibodies (titer > 1:120) and cardiac cellular infiltration. Immunosuppression dramatically reduced immune responses (reduced inflammation and neutralizing antibody titers <1:20), and maintained hSERCA2a expression. Thus cardiac injection of AAV6-hSERCA2a promotes local hSERCA2a expression and improves cardiac function. However, the hSERCA2a protein level is reduced by host immune responses. Immunosuppression alleviates immune responses and sustains transgene expression, and may be an important adjuvant for clinical gene therapy trials.

Which is the main calcium pump of the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

54db62a3034aea571d000001_009

Evidence of a link between ubiquilin 2 and optineurin in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis. A mutation in the ubiquilin 2 gene (UBQLN2) was recently identified as a cause of X-linked amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)/frontotemporal dementia (FTD) and a major component of the inclusion bodies commonly found with a wide variety of ALS. ALS-linked mutations in UBQLN2 are clustered in a unique proline-X-X repeat region, reportedly leading to impairment of the ubiquitin proteasome system. However, the molecular properties of mutant UBQLN2 remain unclear. To gain insight into the pathogenesis of UBQLN2-linked ALS/FTD, we examined the biochemical and cellular characteristics of mutant UBQLN2 in vitro. UBQLN2 localized in Rab11-positive endosomal vesicles formed by the ALS-linked molecule optineurin (OPTN). These vesicles were ubiquitin- and p62-immunopositive and also co-localized with an initiator of the autophagic process, ULK1, after amino acid starvation. An ALS-linked mutation (E478G) in OPTN abolished vesicle formation. ALS-linked mutations in UBQLN2 additively enhanced UBQLN2 aggregation and formation of inclusion bodies, resulting in mislocation from OPTN vesicles. UBQLN2 was found to be a potent regulator of the levels of the FTD-linked secretory factor progranulin, possibly via the endosomal system, and ALS-linked mutations disturbed these functional consequences. This study demonstrates that ALS-linked mutations in both OPTN and UBQLN2 interfere with the constitution of specific endosomal vesicles, suggesting that the vesicles are involved in protein homeostasis and that these proteins function in common pathological processes. These data suggest a novel disease spectrum and provide new pathological insights into OPTN and UBQLN2, enhancing our understanding of the molecular basis of ALS/FTD.

Which human disease is associated with mutated UBQLN2

58bc5e2202b8c60953000002_011

Anti-IL-5 recombinant humanized monoclonal antibody (mepolizumab) for the treatment of atopic dermatitis. BACKGROUND: Eosinophils may play an important role in the pathogenesis of atopic dermatitis (AD). Interleukin-5 is essential for eosinophil growth, differentiation and migration. A monoclonal antibody to human interleukin-5 (mepolizumab) was developed for atopic diseases. This study was designed to study the effect of mepolizumab in AD. METHODS: Two single doses of 750 mg mepolizumab, given 1 week apart, were studied in patients with moderate to severe AD using a randomized, placebo-controlled parallel group design. The primary endpoint of 'success' to treatment was defined as the percentage of patients with at least 'marked improvement' after 2 weeks as assessed by the Physician's Global Assessment of Improvement (PGA). Furthermore, SCORing AD (SCORAD), pruritus scoring, number of blood eosinophils and serum thymus and activation-regulated chemokine (TARC) values served as secondary endpoints. Fluticasone propionate cream 0.05%, once daily could be used as rescue medication from day 16 if no improvement was recorded. RESULTS: Eighteen patients received mepolizumab and 22 placebo treatment. Peripheral blood eosinophil numbers were significantly reduced in the treatment group compared with placebo (P < 0.05). No clinical success was reached by PGA assessment (P = 0.115), SCORAD (P = 0.293), pruritus scoring and TARC values in the mepolizumab-treated group compared with placebo. However, modest improvement (<50% improvement) assessed by PGA was scored significantly more in the mepolizumab-treated group compared with placebo (P < 0.05). CONCLUSION: Two single doses of 750 mg mepolizumab did not result in clinical success in patients with AD, despite a significant decrease in peripheral blood eosinophils.

Which molecule is targeted by a monoclonal antibody Mepolizumab?

54d907c84b1fd0d33c000008_018

Andexanet Alfa for the Reversal of Factor Xa Inhibitor Activity. BACKGROUND: Bleeding is a complication of treatment with factor Xa inhibitors, but there are no specific agents for the reversal of the effects of these drugs. Andexanet is designed to reverse the anticoagulant effects of factor Xa inhibitors. METHODS: Healthy older volunteers were given 5 mg of apixaban twice daily or 20 mg of rivaroxaban daily. For each factor Xa inhibitor, a two-part randomized placebo-controlled study was conducted to evaluate andexanet administered as a bolus or as a bolus plus a 2-hour infusion. The primary outcome was the mean percent change in anti-factor Xa activity, which is a measure of factor Xa inhibition by the anticoagulant. RESULTS: Among the apixaban-treated participants, anti-factor Xa activity was reduced by 94% among those who received an andexanet bolus (24 participants), as compared with 21% among those who received placebo (9 participants) (P<0.001), and unbound apixaban concentration was reduced by 9.3 ng per milliliter versus 1.9 ng per milliliter (P<0.001); thrombin generation was fully restored in 100% versus 11% of the participants (P<0.001) within 2 to 5 minutes. Among the rivaroxaban-treated participants, anti-factor Xa activity was reduced by 92% among those who received an andexanet bolus (27 participants), as compared with 18% among those who received placebo (14 participants) (P<0.001), and unbound rivaroxaban concentration was reduced by 23.4 ng per milliliter versus 4.2 ng per milliliter (P<0.001); thrombin generation was fully restored in 96% versus 7% of the participants (P<0.001). These effects were sustained when andexanet was administered as a bolus plus an infusion. In a subgroup of participants, transient increases in levels of d-dimer and prothrombin fragments 1 and 2 were observed, which resolved within 24 to 72 hours. No serious adverse or thrombotic events were reported. CONCLUSIONS: Andexanet reversed the anticoagulant activity of apixaban and rivaroxaban in older healthy participants within minutes after administration and for the duration of infusion, without evidence of clinical toxic effects. (Funded by Portola Pharmaceuticals and others; ANNEXA-A and ANNEXA-R ClinicalTrials.gov numbers, NCT02207725 and NCT02220725.).

Andexanet Alfa is an antidote of which clotting factor inhibitors?

5880b073c872c95565000003_055

Albinism-causing mutations in recombinant human tyrosinase alter intrinsic enzymatic activity. BACKGROUND: Tyrosinase (TYR) catalyzes the rate-limiting, first step in melanin production and its gene (TYR) is mutated in many cases of oculocutaneous albinism (OCA1), an autosomal recessive cause of childhood blindness. Patients with reduced TYR activity are classified as OCA1B; some OCA1B mutations are temperature-sensitive. Therapeutic research for OCA1 has been hampered, in part, by the absence of purified, active, recombinant wild-type and mutant human enzymes. METHODOLOGY/PRINCIPAL FINDINGS: The intra-melanosomal domain of human tyrosinase (residues 19-469) and two OCA1B related temperature-sensitive mutants, R422Q and R422W were expressed in insect cells and produced in T. ni larvae. The short trans-membrane fragment was deleted to avoid potential protein insolubility, while preserving all other functional features of the enzymes. Purified tyrosinase was obtained with a yield of >1 mg per 10 g of larval biomass. The protein was a monomeric glycoenzyme with maximum enzyme activity at 37°C and neutral pH. The two purified mutants when compared to the wild-type protein were less active and temperature sensitive. These differences are associated with conformational perturbations in secondary structure. CONCLUSIONS/SIGNIFICANCE: The intramelanosomal domains of recombinant wild-type and mutant human tyrosinases are soluble monomeric glycoproteins with activities which mirror their in vivo function. This advance allows for the structure - function analyses of different mutant TYR proteins and correlation with their corresponding human phenotypes; it also provides an important tool to discover drugs that may improve tyrosinase activity and treat OCA1.

Which mutated enzyme is responsible for oculocutaneous 1 (OCA1)-type albinism?

58cbb98c02b8c60953000034_094

Effects of tolcapone, a novel catechol-O-methyltransferase inhibitor, on striatal metabolism of L-dopa and dopamine in rats. In vivo brain microdialysis was used to assess the effects of tolcapone, a novel central and peripheral inhibitor of catechol-O-methyltransferase on striatal 3,4-dihydroxyphenyl-L-alanine (L-dopa) and dopamine metabolism. The oral administration of 30 mg/kg of tolcapone failed to change dopamine output but elicited a marked and long-lasting decrease of the extracellular levels of homovanillic acid (HVA) and 3-methoxytyramine with a concomitant increase of 3,4-dihydroxyphenylacetic acid (DOPAC). The administration of L-dopa (20 and 60 mg/kg p.o.) + benserazide (15 mg/kg p.o.) resulted in dose-dependent increase of dialysate levels of L-dopa and 3-O-methyl-DOPA. Tolcapone (30 mg/kg p.o.), given as adjunct to both doses of L-dopa, markedly enhanced the elevation or extracellular L-dopa, while it completely prevented the formation of 3-O-methyl-DOPA. In another experiment, the administration of L-dopa + benserazide (30 + 15 mg/kg p.o.) resulted in increased extracellular levels of dopamine, DOPAC, HVA and 3-methoxytyramine. The co-administration of tolcapone (30 mg/kg p.o.) further increased dopamine and DOPAC levels, whereas HVA and 3-methoxytyramine effluxes were reduced. These findings support the notion that tolcapone has the ability to enhance striatal dopamine neurotransmission by increasing L-dopa bioavailability through peripheral and central inhibition of L-dopa O-methylation, as well as by blocking the central conversion of dopamine into 3-methoxytyramine.

Which drug is benserazide usually co-administered with?

52bf1f2d03868f1b06000015_020

Antimigraine efficacy of telcagepant based on patient's historical triptan response. OBJECTIVE: To evaluate whether the same or different patients respond to triptans and telcagepant. BACKGROUND: Telcagepant is an oral calcitonin gene-related peptide receptor antagonist with acute antimigraine efficacy comparable to oral triptans. It is currently unknown whether migraine patients who cannot be adequately helped with triptans might benefit from treatment with telcagepant. METHODS: Post-hoc analysis of data from a randomized, controlled trial of telcagepant (150 mg, 300 mg) zolmitriptan 5 mg, or placebo for a moderate/severe migraine. Responder rates were analyzed according to patients' self-reported historical triptan response (HTR): (1) good HTR (N = 660): response in 75-100% of attacks; (2) intermediate HTR (N = 248): response in 25-74% of attacks; (3) poor HTR/no use (N = 407): response in < 25% of attacks, or patient did not take triptans. A limitation of the analysis is that the last subgroup comprised mainly (91%) patients who reported that they did not take triptans, but it was not known whether these patients were triptan-naïve or had previously used triptans and stopped taking them. RESULTS: For zolmitriptan, 2-hour pain relief rates were higher in the good HTR subgroup (116/162, 72%) than in the intermediate (29/62, 47%) and poor/no use (44/111, 40%) HTR subgroups. The 2-hour pain relief rates were similar across HTR subgroups for telcagepant 150 mg (48-58%), 300 mg (52-58%), and placebo (26-31%). In the poor/no use HTR subgroup, more patients receiving telcagepant 300 mg (56/98, 57.1%) had 2-hour pain relief than those receiving zolmitriptan (44/111, 39.6%; odds ratio = 2.11 [95% CI: 1.20,3.71], P = .009); the percentage for telcagepant 150 mg (57/119, 47.9%) was not significantly different from zolmitriptan (odds ratio = 1.41 [95% CI: 0.82, 2.40], P = .211). CONCLUSIONS: This suggests that different patients may respond to triptans or telcagepant 300 mg. Caution should be exercised in interpreting the results because of the post-hoc nature of the analysis (clinical trial registry: NCT00442936).

Which receptor is targeted by telcagepant?

55032efde9bde69634000035_014

traseR: an R package for performing trait-associated SNP enrichment analysis in genomic intervals. UNLABELLED: Genome-wide association studies (GWASs) have successfully identified many sequence variants that are significantly associated with common diseases and traits. Tens of thousands of such trait-associated SNPs have already been cataloged, which we believe form a great resource for genomic research. Recent studies have demonstrated that the collection of trait-associated SNPs can be exploited to indicate whether a given genomic interval or intervals are likely to be functionally connected with certain phenotypes or diseases. Despite this importance, currently, there is no ready-to-use computational tool able to connect genomic intervals to phenotypes. Here, we present traseR, an easy-to-use R Bioconductor package that performs enrichment analyses of trait-associated SNPs in arbitrary genomic intervals with flexible options, including testing method, type of background and inclusion of SNPs in LD. AVAILABILITY AND IMPLEMENTATION: The traseR R package preloaded with up-to-date collection of trait-associated SNPs are freely available in Bioconductor CONTACT: zhaohui.qin@emory.edu SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION: Supplementary data are available at Bioinformatics online.

Which R / bioconductor package is used for performing SNP enrichment analysis?

587e3129c32c812009000002_001

Confirmation of a double-hit model for the NF1 gene in benign neurofibromas. Neurofibroma is a benign tumor that arises from small or large nerves. This neoplastic lesion is a common feature of neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1), one of the most common autosomal dominant disorders. The NF1 gene codes for a protein called "neurofibromin." It possesses a region that shares a high homology with the family of GTPase-activating proteins, which are negative regulators of RAS function and thereby control cell growth and differentiation. The evidence points to the NF1 gene being a tumor-suppressor gene. NF1 patients also have an increased incidence of certain malignant tumors that are believed to follow the "two hit" hypothesis, with one allele constitutionally inactivated and the other somatically mutated. Recently, somatic loss of heterozygosity (LOH) has been described for neurofibromas, and mutations in both copies of the NF1 gene have been reported for a dermal neurofibroma. The aim of our study was the analysis of the NF1 locus in benign neurofibromas in NF1 patients. We performed LOH analysis on 60 neurofibromas belonging to 17 patients, 9 of them with family history of the disease and 8 of them sporadic. We have analyzed five intragenic NF1 markers and six extragenic markers, and we have found LOH in 25% of the neurofibromas (corresponding to 53% of the patients). In addition, we found that in the neurofibromas of patients from familial cases the deletions occurred in the allele that is not transmitted with the disease, indicating that both copies of the NF1 gene were inactivated in these tumors. Therefore, the recent reports mentioned above, together with our findings, strongly support the double inactivation of the NF1 gene in benign neurofibromas.

Which is the gene mutated in type 1 neurofibromatosis?

5343fc1aaeec6fbd07000003_035

Melanocortin-1 receptor gene variants determine the risk of nonmelanoma skin cancer independently of fair skin and red hair. Melanocortin-1 receptor (MC1R) gene variants are associated with fair skin and red hair and, independently of these, with cutaneous malignant melanoma. The association of MC1R gene variants with nonmelanoma skin cancer is largely unknown. A total of 838 subjects were included in the present study: 453 patients with nonmelanoma skin cancer and 385 subjects with no skin cancer. The coding sequence of the human MC1R gene was tested using single-stranded conformation polymorphism analysis followed by sequencing of unknown variants. Risk of skin cancer dependent on the various MC1R gene variants was estimated using the exposure odds ratio. We investigated whether subjects with MC1R variant alleles were at increased risk of developing nonmelanoma skin cancer and, if so, whether this increased risk was mediated by fair skin and red hair. A total of 27 MC1R gene variants were found. The number of carriers of one, two, or three MC1R gene variants was 379 (45.2%), 208 (24.8%), and 7 (0.9%), respectively. A strong association between MC1R gene variants and fair skin and red hair was established, especially the variants Arg151Cys and Arg160Trp (P < .0001). Carriers of two variant alleles were at increased risk for developing cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma (odds ratio 3.77; 95% confidence interval [CI] 2.11-6.78), nodular basal cell carcinoma (odds ratio 2.26; 95% CI 1.45-3.52), and superficial multifocal basal cell carcinoma (odds ratio 3.43; 95% CI 1.92-6.15), compared with carriers of two wild-type alleles. Carriers of one variant allele had half the risk. The highest relative risks of nonmelanoma skin cancer were found in carriers of the Asp84Glu, His260Pro, and Asp294His variant alleles, and the risk was only slightly lower for carriers of the Val60Leu, Val92Met, Arg142His, Arg151Cys, and Arg160Trp variant alleles. When subjects were stratified by skin type and hair color, analysis showed that these factors did not materially change the relative risks. These findings indicate that MC1R gene variants are important independent risk factors for nonmelanoma skin cancer.

Which gene is responsible for red hair?

5ace19420340b9f05800000a_009

Paediatric investigation plans for pain: painfully slow! PURPOSE: To examine the early impact of the Paediatric Regulation, which entered into force in Europe on 27 January 2007, on the development of pharmaceutical drugs in the therapeutic field of pain submitted to the Paediatric Committee (PDCO) and to the European Medicines Agency (EMA). METHODS: Paediatric Investigations Plans (PIPs) submitted with a Decision (outcome) reached between September 2007 and March 2010 were included in the analysis. RESULTS: Of the 17 Paediatric Investigation Plans submitted, 14 have resulted in an EMA Decision, 3 were withdrawn by the applicants, 8 were granted a full waiver from development, and 1 resulted in a negative opinion. Decisions as issued included 15 clinical trials, with at least 1,282 children to be recruited into studies across five different products. Neonates were included in four of the products. CONCLUSIONS: The small number of submissions indicates a lack of new drugs being developed for the management of pain. Ethical concerns that too many vulnerable children will be recruited into clinical trials must be balanced against limiting the number of off-label prescribing and obtaining age-appropriate information on paediatric use. Now is an opportune time for clinicians, academics, learned societies and industry to collaborate for the benefit of children in pain.

How many clinical trials for off-label drugs in neonates are cited in the literature.

5150b807d24251bc05000072_004

Diagnosis of pneumoperitoneum on supine abdominal radiographs. A blinded, retrospective study was performed to determine the value of supine abdominal radiographs in diagnosing pneumoperitoneum. Supine films from 44 cases of pneumoperitoneum were randomly interspersed among supine films from 87 control subjects without free air, and the films were reviewed for the presence or absence of various signs of pneumoperitoneum, including Rigler's sign (gas on both sides of the bowel wall), the falciform ligament sign (gas outlining the falciform ligament), the football sign (gas outlining the peritoneal cavity), the inverted-V sign (gas outlining the medial umbilical folds), and the right-upper-quadrant gas sign (localized gas in the right upper quadrant). One or more of these signs were present in 26 cases (59%) of pneumoperitoneum, including the right-upper-quadrant gas sign in 18 cases (41%), Rigler's sign in 14 cases (32%), and the falciform ligament and football signs in one case each (2%). Unfortunately, there were frequent errors in the interpretation of the right-upper-quadrant gas sign and Rigler's sign, with a total of 11 false-positive cases (13%). Further analysis of the true-positive right-upper-quadrant gas signs showed that these gas collections were always triangular or linear with an inferolateral to superomedial orientation and, if triangular, a concave superolateral border. In the true-positive Rigler's signs, the bowel wall thickness ranged from 1 to 8 mm, whereas the false positives all had a bowel wall thickness of 1 mm or less. Proper interpretation of the various signs of pneumoperitoneum on supine films should lead to more accurate diagnosis of this condition.

Falciform ligament sign is characteristic to which disease?

5a72329e2dc08e987e000006_005

Stress responses in alfalfa (Medicago sativa L.) 11. Molecular cloning and expression of alfalfa isoflavone reductase, a key enzyme of isoflavonoid phytoalexin biosynthesis. The major phytoalexin in alfalfa is the isoflavonoid (-)-medicarpin (or 6aR, 11aR)-medicarpin. Isoflavone reductase (IFR), the penultimate enzyme in medicarpin biosynthesis, is responsible for introducing one of two chiral centers in (-)-medicarpin. We have isolated a 1.18 kb alfalfa cDNA (pIFRalf1) which, when expressed in Escherichia coli, converts 2'-hydroxyformononetin stereospecifically to (3R)-vestitone, as would be predicted for IFR from alfalfa. The calculated molecular weight of the polypeptide (35,400) derived from the 954 bp open reading frame compares favorably to estimated Mrs determined for IFR proteins purified from other legumes. The transcript (1.4 kb) is highly induced in elicited alfalfa cell cultures. The kinetics of induction are consistent with the appearance of IFR activity, the accumulation of medicarpin, and the observed induction of other enzymes in the pathway. Low levels of IFR transcripts were found in healthy plant parts (roots and nodules) which accumulate low levels of a medicarpin glucoside. IFR appears to be encoded by a single gene in alfalfa. The cloning of IFR opens up the possibility of genetic manipulation of phytoalexin biosynthesis in alfalfa by altering isoflavonoid stereochemistry.

Which is the major phytoalexin in alfalfa (Medicago sativa L.)?

5543829fed966d112c000009_009

Complete OATP1B1 and OATP1B3 deficiency causes human Rotor syndrome by interrupting conjugated bilirubin reuptake into the liver. Bilirubin, a breakdown product of heme, is normally glucuronidated and excreted by the liver into bile. Failure of this system can lead to a buildup of conjugated bilirubin in the blood, resulting in jaundice. The mechanistic basis of bilirubin excretion and hyperbilirubinemia syndromes is largely understood, but that of Rotor syndrome, an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by conjugated hyperbilirubinemia, coproporphyrinuria, and near-absent hepatic uptake of anionic diagnostics, has remained enigmatic. Here, we analyzed 8 Rotor-syndrome families and found that Rotor syndrome was linked to mutations predicted to cause complete and simultaneous deficiencies of the organic anion transporting polypeptides OATP1B1 and OATP1B3. These important detoxification-limiting proteins mediate uptake and clearance of countless drugs and drug conjugates across the sinusoidal hepatocyte membrane. OATP1B1 polymorphisms have previously been linked to drug hypersensitivities. Using mice deficient in Oatp1a/1b and in the multispecific sinusoidal export pump Abcc3, we found that Abcc3 secretes bilirubin conjugates into the blood, while Oatp1a/1b transporters mediate their hepatic reuptake. Transgenic expression of human OATP1B1 or OATP1B3 restored the function of this detoxification-enhancing liver-blood shuttle in Oatp1a/1b-deficient mice. Within liver lobules, this shuttle may allow flexible transfer of bilirubin conjugates (and probably also drug conjugates) formed in upstream hepatocytes to downstream hepatocytes, thereby preventing local saturation of further detoxification processes and hepatocyte toxic injury. Thus, disruption of hepatic reuptake of bilirubin glucuronide due to coexisting OATP1B1 and OATP1B3 deficiencies explains Rotor-type hyperbilirubinemia. Moreover, OATP1B1 and OATP1B3 null mutations may confer substantial drug toxicity risks.

Which syndrome is associated with OATP1B1 and OATP1B3 deficiency?

571e40a8bb137a4b0c000009_005

Hematopathologic and cytogenetic findings in imatinib mesylate treated chronic myelogenous leukemia patients: 2.5 years' experience. BACKGROUND/AIM: Imatinib mesylate, a tyrosine kinase inhibitor with specific activity against the breakpoint cluster region--Abelson murine leukemia (BCR-ABL) tyrosine kinase has been developed for treatment of chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML). Its hematologic and cytogenetic effects have been evaluated in a series of clinical trials. The aim of this study was to report hematologic and cytogenetic response in CML patients during the treatment with imatinib mesylate. METHODS: A total of 21 patients were treated and observed from July 2006 to December 2008. The median time from CML diagnosis was no more than 12 months, so all the patients received previous treatment with hydroxyurea for which the median time was 3 months. The patients received imatinib mesylate in an effective oral dose of 400 to 800 mg daily, which was followed with peripheral blood counts, bone marrow examination, and cytogenetic studies at 6, 12, 18 and 24 months. RESULTS: Complete hematologic responses were reported for 19 (90.48%) of 21 patients studied. Among 19 patients who had a response, 16 (86%) did so within 3 months. The best cytogenetic response rate at any time during the study treatment with imatinib mesylate, among 14 patients in which cytogenetic response evaluated was: complete cytogenetic response in 7 (50%) patients, partial cytogenetic response in 6 (42.9%) patients and minor cytogenetic response in 1 (7.1%) patient. No patients had progressed to accelerated or blastic phase. The most frequent adverse effects that seemed to be related to treatment with imatinib mesylate were edema and musculoskeletal pain; overall, most were mild. Only one patient discontinued treatment because of hematologic toxic effects. CONCLUSION: The results obtained in this study confirm that imatinib mesylate induces a complete hematological and cytogenetic response in a high percentage of patients with chronic-phase CML.

What tyrosine kinase, involved in a Philadelphia- chromosome positive chronic myelogenous leukemia, is the target of Imatinib (Gleevec)?

5324a8ac9b2d7acc7e000018_046

Breathing dysfunction in Rett syndrome: understanding epigenetic regulation of the respiratory network. Severely arrhythmic breathing is a hallmark of Rett syndrome (RTT) and profoundly affects quality of life for patients and their families. The last decade has seen the identification of the disease-causing gene, methyl-CpG-binding protein 2 (Mecp2) and the development of mouse models that phenocopy many aspects of the human syndrome, including breathing dysfunction. Recent studies have begun to characterize the breathing phenotype of Mecp2 mutant mice and to define underlying electrophysiological and neurochemical deficits. The picture that is emerging is one of defects in synaptic transmission throughout the brainstem respiratory network associated with abnormal expression in several neurochemical signaling systems, including brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF), biogenic amines and gamma-amino-butyric acid (GABA). Based on such findings, potential therapeutic strategies aimed at improving breathing by targeting deficits in neurochemical signaling are being explored. This review details our current understanding of respiratory dysfunction and underlying mechanisms in RTT with a particular focus on insights gained from mouse models.

Which methyl-CpG-binding protein when mutant becomes the hallmark for Rett syndrome?

534ebb59288f4dae47000004_002

Small-molecule antagonists of the orexin receptors. The orexin-1 and orexin-2 receptors are two G protein-coupled receptors that bind the neuropeptides orexin-A and orexin-B. Dual antagonism of the receptors by small molecules is clinically efficacious in the treatment of insomnia, where the most advanced molecule suvorexant has recently been approved. The scope of this article is to review the small molecule orexin receptor antagonist patent literature between January 2012 and January 2014.

What molecule is targeted by suvorexant?

56c1f003ef6e394741000039_013

Clinical scores for the identification of stroke and transient ischaemic attack in the emergency department: a cross-sectional study. OBJECTIVE: To compare the sensitivity and specificity of bedside diagnostic stroke scales in patients with suspected stroke. DESIGN: A cross-sectional observational study of patients with suspected acute stroke in an emergency department in a UK hospital. DIAGNOSTIC SCALES: The results of an assessment with the Recognition of Stroke in the Emergency Room (ROSIER) scale, the Face Arm Speech Test (FAST) scale and the diagnosis of definite or probable stroke by an emergency department. Reference standard A consensus diagnosis of stroke or transient ischaemic attack (TIA) made after discussion by an expert panel (members included stroke physicians, neurologists and neuroradiologists), who had access to the clinical findings, imaging and subsequent clinical course, but were blinded to the results of the assessments by emergency-department staff. RESULTS: In 356 patients with complete data, the expert panel assigned a diagnosis of acute stroke or TIA in 246 and a diagnosis of mimic in 110. The ROSIER had a sensitivity of 83% (95% CI 78 to 87) and specificity of 44% (95% CI 34 to 53), and the FAST had a sensitivity of 81% (95% CI 76 to 86) and a specificity of 39% (95% CI 30 to 48). There was no detectable difference between the scales in sensitivity (p = 0.39) or specificity (p = 0.30). CONCLUSIONS: The simpler FAST scale could replace the more complex ROSIER for the initial assessment of patients with suspected acute stroke in the emergency department.

ROSIER scale is used for which disorder?

551fd9c06b348bb82c000012_031

Phosphorylation of Noxo1 at threonine 341 regulates its interaction with Noxa1 and the superoxide-producing activity of Nox1. UNLABELLED: Superoxide production by Nox1, a member of the Nox family NAPDH oxidases, requires expression of its regulatory soluble proteins Noxo1 (Nox organizer 1) and Noxa1 (Nox activator 1) and is markedly enhanced upon cell stimulation with phorbol 12-myristate 13-acetate (PMA), a potent activator of protein kinase C (PKC). The mechanism underlying PMA-induced enhancement of Nox1 activity, however, remains to be elucidated. Here we show that, in response to PMA, Noxo1 undergoes phosphorylation at multiple sites, which is inhibited by the PKC inhibitor GF109203X. Among them, Thr341 in Noxo1 is directly phosphorylated by PKC in vitro, and alanine substitution for this residue reduces not only PMA-induced Noxo1 phosphorylation but also PMA-dependent enhancement of Nox1-catalyzed superoxide production. Phosphorylation of Thr341 allows Noxo1 to sufficiently interact with Noxa1, an interaction that participates in Nox1 activation. Thus phosphorylation of Noxo1 at Thr341 appears to play a crucial role in PMA-elicited activation of Nox1, providing a molecular link between PKC-mediated signal transduction and Nox1-catalyzed superoxide production. Furthermore, Ser154 in Noxo1 is phosphorylated in both resting and PMA-stimulated cells, and the phosphorylation probably participates in a PMA-independent constitutive activity of Nox1. Ser154 may also be involved in protein kinase A (PKA) mediated regulation of Nox1; this serine is the major residue that is phosphorylated by PKA in vitro. Thus phosphorylation of Noxo1 at Thr341 and at Ser154 appears to regulate Nox1 activity in different manners. STRUCTURED DIGITAL ABSTRACT: Noxo1 binds to p22phox by pull down (1, 2, 3) Noxo1 binds to Noxo1 by pull down (View interaction) Noxa1 binds to Noxo1 by pull down (1, 2, 3, 4, 5).

Which NADPH oxidase family member requires interaction with NOXO1 for function?

58a5a51060087bc10a000021_004

Assessment of the hemispheric lateralization of grapheme-color synesthesia with Stroop-type tests. Grapheme-color synesthesia, the idiosyncratic, arbitrary association of colors to letters or numbers, develops in childhood once reading is mastered. Because language processing is strongly left-lateralized in most individuals, we hypothesized that grapheme-color synesthesia could be left-lateralized as well. We used synesthetic versions of the Stroop test with colored letters and numbers presented either in the right or the left visual field of thirty-four synesthetes. Interference by synesthetic colors was stronger for stimuli in the right hemifield (first experiment, color naming task). Synesthetes were also faster in the right hemifield when naming the synesthetic color of graphemes (second experiment). Overall, the lateralization effect was 7 ms (the 95% confidence interval was [1.5 12] ms), a delay compatible with an additional callosal transfer for stimuli presented in the left hemifield. Though weak, this effect suggests that the association of synesthetic colors to graphemes may be preferentially processed in the left hemisphere. We speculate that this left-lateralization could be a landmark of synesthetic grapheme-color associations, if not found for color associations learnt by non-synesthete adults.

Which test is used to diagnose colour synesthesia?

5a3e8683966455904c000007_002

Ligand-stimulated downregulation of the alpha interferon receptor: role of protein kinase D2. Alpha interferon (IFN-α) controls homeostasis of hematopoietic stem cells, regulates antiviral resistance, inhibits angiogenesis, and suppresses tumor growth. This cytokine is often used to treat cancers and chronic viral infections. The extent of cellular responses to IFN-α is limited by the IFN-induced ubiquitination and degradation of the IFN-α/β receptor chain 1 (IFNAR1) chain of the cognate receptor. IFNAR1 ubiquitination is facilitated by the βTrcp E3 ubiquitin ligase that is recruited to IFNAR1 upon its degron phosphorylation, which is induced by the ligand. Here we report identification of protein kinase D2 (PKD2) as a kinase that mediates the ligand-inducible phosphorylation of IFNAR1 degron and enables binding of βTrcp to the receptor. Treatment of cells with IFN-α induces catalytic activity of PKD2 and stimulates its interaction with IFNAR1. Expression and kinase activity of PKD2 are required for the ligand-inducible stimulation of IFNAR1 ubiquitination and endocytosis and for accelerated proteolytic turnover of IFNAR1. Furthermore, inhibition or knockdown of PKD2 robustly augments intracellular signaling induced by IFN-α and increases the efficacy of its antiviral effects. The mechanisms of the ligand-inducible elimination of IFNAR1 are discussed, along with the potential medical significance of this regulation.

Which E3 ubiquitin ligase mediates the ubiquitination and degradation of the interferon receptor type 1 (IFNAR1)?

55192892622b194345000012_008

The pattern and evolution of looped gene bendability. Gene looping, defined as the physical interaction between the promoter and terminator regions of a RNA polymerase II-transcribed gene, is widespread in yeast and mammalian cells. Gene looping has been shown to play important roles in transcription. Gene-loop formation is dependent on regulatory proteins localized at the 5' and 3' ends of genes, such as TFIIB. However, whether other factors contribute to gene looping remains to be elucidated. Here, we investigated the contribution of intrinsic DNA and chromatin structures to gene looping. We found that Saccharomyces cerevisiae looped genes show high DNA bendability around middle and 3/4 regions in open reading frames (ORFs). This bendability pattern is conserved between yeast species, whereas the position of bendability peak varies substantially among species. Looped genes in human cells also show high DNA bendability. Nucleosome positioning around looped ORF middle regions is unstable. We also present evidence indicating that this unstable nucleosome positioning is involved in gene looping. These results suggest a mechanism by which DNA bendability and unstable nucleosome positioning could assist in the formation of gene loops.

Which protein mediates gene loop formation in the yeast S. cerevisiae?

58adc1ff9ef3c34033000006_015

Flumazenil reversal of psychomotor impairment due to midazolam or diazepam for conscious sedation for upper endoscopy. BACKGROUND: Flumazenil is a competitive benzodiazepine antagonist that acts to reverse their sedative and hypnotic effects. It is indicated in the management of benzodiazepine overdose, but its role in the routine reversal of endoscopic conscious sedation has not been defined. METHODS: Patients undergoing diagnostic upper endoscopy who received sedation with either diazepam or midazolam alone were given flumazenil 0.2 mg incrementally immediately following the procedure until awake. They were then asked to repeat three psychomotor tests measuring cognitive and motor skills, with their baseline scores compared with postprocedure scores over a 3-hour period. RESULTS: Full psychomotor function was restored to baseline values within 30 minutes after flumazenil in 79% of patients, with no differences in the reversal of psychomotor skill impairment observed between diazepam and midazolam sedation. There was no evidence of rebound sedation seen for up to 3 hours. No significant anterograde amnesia was evident in 78% of individuals. CONCLUSIONS: These results demonstrate that flumazenil's effects on reversing psychomotor impairment are similar when midazolam or diazepam are used for conscious sedation. However, the potential usefulness of routine flumazenil reversal of conscious sedation will require further evaluation of specific psychomotor performance skills (such as driving a car) before we lift the admonition against leaving the endoscopic suite unattended, driving a vehicle, or operating complicated machinery for several hours.

Which drug should be used as an antidote in benzodiazepine overdose?

514a0a57d24251bc05000051_013

Jellyfish collagen stimulates production of TNF-α and IL-6 by J774.1 cells through activation of NF-κB and JNK via TLR4 signaling pathway. We previously reported that jellyfish collagen stimulates both the acquired and innate immune responses. In the acquired immune response, jellyfish collagen enhanced immunoglobulin production by lymphocytes in vitro and in vivo. Meanwhile, in the innate immune response jellyfish collagen promoted cytokine production and phagocytotic activity of macrophages. The facts that jellyfish collagen plays several potential roles in stimulating cytokine production by macrophages have further attracted us to uncover its mechanisms. We herein describe that the cytokine production-stimulating activity of jellyfish collagen was canceled by a Toll-like receptor 4 (TLR4) inhibitor. Moreover, jellyfish collagen stimulated phosphorylation of inhibitor of κBα (IκBα), promoted the translocation of nucleus factor-κB (NF-κB), and activated c-Jun N-terminal kinase (JNK). A JNK inhibitor also abrogated the cytokine production-stimulating activity of jellyfish collagen. These results suggest that jellyfish collagen may facilitate cytokine production by macrophages through activation of NF-κB and JNK via the TLR4 signaling pathways.

Which MAP kinase phosphorylates the transcription factor c-jun?

5518e7da622b194345000004_005

Dasatinib treatment for imatinib resistant or intolerant patients with chronic myeloid leukaemia. Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) is a genetically associated malignancy of haematopoietic stem cells, characterized by a t(9;22) translocation that forms the Philadelphia chromosome and creates a novel fusion gene, BCR-ABL. Treatment with molecular-targeted therapy is usually initiated with imatinib, an inhibitor of BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase. Imatinib resistance is, however, observed in some CML patients, especially in those with advanced disease. Through computerized literature searches, a systematic analysis was conducted to examine the efficacy and benefits of dasatinib therapy for imatinib resistant or intolerant CML patients in the chronic phase (CP), accelerated phase (AP) and fatal blast crisis phase (BC). In terms of major haematological and cytogenetic responses, this meta-analysis showed no significant differences in dasatinib treatment between myeloid BC-CML and lymphoid BC-CML patients with imatinib resistance or intolerance. Dasatinib therapy was, however, significantly more effective in improving major haematological and cytogenetic responses for CP-CML patients than for AP-CML patients with imatinib resistance or intolerance.

What tyrosine kinase, involved in a Philadelphia- chromosome positive chronic myelogenous leukemia, is the target of Imatinib (Gleevec)?

5324a8ac9b2d7acc7e000018_028

Immunotherapy for Gastric Cancer: A Focus on Immune Checkpoints. Gastric cancer (GC) is a major world-wide health problem. It is the third leading cause of death from cancer. The treatment of advanced GC by chemotherapy has limited efficacy. The addition of some targeted therapies like trastuzumab and ramucirumab have added a modest benefit, but only in human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (ERBB2 or HER2)-positive patients and in the second-line setting, respectively. The development of new and effective therapeutic strategies must consider the genetic complexity and heterogeneity of GC; prognostic and predictive biomarkers should be identified for clinical implementation. Immune deregulation has been associated with some GC subtypes, especially those that are associated with virus infection and those with a high mutational rate. Different mechanisms to prevent immunologic escape have been characterized during the last years; in particular the PD-1/PD-L1 inhibitors pembrolizumab, avelumab, durvalumab and atezolizumab have shown early sign of efficacy. Therefore, immunotherapeutic strategies may provide new opportunities for GC patients. This review will discuss (1) the main characteristics of GC treatment, (2) the immune response in GC, and (3) the current status of immune-related strategies in clinical development in GC patients, focusing on immune checkpoints therapies.

What molecule is targeted by Avelumab?

5884c72fe56acf517600000f_021

Reversed clinical phenotype due to a microduplication of Sotos syndrome region detected by array CGH: microcephaly, developmental delay and delayed bone age. Haploinsufficiency of the NSD1 gene due to 5q35 microdeletions or intragenic mutations is the major cause of Sotos syndrome characterized by generalized overgrowth, large hands and feet with advanced bone age, craniofacial dysmorphic features, learning disability, and possible susceptibility to tumors. Here, we report on a 14-month-old boy with a reverse phenotype of Sotos syndrome due to the reciprocal duplication of the 5q35.3 region, including the NSD1 gene, detected by array CGH. The phenotype includes delayed bone age, microcephaly, seizures, and failure to thrive. Our case suggests that the gene dosage effect of the NSD1 gene is the likely cause for the reversed phenotype of Sotos syndrome in this patient.

Which gene is responsible for the development of Sotos syndrome?

571f33bd0fd6f91b68000003_011

S-adenosylmethionine inhibits lipopolysaccharide-induced gene expression via modulation of histone methylation. UNLABELLED: We previously showed that S-adenosylmethionine (SAMe) and its metabolite methylthioadenosine (MTA) blocked lipopolysaccharide (LPS)-induced tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNFalpha) expression in RAW (murine macrophage cell line) and Kupffer cells at the transcriptional level without affecting nuclear factor kappa B nuclear binding. However, the exact molecular mechanism or mechanisms of the inhibitory effect were unclear. While SAMe is a methyl donor, MTA is an inhibitor of methylation. SAMe can convert to MTA spontaneously, so the effect of exogenous SAMe may be mediated by MTA. The aim of our current work is to examine whether the mechanism of SAMe and MTA's inhibitory effect on proinflammatory mediators might involve modulation of histone methylation. In RAW cells, we found that LPS induced TNFalpha expression by both transcriptional and posttranscriptional mechanisms. SAMe and MTA treatment inhibited the LPS-induced increase in gene transcription. Using the chromatin immunoprecipitation assay, we found that LPS increased the binding of trimethylated histone 3 lysine 4 (H3K4) to the TNFalpha promoter, and this was completely blocked by either SAMe or MTA pretreatment. Similar effects were observed with LPS-mediated induction of inducible nitric oxide synthase (iNOS). LPS increased the binding of histone methyltransferases Set1 and myeloid/lymphoid leukemia to these promoters, which was unaffected by SAMe or MTA. The effects of MTA in RAW cells were confirmed in vivo in LPS-treated mice. Exogenous SAMe is unstable and converts spontaneously to MTA, which is stable and cell-permeant. Treatment with SAMe doubled intracellular MTA and S-adenosylhomocysteine (SAH) levels. SAH also inhibited H3K4 binding to TNFalpha and iNOS promoters. CONCLUSION: The mechanism of SAMe's pharmacologic inhibitory effect on proinflammatory mediators is mainly mediated by MTA and SAH at the level of histone methylation.

Which is the methyl donor of histone methyltransferases?

516e7fda298dcd4e51000081_003

Successful acne management in Apert syndrome twins. Apert syndrome, or acrocephalosyndactyly, is characterized by craniosynostosis and early epiphyseal closure resulting in various deformities of the skull, hands, and feet. Typically a sporadic condition, autosomal dominant inheritance with complete penetrance has been known to occur. Most adolescents with the disorder are prone to the development of severe pustular facial and truncal acne, with extension to the upper arms and forearm. We report twin brothers with Apert syndrome who, after 2 years of standard management by their pediatrician, were referred for management of complicated acne. In our patients there were a constellation of findings consistent with the disorder and, of importance to this report, significant dermatological manifestations. On presentation, each brother was found to have acne vulgaris of a different stage. Our patients were refractory to conventional treatment for acne but one required and had a significant response to isotretinoin. The risk/benefit ratio in treating acne lesions with isotretinoin in a teenager with Apert syndrome is reviewed.

What is the inheritance pattern of Apert syndrome?

52c7275103868f1b0600001c_003

The transcription factor FOXO3a is a crucial cellular target of gefitinib (Iressa) in breast cancer cells. Gefitinib is a specific inhibitor of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) that causes growth delay in cancer cell lines and human tumor xenografts expressing high levels of EGFR. An understanding of the downstream cellular targets of gefitinib will allow the discovery of biomarkers for predicting outcomes and monitoring anti-EGFR therapies and provide information for key targets for therapeutic intervention. In this study, we investigated the role of FOXO3a in gefitinib action and resistance. Using two gefitinib-sensitive (i.e., BT474 and SKBR3) as well as three other resistant breast carcinoma cell lines (i.e., MCF-7, MDA-MB-231, and MDA-MB-453), we showed that gefitinib targets the transcription factor FOXO3a to mediate cell cycle arrest and cell death in sensitive breast cancer cells. In the sensitive cells, gefitinib treatment causes cell cycle arrest predominantly at the G(0)-G(1) phase and apoptosis, which is associated with FOXO3a dephosphorylation at Akt sites and nuclear translocation, whereas in the resistant cells, FOXO3a stays phosphorylated and remains in the cytoplasm. The nuclear accumulation of FOXO3a in response to gefitinib was confirmed in tumor tissue sections from breast cancer patients presurgically treated with gefitinib as monotherapy. We also showed that knockdown of FOXO3a expression using small interfering RNA (siRNA) can rescue sensitive BT474 cells from gefitinib-induced cell-proliferative arrest, whereas reintroduction of active FOXO3a in resistant MDA-MB-231 cells can at least partially restore cell-proliferative arrest and sensitivity to gefitinib. These results suggest that the FOXO3a dephosphorylation and nuclear localization have a direct role in mediating the gefitinib-induced proliferative arrest and in determining sensitivity to gefitinib.

Which is the cellular target of gefitinib?

53188480b166e2b806000018_002

Modified Mallampati Score Improves Specificity of STOP-BANG Questionnaire for Obstructive Sleep Apnea. BACKGROUND: An accurate, clinical screening tool for obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) that identifies patients for further diagnostic testing would assist in the diagnosis of this comorbidity. One example, the STOP-BANG questionnaire (SBQ), has been validated as a screening tool with high sensitivity. However, its specificity may result in a high false-positive rate. The aim of this study to determine if addition of the Modified Mallampati score to the SBQ improves its specificity. METHODS: The authors studied 162 patients referred to the Sleep Disorders Clinic at Yedikule Chest Disease Education and Research Hospital. All patients were prospectively screened for risk of OSA using the SBQ, their oral anatomy was assessed by Modified Mallampati scoring, and sleep quality characterized by polysomnography. Polysomnography results were reviewed when available and the predictive performance of the SBQ and the modified SBQ scoring models were compared. RESULTS: In the authors' study an SBQ score > 3 yielded sensitivities of 0.85, 0.86, and 0.91 for Apnea-Hypopnea Index (AHI) > 5/h, AHI > 15/h, and AHI > 30/h, respectively, and specificities of 0.09, 0.10, and 0.18. The modified SBQ with a cutoff of > 4 (>3) points for AHI levels of >5, >15, and >30 yielded respective sensitivities of 0.84, 0.86, and 0.91 and specificities of 0.25, 0.26, and 0.27. CONCLUSIONS: The author's results from indicated the modified SBQ with a cutoff of >3 points in this study was more specific than the standard SBQ but no less sensitive, and may be used in identifying OSA patients for further diagnostic evaluation or avoiding unnecessary testing.

Which disease risk can be estimated with the Stop-Bang questionnaire?

5a742d620384be9551000002_005

Multiple microRNAs regulate human FOXP2 gene expression by targeting sequences in its 3' untranslated region. BACKGROUND: Mutations in the human FOXP2 gene cause speech and language impairments. The FOXP2 protein is a transcription factor that regulates the expression of many downstream genes, which may have important roles in nervous system development and function. An adequate amount of functional FOXP2 protein is thought to be critical for the proper development of the neural circuitry underlying speech and language. However, how FOXP2 gene expression is regulated is not clearly understood. The FOXP2 mRNA has an approximately 4-kb-long 3' untranslated region (3' UTR), twice as long as its protein coding region, indicating that FOXP2 can be regulated by microRNAs (miRNAs). FINDINGS: We identified multiple miRNAs that regulate the expression of the human FOXP2 gene using sequence analysis and in vitro cell systems. Focusing on let-7a, miR-9, and miR-129-5p, three brain-enriched miRNAs, we show that these miRNAs regulate human FOXP2 expression in a dosage-dependent manner and target specific sequences in the FOXP2 3' UTR. We further show that these three miRNAs are expressed in the cerebellum of the human fetal brain, where FOXP2 is known to be expressed. CONCLUSIONS: Our results reveal novel regulatory functions of the human FOXP2 3' UTR sequence and regulatory interactions between multiple miRNAs and the human FOXP2 gene. The expression of let-7a, miR-9, and miR-129-5p in the human fetal cerebellum is consistent with their roles in regulating FOXP2 expression during early cerebellum development. These results suggest that various genetic and environmental factors may contribute to speech and language development and related neural developmental disorders via the miRNA-FOXP2 regulatory network.

Which gene is responsible for proper speech development?

5ace12be0340b9f058000007_012

The incidence of cystic fibrosis in Caucasian populations. Estimates of the newborn frequency of cystic fibrosis in different Caucasian groups range from 4 times more to 40 times less common than the generally accepted figure of 1:2000. Current meconium screening trials which may be effective in populations with the incidence equal to or greater than 1:2000, may be useful for populations with an incidence as low as 1:7000 only after maximum improvement of the methods. Once the true incidence or the variable incidence is proven for Caucasian populations, screening trails in Negro, Oriental and Indian populations will be required.

What is the incidence of cystic fibrosis in the caucasian population?

56c3320a50c68dd416000008_002

Malaria Policy Advisory Committee to the WHO: conclusions and recommendations of March 2013 meeting. The Malaria Policy Advisory Committee to the World Health Organization met in Geneva, Switzerland from 13 to 15 March, 2013. This article provides a summary of the discussions, conclusions and recommendations from that meeting.Meeting sessions included: a review of the efficacy of artemisinin-based combination therapy in Guyana and Suriname; the outcomes from a consultation on non-malaria febrile illness; the outcomes from the second meeting of the Evidence Review Group on malaria burden estimation; an update on the review of the WHO Guidelines for the Treatment of Malaria; an update regarding progress on the constitution of the vector control Technical Expert Group; updates on the RTS, S/AS01 vaccine and the malaria vaccine technology roadmap; financing and resource allocation for malaria control; malaria surveillance and the need for a surveillance, monitoring and evaluation Technical Expert Group; criteria and classification related to malaria elimination; the next meeting of the Evidence Review Group on Intermittent Preventive Treatment in pregnancy; an update on the soon-to-be launched Elimination Scenario Planning Tool; and an update on the process for the Global Technical Strategy for Malaria Control and Elimination (2016-2025).Policy statements, position statements, and guidelines that arise from the MPAC meeting conclusions and recommendations will be formally issued and disseminated to World Health Organization Member States by the World Health Organization Global Malaria Programme.

RTS S AS01 vaccine was developed to prevent which disease?

56bc77a3ac7ad10019000015_028

Pre-pregnancy restless legs syndrome (Willis-Ekbom Disease) is associated with perinatal depression. OBJECTIVES: Both restless legs syndrome ([RLS], also known as Willis-Ekbom Disease [WED]) and depression are common during pregnancy. However, no prior studies have assessed if pregnant women with RLS have an elevated risk of depression during and/or after pregnancy. METHODS: 1,428 women who were pregnant in gestational week 16-17 were asked to participate in a longitudinal survey. They were followed by web-based questionnaires in gestational week 17 and 32, and 6 weeks after delivery. Data were also retrieved from prenatal and birth records. Two different sets of criteria were used to examine the prevalence of RLS in the cohort (International Restless Legs Syndrome Society Group standard criteria and the later developed CH-RLSQ11 questionnaire). The latter questionnaire attempts to exclude those with common "mimics" of RLS. RESULTS: Adjusted odds ratio for depression in gestational week 17, 32, and postpartum week 6 in relation to pre-pregnancy RLS onset and moderate to severe symptom severity were 4.74 (2.30 - 9.76), 3.67 (1.85 - 7.28), and 2.58 (1.28 - 5.21), respectively. No significant associations were seen in pregnant women with de novo RLS during pregnancy. When using the standard diagnostic RLS criteria and frequency of symptoms more than 2-3 days per week, the prevalence of RLS was 12.3%. With the CH-RLSQ11 questionnaire and the same threshold for frequency of symptoms the prevalence was 6.5%. CONCLUSION: Women with RLS onset before pregnancy with moderate or severe symptoms had an increased risk of both antenatal and postnatal depression. The self-reported prevalence of RLS during pregnancy is lower when a questionnaire dealing with "mimics" is used.

Willis-Ekbom disease is also known as?

5891f9e549702f2e01000002_020

Formulation and characterization of polymeric films containing combinations of antiretrovirals (ARVs) for HIV prevention. PURPOSE: To develop polymeric films containing dual combinations of anti-HIV drug candidate tenofovir, maraviroc and dapivirine for vaginal application as topical microbicides. METHODS: A solvent casting method was used to manufacture the films. Solid phase solubility was used to identify potential polymers for use in the film formulation. Physical and chemical properties (such as water content, puncture strength and in vitro release) and product stability were determined. The bioactivity of the film products against HIV was assessed using the TZM-bl assay and a cervical explant model. RESULTS: Polymers identified from the solid phase solubility study maintained tenofovir and maraviroc in an amorphous state and prevented drug crystallization. Three combination film products were developed using cellulose polymers and polyvinyl alcohol. The residual water content in all films was <10% (w/w). All films delivered the active agents with release of >50% of film drug content within 30 min. Stability testing confirmed that the combination film products were stable for 12 months at ambient temperature and 6 months under stressed conditions. Antiviral activity was confirmed in TZM-bl and cervical explant models. CONCLUSIONS: Polymeric films can be used as a stable dosage form for the delivery of antiretroviral combinations as microbicides.

Which infection can be prevented with Dapivirine?

5880b812c872c95565000006_006

Sudden unexpected death in epilepsy (SUDEP): development of a safety checklist. PURPOSE: The incidence of sudden death appears to be 20 times higher in patients with epilepsy compared with the general population. Epilepsy-related death, particularly sudden unexpected death in epilepsy (SUDEP), is still underestimated by healthcare professionals and this may reflect the mistaken belief that epilepsy is a benign condition. The risk of death associated with epilepsy appeared rarely to have been discussed with patients or their families. It appears the decision to discuss SUDEP and also to peg SUDEP risk is arbitrary and clinical. Unfortunately there is no structured evidenced mechanism at present to represent person centered risk of SUDEP and there is currently no easy manner or template to have this discussion with the family and the patient. METHODS: We conducted a detailed literature review in Medline, Embase and Psychinfo databases to extract the common risk factors as evidenced from literature till date. Research into risk factors has identified a number of risk factors for SUDEP, some of which are potentially modifiable. RESULTS: Based on the literature review, we believe that the ascertained risk factors could be employed in clinical practice as a checklist to reduce an individual patient's risk of SUDEP. The SUDEP safety checklist may be of practical use in reducing risks in some individuals and is definitely of use in helping communication. CONCLUSIONS: An evidence based checklist identifying the major risk factors can help both clinicians and patients to focus on minimizing certain risk factors and promote safety by focusing on the modifiable factors and guide treatment. It can be a tool to open a person centered discussion with patients and to outline how individual behaviors could impact on risk.

What condition is usually represented by the acronym SUDEP?

58dbb8968acda3452900001b_007