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Universal, class-specific and drug-specific reversal agents for the new oral anticoagulants. Although there is controversy about the absolute need for a reversal agent for the new direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs), the absence of such an agent is a barrier to more widespread use of these agents. For the management of major life-threatening bleeding with the DOACs, most authorities recommend the use of four factor prothrombin complex concentrates, although the evidence to support their use in terms of improving outcomes is meager. At the present time, there are three antidotes in development and poised to enter the market. Idarucizumab is a drug-specific antidote targeted to reverse the direct thrombin inhibitor, dabigatran. Andexanet alfa is a class-specific antidote targeted to reverse the oral direct factor Xa inhibitors as well as the indirect inhibitor, enoxaparin. Ciraparantag is a universal antidote targeted to reverse the direct thrombin and factor Xa inhibitors as well as the indirect inhibitor, enoxaparin.
Andexanet Alfa is an antidote of which clotting factor inhibitors?
5880b073c872c95565000003_001
{ "answer_start": [ 815 ], "text": [ "factor Xa" ] }
Inhibition of sPLA2 and endothelial function: a substudy of the SPIDER-PCI trial. BACKGROUND: Inflammation plays an important role in the pathophysiology of atherosclerosis and endothelial dysfunction, and occurs after percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). We evaluated whether endothelial function is attenuated after PCI and if inhibition of secretory phospholipase A2 (sPLA2) activity augments endothelial function and coronary flow reserve (CFR) in these patients. METHODS: In the sPLA2 Inhibition to Decrease Enzyme Release After Percutaneous Coronary Intervention (SPIDER-PCI) study, patients undergoing elective PCI were randomized to receive Varespladib (Anthera Pharmaceuticals Inc, San Mateo, CA), an inhibitor of sPLA2, or placebo 3-5 days prior to PCI and for 5 days after PCI. In this substudy, endothelial function was assessed in 31 patients by flow-mediated dilation (FMD) before treatment and on the day after PCI, while taking study medication. During the PCI procedure, CFR was assessed using a Doppler guide wire. RESULTS: Baseline and procedural characteristics were comparable in both groups and sPLA2 activity was similar at baseline. After PCI, sPLA2 activity decreased only in the Varespladib group (2.9 ± 0.9 to 0.5 ± 0.4 ng/mL), and high-sensitivity C-reactive protein (hsCRP) increased by more than 100% in both groups. FMD at baseline was 3.66 ± 2.45% (Varespladib) and 3.37 ± 1.73% (placebo) with nonsignificant increase in both groups after PCI. The effect of Varespladib on FMD, adjusted for pre-PCI FMD by linear regression, was -1.16 ± 1.68%; P = 0.5. CFR was 2.45 ± 0.66 and 2.77 ± 0.85 in the Varespladib and placebo groups, respectively (P = 0.36). CONCLUSIONS: Systemic endothelial function is not reduced after elective PCI despite eliciting acute inflammatory response. Acute inhibition of sPLA2 activity with Varespladib does not affect endothelial or microvascular function after PCI.
Which enzyme is inhibited by Varespladib?
56c1f00def6e39474100003f_002
{ "answer_start": [ 348 ], "text": [ "secretory phospholipase A2" ] }
Eliglustat compared with imiglucerase in patients with Gaucher's disease type 1 stabilised on enzyme replacement therapy: a phase 3, randomised, open-label, non-inferiority trial. BACKGROUND: The mainstay of treatment for Gaucher's disease type 1 is alternate-week infusion of enzyme replacement therapy (ERT). We investigated whether patients stable on such treatment would remain so after switching to oral eliglustat, a selective inhibitor of glucosylceramide synthase. METHODS: In this phase 3, randomised, multinational, open-label, non-inferiority trial, we enrolled adults (aged > 18 years) who had received ERT for 3 years or more for Gaucher's disease. Patients were randomly allocated 2:1 at 39 clinics (stratified by ERT dose; block sizes of four; computer-generated centrally) to receive either oral eliglustat or imiglucerase infusions for 12 months. Participants and investigators were aware of treatment assignment, but the central reader who assessed organ volumes was masked. The composite primary efficacy endpoint was percentage of patients whose haematological variables and organ volumes remained stable for 12 months (ie, haemoglobin decrease not more than 15 g/L, platelet count decrease not more than 25%, spleen volume increase not more than 25%, and liver volume increase not more than 20%, in multiples of normal from baseline). The non-inferiority margin was 25% for eliglustat relative to imiglucerase, assessed in all patients who completed 12 months of treatment. This trial is registered with ClinicalTrials.gov, number NCT00943111, and EudraCT, number 2008-005223-28. FINDINGS: Between Sept 15, 2009, and Nov 9, 2011, we randomly allocated 106 (66%) patients to eliglustat and 54 (34%) to imiglucerase. In the per-protocol population, 84 (85%) of 99 patients who completed eliglustat treatment and 44 (94%) of 47 patients who completed imiglucerase treatment met the composite primary endpoint (between-group difference -8·8%; 95% CI -17·6 to 4·2). The lower bound of the 95% CI of -17·6% was within the prespecified threshold for non-inferiority. Dropouts occurred due to palpitations (one patient on eliglustat), myocardial infarction (one patient on eliglustat), and psychotic disorder (one patient on imiglucerase). No deaths occurred. 97 (92%) of 106 patients in the eliglustat group had treatment-emergent adverse events, as did 42 (79%) of 53 in the imiglucerase group (mostly mild or moderate in severity). INTERPRETATION: Oral eliglustat maintained haematological and organ volume stability in adults with Gaucher's disease type 1 already controlled by intravenous ERT and could be a useful therapeutic option. FUNDING: Genzyme, a Sanofi company.
Which disease is treated with Eliglustat?
56c1f009ef6e39474100003c_001
{ "answer_start": [ 55 ], "text": [ "Gaucher's disease type 1" ] }
In vivo anti-tumor activity of the PARP inhibitor niraparib in homologous recombination deficient and proficient ovarian carcinoma. OBJECTIVE: Poly(ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) inhibitors have yielded encouraging responses in high-grade serous ovarian carcinomas (HGSOCs), but the optimal treatment setting remains unknown. We assessed the effect of niraparib on HGSOC patient-derived xenograft (PDX) models as well as the relationship between certain markers of homologous recombination (HR) status, including BRCA1/2 mutations and formation of RAD51 foci after DNA damage, and response of these PDXs to niraparib in vivo. METHODS: Massively parallel sequencing was performed on HGSOCs to identify mutations contributing to HR deficiency. HR pathway integrity was assessed using fluorescence microscopy-based RAD51 focus formation assays. Effects of niraparib (MK-4827) on treatment-naïve PDX tumor growth as monotherapy, in combination with carboplatin/paclitaxel, and as maintenance therapy were assessed by transabdominal ultrasound. Niraparib responses were correlated with changes in levels of poly(ADP-ribose), PARP1, and repair proteins by western blotting. RESULTS: Five PDX models were evaluated in vivo. Tumor regressions were induced by single-agent niraparib in one of two PDX models with deleterious BRCA2 mutations and in a PDX with RAD51C promoter methylation. Diminished formation of RAD51 foci failed to predict response, but Artemis loss was associated with resistance. Niraparib generally failed to enhance responses to carboplatin/paclitaxel chemotherapy, but maintenance niraparib therapy delayed progression in a BRCA2-deficient PDX. CONCLUSIONS: Mutations in HR genes are neither necessary nor sufficient to predict response to niraparib. Assessment of repair status through multiple complementary assays is needed to guide PARP inhibitor therapy, design future clinical trials and identify ovarian cancer patients most likely to benefit from PARP inhibition.
Which enzyme is inhibited by niraparib?
5880be1dc872c95565000007_001
{ "answer_start": [ 143 ], "text": [ "Poly(ADP-ribose) polymerase" ] }
Nerve growth factor inhibition with tanezumab influences weight-bearing and subsequent cartilage damage in the rat medial meniscal tear model. OBJECTIVE: To investigate whether the effects of nerve growth factor (NGF) inhibition with tanezumab on rats with medial meniscal tear (MMT) effectively model rapidly progressive osteoarthritis (RPOA) observed in clinical trials. METHODS: Male Lewis rats underwent MMT surgery and were treated weekly with tanezumab (0.1, 1 or 10 mg/kg), isotype control or vehicle for 7, 14 or 28 days. Gait deficiency was measured to assess weight-bearing on the operated limb. Joint damage was assessed via histopathology. A second arm, delayed onset of treatment (starting 3-8 weeks after MMT surgery) was used to control for analgesia early in the disease process. A third arm, mid-tibial amputation, evaluated the dependency of the model on weight-bearing. RESULTS: Gait deficiency in untreated rats was present 3-7 days after MMT surgery, with a return to normal weight-bearing by days 14-28. Prophylactic treatment with tanezumab prevented gait deficiency and resulted in more severe cartilage damage. When onset of treatment with tanezumab was delayed to 3-8 weeks after MMT surgery, there was no increase in cartilage damage. Mid-tibial amputation completely prevented cartilage damage in untreated MMT rats. CONCLUSIONS: These data suggest that analgesia due to NGF inhibition during the acute injury phase is responsible for increased voluntary weight-bearing and subsequent cartilage damage in the rat MMT model. This model failed to replicate the hypotrophic bone response observed in tanezumab-treated patients with RPOA.
What is the target of tanezumab?
5890e163621ea6ff7e000004_002
{ "answer_start": [ 192 ], "text": [ "nerve growth factor" ] }
Post-surgical outcome for epilepsy associated with type I focal cortical dysplasia subtypes. Focal cortical dysplasias are a well-recognized cause of medically intractable seizures. The clinical relevance of certain subgroups of the International League Against Epilepsy (ILAE) classification scheme remains to be determined. The aim of the present work is to assess the effect of the focal cortical dysplasia type Ib and Ic histologic subtypes on surgical outcome with respect to seizure frequency. This study also provides an opportunity to compare the predictive value of the ILAE and Palmini et al classification schemes with regard to the type I focal cortical dysplasias. We retrospectively reviewed 91 focal cortical dysplasia patients (55% female; median age: 19 years (interquartile range 8-34); median seizure duration: 108 months (interquartile range 36-204)) with chronic epilepsy who underwent surgery. We compared the pathological subtypes, evaluating the patients' post-surgical outcome with respect to seizure frequency according to the Engel's classification and the ILAE outcome classification. Both the ILAE classification scheme and Palmini et al classification scheme were utilized to classify the histologic subtype. Using χ(2) and Fisher's exact tests, we compared the post-surgical outcomes among these groups. Of the 91 patients, there were 50 patients with ILAE focal cortical dysplasia type Ib, 41 with ILAE focal cortical dysplasia type Ic, 63 with Palmini et al focal cortical dysplasia type IA, and 28 with Palmini et al focal cortical dysplasia type IB. After surgery, 44 patients (48%) were seizure-free. Crude analysis revealed no significant difference between patients with subtypes of ILAE focal cortical dysplasia type I or Palmini et al focal cortical dysplasia type I concerning postoperative outcome according to the Engel and ILAE scoring systems on seizure frequency. Our findings revealed no significant difference concerning surgical outcome with respect to seizure frequency for the histologic subtypes of ILAE focal cortical dysplasia type I (Ib vs Ic) or Palmini et al focal cortical dysplasia type I (IA vs IB). In isolation, the histologic subtype of focal cortical dysplasia type I does not appear predictive of postoperative outcome.
Which disorder is rated by Palmini classification?
56c1f020ef6e394741000047_011
{ "answer_start": [ 651 ], "text": [ "focal cortical dysplasia" ] }
Hungarian Isradipine Study (HIS): long-term (3-year) effects on blood pressure and plasma lipids. These are the preliminary data of an open multicenter trial of antihypertensive treatment with isradipine as monotherapy (dose, 4.55 +/- 0.56 mg twice daily; n = 11) or isradipine (7.5 +/- 0.63 mg twice daily) in combination with bopindolol (1.16 +/- 0.12 mg once daily; n = 30) administered for 3 years to patients with essential hypertension (WHO classification I or II). Blood pressure was significantly decreased in both treatment groups and there was no indication of resistance to therapy. Plasma levels of total cholesterol and triglycerides were decreased by the end of the second year of treatment, and there was a tendency toward increase in plasma levels of high-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL2 or HDL3). The atherogenic index (ratio between total cholesterol and HDL2 plus HDL3) was also decreased. Blood glucose levels remained unchanged in both normoglycemic patients and those with non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM) during 3 years of therapy. It is concluded that isradipine is safe and effective when administered long-term in the treatment of hypertensive patients with either hyperlipidemia or NIDDM.
What is the indication for isradipine?
56c3184050c68dd416000003_003
{ "answer_start": [ 429 ], "text": [ "hypertension" ] }
Nonsense mutations of the ZFHX1B gene in two Japanese girls with Mowat-Wilson syndrome. Mowat-Wilson syndrome (MWS) is a multiple congenital anomaly-mental retardation complex caused by mutations in the Zinc Finger Homeobox 1 B gene (ZFHX1B). MWS has been reported in association with Hirschsprung disease (HSCR). MWS is sometimes difficult to diagnose clinically, especially when HSCR is absent. Thus, it is necessary to detect gene abnormalities at the molecular level. Here we report two Japanese girls with MWS, who showed a distinct facial phenotype, severe intellectual disability and epileptic seizures. Major congenital anomalies of the patients were very different. Patient 1 suffered from severe congenital heart disease, but did not show apparent HSCR. Patient 2 suffered from typical HSCR and underwent surgical treatment, but did not have congenital heart disease. According to the gene analysis using white blood cells, they had nonsense mutations in ZFHX1B, R695X and Q433X, respectively. In conclusion, molecular genetic analysis of ZFHX1B is important for a definite diagnosis of MWS which has a wide phenotypic spectrum of congenital anomalies.
Which gene is responsible for the development of the Mowat-Wilson syndrome?
5519113b622b19434500000f_014
{ "answer_start": [ 1049 ], "text": [ "ZFHX1B" ] }
Clinical assessment of bortezomib for multiple myeloma in comparison with thalidomide. PURPOSE: We studied the efficacy and safety of bortezomib (BOR) for treatment of multiple myeloma in comparison with thalidomide (THAL) by reference to adverse events, and searched for laboratory markers that could be used for prognostication of patients. METHODS: Biochemical data of patients receiving BOR and THAL for treatment of multiple myeloma at the Japanese Red Cross Narita Hospital were investigated retrospectively, after obtaining Institutional Review Board approval. Judgment of curative effects complied with the effects criteria of the International Myeloma Working Group (IMWG). RESULTS: BOR showed a higher rate of effectiveness than THAL for refractory multiple myeloma, and its effects were rapid. BOR treatment prolonged the survival time of THAL-resistant patients. The efficacy of BOR was unrelated to patient age, the number of previous therapeutic regimens, or the disease period. After medication with BOR, patients in whom it had been effective tended to show an increase of the serum alkaline phosphatase (ALP) level. Thrombocytopenia (86.2%) and leucopenia (69.0%) were observed at high frequencies, but no previously unreported adverse events or fatalities were associated with BOR therapy. CONCLUSION: It is suggested that BOR has therapeutic efficacy for multiple myeloma as a first-line medical treatment and/or for patients with THAL resistance, and can improve prognosis and survival. Since serum ALP elevation was observed in many patients for whom BOR was effective, this may be a predictor of BOR efficacy.
What disease is Velcade (bortezomib) mainly used for?
51631154298dcd4e5100004e_012
{ "answer_start": [ 1374 ], "text": [ "multiple myeloma" ] }
SERCA in genesis of arrhythmias: what we already know and what is new? This review mainly focuses on the structure, function of the sarco(endo)plasmic reticulum calcium pump (SERCA) and its role in genesis of arrhythmias. SERCA is a membrane protein that belongs to the family of P-type ion translocating ATPases and pumps free cytosolic calcium into intracellular stores. Active transport of Ca2+ is achieved, according to the E1-E2 model, changing of SERCA structure by Ca2+. The affinity of Ca2+ -binding sites varies from high (E1) to low (E2). Three different SERCA genes were identified-SERCA1, SERCA2, and SERCA3. SERCA is mainly represented by the SERCA2a isoform in the heart. In heart muscle, during systole, depolarization triggers the release of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) and starts contraction. During diastole, muscle relaxation occurs as Ca2+ is again removed from cytosol, predominantly by accumulation into SR via the action of SERCA2a. The main regulator of SERCA2a is phospholamban and another regulator proteolipid of SERCA is sarcolipin. There are a lot of studies on the effect of decreased and/or increased SERCA activity in genesis of arrhythmia. Actually both decrease and increase of SERCA activity in the heart result in some pathological mechanisms such as heart failure and arrhythmia.
Which is the main calcium pump of the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
54db62a3034aea571d000001_012
{ "answer_start": [ 222 ], "text": [ "SERCA" ] }
[Puffy hand syndrome]. Puffy hand syndrome is an unrecognized complication of intravenous drug abuse. This painless syndrome appears during or after a long period of drug addiction. It involves the hands and sometimes the forearms, and may cause functional, aesthetic and social disturbances when the hand volume is important. Physiopathological mechanisms of the puffy hand syndrome are unclear and include venous and lymphatic insufficiencies, infectious complications and direct toxicity of injected drugs and their adulterants. Low-stretch bandage and elastic garment, usually used in lymphedema treatment, are proposed to treat the puffy hand syndrome.
What causes "Puffy hand syndrome"?
5a7346662dc08e987e00001a_004
{ "answer_start": [ 78 ], "text": [ "intravenous drug abuse" ] }
Management of cutaneous erythrasma. Corynebacterium minutissimum is the bacteria that leads to cutaneous eruptions of erythrasma and is the most common cause of interdigital foot infections. It is found mostly in occluded intertriginous areas such as the axillae, inframammary areas, interspaces of the toes, intergluteal and crural folds, and is more common in individuals with diabetes mellitus than other clinical patients. This organism can be isolated from a cutaneous site along with a concurrent dermatophyte or Candida albicans infection. The differential diagnosis of erythrasma includes psoriasis, dermatophytosis, candidiasis and intertrigo, and methods for differentiating include Wood's light examination and bacterial and mycological cultures. Erythromycin 250mg four times daily for 14 days is the treatment of choice and other antibacterials include tetracycline and chloramphenicol; however, the use of chloramphenicol is limited by bone marrow suppression potentially leading to neutropenia, agranulocytosis and aplastic anaemia. Further studies are needed but clarithromycin may be an additional drug for use in the future. Where there is therapeutic failure or intertriginous involvement, topical solutions such as clindamycin, Whitfield's ointment, sodium fusidate ointment and antibacterial soaps may be required for both treatment and prophylaxis. Limited studies on the efficacy of these medications exist, however, systemic erythromycin demonstrates cure rates as high as 100%. Compared with tetracyclines, systemic erythromycin has greater efficacy in patients with involvement of the axillae and groin, and similar efficacy for interdigital infections. Whitfield's ointment has equal efficacy to systemic erythromycin in the axillae and groin, but shows greater efficacy in the interdigital areas and is comparable with 2% sodium fusidate ointment for treatment of all areas. Adverse drug effects and potential drug interactions need to be considered. No cost-effectiveness data are available but there are limited data on cost-related treatment issues. A guideline is proposed for the detection, evaluation, treatment and prophylaxis of this cutaneous eruption.
Which bacteria causes erythrasma?
5a68f448b750ff4455000018_007
{ "answer_start": [ 36 ], "text": [ "Corynebacterium minutissimum" ] }
Philadelphia chromosome-positive leukemias: from basic mechanisms to molecular therapeutics. The Philadelphia chromosome translocation (t(9;22)) results in the molecular juxtaposition of two genes, BCR and ABL, to form an aberrant BCR-ABL gene on chromosome 22. BCR-ABL is critical to the pathogenesis of chronic myelogenous leukemia and a subset of acute leukemias. The chimeric Bcr-Abl protein has constitutively elevated tyrosine phosphokinase activity. This abnormal enzymatic activation is critical to the oncogenic potential of Bcr-Abl. Initially, protein kinases were thought to be poor therapeutic targets because of their ubiquitous nature and crucial role in many normal physiologic processes. However, the advent of imatinib mesylate (Gleevec, Novartis Pharmaceuticals, Basel, Switzerland), formerly known as STI571 and CGP57148B, demonstrated that designer kinase inhibitors could be specific. This agent has shown striking activity in chronic myelogenous leukemia. It also inhibits phosphorylation of Kit (stem-cell factor receptor) and platelet-derived growth factor receptor. In addition, it has shown similar impressive responses, with little host toxicity, in gastrointestinal stromal tumors, which harbor activating Kit mutations, and in tumors with activated platelet-derived growth factor receptor. The studies of imatinib mesylate provide proof-of-principle for using aberrant kinases as a therapeutic target and are a model for the promise of molecular therapeutics. This paper reviews the current knowledge on the function of Bcr-Abl and its normal counterparts (Bcr and Abl), as well as the impact of this knowledge on the development of a remarkably successful targeted therapy approach.
What tyrosine kinase, involved in a Philadelphia- chromosome positive chronic myelogenous leukemia, is the target of Imatinib (Gleevec)?
5324a8ac9b2d7acc7e000018_080
{ "answer_start": [ 231 ], "text": [ "BCR-ABL" ] }
Expression of DeltaNp73 is a molecular marker for adverse outcome in neuroblastoma patients. The p73 gene is a p53 homologue which induces apoptosis and inhibits cell proliferation. Although p73 maps at 1p36.3 and is frequently deleted in neuroblastoma (NB), it does not act as a classic oncosuppressor gene. In developing sympathetic neurons of mice, p73 is predominantly expressed as a truncated anti-apoptotic isoform (DeltaNp73), which antagonizes both p53 and the full-length p73 protein (TAp73). This suggests that p73 may be part of a complex tumor-control mechanism. To determine the role of DeltaNp73 in NB we analyzed the pattern of expression of this gene in vivo and evaluated the prognostic significance of its expression. Our results indicate that DeltaNp73 expression is associated with reduced apoptosis in a NB tumor tissue. Expression of this variant in NB patients significantly correlates with age at diagnosis and VMA urinary excretion. Moreover it is strongly associated with reduced survival (HR=7.93; P<0.001) and progression-free survival (HR=5.3; P<0.001) and its role in predicting a poorer outcome is independent from age, primary tumor site, stage and MYCN amplification (OS: HR=5.24, P=0.012; PFS: HR=4.36, P=0.005). In conclusion our data seem to indicate that DeltaNp73 is a crucial gene in neuroblastoma pathogenesis.
How many TAp73 isoforms have been identified in humans?
5173bdb38ed59a060a000020_085
{ "answer_start": [ 429 ], "text": [ "7" ] }
Reversal of direct oral anticoagulants: a practical approach. Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) have at least noninferior efficacy compared with other oral anticoagulants and have ancillary benefits, including overall better safety profiles, lack of the need for routine monitoring, rapid onset of action, and ease of administration. Reversal of these agents may be indicated in certain situations such as severe bleeding and for perioperative management. DOAC-associated bleeding should be risk stratified: patients with moderate or severe bleeding should have the DOAC discontinued and reversal strategies should be considered. Laboratory testing has limited utility in the acute management of bleeding; thrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time may be useful for excluding clinically relevant levels of dabigatran. Prothrombin time is potentially useful for rivaroxaban and edoxaban, but calibrated anti-Xa assays are optimal for determining clinically relevant levels of factor Xa inhibitors. Because specific reversal agents are not widely available, supportive care and interventions for local hemostasis remain the cornerstones of therapy in the patient with DOAC-associated bleeding. Nonspecific reversal agents should be considered only in the event of severe bleeding because their efficacy is unknown, and they are associated with risk of thrombosis. Recent results from phase 3/4 studies demonstrate efficacy for an antidote to dabigatran (idarucizumab, a monoclonal antibody fragment with specificity for dabigatran) and an antidote to factor Xa inhibitors (andexanet alfa, a recombinant and inactive form of factor Xa that binds inhibitors). A universal reversal agent (ciraparantag) for many anticoagulants, including the DOACs, shows promise in results from phase 1 and 2 studies.
Andexanet Alfa is an antidote of which clotting factor inhibitors?
5880b073c872c95565000003_092
{ "answer_start": [ 1590 ], "text": [ "xa" ] }
Nucleosomes are preferentially positioned at exons in somatic and sperm cells. Nucleosome positioning is constrained at eukaryotic transcription start sites and implicated in transcriptional regulation. Moreover, recent observations indicate that chromatin structure, transcription and splicing are functionally intertwined, and that modified nucleosomes with trimethylation of lysine 36 in histone subunit 3 (H3K36me3) are enriched at internal exons and the downstream flanking intronic regions of highly expressed genes. However, the position of nucleosomes in the interior of genes has been thought to be largely random. Here we show, by analysis of data sets from human sperm and T cells and medaka (Japanese killifish, Oryzias latipes) blastulae, that internal exons of genes are characterized by sharply elevated average nucleosome occupancy in comparison to flanking intronic sequences. We also show that the preferential positioning of nucleosomes at internal exons is independent of their modification status, and of the GC content, conservation or the expression level of the exon. These findings show that the location of exons is recorded in the chromatin structure and may be inherited across generations. Such embedded information may underpin transcriptionally coupled exon recognition and splice site selection.
What histone trimethylation has been associated to RNA splicing?
532ff917d6d3ac6a34000038_004
{ "answer_start": [ 410 ], "text": [ "H3K36me3" ] }
Differential control of TAp73 and DeltaNp73 protein stability by the ring finger ubiquitin ligase PIR2. p73 is a p53-related transcription factor with fundamental roles in development and tumor suppression. Transcription from two different promoters on the p73 gene results in generation of transcriptionally active TAp73 isoforms and dominant negative DeltaNp73 isoforms with opposing pro- and anti-apoptotic functions. Therefore, the relative ratio of each isoform is an important determinant of the cell fate. Proteasomal degradation of p73 is mediated by polyubiquitination-dependent and -independent processes both of which appear, thus far, to lack selectivity for the TAp73 and DeltaNp73 isoforms. Here, we describe the characterization of another transcriptional target of TAp73; a ring finger domain ubiquitin ligase p73 Induced RING 2 protein (PIR2). Although PIR2 was initially identified a p53-induced gene (p53RFP), low abundance of PIR2 transcript in mouse embryonic fibroblasts of TAp73 KO mice compared with WT mice and comparison of PIR2 mRNA and protein levels following TAp73 or p53 overexpression substantiate TAp73 isoforms as strong inducers of PIR2. Although PIR2 expression was induced by DNA damage, its expression did not alter apoptotic response or cell cycle profile per se. However, coexpression of PIR2 with TAp73 or DeltaNp73 resulted in an increase of the TA/DeltaNp73 ratio, due to preferential degradation of DeltaNp73. Finally, PIR2 was able to relieve the inhibitory effect of DeltaNp73 on TAp73 induced apoptosis following DNA damage. These results suggest that PIR2, by being induced by TAp73 and degrading DeltaNp73, differentially regulates TAp73/DeltaNp73 stability, and, hence, it may offer a therapeutic approach to enhance the chemosensitivity of tumor cells.
How many TAp73 isoforms have been identified in humans?
5173bdb38ed59a060a000020_007
{ "answer_start": [ 360 ], "text": [ "7" ] }
Osteomyelitis of the accessory and body of the navicular bone: a case report. A 16-year-old boy developed left foot pain of unknown cause that was unresponsive to conservative treatment, associated with fever and difficulty walking. He was admitted to our hospital with osteomyelitis of the accessory and body of the navicular bone. Surgery could not be performed because the patient had been diagnosed with Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome. After antibiotic therapy, laboratory abnormalities and pain had resolved. One year after treatment, the patient had returned to his original level of sports activity. Both an accessory navicular and the body of the navicular bone may develop osteomyelitis in immunocompromised patients; early diagnosis is important for prescribing effective conservative treatment.
Where in the body would the navicular bone be found?
5abd13e1fcf4565872000029_002
{ "answer_start": [ 111 ], "text": [ "foot" ] }
Discovery of betrixaban (PRT054021), N-(5-chloropyridin-2-yl)-2-(4-(N,N-dimethylcarbamimidoyl)benzamido)-5-methoxybenzamide, a highly potent, selective, and orally efficacious factor Xa inhibitor. Systematic SAR studies of in vitro factor Xa inhibitory activity around compound 1 were performed by modifying each of the three phenyl rings. A class of highly potent, selective, efficacious and orally bioavailable direct factor Xa inhibitors was discovered. These compounds were screened in hERG binding assays to examine the effects of substitution groups on the hERG channel affinity. From the leading compounds, betrixaban (compound 11, PRT054021) has been selected as the clinical candidate for development.
Which clotting factor is inhibited by betrixaban?
55200c606b348bb82c000013_123
{ "answer_start": [ 18 ], "text": [ "xa" ] }
Pharmaceutical approval update. Duavee, an oral contraceptive; riociguat (Adempas) for two types of pulmonary hypertension; and macitentan (Opsumit) for pulmonary arterial hypertension.
What is generic name of drug Adempas?
54e1bdacae9738404b000009_005
{ "answer_start": [ 63 ], "text": [ "riociguat" ] }
Current research on pharmacologic and regenerative therapies for osteoarthritis. Osteoarthritis (OA) is a degenerative joint disorder commonly encountered in clinical practice, and is the leading cause of disability in elderly people. Due to the poor self-healing capacity of articular cartilage and lack of specific diagnostic biomarkers, OA is a challenging disease with limited treatment options. Traditional pharmacologic therapies such as acetaminophen, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and opioids are effective in relieving pain but are incapable of reversing cartilage damage and are frequently associated with adverse events. Current research focuses on the development of new OA drugs (such as sprifermin/recombinant human fibroblast growth factor-18, tanezumab/monoclonal antibody against β-nerve growth factor), which aims for more effectiveness and less incidence of adverse effects than the traditional ones. Furthermore, regenerative therapies (such as autologous chondrocyte implantation (ACI), new generation of matrix-induced ACI, cell-free scaffolds, induced pluripotent stem cells (iPS cells or iPSCs), and endogenous cell homing) are also emerging as promising alternatives as they have potential to enhance cartilage repair, and ultimately restore healthy tissue. However, despite currently available therapies and research advances, there remain unmet medical needs in the treatment of OA. This review highlights current research progress on pharmacologic and regenerative therapies for OA including key advances and potential limitations.
What is the target of tanezumab?
5890e163621ea6ff7e000004_004
{ "answer_start": [ 808 ], "text": [ "nerve growth factor" ] }
Molecular cloning of cDNA encoding a bovine selenoprotein P-like protein containing 12 selenocysteines and a (His-Pro) rich domain insertion, and its regional expression. When cDNA containing proteins enriched in the bovine cerebellar cortex were cloned, a clone which seemed to encode a selenoprotein P-like protein was isolated. The coding nucleotide sequence of its cDNA insert displayed high homology to rat and human selenoprotein P cDNA but contained 12 rather than 10 TGAs (12 rather than 10 selenocysteines in deduced amino acids), a tandem repeat of one CACTCC (His-Ser) and seven CATCCCs (His-Pro), and a 3' untranslated region approximately 890 bases shorter than that of rat liver selenoprotein P. RT-PCR using a set of primers flanking to the repeat displayed the existence of mRNA without the repeat. The tandem repeat and its adjacent region consisted of a similar motif of CAC/TCC/AC/T. Thus, these proteins included a (His-Pro) rich domain with a slightly negative free energy change irrespective of having the tandem repeat or not. Such His-Pro repeats reportedly exist in the segmentation gene paired or homeobox protein Om(1D) of Drosophila. Moreover, both this selenoprotein P-like protein mRNA and selenoprotein P mRNA were expressed in all the areas of the brain but most prominently in the cerebellar cortex, hippocampus, and olfactory bulb. These findings suggest the possibility that these selenoproteins are major selenium carriers in the brain and play a role in the morphological response of nerve or glial cells.
Which is the human selenoprotein that contains several Se-Cys residues?
5343caffaeec6fbd07000002_007
{ "answer_start": [ 422 ], "text": [ "selenoprotein P" ] }
[Difficult therapeutic decision making in treatment of children with oesophageal atresia and trisomy of chromosome 18 - comments by geneticist, surgeon, neonatologist, paediatrician and anaesthesiologist]. Oesophageal atresia is a congenital defect of alimentary tract concerning the interruption of oesophagus with or without connection with the trachea. Its incidence is 1:3000-3500 of live-born. Associated anomalies including genetic disorders occur in 50% of patients. Edwards syndrome which is trisomy of chromosome 18 with poor prognosis. The incidence of Edwards syndrome is 1:5000 of live-born. About 5% of these children live more than 1 year. The aim of this article is a retrospective analysis of the course of treatment of newborn with oesophageal atresia and Edwards syndrome and making of therapeutic decision. The authors from different medical specializations: clinical genetics, paediatric surgery, paediatrics and neonatology, paediatric intensive care and palliative medicine, have undertaken a discussion regarding surgical treatment of children with oesophageal atresia and chromosomal, lethal syndrome.
What is the incidence of Edwards syndrom in the european population?
52f350042059c6d71c000010_001
{ "answer_start": [ 583 ], "text": [ "1:5000" ] }
Digenic inheritance of an SMCHD1 mutation and an FSHD-permissive D4Z4 allele causes facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy type 2. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy (FSHD) is characterized by chromatin relaxation of the D4Z4 macrosatellite array on chromosome 4 and expression of the D4Z4-encoded DUX4 gene in skeletal muscle. The more common form, autosomal dominant FSHD1, is caused by contraction of the D4Z4 array, whereas the genetic determinants and inheritance of D4Z4 array contraction-independent FSHD2 are unclear. Here, we show that mutations in SMCHD1 (encoding structural maintenance of chromosomes flexible hinge domain containing 1) on chromosome 18 reduce SMCHD1 protein levels and segregate with genome-wide D4Z4 CpG hypomethylation in human kindreds. FSHD2 occurs in individuals who inherited both the SMCHD1 mutation and a normal-sized D4Z4 array on a chromosome 4 haplotype permissive for DUX4 expression. Reducing SMCHD1 levels in skeletal muscle results in D4Z4 contraction-independent DUX4 expression. Our study identifies SMCHD1 as an epigenetic modifier of the D4Z4 metastable epiallele and as a causal genetic determinant of FSHD2 and possibly other human diseases subject to epigenetic regulation.
What is the mode of inheritance of Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy (FSHD)?
52bf19c503868f1b06000001_001
{ "answer_start": [ 345 ], "text": [ "autosomal dominant" ] }
[New therapeutical options for heavy gastrointestinal bleeding]. The number of patients taking new oral anticoagulants is rising, so is the number of serious bleeding events. In severe bleeding, the decision to start a procoagulant therapy is difficult to take. With Idarucizumab and Andexanet Alfa, specific antidotes have been developed against both, direct thrombin inhibitors as well as direct Factor Xa inhibitors. In the endoscopic treatment of severe gastrointestinal bleeding, alternative treatment options are available with Hemospray™, Endoclot™ and new hemostasis clips. Especially in the recurrent ulcer bleeding, the newly developed clips can achieve hemostasis and prevent an operational procedure.
Andexanet Alfa is an antidote of which clotting factor inhibitors?
5880b073c872c95565000003_053
{ "answer_start": [ 405 ], "text": [ "Xa" ] }
Effect of partial blockade of the Na(+)/Ca(2+)-exchanger on Ca(2+) handling in isolated rat ventricular myocytes. SEA0400 is a selective inhibitor of the Na(+)/Ca(2+) exchanger having equal potencies to suppress both the forward and reverse mode operation of the Na(+)/Ca(2+) exchanger. Present experiments were designed to study the effect of partial blockade of Na(+)/Ca(2+) exchanger on Ca(2+) handling in isolated rat ventricular myocytes. Intracellular Ca(2+) transient and cell shortening were measured in ventricular myocytes loaded with Fura-2-AM fluorescent dye. Partial blockade of Na(+)/Ca(2+) exchanger was induced by superfusion of the cells with SEA0400 at a concentration of 0.3 microM. Amplitude of the intracellular Ca(2+) transient and cell shortening was significantly increased by SEA0400 in both field stimulated and voltage clamped myocytes, without significant elevation of diastolic Ca(2+) level and the decay time constant of the Ca(2+) transient. In patch clamped myocytes the SEA0400 induced increase in the Ca(2+) transient and cell shortening was accompanied by significant reduction of peak L-type Ca(2+) current. These effects can be explained by the autoregulative nature of cardiac Ca(2+) handling, as the reduced Ca(2+) efflux from the cell results in an increased Ca(2+) load to the sarcoplasmic reticulum leading to increased Ca(2+) release, which in turn may decrease the L-type Ca(2+) current by accelaration of Ca(2+) dependent inactivation of L-type Ca(2+) current. Our results suggest that complex changes in the Ca(2+) cycling can occur after selective pharmacological inhibition of the Na(+)/Ca(2+) exchanger.
The small molecule SEA0400 is an inhibitor of which ion antiporter/exchanger?
5506c3e38e1671127b00000a_036
{ "answer_start": [ 263 ], "text": [ "Na(+)/Ca(2+) exchanger" ] }
Emerging chemical therapies targeting 5-hydroxytryptamine in the treatment of Alzheimer's disease. Alzheimer's disease (AD) is a major neuropsychiatric disorder affecting more than 5 million Americans over age 65. By the year 2050, AD is expected to affect over 30 million. Characterized by neuronal cell death accompanied by the accumulation of neurofibrillary tangles and neuritic plaques, AD results in devastating clinical symptomatology with a lasting psychosocial and financial impact. Studies have shown that the current treatments for AD, cholinesterase inhibitors (ChEI's) and NMDA receptor antagonists, have limited efficacy. The 5-HT-6 receptor antagonists Idalopirdine and Intepirdine have shown the most progress in current clinical trials and warrant consideration as emerging treatments for AD. Areas covered: This review discusses 5-HT6 antagonists currently in clinical trials as potential treatments for AD symptomatology and how 5-HT6 physiology may play a positive role in alleviating AD symptom pathophysiology. A literature search using PubMed was conducted using the terms Idalopirdine, Intepirdine, 5-HT-6 antagonist, and AD as keywords. Clinicaltrials.gov and Alzforum were also used to obtain information on clinical trials. Expert opinion: If current Phase-3 trials are positive, 5-HT6 antagonists such as Idalopirdine and Intepirdine may be considered as supplementary treatments to ChEI's and NMDA receptor antagonists for the symptomatic treatment of AD.
What does intepirdine target?
5a9ac7ba1d1251d03b000013_001
{ "answer_start": [ 847 ], "text": [ "5-HT6" ] }
Expression and function of Noxo1gamma, an alternative splicing form of the NADPH oxidase organizer 1. Activation of the superoxide-producing NADPH oxidase Nox1 requires both the organizer protein Noxo1 and the activator protein Noxa1. Here we describe an alternative splicing form of Noxo1, Noxo1gamma, which is expressed in the testis and fetal brain. The Noxo1gamma protein contains an additional five amino acids in the N-terminal PX domain, a phosphoinositide-binding module; the domain plays an essential role in supporting superoxide production by NADPH oxidase (Nox) family oxidases including Nox1, gp91(phox)/Nox2, and Nox3, as shown in this study. The PX domain isolated from Noxo1gamma shows a lower affinity for phosphoinositides than that from the classical splicing form Noxo1beta. Consistent with this, in resting cells, Noxo1gamma is poorly localized to the membrane, and thus less effective in activating Nox1 than Noxo1beta, which is constitutively present at the membrane. On the other hand, cell stimulation with phorbol 12-myristate 13-acetate (PMA), an activator of Nox1-3, facilitates membrane translocation of Noxo1gamma; as a result, Noxo1gamma is equivalent to Noxo1beta in Nox1 activation in PMA-stimulated cells. The effect of the five-amino-acid insertion in the Noxo1 PX domain appears to depend on the type of Nox; in activation of gp91(phox)/Nox2, Noxo1gamma is less active than Noxo1beta even in the presence of PMA, whereas Noxo1gamma and Noxo1beta support the superoxide-producing activity of Nox3 to the same extent in a manner independent of cell stimulation.
Which NADPH oxidase family member requires interaction with NOXO1 for function?
58a5a51060087bc10a000021_022
{ "answer_start": [ 155 ], "text": [ "Nox1" ] }
Transgenic expression of BACH1 transcription factor results in megakaryocytic impairment. Both nuclear factor erythroid 2 45 kDa subunit (p45) and BTB and CNC homolog 1 (Bach) transcription factors can form dimers with one of the small Maf proteins, and these heterodimers bind to the musculoaponeurotic fibrosarcoma oncogene (Maf) recognition element (MARE). MARE is known to act as a critical cis-regulatory element of erythroid and megakaryocytic genes. Although detailed analyses of p45-null mutant mice and small maf compound mutant mice revealed that these factors are both critical for platelet production, the functional contributions of Bach1 and the relationship or redundancy between Bach1 and p45 in megakaryocytes remain to be clarified. To address these issues, we generated transgenic lines of mice bearing human BACH1 cDNA under the control of the GATA-1 locus hematopoietic regulatory domain. The transgenic mouse lines showed significant thrombocytopenia associated with impaired maturation of the megakaryocytes, and they developed myelofibrosis. The megakaryocytes in the transgenic mice exhibited reduced proplatelet formation, and the modal ploidy class of megakaryocytes was 2N, indicating the impairment of endomitosis. Transcription of the p45 target genes was down-regulated and we indeed found that BACH1 binds to the thromboxane synthase gene, one of the target genes for p45 in megakaryocytes. These findings thus provide evidence that BACH1 acts as a transcriptional repressor in the regulation of MARE-dependent genes in megakaryocytes.
Is the transcriptional regulator BACH1 an activator or a repressor?
52fa6ac72059c6d71c000055_015
{ "answer_start": [ 1497 ], "text": [ "repressor" ] }
The atxA gene product activates transcription of the anthrax toxin genes and is essential for virulence. Bacillus anthracis plasmid pXO1 carries the structural genes for the three anthrax toxin proteins, cya (edema factor), lef (lethal factor), and pag (protective antigen). Expression of the toxin genes by B. anthracis is enhanced during growth under elevated levels of CO2. This CO2 effect is observed only in the presence of another pXO1 gene, atxA, which encodes a transactivator of anthrax toxin synthesis. Here we show that transcription of atxA does not appear to differ in cells grown in 5% CO2 compared with cells grown in air. Using a new efficient method for gene replacement in B. anthracis, we constructed an atxA-null mutant in which the atxA-coding sequence on pXO1 is replaced with an omega km-2 cassette. Transcription of all three toxin genes is decreased in the absence of atxA. The pag gene possesses two apparent transcription start sites, P1 and P2; only transcripts with 5' ends mapping to P1 are decreased in the atxA-null mutant. Deletion analysis of the pag promoter region indicates that the 111 bp region upstream of the P1 site is sufficient for atxA-mediated activation of this transcript. The cya and lef genes each have one apparent start site for transcription. Transcripts with 5' ends mapping to these sites are not detected in the atxA-null mutant. The atxA-null mutant is avirulent in mice. Moreover, the antibody response to all three toxin proteins is decreased significantly in atxA-null mutant-infected mice. These data suggest that the atxA gene product also regulates toxin gene expression during infection.
Which metabolite activates AtxA?
5710a592cf1c32585100002a_026
{ "answer_start": [ 372 ], "text": [ "CO2" ] }
Elotuzumab enhances natural killer cell activation and myeloma cell killing through interleukin-2 and TNF-α pathways. Elotuzumab is a humanized monoclonal antibody specific for signaling lymphocytic activation molecule-F7 (SLAMF7, also known as CS1, CD319, or CRACC) that enhances natural killer (NK) cell-mediated antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) of SLAMF7-expressing myeloma cells. This study explored the mechanisms underlying enhanced myeloma cell killing with elotuzumab as a single agent and in combination with lenalidomide, to support ongoing phase III trials in patients with relapsed/refractory or newly-diagnosed multiple myeloma (MM). An in vitro peripheral blood lymphocyte (PBL)/myeloma cell co-culture model was developed to evaluate the combination of elotuzumab and lenalidomide. Expression of activation markers and adhesion receptors was evaluated by flow cytometry, cytokine expression by Luminex and ELISPOT assays, and cytotoxicity by myeloma cell counts. Elotuzumab activated NK cells and promoted myeloma cell death in PBL/myeloma cell co-cultures. The combination of elotuzumab plus lenalidomide demonstrated superior anti-myeloma activity on established MM xenografts in vivo and in PBL/myeloma cell co-cultures in vitro than either agent alone. The combination enhanced myeloma cell killing by modulating NK cell function that coincided with the upregulation of adhesion and activation markers, including interleukin (IL)-2Rα expression, IL-2 production by CD3(+)CD56(+) lymphocytes, and tumor necrosis factor (TNF)-α production. In co-culture assays, TNF-α directly increased NK cell activation and myeloma cell death with elotuzumab or elotuzumab plus lenalidomide, and neutralizing TNF-α decreased NK cell activation and myeloma cell death with elotuzumab. These results demonstrate that elotuzumab activates NK cells and induces myeloma cell death via NK cell-mediated ADCC, which is further enhanced when combined with lenalidomide.
Name monoclonal antibody against SLAMF7.
56c077e9ef6e394741000021_002
{ "answer_start": [ 177 ], "text": [ "signaling lymphocytic activation molecule-F7" ] }
[Molecular-genetic aspects of neurofibromatosis]. Two forms of neurofibromatosis, type 1 (NF1) and type 2 (NF2) are connected with genes localized on chromosomes 17 and 22, respectively. The genes that are inactivated in neurofibromatosis code for the proteins neurofibromine and merline, respectively. Since inactivation leads to neoplasia, they are called tumour suppressor genes. Neurofibromine shows resemblances to proteins that serve to inactivate oncogenes. Merline has a relationship with proteins that connect the cytoskeleton and the cell membrane. The precise function of the proteins is still unknown. The NF1 gene is characterized by extraordinarily high sensitivity to mutation; half the NF1 patients have not inherited the disease. In the familial form of neurofibromatosis, a mutated gene is inherited and the normal allele in the tumour is inactivated, making tumour growth possible. In the sporadic form of neurofibromatosis, both normal alleles are inactivated locally in the tissue so that a tumour develops in that place.
Which is the gene mutated in type 1 neurofibromatosis?
5343fc1aaeec6fbd07000003_036
{ "answer_start": [ 90 ], "text": [ "NF1" ] }
PLA2G6, encoding a phospholipase A2, is mutated in neurodegenerative disorders with high brain iron. Neurodegenerative disorders with high brain iron include Parkinson disease, Alzheimer disease and several childhood genetic disorders categorized as neuroaxonal dystrophies. We mapped a locus for infantile neuroaxonal dystrophy (INAD) and neurodegeneration with brain iron accumulation (NBIA) to chromosome 22q12-q13 and identified mutations in PLA2G6, encoding a calcium-independent group VI phospholipase A2, in NBIA, INAD and the related Karak syndrome. This discovery implicates phospholipases in the pathogenesis of neurodegenerative disorders with iron dyshomeostasis.
Which gene is mutated in the Karak syndrome?
588f9950ed9bbee70d000002_015
{ "answer_start": [ 446 ], "text": [ "PLA2G6" ] }
Selexipag for the treatment of pulmonary arterial hypertension. INTRODUCTION: Selexipag is a first-in-class orally available selective non-prostanoid IP receptor agonist. This review was based on a PubMed search and focuses on the potential role of selexipag in the treatment of pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH). AREAS COVERED: Selexipag is rapidly hydrolyzed to an active metabolite, ACT-333679. Both selexipag and its metabolite are highly selective for the IP receptor compared with other prostanoid receptors. This selectivity for the IP receptor offers the potential for improved tolerability with selexipag, as side effects (e.g., nausea and vomiting) that might result from activation of the other prostanoid receptors may be minimized. In addition, the selexipag metabolite has a half-life of 7.9 h, thus permitting oral dosing twice daily. Selexipag showed effects on pharmacodynamic end points obtained with right heart catheterization in a Phase II trial in patients with PAH, and is being evaluated in the ongoing Phase III trial (GRIPHON trial, Clinicaltrials.gov NCT01106014). EXPERT OPINION: The signal of a beneficial effect of selexipag on disease progression may become more robust for long term under prolonged exposure. Pending the GRIPHON trial results, selexipag could provide a convenient first-line prostacyclin treatment option for patients with PAH.
Selexipag is used for which disease?
56c1f045ef6e394741000058_008
{ "answer_start": [ 31 ], "text": [ "pulmonary arterial hypertension" ] }
Endoplasmic reticulum calcium pumps and cancer. Endoplasmic reticulum calcium homeostasis is involved in a multitude of signaling, as well as "house-keeping" functions that control cell growth, differentiation or apoptosis in every human/eukaryotic cell. Calcium is actively accumulated in the endoplasmic reticulum by Sarco/Endoplasmic Reticulum Calcium transport ATPases (SERCA enzymes). SERCA-dependent calcium transport is the only calcium uptake mechanism in this organelle, and therefore the regulation of SERCA function by the cell constitutes a key mechanism to adjust calcium homeostasis in the endoplasmic reticulum depending on the cell type and its state of differentiation. The direct pharmacological modulation of SERCA activity affects cell differentiation and survival. SERCA expression levels can undergo significant changes during cell differentiation or tumorigenesis, leading to modified endoplasmic reticulum calcium storage. In several cell types such as cells of hematopoietic origin or various epithelial cells, two SERCA genes (SERCA2 and SERCA3) are simultaneously expressed. Expression levels of SERCA3, a lower calcium affinity calcium pump are highly variable. In several cell systems SERCA3 expression is selectively induced during differentiation, whereas during tumorigenesis and blastic transformation SERCA3 expression is decreased. These observations point at the existence of a cross-talk, via the regulation of SERCA3 levels, between endoplasmic reticulum calcium homeostasis and the control of cell differentiation, and show that endoplasmic reticulum calcium homeostasis itself can undergo remodeling during differentiation. The investigation of the anomalies of endoplasmic reticulum differentiation in tumor and leukemia cells may be useful for a better understanding of the contribution of calcium signaling to the establishment of malignant phenotypes.
Which is the main calcium pump of the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
54db62a3034aea571d000001_010
{ "answer_start": [ 374 ], "text": [ "SERCA" ] }
New Agents for Acute Treatment of Migraine: CGRP Receptor Antagonists, iNOS Inhibitors. The treatment of migraine was advanced dramatically with the introduction of triptans in the early 1990s. Despite the substantial improvement in the quality of life that triptans have brought to many migraineurs, a substantial cohort of patients remain highly disabled by attacks and need new therapeutic approaches, which ideally should be quick-acting, have no vasoconstrictor activity, and have a longer duration of action and be better tolerated than current therapies. The calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor antagonists (gepants)-olcegepant (BIBN 4096 BS), telcagepant (MK-0974), MK3207, and BI 44370 TA-are effective in treating acute migraine. They have no vasoconstrictive properties, fewer adverse effects, and may act longer than triptans. Their development has been complicated by liver toxicity issues when used as preventives. Results from studies with BI 44370 TA do not support broad concern about a class effect, and further studies are ongoing in this respect. Many experimental studies and clinical trials suggest that nitric oxide may have a role in the pathophysiology of migraine. Therefore, the inhibition of nitric oxide synthase (NOS) for the acute or prophylactic treatment of migraine offered a feasible approach; as inducible NOS (iNOS) is involved in several pain states, such as inflammatory pain, it appeared to be an attractive target. However, despite high selectivity and potency, the iNOS inhibitor GW274150 was not effective for acute treatment or prophylaxis of migraine, suggesting that iNOS is very unlikely to be a promising target.
Which receptor is targeted by telcagepant?
55032efde9bde69634000035_005
{ "answer_start": [ 566 ], "text": [ "calcitonin gene-related peptide" ] }
Finkelstein's test: a biomechanical analysis. PURPOSE: Finkelstein's test is the classic diagnostic test for de Quervain's disease. Finkelstein hypothesized that the entry of the muscle bellies of the extensor pollicis brevis (EPB) and abductor pollicis longus (APL) tendons into the first extensor compartment was responsible for the findings observed in his now eponymous test. We agree with Finkelstein's hypothesis and further hypothesize that this position would induce measurable bulk (muscle mass within the retinaculum) and tethering (stretching of synovial tissue) effects within the compartment. To test this latter hypothesis we measured the excursion and gliding resistance of the EPB and APL tendons within the first compartment. METHODS: Fifteen fresh-frozen cadavers were used. Gliding resistance and excursion were measured in 4 different wrist positions, including the wrist position of Finkelstein's test (30 degrees ulnar deviation). The bulk and tethering effect was calculated based on the mean gliding resistance over the tendon proximal/distal excursion cycle and the gliding resistance at the terminal distal excursion. RESULTS: The EPB tendon excursion was significantly more distal in 30 degrees ulnar deviation than in 60 degrees extension. Additionally the bulk and tethering resistance was significantly greater in 30 degrees ulnar deviation compared with 60 degrees extension. For the APL tendon there was no significant difference in either the tendon excursion or the bulk and tethering resistance between 30 degrees ulnar deviation and 60 degrees extension. CONCLUSIONS: We showed that in the position of Finkelstein's test the EPB tendon is significantly more distal and has significantly greater bulk and tethering effect compared with the other EPB positions. This is not the case for the APL tendon in the position of Finkelstein's test. These results suggest that an abnormal Finkelstein's test reflects differences of the EPB more than it does the APL.
Which disease is diagnosed using the Finkelstein's test?
5a6900ebb750ff445500001d_005
{ "answer_start": [ 109 ], "text": [ "de Quervain's disease" ] }
Specific mutations in the HEXA gene among Iraqi Jewish Tay-Sachs disease carriers: dating of founder ancestor. The incidence of Tay-Sachs disease (TSD) carriers, as defined by enzyme assay, is 1:29 among Ashkenazi Jews and 1:110 among Moroccan Jews. An elevated carrier frequency of 1:140 was also observed in the Iraqi Jews (IJ), while in other Israeli populations the world's pan-ethnic frequency of approximately 1:280 has been found. Recently a novel mutation, G749T, has been reported in 38.7% of the IJ carriers (24/62). Here we report a second novel HEXA mutation specific to the IJ TDS carriers: a substitution of cytosine 1351 by guanosine (C1351G), resulting in the change of leucine to valine in position 451. This mutation was found in 33.9% (21/62) of the carriers and in none of 100 non-carrier IJ. In addition to the two specific mutations, 14.5% (9/62) of the IJ carriers bear a known "Jewish" mutation (Ashkenazi or Moroccan) and 11.3% (7/62) carry a known "non-Jewish" mutation. In 1 DNA sample no mutation has yet been detected. To investigate the genetic history of the IJ-specific mutations (C1351G and G749T), the allelic distribution of four polymorphic markers (D15S131, D15S1025, D15S981, D15S1050) was analyzed in IJ heterozygotes and ethnically matched controls. Based on linkage disequilibrium, recombination factor (theta) between the markers and mutated loci, and the population growth correction, we deduced that G749T occurred in a founder ancestor 44.8 +/- 14.2 generations (g) ago [95% confidence interval (CI) 17.0-72.6 g] and C1351G arose 80.4 +/- 35.9 g ago (95% CI 44.5-116.3 g). Thus, the estimated dates for introduction of mutations are: 626 +/- 426 A.D. (200-1052 A.D.) for G749T and 442 +/- 1077 B.C. (1519 B.C. to 635 A.D.) for C1351G.
Which is the gene most commonly mutated in Tay-Sachs disease?
536e46f27d100faa09000012_009
{ "answer_start": [ 26 ], "text": [ "HEXA" ] }
Fam118B, a newly identified component of Cajal bodies, is required for Cajal body formation, snRNP biogenesis and cell viability. Cajal bodies are specialized and dynamic compartments in the nucleus that are involved in the biogenesis of small nuclear ribonucleoproteins (snRNPs). Because of the dynamic and varied roles of Cajal bodies, it is of great interest to identify the components of Cajal bodies to better understand their functions. We performed a genome-wide screen to identify proteins that colocalize with coilin, the marker protein of Cajal bodies. In this study, we identified and characterized Fam118B as a newly discovered component of Cajal bodies. Fam118B is widely expressed in a variety of cell lines derived from various origins. Overexpression of Fam118B changes the canonical morphology of Cajal bodies, whereas depletion of Fam118B disrupts the localization of components of Cajal bodies, including coilin, the survival of motor neuron protein (SMN) and the Sm protein D1 (SmD1, also known as SNRPD1). Moreover, depletion of Fam118B reduces splicing capacity and inhibits cell proliferation. In addition, Fam118B associates with coilin and SMN proteins. Fam118B depletion reduces symmetric dimethylarginine modification of SmD1, which in turn diminishes the binding of SMN to this Sm protein. Taken together, these data indicate that Fam118B, by regulating SmD1 symmetric dimethylarginine modification, plays an important role in Cajal body formation, snRNP biogenesis and cell viability.
Which protein is the main marker of Cajal bodies?
58eb9542eda5a57672000007_018
{ "answer_start": [ 519 ], "text": [ "coilin" ] }
Phospholamban phosphorylation by CaMKII under pathophysiological conditions. Sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) Ca2+ ATPase (SERCA2a) transports Ca2+ into the SR, decreasing the cytosolic Ca2+ during relaxation and increasing the SR Ca2+ available for contraction. SERCA2a activity is regulated by phosphorylation of another SR protein: Phospholamban (PLN). Dephosphorylated PLN inhibits SERCA2a. Phosphorylation of PLN by either cAMP or cGMP-dependent protein kinase at Ser16 or the Ca2+-calmodulin-dependent protein kinase (CaMKII), at Thr17, relieves this inhibition, increasing SR Ca2+ uptake and SR Ca2+ load. Thus, PLN is a major player in the regulation of myocardial relaxation and contractility. This review will examine the main aspects of the role of CaMKII and Thr17 site of PLN, on different pathophysiological conditions: acidosis, ischemia/reperfusion (I/R) and heart failure (HF). Whereas CaMKII-activation and PLN phosphorylation contribute to the functional recovery during acidosis and stunning, CaMKII results detrimental in the irreversible I/R injury, producing apoptosis and necrosis. Phosphorylation of Thr17 residue of PLN and CaMKII activity vary in the different models of HF. The possible role of these changes in the depressed cardiac function of HF will be discussed.
Which is the main regulatory molecule of SERCA2A function in the cardiac muscle?
54cb9c94f693c3b16b000005_018
{ "answer_start": [ 345 ], "text": [ "PLN" ] }
Cellular or Exosomal microRNAs Associated with CCN Gene Expression in Liver Fibrosis. Liver fibrosis occurs during chronic injury and represents, in large part, an exaggerated matrigenic output by hepatic stellate cells (HSCs) which become activated as a result of injury-induced signaling pathways in parenchymal and inflammatory cells (hepatocytes, macrophages, etc.). The molecular components in these pathways (e.g., CCN proteins) are modulated by transcription factors as well as by factors such as microRNAs (miRs) that act posttranscriptionally. MiRs are small (~23 nt) noncoding RNAs that regulate gene expression by specifically interacting with the 3' untranslated region (UTR) of target gene mRNA to repress translation or enhance mRNA cleavage. As well as acting in their cells of production, miRs (and other cellular constituents such as mRNAs and proteins) can be liberated from their cells of origin in nanovesicular membrane exosomes, which traverse the intercellular spaces, and can be delivered to neighboring cells into which they release their molecular payload, causing alterations in gene expression in the target cells. Here we summarize some of the experimental approaches for studying miR action and exosomal trafficking between hepatic cells. Insights into the mechanisms involved will yield new information about how hepatic fibrosis is regulated and, further, may identify new points of therapeutic intervention.
What is a miR?
58f0b1d670f9fc6f0f000007_001
{ "answer_start": [ 553 ], "text": [ "MiRs are small (~23 nt) noncoding RNAs" ] }
Prospective validation of Wells Criteria in the evaluation of patients with suspected pulmonary embolism. STUDY OBJECTIVE: The literature suggests that the d -dimer is useful in patients suspected of having pulmonary embolism and who have a low pretest probability of disease. A previously defined clinical decision rule, the Wells Criteria, may provide a reliable and reproducible means of determining this pretest probability. We evaluate the interrater agreement and external validity of Wells Criteria in determining pretest probability in patients suspected of having pulmonary embolism. METHODS: This was a prospective observational study. Trained research assistants enrolled patients during 120 random 8-hour shifts. Patients who underwent imaging for pulmonary embolism after a medical history, physical examination, and chest radiograph were enrolled. Treating providers and research assistants determined pretest probability according to Wells Criteria in a blinded fashion. Two d -dimer assays were run. Three-month follow-up for the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism was performed. Interrater agreement tables were created. kappa Values, sensitivities, and specificities were determined. RESULTS: Of the 153 eligible patients, 3 patients were missed, 16 patients declined, and 134 (88%) patients were enrolled. Sixteen (12%) patients were diagnosed with pulmonary embolism. The kappa values for Wells Criteria were 0.54 and 0.72 for the trichotomized and dichotomized scorings, respectively. When Wells Criteria were trichotomized into low pretest probability (n=59, 44%), moderate pretest probability (n=61, 46%), or high pretest probability (n=14, 10%), the pulmonary embolism prevalence was 2%, 15%, and 43%, respectively. When Wells Criteria were dichotomized into pulmonary embolism-unlikely (n=88, 66%) or pulmonary embolism-likely (n=46, 34%), the prevalence was 3% and 28%, respectively. The immunoturbidimetric and rapid enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay d -dimer assays had similar sensitivities (94%) and specificities (45% versus 46%). CONCLUSION: Wells Criteria have a moderate to substantial interrater agreement and reliably risk stratify pretest probability in patients with suspected pulmonary embolism.
What can be predicted with the Wells criteria?
5a7428090384be9551000001_009
{ "answer_start": [ 86 ], "text": [ "pulmonary embolism" ] }
Investigational anticoagulants for hematological conditions: a new generation of therapies. INTRODUCTION: The introduction of novel anticoagulants has had contrasting effects on the agents in the pipeline, fueling the development of some and sinking the others. The complexity of the coagulation cascade offers interesting inhibition choices that might become valid treatment options. AREAS COVERED: This review will highlight some of the anticoagulants in the pipeline. Following the success of the direct thrombin and FXa inhibitors already in the market, new agents are being tested. These include AZD0837, betrixaban, letaxaban, darexaban, and LY517717. Targeting other components of the hemostatic pathway might lead to better safety profiles without influencing efficacy. Inhibitors to FVIIa-tissue factor (FVIIa/TF) complex, FIX, FXI, and FXII are being assessed. New inspiring inhibitors are antisense oligonucleotides (ASOs) and aptamers. These are highly specific agents with readily reversible effect and might be engineered to inhibit any coagulation factor. Currently tested ASOs and aptamers are inhibitors of FXI, FXII, thrombin, FIXa, and platelet GPIV. EXPERT OPINION: Some of the agents in the pipeline offer valid treatment option for long-term therapy, overcoming some of the drawbacks of the novel anticoagulants. Research is being driven by an expanding market in the anticoagulation field that has been unexploited for a long time.
Which clotting factor is inhibited by betrixaban?
55200c606b348bb82c000013_010
{ "answer_start": [ 637 ], "text": [ "xa" ] }
Phosphorylation of Noxo1 at threonine 341 regulates its interaction with Noxa1 and the superoxide-producing activity of Nox1. UNLABELLED: Superoxide production by Nox1, a member of the Nox family NAPDH oxidases, requires expression of its regulatory soluble proteins Noxo1 (Nox organizer 1) and Noxa1 (Nox activator 1) and is markedly enhanced upon cell stimulation with phorbol 12-myristate 13-acetate (PMA), a potent activator of protein kinase C (PKC). The mechanism underlying PMA-induced enhancement of Nox1 activity, however, remains to be elucidated. Here we show that, in response to PMA, Noxo1 undergoes phosphorylation at multiple sites, which is inhibited by the PKC inhibitor GF109203X. Among them, Thr341 in Noxo1 is directly phosphorylated by PKC in vitro, and alanine substitution for this residue reduces not only PMA-induced Noxo1 phosphorylation but also PMA-dependent enhancement of Nox1-catalyzed superoxide production. Phosphorylation of Thr341 allows Noxo1 to sufficiently interact with Noxa1, an interaction that participates in Nox1 activation. Thus phosphorylation of Noxo1 at Thr341 appears to play a crucial role in PMA-elicited activation of Nox1, providing a molecular link between PKC-mediated signal transduction and Nox1-catalyzed superoxide production. Furthermore, Ser154 in Noxo1 is phosphorylated in both resting and PMA-stimulated cells, and the phosphorylation probably participates in a PMA-independent constitutive activity of Nox1. Ser154 may also be involved in protein kinase A (PKA) mediated regulation of Nox1; this serine is the major residue that is phosphorylated by PKA in vitro. Thus phosphorylation of Noxo1 at Thr341 and at Ser154 appears to regulate Nox1 activity in different manners. STRUCTURED DIGITAL ABSTRACT: Noxo1 binds to p22phox by pull down (1, 2, 3) Noxo1 binds to Noxo1 by pull down (View interaction) Noxa1 binds to Noxo1 by pull down (1, 2, 3, 4, 5).
Which NADPH oxidase family member requires interaction with NOXO1 for function?
58a5a51060087bc10a000021_003
{ "answer_start": [ 163 ], "text": [ "Nox1" ] }
Characterization of radioactive metabolites of 5-HT2A receptor PET ligand [18F]altanserin in human and rodent. This study was performed to identify and characterize the radiometabolites of the serotonin 5-HT2A receptor ligand [18F]altanserin in supporting quantification of the target receptors by positron emission tomography. In analogy to its analog ketanserin, we postulated 4-(4-fluorobenzoyl)piperidine (FBP) and altanserinol for the previously observed two polar radiometabolites, corresponding to dealkylation at the piperidine nitrogen and reduction at the ketone, respectively. To test this hypothesis and characterize the in vivo and in vitro behavior of the radiometabolites, we synthesized nonradioactive authentic compounds altanserinol, 1-(4-fluorophenyl)-1-(piperidin-4-yl)methanol (FBPOH), and isolated nonradioactive FBP metabolite from monkey plasma. [18F]Altanserinol was obtained by NaBH4 reduction of [18F]altanserin, followed by acid hydrolysis. Identification of radiometabolites was carried out by high performance liquid chromatography and thin layer chromatography comparison of the radioactive plasma after injection of tracers with five authentic compounds. Human studies revealed that at least four radiometabolites, one identified as [18F]altanserinol, resulted from reduction of the ketone functionality. The N-dealkylation product [18F]FBP was not detectable; however, a radiometabolite of FBP was present in plasma after administration of [18F]altanserin. Monkey studies showed nonradioactive FBP was converted rapidly to a less polar metabolite. In rat, altanserin and altanserinol were converted to each other in vivo, and all the radiometabolites likely penetrated the blood-brain barrier and entered the brain. Displacement binding of altanserin to cloned serotonin 5-HT2A, 5-HT2C, 5-HT6, and 5-HT7 receptors showed Ki values of 0.3, 6.0, 1,756, and 15 nM; the binding of FBP and altanserinol to these four 5-HT subtypes was negligible. We conclude from these studies that the radiometabolites of [18F]altanserin from N-dealkylation and ketone reduction should not interfere with specific receptor quantification in an equilibrium paradigm.
Which receptors can be evaluated with the [18F]altanserin?
55242d512c8b63434a000006_035
{ "answer_start": [ 203 ], "text": [ "5-HT2A" ] }
Genetic variations associated with red hair color and fear of dental pain, anxiety regarding dental care and avoidance of dental care. BACKGROUND: Red hair color is caused by variants of the melanocortin-1 receptor (MC1R) gene. People with naturally red hair are resistant to subcutaneous local anesthetics and, therefore, may experience increased anxiety regarding dental care. The authors tested the hypothesis that having natural red hair color, a MC1R gene variant or both could predict a patient's experiencing dental care-related anxiety and dental care avoidance. METHODS: The authors enrolled 144 participants (67 natural red-haired and 77 dark-haired) aged 18 to 41 years in a cross-sectional observational study. Participants completed validated survey instruments designed to measure general and dental care-specific anxiety, fear of dental pain and previous dental care avoidance. The authors genotyped participants' blood samples to detect variants associated with natural red hair color. RESULTS: Eighty-five participants had MC1R gene variants (65 of the 67 red-haired participants and 20 of the 77 dark-haired participants) (P < .001). Participants with MC1R gene variants reported significantly more dental care-related anxiety and fear of dental pain than did participants with no MC1R gene variants. They were more than twice as likely to avoid dental care as were the participants with no MC1R gene variants, even after the authors controlled for general trait anxiety and sex. CONCLUSION: Dental care-related anxiety, fear of dental pain and avoidance of dental care may be influenced by genetic variations. CLINICAL IMPLICATIONS: Dentists should evaluate all patients, but especially those with naturally red hair, for dental care-related anxiety and use appropriate modalities to manage the patients' anxiety.
Which gene is responsible for red hair?
5ace19420340b9f05800000a_055
{ "answer_start": [ 216 ], "text": [ "MC1R" ] }
MethPed: an R package for the identification of pediatric brain tumor subtypes. BACKGROUND: DNA methylation profiling of pediatric brain tumors offers a new way of diagnosing and subgrouping these tumors which improves current clinical diagnostics based on histopathology. We have therefore developed the MethPed classifier, which is a multiclass random forest algorithm, based on DNA methylation profiles from many subgroups of pediatric brain tumors. RESULTS: We developed an R package that implements the MethPed classifier, making it easily available and accessible. The package can be used for estimating the probability that an unknown sample belongs to each of nine pediatric brain tumor diagnoses/subgroups. CONCLUSIONS: The MethPed R package efficiently classifies pediatric brain tumors using the developed MethPed classifier. MethPed is available via Bioconductor: http://bioconductor.org/packages/MethPed/.
Which R package could be used for the identification of pediatric brain tumors?
587e2300fc7e8dd84f000004_014
{ "answer_start": [ 817 ], "text": [ "MethPed" ] }
Inter-subunit interactions in erythroid and non-erythroid spectrins. Spectrins comprise α- and β-subunits made up predominantly of a series of homologous repeating units of about 106 amino acids; the α- and β-chains form antiparallel dimers by lateral association, and tetramers through head-to-head contacts between the dimers. Here we consider the first of these interactions. (1) We confirm earlier observations, showing that the first two paired repeats (βIR1 with αIR21, and βIR2 with αRI20) at one end of the erythroid spectrin (αIβI) dimer are necessary and sufficient to unite the chains; (2) we resolve a conflict in published reports by showing that the strength of the interaction is considerably increased on adding the adjoining pair of repeats (βIR3-αIR19); (3) in brain (αIIβII) spectrin the first two pairs of repeats are similarly essential and sufficient for heterodimer formation; (4) this interaction is ~60-fold stronger than that in the erythroid counterpart, but no enhancement can be detected on addition of three further pairs of repeats; (5) formation of a tight αIβI dimer probably depends on structural coupling of the first two repeats in each chain; (6) an analysis of the sequences of the strongly interacting repeats, βIR1, βIIR1, αIR21 and αIIR20 and repeats in α-actinin, which also interact very strongly in forming an antiparallel dimer, affords a possible explanation for the different properties of the two spectrin isoforms in respect of the stability of the inter-chain interactions, and also suggests the evolutionary path by which the erythroid and non-erythroid sequences diverged.
Alpha-spectrin and beta-spectrin subunits form parallel or antiparallel heterodimers?
5540b9800083d1bf0e000002_004
{ "answer_start": [ 221 ], "text": [ "antiparallel" ] }
Initiation of spectrin dimerization involves complementary electrostatic interactions between paired triple-helical bundles. The spectrin heterodimer is formed by the antiparallel lateral association of an alpha and a beta subunit, each of which comprises largely a series of homologous triple-helical motifs. Initiation of dimer assembly involves strong binding between complementary motifs near the actin-binding end of the dimer. In this study, the mechanism of lateral spectrin association at this dimer nucleation site was investigated using the analytical ultracentrifuge to analyze heterodimers formed from recombinant peptides containing two or four homologous motifs from each subunit (alpha20-21/beta1-2; alpha18-21/beta1-4). Both the two-motif and four-motif dimer associations were weakened substantially with increasing salt concentration, indicating that electrostatic interactions are important for the dimer initiation process. Modeling of the electrostatic potential on the surface of the alpha20 and beta2 motifs showed that the side of the motifs comprising the A and B helices is the most favorable for association, with an area of positive electrostatic potential on the AB face of the beta2 motif opposite negative potential on the AB face of the alpha20 motif and vise versa. Protease protection analysis of the alpha20-21/beta1-2 dimer showed that multiple trypsin and proteinase K sites in the A helices of the beta2 and alpha21 motifs become buried upon dimer formation. Together, these data support a model where complementary long range electrostatic interactions on the AB faces of the triple-helical motifs in the dimer nucleation site initiate the correct pairing of motifs, i.e. alpha21-beta1 and alpha20-beta2. After initial docking of these complementary triple-helical motifs, this association is probably stabilized by subsequent formation of stronger hydrophobic interactions in a complex involving the A helices of both subunits and possibly most of the AB faces. The beta subunit A helix in particular appears to be buried in the dimer interface.
Alpha-spectrin and beta-spectrin subunits form parallel or antiparallel heterodimers?
5540b9800083d1bf0e000002_009
{ "answer_start": [ 167 ], "text": [ "antiparallel" ] }
Sarcoplasmic reticulum: the dynamic calcium governor of muscle. The sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) provides feedback control required to balance the processes of calcium storage, release, and reuptake in skeletal muscle. This balance is achieved through the concerted action of three major classes of SR calcium-regulatory proteins: (1) luminal calcium-binding proteins (calsequestrin, histidine-rich calcium-binding protein, junctate, and sarcalumenin) for calcium storage; (2) SR calcium release channels (type 1 ryanodine receptor or RyR1 and IP3 receptors) for calcium release; and (3) sarco(endo)plasmic reticulum Ca2+ -ATPase (SERCA) pumps for calcium reuptake. Proper calcium storage, release, and reuptake are essential for normal skeletal muscle function. We review SR structure and function during normal skeletal muscle activity, the proteins that orchestrate calcium storage, release, and reuptake, and how phenotypically distinct muscle diseases (e.g., malignant hyperthermia, central core disease, and Brody disease) can result from subtle alterations in the activity of several key components of the SR calcium-regulatory machinery.
Which is the main calcium binding protein of the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
54cf45e7f693c3b16b00000a_008
{ "answer_start": [ 368 ], "text": [ "calsequestrin" ] }
Towards effective immunotherapy of myeloma: enhanced elimination of myeloma cells by combination of lenalidomide with the human CD38 monoclonal antibody daratumumab. BACKGROUND: In our efforts to develop novel effective treatment regimens for multiple myeloma we evaluated the potential benefits of combining the immunomodulatory drug lenalidomide with daratumumab. Daratumumab is a novel human CD38 monoclonal antibody which kills CD38+ multiple myeloma cells via antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity, complement-dependent cytotoxicity and apoptosis. DESIGN AND METHODS: To explore the effect of lenalidomide combined with daratumumab, we first carried out standard antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity and complement-dependent cytotoxicity assays in which the CD38+ multiple myeloma cell line UM-9 and primary multiple myeloma cells isolated from patients were used as target cells. We also tested the effect of lenalidomide on daratumumab-dependent cell-mediated-cytotoxicity and complement-dependent cytotoxicity of multiple myeloma cells directly in the bone marrow mononuclear cells of multiple myeloma patients. Finally, we determined the daratumumab-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity using peripheral blood mononuclear cells of multiple myeloma patients receiving lenalidomide treatment. RESULTS: Daratumumab-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity of purified primary multiple myeloma cells, as well as of the UM-9 cell line, was significantly augmented by lenalidomide pre-treatment of the effector cells derived from peripheral blood mononuclear cells from healthy individuals. More importantly, we demonstrated a clear synergy between lenalidomide and daratumumab-induced antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity directly in the bone marrow mononuclear cells of multiple myeloma patients, indicating that lenalidomide can also potentiate the daratumumab-dependent lysis of myeloma cells by activating the autologous effector cells within the natural environment of malignant cells. Finally, daratumumab-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity was significantly up-regulated in peripheral blood mononuclear cells derived from 3 multiple myeloma patients during lenalidomide treatment. CONCLUSIONS: Our results indicate that powerful and complementary effects may be achieved by combining lenalidomide and daratumumab in the clinical management of multiple myeloma.
What is the target of daratumumab?
5880aef4c872c95565000001_044
{ "answer_start": [ 432 ], "text": [ "CD38" ] }
Allan-Herndon-Dudley syndrome. Allan-Herndon-Dudley Syndrome (AHDS) is a rare X-linked disorder caused by mutation in the gene encoding the monocarboxylate transporter-8. Abnormal transport function is reflected by elevated free T3 and decreased free T4 levels along with clinical features characterized by neurological abnormalities including global developmental delay, central hypotonia, rotatory nystagmus, impaired hearing, spasticity and contractures of joints. We report a child with classical clinical features along with confirmatory deranged thyroid levels in blood.
Which hormone concentrations are altered in patients with the Allan–Herndon–Dudley syndrome?
530f900ee3eabad021000003_014
{ "answer_start": [ 552 ], "text": [ "thyroid" ] }
Mitochondrial dynamics regulates migration and invasion of breast cancer cells. Mitochondria are highly dynamic and undergo constant fusion and fission that are essential for maintaining physiological functions of cells. Although dysfunction of mitochondria has been implicated in tumorigenesis, little is known about the roles of mitochondrial dynamics in metastasis, the major cause of cancer death. In the present study, we found a marked upregulation of mitochondrial fission protein dynamin-related protein 1 (Drp1) expression in human invasive breast carcinoma and metastases to lymph nodes. Compared with non-metastatic breast cancer cells, mitochondria also were more fragmented in metastatic breast cancer cells that express higher levels of total and active Drp1 and less mitochondrial fusion protein 1 (Mfn1). Silencing Drp1 or overexpression of Mfn1 resulted in mitochondria elongation or clusters, respectively, and significantly suppressed metastatic abilities of breast cancer cells. In contrast, silencing Mfn proteins led to mitochondrial fragmentation and enhanced metastatic abilities of breast cancer cells. Interestingly, these manipulations of mitochondrial dynamics altered the subcellular distribution of mitochondria in breast cancer cells. For example, silencing Drp1 or overexpression of Mfn1 inhibited lamellipodia formation, a key step for cancer metastasis, and suppressed chemoattractant-induced recruitment of mitochondria to lamellipodial regions. Conversely, silencing Mfn proteins resulted in more cell spreading and lamellipodia formation, causing accumulation of more mitochondria in lamellipodia regions. More importantly, treatment with a mitochondrial uncoupling agent or adenosine triphosphate synthesis inhibitor reduced lamellipodia formation and decreased breast cancer cell migration and invasion, suggesting a functional importance of mitochondria in breast cancer metastasis. Together, our findings show a new role and mechanism for regulation of cancer cell migration and invasion by mitochondrial dynamics. Thus targeting dysregulated Drp1-dependent mitochondrial fission may provide a novel strategy for suppressing breast cancer metastasis.
What is the functional role of the protein Drp1?
5717dbfe7de986d80d000001_009
{ "answer_start": [ 458 ], "text": [ "mitochondrial fission" ] }
Identification of an FBN1 mutation in bovine Marfan syndrome-like disease. Mutations in the gene encoding fibrillin-1 (FBN1), a component of the extracellular microfibril, cause Marfan syndrome (MFS). Frequent observation of cattle with a normal withers height, but lower body weight than age-matched normal cattle, was recently reported among cattle sired by phenotypically normal Bull A, in Japanese Black cattle. These cattle also showed other characteristic features similar to the clinical phenotype of human MFS, such as a long phalanx proximalis, oval face and crystalline lens cloudiness. We first screened a paternal half-sib family comprising 36 affected and 10 normal offspring of Bull A using the BovineSNP50 BeadChip (illumina). Twenty-two microsatellite markers mapped to a significant region on BTA10 were subsequently genotyped on the family. The bovine Marfan syndrome-like disease (MFSL) was mapped onto BTA10. As FBN1 is located in the significant region, FBN1 was sequenced in Bull A, and three affected and one normal cattle. A G>A mutation at the intron64 splicing accepter site (c.8227-1G>A) was detected in 31 of 36 affected animals (84.7%). The c.8227-1G>A polymorphism was not found in 20 normal offspring of Bull A or in 93 normal cattle unrelated to Bull A. The mutation caused a 1-base shift of the intron64 splicing accepter site to the 3' direction, and a 1-base deletion in processed mRNA. This 1-base deletion creates a premature termination codon, and a 125-amino acid shorter Fibrillin-1 protein is produced from the mutant mRNA. We therefore conclude that the c.8227-1G>A mutation is causative for MFSL. Furthermore, it was suggested that Bull A exhibited germline mosaicism for the mutation, and that the frequency of the mutant sperm was 14.9%.
Which gene mutations cause the Marfan syndrome?
58d8e6818acda3452900000a_026
{ "answer_start": [ 119 ], "text": [ "FBN1" ] }
Perturbation of m6A writers reveals two distinct classes of mRNA methylation at internal and 5' sites. N6-methyladenosine (m6A) is a common modification of mRNA with potential roles in fine-tuning the RNA life cycle. Here, we identify a dense network of proteins interacting with METTL3, a component of the methyltransferase complex, and show that three of them (WTAP, METTL14, and KIAA1429) are required for methylation. Monitoring m6A levels upon WTAP depletion allowed the definition of accurate and near single-nucleotide resolution methylation maps and their classification into WTAP-dependent and -independent sites. WTAP-dependent sites are located at internal positions in transcripts, topologically static across a variety of systems we surveyed, and inversely correlated with mRNA stability, consistent with a role in establishing "basal" degradation rates. WTAP-independent sites form at the first transcribed base as part of the cap structure and are present at thousands of sites, forming a previously unappreciated layer of transcriptome complexity. Our data shed light on the proteomic and transcriptional underpinnings of this RNA modification.
Which properties of the mRNA does N6-methyladenosine (m6A) affect?
56df03c751531f7e3300000a_002
{ "answer_start": [ 786 ], "text": [ "mRNA stability" ] }
Inactivation of a histone methyltransferase by mutations in human cancers. Histone methyltransferase (HMT)(1) class enzymes that methylate lysine residues of histones or proteins contain a conserved catalytic core termed the SET domain, which shares sequence homology with an independently described sequence motif, the PR domain. Intact PR or SET sequence is required for tumor suppression functions, but it remains unclear whether it is histone methyltransferase activity that underlies tumor suppression. We now show that tumor suppressor RIZ1 (PRDM2) methylates histone H3 on lysine 9, and this activity is reduced by mutations in the PR domain found in human cancers. Also, S-adenosylhomocysteine or methyl donor deficiency inhibits RIZ1 and other H3 lysine 9 methylation activities. These results support the hypothesis that H3 lysine 9 methylation activities of a PR/SET domain have tumor suppression functions and may underlie carcinogenesis associated with dietary methyl donor deficiency.
What is the characteristic domain of histone methyltransferases?
532dcfc9d6d3ac6a34000021_018
{ "answer_start": [ 225 ], "text": [ "SET domain" ] }
Zebrafish as a model for monocarboxyl transporter 8-deficiency. Allan-Herndon-Dudley syndrome (AHDS) is a severe psychomotor retardation characterized by neurological impairment and abnormal thyroid hormone (TH) levels. Mutations in the TH transporter, monocarboxylate transporter 8 (MCT8), are associated with AHDS. MCT8 knock-out mice exhibit impaired TH levels; however, they lack neurological defects. Here, the zebrafish mct8 gene and promoter were isolated, and mct8 promoter-driven transgenic lines were used to show that, similar to humans, mct8 is primarily expressed in the nervous and vascular systems. Morpholino-based knockdown and rescue experiments revealed that MCT8 is strictly required for neural development in the brain and spinal cord. This study shows that MCT8 is a crucial regulator during embryonic development and establishes the first vertebrate model for MCT8 deficiency that exhibits a neurological phenotype.
Which hormone concentrations are altered in patients with the Allan–Herndon–Dudley syndrome?
530f900ee3eabad021000003_006
{ "answer_start": [ 191 ], "text": [ "thyroid" ] }
Familial pediatric rapidly progressive extrapyramidal syndrome: is it Hallervorden-Spatz disease? The clinical features of two children of a family with rapidly progressive extrapyramidal-pyramidal-dementia complex have been described. Inheritance seems most likely to be autosomal recessive. Magnetic resonance imaging results of brain were negative. Even so, the authors argued in favor of a diagnosis of Hallervorden-Spatz disease because the cases fulfilled the clinical criteria for diagnosis of this disease. Apart from the negative magnetic resonance findings, the other unusual feature was the early development of levodopa-induced dyskinesia. Few conditions need to be considered in the differential diagnosis of a childhood-onset rapidly progressive extrapyramidal syndrome. Such conditions include Wilson's disease, Hallervorden-Spatz disease (HSD), juvenile form of Huntington's disease, juvenile neuronal ceroid lipofuscinosis, early-onset Machado-Joseph disease neuroacanthocytosis, storage disorders, and variant form of dopa-response dystonias (DRD). Rarer conditions are Leigh's disease, Lafora body disease, and dentato-rubro-pallido-luysian atrophy. HSD is a rare disorder characterized by progressive extrapyramidal dysfunction and dementia. Onset is most commonly in late childhood or early adolescence. The disease can be familial or sporadic. When familial, it is inherited recessively and has been linked to chromosome 20. Recently, a mutation in the pantothenate kinase (PANK2) gene on band 20pl3 has been described in patients with typical HSD. HSD produces typical magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) changes in brain, aiding in antemortem diagnosis. The typical finding is of bilaterally symmetrical hyperintense signal changes in the external segment of globus pallidus, with surrounding hypointensity on T(2)-weighted image. These imaging features are fairly diagnostic and have been termed the "eye-of-the tiger sign". The hyperintensity represents pathologic changes, including gliosis, demyelination, neuronal loss, and axonal swelling, and the surrounding hypointensity is caused by loss of signal secondary to iron deposition. Described herein are the clinical aspects of a family with autosomal recessive inheritance with rapidly progressive extrapyramidal-pyramidal-dementia complex but with negative brain MRI results. The diagnosis should be considered a variant form of HSD.
What is the mode of inheritance of Wilson's disease?
52bf1b0a03868f1b06000009_004
{ "answer_start": [ 272 ], "text": [ "autosomal recessive" ] }
Emerging anticoagulants. Warfarin, heparin and their derivatives have been the traditional anticoagulants used for prophylaxis and treatment of venous thromboembolism. While the modern clinician is familiar with the efficacy and pharmacokinetics of these agents, their adverse effects have provided the impetus for the development of newer anticoagulants with improved safety, ease of administration, more predictable pharmacodynamics and comparable efficacy. Research into haemostasis and the coagulation cascade has made the development of these newer anticoagulants possible. These drugs include the factor Xa inhibitors and IIa (thrombin) inhibitors. Direct and indirect factor Xa inhibitors are being developed with a relative rapid onset of action and stable pharmacokinetic profiles negating the need for close monitoring; this potentially makes them a more attractive option than heparin or warfarin. Examples of direct factor Xa inhibitors include apixaban, rivaroxaban, otamixaban, betrixaban and edoxaban. Examples of indirect factor Xa inhibitors include fondaparinux, idraparinux and idrabiotaparinux. Direct thrombin inhibitors (factor IIa inhibitors) were developed with the limitations of standard heparin and warfarin in mind. Examples include recombinant hirudin (lepirudin), bivalirudin, ximelagatran, argatroban, and dabigatran etexilate. This review will discuss emerging novel anticoagulants and their use for the prophylaxis and management of venous thromboembolism, for stroke prevention in nonvalvular atrial fibrillation and for coronary artery disease.
Which clotting factor is inhibited by betrixaban?
55200c606b348bb82c000013_100
{ "answer_start": [ 910 ], "text": [ "xa" ] }
One target-two different binding modes: structural insights into gevokizumab and canakinumab interactions to interleukin-1β. Interleukin-1β (IL-1β) is a key orchestrator in inflammatory and several immune responses. IL-1β exerts its effects through interleukin-1 receptor type I (IL-1RI) and interleukin-1 receptor accessory protein (IL-1RAcP), which together form a heterotrimeric signaling-competent complex. Canakinumab and gevokizumab are highly specific IL-1β monoclonal antibodies. Canakinumab is known to neutralize IL-1β by competing for binding to IL-1R and therefore blocking signaling by the antigen:antibody complex. Gevokizumab is claimed to be a regulatory therapeutic antibody that modulates IL-1β bioactivity by reducing the affinity for its IL-1RI:IL-1RAcP signaling complex. How IL-1β signaling is affected by both canakinumab and gevokizumab was not yet experimentally determined. We have analyzed the crystal structures of canakinumab and gevokizumab antibody binding fragment (Fab) as well as of their binary complexes with IL-1β. Furthermore, we characterized the epitopes on IL-1β employed by the antibodies by NMR epitope mapping studies. The direct comparison of NMR and X-ray data shows that the epitope defined by the crystal structure encompasses predominantly those residues whose NMR resonances are severely perturbed upon complex formation. The antigen:Fab co-structures confirm the previously identified key contact residues on IL-1β and provide insight into the mechanisms leading to their distinct modulation of IL-1β signaling. A significant steric overlap of the binding interfaces of IL-1R and canakinumab on IL-1β causes competitive inhibition of the association of IL-1β and its receptor. In contrast, gevokizumab occupies an allosteric site on IL-1β and complex formation results in a minor reduction of binding affinity to IL-1RI. This suggests two different mechanisms of IL-1β pathway attenuation.
Which molecule is targeted by the drug Gevokizumab?
550e828c71445a662f000002_022
{ "answer_start": [ 459 ], "text": [ "IL-1β" ] }
RADAR: a rigorously annotated database of A-to-I RNA editing. We present RADAR--a rigorously annotated database of A-to-I RNA editing (available at http://RNAedit.com). The identification of A-to-I RNA editing sites has been dramatically accelerated in the past few years by high-throughput RNA sequencing studies. RADAR includes a comprehensive collection of A-to-I RNA editing sites identified in humans (Homo sapiens), mice (Mus musculus) and flies (Drosophila melanogaster), together with extensive manually curated annotations for each editing site. RADAR also includes an expandable listing of tissue-specific editing levels for each editing site, which will facilitate the assignment of biological functions to specific editing sites.
Which annotated database of A-to-I RNA editing is available?
587e1a01fc7e8dd84f000001_008
{ "answer_start": [ 315 ], "text": [ "RADAR" ] }
Targeting EGF receptor variant III: tumor-specific peptide vaccination for malignant gliomas. Glioblastoma multiforme (GBM) is the most common and deadly of the human brain cancers. The EGF receptor is often amplified in GBM and provides a potential therapeutic target. However, targeting the normal receptor is complicated by its nearly ubiquitous and high level of expression in certain tissues. A naturally occurring deletion mutant of the EGF receptor, EGFRvIII, is a constitutively active variant originally identified in a high percentage of brain cancer cases, and more importantly is rarely found in normal tissue. A peptide vaccine, rindopepimut (CDX-110, Celldex Therapeutics), is directed against the novel exon 1-8 junction produced by the EGFRvIII deletion, and it has shown high efficacy in preclinical models. Recent Phase II clinical trials in patients with newly diagnosed GBM have shown EGFRvIII-specific immune responses and significantly increased time to progression and overall survival in those receiving vaccine therapy, as compared with published results for standard of care. Rindopepimut therefore represents a very promising therapy for patients with GBM.
Rindopepimut is an analog of which growth factor?
54d8fd334b1fd0d33c000005_005
{ "answer_start": [ 752 ], "text": [ "EGFRvIII" ] }
Dimerization of DNA methyltransferase 1 is mediated by its regulatory domain. DNA methylation is a major epigenetic modification and plays a crucial role in the regulation of gene expression. Within the family of DNA methyltransferases (Dnmts), Dnmt3a and 3b establish methylation marks during early development, while Dnmt1 maintains methylation patterns after DNA replication. The maintenance function of Dnmt1 is regulated by its large regulatory N-terminal domain that interacts with other chromatin factors and is essential for the recognition of hemi-methylated DNA. Gelfiltration analysis showed that purified Dnmt1 elutes at an apparent molecular weight corresponding to the size of a dimer. With protein interaction assays we could show that Dnmt1 interacts with itself through its N-terminal regulatory domain. By deletion analysis and co-immunoprecipitations we mapped the dimerization domain to the targeting sequence TS that is located in the center of the N-terminal domain (amino acids 310-629) and was previously shown to mediate replication independent association with heterochromatin at chromocenters. Further mutational analyses suggested that the dimeric complex has a bipartite interaction interface and is formed in a head-to-head orientation. Dnmt1 dimer formation could facilitate the discrimination of hemi-methylated target sites as has been found for other palindromic DNA sequence recognizing enzymes. These results assign an additional function to the TS domain and raise the interesting question how these functions are spatially and temporarily co-ordinated.
Which enzyme is involved in the maintenance of DNA (cytosine-5-)-methylation?
51585b28d24251bc0500008d_029
{ "answer_start": [ 407 ], "text": [ "Dnmt1" ] }
CLAST: CUDA implemented large-scale alignment search tool. BACKGROUND: Metagenomics is a powerful methodology to study microbial communities, but it is highly dependent on nucleotide sequence similarity searching against sequence databases. Metagenomic analyses with next-generation sequencing technologies produce enormous numbers of reads from microbial communities, and many reads are derived from microbes whose genomes have not yet been sequenced, limiting the usefulness of existing sequence similarity search tools. Therefore, there is a clear need for a sequence similarity search tool that can rapidly detect weak similarity in large datasets. RESULTS: We developed a tool, which we named CLAST (CUDA implemented large-scale alignment search tool), that enables analyses of millions of reads and thousands of reference genome sequences, and runs on NVIDIA Fermi architecture graphics processing units. CLAST has four main advantages over existing alignment tools. First, CLAST was capable of identifying sequence similarities ~80.8 times faster than BLAST and 9.6 times faster than BLAT. Second, CLAST executes global alignment as the default (local alignment is also an option), enabling CLAST to assign reads to taxonomic and functional groups based on evolutionarily distant nucleotide sequences with high accuracy. Third, CLAST does not need a preprocessed sequence database like Burrows-Wheeler Transform-based tools, and this enables CLAST to incorporate large, frequently updated sequence databases. Fourth, CLAST requires <2 GB of main memory, making it possible to run CLAST on a standard desktop computer or server node. CONCLUSIONS: CLAST achieved very high speed (similar to the Burrows-Wheeler Transform-based Bowtie 2 for long reads) and sensitivity (equal to BLAST, BLAT, and FR-HIT) without the need for extensive database preprocessing or a specialized computing platform. Our results demonstrate that CLAST has the potential to be one of the most powerful and realistic approaches to analyze the massive amount of sequence data from next-generation sequencing technologies.
How many times is CLAST faster than BLAST?
58f6295a70f9fc6f0f000019_001
{ "answer_start": [ 1036 ], "text": [ "80.8 times" ] }
MR and CT imaging in the Dyke-Davidoff-Masson syndrome. Report of three cases and contribution to pathogenesis and differential diagnosis. Cerebral hemiatrophy or Dyke-Davidoff-Masson syndrome is a condition characterized by seizures, facial asymmetry, contralateral hemiplegia or hemiparesis, and mental retardation. These findings are due to cerebral injury that may occur early in life or in utero. The radiological features are unilateral loss of cerebral volume and associated compensatory bone alterations in the calvarium, like thickening, hyperpneumatization of the paranasal sinuses and mastoid cells and elevation of the petrous ridge. The authors describe three cases. Classical findings of the syndrome are present in variable degrees according to the extent of the brain injury. Pathogenesis is commented.
What is the characteristic feature of the Dyke-Davidoff-Masson syndrome.
55032e65e9bde69634000034_013
{ "answer_start": [ 139 ], "text": [ "Cerebral hemiatrophy" ] }
Characteristics of Women Enrolled into a Randomized Clinical Trial of Dapivirine Vaginal Ring for HIV-1 Prevention. INTRODUCTION: Women in sub-Saharan Africa are a priority population for evaluation of new biomedical HIV-1 prevention strategies. Antiretroviral pre-exposure prophylaxis is a promising prevention approach; however, clinical trials among young women using daily or coitally-dependent products have found low adherence. Antiretroviral-containing vaginal microbicide rings, which release medication over a month or longer, may reduce these adherence challenges. METHODS: ASPIRE (A Study to Prevent Infection with a Ring for Extended Use) is a phase III, randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled trial testing the safety and effectiveness of a vaginal ring containing the non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor dapivirine for prevention of HIV-1 infection. We describe the baseline characteristics of African women enrolled in the ASPIRE trial. RESULTS: Between August 2012 and June 2014, 5516 women were screened and 2629 HIV-1 seronegative women between 18-45 years of age were enrolled from 15 research sites in Malawi, South Africa, Uganda, and Zimbabwe. The median age was 26 years (IQR 22-31) and the majority (59%) were unmarried. Nearly 100% of participants reported having a primary sex partner in the prior three months but 43% did not know the HIV-1 status of their primary partner; 17% reported additional concurrent partners. Nearly two-thirds (64%) reported having disclosed to primary partners about planned vaginal ring use in the trial. Sexually transmitted infections were prevalent: 12% had Chlamydia trachomatis, 7% Trichomonas vaginalis, 4% Neisseria gonorrhoeae, and 1% syphilis. CONCLUSIONS: African HIV-1 seronegative women at risk of HIV -1 infection were successfully enrolled into a phase III trial of dapivirine vaginal ring for HIV-1 prevention.
Which infection can be prevented with Dapivirine?
5880b812c872c95565000006_022
{ "answer_start": [ 864 ], "text": [ "HIV" ] }
Down-regulation of the c-Jun N-terminal kinase (JNK) phosphatase M3/6 and activation of JNK by hydrogen peroxide and pyrrolidine dithiocarbamate. Oxidative stress activates the c-Jun N-terminal kinase (JNK) pathway. However, the exact mechanisms by which reactive oxygen species (ROS) activate JNK are unclear. We found that the ability of hydrogen peroxide (H(2)O(2)) to induce JNK activation varied in different cell types. Pyrrolidine dithiocarbamate (PDTC), a presumed antioxidant, induced JNK activation on its own and enhanced JNK activation by H(2)O(2) in many cell types, including Jurkat, HEK293, and LNCaP and Tsu-Pr1 prostate cancer cells. The activation of JNK by PDTC, in the presence or absence of exogenous H(2)O(2), was dependent on its chelating ability to metal ions, most likely copper ions. Despite the strong JNK-activating ability, H(2)O(2) plus PDTC did not induce significant activation of the upstream kinases, SEK1/MKK4 and MKK7. However, the JNK inactivation rate was slower in cells treated with H(2)O(2) plus PDTC compared with the rate in cells treated with ultraviolet C (UV-C). Treatment of H(2)O(2) plus PDTC significantly decreased the expression levels of a JNK phosphatase, M3/6 (also named hVH-5), but not the levels of other phosphatases (PP2A and PP4). In contrast, UV-C irradiation did not cause the down-regulation of M3/6. These results suggest that JNK activation by H(2)O(2) plus PDTC resulted from the down-regulation of JNK phosphatases. Our data also reveal a necessity to carefully evaluate the pharmacological and biochemical properties of PDTC.
Which protein is affected by dusp8 activation?
5148691bd24251bc0500002d_004
{ "answer_start": [ 1466 ], "text": [ "JNK" ] }
Tietz/Waardenburg type 2A syndrome associated with posterior microphthalmos in two unrelated patients with novel MITF gene mutations. Tietz syndrome and Waardenburg syndrome type 2A are allelic conditions caused by MITF mutations. Tietz syndrome is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern and is characterized by congenital deafness and generalized skin, hair, and eye hypopigmentation, while Waardenburg syndrome type 2A typically includes variable degrees of sensorineural hearing loss and patches of de-pigmented skin, hair, and irides. In this paper, we report two unrelated families with MITF mutations. The first family showed an autosomal dominant pattern and variable expressivity. The second patient was isolated. MITF gene analysis in the first family demonstrated a c.648A>C heterozygous mutation in exon 8 c.648A>C; p. (R216S), while in the isolated patient, an apparently de novo heterozygous c.1183_1184insG truncating mutation was demonstrated in exon 10. All patients except one had bilateral reduced ocular anteroposterior axial length and a high hyperopic refractive error corresponding to posterior microphthalmos, features that have not been described as part of the disease. Our results suggest that posterior microphthalmos might be part of the clinical characteristics of Tietz/Waardenburg syndrome type 2A and expand both the clinical and molecular spectrum of the disease. © 2016 Wiley Periodicals, Inc.
Which mutated gene is associated with Waardenburg and Tietz syndromes?
58a57f9460087bc10a00001f_040
{ "answer_start": [ 113 ], "text": [ "MITF" ] }
Daratumumab, a novel therapeutic human CD38 monoclonal antibody, induces killing of multiple myeloma and other hematological tumors. CD38, a type II transmembrane glycoprotein highly expressed in hematological malignancies including multiple myeloma (MM), represents a promising target for mAb-based immunotherapy. In this study, we describe the cytotoxic mechanisms of action of daratumumab, a novel, high-affinity, therapeutic human mAb against a unique CD38 epitope. Daratumumab induced potent Ab-dependent cellular cytotoxicity in CD38-expressing lymphoma- and MM-derived cell lines as well as in patient MM cells, both with autologous and allogeneic effector cells. Daratumumab stood out from other CD38 mAbs in its strong ability to induce complement-dependent cytotoxicity in patient MM cells. Importantly, daratumumab-induced Ab-dependent cellular cytotoxicity and complement-dependent cytotoxicity were not affected by the presence of bone marrow stromal cells, indicating that daratumumab can effectively kill MM tumor cells in a tumor-preserving bone marrow microenvironment. In vivo, daratumumab was highly active and interrupted xenograft tumor growth at low dosing. Collectively, our results show the versatility of daratumumab to effectively kill CD38-expressing tumor cells, including patient MM cells, via diverse cytotoxic mechanisms. These findings support clinical development of daratumumab for the treatment of CD38-positive MM tumors.
What is the target of daratumumab?
5880aef4c872c95565000001_039
{ "answer_start": [ 456 ], "text": [ "CD38" ] }
CancerSubtypes: an R/Bioconductor package for molecular cancer subtype identification, validation and visualization. Summary: Identifying molecular cancer subtypes from multi-omics data is an important step in the personalized medicine. We introduce CancerSubtypes, an R package for identifying cancer subtypes using multi-omics data, including gene expression, miRNA expression and DNA methylation data. CancerSubtypes integrates four main computational methods which are highly cited for cancer subtype identification and provides a standardized framework for data pre-processing, feature selection, and result follow-up analyses, including results computing, biology validation and visualization. The input and output of each step in the framework are packaged in the same data format, making it convenience to compare different methods. The package is useful for inferring cancer subtypes from an input genomic dataset, comparing the predictions from different well-known methods and testing new subtype discovery methods, as shown with different application scenarios in the Supplementary Material. Availability and implementation: The package is implemented in R and available under GPL-2 license from the Bioconductor website (http://bioconductor.org/packages/CancerSubtypes/). Contact: thuc.le@unisa.edu.au or jiuyong.li@unisa.edu.au. Supplementary information: Supplementary data are available at Bioinformatics online.
Which R/Bioconductor package has been developed for cancer subtype identification?
5a6e3155b750ff445500003f_009
{ "answer_start": [ 405 ], "text": [ "CancerSubtypes" ] }
FullSSR: Microsatellite Finder and Primer Designer. Microsatellites are genomic sequences comprised of tandem repeats of short nucleotide motifs widely used as molecular markers in population genetics. FullSSR is a new bioinformatic tool for microsatellite (SSR) loci detection and primer design using genomic data from NGS assay. The software was tested with 2000 sequences of Oryza sativa shotgun sequencing project from the National Center of Biotechnology Information Trace Archive and with partial genome sequencing with ROCHE 454® from Caiman latirostris, Salvator merianae, Aegla platensis, and Zilchiopsis collastinensis. FullSSR performance was compared against other similar SSR search programs. The results of the use of this kind of approach depend on the parameters set by the user. In addition, results can be affected by the analyzed sequences because of differences among the genomes. FullSSR simplifies the detection of SSRs and primer design on a big data set. The command line interface of FullSSR was intended to be used as part of genomic analysis tools pipeline; however, it can be used as a stand-alone program because the results are easily interpreted for a nonexpert user.
Which tool exists for microsatellite (SSR) loci detection and primer design?
5a6fa61ab750ff4455000060_002
{ "answer_start": [ 202 ], "text": [ "FullSSR" ] }
Lack of association of variants previously associated with anti-TNF medication response in rheumatoid arthritis patients: results from a homogeneous Greek population. Treatment strategies blocking tumor necrosis factor (anti-TNF) have proven very successful in patients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA), showing beneficial effects in approximately 50-60% of the patients. However, a significant subset of patients does not respond to anti-TNF agents, for reasons that are still unknown. The aim of this study was to validate five single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) of PTPRC, CD226, AFF3, MyD88 and CHUK gene loci that have previously been reported to predict anti-TNF outcome. In addition, two markers of RA susceptibility, namely TRAF1/C5 and STAT4 were assessed, in a cohort of anti-TNF-treated RA patients, from the homogeneous Greek island of Crete, Greece. The RA patient cohort consisted of 183 patients treated with either of 3 anti-TNF biologic agents (infliximab, adalimumab and etanercept) from the Clinic of Rheumatology of the University Hospital of Crete. The SNPs were genotyped by TaqMan assays or following the Restriction Fragments Length Polymorphisms (RFLPs) approach. Disease activity score in 28 joints (DAS28) at baseline and after 6 months were available for all patients and analysis of good versus poor response at 6 months was performed for each SNP. None of the 7 genetic markers correlated with treatment response. We conclude that the gene polymorphisms under investigation are not strongly predictive of anti-TNF response in RA patients from Greece.
What percentage of rheumatoid arthritis patients are responsive to anti-TNF therapy?
58e79e703e8b6dc87c00000a_001
{ "answer_start": [ 346 ], "text": [ "50-60%" ] }
Oral factor Xa inhibitors for the prevention of stroke in atrial fibrillation. PURPOSE OF REVIEW: Prevention of stroke and systemic emboli is paramount in the management of atrial fibrillation. Although warfarin is the predominant anticoagulant used in patients with atrial fibrillation, it has significant limitations that have impeded appropriate use of stroke prophylaxis in eligible patients with atrial fibrillation. Consequently, much research has been focused on finding an alternative to warfarin. We review the potential alternatives in development and evaluate the current evidence concerning their safety and efficacy. RECENT FINDINGS: Oral direct factor Xa inhibitors are potentially well tolerated and effective replacements for warfarin. These agents do not require cofactors and offer selective inhibition at a critical step of amplification in the coagulation cascade. Multiple direct anti-factor Xa agents are currently undergoing evaluation in phase I, II, and III trials. Early results suggest that these novel anticoagulants have favorable pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic profiles with minimal-to-no requirements for therapeutic monitoring. Two direct factor Xa inhibitors are emerging from phase II trials (betrixaban and YM150) and three are being evaluated in phase III trials (apixaban, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban) for the prevention of stroke and systemic emboli in patients with atrial fibrillation. The phase III trials of apixaban and rivaroxaban have completed enrollment and are in the follow-up phase. SUMMARY: Given the growing population of patients with atrial fibrillation, there is a great interest in finding new therapies for oral anticoagulation. The direct factor Xa inhibitors may offer several promising alternatives to warfarin therapy.
Which clotting factor is inhibited by betrixaban?
55200c606b348bb82c000013_072
{ "answer_start": [ 1183 ], "text": [ "Xa" ] }
Targeting chronic myeloid leukemia stem cells. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) arises as a consequence of a chromosomal translocation giving rise to the Philadelphia chromosome and Bcr-Abl oncogene. CML is a clonal disease of stem cell origin and an excellent example of a malignancy in which tumor-initiating cells may hold the key to disease eradication. The known molecular basis of CML has enabled the development of Abl-specific tyrosine kinase inhibitors, such as imatinib mesylate. However, the success of tyrosine kinase inhibitors, as rationally designed first-line therapies, has been tempered by problems of disease persistence and resistance. Residual disease has been shown to be enriched within the stem cell compartment and to persist at stable levels for up to 5 years of complete cytogenetic response. This finding has led to further searches for novel strategies aimed at eliminating these cells; such strategies may be essential in achieving cure. The most significant recent findings are discussed in this review.
What tyrosine kinase, involved in a Philadelphia- chromosome positive chronic myelogenous leukemia, is the target of Imatinib (Gleevec)?
5324a8ac9b2d7acc7e000018_053
{ "answer_start": [ 180 ], "text": [ "Bcr-Abl" ] }
An oral Syk kinase inhibitor in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis: a three-month randomized, placebo-controlled, phase II study in patients with active rheumatoid arthritis that did not respond to biologic agents. OBJECTIVE: To assess the efficacy and safety of R788 (fostamatinib disodium), an inhibitor of spleen tyrosine kinase (Syk), in patients with active rheumatoid arthritis (RA) that did not respond to biologic therapies. METHODS: A total of 219 patients with active RA in whom treatment with biologic agents had failed were enrolled in a 3-month multicenter, randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled trial of R788. The primary end point was the percentage of patients who met the American College of Rheumatology 20% improvement criteria (achieved an ACR20 response) at month 3. Secondary end points included changes in inflammation and damage, as assessed by magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), and changes in the Disease Activity Score. RESULTS: The ACR20 response in the R788 100 mg twice daily group was 38%, versus 37% in the placebo group, at month 3. No significant differences were achieved in the ACR20, ACR50, or ACR70 response levels at 3 months. There were differences between the groups from baseline to month 3 in the secondary end points C-reactive protein (CRP) level and synovitis score on MRI. There were baseline differences in steroid use, prior biologic use, and synovitis score on MRI between the R788 group and the placebo group that may have affected the outcomes. A high placebo response rate was seen in this trial, and exploratory analysis suggested that this may in part have been driven by patients who entered the trial with an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate but normal CRP level. CONCLUSION: Our findings indicate that there were no differences in the primary end point between the R788 and placebo groups. Differences were observed between the R788 and placebo groups in secondary end points, particularly in those patients who entered the study with an elevated CRP level.
Which enzyme is inhibited by a drug fostamatinib?
53357ca0d6d3ac6a3400004b_001
{ "answer_start": [ 312 ], "text": [ "spleen tyrosine kinase" ] }
Ackee (Blighia sapida) hypoglycin A toxicity: dose response assessment in laboratory rats. Hypoglycin A, the toxin found in the ackee fruit, has been reported in the literature as the causative agent in incidences of acute toxicity termed Jamaican vomiting sickness or toxic hypoglycemic syndrome. Hypoglycin A toxicity in this study was determined by feeding male and female Sprague-Dawley rats a control diet and ackee diets that contained 4-3840 ppm of hypoglycin. The fixed dose method was used to quantify the acute toxic dose of hypoglycin A and was determined by feeding a diet consisting of the lowest hypoglycin A concentration; this was increased to the next highest dose after 24h until toxicity was observed. The maximum tolerated dose (MTD) of hypoglycin A was determined by feeding rats the ackee and control diets over a 30-day period. The acute toxic dose for male and female rats was 231.19+/-62.5 5mg hypoglycinA/kgBW and 215.99+/-63.33 mg hypoglycinA/kgBW, respectively. This was considerably greater than the dose of 100 mg hypoglycin/kgBW reported in a previous study when aqueous hypoglycin was administered orally. The MTD of hypoglycin A in both male and female rats was 1.50+/-0.07 mg hypoglycinA/kgBW/day. These findings suggest that the form in which hypoglycin in ackee is administered could affect the toxicological properties it exhibits. Therefore, for the purpose of a hazard assessment, it may be best administered within the matrix of the fruit, which is the form that humans consume it.
What fruit causes Jamaican vomiting sickness?
5895f7e978275d0c4a000001_010
{ "answer_start": [ 128 ], "text": [ "ackee fruit" ] }
A Tyrosinase missense mutation causes albinism in the Wistar rat. Tyrosinase serves as a key enzyme in the synthesis of melanin. In humans mutations in the TYR gene are associated with type 1 oculocutaneous albinism (OCA1) that leads to reduced or absent pigmentation of skin, hair and eye. Various mutations causing OCA in man, mouse, rabbit and cattle have been identified throughout the Tyrosinase gene including nonsense, missense, frameshift and splice site alterations. Here we report a missense substitution at codon R299H in exon 2 of the Tyr gene in the albino Wistar rat. As this very exchange has already been described in OCA patients, our findings reinforce the significance of this region for normal catalytic activity of tyrosinase protein.
Which mutated enzyme is responsible for oculocutaneous 1 (OCA1)-type albinism?
58cbb98c02b8c60953000034_090
{ "answer_start": [ 156 ], "text": [ "TYR" ] }
Marfan's syndrome: an overview. Marfan's syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition with an estimated prevalence of one in 10,000 to 20,000 individuals. This rare hereditary connective tissue disorder affects many parts of the body. The diagnosis of Marfan's syndrome is established in accordance with a review of the diagnostic criteria, known as the Ghent nosology, through a comprehensive assessment largely based on a combination of major and minor clinical manifestations in various organ systems and the family history. Aortic root dilation and mitral valve prolapse are the main presentations among the cardiovascular malformations of Marfan's syndrome. The pathogenesis of Marfan's syndrome has not been fully elucidated. However, fibrillin-1 gene mutations are believed to exert a dominant negative effect. Therefore, Marfan's syndrome is termed a fibrillinopathy, along with other connective tissue disorders with subtle differences in clinical manifestations. The treatment may include prophylactic β-blockers and angiotensin II-receptor blockers in order to slow down the dilation of the ascending aorta, and prophylactic aortic surgery. Importantly, β-blocker therapy may reduce TGF-β activation, which has been recognized as a contributory factor in Marfan's syndrome. The present article aims to provide an overview of this rare hereditary disorder.
What tissue is commonly affected in Marfan's syndrome
58dd0dde8acda34529000027_013
{ "answer_start": [ 892 ], "text": [ "connective tissue" ] }
Reversal agents for use with direct and indirect anticoagulants. PURPOSE: The properties of three oral anticoagulant-specific reversal agents are reviewed, and guidance is presented to assist pharmacists in planning for the agents' introduction to the market. SUMMARY: Idarucizumab, which received Food and Drug Administration approval in October 2015, is a humanized monoclonal antibody fragment that immediately neutralizes the anticoagulant effect of dabigatran, as evidenced by reduced unbound dabigatran concentrations and normalized coagulation tests. Preliminary Phase III trial results demonstrated a median maximum reversal of 100%, a median time to bleeding cessation of 11.4 hours, and normal intraoperative hemostasis in 92% of patients requiring anticoagulation reversal before an urgent procedure. Andexanet alfa is a factor Xa (FXa) decoy that binds to direct and indirect FXa inhibitors. In Phase III trials in healthy volunteers, andexanet alfa reduced anti-FXa activity by more than 90%, reduced the concentration of unbound direct FXa inhibitor, and inhibited thrombin generation. Ciraparantag is a reversal agent under development for reversal of anticoagulation with direct and indirect FXa inhibitors and certain factor IIa inhibitors; it exerts its effect through hydrogen bonding. Concerns for thromboembolic events directly related to administration of idarucizumab, andexanet alfa, or ciraparantag have not arisen. Pharmacists need to begin preparing for the introduction of these specific reversal agents through protocol development and provider education; in addition, pharmacy departments need to plan for procurement and storage. The specific reversal agents should be incorporated into antithrombotic stewardship or other clinical pharmacy programs for surveillance. CONCLUSION: As agents that provide rapid reversal of direct oral anticoagulant activity become available, advance planning will help hospitals to optimize their use.
Andexanet Alfa is an antidote of which clotting factor inhibitors?
5880b073c872c95565000003_022
{ "answer_start": [ 832 ], "text": [ "factor Xa" ] }
Distinctive neuropathology revealed by alpha-synuclein antibodies in hereditary parkinsonism and dementia linked to chromosome 4p. The identification of the alpha-synuclein gene on chromosome 4q as a locus for familial Lewy-body parkinsonism and of alpha-synuclein as a component of Lewy bodies has heralded a new era in the study of Parkinson's disease. We have identified a large family with Lewy body parkinsonism linked to a novel locus on chromosome 4p15 that does not have a mutation in the alpha-synuclein gene. Here we report the clinical and neuropathological findings in an individual from this family and describe unusual high molecular weight alpha-synuclein-immunoreactive proteins in brain homogenates from brain regions with the most marked neuropathology. Distinctive histopathology was revealed with alpha-synuclein immunostaining, including pleomorphic Lewy bodies, synuclein-positive glial inclusions and widespread, severe neuritic dystrophy. We also discuss the relationship of this familial disorder to a Lewy body disease clinical spectrum, ranging from Parkinson's disease to dementia with psychosis.
Against which protein is the antibody used for immonostaining of Lewy bodies raised?
53189656b166e2b80600001c_010
{ "answer_start": [ 249 ], "text": [ "alpha-synuclein" ] }
Peripheral neuropathy and parkinsonism: a large clinical and pathogenic spectrum. Peripheral neuropathy (PN) has been reported in idiopathic and hereditary forms of parkinsonism, but the pathogenic mechanisms are unclear and likely heterogeneous. Levodopa-induced vitamin B12 deficiency has been discussed as a causal factor of PN in idiopathic Parkinson's disease, but peripheral nervous system involvement might also be a consequence of the underlying neurodegenerative process. Occurrence of PN with parkinsonism has been associated with a panel of mitochondrial cytopathies, more frequently related to a nuclear gene defect and mainly polymerase gamma (POLG1) gene. Parkin (PARK2) gene mutations are responsible for juvenile parkinsonism, and possible peripheral nervous system involvement has been reported. Rarely, an association of parkinsonism with PN may be encountered in other neurodegenerative diseases such as fragile X-associated tremor and ataxia syndrome related to premutation CGG repeat expansion in the fragile X mental retardation (FMR1) gene, Machado-Joseph disease related to an abnormal CAG repeat expansion in ataxin-3 (ATXN3) gene, Kufor-Rakeb syndrome caused by mutations in ATP13A2 gene, or in hereditary systemic disorders such as Gaucher disease due to mutations in the β-glucocerebrosidase (GBA) gene and Chediak-Higashi syndrome due to LYST gene mutations. This article reviews conditions in which PN may coexist with parkinsonism.
Which syndrome is associated with mutations in the LYST gene?
56f564f909dd18d46b000009_013
{ "answer_start": [ 1335 ], "text": [ "Chediak-Higashi syndrome" ] }
Clinical scores for the identification of stroke and transient ischaemic attack in the emergency department: a cross-sectional study. OBJECTIVE: To compare the sensitivity and specificity of bedside diagnostic stroke scales in patients with suspected stroke. DESIGN: A cross-sectional observational study of patients with suspected acute stroke in an emergency department in a UK hospital. DIAGNOSTIC SCALES: The results of an assessment with the Recognition of Stroke in the Emergency Room (ROSIER) scale, the Face Arm Speech Test (FAST) scale and the diagnosis of definite or probable stroke by an emergency department. Reference standard A consensus diagnosis of stroke or transient ischaemic attack (TIA) made after discussion by an expert panel (members included stroke physicians, neurologists and neuroradiologists), who had access to the clinical findings, imaging and subsequent clinical course, but were blinded to the results of the assessments by emergency-department staff. RESULTS: In 356 patients with complete data, the expert panel assigned a diagnosis of acute stroke or TIA in 246 and a diagnosis of mimic in 110. The ROSIER had a sensitivity of 83% (95% CI 78 to 87) and specificity of 44% (95% CI 34 to 53), and the FAST had a sensitivity of 81% (95% CI 76 to 86) and a specificity of 39% (95% CI 30 to 48). There was no detectable difference between the scales in sensitivity (p = 0.39) or specificity (p = 0.30). CONCLUSIONS: The simpler FAST scale could replace the more complex ROSIER for the initial assessment of patients with suspected acute stroke in the emergency department.
ROSIER scale is used for which disorder?
551fd9c06b348bb82c000012_011
{ "answer_start": [ 1570 ], "text": [ "stroke" ] }
SEA0400, a specific inhibitor of the Na+-Ca2+ exchanger, attenuates sodium nitroprusside-induced apoptosis in cultured rat microglia. 1. Using SEA0400, a potent and selective inhibitor of the Na+-Ca2+ exchanger (NCX), we examined whether NCX is involved in nitric oxide (NO)-induced disturbance of endoplasmic reticulum (ER) Ca2+ homeostasis followed by apoptosis in cultured rat microglia. 2. Sodium nitroprusside (SNP), an NO donor, decreased cell viability in a dose- and time-dependent manner with apoptotic cell death in cultured microglia. 3. Treatment with SNP decreased the ER Ca2+ levels as evaluated by measuring the increase in cytosolic Ca2+ level induced by exposing cells to thapsigargin, an irreversible inhibitor of ER Ca2+-ATPase. 4. The treatment with SNP also increased mRNA expression of CHOP and GPR78, makers of ER stress. 5. SEA0400 at 0.3-1.0 microM protected microglia against SNP-induced apoptosis. 6. SEA0400 blocked not only the SNP-induced decrease in ER Ca2+ levels but also SNP-induced increase in CHOP and GRP78 mRNAs. 7. SEA0400 did not affect capacitative Ca2+ entry in the presence and absence of SNP. 8. SNP increased Na+-dependent 45Ca2+ uptake and this increase was blocked by SEA0400. 9. These results suggest that SNP induces apoptosis via the ER stress pathway and SEA0400 attenuates SNP-induced apoptosis via suppression of the ER stress in cultured microglia. Our findings imply that NCX plays a role in ER Ca2+ depletion under pathological conditions.
The small molecule SEA0400 is an inhibitor of which ion antiporter/exchanger?
5506c3e38e1671127b00000a_045
{ "answer_start": [ 212 ], "text": [ "NCX" ] }
Towards effective immunotherapy of myeloma: enhanced elimination of myeloma cells by combination of lenalidomide with the human CD38 monoclonal antibody daratumumab. BACKGROUND: In our efforts to develop novel effective treatment regimens for multiple myeloma we evaluated the potential benefits of combining the immunomodulatory drug lenalidomide with daratumumab. Daratumumab is a novel human CD38 monoclonal antibody which kills CD38+ multiple myeloma cells via antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity, complement-dependent cytotoxicity and apoptosis. DESIGN AND METHODS: To explore the effect of lenalidomide combined with daratumumab, we first carried out standard antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity and complement-dependent cytotoxicity assays in which the CD38+ multiple myeloma cell line UM-9 and primary multiple myeloma cells isolated from patients were used as target cells. We also tested the effect of lenalidomide on daratumumab-dependent cell-mediated-cytotoxicity and complement-dependent cytotoxicity of multiple myeloma cells directly in the bone marrow mononuclear cells of multiple myeloma patients. Finally, we determined the daratumumab-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity using peripheral blood mononuclear cells of multiple myeloma patients receiving lenalidomide treatment. RESULTS: Daratumumab-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity of purified primary multiple myeloma cells, as well as of the UM-9 cell line, was significantly augmented by lenalidomide pre-treatment of the effector cells derived from peripheral blood mononuclear cells from healthy individuals. More importantly, we demonstrated a clear synergy between lenalidomide and daratumumab-induced antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity directly in the bone marrow mononuclear cells of multiple myeloma patients, indicating that lenalidomide can also potentiate the daratumumab-dependent lysis of myeloma cells by activating the autologous effector cells within the natural environment of malignant cells. Finally, daratumumab-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity was significantly up-regulated in peripheral blood mononuclear cells derived from 3 multiple myeloma patients during lenalidomide treatment. CONCLUSIONS: Our results indicate that powerful and complementary effects may be achieved by combining lenalidomide and daratumumab in the clinical management of multiple myeloma.
What is the target of daratumumab?
5880aef4c872c95565000001_021
{ "answer_start": [ 432 ], "text": [ "CD38" ] }
Relation of the International Restless Legs Syndrome Study Group rating scale with the Clinical Global Impression severity scale, the restless legs syndrome 6-item questionnaire, and the restless legs syndrome-quality of life questionnaire. BACKGROUND: The SP790 study (ClinicalTrials.gov, NCT00136045) showed benefits of rotigotine over placebo in improving symptom severity of restless legs syndrome (RLS), also known as Willis-Ekbom disease, on the International Restless Legs Syndrome Study Group rating scale (IRLS), Clinical Global Impression item 1 (CGI-1), RLS 6-item questionnaire (RLS-6), and the RLS-quality of life questionnaire (RLS-QoL) in patients with moderate to severe idiopathic RLS. To provide clinical context for the IRLS and to guide the choice of assessment scales for RLS studies, our post hoc analysis of SP790 data evaluated associations between the IRLS and the CGI-1, IRLS and RLS-6, and the IRLS and RLS-QoL. METHODS: Scale associations were analyzed at baseline and at the end of maintenance (EoM) using data from the safety set (rotigotine and placebo groups combined [n=458]). Changes from baseline to EoM in IRLS score vs comparator scale scores also were analyzed. RESULTS: There was a trend towards increasing IRLS severity category with increasing CGI-1, RLS-6, and RLS-QoL score. Pearson product moment correlation coefficients showed correlations between IRLS and comparator scale scores at baseline and EoM as well as correlations for change from baseline to EoM. CONCLUSION: Correlations between the IRLS and comparator scales were substantial. These data indicate that the IRLS is clinically meaningful. The IRLS and CGI-1 are generally sufficient to evaluate the overall severity and impact of RLS symptoms in clinical trials.
Willis-Ekbom disease is also known as?
5891f9e549702f2e01000002_032
{ "answer_start": [ 466 ], "text": [ "Restless Legs Syndrome" ] }
Appropriateness of diagnosis of streptococcal pharyngitis among Thai community pharmacists according to the Centor criteria. Background Inappropriate use of antibiotic treatment for pharyngitis by community pharmacists is prevalent in developing countries. Little is known about how the pharmacists identify patients with bacterial pharyngitis. Objective To ascertain the appropriateness of diagnosis of streptococcal pharyngitis among Thai community pharmacists according to the Centor criteria and to identify factors related to antibiotic dispensing. Setting 1040 Thai community pharmacists. Method A cross-sectional survey of community pharmacists was conducted in November 2012 to March 2013. The self-administered questionnaires were mailed to 57 % of community pharmacists in the south of Thailand (n = 1040). The survey included questions on diagnosis of streptococcal pharyngitis, knowledge on pharyngitis, and attitudes and control beliefs regarding antibiotic dispensing. Main outcome measure The appropriateness of diagnosis of streptococcal pharyngitis according to the original and modified Centor criteria and determinants of antibiotic dispensing including demographic characteristics of pharmacists, knowledge on pharyngitis, and attitudes and control beliefs on antibiotic dispensing. Results Approximately 68 % completed the questionnaires (n = 703). Compared to the pharmacists who reported not dispensing antibiotics in the hypothetical case with common cold, those reported dispensing antibiotics were more likely to consider the following conditions-presence of cough, mild sore throat and patients with age >60 years as cues for diagnosis of streptococcal pharyngitis (p < 0.05). The use of fewer scores of the clinical prediction rules for diagnosis was observed in antibiotic dispensers, compared to who did not do so (p < 0.005). Antibiotic dispensing was positively associated with period of dispensing experience (>5 years) [odds ratio (OR) 1.52; 95 % confidence interval (CI) 1.03-2.23], belief that antibiotics could shorten duration of pharyngitis (OR 1.48; 95 % CI 1.11-1.99), belief that antibiotics could prevent the complications (OR 1.44; 95 % CI 1.09-1.91) and belief that dispensing antibiotics could satisfy the patients (OR 1.31; 95 % CI 1.01-1.71). Nonetheless, antibiotic dispensing was negatively associated with knowledge about pharyngitis (OR 0.83; 95 % CI 0.75-0.93). Conclusion Pharmacists who are knowledgeable on the Centor criteria are more likely to appropriately diagnose streptococcal pharyngitis and less likely to dispense antibiotics in such case.
Centor criteria are used for which disease?
5a6f960fb750ff445500005c_004
{ "answer_start": [ 404 ], "text": [ "streptococcal pharyngitis" ] }
Tripolin A, a novel small-molecule inhibitor of aurora A kinase, reveals new regulation of HURP's distribution on microtubules. Mitotic regulators exhibiting gain of function in tumor cells are considered useful cancer therapeutic targets for the development of small-molecule inhibitors. The human Aurora kinases are a family of such targets. In this study, from a panel of 105 potential small-molecule inhibitors, two compounds Tripolin A and Tripolin B, inhibited Aurora A kinase activity in vitro. In human cells however, only Tripolin A acted as an Aurora A inhibitor. We combined in vitro, in vivo single cell and in silico studies to demonstrate the biological action of Tripolin A, a non-ATP competitive inhibitor. Tripolin A reduced the localization of pAurora A on spindle microtubules (MTs), affected centrosome integrity, spindle formation and length, as well as MT dynamics in interphase, consistent with Aurora A inhibition by RNAi or other specific inhibitors, such as MLN8054 or MLN8237. Interestingly, Tripolin A affected the gradient distribution towards the chromosomes, but not the MT binding of HURP (Hepatoma Up-Regulated Protein), a MT-associated protein (MAP) and substrate of the Aurora A kinase. Therefore Tripolin A reveals a new way of regulating mitotic MT stabilizers through Aurora A phosphorylation. Tripolin A is predicted to bind Aurora A similarly but not identical to MLN8054, therefore it could be used to dissect pathways orchestrated by Aurora kinases as well as a scaffold for further inhibitor development.
Which kinase is inhibited by Tripolin A?
56cb9b065795f9a73e000032_006
{ "answer_start": [ 554 ], "text": [ "Aurora A" ] }
Proliferation of neural and neuronal progenitors after global brain ischemia in young adult macaque monkeys. To investigate the effect of global cerebral ischemia on brain cell proliferation in young adult macaques, we infused 5-bromo-2'-deoxyuridine (BrdU), a DNA replication indicator, into monkeys subjected to ischemia or sham-operated. Subsequent quantification by BrdU immunohistochemistry revealed a significant postischemic increase in the number of BrdU-labeled cells in the hippocampal dentate gyrus, subventricular zone of the temporal horn of the lateral ventricle, and temporal neocortex. In all animals, 20-40% of the newly generated cells in the dentate gyrus and subventricular zone expressed the neural progenitor cell markers Musashi1 or Nestin. A few BrdU-positive cells in postischemic monkeys were double-stained for markers of neuronal progenitors (class III beta-tubulin, TUC4, doublecortin, or Hu), neurons (NeuN), or glia (S100beta or GFAP). Our results suggest that ischemia activates endogenous neuronal and glial precursors residing in diverse locations of the adult primate central nervous system.
Which intermediate filament (IF) protein can be used as a non-specific marker of the neuronal precursor cells of the subventricular zone?
5540ca8a0083d1bf0e000003_012
{ "answer_start": [ 756 ], "text": [ "Nestin" ] }
Plants contain a high number of proteins showing sequence similarity to the animal SUV39H family of histone methyltransferases. The SET domain, first identified within and named after proteins encoded by three Drosophila genes [Su(var)3-9, E(z), and Trithorax], is recognized as a signature motif for histone methyltransferases that are involved in epigenetic processes. The SUV39H family of SET domain proteins methylate specifically the residue lysine 9 of histone H3, creating a code for gene silencing. This family of proteins contain at their C termini a unique catalytic domain consisting of pre-SET, SET, and post-SET domains. Sequence homology-based searches identified 15 Arabidopsis, 14 maize, and 12 rice proteins that can be assigned to the SUV39H family. These high numbers in plants are in marked contrast to the situation in animals, in which each species appears to contain only two to three proteins of this family. Our phylogenetic analyses revealed that plant proteins can be classified into seven orthology groups. Representative members of each group can be found in single plant species, suggesting that different group members are evolutionarily conserved to perform specific functions.
What is the characteristic domain of histone methyltransferases?
532dcfc9d6d3ac6a34000021_017
{ "answer_start": [ 132 ], "text": [ "SET domain" ] }
Oral health in prevalent types of Ehlers-Danlos syndromes. BACKGROUND: The Ehlers-Danlos syndromes (EDS) comprise a heterogenous group of heritable disorders of connective tissue, characterized by joint hypermobility, skin hyperextensibility and tissue fragility. Most EDS types are caused by mutations in genes encoding different types of collagen or enzymes, essential for normal processing of collagen. METHODS: Oral health was assessed in 31 subjects with EDS (16 with hypermobility EDS, nine with classical EDS and six with vascular EDS), including signs and symptoms of temporomandibular disorders (TMD), alterations of dental hard tissues, oral mucosa and periodontium, and was compared with matched controls. RESULTS: All EDS subjects were symptomatic for TMD and reported recurrent temporomandibular joint (TMJ) dislocations. Abnormal pulp shape (13%) and pulp calcification (78%) were observed in subjects affected with classical EDS. Caries experience was higher in EDS compared with controls and was related to poor oral hygiene, influenced by increased mucosal fragility and restraint of (wrist) joint mobility. The overall periodontal status in EDS was poor, with 62% of EDS subjects presenting high periodontal treatment needs (community periodontal index for treatment need, CPITN = II). CONCLUSION: Oral health may be severely compromised in EDS as a result of specific alterations of collagen in orofacial structures. When considering dental treatment in EDS, a number of tissue responses (mucosa, periodontium, pulp) and precautions (TMJ dislocation) should be anticipated.
What tissue is most affected in Ehlers-Danlos syndromes?
58cdb41302b8c60953000042_010
{ "answer_start": [ 161 ], "text": [ "connective tissue" ] }
Telomerase inhibitor Imetelstat (GRN163L) limits the lifespan of human pancreatic cancer cells. Telomerase is required for the unlimited lifespan of cancer cells. The vast majority of pancreatic adenocarcinomas overexpress telomerase activity and blocking telomerase could limit their lifespan. GRN163L (Imetelstat) is a lipid-conjugated N3'→P5' thio-phosphoramidate oligonucleotide that blocks the template region of telomerase. The aim of this study was to define the effects of long-term GRN163L exposure on the maintenance of telomeres and lifespan of pancreatic cancer cells. Telomere size, telomerase activity, and telomerase inhibition response to GRN163L were measured in a panel of 10 pancreatic cancer cell lines. The cell lines exhibited large differences in levels of telomerase activity (46-fold variation), but most lines had very short telomeres (2-3 kb in size). GRN163L inhibited telomerase in all 10 pancreatic cancer cell lines, with IC50 ranging from 50 nM to 200 nM. Continuous GRN163L exposure of CAPAN1 (IC50 = 75 nM) and CD18 cells (IC50 = 204 nM) resulted in an initial rapid shortening of the telomeres followed by the maintenance of extremely short but stable telomeres. Continuous exposure to the drug eventually led to crisis and to a complete loss of viability after 47 (CAPAN1) and 69 (CD18) doublings. Crisis In these cells was accompanied by activation of a DNA damage response (γ-H2AX) and evidence of both senescence (SA-β-galactosidase activity) and apoptosis (sub-G1 DNA content, PARP cleavage). Removal of the drug after long-term GRN163L exposure led to a reactivation of telomerase and re-elongation of telomeres in the third week of cultivation without GRN163L. These findings show that the lifespan of pancreatic cancer cells can be limited by continuous telomerase inhibition. These results should facilitate the design of future clinical trials of GRN163L in patients with pancreatic cancer.
Which enzyme is inhibited by Imetelstat?
56c048acef6e39474100001c_005
{ "answer_start": [ 418 ], "text": [ "telomerase" ] }
Control of Panama disease of banana by rotating and intercropping with Chinese chive (Allium tuberosum Rottler): role of plant volatiles. Intercropping and rotating banana (Musa spp.) with Chinese chive (Allium tuberosum Rottler) has been used as an effective method to control Panama disease (Fusarium wilt) of banana in South China. However, the underlying mechanism is unknown. In this study, we used aqueous leachates and volatiles from Chinese chive to evaluate their antimicrobial activity on Fusarium oxysporum f. sp. cubense race 4 (FOC), the causal agent of Panama disease in banana, and identified the antifungal compounds. Both leaf and root leachates of Chinese chive displayed strong inhibition against FOC, but the concentrated leachates showed lower inhibition than the original leachates. In a sealed system volatiles emitted from the leaves and roots of Chinese chive inhibited mycelial growth of FOC. Volatile compounds emitted from the intact growing roots mimicking natural environment inhibited spore germination of FOC. We identified five volatiles including 2-methyl-2-pentenal and four organosulfur compounds (dimethyl trisulfide, dimethyl disulfide, dipropyl disulfide, and dipropyl trisulfide) from the leaves and roots of Chinese chive. All these compounds exhibited inhibitory effects on FOC, but 2-methyl-2-pentenal and dimethyl trisulfide showed stronger inhibition than the other three compounds. 2-Methyl-2-pentenal at 50-100 μl/l completely inhibited the mycelial growth of FOC. Our results demonstrate that antifungal volatiles released from Chinese chive help control Panama disease in banana. We conclude that intercropping and rotating banana with Chinese chive can control Panama disease and increase cropland biodiversity.
What is the causative agent of the "Panama disease" affecting bananas?
56b7083376d8bf8d13000001_003
{ "answer_start": [ 499 ], "text": [ "Fusarium oxysporum f. sp. cubense" ] }
DUX4 and DUX4 downstream target genes are expressed in fetal FSHD muscles. Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy (FSHD) is one of the most prevalent adult muscular dystrophies. The common clinical signs usually appear during the second decade of life but when the first molecular dysregulations occur is still unknown. Our aim was to determine whether molecular dysregulations can be identified during FSHD fetal muscle development. We compared muscle biopsies derived from FSHD1 fetuses and the cells derived from some of these biopsies with biopsies and cells derived from control fetuses. We mainly focus on DUX4 isoform expression because the expression of DUX4 has been confirmed in both FSHD cells and biopsies by several laboratories. We measured DUX4 isoform expression by using qRT-PCR in fetal FSHD1 myotubes treated or not with an shRNA directed against DUX4 mRNA. We also analyzed DUX4 downstream target gene expression in myotubes and fetal or adult FSHD1 and control quadriceps biopsies. We show that both DUX4-FL isoforms are already expressed in FSHD1 myotubes. Interestingly, DUX4-FL expression level is much lower in trapezius than in quadriceps myotubes, which is confirmed by the level of expression of DUX4 downstream genes. We observed that TRIM43 and MBD3L2 are already overexpressed in FSHD1 fetal quadriceps biopsies, at similar levels to those observed in adult FSHD1 quadriceps biopsies. These results indicate that molecular markers of the disease are already expressed during fetal life, thus opening a new field of investigation for mechanisms leading to FSHD.
Which disease is associated with the ectopic expression of the protein encoded by the gene DUX4?
550f0e4c6a8cde6b72000003_024
{ "answer_start": [ 694 ], "text": [ "FSHD" ] }
Crystal clear: visualizing the intervention mechanism of the PD-1/PD-L1 interaction by two cancer therapeutic monoclonal antibodies. Antibody-based PD-1/PD-L1 blockade therapies have taken center stage in immunotherapies for cancer, with multiple clinical successes. PD-1 signaling plays pivotal roles in tumor-driven T-cell dysfunction. In contrast to prior approaches to generate or boost tumor-specific T-cell responses, antibody-based PD-1/PD-L1 blockade targets tumor-induced T-cell defects and restores pre-existing T-cell function to modulate antitumor immunity. In this review, the fundamental knowledge on the expression regulations and inhibitory functions of PD-1 and the present understanding of antibody-based PD-1/PD-L1 blockade therapies are briefly summarized. We then focus on the recent breakthrough work concerning the structural basis of the PD-1/PD-Ls interaction and how therapeutic antibodies, pembrolizumab targeting PD-1 and avelumab targeting PD-L1, compete with the binding of PD-1/PD-L1 to interrupt the PD-1/PD-L1 interaction. We believe that this structural information will benefit the design and improvement of therapeutic antibodies targeting PD-1 signaling.
What molecule is targeted by Avelumab?
5884c72fe56acf517600000f_003
{ "answer_start": [ 1009 ], "text": [ "PD-L1" ] }
Fostamatinib, a Syk inhibitor prodrug for the treatment of inflammatory diseases. Rigel Pharmaceuticals Inc is developing fostamatinib, a prodrug of the spleen tyrosine kinase (Syk) inhibitor R-406, for the potential treatment of autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis (RA), idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) and B-cell lymphomas. Syk is a key mediator of Fc and B-cell receptor signaling in inflammatory cells, such as B-cells, mast cells, macrophages and neutrophils. Preclinical studies of R-406 or fostamatinib demonstrated a significant reduction in major inflammatory mediators such as TNFalpha, IL-1, IL-6 and IL-18, leading to reduced inflammation and bone degradation in models of RA. In a phase II clinical trial, fostamatinib treatment effectively improved American College of Rheumatology response rates in patients with RA. Preclinical studies and phase II trials also suggested the potential of using fostamatinib for the treatment of ITP and B-cell lymphomas, by increasing platelet counts and inducing response rates, respectively. Fostamatinib is orally bioavailable and was well tolerated in phase I and II trials, with the most common side effect being gastrointestinal symptoms. At the time of publication, phase II trials for fostamatinib were ongoing in patients with RA, ITP and B-cell lymphomas. The Syk inhibitor appears to be a promising therapeutic for immunological diseases, but further data are required to establish the efficacy and long-term safety of the drug in humans.
Which enzyme is inhibited by a drug fostamatinib?
53357ca0d6d3ac6a3400004b_003
{ "answer_start": [ 153 ], "text": [ "spleen tyrosine kinase" ] }
Mutation spectrum of the fibrillin-1 (FBN1) gene in Taiwanese patients with Marfan syndrome. The aim of this study was to establish a national database of mutations in the fibrillin-1 (FBN1) gene that cause Marfan syndrome (MFS) in the Taiwanese population. In this study, we screened 294 patients from 157 families for the presence of FBN1 mutations using polymerase chain reaction/ denaturing high performance liquid chromatography (PCR/DHPLC). We identified 56 mutations in 62 of the 157 (40%) families including 49 single-base substitutions (36 missense mutations, seven nonsense mutations, and six splicing sites), one small insertion, four small deletions, one small indel (insertion and deletion), and one exonic deletion (Exon 36). When family history was taken into consideration, the mutation detection rate rose to 91% (29 of 32). We further investigated the phenotypic data and found that one third (47 of 157) of the families fit the Ghent criteria for MFS. Based on that data, the mutation rate was 98% (46/47). That finding implies that family history and the Ghent criteria play a more important role than clinical manifestations in establishing a clinical diagnosis of Marfan syndrome. Among the 56 mutations found in this study, 40 (71%) have not been registered in the Human Gene Mutation Database (HGMD) or in the Universal Mutation Database (UMD). This is the first study of the mutation spectrum of MFS in a cohort of patients in Taiwan. The database is expected to considerably improve genetic counseling for and medical care of MFS families.
Which gene mutations cause the Marfan syndrome?
58d8e6818acda3452900000a_052
{ "answer_start": [ 185 ], "text": [ "FBN1" ] }
Occurrence of the Cys611Tyr mutation and a novel Arg886Trp substitution in the RET proto-oncogene in multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2 families and sporadic medullary thyroid carcinoma cases originating from the central region of Portugal. OBJECTIVE: Medullary thyroid carcinoma (MTC) occurs both sporadically and in the context of autosomal dominantly inherited multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2 (MEN2) syndromes: MEN2A, MEN2B, and familial medullary thyroid carcinoma (FMTC), which are caused by activating germline mutations in the RET proto-oncogene. The aim of this study was to characterize the RET mutational spectrum in MEN2 families and apparently sporadic MTC (AS-MTC) cases originating from the central region of Portugal. SUBJECTS AND METHODS: We studied a total of 82 individuals (64 affected and 18 family members), comprising five MEN2 families (four MEN2A and one MEN2B), as well as 53 AS-MTC cases. RET germline mutations were screened using PCR-DNA sequencing, SSCP and RFLP. The haplotypes associated with recurrent mutations were determined by fragment analysis of microsatellite markers, and by RFLP, in the case of intragenic polymorphisms. RESULTS: Frequency of the Cys611Tyr (TGC-TAC) mutation was significantly increased in this region of Portugal, due to the fact that three apparently unrelated MEN2A/FMTC families, out of the five in which mutations were identified, harboured this specific mutation. Haplotype analysis revealed that a common haplotype was shared between two of these three families. We have also characterized a novel RET mutation, Arg886Trp, located in the tyrosine kinase domain, which was found in an AS-MTC case. CONCLUSIONS: There are regional specificities in the relative frequency of RET mutations, which are consistent with a cluster-like distribution of specific disease-causing mutations, as a result of the inheritance of a shared haplotype. These data, along with the finding of a novel RET mutation (Arg886Trp), have important implications towards facilitating and improving the molecular diagnosis of hereditary MTC on a regional basis.
What is the gene frequently mutated in Multiple endocrine neoplasia 2 (MEN2) and Hisrchsprung disease?
5171438a8ed59a060a000007_013
{ "answer_start": [ 539 ], "text": [ "RET" ] }
Stimulation of RNA polymerase II transcript cleavage activity contributes to maintain transcriptional fidelity in yeast. The transcription elongation factor S-II, also designated TFIIS, stimulates the nascent transcript cleavage activity intrinsic to RNA polymerase II. Rpb9, a small subunit of RNA polymerase II, enhances the cleavage stimulation activity of S-II. Here, we investigated the role of nascent transcript cleavage stimulation activity on the maintenance of transcriptional fidelity in yeast. In yeast, S-II is encoded by the DST1 gene. Disruption of the DST1 gene decreased transcriptional fidelity in cells. Mutations in the DST1 gene that reduce the S-II cleavage stimulation activity led to decreased transcriptional fidelity in cells. A disruption mutant of the RPB9 gene also had decreased transcriptional fidelity. Expression of mutant Rpb9 proteins that are unable to enhance the S-II cleavage stimulation activity failed to restore the phenotype. These results suggest that both S-II and Rpb9 maintain transcriptional fidelity by stimulating the cleavage activity intrinsic to RNA polymerase II. Also, a DST1 and RPB9 double mutant had more severe transcriptional fidelity defect compared with the DST1 gene deletion mutant, suggesting that Rpb9 maintains transcriptional fidelity via two mechanisms, enhancement of S-II dependent cleavage stimulation and S-II independent function(s).
Which RNA polymerase II subunit carries RNA cleavage activity?
5a4df811966455904c00000e_011
{ "answer_start": [ 179 ], "text": [ "TFIIS" ] }
Tyrosine kinase inhibitors in acute and chronic leukemias. INTRODUCTION: Since the initial approval of imatinib much has been learned about its resistance mechanisms, and efforts have continued to improve upon BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase inhibitor therapy. Targeted therapy with TKIs has continued to be an area of active research and development in the care of acute and chronic leukemia patients. AREAS COVERED: This article reviews current approved and investigational TKI treatments for chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML), Philadelphia-chromosome positive acute lymphoblastic leukemia (Ph + ALL) and acute myelogenous leukemia (AML). EXPERT OPINION: There are now more potent BCR-ABL TKIs approved, which allow for additional options when determining front-line and second-line CML and Ph + ALL treatments. The T315I mutation is an ever-present challenge. Ponatinib, a pan BCR-ABL TKI, while still under investigation, is very hopeful with its ability to overcome T315I mutations in resistant CML and Ph + ALL patients. Because nilotinib and dasatinib have not been directly compared, at present we recommend selecting one or the other based on the side-effect profile, drug interactions, patient comorbidities, and mutational status. FLT-3 inhibition is of particular interest in AML patients with FLT-3 internal tandem duplication mutations; this type of targeted therapy continues to be studied.
What tyrosine kinase, involved in a Philadelphia- chromosome positive chronic myelogenous leukemia, is the target of Imatinib (Gleevec)?
5324a8ac9b2d7acc7e000018_011
{ "answer_start": [ 210 ], "text": [ "BCR-ABL" ] }
Daratumumab depletes CD38+ immune regulatory cells, promotes T-cell expansion, and skews T-cell repertoire in multiple myeloma. Daratumumab targets CD38-expressing myeloma cells through a variety of immune-mediated mechanisms (complement-dependent cytotoxicity, antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity, and antibody-dependent cellular phagocytosis) and direct apoptosis with crosslinking. These mechanisms may also target nonplasma cells that express CD38, which prompted evaluation of daratumumab's effects on CD38-positive immune subpopulations. Peripheral blood (PB) and bone marrow (BM) from patients with relapsed/refractory myeloma from 2 daratumumab monotherapy studies were analyzed before and during therapy and at relapse. Regulatory B cells and myeloid-derived suppressor cells, previously shown to express CD38, were evaluated for immunosuppressive activity and daratumumab sensitivity in the myeloma setting. A novel subpopulation of regulatory T cells (Tregs) expressing CD38 was identified. These Tregs were more immunosuppressive in vitro than CD38-negative Tregs and were reduced in daratumumab-treated patients. In parallel, daratumumab induced robust increases in helper and cytotoxic T-cell absolute counts. In PB and BM, daratumumab induced significant increases in CD8(+):CD4(+) and CD8(+):Treg ratios, and increased memory T cells while decreasing naïve T cells. The majority of patients demonstrated these broad T-cell changes, although patients with a partial response or better showed greater maximum effector and helper T-cell increases, elevated antiviral and alloreactive functional responses, and significantly greater increases in T-cell clonality as measured by T-cell receptor (TCR) sequencing. Increased TCR clonality positively correlated with increased CD8(+) PB T-cell counts. Depletion of CD38(+) immunosuppressive cells, which is associated with an increase in T-helper cells, cytotoxic T cells, T-cell functional response, and TCR clonality, represents possible additional mechanisms of action for daratumumab and deserves further exploration.
What is the target of daratumumab?
5880aef4c872c95565000001_025
{ "answer_start": [ 517 ], "text": [ "CD38" ] }