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RAG Datasets 12

In which diseases have electronic patient diaries been applied ?

Parkinson's disease COPD Food hypersensitivity Niacin induced flushing Hemophilia Heartburn Headache

[14728392, 19999626, 20841643, 8904620, 19226411, 19301936, 10594395, 22949085]

Which type of myeloma is ixazomib being evaluated for?

The disease focus for the irreversible epoxyketone proteasome inhibitor ixazomib is multiple myeloma.

[24292417, 24920586, 25302026, 24712303, 25456369, 24471924, 25268212, 25935605, 24904120, 24486586, 24578203]

Which are the Atg8 homologs in human?

Autophagy (Autophagy-related protein 8 or Atg8p or APG8 or AUT7 or CVT5) is a yeast protein involved in cytoplasm to vacuole transport (Cvt) vesicles and autophagosomes formation. In yeast it is represented by a single gene, the ATG8 family in humans contains 6 members (microtubule-associated protein-1 light chain 3A (MAP1LC3A), MAP1LC3B, MAP1LC3C, GABA(A) receptor-associated protein (GABARAP), GABARAPL1, and GABARAPL2/GATE-16).

[23043107, 22948227, 16303767, 20562859, 22120110, 20723759, 20574168, 23022382, 22302004, 19549685, 20418806, 10856287, 21893048, 21620860, 21862879]

To which family does the Zika virus belong?

The Zika virus belongs to the family Flaviviridae.

[25310102]

Has the fungus Ashbya gossypii got many nuclei that share cytoplasm?

Yes, Ashbya gossypii has a budding yeast-like genome but grows exclusively as multinucleated hyphae.

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What is the functionality of the Triplex R/bioconductor package?

Triplex is an R/Bioconductor package for identification and visualization of potential intramolecular triplex patterns in DNA sequences. The package provides functions that can be used to search Bioconductor genomes and other DNA sequence data for occurrence of nucleotide patterns capable of forming intramolecular triplexes (H-DNA). Functions producing 2D and 3D diagrams of the identified triplexes allow instant visualization of the search results. Leveraging the power of Biostrings and GRanges classes, the results get fully integrated into the existing Bioconductor framework, allowing their passage to other Genome visualization and annotation packages, such as GenomeGraphs, rtracklayer or Gviz.

[23709494]

Which is the molecular mechanism underlying K-ras alterations in carcinomas?

Activating point mutations most frequently in codon 12

[19783717, 8613066, 19826477, 12697967, 21779504, 16757361, 16166322, 21886451, 21626008, 19509115, 8178941]

Is microRNA(miRNA) 30 involved in post-ischemic cardiac remodeling?

Myocardial remodeling after an ischemic insult involves extracellular matrix proteins with increased fibrosis Initial experimental data indicate that miRNA 30 decreases CTGF a key molecule in the process of fibrosis, by directly downregulating the production of CTGF

[22352753, 21434842, 22038740, 19096030]

List all clinical trials of the polypill.

'Use of a Multidrug Pill In Reducing cardiovascular Events' (UMPIRE) trial, European Clinical Trials database, as EudraCT: 2009-016278-34 and the Clinical Trials Registry, India as CTRI/2010/091/000250. 'IMProving Adherence using Combination Therapy (IMPACT)', Australian New Zealand Clinical Trial Registry (ACTRN12606000067572). 'Kanyini Guidelines Adherence with the Polypill (Kanyini-GAP)' Phase II study of the Polycap, double-blind, randomised trial, registered with ClinicalTrials.gov, number NCT00443794 Second Indian Polycap Study, TIPS-2 Cluster Randomized Usual Care vs Caduet Investigation Assessing Long-term-risk (CRUCIAL trial) GEMINI trial, 14-week, open-label trial conducted in 1220 patients from the USA GEMINI-Australia, Asia, Latin America, Africa/Middle East (AALA) study JEWEL study program, with JEWEL 1 conducted among 1138 patients from the UK and Canada and JEWEL 2 conducted in 1107 patients from Europe CAPABLE54, the Clinical Utility of Caduet in Simultaneously Achieving Blood Pressure and Lipid End Points , in the USA CUSP (The Caduet® in an Untreated Subject Population trial) TOGETHER trial A randomised controlled trial in seven countries – Australia, Brazil, India, Netherlands , New Zealand , United Kingdom and United States. Australian New Zealand Clinical Trials Registry (ACTRN 12607000099426)

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What is transvection?

An unusual feature of the Diptera is that homologous chromosomes are intimately synapsed in somatic cells. At a number of loci in Drosophila, this pairing can significantly influence gene expression. Such influences were first detected within the bithorax complex (BX-C) by E.B. Lewis, who coined the term transvection to describe them. Most cases of transvection involve the action of enhancers in trans. At several loci deletion of the promoter greatly increases this action in trans, suggesting that enhancers are normally tethered in cis by the promoter region. Transvection can also occur by the action of silencers in trans or by the spreading of position effect variegation from rearrangements having heterochromatic breakpoints to paired unrearranged chromosomes. Although not demonstrated, other cases of transvection may involve the production of joint RNAs by trans-splicing. Several cases of transvection require Zeste, a DNA-binding protein that is thought to facilitate homolog interactions by self-aggregation. Genes showing transvection can differ greatly in their response to pairing disruption. In several cases, transvection appears to require intimate synapsis of homologs. However, in at least one case (transvection of the iab-5,6,7 region of the BX-C), transvection is independent of synapsis within and surrounding the interacting gene. The latter example suggests that transvection could well occur in organisms that lack somatic pairing. In support of this, transvection-like phenomena have been described in a number of different organisms, including plants, fungi, and mammals.

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What is the role of probiotics in gastrointestinal disease?

Probiotics are live, microbial food supplements that benefit the host animal by improving intestinal microbial balance. Across all 11 probiotic species and eight different gastrointestinal diseases - Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS), Helicobacter pylori infection (HPP), Necrotizing Enterocolitis (NEC), Pouchitis (Pouch), Antibiotic Associated diarrhea (AAD), Clostridium difficile Disease (CDD), Infectious diarrhea (ID), and Travellers diarrhea (TD) - probiotics have been shown to have effect on prevention and treatment of gastrointestinal disease through enhancing the immune response, protection against abnormal invasive bacteria. Probiotics have a role in all age groups, incl. infants.

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What is the main symptom of Marfan syndrome patients?

The diagnosis and surgical treatment of patients with Marfan syndrome remain controversial. Pathohistological alterations of the aorta in patients with Marfan syndrome consisted in pronounced restructuring of the wall with deep irreversible alternative changes. The risk of aortic dissection, which is the most serious manifestation of the Marfan syndrome, increases as the aorta enlarges. Surgical replacement of the aortic root with a composite graft does not end the disease process.

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What species is associated with Tetrodotoxin?

Tetrodotoxin (TTX) is a low molecular weight (approximately 319 Da) neurotoxin found in a number of animal species, including pufferfish. TTX is originally produced by marine bacteria, and pufferfish are intoxicated through the food chain that starts with the bacteria. TTX is found in warm waters, especially of the Indian and Pacific Oceans. TTX poisoning due to marine snails has recently spread through Japan, China, Taiwan, and Europe.

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How is myotonic dystrophy inherited?

Myotonic dystrophy (DM) is a heterogeneous neuromuscular disease with an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance.

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How do HBS1L-MYB intergenic variants regulate fetal hemoglobin?

HBS1L-MYB intergenic variants modulate fetal hemoglobin via long-range MYB enhancers. Several HBS1L-MYB intergenic variants affect regulatory elements that are occupied by key erythroid transcription factors within this region. These elements interact with MYB, a critical regulator of erythroid development and HbF levels. Several HBS1L-MYB intergenic variants reduce transcription factor binding, affecting long-range interactions with MYB and MYB expression levels.

[24614105]

Which are the mammalian orthologs of Drosophila Yki?

There are two mammalian orthologs of Yki: YAP and TAZ

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Is statin use associated with improved outcomes after aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage?

Statin use after subarachnoid hemorrhage has been shown be associated with improved outcomes by some prospective clinical trials. It has been reported that statin use after subarachnoid hemorrhage reduced rates of vasospasm, delayed cerebral ischemia, and mortality. However, other authors have failed to find beneficial effect of statin use in subarachnoid hemorrhage patients.

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What is the typical outer diameter of microtubules (tubulin heterodimers)?

Microtubules are highly anisotropic structures built from tubulin heterodimers. They are hollow cylindrical shells with a ∼ 25 nm (24nm - 25nm) outer diameter.

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Does molindone affect body weight?

Yes, molindone has a tendency to cause weight loss or limited weight gain.

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What is the genetic basis of propionic acidemia?

Mutations in the PCCA or PCCB genes, encoding both subunits of propionyl-CoA carboxylase.

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Which protein phosphatase has been found to interact with the heat shock protein, HSP20?

Protein phosphatase-1 activity is regulated by two binding partners, inhibitor-1 and the small heat shock protein 20, Hsp20. Cell fractionation, coimmunoprecipitation, and coimmunolocalization studies, revealed an association between Hsp20 and PP1. Small heat shock protein 20 interacts with protein phosphatase-1 and enhances sarcoplasmic reticulum calcium cycling.

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What is the risk in G-CSF treatment for severe congenital neutropenia?

Severe congenital neutropenia is a rare hematological condition causing severe chronic neutropenia. Treatment with the myeloid growth factor, granulocyte-colony stimulating factor (G-CSF) is usually effective, but the dose of G-CSF required to normalize blood neutrophils varies greatly. Ten to thirty percent of the patients evolve to develop acute myeloid leukemia or myelodysplastic syndromes, necessitating careful clinical monitoring.

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Neurostimulation of which nucleus is used for treatment of dystonia?

Neurostimulation of globus pallidus internus is effective for treatment of dystonia. Ventral intermediate thalamic nucleus has also been tested for neurostimulation in dystonia patients.

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Which myosin isozymes are located within the pericuticular necklace of the hair cell?

The hair cell is located in the inner ear, a tissue that is particularly reliant on actin-rich structures and unconventional myosin isozymes. Within the pericuticular necklace, a domain of the hair cell, certain unconventional myosin isozymes are located, namely myosins-Ibeta, myosin-VI, and myosin-VIIa.

[12471897, 12486594, 17048225, 9182663]

Which is the treatment strategy followed in spinocerebellar ataxia type 3 for CAG removal?

The novel treatment strategy proposed for treatment of Spinocerebellar ataxia type 3 is the removal of the toxic polyglutamine repeat from the ataxin-3 protein through antisense oligonucleotide-mediated exon skipping while maintaining important wild type functions of the protein.

[23659897]

Where is the angiogenin binding element located?

Angiogenin binds to CT repeats that are abundant in the nontranscribed region of the ribosomal RNA gene. An angiogenin-binding DNA sequence (CTCTCTCTCTCTCTCTCCCTC) has been identified and designated angiogenin-binding element (ABE).

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Which proteins cause cytoplasmic sequestration of NF-kB?

In unstimulated cells, NF-kB transcription factors are retained in the cytoplasm with the inhibitory activity of I-kBs, Sef, NF-kB1 (p105) and NF-kB2 (p100).

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What is the mode of inheritance of Marchesani syndrome?

Marchesani syndrome is transmitted either by an autosomal dominant (mutations in FBN1) or an autosomal recessive (mutations in ADAMTS10) mode of inheritance

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Tumor-treating fields are effective for treatment of which cancers?

Clinical trials have shown that Tumor-treating fields are effective for treatment of non-small cell lung cancer and glioblastoma. Ongoing and future trials will evaluate TTFields in solid tumor brain metastases, and ovarian, pancreatic cancers and multidrug resistance cancer cells.

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Which event results in the acetylation of S6K1?

Using acetyl-specific K516 antibodies, we show that acetylation of endogenous S6K1 at this site is potently induced upon growth factor stimulation. We propose that K516 acetylation may serve to modulate important kinase-independent functions of S6K1 in response to growth factor signalling. Following mitogen stimulation, S6Ks interact with the p300 and p300/CBP-associated factor (PCAF) acetyltransferases. S6Ks can be acetylated by p300 and PCAF in vitro and S6K acetylation is detected in cells expressing p300

[20599721, 19961954]

List angiocrine factors

Angiocrine factors are: Ccl4, neurotensin, vascular endothelial growth factor, metalloproteinases-1, thrombospondin 3, Slit2, hepatocyte growth factor, Wnt2.

[20094048, 21148069, 24018375, 21068842, 24257808, 24257019]

What is protein carbamylation?

Protein carbamylation is a post-translational modification that can occur in the presence of urea. In solution, urea is in equilibrium with ammonium cyanate, and carbamylation occurs when cyanate ions react with the amino groups of lysines, arginines, protein N-termini, as well as sulfhydryl groups of cysteines. Protein carbamylation is one of the important post-translational modifications, which plays a pivotal role in a number of biological conditions, such as diseases, chronic renal failure and atherosclerosis.

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What is the cause of episodic ataxia type 6?

Episodic ataxia type 6, is caused by mutations in the gene encoding a glial glutamate transporter, the excitatory amino acid transporter-1. Reduced glutamate uptake by mutant excitatory amino acid transporter-1 (EAAT1) has been thought to be the main pathophysiological process in episodic ataxia type 6.

[23107647]

What is the main role of Ctf4 in dna replication?

coupling MCM2-7 to replicative polymerases is an important feature of the regulation of chromosome replication in eukaryotes, and highlight a key role for Ctf4 in this processAnd-1/Ctf4 is therefore a new replication initiation factor that brings together the MCM2-7 helicase and the DNA pol alpha-primase complex, analogous to the linker between helicase and primase or helicase and polymerase that is seen in the bacterial replication machinery

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Could Arimidex (anastrozole) cause hot flashes?

Yes. Hot flashes are one of the most common adverse effects of Arimidex.

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What is the role of Inn1 in cytokinesis?

Inn1 associates with the contractile actomyosin ring at the end of mitosis and is needed for cytokinesis. Inn1 has a C2 domain at the amino terminus of the protein that is required for ingression of the plasma membrane during cytokinesis in budding yeast, whereas the remainder of the protein recruits Inn1 to the actomyosin ring

[22956544, 19528296, 20442249, 19707790, 18344988, 22454527]

Which hormone deficiency is implicated in the Costello syndrome ?

Growth hormone deficiency is implicated in Costello syndrome. Growth hormone therapy should be administered with caution due to possible severe side effects. Cortisol and sex hormone deficiencies were also implicated in Costello syndrome.

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List the components of a Replisome Progression Complex (RPC).

RPC components include the essential initiation and elongation factor, Cdc45, the checkpoint mediator Mrc1, the Tof1-Csm3 complex that allows replication forks to pause at protein-DNA barriers, the histone chaperone FACT (facilitates chromatin transcription) and Ctf4, which helps to establish sister chromatid cohesion. RPCs also interact with Mcm10 and topoisomerase I.

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What is the definition of minimal absent words?

An absent word of a word y of length n is a word that does not occur in y. It is a minimal absent word if all its proper factors occur in y. Minimal absent words have been computed in genomes of organisms from all domains of life; their computation also provides a fast alternative for measuring approximation in sequence comparison.

[25526884, 22974263, 19426495]

What is the common feature in congenital central hypoventilation and Mowat-Wilson syndromes?

About 30% of Hirschsprung disease (HSCR) cases are syndromic. Hitherto, the disease causing gene has been identified for eight Mendelian syndromes with HSCR: congenital central hypoventilation (CCHS), Mowat-Wilson (MWS), Bardet-Biedl (BBS), Shah-Waardenburg (WS4), cartilage-hair-hypoplasia (CHH), Smith-Lemli-Opitz (SLO), Goldberg-Sprintzsen (GSS), and hydrocephalus due to congenital stenosis of the aqueduct of sylvius (HSAS).

[23001136, 17397038, 16443855]

Which is the most common CFTR mutation in Caucasians?

The commonest CFTR mutation, deltaF508, is found in 74.1% of all CF chromosomes. In the Caucasian CF population, 57.5% are deltaF508 homozygotes but the UK ISC CF population with only 24.7%, has significantly fewer deltaF508 homozygotes patients (95% confidence interval (CI) 0.2-0.4).

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Which CDK targets control cytokinesis?

Aip1, Ede1 and Inn1 are CDK targets whose dephosphorylation is required for cytokinesis.

[25371407]

Are Alu elements transcribed?

A significant percentage of the more than 1 million copies of Alu elements was shown to be transrcribed. Free Alu RNAs are known to be transcribed by Pol III from their own promoter. On the other hand, embedded Alu RNAs are transcribed by Pol II as part of protein- and non-protein-coding RNAs. Recent studies have demonstrated that both free and embedded Alu RNAs play a major role in post transcriptional regulation of gene expression.

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In what type(s) of plant organelles we can detect prolamellar bodies?

Prolamellar body (PLB) is a highly organized lipid structure, which is the main site of accumulation of the ternary light-harvesting POR complex LHPP (light-harvesting NADPH:protochlorophyllide oxidoreductase:protochlorophyllide). Prolamellar bodies have been discovered in etioplasts with the use of thin section electron microscopy. Etioplasts develop in the place of chloroplasts in the dark. During skotomorphogenesis in angiosperms, NADPH:protochlorophyllide oxidoreductase (POR) forms the photolabile NADPH-POR-protochlorophyllide (Pchlide) ternary complexes. Prolamellar bodies (PLBs) efficiently capture the light energy for photo conversion in etioplasts. Upon illumination, the etioplasts transformed into regular chloroplasts. PLBs are formed not only in etioplasts but also in chloroplasts in young developing leaves during the night.

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What do mepolizumab and reslizumab have in common?

Mepolizumab and reslizumab are monoclonal antibodies that target and neutralize interleukin 5. They have been shown to reduce eosinophil counts and they are used for the treatment of refractory asthma (associated with eosiniphilia) and other eosinophilic diseases.

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When are itaconic acid levels elevated?

Itaconic acid levels are elevetad in immune defence.

[23610393, 25064235, 25209111]

Are chromomethylases present in animal genomes?

No. Multiple lines of experimental evidence suggest that chromomethylases (CMTs) have been hitherto identified in plant genomes(Arabidopsis, maize, tomato). CMTs maintain CpNpG (N = A, T, C, or G) methylation and they are unique to the plant kingdom. The lack of CMT homologs in animal genomes could be explained based on the fact that, in contrast to plants, animals maintain primarily CG methylation. Therefore, the presence of CMTs is not required in the animal genomes.

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Which genes are associated with autosomal dominant Charcot-Marie-Tooth?

The genes associated with the X-linked and the autosomal dominant forms of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease are GJB1, MPZ, INF2, DNM2, YARS, GNB4, NEFL, MFN2, LRSAM1, GDAP1, PMP22, LITAF, and EGR2. Identification of these genes has not only been important for patients and families, but also provided new information about disease pathogenesis.

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Which transcription factors (TFs) participate in the formation of the interferon-beta (IFN-b) enhanceosome?

Transcriptional activation of the IFN beta gene in response to virus infection requires the assembly of an enhanceosome, consisting of the transcriptional activators NF-kappa B, IRF1, ATF2/c-Jun, and the architectural protein HMG I(Y). Transcriptional activation of the human interferon-beta (IFN-beta) gene by virus infection requires the assembly of a higher order nucleoprotein complex, the enhanceosome, which consists of the transcriptional activators NF-kappa B (p50/p65), ATF-2/c-jun, IRF-3 and IRF-7, architectural protein HMGI(Y), and the coactivators p300 and CBP.

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Is low T3 syndrome related with high BNP in cardiac patients?

BNP and fT3 are independently associated in severely compromised HF patients. NT-pro-BNP was significantly associated with low-T3 syndrome in cardiac patients. Higher NT-pro BNP concentrations are related to lower total T3 concentrations in cardiac patients

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List packages for transcription factor binding sites' (TFBS) analysis available in R/Bioconductor

Neighbourhood Consistent PC (NCPC) algorithms, MMDiff and cosmo.

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Simpson grading is used to describe resection of which brain tumor?

The Simpson grading system was used to assess the extent of surgical resection of meningioma.

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Where in the cell do we find the protein Cep135?

centrosome

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Is delayed enhancement documented in patients with non-ischemic dilated cardiomyopathy?

Delayed enhancement is documented in almost 30% of patients with non-ischemic dilated cardiomyopathy and its pattern is characterized by mid-wall, patchy or diffuse location.

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Which enzyme is inhibited by Varespladib?

Varespladib is a secretory phospholipase A2 (sPLA2) inhibitor. It was tested in patients with acute coronary syndrome.

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Which protein does empagliflozin inhibit?

Empagliflozin (Jardiance) is a SGLT2 inhibitor.

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What symptoms characterize the Muenke syndrome?

Muenke syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder characterized by coronal suture craniosynostosis, hearing loss, developmental delay, carpal and tarsal fusions, and the presence of the Pro250Arg mutation in the FGFR3 gene. Muenke syndrome is characterized by coronal craniosynostosis (bilateral more often than unilateral), hearing loss, developmental delay, and carpal and/or tarsal bone coalition. Tarsal coalition is a distinct feature of Muenke syndrome and has been reported since the initial description of the disorder in the 1990s.

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List all reported treatment options for anxiety in autism spectrum disorder.

The predominant approach is to use versions of cognitive behavioural therapies, such as: Mindfulness Based Therapy (MBT) Multimodal Anxiety and Social Skills Intervention (MASSI) program modified version of the Coping Cat program, (cognitive-behavioral therapy; CBT) Family cognitive-behavioral therapy has been found to be more effective than Individual cognitive-behavioral therapy Conflict management for couples, even when conflict and family distress is low Drugtherapy: Sertraline

[22964266, 20694508, 18437549, 23118256, 21571763, 17171539, 22934167, 22735897, 22299802, 22588377]

List adenosine A2A receptor antagonists that are used for Parkinson's disease treatment.

Istradefylline and preladenant are adenosine A2A receptor antagonists that are used for Parkinson's disease treatment.

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What is the clinical indication of cardiac T1 mapping magnetic resonance?

T1 mapping can quantitatively characterize myocardial tissue, in particular diffuse and interstitial fibrosis, edema in both overt and subclinical cardiophyopathies. However more research is required before a large-scale application for clinical decision-making can be recommended.

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Which autophagy pathway is trigered by the KFERQ motif of cytosolic proteins?

Cytosolic proteins carrying the KFERQ motif (a specific lysosomal import consensus sequence) are directed to a selective form of lysosomal degradation, called chaperone-mediated autophagy (CMA), as chaperone protein Hsc73 and other chaperones are involved in this process.

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Which are the clinical characteristics of TSC?

Tuberous sclerosis or tuberous sclerosis complex (TSC) is a rare multi-system genetic disease that causes benign tumors to grow in the brain and on other vital organs such as the kidneys, heart, eyes, lungs, and skin. A combination of symptoms may include seizures, intellectual disability, developmental delay, behavioral problems, skin abnormalities, lung and kidney disease. TSC is caused by a mutation of either of two genes, TSC1 and TSC2, which code for the proteins hamartin and tuberin respectively. These proteins act as tumor growth suppressors, agents that regulate cell proliferation and differentiation.

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How does dabigatran therapy affect aPTT in patients with atrial fibrillation?

Dabigatran increases aPTT in patients with atrial fibrillation, although aPTT does not respond linearily to dabigatran therapy.

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List fish anti-freeze proteins.

AFP-I AFP-II AFP-III Anti-freeze glycoprotein Thermal hysteresis protein

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Which is the phosphorylated residue in the promoter paused form of RNA polymerase II?

The promoter paused form of RNA polymerase II is phosphorylated on serine 5 residues of the C-terminal heptapeptide repeat domain (CTD) of the largest subunit.

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Has overexpression of sirtuins been reported to increase lifespan in budding yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae)?

Overexpression of sirtuins (NAD(+)-dependent protein deacetylases) has been reported to increase lifespan in budding yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae).

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Name the major classes of small non coding RNAs in mammalians?

microRNAs (miRNAs), small nuclear RNAs (snRNAs), small nucleolar RNAs (snoRNAs) are the major classes of small non coding RNAs. Recently, thanks mostly to massively parallel sequencing technologies, other classes of small RNAs have been discovered, such as piRNAs and scaRNAs.

[19908360, 20823303]

Describe a diet that reduces the chance of kidney stones.

People can help prevent kidney stones by making changes in fluid intake and, depending on the type of kidney stone, changes in consumption of sodium, animal protein, calcium, and oxalate. Drinking enough fluids each day is the best way to help prevent most types of kidney stones. Health care providers recommend that a person drink 2 to 3 liters of fluid a day. People with cystine stones may need to drink even more. Though water is best, other fluids may also help prevent kidney stones, such as citrus drinks.

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What pharmacological and non-pharmacological interventions can be considered as prophylactic therapies in Cluster Headache patients?

Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker, is considered the mainstay of prophylactic therapy of Cluster Headache patients. Lithium carbonate, topiramate, valproic acid, gabapentin, baclofen, methysergide, melatonin, ketoprofen and indomethacin can also be tried for prophylactic therapy of Cluster Headaches patients. Non-pharmacological prophylactic measures, such as peripheral (mostly occipital nerve) and central (hypothalamic) neurostimulation, ablative surgery, and botulinum toxin type-A (BTX-A) injection, can be also considered.

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How does phospholamban affect the biological activity of the calcium ATPase SERCA?

SR calcium uptake is mediated by a Ca(2+)-ATPase (SERCA2), whose activity is reversibly regulated by phospholamban (PLN). Dephosphorylated PLN is an inhibitor of SERCA and phosphorylation of PLN relieves this inhibition. Phospholamban (PLN) is a small integral membrane protein, which binds and inhibits in a yet unknown fashion the Ca(2+)-ATPase (SERCA) in the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Based on structural and dynamics data, a model in which PLN undergoes allosteric activation upon encountering SERCA has been proposed. The allosteric regulation of SERCA depends on the conformational equilibrium of PLN, whose cytoplasmic regulatory domain interconverts between three different states: a ground T state (helical and membrane associated), an excited R state (unfolded and membrane detached), and a B state (extended and enzyme-bound), which is noninhibitory. Phosphorylation of PLN shifts the populations toward the B state, increasing SERCA activity. Phospholamban (PLN) regulates cardiac contractility via its modulation of sarco(endo)plasmic reticulum calcium ATPase (SERCA) activity. Impairment of this regulatory process causes heart failure.

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List the components of mTOR Complex 2 (mTORC2).

Mammalian target of rapamycin complex 2 (mTORC2) is a kinase complex comprised of mTOR, Rictor, mSin1, mLST8/GβL and PRR5.

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What is known about the Digit Ratio (2D:4D) cancer?

Digit ratio (2D:4D) is associated with gastric cancer, prostate cancer, breast cancer, cervical intraepithelial neoplasia and oral squamous cell carcinoma. 2D:4D was found to be higher in patients diagnosed with gastric cancer and prostate cancer patients relative to controls. Among prostate cancer patients, 2D:4D shows strong differences between African-Americans and Caucasians; however, it does not correlate with disease severity in men already diagnosed with prostate cancer. However, other authors did not find an association between 2D:4D and prostate cancer risk. 2D:4D is not associated with testicular germ cell tumors.

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Is TREM2 associated with Alzheimer's disease?

A rare variant of the TREM2 gene, which encodes the triggering receptor encoded in myeloid cells 2 (rs75932628-T) causing a R47H substitution has been associated with both early and late onset Alzheimer's disease in various populations. Emerging evidence has demonstrated that TREM2 could suppress inflammatory response by repression of microglia-mediated cytokine production and secretion, which may prevent inflammation-induced bystander damage of neurons. Higher levels of TREM2 mRNA (p = 0.002) and protein (p < 0.001) were identified in AD patients which indicates that TREM2 might serve as a novel noninvasive biomarker for AD diagnosis. Based on the potential protective actions of TREM2 in AD pathogenesis, targeting TREM2 might provide new opportunities for AD treatment.

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Does the protein mTOR regulate autophagy?

mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) is a major negative regulator of autophagy.

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Which are the mains risk factors of metabolic syndrome?

Metabolic syndrome is a disorder of energy utilization and storage, diagnosed by a co-occurrence of three out of five of the following medical conditions: abdominal (central) obesity, elevated blood pressure, elevated fasting plasma glucose, high serum triglycerides, and low high-density cholesterol (HDL) levels. Metabolic syndrome increases the risk of developing cardiovascular disease, particularly heart failure, and diabetes.

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Which multiple kinase inhibitors are used in cancer therapy?

Multiple kinase inhibitors used in cancer therapy include ZD6474, SU11248, AEE 788, sorafenib, vatalanib, and AG-013736.

[16159418]

Has proteomics been used in the study of Pick's disease?

Yes, proteomics has been used in the study of Pick's disease.

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Are there any urine biomarkers for bladder cancer diagnosis?

Bladder cancer is any of several types of malignancy arising from the epithelial lining of the urinary bladder. Rarely the bladder is involved by non-epithelial cancers, such as lymphoma or sarcoma. It is a disease in which abnormal cells multiply without control in the bladder.The bladder is a hollow, muscular organ that stores urine; it is located in the pelvis. The most common type of bladder cancer recapitulates the normal histology of the urothelium and is known as transitional cell carcinoma or more properly urothelial cell carcinoma. It is estimated that there are 383,000 cases of bladder cancer worldwide

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List types of avoided words in bacterial genomes

Short palindromic sequences (4, 5 and 6 bp palindromes) are avoided at a statistically significant level in the genomes of several bacteria, including the completely sequenced Haemophilus influenzae and Synechocystis sp. genomes and in the complete genome of the archaeon Methanococcus jannaschii. Palindromes corresponding to sites for restriction enzymes from other species are also avoided, albeit less significantly, suggesting that in the course of evolution bacterial DNA has been exposed to a wide spectrum of restriction enzymes, probably as the result of lateral transfer mediated by mobile genetic elements, such as plasmids and prophages. Palindromic words appear to accumulate in DNA once it becomes isolated from restriction-modification systems, as demonstrated by the case of organellar genomes.

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Which gene(s) should be genotyped in order to prescribe the drug Cetuximab (anti-EGFR)?

KRAS mutation has been unambiguously identified as a marker of resistance to cetuximab-based treatment in metastatic colorectal cancer (mCRC) patients. Other genes are such as EGFR, BRAF and T53 have also been suggested to be genotyped in order to evaluate the drug responsivness.

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Is signal transducer and activator of transcription-3 (STAT3) critical for tumor angiogenesis progression?

(STAT3) is a latent cytoplasmic transcription factor, originally discovered as a transducer of signal from cell surface receptors to the nucleus. It is activated by tyrosine phosphorylation at position 705 leading to its dimerization, nuclear translocation, DNA binding, and activation of gene transcription. Under normal physiological conditions, STAT3 activation is tightly regulated. However, compelling evidence suggests that STAT3 is constitutively activated in many cancers and plays a pivotal role in tumor growth and metastasis. It regulates cellular proliferation, invasion, migration, and angiogenesis that are critical for cancer metastasis

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Which is the physiological target for LeuRS translational quality control?

QUALITY CONTROL

[24935946]

Is sumoylation implicated in myogenesis?

Yes, sumoylation is implicated in myogenesis.

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What do studies show about the effect of Induced hypothermia in premature babies?

Randomised studies have demonstrated the efficacy of hypothermia for the treatment of perinatal hypoxic-ischaemic encephalopathy (HIE) in reducing rate of death or neurodevelopmental disabilities in term or late preterm infants. It remains unclear to what degree preterm infants were included in these studies. A prospective non-randomised pilot study reported that mild hypothermia for 48 hours in preterm neonates with severe NEC (necrotising enterocolitis) seems both feasible and safe.

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Describe what is the advantage of using a stain free protein gel in a Western Blot experiment?

Stain-Free technology can be used as a normalization tool in Western blot analysis.

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Which is the target of the drug Denosumab?

Denosumab (Dmab) is a fully human monoclonal antibody against the receptor activator of nuclear factor-κB ligand (RANKL).

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Which enzyme is inhibited by a drug fostamatinib?

Fostamatinib (R788) acts by inhibiting spleen tyrosine kinase. Fostamatinib (R788) is a prodrug rapidly converted to its active metabolite on oral administration. This (known as R406) is a potent inhibitor of spleen tyrosine kinase that is required for the expression of a number of proinflammatory cytokines. Fostamatinib has been shown to be effective in patients with rheumatoid arthritis, leukemia, lymphoma, bronchial asthma and thrombocytopenic purpura.

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Is the Miller-Fisher syndrome considered to be a variant of Guillain-Barré?

Miller Fisher syndrome is a variant of Guillain-Barre syndrome characterized by the classic triad of ophthalmoplegia, ataxia, and areflexia

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Is Ctf4 involved in sister chromatid cohesion establishment?

Yes. Ctf4 is associated with the replisome and is required for proper establishment of cohesion by facilitating cohesin acetylation.

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What states the second parity rule (PR2)?

The second parity rule (PR2), also known as Chargaff' s second parity rule, is an intra-strand rule which states that, when there are no biases between the two complementary strands of DNA in mutation and selection rates (substitution rates), complementary nucleotides are expected to have almost equal frequencies within single stranded DNA, namely A = T and G = C at equilibrium, without regard to the G + C content of the DNA.

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Are retroviruses used for gene therapy?

Gene therapy is one of the most promising and active fields in therapeutic research. Gene therapy is a treatment option that introduces genetic material in vivo or ex vivo into the cells of an affected organism in order to: exchange a defective gene; manipulate a disease-related gene; or introduce an additional gene copy for overexpression of the encoded protein to generate a curative biological effect. Somatic gene therapy is gene transfer by a specific vector to a somatic cell; in contrast to germline gene therapy, the modification of the cell is restricted to the recipient and cannot be passed to her/his progeny. High efficiency of gene transfer, high specificity for the target cells, long-lasting expression of the transgene and safety without adverse reactions are the desired characteristics of an ideal vector for gene transfer. Retroviral (gretroviral and lentiviral) vectors have now been used in more than 350 gene-therapy studies. Retroviral vectors are particularly suited for gene-correction of cells due to long-term and stable expression of the transferred transgene(s), and also because little effort is required for their cloning and production. Several monogenic inherited diseases, mostly immunodeficiencies, can now be successfully treated.

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Do lincRNAs play a role in human cancer?

Long non-coding RNAs (lncRNAs) are pervasively transcribed in the genome and are emerging as new players in tumorigenesis due to their various functions in transcriptional, posttranscriptional and epigenetic mechanisms of gene regulation. The best-studied examples include HOTAIR, a negative prognostic factor that exhibits pro-oncogenic activity in a variety of human cancers, CRNDE the gene symbol for Colorectal Neoplasia Differentially Expressed (non-protein-coding), a long non-coding RNA (lncRNA) gene that expresses multiple splice variants and displays a very tissue-specific pattern of expression and ANRIL, a lincRNA that is required for the PRC2 recruitment to and silencing of p15(INK4B) tumor suppressor gene.

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Explain the concept proteostasis.

Protein homeostasis, or proteostasis, refers to a proper balance between synthesis, maturation, and degradation of cellular proteins. Disruption of proteostasis is implicated in aging and the pathogenesis of numerous degenerative diseases.

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Which gene test can be used for the X-linked myotubular myopathy?

Genetic testing of the MTM1 gene can be used for the X-linked myotubular myopathy.

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Is there a phylogenetic analysis for HIV?

In biology, phylogenetics is the study of evolutionary relationships among groups of organisms (e.g. species, populations), which are discovered through molecular sequencing data and morphological data matrices. The result of phylogenetic studies is a hypothesis about the evolutionary history of taxonomic groups: their phylogeny. Phylogenetic analysis examines small differences in HIV’s genes using computational methods to calculate the genetic distance between strains. Unlike human DNA, which remains stable for a lifetime, HIV’s RNA changes very rapidly, leading to a huge amount of genetic diversity. This diversity means that scientists, using phylogenetic analysis, have been able to ascertain where HIV comes from, as well as track the various strains of HIV that exist worldwide. Based on results, there are found many studies on HIV phylogenetic analysis.

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What is the association between adiponectin and migraine?

There is evidence to suggest that adiponectin plays a role in migraine. Increase in body fat elevates adiponectin and leptin secretion which in turn impair inflammatory processes that could be contributing to migraine risk. In episodic migraine patients, adiponectin was associated with migraine severity and predictive of acute treatment response. Serum adiponectin levels are increased in women chronic daily headache sufferers.

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Which phenomenon is described as oncogene addiction?

Oncogene addiction describes the curious acquired dependence of tumor cells on an activated oncogene for their survival and/or proliferation, a phenomenon that has important implications for the success of targeted cancer therapies. However, the mechanisms explaining oncogene addiction remain elusive. We propose that addiction may be an illusion generated as a consequence of differential attenuation rates of prosurvival and proapoptotic signals emanating from an oncoprotein acutely following its inactivation. According to this model, which we call oncogenic shock, prosurvival signals dissipate quickly on oncoprotein inactivation whereas proapoptotic signals linger sufficiently long to commit the cell to an apoptotic death.

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Are there randomised controlled trials on sevoflurane?

Yes. There are < 10 studies reported, answering questions like : how to improve speed of recovery, relationship to dreaming and anesthetic experience, effect on cardiac troponin release, effect on myocardial injury, postoperative delirium, haemodynamics & emergence and recovery characteristics of total intravenous anaesthesia, costs of postoperative nausea and vomiting, pediatric conscious sedation for dental procedures

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In which cells are gasdermins expressed?

Members of the novel gene family Gasdermin (Gsdm) are exclusively expressed in a highly tissue-specific manner in the epithelium of skin and the gastrointestinal tract.

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Where in a protein can a signal sequence be found?

Proteins have signal sequences typically resent at the most N-terminal end.

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