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Is the transcriptional regulator BACH1 an activator or a repressor?

BACH1, a basic leucine zipper mammalian transcriptional repressor, negatively regulates heme oxygenase 1 (HMOX1), a key cytoprotective enzyme that has antioxidant and anti-inflammatory activities. In the absence of elevated intracellular heme or oxidative stress, BACH1 functions as a repressor of the enhancers of heme oxygenase-1 (HO-1) gene (Hmox-1) by forming heterodimers with the small Maf proteins such as MafK. Bach1 is recruited to a subset of p53 target genes and contributes to impeding p53 action by promoting histone deacetylation.

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Is Kanzaki disease associated with deficiency in alpha-N-acetylgalactosaminidase?

Yes, Kanzaki disease is attributable to a deficiency in alpha-N-acetylgalactosaminidase, which hydrolyzes GalNAcalpha1-O-Ser/Thr.

[14685826, 15619430, 19683538, 15136691, 11251574, 8577046]

Is Mycobacterium avium less susceptible to antibiotics than Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

Mycobacterium avium causes disseminated infection in patients with acquired immune deficiency syndrome. M tuberculosis disease is preventable and curable and yet communicable, physicians should maintain a high degree of suspicion for tuberculosis in HIV-infected adults. In comparison, the goal of treating M avium complex in patients with advanced HIV disease is to reduce constitutional symptoms and improve survival. Patients who were suspected to have disseminated mycobacterial infection, presenting fever and (preferably) a CD4 T cell count<100.0 cell/mL were investigated. Twelve (15%) of the 80 blood cultures were positive for mycobacteria, with Mycobacterium avium being identified in 7 (8.8%) samples and M. tuberculosis in 5 (6.2%). The antimycobacterial activities of RS-112997, RS-124922 and RS-118641, three capuramycin analogues that inhibit phospho-N-acetylmuramyl-pentapeptide translocase, were tested against clinical isolates of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Mycobacterium avium and Mycobacterium intracellulare. The MIC50/90 (mg/L) results for RS-118641 were: M. tuberculosis, 1/2; multidrug-resistant (MDR) M. tuberculosis, 0.5/2; M. avium, 4/8; and M. intracellulare, 0.06/0.5

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What molecule is targeted by suvorexant?

Suvorexant is a dual orexin receptor antagonist for the treatment of sleep onset and sleep maintenance insomnia.

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For which type of diabetes can empagliflozin be used?

The oral antidiabetes agent, empagliflozin, can be used as monotherapy or alongside other glucose-lowering treatments, including insulin, to treat T2DM.

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Which are the main methods for pharmacophore modelling?

A pharmacophore describes the arrangement of molecular features a ligand must contain to efficaciously bind a receptor. Pharmacophore models are developed to improve molecular understanding of ligand–protein interactions, and can be used as a tool to identify novel compounds that fulfil the pharmacophore requirements and have a high probability of being biologically active. Protein structure-based pharmacophores (SBPs) derive these molecular features by conversion of protein properties to reciprocal ligand space. Unlike ligand-based pharmacophore models, which require templates of ligands in their bioactive conformation, SBPs do not depend on ligand information.

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Are there conserved noncoding elements identified between genomes of human and teleosts?

Vertebrate genomes contain thousands of conserved noncoding elements (CNEs) that often function as tissue-specific enhancers. In this study, we have identified CNEs in human, dog, chicken, Xenopus, and four teleost fishes (zebrafish, stickleback, medaka, and fugu) using elephant shark, a cartilaginous vertebrate, as the base genome and investigated the evolution of these ancient vertebrate CNEs (aCNEs) in bony vertebrate lineages

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How early during pregnancy does non-invasive cffDNA testing allow sex determination of the fetus?

Using cffDNA from maternal blood, the fetal gender can be determined as early as 6 to 10 weeks of gestation (during the first trimester of pregnancy).

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Does cortical spreading depression appear in ischemic penumbra following ischemic stroke?

Yes, cortical spreading depression appears in ischemic penumbra following ischemic stroke and is associated with expansion of ischemic injury. This has been shown in humans and in animal models.

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Is phospholamban a regulatory/inhibitory protein of the Ca ATPase SERCA?

Phospholamban (PLB) is a 24- to 27-kDa phosphoprotein that modulates activity of the sarco(endo)plasmic reticulum Ca2+ ATPase (SERCA). Expression of PLB is reportedly limited to cardiac, slow-twitch skeletal and smooth muscle in which PLB is an important regulator of [Ca2+]i and contractility in these muscles.The membrane protein complex between the sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca(2+)-ATPase (SERCA) and phospholamban (PLN) controls Ca(2+) transport in cardiomyocytes, thereby modulating cardiac contractility. β-Adrenergic-stimulated phosphorylation of PLN at Ser-16 enhances SERCA activity via an unknown mechanism.

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What is TFBSshape?

To utilize DNA shape information when analysing the DNA binding specificities of TFs, the TFBSshape database was developed for calculating DNA structural features from nucleotide sequences provided by motif databases. The TFBSshape database can be used to generate heat maps and quantitative data for DNA structural features (i.e., minor groove width, roll, propeller twist and helix twist) for 739 TF datasets from 23 different species derived from the motif databases JASPAR and UniPROBE. As demonstrated for the basic helix-loop-helix and homeodomain TF families, TFBSshape database can be used to compare, qualitatively and quantitatively, the DNA binding specificities of closely related TFs and, thus, uncover differential DNA binding specificities that are not apparent from nucleotide sequence alone.

[24214955]

Is Alpers disease inherited in an autosomal recessive mode?

Alpers disease is a fatal neurogenetic disorder first described more than 70 years ago. It is an autosomal recessive, developmental mitochondrial DNA depletion disorder characterized by deficiency in mitochondrial DNA polymerase gamma (POLG) catalytic activity, refractory seizures, neurodegeneration, and liver disease.

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Is vemurafenib effective for hairy-cell leukemia?

Yes, vemurafenib is highly effective in patients with relapsed or refractory hairy-cell leukemia.

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Which are the inhibitors of histone methyltransferases?

In general, histone methyltransferases (HMTs) have no widely approved high-throughput screening assay format, and therefore reference inhibitors are not available for many of the HMTs. However, there are several selective HMT inhibitors: Trichostatin A (TSA), BIX-01294 and its derivative TM2-115, 2,4-pyridinedicarboxylic acid (2,4-PDCA), 3-deazaneplanocin A (DZNep), Psammaplin A (PsA) and Sulforaphane (SFN).

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What is the main characteristic of Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis?

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is a progressive degeneration of upper and lower motor neurons.

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Which genes are regulated by MEF-2 in the heart?

COX-2, ANF, estrogen receptor (ER)alpha gene, calsequestrin gene, casq2, cTnT, MCK, alpha-cardiac actin, sarco(endo)plasmic reticulum Ca2+-ATPase, SERCA, MLC-2, alpha-cardiac myosin heavy chain gene, phosphoglycerate mutase and PGAM-M are regulated by MEF-2 in the heart

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Is there an association between TERT promoter mutation and survival of glioma patients?

Yes, TERT mutation is associated with survival of glioma patients and was suggested as a bio-marker of gliomas.

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Which JAK (Janus kinase) inhibitor is approved for treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?

Tofacitinib (or CP690.550) is an oral JAK (Janus kinase) inhibitor that is approved for treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. Tofacitinib inhibits JAK family kinase members, in particular JAK1 and JAK3, achieving a broad limitation of inflammation by interfering with several cytokine receptors. Tofacitinib has also a proven efficacy as an immunosuppressive regimen after renal transplantation. GLPG-0634 and INCB18424 are other JAK kinase inhibitors that are being studied for treatment of rheumatoid arthritis.

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Which is the mechanism used for synthesis of a highly functional N-truncated dystrophin isoform that attenuates dystrophinopathy?

Translation from a DMD exon 5 IRES results in a functional dystrophin isoform that attenuates dystrophinopathy in humans and mice

[25108525]

Which are the newly identified DNA nucleases that can be used to treat thalassemia?

Thalassemia is genetic diseases of the blood caused by mutations in the globin gene. Main goal for thalassemia treatment is to develop homologous recombination based gene therapy in order to cure these diseases. Zinc finger nucleases (ZFNs) and TAL effector nucleases (TALENs) are proper targets for the human globin gene. Genome editing using engineered nucleases such as ZFNs and TALENs has become a powerful technology for reverse genetics.

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Does ziconotide bind to N-type calcium channels?

Yes, ziconotide/omega-conotoxin MVIIA blocks N-type calcium channels.

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How is OCT3 associated with serotonin?

OCT3 plays a role in serotonin clearance

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What constitutes an increased risk for individuals with Fanconi anemia?

Fanconi anemia is a rare genetic disorder associated with an increased risk of leukemias and solid tumors.

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Is stop codon bypass possible?

In 1999, proof-of-concept for treating these disorders was obtained in a mouse model of muscular dystrophy, when administration of aminoglycosides restored protein translation by inducing the ribosome to bypass a PTC. Aminoglycosides can bypass nonsense mutations and are the prototypic agents for translational bypass therapy (TBT). Expression of retroviral replication enzymes (Pol) requires a controlled translational recoding event to bypass the stop codon at the end of gag. This recoding event occurs either by direct suppression of termination via the insertion of an amino acid at the stop codon (readthrough) or by alteration of the mRNA reading frame (frameshift).

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Is the protein β1-integrin recycled?

Yes, the β1-integrin is recycled.

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Are BBS mutations involved in syndromic Hirschsprung disease?

In 3 families with Bardet-Biedl syndrome (BBS) and Hirschsprung disease (HSCR), concomitant mutations in BBS genes and regulatory RET elements have been identified. Analysis of the data suggests that BBS mutations can potentiate HSCR predisposing RET alleles, which by themselves are insufficient to cause disease.

[19666486]

Which signaling pathway is activating the dishevelled proteins?

Dishevelled (Xdsh) controls cell fate via canonical Wnt signaling

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Which is the defective protein causing the lysosomal storage disease Fabry?

Anderson-Fabry disease (referred to as Fabry disease) is an X-linked disorder characterized by a deficiency of the lysosomal enzyme alpha-galactosidase A and the subsequent accumulation in various tissues of globotriaosylceramide (Gb(3)), the main substrate of the defective enzyme.

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Is there any software for automated analysis of immuno-histochemistry images?

In some studies of breast cancer, quantitation of immunohistochemically highlighted microvessel ‘hot spots’ has been shown to be a powerful prognostic tool. However, the antibody used, the number and size of the ‘hot spots’ assessed, and the stratification of patients into high and low vascular groups vary between studies. Furthermore, little is known about the relationship between microvessel density and other vascular parameters. These uncertainties and the laborious nature of the technique make it unsuitable for diagnostic practice. Both manual and computerized image analysis techniques were used in this study to examine the relationship between microvessel density and the vascular parameters in different sized microscopic fields in a pilot series of 30 invasive breast carcinomas. Automated pixel analysis of immunohistochemical staining, Chalkley point counting, and observer subjective vascular grading were also assessed as more rapid methods of measuring tumour vascularity

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Is TALEN being used on stem cells?

Yes, TALEN is being used on stem cells for genome editing.

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Is there an association between bruxism and reflux

There is an association between bruxism and reflux.

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what is the role of IGF-1 in cardiac regeneration after myocardial infarction?

Ischemia-reperfusion injury is a strong stimulus for both global and focal cardiomyocyte progenitor cell marker up-regulations, correlating to the endogenous up-regulation of IGF-1. Furthermore, in an animal model of myocardial infarction, intracoronary administration of IGF-1 is shown to reduce pathological cardiac remodeling, induce myocardial regeneration, and improve ventricular function. IGF-1 is a potent modulator of stem cell replication, commitment to the myocyte lineage, and myocyte differentiation. In another study, the dual delivery of IGF-1 and HGF from affinity-binding alginate biomaterial prevented cell apoptosis, induced cardiomyocyte cell cycle re-entry and increased the incidence of GATA-4-positive cell clusters. The addition of nanofiber-mediated IGF-1 delivery to Cardiac Progenitor Cells therapy improved in part the recovery of myocardial structure and function after infarction. IGF-1 promotes proliferation and survival of CPCs. The strategy of IGF-1 transgene expression has shown to induce massive stem cell mobilization via SDF-1alpha signaling and culminated in extensive angiomyogenesis in the infarcted heart.

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What is known about prostate cancer screening in the UK

Screening for early disease has been available for many years, but there is still no national screening programme established in the United Kingdom. Two systematic reviews have concluded that screening should not be carried out. In general, this recommendation has been accepted in the United Kingdom.

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Can a peptide aptamer be used as protein inhibitor?

Yes, peptide aptamers can be used as inhibitors.

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List inflammatory caspase proteins?

caspase-1 caspase-4 caspase-5

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List invertebrates where ultraconserved elements have been identified.

Ultraconserved elements have been identified in the following genomes of invertebrates: tunicates, diptera, worm and yeast.

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Which gene is most commonly associated with severe congenital and cyclic neutropenia?

Neutrophil elastase gene (ELANE) mutations are responsible for the majority of cases of severe congenital neutropenia (SCN) and cyclic neutropenia (CN).

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what is the role of TGFbeta in cardiac regeneration after myocardial injury?

TGFβ is activated in the myocardium in response to injury and plays a crucial role in cardiac repair by suppressing inflammation while promoting myofibroblast phenotypic modulation and extracellular matrix deposition. In fact, upregulation of TGF-beta signaling promotes the formation of a myofibroblast-like phenotype. TGF-beta interacts with bone morphogenic protein and Wnt pathways to form a complex signaling network that is critical in regulating the fate choices of both stromal and tissue-specific resident stem cells, determining whether functional regeneration or the formation of scar tissue follows an injury. In addition, TGF-beta enhances the formation of cardiospheres and could potentially enhance the regenerative potential of adult cardiac progenitor cells.

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List two chemotherapeutic agents that are used for treatment of Subependymal Giant Cell Astrocytoma

Everolimus and rapamycin are chemotherapeutic agents that are used for treatment of Subependymal Giant Cell Astrocytoma.

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Are integrins part of the extracellular matrix?

Yes, integrins are a central family of extracellular matrix receptors.

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Is Calcium homeostasis important in cardiac physiology and pathophysiology?

Calcium homeostasis is very important in cardiac physiology and pathophysiology. Maintenance of cellular calcium homeostasis is critical to regulating cardiac contraction. Abnormalities in calcium homeostasis underlie cardiac arrhythmia, contractile dysfunction and cardiac remodelling.

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List available databases containing information about conserved noncoding elements.

Ancora and TFCONES.

[18045502, 18279518]

What was the purpose of the FANTOM5 project?

The functional annotation of the mammalian genome 5 (FANTOM5) project provides comprehensive expression profiles and functional annotation of mammalian cell-type-specific transcriptomes with wide applications in biomedical research. The FANTOM5 and ENCODE projects represent two independent large scale efforts to map regulatory and transcriptional features to the human genome.

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Is the gene DUX4 epigenetically regulated in somatic cells?

The human double-homeodomain retrogene DUX4 is expressed in the testis and epigenetically repressed in somatic tissues. Recent studies provide evidence that DUX4 is expressed in the human germline and then epigenetically silenced in somatic cells.

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What is the function of the mammalian gene Irg1?

Human IRG1 and mouse Irg1 mediates antiviral and antimicrobial immune responses, without its exact role having been elucidated. Irg1 has been suggested to have a role in apoptosis and to play a significant role in embryonic implantation. Irg1 is reported as the mammalian ortholog of methylcitrate dehydratase.

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Have hESC been tested for the treatment of age-related macular degeneration?

Yes, human embryonic stem cell (hESC) therapies are being assessed for age-related macular degeneration (AMD).

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What disease in Loxapine prominently used for?

The best indication of loxapine is paranoid schizophrenia.

[22014696, 7914051]

What is the systemic nickel allergy syndrome?

A severe form of this allergy is the Systemic nickel allergy syndrome, clinically characterized by cutaneous manifestions (contact dermatitis, pompholyx, hand dermatitis dyshydrosis, urticaria) with chronic course and systemic symptoms (headache, asthenia, itching, and gastrointestinal disorders related to histopathological alterations of gastrointestinal mucosa, borderline with celiac disease).

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Which antibodies cause Riedel thyroiditis?

Riedel thyroiditis (Immunoglobulin G4-related thyroid disease) is caused by IgG4 antibodies. It is part of the spectrum of Ig4-related sclerosing disease. It is associated with fibrosis and inflammation of the thyroid gland.

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What are the effects of ILK ablation?

Depending on the tissue or cell where ILK is ablated we see different effects: Ablation of ILK in heart results in dilated cardiomyopathy and spontaneous heart failure Ablation of ILK in fibroblasts leads to impaired healing due to a severe reduction in the number of myofibroblasts Ablation of ILK in osteoclasts inhibits bone resorption Ablation of ILK in liver results in enhanced and prolonged cell proliferation and hepatomegaly after phenobarbital administration and in abnormal histology Ablation of ILK in podocytes caused an aberrant distribution of nephrin and alpha-actinin-4

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Does d-tubocurarine (d-TC) induces irreversible inhibition of nicotinic acetylcholine receptor (nAChR) at the neuromuscular junction?

The d-tubocurarine is a nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent (nondepolarizing muscle relaxant - NDMR). The nondepolarizing muscle relaxants act by blocking the nicotinic acetylcholine receptors of the neuromuscular junction. The neuromuscular blocking action of tubocurarine is reversible and concentration-dependent. The inhibition of acetylcholine-induced currents by d-tubocurarine can be reversed by anticholinesterase agents, such as edrophonium and methamidophos.

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Which receptors are bound by Tasimelteon?

Tasimelteon (HETLIOZ™) is an orally bioavailable agonist of the melatonin MT1 and MT2 receptors that has been approved in the US for the treatment of non-24-hour sleep-wake disorder.

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Is zyxin a focal adhesion protein?

Yes, zyxin is a focal adhesion protein.

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What is the role of ELMO1 gene in cell migration?

ELMO proteins are also known to regulate actin cytoskeleton reorganization through activation of the small GTPbinding protein Rac via the ELMO-Dock180 complex. In mammalian cells, ELMO1 interacts with Dock180 as a component of the CrkII/Dock180/Rac pathway responsible for phagocytosis and cell migration. We also show that Hck and ELMO1 interact in intact cells and that ELMO1 is heavily tyrosine-phosphorylated in cells that co-express Hck, suggesting that it is a substrate of Hck.The ELMO1/DOCK180 complex then forms a guanine nucleotide exchange factor for Rac1, regulating its activation during cell migration in different biological systems. Rac activation by the ELMO.Dock180 complex at discrete intracellular locations is mediated by the N-terminal 330 amino acids of ELMO1 rather than generalized Rac activation plays a role in cell migration.

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What is the biological role of K-48 linked protein ubiquitination?

The proteasome, which identifies and destroys unwanted proteins rapidly, plays a vital role in maintaining cellular protein homeostasis. Proteins that are destined for proteasome-mediated degradation are usually tagged with a chain of ubiquitin linked via lysine (K) 48 that targets them to the proteolytic machinery. K(48)-linked polyubiquitinated proteins are degraded by the proteasomes to elevate cellular levels of amino acids needed for intracellular proliferation. NF-κB and ubiquitylation initially became linked when it was recognised that lysine (K)48-linked ubiquitin chains are involved in the processing of NF-κB precursors and the degradation of inhibitor of kappa B (IκB) proteins.

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Could DNA (cytosine-5-)-methyltransferases serve as tumour markers?

Yes. It has been demonstrated in a number of experimental studies that DNA (Cytosine-5-)-methyltransferases (DNMT1, DNMT3A and DNMT3B) are deregulated in several types of cancer (invasive cervical cancer, colon cancer, esophageal squamous cell carcinoma (ESCC), gastric cancer, embryonal carcinoma, cervical cancer, adenoma, adenoid cystic carcinoma, salivary gland neoplasms). Moreover, three single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) of the DNMT3B promoter region have been reported to be stratification markers that can predict an individual's susceptibility to cancers. Therefore, DNA (Cytosine-5-)-methyltransferases can serve as tumour markers.

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Which RNA polymerase is used for the replication of viroids?

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase II of plant origin transcribes viroid RNA into full-length copies

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List Parkin binding partners

HSP90 CDC37 GRP75 HSP60 LRPPRC TUFM PICK1 PSMA7 Pael receptor

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What is generic name of drug Adempas?

Riociguat is generic name of drug Adempas. It is a soluble guanylate cyclase stimulator that was approved for the treatment of patients with chronic thromboembolic pulmonary hypertension and pulmonary arterial hypertension.

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What is known about Vancomycin dosing in neonates?

Staphylococcus epidermis, including methicillin-resistant strains, are inhibited by vancomycin concentrations of 1-4 µg/ml. Staphylococcus pyogenes, Streptococcus pneumonia, and Streptococcus viridans are susceptible to 2 µg/ml vancomycin. Bacillus spp. are inhibited by 2 µg/ml, Corynebacterium spp. by 0.04-3.1 µg/ml and Clostridium spp. by 0.39-6 µg/ml vancomycin. Peak and trough concentrations of vancomycin should be 40 μg/ml and 10 μg/ml, respectively, to both be effective and avoid oto- or nephrotoxicity in adults. There is no ideal pattern of vancomycin dosing; vancomycin dosages must be individualized. Because vancomycin activity is primarily time-dependent, the 24-h area under the curve (AUC0-24h) divided by the minimum inhibitor concentration (MIC) value (AUC0-24h/MIC) is a better predictor of efficacy. In adults with MIC values less than 1 μg/ml, trough concentrations greater than 10 µg/ml result in AUC0-24h/MIC values 400 Compared with adults, neonates have a higher extracellular fluid volume and a limited renal elimination capacity resulting in different pharmacokinetics subject to maturation stage. Infants weighing less than 1,000 gm had significantly larger volumes of drug distribution and consequently longer drug half-lives than larger premature infants, regardless of postconceptual or actual age. These differences alter the vancomycin dosing recommendations in these two groups of premature infants. Vancomycin-associated nephrotoxicity is rare in neonates, even with serum peak concentrations 40 microg/mL. Vancomycin is associated with ototoxicity. There is no consensus on vancomycin dosing in newborns and young infants, which leads to significant variation in vancomycin dosing regimens and TDM guidance across neonatal units. The development of standardized, evidence-based protocols should be prioritized.

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Is single guide RNA part of the CRISPR/Cas9 tool or an inhibitor of its function?

Single guide RNA is part of the CRISPR/Cas9 system.

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What is the target protein of the drug Idelalisib?

Idelalisib represents a first-in-class specific inhibitor of the phosphoinositol-3 kinase (PI3K) delta isoform.

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Which antiepileptic drug is most strongly associated with spina bifida?

Phenytoin is not used in pregnancy as it is associated with a severe fetal deformation. From the other anticonvulsants most studies report the higher association between use during pregnancy and spin bifida to occur with Valproate.

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Which bacteria caused plague?

Yersinia pestis is the causative bacteria of the plague.

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The drug JTV519 is derivative of which group of chemical compounds?

The 1,4-benzothiazepine derivative JTV-519 is a new type of calcium ion channel modulator.JTV-519, which has potential use as an antiarrhythmic [285800]. The drug is a novel cardioprotectant derivative of 1,4-benzothiazepine for which phase I trials were completed in the third quarter of 1998

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Is the long non- coding RNA malat-1 up or downregulated in cancer?

Malat-1 expression is upregulated in several tumor types

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Oxantel is used for periodontitis treatment. How does it work?

Oxantel, a cholinergic anthelmintic and fumarate reductase inhibitor, significantly inhibited biofilm formation by P. gingivalis and disrupted established biofilms.

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What is apelin?

Apelin, a small regulatory peptide, is the endogenous ligand for the apelin receptor (APJ) receptor.

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What is the function of the protein encoded by the gene PABPC4?

The main function of PABPC4 is in mRNA stability and translation initiation. PABPC4 may also play a role in chronic inflammation and in the pathogenesis of colorectal cancer.

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What kind of enzyme is encoded by the proto-oncogene ABL1?

ABL-family proteins comprise one of the best conserved branches of the tyrosine kinases. Each ABL protein contains an SH3-SH2-TK (Src homology 3-Src homology 2-tyrosine kinase) domain cassette, which confers autoregulated kinase activity and is common among nonreceptor tyrosine kinases. This cassette is coupled to an actin-binding and -bundling domain, which makes ABL proteins capable of connecting phosphoregulation with actin-filament reorganization. Two vertebrate paralogs, ABL1 and ABL2, have evolved to perform specialized functions.

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What is the mode of inheritance of Romano Ward long QT syndrome?

The Romano Ward long QT syndrome (LQTS) has an autosomal dominant mode of inheritance.

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Which histone modifications have been associated to alternative splicing?

H3K36m3 has been systematically associated to exon inclusion in almost all published studies. Other marks have been associated as well in specific studies to exon expression, but it can not be concluded that the effect of these marks in exon expression it is not a consequence of their effect in gene expression.

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Is phospholamban phosphorylated by Protein kinase A?

Phospholamban (PLB) is a sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) protein that is phosphorylated at Ser16 by PKA. Phosphorylation of PLB by PKA reverses the inhibitory action of PLB.

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Are there telemedicine applications for chronic pain management?

Yes, telemedicine is feasible and cost-effective for education and therapy of patients with chronic pain.

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What is a P-body (processing body)?

Processing bodies (P bodies, PB) are cytoplasmic protein complexes involved in degradation and translational arrest of mRNA.

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What is the mechanism of action of decitabine?

Decitabine reactivates unmethylated p21WAF1 in some AML cell lines but the possible occurrence of p21WAF1 methylation in AML in vivo has not been studied in detail and decitabine effects on p21WAF1 chromatin remodeling have not been reported. We also discuss the following questions: What is the best administration schedule of decitabine in solid tumors? Is there tumor type specificity for decitabine-based epigenetic therapy? We found that p21WAF1 mRNA was undetectable in 6 of 24 AML patient samples and 4 of 5 AML cell lines but there was no evidence of p21WAF1 promoter methylation.

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Which gene is associated with the Mitchell-Riley syndrome?

Mutations in the gene coding for the transcription factor RFX6 (regulatory factor X,6) have been described as the cause of the Mitchell-Riley syndrome.

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Is paramyxovirus involved in human subacute thyroiditis?

There is no evidence that paramyxovirus are involved in etiology of subacute thyroiditis.

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What are the mobile applications fields of use for patients ?

Weight-loss mobile applications pediatric obesity prevention and treatment, healthy eating, and physical activity promotion A total of 229 dermatology-related apps were identified in the following categories: general dermatology reference (61 [26.6%]), self-surveillance/diagnosis (41 [17.9%]), disease guide (39 [17.0%]), educational aid (20 [8.7%]), sunscreen/UV recommendation (19 [8.3%]), calculator (12 [5.2%]), teledermatology (8 [3.5%]), conference (6 [2.6%]), journal (6 [2.6%]), photograph storage/sharing (5 [2.2%]), dermoscopy (2 [0.9%]), pathology (2 [0.9%]), and other (8 [3.5%]). The most reviewed apps included Ultraviolet ~ UV Index (355 reviews), VisualDx (306), SPF (128), iSore (61), and SpotMole (50) mobile health and fitness app alcohol-use behavior change or recovery More than 17,000 mHealth apps now are available for smart phones and other devices, and they do everything from monitoring urine flow for patients with enlarged prostates to reminding people prone to kidney stones to drink more water.

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Is there any link between the aurora B kinase and the polycomb protein ring1B?

Yes. The aurora B kinase and the polycomb protein ring1B combine to regulate active promoters in quiescent lymphocytes.

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Which are the genes responsible for Dyskeratosis Congenita?

To date, 8 genes have been associated with Dyskeratosis Congenita development. These are DKC1, TERC, TERT, NOP10, NHP2, TIN2, C16orf57, and TCAB1. Seven of these are important in telomere maintenance, because either they encode components of the telomerase enzyme complex (DKC1, TERC, TERT, NOP10, NHP2, and TCAB1) or the shelterin complex (TINF2).

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Is CD99 encoded by MIC2 gene?

CD99 is a 32-kDa transmembrane glycoprotein that is encoded by the MIC2 gene

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Name five programs for transcript quantification from RNASeq experiments

Popular programs for transcript quantification from RNASeq experiments include: Cufflinks, RSEM, Flux Capacitor, Mitie, Miso, Tigar, Montebello, Drut, Traph, Pome, IsoformEx, Neuma,

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What are the main characteristics/symptoms of the "Brugada" syndrome

In 1992, Brugada and Brugada first described a new entity, which became known as Brugada syndrome, that is associated with a high risk of ventricular arrhythmias and sudden cardiac death in patients without structural heart disease. This syndrome is characterized by a distinct electrocardiographic phenotype, type 1 Brugada pattern, consisting of a coved ST-segment elevation (≥0.2 mV) followed by a negative T wave in more than one right precordial lead. The typical Brugada electrocardiogram (ECG) phenotype is often concealed in affected population. Brugada syndrome is a genetically determined familial disease with autosomal dominant transmission and variable penetrance, conferring a predisposition to sudden cardiac death due to ventricular arrhythmias. Brugada syndrome (BrS)is considered to be a primary inherited channelopathy often involving the inward sodium current and the diagnosis has traditionally required the exclusion of overt structural heart disease. Brugada syndrome (BrS) is an inherited cardiac disease characterized by ST segment elevation in V1-V3 ECG leads. Mutations SCN5A gene encoding for the cardiac voltage-gated Na(+) channel are found in some BrS patients, but also in family members with isolated conduction disturbances.

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What is the main component of the Lewy bodies?

Parkinson's disease (PD) is characterized by the progressive degeneration of substantia nigra pars compacta (SNpc) dopaminergic neurones and the formation of Lewy bodies (LB) in a proportion of the remaining neurones. Alpha-synuclein has been identified as the main component of the Lewy bodies.

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How does thyroid hormone regulate mitochondrial biogenesis in the myocardium?

T4 increases myocardial mitochondrial bioenergetic capacity, oxygen consumption and markers of mitochondrial biogenesis. The marked, parallel increases in PPARalpha levels suggest its potential involvement in mediating myocardial-specific remodeling of mitochondria in response to T4. T3 induces mitochondrial biogenesis. In fact, T3 treatment for 72h increases activity of respiratory complexes II, IV, V and citrate synthase (CS), levels of mitochondrial enzyme subunits (e.g. COXI, COXIV) and nuclear-encoded transcription factors, involved in mitochondrial biogenesis (e.g. PGC-1, mtTFA and PPAR-alpha). Furthermore, L-T3 increases the expression of factors involved in mitochondrial DNA transcription and biogenesis, such as hypoxic inducible factor-1α, mitochondrial transcription factor A and peroxisome proliferator activated receptor γ coactivator-1α, in the LV peri-infarct zone. The activation of TFAM and TFB2M expression is shown to be required for the induction of mtDNA biogenesis by T3. Truncated forms of the nuclear receptor TRα1, with molecular weights of 43 kDa (p43) and 28 Kda have been previously identified in mitochondria. P43 is a mitochondrial T3 receptor which stimulates mitochondrial transcription and protein synthesis in the presence of T3. p43 depletion in mice decreases mitochondrial DNA replication and respiratory chain activity.

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What is the link between HOT regions and RNA polymerase recruitment?

Most HOT regions co-localize with RNA polymerase II binding sites, but many are not near the promoters of annotated genes. At HOT promoters, TF occupancy is strongly predictive of transcription preinitiation complex recruitment and moderately predictive of initiating Pol II recruitment, but only weakly predictive of elongating Pol II and RNA transcript abundance.

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List variants of the MC1R gene.

V60L D84E V92M R151C R160W R163Q D294H

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Which is the enzyme that degrades decapped mRNAs?

The removal of the 5'-cap structure by the decapping enzyme DCP2 and its coactivator DCP1 shuts down translation and exposes the mRNA to 5'-to-3' exonucleolytic degradation by XRN1

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Which phenotypes are associated with heterozygous mutations of the BSCL2 gene?

Heterozygous mutations in the Berardinelli-Seip congenital lipodystrophy (BSCL2) gene have been associated with different clinical phenotypes including Silver syndrome/spastic paraplegia 17, distal hereditary motor neuropathy type V, and Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2 (CMT2) with predominant hand involvement.

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Which is the target protein of the drug nivolumab?

Nivolumab was developed as a monoclonal antibody against programmed death receptor-1, an immune checkpoint inhibitor which negatively regulates T-cell proliferation and activation.

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The CXCR2 receptor is targeted in cancer. Name five antagonists.

There are numerous CXCR2 receptor antagonists, such as SB225002, G31P, SCH-527123, AZ10397767, SCH-479833.

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What is the genomic structure of the FAA (FANCA) gene?

The FAA (FANCA) gene contains 43 exons spanning approximately 80 kb. Exons range from 34 to 188 bp, whereas sequence analysis of the 5' region upstream of the putative transcription start site showed no obvious TATA and CAAT boxes, but did show a GC-rich region, typical of housekeeping genes.

[9169126]

What is Snord116?

SNORD116 is a small nucleolar (sno) RNA gene cluster (HBII-85) implicated as a major contributor the Prader-Willi phenotype. SNORD116 genes appears to be responsible for the major features of PWS. SNORD116 is a paternally expressed box C/D snoRNA gene cluster. The mouse C/D box snoRNA MBII-85 (SNORD116) is processed into at least five shorter RNAs using processing sites near known functional elements of C/D box snoRNAs. Snord116 expression in the medial hypothalamus, particularly within nuclei that are part of feeding circuitry. High expression of Snord116 was evident in the paraventricular (PVN) and ventromedial (VMH) nuclei, but particularly prevalent in the arcuate nucleus (ARC) according to in situ hybridization. Snord116 expression level in ventral hypothalamic dissections including ARC was significantly greater (by 2-fold) than that in cortex; and its expression level in dorsal hypothalamic dissections including PVN was double that in cortex. The enhanced expression pattern of Snord116 in hypothalamic nuclei was observed at weaning and young adult stages, but less obvious neonatally when expression was significantly more widespread. Therefore the expression of Snord116 likely is regulated developmentally. Snord116del mice with paternally derived deletion lack expression of this snoRNA. They have early-onset postnatal growth deficiency, but normal fertility and lifespan. While pituitary structure and somatotrophs are normal, liver Igf1 mRNA is decreased. In cognitive and behavior tests, Snord116del mice are deficient in motor learning and have increased anxiety. Around three months of age, they develop hyperphagia, but stay lean on regular and high-fat diet. On reduced caloric intake, Snord116del mice maintain their weight better than wild-type littermates, excluding increased energy requirement as a cause of hyperphagia. Normal compensatory feeding after fasting, and ability to maintain body temperature in the cold indicate normal energy homeostasis regulation. Metabolic chamber studies reveal that Snord116del mice maintain energy homeostasis by altered fuel usage. Prolonged mealtime and increased circulating ghrelin indicate a defect in meal termination mechanism. Snord116del mice, the first snoRNA deletion animal model, reveal a novel role for a non-coding RNA in growth and feeding regulation.

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What is the functional role of the protein Drp1?

Drp1 is involved in the regulation of mitochondrial fission.

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Which is the genetic cause for the development of Fanconi anemia complementation group D1?

Fanconi anemia complementation group D1 (FANCD1) was shown to be induced by biallelic mutations in the BRCA2 breast-cancer-susceptibility gene.

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Which diseases are caused by mutations in Calsequestrin 2 (CASQ2) gene?

CASQ2 mutations are associated with autosomal recessive catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT) and familial hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.

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What are the most frequent non-canonical sequence motifs at the donor and acceptor splice sites in vertebrates?

There are two major exceptions to the canonical GT-AG dinucleotides at donor and acceptor sites: the GG-AG splice site pairs, recognized through the typical U2 splicing machinery, and the AT-AC splice pairs recognized by the U12 splicing machinery.

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What does isradipine do to L-type channels?

Isradipine antagonizes/blocks the L-type channels.

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Why does cranberry juice help combat urinary tract infections?

Cranberry products affect the surface properties, such as fimbriae and lipopolysaccharides, and adhesion of fimbriated and nonfimbriated E. coli.

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