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Presidential Executive Order | 00-16252 (13159) | Presidential Documents
39279
Federal Register
Vol. 65, No. 123
Monday, June 26, 2000
Title 3—
The President
Executive Order 13159 of June 21, 2000
Blocking Property of the Government of the Russian Federa-
tion Relating to the Disposition of Highly Enriched Uranium
Extracted From Nuclear Weapons
By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the
laws of the United States of America, including the International Emergency
Economic Powers Act (IEEPA) (50 U.S.C. 1701 et seq.), the National Emer-
gencies Act (50 U.S.C. 1601 et seq.), and section 301 of title 3, United
States Code.
I, WILLIAM J. CLINTON, President of the United States of America, in
view of the policies underlying Executive Order 12938 of November 14,
1994, and Executive Order 13085 of May 26, 1998, find that the risk of
nuclear proliferation created by the accumulation of a large volume of weap-
ons-usable fissile material in the territory of the Russian Federation con-
stitutes an unusual and extraordinary threat to the national security and
foreign policy of the United States, and hereby declare a national emergency
to deal with that threat.
I hereby order:
Section 1. A major national security goal of the United States is to ensure
that fissile material removed from Russian nuclear weapons pursuant to
various arms control and disarmament agreements is dedicated to peaceful
uses, subject to transparency measures, and protected from diversion to
activities of proliferation concern. As reflected in Executive Order 13085,
the full implementation of the Agreement Between the Government of the
United States of America and the Government of the Russian Federation
Concerning the Disposition of Highly Enriched Uranium Extracted from
Nuclear Weapons, dated February 18, 1993, and related contracts and agree-
ments (collectively, the ‘‘HEU Agreements’’) is essential to the attainment
of this goal. The HEU Agreements provide for the conversion of approxi-
mately 500 metric tons of highly enriched uranium contained in Russian
nuclear weapons into low-enriched uranium for use as fuel in commercial
nuclear reactors. In furtherance of our national security goals, all heads
of departments and agencies of the United States Government shall continue
to take all appropriate measures within their authority to further the full
implementation of the HEU Agreements.
Sec. 2. Government of the Russian Federation assets directly related to
the implementation of the HEU Agreements currently may be subject to
attachment, judgment, decree, lien, execution, garnishment, or other judicial
process, thereby jeopardizing the full implementation of the HEU Agreements
to the detriment of U.S. foreign policy. In order to ensure the preservation
and proper and complete transfer to the Government of the Russian Federa-
tion of all payments due to it under the HEU Agreements, and except
to the extent provided in regulations, orders, directives, or licenses that
may hereafter be issued pursuant to this order, all property and interests
in property of the Government of the Russian Federation directly related
to the implementation of the HEU Agreements that are in the United States,
that hereafter come within the United States, or that are or hereafter come
within the possession or control of United States persons, including their
overseas branches, are hereby blocked and may not be transferred, paid,
exported, withdrawn, or otherwise dealt in. Unless licensed or authorized
pursuant to this order, any attachment, judgment, decree, lien, execution,
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Federal Register / Vol. 65, No. 123 / Monday, June 26, 2000 / Presidential Documents
garnishment, or other judicial process is null and void with respect to
any property or interest in property blocked pursuant to this order.
Sec. 3. For the purposes of this order: (a) The term ‘‘person’’ means an
individual or entity;
(b) The term ‘‘entity’’ means a partnership, association, trust, joint venture,
corporation, or other organization;
(c) The term ‘‘United States person’’ means any United States citizen;
permanent resident alien; juridical person organized under the laws of the
United States or any jurisdiction within the United States, including foreign
branches; or any person in the United States; and
(d) The term ‘‘Government of the Russian Federation’’ means the Govern-
ment of the Russian Federation, any political subdivision, agency, or instru-
mentality thereof, and any person owned or controlled by, or acting for
or on behalf of, the Government of the Russian Federation.
Sec. 4. (a) The Secretary of the Treasury, in consultation with the Secretary
of State, the Secretary of Energy, and, as appropriate, other agencies, is
hereby authorized to take such actions, including the promulgation of rules
and regulations, and to employ all powers granted to me by IEEPA, as
may be necessary to carry out the purposes of this order. The Secretary
of the Treasury may redelegate any of these functions to other officers
and agencies of the United States Government. All agencies of the United
States Government are hereby directed to take all appropriate measures
within their statutory authority to carry out the provisions of this order.
(b) Nothing contained in this order shall relieve a person from any require-
ment to obtain a license or other authorization from any department or
agency of the United States Government in compliance with applicable
laws and regulations subject to the jurisdiction of the department or agency.
Sec. 5. This order is not intended to create, nor does it create, any right,
benefit, or privilege, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law by a
party against the United States, its agencies, officers, or any other person.
Sec. 6. (a) This order is effective at 12:01 a.m. eastern daylight time on
June 22, 2000.
(b) This order shall be transmitted to the Congress and published in
the Federal Register.
œ–
THE WHITE HOUSE,
June 21, 2000.
[FR Doc. 00–16252
Filed 6–23–00; 8:45 am]
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| Blocking Property of the Government of the Russian Federation Relating to the Disposition of Highly Enriched Uranium Extracted From Nuclear Weapons | 2000-06-21T00:00:00 | 1d5089743da782b9d03564701541a695eaaeff27ea61c5a402afe572d1a32438 |
Presidential Executive Order | 00-12840 (13156) | Presidential Documents
31785
Federal Register
Vol. 65, No. 98
Friday, May 19, 2000
Title 3—
The President
Executive Order 13156 of May 17, 2000
Amendment to Executive Order 12871 Regarding the
National Partnership Council
By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the
laws of the United States of America, and in order to provide for a uniform
policy for the Federal Government relating to labor-management partnerships,
it is hereby ordered that Executive Order 12871, as amended by Executive
Order 12983, is further amended as follows:
Section 1. Section 1(a)(10) of the order is amended by striking ‘‘two’’ and
inserting ‘‘three.’’
œ–
THE WHITE HOUSE,
May 17, 2000.
[FR Doc. 00–12840
Filed 5–18–00; 8:45 am]
Billing code 3195–01–P
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| Amendment to Executive Order 12871 Regarding the National Partnership Council | 2000-05-17T00:00:00 | f398b861c526d2f20408e3ccaa88fe609486085767a9a409acd63ef3b153aae9 |
Presidential Executive Order | 00-13367 (13157) | Presidential Documents
34035
Federal Register
Vol. 65, No. 102
Thursday, May 25, 2000
Title 3—
The President
Executive Order 13157 of May 23, 2000
Increasing Opportunities for Women-Owned Small Businesses
By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the
laws of the United States of America, including the Small Business Act,
15 U.S.C. 631, et seq., section 7106 of the Federal Acquisition Streamlining
Act of 1994 (Public Law 103–355), and the Office of Federal Procurement
Policy, 41 U.S.C. 403, et seq., and in order to strengthen the executive
branch’s commitment to increased opportunities for women-owned small
businesses, it is hereby ordered as follows:
Section 1. Executive Branch Policy. In order to reaffirm and strengthen
the statutory policy contained in the Small Business Act, 15 U.S.C. 644(g)(1),
it shall be the policy of the executive branch to take the steps necessary
to meet or exceed the 5 percent Government-wide goal for participation
in procurement by women-owned small businesses (WOSBs). Further, the
executive branch shall implement this policy by establishing a participation
goal for WOSBs of not less than 5 percent of the total value of all prime
contract awards for each fiscal year and of not less than 5 percent of
the total value of all subcontract awards for each fiscal year.
Sec. 2. Responsibilities of Federal Departments and Agencies. Each depart-
ment and agency (hereafter referred to collectively as ‘‘agency’’) that has
procurement authority shall develop a long-term comprehensive strategy
to expand opportunities for WOSBs. Where feasible and consistent with
the effective and efficient performance of its mission, each agency shall
establish a goal of achieving a participation rate for WOSBs of not less
than 5 percent of the total value of all prime contract awards for each
fiscal year and of not less than 5 percent of the total value of all subcontract
awards for each fiscal year. The agency’s plans shall include, where appro-
priate, methods and programs as set forth in section 4 of this order.
Sec. 3. Responsibilities of the Small Business Administration. The Small
Business Administration (SBA) shall establish an Assistant Administrator
for Women’s Procurement within the SBA’s Office of Government Con-
tracting. This officer shall be responsible for:
(a)
working with each agency to develop and implement policies to
achieve the participation goals for WOSBs for the executive branch
and individual agencies;
(b)
advising agencies on how to implement strategies that will increase
the participation of WOSBs in Federal procurement;
(c)
evaluating, on a semiannual basis, using the Federal Procurement
Data System (FPDS), the achievement of prime and subcontract
goals and actual prime and subcontract awards to WOSBs for each
agency;
(d)
preparing a report, which shall be submitted by the Administrator
of the SBA to the President, through the Interagency Committee
on Women’s Business Enterprise and the Office of Federal Procure-
ment Policy (OFPP), on findings based on the FPDS, regarding
prime contracts and subcontracts awarded to WOSBs;
(e)
making recommendations and working with Federal agencies to ex-
pand participation rates for WOSBs, with a particular emphasis on
agencies in which the participation rate for these businesses is less
than 5 percent;
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(f)
providing a program of training and development seminars and
conferences to instruct women on how to participate in the SBA’s
8(a) program, the Small Disadvantaged Business (SDB) program, the
HUBZone program, and other small business contracting programs
for which they may be eligible;
(g)
developing and implementing a single uniform Federal Govern-
ment-wide website, which provides links to other websites within
the Federal system concerning acquisition, small businesses, and
women-owned businesses, and which provides current procurement
information for WOSBs and other small businesses;
(h)
developing an interactive electronic commerce database that allows
small businesses to register their businesses and capabilities as po-
tential contractors for Federal agencies, and enables contracting of-
ficers to identify and locate potential contractors; and
(i)
working with existing women-owned business organizations, State
and local governments, and others in order to promote the sharing
of information and the development of more uniform State and
local standards for WOSBs that reduce the burden on these firms
in competing for procurement opportunities.
Sec. 4. Other Responsibilities of Federal Agencies. To the extent permitted
by law, each Federal agency shall work with the SBA to ensure maximum
participation of WOSBs in the procurement process by taking the following
steps:
(a)
designating a senior acquisition official who will work with the
SBA to identify and promote contracting opportunities for WOSBs;
(b)
requiring contracting officers, to the maximum extent practicable,
to include WOSBs in competitive acquisitions;
(c)
prescribing procedures to ensure that acquisition planners, to the
maximum extent practicable, structure acquisitions to facilitate
competition by and among small businesses, HUBZone small busi-
nesses, SDBs, and WOSBs, and providing guidance on structuring
acquisitions, including, but not limited to, those expected to result
in multiple award contracts, in order to facilitate competition by
and among these groups;
(d)
implementing mentor-protege programs, which include women-
owned small business firms; and
(e)
offering industry-wide as well as industry-specific outreach, train-
ing, and technical assistance programs for WOSBs including, where
appropriate, the use of Government acquisitions forecasts, in order
to assist WOSBs in developing their products, skills, business plan-
ning practices, and marketing techniques.
Sec. 5. Subcontracting Plans. The head of each Federal agency, or designated
representative, shall work closely with the SBA, OFPP, and others to develop
procedures to increase compliance by prime contractors with subcontracting
plans proposed under section 8(d) of the Small Business Act (15 U.S.C.
637(d)) or section 834 of Public Law 101–189, as amended (15 U.S.C. 637
note), including subcontracting plans involving WOSBs.
Sec. 6. Action Plans. If a Federal agency fails to meet its annual goals
in expanding contract opportunities for WOSBs, it shall work with the
SBA to develop an action plan to increase the likelihood that participation
goals will be met or exceeded in future years.
Sec. 7. Compliance. Independent agencies are requested to comply with
the provisions of this order.
Sec. 8. Consultation and Advice. In developing the long-term comprehensive
strategies required by section 2 of this order, Federal agencies shall consult
with, and seek information and advice from, State and local governments,
WOSBs, other private-sector partners, and other experts.
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Sec. 9. Judicial Review. This order is for internal management purposes
for the Federal Government. It does not create any right or benefit, substantive
or procedural, enforceable at law or equity by a party against the United
States, its agencies, its officers, its employees, or any other person.
œ–
THE WHITE HOUSE,
May 23, 2000.
[FR Doc. 00–13367
Filed 5–24–00; 8:45 am]
Billing code 3195–01–P
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| Increasing Opportunities for Women-Owned Small Businesses | 2000-05-23T00:00:00 | e882208aebdaa187e59f3e21623b64622cbb0663c9f31b1b4e5609e5b98a6d91 |
Presidential Executive Order | 00-13830 (13158) | Presidential Documents
34909
Federal Register / Vol. 65, No. 105 / Wednesday, May 31, 2000 / Presidential Documents
Executive Order 13158 of May 26, 2000
Marine Protected Areas
By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the
laws of the United States of America and in furtherance of the purposes
of the National Marine Sanctuaries Act (16 U.S.C. 1431 et seq.), National
Wildlife Refuge System Administration Act of 1966 (16 U.S.C. 668dd-ee),
National Park Service Organic Act (16 U.S.C. 1 et seq.), National Historic
Preservation Act (16 U.S.C. 470 et seq.), Wilderness Act (16 U.S.C. 1131
et seq.), Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (16
U.S.C. 1801 et seq.), Coastal Zone Management Act (16 U.S.C. 1451 et
seq.), Endangered Species Act of 1973 (16 U.S.C. 1531 et seq.), Marine
Mammal Protection Act (16 U.S.C. 1362 et seq.), Clean Water Act of 1977
(33 U.S.C. 1251 et seq.), National Environmental Policy Act, as amended
(42 U.S.C. 4321 et seq.), Outer Continental Shelf Lands Act (42 U.S.C.
1331 et seq.), and other pertinent statutes, it is ordered as follows:
Section 1. Purpose. This Executive Order will help protect the significant
natural and cultural resources within the marine environment for the benefit
of present and future generations by strengthening and expanding the Na-
tion’s system of marine protected areas (MPAs). An expanded and strength-
ened comprehensive system of marine protected areas throughout the marine
environment would enhance the conservation of our Nation’s natural and
cultural marine heritage and the ecologically and economically sustainable
use of the marine environment for future generations. To this end, the
purpose of this order is to, consistent with domestic and international law:
(a) strengthen the management, protection, and conservation of existing ma-
rine protected areas and establish new or expanded MPAs; (b) develop
a scientifically based, comprehensive national system of MPAs representing
diverse U.S. marine ecosystems, and the Nation’s natural and cultural re-
sources; and (c) avoid causing harm to MPAs through federally conducted,
approved, or funded activities.
Sec. 2. Definitions. For the purposes of this order: (a) ‘‘Marine protected
area’’ means any area of the marine environment that has been reserved
by Federal, State, territorial, tribal, or local laws or regulations to provide
lasting protection for part or all of the natural and cultural resources therein.
(b) ‘‘Marine environment’’ means those areas of coastal and ocean waters,
the Great Lakes and their connecting waters, and submerged lands there-
under, over which the United States exercises jurisdiction, consistent with
international law.
(c) The term ‘‘United States’’ includes the several States, the District
of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands of the
United States, American Samoa, Guam, and the Commonwealth of the North-
ern Mariana Islands.
Sec. 3. MPA Establishment, Protection, and Management. Each Federal agen-
cy whose authorities provide for the establishment or management of MPAs
shall take appropriate actions to enhance or expand protection of existing
MPAs and establish or recommend, as appropriate, new MPAs. Agencies
implementing this section shall consult with the agencies identified in sub-
section 4(a) of this order, consistent with existing requirements.
Sec. 4. National System of MPAs. (a) To the extent permitted by law and
subject to the availability of appropriations, the Department of Commerce
and the Department of the Interior, in consultation with the Department
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Federal Register / Vol. 65, No. 105 / Wednesday, May 31, 2000 / Presidential Documents
of Defense, the Department of State, the United States Agency for Inter-
national Development, the Department of Transportation, the Environmental
Protection Agency, the National Science Foundation, and other pertinent
Federal agencies shall develop a national system of MPAs. They shall coordi-
nate and share information, tools, and strategies, and provide guidance to
enable and encourage the use of the following in the exercise of each
agency’s respective authorities to further enhance and expand protection
of existing MPAs and to establish or recommend new MPAs, as appropriate:
(1) science-based identification and prioritization of natural and cultural
resources for additional protection;
(2) integrated assessments of ecological linkages among MPAs, including
ecological reserves in which consumptive uses of resources are prohibited,
to provide synergistic benefits;
(3) a biological assessment of the minimum area where consumptive uses
would be prohibited that is necessary to preserve representative habitats
in different geographic areas of the marine environment;
(4) an assessment of threats and gaps in levels of protection currently
afforded to natural and cultural resources, as appropriate;
(5) practical, science-based criteria and protocols for monitoring and evalu-
ating the effectiveness of MPAs;
(6) identification of emerging threats and user conflicts affecting MPAs
and appropriate, practical, and equitable management solutions, including
effective enforcement strategies, to eliminate or reduce such threats and
conflicts;
(7) assessment of the economic effects of the preferred management solu-
tions; and
(8) identification of opportunities to improve linkages with, and technical
assistance to, international marine protected area programs.
(b) In carrying out the requirements of section 4 of this order, the Depart-
ment of Commerce and the Department of the Interior shall consult with
those States that contain portions of the marine environment, the Common-
wealth of Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands of the United States, American
Samoa, Guam, and the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands,
tribes, Regional Fishery Management Councils, and other entities, as appro-
priate, to promote coordination of Federal, State, territorial, and tribal actions
to establish and manage MPAs.
(c) In carrying out the requirements of this section, the Department of
Commerce and the Department of the Interior shall seek the expert advice
and recommendations of non-Federal scientists, resource managers, and other
interested persons and organizations through a Marine Protected Area Federal
Advisory Committee. The Committee shall be established by the Department
of Commerce.
(d) The Secretary of Commerce and the Secretary of the Interior shall
establish and jointly manage a website for information on MPAs and Federal
agency reports required by this order. They shall also publish and maintain
a list of MPAs that meet the definition of MPA for the purposes of this
order.
(e) The Department of Commerce’s National Oceanic and Atmospheric
Administration shall establish a Marine Protected Area Center to carry out,
in cooperation with the Department of the Interior, the requirements of
subsection 4(a) of this order, coordinate the website established pursuant
to subsection 4(d) of this order, and partner with governmental and non-
governmental entities to conduct necessary research, analysis, and explo-
ration. The goal of the MPA Center shall be, in cooperation with the Depart-
ment of the Interior, to develop a framework for a national system of MPAs,
and to provide Federal, State, territorial, tribal, and local governments with
the information, technologies, and strategies to support the system. This
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national system framework and the work of the MPA Center is intended
to support, not interfere with, agencies’ independent exercise of their own
existing authorities.
(f) To better protect beaches, coasts, and the marine environment from
pollution, the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), relying upon existing
Clean Water Act authorities, shall expeditiously propose new science-based
regulations, as necessary, to ensure appropriate levels of protection for the
marine environment. Such regulations may include the identification of
areas that warrant additional pollution protections and the enhancement
of marine water quality standards. The EPA shall consult with the Federal
agencies identified in subsection 4(a) of this order, States, territories, tribes,
and the public in the development of such new regulations.
Sec. 5. Agency Responsibilities. Each Federal agency whose actions affect
the natural or cultural resources that are protected by an MPA shall identify
such actions. To the extent permitted by law and to the maximum extent
practicable, each Federal agency, in taking such actions, shall avoid harm
to the natural and cultural resources that are protected by an MPA. In
implementing this section, each Federal agency shall refer to the MPAs
identified under subsection 4(d) of this order.
Sec. 6. Accountability. Each Federal agency that is required to take actions
under this order shall prepare and make public annually a concise description
of actions taken by it in the previous year to implement the order, including
a description of written comments by any person or organization stating
that the agency has not complied with this order and a response to such
comments by the agency.
Sec. 7. International Law. Federal agencies taking actions pursuant to this
Executive Order must act in accordance with international law and with
Presidential Proclamation 5928 of December 27, 1988, on the Territorial
Sea of the United States of America, Presidential Proclamation 5030 of
March 10, 1983, on the Exclusive Economic Zone of the United States
of America, and Presidential Proclamation 7219 of September 2, 1999, on
the Contiguous Zone of the United States.
Sec. 8. General. (a) Nothing in this order shall be construed as altering
existing authorities regarding the establishment of Federal MPAs in areas
of the marine environment subject to the jurisdiction and control of States,
the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Virgin
Islands of the United States, American Samoa, Guam, the Commonwealth
of the Northern Mariana Islands, and Indian tribes.
(b) This order does not diminish, affect, or abrogate Indian treaty rights
or United States trust responsibilities to Indian tribes.
(c) This order does not create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural,
enforceable in law or equity by a party against the United States, its agencies,
its officers, or any person.
œ–
THE WHITE HOUSE,
May 26, 2000.
[FR Doc. 00–13830
Filed 5–30–00; 12:14 pm]
Billing code 3195–01–P
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| Marine Protected Areas | 2000-05-26T00:00:00 | 783403d9bab9895d5398091bc71764f6f48a20051a3f8b68ebcabb86b465aa69 |
Presidential Executive Order | 00-11531 (13153) | Presidential Documents
26475
Federal Register
Vol. 65, No. 88
Friday, May 5, 2000
Title 3—
The President
Executive Order 13153 of May 3, 2000
Actions To Improve Low-Performing Schools
By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the
laws of the United States of America, including the Elementary and Sec-
ondary Education Act of 1965 (ESEA), the Department of Education Appro-
priations Act, 2000 (as contained in Public Law 106–113), and in order
to take actions to improve low-performing schools, it is hereby ordered
as follows:
Section 1. Policy. Since 1993, this Administration has sought to raise stand-
ards for students and to increase accountability in public education while
investing more resources in elementary and secondary schools. While much
has been accomplished—there has been progress in math and reading
achievement, particularly for low-achieving students and students in our
highest poverty schools—much more can be done, especially for low-per-
forming schools.
Sec. 2. Technical Assistance and Capacity Building. (a) The Secretary of
Education (‘‘Secretary’’) shall work with State and local educational agencies
(‘‘LEAs’’) to develop and implement a comprehensive strategy for providing
technical assistance and other assistance to States and LEAs to strengthen
their capacity to improve the performance of schools identified as low
performing. This comprehensive strategy shall include a number of steps,
such as:
(1) providing States, school districts, and schools receiving funds from
the school improvement fund established by Public Law 106–113, as well
as other districts and schools identified for school improvement or correc-
tive action under Title I of the ESEA, with access to the latest research
and information on best practices, including research on instruction and
educator professional development, and with the opportunity to learn
from exemplary schools and exemplary State and local intervention strate-
gies and from each other, in order to improve achievement for all students
in the low-performing schools;
(2) determining effective ways of providing low-performing schools with
access to resources from other Department of Education programs, such
as funds from the Comprehensive School Reform Demonstration Program,
the Reading Excellence Act, the Eisenhower Professional Development
Program, the Class Size Reduction Program, and the 21st Century Commu-
nity Learning Centers Program, and to make effective use of these funds
and Title I funds;
(3) providing States and LEAs with information on effective strategies
to improve the quality of the teaching force, including strategies for recruit-
ing and retaining highly qualified teachers in high-poverty schools, and
implementing research-based professional development programs aligned
with challenging standards;
(4) helping States and school districts build partnerships with technical
assistance providers, including, but not limited to, federally funded labora-
tories and centers, foundations, businesses, community-based organiza-
tions, institutions of higher education, reform model providers, and other
organizations that can help local schools improve;
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(5) identifying previously low-performing schools that have made signifi-
cant achievement gains, and States and school districts that have been
effective in improving the achievement of all students in low-performing
schools, which can serve as models and resources;
(6) providing assistance and information on how to effectively involve
parents in the school-improvement process, including effectively involving
and informing parents at the beginning of the school year about improve-
ment goals for their school as well as the goals for their own children,
and reporting on progress made in achieving these goals;
(7) providing States and LEAs with information on effective approaches
to school accountability, including the effectiveness of such strategies
as school reconstitution, peer review teams, and financial rewards and
incentives;
(8) providing LEAs with information and assistance on the design and
implementation of approaches to choice among public schools that create
incentives for improvement throughout the local educational agency, espe-
cially in the lowest-performing schools, and that maximize the opportunity
of students in low-performing schools to attend a higher-performing public
school;
(9) exploring the use of well-trained tutors to raise student achievement
through initiatives such as ‘‘America Reads,’’ ‘‘America Counts,’’ and other
work-study opportunities to help low-performing schools;
(10) using a full range of strategies for disseminating information about
effective practices, including interactive electronic communications;
(11) working with the Department of Interior, Bureau of Indian Affairs
(BIA), to provide technical assistance to BIA-funded low-performing
schools; and
(12) taking other steps that can help improve the quality of teaching
and instruction in low-performing schools.
(b) The Secretary shall, to the extent permitted by law, take whatever
steps the Secretary finds necessary and appropriate to redirect the resources
and technical assistance capability of the Department of Education (‘‘Depart-
ment’’) to assist States and localities in improving low-performing schools,
and to ensure that the dissemination of research to help turn around low-
performing schools is a priority of the Department.
Sec. 3. School Improvement Report. To monitor the progress of LEAs and
schools in turning around failing schools, including those receiving grants
from the School Improvement Fund, the Secretary shall prepare an annual
School Improvement Report, to be published in September of each year,
beginning in 2000. The report shall:
(a) describe trends in the numbers of LEAs and schools identified as
needing improvement and subsequent changes in the academic performance
of their students;
(b) identify best practices and significant research findings that can be
used to help turn around low-performing LEAs and schools; and
(c) document ongoing efforts as a result of this order and other Federal
efforts to assist States and local school districts in intervening in low-
performing schools, including improving teacher quality. This report shall
be publicly accessible.
Sec. 4. Compliance Monitoring System. Consistent with the implementation
of the School Improvement Fund, the Secretary shall strengthen the Depart-
ment’s monitoring of ESEA requirements for identifying and turning around
low-performing schools, as well as any new requirements established for
the School Improvement Fund by Public Law 106–113. The Secretary shall
give priority to provisions that have the greatest bearing on identifying
and turning around low-performing schools, including sections 1116 and
1117 of the ESEA, and to developing an ongoing, focused, and systematic
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process for monitoring these provisions. This improved compliance moni-
toring shall be designed to:
(a) ensure that States and LEAs comply with ESEA requirements;
(b) assist States and LEAs in implementing effective procedures and strate-
gies that reflect the best research available, as well as the experience of
successful schools, school districts, and States as they address similar objec-
tives and challenges; and
(c) assist States, LEAs, and schools in making the most effective use
of available Federal resources.
Sec. 5. Consultation. The Secretary shall, where appropriate, consult with
executive agencies, State and local education officials, educators, community-
based groups, and others in carrying out this Executive order.
Sec. 6. Judicial Review. This order is intended only to improve the internal
management of the executive branch and is not intended to, and does
not create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at
law or equity by a party against the United States, its agencies or instrumen-
talities, its officers or employees, or any other person.
œ–
THE WHITE HOUSE,
May 3, 2000.
[FR Doc. 00–11531
Filed 5–4–00; 11:45 am]
Billing code 3195–01–P
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Presidential Executive Order | 01-4623 (13203) | Presidential Documents
11227
Federal Register / Vol. 66, No. 36 / Thursday, February 22, 2001 / Presidential Documents
Executive Order 13203 of February 17, 2001
Revocation of Executive Order and Presidential
Memorandum Concerning Labor-Management Partnerships
By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the
laws of the United States of America, it is hereby ordered that:
Section 1. Executive Order 12871 of October 1, 1993, as amended by Execu-
tive Orders 12983 and 13156, which established the National Partnership
Council and requires Federal agencies to form labor-management partnerships
for management purposes, is revoked. Among other things, therefore, the
National Partnership Council is immediately dissolved.
Sec. 2. The Presidential Memorandum of October 28, 1999, entitled ‘‘Reaffir-
mation of Executive Order 12871—Labor-Management Partnerships’’ (the
‘‘Memorandum’’), which reaffirms and expands upon the requirements of
Executive Order 12871 of October 1, 1993, is also revoked.
Sec. 3. The Director of the Office of Personnel Management and heads
of executive agencies shall promptly move to rescind any orders, rules,
regulations, guidelines, or policies implementing or enforcing Executive
Order 12871 of October 1, 1993, or the Memorandum, to the extent consistent
with law.
Sec. 4. Nothing in this order shall abrogate any collective bargaining agree-
ments in effect on the date of this order.
W
THE WHITE HOUSE,
February 17, 2001.
[FR Doc. 01–4623
Filed 02–21–01; 11:16 am]
Billing code 3195–01–P
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Presidential Executive Order | 00-12177 (13155) | Presidential Documents
30521
Federal Register
Vol. 65, No. 93
Friday, May 12, 2000
Title 3—
The President
Executive Order 13155 of May 10, 2000
Access to HIV/AIDS Pharmaceuticals and Medical
Technologies
By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the
laws of the United States of America, including sections 141 and chapter
1 of title III of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended (19 U.S.C. 2171, 2411–
2420), section 307 of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 2421), and
section 104 of the Foreign Assistance Act of 1961, as amended (22 U.S.C.
2151b), and in accordance with executive branch policy on health-related
intellectual property matters to promote access to essential medicines, it
is hereby ordered as follows:
Section 1. Policy. (a) In administering sections 301–310 of the Trade Act
of 1974, the United States shall not seek, through negotiation or otherwise,
the revocation or revision of any intellectual property law or policy of
a beneficiary sub-Saharan African country, as determined by the President,
that regulates HIV/AIDS pharmaceuticals or medical technologies if the law
or policy of the country:
(1) promotes access to HIV/AIDS pharmaceuticals or medical technologies
for affected populations in that country; and
(2) provides adequate and effective intellectual property protection con-
sistent with the Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property
Rights (TRIPS Agreement) referred to in section 101(d)(15) of the Uruguay
Round Agreements Act (19 U.S.C. 3511(d)(15)).
(b) The United States shall encourage all beneficiary sub-Saharan African
countries to implement policies designed to address the underlying causes
of the HIV/AIDS crisis by, among other things, making efforts to encourage
practices that will prevent further transmission and infection and to stimulate
development of the infrastructure necessary to deliver adequate health serv-
ices, and by encouraging policies that provide an incentive for public and
private research on, and development of, vaccines and other medical innova-
tions that will combat the HIV/AIDS epidemic in Africa.
Sec. 2. Rationale: (a) This order finds that:
(1) since the onset of the worldwide HIV/AIDS epidemic, approximately
34 million people living in sub-Saharan Africa have been infected with
the disease;
(2) of those infected, approximately 11.5 million have died;
(3) the deaths represent 83 percent of the total HIV/AIDS-related deaths
worldwide; and
(4) access to effective therapeutics for HIV/AIDS is determined by issues
of price, health system infrastructure for delivery, and sustainable financing.
(b) In light of these findings, this order recognizes that:
(1) it is in the interest of the United States to take all reasonable steps
to prevent further spread of infectious disease, particularly HIV/AIDS;
(2) there is critical need for effective incentives to develop new pharma-
ceuticals, vaccines, and therapies to combat the HIV/AIDS crisis, including
effective global intellectual property standards designed to foster pharma-
ceutical and medical innovation;
(3) the overriding priority for responding to the crisis of HIV/AIDS in
sub-Saharan Africa should be to improve public education and to encourage
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practices that will prevent further transmission and infection, and to stimu-
late development of the infrastructure necessary to deliver adequate health
care services;
(4) the United States should work with individual countries in sub-Saharan
Africa to assist them in development of effective public education campaigns
aimed at the prevention of HIV/AIDS transmission and infection, and to
improve their health care infrastructure to promote improved access to quality
health care for their citizens in general, and particularly with respect to
the HIV/AIDS epidemic;
(5) an effective United States response to the crisis in sub-Saharan Africa
must focus in the short term on preventive programs designed to reduce
the frequency of new infections and remove the stigma of the disease,
and should place a priority on basic health services that can be used to
treat opportunistic infections, sexually transmitted infections, and complica-
tions associated with HIV/AIDS so as to prolong the duration and improve
the quality of life of those with the disease;
(6) an effective United States response to the crisis must also focus on
the development of HIV/AIDS vaccines to prevent the spread of the disease;
(7) the innovative capacity of the United States in the commercial and
public pharmaceutical research sectors is unmatched in the world, and
the participation of both these sectors will be a critical element in any
successful program to respond to the HIV/AIDS crisis in sub-Saharan Africa;
(8) the TRIPS Agreement recognizes the importance of promoting effective
and adequate protection of intellectual property rights and the right of
countries to adopt measures necessary to protect public health;
(9) individual countries should have the ability to take measures to address
the HIV/AIDS epidemic, provided that such measures are consistent with
their international obligations; and
(10) successful initiatives will require effective partnerships and coopera-
tion among governments, international organizations, nongovernmental orga-
nizations, and the private sector, and greater consideration should be given
to financial, legal, and other incentives that will promote improved preven-
tion and treatment actions.
Sec. 3. Scope. (a) This order prohibits the United States Government from
taking action pursuant to section 301(b) of the Trade Act of 1974 with
respect to any law or policy in beneficiary sub-Saharan African countries
that promotes access to HIV/AIDS pharmaceuticals or medical technologies
and that provides adequate and effective intellectual property protection
consistent with the TRIPS Agreement. However, this order does not prohibit
United States Government officials from evaluating, determining, or express-
ing concern about whether such a law or policy promotes access to HIV/
AIDS pharmaceuticals or medical technologies or provides adequate and
effective intellectual property protection consistent with the TRIPS Agree-
ment. In addition, this order does not prohibit United States Government
officials from consulting with or otherwise discussing with sub-Saharan
African governments whether such law or policy meets the conditions set
forth in section 1(a) of this order. Moreover, this order does not prohibit
the United States Government from invoking the dispute settlement proce-
dures of the World Trade Organization to examine whether any such law
or policy is consistent with the Uruguay Round Agreements, referred to
in section 101(d) of the Uruguay Round Agreements Act.
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(b) This order is intended only to improve the internal management of
the executive branch and is not intended to, and does not create, any
right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law or equity
by a party against the United States, its agencies or instrumentalities, its
officers or employees, or any other person.
œ–
THE WHITE HOUSE,
May 10, 2000.
[FR Doc. 00–12177
Filed 5–11–00; 8:45 am]
Billing code 3195–01–P
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Presidential Executive Order | 00-11532 (13154) | Presidential Documents
26479
Federal Register / Vol. 65, No. 88 / Friday, May 5, 2000 / Presidential Documents
Executive Order 13154 of May 3, 2000
Establishing the Kosovo Campaign Medal
By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the
laws of the United States of America, including my authority as Commander
in Chief of the Armed Forces of the United States, it is hereby ordered
as follows:
Section 1. Kosovo Campaign Medal. There is hereby established the Kosovo
Campaign Medal with suitable appurtenances. Except as limited in section
2 of this order, and under uniform regulations to be prescribed by the
Secretaries of the Military Departments and approved by the Secretary of
Defense, or under regulations to be prescribed by the Secretary of Transpor-
tation with respect to the Coast Guard when it is not operating as a service
in the Navy, the Kosovo Campaign Medal shall be awarded to members
of the Armed Forces of the United States who serve or have served in
Kosovo or contiguous waters or airspace, as defined by such regulations,
after March 24, 1999, and before a terminal date to be prescribed by the
Secretary of Defense.
Sec. 2. Relationship to Other Awards. Notwithstanding section 3 of Executive
Order 10977 of December 4, 1961, establishing the Armed Forces Expedi-
tionary Medal and section 3 of Executive Order 12985 of January 11, 1996,
establishing the Armed Forces Service Medal, any member who qualified
for those medals by reasons of service in Kosovo between March 24, 1999,
and May 1, 2000, shall remain qualified for those medals. Upon application,
any such member may be awarded the Kosovo Campaign Medal in lieu
of the Armed Forces Expeditionary Medal or the Armed Forces Service
Medal, but no person may be awarded more than one of these three medals
by reason of service in Kosovo, and no person shall be entitled to more
than one award of the Kosovo Campaign Medal.
Sec. 3. Posthumous Award. The Kosovo Campaign Medal may be awarded
posthumously to any person covered by and under regulations prescribed
in accordance with the first section of this order.
œ–
THE WHITE HOUSE,
May 3, 2000.
[FR Doc. 00–11532
Filed 5–4–00; 11:45 am]
Billing code 3195–01–P
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Presidential Executive Order | 00-11336 (13152) | Presidential Documents
26115
Federal Register / Vol. 65, No. 87 / Thursday, May 4, 2000 / Presidential Documents
Executive Order 13152 of May 2, 2000
Further Amendment to Executive Order 11478, Equal Em-
ployment Opportunity in Federal Government
By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the
laws of the United States, and in order to provide for a uniform policy
for the Federal Government to prohibit discrimination based on an individ-
ual’s status as a parent, it is hereby ordered that Executive Order 11478,
as amended, is further amended as follows:
Section 1. Amend the first sentence of section 1 by substituting ‘‘sexual
orientation, or status as a parent.’’ for ‘‘or sexual orientation.’’
Sec. 2. Insert the following new sections 6 and 7 after section 5:
‘‘Sec. 6. ‘Status as a parent’ refers to the status of an individual who,
with respect to an individual who is under the age of 18 or who is 18
or older but is incapable of self-care because of a physical or mental disability,
is:
(a)
a biological parent;
(b)
an adoptive parent;
(c)
a foster parent;
(d)
a stepparent;
(e)
a custodian of a legal ward;
(f)
in loco parentis over such an individual; or
(g)
actively seeking legal custody or adoption of such an individual.
‘‘Sec. 7. The Office of Personnel Management shall be authorized to develop
guidance on the provisions of this order prohibiting discrimination on the
basis of an individual’s sexual orientation or status as a parent.’’
Sec. 3. Amend section 4 by substituting ‘‘and appropriate to carry out
its responsibilities under this Order.’’ for ‘‘appropriate to carry out this
Order.’’
Sec. 4. Renumber current sections 6, 7, and 8 as sections 8, 9, and 10,
respectively.
Sec. 5. Add a section 11 to read as follows:
‘‘Sec. 11. This Executive Order does not confer any right or benefit enforce-
able in law or equity against the United States or its representatives.’’
œ–
THE WHITE HOUSE,
May 2, 2000.
[FR Doc. 00–11336
Filed 5–3–00; 8:45 am]
Billing code 3195–01–P
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| Further Amendment to Executive Order 11478, Equal Employment Opportunity in Federal Government | 2000-05-02T00:00:00 | a045a4d7668bc669697ac12156a7b3eea67c73b195dc30f7a1964a0aeb113182 |
Presidential Executive Order | 00-11070 (13151) | Presidential Documents
25619
Federal Register
Vol. 65, No. 85
Tuesday, May 2, 2000
Title 3—
The President
Executive Order 13151 of April 27, 2000
Global Disaster Information Network
By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the
laws of the United States of America, and in order to establish a Global
Disaster Information Network to use information technology more effectively
to reduce loss of life and property from natural and man-made disasters,
it is hereby ordered as follows:
Section 1. Policy. (a) It is the policy of this Administration to use information
technology more effectively to coordinate the Federal Government’s collection
and dissemination of information to appropriate response agencies and State
governments to prepare for and respond to natural and man-made disasters
(disasters). As a result of changing population demographics in our coastal,
rural, and urban areas over the past decades, the loss of life and property
(losses) from disasters has nearly doubled. One of the ways the Federal
Government can reduce these losses is to use technology more effectively
to coordinate its collection and dissemination (hereafter referred to collec-
tively as ‘‘provision’’) of information which can be used in both planning
for and recovering from disasters. While many agencies provide disaster-
related information, they may not always provide it in a coordinated manner.
To improve the provision of disaster-related information, the agencies shall,
as set out in this order, use information technology to coordinate the Federal
Government’s provision of information to prepare for, respond to, and recover
from domestic disasters.
(b) It is also the policy of this Administration to use information technology
and existing channels of disaster assistance to improve the Federal Govern-
ment’s provision of information that could be helpful to foreign governments
preparing for or responding to foreign disasters. Currently, the United States
Government provides disaster-related information to foreign governments
and relief organizations on humanitarian grounds at the request of foreign
governments and where appropriate. This information is supplied by Federal
agencies on an ad hoc basis. To increase the effectiveness of our response
to foreign disasters, agencies shall, where appropriate, use information tech-
nology to coordinate the Federal Government’s provision of disaster-related
information to foreign governments.
(c) To carry out the policies in this order, there is established the Global
Disaster Information Network (Network). The Network is defined as the
coordinated effort by Federal agencies to develop a strategy and to use
existing technical infrastructure, to the extent permitted by law and subject
to the availability of appropriations and under the guidance of the Interagency
Coordinating Committee and the Committee Support Office, to make more
effective use of information technology to assist our Government, and foreign
governments where appropriate, by providing disaster-related information
to prepare for and respond to disasters.
Sec. 2. Establishment. (a) There is established an Interagency Coordinating
Committee (Committee) to provide leadership and oversight for the develop-
ment of the Network. The Office of the Vice President, the Department
of Commerce through the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration,
and the Department of State, respectively, shall designate a representative
to serve as Co-chairpersons of the Committee. The Committee membership
shall comprise representatives from the following departments and agencies:
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(1) Department of State;
(2) Department of Defense;
(3) Department of the Interior;
(4) Department of Agriculture;
(5) Department of Commerce;
(6) Department of Transportation;
(7) Department of Energy;
(8) Office of Management and Budget;
(9) Environmental Protection Agency;
(10) National Aeronautics and Space Administration;
(11) United States Agency for International Development;
(12) Federal Emergency Management Agency; and
(13) Central Intelligence Agency.
At the discretion of the Co-chairpersons of the Committee, other agencies
may be added to the Committee membership. The Committee shall include
an Executive Secretary to effect coordination between the Co-chairpersons
of the Committee and the Committee Support Office.
(b) There is established a Committee Support Office (Support Office) to
assist the Committee by developing plans and projects that would further
the creation of the Network. The Support Office shall, at the request of
the Co-chairpersons of the Committee, carry out tasks taken on by the
Committee.
(c) The National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration shall provide
funding and administrative support for the Committee and the Support
Office. To the extent permitted by law, agencies may provide support to
the Committee and the Support Office to assist them in their work.
Sec. 3. Responsibilities. (a) The Committee shall:
(1)
serve as the United States Government’s single entity for all mat-
ters, both national and international, pertaining to the development
and establishment of the Network;
(2)
provide leadership and high-level coordination of Network activi-
ties;
(3)
provide guidance for the development of Network strategies, goals,
objectives, policies, and legislation;
(4)
represent and advocate Network goals, objectives, and processes to
their respective agencies and departments;
(5)
provide manpower and material support for Network development
activities;
(6)
develop, delegate, and monitor interagency opportunities and ideas
supporting the development of the Network; and
(7)
provide reports, through the Co-chairpersons of the Committee, to
the President as requested or at least annually.
(b) The Support Office shall:
(1)
provide management and administrative support for the Committee;
(2)
develop Network strategies, goals, objectives, policies, plans, and
legislation in accordance with guidance provided by the Com-
mittee;
(3)
consult with agencies, States, nongovernment organizations, and
international counterparts in developing Network development
tasks;
(4)
develop and make recommendations concerning Network activities
to the agencies as approved by the Committee; and
(5)
participate in projects that promote the goals and objectives of the
Network.
Sec. 4. Implementation. (a) The Committee, with the assistance of the Support
Office, shall address national and international issues associated with the
development of the Network within the context of:
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(1) promoting the United States as an example and leader in the develop-
ment and dissemination of disaster information, both domestically and
abroad, and, to this end, seeking cooperation with foreign governments
and international organizations;
(2) striving to include all appropriate stakeholders in the development
of the Network; and
(3) facilitating the creation of a framework that involves public and private
stakeholders in a partnership for sustained operations of the Network.
(b) Intelligence activities, as determined by the Director of the Central
Intelligence Agency, as well as national security-related activities of the
Department of Defense and of the Department of Energy, are exempt from
compliance with this order.
Sec. 5. Tribal Governments. This order does not impose any requirements
on tribal governments.
Sec. 6. Judicial Review. This order does not create any right or benefit,
substantive or procedural, enforceable by law, by a party against the United
States, its officers, its employees, or any other person.
œ–
THE WHITE HOUSE,
April 27, 2000.
[FR Doc. 00–11070
Filed 5–1–00; 8:45 am]
Billing code 3195–01–P
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Presidential Executive Order | 00-6126 (13147) | Presidential Documents
13233
Federal Register
Vol. 65, No. 48
Friday, March 10, 2000
Title 3—
The President
Executive Order 13147 of March 7, 2000
White House Commission on Complementary and Alternative
Medicine Policy
By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the
laws of the United States of America, including the Federal Advisory Com-
mittee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), and in order to establish the
White House Commission on Complementary and Alternative Medicine Pol-
icy, it is hereby ordered as follows:
Section 1. Establishment. There is established in the Department of Health
and Human Services (Department) the White House Commission on Com-
plementary and Alternative Medicine Policy (Commission). The Commission
shall be composed of not more than 15 members appointed by the President
from knowledgeable representatives in health care practice and complemen-
tary and alternative medicine. The President shall designate a Chair from
among the members of the Commission. The Secretary of Health and Human
Services (Secretary) shall appoint an Executive Director for the Commission.
Sec. 2. Functions. The Commission shall provide a report, through the
Secretary, to the President on legislative and administrative recommendations
for assuring that public policy maximizes the benefits to Americans of
complementary and alternative medicine. The recommendations shall address
the following:
(a) the education and training of health care practitioners in complementary
and alternative medicine;
(b) coordinated research to increase knowledge about complementary and
alternative medicine practices and products;
(c) the provision to health care professionals of reliable and useful informa-
tion about complementary and alternative medicine that can be made readily
accessible and understandable to the general public; and
(d) guidance for appropriate access to and delivery of complementary
and alternative medicine.
Sec. 3. Administration. (a) To the extent permitted by law, the heads of
executive departments and agencies shall provide the Commission, upon
request, with such information and assistance as it may require for the
purpose of carrying out its functions.
(b) Each member of the Commission shall receive compensation at a
rate equal to the daily equivalent of the annual rate specified for Level
1V of the Executive Schedule (5 U.S.C. 5315) for each day during which
the member is engaged in the performance of the duties of the Commission.
While away from their homes or regular places of business in the performance
of the duties of the Commission, members shall be allowed travel expenses,
including per diem in lieu of subsistence, as authorized by law for persons
serving intermittently in Government service (5 U.S.C. 5701–5707).
(c) The Department shall provide the Commission with funding and with
administrative services, facilities, staff, and other support services necessary
for the performance of the Commission’s functions.
(d) In accordance with guidelines issued by the Administrator of General
Services, the Secretary shall perform the functions of the President under
the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), with
respect to the Commission, except that of reporting to the Congress.
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(e) The Commission shall terminate 2 years from the date of this order
unless extended by the President prior to such date.
œ–
THE WHITE HOUSE,
March 7, 2000.
[FR Doc. 00–6126
Filed 3–9–00; 9:57 am]
Billing code 3195–01–P
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| White House Commission on Complementary and Alternative Medicine Policy | 2000-03-07T00:00:00 | 44f27c0545896857b4e6e1c0a515accaec7421774ce416a35d3dbcca939427d9 |
Presidential Executive Order | 00-10552 (13150) | Presidential Documents
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Executive Order 13150 of April 21, 2000
Federal Workforce Transportation
By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the
laws of the United States of America, including the Transportation Equity
Act for the 21st Century (Public Law 105–178), section 1911 of the Energy
Policy Act of 1992 (Public Law 102–486), section 531(a)(1) of the Deficit
Reduction Act of 1984 (26 U.S.C. 132), and the Federal Employees Clean
Air Incentives Act (Public Law 103–172), and in order to reduce Federal
employees’ contribution to traffic congestion and air pollution and to expand
their commuting alternatives, it is hereby ordered as follows:
Section 1. Mass Transportation and Vanpool Transportation Fringe Benefit
Program. (a) By no later than October 1, 2000, Federal agencies shall imple-
ment a transportation fringe benefit program that offers qualified Federal
employees the option to exclude from taxable wages and compensation,
consistent with section 132 of title 26, United States Code, employee com-
muting costs incurred through the use of mass transportation and vanpools,
not to exceed the maximum level allowed by law (26 U.S.C. 132 (f)(2)).
These agency programs shall comply with the requirements of Internal Rev-
enue Service regulations for qualified transportation fringe benefits under
section 1.132–9 of title 26, Code of Federal Regulations, and other guidance.
(b) Federal agencies are encouraged to use any nonmonetary incentive
that the agencies may otherwise offer under any other provision of law
or other authority to encourage mass transportation and vanpool use, as
provided for in section 7905(b)(2)(C) of title 5, United States Code.
Sec. 2. Federal Agencies in the National Capital Region. Federal agencies
in the National Capital Region shall implement a ‘‘transit pass’’ transportation
fringe benefit program for their qualified Federal employees by no later
than October 1, 2000. Under this program, agencies shall provide their
qualified Federal employees, in addition to current compensation, transit
passes as defined in section 132(f)(5) of title 26, United States Code, in
amounts approximately equal to employee commuting costs, not to exceed
the maximum level allowed by law (26 U.S.C. 132(f)(2)). The National Capital
Region is defined as the District of Columbia; Montgomery, Prince George’s,
and Frederick Counties in Maryland; Arlington, Fairfax, Loudon, and Prince
William Counties in Virginia; and all cities now or hereafter existing in
Maryland or Virginia within the geographic area bounded by the outer
boundaries of the combined area of said counties.
Sec. 3. Nationwide Pilot Program. The Department of Transportation, the
Environmental Protection Agency, and the Department of Energy shall imple-
ment a ‘‘transit pass’’ transportation fringe benefit program, as described
in section 2 of this order, for all of their qualified Federal employees as
a 3 year pilot program by no later than October 1, 2000. Before determining
whether the program should be extended to other Federal employees nation-
wide, it shall be analyzed by an entity determined by the agencies identified
in section 4 of this order to ascertain, among other things, if it is effective
in reducing single occupancy vehicle travel and local area traffic congestion.
Sec. 4. Guidance. Federal agencies shall develop plans to implement this
order in consultation with the Department of the Treasury, the Department
of Transportation, the Environmental Protection Agency, the Office of Per-
sonnel Management, the General Services Administration, and the Office
of Management and Budget. Federal agencies that currently have more gen-
erous programs or benefits in place may continue to offer those programs
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or benefits. Agencies shall absorb the costs of implementing this order
within the sums received pursuant to the President’s FY 2001 budget request
to the Congress.
Sec. 5. Judicial Review. This order is not intended to and does not create
any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law by any
party against the United States, its agencies or instrumentalities, its officers
or employees, or any other person.
œ–
THE WHITE HOUSE,
April 21, 2000.
[FR Doc. 00–10552
Filed 4–25–00; 8:45 am]
Billing code 3195–01–P
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| Federal Workforce Transportation | 2000-04-21T00:00:00 | d99d550c7f2d35048cb3880896cdb440f43f50f88f0fe8938dfe90bb22e13d55 |
Presidential Executive Order | 00-10550 (13148) | Presidential Documents
24595
Federal Register
Vol. 65, No. 81
Wednesday, April 26, 2000
Title 3—
The President
Executive Order 13148 of April 21, 2000
Greening the Government Through Leadership in
Environmental Management
By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the
laws of the United States of America, including the Emergency Planning
and Community Right-to-Know Act of 1986 (42 U.S.C. 11001–11050)
(EPCRA), the Pollution Prevention Act of 1990 (42 U.S.C. 13101–13109)
(PPA), the Clean Air Act (42 U.S.C. 7401–7671q) (CAA), and section 301
of title 3, United States Code, it is hereby ordered as follows:
PART 1—PREAMBLE
Section 101. Federal Environmental Leadership. The head of each Federal
agency is responsible for ensuring that all necessary actions are taken to
integrate environmental accountability into agency day-to-day decision-
making and long-term planning processes, across all agency missions, activi-
ties, and functions. Consequently, environmental management considerations
must be a fundamental and integral component of Federal Government poli-
cies, operations, planning, and management. The head of each Federal agency
is responsible for meeting the goals and requirements of this order.
PART 2—GOALS
Sec. 201. Environmental Management. Through development and implemen-
tation of environmental management systems, each agency shall ensure that
strategies are established to support environmental leadership programs,
policies, and procedures and that agency senior level managers explicitly
and actively endorse these strategies.
Sec. 202. Environmental Compliance. Each agency shall comply with environ-
mental regulations by establishing and implementing environmental compli-
ance audit programs and policies that emphasize pollution prevention as
a means to both achieve and maintain environmental compliance.
Sec. 203. Right-to-Know and Pollution Prevention. Through timely planning
and reporting under the EPCRA, Federal facilities shall be leaders and respon-
sible members of their communities by informing the public and their work-
ers of possible sources of pollution resulting from facility operations. Each
agency shall strive to reduce or eliminate harm to human health and the
environment from releases of pollutants to the environment. Each agency
shall advance the national policy that, whenever feasible and cost-effective,
pollution should be prevented or reduced at the source. Funding for regu-
latory compliance programs shall emphasize pollution prevention as a means
to address environmental compliance.
Sec. 204. Release Reduction: Toxic Chemicals. Through innovative pollution
prevention, effective facility management, and sound acquisition and procure-
ment practices, each agency shall reduce its reported Toxic Release Inventory
(TRI) releases and off-site transfers of toxic chemicals for treatment and
disposal by 10 percent annually, or by 40 percent overall by December
31, 2006.
Sec. 205. Use Reduction: Toxic Chemicals and Hazardous Substances and
Other Pollutants. Through identification of proven substitutes and established
facility management practices, including pollution prevention, each agency
shall reduce its use of selected toxic chemicals, hazardous substances, and
pollutants, or its generation of hazardous and radioactive waste types at
its facilities by 50 percent by December 31, 2006. If an agency is unable
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to reduce the use of selected chemicals, that agency will reduce the use
of selected hazardous substances or its generation of other pollutants, such
as hazardous and radioactive waste types, at its facilities by 50 percent
by December 31, 2006.
Sec. 206. Reductions in Ozone-Depleting Substances. Through evaluating
present and future uses of ozone-depleting substances and maximizing the
purchase and the use of safe, cost effective, and environmentally preferable
alternatives, each agency shall develop a plan to phase out the procurement
of Class I ozone-depleting substances for all nonexcepted uses by December
31, 2010.
Sec. 207. Environmentally and Economically Beneficial Landscaping. Each
agency shall strive to promote the sustainable management of Federal facility
lands through the implementation of cost-effective, environmentally sound
landscaping practices, and programs to reduce adverse impacts to the natural
environment.
PART 3—PLANNING AND ACCOUNTABILITY
Sec. 301. Annual Budget Submission. Federal agencies shall place high
priority on obtaining funding and resources needed for implementation of
the Greening the Government Executive Orders, including funding to address
findings and recommendations from environmental management system au-
dits or facility compliance audits conducted under sections 401 and 402
of this order. Federal agencies shall make such requests as required in
Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Circular A–11.
Sec. 302. Application of Life Cycle Assessment Concepts. Each agency with
facilities shall establish a pilot program to apply life cycle assessment and
environmental cost accounting principles. To the maximum extent feasible
and cost-effective, agencies shall apply those principles elsewhere in the
agency to meet the goals and requirements of this order. Such analysis
shall be considered in the process established in the OMB Capital Program-
ming Guide and OMB Circular A–11. The Environmental Protection Agency
(EPA), in coordination with the Workgroup established in section 306 of
this order, shall, to the extent feasible, assist agencies in identifying, applying,
and developing tools that reflect life cycle assessment and environmental
cost accounting principles and provide technical assistance to agencies in
developing life cycle assessments and environmental cost accounting assess-
ments under this Part.
Sec. 303. Pollution Prevention to Address Compliance. Each agency shall
ensure that its environmental regulatory compliance funding policies promote
the use of pollution prevention to achieve and maintain environmental
compliance at the agency’s facilities. Agencies shall adopt a policy to pref-
erentially use pollution prevention projects and activities to correct and
prevent noncompliance with environmental regulatory requirements. Agency
funding requests for facility compliance with Federal, State, and local envi-
ronmental regulatory requirements shall emphasize pollution prevention
through source reduction as the means of first choice to ensure compliance,
with reuse and recycling alternatives having second priority as a means
of compliance.
Sec. 304. Pollution Prevention Return-on-Investment Programs. Each agency
shall develop and implement a pollution prevention program at its facilities
that compares the life cycle costs of treatment and/or disposal of waste
and pollutant streams to the life cycle costs of alternatives that eliminate
or reduce toxic chemicals or pollutants at the source. Each agency shall
implement those projects that are life-cycle cost-effective, or otherwise offer
substantial environmental or economic benefits.
Sec. 305. Policies, Strategies, and Plans.
(a) Within 12 months of the date of this order, each agency shall ensure
that the goals and requirements of this order are incorporated into existing
agency environmental directives, policies, and documents affected by the
requirements and goals of this order. Where such directives and policies
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do not already exist, each agency shall, within 12 months of the date
of this order, prepare and endorse a written agency environmental manage-
ment strategy to achieve the requirements and goals of this order. Agency
preparation of directives, policies, and documents shall reflect the nature,
scale, and environmental impacts of the agency’s activities, products, or
services. Agencies are encouraged to include elements of relevant agency
policies or strategies developed under this part in agency planning documents
prepared under the Government Performance and Results Act of 1993, Public
Law 103–62.
(b) By March 31, 2002, each agency shall ensure that its facilities develop
a written plan that sets forth the facility’s contribution to the goals and
requirements established in this order. The plan should reflect the size
and complexity of the facility. Where pollution prevention plans or other
formal environmental planning instruments have been prepared for agency
facilities, an agency may elect to update those plans to meet the requirements
and goals of this section.
(c) The Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) Council shall develop acqui-
sition policies and procedures for contractors to supply agencies with all
information necessary for compliance with this order. Once the appropriate
FAR clauses have been published, agencies shall use them in all applicable
contracts. In addition, to the extent that compliance with this order is
made more difficult due to lack of information from existing contractors,
or concessioners, each agency shall take practical steps to obtain the informa-
tion needed to comply with this order from such contractors or concessioners.
Sec. 306. Interagency Environmental Leadership Workgroup. Within 4 months
of the date of this order, EPA shall convene and chair an Interagency
Environmental Leadership Workgroup (the Workgroup) with senior-level rep-
resentatives from all executive agencies and other interested independent
Government agencies affected by this order. The Workgroup shall develop
policies and guidance required by this order and member agencies shall
facilitate implementation of the requirements of this order in their respective
agencies. Workgroup members shall coordinate with their Agency Environ-
mental Executive (AEE) designated under section 301(d) of Executive Order
13101 and may request the assistance of their AEE in resolving issues
that may arise among members in developing policies and guidance related
to this order. If the AEEs are unable to resolve the issues, they may request
the assistance of the Chair of the Council on Environmental Quality (CEQ).
Sec. 307. Annual Reports. Each agency shall submit an annual progress
report to the Administrator on implementation of this order. The reports
shall include a description of the progress that the agency has made in
complying with all aspects of this order, including, but not limited to,
progress in achieving the reduction goals in sections 502, 503, and 505
of this order. Each agency may prepare and submit the annual report in
electronic format. A copy of the report shall be submitted to the Federal
Environmental Executive (FEE) by EPA for use in the biennial Greening
the Government Report to the President prepared in accordance with Execu-
tive Order 13101. Within 9 months of the date of this order, EPA, in
coordination with the Workgroup established under section 306 of this order,
shall prepare guidance regarding the information and timing for the annual
report. The Workgroup shall coordinate with those agencies responsible
for Federal agency reporting guidance under the Greening the Government
Executive orders to streamline reporting requirements and reduce agency
and facility-level reporting burdens. The first annual report shall cover cal-
endar year 2000 activities.
PART
4—PROMOTING
ENVIRONMENTAL
MANAGEMENT
AND
LEADERSHIP
Sec. 401. Agency and Facility Environmental Management Systems. To attain
the goals of section 201 of this order:
(a) Within 18 months of the date of this order, each agency shall conduct
an agency-level environmental management system self assessment based
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on the Code of Environmental Management Principles for Federal Agencies
developed by the EPA (61 Fed. Reg. 54062) and/or another appropriate
environmental management system framework. Each assessment shall include
a review of agency environmental leadership goals, objectives, and targets.
Where appropriate, the assessments may be conducted at the service, bureau,
or other comparable level.
(b) Within 24 months of the date of this order, each agency shall implement
environmental management systems through pilot projects at selected agency
facilities based on the Code of Environmental Management Principles for
Federal Agencies and/or another appropriate environmental management
system framework. By December 31, 2005, each agency shall implement
an environmental management system at all appropriate agency facilities
based on facility size, complexity, and the environmental aspects of facility
operations. The facility environmental management system shall include
measurable environmental goals, objectives, and targets that are reviewed
and updated annually. Once established, environmental management system
performance measures shall be incorporated in agency facility audit protocols.
Sec. 402. Facility Compliance Audits. To attain the goals of section 202
of this order:
(a) Within 12 months of the date of this order, each agency that does
not have an established regulatory environmental compliance audit program
shall develop and implement a program to conduct facility environmental
compliance audits and begin auditing at its facilities within 6 months of
the development of that program.
(b) An agency with an established regulatory environmental compliance
audit program may elect to conduct environmental management system audits
in lieu of regulatory environmental compliance audits at selected facilities.
(c) Facility environmental audits shall be conducted periodically. Each
agency is encouraged to conduct audits not less than every 3 years from
the date of the initial or previous audit. The scope and frequency of audits
shall be based on facility size, complexity, and the environmental aspects
of facility operations. As appropriate, each agency shall include tenant,
contractor, and concessioner activities in facility audits.
(d) Each agency shall conduct internal reviews and audits and shall take
such other steps, as may be necessary, to monitor its facilities’ compliance
with sections 501 and 504 of this order.
(e) Each agency shall consider findings from the assessments or audits
conducted under Part 4 in program planning under section 301 of this
order and in the preparation and revisions to facility plans prepared under
section 305 of this order.
(f) Upon request and to the extent practicable, the EPA shall provide
technical assistance in meeting the requirements of Part 4 by conducting
environmental management reviews at Federal facilities and developing poli-
cies and guidance for conducting environmental compliance audits and im-
plementing environmental management systems at Federal facilities.
Sec. 403. Environmental Leadership and Agency Awards Programs.
(a) Within 12 months of the date of this order, the Administrator shall
establish a Federal Government environmental leadership program to promote
and recognize outstanding environmental management performance in agen-
cies and facilities.
(b) Each agency shall develop an internal agency-wide awards program
to reward and highlight innovative programs and individuals showing out-
standing environmental leadership in implementing this order. In addition,
based upon criteria developed by the EPA in coordination with the
Workgroup established in section 306 of this order, Federal employees who
demonstrate outstanding leadership in implementation of this order may
be considered for recognition under the White House awards program set
forth in section 803 of Executive Order 13101 of September 14, 1998.
Sec. 404. Management Leadership and Performance Evaluations.
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(a) To ensure awareness of and support for the environmental requirements
of this order, each agency shall include training on the provisions of the
Greening the Government Executive orders in standard senior level manage-
ment training as well as training for program managers, contracting personnel,
procurement and acquisition personnel, facility managers, contractors, con-
cessioners, and other personnel as appropriate. In coordination with the
Workgroup established under section 306 of this order, the EPA shall prepare
guidance on implementation of this section.
(b) To recognize and reinforce the responsibilities of facility and senior
headquarters program managers, regional environmental coordinators and
officers, their superiors, and, to the extent practicable and appropriate, others
vital to the implementation of this order, each agency shall include successful
implementation of pollution prevention, community awareness, and environ-
mental management into its position descriptions and performance evalua-
tions for those positions.
Sec. 405. Compliance Assistance.
(a) Upon request and to the extent practicable, the EPA shall provide
technical advice and assistance to agencies to foster full compliance with
environmental regulations and all aspects of this order.
(b) Within 12 months of the date of this order, the EPA shall develop
a compliance assistance center to provide technical assistance for Federal
facility compliance with environmental regulations and all aspects of this
order.
(c) To enhance landscaping options and awareness, the United States
Department of Agriculture (USDA) shall provide information on the suit-
ability, propagation, and the use of native plants for landscaping to all
agencies and the general public by USDA in conjunction with the center
under subsection (b) of this section. In implementing Part 6 of this order,
agencies are encouraged to develop model demonstration programs in coordi-
nation with the USDA.
Sec. 406. Compliance Assurance.
(a) In consultation with other agencies, the EPA may conduct such reviews
and inspections as may be necessary to monitor compliance with sections
501 and 504 of this order. Each agency is encouraged to cooperate fully
with the efforts of the EPA to ensure compliance with those sections.
(b) Whenever the Administrator notifies an agency that it is not in compli-
ance with section 501 or 504 of this order, the agency shall provide the
EPA a detailed plan for achieving compliance as promptly as practicable.
(c) The Administrator shall report annually to the President and the public
on agency compliance with the provisions of sections 501 and 504 of this
order.
Sec. 407. Improving Environmental Management. To ensure that government-
wide goals for pollution prevention are advanced, each agency is encouraged
to incorporate its environmental leadership goals into its Strategic and An-
nual Performance Plans required by the Government Performance and Results
Act of 1993, Public Law 103–62, starting with performance plans accom-
panying the FY 2002 budget.
PART 5—EMERGENCY PLANNING, COMMUNITY RIGHT-TO-KNOW, AND
POLLUTION PREVENTION
Sec. 501. Toxics Release Inventory/Pollution Prevention Act Reporting. To
attain the goals of section 203 of this order:
(a) Each agency shall comply with the provisions set forth in section
313 of EPCRA, section 6607 of PPA, all implementing regulations, and
future amendments to these authorities, in light of applicable EPA guidance.
(b) Each agency shall comply with these provisions without regard to
the Standard Industrial Classification (SIC) or North American Industrial
Classification System (NAICS) delineations. Except as described in subsection
(d) of this section, all other existing statutory or regulatory limitations or
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exemptions on the application of EPCRA section 313 to specific activities
at specific agency facilities apply to the reporting requirements set forth
in subsection (a) of this section.
(c) Each agency required to report under subsection (a) of this section
shall do so using electronic reporting as provided in EPA’s EPCRA section
313 guidance.
(d) Within 12 months of the date of this order, the Administrator shall
review the impact on reporting of existing regulatory exemptions on the
application of EPCRA section 313 at Federal facilities. Where feasible, this
review shall include pilot studies at Federal facilities. If the review indicates
that application of existing exemptions to Federal Government reporting
under this section precludes public reporting of substantial amounts of
toxic chemicals under subsection 501(a), the EPA shall prepare guidance,
in coordination with the Workgroup established under section 306 of this
order, clarifying application of the exemptions at Federal facilities. In devel-
oping the guidance, the EPA should consider similar application of such
regulatory limitations and exemptions by the private sector. To the extent
feasible, the guidance developed by the EPA shall be consistent with the
reasonable application of such regulatory limitations and exemptions in
the private sector. The guidance shall ensure reporting consistent with the
goal of public access to information under section 313 of EPCRA and section
6607 of PPA. The guidance shall be submitted to the AEEs established
under section 301(d) of Executive Order 13101 for review and endorsement.
Each agency shall apply any guidance to reporting at its facilities as soon
as practicable but no later than for reporting for the next calendar year
following release of the guidance.
(e) The EPA shall coordinate with other interested Federal agencies to
carry out pilot projects to collect and disseminate information about the
release and other waste management of chemicals associated with the envi-
ronmental response and restoration at their facilities and sites. The pilot
projects will focus on releases and other waste management of chemicals
associated with environmental response and restoration at facilities and
sites where the activities generating wastes do not otherwise meet EPCRA
section 313 thresholds for manufacture, process, or other use. Each agency
is encouraged to identify applicable facilities and voluntarily report under
subsection (a) of this section the releases and other waste management
of toxic chemicals managed during environmental response and restoration,
regardless of whether the facility otherwise would report under subsection
(a). The releases and other waste management of chemicals associated with
environmental response and restoration voluntarily reported under this sub-
section will not be included in the accounting established under sections
503(a) and (c) of this order.
Sec. 502. Release Reduction: Toxic Chemicals. To attain the goals of section
204 of this order:
(a) Beginning with reporting for calendar year 2001 activities, each agency
reporting under section 501 of this order shall adopt a goal of reducing,
where cost effective, the agency’s total releases of toxic chemicals to the
environment and off-site transfers of such chemicals for treatment and dis-
posal by at least 10 percent annually, or by 40 percent overall by December
31, 2006. Beginning with activities for calendar year 2001, the baseline
for measuring progress in meeting the reduction goal will be the aggregate
of all such releases and off-site transfers of such chemicals for treatment
and disposal as reported by all of the agency’s facilities under section
501 of this order. The list of toxic chemicals applicable to this goal is
the EPCRA section 313 list as of December 1, 2000. If an agency achieves
the 40 percent reduction goal prior to December 31, 2006, that agency
shall establish a new baseline and reduction goal based on agency priorities.
(b) Where an agency is unable to pursue the reduction goal established
in subsection (a) for certain chemicals that are mission critical and/or needed
to protect human health and the environment or where agency off-site transfer
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of toxic chemicals for treatment is directly associated with environmental
restoration activities, that agency may request a waiver from the EPA for
all or part of the requirement in subsection (a) of this section. As appropriate,
waiver requests must provide: (1) an explanation of the mission critical
use of the chemical; (2) an explanation of the nature of the need for the
chemical to protect human health; (3) a description of efforts to identify
a less harmful substitute chemical or alternative processes to reduce the
release and transfer of the chemical in question; and (4) a description of
the off-site transfers of toxic chemicals for treatment directly associated
with environmental restoration activities. The EPA shall respond to the
waiver request within 90 days and may grant such a waiver for no longer
than 2 years. An agency may resubmit a request for waiver at the end
of that period. The waiver under this section shall not alter requirements
to report under section 501 of this order.
(c) Where a specific component (e.g., bureau, service, or command) within
an agency achieves a 75 percent reduction in its 1999 reporting year publicly
reported total releases of toxic chemicals to the environment and off-site
transfers of such chemicals for treatment and disposal, based on the 1994
baseline established in Executive Order 12856, that agency may independ-
ently elect to establish a reduction goal for that component lower than
the 40 percent target established in subsection (a) of this section. The agency
shall formally notify the Workgroup established in section 306 of this order
of the elected reduction target.
Sec. 503. Use Reduction: Toxic Chemicals, Hazardous Substances, and Other
Pollutants. To attain the goals of section 205 of this order:
(a) Within 18 months of the date of this order, each agency with facilities
shall develop and support goals to reduce the use at such agencies’ facilities
of the priority chemicals on the list under subsection (b) of this section
for identified applications and purposes, or alternative chemicals and pollut-
ants the agency identifies under subsection (c) of this section, by at least
50 percent by December 31, 2006.
(b) Within 9 months of the date of this order the Administrator, in coordina-
tion with the Workgroup established in section 306 of this order, shall
develop a list of not less than 15 priority chemicals used by the Federal
Government that may result in significant harm to human health or the
environment and that have known, readily available, less harmful substitutes
for identified applications and purposes. In addition to identifying the appli-
cations and purposes to which such reductions apply, the Administrator,
in coordination with the Workgroup shall identify a usage threshold below
which this section shall not apply. The chemicals will be selected from
listed EPCRA section 313 toxic chemicals and, where appropriate, other
regulated hazardous substances or pollutants. In developing the list, the
Administrator, in coordination with the Workgroup shall consider: (1) envi-
ronmental factors including toxicity, persistence, and bio-accumulation; (2)
availability of known, less environmentally harmful substitute chemicals
that can be used in place of the priority chemical for identified applications
and purposes; (3) availability of known, less environmentally harmful proc-
esses that can be used in place of the priority chemical for identified
applications and purposes; (4) relative costs of alternative chemicals or
processes; and (5) potential risk and environmental and human exposure
based upon applications and uses of the chemicals by Federal agencies
and facilities. In identifying alternatives, the Administrator should take into
consideration the guidance issued under section 503 of Executive Order
13101.
(c) If an agency, which has facilities required to report under EPCRA,
uses at its facilities less than five of the priority chemicals on the list
developed in subsection (b) of this section for the identified applications
and purposes, the agency shall develop, within 12 months of the date
of this order, a list of not less than five chemicals that may include priority
chemicals under subsection (b) of this section or other toxic chemicals,
hazardous substances, and/or other pollutants the agency uses or generates,
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the release, transfer or waste management of which may result in significant
harm to human health or the environment.
(d) In lieu of requirements under subsection (a) of this section, an agency
may, upon concurrence with the Workgroup established under section 306
of this order, develop within 12 months of the date of this order, a list
of not less than five priority hazardous or radioactive waste types generated
by its facilities. Within 18 months of the date of this order, the agency
shall develop and support goals to reduce the agency’s generation of these
wastes by at least 50 percent by December 31, 2006. To the maximum
extent possible, such reductions shall be achieved by implementing source
reduction practices.
(e) The baseline for measuring reductions for purposes of achieving the
50 percent reduction goal in subsections (a) and (d) of this section for
each agency is the first calendar year following the development of the
list of priority chemicals under subsection (b) of this section.
(f) Each agency shall undertake pilot projects at selected facilities to gather
and make publicly available materials accounting data related to the toxic
chemicals, hazardous substances, and/or other pollutants identified under
subsections (b), (c), or (d) of this section.
(g) Within 12 months of the date of this order, the Administrator shall
develop guidance on implementing this section in coordination with the
Workgroup. The EPA shall develop technical assistance materials to assist
agencies in meeting the 50 percent reduction goal of this section.
(h) Where an agency can demonstrate to the Workgroup that it has pre-
viously reduced the use of a priority chemical identified in subsection
503(b) by 50 percent, then the agency may elect to waive the 50 percent
reduction goal for that chemical.
Sec. 504. Emergency Planning and Reporting Responsibilities. Each agency
shall comply with the provisions set forth in sections 301 through 312
of the EPCRA, all implementing regulations, and any future amendments
to these authorities, in light of any applicable guidance as provided by
the EPA.
Sec. 505. Reductions in Ozone-Depleting Substances. To attain the goals
of section 206 of this order:
(a) Each agency shall ensure that its facilities: (1) maximize the use of
safe alternatives to ozone-depleting substances, as approved by the EPA’s
Significant New Alternatives Policy (SNAP) program; (2) consistent with
subsection (b) of this section, evaluate the present and future uses of ozone-
depleting substances, including making assessments of existing and future
needs for such materials, and evaluate use of, and plans for recycling,
refrigerants, and halons; and (3) exercise leadership, develop exemplary
practices, and disseminate information on successful efforts in phasing out
ozone-depleting substances.
(b) Within 12 months of the date of this order, each agency shall develop
a plan to phase out the procurement of Class I ozone-depleting substances
for all nonexcepted uses by December 31, 2010. Plans should target cost
effective reduction of environmental risk by phasing out Class I ozone deplet-
ing substance applications as the equipment using those substances reaches
its expected service life. Exceptions to this requirement include all exceptions
found in current or future applicable law, treaty, regulation, or Executive
order.
(c) Each agency shall amend its personal property management policies
and procedures to preclude disposal of ozone depleting substances removed
or reclaimed from its facilities or equipment, including disposal as part
of a contract, trade, or donation, without prior coordination with the Depart-
ment of Defense (DoD). Where the recovered ozone-depleting substance is
a critical requirement for DoD missions, the agency shall transfer the materials
to the DoD. The DoD will bear the costs of such transfer.
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PART 6—LANDSCAPING MANAGEMENT PRACTICES
Sec. 601. Implementation.
(a) Within 12 months from the date of this order, each agency shall
incorporate the Guidance for Presidential Memorandum on Environmentally
and Economically Beneficial Landscape Practices on Federal Landscaped
Grounds (60 Fed. Reg. 40837) developed by the FEE into landscaping pro-
grams, policies, and practices.
(b) Within 12 months of the date of this order, the FEE shall form a
workgroup of appropriate Federal agency representatives to review and up-
date the guidance in subsection (a) of this section, as appropriate.
(c) Each agency providing funding for nonfederal projects involving land-
scaping projects shall furnish funding recipients with information on environ-
mentally and economically beneficial landscaping practices and work with
the recipients to support and encourage application of such practices on
Federally funded projects.
Sec. 602. Technical Assistance and Outreach. The EPA, the General Services
Administration (GSA), and the USDA shall provide technical assistance
in accordance with their respective authorities on environmentally and eco-
nomically beneficial landscaping practices to agencies and their facilities.
PART 7—ACQUISITION AND PROCUREMENT
Sec. 701. Limiting Procurement of Toxic Chemicals, Hazardous Substances,
and Other Pollutants.
(a) Within 12 months of the date of this order, each agency shall implement
training programs to ensure that agency procurement officials and acquisition
program managers are aware of the requirements of this order and its applica-
bility to those individuals.
(b) Within 24 months of the date of this order, each agency shall determine
the feasibility of implementing centralized procurement and distribution
(e.g., ‘‘pharmacy’’) programs at its facilities for tracking, distribution, and
management of toxic or hazardous materials and, where appropriate, imple-
ment such programs.
(c) Under established schedules for review of standardized documents,
DoD and GSA, and other agencies, as appropriate, shall review their standard-
ized documents and identify opportunities to eliminate or reduce their use
of chemicals included on the list of priority chemicals developed by the
EPA under subsection 503(b) of this order, and make revisions as appropriate.
(d) Each agency shall follow the policies and procedures for toxic chemical
release reporting in accordance with FAR section 23.9 effective as of the
date of this order and policies and procedures on Federal compliance with
right-to-know laws and pollution prevention requirements in accordance
with FAR section 23.10 effective as of the date of this order.
Sec. 702. Environmentally Benign Adhesives. Within 12 months after environ-
mentally benign pressure sensitive adhesives for paper products become
commercially available, each agency shall revise its specifications for paper
products using adhesives and direct the purchase of paper products using
those adhesives, whenever technically practicable and cost effective. Each
agency should consider products using the environmentally benign pressure
sensitive adhesives approved by the U.S. Postal Service (USPS) and listed
on the USPS Qualified Products List for pressure sensitive recyclable adhe-
sives.
Sec. 703. Ozone-Depleting Substances. Each agency shall follow the policies
and procedures for the acquisition of items that contain, use, or are manufac-
tured with ozone-depleting substances in accordance with FAR section 23.8
and other applicable FAR provisions.
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Sec. 704. Environmentally and Economically Beneficial Landscaping Prac-
tices.
(a) Within 18 months of the date of this order, each agency shall have
in place acquisition and procurement practices, including provision of land-
scaping services that conform to the guidance referred to in section 601
of this order, for the use of environmentally and economically beneficial
landscaping practices. At a minimum, such practices shall be consistent
with the policies in the guidance referred to in section 601 of this order.
(b) In implementing landscaping policies, each agency shall purchase envi-
ronmentally preferable and recycled content products, including EPA-des-
ignated items such as compost and mulch, that contribute to environmentally
and economically beneficial practices.
PART 8—EXEMPTIONS
Sec. 801. National Security Exemptions. Subject to subsection 902(c) of
this order and except as otherwise required by applicable law, in the interest
of national security, the head of any agency may request from the President
an exemption from complying with the provisions of any or all provisions
of this order for particular agency facilities, provided that the procedures
set forth in section 120(j)(1) of the Comprehensive Environmental Response,
Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980, as amended (42 U.S.C. 9620(j)(1)),
are followed, with the following exceptions: (a) an exemption issued under
this section will be for a specified period of time that may exceed 1 year;
(b) notice of any exemption granted under this section for provisions not
otherwise required by law is only required to the Director of OMB, the
Chair of the CEQ, and the Director of the National Security Council; and
(c) an exemption under this section may be issued due to lack of appropria-
tions, provided that the head of the agency requesting the exemption shows
that necessary funds were requested by the agency in its budget submission
and agency plan under Executive Order 12088 of October 13, 1978, and
were not contained in the President’s budget request or the Congress failed
to make available the requested appropriation. To the maximum extent
practicable, and without compromising national security, each agency shall
strive to comply with the purposes, goals, and implementation steps in
this order. Nothing in this order affects limitations on the dissemination
of classified information pursuant to law, regulation, or Executive order.
Sec. 802. Compliance. After January 1, 2002, OMB, in consultation with
the Chair of the Workgroup established by section 306 of this order, may
modify the compliance requirements for an agency under this order, if
the agency is unable to comply with the requirements of the order. An
agency requesting modification must show that it has made substantial good
faith efforts to comply with the order. The cost-effectiveness of implementa-
tion of the order can be a factor in OMB’s decision to modify the requirements
for that agency’s compliance with the order.
PART 9—GENERAL PROVISIONS
Sec. 901. Revocation. Executive Order 12843 of April 21, 1993, Executive
Order 12856 of August 3, 1993, the Executive Memorandum on Environ-
mentally Beneficial Landscaping of April 26, 1994, Executive Order 12969
of August 8, 1995, and section 1–4. ‘‘Pollution Control Plan’’ of Executive
Order 12088 of October 13, 1978, are revoked.
Sec. 902. Limitations.
(a) This order is intended only to improve the internal management of
the executive branch and is not intended to create any right, benefit, or
trust responsibility, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law by a party
against the United States, its agencies, its officers, or any other person.
(b) This order applies to Federal facilities in any State of the United
States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, Guam,
American Samoa, the United States Virgin Islands, the Northern Mariana
Islands, and any other territory or possession over which the United States
has jurisdiction. Each agency with facilities outside of these areas, however,
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is encouraged to make best efforts to comply with the goals of this order
for those facilities.
(c) Nothing in this order alters the obligations under EPCRA, PPA, and
CAA independent of this order for Government-owned, contractor-operated
facilities and Government corporations owning or operating facilities or sub-
jects such facilities to EPCRA , PPA, or CAA if they are otherwise excluded.
However, each agency shall include the releases and other waste management
of chemicals for all such facilities to meet the agency’s reporting responsibil-
ities under section 501 of this order.
(d) Nothing in this order shall be construed to make the provisions of
CAA sections 304 and EPCRA sections 325 and 326 applicable to any
agency or facility, except to the extent that an agency or facility would
independently be subject to such provisions.
Sec. 903. Community Outreach. Each agency is encouraged to establish
a process for local community advice and outreach for its facilities relevant
to aspects of this and other related Greening the Government Executive
orders. All strategies and plans developed under this order shall be made
available to the public upon request.
PART 10—DEFINITIONS
For purposes of this order:
Sec. 1001. General. Terms that are not defined in this part but that are
defined in Executive Orders 13101 and 13123 have the meaning given in
those Executive orders. For the purposes of Part 5 of this order all definitions
in EPCRA and PPA and implementing regulations at 40 CFR Parts 370
and 372 apply.
Sec. 1002. ‘‘Administrator’’ means the Administrator of the EPA.
Sec. 1003. ‘‘Environmental cost accounting’’ means the modification of cost
attribution systems and financial analysis practices specifically to directly
track environmental costs that are traditionally hidden in overhead accounts
to the responsible products, processes, facilities or activities.
Sec. 1004. ‘‘Facility’’ means any building, installation, structure, land, and
other property owned or operated by, or constructed or manufactured and
leased to, the Federal Government, where the Federal Government is formally
accountable for compliance under environmental regulation (e.g., permits,
reports/records and/or planning requirements) with requirements pertaining
to discharge, emission, release, spill, or management of any waste, contami-
nant, hazardous chemical, or pollutant. This term includes a group of facili-
ties at a single location managed as an integrated operation, as well as
government owned contractor operated facilities.
Sec. 1005. ‘‘Environmentally benign pressure sensitive adhesives’’ means
adhesives for stamps, labels, and other paper products that can be easily
treated and removed during the paper recycling process.
Sec. 1006. ‘‘Ozone-depleting substance’’ means any substance designated
as a Class I or Class II substance by EPA in 40 CFR Part 82.
Sec. 1007. ‘‘Pollution prevention’’ means ‘‘source reduction,’’ as defined
in the PPA, and other practices that reduce or eliminate the creation of
pollutants through: (a) increased efficiency in the use of raw materials,
energy, water, or other resources; or (b) protection of natural resources
by conservation.
Sec. 1008. ‘‘Greening the Government Executive orders’’ means this order
and the series of orders on greening the government including Executive
Order 13101 of September 14, 1998, Executive Order 13123 of June 3,
1999, Executive Order 13134 of August 12, 1999, and other future orders
as appropriate.
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Sec. 1009. ‘‘Environmental aspects’’ means the elements of an organization’s
activities, products, or services that can interact with the environment.
œ–
THE WHITE HOUSE,
April 21, 2000.
[FR Doc. 00–10550
Filed 4–25–00; 8:45 am]
Billing code 3195–01–P
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| Greening the Government Through Leadership in Environmental Management | 2000-04-21T00:00:00 | d630f697677c03f25ab405db93e0f8aa6a996c3e314636e938ba0fd111e029bd |
Presidential Executive Order | 00-5209 (13146) | Presidential Documents
11201
Federal Register
Vol. 65, No. 42
Thursday, March 2, 2000
Executive Order 13146 of February 29, 2000
President’s Council on the Future of Princeville,
North Carolina
By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the
laws of the United States of America, and in order to develop recommenda-
tions for Federal agency actions to address the future of Princeville, North
Carolina, it is hereby ordered as follows:
Section 1. Policy. Princeville, North Carolina (Princeville) has a unique
place in American history. This small city in eastern North Carolina was
the first city in the United States founded by ex-slaves. In its history,
Princeville has been damaged by floods many times. Recently, it was dev-
astated by floods caused by Hurricane Floyd. In response to the damage,
appropriate Federal agencies have already begun repair and recovery efforts
to assist Princeville. However, it is the policy of this Administration to
do more to help this city that occupies such a significant place in our
history. Therefore, this order will create an interagency council to develop
recommendations for further actions to address the future of Princeville.
Sec. 2. Establishment. (a) There is established the ‘‘President’s Council on
the Future of Princeville, North Carolina’’ (Council). The Council shall com-
prise the Secretaries of Defense, Agriculture, Commerce, Labor, Health and
Human Services, Housing and Urban Development, Transportation, the Direc-
tor of the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), the Administrator of
the Environmental Protection Agency, the Commander of the Army Corps
of Engineers, the Administrator of the Small Business Administration, the
Director of the Federal Emergency Management Agency, the Assistant to
the President for Domestic Policy, the Assistant to the President for Economic
Policy, and the Assistant to the President for Intergovernmental Affairs,
or their designees, and such other executive department and agency (agencies)
representatives as the President may deem appropriate. The Council shall
consult with other agencies and State and local governments, as appropriate.
(b) The Director of the Office of Management and Budget, or his designee,
shall serve as Chair of the Council.
Sec. 3. Functions. The Council shall develop recommendations for the Presi-
dent on further agency and legislative actions that can be undertaken to
address the future of Princeville. In developing the recommendations, the
Council shall consider, among other things: (a) the unique historic and
cultural importance of Princeville in American history; (b) the views and
recommendations of the relevant State and local governments, the private
sector, citizens, community groups, and non-profit organizations, on actions
that they all could take to enhance the future of Princeville and its citizens;
and (c) agency assessments andrecommendations to repair and rebuild
Princeville, and, to the extent practicable, protect Princeville from future
floods. The Council, through its Chair, shall submit its recommendations
to the President. Where appropriate, the Council’s recommendations shall
include draft legislation requesting additional funding or other authorities
to aid in the reconstruction and protection of Princeville.
Sec. 4. Coordination. At the request of the Chair, agencies shall cooperate
with and provide information to the Council.
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Sec. 5. Judicial Review. This order is not intended to, nor does it create,
any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law by a
party against the United States, it agencies, its officers or employees, or
any other person.
œ–
THE WHITE HOUSE,
February 29, 2000.
[FR Doc. 00–5209
Filed 3–1–00; 8:45 am]
Billing code 3195–01–P
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| President's Council on the Future of Princeville, North Carolina | 2000-02-29T00:00:00 | fe581c063a2de448a8869b0432abc3526d9a5b60c1a9f566a86a62ae8d869f97 |
Presidential Executive Order | 00-3331 (13145) | Presidential Documents
6877
Federal Register
Vol. 65, No. 28
Thursday, February 10, 2000
Title 3—
The President
Executive Order 13145 of February 8, 2000
To Prohibit Discrimination in Federal Employment Based on
Genetic Information
By the authority vested in me as President of the United States by the
Constitution and the laws of the United States of America, it is ordered
as follows:
Section 1. Nondiscrimination in Federal Employment on the Basis of Pro-
tected Genetic Information.
1–101. It is the policy of the Government of the United States to provide
equal employment opportunity in Federal employment for all qualified per-
sons and to prohibit discrimination against employees based on protected
genetic information, or information about a request for or the receipt of
genetic services. This policy of equal opportunity applies to every aspect
of Federal employment.
1–102. The head of each Executive department and agency shall extend
the policy set forth in section 1–101 to all its employees covered by section
717 of Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, as amended (42 U.S.C.
2000e-16).
1–103. Executive departments and agencies shall carry out the provisions
of this order to the extent permitted by law and consistent with their
statutory and regulatory authorities, and their enforcement mechanisms. The
Equal Employment Opportunity Commission shall be responsible for coordi-
nating the policy of the Government of the United States to prohibit discrimi-
nation against employees in Federal employment based on protected genetic
information, or information about a request for or the receipt of genetic
services.
Sec. 2. Requirements Applicable to Employing Departments and Agencies.
1–201. Definitions.
(a)
The term ‘‘employee’’ shall include an employee, applicant for em-
ployment, or former employee covered by section 717 of the Civil
Rights Act of 1964, as amended (42 U.S.C. 2000e-16).
(b)
Genetic monitoring means the periodic examination of employees
to evaluate acquired modifications to their genetic material, such
as chromosomal damage or evidence of increased occurrence of
mutations, that may have developed in the course of employment
due to exposure to toxic substances in the workplace, in order to
identify, evaluate, respond to the effects of, or control adverse en-
vironmental exposures in the workplace.
(c)
Genetic services means health services, including genetic tests, pro-
vided to obtain, assess, or interpret genetic information for diag-
nostic or therapeutic purposes, or for genetic education or coun-
seling.
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(d)
Genetic test means the analysis of human DNA, RNA, chro-
mosomes, proteins, or certain metabolites in order to detect dis-
ease-related genotypes or mutations. Tests for metabolites fall with-
in the definition of ‘‘genetic tests’’ when an excess or deficiency
of the metabolites indicates the presence of a mutation or
mutations. The conducting of metabolic tests by a department or
agency that are not intended to reveal the presence of a mutation
shall not be considered a violation of this order, regardless of the
results of the tests. Test results revealing a mutation shall, how-
ever, be subject to the provisions of this order.
(e)
Protected genetic information.
(1)
In general, protected genetic information means:
(A)
information about an individual’s genetic tests;
(B)
information about the genetic tests of an individual’s
family members; or
(C)
information about the occurrence of a disease, or
medical condition or disorder in family members of
the individual.
(2)
Information about an individual’s current health status (in-
cluding information about sex, age, physical exams, and
chemical, blood, or urine analyses) is not protected genetic
information unless it is described in subparagraph (1).
1–202. In discharging their responsibilities under this order, departments
and agencies shall implement the following nondiscrimination requirements.
(a)
The employing department or agency shall not discharge, fail or
refuse to hire, or otherwise discriminate against any employee with
respect to the compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of em-
ployment of that employee, because of protected genetic informa-
tion with respect to the employee, or because of information about
a request for or the receipt of genetic services by such employee.
(b)
The employing department or agency shall not limit, segregate, or
classify employees in any way that would deprive or tend to de-
prive any employee of employment opportunities or otherwise ad-
versely affect that employee’s status, because of protected genetic
information with respect to the employee or because of information
about a request for or the receipt of genetic services by such em-
ployee.
(c)
The employing department or agency shall not request, require,
collect, or purchase protected genetic information with respect to
an employee, or information about a request for or the receipt of
genetic services by such employee.
(d)
The employing department or agency shall not disclose protected
genetic information with respect to an employee, or information
about a request for or the receipt of genetic services by an em-
ployee except:
(1)
to the employee who is the subject of the information, at
his or her request;
(2)
to an occupational or other health researcher, if the research
conducted complies with the regulations and protections
provided for under part 46 of title 45, of the Code of Fed-
eral Regulations;
(3)
if required by a Federal statute, congressional subpoena, or
an order issued by a court of competent jurisdiction, except
that if the subpoena or court order was secured without the
knowledge of the individual to whom the information refers,
the employer shall provide the individual with adequate no-
tice to challenge the subpoena or court order, unless the
subpoena or court order also imposes confidentiality require-
ments; or
(4)
to executive branch officials investigating compliance with
this order, if the information is relevant to the investigation.
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(e)
The employing department or agency shall not maintain protected
genetic information or information about a request for or the re-
ceipt of genetic services in general personnel files; such informa-
tion shall be treated as confidential medical records and kept sepa-
rate from personnel files.
Sec. 3. Exceptions.
1–301. The following exceptions shall apply to the nondiscrimination
requirements set forth in section 1–202.
(a)
The employing department or agency may request or require infor-
mation defined in section 1–201(e)(1)(C) with respect to an appli-
cant who has been given a conditional offer of employment or to
an employee if:
(1)
the request or requirement is consistent with the Rehabilita-
tion Act and other applicable law;
(2)
the information obtained is to be used exclusively to assess
whether further medical evaluation is needed to diagnose a
current disease, or medical condition or disorder, or under
the terms of section 1–301(b) of this order;
(3)
such current disease, or medical condition or disorder could
prevent the applicant or employee from performing the es-
sential functions of the position held or desired; and
(4)
the information defined in section 1–201(e)(1)(C) of this
order will not be disclosed to persons other than medical
personnel involved in or responsible for assessing whether
further medical evaluation is needed to diagnose a current
disease, or medical condition or disorder, or under the terms
of section 1–301(b) of this order.
(b)
The employing department or agency may request, collect, or pur-
chase protected genetic information with respect to an employee,
or any information about a request for or receipt of genetic services
by such employee if:
(1)
the employee uses genetic or health care services provided
by the employer (other than use pursuant to section 1–301(a)
of this order);
(2)
the employee who uses the genetic or health care services
has provided prior knowing, voluntary, and written author-
ization to the employer to collect protected genetic informa-
tion;
(3)
the person who performs the genetic or health care services
does not disclose protected genetic information to anyone
except to the employee who uses the services for treatment
of the individual; pursuant to section 1–202(d) of this order;
for program evaluation or assessment; for compiling and
analyzing information in anticipation of or for use in a civil
or criminal legal proceeding; or, for payment or accounting
purposes, to verify that the service was performed (but in
such cases the genetic information itself cannot be dis-
closed);
(4)
such information is not used in violation of sections 1–
202(a) or 1–202(b) of this order.
(c)
The employing department or agency may collect protected genetic
information with respect to an employee if the requirements of part
46 of title 45 of the Code of Federal Regulations are met.
(d)
Genetic monitoring of biological effects of toxic substances in the
workplace shall be permitted if all of the following conditions are
met:
(1)
the employee has provided prior, knowing, voluntary, and
written authorization;
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(2)
the employee is notified when the results of the monitoring
are available and, at that time, the employer makes any pro-
tected genetic information that may have been acquired dur-
ing the monitoring available to the employee and informs
the employee how to obtain such information;
(3)
the monitoring conforms to any genetic monitoring regula-
tions that may be promulgated by the Secretary of Labor;
and
(4)
the employer, excluding any licensed health care profes-
sionals that are involved in the genetic monitoring program,
receives results of the monitoring only in aggregate terms
that do not disclose the identity of specific employees.
(e)
This order does not limit the statutory authority of a Federal de-
partment or agency to:
(1)
promulgate or enforce workplace safety and health laws and
regulations;
(2)
conduct or sponsor occupational or other health research
that is conducted in compliance with regulations at part 46
of title 45, of the Code of Federal Regulations; or
(3)
collect protected genetic information as a part of a lawful
program, the primary purpose of which is to carry out iden-
tification purposes.
Sec. 4. Miscellaneous.
1–401. The head of each department and agency shall take appropriate
action to disseminate this policy and, to this end, shall designate a high
level official responsible for carrying out its responsibilities under this order.
1–402. Nothing in this order shall be construed to:
(a)
limit the rights or protections of an individual under the Rehabili-
tation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 701, et seq.), the Privacy Act of 1974
(5 U.S.C. 552a), or other applicable law; or
(b)
require specific benefits for an employee or dependent under the
Federal Employees Health Benefits Program or similar program.
1–403. This order clarifies and makes uniform Administration policy and
does not create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable
at law by a party against the United States, its officers or employees, or
any other person.
œ–
THE WHITE HOUSE,
February 8, 2000.
[FR Doc. 00–3331
Filed 2–9–00; 8:45 am]
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| To Prohibit Discrimination in Federal Employment Based on Genetic Information | 2000-02-08T00:00:00 | dfaefcf61a37e035ee8f6484e2c1b99bff908ffee81abbfea67b6979c9c32235 |
Presidential Executive Order | 00-10551 (13149) | Presidential Documents
24607
Federal Register / Vol. 65, No. 81 / Wednesday, April 26, 2000 / Presidential Documents
Executive Order 13149 of April 21, 2000
Greening the Government Through Federal Fleet and
Transportation Efficiency
By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the
laws of the United States of America, including the Energy Policy and
Conservation Act, as amended (42 U.S.C. 6201 et seq.), the Energy Policy
Act of 1992 (Public Law 102–486), section 301 of title 3, United States
Code, and the Energy Conservation Reauthorization Act of 1998 (Public
Law 105–388), it is hereby ordered as follows:
PART 1
PREAMBLE
Section 101. Federal Leadership. The purpose of this order is to ensure
that the Federal Government exercises leadership in the reduction of petro-
leum consumption through improvements in fleet fuel efficiency and the
use of alternative fuel vehicles (AFVs) and alternative fuels. Reduced petro-
leum use and the displacement of petroleum by alternative fuels will help
promote markets for more alternative fuel and fuel efficient vehicles, encour-
age new technologies, enhance the United States’ energy self-sufficiency
and security, and ensure a healthier environment through the reduction
of greenhouse gases and other pollutants in the atmosphere.
PART 2
GOALS
Sec. 201. Reduced Petroleum Fuel Consumption. Each agency operating
20 or more motor vehicles within the United States shall reduce its entire
vehicle fleet’s annual petroleum consumption by at least 20 percent by
the end of FY 2005, compared with FY 1999 petroleum consumption levels.
Sec. 202. Performance Strategies. Agencies have numerous options for devel-
oping a strategy to meet the petroleum reduction levels established in section
201 of this order. Measures include: the use of alternative fuels in light,
medium, and heavy-duty vehicles; the acquisition of vehicles with higher
fuel economy, including hybrid vehicles; the substitution of cars for light
trucks; an increase in vehicle load factors; a decrease in vehicle miles
traveled; and a decrease in fleet size. Each agency will need a strategy
that includes most, if not all, of these measures, but can develop a strategy
that fits its unique fleet configuration and mission requirements. As part
of the strategy, each agency should attempt to accelerate the introduction
of vehicles meeting Tier 2 standards. Where feasible, agencies should also
consider procurement of innovative vehicles, such as hybrid electric vehicles,
capable of large improvements in fuel economy. The strategy should also
attempt to minimize costs in achieving the objectives of this order. In devel-
oping its strategy, each agency shall include the following:
(a) AFV Acquisition and Use of Alternative Fuels. Each agency shall
fulfill the acquisition requirements for AFVs established by section 303
of the Energy Policy Act of 1992. Agencies shall use alternative fuels to
meet a majority of the fuel requirements of those motor vehicles by the
end of FY 2005. Section 402 of this order addresses related issues of alter-
native fuel infrastructure availability and the ability to track alternative
fuel usage data; and
(b) Acquisition of Higher Fuel Economy Vehicles. Agencies shall increase
the average EPA fuel economy rating of passenger cars and light trucks
acquired by at least 1 mile per gallon (mpg) by the end of FY 2002 and
at least 3 mpg by the end of FY 2005 compared to FY 1999 acquisitions.
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PART 3
ORGANIZATION AND ACCOUNTABILITY
Sec. 301. Leadership Responsibilities. The Office of Management and Budget
(OMB), the Department of Energy (DOE), the Environmental Protection Agen-
cy (EPA), and the General Services Administration (GSA) shall be responsible
for providing leadership to the other Federal agencies in implementing pro-
grams to meet the goals of this order. Therefore, they shall perform the
following activities:
(a) OMB shall:
(1) designate a senior official to assume the responsibility for coordinating
the collection of agency budget and data submissions pursuant to this
order;
(2) amend and issue budget guidance to the agencies that requires each
agency to identify in its annual budget submission the funding necessary
to meet the requirements of this order;
(3) review annual agency budget submissions to determine adequacy in
meeting the goal of this order and to balance requests for increased funding
to support achievement of the goals against other mission priorities for
the agency; and
(4) review agency submissions for the annual report to the Congress,
after budget decisions are made.
(b) DOE shall:
(1) issue guidance to agencies, within 90 days of the issuance of this
order, on preparation and submission of agency strategies for complying
with this order and the collection and annual reporting of data to dem-
onstrate compliance with this order;
(2) review and evaluate agency strategies prior to their submission to
OMB;
(3) provide OMB with copies of the agency strategy evaluations;
(4) provide whatever other support OMB requires to facilitate performance
of OMB’s role;
(5) establish the data collection and reporting system outlined in the
DOE guidance for collecting annual agency performance data on meeting
the goals of this order and other applicable statutes and policies;
(6) educate personnel from other agencies on the requirements of this
order, the data collection and reporting system, best practices for improving
fleet fuel efficiency, and methods for successfully acquiring and using
AFVs;
(7) review agencies’ annual data submissions for accuracy and produce
a scorecard of agency and overall Federal compliance with this order
and other applicable statutes and policies; and
(8) report to the President annually on compliance with the order, including
the scorecard and level of performance in meeting the goals of the agencies’
strategies.
(c) EPA shall support DOE and GSA in their efforts to assist the agencies
in the accelerated purchase of Tier 2 vehicles.
(d) GSA shall develop and implement strategies that will ease agencies’
financial and administrative burdens associated with the acquisition of AFVs,
including:
(1) Agencies shall be allowed to replace their conventionally-fueled vehi-
cles with AFVs by making an initial lump-sum payment for the additional
acquisition cost of the AFV and shall be allowed to contribute to the
higher replacement costs of the AFV incrementally over the term of the
lease, and have the option of averaging AFV incremental costs across
the agency fleet as provided by the Energy Policy Act of 1992.
(2) Within 120 days of this order, the Administrator of GSA, in consultation
with other agencies, shall:
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(A) provide a summary of agency AFV acquisition plans to potential
AFV manufacturers to assist in their production planning. At least 4
months in advance of agency vehicle ordering cycles, GSA must pro-
vide to agencies the best available information on the production
plans of AFV manufacturers;
(B) develop, in coordination with DOE and EPA, methods that will
help Federal fleet managers to select vehicles to improve fleet fuel
efficiency and to meet Tier 2 vehicle standards; and
(C) collaborate with its customer agencies and their procurement staff
and officials to discuss and plan efforts to ensure that the GSA-leased
fleet is making progress toward the goals of this order.
Sec. 302. Designation of Senior Agency Official. Within 90 days of the
date of this order, the head of each agency shall designate a senior official
to assume responsibility for the agency’s AFV and fleet fuel efficiency pro-
grams, and for meeting the requirements of this order. Each senior agency
official designated by an agency shall be responsible for:
(a) preparing an agency strategy for meeting the goals of this order, in
accordance with guidance issued by DOE;
(b) submitting the agency strategy to DOE within 180 days of the issuance
of this order for evaluation and submission to OMB;
(c) implementing the data collection and reporting system outlined in
the DOE guidance for collecting annual agency performance data on meeting
the goals of this order and reporting the data to DOE;
(d) ensuring the agency’s strategy for meeting the goals of this order
is incorporated in the annual budget submission to OMB; and
(e) assembling the appropriate team and resources in the agency necessary
to attain the goals of this order.
Sec. 303. Management and Government Performance. Agencies may use
the following management strategies to assist them in meeting the goals
of this order:
(a) Awards. Agencies may use employee incentive programs to reward
exceptional performance in implementing this order.
(b) Performance Evaluations. Agencies shall, where appropriate, include
successful implementation of the provisions of this order in the position
descriptions and performance evaluations of agency heads, the senior official,
fleet managers, their superiors, and other relevant employees.
Sec. 304. Applicability. This order applies to each agency operating 20
or more motor vehicles within the United States. Agency means an executive
agency as defined in 5 U.S.C. 105. For the purpose of this order, military
departments, as defined in 5 U.S.C. 102, are covered under the auspices
of the Department of Defense.
PART 4
IMPLEMENTATION
Sec. 401. Vehicle Reporting Credits. When preparing the annual report to
DOE and OMB, each agency acquisition of an alternative fuel light-duty
vehicle, regardless of geographic placement, shall count as one credit towards
fulfilling the AFV acquisition requirements of the Energy Policy Act of
1992. Agencies shall receive one additional credit for each light-duty AFV
that exclusively uses an alternative fuel and for each Zero Emission Vehicle
of any size. Agencies shall receive three credits for dedicated medium-
duty AFVs and four credits for dedicated heavy-duty AFVs. Agencies can
also receive one credit for every 450 gallons of pure bio-diesel used in
diesel vehicles.
Sec. 402. Infrastructure. To support the use of alternative fuel in AFVs,
agencies should arrange for fueling at commercial facilities that offer alter-
native fuels for sale to the public.
(a) Agencies should team with State, local, and private entities to support
the expansion and use of public access alternative fuel refueling stations;
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(b) Agencies should use the authority granted to them in section 304
of the Energy Policy Act of 1992 to establish nonpublic access alternative
fuel infrastructure for fueling Federal AFVs where public fueling is unavail-
able.
(c) Agencies are encouraged to work with DOE and GSA to resolve alter-
native fuel usage tracking issues with alternative and petroleum fuel pro-
viders.
Sec. 403. Procurement of Environmentally Preferable Motor Vehicle Products.
(a) Consistent with Executive Order 13101 and section 6002 of the Resource
Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA), 42 U.S.C. 6962, effective 6 months
after the date of this order, no Federal agency shall purchase, sell, or arrange
for the purchase of virgin petroleum motor vehicle lubricating oils when
re-refined motor vehicle lubricating oils are reasonably available and meet
the vehicle manufacturer’s recommended performance standards.
(b) Consistent with Executive Order 13101 and RCRA section 6962, in
acquiring and maintaining motor vehicles, agencies shall acquire and use
United States EPA-designated Comprehensive Procurement Guideline items,
including but not limited to retread tires, when such products are reasonably
available and meet applicable performance standards. In addition, Federal
agencies should consider acquiring other recycled content products, such
as tires containing a minimum of 5–10 percent post-consumer recovered
rubber.
(c) Consistent with Executive Order 13101, Federal agencies are encouraged
to use biobased motor vehicle products when such products are reasonably
available and meet applicable performance standards.
PART 5
GENERAL PROVISIONS
Sec. 501. Revocation. Executive Order 13031 of December 13, 1996, is re-
voked.
Sec. 502. Statutory Authority. Agencies must carry out the provisions of
this order to the extent consistent with their statutory authority.
Sec. 503. Limitations. This order is intended only to improve the internal
management of the executive branch and is not intended to create any
right, benefit, or trust responsibility, substantive or procedural, enforceable
at law by a party against the United States, its agencies, its officers, or
any other person.
Sec. 504. Independent Agencies. Independent agencies and agencies excepted
from coverage by section 304 are encouraged to comply with the provisions
of this order.
Sec. 505. Government-Owned Contractor-Operated Vehicles. Agencies must
ensure that all Government-owned contractor-operated vehicles comply with
all applicable goals and other requirements of this order and that these
goals and requirements are incorporated into each contractor’s management
contract.
Sec. 506. Exemptions for Military Tactical, Law Enforcement, and Emergency
Vehicles. Department of Defense military tactical vehicles are exempt from
this order. Law enforcement, emergency, and any other vehicle class or
type determined by OMB, in consultation with DOE, are exempted from
this order’s requirements for Federal fleet fuel efficiency and alternative
fuel vehicle acquisition. Agencies claiming vehicle exemptions must provide
information on the number of each class or type of vehicle claimed as
exempt as well as an estimate of total fuel consumption of exempt vehicles
on an annual basis. Agencies should examine options for increasing fuel
efficiency in these exempt vehicles and should report actions taken to in-
crease fuel efficiency in these vehicles or fleets. All information required
by this section must be submitted annually under Part 3 of this order.
Sec. 507. Compliance. (a) If an agency fails to meet requirements of the
Energy Policy Act of 1992 or this order, its report to the DOE and OMB
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under section 302(c) must include an explanation for such failure and an
updated strategy for achieving compliance using the agency’s current and
requested budgets.
(b) OMB, in consultation with DOE, may modify the compliance require-
ments for an agency under Part 2 of this order, if the agency is unable
to comply with the requirements of that part. An agency requesting modifica-
tion must show that it has made substantial good faith efforts to comply
with that part. The availability and costs of alternative fuels and AFVs
can be a factor in OMB’s decision to modify the agency’s compliance with
Part 2 of this order.
Sec. 508. Definitions. Terms used in this order shall have the same definitions
as those in the Energy Policy Act of 1992 and Executive Order 13101,
unless specifically changed in guidance to be issued by DOE under section
301(b) of this order.
œ–
THE WHITE HOUSE,
April 21, 2000.
[FR Doc. 00–10551
Filed 4–25–00; 8:45 am]
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| Greening the Government Through Federal Fleet and Transportation Efficiency | 2000-04-21T00:00:00 | 03c03f7a482b8fe8c741c9b2a07984f285815fea41ea926b4eb5d037e121b53a |
Presidential Executive Order | 99-31748 (13143) | Presidential Documents
68273
Federal Register
Vol. 64, No. 233
Monday, December 6, 1999
Title 3—
The President
Executive Order 13143 of December 1, 1999
Amending Executive Order 10173, as Amended, Prescribing
Regulations Relating to the Safeguarding of Vessels, Harbors,
Ports, and Waterfront Facilities of the United States
By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the
laws of the United States of America, including 50 U.S.C. 191, I hereby
prescribe the following amendment to the regulations prescribed by Executive
Order 10173 of October 18, 1950, as amended, which regulations constitute
Part 6, Subchapter A, Chapter I, Title 33 of the Code of Federal Regulations:
Section 6.01–4 is amended to read as follows:
§6.01–4 Waterfront facility. ‘‘Waterfront facility,’’ as used in this part,
means all piers, wharves, docks, or similar structures to which vessels
may be secured and naval yards, stations, and installations, including ranges;
areas of land, water, or land and water under and in immediate proximity
to them; buildings on them or contiguous to them and equipment and
materials on or in them.
œ–
THE WHITE HOUSE,
December 1, 1999.
[FR Doc. 99–31748
Filed 12–3–99; 10:42 am]
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| Amending Executive Order 10173, as Amended, Prescribing Regulations Relating to the Safeguarding of Vessels, Harbors, Ports, and Waterfront Facilities of the United States | 1999-12-01T00:00:00 | 938fd7fac71f1ed160a0adc5aec3fc156ceafa0232b67e110b75da2040d326e5 |
Presidential Executive Order | 99-26670 (13140) | Presidential Documents
55115
Federal Register
Vol. 64, No. 196
Tuesday, October 12, 1999
Title 3—
The President
Executive Order 13140 of October 6, 1999
1999 Amendments to the Manual for Courts-Martial, United
States
By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the
laws of the United States of America, including chapter 47 of title 10,
United States Code (Uniform Code of Military Justice, 10 U.S.C. 801–946),
in order to prescribe amendments to the Manual for Courts-Martial, United
States, prescribed by Executive Order 12473, as amended by Executive Order
12484, Executive Order 12550, Executive Order 12586, Executive Order
12708, Executive Order 12767, Executive Order 12888, Executive Order
12936, Executive Order 12960, and Executive Order 13086, it is hereby
ordered as follows:
Section 1. Part II of the Manual for Courts-Martial, United States, is amended
as follows:
a. R.C.M. 502(c) is amended to read as follows:
‘‘(c) Qualifications of military judge. A military judge shall be a com-
missioned officer of the armed forces who is a member of the bar of
a Federal court or a member of the bar of the highest court of a State
and who is certified to be qualified for duty as a military judge by the
Judge Advocate General of the armed force of which such military
judge is a member. In addition, the military judge of a general court-
martial shall be designated for such duties by the Judge Advocate
General or the Judge Advocate General’s designee, certified to be
qualified for duty as a military judge of a general court-martial, and
assigned and directly responsible to the Judge Advocate General or the
Judge Advocate General’s designee. The Secretary concerned may pre-
scribe additional qualifications for military judges in special courts-
martial. As used in this subsection ‘‘military judge’’ does not include
the president of a special court-martial without a military judge.’’
b. R.C.M. 804 is amended by redesignating the current subsection (c)
as subsection (d) and inserting after subsection (b) the following new sub-
section (c):
‘‘(c) Voluntary absence for limited purpose of child testimony.
(1) Election by accused. Following a determination by the military
judge that remote live testimony of a child is appropriate pursuant to
Mil. R. Evid. 611(d)(3), the accused may elect to voluntarily absent
himself from the courtroom in order to preclude the use of procedures
described in R.C.M. 914A.
(2) Procedure. The accused’s absence will be conditional upon his
being able to view the witness’ testimony from a remote location. Nor-
mally, a two-way closed circuit television system will be used to
transmit the child’s testimony from the courtroom to the accused’s lo-
cation. A one-way closed circuit television system may be used if
deemed necessary by the military judge. The accused will also be pro-
vided private, contemporaneous communication with his counsel. The
procedures described herein shall be employed unless the accused has
made a knowing and affirmative waiver of these procedures.
(3) Effect on accused’s rights generally. An election by the accused
to be absent pursuant to subsection (c)(1) shall not otherwise affect the
accused’s right to be present at the remainder of the trial in accord-
ance with this rule.’’
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c. The following new rule is inserted after R.C.M. 914:
‘‘Rule 914A. Use of remote live testimony of a child
(a) General procedures. A child shall be allowed to testify out of the
presence of the accused after the military judge has determined that
the requirements of Mil. R. Evid. 611(d)(3) have been satisfied. The
procedure used to take such testimony will be determined by the mili-
tary judge based upon the exigencies of the situation. However, such
testimony should normally be taken via a two-way closed circuit tele-
vision system. At a minimum, the following procedures shall be ob-
served:
(1) The witness shall testify from a remote location outside the
courtroom;
(2) Attendance at the remote location shall be limited to the child,
counsel for each side (not including an accused pro se), equipment
operators, and other persons, such as an attendant for the child,
whose presence is deemed necessary by the military judge;
(3) Sufficient monitors shall be placed in the courtroom to allow
viewing and hearing of the testimony by the military judge, the ac-
cused, the members, the court reporter and the public;
(4) The voice of the military judge shall be transmitted into the re-
mote location to allow control of the proceedings; and
(5) The accused shall be permitted private, contemporaneous com-
munication with his counsel.
(b) Prohibitions. The procedures described above shall not be used
where the accused elects to absent himself from the courtroom pursu-
ant to R.C.M. 804(c).’’
d. R.C.M. 1001(b)(4) is amended by inserting the following sentences
between the first and second sentences:
‘‘Evidence in aggravation includes, but is not limited to, evidence of
financial, social, psychological, and medical impact on or cost to any
person or entity who was the victim of an offense committed by the
accused and evidence of significant adverse impact on the mission,
discipline, or efficiency of the command directly and immediately re-
sulting from the accused’s offense. In addition, evidence in aggrava-
tion may 3
include evidence that the accused intentionally selected any victim or
any property as the object of the offense because of the actual or per-
ceived race, color, religion, national origin, ethnicity, gender, dis-
ability, or sexual orientation of any person.’’
e. R.C.M. 1003(b) is amended—
(1) by striking subsection (4) and
(2) by redesignating subsections (5), (6), (7), (8), (9), (10), and (11)
as subsections (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), (9), and (10), respectively.
f. R.C.M. 1004(c)(7) is amended by adding at end the following new
subsection:
‘‘(K) The victim of the murder was under 15 years of age.’’
Sec. 2. Part III of the Manual for Courts-Martial, United States, is amended
as follows:
a. Insert the following new rule after Mil. R. Evid. 512:
‘‘Rule 513. Psychotherapist-patient privilege
(a) General rule of privilege. A patient has a privilege to refuse to dis-
close and to prevent any other person from disclosing a confidential
communication made between the patient and a psychotherapist or an
assistant to the psychotherapist, in a case arising under the UCMJ, if
such communication was made for the purpose of facilitating diag-
nosis or treatment of the patient’s mental or emotional condition.
(b) Definitions. As used in this rule of evidence:
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(1) A ‘‘patient’’ is a person who consults with or is examined or
interviewed by a psychotherapist for purposes of advice, diagnosis, or
treatment of a mental or emotional condition.
(2) A ‘‘psychotherapist’’ is a psychiatrist, clinical psychologist, or
clinical social worker who is licensed in any state, territory, posses-
sion, the District of Columbia or Puerto Rico to perform professional
services as such, or who holds credentials to provide such services
from any military health care facility, or is a person reasonably be-
lieved by the patient to have such license or credentials.
(3) An ‘‘assistant to a psychotherapist’’ is a person directed by or
assigned to assist a psychotherapist in providing professional services,
or is reasonably believed by the patient to be such.
(4) A communication is ‘‘confidential’’ if not intended to be dis-
closed to third persons other than those to whom disclosure is in fur-
therance of the rendition of professional services to the patient or
those reasonably necessary for such transmission of the communica-
tion.
(5) ‘‘Evidence of a patient’s records or communications’’ is testi-
mony of a psychotherapist, or assistant to the same, or patient records
that pertain to communications by a patient to a psychotherapist, or
assistant to the same for the purposes of diagnosis or treatment of the
patient’s mental or emotional condition.
(c) Who may claim the privilege. The privilege may be claimed by the
patient or the guardian or conservator of the patient. A person who
may claim the privilege may authorize trial counsel or defense coun-
sel to claim the privilege on his or her behalf. The psychotherapist or
assistant to the psychotherapist who received the communication may
claim the privilege on behalf of the patient. The authority of such a
psychotherapist, assistant, guardian, or conservator to so assert the
privilege is presumed in the absence of evidence to the contrary.
(d) Exceptions. There is no privilege under this rule:
(1) when the patient is dead;
(2) when the communication is evidence of spouse abuse, child
abuse, or neglect or in a proceeding in which one spouse is charged
with a crime against the person of the other spouse or a child of either
spouse;
(3) when federal law, state law, or service regulation imposes a duty
to report information contained in a communication;
(4) when a psychotherapist or assistant to a psychotherapist believes
that a patient’s mental or emotional condition makes the patient a
danger to any person, including the patient;
(5) if the communication clearly contemplated the future commis-
sion of a fraud or crime or if the services of the psychotherapist are
sought or obtained to enable or aid anyone to commit or plan to com-
mit what the patient knew or reasonably should have known to be a
crime or fraud;
(6) when necessary to ensure the safety and security of military per-
sonnel, military dependents, military property, classified information,
or the accomplishment of a military mission;
(7) when an accused offers statements or other evidence concerning
his mental condition in defense, extenuation, or mitigation, under cir-
cumstances not covered by R.C.M. 706 or Mil. R. Evid. 302. In such
situations, the military judge may, upon motion, order disclosure of
any statement made by the accused to a psychotherapist as may be
necessary in the interests of justice; or
(8) when admission or disclosure of a communication is constitu-
tionally required.
(e) Procedure to determine admissibility of patient records or commu-
nications.
(1) In any case in which the production or admission of records or
communications of a patient other than the accused is a matter in dis-
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pute, a party may seek an interlocutory ruling by the military judge.
In order to obtain such a ruling, the party shall:
(A) file a written motion at least 5 days prior to entry of pleas spe-
cifically describing the evidence and stating the purpose for which it
is sought or offered, or objected to, unless the military judge, for good
cause shown, requires a different time for filing or permits filing dur-
ing trial; and
(B) serve the motion on the opposing party, the military judge and,
if practical, notify the patient or the patient’s guardian, conservator,
or representative that the motion has been filed and that the patient
has an opportunity to be heard as set forth in subparagraph (e)(2).
(2) Before ordering the production or admission of evidence of a pa-
tient’s records or communication, the military judge shall conduct a
hearing. Upon the motion of counsel for either party and upon good
cause shown, the military judge may order the hearing closed. At the
hearing, the parties may call witnesses, including the patient, and
offer other relevant evidence. The patient shall be afforded a reason-
able opportunity to attend the hearing and be heard at the patient’s
own expense unless the patient has been otherwise subpoenaed or or-
dered to appear at the hearing. However, the proceedings shall not be
unduly delayed for this purpose. In a case before a court-martial com-
posed of a military judge and members, the military judge shall con-
duct the hearing outside the presence of the members.
(3) The military judge shall examine the evidence or a proffer there-
of in camera, if such examination is necessary to rule on the motion.
(4) To prevent unnecessary disclosure of evidence of a patient’s
records or communications, the military judge may issue protective
orders or may admit only portions of the evidence.
(5) The motion, related papers, and the record of the hearing shall
be sealed and shall remain under seal unless the military judge or an
appellate court orders otherwise.’’
b. Mil. R. Evid. 611 is amended by inserting the following new subsection
at the end:
(d) Remote live testimony of a child.
(1) In a case involving abuse of a child or domestic violence, the
military judge shall, subject to the requirements of subsection (3) of
this rule, allow a child victim or witness to testify from an area out-
side the courtroom as prescribed in R.C.M. 914A.
(2) The term ‘‘child’’ means a person who is under the age of 16
at the time of his or her testimony. The term ‘‘abuse of a child’’ means
the physical or mental injury, sexual abuse or exploitation, or neg-
ligent treatment of a child. The term ‘‘exploitation’’ means child por-
nography or child prostitution. The term ‘‘negligent treatment’’ means
the failure to provide, for reasons other than poverty, adequate food,
clothing, shelter, or medical care so as to endanger seriously the phys-
ical health of the child. The term ‘‘domestic violence’’ means an of-
fense that has as an element the use, attempted use, or threatened use
of physical force against a person and is committed by a current or
former spouse, parent, or guardian of the victim; by a person with
whom the victim shares a child in common; by a person who is co-
habiting with or has cohabited with the victim as a spouse, parent, or
guardian; or by a person similarly situated to a spouse, parent, or
guardian of the victim.
(3) Remote live testimony will be used only where the military
judge makes a finding on the record that a child is unable to testify
in open court in the presence of the accused, for any of the following
reasons:
(A) The child is unable to testify because of fear;
(B) There is substantial likelihood, established by expert testimony,
that the child would suffer emotional trauma from testifying;
(C) The child suffers from a mental or other infirmity; or
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(D) Conduct by an accused or defense counsel causes the child to
be unable to continue testifying.
(4) Remote live testimony of a child shall not be utilized where the
accused elects to absent himself from the courtroom in accordance
with R.C.M. 804(c).’’
Sec. 3. Part IV of the Manual for Courts-Martial, United States, is amended
as follows:
a. Insert the following new paragraph after paragraph 100:
100a. Article 134—(Reckless endangerment)
a. Text. See paragraph 60.
b. Elements.
(1) That the accused did engage in conduct;
(2) That the conduct was wrongful and reckless or wanton;
(3) That the conduct was likely to produce death or grievous bodily
harm to another person; and
(4) That under the circumstances, the conduct of the accused was
to the prejudice of good order and discipline in the armed forces or
was of a nature to bring discredit upon the armed forces.
c. Explanation.
(1) In general. This offense is intended to prohibit and therefore
deter reckless or wanton conduct that wrongfully creates a substantial
risk of death or serious injury to others.
(2) Wrongfulness. Conduct is wrongful when it is without legal jus-
tification or excuse.
(3) Recklessness. ‘‘Reckless’’ conduct is conduct that exhibits a cul-
pable disregard of foreseeable consequences to others from the act or
omission involved. The accused need not intentionally cause a result-
ing harm or know that his conduct is substantially certain to cause
that result. The ultimate question is whether, under all the cir-
cumstances, the accused’s conduct was of that heedless nature that
made it actually or imminently dangerous to the rights or safety of
others.
(4) Wantonness. ‘‘Wanton’’ includes ‘‘reckless,’’ but may connote
willfulness, or a disregard of probable consequences, and thus de-
scribe a more aggravated offense.
(5) Likely to produce. When the natural or probable consequence of
particular conduct would be death or grievous bodily harm, it may be
inferred that the conduct is ‘‘likely’’ to produce that result. See para-
graph 54c(4)(a)(ii).
(6) Grievous bodily harm. ‘‘Grievous bodily harm’’ means serious
bodily injury. It does not include minor injuries, such as a black eye
or a bloody nose, but does include fractured or dislocated bones, deep
cuts, torn members of the body, serious damage to internal organs,
and other serious bodily injuries.
(7) Death or injury not required. It is not necessary that death or
grievous bodily harm be actually inflicted to prove reckless
endangerment.
d. Lesser included offenses. None.
e. Maximum punishment. Bad-conduct discharge, forfeiture of all pay
and allowances, and confinement for 1 year.
f. Sample specification. In that lllllllllll (personal juris-
diction data), did, (at/on board—location) (subject-matter jurisdiction
data, if required), on or about llllllllllll 19ll,
wrongfully and recklessly engage in conduct, to wit:
(he/she)(describe conduct) and that the accused’s conduct was likely
to cause death or serious bodily harm to lllllllll.’’
Sec. 4. These amendments shall take effect on 1 November 1999, subject
to the following:
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a. The amendments made to Military Rule of Evidence 611, shall apply
only in cases in which arraignment has been completed on or after 1 Novem-
ber 1999.
b. Military Rule of Evidence 513 shall only apply to communications
made after 1 November 1999.
c. The amendments made to Rules for Courts-Martial 502, 804, and 914A
shall only apply in cases in which arraignment has been completed on
or after 1 November 1999.
d. The amendments made to Rules for Courts-Martial 1001(b)(4) and
1004(c)(7) shall only apply to offenses committed after 1 November 1999.
e. Nothing in these amendments shall be construed to make punishable
any act done or omitted prior to 1 November 1999, which was not punishable
when done or omitted.
f. The maximum punishment for an offense committed prior to 1 November
1999, shall not exceed the applicable maximum in effect at the time of
the commission of such offense.
g. Nothing in these amendments shall be construed to invalidate any
nonjudicial punishment proceeding, restraint, investigation, referral of
charges, trial in which arraignment occurred, or other action begun prior
to 1 November 1999, and any such nonjudicial punishment, restraint, inves-
tigation, referral of charges, trial, or other action may proceed in the same
manner and with the same effect as if these amendments had not been
prescribed.
œ–
THE WHITE HOUSE,
October 6, 1999.
Changes to the Analysis Accompanying the Manual for Courts-Martial,
United States.
1. Changes to Appendix 21, the Analysis accompanying the Rules for Courts-
Martial, United States (Part II, MCM).
a. R.C.M. 502(c). The analysis accompanying R.C.M. 502(c) is amended
by inserting the following at the end thereof:
‘‘1999 Amendment: R.C.M. 502(c) was amended to delete the requirement
that military judges be ‘‘on active duty’’ to enable Reserve Component
judges to conduct trials during periods of inactive duty for training (IDT)
and inactive duty training travel (IATT). The active duty requirement
does not appear in Article 26, UCMJ which prescribes the qualifications
for military judges. It appears to be a vestigial requirement from paragraph
4e of the 1951 and 1969 MCM. Neither the current MCM nor its prede-
cessors provide an explanation for this additional requirement. It was
deleted to enhance efficiency in the military justice system.’’
b. R.C.M. 804(c). The analysis accompanying R.C.M. 804 is amended by
redesignating the current subsection (c) as subsection (d) and by inserting
after subsection (b) the following new subsection (c):
‘‘(c) Voluntary absence for limited purpose of child testimony.
1999 Amendment: The amendment provides for two-way closed circuit
television to transmit a child’s testimony from the courtroom to the
accused’s location. The use of two-way closed circuit television, to some
degree, may defeat the purpose of these alternative procedures, which
is to avoid trauma to children. In such cases, the judge has discretion
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to direct one-way television communication. The use of one-way closed
circuit television was approved by the Supreme Court in Maryland v.
Craig, 497 U.S. 836 (1990). This amendment also gives the accused the
election to absent himself from the courtroom to prevent remote testimony.
Such a provision gives the accused a greater role in determining how
this issue will be resolved.’’
c. R.C.M. 914A. Insert the following analysis after the analysis to R.C.M.
914:
‘‘1999 Amendment: This rule allows the military judge to determine
what procedure to use when taking testimony under Mil. R. Evid. 611(d)(3).
It states that normally such testimony should be taken via a two-way
closed circuit television system. The rule further prescribes the procedures
to be used if a television system is employed. The use of two-way closed
circuit television, to some degree, may defeat the purpose of these alter-
native procedures, which is to avoid trauma to children. In such cases,
the judge has discretion to direct one-way television communication. The
use of one-way closed circuit television was approved by the Supreme
Court in Maryland v. Craig, 497 U.S. 836 (1990). This amendment also
gives the accused an election to absent himself from the courtroom to
prevent remote testimony. Such a provision gives the accused a greater
role in determining how this issue will be resolved.’’
d. R.C.M. 1001(b)(4). The analysis to R.C.M. 1001(b)(4) is amended by
inserting the following paragraph before the analysis of R.C.M. 1001(b)(5):
‘‘1999 Amendment: R.C.M. 1001(b)(4) was amended by elevating to
the Rule language that heretofore appeared in the Discussion to the Rule.
The Rule was further amended to recognize that evidence that the offense
was a ‘‘hate crime’’ may also be presented to the sentencing authority.
The additional ‘‘hate crime’’ language was derived in part from section
3A1.1 of the Federal Sentencing Guidelines, in which hate crime motiva-
tion results in an upward adjustment in the level of the offense for
which the defendant is sentenced. Courts-martial sentences are not awarded
upon the basis of guidelines, such as the Federal Sentencing Guidelines,
but rather upon broad considerations of the needs of the service and
the accused and on the premise that each sentence is individually tailored
to the offender and offense. The upward adjustment used in the Federal
Sentencing Guidelines does not directly translate to the court-martial
presentencing procedure. Therefore, in order to adapt this concept to
the court-martial process, this amendment was made to recognize that
‘‘hate crime’’ motivation is admissible in the court-martial presentencing
procedure. This amendment also differs from the Federal Sentencing Guide-
line in that the amendment does not specify the burden of proof required
regarding evidence of ‘‘hate crime’’ motivation. No burden of proof is
customarily specified regarding aggravating evidence admitted in the
presentencing procedure, with the notable exception of aggravating factors
under R.C.M. 1004 in capital cases.’’
e. R.C.M. 1003(b). The analysis accompanying R.C.M. 1003 is amended
by adding the following as the last paragraph of the analysis:
‘‘1999 Amendment: Loss of numbers, lineal position, or seniority has
been deleted. Although loss of numbers had the effect of lowering prece-
dence for some purposes, e.g., quarters priority, board and court seniority,
and actual date of promotion, loss of numbers did not affect the officer’s
original position for purposes of consideration for retention or promotion.
Accordingly, this punishment was deleted because of its negligible con-
sequences and the misconception that it was a meaningful punishment.’’
f. R.C.M. 1004. The analysis to R.C.M. 1004(c)(7) is amended by adding
the following as the last paragraph of the analysis:
‘‘1999 Amendment: R.C.M. 1004(c)(7)(K) was added to afford greater
protection to victims who are especially vulnerable due to their age.’’
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2. Changes to Appendix 22, the Analysis accompanying the Military Rules
of Evidence (Part III, MCM).
a. Mil. R. Evid. 501. The analysis to Mil. R. Evid. 501 is amended—
(1) by striking:
‘‘The privilege expressed in Rule 302 and its conforming Manual change
in Para. 121, is not a doctor-patient privilege and is not affected by
Rule 501(d).’’
(2) by adding at the end:
‘‘1999 Amendment: The privileges expressed in Rule 513 and Rule
302 and the conforming Manual change in R.C.M. 706, are not physician-
patient privileges and are not affected by Rule 501(d).’’
b. Mil. R. Evid. 513. Insert the following analysis after the analysis of
Mil. R. Evid. 512:
‘‘1999 Amendment: Military Rule of Evidence 513 establishes a
psychotherapist-patient privilege for investigations or proceedings author-
ized under the Uniform Code of Military Justice. Rule 513 clarifies military
law in light of the Supreme Court decision in Jaffee v. Redmond, 518
U.S. 1, 116 S. Ct. 1923, 135 L.Ed.2d 337 (1996). Jaffee interpreted Federal
Rule of Evidence 501 to create a federal psychotherapist-patient privilege
in civil proceedings and refers federal courts to state laws to determine
the extent of privileges. In deciding to adopt this privilege for courts-
martial, the committee balanced the policy of following federal law and
rules, when practicable and not inconsistent with the UCMJ or MCM,
with the needs of commanders for knowledge of certain types of informa-
tion affecting the military. The exceptions to the rule have been developed
to address the specialized society of the military and separate concerns
that must be met to ensure military readiness and national security. See
Parker v. Levy, 417 U.S. 733, 743 (1974); U.S. ex rel. Toth v. Quarles,
350 U.S. 11, 17 (1955); Dept. of the Navy v. Egan, 484 U.S. 518, 530
(1988). There is no intent to apply Rule 513 in any proceeding other
than those authorized under the UCMJ. Rule 513 was based in part on
proposed Fed. R. Evid. (not adopted) 504 and state rules of evidence.
Rule 513 is not a physician-patient privilege. It is a separate rule based
on the social benefit of confidential counseling recognized by Jaffee, and
similar to the clergy-penitent privilege. In keeping with American military
law since its inception, there is still no physician-patient privilege for
members of the Armed Forces. See the analyses for Rule 302 and Rule
501.
(a) General rule of privilege. The words ‘‘under the UCMJ’’ in this rule
mean Rule 513 applies only to UCMJ proceedings, and do not limit the
availability of such information internally to the services, for appropriate
purposes.
(d) Exceptions. These exceptions are intended to emphasize that military
commanders are to have access to all information that is necessary for
the safety and security of military personnel, operations, installations,
and equipment. Therefore, psychotherapists are to provide such informa-
tion despite a claim of privilege.’’
c. Mil. R. Evid. 611. The analysis accompanying Rule 611 is amended
by adding at the end of the analysis the following:
‘‘1999 Amendment: Rule 611(d) is new. This amendment to Rule 611
gives substantive guidance to military judges regarding the use of alter-
native examination methods for child victims and witnesses in light of
the U.S. Supreme Court’s decision in Maryland v. Craig, 497 U.S. 836
(1990) and the change in Federal law in 18 U.S.C. section 3509. Although
Maryland v. Craig dealt with child witnesses who were themselves the
victims of abuse, it should be noted that 18 U.S.C. section 3509, as
construed by Federal courts, has been applied to allow non-victim child
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witnesses to testify remotely. See, e.g., United States v. Moses, 137 F.3d
894 (6th Cir. 1998) (applying section 3509 to a non-victim child witness,
but reversing a child sexual assault conviction on other grounds) and
United States v. Quintero, 21 F.3d 885 (9th Cir. 1994) (affirming conviction
based on remote testimony of non-victim child witness, but remanding
for re-sentencing). This amendment recognizes that child witnesses may
be particularly traumatized, even if they are not themselves the direct
victims, in cases involving the abuse of other children or domestic violence.
This amendment also gives the accused an election to absent himself
from the courtroom to prevent remote testimony. Such a provision gives
the accused a greater role in determining how this issue will be resolved.’’
3. Changes to Appendix 23, the Analysis accompanying the Punitive Articles
(Part IV, MCM).
The following paragraph is inserted after the analysis of paragraph 100:
‘‘100a. Article 134—(Reckless endangerment)
c. Explanation. This paragraph is new and is based on United States
v. Woods, 28 M.J. 318 (C.M.A. 1989); see also Md. Ann. Code art. 27,
sect. 120. The definitions of ‘‘reckless’’ and ‘‘wanton’’ have been taken
from Article 111 (drunken or reckless driving). The definition of ‘‘likely
to produce grievous bodily harm’’ has been taken from Article 128 (as-
sault).’’
Changes to Forms of Sentences of the Manual for Courts-Martial, United
States
a. Paragraph b of Appendix 11, Forms of Sentences, is amended—
(1) by striking the catch phrase ‘‘Loss of Numbers, Etc.’’
(2) by striking subparagraph 6;
(3) by striking subparagraph 7;
(5) by striking the last sentence from the Note at the end of Paragraph
b.
b. Paragraph b of Appendix 11, Forms of Sentences, is amended by redesig-
nating paragraphs 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, and 16 as paragraphs 6,
7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, and 14 respectively.
Changes to the Maximum Punishment Chart of the Manual for Courts-
Martial, United States
Appendix 12, the Maximum Punishment Chart, is amended by adding
after Art. 134 (Quarantine, breaking) the following:
‘‘Reckless endangerment . . . . BCD 1 yr. Total’’
Changes to the Discussion Accompanying the Manual for Courts-Martial,
United States
a. The Discussion following R.C.M. 1001(b)(4) is amended by striking
the first paragraph.
b. The Discussion to R.C.M. 1003(b) is amended by striking subparagraph
(4).
[FR Doc. 99–26670
Filed 10–8–99; 8:45 am]
Billing code 3195–01–P
| 1999 Amendments to the Manual for Courts-Martial, United States | 1999-10-06T00:00:00 | 35f84f395c8639c742b5a1992b9719304ec72bc15278af1a28370f85853f7b56 |
Presidential Executive Order | 99-25958 (13138) | Presidential Documents
53879
Federal Register / Vol. 64, No. 191 / Monday, October 4, 1999 / Presidential Documents
Executive Order 13138 of September 30, 1999
Continuance of Certain Federal Advisory Committees
By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the
laws of the United States of America, and in accordance with the provisions
of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), it
is hereby ordered as follows:
Section 1. Each advisory committee listed below is continued until September
30, 2001.
(a) Committee for the Preservation of the White House; Executive Order
11145, as amended (Department of the Interior).
(b) Federal Advisory Council on Occupational Safety and Health; Executive
Order 12196, as amended (Department of Labor).
(c) National Partnership Council; Executive Order 12871, as amended
(Office of Personnel Management).
(d) President’s Advisory Commission on Educational Excellence for His-
panic Americans; Executive Order 12900 (Department of Education).
(e) President’s Board of Advisors on Historically Black Colleges and Univer-
sities; Executive Order 12876 (Department of Education).
(f) President’s Board of Advisors on Tribal Colleges and Universities;
Executive Order 13021, as amended (Department of Education).
(g) President’s Commission on White House Fellowships; Executive Order
11183, as amended (Office of Personnel Management).
(h) President’s Committee of Advisors on Science and Technology; Execu-
tive Order 12882 (Office of Science and Technology Policy).
(i) President’s Committee on the Arts and the Humanities; Executive Order
12367, as amended (National Endowment for the Arts).
(j) President’s Committee on the International Labor Organization; Execu-
tive Order 12216, as amended (Department of Labor).
(k) President’s Committee on the National Medal of Science; Executive
Order 11287, as amended (National Science Foundation).
(l) President’s Committee on Mental Retardation, Executive Order 12994
(Department of Health and Human Services).
(m) President’s Council on Physical Fitness and Sports; Executive Order
12345, as amended (Department of Health and Human Services).
(n) President’s National Security Telecommunications Advisory Committee,
Executive Order 12382, as amended (Department of Defense).
(o) Trade and Environment Policy Advisory Committee; Executive Order
12905 (Office of the United States Trade Representative).
(p) President’s Export Council; Executive Order 12131, as amended (Depart-
ment of Commerce).
Sec. 2. Notwithstanding the provisions of any other Executive order, the
functions of the President under the Federal Advisory Committee Act that
are applicable to the committees listed in section 1 of this order, except
that of reporting annually to the Congress, shall be performed by the head
of the department or agency designated after each committee, in accordance
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with the guidelines and procedures established by the Administrator of
General Services.
Sec. 3. The following Executive orders, or sections thereof, which established
committees that have terminated and whose work is completed, are revoked:
(a) Executive Order 13017, as amended by Executive Orders 13040 and
13056, establishing the Advisory Commission on Consumer Protection and
Quality in the Health Care Industry;
(b) Executive Order 13038, establishing the Advisory Committee on Public
Interest Obligation of Digital Television Broadcasters, as amended by section
5 of Executive Order 13062, and Executive Orders 13065, 13081, and 13102;
(c) Section 5 and that part of section 6(f) of Executive Order 13010,
as amended by section 3 of Executive Order 13025, Executive Order 13041,
sections 1, 2, and that part of section 3 of Executive Order 13064, and
Executive Order 13077, establishing the Advisory Committee to the Presi-
dent’s Commission on Critical Infrastructure Protection;
(d) Executive Order 13037, as amended by Executive Orders 13066 and
13108, establishing the Commission to Study Capital Budgeting;
(e) Executive Order 13050, establishing the President’s Advisory Board
on Race;
(f) Executive Order 12852, as amended by Executive Orders 12855, 12965,
12980, 13053, and 13114, establishing the President’s Council on Sustainable
Development; and
(g) Executive Order 12961, as amended by Executive Order 13034, estab-
lishing the Presidential Advisory Committee on Gulf War Veterans’ Illnesses.
Sec. 4. Sections 1 through 4 of Executive Order 13062 are superseded.
Sec. 5. Executive Order 12131, as amended, is further amended by adding
in section 1-102(a) a new paragraph as follows: ‘‘(9) Department of Energy.’’
Sec. 6. Executive Order 13115 is amended by adding the Department of
the Treasury and the Office of National Drug Control Policy to the Interagency
Task Force on the Roles and Mission of the United States Coast Guard,
so that the list in section 1(b) of that order shall read as follows:
‘‘(1)
Department of State;
(2)
Department of the Treasury;
(3)
Department of Defense;
(4)
Department of Justice;
(5)
Department of Commerce;
(6)
Department of Labor;
(7)
Department of Transportation;
(8)
Environmental Protection Agency;
(9)
Office of Management and Budget;
(10)
National Security Council;
(11)
Office of National Drug Control Policy;
(12)
Council on Environmental Quality;
(13)
Office of Cabinet Affairs;
(14)
National Economic Council;
(15)
Domestic Policy Council; and
(16)
United States Coast Guard.’’
Sec. 7. Executive Order 12367, as amended, is further amended as follows:
(a) in section 1, the text ‘‘the director of the International Communication
Agency,’’ is deleted;
(b) in section 2, delete the first sentence and insert in lieu thereof ‘‘The
Committee shall advise, provide recommendations to, and assist the Presi-
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Federal Register / Vol. 64, No. 191 / Monday, October 4, 1999 / Presidential Documents
dent, the National Endowment of the Arts, the National Endowment for
the Humanities, and the Institute of Museum and Library Services on matters
relating to the arts and the humanities. The Committee shall initiate and
assist in the development of (i) ways to promote public understanding
and appreciation of the arts and the humanities; (ii) ways to promote private
sector support for the arts and humanities; (iii) ways to evaluate the effective-
ness of Federal support for the arts and humanities and their relationship
with the private sector; (iv) the planning and coordination of appropriate
participation (including productions and projects) in major national cultural
events, including the Millennium; (v) activities that incorporate the arts
and the humanities in government objectives; and (vi) ways to promote
the recognition of excellence in the fields of the arts and the humanities.’’;
and
(c) in section 3(b), add the following sentence after the first sentence:
‘‘Private funds accepted under the National Endowment for the Arts’ or
the National Endowment for the Humanities’ gift authority may also be
used to pay expenses of the Committee.’’
Sec. 8. Executive Order 12345, as amended, is further amended by deleting
the first sentence of section 2(b) and inserting in lieu thereof the following
three sentences. ‘‘The council shall be composed of twenty members ap-
pointed by the President. Each member shall serve a term of 2 years and
may continue to serve after the expiration of their term until a successor
is appointed. A member appointed to fill an unexpired term will be appointed
for the remainder of such term.’’
Sec. 9. This order shall be effective September 30, 1999.
œ–
THE WHITE HOUSE,
September 30, 1999.
[FR Doc. 99–25958
Filed 10–1–99; 9:23 am]
Billing code 3195–01–P
| Continuance of Certain Federal Advisory Committees | 1999-09-30T00:00:00 | 5787c4700c4b5d9444bd6fd60b7875749a184be48bc0719a714e155dd5663837 |
Presidential Executive Order | 99-24582 (13137) | Presidential Documents
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Federal Register / Vol. 64, No. 181 / Monday, September 20, 1999 / Presidential Documents
Executive Order 13137 of September 15, 1999
Amendment to Executive Order 12975, as Amended, National
Bioethics Advisory Commission
By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the
laws of the United States of America, and in order to more accurately
describe the expertise requirements for members selected for the National
Bioethics Advisory Commission, it is hereby ordered that Executive Order
12975, as amended (‘‘Order’’), is further amended as follows:
Section 1. Section 3 of the order shall read as follows: ‘‘Sec. 3. Establishment
of National Bioethics Advisory Commission. There is established in the
Department of Health and Human Services a National Bioethics Advisory
Commission (NBAC). The NBAC shall be subject to the Federal Advisory
Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.).’’
Sec. 2. A new section 4 shall be added to the order to read: ‘‘Sec. 4.
Structure. (a) The National Bioethics Advisory Commission shall be com-
posed of not more than 18 nongovernment members appointed by the Presi-
dent. At least one member shall be selected from each of the following
categories of primary expertise: (1) philosophy/theology; (2) social/behavioral
science; (3) law; (4) medicine/allied health professions; and (5) biological
research. At least three members shall be selected from the general public,
bringing to the Commission expertise other than that listed. The membership
shall be approximately evenly balanced between scientists and non-scientists.
Close attention will be given to equitable geographic distribution and to
ethnic and gender representation.
(b) Members of the Commission will serve for terms of 2 years and
may continue to serve after the expiration of their term until a successor
is appointed. A member appointed to fill an unexpired term will be appointed
to the remainder of such term.
(c) The President shall designate a Chairperson from among the members
of the NBAC.’’
Sec. 3. (a) ‘‘[S]ection 5’’ in the third sentence of section 1(b) of the order
shall be deleted and ‘‘section 6’’ shall be inserted in lieu thereof.
(b) Current sections 4 through 7 of Executive Order 12975 shall be renum-
bered sections 5 through 8.
(c) New section 8(b) is amended by deleting ‘‘October 3, 1999’’ and insert-
ing ‘‘October 3, 2001’’ in lieu thereof.
œ–
THE WHITE HOUSE,
September 15, 1999.
[FR Doc. 99–24582
Filed 9–17–99; 8:45 am]
Billing code 3195–01–P
| Amendment to Executive Order 12975, as Amended, National Bioethics Advisory Commission | 1999-09-15T00:00:00 | c40f3cf96a3a1a532346b6bcd987379dd1c63c340002c82dedc20b614925e346 |
Presidential Executive Order | 99-33511 (13144) | Presidential Documents
72237
Federal Register
Vol. 64, No. 246
Thursday, December 23, 1999
Title 3—
The President
Executive Order 13144 of December 21, 1999
Adjustments of Certain Rates of Pay
By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the
laws of the United States of America, including the laws cited herein,
it is hereby ordered as follows:
Section 1. Statutory Pay Systems. The rates of basic pay or salaries of
the statutory pay systems (as defined in 5 U.S.C. 5302(1)), as adjusted
under 5 U.S.C. 5303(a), in accordance with section 646(a) of the Treasury
and General Government Appropriations Act, 2000, Public Law 106–58,
are set forth on the schedules attached hereto and made a part hereof:
(a) The General Schedule (5 U.S.C. 5332(a)) at Schedule 1;
(b) The Foreign Service Schedule (22 U.S.C. 3963) at Schedule 2; and
(c) The schedules for the Veterans Health Administration of the Department
of Veterans Affairs (38 U.S.C. 7306, 7404; section 301(a) of Public Law
102–40) at Schedule 3.
Sec. 2. Senior Executive Service. The rates of basic pay for senior executives
in the Senior Executive Service, as adjusted under 5 U.S.C. 5382, are set
forth on Schedule 4 attached hereto and made a part hereof.
Sec. 3. Executive Salaries. The rates of basic pay or salaries for the following
offices and positions are set forth on the schedules attached hereto and
made a part hereof:
(a) The Executive Schedule (5 U.S.C. 5312–5318) at Schedule 5;
(b) The Vice President (3 U.S.C. 104) and the Congress (2 U.S.C. 31)
at Schedule 6; and
(c) Justices and judges (28 U.S.C. 5, 44(d), 135, 252, and 461(a)) at Schedule
7.
Sec. 4. Uniformed Services. Pursuant to section 601(a)–(b) of Public Law
106–65, the rates of monthly basic pay (37 U.S.C. 203(a)) for members
of the uniformed services and the rate of monthly cadet or midshipman
pay (37 U.S.C. 203(c)) are set forth on Schedule 8 attached hereto and
made a part hereof.
Sec. 5. Locality-Based Comparability Payments. (a) Pursuant to section 5304
of title 5, United States Code, and in accordance with section 646(a) of
the Treasury and General Government Appropriations Act, 2000, Public
Law 106–58, locality-based comparability payments shall be paid in accord-
ance with Schedule 9 attached hereto and made a part hereof.
(b) The Director of the Office of Personnel Management shall take such
actions as may be necessary to implement these payments and to publish
appropriate notice of such payments in the Federal Register.
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Sec. 6. Administrative Law Judges. The rates of basic pay for administrative
law judges, as adjusted under 5 U.S.C. 5372(b)(4), are set forth on Schedule
10 attached hereto and made a part hereof.
Sec. 7. Effective Dates. Schedule 8 is effective on January 1, 2000. The
other schedules contained herein are effective on the first day of the first
applicable pay period beginning on or after January 1, 2000.
Sec. 8. Prior Order Superseded. Sections 1 through 7 of Executive Order
13106 of December 7, 1998, are superseded.
œ–
THE WHITE HOUSE,
December 21, 1999.
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[FR Doc. 99–33511
Filed 12–22–99; 8:45 a.m.]
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| Adjustments of Certain Rates of Pay | 1999-12-21T00:00:00 | 541ee8a4eb1fa13c6d95d2694ab37bbacf7f84a797ccee85fb413648455451ad |
Presidential Executive Order | 99-30687 (13142) | Presidential Documents
66089
Federal Register / Vol. 64, No. 225 / Tuesday, November 23, 1999 / Presidential Documents
Executive Order 13142 of November 19, 1999
Amendment To Executive Order 12958—Classified National
Security Information
By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the
laws of the United States of America, and in order to extend and establish
specific dates for the time within which all classified information contained
in records more than 25 years old that have been determined to have
historical value under title 44, United States Code, should be automatically
declassified, and to establish the Information Security Oversight Office within
the National Archives and Records Administration, it is hereby ordered
that Executive Order 12958 is amended as follows:
Section 1. In the first sentence of section 3.4(a) of Executive Order 12958,
the words ‘‘within five years from the date of this order’’ are deleted and
the words ‘‘within six and one half years from the date of this order’’
are inserted in lieu thereof.
Sec. 2. The following new language is inserted at the end of section 3.4(a):
‘‘For records otherwise subject to this paragraph for which a review or
assessment conducted by the agency and confirmed by the Information
Security Oversight Office has determined that they: (1) contain information
that was created by or is under the control of more than one agency,
or (2) are within file series containing information that almost invariably
pertains to intelligence sources or methods, all classified information in
such records shall be automatically declassified, whether or not the records
have been reviewed, within 8 years from the date of this order, except
as provided in paragraph (b), below. For records that contain information
that becomes subject to automatic declassification after the dates otherwise
established in this paragraph, all classified information in such records
shall be automatically declassified, whether or not the records have been
reviewed on December 31 of the year that is 25 years from the origin
of the information, except as provided in paragraph (b), below.’’
Sec. 3. Subsections (a) and (b) of section 5.2 are amended to read as follows:
‘‘(a) The Director of the Information Security Oversight Office, under the
direction of the Archivist of the United States and in consultation with
the Assistant to the President for National Security Affairs and the co-
chairs of the Security Policy Board, shall issue such directives as are nec-
essary to implement this order. These directives shall be binding upon
the agencies. Directives issued by the Director of the Information Security
Oversight Office shall establish standards for:
(1) classification and marking principles;
(2) agency security education and training programs;
(3) agency self-inspection programs; and
(4) classification and declassification guides.
(b) The Archivist of the United States shall delegate the implementation
and monitorship functions of this program to the Director of the Information
Security Oversight Office.’’
Sec. 4. Subsection (a) and the introductory clause and item (4) of subsection
(b) of section 5.3 are amended as follows:
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Federal Register / Vol. 64, No. 225 / Tuesday, November 23, 1999 / Presidential Documents
(a) Subsection (a) shall read ‘‘(a) There is established within the National
Archives and Records Administration an Information Security Oversight
Office. The Archivist of the United States shall appoint the Director of
the Information Security Oversight Office, subject to the approval of the
President.’’
(b) The introductory clause of subsection (b) shall read ‘‘Under the direction
of the Archivist of the United States, acting in consultation with the Assistant
to the President for National Security Affairs, the Director of the Information
Security Oversight Office shall:’’.
(c) Item (4) of subsection (b) shall read ‘‘(4) have the authority to conduct
on-site reviews of each agency’s program established under this order, and
to require of each agency those reports, information, and other cooperation
that may be necessary to fulfill its responsibilities. If granting access to
specific categories of classified information would pose an exceptional na-
tional security risk, the affected agency head or the senior agency official
shall submit a written justification recommending the denial of access to
the President through the Assistant to the President for National Security
Affairs within 60 days of the request for access. Access shall be denied
pending the response,’’.
œ–
THE WHITE HOUSE,
November 19, 1999.
[FR Doc. 99–30687
Filed 11–22–99; 8:45 am]
Billing code 3195–01–P
| Amendment To Executive Order 12958-Classified National Security Information | 1999-11-19T00:00:00 | 615b85c1e7fb73aa421670330a46d90a55e50ceceb110f540bebd9860d596994 |
Presidential Executive Order | 99-23508 (13136) | Presidential Documents
48931
Federal Register
Vol. 64, No. 173
Wednesday, September 8, 1999
Title 3—
The President
Executive Order 13136 of September 3, 1999
Amendment to Executive Order 13090, President’s Commis-
sion on the Celebration of Women in American History
By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the
laws of the United States of America, and in accordance with the provisions
of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), in
order to extend the life of the President’s Commission on the Celebration
of Women in American History (‘‘Commission’’) to provide additional time
to develop support systems and test the viability of the recommendations
included in the Commission’s report to the President, it is hereby ordered
that section 2(c) of Executive Order 13090 is amended by deleting ‘‘March
1, 1999.’’ and inserting ‘‘December 31, 2000.’’ in lieu thereof.
œ–
THE WHITE HOUSE,
September 3, 1999.
[FR Doc. 99–23508
Filed 9–7–99; 10:37 am]
Billing code 3195–01–P
| Amendment to Executive Order 13090, President's Commission on the Celebration of Women in American History | 1999-09-03T00:00:00 | 97dc11b306954275a3bd44f79e0beee73c832dfd6f91990daef47434e6a98f97 |
Presidential Executive Order | 99-22778 (13135) | Presidential Documents
47339
Executive Order 13135 of August 27, 1999
Amendment to Executive Order 12216, President’s Committee
on the International Labor Organization
By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the
laws of the United States of America, including the Federal Advisory Com-
mittee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), it is hereby ordered that Executive
Order 12216 is amended as follows: The second sentence of section 1–
101 is amended by substituting ‘‘the Assistant to the President for Economic
Policy, and the Presidents of...’’ for ‘‘and the Presidents of...’’.
œ–
THE WHITE HOUSE,
August 27, 1999.
[FR Doc. 99–22778
Filed 8–30–99; 8:45 am]
Billing code 3195–01–P
| Amendment to Executive Order 12216, President's Committee on the International Labor Organization | 1999-08-27T00:00:00 | 4b2917b14147827e5f24d68bca333473c86454ac88621e764a3950536a2260a6 |
Presidential Executive Order | 99-20924 (13133) | Presidential Documents
43895
Federal Register
Vol. 64, No. 154
Wednesday, August 11, 1999
Title 3—
The President
Executive Order 13133 of August 5, 1999
Working Group on Unlawful Conduct on the Internet
By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the
laws of the United States of America, and in order to address unlawful
conduct that involves the use of the Internet, it is hereby ordered as follows:
Section 1. Establishment and Purpose. (a) There is hereby established a
working group to address unlawful conduct that involves the use of the
Internet (‘‘Working Group’’). The purpose of the Working Group shall be
to prepare a report and recommendations concerning:
(1)
The extent to which existing Federal laws provide a sufficient
basis for effective investigation and prosecution of unlawful
conduct that involves the use of the Internet, such as the ille-
gal sale of guns, explosives, controlled substances, and pre-
scription drugs, as well as fraud and child pornography.
(2)
The extent to which new technology tools, capabilities, or
legal authorities may be required for effective investigation
and prosecution of unlawful conduct that involves the use of
the Internet; and
(3)
The potential for new or existing tools and capabilities to
educate and empower parents, teachers, and others to prevent
or to minimize the risks from unlawful conduct that involves
the use of the Internet.
(b) The Working Group shall undertake this review in the context of
current Administration Internet policy, which includes support for industry
self-regulation where possible, technology-neutral laws and regulations, and
an appreciation of the Internet as an important medium both domestically
and internationally for commerce and free speech.
Sec. 2. Schedule. The Working Group shall complete its work to the greatest
extent possible and present its report and recommendations to the President
and Vice President within 120 days of the date of this order. Prior to
such presentation, the report and recommendations shall be circulated
through the Office of Management and Budget for review and comment
by all appropriate Federal agencies.
Sec. 3. Membership.
(a) The Working Group shall be composed of the following members:
(1)
The Attorney General (who shall serve as Chair of the Work-
ing Group).
(2)
The Director of the Office of Management and Budget.
(3)
The Secretary of the Treasury.
(4)
The Secretary of Commerce.
(5)
The Secretary of Education.
(6)
The Director of the Federal Bureau of Investigation.
(7)
The Director of the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms.
(8)
The Administrator of the Drug Enforcement Administration.
(9)
The Chair of the Federal Trade Commission.
(10)
The Commissioner of the Food and Drug Administration; and
(11)
Other Federal officials deemed appropriate by the Chair of
the Working Group.
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(b) The co-chairs of the Interagency Working Group on Electronic Com-
merce shall serve as liaison to and attend meetings of the Working Group.
Members of the Working Group may serve on the Working Group through
designees.
œ–
THE WHITE HOUSE,
August 5, 1999.
[FR Doc. 99–20924
Filed 8–10–99; 8:45 am]
Billing code 3195–01–P
| Working Group on Unlawful Conduct on the Internet | 1999-08-05T00:00:00 | 6fac0cd4549f7c7f520586abe67a48b669cb9cd48d9541e4925407ea14f60010 |
Presidential Executive Order | 99-19396 (13131) | Presidential Documents
40733
Federal Register / Vol. 64, No. 143 / Tuesday, July 27, 1999 / Presidential Documents
Executive Order 13131 of July 22, 1999
Further Amendments to Executive Order 12757, Implementa-
tion of the Enterprise for the Americas Initiative
By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the
laws of the United States of America, including the Agriculture Trade Devel-
opment and Assistance Act of 1954 (‘‘ATDA Act’’), as amended, the Foreign
Assistance Act of 1961 (FAA), as amended, the Foreign Operations, Export
Financing and Related Programs Appropriations Act, 1996 (Public Law 104–
07), and the Tropical Forest Conservation Act of 1998 (Public Law 105–
14), it is hereby ordered as follows:
Section 1. Amendment of Executive Order 12757. Executive Order 12757,
‘‘Implementation of the Enterprise for the Americas Initiative,’’ as amended
by Executive Orders 12823 and 13028, is further amended as follows:
(a) The Title is amended by adding at the end thereof ‘‘and the Tropical
Forest Conservation Act of 1998’’.
(b) The Preamble is amended:
(1) by striking the comma (‘‘,’’) after Public Law 101–624, and inserting
instead ‘‘and’’; and
(2) by inserting ‘‘and Public Law 105–214’’ after ‘‘Public Law 102–549’’.
(c) Section 1 is amended:
(1) by striking ‘‘and’’ after ‘‘sections 703’’, and inserting instead a comma
(‘‘,’’);
(2) by inserting ‘‘, 805(b), 806(a), 807(a), 808(a)(1)(A), 808(a)(2), 812 and
813’’ after ‘‘704’’;
(3) by inserting ‘‘and the corresponding determinations required by section
805(b) of the FAA,’’ after ‘‘FAA’’ the second time it appears; and
(4) by inserting ‘‘sections 808(a)(1)(B) and (C), and 808(a)(4) of the FAA,
and by’’ after ‘‘The functions vested in the President by’’ the second
time it appears.
(d) Section 3(b) is amended:
(1) by striking ‘‘also’’ after ‘‘Enterprise for the Americas Board shall’’;
and
(2) by inserting at the end of the section ‘‘The Enterprise for the Americas
Board, as constituted pursuant to section 811 of the FAA, shall also
advise the Secretary of State and the Administrator of the United States
Agency for International Development on the Secretary—s negotiation of
Tropical Forest Agreements.’’
(e) Section 3(c) is amended:
(1) by striking ‘‘section 708(c)’’ after ‘‘the ATDA Act and’’, and inserting
instead ‘‘sections 708(c) and 809(c)’’;
(2) by striking ‘‘and’’ after ‘‘environmental framework agreements’’ and
inserting instead a comma (‘‘,’’); and
(3) by inserting ‘‘and the Tropical Forest Agreements, respectively’’ after
‘‘Americas Framework Agreements’’.
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(f) Section 4(a) is amended by inserting at the end thereof ‘‘The two additional
U.S. Government members of the Enterprise for the Americas Board ap-
pointed pursuant to section 811(b)(1)(A) of the FAA shall be a representa-
tive of the International Forestry Division of the United States Forest
Service and a representative of the Council on Environmental Quality.’’
(g) Section 4(c)(1) is amended by striking ‘‘section 708(c)(3)(C)’’ and inserting
instead ‘‘sections 708(c)(3)(C) and 811(c)(3)’’.
(h) Section 4(c)(2) is amended by striking ‘‘Part IV’’ and inserting instead
‘‘Parts IV and V’’.
(i) Section 4(d) is amended to read as follows: ‘‘(d) The five private non-
governmental organization members of the Board appointed pursuant to
section 610(b)(1)(B) of the ATDA Act and the two additional members
appointed pursuant to section 811(b)(1)(B) of the FAA shall be appointed
by the President.’’
Section 2. Judicial Review. This order is intended only to improve the
internal management of the Federal Government, and is not intended to
create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable by a party
against the United States, its agencies or instrumentalities, its officers or
employees, or any other person.
œ–
THE WHITE HOUSE,
July 22, 1999.
[FR Doc. 99–19396
Filed 7–26–99; 12:20pm]
Billing code 3195–01–P
| Further Amendments to Executive Order 12757, Implementation of the Enterprise for the Americas Initiative | 1999-07-22T00:00:00 | c726b7f50357887a5af6464ce36b5ae9f9959dffeed4256cb2a5d7537ce9e485 |
Presidential Executive Order | 99-20729 (13132) | Presidential Documents
43255
Federal Register
Vol. 64, No. 153
Tuesday, August 10, 1999
Title 3—
The President
Executive Order 13132 of August 4, 1999
Federalism
By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the
laws of the United States of America, and in order to guarantee the division
of governmental responsibilities between the national government and the
States that was intended by the Framers of the Constitution, to ensure
that the principles of federalism established by the Framers guide the execu-
tive departments and agencies in the formulation and implementation of
policies, and to further the policies of the Unfunded Mandates Reform
Act, it is hereby ordered as follows:
Section 1. Definitions. For purposes of this order:
(a) ‘‘Policies that have federalism implications’’ refers to regulations, legis-
lative comments or proposed legislation, and other policy statements or
actions that have substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship
between the national government and the States, or on the distribution
of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
(b) ‘‘State’’ or ‘‘States’’ refer to the States of the United States of America,
individually or collectively, and, where relevant, to State governments, in-
cluding units of local government and other political subdivisions established
by the States.
(c) ‘‘Agency’’ means any authority of the United States that is an ‘‘agency’’
under 44 U.S.C. 3502(1), other than those considered to be independent
regulatory agencies, as defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(5).
(d) ‘‘State and local officials’’ means elected officials of State and local
governments or their representative national organizations.
Sec. 2. Fundamental Federalism Principles. In formulating and implementing
policies that have federalism implications, agencies shall be guided by the
following fundamental federalism principles:
(a) Federalism is rooted in the belief that issues that are not national
in scope or significance are most appropriately addressed by the level of
government closest to the people.
(b) The people of the States created the national government and delegated
to it enumerated governmental powers. All other sovereign powers, save
those expressly prohibited the States by the Constitution, are reserved to
the States or to the people.
(c) The constitutional relationship among sovereign governments, State
and national, is inherent in the very structure of the Constitution and is
formalized in and protected by the Tenth Amendment to the Constitution.
(d) The people of the States are free, subject only to restrictions in the
Constitution itself or in constitutionally authorized Acts of Congress, to
define the moral, political, and legal character of their lives.
(e) The Framers recognized that the States possess unique authorities,
qualities, and abilities to meet the needs of the people and should function
as laboratories of democracy.
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(f) The nature of our constitutional system encourages a healthy diversity
in the public policies adopted by the people of the several States according
to their own conditions, needs, and desires. In the search for enlightened
public policy, individual States and communities are free to experiment
with a variety of approaches to public issues. One-size-fits-all approaches
to public policy problems can inhibit the creation of effective solutions
to those problems.
(g) Acts of the national government—whether legislative, executive, or
judicial in nature—that exceed the enumerated powers of that government
under the Constitution violate the principle of federalism established by
the Framers.
(h) Policies of the national government should recognize the responsibility
of—and should encourage opportunities for—individuals, families, neighbor-
hoods, local governments, and private associations to achieve their personal,
social, and economic objectives through cooperative effort.
(i) The national government should be deferential to the States when
taking action that affects the policymaking discretion of the States and
should act only with the greatest caution where State or local governments
have identified uncertainties regarding the constitutional or statutory author-
ity of the national government.
Sec. 3. Federalism Policymaking Criteria. In addition to adhering to the
fundamental federalism principles set forth in section 2, agencies shall ad-
here, to the extent permitted by law, to the following criteria when formu-
lating and implementing policies that have federalism implications:
(a) There shall be strict adherence to constitutional principles. Agencies
shall closely examine the constitutional and statutory authority supporting
any action that would limit the policymaking discretion of the States and
shall carefully assess the necessity for such action. To the extent practicable,
State and local officials shall be consulted before any such action is imple-
mented. Executive Order 12372 of July 14, 1982 (‘‘Intergovernmental Review
of Federal Programs’’) remains in effect for the programs and activities
to which it is applicable.
(b) National action limiting the policymaking discretion of the States shall
be taken only where there is constitutional and statutory authority for the
action and the national activity is appropriate in light of the presence
of a problem of national significance. Where there are significant uncertainties
as to whether national action is authorized or appropriate, agencies shall
consult with appropriate State and local officials to determine whether Fed-
eral objectives can be attained by other means.
(c) With respect to Federal statutes and regulations administered by the
States, the national government shall grant the States the maximum adminis-
trative discretion possible. Intrusive Federal oversight of State administration
is neither necessary nor desirable.
(d) When undertaking to formulate and implement policies that have
federalism implications, agencies shall:
(1) encourage States to develop their own policies to achieve program
objectives and to work with appropriate officials in other States;
(2) where possible, defer to the States to establish standards;
(3) in determining whether to establish uniform national standards, con-
sult with appropriate State and local officials as to the need for national
standards and any alternatives that would limit the scope of national
standards or otherwise preserve State prerogatives and authority; and
(4) where national standards are required by Federal statutes, consult
with appropriate State and local officials in developing those standards.
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Sec. 4. Special Requirements for Preemption. Agencies, in taking action
that preempts State law, shall act in strict accordance with governing law.
(a) Agencies shall construe, in regulations and otherwise, a Federal statute
to preempt State law only where the statute contains an express preemption
provision or there is some other clear evidence that the Congress intended
preemption of State law, or where the exercise of State authority conflicts
with the exercise of Federal authority under the Federal statute.
(b) Where a Federal statute does not preempt State law (as addressed
in subsection (a) of this section), agencies shall construe any authorization
in the statute for the issuance of regulations as authorizing preemption
of State law by rulemaking only when the exercise of State authority directly
conflicts with the exercise of Federal authority under the Federal statute
or there is clear evidence to conclude that the Congress intended the agency
to have the authority to preempt State law.
(c) Any regulatory preemption of State law shall be restricted to the
minimum level necessary to achieve the objectives of the statute pursuant
to which the regulations are promulgated.
(d) When an agency foresees the possibility of a conflict between State
law and Federally protected interests within its area of regulatory responsi-
bility, the agency shall consult, to the extent practicable, with appropriate
State and local officials in an effort to avoid such a conflict.
(e) When an agency proposes to act through adjudication or rulemaking
to preempt State law, the agency shall provide all affected State and local
officials notice and an opportunity for appropriate participation in the pro-
ceedings.
Sec. 5. Special Requirements for Legislative Proposals. Agencies shall not
submit to the Congress legislation that would:
(a) directly regulate the States in ways that would either interfere with
functions essential to the States’ separate and independent existence or
be inconsistent with the fundamental federalism principles in section 2;
(b) attach to Federal grants conditions that are not reasonably related
to the purpose of the grant; or
(c) preempt State law, unless preemption is consistent with the funda-
mental federalism principles set forth in section 2, and unless a clearly
legitimate national purpose, consistent with the federalism policymaking
criteria set forth in section 3, cannot otherwise be met.
Sec. 6. Consultation.
(a) Each agency shall have an accountable process to ensure meaningful
and timely input by State and local officials in the development of regulatory
policies that have federalism implications. Within 90 days after the effective
date of this order, the head of each agency shall designate an official with
principal responsibility for the agency’s implementation of this order and
that designated official shall submit to the Office of Management and Budget
a description of the agency’s consultation process.
(b) To the extent practicable and permitted by law, no agency shall promul-
gate any regulation that has federalism implications, that imposes substantial
direct compliance costs on State and local governments, and that is not
required by statute, unless:
(1) funds necessary to pay the direct costs incurred by the State and
local governments in complying with the regulation are provided by the
Federal Government; or
(2) the agency, prior to the formal promulgation of the regulation,
(A) consulted with State and local officials early in the process of
developing the proposed regulation;
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Federal Register / Vol. 64, No. 153 / Tuesday, August 10, 1999 / Presidential Documents
(B) in a separately identified portion of the preamble to the regula-
tion as it is to be issued in the Federal Register, provides to the Direc-
tor of the Office of Management and Budget a federalism summary im-
pact statement, which consists of a description of the extent of the
agency’s prior consultation with State and local officials, a summary
of the nature of their concerns and the agency’s position supporting
the need to issue the regulation, and a statement of the extent to
which the concerns of State and local officials have been met; and
(C) makes available to the Director of the Office of Management and
Budget any written communications submitted to the agency by State
and local officials.
(c) To the extent practicable and permitted by law, no agency shall promul-
gate any regulation that has federalism implications and that preempts State
law, unless the agency, prior to the formal promulgation of the regulation,
(1) consulted with State and local officials early in the process of devel-
oping the proposed regulation;
(2) in a separately identified portion of the preamble to the regulation
as it is to be issued in the Federal Register, provides to the Director
of the Office of Management and Budget a federalism summary impact
statement, which consists of a description of the extent of the agency’s
prior consultation with State and local officials, a summary of the nature
of their concerns and the agency’s position supporting the need to issue
the regulation, and a statement of the extent to which the concerns of
State and local officials have been met; and
(3) makes available to the Director of the Office of Management and
Budget any written communications submitted to the agency by State
and local officials.
Sec. 7. Increasing Flexibility for State and Local Waivers.
(a) Agencies shall review the processes under which State and local govern-
ments apply for waivers of statutory and regulatory requirements and take
appropriate steps to streamline those processes.
(b) Each agency shall, to the extent practicable and permitted by law,
consider any application by a State for a waiver of statutory or regulatory
requirements in connection with any program administered by that agency
with a general view toward increasing opportunities for utilizing flexible
policy approaches at the State or local level in cases in which the proposed
waiver is consistent with applicable Federal policy objectives and is other-
wise appropriate.
(c) Each agency shall, to the extent practicable and permitted by law,
render a decision upon a complete application for a waiver within 120
days of receipt of such application by the agency. If the application for
a waiver is not granted, the agency shall provide the applicant with timely
written notice of the decision and the reasons therefor.
(d) This section applies only to statutory or regulatory requirements that
are discretionary and subject to waiver by the agency.
Sec. 8. Accountability.
(a) In transmitting any draft final regulation that has federalism implica-
tions to the Office of Management and Budget pursuant to Executive Order
12866 of September 30, 1993, each agency shall include a certification
from the official designated to ensure compliance with this order stating
that the requirements of this order have been met in a meaningful and
timely manner.
(b) In transmitting proposed legislation that has federalism implications
to the Office of Management and Budget, each agency shall include a certifi-
cation from the official designated to ensure compliance with this order
that all relevant requirements of this order have been met.
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Federal Register / Vol. 64, No. 153 / Tuesday, August 10, 1999 / Presidential Documents
(c) Within 180 days after the effective date of this order, the Director
of the Office of Management and Budget and the Assistant to the President
for Intergovernmental Affairs shall confer with State and local officials to
ensure that this order is being properly and effectively implemented.
Sec. 9. Independent Agencies. Independent regulatory agencies are encour-
aged to comply with the provisions of this order.
Sec. 10. General Provisions.
(a) This order shall supplement but not supersede the requirements con-
tained in Executive Order 12372 (‘‘Intergovernmental Review of Federal
Programs’’), Executive Order 12866 (‘‘Regulatory Planning and Review’’),
Executive Order 12988 (‘‘Civil Justice Reform’’), and OMB Circular A–19.
(b) Executive Order 12612 (‘‘Federalism’’), Executive Order 12875 (‘‘En-
hancing the Intergovernmental Partnership’’), Executive Order 13083 (‘‘Fed-
eralism’’), and Executive Order 13095 (‘‘Suspension of Executive Order
13083’’) are revoked.
(c) This order shall be effective 90 days after the date of this order.
Sec. 11. Judicial Review. This order is intended only to improve the internal
management of the executive branch, and is not intended to create any
right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law by a party
against the United States, its agencies, its officers, or any person.
œ–
THE WHITE HOUSE,
August 4, 1999.
[FR Doc. 99–20729
Filed 8–9–99; 8:45 am]
Billing code 3195–01–P
| Federalism | 1999-08-04T00:00:00 | 2705fe008231cfb2fe04c48781163f730eba2c20fce8c488df5945830eed4ea2 |
Presidential Executive Order | 99-21392 (13134) | Presidential Documents
44639
Federal Register
Vol. 64, No. 157
Monday, August 16, 1999
Title 3—
The President
Executive Order 13134 of August 12, 1999
Developing and Promoting Biobased Products and Bioenergy
By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the
laws of the United States of America, including the Federal Advisory Com-
mittee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), and in order to stimulate the
creation and early adoption of technologies needed to make biobased prod-
ucts and bioenergy cost-competitive in large national and international mar-
kets, it is hereby ordered as follows:
Section 1. Policy. Current biobased product and bioenergy technology has
the potential to make renewable farm and forestry resources major sources
of affordable electricity, fuel, chemicals, pharmaceuticals, and other materials.
Technical advances in these areas can create an expanding array of exciting
new business and employment opportunities for farmers, foresters, ranchers,
and other businesses in rural America. These technologies can create new
markets for farm and forest waste products, new economic opportunities
for underused land, and new value-added business opportunities. They also
have the potential to reduce our Nation’s dependence on foreign oil, improve
air quality, water quality, and flood control, decrease erosion, and help
minimize net production of greenhouse gases. It is the policy of this Adminis-
tration, therefore, to develop a comprehensive national strategy, including
research, development, and private sector incentives, to stimulate the creation
and early adoption of technologies needed to make biobased products and
bioenergy cost-competitive in large national and international markets.
Sec. 2. Establishment of the Interagency Council on Biobased Products and
Bioenergy. (a) There is established the Interagency Council on Biobased
Products and Bioenergy (the ‘‘Council’’). The Council shall be composed
of the Secretaries of Agriculture, Commerce, Energy, and the Interior, the
Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency, the Director of the
Office of Management and Budget, the Assistant to the President for Science
and Technology, the Director of the National Science Foundation, the Federal
Environmental Executive, and the heads of other relevant agencies as may
be determined by the Co-Chairs of the Council. Members may serve on
the Council through designees. Designees shall be senior officials who report
directly to the agency head (Assistant Secretary or equivalent).
(b) The Secretary of Agriculture and the Secretary of Energy shall serve
as Co-Chairs of the Council.
(c) The Council shall prepare annually a strategic plan for the President
outlining overall national goals in the development and use of biobased
products and bioenergy in an environmentally sound manner and how these
goals can best be achieved through Federal programs and integrated planning.
The goals shall include promoting national economic growth with specific
attention to rural economic interests, energy security, and environmental
sustainability and protection. These strategic plans shall be compatible with
the national goal of producing safe and affordable supplies of food, feed,
and fiber in a way that is sustainable and protects the environment, and
shall include measurable objectives. Specifically, these strategic plans shall
cover the following areas:
(1) biobased products, including commercial and industrial chemicals,
pharmaceuticals, products with large carbon sequestering capacity, and
other materials; and
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Federal Register / Vol. 64, No. 157 / Monday, August 16, 1999 / Presidential Documents
(2) biomass used in the production of energy (electricity; liquid, solid,
and gaseous fuels; and heat).
(d) To ensure that the United States takes full advantage of the potential
economic and environmental benefits of bioenergy, these strategic plans
shall be based on analyses of: (1) the economic impacts of expanded biomass
production and use; and (2) the impacts on national environmental objectives,
including reducing greenhouse gas emissions. Specifically, these plans shall
include:
(1) a description of priorities for research, development, demonstration,
and other investments in biobased products and bioenergy;
(2) a coordinated Federal program of research, building on the research
budgets of each participating agency; and
(3) proposals for using existing agency authorities to encourage the adop-
tion and use of biobased products and bioenergy and recommended legisla-
tion for modifying these authorities or creating new authorities if needed.
(e) The first annual strategic plan shall be submitted to the President
within 8 months from the date of this order.
(f) The Council shall coordinate its activities with actions called for in
all relevant Executive orders and shall not be in conflict with proposals
advocated by other Executive orders.
Sec. 3. Establishment of Advisory Committee on Biobased Products and
Bioenergy. (a) The Secretary of Energy shall establish an ‘‘Advisory Committee
on Biobased Products and Bioenergy’’ (‘‘Committee’’), under the Federal
Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), to provide information
and advice for consideration by the Council. The Secretary of Energy shall,
in consultation with other members of the Council, appoint up to 20 members
of the advisory committee representing stakeholders including representatives
from the farm, forestry, chemical manufacturing and other businesses, energy
companies, electric utilities, environmental organizations, conservation orga-
nizations, the university research community, and other critical sectors.
The Secretary of Energy shall designate Co-Chairs from among the members
of the Committee.
(b) Among other things, the Committee shall provide the Council with
an independent assessment of:
(1) the goals established by the Federal agencies for developing and pro-
moting biobased products and bioenergy;
(2) the balance of proposed research and development activities;
(3) the effectiveness of programs designed to encourage adoption and
use of biobased products and bioenergy; and
(4) the environmental and economic consequences of biobased products
and bioenergy use.
Sec. 4. Administration of the Advisory Committee. (a) To the extent permitted
by law and subject to the availability of appropriations, the Department
of Energy shall serve as the secretariat for, and provide the financial and
administrative support to, the Committee.
(b) The heads of agencies shall, to the extent permitted by law, provide
to the Committee such information as it may reasonably require for the
purpose of carrying out its functions.
(c) The Committee Co-Chairs may, from time to time, invite experts to
submit information to the Committee and may form subcommittees or work-
ing groups within the Committee to review specific issues.
Sec. 5. Duties of the Departments of Agriculture and Energy. The Secretaries
of the Departments of Agriculture and Energy, to the extent permitted by
law and subject to the availability of appropriations, shall each establish
a working group on biobased products and biobased activities in their respec-
tive Departments. Consistent with the Federal biobased products and bio-
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Federal Register / Vol. 64, No. 157 / Monday, August 16, 1999 / Presidential Documents
energy strategic plans described in sections 2(c) and (d) of this order, the
working groups shall:
(1) provide strategic planning and policy advice on the Department’s re-
search, development, and commercialization of biobased products and
bioenergy; and
(2) identify research activities and demonstration projects to address new
opportunities in the areas of biomass production, biobased product and
bioenergy production, and related fundamental research.
The chair of each Department’s working group shall be a senior official
who reports directly to the agency head. If the Secretary of Agriculture
or Energy serves on the Interagency Council on Biobased Products and
Bioenergy through a designee, the designee should be the chair of the
Department’s working group.
Sec. 6. Establishment of a National Biobased Products and Bioenergy Coordi-
nation Office. Within 120 days of this order, the Secretaries of Agriculture
and Energy shall establish a joint National Biobased Products and Bioenergy
Coordination Office (‘‘Office’’) to ensure effective day-to-day coordination
of actions designed to implement the strategic plans and guidance provided
by the Council and respond to recommendations made by the Committee.
All agencies represented on the Council, or that have capabilities and mis-
sions related to the work of the Council, shall be invited to participate
in the operation of the Office. The Office shall:
(a) serve as an executive secretariat and support the work of the Council,
as determined by the Council, including the coordination of multi-agency,
integrated research, development, and demonstration (‘‘RD&D’’) activities;
(b) use advanced communication and computational tools to facilitate
research coordination and collaborative research by participating Federal
and nonfederal research facilities and to perform activities in support of
RD&D on biobased product and bioenergy development, including strategic
planning, program analysis and evaluation, communications networking, in-
formation and data dissemination and technology transfer, and collaborative
team building for RD&D projects; and
(c) facilitate use of new information technologies for rapid dissemination
of information on biobased products and bioenergy to and among farm
operators; agribusiness, chemical, forest products, energy, and other business
sectors; the university community; and public interest groups that could
benefit from timely and reliable information.
Sec. 7. Definitions. For the purposes of this order: (a) The term ‘‘biomass’’
means any organic matter that is available on a renewable or recurring
basis (excluding old-growth timber), including dedicated energy crops and
trees, agricultural food and feed crop residues, aquatic plants, wood and
wood residues, animal wastes, and other waste materials.
(b) The term ‘‘biobased product,’’ as defined in Executive Order 13101,
means a commercial or industrial product (other than food or feed) that
utilizes biological products or renewable domestic agricultural (plant, animal,
and marine) or forestry materials.
(c) The term ‘‘bioenergy’’ means biomass used in the production of energy
(electricity; liquid, solid, and gaseous fuels; and heat).
(d) The term ‘‘old growth timber’’ means timber of a forest from the
late successional stage of forest development. The forest contains live and
dead trees of various sizes, species, composition, and age class structure.
The age and structure of old growth varies significantly by forest type
and from one biogeoclimatic zone to another.
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Sec. 8. Judicial Review. This order does not create any enforceable rights
against the Unites States, its agencies, its officers, or any person.
œ–
THE WHITE HOUSE,
August 12, 1999.
[FR Doc. 99–21392
Filed 8–13–99; 11:04 am]
Billing code 3195–01–P
| Developing and Promoting Biobased Products and Bioenergy | 1999-08-12T00:00:00 | 144edde5171b299ec3c37d0d0665d1879fe72b161ee705710da328b6efae6169 |
Presidential Executive Order | 99-16634 (13128) | Presidential Documents
34703
Federal Register
Vol. 64, No. 123
Monday, June 28, 1999
Title 3—
The President
Executive Order 13128 of June 25, 1999
Implementation of the Chemical Weapons Convention and
the Chemical Weapons Convention Implementation Act
By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the
laws of the United States of America, including the Chemical Weapons
Convention Implementation Act of 1998 (as enacted in Division I of Public
Law 105–277) (the Act), the International Emergency Economic Powers Act
(50 U.S.C. 1701 et seq.), the National Emergencies Act (50 U.S.C. 1601
et seq.), and section 301 of title 3, United States Code, and in order to
facilitate implementation of the Act and the Convention on the Prohibition
of the Development, Production, Stockpiling and Use of Chemical Weapons
and on Their Destruction (the ‘‘Convention’’), it is hereby ordered as follows:
Section 1. The Department of State shall be the United States National
Authority (the ‘‘USNA’’) for purposes of the Act and the Convention.
Sec. 2. The USNA shall coordinate the implementation of the provisions
of the Act and the Convention with an interagency group consisting of
the Secretary of Defense, the Attorney General, the Secretary of Commerce,
the Secretary of Energy, and the heads of such other agencies or departments,
or their designees, I may consider necessary or advisable.
Sec. 3. The Departments of State and Commerce, and other agencies as
appropriate, each shall issue, amend, or revise regulations, orders, or direc-
tives as necessary to implement the Act and U.S. obligations under Article
VI and related provisions of the Convention. Regulations under section
401(a) of the Act shall be issued by the Department of Commerce by a
date specified by the USNA, which shall review and approve these regula-
tions, in coordination with the interagency group designated in section
2 of this order, prior to their issuance.
Sec. 4. The Secretary of Commerce is authorized:
(a) to obtain and execute warrants pursuant to section 305 of the Act
for the purposes of conducting inspections of facilities subject to the regula-
tions issued by the Department of Commerce pursuant to section 3 of this
order;
(b) to suspend or revoke export privileges pursuant to section 211 of
the Act; and
(c) to carry out all functions with respect to proceedings under section
501(a) of the Act and to issue regulations with respect thereto, except for
those functions that the Act specifies are to be performed by the Secretary
of State or the USNA.
Sec. 5. The Departments of State, Defense, Commerce, and Energy, and
other agencies as appropriate, are authorized to carry out, consistent with
the Act and in accordance with subsequent directives, appropriate functions
that are not otherwise assigned in the Act and are necessary to implement
the provisions of the Convention and the Act.
Sec. 6. The Departments of State, Defense, Commerce, and Energy, and
other agencies, as appropriate, are authorized to provide assistance to facili-
ties not owned or operated by the U.S. Government, or contracted for use
by or for the U.S. Government, in meeting reporting requirements and in
preparing the facilities for possible inspection pursuant to the Convention.
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Federal Register / Vol. 64, No. 123 / Monday, June 28, 1999 / Presidential Documents
Sec. 7. The USNA, in coordination with the interagency group designated
in section 2 of this order, is authorized to determine whether disclosure
of confidential business information pursuant to section 404(c) of the Act
is in the national interest. Disclosure will not be permitted if contrary
to national security or law enforcement needs.
Sec. 8. In order to take additional steps with respect to the proliferation
of weapons of mass destruction and means of delivering them and the
national emergency described and declared in Executive Order 12938 of
November 14, 1994, as amended by Executive Order 13094 of July 30,
1998, section 3 of Executive Order 12938, as amended, is amended to
add a new subsection (e) to read as follows:
‘‘(e) the Secretary of Commerce shall impose and enforce such restrictions
on the importation of chemicals into the United States as may be necessary
to carry out the requirements of the Convention on the Prohibition of
the Development, Production, Stockpiling and Use of Chemical Weapons
and on Their Destruction.’’
Sec. 9. Any investigation emanating from a possible violation of this order,
or of any license, order, or regulation issued pursuant to this order, involving
or revealing a possible violation of 18 U.S.C. section 229 shall be referred
to the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), which shall coordinate with
the referring agency and other appropriate agencies. The FBI shall timely
notify the referring agency and other appropriate agencies of any action
it takes on such referrals.
Sec. 10. Nothing in this order shall create any right or benefit, substantive
or procedural, enforceable by any party against the United States, its agen-
cies or instrumentalities, its officers or employees, or any other person.
Sec. 11. (a) This order shall take effect at 12:01 a.m. eastern daylight
time, June 26, 1999.
(b) This order shall be transmitted to the Congress and published in
the Federal Register.
œ–
THE WHITE HOUSE,
June 25, 1999.
[FR Doc. 99–16634
Filed 6–25–99; 1:33 pm]
Billing code 3195–01–P
| Implementation of the Chemical Weapons Convention and the Chemical Weapons Convention Implementation Act | 1999-06-25T00:00:00 | 577526670755d0cc863c251b0ad4a19c7a9cd854374c509d2cac291e1be36ac5 |
Presidential Executive Order | 99-17444 (13129) | Presidential Documents
36759
Federal Register
Vol. 64, No. 129
Wednesday, July 7, 1999
Title 3—
The President
Executive Order 13129 of July 4, 1999
Blocking Property and Prohibiting Transactions With the
Taliban
By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the
laws of the United States of America, including the International Emergency
Economic Powers Act (50 U.S.C. 1701 et seq.)(‘‘IEEPA’’), the National Emer-
gencies Act (50 U.S.C. 1601 et seq.), and section 301 of title 3, United
States Code,
I, WILLIAM J. CLINTON, President of the United States of America, find
that the actions and policies of the Taliban in Afghanistan, in allowing
territory under its control in Afghanistan to be used as a safe haven and
base of operations for Usama bin Ladin and the Al-Qaida organization who
have committed and threaten to continue to commit acts of violence against
the United States and its nationals, constitute an unusual and extraordinary
threat to the national security and foreign policy of the United States,
and hereby declare a national emergency to deal with that threat.
I hereby order:
Section 1. Except to the extent provided in section 203(b) of IEEPA (50
U.S.C. 1702(b)) and in regulations, orders, directives, or licenses that may
be issued pursuant to this order, and notwithstanding any contract entered
into or any license or permit granted prior to the effective date:
(a) all property and interests in property of the Taliban; and
(b) all property and interests in property of persons determined by the
Secretary of the Treasury, in consultation with the Secretary of State and
the Attorney General:
(i) to be owned or controlled by, or to act for or on behalf of, the
Taliban; or
(ii) to provide financial, material, or technological support for, or services
in support of, any of the foregoing,
that are in the United States, that hereafter come within the United States,
or that are or hereafter come within the possession or control of United
States persons, are blocked.
Sec. 2. Except to the extent provided in section 203(b) of IEEPA (50 U.S.C.
1702(b)) and in regulations, orders, directives, or licenses that may be issued
pursuant to this order, and notwithstanding any contract entered into or
any license or permit granted prior to the effective date:
(a) any transaction or dealing by United States persons or within the
United States in property or interests in property blocked pursuant to this
order is prohibited, including the making or receiving of any contribution
of funds, goods, or services to or for the benefit of the Taliban or persons
designated pursuant to this order;
(b) the exportation, reexportation, sale, or supply, directly or indirectly,
from the United States, or by a United States person, wherever located,
of any goods, software, technology (including technical data), or services
to the territory of Afghanistan controlled by the Taliban or to the Taliban
or persons designated pursuant to this order is prohibited;
(c) the importation into the United States of any goods, software, tech-
nology, or services owned or controlled by the Taliban or persons designated
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Federal Register / Vol. 64, No. 129 / Wednesday, July 7, 1999 / Presidential Documents
pursuant to this order or from the territory of Afghanistan controlled by
the Taliban is prohibited;
(d) any transaction by any United States person or within the United
States that evades or avoids, or has the purpose of evading or avoiding,
or attempts to violate, any of the prohibitions set forth in this order is
prohibited; and
(e) any conspiracy formed to violate any of the prohibitions set forth
in this order is prohibited.
Sec. 3. The Secretary of the Treasury, in consultation with the Secretary
of State, is hereby directed to authorize commercial sales of agricultural
commodities and products, medicine, and medical equipment for civilian
end use in the territory of Afghanistan controlled by the Taliban under
appropriate safeguards to prevent diversion to military, paramilitary, or ter-
rorist end users or end use or to political end use.
Sec. 4. For the purposes of this order:
(a) the term ‘‘person’’ means an individual or entity;
(b) the term ‘‘entity’’ means a partnership, association, corporation, or
other organization, group, or subgroup;
(c) the term ‘‘the Taliban’’ means the political/military entity headquartered
in Kandahar, Afghanistan that as of the date of this order exercises de
facto control over the territory of Afghanistan described in paragraph (d)
of this section, its agencies and instrumentalities, and the Taliban leaders
listed in the Annex to this order or designated by the Secretary of State
in consultation with the Secretary of the Treasury and the Attorney General.
The Taliban is also known as the ‘‘Taleban,’’ ‘‘Islamic Movement of Taliban,’’
‘‘the Taliban Islamic Movement,’’ ‘‘Talibano Islami Tahrik,’’ and ‘‘Tahrike
Islami’a Taliban’’
(d) the term ‘‘territory of Afghanistan controlled by the Taliban’’ means
the territory referred to as the ‘‘Islamic Emirate of Afghanistan,’’ known
in Pashtun as ‘‘de Afghanistan Islami Emarat’’ or in Dari as ‘‘Emarat Islami-
e Afghanistan,’’ including the following provinces of the country of Afghani-
stan: Kandahar, Farah, Helmund, Nimruz, Herat, Badghis, Ghowr, Oruzghon,
Zabol, Paktiha, Ghazni, Nangarhar, Lowgar, Vardan, Faryab, Jowlan, Balkh,
and Paktika. The Secretary of State, in consultation with the Secretary of
the Treasury, is hereby authorized to modify the description of the term
‘‘territory of Afghanistan controlled by the Taliban’’
(e) the term ‘‘United States person’’ means any United States citizen,
permanent resident alien, entity organized under the laws of the United
States (including foreign branches), or any person in the United States.
Sec. 5. The Secretary of the Treasury, in consultation with the Secretary
of State and the Attorney General, is hereby authorized to take such actions,
including the promulgation of rules and regulations, and to employ all
powers granted to me by IEEPA as may be necessary to carry out the
purposes of this order. The Secretary of the Treasury may redelegate any
of these functions to other officers and agencies of the United States Govern-
ment. All agencies of the United States Government are hereby directed
to take all appropriate measures within their authority to carry out the
provisions of this order.
Sec. 6. Nothing contained in this order shall create any right or benefit,
substantive or procedural, enforceable by any party against the United States,
its agencies or instrumentalities, its officers or employees, or any other
person.
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Federal Register / Vol. 64, No. 129 / Wednesday, July 7, 1999 / Presidential Documents
Sec. 7. (a) This order is effective at 12:01 a.m. Eastern Daylight Time on
July 6, 1999.
(b) This order shall be transmitted to the Congress and published in
the Federal Register.
œ–
THE WHITE HOUSE,
July 4, 1999.
Billing code 3195–01–P
Annex
Mohammed Omar (Amir al-Mumineen [Commander of the Faithful]);
[FR Doc. 99–17444
Filed 7–6–99; 12:38 pm]
Billing code 4710–10–M
| Blocking Property and Prohibiting Transactions With the Taliban | 1999-07-04T00:00:00 | 243e46bc249ca16c25920b814ae8cd94d4bd877d1c66d3bf74c36aacdf961898 |
Presidential Executive Order | 99-15623 (13127) | Presidential Documents
32793
Federal Register
Vol. 64, No. 116
Thursday, June 17, 1999
Title 3—
The President
Executive Order 13127 of June 14, 1999
Amendment to Executive Order 13073, Year 2000 Conversion
By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the
laws of the United States of America, and in order to create the Information
Coordination Center to assist the Chair of the President’s Council on Year
2000 Conversion in addressing year 2000 conversion problems both domesti-
cally and internationally, it is hereby ordered that Executive Order 13073
is amended as follows:
Section 1. A new section 5 is added to the order and shall read ‘‘Sec.
5. Information Coordination Center. (a) To assist the Chair in the Y2K
response duties included under section 2(c) of this order, there shall be
established the Information Coordination Center (ICC) in the General Services
Administration.
(b) At the direction of the Chair, the ICC will assist in making preparations
for information sharing and coordination within the Federal Government
and key components of the public and private sectors, coordinating agency
assessments of Y2K emergencies that could have an adverse affect on U.S.
interests at home and abroad, and, if necessary, assisting Federal agencies
and the Chair in reconstitution processes where appropriate.
(c) The ICC will:
(1) consist of officials from executive agencies, designated by agency heads
under subsection 3(a)(2) of this order, who have expertise in important
management and technical areas, computer hardware, software or security
systems, reconstitution and recovery, and of additional personnel hired di-
rectly or by contract, as required, to carry out the duties described under
section 5 of this order;
(2) work with the Council and the Office of Management and Budget
to assure that Federal efforts to restore critical systems are coordinated
with efforts managed by Federal agencies acting under existing emergency
response authorities.’’
(d) The Chair of the President’s Council on Year 2000 Conversion shall
designate a Director of the ICC.
Sec. 2. The preexisting section 5 of Executive Order 13073 shall be renum-
bered as section 6.
œ–
THE WHITE HOUSE,
June 14, 1999.
[FR Doc. 99–15623
Filed 6–16–99; 9:02 am]
Billing code 3195–01–P
| Amendment to Executive Order 13073, Year 2000 Conversion | 1999-06-14T00:00:00 | 3aea591b418b26ed2058ba67925819d8ae10056d9e790b809047adb459b41d93 |
Presidential Executive Order | 99-14901 (13125) | Presidential Documents
31105
Federal Register
Vol. 64, No. 111
Thursday, June 10, 1999
Title 3—
The President
Executive Order 13125 of June 7, 1999
Increasing Participation of Asian Americans and Pacific
Islanders in Federal Programs
By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the
laws of the United States of America, including the Federal Advisory Com-
mittee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), and in order to improve the quality
of life of Asian Americans and Pacific Islanders through increased participa-
tion in Federal programs where they may be underserved (e.g., health, human
services, education, housing, labor, transportation, and economic and commu-
nity development), it is hereby ordered as follows:
Section 1. (a) There is established in the Department of Health and Human
Services the President’s Advisory Commission on Asian Americans and
Pacific Islanders (Commission). The Commission shall consist of not more
than 15 members appointed by the President, one of which shall be des-
ignated by the President as Chair. The Commission shall include members
who: (i) have a history of involvement with the Asian American and Pacific
Islander communities; (ii) are from the fields of health, human services,
education, housing, labor, transportation, economic and community develop-
ment, civil rights, and the business community; (iii) are from civic associa-
tions representing one or more of the diverse Asian American and Pacific
Islander communities; and (iv) have such other experience as the President
deems appropriate.
(b) The Secretary of the Department of Health and Human Services (Sec-
retary) shall appoint an Executive Director for the Commission.
Sec. 2. The Commission shall provide advice to the President, through
the Secretary, on: (a) the development, monitoring, and coordination of
Federal efforts to improve the quality of life of Asian Americans and Pacific
Islanders through increased participation in Federal programs where such
persons may be underserved and the collection of data related to Asian
American and Pacific Islander populations and sub-populations; (b) ways
to increase public-sector, private-sector, and community involvement in im-
proving the health and well-being of Asian Americans and Pacific Islanders;
and (c) ways to foster research and data on Asian Americans and Pacific
Islanders, including research and data on public health.
Sec. 3. The Department of Health and Human Services shall establish the
White House Initiative on Asian Americans and Pacific Islanders (Initiative),
an interagency working group (working group) whose members shall be
appointed by their respective agencies. The Executive Director of the Commis-
sion shall also serve as the Director of the Initiative, and shall report to
the Secretary or the Secretary’s designee. The working group shall include
both career and noncareer civil service staff and commissioned officers
of the Public Health Service with expertise in health, human services, edu-
cation, housing, labor, transportation, economic and community develop-
ment, and other relevant issues. The working group shall advise the Secretary
on the implementation and coordination of Federal programs as they relate
to Asian Americans and Pacific Islanders across executive departments and
agencies.
Sec. 4. The head of each executive department and each agency designated
by the Secretary shall appoint a senior Federal official responsible for man-
agement or program administration to report directly to the agency head
on activity under this Executive order, and to serve as a liaison to the
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Federal Register / Vol. 64, No. 111 / Thursday, June 10, 1999 / Presidential Documents
Initiative. The Secretary also may designate additional Federal Government
officials, with the agreement of the relevant agency head, to carry out the
functions of the Initiative. To the extent permitted by law and to the extent
practicable, each executive department and designated agency shall provide
any appropriate information requested by the working group, including data
relating to the eligibility for and participation of Asian Americans and
Pacific Islanders in Federal programs. Where adequate data are not available,
the Initiative shall suggest the means of collecting such data.
Sec. 5. Each executive department and designated agency (collectively, the
‘‘agency’’) shall prepare a plan for, and shall document, its efforts to improve
the quality of life of Asian Americans and Pacific Islanders through increased
participation in Federal programs where Asian Americans and Pacific Island-
ers may be underserved. This plan shall address, among other things, Federal
efforts to: (a) improve the quality of life for Asian Americans and Pacific
Islanders through increased participation in Federal programs where they
may be underserved and the collection of data related to Asian American
and Pacific Islander populations and sub-populations; (b) increase public-
sector, private-sector, and community involvement in improving the health
and well-being of Asian Americans and Pacific Islanders; and (c) foster
research and data on Asian Americans and Pacific Islanders, including re-
search and data on public health. Each agency’s plan shall provide appro-
priate measurable objectives and, after the first year, shall assess that agency’s
performance on the goals set in the previous year’s plan. Each plan shall
be submitted at a date to be established by the Secretary.
Sec. 6. The Secretary shall review the agency plans and develop for submis-
sion to the President an integrated Federal plan (Federal Plan) to improve
the quality of life of Asian American and Pacific Islanders through increased
participation in Federal programs where such persons may be underserved.
Actions described in the Federal Plan shall address improving access by
Asian Americans and Pacific Islanders to Federal programs and fostering
advances in relevant research and data. The Secretary shall ensure that
the working group is given the opportunity to comment on the proposed
Federal Plan prior to its submission to the President. The Secretary shall
disseminate the Federal Plan to appropriate members of the executive branch.
The findings and recommendations in the Federal Plan shall be considered
by the agencies in their policies and activities.
Sec. 7. Notwithstanding any other Executive order, the responsibilities of
the President that are applicable to the Commission under the Federal Advi-
sory Committee Act, as amended, except that of reporting to the Congress,
shall be performed by the Secretary in accordance with the guidelines and
procedures established by the Administrator of General Services.
Sec. 8. Members of the Commission shall serve without compensation, but
shall be allowed travel expenses, including per diem in lieu of subsistence,
as authorized by law for persons serving intermittently in the Government
service (5 U.S.C. 5701–5707). To the extent permitted by law and appropria-
tions, and where practicable, agencies shall, upon request by the Secretary,
provide assistance to the Commission and to the Initiative. The Department
of Health and Human Services shall provide administrative support and
funding for the Commission.
Sec. 9. The Commission shall terminate 2 years after the date of this Executive
order unless the Commission is renewed by the President prior to the
end of that 2-year period.
Sec. 10. For the purposes of this order, the terms: (a) ‘‘Asian American’’
includes persons having origins in any of the original peoples of the Far
East, Southeast Asia, or the Indian subcontinent; and
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(b) ‘‘Pacific Islander’’ includes the aboriginal, indigenous, native peoples
of Hawaii and other Pacific Islands within the jurisdiction of the United
States.
œ–
THE WHITE HOUSE,
June 7, 1999.
[FR Doc. 99–14901
Filed 6–9–99; 8:45 am]
Billing code 3195–01–P
| Increasing Participation of Asian Americans and Pacific Islanders in Federal Programs | 1999-06-07T00:00:00 | 039a6f0d36512e899236e2ab5ac683914977bf2d191f61bf6c1aa771db6a5dfd |
Presidential Executive Order | 99-18476 (13130) | Presidential Documents
38535
Federal Register
Vol. 64, No. 137
Monday, July 19, 1999
Title 3—
The President
Executive Order 13130 of July 14, 1999
National Infrastructure Assurance Council
By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the
laws of the United States of America, including the Federal Advisory Com-
mittee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), and in order to support a coordinated
effort by both government and private sector entities to address threats
to our Nation’s critical infrastructure, it is hereby ordered as follows:
Section 1. Establishment. (a) There is established the National Infrastructure
Assurance Council (NIAC). The NIAC shall be composed of not more than
30 members appointed by the President. The members of the NIAC shall
be selected from the private sector, including private sector entities rep-
resenting the critical infrastructures identified in Executive Order 13010,
and from State and local government. The members of the NIAC shall
have expertise relevant to the functions of the NIAC and shall not be
full-time officials or employees of the executive branch of the Federal Govern-
ment.
(b) The President shall designate a Chairperson and Vice-Chairperson from
among the members of the NIAC.
(c) The National Coordinator for Security, Infrastructure Protection and
Counter-Terrorism at the National Security Council (National Coordinator)
will serve as the Executive Director of the NIAC.
(d) The Senior Director for Critical Infrastructure Protection at the National
Security Council will serve as the NIAC’s liaison to other agencies.
(e) Individuals appointed by the President will serve for a period of
2 years. Service shall be limited to no more than 3 consecutive terms.
Section 2. Functions. (a) The NIAC will meet periodically to:
(1) enhance the partnership of the public and private sectors in protecting
our critical infrastructure and provide reports on this issue to the President
as appropriate;
(2) propose and develop ways to encourage private industry to perform
periodic risk assessments of critical processes, including information and
telecommunications systems; and
(3) monitor the development of Private Sector Information Sharing and
Analysis Centers (PSISACs) and provide recommendations to the National
Coordinator and the National Economic Council on how these organizations
can best foster improved cooperation among the PSISACs, the National
Infrastructure Protection Center (NIPC), and other Federal Government enti-
ties.
(b) The NIAC will report to the President through the Assistant to the
President for National Security Affairs, who shall assure appropriate coordi-
nation with the Assistant to the President for Economic Policy.
(c) The NIAC will advise the lead agencies with critical infrastructure
responsibilities, sector coordinators, the NIPC, the PSISACs and the National
Coordinator on the subjects of the NIAC’s function in whatever manner
the Chair of the NIAC, the National Coordinator, and the head of the affected
entity deem appropriate.
(d) Senior Federal Government officials will participate in the meetings
of the NIAC as appropriate.
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Federal Register / Vol. 64, No. 137 / Monday, July 19, 1999 / Presidential Documents
(e) The Department of Commerce shall perform the functions of the Presi-
dent under the Federal Advisory Committee Act for the NIAC, except that
of reporting to the Congress, in accordance with the guidelines and proce-
dures established by the Administrator of General Services.
Section 3. Administration. To the extent permitted by law:
(a) The NIAC may hold open and closed hearings, conduct inquiries,
and establish subcommittees as necessary.
(b) All executive departments and agencies shall cooperate with the NIAC
and provide such assistance, information, and advice to the NIAC as it
may request, as appropriate.
(c) Members of the NIAC shall serve without compensation for their work
on the NIAC. While engaged in the work of the Council, members will
be allowed travel expenses, including per diem in lieu of subsistence as
authorized by law for persons serving intermittently in the Government
service.
(d) To the extent permitted by law, and subject to the availability of
appropriations, the Department of Commerce, through the Critical Infrastruc-
ture Assurance Office, shall provide the NIAC with administrative services,
staff, and other support services, and such funds as may be necessary for
the performance of its functions.
(e) The Council shall terminate 2 years from the date of this order, unless
extended by the President prior to that date.
Section 4. Judicial Review. This order is not intended to create any right,
benefit, trust, or responsibility, substantive or procedural, enforceable at
law or equity by a party against the United States, its agencies, its officers,
or any person.
œ–
THE WHITE HOUSE,
July 14, 1999.
[FR Doc. 99–18476
Filed 7–16–99; 8:45 am]
Billing code 3195–01–P
| National Infrastructure Assurance Council | 1999-07-14T00:00:00 | 2434e39c86cfc3664d9d33c24579687dca5baa0d0aa492362b9e7000f22ebb85 |
Presidential Executive Order | 99-14825 (13124) | Presidential Documents
31103
Federal Register
Vol. 64, No. 110
Wednesday, June 9, 1999
Title 3—
The President
Executive Order 13124 of June 4, 1999
Amending the Civil Service Rules Relating To Federal Em-
ployees With Psychiatric Disabilities
By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the
laws of the United States of America, including sections 3301 and 3302
of title 5, United States Code, and in order to give individuals with psychiatric
disabilities the same hiring opportunities as persons with severe physical
disabilities or mental retardation under the Civil Service Rules, and to
permit individuals with psychiatric disabilities to obtain Civil Service com-
petitive status, it is hereby ordered as follows:
Section 1. Policy.
(a) It is the policy of the United States to assure equality of opportunity,
full participation, independent living, and economic self-sufficiency for per-
sons with disabilities. The Federal Government as an employer should serve
as a model for the employment of persons with disabilities and utilize
the full potential of these talented citizens.
(b) The Civil Service Rules governing appointment of persons with psy-
chiatric disabilities were adopted years ago when attitudes about mental
illness were different than they are today, which led to stricter standards
for hiring persons with psychiatric disabilities than for persons with mental
retardation or severe physical disabilities. The Civil Service Rules provide
that persons with mental retardation, severe physical disabilities, or psy-
chiatric disabilities may be hired under excepted appointing authorities.
While persons with mental retardation or severe physical disabilities may
be appointed for more than 2 years and may convert to competitive status
after completion of 2 years of satisfactory service in their excepted position,
people with psychiatric disabilities may not.
(c) The Office of Personnel Management (OPM) and the President’s Task
Force on Employment of Adults with Disabilities believe that the Federal
Government could better benefit from the contributions of persons with
psychiatric disabilities if they were given the same opportunities available
to people with mental retardation or severe physical disabilities.
Sec. 2. Implementation.
(a) The Director of the Office of Personnel Management shall, consistent
with OPM authority, provide that persons with psychiatric disabilities are
subject to the same hiring rules as persons with mental retardation or severe
physical disabilities.
(b) Civil Service Rule III (5 CFR Part 3) is amended by adding the following
new paragraph to subsection (b) of section 3.1:
‘‘(3) An employee with psychiatric disabilities who completes at least
2 years of satisfactory service in a position excepted from the competitive
service.’’
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Federal Register / Vol. 64, No. 110 / Wednesday, June 9, 1999 / Presidential Documents
Sec. 3. The Director of the Office of Personnel Management shall prescribe
such regulations as may be necessary to implement this order.
œ–
THE WHITE HOUSE,
June 4, 1999.
[FR Doc. 99–14825
Filed 6–8–99; 8:45 am]
Billing code 3195–01–P
| Amending the Civil Service Rules Relating To Federal Employees With Psychiatric Disabilities | 1999-06-04T00:00:00 | e644164a42c1ec3483479b64a2b75fd71ae27720a13f9a4a3571f0d53a39412e |
Presidential Executive Order | 99-13825 (13122) | Presidential Documents
29201
Federal Register
Vol. 64, No. 103
Friday, May 28, 1999
Title 3—
The President
Executive Order 13122 of May 25, 1999
Interagency Task Force on the Economic Development of the
Southwest Border
By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the
laws of the United States of America, and in order to provide a more
rapid and integrated Federal response to the economic development chal-
lenges of the Southwest Border region, it is hereby ordered as follows:
Section 1. Establishment of an Interagency Task Force on the Economic
Development of the Southwest Border. (a) There is established the ‘‘Inter-
agency Task Force on the Economic Development of the Southwest Border’’
(Task Force) that reports to the Vice President, as Chair of the President’s
Community Empowerment Board (PCEB), and to the Assistant to the Presi-
dent for Economic Policy, as Vice Chair of the PCEB.
(b) The Task Force shall comprise the Secretary of State, Secretary of
Agriculture, Secretary of Commerce, Secretary of Defense, the Attorney Gen-
eral, Secretary of the Interior, Secretary of Education, Secretary of Health
and Human Services, Secretary of Housing and Urban Development, Secretary
of Energy, Secretary of Labor, Secretary of Transportation, Secretary of the
Treasury, Director of the Office of Management and Budget, Director of
National Drug Control Policy, Administrator of General Services, Adminis-
trator of the Small Business Administration, Administrator of the Environ-
mental Protection Agency, or their designees, and such other senior executive
branch officials as may be determined by the Co-Chairs of the Task Force.
The Secretaries of the Treasury, Agriculture, and Labor shall Co-Chair the
Task Force, rotating annually. The agency chairing the Task Force will
provide administrative support for the Task Force.
(c) The purpose of the Task Force is to coordinate and better leverage
existing Administration efforts for the Southwest Border, in concert with
locally led efforts, in order to increase the living standards and the overall
economic profile of the Southwest Border so that it may achieve the average
of the Nation. Specifically, the Task Force shall:
(1) analyze the existing programs and policies of Task Force members
that relate to the Southwest Border to determine what changes, modifications,
and innovations should be considered;
(2) consider statistical and data analysis, research, and policy studies
related to the Southwest Border;
(3) develop and recommend short-term and long-term options for promoting
sustainable economic development;
(4) consult and coordinate activities with State, tribal, and local govern-
ments, community leaders, Members of Congress, the private sector, and
other interested parties, paying particular attention to maintaining existing
authorities of the States, tribes, and local governments, and preserving their
existing working relationships with other agencies, organizations, or individ-
uals;
(5) coordinate and collaborate on research and demonstration priorities
of Task Force member agencies related to the Southwest Border;
(6) integrate Administration initiatives and programs into the design of
sustainable economic development actions for the Southwest Border; and
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Federal Register / Vol. 64, No. 103 / Friday, May 28, 1999 / Presidential Documents
(7) focus initial efforts on pilot communities for implementing a coordi-
nated and expedited Federal response to local economic development and
other needs.
(d) The Task Force shall issue an interim report to the Vice President
by November 15, 1999. The Task Force shall issue its first annual report
to the Vice President by April 15, 2000, with subsequent reports to follow
yearly and a final report on April 15, 2002. The reports shall describe
the actions taken by, and progress of, each member of the Task Force
in carrying out this order. The Task Force shall terminate 30 days after
submitting its final report unless a Task Force consensus recommends con-
tinuation of activities.
Sec. 2. Specific Activities by Task Force Members and Other Agencies.
The agencies represented on the Task Force shall work together and report
their actions and progress in carrying out this order to the Task Force
Chair 1 month before the reports are due to the Vice President under
section 1(d) of this order.
Sec. 3. Cooperation. All efforts taken by agencies under sections 1 and
2 of this order shall, as appropriate, further partnerships and cooperation
with organizations that represent the Southwest Border and with State and
local governments.
Sec. 4. (a) ‘‘Agency’’ means an executive agency as defined in 5 U.S.C.
105.
(b) The ‘‘Southwest Border’’ or ‘‘Southwest Border region’’ is defined
as including the areas up to 150 miles north of the United States-Mexican
border in the States of Arizona, New Mexico, Texas, and California.
Sec. 5. Judicial Review. This order does not create any right or benefit,
substantive or procedural, enforceable at law by a party against the United
States, its agencies, its officers, or any person.
œ–
THE WHITE HOUSE,
May 25, 1999.
[FR Doc. 99–13825
Filed 5–27–99; 8:45 am]
Billing code 3195–01–P
| Interagency Task Force on the Economic Development of the Southwest Border | 1999-05-25T00:00:00 | a4cbbf739a600c83a4384a78f1b7bb4a36fd533764a0d7fe3c497775dd2145b0 |
Presidential Executive Order | 99-14633 (13123) | Presidential Documents
30851
Federal Register
Vol. 64, No. 109
Tuesday, June 8, 1999
Title 3—
The President
Executive Order 13123 of June 3, 1999
Greening
the
Government
Through
Efficient
Energy
Management
By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the
laws of the United States of America, including the National Energy Conserva-
tion Policy Act (Public Law 95–619, 92 Stat. 3206, 42 U.S.C. 8252 et seq.),
as amended by the Energy Policy Act of 1992 (EPACT) (Public Law 102–
486, 106 Stat. 2776), and section 301 of title 3, United States Code, it
is hereby ordered as follows:
PART 1—PREAMBLE
Section 101. Federal Leadership. The Federal Government, as the Nation’s
largest energy consumer, shall significantly improve its energy management
in order to save taxpayer dollars and reduce emissions that contribute to
air pollution and global climate change. With more than 500,000 buildings,
the Federal Government can lead the Nation in energy efficient building
design, construction, and operation. As a major consumer that spends $200
billion annually on products and services, the Federal Government can
promote energy efficiency, water conservation, and the use of renewable
energy products, and help foster markets for emerging technologies. In en-
couraging effective energy management in the Federal Government, this
order builds on work begun under EPACT and previous Executive orders.
PART 2—GOALS
Sec. 201. Greenhouse Gases Reduction Goal. Through life-cycle cost-effective
energy measures, each agency shall reduce its greenhouse gas emissions
attributed to facility energy use by 30 percent by 2010 compared to such
emissions levels in 1990. In order to encourage optimal investment in energy
improvements, agencies can count greenhouse gas reductions from improve-
ments in nonfacility energy use toward this goal to the extent that these
reductions are approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB).
Sec. 202. Energy Efficiency Improvement Goals. Through life-cycle cost-
effective measures, each agency shall reduce energy consumption per gross
square foot of its facilities, excluding facilities covered in section 203 of
this order, by 30 percent by 2005 and 35 percent by 2010 relative to 1985.
No facilities will be exempt from these goals unless they meet new criteria
for exemptions, to be issued by the Department of Energy (DOE).
Sec. 203. Industrial and Laboratory Facilities. Through life-cycle cost-effective
measures, each agency shall reduce energy consumption per square foot,
per unit of production, or per other unit as applicable by 20 percent by
2005 and 25 percent by 2010 relative to 1990. No facilities will be exempt
from these goals unless they meet new criteria for exemptions, as issued
by DOE.
Sec. 204. Renewable Energy. Each agency shall strive to expand the use
of renewable energy within its facilities and in its activities by implementing
renewable energy projects and by purchasing electricity from renewable
energy sources. In support of the Million Solar Roofs initiative, the Federal
Government shall strive to install 2,000 solar energy systems at Federal
facilities by the end of 2000, and 20,000 solar energy systems at Federal
facilities by 2010.
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Federal Register / Vol. 64, No. 109 / Tuesday, June 8, 1999 / Presidential Documents
Sec. 205. Petroleum. Through life-cycle cost-effective measures, each agency
shall reduce the use of petroleum within its facilities. Agencies may accom-
plish this reduction by switching to a less greenhouse gas-intensive, nonpetro-
leum energy source, such as natural gas or renewable energy sources; by
eliminating unnecessary fuel use; or by other appropriate methods. Where
alternative fuels are not practical or life-cycle cost-effective, agencies shall
strive to improve the efficiency of their facilities.
Sec. 206. Source Energy. The Federal Government shall strive to reduce
total energy use and associated greenhouse gas and other air emissions,
as measured at the source. To that end, agencies shall undertake life-cycle
cost-effective projects in which source energy decreases, even if site energy
use increases. In such cases, agencies will receive credit toward energy
reduction goals through guidelines developed by DOE.
Sec. 207. Water Conservation. Through life-cycle cost-effective measures,
agencies shall reduce water consumption and associated energy use in their
facilities to reach the goals set under section 503(f) of this order. Where
possible, water cost savings and associated energy cost savings shall be
included in Energy-Savings Performance Contracts and other financing mech-
anisms.
PART 3—ORGANIZATION AND ACCOUNTABILITY
Sec. 301. Annual Budget Submission. Each agency’s budget submission to
OMB shall specifically request funding necessary to achieve the goals of
this order. Budget submissions shall include the costs associated with: en-
couraging the use of, administering, and fulfilling agency responsibilities
under Energy-Savings Performance Contracts, utility energy-efficiency service
contracts, and other contractual platforms for achieving conservation goals;
implementing life-cycle cost-effective measures; procuring life-cycle cost-
effective products; and constructing sustainably designed new buildings,
among other energy costs. OMB shall issue guidelines to assist agencies
in developing appropriate requests that support sound investments in energy
improvements and energy-using products. OMB shall explore the feasibility
of establishing a fund that agencies could draw on to finance exemplary
energy management activities and investments with higher initial costs but
lower life-cycle costs. Budget requests to OMB in support of this order
must be within each agency’s planning guidance level.
Sec. 302. Annual Implementation Plan. Each agency shall develop an annual
implementation plan for fulfilling the requirements of this order. Such plans
shall be included in the annual reports to the President under section
303 of this order.
Sec. 303. Annual Reports to the President. (a) Each agency shall measure
and report its progress in meeting the goals and requirements of this order
on an annual basis. Agencies shall follow reporting guidelines as developed
under section 306(b) of this order. In order to minimize additional reporting
requirements, the guidelines will clarify how the annual report to the Presi-
dent should build on each agency’s annual Federal energy reports submitted
to DOE and the Congress. Annual reports to the President are due on
January 1 of each year beginning in the year 2000.
(b) Each agency’s annual report to the President shall describe how the
agency is using each of the strategies described in Part 4 of this order
to help meet energy and greenhouse gas reduction goals. The annual report
to the President shall explain why certain strategies, if any, have not been
used. It shall also include a listing and explanation of exempt facilities.
Sec. 304. Designation of Senior Agency Official. Each agency shall designate
a senior official, at the Assistant Secretary level or above, to be responsible
for meeting the goals and requirements of this order, including preparing
the annual report to the President. Such designation shall be reported by
each Cabinet Secretary or agency head to the Deputy Director for Management
of OMB within 30 days of the date of this order. Designated officials shall
participate in the Interagency Energy Policy Committee, described in section
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Federal Register / Vol. 64, No. 109 / Tuesday, June 8, 1999 / Presidential Documents
306(d) of this order. The Committee shall communicate its activities to
all designated officials to assure proper coordination and achievement of
the goals and requirements of this order.
Sec. 305. Designation of Agency Energy Teams. Within 90 days of the
date of this order, each agency shall form a technical support team consisting
of appropriate procurement, legal, budget, management, and technical rep-
resentatives to expedite and encourage the agency’s use of appropriations,
Energy-Savings Performance Contracts, and other alternative financing mech-
anisms necessary to meet the goals and requirements of this order. Agency
energy team activities shall be undertaken in collaboration with each agency’s
representative to the Interagency Energy Management Task Force, as de-
scribed in section 306(e) of this order.
Sec. 306. Interagency Coordination. (a) Office of Management and Budget.
The Deputy Director for Management of OMB, in consultation with DOE,
shall be responsible for evaluating each agency’s progress in improving
energy management and for submitting agency energy scorecards to the
President to report progress.
(1) OMB, in consultation with DOE and other agencies, shall develop
the agency energy scorecards and scoring system to evaluate each agency’s
progress in meeting the goals of this order. The scoring criteria shall include
the extent to which agencies are taking advantage of key tools to save
energy and reduce greenhouse gas emissions, such as Energy-Savings Per-
formance Contracts, utility energy-efficiency service contracts, ENERGY
STARand other energy efficient products, renewable energy technologies,
electricity from renewable energy sources, and other strategies and require-
ments listed in Part 4 of this order, as well as overall efficiency and green-
house gas metrics and use of other innovative energy efficiency practices.
The scorecards shall be based on the annual energy reports submitted to
the President under section 303 of this order.
(2) The Deputy Director for Management of OMB shall also select out-
standing agency energy management team(s), from among candidates nomi-
nated by DOE, for a new annual Presidential award for energy efficiency.
(b) Federal Energy Management Program. The DOE’s Federal Energy Man-
agement Program (FEMP) shall be responsible for working with the agencies
to ensure that they meet the goals of this order and report their progress.
FEMP, in consultation with OMB, shall develop and issue guidelines for
agencies’ preparation of their annual reports to the President on energy
management, as required in section 303 of this order. FEMP shall also
have primary responsibility for collecting and analyzing the data, and shall
assist OMB in ensuring that agency reports are received in a timely manner.
(c) President’s Management Council. The President’s Management Council
(PMC), chaired by the Deputy Director for Management of OMB and con-
sisting of the Chief Operating Officers (usually the Deputy Secretary) of
the largest Federal departments and agencies, will periodically discuss agen-
cies’ progress in improving Federal energy management.
(d) Interagency Energy Policy Committee. This Committee was established
by the Department of Energy Organization Act. It consists of senior agency
officials designated in accordance with section 304 of this order. The Com-
mittee is responsible for encouraging implementation of energy efficiency
policies and practices. The major energy-consuming agencies designated
by DOE are required to participate in the Committee. The Committee shall
communicate its activities to all designated senior agency officials to promote
coordination and achievement of the goals of this order.
(e) Interagency Energy Management Task Force. The Task Force was estab-
lished by the National Energy Conservation Policy Act. It consists of each
agency’s chief energy manager. The Committee shall continue to work toward
improving agencies’ use of energy management tools and sharing information
on Federal energy management across agencies.
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Sec. 307. Public/Private Advisory Committee. The Secretary of Energy will
appoint an advisory committee consisting of representatives from Federal
agencies, State governments, energy service companies, utility companies,
equipment manufacturers, construction and architectural companies, environ-
mental, energy and consumer groups, and other energy-related organizations.
The committee will provide input on Federal energy management, including
how to improve use of Energy-Savings Performance Contracts and utility
energy-efficiency service contracts, improve procurement of ENERGY STAR
and other energy efficient products, improve building design, reduce process
energy use, and enhance applications of efficient and renewable energy
technologies at Federal facilities.
Sec. 308. Applicability. This order applies to all Federal departments and
agencies. General Services Administration (GSA) is responsible for working
with agencies to meet the requirements of this order for those facilities
for which GSA has delegated operations and maintenance authority. The
Department of Defense (DOD) is subject to this order to the extent that
it does not impair or adversely affect military operations and training (includ-
ing tactical aircraft, ships, weapons systems, combat training, and border
security).
PART 4—PROMOTING FEDERAL LEADERSHIP IN ENERGY MANAGE-
MENT
Sec. 401. Life-Cycle Cost Analysis. Agencies shall use life-cycle cost analysis
in making decisions about their investments in products, services, construc-
tion, and other projects to lower the Federal Government’s costs and to
reduce energy and water consumption. Where appropriate, agencies shall
consider the life-cycle costs of combinations of projects, particularly to en-
courage bundling of energy efficiency projects with renewable energy
projects. Agencies shall also retire inefficient equipment on an accelerated
basis where replacement results in lower life-cycle costs. Agencies that
minimize life-cycle costs with efficiency measures will be recognized in
their scorecard evaluations.
Sec. 402. Facility Energy Audits. Agencies shall continue to conduct energy
and water audits for approximately 10 percent of their facilities each year,
either independentlyor through Energy-Savings Performance Contracts or
utility energy-efficiency service contracts.
Sec. 403. Energy Management Strategies and Tools. Agencies shall use a
variety of energy management strategies and tools, where life-cycle cost-
effective, to meet the goals of this order. An agency’s use of these strategies
and tools shall be taken into account in assessing the agency’s progress
and formulating its scorecard.
(a) Financing Mechanisms. Agencies shall maximize their use of available
alternative financing contracting mechanisms, including Energy-Savings Per-
formance Contracts and utility energy-efficiency service contracts, when life-
cycle cost-effective, to reduce energy use and cost in their facilities and
operations. Energy-Savings Performance Contracts, which are authorized
under the National Energy Conservation Policy Act, as modified by the
Energy Policy Act of 1992, and utility energy-efficiency service contracts
provide significant opportunities for making Federal facilities more energy
efficient at no net cost to taxpayers.
(b) ENERGY STARand Other Energy Efficient Products.
(1) Agencies shall select, where life-cycle cost-effective, ENERGY STAR
and other energy efficient products when acquiring energy-using products.
For product groups where ENERGY STARlabels are not yet available,
agencies shall select products that are in the upper 25 percent of energy
efficiency as designated by FEMP. The Environmental Protection Agency
(EPA) and DOE shall expedite the process of designating products as ENERGY
STARand will merge their current efficiency rating procedures.
(2) GSA and the Defense Logistics Agency (DLA), with assistance from
EPA and DOE, shall create clear catalogue listings that designate these
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products in both print and electronic formats. In addition, GSA and DLA
shall undertake pilot projects from selected energy-using products to show
a ‘‘second price tag’’, which means an accounting of the operating and
purchase costs of the item, in both printed and electronic catalogues and
assess the impact of providing this information on Federal purchasing deci-
sions.
(3) Agencies shall incorporate energy efficient criteria consistent with
ENERGY STARand other FEMP-designated energy efficiency levels into
all guide specifications and project specifications developed for new con-
struction and renovation, as well as into product specification language
developed for Basic Ordering Agreements, Blanket Purchasing Agreements,
Government Wide Acquisition Contracts, and all other purchasing proce-
dures.
(4) DOE and OMB shall also explore the creation of financing agreements
with private sector suppliers to provide private funding to offset higher
up-front costs of efficient products. Within 9 months of the date of this
order, DOE shall report back to the President’s Management Council on
the viability of such alternative financing options.
(c) ENERGY STARBuildings. Agencies shall strive to meet the ENERGY
STARBuilding criteria for energy performance and indoor environmental
quality in their eligible facilities to the maximum extent practicable by
the end of 2002. Agencies may use Energy-Savings Performance Contracts,
utility energy-efficiency service contracts, or other means to conduct evalua-
tions and make improvements to buildings in order to meet the criteria.
Buildings that rank in the top 25 percent in energy efficiency relative to
comparable commercial and Federal buildings will receive the ENERGY
STARbuilding label. Agencies shall integrate this building rating tool
into their general facility audits.
(d) Sustainable Building Design. DOD and GSA, in consultation with
DOE and EPA, shall develop sustainable design principles. Agencies shall
apply such principles to the siting, design, and construction of new facilities.
Agencies shall optimize life-cycle costs, pollution, and other environmental
and energy costs associated with the construction, life-cycle operation, and
decommissioning of the facility. Agencies shall consider using Energy-Sav-
ings Performance Contracts or utility energy-efficiency service contracts to
aid them in constructing sustainably designed buildings.
(e) Model Lease Provisions. Agencies entering into leases, including the
renegotiation or extension of existing leases, shall incorporate lease provi-
sions that encourage energy and water efficiency wherever life-cycle cost-
effective. Build-to-suit lease solicitations shall contain criteria encouraging
sustainable design and development, energy efficiency, and verification of
building performance. Agencies shall include a preference for buildings
having the ENERGY STARbuilding label in their selection criteria for
acquiring leased buildings. In addition, all agencies shall encourage lessors
to apply for the ENERGY STARbuilding label and to explore and implement
projects that would reduce costs to the Federal Government, including
projects carried out through the lessors’ Energy-Savings Performance Con-
tracts or utility energy-efficiency service contracts.
(f) Industrial Facility Efficiency Improvements. Agencies shall explore effi-
ciency opportunities in industrial facilities for steam systems, boiler oper-
ation, air compressor systems, industrial processes, and fuel switching, in-
cluding cogeneration and other efficiency and renewable energy technologies.
(g) Highly Efficient Systems. Agencies shall implement district energy
systems, and other highly efficient systems, in new construction or retrofit
projects when life-cycle cost-effective. Agencies shall consider combined
cooling, heat, and power when upgrading and assessing facility power needs
and shall use combined cooling, heat, and power systems when life-cycle
cost-effective. Agencies shall survey local natural resources to optimize use
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of available biomass, bioenergy, geothermal, or other naturally occurring
energy sources.
(h) Off-Grid Generation. Agencies shall use off-grid generation systems,
including solar hot water, solar electric, solar outdoor lighting, small wind
turbines, fuel cells, and other off-grid alternatives, where such systems are
life-cycle cost-effective and offer benefits including energy efficiency, pollu-
tion prevention, source energy reductions, avoided infrastructure costs, or
expedited service.
Sec. 404. Electricity Use. To advance the greenhouse gas and renewable
energy goals of this order, and reduce source energy use, each agency shall
strive to use electricity from clean, efficient, and renewable energy sources.
An agency’s efforts in purchasing electricity from efficient and renewable
energy sources shall be taken into account in assessing the agency’s progress
and formulating its score card.
(a) Competitive Power. Agencies shall take advantage of competitive oppor-
tunities in the electricity and natural gas markets to reduce costs and enhance
services. Agencies are encouraged to aggregate demand across facilities or
agencies to maximize their economic advantage.
(b) Reduced Greenhouse Gas Intensity of Electric Power. When selecting
electricity providers, agencies shall purchase electricity from sources that
use high efficiency electric generating technologies when life-cycle cost-
effective. Agencies shall consider the greenhouse gas intensity of the source
of the electricity and strive to minimize the greenhouse gas intensity of
purchased electricity.
(c) Purchasing Electricity from Renewable Energy Sources.
(1) Each agency shall evaluate its current use of electricity from renew-
able energy sources and report this level in its annual report to the President.
Based on this review, each agency should adopt policies and pursue projects
that increase the use of such electricity. Agencies should include provisions
for the purchase of electricity from renewable energy sources as a component
of their requests for bids whenever procuring electricity. Agencies may use
savings from energy efficiency projects to pay additional incremental costs
of electricity from renewable energy sources.
(2) In evaluating opportunities to comply with this section, agencies
should consider: my Administration’s goal of tripling nonhydroelectric re-
newable energy capacity in the United States by 2010; the renewable portfolio
standard specified in the restructuring guidelines for the State in which
the facility is located; GSA’s efforts to make electricity from renewable
energy sources available to Federal electricity purchasers; and EPA’s guide-
lines on crediting renewable energy power in implementation of Clean Air
Act standards.
Sec. 405. Mobile Equipment. Each agency shall seek to improve the design,
construction, and operation of its mobile equipment, and shall implement
all life-cycle cost-effective energy efficiency measures that result in cost
savings while improving mission performance. To the extent that such meas-
ures are life-cycle cost-effective, agencies shall consider enhanced use of
alternative or renewable-based fuels.
Sec. 406. Management and Government Performance. Agencies shall use
the following management strategies in meeting the goals of this order.
(a) Awards. Agencies shall use employee incentive programs to reward
exceptional performance in implementing this order.
(b) Performance Evaluations. Agencies shall include successful implemen-
tation of provisions of this order in areas such as Energy-Savings Performance
Contracts, sustainable design, energy efficient procurement, energy efficiency,
water conservation, and renewable energy projects in the position descrip-
tions and performance evaluations of agency heads, members of the agency
energy team, principal program managers, heads of field offices, facility
managers, energy managers, and other appropriate employees.
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(c) Retention of Savings and Rebates. Agencies granted statutory authority
to retain a portion of savings generated from efficient energy and water
management are encouraged to permit the retention of the savings at the
facility or site where the savings occur to provide greater incentive for
that facility and its site managers to undertake more energy management
initiatives, invest in renewable energy systems, and purchase electricity
from renewable energy sources.
(d) Training and Education. Agencies shall ensure that all appropriate
personnel receive training for implementing this order.
(1) DOE, DOD, and GSA shall provide relevant training or training
materials for those programs that they make available to all Federal agencies
relating to the energy management strategies contained in this order.
(2) The Federal Acquisition Institute and the Defense Acquisition Univer-
sity shall incorporate into existing procurement courses information on Fed-
eral energy management tools, including Energy-Savings Performance Con-
tracts, utility energy-efficiency service contracts, ENERGY STARand other
energy efficient products, and life-cycle cost analysis.
(3) All agencies are encouraged to develop outreach programs that in-
clude education, training, and promotion of ENERGY STARand other
energy-efficient products for Federal purchase card users. These programs
may include promotions with billing statements, user training, catalogue
awareness, and exploration of vendor data collection of purchases.
(e) Showcase Facilities. Agencies shall designate exemplary new and exist-
ing facilities with significant public access and exposure as showcase facili-
ties to highlight energy or water efficiency and renewable energy improve-
ments.
PART 5—TECHNICAL ASSISTANCE
Sec. 501. Within 120 days of this order, the Director of OMB shall:
(a) develop and issue guidance to agency budget officers on preparation
of annual funding requests associated with the implementation of the order
for the FY 2001 budget;
(b) in collaboration with the Secretary of Energy, explain to agencies
how to retain savings and reinvest in other energy and water management
projects; and
(c) in collaboration with the Secretary of Energy through the Office of
Federal Procurement Policy, periodically brief agency procurement executives
on the use of Federal energy management tools, including Energy-Savings
Performance Contracts, utility energy-efficiency service contracts, and pro-
curement of energy efficient products and electricity from renewable energy
sources.
Sec. 502. Within 180 days of this order, the Secretary of Energy, in collabora-
tion with other agency heads, shall:
(a) issue guidelines to assist agencies in measuring energy per square
foot, per unit of production, or other applicable unit in industrial, laboratory,
research, and other energy-intensive facilities;
(b) establish criteria for determining which facilities are exempt from
the order. In addition, DOE must provide guidance for agencies to report
proposed exemptions;
(c) develop guidance to assist agencies in calculating appropriate energy
baselines for previously exempt facilities and facilities occupied after 1990
in order to measure progress toward goals;
(d) issue guidance to clarify how agencies determine the life-cycle cost
for investments required by the order, including how to compare different
energy and fuel options and assess the current tools;
(e) issue guidance for providing credit toward energy efficiency goals
for cost-effective projects where source energy use declines but site energy
use increases; and
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(f) provide guidance to assist each agency to determine a baseline of
water consumption.
Sec. 503. Within 1 year of this order, the Secretary of Energy, in collaboration
with other agency heads, shall:
(a) provide guidance for counting renewable and highly efficient energy
projects and purchases of electricity from renewable and highly efficient
energy sources toward agencies’ progress in reaching greenhouse gas and
energy reduction goals;
(b) develop goals for the amount of energy generated at Federal facilities
from renewable energy technologies;
(c) support efforts to develop standards for the certification of low environ-
mental impact hydropower facilities in order to facilitate the Federal purchase
of such power;
(d) work with GSA and DLA to develop a plan for purchasing advanced
energy products in bulk quantities for use in by multiple agencies;
(e) issue guidelines for agency use estimating the greenhouse gas emissions
attributable to facility energy use. These guidelines shall include emissions
associated with the production, transportation, and use of energy consumed
in Federal facilities; and
(f) establish water conservation goals for Federal agencies.
Sec. 504. Within 120 days of this order, the Secretary of Defense and
the Administrator of GSA, in consultation with other agency heads, shall
develop and issue sustainable design and development principles for the
siting, design, and construction of new facilities.
Sec. 505. Within 180 days of this order, the Administrator of GSA, in
collaboration with the Secretary of Defense, the Secretary of Energy, and
other agency heads, shall:
(a) develop and issue guidance to assist agencies in ensuring that all
project cost estimates, bids, and agency budget requests for design, construc-
tion, and renovation of facilities are based on life-cycle costs. Incentives
for contractors involved in facility design and construction must be structured
to encourage the contractors to design and build at the lowest life-cycle
cost;
(b) make information available on opportunities to purchase electricity
from renewable energy sources as defined by this order. This information
should accommodate relevant State regulations and be updated periodically
based on technological advances and market changes, at least every 2 years;
(c) develop Internet-based tools for both GSA and DLA customers to
assist individual and agency purchasers in identifying and purchasing
ENERGY STARand other energy efficient products for acquisition; and
(d) develop model lease provisions that incorporate energy efficiency and
sustainable design.
PART 6—GENERAL PROVISIONS
Sec. 601. Compliance by Independent Agencies. Independent agencies are
encouraged to comply with the provisions of this order.
Sec. 602. Waivers. If an agency determines that a provision in this order
is inconsistent with its mission, the agency may ask DOE for a waiver
of the provision. DOE will include a list of any waivers it grants in its
Federal Energy Management Programs annual report to the Congress.
Sec. 603. Scope. (a) This order is intended only to improve the internal
management of the executive branch and is not intended to create any
right, benefit, or trust responsibility, substantive or procedural, enforceable
by law by a party against the United States, its agencies, its officers, or
any other person.
(b) This order applies to agency facilities in any State of the United
States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, Guam,
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American Samoa, the United States Virgin Islands, the Northern Mariana
Islands, and any other territory or possession over which the United States
has jurisdiction. Agencies with facilities outside of these areas, however,
are encouraged to make best efforts to comply with the goals of this order
for those facilities. In addition, agencies can report energy improvements
made outside the United States in their annual report to the President;
these improvements may be considered in agency scorecard evaluations.
Sec. 604. Revocations. Executive Order 12902 of March 9, 1994, Executive
Order 12759 of April 17, 1991, and Executive Order 12845 of April 21,
1993, are revoked.
Sec. 605. Amendments to Federal Regulations. The Federal Acquisition Regu-
lation and other Federal regulations shall be amended to reflect changes
made by this order, including an amendment to facilitate agency purchases
of electricity from renewable energy sources.
PART 7—DEFINITIONS
For the purposes of this order:
Sec. 701. ‘‘Acquisition’’ means acquiring by contract supplies or services
(including construction) by and for the use of the Federal Government
through purchase or lease, whether the supplies or services are already
in existence or must be created, developed, demonstrated, and evaluated.
Acquisition begins at the point when agency needs are established and
includes the description of requirements to satisfy agency needs, solicitation
and selection of sources, award of contracts, contract financing, contract
performance, contract administration, and those technical and management
functions directly related to the process of fulfilling agency needs by contract.
Sec. 702. ‘‘Agency’’ means an executive agency as defined in 5 U.S.C.
105. For the purpose of this order, military departments, as defined in
5 U.S.C. 102, are covered under the auspices of DOD.
Sec. 703. ‘‘Energy-Savings Performance Contract’’ means a contract that pro-
vides for the performance of services for the design, acquisition, financing,
installation, testing, operation, and where appropriate, maintenance and re-
pair, of an identified energy or water conservation measure or series of
measures at one or more locations. Such contracts shall provide that the
contractor must incur costs of implementing energy savings measures, includ-
ing at least the cost (if any) incurred in making energy audits, acquiring
and installing equipment, and training personnel in exchange for a predeter-
mined share of the value of the energy savings directly resulting from
implementation of such measures during the term of the contract. Payment
to the contractor is contingent upon realizing a guaranteed stream of future
energy and cost savings. All additional savings will accrue to the Federal
Government.
Sec. 704. ‘‘Exempt facility’’ or ‘‘Exempt mobile equipment’’ means a facility
or a piece of mobile equipment for which an agency uses DOE-established
criteria to determine that compliance with the Energy Policy Act of 1992
or this order is not practical.
Sec. 705. ‘‘Facility’’ means any individual building or collection of buildings,
grounds, or structure, as well as any fixture or part thereof, including the
associated energy or water-consuming support systems, which is constructed,
renovated, or purchased in whole or in part for use by the Federal Govern-
ment. It includes leased facilities where the Federal Government has a
purchase option or facilities planned for purchase. In any provision of
this order, the term ‘‘facility’’ also includes any building 100 percent leased
for use by the Federal Government where the Federal Government pays
directly or indirectly for the utility costs associated with its leased space.
The term also includes Government-owned contractor-operated facilities.
Sec. 706. ‘‘Industrial facility’’ means any fixed equipment, building, or com-
plex for production, manufacturing, or other processes that uses large
amounts of capital equipment in connection with, or as part of, any process
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or system, and within which the majority of energy use is not devoted
to the heating, cooling, lighting, ventilation, or to service the water heating
energy load requirements of the facility.
Sec. 707. ‘‘Life-cycle costs’’ means the sum of the present values of invest-
ment costs, capital costs, installation costs, energy costs, operating costs,
maintenance costs, and disposal costs, over the lifetime of the project, prod-
uct, or measure. Additional guidance on measuring life-cycle costs is speci-
fied in 10 C.F.R. 436.19.
Sec. 708. ‘‘Life-cycle cost-effective’’ means the life-cycle costs of a product,
project, or measure are estimated to be equal to or less than the base
case (i.e., current or standard practice or product). Additional guidance
on measuring cost-effectiveness is specified in 10 C.F.R. 436.18 (a), (b),
and (c), 436.20, and 436.21.
Sec. 709. ‘‘Mobile equipment’’ means all Federally owned ships, aircraft,
and nonroad vehicles.
Sec. 710. ‘‘Renewable energy’’ means energy produced by solar, wind, geo-
thermal, and biomass power.
Sec. 711. ‘‘Renewable energy technology’’ means technologies that use renew-
able energy to provide light, heat, cooling, or mechanical or electrical energy
for use in facilities or other activities. The term also means the use of
integrated whole-building designs that rely upon renewable energy resources,
including passive solar design.
Sec. 712. ‘‘Source energy’’ means the energy that is used at a site and
consumed in producing and in delivering energy to a site, including, but
not limited to, power generation, transmission, and distribution losses, and
that is used to perform a specific function, such as space conditioning,
lighting, or water heating.
Sec. 713. ‘‘Utility’’ means public agencies and privately owned companies
that market, generate, and/or distribute energy or water, including electricity,
natural gas, manufactured gas, steam, hot water, and chilled water as com-
modities for public use and that provide the service under Federal, State,
or local regulated authority to all authorized customers. Utilities include:
Federally owned nonprofit producers; municipal organizations; and investor
or privately owned producers regulated by a State and/or the Federal Govern-
ment; cooperatives owned by members and providing services mostly to
their members; and other nonprofit State and local government agencies
serving in this capacity.
Sec. 714. ‘‘Utility energy-efficiency service’’ means demand side management
services provided by a utility to improve the efficiency of use of the com-
modity (electricity, gas, etc.) being distributed. Services can include, but
are not limited to, energy efficiency and renewable energy project auditing,
financing, design, installation, operation, maintenance, and monitoring.
œ–
THE WHITE HOUSE,
June 3, 1999.
[FR Doc. 99–14633
Filed 6–7–99; 8:45 am]
Billing code 3195–01–P
| Greening the Government Through Efficient Energy Management | 1999-06-03T00:00:00 | b4a9c6ab28c085fa8efb8b51a252e39595a64084819bca11139e27d74d4f434d |
Presidential Executive Order | 99-10901 (13120) | Presidential Documents
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Federal Register
Vol. 64, No. 82
Thursday, April 29, 1999
Title 3—
The President
Executive Order 13120 of April 27, 1999
Ordering the Selected Reserve and Certain Individual Ready
Reserve Members of the Armed Forces to Active Duty
By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the
laws of the United States of America, including sections 121 and 12304
of title 10, United States Code, I hereby determine that it is necessary
to augment the active armed forces of the United States for the effective
conduct of operations in and around the former Yugoslavia related to the
conflict in Kosovo. Further, under the stated authority, I hereby authorize
the Secretary of Defense, and the Secretary of Transportation with respect
to the Coast Guard when it is not operating as a service in the Department
of the Navy, under their respective jurisdictions, to order to active duty
any units, and any individual members not assigned to a unit organized
to serve as a unit, of the Selected Reserve, or any member in the Individual
Ready Reserve mobilization category and designated as essential under regu-
lations prescribed by the Secretary concerned, and to terminate the service
of those units and members ordered to active duty.
This order is intended only to improve the internal management of the
executive branch and is not intended to create any right or benefit, substantive
or procedural, enforceable at law by a party against the United States,
its agencies, its officers, or any person.
œ–
THE WHITE HOUSE,
April 27, 1999.
[FR Doc. 99–10901
Filed 4–28–99; 8:45 am]
Billing code 3195–01–P
| Ordering the Selected Reserve and Certain Individual Ready Reserve Members of the Armed Forces to Active Duty | 1999-04-27T00:00:00 | 0b9cde7040bbe20ff04f2a765b515e78f8b07aed7a8dda4442a5ca619cff196b |
Presidential Executive Order | 99-15491 (13126) | Presidential Documents
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Federal Register / Vol. 64, No. 115 / Wednesday, June 16, 1999 / Presidential Documents
Executive Order 13126 of June 12, 1999
Prohibition of Acquisition of Products Produced by Forced or
Indentured Child Labor
By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the
laws of the United States of America, and in order to continue the executive
branch’s commitment to fighting abusive child labor practices, it is hereby
ordered as follows:
Section. 1. Policy. It shall be the policy of the United States Government,
consistent with the Tariff Act of 1930, 19 U.S.C. 1307, the Fair Labor
Standards Act, 29 U.S.C. 201 et. seq., and the Walsh-Healey Public Contracts
Act, 41 U.S.C. 35 et seq., that executive agencies shall take appropriate
actions to enforce the laws prohibiting the manufacture or importation of
goods, wares, articles, and merchandise mined, produced, or manufactured
wholly or in part by forced or indentured child labor.
Sec. 2. Publication of List. Within 120 days after the date of this order,
the Department of Labor, in consultation and cooperation with the Depart-
ment of the Treasury and the Department of State, shall publish in the
Federal Register a list of products, identified by their country of origin,
that those Departments have a reasonable basis to believe might have been
mined, produced, or manufactured by forced or indentured child labor.
The Department of Labor may conduct hearings to assist in the identification
of those products.
Sec. 3. Procurement Regulations. Within 120 days after the date of this
order, the Federal Acquisition Regulatory Council shall issue proposed rules
to implement the following:
(a) Required Solicitation Provisions. Each solicitation of offers for a contract
for the procurement of a product included on the list published under
section 2 of this order shall include the following provisions:
(1) A provision that requires the contractor to certify to the contracting
officer that the contractor or, in the case of an incorporated contractor,
a responsible official of the contractor has made a good faith effort to
determine whether forced or indentured child labor was used to mine,
produce, or manufacture any product furnished under the contract and
that, on the basis of those efforts, the contractor is unaware of any such
use of child labor; and
(2) A provision that obligates the contractor to cooperate fully in providing
reasonable access to the contractor’s records, documents, persons, or premises
if reasonably requested by authorized officials of the contracting agency,
the Department of the Treasury, or the Department of Justice, for the purpose
of determining whether forced or indentured child labor was used to mine,
produce, or manufacture any product furnished under the contract.
(b) Investigations. Whenever a contracting officer of an executive agency
has reason to believe that forced or indentured child labor was used to
mine, produce, or manufacture a product furnished pursuant to a contract
subject to the requirements of subsection 3(a) of this order, the head of
the executive agency shall refer the matter for investigation to the Inspector
General of the executive agency and, as the head of the executive agency
or the Inspector General determines appropriate, to the Attorney General
and the Secretary of the Treasury.
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(c) Remedies.
(1) The head of an executive agency may impose remedies as provided
in this subsection in the case of a contractor under a contract of the executive
agency if the head of the executive agency finds that the contractor:
(i)
Has furnished under the contract products that have been
mined, produced, or manufactured by forced or indentured
child labor or uses forced or indentured child labor in the
mining, production, or manufacturing operations of the con-
tractor;
(ii)
Has submitted a false certification under subsection 3(a)(1)
of this order; or
(iii)
Has failed to cooperate in accordance with the obligation
imposed pursuant to subsection 3(a)(2) of this order.
(2) The head of an executive agency, in his or her sole discretion, may
terminate a contract on the basis of any finding described in subsection
3(c)(1) of this order for any contract entered into after the date the regulation
called for in section 3 of this order is published in final.
(3) The head of an executive agency may debar or suspend a contractor
from eligibility for Federal contracts on the basis of a finding that the
contractor has engaged in an act described in subsection 3(c)(1) of this
order. The provision for debarment may not exceed 3 years.
(4) The Administrator of General Services shall include on the List of
Parties Excluded from Federal Procurement and Nonprocurement Programs
(maintained by the Administrator as described in the Federal Acquisition
Regulation) each party that is debarred, suspended, proposed for debarment
or suspension, or declared ineligible by the head of an agency on the
basis that the person has engaged in an act described in subsection 3(c)(1)
of this order.
(5) This section shall not be construed to limit the use of other remedies
available to the head of an executive agency or any other official of the
Federal Government on the basis of a finding described in subsection 3(c)(1)
of this order.
Sec. 4. Report. Within 2 years after implementation of any final rule under
this order, the Administrator of General Services, with the assistance of
other executive agencies, shall submit to the Office of Management and
Budget a report on the actions taken pursuant to this order.
Sec. 5. Scope. (a) Any proposed rules issued pursuant to section 3 of
this order shall apply only to acquisitions for a total amount in excess
of the micro-purchase threshold as defined in section 32(f) of the Office
of Federal Procurement Policy Act (41 U.S.C. 428(f)).
(b) This order does not apply to a contract that is for the procurement
of any product, or any article, material, or supply contained in a product
that is mined, produced, or manufactured in any foreign country if:
(1)
the foreign country is a party to the Agreement on Govern-
ment Procurement annexed to the WTO Agreement or a party
to the North American Free Trade Agreement (‘‘NAFTA’’);
and
(2)
the contract is of a value that is equal to or greater than the
United States threshold specified in the Agreement on Gov-
ernment Procurement annexed to the WTO Agreement or
NAFTA, whichever is applicable.
32385
Federal Register / Vol. 64, No. 115 / Wednesday, June 16, 1999 / Presidential Documents
Sec. 6. Definitions. (a) ‘‘Executive agency’’ and ‘‘agency’’ have the meaning
given to ‘‘executive agency’’ in section 4(1) of the Office of Federal Procure-
ment Policy Act (41 U.S.C. 403(1)).
(b) ‘‘WTO Agreement’’ means the Agreement Establishing the World Trade
Organization, entered into on April 15, 1994.
(c) ‘‘Forced or indentured child labor’’ means all work or service (1)
exacted from any person under the age of 18 under the menace of any
penalty for its nonperformance and for which the worker does not offer
himself voluntarily; or (2) performed by any person under the age of 18
pursuant to a contract the enforcement of which can be accomplished by
process or penalties.
Sec. 7. Judicial Review. This order is intended only to improve the internal
management of the executive branch and does not create any rights or
benefits, substantive or procedural, enforceable by law by a party against
the United States, its agencies, its officers, or any other person.
œ–
THE WHITE HOUSE,
June 12, 1999.
[FR Doc. 99–15491
Filed 6–15–99; 8:45 am]
Billing code 3195–01–P
| Prohibition of Acquisition of Products Produced by Forced or Indentured Child Labor | 1999-06-12T00:00:00 | d1d6fb8df469e0c9ba2b84acf1cb8ad5011fa258667c3db217c730452c352197 |
Presidential Executive Order | 99-11410 (13121) | Presidential Documents
24021
Federal Register
Vol. 64, No. 86
Wednesday, May 5, 1999
Title 3—
The President
Executive Order 13121 of April 30, 1999
Blocking Property of the Governments of the Federal Repub-
lic of Yugoslavia (Serbia and Montenegro), the Republic of
Serbia, and the Republic of Montenegro, and Prohibiting
Trade Transactions Involving the Federal Republic of Yugo-
slavia (Serbia and Montenegro) in Response to the Situation
in Kosovo
By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the
laws of the United States of America, including the International Emergency
Economic Powers Act (IEEPA) (50 U.S.C. 1701 et seq.), the National Emer-
gencies Act (50 U.S.C. 1601 et seq.), and section 301 of title 3, United
States Code,
I, WILLIAM J. CLINTON, President of the United States of America, in
order to take additional steps with respect to the continuing human rights
and humanitarian crisis in Kosovo and the national emergency described
and declared in Executive Order 13088 of June 9, 1998, hereby order:
Section 1. Amendment to Executive Order 13088. (a) Section 1(a) of Executive
Order 13088 of June 9, 1998, is revised to read as follows:
‘‘Section 1. (a) Except to the extent provided in section 203(b) of IEEPA
(50 U.S.C. 1702(b)), and in regulations, orders, directives, or licenses that
may hereafter be issued pursuant to this order, all property and interests
in property of the Governments of the Federal Republic of Yugoslavia
(Serbia and Montenegro), the Republic of Serbia, and the Republic of
Montenegro that are in the United States, that hereafter come within
the United States, or that are or hereafter come within the possession
or control of United States persons, including their overseas branches,
are hereby blocked.’’
(b) Section 2 of Executive Order 13088 is hereby revoked, and a new
section 2 is added to read as follows:
‘‘Sec. 2. Except to the extent provided in section 203(b) of IEEPA (50
U.S.C. 1702(b)) and in regulations, orders, directives, or licenses that may
hereafter be issued pursuant to this order, and notwithstanding any contract
entered into or any license or permit granted prior to the effective date
of this order, the following are prohibited:
‘‘(a) the exportation, reexportation, sale, or supply, directly or indirectly,
from the United States, or by a United States person, wherever located,
to the Federal Republic of Yugoslavia (Serbia and Montenegro) or the
Government of the Federal Republic of Yugoslavia (Serbia and Monte-
negro), the Government of the Republic of Serbia, or the Government
of the Republic of Montenegro, of any goods (including petroleum and
petroleum products), software, technology (including technical data), or
services;
‘‘(b) the importation into the United States, directly or indirectly, of
any goods, software, technology (including technical data), or services
from the Federal Republic of Yugoslavia (Serbia and Montenegro) or owned
or controlled by the Government of the Federal Republic of Yugoslavia
(Serbia and Montenegro), the Government of the Republic of Serbia, or
the Government of the Republic of Montenegro; and
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Federal Register / Vol. 64, No. 86 / Wednesday, May 5, 1999 / Presidential Documents
‘‘(c) any transaction or dealing by a United States person, wherever
located, in goods, software, technology (including technical data), or serv-
ices, regardless of country of origin, for exportation, reexportation, sale,
or supply to, or exportation from or by, the Federal Republic of Yugoslavia
(Serbia and Montenegro) or the Government of the Federal Republic of
Yugoslavia (Serbia and Montenegro), the Government of the Republic of
Serbia, or the Government of the Republic of Montenegro. This prohibition
includes, without limitation, purchase, sale, transport, swap, or brokerage
transactions in such items, and approving, financing, insuring, facilitating,
or guaranteeing any such transactions.’’
(c) Section 4 of Executive Order 13088 is revised to read as follows:
‘‘Sec. 4. Any transaction by a United States person that evades or
avoids, or has the purpose of evading or avoiding, or attempts to violate,
any of the prohibitions set forth in this order is prohibited. Any conspiracy
formed to violate the prohibitions of this order is prohibited.’’
(d) Section 7 of Executive Order 13088 is revised to read as follows:
‘‘Sec. 7. (a) The Secretary of the Treasury, in consultation with the
Secretary of State, shall give special consideration to the circumstances
of the Government of the Republic of Montenegro and persons located
in and organized under the laws of the Republic of Montenegro in the
implementation of this order.
‘‘(b) The Secretary of the Treasury, in consultation with the Secretary
of State, shall give special consideration to the humanitarian needs of
refugees from Kosovo and other civilians within the Federal Republic
of Yugoslavia (Serbia and Montenegro) in the implementation of this order.
‘‘(c) The Secretary of the Treasury, in consultation with the Secretary
of State, is hereby directed to authorize commercial sales of agricultural
commodities and products, medicine, and medical equipment for civilian
end use in the territory of the Federal Republic of Yugoslavia (Serbia
and Montenegro) under appropriate safeguards to prevent diversion to
military, paramilitary, or political use by the Government of the Federal
Republic of Yugoslavia (Serbia and Montenegro), the Government of the
Republic of Serbia, or the Government of the Republic of Montenegro.’’
Sec. 2. Preservation of Authorities. Nothing in this order is intended to
affect the continued effectiveness of any rules, regulations, orders, licenses,
or other forms of administrative action issued, taken, or continued in effect
heretofore or hereafter under the authority of IEEPA, except as hereafter
terminated, modified, or suspended by the issuing Federal agency.
Sec. 3. No rights or privileges conferred. Nothing contained in this order
shall confer any substantive or procedural right or privilege on any person
or organization, enforceable against the United States, its agencies or its
officers.
Sec. 4. (a) Effective date. This order is effective at 12:01 a.m. eastern daylight
time on May 1, 1999.
(b) Transmittal; Publication. This order shall be transmitted to the Congress
and published in the Federal Register.
œ–
THE WHITE HOUSE,
April 30, 1999.
[FR Doc. 99–11410
Filed 5–4–99; 8:45 am]
Billing code 3195–01–P
| Blocking Property of the Governments of the Federal Republic of Yugoslavia (Serbia and Montenegro), the Republic of Serbia, and the Republic of Montenegro, and Prohibiting Trade Transactions Involving the Federal Republic of Yugoslavia (Serbia and Montenegro) in Response to the Situation in Kosovo | 1999-04-30T00:00:00 | aab5c4d45a3c53f4c06201e8323624801dd0a04023b3de2d062a12478bc74533 |
Presidential Executive Order | 99-9738 (13119) | Presidential Documents
18797
Federal Register
Vol. 64, No. 73
Friday, April 16, 1999
Title 3—
The President
Executive Order 13119 of April 13, 1999
Designation of Federal Republic of Yugoslavia (Serbia/Monte-
negro), Albania, the Airspace Above, and Adjacent Waters as
a Combat Zone
Pursuant to the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution
and laws of the United States of America, including section 112 of the
Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 112), I designate, for the purposes
of that section, the following locations, including the airspace above such
locations, as an area in which Armed Forces of the United States are and
have been engaged in combat:
—
The Federal Republic of Yugoslavia (Serbia/Montenegro);
—
Albania;
—
the Adriatic Sea;
—
the Ionian Sea north of the 39th parallel.
For the purposes of this order, I designate March 24, 1999, as the date
of the commencement of combatant activities in such zone.
œ–
THE WHITE HOUSE,
April 13, 1999.
[FR Doc. 99–9738
Filed 4–15–99; 8:45 am]
Billing code 3195–01–P
| Designation of Federal Republic of Yugoslavia (Serbia/Montenegro), Albania, the Airspace Above, and Adjacent Waters as a Combat Zone | 1999-04-13T00:00:00 | 5b6dcde997c3588c71098f1001683f4a58d1fc7cb3253d66cae347f78fa2e6b3 |
Presidential Executive Order | 99-8509 (13117) | Presidential Documents
16591
Federal Register
Vol. 64, No. 64
Monday, April 5, 1999
Title 3—
The President
Executive Order 13117 of March 31, 1999
Further Amendment to Executive Order 12981, as Amended
By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the
laws of the United States of America and in order to further the implementa-
tion of the reorganization of the Arms Control and Disarmament Agency
(ACDA) into the Department of State, in this instance by eliminating ACDA’s
vote on dual-use export license decisions in the administration of export
controls, it is hereby ordered that Executive Order 12981, as amended (‘‘Exec-
utive Order 12981’’), is further amended as follows:
Section 1. The second sentence of section 1 of Executive Order 12981
is amended by deleting ‘‘, and the Arms Control and Disarmament Agency’’.
Sec. 2. The second sentence of section 5(a)(1)(A) of Executive Order 12981
is amended by adding ‘‘and’’ after ‘‘the Secretary of Defense’’ and before
‘‘the Secretary of Energy,’’ and deleting ‘‘, and the Director of the Arms
Control and Disarmament Agency.’’
Sec. 3. The first sentence of section 5(a)(2) of Executive Order 12981 is
amended by deleting ‘‘, and the Arms Control and Disarmament Agency.’’
Sec. 4. The second sentence of section 5(a)(3)(A) of Executive Order 12981
is amended by deleting ‘‘, and the Arms Control and Disarmament Agency.’’
Sec. 5. The first sentence of section 6 of Executive Order 12981 is amended
by deleting ‘‘and the Arms Control and Disarmament Agency’’.
œ–
THE WHITE HOUSE,
March 31, 1999.
[FR Doc. 99–8509
Filed 4–2–99; 8:45 am]
Billing code 3195–01–P
| Further Amendment to Executive Order 12981, as Amended | 1999-03-31T00:00:00 | d49404d854f1495952d8aadf6e7957c824b9886244afc791fababde27a2c9bf6 |
Presidential Executive Order | 99-8433 (13116) | Presidential Documents
16333
Federal Register
Vol. 64, No. 64
Monday, April 5, 1999
Title 3—
The President
Executive Order 13116 of March 31, 1999
Identification
of
Trade
Expansion
Priorities
and
Discriminatory Procurement Practices
By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the
laws of the United States of America, including title III of the Act of
March 3, 1993, as amended (41 U.S.C. 10d), sections 141 and 301–310
of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended (the Act) (19 U.S.C. 2171, 2411–
2420), title III of the Trade Agreements Act of 1979, as amended (19 U.S.C.
2511–2518), and section 301 of title 3, United States Code, and to ensure
that the trade policies of the United States advance, to the greatest extent
possible, the export of the products and services of the United States and
that trade policy resources are used efficiently, it is hereby ordered as
follows:
PART I: IDENTIFICATION OF TRADE EXPANSION PRIORITIES
Section 1. Identification and Annual Report. (a) Within 30 days of the
submission of the National Trade Estimate Report required by section 181(b)
of the Act (19 U.S.C. 2241(b)) for 1999, 2000, and 2001, the United States
Trade Representative (Trade Representative) shall review United States trade
expansion priorities and identify priority foreign country practices, the elimi-
nation of which is likely to have the most significant potential to increase
United States exports, either directly or through the establishment of a
beneficial precedent. The Trade Representative shall submit to the Committee
on Finance of the Senate and the Committee on Ways and Means of the
House of Representatives, and shall publish in the Federal Register, a report
on the priority foreign country practices identified.
(b) In identifying priority foreign country practices under paragraph (a)
of this section, the Trade Representative shall take into account all relevant
factors, including:
(1)
the major barriers and trade distorting practices described in
the National Trade Estimate Report;
(2)
the trade agreements to which a foreign country is a party
and its compliance with those agreements;
(3)
the medium-term and long-term implications of foreign gov-
ernment procurement plans; and
(4)
the international competitive position and export potential of
United States products and services.
(c) The Trade Representative may include in the report, if appropriate,
a description of the foreign country practices that may in the future warrant
identification as priority foreign country practices. The Trade Representative
also may include a statement about other foreign country practices that
were not identified because they are already being addressed by provisions
of United States trade law, existing bilateral trade agreements, or in trade
negotiations with other countries and progress is being made toward their
elimination.
Sec. 2. Resolution. Upon submission of the report required by paragraph
(a) of section 1 of this part, the Trade Representative shall, with respect
to any priority foreign country practice identified therein, engage the country
concerned for the purpose of seeking a satisfactory resolution, for example,
by obtaining compliance with a trade agreement or the elimination of the
practice as quickly as possible, or, if this is not feasible, by providing
for compensatory trade benefits.
16334
Federal Register / Vol. 64, No. 64 / Monday, April 5, 1999 / Presidential Documents
Sec. 3. Initiation of Investigations. Within 90 days of the submission of
the report required by paragraph (a) of section 1 of this part, the Trade
Representative shall initiate under section 302(b)(1) of the Act (19 U.S.C.
2412(b)(1)) investigations with respect to all of the priority foreign country
practices identified, unless during the 90-day period the Trade Representative
determines that a satisfactory resolution of the matter to be investigated
has been achieved.
PART II: IDENTIFICATION OF DISCRIMINATORY GOVERNMENT PROCUREMENT PRACTICES
Section 1. Identification and Annual Report. (a) Within 30 days of the
submission of the National Trade Estimate Report for 1999, 2000, and 2001,
the Trade Representative shall submit to the Committees on Finance and
on Governmental Affairs of the Senate and the Committees on Ways and
Means and Government Reform and Oversight of the House of Representa-
tives, and shall publish in the Federal Register, a report on the extent
to which foreign countries discriminate against U.S. products or services
in making government procurements.
(b) In the report, the Trade Representative shall identify countries that:
(1)
are not in compliance with their obligations under the World
Trade Organization Agreement on Government Procurement
(the GPA), Chapter 10 of the North American Free Trade
Agreement (NAFTA), or other agreements relating to govern-
ment procurement (procurement agreements) to which that
country and the United States are parties; or
(2)
maintain, in government procurement, a significant and per-
sistent pattern or practice of discrimination against U.S. prod-
ucts or services that results in identifiable harm to U.S. busi-
nesses and whose products or services are acquired in signifi-
cant amounts by the United States Government.
Sec. 2. Considerations in Making Identifications. In making the identifications
required by section 1 of this part, the Trade Representative shall: (a) consider
the requirements of the GPA, NAFTA, or other procurement agreements,
government procurement practices, and the effects of such practices on
U.S. businesses as a basis for evaluating whether the procurement practices
of foreign governments do not provide fair market opportunities for U.S.
products or services;
(b) take into account, among other factors, whether and to what extent
countries that are parties to the GPA, NAFTA, or other procurement agree-
ments, and other countries described in section 1 of this part:
(1)
use sole-sourcing or otherwise noncompetitive procedures for
procurement that could have been conducted using competi-
tive procedures;
(2)
conduct what normally would have been one procurement as
two or more procurements, to decrease the anticipated con-
tract values below the value threshold of the GPA, NAFTA, or
other procurement agreements, or to make the procurement
less attractive to U.S. businesses;
(3)
announce procurement opportunities with inadequate time
intervals for U.S. businesses to submit bids; and
(4)
use specifications in such a way as to limit the ability of U.S.
suppliers to participate in procurements; and
(c) consider information included in the National Trade Estimate Report,
and any other additional criteria deemed appropriate, including, to the extent
such information is available, the failure to apply transparent and competitive
procedures or maintain and enforce effective prohibitions on bribery and
other corrupt practices in connection with government procurement.
Sec. 3. Impact of Noncompliance and Denial of Comparable Treatment.
The Trade Representative shall take into account, in identifying countries
in the annual report and in any action required by this part, the relative
impact of any noncompliance with the GPA, NAFTA, or other procurement
agreements, or of other discrimination on U.S. commerce, and the extent
16335
Federal Register / Vol. 64, No. 64 / Monday, April 5, 1999 / Presidential Documents
to which such noncompliance or discrimination has impeded the ability
of U.S. suppliers to participate in procurements on terms comparable to
those available to suppliers of the country in question when seeking to
sell goods or services to the United States Government.
Sec. 4. Resolution. Upon submission of the report required by section 1
of this part, the Trade Representative shall engage any country identified
therein for the purpose of seeking a satisfactory resolution, for example,
by obtaining compliance with the GPA, NAFTA, or other procurement agree-
ments or the elimination of the discriminatory procurement practices as
quickly as possible, or, if this is not feasible, by providing for compensatory
trade benefits.
Sec. 5. Initiation of Investigations. (a) Within 90 days of the submission
of the report required by section 1 of this part, the Trade Representative
shall initiate under section 302(b)(1) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 2412(b)(1)) inves-
tigations with respect to any practice that:
(1)
was the basis for the identification of a country under section
1; and
(2)
is not at that time the subject of any other investigation or ac-
tion under title III, chapter 1, of the Act,
unless during the 90-day period the Trade Representative determines that
a satisfactory resolution of the matter to be investigated has been achieved.
(b) For investigations initiated under paragraph (a) of this section (other
than an investigation involving the GPA or NAFTA), the Trade Representative
shall apply the time limits and procedures in section 304(a)(3) of the Act
(19 U.S.C. 2414(a)(3)). The time limits in subsection 304(a)(3)(B) of the
Act (19 U.S.C. 2414(a)(3)(B)) shall apply if the Trade Representative deter-
mines that:
(1)
complex or complicated issues are involved in the investiga-
tion that require additional time;
(2)
the foreign country involved in the investigation is making
substantial progress in drafting or implementing legislative or
administrative measures that will end the discriminatory pro-
curement practice; or
(3)
such foreign country is undertaking enforcement measures to
end the discriminatory procurement practice.
PART III: DIRECTION
Section 1. Presidential Direction. The authorities delegated pursuant to this
order shall be exercised subject to any subsequent direction by the President
in a particular matter.
Sec. 2. Consultations and Advice. In developing the annual reports required
by part I and part II of this order, the Trade Representative shall consult
with executive agencies and seek information and advice from U.S. busi-
nesses in the United States and in the countries involved in the practices
under consideration.
œ–
THE WHITE HOUSE,
March 31, 1999.
[FR Doc. 99–8433
Filed 4–2–99; 8:45 am]
Billing code 3195–01–P
| Identification of Trade Expansion Priorities and Discriminatory Procurement Practices | 1999-03-31T00:00:00 | fbc0d62e4029962ae56cfb8d369f704ad27ec4005f0a2cb8dbcbb4d0f420acbf |
Presidential Executive Order | 99-8547 (13118) | Presidential Documents
16595
Federal Register
Vol. 64, No. 64
Monday, April 5, 1999
Title 3—
The President
Executive Order 13118 of March 31, 1999
Implementation of the Foreign Affairs Reform and Restruc-
turing Act of 1998
By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the
laws of the United States of America, including section 621 of the Foreign
Assistance Act of 1961, as amended (22 U.S.C. 2381), and section 301
of title 3, United States Code, it is hereby ordered as follows:
Section 1. Part 1–1 of Executive Order 12163, as amended, is amended
to read as follows:
‘‘1–1. DEPARTMENT OF STATE
‘‘1–100. Delegation of Functions. (a) Exclusive of the functions otherwise
delegated, or reserved to the President, by this order, Executive Order 12884,
Executive Order 11579, and Executive Order 12757, and subject to the
provisions of such orders, there are hereby delegated to the Secretary of
State (referred to in this Part as the ‘‘Secretary’’) all functions conferred
upon the President by:
‘‘(1) the Foreign Assistance Act of 1961 (22 U.S.C. 2151 et seq.) (‘‘Act’’);
(i)
except that with respect to section 505(a) of the Act, such
functions only insofar as those functions relate to other provi-
sions which may be required by the President or only insofar
as they relate to consent;
(ii)
except that with respect to section 505(b) of the Act, such
functions only insofar as those functions pertain to countries
that agree to the conditions set forth therein;
‘‘(2) section 1205(b) of the International Security and Development Co-
operation Act of 1985 (‘‘ISDCA of 1985’’);
‘‘(3) section 8(d) of the Act of January 12, 1971 (22 U.S.C. 2321b(d));
‘‘(4) section 607 of the International Security Assistance and Arms Export
Control Act of 1976 (22 U.S.C. 2394a);
‘‘(5) section 402(b)(2) of title 10, United States Code, which shall be
exercised in consultation with the Secretary of Defense;
‘‘(6) the third proviso under the heading ‘‘Development Assistance’’
contained in title II of the Foreign Operations, Export Financing, and
Related Programs Appropriations Act, 1999 (as contained in Public Law
105–277);
‘‘(7) section 572 of the Foreign Operations, Export Financing, and Related
Programs Appropriations Act, 1989 (Public Law 100–461);
‘‘(8) sections 508, 517, 518, 528(a), 535, 539, 544, 561, 563, 572, 574,
575, 585, 594 of the Foreign Operations, Export Financing, and Related
Programs Appropriations Act, 1999 (as contained in Public Law 105–
277);
‘‘(9) section 523 of the Foreign Operations, Export Financing, and Related
Programs Appropriations Act, 1999 (as contained in Public Law 105–
277), which shall be exercised in consultation with the Secretary of the
Treasury;
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Federal Register / Vol. 64, No. 64 / Monday, April 5, 1999 / Presidential Documents
‘‘(10) section 551 of the Foreign Operations, Export Financing, and
Related Programs Appropriations Act, 1999 (as contained in Public Law
105–277);
‘‘(11) section 591 of the Foreign Operations, Export Financing, and
Related Programs Appropriations Act, 1998 (Public Law 105–118), and
the provisions of law referenced therein;
‘‘(12) section 821(b) of the Western Hemisphere Drug Elimination Act
(as contained in Public Law 105–277).
‘‘(b) The functions under section 653 of the Act delegated to the Secretary
shall be exercised in consultation with the Secretary of Defense, insofar
as they relate to functions under the Act administered by the Department
of Defense, and the Director of the Office of Management and Budget.
‘‘(c) The functions under sections 239(f), 620(e), 620(g), 620(j), 620(q),
and 620(s) of the Act delegated to the Secretary shall be exercised in consulta-
tion with the Administrator of the United States Agency for International
Development.
‘‘(d) The Secretary shall perform all public information functions abroad
with respect to the foreign assistance, aid, and development programs of
the United States Government, to the extent such functions are not specifi-
cally assigned by statute to be performed by a different officer.
‘‘(e) The Secretary may redelegate to any other officer or agency of the
Executive branch functions delegated to the Secretary by this order to the
extent such delegation is not otherwise prohibited by law.’’.
Sec. 2. Part 1–2 of Executive Order 12163, as amended, is amended to
read as follows:
‘‘1–2. UNITED STATES AGENCY FOR INTERNATIONAL DEVELOPMENT
‘‘1–200. United States Agency for International Development.
‘‘(a) The United States Agency for International Development is an inde-
pendent establishment within the Executive branch. Any reference in the
Act to the agency primarily responsible for administering part I of the
Act, or to the Administrator of such agency, shall be deemed to be a
reference to the United States Agency for International Development or
to the Administrator of that agency, as appropriate.
‘‘(b) The United States Agency for International Development shall be
headed by an Administrator appointed pursuant to section 624(a) of the
Act.
‘‘(c) The officers provided for in section 624(a) of the Act shall serve
in the United States Agency for International Development.
‘‘(d) The Office of Small Business provided for in section 602(b) of the
Act shall be in the United States Agency for International Development.
‘‘(e) To the extent practicable, the Administrator of the United States
Agency for International Development will exercise functions relating to
Foreign Service personnel in a manner that will assure maximum compat-
ibility among agencies authorized by law to utilize the Foreign Service
personnel system. To this end, the Administrator shall consult regularly
with the Secretary of State.’’.
Sec. 3. Part 1–3 of Executive Order 12163, as amended, is amended in
section 301(c) by striking ‘‘part II of the Act (except chapters 4, 6, and
8 thereof)’’ and inserting in lieu thereof ‘‘chapters 2 and 5 of part II of
the Act’’.
Sec. 4. Part 1–4 of Executive Order 12163, as amended, is revoked.
Sec. 5. Part 1–5 of Executive Order 12163, as amended, is amended as
follows:
(1) in section 1–501(c), by striking ‘‘Director, as provided in Executive
Order 11269 of February 14, 1966, as amended’’ and inserting in lieu
thereof ‘‘Secretary of State’’;
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Federal Register / Vol. 64, No. 64 / Monday, April 5, 1999 / Presidential Documents
(2) section 1–504 is revoked;
(3) section 1–505 is amended to read as follows:
‘‘1–505. Trade and Development Agency. There is delegated to the Director
of the Trade and Development Agency the functions conferred upon the
President by section 661(d) of the Act.’’;
(4) section 1–506 is revoked.
Sec. 6. Part 1–6 of Executive Order 12163, as amended, is amended as
follows:
(1) in section 1–602, by striking ‘‘Director of IDCA, the Director’’ and
inserting in lieu thereof ‘‘Secretary of State, the Secretary’’; and
(2) in section 1–604, by striking ‘‘, title IV of the IDC Act of 1979
or section 402 of the Mutual Security Act of 1954’’.
Sec. 7. Part 1–7 of Executive Order 12163, as amended, is amended as
follows:
(1) in section 1–701(a)—
(A) by striking ‘‘662(a),’’; and
(B) by inserting ‘‘493,’’ after ‘‘298(a),’’;
(2) by striking section 1–701(b), and redesignating subsections ‘‘(c)’’
and ‘‘(d)’’ as subsections ‘‘(b)’’ and ‘‘(c)’’, respectively;
(3) in section 1–701(c) (as redesignated by this section)—
(A) by inserting ‘‘209(d),’’ before ‘‘303’’;
(B) by striking ‘‘481’’ and inserting in lieu thereof ‘‘490’’; and
(C) by striking ‘‘, 669(b)(1), 670(a), 670(b)(2), and 670(b)(3)’’;
(4) in section 1–701(g), by striking ‘‘131,’’;
(5) in section 1–702—
(A) by striking ‘‘Director’’ and inserting in lieu thereof ‘‘Secretary’’;
and
(B) by striking ‘‘IDCA’’ and inserting in lieu thereof ‘‘the Department
of State’’;
(6) by adding a new section 1–703 to read as follows:
‘‘1–703. Office of Management and Budget. In this order the Director
of the Office of Management and Budget shall retain all authorities re-
lated to the implementation of his budgetary and policy coordination
functions, including the authority to:
(a)
request and receive information from any agency that is
subject to this delegation;
(b)
carry out all responsibilities associated with implementing
the Government Performance and Results Act, the Govern-
ment Management Reform Act, and other comparable gov-
ernment-wide statutes dealing with management; and
(c)
carry out all statutory budget and policy coordination re-
sponsibilities assigned to the Director of the Office of Man-
agement and Budget by statute or Executive order.
Sec. 8. Part 1–8 of Executive Order 12163, as amended, is amended to
read as follows:
‘‘1–8 FUNDS
‘‘1–800. Allocation of Funds. Funds described below that are appropriated
or otherwise made available to the President shall be deemed to be allocated
without any further action of the President, as follows:
‘‘(a) Except as provided in subsections (b) and (c), there are allocated
to the Secretary all funds made available for carrying out the Act, including
any funds appropriated under the heading ‘‘Nonproliferation, Anti-Terrorism,
Demining and Related Programs’’.
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‘‘(b) There are allocated to the Secretary of Defense all funds made available
for carrying out chapters 2 and 5 of Part II of the Act.
‘‘(c) There are allocated to the Secretary of the Treasury all funds made
available for carrying out section 129 of the Act.
‘‘(d) The Secretary of State, the Secretary of Defense, and the Secretary
of the Treasury may allocate or transfer as appropriate any funds received
under subsections (a), (b), and (c) of this section, respectively, to any agency
or part thereof for obligation or expenditure thereby consistent with applica-
ble law.
Sec. 9. Part 1–9 of Executive Order 12163, as amended, is amended as
follows: (1) in section 1–902(c), by striking ‘‘hereafter-enacted’’; and (2)
by revoking sections 1–903(c) and 1–903(d).
Sec. 10. The following Executive orders are revoked or amended:
(1) Executive Order 12884 of December 1, 1993, is amended—
(a) in section 3, by striking the section heading and all that follows
through ‘‘by:’’, and inserting in lieu thereof ‘‘Secretary of State-Additional
Functions. There are delegated to the Secretary of State the functions
conferred upon the President by:’’; and
(b) in section 6(a), by striking ‘‘3, 4, and 5’’ and inserting in lieu
thereof ‘‘4 and 5’’.
(2) Executive Order 12703 of February 20, 1990, is amended by amending
section 2 to read as follows:
‘‘Sec. 2. Department of State. The functions conferred upon the President
by section 201 of the Act relating to Enterprise Funds for Poland and
Hungary are hereby delegated to the Secretary of State.’’.
(3) Executive Order 12599 of June 23, 1987, is revoked.
(4) Executive Order 12293 of February 23, 1981, is amended—
(A) in section 2, by striking ‘‘Director of the United States International
Development Cooperation Agency’’ and inserting in lieu thereof ‘‘Adminis-
trator of the United States Agency for International Development’’; and
(B) in section 9, by striking ‘‘United States International Development
Cooperation Agency’’ and inserting in lieu thereof ‘‘United States Agency
for International Development’’ in both places this phrase appears.
(5) Executive Order 12301 of March 26, 1981, is amended in subsection
(b)(23) by striking ‘‘Director of the United States 8International Development
Cooperation Agency’’ and inserting in lieu thereof ‘‘Administrator of the
United States Agency for International Development’’.
(6) Executive Order 12188 of January 2, 1980, is amended by striking
‘‘Director of the United States International Development Cooperation Agen-
cy’’ and inserting in lieu thereof ‘‘Administrator of the United States Agency
for International Development’’.
(7) Executive Order 12260 of December 31, 1980, is amended in the
annex thereto, by striking ‘‘United States International Development Coopera-
tion Agency’’ and inserting in lieu thereof ‘‘United States Agency for Inter-
national Development’’.
(8) Executive Order 11958 of January 18, 1977, is amended in section
2 by striking ‘‘the Director of the United States International Development
Cooperation Agency, the Director of the Arms Control and Disarmament
Agency,’’.
(9) Executive Order 11269 of February 14, 1966, is amended—
(A) in section 1(b), by striking ‘‘Director of the International Development
Cooperation Agency’’ and inserting in lieu thereof ‘‘Administrator of the
United States Agency for International Development’’;
(B) in section 4(a), by striking ‘‘Director of the International Development
Cooperation Agency’’ and inserting in lieu thereof ‘‘Secretary of State’’,
in both places that it appears; and
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(C) in section 7, by striking ‘‘Functions of the Director of the International
Development Cooperation Agency. As the principal international develop-
ment advisor to the President, the Director of the International Development
Cooperation Agency’’ and inserting in lieu thereof ‘‘Functions of the Sec-
retary of State. The Secretary of State’’.
(10) Executive Order 11223 of May 12, 1965, is amended by striking
‘‘Director of the United States International Development Cooperation Agency
(with respect to functions vested in or delegated to the Director)’’ and
inserting in lieu thereof ‘‘Administrator of the United States Agency for
International Development (with respect to functions vested in or delegated
to the Administrator)’’.
(11) The Memorandum for the Secretary of State of March 23, 1999,
entitled ‘‘Delegation of Authority Under Section 577 of the Foreign Oper-
ations, Export Financing, and Related Programs Appropriations Act, 1999
(as contained in Public Law 105–277)’’, is amended by deleting the second
sentence therein.
Sec. 11. The provisions of this order shall become effective as of April
1, 1999, except that the authority contained in section 1–100(d), and the
amendment made by section 5(2) of this order, shall become effective as
of October 1, 1999.
œ–
THE WHITE HOUSE,
March 31, 1999.
[FR Doc. 99–8547
Filed 4–2–99; 10:35 am]
Billing code 3195–01–P
| Implementation of the Foreign Affairs Reform and Restructuring Act of 1998 | 1999-03-31T00:00:00 | e8915c308ebb6c5b065f10308266641d56d3ec1b3b59b0c6bb112edcbbc3d211 |
Presidential Executive Order | 99-26078 (13139) | Presidential Documents
54175
Federal Register
Vol. 64, No. 192
Tuesday, October 5, 1999
Title 3—
The President
Executive Order 13139 of September 30, 1999
Improving Health Protection of Military Personnel Partici-
pating in Particular Military Operations
By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the
laws of the United States of America, including section 1107 of title 10,
United States Code, and in order to provide the best health protection
to military personnel participating in particular military operations, it is
hereby ordered as follows:
Section 1. Policy. Military personnel deployed in particular military oper-
ations could potentially be exposed to a range of chemical, biological, and
radiological weapons as well as diseases endemic to an area of operations.
It is the policy of the United States Government to provide our military
personnel with safe and effective vaccines, antidotes, and treatments that
will negate or minimize the effects of these health threats.
Sec. 2. Administration of Investigational New Drugs to Members of the
Armed Forces.
(a) The Secretary of Defense (Secretary) shall collect intelligence on poten-
tial health threats that might be encountered in an area of operations. The
Secretary shall work together with the Secretary of Health and Human
Services to ensure appropriate countermeasures are developed. When the
Secretary considers an investigational new drug or a drug unapproved for
its intended use (investigational drug) to represent the most appropriate
countermeasure, it shall be studied through scientifically based research
and development protocols to determine whether it is safe and effective
for its intended use.
(b) It is the expectation that the United States Government will administer
products approved for their intended use by the Food and Drug Administra-
tion (FDA). However, in the event that the Secretary considers a product
to represent the most appropriate countermeasure for diseases endemic to
the area of operations or to protect against possible chemical, biological,
or radiological weapons, but the product has not yet been approved by
the FDA for its intended use, the product may, under certain circumstances
and strict controls, be administered to provide potential protection for the
health and well-being of deployed military personnel in order to ensure
the success of the military operation. The provisions of 21 CFR Part 312
contain the FDA requirements for investigational new drugs.
Sec. 3. Informed Consent Requirements and Waiver Provisions.
(a) Before administering an investigational drug to members of the Armed
Forces, the Department of Defense (DoD) must obtain informed consent
from each individual unless the Secretary can justify to the President a
need for a waiver of informed consent in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1107(f).
Waivers of informed consent will be granted only when absolutely necessary.
(b) In accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1107(f), the President may waive the
informed consent requirement for the administration of an investigational
drug to a member of the Armed Forces in connection with the member’s
participation in a particular military operation, upon a written determination
by the President that obtaining consent:
(1) is not feasible;
(2) is contrary to the best interests of the member; or
(3) is not in the interests of national security.
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(c) In making a determination to waive the informed consent requirement
on a ground described in subsection (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section, the
President is required by law to apply the standards and criteria set forth
in the relevant FDA regulations, 21 CFR 50.23(d). In determining a waiver
based on subsection (b)(3) of this section, the President will also consider
the standards and criteria of the relevant FDA regulations.
(d) The Secretary may request that the President waive the informed
consent requirement with respect to the administration of an investigational
drug. The Secretary may not delegate the authority to make this waiver
request. At a minimum, the waiver request shall contain:
(1) A full description of the threat, including the potential for exposure.
If the threat is a chemical, biological, or radiological weapon, the waiver
request shall contain an analysis of the probability the weapon will be
used, the method or methods of delivery, and the likely magnitude of
its affect on an exposed individual.
(2) Documentation that the Secretary has complied with 21 CFR 50.23(d).
This documentation shall include:
(A) A statement that certifies and a written justification that docu-
ments that each of the criteria and standards set forth in 21 CFR
50.23(d) has been met; or
(B) If the Secretary finds it highly impracticable to certify that the cri-
teria and standards set forth in 21 CFR 50.23(d) have been fully met
because doing so would significantly impair the Secretary’s ability to
carry out the particular military mission, a written justification that
documents which criteria and standards have or have not been met,
explains the reasons for failing to meet any of the criteria and stand-
ards, and provides additional justification why a waiver should be
granted solely in the interests of national security.
(3) Any additional information pertinent to the Secretary’s determination,
including the minutes of the Institutional Review Board’s (IRB) delibera-
tions and the IRB members’ voting record.
(e) The Secretary shall develop the waiver request in consultation with
the FDA.
(f) The Secretary shall submit the waiver request to the President and
provide a copy to the Commissioner of the FDA (Commissioner).
(g) The Commissioner shall expeditiously review the waiver request and
certify to the Assistant to the President for National Security Affairs (APNSA)
and the Assistant to the President for Science and Technology (APST) wheth-
er the standards and criteria of the relevant FDA regulations have been
adequately addressed and whether the investigational new drug protocol
may proceed subject to a decision by the President on the informed consent
waiver request. FDA shall base its decision on, and the certification shall
include an analysis describing, the extent and strength of the evidence
on the safety and effectiveness of the investigational new drug in relation
to the medical risk that could be encountered during the military operation.
(h) The APNSA and APST will prepare a joint advisory opinion as to
whether the waiver of informed consent should be granted and will forward
it, along with the waiver request and the FDA certification to the President.
(i) The President will approve or deny the waiver request and will provide
written notification of the decision to the Secretary and the Commissioner.
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Sec. 4. Required Action After Waiver is Issued. (a) Following a Presidential
waiver under 10 U.S.C. 1107(f), the DoD offices responsible for implementing
the waiver, DoD’s Office of the Inspector General, and the FDA, consistent
with its regulatory role, will conduct an ongoing review and monitoring
to assess adherence to the standards and criteria under 21 CFR 50.23(d)
and this order. The responsible DoD offices shall also adhere to any periodic
reporting requirements specified by the President at the time of the waiver
approval. The Secretary shall submit the findings to the President and provide
a copy to the Commissioner.
(b) The Secretary shall, as soon as practicable, make the congressional
notifications required by 10 U.S.C. 1107(f)(2)(B).
(c) The Secretary shall, as soon as practicable and consistent with classifica-
tion requirements, issue a public notice in the Federal Register describing
each waiver of informed consent determination and a summary of the most
updated scientific information on the products used, as well as other informa-
tion the President determines is appropriate.
(d) The waiver will expire at the end of 1 year (or an alternative time
period not to exceed 1 year, specified by the President at the time of
approval), or when the Secretary informs the President that the particular
military operation creating the need for the use of the investigational drug
has ended, whichever is earlier. The President may revoke the waiver based
on changed circumstances or for any other reason. If the Secretary seeks
to renew a waiver prior to its expiration, the Secretary must submit to
the President an updated request, specifically identifying any new informa-
tion available relevant to the standards and criteria under 21 CFR 50.23(d).
To request to renew a waiver, the Secretary must satisfy the criteria for
a waiver as described in section 3 of this order.
(e) The Secretary shall notify the President and the Commissioner if the
threat countered by the investigational drug changes significantly or if signifi-
cant new information on the investigational drug is received.
Sec. 5. Training for Military Personnel. (a) The DoD shall provide ongoing
training and health risk communication on the requirements of using an
investigational drug in support of a military operation to all military per-
sonnel, including those in leadership positions, during chemical and biologi-
cal warfare defense training and other training, as appropriate. This ongoing
training and health risk communication shall include general information
about 10 U.S.C. 1107 and 21 CFR 50.23(d).
(b) If the President grants a waiver under 10 U.S.C. 1107(f), the DoD
shall provide training to all military personnel conducting the waiver protocol
and health risk communication to all military personnel receiving the specific
investigational drug to be administered prior to its use.
(c) The Secretary shall submit the training and health risk communication
plans as part of the investigational new drug protocol submission to the
FDA and the reviewing IRB. Training and health risk communication shall
include at a minimum:
(1) The basis for any determination by the President that informed consent
is not or may not be feasible;
(2) The means for tracking use and adverse effects of the investigational
drug;
(3) The benefits and risks of using the investigational drug; and
(4) A statement that the investigational drug is not approved (or not
approved for the intended use).
(d) The DoD shall keep operational commanders informed of the overall
requirements of successful protocol execution and their role, with the support
of medical personnel, in ensuring successful execution of the protocol.
Sec. 6. Scope. (a) This order applies to the consideration and Presidential
approval of a waiver of informed consent under 10 U.S.C. 1107 and does
not apply to other FDA regulations.
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(b) This order is intended only to improve the internal management of
the Federal Government. Nothing contained in this order shall create any
right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable by any party against
the United States, its agencies or instrumentalities, its officers or employees,
or any other person.
œ–
THE WHITE HOUSE,
September 30, 1999.
[FR Doc. 99–26078
Filed 10–4–99; 8:45 am]
Billing code 3195–01–P
| Improving Health Protection of Military Personnel Participating in Particular Military Operations | 1999-09-30T00:00:00 | 62437dfc65fbda75bf5ed68ff4a22994935e57962032f84a60a2de284b6b791a |
Presidential Executive Order | 99-30346 (13141) | Presidential Documents
63169
Federal Register
Vol. 64, No. 222
Thursday, November 18, 1999
Title 3—
The President
Executive Order 13141 of November 16, 1999
Environmental Review of Trade Agreements
By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the
laws of the United States of America, and in order to further the environ-
mental and trade policy goals of the United States, it is hereby ordered
as follows:
Section 1. Policy. The United States is committed to a policy of careful
assessment and consideration of the environmental impacts of trade agree-
ments. The United States will factor environmental considerations into the
development of its trade negotiating objectives. Responsible agencies will
accomplish these goals through a process of ongoing assessment and evalua-
tion, and, in certain instances, written environmental reviews.
Sec. 2. Purpose and Need. Trade agreements should contribute to the broader
goal of sustainable development. Environmental reviews are an important
tool to help identify potential environmental effects of trade agreements,
both positive and negative, and to help facilitate consideration of appropriate
responses to those effects whether in the course of negotiations, through
other means, or both.
Sec. 3. (a) Implementation. The United States Trade Representative (Trade
Representative) and the Chair of the Council on Environmental Quality
shall oversee the implementation of this order, including the development
of procedures pursuant to this order, in consultation with appropriate foreign
policy, environmental, and economic agencies.
(b) Conduct of Environmental Reviews. The Trade Representative, through
the interagency Trade Policy Staff Committee (TPSC), shall conduct the
environmental reviews of the agreements under section 4 of this order.
Sec. 4. Trade Agreements.
(a) Certain agreements that the United States may negotiate shall require
an environmental review. These include:
(i) comprehensive multilateral trade rounds;
(ii) bilateral or plurilateral free trade agreements; and
(iii) major new trade liberalization agreements in natural resource sectors.
(b) Agreements reached in connection with enforcement and dispute resolu-
tion actions are not covered by this order.
(c) For trade agreements not covered under subsections 4(a) and (b), envi-
ronmental reviews will generally not be required. Most sectoral liberalization
agreements will not require an environmental review. The Trade Representa-
tive, through the TPSC, shall determine whether an environmental review
of an agreement or category of agreements is warranted based on such
factors as the significance of reasonably foreseeable environmental impacts.
Sec. 5. Environmental Reviews.
(a) Environmental reviews shall be:
(i) written;
(ii) initiated through a Federal Register notice, outlining the proposed
agreement and soliciting public comment and information on the scope
of the environmental review of the agreement;
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Federal Register / Vol. 64, No. 222 / Thursday, November 18, 1999 / Presidential Documents
(iii) undertaken sufficiently early in the process to inform the development
of negotiating positions, but shall not be a condition for the timely tabling
of particular negotiating proposals;
(iv) made available in draft form for public comment, where practicable;
and
(v) made available to the public in final form.
(b) As a general matter, the focus of environmental reviews will be impacts
in the United States. As appropriate and prudent, reviews may also examine
global and transboundary impacts.
Sec. 6. Resources. Upon request by the Trade Representative, with the concur-
rence of the Deputy Director for Management of the Office of Management
and Budget, Federal agencies shall, to the extent permitted by law and
subject to the availability of appropriations, provide analytical and financial
resources and support, including the detail of appropriate personnel, to
the Office of the United States Trade Representative to carry out the provi-
sions of this order.
Sec. 7. General Provisions. This order is intended only to improve the
internal management of the executive branch and does not create any right,
benefit, trust, or responsibility, substantive or procedural, enforceable at
law or equity by a party against the United States, its agencies, its officers,
or any person.
œ–
THE WHITE HOUSE,
November 16, 1999.
[FR Doc. 99–30346
Filed 11–17–99; 10:43 am]
Billing code 3195–01–P
| Environmental Review of Trade Agreements | 1999-11-16T00:00:00 | 77c2efdf0ed371c2f83f96ea4feb92100b32b46eb62364c197b7757284bbfb99 |
Presidential Executive Order | 2018-04860 (13825) | Presidential Documents
9889
Federal Register
Vol. 83, No. 46
Thursday, March 8, 2018
Title 3—
The President
Executive Order 13825 of March 1, 2018
2018 Amendments to the Manual for Courts-Martial, United
States
By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the
laws of the United States of America, including chapter 47 of title 10,
United States Code (Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ), 10 U.S.C.
801–946), and in order to prescribe amendments to the Manual for Courts-
Martial, United States, prescribed by Executive Order 12473 of April 13,
1984, as amended, it is hereby ordered as follows:
Section 1. Part II, Part III, and Part IV of the Manual for Courts-Martial,
United States, are amended as described in Annex 1, which is attached
to and made a part of this order.
Sec. 2. The amendments in Annex 1 shall take effect on the date of this
order, subject to the following:
(a) Nothing in Annex 1 shall be construed to make punishable any act
done or omitted prior to the date of this order that was not punishable
when done or omitted.
(b) Nothing in Annex 1 shall be construed to invalidate the prosecution
of any offense committed before the date of this order. The maximum
punishment for an offense committed before the date of this order shall
not exceed the maximum punishment in effect at the time of the commission
of such offense.
(c) Nothing in Annex 1 shall be construed to invalidate any nonjudicial
punishment proceeding, restraint, investigation, referral of charges, trial in
which arraignment occurred, or other action begun prior to the date of
this order, and any such nonjudicial punishment proceeding, restraint, inves-
tigation, referral of charges, trial in which arraignment occurred, or other
action shall proceed in the same manner and with the same effect as if
the amendments in Annex 1 had not been prescribed.
Sec. 3. (a) Pursuant to section 5542 of the Military Justice Act of 2016
(MJA), division E of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year
2017, Public Law 114–328, 130 Stat. 2000, 2967 (2016), except as otherwise
provided by the MJA or this order, the MJA shall take effect on January
1, 2019.
(b) Nothing in the MJA shall be construed to make punishable any act
done or omitted prior to January 1, 2019, that was not punishable when
done or omitted.
(c) Nothing in title LX of the MJA shall be construed to invalidate the
prosecution of any offense committed before January 1, 2019. The maximum
punishment for an offense committed before January 1, 2019, shall not
exceed the maximum punishment in effect at the time of the commission
of such offense.
(d) Nothing in the MJA shall be construed to invalidate any nonjudicial
punishment proceeding, restraint, investigation, referral of charges, trial in
which arraignment occurred, or other action begun prior to January 1, 2019.
Except as otherwise provided in this order, the MJA shall not apply in
any case in which charges are referred to trial by court-martial before January
1, 2019. Except as otherwise provided in this order, proceedings in any
such case shall be held in the same manner and with the same effect
as if the MJA had not been enacted.
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Sec. 4. The Manual for Courts-Martial, United States, as amended by section
1 of this order, is amended as described in Annex 2, which is attached
to and made a part of this order.
Sec. 5. The amendments in Annex 2, including Appendix 12A, shall take
effect on January 1, 2019, subject to the following:
(a) Nothing in Annex 2 shall be construed to make punishable any act
done or omitted prior to January 1, 2019, that was not punishable when
done or omitted.
(b) Nothing in section 4 of Annex 2 shall be construed to invalidate
the prosecution of any offense committed before January 1, 2019. The max-
imum punishment for an offense committed before January 1, 2019, shall
not exceed the maximum punishment in effect at the time of the commission
of such offense.
(c) Nothing in Annex 2 shall be construed to invalidate any nonjudicial
punishment proceeding, restraint, investigation, referral of charges, trial in
which arraignment occurred, or other action begun prior to January 1, 2019.
Except as otherwise provided in this order, the amendments in Annex
2 shall not apply in any case in which charges are referred to trial by
court-martial before January 1, 2019. Except as otherwise provided in this
order, proceedings in any such case shall be held in the same manner
and with the same effect as if such amendments had not been prescribed.
Sec. 6. (a) The amendments to Articles 2, 56(d), 58a, and 63 of the UCMJ
enacted by sections 5102, 5301, 5303, and 5327 of the MJA apply only
to cases in which all specifications allege offenses committed on or after
January 1, 2019.
(b) If the accused is found guilty of a specification alleging the commission
of one or more offenses before January 1, 2019, Article 60 of the UCMJ,
as in effect on the date of the earliest offense of which the accused was
found guilty, shall apply to the convening authority, in addition to the
suspending authority in Article 60a(c) as enacted by the MJA, to the extent
that Article 60:
(1) requires action by the convening authority on the sentence;
(2) permits action by the convening authority on findings;
(3) authorizes the convening authority to modify the findings and sentence
of a court-martial, dismiss any charge or specification by setting aside
a finding of guilty thereto, or change a finding of guilty to a charge
or specification to a finding of guilty to an offense that is a lesser included
offense of the offense stated in the charge or specification;
(4) authorizes the convening authority to order a proceeding in revision
or a rehearing; or
(5) authorizes the convening authority to approve, disapprove, commute,
or suspend a sentence in whole or in part.
Sec. 7. The amendment to Article 15 of the UCMJ enacted by section
5141 of the MJA shall apply to any nonjudicial punishment imposed on
or after January 1, 2019.
Sec. 8. The amendments to Articles 32 and 34 of the UCMJ enacted by
sections 5203 and 5205 of the MJA apply with respect to preliminary hearings
conducted and advice given on or after January 1, 2019.
Sec. 9. The amendments to Article 79 of the UCMJ enacted by section
5402 of the MJA and the amendments to Appendix 12A to the Manual
for Courts-Martial, United States, made by this order apply only to offenses
committed on or after January 1, 2019.
Sec. 10. Except as provided by Rule for Courts-Martial 902A, as promulgated
by Annex 2, any change to sentencing procedures:
(a) made by Articles 16(c)(2), 19(b), 25(d)(2) and (3), 39(a)(4), 53, 53a,
or 56(c) of the UCMJ, as enacted by sections 5161, 5163, 5182, 5222, 5236,
5237, and 5301 of the MJA; or
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(b) included in Annex 2 in rules implementing those articles, applies
only to cases in which all specifications allege offenses committed on or
after January 1, 2019.
Sec. 11. The amendments to Article 146 of the UCMJ enacted by section
5521 of the MJA and the new Article 146a enacted by section 5522 of
the MJA shall take effect on the day after the report for fiscal year 2017
required by Article 146(c) of the UCMJ (as in effect before the MJA’s amend-
ments) is submitted in accordance with Article 146(c)(1), but in no event
later than December 1, 2018.
Sec. 12. In accordance with Article 33 of the UCMJ, as amended by section
5204 of the MJA, the Secretary of Defense, in consultation with the Secretary
of Homeland Security, will issue nonbinding guidance regarding factors
that commanders, convening authorities, staff judge advocates, and judge
advocates should take into account when exercising their duties with respect
to the disposition of charges and specifications in the interest of justice
and discipline under Articles 30 and 34 of the UCMJ. That guidance will
take into account, with appropriate consideration of military requirements,
the principles contained in official guidance of the Attorney General to
attorneys for the Federal Government with respect to the disposition of
Federal criminal cases in accordance with the principle of fair and even-
handed administration of Federal criminal law.
THE WHITE HOUSE,
March 1, 2018.
Billing code 3295–F8–P
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ANNEX 1
Section!· Part II of the Manual for Courts-Martial, United States is amended as follows:
(a) RC.M. 104(b)(l)(B) is amended to read as follows:
"(B) Give a less favorable rating or evaluation of any defense counsel or special victims'
counsel because of the zeal with which such counsel represented any client. As used in this
rule, "special victims' counsel" are judge advocates and civilian counsel who, in accordance with
10 U.S.C. 1044e, are designated as Special Victims' Counsel."
(b) RC.M. 601(d)(2)(B) is amended to read as follows:
"The convening authority has received the advice of
the staff
judge advocate required under
R.C.M. 406. These requirements may be \vaived by the accused."
(c) RC.M. 701(g)(2) is amended to read as follows:
"(2) Protective and modifYing orders. Upon a sufficient showing, the military judge may at
any time order that the discovery or inspection be denied, restricted, or deferred, or make such
other order as is appropriate. Subject to limitations in Part III of
this Manual, if
any rule requires
or l:+ypon motion by a party, the military judge may review any materials in camera and permit
the party to make such showing, in whole or in part, in writing to be inspected only by the
military judge in camera. If
the military judge reviews any materials in camera grants relief after
such an eJc parte showing the entire teJct of
the party's statement, the entirety of any materials
examined by the military judge shall be sealed and attached to the record of
trial as an appellate
exhibit. The military judge shall seal any materials examined in camera and not disclosed and
may seal other materials as appropriate. Such material may be examined by reviewing or
appellate authorities in accordance with R.C.M. 1103Aclosed proceedings for the purpose of
revie".ving the determination of
the military judge."
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(d) R.C.M. 704(c) is amended to read as follows:
"(c) Authority to grant immunity. Oaly a A general court-martial convening authority, or
designee, may grant immunity, and may do so only in accordance with this rule."
(e) R.C.M. 704(c)(l) is amended to read as follows:
"(1) Persons suNect to the code. A general court-martial convening authority, or designee,
may grant immunity to 51 aay--person subject to the code. However, a general court-martial
convening authority, or designee, may grant immunity to a person subject to the code extending
to a prosecution in a United States District Court only when specifically authorized to do so by
the Attorney General of
the United States or other authority designated under 18 U.S.C. § 6004."
(f) R.C.M. 704(c)(3) is amended to read as follows:
"(3) Other limitations. Subject to Service regulations, +the authority to grant immunity under
this rule may B-et-be delegated in writing at the discretion of
the general court-martial convening
authority to a subordinate special court-martial convening authority. Further delegation is not
permitted. The authority to grant or delegate the authority to grant immunity may be limited by
superior authority."
(g) R.C.M. 704(e) is amended to read as follows:
"(e) Decision to grant immunity. Unless limited by superior competent authority, the decision
to grant immunity is a matter within the sole discretion of
the general court-martial convening
authority, or designee. However, if a defense request to immunize a witness has been denied, the
military judge may, upon motion by the defense, grant appropriate relief directing that either an
appropriate convening authority grant testimonial immunity to a defense witness or, as to the
affected charges and specifications, the proceedings against the accused be abated, upon findings
that:
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(1) The witness intends to invoke the right against self-incrimination to the extent
permitted by law if
called to testify; and
(2) The Government has engaged in discriminatory use of
immunity to obtain a tactical
advantage, or the Government, through its own overreaching, has forced the witness to invoke
the privilege against self-incrimination; and
(3) The witness' testimony is material, clearly exculpatory, not cumulative, not
obtainable from any other source and does more than merely affect the credibility of other
witnesses."
(h) The heading for R.C.M. 1103(b) is amended to read as follows:
"(b) General and special courts-martial."
(i) R.C.M. 1103(b)(2)(A) is amended to read as follows:
"(A) In general. The record of
trial in each general and special court-martial shall be separate,
complete, and independent of any other document."
G) R.C.M. 1103(b)(3)(G) is amended to read as follows:
"(G) Any +He-post-trial recommendation of the staff
judge advocate or legal officer and
proof of service on defense counsel in accordance with R.C.M. 1106(f)(l);"
(k) R.C.M. 1103(b)(3)(H) is amended to read as follows:
"(H) Any response by defense counsel to any-the post-trial review;"
(I) R.C.M. 1103(b)(3)(J) is amended to read as follows:
"(J) Any statement as to why it is impracticable for the convening authority to act;"
(m) R.C.M. 1103(c) is amended to read as follows:
"(c) [RESERVED]Speeial eourfs 71'l&rlial.
(
1) Involving a h€161 conduct disd'lflrge, confinement fer mor-e ihfl:n six mo;'<J#v;, or
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jerjeit?MF-e ofJ%l}'.for me:p.e tl1:ffll8ix me::Uh8. The requirements of sue
sections (13)(1), (B)(2)(A),
(e)(2)(B), (1J)(2)(D), and (8)(3) of
this rule shall apply in a special court martial in vrhich a ead
conduct discharge, confinement for more than six months, or forfeiture of pay for more than six
months, has eeen adjudged.
(2) All elher special ce«rt!i martial. If
the special court martial resulted in findings of
guilty aut a ead conduct discharge, confinement for more than six months, or forfeiture of
pay
for more than siJc months, was not adjudged, the requirements of
sue
sections (B)( I), (1J)(2)(D),
and (13)(3)(/'.) (P) and (I) (M) ofthis rule shall apply."
(n) R.C.M. 1103A is amended to read as follows:
Sealed exhibits-ftfltl.: proceedings, and other materials.
"(a) In general. If
the report of preliminary hearing or record of
trial contains exhibits,
proceedings, or other matter materials ordered sealed by the preliminary hearing officer or
military judge, counsel for the government Government, the court reporter, or trial counsel
shall cause such materials to be sealed so as to prevent unauthorized vievfi:Hg examination or
disclosure. Counsel for the government Government, the court reporter, or trial counsel shall
ensure that such materials are properly marked, including an annotation that the material was
sealed by order of
the preliminary hearing officer or military judge, and inserted at the
appropriate place in the original record of
trial. Copies of
the report of
preliminary hearing or
record of
trial shall contain appropriate annotations that matters materials were sealed by order
of
the preliminary hearing officer or military judge and have been inserted in the report of
preliminary hearing or record of
trial. This Rule-rule shall be implemented in a manner
consistent with Executive Order 13526, concerning classified national security information.
(b) Examination and
disclosure of
sealed
materials exhibits CHNfJfeceeding8. Except as
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provided in the fellowiHg sul:JseetioHs to this rule, sealed e~dtil:Jits materials may not be examined
or disclosed.
(1) Prior to referral. Prior to referral of charges, +he-the following individuals may examine
and disclose sealed materials only if
necessary for proper fulfillment of
their responsibilities
under the UCMJ, the MCM this Manual, governing directives, instructions, regulations,
applicable rules for practice and procedure, or rules of
professional responsibility: the judge
advocate advising the convening authority who directed the Article 32 preliminary hearing; the
convening authority who directed the Article 32 preliminary hearing; the staff
judge advocate to
the general court-martial convening authority; and the general court-martial convening authority.
(2) Referral through Prior to authentication. Prior to authentication of
the record by the
military judge, sealed materials may not be examined or disclosed in the absence of an order
from the military judge based BFl:-upon good cause.
(3) Authentication through action. After authentication and prior to disposition of
the record
of
trial pursuant to Rule for Courts-Martial 1111, sealed materials may not be examined or
disclosed in the absence of an order from the military judge upon a showing of good cause at a
post-trial Article 39{a} session directed by the CoHveHiHg Authority convening authority.
(
4) After action Reviewing fEnd BJ3J3ellat:e afith<'Jriiies.
(A) Examination bv reviewing and appellate authorities. Reviewing and appellate
authorities may examine sealed materials when those authorities determine that examination
sueh aetioH is reasonably necessary to a proper fulfillment of
their responsibilities under the
UCMJ UHiferrn Code of
Military Justiee, the MaHual for Courts Martial this Manual, governing
directives, instructions, regulations, applicable rules for practice and procedure, or rules of
professional responsibility.
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(B) Examination by appellate counsel. Appellate counsel may examine sealed materials
subject to the following procedures.
(i) Sealed materials released to trial counsel or defense counsel. Materials presented or
reviewed at trial and sealed, as well as materials reviewed in camera. released to trial counsel or
defense counsel, and sealed, may be examined by appellate counsel upon a colorable showing to
the reviewing or appellate authority that examination is reasonably necessary to a proper
fulfillment of
the appellate counsel's responsibilities under the UCMJ, this Manual, governing
directives, instructions, regulations, applicable rules of practice and procedure, or rules of
professional responsibility.
(ii) Sealed materials reviewed in camera but not released to trial counsel or defense
counsel. Materials reviewed in camera by a military judge, not released to trial counsel or
defense counsel, and sealed may be examined by reviewing or appellate authorities. After
examination of said materials, the reviewing or appellate authority may permit examination by
appellate counsel for good cause.
(BC) Disclosure. Revie:vling and appellate authorities Appellate counsel shall not,
however, disclose sealed matter or information materials in the absence of:
(i) Prior authorization of
the Judge Advocate General in the case of
review under &ttle
for Courts Martial R.C.M. 1201W; or
(ii) Prior authorization of
the appellate court before which a case is pending review
under Rules for Courts Martial R.C.M. 1203 and 1204.
(C) In those cases in which review is sought or pending before the United States Supreme
Court, authoriz:ation to disclose sealed materials or information shall be obtained under that
Court's rules ofpractice and procedure.
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(D) The authoriziag officials ia paragraph (B)(ii) aeove may place coaditioas oa
authorized disclosures ia order to miaimize the disclosure.
(DE) For purposes of
this rule, reviewing and appellate authorities are limited to:
(i) Judge advocates reviewing records pursuant to Rule for Courts Martial R.C.M.
1112;
(ii) Officers and attorneys in the office of the Judge Advocate General reviewing
records pursuant to Rule for Courts Martial R.C.M. 1201(13-) and 1210;
(iii) Appellate governmeat couHsel;
(iv) lA.cppellate defease couasel;
@¥)Appellate judges of
the Courts of
Criminal Appeals and their professional
staffs;
(iv¥i) The judges of
the United States Court of
Appeals for the Armed Forces and
their professional staffs;
(y¥ii) The Justices of
the United States Supreme Court and their professional staffs;
and
(vi¥if.i.) Any other court of competent jurisdiction.
(E) Notwithstanding any other provision of
this rule, in those cases in which United
States Supreme Court review is sought or that are pending before the United States Supreme
Court, authorization to disclose sealed materials or information shall be obtained under that
Court's rules of practice and procedure.
(5) Examination of
sealed materials matters. For the-purpose§. of
this rule, "examination"
includes reading, inspecting, and viewing, photocepyiag, phetegraphiag, disclesiag, or
maaipulatiag the sealed matters iH aay way.
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(6) Disclosure o[sealed
materials. For purposes of
this rule, "disclosure" includes
photocopying, photographing, disseminating, releasing, manipulating, or communicating the
contents of sealed materials in any way.
_(n) R.C.M. 1109(d)(2)(A) is amended to read as follows:
"(A) In general. The officer exercising general court-martial jurisdiction over the probationer
shall review the record produced by and the recommendation of
the officer exercising special
court-martial jurisdiction over the probationer, decide whether there is probable cause to belie•te
that-the probationer violated a condition of
the probationer's suspension, and, if so, decide
whether to vacate the suspended sentence. If
the officer exercising general court-martial
jurisdiction decides to vacate the suspended sentence, that officer shall prepare a written
statement of
the evidence relied on and the reasons for vacating the suspended sentence."
Section 6_. Part III of the Manual for Courts-Martial, United States is amended as follows:
(a) Mil. R. Evid. 311(c)(4) is amended to read as follows:
"(
4) Reliance on Statute or Binding Precedent. Evidence that was obtained as a result of
an
unlawful search or seizure may be used when the official seeking the evidence acted aets in
objectively reasonable reliance on a statute or on binding precedent later held violative of
the
Fourth Amendment."
(b) Mil. R. Evid. 311(d)(5)(A) is amended to read as follows:
"(A) In general. When the defense makes an appropriate motion or objection under
subdivision (d), the prosecution has the burden of
proving by a preponderance of
the evidence
that the evidence was not obtained as a result of
an unlawful search or seizure, that the evidence
would have been obtained even if
the unlawful search or seizure had not been made, that the
evidence was obtained by officials who reasonably and with good faith relied on the issuance of
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an authorization to search, seize, or apprehend or a search warrant or an arrest warrant; that the
evidence was obtained by officials in objectively reasonable reliance on a statute or on binding
precedent later held violative of
the Fourth Amendment; or that the deterrence of
future unlawful
searches or seizures is not appreciable or such deterrence does not outweigh the costs to the
justice system of excluding the evidence."
(c) Mil. R. Evid. 505(1) is amended to read as follows:
"(I) Record of
Trial. If
under this rule any information is reviewed in camera by the military
judge and withheld from the accused, the accused objects to such withholding, and the trial is
continued to an adjudication of
guilt of
the accused, the entire unaltered text of
the relevant
documents as well as the prosecution's any motion2 and any materials submitted in support
thereof must be sealed in accordance with RC.M. 70l(g)(2) or 1103A and attached to the record
of
trial as an appellate exhibit. Such material must be made available to reviewing and appellate
authorities in accordance with RC.M. 70l(g)(2) or RC.M. 1103A elosed proceedings for the
puffJose of
reviewing the detefffiina:tion of
the militaf)' judge. The record of
trial with respect to
any classified matter will be prepared under RC.M. 1103(h) and 1104(b)(l)(D)."
(d) Mil. R. Evid. 506(b) is amended to read as follows:
"(b) Scope. "Government information" includes official communication and documents and
other information within the custody or control of
the Federal Government. This rule does not
apply to classified informa:tion Q.iil. R. Ibtid. 505) or to the identity of an informant (Mil. R.
Evid. 507)."
(e) Mil. R. Evid. 506(m) is amended to read as follows:
"(m)Record of
Trial. If
under this rule any information is reviewed in camera by the military
judge and withheld from the accused, the accused objects to such withholding, and the trial is
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continued to an adjudication of
guilt of
the accused, the entire unaltered text of
the relevant
documents as well as ti1e vroseeution's any motion§. and any materials submitted in support
thereof must be sealed in accordance with R.C.M. 70l(g)(2) or 1103A and attached to the record
of
trial as an appellate exhibit. Such material must be made available to reviewing and appellate
authorities in accordance with R.C.M. 701(g)(2) or R.C.M. 1103A elosed proeeedings for the
purpose ofrevievting the determination ofti1e military judge."
(f) Mil. R. Evid. 513(e)(6) is amended to read as follows:
"(6) The motion, related papers, and the record of
the hearing must be sealed in accordance
with R.C.M. 70l(g)(2) or 1103A and must remain under seal unless the military judge, the Judge
Advocate General, or an appellate court orders otherwise."
(g) Mil. R. Evid. 514(e)(6) is amended to read as follows:
"(6) The motion, related papers, and the record of
the hearing must be sealed in accordance
with R.C.M. 70l(g)(2) or 1103A and must remain under seal unless the military judge, the Judge
Advocate General, or an appellate court orders otherwise."
Section J. Part IV of the Manual for Courts-Martial, United States is amended as follows:
(a) Paragraph 45c, Article 120c-Other sexual misconduct, subsections b-f, are amended to
read as follows:
"b. Elements.
( 1) Indecent view
in
g.
(a) That the accused knowingly and wrongfully viewed the private area of
another
person;
(b) That said viewing was without the other person's consent; and
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(c) That said viewing took place under circumstances in which the other person
had a reasonable expectation of
privacy.
(2) Indecent recording.
(a) That the accused knowingly recorded (photographed, videotaped, filmed, or
recorded by any means) the private area of
another person;
(b) That said recording was without the other person's consent; and
(c) That said recording was made under circumstances in which the other person
had a reasonable expectation of privacy.
(3) Broadcasting of
an indecent recording.
(a) That the accused knowingly broadcast a certain recording of another person's
private area;
(b) That said recording was made or broadcast without the other person's consent;
(c) That the accused knew or reasonably should have known that the recording
was made or aroadcast without the other person's consent;
(d) That said recording was made under circumstances in which the other person
had a reasonable expectation of
privacy; and
(e) That the accused knew or reasonably should have known that said recording
was made under circumstances in which the other person had a reasonable expectation of
pnvacy.
(
4) Distribution of
an indecent recording.
(a) That the accused knowingly distributed a certain recording of another person's
private area;
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(b) That said recording was made or distributed without the other person's
consent;
(c) That the accused knew or reasonably should have known that said recording
was made or distributed without the other person's consent;
(d) That said recording was made under circumstances in which the other person
had a reasonable expectation of
privacy; and
(e) That the accused knew or reasonably should have known that said recording
was made under circumstances in which the other person had a reasonable expectation of
pnvacy.
(5) Forcible pandering.
That the accused compelled another person to engage in an act of prostitution
with any person.
(
6) Indecent exposure.
or nipple;
c. Explanation.
(a) That the accused exposed his or her genitalia, anus, buttocks, or female areola
(b) That the exposure was in an indecent manner; and
(c) That the exposure was intentional.
(1) In general. Sexual offenses have been separated into three statutes: offenses against
adults (120), offenses against children (120b), and other offenses (120c).
(2) Definitions.
(a) Recording. A "recording" is a still or moving visual image captured or
recorded by any means.
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(b) Other terms are defined in subparagraph 45c.a.(
d), supra.
d. Lesser included offenses. See paragraph 3 of
this Part and Appendix 12A.
e. Maximum punishment.
(1) Indecent viewing. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 1 year.
(2) Indecent recording. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 5 years.
(3) Broadcasting or distribution of
an indecent recording. Dishonorable discharge,
forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and confinement for 7 years.
(
4) Forcible pandering. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 12 years.
(
5) Indecent exposure. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 1 year.
f. Sample specifications.
(1) Indecent viewing, recording, or broadcasting.
(a) Indecent viewing.
In that ____
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-
location), on or about
20_, knowingly and wrongfully view the private area of
_____
,without (his) (her) consent and under circumstances in which (he) (she) had a
reasonable expectation of privacy.
(b) Indecent visual recording.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location),
on or about ___
20_, knowingly (photograph) (videotape) (film) (make a recording of) the
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private area of _____
, without (his) (her) consent and under circumstances in which (he)
(she) had a reasonable expectation of privacy.
(c) Broadcasting or distributing an indecent recording.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board==
location), on or about
20_, knowingly (broadcast) (distribute) a recording ofthe
private area of
_____
, when the said accused knew or reasonably should have known that
the said recording was made (made) (andfor) (distributedfbroadeast) without the consent of
______
and under circumstances in which (he) (she) had a reasonable expectation of
pnvacy.
(2) Forcible pandering.
In that ____
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location), on or
about
20_, wrongfully compel
to engage in (a sexual act) (sexual contact)
with
to wit:
for the purpose of receiving (money) (other
compensation)
).
(3) Indecent exposure.
In that ____
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board==location), on or
about
20_, intentionally expose [his (genitalia) (anus) (buttocks)] [her (genitalia)
(anus) (buttocks) (areola) (nipple)] in an indecent manner, to wit: _____
"
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ANNEX2
Section!. Part I of the Manual for Courts-Martial, United States is amended to read as
follows:
PREAMBLE
1. Sources of
military jurisdiction
The sources of military jurisdiction include the Constitution and international law.
International law includes the law of
war.
2. Exet·cise of military jurisdiction
(a) Kind'>. Military jurisdiction is exercised by:
(1) A government in the exercise of that branch of
the municipal law which regulates its
military establishment. (Military law).
(2) A government temporarily governing the civil population within its territory or a portion
of
its tenitory through its military forces as necessity may require. (Martial law).
(3) A belligerent occupying enemy territory. (Military government).
(4) A government with respect to offenses against the law of
war.
(b) Agencie,<;. The agencies through which military jurisdiction is exercised include:
(1) Courts-martial for the trial of offenses against military law and, in the case of
general
courts-martial, of
persons who by the law of war are subject to trial by military
tribunals. See Parts II, III, and IV of
this Manual for rules governing courts-martial.
(2) Military commissions and provost courts for the t:tial of cases within their respective
jurisdictions. Subject to any applicable rule of
international law or to any ret,JUlations prescribed
by the President or by other competent authority, military commissions and provost courts shall
be guided by the appropriate principles of
law and rules of
procedures and evidence prescribed
for courts-mattial.
(3) Courts of
inquiry for the investigation of any matter referred to such court by competent
authority. See Article 135. The Secretary concerned may prescribe regulations governing courts
of
inquiry.
(4) Nonjudicial punishment proceedings of a commander under Article 15. See Part V of
this
Manual.
3. Nature and purpose of military law
Military law consists of
the statutes governing the military establishment and regulations
issued thereunder, the constitutional powers of
the President and regulations issued thereunder,
and the inherent authority of military commanders. Military law includes jurisdiction exercised
by courts-martial and the jurisdiction exercised by commanders with respect to nonjudicial
punishment. The purpose of
military law is to promote justice, to assist in maintaining good
order and discipline in the anned forces, to promote efficiency and effectiveness in the military
establishment, and thereby to strengthen the national security of
the United States.
4. Structure and application of the Manual for Courts-Martial
The Manual for Courts-Martial shall consist of
this Preamble, the Rules for Courts-Martial,
the ?vfilitary Rules of
Evidence, the Punitive Articles, the Nonjudicial Punishment Procedures
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(Parts I-V), and Appendix 12A. This Manual shall be applied in a manner consistent •vith the
purpose of
military law.
The Department of
Defense, in conjunction with the Department of
Homeland Security,
publishes supplementary materials to accompany the Manual for Courts-Martial. These materials
consist of a Preface, a Table of
Contents, Discussions, Appendices (other than Appendix 12A,
which was promulgated by the President), and an Index. These supplementary materials do not
have the force oflaw.
The Manual shall be identified by the year in which it was printed; for example, "Manual for
Courts-Martial, United States (20xx edition)." Any amendments to the Manual made by
Executive Order shall be identified as "20xx" Amendments to the Manual for Courts-Martial,
United States, "20xx" being the year the Executive Order was signed.
The Department of
Defense Joint Service Committee (JSC) on Military Justice reviews the
Manual for Courts-Martial and proposes amendments to the Department of
Defense (DoD) for
consideration by the President on an annual basis. In conducting its annual review, the JSC is
guided by DoD Directive 5500.17, "Role and Responsibilities of
the Joint Service Committee
(JSC) on Military Justice." DoD Directive 5500.17 includes provisions allowing public
participation in the annual review process.
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Sec. 6· Part TI of the "Manual for Courts-Martial, United States is amended to read as
follows:
Rule 101. Scope, title
(a) ln general. These rules govern the procedures and punishments in all courts-martial and,
whenever expressly provided, preliminary, supplementary, and appellate procedures and
activities.
(b) Title. These rules may be known and cited as the Rules for Courts-Martial (R.C.M.).
Rule 102. Purpose and construction
(a) Purpose. These mles are intended to provide for the just determination of
every proceeding
relating to trial by court-martial.
(b) Construction. These mles shall be constmed to secure simplicity in procedure, fairness in
administration, and the elimination of unjustifiable expense and delay.
Rule 1
03. Definitions and rules of construction
The following definitions and rules of construction apply throughout this Manual, unless
otherwise expressly provided.
(1) "Appellate military judge" means a judge of
a Court of
Criminal Appeals.
(2) "Article" refers to articles of
the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) unless the
context indicates othervvise.
(3) "Capital case" means a general court-martial to which a capital offense has been referred
with an instruction that the case be treated as capital, and, in the case of
a reheating or new or
other trial, for which offense death remains an authorized punishment under R.C.M. 81 O(d).
(4) "Capital o±Iense" means an offense for which death is an authotized punishment under the
UCMJ and Part IV of
this Manual or under the law of
war.
(5) "Commander" means a commissioned o±licer in command or an otlicer in charge except
in Part V or unless the context indicates otherwise.
(6) "Convening authority" includes a commissioned officer in command for the time being
and successors in command.
(7) "Copy" means an accurate reproduction, however made. Whenever necessary and
feasible, a copy may be made by handwriting.
(8) "Court-martial" includes, depending on the context:
(A) The military judge and members of a general or special court-martial;
(B) The military judge when a session of a general or special court-martial is
conducted without members under Article 39(a);
(C) The military judge when a request for trial by military judge alone has been
approved under R.C.M. 903;
(D) The military judge when the case is referred as a special court-martial consisting
of
a military judge alone under Atiicle 16(
c
)(2)(A); or
(E) The summary court-martial officer.
(9) "Days." When a period of
time is expressed in a number of
days, the period shall be in
calendar days, unless otherwise specified. Unless otherwise specified, the date on which the
period begins shall not count, but the date on which the period ends shall count as one day.
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(10) "Detail" means to order a person to perform a specific temporary duty, unless the
context indicates otherwise.
(11) "Explosive" means gunpowders, powders used for blasting, all forms of high
explosives, blasting materials, fuzes (other than electrical circuit breakers), detonators, and
other detonating agents, smokeless powders, any explosive bomb, grenade, missile, or similar
device, and any incendiary bomb or grenade, fire bomb, or similar device, and any other
compound, mixture, or device which is an explosive within the meaning of 18 U.S.C. § 232(5)
or 8440).
(12) "Fireann" means any weapon which is designed to or may be readily converted to
expel any projectile by the action of
an explosive.
(13) "Joint" in connection with military organization connotes activities, operations,
organizations, and the like in which elements of more than one military service of
the same
nation participate.
(14) "Members." The members of
a court-martial are the voting members detailed by the
convening authority.
(15) "Military judge" means a judge advocate designated under Article 26(c) who is detailed
under Article 26(a) or Article 30a to preside over a general or special court-martial or proceeding
before referral. In the context of
a summary court-martial, "military judge" means the summary
court-martial o±Iicer. In the context of a pre-referral proceeding or a special court-martial
consisting of
a military judge alone, "military judge" includes a military magistrate designated
under Article 19 or Article 30a.
(16) "Military magistrate" means a commissioned officer of
the armed forces certified under
Article 26a who is perfonning duties under Article 19 or 30a.
(17) "Party," in the context of
parties to a court-martial or other proceeding under these rules,
means-
(
A) The accused and any defense or associate or assistant defense counsel and agents of
the defense counsel when acting on behalf of
the accused with respect to the court-martial or
proceeding in question; and
(B) Any trial or assistant trial counsel or other counsel representing the United States, and
agents of
the trial counsel or such other counsel when acting on behalf of the United States with
respect to the court-martial or proceeding in question.
(18) "Staff
judge advocate" means a judge advocate so designated in the Army, Air Force, or
Marine Corps, and means the principal legal advisor of
a command in the Navy and Coast Guard
who is a judge advocate.
(19) "Sua sponte" means that the person involved acts on that person's initiative, without the
need for a request, motion, or application.
(20) "UCMJ" refers to the Uniform Code ofMilitary Justice.
(21) "War, time of" For purpose ofR.C.M. 1004(c)(6) and of
implementing the applicable
paragraphs of
Parts Nand V of
this Manual only, "time of war" means a period of war declared
by Congress or the factual determination by the President that the existence of hostilities
warrants a finding that a "time of war" exists for purposes of R.C.M. 1004(c)(6) and Parts IV and
V ofthis Manual.
(22) The terms "writings" and "recordings" have the same meaning as in Mil. R Evid. 1001.
(23) The definitions and rules of
construction in 1 U.S.C. §§ 1 through 5 and in 10 U.S. C. §§
101 and 801.
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Rule 104. Unlawful command influence
(a) General prohibitions.
( 1) Convening authorities and commanders. No convening authority or commander may
censure, reprimand, or admonish a court-martial or other military tribunal or any member,
military judge, or counsel thereof, with respect to the findings or sentence adjudged by the court-
martial or tribunal, or with respect to any other exercise of the functions of the couri-martial or
tribunal or such persons in the conduct of
the proceedings.
(2) All
persons su~ject to the UCM!. No person subject to the UCMJ may attempt to coerce
or, by any unauthmized means, influence the action of a court-martial or any other military
tribunal or any member thereof, in reaching the findings or sentence in any case or the action of
any convening, approving, or reviewing authority with respect to such authority's judicial acts.
(3) Scope.
(A) Instructions. Paragraphs (a)(l) and (2) of
this rule do not prohibit general instructional
or informational courses in military justice if
such courses are designed solely for the purpose of
instructing personnel of
a command in the substantive and procedural aspects of
courts-martial.
(B) Court-martial statements. Paragraphs (a)(l) and (2) of
this rule do not prohibit
statements and instructions given in open session by the military judge or counsel.
(C) Pn!fessional supervision. Paragraphs (a)(l) and (2) of
this rule do not prohibit action
by the Judge Advocate General concerned under R.C.M. 109.
(D) Offense. Paragraphs (a)(l) and (2) of
this rule do not prohibit appropriate action
against a person for an offense committed while detailed as a military judge, counsel, or member
of
a court-martial, or while serving as individual counsel.
(b) Prohibitions concerning evaluations.
(1) Evaluation of
member, defense counsel or special victims' counsel. In the preparation of
an efiectiveness, fitness, or efficiency report or any other report or document used in whole or
in part for the purpose of determining whether a member of
the anned forces is qualified to be
advanced in grade, or in determining the assignment or transfer of
a member of
the arn1ed
forces, or in detennining whether a member of the armed forces should be retained on active
duty, no person subject to the UCMJ may:
(A) Consider or evaluate the performance of
duty of any such person as a member of
a
court-martial; or
(B) Give a less favorable rating or evaluation of any defense counsel or special victims'
counsel because of
the zeal \\oith which such counsel represented any client. As used in this mle,
"special victims' counsel" are judge advocates and civilian counsel, who, in accordance with 10
U.S.C. § 1044e, are designated as Special Victims' Counsel.
(2) Evaluation ofmilitaryjudge.
(A) General courts-martial. Unless the general court-martial was convened by the
President or the Secretary concerned, neither the convening authority nor any member of
the
convening authority's staff may prepare or review any report concerning the effectiveness,
fitness, or efficiency of the military judge detailed to a general court-martial, which relates to
the performance of
duty as a military judge.
(B) Special courts-martial. The convening authority may not prepare or review any report
concerning the effectiveness, fitness, or efficiency of
a military judge detailed to a special
court-martial which relates to the performance of duty as a military judge. When the military
judge is normally rated or the military judge's report is reviewed by the convening authority,
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the manner in which such military judge will be rated or evaluated upon the performance of
duty as a military judge may be as prescribed in regulations of
the Secretary concerned which
shall ensure the absence of
any command influence in the rating or evaluation of
the military
judge's judicial performance.
Rule 105. Direct communications: convening authorities and staff judge advocates;
among staff
judge advocates
(a) Convening authorities and
staifjudge advocales. Convening authorities shall at all times
communicate directly with their staff
judge advocates in matters relating to the administration of
military justice.
(b) Among stqffjudge advocates and
with the Judge Advocate General. The staff
judge advocate
of any command is entitled to communicate directly with the staff
judge advocate of a superior
or subordinate command, or with the Judge Advocate General.
Rule 106. Delivery of military offenders to civilian authorities
Under such regulations as the Secretary concerned may prescribe, a member of
the armed
forces accused of
an offense against civilian authority may be delivered, upon request, to the
civilian authority for trial. A member may be placed in restraint by military authorities for this
purpose only upon receipt of a duly issued warrant for the apprehension of
the member or upon
receipt of information establishing probable cause that the member committed an offense, and
upon reasonable belief
that such restraint is necessary. Such restraint may continue only for such
time as is reasonably necessary to effect the delivery.
Rule 107. Dismissed officer's right to request trial by court-martial
If a commissioned officer of any armed force is dismissed by order of the President under 10
U.S.
C. § 1161(a)(3), that officer may apply for trial by general court-martial within a reasonable
time.
Rule 108. Rules of court
The Judge Advocate General concerned and persons designated by the Judge Advocate General
may make mles of court not inconsistent \vith these rules for the conduct of comt-martial
proceedings. Such rules shall be disseminated in accordance with procedures prescribed by the
Judge Advocate General concerned or a person to whom this authority has been delegated.
Noncompliance with such procedures shall not affect the validity of
any rule of court with
respect to a party who has received actual and timely notice of
the rule or who has not been
prejudiced under Article 59 by the absence of such notice. Copies of
all rules of
court issued
under this rule shall be forwarded to the Judge Advocate General concerned.
Rule 109. Professional supervision of appellate military judges, military judges, military
magistrates, judge advocates, and counsel
(a) In general. Each Judge Advocate General is responsible for the professional supervision
and discipline of appellate military judges, military judges, military magistrates, judge
advocates, and other lawyers who practice in proceedings governed by the UCMJ and this
Manual. To discharge this responsibility each Judge Advocate General may prescribe rules of
professional conduct not inconsistent with this mle or this Manual. Rules of
professional
conduct promulgated pursuant to this rule may include sanctions for violations of such mles.
Sanctions may include but are not limited to indefinite suspension from practice in courts-
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martial and in the Courts of
Criminal Appeals. Such suspensions may only be imposed by the
Judge Advocate General of
the anned service of such courts. Prior to imposing any discipline
under this rule, the subject of
the proposed action must be provided notice and an opportunity
to be heard. The Judge Advocate General concerned may upon good cause shown modify or
revoke suspension. Procedures to investigate complaints against appellate military judges,
military judges, and military magistrates are contained in subsection (c) of
this rule.
(b) Action after suspension or disbarment. When a Judge Advocate General suspends a person
from practice or the Court of
Appeals for the Armed Forces disbars a person, any Judge Advocate
General may suspend that person from practice upon written notice and opportunity to be heard
in writing.
(c) Investigation of
appellate militmyjudges, military
judges, and militW)J magistrates.
(1) In general. These rules and procedures promulgated pursuant to Article 6a are
established to investigate and dispose of
charges, allegations, or information pertaining to the
fitness of
an appellate military judge, military judge, or military magistrate to perform the
duties of
the judge's or magistrate's office.
(2) PoliLy. Allegations of
judicial misconduct or unfitness shall be investigated pursuant to
the procedures of
this rule and appropriate action shall be taken. Judicial misconduct includes
any act or omission that may serve to demonstrate unfitness for further duty as a judge or
magistrate, including, but not limited to violations of applicable ethical standards.
(3) Complaints. Complaints concerning an appe11ate military judge, military judge, or military
magistrate will be forwarded to the Judge Advocate General of
the Service concerned or to a
person designated by the Judge Advocate General concemed to receive such complaints.
(
4) initial action upon receipt (if
a complaint. Upon receipt, a complaint will be screened by
the Judge Advocate General concemed or by the individual designated in paragraph (c)(3) of
this
rule to receive complaints. An initial inquiry is necessary if
the complaint, taken as true, would
constitute judicial misconduct or unfitness for further service as an appellate military judge, a
military judge, or military magistrate. Prior to the commencement of
an initial inquiry, the Judge
Advocate General concerned shall be notified that a complaint has been tiled and that an initial
inquiry will be conducted. The Judge Advocate General concerned may temporarily suspend the
subject of
a complaint from performing judicial duties pending the outcome of
any inquiry or
investigation conducted pursuant to this rule. Such inquiries or investigations shall be conducted
with reasonable promptness.
(5) Initial Inquiry.
(A) In general. An initial inquiry is necessary to detennine if
the complaint is
substantiated. A complaint is substantiated upon finding that it is more likely than not that the
subject appellate military judge, military judge, or military magistrate has engaged in judicial
misconduct or is otherwise unfit for further service as a judge or magistrate.
(B) Responsibility to conduct initial inquily. The Judge Advocate General concerned, or
the person designated to receive complaints under paragraph (c)(3) of
this rule will conduct or
order an initial inquiry. The individual designated to conduct the inquiry should, if practicable,
be senior to the subject of
the complaint. If the subject of
the complaint is a military judge or
military magistrate, the individual designated to conduct the initial inquiry should, if
practicable,
be a military judge or an individual with experience as a military judge. If the subject of
the
complaint is an appellate military judge, the individual designated to conduct the inquiry should,
if
practicable, have experience as an appellate judge.
(C) Due process. During the initial inquiry, the subject of the complaint will, at a
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minimum, be given notice and an opportunity to be heard.
(D)Actionjollowing the initial inquiry. If
the complaint is not substantiated pursuant to
subparagraph (c)(S)(A) of
this rule, the complaint shall be dismissed as unfounded. If
the
complaint is substantiated, minor professional disciplinary action may be taken or the complaint
may be forvvarded, with findings and recommendations, to the Judge Advocate General
concerned. Minor professional disciplinary action is defined as counseling or the issuance of
an
oral or written admonition or reprimand. The Judge Advocate General concerned will be notified
prior to taking minor professional disciplinary action or dismissing a complaint as unfounded.
(6) Action by the Judge Advocate General.
(A) In general. The Judge Advocates General are responsible for the professional
supervision and discipline of
appellate military judges, military judges, and military magistrates
under their jurisdiction. Upon receipt of
findings and recommendations required by paragraph
(c)(5) of
this rule the Judge Advocate General concerned will take appropriate action.
(B) Appropriate actions. The Judge Advocate General concerned may dismiss the
complaint, order an additional inquiry, appoint an ethics commission to consider the complaint,
refer the matter to another appropriate investigative agency or take appropriate professional
disciplinary action pursuant to the rules of
professional conduct prescribed by the Judge
Advocate General under subsection (a) of
this rule. Any decision of
the Judge Advocate General,
under this rule, is final and is not subject to appeaL
(C) Standard <?fpnH?f Prior to taking professional disciplinary action, other than minor
professional disciplinary action as defined in subparagraph (c)(S)(D) of
this rule, the Judge
Advocate General concerned shall find, in writing, that the subject of
the complaint engaged in
judicial misconduct or is otherwise unfit for continued service as an appellate military judge,
military judge, or military magistrate, and that such misconduct or unfitness is established by
clear and convincing evidence.
(D) Due process. Prior to taking final action on the complaint, the Judge Advocate
General concerned will ensure that the subject of the complaint is, at a minimum, given
notice and an opportunity to be heard.
(7) The l!:thics Commission.
(A) Membership. If
appointed pursuant to subparagraph (c)(6)(B) of
this rule, an ethics
commission shall consist of
at least three members. If
the subject of
the complaint is a military
judge or military magistrate, the commission should include one or more military judges or
individuals with experience as a military judge. If
the subject of
the complaint is an appellate
military judge, the commission should include one or more individuals with experience as an
appellate military judge. Members ofthe commission should, if
practicable, be senior to the
subject of
the complaint
(B) Duties. The commission will perform those duties assigned by the Judge Advocate
General concerned. Normally, the commission will provide an opinion as to whether the
subject's acts or omissions constitute judicial misconduct or unfitness. If
the commission
determines that the affected appellate military judge, military judge, or military magistrate
engaged in judicial misconduct or is unfit for continued judicial service, the commission may
be required to recommend an appropriate disposition to the Judge Advocate General
concerned.
(8) Rules of
procedure. The Secretary of
Defense or the Secretary of
the Service concerned
may establish additional procedures consistent with this rule and Article 6a.
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Rule 201. Jurisdiction in general
(a) Nature C?f court-martialjurisdiction.
(1) The jurisdiction of
courts-martial is entirely penal or disciplinary.
(2) The UCMJ applies in all places.
(3) The jurisdiction of
a court-martial with respect to offenses under the UCMJ is not affected
by the place where the court-martial sits. The jurisdiction of
a court-martial with respect to
military government or the law of war is not affected by the place where the court-martial sits
except as otherwise expressly required by this Manual or applicable rule of international law.
(b) Requisites of
court-martialjuri.<.diction. A cowt-martial always has jurisdiction to determine
whether it has jurisdiction. Otherwise for a comt-martial to have jurisdiction:
(1) The court-martial must be convened by an official empowered to convene it;
(2) The court-martial must be composed in accordance with these rules with respect to
number and qualifications of
its personnel. As used here "personnel" includes only the military
judge, the members, and the summary court-martial;
(3) Each charge before the court-martial must be referred to it by competent authority;
(
4) The accused must be a person subject to court-martial jurisdiction; and
(5) The offense must be subject to court-martial jurisdiction.
(c) [Reserved]
(d) i'.,'xcfusive and nonexclusive jurisdiction.
(1) Courts-martial have exclusive jurisdiction of
purely military offenses.
(2) An act or omission which violates both the UCMJ and local criminal law, foreign or
domestic, may be tried by a court-martial, or by a proper civilian tribunal, foreign or domestic,
or, subject to R.C.M. 907(b
)(2)(C) and regulations of
the Secretary concerned, by both.
(3) Where an act or omission is subject to trial by court-martial and by one or more civil
tribunals, foreign or domestic, the detennination which nation, state, or agency will exercise
jurisdiction is a matter for the nations, states, and agencies concerned, and is not a right of
the
suspect or accused.
(e) Reciprocal
jurisdiction.
( 1) Each armed force has court-martial jurisdiction over all persons subject to the UCMJ.
(2)(A) A commander of a unified or specified combatant command may convene courts-
martial over members of
any of
the armed forces.
(B) So much of
the authority vested in the President under Article 22(a)(9) to empower
any commanding officer of
a joint command or joint task force to convene courts-martial is
delegated to the Secretary of
Defense, and such a commanding officer may convene general
courts-martial for the trial of
members of
any of
the armed forces assigned or attached to a
combatant command or joint command.
(C) A commander who is empowered to convene a court-martial under subparagraphs
(e)(2)(A) or (e)(2)(B) of
this rule may expressly authorize a commanding officer of a subordinate
joint command or subordinate joint task force who is authorized to convene special and summary
courts-martial to convene such courts-martial for the trial of
members of
other armed forces
assigned or attached to a joint command or joint task force, under regulations which the superior
command may prescribe.
(3) A member of
one anned force may be tried by a court-martial convened by a member of
another anned force, using the implementing regulations and procedures prescribed by the
Secretary concerned of
the military service of
the accused, when:
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(A) The court-martial is convened by a commander authorized to convene courts-martial
under paragraph (e)(2) of this rule; or
(B) The accused cannot be delivered to the armed force of
which the accused is a member
without manifest injury to the armed forces.
An accused should not ordinarily be tried by a court-martial convened by a member of
a different
armed force except when the circumstances described in (A) or (B) exist. However, failure to
comply with this policy does not affect an otherwise valid referral.
(4) Nothing in this rule prohibits detailing to a court-martial a military judge, member, or
counsel who is a member of an armed force different from that of
the accused or the convening
authority, or both.
(5) In all cases, depat1mental review after that by the officer with authority to convene a
general court-martial for the command which held the trial, where that review is required by the
UCMJ, shall be carried out by the department that includes the armed force of which the accused
is a member.
(6) When there is a disagreement between the Secretaries of
two military departments or
between the Secretary of
a military department and the commander of
a unified or specified
combatant command or other joint command or joint task force as to which organization should
exercise jurisdiction over a particular case or class of
cases, the Secretary of
Defense or an
official acting under the authority of
the Secretary of
Defense shall designate which organization
will exercise jurisdiction.
(7) Except as provided in paragraphs (5) and (6) or as otherwise directed by the President or
Secretary of
Defense, whenever action under this Manual is required or authorized to be taken by
a person superior to-
(
A) a commander of a unified or specified combatant command or;
(B) a commander of
any other joint command or joint task force that is not part of
a
unified or specified combatant command, the matter shall be referred to the Secretary of
the
armed force of
which the accused is a member. The Secretary may convene a court-martial, take
other appropriate action, or, subject to R.C.M. 504(c), refer the matter to any person authorized
to convene a court-martial of
the accused.
(t) 1j;pes of
courts-martial.
[Note: R.C.M. 201(f)(l)(D) and (f)(2)(D) apply to offenses committed on or after 24 June
2014.]
(
1) General courts-martial.
(A) Cases under the UClvJJ.
(i) Except as otherwise expressly provided, general courts-martial may try any person
subject to the UCMJ for any offense made punishable under the UCMJ. General courts-martial
also may try any person for a violation of Article 103, 103b, or 104a.
(ii) Upon a finding of
guilty of
an offense made punishable by the UCMJ, general
courts-martial may, within limits prescribed by this Manual, adjudge any punishment
authorized under R. C
.M. 1
003.
(iii) Notwithstanding any other rule, the death penalty may not be adjudged if:
(a) Not specifically authorized for the offense by the UCMJ and Part IV of
this
Manual; or
(b) The case has not been referred with a special instruction that the case is to be
tried as capital.
(B) Cases under the ktw ~fwar.
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(i) General courts-martial may try any person who by the law of war is subject to trial
by military tribunal for any crime or offense against:
(a) The law of
war; or
(b) The law of
the territory occupied as an incident of
war or belligerency
whenever the local civil authority is superseded in whole or part by the military authority of
the
occupying power. The law of
the occupied territory includes the local criminal law as adopted
or modified by competent authority, and the proclamations, ordinances, regulations, or orders
promulgated by competent authority of
the occupying power.
(ii) When a general court-martial exercises jurisdiction under the law of
war, it may
adjudge any punishment permitted by the law of
war.
(C) Limitations in judge alone cases. A general court-martial composed only of
a military
judge does not have jurisdiction to try any person for any offense for which the death penalty
may be adjudged unless the case has been referred to trial as noncapital.
(D) .Jurisdictionfor certain sexual <?ffenses. Only a general court-martial has jurisdiction to
try offenses under Article 120(a), 120(b
), 120b(a), and 120b(b
), and attempts thereof under
Article 80.
(2) Special courts-martial.
(A) ln general. Except as otherwise expressly provided, special courts-martial may try any
person subject to the UCMJ for any noncapital offense made punishable by the UCMJ and, as
provided in this rule, for capital offenses.
(B) Punishments.
(i) Upon a finding of
guilty, special courts-martial may adjudge, under limitations
prescribed by this Manual, any punishment authorized under R.C.M. 1003 except death,
dishonorable discharge, dismissal, confinement for more than 1 year, hard labor without
confinement for more than 3 months, forfeiture of pay exceeding two-thirds pay per month, or
any forfeiture of
pay for more than 1 year.
(ii) A bad-conduct discharge, confinement for more than six months, or forfeiture of
pay
for more than six months, may not be adjudged by a special court-martial when the case is referred
as a special comi-martial consisting of a military judge alone under Article 16(c)(2)(A).
(C) Capital offenses
(i) A capital offense for which there is prescribed a mandatory punishment beyond the
punitive power of
a special court-martial shall not be referred to such a court-martial.
(ii) An officer exercising general court-martial jurisdiction over the command which
includes the accused may permit any capital otiense other than one described in clause (C)(i) to
be referred to a special court-martial for trial.
(iii) The Secretary concerned may authorize, by regulation, officers exercising special
court-martial jurisdiction to refer capital ommses, other than those described in clause (C)(i), to
trial by special court-martial without first obtaining the consent of
the officer exercising general
court-martial jurisdiction over the command.
(D) Certain Ojjimses under Articles 120 and 120b. Notwithstanding subparagraph
(f)(2)(A), special courts-martial do not have jurisdiction over offenses under Articles 120(a),
120(b), 120b(a), and 120b(b), and attempts thereofunder Article 80. Such offenses shall not be
referred to a special court-martial.
(E) Limitations on trial by special court-martial consisting of
a military
judge alone.
(i) No specification may be tried by a special court-martial consisting of
a military
judge alone under Article 16(c)(2)(A) if, before arraignment, the accused objects on the
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grounds provided in subclause (I) or (II) of
this subparagraph and the military judge determines
that:
(I) the maximum authorized confinement for the offense it alleges would be
greater than two years if
the ofiense were tried by a general comt-martial, with the exception of
a specification alleging wrongful use or possession of a controlled substance in violation of
Article 112a(b) or an attempt thereof under Article 80; or
(II) the specification alleges an offense for which sex offender notification
would be required under regulations issued by the Secretary of
Defense.
(ii) Ifthe accused objects to trial by a special court-mattial consisting of a military judge
alone under Article 16(c)(2)(A), and the military judge makes a determination under clause (i),
trial may be ordered by a special court-martial under Article 16(c)(I) or a general court-martial
as may be appropriate.
(3) Summary courts-martial. See R.C.M. 1301(c) and (d)(l ).
(g) Concurrent jurisdiction of other military tribunals. The provisions of the UCMJ and this
Manual conferring jurisdiction upon courts-martial do not deprive military commissions, provost
courts, or other military tribunals of concurrent jurisdiction with respect to offenders or offenses
that by statute or by the law of war may be tried by military commissions, provost courts, or other
military tribunals.
Rule 202. Persons subject to the jurisdiction of courts-martial
(a) In general. Courts-martial may try any person when authorized to do so under the UCMJ.
(b) Offenses under the law (?f 1-var. Nothing in this rule limits the power of
general courts-martial
to try persons under the law ofwar. See R.C.M. 20l(f)(l)(B).
(c) Attachment l!fiurisdiction over the person.
(1) In general. Court-martial jurisdiction attaches over a person when action with a view to
trial of
that person is taken. Once court-martial jurisdiction over a person attaches, such
jurisdiction shall continue for all purposes of
trial, sentence, and punishment, notwithstanding
the expiration of
that person's tenn of service or other period in which that person was subject to
the UCMJ or trial by court-martial. When jurisdiction attaches over a Servicemember on active
duty, the Servicemember may be held on active duty over objection pending disposition of
any
offense for which held and shall remain subject to the UCMJ during the entire period.
(2) Procedure. Actions by which court-martial jurisdiction attaches include: apprehension;
imposition of
restraint, such as restriction, arrest, or confinement; and preferral of
charges.
Rule 203. Jurisdiction over the offense
To the extent permitted by the Constitution, courts-martial may try any ofiense under the
UCMJ and, in the case of
general courts-martial, the law of
war.
Rule 204. Jurisdiction over certain reserve component personnel
(a) Service regulations. The Secretary concerned shall prescribe regulations setting forth rules
and procedures for the exercise of court-martial jurisdiction and nonjudicial punishment
authority over reserve component personnel under Article 2(a)(3) and 2(d), subject to the
limitations of
this Manual and the UCMJ.
(b) Courts-martial.
(1) General and
special court-martial proceedings. A member of a reserve component
must be on active duty prior to arraignment at a general or special court-martial. A member
ordered to active duty pursuant to Article 2(d) may be retained on active duty to serve any
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adjudged confinement or other restriction on liberty if
the order to active duty was approved in
accordance with Article 2(d)(5), but such member may not be retained on active duty pursuant
to Article 2(d) after service of
the confinement or other restriction on liberty. All punishments
remaining unserved at the time the member is released from active duty may be carried over to
subsequent periods of
inactive-duty training or active duty.
(2) Summary courts-martial. A member of
a reserve component may be tried by summary
court-martial either while on active duty or inactive-duty training. A summary court-martial
conducted during inactive-duty training may be in session only during normal periods of such
training. The accused may not be held beyond such periods of training for trial or service or
any punishment. All punishments remaining unserved at the end of
a period of
active duty or
the end of
any nonnal period of
inactive duty training may be carried over to subsequent
periods of
inactive-duty training or active duty
(c) Applicability. This rule is not applicable when a member is held on active duty pursuant to
R.C.M. 202(c).
(d) Changes in type <?/service. A member of
a reserve component at the time disciplinary
action is initiated, who is alleged to have committed an offense while subject to the UCMJ, is
subject to court-martial jurisdiction without regard to any change between active and reserve
service or within different categories of
reserve service subsequent to commission of
the
offense. This subsection does not apply to a person whose military status was completely
terminated after commission of
an offense.
Rule 301. Report of offense
(a) Who may report. Any person may report an offense subject to trial by court-martial.
(b) To whom reports conveyed
jar disposition. Ordinarily, any military authority who receives a
report of
an offense shall forw·ard as soon as practicable the report and any accompanying
information to the immediate commander of
the suspect. Competent authority superior to that
commander may direct otherwise.
Rule 302. Apprehension
(a) Definition and
scope.
(1) Definition. Apprehension is the taking of a person into custody.
(2) Scope. This rule applies only to apprehensions made by persons authorized to do so under
subsection (b) of
this rule with respect to offenses subject to trial by court-martial. Nothing in this
rule limits the authority of
federal law enforcement officials to apprehend persons, whether or not
subject to trial by court-martial, to the extent permitted by applicable enabling statutes and other
law.
(b) Who may apprehend The following officials may apprehend any person subject to trial by
court-martial:
(1) Military lmv enforcement l~{ficials. Secmity police, military police, master at arms
personnel, members of
the shore patrol, and persons designated by proper authorities to perform
military criminal investigative, !:,'liard, or police duties, whether subject to the UCMJ or not,
when in each ofthe foregoing instances, the otlicial making the apprehension is in the execution
oflaw enforcement duties;
(2) Commissioned, warrant, petty, and noncommissioned ojficers. All commissioned, warrant,
petty, and noncommissioned officers on active duty or inactive duty training;
(3) Civilians authorized to apprehend deserters. Under Article 8, any civilian officer having
authority to apprehend offenders under laws of
the United States or of a State, Territory,
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Commonwealth, or possession, or the District of Columbia, when the apprehension is of a
deserter from the anned forces.
(c) Grounds
for apprehension. A person subject to the UCMJ or trial thereunder may be
apprehended for an offense triable by court-martial upon probable cause to apprehend. Probable
cause to apprehend exists when there are reasonable grounds to believe that an offense has been
or is being committed and the person to be apprehended committed or is committing it. Persons
authorized to apprehend under paragraph (b
)(2) of this rule may also apprehend persons subject
to the UCMJ who take part in quarrels, frays, or disorders, wherever they occur.
(d) How an apprehension may be made.
(1) In general. An apprehension is made by clearly notifying the person to be apprehended that
person is in custody. This notice should be given orally or in writing, but it may be implied by the
circumstances.
(2) Warrant.s·. Neither warrants nor any other authorizations shall be required for an
apprehension under these rules except as required in paragraph (
e
)(2) of this rule.
(3) Use <?(force. Any person authorized under these rules to make an apprehension may use
such force and means as reasonably necessary under the circumstances to effect the
apprehension.
(e) Where an apprehension may be made.
(1) ln general. An apprehension may be made at any place, except as provided in paragraph
(e)(2) of
this rule.
(2) Private dwellings. A private dwelling includes dwellings, on or ofT a military installation,
such as single family houses, duplexes, and apartments. The quarters may be owned, leased, or
rented by the residents, or assigned, and may be occupied on a temporary or permanent basis.
"Private dwelling" does not include the following, whether or not subdivided into individual
units: living areas in milit:1.ry barracks, vessels, aircraft, vehicles, tents, bunkers, field
encampments, and similar places. No person may enter a private dwelling for the purpose of
making an apprehension under these rules unless:
(A) Pursuant to consent under Mil. R. Evid. 314(e) or 316(c)(3);
(B) There is a reasonable belief
that the delay necessary to obtain a search warrant or
search authorization would result in the person sought to be taken into custody evading
apprehension;
(C) In the case of a private dwelling which is military prope11y or under military control,
or nonmilitary propet1y in a foreign country
(i) if
the person to be apprehended is a resident of
the private dwelling, there exists, at
the time of
the entry, reason to believe that the person to be apprehended is present in the
dwelling, and the apprehension has been authorized by an official listed in Mil. R. Evid. 315(
d)
upon a determination that probable cause to apprehend the person exists; or
(ii) if
the person to be apprehended is not a resident of
the private dwelling, the entry
has been authorized by an official listed in Mil. R. Evid. 315(d) upon a detennination that
probable cause exists to apprehend the person and to believe that the person to be apprehended is
or will be present at the time of
the entry;
(D) In the case of a private dwelling not included in subparagraph (e)(2)(C) of
this rule,
(i) if
the person to be apprehended is a resident of the private dwelling, there exists at
the time of
the entry, reason to believe that the person to be apprehended is present and the
apprehension is authorized by an arrest warrant issued by competent civilian authority; or
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(ii) if
the person to be apprehended is not a resident of
the private dwelling, the
apprehension is authorized by an arrest warrant and the entry is authorized by a search warrant,
each issued by competent civilian authority. A person who is not a resident of
the private
dwelling entered may not challenge the legality of an apprehension of
that person on the basis of
failure to secure a warrant or authorization to enter that dwelling, or on the basis of
the
sufficiency of
such a warrant or authorization. Nothing in paragraph (
e
)(2) affects the legality of
an apprehension which is incident to otherwise lawful presence in a private dwelling.
Rule 303. Preliminat·y imtuiry into reported offenses
Upon receipt of information that a member of the command is accused or suspected of
committing an offense or offenses triable by court-martial, the immediate commander shall
make or cause to be made a preliminary inquiry into the charges or suspected offenses.
Rule 304. Pretrial restraint
(a) Types ofpretrial restraint. Pretrial restraint is moral or physical restraint on a person's liberty
which is imposed before and during disposition of offenses. Pretrial restraint may consist of
conditions on libe11y, restriction in lieu of
arrest, arrest, or confinement.
(1) Conditions on liberty. Conditions on liberty are imposed by orders directing a person to do
or refrain from doing specified acts. Such conditions may be imposed in conjunction with other
forms of restraint or separately.
(2) Restriction in lieu qf
arrest. Restriction in lieu of
arrest is the restraint of
a person by oral
or written orders directing the person to remain within specified limits; a restricted person shall,
unless otherwise directed, perform full military duties while restricted.
(3) Arre:...t. Arrest is the restraint of a person by oral or written order not imposed as
punishment, directing the person to remain within specified limits; a person in the status of
arrest
may not be required to perform full military duties such as commanding or supervising
personnel, serving as guard, or bearing arms. The status of
arrest automatically ends when the
person is placed, by the authority who ordered the arrest or a superior authmity, on duty
inconsistent with the status of
arrest, but this shall not prevent requiring the person arrested to do
ordinary cleaning or policing, or to take part in routine training and duties.
(4) Confinement. Pretrial confinement is physical restraint, imposed by order of competent
authority, depriving a person of
freedom pending disposition of offenses. See R.C.M. 305.
(b) Who may order pretrial restraint.
(1) Of
civilians and officers. Only a commanding officer to whose authority the civilian or
officer is subject may order pretrial restraint of
that civilian or officer.
(2) Of
enlisted
persons. Any commissioned officer may order pretrial restraint of any enlisted
person.
(3) Delegation qf
authority. The authority to order pretrial restraint of
civilians and
commissioned and warrant officers may not be delegated. A commanding officer may delegate
to warrant, petty, and noncommissioned officers authority to order pretrial restraint of enlisted
persons of
the commanding officer's command or subject to the authority of
that commanding
officer.
(4) Authority to withhold A superior competent authority may withhold from a subordinate
the authority to order pretrial restraint.
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(c) Tr:Vhen a person may be restrained. No person may be ordered into restraint before trial except
for probable cause. Probable cause to order pretrial restraint exists when there is a reasonable
belief
that:
(1) An offense triable by court-martial has been committed;
(2) The person to be restrained committed it; and
(3) The restraint ordered is required by the circumstances.
(d) Proceduresfor ordering pretrial restraint. Pretrial restraint other than continement is imposed
by notifying the person orally or in writing of the restraint, including its terms or limits. The order
to an enlisted person shall be delivered personally by the authority who issues it or through other
persons subject to the UCMJ. The order to an officer or a civilian shall be delivered personally by
the authority who issues it or by another commissioned officer. Pretrial confinement is imposed
pursuant to orders by a competent authority by the delivery of a person to a place of
confinement.
(e) Notice (?f basis fbr restraint. When a person is placed under restraint, the person shall be
informed of
the nature of the offense which is the basis for such restraint.
(f) Punishment prohibited Pretrial restraint is not punishment and shall not be used as such. No
person who is restrained pending trial may be subjected to punishment or penalty for the offense
which is the basis for that restraint. Prisoners being held for trial shall not be required to undergo
punitive duty hours or training, perform punitive labor, or wear special uniforms prescribed only
for post-trial prisoners. This rule does not prohibit minor punishment during pretrial confinement
for infractions of the rules of
the place of
confinement. Prisoners shall be afforded facilities and
treatment under regulations of
the Secretary concerned.
(g) Release. Except as otherwise provided in RC.M. 305, a person may be released from pretrial
restraint by a person authorized to impose it. Pretrial restraint shall terminate when a sentence is
adjudged, the accused is acquitted of
all charges, or all charges are dismissed.
(h) Administrative restraint. Nothing in this rule prohibits limitations on a Servicemember
imposed for operational or other military purposes independent of
military justice, including
administrative hold or medical reasons.
Rule 305. Pretrial confinement
(a) in general. Pretrial confinement is physical restraint, imposed by order of competent
authority, depriving a person of
freedom pending disposition of charges.
(b) VVho may be confined. Any person who is subject to trial by court-martial may be confined
if
the requirements of
this rule are met.
(c) TrVho may order corifinement. See R. C.M. 304(b
).
(d) When a person may be cm?fined. No person may be ordered into pretrial confinement except
for probable cause. Probable cause to order pretrial confinement exists when there is a
reasonable belief that:
(1) An offense triable by court-martial has been committed;
(2) The person contl.ned committed it; and
(3) Confinement is required by the circumstances.
(e) Advice to the accused upon cor{finement. Each person confined shall be promptly informed
of:
(
1) The nature of
the offenses for which held;
(2) The right to remain silent and that any statement made by the person may be used against
the person;
(3) The right to retain civilian counsel at no expense to the United States, and the right to
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request assignment of
military counsel; and
(4) The procedures by which pretrial confinement will be reviewed.
(f) Militmy counsel. If
requested by the confinee and such request is made known to military
authorities, military counsel shall be provided to the confinee before the initial review under
subsection (i) of
this rule or within 72 hours of such a request being first communicated to
military authorities, whichever occurs first. Counsel may be assigned for the limited purpose of
representing the accused only during the prettial confinement proceedings before charges are
referred. If
assignment is made for this limited purpose, the confinee shall be so informed.
Unless otherwise provided by regulations of
the Secretary concerned, a confinee does not have
a right under this rule to have military counsel of
the confinee's own selection.
(g) Who may direct release from cm?finement. Any commander of a confinee, an officer
appointed under regulations of
the Secretary concerned to conduct the review under subsection
(i) or (j) of
this rule, or, once charges have been referred, a military judge detailed to the court-
martial to which the charges against the accused have been referred, may direct release from
pretrial confinement. For purposes of
this subsection, "any commander" includes the immediate
or higher commander of
the confinee and the commander of the installation on which the
confinement facility is located.
(h) Not~fication
and action hy commander.
(1) Report. Unless the commander of
the confi nee ordered the pretrial confinement, the
commissioned, warrant, noncommissioned, or petty officer into whose charge the confinee was
committed shal1, within 24 hours after that commitment, cause a report to be made to the
commander that shall contain the name of
the confinee, the offenses charged against the
confinee, and the name of
the person who ordered or authorized confinement.
(2) Action hy commander.
(A) Decision. Not later than 72 hours after the commander's ordering of a confinee into
pretrial confinement or, after receipt of
a report that a member of
the commander's unit or
organization has been confined, whichever situation is applicable, the commander shall decide
whether pretrial confinement will continue. A commander's compliance with this subparagraph
may also satisfy the 48-hour probable cause determination of
paragraph (i)(l) of
this rule,
provided the commander is a neutral and detached ofiicer and acts within 48 hours of
the
imposition of
confinement under military control. Nothing in subsection (d), paragraph (i)(l), or
this subparagraph prevents a neutral and detached commander from completing the 48-hour
probable cause detennination and the 72-hour commander's decision immediately after an
accused is ordered into pretrial confinement.
(B) Requirements jar confinement. The commander shall direct the confinee' s release from
pretrial confinement unless the commander believes upon probable cause, that is, upon
reasonable grounds, that:
(i) An offense triable by a court-martial has been committed;
(ii) The confinee committed it;
(iii) Confinement is necessary because it is foreseeable that:
(a) The confinee will not appear at trial, pretrial hearing, or preliminary hearing, or
(b) The confinee will engage in serious criminal misconduct; and
(iv) Less severe forms of restraint are inadequate.
Serious criminal misconduct includes intimidation of
witnesses or other obstruction of
justice,
serious injury of
others, or other offenses which pose a serious threat to the safety of
the
community or to the effectiveness, morale, discipline, readiness, or safety of
the command, or to
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the national security of
the United States. As used in this rule, "national security" means the
national defense and foreign relations of
the United States and specifically includes: a military or
defense advantage over any foreign nation or group of
nations; a favorable foreign relations
position; or a defense posture capable of successfully resisting hostile or destructive action from
within or without, overt or covert.
(C) 72-hour memorandum. If continued pretrial confinement is approved, the commander
shall prepare a written memorandum that states the reasons for the conclusion that the
requirements for confinement in subparagraph (h)(2)(B) of
this rule have been met. This
memorandum may include hearsay and may incorporate by reference other documents, such as
witness statements, investigative reports, or official records. This memorandum shall be
forwarded to the 7-day reviewing officer under paragraph (i)(2) of
this rule. If such a
memorandum was prepared by the commander before ordering confinement, a second
memorandum need not be prepared; however, additional information may be added to the
memorandum at any time.
(i) Proceduresfor review (?{pretrial corrfinement.
(1) 48-hour probable cause determination. Review of
the adequacy of probable cause to
continue pretrial confinement shall be made by a neutral and detached officer within 48 hours
of
imposition of confinement under military control. Tfthe confinee is apprehended by civilian
authorities and remains in civilian custody at the request of military authorities, reasonable
efforts will be made to bring the confinee under military control in a timely fashion.
(2) 7-da_y review of
pretrial confinement. Within 7 days of
the imposition of
confinement, a
neutral and detached officer appointed in accordance with regulations prescribed by the
Secretary concerned shall review the probable cause determination and necessity for continued
pretrial confinement. In calculating the number of days of
confinement for purposes of
this rule,
the initial date of confinement under military control shall count as one day and the date of
the
review shall also count as one day.
(A) Nature of
the 7-day revie1v.
(i)Matters considered The review under this subsection shall include a review of
the
memorandum submitted by the continee's commander under subparagraph (h)(2)(C) of
this
rule. Additional written matters may be considered, including any submitted by the confinee.
The confinee and the confinee' s counsel, if
any, shall be allowed to appear before the 7
-day
reviewing officer and make a statement, if
practicable. A representative of
the command may
also appear before the reviewing officer to make a statement.
(ii) Rules ofevidence. Except for Mil. R. Evid., Section V (Privileges) and Mil. R.
Evid. 302 and 305, the Military Rules of
Evidence shall not apply to the matters considered.
(iii) Standard ofproof The requirements for confinement under subparagraph
(h)(2)(B) of
this rule must be proved by a preponderance of
the evidence.
(iv) Victim's right to be reasonably heard A victim of an alleged offense committed
by the confinee has the right to reasonable, accurate, and timely notice of
the 7-day review; the
right to confer with the representative of the command and counsel for the government, if
any;
and the right to be reasonably heard during the review. However, the hearing may not be unduly
delayed for this purpose. The right to be heard under this rule includes the right to be heard
through counsel and the right to be reasonably protected from the confinee during the 7-day
review. The victim of an alleged offense shall be notified of
these rights in accordance with
regulations of the Secretary concerned.
(B) Extension of
time limit. The 7-day reviewing officer may, for good cause, extend the
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time limit for completion of
the review to 10 days after the imposition of
pretrial confinement.
(C) Action by 7-day revietFing ojjicer. Upon completion of review, the reviewing officer
shall approve continued confinement or order immediate release. If
the reviewing officer orders
immediate release, a victim of
an alleged offense committed by the confinee has the right to
reasonable, accurate, and timely notice of
the release, unless such notice may endanger the safety
of
any person.
(D)JMemorandum. The 7-day reviewing officer's conclusions, including the factual
findings on which they are based, shall be set forth in a written memorandum. The memorandum
shall also state whether the victim was notified of the review, was given the opportunity to
confer with the representative of
the command or counsel for the government, and was given a
reasonable opportunity to be heard. A copy of the memorandum and all documents considered
by the 7-day reviewing officer shall be maintained in accordance with regulations prescribed by
the Secretary concerned and provided to the accused or the Government on request.
(E) Reconsideration r<f approval r<f continued Cot!finement. The 7
-day revievving officer
shall upon request, and after notice to the parties, reconsider the decision to confine the
confinee based upon any significant information not previously considered.
G) Revielt' hy militatyjudge. Once the charges for which the accused has been confined are
referred to trial, the military judge shall review the propriety of
pretrial confinement upon
motion for appropriate relief.
(1) Release. The military judge shall order release from pretrial confinement only if:
(A) The 7-day reviewing officer's decision was an abuse of
discretion, and there is not
sufficient information presented to the military judge justifying continuation of
pretrial
confinement under subparagraph (h)(2)(B) of
this rule;
(B) Information not presented to the 7-day reviewing officer establishes that the
con±inee should be released under subparagraph (h)(2)(B) of
this rule; or
(C) The provisions of paragraph (i)(l) or (2) ofthis rule have not been complied with
and infonnation presented to the military judge does not establish sutlicient grounds for
continued confinement under subparagraph (h)(2)(B) of
this rule.
(2) Credit. The military judge shall order administrative credit under subsection (k) of
this
rule for any pretrial confinement served as a result of
an abuse of
discretion or failure to
comply with the provisions of subsections (f), (h), or (i) of
this rule.
(k) Remedy. The remedy for noncompliance with subsections (f), (h), (i), or G) of
this rule
shall be an administrative credit against the sentence adjudged for any confinement served as
the result of such noncompliance. Such credit shall be computed at the rate of 1 day credit for
each day of
confinement served as a result of such noncompliance. The military judge may
order additional credit for each day of
pretrial confinement that involves an abuse of discretion
or unusually harsh circumstances. This credit is to be applied in addition to any other credit the
accused may be entitled as a result of pretrial confinement served. This credit shall be applied
first against any confinement adjudged. If no confinement is adjudged, or if
the confinement
adjudged is insufficient to offset all the credit to which the accused is entitled, the credit shall
be applied against hard labor without confinement using the conversion formula under R.C.M.
1
003(b
)(
6), restriction using the conversion formula under R. C.M. 1003(b
)(5), fine, and
forfeiture of
pay, in that order. For purposes of
this subsection, 1 day of
confinement shall be
equal to 1 day of
total forfeiture or a like amount of
fine. The credit shall not be applied
against any other form of punishment.
(1) CorJfinement qfter release. No person whose release from pretrial confinement has been
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directed by a person authorized in subsection (g) of
this rule may be confined again before
completion of
trial except upon discovery, after the order of
release, of
evidence or of
misconduct which, either alone or in conjunction with all other available evidence, justifies
confinement.
(m) Exceptions.
(
1) Operational necessity. The Secretary of
Defense may suspend application of paragraphs
(e)(3), (e)(4), subsection (f), subparagraphs (h)(2)(A) and (C), and subsection (i) of
this rule to
specific units or in specified areas when operational requirements of such units or in such areas
would make application of such provisions impracticable.
(2)At sea. Paragraphs (e)(3) and (e)(4), subsection (f), subparagraph (h)(2)(C), and
subsection (i) of
this rule shall not apply in the case of
a person on board a vessel at sea. In such
situations, confinement on board the vessel at sea may continue only until the person can be
transferred to a confinement facility ashore. Such transfer shall be accomplished at the earliest
opportunity pennitted by the operational requirements and mission of
the vessel. Upon such
transfer the memorandum required by subparagraph (h)(2)(C) of
this rule shall be transmitted to
the reviewing officer under subsection (i) of
this rule and shall include an explanation of any
delay in the transfer.
(n) Notice to victim l?f
escaped Cot?finee. A victim of
an alleged offense committed by the
confinee for which the confinee has been placed in pretrial confinement has the right to
reasonable, accurate, and timely notice of
the escape of
the prisoner, unless such notice may
endanger the safety of any person.
Rule 306. Initial disposition
(a) Who may dispose of
offenses. Each commander has discretion to dispose of
offenses by
members of
that command. Ordinarily the immediate commander of
a person accused or
suspected of
committing an offense triable by court-martial initially detennines how to dispose
of
that offense. A superior commander may withhold the authority to dispose of
offenses in
individual cases, types of
cases, or generally. A superior commander may not limit the discretion
of a subordinate commander to act on cases over which authority has not been withheld.
(b) Policy. Allegations of
offenses should be disposed of in a timely manner at the lowest
appropriate level of disposition listed in subsection (c) of
this rule
(c) How offenses may be disposed of Within the limits of
the commander's authority, a
commander may take the actions set forth in this subsection to initially dispose of
a charge or
suspected offense.
(1) No action. A commander may decide to take no action on an offense. If charges have been
preferred, they may be dismissed.
(2) Administrative action. A commander may take or initiate administrative action, in addition
to or instead of
other action taken under this rule, subject to regulations of
the Secretary
concerned. Administrative actions include corrective measures such as counseling, admonition,
reprimand, exhortation, disapproval, criticism, censure, reproach, rebuke, extra military
instruction, or the administrative withholding of
privileges, or any combination of
the above.
(3) Nonjudicial punishment. A commander may consider the matter pursuant to Article 15,
nonjudicial punishment. See Part V.
(
4) Disposition qf
charges. Charges may be disposed of
in accordance with R. C.M. 401.
(5) Forwarding.for disposition. A commander may forward a matter concerning an offense,
or charges, to a superior or subordinate authority for disposition.
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(d) National security matters. If a commander not authorized to convene general courts-martial
finds that an offense warrants trial by court-martial, but believes that trial would be detrimental
to the prosecution of
a war or harmful to national security, the matter shall be forwarded to the
general court-martial convening authority for action under R.C.M. 407(b
).
(e) Sex-related offenses.
(1) For purposes of
this subsection, a "sex-related offense" means any allegation of
a
violation of
Article 120, 120b, 120c, or 130, or any attempt thereof under At1icle 80, UCMJ.
(2) Under such regulations as the Secretaty concerned may prescribe, for alleged sex-related
offenses committed in the United States, the victim of
the sex-related offense shall be provided
an opportunity to express views as to whether the offense should be prosecuted by court-martial
or in a civilian court '.vith jurisdiction over the offense. The commander, and if
charges are
preferred, the convening authority, shall consider such views as to the victim's preference for
jurisdiction, if
available, prior to making an initial disposition decision. For purposes of
this rule,
"victim" is defined as an individual who has suffered direct physical, emotional, or pecuniary
harm as a result of
the commission of an alleged sex-related offense as defined in paragraph
(e)(l) of
this rule.
(3) Under such regulations as the Secretary concerned may prescribe, if
the victim of
an
alleged sex-related offense expresses a preference for prosecution of
the offense in a civilian
court, the commander, and if
charges are preferred, the convening authority, shall ensure that the
civilian authority with jurisdiction over the offense is notified of
the victim's preference for
civilian prosecution. If
the commander and, if charges are preferred, the convening authority
learns of
any decision by the civilian authority to prosecute or not prosecute the offense in
civilian court, the commander or convening authority shall ensure the victim is notified.
Rule 307. Preferral of
charges
(a) T;J!ho may
prefer charges. Any person subject to the UCMJ may prefer charges.
(b) How charges are preferred; oath. In preferring charges and specifications-
( I) The person preferring the charges and specifications must sign them under oath before a
commissioned oflicer of
the anned forces authmized to administer oaths; and
(2) The writing under paragraph (1) must state that-
(A) the signer has personal knowledge of, or has investigated, the matters set forth in the
charges and specifications; and
(B) the matters set forth in the charges and specifications are true to the best of
the
knowledge and belief of the signer.
(c) How to allege offenses.
(1) In general. The format of
charge and specification is used to allege violations of
the UCMJ.
(2) Charge. A charge states the article of the UCMJ, law of war, or local penal law of an
occupied territory which the accused is alleged to have violated.
(3) Spec{fication. A specification is a plain, concise, and definite statement of the essential
facts constituting the offense charged. A specification is sufficient if it alleges every element of
the charged offense expressly or by necessary implication; however, specifications under Article
134 must expressly allege the terminal element. Except for aggravating factors under R.C.M.
1
003(d) and R.C.M. 1004, facts that increase the maximum authorized punishment must be alleged
in order to permit the possible increased punishment. No particular format is required.
(4) lvfultiple C?ffenses. Charges and specifications alleging all known offenses by an accused
may be preferred at the same time. Each specification shall state only one offense. What is
substantially one transaction should not be made the basis for an unreasonable multiplication of
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charges against one person.
(5)Multiple offenders. A specification may name more than one person as an accused if each
person so named is believed by the accuser to be a principal in the offense which is the subject of
the specification.
(d) Harmless error in citation. Error in or omission of
the designation of
the article of
the UCMJ
or other statute, law of
war, or regulation violated shall not be ground for dismissal of
a charge or
reversal of
a conviction if
the error or omission did not prejudicially mislead the accused.
Rule 308. Notification to accused of charges
(a) Immediate commander. The immediate commander of
the accused shall cause the accused to
be informed of
the charges preferred against the accused, and the name ofthe person who
preferred the charges and of
any person who ordered the charges to be preferred, if known, as
soon as practicable.
(b) Commanders at higher echelons. When the accused has not been informed of
the charges,
commanders at higher echelons to whom the preferred charges are forwarded shall cause the
accused to be informed of
the matters required under subsection (a) of
this rule as soon as
practicable.
(c) Remedy. The sole remedy for violation of
this rule is a continuance or recess of sufficient
length to permit the accused to adequately prepare a defense, and no relief shall be granted upon
a failure to comply with this rule unless the accused demonstrates that the accused has been
hindered in the preparation of a defense.
Rule 309. Pre-referral judicial proceedings
(a) In general.
(1) A military judge detailed under regulations of
the Secretary concerned may conduct
proceedings under Article 30a before referral of charges and specifications to court-martial for
trial, and may issue such mlings and orders as necessary to fmther the purpose of
the
proceedings.
(2) The matters that may be considered and mled upon by a military judge in proceeding
under this mle are limited to those matters specified in subsection (b).
(3) If any matter in a proceeding under this mle becomes a subject at issue with respect to
charges that have been referred to a general or special court-martial, the matter, to include any
motions, related papers, and the record of
the hearing, if
any, shall be provided to the military
judge detailed to the court-martial.
(b) Pre-referral matters.
(1) Pre-referral investigative subpoenas. A military judge may, upon application by the
Government, consider whether to issue a pre-referral investigative subpoena under R.C.M.
703(g)(3)(C). The proceeding may be conducted ex parte and may be conducted in camera.
(2) Pre-re.ferral·warrants or orders
for wire or electronic communications. A military judge
may, upon written application by a federal law enforcement officer or authorized counsel for
the Government in connection with an ongoing investigation of
an offense or offenses under the
UCMJ, consider whether to issue a warrant or order for wire or electronic communications and
related information as provided under R.C.M. 703A. The proceeding may be conducted ex
parte and may be conducted in camera.
(3) Requestsfor relieffrom :o.·uhpoena or other process. A person in receipt of a pre-referral
investigative subpoena under RC.M. 703(g)(3)(C) or a service provider in receipt of an order
to disclose information about wire or electronic communications under RC.M. 703A may
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request relief on grounds that compliance with the subpoena or order is unreasonable,
oppressive or prohibited by law. The military judge shall review the request and shall either
order the person or service provider to comply with the subpoena or order, or modify or quash
the subpoena or order as appropriate. In a proceeding under this paragraph, the United States
shall be represented by an authorized counsel for the Government.
(
4) Pre-referral matters referred by an appellate court. When a Court of
Criminal Appeals
or the Court of
Appeals for the Armed Forces, in the course of
exercising the jurisdiction of
such court, remands the case for a pre-referral judicial proceeding, a military judge may
conduct such a proceeding under this rule.
(c) Procedure for submissions. The Secretaty concerned shall prescribe the procedures for
receiving requests for proceedings under this rule and for detailing military judges to such
proceedings.
(d) Hearing••. Any hearing conducted under this rule shall be conducted in accordance with the
procedures generally applicable to sessions conducted under Article 39(a) and R.C.M. 803.
(e) Record A separate record of
any proceeding under this rule shall be prepared and forwarded
to the convening authority or commander with authority to dispose of
the charges or offenses in
the case. If charges are referred to trial in the case, such record shall be included in the record
of
trial.
(f) A1ilitmy magistrate. If authorized under regulations of
the Secretary concerned, a military
judge detailed to a proceeding under this rule, other than a proceeding under paragraph (b
)(2),
may designate a military magistrate to preside and exercise the authority of
the military judge
over the proceeding.
Rule 401. Forwarding and disposition of charges in general
(a) Who may di!)pose of
charges. Only persons authorized to convene courts-martial or to
administer nonjudicial punishment under Article 15 may dispose of
charges. A superior
competent authority may withhold the authority of a subordinate to dispose of
charges in
individual cases, types of cases, or generally.
(b) Prompt determination. When a commander with authority to dispose of
charges receives
charges, that commander shall promptly determine what disposition will be made in the interest
of
justice and discipline.
(c) How charges may be disposed of Unless the authority to do so has been limited or withheld
by superior competent authority, a commander may dispose of
charges by dismissing any or all
of them, forwarding any or all of
them to another commander for disposition, or referring any
or all of
them to a court-martial which the commander is empowered to convene. Charges should
be disposed of
in accordance with the policy in R. C.M. 306(b
).
(1) Dismissal. When a commander dismisses charges further disposition under RC.M.
306(
c) of
the offenses is not barred.
(2) Fonmrding chatges.
(A) Fonvarding to a superior commander. When charges are forwarded to a superior
commander for disposition, the forwarding commander shall make a personal recommendation as
to disposition. If
the forwarding commander is disqualified from acting as convening authority in
the case, the basis for the disqualification shall be noted.
(B) Other cases. When charges are forwarded to a commander who is not a superior of the
forwarding commander, no recommendation as to disposition may be made.
(3) Referral~~
charges. See R.C.M. 403, 404, 407, 601.
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(d) National security matters. If a commander who is not a general court-martial convening
authority finds that the charges warrant trial by court-martial but believes that trial would
probably be detrimental to the prosecution of
a >var or harmful to national security, the charges
shall be forwarded to the officer exercising general court-mat1ial convening authority.
Rule 402. Action by commander not authorized to convene courts-martial
When in receipt of
charges, a commander authorized to administer nonjudicial punishment but
not authorized to convene courts-martial may:
(1) Dismiss any charges; or
(2) Forward them to a superior commander for disposition.
Rule 403. Action by commander exercising summary court-martial jurisdiction
(a) Recording receipt. Immediately upon receipt of
sworn charges, an officer exercising
summary court-martial jurisdiction over the command shall cause the hour and date of receipt to
be entered on the charge sheet.
(b) Disposition. When in receipt of charges a commander exercising summary court-martial
jurisdiction may:
(1) Dismiss any charges;
(2) Forward charges (or, after dismissing charges, the matter) to a subordinate commander
for disposition;
(3) Forward any charges to a superior commander for disposition;
(4) Subject to R.C.M. 601(d) and 130l(c), refer charges to a summary court-martial for trial;
or
(5) Unless otherwise prescribed by the Secretary concerned, direct a preliminary hearing
under R.C.M. 405, and, if
appropriate, forward the report of preliminary hearing with the
charges to a superior commander for disposition.
Rule 404. Action by commander exercising special court-martial jurisdiction
When in receipt of
charges, a commander exercising special court-martial jurisdiction may:
(1) Dismiss any charges;
(2) Forward charges (or, after dismissing charges, the matter) to a subordinate commander for
disposition;
(3) Forward any charges to a superior commander for disposition;
(4) Subject to R.C.M. 20l(f)(2)(D) and (E), 60l(d), and 130l(c), refer charges to a summary
court-martial or to a special court-martial for trial; or,
(5) Unless otherwise prescribed by the Secretary concerned, direct a preliminaty hearing under
R.C.M. 405, and, if
appropriate, forvvard the report of
preliminary hearing with the charges to a
superior commander for disposition.
Rule 404A. Initial disclosures
(a) Generally. Except as othe1wise provided in subsections (b)-(
d), counsel for the Government
shall provide the following information, matters, and disclosures to the defense:
(1) After
preferral r?.f charges. As soon as practicable after notification to the accused of
preferred charges under R.C.M. 308, counsel for the Government shall provide the defense with
copies of, or if
impracticable, pennit the defense to inspect the charges and any matters that
accompanied the charges when they were preferred.
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(2) After direction of
a preliminary hearing. As soon as practicable but no later than five
days after direction of
an Article 32 preliminary hearing, counsel for the Government shall
provide the defense with copies of, or if impracticable, pennit the defense to inspect:
(A) the order directing the Article 32 preliminary hearing pursuant to RC.M. 405;
(B) statements, within the control of military authorities, of
witnesses that counsel for the
Government intends to call at the preliminary hearing;
(C) evidence counsel for the Government intends to present at the preliminary hearing; and
(D) any matters provided to the convening authority when deciding to direct the
preliminary hearing.
(b) Contraband If items covered by subsection (a) of
this rule are contraband, the disclosure
required under this rule is a reasonable opportunity to inspect said contraband prior to the
preliminary hearing.
(c) Privilege. Ifitems covered by subsection (a) of
this rule are privileged, classified, or
otherwise protected under Section V of
Part III, the Military Rules of
Evidence, no disclosure of
those items is required under this rule. However, counsel for the Government may disclose
privileged, classified, or othenvise protected information covered by subsection (a) of
this rule if
authorized by the holder of the privilege, or in the case of
Mil. R. Evid. 505 or 506, if
authorized
by a competent authority.
(d) Protective order~~
privileged irrformation is disclosed If
the Government agrees to disclose
to the accused information to which the protections afforded by Section V of
Part ITT may apply,
the convening authority, or other person designated by regulation of
the Secretary concerned,
may enter an appropriate protective order, in writing, to guard against the compromise of
infonnation disclosed to the accused. The tenns of any such protective order may include
prohibiting the disclosure of
the information except as authorized by the authority issuing the
protective order, as well as those terms specified by Mil. R. Evid. 505(g)(2)-(6) or 506(g)(2)-
(5).
Rule 405. Preliminary hearing
(a) In general. Except as provided in subsection (m), no charge or specification may be
referred to a general court-martial for trial until completion of
a preliminary hearing in
substantial compliance with this mle. The issues for determination at a preliminary hearing are
limited to the following: whether each specification alleges an of11~nse; whether there is
probable cause to believe that the accused committed the offense or otienses charged; whether
the convening authority has court-martial jurisdiction over the accused and over the offense;
and to recommend the disposition that should be made of
the case. Failure to comply with this
rule shall have no efiect on the disposition of
any charge if
the charge is not referred to a
general court-martial.
(b) Earlier preliminary hearing. If
a preliminary hearing on the subject matter of
an offense has
been conducted before the accused is charged with an offense, and the accused was present at
the preliminary hearing and afforded the rights to counsel, cross-examination, and presentation
of
evidence required by this rule, no further preliminary hearing is required.
(c) Who may direct a prelimintl!y hearing. Unless prohibited by regulations of
the Secretary
concerned, a preliminary hearing may be directed under this rule by any court-martial
convening authority. That authority may also give procedural instmctions not inconsistent with
these rules.
(d) Personnel.
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( 1) Preliminaty hearing officer.
(A) The convening authority directing the preliminary hearing shall detail an impartial
judge advocate, not the accuser, who is certified under Article 27(b
)(2) to conduct the hearing.
When it is impracticable to appoint a judge advocate certified under Article 27(b
)(2) due to
exceptional circumstances:
(i) The convening authority may detail an impaiiial commissioned officer as the
preliminary hearing officer, and
(ii) An impartial judge advocate certified under Article 27(b
)(2) shall be available to
provide legal advice to the detailed preliminary hearing officer.
(B) Whenever practicable, the preliminary hearing officer shall be equal or senior in
grade to the military counsel detailed to represent the accused and the Government at the
preliminary hearing.
(C) The Secretary concerned may prescribe additional limitations on the detailing of
preliminary hearing officers.
(D) The preliminary hearing officer shall not depart from an impartial role and become
an advocate for either side. The preliminary hearing officer is disqualified to act later in the
same case in any other capacity.
(2) Counselfor the Government. A judge advocate, not the accuser, shall serve as counsel
to represent the Government.
(3) Defense counsel.
(A) Detailed counsel. Military counsel certified in accordance with Article 27(b) shall be
detailed to represent the accused.
(B) Individual militcny counsel. The accused may request to be represented by individual
military counsel. Such requests shall be acted on in accordance with R C.M. 506(b
).
(C) Civilian counsel. The accused may be represented by civilian counsel at no expense
to the Government. Upon request, the accused is entitled to a reasonable time to obtain civilian
counsel and to have such counsel present for the preliminary hearing. However, the preliminary
hearing shall not be unduly delayed for this purpose. Representation by civilian counsel shall
not limit the rights to military counsel under subparagraphs (A) and (B).
(
4) Others. The convening authority who directed the preliminary hearing may also detail or
request an appropriate authority to detail a reporter, an interpreter, or both.
(e) Scope of
pre/iminmy hearing.
(1) The preliminary hearing officer shall limit the inquiry to the examination of
evidence,
including witnesses, relevant to the issues for detennination under subsection (a).
(2) If evidence adduced during the preliminary hearing indicates that the accused committed
any uncharged offense, the preliminary hearing officer may examine evidence and hear
witnesses presented by the parties relating to the subject matter of such offense and make the
determinations specified in subsection (a) regarding such offense without the accused first
having been charged with the offense. The rights of
the accused under subsection (f), and,
where it would not cause undue delay to the proceedings, the procedure applicable for
production of witnesses and other evidence under subsection (h), are the same with regard to
both charged and uncharged offenses. When considering uncharged offenses identified during
the preliminary hearing, the preliminary hearing officer shall inform the accused of
the general
nature of each uncharged offense considered, and otherwise afford the accused the same
opportunity for representation, cross examination, and presentation afforded during the
preliminary hearing of
any charged offense.
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(f) Rights of
the accused At any preliminary hearing under this rule the accused shall have the
right to:
(1) Be advised of
the charges under consideration;
(2) Be represented by counsel;
(3) Be informed of
the purpose of
the preliminary hearing;
(4) Be informed of
the right against self-incrimination under Article 31;
(5) Except in the circumstances described in R.C.M. 804(c)(2), be present throughout the
taking of
evidence;
(6) Cross-examine witnesses on matters relevant to the issues for determination under
subsection (a);
(7) Present matters relevant to the issues for determination under subsection (a); and
(8) Make a sworn or unsworn statement relevant to the issues for determination under
subsection (a).
(g) Notice to and
presence ~{victim.
(1) For the purposes of
this rule, a "victim" is an individual who is alleged to have suffered a
direct physical, emotional, or pecuniary harm as a result of
the commission of
an offense under
the UCMJ.
(2) A victim of
an offense under the UCMJ has the right to reasonable, accurate, and timely
notice of
a preliminary hearing relating to the alleged offense and the reasonable right to confer
with counsel for the Government.
(3) A victim has the right not to be excluded from any public proceeding of
the preliminary
hearing, except to the extent a similarly situated victim would be excluded at trial.
(h) Notice, Production (if Witnesses, and
Production (if Other 1<.,
'vidence.
(1) Notice. Prior to any preliminary hearing under this rule the parties shall, in accordance
with timelines set by the preliminary hearing ofiicer, provide to the preliminary hearing oflicer
and the opposing party the following notices:
(A) Notice of
the name and contact infonnation for each witness the party intends to call
at the preliminary hearing; and
(B) Notice of
any other evidence that the party intends to offer at the preliminary hearing;
and
(C) Notice of
any additional information the party intends to submit under subsection (k).
(2) Production ~f
Witnesses.
(A)Military Witnesses.
(i) Prior to the preliminary hearing, defense counsel shall provide to counsel for the
Government the names of
proposed military witnesses whom the accused requests that the
Government produce to testify at the preliminary hearing, and the requested form of
the
testimony, in accordance with the timeline established by the preliminary hearing officer.
Counsel for the Government shall respond that either (1) the Government agrees that the witness'
testimony is relevant, not cumulative, and necessary to a determination of
the issues under
subsection (a) and will seek to secure the witness' testimony for the hearing; or (2) the
Government objects to the proposed defense witness on the grounds that the testimony would be
irrelevant, cumulative, or unnecessary to a determination of
the issues under subsection (a).
(ii) If
the Government objects to the proposed defense witness, defense counsel may
request that the preliminary hearing officer determine whether the witness is relevant, not
cumulative, and necessary to a determination of
the issues under subsection (a).
(iii) If
the Government does not object to the proposed defense military witness or the
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preliminary hearing officer determines that the military witness is relevant, not cumulative, and
necessary, counsel for the Government shall request that the commanding officer of
the
proposed military witness make that person available to provide testimony. The commanding
officer shall dete1mine whether the individual is available, and if
so, whether the witness will
testify in person, by video teleconference, by telephone, or by similar means of
remote
testimony, based on operational necessity or mission requirements. If
the commanding officer
determines that the military witness is available, counsel for the Government shall make
arrangements for that individual's testimony. The commanding officer's determination of
unavailability due to operational necessity or mission requirements is finaL A victim who is
alleged to have suffered a direct physical, emotional, or pecuniary harm as a result of the
matters set forth in a charge or specification under consideration and is named in one of
the
specifications under consideration shall not be required to testify at a preliminary hearing.
(B) Civilian Witne.s·ses.
(i) Defense counsel shall provide to counsel for the Government the names of
proposed
civilian witnesses whom the accused requests that the Government produce to testify at the
preliminary hearing, and the requested form of
the testimony, in accordance with the timeline
established by the preliminary hearing officer. Counsel for the Government shall respond that
either (1) the Government agrees that the witness' testimony is relevant, not cumulative, and
necessary to a determination of
the issues under subsection (a) and will seek to secure the
witness' testimony for the hearing; or (2) the Government objects to the proposed defense witness
on the grounds that the testimony would be irrelevant, cumulative, or unnecessary to a
determination of
the issues under subsection (a).
(ii) If
the Government objects to the proposed defense witness, defense counsel may
request that the preliminary hearing officer determine whether the witness is relevant, not
cumulative, and necessary to a determination of
the issues under subsection (a).
(iii) If
the Government does not object to the proposed civilian witness or the
preliminary hearing otiicer detennines that the civilian witness' testimony is relevant, not
cumulative, and necessary, counsel for the Government shall invite the civilian witness to provide
testimony and, if
the individual agrees, shall make arrangements for that witness' testimony. If
expense to the Government is to be incurred, the convening authority who directed the
preliminary hearing, or the convening authority's delegate, shall determine whether the witness
testifies in person, by video teleconference, by telephone, or by similar means of
remote
testimony.
(3) Production ofother evidence.
(A) Evidence under the control ofthe Government.
(i) Prior to the preliminary hearing, defense counsel shall provide to counsel for the
Government a list of evidence under the control of the Government the accused requests the
Government produce to the defense for introduction at the preliminary hearing. The preliminary
hearing officer may set a deadline by which defense requests must be received. Counsel for the
Government shall respond that either (1) the Govemment agrees that the evidence is relevant, not
cumulative, and necessary to a determination of
the issues under subsection (a) and shall make
reasonable effmts to obtain the evidence; or (2) the Govemment objects to production of
the
evidence on the grounds that the evidence would be irrelevant, cumulative, or unnecessary to a
determination of
the issues under subsection (a).
(ii) If
the Government objects to production of
the evidence, defense counsel may
request that the preliminary hearing officer determine whether the evidence should be produced.
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The preliminary hearing officer shall determine whether the evidence is relevant, not cumulative,
and necessary to a determination of
the issues under subsection (a). If the preliminary hearing
officer determines that the evidence shall be produced, counsel for the Government shall make
reasonable efforts to obtain the evidence.
(iii) The preliminary hearing officer may not order the production of
any privileged
matters, however, when a patty offers evidence that an opposing party claims is privileged, the
preliminary hearing officer may rule on whether a privilege applies.
(B) Evidence not under the control of
the Government.
(i) Evidence not under the control of
the Government may be obtained through
noncompulsory means or by a pre-refen·al investigative subpoena issued by a military judge
under R.C.M. 309 or counsel for the Government in accordance with the process established by
R.C.M. 703(g)(3)(C).
(ii) Prior to the preliminary hearing, defense counsel shall provide to counsel for the
Government a list of evidence not under the control of
the Government that the accused requests
the Government obtain. The preliminary hearing officer may set a deadline by which defense
requests must be received. Counsel for the Government shall respond that either (I) the
Government agrees that the evidence is relevant, not cumulative, and necessary to a
determination of
the issues under subsection (a) and shall issue a pre-referral investigative
subpoena for the evidence; or (2) the Government objects to production of
the evidence on the
grounds that the evidence would be irrelevant, cumulative, or unnecessary to a determination of
the issues under subsection (a).
(iii) If
the Government objects to production of
the evidence, defense counsel may
request that the preliminary hearing ofl'icer determine whether the evidence should be produced.
If
the preliminary hearing officer determines that the evidence is relevant, not cumulative, and
necessary to a determination of the issues under subsection (a) and that the issuance of
a pre-
referral investigative subpoena would not cause undue delay to the preliminary hearing, the
preliminary hearing ofllcer shall direct counsel for the Government to issue a pre-referral
investigative subpoena for the defense-requested evidence. If
counsel for the Government
refuses, the counsel shall set forth the reasons for such refhsal in a written statement that shall be
included in the preliminary hearing report under subsection (1).
(iv) The preliminary hearing officer may not order the production of
any privileged
matters; however, when a party offers evidence that an opposing party claims is privileged, the
preliminary hearing officer may rule on whether a privilege applies.
(i) Militmy Rules ojEvidence.
(
1) In general.
(A) Only the following Military Rules of
Evidence apply to preliminary hearings:
(i) Mil. R. Evid. 301-303 and 305.
(ii) Mil. R. Evid. 412(a), except as provided in paragraph (2) of
this subsection.
(iii) Mil. R. Evid., Section V, Privileges, except that Mil. R. Evid. 505(f)-(h) and G);
506(f)-(h), G), (k), and (m); and 514(d)(6) shall not apply.
(B) In applying the rules to a preliminary hearing in accordance with subparagraph (A),
the term "military judge," as used in such rules, means the preliminary hearing officer, who
shall assume the military judge's authority to exclude evidence from the preliminary hearing,
and who shall, in discharging this duty, follow the procedures set forth in such rules. Evidence
offered in violation of
the procedural requirements of the rules in subparagraph (A) shall be
excluded from the preliminary hearing, unless good cause is shown.
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(2) Sex-ojji:mse cases.
(A) Inadmissibility of
certain evidence. In a case of an alleged sexual offense, as defined
under Mil. R. Evid. 412(
d), evidence offered to prove that any alleged victim engaged in other
sexual behavior or evidence offered to prove any alleged victim's sexual predisposition is not
admissible at a preliminary hearing unless-
(i) the evidence would be admissible at trial under Mil. R. Evid. 412(b
)( 1
)(A) or (B);
and
(ii) the evidence is relevant, not cumulative, and necessary to a determination of
the
issues under subsection (a) of
this rule.
(B) Initial
procedure to determine admissibility. A party intending to offer evidence
under subparagraph (A) shall, no later than five days before the preliminary hearing begins,
submit a written motion specifically describing the evidence and stating why the evidence is
admissible. The preliminary hearing officer may permit a different filing time, but any motion
shall be filed prior to the beginning of
the preliminary hearing. The moving party shall serve
the motion on the opposing party, who shall have the opportunity to respond in w1iting.
Counsel for the Government shall cause the motion and any written responses to be served on
the victim, or victim's counsel, if
any, or, when appropriate, the victim's guardian or
representative. After reviewing the motion and any written responses, the preliminary hearing
officer shall either-
(i) deny the motion on the grounds that the evidence does not meet the criteria
specified in clauses (i)(2)(A)(i) or (ii); or
(ii) conduct a hearing to determine the admissibility of
the evidence.
(C) Admissibility hearing. If
the preliminary heming officer conducts a hearing to
determine the admissibility of
the evidence, the admissibility hearing shall be closed and should
ordinarily be conducted at the end of
the preliminary hearing, after all other evidence ofTered by
the parties has been admitted. At the admissibility hearing, the parties may call witnesses and
otTer relevant evidence. The victim shall be afiorded a reasonable opportunity to attend and be
heard, to include being heard through counsel. If
the preliminary hearing officer determines that
the evidence should be admitted, the victim may directly petition the Court of
Criminal Appeals
for a writ of mandamus pursuant to Article 6b.
(D) Sealing. The motions, related papers, and the record of
an admissibility hearing shall
be sealed and remain under seal in accordance with R. C
.M. 1113.
(j) Preliminary hearing procedure.
(1) Generally. The preliminary hearing shall begin with the preliminary hearing officer
informing the accused of
the accused's rights under subsection (f). Counsel for the Government
will then present evidence. Upon the conclusion of
counsel for the Government's presentation
of
evidence, defense counsel may present matters. Both counsel for the Government and
defense counsel shall be afforded an opportunity to cross-examine adverse witnesses. The
preliminary hearing officer may also question witnesses called by the parties. If
the preliminary
hearing officer determines that additional evidence is necessary for a determination of
the
issues under subsection (a), the preliminary hearing officer may provide the pariies an
opportunity to present additional testimony or evidence. Except as provided in subparagraph
(1)(2)(J), the preliminary hearing officer shall not consider evidence not presented at the
preliminary hearing in making the determinations under subsection (a). The preliminary hearing
officer shall not call witnesses sua sponte.
(2) Presentation~~
evidence.
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(A) Testimony. Witness testimony may be provided in person, by video teleconference, by
telephone, or by similar means of
remote testimony. All testimony shall be taken under oath,
except that the accused may make an unsworn statement. The preliminary hearing officer shall
only consider testimony that is relevant to the issues for determination under subsection (a).
(B) Other evidence. If
relevant to the issues for determination under subsection (a) and
not cumulative, a preliminary hearing officer may consider other evidence offered by either
counsel for the Government or defense counsel, in addition to or in lieu of
witness testimony,
including statements, tangible evidence, or reproductions thereof, that the preliminary hearing
officer determines is reliable. This other evidence need not be sworn.
(3) Access by spectators. Preliminary hearings are public proceedings and should remain
open to the public whenever possible. If
there is an overriding interest that outweighs the value
of
an open preliminary hearing, the convening authority or the preliminary hearing officer may
restrict or foreclose access by spectators to all or part of
the proceedings. Any restriction or
closure must be narrowly tailored to protect the overriding interest involved. Before ordering
any restriction or closure, a convening authority or preliminary hearing officer must determine
whether any reasonable alternatives to such restriction or closure exist, or if some lesser means
can be used to protect the overriding interest in the case. The convening authority or
preliminary hearing officer shall make specific findings of
fact in writing that support the
restriction or closure. The written findings of
fact shall be included in the preliminary hearing
report.
(
4) Presence (?[accused The accused shall be considered to have waived the tight to be
present at the preliminary hearing, if
the accused:
(A) After being notified of
the time and place of
the proceeding is voluntarily absent; or
(B) After being warned by the preliminary hearing officer that disruptive conduct will
cause removal from the proceeding, persists in conduct which is such as to justify exclusion
from the proceeding.
(5) Recording of
the preliminary hearing. Counsel for the Government shall ensure that the
preliminary hearing is recorded by a suitable recording device. A victim named in one of
the
specifications under consideration may request access to, or a copy of~ the recording ofthe
proceedings. Upon request, counsel for the Government shall provide the requested access to,
or a copy of, the recording or, at the Government's discretion, a transcript, to the victim not
later than a reasonable time following dismissal of
the charges, unless charges are dismissed for
the purpose of
rereferral, or comi-matiial adjournment. This rule does not entitle the victim to
classified information or sealed materials consistent with an order issued in accordance with
R.C.M. 1113(a).
(6) Recording and broadcasting
prohibited Video and audio recording, broadcasting, and
the taking of
photographs-except as required in paragraph 0)(5) of
this rule-are prohibited.
The convening authority may, as a matter of discretion permit contemporaneous closed-circuit
video or audio transmission to permit viewing or hearing by an accused removed under
paragraph 0)(4) of this rule or by spectators when the facilities are inadequate to accommodate
a reasonable number of spectators
(7) Objections. Any objection alleging a failure to comply with this rule, other than an
objection under subsection (1), shall be made to the preliminary hearing officer promptly upon
discovery of
the alleged error. The preliminary hearing officer is not required to rule on any
objection. An objection shall be noted in the preliminary hearing report if
the person objecting
so requests. The preliminary hearing officer may require a party to file any objection in VvTiting.
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(8) Sealed exhibits and
proceedings. The preliminary hearing officer has the authority to
order exhibits, recordings of
proceedings, or other matters sealed as described in R.C.M. 1113.
(k) Supplementary information for the convening authority.
(1) No later than 24 hours from the closure of
the preliminary hearing, counsel for the
Government, defense counsel, and any victim named in one of
the specifications under
consideration (or, if applicable, counsel for such a victim) may submit to the preliminary
hearing officer, counsel for the Government, and defense counsel additional information that
the submitter deems relevant to the convening authority's disposition of
the charges and
specifications.
(2) Defense counsel may submit additional matters that rebut the submissions of counsel for
the Government or any victim provided under paragraph (k)(l). Such matters must be provided
to the preliminary hearing officer and to the counsel for the Government within 5 days of
the
closure of
the preliminary hearing.
(3) The preliminary hearing officer shall examine all supplementary information submitted
under subsection (k) and shall seal, in accordance with RC.M. 1113, any matters the preliminary
hearing officer deems privileged or otherwise not subject to disclosure.
(A) The preliminary hearing officer shall provide a written summary and an analysis of
the supplementary information submitted under subsection (k) that is not sealed and is relevant
to disposition for inclusion in the report to the convening authority under subsection (1).
(B) If
the preliminary hearing officer seals any supplementary information submitted
under subsection (k), the preliminary hearing officer shall provide an analysis of
those
materials. The analysis of
the sealed materials shall be sealed. Additionally, the preliminary
hearing ot1icer shall generally describe those matters and detail the basis for sealing them in a
separate cover sheet. This cover sheet shall accompany the sealed matters and shall not contain
privileged information or be sealed.
(4) The supplementary information and any summary and analysis provided by the
preliminary hearing otlicer, and any sealed matters and cover sheets, as applicable, shall be
forwarded to the convening authority for consideration in making a disposition determination.
(5) Submissions under subsection (k) shall be maintained as an attachment to the
preliminary hearing report provided under subsection (1).
(!)Preliminary hearing report.
(1) In general. The preliminary heating officer shall make a timely written report of
the
preliminary hearing to the convening authority. This report is advisory and does not bind the
staff
judge advocate or convening authority.
(2) Contents. The preliminary hearing report shall include:
(A) A statement of
names and organizations or addresses of
counsel for the Government
and defense counsel and, if
applicable, a statement ofwhy either counsel was not present at any
time during the proceedings;
(B) The recording of
the preliminary hearing under paragraph (i)(S);
(C) For each specification, the preliminary hearing officer's reasoning and conclusions
with respect to the issues for determination under subsection (a), including a summary of
relevant witness testimony and documentary evidence presented at the hearing and any
observations concerning the testimony of
witnesses and the availability and admissibility of
evidence at trial;
(D) If applicable, a statement that an essential witness may not be available for trial;
(E) An explanation of
any delays in the preliminary heating;
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(F) A notation if
counsel for the Government refused to issue a pre-referral investigative
subpoena that was directed by the preliminary hearing officer and the counsel's statement of
the reasons for such refusal;
(G) Recommendations for any necessary modifications to the form of
the charges and
specifications;
(H) A statement of
whether the preliminary hearing officer examined evidence or heard
witnesses relating to any uncharged offenses in accordance with paragraph (
e)(2), and, for each
such offense, the preliminary hearing officer's reasoning and conclusions as to whether there is
probable cause to believe that the accused committed the offense and whether the convening
authority would have court-martial jurisdiction over the offense if
it were charged;
(I) A notation of any objections if
required under paragraph G)(7);
(J) The recommendation of
the preliminary hearing officer as to the disposition that
should be made of
the charges and specifications in the interest of
justice and discipline. Tn
making this disposition recommendation, the preliminary heating officer may consider any
evidence admitted during the preliminary hearing and matters submitted under subsection (k);
and
(K) The written summary and analysis required by subparagraph (k)(3)(A).
(3) Sealed exhibits and
proceedings. Tf the preliminary hearing report contains exhibits,
proceedings, or other matters ordered sealed by the preliminary hearing officer in accordance
with R.C.M. 1113, counsel for the Government shall cause such materials to be sealed so as to
prevent unauthorized viewing or disclosure.
(
4) Distribution of
preliminary hearing report. The preliminary hearing officer shall
promptly cause the preliminary hearing report to be delivered to the convening authority. That
convening authority shall promptly cause a copy of
the report to be delivered to each accused
and, in accordance with R.C.M. 401 (b), shall promptly determine what disposition will be
made in the interest of
justice and discipline. If applicable, the convening authority shall
promptly forward the report, together with the charges, to a superior commander for
disposition.
(5) Objections. Any objection to the preliminary hearing report shall be made to the
convening authority who directed the preliminary hearing, via the preliminary hearing oflicer.
Upon receipt of the report, the accused has 5 days to submit objections to the preliminary
hearing oflicer. The preliminary hearing otlicer will forward the objections to the convening
authority as soon as practicable. This paragraph does not prohibit a convening authority from
referring any charge or taking other action within the 5-day period.
(m) Waiver. The accused may waive a preliminary healing. However, the convening authority
authorized to direct the preliminary healing may direct that a preliminary hearing be conducted
notwithstanding the waiver. Failure to make a timely objection under this rule, including an
objection to the report, shall constitute forfeiture of
the objection. Relief
from the waiver or
forfeiture may be granted by the convening authority who directed the preliminary hearing, a
superior convening authority, or the military judge, as appropriate, for good cause shown.
Rule 406. Pretrial advice
(a) In general. Before any charge may be referred for trial by a general court-martial, it shall be
referred to the staff
judge advocate of
the convening authority for consideration and advice.
(b) Contents. The advice of
the staff
judge advocate shall include a written and signed
statement which sets forth that person's:
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(1) Conclusion with respect to whether each specification alleges an offense under the
UCMJ;
(2) Conclusion with respect to whether there is probable cause to believe that the accused
committed the offense charged in the specification;
(3) Conclusion with respect to whether a court-martial would have jurisdiction over the
accused and the offense; and
(4) Recommendation as to the disposition that should be made of the charges and
specifications by the convening authority in the interest of
justice and discipline.
Rule 406A. Pretrial advice before referral to special court-martial
(a) Jn general. Before any charge may be referred for trial by special court-martial, the convening
authority shall consult a judge advocate on relevant legal issues. Such issues may include:
(1) Whether each specification alleges an offense under the UCMJ;
(2) Whether there is probable cause to believe the accused committed the offense(s)
charged;
(3) Whether a court-martial would have jurisdiction over the accused and the offense;
(4) The form of
the charges and specifications and any necessary modifications; and
(5) Any other factors relating to disposition of
the charges and specifications in the interest of
justice and discipline.
Rule 407. Action by commander exercising general court-martial jurisdiction
(a) Disposition. When in receipt of charges, a commander exercising general court-martial
jurisdiction may:
(1) Dismiss any charges;
(2) Forward charges (or, after dismissing charges, the matter) to a subordinate commander
for disposition;
(3) Forward any charges to a superior commander for disposition;
(4) Subject to R.C.M. 201(f)(2)(D) and (E), 601(d), and 1301(c), refer charges to a summary
court-martial or to a special court-martial for trial;
(5) Unless otherwise prescribed by the Secretary concerned, direct a preliminary hearing
under R.C.M. 405, after which additional action under this rule may be taken;
(6) Subject to R.C.M. 60l(d), refer charges to a general court-martial.
(b) National security matters. When in receipt of
charges the trial of
which the commander
exercising general court-martial jurisdiction finds would probably be inimical to the prosecution
of
a war or harmful to national security, that commander, unless otherwise prescribed by
regulations of
the Secretary concerned, shall determine whether trial is warranted and, if so,
whether the security considerations involved are paramount to triaL As the commander finds
appropriate, the commander may dismiss the charges, authorize trial of
them, or forward them to
a superior authority.
Rule 501. Composition and personnel of courts-martial
(a) Composition of
courts-martial.
(1) General courts-martial.
(A) Non-capital cases. In non-capital cases, a general court-martial shall consist of:
(i) A military judge and eight members;
(ii) A military judge, eight members, and any alternate members authorized by the
convening authority;
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(iii) A military judge alone if
trial by a military judge is requested and approved under
R.C.M. 903; or
(iv) A military judge and six or seven members, but only if, after impanelment, the
panel is reduced below eight members as a result of
challenges or excusals.
(B) Capital cases. In capital cases, a general court-martial shall consist of:
(i) A military judge and twelve members; or
(ii) A military judge, twelve members, and any alternate members authorized by the
convening authority.
(2) Special courts-martial. Special courts-martial shall consist of:
(A) A military judge and four members;
(B) A militaty judge, four members, and any alternate members authorized by the
convening authority;
(C) A military judge alone if
trial by a military judge is requested and approved under
R.C.M. 903; or
(D) A military judge alone if
the case is referred for trial by a special court-martial
consisting of a military judge alone under Article 16(c)(2)(A).
(b) Counsel in general and
5pecial courts-martial. Military trial and defense counsel shall be
detailed to general and special courts-martial. Assistant trial and associate or assistant defense
counsel may be detailed.
(c) Other personnel. Other personnel, such as interpreters, bailiffs, clerks, escorts, and orderlies,
may be detailed or employed as appropriate but need not be detailed by the convening authority
personal!
y.
Rule 502. Qualifications and duties of personnel of com·ts-martial
(a)Members.
(1) Qualifications. The members detailed to a court-martial shall be those persons who in the
opinion ofthe convening authority are best qualified for the duty by reason of
their age,
education, training, experience, lenbrt:h of service, and judicial temperament. Each member shall
be on active duty with the anned forces and shall be:
(A) A commissioned o±llcer;
(B) A warrant officer, except when the accused is a commissioned officer; or
(C) An enlisted person, except when the accused is either a commissioned or warrant
officer.
(2)Duties.
(A) Members. The members of
a court-martial shall determine whether the accused is
proved guilty and, in a capital case in which the accused is found guilty of a capital offense, or
in a non-capital case when the accused elects sentencing by members in accordance with
R.C.M. 1002, the members shall determine an appropriate sentenee, based on the evidence and
in accordance with the instructions of
the military judge. Each member has an equal voice and
vote with other members in deliberating upon and deciding all matters submitted to them. No
member may use rank or position to ini1uence another member. No member of a court-martial
may have access to or use in any open or closed session this Manual, reports of decided cases,
or any other reference material.
(B) Alternate members. Members impaneled as alternate members shall have the same
duties as members under subparagraph (A). However, an alternate member shall not vote or
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participate in deliberations on findings or sentencing unless the alternate member has become a
member by replacing a member who was excused after impanelment under R.C.M. 912B.
(b) President.
(1) Qual~fications. The president of a court-martial shall be the detailed member senior in
rank then serving.
(2) Duties. The president shall have the same duties as the other members and shall also:
(A) Preside over closed sessions of
the members of the court-martial dming their
deliberations; and
(B) Speak for the members of
the court-martial when announcing the decision of
the
members or requesting instructions from the military judge.
(c) Qual{fications qf
military
judge and militmy magistrate.
(1) lvfilitwyjudge. A military judge shall be a commissioned officer of the armed forces
who is a member of
the bar of a federal court or a member of
the bar of
the highest court of
a
State and who is certified to be qualified, by reason of
education, training, experience, and
judicial temperament, for duty as a military judge by the Judge Advocate General of
the armed
force of
which such military judge is a member. In addition, the military judge of
a general
court-martial shall be designated for such duties by the Judge Advocate General or the Judge
Advocate General's designee, certified to be qualified for duty as a military judge of a general
court-martial, and assigned and directly responsible to the Judge Advocate General or the Judge
Advocate General's designee. The Secretary concerned may prescribe additional qualifications
for military judges in special courts-martial.
(2) lvfilitary magistrate. The Secretary concemed may establish a military magistrate
program. A military magistrate shall be a commissioned officer of
the armed forces who is a
member of
the bar of a federal court or a member of
the bar of
highest court of a State and who
is certified to be qualified, by reason of
education, training, experience, and judicial
temperament, for duty as a military magistrate by the Judge Advocate General of the armed
force of
which such military magistrate is a member.
(3) Minimum tour lengths. A person assigned for duty as a military judge shall serve as a
military judge for a term of
not less than three years, subject to such provisions for
reassignment as may be prescribed in regulations issued by the Secretary concerned.
(d) Counsel.
(1) Qualifications of
trial counsel.
(A) General courts-martial. Only persons certified under Article 27(b) as competent to
perform duties as counsel in courts-martial by the Judge Advocate General of
the anned force
of
which the counsel is a member may be detailed as trial counsel in general courts-martial.
(B) Trial counsel in special courts-martial and assistant trial counsel in general or
special courts-martial. Any commissioned officer may be detailed as trial counsel in special
courts-martial, or as assistant trial counsel in general or special courts-martial if
that person-
(i) is determined to be competent to perform such duties by the Judge Advocate
General; and
(ii) takes an oath in accordance with Article 42(a), cer1ifies to the court that the person
has read and is familiar with the applicable rules of
procedure, evidence, and professional
responsibility, and meets any additional qualifications the Secretary concerned may establish.
(2) Qual{fications of
defense counsel.
(A) Detailed
military counsel. Only persons certified under Article 27(b) as competent to
perfonn duties as counsel in courts-martial by the Judge Advocate General of
the armed force
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of
which the counsel is a member may be detailed as defense counsel, assistant defense
counsel, or associate defense counsel in general or special courts-martial.
(B) Individual militmy counsel and civilian defense counsel. Individual military or
civilian defense counsel who represents an accused in accordance with Article 38(b) in a couti-
martial shall be:
(i) a member of
the bar of
a federal court or of
the bar of
the highest comi of
a State;
or
(ii) if
not a member of such a bar, a lawyer who is authorized by a recognized licensing
authority to practice law and is found by the military judge to be qualified to represent the
accused upon a shovving to the satisfaction of the military judge that the counsel has appropriate
training and familiarity with the general principles of criminal law which apply in a court-
martiaL
(C) Counsel in capital case,c,·.
(i) In general. In any capital case, to the greatest extent practicable, at least one
defense counsel shall, as determined by the Judge Advocate General, be learned in the law
applicable to such cases. If necessary, this counsel may be a civilian and, if so, may be
compensated in accordance vvith regulations prescribed by the Secretary of Defense.
(ii) Qual{fications. A counsel learned in the law applicable to capital cases is an
attorney whose background, knowledge, or experience would enable him or her to competently
represent an accused in a capital case, with due consideration of
the seriousness of the possible
penalty and the unique and complex nature of
the litigation.
(3) Disqual(fications. No person shall act as trial counsel or assistant trial counsel or, except
when expressly requested by the accused, as defense counsel or associate or assistant defense
counsel in any case in which that person is or has been:
(A) The accuser;
(B) An investigating or preliminary hearing otiicer;
(C) A military judge or appellate military judge; or
(D) A member.
No person who has acted as counsel for a party may serve as counsel for an opposing party in the
same case.
(4) Duties of
trial and assistant trial counsel. Trial counsel shall prosecute cases on behalf of
the United States. Under the supervision of
trial counsel an assistant trial counsel may perform
any act or duty which trial counsel may perfonn under law, regulation, or custom of
the Service.
(5) Duties ojdeji:mse and associate or assistant defense counsel. Defense counsel shall
represent the accused in matters under the UCMJ and these rules arising from the offenses of
which the accused is then suspected or charged. Under the supervision of defense counsel an
associate or assistant defense counsel may perform any act or duty which a defense counsel may
perform under law, regulation, or custom of
the Service.
(e) Interpreters, reporters, escorts, bailiffs, clerks, guards, and orderlies.
(1) Qualifications. The qualifications of
interpreters and repmters may be prescribed by the
Secretary concerned. Any person who is not disqualified under paragraph (e)(2) of
this rule may
serve as escort, bailiff, clerk, guard, or orderly, subject to removal by the military judge.
(2) Disqual{fications. In addition to any disqualifications which may be prescribed by the
Secretary concerned, no person shall act as interpreter, reporter, escort, bailiff, clerk, guard, or
orderly in any case in which that person is or has been in the same case:
(A) The accuser;
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(B) A witness;
(C) An investigating or preliminary hearing officer;
(D) Counsel for any party; or
(E) A member of
the court-martial or of any earlier court-martial of
which the trial is a
rehearing or new or other trial.
(3) Duties. In addition to such other duties as the Secretary concerned may prescribe, the
following persons may perform the following duties.
(A) ll1te1preters. Interpreters shall interpret for the court-martial or for an accused who
does not speak or understand English.
(B) Reporters. Reporters shall record the proceedings and testimony and shall transcribe
them so as to comply with the requirements for the record of
trial as prescribed in these rules.
(C) Others. Other personnel detailed for the assistance of
the court-martial shall have
such duties as may be imposed by the military judge.
(
4) Payment qf
reporters, interpreters. The Secretary concerned may prescribe regulations for
the payment of
allowances, expenses, per diem, and compensation of
reporters and interpreters.
(f) Action upon discovery (?f
disqual~fication or lack qf
qualffications. Any person who
discovers that a person detailed to a court-martial is disqualified or lacks the qualifications
specified by this rule shall cause a report of
the matter to be made before the court-martial is
first in session to the convening authority or, if discovered later, to the military judge.
Rule 503. Detailing members, military judge, and counsel, and designating military
magistrates
(a) Members.
(1) In general. The convening authority shall-
(A) detail qualified persons as members for courts-martial;
(B) detail not fewer than the number of
members required under R.C.l\11. 501(a), as
applicable; and
(C) state whether the military judge is-
(i) authorized to impanel a specified number of alternate members; or
(ii) authorized to impanel alternate members only if, after the exercise of
all
challenges, excess members remain.
(2) Member election by enUsted accused. An enlisted accused may, before assembly, request
orally on the record or in writing that the membership of
the court-martial to which that
accused's case has been referred be comprised entirely of
officers or of at least one-third
enlisted members. If such a request is made, the court-martial membership must be consistent
with the accused's request unless eligible members cannot be obtained because of
physical
conditions or military exigencies. If
the appropriate number of
members cannot be obtained, the
court-martial may be assembled and the members impaneled, and the trial may proceed without
them, but the convening authority shall make a detailed written explanation why such members
could not be obtained which must be appended to the record of
trial.
(3) ]!/[embers from another command or armed force. A convening authority may detail as
members of
general and special courts-martial persons under that convening authority's command
or made available by their commander, even if those persons are members of an armed force
different from that of the convening authority or accused.
(
4) This subsection does not apply to charges referred to a special court-martial consisting of
a military judge alone under Article 16(c)(2)(A).
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(b) MilitaJ}' judge.
(
1) By whom detailed. The military judge shall be detailed, in accordance with regulations of
the Secretary concerned, by a person assigned as a military judge and directly responsible to the
Judge Advocate General or the Judge Advocate General's designee. The authority to detail
military judges may be delegated to persons assigned as military judges. If authority to detail
military judges has been delegated to a military judge, that military judge may detail himself or
herself as military judge for a court-martial.
(2) Record of
detail. The order detailing a military judge shall be reduced to writing and
included in the record of
trial or announced orally on the record at the court-martial. The writing
or announcement shall indicate by whom the military judge was detailed. The Secretary
concerned may require that the order be reduced to writing.
(3) Military judge
from a d{fferent armedforce. A military judge from one armed force may
be detailed to a court-martial convened in a different armed force, a combatant command or joint
command when permitted by the Judge Advocate General of the armed force of
which the
military judge is a member. The Judge Advocate General may delegate authority to make
military judges available for this purpose.
(
4) Military magistrate. If authorized under regulations of
the Secretary concerned, a
detailed military judge may designate a military magistrate to perform pre-referral duties under
R.C.M. 309, and, with the consent of
the parties, to preside over a special court-martial
consisting of
a military judge alone under Article 16(c)(2)(A).
(c) Counsel.
(1) By whom detailed. Trial and defense counsel, assistant trial and defense counsel, and
associate defense counsel shall be detailed in accordance with regulations of
the Secretary
concerned. If authority to detail counsel has been delegated to a person that person may detail
himself or herself as counsel for a court-martial. In a capital case, counsel learned in the law
applicable to such cases under RC.M. 502(d)(2)(C) shall be assigned in accordance with
regulations of
the Secretary concerned.
(2) Record of
detail. The order detailing a counsel shall be reduced to writing and included in
the record of
trial or announced orally on the record at the court-martial. The writing or
announcement shall indicate by whom the counsel was detailed. The Secretary concerned may
require that the order be reduced to writing.
(3) Counsel
from a different armed
force. A person from one armed force may be detailed to
serve as counsel in a court-martial in a different arn1ed force, a combatant command or joint
command when pennitted by the Judge Advocate General of
the anned force of
which the
counsel is a member. The Judge Advocate General may delegate authority to make persons
available for this purpose
Rule 504. Convening courts-martial
(a) In general. A court-martial is created by a convening order of
the convening authority.
(b) H'ho may convene courts-martial.
(I) General courts-martial. Unless otherwise limited by superior competent authority,
general courts-martial may be convened by persons occupying positions designated in Article
22(a) and by any commander designated by the Secretary concerned or empowered by the
President.
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(2) Special courts-martial. Unless otherwise limited by superior competent authority, special
courts-martial may be convened by persons occupying positions designated in Article 23(a) and
by commanders designated by the Secretary concerned.
(A) Definition. For purposes of
Articles 23 and 24, a command or unit is "separate or
detached" when isolated or removed from the immediate disciplinary control of
a superior in
such manner as to make its commander the person held by superior commanders primarily
responsible for discipline. "Separate or detached" is used in a disciplinary sense and not
necessarily in a tactical or physical sense. A subordinate joint command or joint task force is
ordinarily considered to be "separate or detached."
(B) Determination. If a commander is in doubt whether the command is separate or
detached, the matter shall be determined:
(i) In the Army or the Air Force, by the officer exercising general court-martial
jurisdiction over the command; or
(ii) In the Naval Service or Coast Guard, by the flag or general officer in command or
the senior officer present who designated the detachment; or
(iii) ln a combatant command or joint command, by the officer exercising general
court-martial jurisdiction over the command.
(3) Summary courts-martial. See R.C.M. 1302(a).
(4) Delegation prohibited. The power to convene courts-martial may not be delegated.
(c) TJisqual{ficalion.
(1) Accuser. An accuser may not convene a general or special court-martial for the trial of
the person accused
(2) Other. A convening authority junior in rank to an accuser may not convene a general or
special court-martial for the trial of
the accused unless that convening authority is superior in
command to the accuser. A convening authority junior in command to an accuser may not
convene a general or special court-martial for the trial of
the accused.
(3) Action when disqual!fied. When a commander who would otherwise convene a general or
special court-martial is disqualified in a case, the charges shall be forwarded to a superior
competent authority for disposition. That authority may personally dispose of
the charges or
forward the charges to another convening authority who is superior in rank to the accuser, or, if
in the same chain of command, who is superior in command to the accuser.
(d) Convening orders.
( 1) General and special courts-martial.
(A) A convening order for a general or special court-martial shall-
(i) designate the type of court-martial; and
(ii) detail the members, if
any, in accordance with R.C.M. 503(a);
(B) A convening order may designate where the court-martial will meet.
(C) If
the convening authority has been designated by the Secretary concerned, the
convening order shall so state.
(2) Summary courts-martial. A convening order for a summary couti-martial shall designate
that it is a summary court-martial and detail the summary court-martial, and may designate
where the court-martial will meet. If
the convening authority has been designated by the
Secretary concerned, the convening order shall so state.
(3) Additional matters. Additional matters to be included in convening orders may be
prescribed by the Secretary concerned.
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(e) Place. The convening authority shall ensure that an appropriate location and facilities for
courts-martial are provided.
Rule 505. Changes of members, military judge, military magistrate, and counsel
(a) In general. Subject to this mle, the members, military judge, military magistrate, and
counsel may be changed by an authority competent to detail or designate such persons.
Members also may be excused as provided in clause (c)(l)(B)(ii) and subparagraph (c)(2)(A).
(b) Procedure. When new persons are added as members or counsel or when substitutions are
made as to any members or counsel or the military judge or military magistrate, such persons
shall be detailed or designated in accordance with R.C.M. 503. An order changing the members
of
the court-martial, except one which excuses members without replacement, shall be reduced
to writing before certification of
the record of trial.
(c) Changes ofmemhers·.
(I) Before assembly.
(A) Ry convening authority. Before the court-martial is assembled, the convening authority
may change the members of
the court-martial without showing cause.
(B) Ry convening authori(v 's· delegate.
(i) Delegation. The convening authority may delegate, under regulations of
the
Secretary concerned, authority to excuse individual members to the staff
judge advocate or legal
officer or other principal assistant to the convening authority.
(ii) Limitations. Before the court-martial is assembled, the convening authority's
delegate may excuse members without cause shown; however, no more than one-third of
the
total number of
members detailed by the convening authority may be excused by the
convening authority's delegate in any one court-martial. After assembly the convening
authority's delegate may not excuse members.
(2) After assembly.
(A) .Excusal. After assembly no member may be excused, except:
(i) By the convening authority for good cause shown on the record;
(ii) By the military judge for good cause shown on the record;
(iii) As a result of
challenge under RC.M. 912; or
(iv) By the military judge when the number of
members is in excess of
the
number of
members required for impanelment.
(B) New members. New members may be detailed after assembly only when, as a result
of
excusals under subparagraph (c)(2)(A), the number of
members of
the court-martial is
reduced below the number of
members required under R.C.M. 50l(a), or the number of enlisted
members, when the accused has made a timely written request for enlisted members, is reduced
below one-third of
the total membership.
(d) Changes C?fdetailed counsel.
(1) Trial counsel. An authority competent to detail trial counsel may change trial counsel and
any assistant trial counsel at any time without showing cause.
(2) Defense counsel.
(A) Before formation of
attorney-client relationship. Before an attorney-client relationship
has been formed between the accused and detailed defense counsel or associate or assistant
defense counsel, an authority competent to detail defense counsel may excuse or change such
counsel without showing cause.
(B) After formation C?f attorney-client relationship. After an attorney-client relationship
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has been formed between the accused and detailed defense counsel or associate or assistant
defense counsel, an authority competent to detail such counsel may excuse or change such
counsel only:
(i) Under R.C.M. 506(b
)(3);
(ii) Upon request of
the accused or application for withdrawal by such counsel under
R.C.M. 506(c); or
(iii) For other good cause shown on the record
(e) Change of
militwy
judge or military magistrate.
(1) Before assembly. Before the court-martial is assembled, the military judge or military
magistrate may be changed by an authority competent to detail the military judge or to designate
the military magistrate, without cause shown on the record.
(2) After assembly. After the court-martial is assembled, the military judge or military
magistrate may be changed by an authority competent to detail the military judge or to designate
the military magistrate only when, as a result of
disqualification under R.C.M. 902 or for good
cause shown, the previously detailed military judge or previously designated military magistrate
is unable to proceed.
(f) Good cause. For purposes of
this rule, "good cause" includes physical disability, military
exigency, and other extraordinary circumstances which render the member, counsel, or military
judge or military magistrate unable to proceed with the court-martial within a reasonable time.
"Good cause" does not include temporary inconveniences which are incident to normal
conditions of
military life.
Rule 506. Accused's rights to counsel
(a) In general.
(1) Non-capital courts-martial. The accused has the right to be represented before a non-
capital general court-martial or a special court-martial by civilian counsel if retained by the
accused at no expense to the Government, and either by the military counsel detailed under
Article 27 or military counsel of the accused's own selection, if reasonably available. The
accused is not entitled to be represented by more than one military counsel.
(2) Capital courts-martial. In a case referred with a special instruction that the case is to be
tried as capital, the accused may be represented by more than one counsel. To the greatest extent
practicable, in any capital case, at least one defense counsel shall, as determined by the Judge
Advocate General, be learned in the law applicable to such cases under R.C.M. 502(d)(2)(C). If
necessary, this counsel may be a civilian, and if so, may be compensated in accordance with
regulations prescribed by the Secretary of
Defense.
(b) Individual military counsel.
(1) Reasonab{v available. Subject to this subsection, the Secretary concerned shall define
"reasonably available." While so assigned, the following persons are not reasonably available to
serve as individual military counsel because of
the nature of
their duties or positions:
(A) A general or flag officer;
(B) A trial or appellate military judge;
(C) A trial counsel;
(D) An appellate defense or government counsel;
(E) A principal legal advisor to a command, organization, or agency and, when such
command, organization, or agency has general court-martial jurisdiction, the principal assistant of
such an advisor;
(F) An instructor or student at a Service school or academy:
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(G) A student at a college or university;
(H) A member of the staff of the Judge Advocate General of the Anny, Navy, Air Force,
Coast Guard, or the Staff Judge Advocate to the Commandant of
the Marine Corps.
The Secretary concerned may determine other persons to be not reasonably available because
of the nature or responsibilities of their assignments, geographic considerations, exigent
circumstances, or military necessity. A person who is a member of an armed force different from
that of
which the accused is a member shall be reasonably available to serve as individual military
counsel for such accused to the same extent as that person is available to serve as individual
military counsel for an accused in the same anned force as the person requested. The Secretary
concerned may prescribe circumstances under which exceptions may be made to the prohibitions
in this subsection when merited by the existence of an attorney-client relationship regarding
matters relating to a charge in question. However, if the attomey-client relationship arose solely
because the counsel represented the accused on review under Article 70, this exception shall not
apply.
(2) Procedure. Subject to this subsection, the Secretary concerned shall prescribe procedures
for determining whether a requested person is "reasonably available" to act as individual military
counseL Requests for an individual military counsel shall be made by the accused or the detailed
defense counsel through trial counsel to the convening authority. If
the requested person is among
those not reasonably available under paragraph (b
)(1) of this rule or under regulations of the
Secretary concerned, the convening authority shall deny the request and notify the accused, unless
the accused asserts that there is an existing attomey-client relationship regarding a charge in
question or that the person requested will not, at the time of the trial or preliminary hearing for
which requested, be among those so listed as not reasonably available. If the accused's request
makes such a claim, or if the person is not among those so listed as not reasonably available, the
convening authority shall forward the request to the commander or head of the organization,
activity, or agency to which the requested person is assigned. That authority shall make an
administrative detennination whether the requested person is reasonably available in accordance
with the procedure prescribed by the Secretary concemed. This determination is a matter within
the sole discretion of that authority. An adverse determination may be reviewed upon request of
the accused through that authority to the next higher commander or level of supervision, but no
administrative review may be made which requires action at the departmental or higher leveL
(3) t.'xcusal of
detailed counsel. If
the accused is represented by individual military counsel,
detailed defense counsel shall normally be excused. The authority who detailed defense counsel,
as a matter of
discretion, may approve a request from the accused that detailed defense counsel
shall act as associate counseL The action of
the authority who detailed the counsel is subject to
review only for abuse of
discretion.
(c) Excusal or lVithdrmval. Except as otherwise provided in RC.M. 505(d)(2) and paragraph
(b
)(3) of
this mle, defense counsel may be excused only with the express consent of
the accused,
or by the military judge upon application for withdrawal by defense counsel for good cause
shown.
(d) "f"Vttiver. The accused may expressly waive the right to be represented by counsel and may
thereafter conduct the defense personally. Such waiver shall be accepted by the military judge
only if the military judge finds that the accused is competent to understand the disadvantages
of self-representation and that the waiver is voluntary and understanding. The military judge
may require that a defense counsel remain present even if the accused waives counsel and
conducts the defense personally. The right of
the accused to conduct the defense personally may
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be revoked if
the accused is disruptive or fails to follow basic rules of
decorum and procedure.
(e) Nonlawyer present. Subject to the discretion of
the military judge, the accused may have
present and seated at the counsel table for purpose of consultation persons not qualified to serve
as counsel under R.C.M. 502.
Rule 601. Referral
(a) In general. Referral is the order of a convening authority that charges and specifications
against an accused will be tried by a specified court-martial.
(b) Who may refer. Any convening authority may refer charges to a court-martial convened by
that convening authority or a predecessor, unless the power to do so has been withheld by
superior competent authority.
(c) Disqual~fication. An accuser may not refer charges to a general or special court-martial.
(d) When charges may he referred
(1) Basis
for referral. If the convening authority finds or is advised by a judge advocate
that there is probable cause to believe that an offense triable by a court-martial has been
committed and that the accused committed it, and that the specification alleges an offense, the
convening authority may refer it. The finding may be based on hearsay in whole or in part.
The convening authority or judge advocate may consider information from any source and
shall not be limited to the information reviewed by any previous authority, but a case may not
be referred to a general or special court-martial except in compliance with paragraph (d)(2) or
(d)(3) of
this rule. The convening authority or judge advocate shall not be required before
charges are referred to resolve legal issues, including objections to evidence, which may arise
at trial.
(2) General courts-martial. The convening authority may not refer a specification under a
charge to a general comi-martial unless-
(
A) There has been substantial compliance with the preliminary hearing requirements of
R.C.M. 405; and
(B) The convening authority has received the advice of
the staffjudge advocate required
under R.C.M. 406 and Article 34(a).
(3) Special courts-martial. The convening authority may not refer charges and specifications
to a special court-martial unless the convening authority has consulted with a judge advocate as
required under R.C .M. 406A and Article 34(b
).
(e) How charges shall he referred.
(1) Order, instructions. Referral shall be by the personal order of
the convening authority.
(A) Capital cases. If a case is to be tried as a capital case, the convening authority shall so
indicate by including a special instruction on the charge sheet in accordance with R.C.M.
1
004(b
)(1 ).
(B) Special court-martial consisting of
a military
judge alone. If a case is to be tried as a
special court-matiial consisting of a military judge alone under Article 16(c)(2)(A), the
convening authority shall so indicate by including a special instruction on the charge sheet prior
to arraignment.
(C) Other instructions. The convening authority may include any other additional
instructions in the order as may be required.
(2) Joinder of
offenses. In the discretion of
the convening authority, two or more offenses
charged against an accused may be referred to the same court-martial for trial, whether serious
or minor offenses or both, regardless whether related. Additional charges may be joined with
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other charges for a single trial at any time before arraignment if
all necessmy procedural
requirements concerning the additional charges have been complied with. After arraignment
of
the accused upon charges, no additional charges may be referred to the same trial without
consent of
the accused.
(3) Joinder of
accused. Allegations against tv.;o or more accused may be referred for joint trial
ifthe accused are alleged to have pa11icipated in the same act or transaction or in the same series
of
acts or transactions constituting an offense or offenses. Such accused may be charged in one
or more specifications together or separately, and every accused need not be charged in each
specification. Related allegations against two or more accused which may be proved by
substantially the same evidence may be referred to a common trial.
(f) Superior convening authorities. Except as otherwise provided in these rules, a superior
competent authority may cause charges, whether or not referred, to be transmitted to the
authority for further consideration, including, if
appropriate, referral.
(g) Parallel convening authorities. If
it is impracticable for the original convening authority to
continue exercising authority over the charges, the convening authority may cause the charges,
even if
referred, to be transmitted to a parallel convening authority. This transmittal must be in
writing and in accordance with such regulations as the Secretary concerned may prescribe.
Subsequent actions taken by the parallel convening authority are within the sole discretion of
that
convening authority.
Rule 602. Service of charges; commencement of trial
(a) Service of
charges. Trial counsel detailed to the court-martial to which charges have been
referred for trial shall cause to be served upon each accused a copy of
the charge sheet.
(b) Commencement of
trial.
(1) Except in time ofwar, no person may, over objection, be brought to trial by general or
special court-martial-including an Article 39(a) session-within the following time periods:
(A) In a general court-martial, from the time of service of
charges under subsection (a)
through the fifth day after the date of service.
(B) In a special court-martial, from the time of service of charges under subsection (a)
through the third day after the date of service.
(2) If
the first session ofthe court-martial occurs before the end of
the applicable period
under paragraph (1), the military judge shall, at the beginning of that session, inquire as to
whether the defense objects to proceeding during the applicable period. If
the defense objects,
the trial may not proceed. If
the defense does not object, the issue is waived.
Rule 603. Changes to charges and specifications
(a) In general. Any person forwarding, acting upon, or prosecuting charges on behalf of
the
United States except a preliminary hearing officer appointed under R.C.M. 405 may make
major and minor changes to charges or specifications in accordance with this rule.
(b) _Major and minor changes defined.
(I) A1qjor changes. A major change is one that adds a party, an offense, or a substantial
matter not fairly included in the preferred charge or specification, or that is likely to mislead the
accused as to the offense charged.
(2) Minor changes. A minor change in a charge or specification is any change other than a
major change.
(c) l'vfqjor and minor changes before referral. Before referral, subject to paragraph (d)(2), a
major or minor change may be made to any charge or specification.
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(d) fvfajor changes after referral or
preliminary hearing.
(
1) After referral, a major change may not be made over the objection of
the accused unless
the charge or specification is withdrawn, amended, and referred anew-.
(2) In the case of a general comi-martial, a major change made to a charge or specification
after the preliminary hearing may require reopening the preliminary hearing in accordance with
R.C.M. 405.
(e)Minor changes after re.feJTal. Minor changes may be made to the charges and specifications
after referral and before arraignment. After arraignment, the military judge may, upon motion,
permit minor changes in the charges and specifications at any time before findings are
announced if
no substantial right of
the accused is prejudiced.
Rule 604. Withdrawal of charges
(a) Withdrawal. The convening authority or a superior competent authority may for any reason
cause any charges or specifications to be withdrawn from a court-martial at any time before
findings are announced.
(b) Referral qfwithdrmvn charges. Charges that have been withdrawn from a court-martial may
be referred to another court-martial unless the withdrawal was for an improper reason. Charges
withdrawn after the introduction of evidence on the general issue of guilt may be referred to
another court-martial only if
the withdrawal was necessitated by urgent and unforeseen military
necessity.
Rule 701. Discovery
(a) Disclosure by trial counsel. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (f) and paragraph
(g)(2) of
this rule, and unless previously disclosed to the defense in accordance with R.C.M.
404A, trial counsel shall provide the following to the defense:
(1) Papers accompm7;ying charges; convening orders; statements. As soon as practicable
after service of
charges under R.C.M. 602, trial counsel shall provide the defense with copies
ot: or, if extraordinary circumstances make it impracticable to provide copies, permit the
defense to inspect:
(A) All papers that accompanied the charges when they were refetTed to the court-
martial, including papers sent with charges upon a rehearing or new trial;
(B) The convening order and any amending orders; and
(C) Any sworn or signed statement relating to an offense charged in the case that is in the
possession oftrial counseL
(2) Documents, tangible objects, reports.
(A) Mter service of charges, upon request of
the defense, the Government shall pennit
the defense to inspect any books, papers, documents, data, photographs, tangible objects,
buildings, or places, or copies of portions of
these items, if
the item is within the possession,
custody, or control of
military authorities and-
(i) the item is relevant to defense preparation;
(ii) the govemment intends to use the item in the case-in-chief at trial;
(iii) the government anticipates using the item in rebuttal; or
(iv) the item was obtained from or belongs to the accused.
(B) After service of
charges, upon request of
the defense, the Government shall permit
the defense to inspect the results or reports of
physical or mental examinations, and of any
scientific tests or experiments, or copies thereof, which are within the possession, custody, or
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control of
military authorities, the existence of
which is known or by the exercise of
due
diligence may become known to trial counsel if
(i) the item is relevant to defense preparation;
(ii) the government intends to use the item in the case-in-chief at trial; or
(iii) the government anticipates using the item in rebuttal.
(3) Witnesses. Before the beginning of
trial on the merits, trial counsel shall notify the defense
of
the names and contact information of
the witnesses trial counsel intends to call:
(A) In the prosecution case-in-chief; and
(B) To rebut a defense of
alibi, innocent ingestion, or lack of
mental responsibility,
when trial counsel has received timely notice under paragraphs (b
)(1) or (2) of
this rule.
(
4) Prior convictions r<f accused
r<ffered on the merits. Before arraignment, trial counsel
shall notify the defense of
any records of
prior civilian or court-martial convictions of
the
accused of
which trial counsel is aware and which trial counsel may offer on the merits for
any purpose, including impeachment, and shall permit the defense to inspect such records
when they are in trial counsel's possession.
(5) lr?formation to he (?[fered at sentencing. Upon request of
the defense, trial counsel shall:
(A) Permit the defense to inspect such written material as will be presented by the
prosecution at the presentencing proceedings; and
(B) Notify the defense of
the names and contact information of
the witnesses trial
counsel intends to cal1 at the presentencing proceedings under R.C.M. 1001(b).
(6) Evidence favorable to the defense. Trial counsel shall, as soon as practicable, disclose
to the defense the existence of
evidence known to trial counsel which reasonably tends to--
(A) Negate the guilt of
the accused of
an offense charged;
(B) Reduce the degree of
guilt of
the accused of an offense charged;
(C) Reduce the punishment; or
(D) Adversely afTect the credibility of
any prosecution witness or evidence.
(b) Disclosure by the defense. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (f) and paragraph
(g)(2) of
this rule, the defense shall provide the following information to trial counsel:
(1) Names of
witnesses and statements.
(A) Before the beginning of
the trial on the merits, the defense shall notify trial counsel
in writing of
the names and contact information of all witnesses, other than the accused, whom
the defense intends to call during the defense case in chief~ and provide all sworn or signed
statements known by the defense to have been made by such witnesses in connection with the
case.
(B) Upon request of
trial counsel, the defense shall also-
(i) Provide trial counsel with the names and contact infonnation of
any witnesses
whom the defense intends to all at the presentencing proceedings under R.C.M. IOOl(d); and
(ii) Permit trial counsel to inspect any written material that will be presented by the
defense at the presentencing proceeding.
(2) Notice of
certain defenses. The defense shall notify trial counsel in wliting before the
beginning of
trial on the merits of
its intent to offer the defense of alibi, innocent ingestion, or
lack of
mental responsibility, or its intent to introduce expert testimony as to the accused's
mental condition. Such notice by the defense shall disclose, in the case of
an alibi defense, the
place or places at which the defense claims the accused to have been at the time of the alleged
offense, and, in the case of
an innocent ingestion defense, the place or places where, and the
circumstances under which the defense claims the accused innocently ingested the substance in
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question, and the names and addresses of
the witnesses upon whom the accused intends to rely
to establish any such defenses.
(3) Documents and tangible items. If
the defense requests disclosure under subparagraph
(a)(2)(A) of
this rule, upon compliance with such request by the Government, the defense, on
request of
trial counsel, shall permit trial counsel to inspect and to copy or photograph books,
papers, documents, data, photographs, tangible objects, or copies or portions of
any of
these
items, or, in the case of
buildings or places or portions thereof, inspect or photograph, if-
(A) the item is within the possession, custody, or control of
the defense; and
(B) the defense intends to use the item in the defense case-in-chief at triaL
(
4) Reports of
examination and tests. If
the defense requests disclosure under subsection
(a)(2)(B) of this rule, upon compliance with such request by the Government, the defense, on
request of trial counsel, shall (except as provided in R.C.M. 706, Mil. R. Evid. 302, and Mil.
R. Evid. 513) permit trial counsel to inspect the results or reports of
any physical or mental
examinations and of
any scientific tests or experiments made in connection with the particular
case, or copies thereof, if
the item is within the possession, custody, or control of
the defense;
and-
(A) the defense intends to use the item in the defense case-in-chief at trial; or
(B) the item was prepared by a witness who the defense intends to call at trial and the
results or reports relate to that witness' testimony.
(5) Tnadmissihility t?fwithdrawn defense. If an intention to rely upon a defense under
paragraph (b )(2) of
this rule is withdrawn, evidence of
such intention and disclosures by the
accused or defense counsel made in connection with such intention is not, in any court-
martial, admissible against the accused who gave notice of
the intention.
(c) r'ailure to call witness. The fact that a witness' name is on a list of expected or intended
witnesses provided to an opposing party, whether required by this rule or not, shall not be ground
for comment upon a failure to call the witness.
(d) Continuing duty to disclose. If~ before or during the court-martial, a party discovers
additional evidence or material previously requested or required to be produced, which is subject
to discovery or inspection under this rule, that party shall promptly notify the other party or the
military judge of
the existence of the additional evidence or material.
(e) Access tow
itnesses and evidence. Each party shall have adequate opp011unity to prepare its
case and equal opportunity to interview witnesses and inspect evidence, subject to the limitations
in paragraph (e)(l) of
this rule. No party may unreasonably impede the access of another party to
a witness or evidence.
( 1) Counsel
for the Accused
Interview of
Victim ofAlleged Offense.
(A) Upon notice by counsel for the Government to counsel for the accused of
the name of
an alleged victim of
an offense whom counsel for the Government intends to call as a witness at
a proceeding, counsel for the accused, or that lawyer's representative, as defined in Mil. R. Evid.
502(b) (3), shall make any request to interview that victim through the special victims' counsel
or other counsel for the victim, if
applicable.
(B) If
requested by an alleged victim who is subject to a request for interview under
subparagraph (
e
)(1 )(A) of
this rule, any interview of
the victim by counsel for the accused, or
that lawyer's representative, as defined in MiL R. Evid. 502(b)(3), shall take place only in the
presence of
counsel for the Government, counsel for the victim, or if
applicable, a victim
advocate.
(2) [Reserved]
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(f) Information not su~ject
to disclosure. Nothing in this rule shall be construed to require the
disclosure of
infonnation protected from disclosure by the Military Rules of
Evidence. Nothing
in this rule shall require the disclosure or production of
notes, memoranda, or similar working
papers prepared by counsel and counsel's assistants and representatives.
(g) Regulation of
discovel~V.
(
1) Time, place, and
manner. The military judge may, consistent with this rule, specify the time,
place, and manner of
making discovery and may prescribe such terms and conditions as are just.
(2) Protective and modifying orders. Upon a sufficient show-ing, the military judge may at any
time order that the discovery or inspection be denied, restricted, or deferred, or make such other
order as is appropriate. Subject to limitations in Part III of
the Manual for Courts-Martial, if
any
rule requires, or upon motion by a party, the military judge may review any materials in camera,
and permit the party to make such showing, in whole or in part, in writing to be inspected only
by the military judge in camera. If
the military judge reviews any materials in camera, the
entirety of
any materials examined by the military judge shall be attached to the record of
trial as
an appellate exhibit. The military judge shall seal any materials examined in camera and not
disclosed and may seal other materials as appropriate. Such material may only be examined by
reviewing or appellate authorities in accordance with R.C.M. 1113.
(3) Failure to comply. If at any time during the court-martial it is brought to the attention of
the military judge that a party has failed to comply with this rule, the military judge may take one
or more of
the following actions:
(A) Order the party to permit discovery;
(B) Grant a continuance;
(C) Prohibit the party from introducing evidence, calling a witness, or raising a defense not
disclosed; and
(D) Enter such other order as is just under the circumstances. This rule shall not limit the
right of
the accused to testify in the accused's behalf
(h) Inspect. As used in this rule "inspect" includes the right to photograph and copy.
Rule 702. Depositions
(a) In general.
(
1) A deposition may be ordered at the request of
any party if
the requesting party
demonstrates that, due to exceptional circumstances, it is in the interest of
justice that the
testimony of
a prospective witness be taken and preserved for use at trial.
(2) "Exceptional circumstances" under this rule includes circumstances under which the
deponent is likely to be unavailable to testify at the time of
trial.
(3) A victim's declination to testify at a preliminary hearing or a victim's declination to
submit to pretrial interviews shall not, by themselves, be considered "exceptional
circumstances" under this rule.
(4) A request for a written deposition may not be approved without the consent of
the
opposing party except when the deposition is ordered solely in lieu of producing a witness for
sentencing under R.C.M. 1001 and the authority ordering the deposition determines that the
interests of
the parties and the court-martial can be adequately served by a written deposition.
(5) A request for an oral deposition may be approved without the consent of
the opposing
party.
(b) Who may order. A convening authority who has the charges for disposition or, after referral,
the convening authority or the military judge may order that a deposition be taken on request of
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a party.
(c) Request to take deposition. A party requesting a deposition shall do so in writing, and shall
include in such written request-
( 1) The name and contact information of the person whose deposition is requested, or, if
the
name of
the person is unknown, a description of
the office or position of
the person;
(2) A statement of
the matters on which the person is to be examined;
(3) A statement of the reasons for needing to preserve the testimony of
the prospective
witness; and
(4) Whether an oral or written deposition is requested.
(d) Action on request.
(1) Prompt not~fication. The authority under subsection (b) who acts on a request for
deposition shall promptly inform the requesting party of
the action on the request and, if
the
request is denied, the reasons for denial.
(2) Action when request is denied If
a request for deposition is denied by the convening
authority, the requesting party may seek review of
the decision by the military judge after
referral.
(3) Action when request is (lpproved
(A) Detail qf
deposition c?fficer. When a request for a deposition is approved, the
convening authority shall detail a judge advocate certified under Article 27(b) to serve as
deposition officer. In exceptional circumstances, when the appointment of
a judge advocate as
deposition officer is not practicable, the convening authority may detail an impartial
commissioned officer or appropriate civil officer authorized to administer oaths, other than the
accuser, to serve as deposition otlicer. If
the deposition officer is not a judge advocate certified
under Article 27(b
), an impartial judge advocate so certified shall be made available to provide
legal advice to the deposition otlicer.
(B) Assignment qf
counsel. If
charges have not yet been referred to a court-martial when
a request to take a deposition is approved, the convening authority shall ensure that counsel
qualified as required under R.C.M. 502(d) are assigned to represent each party.
(C) instructions. The convening authority may give instructions not inconsistent with this
rule to the deposition officer.
(D) Notice to other parties. The requesting party shall give to every other party
reasonable written notice of
the time and place for the deposition and the name and address of
each person to be examined. On motion of a party upon whom the notice is served, the
deposition officer may for cause shown extend or shorten the time or change the place for
taking the deposition, consistent with any instructions from the convening authority.
(e) Duties of
the deposition ojjicer. In accordance with this rule, and subject to any instructions
under subparagraph (d)(3)(C), the deposition otlicer shall-
(1) Arrange a time and place for taking the deposition and, in the case of
an oral deposition,
notify the party who requested the deposition accordingly;
(2) Arrange for the presence of
any witness whose deposition is to be taken in accordance
with the procedures for production of
witnesses and evidence under R.C.M. 703;
(3) Maintain order during the deposition and protect the parties and witnesses from
annoyance, embarrassment, or oppression;
(4) Administer the oath to each witness, the reporter, and interpreter, if
any;
(5) In the case of
a written deposition, ask the questions submitted by counsel to the witness;
(6) Cause the proceedings to be recorded so that a verbatim transcript may be prepared;
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(7) Record, but not rule upon, objections or motions and the testimony to which they relate;
(8) Certify the record of
the deposition and forward it to the authority who ordered the
deposition; and
(9) Report to the convening authority any substantial irregularity in the proceeding.
(f) Rights of
accused.
(1) Oral depositions.
(A) At an oral deposition, the accused shall have the following rights:
(i) Except as provided in subparagraph (B), the right to be present.
(ii) The right to be represented by counsel as provided in R.C.M. 506.
(B) At an oral deposition, the accused shall not have the right to be present when-
(i) the accused, absent good cause shown, fails to appear after notice of
time and place
of
the deposition;
(ii) the accused is disruptive within the meaning ofR.C.M. 804(c)(2); or
(iii) the deposition is ordered in lieu of
production of
a witness on sentencing under
R.C.M. 1001 and the authority ordering the deposition determines that the interests of
the
parties and the court-martial can be served adequately by an oral deposition without the
presence of
the accused.
(2) Wrill.en depositions. The accused shall have the right to be represented by counsel as
provided in R.C.M. 506 for the purpose of
taking a written deposition, except when the
deposition is taken for use at a summary court-martial unless otherwise provided by the
Secretary concerned.
(g) Procedure.
(
1) Oral depositions.
(A) Examination (lrvitnesses. Each witness giving an oral deposition shall be examined
under oath. The scope and manner of
examination and cross-examination shall be such as
would be allowed in the trial itself The Government shall mal(e available to each accused for
examination and use at the taking of
the deposition any statement of
the witness which is in the
possession of
the United States and to which the accused would be entitled at the trial.
(B) How recorded. In the discretion of
the authority who ordered the deposition, a
deposition may be recorded by a reporter or by other means including video and audio
recording.
(2) Written depositions.
(A) Presence ~{parties. No party has a right to be present at a written deposition.
(B) Submission of
interrogatories to opponent. The party requesting a written deposition
shall submit to opposing counsel a list of
written questions to be asked of
the witness. Opposing
counsel may examine the questions and shall be allowed a reasonable time to prepare cross-
interrogatories and objections, if any.
(C) Examination oj>vitnesses. The deposition officer shall swear the witness, read each
question presented by the parties to the witness, and record each response. The testimony of
the
witness shall be recorded on videotape, audiotape, or similar material or shall be transcribed.
When the testimony is transcribed, the deposition shall, except when impracticable, be
submitted to the witness for examination. The deposition officer may enter additional matters
then stated by the witness under oath. The deposition shall be signed by the witness if
the
witness is available. If
the deposition is not signed by the witness, the deposition officer shall
record the reason. The certificate of
authentication shall then be executed.
(h) Objections.
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(1) In general. A failure to object prior to the deposition to the taking of
the deposition on
grounds which may be corrected if
the objection is made prior to the deposition forfeits such
objection unless the objection is affirmatively waived.
(2) Oral depositions. Objections to questions, testimony, or evidence at an oral deposition
and the grounds for such objection shall be stated at the time of
taking such deposition. If
an
objection relates to a matter which could have been corrected if
the objection had been made
during the deposition, the objection is forfeited if
not made at the deposition.
(3) Written depositions. Objections to any question in written interrogatories shall be served
on the party who proposed the question before the interrogatories are sent to the deposition
officer or the objection is forfeited. Objections to answers in a written deposition may be made
at trial.
(i) Admissibility and use as evidence.
(1) Jn general.
(A) The ordering of a deposition under paragraph (a)(l) does not control the admissibility
of
the deposition at court-martial. Except as provided in paragraph (2), a party may use all or
part of a deposition as provided by the rules of evidence.
(B) In the discretion of
the military judge, audio or video recorded depositions may be
played for the court-martial or may be transcribed and read to the court-martial.
(2) Capital cases. Testimony by deposition may be presented in capital cases only by the
defense.
G) Deposition by agreement not precluded
(1) Taking deposition. Nothing in this rule shall preclude the taking of
a deposition without
cost to the United States, orally or upon wtitten questions, by agreement of the parties.
(2) Use l?{ deposition. Subject to Article 49, nothing in this rule shall preclude the use of a
deposition at the court-martial by agreement of
the parties unless the military judge forbids its
use for good cause.
Rule 703. Production of witnesses and evidence
(a) in general. The prosecution and defense and the court-martial shall have equal opportunity
to obtain witnesses and evidence, subject to the limitations set fmih in R.C.M. 701, including
the benefit of compulsory process.
(b) Right to witnesses.
(1) On the merits or on interlocutory questions. Each party is entitled to the production of
any
witness whose testimony on a matter in issue on the merits or on an interlocutory question would
be relevant and necessary. With the consent of
both the accused and Government, the military
judge may authorize any witness to testify via remote means. Over a party's objection, the
military judge may authorize any witness to testify on interlocutory questions via remote means
or similar technology if
the practical difficulties of
producing the witness outweigh the
significance of
the witness' personal appearance (although such testimony will not be admissible
over the accused's objection as evidence on the ultimate issue of
guilt). Factors to be considered
include, but are not limited to: the costs of
producing the witness; the timing of
the request for
production of
the witness; the potential delay in the interlocutory proceeding that may be caused
by the production of the witness; the willingness of the witness to testify in person; the likelihood
of
significant interference with military operational deployment, mission accomplishment, or
essential training; and, for child witnesses, the traumatic effect of providing in-court testimony
(2) On sentencing Each party is entitled to the production of
a witness whose testimony on
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sentencing is required underR.C.M. lOOl(f).
(3) Unavailable witness. Notwithstanding paragraphs (b)(l) and (2) of
this rule, a party is not
entitled to the presence of
a witness who is unavailable within the meaning of
Mil. R. Evid.
804(a). However, if
the testimony of
a witness who is unavailable is of such central importance
to an issue that it is essential to a fair trial, and if
there is no adequate substitute for such
testimony, the military judge shall grant a continuance or other relief in order to attempt to
secure the witness' presence or shall abate the proceedings, unless the unavailability of the
witness is the fault of or could have been prevented by the requesting party.
(c) Determining which witnesses 1-v ill be produced
(1) Witnesses for the prosecution. Trial counsel shall obtain the presence ofwitnesses
whose testimony trial counsel considers relevant and necessary for the prosecution.
(2) Witnesses for the defense.
(A) Request. The defense shall submit to trial counsel a written list of witnesses whose
production by the Government the defense requests.
(B) Contents of
request.
(i) Witnesses on merits or interlocutory questions. A list of witnesses whose testimony
the defense considers relevant and necessary on the merits or on an interlocutory question shall
include the name, telephone number, if known, and address or location of the witness such that
the witness can be found upon the exercise of due diligence and a synopsis of the expected
testimony sufficient to show its relevance and necessity.
(ii) Witnesses on sentendng. A list of
witnesses wanted for presentencing proceedings
shall include the name, telephone number, if
known, and address or location of
the witness such
that the witness can be found upon the exercise of
due diligence, a synopsis of
the testimony that
it is expected the witness will give, and the reasons why the witness' personal appearance will be
necessary under the standards set forth in R.C.M. lOOl(f).
(C) Time of
request. A list of witnesses under this subsection shall be submitted in time
reasonably to allow production of each witness on the date when the witness' presence will be
necessary. The military judge may set a specific date by which such lists must be submitted. Failure
to submit the name of a witness in a timely manner shall permit denial of a motion for production
of
the witness, but relief from such denial may be granted for good cause shown.
(D) Determination. Trial counsel shall arrange for the presence of any witness listed by the
defense unless trial counsel contends that the vv:itness' production is not required under this rule.
If trial counsel contends that the witness' production is not required by this rule, the matter may
be submitted to the military judge. If the military judge grants a motion for a witness, trial counsel
shall produce the witness or the proceedings shall be abated.
(d) Fmployment l?( expert witnesse.-.· and consultants.
(1) Tn general. When the employment at Government expense of
an expert witness or
consultant is considered necessary by a party, the party shall, in advance of
employment of
the
expert, and with notice to the opposing party, submit a request to the convening authority to
authorize the employment and to fix the compensation for the expert. The request shall include a
complete statement of
reasons why employment of
the expert is necessary and the estimated cost
of
employment.
(2) Review by mHitwyjudge.
(A) A request for an expert witness or consultant denied by the convening authority may
be renewed after referral of
the charges before the military judge who shall determine-
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(i) in the case of
an expert witness, whether the testimony of
the expert is relevant and
necessary, and, if
so, whether the Government has provided or will provide an adequate
substitute; or
(ii) in the case of
an expert consultant, whether the assistance of
the expert is
necessary for an adequate defense.
(B) If
the military judge grants a motion for employment of an expert or finds that the
Government is required to provide a substitute, the proceedings shall be abated if
the
Government fails to comply with the ruling. In the absence of
advance authorization, an expeti
witness may not be paid fees other than those to which they are entitled under subparagraph
(g)(3)(E).
(e) Right to evidence.
(1) In general. Each party is entitled to the production of
evidence which is relevant and
necessary.
(2) Unavailable evidence. Notwithstanding paragraph (e)(l), a party is not entitled to the
production of evidence which is destroyed, lost, or otherwise not subject to compulsory
process. However, if such evidence is of such central importance to an issue that it is essential
to a fair trial, and ifthere is no adequate substitute for such evidence, the military judge shall
grant a continuance or other relief in order to attempt to produce the evidence or shall abate
the proceedings, unless the unavailability of
the evidence is the fault of
or could have been
prevented by the requesting party.
(f) Determining what evidence will be produced The procedures in subsection (c) shall apply
to a determination of what evidence will be produced, except that any defense request for the
production of evidence shall list the items of
evidence to be produced and shall include a
description of
each item sufficient to show its relevance and necessity, a statement where it
can be obtained, and, if
known, the name, address, and telephone number of
the custodian of
the evidence.
(g) Procedures
for production of
witnesses and
evidence.
(
1) A-1ilitary witnesses. The attendance of
a military witness may be obtained by notifying the
commander of
the witness of
the time, place, and date the presence of
the witness is required and
requesting the commander to issue any necessary orders to the witness.
(2) Evidence under the control ~fthe Government. Evidence under the control of
the
Government may be obtained by notifying the custodian of
the evidence of
the time, place, and
date the evidence is required and requesting the custodian to send or deliver the evidence.
(3) Civilian witnesses and evidence not under the control of
the Government-subpoenas.
(A) In general. The presence of
witnesses not on active duty and evidence not under
control of
the Government may be obtained by subpoena.
(B) Contents. A subpoena shall state the command by which the proceeding or
investigation is directed, and the title, if
any, of
the proceeding. A subpoena shall command
each person to whom it is directed to attend and give testimony at the time and place specified
therein, or to produce evidence-including books, papers, documents, data, writings, or other
objects or electronically stored information designated therein at the proceeding or at an
earlier time for inspection by the parties. A subpoena shall not command any person to attend
or give testimony at an Article 32 preliminary hearing.
(C) Investigative subpoenas.
(i) In general. In the case of
a subpoena issued before referral for the production of
evidence for use in an investigation, the subpoena shall command each person to whom it is
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directed to produce the evidence requested for inspection by the Government counsel who
issued the subpoena or for inspection in accordance with an order issued by the military judge
under R.C.M. 309(b
).
(ii) Subpoenas for personal or confidential iriformation about a victim. After
preferral, a subpoena requiring the production of
personal or confidential information about a
victim named in a specification may be served on an individual or organization by those
authorized to issue a subpoena under subparagraph (D) or with the consent of
the victim.
Before issuing a subpoena under this subparagraph and unless there are exceptional
circumstances, the victim must be given notice so that the victim can move for relief
under
subparagraph (g)(3)(G) or otherwise object.
(D) Jf'ho may issue. A subpoena may be issued by
(i) the summary court-martial;
(ii) the trial counsel of
a general or special court-martial;
(iii) the president of
a court of
inquiry;
(iv) an officer detailed to take a deposition; or
(v) in the case of
a pre-referral investigative subpoena, a military judge or, when
issuance of
the subpoena is authorized by a general court-martial convening authority, the
detailed trial counsel or counsel for the Government.
(E) Service. A subpoena may be served by the person authorized by this rule to issue it, a
United States Marshal, or any other person who is not less than 18 years of age. Service shall be
made by delivering a copy of
the subpoena to the person named and, in the case of
a subpoena of
an individual to provide testimony, by providing to the person named travel orders and a means
for reimbursement for fees and mileage as may be prescribed by the Secretary concerned, or in
the case of hardship resulting in the subpoenaed witness' inability to comply with the subpoena
absent initial Government payment, by providing to the person named travel orders, fees, and
mileage sutncient to comply with the subpoena in rules prescribed by the Secretary concerned.
(F) Place of
service.
(i) in general. A subpoena may be served at any place within the United States, its
Territories, Commonwealths, or possessions.
(ii) Foreign terrifOlJi. In foreign territory, the attendance of
civilian witnesses and
evidence not under the control of
the Government may be obtained in accordance with
existing agreements or, in the absence of
agreements, with principles of
intemationallaw.
(iii) Occupied territmy. In occupied enemy territory, the appropriate commander may
compel the attendance of civilian witnesses located within the occupied territory.
(G) Relief If
a person subpoenaed requests relief on grounds that compliance is
unreasonable, oppressive, or prohibited by law, the military judge or, if
before referral, a
military judge detailed under Article 30a shall review the request and shall-
(i) order that the subpoena be modified or quashed, as appropriate; or
(ii) order the person to comply with the subpoena.
(H) Neglect or refusal to appear or produce evidence.
(i) Issuance of
warrant of
attachment. If the person subpoenaed neglects or refuses
to appear or produce evidence, the military judge or, if
before referral, a military judge
detailed under Article 30a or a general court-martial convening authority, may issue a warrant
of
attachment to compel the attendance of a witness or the production of
evidence, as
appropriate.
(ii) Requirements. A warrant of
attachment may be issued only upon probable cause to
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believe that the witness or evidence custodian was duly served with a subpoena, that the
subpoena was issued in accordance with these rules, that a means of
reimbursement offees and
mileage, if applicable, was provided to the witness or advanced to the witness in cases of
hardship, that the witness or evidence is matelial, that the witness or evidence custodian refused
or willfully neglected to appear or produce the subpoenaed evidence at the time and place
specified on the subpoena, and that no valid excuse is reasonably apparent for the witness'
failure to appear or produce the subpoenaed evidence.
(iii) Form. A warrant of
attachment shall be wlitten. All documents in support of
the
warrant of
attachment shall be attached to the warrant, together with the charge sheet and
convening orders.
(iv) Execution. A warrant of attachment may be executed by a United States Marshal
or such other person who is not less than 18 years of
age as the autholity issuing the warrant
may direct. Only such non-deadly force as may be necessary to bring the witness before the
court-martial or other proceeding or to compel production of the subpoenaed evidence may be
used to execute the warrant. A witness attached under this rule shall be brought before the
court-martial or proceeding without delay and shall testify or provide the subpoenaed
evidence as soon as practicable and be released.
(v) Definition. For purposes of clause (g)(3)(H)(i) "military judge" does not include
a summary court-martial.
(4) Preservation reque.<;ts. In the case of
evidence under control of
the Government as well
as evidence not under control of
the Government, the person seeking production of
the
evidence may include with any request for evidence or subpoena a request that the custodian of
the evidence take all necessary steps to preserve specifically desclibed records and other
evidence in its possession until such time as they may be produced or inspected by the parties.
Rule 703A. 'Varrant or order for wire or electronic communications
(a) in general. A military judge detailed in accordance with Article 26 or Article 30a may, upon
wlitten application by a federal law enforcement officer, tlial counsel, or other autholized
counsel for the Government in connection with an ongoing investigation of an otiense or
offenses under the UCMJ, issue one or more of
the following:
(1) A warrant for the disclosure by a provider of
electronic communication service of
the
contents of any wire or electronic communication that is in electronic storage in an electronic
communications system for 180 days or less.
(2) A warrant or order for the disclosure by a provider of
electronic communication service
ofthe contents of
any wire or electronic communication that is in electronic storage in an
electronic communications system for more than 180 days.
(3) A warrant or order for the disclosure by a provider of
remote computing service of
the
contents of any wire or electronic communication that is held or maintained on that service-
(A) on behalf of, and received by means of electronic transmission from (or created by
means of computer processing of communications received by means of
electronic transmission
from), a subscliber or customer of such remote computing service; and
(B) solely for the purpose of providing storage or computer processing services to such
subscriber or customer, if
the provider is not autholized to access the contents of any such
communications for purposes of providing any services other than storage or computer
processmg.
(4) A warrant or order for the disclosure by a provider of
electronic communication service
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or remote computing service of
a record or other information pertaining to a subscriber to or
customer of such service (not including the contents of
communications), to include the
subscriber or customer' s-
(A) name;
(B) address;
(C) local and long distance telephone connection records, or records of session times and
durations;
(D) length of service (including start date) and types of service utilized;
(E) telephone or instrument number or other subscriber number or identity, including any
temporarily assigned network address; and
(F) means and source of
payment for such service (including any credit card or bank
account number).
(b) Warrant procedures.
(1) Probable cause required. A military judge shall issue a warrant authorizing the search
for and seizure of
information specified in subsection (a) if-
(A) The federal law enforcement officer, trial counsel, or other authorized counsel for the
Government applying for the warrant presents an affidavit or sworn testimony, subject to
examination by the military judge, in support of
the application; and
(B) Based on the affidavit or sworn testimony, the military judge determines that there is
probable cause to believe that the information sought contains evidence of a crime.
(2) l'Jsuing the warrant. The military judge shall issue the warrant to the federal law
enforcement officer, trial counsel, or other authorized Government counsel who applied for the
warrant.
(3) Contents (lthe warrant. The warrant shall identify the property to be searched, identify
any property or other information to be seized, and designate the military judge to whom the
warrant must be returned.
(4) Axecuting the 1varrant. The presence of
the federal law enforcement ot1icer, trial
counsel, or other authorized Government counsel identified in the warrant shall not be required
for service or execution of
a search warrant issued in accordance with this rule requiring
disclosure by a provider of
electronic communications service or remote computing service of
the contents of
communications or records or other information pertaining to a subscriber to or
customer of such service.
(c) Order procedures.
(
1) A military judge shall issue an order authorizing the disclosure of
infonnation specified
in paragraph (a)(2), (3), or (4) if
the federal law enforcement officer, trial counsel, or other
authorized counsel for the Government applying for the order-
(
A) Offers specific and articulable facts showing that there are reasonable grounds to
believe that the contents of
a wire or electronic communication, or the records or other
information sought, are relevant and material to an ongoing criminal investigation; and
(B) Except in the case of
information specified in paragraph (a)(4), has provided prior
notice to the subscriber or customer of
the application for the order, unless the military judge
approves a request for delayed notice under subsection (d).
(2) Quashing or mod(fying order. A military judge issuing an order under paragraph (
c
)(1 ),
on a motion made promptly by the service provider, may quash or modify such order, if
the
order is determined to be unreasonable, oppressive, or prohibited by law.
(d) Delayed
notice qf
order.
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(
1) A federal law enforcement officer, trial counsel, or other authorized counsel for the
Government applying for an order to obtain information specified in paragraph (a)(2) or (3)
may include in the application a request for an order delaying the notification required under
subparagraph (c)(l)(B) for a period not to exceed 90 days. The military judge reviewing the
application and the request shall grant the request and issue the order for delayed notification if
the military judge determines that there is reason to believe that notification of
the existence of
the order may have an adverse result described in paragraph (4). Extensions of
the delay of
notification required under subparagraph (c)(l)(B) of
up to 90 days each may be granted by the
military judge upon application, but only in accordance with paragraph (2).
(2) A federal law enforcement officer, trial counsel, or other authorized counsel for the
Government acting under this rule, w·hen not required to notify the subscriber or customer
under subparagraph (c)(l)(B), or to the extent that delayed notification has been ordered under
paragraph (1 ), may apply to a military judge for an order commanding a provider of
electronic
communications service or remote computing service to whom a warrant or order under this
rule is directed, for such period as the military judge deems appropriate, not to notify any other
person of
the existence of
the warrant or order. The military judge shall issue the order for
delayed notification if
the military judge determines that there is reason to believe that
notification of
the existence of
the warrant or order will result in an adverse result described in
paragraph (4).
(3) Upon expiration of
the applicable period of delay of notification under paragraph (2),
the federal law enforcement officer, trial counsel, or other authorized Government counsel shall
serve upon, or deliver by registered first-class mail to, the customer or subscriber a copy of
the
process or request together with notice that-
(A) states with reasonable specificity the nature of
the law enforcement inquiry; and
(B) informs such customer or subscriber-
(i) that information maintained for such customer or subscriber by the service provider
named in such process or request was supplied to or requested by that governmental authority
and the date on which the supplying or request took place;
(ii) that notification of such customer or subscriber was delayed;
(iii) which military judge made the determination pursuant to which that delay was
made; and
(iv) which provision of
this rule allowed such delay.
(4) An adverse result for the purposes of
paragraphs (1) and (2) is-
(A) endangering the life or physical safety of an individual;
(B) flight from prosecution;
(C) destmction of or tampering with evidence;
(D) intimidation of potential witnesses; or
(E) otherwise seriously jeopardizing an investigation or unduly delaying a trial.
(e) No cause ~~action
against a provider disclosing information under this rule. As provided
under 18 U.S. C. § 2703(e), no cause of action shall lie in any court against any provider of
wire
or electronic communication service, its officers, employees, agents, or other specified persons
for providing information, facilities, or assistance in accordance with the terms of
a warrant or
order under this rule.
(f) Requirement to preserve evidence. To the same extent as provided in 18 U.S.
C. § 2703(f)-
(I) A provider of
wire or electronic communication services or a remote computing service,
upon the request of
a federal law enforcement officer, trial counsel, or other authorized
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Government counsel, shall take all necessary steps to preserve records and other evidence in its
possession pending the issuance of an order or other process; and
(2) Shall retain such records and other evidence for a period of90 days, which shall be
extended for an additional 90-day period upon a renewed request by the governmental entity.
(g) Definition. As used in this mle, the term "federal law enforcement officer" includes an
employee of
the Army Criminal Investigation Command, the Naval Criminal Investigative
Service, the Air Force Office of Special Investigations, or the Coast Guard Investigative
Service, who has authority to request a search warrant.
Rule 704. Immunity
(a) Types Qfimmunity. Two types of immunity may be granted under this mle.
(1) Transactional immunity. A person may be granted transactional immunity from trial by
court-martial for one or more offenses under the UCMJ.
(2) Testimonial immunity. A person may be granted immunity from the use of testimony,
statements, and any information directly or indirectly derived from such testimony or statements
by that person in a later court-martial.
(b) Scope. Nothing in this rule bars:
(1) A later court
-martial for perjury, false swearing, making a false official statement, or
failure to comply with an order to testify; or
(2) Use in a court-martial under paragraph (b)(l) ofthis mle oftestimony or statements
derived from such testimony or statements.
(c)Authority to grant immunity. A general court-martial convening authority, or designee, may
grant immunity, and may do so only in accordance with this mle.
(1) Persons subject to the UCMJ A general court-martial convening authority, or designee,
may grant immunity to a person subject to the UCMJ. However, a general court-martial
convening authority, or designee, may grant immunity to a person subject to the UC:MJ
extending to a prosecution in a United States District Court only when specifically authorized to
do so by the Attorney General of
the United States or other authority designated under chapter
601 oftitle 18 ofthe U.S. Code.
(2) Persons not subject to the UClvfJ A general court-martial convening authority, or
designee, may grant immunity to persons not subject to the UCMJ only when specifically
authorized to do so by the Attorney General of
the United States or other authority designated
chapter 601 of
title 18 of the U.S. Code.
(3) Other limitations. Subject to Service regulations, the authority to grant immunity under
this mle may be delegated in writing at the discretion of the general court-martial convening
authority to a subordinate special court-martial convening authority. Further delegation is not
permitted. The authority to grant or delegate the authority to grant immunity may be limited by
superior authority.
(d) Procedure. A grant of
immunity shall be written and signed by the convening authority who
issues it. The grant shall include a statement of
the authority under which it is made and shall
identify the matters to which it extends.
(e) Decision to grant immunity. Unless limited by superior competent authority, the decision to
grant immunity is a matter within the sole discretion of
the general court-martial convening
authority or designee. However, if
a defense request to immunize a witness has been denied, the
military judge may, upon motion by the defense, grant appropriate relief directing that either an
appropriate convening authority grant testimonial immunity to a defense witness or, as to the
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affected charges and specifications, the proceedings against the accused be abated, upon findings
that:
(1) The witness intends to invoke the right against self-incrimination to the extent permitted by
law if
called to testify; and
(2) The Government has engaged in discriminatory use of
immunity to obtain a tactical
advantage, or the Government, through its own overreaching, has forced the witness to invoke
the ptivilege against self-incrimination; and
(3) The witness' testimony is material, clearly exculpatory, not cumulative, not obtainable
from any other source and does more than merely affect the credibility of
other witnesses.
Rule 705. Plea agreements
(a) In general. Subject to such limitations as the Secretary concerned may prescribe, an accused
and the convening authority may enter into a plea agreement in accordance with this rule.
(b) Nature of
agreement. A plea agreement may include:
(1) A promise by the accused to plead guilty to, or to enter a confessional stipulation as to
one or more charges and specifications, and to fulfill such additional terms or conditions that
may be included in the agreement and that are not prohibited under this rule; and
(2) A promise by the convening authority to do one or more of
the following:
(A) Refer the charges to a certain type of court-martial;
(B) Refer a capital offense as non
capital;
(C) Withdraw one or more charges or specifications from the court-martial;
(D) Have trial counsel present no evidence as to one or more specifications or portions
thereof; and
(E) Limit the sentence that may be adjudged by the court-martial for one or more charges
and specifications in accordance with subsection (d).
(c) Terms and conditions.
(1) Prohibited terms and conditions.
(A) Not volunta1y. A term or condition in a plea agreement shall not be enforced if
the
accused did not freely and voluntarily agree to it.
(B) Deprivation of
certain rights. A term or condition in a plea agreement shall not be
enforced if
it deprives the accused of: the right to counsel; the right to due process; the right to
challenge the jurisdiction of the court-martial; the right to a speedy trial; the right to complete
presentencing proceedings; the complete and effective exercise of
post-trial and appellate
rights.
(2) Permissible terms and conditions. Subject to subparagraph (l)(A), subparagraph (l)(B)
does not prohibit either party from proposing the follm~ring additional conditions:
(A) A promise to enter into a stipulation of
fact concerning offenses to which a plea of
guilty or to which a confessional stipulation will be entered;
(B) A promise to testify as a witness in the trial of
another person;
(C) A promise to provide restitution;
(D) A promise to conform the accused's conduct to certain conditions of
probation before
action by the convening authority in a summary court-martial or before entry of
judgment in a
general or special court-martial as well as during any period of suspension ofthe sentence,
provided that the requirements ofR.C.M. 1108 must be complied with before an alleged
violation of
such terms may relieve the convening authority of
the obligation to fulfill the
agreement;
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(E) A promise to waive procedural requirements such as the Article 32 preliminary
hearing, the right to trial by court-martial composed of
members, the right to request trial by
military judge alone, the right to elect sentencing by members, or the opportunity to obtain the
personal appearance of
witnesses at presentencing proceedings;
(F) When applicable, a provision requiring that the sentences to confinement adjudged by
the military judge for two or more charges or specifications be served concurrently or
consecutively. Such an agreement shall identify the charges or specifications that will be served
concurrently or consecutively; and
(G) Any other term or condition that is not contrary to or inconsistent with this rule.
(d) Sentence limitations.
(I) In general. A plea agreement that limits the sentence that can be adjudged by the court-
martial for one or more charges and specifications may contain:
or,
(A) a limitation on the maximum punishment that can be imposed by the cou1i-martial;
(B) a limitation on the minimum punishment that can be imposed by the court-martial;
(C) limitations on the maximum and minimum punishments that can be imposed by the
court
-martial.
(2) Cor!finemenl andfines.
(A) General or .~pecial courts-martial.
(i) In a plea agreement in which the accused waives the right to elect sentencing by
members and agrees to a limitation on the confinement or the amount of
a fine that may be
imposed by the military judge for more than one charge or specification under paragraph (1),
the agreement shall include separate limitations, as applicable, for each charge or specification.
(ii) ln a plea agreement in which the convening authority and accused agree to
sentencing by members, limitations on the sentence that may be adjudged shall be expressed as
limitations on the total punishment that may be imposed by the members.
(B) Summary court-martial. A plea agreement involving limitations on the sentence that
may be adjudged shall be expressed as limitations on the total punishment that may be imposed
by the court-martial.
(3) Other punishments. A plea agreement may include a limitation as to other authorized
punishments as set forth in R.C.M. 1003.
(4) Capital cases. A sentence limitation under paragraph (1) may not include the possibility
of
a sentence of
death.
(5) Afandatmy minimum punishments
for certain ojjimses. A sentence limitation under
paragraph (1) may not provide for a sentence less than the applicable mandatory minimum
sentence for an offense referred to in Article 56(b
)(2), except as follows:
(A) If the accused pleads guilty to the offense, the agreement may have the effect of
reducing a mandatory dishonorable discharge to a bad-conduct discharge.
(B) Upon recommendation of
trial counsel, in exchange for substantial assistance by the
accused in the investigation or prosecution of another person who has committed an offense, a
plea agreement may provide for a sentence that is less than the mandatory minimum sentence
for the offense charged.
(e) Procedure.
(1) Negotiation. Plea agreement negotiations may be initiated by the accused, defense
counsel, trial counsel, the staff
judge advocate, convening authority, or their duly authorized
representatives. Either the defense or the Government may propose any tetm or condition not
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prohibited by law or public policy. Government representatives shall negotiate with defense
counsel unless the accused has waived the right to counsel.
(2) Formal submission. After negotiation, if
any, under paragraph (1), if
the accused elects
to propose a plea agreement, the defense shall submit a written otTer. All terms, conditions, and
promises between the parties shall be written. The proposed agreement shall be signed by the
accused and defense counsel, if any.
(3) Acceptance by the convening authority.
(A) In general. The convening authority may either accept or reject an offer of
the
accused to enter into a plea agreement or may propose by counteroffer any terms or conditions
not prohibited by law or public policy. The decision whether to accept or reject an otTer is
within the sole discretion of
the convening authority. When the convening authority has
accepted a plea agreement, the agreement shall be signed by the convening authority or by a
person, such as the staff
judge advocate or trial counsel, who has been authorized by the
convening authority to sign.
(B) Victim consultation. Whenever practicable, prior to the convening authority accepting
a plea agreement the victim shall be provided an opportunity to submit views concerning the plea
agreement terms and conditions in accordance with regulations prescribed by the Secretary
concerned. The convening authority shall consider any such views provided prior to accepting a
plea agreement. For purposes of
this rule, a "victim" is an individual who is alleged to have
suffered direct physical, emotional, or pecuniary harm as a result of
the matters set forth in a
charge or specification under consideration and is named in one of
the specifications under
consideration.
(4) Withdrawal.
(A) By accused. The accused may withdraw from a plea agreement at any time prior to
the sentence being announced. If
the accused elects to withdraw from the plea agreement atler
the acceptance of
the plea agreement but before the sentence is announced, the military judge
shall permit the accused to withdraw only for good cause shown. Additionally, the accused may
withdraw a plea of
blllilty or a confessional stipulation entered pursuant to a plea agreement only
as provided in R.C.M. 910(h) or 8ll(d).
(B) By convening authority. The convening authority may withdraw from a plea
agreement at any time before substantial performance by the accused of
promises contained in
the agreement, upon the failure by the accused to fultill any material promise or condition in
the agreement, when inquity by the military judge discloses a disagreement as to a material
tenn in the agreement, or if
findings are set aside because a plea of
guilty entered pursuant to
the agreement is held improvident on appellate review.
(f) Nondisclosure of
existence ofa
plea agreement. No court-martial member shall be infonned
of
the existence of
a plea agreement, except upon request of
the accused or when the military
judge finds that disclosure of
the existence of
the plea agreement is manifestly necessary in the
interest of
justice because of
circumstances arising during the proceeding. In addition, except as
provided in Mil. R. Evid. 410, the fact that an accused offered to enter into a plea agreement,
and any statements made by an accused in connection therewith, whether during negotiations or
during a providence inquiry, shall not be otherwise disclosed to the members.
Rule 706. Inquiry into the mental capacity or mental responsibility of the accused
(a) Initial action. If it appears to any commander who considers the disposition of
charges, or to
any preliminary heating officer, trial counsel, defense counsel, military judge, or member that
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there is reason to believe that the accused lacked mental responsibility for any offense charged or
lacks capacity to stand trial, that fact and the basis of
the belief or observation shall be
transmitted through appropriate channels to the officer authorized to order an inquiry into the
mental condition of
the accused. The submission may be accompanied by an application for a
mental examination under this rule.
(b) Ordering an inqui1y.
(
1) Before referral. Before referral of charges, an inquiry into the mental capacity or mental
responsibility of
the accused may be ordered by the convening authority before whom the
charges are pending for disposition.
(2) After referral. After referral of charges, an inquiry into the mental capacity or mental
responsibility of
the accused may be ordered by the military judge. The convening authority may
order such an inquiry after referral of charges but before beginning of the first session of the
court-martial (including any Article 39(a) session) when the military judge is not reasonably
available. The military judge may order a mental examination of the accused regardless of any
earlier determination by the convening authority.
(c) Inquiry.
(1) Ry whom conducted When a mental examination is ordered under subsection (b) ofthis
rule, the matter shall be referred to a board consisting of
one or more persons. Each member of
the board shall be either a physician or a clinical psychologist. Normally, at least one member of
the board shall be either a psychiatrist or a clinical psychologist. The board shall report as to the
mental capacity or mental responsibility or both of
the accused.
(2) Matters in inquiry. When a mental examination is ordered under this rule, the order shall
contain the reasons for doubting the mental capacity or mental responsibility, or both, of
the
accused, or other reasons for requesting the examination. ln addition to other requirements, the
order shall require the board to make separate and distinct findings as to each of
the following
questions:
(A) At the time of
the alleged criminal conduct, did the accused have a severe mental
disease or defect? (The term "severe mental disease or defect" does not include an abnormality
manifested only by repeated criminal or otherwise antisocial conduct, or minor disorders such as
nonpsychotic behavior disorders and personality defects.)
(B) What is the clinical psychiatric diagnosis?
(C) Was the accused, at the time of the alleged criminal conduct and as a result of such
severe mental disease or defect, unable to appreciate the nature and quality or wrongfulness of
his or her conduct?
(D) Is the accused presently suffering from a mental disease or defect rendering the
accused unable to understand the nature of
the proceedings against the accused or to conduct or
cooperate intelligently in the defense?
Other appropriate questions may also be included.
(3) Directions to board In addition to the requirements specified in paragraph (c)(2) of
this
mle, the order to the board shall specify:
(A) That upon completion of the board's investigation, a statement consisting only of
the
board's ultimate conclusions as to all questions specified in the order shall be submitted to the
officer ordering the examination, the accused's commanding officer, the preliminary hearing
officer, if
any, appointed pursuant to Article 32 and to all counsel in the case, the convening
authority, and, after referral, to the military judge;
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(B) That the full report of
the board may be released by the board or other medical
personnel only to other medical personnel for medical purposes, unless otherwise authorized by
the convening authority or, after referral of
charges, by the military judge, except that a copy of
the full report shall be furnished to the defense and, upon request, to the commanding officer of
the accused; and
(C) That neither the contents of
the full report nor any matter considered by the board
during its investigation shall be released by the board or other medical personnel to any person
not authorized to receive the full report, except pursuant to an order by the military judge.
(4)Additional examinations. Additional examinations may be directed under this rule at any
stage of the proceedings as circumstances may require.
(5) Disclosure to trial counsel. No person, other than defense counsel, the accused, or, after
referral of
charges, the military judge may disclose to trial counsel any statement made by the
accused to the board or any evidence derived from such statement.
Rule 707. Speedy trial
(a) ln general. The accused shall be brought to trial within 120 days after the earlier of:
(1) Preferral of
charges;
(2) The imposition of
restraint under R.C.M. 304(a)(2)-(4); or
(3) Entry on active duty under R.C.M. 204.
(b) Accountability.
(1) In general. The date of
preferral of
charges, the date on which pretrial restraint under
R.C.M. 304 (a)(2)-(4) is imposed, or the date of entry on active duty under R.C.M. 204 shall not
count for purpose of
computing time under subsection (a) of
this rule. The date on which the
accused is brought to trial shall count. The accused is brought to trial within the meaning of
this
rule at the time of
arraignment under RC.M. 904.
(2) .Multiple Charges. When charges are preferred at ditierent times, accountability for each
charge shall be determined from the appropriate date under subsection (a) of
this rule tor that
charge.
(3) Events which affect time periods.
(A) Disrnissa/ or mistrial. In the event of
dismissal of
charges or mistrial, a new 120-
day period begins as follows:
(i) For an accused under pretrial restraint under R.C.M. 304(a)(2)-(4) at the time of
the
dismissal or mistrial, a new 120-day period begins on the date of
the dismissal or mistrial.
(ii) For an accused not under pretrial restraint at the time of
dismissal or mistrial, a
new 120-day period begins on the earliest of:
(I) the date on which charges are preferred anew;
(II) the date of
imposition of
restraint under R.C.M. 304(a)(2)-(
4); or
(III) in the case of a mistrial in which charges are not dismissed or preferred anew,
the date of
the mistrial.
(iii) In a case in which it is determined that charges were dismissed for an improper
purpose or for subtetfuge, the time period determined under subsection (a) shall continue to
run.
(B)Release.from restraint. If
the accused is released from pretrial restraint for a significant
period, the 120-day time period under this rule shall begin on the earlier of
(i) the date of
preferral of
charges;
(ii) the date on which restraint under R.C.M. 304(a) (2)-(4) is reimposed; or
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(iii) date of
entry on active duty under R.C.M. 204.
(C) Government appeals. If notice of appeal under RC.M. 908 is filed, a new 120-day
time period under this rule shall begin, for all charges neither proceeded on nor severed under
R.C.M. 908(b
)(4), on the date of notice to the parties under RC.M. 908(b
)(8) or 908(c)(3),
unless it is determined that the appeal was filed solely for the purpose of
delay with the
knowledge that it was totally frivolous and without merit. After the decision of
the Comi of
Criminal Appeals under R.C.M. 908, if
there is a further appeal to the Court of
Appeals for the
Armed Forces or, subsequently, to the Supreme Court, a new 120-day time period under this rule
shall begin on the date the parties are notified of
the final decision of
the Court of Appeals for
the Armed Forces, or, if
appropriate, the Supreme Court.
(D) Rehearings. If a rehearing is ordered or authorized by an appellate court, a new 120-
day time period under this rule shall begin on the date that the responsible convening authority
receives the record oftrial and the opinion authorizing or directing a rehearing. An accused is
brought to trial within the meaning of
this rule at the time of arraignment under R.C.M. 904 or,
if
arraignment is not required (such as in the case of
a sentence-only rehearing), at the time of
the first session underR.C.M. 803.
(E) Commilment qfthe incompetent accused. Ifthe accused is committed to the custody of
the Attorney General for hospitalization as provided in R.C.M. 909(1), all periods of such
commitment shall be excluded when determining whether the period in subsection (a) of
this rule
has run. If, at the end of
the period of commitment, the accused is returned to the custody of
the
general court-martial convening authority, a new 120-day time period under this rule shall begin
on the date of such return to custody.
(c) EYcludable delay. All pe1iods of
time during which appellate courts have issued stays in the
proceedings, or the accused is absent without authority, or the accused is hospitalized due to
incompetence, or is otherwise in the custody of
the Attorney General, shall be excluded when
determining whether the period in subsection (a) of
this rule has run. All other pretrial delays
approved by a military judge or the convening authority shall be similarly excluded.
(1) Procedure. Prior to referral, all requests tor pretrial delay, together with supporting
reasons, will be submitted to the convening authority or, if
authorized under ref,ll.Ilations
prescribed by the Secretary concerned, to a military judge for resolution. After referral, such
requests for pretrial delay will be submitted to the military judge for resolution.
(2) Motions. Upon accused's timely motion to a military judge under R.C.M. 905 for speedy
trial relief, counsel should provide the court a chronology detailing the processing of
the case.
This chronology should be made a part of
the appellate record.
(d) Remedy. A failure to comply with this rule will result in dismissal of
the affected charges, or,
in a sentence-only rehearing, sentence relief as appropriate.
(1) Dismissal. Dismissal will be with or without prejudice to the government's right to
reinstitute court-martial proceedings against the accused for the same offense at a later date.
The charges must be dismissed with prejudice where the accused has been deprived of
his or
her constitutional right to a speedy trial. In determining whether to dismiss charges with or
without prejudice, the court shall consider, among others, each of the following factors: the
seriousness of the offense; the facts and circumstances of
the case that lead to dismissal; the
impact of are-prosecution on the administration of
justice; and any prejudice to the accused
resulting from the denial of a speedy trial.
(2) Sentence relief In determining whether or how much sentence relief is appropriate, the
military judge shall consider, among others, each of the following factors: the length of
the
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delay, the reasons for the delay, the accused's demand for speedy trial, and any prejudice to the
accused from the delay. Any sentence relief granted will be applied against the sentence
approved by the convening authority.
(e)Fmjeiture. Except as provided in R.C.M. 910(a)(2), a plea of
guilty which results in a finding
of
guilty forfeites any speedy trial issue as to that offense, unless affirmatively >vaived.
(f) Priority. When considering the disposition of
charges and the ordering of
trials, a convening
authority shall give priority to cases in which the accused is held under those forms of
pretrial
restraint defined by R.C.M. 304(a)(3)-(4). Trial of or other disposition of
charges against any
accused held in arrest or confinement pending trial shall be given priority.
Rule 801. Military judge's responsibilities; other mattet·s
(a) Responsibilities qf
militwyjudge. The military judge is the presiding officer in a court-martial.
The military judge shall:
(I) Determine the time and unifom1 for each session of
a court-martial;
(2) Ensure that the dignity and decorum of the proceedings are maintained;
(3) Subject to the UCMJ and this Manual, exercise reasonable control over the proceedings to
promote the purposes of
these rules and this Manual;
(4) Rule on all interlocutory questions and all questions of law raised during the court-
martial as provided under subsection (e);
(5) Instruct the members on questions of
law and procedure which may arise; and
(6) Atthe military judge's discretion, in the case of
a victim of an offense under the UCMJ who
is under 18 years of age and not a member of the armed forces, or who is incompetent,
incapacitated, or deceased, designate the legal guardian(s) ofthe victim or the representative(s) of
the victim's estate, family members, or any other person deemed as suitable by the military judge
toassume the victim's rights under the UCMJ.
(A) The military judge is not required to hold a hearing before determining whether a
designation is required or before making such a designation under this rule.
(B) If
the military judge determines a hearing under Article 39(a), UCMJ, is necessary, the
victim shall be notified of
the hearing and afforded the right to be present at the hearing.
(C) The individual designated shall not be the accused.
(D) At any time after appointment, a designee shall be excused upon request by the
designee or a finding of
good cause by the military judge.
(E) If
the individual appointed to assume the victim's rights is excused, the military may
designate a successor consistent with this rule.
(b) Rules of
court; contempt. The military judge may:
(1) Subject to R.C.M. 108, promulgate and enforce rules of comi.
(2) Subject to R.C.M. 809, exercise contempt power.
(c) Obtaining evidence. The comi-martial may act to obtain evidence in addition to that presented
by the parties. The right of the members to have additional evidence obtained is subject to an
interlocutory ruling by the military judge.
(d) Uncharged ojjenses. If during the trial there is evidence that the accused may be guilty of an
untried offense not alleged in any specification before the court-martial, the court-martial shall
proceed with the trial of
the offense charged.
(e) Interlocutmy questions and questions of
law.
(1) Rulings by the milita1y
judge.
(A) Finality of
rulings. Any ruling by the military judge upon a question oflaw,
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including a motion for a finding of
not guilty, or upon any interlocutory question is final.
(B) Changing a ruling. The military judge may change a ruling made by that or another
military judge in the case except a previously granted motion for a finding of not guilty, at any
time during the trial.
(C) Article 39(a) sessions. When required by this Manual or othervlise deemed appropriate
by the military judge, interlocutory questions or questions of
law shall be presented and decided
at sessions held without members under R.C.M. 803.
(2) [Reserved]
(3) [Reserved]
(
4) Standard of
proof Questions of fact in an interlocutory question shall be determined
by a preponderance of
the evidence, unless otherwise stated in this ManuaL In the absence of
a rule in this Manual assigning the burden of
persuasion, the party making the motion or
raising the objection shall bear the burden of
persuasion.
(5) Scope. Subsection (e) of
this rule applies to the disposition of questions oflaw and
interlocutory questions arising during trial except the question whether a challenge should be
sustained.
(f) Rulings on record. All sessions involving rulings or instructions made or given by the
military judge shall be made a part of
the record. All rulings and instructions shall be made or
given in open session in the presence of
the parties and the members, except as otherwise may
be determined in the discretion of
the military judge.
(g) Effect tlfailure to raise defenses or objections. Failure by a party to raise defenses or
objections or to make requests or motions which must be made at the time set by this Manual or
by the military judge under authority ofthis Manual, or prior to any extension thereof made by
the military judge, shall constitute forfeiture unless the applicable rule provides that failure to
raise the defense or objection constitutes waiver.
Rule 802. Conferences
(a) in general. The military judge may, upon request of
any party or sua sponte, order one or
more conferences with the parties to consider such matters as will promote a fair and
expeditious triaL Such conferences may take place before or after referral, as applicable.
(b) A1atters on record Conferences need not be made part of
the record, but matters agreed upon
at a conference shall be included in the record orally or in writing. Failure of a party to object at
trial to failure to comply with this subsection shall waive this requirement
(c) Rights ojparties. No party may be prevented under this rule from presenting evidence or from
making any argument, objection, or motion at trial.
(d) Accused's presence. The presence of the accused is neither required nor prohibited at a
conference.
(e) Admission. No admissions made by the accused or defense counsel at a conference shall be
used against the accused unless the admissions are reduced to writing and signed by the accused
and defense counsel.
(f) Limitations. This rule shall not be invoked in the case of
an accused who is not represented by
counsel.
Rule 803. Court-martial sessions without members under Article 39(a)
A military judge who has been detailed to the court-martial may, under Article 39(a), after
service of charges, call the court
-martial into session without the presence of
members. Such
sessions may be held before and after assembly of
the court-martial, and when authorized in
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these rules, after adjournment and before entry of
the judgment in the record. All such sessions
are a part of
the trial and shall be conducted in the presence of
the accused, defense counsel,
and trial counsel, in accordance with R.C.M. 804 and 805, and shall be made a part of
the
record.
Rule 804. Presence of the accused at trial proceedings
(a) Presence required. The accused shall be present at the arraignment, the time of the plea,
every stage of
the trial including sessions conducted under A1ticle 39(a), voir dire and challenges
of
members, the return of the findings, presentencing proceedings, and post-trial sessions, if
any,
except as otherwise provided by this rule. Attendance at these proceedings shall constitute the
accused's appointed place of
duty and, with respect to the accused's travel allowances, none of
these proceedings shall constitute disciplinary action. This does not in any way limit authority to
implement restriction, up to and including confinement, as necessary in accordance with R.C.M.
304 or R.C.M. 305.
(b) Presence by remote means. The military judge may order the use of
audiovisual technology,
such as video teleconferencing technology, between the parties and the military judge for
purposes of Article 39(a) sessions. Use of such audiovisual technology will satisfy the
'presence' requirement of
the accused only when the accused has a defense counsel physically
present at his location or when the accused consents to presence by remote means with the
opportunity for confidential consultation with defense counsel during the proceeding. Such
technology may include two or more remote sites as long as all parties can see and hear each
other. Defense counsel must be physically present at the accused's location during an inquiry
prior to the acceptance of
a plea under R.C.M. 910(d), (e) and (t). Presence by remote means is
not authorized during presentencing proceedings under R. C.M. 1001.
(c) Continued
presence not required. The further progress of
the trial to and including the return
of
the findings and, if
necessary, determination of a sentence shall not be prevented and the
accused shall be considered to have waived the right to be present whenever an accused, initially
present
(1) Is voluntarily absent after arraignment (whether or not infom1ed by the military judge of
the obligation to remain during the trial); or
(2) After being warned by the military judge that disruptive conduct will cause the accused to
be removed from the courtroom, persists in conduct which is such as to justify exclusion from
the comtroom.
(d) Voluntary absence jor limited
pwpose of
child testimony.
(1) Election by accused. Following a determination by the military judge that remote live
testimony of
a child is appropriate pursuant to Mil. R. Evid. 61l(d)(3), the accused may elect to
voluntarily absent himself from the courtroom in order to preclude the use of
procedures
described in R.C.M. 914A
(2) Procedure. The accused's absence will be conditional upon his being able to view the
witness' testimony from a remote location. Normally, transmission of
the testimony will include
a system that will transmit the accused's image and voice into the com1room from a remote
location as well as transmission of
the child's testimony from the courtroom to the accused's
location. A one-way transmission may be used if
deemed necessary by the military judge. The
accused will also be provided private, contemporaneous communication with his counsel. The
procedures described herein shall be employed unless the accused has made a knowing and
affirmative waiver of
these procedures.
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(3) Effect on accused's rights general~y. An election by the accused to be absent pursuant to
paragraph (c)( I) shall not othervvise affect the accused's right to be present at the remainder of
the trial in accordance with this rule.
(e) Appearance and security of
accused.
(1) Appearance. The accused shall be properly attired in the uniform or dress prescribed by
the military judge. An accused servicemember shall wear the insignia of
grade and may wear any
decorations, emblems, or ribbons to which entitled. The accused and defense counsel are
responsible for ensuring that the accused is properly attired; however, upon request, the
accused's commander shall render such assistance as may be reasonably necessary to ensure that
the accused is properly attired.
(2) Custody. Responsibility for maintaining custody or control of an accused before and
during trial may be assigned, subject to R.C.M. 304 and 305, and paragraph (c)(3) of
this rule,
under such regulations as the Secretary concerned may prescribe.
(3) Restraint. Physical restraint shall not be imposed on the accused during open sessions of
the court-martial unless prescribed by the military judge.
Rule 805. Presence of military judge, members, and counsel
(a) Alfililatyjudge. No court-martial proceeding, except the deliberations of
the members, may
take place in the absence of
the military judge. For purposes of Article 39(a) sessions solely,
the presence of
the military judge may be satisfied by the use of
audiovisual technology, such
as video teleconferencing technology.
(b) Members. Unless the accused is tried or sentenced by military judge alone, no court-martial
proceeding may take place in the absence of
any detailed member except: Article 39(a) sessions
under R.C.M. 803; examination of
members under R.C.M. 912(d); when the member has been
excused under R.C.M. 505, 912(f), or 912A; or as otherwise provided in R.C.M. 1104(d)(l).
(c) Counsel. As long as at least one qualified counsel for each party is present, other counsel for
each party may be absent from a court-martial session. An assistant counsel who lacks the
qualifications necessmy to serve as counsel for a party may not act at a session in the absence
of
such qualified counsel. For purposes of
Article 39(a) sessions, other than presentencing
proceedings under R.C.M. 1001, the presence of
counsel may be satisfied by the use of
audiovisual technology, such as video teleconferencing technology.
(d) l:..Jfect of
replacement of
member or military
judge.
(
1) lvfembers. When after presentation of
evidence on the merits has begun, a new member is
impaneled under R.C.M. 912A, trial may not proceed unless the testimony and evidence
previously admitted on the merits, if
recorded verbatim, is read to or played for the new member
in the presence of the military judge, the accused, and counsel for both sides, or, if
not recorded
verbatim, and in the absence of a stipulation as to such testimony and evidence, the trial proceeds
as if
no evidence has been presented.
(2) Milita1y judge. When, after the presentation of
evidence on the merits has begun in trial
before military judge alone, a new militaty judge is detailed under R.C.M. 505(e)(2) trial may
not proceed unless the accused requests, and the military judge approves, trial by military judge
alone, and a verbatim record of
the testimony and evidence or a stipulation thereof is read to or
played for the military judge in the presence of
the accused and counsel for both sides, or the
trial proceeds as if
no evidence had been presented.
Rule 806. Public trial
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(a) In general. Except as otherwise provided in this rule, courts-martial shall be open to the
public. For purposes of
this rule, "public" includes members of
both the military and civilian
communities.
(b) Control of
spectators m1d closure.
(1) Limitation on number of
spectators. In order to maintain the dignity and decorum of
the
proceedings or for other good cause, the military judge may reasonably limit the number of
spectators in, and the means of
access to, the courtroom, and exclude specific persons from the
courtroom.
(2) Exclusion Q{
spectators. When excluding specific persons, the military judge must make
findings on the record establishing the reason for the exclusion, the basis for the military
judge's belief that exclusion is necessary, and that the exclusion is as narrowly tailored as
possible.
(3) Right cifvictim not to he excluded. A victim of
an alleged offense committed by the
accused may not be excluded from any public hearing or proceeding in a court-martial relating to
the offense unless the military judge, after receiving clear and convincing evidence, determines
that testimony by the victim would be materially altered if
the victim heard other testimony at
that hearing or proceeding.
(4) Closure. Courts-martial shall be open to the public unless (A) there is a substantial
probability that an overriding interest will be prejudiced if
the proceedings remain open; (B)
closure is no broader than necessary to protect the overriding interest; (C) reasonable alternatives
to closure were considered and found inadequate; and (D) the military judge makes case-specific
findings on the record justifying closure.
(c) Photography and broadcasting
prohibited. Video and audio recording and the taking of
photographs-except for the purpose of preparing the record of
trial-in the courtroom during
the proceedings and radio or television broadcasting of
proceedings from the courtroom shall not
be permitted. However, the military judge may, as a matter of discretion permit
contemporaneous closed-circuit video or audio transmission to permit viewing or hearing by an
accused removed under R.C.M. 804 or by spectators when courtroom facilities are inadequate to
accommodate a reasonable number of spectators.
(d) Protective orders. The military judge may, upon request of
any party or sua sponte, issue
an appropriate protective order, in writing, to prevent parties and witnesses from making
extrajudicial statements that present a substantial likelihood of
material prejudice to a fair trial
by impartial members.
Rule 807. Oaths
(a) Definition. "Oath" includes "affim1ation."
(b) Oaths in courts-martial.
(1) Who must be sworn.
(A) Court-martial personnel. The military judge, members of a general or special court-
martial, trial counsel, assistant trial counsel, defense counsel, associate defense counsel, assistant
defense counsel, reporter, interpreter, and escort shall take an oath to perfom1 their duties
faithfully. For purposes of
this rule, "defense counsel," "associate defense counsel," and "assistant
defense counsel," include detailed and individual military and civilian counsel.
(B) Witnesses. Each witness before a court-martial shall be examined on oath.
(2) Procedure for administering oaths. Any procedure which appeals to the conscience of the
person to whom the oath is administered and which binds that person to speak the truth, or, in the
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case of
one other than a witness, properly to perform certain duties, is sufficient.
Rule 808. Record of trial
Trial counsel of a general or special court-martial shall take such action as may be necessary
to ensure that a record that will meet the requirements of R.C.M. 1112 can be prepared.
Rule 809. Contempt proceedings
(a) ln general. The contempt power under Article 48 may be exercised by a judicial officer
specified under subsection (a) of
that article.
(b) Method (?f disposition
(1) Summary disposition. When conduct constituting contempt is directly witnessed by the
judicial officer during the proceeding, the conduct may be punished summarily; otherwise, the
provisions of
paragraph (b
)(2) shall apply. If a contempt is punished summarily, the judicial
officer shall ensure that the record accurately ref1ects the misconduct that was directly
witnessed by the judicial officer during the proceeding.
(2) Disposition upon notice and hearing When the conduct apparently constituting
contempt is not directly witnessed by the judicial oflicer, the alleged offender shall be brought
before the judicial oflicer outside the presence of
any members and informed orally or in
writing of
the alleged contempt. The alleged offender shall be given a reasonable opportunity to
present evidence, including calling witnesses. The alleged offender shall have the right to be
represented by counsel and shall be so advised. The contempt must be proved beyond a
reasonable doubt before it may be punished.
(c) Procedure. The judicial oflicer shall in all cases determine whether to punish for contempt
and, if so, what the punishment shall be. The judicial officer shall also determine when during
the court-martial or other proceeding the contempt proceedings shall be conducted. In the case
of
a court of
inquiry, the judicial officer shall consult with the appointed legal advisor or a
judge advocate before imposing punishment for contempt
(d) Record; review.
( 1) Record A record of
the contempt proceedings shall be part of
the record of
the court-martial
or other proceeding during which it occurred. If
the person was held in contempt, then a separate
record of
the contempt proceedings shall be prepared and forwarded for review in accordance with
paragraph (2) or (3), as applicable.
(2) Review by convening authority. If
the contempt punishment was imposed by a court of
inquiry, the contempt proceedings shall be forwarded to the convening authority for review.
The convening authority may approve or disapprove the contempt finding and all or part of
the
sentence. The action of the convening authority is not subject to further review or appeaL
(3) RevieH' by Court<?! Criminal Appeals. If the contempt punishment was imposed by a
military judge or military magistrate, the alleged offender may file an appeal to the Court of
Criminal Appeals in accordance with the uniform rules of procedure for the Courts of Criminal
Appeals. The Court of
Criminal Appeals may set aside the finding or the sentence, in whole or
in part.
(e) Sentence.
(1) ln general. The place of confinement for a civilian or military person who is held in
contempt and is to be punished by confinement shall be designated by the judicial officer who
imposed punishment for contempt, in accordance with regulations prescribed by the Secretary
concerned. A judicial officer who imposes punishment for contempt may delay announcing the
sentence after a finding of
contempt to permit the person involved to continue to participate in
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the proceedings.
(2) Nfaximum punishment. If
imposed by a court of
inquiry, the maximum punishment that
may be imposed for contempt is a fine of $500. Otherwise the maximum punishment that may
be imposed for contempt is confinement for 30 days, a fine of $1,000, or both.
(3) Execution of
sentence 1vhen imposed by court of
inqui1y. A sentence of
a fine pursuant to
a finding of
contempt by a court of
inquiry shall not become effective until approved by the
convening authority.
(
4) Execution of
sentence 1"-''hen imposed by militmy
judge or magistrate.
(A) A sentence of confinement pursuant to a finding of
contempt by a military judge or
military magistrate shall begin to run when it is announced unless-
(i) the person held in contempt notifies the judicial officer of an intent to t11e an
appeal; and
(ii) the judicial officer, in the exercise of
the judicial officer's discretion, defers the
sentence pending action by the Court of Criminal Appeals under paragraph (d)(3).
(B) A sentence of
a fine pursuant to a finding of
contempt by a military judge or military
magistrate shall become effective when it is announced.
(f) lr!forming person held
in contempt. The person held in contempt shall be informed by the
judicial officer in writing of
the holding and sentence, if
any, of
the judicial officer, and of
the
applicable procedures and regulations concerning execution and review of
the contempt
punishment. The reviewing authority shall notify the person held in contempt and of
the action
of
the reviewing authority upon the sentence.
Rule 810. Procedures for rehearings, new triaJs, other trials, and remands
(a) In general.
(1) Rehearings in full and new or other trials. In rehearings which require findings on all
charges and specifications referred to a court-martial and in new or other trials, the procedure
shall be the same as in an original trial except as otherwise provided in this rule.
(2) Rehearings on sentence only. In a rehearing on sentence only, the procedure shall be the
same as in an original trial, except that the portion of
the procedure which ordinarily occurs after
challenges and through and including the findings is omitted, and except as otherwise provided
in this rule.
(A) Contents ofthe record. The contents of
the record of
the original trial consisting of
evidence properly admitted on the merits relating to each offense of
which the accused stands
convicted but not sentenced may be established by any party whether or not testimony so read is
otherwise admissible under Mil. R. Evid. 804(b
)(1) and whether or not it was given through an
interpreter.
(B) Plea. The accused at a rehearing only on sentence may not withdraw any plea of
guilty upon which findings of guilty are based.
(3) Combined rehearings. When a rehearing on sentence is combined with a trial on the
merits of
one or more specifications referred to the court-martial, whether or not such
specifications are being tried for the first time or reheard, the trial will proceed first on the
merits. Reference to the offenses being reheard on sentence is permissible only as provided for
by the Military Rules of
Evidence. The presentencing proceedings procedure shall be the same
as at an original trial, except as otherwise provided in this rule.
(4) Additional charges. A convening authority may refer additional charges for trial
together with charges as to which a rehearing has been directed.
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(5) Rehearing impracticable. If
a rehearing was authorized on one or more findings, the
convening authority may dismiss the affected charges if
the convening authority detennines
that a rehearing is impracticable. If
the convening authority dismisses such charges, a rehearing
may proceed on any remaining charges not dismissed by the convening authority.
(6) Forwarding. When a rehearing, new trial, other trial, or remand is ordered, a military
judge shall be detailed to the proceeding, and the matter forwarded to the military judge. In the
case of a summary court-martial, when any proceeding is ordered, a new summary court-
martial officer shall be detailed.
(b) Composition.
(1) Members. No member of the court-martial which previously heard the case may sit as a
member of
the court-martial at any rehearing, new trial, or other trial of
the same case.
(2) Militmyjudge. The military judge at a rehearing may be the same military judge who
presided over a previous trial of
the same case. The existence or absence of
a request for trial by
military judge alone at a previous hearing shall have no effect on the composition of a court-
martial on rehearing.
(3) Accused's election. The accused at a rehearing or new or other trial shall have the same
right to request enlisted members, an all-otTicer panel, or trial by military judge alone as the
accused would have at an original trial.
(c) Examination of
record o.fformer proceedings. No member may, upon a rehearing or upon a
new or other trial, examine the record of any former proceedings in the same case except when
permitted to do so by the military judge after such matters have been received in evidence.
(d) Sentence limitations.
(1) In general. Sentences at rehearings, new trials, or other trials shall be adjudged within the
limitations set forth in R.C.M. 1003. Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (d)(2), the new
adjudged sentence for otTenses on which a rehearing, new trial, or other trial has been ordered
shall not exceed or be more severe than the original sentence as set forth in the judgment under
R.C.M. 1111. When a rehearing or sentencing is combined with trial on new charges, the
maximum punishment that may be imposed shall be the maximum punishment under R.C.M.
1003 for the offenses being reheard as limited in this rule, plus the total maximum punishment
under R.C.M. 1003 for any new charges of
which the accused has been found guilty.
(2) Exceptions. A rehearing, new trial, or other trial may adjudge any lawful sentence,
without regard to the sentence of
the previous hearing or trial when, as to any otTense-
(A) the sentence prescribed for the offense is mandatory;
(B) in the case of
an "other trial," the original trial was invalid because a summary or
special court-martial tried an offense involving mandatory punishment, an offense for which
only a general court-martial has jurisdiction, or one otherwise considered capital;
(C) the rehearing was ordered or authorized for any charge or specification for which a
plea of
guilty was entered at the first hearing or trial and a plea of
not guilty was entered at the
second hearing or trial to that same charge or specification;
(D) the rehearing was ordered or authorized for any charge or specification for which the
sentence announced or adjudged by the first court-martial was in accordance with a plea
agreement and, at the rehearing, the accused does not comply with the terms of
the agreement;
or
(E) the rehearing was ordered or authorized after an appeal by the Government under
R.C.M. 1117.
(e) Definition. "Other trial" means another trial of a case in which the original proceedings
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were declared invalid because of
lack of
jurisdiction or failure of a charge to state an offense.
The authority ordering an "other trial" shall state in the action the basis for declaring the
proceedings invalid.
(f) Remands.
(1) In general. A Court of
Criminal Appeals may order a remand for additional fact finding,
or for other reasons, in order to address a substantial issue on appeal. A remand under this
subsection is generally not appropriate to determine facts or investigate matters which could,
through a party's exercise of
reasonable diligence, have been investigated or considered at trial.
Such orders shall be directed to the Chief Trial Judge. The Judge Advocate General, or his or
her delegate, shall designate a general court-martial convening authority who shall provide
support for the hearing.
(2) Detailing C?f militmyjudge. When the Court of
Criminal Appeals orders a remand, the
Chief Trial Judge shall detail an appropriate military judge to the matter and shall notify the
commanding officer exercising general comt-martial convening authority over the accused of
the remand.
(3) Remand
impracticable. If
the general court-martial convening authority designated under
paragraph (1) determines that the remand is impractical due to military exigencies or other
reasons, a Government appellate attorney shall so notify the Court of
Criminal Appeals. Upon
receipt of such notification, the Court of
Criminal Appeals may take any action authorized by
law that does not materially prejudice the substantial rights of
the accused.
Rule 811. Stipulations
(a) in general. The parties may make an oral or written stipulation to any fact, the contents of
a
document, or the expected testimony of
a witness.
(b) Authority to reject. The military judge may, in the interest of
justice, decline to accept a
stipulation.
(c) Requirements. Before accepting a stipulation in evidence, the military judge must be satisfied
that the parties consent to its admission.
(d) Withdrawal. A party may withdraw from an agreement to stipulate or from a stipulation at
any time before a stipulation is accepted; the stipulation may not then be accepted. After a
stipulation has been accepted a party may withdraw from it only if
pennitted to do so in the
discretion of
the military judge.
(e) F}ject of
stipulation. Unless properly withdrawn or ordered stricken from the record, a
stipulation of fact that has been accepted is binding on the court-martial and may not be
contradicted by the parties thereto. The contents of a stipulation of
expected testimony or of
a
document's contents may be attacked, contradicted, or explained in the same way as if
the
witness had actually so testified or the document had been actually admitted. The fact that the
parties so stipulated does not admit the truth of
the indicated testimony or document's contents,
nor does it add anything to the evidentiary nature of
the testimony or document. The Military
Rules of
Evidence apply to the contents of stipulations.
(f) Procedure. When offered, a written stipulation shall be presented to the military judge and
shall be included in the record whether accepted or not Once accepted, a written stipulation of
expected testimony shall be read to the members, if
any, but shall not be presented to them; a
written stipulation of
fact or of
a document's contents may be read to the members, if
any,
presented to them, or both. Once accepted, an oral stipulation shall be announced to the
members, if
any.
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Rule 812. Joint and common trials
In joint trials and in common trials, each accused shall be accorded the rights and privileges as
if
tried separately.
Rule 813. Announcing personnel of the court-martial and the accused
(a) Opening sessions. When the court-martial is called to order for the first time in a case, the
military judge shall ensure that the following is announced:
(1) The order, including any amendment, by which the court is convened;
(2) The name, rank, and unit or address of
the accused;
(3) The name and rank of
the military judge presiding;
(4) The names and ranks of
the members, if
any, who are present;
(5) The names and ranks of
members who are absent, if
presence of
members is required;
(6) The names and ranks (if any) of counsel who are present;
(7) The names and ranks (if any) of counsel who are absent; and
(8) The name and rank (if any) of any detailed court reporter.
(b) Later proceedings. When the court-martial is called to order after a recess or adjournment or
after it has been closed for any reason, the military judge shall ensure that the record reflects
whether all parties and members who were present at the time of
the adjournment or recess, or at
the time the court-martial closed, are present.
(c) Additions, replacement, and
absences of
personnel. Whenever there is a replacement of
the
military judge, any member, or counsel, either through the appearance of
new personnel or
personnel previously absent or through the absence of personnel previously present, the
military judge shall ensure the record reflects the change and the reason for it.
Rule 901. Opening session
(a) Call to order. A court-martial is in session when the military judge so declares.
(b) Announcement <?fparlies. After the court-martial is called to order, the presence or absence of
the parties, military judge, and members shall be announced.
(c) S1vearing reporter and interpreter. After the personnel have been accounted for as required in
subsection (b) of
this rule, trial counsel shall announce whether the reporter and interpreter, if
any is present, have been properly sworn. If not sworn, the reporter and interpreter, if any, shall
be sworn.
(d) Counsel.
(1) Trial counsel. Trial counsel shall announce the legal qualifications and status as to oaths
of
the members of the prosecution and whether any member of
the prosecution has acted in any
manner which might tend to disqualify that counsel.
(2) Defense counsel.
(A) in general. The detailed defense counsel shall announce the legal qualifications and
status as to oaths of
the detailed members of
the defense and whether any member of
the
defense has acted in any manner that might tend to disqualify that counsel. Any defense
counsel not detailed shall state that counsel's legal qualifications and whether that counsel has
acted in any manner that might tend to disqualify the counsel.
(B) Capital cases. A defense counsel who has been detailed to a capital case as a counsel
learned in the law applicable to such cases shall, in addition to the requirements of
subparagraph (A), state such qualifications and assignment.
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(3) Disqualification. If
it appears that any counsel may be disqualified, the military judge
shall decide the matter and take appropriate action.
(4) Inqui1y. The military judge shall, in open session:
(A) Inform the accused of
the rights to be represented by military counsel detailed to the
defense; or by individual military counsel requested by the accused, if such military counsel is
reasonably available; and by civilian counsel, either alone or in association with military counsel,
if
such civilian counsel is provided at no expense to the United States;
(B) Inform the accused that, if
afforded individual military counsel, the accused may
request retention of
detailed counsel as associate counsel, which request may be granted or
denied in the sole discretion of
the authority who detailed the counsel;
(C) Ascertain from the accused whether the accused understands these rights;
(D) Promptly inquire, whenever two or more accused in a joint or common trial are
represented by the same detailed or individual military or civilian counsel, or by civilian
counsel who are associated in the practice of
law, with respect to such joint representation and
shall personally advise each accused of
the right to effective assistance of counsel, including
separate representation. Unless it appears that there is good cause to believe no conflict of
interest is likely to arise, the military judge shall take appropriate measures to protect each
accused's right to counsel; and
(E) Ascertain from the accused by whom the accused chooses to be represented.
(5) Un."'·tvorn counsel. The military judge shall administer the oath to any counsel not sworn.
(e) Presence of
members. The procedures described in R.
C
.M. 901 through 910 shall be
conducted without members present in accordance with the procedures set forth in R.C.M.
803.
Rule 902. Disqualification of military judge
(a) in general. Except as provided in subsection (e) of
this rule, a military judge shall disqualify
himself or herself
in any proceeding in which that military judge's impartiality might reasonably
be questioned.
(b) Specific grounds. A military judge shall also disqualify himself or herself in the following
circumstances:
(1) Where the military judge has a personal bias or prejudice concerning a party or personal
knowledge of
disputed evidentiaty facts concerning the proceeding.
(2) Where the military judge has acted as counsel, preliminary hearing officer, investigating
officer, legal officer, staff
judge advocate, or convening authority as to any offense charged or in
the same case generally.
(3) Where the military judge has been or will be a witness in the same case, is the accuser, has
fonvarded charges in the case with a personal recommendation as to disposition, or, except in the
performance of
duties as military judge in a previous trial of
the same or a related case, has
expressed an opinion concerning the guilt or innocence of
the accused.
(4) Where the military judge is not eligible to act because the military judge is not qualified
under R.C.M. 502(c) or not detailed under R.C.M. 503(b
).
(5) Where the military judge, the military judge's spouse, or a person within the third degree
of
relationship to either of
them or a spouse of such person:
(A) Is a party to the proceeding;
(B) Is known by the military judge to have an interest, financial or othenvise, that could be
substantially affected by the outcome of the proceeding; or
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(C) Is to the military judge's knowledge likely to be a material witness in the proceeding.
(c) Definitions. For the purposes of
this rule the following words or phrases shall have the
meaning indicated-
(1) "Proceeding" includes pretrial (to include pre-referral), trial, post-trial, appellate review,
or other stages of
litigation.
(2) The "degree of relationship" is calculated according to the civil law system.
(d) Procedure.
(1) The military judge shall, upon motion of
any party or sua sponte, decide whether the
military judge is disqualified.
(2) Each party shall be permitted to question the military judge and to present evidence
regarding a possible ground for disqualification before the military judge decides the matter.
(3) Except as provided under subsection (e) of
this rule, if
the military judge rules that the
military judge is disqualified, the military judge shall recuse himself or herself.
(e) Waiver. No military judge shall accept from the parties to the proceeding a waiver of
any
ground for disqualification enumerated in subsection (b) of
this rule. Where the ground for
disqualification arises only under subsection (a) of this rule, waiver may be accepted provided it
is preceded by a full disclosure on the record of
the basis for disqualification.
Rule 902A. Application of sentencing rules
(a) Generally. Only one sentencing system applies in a court-martial. The accused at a single
court-martial with specifications alleging offenses committed before 1 January 2019 and on or
after 1 January 2019 will not be sentenced under separate sets ofrules. Accordingly, if
an
accused is facing court-martial for several specifications alleging offenses, at least one of
which
was committed before 1 January 2019 and at least one of
which was committed on or after 1
January 2019, the convening authority may refer these offenses to either-
(1) a single court-martial where the applicable sentencing rules are the sentencing rules in
effect prior to 1 January 2019 and these apply to all offenses regardless of
the date of
the alleged
offense, unless the accused makes an election under subsection (b); or,
(2) separate courts-martial for the offenses alleged to have been committed before 1 January
2019 and the offenses alleged to have been committed on or after 1 January 2019.
(b) Election of
sentencing rules applicable at a single trial. If
the convening authority has
referred specifications alleging offenses committed before 1 January 2019 and on or after 1
January 2019 to a single court-martial pursuant to paragraph (a)(l), before the accused is
arraigned, the military judge shall ascertain, as applicable, whether the accused elects to be
sentenced under the sentencing rules in effect on 1 January 2019, which shall apply to all
offenses regardless ofthe date of the alleged offense.
(c) Form of
election. The accused's election under subsection (b) shall be in writing and signed
by the accused or shall be made orally on the record. The military judge shall ascertain whether
the accused has consulted with defense counsel and has been informed of
the right to make the
election of
the applicable sentencing rules under subsection (b).
(d) lrrevocahle F:lection. Unless the military judge allows the accused to withdraw the election
for good cause shown, the accused's election of
the applicable sentencing rules under
subsection (b) is irrevocable once made on the record and accepted by the military judge.
Rule 903. Accused's elections on composition of com·t-martial
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(a) In general.
(1) Except in a special court-martial consisting of a military judge alone under Article
16(
c
)(2)(A), before the end of
the initial Article 39(a) session or, in the absence of such a
session, before assembly, the military judge shall ascertain, as applicable:
(A) In the case of
an enlisted accused, whether the accused elects to be tried by a court-
martial composed of-
(i) at least one-third enlisted members; or
(ii) all officer members.
(B) In all noncapital cases, whether the accused requests trial by military judge alone.
(2) The accused may defer requesting trial by military judge alone until any time before
assembly.
(b) Form ~{election. The accused's election or request, if
any, under subsection (a), shall be in
writing and signed by the accused or shall be made orally on the record.
(c) Action on election.
(1) Request
for .~pec{fic
panel composilion. If
an enlisted accused makes a timely election
under subparagraph (a)(1)(A), the convening authority, unless a sutTicient number of members
have already been detailed, shall detail a sufficient number of
additional members to the court-
martial in accordance with R.C.M. 503 or prepare a detailed written statement explaining why
physical conditions or military exigencies prevented such detail. Proceedings that require the
presence of
members shall not proceed until either there is a sufficient number of
additional
members or the convening authority has prepared a written statement.
(2) Request
for military
judge alone. Upon receipt of
a timely request for trial by military
judge alone the military judge shall:
(A) Asce1tain whether the accused has consulted with defense counsel and has been
informed of
the identity of
the military judge and of
the right to trial by members; and
(B) Approve or disapprove the request, in the military judge's discretion.
(3) Composition. Trial shall be by a court-martial composed of
the members in accordance
with the convening order, unless the case is referred for trial by military judge alone under
Article 16(c)(2)(A), the military judge grants a request for trial by judge alone, or there is a
request for a specific panel composition under subparagraph (a)(l)(A).
(d) Right to withdraw request.
(1) Specific panel composition. An election by an enlisted accused under subparagraph
(a)(l)(A) may be withdrawn by the accused as a matter of
right any time before the end of
the
initial Article 39(a) session, or, in the absence of such a session, before assembly.
(2) Military judge. A request for trial by military judge alone may be withdrawn by the
accused as a matter of
right any time before it is approved, or even after approval, if
there is a
change of
the military judge
(e) Untimely requests. Failure to request, or failure to withdraw a request for a specific panel
composition or trial by military judge alone in a timely manner shall waive the right to submit
or to withdraw such a request. However, the military judge may, until the beginning of
the
introduction of
evidence on the merits, as a matter of discretion, approve an untimely request
or withdrawal of
a request.
Rule 904. Arraignment
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Arraignment shall be conducted in a court-martial session and shall consist of
reading the
charges and specifications to the accused and calling on the accused to plead. The accused may
waive the reading.
Rule 905. Motions generally
(a) Definitions and
form. A motion is an application to the military judge for particular relief.
Motions may be oral or, at the discretion of
the military judge, written. A motion shall state the
grounds upon which it is made and shall set forth the ruling or relief sought. The substance of
a
motion, not its form or designation, shall control.
(b) Pretrial motions. Any defense, objection, or request which is capable of determination
without the trial of
the general issue of
guilt may be raised before trial. The following must be
raised before a plea is entered:
(1) Defenses or objections based on defects (other than jurisdictional defects) in the preferral,
forwarding, or referral of charges, or in the preliminary hearing;
(2) Defenses or objections based on defects in the charges and specifications (other than any
failure to show jurisdiction or to charge an offense, which objections shall be resolved by the
military judge at any time during the pendency of
the proceedings);
(3) Motions to suppress evidence;
(4) Motions for discovery under R.C.M. 701 or for production of
witnesses or evidence;
(5) Motions for severance of
charges or accused; or
(6) Objections based on denial of
request for individual military counsel or for retention of
detailed defense counsel when individual military counsel has been granted.
(c) Burden of
proof
(1) Standard Unless otherwise provided in this Manual, the burden of proof on any factual
issue the resolution ofwhich is necessary to decide a motion shall be by a preponderance of
the
evidence.
(2) Assignment.
(A) Except as otherwise provided in this Manual the burden of
persuasion on any factual
issue the resolution of
which is necessary to decide a motion shall be on the moving party.
(B) In the case of a motion to dismiss for lack ofjurisdiction, denial of
the right to
speedy trial under R.C.M. 707, or the running of
the statute of
limitations, the burden of
persuasion shall be upon the prosecution.
(d) Ruling on motions. A motion made before pleas are entered shall be detennined before
pleas are entered unless, if
otherwise not prohibited by this Manual, the military judge for good
cause orders that determination be deferred until trial of
the general issue or after findings, but
no such determination shall be deferred if
a party's right to review or appeal is adversely
affected. Where factual issues are involved in determining a motion, the military judge shall
state the essential findings on the record.
(e) Effect ojjailure to raise defenses or objections.
(1) Failure by a party to raise defenses or objections or to make motions or requests which
must be made before pleas are entered under subsection (b) of
this mle forfeits the defenses or
objections absent an affirmative waiver. The military judge for good cause shown may permit a
party to raise a defense or objection or make a motion or request outside of the timelines
permitted under subsection (b) of this mle.
(2) Other motions, requests, defenses, or objections, except lack of
jurisdiction or failure of a
charge to allege an offense, must be raised before the court-martial is adjourned for that case.
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Failure to raise such other motions, requests, defenses, or objections, shall constitute forfeiture,
absent an affirmative waiver.
(f) Reconsideration. On request of
any party or sua /)ponte, the military judge may, prior to
entry of
judgment, reconsider any ruling, other than one amounting to a finding of
not guilty,
made by the military judge.
(g) Effect of
final determinations. Any matter put in issue and finally determined by a court-
martial, reviewing authority, or appellate court which had jurisdiction to determine the matter
may not be disputed by the United States in any other court-martial of
the same accused,
except that, when the offenses charged at one court-martial did not arise out of
the same
transaction as those charged at the court-martial at which the determination was made, a
determination of
law and the application of
law to the facts may be disputed by the United
States. This rule also shall apply to matters which were put in issue and finally determined in
any other judicial proceeding in which the accused and the United States or a federal
governmental unit were parties.
(h) Written motions. Written motions may be submitted to the military judge after referral and
when appropriate they may be supported by affidavits, with service and opportunity to reply to
the opposing party. Such motions may be disposed of
before arraignment and without a session.
Either party may request an Article 39(a) session to present oral argument or have an evidentiary
hearing concerning the disposition of
written motions.
(i) Service. Written motions shall be served on all other parties. Unless otherwise directed by
the military judge, the service shall be made upon counsel for each party.
G) Application lo convening authority. Except as otherwise provided in this Manual, any
matters which may be resolved upon motion without trial of
the general issue of
guilt may be
submitted by a party to the convening authority before trial for decision. Submission of such
matter to the convening authority is not, except as otherwise provided in this Manual, required,
and is, in any event, without prejudice to the renewal of
the issue by timely motion before the
military judge.
(k) Production of
statements on motion to suppress. Except as provided in this subsection,
R.C.M. 914 shall apply at a hearing on a motion to suppress evidence under paragraph (b )(3)
of
this rule. For purposes of
this subsection, a law enforcement oflicer shall be deemed a
witness called by the Government, and upon a claim of
ptivilege the military judge shall excise
portions of
the statement containing ptivileged matter.
Rule 906. Motions for appropriate relief
(a) In general. A motion for appropriate relief is a request for a ruling to cure a defect which
deprives a party of
a right or hinders a party from preparing for trial or presenting its case.
(b) Grounds for appropriate relief The following may be requested by motion for appropriate
relief. This list is not exclusive.
(1) Continuances. A continuance may be granted only by the military judge.
(2) Record of
denial C!l individual militmy counsel or of
denial of
request to retain detailed
counsel when a request
for individual military counsel granted. If
a request for military
counsel was denied, which denial was upheld on appeal (if available) or if
a request to retain
detailed counsel was denied when the accused is represented by individual military counsel,
and if
the accused so requests, the military judge shall ensure that a record of
the matter is
included in the record of
trial, and may make findings. Trial counsel may request a
continuance to infonn the convening authority of those findings. The military judge may not
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dismiss the charges or otherwise effectively prevent fmiher proceedings based on this issue.
However, the military judge may grant reasonable continuances until the requested military
counsel can be made available if
the unavailability results from temporary conditions or if
the
decision of
unavailability is in the process of review in administrative channels.
(3) Correction of
defects in the Article 32 preliminary hearing or pretrial advice.
(4) Amendment of
charges or spec{fications. After referral, a charge or specification may not
be amended over the accused's objection except pursuant to R.C.M. 603(d) and (e).
(5) Severance of a duplicitous specification into two or more specifications.
(6) Bill Q/
particulars. A bill of
particulars may be amended at any time, subject to such
conditions as justice permits.
(7) Discovery and production of
evidence and witnesses.
(8) Relief
from pretrial cor!finement. Upon a motion for release from pretrial confinement, a
victim of an alleged offense committed by the accused has the right to reasonable, accurate, and
timely notice of
the motion and any hearing, the right to confer with counsel, and the right to be
reasonably heard. Inability to reasonably afford a victim these rights shall not delay the
proceedings. The right to be heard under this rule includes the right to be heard through counsel.
(9) Severance of
multiple accused, if
it appears that an accused or the Government is
prejudiced by a joint or common trial. In a common trial, a severance shall be granted whenever
any accused, other than the moving accused, faces charges unrelated to those charged against the
moving accused.
(10) Severance of
offenses.
(A) In general. Offenses may be severed, but only to prevent manifest injustice.
(B) Capital cases. In a capital case, if the joinder of
unrelated non-capital offenses appears
to prejudice the accused, the military judge may sever the non-capital offenses from the capital
offenses.
(11) Change Q{
place Q{
trial. The place of
trial may be changed when necessary to prevent
prejudice to the rights of
the accused or for the convenience of
the Government if
the rights of
the accused are not prejudiced thereby.
(12) Unreasonable multiplication Q{
charges. The military judge may provide a remedy, as
described in this rule, if he or she finds there has been an unreasonable multiplication of
charges
as applied to findings or sentence.
(A) As applied lofindings. Charges that arise from substantially the same transaction, while
not legally multiplicious, may still be unreasonably multiplied as applied to findings. When the
military judge finds, in his or her discretion, that the offenses have been unreasonably multiplied,
the appropriate remedy shall be dismissal of
the lesser offenses or merger of
the offenses into
one specification.
(B) As applied to sentence. Where the military judge finds that the unreasonable
multiplication of
charges requires a remedy that focuses more appropriately on punishment than
on findings, he or she may find that there is an unreasonable multiplication of
charges as applied
to sentence. 1fthe military judge makes such a finding and sentencing is by members, the
maximum punishment for those offenses detern1ined to be unreasonably multiplied shall be the
maximum authorized punishment of
the offense carrying the greatest maximum punishment. If
the military judge makes such a finding and sentencing is by military judge, the remedy shall be
as set forth in R.C.M. 1002(d)(2).
(13) Preliminary ruling on admissibility of
evidence.
(14) Motions relating to mental capacity or responsibility of
the accused.
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Rule 907. Motions to dismiss
(a) In general. A motion to dismiss is a request to terminate fmther proceedings as to one or
more charges and specifications on grounds capable of
resolution without trial of
the general
issue of
guilt.
(b) Grounds for dismissal. Grounds for dismissal include the following-
(1) Nonwaivable grounds. A charge or specification shall be dismissed at any stage of the
proceedings if
the court-martiallacks jurisdiction to try the accused for the offense.
(2) Waivable grounds. A charge or specification shall be dismissed upon motion made by the
accused before the final adjournment of
the court-mmtial in that case if:
(A) Dismissal is required under R.C.M. 707;
(B) The statute of
limitations (Article 43) has run, provided that, if
it appears that the
accused is unaware of
the right to assert the statute of
limitations in bar of
trial, the military
judge shall inform the accused of
this right;
(C) The accused has previously been tried by court-martial or federal civilian court for the
same offense, provided that:
(i) No court-martial proceeding is a trial in the sense of
this rule unless-
(I) In the case of
a trial by military judge alone, presentation of the evidence on the
general issue of guilt has begun;
(II) In the case of
a trial with a military judge and members, the members have
been impaneled; or
(Ill) ln the case of
a summary court-martial, presentation of
the evidence on the
general issue of guilt has begun.
(ii) No court-martial proceeding which has been terminated under R.C.M. 604(b) or
R.C.M. 915 shall bar later prosecution for the same offense or ofienses, if so provided in those
mles;
(iii) No court-martial proceeding in which an accused has been found guilty of
any
charge or specification is a trial in the sense of
this mle until the finding of
!:,TUilty has become
final after review of
the case has been fully completed; and
(iv) No court-martial proceeding which lacked jurisdiction to try the accused for the
offense is a trial in the sense of
this rule.
(D) Prosecution is barred by:
(i) A pardon issued by the President;
(ii) Immunity from prosecution granted by a person authorized to do so; or
(iii) Prior punishment under Article 13 or 15 for the same offense, if
that offense was
punishable by confinement of
one year or less.
(E) The specification fails to state an offense.
(3) Permissible grounds. A specification may be dismissed upon timely motion by the
accused if
one of
the following is applicable:
(A) Defective. When the specification is so defective that it substantially misled the
accused, and the military judge finds that, in the interest of
justice, trial should proceed on any
remaining charges and specifications without undue delay; or
(B) Multiplicity. When the specification is multiplicious with another specification, is
unnecessary to enable the prosecution to meet the exigencies of
proof through trial, review, and
appellate action, and should be dismissed in the interest of
justice. A charge is multiplicious if
the proof of such charge also proves every element of
another charge.
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Rule 908. Appeal by the United States
(a) In general. The United States may appeal an order or ruling by a military judge that
terminates the proceedings with respect to a charge or specification, or excludes evidence that
is substantial proof of a fact material in the proceedings, or directs the disclosure of classified
information, or that imposes sanctions for nondisclosure of
classified information. The United
States may also appeal a refusal by the military judge to issue a protective order sought by the
United States to prevent the disclosure of classified information or to enforce such an order
that has previously been issued by the appropriate authority. The United States may not appeal
an order or ruling that is, or amounts to, a finding of
not guilty with respect to the charge or
specification except when the military judge enters a finding of
not guilty with respect to a
charge or specification following the return of a finding of guilty by the members.
(b) Procedure.
(1) Delay. After an order or ruling which may be subject to an appeal by the United States,
the court-martial may not proceed, except as to matters unaffected by the ruling or order, if
trial
counsel requests a delay to determine whether to file notice of appeal under this rule. Trial
counsel is entitled to no more than 72 hours under this subsection.
(2) Decision to appeal. The decision whether to file notice of appeal under this rule shall be
made within 72 hours of
the ruling or order to be appealed. If
the Secretary concerned so
prescribes, trial counsel shall not file notice of
appeal unless authorized to do so by a person
designated by the Secretary concerned.
(3) Notice(?(
appeal. If
the United States elects to appeal, trial counsel shall provide the
military judge with written notice to this effect not later than 72 hours after the ruling or order.
Such notice shall identify the ruling or order to be appealed and the charges and specifications
atiected. Trial counsel shall certify that the appeal is not taken for the purpose of delay and (if
the order or ruling appealed is one which excludes evidence) that the evidence excluded is
substantial proof of
a fact material in the proceeding.
(4) l:..ffect on the court-martial. Upon written notice to the military judge under paragraph
(b)(3) ofthis rule, the ruling or order that is the subject ofthe appeal is automatically stayed and
no session of
the court-martial may proceed pending disposition by the Court of
Criminal
Appeals of
the appeal, except that solely as to charges and specifications not affected by the
ruling or order:
(A) Motions may be litigated, in the discretion of
the military judge, at any point in the
proceedings;
(B) When trial on the merits has not begun,
(i) a severance may be granted upon request of all the parties;
(ii) a severance may be granted upon request of
the accused and when appropriate
under R. C.M. 906(b
)( 1
0); or
(C) When trial on the merits has begun but has not been completed, a party may, on that
party's request and in the discretion of
the military judge, present further evidence on the merits.
(5) Record Upon written notice to the military judge under paragraph (b
)(3), trial counsel
shall cause a record of
the proceedings to be prepared. Such record shall be verbatim and
complete to the extent necessary to resolve the issues appealed. The record shall be certified in
accordance with RC.M. 1112, and shall be reduced to a written transcript if required under
R.C.M. 1114. The military judge or the Court of Criminal Appeals may direct that additional
parts of the proceeding be included in the record.
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(6)Fonvarding. Upon written notice to the military judge under paragraph (b)(3) of
this rule,
trial counsel shall promptly and by expeditious means forward the appeal to a representative of
the Government designated by the Judge Advocate General. The matter forwarded shall include:
a statement of
the issues appealed; the record of the proceedings or, if preparation of
the record
has not been completed, a summary of the evidence; and such other matters as the Secretary
concerned may prescribe. The person designated by the Judge Advocate General shall promptly
decide whether to file the appeal with the Court of Criminal Appeals and notify trial counsel of
that decision.
(7) Appealfiled. If
the United States elects to file an appeal, it shall be filed directly with the
Court of
Criminal Appeals, in accordance with the rules of
that court.
(8) Appeal notfiled. If the United States elects not to file an appeal, trial counsel promptly
shall notify the military judge and the other parties.
(9) Pretrial COI?finement qf
accused
pending appeal. If an accused is in pretrial confinement at
the time the United States files notice of its intent to appeal under paragraph (b
)(3) of
this rule,
the commander, in determining whether the accused should be confined pending the outcome of
an appeal by the United States, should consider the same factors which would authorize the
imposition of
pretrial confinement under R.C.M. 305(h)(2)(B).
(c) Appellate proceedings.
(1) Appellate counsel. The parties shall be represented before appellate courts in proceedings
under this rule as provided in R.C.M. 1202. Appellate Government counsel shall diligently
prosecute an appeal under this rule.
(2) Court of
Criminal Appeals. An appeal under Atiicle 62 shall, whenever practicable, have
priority over all other proceedings before the Court of Criminal Appeals. In determining an
appeal under Article 62, the Court of
Criminal Appeals may take action only with respect to
matters of
law.
(3) Action
following decision (if
Court t!f
Criminal Appeal-s. A±ler the Court of
Criminal
Appeals has decided any appeal under Article 62, the accused may petition for review by the
Court of
Appeals for the Armed Forces, or the Judge Advocate General may certify a question to
the Court of
Appeals for the Anned Forces. The parties shall be notified of
the decision of
the
Court of Criminal Appeals promptly. If
the decision is adverse to the accused, the accused shall
be notified ofthe decision and of
the right to petition the Court of Appeals for the Armed Forces
for review within 60 days orally on the record at the court-martial or in accordance with R.C.M.
1203(d). If
the accused is notified orally on the record, trial counsel shall forward by expeditious
means a certificate that the accused was so notified to the Judge Advocate General, who shall
forward a copy to the clerk of the Court of Appeals for the Armed Forces when required by the
Court. Ifthe decision by the Court of
Criminal Appeals pennits it, the court-martial may proceed
as to the affected charges and specifications pending further review by the Court of
Appeals for
the Armed Forces or the Supreme Court, unless either court orders the proceedings stayed.
Unless the case is reviewed by the Court of Appeals for the Armed Forces, it shall be returned to
the military judge or the convening authority for appropriate action in accordance with the
decision of
the Court of Criminal Appeals. If
the case is reviewed by the Court of Appeals for
the Armed Forces, R.C.M. 1204 and 1205 shall apply.
Rule 909. Capacity of the accused to stand trial by court-martial
(a) In general. No person may be brought to trial by court-martial if
that person is presently
suffering from a mental disease or defect rendering him or her mentally incompetent to the
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extent that he or she is unable to understand the nature of
the proceedings against them or to
conduct or cooperate intelligently in the defense of
the case.
(b) Presumption of
capacity. A person is presumed to have the capacity to stand trial unless the
contrary is established.
(c) Determination before referral. If an inquiry pursuant to R.C.M. 706 conducted before referral
concludes that an accused is suffering from a mental disease or defect that renders him or her
mentally incompetent to stand trial, the convening authority before whom the charges are
pending for disposition may disagree with the conclusion and take any action authorized under
R.C.M. 401, including referral of
the charges to trial. If
that convening authority concurs with the
conclusion, he or she shall forward the charges to the general court-martial convening authority.
If, upon receipt of
the charges, the general court-martial convening authority similarly concurs,
then he or she shall commit the accused to the custody of
the Attorney General. If
the general
court-martial convening authority does not concur, that authority may take any action that he or
she deems appropriate in accordance with R.C.M. 407, including referral of
the charges to trial.
(d) Determination after referral. After referral, the military judge may conduct a hearing to
detennine the mental capacity of
the accused, either sua sponte or upon request of either party. If
an inquiry pursuant to R.C.M. 706 conducted before or after referral concludes that an accused is
suffering from a mental disease or defect that renders him or her mentally incompetent to stand
trial, the military judge shall conduct a hearing to determine the mental capacity of
the accused.
Any such hearing shall be conducted in accordance with subsection (e) of
this rule.
(e) Incompetence determination hearing
(1) Nature of
issue. The mental capacity of
the accused is an interlocutory question of
fact.
(2) Standard Trial may proceed unless it is established by a preponderance of
the evidence
that the accused is presently suffering from a mental disease or defect rendering him or her
mentally incompetent to the extent that he or she is unable to understand the nature of
the
proceedings or to conduct or cooperate intelligently in the defense of
the case. In making this
detennination, the military judge is not bound by the rules of
evidence except with respect to
pri vi I
eges.
(3) If
the military judge finds the accused is incompetent to stand trial, the judge shall report
this finding to the general comt-martial convening authority, who shall commit the accused to
the custody of
the Attorney General.
(f) Hospitalization <?{the accused An accused who is found incompetent to stand trial under this
rule shall be hospitalized by the Attorney General as provided in subsection 4241(d) of
title 18,
United States Code. If notified that the accused has recovered to such an extent that he or she is
able to understand the nature of
the proceedings and to conduct or cooperate intelligently in the
defense of
the case, then the general court-martial convening authority shall promptly take
custody of the accused. n: at the end ofthe period ofhospitalization, the accused's mental
condition has not so improved, action shall be taken in accordance with section 4246 of
title 18,
United States Code.
(g) l.!_'xc/udable dekry. All periods of commitment shall be excluded as provided by R.C.M.
707(c). The 120-day time period under R.C.M. 707 shall begin anew on the date the general
court-martial convening authority takes custody of
the accused at the end of
any period of
commitment.
Rule 910. Pleas
(a) Alternatives.
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(
1) In general. An accused may plead as follows:
(A) guilty;
(B) not guilty of an offense as charged, but guilty of a named lesser included offense;
(C) guilty with exceptions, with or without substitutions, not guilty of
the exceptions, but
guilty of
the substitutions, if
any; or
(D) not guilty.
A plea of guilty may not be received as to an offense for which a sentence of
death is mandatory.
(2) Conditional pleas. With the approval of
the military judge and the consent of
the
Government, an accused may enter a conditional plea of
guilty, reserving the right, on further
review or appeal, to review of the adverse determination of any specified pretrial motion. If
the
accused prevails on further review or appeal, the accused shall be allowed to withdraw the plea
of
guilty. The Secretary concerned may prescribe who may consent for Government; unless
otherwise prescribed by the Secretary concerned, trial counsel may consent on behalf of
the
Government.
(b) Reju.">nl to plead; irregular plea. If
an accused fails or refuses to plead, or makes an irregular
plea, the militai)' judge shall enter a plea of not guilty for the accused.
(c) Advice to accused Before accepting a plea of guilty, the military judge shall address the
accused personally and inform the accused of, and determine that the accused understands, the
following:
(1) The nature of
the offense to which the plea is offered, the mandatory minimum penalty, if
any, provided by law, the maximum possible penalty provided by law, and if applicable, the
etTect of any sentence limitation(s) provided for in a plea agreement on the minimum or
maximum possible penalty that may be adjudged including the etiect of
any concurrent or
consecutive sentence limitations;
(2) In a general or special court-martial, if
the accused is not represented by counsel, that the
accused has the right to be represented by counsel at every stage of
the proceedings;
(3) That the accused has the right to plead not guilty or to persist in that plea if
already made,
and that the accused has the right to be tried by a court-martial, and that at such trial the accused
has the right to confront and cross-examine witnesses against the accused, and the right against
self-incrimination;
(4) That if
the accused pleads guilty, there will not be a trial of any kind as to those offenses
to which the accused has so pleaded, so that by pleading guilty the accused waives the rights
described in paragraph (
c
)(3) of
this rule;
(5) That if
the accused pleads guilty, the military judge will question the accused about the
offenses to which the accused has pleaded guilty, and, if
the accused answers these questions
under oath, on the record, and in the presence of counsel, the accused's answers may later be
used against the accused in a prosecution for perjury or false statement; and
(6) That if
an election by the accused to be tried by military judge alone has been approved,
the accused will be sentenced by the military judge.
(d) 1!.-.nsuring that the plea is voluntary. The military judge shall not accept a plea of guilty
without first, by addressing the accused personally, determining that the plea is voluntary and not
the result of
force or threats or of
promises apart from a plea agreement under R.C.M. 705. The
military judge shall also inquire whether the accused's willingness to plead guilty results from
prior discussions betvveen the convening authority, a representative of
the convening authority,
or trial counsel, and the accused or defense counsel.
(e) Determining accuracy ~[plea. The military judge shall not accept a plea of
guilty without
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making such inquiry of
the accused as shall satisfy the military judge that there is a factual basis
for the plea. The accused shall be questioned under oath about the offenses.
(f) Plea agreement inquily.
(1) In general. A plea agreement may not be accepted if
it does not comply with RC.M.
705.
(2) Notice. The parties shall inform the military judge if a plea agreement exists.
(3) Disclosure. If a plea agreement exists, the military judge shall require disclosure of the
entire agreement before the plea is accepted.
(
4) Inquiry.
(A) The military judge shall inquire to ensure:
(i) that the accused understands the agreement; and
(ii) that the parties agree to the terms of the agreement.
(B) Tfthe military judge determines that the accused does not understand the material
terms of
the agreement, or that the parties disagree as to such terms, the military judge shall:
(i) conform, with the consent of
the Government, the agreement to the accused's
understanding; or
(ii) permit the accused to withdraw the plea.
(5) Sentence limitations in plea agreements. If
a plea agreement contains limitations on the
punishment that may be imposed, the court-martial, subject to subparagraph (4)(B) and R.C.M.
705, shall sentence the accused in accordance with the agreement.
(6) Accepted
plea agreement. After the plea agreement inquiry, the military judge shall
announce on the record whether the plea and the plea agreement are accepted. Upon acceptance
by the military judge, a plea agreement shall bind the parties and the court-matiial.
(7) Rejected
plea agreement. If
the military judge does not accept a plea agreement, the
military judge shall-
(
A) issue a statement explaining the basis for the rejection;
(B) allow the accused to withdraw any plea; and
(C) inform the accused that if
the plea is not withdrawn the court-martial may impose any
lawful punishment.
(g) Findings. Findings based on a plea of
guilty may be entered immediately upon acceptance of
the plea at an Article 39(a) session unless the plea is to a lesser included offense and the
prosecution intends to proceed to trial on the otiense as charged.
(h) Later action.
(1) Withdrawal by the accused If
after acceptance of
the plea but before the sentence is
announced the accused requests to withdraw a plea of
guilty and substitute a plea of not guilty or
a plea of
guilty to a lesser included offense, the military judge shall pennit the accused to do so
only for good cause shown.
(2) Statements by accused inconsistent HJith plea. If
after findings but before the sentence is
announced the accused makes a statement to the court-martial, in testimony or otherwise, or
presents evidence which is inconsistent with a plea of
guilty on which a finding is based, the
military judge shall inquire into the providence of
the plea. n: following such inquiry, it appears
that the accused entered the plea improvidently or through lack of
understanding of its meaning
and effect a plea of
not guilty shall be entered as to the affected charges and specifications.
(i) [Reserved]
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U) Waiver. Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of
this rule, a plea of
guilty which results in a
finding of
guilty waives any objection, whether or not previously raised, insofar as the objection
relates to the factual issue of
guilt of
the offense(s) to which the plea was made.
Rule 911. Assembly of the court-martial
The military judge shall announce the assembly of
the court-martial.
Rule 912. Challenge of selection of members; examination and challenges of members
(a) Pretrial matters.
(I) Questionnaires. Before trial, trial counsel may, and shall upon request of defense counsel,
submit to each member written questions requesting the following information:
(A) Date ofbirth;
(B) Sex;
(C) Race;
(D) Marital status and sex, age, and number of dependents;
(E) Home of record;
(F) Civilian and military education, including, when available, major areas of study, name
of
school or institution, years of
education, and degrees received;
(G) Current unit to which assigned;
(H) Past duty assignments;
(I) Awards and decorations received;
(J) Date of rank; and
(K) Whether the member has acted as accuser, counsel, preliminary hearing officer,
investigating officer, convening authority, or legal otlicer or staff
judge advocate for the
convening authority in the case, or has forwarded the charges with a recommendation as to
disposition.
Additional information may be requested with the approval of
the military judge. Each
member's responses to the questions shall be written and signed by the member. For purposes of
this rule, the term "members" includes any alternate members.
(2) Other materials. A copy of any written mate1ials considered by the convening authority in
selecting the members detailed to the comt-martial shall be provided to any party upon request,
except that such materials pertaining solely to persons who were not selected for detail as
members need not be provided unless the military judge, for good cause, so directs.
(b) Challenge ofselection of
members.
(1) Motion. Betbre the examination of
members under subsection (d) of
this rule begins, or at
the next session after a party discovered or could have discovered by the exercise of diligence,
the grounds therefor, whichever is earlier, that party may move to stay the proceedings on the
ground that members were selected improperly.
(2) Procedure. Upon a motion under paragraph (b)(l) ofthis mle containing an ot1er of
proof
of
matters which, if
true, would constitute improper selection of
members, the moving party shall
be entitled to present evidence, including any written materials considered by the convening
authority in selecting the members. Any other party may also present evidence on the matter. If
the military judge determines that the members have been selected improperly, the military judge
shall stay any proceedings requiring the presence of members until members are properly
selected.
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(3) Fmfi?iture. Failure to make a timely motion under this subsection shall folfeit the
improper selection unless it constitutes a violation ofR.C.M. 50l(a), 502(a)(l), or 503(a)(2).
(c) Stating grounds for challenge. Trial counsel shall state any ground for challenge for cause
against any member of
which trial counsel is aware.
(d) Examination of
members. The military judge may permit the parties to conduct examination
of
members or may personally conduct examination. In the latter event the military judge shall
permit the parties to supplement the examination by such further inquiry as the military judge
deems proper or the military judge shall submit to the members such additional questions by the
parties as the military judge deems proper. A member may be questioned outside the presence of
other members when the military judge so directs.
(e) Evidence. Any party may present evidence relating to whether grounds for challenge exist
against a member.
(f) Challenges and
removalfor cause.
(1) Grounds. A member shall be excused for cause whenever it appears that the member:
(A) Ts not competent to serve as a member under Article 25(a), (b), or (c);
(B) Has not been properly detailed as a member of
the court-martial;
(C) Is an accuser as to any offense charged;
(D) Will be a witness in the court-martial;
(E) Has acted as counsel for any party as to any offense charged;
(F) Has been a preliminary hearing officer as to any offense charged;
(G) Has acted in the same case as convening authority or as the legal officer or staff
judge
advocate to the convening authority;
(H) Will act in the same case as reviewing authority or as the legal officer or staff
judge
advocate to the reviewing authority;
(I) Has forwarded charges in the case with a personal recommendation as to disposition;
(J) Upon a rehearing or new or other trial of
the case, was a member of
the couti-
martial which heard the case before;
(K) Is junior to the accused in grade or rank, unless it is established that this could not
be avoided;
(L) Is in arrest or confinement;
(M) Has formed or expressed a definite opinion as to the guilt or innocence of
the
accused as to any offense charged;
(N) Should not sit as a member in the interest of
having the court-martial free from
substantial doubt as to legality, fairness, and impartiality.
(2) When made.
(A) Upon cmnpletion of
examination. Upon completion of
any examination under
subsection (d) of this rule and the presentation of evidence, if any, on the matter, each party
shall state any challenges for cause it elects to make.
(B) Other times. A challenge for cause may be made at any other time during trial when it
becomes apparent that a ground for challenge may exist. Such examination of
the member and
presentation of evidence as may be necessary may be made in order to resolve the matter.
(3) Procedure. Each party shall be permitted to make challenges outside the presence of
the
members. The party making a challenge shall state the grounds for it. Ordinarily trial counsel
shall enter any challenges for cause before defense counsel. The military judge shall mle finally
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on each challenge. The burden of establishing that grounds for a challenge exist is upon the party
making the challenge. A member successfully challenged shall be excused.
(4) Waiver. The grounds for challenge in subparagraph (f)(l )(A) of
this rule may not be
waived. Notwithstanding the absence of a challenge or waiver of a challenge by the parties,
the military judge may, in the interest of
justice, excuse a member against whom a challenge for
cause would lie. When a challenge for cause has been denied, the successful use of a
peremptory challenge by either party, excusing the challenged member from further
patticipation in the court-martial, shall preclude further consideration of the challenge of
that
excused member upon later review. Further, failure by the challenging party to exercise a
peremptory challenge against any member shall constitute waiver of
further consideration of
the
challenge upon later review.
(5) Following the exercise of
challenges for cause, if
any, and prior to the exercise of
peremptory challenges under subsection (g) of
this rule, the military judge, or a designee
thereof, shall randomly assign numbers to the remaining members for purposes of
impaneling
members in accordance with R.C.M. 912A.
(g) Peremptory challenges.
(1) Procedure. Each party may challenge one member peremptorily. Any member so
challenged shall be excused. No party may be required to exercise a peremptory challenge before
the examination of members and determination of
any challenges for cause has been completed.
Ordinarily trial counsel shall enter any peremptory challenge before the defense.
(2) Waiver. Failure to exercise a peremptory challenge when properly called upon to do so
shall waive the right to make such a challenge. The military judge may, for good cause shown,
grant relief from the waiver, but a peremptory challenge may not be made after the presentation
of
evidence before the members has begun. However, nothing in this subsection shall bar the
exercise of
a previously unexercised peremptory challenge against a member newly detailed
under R.C.M. 505(c)(2)(B), even if
presentation of
evidence on the merits has begun.
(h) Definitions.
(1) Witness. For purposes of
this rule, "witness" includes one who testifies at a court-
martial and anyone whose declaration is received in evidence for any purpose, including
written declarations made by affidavit or otherwise.
(2) Preliminaty hearing officer. For purposes of this rule, "preliminary hearing officer"
includes any person who has examined charges under R.C.M. 405 and any person who was
counsel for a member of a court of inquiry, or otherwise personally has conducted an
investigation of the general matter involving the offenses charged.
Rule 912A. Impaneling members and alternate members
(a) In general. After challenges for cause and peremptory challenges are exercised, the
military judge of
a general or special court-martial with members shall impanel the members,
and, if
authorized by the convening authority, alternate members, in accordance with the
following numerical requirements:
(1) Capital cases. In a general court-martial in which the charges were referred with a
special instruction that the case be tried as a capital case, the number of members impaneled,
subject to paragraph (4) of
this subsection, shall be twelve.
(2) General courts-martial. In a general court-martial other than as described in paragraph
(1) of
this subsection, the number of members impaneled, subject to paragraph (4) of
this
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subsection, shall be eight.
(3) Special courts-martial. In a special court-martial, the number of
members impaneled,
subject to paragraph (4) of
this subsection, shall be four.
(4) Alternate members. A convening authmity may authorize the military judge to impanel
alternate members. When authorized by the convening authority, the military judge shall
designate which of
the impaneled members are alternate members in accordance with these
rules and consistent with the instructions of the convening authority.
(A) If
the convening authority authorizes the military judge to impanel a specific
number of
alternate members, the number of
members impaneled shall be the number of
members required under paragraphs (1), (2), or (3) of
this subsection, as applicable, plus the
number of
alternate members specified by the convening authority. The military judge shall
not impanel the court-martial until the specified number of
alternate members have been
identified. New members may be detailed in order to impanel the specified number of
alternate members.
(B) If the convening authority does not authorize the military judge to impanel a
specific number of
alternate members, and instead authorizes the military judge to impanel
alternate members only if, after the exercise of
all challenges, excess members remain, the
number of
members impaneled shall be the number of members required under paragraphs
(a)(l), (2), or (3) of
this rule and no more than three alternate members. New members shall
not be detailed in order to impanel alternate members.
(b) Enlisted accused In the case of
an enlisted accused, the members shall be impaneled
under subsection (a) of
this rule in such numbers and proportion that-
(1) If
the accused elected to be tried by a court-martial composed of
at least one-third
enlisted members, the membership of
the panel includes at least one-third enlisted members;
and
(2) If
the accused elected to be tried by a court-martial composed of
all of1icer members,
the membership ofthe panel includes all officer members.
(c) Number of
members detailed insufficient. If~ after the exercise of all challenges, the
number of
detailed members remaining is fewer than the number of
members required for the
court-martial under subsections (a) and (b) of
this rule, the convening authority shall detail
new members under R.C.M. 503.
(d) 1!-xcess members
following the exercise of
all challenges. If
the number of
members
remaining after the exercise of
all challenges is greater than the number of
members required
for the court-martial under subsections (a) and (b) of
this rule, the military judge shall use the
following procedures to identify the members who will be impaneled-
( I) Enlisted
panel. In a case in which the accused has elected to be tried by a panel
consisting of at least one-third enlisted members under R.C.M. 503(a)(2), the military judge
shall-
(
A) first identify the one-third enlisted members required under subsections (a) and (b)
of
this rule in numerical order beginning with the lowest random number assigned pursuant
to R.C.M. 912(f)(5); and
(B) then identify the remaining members required for the court-martial under
subsections (a) and (b) of this rule, in numerical order beginning with the lowest random
number assigned pursuant to R.C.M. 912([)(5).
(2) Other panels. For all other panels, the military judge shall identify the number of
members required under subsections (a) and (b) of
this rule in numerical order beginning
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with the lowest random number assigned pursuant to R.C.M. 912(f)(5).
(3) Alternate Members.
(A) If
the convening authority authorizes the military judge to impanel a specific
number of
alternate members, the specified number of
alternate members shall be identified
in numerical order beginning with the lowest remaining random number assigned pursuant to
R.C.M. 912(f)(5), after first identifying members under paragraph (1) or (2) of
this
subsection.
(B) If
the convening authority does not authorize the military judge to impanel a
specific number of
alternate members, and instead authorizes the military judge to impanel
alternate members only if, after the exercise of
all challenges, excess members remain,
alternate members shall be identified in numerical order beginning with the lowest remaining
random number assigned pursuant to RC.M. 912(f)(5), after first identifying the members
under paragraph (1) or (2) of
this subsection. The military judge shall identify no more than
three altemate members.
(4) The military judge shall excuse any members not identified as members or alternate
members, if
any.
(e) rowest number. The lowest number is the number with the lowest numerical value.
(f) Announcement. After identifying the members to be impaneled in accordance with this
rule, and after excusing any excess members, the military judge shall announce that the
members are impaneled.
Rule 912B. Excusal and replacement of members after impanelment
(a) in general. A member who has been excused after impanelment shall be replaced in
accordance with this rule. Altemate members excused after impanelment shall not be
replaced.
(b) Alternate members available. An excused member shall be replaced with an impaneled
alternate member, if
an alternate member is available. The alternate member with the lowest
random number assit,rned pursuant to R.C.M. 912(t)(5) shall replace the excused member,
unless in the case of an enlisted accused, the use of such member would be inconsistent with
the specific panel composition established under R.C.M. 903.
(c) Alternate members not available.
(1) Detailing ojnelv members not required In a general court-martial in which a sentence of
death may not be adjudged, if, after impanelment, a court-martial member is excused and
alternate members are not available, the court-martial may proceed if-
(A) There are at least six members; and
(B) In the case of
an enlisted accused, the remaining panel composition is consistent with
the specific panel composition established under R.C.M. 903.
(2) Detailing of
additional members required. In all cases other than those described in
paragraph (1), if
an impaneled member is excused and no alternate member is available to
replace the excused member, the court-martial may not proceed until the convening authority
details sufficient additional new members.
Rule 913. Presentation of the case on the merits
(a) Preliminmy instructions. The military judge may give such preliminary instructions as may
be appropriate. If mixed pleas have been entered, the military judge should ordinarily defer
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informing the members of
the offenses to which the accused pleaded guilty until after the
findings on the remaining contested offenses have been entered.
(b) Opening statements. Each party may make one opening statement to the court-martial before
presentation of evidence has begun. The defense may elect to make its statement after the
prosecution has rested, before the presentation of
evidence for the defense. The military judge
may, as a matter of discretion, permit the parties to address the com1-martial at other times.
(c) Presentation of
evidence. Each party shall have full opportunity to present evidence.
(1) Order of
presentation. Ordinarily the following sequence shall be followed:
(A) Presentation of
evidence for the prosecution;
(B) Presentation of evidence for the defense;
(C) Presentation of prosecution evidence in rebuttal;
(D) Presentation of defense evidence in surrebuttal;
(E) Additional rebuttal evidence in the discretion of
the military judge; and
(F) Presentation of evidence requested by the military judge or members.
(2) Taking testimony. The testimony of witnesses shall be taken orally in open session, unless
otherwise provided in this Manual.
(3) Views and impections. The military judge may, as a matter of discretion, permit the court-
martial to view or inspect premises or a place or an article or object. Such a view or inspection
shall take place only in the presence of all parties, the members (if
any), and the military judge.
A person familiar with the scene may be designated by the military judge to escort the court-
martial. Such person shall perform the duties of escort under oath. The escort shall not testify,
but may point out particular features prescribed by the military judge. Any statement made at the
view or inspection by the escort, a party, the military judge, or any member shall be made part of
the record.
(4) Evidence subject to exclusion. When offered evidence would be subject to exclusion upon
objection, the military judge may, as a matter of discretion, bring the matter to the attention of
the parties and may, in the interest ofjustice, exclude the evidence without an objection by a
party.
(5) Reopening case. The military judge may, as a matter of discretion, pennit a party to
reopen its case after it has rested.
Rule 914. Production of statements ofwitnesses
(a)Motionjor production. Mter a witness other than the accused has testified on direct
examination, the military judge, on motion of
a party who did not call the witness, shall order the
party who called the witness to produce, for examination and use by the moving party, any
statement of
the witness that relates to the subject matter concerning which the witness has
testified, and that is:
(1) In the case of
a witness called by trial counsel, in the possession of
the United States; or
(2) In the case of
a witness called by the defense, in the possession of
the accused or defense
counsel.
(b) Production (?f entire statement. If
the entire contents of
the statement relate to the subject
matter concerning which the witness has testified, the military judge shall order that the
statement be delivered to the moving party.
(c) Production of
excised statement. If
the pm1y who called the witness claims that the statement
contains matter that does not relate to the subject matter concerning which the witness has
testified, the military judge shall order that it be delivered to the military judge. Upon inspection,
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the military judge shall excise the portions of
the statement that do not relate to the subject
matter concerning which the witness has testified, and shall order that the statement, with such
material excised, be delivered to the moving party. Any portion of
a statement that is withheld
from an accused over objection shall be preserved by trial counsel, and, in the event of
a
conviction, shall be made available to the reviewing authorities for the purpose of
determining
the correctness of
the decision to excise the portion of
the statement.
(d) Recess
for examination of
the statement. Upon delivery ofthe statement to the moving party,
the military judge may recess the trial for the examination of
the statement and preparation for its
use in the trial.
(e) Remedy
for failure to produce statement. If the other party elects not to comply with an order
to deliver a statement to the moving party, the military judge shall order that the testimony of
the
witness be disregarded by the trier of
fact and that the trial proceed, or, if
it is trial counsel who
elects not to comply, shall declare a mistrial if
required in the interest of
justice.
(f) Definition. As used in this mle, a "statement" of
a witness means:
(1) A written statement made by the witness that is signed or otherwise adopted or approved
by the witness;
(2) A substantially verbatim recital of
an oral statement made by the witness that is recorded
contemporaneously with the making of
the oral statement and contained in a recording or a
transcription thereof; or
(3) A statement, however taken or recorded, or a transcription thereof, made by the witness to
a federal grand jury.
914A. Use of remote live testimony of a child
(a) General procedures. A child shall be allowed to testify out of
the presence of
the accused
after the military judge has determined that the requirements of
Mil. R. Evid. 611(d)(3) have
been satisfied. The procedure used to take such testimony will be determined by the military
judge based upon the exigencies of
the situation. At a minimum, the following procedures shall
be observed:
(1) The witness shall testify from a remote location outside the courtroom;
(2) Attendance at the remote location shall be limited to the child, counsel for each side (not
including an accused prose), equipment operators, and other persons, such as an attendant for
the child, whose presence is deemed necessary by the military judge;
(3) Sufficient monitors shall be placed in the courtroom to allow viewing and hearing of the
testimony by the military judge, the accused, the members, the court reporter, and the public;
(4) The voice of
the military judge shall be transmitted into the remote location to allow
control of
the proceedings; and
(5) The accused shall be permitted private, contemporaneous communication with his
counsel.
(b) Definition. As used in this rule, "remote live testimony" includes, but is not limited to,
testimony by videoteleconference, closed circuit television, or similar technology.
(c) Prohibitions. The procedures described in this rule shall not be used where the accused elects
to absent himself from the courtroom pursuant to R.C.M. 804(c)(I).
Rule 914B. Use of remote testimony
(a) General procedures. The military judge shall determine the procedures used to take
testimony via remote means. At a minimum, all parties shall be able to hear each other, those in
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attendance at the remote site shall be identified, and the accused shall be permitted private,
contemporaneous communication with his counsel.
(b) Definition. As used in this rule, testimony via "remote means" includes, but is not limited to,
testimony by videoteleconference, closed circuit television, telephone, or similar technology.
Rule 915. Mistrial
(a) In general. The military judge may, as a matter of
discretion, declare a mistrial when such
action is manifestly necessary in the interest of
justice because of
circumstances arising
during the proceedings which cast substantial doubt upon the fairness of
the proceedings. A
mistrial may be declared as to some or all charges, and as to the entire proceedings or as to
only the proceedings after findings.
(b)Procedure. On motion for a mistrial or when it otherwise appears that grounds for a
mistrial may exist, the military judge shall inquire into the views of
the parties on the matter
and then decide the matter as an interlocutory question.
(c) F;_ffecf (?l declaration (if
mistrial.
(1) Withdrawal qf
charges. A declaration of
ami
stria! shall have the effect of withdrawing the
affected charges and specifications from the court-martial.
(2) Further proceedings. A declaration of a mistrial shall not prevent trial by another court-
martial on the affected charges and specifications except when the mistrial was declared after
jeopardy attached and before findings, and the declaration was:
(A) An abuse of discretion and without the consent of
the defense; or
(B) The direct result of
intentional prosecutorial misconduct designed to necessitate a
mistrial.
Rule 916. Defenses
(a) In general. As used in this rule, "defenses" includes any special defense which, although not
denying that the accused committed the objective acts constituting the offense charged, denies,
wholly or partially, criminal responsibility for those acts.
(b) Burden (?f'prooj
(1) General rule. Except as listed in paragraphs (b
)(2) and (3) of
this rule, the prosecution shall
have the burden of
proving beyond a reasonable doubt that the defense did not exist.
(2) htck qj'
menial responsibility. The accused has the burden of
proving the defense of
lack
of
mental responsibility by clear and convincing evidence.
(3) Mistake (?(fact as to age. In the defense of
mistake of fact as to age as described in Article
120b(
d)(2) in a prosecution under Article 120b(b) (sexual assault of
a child) or Article 120b(c)
(sexual abuse of
a child), the accused has the burden of proving mistake of fact as to age by a
preponderance ofthe evidence.
(c) Justification. A death, injury, or other act caused or done in the proper performance of
a legal
duty is justified and not unlawful.
(d) Obedience to orders. It is a defense to any offense that the accused was acting pursuant to
orders unless the accused knew the orders to be unlawful or a person of
ordinary sense and
understanding would have known the orders to be unlawful.
(e) Self-defense.
(1) Homicide or assault cases involving deadly force. It is a defense to a homicide, assault
involving deadly force, or battery involving deadly force that the accused:
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(A) Apprehended, on reasonable grounds, that death or grievous bodily hann was about to
be inflicted wrongfully on the accused; and
(B) Believed that the force the accused used was necessary for protection against death or
grievous bodily hann.
(2) Certain aggravated assault cases. It is a defense to assault with a dangerous weapon or
means likely to produce death or grievous bodily hann that the accused:
(A) Apprehended, on reasonable grounds, that bodily harm was about to be inflicted
wrongfully on the accused; and
(B) In order to deter the assailant, offered but did not actually apply or attempt to apply
such means or force as would be likely to cause death or grievous bodily harm.
(3) Other assaults. It is a defense to any assault punishable under Article 89, 91, or 128 and
not listed in paragraphs (
e
)(1) or (2) of
this rule that the accused:
(A) Apprehended, upon reasonable grounds, that bodily hann was about to be inflicted
wrongfully on the accused; and
(B) Believed that the force that accused used was necessary for protection against bodily
harm, provided that the force used by the accused was less than force reasonably likely to
produce death or grievous bodily harm.
(4) Loss o.fright to se(f-defense. The right to self-defense is lost and the defenses described in
paragraphs (e)(l), (2), and (3) ofthis rule shall not apply ifthe accused was an aggressor,
engaged in mutual combat, or provoked the attack which gave rise to the apprehension, unless
the accused had withdrawn in good faith after the aggression, combat, or provocation and before
the offense alleged occurred.
(5) Defense (?f another. The principles of
self-defense under paragraphs (
e
)(1) through (
4) of
this rule apply to defense of another. It is a defense to homicide, attempted homicide, assault
with intent to kill, or any assault under Article 89, 91, or 128 that the accused acted in defense of
another, provided that the accused may not use more force than the person defended was
lavvfully entitled to use under the circumstances.
(f) Accident. A death, injury, or other event which occurs as the unintentional and unexpected
result of
doing a lawful act in a lawful manner is an accident and excusable.
(g) Entrapment. It is a defense that the criminal design or suggestion to commit the offense
originated in the Government and the accused had no predisposition to commit the ofiense.
(h) Coercion or duress. It
is a defense to any offense except killing an innocent person that the
accused's participation in the ofiense was caused by a reasonable apprehension that the accused
or another innocent person would be immediately killed or would immediately sutTer serious
bodily injury if
the accused did not commit the act. The apprehension must reasonably continue
throughout the commission of
the act. If
the accused has any reasonable opportunity to avoid
committing the act without subjecting the accused or another innocent person to the hann
threatened, this defense shall not apply.
(i) Inability. It is a defense to refusal or failure to perform a duty that the accused \Vas, through
no fault of
the accused, not physically or financially able to perfonn the duty.
(j) Ignorance or mistake of
fact.
(1) Generally. Except as otherwise provided in this subsection, it is a defense to an offense
that the accused held, as a result of ignorance or mistake, an incorrect belief of
the true
circumstances such that, if
the circumstances were as the accused believed them, the accused
would not be guilty of
the offense. If
the ignorance or mistake goes to an element requiring
premeditation, specific intent, willfulness, or knowledge of a particular fact, the ignorance or
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mistake need only have existed in the mind of
the accused. If
the ignorance or mistake goes to
any other element requiring only general intent or knowledge, the ignorance or mistake must
have existed in the mind of
the accused and must have been reasonable under all the
circumstances. However, if
the accused's knowledge or intent is immaterial as to an element,
then ignorance or mistake is not a defense.
(2) Child Sexual Offenses. It is a defense to a prosecution under Aliicle 120b(b
), sexual
assault of
a child, and Article 120b(
c), sexual abuse of
a child, that, at the time of the offense, the
child was at least 12 years of
age, and the accused reasonably believed that the child had attained
the age of 16 years. The accused must prove this defense by a preponderance of
the evidence.
(k) Lack of
mental responsibility.
( 1) Lack of
mental responsibility. It is an affirmative defense to any offense that, at the time of
the commission of the acts constituting the offense, the accused, as a result of
a severe mental
disease or defect, was unable to appreciate the nature and quality or the wrongfulness of
his or
her acts. Mental disease or defect does not otherwise constitute a defense.
(2) Partial mental responsibility. A mental condition not amounting to a lack of
mental
responsibility under paragraph (k)(l) of
this rule is not an affirmative defense.
(3) Procedure.
(A) Presumption. The accused is presumed to have been mentally responsible at the time
of
the alleged offense. This presumption continues until the accused establishes, by clear and
convincing evidence, that he or she was not mentally responsible at the time of
the alleged
offense.
(B) Inquiry. If
a question is raised concerning the mental responsibility of
the accused, the
military judge shall rule finally whether to direct an inquiry under R.CM. 706.
(C) Determination The issue of mental responsibility shall not be considered as an
interlocutory question.
(I) Not defenses generafZF.
(1) Ignorance or mistake Rflmv. Ignorance or mistake of
law, including general orders or
regulations, ordinarily is not a defense.
(2) Voluntary intoxication. Voluntary intoxication, whether caused by alcohol or drugs, is not
a defense. However, evidence of
any degree ofvoluntary intoxication may be introduced for the
purpose of
raising a reasonable doubt as to the existence of
actual knowledge, specific intent,
willfulness, or a premeditated design to kill, if
actual knowledge, specific intent, willfulness, or
premeditated design to kill is an element of
the offense.
Rule 917. Motion for a finding of not guilty
(a) ln general. The military judge, on motion by the accused or sua sponte, shall enter a
finding of
not guilty of
one or more offenses charged at any time after the evidence on either
side is closed but prior to entry of
judgment if
the evidence is insufficient to sustain a
conviction ofthe ommse afiected. If
a motion for a finding of
not guilty at the close ofthe
prosecution's case is denied, the defense may offer evidence on that offense without having
reserved the right to do so.
(b) Form £if
motion. The motion shall specifically indicate wherein the evidence is insufficient.
(c) Procedure. Before ruling on a motion for a finding of
not guilty, whether made by counsel or
sua sponte, the military judge shall give each party an opportunity to be heard on the matter.
(d) Standard. A motion for a finding of
not guilty shall be granted only in the absence of some
evidence which, together with all reasonable inferences and applicable presumptions, could
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reasonably tend to establish every essential element of an offense charged. The evidence shall be
viewed in the light most favorable to the prosecution, without an evaluation of
the credibility of
witnesses.
(e) Adotion as to greater o.flense. A motion for a finding of not guilty may be granted as to part of
a specification and, if
appropriate, the corresponding charge, as long as a lesser offense charged
is alleged in the portion of
the specification as to which the motion is not granted. In such cases,
the military judge shall announce that a finding of not guilty has been granted as to specified
language in the specification and, if
appropriate, corresponding charge. In cases before members,
the military judge shall instruct the members accordingly, so that any findings later announced
will not be inconsistent with the granting of
the motion.
(f) Effect qfruling. Except as provided in R.C.M. 908(a), a ruling granting a motion for a
finding of
not guilty is final when announced and may not be reconsidered. Such a ruling is a
finding of
not guilty of
the affected specification, or affected portion thereof, and, when
appropriate, of
the corresponding charge. A ruling denying a motion for a finding of
not guilty
may be reconsidered at any time before entry of
judgment.
(g) F;[fect l?f
denial on review. If all the evidence admitted before findings, regardless by whom
offered, is sufficient to sustain findings of
guilty, the findings need not be set aside upon review
solely because the motion for finding of
not guilty should have been granted upon the state of
the
evidence when it was made.
Rule 918. Finding
(a) General
findings. The general findings of a court-martial state whether the accused is
guilty of
each charge and specification. If
two or more accused are tried together, separate
findings as to each shall be made.
(
1) As to a specification. General findings as to a specification may be:
(A) guilty;
(B) not guilty of
an offense as charged, but guilty of a named lesser included offense;
(C) guilty with exceptions, with or without substitutions, not guilty of
the exceptions, but
guilty of
the substitutions, if
any;
(D) not guilty only by reason oflack of
mental responsibility; or
(E) not guilty.
Exceptions and substitutions may not be used to substantially change the nature of
the offense
or to increase the seriousness of
the offense or the maximum punishment for it.
(2) As to a chmge. General findings as to a charge may be:
(A) guilty;
(B) not guilty, but guilty of
a violation of
Article ___
_
(C) not guilty only by reason of lack of
mental responsibility; or
(D) not guilty.
(b) Special.findings. In a trial by court-martial composed of
military judge alone, the military
judge shall make special findings upon request by any party. Special findings may be requested
only as to matters of
fact reasonably in issue as to an offense and need be made only as to
offenses of
which the accused was found guilty. Special findings may be requested at any time
before general findings are announced. Only one set of special findings may be requested by a
party in a case. If
the request is for findings on specific matters, the military judge may require
that the request be written. Special findings may be entered orally on the record at the court-
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martial or in writing during or after the court-martial, but in any event shall be made before entry
of
judgment and included in the record of
trial.
(c) Basis of
findings. Findings may be based on direct or circumstantial evidence. Only matters
properly before the court-martial on the merits of
the case may be considered. A finding of
guilty of any offense may be reached only when the factfinder is satisfied that guilt has been
proved beyond a reasonable doubt.
Rule 919. Argument by counsel on findings
(a) In general. After the closing of evidence, trial counsel shall be permitted to open the
argument. Defense counsel shall be permitted to reply. Trial counsel shall then be permitted to
reply in rebuttal.
(b) Contents. Arguments may properly include reasonable comment on the evidence in the case,
including inferences to be drawn therefrom, in support of a party's theory of
the case.
(c) Fm:feiture qf
objection to improper argument. Failure to object to improper argument
before the military judge begins to instruct the members on findings shall constitute forfeiture
ofthe objection.
Rule 920. Instructions on findings
(a) In general. The military judge shall give the members appropriate instructions on findings.
(b) Ff1wn given. Instructions on findings shall be given before or after arguments by counsel, or
at both times, and before the members close to deliberate on findings, but the military judge may,
upon request of
the members, any party, or sua .sponte, give additional instructions at a later
time.
(c) Requestfor instructions. At the close of
the evidence or at such other time as the military
judge may permit, any party may request that the military judge instruct the members on the law
as set forth in the request. The military judge may require the requested instruction to be written.
Each party shall be given the opportunity to be heard on any proposed instruction on findings
before it is given. The military judge shall inform the parties of
the proposed action on such
requests before their closing arguments.
(d) How given. Instructions on findings shall be given orally on the record in the presence of
all parties and the members. Written copies of
the instructions, or, unless a party objects,
portions of
them, may also be given to the members for their use during deliberations.
(e) Required instructions. Instructions on findings shall include:
(1) A description of
the elements of
each offense charged, unless findings on such offenses are
unnecessary because they have been entered pursuant to a plea of guilty;
(2) A description of
the elements of each lesser included offense in issue, unless trial of
a
lesser included offense is barred by the statute of
limitations (Article 43) and the accused
refuses to waive the bar;
(3) A description of any special defense under R.C.M. 916 in issue;
(4) A direction that only matters properly before the court-martial may be considered;
(5) A charge that-
(A) The accused must be presumed to be innocent until the accused's guilt is established by
legal and competent evidence beyond reasonable doubt;
(B) In the case being considered, if
there is a reasonable doubt as to the guilt of
the accused,
the doubt must be resolved in favor of
the accused and the accused must be acquitted;
(C) If, when a lesser included offense is in issue, there is a reasonable doubt as to the degree
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of guilt of the accused, the finding must be in a lower degree as to which there is not reasonable
doubt; and
(D) The burden of
proof
to establish the guilt of
the accused is upon the Government. [When
the issue of
lack of
mental responsibility is raised, add: The burden of
proving the defense of
lack
of
mental responsibility by clear and convincing evidence is upon the accused. When the issue of
mistake of
fact under R.C.M. 9160)(2) is raised, add: The accused has the burden of proving the
defense of
mistake of
fact as to consent or age by a preponderance of
the evidence.]
(6) Directions on the procedures under R.C.M. 921 for deliberations and voting; and
(7) Such other explanations, descriptions, or directions as may be necessary and which are
properly requested by a party or which the military judge determines, sua sponte, should be given.
(f) Fmfeiture and objections. Failure to object to an instruction or to omission of
an
instruction before the members close to deliberate forfeits the objection. The parties shall be
given the opportunity to be heard on any objection to or request for instructions outside the
presence of
the members. When a party objects to an instruction, the military judge may
require the party objecting to specify in what respect the instructions given were improper.
Rule 921. Deliberations and voting on findings
(a) In general. After the militaty judge instructs the members on findings, the members shall
deliberate and vote in a closed session. Only the members shall be present during deliberations
and voting. Superiority in rank shall not be used in any manner in an attempt to control the
independence of members in the exercise of their judgment.
(b) Deliberations. Deliberations properly include full and free discussion of
the merits of
the
case. Unless otherwise directed by the military judge, members may take with them in
deliberations their notes, if
any, any exhibits admitted in evidence, and any written
instructions. Members may request that the court-martial be reopened and that portions of the
record be read to them or additional evidence introduced. The military judge may, in the
exercise of discretion, grant such request.
(c) Voting.
(1) Secret ballot. Voting on the findings for each charge and specification shall be by
secret written ballot. All members present shall vote.
(2) Numbers (?f votes required to convict. A finding of guilty results only if
at least three-
fourths of
the members present vote for a finding of guilty.
(3) Acquittal. If
fewer than three-fourths of
the members present vote for a finding of
guilty, a
finding of
not guilty has resulted as to the charge or specification on which the vote was taken.
(
4) Not guilty only by reason (!flack c!f
mental
re.~ponsibility. When the defense of
lack of
mental responsibility is in issue under R.C.M. 916(k)(l), the members shall first vote on whether
the prosecution has proven the elements of
the offense beyond a reasonable doubt. lf
at least
three-fourths of
the members present vote for a finding of
guilty, then the members shall vote on
whether the accused has proven lack of
mental responsibility. If a majority of
the members
present concur that the accused has proven lack of mental responsibility by clear and convincing
evidence, a finding of
not guilty only by reason of
lack of
mental responsibility results. If
the
vote on lack of
mental responsibility does not result in a finding of not guilty only by reason of
lack of
mental responsibility, then the defense oflack of mental responsibility has been rejected
and the finding of
guilty stands.
(5) Included offenses. Members shall not vote on a lesser included offense unless a finding
of
not guilty of
the offense charged has been reached. If
a finding of not guilty of
an offense
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charged has been reached the members shall vote on each included offense on which they
have been instructed, in order of severity beginning with the most severe. The members shall
continue the vote on each included offense on which they have been instructed until a finding
of
guilty results or findings of not guilty have been reached as to each such offense.
(
6) Procedure for voting.
(A) Order. Each specification shall be voted on separately before the corresponding
charge. The order of voting on several specifications under a charge or on several charges shall
be determined by the president unless a majority of
the members object.
(B) Counting votes. The junior member shall collect the ballots and count the votes. The
president shall check the count and inform the other members of
the result.
(d) Action qfter.findings are reached. After the members have reached findings on each charge
and specification before them, the court-martial shall be opened and the president shall inform
the military judge that findings have been reached. The military judge may, in the presence of
the
parties, examine any writing which the president intends to read to announce the findings and
may assist the members in putting the findings in proper form. Neither that writing nor any oral
or written clarification or discussion concerning it shall constitute announcement of
the findings.
Rule 922. Announcement of findings
(a) In general. Findings shall be announced in the presence of
all parties promptly after they
have been determined.
(b) Findings by members. The president shall announce the findings by the members. In a capital
case, if
a finding of
guilty is unanimous with respect to a capital offense, the president shall so
state.
(c) Findings by militaryjudge. The military judge shall announce the findings when trial is by
military judge alone or in accordance with R.C.M. 910(g).
(d) L1nmeous announcement. If an error was made in the announcement of the findings of the
court-martial, the error may be corrected by a new announcement in accordance with this rule.
The error must be discovered and the new announcement made before the final adjournment of
the com1-martial in the case.
(e) Polling
prohibited. Except as provided in Mil. R. Evid. 606, members may not be questioned
about their deliberations and voting.
Rule 923. Impeachment of findings
Findings that are proper on their face may be impeached only when extraneous prejudicial
infonnation was improperly brought to the attention of a member, outside influence was
improperly brought to bear upon any member, or unlawful command influence was brought to
bear upon any member.
Rule 924. Reconsideration of
findings
(a) Timejor reconsideration. Members may reconsider any finding reached by them before
such finding is announced in open session.
(b) Procedure. Any member may propose that a finding be reconsidered. If
such a proposal is
made in a timely manner, the question whether to reconsider shall be determined in closed
session by secret written ballot. Any finding of
not guilty shall be reconsidered if
a majority vote
for reconsideration. Any finding of
,b>uilty shall be reconsidered if more than one-fourth of
the
members vote for reconsideration. Any finding of
not guilty only by reason oflack of
mental
responsibility shall be reconsidered on the issue of
the finding of
guilty of
the elements if
more
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than one-fourth of
the members vote for reconsideration, and on the issue of
mental
responsibility if
a majority vote for reconsideration. If
a vote to reconsider a finding succeeds,
the procedures in R.C.M. 921 shall apply.
(c) Militmy
judge sitting alone. In trial by military judge alone, the military judge may
reconsider:
(
1) any finding of guilty at any time before announcement of sentence; and
(2) the issue of
the finding of guilty of the elements in a finding of not guilty only by reason
of
lack of
mental responsibility at any time before announcement of sentence or, in the case of
a
complete acquittal, entry of
judgment.
Rule 1001. Presentencing procedure
(a) In general.
(1) Procedure. After findings of
guilty have been announced, and the accused has had the
opportunity to make a sentencing forum election under R. C.M. 1
002(b
), the prosecution and
defense may present matters pursuant to this rule to aid the court-martial in determining an
appropriate sentence. Such matters shall ordinarily be presented in the following sequence-
(A) Presentation by trial counsel of:
(i) service data relating to the accused taken from the charge sheet;
(ii) personal data relating to the accused and of
the character of
the accused's prior
service as reflected in the personnel records of
the accused;
(iii) evidence of
prior convictions, military or civilian;
(iv) evidence of aggravation; and
(v) evidence of rehabilitative potential.
(B) Crime victim's right to be reasonably heard.
(C) Presentation by the defense of
evidence in extenuation or mitigation or both.
(D) Rebuttal.
(E) Argument by trial counsel on sentence.
(F) Argument by defense counsel on sentence.
(G) Rebuttal arguments in the discretion of
the military judge.
(2) Adjudging sentence. A sentence shall be adjudged in all cases without unreasonable delay.
(3) Advice and inquiry.
(A) Crime victim. At the beginning of
the presentencing proceeding, the military judge
shall announce that any crime victim who is present at the presentencing proceeding has the
tight to be reasonably heard, including the right to make a sworn statement, unsworn statement,
or both. Prior to the conclusion of the presentencing proceeding, the military judge shall ensure
that any such crime victim was afforded the opportunity to be reasonably heard.
(B) Accused. The military judge shall personally inform the accused of
the right to
present matters in extenuation and mitigation, including the right to make a sworn or unsworn
statement or to remain silent, and shall ask whether the accused chooses to exercise those
rights.
(b) Matters to be presented by the prosecution.
(1) Service data
from the charge sheet. Trial counsel shall inform the court-martial of
the
data on the charge sheet relating to the pay and service of
the accused and the duration and
nature of any pretrial restraint In the discretion of
the military judge, this may be done by
reading the material from the charge sheet or by giving the court-martial a written statement of
such matter. If
the defense objects to the data as being materially inaccurate or incomplete, or
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containing specified objectionable matter, the military judge shall determine the issue.
Objections not asserted are forfeited.
(2) Personal data and character of
prior service of
the accused. Under regulations of
the
Secretary concerned, trial counsel may obtain and introduce from the personnel records of
the
accused evidence of
the accused's marital status; number of
dependents, if
any; and character of
prior service. Such evidence includes copies of
reports reflecting the past military efficiency,
conduct, performance, and history of
the accused and evidence of any disciplinary actions
including punishments under Article 15. "Personnel records of
the accused" includes any
records made or maintained in accordance with departmental regulations that reflect the past
military efficiency, conduct, performance, and history of
the accused. If the accused objects to a
particular document as inaccurate or incomplete in a specified respect, or as containing matter
that is not admissible under the Military Rules of
Evidence, the matter shall be determined by the
military judge. Objections not asserted are forfeited.
(3) Evidence C?f prior convictions Q{ the accused.
(A) ln general. Trial counsel may introduce evidence of
prior military or civilian
convictions of
the accused. For purposes of
this rule, there is a "conviction" in a court-martial
case when a sentence has been adjudged. In a civilian case, a "conviction" includes any
disposition following an initial judicial determination or assumption of guilt, such as when
guilt has been established by guilty plea, trial, or plea of
nolo contendere, regardless of
the
subsequent disposition, sentencing procedure, or final judgment A "conviction" does not
include a diversion from the judicial process without a finding or admission of
guilt; expunged
convictions; juvenile adjudications; minor trafiic violations; foreign convictions; tribal court
convictions; or convictions reversed, vacated, invalidated, or pardoned.
(B) Pendency (?f appeal. The pendency of an appeal therefrom does not render evidence of
a conviction inadmissible except that a finding of
bTUilty by summary com1-martial may not be
used for purposes of
this rule until review has been completed pursuant to Article 64. Evidence
of
the pendency of
an appeal is admissible.
(C) Method qfproof Previous convictions may be proved by any evidence admissible
under the Military Rules of
Evidence.
(
4) i'.:vidence in aggravation. Trial counsel may present evidence as to any aggravating
circumstances directly relating to or resulting from the offenses of
which the accused has been
found guilty. Evidence in aggravation includes, but is not limited to, evidence of financial,
social, psychological, and medical impact on or cost to any person or entity who was the victim
of
an offense committed by the accused and evidence of significant adverse impact on the
mission, discipline, or efficiency of
the command directly and immediately resulting from the
accused's offense. In addition, evidence in aggravation may include evidence that the accused
intentionally selected any victim or any property as the object of
the otiense because of
the
actual or perceived race, color, religion, national origin, ethnicity, gender, disability, or sexual
orientation of any person. Except in capital cases a written or oral deposition taken in accordance
with R.C.M. 702 is admissible in aggravation.
(
5) Evidence of
rehabilitative potential. "Rehabilitative potential" refers to the accused's
potential to be restored, through vocational, correctional, or therapeutic training or other
corrective measures to a useful and constructive place in society.
(A) In general. Trial counsel may present, by testimony or oral deposition in
accordance with R.C.M. 702(g)(I), evidence in the form of opinions concerning the accused's
previous performance as a servicemember and potential for rehabilitation.
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(B) Foundation for opinion. The witness or deponent providing opinion evidence
regarding the accused's rehabilitative potential must possess sufficient information and
knowledge about the accused to offer a rationally-based opinion that is helpful to the
sentencing authority. Relevant information and knowledge include, but are not limited to,
infom1ation and knowledge about the accused's character, performance of
duty, moral fiber,
determination to be rehabilitated, and nature and severity of
the offense or offenses.
(C) Bases
for opinion. An opinion regarding the accused's rehabilitative potential must
be based upon relevant information and knowledge possessed by the witness or deponent, and
must relate to the accused's personal circumstances. The opinion of
the witness or deponent
regarding the severity or nature of
the accused's offense or offenses may not serve as the
principal basis for an opinion of the accused's rehabilitative potential.
(D) Scope ~f
opinion. An opinion offered under this rule is limited to whether the
accused has rehabilitative potential and to the magnitude or quality of any such potential. A
witness may not offer an opinion regarding the appropriateness of
a punitive discharge or
whether the accused should be returned to the accused's unit.
(E) Cross-examination. On cross-examination, inquiry is permitted into relevant and
specific instances of
conduct.
(F) Redirect. Notwithstanding any other provision in this rule, the scope of opinion
testimony permitted on redirect may be expanded, depending upon the nature and scope of
the
cross-ex
ami nation.
(c) Crime victim 's right to be reasonably heard
(1) In general. After presentation by trial counsel, a crime victim of an offense of
which the
accused has been found guilty has the right to be reasonably heard at the presentencing
proceeding relating to that offense. A crime victim who makes an unsworn statement under
subsection (c)(S) is not considered a witness for the purposes of
Article 42(b
). If
the crime
victim exercises the right to be reasonably heard, the crime victim shall be called by the court-
martial. The exercise of
the right is independent of
whether the crime victim testified during
findings or is called to testify by the government or defense under this rule.
(2) Definitions.
(A) Crime victim. For purposes of
this subsection, a crime victim is an individual who
has suffered direct physical, emotional, or pecuniary harm as a result of
the commission of
an
om~nse
ofwhich the accused was found guilty or the individual's lawful representative or
designee appointed by the military judge under these rules.
(B) Victim impact. For purposes of
this subsection, victim impact includes any financial,
social, psychological, or medical impact on the crime victim directly relating to or arising from
the offense of
which the accused has been found guilty.
(C) Mitigation. For the purposes of
this subsection, mitigation includes any matter that
may lessen the punishment to be adjudged by the court-martial or furnish grounds for a
recommendation of clemency.
(D) Right to be reasonably heard.
(i) Capital cases. In capital cases, for purposes of
this subsection, the "right to be
reasonably heard" means the right to make a sworn statement.
(ii) Non-capital cases. In non-capital cases, for purposes of
this subsection, the "right
to be reasonably heard" means the right to make a sworn statement, an unsworn statement, or
both.
(3) Contents ~f
statement. The content of statements made under paragraphs (4) and (5) may
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only include victim impact and matters in mitigation. The statement may not include a
recommendation of a specific sentence.
(4) Sworn statement. The crime victim may make a sworn statement and shall be subject to
cross-examination concerning it by trial counsel and defense counsel or examination on it by
the court-martial.
(5) Unsworn statement.
(A) In general. The crime victim may make an unsworn statement and may not be cross-
examined by trial counsel or defense counsel, or examined upon it by the court-martial. The
prosecution or defense may, however, rebut any statements of fact therein. The unsworn
statement may be oral, written, or both.
(B) Procedure. After the announcement of
findings, a crime victim who elects to present
an unsworn statement shall provide a written proffer of
the matters that will be addressed in the
statement to trial counsel and defense counsel. The military judge may waive this requirement
for good cause shown. Upon good cause shown, the military judge may permit the crime
victim's counsel, if
any, to deliver all or part ofthe crime victim's unsworn statement.
(C) New.faclual maLters in unsworn statemenl. If
during the presentencing proceeding a
crime victim makes an unsworn statement containing factual matters not previously disclosed
under subparagraph (5)(B), the military judge shall take appropriate action within the military
judge's discretion.
(d) Jvfatler to be presented by the defense.
( 1) In general. The defense may present matters in rebuttal of
any material presented by the
prosecution and the crime victim, if
any, and may present matters in extenuation and mitigation
regardless whether the defense offered evidence before findings.
(A) Matter in extenuation. Matter in extenuation of
an offense serves to explain the
circumstances surrounding the commission of
an ofiense, including those reasons for committing
the ofiense which do not constitute a legal justification or excuse.
(B) Matter in mitigation. Matter in mitigation of
an otiense is introduced to lessen the
punishment to be adjudged by the court-martial, or to furnish grounds for a recommendation
of
clemency. It includes the fact that nonjudicial punishment under Article 15 has been
imposed for an ofTense growing out of
the same act or omission that constitutes the offense of
which the accused has been found guilty, particular acts of good conduct or bravery and
evidence of
the reputation or record of
the accused in the service for efficiency, fidelity,
subordination, temperance, courage, or any other trait that is desirable in a servicemember.
(2) Statement by the accused.
(A) In general. The accused may testify, make an unsworn statement, or both in
extenuation, in mitigation, to rebut matters presented by the prosecution, or to rebut
statements of
fact contained in any crime victim's sworn or unsworn statement, whether or not
the accused testified prior to findings. The accused may limit such testimony or statement to
any one or more of
the specifications of
which the accused has been found guilty. The accused
may make a request for a specific sentence. This subsection does not permit the filing of
an
affidavit of
the accused.
(B) Testinwny f!.fthe accused. The accused may give sworn oral testimony and shall be
subject to cross-examination concerning it by trial counsel or examination on it by the court-
martial, or both.
(C) Unsl-vorn statement. The accused may make an unsworn statement and may not be
cross-examined by trial counsel upon it or examined upon it by the court-martial. The
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prosecution may, however, rebut any statements of
facts therein. The unsworn statement may
be oral, written, or both, and may be made by the accused, by counsel, or both.
(3) Rules of
evidence relaxed The military judge may, with respect to matters in
extenuation or mitigation or both, relax the rules of
evidence. This may include admitting
letters, affidavits, certificates of
military and civil officers, and other writings of similar
authenticity and reliability.
(e) Rebuttal and surrebuttal. The prosecution may rebut matters presented by the defense. The
defense in surrebuttal may then rebut any rebuttal offered by the prosecution. Rebuttal and
surrebuttal may continue, in the discretion of
the military judge. If the Military Rules of
Evidence were relaxed under paragraph (d)(3) of
this rule, they may be relaxed during rebuttal
and surrebuttal to the same degree.
(f) Production qf
witnesses.
(1) !n general. During the presentencing proceedings, there shall be much greater latitude
than on the merits to receive infom1ation by means other than testimony presented through the
personal appearance of
witnesses. Whether a witness shall be produced to testify during
presentencing proceedings is a matter within the discretion of
the military judge, subject to the
limitations in paragraph (2).
(2) Umitations. A witness may be produced to testify during presentencing proceedings
through a subpoena or travel orders at Government expense only if-
(
A) the testimony of
the witness is necessary for consideration of a matter of substantial
significance to a determination of an appropriate sentence;
(B) the weight or credibility of
the testimony is of
substantial significance to the
determination of
an appropriate sentence;
(C) the other party refuses to enter into a stipulation of
fact containing the matters to which
the witness is expected to testify, except in an extraordinary case when such a stipulation of
fact
would be an insufficient substitute for the testimony;
(D) other forms of
evidence, such as oral depositions, written interrogatories, former
testimony, or testimony by remote means would not be sufficient to meet the needs of
the court-
martial in the detennination of
an appropriate sentence; and
(E) the significance of
the personal appearance of
the witness to the determination of an
appropriate sentence, when balanced against the practical difficulties of
producing the witness,
favors production ofthe witness. Factors to be considered include the costs of producing the
witness, the timing of the request for production of
the witness, the potential delay in the
presentencing proceeding that may be caused by the production of
the witness, and the likelihood
of
significant interference with military operational deployment, mission accomplishment, or
essential training.
(g) Additional matters to be considered In addition to matters introduced under this rule, the
court-martial may consider-
( 1) That a plea of
guilty is a mitigating factor; and
(2) Any evidence properly introduced on the merits before findings, including:
(A) Evidence of
other offenses or acts of misconduct even if
introduced for a limited
purpose; and
(B) Evidence relating to any mental impairment or deficiency of the accused.
(h) Argument. After introduction of
matters relating to sentence under this rule, counsel for the
prosecution and defense may argue for an appropriate sentence. Trial counsel may not in
argument purport to speak for the convening authority or any higher authority, or refer to the
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views of such authorities or any policy directive relative to punishment or to any punishment
or quantum of
punishment greater than the court-martial may adjudge. Trial counsel may,
however, recommend a specific lawful sentence and may also refer to the sentencing
considerations set forih in RC.M. 1002(£). Failure to object to improper argument before the
military judge begins deliberations, or before the military judge instructs the members on
sentencing, shall constitute forfeiture of
the objection.
Rule 1002. Sentencing determination
(a) Generally. Subject to limitations in this Manual, the sentence to be adjudged is a matter
within the discretion of
the court-mariial. A court-martial may adjudge any punishment
authorized in this Manual in order to achieve the purposes of sentencing under subsection (f),
including the maximum punishment or any lesser punishment, or may adjudge a sentence of
no punishment except-
(1) When a mandatmy minimum sentence is prescribed by the code, the sentence for an
offense shall include any punishment that is made mandatory by law for that offense. The
sentence for an offense may not be greater than the maximum sentence established by law or by
the President for that offense; and
(2) If
the military judge accepts a plea agreement with a sentence limitation, the court-
martial shall sentence the accused in accordance with the limits established by the plea
agreement.
(b) Sentencing
forum election. In a general or special court-martial consisting of
a military
judge and members, upon the announcement of tlndings and before any matter is presented in
the presentencing phase, the military judge shall inquire--
(1) In noncapital cases, whether the accused elects sentencing by members in lieu of
sentencing by military judge for all charges and specifications for which the accused was found
guilty; and
(2) In capital cases, whether the accused elects sentencing by members in lieu of
sentencing
by military judge for all charges and specifications for which the accused was found !,ruilty and
for which a sentence of death may not be adjudged.
(c) Form of
election. The accused's election under subsection (b), shall be in writing and signed
by the accused or shall be made orally on the record. The military judge shall ascertain whether
the accused has consulted with defense counsel and has been infonned of
the right to make a
sentencing forum election under subsection (b).
(d) Noncapital cases.
(1) Sentencing by members. In a general or special court-martial in which the accused has
elected sentencing by members in lieu of sentencing by military judge under paragraph (b)( 1
),
the members shall determine a single sentence for all of
the charges and specitlcations of
which
the accused was found guilty. The military judge announces the sentence determined by the
members in accordance with RC.M. 1007.
(2) Sentencing by militmy
judge. Unless a timely election for sentencing by members is
made by the accused under subsection (b), the military judge shall detennine the sentence of a
general or special court-martial in accordance with this paragraph.
(A) Segmented sentencing
for confinement and
fines. The military judge at a general or
special court-martial shall determine an appropriate term of confinement and fine, if applicable,
for each specitlcation for which the accused was found guilty. Subject to subsection (a), such a
determination may include a term of no confinement or no fine when appropriate for the
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offense.
(B) Concurrent or consecutive terms ofcol!finement. If
a sentence includes more than
one term of
confinement, the military judge shall determine whether the terms of confinement
will run concurrently or consecutively. For each term of
confinement, the military judge shall
state whether the term of confinement is to run concurrently or consecutively with any other
term or terms of confinement. The terms of confinement for two or more specifications shall
mn concurrently-
(i) when each specification involves the same victim and the same act or transaction;
(ii) when provided for in a plea agreement;
(iii) when the accused is found guilty of
two or more specifications and the military
judge finds that the charges or specifications are unreasonably multiplied; or
(iv) when othenvise appropriate under subsection (f); or
(v) in a special court-martial, to the extent necessary to reduce the total confinement
to the maximum confinement authorized underR.C.M. 20l(f)(2).
(C) Unitary sentencingfor other forms (?fpunishment. All punishments other than
confinement or fine available under RC.M. 1003, if any, shall be determined as a single,
unitary component of
the sentence, covering all of
the guilty findings in their entirety. The
military judge shall not segment those punishments among the guilty findings.
(e) Capital cases. The following applies to cases referred as capital in accordance with R.C.M.
1
004(b)(1)(A) that include a finding of
guilty for a charge and specification for which death may
be adjudged.
(1) Sentencing by members.
(A) Where all of
the findings of
guilty are for charges and specifications for which death
may be adjudged, the members shall determine whether the sentence for each such specification
shall be death or a lesser punishment. The members shall then determine a single sentence for all
charges and specifications for which the accused was found guilty. The military judge shall
announce the sentence detennined by the members in accordance with R.C.M. 1007.
(B) Where there is a finding of
t,ruilty for a specification for which death may be adjudged
and a finding of guilty for a specification for which death may not be adjudged, and the accused
elects sentencing by members under paragraph (b
)(2) for those specifications for which a
sentence of death may not be adjudged:
(i) The members shall detennine whether the sentence for each specification for which
death may be adjudged shall be death or a lesser punishment;
(ii) The members shall detennine a single, unitary sentence for all the charges and
specifications for which the accused was found guilty; and
(iii) The military judge shall announce the sentence detennined by the members in
accordance with R.C.M. 1007.
(2) Sentencing by members and military
judge. Unless a timely election for sentencing by
members is made by the accused under paragraph (b
)(2), where there is a finding of
guilty for a
specification for which death may be adjudged and a finding of
guilty for a specification for
which death may not be adjudged:
(A) The members shall determine whether the sentence for each specification for which
death may be adjudged shall be death or a lesser punishment;
(B) The members shall determine a single, unitary sentence for the specifications for
which death may be adjudged;
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(C) The military judge shall determine the sentence for all charges and specifications for
which death may not be adjudged in accordance with paragraph (
d)(2); and
(D) If
the sentence determined in subparagraphs (B) and (C) include more than one term of
confinement, the military judge shall determine, in accordance with paragraph (d)(2), whether
the terms of
confinement, including any term of confinement determined by members, will run
concurrently or consecutively.
(E) The military judge shall ensure that the sentence, at a minimum, includes any
autl10rized punishment determined by the members. The military judge, taking into account the
noncapital offenses addressed in sentencing by the military judge, must include, at a minimum,
the discharge determined by the members and may include a more severe form of
discharge in
the sentence.
(F) The military judge shall announce the sentence in accordance with R.C.M. 1007.
(f) Imposition t?fsenfence. In sentencing an accused under this rule, the court-martial shall
impose punishment that is sufficient, but not greater than necessary, to promote justice and to
maintain good order and discipline in the anned forces, taking into consideration-
(1) the nature and circumstances of
the offense and the history and characteristics ofthe
accused;
(2) the impact of
the offense on-
(A) the financial, social, psychological, or medical well-being of any victim of
the
offense; and
(B) the mission, discipline, or efficiency of
the command of
the accused and any victim
of
the offense;
(3) the need for the sentence to--
(A) reflect the seriousness of
the offense;
(B) promote respect for the law;
(C) provide just punishment for the ofiense;
(D) promote adequate deterrence of
misconduct;
(E) protect others from further crimes by the accused;
(F) rehabilitate the accused; and
(G) provide, in appropriate cases, the opportunity for retraining and returning to duty to
meet the needs of
the service; and
(4) the sentences available under these rules.
(g) lriformation that may be considered. The court-martial, in applying the factors listed in
subsection (f) to the facts of a particular case, may consider-
( I) Any evidence admitted by the military judge during the presentencing proceeding
under R. C
.M. 1
00 1; and
(2) Any evidence admitted by the military judge during the findings proceeding.
Rule 1003. Punishments
(a) In general. Subject to the limitations in this Manual, the punishments authorized in this rule
may be adjudged in the case of any person found guilty of
one or more charges and
specifications by a court-martial.
(b) Authorized
punishments. Subject to the limitations in this Manual, a court-martial may
adjudge only the following punishments:
(1) Reprimand. A court-martial shall not specify the terms or wording of a reprimand. A
reprimand, if
approved, shall be issued, in writing, by the convening authority.
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(2) Forfeiture ofpay and allowances. Unless a total forfeiture is adjudged, a sentence to
forfeiture shall state the exact amount in whole dollars to be forfeited each month and the
number of
months the forfeitures will last.
Allowances shall be subject to forfeiture only when the sentence includes forfeiture of all pay
and allowances. The maximum authorized amount of
a partial forfeiture shall be determined by
using the basic pay, retired pay, or retainer pay, as applicable, or, in the case of
reserve
component personnel on inactive-duty, compensation for periods of inactive-duty training,
authorized by the cumulative years of service of
the accused, and, if no confinement is adjudged,
any sea or hardship duty pay. If
the sentence also includes reduction in grade, expressly or by
operation oflaw, the maximum forfeiture shall be based on the grade to which the accused is
reduced. In the case of an accused who is not confined, forfeitures of
pay may not exceed two-
thirds of
pay per month.
(3) Fine. Any court-martial may adjudge a fine in lieu of or in addition to forfeitures. In the
case of a member of
the armed forces, summary and special courts-martial may not adjudge
any fine or combination of
fine and forfeitures in excess of
the total amount of
forfeitures that
may be adjudged in that case. In the case of
a person serving with or accompanying an armed
force in the field, a summary court-martial may not adjudge a fine in excess of
two-thirds of
one month of
the highest rate of
enlisted pay, and a special court-martial may not adjudge a fine
in excess of
two-thirds of one year of
the highest rate of
officer pay. To enforce collection, a
fine may be accompanied by a provision in the sentence that, in the event the fine is not paid,
the person fined shall, in addition to any period of confinement adjudged, be further confined
until a fixed period considered an equivalent punishment to the fine has expired. The total
period of confinement so adjudged shall not exceed the jurisdictional limitations of
the court-
martiaL
(4) Reduction in pay grade. Except as provided in R.C.M. 130l(d), a court-martial may
sentence an enlisted member to be reduced to the lowest or any intermediate pay grade;
(5) Restriction to specified limits. Restriction may be adjudged for no more than 2 months for
each month of
authorized confinement and in no case for more than 2 months. Confinement and
restriction may be adjudged in the same case, but they may not together exceed the maximum
authorized period of
confinement, calculating the equivalency at the rate specified in this
subsection;
(6) Hard labor 1-11ithout corifinement. Hard labor without confinement may be adjudged for no
more than 1-112 months for each month of authorized confinement and in no case for more than
three months. Hard labor without confinement may be adjudged only in the cases of
enlisted
members. The court-martial shall not specify the hard labor to be performed. Confinement and
hard labor without confinement may be adjudged in the same case, but they may not together
exceed the maximum authorized period of confinement, calculating the equivalency at the rate
specified in this subsection.
(7) Confinement. The place of confinement shall not be designated by the court-martial. When
confinement for life is authorized, it may be with or without eligibility for parole. A court-
martial shall not adjudge a sentence to solitary confinement or to confinement without hard
labor;
(8) Punitive separation. A court-martial may not adjudge an administrative separation from
the service. There are three types of
punitive separation.
(A) Dismissal. Dismissal applies only to commissioned officers, commissioned warrant
officers, cadets, and midshipmen and may be adjudged only by a general court-martial.
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Regardless of
the maximum punishment specified for an offense in Part IV of
this Manual, a
dismissal may be adjudged for any offense of
which a commissioned officer, commissioned
warrant officer, cadet, or midshipman has been found guilty;
(B) Dishonorable discharge. A dishonorable discharge applies only to enlisted persons and
warrant officers who are not commissioned and may be adjudged only by a general court-
mmiial. Regardless of
the maximum punishment specified for an offense in Pa1i IV of
this
Manual, a dishonorable discharge may be adjudged for any offense of
which a warrant officer
who is not commissioned has been found guilty. A dishonorable discharge should be reserved for
those who should be separated under conditions of
dishonor, after having been convicted of
offenses usually recognized in civilian jurisdictions as felonies, or of offenses of a military
nature requiring severe punishment; and
(C) Bad-conduct discharge. A bad-conduct discharge applies only to enlisted persons and
may be adjudged by a general court-martial and by a special court-martial which has met the
requirements ofR.C.M. 20l(f)(2)(B). A bad-conduct discharge is less severe than a dishonorable
discharge and is designed as a punishment for bad-conduct rather than as a punishment for
serious offenses of
either a civilian or military nature. It is also appropriate for an accused who
has been convicted repeatedly of
minor offenses and whose punitive separation appears to be
necessary;
(9) Death. Death may be adjudged only in accordance with R.C.M. 1004; and
(1 0) Punishments under the law l?( war. In cases tried under the law of war, a general court-
martial may adjudge any punishment not prohibited by the law of
war.
(c) Limits on punishments.
(1) Based on offenses.
(A) Offenses listed in Part IV
(i) Maximum punishment. The maximum limits for the authorized punishments of
confinement, forfeitures and punitive discharge (if any) are set forth for each ofTense listed in
Part IV of
this Manual. These limitations are for each separate offense, not for each charge.
When a dishonorable discharge is authorized, a bad-conduct discharge is also authorized.
(ii) Other punishments. Except as otherwise specifically provided in this Manual, the
types of
punishments listed in paragraphs (b)(l), (3), (4), (5), (6) and (7) of this mle may be
adjudged in addition to or instead of confinement, forfeitures, a punitive discharge (if
authorized), and death (if authorized).
(B) Ofjimses not listed in Part IV.
(i) Included or related ofjimses. For an offense not listed in Part IV of
this Manual
which is included in or closely related to an offense listed therein the maximum punishment shall
be that of
the offense listed; however if
an offense not listed is included in a listed offense, and is
closely related to another or is equally closely related to n;vo or more listed offenses, the
maximum punishment shall be the same as the least severe of
the listed offenses.
(ii) Not included or related offenses. An offense not listed in Part IV and not included
in or closely related to any offense listed therein is punishable as authorized by the United States
Code, or as authorized by the custom of the service. When the United States Code provides for
confinement for a specified period or not more than a specified period the maximum punishment
by court-martial shall include confinement for that period. If
the period is 1 year or longer, the
maximum punishment by court-martial also includes a dishonorable discharge and forfeiture of
all pay and allowances; if 6 months or more, a bad-conduct discharge and forfeiture of all pay
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and allowances; if
less than 6 months, forfeiture of
two-thirds pay per month for the authorized
period of
confinement.
(C)Jvfultiple Offenses. When the accused is found guilty of
two or more specifications, the
maximum authorized punishment may be imposed for each separate specification, unless the
military judge finds that the specifications are unreasonably multiplied.
(2) Based on rank of
accused.
(A) Commissioned or warrant officers, cadets, and
mid5hipmen.
(i) A commissioned or wan-ant officer or a cadet, or midshipman may not be reduced in
grade by any court-martial. However, in time of
war or national emergency the Secretary
concerned, or such Under Secretary or Assistant Secretary as may be designated by the Secretary
concerned, may commute a sentence of
dismissal to reduction to any enlisted grade.
(ii) Only a general court-martial may sentence a commissioned or warrant officer or a
cadet, or midshipman to confinement.
(iii) A commissioned or warrant officer or a cadet or midshipman may not be sentenced
to hard labor without confinement.
(iv) Only a general court-martial, upon conviction of
any offense in violation of
the
UCMJ, may sentence a commissioned or warrant officer or a cadet or midshipman to be
separated from the service '"'ith a punitive separation. In the case of commissioned officers,
cadets, midshipmen, and commissioned warrant officers, the separation shall be by dismissal. In
the case of all other warrant officers, the separation shall by dishonorable discharge.
(B) Enlisted
persons. See paragraph (b )(9) of
this rule and R. C.M. 1301 (d).
(3) Based on reserve status in certain circumstances.
(A) Restriction on liberty. A member of
a reserve component whose order to active duty is
approved pursuant to Article 2(d)(5) may be required to serve any adjudged restriction on liberty
during that period of
active duty. Other members of
a reserve component ordered to active duty
pursuant to Article 2(d)(l) or tried by summary court-martial while on inactive duty training may
not-
(i) be sentenced to confinement; or
(ii) be required to serve a court-martial punishment consisting of
any other restriction
on liberty except during subsequent periods of
inactive-duty training or active duty.
(B) For.feiture. A sentence to forfeiture of
pay of
a member not retained on active duty
after completion of
disciplinary proceedings may be collected from active duty and inactive-
duty training pay during subsequent periods of duty.
(
4) Based on status as a person serving with or accompanying an armed
.force in the field
In the case of a person serving with or accompanying an armed force in the field, no court-
martial may adjudge forfeiture of
pay and allowances, reduction in pay grade, hard labor
without confinement, or a punitive separation.
(5) Based on other rules. The maximum limits on punishments in this rule may be further
limited by other Rules for Courts-Martial.
(d) Circumstances permitting increased
punishments.
(1) Three or more convictions. If
an accused is found guilty of
a specification or
specifications for none of
which a dishonorable discharge is otherw-ise authorized, proof of
three or more previous convictions adjudged by a court-martial during the year next
preceding the commission of any offense of
which the accused stands convicted shall
authorize a dishonorable discharge and forfeiture of all pay and allowances and, if
the
confinement otherwise authorized is less than 1 year, confinement for 1 year. In computing
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the 1-year period preceding the commission of
any offense, periods of
unauthorized absence
shall be excluded. For purposes of
this subsection, the court-martial convictions must be
final.
(2) Two or more convictions. If
an accused is found guilty of
a specification or
specifications for none of
which a dishonorable or bad-conduct discharge is otherwise
authorized, proof of
two or more previous convictions adjudged by a court-martial during the
3 years next preceding the commission of any offense of
which the accused stands convicted
shall authorize a bad-conduct discharge and forfeiture of
all pay and allowances and, if
the
confinement otherwise authorized is less than 3 months, confinement for 3 months. In
computing the 3 year period preceding the commission of any offense, periods of
unauthorized absence shall be excluded. For purposes of this subsection the court-martial
convictions must be final.
(3) Two or more spec{fications. Tfan accused is found guilty oftwo or more specifications
for none of
which a dishonorable or bad-conduct discharge is otherwise authorized, the fact
that the authorized confinement for these offenses totals 6 months or more shall, in addition,
authorize a bad-conduct discharge and forfeiture of
all pay and allowances.
Rule 1004. Capital cases
(a) In general. Death may be adjudged only when-
(
I) Death is expressly authorized under Part IV of
this Manual for an offense of
which the
accused has been found guilty or is authorized under the law of
war for an offense of
which the
accused has been found guilty under the law of
war; and
(2) The accused was convicted of
such an offense by either-
(
A) the unanimous vote of all twelve members of
the court-martial; or
(B) the military judge pursuant to the accused's plea of
guilty to such an offense; and
(3) The requirements of subsections (b) and (c) of
this rule have been met.
(b) Procedure. In addition to the provisions in R.C.M. 1001, the following procedures shall
apply in capital cases-
(1) Notice.
(A) Referral. The convening authority shall indicate that the case is to be tried as a capital
case by including a special instruction on the charge sheet. Failure to include this special
instruction at the time of
the referral shall not bar the convening authority from later adding the
required special instruction, provided that-
(i) the convening authority has otherwise complied with the notice requirement of
subparagraph (B); and
(ii) if
the accused demonstrates specific prejudice from such failure to include the
special instruction, the military judge determines that a continuance or a recess is an adequate
remedy.
(B)Arraignment. Before arraignment, trial counsel shall give the defense written notice of
which aggravating factors under subsection (c) of
this rule the prosecution intends to prove.
Failure to provide timely notice under this subsection of
any aggravating factors under
subsection (c) of
this mle shall not bar later notice and proof of
such additional aggravating
factors unless the accused demonstrates specific prejudice from such failure and that a
continuance or a recess is not an adequate remedy.
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(2) Evidence ofaggravatingjCictors. Trial counsel may present evidence in accordance with
R.C.M. 100l(b
)(4) tending to establish one or more of
the aggravating factors in subsection (c)
of
this rule.
(3) Evidence in extenuation and mitigation. The accused shall be given broad latitude to
present evidence in extenuation and mitigation.
(4) Necess(l!y.findings. Death may not be adjudged unless-
(A) The members unanimously find that at least one of the aggravating factors under
subsection (c) existed beyond a reasonable doubt;
(B) Notice of such factor was provided in accordance with paragraph (1) of
this subsection
and all members concur in the finding with respect to such factor; and
(C) All members concur that any extenuating or mitigating circumstances are substantially
outweighed by any aggravating circumstances admissible under R.C.M. 100l(b)(4), including
the factors under subsection (c) ofthis rule.
(5) Basisfor.findings. The findings in paragraph (b)(4) of
this rule may be based on evidence
introduced before or after findings under R.C.M. 921, or both.
(6) Jnstrucfions. In addition to the instructions required under RC.M. 1005, the military judge
shall instruct the members of such aggravating factors under subsection (c) of
this rule as may be
in issue in the case, the charge(s) and specification(s) for which the members shall determine a
sentence, and on the requirements and procedures under paragraphs (b)(
4), (5), (7), and (8) of
this rule. The military judge shall instruct the members that they must consider all evidence in
extenuation and mitigation before a sentence of
death may be determined by the members.
(7) Voting. ln closed session, before voting on a sentence, the members shall vote by secret
written ballot separately on each aggravating factor under subsection (c) of
this rule on which
they have been instructed. A sentence of
death may not be considered unless the members
unanimously concur in a finding ofthe existence of at least one such aggravating factor and
unanimously find that the extenuating and mitigating circumstances are substantially outweighed
by any aggravating circumstances, including any relevant aggravating factor(s) under subsection
(c). After voting on the necessary findings, the members shall vote on a sentence in accordance
with RC.M. 1006.
(8)Announcement. If
the members voted unanimously for death, the military judge shall, in
addition to complying with R.C.M. 1006(e) and 1007, announce which aggravating factors under
subsection (c) the members unanimously found to exist beyond a reasonable doubt.
(c) Aggravating
.fCictors. Death may be adjudged only if
the members find, beyond a reasonable
doubt, one or more of
the following aggravating factors:
(1) That the offense was committed before or in the presence of
the enemy, except that this
factor shall not apply in the case of
a violation of
Article 118;
(2) That in committing the offense the accused-
(
A) Knowingly created a grave risk of
substantial damage to the national security of
the
United States; or
(B) Knowingly created a grave risk of substantial damage to a mission, system, or function
of
the United States, provided that this subparagraph shall apply only if substantial damage to the
national security of
the United States would have resulted had the intended damage been
effected;
(3) That the offense caused substantial damage to the national security of the United States,
whether or not the accused intended such damage, except that this factor shall not apply in case
of
a violation of
Article 118;
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(4) That the offense was committed in such a way or under circumstances that the life of
one
or more persons other than the victim was unlawfully and substantially endangered, except that
this factor shall not apply to a violation of
Articles 1
03a or 1
03b;
(5) That the accused committed the offense with the intent to avoid hazardous duty;
(6) That, only in the case of
a violation of
Article 118, the offense was committed in time of
war and in territory in which the United States or an ally of
the United States was then an
occupying power or in which the armed forces of the United States were then engaged in active
hostilities;
(7) That, only in the case of
a violation of
Article 118(1
):
(A) The accused was serving a sentence of confinement for 30 years or more or for life at
the time of
the murder;
(B) The murder was committed: while the accused was engaged in the commission or
attempted commission of
a separate murder, or any robbery, rape, rape of
a child, sexual assault,
sexual assault of
a child, aggravated sexual contact, sexual abuse of
a child, aggravated arson,
burglary, kidnapping, mutiny, sedition, or piracy of
an aircraft or vessel; or while the accused
was engaged in the commission or attempted commission of
any offense involving the wrongful
distribution, manufacture, or introduction or possession, with intent to distribute, of
a controlled
substance; or, while the accused was engaged in flight or attempted flight after the commission
or attempted commission of
any such offense.
(C) The murder was committed for the purpose of receiving money or a thing of
value;
(D) The accused procured another by means of
compulsion, coercion, or a promise of
an
advantage, a service, or a thing of
value to commit the murder;
(E) The murder was committed with the intent to avoid or to prevent lawful apprehension
or effect an escape from custody or confinement;
(F) The victim was the President of
the United States, the President-elect, the Vice
President, or, if
there was no Vice President, the officer in the order of succession to the otiice of
President of
the United States, the Vice-President-elect, or any individual who is acting as
President under the Constitution and laws of
the United States, any Member of
Congress
(including a Delegate to, or Resident Commissioner in, the Congress) or Member-of-Congress
elect, justice or judge of
the United States, a chief of state or head of
government (or the political
equivalent) of a foreign nation, or a foreign official (as such tennis defined in section
1116(b
)(3)(A) of
title 18, United States Code), if
the o±Iicial was on otlicial business at the time
of
the offense and was in the United States or in a place described in MiL R Evid.315(c)(2),
315(c)(3);
(G) The accused then knew that the victim was any of
the following persons in the
execution of
office: a commissioned, warrant, noncommissioned, or petty officer of
the anned
services of
the United States; a member of
any law enforcement or security activity or agency,
military or civilian, including correctional custody personnel; or any firefighter;
(H) The murder was committed with intent to obstmct justice;
(I) The murder was preceded by the intentional infliction of substantial physical harm or
prolonged, substantial mental or physical pain and suffering to the victim. For purposes of this
section, "substantial physical harm" means fractures or dislocated bones, deep cuts, torn
members of
the body, serious damage to internal organs, or other serious bodily injuries. The
term "substantial physical harm" does not mean minor injuries, such as a black eye or bloody
nose. The term "substantial mental or physical pain or suffering" is accorded its common
meaning and includes torture.
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(J) The accused has been found guilty in the same case of another violation of
Article 118;
(K) The victim of
the murder was under 15 years of age.
(8) That only in the case of
a violation of
Article 118(a)(4), the accused was the actual
perpetrator of
the killing or was a principal whose participation in the burglary, rape, rape of a
child, sexual assault, sexual assault of a child, aggravated sexual contact, sexual abuse of
a child,
robbery, or aggravated arson was major and who manifested a reckless indifference for human
life.
(9) [Reserved]
(1 0) That, only in the case of a violation of
the law of
war, death is authorized under the law
of
war for the offense;
(11) That, only in the case of a violation of
Article 103, 103a, or 103b:
(A) The accused has been convicted of
another offense involving espionage, spying, or
treason for which either a sentence of death or imprisonment for life was authorized by statute;
or
(B) That in committing the offense, the accused knowingly created a grave risk of
death to
a person other than the individual who was the victim.
For purposes of
this rule, "national security" means the national defense and foreign relations
of
the United States and specifically includes: a military or defense advantage over any foreign
nation or group of
nations; a favorable foreign relations position; or a defense posture capable of
successfully resisting hostile or destructive action from within or without.
(d) Other penalties. When death is an authorized punishment for an offense, all other
punishments authorized under R.C.M. 1003 are also authorized for that offense, including
confinement for life, with or without eligibility for parole, and may be adjudged in lieu of
the
death penalty, subject to limitations specitlcally prescribed in this Manual. A sentence of
death
includes a dishonorable discharge or dismissal as appropriate. Confinement is a necessary
incident of a sentence of
death, but not a part of it.
Rule 1005. Instructions on sentence
(a) in general. The military judge shall give the members appropriate instructions on sentence.
(b) When given. Instructions on sentence shall be given after arguments by counsel and before
the members close to deliberate on sentence, but the military judge may, upon request of
the
members, any party, or sua sponte, give additional instructions at a later time.
(c) Requests
jar instructions. During pre
sentencing proceedings or at such other time as the
military judge may pennit, any party may request that the military judge instruct the members on
the law as set forth in the request The military judge may require the requested instruction to be
written. Each party shall be given the opportunity to be heard on any proposed instruction on
sentence before it is given. The military judge shall inform the parties of
the proposed action on
such requests before their closing arguments on sentence.
(d) How given. Instructions on sentence shall be given orally on the record in the presence of all
parties and the members. Written copies of
the instructions, or unless a party objects, portions of
them, may also be given to the members for their use during deliberations.
(e) Required instructions. Instructions on sentence shall include-
(I) A statement of the maximum authorized punishment that may be adjudged and of
the
mandatory minimum punishment, if
any;
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(2) A statement of
the effect any sentence announced including a punitive discharge and
confinement, or confinement in excess of six months, will have on the accused's entitlement to
pay and allowances;
(3) A statement of
the procedures for deliberation and voting on the sentence set out in
R.C.M. 1006;
(4) A statement informing the members that they are solely responsible for selecting an
appropriate sentence and may not rely on the possibility of any mitigating action by the
convening or higher authority;
(5) A statement that the members should consider all matters in extenuation, mitigation, and
aggravation, whether introduced before or after findings, and matters introduced under R.C.M.
lOOl(b)(l), (2), (3) and (5);
(6) A statement that the members shall consider the sentencing guidance set forth in R.C.M.
1
002(f); and
(7) Such other explanations, descriptions, or directions that the military judge detennines to
be necessary, whether properly requested by a party or determined by the military judge sua
sponte.
(f) Failure to o~ject. Failure to object to an instruction or to omission of an instruction before the
members close to deliberate on the sentence shall constitute forfeiture of
the objection. The
military judge may require the party objecting to specify in what respect the instructions were
improper. The parties shall be given the opportunity to be heard on any objection outside the
presence ofthe members.
Rule 1006. Deliberations and voting on sentence
(a) In general. With respect to charge(s) and specit1cation(s) for which a sentence of death may
be determined and in all other cases in which the accused elects sentencing by members under
R. C .M. 1
002(b
), the members shall deliberate and vote after the military judge instructs the
members on sentence. Only the members shall be present during deliberations and voting.
Superiority in rank shall not be used in any manner to control the independence of
members in
the exercise of
their judgment.
(b) Deliberations. Deliberations require a full and free discussion of
the sentence to be imposed
in the case. Unless otherwise directed by the military judge, members may take with them in
deliberations their notes, if
any, any exhibits admitted in evidence, and any written instmctions.
Members may request that the comi-martial be reopened and that portions of
the record be read
to them or additional evidence introduced. The military judge may, in the exercise of
discretion,
grant such requests.
(c) Proposal of
sentences. Any member may propose a sentence. Each proposal shall be in
writing and shall contain the complete sentence proposed. The junior member shall collect the
proposed sentences and submit them to the president.
(d) Voting.
(1) Duty of
members. Each member has the duty to vote for a proper sentence for the offenses
of
which the court-matiial found the accused guilty, regardless of the member's vote or opinion
as to the guilt of
the accused.
(2) Secret ballot. Proposed sentences shall be voted on by secret written ballot.
(3) Procedure.
(A) Order. All members shall vote on each proposed sentence in its entirety beginning
with the least severe and continuing, as necessary, with the next least severe, until a sentence is
adopted by the concurrence of
the number of
members required under paragraph (d)(4) of
this
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rule. The process of proposing sentences and voting on them may be repeated as necessary until
a sentence is adopted.
(B) Counting votes. The junior member shall collect the ballots and count the votes. The
president shall check the count and inform the other members of
the result.
(4) Number of
votes required
(A) Death. A sentence may include death only if
the members unanimously vote for the
sentence to include death.
(B) Other. Any sentence other than death may be determined only if at least three-fourths
of
the members vote for that sentence.
(5) Mandatmy sentence. When a mandatory minimum is prescribed for an offense under the
UCMJ, the members shall vote on a sentence in accordance with this rule.
(6) Plea agreements. When the military judge accepts a plea agreement with a sentence
limitation, the members shall vote on a sentence in accordance with the sentence limitation.
(7) E;[fect qffailure to agree. If the required number of
members do not agree on a sentence
after a reasonable effort to do so, a mistrial may be declared as to the sentence and the case shall
be returned to the convening authority, who may order a rehearing on sentence only or order that
a sentence of no punishment be imposed.
(e) Action qfier a sentence is reached. After the members have agreed upon a sentence by the
required number of
votes in accordance with this rule, the court-martial shall be opened and the
president sha11 inform the military judge that the members have determined a sentence. The
military judge may, in the presence of
the parties, examine any writing used by the president to
state the determination and may assist the members in putting the sentence in proper form. If
the
members voted unanimously for a sentence of death, the writing shall indicate which aggravating
factors under R. C.M. 1
004(
c) the members unanimously found to exist beyond a reasonable
doubt Neither that writing nor any oral or written clarification or discussion concerning it shall
constitute announcement of
the sentence.
Rule 1007. Announcement of sentence
(a) In general. The sentence shall be announced in the presence of
all parties promptly after it
has been determined.
(b) Announcement.
(
1) In the case of
sentencing by members, the sentence shall be announced by the military
judge in accordance with the members' determination.
(2) In all other cases, the military judge shall announce the sentence and shall specify-
(A) the term of confinement, if
any, and the amount of
fine, if
any, determined for each
offense;
(B) for each term of
confinement announced under subparagraph (A), whether the term
of confinement is to run concurrently or consecutively with any other term or terms of
confinement adjudged; and
(C) any other punishments under R.C.M. 1003 as a single, unitary sentence.
(c) Erroneous announcement. If
the announced sentence is not the one actually detennined by
the court-martial, the error may be corrected by a new announcement made before entry of
the
judgment into the record. This action shall not constitute reconsideration of
the sentence. If the
court-martial is adjourned before the error is discovered, the military judge may call the court-
martial into session to correct the announcement
(d) Polling prohibited. Except as provided in MiL R. Evid. 606, members may not othenvise be
questioned about their deliberations and voting.
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Rule 1008. Impeachment of sentence
A sentence which is proper on its face may be impeached only when extraneous prejudicial
information was improperly brought to the attention of
a member, outside influence was
improperly brought to bear upon any member, or unlawful command influence was brought to
bear upon any member.
Rule 1009. Reconsideration of sentence
(a) Reconsideration. Subject to this rule, a sentence may be reconsidered at any time before
such sentence is announced in open session ofthe court.
(b) Exceptions.
(1) lf
the sentence announced in open session was less than the mandatory minimum
prescribed for an offense of
which the accused has been found guilty, the court that announced
the sentence may reconsider such sentence upon reconsideration in accordance with
subsection (e) of
this rule.
(2) lfthe sentence announced in open session exceeds the maximum permissible
punishment for the offense or the jurisdictional limitation of
the court-martial, the sentence
may be reconsidered after announcement in accordance with subsection (e) of
this rule.
(3) If
the sentence announced in open session is not in accordance with a sentence
limitation in the plea agreement, if
any, the sentence may be reconsidered after announcement
in accordance with subsection (e) ofthis rule.
(c) Clarification of
sentence. A sentence may be clarified at any time before entry ofjudgment.
(1) Sentence determined by the military
judge. When a sentence determined by the military
judge is ambiguous, the military judge shall call a session for clarification as soon as
practicable after the ambiguity is discovered.
(2) Sentence determined by members. When a sentence determined by the members is
ambiguous, the military judge shall bring the matter to the attention of
the members if
the
matter is discovered before the court-ma1iial is adjourned. If
the matter is discovered after
adjournment, the military judge may call a session for clarification by the members as soon as
practicable after the ambiguity is discovered.
(d) Action by the convening authority. Prior to entry of
judgment, if
a convening authority
becomes aware that the sentence of
the court-martial is ambiguous, the convening authority
shall return the matter to the court-martial for clarification. When the sentence of
the court-
martial appears to be illegal, the convening authority shall return the matter to the court-martial
for correction.
(e) Reconsideration procedure. A military judge may reconsider a sentence once announced
only under the circumstances described in subsection (b). Any member of
the court-martial
may propose that a sentence determined by the members be reconsidered.
(1) Instructions. When a sentence has been determined by members and reconsideration has
been initiated, the military judge shall instruct the members on the procedure for reconsideration.
(2) Voting. The members shall vote by secret written ballot in closed session whether to
reconsider a sentence already determined by them.
(3) Number R.f votes required.
(A) Neces.'i·aryfinding.'i· in capital sentencing. Members may reconsider a unanimous vote
under R.C.M. 1
004(b
)(4)(A) that an aggravating factor was proven beyond a reasonable doubt
if
at least one member votes to reconsider. Members may reconsider a unanimous vote under
RC.M. 1
004(b
)(4)(C) that any extenuating and mitigating circumstances are substantially
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outweighed by any aggravating circumstances admi ssi bl e under R. C
.M. 100 1
(b)(
4
), including
the factors under R.C.M. 1004(c), if
at least one member votes to reconsider. In all other
circumstances, a vote under R.C.M. 1004(b)(4)(A) or (C) may be reconsidered only if at least a
majority of
the members vote for reconsideration.
(B) Sentence Determinations.
(i) With a view toward increasing. Members may reconsider a sentence with a view
toward increasing the sentence only if
at least a majority votes for reconsideration.
(ii) With a vietl' toward decreasing. Members may reconsider a sentence with a view
toward decreasing the sentence only if:
(I) In the case of
a sentence which includes death, at least one member votes to
reconsider; or
(II) In the case of
any other sentence, more than one-fourth of
the members vote to
reconsider.
(4) Succes:rful vote. If a vote to reconsider a sentence succeeds, the procedures in R.C.M.
1006 shall apply.
Rule 1010. Notice conceming post-trial and appellate rights
In each general and special court-martial, prior to adjournment, the military judge shall
ensure that defense counsel has informed the accused orally and in writing of:
(a) The right to submit matters to the convening authority to consider before taking
action;
(b) The right to appellate review, and the effect of waiver or withdrawal of such right, or
failure to file an appeal, as applicable;
(c) The right to apply for relief from the Judge Advocate General if
the case is not reviewed
by a Court of Criminal Appeals under Article 66; and
(d) The right to the advice and assistance of counsel in the exercise of
the foregoing
rights or any decision to waive them.
The written advice to the accused concerning post-trial and appellate rights shall be
signed by the accused and defense counsel and inserted in the record of trial as an
appellate exhibit.
Rule 1011. Adjoumment
The military judge may adjourn the court-martial at the end of
the trial of
an accused or proceed
to trial of
other cases referred to that court-martial. Such an adjournment may be for a definite or
indefinite period.
Rule 1101. Statement of trial results
(a) Content. After final adjournment of
a general or special court-martial, the military judge shall
sign and include in the record of trial a Statement of Trial Results. The Statement of Trial Results
shall consist of
the following-
(1) Findings. For each charge and specification referred to trial-
(A) a summary of
each charge and specification;
(B) the plea(s) of
the accused; and
(C) the finding or other disposition of
each charge and specification.
(2) Sentence. The sentence of
the court-martial and the date the sentence was announced by
the court-martial, and the amount of
credit, if
any, applied to the sentence for pretrial
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confinement or for other reasons. If
the accused was convicted of
more than one specification
and any part of
the sentence was determined by a military judge, the Statement of
Trial Results
shall also specify-
(
A) the contlnement and tine for each specification, if
any;
(B) whether any term of
confinement is to run consecutively or concurrently with any
other term(s) of confinement;
(C) the total amount of any fine(s) and the total amount of any confinement, after
accounting for any credit and any terms of
confinement that are to run consecutively or
concurrently.
(3) Forum. The type of
court-martial and the command by which it was convened.
(4) Plea agreements. In a case with a plea agreement, the statement shall specify any
limitations on the punishment as set forth in the plea agreement.
(5) SuvJension recommendation. Tfthe military judge recommends that any portion ofthe
sentence should be suspended, the statement shall specify-
(
A) the portion(s) of
the sentence to which the recommendation applies;
(B) the minimum duration of
the suspension; and
(C) the facts supporting the suspension recommendation.
(6) 01her it~formation. Any additional information directed by the military judge or required
under regulations prescribed by the Secretary concerned.
(b) Not guilty only hy reason (?flack of
mefllal
re.~ponsihility. If an accused was found not guilty
only by reason of
lack of
mental responsibility of
any charge or specitlcation, the military judge
shall sign the Statement of
Trial Results only after a hearing is conducted under R.C.M. 1105.
(c) Abatement. If
the military judge abated the proceedings and the court-martial adjourned
without a disposition as to at least one specitlcation, the military judge shall include a brief
explanation as to the reasons for abatement in the record of
trial. If all charges are subsequently
withdrawn, dismissed, or otherwise disposed of, the military judge shall sign a Statement of
Trial
Results in accordance with this rule.
(d) Distribution. Trial counsel shall promptly provide a copy of
the Statement of Trial Results to
the accused's immediate commander, the convening authority or the convening authority's
designee, and, if
appropriate, the oflicer in charge of
the confinement facility. A copy of
the
Statement of
Trial Results shall be provided to the accused or to the accused's defense counsel.
If
the statement is served on defense counsel, defense counsel shall, by expeditious means,
provide the accused with a copy. A copy of
the Statement of Trial Results shall be provided to
any crime victim or victim's counsel in the case, without regard to whether the accused was
convicted or acquitted of
any offense.
Rule 1102. Execution and effective date of sentences
(a) In general. Except as provided in subsection (b), a sentence is executed and takes effect as
follows:
(1) General and
special courts-martial. In the case of a general or special court-martial, a
sentence is executed and takes effect when the judgment is entered into the record under
R.C.M. 1111.
(2) Summary courts-martial. In the case of a summary court-martial, a sentence is executed
and takes effect when the convening authority acts on the sentence.
(b) F.xceptions.
(I) Fm:feitures and
reductions. Unless deferred under R.C.M. 1103 or suspended under
R.C.M. 1107, that part of an adjudged sentence that includes forfeitures or confinement is
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executed and takes effect as follows:
(A) Subject to subparagraph (B), if
a sentence includes forfeitures in pay or allowances
or reduction in grade, or, if
forfeiture or reduction is required by Articles 58a or 58b, the
sentence shall take effect on the earlier of-
(i) 14 days after the sentence is announced under R.C.M. 1007; or
(ii) in the case of
a summary court-matiial, the date on which the sentence is approved
by the convening authority.
(B) If an accused is not confined and is performing military duties, that p01tion of
the
sentence that provides for more than two-thirds forfeitures of
pay shall not be executed.
(2) Confinement.
(A) In general. A commander shall deliver the accused into post-trial confinement when
the sentence of
the court-martial includes death or confinement, unless a sentence of
confinement is deferred under R.C.M. 1103.
(B) Calculation. Any period of confinement included in the sentence of a court-mattial
begins to run from the date the sentence is announced by the court-martial. lf
the accused was
earlier ordered into confinement under R.C.M. 305, the accused's sentence shall be credited
one day for each day of confinement already served.
(C) Rxclusions in calculating cot!finement. The following periods shall be excluded in
computing the service of
the term of
confinement:
(i) Periods during which the sentence to confinement is suspended or deferred;
(ii) Periods during which the accused is in custody of
civilian authorities under Article
14 from the time of
the delivery to the return to military custody, if
the accused was convicted
in the civilian court;
(iii) Periods during which the accused is in custody of civilian or foreign authorities
after the convening authority, pursuant to Article 57(b
)(2), has postponed the service of a
sentence to confinement;
(iv) Periods during which the accused has escaped, or is absent without authority, or is
absent under a parole that a proper authority has later revoked, or is released from confinement
through misrepresentation or fraud on the part of
the prisoner, or is released from confinement
upon the prisoner's petition for a writ under a court order that is later reversed; and
(v) Periods during which another sentence by court-martial to confinement is being
served. When a prisoner serving a court-martial sentence to confinement is later convicted by a
court-martial of
another offense and sentenced to confinement, the later sentence interrupts the
running of the earlier sentence. Any unremitted remaining portion of
the earlier sentence will be
served after the later sentence is fully executed.
(D) Multiple sentences ~fconjinement. If
a court-martial sentence includes more than one
term of
confinement, each term of confinement shall be served consecutively or concurrently as
determined by the military judge.
(E) Nature of
the confinement. The omission of hard labor from any sentence of
a court-
martial which has adjudged confinement shall not prohibit an appropriate authority from
requiring hard labor as part of
the punishment.
(F) Place of
cor!finement. The place of confinement for persons sentenced to confinement
by courts-martial shall be determined by regulations prescribed by the Secretary concerned.
Under such regulations as the Secretary concerned may prescribe, a sentence to confinement
adjudged by a court-martial or other military tribunal, regardless whether the sentence includes
a punitive discharge or dismissal and regardless whether the punitive discharge or dismissal has
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been executed, may be ordered to be served in any place of confinement under the control of
any of
the armed forces or in any penal or correctional institution under the control of
the
United States or which the United States may be allowed to use. Persons so confined in a penal
or correctional institution not under the control of
one of
the armed forces are subject to the
same discipline and treatment as persons confined or committed by the courts of
the United
States or of
the State, Territory, District of
Columbia, or place in which the institution is
situated. No member of
the armed forces, or person serving with or accompanying an armed
force in the field, may be placed in confinement in immediate association with enemy
prisoners, or with individuals who are detained under the law of
war and are foreign nationals
and not members of
the armed forces. The Secretary concerned may prescribe regulations
governing the conditions of
confinement.
(3) Dishonorable or a bad-conduct discharge, self-executing. A bad-conduct or
dishonorable discharge shall be executed under regulations prescribed by the Secretary
concerned after an appropriate official designated by those regulations has certified that the
accused's case is final within the meaning ofR.C.M. 1209. Upon completion ofthe
certification, the official shall forward the certification to the accused's personnel office for
preparation of
a final discharge order and certificate.
(4) Dismissal l?f
a commissioned l?f!icer, cadet, or mid~hipman.
Dismissal of a commissioned
officer, cadet, or midshipman shall be executed under regulations prescribed by the Secretary
concerned-
(
A) after the conviction is final within the meaning ofR.C.M. 1209 and Article 57(c)(l)
as certified by the approval authority designated pursuant to Article 57(a)(4); and
(B) only after the approval by the Secretary concerned or such Under Secretary or
Assistant Secretary as the Secretary concerned may designate.
(5) Sentences extending to death. A punishment of death shall be carried out in a manner
prescribed by the Secretary concerned-
(
A) after the conviction is final within the meaning ofR.C.M. 1209; and
(B) only after the approval of
the President under R.C.M. 1207.
(c) Other considerations concerning the execution of
certain sentences.
(1) Death; action when accused lacks mental capacity. An accused lacking the mental
capacity to understand the punishment to be suffered or the reason for imposition of
the death
sentence may not be put to death duting any period when such incapacity exists. The accused is
presumed to possess the mental capacity to understand the punishment to be suffered and the
reason for imposition of
the death sentence. If
a substantial question is raised as to whether the
accused lacks capacity, the convening authority then exercising general court-martial jurisdiction
over the accused shall order a hearing on the question. A military judge, counsel for the
Government, and defense counsel shall be detailed. The convening authority shall direct an
examination of
the accused in accordance with R.C.M. 706, but the examination may be limited
to determining whether the accused understands the punishment to be suffered and the reason
therefor. The military judge shall consider all evidence presented, including evidence provided
by the accused. The accused has the burden of
proving such lack of
capacity by a preponderance
of
the evidence. The military judge shall make findings of fact, which will then be forwarded to
the convening authority ordering the hearing. If
the accused is found to lack capacity, the
convening authority shall stay the execution until the accused regains appropriate capacity.
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(2) Restriction; hard labor without corifinement. When restriction and hard labor without
confinement are included in the same sentence, they shall, unless one is suspended, be executed
concurrent!
y.
Rule 1103. Deferment of confinement, forfeitures, and reduction in grade; waiver of Article
58b forfeitures
(a) In general.
(1) After a sentence is announced, the convening authority may defer a sentence to
confinement, forfeitures, or reduction in grade in accordance with this rule. Defennent may be at
the request of the accused as provided in subsection (b), or without a request of
the accused as
provided in subsection (c).
(2) Deferment of
a sentence to confinement, forfeitures, or reduction in grade is a
postponement of the running of
the sentence.
(b) Deferment requested by an accused The convening authority or, if
the accused is no
longer in the convening authority's jurisdiction, the officer exercising general court-martial
jurisdiction over the command to which the accused is assigned, may, upon written
application of
the accused, at any time after the adjournment of
the court-martial and before
the entry ofjudgment, defer the accused's service of a sentence to confinement, forfeitures,
and reduction in grade.
(c) Deferment without a request
from the accused
(1) ln a case in which a court-martial sentences to confinement an accused referred to in
paragraph (2), the convening authority may defer service of
the sentence to confinement,
without the consent of
the accused, until after the accused has been permanently released to the
armed forces by a State or foreign country.
(2) Paragraph (1) applies to an accused who, while in custody of a State or foreign country,
is temporarily returned by that State or foreign country to the armed forces for trial by court-
martial and, after the court-martial, is returned to that State or foreign country under the
authority of a mutual agreement or treaty, as the case may be.
(3) As used in this subsection, the term "State" means a State of
the United States, the
District of Columbia, a territory, and a possession of
the United States.
(d) Action on deferment request.
(1) The authority acting on the defennent request may, in that authority's discretion, defer
service of
a sentence to confinement, forfeitures, or reduction in grade.
(2) In a case in which the accused requests deferment, the accused shall have the burden of
showing that the interests of
the accused and the community in deferral outweigh the
community's interests in imposition of
the punishment on its effective date. Factors that the
authority acting on a deferment request may consider in determining whether to grant the
deferment request include, where applicable: the probability of
the accused's flight; the
probability of
the accused's commission of
other offenses, intimidation of
witnesses, or
interference with the administration of
justice; the nature of
the offenses (including the effect
on the victim) of
which the accused was convicted; the sentence adjudged; the command's
immediate need for the accused; the effect of deferment on good order and discipline in the
command; the accused's character, mental condition, family situation, and service record. The
decision of
the authority acting on the defem1ent request shall be subject to judicial review
only for abuse of discretion. The action of
the authority acting on the deferment request shall
be in 'WTiting. A copy of
the action on the deferment request, to include any rescission, shall be
included in the record of
trial and a copy shall be provided to the accused and to the military
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judge.
(e) Restraint when deferment is granted. When defennent of confinement is granted, no fonn of
restraint or other limitation on the accused's liberty may be ordered as a substitute form of
punishment. An accused may, however, be restricted to specified limits or conditions may be
placed on the accused's liberty during the period of
deferment for any other proper reason,
including a ground for restraint under R.C.M. 304.
(f) End of
deferment. Defennent of a sentence to confinement, forfeitures, or reduction in grade
ends:
(1) In a case where the accused requested deferment under subsection (b)-
(A) When the military judge of
a general or special court-martial enters the judgment into
the record of trial under R.C.M. 1111; or
(B) When the convening authority of
a summary court-martial acts on the sentence of
the
court-martial;
(2) In a case where the deferment was granted under subsection (c), when the accused has
been permanently released to the armed forces by a State or foreign country;
(3) When the deferred confinement, forfeitures, or reduction in grade are suspended;
(4) When the deferment expires by its own terms; or
(5) When the deferment is othervv1se rescinded in accordance with subsection (g).
(g) Rescission of
deferment.
(1) Who may rescind. The authority who granted the deferment or, if
the accused is
no longer within that authority's jurisdiction, the officer exercising general court-martial
jurisdiction over the command to which the accused is assigned, may rescind the deferment.
(2) Action. Deferment of
confinement, forfeitures, or reduction in grade may be rescinded
when additional information is presented to a proper authority which, when considered with
all other information in the case, that authority finds, in that authority's discretion, is grounds
for denial of
deferment under paragraph (d)(2). The accused and the military judge shall
promptly be informed of
the basis for the rescission. The accused shall also be informed of
the
right to submit written matters and to request that the rescission be reconsidered. The accused
may be required to serve the sentence to confinement, forfeitures, or reduction in grade
pending this action.
(3) Orders. Rescission of a defennent before or concurrently with the entry of
judgment
shall be noted in the judgment that is entered into the record of
trial under R.C.M. 1111.
(h) Waivingforj(!itures resulting
from a sentence to COl!/inement to provide for dependent
support.
( 1) With respect to forfeiture of
pay and allowances resulting only by operation oflaw and
not adjudged by the court, the convening authority may waive, for a period not to exceed six
months, all or part of
the forfeitures for the purpose of providing support to the accused's
dependent(s). The convening authority may waive and direct payment of any such forfeitures
when they become effective by operation of Atiicle 58(b
).
(2) Factors that may be considered by the convening authority in determining the amount of
forfeitures, if
any, to be waived include, but are not limited to, the length of
the accused's
confinement, the number and age(s) of
the accused's family members, whether the accused
requested waiver, any debts owed by the accused, the ability ofthe accused's family members to
find employment, and the availability of
transitional compensation for abused dependents
permitted under 10 U.S.C. 1059.
(3) For the purposes of this mle, a "dependent" means any person qualifying as a "dependent"
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under 37 U.S.C. 401.
Rule 1104. Post-trial motions and proceedings
(a) Post-trial Article 39(a) sessions.
(1) In general. Upon motion of
either party or sua sponte, the military judge may direct a
post-trial Article 39(a) session at any time before the entry of
judgment under R.C.M. 1111
and, when necessary, after a case has been returned to the military judge by a higher court.
Counsel for the accused shall be present in accordance with R.C.M. 804 and R.C.M. 805.
(2) Purpose. The purpose of
post-trial Article 39(a) sessions is to inquire into, and, when
appropriate, to resolve any matter that arises after trial that substantially affects the legal
sufficiency of
any findings of
guilty or the sentence.
(3) Scope. A military judge at a post-trial Article 39(a) session may reconsider any trial
ruling that substantially affects the legal sufficiency of any findings of guilty or the sentence.
Prior to entering such a finding or findings, the military judge shall give each party an
opportunity to be heard on the matter in a post-trial Article 39(a) session. The military judge
may sua sponte, at any time prior to the entry of
judgment, take one or both of
the following
actions:
(i) enter a finding of
not guilty of
one or more offenses charged; or
(ii) enter a finding of
not guilty of a part of
a specification as long as a lesser offense
charged is alleged in the remaining portion of
the specification.
(b) Post-trial motions.
(1) lvfatters. Post-trial motions may be filed by either pmiy or when directed by the
military judge to address such matters as-
(
A) An allegation of error in the acceptance of
a plea of
guilty;
(B) A motion to set aside one or more findings because the evidence is legally
insufli
ci ent;
(C) A motion to correct a computational, technical, or other clear error in the sentence;
(D) An allegation of error in the Statement of
Trial Results;
(E) An allegation of error in the post-trial processing of
the court-martial; and
(F) An allegation of
error in the convening authority's action under R.C.M. 1109 or 1110.
(2) Timing.
(A) Except as provided in subparagraphs (B) and (C), post-trial motions shall be filed not
later than 14 days after defense counsel receives the Statement of
Trial Results. The military
judge may extend the time to submit such matters by not more than an additional 30 days for
good cause.
(B) A motion to correct an error in the action of
the convening authority shall be filed
within five days after the party receives the convening authority's action. If any post-trial action
by the convening authority is incomplete, irregular, or contains error, the military judge shall-
(i) return the action to the convening authority for correction; or
(ii) with the agreement of all parties, correct the action of
the convening
authmity in the entry of
judgment.
(C) A motion to correct a clerical or computational error in a judgment entered by the
military judge shall be made within five days after a party is provided a copy of the judgment.
(c) .A1atters not
su~ject
to post-trial sessions. A post-trial session may not be directed:
(1) For reconsideration of
a finding of not guilty of any specification, or a ruling which
amounts to a finding of
not guilty;
(2) For reconsideration of
a finding of not guilty of any charge, unless the record shows a
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finding of guilty under a specification laid under that charge, which sufficiently alleges a
violation of some article of
the code; or
(3) For increasing the severity of
the sentence unless the sentence prescribed for the
offense is mandatory.
(d) Procedure.
(1) Personnel. The requirements ofR.C.M. 505 and 805 shall apply at post-trial sessions
except that, for good cause, a different military judge may be detailed, subject to R.C.M. 502(c)
and 902.
(2) Record. All post-trial sessions shall be held in open session. The record of
the post-trial
sessions shall be prepared, certified, and provided in accordance with R.C.M. 1112 and shall be
included in the record of
the prior proceedings.
Rule 1105. Post-trial hearing for person found not guilty only by reason of lack of mental
responsibility
(a) Jn general. The military judge shall conduct a hearing not later than forty days following the
finding that an accused is not guilty only by reason of
a lack of
mental responsibility.
(b) P.~ychiatric or
psychological examination and
report. Prior to the hearing, the military
judge or convening authority shall order a psychiatric or psychological examination of
the
accused, with the resulting psychiatric or psychological report transmitted to the military judge
for use in the post-trial hearing.
(c) Post-trial hearing.
(1) The accused shall be represented by defense counsel and shall have the opportunity to
testify, present evidence, call witnesses on his or her behalf: and to confront and cross-examine
witnesses who appear at the hearing.
(2) The military judge is not bound by the rules of
evidence except with respect to
privileges.
(3) An accused found not guilty only by reason of
a lack of
mental responsibility of
an
offense involving bodily injury to another, or serious damage to the property of another, or
involving a substantial risk of such injury or damage, has the burden of
proving by clear and
convincing evidence that his or her release would not create a substantial risk of
bodily injury
to another person or serious damage to property of another due to a present mental disease or
defect. With respect to any other offense, the accused has the burden of such proof
by a
preponderance of
the evidence.
(4) If, after the hearing, the military judge finds the accused has satisfied the standard
specified in paragraph (3), the military judge shall inform the general court-martial convening
authority of
this result and the accused shall be released. If, however, the military judge finds
after the hearing that the accused has not satisfied the standard specified in paragraph (3), then
the military judge shall inform the general court-martial convening authority of
this result and
that authority may commit the accused to the custody of
the Attorney General.
Rule 1106. Matters submitted by the accused
(a) In general. After a sentence is announced in a court-martial, the accused may submit
matters to the convening authority for consideration in the exercise of
the convening authority's
powers under R.C.M. 1109 or 1110.
(b) Matters submitted by the accused.
(1) Subject to paragraph (2), the accused may submit to the convening authority any matters
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that may reasonably tend to inform the convening authority's exercise of
discretion under
R.C.M. 1109 or 1110. The convening authority is only required to consider written
submissions. Submissions are not subject to the Military Rules of
Evidence.
(2) Submissions under this rule may not include matters that relate to the character of
a
crime victim unless such matters were admitted as evidence at trial.
(c) Access to court-martial record Upon request by the defense, trial counsel shall provide the
accused or counsel for the accused a copy of the recording of
all open sessions ofthe court-
martial, and copies of, or access to, the evidence admitted at the court-matiial, and the appellate
exhibits. Such access shall not include sealed or classified court-martial material or recordings
unless authorized by a military judge upon a showing of
good cause. A military judge shall
issue appropriate protective orders when authorizing such access.
(d) Time periods.
(1) General and.~pecial
courts-martial. After a trial by general or special court-martial, the
accused may submit matters to the convening authority under this rule within ten days after the
sentence is announced.
(2) Summary courts-martial. After a trial by summary court-martial, the accused may submit
matters under this rule within seven days after the sentence is announced.
(3) Rebuttal. In a case where a crime victim has submitted matters under R. C.M. 11 06A, the
accused shall have five days from receipt of
those matters to submit any matters in rebuttal. Such
a response shall be limited to addressing matters raised in the crime victim's submissions.
(
4) Extension of
time.
(A) If, within the period described in paragraph (1) or (2), the accused shows that
additional time is required for the accused to submit matters, the convening authority may, for
good cause, extend the period for not more than 20 days.
(B) For purposes of
this rule, good cause for an extension ordinarily does not include the
need to obtain matters that reasonably could have been presented at the court-martial.
(e) Waiver.
(1) Failure to submit matters. Failure to submit matters within the time prescribed by this rule
waives the right to submit such matters.
(2) Submission of
matters. Submission of
any matters under this mle shall be deemed a
waiver of
the right to submit additional matters unless the right to submit additional matters
within the prescribed time limits is expressly reserved in writing.
(3) Written waiver. The accused may expressly waive, in writing, the light to submit matters
under this rule. Once submitted, such a waiver may not be revoked.
(
4) Absence of
accused. If
the accused does not submit matters under this rule as a result of an
unauthorized absence, the accused shall be deemed to have waived the right to submit matters
under this mle.
Rule 1106A. Matters submitted by crime victim
(a) In general. In a case with a crime victim, after a sentence is announced in a court-martial
any crime victim of
an offense may submit matters to the convening authority for consideration
in the exercise of
the convening authority's powers under R.C.M. 1109 or 1110.
(b) Notice to a crime victim.
(1) In general. Subject to such regulations as the Secretary concerned may presclibe, trial
counsel, or in the case of a summary court-martial, the summary court-martial officer, shall
make reasonable efforts to inform clime victims, through counsel, if
applicable, of
their lights
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under this rule, and shall advise such crime victims on the procedure for making submissions.
(2) Crime victim defined. As used in this rule, the term "crime victim" means an individual
who has suffered direct physical, emotional, or pecuniary harm as a result of
the commission of
an offense of
which the accused was found guilty, and on which the convening authority may
take action under R.C.M. 1109 or 1110, or the individual's lawful representative or designee
appointed by the military judge under these rules.
(c) Nfatters submitted by a crime victim.
(1) Subject to paragraph (2), a crime victim may submit to the convening authority any
matters that may reasonably tend to inform the convening authority's exercise of discretion
under R.C.M. 1109 or 1110. The convening authority is only required to consider written
submissions. Submissions are not subject to the Military Rules of
Evidence.
(2) Limitations on submissions.
(A) Submissions under this rule may not include matters that relate to the character of
the
accused unless such matters were admitted as evidence at trial.
(B) The crime victim is entitled to one opportunity to submit matters to the convening
authority under this rule.
(3) The convening authority shall ensure any matters submitted by a crime victim
under this subsection be provided to the accused as soon as practicable.
(d) Access to court-martial record Upon request by a crime victim or crime victim's
counsel, trial counsel shall provide a copy of
the recording of all open sessions of
the
court-martial, and copies of, or access to, the evidence admitted at the court-martial, and
the appellate exhibits. Such access shall not include sealed or classified court-mattial
material or recordings unless authorized by a military judge upon a showing of
good
cause. A military judge shall issue appropriate protective orders when authorizing such
access.
(e) Time period'>.
(1) General and
special courts-martial. After a trial by general or special court-martial, a
crime victim may submit matters to the convening authority under this rule within ten days after
the sentence is announced.
(2) Summary courts-martial. After a trial by summary court-martial, a crime victim may
submit matters under this rule within seven days after the sentence is announced.
(3) l!.'xtension of
time.
(A) If, within the petiod described in paragraph (1) or (2), the crime victim shows
that additional time is required for the crime victim to submit matters, the convening
authority may, for good cause, extend the period for not more than 20 days.
(B) For purposes of
this rule, good cause for an extension ordinarily does not include the
need to obtain matters that reasonably could have been obtained prior to the conclusion of
the
court-martial.
(f) Waiver.
(1) Failure to submit matters. Failure to submit matters within the time prescribed by this
rule waives the right to submit such matters.
(2) Written waiver. A crime victim may expressly waive, in writing, the right to submit
matters under this rule. Once filed, such a waiver may not be revoked.
Rule 1107. Suspension of execution of
sentence; remission
(a) In general. Suspension of
a sentence grants the accused a probationary period during which
the suspended part of
a sentence is not executed, and upon the accused's successful completion
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of
which the suspended part of
the sentence shall be remitted. Remission cancels the
unexecuted part of a sentence to which it applies. The unexecuted part of
a sentence is that part
of
the sentence that has not been carried out.
(b) Who may suspend and remit.
(1) Suspension l1)hen acting on sentence. The convening authority may suspend the
execution of
a couti-matiial sentence as authorized under R.C.M. 1109 or 1110.
(2) Suspension cifter entty ofjudgment. The commander of
the accused who has the
authority to convene a court-martial of
the type that imposed the sentence on the accused may
suspend any part of
the unexecuted part of any sentence except a sentence of
death,
dishonorable discharge, bad-conduct discharge, dismissal, or confinement for more than six
months.
(3) Remission~~
sentence. The commander of
the accused who has the authority to convene
a court-martial of
the type that imposed the sentence on the accused may remit any unexecuted
part of
the sentence, except a sentence of death, dishonorable discharge, bad-conduct discharge,
dismissal, or confinement for more than six months.
(4) Secretarial authori(v. The Secretary concerned and, when designated by the Secretary
concerned, any Under Secretary, Assistant Secretary, Judge Advocate General, or commanding
officer may suspend or remit any part or amount of
the unexecuted part of
any sentence other
than a sentence approved by the President or a sentence of
confinement for life without
eligibility for parole. The Secretary concerned may, however, suspend or remit the unexecuted
part of a sentence of
confinement for life without eligibility for parole only after the service of
a
period of
confinement of
not less than 20 years.
(c) Conditions ojs11.~pension. The authority who suspends the execution of
the sentence of
a
court-martial shall:
(1) Specify in writing the conditions of
the suspension;
(2) Cause a copy of
the conditions of
the suspension to be served on the probationer; and
(3) Cause a receipt to be secured from the probationer for service of
the conditions of
the
suspensiOn.
Unless otherwise stated, an action suspending a sentence includes as a condition that the
probationer not violate any punitive article of
the Uniform Code of
Military Justice.
(d) Limitations on suspension.
(1) A sentence of death may not be suspended.
(2) A sentence of
dishonorable discharge, bad-conduct discharge, dismissal, or confinement
for more than six months may be suspended only as provided by paragraph (b
)(4) and R.C.M.
1109(f).
(3) Suspension shall be for a stated period or until the occurrence of an anticipated future
event. The period shall not be unreasonably long. The Secretary concerned may further limit by
regulation the period for which the execution of
a sentence may be suspended. The convening
authority shall provide in the action that, unless the suspension is sooner vacated, the expiration
of
the period of suspension shall remit the suspended pmiion of
the sentence.
(e) Termination of
suspension by remission Expiration of the period provided in the action
suspending a sentence or part of
a sentence shall remit the suspended sentence portion unless
the suspension is sooner vacated. Death or separation which terminates status as a person
subject to the UCMJ will result in remission of
the suspended portion of
the sentence.
Rule 11 08. Vacation of suspension of sentence
(a) In general. Suspension of
execution of
the sentence of a court-martial may be vacated for
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violation of
any condition of
the suspension as provided in this rule.
(b) Timeliness.
(1) Violation qf
conditions. Vacation shall be based on a violation of
any condition of
suspension which occurs within the period of suspension.
(2) Vacation proceedings. Vacation proceedings under this rule shall be completed within a
reasonable time.
(3) Order vacating the suspension. The order vacating the suspension shall be issued before
the expiration of
the period of suspension.
(
4) Interruptions to the period qf
suspension. Unauthorized absence of
the probationer or the
commencement of proceedings under this rule to vacate suspension interrupts and tolls the
running of
the period of suspension.
(c) Cot?finement of
probationer pending vacation proceedings.
(1) Tn general. A probationer under a suspended sentence to confinement may be confined
pending action under subsection (e) of
this mle, in accordance with the procedures in this
subsection.
(2) Who may order cor!finement. Any person who may order pretrial restraint under RC.M.
304(b) may order confinement of a probationer under a suspended sentence to confinement.
(3) Ra.s·isfor confinement. A probationer under a suspended sentence to confinement may
be ordered into confinement upon probable cause to believe the probationer violated any
conditions of
the suspension.
(
4) Preliminary revielv of
confinement. Unless vacation proceedings under subsection (d)
of
this rule are completed within 7 days of
imposition of
confinement of
the probationer (not
including any delays requested by probationer), a preliminary review of
the confinement shall
be conducted by a neutral and detached officer appointed in accordance with regulations of
the Secretary concerned.
(A) Rights of
confined
probationer. Before the preliminary review, the probationer shall
be notified in writing of:
(i) The time, place, and purpose of
the preliminary review, including the alleged
violation(s) ofthe conditions of suspension;
(ii) The right to be present at the preliminary review;
(iii) The right to be represented at the preliminary review by civilian counsel
provided by the probationer or, upon request, by military counsel detailed for this purpose;
and
(iv) The opportunity to be heard, to present witnesses who are reasonably available
and other evidence, and the right to confront and cross-examine adverse witnesses unless the
officer conducting the preliminary review detennines that this would subject these witnesses to
risk or harm. For purposes of
this subsection, a witness is not reasonably available if
the
witness requires reimbursement by the United States for cost incurred in appearing, cannot
appear without unduly delaying the proceedings or, if
a military witness, cannot be excused
from other important duties. Witness testimony may be provided in person, by video
teleconference, by telephone, or by similar means of
remote testimony.
(B) Rules t<f evidence. Only Mil. R. Evid. 301, 302, 303, 305, 412, and Section V
(Privileges) apply to proceedings under this mle, except MiL R. Evid. 412(b
)(1 )(C) does not
apply. In applying these rules to a preliminary review, the tenn "military judge," as used in
these rules, shall mean the officer conducting the preliminary review, who shall assume the
military judge's authority to exclude evidence from the hearing, and who shall, in discharging
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this duty, follow the procedures set forth in these rules.
(C) Decision. The officer conducting the preliminary review shall determine whether
there is probable cause to believe that the probationer violated the conditions of
the
probationer's suspension. If
the officer conducting the preliminary review determines that
probable cause is lacking, the officer shall issue a written order directing that the probationer be
released from confinement. If
the officer determines that there is probable cause to believe that
the probationer violated a condition of suspension, the officer shall set forth this determination
in a written memorandum that details therein the evidence relied upon and reasons for making
the decision. The officer shall forward the original memorandum or release order to the
probationer's commander and forward a copy to the probationer and the officer in charge of
the
confinement facility.
(d) Vacation proceedings.
(1) Jn genera{ The purpose of
the vacation hearing is to determine whether there is probable
cause to believe that the probationer violated a condition of the probationer's suspension.
(A) Sentence (?(general courts-martial and certain .~pecial courts-martial. In the case of
vacation proceedings for a suspended sentence of
any general court-martial or a suspended
sentence of
a special court-martial that adjudged either a bad-conduct discharge or confinement
for more than six months, the officer having special court-martial jurisdiction over the
probationer shall either personally hold the hearing or detail a judge advocate to preside at the
hearing. If
there is no officer having special court-martial jurisdiction over the probationer who
is subordinate to the officer having general court-martial jurisdiction over the probationer, the
otlicer exercising general court-martial jurisdiction over the probationer shall either personally
hold a hearing under this subsection or detail a judge advocate to conduct the hearing.
(B) Special court-martial wherein a bad-conduct discharge or confinementfor more than
six months was not adjudged In the case of
vacation proceedings for a sentence from a special
court-martial that did not include a bad-conduct discharge or confinement for more than six
months, the ot1icer having special court-martial jurisdiction over the probationer shall either
personally hold the hearing or detail a judge advocate to conduct the hearing.
(C) Sentence of
summary court-martial. In the case of
vacation proceedings for a
suspended sentence of a summary court-martial, the officer having summary court-martial
jurisdiction over the probationer shall either personally hold the hearing or detail a
commissioned otlicer to conduct the heating.
(2) Notice to probationer. Before the hearing, the officer conducting the hearing shall cause
the probationer to be notified in writing of:
(A) The time, place, and purpose of
the hearing;
(B) The right to be present at the hearing;
(C) The alleged violation(s) of
the conditions of suspension and the evidence expected to
be relied on;
(D) The right to be represented at the hearing by civilian counsel provided by the
probationer or, upon request, by military counsel detailed for this purpose; and
(E) The opportunity to be heard, to present witnesses who are reasonably available and
other evidence, and the right to confront and cross-examine adverse witnesses unless the officer
conducting the preliminary review detem1ines that this would subject these witnesses to risk or
harm.
(3) Procedure.
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(A) Generally. The hearing shall begin with the hearing officer informing the probationer
of
the probationer's rights. The Government will then present evidence. Upon the conclusion of
the Government's presentation of
evidence, the probationer may present evidence. The
probationer shall have full opportunity to present any matters in defense, extenuation, or
mitigation. Both the Government and probationer shall be afforded an opportunity to cross-
examine adverse witnesses. The hearing officer may also question witnesses called by the
parties.
(B) Rules of
evidence. The Military Rules of
Evidence applicable to vacation proceedings
are the same as those set forth in subparagraph (c)(
4)(B) of
this rule.
(C) Production ofH'itnesses and other evidence. The procedure for the production of
witnesses and other evidence shall follow that prescribed in R.C.M. 405(h), except that R.C.M.
405(h)(3)(B) shall not apply. The hearing officer shall only consider testimony and other
evidence that is relevant to the limited purpose of
the hearing.
(D) Presentation qf
testimony. Witness testimony may be provided in person, by video
teleconference, by telephone, or by similar means ofremote testimony. All testimony shall be
taken under oath, except that the probationer may make an unsworn statement.
(E) Other evidence. If
relevant to the limited purpose of
the hearing, and not cumulative, a
hearing officer may consider other evidence, in addition to or in lieu of witness testimony,
including statements, tangible evidence, or reproductions thereof, offered by either side, that the
hearing officer determines is reliable. This other evidence need not be sworn.
(F) Protective order
for release cifprivileged information. If
the Government agrees to
disclose to the probationer information to which the protections afforded by Mil. R. Evid. 505 or
506 may apply, the convening authority, or other person designated by regulation ofthe
Secretary of
the service concerned, may enter an appropriate protective order, in writing, to
guard against the compromise of
information disclosed to the probationer. The terms of
any such
protective order may include prohibiting the disclosure of
the information except as authorized
by the authority.
(G) Presence of
probationer. The taking of
evidence shall not be prevented and the
probationer shall be considered to have waived the right to be present whenever the probationer:
(i) After being notified of
the time and place of
the proceeding is voluntarily absent; or
(ii) After being warned by the hearing officer that disruptive conduct will cause removal
from the proceeding, persists in conduct that is such as to justify exclusion from the proceeding.
(H) Objections. Any objection alleging failure to comply with these rules shall be made to
the convening authority via the hearing officer. The hearing officer shall include a record of
all
objections in the written recommendations to the convening authority.
(I) Access by spectators. The procedures for access by spectators shall follow those
prescribed in R.C.M. 4050)(3).
(J) ·victims' rights. Any victim of
the underlying offense for which the probationer
received the suspended sentence, or any victim of
the alleged offense that is the subject of
the
vacation hearing, has the right to reasonable, accurate, and timely notice of
the vacation hearing.
(4) Record and recommendation. The officer conducting the hearing shall make a
summarized record of
the hearing. If
the hearing is not personally conducted by the officer
having the authority to take action under subsection (e) of this rule, the officer who conducted
the hearing shall forward the record and that officer's written recommendation concerning
vacation to such authority. The record shall include the recommendation, the evidence relied
upon, and the rationale supporting the recommendation.
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(5) Release ft·om COT!finement. If
the hearing is not personally conducted by the officer
having the authority to take action under subsection (e) of
this mle and the officer conducting
the hearing finds there is not probable cause to believe that the probationer violated any
condition of
the suspension, the officer shall order the release of
the probationer from any
confinement ordered under subsection (c) of
this mle, and forward the record and
recommendation to the officer having the authority to take action under subsection (e) of
this
mle.
(e)Action.
(1) General courts-martial and certain special courts-martial. In a case of
a suspended
sentence from any general court-martial or a suspended sentence from a special court-martial
that adjudged either a bad-conduct discharge or confinement for more than six months, unless
the officer exercising general court-martial jurisdiction over the probationer personally
conducted the hearing, the officer exercising general court-martial jurisdiction over the
probationer shall review the record and the recommendation produced by the officer who
conducted the hearing on the alleged violation ofthe conditions of suspension, decide whether
the probationer violated a condition of suspension, and, if so, decide whether to vacate the
suspended sentence. If the officer exercising general court-martial jurisdiction decides to vacate
the suspended sentence, that officer shall prepare a written statement of
the evidence relied on
and the reasons for vacating the suspended sentence.
(2) Special courts-martial wherein a had-conduct discharge and
cor!finement.for more tlu.m
six months 1-vas not adjudged In a case of
a suspended sentence from a special court-martial
that did not include a bad-conduct discharge or confinement for more than six months, unless
the otlicer having special court-martial jurisdiction over the probationer personally conducted
the hearing, the officer having special court-martial jurisdiction over the probationer shall
review the record and the recommendation produced by the otlicer who conducted the hearing,
decide whether the probationer violated a condition of suspension, and, if so, decide whether to
vacate the suspended sentence. If
the officer exercising special court-martial jurisdiction
decides to vacate the suspended sentence, that officer shall prepare a written statement of
the
evidence relied on and the reasons for vacating the suspended sentence. The authority holding
the same or higher court-martial authority as the oflicer who originally suspended the
probationer's sentence may withhold the authority to take action under this paragraph to that
of11cer.
(3) Vacation o.fa suspended sentence.from a summary court-martial. In a case of a
suspended sentence from a summary court-martial, unless the of11cer having summary court-
martial jurisdiction over the probationer personally conducted the hearing, the officer having
summary court-martial jurisdiction over the probationer shall review the record and the
recommendation produced by the officer who conducted the hearing, and decide whether the
probationer violated a condition of suspension, and, if so, decide whether to vacate the
suspended sentence. Ifthe officer exercising summary comi-martialjurisdiction decides to
vacate the suspended sentence, that officer shall prepare a written statement of
the evidence
relied on and the reasons for vacating the suspended sentence. The authority holding the same
or higher court-martial authority as the officer who originally suspended the probationer's
sentence may withhold the authority to take action under this paragraph to that officer.
(4) Execution. Any unexecuted part of a suspended sentence ordered vacated under this
subsection shall be executed.
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Rule 1109. Reduction of sentence, general and special courts-martial
(a) In general. This rule applies to the post-trial actions of
the convening authority in any
general or special court-martial in which-
( 1) The court-martial found the accused guilty of-
(
A) An offense for which the maximum authorized sentence to confinement is more than
two years, without considering the jurisdictional maximum of
the court;
(B) A violation of Article 120(a) or (b);
(C) A violation of Article 120b; or
(D) A violation of such other offense as the Secretary of
Defense has specified by
regulation; or
(2) The sentence of
the court-martial includes-
(A) A bad-conduct discharge, dishonorable discharge, or dismissal;
(B) A term of
confinement, or terms of
confinement running consecutively, more than six
months; or
(C) Death.
(b) Umitation qfauthority on.findings. For any court-martial described under subsection (a),
the convening authority may not set aside, disapprove, or take any other action on the findings
ofthe court-martial.
(c) Limited authority to act on sentence. For any court-martial described under subsection (a),
the convening authority may-
(1) Modify a bad-conduct discharge, dishonorable discharge, or dismissal only as provided
in subsections (e) and (f);
(2) Modify a term of
con±1nement of
more than six months, or terms of
cont1nement that
running consecutively are more than six months, only as provided in subsections (e) and (f);
(3) Reduce or commute a punishment of death only as provided in subsection (e);
(4) Reduce, commute, or suspend, in whole or in part, any punishment adjudged for an
o±Tense tried under the law of
war other than the punishments specified in paragraphs (
1
), (2
),
and (3);
(5) Reduce, commute, or suspend, in whole or in part, the following punishments:
(A) The con±1nement portion of
a sentence if
the con±1nement portion of
the sentence is
six months or less, to include tenns of cont1nement that running consecutively total six months
or less;
(B) A reprimand;
(C) Forfeiture of
pay or allowances;
(D) A fine;
(E) Reduction in pay grade;
(F) Restriction to specified limits; and
(G) Hard labor without confinement.
(d) General Considerations.
(1) Who may take action. If
it is impracticable for the convening authority to act under this
rule, the convening authority shall, in accordance with such regulations as the Secretary
concerned may prescribe, fonvard the case to an officer exercising general court-martial
jurisdiction who may take action under this rule.
(2) Legal advice. In determining whether to take action, or to decline taking action under
this rule, the convening authority shall consult with the staff
judge advocate or legal advisor.
(3) Consideration qfmatters.
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(A) Matters submitted by accused and crime victim. Before taking or declining to take
any action on the sentence under this rule, the convening authority shall consider matters timely
submitted under R.C.M. 1106 and 1106A, if
any, by the accused and any crime victim.
(B) Additional matters. Before taking action the convening authority may consider-
(i) The Statement of
Trial Results;
(ii) The evidence introduced at the court-martial, any appellate exhibits, and the
recording or transcription of
the proceedings, subject to the provisions ofR.C.M. 1113 and
subparagraph (C);
(iii) The personnel records of
the accused; and
(iv) Such other matters as the convening authority deems appropriate.
(C) Prohibited matters.
(i) Accused. The convening authority may not consider matters adverse to the accused
that were not admitted at the court-martial, with knowledge of which the accused is not
chargeable, unless the accused is first notified and given an opportunity to rebut.
(ii) Crime victim. The convening authority shall not consider any matters that relate to
the character of a crime victim unless such matters were presented as evidence at trial and not
excluded at trial.
(3) Timing. Except as provided in subsection (e), any action taken by the convening
authority under this rule shall be taken prior to entry of
judgment. If
the convening authority
decides to take no action, that decision shall be transmitted promptly to the military judge as
provided under subsection (g).
(e) Reduction o.fsentence for substantial assistance by accused
(1) in general. A convening authority may reduce, commute, or suspend the sentence of
an
accused, in whole or in part, if
the accused has provided substantial assistance in the criminal
investigation or prosecution of
another person.
(2) Trial counsel. A convening authority may reduce the sentence of
an accused under this
subsection only upon the recommendation of
trial counsel who prosecuted the accused. If
the
person who served as trial counsel is no longer serving in that position, or is not reasonably
available, the attorney who is primarily responsible for the investigation or prosecution in
which the accused has provided substantial assistance, and who represents the United States, is
trial counsel for the purposes of
this subsection. The recommendation of
trial counsel is the
decision oftrial counsel alone. No person may direct trial counsel to make or not make such a
recommendation.
(3) Who may act.
(A) Before entry of
judgment, the convening authority may act on the recommendation
of
trial counsel under paragraph (2).
(B) After entry of judgment, the officer exercising general court-martial jurisdiction
over the command to which the accused is assigned may act on the recommendation of
trial
counsel under paragraph (2).
(4) Scope of
authority. A convening authority authorized to act under paragraph (3) may
accept the recommendation of trial counsel under paragraph (2) of
this subsection, and may
reduce, commute, or suspend a sentence in whole or in part, including any mandatory
minimum sentence.
(5) Limitations.
(A) A sentence of death may not be suspended under this subsection.
(B) ill the case of a recommendation by trial counsel under paragraph (2) of this subsection
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made more than one year after entry of
judgment, the officer exercising general court-matiial
jurisdiction over the command to which the accused is assigned may reduce a sentence only if
the substantial assistance of
the accused involved-
(i) Infonnation not known to the accused until one year or more after sentencing;
(ii) Information the usefulness of
which could not reasonably have been anticipated by
the accused until more than one year after sentencing and which was promptly provided to the
Government after its usefulness was reasonably apparent to the accused; or
(iii) Information provided by the accused to the Government within one year of
sentencing, but which did not become useful to the Govemment until more than one year after
sentencing.
(6) Evaluating substantial assistance. In evaluating whether the accused has provided
substantial assistance, the trial counsel and convening authority may consider the presentence
assistance of
the accused.
(7) Action qfter entr,y ofjudgment. If
the officer exercising general court-martial jurisdiction
over the command to which the accused is assigned acts on the sentence of an accused after
entry of
judgment, the convening authority's action shall be forwarded to the chief trial judge.
The chief trial judge, or a military judge detailed by the chief
trial judge, shall modify the
judgment of
the court-martial to reflect the action by the convening authority. The action by the
convening authority and the modified judgment shall be forwarded to the Judge Advocate
General and shall be included in the original record of
trial. A sentence which is reduced under
this mle shall not abridge any right of
the accused to appellate review.
(t) Suspension.
(1) The convening authority may suspend a sentence of
a dishonorable discharge, bad-
conduct discharge, dismissal, or confinement in excess of six months, if-
(
A) The Statement of
Trial Results filed under R.C.M. 1101 includes a recommendation by
the military judge that the convening authority suspend the sentence, in whole or in part; and
(B) The military judge includes a statement explaining the basis for the suspension
recommendation.
(2) If
the convening authority suspends a sentence under this subsection-
(A) The portion of
the sentence that is to be suspended may not exceed the portion of
the
sentence that the military judge recommended be suspended;
(B) The duration of
the suspension may not be less than that recommended by the military
judge; and
(C) The suspended portion of the sentence may be tenninated by remission only as
provided in R.C.M. 1107(e).
(3) A sentence that is suspended under this mle shall comply with the procedures prescribed
in R.C.M. 1107(c), (d), and (e).
(g) Decision; forwarding ofdecision and related matters.
(1) No action. If
the convening authority decides to take no action on the sentence under this
mle, the staff
judge advocate or legal advisor shall notify the military judge of
this decision.
(2) Action on sentence. If the convening authority decides to act on the sentence under
this mle, such action shall be in writing and shall include a written statement explaining the
action. If
any part of the sentence is disapproved, the action shall clearly state which part or
parts are disapproved. The convening authority's staff
judge advocate or legal advisor shall
forward the action with the written explanation to the military judge to be attached to the
record of
trial.
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(h) Service on accused and crime victim. If the convening authority took any action on the
sentence under this rule, a copy of such action shall be served on the accused, crime victim, or
on their respective counsel. If
the action is served on counsel, counsel shall, by expeditious
means, provide the accused or crime victim with a copy. If the judgment is entered
expeditiously, service of
the judgment will satisfy the requirements of
this subsection.
Rule 1110. Action by convening authority in certain general and special courts-martial
(a) In general. This rule applies to the post-trial actions of
the convening authority in any
general or special court-martial not specified in R.C.M. 11 09(a).
(b)Action onfindings. In any court-martial subject to this rule, action on findings is not
required; however, the convening authority may-
(1) Change a finding of
guilty to a charge or specification to a finding of
guilty to an offense
that is a lesser included offense of
the offense stated in the charge or specification; or
(2) Set aside any finding of
guilty and-
(
A) Dismiss the specification and, if
appropriate, the charge; or
(B) Order a rehearing in accordance with the procedures set forth in RC.M. 810.
A rehearing may not be ordered as to findings of guilty when there is a lack of
sufficient
evidence in the record to support the findings of
guilty of
the otTense charged or of any lesser
included offense. A rehearing may be ordered, however, if
the proof of
guilt consisted of
inadmissible evidence for which there is available an admissible substitute. A rehearing may be
ordered as to any lesser offense included in an offense of
which the accused was found guilty,
provided there is sufficient evidence in the record to support the lesser included offense.
(c) Action on sentence.
(1) 1n any court-martial subject to this mle, action on the sentence is not required; however,
the convening authority may disapprove, reduce, commute, or suspend, in whole or in part, the
court-martial sentence. If the sentence is disapproved, the convening authority may order a
rehearing on the sentence.
(2) In any court-martial subject to this mle, the convening authority, after entry ofjudgment,
may reduce a sentence for substantial assistance in accordance with the procedures under
R.C.M. 1109(e).
(d) Procedures. The convening authority shall use the same procedures as in subsections (d)
and (h) ofR.C.M. 1109 for any post-trial action on findings and sentence under this rule.
(e) Decision; forwarding of
decision and related matters.
(
1) No action. If
the convening authority decides to take no action on the findings or
sentence under this mle, the convening authority's staff
judge advocate or legal advisor shall
notify the military judge of
the decision.
(2) Action on
findings. If
the convening authority decides to act on the findings under this
mle, the action of
the convening authority shall be in writing and shall include a written
statement explaining the reasons for the action. If a rehearing is not ordered, the affected
charges and specifications shall be dismissed by the convening authority in the action. The
convening authority's staff
judge advocate or legal advisor shall forward the action with the
written explanation to the military judge to be attached to the record of trial.
(3) Action on sentence. If
the convening authority decides to act on the sentence under this
mle, the action of
the convening authority on the sentence shall be in writing and shall include a
written statement explaining the reasons for the action. If any part of the sentence is
disapproved, the action shall clearly state which part or parts are disapproved. The convening
authority's staff
judge advocate or legal advisor shall forward the action with the written
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explanation to the military judge to be attached to the record of
trial.
Rule 1111. Entry of
judgment
(a) In general.
(1) Scope. Under regulations prescribed by the Secreta1y concerned, the military judge of a
general or special comi-matiial shall enter into the record of
trial the judgment of
the court. If
the
Chief Trial Judge determines that the military judge is not reasonably available, the Chief Trial
Judge may detail another military judge to enter the judgment.
(2) Purpose. The judgment reflects the result of the court-martial, as modified by any post-
trial actions, rulings, or orders. The entry of
judgment terminates the trial proceedings and
initiates the appellate process.
(3) Summary courts-martial. In a summary court-martial, the findings and sentence of
the
court-martial, as modified or approved by the convening authority, constitute the judgment of
the
court-martial. A separate document need not be issued.
(b) Contents. The judgment of
the court shall be signed and dated by the military judge and shall
consist of-
(1) Findings. For each charge and specification referred to trial-
(
A) a summary of
each charge and specification;
(B) the plea of
the accused; and
(C) the findings or other disposition of
each charge and specification accounting for any
modifications made by reason of
any post-trial action by the convening authority or any post-trial
ruling, order, or other determination by the military judge;
(2) Sentence. The sentence, accounting for any modifications made by reason of
any post-
trial action by the convening authority or any post-trial ruling, order, or other determination by
the military judge, as well as the total amount of sentence credit, if any, to be applied to the
accused's sentence to confinement. If
the accused was convicted of
more than one specification
and any part of
the sentence was determined by a military judge, the judgment shall also
specify-
(A) the confinement and fine for each specification, if
any;
(B) whether any term of
confinement shall run consecutively or concurrently with any
other term(
s) of
confinement; and
(C) the total amount of any fine(s) and the total duration of
confinement to be served,
after accounting for the following-
(i) any tenns of confinement that are to run consecutively or concurrently; and
(ii) any modifications to the sentence made by reason of
any post-trial action by the
convening authority or any post-trial ruling, order, or other detennination by the military judge.
(3) Additional iriformation.
(A) Deferment. If
the accused requested that any p01iion of
the sentence be deferred, the
judgment shall specify the nature of
the request, the convening authority's action, the effective
date if
approved, and, if
the deferment ended prior to the entry of
judgment, the date the
deferment ended.
(B) Waiver ofautomaticjOTjeitures. If
the accused requested that automatic forfeitures be
waived by the convening authority under Article 5
8b, the judgment shall specify the nature of
the
request, the convening authority's action, and the effective date and length, if
approved.
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(C) Suspension. If
the Statement of Trial Results included a recommendation by the
military judge that a portion of
the sentence be suspended, the judgment shall specify the action
of
the convening authority on the recommendation.
(D) Reprimand. If
the sentence included a reprimand, the judgment shall contain the
reprimand issued by the convening authority.
(E) Rehearing. If
the judgment is entered after a rehearing, new trial or other trial, the
judgment shall specify any sentence limitation applicable by operation of
Article 63.
(F) Other information. Any additional information that the Secretary concerned may
require by regulation.
(4) Statement of
Trial Results. The Statement of
Trial Results shall be included in the
judgment in accordance with regulations prescribed by the Secretary concerned.
(c) A1od?fication C?fjudgment. The judgment may be modified as follows-
( I) The military judge who entered a judgment may modify the judgment to correct
computational or clerical errors within 14 days after the judgment was initially entered.
(2) The Judge Advocate General, the Court of
Criminal Appeals, and the Court of Appeals for
the Armed Forces may modify a judgment in the performance of
their duties and responsibilities.
(3) If a case is remanded to a military judge, the military judge may modify the judgment
consistent with the purposes of
the remand.
(
4) Any modification to the judgment of
a court-martial must be included in the record of
trial.
(d) Rehearings, new trials, and other trial'S. In the case of a rehearing, new trial, or other trial, the
military judge shall enter a new judgment into the record of
trial to reflect the results of
the
rehearing, new trial, or other trial.
(e) Whenjudgment is entered
(1) Courts-martial without a
.finding of
guilty. When a court-martial results in a full acquittal
or when a court-martial terminates before findings, the judgment shall be entered as soon as
practicable. When a court-martial results in a flnding of
not guilty only by reason oflack of
mental responsibility of
all charges and specifications, the judgment shall be entered as soon as
practicable after a hearing is conducted under R. C
.M. 1105.
(2) Courts-martial
1v ith a finding of
guilty. If a court-martial includes a finding of guilty to
any specification or charge, the judgment shall be entered as soon as practicable after the staff
judge advocate or legal advisor notifies the military judge of
the convening authority's post-trial
action or decision to take no action under R.C.M. 1109 or 1110, as applicable.
(f) Publication.
(
1) The judgment shall be entered into the record of
trial.
(2) A copy of
the judgment shall be provided to the accused or to the accused's defense
counsel. If
the judgment is served on defense counsel, defense counsel shall, by expeditious
means, provide the accused with a copy.
(3) A copy of
the judgment shall be provided upon request to any crime victim or crime
victim's counsel in the case, without regard to whether the accused was convicted or acquitted of
any offense.
(4) The commander of
the accused or the convening authority may publish the judgment of
the court-martial to their respective commands.
(5) Under regulations prescribed by the Secretary of
Defense, court-martial judgments shall
be made available to the public.
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Rule 1112. Certification of record of trial; general and special courts-martial
(a) In general. Each general and special court-martial shall keep a separate record of
the
proceedings in each case brought before it. The record shall be independent of any other
document and shall include a recording of
the court-martial. Court-martial proceedings may be
recorded by videotape, audiotape, or other technology from which sound images may be
reproduced to accurately depict the court-martial.
(b) Contents of
the record of
trial. The record of
trial contains the court
-martial proceedings,
and includes any evidence or exhibits considered by the court-martial in determining the
findings or sentence. The record of
trial in every general and special court
-martial shall include:
(1) A substantially verbatim recording of
the court-martial proceedings except sessions
closed for deliberations and voting;
(2) The original charge sheet or a duplicate;
(3) A copy of
the convening order and any amending order;
(4) The request, if any, for trial by military judge alone; the accused's election, if
any, of
members under RC.M. 903; and, when applicable, any statement by the convening authority
required under R.C.M. 503(a)(2);
(5) The election, if
any, for sentencing by members in lieu of sentencing by military judge
under R.C.M. 1
002(b
);
(6) Exhibits, or, if permitted by the military judge, copies, photographs, or descriptions of
any exhibits that were received in evidence and any appellate exhibits;
(7) The Statement of
Trial Results;
(8) Any action by the convening authority under R. C.M. 1109 or 111 0; and
(9) The judgment entered into the record by the military judge.
(c) Cert[fication. A court reporter shall prepare and certify that the record of
trial includes all
items required under subsection (b). If
the court reporter cannot certify the record of
trial
because of
the court reporter's death, disability, or absence, the military judge shall certify the
record of
trial.
(1) l'iming (if
certification. The record of
trial shall be certified as soon as practicable after
the judgment has been entered into the record.
(2) Additional
proceedings. If additional proceedings are held after the court reporter
certifies the record, a record of
those proceedings shall be included in the record of
trial, and a
court reporter shall prepare a supplemental certification.
(d) Loss of
record, incomplete record, and correction of
record.
(1) If
the certified record ofttial is lost or destroyed, a court reporter shall, if
practicable,
certify another record of
trial.
(2) A record of
ttial is complete if
it complies with the requirements of subsection (b). If
the
record is incomplete or defective, a court reporter or any party may raise the matter to the
military judge for appropriate corrective action. A record of
trial found to be incomplete or
defective before or after certification may be corrected to make it accurate. A superior
competent authority may return a record of
trial to the military judge for correction under this
rule. The military judge shall give notice of
the proposed correction to all parties and permit
them to examine and respond to the proposed correction. All parties shall be given reasonable
access to any court reporter notes or recordings of the proceedings.
(3) The military judge may take corrective action by any of the following means-
(
A) reconstructing the portion of
the record affected;
(B) dismissing affected specifications;
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(C) reducing the sentence of
the accused; or
(D) if
the error was raised by motion or on appeal by the defense, declaring a mistrial as
to the affected specifications.
(e) Copies of
the record qf'
trial.
(I) Accused and victim. Any victim entitled to a copy of
the ce1tified record of
trial shall be
notified of
the opportunity to receive a copy of
the certified record of
trial. Following
certification of
the record of
trial under subsection (c), in every general and special comt-
martial, subject to paragraphs (3) and (4), a court reporter shall, in accordance with regulations
issued by the Secretary concerned, provide a copy of the certified record of
ttial free of
charge
to-
(
A) The accused;
(B) The victim of
an offense of
which the accused was charged if
the victim testified
during the proceedings; and
(C) Any victim named in a specification of
which the accused was charged, upon request,
without regard to the findings of
the comt-martial.
(2) Providing copy impracticable. If
it is impracticable to provide the record oftrial to an
individual entitled to receive a copy under paragraph (1) because of
the unauthorized absence
of
the individual, or military exigency, or if
the individual so requests on the record at the
court-martial or in writing, the individual's copy of
the record shall be forwarded to the
individual's counsel, if
any.
(3) Sealed exhibits; classified information; closed sessions. Any copy of
the record of
trial
provided to an individual under paragraph (1) shall not contain classified information,
information under seal, or recordings of closed sessions of
the court-martial, and shall be
handled as follows:
(A) Classified information.
(i) Forwarding to convening authority. If
the copy of
the record of
trial prepared tbr
an individual under this rule contains classified information, trial counsel, unless directed
otherwise by the convening authority, shall forward the individual's copy to the convening
authority, before it is provided to the individual.
(ii) Responsibility of
the convening authority. The convening authority shall:
(I) cause any classified information to be deleted or withdrawn from the
individual's copy ofthe record oftrial;
(II) cause a certificate indicating that classified information has been deleted or
withdrawn to be attached to the record of trial; and
(III) cause the expurgated copy of
the record of
trial and the attached certificate
regarding classified information to be provided to the individual as provided in subparagraphs
(l)(A), (B), and (C).
(iii) Contents of
certificate. The certificate regarding deleted or withdrawn classified
information shall indicate:
(I) that the original record of
trial may be inspected in the Office of
the Judge
Advocate General under such regulations as the Secretary concerned may prescribe;
(II) the locations in the record of
trial from which matter has been deleted;
(III) the locations in the record of
trial which have been entirely deleted; and
(IV) the exhibits which have been withdrawn.
(B) Sealed exhibits and closed sessions. The court reporter shall delete or withdraw from
an individual's copy ofthe record of trial-
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(i) any matter ordered sealed by the military judge under R.C.M. 1113; and
(ii) any recording or transcript of
a session that was ordered closed by the military
judge, to include closed sessions held pursuant to Mil. R. Evid. 412, 513, and 514.
(4) Portions c{the record
protected by the Privacy Act. Any copy ofthe record of
trial
provided to a victim under paragraph (1) shall not contain any portion ofthe record the release
of
which would unlawfully violate the privacy interests of any person other than that victim, to
include those privacy interests recognized by 5 U.S. C. § 552a, the Privacy Act of 1974.
(5) Additional copies. The convening or higher authority may direct that additional copies of
the record of
trial of any general or special court-martial be prepared.
(f) Attachnwnts
for appellate review. In accordance ·with regulations prescribed by the
Secretary concerned, a court reporter shall attach the following matters to the record before the
certified record of
trial is forwarded to the office of the Judge Advocate General for appellate
rev1ew:
(1) If
not used as exhibits-
(A) The preliminary hearing report under Article 32, if
any;
(B) The pretrial advice under Article 34, if any;
(C) If
the trial was a rehearing or new or other trial of
the case, the record of any former
hearings; and
(D) Written special findings, if
any, by the military judge;
(2) Exhibits or, with the permission of
the military judge, copies, photographs, or
descriptions of any exhibits which were marked for and referred to on the record but not
received in evidence;
(3) Any matter flied by the accused or victim under R.C.M. 1106 or 1106A, or any written
waiver of
the right to submit such matters;
(4) Any deferment request and the action on it;
(5) Conditions of suspension, if
any, and proof of service on probationer under RC.M.
1107;
(6) Any waiver or withdrawal of appellate review under R.C.M. 1115;
(7) Records of any proceedings in connection with a vacation of suspension of
the sentence
under R.C.M. 1108;
(8) Any transcription of
the court-martial proceedings created pursuant to R.C.M. 1114; and
(9) Any redacted materials.
(g) Security classification If
the record of
trial contains matters that must be classified under
applicable security regulations, trial counsel shall cause a proper security classification to be
assigned to the record oftrial and on each page thereof on which classified material appears.
Rule 1113. Sealed exhibits, proceedings, and other materials
(a) In general. If
the report of preliminary hearing or record of
trial contains exhibits,
proceedings, or other materials ordered sealed by the preliminary hearing officer or military
judge, counsel for the Government, the court reporter, or trial counsel shall cause such
materials to be sealed so as to prevent unauthorized examination or disclosure. Counsel for the
Government, the court reporter, or trial counsel shall ensure that such materials are properly
marked, including an annotation that the material was sealed by order of
the preliminary
hearing officer or military judge, and inserted at the appropriate place in the record of
trial.
Copies of
the report of
preliminary hearing or record of trial shall contain appropriate
annotations that materials were sealed by order of the preliminary hearing officer or military
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judge and have been inserted in the report of preliminary hearing or record of
trial. This rule
shall be implemented in a manner consistent with Executive Order 13526, concerning
classified national security information.
(b) Examination and disclosure of
sealed materials. Except as provided in this rule, sealed
materials may not be examined or disclosed.
(1) Prior to referral. Prior to referral of charges, the following individuals may examine and
disclose sealed materials only if
necessary for proper fulfillment of
their responsibilities under
the UCMJ, this Manual, governing directives, instructions, regulations, applicable rules for
practice and procedure, or rules of
professional conduct: the judge advocate advising the
convening authority who directed the Article 32 preliminary hearing; the convening authority
who directed the Article 32 preliminary hearing; the staff
judge advocate to the general court-
martial convening authority; a military judge detailed to an Article 30a proceeding; and the
general court-martial convening authority.
(2) Referral through cert(fication. After referral of charges and prior to certification of the
record under R.C.M. 1112(c), sealed mate1ials may not be examined or disclosed in the absence
of
an order from the military judge based upon good cause.
(3) Reviewing and
appellate authorities; appellate counsel.
(A) F:xamination hy revieHling and
appellate authorities. Reviewing and appellate
authorities may examine sealed matters when those authorities determine that examination is
reasonably necessary to a proper fulfillment of
their responsibilities under the UCMJ, this
Manual, governing directives, instructions, regulations, applicable rules for practice and
procedure, or rules of
professional conduct.
(B) lixamination by appellate counsel. Appellate counsel may examine sealed matetials
subject to the following procedures.
(i) Sealed materials released to trial counsel or defense counsel. Materials presented or
reviewed at trial and sealed, as well as materials reviewed in camera, released to trial counsel or
defense counsel, and sealed, may be examined by appellate counsel upon a colorable showing to
the reviewing or appellate authority that examination is reasonably necessary to a proper
fulfillment of
the appellate counsel's responsibilities under the UCMJ, this Manual, governing
directives, instmctions, regulations, applicable rules for practice and procedure, or rules of
professional conduct.
(ii) Sealed materials reviewed in camera but not released to trial counsel or defense
counsel. Materials reviewed in camera by a military judge, not released to trial counsel or
defense counsel, and sealed may be examined by reviewing or appellate authorities. After
examination of
said materials, the reviewing or appellate authority may permit examination by
appellate counsel for good cause.
(C) Disclosure. Appellate counsel shall not disclose sealed materials in the absence of:
(i) Prior authorization of
the Judge Advocate General in the case of
review under
R.C.M. 120land 1210; or
(ii) Prior authorization of
the appellate comi before which a case is pending review
under R.C.M. 1203 and 1204.
(D) For purposes of
this rule, reviewing and appellate authorities are limited to:
(i) Judge advocates reviewing records pursuant to R.C.M. 1307;
(ii) Officers and attorneys in the office of the Judge Advocate General reviewing
records pursuant to R. C
.M. 120 1 and 121 0;
(iii) Appellate judges of the Courts of
Criminal Appeals and their professional staffs;
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(iv) The judges of
the United States Court of
Appeals for the Armed Forces and their
professional staffs;
(v) The Justices of
the United States Supreme Court and their professional staffs; and
(vi) Any other court of
competent jurisdiction.
(
4) Ex:amination of
sealed
materials. For purposes of
this rule, "examination" includes
reading, inspecting, and viewing.
(5) Disclosure of
sealed materials. For purposes of
this rule, "disclosure" includes
photocopying, photographing, disseminating, releasing, manipulating, or communicating the
contents of sealed materials in any way.
(6) Notwithstanding any other provision of
this rule, in those cases in which review is sought
or pending before the United States Supreme Court, authorization to disclose sealed materials or
information shall be obtained under that Court's rules of
practice and procedure.
Rule 1114. Transcription of proceedings
(a) Transcription of
complete record A certified verbatim transcript of
the record of
trial shall
be prepared-
(1) When the judgment entered into the record includes a sentence of death, dismissal of
a
commissioned officer, cadet, or midshipman, a dishonorable or bad-conduct discharge, or
confinement for more than six months; or
(2) As otherwise required by court rule, court order, or under regulations prescribed by the
Secretary concerned.
(b) Transcription (?{portions £?{the record A certified verbatim transcript of
relevant portions
of
the record of
trial shall be prepared-
( I) Upon application of
a party as approved by the military judge, any court, or the Judge
Advocate General; or
(2) As otherwise required under regulations prescribed by the Secretary concerned.
(c) Cost. Any certified transcript required by this rule shall be prepared without cost to the
accused.
(d) inclusion in the record of
trial. If
a certified transcript is made under this rule, it shall be
attached to the record of
trial.
(e)Authority. The Secretary concerned shall presc1ibe by regulation the procedure for preparing
and certifying a transcript under this rule.
Rule 1115. Waiver or withdrawal of appellate review
(a) In general. After any general court-martial, except one in which the judgment entered into the
record includes a sentence of
death, and after any special court-martial in which the judgment
entered into the record includes a bad-conduct discharge or confinement for more than six
months, the accused may waive or withdraw the right to appellate review by a Court of
Criminal
Appeals. The accused may sign a waiver of
the right to appeal at any time after entry of
judgment and may withdraw an appeal at any time before such review is completed.
(b) Right to counsel.
(1) In general. The accused shall have the right to consult with qualified counsel before
submitting a waiver or withdrawal of
appellate review.
(2) Waiver.
(A) Counsel who represented the accused at the court-martial. The accused shall have the
1ight to consult with any civilian, individual military, or detailed counsel who represented the
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accused at the court-martial concerning whether to waive appellate review unless such counsel
has been excused under R.C.M. 505(d)(2)(B).
(B) Associate counsel. If counsel who represented the accused at the court-martial has
not been excused but is not immediately available to consult with the accused because of
physical separation or other reasons, associate defense counsel shall be detailed to the accused
upon request by the accused. Such counsel shall communicate with the counsel who
represented the accused at the court-mmtial, and shall advise the accused concerning whether
to waive appellate review.
(C) Substitute counsel. If
counsel who represented the accused at the court-martial has
been excused under R.C.M. 505(d)(2)(B), substitute defense counsel shall be detailed to
advise the accused concerning waiver of appellate rights.
(3) Withdrawal.
(A) Appellate defense counsel. Tfthe accused is represented by appellate defense counsel,
the accused shall have the right to consult "~lv1th such counsel concerning whether to withdraw an
appeal.
(B) Associate defens·e counsel. Tfthe accused is represented by appellate defense counsel,
and such counsel is not immediately available to consult with the accused because of physical
separation or other reasons, associate defense counsel shall be detailed to the accused, upon
request by the accused. Such counsel shall communicate with appellate defense counsel and shall
advise the accused whether to withdraw an appeal.
(C) No counsel. If appellate defense counsel has not been assigned to the accused, defense
counsel shall be detailed for the accused. Such counsel shall advise the accused concerning
whether to withdraw an appeal.
(4) Civilian counsel. Whether or not the accused was represented by civilian counsel at the
court-martial, the accused may consult with civilian counsel, at no expense to the United States,
concerning whether to waive or withdraw appellate review.
(S)Record of
trial. Any defense counsel with whom the accused consults under this rule shall
be given reasonable opportunity to examine the record of
trial and any attachments.
(6) Right to consult. The right to consult with counsel, as used in this rule, does not require
communication in the presence of
one another.
(c) Compulsion, coercion, and inducement prohibited. No person may compel, coerce, or induce
an accused by force, promises of
clemency, or otherwise to waive or withdraw appellate review.
(d) Form ofwaiver or 1-vithdrmval. A waiver or withdrawal of
appellate review shall:
(1) Be written;
(2) State that the accused and defense counsel have discussed the accused's rights to appellate
review and the effect of
waiver or withdrawal of appellate review and that the accused
understands these matters;
(3) State that the waiver or withdrawal is submitted voluntarily; and
(4) Be signed by the accused and by defense counsel.
(e) To whom submitted.
(1) Waiver. A waiver of appellate review shall be filed with the convening authmity or the
Judge Advocate General. The waiver shall be attached to the record of
trial.
(2) Withdrawal. A withdrawal of appellate review may be filed with the authority exercising
general court-martial jurisdiction over the accused, who shall promptly forward it to the Judge
Advocate General, or directly with the Judge Advocate General. The withdrawal shall be
attached to the record of
trial.
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(f) Effect ofwaiver or withdrawal; substantial compliance required
(1) In general. A valid waiver or withdrawal of appellate review under this rule shall bar
review by the Court of
Criminal Appeals. Once submitted, a waiver or withdrawal in compliance
with this rule may not be revoked.
(2) Waiver. If
the accused files a waiver of appellate review in accordance with this rule, the
record of
trial and attachments shall be forwarded for review by a judge advocate under R.C.M.
1201.
(3) Withdrawal. Action on a withdrawal of
appellate review shall be carried out in accordance
with procedures established by the Judge Advocate General, or if
the case is pending before a
Court of
Criminal Appeals, in accordance with the rules of
such court. If
the appeal is
withdrawn, the record of trial and attachments shall be forwarded for review in accordance with
R.C.M. 1201.
(4) Substantial compliance required A purported waiver or withdrawal of
an appeal which
does not substantially comply with this rule shall have no effect.
Rule 1116. Transmittal of records of trial for general and special courts-mat·tial
(a) Ca.<,·es.fonvarded to the Judge Advocate General. In all general and special courts-martial in
which the judgment includes a finding of
guilty, the certified record of
trial and attachments
required under R.C.M. lll2(f) shall be sent directly to the Judge Advocate General concerned.
Forwarding an electronic copy ofthe certified record of
trial and attachments satisfies the
requirements under this rule. The records of
trial in general and special courts-martial without a
finding of
guilty shall be disposed of
in accordance with the regulations of
the Secretary
concerned.
(b) Transmittal (lrecord~'for
cases eligible for appellate review by a Court (!{Criminal
Appeals.
(1) Automatic review. Except when the accused has waived or withdrawn the right to
appellate review, if
the court-martial judgment includes a sentence of death, dismissal of
a
commissioned officer, cadet, or midshipman, a dishonorable or bad-conduct discharge, or
confinement for 2 years or more, the Judge Advocate General shall forward the certified record
of
trial and attachments required under R.C.M. 1112(f) to the Court of Criminal Appeals for
automatic review under Article 66(b)(3).
(A) A copy of
the record of
trial and attachments shall be forwarded to appellate defense
counsel in accordance with rules prescribed by the Secretary concerned. If
the record forwarded
does not include a written transcript of
the proceedings, the Government shall provide appellate
defense counsel with appropriate equipment for playback of
the recording and with either-
(i) the means to transform the recording into a text fonnat through voice recognition
software or similar means; or
(ii) a transcription of
the record in either printed or digital format.
(B) Upon written request of
the accused, a copy of
the record and attachments shall be
forwarded to a civilian counsel provided by the accused.
(C) Copies of
the record provided under subparagraph (b)(l)(A) of
this rule shall not
include sealed exhibits, recordings or transcriptions of closed sessions, or classified matters.
(2) Cases eligible for direct appeal by the accused Except when the accused has waived or
withdrawn the right to appeal under Article 61, if a general and special court-martial is not
subject to automatic review under Article 66(b
)(3) but is eligible for review under Article
66(b)(l), the Judge Advocate General shall provide notice to the accused of
the right to file an
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appeal either by depositing the notice in the United States mails for delivery by first class
certified mail to the accused at an address provided by the accused, or, if the accused has not
provided an address, to the latest address listed for the accused in the official service record of
the accused. Proof of service shall be attached to the record of
trial.
(A) The Judge Advocate General shall fon:vard a copy of
the record of
trial and
attachments required under R.C.M. 1112(f) to an appellate defense counsel who shall be
detailed to review the case, and upon request of
the accused, to represent the accused before the
Court of Criminal Appeals.
(B) The record of
trial and attachments required under R.C.M. 1112(f) shall be forwarded
in accordance with the procedures set forth in subparagraphs (b
)(l)(A)-(C) of
this rule.
(c) Reviell" qf
cases not eligible for appellate review by a Court qf
Criminal Appeals. General
and special courts-martial not eligible for appellate review under Article 66(b)(l) or (3) shall be
reviewed under Article 65(d)(2).
(d) Review when appellate review by a Court qfCriminal Appeals is 1vaived, withdrmvn, or not
filed In a general or special cowt-martial in which the accused waives the right to appellate
review or withdraws an appeal under Article 61, or fails to file a timely appeal in a case eligible
for review by the Court of
Criminal Appeals under Article 66(b
)(1 ), the case shall be reviewed
under Article 65(d)(3).
Rule 1117. Appeal of sentence by the United States
(a) In general. With the approval of
the Judge Advocate General concerned, the Government
may appeal a sentence announced under R.C.M. 1007 to the Court of
Criminal Appeals on the
grounds that
(1) the sentence violates the law; or
(2) the sentence is plainly unreasonable.
(b) Timing.
(1) An appeal under this rule must be tlled within 60 days after the date on which the
judgment of
the court-martial is entered into the record under R.C.M. 1111.
(2) Any request for approval must be submitted in sufficient time to obtain and consider
submissions under paragraph (c)(4) ofthis rule.
(c) Approval
process.
(1) A request from the Government to the Judge Advocate General for approval of
an appeal
under this rule shall include a statement of reasons in support of
an appeal under paragraph (a)( I)
or (a)(2), as applicable, based upon the information contained in the record before the sentencing
authority at the time the sentence was announced under R.C.M. 1007.
(2) A statement of reasons in support of an appeal under paragraph (a)(l) shall identify the
specific provisions of
law at issue and the facts in the record demonstrating a violation of
the law
in the announced sentence under R. C.M. 1007.
(3) A statement of reasons in support of
an appeal under paragraph (a)(2) shall identify the
facts in the record that demonstrate by clear and convincing evidence that the sentence
announced under R.C.M. 1007 was plainly unreasonable because no reasonable sentencing
authority would adjudge such a sentence in view of
the record before the sentencing authority at
the time the sentence was announced under R.C.M. 1007.
(4) Prior to acting on a request from the Government, the Judge Advocate General shall
transmit the request to the military judge who presided over the presentencing proceeding for
purposes of
providing the military judge, the parties, and any person who, at the time of
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sentencing, was a crime victim as defined by R.C.M. 1001(c)(2)(A), with an opportunity to make
a submission addressing the statement of reasons in the Government's request.
(A) The military judge shall establish the time for the parties and crime victims to provide
such a submission to the military judge, and for the military judge to forward all submissions to
the Judge Advocate General. The military judge shall ensure that the parties have not less than 7
days to prepare, review, and transmit such submissions.
(B) Submissions under this paragraph shall not include facts beyond the record established
at the time the sentence was announced under R. C
.M. 1007.
(5) The decision of
the Judge Advocate General as to whether to approve a request shall be
based on the inforn1ation developed under this rule.
(6) If an appeal is approved by the Judge Advocate General and submitted to the Court of
Criminal Appeals under this rule, the following shall be included with the appeal: the statement
of
approval, the Government's request and statement of
reasons under paragraph (
c)(2) or (3),
and any submissions under paragraph (c)(4).
(d) Contents l?f the record l?f trial. Unless the record has been forwarded to the Court of
Criminal Appeals for review under R.C.M. 1116(b
), the record of
trial for an appeal under this
rule shall consist of-
(1) any portion of
the record in the case that is designated as pertinent by either of
the parties;
(2) the information submitted during the presentencing proceeding; and
(3) any information required by rule or order of
the Court of Criminal Appeals.
(e) Standard A sentence is plainly unreasonable if
no reasonable sentencing authority would
detennine such a sentence in view of
the record before the sentencing authority at the time the
sentence was announced under R. C .M. 1007.
Rule 1201. Review by the Judge Advocate General
(a) Review qf
certain general and
.~pecial
courts-martial. Except as provided in subsection (b),
an attorney designated by the Judge Advocate General shall review:
(1) Each general and special court-martial case that is not eligible for appellate review by a
Court of Criminal Appeals under Article 66(b
)(
1) or (3 ); and
(2) Each general or special court-martial eligible for appellate review by a Court of Criminal
Appeals in which the Court of Criminal Appeals does not review the case because:
(A) In a case under Article 66(b
)(3 ), other than one in which the sentence includes death,
the accused withdraws direct appeal or waives the right to appellate review.
(B) In a case under Article 66(b
)(
1
), the accused does not file a timely appeal, or files a
timely appeal and then withdraws it.
(b) Exception. If
the accused was found not guilty or not guilty only by reason of
lack of
mental
responsibility of
all offenses, or if
the convening authority set aside all findings of
guilty, no
review under this mle is required.
(c) By
>11 hom.
(1) A review conducted under this mle may be conducted by an attorney within the Office of
the Judge Advocate General or another attorney designated by the Judge Advocate General
under regulations prescribed by the Secretary concerned.
(2) No person may review a case under this mle if
that person has acted in the same case as
an accuser, preliminary hearing officer, member of
the court-martial, military judge, or counsel,
or has otherwise acted on behalf of
the prosecution or defense.
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(d) Form and content
for review o.lcases not eligible for appellate review at the Court of
Criminal Appeals. The review referred to in paragraph (a)(l) shall include a written conclusion
as to each of
the following:
(1) Whether the comi had jurisdiction over the accused and the offense;
(2) Whether each charge and specification stated an offense;
(3) Whether the sentence was within the limits prescribed as a matter of
law; and
(
4) When applicable, a response to each allegation of
error made in writing by the accused.
(e) Form and content
for review of
cases in which the accused has waived or withdrawn
appellate review orfailed tofile an appeal. The review referred to in paragraph (a)(2) shall
include a written conclusion as to each of the following:
(I) Whether the court had jurisdiction over the accused and the offense;
(2) Whether each charge and specification stated an offense; and
(3) Whether the sentence was within the limits prescribed as a matter of
law.
(f) Remedies.
(1) If
the attorney conducting the review under subsection (a) believes corrective action is
required, the attorney shall forward the matter to the Judge Advocate General, who may modify
or set aside the findings or sentence, in whole or in part.
(2) In setting aside the findings or sentence, the Judge Advocate General may order a
rehearing, except that a rehearing may not be ordered where the evidence was legally
insufficient at the trial to support the findings.
(3) If
the Judge Advocate General sets aside findings and sentence and does not order a
rehearing, the Judge Advocate General shall dismiss the charges.
(4) If
the Judge Advocate General sets aside findings and orders a rehearing and the
convening authority determines that a rehearing would be impractical, the convening authority
shall dismiss the charges.
(g) Notification. After a case is reviewed under subsection (a), the accused shall be notified of
the results of
the review and any action taken by the Judge Advocate General or convening
authority by means of depositing a copy of
the review and any modified judgment in the United
States mails for delivery by first-class certified mail to the accused at an address provided by
the accused or, if
no such address has been provided by the accused, at the latest address listed
for the accused in the accused's official service record. Proof of
service shall be attached to the
record of
trial.
(h) Application
for relief
to the Judge Advocate General after
final review.
(1) In general. Notwithstanding R.C.M. 1209, the Judge Advocate General may, upon
application of
the accused or a person with authority to act for the accused, modify or set aside
the findings or sentence, in whole or in part, of-
(
A) A summary court-martial previously reviewed under R.C.M. 1307; or
(B) A general or special court-martial previously reviewed under paragraph (a)(1) or (2).
(2) Timing. In order to qualify for review under this subsection, an accused must submit an
application for review not later than one year after-
(A) In the case of
a summary court-martial, the date of completion of
review under
R.C.M. 1307; Of
(B) In the case of
a general or special court-martial reviewed under paragraph (a)(
1) or
(a)(2), the later of-
(i) the date on which the accused is notified of
the decision of
the Judge Advocate
General under subsection (g); or
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(ii) the date on which a copy of
the decision of
the Judge Advocate General is
deposited in the United States mails under subsection (g).
(3) Er:tension. The Judge Advocate General may, for good cause shown, extend the period
for submission of an application under paragraph (h)(2) for a time period not to exceed two
additional years.
(4) Scope.
(A) In a case previously reviewed under R.C.M. 1307 or paragraph (a)(I), the Judge
Advocate General may act on the grounds of newly discovered evidence, fraud on the court,
lack of
jurisdiction over the accused or the offense, error prejudicial to the substantial rights of
the accused, or the appropriateness of
the sentence.
(B) In a case previously reviewed under paragraph (a)(2), the Judge Advocate General's
review is limited to the issue of
whether the waiver, withdrawal, or failure to file an appeal was
invalid under the law.
(5) Procedure. Each Judge Advocate General shall provide procedures for considering all
cases properly submitted under this rule and may prescribe the manner by which an application
for relief under this rule may be made and, if submitted by a person other than the accused, may
require that the applicant show authority to act on behalf of
the accused.
(i) Remission andsu.\pension. The Judge Advocate General may, when so authorized by the
Secretary concerned under Article 74, at any time remit or suspend the unexecuted part of
any
sentence, other than a sentence approved by the President.
(i)
Mandatory review of
summary courts-martial
fimvarded under R. C.M 13
0
7. The Judge
Advocate General shall review summary courts-martial if
the record of
trial and the action
thereon are forwarded under R.C.M. 1307(g). On such review, the Judge Advocate General
may vacate or modify, in whole or in part, the findings or sentence, or both, of
the court-martial
on the ground of
newly discovered evidence, fraud on the court-martial, lack ofjurisdiction
over the accused or the offense, error prejudicial to the substantial rights of
the accused, or the
appropriateness of
the sentence.
(k) Cases referred or submitted to the Court of
Criminal Appeals.
(1) in general. Action taken by the Judge Advocate General under subsections (h) or G) may
be reviewed by the Court of
Criminal Appeals under Article 69(d) as follows:
(A) The Judge Advocate General may forward a case to the Court of Criminal Appeals. If
the case is forwarded to a Court of
Criminal Appeals, the accused shall be informed and shall
have the rights to appellate defense counsel afforded under R.C.M. 1202(b
)(2).
(B) The accused may submit an application for review to the Court of
Criminal Appeals.
The Court of
Criminal Appeals may grant such an application only if
the application
demonstrates a substantial basis for concluding that the Judge Advocate General's action under
this rule constituted prejudicial error, and the application is filed not later than the earlier of-
(i) 60 days after the date on which the accused is notified of
the decision of
the Judge
Advocate General; or
(ii) 60 days after the date on which a copy of
the decision of
the Judge Advocate
General is deposited in the United States mails for delivery by first-class certified mail to the
accused at an address provided by the accused or, if
no such address has been provided by the
accused, at the latest address listed for the accused in the accused's official service record.
Proof of
service shall be attached to the record of trial.
(2) The submission of an application for review under subparagraph (k)(l
)(B) does not
constitute a proceeding before the Court of
Criminal Appeals for purposes of
representation by
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appellate defense counsel under Article 70(
c)( 1
).
(3) In any case reviewed by a Court of
Criminal Appeals under this subsection, the Court
may take action only with respect to matters of
law.
Rule 1202. Appellate counsel
(a) In general. The Judge Advocate General concerned shall detail one or more commissioned
officers as appellate Government counsel and one or more commissioned officers as appellate
defense counsel who are qualified under Article 27(b)(l).
(b) Duties.
(I) Appellate Government counsel. Appellate Government counsel shall represent the United
States before the Court of
Criminal Appeals or the United States Court of
Appeals for the Armed
Forces when directed to do so by the Judge Advocate General concerned. Appellate Government
counsel may represent the United States before the United States Supreme Court when requested
to do so by the Attorney General.
(2) Appellate defense counsel.
(A) Tn every general and special court-martial eligible for review by a Court of
Criminal
Appeals under Article 66(b
)(1 ), an appellate defense counsel shall be detailed to review the
case, unless the accused has waived the right to appeal under Article 61 or submits a written
statement declining representation. Upon request, the detailed appellate defense counsel shall
represent the accused in accordance with subparagraph (B).
(B) Appellate defense counsel shall represent the accused before the Court of
Criminal
Appeals, the Court of
Appeals for the Armed Forces, or the Supreme Court when the accused
is a party in the case before such court and:
(i) The accused requests to be represented by appellate defense counsel;
(ii) The United States is represented by counsel; or
(iii) The Judge Advocate General has sent the case to the United States Court of
Appeals for the Anned Forces. Appellate defense counsel is authorized to communicate directly
with the accused. The accused is a party in the case when named as a party in pleadings before
the court or, even if
not so named, when the military judge is named as respondent in a petition
by the Government for extraordinary relief from a ruling in favor of
the accused at trial.
(c) Counsel in capital cases. To the greatest extent practicable, in any case in which the death
penalty is adjudged, at least one appellate defense counsel shall, as determined by the Judge
Advocate General, be learned in the law applicable to capital cases. Such counsel may, if
necessary, be a civilian, and, if so, may be compensated in accordance with regulations
prescribed by the Secretary of
Defense.
Rule 1203. Review by a Court of Criminal Appeals
(a) In general. Each Judge Advocate General shall establish a Court of
Criminal Appeals
composed of appellate military judges who shall serve for a tour of
not less than three years,
subject to such provision for reassignment as may be prescribed in regulations issued by the
Secretary concerned.
(b) Cases reviewed by a Court of
Criminal
Appeals-Automatic Review. A Court of Criminal
Appeals shall review cases forwarded to it by the Judge Advocate General under Article
65(b)(l).
(c) Case,.-.,· eligihlefor review hy a Court <?[Criminal Appeals-Appeal hy the accused. A Court
of
Criminal Appeals shall review a timely appeal from the judgment of
the court-martial in
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accordance with the standards set forth in Article 66(b
)(1) and the rules prescribed under
Article 66(h).
(d) Timeliness. In order for an appeal under subsection (c) to be timely, it must be filed in
accordance with Article 66(c) and the rules prescribed under Article 66(h).
(e) Action on cases reviewed by a Court of
Criminal Appeals.
(1) Fmwarding by the Judge Advocate General to the Court of
Appeal5for the Armed
Forces. The Judge Advocate General may forward the decision of
the Court of
Criminal
Appeals to the Court of Appeals for the Armed Forces for review with respect to any matter of
law. In such a case, the Judge Advocate General shall cause a copy of the decision of
the
Court of Criminal Appeals and the order forwarding the case to be served on the accused and
on appellate defense counsel. While a review of a fonvarded case is pending, the Secretary
concerned may defer further service of a sentence to confinement that has been ordered
executed in such a case.
(2) Action when sentence is set aside. In a case reviewed by it under this rule in which the
Court of
Criminal Appeals has set aside the sentence and which is not forwarded to the Court
of
Appeals for the Anned Forces under paragraph (e)(l), the Judge Advocate General shall
instruct an appropriate authority to modify the judgment in accordance with the decision of
the Court of
Criminal Appeals. Tfthe Court of
Criminal Appeals has ordered a rehearing on
sentence, the record shall be sent to an appropriate convening authority. If
that convening
authority finds a rehearing impracticable that convening authority may order that a sentence of
no punishment be imposed.
(3) Action when sentence is affirmed in whole or
part.
(A) Sentence requiring approval by the President. If
the Court of
Criminal Appeals
affirms any sentence which includes death, the Judge Advocate General shall transmit the record
of
trial and the decision of
the Court of Criminal Appeals directly to the Court of
Appeals for the
Armed Forces when any period for reconsideration provided by the rules of
the Courts of
Criminal Appeals has expired.
(B) Other cases. If
the Court of Criminal Appeals affirms any sentence other than one
which includes death, the Judge Advocate General shall cause a copy of
the decision of
the Court
of
Criminal Appeals to be served on the accused in accordance with subsection (t).
(4) Remission or suspension. If
the Judge Advocate General believes that a sentence as
aff:J.nned by the Court of
Criminal Appeals, other than one which includes death, should be
remitted or suspended in whole or part, the Judge Advocate General may, before taking action
under paragraphs (e)(l) or (3), transmit the record oftrial and the decision of
the Court of
Criminal Appeals to the Secretary concerned with a recommendation for action under Article 74
or may take such action as may be authorized by the Secretary concerned under Article 74(a).
(5) Action when accused lacks mental capacity. In a review conducted under subsection (b) or
(c), the Court of
Criminal Appeals may not affirm the proceedings w·hile the accused lacks
mental capacity to understand and to conduct or cooperate intelligently in the appellate
proceedings. In the absence of substantial evidence to the contrary, the accused is presumed to
have the capacity to understand and to conduct or cooperate intelligently in the appellate
proceedings. If a substantial question is raised as to the requisite mental capacity of the accused,
the Court of
Criminal Appeals may direct an examination of
the accused in accordance with
R.C.M. 706, but the examination may be limited to determining the accused's present capacity to
understand and cooperate in the appellate proceedings. The Court may further order a remand
under R.C.M. 810(f) as may be necessary. If
the record is thereafter returned to the Court of
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Criminal Appeals, the Court of Criminal Appeals may affirm part or all of the findings or
sentence unless it is established, by a preponderance of
the evidence-including matters outside
the record of
trial-that the accused does not have the requisite mental capacity. If
the accused
does not have the requisite mental capacity, the Comi of
Criminal Appeals shall stay the
proceedings until the accused regains appropriate capacity, or take other appropriate action.
Nothing in this subsection shall prohibit the Court of
Criminal Appeals from making a
determination in favor of the accused which will result in the setting aside of a conviction.
(f) Notification to accused
(1) Not(fication Q[ decision. The accused shall be notified of the decision of
the Court of
Criminal Appeals in accordance with regulations of the Secretary concerned.
(2) Not~fication
Q[right to petition the Court Q[
Appealsfor the Armed
Forcesfor review. If
the accused has the right to petition the Court of
Appeals for the Armed Forces for review, the
accused shall be provided with a copy ofthe decision of
the Court of
Criminal Appeals bearing
an endorsement notifying the accused of this right. The endorsement shall infonn the accused
that such a petition:
(A) May be filed only within 60 days from the time the accused was in fact notified of
the
decision of
the Court of Criminal Appeals or the mailed copy of
the decision was postmarked,
whichever is earlier; and
(B) May be forwarded through the officer immediately exercising general court-martial
jurisdiction over the accused and through the appropriate Judge Advocate General or filed
directly with the Court of
Appeals for the Armed Forces.
(3) Receipt by the accused di.sposition. When the accused has the right to petition the Comi
of
Appeals for the Armed Forces for review, the receipt of
the accused for the copy of
the
decision of
the Court of Criminal Appeals, a certificate of service on the accused, or the postal
receipt for delivery of
certified mail shall be transmitted in duplicate by expeditious means to the
appropriate Judge Advocate General. If
the accused is personally served, the receipt or certificate
of
service shall show the date of service. The Judge Advocate General shall forward one copy of
the receipt, certificate, or postal receipt to the clerk of the Court of Appeals for the Armed Forces
when required by the court.
(g) Cases not reviewed by the Court of
Appeals
for the Armed
Forces. If
the decision ofthe
Court of
Criminal Appeals is not subject to review by the Court of
Appeals for the Armed
Forces, or if
the Judge Advocate General has not forwarded the case to the Court of Appeals for
the Armed Forces and the accused has not filed or the Court of
Appeals for the Armed Forces
has denied a petition for review, then either:
( 1) The Judge Advocate General shall, if
the sentence affirmed by the Court of
Criminal
Appeals includes a dismissal, transmit the record, the decision of
the Court of Criminal Appeals,
and the Judge Advocate General's recommendation to the Secretary concerned for action under
R.C.M. 1206; or
(2) If
the sentence affirmed by the Court of
Criminal Appeals does not include a dismissal,
the unexecuted portion ofthe sentence affirmed by the Court of
Criminal Appeals shall be
executed in accordance with R.C.M. 1102.
Rule 1204. Review by the Court of Appeals for the Armed Forces
(a) Cases reviewed by the Court ojAppealsfor the Armed Forces. Under such rules as it may
prescribe, the Court of
Appeals for the Armed Forces shall review the rec.ord in all cases:
(1) in which the sentence, as affirmed by a Court of
Criminal Appeals, extends to death;
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(2) reviewed by a Court of Criminal Appeals which the Judge Advocate General, after
appropriate notification to the other Judge Advocate Generals and the Staff Judge Advocate to the
Commandant of
the Marine Corps, orders sent to the Court of Appeals for the Armed Forces for
review; and
(3) reviewed by a Court of Criminal Appeals in which, upon petition of the accused and on
good cause shown, the Court of
Appeals for the Armed Forces has granted a review.
(b) Petition by the accused
for review by the Court of
Appeals
for the Armed
Forces.
(1) Counsel. When the accused is notified of the right to forward a petition for review by the
Court of Appeals for the Armed Forces, if requested by the accused, associate counsel qualified
under RC.M. 502(d)(2) shall be detailed to advise and assist the accused in connection with
preparing a petition for further appellate review.
(2) Forwarding petUion. The accused shall file any petition for review by the Court of Appeals
for the Anned Forces under paragraph (a)(3) of
this mle directly with the Court of
Appeals for the
Armed Forces.
(c) Action on decision by the Court£?{
Appealsfor the Armed Forces.
(1) In general. After it has acted on a case, the Court of Appeals for the Armed Forces may
direct the Judge Advocate General to return the rec.ord to the Court of
Criminal Appeals for further
proceedings in accordance with the decision of
the court. Otherwise, unless the decision is subject
to review by the Supreme Court, or there is to be further action by the President or the Secretary
concerned, the Judge Advocate General shall instmct the appropriate authority to take action in
accordance with that decision. If
the Court has ordered a rehearing, but the convening authority to
whom the record is transmitted finds a rehearing impracticable, the convening authority may
dismiss the charges.
(2) Sentence requiring approval of
the President.
(A) If
the Court of Appeals for the Armed Forces has affirmed a sentence that must be
approved by the President before it may be executed, the Judge Advocate General shall transmit
the record of
trial, the decision of
the Court of
Criminal Appeals, the decision of
the Court of
Appeals for the Anned Forces, and the recommendation of
the Judge Advocate General to the
Secretary concerned.
(B) If
the Secretary concerned is the Secretary of a military department, the Secretary
concerned shall forward the material received under subparagraph (A) to the Secretary of
Defense, together with the recommendation of
the Secretary concerned. The Secretary of
Defense shall forward the material, with the recommendation of
the Secretary concerned and the
recommendation of
the Secretary of
Defense, to the President for the action of
the President.
(C) If
the Secretary concerned is the Secretary of
Homeland Security, the Secretary
concerned shall forward the material received under subparagraph (A) to the President, together
with the recommendation of
the Secretary concerned, for action of
the President.
(3) Sentence requiring approval of
the Secretmy concerned. If
the Court of
Appeals for the
Armed Forces has affirmed a sentence which requires approval of the Secretary concerned
before it may be executed, the Judge Advocate General shall follow the procedure in R.C.M.
1203(e)(3).
(
4) Decisions suNect to review by the Supreme Court. If
the decision of
the Court of
Appeals
for the Armed Forces is subject to review by the Supreme Court, the Judge Advocate General
shall take no action under paragraphs (
c)(l ), (2), or (3) of
this rule until: (A) the time for filing a
petition for a writ of
certiorari with the Supreme Court has expired; or (B) the Supreme Court
has denied any petitions for writ of certiorari filed in the case. After (A) or (B) has occurred, the
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Judge Advocate General shall take action under paragraphs (c)( I), (2), or (3). If
the Supreme
Court grants a writ of
certiorari, the Judge Advocate General shall take action under R.C.M.
1205(b).
Rule 1205. Review by the Supreme Court
(a) Cases subject to revie·w by the Supreme Court. Under 28 U.S. C. § 1259 and Article 67a,
decisions of the Court of
Appeals for the Armed Forces may be reviewed by the Supreme Court
by writ of
certiorari in the following cases:
(I) Cases reviewed by the Court of
Appeals for the Armed Forces under Article 67(a)(l);
(2) Cases certified to the Court of Appeals for the Armed Forces by the Judge Advocate
General under Article 67(a)(2);
(3) Cases in which the Court of
Appeals for the Anned Forces granted a petition for review
under Article 67(a)(3); and
(4) Cases other than those described in paragraphs (a)(l), (2), and (3) of this rule in which the
Court of Appeals for the Armed Forces granted relief.
The Supreme CoUJt may not review by writ of
certiorari any action of
the Court of Appeals for
the Armed Forces in refusing to grant a petition for review.
(b) Action hy the Supreme Court. After the Supreme Court has taken action, other than denial of
a petition for writ of
certiorari, in any case, the Judge Advocate General shall, unless the case is
returned to the Court of Appeals for the Armed Forces for further proceedings, forward the case
to the President or the Secretary concerned in accordance with R. C.M. 1204(
c
)(2) or (3) when
appropriate, or take action in accordance with the decision.
Rule 1206. Powers and responsibilities of the Secretary
(a) Sentences requiring approval by the Secretary. No part of
a sentence extending to dismissal
of
a commissioned oflicer, cadet, or midshipman may be executed until approved by the
Secretary concerned or such Under Secretary or Assistant Secretary as may be designated by the
Secretary.
(b) Remission and suspension.
(1) in general. The Secretary concerned and, when designated by the Secretary concerned,
any Under Secretary, Assistant Secretary, Judge Advocate General, or commander may remit or
suspend any part or amount of
the unexecuted part of
any sentence, including all uncollected
forfeitures, other than a sentence approved by the President.
(2) Substitution ~fdischarge. The Secretary concerned may, for good cause, substitute an
administrative discharge for a discharge or dismissal executed in accordance with the sentence of
a court-martial.
(3) Sentence commuted by the President. When the President has commuted a death
sentence to a lesser punishment, the Secretary concerned may remit or suspend any remaining
part or amount of
the unexecuted portion of the sentence of a person convicted by a military
tribunal under the Secretary's jurisdiction.
Rule 1207. Sentences requiring approval by the President
No part of a court-martial sentence extending to death may be executed until approved by the
President.
Rule 1208. Restoration
(a) New trial. All rights, privileges, and property affected by an executed portion of
a court-
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martial sentence-except an executed dismissal or discharge--which has not again been
adjudged upon a new trial or which, after the new trial, has not been sustained upon the action of
any reviewing authority, shall be restored. So much of
the findings and so much of
the sentence
adjudged at the earlier trial shall be set aside as may be required by the findings and sentence at
the new trial. Ordinarily, action taken under this subsection shall be re±1ected in the new
judgment entered in the case.
(b) Other cases. In cases other than those in subsection (a), all rights, privileges, and property
affected by an executed part of
a court-martial sentence that has been set aside or disapproved
by any competent authority shall be restored unless a new trial, other trial, or rehearing is
ordered and such executed part is included in a sentence imposed at the new trial, other trial, or
rehearing. Ordinarily, any restoration shall be reflected in the new
judgment entered in the case.
In accordance with regulations established by the Secretary concerned, for the period after the
date on which an executed part of
a court-martial sentence is set aside, an accused who is
pending a rehearing, new trial, or other trial shall receive the pay and allowances due at the
restored grade.
Rule 1209. Finality of courts-martial
(a) When a conviction is
final.
(1) General and.~pecial
courts-martial. A conviction in a general or special court-martial is
final when-
(A) Review is completed under R.C.M. 120l(a) (Article 65);
(B) Review is completed by a Court of
Criminal Appeals and-
(i) The accused does not file a timely petition for review by the Court of
Appeals for
the Armed Forces and the case is not otherwise under review by that court;
(ii) A petition for review is denied or otherwise rejected by the Court of
Appeals for
the Armed Forces; or
(iii) Review is completed in accordance with the judgment of
the Court of
Appeals for
the Armed Forces and-
(I) A petition for a writ of certiorari is not tiled within the time limits prescribed by
the Supreme Court;
(II) A petition for writ of
certiorari is denied or otherwise rejected by the Supreme
Court; or
(III) Review is otherwise completed in accordance with the judgment of
the
Supreme Court.
(2) Summmy courts-martial. A conviction in a summary court-martial is final when a judge
advocate completes review under R.C.M. 1307(d) and no further action is required under
R.C.M. 1307(e).
(b) Effect ojjinality. The appellate review of
records of
trial provided by the UCMJ, the
proceedings, findings, and sentences of
courts-martial as approved, reviewed, or affirmed as
required by the UCMJ, and all dismissals and discharges carried into execution under sentences
by courts-martial following approval, review, or affirmation as required by the UCMJ, are final
and conclusive. The judgment of
a court-martial and orders publishing the proceedings of
comis-
martial and all action taken pursuant to those proceedings are binding upon all departments,
courts, agencies, and officers of the United States, subject only to action upon a petition for a
new trial under Article 73, to action under Article 69, to action by the Secretary concerned as
provided in Article 74, and the authority of
the President.
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Rule 1210. New trial
(a) In general. At any time within three years after the date of entry of
judgment, the accused
may petition the Judge Advocate General for a new trial on the ground of
newly discovered
evidence or fraud on the court-martial. A petition may not be submitted after the death of
the
accused. A petition for a new trial of
the facts may not be submitted on the basis of newly
discovered evidence when the petitioner was found guilty of the relevant offense pursuant to a
guilty plea.
(b) Who may petition. A petition for a new trial may be submitted by the accused personally, or by
accused's counsel, regardless whether the accused has been separated from the Service.
(c) Form qfpetition. A petition for a new trial shall be written and shall be signed under oath or
affirmation by the accused, by a person possessing the power of attorney of the accused for that
purpose, or by a person with the authorization of
an appropriate court to sign the petition as the
representative of
the accused. The petition shall contain the following information, or an
explanation \.vhy such matters are not included:
(1) The name, service number, and current address of
the accused;
(2) The date and location ofthe trial;
(3) The type of
court-martial and the title or position of
the convening authority;
(4) The request for the new trial;
(5) The sentence or a description thereof as reflected in the judgment of the case, with any
later reduction thereof by clemency or othenvise;
(6) A brief
description of any finding or sentence believed to be unjust;
(7) A full statement of
the newly discovered evidence or fraud on the court-martial which is
relied upon for the remedy sought;
(8) Affidavits pertinent to the matters in paragraph (c)(7) of
this rule; and
(9) The at1idavit of
each person whom the accused expects to present as a witness in the event
of
a new trial. Each such affidavit should set forth briet1y the relevant facts within the personal
knowledge of
the witness.
(d) F;tfect (![petition. The submission of a petition for a new trial does not stay the execution of a
sentence.
(e) Who may act on petition. If the accused's case is pending before a Court ofCtiminal Appeals
or the Court of
Appeals for the Armed Forces, the Judge Advocate General shall refer the petition
to the appropriate court for action. Otherwise, the Judge Advocate General of the armed force
which reviewed the previous trial shall act on the petition, except that petitions submitted by
persons who, at the time of
trial and sentence from which the petitioner seeks relief, were members
of
the Coast Guard, and who were members of
the Coast Guard at the time the petition is submitted,
shall be acted on in the Department in which the Coast Guard is serving at the time the petition is
so submitted.
(f) Grnundsfor new trial.
(1) In general. A new trial may be granted only on grounds of
newly discovered evidence or
fraud on the court-martial.
(2) Nelvly discovered evidence. A new trial shall not be granted on the grounds of
newly
discovered evidence unless the petition shows that:
(A) The evidence was discovered after the trial;
(B) The evidence is not such that it would have been discovered by the petitioner at the
time of
trial in the exercise of
due diligence; and
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(C) The newly discovered evidence, if
considered by a court-martial in the light of all
other pertinent evidence, would probably produce a substantially more favorable result for the
accused.
(3) Fraud on court-martial. No fraud on the court-martial warrants a new trial unless it had a
substantial contributing effect on a finding of
guilty or the sentence adjudged.
(g) Action on petition.
(1) In general. The authority considering the petition may cause such additional investigation
to be made and such additional information to be secured as that authority believes appropriate.
Upon written request, and in its discretion, the authority considering the petition may petmit oral
argument on the matter.
(2) Courts r<fCriminal
Appeals; Court qf
Appeals.for the Armed
Forces. The Courts of
Criminal
Appeals and the Court of Appeals for the Armed Forces shall act on a petition for a new trial in
accordance with their respective rules.
(3) The Judge Advocates General. When a petition is considered by the Judge Advocate
General, any hearing may be before the Judge Advocate General or before an officer or officers
designated by the Judge Advocate General. If
the Judge Advocate General believes meritorious
grounds for relief under Article 74 have been established but that a new trial is not appropriate,
the Judge Advocate General may act under Article 74 if
authorized to do so, or transmit the
petition and related papers to the Secretary concerned with a recommendation. The Judge
Advocate General may also, in cases which have been finally reviewed but have not been
reviewed by a Court of
Criminal Appeals, act under Article 69.
(h) Action when new trial is granted
(1) Forwarding to convening authority. When a petition for a new trial is granted, the Judge
Advocate General shall select and forward the case to a convening authority for disposition.
(2) Charges at ne>v trial. At a new trial, the accused may not be tried for any o±Tense of
which the accused was found not guilty or upon which the accused was not tried at the earlier
court-martial.
(3) Action ~Ji convening authority. The convening authority's action on the record of
a new
trial is the same as in other courts-martial.
(4) Disposition of
record The disposition of
the record of
a new trial is the same as for other
courts-martial.
(5) Judgment. After a new trial, a new judgment shall be entered in accordance with R.C.M.
1111.
(6) Action by persons charged with execution of
the sentence. Persons charged with the
administrative duty of
executing a sentence adjudged upon a new trial shall credit the accused
with any executed portion or amount of
the original sentence included in the new sentence in
computing the term or amount of
punishment actually to be executed pursuant to the sentence.
Rule 1301. Summary courts-martial
(a) Composition. A summary comi-martial is composed of one commissioned ofticer on active
duty. Unless otherwise prescribed by the Secretary concerned a summary court-martial shall be
of
the same armed force as the accused. Summary courts-martial shall be conducted in
accordance with the regulations of
the military Service to which the accused belongs.
Whenever practicable, a summary court-martial should be an officer whose grade is not below
lieutenant of
the Navy or Coast Guard or captain of
the Army, Air Force, or Marine Corps.
When only one commissioned officer is present with a command or detachment, that officer
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shall be the summary court-martial of
that command or detachment. When more than one
commissioned officer is present with a command or detachment, the convening authority may
not be the summary court-martial of
that command or detachment.
(b) Function. The function of
the summary court-martial is to promptly adjudicate minor
offenses under a simple disciplinary proceeding. A finding of
guilt by the summary court-martial
does not constitute a criminal conviction as it is not a criminal forum. However, a summary
court-martial shall constitute a trial for purposes of
determining former jeopardy under Article
44. The summary court-martial shall thoroughly and impartially inquire into both sides of
the
matter and shall ensure that the interests of
both the Government and the accused are
safeguarded and that justice is done. A summary court-martial may seek advice from a judge
advocate or legal officer on questions oflaw, but the summary court-martial may not seek advice
from any person on factual conclusions that should be drawn from evidence or the sentence that
should be imposed, as the summary court-martial has the independent duty to make these
determinations.
(c) Jurisdiction.
)Note: R.C.M. 1301(c) applies to offenses committed on or after 24 June 2014.)
(1) Subject to Chapter II, summary courts-martial have the power to try persons subject to the
UCMJ, except commissioned officers, warrant officers, cadets, aviation cadets, and midshipmen,
for any non-capital offense made punishable by the UCMJ.
(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (
c)(l ), summary courts-martial do not have jurisdiction over
offenses under Articles 120(a), 120(b), 120b(a), 120b(b), and attempts thereofunder Article 80.
Such offenses shall not be referred to a summary court-martial.
(d) Punishments.
(1) Limitations amount. Subject to R.C.M. 1003, summary courts-martial may impose any
punishment not forbidden by the UCMJ except death, dismissal, dishonorable or bad-conduct
discharge, confinement for more than 1 month, hard labor without confinement for more than 45
days, restriction to specified limits for more than 2 months, or forfeiture of more than two-thirds
of 1 month's pay.
(2) Limitations-pay grade. fu the case of enlisted members above the fourth enlisted pay
grade, summary courts-martial may not adjudge confinement, hard labor without confinement, or
reduction except to the next pay grade.
(e) Counsel. The accused at a summary court-martial does not have the right to counsel. If
the
accused has counsel qualified under R.C.M. 502(d)(2), that counsel may be permitted to
represent the accused at the summary court-martial if such appearance will not unreasonably
delay the proceedings and if
military exigencies do not preclude it.
(±) Pmt·er to obtain witnesses and evidence. A summary court-martial may obtain evidence
pursuant to R.C.M. 703.
(g) Secretarial/imitations. The Secretary concerned may prescribe procedural or other mles for
summary courts-martial not inconsistent with this Manual or the UCMJ.
Rule 1302. Convening a summary court-martial
(a) TVho may convene summm:v courts-martial. Unless limited by competent authority summary
courts-martial may be convened by:
(1) Any person who may convene a general or special court-martial;
(2) The commander of
a detached company or other detachment of
the Army;
(3) The commander of
a detached squadron or other detachment of
the Air Force;
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(4) The commander or officer in charge of any other command when empowered by the
Secretary concerned; or
(5) A superior competent authority to any of
the above.
(b) When convening authority is accuser. If
the convening authority or the summary court-
martial is the accuser, it is discretionary with the convening authority whether to forward the
charges to a superior authority with a recommendation to convene the summary court-matiial. If
the convening authority or the summary court-martial is the accuser, the jurisdiction of
the
summary court-martial is not affected.
(c) Procedure. After the requirements of Chapters III and IV of this Part have been satisfied,
summary courts-martial shall be convened in accordance with R.C.M. 504(d)(2). The convening
order may be by notation signed by the convening authority on the charge sheet. Charges shall be
referred to summary courts-martial in accordance with R. C
.M. 601.
Rule 1303. Right to object to tr·ial by summary com·t-martial
No person who objects thereto before arraignment may be tried by summary court-martial even if
that person also refused punishment under Atiicle 15 and demanded trial by court-martial for the
same offenses.
Rule 1304. Trial procedure
(a) Pretrial duties.
(1) Examination oJjile. The summary court-martial shall carefully examine the charge sheet,
allied papers, and immediately available personnel records of
the accused before trial.
(2) Report of
irregularity. The summary court-martial shall report to the convening authority
any substantial irregularity in the charge sheet, allied papers, or personnel records.
(3) Correction and amendment. The summary court-martial may, subject to R.C.M. 603,
correct errors on the charge sheet and amend charges and specifications. Any such corrections
or amendments shall be initialed.
(4) Rif(hts of
victims at summmy courts-martial. Pursuant to Article 6b, a victim at summary
court-martial is entitled to the following rights:
(A) To be reasonably protected from the accused;
(B) To reasonable, accurate, and timely notice of the summary court-martial;
(C) To not be excluded from the summary court-martial unless the summary court-
martial officer, after receiving clear and convincing evidence, determines that testimony by the
victim of an offense under this chapter would be materially altered if the victim heard other
testimony at the summary court-martial;
(D) To be reasonably heard during sentencing in accordance with R.C.M. 1001 (c); and
(E) The reasonable right to confer with the representative of
the command and counsel
for the government, if
any.
(b) Summary court-martial
procedure.
(1) Preliminary proceeding. After complying with R. C.M. 1304(a), the summary court-
martial shall hold a preliminary proceeding during which the accused shall be given a copy of
the
charge sheet and informed of
the following:
(A) The general nature of
the charges;
(B) The fact that the charges have been referred to a summary court-martial for trial and
the date of
referral;
(C) The identity of
the convening authority;
(D) The name(
s) of
the accuser(
s
);
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(E) The names of
the witnesses who could be called to testify and any documents or
physical evidence which the summary court-martial expects to introduce into evidence;
(F) The accused's right to inspect the allied papers and immediately available personnel
records;
(G) That during the trial the summary court-martial will not consider any matters,
including statements previously made by the accused to the officer detailed as summary court-
martial unless admitted in accordance with the Military Rules of
Evidence;
(H) The accused's right to plead not guilty or guilty;
(I) The accused's right to cross-examine witnesses and have the summary court-martial
cross-examine witnesses on behalf of
the accused;
(J) The accused's right to call -vvitnesses and produce evidence with the assistance of
the
summary court-martial as necessary;
(K) The accused's right to testify on the merits, or to remain silent with the assurance that
no adverse inference will be dravro by the summary court-mattial from such silence;
(L) If
any findings of
guilty are announced, the accused's rights to remain silent, to make
an unsworn statement, oral or written or both, and to testify, and to introduce evidence in
extenuation or mitigation;
(M) The maximum sentence which the summary court-martial may adjudge ifthe accused
is found guilty of
the offense or offenses alleged; and
(N) The accused's right to object to trial by summary court-martial.
(2) Trial proceeding.
(A) O~jeclion to trial. The summary court-martial shall give the accused a reasonable
period of
time to decide whether to object to trial by summary comi-martial. The summary
court-martial shall thereafter record the response. If
the accused objects to trial by summary
court-martial, the summary court-martial shall return the charge sheet, allied papers, and
personnel records to the convening authority. If
the accused fails to object to trial by summary
court-martial, trial shall proceed.
(B) Arraignment. After complying with R.C.M. 1304(b)(l) and (2)(A), the summary
court-martial shall read and show the charges and specifications to the accused and, if
necessary,
explain them. The accused may waive the reading of
the charges. The summary court-martial
shall then ask the accused to plead to each specification and charge.
(C) Motions. Before receiving pleas the summary court-martial shall allow the accused to
make motions to dismiss or for other relief The summary court-martial shall take action on
behalf of
the accused, if
requested by the accused, or if
it appears necessary in the interests of
justice.
(D) Pleas.
(i) Not guilty pleas. When a not guilty plea is entered, the summary court-martial shall
proceed to trial.
(ii) Guilty pleas. If
the accused pleads guilty to any offense, the summary court-martial
shall comply with R.C.M. 910.
(iii) Rejected
guilty pleas. If the summary court-martial is in doubt that the accused's
pleas of
guilty are voluntarily and understandingly made, or if
at any time during the trial any
matter inconsistent with pleas of
guilty arises, which inconsistency cannot be resolved, the
summary court-martial shall enter not guilty pleas as to the affected charges and specifications.
(iv) No plea. If
the accused refuses to plead, the summary court-martial shall enter not
guilty pleas.
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(v) Changed
pleas. The accused may change any plea at any time before findings are
announced. The accused may change pleas from guilty to not guilty after findings are
announced only for good cause.
(E) Presentation of
evidence.
(i) The Military Rules of
Evidence (Part III) apply to summary courts-martial.
(ii) The summary comi-martial shall arrange for the attendance of necessary witnesses
for the prosecution and defense, including those requested by the accused.
(iii) Witnesses for the prosecution shall be called first and examined under oath. The
accused shall be permitted to cross-examine these witnesses. The summary court-martial shall
aid the accused in cross-examination if such assistance is requested or appears necessary in the
interests of
justice. The witnesses for the accused shall then be called and similarly examined
under oath.
(iv) The summary court-martial shall obtain evidence which tends to disprove the
accused's guilt or establishes extenuating circumstances.
(F) Findings and sentence.
(i) The summary court-martial shall apply the principles in RC.M. 918 in determining
the findings. The summary court-martial shall announce the findings to the accused in open
sesswn.
(ii) The summary court-martial shall follow the procedures in RC.M. 1001 and 1002
and apply the principles in the remainder of
Chapter X in determining a sentence, except as
follows:
(l) lf an accused is found guilty of
more than one offense, a summary court-martial
shall determine the appropriate confinement and fine, if
any, for all ofienses of
which the
accused was found guilty. The summary court-martial shall not determine or announce separate
terms of
confinement or fines for each ofiense; and
(II) The summary court
-martial shall announce the sentence to the accused in open
session.
(iii) If
the sentence includes confinement, the summary court-martial shall advise the
accused of
the right to apply to the convening authority for deferment of
the service of
the
confinement.
(iv) If
the accused is found guilty, the summary court-matiial shall advise the accused
of
the rights under R.C.M. 1306(a) and (h) and R.C.M. 1307(h) after the sentence is announced.
(v) The summary court-martial shall, as soon as practicable, infonn the convening
authority of
the findings, sentence, recommendations, if
any, for suspension of
the sentence, and
any deferment request.
(vi) If
the sentence includes confinement, the summary court-martial shall cause the
delivery of
the accused to the accused's commanding officer or the commanding officer's
designee.
Rule 1305. Record of trial
(a) In general. The record of
trial of
a summary court-martial shall be prepared as prescribed in
subsection (b) of
this rule. The convening or higher authority may prescribe additional
requirements for the record of trial.
(b) Contents. The summary court-martial shall prepare a written record of
trial, which shall
include:
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(
1) The pleas, findings, and sentence, and if
the accused was represented by counsel at the
summary court-martial, a notation to that effect;
(2) The fact that the accused was advised of
the matters set forth in R.C.M. 1304(b
)(I);
(3) If
the summary court-martial is the convening authority, a notation to that efiect.
(c) Cert{fication. The summary court-martial shall certify the record by signing the record of
trial. An electronic record of
trial may be certified with the electronic signature of
the summary
court-martial.
(d) Fonvarding copies of
the record
(
1) Accused's copy.
(A) Service. The summary court-martial shall cause a copy of
the record of
trial to be
served on the accused as soon as it is certified. Service of a certified electronic copy of
the record
oftrial with a means to review the record of
trial satisfies the requirement of service under this
rule.
(B) Receipt. The summmy court-martial shall cause the accused's receipt for the copy of
the record of
trial to be obtained and attached to the original record of
trial or shall attach to the
original record of
trial a certificate that the accused was served a copy of
the record. If
the record
of
trial was not served on the accused personally, the summary court-martial shall attach a
statement explaining how and when such service was accomplished. If
the accused was
represented by counsel, such counsel may be served with the record of
triaL
(C) Classified information. If classified infonnation is included in the record of
trial of
a
summary comt-martial, R.C.M. 1112(e)(3)(A) shall apply.
(2) .Forwarding to the convening authority. The original and one copy of
the record of
trial
shall be forwarded to the convening authority after compliance with paragraph (d)(
I) of
this
rule.
(3) Further disposition. After compliance with R.C.M. 1306(b) and (h) and R.C.M.
1307(h), if applicable, the record of
trial shall be disposed of
under regulations prescribed by
the Secretary concerned.
(e)Loss ofrecord; defective record; correction ofrecord.
(1) Loss ofrecord. If
the certified record of
trial is lost or destroyed, the summary court-
martial shall, if
practicable, cause another record of
trial to be prepared for certification. The
new record of
trial shall become the record of
trial in the case if
the requirements of
this rule
are met.
(2) Defective record. A record of
trial found to be defective after certification may be
returned to the summary court-martial to be corrected. The summary court-martial shall give
notice of
the proposed correction to the parties and permit them to examine and respond to the
proposed correction before issuing a certificate of
correction. The parties shall be given
reasonable access to any recording of
the proceedings.
(3) Cert~ficate (?f correction; service on the accused. The certificate of
correction shall be
certified as provided in subsection (c) of
this rule and a copy served on the accused as provided
in paragraph (d)(l) of this rule. The certificate of correction and the accused's receipt for the
certificate of
correction shall be attached to each copy of
the record of
trial required to be
prepared under this rule.
Rule 1306. Post-trial procedure, summary court-martial
(a) Matters submitted After a sentence is adjudged by a summary court-martial, the accused
and any crime victim may submit matters to the convening authority in accordance with R.C.M.
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1106 and R.C.M. 1106A.
(b) Convening authority's action.
(1) In general. The convening authority shall take action on the sentence of a summary
court-martial and, in the discretion of
the convening authority, the findings of
a summary court-
martial.
(2) Action on
findings. Action on the findings is not required. With respect to findings, the
convening authority may:
(A) change a finding of guilty to a charge or specification to a finding of
guilty to an
offense that is a lesser included offense of
the offense stated in the charge or specification; or
(B) set aside any finding of guilty and:
(i) dismiss the specification and, if appropriate, the charge; or
(ii) direct a rehearing in accordance with R.C.M. 810 and subsection (e).
(3) Action on sentence. The convening authority shall take action on the sentence. The
convening authority may disapprove, commute, or suspend, in whole or in part, any portion of
an adjudged sentence. The convening authmity shall approve the sentence that is warranted by
the circumstances of
the offense and appropriate for the accused.
(4) When proceedings re5ltlted in
.finding<?(
not guilty. The convening authority shall not
take action disapproving a finding of
not guilty, a finding of
not guilty only by reason of
lack of
mental responsibility, or a ruling amounting to a finding of
not guilty. When an accused is
found not guilty only by reason of lack of
mental responsibility, the convening authority,
however, shall commit the accused to a suitable facility pending a hearing and disposition in
accordance with R.C.M. 1105.
(5) Action when accused lack~· mental capacity. The convening authority may not approve a
sentence while the accused lacks mental capacity to understand and to conduct or cooperate
intelligently in the post-trial proceedings. It~ before the convening authority takes action, a
substantial question is raised as to the requisite mental capacity of
the accused, the convening
authority shall either-
(A) direct an examination of
the accused in accordance with R.C.M. 706 to determine the
accused's present capacity to understand and cooperate in the post-trial proceedings; or
(B) disapprove the findings and sentence.
(c) Ordering rehearing or other trial. The convening authority may, in the convening
authority's discretion, order a rehearing. A rehearing may be ordered as to some or all offenses
of
which findings of guilty were entered and the sentence, or as to sentence only. A rehearing
may not be ordered as to findings of guilty when there is a lack of
sufficient evidence in the
record to support the findings of guilty of
the offense charged or of
any lesser included offense.
A rehearing may be ordered, however, if
the proof of guilt consisted of
inadmissible evidence
for which there is available an admissible substitute. A rehearing may be ordered as to any
lesser offense included in an offense of
which the accused was found guilty, provided there is
sufficient evidence in the record to support the lesser included offense.
(d) Contents of
action and related matters.
(I) In general. The convening authority shall state in writing and insert in the record of
trial
the convening authority's decision as to the sentence, whether any findings of
guilty are
disapproved, whether any charges or specifications are changed or dismissed and an
explanation for such action, and any orders as to further disposition. The action shall be signed
by the convening authority. The convening authority's authority to sign shall appear below the
signature. The convening authority may recall and modify any action taken by that convening
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authority at any time before it has been published, or, if
the action is favorable to the accused,
at any time prior to forwarding the record for review or before the accused has been officially
notified.
(2) Sentence. The action shall state whether the sentence adjudged by the court-martial is
approved. If
only part of
the sentence is approved, the action shall state which parts are
approved. A rehearing may not be directed if
any sentence is approved.
(3) Suspension. The action shall indicate, when appropriate, whether an approved sentence
is to be executed or whether the execution of
all or any part of
the sentence is to be suspended.
No reasons need be stated.
(
4) Deferment of
service of
sentence to corifinement. Whenever the service of
the sentence to
confinement is deferred by the convening authority under R.C.M. 1103 before or concunently
with the initial action in the case, the action shall include the date on which the deferment
became effective. The reason tbr the deferment need not be stated in the action.
(e) Incomplete, ambiguous, or erroneous action. When the action of the convening authority or
of
a higher authority is incomplete, ambiguous, or contains error, the authority who took the
incomplete, ambiguous, or erroneous action may be instructed by an authority acting under
Article 64, 66, 67, 67a, or 69 to withdraw the original action and substitute a corrected action.
(f) Servjce. A copy of
the convening authority's action shall be served on the accused or on
defense counsel and, upon the victim's request, the victim. If
the action is served on defense
counsel, defense counsel shall, by expeditious means, provide the accused with a copy.
(g) Subsequent action. Any action taken on a summary court-martial after the initial action by
the convening authority shall be in writing, signed by the authority taking the action, and
promulgated in appropriate orders.
(h) Reviet11 by a judge advocate. A judge advocate shall review each summary court-martial in
which there is a finding of
guilty pursuant to R.C.M. 1307.
Rule 1307. Review of summary courts-martial by a judge advocate
(a) in general. Except as provided in subsection (b) of
this rule, under regulations of
the
Secretary concerned, a judge advocate shall review each summary court-martial in which there
is a finding of
guilty.
(b) Exception. If
the accused is found not guilty or not guilty only by reason of
lack of
mental
responsibility of
all offenses or if
the convening authority disapproved all findings of
guilty, no
review under this rule is required.
(c) Disqualification. No person may review a case under this rule if
that person has acted in the
same case as an accuser, preliminary hearing officer, summary court-martial officer, or counsel,
or has otherwise acted on behalf of
the prosecution or defense.
(d) Form and
content of
review. The judge advocate's review shall be in writing and shall
contain the following:
(1) Conclusions as to whether-
(A) the court-martial had jurisdiction over the accused and each offense as to which there
is a finding of
guilty that has not been disapproved;
(B) each specification as to which there is a finding of guilty that has not been disapproved
stated an offense; and
(C) the sentence was legal.
(2) A response to each allegation of en-or made in writing by the accused. Such allegations
may be filed under R.C.M. 1106 or directly with the judge advocate who reviews the case; and
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(3) If
the case is sent for action to the officer exercising general court-martial jurisdiction
under subsection (e) of
this rule, a recommendation as to the appropriate action to be taken and
an opinion as to whether corrective action is required as a matter of
law.
A copy of
the judge advocate's review under this rule shall be attached to the record of
trial. A
copy of the review shall also be forwarded to the accused.
(e) Forwarding to officer exercising general court-martial
jurisdiction. In cases reviewed under
this rule, the record of trial shall be sent for action to the officer exercising general court-
martial convening authority over the accused at the time the court-martial was held (or to that
officer's successor) when:
(1) The judge advocate who reviewed the case recommends corrective action; or
(2) Such action is othenvise required by regulations of
the Secretary concerned.
(f) Action by officer exercising general court-martialjurisdiction.
(1) Action. The officer exercising general court-martial jurisdiction who receives a record
under subsection (e) of
this mle may-
(A) Disapprove or approve the findings or sentence in whole or in part;
(B) Remit, commute, or suspend the sentence in whole or in part;
(C) Except where the evidence was insufficient at the trial to support the findings, order a
rehearing on the findings, on the sentence, or on both; or
(D) Dismiss the charges.
(2) Rehearing. If
the officer exercising general court-martial jurisdiction orders a rehearing,
but the convening authority finds a rehearing impracticable, the convening authority shall
dismiss the charges.
(3) Notification. After the of1icer exercising general court-martial jurisdiction has taken
action, the accused shall be notified of
the action and the accused shall be provided with a copy
ofthe action.
(g) Record~fonvarded
to the Judge Advocate General. If
the judge advocate who reviews the
case under this rule states that corrective action is required as a matter oflaw, and the otlicer
exercising general court-martial jurisdiction does not take action that is at least as favorable to
the accused as that recommended by the judge advocate, the record of
trial and the action
thereon shall be forwarded to the Judge Advocate General for review under R.C.M. 1201(j).
(h) Application
for post1inal review by the Judge Advocate General. Not later than one year
after completion of
the judge advocate's review of
the case under this mle, the accused may
apply for review by the Judge Advocate General under R.C.M. 120l(h) on the grounds of
newly discovered evidence, fraud on the court-martial, lack of
jurisdiction over the accused or
offense, error prejudicial to the substantial rights of
the accused, or the appropriateness of
the
sentence.
(i) Review by a Court of
Criminal Appeals. After the Judge Advocate General reviews a
summary court-martial under R.C.M. 1201(h) or (j), the case may be sent to the Court of
Criminal Appeals by order of
the Judge Advocate General, or the accused may submit an
application for review to the Court of
Criminal Appeals in accordance with R.C.M. 1201(k).
(j) Other records. Records reviewed under this rule that are not forwarded under subsection (g)
shall be disposed of as prescribed by the Secretary concerned.
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Sec.~· Part III of the Manual for Courts-Martial, United States is amended to read as
follows:
Rule 101. Scope
SECTION I
GENERAL PROVISIONS
(a) Scope. These rules apply to courts-martial proceeclings to the extent and with the exceptions
stated in Mil. R. Evid. 1101.
(b) Sources <~fLaw. In the absence of guidance in this Manual or these rules, courts-martial will
apply:
(1) First, the Federal Rules of
Evidence and the case law interpreting them; and
(2) Second, when not inconsistent with subdivision (b
)(1 ), the rules of evidence at common
law.
(c) Rule ojConstruction
(1) Except as otherwise provided in these rules, the term "military judge" includes:
(A) a military magistrate designated to preside at a special comt-martial or pre-referral
judicial proceeding; and
(B) a summary cou1t-martial otlicer.
(2) A reference in these rules to any kind of
written material or any other medium includes
electronically stored information.
Rule 102. Purpose
These rules should be construed so as to administer every proceeding fairly, eliminate
unjustifiable expense and delay, and promote the development of
evidence law, to the end of
ascettaining the truth and securing a just determination.
Rule 103. Rulings on evidence
(a) Preserving a Claim of
Error. A party may claim error in a ruling to admit or exclude evidence only
if
the error matetially prejudices a substantial tight of
the party and:
(1) if
the ruling admits evidence, a party, on the record:
(A) timely objects or moves to strike; and
(B) states the specific ground, unless it was apparent from the context; or
(2) if
the ruling excludes evidence, a party informs the military judge of its substance by an
offer of
proof, unless the substance was apparent from the context.
(b) Not Needing to Renew an Objection or Offer<?{ Pro<?f Once the military judge rules
definitively on the record admitting or excluding evidence, either before or at trial, a party need
not renew an objection or offer of
proof
to preserve a claim of
error for appeal.
(c) Review <?{Con.'i·titutional F:rror. The standard provided in subdivision (a)(2) does not apply to
errors implicating the United States Constitution as it applies to members of
the Anned Forces,
unless the error arises under these rules and subdivision (a)(2) provides a standard that is more
advantageous to the accused than the constitutional standard.
(d) I'4ilitary Judge's Statement ahoutthe Ruling; Directing an Qffer £?{ Pro(?f The military judge
may make any statement about the character or form of
the evidence, the objection made, and the
ruling. The military judge may direct that an offer of proof be made in question-and-answer
form.
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(e) Preventing the Members ft·om Hearing Inadmissible Evidence. In a court-martial composed
of
a military judge and members, to the extent practicable, the military judge must conduct a trial
so that inadmissible evidence is not suggested to the members by any means.
(f) Taking Notice ofF
lain Error. A military judge may take notice of a plain error that materially
prejudices a substantial right, even if
the claim of error was not properly preserved.
Rule 104. Preliminary questions
(a) In general. The military judge must decide any preliminary question about whether a witness
is available or qualified, a privilege exists, a continuance should be granted, or evidence is
admissible. In so deciding, the military judge is not bound by evidence mles, except those on
privilege.
(b) Relevance that Depends on a Fact. When the relevance of
evidence depends on whether a
fact exists, proof must be introduced sufficient to support a finding that the fact does exist. The
military judge may admit the proposed evidence on the condition that the proof be introduced
later. A mling on the sufficiency of evidence to support a finding of fulfillment of
a condition of
fact is the sole responsibility of
the military judge, except where these rules or this Manual
provide expressly to the contrary.
(c) Conducting a Hearing so that the Members Cannot Hear Jt. The military judge must conduct
any hearing on a preliminary question so that the members cannot hear it if:
(1) the hearing involves the admissibility of a statement of
the accused under MiL R. Evid.
301-306;
(2) the accused is a witness and so requests; or
(3) justice so requires.
(d) Cross-Examining the Accused By testifying on a preliminary question, the accused does not
become subject to cross-examination on other issues in the case.
(e)Evidence Relevant to Weight and Credibility. This mle does not limit a party's right to
introduce before the members evidence that is relevant to the weight or credibility of other
evidence.
Rule 105. Limiting evidence that is not admissible against other pat·ties or for other
purposes
If
the military judge admits evidence that is admissible against a party or for a purpose- but not
against another party or for another purpose- the military judge, on timely request, must restrict
the evidence to its proper scope and instruct the members accordingly.
Rule 106. Remainder of or related writings or recorded statements
If a party introduces all or part of
a writing or recorded statement, an adverse party may require
the introduction, at that time, of
any other part - or any other writing or recorded statement -that
in fairness ought to be considered at the same time.
SECTION IT
JlJDICIAL NOTICE
Rule 201. Judicial notice of adjudicative facts
(a) Scope. This rule governs judicial notice of
an adjudicative fact only, not a legislative fact.
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(b) Kinds ofF
acts that May Be Judicially Noticed. The military judge may judicially notice a
fact that is not subject to reasonable dispute because it:
(1) is generally known universally, loc.ally, or in the area pertinent to the event; or
(2) can be accurately and readily determined from sources whose accuracy cannot reasonably
be questioned.
(c) Taking Notice. The military judge:
(1) may take judicial notice whether requested or not; or
(2) must take judicial notice if
a party requests it and the military judge is supplied with the
necessary information.
The military judge must infonn the parties in open court when, without being requested, he or
she takes judicial notice of
an adjudicative fact essential to establishing an element of
the case.
(d) Timin;;. The military judge may take judicial notice at any stage of
the proceeding.
(e) Opportunity to Be Heard On timely request, a party is entitled to be heard on the propriety
of
taking judicial notice and the nature of
the fact to be noticed. If
the military judge takes
judicial notice before notifying a party, the party, on request, is still entitled to be heard.
(f) Instructing the Members. The military judge must instruct the members that they may or may
not accept the noticed fact as conclusive.
Rule 202. Judicial notice of law
(a) Domestic J.aw. The military judge may take judicial notice of
domestic law. If
a domestic
law is a fact that is of
consequence to the determination of
the action, the procedural
requirements of
Mil. R. Evid. 201-except Rule 201(:£}--apply.
(b) Foreign Law. A party who intends to raise an issue concerning the law of a foreign country
must give reasonable written notice. The military judge, in detennining foreign law, may
consider any relevant material or source, in accordance with Mil. R. Evid. 104. Such a
determination is a ruling on a question of
law.
SECTION III
EXCLUSIONARY RULES AND RELATED 1\'IA
TTERS CONCERNING SELF-
INCRIMINATION, SEARCH AND SEIZURE, AND EYEWITNESS IDENTIFICATION
Rule 301. Privilege concerning compulsory self-incrimination
(a) General Rule. An individual may claim the most favorable privilege provided by the Fifth
Amendment to the United States Constitution, Article 31, or these rules. The privileges against
self-incrimination are applicable only to evidence of a testimonial or communicative nature.
(b) Standing. The privilege of
a witness to refuse to respond to a question that may tend to
incriminate the witness is a personal one that the witness may exercise or waive at his or her
discretion.
(c) Limited Waiver. An accused who chooses to testify as a witness waives the privilege against
self-incrimination only with respect to the matters about which he or she testifies. lfthe accused
is on trial for two or more offenses and on direct examination testifies about only one or some of
the offenses, the accused may not be cross-examined as to guilt or innocence with respect to the
other ommses unless the cross-examination is relevant to an offense concerning which the
accused has testified. This waiver is subject to Mil. R. Evid. 608(b
).
(d) f:_xercise of
the Privilege. If
a witness states that the answer to a question may tend to
incriminate him or her, the witness cannot be required to answer unless the military judge finds
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that the facts and circumstances are such that no answer the witness might make to the question
would tend to incriminate the witness or that the witness has, with respect to the question,
waived the privilege against self-incrimination. A witness may not assert the pdvilege if he or
she is not subject to criminal penalty as a result of an answer by reason of immunity, running of
the statute of
limitations, or similar reason.
(1) Immunity Requirements. The minimum grant of
immunity adequate to overcome the
privilege is that which under either R.C.M. 704 or other proper authority provides that neither the
testimony of
the witness nor any evidence obtained from that testimony may be used against the
witness at any subsequent trial other than in a prosecution for perjury, false swearing, the making
of
a false official statement, or failure to comply with an order to testify after the military judge
has ruled that the privilege may not be asserted by reason of
immunity.
(2) Not?fication qf
Immunity or Leniency. When a prosecution witness before a court-
martial has been granted immunity or leniency in exchange for testimony, the grant must be
reduced to writing and must be served on the accused prior to arraignment or within a reasonable
time before the witness testifies. If
notification is not made as required by this rule, the military
judge may grant a continuance until notification is made, prohibit or strike the testimony of
the
witness, or enter such other order as may be required.
(e) Waiver (if
the Privilege. A witness who answers a self-incriminating question without having
asserted the privilege against self-incrimination may be required to answer questions relevant to
the disclosure, unless the questions are likely to elicit additional self-incriminating information.
(1) If a witness asserts the privilege against self-incrimination on cross-examination, the
military judge, upon motion, may strike the direct testimony of
the witness in whole or in part,
unless the matters to which the witness refuses to testify are purely collateral.
(2) Any limited waiver of
the privilege under subdivision (e) applies only at the trial in
which the answer is given, does not extend to a rehearing or new or other trial, and is subject to
Mil. R. Evid. 608(b).
(f) l!.ffect of
Claiming the Privilege.
( 1) No inference to Be Drawn. The fact that a witness has asserted the privilege against
self-incrimination cannot be considered as raising any inference unfavorable to either the
accused or the government.
(2) Pretrial Invocation Not Admissible. The fact that the accused during official
questioning and in exercise of rights under the Fifth Amendment to the United States
Constitution or Article 31 remained silent, refused to answer a certain question, requested
counsel, or requested that the questioning be tenninated, is not admissible against the accused.
(3) Instructions Regarding the Privilege. When the accused does not testify at trial,
defense counsel may request that the members of
the court be instmcted to disregard that fact
and not to draw any adverse inference from it. Defense counsel may request that the members
not be so instmcted. Defense counsel's election will be binding upon the military judge except
that the military judge may give the instruction when the instmction is necessary in the interests
of
justice.
Rule 302. Privilege concerning mental examination of an accused
(a) General rule. The accused has a pdvilege to prevent any statement made by the accused at a
mental examination ordered under R.C.M. 706 and any derivative evidence obtained through use
of
such a statement from being received into evidence against the accused on the issue of guilt or
innocence or during sentencing proceedings. This privilege may be claimed by the accused
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notwithstanding the fact that the accused may have been warned of
the rights provided by Mil. R.
Evid. 305 at the examination.
(b) Exceptions.
(1) There is no privilege under this rule when the accused first introduces into evidence
such statements or derivative evidence.
(2) If
the court-martial has allowed the defense to present expert testimony as to the
mental condition of the accused, an expert witness for the prosecution may testify as to the
reasons for his or her conclusions, but such testimony may not extend to statements of
the
accused except as provided in subdivision (b)( 1
).
(c) Release of
Evidence from an R. C.M 706 Examination. If
the defense offers expert testimony
concerning the mental condition of
the accused, the military judge, upon motion, must order the
release to the prosecution of
the full contents, other than any statements made by the accused, of
any report prepared pursuant to R.C.M. 706. If
the defense offers statements made by the
accused at such examination, the military judge, upon motion, may order the disclosure of such
statements made by the accused and contained in the report as may be necessary in the interests
of
justice.
(d) Noncompliance by the Accused The military judge may prohibit an accused who refuses to
cooperate in a mental examination authorized under R.C.M. 706 from presenting any expert
medical testimony as to any issue that would have been the subject of
the mental examination.
(e) Procedure. The privilege in this rule may be claimed by the accused only under the
procedure set forth in Mil. R. Evid. 304 for an objection or a motion to suppress.
Rule 303. Degrading questions
Statements and evidence are inadmissible if
they are not material to the issue and may tend to
degrade the person testifying.
Rule 304. Confessions and admissions
(a) General rule. If
the accused makes a timely motion or objection under this rule, an
involuntary statement from the accused, or any evidence derived therefrom, is inadmissible at
trial except as provided in subdivision (e).
(1) Definitions. As used in this rule:
(A) "Involuntary statement" means a statement obtained in violation of
the self-
incrimination privilege or Due Process Clause of
the Fifth Amendment to the United States
Constitution, Article 31, or through the use of coercion, unlawful influence, or unlawful
inducement.
(B) "Confession" means an acknowledgment of
guilt.
(C) "Admission" means a self-incriminating statement falling short of
an acknowledgment
of
guilt, even if
it was intended by its maker to be exculpatory.
(2) Failure to deny an accusation of
wrongdoing is not an admission of
the truth of
the
accusation if at the time of the alleged failure the person was under investigation or was in
confinement, arrest, or custody for the alleged wrongdoing.
(b) Evidence Derived
from a Statement of
the Accused. When the defense has made an
appropriate and timely motion or objection under this rule, evidence allegedly derived from a
statement of the accused may not be admitted unless the military judge finds by a preponderance
of
the evidence that:
(1) the statement was made voluntarily,
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(2) the evidence was not obtained by use of
the accused's statement, or
(3) the evidence would have been obtained even if
the statement had not been made.
(c) Corroboration of
a Confession or Admission.
(1) An admission or a confession of
the accused may be considered as evidence against the
accused on the question of
guilt or innocence only if
independent evidence, either direct or
circumstantial, has been admitted into evidence that would tend to establish the trustworthiness
of
the admission or confession.
(2) Other uncorroborated confessions or admissions of
the accused that would themselves
require corroboration may not be used to supply this independent evidence. If
the independent
evidence raises an inference of
the truth of
the admission or confession, then it may be
considered as evidence against the accused. Not every element or fact contained in the
confession or admission must be independently proven for the confession or admission to be
admitted into evidence in its entirety.
(3) Conoboration is not required for a statement made by the accused before the court by
which the accused is being tried, for statements made prior to or contemporaneously with the act,
or for statements offered under a rule of evidence other than that pertaining to the admissibility
of
admissions or confessions.
(4) Quantum r?{F.vidence Needed The independent evidence necessary to establish
corroboration need not be sufficient of
itself
to establish beyond a reasonable doubt the truth of
facts stated in the admission or confession. The independent evidence need raise only an
inference of
the tmth of
the admission or confession. The amount and type of evidence
introduced as conoboration is a factor to be considered by the ttier of
fact in determining the
weight, if
any, to be given to the admission or confession.
(5) Procedure. The military judge alone is to determine when adequate evidence of
corroboration has been received. Corroborating evidence must be introduced before the
admission or confession is introduced unless the military judge allows submission of such
evidence subject to later corroboration.
(d) Disclosure of
Statements by the Accused
and
Derivative £vidence. Before arraignment, the
prosecution must disclose to the defense the contents of all statements, oral or written, made by
the accused that are relevant to the case, known to trial counsel, and within the control of
the
Anned Forces, and all evidence derived from such statements, that the prosecution intends to
otTer against the accused.
(e) Limited Use of
an Involuntary Statement. A statement obtained in violation of
Article 31 or
Mil. R. Evid. 305(b)-(c) may be used only:
(1) to impeach by contradiction the in-court testimony of
the accused; or
(2) in a later prosecution against the accused for perjury, false swearing, or the making of
a
false official statement.
(f) l'vfotions and Objections.
(1) Motions to suppress or objections under this mle, or Mil. R. Evid. 302 or 305, to any
statement or derivative evidence that has been disclosed must be made by the defense prior to
submission of
a plea. In the absence of such motion or objection, the defense may not raise the
issue at a later time except as pennitted by the military judge for good cause shown. Failure to so
move or object constitutes a waiver of
the objection.
(2) If
the prosecution seeks to offer a statement made by the accused or derivative evidence
that was not disclosed before arraignment, the prosecution must provide timely notice to the
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military judge and defense counsel. The defense may object at that time, and the military judge
may make such orders as are required in the interests of
justice.
(3) The defense may present evidence relevant to the admissibility of
evidence as to which
there has been an objection or motion to suppress under this rule. An accused may testify for the
limited purpose of denying that the accused made the statement or that the statement was made
voluntarily.
(A) Prior to the introduction of such testimony by the accused, the defense must inform the
military judge that the testimony is offered under subdivision (f)(3).
(B) When the accused testifies under subdivision (f)(3), the accused may be cross-
examined only as to the matter on which he or she testifies. Nothing said by the accused on
either direct or cross-examination may be used against the accused for any purpose other than in
a prosecution for perjury, false swearing, or the making of
a false official statement.
(4) Spec{ficily. The military judge may require the defense to specify the grounds upon which
the defense moves to suppress or object to evidence. If defense counsel, despite the exercise of
due diligence, has been unable to interview adequately those persons involved in the taking of
a
statement, the military judge may make any order required in the interests of
justice, including
authorization for the defense to make a general motion to suppress or general objection.
(5) Rulings·. The military judge must rule, prior to plea, upon any motion to suppress or
objection to evidence made prior to plea unless, for good cause, the military judge orders that the
ruling be deferred for determination at trial or after findings. The military judge may not defer
ruling if
doing so adversely affects a party's right to appeal the ruling. The military judge must
state essential findings of fact on the record when the ruling involves factual issues.
(6) Burden (if
Proof When the defense has made an appropriate motion or objection under
this mle, the prosecution has the burden of
establishing the admissibility of
the evidence. When
the military judge has required a specific motion or objection under subdivision (f)(
4
), the
burden on the prosecution extends only to the grounds upon which the defense moved to
suppress or object to the evidence.
(7) Standard of
Proof The military judge must tind by a preponderance of
the evidence that a
statement by the accused was made voluntarily before it may be received into evidence.
(8) Affect of
Guilty Plea. Except as otherwise expressly provided in R.C.M. 91 O(a)(2), a plea
of
guilty to an offense that results in a finding of
guilty waives all privileges against self-
incrimination and all motions and objections under this mle with respect to that offense
regardless of
whether raised prior to plea.
(g) Weight of
the Evidence. If
a statement is admitted into evidence, the military judge must
permit the defense to present relevant evidence with respect to the voluntariness of
the statement
and must instmct the members to give such weight to the statement as it deserves under all the
circumstances.
(h) Completeness. If
only part of
an alleged admission or confession is introduced against the
accused, the defense, by cross-examination or otherwise, may introduce the remaining portions
of
the statement.
(i)Avidence of
an Oral Statement. A voluntary oral confession or admission ofthe accused may
be proved by the testimony of anyone who heard the accused make it, even if
it was reduced to
writing and the writing is not accounted for.
G) Refusal to Obey an Order to Submit a Body Substance. If
an accused refuses a lawful order to
submit for chemical analysis a sample of
his or her blood, breath, urine or other body substance,
evidence of such refusal may be admitted into evidence on:
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( 1) A charge of
violating an order to submit such a sample; or
(2) Any other charge on which the results of
the chemical analysis would have been
admissible.
Rule 305. Warnings about rights
(a) General rule. A statement obtained in violation of
this rule is involuntary and will be treated
under Mil. R. Evid. 304.
(b) Definitions. As used in this rule:
(1) "Person subject to the code" means a person subject to the Uniform Code ofMilitary
Justice as contained in Chapter 4
7 of Title 10, United States Code. This term includes, for
purposes of subdivision (c) of
this rule, a knowing agent of any such person or of
a military unit.
(2) "Interrogation" means any formal or informal questioning in which an incriminating
response either is sought or is a reasonable consequence of
such questioning.
(3) "Custodial intetrogation" means questioning that takes place while the accused or
suspect is in custody, could reasonably believe himself or herself to be in custody, or is otherwise
deprived of his or her freedom of
action in any significant way.
(c) Warnings Concerning the Accusation, Right to Remain Silent, and [1.\·e ofStatements.
(1) Article 31 Rights Warnings. A statement obtained from the accused in violation of
the
accused's rights under Article 31 is involuntary and therefore inadmissible against the accused
except as provided in subdivision (d). Pursuant to Article 31, a person subject to the code may
not interrogate or request any statement from an accused or a person suspected of
an offense
without t1rst:
(A) informing the accused or suspect of
the nature of
the accusation;
(B) advising the accused or suspect that the accused or suspect has the right to
remain silent; and
(C) advising the accused or suspect that any statement made may be used as
evidence against the accused or suspect in a trial by court-martial.
(2) Fifth Amendment Right to Counsel. If
a person suspected of an offense and subjected
to custodial interrogation requests counsel, any statement made in the interrogation after such
request, or evidence derived from the interrogation after such request, is inadmissible against the
accused unless counsel was present for the interrogation.
(3) Sixth Amendment Right to Counsel. If
an accused against whom charges have been
preferred is interrogated on matters concerning the preferred charges by anyone acting in a law
enforcement capacity, or the agent of
such a person, and the accused requests counsel, or if
the
accused has appointed or retained counsel, any statement made in the interrogation, or evidence
derived from the interrogation, is inadmissible unless counsel was present for the interrogation.
(4) Exercise of
Rights. If a person chooses to exercise the privilege against self-
incrimination, questioning must cease immediately. If
a person who is subjected to interrogation
under the circumstances described in subdivisions (
c
)(2) or (
c
)(3) of
this rule chooses to exercise
the right to counsel, questioning must cease until counsel is present.
(d) Presence of
Counsel. When a person entitled to counsel under this rule requests counsel, a
judge advocate or an individual certified in accordance with Article 27(b) will be provided by the
United States at no expense to the person and without regard to the person's indigency and must
be present before the interrogation may proceed. In addition to counsel supplied by the United
States, the person may retain civilian counsel at no expense to the United States. Unless
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otherwise provided by regulations of
the Secretary concerned, an accused or suspect does not
have a right under this rule to have military counsel of
his or her own selection.
(e) Waiver.
( 1) Waiver of
the Privilege Against Se?f-Incrimination. After receiving applicable
warnings under this rule, a person may waive the rights described therein and in Mil. R. Evid.
301 and make a statement. The waiver must be made freely, knowingly, and intelligently. A
written waiver is not required. The accused or suspect must affirmatively acknowledge that he or
she understands the rights involved, affirmatively decline the right to counsel, and affirmatively
consent to making a statement.
(2) Waiver of
the Right to Counsel. If the right to counsel is applicable under this rule and
the accused or suspect does not affirmatively decline the right to counsel, the prosecution must
demonstrate by a preponderance of the evidence that the individual waived the right to counsel.
(3) Waiver ,1fter lnilially Jnvoking the Right to Counsel.
(A) F!fth Amendment Right to Coun._<;el.
If
an accused or suspect subjected to custodial interrogation requests counsel, any subsequent
waiver of
the right to counsel obtained during a custodial interrogation concerning the same or
different offenses is invalid unless the prosecution can demonstrate by a preponderance of
the
evidence that
(i) the accused or suspect initiated the communication leading to the
wa1ver; or
(ii) the accused or suspect has not continuously had his or her freedom
restricted by confinement, or other means, during the period between the request for counsel and
the subsequent waiver.
(B) Sixth Amendment Right to Counsel. If
an accused or suspect inten-ogated after
preferral of
charges as described in subdivision (c)(3) requests counsel, any subsequent waiver of
the right to counsel obtained during an interrogation concerning the same otienses is invalid
unless the prosecution can demonstrate by a preponderance of
the evidence that the accused or
suspect initiated the communication leading to the waiver.
(t) Standards for Nonmilitary interrogations.
( 1) United States Civilian interrogations. When a person subject to the code is
interrogated by an official or agent of
the United States, of
the District of
Columbia, or of a
State, Commonwealth, or possession ofthe United States, or any political subdivision of such a
State, Commonwealth, or possession, the person's entitlement to rights warnings and the validity
of
any waiver of
applicable rights will be determined by the principles oflaw generally
recognized in the trial of
criminal cases in the United States district courts involving similar
interrogations.
(2) Foreign Interrogations. Warnings under Article 31 and the Fifth and Sixth
Amendments to the United States Constitution are not required during an interrogation
conducted outside of a State, district, Commonwealth, territory, or possession of
the United
States by officials of
a foreign government or their agents unless such interrogation is conducted,
instigated, or participated in by milita1y personnel or their agents or by those officials or agents
listed in subdivision (f)(
1
). A statement obtained from a foreign interrogation is admissible
unless the statement is obtained through the use of coercion, unlawful influence, or unlawful
inducement. An interrogation is not "participated in" by military personnel or their agents or by
the officials or agents listed in subdivision (f)(l) merely because such a person was present at an
intenogation conducted in a foreign nation by officials of
a foreign government or their agents,
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or because such a person acted as an interpreter or took steps to mitigate damage to property or
physical hann during the foreign interrogation.
Rule 306. Statements by one of several accused
When two or more accused are tried at the same trial, evidence of a statement made by one of
them which is admissible only against him or her or only against some but not all of
the accused
may not be received in evidence unless all references inculpating an accused against whom the
statement is inadmissible are deleted effectively or the maker of
the statement is subject to cross-
examination.
Rule 311. Evidence obtained from unlawful searches and seizures
(a) General rule. Evidence obtained as a result of
an unlawful search or seizure made by a person
acting in a govemmental capacity is inadmissible against the accused if:
(
1) the accused makes a timely motion to suppress or an objection to the evidence under this
rule;
(2) the accused had a reasonable expectation of privacy in the person, place, or property
searched;
the accused had a legitimate interest in the property or evidence seized when challenging a
seizure; or the accused would otherwise have grounds to object to the search or seizure under the
Constitution of
the United States as applied to members of
the Armed Forces; and
(3) exclusion of
the evidence results in appreciable deterrence of
future unlawful searches or
seizures and the benefits of such deterrence outweigh the costs to the justice system.
(b) Definition. As used in this rule, a search or seizure is "unlawful" if
it was conducted,
instigated, or participated in by:
(
1) military personnel or their agents and was in violation of
the Constitution of
the United
States as applied to members of
the Armed Forces, a federal statute applicable to trials by court-
martial that requires exclusion of
evidence obtained in violation thereof: or MiL R. Evid. 312-
317;
(2) other oflicials or agents of
the United States, of
the District of Columbia, or of
a State,
Commonwealth, or possession of
the United States or any political subdivision of
such a State,
Commonwealth, or possession, and was in violation of
the Constitution of
the United States, or is
unlawful under the principles oflaw generally applied in the trial of
criminal cases in the United
States district courts involving a similar search or seizure; or
(3) officials of
a foreign govemment or their agents, where evidence was obtained as a result
of
a foreign search or seizure that subjected the accused to gross and brutal maltreatment. A
search or seizure is not "participated in" by a United States military or civilian official merely
because that person is present at a search or seizure conducted in a foreign nation by officials of
a foreign government or their agents, or because that person acted as an interpreter or took steps
to mitigate damage to property or physical harm during the foreign search or seizure.
(c) Exceptions.
(
1) Impeachment. Evidence that was obtained as a result of an unlawful search or seizure
may be used to impeach by contradiction the in-court testimony of
the accused.
(2) Inevitable Discovery. Evidence that was obtained as a result of an unlawful search or
seizure may be used when the evidence would have been obtained even if such unlawful search
or seizure had not been made.
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(3) Good Faith Execution of
a Warrant or Search Authorization. Evidence that was obtained
as a result of an unlawful search or seizure may be used if:
(A) the search or seizure resulted from an authorization to search, seize or apprehend
issued by an individual competent to issue the authorization under Mil. R. Evid. 315(d) or from a
search warrant or arrest warrant issued by competent civilian authority;
(B) the individual issuing the authorization or warrant had a substantial basis for
determining the existence of probable cause; and
(C) the officials seeking and executing the authorization or warrant reasonably and with
good faith relied on the issuance of the authorization or warrant. Good faith is to be determined
using an objective standard.
(
4) Reliance on Statute or Binding Precedent. Evidence that was obtained as a result of an
unlawful search or seizure may be used when the official seeking the evidence acted in
objectively reasonable reliance on a statute or on binding precedent later held violative of
the
Fourth Amendment.
(d) Motions lo Suppress and
O~iections.
(1) Disclosure. Prior to arraignment, the prosecution must disclose to the defense all
evidence seized from the person or property of
the accused, or believed to be owned by the
accused, or evidence derived therefrom, that it intends to offer into evidence against the accused
at trial.
(2) Time Requirements.
(A) When evidence has been disclosed prior to arraignment under subdivision (d)(l), the
defense must make any motion to suppress or objection under this rule prior to submission of
a
plea. In the absence of such motion or objection, the defense may not raise the issue at a later
time except as permitted by the military judge for good cause shown. Failure to so move or
object constitutes a waiver of
the motion or objection.
(B) If
the prosecution intends to offer evidence described in subdivision (d)( I) that was
not disclosed prior to arraignment, the prosecution must provide timely notice to the military
judge and to counsel for the accused. The defense may enter an objection at that time and the
military judge may make such orders as are required in the interest ofjustice.
(3) Specificity. The military judge may require the defense to specify the grounds upon which
the defense moves to suppress or object to evidence described in subdivision (d)( I). If defense
counsel, despite the exercise of
due diligence, has been unable to interview adequately those
persons involved in the search or seizure, the military judge may enter any order required by the
interests of
justice, including authorization for the defense to make a general motion to suppress
or a general objection.
(4) Challenging Probable Cause.
(A) Relevant Evidence. If
the defense challenges evidence seized pursuant to a search
warrant or search authorization on the ground that the warrant or authorization was not based
upon probable cause, the evidence relevant to the motion is limited to evidence concerning the
information actually presented to or otherw-ise known by the authorizing officer, except as
provided in subdivision (d)(
4)(B).
(B) False Statements. If
the defense makes a substantial preliminary showing that a
government agent included a false statement knowingly and intentionally or with reckless
disregard for the truth in the information presented to the authorizing officer, and if
the allegedly
false statement is necessary to the finding of
probable cause, the defense, upon request, is
entitled to a heating. At the hearing, the defense has the burden of establishing by a
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preponderance of
the evidence the allegation of knowing and intentional falsity or reckless
disregard for the truth. If the defense meets its burden, the prosecution has the burden of proving
by a preponderance of
the evidence, with the false information set aside, that the remaining
infonnation presented to the authorizing officer is sufficient to establish probable cause. If the
prosecution does not meet its burden, the objection or motion must be granted unless the search
is otherwise lawful under these mles.
(5) Burden and Standard of
Proof
(A) In general. When the defense makes an appropriate motion or objection under
subdivision (d), the prosecution has the burden of
proving by a preponderance of
the evidence
that the evidence was not obtained as a result of
an unlawful search or seizure; that the evidence
would have been obtained even if
the unlawful search or seizure had not been made; that the
evidence was obtained by officials who reasonably and with good faith relied on the issuance of
an authorization to search, seize, or apprehend or a search warrant or an arrest warrant; that the
evidence was obtained by officials in objectively reasonable reliance on a statute or on binding
precedent later held violative of
the Fourth Amendment; or that the deterrence of future unlawful
searches or seizures is not appreciable or such deterrence does not outweigh the costs to the
justice system of excluding the evidence.
(B) Statement Following Apprehension. In addition to subdivision (d)(5)(A), a statement
obtained from a person apprehended in a dwelling in violation of
R. C.M. 3
02(
d)(2) and (e), is
admissible if
the prosecution shows by a preponderance of
the evidence that the apprehension
was based on probable cause, the statement was made at a location outside the dwelling
subsequent to the apprehension, and the statement was otherwise in compliance with these rules.
(C) :Specific Grounds of
Motion or Objection. When the military judge has required the
defense to make a specific motion or objection under subdivision (d)(3), the burden on the
prosecution extends only to the t,1founds upon which the defense moved to suppress or objected
to the evidence.
(6) Defense }.:vidence. The defense may present evidence relevant to the admissibility of
evidence as to which there has been an appropriate motion or objection under this rule. An
ac.cused may testify for the limited purpose of
contesting the legality of
the search or seizure
giving rise to the challenged evidence. Prior to the introduction of such testimony by the
accused, the defense must infonn the military judge that the testimony is offered under
subdivision (d). When the accused testifies under subdivision (d), the accused may be cross-
examined only as to the matter on which he or she testifies. Nothing said by the accused on
either direct or cross-examination may be used against the accused for any purpose other than in
a prosecution for perjury, false swearing, or the making of a false official statement.
(7) Rulings. The military judge must mle, prior to plea, upon any motion to suppress or
objection to evidence made prior to plea unless, for good cause, the military judge orders that the
ruling be deferred for determination at trial or after findings. The military judge may not defer
mling if
doing so adversely affects a party's right to appeal the mling. The military judge must
state essential findings of fact on the record when the ruling involves factual issues.
(8) Iriforming the Jvfembers. If
a defense motion or objection under this rule is sustained in
whole or in part, the court-martial members may not be informed of
that fact except when the
military judge must instruct the members to disregard evidence.
(e) F;[fect of
Guilty Plea. Except as otherwise expressly provided in R.C.M. 910(a)(2), a plea of
guilty to an offense that results in a finding of
guilty waives all issues under the Fourth
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Amendment to the Constitution of
the United States and Mil. R. Evid. 311-317 with respect to
the offense, whether or not raised prior to plea.
Rule 312. Body views and intrusions
(a) General rule. Evidence obtained from body views and intrusions conducted in accordance
with this rule is admissible at trial when relevant and not otherwise inadmissible under these
rules.
(b) Visual examination of
the body.
(1) Consensual Examination. Evidence obtained from a visual examination of the
unclothed body is admissible if
the person consented to the inspection in accordance vvith MiL R.
Evid. 314(e).
(2) Involuntmy Examination. Evidence obtained from an involuntary display of
the
unclothed body, including a visual examination of body cavities, is admissible only ifthe
inspection was conducted in a reasonable fashion and authorized under the following provisions
of
the Military Rules of
Evidence:
(A)inspections and inventories under Mil. R. Evid. 313;
(B)searches under Mil. R. Evid. 314(b) and 314(c) if there is a reasonable
suspicion that weapons, contraband, or evidence of crime is concealed on the body of
the person
to be searched;
(C) searches incident to lawful apprehension under Mil. R. Evid. 314(g);
(D)searches within a jail, confinement facility, or similar facility under MiL R.
Evid. 314(h) if
reasonably necessary to maintain the security of
the institution or its personnel;
(E) emergency searches under MiL R Evid. 314(i); and
(F) probable cause searches under MiL R. Evid. 315.
(c) intrusion into Body Cavities.
(l)Mouth, Nose, and~'ars. Evidence obtained from a reasonable nonconsensual physical
intrusion into the mouth, nose, and ears is admissible under the same standards that apply to a
visual examination of
the body under subdivision (b).
(2) Other Body Cavities. Evidence obtained from nonconsensual intrusions into other
body cavities is admissible only if
made in a reasonable fashion by a person with appropriate
medical qualifications and if:
(A) at the time of
the intrusion there was probable cause to believe that a weapon,
contraband, or other evidence of crime was present;
(B) conducted to remove weapons, contraband, or evidence of
crime discovered
under subdivisions (b) or (c)(2)(A) of
this rule;
(C) conducted pursuant to MiL R. Evid. 316(c)(5)(C);
(D) conducted pursuant to a search warrant or search authorization under Mil. R.
Evid. 315; or
(E) conducted pursuant to MiL R Evid. 314(h) based on a reasonable suspicion
that the individual is concealing a weapon, contraband, or evidence of
crime.
(d) Extraction of
Body Fluids. Evidence obtained from nonconsensual extraction of
body fluids
is admissible if seized pursuant to a search warrant or a search authorization under Mil. R. Evid.
315. Evidence obtained from nonconsensual extraction of
body fluids made without such a
warrant or authorization is admissible, notwithstanding MiL R. Evid. 315(g), only when probable
cause existed at the time of
extraction to believe that evidence of
crime would be found and that
the delay necessary to obtain a search warrant or search authorization could have resulted in the
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destruction of
the evidence. Evidence obtained from nonconsensual extraction of
body fluids is
admissible only when executed in a reasonable fashion by a person with appropriate medical
qualifications.
(e) Other Intrusive Searches. Evidence obtained from a nonconsensual intrusive search of
the
body, other than searches described in subdivisions (c) or (d), conducted to locate or obtain
weapons, contraband, or evidence of
crime is admissible only if
obtained pursuant to a search
warrant or search authorization under Mil. R. Evid. 315 and conducted in a reasonable fashion by
a person >vith appropriate medical qualifications in such a manner so as not to endanger the
health of
the person to be searched.
(f) Intrusions for Valid Medical Purposes. Evidence or contraband obtained in the course of a
medical examination or an intrusion conducted for a valid medical purpose is admissible. Such
an examination or intrusion may not, for the purpose of obtaining evidence or contraband,
exceed what is necessary for the medical purpose.
(g) JM~edical Qualifications. The Secretary concerned may prescribe approptiate medical
qualifications for persons who conduct searches and seizures under this rule.
Rule 313. Inspections and inventories in the A1·med Forces
(a) General Rule. Evidence obtained from lawful inspections and inventories in the Armed
Forces is admissible at trial when relevant and not otherwise inadmissible under these rules. An
unlawful weapon, contraband, or other evidence of
a crime discovered during a lawful inspection
or inventory may be seized and is admissible in accordance with this rule.
(b) LaHful Inspections. An "inspection" is an examination of
the whole or part of a unit,
organization, installation, vessel, aircraft, or vehicle, including an examination conducted at
entrance and exit points, conducted as an incident of
command the primary purpose of
which is
to determine and to ensure the security, military fitness, or good order and discipline of
the unit,
organization, installation, vessel, aircraft, or vehicle. Inspections must be conducted in a
reasonable fashion and, if
applicable, must comply with Mil. R. Evid. 312. Inspections may
utilize any reasonable natural or technological aid and may be conducted with or without notice
to those inspected.
(1) Purpose of
inspections. An inspection may include, but is not limited to, an
examination to detennine and to ensure that any or all of
the following requirements are met: that
the command is properly equipped, functioning properly, maintaining proper standards of
readiness, sea or airworthiness, sanitation and cleanliness; and that personnel are present, fit, and
ready for duty. An order to produce body fluids, such as urine, is pennissible in accordance with
this rule.
(2) Searches for Evidence. An examination made for the primary purpose of
obtaining
evidence for use in a trial by court-martial or in other disciplinary proceedings is not an
inspection within the meaning of
this rule.
(3) Examinations to Locate and Confiscate Weapons or Contraband.
(A) An inspection may include an examination to locate and confiscate unlawful
weapons and other contraband provided that the criteria set forth in subdivision (b)(3)(B) are not
implicated.
(B) The prosecution must prove by clear and convincing evidence that the
examination was an inspection within the meaning of
this rule if a purpose of an examination is
to locate weapons or contraband, and if:
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(i) the examination was directed immediately following a report of a
specific offense in the unit, organization, installation, vessel, aircraft, or vehicle and was not
previously scheduled;
(ii) specific individuals are selected for examination; or
(iii) persons examined are subjected to substantially different intrusions
during the same examination.
(c) Lawful Inventories. An "inventory" is a reasonable examination, accounting, or other control
measure used to account for or control property, assets, or other resources. It is administrative
and not prosecutorial in nature, and if applicable, the inventory must comply with Mil. R. Evid.
312. An examination made for the primary purpose of obtaining evidence for use in a trial by
court-martial or in other disciplinary proceedings is not an inventory within the meaning of
this
rule.
Rule 314. Searches not requiring probable cause
(a) General Rule. Evidence obtained from reasonable searches not requiring probable cause is
admissible at trial when relevant and not otherwise inadmissible under these rules or the
Constitution of the United States as applied to members of
the Armed Forces.
(b) Border Searches. Evidence from a border search for customs or immigration purposes
authorized by a federal statute is admissible.
(c) Searches· Upon F,ntry to or F,xit.fhml United States ln.'i'lallations, Aircn~ft, and Ve5sels
Abroad. Tn addition to inspections under Mil. R. Evid. 313(b), evidence is admissible when a
commander of
a United States military installation, enclave, or aircraft on foreign soil, or in
foreign or international airspace, or a United States vessel in foreign or international waters, has
authorized appropriate personnel to search persons or the property of
such persons upon entry to
or exit from the installation, enclave, aircraft, or vessel to ensure the security, militmy fitness, or
good order and discipline of
the command. A search made for the primary purpose of
obtaining
evidence for use in a trial by court-martial or other disciplinary proceeding is not authorized by
subdivision (c).
(d) Searches of
Government Property. Evidence resulting from a search of government property
without probable cause is admissible under this rule unless the person to whom the property is
issued or assigned has a reasonable expectation of privacy therein at the time of
the search.
Normally a person does not have a reasonable expectation of
privacy in government property
that is not issued for personal use. Wall or floor lockers in living quarters issued for the purpose
of
storing personal possessions nonnally are issued for personal use, but the detern1ination as to
whether a person has a reasonable expectation of privacy in government property issued for
personal use depends on the facts and circumstances at the time of
the search.
(e) Consent Searches.
( 1) General Rule. Evidence of
a search conducted without probable cause is admissible if
conducted with lawful consent.
(2) Who AJay Consent. A person may consent to a search of
his or her person or property,
or both, unless control over such property has been given to another. A person may grant consent
to search property when the person exercises control over that property.
(3) Scope of
Consent. Consent may be limited in any way by the person granting consent,
including limitations in terms of
time, place, or property, and may be withdrawn at any time.
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(4) Voluntariness. To be valid, consent must be given voluntarily. Voluntariness is a
question to be determined from all the circumstances. Although a person's knowledge of
the
right to refuse to give consent is a factor to be considered in determining voluntariness, the
prosecution is not required to demonstrate such knowledge as a prerequisite to establishing a
voluntary consent. Mere submission to the color of
authority of
personnel performing law
enforcement duties or acquiescence in an announced or indicated purpose to search is not a
voluntary consent.
(5) Burden and
Standard of
Proof The prosecution must prove consent by clear and
convincing evidence. The fact that a person was in custody while granting consent is a factor to
be considered in determining the voluntariness of
consent, but it does not affect the standard of
proof.
(f) Searches Incident to a Lcmiul Stop.
(1) f£nvfulness. A stop is lawful when conducted by a person authorized to apprehend
under R.C.M. 302(b) or others performing law enforcement duties and when the person making
the stop has infmmation or observes unusual conduct that leads him or her reasonably to
conclude in light of
his or her experience that criminal activity may be afoot. The stop must be
temporary and investigatory in nature.
(2) Slop and Frisk. Evidence is admissible if seized from a person who was lawfully
stopped and who was frisked for weapons because he or she was reasonably suspected to be
armed and dangerous. Contraband or evidence that is located in the process of
a lawful frisk may
be seized.
(3) Vehicles. Evidence is admissible if seized in the course of
a search for weapons in the
areas of
the passenger compartment of
a vehicle in which a weapon may be placed or hidden, so
long as the person lawfully stopped is the driver or a passenger and the official who made the
stop has a reasonable suspicion that the person stopped is dangerous and may gain immediate
control of
a weapon.
(g) Searches incident to Apprehension.
( 1) General Rule. Evidence is admissible if
seized in a search of a person who has been
lawfully apprehended or if seized as a result of a reasonable protective sweep.
(2) Search for Weapons and
Destructible Evidence. A lawful search incident to
apprehension may include a search for weapons or destructible evidence in the area within the
immediate control of
a person who has been apprehended. "Immediate control" means that area
in which the individual searching could reasonably believe that the person apprehended could
reach with a sudden movement to obtain such property.
(3) Protective Sweep for Other Persons.
(A) Area ~!'Potential
Immediate Attack. Apprehending officials may, incident to
apprehension, as a precautionary matter and without probable cause or reasonable suspicion,
look in closets and other spaces immediately adjoining the place of
apprehension from which an
attack could be immediately launched.
(B) Wider Protective Sweep. When an apprehension takes place at a location in
which another person might be present who might endanger the apprehending officials or others
in the area of
the apprehension, a search incident to arrest may lawfully include a reasonable
examination of
those spaces where a person might be found. Such a reasonable examination is
lawful under subdivision (g) if
the apprehending official has a reasonable suspicion based on
specific and articulable facts that the area to be examined harbors an individual posing a danger
to those in the area of
the apprehension.
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(h) Searches lvithin Jails, Confinement Facilities, or Similar Facilities. Evidence obtained from
a search within a jail, confinement facility, or similar facility is admissible even if
conducted
without probable cause provided that it was authorized by persons with authority over the
institution.
(i) Emergency Searches to Save Life orjor Related
Purposes. Evidence obtained from
emergency searches of
persons or property conducted to save life, or for a related purpose, is
admissible provided that the search was conducted in a good faith effort to render immediate
medical aid, to obtain information that will assist in the rendering of such aid, or to prevent
immediate or ongoing personal injury.
G) Searches of
Open Fields or Woodlands. Evidence obtained from a search of
an open field or
woodland is admissible provided that the search was not unlawful within the meaning of
Mil. R.
Evid. 311.
Rule 315. Probable cause searches
(a) General rule. Evidence obtained from reasonable searches conducted pursuant to a search
warrant or search authorization, or under the exigent circumstances described in this rule, is
admissible at trial when relevant and not otherwise inadmissible under these rules or the
Constitution of
the United States as applied to members of
the Armed Forces.
(b) Definitions. As used in these rules:
(1) "Search authorization" means express permission, written or oral, issued by competent
military authority to search a person or an area for specified property or evidence or for a
specific person and to seize such property, evidence, or person. It may contain an order directing
subordinate personnel to conduct a search in a specified manner.
(2) "Search warrant" means express permission to search and seize issued by competent
civilian authority.
(c) Scope of
Search Authorization. A search authorization may be valid under this rule for a
search of:
( 1) the physical person of anyone subject to military law or the law of
war wherever
found;
(2) military property of
the United States or ofnonappropriated fund activities of an
Anned force of
the United States wherever located;
(3) persons or property situated on or in a military installation, encampment, vessel,
aircraft, vehicle, or any other location under military control, wherever located; or
(4) nonmilitary property within a foreign country.
(d) Who May Authorize. A search authorization under this rule is valid only if
issued by an
impartial individual in one of
the categories set forth in subdivisions (d)( 1) and (
d)(2). An
otherwise impartial authorizing official does not lose impartiality merely because he or she is
present at the scene of a search or is otherwise readily available to persons who may seek the
issuance of
a search authorization; nor does such an official lose impartial character merely
because the official previously and impartially authorized investigative activities when such
previous authorization is similar in intent or function to a pretrial authmization made by the
United States district courts.
(
1) Commander. A commander or other person serving in a position designated by the
Secretary concerned as either a position analogous to an officer in charge or a position of
command, who has control over the place where the property or person to be searched is situated
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or found, or, if
that place is not under military control, having control over persons subject to
military law or the law of
war; or
(2) Military Judge or }vfagistrate. A military judge or magistrate if
authorized under
regulations prescribed by the Secretary of
Defense or the Secretary concerned.
(e) Who A1ay Search.
( 1) Search Authorization. Any commissioned officer, warrant officer, petty officer,
noncommissioned officer, and, when in the execution of
guard or police duties, any criminal
investigator, member of
the Air Force security forces, military police, or shore patrol, or person
designated by proper authority to perform guard or police duties, or any agent of
any such
person, may conduct or authorize a search when a search authorization has been granted under
this rule or a search w-ould otherwise be proper under subdivision (g).
(2) Search Warrants. Any civilian or military criminal investigator authorized to request
search warrants pursuant to applicable law or regulation is authorized to serve and execute search
warrants. The execution of
a search warrant affects admissibility only insofar as exclusion of
evidence is required by the Constitution of the United States or an applicable federal statute.
(f) Rasisfor Search Authorizations.
(1) Probable Cause Requirement. A search authorization issued under this rule must be
based upon probable cause.
(2) Probable Cause Determination. Probable cause to search exists when there is a
reasonable belief that the person, property, or evidence sought is located in the place or on the
person to be searched. A search authorization may be based upon hearsay evidence in whole or
in patt. A determination of
probable cause under this rule will be based upon any or all of
the
following:
(A) written statements communicated to the authorizing official;
(B) oral statements communicated to the authorizing of1icial in person, via
telephone, or by other appropriate means of
communication; or
(C) such infonnation as may be known by the authorizing official that would not
preclude the otlicer from acting in an impartial fashion. The Secretary of
Defense or the
Secretary concerned may prescribe additional requirements through regulation.
(g) l!.xigencies. Evidence obtained from a probable cause search is admissible without a search
warrant or search authorization when there is a reasonable belief
that the delay necessary to
obtain a search warrant or search authorization would result in the removal, destruction, or
concealment of
the property or evidence sought. Military operational necessity may create an
exigency by prohibiting or preventing communication with a person empowered to grant a
search authorization.
Rule 316. Seizures
(a) General rule. Evidence obtained from reasonable seizures is admissible at trial when relevant
and not otherwise inadmissible under these rules or the Constitution of
the United States as
applied to members of
the Armed Forces.
(b) Apprehension. Apprehension is governed by R.C.M. 302.
(c) Seizure of
Property or Evidence.
(I) Based on Probable Cause. Evidence is admissible when seized based on a reasonable
belief
that the property or evidence is an unlawful weapon, contraband, evidence of
crime, or
might be used to resist apprehension or to escape.
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(2) Abandoned Property. Abandoned property may be seized without probable cause and
without a search warrant or search authorization. Such seizure may be made by any person.
(3) Consent. Property or evidence may be seized with consent consistent with the
requirements applicable to consensual searches under Mil. R. Evid. 314.
(4) Government Property. Government property may be seized without probable cause
and without a search warrant or search authorization by any person listed in subdivision (d),
unless the person to whom the property is issued or assigned has a reasonable expectation of
privacy therein, as provided in Mil. R. Evid. 314(
d), at the time of
the seizure.
(5) Other Property. Property or evidence not included in subdivisions (c)(l)-(4) may be
seized for use in evidence by any person listed in subdivision (d) if:
(A) Authorization. The person is authorized to seize the property or evidence by a
search warrant or a search authorization under Mil. R. Evid. 315;
(B) F,xigent Circumstance.">'. The person has probable cause to seize the property or
evidence and under Mil. R. Evid. 315(g) a search warrant or search authorization is not required;
or
(C) Plain View. The person while in the course of
otherwise lawful activity
observes in a reasonable fashion property or evidence that the person has probable cause to seize.
(6) Temporaty Detention. Nothing in this rule prohibits temporary detention of
property
on less than probable cause when authorized under the Constitution of
the United States.
(d) Who May Seize. Any commissioned officer, wanant officer, petty officer, noncommissioned
officer, and, when in the execution of
guard or police duties, any criminal investigator, member
of
the Air Force secmity forces, military police, or shore patrol, or individual designated by
proper authority to perform guard or police duties, or any agent of
any such person, may seize
property pursuant to this rule.
(e) Other Seizures. Evidence obtained from a seizure not addressed in this rule is admissible
provided that its seizure was permissible under the Constitution of
the United States as applied to
members ofthe Armed Forces.
Rule 317. Interception of wire and oral communications
(a) General rule. Wire or oral communications constitute evidence obtained as a result of
an
unlawful search or seizure within the meaning of Mil. R. Evid. 311 when such evidence must be
excluded under the Fourth Amendment to the Constitution of
the United States as applied to
members of
the Armed Forces or if such evidence must be excluded under a federal statute
applicable to members of
the Anned Forces.
(b) rVhen Authorized by Court Order. Evidence from the interception of
wire or oral
communications is admissible when authorized pursuant to an application to a federal judge of
competent jurisdiction under the provisions of
a federal statute.
(c) Regulations. Notwithstanding any other provision of
these mles, evidence obtained by
members of
the Armed Forces or their agents through interception of wire or oral
communications for law enforcement purposes is not admissible unless such interception:
(1) takes place in the United States and is authorized under subdivision (b);
(2) takes place outside the United States and is authorized under regulations issued by the
Secretary of
Defense or the Secretary concerned; or
(3) is authorized under regulations issued by the Secretary of
Defense or the Secretary
concerned and is not unlawful under applicable federal statutes.
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Rule 321. Eyewitness identification
(a) General rule. Testimony concerning a relevant out-of-court identification by any person is
admissible, subject to an appropriate objection under this mle, if such testimony is otherwise
admissible under these rules. The witness making the identification and any person who has
observed the previous identification may testify concerning it. When in testimony a witness
identifies the accused as being, or not being, a pa1iicipant in an offense or makes any other
relevant identification concerning a person in the courtroom, evidence that on a previous
occasion the witness made a similar identification is admissible to corroborate the witness'
testimony as to identity even if
the credibility of the witness has not been attacked directly,
subject to appropriate objection under this rule.
(b) TYhen Inadmissible. An identification of
the accused as being a participant in an offense,
whether such identification is made at the trial or otherwise, is inadmissible against the accused
if:
(1) The identification is the result of an unlawful lineup or other unlawful identification
process, as defined in subdivision (c), conducted by the United States or other domestic
authorities and the accused makes a timely motion to suppress or an objection to the evidence
under this rule; or
(2) Exclusion of
the evidence is required by the Due Process Clause of
the Fifth
Amendment to the Constitution of
the United States as applied to members of
the Armed Forces.
Evidence other than an identification of
the accused that is obtained as a result ofthe unlawful
lineup or unlawful identification process is inadmissible against the accused if
the accused makes
a timely motion to suppress or an objection to the evidence under this rule and if
exclusion of
the
evidence is required under the Constitution of
the United States as applied to members of
the
Armed Forces.
(c) Unlawful Lineup or identification Process.
(1) Unreliable. A lineup or other identification process is unreliable, and therefore
unlawtbl, if
the lineup or other identification process is so suggestive as to create a substantial
likelihood of
misidentification.
(2) in Violation C!l Right to Counsel. A lineup is unlawful if
it is conducted in violation of
the accused's rights to counsel.
(A) A1ilitary Lineups. An accused or suspect is entitled to counsel if, after preferral
of
charges or imposition of pretrial restraint under R.C .M. 304 for the offense under
investigation, the accused is required by persons subject to the code or their agents to participate
in a lineup for the purpose of
identification. When a person entitled to counsel under this rule
requests counsel, a judge advocate or a person certified in accordance with Article 27(b) will be
provided by the United States at no expense to the accused or suspect and without regard to
indigency or lack thereof before the lineup may proceed. The accused or suspect may waive the
rights provided in this rule if
the waiver is freely, knowingly, and intelligently made.
(B) Nonmilitary Lineups. When a person subject to the code is required to
participate in a lineup for purposes of identification by an official or agent of
the United States,
of
the District of
Columbia, or of
a State, Commonwealth, or possession of the United States, or
any political subdivision of such a State, Commonwealth, or possession, and the provisions of
subdivision (
c
)(2)(A) do not apply, the person's entitlement to counsel and the validity of
any
waiver of
applicable rights will be determined by the principles of
law generally recognized in
the trial of
criminal cases in the United States district courts involving similar lineups.
(d) Motions to Suppress and
O~jections.
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(1) Disclosure. Prior to arraignment, the prosecution must disclose to the defense all
evidence of, or derived from, a prior identification of
the accused as a lineup or other
identification process that it intends to offer into evidence against the accused at trial.
(2) Time Requirement. When such evidence has been disclosed, any motion to suppress or
objection under this mle must be made by the defense prior to submission of a plea. In the
absence of such motion or objection, the defense may not raise the issue at a later time except as
permitted by the military judge for good cause shown. Failure to so move constitutes a waiver of
the motion or objection.
(3) Continuing Duty. If the prosecution intends to offer such evidence and the evidence
was not disclosed prior to arraignment, the prosecution must provide timely notice to the military
judge and counsel for the accused. The defense may enter an objection at that time, and the
military judge may make such orders as are required in the interests of
justice.
(4) Spec{ficiiy. The military judge may require the defense to specify the grounds upon
which the defense moves to suppress or object to evidence. If defense counsel, despite the
exercise of due diligence, has been unable to interview adequately those persons involved in the
lineup or other identification process, the military judge may enter any order required by the
interests of
justice, including authorization for the defense to make a general motion to suppress
or a general objection.
(5) Defense Evidence. The defense may present evidence relevant to the issue of
the
admissibility of evidence as to which there has been an appropriate motion or objection under
this mle. An accused may testify for the limited purpose of contesting the legality of
the lineup
or identification process giving rise to the challenged evidence. Prior to the introduction of such
testimony by the accused, the defense must inform the military judge that the testimony is
offered under subdivision (d). When the accused testifies under subdivision (d), the accused may
be cross-examined only as to the matter on which he or she testifies. Nothing said by the accused
on either direct or cross-examination may be used against the accused for any purpose other than
in a prosecution for perjury, false swearing, or the making of a false of1icial statement.
(6) Burden and Standard of
Proof When the defense has raised a specific motion or
objection under subdivision (d)(3), the burden on the prosecution extends only to the grounds
upon which the defense moved to suppress or object to the evidence.
(A) Right to Counsel.
(i)
Initial Violation of
Right to Counsel at a Lineup. When the accused raises
the right to presence of counsel under this mle, the prosecution must prove by a preponderance
of
the evidence that counsel was present at the lineup or that the accused, having been advised of
the right to the presence of counsel, voluntarily and intelligently waived that right prior to the
lineup.
(ii) Identification Subsequent to a Lineup Conducted in Violation of
the Right
to Counsel. When the military judge determines that an identification is the result of a lineup
conducted without the presence of
counsel or an appropriate waiver, any later identification by
one present at such unlawful lineup is also a result thereof unless the military judge determines
that the contrary has been shown by clear and convincing evidence.
(B)
Unreliable Identification.
(i)
Initial Unreliable Ident(fication. When an objection raises the issue of
an
unreliable identification, the prosecution must prove by a preponderance of
the evidence that the
identification was reliable under the circumstances.
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(ii) Identification Subsequent to an Unreliable Identification. When the
military judge detennines that an identification is the result of
an unreliable identification, a later
identification may be admitted if
the prosecution proves by clear and convincing evidence that
the later identification is not the result of
the inadmissible identification.
(7) Rulings. A motion to suppress or an objection to evidence made prior to plea under
this rule will be ruled upon prior to plea unless the military judge, for good cause, orders that it
be deferred for determination at the trial of
the general issue or until after findings, but no such
determination will be deferred if a party's right to appeal the ruling is affected adversely. Where
factual issues are involved in ruling upon such motion or objection, the military judge will state
his or her essential findings of
fact on the record.
(e) F;[fect ~[Guilty
Pleas. Except as otherwise expressly provided in R.C.M. 910(a)(2), a plea of
guilty to an offense that results in a finding of
guilty waives all issues under this rule with respect
to that offense whether or not raised prior to the plea.
SECTION IV
RELEVANCY AND ITS LIMITS
Rule 401. Test for relevant evidence
Evidence is relevant if:
(a) it has any tendency to make a fact more or less probable than it would be without the
evidence; and
(b) the fact is of
consequence in determining the action.
Rule 402. General admissibility of relevant evidence
(a) Relevant evidence is admissible unless any of
the following provides othenvise:
(1) the United States Constitution as it applies to members of
the Anned Forces;
(2) a federal statute applicable to trial by courts-martial;
(3) these rules; or
(
4) this Manual.
(b) Irrelevant evidence is not admissible.
Rule 403. Excluding relevant evidence for prejudice, confusion, waste of time, or other
reasons
The military judge may exclude relevant evidence if
its probative value is substantially
outweighed by a danger of
one or more of
the following: unfair prejudice, confusing the issues,
misleading the members, undue delay, wasting time, or needlessly presenting cumulative
evidence.
Rule 404. Character evidence, crimes or other acts
(a) Character F.vidence.
(1) Prohibited Us·es. Evidence of a person's character or character trait is not admissible to
prove that on a particular occasion the person acted in accordance with the character or trait.
(2) Exceptionsfbr an Accused
or Victim
(A) The accused may offer evidence of
the accused's pertinent trait and, if
the evidence is
admitted, the prosecution may offer evidence to rebut it. General military character is not a
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pertinent trait for the purposes of showing the probability of
innocence of
the accused for the
following offenses under the UCMJ:
(i) Article 105;
(ii) Articles 120-122;
(iii) Articles 123a-124;
(iv) Articles 126-127;
(v) Articles 129-131;
(vi) Any other offense in which evidence of
general military character of
the accused is
not relevant to any element of
an offense for which the accused has been charged; or
(vii) An attempt or conspiracy to commit one of
the above offenses.
(B) Subject to the limitations in Mil. R. Evid. 412, the accused may offer evidence of
an
alleged victim's pertinent trait, and if the evidence is admitted, the prosecution may:
(i) offer evidence to rebut it; and
(ii) offer evidence of the accused's same trait; and
(C) in a homicide or assault case, the prosecution may offer evidence of
the alleged
victim's trait of peacefulness to rebut evidence that the victim was the first aggressor.
(3) Fxceptionsfor a Witness. Evidence of a witness' character may be admitted under Mil R.
Evid. 607, 608, and 609.
(b) Crimes, Wrongs, or Other Acts.
(1) Prohibited Uses. Evidence of a crime, wrong, or other act is not admissible to prove a
person's character in order to show that on a particular occasion the person acted in accordance
with the character.
(2) Permitted Uses; Notice. This evidence may be admissible for another purpose, such as
proving motive, opportunity, intent, preparation, plan, knowledge, identity, absence of
mistake,
or lack of
accident. On request by the accused, the prosecution must:
(A) provide reasonable notice of
the general nature of any such evidence that the
prosecution intends to offer at trial; and
(B) do so before trial
or during trial if
the military judge, for good cause, excuses lack of
pre-trial notice.
Rule 405. Methods of proving character
(a) By Reputation or Opinion. When evidence of
a person's character or character trait is
admissible, it may be proved by testimony about the person's reputation or by testimony in the
form of
an opinion. On cross-examination of
the character witness, the military judge may allow
an inquiry into relevant specific instances of
the person's conduct.
(b) By /::J'pectfic Instances of
Conduct. When a person's character or character trait is an essential
element of
a charge, claim, or defense, the character or trait may also be proved by relevant
specific instances of
the person's conduct.
(c) By Affidavit. The defense may introduce affidavits or other written statements of persons
other than the accused concerning the character of
the accused. If
the defense introduces
affidavits or other written statements under this subdivision, the prosecution may, in rebuttal,
also introduce affidavits or other written statements regarding the character of
the accused.
Evidence of this type may be introduced by the defense or prosecution only if, aside from being
contained in an affidavit or other written statement, it would otherwise be admissible under these
rules.
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(d) Definitions. "Reputation" means the estimation in which a person generally is held in the
community in which the person lives or pursues a business or profession. "Community" in the
Armed Forces includes a post, camp, ship, station, or other military organization regardless of
size.
Rule 406. Habit; routine practice
Evidence of a person's habit or an organization's routine practice may be admitted to prove that
on a particular occasion the person or organization acted in accordance with the habit or routine
practice. The military judge may admit this evidence regardless of
whether it is corroborated or
whether there was an eyewitness.
Rule 407. Subsequent remedial measures
(a) When measures are taken that would have made an earlier injury or hann less likely to occur,
evidence of
the subsequent measures is not admissible to prove:
(1) negligence;
(2) culpable conduct;
(3) a defect in a product or its design; or
(4) a need for a warning or instruction.
(b) The military judge may admit this evidence for another purpose, such as impeachment or-if
disputed-proving ownership, control, or the feasibility of
precautionary measures.
Rule 408. Compromise offers and negotiations
(a) Prohibited Uses. Evidence of
the following is not admissible-on behalf of
any party-either
to prove or disprove the validity or amount of
a disputed claim or to impeach by a prior
inconsistent statement or a contradiction:
(
1) furnishing, promising, or offering-or accepting, promising to accept, or offering to
accept-a valuable consideration in order to compromise the claim; and
(2) conduct or a statement made during compromise negotiations about the claim- except
when the negotiations related to a claim by a public office in the exercise of its regulatory,
investigative, or enforcement authority.
(b) Exceptions. The military judge may admit this evidence for another purpose, such as proving
witness bias or prejudice, negating a contention of undue delay, or proving an effort to obstruct a
criminal investigation or prosecution.
Rule 409. Offers to pay medical and similar expenses
Evidence of furnishing, promising to pay, or offering to pay medical, hospital, or similar
expenses resulting from an injury is not admissible to prove liability for the injury.
Rule 41 0. Pleas, plea discussions, and related statements
(a) Prohibited Uses. Evidence of
the following is not admissible against the accused who made
the plea or participated in the plea discussions:
(1) a guilty plea that was later withdrawn;
(2) a nolo contendere plea;
(3) any statement made in the course of
any judicial inquiry regarding either of
the
foregoing pleas; or
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(4) any statement made during plea discussions with the convening authority, staff
judge
advocate, trial counsel or other counsel for the government if
the discussions did not result in a
guilty plea or they resulted in a later-withdrawn guilty plea.
(b) Exceptions. The military judge may admit a statement described in subdivision (a)(3) or
(a)(4):
( 1) when another statement made during the same plea or plea discussions has been
introduced, if
in fairness the statements ought to be considered together; or
(2) in a proceeding for perjury or false statement, if
the accused made the statement under
oath, on the record, and with counsel present.
(c) Request
for Administrative Disposition. A "statement made during plea discussions" includes
a statement made by the accused solely for the purpose of
requesting disposition under an
authorized procedure for administrative action in lieu of
trial by court-martial; "on the record"
includes the written statement submitted by the accused in furtherance of such request
Rule 411. Liability insurance
Evidence that a person was or was not insured against liability is not admissible to prove whether
the person acted negligently or otherwise wrongfully. The military judge may admit this
evidence for another purpose, such as proving witness bias or prejudice or proving agency,
ownership, or control.
Rule 412. Sex offense cases: The victim's sexual behavior or predisposition
(a) Evidence general~v inadmissible. The following evidence is not admissible in any proceeding
involving an alleged sexual offense except as provided in subdivisions (b) and (c):
(1) Evidence offered to prove that a victim engaged in other sexual behavior; or
(2) Evidence offered to prove a victim's sexual predisposition.
(b) bxceptions. In a proceeding, the following evidence is admissible, if
otherwise admissible
under these rules:
(1) evidence of specific instances of
a victim's sexual behavior, if
offered to prove that
someone other than the accused was the source of semen, injury, or other physical evidence;
(2) evidence of specific instances of
a victim's sexual behavior with respect to the person
accused of
the sexual misconduct, if
offered by the accused to prove consent or if offered by the
prosecution; and
(3) evidence the exclusion of
which would violate the accused's constitutional rights.
(c) Procedure to determine admissibility.
(
1) A party intending to offer evidence under subdivision (b) must-
(A) file a written motion at least 5 days prior to entry of
pleas specifically describing the
evidence and stating the purpose for which it is offered unless the military judge, for good cause
shown, requires a different time for filing or permits filing during trial; and
(B) serve the motion on the opposing party and the military judge and notify the victim or,
when appropriate, the victim's guardian or representative.
(2) Before admitting evidence under this rule, the military judge must conduct a hearing,
which shall be closed. At this hearing, the parties may call witnesses, including the victim, and
offer relevant evidence. The victim must be afforded a reasonable opportunity to attend and be
heard. However, the hearing may not be unduly delayed for this purpose. The right to be heard
under this rule ineludes the right to be heard through counsel, including Special Victims'
Counsel under section 1044e oftitle 10, United States Code. In a case before a court-martial
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composed of
a military judge and members, the military judge shall conduct the hearing outside
the presence of
the members pursuant to Article 39(a). The motion, related papers, and the record
of
the hearing must be sealed in accordance with R.C.M. 1113 and remain under seal unless the
military judge, the Judge Advocate General, or an appellate court orders otherwise.
(3) If
the military judge determines on the basis of
the hearing described in paragraph (2) of
this subdivision that the evidence that the accused seeks to offer is relevant for a purpose under
subdivision (b
)(1) or (2) of
this rule and that the probative value of
such evidence outweighs the
danger of
unfair prejudice to the victim's privacy, or that the evidence is described by
subdivision (b
)(3) of
this rule, such evidence shall be admissible under this rule to the extent an
order made by the military judge specifies evidence that may be offered and areas with respect to
which the victim may be examined or cross-examined. Any evidence introduced under this rule
is subject to challenge under Mil. R. Evid. 403.
(d) Definitions. For purposes ofthis rule, the term "sexual offense" includes any sexual
misconduct punishable under the Uniform Code of
Military Justice, federal law or state law.
"Sexual behavior" includes any sexual behavior not encompassed by the alleged offense. The
term "sexual predisposition" refers to a victim's mode of
dress, speech, or lifestyle that does not
directly refer to sexual activities or thoughts but that may have a sexual connotation for the fact
finder. For purposes ofthis rule, the term "victim" includes an alleged victim.
Rule 413. Similar crimes in sexual offense cases
(a) Permitted Uses. In a court-martial proceeding for a sexual offense, the military judge may
admit evidence that the accused committed any other sexual offense. The evidence may be
considered on any matter to which it is relevant.
(b) Disclosure to the Accused. If
the prosecution intends to offer this evidence, the prosecution
must disclose it to the accused, including any witnesses' statements or a summary of
the
expected testimony. The prosecution must do so at least 5 days prior to entry of
pleas or at a later
time that the military judge allows for good cause.
(c) l!;f/ect on Other Rules. This rule does not limit the admission or consideration of evidence
under any other rule.
(d) Definition. As used in this rule, "sexual om~nse"
means an offense punishable under the
Unifonn Code of
Military Justice, or a crime under federal or state law (as "state" is defined in
18 U.S.C. § 513), involving:
(1) any conduct prohibited by Article 120;
(2) any conduct prohibited by 18 U.S.C. chapter 109A;
(3) contact, without consent, between any part of the accused's body, or an object held or
controlled by the accused, and another person's genitals or anus;
(4) contact, without consent, between the accused's genitals or anus and any part of
another person's body;
(5) contact with the aim of
deriving sexual pleasure or gratification from inflicting death,
bodily injury, or physical pain on another person; or
(6) an attempt or conspiracy to engage in conduct described in subdivisions (d)(l)-(5).
Rule 414. Similar crimes in child-molestation cases
(a) Permitted Uses. In a court-martial proceeding in which an accused is charged with an act of
child molestation, the military judge may admit evidence that the accused committed any other
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offense of
child molestation. The evidence may be considered on any matter to which it is
relevant.
(b) Disclosure to the Accused. If
the prosecution intends to offer this evidence, the prosecution
must disclose it to the accused, including witnesses' statements or a summary of
the expected
testimony. The prosecution must do so at least 5 days prior to entry of
pleas or at a later time that
the military judge allows for good cause.
(c) Effect on Other Rules. This rule does not limit the admission or consideration of evidence
under any other rule.
(d) Definitions. As used in this rule:
(1) "Child" means a person below the age of 16; and
(2) "Child molestation" means an offense punishable under the Uniform Code of
Military
Justice, or a crime under federal law or under state law (as "state" is defined in 18 U.S.C. § 513),
that involves:
(A) any conduct prohibited by Article 120 and committed with a child, or
prohibited by Article 120b.
(B) any conduct prohibited by 18 U.S.C. chapter 1
09A and committed with a
child;
(C) any conduct prohibited by 18 U.S.
C. chapter 110;
(D) contact between any part of
the accused's body, or an object held or controlled
by the accused, and a child's genitals or anus;
(E) contact between the accused's genitals or anus and any part of a child's body;
(F) contact with the aim of
deriving sexual pleasure or gratification from
inflicting death, bodily injury, or physical pain on a child; or
(G) an attempt or conspiracy to engage in conduct described in subdivisions
(
d)(2)(A)-(F).
Rule 501. Privilege in general
SECTIONV
PRIVILEGES
(a) A person may not claim a privilege with respect to any matter except as required by or
provided for in:
(1) the United States Constitution as applied to members of
the Armed Forces;
(2) a federal statute applicable to trials by courts-martial;
(3) these rules;
(
4) this Manual; or
(5) the principles of
common law generally recognized in the trial of
criminal cases in the
United States district courts under rule 501 of
the Federal Rules of
Evidence, insofar as the
application of such principles in trials by courts-martial is practicable and not contrary to or
inconsistent with the Uniform Code ofMilitaty Justice, these rules, or this Manual.
(b) A claim of
privilege includes, but is not limited to, the assertion by any person of a privilege
to:
( 1) refuse to be a witness;
(2) refuse to disclose any matter;
(3) refuse to produce any object or writing; or
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(
4) prevent another from being a witness or disclosing any matter or producing any object
or writing.
(c) The term "person" includes an appropriate representative of
the Federal Government, a State,
or political subdivision thereof, or any other entity claiming to be the holder of
a p1ivilege.
(d) Notwithstanding any other provision of
these rules, information not otherwise privileged
does not become privileged on the basis that it was acquired by a medical officer or civilian
physician in a professional capacity.
Rule 502. Lawyer-client privilege
(a) General Rule. A client has a privilege to refuse to disclose and to prevent any other person
from disclosing confidential communications made for the purpose of
facilitating the rendition of
professional legal services to the client:
(1) between the client or the client's representative and the lawyer or the lawyer's
representative;
(2) between the lawyer and the lawyer's representative;
(3) by the client or the client's lawyer to a lawyer representing another in a matter of
common interest;
(4) between representatives of
the client or between the client and a representative of
the
client; or
(5) between lawyers representing the client
(b) Definitions. As used in this rule:
(1) "Client" means a person, public oftlcer, corporation, association, organization, or
other entity, either public or private, who receives professional legal services from a lawyer, or
who consults a lawyer with a view to obtaining professional legal services from the lawyer.
(2) "Lawyer" means a person authorized, or reasonably believed by the client to be
authorized, to practice law; or a member of
the Armed Forces detailed, assigned, or othenvise
provided to represent a person in a court-martial case or in any military investigation or
proceeding. The term "lawyer" does not include a member of
the Armed Forces serving in a
capacity other than as a judge advocate, legal officer, or law specialist as defined in Article 1,
unless the member:
(A) is detailed, assigned, or otherwise provided to represent a person in a court-
martial case or in any military investigation or proceeding;
(B) is authorized by the Armed Forces, or reasonably believed by the client to be
authorized, to render professional legal services to members of
the Armed Forces; or
(C) is authorized to practice law and renders professional legal services during
off-duty employment.
(3) "Lawyer's representative" means a person employed by or assigned to assist a lawyer
in providing professional legal services.
(
4) A communication is "confidential" if
not intended to be disclosed to third persons
other than those to whom disclosure is in furtherance of the rendition of
professional legal
services to the client or those reasonably necessary for the transmission of
the communication.
(c) Who May Claim the Privilege. The privilege may be claimed by the client, the guardian or
conservator of
the client, the personal representative of a deceased client, or the successor,
trustee, or similar representative of a corporation, association, or other organization, whether or
not in existence. The lawyer or the lawyer's representative who received the communication may
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claim the privilege on behalf of
the client. The authority of
the lawyer to do so is presumed in the
absence of
evidence to the contrary.
(d) Exceptions. There is no privilege under this rule under any of
the following circumstances:
(1) Crime or Fraud. If
the communication clearly contemplated the future commission of
a fraud or crime or if services of
the lawyer were sought or obtained to enable or aid anyone to
commit or plan to commit what the client knew or reasonably should have known to be a crime
or fraud;
(2) Claimants through Same Deceased Client. As to a communication relevant to an issue
between parties who claim through the same deceased client, regardless of
whether the claims
are by testate or intestate succession or by inter vivos transaction;
(3) Breach~~
Duty by Lmvyer or Client. As to a communication relevant to an issue of
breach of
duty by the lawyer to the client or by the client to the lawyer;
(4) Document Allested hy the hnvyer. As to a communication relevant to an issue
concerning an attested document to which the lawyer is an attesting witness; or
(5) Joint Clients. As to a communication relevant to a matter of
common interest between
two or more clients if
the communication was made by any of them to a lawyer retained or
consulted in common, when offered in an action between any of
the clients.
Rule 503. Communications to clergy
(a) General Rule. A person has a privilege to refuse to disclose and to prevent another from
disclosing a confidential communication by the person to a clergyman or to a clergyman's
assistant, if such communication is made either as a formal act of
religion or as a matter of
conscience.
(b) Definitions. As used in this rule:
(1) "Clergyman" means a minister, priest, rabbi, chaplain, or other similar functionary of
a
religious organization, or an individual reasonably believed to be so by the person consulting the
clergyman.
(2) "Clergyman's assistant" means a person employed by or assigned to assist a
clergyman in his capacity as a spiritual advisor.
(3) A communication is "confidential" if
made to a clergyman in the clergyman's capacity
as a spiritual adviser or to a clergyman's assistant in the assistant's official capacity and is not
intended to be disclosed to third persons other than those to whom disclosure is in furtherance of
the purpose of
the communication or to those reasonably necessmy for the transmission of
the
communication.
(c) JVho lvfay Claim the Privilege. The privilege may be claimed by the person, guardian, or
conservator, or by a personal representative if
the person is deceased. The clergyman or
clergyman's assistant who received the communication may claim the privilege on behalf of
the
person. The authority of
the clergyman or clergyman's assistant to do so is presumed in the
absence of
evidence to the contrary.
Rule 504. Marital privilege
(a) Spousal Incapacity. A person has a privilege to refuse to testify against his or her spouse.
There is no privilege under subdivision (a) when, at the time of
the testimony, the parties are
divorced, or the marriage has been annulled.
(b) Confidential Communication Made During the Marriage.
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(1) General Rule. A person has a privilege during and after the marital relationship to
refuse to disclose, and to prevent another from disclosing, any confidential communication made
to the spouse of
the person while they were married and not separated as provided by law.
(2) rVho May Claim the Privilege. The privilege may be claimed by the spouse who made
the communication or by the other spouse on his or her behalf. The authority of
the latter spouse
to do so is presumed in the absence of evidence of a waiver. The privilege will not prevent
disclosure of
the communication at the request of
the spouse to whom the communication was
made if
that spouse is an accused regardless of
whether the spouse who made the communication
objects to its disclosure.
(c) Exceptions.
(1) To Cm?fidential Communications Only. Where both parties have been substantial
participants in illegal activity, those communications between the spouses during the marriage
regarding the illegal activity in which they have jointly participated are not marital
communications for purposes of
the privilege in subdivision (b) and are not entitled to protection
under the privilege in subdivision (b).
(2) To Spousal Incapacity and Cot?fidential Communication.'\'. There is no privilege under
subdivisions (a) or (b):
(A) In proceedings in which one spouse is charged with a crime against the person
or property of
the other spouse or a child of either, or with a crime against the person or property
of
a third person committed in the course of
committing a crime against the other spouse;
(B) When the marital relationship was entered into with no intention of
the pmiies
to live together as spouses, but only for the purpose of using the purported marital relationship as
a sbam, and with respect to the privilege in subdivision (a), the relationship remains a sham at
the time the testimony or statement of one of
the parties is to be introduced against the other, or
with respect to the privilege in subdivision (b), the relationship was a sham at the time of
the
commlmication; or
(C) In proceedings in which a spouse is charged, in accordance with Article 133
or 134, with importing the other spouse as an alien for prostitution or other immoral purpose in
violation of 8 U.S.C. § 1328 with transpotiing the other spouse in interstate commerce for
prostitution, immoral purposes, or another offense in violation of 18 U.S.C. §§ 2421-2424; or
with violation of such other similar statutes under which such privilege may not be claimed in
the trial of criminal cases in the United States district courts.
(d) Definitions. As used in this rule:
(1) "A child of either" means a biological child, adopted child, or ward of one of
the
spouses and includes a child who is under the permanent or temporary physical custody of
one of
the spouses, regardless of the existence of a legal parent-child relationship. For purposes of
this
rule only, a child is:
(A) an individual under the age of 18; or
(B) an individual with a mental handicap who functions under the age of 18.
(2) "Temporary physical custody" means a parent has entrusted his or her child with
another. There is no minimum amount of time necessary to establish temporary physical custody,
nor is a written agreement required. Rather, the focus is on the parent's agreement with another
for assuming parental responsibility for the child. For example, temporary physical custody may
include instances where a parent entrusts another with the care of
his or her child for recurring
care or during absences due to temporary duty or deployments.
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(3) As used in this rule, a communication is "confidential" if
made privately by any
person to the spouse of
the person and is not intended to be disclosed to third persons other than
those reasonably necessary for transmission of
the communication.
Rule 505. Classified information
(a) General Rule. Classified information must be protected and is privileged from disclosure if
disclosure would be detrimental to the national security. Under no circumstances may a military
judge order the release of
classified information to any person not authorized to receive such
information. The Secretary of
Defense may prescribe security procedures for protection against
the compromise of
classified information submitted to courts-martial and appellate
authorities.
(b) Definitions. As used in this rule:
(1) "Classified information" means any information or material that has been determined by
the United States Government pursuant to an executive order, statute, or regulations, to require
protection against unauthorized disclosure for reasons of
national security, and any restricted
data, as defined in 42 U.S.C. §2014(y).
(2) "National security" means the national defense and foreign relations of
the United States.
(3) "Tn camera hearing" means a session under Article 39(a) from which the public is
excluded.
(4) "In camera review" means an inspection of
documents or other evidence conducted by
the military judge alone in chambers and not on the record.
(5) "Ex parte" means a discussion between the military judge and either defense counsel or
prosecution, without the other party or the public present. This discussion can be on or off the
record, depending on the circumstances. The military judge will grant a request for an ex parte
discussion or hearing only after finding that such discussion or hearing is necessary to protect
classified information or other good cause. Prior to granting a request from one party for an ex
parte discussion or hearing, the military judge must provide notice to the opposing party on the
record. If
the ex parte discussion is conducted off
the record, the military judge should later state
on the record that such ex parte discussion took place and generally summarize the subject
matter of
the discussion, as appropriate.
(c) Access to Evidence. Any information admitted into evidence pursuant to any rule, procedure,
or order by the military judge must be provided to the accused.
(d) Declassification. Trial counsel should, when practicable, seek declassification of evidence
that may be used at trial, consistent with the requirements of
national security. A decision not to
declassify evidence under this section is not subject to review by a military judge or upon appeal.
(e) Action Prior to Referral of
Charges.
(1) Prior to referral of
charges, upon a showing by the accused that the classified information
sought is relevant and necessary to an element of
the offense or a legally cognizable defense, the
convening authority must respond in writing to a request by the accused for classified
information if
the privilege in this rule is claimed for such information. In response to such a
request, the convening authority may:
(A) delete specified items of classified information from documents made available to the
accused;
(B) substitute a portion or summary of
the information for such classified documents;
(C) substitute a statement admitting relevant facts that the classified information would
tend to prove;
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(D) provide the document subject to conditions that will guard against the compromise of
the infonnation disclosed to the accused; or
(E) withhold disclosure if
actions under (A) through (D) cannot be taken without causing
identifiable damage to the national security.
(2) An Article 32 preliminary hearing officer may not rule on any objection by the accused to
the release of documents or information protected by this rule.
(3) Any objection by the accused to the withholding of
information or to the conditions of
disclosure must be raised through a motion for appropriate relief at a pretrial conference.
(f) Actions after Referral~~
Charges.
(
1) Pretrial Coriference. At any time after referral of charges, any party may move for a
pretrial conference under Article 39(a) to consider matters relating to classified information that
may arise in connection with the triaL Following such a motion, or when the military judge
recognizes the need for such conference, the military judge must promptly hold a pretrial
conference under Article 39(a).
(2) Ex Parle Permissible. Upon request by either party and with a showing of good cause, the
milital)' judge must hold such conference ex parte to the extent necessary to protect classified
information from disclosure.
(3) A/fatter.'>· to he H.stahlished at Pretrial Cot?ference.
(A) Timing (l
Subsequent Actions. At the pretrial conference, the military judge must
establish the timing of:
(i) requests for discovery;
(ii) the provision of
notice required by subdivision (i) of
this rule; and
(iii) established by subdivision G) of
this rule.
(B) Other Matters. At the pretrial conference, the military judge may also consider any
matter that relates to classified information or that may promote a fair and expeditious trial.
(
4) Convening Authority Notice and
Action. If a claim of privilege has been made under this
rule with respect to classified infonnation that apparently contains evidence that is relevant and
necessary to an element of
the offense or a legally cognizable defense and is otherwise
admissible in evidence in the court-martial proceeding, the matter must be reported to the
convening authority. The convening authority may:
(A) institute action to obtain the classified information for the use by the military judge in
making a determination under subdivision G);
(B) dismiss the charges;
(C) dismiss the charges or specifications or both to which the information relates; or
(D) take such other action as may be required in the interests of
justice.
(5)Remedies. If, after a reasonable period oftime, the infonnation is not provided to the
military judge in circumstances where proceeding with the case without such information would
materially prejudice a substantial right of
the accused, the military judge must dismiss the
charges or specifications or both to which the classified information relates.
(g) Protective Orders. Upon motion of
trial counsel, the military judge must issue an order to
protect against the disclosure of any classified information that has been disclosed by the United
States to any accused in any court-martial proceeding or that has otherwise been provided to, or
obtained by, any such accused in any such court-martial proceeding. The terms of any such
protective order may include, but are not limited to, provisions:
(1) prohibiting the disclosure of
the information except as authorized by the military judge;
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(2) requiring storage of material in a manner appropriate for the level of classification
assigned to the documents to be disclosed;
(3) requiring controlled accesses to the material during normal business hours and at other
times upon reasonable notice;
(4) mandating that all persons requiring security clearances will cooperate with investigatory
personnel in any investigations that are necessary to obtain a security clearance;
(5) requiring the maintenance of
logs regarding access by all persons authorized by the
military judge to have access to the classified information in connection with the preparation of
the defense;
(
6) regulating the making and handling of
notes taken from material containing classified
information; or
(7) requesting the convening authority to authorize the assignment of
government security
personnel and the provision of government storage facilities.
(h) Discove1y and
Access by the Accused.
(1) Umitations.
(A) Government Claim (?!Privilege. In a court-martial proceeding in which the
government seeks to delete, withhold, or otherwise obtain other relief with respect to the
discovery of
or access to any classified information, trial counsel must submit a declaration
invoking the United States' classified information privilege and setting forth the damage to the
national security that the discovery of
or access to such information reasonably could be
expected to cause. The declaration must be signed by the head, or designee, of
the executive or
military depattment or government agency concerned.
(B) Standard
for Discovery or Access by the Accused Upon the submission of a
declaration under subdivision (h)(l
)(A), the military judge may not authorize the discovery of
or
access to such classified information unless the military judge determines that such classified
information would be noncumulative and relevant to a legally cognizable defense, rebuttal of
the
prosecution's case, or to sentencing. If
the discovery of
or access to such classified infonnation
is authorized, it must be addressed in accordance with the requirements of subdivision
(h)(2).
(2) Alternatives to Full Discovery.
(A) Substitutions and Other Alternatives. The military judge, in assessing the accused's
right to discover or access classified information under subdivision (h), may authorize the
government:
(i) to delete or withhold specified items of
classified information;
(ii) to substitute a summary for classified information; or
(iii) to substitute a statement admitting relevant facts that the classified
information or material would tend to prove, unless the military judge determines that disclosure
of
the classified information itself is necessary to enable the accused to prepare for trial.
(B) In Camera Revie11J. The military judge must, upon the request of
the prosecution,
conduct an in camera review of
the prosecution's motion and any materials submitted in support
thereof and must not disclose such information to the accused.
(C) Action by Military Judge. The military judge must grant the request of
trial counsel to
substitute a summary or to substitute a statement admitting relevant facts, or to provide other
relief in accordance with subdivision (h)(2)(A), if
the military judge finds that the summary,
statement, or other relief would provide the accused with substantially the same ability to make a
defense as would discovery of
or access to the specific classified information.
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(3) Reconsideration. An order of
a military judge authorizing a request of trial counsel to
substitute, summarize, withhold, or prevent access to classified information under subdivision (h)
is not subject to a motion for reconsideration by the accused, if
such order was entered pursuant
to an ex parte showing under subdivision (h).
(i) Disclosure by the Accused.
(1) Notification to Trial Counsel and
l'vfilitmy Judge. If
an accused reasonably expects to
disclose, or to cause the disclosure of, classified information in any manner in connection with
any trial or pretrial proceeding involving the prosecution of such accused, the accused must,
within the time specified by the military judge or, where no time is specified, prior to
arraignment of
the accused, notify trial counsel and the military judge in writing.
(2) Content Q{Notice. Such notice must include a brief description of
the classified
information.
(3) Continuing Duty to Not~fy. Whenever the accused learns of
additional classified
information the accused reasonably expects to disclose, or to cause the disclosure of, at any such
proceeding, the accused must notify trial counsel and the military judge in writing as soon as
possible thereafter and must include a brief description of
the classified information.
(4) Umitation on Disclosure hy Accu.'i·ed The accused may not disclose, or cause the
disclosure of, any information known or believed to be classified in connection with a trial or
pretrial proceeding until:
(A) notice has been given under subdivision (i); and
(B) the govemment has been afforded a reasonable opportunity to seek a determination
pursuant to the procedure set forth in subdivision G).
(S)Failure to comply. If
the accused fails to comply with the requirements of
subdivision (i),
the military judge:
(A) may preclude disclosure of any classified information not made the subject of
notification; and
(B) may prohibit the examination by the accused of
any witness with respect to any such
information.
G) Procedure for Use ofC/assifiedil?formation in Trials and
Pretrial Proceedings.
(
1) Hearing on Use of
Classified
information.
(A)1vfotionfor Hearing. Within the time specified by the military judge for the filing of
a
motion under this rule, either party may move for a hearing concerning the use at any proceeding
of any classified information. Upon a request by either party, the military judge must conduct
such a hearing and must rule prior to conducting any further proceedings.
(B) Request
jar In Camera Hearing. Any hearing held pursuant to subdivision G) (or any
portion of such hearing specified in the request of
a knowledgeable United States official) must
be held in camera if
a knowledgeable United States official possessing authority to classify
information submits to the military judge a declaration that a public proceeding may result in the
disclosure of classified information.
(C) Notice to Accused. Before the hearing, trial counsel must provide the accused with
notice of
the classified inforn1ation that is at issue. Such notice must identify the specific
classified information at issue whenever that information previously has been made available to
the accused by the United States. When the United States has not previously made the
information available to the accused in connection with the case the information may be
described by generic category, in such forms as the military judge may approve, rather than by
identification of
the specific information of
concern to the United States.
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(D) Standard
for Disclosure. Classified information is not subject to disclosure under
subdivision G) unless the infonnation is relevant and necessary to an element of
the offense or a
legally cognizable defense and is otherwise admissible in evidence. In presenting proceedings,
relevant and material classified information pertaining to the appropriateness of, or the
appropriate degree of, punishment must be admitted only if no unclassified version of
such
information is available.
(E) Written Findings. As to each item of classified information, the military judge must
set forth in writing the basis for the determination.
(2) Alternatives to Full Disclosure.
(A) Motion by the Prosecution Upon any determination by the military judge authorizing
the disclosure of specific classified information under the procedures established by subdivision
G), trial counsel may move that, in lieu of the disclosure of such specific classified information,
the military judge order:
(i) the substitution for such classified information of
a statement admitting
relevant facts that the specific classified information would tend to prove:
(ii) the substitution for such classitied information of a summary of
the specific
classified information; or
(iii) any other procedure or redaction limiting the disclosure of specific classified
information.
(B) Declaralion <?f Damage to National Security. Trial counsel may, in connection with a
motion under subdivision G), submit to the military judge a declaration signed by the head, or
designee, of
the executive or military department or govemment agency concemed certifying
that disclosure of classified information would cause identifiable damage to the national security
of
the United States and explaining the basis for the classification of such information. If so
requested by trial counsel, the military judge must examine such declaration during an in camera
revtew.
(C) Hearing. The military judge must hold a hearing on any motion under subdivision G).
Any such hearing must be held in camera at the request of a knowledgeable United States official
possessing authority to classify infonnation.
(D) Standard
for Use of
Alternatives. The military judge must grant such a motion oftrial
counsel if
the military judge finds that the statement, summary, or other procedure or redaction
will provide the accused with substantially the same ability to make his or her defense as would
disclosure of
the specific classified infonnation.
(3) ,)'ealing ~!Records
ojfn Camera Hearings. If at the close of an in camera hearing under
subdivision (j) (or any portion of a hearing under subdivision (j) that is held in camera), the
military judge detennines that the classified information at issue may not be disclosed or elicited
at the trial or pretrial proceeding, the record of such in camera hearing must be sealed in
accordance with R. C.M. 1113 and preserved for use in the event of an appeal. The accused may
seek reconsideration of
the military judge's determination prior to or during trial.
(
4) Remedies.
(A) If
the military judge determines that alternatives to full disclosure may not be used
and the prosecution continues to object to disclosure of
the information, the military judge must
issue any order that the interests of
justice require, including but not limited to, an order:
(i) striking or precluding all or part of
the testimony of a witness;
(ii) declaring a mistrial;
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(iii) finding against the government on any issue as to which the evidence is
relevant and material to the defense;
(iv) dismissing the charges, with or without prejudice; or
(v) dismissing the charges or specifications or both to which the information
relates.
(B) The government may avoid the sanction for nondisclosure by permitting the accused
to disclose the information at the pertinent court-martial proceeding.
(5) Disclosure~~
Rebuttal Information. Whenever the military judge determines that
classified information may be disclosed in connection with a trial or pretrial proceeding, the
military judge must, unless the interests of fairness do not so require, order the prosecution to
provide the accused with the information it expects to use to rebut the classified information.
(A) Continuing Duty. The military judge may place the prosecution under a continuing
duty to disclose such rebuttal information.
(B) Sanction.fbr Failure to Comply. If the prosecution fails to comply with its obligation
under subdivision G), the military judge:
(i) may exclude any evidence not made the subject of
a required disclosure; and
(ii) may prohibit the examination by the prosecution of
any witness with respect
to such information.
(
6) Disclosure at Trial of
Previous Statements by a Witness.
(A) Motion for Production (?(Statements in Posse.~sion
(?f the Prosecution. After a
witness called by trial counsel has testified on direct examination, the military judge, on motion
of
the accused, may order production of statements of
the witness in the possession of
the
prosecution that relate to the subject matter as to which the witness has testified. This paragraph
does not preclude discovery or assertion of
a privilege otherwise authorized.
(B) invocation of
Privilege by the Government. If
the government invokes a privilege,
trial counsel may provide the prior statements of
the witness to the military judge for in camera
review to the extent necessary to protect classified information from disclosure.
(C) Action by Military Judge. If
the military judge finds that disclosure of
any portion of
the statement identified by the government as classified would be detrimental to the national
security in the degree required to warrant classification under the applicable Executive Order,
statute, or regulation, that such portion of
the statement is consistent with the testimony of
the
witness, and that the disclosure of such portion is not necessary to afiord the accused a fair trial,
the military judge must excise that portion from the statement. If
the military judge finds that
such portion of
the statement is inconsistent with the testimony of
the witness or that its
disclosure is necessary to afford the accused a fair trial, the military judge must, upon the request
of
trial counsel, consider alternatives to disclosure in accordance with subdivision 0)(2).
(k) Introduction into Evidence of
Classified
il!formation.
(
1) Preservation of
Classification Status. Writings, recordings, and photographs containing
classified information may be admitted into evidence in court-martial proceedings under this rule
without change in their classification status.
(A) Precautions. The military judge in a trial by comt-martial, in order to prevent
unnecessary disclosure of classified information, may order admission into evidence of
only part
of
a vvTiting, recording, or photograph, or may order admission into evidence of
the whole
writing, recording, or photograph with excision of some or all of the classified information
contained therein, unless the whole ought in fairness be considered.
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(B) Classified Information Kept Under Seal. The military judge must allow classified
infonnation offered or accepted into evidence to remain under seal during the trial, even if
such
evidence is disclosed in the court-martial proceeding, and may upon motion by the government,
seal exhibits containing classified information in accordance with R.C.M. 1113 for any period
after trial as necessary to prevent a disclosure of
classified information when a knowledgeable
United States official possessing authority to classify information submits to the military judge a
declaration setting forth the damage to the national security that the disclosure of such
information reasonably could be expected to cause.
(2) Testimony.
(A) Objection by Trial Counsel. During the examination of
a witness, trial counsel may
object to any question or line of
inquiry that may require the witness to disclose classified
information not previously found to be admissible.
(B) Action hy Military Judge. Following an objection under subdivision (k), the military
judge must take such suitable action to determine whether the response is admissible as will
safeguard against the compromise of any classified information. Such action may include
requiring trial counsel to provide the military judge with a proffer of
the witness' response to the
question or line of inquiry and requiring the accused to provide the military judge with a proffer
of
the nature of
the information sought to be elicited by the accused. Upon request, the military
judge may accept an ex parte proffer by trial counsel to the extent necessary to protect classified
information from disclosure.
(3) Closed
session. The military judge may, subject to the requirements of the United States
Constitution, exclude the public during that pmtion of
the presentation of
evidence that discloses
classified information.
(I) Record of
Trial. If
under this mle any information is reviewed in camera by the military judge
and withheld from the accused, the accused objects to such withholding, and the trial continues
to an adjudication of
guilt of
the accused, the entire unaltered text of
the relevant documents as
well as any motions and any materials submitted in support thereof must be sealed in accordance
with R.C.M. 701(g)(2) or R.C.M. 1113 and attached to the record of
trial as an appellate exhibit.
Such material will be made available to reviewing and appellate authmities in accordance with
R.C.M. 1113. The record of
trial with respect to any classified matter will be prepared under
R.C.M. 1112(e)(3).
Rule 506. Government information
(a) Protection of
Government !Jiformation. Except where disclosure is required by a federal
statute, government information is privileged from disclosure if disclosure would be detrimental
to the public interest
(b) Scope. "Government information" includes official communication and documents and other
information within the custody or control of
the Federal Government. This rule does not apply to
the identity of
an informant (Mil. R Evid. 507).
(c) Definitions. As used in this rule:
(1) "In camera hearing" means a session under Article 39(a) from which the public is
excluded.
(2) "In camera review" means an inspection of
documents or other evidence conducted by
the military judge alone in chambers and not on the record.
(3) "Ex parte" means a discussion between the military judge and either defense counsel or
prosecution, without the other party or the public present. This discussion can be on or off the
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record, depending on the circumstances. The military judge will grant a request for an ex pmte
discussion or hearing only after finding that such discussion or hearing is necessary to protect
government information or other good cause. Prior to granting a request from one party for an ex
parte discussion or hearing, the military judge must provide notice to the opposing party on the
record. If
the ex parte discussion is conducted off
the record, the military judge should later state
on the record that such ex parte discussion took place and generally summarize the subject
matter of
the discussion, as appropriate.
(d) Who Allay Claim the Privilege. The privilege may be claimed by the head, or designee, of
the
executive or military department or government agency concerned. The p1ivilege for records and
information of
the Inspector General may be claimed by the immediate superior of
the inspector
general officer responsible for creation of
the records or information, the Inspector General, or
any other supetior authority. A person who may claim the privilege may authorize a witness or
trial counsel to claim the privilege on his or her behalf The authority of a witness or trial counsel
to do so is presumed in the absence of evidence to the contrary.
(e) Action Prior to Referral <?/Charges.
(1) Prior to referral of charges, upon a showing by the accused that the government
information sought is relevant and necessary to an element of
the offense or a legally cognizable
defense, the convening authority must respond in writing to a request by the accused for
government information if
the privilege in this rule is claimed for such information. In response
to such a request, the convening authority may:
(A) delete specified items of
government information claimed to be privileged from
documents made available to the accused;
(B) substitute a portion or summary of
the information for such documents;
(C) substitute a statement and admitting relevant facts that the government information
would tend to prove;
(D) provide the document subject to conditions similar to those set forth in subdivision
(g) of
this rule; or
(E) withhold disclosure if
actions under subdivisions (e)(l)(A)-(D) cannot be taken
without causing identifiable damage to the public interest.
(2) Any objection by the accused to withholding of
information or to the conditions of
disclosure must be raised through a motion for appropriate relief at a pretrial conference.
(t) Action After Referral of
Charges.
(
1) Pretrial Conference. At any time after referral of charges, any party may move for a
pretrial conference under Article 39(a) to consider matters relating to government infonnation
that may arise in connection with the trial. Following such a motion, or when the military judge
recognizes the need for such conference, the military judge must promptly hold a pretrial
conference under Article 39(a).
(2) Ex Parte Permissible. Upon request by either party and with a showing of
good cause, the
military judge must hold such conference ex parte to the extent necessary to protect government
information from disclosure.
(3) A1atters to be Established at Pretrial Conference.
(A) Timing of
Subsequent Actions. At the pretrial conference, the military judge must
establish the timing of:
(i) requests for discovery;
(ii) the provision of
notice required by subdivision (i) of
this rule; and
(iii) the initiation of
the procedure established by subdivision G) of
this rule.
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(B) Other Matters. At the pretrial conference, the military judge may also consider any
matter which relates to government information or which may promote a fair and expeditious
trial.
(
4) Convening Authority Notice and
Action. If
a claim of p1ivilege has been made under this
rule with respect to government information that apparently contains evidence that is relevant
and necessary to an element of
the offense or a legally cognizable defense and is otherwise
admissible in evidence in the court-martial proceeding, the matter must be reported to the
convening authority. The convening authority may:
(A) institute action to obtain the information for use by the military judge in making a
determination under subdivision G);
(B) dismiss the charges;
(C) dismiss the charges or specifications or both to which the information relates; or
(D) take such other action as may be required in the interests of
justice.
(5) Remedies. If
after a reasonable period oftime the information is not provided to the
military judge in circumstances where proceeding with the case without such information would
materially prejudice a substantial right of
the accused, the military judge must dismiss the
charges or specifications or both to which the information relates.
(g) Protective Orders. Upon motion of
trial counsel, the military judge must issue an order to
protect against the disclosure of
any government information that has been disclosed by the
United States to any accused in any court-martial proceeding or that has otherwise been provided
to, or obtained by, any such accused in any such court-martial proceeding. The terms of
any such
protective order may include, but are not limited to, provisions:
(1) prohibiting the disclosure of
the information except as authorized by the military judge;
(2) requiring storage of
the material in a manner appropriate for the nature of
the material to
be disclosed;
(3) requiring controlled access to the material during normal business hours and at other
times upon reasonable notice;
(4) requiring the maintenance of
logs recording access by persons authorized by the military
judge to have access to the government infonnation in connection with the preparation of
the
defense;
(
5) regulating the making and handling of
notes taken from material containing government
infonnation; or
(6) requesting the convening authority to authorize the assignment of
government security
personnel and the provision of government storage facilities.
(h) Discovery and
Access by the Accused.
( 1) Limitations.
(A) Government Claim of
Privilege. In a court-martial proceeding in which the
government seeks to delete, withhold, or otherwise obtain other relief with respect to the
discovery of
or access to any government information subject to a claim of privilege, trial
counsel must submit a declaration invoking the United States' government information privilege
and setting forth the detriment to the public interest that the discovery of
or access to such
information reasonably could be expected to cause. The declaration must be signed by a
knowledgeable United States official as described in subdivision (d) of
this rule.
(B) Standard.for Discovery or Access by the Accused. Upon the submission of
a
declaration under subdivision (h)(I
)(A), the military judge may not authorize the discovery of
or
access to such government information unless the military judge detern1ines that such
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government information would be noncumulative, relevant, and helpful to a legally cognizable
defense, rebuttal of
the prosecution's case, or to sentencing. If
the discovery of
or access to such
governmental information is authorized, it must be addressed in accordance with the
requirements of subdivision (h)(2).
(2) Alternatives to Full Disclosure.
(A) Substitutions and Other Alternatives. The military judge, in assessing the accused's
right to discovery or access govemment information under subdivision (h), may authorize the
government:
(i) to delete or withhold specified items of government information;
(ii) to substitute a summary for government information; or
(iii) to substitute a statement admitting relevant facts that the govemment
information or material would tend to prove, unless the military judge determines that disclosure
of
the government information itself is necessary to enable the accused to prepare for trial.
(B) In Camera Review. The military judge must, upon the request of the prosecution,
conduct an in camera review of
the prosecution's motion and any materials submitted in support
thereof and must not disclose such information to the accused.
(C) Action by Military Judge. The military judge must grant the request of
trial counsel
to substitute a summary or to substitute a statement admitting relevant facts, or to provide other
relief in accordance with subdivision (h)(2)(A), if
the military judge finds that the summary,
statement, or other relief would provide the accused with substantially the same ability to make a
defense as would discovery of
or access to the specific government information.
(i) Disclosure by the Accused.
(
1) Notification to Trial Counsel and
Military Judge. If an accused reasonably expects to
disclose, or to cause the disclosure of, government information subject to a claim of privilege in
any manner in connection with any trial or pretrial proceeding involving the prosecution of such
accused, the accused must, within the time specified by the military judge or, where no time is
speci:tied, prior to arraignment of
the accused, notify trial counsel and the military judge in
writing.
(2) Content of
Notice. Such notice must include a brief description of
the government
information.
(3) Continuing Duty to NotifY. Whenever the accused learns of additional government
information the accused reasonably expects to disclose, or to cause the disclosure ot: at any such
proceeding, the accused must notify trial counsel and the military judge in writing as soon as
possible thereafter and must include a brief description of
the government infonnation.
(
4) Limitation on Disclosure by Accused The accused may not disclose, or cause the
disclosure of, any information known or believed to be subject to a claim of privilege in
connection with a trial or pretrial proceeding until:
(A) notice has been given under subdivision (i); and
(B) the government has been afforded a reasonable opportunity to seek a determination
pursuant to the procedure set fmih in subdivision G).
(5) Failure to Comply. If the accused fails to comply with the requirements of
subdivision (i),
the military judge:
(A) may preclude disclosure of
any government information not made the subject of
notification; and
(B) may prohibit the examination by the accused of
any witness with respect to any such
information.
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U) Procedure for Use of
Government Iriformation Subject to a Claim of
Privilege in Trials and
Pretrial Proceedings.
(!)Hearing on Use of
Government Information.
(A) Motion jar Hearing. Within the time specified by the military judge for the filing of
a
motion under this rule, either party may move for an in camera hearing concerning the use at any
proceeding of
any govenunent information that may be subject to a claim of
privilege. Upon a
request by either party, the military judge must conduct such a hearing and must mle prior to
conducting any further proceedings.
(B) Requestfor In Camera Hearing. Any hearing held pursuant to subdivision G) must be
held in camera if
a knowledgeable United States official described in subdivision (d) of
this rule
submits to the military judge a declaration that disclosure of
the information reasonably could be
expected to cause identifiable damage to the public interest.
(C) Notice to Accw•;ed. Subject to subdivision (j)(2) below, the prosecution must disclose
government information claimed to be privileged under this mle for the limited purpose of
litigating, in camera, the admissibility of the information at trial. The military judge must enter
an appropriate protective order to the accused and all other appropriate trial participants
concerning the disclosure of
the information according to subdivision (g), above. The accused
may not disclose any information provided under subdivision (j) unless, and until, such
information has been admitted into evidence by the military judge. In the in camera hearing, both
parties may have the opportunity to brief and argue the admissibility of
the government
information at trial.
(D) Standard
for Disclosure. Government information is subject to disclosure at the
court-martial proceeding under subdivision (j) if
the party making the request demonstrates a
specific need for information containing evidence that is relevant to the guilt or innocence or to
punishment of
the accused, and is otherwise admissible in the court-martial proceeding.
(E) Written Findings. As to each item of government information, the military judge must
set forth in writing the basis for the detennination.
(2) Alternatives to Full Disclosure.
(A) Motion by the Prosecution. Upon any determination by the military judge authorizing
disclosure of specific government information under the procedures established by subdivision
(j), the prosecution may move that, in lieu of
the disclosure of such infonnation, the military
judge order:
(i) the substitution for such government infonnation of a statement admitting
relevant facts that the specific government information would tend to prove;
(ii) the substitution for such government information of
a summary of
the specific
government information; or
(iii) any other procedure or redaction limiting the disclosure of specific
government information.
(B) Hearing. The military judge must hold a hearing on any motion under subdivision (j).
At the request of
trial counsel, the military judge will conduct an in camera hearing.
(C) Standard.for Use of
Alternatives. The military judge must grant such a motion of trial
counsel if
the military judge finds that the statement, summary, or other procedure or redaction
will provide the accused with substantially the same ability to make his or her defense as would
disclosure of
the specific government information.
(3) Sealing r<f Records r<f In Camera Hearings. If
at the close of an in camera hearing under
subdivision (j) (or any pmtion of
a hearing under subdivision (j) that is held in camera), the
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military judge determines that the government information at issue may not be disclosed or
elicited at the trial or pretrial proceeding, the record of such in camera hearing must be sealed in
accordance with R.C.M. 1113 and preserved for use in the event of an appeal. The accused may
seek reconsideration of
the military judge's determination prior to or dwing trial.
(
4) Remedies.
(A) If
the military judge determines that alternatives to full disclosure may not be used
and the prosecution continues to object to disclosure of
the information, the military judge must
issue any order that the interests of
justice require, including but not limited to, an order:
(i) striking or precluding all or part of
the testimony of a witness;
(ii) declaring a mistrial;
(iii) finding against the government on any issue as to which the evidence is
relevant and necessary to the defense;
(iv) dismissing the charges, with or without prejudice; or
(v) dismissing the charges or specifications or both to which the information
relates.
(B) The government may avoid the sanction for nondisclosure by permitting the accused
to disclose the information at the pertinent court-martial proceeding.
(5) Di.sclosure (?fRehuttallt?fbrmation. Whenever the military judge determines that
government information may be disclosed in connection with a trial or pretrial proceeding, the
military judge must, unless the interests of fairness do not so require, order the prosecution to
provide the accused with the information it expects to use to rebut the government information.
(A) Continuing Duty. The military judge may place the prosecution under a continuing
duty to disclose such rebuttal information.
(B) Sanction for Failure to Comply. If
the prosecution fails to comply with its obligation
under subdivision G), the military judge may make such ruling as the interests of
justice require,
to include:
(i) excluding any evidence not made the subject of a required disclosure; and
(ii) prohibiting the examination by the prosecution of
any witness with respect to
such information.
(k) Appeals of
Orders and
Rulings. In a court-martial in which a punitive discharge may be
adjudged, the government may appeal an order or ruling of
the military judge that tenninates the
proceedings with respect to a charge or specification, directs the disclosure of
government
infonnation, or imposes sanctions for nondisclosure of
government information. The government
may also appeal an order or ruling in which the military judge refuses to issue a protective order
sought by the United States to prevent the disclosure of government information, or to enforce
such an order previously issued by appropriate authority. The government may not appeal an
order or ruling that is, or amounts to, a finding of
not guilty with respect to the charge or
specification.
(I) Introduction into Evidence of
Government lliformation Subject to a Claim ~{Privilege.
(1) Precautions. The military judge in a trial by court-martial, in order to prevent
unnecessaty disclosure of
government infonnation after there has been a claim of
privilege under
this rule, may order admission into evidence of
only part of a writing, recording, or photograph
or admit into evidence the whole writing, recording, or photograph with excision of some or all
of the government information contained therein, unless the whole ought in fairness to be
considered.
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(2) Government Information Kept Under Seal. The military judge must allow government
infonnation offered or accepted into evidence to remain under seal during the trial, even if
such
evidence is disclosed in the court-martial proceeding, and may, upon motion by the prosecution,
seal exhibits containing government information in accordance with R.C.M. 1113 for any period
after trial as necessary to prevent a disclosure of government information when a knowledgeable
United States official described in subdivision (d) submits to the military judge a declaration
setting forth the detriment to the public interest that the disclosure of
such information
reasonably could be expected to cause.
(3) Testimony.
(A) Objection by Trial Counsel. During examination of
a witness, trial counsel may
object to any question or line of
inquiry that may require the vvitness to disclose government
information not previously found admissible if
such information has been or is reasonably likely
to be the subject of a claim of privilege under this rule.
(B) Action by
Nfilitaty Judge. Following such an objection, the military judge must take
such suitable action to determine whether the response is admissible as will safeguard against the
compromise of
any government information. Such action may include requiring trial counsel to
provide the military judge with a proffer of
the witness' response to the question or line of
inquiry and requiring the accused to provide the military judge with a proffer of
the nature of
the
information sought to be elicited by the accused. Upon request, the military judge may accept an
ex parte proffer by trial counsel to the extent necessary to protect government information from
disclosure.
(m) Record l?{Trial. If under this rule any information is reviewed in camera by the military
judge and withheld from the accused, the accused objects to such withholding, and the trial
continues to an adjudication of
guilt of
the accused, the entire unaltered text of
the relevant
documents as well as any motions and any materials submitted in support thereof must be sealed
in accordance with R.C.M. 701(g)(2) or 1113 and attached to the record of
trial as an appellate
exhibit. Such material will be made available to reviewing and appellate authorities in
accordance with R.C.M. 1113.
Rule 507. Identity of informants
(a) General Rule. The United States or a State or subdivision thereof has a privilege to refuse to
disclose the identity of
an informant. Unless otherwise privileged under these rules, the
communications of
an infom1ant are not privileged except to the extent necessary to prevent the
disclosure of
the informant's identity.
(b) Definitions. As used in this rule:
(1) "Informant" means a person who has furnished information relating to or assisting in
an investigation of a possible violation of law to a person whose official duties include the
discovery, investigation, or prosecution of crime.
(2) "In camera review" means an inspection of
documents or other evidence conducted by
the military judge alone in chambers and not on the record.
(c) Who l'vfay Claim the Privilege. The privilege may be claimed by an appropriate representative
of
the United States, regardless of
whether information was furnished to an officer of
the United
States or a State or subdivision thereof. The privilege may be claimed by an appropriate
representative of a State or subdivision if
the information was furnished to an officer thereof,
except the privilege will not be allowed if
the prosecution objects.
(d) Exceptions.
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( 1) voluntary Disclosures; Informant as a Prosecution Witness. No privilege exists under
this rule:
(A) if
the identity of
the informant has been disclosed to those who would have
cause to resent the communication by a holder of
the privilege or by the informants own action;
or
(B) if
the informant appears as a witness for the prosecution.
(2) Informant as a Defense Witness. If a claim of privilege has been made under this rule,
the military judge must, upon motion by the accused, determine whether disclosure of
the
identity of
the informant is necessary to the accused's defense on the issue of
guilt or innocence.
Whether such a necessity exists will depend on the particular circumstances of
each case, taking
into consideration the offense charged, the possible defense, the possible significance of
the
informant's testimony, and other relevant factors. If
it appears from the evidence in the case or
from other showing by a party that an informant may be able to give testimony necessary to the
accused's defense on the issue of
guilt or innocence, the military judge may make any order
required by the interests of
justice.
(3) lriformant as a Witness regarding a Motion to Suppress Evidence. If a claim of
privilege has been made under this rule with respect to a motion under Mil. R. Evid. 311, the
military judge must, upon motion of
the accused, determine whether disclosure of
the identity of
the informant is required by the United States Constitution as applied to members of
the Armed
Forces. In making this determination, the military judge may make any order required by the
interests of
justice.
(e) Procedures.
(1) in Camera Revie1v. If
the accused has articulated a basis for disclosure under the
standards set forth in this rule, the prosecution may ask the military judge to conduct an in
camera review of
affidavits or other evidence relevant to disclosure.
(3) Order by the Military Judge. If
a claim of
privilege has been made under this rule, the
military judge may make any order required by the interests of
justice.
(3) Action ~Jl the Convening Authority. If
the military judge determines that disclosure of
the identity of
the infonnant is required under the standards set forth in this rule, and the
prosecution elects not to disclose the identity of
the informant, the matter must be reported to the
convening authority. The convening authority may institute action to secure disclosure of
the
identity of
the infonnant, tenninate the proceedings, or take such other action as may be
appropriate under the circumstances.
(4) Remedies. If, after a reasonable period of
time disclosure is not made, the military
judge, sua sponte or upon motion of
either counsel and after a hearing if
requested by either
party, may dismiss the charge or specifications or both to which the infonnation regarding the
informant would relate if
the military judge determines that further proceedings would materially
prejudice a substantial right of
the accused.
Rule 508. Political vote
A person has a privilege to refuse to disclose the tenor of
the person's vote at a political election
conducted by secret ballot unless the vote was cast illegally.
Rule 509. Deliberations of courts and juries
Except as provided in MiL R Evid. 606, the deliberations of courts, courts-martial, military
judges, and grand and petit juries are privileged to the extent that such matters are privileged in
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trial of ctiminal cases in the United States district courts, but the results of
the deliberations are
not ptivileged.
Rule 510. Waiver of privilege by voluntary disclosure
(a) A person upon whom these rules confer a privilege against disclosure of a confidential matter
or communication waives the privilege if
the person or the person's predecessor while holder of
the ptivilege voluntarily discloses or consents to disclosure of any significant part of
the matter
or communication under such circumstances that it would be inappropriate to allow the claim of
privilege. This rule does not apply if
the disclosure is itself a privileged communication.
(b) Unless testifying voluntatily concerning a privileged matter or communication, an accused
who testifies in his or her own behalf or a person who testifies under a grant or promise of
immunity does not, merely by reason of
testifying, waive a privilege to which he or she may be
entitled pertaining to the confidential matter or communication.
Rule 511. Privileged matter disclosed under compulsion or without opportunity to claim
privilege
(a) General Rule.
Evidence of a statement or other disclosure of
privileged matter is not admissible against the
holder of
the ptivilege if
disclosure was compelled erroneously or was made without an
opportunity for the holder of
the privilege to claim the privilege.
(b) Use of
Communications Jvfedia.
The telephonic transmission of
information otherwise privileged under these rules does not atTect
its privileged character. Use of electronic means of
communication other than the telephone tor
transmission of information otherwise privileged under these rules does not affect the privileged
character of
such information if
use of
such means of communication is necessary and in
furtherance of
the communication.
Rule 512. Comment upon or inference from claim of privilege; instruction
(a) Comment or lriference not
permitted.
(1) The claim of
a privilege by the accused whether in the present proceeding or upon a prior
occasion is not a proper subject of comment by the military judge or counsel for any party. No
inference may be drawn therefrom.
(2) The claim of a privilege by a person other than the accused whether in the present
proceeding or upon a ptior occasion nonnally is not a proper subject of comment by the military
judge or counsel for any party. An adverse inference may not be drawn therefrom except when
determined by the military judge to be required by the interests of
justice.
(b) Claiming a Privilege Without the Knmt•ledge of
the Members. In a trial before a court-martial
with members, proceedings must be conducted, to the extent practicable, so as to facilitate the
making of claims of privilege without the knowledge of
the members.
(c)Instruction. Upon request, any party against whom the members might draw an adverse
inference from a claim of
privilege is entitled to an instruction that no inference may be dravvn
therefrom except as provided in subdivision (a)(2).
Rule 513. Psychotherapist-patient privilege
(a) General Rule. A patient has a privilege to refuse to disclose and to prevent any other person
from disclosing a confidential communication made between the patient and a psychotherapist or
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an assistant to the psychotherapist, in a case arising under the Uniform Code of Military Justice,
if
such communication was made for the purpose of
facilitating diagnosis or treatment of
the
patient's mental or emotional condition.
(b) Definitions. As used in this rule:
(1) "Patient" means a person who consults with or is examined or interviewed by a
psychotherapist for purposes of
advice, diagnosis, or treatment of a mental or emotional
condition.
(2) "Psychotherapist" means a psychiatrist, clinical psychologist, clinical social worker, or
other mental health professional who is licensed in any State, territory, possession, the District of
Columbia, or Puerto Rico to perform professional services as such, or who holds credentials to
provide such services as such, or who holds credentials to provide such services from any
military health care facility, or is a person reasonably believed by the patient to have such license
or credentials.
(3) "Assistant to a psychotherapist" means a person directed by or assigned to assist a
psychotherapist in providing professional services, or is reasonably believed by the patient to be
such.
(4) A communication is "confidential" if
not intended to be disclosed to third persons other
than those to whom disclosure is in furtherance of the rendition of
professional services to the
patient or those reasonably necessary for such transmission of
the communication.
(5) "Evidence of a patient's records or communications" means testimony of
a
psychotherapist, or assistant to the same, or patient records that pertain to communications by a
patient to a psychotherapist, or assistant to the same, for the purposes of diagnosis or treatment of
the patient's mental or emotional condition.
(c) Who A1cry Claim the Privilege. The privilege may be claimed by the patient or the guardian or
conservator of
the patient. A person who may claim the privilege may authorize trial counsel,
defense counsel, or any counsel representing the patient to claim the privilege on his or her
behalf. The psychotherapist or assistant to the psychotherapist who received the communication
may claim the privilege on behalf of
the patient. The authority of such a psychotherapist,
assistant, guardian, or conservator to so assert the privilege is presumed in the absence of
evidence to the contrary.
(d) Exceptions. There is no ptivilege under this rule:
(1) when the patient is dead;
(2) when the communication is evidence of child abuse or of neglect, or in a proceeding in
which one spouse is charged with a crime against a child of
either spouse;
(3) when federal law, state law, or service regulation imposes a duty to report information
contained in a communication;
(4) when a psychotherapist or assistant to a psychotherapist believes that a patient's mental or
emotional condition makes the patient a danger to any person, including the patient;
(5) if
the communication clearly contemplated the future commission of a fraud or crime or if
the services of
the psychotherapist are sought or obtained to enable or aid anyone to commit or
plan to commit what the patient knew or reasonably should have known to be a ctime or fraud;
(6) when necessary to ensure the safety and security of military personnel, military
dependents, military property, classified information, or the accomplishment of a military
m1sswn; or
(7) when an accused offers statements or other evidence concerning his mental condition in
defense, extenuation, or mitigation, under circumstances not covered by R.C.M. 706 or Mil. R.
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Evid. 302. In such situations, the military judge may, upon motion, order disclosure of
any
statement made by the accused to a psychotherapist as may be necessary in the interests of
justice.
(e)Procedure to Detennine Admissibility ofPatient Records or Communications.
( 1) In any case in which the production or admission of
records or communications of
a
patient other than the accused is a matter in dispute, a party may seek an interlocutory ruling by
the military judge. In order to obtain such a ruling, the party must:
(A) file a written motion at least 5 days prior to entry of
pleas specifically describing the
evidence and stating the purpose for which it is sought or offered, or objected to, unless the
military judge, for good cause shown, requires a different time for filing or permits filing during
trial; and
(B) serve the motion on the opposing party, the military judge and, if practical, notify the
patient or the patient's guardian, conservator, or representative that the motion has been filed and
that the patient has an opportunity to be heard as set forth in subdivision (e)(2).
(2) Before ordering the production or admission of evidence of
a patient's records or
communication, the military judge must conduct a hearing, which shall be closed. At the hearing,
the parties may call witnesses, including the patient, and offer other relevant evidence. The
patient must be afforded a reasonable opportunity to attend the hearing and be heard. However,
the hearing may not be unduly delayed for this purpose. The right to be heard under this rule
includes the right to be heard through counsel, including Special Victims' Counsel under section
1044e of
title 10, United States Code. In a case before a court-martial composed of
a military
judge and members, the military judge must conduct the hearing outside the presence of
the
members.
(3) The military judge may examine the evidence or a proffer thereof in camera, if such
examination is necessary to rule on the production or admissibility of protected records or
communications. Prior to conducting an in-camera review, the military judge must find by a
preponderance of
the evidence that the moving party showed:
(A) a specific, credible factual basis demonstrating a reasonable likelihood that the records
or communications would contain or lead to the discovery of
evidence admissible under an
exception to the privilege;
(B) that the requested infonnation meets one of
the enumerated exceptions under
subdivision (d) of
this rule;
(C) that the infonnation sought is not merely cumulative of
other information available;
and
(D) that the party made reasonable efforts to obtain the same or substantially similar
infonnation through non-privileged sources.
(
4) Any production or disclosure permitted by the military judge under this mle must be
natTowly tailored to only the specific records or communications, or portions of such records or
communications, that meet the requirements for one of
the enumerated exceptions to the
privilege under subdivision (d) of
this Rule and are included in the stated purpose for which the
records or communications are sought under subdivision (e)(l)(A) of this Rule.
(5) To prevent unnecessary disclosure of a patient's records or communications, the military
judge may issue protective orders or may admit only portions of the evidence.
(6) The motion, related papers, and the record of the hearing must be sealed in accordance
with R.C.M. 70l(g)(2) or 1113 and must remain under seal unless the military judge, the Judge
Advocate General, or an appellate court orders othenvise.
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Rule 514. Victim advocate-victim privilege
(a) General Rule. A victim has a privilege to refuse to disclose and to prevent any other person
from disclosing a confidential communication made between the alleged victim and a victim
advocate or between the alleged victim and Depmiment of
Defense Safe Helpline staff, in a case
arising under the UCMJ, if such communication was made for the purpose of
facilitating advice
or assistance to the alleged victim.
(b) Definitions. As used in this rule:
(1) "Victim" means any person who is alleged to have suffered direct physical or emotional
harm as the result of
a sexual or violent offense.
(2) "Victim advocate" means a person, other than a prosecutor, trial counsel, any victims'
counsel, law enforcement officer, or military criminal investigator in the case, who:
(A) is designated in writing as a victim advocate in accordance with service regulation;
(B) is authorized to perfonn victim advocate duties in accordance with service regulation
and is acting in the perfonnance of
those duties; or
(C) is certified as a victim advocate pursuant to federal or state requirements.
(3) "Department of Defense Safe Helpline staff'' are persons who are designated by
competent authority in writing as Department of Defense Safe Helpline staff
(4) A communication is "confidential" if
made in the course of
the victim advocate-victim
relationship or Department of
Defense Safe Helpline staff-victim relationship and not intended to
be disclosed to third persons other than those to whom disclosure is made in furtherance of
the
rendition of advice or assistance to the alleged victim or those reasonably necessary for such
transmission of the communication.
(5) "Evidence of a victim's records or communications" means testimony of
a victim
advocate or Department of
Defense Safe Helpline staff, or records that pertain to
communications by a victim to a victim advocate or Department of
Defense Safe Helpline staff,
for the purposes of
advising or providing assistance to the victim.
(c) Who lviay Claim the Privilege. The privilege may be claimed by the victim or the guardian or
conservator of
the victim. A person who may claim the privilege may authorize trial counsel or a
counsel representing the victim to claim the privilege on his or her behalf The victim advocate
or Department of
Defense Safe Helpline stafiwho received the communication may claim the
privilege on behalf of
the victim. The authority of such a victim advocate, Department of
Defense Safe Helpline staff, guardian, conservator, or a counsel representing the victim to so
assert the privilege is presumed in the absence of
evidence to the contrary.
(d) Exceptions. There is no privilege under this rule:
(1) when the victim is dead;
(2) when federal law, state law, Department ofDefense regulation, or service regulation
imposes a duty to repmi information contained in a communication;
(3) when a victim advocate or Department of
Defense Safe Helpline staffbelieves that a
victim's mental or emotional condition makes the victim a danger to any person, including the
victim;
(4) if
the communication clearly contemplated the future commission of a fraud or crime, or if
the services of
the victim advocate or Department of
Defense Safe Helpline staff are sought or
obtained to enable or aid anyone to commit or plan to commit what the victim knew or
reasonably should have known to be a crime or fraud;
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(5) when necessary to ensure the safety and security of
military personnel, military
dependents, military property, classified infonnation, or the accomplishment of a military
m1sswn; or
(6) when admission or disclosure of a communication is constitutionally required.
(e) Procedure to Determine Admissibility of
Victim Record<; or Communications.
(1) In any case in which the production or admission ofrecords or communications of
a
victim is a matter in dispute, a party may seek an interlocutory ruling by the military judge. In
order to obtain such a ruling, the party must:
(A) file a written motion at least 5 days prior to entry of
pleas specifically describing the
evidence and stating the purpose for which it is sought or offered, or objected to, unless the
military judge, for good cause shown, requires a different time for filing or permits filing during
trial; and
(B) serve the motion on the opposing party, the military judge and, if practicable, notify
the victim or the victim's guardian, conservator, or representative that the motion has been filed
and that the victim has an opportunity to be heard as set forth in subdivision (e)(2).
(2) Before ordering the production or admission of evidence of
a patient's records or
communication, the military judge must conduct a hearing, which shall be closed. At the hearing,
the parties may call witnesses, including the victim, and offer other relevant evidence. The
victim must be afforded a reasonable opportunity to attend the hearing and be heard. However,
the hearing may not be unduly delayed for this purpose. The right to be heard under this rule
includes the right to be heard through counsel, including Special Victims' Counsel under section
1
044e of
title 10, United States Code. 1n a case before a court-martial composed of
a military
judge and members, the military judge must conduct the hearing outside the presence of
the
members.
(3) The military judge may examine the evidence or a proffer thereof in camera, if such
examination is necessary to rule on the production or admissibility of protected records or
communications. Prior to conducting an in camera review, the military judge must find by a
preponderance of
the evidence that the moving party showed:
(A) a specific, credible factual basis demonstrating a reasonable likelihood that the records
or communications would contain or lead to the discovery of
evidence admissible under an
exception to the privilege;
(B) that the requested infonnation meets one of
the enumerated exceptions under
subdivision (d) of
this rule;
(C) that the infonnation sought is not merely cumulative of
other infonnation available;
and
(D) that the party made reasonable efforts to obtain the same or substantially similar
information through non-privileged sources.
(
4) Any production of disclosure permitted by the military judge under this rule must be
narrowly tailored to only the specific records or communications, or portions of such records or
communications, that meet the requirements for one of
the enumerated exceptions to the
privilege under subdivision (d) of
this Rule and are included in the stated purpose for which the
records or communications are sought under subdivision (e)( 1
)(A) of
this rule.
(5) To prevent unnecessary disclosure of evidence of
a victim's records or communications,
the military judge may issue protective orders or may admit only portions of
the evidence.
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(6) The motion, related papers, and the record of
the hearing must be sealed in accordance
with R.C.M. 70l(g)(2) or 1113 and must remain under seal unless the military judge, the Judge
Advocate General, or an appellate court orders otherwise.
SECTION VI
WITNESSES
Rule 601. Competency to testify in general
Every person is competent to be a witness unless these rules provide otherwise.
Rule 602. Need for personal knowledge
A witness may testify to a matter only if
evidence is introduced sufficient to support a finding
that the witness has personal knowledge of
the matter. Evidence to prove personal knowledge
may consist of
the witness' own testimony. This rule does not apply to a witness' expert
testimony under Mil. R. Evid. 703.
Rule 603. Oath or affirmation to testify truthfully
Before testifying, a witness must give an oath or affirmation to testify truthfully. It must be in a
form designed to impress that duty on the witness' conscience.
Rule 604. Interpreter
An interpreter must be qualified and must give an oath or affirmation to make a true translation.
Rule 605. Military judge's competency as a witness
(a) The presiding military judge may not testify as a witness at any proceeding of
that court-
martial. A party need not object to preserve the issue.
(b) This rule does not preclude the military judge from placing on the record matters concerning
docketing of
the case.
Rule 606. Member's competency as a witness
(a) At the Trial by Court-Martial. A member of
a court-martial may not testify as a witness
before the other members at any proceeding of
that court-martial. If
a member is called to testify,
the military judge must give the opposing pm1y an opportunity to object outside the presence of
the members.
(b) During an inquiry into the Validity of
a Finding or Sentence.
(1) Prohibited Testim011;y or Other Evidence. During an inquiry into the validity of a finding
or sentence, a member of a court-martial may not testify about any statement made or incident
that occurred during the deliberations of
that court-martial; the effect of anything on that
member's or another member's vote; or any member's mental processes concerning the finding
or sentence. The military judge may not receive a member's afti.davit or evidence of a member's
statement on these matters.
(2) .h..'xceptions. A member may testify about whether:
(A) extraneous prejudicial infonnation was improperly brought to the members' attention;
(B) unlawful command influence or any other outside influence was improperly brought to
bear on any member; or
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(C) a mistake was made in entering the finding or sentence on the finding or sentence
forms.
Rule 607. Who may impeach a witness
Any party, including the party that called the witness, may attack the witness' credibility.
Rule 608. A witness~ character for truthfulness or untruthfulness
(a) Reputation or Opinion Evidence. A witness' credibility may be attacked or supported by
testimony about the witness' reputation for having a character for truthfulness or untruthfulness,
or by testimony in the form of
an opinion about that character. Evidence of truthful character is
admissible only after the witness' character for truthfulness has been attacked.
(b) Spectfic Instances qfConduct. Except for a criminal conviction under Mil. R. Evid. 609,
extrinsic evidence is not admissible to prove specific instances of a witness' conduct in order to
attack or support the witness' character for truthfulness. The military judge may, on cross-
examination, allow them to be inquired into if
they are probative of
the character for truthfulness
or untruthfulness of:
(1) the witness; or
(2) another witness whose character the witness being cross-examined has testified about.
By testifying on another matter, a witness does not waive any privilege against self-incrimination
for testimony that relates only to the witness' character for truthfulness.
(c) Evidence of
Bias. Bias, prejudice, or any motive to misrepresent may be shown to impeach
the witness either by examination of
the witness or by evidence otherwise adduced.
Rule 609. Impeachment by evidence of a criminal conviction or finding of guilty by
summary court-martial
(a) in General. The following rules apply to attacking a witness' character for truthfulness by
evidence of a criminal conviction or finding of
guilty by summary court-martial.
(1) For an ofiense that, in the convicting jurisdiction, was punishable by death, dishonorable
discharge, or by imprisonment for more than one year, the evidence:
(A) must be admitted, subject to Mil. R Evid. 403, in a court-martial in which the witness
is not the accused; and
(B) must be admitted in a court-mat1ial in which the witness is the accused, if
the
probative value of
the evidence outweighs its prejudicial effect to that accused; and
(2) For any offense regardless of
the punishment, the evidence must be admitted if
the court
can readily determine that establishing the elements of
the crime required proving- or the
witness' admitting- a dishonest act or false statement.
(3) In determining whether an offense tried by court-martial was punishable by death,
dishonorable discharge, or imprisonment in excess of
one year, the maximum punishment
prescribed by the President under Article 56 at the time of
the conviction applies without regard
to whether the case was tried by general, special, or summary court-martial.
(b) Limit on Using the Evidence After 10 Years. Subdivision (b) applies if more than 10 years
have passed since the witness' conviction or finding of
guilty by summary court-martial or
release from confinement for it, whichever is later. Evidence of
the conviction or finding of
guilty by summary court-martial is admissible only if:
(1) its probative value, supported by specific facts and circumstances, substantially outweighs
its prejudicial effect; and
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(2) the proponent gives an adverse party reasonable written notice of
the intent to use it so that
the party has a fair opportunity to contest its use.
(c) Effect of
a Pardon, Annulment, or Certificate of
Rehabilitation. Evidence of a conviction or
finding of guilty by summary court-martial is not admissible if:
(1) the conviction or finding of guilty by summary court-martial has been the subject of
a
pardon, annulment, certificate of
rehabilitation, or other equivalent procedure based on a finding
that the person has been rehabilitated, and the person has not been convicted of a later crime
punishable by death, dishonorable discharge, or imprisonment for more than one year; or
(2) the conviction or finding of guilty by summary court-martial has been the subject of
a
pardon, annulment, or other equivalent procedure based on a finding of
innocence.
(d) Juvenile Adjudications. Evidence of
a juvenile adjudication is admissible under this rule only
if:
(1) the adjudication was of a witness other than the accused;
(2) an adult's conviction for that offense would be admissible to attack the adult's credibility;
and
(3) admitting the evidence is necessary to fairly determine guilt or innocence.
(e) Umil on use ofa.finding<?fguilty by summary court-martial. A finding of
guilty by summary
court-martial may not be used for purposes of
impeachment unless the accused at the summary
court-martial proceeding was represented by military or civilian defense counsel.
(f) Pendency <?fan Appeal. A conviction that satisfies this rule is admissible even if
an appeal is
pending, except that a finding of guilty by summary court-martial may not be used for purposes
of
impeachment until review has been completed under Article 64. Evidence of
the pendency is
also admissible.
(g) Definition. For purposes of
this rule, there is a conviction in a general or special court-martial
when a sentence has been adjudged.
Rule 610. Religious beliefs or opinions
Evidence of a witness' relit,>ious beliefs or opinions is not admissible to attack or support the
witness' credibility.
Rule 611. Mode and order of examining witnesses and presenting evidence
(a) Control by the Military Judge; Purposes.
The military judge should exercise reasonable control over the mode and order of examining
witnesses and presenting evidence so as to:
(1) make those procedures effective for determining the truth;
(2) avoid wasting time; and
(3) protect witnesses from harassment or undue embarrassment.
(b) Scope of
Cross-Examination. Cross-examination should not go beyond the subject matter of
the direct examination and matters affecting the witness' credibility. The military judge may
allow inquiry into additional matters as if on direct examination.
(c) Leading Questions. Leading questions should not be used on direct examination except as
necessary to develop the witness' testimony. Ordinatily, the military judge should allow leading
questions:
(1) on cross-examination; and
(2) when a party calls a hostile witness or a witness identified with an adverse party.
(d) Remote live testimony Q(
a child.
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( 1) In a case involving domestic violence or the abuse of
a child, the military judge must,
subject to the requirements of subdivision (d)(3) of
this mle, allow a child victim or witness to
testify from an area outside the courtroom as prescribed in R.C.M. 914A.
(2) Definitions.
As used in this rule:
(A) "Child" means a person who is under the age of 16 at the time of
his or her
testimony.
(B) "Abuse of a child" means the physical or mental injmy, sexual abuse or
exploitation, or negligent treatment of
a child.
(C) "Exploitation" means child pornography or child prostitution.
(D) "Negligent treatment" means the failure to provide, for reasons other than
poverty, adequate food, clothing, shelter, or medical care so as to endanger seriously the physical
health ofthe child.
(E) "Domestic violence" means an offense that has as an element the use, or
attempted or threatened use of physical force against a person by a current or former spouse,
parent, or guardian of
the victim; by a person with whom the victim shares a child in common;
by a person who is cohabiting with or has cohabited with the victim as a spouse, parent, or
guardian; or by a person similarly situated to a spouse, parent, or guardian of
the victim.
(3) Remote live testimony will be used only where the military judge makes the following
three findings on the record:
(A) that it is necessary to protect the welfare of
the particular child witness;
(B) that the child witness would be traumatized, not by the courtroom generally,
but by the presence of
the accused; and
(C) that the emotional distress suffered by the child witness in the presence of
the
accused is more than de minimis.
(4) Remote live testimony of
a child will not be used when the accused elects to absent
himself from the courtroom in accordance with R.C.M. 804(d).
(5) In making a determination under subdivision (d)(3), the military judge may question
the child in chambers, or at some comfortable place other than the courtroom, on the record for a
reasonable period of
time, in the presence of
the child, a representative of
the prosecution, a
representative of
the defense, and the child's attorney or guardian ad litem.
Rule 612. Writing used to refresh a witness' memory
(a) Scope. This rule gives an adverse party certain options when a witness uses a writing to
refresh memory:
(1) while testifying; or
(2) before testifying, if
the military judge decides that justice requires the party to have
those options.
(b) Adverse Party's Options; Deleting Unrelated A1atter. An adverse party is entitled to have the
writing produced at the hearing, to inspect it, to cross-examine the witness about it, and to
introduce in evidence any portion that relates to the vvitness' testimony. If the producing party
claims that the writing includes unrelated or privileged matter, the military judge must examine
the writing in camera, delete any unrelated or privileged portion, and order that the rest be
delivered to the adverse party. Any portion deleted over objection must be preserved for the
record.
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(c) Failure to Produce or Deliver the Writing. If a writing is not produced or is not delivered as
ordered, the military judge may issue any appropriate order. If
the prosecution does not comply,
the military judge must strike the witness' testimony or- if
justice so requires- declare a mistrial.
(d) No Ejject on Other Disclosure Requirements. This mle does not preclude disclosure of
information required to be disclosed under other provisions of
these mles or this Manual.
Rule 613. Witness' prior statement
(a) Shmving or Disclosing the Statement During Examination. When examining a witness about
the witness' prior statement, a party need not show it or disclose its contents to the witness. The
party must, on request, show it or disclose its contents to an adverse party's attorney.
(b) Extrinsic Evidence <:?!a Prior Inconsistent Statement. Extrinsic evidence of
a witness' prior
inconsistent statement is admissible only if
the witness is given an opportunity to explain or deny
the statement and an adverse party is given an opportunity to examine the witness about it, or if
justice so requires. Subdivision (b) does not apply to an opposing party's statement under Mil R
Evid. 801(d)(2).
Rule 614. Court-martial's calling or examining a witness
(a) Calling. The military judge may-sua sponte or at the request of
the members or the
suggestion of a party-call a witness. Each party is entitled to cross-examine the witness. When
the members wish to call or recall a witness, the military judge must determine whether the
testimony would be relevant and not barred by any mle or provision of
this Manual.
(b) Examining. The military judge or members may examine a witness regardless of
who calls
the witness. Members must submit their questions to the military judge in writing. Following the
opportunity for review by both parties, the military judge must mle on the propriety of
the
questions, and ask the questions in an acceptable form on behalf of
the members. When the
military judge or the members call a witness who has not previously testified, the military judge
may conduct the direct examination or may assign the responsibility to counsel for any party.
(c) Objections. Objections to the calling of
witnesses by the military judge or the members or to
the interrogation by the military judge or the members may be made at the time or at the next
available opportunity when the members are not present.
Rule 615. Excluding witnesses
At a party's request, the military judge must order witnesses excluded so that they cannot hear
other witnesses' testimony, or the military judge may do so sua sponte. This rule does not
authorize excluding:
(a) the accused;
(b) a member of
an Armed service or an employee of
the United States after being designated as
a representative of
the United States by trial counsel;
(c) a person whose presence a party shows to be essential to presenting the party's case;
(d) a person authorized by statute to be present; or
(e) a victim of an o±Iense from the trial of
an accused for that offense, unless the military judge,
after receiving clear and convincing evidence, determines that testimony by the victim would be
materially altered if
the victim heard other testimony at that hearing or proceeding.
SECTION VII
OPINIONS AND EXPERT TESTlMONY
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Rule 701. Opinion testimony by lay witnesses
If
a witness is not testifying as an expert, testimony in the form of
an opinion is limited to one
that is:
(a) rationally based on the witness' perception;
(b) helpful to clearly understanding the witness' testimony or to determining a fact in issue; and
(c) not based on scientific, technical, or other specialized knowledge within the scope of
Mil. R.
Evid. 702.
Rule 702. Testimony by expert witnesses
A witness who is qualified as an expert by knowledge, skill, experience, training, or education
may testify in the fom1 of
an opinion or otherwise if:
(a) the expert's scientific, technical, or other specialized knowledge will help the trier of
fact to
understand the evidence or to determine a fact in issue;
(b) the testimony is based on sufficient facts or data;
(c) the testimony is the product of reliable principles and methods; and
(d) the expert has reliably applied the principles and methods to the facts of
the case.
Rule 703. Bases of an expert's opinion testimony
An expert may base an opinion on facts or data in the case that the expert has been made aware
of
or personally observed. If experts in the particular field would reasonably rely on those kinds
of
facts or data in forming an opinion on the subject, they need not be admissible for the opinion
to be admitted. If
the facts or data would otherwise be inadmissible, the proponent of
the opinion
may disclose them to the members of
a court-martial only if
the military judge finds that their
probative value in helping the members evaluate the opinion substantially outweighs their
prejudicial effect.
Rule 704. Opinion on an ultimate issue
An opinion is not objectionable just because it embraces an ultimate issue.
Rule 705. Disclosing the facts or data underlying an expert's opinion
Unless the military judge orders otherwise, an expert may state an opinion - and give the reasons
for it - without first testifying to the underlying facts or data. The expert may be required to
disclose those facts or data on cross-examination.
Rule 706. Court-appointed expert witnesses
(a) Appointment Process. Trial counsel, defense counsel, and the court-martial have equal
opportunity to obtain expert witnesses under Article 46 and R.C.M. 703.
(b) Compensation. The compensation of
expert witnesses is governed by R.C.M. 703.
(c) Accused's Choice of
Experts. This rule does not limit an accused in calling any expert at the
accused's own expense.
Rule 707. Polygraph examinations
(a) Prohibitions. Notwithstanding any other provision of
law, the result of
a polygraph
examination, the polygraph examiner's opinion, or any reference to an offer to take, failure to
take, or taking of
a polygraph examination is not admissible.
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(b) Statements Made During a Polygraph Examination. This rule does not prohibit admission of
an otherwise admissible statement made during a polygraph examination.
SECTION VIII
HEARSAY
Rule 801. Definitions that apply to this section; exclusions from hearsay
(a) Statement. "Statement'' means a person's oral assertion, written assertion, or nonverbal
conduct, if
the person intended it as an assertion.
(b) Declarant. "Declarant" means the person who made the statement.
(c) Hearsay. "Hearsay" means a statement that:
(1) the declarant does not make while testifying at the current trial or hearing; and
(2) a party oilers in evidence to prove the truth of
the matter asserted in the statement.
(d) Statements that Are Not Hearsay. A statement that meets the following conditions is not
hearsay:
(1) A Declarant-Witness' Prior Statement. The declarant testifies and is subject to cross-
examination about a prior statement, and the statement:
(A) is inconsistent with the declarant's testimony and was given under penalty of
petjury at a trial, hearing, or other proceeding or in a deposition;
(B) is consistent with the declarant's testimony and is offered:
(i) to rebut an express or implied charge that the declarant recently fabricated
it or acted from a recent improper influence or motive in so testifying; or
(ii) to rehabilitate the declarant's credibility as a witness when attacked on
another ground; or
(C) identifies a person as someone the declarant perceived earlier.
(2) An Opposing Party's Statement. The statement is offered against an opposing party
and:
subject;
(A) was made by the party in an individual or representative capacity;
(B) is one the party manifested that it adopted or believed to be true;
(C) was made by a person whom the party authorized to make a statement on the
(D) was made by the party's agent or employee on a matter within the scope of
that relationship and while it existed; or
(E) was made by the party's co-conspirator during and in furtherance of
the
conspiracy. The statement must be considered but does not by itself establish the declarant's
authority under (C); the existence or scope of the relationship under (D); or the existence of
the
conspiracy or participation in it under (E).
Rule 802. The rule against hearsay
Hearsay is not admissible unless any of
the following provides otherwise:
(a) a federal statute applicable in trial by courts-martial; or
(b) these rules.
Rule 803. Exceptions to the rule against hearsay - regardless of
whether the declarant is
available as a witness
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The following are not excluded by the mle against hearsay, regardless of
whether the declarant is
available as a witness:
(
1) Present Sense Impression. A statement describing or explaining an event or condition,
made while or immediately after the declarant perceived it.
(2) Excited Utterance. A statement relating to a startling event or condition, made while the
declarant was under the stress of excitement that it caused.
(3) Then-Existing Mental, Emotional, or Physical Condition. A statement of
the declarant's
then-existing state of
mind (such as motive, intent, or plan) or emotional, sensory, or physical
condition (such as mental feeling, pain, or bodily health), but not including a statement of
memory or belief to prove the fact remembered or believed unless it relates to the validity or
terms of
the declarant's will.
(4) Statement },;fade for Medical Diagnosis or Treatment. A statement that-
(A)is made for-and is reasonably pertinent to-medical diagnosis or treatment; and
(B) describes medical history; past or present symptoms or sensations; their inception;
or their general cause.
(5) Recorded Recollection. A record that-
(A)is on a matter the witness once knew about but now cannot recall well enough to
testify fully and accurately;
(B) was made or adopted by the witness when the matter was fresh in the witness'
-s
memory; and
(C) accurately reflects the witness' knowledge.
lf
admitted, the record may be read into evidence but may be received as an exhibit only if
otiered by an adverse party.
(6) Records (?fa Regularly Conducted
Activity. A record of
an act, event, condition, opinion,
or diagnosis if:
(A)the record was made at or near the time by- or from information transmitted by-
someone with knowledge;
(B) the record was kept in the course of
a rebrularl y conducted activity of a uniformed
service, business, institution, association, profession, organization, occupation, or calling of
any
kind, whether or not conducted for profit;
(C) making the record was a regular practice of
that activity~
(D)all these conditions are shown by the testimony of
the custodian or another
qualified witness, or by a certification that complies with Mil. R. Evid. 902(11) or with a statute
permitting certification in a criminal proceeding in a court of
the United States; and
(E) the opponent does not show that the source of
information or the method or
circumstance of preparation indicate a lack of
trustworthiness. Records of regularly conducted
activities include, but are not limited to, enlistment papers, physical examination papers,
fingerprint cards, forensic laboratory reports, chain of custody documents, morning reports and
other personnel accountability documents, service records, officer and enlisted qualification
records, logs, unit personnel diaries, individual equipment records, daily strength records of
prisoners, and rosters of prisoners.
(7) Absence of
a Record of
a Regularly Conducted
Activity. Evidence that a matter is not
included in a record described in paragraph (6) if:
(A) the evidence is admitted to prove that the matter did not occur or exist;
(B) a record was regularly kept for a matter of
that kind; and
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(C) the opponent does not show that the possible source of
the information or other
circumstances indicate a lack of
trustworthiness.
(8) Public Records. A record or statement of
a public office if:
(A)it sets out:
(i) the office's activities;
(ii) a matter observed while under a legal duty to report, but not including a
matter observed by law-enforcement personnel and other personnel acting
in a law enforcement capacity; or
(iii) against the government, factual findings from a legally authorized
investigation; and
(B) the opponent does not show that the source of
information or other circumstances
indicate a lack of
trustworthiness. Notwithstanding subdivision (8)(A)(ii), the following are
admissible as a record of
a fact or event if
made by a person within the scope of
the person's
official duties and those duties included a duty to know or to ascettain through appropriate and
trustworthy channels ofinfom1ation the truth of
the fact or event and to record such fact or event:
enlistment papers, physical examination papers, fingerprint cards, forensic laboratory reports,
chain of custody documents, morning reports and other personnel accountability documents,
service records, officer and enlisted qualification records, court-martial conviction records, logs,
unit personnel diaries, individual equipment records, daily strength records of
prisoners, and
rosters of prisoners.
(9) Public Records (if Vital Statistic.•;. A record of
a birth, death, or marriage, if
reported to a
public office in accordance with a legal duty.
(lO)Absence lifa Public Record.
Testimony - or a certification under Rule 902 -that a diligent search failed to disclose a public
record or statement if:
(A) the testimony or certification is admitted to prove that
(i) the record or statement does not exist; or
(ii) a matter did not occur or exist, if
a public office re!:,rularly kept a record or
statement for a matter of
that kind; and
(B) a counsel for the government who intends to otTer a certification provides written
notice of
that intent at least 14 days before trial, and the accused does not object in writing within
7 days of
receiving the notice -unless the military judge sets a different time for the notice or the
objection.
( 11) Records ofReligious Organizations Concerning Personal or Family Histmy A
statement of
birth, legitimacy, ancestry, marriage, divorce, death, relationship by blood or
marriage, or similar facts of
personal or family history, contained in a regularly kept record of a
religious organization.
(12) Certificates ofMarriage, Baptism, and Similar Ceremonies. A statement of
fact
contained in a certificate:
(A) made by a person who is authorized by a religious organization or by law to
perform the act certified;
(B) attesting that the person performed a marriage or similar ceremony or
administered a sacrament; and
(C) purporting to have been issued at the time of
the act or within a reasonable time
after it.
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(13)Family Records. A statement of
fact about personal or family history contained in a
family record, such as a Bible, genealogy, chart, engraving on a ring, inscription on a portrait, or
engraving on an urn or burial marker.
( 14) Records of
Documents that Affect an Interest in Property. The record of
a document that
purports to establish or affect an interest in property if:
(A)the record is admitted to prove the content of
the original recorded document,
along with its signing and its delivery by each person who purports to have signed it;
(B) the record is kept in a public office; and
(C) a statute authorizes recording documents of
that kind in that office.
(15) Statements in Documents that Affect an Interest in Property. A statement contained in a
document that purports to establish or affect an interest in property if
the matter stated was
relevant to the document's purpose unless later dealings with the property are inconsistent with
the truth of
the statement or the purport of
the document.
(16) Statements in Ancient Documents. A statement in a document that is at least 20 years old
and whose authenticity is established.
(17) Market Reports and Similar Commercial Publication•;. Market quotations, lists
(including government price lists), directories, or other compilations that are generally relied on
by the public or by persons in particular occupations.
(18) Statements in Learned Treatises, Periodical~·, or Pamphlets. A statement contained in a
treatise, periodical, or pamphlet if:
(A)the statement is called to the attention of
an expert witness on cross-examination
or relied on by the expert on direct examination; and
(B) the publication is established as a reliable authority by the expet1' s admission or
testimony, by another expert's testimony, or by judicial notice.
If
admitted, the statement may be read into evidence but not received as an exhibit.
(l9)Reputation Concerning Personal or Family Hi
.
..,·tory. A reputation among a person's
family by blood, adoption, or marriage - or among a person's associates or in the community -
concerning the person's birth, adoption, legitimacy, ancestry, marriage, divorce, death,
relationship by blood, adoption, or marriage, or similar facts of personal or family history, age,
ancestry, or other similar fact of
the person's personal or family history.
(20) Reputation Concerning Boundaries or General History. A reputation in a community -
arising before the controversy- concerning boundaries of
land in the community or customs that
affect the land, or concerning general historical events important to that community, State, or
nation.
(21) Reputation Concerning Character. A reputation among a person's associates or in the
community concerning the person's character.
(22)Judgment of
a Previous Conviction. Evidence of
a final judgment of
conviction if:
(A)the judgment was entered after a trial or guilty plea, but not a nolo contendere
plea;
(B) the conviction was for a crime punishable by death, dishonorable discharge, or
imprisonment for more than a year;
(C) the evidence is admitted to prove any fact essential to the judgment; and
(D)when offered by the prosecution for a purpose other than impeachment, the
judgment was against the accused.
The pendency of
an appeal may be shown but does not affect admissibility. In determining
whether a crime tried by court-martial was punishable by death, dishonorable discharge, or
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imprisonment for more than one year, the maximum punishment prescribed by the President
under Article 56 of
the Uniform of
Military Justice at the time of
the conviction applies without
regard to whether the case was tried by general, special, or summary court-martial.
(23)Judgments Involving Personal, Family, or General Hist01y, or a Boundary. A judgment
that is admitted to prove a matter of
personal, family, or general history, or boundaries, if
the
matter:
(A)was essential to the judgment; and
(B) could be proved by evidence of reputation.
Rule 804. Exceptions to the rule against hearsay -when the declarant is unavailable as a
witness
(a) Criteriafor Being Unavailable. A declarant is considered to be unavailable as a witness if
the
declarant:
(1) is exempted from testifying about the subject matter of
the declarant's statement because
the military judge rules that a ptivilege applies;
(2) refuses to testify about the subject matter despite the military judge's order to do so;
(3) testifies to not remembering the subject matter;
(4) cannot be present or testify at the trial or hearing because of
death or a then-existing
infirmity, physical illness, or mental illness; or
(5) is absent from the trial or heating and the statement's proponent has not been able, by
process or other reasonable means, to procure:
(A) the declarant's attendance, in the case of a hearsay exception under subdivision (b
)(1)
or (b)(S);
(B) the declarant's attendance or testimony, in the case of a hearsay exception under
subdivision (b
)(2
), (b )(3 ), or (b)(
4
); or
(6) has previously been deposed about the subject matter and is absent due to military
necessity, age, imprisonment, non-amenability to process, or other reasonable cause.
Subdivision (a) does not apply if
the statement's proponent procured or wrongfully caused the
declarant's unavailability as a witness in order to prevent the declarant from attending or
testifying.
(b) The Exceptions. The following are exceptions to the rule against hearsay, and are not
excluded by that rule ifthe declarant is unavailable as a witness:
(1) Former Testimony. Testimony that:
(A) was given by a witness at a trial, hearing, or lawful deposition, whether given during
the current proceeding or a different one; and
(B) is now offered against a party who had an opportunity and similar motive to develop it
by direct, cross-, or redirect examination.
Subject to the limitations in Articles 49 and 50, a record of
testimony given before a court-
martial, court of
inquiry, military commission, other military tribunal, or preliminary hearing
under Article 32 is admissible under subdivision (b
)(1) if
the record of
the testimony is a
verbatim record.
(2) Statement under the Belief
of
Imminent Death. In a prosecution for any offense resulting
in the death of the alleged victim, a statement that the declarant, while believing the declarant's
death to be imminent, made about its cause or circumstances.
(3) Statement against Interest. A statement that:
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(A) a reasonable person in the declarant's position would have made only if
the person
believed it to be true because, when made, it was so contrary to the declarant's proprietary or
pecuniary interest or had so great a tendency to invalidate the declarant's claim against someone
else or to expose the declarant to civil or criminal liability; and
(B) is supported by corroborating circumstances that clearly indicate its trustworthiness, if
it tends to expose the declarant to criminal liability and is offered to exculpate the accused.
(4) Statement of
Personal or Family Hist01y. A statement about:
(A) the declarant's own birth, adoption, legitimacy, ancestry, marriage, divorce,
relationship by blood or marriage, or similar facts of
personal or family history, even though the
declarant had no way of
acquiring personal knowledge about that fact; or
(B) another person concerning any of
these facts, as well as death, if
the declarant was
related to the person by blood, adoption, or marriage or was so intimately associated with the
person's family that the declarant's information is likely to be accurate
(5) Other Exceptions. [Transfened to Mil.R.Evid. 807]
(6) Statement Qffered against a Party that Wrongfully Caused the Declarant's Unavailahility.
A statement offered against a party that wrongfully caused or acquiesced in wrongfully causing
the declarant's unavailability as a witness, and did so intending that result.
Rule 805. Hearsay within hearsay
Hearsay within hearsay is not excluded by the rule against hearsay if each part of
the combined
statements conforms with an exception or exclusion to the mle.
Rule 806. Attacking and supporting the declarant's credibility
When a hearsay statement- or a statement described in Mil. R. Evid. 80l(d)(2)(C), (D), or (E)-
has been admitted in evidence, the declarant's credibility may be attacked, and then supported,
by any evidence that would be admissible for those purposes if
the declarant had testified as a
witness. The military judge may admit evidence of
the declarant's inconsistent statement or
conduct, regardless of
when it occurred or whether the declarant had an opportunity to explain or
deny it. If
the party against whom the statement was admitted calls the declarant as a witness, the
party may examine the declarant on the statement as if
on cross-examination.
Rule 807. Residual exception
(a) In General. Under the following circumstances, a hearsay statement is not excluded by the
rule against hearsay even if
the statement is not specifically covered by a hearsay exception in
Mil. R. Evid. 803 or 804:
(
1) the statement has equivalent circumstantial guarantees of
trustworthiness;
(2) it is offered as evidence of a material fact;
(3) it is more probative on the point for which it is offered than any other evidence that
the proponent can obtain through reasonable efforts; and
(4) admitting it will best serve the purposes of
these rules and the interests of
justice.
(b) Notice. The statement is admissible only if, before the trial or hearing, the proponent gives
an adverse party reasonable notice of
the intent to offer the statement and its particulars,
including the declarant's name and address, so that the party has a fair opportunity to meet it.
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SECTION IX
A
UTHENTTCA
TTON AND TDENTTFTCA TTON
Rule 901. Authenticating or identifying evidence
(a) In General. To satisfy the requirement of
authenticating or identifying an item of
evidence,
the proponent must produce evidence sufficient to support a finding that the item is what the
proponent claims it is.
(b) F:xamples. The following are examples only- not a complete list- of
evidence that satisfies
the requirement:
(1) Testimony (?fa Witnes,'i; with Knowledge. Testimony that an item is what it is claimed
to be.
(2) Nonexpert Opinion about HamAvriting. A nonexpert's opinion that handwriting is
genuine, based on a familiarity with it that was not acquired for the current litigation.
(3) Comparison bJ· an Expert Witness or the Trier (if
Fact. A comparison with an
authenticated specimen by an expert witness or the trier of
fact.
(
4) Distinctive Characteristics and the Like. The appearance, contents, substance,
internal patterns, or other distinctive characteristics of the item, taken together with all the
circumstances.
(5) Opinion about a voice. An opinion identifying a person's voice-whether heard
firsthand or through mechanical or electronic transmission or recording-based on hearing the
voice at any time under circumstances that connect it with the alleged speaker.
(6) Evidence about a Telephone Conversation. For a telephone conversation, evidence
that a call was made to the number assigned at the time to:
(A) a particular person, if
circumstances, including self-identification, show that
the person answering was the one called; or
(B) a patiicular business, if
the call was made to a business and the call related to
business reasonably transacted over the telephone.
(7) Evidence about Public Records. Evidence that:
(A) a document was recorded or filed in a public office as authorized by law; or
(B) a purported public record or statement is from the office where items of
this
kind are kept.
(8) Evidence about Ancient Documents or Data Compilations. For a document or data
compilation, evidence that it:
(A) is in a condition that creates no suspicion about its authenticity;
(B) was in a place where, if
authentic, it would likely be; and
(C) is at least 20 years old when offered.
(9) F:vidence about a Process or S)·sfem. Evidence describing a process or system and
showing that it produces an accurate result.
(1 O)A.fethodr; Provided hy a Statute or Rule. Any method of
authentication or
identification allowed by a federal statute, a rule prescribed by the Supreme Court, or an
applicable regulation prescribed pursuant to statutory authority.
Rule 902. Evidence that is self-authenticating
The following items of
evidence are self-authenticating; they require no extrinsic evidence of
authenticity in order to be admitted:
(
1) Domestic Public Documents that are Sealed and Signed. A document that bears:
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(A) a seal purporting to be that of
the United States; any State, district, Commonwealth,
territory, or insular possession of
the United States; the former Panama Canal Zone; the Trust
Territory of
the Pacific Islands; a political subdivision of any of
these entities; or a department,
agency, or officer of any entity named above; and
(B) a signature purporting to be an execution or attestation.
(2) Domestic Public Documents that are Not Sealed but are Signed and Certified. A document
that bears no seal if:
(A) it bears the signature of
an officer or employee of
an entity named in subdivision
(l)(A) above; and
(B) another public officer who has a seal and official duties v.rithin that same entity
certifies under seal-or its equivalent-that the signer has the official capacity and that the
signature is genuine.
(3) Foreign Public Documents. A document that purports to be signed or attested by a person
who is authorized by a foreign country's law to do so. The document must be accompanied by a
final certification that ce11ifies the genuineness of the signature and official position of
the signer
or attester- or of
any foreign official whose certificate of
genuineness relates to the signature or
attestation or is in a chain of
certificates of
genuineness relating to the signature or attestation.
The certification may be made by a secretary of
a United States embassy or legation; by a consul
general, vice consul, or consular agent of
the United States; or by a diplomatic or consular
official of
the foreign country assigned or accredited to the United States. If all parties have been
given a reasonable opportunity to investigate the document's authenticity and accuracy, the
military judge may, for good cause, either:
(A) order that it be treated as presumptively authentic without final certification; or
(B) allow it to be evidenced by an attested summary with or without tlnal certification.
(
4) Certified Copies of
Public Records. A copy of an official record - or a copy of a document
that was recorded or filed in a public office as authorized by law- if
the copy is certified as
correct by:
(A) the custodian or another person authorized to make the certification; or
(B) a certificate that complies with subdivision (1), (2), or (3) above, a federal statute, a
mle prescribed by the Supreme Court, or an applicable regulation prescribed pursuant to
statutory authority.
(4a) Documents or Records qfthe United States Accompanied by Attesting Certificates.
Documents or records kept under the authority of
the United States by any department, bureau,
agency, oftlce, or court thereof
when attached to or accompanied by an attesting certitlcate of
the
custodian of
the document or record without further authentication.
(5) Official Publications. A book, pamphlet, or other publication purporting to be issued by a
public authority.
(6) Netvspapers and Periodicals. Printed material purporting to be a newspaper or periodical.
(7) Trade Inscriptions and the Like. An inscription, sign, tag, or label purporting to have been
affixed in the course ofbusiness and indicating origin, ownership, or control.
(8) Acknowledged
Documents. A document accompanied by a certificate of
acknowledgment
that is lawfully executed by a notary public or another officer who is authorized to take
acknowledgments.
(9) Commercial Paper and
Related Documents. Commercial paper, a signature on it, and related
documents, to the extent allowed by general commercial law.
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(IO)Presumptions under a Federal Statute or Regulation. A signature, document, or anything
else that a federal statute, or an applicable regulation prescribed pursuant to statutory authority,
declares to be presumptively or prima facie genuine or authentic.
( 11) Certified Domestic Records of
a Regularly Conducted Activity. The original or a copy of a
domestic record that meets the requirements of
Mil. R. Evid. 803(6)(A)-(C), as shown by a
certification of
the custodian or another qualified person that complies with a federal statute or a
rule prescribed by the Supreme Court. Before the trial or hearing, or at a later time that the
military judge allows for good cause, the proponent must give an adverse party reasonable
written notice of
the intent to offer the record and must make the record and certification
available for inspection so that the party has a fair opportunity to challenge them.
Rule 903. Subscribing witness' testimony
A subscribing witness' testimony is necessary to authenticate a writing only if
required by the
law of
the jurisdiction that govems its validity.
SECTION X
CONTENTS OF WRITINGS, RECORDINGS, AND PHOTOGRAPHS
Rule 1001. Definitions that apply to this section
In this section:
(a) A "writing" consists ofletters, words, numbers, or their equivalent set down in any fonn.
(b) A "recording" consists of
letters, words, numbers, or their equivalent recorded in any
manner.
(c) A "photograph" means a photographic image or its equivalent stored in any form.
(d) An "original" of a writing or recording means the writing or recording itself or any
counterpart intended to have the same effect by the person who executed or issued it. For
electronically stored information, "original" means any printout or other output readable by sight
if
it accurately reflects the information. An "original" of a photograph includes the negative or a
print from it.
(e) A "duplicate" means a counterpart produced by a mechanical, photographic, chemical,
electronic, or other equivalent process or technique that accurately reproduces the original.
Rule 1002. Requirement of the original
An original writing, recording, or photograph is required in order to prove its content unless
these rules, this Manual, or a federal statute provides otherwise.
Rule 1003. Admissibility of duplicates
A duplicate is admissible to the same extent as the original unless a genuine question is raised
about the original's authenticity or the circumstances make it unfair to admit the duplicate.
Rule 1004. Admissibility of other evidence of content
An original is not required and other evidence of
the content of
a writing, recording, or
photograph is admissible if:
(a) Originals lost or destroyed All the originals are lost or destroyed, and not by the proponent
acting in bad faith;
(b) Original not obtainable. An original cannot be obtained by any available judicial process;
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(c) Original in possession ofopponent. The party against whom the original would be offered
had control of
the original; was at that time put on notice, by pleadings or otherwise, that the
original would be a subject of
proof at the trial or hearing; and fails to produce it at the trial or
hearing; or
(d) Collateral matters. The writing, recording, or photograph is not closely related to a
controlling issue.
Rule 1005. Copies of public records to prove content
The proponent may use a copy to prove the content of
an official record-or of a document that
was recorded or filed in a public office as authorized by law-if
these conditions are met: the
record or document is otherwise admissible; and the copy is certified as correct in accordance
with MiL R. Evid. 902(
4) or is testified to be correct by a witness who has compared it with the
original. If no such copy can be obtained by reasonable diligence, then the proponent may use
other evidence to prove the content.
Rule 1006. Summaries to prove content
The proponent may use a summary, chart, or calculation to prove the content of voluminous
writings, recordings, or photographs that cannot be conveniently examined in court. The
proponent must make the originals or duplicates available for examination or copying, or both,
by other parties at a reasonable time or place. The military judge may order the proponent to
produce them in court.
Rule 1007. Testimony or statement of a party to prove content
The proponent may prove the content of
a writing, recording, or photograph by the testimony,
deposition, or written statement of
the party against whom the evidence is offered. The
proponent need not account for the original.
Rule 1008. Functions of the military judge and the members
Ordinarily, the military judge detennines whether the proponent has fulfilled the factual
conditions for admitting other evidence of
the content of
a writing, recording, or photograph
under Mil. R. Evid. 1004 or 1005. When a court-martial is composed of
a military judge and
members, the members determine - in accordance with Mil. R. Evid. 1
04(b) - any issue about
whether:
(a) an asserted writing, recording, or photograph ever existed;
(b) another one produced at the trial or hearing is the original; or
(c) other evidence of content accurately reflects the content.
SECTION XI
MISCELLANEOUS RULES
Rule 1101. Applicability of these rules
(a) Jn General. Except as otherwise provided in this Manual, these rules apply generally to all
courts-martial, including summary courts-martial, Article 39(a) sessions, Article 30a
proceedings, remands, proceedings in revision, and contempt proceedings other than contempt
proceedings in which the judge may act summarily.
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(b) Rules Relaxed. The application of
these rules may be relaxed in presentencing proceedings as
provided under R.C.M. 1001 and otherwise as provided in this Manual.
(c) Rules on Privilege. The rules on privilege apply at all stages of
a case or proceeding.
(d) Exceptions. Unless otherwise provided for in this Manual, these rules-except for Mil. R.
Evid. 412 and those on privilege-do not apply to the following:
(1) the military judge's determination, under Rule 104(a), on a preliminary question of fact
governing admissibility;
(2) preliminary hearings under Article 32;
(3) proceedings for vacation of
suspension of
sentence under Article 72; and
(4) miscellaneous actions and proceedings related to search authorizations, pretrial restraint,
pretrial confinement, or other proceedings authorized under the Unifmm Code ofMilitmy Justice
or this Manual that are not listed in subdivision (a).
Rule 1102. Amendments
(a) General Rule. Amendments to the Federal Rules of
Evidence-other than Articles ITT and
V-will amend parallel provisions of
the Military Rules of
Evidence by operation of law 18
months after the effective date of such amendments, unless action to the contrary is taken by the
President.
(b) Rules Determined
Not to Apply. The President has determined that the following Federal
Rules of Evidence do not apply to the Military Rules of Evidence: Rules 301, 302, 415, and
902(12).
Rule 1103. Title
These rules may be cited as the Military Rules of
Evidence.
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Sec.~- Part IV of the Manual for Courts-Martial, United States is amended to read as
follows:
PUNITIVE ARTICLES
(Statutory text of each Article is in bold)
1. Article 77 (1 0 U
.S.C. 877)-Principals
a. Text ~~statute.
Any person punishable under this chapter who--
(1) commits an offense punishable by this chapter, or aids, abets, counsels,
commands, or procures its commission; or
(2) causes an act to be done which if directly performed by him would be
punishable by this chapter;
is a principal.
b. Explanation.
(1) Purpo.,·e. Article 77 does not define an offense. Its purpose is to make clear that a person
need not personally perform the acts necessary to constitute an offense to be guilty of
it. A person
who aids, abets, counsels, commands, or procures the commission of
an offense, or who causes an
act to be done which, if done by that person directly would be an otiense, is equally guilty of
the
offense as one who commits it directly, and may be punished to the same extent.
Article 77 eliminates the common law distinctions between principal in the first degree
("perpetrator"); principal in the second degree (one who aids, counsels, commands, or encourages
the commission of an offense and who is present at the scene of the crime-commonly known as
an "aider and abettor"); and accessory before the fact (one who aids, counsels, commands, or
encourages the commission of
an otTense and who is not present at the scene of
the crime). All of
these are now "principals."
(2) Who may be liable for an offense.
(a) Perpetrator. A perpetrator is one who actually commits the otTense, either by the
perpetrator's own hand, or by causing an offense to be committed by knowingly or intentionally
inducing or setting in motion acts by an animate or inanimate agency or instrumentality which
result in the commission of
an offense. For example, a person who knowingly conceals contraband
dmgs in an automobile, and then induces another person, who is unaware and has no reason to
know of
the presence of
drugs, to drive the automobile onto a military installation, is, although not
present in the automobile, guilty of
wrongful introduction of
drugs onto a military installation. (On
these facts, the driver would be guilty of no crime.) Similarly, if, upon orders of a superior, a
soldier shot a person who appeared to the soldier to be an enemy, but was known to the superior
as a friend, the superior would be guilty of murder (but the soldier would be guilty of
no offense).
(b) Other Parties. If one is not a perpetrator, to be guilty of an offense committed by the
perpetrator, the person must:
(i) Assist, encourage, advise, instigate, counsel, command, or procure another to commit,
or assist, encourage, advise, counsel, or command another in the commission of
the offense; and
(ii) Share in the criminal purpose or design.
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One who, without knowledge of
the criminal venture or plan, unwittingly encourages or renders
assistance to another in the commission of
an offense is not guilty of
a crime. See the parentheticals
in the examples in subparagraph l.b.(2)(a) of
this paragraph. In some circumstances, inaction may
make one liable as a party, where there is a duty to act. If
a person (for example, a security guard)
has a duty to interfere in the commission of
an offense, but does not interfere, that person is a party
to the crime if
such a noninterference is intended to and does operate as an aid or encouragement
to the actual perpetrator.
(3) Presence.
(a) Not necessary. Presence at the scene of
the crime is not necessary to make one a party to
the crime and liable as a principaL For example, one who, knowing that a person intends to shoot
another person and intending that such an assault be carried out, provides the person with a pistol,
is guilty of
assault when the offense is committed, even though not present at the scene.
(b) Not Sl{fficient. Mere presence at the scene of
a crime does not make one a principal unless
the requirements of subparagraph l.b.(2)(a) or (b) have been met
(4) Parties whm;e intent d~ffer:;,from the perpetrator's. When an offense charged requires proof
of a specific intent or particular state of mind as an element, the evidence must prove that the
accused had that intent or state of mind, whether the accused is charged as a perpetrator or an
"other party" to crime. Tt is possible for a party to have a state of
mind more or less culpable than
the perpetrator of the offense. In such a case, the party may be guilty of a more or less serious
offense than that committed by the perpetrator. For example, when a homicide is committed, the
perpetrator may act in the heat of
sudden passion caused by adequate provocation and be guilty of
manslaughter, while the party who, without such passion, hands the perpetrator a weapon and
encourages the perpetrator to kill the victim, would be guilty of murder. On the other hand, if a
party assists a perpetrator in an assault on a person who, known only to the perpetrator, is an
otlicer, the party would be guilty only of assault, while the perpetrator would be guilty of assault
on an officer.
(5) Responsibility for other crimes. A principal may be convicted of crimes committed by
another principal if such crimes are likely to result as a natural and probable consequence of
the
criminal venture or design. For example, the accused who is a party to a burglary is guilty as a
principal not only of the otiense of burglary, but also, if the perpetrator kills an occupant in the
course of the burglary, of murder. (See also paragraph 5, Conspiracy, concerning liability for
otTenses committed by co-conspirators.)
(6) Principals independently liable. One may be a principal, even if the perpetrator is not
identified or prosecuted, or is acquitted.
(7) ·withdrawal. A person may withdraw from a common venture or design and avoid liability
for any offenses committed after the withdrawal. To be effective, the withdrawal must meet the
following requirements:
(a) It must occur before the offense is committed;
(b) The assistance, encouragement, advice, instigation, counsel, command, or procurement
given by the person must be effectively countermanded or negated; and
(c) The withdrawal must be clearly communicated to the would-be perpetrators or to
appropriate law enforcement authorities in time for the perpetrators to abandon the plan or for law
enforcement authorities to prevent the offense.
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2. Article 78 (10 U.S.C. 878)-Accessory after the fact
a. Text ofstatute.
Any person subject to this chapter who, knowing that an offense punishable by this
chapter has been committed, receives, comfm·ts, or assists the offender in order to hinder or
prevent his apprehension, trial, or punishment shall be punished as a court-martial may
direct.
b. Elements.
(1) That an offense punishable by the UCMJ was committed by a certain person;
(2) That the accused knew that this person had committed such offense;
(3) That thereafter the accused received, comforted, or assisted the offender; and
(4) That the accused did so for the purpose of hindering or preventing the apprehension, trial,
or punishment of
the offender.
c. F,xplanation.
(1) In general. The assistance given a principal by an accessory after the fact is not limited to
assistance designed to effect the escape or concealment of the principal, but also includes acts
performed to conceal the commission of
the offense by the principal (for example, by concealing
evidence of
the ofrense).
(2) Failure to report offense. The mere failure to report a known offense will not make one an
accessory after the fact. Such failure may violate a general order or regulation, however, and thus
constitute an offense under Article 92. See paragraph 18. If the offense involved is a serious
offense, and the accused does anything to conceal it, failure to report it may constitute the offense
of
misprision of
a serious offense, under Article 13lc. See paragraph 84.
(3) Offense punishable by the UCMJ. The term "offense punishable by this chapter" in the text
of
the article means any offense described in the UCMJ.
(4) Status o.fprincipal. The principal who committed the offense in question need not be subject
to the UCMJ, but the om~nse
committed must be punishable by the UCMJ.
(5) Conviction or acquittal of
principal. The prosecution must prove that a principal committed
the offense to which the accused is allegedly an accessory after the fact. However, evidence of
the
conviction or acquittal of
the principal in a separate trial is not admissible to show that the principal
did or did not commit the o±lense. Furthermore, an accused may be convicted as an accessory after
the fact despite the acquittal in a separate trial of the principal whom the accused allegedly
comforted, received, or assisted.
(6) Accessory after the fact not a lesser included offense. The offense of being an accessory
after the fact is not a lesser included offense of
the primary offense.
(7) Actual knowledge. Actual knowledge is required but may be proved by circumstantial
evidence.
d. Maximum punishment. Any person subject to the UCMJ who is found guilty as an accessory
after the fact to an offense punishable under the UCMJ shall be subject to the maximum
punishment authorized for the principal offense, except that in no case shall the death penalty nor
more than one-half of
the maximum confinement authorized for that offense be adjudged, nor shall
the period of confinement exceed 10 years in any case, including offenses for which life
imprisonment may be adjudged.
e. Sample spec{fication.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), knowing that (at/on board-location), on
or about __
20 --" had committed an offense punishable by the Uniform Code of J'vfilitary
Justice, to wit:
did, (at/on board-location) (subject-matter jurisdiction data, if
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required), on or about __
20 _, in order to (hinder) (prevent) the (apprehension) (trial)
(punishment) of the said
, (receive) (comfort) (assist) the said
by
3. Article 79 (10 U.S.C. 879)--Conviction of offense charged, lesser included offenses, and
attempts
a Text of
statute.
(a) IN GENERAL.-An accused may be found guilty of any of the following:
(1) The offense charged.
(2) A lesser included offense.
(3) An attempt to commit the offense charged.
(4) An attempt to commit a Jesser included offense, if the attempt is an offense
in its own right.
(b) LESSER INCLUDED OFFENSE DEFINED.-In this section (article), the term ""lesser
included offense" means-
(1) an offense that is necessarily included in the offense charged; and
(2) any lesser included offense so designated by regulation prescribed by the
President.
(c) REGULATORY AUTHORITY.-Any designation of a lesser included offense in a
regulation referred to in subsection (b) shall be reasonably included in the greater offense.
b. Explanation.
(1) In general. Article 79 contains two provisions concerning notice of
lesser included
offenses: (1) offenses that are "necessarily included" in the charged offense in accordance with
Article 79(b
)(1 ); and (2) otienses designated as lesser included offenses by the President under
Article 79(b
)(2). Each provision sets forth an independent basis for providing notice of
a lesser
included ommse.
(2) "Necessarily included' offenses. Under Article 79(b)(l), an offense is "necessarily
included" in a charged offense when the elements of
the lesser offense are a subset of
the
elements of
the charged om~nse, thereby putting the accused on notice to be prepared to defend
against the lesser offense in addition to the offense specifically charged. A lesser offense is
"necessarily included" when:
(a) All of
the elements of
the lesser offense are included in the greater offense, and the
common elements are identical (for example, wrongful appropriation as a lesser included offense
oflarceny);
(b) All of
the elements of
the lesser offense are included in the greater offense, but at least
one element is a subset by being legally less serious (for example, unlawful entry as a lesser
included offense of
burglary); or
(c) All of
the elements of
the lesser offense are "included and necessary" parts of
the
greater offense, but the mental element is a subset by being legally less serious (for example,
voluntary manslaughter as a lesser included offense of
premeditated murder).
(3) Qffenses designated hy the President. Under Article 79(b)(2), Congress has authorized the
President to designate lesser included offenses by regulation.
(a) The President may designate an offense as a lesser included offense under Article
79(b)(2), subject to the requirement in Article 79(c) that the designated lesser included offense
"shall be reasonably included in the greater offense."
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(b) Appendix 12A sets forth the list of
lesser included offenses designated by the President
under Article 79(b
)(2).
(c) The President may include a "necessarily included offense" in the list of offenses
prescribed under Article 79(b
)(2), but is not required to do so. A court may identify an offense as
a "necessarily included" offense under Article 79(b
)(
1) regardless of
whether the offense has been
designated under Article 79(b
)(2).
(4) Sua sponte duty. A military judge must instruct panel members on lesser included offenses
reasonably raised by the evidence.
(5) lvfultiple lesser included Q[fenses. When the offense charged is a compound offense
comprising two or more lesser included offenses, an accused may be found guilty of
any or all of
the offenses included in the offense charged.
(6) Findings <:<f guilty to a lesser included Q[fense. A court-martial may find an accused not
guilty of the offense charged, but guilty of a lesser included offense by the process of exception
and substitution. The court-matiial may except (that is, delete) the words in the specification that
pertain to the offense charged and, if necessary, substitute language appropriate to the lesser
included offense. For example, the accused is charged with murder in violation of Article 118, but
found guilty of
voluntary manslaughter in violation of Article 119. Such a finding may be worded
as follows:
Of the Specification: Guilty, except the word "murder" substituting therefor the words
"willfu11y and unlawfully kill," of
the excepted word, not guilty, of
the substituted words, guilty.
Ofthe Charge: Not guilty, but guilty of a violation of
Article 119.
If a court-martial finds an accused guilty of a lesser included offense, the finding as to the charge
shall state a violation of
the specific punitive article violated and not a violation of Article 79.
4. Article 80 (10 U.S.C. 880)-Attempts
a 1'ext ofstatute.
(a) An act, done with specific intent to commit an offense under this chapter,
amounting to more than mere preparation and tending, even though failing to effect its
commission, is an attempt to commit that offense.
(b) Any person subject to this chapter who attempts to commit any offense punishable
by this chapter shall be punished as a court-martial may direct, unless otherwise specifically
prescribed.
(c) Any person subject to this chapter may be convicted of an attempt to commit an
offense although it appears on the trial that the offense was consummated.
b. Elements.
(1) That the accused did a certain overt act;
(2) That the act was done with the specific intent to commit a certain offense under the UCMJ;
(3) That the act amounted to more than mere preparation; and
(4) That the act apparently tended to effect the commission of
the intended offense.
c. £¥planation.
(1) In general. To constitute an attempt there must be a specific intent to commit the offense
accompanied by an oveti act which directly tends to accomplish the unlawful purpose.
(2)Afore than preparation. Preparation consists of
devising or arranging the means or measures
necessary for the commission of
the offense. The overt act required goes beyond preparatory steps
and is a direct movement toward the commission of the offense. For example, a purchase of
matches with the intent to bum a haystack is not an attempt to commit arson, but it is an attempt
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to commit arson to apply a burning match to a haystack, even if
no fire results. The overt act need
not be the last act essential to the consummation of the offense. For example, an accused could
commit an overt act, and then voluntarily decide not to go through with the intended offense. An
attempt would nevertheless have been committed, for the combination of a specific intent to
commit an offense, plus the commission of an overt act directly tending to accomplish it,
constitutes the offense of attempt. Failure to complete the offense, whatever the cause, is not a
defense.
(3) Factual impossibility. A person who purposely engages in conduct which would constitute
the offense if the attendant circumstances were as that person believed them to be is guilty of an
attempt. For example, if A, without justification or excuse and with intent to kill B, points a gun
at B and pulls the trigger, A is guilty of
attempt to murder, even though, unknown to A, the gun is
defective and will not fire. Similarly, a person who reaches into the pocket of another with the
intent to steal that person's billfold is guilty of an attempt to commit larceny, even though the
pocket is empty.
(4) Voluntary abandonment. It is a defense to an attempt offense that the person voluntarily and
completely abandoned the intended crime, solely because of the person's own sense that it was
wrong, prior to the completion of
the crime. The voluntary abandonment defense is not allowed if
the abandonment results, in whole or in part, from other reasons, for example, the person feared
detection or apprehension, decided to await a better opportunity for success, was unable to
complete the crime, or encountered unanticipated difficulties or unexpected resistance. A person
who is entitled to the defense of voluntary abandonment may nonetheless be guilty of a lesser
included, completed offense. For example, a person who voluntarily abandoned an attempted
armed robbery may nonetheless be guilty of assault with a dangerous weapon.
(5) Solicitation. Soliciting another to commit an offense does not constitute an attempt. See
paragraph 6 for a discussion of
Article 82, Solicitation.
(6) Attempts not under Article 80. While most attempts should be charged under Article 80, the
following attempts are specifically addressed by some other article, and should be charged
accordingly:
(a) Article 85-Desertion
(b) Article 94-Mutiny or sedition
(c) Article 1
GO-Subordinate compelling surrender
(d) Article 103a-Espionage
(e) At1icle 103b-Aiding the enemy
(f) Article 119a-Death or injury of
an unborn child
(g) Article 128-Assault
(7) Regulations. An attempt to commit conduct which would violate a lawful general order or
regulation under Article 92 (see paragraph 18) should be charged under Article 80. It is not
necessary in such cases to prove that the accused intended to violate the order or regulation, but it
must be proved that the accused intended to commit the prohibited conduct.
d. Mmdmum punishment. Any person subject to the UCMJ who is found guilty of
an attempt under
Article 80 to commit any offense punishable by the UCMJ shall be subject to the same maximum
punishment authorized for the commission of the offense attempted, except that in no case shall
the death penalty be adjudged, and in no case, other than attempted murder, shall confinement
exceeding 20 years be adjudged. Except in the cases of attempts of
rape and sexual assault under
Article 120(a) or (b), and rape and sexual assault of
a child under Article 120b(a) or (b), mandatory
minimum punishment provisions shall not apply.
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e. Sample specification.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data) did, (at/on board-location) (subject-matter
jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about __
20 _, attempt to (describe offense with sufficient
detail to include expressly or by necessary implication every element).
5. Article 81 (10 U.S.C. 881)--Conspiracy
a. Text of
statute.
(a) Any person subject to this chapter who conspires with any other person to commit
an offense under this chapter shall, if one or more of the conspirators does an act to effect
the object of the conspiracy, be punished as a court-martial may direct.
(b) Any person subject to this chapter who conspires with any other person to commit
an offense under the law of war, and who knowingly does an overt act to effect the object of
the conspiracy, shall be punished, if death results to one or more of the victims, by death or
such other punishment as a court-martial or military commission may dit·ect, and, if death
does not result to any of
the victims, by such punishment, other than death, as a court-martial
or military commission may direct.
b. F.lement.<.·.
(1) Conspiracy.
(a) That the accused entered into an agreement with one or more persons to commit an
offense under the UCMJ; and
(b) That, while the agreement continued to exist, and while the accused remained a party to
the agreement, the accused or at least one of the co-conspirators performed an overt act for the
purpose ofbtinging about the object of the conspiracy.
(2) Compiracy when (rffense is an (?tfense under the lmv of
war resulting in the death (lone or
more victims.
(a) That the accused entered into an agreement with one or more persons to commit an
otiense under the law of
war;
(b) That, while the agreement continued to exist, and while the accused remained a party to
the agreement, the accused knowingly perfonned an overt act for the purpose of bringing about
the object of
the conspiracy; and
(c) That death resulted to one or more victims.
c. i'.,xplanation.
(1) Co-conspirators. Two or more persons are required in order to have a conspiracy.
Knowledge of the identity of co-conspirators and their particular connection with the criminal
purpose need not be established. The accused must be subject to the UCMJ, but the other co-
conspirators need not be. A person may be guilty of conspiracy although incapable of committing
the intended offense. For example, a bedridden conspirator may knowingly furnish the car to be
used in a robbery. The joining of another conspirator after the conspiracy has been established
does not create a new conspiracy or affect the status of the other conspirators. However, the
conspirator who joined an existing conspiracy can be convicted of this offense only if, at or after
the time of joining the conspiracy, an overt act in furtherance of the object of the agreement is
committed.
(2) Agreement. The agreement in a conspiracy need not be in any particular form or manifested
in any formal words. It is sufficient if
the minds of the parties arrive at a common understanding
to accomplish the object of the conspiracy, and this may be shown by the conduct of the parties.
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The agreement need not state the means by which the conspiracy is to be accomplished or what
part each conspirator is to play.
(3) Object of
the agreement. The object of the agreement must, at least in part, involve the
commission of one or more offenses under the UCMJ. An agreement to commit several offenses
is ordinarily but a single conspiracy. Some offenses require two or more culpable actors acting in
concert. There can be no conspiracy where the agreement exists only between the persons
necessary to commit such an offense. Examples include dueling, bigamy, extramarital sexual
conduct, and bribery.
(4) Overt act.
(a) The overt act must be independent of the agreement to commit the offense; must take
place at the time of or after the agreement; must be done by one or more of the conspirators, but
not necessarily the accused; and must be done to effectuate the object of
the agreement.
(b) The overt act need not be in itself criminal, but it must be a manifestation that the
agreement is being executed. Although committing the intended offense may constitute the overt
act, it is not essential that the object offense be committed. Any overt act is enough, no matter how
preliminary or preparatory in nature, as long as it is a manifestation that the agreement is being
executed.
(c) An overt act by one conspirator becomes the act of all without any new agreement
specifically directed to that act and each conspirator is equally guilty even though each does not
participate in, or have knowledge of, all of
the details of
the execution of
the conspiracy.
(5) Liability for (iffenses. Each conspirator is liable for all offenses committed pursuant to the
conspiracy by any of
the co-conspirators while the conspiracy continues and the person remains a
party to it.
(6) Withdrawal. A party to the conspiracy who abandons or withdraws from the agreement to
commit the ommse before the commission of an overt act by any conspirator is not E.,TUilty of
conspiracy. An etTective withdrawal or abandonment must consist of affirmative conduct which is
wholly inconsistent with adherence to the unlawful agreement and which shows that the party has
severed all connection with the conspiracy. A conspirator who etTectively abandons or withdraws
from the conspiracy after the performance of
an overt act by one of
the conspirators remains guilty
of conspiracy and of any otTenses committed pursuant to the conspiracy up to the time of the
abandonment or withdrawal. However, a person who has abandoned or withdrawn from the
conspiracy is not liable for otTenses committed thereafter by the remaining conspirators. The
withdrawal of a conspirator from the conspiracy does not affect the status of the remaining
members.
(7) Factual impossibility. It is not a defense that the means adopted by the conspirators to
achieve their object, if
apparently adapted to that end, were actually not capable of
success, or that
the conspirators were not physically able to accomplish their intended object.
(8) Conspiracy as a separate offense. A conspiracy to commit an offense is a separate and
distinct offense from the offense which is the object of the conspiracy, and both the conspiracy
and the consummated offense which was its object may be charged, tried, and punished. The
commission of the intended offense may also constitute the overt act which is an element of the
conspiracy to commit that offense.
(9) Special conspiracies under Article 134. The United States Code prohibits conspiracies to
commit certain specific offenses which do not require an overt act. These conspiracies should be
charged under Article 134. Examples include conspiracies to impede or injure any federal officer
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in the discharge of duties under 18 U.S.C. § 372, conspiracies against civil rights under 18 U.S.
C.
§ 241, and certain dmg conspiracies under 21 U.S.C. § 846. See subparagraph 9l.c.(4)(a)(l)(iii).
d. Maximum punishment.
(1) OJ!imses under the UCA,fJ Any person subject to the UCMJ who is found guilty of
conspiracy shall be subject to the maximum punishment authorized for the offense that is the object
of the conspiracy, except that in no case shall the death penalty be imposed, subject to
subparagraph d.(2) of
this paragraph.
(2) Offenses under the law of
1var resulting in the death of
one or more victitns. Any person
subject to the UCMJ who conspires with any other person to commit an offense under the law of
war, and who knowingly does an overt act to effect the object of
the conspiracy, shall be punished,
if
death results to one or more of
the victims, by death or such other punishment as a court-martial
or military commission may direct, and, if death does not result to any of the victims, by such
punishment, other than death, as a court-martial or military commission may direct
e. Sample spec?ftcation
(1) ConspiraLy.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about __
20_, conspire with __
_
(and
) to commit an offense under the Unifonn Code of
Military Justice, to wit: (larceny
of
, of a value of
(about) $
__
, the property of
and in order to effect the object
of
the conspiracy the said
(and
did
(2) ConspiraLy when an £ifjense is an C({fense under the law (if
war resulting in the death of
one or more victims.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20_, conspire with
(and
__
_/
to commit an offense under the law of war, to wit: (murder of
and in order to efiect
the object of the conspiracy the said
knowingly did
resulting in the death of
6. Article 82 (10 U.S.C. 882)-Soliciting commission of offenses
a 1
ext of
statute.
(a) SOLICITING COMMISSION OF OFFENSES GENERALLY.-Any person subject to this
chapter who solicits or advises another to commit an offense under this chapter (other than
an offense specified in subsection (b)) shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
(b) SOLICITING DESERTION, MUTINY, SEDITION, OR MISBEHAVIOR BEFORE THE
ENEIVIY.-Any person subject to this chapter who solicits or advises another to violate section
885 of this title (article 85), section 894 of this title (article 94), or section 899 of this title
(article 99)-
(1) if the offense solicited or advised is attempted or is committed, shall be
punished with the punishment provided for the commission of the offense; and
(2) if the offense solicited or advised is not attempted or committed, shall be
punished as a cou•·t-martial may direct.
b. Elements.
(1) That the accused solicited or advised a certain person or persons to commit a certain
offense under the UCMJ; and
(2) That the accused did so with the intent that the offense actually be committed.
[Note: If
the offense solicited or advised was attempted or committed, add the following element]
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(3) That the offense solicited or advised was (committed) (attempted) as the proximate result
of
the soli citation.
c. Explanation.
(1) Instantaneous offense. The offense is complete when a solicitation is made or advice is
given with the specific wrongful intent to int1uence another or others to commit any offense
under the UCMJ. It is not necessary that the person or persons solicited or advised agree to or act
upon the solicitation or advice.
(2) Form ofsolicitation. Solicitation may be by means other than word of
mouth or writing.
Any act or conduct which reasonably may be construed as a serious request or advice to commit
any offense under the UCMJ may constitute solicitation. It is not necessary that the accused act
alone in the solicitation or in the advising; the accused may act through other persons in
committing this offense.
(3) Solicitations a.s· an element in another C?[fense. Some offenses require, as an element of
proof, some act of solicitation by the accused. These offenses are separate and distinct from
solicitations under Article 82. When the accused's act of solicitation constitutes, by itself, a
separate offense, the accused should be charged with that separate, distinct offense-for example,
pandering and obstructingjustice.
d. Maximum punishment.
(1) Solicitation of
e.~pionage. Such punishment that a court-martial may direct, other than death.
(2) Solicitation (?f desertion; mutiny or sedition; misbehavior before the enemy. If the offense
solicited or advised is committed or attempted, then the accused shall be punished with the
punishment provided for the commission of
the offense solicited or advised. If
the offense solicited
or advised is not committed or attempted, then the following punishment may be imposed:
dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and confinement for 15 years, or the
maximum punishment of
the underlying ofTense, whichever is lesser.
(3) 5'olicitation of
all other (if.fen;,·es. Any person subject to the UCMJ who is found guilty of
soliciting or advising another person to commit an offense not specified in Article 82(b) that, if
committed by one subject to the UCMJ, would be punishable under the UCMJ, shall be subject to
the following maximum punishment: dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances,
and confinement for 10 years, or the maximum punishment of
the underlying offense, whichever
is lesser.
e. Sample specifications.
(1) For soliciting another to commit an offense.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about __
20 _, wrongfully (solicit)
(advise)
(to disobey a general regulation, to wit:
(to steal ___
_
of a value of (about) $
, the property of
(to
by
_____
_
(2) For soliciting desertion (Article 85) or mutiny (Article 94(a)).
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location), on or
about __
20 ___)(a time of
war) by (here state the manner and form of solicitation or advice),
(solicit) (advise)
(and
to (desert in violation of Article 85) (mutiny in
violation of Article 94(a)) [*and, as a result of such (solicitation) (advice), the offense (solicited)
(advised) was, on or about
, 20 _, (at/on board-location), (attempted) (committed)
by
(and ____
JJ
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[*Note: This language should be added to the end of the specification if the offense solicited or
advised is actually committed.]
(3) For soliciting sedition (Article 94(a)) or misbehavior before or in the presence of
the enemy
(Article 99).
In that
(personal jurisdiction data) did, (at/on board-location), on or
about __
20 _,(a time of
war) by (here state the manner and form of solicitation or advice),
(solicit) (advise)
(and
to commit (an act of misbehavior before the
enemy in violation of
Article 99) (sedition in violation of Article 94(a)) [*and, as a result of such
(solicitation) (advice), the offense (solicited) (advised) was, on or about
20 _, (at/on
board-location), committed by
(and
].
[*Note: This language should be added to the end of the specification if the offense solicited or
advised is actually committed.]
7. Article 83 (10 U.S.C. 883)-Malingering
a. Text (?{statute.
Any person subject to this chapter who, with the intent to avoid work, duty, or
service--
(1) feigns illness, physical disablement, mental lapse, or mental derangement;
or
(2) intentionally inflicts self-injury;
shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
b. Elements.
(1) That the accused was assigned to, or was aware of
prospective assignment to, or availability
for, the performance of
work, duty, or service;
(2) That the accused feigned illness, physical disablement, mental lapse, mental derangement,
or intentionally inflicted injury upon himself or herself; and
(3) That the accused's purpose or intent in doing so was to avoid the work, duty, or service.
[Note: If
the offense was committed in time of
war or in a hostile fire pay zone, add the following
element]
(4) That the offense was committed (in time of
war) (in a hostile fire pay zone).
c. Explanation.
(1) Nature of
ojji:mse. The essence of this offense is the design to avoid perfonnance of any
work, duty, or service which may properly or normally be expected of
one in the military service.
Whether to avoid all duty, or only a particular job, it is the purpose to shirk which characterizes
the offense. Hence, the nature or permanency of a self-inflicted injury is not material on the
question of guilt. The seriousness of a sham physical or mental disability is also not material on
the question of guilt. Evidence of
the extent of the self-inflicted injury or feigned disability may,
however, be relevant as a factor indicating the presence or absence of
the purpose.
(2) How ir?}wy inflicted. The injury may be inflicted by nonviolent as well as by violent means
and may be accomplished by any act or omission which produces, prolongs, or aggravates any
sickness or disability. Thus, voluntary starvation which results in debility is a self-inflicted injmy
and when done for the purpose of avoiding work, duty, or service constitutes a violation of this
article.
d. Maximum punishment.
(1) Feip;ning illness, physical
disablement, mental lapse, or mental derangement. Dishonorable
discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and confinement for 1 year.
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(2) Feigning illness, physical disablement, mental/apse, or mental derangement in a hostile
fire pay zone or in time of
war. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 3 years.
(3) Intentional se[f:.injlicted injmy. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and
allowances, and confinement for 5 years.
(4) Intentional self-inflicted injwy in a hostile fire pc(v zone or in time ofwar. Dishonorable
discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and confinement for 10 years.
e. Sample specification.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (in a hostile
fire pay zone) (subject-matter jurisdiction data, if
required) (on or about __
20 _)(from about
__
20 _to about __
20 _),(a time of war) for the purpose of avoiding ((his) (her) duty
as officer of
the day) ((his) (her) duty as aircraft mechanic) (work in the mess hall) (service as an
enlisted person)
(feign (a headache) (a sore back) (illness) (mental lapse) (mental
derangement) L))
(intentionally injure himself/herself by _____
,
8. Article 84 (10 LJ.S.C. 884)-Breach of medical quarantine
a. Text (?{statute.
Any person subject to this chapter-
(
I) who is ordered into medical quarantine by a person authot·ized to issue
such order; and
(2) who, with knowledge of the quarantine and the limits of the quarantine,
goes beyond those limits before being released from the quarantine by proper authority;
shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
b. Elements.
(1) That a certain person ordered the accused into medical quarantine;
(2) That the person was authorized to order the accused into medical quarantine;
(3) That the accused knew of
this medical quarantine and the limits thereot; and
(
4) That the accused went beyond the limits of the medical quarantine before being released
therefrom by proper authority.
[Note: If
the offense involved violation of
a medical quarantine imposed in response to emergence
of a "quarantinable communicable disease" as defined in 42 C.F.R. § 70.1, add the following
element]
(5) That the medical quarantine was imposed in reference to a quarantinable communicable
disease (to wit:
as defined in 42 C.F.R. § 70.1.
c. Explanation.
(1) DistinguJshing "quarantine" .from "quarters" orders. Putting a person "on quarters" or
other otherwise excusing a person from duty because of illness does not of itself constitute a
medical quarantine.
d. A1aximum punishment.
(
1) Breach of
medical quarantine involving a quarantinable communicable disease defined by
42 C.F.R. § 70.1. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and confinement
for 1 year.
(2) Breach ~fmedical
quarantine-all other cases. Bad-conduct discharge, forfeiture of two-
thirds pay per month for 6 months, and confinement for 6 months.
e. Sample spec{fication.
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In that
(personal jurisdiction data) having been placed in medical quarantine
by a person authorized to order the accused into medical quarantine (for a quarantinable
communicable disease as defined in 42 C.F.R. § 70.1, to wit:
having knowledge of
the quarantine and the limits of the quarantine, did, (at/on board-location) (subject-matter
jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about __
20 _, break said medical quarantine.
9. Article 85 (1 0 U.S.C. 885)--Desertion
a. Text of
statute.
(a) Any member of
the armed forces who--
(1) without authority goes or remains absent from his unit, organization, m·
place of duty with intent to remain away therefrom permanently;
(2) quits his unit, organization, or place of duty with intent to avoid hazardous
duty or to shirk important service; or
(3) without being regularly separated from one of the armed forces enlists or
accepts an appointment in the same or another one of the armed forces without fully
disclosing the fact that he has not been regularly separated, or enters any fot·eign armed
service except when authorized by the United States;
is guilty of desertion.
(b) Any commissioned officer of
the armed forces who, after tender of his resignation
and before notice of its acceptance, quits his post or proper duties without leave and with
intent to remain away therefrom permanently is guilty of desertion.
(c) Any person found guilty of desertion or attempt to desert shall be punished, if the
offense is committed in time of war, by death or such other punishment as a court-martial
may direct, but if the desertion or attempt to desert occurs at any other time, by such
punishment, other than death, as a court-martial may direct.
b. i'-'lements.
(1) Desertion with intent to remain awc:ry permanently.
(a) That the accused absented himself or herself from his or her unit, organization, or place
of duty;
(b) That such absence was without authority;
(c) That the accused, at the time the absence began or at some time during the absence,
intended to remain away from his or her unit, organization, or place of
duty pennanently; and
(d) That the accused remained absent until the date alleged.
[Note: If
the absence was tenninated by apprehension, add the following element]
(e) That the accused's absence was terminated by apprehension.
(2) Desertion with intent to avoid hazardous duty or to shirk important service.
(a) That the accused quit his or her unit, organization, or other place of
duty;
(b) That the accused did so with the intent to avoid a certain duty or shirk a certain service;
(c) That the duty to be performed was hazardous or the service important;
(d) That the accused knew that he or she would be required for such duty or service; and
(e) That the accused remained absent until the date alleged.
(3) Desertion before notice of
acceptance of
resignation.
(a) That the accused was a commissioned officer of
an armed force of
the United States, and
had tendered his or her resignation;
(b) That before he or she received notice of the acceptance of the resignation, the accused
quit his or her post or proper duties;
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(c) That the accused did so with the intent to remain away permanently from his or her post
or proper duties; and
(d) That the accused remained absent until the date alleged.
[Note: If
the absence •vas terminated by apprehension, add the following element]
(e) That the accused's absence was terminated by apprehension.
(4) Attempted desertion.
(a) That the accused did a certain overt act;
(b) That the act was done with the specific intent to desert;
(c) That the act amounted to more than mere preparation; and
(d) That the act apparently tended to effect the commission of
the offense of
desertion.
c. Explanation.
(1) Desertion 1vith intent to remain aWC{V permanently.
(a) Jn general. Desertion with intent to remain away permanently is complete when the
person absents himself or herself without authority from his or her unit, organization, or place of
duty, with the intent to remain away therefrom permanently. A prompt repentance and return,
while material in extenuation, is no defense. It is not necessary that the person be absent entirely
from military jurisdiction and control.
(b)Ahsence without authority-inception, duration, termination. See subparagraph 10.c.
(c) Intent to remain away permanently.
(i) The intent to remain away permanently from the unit, organization, or place of duty
may be formed any time during the unauthorized absence. The intent need not exist throughout the
absence, or for any particular period of
time, as long as it exists at some time during the absence.
(ii) The accused must have intended to remain away pennanently from the unit,
organization, or place of duty. When the accused had such an intent, it is no defense that the
accused also intended to report for duty elsewhere, or to enlist or accept an appointment in the
same or a different armed force.
(iii) The intent to remain away pennanently may be proved by circumstantial evidence.
Among the circumstances from which an inference may be drawn that an accused intended to
remain absent pennanently are: that the period of
absence was lengthy; that the accused attempted
to, or did, dispose of
uniforms or other military property; that the accused purchased a ticket for a
distant point or was arrested, apprehended, or surrendered a considerable distance from the
accused's station; that the accused could have conveniently surrendered to military control but did
not; that the accused was dissatisfied with the accused's unit, ship, or with military service; that
the accused made remarks indicating an intention to desert; that the accused was under charges or
had escaped from confinement at the time of the absence; that the accused made preparations
indicative of an intent not to return (for example, financial arrangements); or that the accused
enlisted or accepted an appointment in the same or another armed force without disclosing the fact
that the accused had not been regularly separated, or entered any foreign armed service without
being authorized by the United States. On the other hand, the following are included in the
circumstances which may tend to negate an inference that the accused intended to remain away
permanently: previous long and excellent service; that the accused left valuable personal property
in the unit or on the ship; or that the accused was under the influence of alcohol or drugs during
the absence. These lists are illustrative only.
(iv) Entries on documents, such as personnel accountability records, which
administratively refer to an accused as a "deserter" are not evidence of intent to desert.
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(v) Proof of, or a plea of
guilty to, an unauthorized absence, even of extended duration,
does not, without more, prove guilt of
desertion.
(d) Effect of
enlistment or appointment in the same or a different armed force. Article
85(a)(3) does not state a separate offense. Rather, it is a rule of
evidence by which the prosecution
may prove intent to remain away permanently. Proof of an enlistment or acceptance of an
appointment in a Service without disclosing a preexisting duty status in the same or a different
service provides the basis from which an inference of
intent to permanently remain away from the
earlier unit, organization, or place of
duty may be drawn. Fmihermore, if a person, without being
regularly separated from one of
the armed forces, enlists or accepts an appointment in the same or
another armed force, the person's presence in the military service under such an enlistment or
appointment is not a return to military control and does not terminate any desertion or absence
without authority from the earlier unit or organization, unless the facts of the earlier period of
service are known to military authorities. If a person, while in desertion, enlists or accepts an
appointment in the same or another armed force, and deserts while serving the enlistment or
appointment, the person may be tried and convicted for each desertion.
(2) Quitting unit, organization, or place qf
duty ~vith intent to avoid hazardous duty or to shirk
important service.
(a) Hazardous duty or important service. "Hazardous duty" or "important service" may
include service such as duty in a combat or other dangerous area; embarkation for certain foreign
or sea duty; movement to a port of
embarkation for that purpose; entrainment for duty on the border
or coast in time of war or threatened invasion or other disturbances; strike or riot duty; or
employment in aid of
the civil power in, for example, protecting property, or quelling or preventing
disorder in times of great public disaster. Such services as drill, target practice, maneuvers, and
practice marches are not ordinarily "hazardous duty or important service." Whether a duty is
hazardous or a service is important depends upon the circumstances of
the particular case, and is
a question of
fact for the court-martial to decide.
(b) Quits. "Quits" in Article 85 means "goes absent without authority."
(c) Actual knuwledge. Article 85(a)(2) requires proofthatthe accused actually knew ofthe
hazardous duty or important service. Actual knowledge may be proved by circumstantial evidence.
(3) Attempting to desert. Once the attempt is made, the fact that the person desists, voluntarily
or otherwise, does not cancel the offense. The offense is complete, for example, if the person,
intending to desert, hides in an empty freight car on a military reservation, intending to escape by
being taken away in the car. Entering the car with the intent to desert is the overt act. For a more
detailed discussion of attempts, see paragraph 4. For an explanation concerning intent to remain
away permanently, see paragraph 9.c.(l)(c).
(4) Prisoner with executed
punitive discharge. A prisoner whose dismissal or dishonorable or
bad-conduct discharge has been executed is not a "member of the armed forces" within the
meaning of Articles 85 or 86, although the prisoner may still be subject to military law under
Atiicle 2(a)(7). If
the facts warrant, such a prisoner could be charged with escape from confinement
under Article 87a or an offense under Article 134.
d. Maximum punishment.
(1) Completed or attempted
desertion with intent to avoid
hazardous duty or to shirk important
service. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and confinement for 5 years.
(2) Other cases of
completed or attempted desertion.
(a) Terminated by apprehension. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and
allowances, and confinement for 3 years.
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(b) Terminated othenvise. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 2 years.
(3) In time of
war. Death or such other punishment as a court-martial may direct.
e. Sample specifications.
(1) Desertion lVith intent to remain away permanently.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, on or about __
20 _,(a time of
war) without authority and with intent to remain away therefrom perrnanently, absent
himself/herself from (his) (her) (unit) (organization) (place of duty), to wit:
, located
at
and did remain so absent in desertion until ((he) (she) was apprehended) on or
about
20
(2) Desertion with intent to avoid hazardous duty or shirk important setTice.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), knowing that (he) (she) would be required
to perform (hazardous duty) (important service), namely:
did, on or about
20
_,(a time of
war) vvith intent to (avoid said hazardous duty) (shirk said important service), quit
(his) (her) (unit) (organization) (place of
duty), to wit:
, located at
and
did remain so absent in desertion until on or about
20
(3) Desertion prior to acceptance of
resignation.
Tn that
(personal jurisdiction data) having tendered (his) (her) resignation and
prior to due notice of the acceptance of the same, did, on or about
20 _,(a time of
war)
without leave and with intent to remain away therefrom permanently, quit (his) (her) (post) (proper
duties), to wit:
and did remain so absent in desertion until ((he) (she) was
apprehended) on or about
20
(
4) Attempted
desertion.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location), on or about
__ 20 _, (a time of war) attempt to (absent himself/herself from (his) (her) (unit)
(organization) (place of duty) to wit:
, without authority and with intent to remain
away therefrom permanently) (quit (his) (her) (unit) (organization) (place of duty), to wit:
_____
, located at
, with intent to (avoid hazardous duty) (shirk important
service) namely_) (
).
10. Article 86 (10 U.S.C. 886}-Absence without leave
a. 1
ext of
statute.
Any member of the armed forces who, without authority-
(1) fails to go to his appointed place of duty at the time prescribed;
(2) goes from that place; or
(3) absents himself or remains absent from his unit, organization, or place of
duty at which he is required to be at the time prescribed;
shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
b. Elements.
(
1) Failure to go to appointed
place of
duty.
(a) That a certain authority appointed a certain time and place of
duty for the accused;
(b) That the accused knew of
that time and place; and
(c) That the accused, without authority, failed to go to the appointed place of
duty at the time
prescribed.
(2) Goingfrom appointed
place of
duty.
(a) That a certain authority appointed a certain time and place of
duty for the accused;
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(b) That the accused knew of
that time and place; and
(c) That the accused, without authority, went from the appointed place of duty after having
reported at such place.
(3)Absencefrom unit, organization, or place ofduty.
(a) That the accused absented himself or herself from his or her unit, organization, or place
of
duty at which he or she was required to be;
(b) That the absence was without authority from anyone competent to give him or her leave;
and
(c) That the absence was for a certain period of time.
[Note: if
the absence was terminated by apprehension, add the following element]
(d) That the absence was terminated by apprehension.
(
4) Abandoning watch or guard.
(a) That the accused was a member of
a guard, watch, or duty;
(b) That the accused absented himself or herself from his or her guard, watch, or duty
section;
(c) That absence ofthe accused was without authority; and
[Note: If the absence was with intent to abandon the accused's guard, watch, or duty section, add
the following element]
(d) That the accused intended to abandon his or her guard, watch, or duty section.
(5) Absence from unil, organization, or place of
duty wilh intent to avoid maneuvers· or field
exercises.
(a) That the accused absented himself or herself from his or her unit, organization, or place
of
duty at which he or she was required to be;
(b) That the absence of
the accused was without authority;
(c) That the absence was for a certain period oftime;
(d) That the accused knew that the absence would occur during a patt of a period of
maneuvers or field exercises; and
(e) That the accused intended to avoid all or part of
a period of
maneuvers or field exercises.
c. Axplanation.
(1) in general. This article is designed to cover every case not elsewhere provided for in which
any member of the armed forces is through the member's own fault not at the place where the
member is required to be at a prescribed time. It is not necessary that the person be absent entirely
from military jurisdiction and control. The first part of
this article-relating to the appointed place
of duty-applies whether the place is appointed as a rendezvous for several or for one only.
(2) Actual knowledge. The offenses of failure to go to and going from appointed place of duty
require proof that the accused actually knew of
the appointed time and place of duty. The offense
of absence from unit, organization, or place of duty with intent to avoid maneuvers or field
exercises requires proof that the accused actually knew that the absence would occur during a part
of a period of maneuvers or field exercises. Actual knowledge may be proved by circumstantial
evidence.
(3) Intent. Specific intent is not an element of unauthorized absence. Specific intent is an
element for certain aggravated unautholized absences.
(4) Aggravatedforms C!f unauthorized absence. There are valiations of unauthorized absence
under Article 86(3) which are more selious because of
aggravating circumstances such as duration
of the absence, a special type of duty from which the accused absents himself or herself, and a
particular specific intent which accompanies the absence. These circumstances are not essential
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elements of a violation of Article 86. They simply constitute special matters in aggravation. The
following are aggravated unauthorized absences:
(a) Unauthorized absence for more than 3 days (duration).
(b) Unauthorized absence for more than 30 days (duration).
(c) Unauthorized absence from a guard, watch, or duty (special type of duty).
(d) Unauthorized absence from guard, watch, or duty section with the intent to abandon it
(special type of
duty and specific intent).
(e) Unauthorized absence with the intent to avoid maneuvers or field exercises (special type
of
duty and specific intent).
(5) Control by civilian authorities. A member of the armed forces turned over to the civilian
authorities upon request under Article 14 (see R.C.M. 106) is not absent without leave while held
by them under that delivery. When a member of the armed forces, being absent with leave, or
absent without leave, is held, tried, and acquitted by civilian authorities, the member's status as
absent with leave, or absent without leave, is not thereby changed, regardless how long held. The
fact that a member of
the armed forces is convicted by the civilian authorities, or adjudicated to be
a juvenile offender, or the case is "diverted" out of
the regular criminal process for a probationary
period does not excuse any unauthorized absence, because the member's inability to return was
the result of willful misconduct. If a member is released by the civilian authorities without trial,
and was on authorized leave at the time of arrest or detention, the member may be found guilty of
unauthorized absence only if
it is proved that the member actua11y committed the offense for which
detained, thus establishing that the absence was the result of
the member's own misconduct.
(6) Inability to return. The status of absence without leave is not changed by an inability to
return through siclmess, lack of transportation facilities, or other disabilities. But the fact that all
or part of a period of unauthorized absence was in a sense enforced or involuntary is a factor in
extenuation and should be given due weight when considering the initial disposition of
the o±Iense.
When, however, a person on authorized leave, without fault, is unable to return at the expiration
thereof: that person has not committed the otiense of absence without leave.
(7) Determining the unit or organization of
an accused. A person undergoing transfer between
activities is ordinarily considered to be attached to the activity to which ordered to report. A person
on tempormy additional duty continues as a member of
the regularly assigned unit and if
the person
is absent from the temporary duty assignment, the person becomes absent without leave from both
units, and may be charged with being absent without leave from either unit.
(8) Duration. Unauthorized absence under Article 86(3) is an instantaneous offense. It is
complete at the instant an accused absents himself or herself without authority. Duration of the
absence is a matter in aggravation for the purpose of increasing the maximum punishment
authorized for the offense. Even if
the duration of the absence is not over 3 days, it is ordinarily
alleged in an Article 86(3) specification. If
the duration is not alleged or if
alleged but not proved,
an accused can be convicted of
and punished for only 1 day of
unauthorized absence.
(9) Computation of
duration. In computing the duration of an unauthorized absence, any one
continuous period of absence found that totals not more than 24 hours is counted as 1 day; any
such period that totals more than 24 hours and not more than 48 hours is counted as 2 days, and so
on. The hours of
depat1ure and return on different dates are assumed to be the same if
not alleged
and proved. For example, if
an accused is found guilty of
unauthorized absence from 0600 hours,
4 April, to 1000 hours, 7 April of
the same year (76 hours), the maximum punishment would be
based on an absence of 4 days. However, if the accused is found guilty simply of unauthorized
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absence from 4 April to 7 April, the maximum punishment would be based on an absence of 3
days.
(
1
0) Termination-methods of
return to militmy control.
(a) Surrender to militaty authority. A surrender occurs when a person presents himself or
herself to any military authority, whether or not a member of the same anned force, notifies that
authority of his or her unauthorized absence status, and submits or demonstrates a willingness to
submit to military control. Such a surrender terminates the unauthorized absence.
(b) Apprehension by military authority. Apprehension by military authority of a known
absentee terminates an unauthorized absence.
(c) Delive1y to military authority. Delivery of a known absentee by anyone to military
authority terminates the unauthorized absence.
(d) Apprehension by civilian authorities at the request C?f the military. When an absentee is
taken into custody by civilian authorities at the request of military authorities, the absence is
terminated.
(e) Apprehension hy civilian authoritie.<; without prior military request. When an absentee is
in the hands of civilian authorities for other reasons and these authorities make the absentee
available for return to military control, the absence is terminated when the military authorities are
informed of
the absentee's availability.
(ll)Findings l~fmore than one absence under one spec~ficathm. An accused may properly be
found guilty of
two or more separate unauthorized absences under one specification, provided that
each absence is included within the period alleged in the specification and provided that the
accused was not misled. lf
an accused is found guilty of
two or more unauthorized absences under
a single specification, the maximum authorized punishment shall not exceed that authorized if
the
accused had been found guilty as charged in the specification.
d. Maximum punishment.
(1) Failing to go to, or going
from, the appointed
place (l
duty. Confinement for 1 month and
forfeiture of
two-thirds pay per month for 1 month.
(2) Absence from unit, organization, or other place of
duty.
(a) r'or not more than 3 days. Confinement for 1 month and forfeiture of
two-thirds pay per
month for 1 month.
(b) For more than 3 days but not more than 30 days. Confinement for 6 months and
forfeiture of
two-thirds pay per month for 6 months.
(c) For more than 30 days. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances,
and confinement for 1 year.
(d) For more than 30 days and tenninated by apprehension. Dishonorable discharge,
forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and confinement for 18 months.
(3) From guard or watch. Confinement for 3 months and forfeiture of
two-thirds pay per month
for 3 months.
(4) From guard or watch with intent to abandon. Bad-conduct discharge, forfeiture of all pay
and allowances, and confinement for 6 months.
(5) With intent to avoid maneuvers or field exercises. Bad-conduct discharge, forfeiture of all
pay and allowances, and confinement for 6 months.
e. Sample spec~fications.
(1) Failing to go or leaving place of
duty.
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In that __
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location), on or about
__
20 _,without authority, (fail to go at the time prescribed to) (go from) (his) (her) appointed
place of
duty, to wit: (here set forth the appointed place of duty).
(2) Absence from unit, organization, or
place of
duty.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, on or about __
20 _,
without authority, absent himself/herself from (his) (her) (unit) (organization) (place of duty at
which (he) (she) was required to be), to wit:
, located at
, and did remain
so absent until ((he) (she) was apprehended) on or about __
20 _.
(3) Absence from unit, organization, or place of
duty 1vith intent to avoid maneuvers or
.field
exercises.
In that __
(personal jurisdiction data), did, on or about __
20 _, '"rithout
authority and with intent to avoid (maneuvers) (field exercises), absent himself/herself from (his)
(her) (unit) (organization) (place of duty at which (he) (she) was required to be), to wit:
located at (
__
), and did remain so absent until on or about
20
(4) Abandoning watch or guard.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), being a memberofthe ____
_
(guard) (watch) (duty section), did, (at/on board-location), on or about __
20 _, without
authority, go from (his) (her) (guard) (watch) (duty section) (with intent to abandon the same).
11. Article 87 (10 U.S.C. 887)--Missing movement; jumping from vessel
a. Text (ifstatute.
(a) MISSING MOVEl\tJENT.-Any person subject to this chapter who, through neglect
or design, misses the movement of a ship, aircraft, or unit with which the person is required
in the course of duty to move shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
(b) JUMPING FROM VESSEL INTO THE WATER.-Any person subject to this chapter who
wrongfully and intentionally jumps into the water from a vessel in use by the armed fo1·ces
shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
b. b'lements.
(
1) Missing movement.
(a) That the accused was required in the course of
duty to move with a ship, aircraft, or unit;
(b) That the accused knew of
the prospective movement of
the ship, aircraft, or unit;
and
(c) That the accused missed the movement through design or neglect.
(2) Jumping
.from vessel into the 1vater.
(a) That the accused jumped from a vessel in use by the armed forces into the water; and
(b) That such act by the accused was wrongful and intentionaL
c. Explanation.
(
1) A1issing movement.
(a) Jvfovement. "Movement" as used in Article 87 includes a move, transfer, or shift of a
ship, aircraft, or unit involving a substantial distance and period of time. Whether a particular
movement is substantial is a question to be determined by the court-martial considering all the
circumstances. Changes which do not constitute a "movement" include practice marches of
a short
duration with a return to the point of departure, and minor changes in location of
ships, aircraft, or
units, as when a ship is shifted from one berth to another in the same shipyard or harbor or when
a unit is moved from one barracks to another on the same post.
(b) A1ode r<f
movement.
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(i) Unit. If a person is required in the course of duty to move with a unit, the mode of
travel is not important, whether it be military or commercial, and includes travel by ship, train,
aircraft, truck, bus, or walking. The word "unit" is not limited to any specific technical category
such as those listed in a table of organization and equipment, but also includes units which are
created before the movement with the intention that they have organizational continuity upon
arrival at their destination regardless of their technical designation, and units intended to be
disbanded upon arrival at their destination.
(ii) Ship, aircraft. If a person is assigned as a crew member or is ordered to move as a
passenger aboard a particular ship or aircraft, military or chartered, then missing the particular
sailing or flight is essential to establish the otiense of
missing movement.
(c) Desi?Jl. "Design" means on purpose, intentionally, or according to plan and requires
specific intent to miss the movement
(d) Neglect. "Neglect" means the omission to take such measures as are appropriate under
the circumstances to assure presence with a ship, aircraft, or unit at the time of a scheduled
movement, or doing some act without giving attention to its probable consequences in connection
with the prospective movement, such as a departure from the vicinity of
the prospective movement
to such a distance as would make it likely that one could not retum in time for the movement.
(e) Actual knowledge. In order to be guilty of
the offense, the accused must have actually
known of
the prospective movement that was missed. Knowledge ofthe exact hour or even of
the
exact date of
the scheduled movement is not required. It is sufficient if
the approximate date was
known by the accused as long as there is a causal connection between the conduct of
the accused
and the missing of the scheduled movement. Knowledge may be proved by circumstantial
evidence.
(f) Proof of
absence. That the accused actually missed the movement may be proved by
documentary evidence, as by a proper entry or absence of
entry in a log or a rooming report. This
fact may also be proved by the testimony of personnel of the ship, aircraft, or unit (or by other
evidence) that the movement occurred at a certain time, together with evidence that the accused
was physically elsewhere at that time.
(2) Jumping
from vessel into the water. The phrase "in use by" means any vessel operated by
or under the control of the armed forces. This offense may be committed at sea, at anchor, or in
port.
d. Maximum punishment.
(
1) A1issing movement.
(a) Design. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and confinement
for 2 years.
(b) Neglect. Bad-conduct discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and confinement
for 1 year.
(2) Jumping from vessel into the water. Bad-conduct discharge, forfeiture of all pay and
allowances, and confinement for 6 months.
e. Sample specifications.
(I
)Missing movement
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location), on or
about __
20 __)through (neglect) (design) miss the movement of (Aircraft No.----~'
(Flight
(the USS
(Company A, 1st Battalion, 7th Infantry)
,
_____
,with which (he) (she) was required in the course of
duty to move.
(2) .Jumphlgfrom vessel into the 1vater.
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In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, on board ____
, at
(location), on or about __
20 _,wrongfully and intentionally jump from
, a vessel
in use by the armed forces, into the (sea) (lake) (river).
12. Article 87a (10 U.S.C. 887a)-Resistance, flight, breach of arrest, and escape
a Text of
statute.
Any person subject to this chapter who-----
(1) resists apprehension;
(2) flees from apprehension;
(3) breaks arrest; or
(4) escapes from custody or confinement;
shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
b. Klements·.
(I) Resisting apprehension.
(a) That a certain person attempted to apprehend the accused;
(b) That said person was authorized to apprehend the accused; and
(c) That the accused actively resisted the apprehension.
(2) Flightfrom apprehension.
(a) That a certain person attempted to apprehend the accused;
(b) That said person was authorized to apprehend the accused; and
(c) That the accused fled from the apprehension.
(3) Breaking arrest.
(a) That a certain person ordered the accused into arrest;
(b) That said person was authorized to order the accused into arrest; and
(c) That the accused went beyond the limits of arrest before being released from that arrest
by proper authority.
(
4) r..scape from custody.
(a) That a certain person apprehended the accused;
(b) That said person was authorized to apprehend the accused; and
(c) That the accused freed himself or herself from custody before being released by proper
authority.
(
5) r..scape from confinement.
(a) That a certain person ordered the accused into confinement;
(b) That said person was authorized to order the accused into confinement; and
(c) That the accused freed himself or herself from confinement before being released by
proper authority.
[Note: If
the escape was post-trial confinement, add the following element]
(d) That the confinement was the result of a court-martial conviction.
c. Explanation.
(1) Resisting apprehension.
(a) Apprehension. Apprehension is the taking of
a person into custody. See R.C.M. 302.
(b) Authority to apprehend See R.C.M. 302(b) concerning who may apprehend. Whether
the status of a person authorized that person to apprehend the accused is a question of law to be
decided by the military judge. Whether the person who attempted to make an apprehension had
such a status is a question of
fact to be decided by the factfinder.
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(c) Nature of
the resistance. The resistance must be active, such as assaulting the person
attempting to apprehend. Mere words of opposition, argument, or abuse, and attempts to escape
from custody after the apprehension is complete, do not constitute the offense of resisting
apprehension although they may constitute other offenses.
(d) Mistake. It is a defense that the accused held a reasonable belief that the person
attempting to apprehend did not have authority to do so. However, the accused's belief at the time
that no basis exists for the apprehension is not a defense.
(e) Illegal apprehension. A person may not be convicted of resisting apprehension if the
attempted apprehension is illegal, but may be convicted of other offenses, such as assault,
depending on all the circumstances. An attempted apprehension by a person authorized to
apprehend is presumed to be legal in the absence of
evidence to the contrary. Ordinarily the legality
of
an apprehension is a question of
law to be decided by the milita1y judge.
(2) Flightfrom apprehension. The flight must be active, such as running or driving away.
(3) Breaking arrest.
(a) Arres·t. There are two types of
arrest: pretrial arrest under Article 9 (see R.C.M. 304) and
arrest under Article 15 (see subparagraph 5.c.(3), Part V, MCM). This article prohibits breaking
any arrest.
(b) Authority to order arrest. See R.C.M. 304(b) and paragraph 2 and subparagraph 5.b.,
Part V, MCM concerning authority to order arrest.
(c) Nature (?{restraint imposed by arrest. In arrest, the restraint is moral restraint imposed
by orders fixing the limits of arrest.
(d) Breaking. Breaking arrest is committed when the person in arrest infringes the limits set
by orders. The reason for the infringement is immaterial. For example, innocence of the ofiense
with respect to which an arrest may have been imposed is not a defense.
(e) illegal arrest. A person may not be convicted of breaking arrest if the arrest is illegal.
An arrest ordered by one authorized to do so is presumed to be legal in the absence of some
evidence to the contrary. Ordinarily, the legality of
an arrest is a question oflaw to be decided by
the military judge.
(
4) A'scape from custody.
(a) Custody. Custody is restraint of free locomotion imposed by lawful apprehension. The
restraint may be physical or, once there has been a submission to apprehension or a forcible taking
into custody, it may consist of
control exercised in the presence of the prisoner by otlicial acts or
orders. Custody is temporary restraint intended to continue until other restraint (arrest, restriction,
confinement) is imposed or the person is released.
(b) Authority to apprehend. ~'>'ee subparagraph ( 1
)(b) of
this paragraph.
(c) Escape. For a discussion of
escape, see subparagraph c.(5)(c) ofthis paragraph.
(d) Illegal custody. A person may not be convicted of
this offense if
the custody was illegal.
An apprehension effected by one authorized to apprehend is presumed to be lawful in the absence
of evidence to the contrary. Ordinarily, the legality of an apprehension is a question of law to be
decided by the military judge.
(e) Correctional custody. See paragraph 13.
(5) Escape from confinement.
(a) Cor!finement. Confinement is physical restraint imposed under R.C.M. 305, 1102, or
subparagraph 5.b., Part V, MCM. For purposes of the element of post-trial confinement
(subparagraph b.(5)(d)) and increased punishment therefrom (subparagraph e.(4)), the
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confinement must have been imposed pursuant to an adjudged sentence of
a court-martial and not
as a result of
pretrial restraint or nonjudicial punishment.
(b) Authority to order confinement. See R.C.M. 304(b), 1102(b)(2); and paragraph 2 and
subparagraph S.b., Part V, MCM concerning who may order confinement.
(c) Escape. An escape may be either with or without force or artifice, and either with or
without the consent of
the custodian. However, where a prisoner is released by one with apparent
authority to do so, the prisoner may not be convicted of escape from confinement. See also
subparagraph 24.c.(2)(b
). Any completed casting off
of
the restraint of
confinement, before release
by proper authority, is an escape, and lack of effectiveness of the restraint imposed is immaterial.
An escape is not complete until the prisoner is momentarily free from the restraint. If
the movement
toward escape is opposed, or before it is completed, an immediate pursuit follows, there is no
escape until opposition is overcome or pursuit is eluded.
(d) Status when temporarily outside cmrfinement facility. A prisoner who is temporarily
escorted outside a confinement facility for a work detail or other reason by a guard, who has both
the duty and means to prevent that prisoner from escaping, remains in confinement.
(e) J,egality of
cortfinemenl. A person may not be convicted of escape from confinement if
the confinement is illegal. Confinement ordered by one authorized to do so is presumed to be
lawful in the absence of evidence to the contrary. Ordinarily, the legality of confinement is a
question oflaw to be decided by the military judge.
d. Maximum punishment.
(1) Resisting apprehension. Bad-conduct discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 1 year.
(2) Flight
from apprehension. Bad-conduct discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 1 year.
(3) Breaking arrest. Bad-conduct discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 6 months.
(
4) }_'scape from custody, pretrial confinement, or corifinement pursuant to Article 15.
Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and confinement for 1 year.
(5) }_'scape from post-trial confinement. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and
allowances, and confinement for 5 years.
e. Sample specifications.
(1) Resisting apprehension.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about __
20 _, resist being apprehended
by
, (an armed force policeman) (
), a person authorized to apprehend the
accused.
(2) Flight from apprehension.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about __
20 _, flee apprehension by
-----,---' (an armed force policeman) (
, a person authorized to apprehend the
accused.
(3) Breaking arrest.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), having been placed in arrest (in
quarters) (in (his) (her) company area) (
by a person authorized to order the accused
into arrest, did, (at/on board-location) on or about __
20 _,break said arrest.
(4) Escape from custody.
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In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about __
20 _, escape from the custody of
---=--'
a person authorized to apprehend the accused.
(5) Escape from corifinement.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), having been placed in (post-trial)
confinement in (place of confinement), by a person authorized to order said accused into
confinement did, (at/on board-location) (subject-matter
jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
__
20 _, escape from confinement.
13. Article 87b (10 U.S.C. 887b)-Offenses against correctional custody and restriction
a. Text of
statute.
(a) ESCAPE FROM CORRECTIONAL CUSTODY.-Any person subject to this chapter-
(1) who is placed in correctional custody by a person authorized to do so;
(2) who, while in correctional custody, is under physical restraint; and
(3) who escapes from the physical restraint before being released from the
physical restraint by proper authority;
shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
(b) BREACH OF CORRECTIONAL CUSTODY.-Any person subject to this chapter-
(1) who is placed in correctional custody by a person authorized to do so;
(2) who, while in correctional custody, is under restraint other than physical
restraint; and
(3) who goes beyond the limits of the restraint before being released from the
correctional custody or relieved of the restraint by proper authority;
shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
(c) BREACHOFRESTRICTION.-Any person subject to this chapter-
(1) who is ordered to be restricted to certain limits by a person authorized to
do so; and
(2) who, with knowledge of the limits of the restriction, goes beyond those
limits before being released by proper authority;
shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
b. Elements.
(
1) E~·cape
from correctional custody.
(a) That the accused was placed in correctional custody by a person authorized to do so;
(b) That, while in such correctional custody, the accused was under physical restraint; and
(c) That the accused freed himself or herself from the physical restraint of
this correctional
custody before being released therefrom by proper authority.
(2) Breach of
correctional custody.
and
(a) That the accused was placed in correctional custody by a person authorized to do so;
(b) That, while in correctional custody, a certain restraint was imposed upon the accused;
(c) That the accused went beyond the limits of the restraint imposed before having been
released from the correctional custody or relieved of
the restraint by proper authority.
(3) Breach of
restriction.
(a) That a certain person ordered the accused to be restricted to certain limits;
(b) That said person was authorized to order said restriction;
(c) That the accused knew of
the restriction and the limits thereof; and
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(d) That the accused went beyond the limits of
the restriction before being released therefrom
by proper authority.
c. Explanation.
(
1) Escape ft'Om correctional custody. Escape from correctional custody is the act of a person
undergoing the punishment of correctional custody pursuant to Article 15, who, before being set
at liberty by proper authority, casts off any physical restraint imposed by the custodian or by the
place or conditions of
custody.
(2) Breach of
correctional custody. Breach of
restraint during correctional custody is the act of
a person undergoing the punishment who, in the absence of physical restraint imposed by a
custodian or by the place or conditions of
custody, breaches any form of
restraint imposed during
this period.
(3) Authority to impose correctional custody. See Part V concerning who may impose
correctional custody. Whether the status of
a person authorized that person to impose correctional
custody is a question of law to be decided by the militaty judge. Whether the person who imposed
correctional custody had such a status is a question of
fact to be decided by the factfinder.
(4) Breach cif restriction. Restriction is the moral restraint of a person imposed by an order
directing a person to remain within certain specified limits. "Restriction" includes restriction under
R.C.M. 304(a)(2), restriction resulting from imposition of
either nonjudicial punishment (see Part
V) or the sentence of
a court-martial (see R.C.M. 1003(b)(5)), and administrative restriction in the
interest of
training, operations, security, or safety.
d. Maximum punishment.
(1) Escape from correctional custody. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and
allowances, and confinement for 1 year.
(2) Breach(?{
correctional custody. Bad-conduct discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances,
and confinement for 6 months.
(3) Breach (if
restriction. Confinement for 1 month and forfeiture of
two-thirds pay per month
tbr 1 month.
e. Sample .'Jpec~fications.
(1) J:.,scape from correctional custody.
In that __
(personal jurisdiction data), while undergoing the punishment of
correctional custody imposed by a person authorized to do so, did, (at/on board-location), on or
about __
20 _, escape from correctional custody.
(2) Breach of
correctional custody.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), while duly undergoing the
punishment of correctional custody imposed by a person authorized to do so, did, (at/on board-
location), on or about __
20 _, breach the restraint imposed thereunder by ____
_
(3) Breach of
restriction.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), having been restricted to the limits
of
, by a person authorized to do so, did, (at/on board-location), on or about __
20 _, break said restriction.
14. Article 88 (10 U.S.C. 888)-Contempt toward officials
a. Text Q[
statute.
Any commissioned officer who uses contemptuous words against the President, the
Vice President, Congress, the Secretary of Defense, the Secretary of a militat·y department,
the Secretary of Homeland Security, or the Governor or legislature of any State,
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Commonwealth, or possession in which he is on duty or present shall be punished as a court-
martial may direct.
b. Elements.
(1) That the accused was a commissioned officer of
the United States armed forces;
(2) That the accused used ce1tain words against an official or legislature named in the article;
(3) That by an act of
the accused these words came to the knowledge of
a person other than the
accused; and
(4) That the words used were contemptuous, either in themselves or by virtue of the
circumstances under which they were used.
[Note: If
the words were against a Governor or legislature, add the following element]
(5) That the accused was then present in the State, Commonwealth, or possession of the
Governor or legislature concerned.
c. F;xplanation.
The official or legislature against whom the words are used must be occupying one of the
offices or be one of the legislatures named in Article 88 at the time of the offense. Neither
"Congress" nor "legislature" includes its members individually. "Governor" does not include
"lieutenant governor." It is immaterial whether the words are used against the official in an official
or private capacity. If not personally contemptuous, adverse criticism of one of the officials or
legislatures named in the article in the course of a political discussion, even though emphatically
expressed, may not be charged as a violation of
the article. Similarly, expressions of opinion made
in a purely private conversation should not ordinarily be charged. Giving broad circulation to a
written publication containing contemptuous words of
the kind made punishable by this article, or
the utterance of contemptuous words of this kind in the presence of military subordinates,
aggravates the offense. The truth or falsity of
the statements is immaterial.
d. A1aximum punishment. Dismissal, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and confinement for 1
year.
e. Sample specification.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location), on or about
__
20 _, [use (orally and publicly) (_)
the following contemptuous words] [in a
contemptuous manner, use (orally and publicly) (
the following words] against the
[(President) (Vice President) (Congress) (Secretary of_)] [(Governor) (legislature) of the
(State of_)
(
), a (State) (
in which (he) (she), the said ___
_
was then (on duty), (present)], to wit:"
,"or words to that effect.
15. Article 89 (10 U.S.C. 889)-Disrespect toward superior commissioned officer; assault of
superior commissioned officer
a. Text ofstatute.
(a) DISRESPECT.-Any person subject to this chapter who behaves with disrespect
toward that person's superior commissioned officer shall be punished as a court-martial may
direct.
(b) AssAULT.-Any person subject to this chapter who strikes that pet·son's superior
commissioned officer or draws or lifts up any weapon or offers any violence against that
officer while the officer is in the execution of the officer's office shall be punished-
(1) if the offense is committed in time of war, by death or such other
punishment as a court-martial may direct; and
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(2) if the offense is committed at any other time, by such punishment, other
than death, as a court-martial may direct.
b. Elements.
(
1) Disrespect toward superior commissioned officer.
(a) That the accused did or omitted certain acts or used certain language to or concerning
a certain commissioned officer;
(b) That such behavior or language was directed toward that officer;
(c) That the officer toward whom the acts, omissions, or words were directed was the
superior commissioned officer of
the accused;
(d) That the accused then knew that the commissioned officer toward whom the acts,
omissions, or words w~ere directed was the accused's superior commissioned officer; and
(e) That, under the circumstances, the behavior or language was disrespectful to that
commissioned officer.
(2) Striking or assaulting superior commissioned Rfficer.
(a) That the accused struck, drew, or lifted up a weapon against, or offered violence against,
a certain commissioned officer;
(b) That the officer was the superior commissioned officer ofthe accused;
(c) That the accused then knew that the officer was the accused's superior commissioned
officer; and
(d) That the superior commissioned officer was then in the execution of
office.
[Note: ifthe offense was committed in time of
war, add the following element]
(e) That the offense was committed in time of
war.
c.bxplanation.
(1) Superior CommissionedQfficer. See 10 U.S.C. § 801(5) ("The term 'superior commissioned
otlicer' means a commissioned officer superior in rank or command.").
(2) Disre::,pect tmvard superior commissioned officer.
(a) Knowledge. If
the accused did not know that the person against whom the acts or words
were directed was the accused's superior commissioned oflicer, the accused may not be convicted
of
a violation of
this article. Knowledge may be proved by circumstantial evidence.
(b) Disrespect. Disrespectful behavior is that which detracts from the respect due the
authority and person of a superior commissioned officer. It may consist of acts or language,
however expressed, and it is immaterial whether they refer to the superior as an oflicer or as a
private individual. Disrespect by words may be conveyed by abusive epithets or other
contemptuous or denunciatory language. Tmth is no defense. Disrespect by acts includes
neglecting the customary salute, or showing a marked disdain, indifference, insolence,
impertinence, undue familiarity, or other mdeness in the presence of
the superior officer.
(c) Presence. It is not essential that the disrespectful behavior be in the presence of the
superior, but ordinarily one should not be held accountable under this article for what was said or
done in a purely private conversation.
(d) Special defense-unprotected victim. A superior commissioned oflicer whose conduct
in relation to the accused under all the circumstances departs substantially from the required
standards appropriate to that officer's rank or position under similar circumstances loses the
protection of this article. That accused may not be convicted ofbeing disrespectful to the officer
who has so lost the entitlement to respect protected by Article 89.
(3) Striking or assaulting superior commissioned Q{ficer.
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(a) Superior commissioned ojjicer. The definition in subparagraph I S.c.(
1) of
this paragraph,
applies here.
(b)Knowledge. The explanation in subparagraph 15.c.(2)(a) of
this paragraph applies here.
(c) Strikes. "Strikes" means an intentional contact and includes any offensive touching of
the person of an officer, however slight.
(d) Draws or lifts up any weapon against. The phrase "draws or lifts up any weapon against"
covers any simple assault committed in the manner stated. The drawing of any weapon in an
aggressive manner or the raising or brandishing of
the same in a threatening manner in the presence
of
and at the superior is the sort of
act proscribed. The raising in a threatening manner of
a firearm,
whether or not loaded, of a club, or of
anything by which a serious blow or injury could be given
is included in "lifts up."
(e) Offers any violence against. The phrase "offers any violence against" includes any form
of battery or of mere assault not embraced in the preceding more specific terms "strikes" and
"draws or lifts up." If
not executed, the violence must be physically attempted or menaced. A mere
threatening in words is not an offering of violence in the sense ofthis article.
(f) F-xecufion qf
qffice. An officer is in the execution of office when engaged in any act or
service required or authorized by treaty, statute, regulation, the order of a superior, or military
usage. In general, any striking or use of violence against any superior commissioned officer by a
person over whom it is the duty of
that officer to maintain discipline at the time, would be striking
or using violence against the officer in the execution of office. The commanding officer on board
a ship or the commanding officer of a unit in the field is generally considered to be on duty at all
times.
(g) Defenses. In a prosecution for striking or assaulting a superior commissioned oflicer in
violation of
this article, it is a defense that the accused acted in the proper discharge of
some duty,
or that the victim behaved in a manner toward the accused such as to lose the protection of
this
article (see subparagraph 15.c.(2)(d)). For example, if the victim initiated an unlawful attack on
the accused, this would deprive the victim of
the protection of
this article, and, in addition, could
excuse any lesser included offense of assault as done in self-defense, depending on the
circumstances (see subparagraph 77.c.; R.C.M. 916(e)).
d. Maximum punishment.
(1) Disrespect toward superior commissioned ojjicer in command Bad-conduct discharge,
forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and confinement for 1 year.
(2) Disrespect toward s1perior commissioned ojjicer superior in rank. Bad-conduct discharge,
forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and confinement for 6 months.
(3) Striking, drmving or lifting up a weapon or offering any violence to superior commissioned
ojjicer in execution ofojjice in time ofwar. Death or such other punishment as a court-martial may
direct.
(
4) Striking, drmving or lifting up a ·weapon or ojjering any violence to superior commissioned
officer in execution of
office at any other time. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and
allowances, and confinement for 10 years.
e. Sample specifications.
(1) Disrespect tmmrd
superior commissioned officer.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter
jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about __
20 _,behave himself/herself
with
disrespect toward
, (his) (her) superior commissioned officer (in command) (in rank),
then known by the said
to be (his) (her) superior commissioned officer (in command)
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(in rank), by (saying to (him) (her)"
,"or words to that effect) (contemptuously turning
from and leaving (him) (her) while (he) (she), the said
, was talking to (him) (her), the
said
(
____
___/
(2) Striking superior commissioned officer.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about
20
, (a time of war) strike
____
,(his) (her) supetior commissioned officer (in command) (in rank), then known by the
said
to be (his) (her) superior commissioned officer (in command) (in rank), who was
then in the execution of(his) (her) office, (in) (on) the
with (a) ((his) (her)) __
_
(3) Drcnving or lifting up a weapon against superior comrnissioned officer.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jutisdiction data, if required), on or about
20 _,(a time ofwar) (draw) (lift up)
a weapon, to wit: a
against
(his) (her) superior commissioned officer (in
command) (in rank), then known by the said
to be (his) (her) superior commissioned
officer (in command) (in rank), who was then in the execution of
(his) (her) office.
(
4) Qffering violence to superior commissioned qfficer.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board--location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about
20 _, (a time of war) offer violence
against
his/ her superior commissioned officer (in command) (in rank), then known by
the said
to be (his) (her) superior commissioned officer (in command) (in rank), who
was then in the execution of(his) (her) office, by ___
_
16. Article 90 (10 U.S.C. 890)-\Villfully disobeying superior commissioned officer
a. Text ofstatute.
Any person subject to this chapter who willfully disobeys a lawful command of that
person's superior commissioned officer shall be punished-
(1) if the offense is committed in time of war, by death or such other
punishment as a court-martial may direct; and
(2) if the offense is committed at any other time, by such punishment, other
than death, as a court-martial may direct.
b. Elements.
(1) That the accused received a lawful command from a superior commissioned ofticer;
(2) That this officer was the superior commissioned officer of
the accused;
(3) That the accused then knew that this officer was the accused's superior commissioned
officer; and
(4) That the accused willfully disobeyed the lawful command.
[Note: if
the offense was committed in time ofwar, add the following element]
(5) That the offense was committed in time of
war.
c. Explanation.
(1) Superior commissioned officer. The definition in subparagraph 15.c.(l) applies here.
(2) Disobeying superior commissioned officer.
(a) Lawfulness of
the order.
(i) Ir!ference ~f
lawfulness. An order requiring the performance of
a military duty or act
may be inferred to be lawful, and it is disobeyed at the peril of
the subordinate. This inference does
not apply to a patently illegal order, such as one that directs the commission of
a clime.
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(ii) Determination of
lawjillness. The lawfulness of an order is a question of law to be
determined by the military judge.
(iii) Authority of
issuing officer. The commissioned officer issuing the order must have
authority to give such an order. Authorization may be based on law, regulation, custom of the
Service, or applicable order to direct, coordinate, or control the duties, activities, health, welfare,
morale, or discipline of
the accused.
(iv) Relationship to militmy duty. The order must relate to military duty, which includes
all activities reasonably necessary to accomplish a military mission, or safeguard or promote the
morale, discipline, and usefulness of members of a command and directly connected with the
maintenance of good order in the Service. The order may not, without such a valid military
purpose, interfere with private rights or personal affairs. However, the dictates of a person's
conscience, religion, or personal philosophy cannot justify or excuse the disobedience of an
otherwise lawful order. Disobedience of an order which has for its sole object the attainment of
some private end, or which is given for the sole purpose of
increasing the penalty for an offense
which it is expected the accused may commit, is not punishable under this article.
(
v) Relationship to 5;tatutmy or constitutional right,.,·. The order must not conflict with the
statutory or constitutional rights of
the person receiving the order.
(b) Personal nature (?f the order. The order must be directed specifically to the subordinate.
Violations of
regulations, standing orders or directives, or failure to perform previously established
duties are not punishable under this article, but may violate Article 92.
(c) Form and transmission (if the order. As long as the order is understandable, the form of
the order is immaterial, as is the method by which it is transmitted to the accused.
(d) Specificity (if
the order. The order must be a specific mandate to do or not to do a specific
act. An exhortation to "obey the law" or to perform one's military duty does not constitute an order
under this article.
(e) Knowledge. The accused must have actual knowledge of the order and of the fact that
the person issuing the order was the accused's superior commissioned officer. Actual knowledge
may be proved by circumstantial evidence.
(f) Nature of
the disobedience. "Willful disobedience" is an intentional defiance of
authority.
Failure to comply with an order through heedlessness, remissness, or forgetfulness is not a
violation of
this article but may violate Article 92.
(g) Time for compliance. When an order requires immediate compliance, an accused's
declared intent not to obey and the failure to make any move to comply constitutes disobedience.
Immediate compliance is required for any order that does not explicitly or implicitly indicate that
delayed compliance is authorized or directed. If an order requires performance in the future, an
accused's present statement of intention to disobey the order does not constitute disobedience of
that order, although carrying out that intention may.
(3) Civilians and dischmged prisoners. A discharged prisoner or other civilian subject to
military law (see Article 2) and under the command of a commissioned officer is subject to the
provisions of
this article.
d. Maximum punishment.
(1) Willfully disobeying a lawful order of
superior commissioned officer in time of
war. Death
or such other punishment as a court-martial may direct.
(2) At any other time. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 5 years.
e. Sample spec?ftcation.
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In that
(personal jurisdiction data), having received a lawful command from
____
,(his) (her) superior commissioned officer, then known by the said
to be
(his) (her) superior commissioned officer, to
, or words to that effect, did, (at/on
board-location), on or about __
20 _,willfully disobey the same.
17. Article 91
(10 U.S.C. 891)-Insubordinate conduct toward warrant officer,
noncommissioned officer, or petty officer
a Text of
statute.
Any warrant officer or enlisted member· who-
(1) strikes or assaults a warrant officer, noncommissioned officer, or petty
officer, while that officer is in the execution of his office;
(2) willfully disobeys the lawful order of a war·rant officer, noncommissioned
officer, or petty officer; or
(3) treats with contempt or is disrespectful in language or deportment toward
a warrant officer, noncommissioned officer, or petty officer, while that officer is in the
execution of his office;
shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
b. F.lements.
(1) Striking or assaulting warrant, noncommissioned, or
petty (!fficer.
(a) That the accused was a warrant officer or enlisted member;
(b) That the accused struck or assaulted a certain warrant, noncommissioned, or petty
officer;
(c) That the striking or assault was committed while the victim was in the execution of
office;
and
(d) That the accused then knew that the person struck or assaulted was a warrant,
noncommissioned, or petty officer.
[Note: If the victim was the superior noncommissioned or petty of±1cer of the accused, add the
following elements]
(e) That the victim was the superior noncommissioned, or petty ofl:icer of
the accused; and
(f) That the accused then knew that the person struck or assaulted was the accused's superior
noncommissioned, or petty officer.
(2) Disobeying a warrant, noncommissioned, or petty officer.
(a) That the accused was a warrant officer or enlisted member;
(b) That the accused received a certain lawful order from a certain warrant,
noncommissioned, or petty officer;
(c) That the accused then knew that the person giving the order was a ''-'arrant,
noncommissioned, or petty officer;
(d) That the accused had a duty to obey the order; and
(e) That the accused willfully disobeyed the order.
(3) Treating with contempt or being disrespectful in language or deportment toward
a·warrant,
noncommissioned, or petty officer.
(a) That the accused was a warrant officer or enlisted member;
(b) That the accused did or omitted certain acts, or used certain language;
(c) That such behavior or language was used toward and within sight or hearing of
a certain
warrant, noncommissioned, or petty officer;
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(d) That the accused then knew that the person toward whom the behavior or language was
directed was a warrant, noncommissioned, or petty officer;
(e) That the victim was then in the execution of
office; and
(f) That under the circumstances the accused, by such behavior or language, treated with
contempt or was disrespectful to said warrant, noncommissioned, or petty officer.
[Note: If
the victim was the superior noncommissioned, or petty officer of the accused, add the
following elements]
(g) That the victim was the superior noncommissioned, or petty officer of
the accused; and
(h) That the accused then knew that the person toward whom the behavior or language was
directed was the accused's superior noncommissioned, or petty officer.
c. Explanation.
(1) In general. Article 91 has the same general objects with respect to warrant,
noncommissioned, and petty officers as Articles 89 and 90 have with respect to commissioned
officers, namely, to ensure obedience to their lawful orders, and to protect them from violence,
insult, or disrespect. Unlike Articles 89 and 90, however, this article does not require a superior-
subordinate relationship as an element of any of the offenses denounced. This article does not
protect an acting noncommissioned officer or acting petty officer, nor does it protect military
police or members of
the shore patrol who are not warrant, noncommissioned, or petty officers.
(2) Knowledge. All of
the offenses prohibited by Article 91 require that the accused have actual
knowledge that the victim was a warrant, noncommissioned, or petty officer. Actual knowledge
may be proved by circumstantial evidence.
(3) Striking or assaulting a warrant, noncommissioned, or petty officer. For a discussion of
"strikes" and "in the execution of
oflice," see subparagraph 15.c. For a discussion of"assault," see
subparagraph 77.c. An assault by a prisoner who has been discharged from the Service, or by any
other civilian subject to military law, upon a warrant, noncommissioned, or petty otlicer should be
charged under Article 128 or 134.
(4) Disobeying a warrant, noncommissioned, or petty officer. See subparagraph 16.c for a
discussion of
lawfulness, personal nature, form, transmission, and specificity of the order, nature
of
the disobedience, and time for compliance with the order.
(5) Treating with contempt or being disrespectful in language or deportment toward a warrant,
noncommissioned, or petty ojjicer. "Toward" requires that the behavior and language be within
the sight or hearing of
the warrant, noncommissioned, or petty officer concerned. For a discussion
of "in the execution of his office," see subparagraph I S.c. For a discussion of "disrespect," see
subparagraph 15.c.
d. A1aximum punishment.
(1) Striking or assaulting warrant officer. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and
allowances, and confinement for 5 years.
(2) Striking or assaulting superior noncommissioned or petty officer. Dishonorable discharge,
forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and confinement for 3 years.
(3) Striking or assaulting other noncommissioned or petty officer. Dishonorable discharge,
forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and confinement for 1 year.
(
4) Willfully disobeying the kruiful order of
a rmrTant officer. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture
of
all pay and allowances, and confinement for 2 years.
(5) Willfully disobeying the lmvful order of
a noncommissioned or petty officer. Bad-conduct
discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and confinement for 1 year.
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(6) Contempt or disrespect to ~warrant
officer. Bad-conduct discharge, forfeiture of all pay and
allowances, and confinement for 9 months.
(7) Contempt or disrespect to superior noncommissioned or petty officer. Bad-conduct
discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and confinement for 6 months.
(8) Contempt or disrespect to other noncommissioned or petty C?tficer. Forfeiture of two-thirds
pay per month for 3 months, and confinement for 3 months.
e. Sample specifications.
(1) Striking or assaulting warrant, noncommissioned, or petty C?_fficer.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about __
20 _, (strike) (assault)
_____
, a
officer, then known to the said
to be a (superior)
-~-----officer
who was then in the execution of(his) (her) office, by
(him) (her)
(in) (on) (the
with (a)
((his) (her)) ____
_
(2) Wil{ful disobedience ofwarrant; noncommissioned, or petty C?fficer.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), having received a lawful order
from
a
officer, then known by the said
to be a
officer, to __
,
an order which it was (his) (her) duty to obey, did (at/on board-location) (subject-matter
jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20
willfully disobey the same.
(3) Contempt or disre.~pect toward
warrant, noncommissioned, or petty (?fficer.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data) (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about __
20 _, [did treat with contempt] [was
disrespectful in (language) (deportment) toward]
a
officer, then known
by the said
to be a (superior)
officer, who was then in the execution of
(his) (her) office, by (saying to (him) (her),"
"or
words to that effect) (spitting at (his)
(her) feet) (
).
18. Article 92 (10 U.S.C. 892)-Failure to obey order or regulation
a. Text of
statute.
Any person subject to this chapter who-
(1) violates or fails to obey any lawful general order or regulation;
(2) having knowledge of any other lawful order issued by a member of the
armed forces, which it is his duty to obey, fails to obey the order; or
(3) is derelict in the performance of his duties;
shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
b. Elements.
(1) Violation of
or jctilure to obey a lawful general order or regulation.
(a) That there was in effect a certain lawful general order or regulation;
(b) That the accused had a duty to obey it; and
(c) That the accused violated or failed to obey the order or regulation.
(2) Failure to obey other lawful order.
(a) That a member of
the armed forces issued a certain lawful order;
(b) That the accused had knowledge of
the order;
(c) That the accused had a duty to obey the order; and
(d) That the accused failed to obey the order.
(3) Dereliction in the performance C?f <.l:uties.
(a) That the accused had certain duties;
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(b) That the accused knew or reasonably should have known ofthe duties; and
(c) That the accused was (willfully) (through neglect or culpable inefficiency) derelict in the
performance of
those duties.
[Note: In cases where the dereliction of duty resulted in death or grievous bodily harm, add the
following element as applicable]
(d) That such dereliction of
duty resulted in death or grievous bodily harm to a person other
than the accused.
c. Explanation.
(1) Violation qf
or
failure to obey a lawful general order or regulation.
(a)Authority to issue general orders and
regulations. General orders or regulations are those
orders or regulations generally applicable to an armed force which are properly published by the
President or the Secretary ofDefense, ofHomeland Security, or of
a military department, and those
orders or regulations generally applicable to the command of
the officer issuing them throughout
the command or a particular subdivision thereof which are issued by:
(i) an officer having general court-martial jurisdiction;
(ii) a general or flag officer in command; or
(iii) a commander superior to (i) or (ii).
(b) F;{fect of
change of
command on validity qf
order. A general order or regulation issued
by a commander with authority under Article 92(1) retains its character as a general order or
regulation when another officer takes command, until it expires by its own terms or is rescinded
by separate action, even if it is issued by an officer who is a general or flag officer in command
and command is assumed by another officer who is not a general or flag officer.
(c) La:wji1/ness. A general order or regulation is lawful unless it is contrary to the
Constitution, the laws of the United States, or lawful superior orders or for some other reason is
beyond the authority of the official issuing it. See the discussion of lawfulness in subparagraph
16.c.
(d) Knowledge. Knowledge of a general order or regulation need not be alleged or proved
as knowledge is not an element of this offense and a lack of knowledge does not constitute a
defense.
(e) L,nforceability. Not all provisions in general orders or regulations can be enforced under
Article 92(1 ). Regulations which only supply general guidelines or advice for performing military
functions may not be enforceable under Article 92(1).
(2) Violation oforjailure to obey other lmvfiil order.
(a) Scope. Article 92(2) includes all other lawful orders which may be issued by a member
of the armed forces, violations of which are not chargeable under Article 90, 91, or 92(1). It
includes the violation of written regulations which are not general regulations. See also
subparagraph (l)(e) ofthis paragraph as applicable.
(b) Knml-'ledge. In order to be guilty of this offense, a person must have had actual
knowledge of the order or regulation. Knowledge of the order may be proved by circumstantial
evidence.
(c) Duty to obe.v order.
(i) From superior. A member of one armed force who is senior in rank to a member of
another armed force is the superior of that member with authority to issue orders which that
member has a duty to obey under the same circumstances as a commissioned officer of one armed
force is the superior commissioned officer of
a member of
another armed force for the purposes of
Articles 89 and 90. See subparagraph 13.c.(l).
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(ii) From one not a superior. Failure to obey the lawful order of one not a superior is an
offense under Article 92(2), provided the accused had a duty to obey the order, such as one issued
by a sentinel or a member of
the armed forces police. See subparagraph 17.b.(2) if
the order was
issued by a warrant, noncommissioned, or petty officer in the execution of
office.
(3) Dereliction in the petjormance of
duties.
(a) Duty. A duty may be imposed by treaty, statute, regulation, lawful order, standard
operating procedure, or custom of
the Service.
(b) Knowledge. Actual knowledge of duties may be proved by circumstantial evidence.
Actual knowledge need not be shown if
the individual reasonably should have known of
the duties.
This may be demonstrated by regulations, training or operating manuals, customs of the Service,
academic literature or testimony, testimony of
persons who have held similar or superior positions,
or similar evidence.
(c) Derelict. A person is derelict in the performance of
duties when that person willfully or
negligently fails to perform that person's duties or when that person performs them in a culpably
inefficient manner. "Willfully" means intentionally. It refers to the doing of
an act knowingly and
purposely, specifically intending the natural and probable consequences of
the act. "Negligently"
means an act or omission of
a person who is under a duty to use due care which ex hi bits a lack of
that degree of care which a reasonably prudent person would have exercised under the same or
similar circumstances. Culpable inefficiency is inefficiency for which there is no reasonable or
just excuse.
(d) Ineptitude. A person is not derelict in the performance of
duties if
the failure to perform
those duties is caused by ineptitude rather than by willfulness, negligence, or culpable inefficiency,
and may not be charged under this article, or otherwise punished. For example, a recmit who has
tried earnestly during rifle training and throughout record firing is not derelict in the performance
of
duties if
the recruit fails to qualify with the weapon.
(e) Grievous bodily harm. For purposes of
this otiense, the term "grievous bodily harm"
has the same meaning ascribed to it in Article 128 (paragraph 77).
(t) Where the dereliction of duty resulted in death or grievous bodily harm, the intent to
cause death or gtievous bodily harm is not required.
d. Adaximum punishment.
(1) Violation ofor
failure to obey lm-vful general order or regulation. Dishonorable discharge,
forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and confinement for 2 years.
(2) Violation of
or failure to obey other lm-vfiil order. Bad-conduct discharge, forfeiture of all
pay and allowances, and confinement for 6 months.
(3) Dereliction in the petjormance ofduties.
(A) Through neglect or culpable inefficiency. Forfeiture of two-thirds pay per month for 3
months and confinement for 3 months.
(B) Through neglect or culpable inefficiency resulting in death or grievous bodily harm.
Bad-conduct discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and confinement for 18 months.
(C) Willful. Bad-conduct discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and confinement
for 6 months.
(D) Willful dereliction of
duty resulting in death or grievous bodily harm. Dishonorable
discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and confinement for 2 years.
[Note: For (1) and (2) of
this mle, the punishment set forth does not apply in the following cases:
if, in the absence of the order or regulation which was violated or not obeyed, the accused would
on the same facts be subject to conviction for another specific offense for which a lesser
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punishment is prescribed; or if
the violation or failure to obey is a breach of restraint imposed as a
result of an order. In these instances, the maximum punishment is that specifically prescribed
elsewhere for that particular offense.]
e
. .._~'ample specifications.
(1) Violation orfailure to obey krn1ul general order or regulation.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about __
20 ___; (violate) (fail to obey) a
lawful general (order) (regulation) which was (his)(her) duty to obey, to wit: paragraph_ (Army)
(Air Force) Regulation, dated
(Article, U.S. Navy Regulations, dated_) (General Order
No._, U.S. Navy, dated_) (
), by (wTongfully __
__,
(2) Violation or.failure to obey other lm~jul1vritten
order.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), having knowledge of
a lawful order
issued by
to wit: (paragraph, (the Combat Group Regulation No. _) (USS __
,
Regulation
dated
an order which it was (his) (her) duty to obey, did,
(at/on board-location) (subject-matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about
20
fail to obey the same by (wrongfully) _________
_
(3) Failure to obey other laH:{id order.
Tn
(personal jurisdiction data) having knowledge of
a lawful order
issued by
(to submit to certain medical treatment) (to) (not to ______
,
an order which it was (his) (her) duty to obey (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about_20_, fail to obey the same (by
(wrongfully) __________
_
(
4) Dereliction in the performance £if
duties.
In that,
(personal jurisdiction data), who (knew) (should have known)
of (his) (her) duties (at/on board-location) (subject-matter jurisdiction data, if required), (on or
about __
20
_) (from about __
20_ to about __
20
_), was derelict in the performance
ofthose duties in that (he) (she) (negligently) (willfully) (by culpable inefficiency) failed
,
as it was (his) (her) duty to do[, and that such dereliction of
duty resulted in (grievous bodily harm,
to wit: (broken leg) (deep cut) (fractured skull) (
) to
(the death of
19. Article 93 (10 U.S.C. 893)-Cruelty and maltreatment
a. Text ojstatute.
Any pe1·son subject to this chapter who is guilty of cruelty toward, or oppression or
maltreatment of, any person subject to his orders shall be punished as a court-martial may
direct.
b. Elements.
(1) That a certain person was subject to the orders of
the accused; and
(2) That the accused was cruel toward, or oppressed, or maltreated that person.
c. Explanation.
(1) Nature ofvictim. "Any person subject to his orders" means not only those persons under the
direct or immediate command of the accused but extends to all persons, subject to the UCMJ or
not, who by reason of some duty are required to obey the lawful orders of
the accused, regardless
whether the accused is in the direct chain of
command over the person.
(2) Nature<:?! act. The cruelty, oppression, or maltreatment, although not necessarily physical,
must be measured by an objective standard. Assault, improper punishment, and sexual harassment
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may constitute this offense. Sexual harassment includes influencing, offering to influence, or
threatening the career, pay, or job of another person in exchange for sexual favors, and deliberate
or repeated offensive comments or gestures of a sexual nature. The imposition of necessary or
proper duties and the exaction of their petformance does not constitute this offense even though
the duties are arduous or hazardous or both.
d. Maximum punishment. Dishonorable discharge, fotfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 3 years.
e. Sample specification.
In that (personal jurisdiction data), (at/on board-location) (subject-matter jurisdiction
data, if required), on or about
20_, (was cruel toward) did (oppress) (maltreat)
a person subject to (his) (her) orders, by (kicking (him) (her) in the stomach)
(confining (him) (her) for twenty-four hours without water) , ________
J
20. Article 93a (10 U.S.C. 893a)-Prohibited activities with military recruit or trainee by
person in position of special trust
a. Text of
statute.
(a) ABUSE OF TRAINING LEADERSHIP POSITION.-Any person subject to this chapter-
(1) who is an officer, a noncommissioned officer, ot· a petty officer;
(2) who is in a training leadership position with respect to a specially protected
junior member of the armed forces; and
(3) who engages in prohibited sexual activity with such specially p•·otected
junior member of the armed forces;
shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
(b) ABUSE OF POSITION AS MILITARY RECRillTER.-Any person subject to this
chapter-
(1) who is a military recruiter and engages in prohibited sexual activity with
an applicant for military service; or
(2) who is a military recruite•· and engages in prohibited sexual activity with a
specially protected junior member of
the armed forces who is enlisted under a delayed entry
program;
shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
(c) CONSENT.-Consent is not a defense for any conduct at issue in a prosecution
under this section (article).
(d) DEFINITIONS.-In this section (article):
(1) SPECIALLY PROTECTED JUNIOR MEMBER OF THE ARMED FORCES.-The te1·m
"specially protected junior member of the armed for·ces" means-
(
A) a member of the armed forces who is assigned to, or is awaiting
assignment to, basic training or other initial active duty for training, including a member
who is enlisted under a delayed entry program;
(B) a member of the armed forces who is a cadet, a midshipman, an
officer candidate, or a student in any other officer qualification program; and
(C) a member of the armed forces in any program that, by regulation
prescribed by the Secretary concerned, is identified as a training program for initial career
qualification.
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(2) TRAINING LEADERSHIP POSITION.-The term "training leadership
position" means, with respect to a specially protected junior member of the armed forces,
any of the following:
(A) Any drill instructor position or other leadership position in a basic
training program, an officer candidate school, a reserve officers' training corps unit, a
training program for entry into the armed forces, or any program that, by regulation
prescribed by the Secretary concerned, is identified as a training program for initial career
qualification.
(B) Faculty and staff
of
the United States Military Academy, the United
States Naval Academy, the United States Air Force Academy, and the United States Coast
Guard Academy.
(3) APPLICANT FOR MILITARY SERVICE.-The term "applicant for military
service" means a person who, under regulations prescribed by the Secretary concerned, is
an applicant for original enlistment or appointment in the armed forces.
(4) MILITARY RECRIDTER.-The term ""military recruiter" means a person
who, under regulations prescribed by the Secretary concerned, has the primary duty to
recruit persons for military service.
(5) PROIDBITED SEXUAL ACTIVITY.-The term "'prohibited sexual activity"
means, as specified in regulations prescribed by the Secretary concerned, inappropriate
physical intimacy under circumstances described in such regulations.
b. Element.~;·.
(1) Abuse of
training leadership position.
(a) That the accused was a commissioned, warrant, noncommissioned, or petty officer;
(b) That the accused was in a training leadership position with respect to a specially
protected member of
the armed forces; and
(c) That the accused engaged in prohibited sexual activity with a person the accused knew,
or reasonably should have known, was a specially protected junior member of
the anned forces.
(2) Abuse of
position as a militmy recruiter.
(a) That the accused was a commissioned, warrant, noncommissioned or petty officer;
(b) That the accused was perfom1ing duties as a military recruiter; and,
(c) That the accused engaged in prohibited sexual activity with a person the accused knew,
or reasonably should have known, was an applicant for military service or;
(d) That the accused engaged in prohibited sexual activity with a person the accused knew,
or reasonably should have known, was a specially protected junior member of the anned forces
who is enlisted under a delayed entry program.
c. Explanation.
(1) In general. The prevention of inappropriate sexual activity by trainers, recruiters, and drill
instructors with recruits, trainees, students attending service academies, and other potentially
vulnerable persons in the initial training environment is crucial to the maintenance of good order
and military discipline. Military law, regulation, and custom invest officers, non-commissioned
officers, drill instructors, recruiters, cadre, and others with the right and obligation to exercise
control over those they supervise. In this context, inappropriate sexual activity between
recruits/trainees and their respective recruiters/trainers are inherently destructive to good order and
discipline. The responsibility for identifying by regulation relationships subject to this offense and
those outside the scope of this offense (e.g., a "training and leadership position" Servicemember
and a "specially protected junior member of
the armed forces" who were married prior to assuming
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those roles as defined by this offense) is entrusted to the individual Services to determine and
specify by appropriate regulations.
(2) Knowledge. The accused must have actual or constructive knowledge that a person was a
"specially protected junior member of
the armed forces" or an "applicant for military service" (as
those terms are defined in this offense). Knowledge may be proved by circumstantial evidence.
Actual knowledge need not be shown if the accused reasonably should have known under the
circumstances the status of
the person as a "specially protected junior member of
the armed forces"
or an "applicant for military service." This may be demonstrated by regulations, training or
operating manuals, customs of
the Service, or similar evidence.
(3) Consent. Consent is not a defense to this offense.
d. Maximum punishment. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 5 years.
e. Sample spec{fications.
(1) Prohibited act with specially protectedjunior member ~~the armed
forces.
In
that
(personal
jurisdiction
data),
a
(commissioned) (warrant)
(noncommissioned) (petty) officer, while in a position of authority over_, did (at/on board-
location) (subject-matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about _
20_, engage in a
prohibited act, to wit:
with
whom the accused (knew) (reasonably
should have known) was a specially protected junior Servicemember in initial active duty training.
(2) Prohibited act with an applicamfor militaty .\·ervice.
ln that _
(personal jurisdiction data),
a
(commissioned) (warrant)
(noncommissioned) (petty) officer, while in a position of authority over
did (at/on board-
location) (subject-matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about _
20_, engage in a
prohibited act, to wit:
with
whom the accused (knew)
(reasonably
should
have
known)
was
(an
applicant
to
the
armed
forces
via
(a specially protected junior enlisted member of the armed forces
enlisted under a delayed entry program).
21. Article 94 (10 U.S.C. 894)-Mutiny or sedition
a. 1
'ext of
statute.
(a) Any person subject to this chapter who-
(1) with intent to usurp or override lawful military authority, refuses, in
concert with any other person, to obey orders or otherwise do his duty or creates any violence
or disturbance is guilty of mutiny;
(2) with intent to cause the overthrow or destruction of lawful civil authol'ity,
creates, in concert with any other person, revolt, violence, or other disturbance against that
authority is guilty of sedition;
(3) fails to do his utmost to prevent and suppress a mutiny or sedition being
committed in his presence, or fails to take all reasonable means to inform his superior
commissioned officer or commanding officer of a mutiny or sedition which he knows or has
reason to believe is taking place, is guilty of a failure to suppress or report a mutiny or
sedition.
(b) A person who is found guilty of attempted mutiny, mutiny, sedition, or failure to
suppress or report a mutiny or sedition shall be punished by death or such other punishment
as a court-martial may direct.
b. Elements.
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(
1) AlfutinJl by creating violence or disturbance.
(a) That the accused created violence or a disturbance; and
(b) That the accused created this violence or disturbance with intent to usurp or override
lavvful military authority.
(2) Alutiny by refusing to obey orders or pe1jorm duty.
(a) That the accused refused to obey orders or otherwise do the accused's duty;
(b) That the accused in refusing to obey orders or perform duty acted in concert with another
person or persons; and
(c) That the accused did so with intent to usurp or override lavvful military authority.
(3) Sedition.
(a) That the accused created revolt, violence, or disturbance against lawful civil authority;
(b) That the accused acted in concert with another person or persons; and
(c) That the accused did so with the intent to cause the overthrow or destruction of that
authority.
(
4) Failure to prevent and suppress a mutiny or sedition.
(a) That an offense of
mutiny or sedition was committed in the presence of
the accused; and
(b) That the accused failed to do the accused's utmost to prevent and suppress the mutiny or
sedition.
(5) Failure to report a mutiny or sedition.
(a) That an offense of mutiny or sedition occurred;
(b) That the accused knew or had reason to believe that the offense was taking place; and
(c) That the accused failed to take all reasonable means to inform the accused's superior
commissioned otlicer or commander of
the offense.
(6) Attempted mutiny.
(a) That the accused committed a certain overt act;
(b) That the act was done with specific intent to commit the offense of
mutiny;
(c) That the act amounted to more than mere preparation; and
(d) That the act apparently tended to effect the commission of
the offense of
mutiny.
c. }.):planation.
(1) Mutiny. Article 94(
a)(l) defines two types of mutiny, both requiring an intent to usurp or
ovenide military authority.
(a)Nfutiny by creating violence or disturbance. Mutiny by creating violence or disturbance
may be committed by one person acting alone or by more than one acting together.
(b) Mutiny by rejitsing to obey orders or perform duties. Mutiny by refusing to obey orders
or perform duties requires collective insubordination and necessarily includes some combination
of
two or more persons in resisting lawful military authority. This concert of
insubordination need
not be preconceived, nor is it necessary that the insubordination be active or violent. It may consist
simply of a persistent and concerted refusal or omission to obey orders, or to do duty, with an
insubordinate intent, that is, with an intent to usurp or override lawful military authority. The intent
may be declared in words or inferred from acts, omissions, or surrounding circumstances.
(2) Sedition. Sedition requires a concert of action in resistance to civil authority. This differs
from mutiny by creating violence or disturbance. See subparagraph c.(l)(a) of
this paragraph.
(3) Failure to prevent and suppress a mutiny or sedition. "Utmost" means taking those
measures to prevent and suppress a mutiny or sedition which may properly be called for by the
circumstances, including the rank, responsibilities, or employment of the person concerned.
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"Utmost" includes the use of such force, including deadly force, as may be reasonably necessary
under the circumstances to prevent and suppress a mutiny or sedition.
(4) Failure to report a mutiny or sedition.
(a) In general. Failure to "take all reasonable means to inform" includes failure to take the
most expeditious means available. When the circumstances known to the accused would have
caused a reasonable person in similar circumstances to believe that a mutiny or sedition was
occurring, this may establish that the accused had such "reason to believe" that mutiny or sedition
was occurring. Failure to report an impending mutiny or sedition is not an offense in violation of
Article 94. But see subparagraph 18.c.(3) (dereliction of duty).
(b) Superior commissioned officer. For purposes of this paragraph, "a superior
commissioned officer" means a superior commissioned officer in the chain of
command.
(5) Attempted mutiny. For a discussion of
attempts, see paragraph 4.
d. Maximum punishment. Death or such other punishment as a court-martial may direct.
e. Sample spec?fications.
(1) Afutiny by creating violence or disturbance.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), with intent to (usurp) (override)
(usurp and override) lawful military authority, did, (at/on board-location) (subject-matter
jurisdiction data, if required), on or about
20 _, create (violence) (a disturbance) by
(attacking the officers of the said ship) (barricading himself/herself in Barracks T7, firing (his)
(her) rifle at
and exhorting other persons to join (him) (her) in defiance of __
_,
(
).
(2) Mutiny by refusing to obey orders or perfimn duties.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), with intent to (usurp) (override)
(usurp and override) lawful military authority, did, (at/on board-location) (subject-matter
jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about __
20 _, refuse, in concert with
(and
(others whose names are unknown), to (obey the orders of
to
___
_/(perform (his) (her) duty as ___
_/
(3) Sedition.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), with intent to cause the (overthrow)
(destruction) (overthrow and destruction) oflawful civil authority, to wit:
, did, (at/on
board-location) (subject-matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about __
20 _,in
concert
with (
) and (
) (others whose names are unknown), create (revolt)
(violence) (a disturbance) against such authmity by (entering the Town Hall of
and
destroying property and records therein) (marching upon and compelling the surrender of the
police of
(
).
(4) Failure to prevent and suppress a mutiny or sedition.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter
jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about __
20 _,
fail to do (his) (her) utmost
to prevent and suppress a (mutiny) (sedition) among the (Soldiers) (Sailors) Airmen) (Marines)
(
of
, which (mutiny) (sedition) was being committed in (his) (her)
presence, in that ((he) (she) took no means to compel the dispersal of the assembly) ((he) (she)
made no effort to assist
who was attempting to quell the mutiny) '-------"
(5) Failure to report a mutiny or sedition.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about __
20 _, fail to take all reasonable
means to inform (his) (her) superior commissioned officer or (his) (her) commander of
a (mutiny)
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(sedition) among the (Soldiers) (Sailors) (Airmen) (l\1arines) (
of
, which
(mutiny) (sedition) (he) (she), the said
(knew) (had reason to believe) was taking
place.
(6) Attempted mutiny.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), with intent to (usurp) (override)
(usurp and override) lawful military authority, did, (at/on board-location) (subject-matter
jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about __
20 _,attempt to (create (violence) (a disturbance)
by_)(
).
22. Article 95 (10 U.S.C. 895)-0ffenses by sentinel or lookout
a. 1
ext of
statute.
(a) DRUNK OR SLEEPING ON POST, OR LEAVING POST BEFORE BEING RELIEVED.-Any
sentinel or lookout who is drunk on post, who sleeps on post, or who leaves post before being
regularly relieved, shall be punished-
(1) if the offense is committed in time of war, by death or such other
punishment as a court-martial may direct; and
(2) if the offense is committed other than in time of war, by such punishment,
other than death, as a court-martial may direct.
(b) LOITERING OR WRONGFULLY SITTING ON POST.-Any sentinel or lookout who
loiters or wrongfully sits down on post shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
b. Elements.
(1) Drunk or sleeping on post, or leaving post before being relieved.
(a) That the accused was posted or on post as a sentinel or lookout;
(b) That the accused was drunk while on post, was sleeping while on post, or left post before
being regularly relieved.
[Note: If
the offense was committed in time of
war or while the accused was receiving special pay
under 37 U.S.C. § 310, add the following element:]
(c) That the offense was committed (in time of war) (while the accused was receiving
special pay under 37 U.S.C. § 31 0).
(2) [,oitering or wrongfully sitting on po,\·t.
(a) That the accused was posted as a sentinel or lookout; and
(b) That while so posted, the accused loitered or wrongfully sat down on post.
[Note: If the offense was committed in time of
war or while the accused was receiving special pay
under 37 U.S.C. § 310, add the following element:]
(c) That the accused was so posted (in time of
war) (while receiving special pay under 37
U.S.C. § 310).
c. Explanation.
(1) Drunk or sleeping on post, or leaving
post before being relieved.
(a) In general. Article 95(
a) defines three kinds of misbehavior committed by sentinels or
lookouts: being drunk on post, sleeping on post, or leaving it before being regularly relieved.
Article 95(a) does not include an oflicer or enlisted person of the guard, or of a ship's watch, not
posted or perfonning the duties of
a sentinel or lookout, nor does it include a person whose duties
as a watchman or attendant do not require constant alertness.
(b) Post. "Post" is the area where the sentinel or lookout is required to be for the perfonnance
of
duties. It is not limited by an imaginary line, but includes, according to orders or circumstances,
such sun-ounding area as may be necessary for the proper performance of
the duties for which the
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sentinel or lookout was posted. The offense of leaving post is not committed when a sentinel or
lookout goes an immaterial distance from the post, unless it is such a distance that the ability to
fully perform the duty for which posted is impaired.
(c) On post. A sentinel or lookout becomes "on post" after having been given a lawful order
to go "on post" as a sentinel or lookout and being formally or informally posted. The fact that a
sentinel or lookout is not posted in the regular way is not a defense. It is sufficient, for example, if
the sentinel or lookout has taken the post in accordance with proper instruction, whether or not
formally given. A sentinel or lookout is "on post" within the meaning of
the article not only when
at a post physically defined, as is ordinarily the case in garrison or aboard ship, but also, for
example, when stationed in observation against the approach of an enemy, or detailed to use any
equipment designed to locate friend, foe, or possible danger, or at a designated place to maintain
internal discipline, or to guard stores, or to guard prisoners while in confinement or at work.
(d) Sentinel or lookouf. A "sentinel" or a "lookout" is a person whose duties include the
requirement to maintain constant alertness, be vigilant, and remain awake, in order to observe for
the possible approach of
the enemy, or to guard persons, property, or a place and to sound the alert,
if
necessary.
(e) Drunk. For an explanation of"drunk," see subparagraph 51.c.(6).
(f) Sleeping. As used in this article, "sleeping'' is that condition of insentience which is
sufficient sensibly to impair the full exercise of
the mental and physical faculties of a sentinel or
lookout. It is not necessary to show that the accused was in a wholly comatose condition. The fact
that the accused's sleeping resulted from a physical incapacity caused by disease or accident is an
affirmative defense. See R.C.M. 916(i).
(2) Loitering or wrongjidl.y sitting on post by a sentinel or lookout.
(a) In general. The discussion set forth in subparagraph 22.c.(l) applies to loitering or
sitting down while posted as a sentinel or lookout in violation of
Article 95(b) as well.
(b) Loiter. "Loiter" means to stand around, to move about slowly, to linger, or to lag behind
when that conduct is in violation of known instructions or accompanied by a failure to give
complete attention to duty.
d. Alaximum punishment.
(1) Drunk or sleeping on post, or leaving post before being relieved
(a) In time oj\var. Death or such other punishment as a court-martial may direct.
(b) While receiving special pay under 37 U.S.C. § 310. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture
of
all pay and allowances, and confinement for 10 years.
(c) In all other places. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 1 year.
(2) Loitering or wrongfi1lly sitting on post by a sentinel or lookout.
(a) In time of
war or while receiving special pay under 37 US.C. § 310. Dishonorable
discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and confinement for 2 years.
(b) Other cases. Bad-conduct discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 6 months.
e. Sample specifications.
(1) Drunk or sleeping on post, or leaving post before being relieved.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), on or about
20
(a time of
war) (at/on board-location), (while receiving special pay under 37 U.S. C. § 310), being (posted)
(on post) as a (sentinel) (lookout) at (warehouse no. 7) (post no. 11) (for radar observation)
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'----)(was
(drunk) (sleeping) upon (his) (her) post) (did leave (his) (her) post before (he)
(she) was regularly relieved).
(2) Loitering or vt•rongfully sitting dmt•n on post by a sentinel or lookout.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), while posted as a (sentinel)
(lookout), did, (at/on board-location) (while receiving special pay under 37 U.S.
C. § 310) on or
about __
20 _,(a time of
war) (loiter) (wrongfully sit down) on (his) (her) post.
23. Article 95a (10 U.S.C. 895a)-Disrespect toward sentinel or lookout
a. Text «f
statute.
(a) DISRESPECTFUL LANGUAGE TOWARD SENTINEL OR LOOKOUT.-Any person
subject to this chapter who, knowing that another person is a sentinel or lookout, uses
wrongful and disrespectful language that is directed toward and within the hearing of the
sentinel or lookout, who is in the execution of
duties as a sentinel or lookout, shall be punished
as a court-martial may direct.
(b) DISRESPECTFUL BEHAVIOR TOWARD SENTINEL OR LOOKOUT.-Any per-son subject
to this chapter who, knowing that another person is a sentinel or lookout, behaves in a
wt·ongful and disrespectful manner that is directed toward and within the sight of the
sentinel or lookout, who is in the execution of
duties as a sentinel or lookout, shall be punished
as a court-martial may direct.
b. F.lements·.
(1) Disre.\pectfullanguage toward sentinel or lookout.
(a) That a certain person was a sentinel or lookout;
(b) That the accused knew that said person was a sentinel or lookout;
(c) That the accused used certain disrespectful language;
(d) That such lanf:,ruage was wrongful;
(e) That such language was directed toward and within the hearing of the sentinel or
lookout; and
(f) That said person was at the time in the execution of
duties as a sentinel or lookout.
(2) Disrespectful behavior toward sentinel or lookout.
and
(a) That a certain person was a sentinel or lookout;
(b) That the accused knew that said person was a sentinel or lookout;
(c) That the accused behaved in a certain disrespectful manner;
(d) That such behavior was wrongful;
(e) That such behavior was directed toward and within the sight of
the sentinel or lookout;
(f) That said person was at the time in the execution of
duties as a sentinel or lookout.
c. Explanation. See subparagraph 15.c.(2)(b) for a discussion of"disrespect."
d. Maximum punishment. Confinement for 3 months and forfeiture of two-thirds pay per month
for 3 months.
e. Sample specification.
(1) Disrespectful language toward
sentinel or lookout.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction, if required), on or about __
20 _,then knowing that
was a
sentinel or lookout, wrongfully use the following disrespectful language"
,"or words
to that effect, to
, and that such language was directed toward and within the hearing
of
the (sentinel) (lookout) in the execution of
(his) (her) duty.
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(2) Disrespec{fitl behavior toward sentinel or lookout.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction, if required), on or about __
20 _,then knowing that
was a
sentinel or lookout, wrongfully behave in a disrespectful manner toward
, by
_____
, and that such behavior was directed toward and within the sight of
, the
(sentinel) (lookout) in the execution of
(his) (her) duty
24. Article 96 (10 U.S.C. 896)-Release of
prisoner without authority; drinking with prisoner
a. Text of
statute.
(a) RELEASE OF PRISONER WITHOUT AUTHORITY.-Any person subject to this
chapter-
(1) who, without authority to do so, releases a prisoner; or
(2) who, through neglect or design, allows a prisoner to escape;
shall be punished as a court-martial may direct, whether or not the prisoner was committed
in strict compliance with the law.
(b) DRINKING WITH PRISONER.-Any person subject to this chapter who unlawfully
drinks any alcoholic beverage with a prisoner shall be punished as a court-martial may
direct.
b. F.lements.
(
1) Releasing a prisoner without authority.
(a) That a certain person was a prisoner; and
(b) That the accused released the ptisoner without authority.
(2) A /lowing a prisoner to escape through neglect.
(a) That a certain person was a prisoner;
(b) That the prisoner escaped;
(c) That the accused did not take such care to prevent the escape as a reasonably
careful person, acting in the capacity in which the accused was acting, would have taken in the
same or similar circumstances; and
(d) That the escape was the proximate result of
the neglect
(3)Allowing a prisoner to esctrpe through design.
(a) That a certain person was a prisoner;
(b) That the design of
the accused was to allow the escape of
that prisoner; and
(c) That the prisoner escaped as a result of the carrying out of the design of the
accused.
(
4) Drinking 1vith prisoner.
(a) That a certain person was a prisoner; and
(b) That the accused unlawfully drank any alcoholic beverage with that prisoner.
c. }.,).:planation.
(1) Prisoner. A prisoner is a person who is in confinement or custody imposed under
R.C.M. 302, 304, or 305, or under sentence of
a court-martial who has not been set free by a person
with authority to release the prisoner.
(2) Releasing a prisoner without authority.
(a) Release. The release of a prisoner is removal of
restraint by the custodian rather
than by the prisoner.
(b) Authority to release. See R.C.M. 305(g) as to who may release pretrial
prisoners. Normally, the lowest authority competent to order release of
a post-trial prisoner is the
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commander who convened the court-martial that sentenced the prisoner or the officer exercising
general court-martial jurisdiction over the prisoner. See also R.C.M. 1103.
(3) Allowing a prisoner to escape through neglect.
(a) Allow. "Allow" means to permit; not to forbid or hinder.
(b) Neglect. "Neglect" is a relative term. It is the absence of conduct that would
have been taken by a reasonably careful custodian in the same or similar circumstances.
(c) Escape. "Escape" is defined in subparagraph 12.c.(5)(c).
(d) Status of
prisoner after escape not a defense. After escape, the fact that a
prisoner returns, is captured, killed, or otherwise dies is not a defense.
(
4) Allowing a prisoner to escape through design. An escape is allowed through design
when it is intended by the custodian. Such intent may be inferred from conduct so wantonly devoid
of
care that the only reasonable inference which may be draVvn is that the escape was contemplated
as a probable result.
(5) Drinking with prisoner. For purposes of this section, "unlawful" is synonymous with
"wrongful." That is, it is unlawful to drink an alcoholic beverage with a prisoner unless the accused
had a legal justification or excuse to do so. Tn this context, any consumption of alcohol with a
prisoner would be unlawful unless the accused had been granted specific authority to do so by
competent authority (e.g., a commander of a confinement facility authorizing limited alcohol
consumption by prisoners on a holiday or special occasion).
d. Maximum punishment.
(1) Releasing a prisoner without authority. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay
and allowances, and confinement for 2 years.
(2) Allmving a prisoner to escape through neglect. Bad-conduct discharge, forfeiture of
all
pay and allowances, and confinement for 2 years.
(3) Allowing a prisoner to escape through design. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of
all
pay and allowances, and confinement for 5 years.
(4) Drinking with prisoner. Confinement for 1 year and forfeiture of two-thirds pay per
month for 1 year.
e. Sample specifications.
( 1) Releasing a prisoner without authority.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction, if
required), on or about __
20 _,without authmity, release ____
_,
a pnsoner.
(2)Allowing a prisoner to escape through neglect or design.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction, if required), on or about __
20 _, through (neglect) (design), allow
_____
, a prisoner, to escape.
(3) Drinking with prisoner.
In that __
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-matter jurisdiction,
if
required), on or about __
20 _, unlawfully drink alcohol with
, a pnsoner.
25. Article 97 (10 U.S.C. 897)-Unlawful detention
a Text of
statute.
Any person subject to this chapter who, except as provided by law, apprehends,
arrests, or confines any person shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
b. Elements.
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(
1) That the accused apprehended, arrested, or confined a certain person; and
(2) That the accused unlawfully exercised the accused's authority to do so.
c. Explanation.
(1) Scope. This article prohibits improper acts by those empowered by the UCMJ to arrest,
apprehend, or confine. See Articles 7 and 9; R.C.M. 302, 304, 305, and 1103, and paragraph 2 and
subparagraph S.b., Part V. It does not apply to private acts of false imprisonment or unlawful
restraint of
another's freedom of
movement by one not acting under such a delegation of
authority
under the UCMJ.
(2) Noforce required. The apprehension, arrest, or confinement must be against the will of
the
person restrained, but force is not required.
(3) Defense. A reasonable belief held by the person imposing restraint that it is lawful is a
defense.
d. Maximum punishment. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 3 years.
e. Sample .~pecdication.
Tn that
(personal jurisdiction data) (subject-matter jurisdiction, if required),
did, (at/on board-location), on or about __
20 _,unlawfully (apprehend
(place
in arrest) (confine
m
---------
---------'
26. Article 98 (10 U.S.C. 898)-Misconduct as prisoner
a. Text (?!statute.
Any person subject to this chapter who, while in the hands of the enemy in time of
war-
(1) for the purpose of securing favorable treatment by his captors acts without
proper authority in a manner contrar·y to law, custom, or regulation, to the detriment of
others of
whatever nationality held by the enemy as civilian or military prisoners; or
(2) while in a position of authority over such persons maltreats them without
justifiable cause;
shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
b. Elements.
(
1) Acting without authority to the detriment of
another for the purpose of
securing
favorable
treatment.
(a) That without proper authority the accused acted in a manner contrary to law, custom, or
regulation;
(b) That the act was committed while the accused was in the hands of
the enemy in time of
war;
(c) That the act was done for the purpose of
securing favorable treatment of
the accused by
the captors; and
(d) That other prisoners held by the enemy, either military or civilian, suffered some
detriment because of the accused's act.
(2) !Maltreating prisoners while in a position of
authority.
(a) That the accused maltreated a prisoner held by the enemy;
(b) That the act occurred while the accused was in the hands of
the enemy in time ofwar;
(c) That the accused held a position of authority over the person maltreated; and
(d) That the act was without justifiable cause.
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c. Explanation.
(1) Enemy. For a discussion of"enemy," see subparagraph 27.c.(1)(b).
(2) In time of
war. See R.C.M. 103(21).
(3) Acting without authority to the detriment of
another jar the pwpose of
securing
favorable
treatment.
(a) Nature ~f
offense. Unauthorized conduct by a prisoner of
war must be intended to result
in improvement by the enemy of
the accused's condition and must operate to the detriment of
other
prisoners either by way of doser confinement, reduced rations, physical punishment, or other
harm. Examples of this conduct include reporting plans of escape being prepared by others or
reporting secret food caches, equipment, or arms. The conduct of
the prisoner must be contrary to
law, custom, or regulation.
(b) Escape. Escape from the enemy is authorized by custom. An escape or escape attempt
which results in closer confinement or other measures against fellow prisoners still in the hands of
the enemy is not an offense under this article.
(
4) 114altrealing prisoners while in a po.<;ition of
authority.
(a) Authori(y. The source of authority is not material. It may arise from the military rank of
the accused or-despite Service regulations or customs to the contrary--designation by the captor
authorities, or voluntary election or selection by other prisoners for their self-government.
(b) Maltreatment. The maltreatment must be real, although not necessarily physical, and it
must be without justifiable cause. Abuse of an inferior by inflammatory and derogatory words
may, through mental anguish, constitute this offense.
d. Maximum punishment. Any punishment other than death that a court-martial may direct.
e. Sample .~pecifications.
(1) Acting without authority to the detriment(!{
another for the purpose (?{securing favorable
treatment.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), while in the hands of the enemy,
did, (at/on board-location) (subject-matter jurisdiction, if required), on or about __
20 _, a
time of
war, without proper authority and for the purpose of securing favorable treatment by (his)
(her) captors, (report to the commander of
Camp
the preparations by
, a
prisoner at said camp, to escape, as a result of
which report the said __
was placed in solitary
confinement) (
).
(2) Maltreating prisoner while in a position of
authority.
h1 that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction, if
required), on or about __
20 _,a
time of
war, while in the hands
of
the enemy and in a position of
authority over
, a prisoner at
, as (officer
in charge of prisoners at__)(__), maltreat the said __
by (depriving (him) (her) of
__)
(__),
without justifiable cause.
27. A•·ticle 99 (10 U.S.C. 899)-Misbehavior before the enemy
a Text (ifstatute.
Any member of
the armed forces who before or in the presence of the enemy-
(1) runs away;
(2) shamefully abandons, surrenders, or delivers up any command, unit, place,
or military property which it is his duty to defend;
(3) through disobedience, neglect, or intentional misconduct endangers the
safety of any such command, unit, place, or military property;
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(4) casts away his arms or ammunition;
(5) is guilty of cowardly conduct;
(6) quits his place of duty to plunder or pillage;
(7) causes false alarms in any command, unit, or place under control of the
armed forces;
(8) willfully fails to do his utmost to encounter, engage, capture, or destroy any
enemy troops, combatants, vessels, aircraft, or any other thing, which it is his duty so to
encounter, engage, capture, or destroy; or
(9) does not afford all practicable relief and assistance to any troops,
combatants, vessels, or aircraft of the armed forces belonging to the United States or their
allies when engaged in battle;
shall be punished by death or such other punishment as a court-martial may direct.
b. F:lements.
(1) Running mvay.
(a) That the accused was before or in the presence of
the enemy;
(b) That the accused misbehaved by running away; and
(c) That the accused intended to avoid actual or impending combat with the enemy by
runmng away.
(2) Shamefully abandoning, surrendering, or delivering up command.
(a) That the accused was charged by orders or circumstances with the duty to defend a
certain command, unit, place, ship, or military property;
(b) That, without
justification, the accused shamefully abandoned, surrendered, or delivered
up that command, unit, place, ship, or military property; and
(c) That this act occurred while the accused was before or in the presence of
the enemy.
(3) l.,'ndangering safety of
a command, unit, place, ship, or military property.
(a) That it was the duty of the accused to defend a certain command, unit, place, ship, or
certain military property;
(b) That the accused committed certain disobedience, neglect, or intentional misconduct;
(c) That the accused thereby endangered the safety of the command, unit, place, ship, or
military property; and
(d) That this act occurred while the accused was before or in the presence of
the enemy.
(
4) Casting mvay arms or ammunition.
(a) That the accused was before or in the presence of
the enemy; and
(b) That the accused cast away certain anns or ammunition.
(
5) Cmvardly conduct.
(a) That the accused committed an act of cowardice;
(b) That this conduct occurred while the accused was before or in the presence of
the enemy;
and
(c) That this conduct was the result of
fear.
(
6) Quitting
place of
duty to plunder or pi
!!age.
(a) That the accused was before or in the presence of the enemy;
(b) That the accused quit the accused's place of
duty; and
(c) That the accused's intention in quitting was to plunder or pillage public or private
property.
(7) Causingfalse alarms.
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(a) That an alarm was caused in a certain command, unit, or place under control of the
armed forces of
the United States;
(b) That the accused caused the alarm;
(c) That the alarm was caused without any reasonable or sufficient justification or excuse;
and
(d) That this act occurred while the accused was before or in the presence of
the enemy.
(8) Willfully failing to do utmost to encounter enemy.
(a) That the accused was serving before or in the presence of
the enemy;
(b) That the accused had a duty to encounter, engage, capture, or destroy certain enemy
troops, combatants, vessels, aircraft, or a certain other thing; and
(c) That the accused willfully failed to do the utmost to perform that duty.
(9) Failing to qfford relief
and assistance.
(a) That certain troops, combatants, vessels, or aircraft of
the armed forces belonging to the
United States or an ally of the United States were engaged in battle and required relief and
assistance;
(b) That the accused was in a position and able to render relief and assistance to these troops,
combatants, vessels, or aircraft, without jeopardy to the accused's mission;
(c) That the accused failed to afford all practicable relief and assistance; and
(d) That, at the time, the accused was before or in the presence of
the enemy.
c. F;xplanation.
(1) Running cnvay.
(a) Running away. "Running away" means an unauthorized departure to avoid actual or
impending combat It need not, however, be the result of
fear, and there is no requirement that the
accused literally mn.
(b) l!J'nemy. Enemy includes organized forces of
the enemy in time of
war, any hostile body
that our forces may be opposing, such as a rebellious mob or a band of renegades, and includes
civilians as well as members of military organizations. Enemy is not restricted to the enemy
government or its armed forces. All the citizens of
one belligerent are enemies of
the government
and all the citizens of
the other.
(c) Before or in the presence qf
the enemy. Whether a person is before or in the presence of
the enemy is a question of
tactical relation, not distance. For example, a member of
an antiaircraft
gun crew charged with opposing anticipated attack from the air, or a member of a unit about to
move into combat may be before the enemy although miles from the enemy lines. On the other
hand, an organization some distance from the front or immediate area of combat which is not a
part of
a tactical operation then going on or in immediate prospect is not "before or in the presence
of
the enemy" within the meaning of
this article.
(2) Shameful~v
abandoning, surrendering, or delivering up of
command.
(a) Scope. This provision concerns primarily commanders chargeable with responsibility
for defending a command, unit, place, ship or militmy property. Abandonment by a subordinate
would ordinarily be charged as mnning away.
(b) Shameful. Surrender or abandonment without justification is shameful within the
meaning ofthis atiicle.
(c) Surrender; deliver up. "Surrender" and "deliver up" are synonymous for the purposes
of
this article.
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(d) Justification. Surrender or abandonment of a command, unit, place, ship, or military
property by a person charged with its defense can be justified only by the utmost necessity or
extremity.
(3) Endangering safety C?fa command, unit, place, ship, or militm}'property.
(a) Neglect. Neglect is the absence of
conduct which would have been taken by a reasonably
careful person in the same or similar circumstances.
(b) Intentional misconduct. Intentional misconduct does not include a mere error in
judgment.
(4) Casting awcry arms or ammunition. Self-explanatory.
(5) Cowardly conduct.
(a) Cowardice. Cowardice is misbehavior motivated by fear.
(b) Fear. Fear is a natural feeling of
apprehension when going into battle. The mere display
of
apprehension does not constitute this offense.
(c) Nature qf
qffense. Refusal or abandonment of a performance of duty before or in the
presence of
the enemy as a result of fear constitutes this offense.
(d) Defense. Genuine and extreme illness, not generated by cowardice, is a defense.
(6) Quitting
place (?f duty to plunder or pillage.
(a) Place (?f
duty. Place of
duty includes any place of
duty, whether permanent or temporary,
fixed or mobile.
(b) Plunder or pillage. "Plunder or pillage" means to seize or appropriate public or private
property unlawfully.
(c) Nature C?f(?[(er!se. The essence of
this offense is quitting the place of
duty with intent to
plunder or pillage. Merely quitting with that purpose is suflicient, even if
the intended misconduct
is not done.
(7) Causing false alarms. This provision covers spreading of false or disturbing mmors or
reports, as well as the false giving of established alarm signals.
(8) Wil/fuUyfailing to do utmost to encounter enemy. Willfully refusing a lawful order to go on
a combat patrol may violate this provision.
(9) }eli
ling to afford
relief
and assistance.
(a) All practicable relief
and assistance. "All practicable relief and assistance" means all
relief and assistance which should be afforded within the limitations imposed upon a person by
reason of
that person's own specific tasks or mission.
(b) Nature of
offense. This offense is limited to a failure to afford relief and assistance to
forces engaged in battle.
d. i\1aximum punishment. All offenses under Article 99. Death or such other punishment as a court-
martial may direct.
e. Sample specifications.
(1) Running away.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction, if
required), on or about __
20 _,(before) (in the presence of) the
enemy, mn away (from (his) (her) company) (and hide)(_), (and did not retum until after the
engagement had been concluded) '-----'
(2) Shamefully abandoning, surrendering, or delivering up command.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction, if
required), on or about __
20 _, (before) (in the presence of) the
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enemy, shamefully (abandon) (surrender) (deliver up) ____
, which it was (his) (her) duty
to defend.
(3) Endangering safety of
a command, unit, place, ship, or milita1y property.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction, if
required), on or about __
20 _, (before) (in the presence of) the
enemy, endanger the safety of
, which it was (his) (her) duty to defend, by (disobeying
an order from
to engage the enemy) (neglecting (his) (her) duty as a sentinel by
engaging in a card game while on (his) (her) post) (intentional misconduct in that (he) (she) became
drunk and fired flares, thus revealing the location of(his) (her) unit)(
__
).
(
4) Casting mvay arms or ammunition.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction, if
required), on or about __
20 _,(before) (in the presence of) the
enemy, cast away (his) (her) (rifle) (ammunition) ,
___
,
(5) Cowardly conduct.
Tn that
(personal jurisdiction data), (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction, if
required), on or about
20 _,(before) (in the presence of) the enemy,
was guilty of cowardly conduct as a result of
fear, in that ____
_
(
6) Quiffing place l?{ duty to plunder or
pillage.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction, if
required), on or about __
20 _,(before) (in the presence of) the
enemy, quit (his) (her) place of duty for the purpose of (plundering) (pillaging) (plundering and
pillaging).
(7) Causingfi:.rL'}e alarms.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction, if
required), on or about __
20 _,(before) (in the presence ot) the
enemy, cause a false alarm in (Fort_)
(the said ship) (the camp)(_)
by (needlessly and
without authority (causing the call to anns to be sounded) (sounding the general alarm))(
__
).
(8) Willfully failing to do utmost to encounter enemy.
In that
(personal juri
sdi cti
on data), being (before) (in the presence ot)
the enemy, did, (at/on board-location) (subject-matter jurisdiction, if required), on or about
__
20 _,by, (ordering (his) (her) troops to halt their advance) (
, willfully fail to
do (his) (her) utmost to (encounter) (engage) (capture) (destroy), as it was (his) (her) duty to do,
(certain enemy troops which were in retreat)'-----'
(9) Failing to afford relief
and assistance.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction, if
required), on or about __
20 _, (before) (in the presence of) the
enemy, fail to afford all practicable relief and assistance to (the USS
, which was
engaged in battle and had run aground, in that (he) (she) failed to take her in tow) (certain troops
of the ground forces of
, which were engaged in battle and were pinned down by
enemy fire, in that (he) (she) failed to furnish air cover)
as (he) (she) properly should
have done.
28. Article 100 (10 U.S.C. 900)-Subordinate compelling surrender
a. Text of
statute.
Any person subject to this chapter who compels or attempts to compel the
commander of any place, vessel, aircraft, or other military property, or of any body of
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members of the armed forces, to give it up to an enemy or to abandon it, or who strikes the
colors or flag to an enemy without proper authority, shall be punished by death or such other
punishment as a court-martial may direct.
b. Elements.
(1) Compelling surrender.
(a) That a certain person was in command of a certain place, vessel, aircraft, or other
military property or of a body of
members of
the armed forces;
(b) That the accused did an oveti act which was intended to and did compel that commander
to give it up to the enemy or abandon it; and
(c) That the place, vessel, aircraft, or other military property or body of members of the
armed forces was actually given up to the enemy or abandoned.
(2) Attempting to compel surrender.
(a) That a certain person was in command of a certain place, vessel, aircraft, or other
military property or of a body of
members ofthe armed forces;
(b) That the accused did a certain overt act;
(c) That the act was done with the intent to compel that commander to give up to the enemy
or abandon the place, vessel, aircraft, or other military property or body of members of
the armed
forces;
(d) That the act amounted to more than mere preparation; and
(e) That the act apparently tended to bring about the compelling of surrender or
abandonment.
(3) Striking the colors or
flag.
(a) That there was an ofter of surrender to an enemy;
(b) That this offer was made by striking the colors or flag to the enemy or in some other
manner;
(c) That the accused made or was responsible for the oiler; and
(d) That the accused did not have proper authority to make the offer.
c. E,xplanation.
(1) Compelling surrender.
(a) Nature of
offense. The o±lenses under this article are similar to mutiny or attempted
mutiny designed to bring about surrender or abandonment. Unlike some cases of
mutiny, however,
concert of action is not an essential element of the offenses under this article. The offense is not
complete until the place, military property, or command is actually abandoned or given up to the
enemy.
(b) Surrender. "Surrender" and "to give it up to an enemy" are synonymous.
(c) Acts required. The surrender or abandonment must be compelled or attempted to be
compelled by acts rather than words.
(2) Attempting to compel surrender. The offense of attempting to compel a surrender or
abandonment does not require actual abandonment or surrender, but there must be some act done
with this purpose in view, even if it does not accomplish the purpose.
(3) Striking the colors or
flag.
(a) In general. To "strike the colors or flag" is to haul down the colors or flag in the face of
the enemy or to make any other offer of
surrender. It is traditional wording for an act of
surrender.
(b )Nature C<f offense. The offense is committed when one assumes the authority to surrender
a military force or position when not authorized to do so either by competent authority or by the
necessities of
battle. If
continued battle has become fruitless and it is impossible to communicate
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with higher authority, those facts will constitute proper authority to surrender. The offense may be
committed whenever there is sufficient contact with the enemy to give the opportunity of making
an offer of surrender and it is not necessary that an engagement with the enemy be in progress. It
is unnecessary to prove that the offer was received by the enemy or that it was rejected or accepted.
The sending of
an emissary charged with making the offer or surrender is an act sufficient to prove
the offer, even though the emissary does not reach the enemy.
(4) Enemy. For a discussion of"enemy," see subparagraph 27.c.(l)(b
).
d. Jlvfaximum punishment. All offenses under Article 100. Death or such other punishment as a
court-martial may direct.
e. Sample spec{fications.
(I) Compelling surrender or attempting to compel surrender.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction, if required), on or about
20 _, (attempt to) compel
the commander of
(to give up to the enemy) (to abandon) said
-----:----' by-----
(2) Striking the colors or.flag.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction, if required), on or about
20 _, without proper authority, offer
to surrender to the enemy by (striking the (colors) (flag)) L_).
29. Article 101 (10 U.S.C. 901)-lmproper use of countersign
a. Text ofstatute.
Any person subject to this chaptet· who in time of war discloses the parole or
countersign to any person not entitled to receive it or who gives to another who is entitled to
receive and use the parole or countersign a different parole or countersign from that which,
to his knowledge, he was authorized and required to give, shall be punished by death or such
other punishment as a court-martial may direct.
b. F:lements.
(1) Disclosing the parole or countersign to one not entitled to receive it.
(a) That, in time of war, the accused disclosed the parole or countersign to a person,
identified or unidentified; and
(b) That this person was not entitled to receive it.
(2) Giving a parole or countersign different
from that authorized.
(a) That, in time of
war, the accused knew that the accused was authorized and required to
give a certain parole or countersign; and
(b) That the accused gave to a person entitled to receive and use this parole or countersign
a different parole or countersign from that which the accused was authorized and required to give.
c. t,J<planation.
(1) Countersign. A countersign is a word, signal, or procedure given from the principal
headquarters of a command to aid guards and sentinels in their scrutiny of persons who apply to
pass the lines. It consists of
a secret challenge and a password, signal, or procedure.
(2) Parole. A parole is a word used as a check on the countersign; it is given only to those who
are entitled to inspect guards and to commanders of
guards.
(3) Who may receive countersign. The class of persons entitled to receive the countersign or
parole will expand and contract under the varying circumstances of war. Who these persons are
will be determined largely, in any particular case, by the general or special orders under which the
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accused was acting. Before disclosing such a word, a person subject to military law must determine
at that person's peril that the recipient is a person authorized to receive it.
(4) Intent, motive, negligence, mistake, ignorance not defense. The accused's intent or motive
in disclosing the countersign or parole is immaterial to the issue of guilt, as is the fact that the
disclosure was negligent or inadvertent. It is no defense that the accused did not know that the
person to whom the countersign or parole was given was not entitled to receive it.
(5) How accused received countersign or parole. It is immaterial whether the accused had
received the countersign or parole in the regular course of
duty or whether it was obtained in some
other way.
(6)/n time of1"''ar. See R.C.M. 103(21).
d. Nfaximum punishment. Death or such other punishment as a court-martial may direct.
e. Sample spec?fications.
(1) Disclosing the parole or countersign lo one not entitled to receive it.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction, if required), on or about
20 _, a time of war, disclose the
(parole) (countersign), to wit:
to
a person who was not entitled to
receive it.
(2) Giving a parole or countersign d{fferentfrom that authorized.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction, if required), on or about __
20 _, a time of war, give to
_____
, a person entitled to receive and use the (parole) (countersign), a (parole)
(countersign), namely:
which was different from that which, to (his) (her) knowledge,
(he) (she) was authorized and required to give, to wit: ____
_
30. Article 102 (10 U.S.C. 902)-Forcing a safeguard
a. Text (?{statute.
Any person subject to this chapter who forces a safeguard shall suffer death or such
other punishment as a court-martial may direct.
b. Elements.
(1) That a safeguard had been issued or posted for the protection of
a certain person or persons,
place, or property;
(2) That the accused knew or should have known of
the safeguard; and
(3) That the accused forced the safeguard.
c. Lxp/anation.
(1) Safeguard. A safeguard is a detachment, guard, or detail posted by a commander for the
protection of
persons, places, or property of
the enemy, or of
a neutral affected by the relationship
of belligerent forces in their prosecution of war or during circumstances amounting to a state of
belligerency. The term also includes a written order left by a commander with an enemy subject
or posted upon enemy property for the protection of that person or property. A safeguard is not a
device adopted by a belligerent to protect its own property or nationals or to ensure order within
its own forces, even if
those forces are in a theater of combat operations, and the posting of
guards
or of off-limits signs does not establish a safeguard unless a commander takes those actions to
protect enemy or neutral persons or property. The effect of a safeguard is to pledge the honor of
the nation that the person or property shall be respected by the national armed forces.
(2) Forcing a safeguard. "Forcing a safeguard" means to perform an act or acts in violation of
the protection of
the safeguard.
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(3) Nature ofojfense. Any trespass on the protection of
the safeguard will constitute an offense
under this article, whether the safeguard was imposed in time of
war or in circumstances amounting
to a state of
belligerency short of
a formal state of
war.
(4) Knowledge. Actual knowledge of
the safeguard is not required. It is sufficient if
an accused
should have known of
the existence of
the safeguard.
d.lvfaximum punishment. Death or such other punishment as a court-martial may direct.
e. Sample specification.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-matter
jurisdiction, if required), on or about __
20 _, force a safeguard, (known by (him) (her) to
have been placed over the premises occupied by
at
by (overwhelming
the guard posted for the protection of
the same),
_____
,,,
_____
,
31. Article 103 (10 U.S.C. 903)-Spies
a. Text of
statute.
Any person who in time of
war is found lurking as a spy or acting as a spy in or about
any place, vessel, or aircraft, within the control m· jurisdiction of
any of the armed forces, or
in or about any shipyard, any manufacturing or industrial plant, or any other place or
institution engaged in work in aid of the prosecution of the war by the United States, or
elsewhere, shall be tried by a general court-martial or by a military commission and on
conviction shall be punished by death or such other punishment as a court-martial or a
military commission may direct. This section does not apply to a military commission
established under chapter 47
A of this title.
b. F:lement."!'.
(1) That the accused was found in, about, or in and about a certain place, vessel, or aircraft
within the control or jurisdiction of an armed force of the United States, or a shipyard,
manufacturing or industrial plant, or other place or institution engaged in work in aid of the
prosecution of
the war by the United States, or elsewhere;
(2) That the accused was lurking, acting clandestinely or under false pretenses;
(3) That the accused was collecting or attempting to collect certain information;
(
4) That the accused did so with the intent to convey this information to the enemy; and
(5) That this was done in time of
war.
c. Explanation.
(l)ln time ofwar. See R.C.M. 103(21).
(2)1inemy. For a discussion of"enemy," see subparagraph 27.c.(l)(b).
(3) Scope of
offense. The words "any person" bring within the jurisdiction of general courts-
martial and military commissions all persons of
whatever nationality or status who commit spying.
(4) Nature of
offense. A person can be a spy only when, acting clandestinely or under false
pretenses, that person obtains or seeks to obtain information with the intent to convey it to a hostile
party. It is not essential that the accused obtain the infonnation sought or that it be communicated.
The offense is complete with lurking or acting clandestinely or under false pretenses with intent to
accomplish these objects.
(5) Intent. It is necessary to prove an intent to convey infonnation to the enemy. This intent
may be inferred from evidence of a deceptive insinuation of the accused among our forces, but
evidence that the person had come within the lines for a comparatively innocent purpose, as to
visit family or to reach friendly lines by assuming a disguise, is admissible to rebut this inference.
(
6) Persons not included under "spying. "
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(a) Members of a military organization not wearing a disguise, dispatch drivers, whether
members of
a military organization or civilians, and persons in ships or aircraft who carry out their
missions openly and who have penetrated enemy lines are not spies because, while they may have
resorted to concealment, they have not acted under false pretenses.
(b) A spy who, after rejoining the armed forces to which the spy belongs, is later captured
by the enemy incurs no responsibility for previous acts of spying.
(c) A person living in occupied territory who, without lurking, or acting clandestinely or
under false pretenses, merely reports what is seen or heard through agents to the enemy may be
charged under Article 103a with giving intelligence to or communicating with the enemy, but may
not be charged under this article as being a spy.
d. A1aximum punishment. Death or such other punishment as a court-martial or military
commission may direct.
e. Sample specification.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), was, (at/on board-location) (subject-matter
jurisdiction, ifrequired), on or about
20 _,a
time of war, found (lurking) (acting) as a spy
(in) (about) (in and about)
, (a (fortification) (port) (base) (vessel) (aircraft)
within the (control) Gurisdiction) (control and jurisdiction) of an armed force of
the United States, to wit:
(a (shipyard) (manufacturing plant) (industrial plant)
engaged in work in aid of the prosecution of the war by the United States)
'-------''for
the purpose of (collecting) (attempting to collect) information in regard to the
[(numbers) (resources) (operations) (_) of the armed forces of the United States] [(military
production)
of
the United States] [
], with intent to impat1 the same to the enemy.
32. Article 103a (10 U.S.C. 903a)-Espionage
a. 1
ext of
statute.
(a)(1) Any person subject to this chapter who, with intent or reason to believe that it
is to be used to the injury of the United States or to the advantage of a foreign nation,
communicates, delivers, or transmits, or attempts to communicate, deliver, or transmit, to
any entity described in paragraph (2), either directly or indirectly, anything described in
paragraph (3) shall be punished as a court-martial may direct, except that if the accused is
found guilty of an offense that directly concerns (A) nuclear weaponry, military spacecraft
or satellites, early warning systems, or other means of defense or retaliation against large
scale attack, (B) war plans, (C) communications intelligence or cryptographic information,
or (D) any other major weapons system or majo1· element of defense strategy, the accused
shall be punished by death or such other punishment as a court-martial may direct.
(2) An entity referred to in paragraph (1) is-
(A) a foreign government;
(B) a faction or party or military or naval force within a foreign
country, whether recognized or unrecognized by the United States; or
(C) a representative, officer, agent, employee, subject, or citizen of such
a government, faction, party, or force.
(3) A thing referred to in paragraph (1) is a document, writing, code book,
signal bool{, sketch, photograph, photographic negative, blueprint, plan, map, model, note,
instrument, appliance, or information •·elating to the national defense.
(b)(l) No person may be sentenced by court-martial to suffer death for an offense
under this section (article) unless-
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(A) the members of the court-martial unanimously find at least one of
the aggravating factors set out in subsection (c); and
(B) the members unanimously determine that any extenuating or
mitigating circumstances are substantially outweighed by any aggravating circumstances,
including the aggravating factors set out in subsection (c).
(2) Findings under this subsection may be based on-
(A) evidence introduced on the issue of guilt or innocence;
(B) evidence introduced during the sentencing proceeding; or
(C) all such evidence.
(3) The accused shall be given broad latitude to present matters in extenuation
and mitigation.
(c) A sentence of death may be adjudged by a court-martial for an offense under this
section (article) only if the members unanimously find, beyond a reasonable doubt, one or
more of the following aggravating factors:
(1) The accused has been convicted of another offense involving espionage or
treason for which either a sentence of death or imprisonment for life was authorized by
statute.
(2) In the commission of the offense, the accused knowingly created a grave
risk of substantial damage to the national security.
(3) In the commission of the offense, the accused knowingly created a gt·ave
risk of death to another person.
(
4) Any other factor that may be presct·ibed by the President by regulations
under section 836 of this title (article 36).
b. Elements.
(
1) b~pionage.
(a) That the accused communicated, delivered, or transmitted any document, writing, code
book, signal book, sketch, photograph, photographic negative, blueprint, plan, map, model, note,
instrument, appliance, or information relating to the national defense;
(b) That this matter was communicated, delivered, or transmitted to any foreign
government, or to any faction or party or military or naval force within a foreign country, whether
recognized or unrecognized by the United States, or to any representative, officer, agent,
employee, subject or citizen thereof, either directly or indirectly; and
(c) That the accused did so with intent or reason to believe that such matter would be used
to the injury of
the United States or to the advantage of
a foreign nation.
(2) Attempted espionage.
(a) That the accused did a certain overt act;
(b) That the act was done with the intent to commit the offense of
espionage;
(c) That the act amounted to more than mere preparation; and
(d) That the act apparently tended to bring about the offense of
espionage.
(3) Espionage as a capital offense.
(a) That the accused committed espionage or attempted espionage; and
(b) That the offense directly concerned (I) nuclear weaponry, military spacecraft or
satellites, early warning systems, or other means of
defense or retaliation against large scale attack,
(2) war plans, (3) communications intelligence or cryptographic information, or (4) any other
major weapons system or major element of
defense strategy.
c. Explanation.
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(1) Intent. "Intent or reason to believe that the information is to be used to the injury of the
United States or to the advantage of a foreign nation" means that the accused acted in bad faith
and without lawful authority with respect to information that is not lawfully accessible to the
public.
(2) National defense information. "Instrument, appliance, or information relating to the national
defense" includes the full range of modern technology and matter that may be developed in the
future, including chemical or biological agents, computer technology, and other matter related to
the national defense.
(3) Espionage as a capital Q[fense. Capital punishment is authorized if the government alleges
and proves that the offense directly concemed (1) nuclear weaponry, military spacecraft or
satellites, early waming systems, or other means of
defense or retaliation against large scale attack,
(2) war plans, (3) communications intelligence or cryptographic information, or (4) any other
major weapons system or major element of defense strategy. See R.C.M. 1004 concerning
presentencing proceedings in capital cases.
d. Maximum punishment.
(1) F:spionage as a capital offense. Death or such other punishment as a court-martial may
direct.
(2) F:spionage or alfempted espionage. Any punishment, other than death, that a court-martial
may direct.
e. Sample spec{fication.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction, if
required), on or about
20 _, with intent or reason to believe it would
be used to the injury of the United States or to the advantage of
, a foreign nation,
(attempt to) (communicate) (deliver) (transmit)
(description of item), (a document)
(a writing) (a code book) (a sketch) (a photograph) (a photographic negative) (a blueprint) (a plan)
(a map) (a model) (a note) (an instrument) (an appliance) (information) relating to the national
defense, [(which directly concerned (nuclear weaponry) (military spacecraft) (military satellites)
(early waming systems)
a means of defense or retaliation against a large scale
attack) (war plans) (communications intelligence) (cryptographic information)(_, a major
weapons system)
a major element of
defense strategy)] to
((a representative
of) (an officer of) (an agent of) (an employee of) (a subject of) (a citizen of)) ((a foreign
government) (a faction within a foreign country) (a party within a foreign country) (a military force
within a foreign country) (a naval force within a foreign country)) (indirectly by _____
,
33. Article 103b (10 U.S.C. 903b)-Aiding the enemy
a. Text ofstatute.
Any person who-
(1) aids, or attempts to aid, the enemy with arms, ammunition, supplies,
money, or other things; or
(2) without proper authority, knowingly harbors or protects or gives
intelligence to, or communicates or corresponds with or holds any intercourse with the
enemy, either directly or indirectly;
shall suffer death or such other punishment as a court-martial or military commission may
direct. This section does not apply to a military commission established under chapter 47
A
of this title.
b. Elements.
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(!)Aiding the enemy.
(a) That the accused aided the enemy; and
(b) That the accused did so with certain arms, ammunition, supplies, money, or other things.
(2) Attempting to aid the enemy.
(a) That the accused did a certain overt act;
(b) That the act was done with the intent to aid the enemy with certain arms, ammunition,
supplies, money, or other things;
(c) That the act amounted to more than mere preparation; and
(d) That the act apparently tended to bring about the offense of aiding the enemy with
certain arms, ammunition, supplies, money, or other things.
(3) Harboring or protecting the enemy.
(a) That the accused, without proper authority, harbored or protected a person;
(b) That the person so harbored or protected was the enemy; and
(c) That the accused knew that the person so harbored or protected was an enemy.
(4) Giving intelligence to the enemy.
(a) That the accused, without proper authority, knowingly gave intelligence information to
the enemy; and
(b) That the intelligence information was true, or implied the truth, at least in part.
(5) Communicatingwith the enemy.
(a) That the accused, without proper authority, communicated, corresponded, or held
intercourse with the enemy; and;
(b) That the accused knew that the accused was communicating, corresponding, or holding
intercourse with the enemy.
c. Explanation.
(1) Scope of
Article 103b. This article denounces ofienses by all persons whether or not
othervv-ise subject to military law. om~nders may be tried by court-martial or by military
commission.
(2) bwmy. For a discussion of"enemy," see subparagraph 27.c.(l)(b).
(3)Aiding or attempting to aid
the enemy. It
is not a violation of
this article to furnish prisoners
of
war subsistence, quarters, and other comforts or aid to which they are lawfully entitled.
(
4) Harboring or protecting the enemy.
(a) Nature of
offense. An enemy is harbored or protected when, without proper authority,
that enemy is shielded, either physically or by use of
any artifice, aid, or representation from any
injury or misfortune which in the chance of
war may occur.
(b) Knowledge. Actual knowledge is required, but may be proved by circumstantial
evidence.
(5) Giving intelligence to the enemy.
(a) Nature ofojfense. Giving intelligence to the enemy is a particular case of
corresponding
with the enemy made more serious by the fact that the communication contains intelligence that
may be useful to the enemy for any of the many reasons that make information valuable to
belligerents. This intelligence may be conveyed by direct or indirect means.
(b) Intelligence. Intelligence imports that the information conveyed is true or implies the
truth, at least in part.
(c) Knowledge. Actual knowledge is required but may be proved by circumstantial
evidence.
(6) Communicating with the enemy.
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(a) Nature of
the ojji:mse. No unauthorized communication, correspondence, or intercourse
with the enemy is permissible. The intent, content, and method of the communication,
correspondence, or intercourse are immaterial. No response or receipt by the enemy is required.
The offense is complete the moment the communication, correspondence, or intercourse issues
from the accused. The communication, correspondence, or intercourse may be conveyed directly
or indirectly. A prisoner of war may violate this Article by engaging in unauthorized
communications with the enemy. See also subparagraph 26.c.(3).
(b) Knowledge. Actual knowledge is required but may be proved by circumstantial
evidence.
(c) Citizens of
neutral powers. Citizens of
neutral powers resident in or visiting invaded or
occupied tenitory can claim no immunity from the customary laws of war relating to
communication with the enemy.
d. Maximum punishment.
Death or such other punishment as a court-martial or military commission may direct.
e. Sample .~pec{ficalions.
(1) Aiding or attempting to aid the enemy.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction, ifrequired), on or about
20 _,(attempt to) aid the enemy with
(arms) (ammunition) (supplies) (money) (__), by (furnishing and delivering to
members ofthe enemy's armed forces
L_).
(2) Harboring or protecting the enemy.
ln that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction, if required), on or about __
20 _, without proper authority,
knowingly (harbor) (protect)
, an enemy, by (concealing the said
in (his) (her)
house) (
).
(3) Giving intelligence to the enemy.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction, if required), on or about __
20 _, without proper authority,
knowingly give intelligence to the enemy, by (informing a patrol of the enemy's forces of the
whereabouts of
a military patrol of
the United States forces) L_).
(
4) Communicating with the enemy.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction, if required), on or about __
20 _, without proper authority,
knowingly (communicate witl1) (correspond with) (hold intercourse with) the enemy (by writing
and transmitting secretly through the lines to one
, whom (he) (she), the said
_____
, knew to be (an officer of the enemy's anned forces) L_) a communication in
words and figures substantially as follows, to wit: __
) (indirectly by publishing in __
, a
newspaper published at __
, a communication in words and figures as follows, to wit: __
,
which communication was intended to reach the enemy) (
).
34. Article 104 (10 U.S.C. 904)-Public records offenses
a. Text ofstatute.
Any person subject to this chapter who, willfully and unlawfully-
(1) alters, conceals, removes, mutilates, obliterates, or destroys a public
record; or
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(2) takes a public record with the intent to alter, conceal, remove, mutilate,
obliterate, or destroy the public record;
shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
b. Elements.
(l) That the accused altered, concealed, removed, mutilated, obliterated, destroyed, or took
with the intent to alter, conceal, remove, mutilate, obliterate, or destroy, a cetiain public record;
and
(2) That the act of
the accused was willful and unlawful.
c. Explanation. "Public records" include records, reports, statements, or data compilations, in any
form, of public offices or agencies, setting forth the activities of the office or agency, or matters
observed pursuant to duty imposed by law as to which matters there was a duty to report. "Public
records" include classified matters.
d. Nfaximum punishmefll. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 3 years.
e. Sample ,\pec{flcation.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about
20 _, willfully and unlawfully [(alter)
(conceal) (remove) (mutilate) (obliterate) (destroy)] [take with intent to (alter) (conceal) (remove)
(mutilate) (obliterate) (destroy)] a public record, to wit: ___
_
35. Article 104a (10 U.S.C. 904a)--Fraudulent enlistment, appointment, or separation
a. Text <:?[statute.
Any person who-
(
1) procures his own enlistment or appointment in the armed forces by
knowingly false representation or deliberate concealment as to his qualifications for that
enlistment or appointment and receives pay ot· allowances thereunder; or
(2) procures his own sepat·ation from the armed forces by knowingly false
representation or deliberate concealment as to bis eligibility for that separation;
shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
b. Element.Y.
(1) Fraudulent enlistment or appointment.
(a) That the accused was enlisted or appointed in an armed force;
(b) That the accused knowingly misrepresented or deliberately concealed a certain material
fact or facts regarding qualifications of
the accused for enlistment or appointment;
(c) That the accused's enlistment or appointment was obtained or procured by that
knowingly false representation or deliberate concealment; and
(d) That under this enlistment or appointment that accused received pay or allowances or
both.
(2) Fraudulent separation.
(a) That the accused was separated from an anned force;
(b) That the accused knowingly misrepresented or deliberately concealed a ce1iain material
fact or facts about the accused's eligibility for separation; and
(c) That the accused's separation was obtained or procured by that knowingly false
representation or deliberate concealment.
c. Explanation.
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(
1) In general. A fraudulent enlistment, appointment, or separation is one procured by either a
knowingly false representation as to any of the qualifications prescribed by law, regulation, or
orders for the specific enlistment, appointment, or separation, or a deliberate concealment as to
any of those disqualifications. Matters that may be material to an enlistment, appointment, or
separation include any information used by the recruiting, appointing, or separating ofticer in
reaching a decision as to enlistment, appointment, or separation in any particular case, and any
information that normally would have been so considered had it been provided to that officer.
(2) Receipt of
pay or allowances. A member of the a1med forces who enlists or accepts an
appointment without being regularly separated from a prior enlistment or appointment should be
charged under Article 104a only if that member has received pay or allowances under the
fraudulent enlistment or appointment. Acceptance of
food, clothing, shelter, or transportation from
the Government constitutes receipt of allowances. However, whatever is furnished the accused
while in custody, confinement, arrest, or other restraint pending trial for fraudulent enlistment or
appointment is not considered an allowance. The receipt of pay or allowances may be proved by
circumstantial evidence.
(3) One qffense. One who procures one's own enlistment, appointment, or separation by
several misrepresentations or concealment as to qualifications for the one enlistment, appointment,
or separation so procured, commits only one offense under Article 104a.
d. Maximum punishment.
(1) Fraudulent enlistment or appointment. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and
allowances, and confinement for 2 years.
(2) Fraudulent separation. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 5 years.
e. Sample .~pec(fications.
( 1) For fraudulent enlistment or appointment.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction, if required), on or about __
20 _, by means of [knowingly false
representations that (here state the fact or facts material to qualification for enlistment or
appointment which were represented), when in fact (here state the true fact or facts)] [deliberate
concealment of
the fact that (here state the fact or facts disqualifying the accused for enlistment or
appointment which were concealed)], procure himself/herself to be (enlisted as a -----'
(appointed as a
in the (here state the armed force in which the accused procured the
enlistment or appointment), and did thereafter, (at/on board-location), receive (pay) (allowances)
(pay and allowances) under the enlistment) (appointment) so procured.
(2) Forjraudulent separation.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction, if required), on or about __
20 _, by means of [knowingly false
representations that (here state the fact or facts material to eligibility for separation which were
represented), when in fact (here state the true fact or facts)] [deliberate concealment of
the fact that
(here state the fact or facts concealed which made the accused ineligible for separation)], procure
himself/herself to be separated from the (here state the anned force from which the accused
procured (his) (her) separation).
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36. Article 104b (10 U.S.C. 904b)-Unlawful enlistment, appointment, or separation
a. Text o.fstatute.
Any person subject to this chapter who effects an enlistment or appointment in or a
separation from the armed forces of any person who is known to him to be ineligible for that
enlistment, appointment, or separation because it is prohibited by law, regulation, or order
shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
b. Elements.
( 1) That the accused effected the enlistment, appointment, or separation of
the person named;
(2) That this person was ineligible for this enlistment, appointment, or separation because it
was prohibited by law, regulation, or order; and
(3) That the accused knew of the ineligibility at the time of the enlistment, appointment, or
separation.
c. F.xplanation. Tt must be proved that the enlistment, appointment, or separation was prohibited
by law, regulation, or order when effected and that the accused then knew that the person enlisted,
appointed, or separated was ineligible for the enlistment, appointment, or separation.
d. lvfaximum punishmenl. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 5 years.
e. Sample .~pecdfcalion.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction, if
required), on or about
20 _,effect [the (enlistment) (appointment) of
_____
as a
in (here state the armed force in which the person was enlisted or
appointed)] [the separation of
from (here state the armed force from which the person
was separated)], then well knowing that the said
was ineligible for such (enlistment)
(appointment) (separation) because (here state facts whereby the enlistment, appointment, or
separation was prohibited by law, regulation, or order).
37. Article 105 (10 U.S.C. 905)-Forgery
a. Text (?{statute.
Any person subject to this chapter who, with intent to defraud-
(
1) falsely makes or alters any signature to, 01· any part of, any writing which
would, if genuine, apparently impose a legal liability on another or change his legal right or
liability to his prejudice; or
(2) utters, offers, issues, or transfers such a writing, known by him to be so
made or altered;
is guilty of forgery and shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
b. Elements.
(
1) Forgery-making or altering.
(a) That the accused falsely made or altered a certain signature or writing;
(b) That the signature or VvTiting was of
a nature which would, if
genuine, apparently impose
a legal liability on another or change another's legal rights or liabilities to that person's prejudice;
and
(c) That the false making or altering was with the intent to defraud.
(2) Forgery-uttering.
(a) That a certain signature or w-riting was falsely made or altered;
(b) That the signature or writing was of
a nature which would, if
genuine, apparently impose
a legal liability on another or change another's legal rights or liabilities to that person's prejudice;
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(c) That the accused uttered, offered, issued, or transferred the signature or writing;
(d) That at such time the accused knew that the signature or writing had been falsely made
or altered; and
(e) That the uttering, offering, issuing or transferring was with the intent to defraud.
c. Explanation.
(1) In general. Forgery may be committed either by falsely making a writing or by knowingly
uttering a falsely made writing. There are three elements common to both aspects of forgery: a
writing falsely made or altered; an apparent capability of
the writing as falsely made or altered to
impose a legal liability on another or to change another's legal rights or liabilities to that person's
prejudice; and an intent to defraud.
(2) False. "False" refers not to the contents of the writing or to the facts stated therein but to
the making or altering of it. Hence, forgery is not committed by the genuine making of a false
instrument even when made with intent to defraud. A person who, with intent to defraud, signs
that person's own signature as the maker of a check drawn on a bank in which that person does
not have money or credit does not commit forgery. Although the check falsely represents the
existence of the account, it is what it purports to be, a check drawn by the actual maker, and
therefore it is not falsely made. But see paragraph 70. Likewise, if
a person makes a false signature
of another to an instrument, but adds the word "by" with that person's own signature thus
indicating authority to sign, the offense is not forgery even if
no such authority exists. False recitals
of
fact in a genuine document, as an aircraft flight report which is "padded" by the one preparing
it, do not make the writing a forgery. But see paragraph 41 concerning false official statements.
(3) Signatures. Signing the name of another to an instrument having apparent legal efficacy
without authority and with intent to defraud is forgety as the signature is falsely made. The
distinction is that in this case the falsely made signature purports to be the act of one other than
the actual signer. Likewise, a forgery may be committed by a person signing that person's own
name to an instrument. For example, when a check payable to the order of
a certain person comes
into the hands of another of the same name, forgery is committed it~ knowing the check to be
another's, that person indorses it with that person's own name intending to defraud. Forgery may
also be committed by signing a fictitious name, as when Roe makes a check payable to Roe and
signs it with a fictitious name-Doe--as drawer.
(
4) Nature of
writing. The writing must be one which would, if genuine, apparently impose a
legal liability on another, as a check or promissory note, or change that person's legal rights or
liabilities to that person's prejudice, as a receipt. Some other instruments which may be the subject
of forgery are orders for the delivery of money or goods, railroad tickets, and military orders
directing travel. A writing falsely "made" includes an instrument that may be partially or entirely
printed, engraved, written with a pencil, or made by photography or other device. A writing may
be falsely "made" by materially altering an existing writing, by filling in a paper signed in blank,
or by signing an instmment already written. With respect to the apparent legal efficacy of the
writing falsely made or altered, the writing must appear either on its face or from extrinsic facts to
impose a legal liability on another, or to change a legal right or liability to the prejudice of
another.
If under all the circumstances the instrument has neither real nor apparent legal efficacy, there is
no forgery. Thus, the false making with intent to defraud of
an instrument affirmatively invalid on
its face is not forgery nor is the false making or altering, with intent to defraud, of a writing which
could not impose a legal liability, as a mere letter of
introduction. However, the false making of
another's signature on an instmment with intent to defraud is forgery, even if there is no
resemblance to the genuine signature and the name is misspelled.
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(5) Intent to defraud. See subparagraph 70.c.(l4). The intent to defraud need not be directed
toward anyone in particular nor be for the advantage of the offender. It is immaterial that nobody
was actually defrauded, or that no further step was made toward carrying out the intent to defraud
other than the false making or altering of
a writing.
(
6) Alteration. The alteration must effect a material change in the legal tenor of the writing.
Thus, an alteration which apparently increases, diminishes, or discharges any obligation is
material. Examples of material alterations in the case of a promissory note are changing the date,
amount, or place of payment. If
a genuine wTiting has been delivered to the accused and while in
the accused's possession is later found to be altered, it may be inferred that the writing was altered
by the accused.
(7) Uttering. See subparagraph 70.c.(4).
d. Maximum punishment. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 5 years.
e. Sample spec~fications.
(1) Forgery-making or altering.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about __
20 _, with intent to defraud,
falsely [make (in its entirety) (the signature of
as an indorsement to) (the signature of
to) L_)
a certain (check) (writing)(__) in the following words and figures, to wit:
] [alter a certain (check) (writing)(
__
) in thefo11owing words and figures, to wit: __
,
by (adding thereto
(
) ], which said (check) (writing) (_)
would, if genuine,
apparently operate to the legal harm of another [*and which
(could be) (was) used to the
legal harm of __
, in that __
].
[*Note: This allegation should be used when the document specified is not one which by its nature
would clearly operate to the legal prejudice of another-for example, an insurance application.
The manner in which the document could be or was used to prejudice the legal rights of another
should be alleged in the last blank]
(2) Forgery-uttering.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about __
20 _, with intent to defraud,
(utter) (offer) (issue) (transfer) a certain (check) (writing) (
) in the following words
and figures, to wit:
, a writing which would, if
genuine, apparently operate to the legal
harm of another, (which said (check) (writing) (_))
(the signature to which said (check)
(writing) (
)) (_)
was, as (he) (she), the said __
, then well knew, falsely (made)
(altered) (*and which __
(could be) (was) used to the legal harm of __
, in that_).
[*Note: See the note following (1), of subparagraph e.]
38. Article 105a (10 U.S.C. 905a)-False or unauthorized pass offenses
a. Text ofstatute.
(a) WRONGFUL MAKING, ALTERING, ETC.-Any pe1·son subject to this chapter who,
wrongfully and falsely, makes, alters, counterfeits, or tampers with a military or official pass,
permit, discharge certificate, or identification card shall be punished as a court-martial may
direct.
(b) WRONGFUL SALE, ETC.-Any person subject to this chapter who wrongfully sells,
gives, lends, or disposes of a false or unauthorized military or official pass, permit, discharge
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certificate, or identification card, knowing that the pass, permit, discharge certificate, or
identification card is false or unauthorized, shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
(c) WRONGFUL USE OR POSSESSION.-Any person subject to this chapter who
wrongfully uses or possesses a false or unauthorized military or official pass, permit,
discharge certificate, or identification card, knowing that the pass, permit, discharge
certificate, or identification card is false or unauthorized, shall be punished as a court-
martial may direct.
b. Elements.
(1) Wrongful making, altering, counteJ:feiting, or tampering with a militmy or qfficial pass.
permit, discharge certificate, or identification card.
(a) That the accused wrongfully and falsely made, altered, counterfeited, or tampered with
a certain military or official pass, permit, discharge certificate, or identification card; and
(b) That the accused then knew that the pass, permit, discharge certificate, or identification
card was false or unauthorized.
(2) Wrongful sale, gift, loan, or di.'lposition l?f a military or t?fficial pass, permit, disch1..1rge
cert{ficate, or ident!fication card.
(a) That the accused wrongfully sold, gave, loaned, or disposed of a certain military or
official pass, permit, discharge certificate, or identification card;
(b) That the pass, permit, discharge certificate, or identification card was false or
unauthorized; and
(c) That the accused then knew that the pass, permit, discharge certificate, or identification
card was false or unauthorized.
(3) Wrongful use or possession of
a false or unauthorized militmy or (ifjicial pass, permit,
discharge cert~ficate, or iden~fication
card.
(a) That the accused wrongfully used or possessed a certain military or otlicial pass, permit,
discharge certificate, or identification card;
(b) That the pass, permit, discharge certificate, or identification card was false or
unauthorized; and
(c) That the accused then knew that the pass, pennit, discharge certificate, or identification
card was false or unauthorized.
[Note: When there is intent to defraud or deceive, add the following element:]
(d) That the accused used or possessed the pass, pennit, discharge certificate, or
identification card with intent to defraud or deceive.
c. Explanation.
(
1) In general. Military or official pass, permit, discharge certificate, or identification card
includes, as well as the more usual forms of these documents, all documents issued by any
governmental agency for the purpose of
identification and copies thereof.
(2) Intent to deftmtd or deceive. See subparagraphs 70.c.(l4) and (15).
d. lvfaximum punishment.
(
1) Possessing or using with intent to deft'Clltd or deceive, or making, altering, counte1jeiting,
tampering with, or selling. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 3 years.
(2) All other cases. Bad-conduct discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 6 months.
e. Sample spec~fications.
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(1) Wrongfi1l making, altering, countetjeiting, or tampering with military or official pass,
permit, discharge certificate, or identification card.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about __
20 _, wrongfully and falsely
(make) (forge) (alter by
(counterfeit) (tamper with by
(a certain
instrument purporting to be) (a) (an) (another's) (naval) (military) (official) (pass) (permit)
(discharge certificate) (identification card)
in words and figures as follows
(2) TiVrongful sale, g?ft, loan, or disposition qf
a militaJ)l or qfficial pass, permit, discharge
certificate, or identification card.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about __
20 _,wrongfully (sell to ---'
(give to
(loan to
(dispose of by
(a certain instrument purporting to be) (a)
(an) (another's) (naval) (military) (official) (pass) (pennit) (discharge certificate) (identification
card)(
__
) in words and figures as follows: __
, (he)(she), the said __
, then well knowing
the same to be (false) (unauthorized).
(3) TVrongful use or pos:;;ession (?fa false or unauthorized military or official pass, permit,
discharge cert{ficate, or ideni{fication card.
Jn that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20 _,wrongfully (use) (possess)
(with intent to (defraud) (deceive)) (a certain instrument purporting to be) (a) (an) (another's)
(naval) (military) (official) (pass) (permit) (discharge ce1tificate) (identification card)
(
), (he) (she), the said
, then well knowing the same to be (false)
(unauthorized).
39. Article 106 (10 U.S.C. 906)-lmpersonation of officer, noncommissioned or petty officer,
or agent or official
a. Text (?{statute.
(a) IN GENERAL-Any person subject to this chapter who, wrongfully and willfully,
impersonates-
(1) an officer, a noncommissioned officer, or a petty officer;
(2) an agent of superior authority of one of the armed forces; or
(3) an official of a government;
shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
(b) IMPERSONATION WITH INTENT TO DEFRAUD.-Any person subject to this chapter
who, wrongfully, willfully, and with intent to defraud, impersonates any person referred to
in paragraph (1), (2), or (3) of subsection (a) shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
(c) IMPERSONATION OF GOVERNMENT OFFICIAL WITHOUT INTENT TO DEFRAUD.-Any
person subject to this chapter who, wrongfully, willfully, and without intent to defraud,
impersonates an official of a government by committing an act that exercises or asserts the
authority of the office that the person claims to have shall be punished as a court-martial
may direct.
b. Elements.
(1) That the accused impersonated an officer, noncommissioned officer, or petty officer, or an
agent of superior authority of
one of
the armed forces, or an official of a certain government, in a
certain manner; and
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(2) That the impersonation was wrongful and willful.
[Note 1: If
intent to defraud is in issue, add the following element:]
(3) That the accused did so with the intent to defraud a certain person or organization in a certain
manner.
[Note 2: If
the accused is charged with impersonating an official of a certain government without
an intent to defraud, use the following element:]
(3) That the accused committed one or more acts which exercised or asserted the authority of
the office the accused claimed to have.
c. Explanation.
(1) Nature of
offense. Impersonation does not depend upon the accused deriving a benefit from
the deception or upon some third party being misled, although this is an aggravating factor.
(2) Officer. The term "officer" has the same meaning as that term carries in 10 U.S.C. §
1
01 (b )(1 ).
(3) Wif!fulness. "Willful" means with the knowledge that one is falsely holding one's self out
as such.
(
4) Intent to defraud. See subparagraph 70.c.(14).
d. Aiaximum punishment.
(1) With intent to defraud. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 3 years.
(2) All other cases. Bad-conduct discharge, forfeiture of a11 pay and allowances, and
confinement for 6 months.
f. Sample specification.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about
20 __;, wrongfully and willfully
impersonate (a(n) (oflicer) (noncommissioned oflicer) (petty otlicer) (agent of
superior authority)
of
the (Army) (Navy) (Marine Corps) (Air Force) (Coast Guard)) (an of1icial of
the Government
of
by (publicly wearing the uniform and insignia of rank of a (lieutenant of the
____
_, '--__,))(showing the credentials of
(_)[*with
intent to defraud
__
by
[**and (exercised) (asserted) the authority of __
by __
J
[*See subparagraph b note 1.]
[**See subparagraph b note 2.]
40. Article 106a (10 U.S.C. 906a)-Wearing unauthorized insignia, decoration, badge,
ribbon, device, or lapel button
a Text ofstatute.
Any person subject to this chapter-
(1) who is not authorized to wear an insignia, decoration, badge, ribbon,
device, or lapel button; and
(2) who wrongfully wears such insignia, decoration, badge, ribbon, device, or
lapel button upon the person's uniform or civilian clothing;
shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
b. Elements.
(I) That the accused wore a certain insignia, decoration, badge, ribbon, device, or lapel button
upon the accused's uniform or civilian clothing;
(2) That the accused was not authorized to wear the item; and
(3) That the wearing was wrongfuL
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[Note: If
applicable, add the following element]
(4) That the accused wore any of
the following decorations: (Medal ofHonor); (Distinguished
Service Cross); (Navy Cross); (Air Force Cross); (Silver Star); (Purple Heart) (or any valor device
on any personal award).
c. Explanation.
(1) In general. Authorization of
the wearing of
a military insignia, decoration, badge, ribbon,
device, or lapel pin is governed by Department of Defense and Service regulations. The wearing
of an item is "wrongful" where it is intentional and the accused knew that the accused was not
entitled to wear it.
(2) Scope of "unauthorized" wearing. The wearing of an item is not unauthorized if the
circumstances reveal it to be in jest or for an innocent or legitimate purpose-for instance, as part
of
a costume for dramatic or other reasons, or for legitimate law enforcement activities.
(3) Wrongful. Conduct is wrongful when it is done without legal justification or excuse. Actual
knowledge that the accused was not authorized to wear the item in question is required. Knowledge
may be proved by circumstantial evidence.
d. Maximum punishment.
(1) Wrongful wearing <?f the A1edal <?f Honor; Di.'l"linguished Service Cross; Navy Cros
.
..,·; Air
Force Cross; Silver Star; Purple Heart; or a valor device on any personal award. Bad-conduct
discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and confinement for 1 year.
(2) All other cases. Bad-conduct discharge, forfeiture of all pay and a11owances, and
confinement for 6 months.
e. Sample .spec{ficafion.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction, if
required), on or about
20 __,wrongfully, without authority, wear
upon
(his) (her) (uniform) (civilian clothing) (the insignia or grade of
a (master sergeant of ____
_;
(chief gunner's mate of
(Combat Infantryman Badge) (the Distinguished Service
Cross) (the ribbon representing the Silver Star) (the lapel button representing the Legion of
Merit)
(
).
41. Article 107 (10 U.S.C. 907)-False official statements; false swearing
a. Text <?!statute.
(a) FALSE OFFICIAL STATEMENTS.-Any person subject to this chapter who, with
intent to deceive--
(
1) signs any false record, return, regulation, or·der, or other official document,
knowing it to be false; or
(2) makes any other false official statement knowing it to be false;
shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
(b) FALSE SWEARING.-Any person subject to this chapter-
(
1) who takes an oath that-
(
A) is administered in a matter in which such oath is required or
authorized by law; and
(B) is administered by a person with authority to do so; and
(2) who, upon such oath, makes or subscribes to a statement;
if the statement is false and at the time of taking the oath, the person does not believe the
statement to be true, shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
b. Elements.
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(1) False official statements.
(a) That the accused signed a certain official document or made a certain official statement;
(b) That the document or statement was false in certain particulars;
(c) That the accused knew it to be false at the time of signing it or making it; and
(d) That the false document or statement was made with the intent to deceive.
(2) False swearing.
(a) That the accused took an oath or equivalent;
(b) That the oath or equivalent was administered to the accused in a matter in which such
oath or equivalent was required or authorized by law;
(c) That the oath or equivalent was administered by a person having authority to do so;
(d) That upon this oath or equivalent the accused made or subscribed a certain statement;
(e) That the statement was false; and
(f) That the accused did not then believe the statement to be true.
c. Explanation.
(1) Fal"!e <?fficial statement:;,·.
(a) Stafemenfs. Statements may be made orally or in writing and include records, returns,
regulations, orders, or other documents.
(b) Official statements. Official statements are those that affect military functions, which
encompass matters within the jurisdiction of
the military departments and Services. There are
three broad categories of official statements under this offense:
(i) where the accused makes a statement while acting in the line of
duty or where the
statement bears a clear and direct relationship to the accused's official duties;
(ii) where the accused makes a statement to a military member who is carrying out a
military duty at the time the statement is made; or
(iii) where the accused makes a statement to a civilian who is necessarily performing a
military function at the time the accused makes the statement.
(c) Status of
victim of
deception. The rank or status of any person intended to be deceived is
immaterial if
that person was authorized in the execution of a particular duty to require or receive
the statement from the accused. The Government may be the victim of
this offense.
(d) intent to deceive. The false representation must be made with the intent to deceive. It is
not necessary that the false statement be material to the issue inquiry. If, however, the falsity is in
respect to a material matter, it may be considered as some evidence of
the intent to deceive, while
immateriality may tend to show an absence of
this intent.
(e) Material gain. The expectation of material gain is not an element of
this offense. Such
expectation or lack of it, however, is circumstantial evidence bearing on the element of intent to
deceive.
(f) Knowledge that the statementH·asfalse. The false representation must be one which the
accused actually knew was false. Actual knowledge may be proved by circumstantial evidence.
An honest, although erroneous, belief
that a statement made is true, is a defense.
(2) False swearing.
(a) Nature of
offense. False swearing is the making under a lawful oath or equivalent of
any
false statement, oral or written, not believing the statement to be tme. It does not include such
statements made in a judicial proceeding or course of justice, as those are under Article 131,
perjury (see paragraph 81 ). Unlike a false official statement, there is no requirement that the
statement be made with an intent to deceive or that the statement be official.
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(b) Oath. See Article 136 and R.C.M. 807 as to the authority to administer oaths, and see
Section IX of Part III (Military Rules of
Evidence) concerning proof of
the signatures of persons
authorized to administer oaths. An oath includes an affirmation when authorized in lieu of
an oath.
d. A1aximun1 punishment.
(1) False C!!ficial statement. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 5 years.
(2) False swearing. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 3 years.
e. Sample spec{jications.
(
1) False official statements.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location),
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20 _,with intent to deceive, [sign
an official (record) (return)
to wit:
[make to __
, an official statement, to wit:
which (record) (return) (statement) L_)
was (totally false) (false in that
and
was then known by the said
to be so false.
(2) False swearing.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about
20
(in an affidavit) (in
(make) (subscribe) under lawful (oath) (affirmation) a false statement in substance
as follows:
, which statement (he) (she) did not then believe to be true.
42. Article 107a (10 U.S.C. 907a)--Parole violation
a. Text <?{statute.
Any person subject to this chapter-
(1) who, having been a prisoner as the result of a court-martial conviction or
other criminal proceeding, is on parole with conditions; and
(2) who violates the conditions of parole;
shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
b. Elements.
(1) That the accused was a prisoner as the result of
a court-martial conviction or other
criminal proceeding;
(2) That the accused was on parole;
(3) That there were certain conditions of
parole that the parolee was bound to obey; and
(4) That the accused violated the conditions of
parole by doing an act or failing to do an act.
c. 1'-xp/anation.
(1) "Prisoner" refers only to those in confinement resulting from conviction at a court-martial
or other criminal proceeding.
(2) "Parole" is defined as "word of honor." A prisoner on parole, or parolee, has agreed to
adhere to a parole plan and conditions of parole. A parole plan is a written or oral agreement made
by the prisoner prior to parole to do or refrain from doing certain acts or activities. A parole plan
may include a residence requirement stating where and with whom a parolee will live, and a
requirement that the prisoner have an offer of guaranteed employment. Conditions of parole
include the parole plan and other reasonable and appropriate conditions of parole, such as paying
restitution, beginning or continuing treatment for alcohol or drug abuse, or paying a fine ordered
executed as part of the prisoner's court-martial sentence. In return for giving his or her word of
honor to abide by a parole plan and conditions of parole, the prisoner is granted parole.
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d. Aiaximum punishment. Bad-conduct discharge, confinement for 6 months, and forfeiture of
two-
thirds pay per month for 6 months.
e. Sample specification.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), a p1isoner on parole, did, (at/on board-
location) (subject-matter jurisdiction, if required), on or about __
20 _,violate the conditions
of(his) (her) parole by ___
_
43. Article 108 (10 U.S.C. 908)-Military property of United States-Loss, damage,
destruction, or wrongful disposition
a. Text of
statute.
Any person subject to this chapter who, without proper authority-
(1) sells m· otherwise disposes of;
(2) willfully or through neglect damages, destroys, or loses; or
(3) willfully or through neglect suffers to be lost, damaged, destroyed, sold, or
wrongfully disposed of;
any military property of the United States, shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
b. F.lements.
(1) Selling or othenvise di.'>posing of
military property.
(a) That the accused sold or otherwise disposed of certain property (which was a firearm or
explosive);
(b) That the sale or disposition was without proper authority;
(c) That the property was military property of
the United States; and
(d) That the property was of
a certain value.
(2) Damaging, destroying, or losing military
property.
(a) That the accused, without proper authority, damaged or destroyed certain property in a
certain way, or lost certain property;
(b) That the property was military property of
the United States;
(c) That the damage, destmction, or loss was willtully caused by the accused or was the
result of
neglect by the accused; and
(d) That the property \Vas of
a certain value or the damage was of
a certain amount.
(3) Suffering militmy
property to be lost, damaged, destroyed, sold, or wrongfully disposed of
(a) That certain property (which was a firearm or explosive) was lost, damaged, destroyed,
sold, or wrongfully disposed of;
(b) That the property was military property of
the United States;
(c) That the loss, damage, destmction, sale, or wrongful disposition was suffered by the
accused, without proper authority, through a certain omission of duty by the accused;
(d) That the omission was willful or negligent; and
(e) That the property was of a certain value or the damage was of a certain amount.
c. Explanation.
(1) Afilitary property. Military property is all property, real or personal, owned, held, or used
by one of the armed forces ofthe United States. Military property is a term of art, and should not
be confused with Government property. The terms are not interchangeable. While all military
property is Government property, not all Government property is military property. An item of
Government property is not military property unless the item in question meets the definition
provided in this paragraph. It is immaterial whether the property sold, disposed, destroyed, lost, or
damaged had been issued to the accused, to someone else, or even issued at all. If it is proved by
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either direct or circumstantial evidence that items of
individual issue were issued to the accused,
it may be inferred, depending on all the evidence, that the damage, destmction, or loss proved was
due to the neglect of the accused. Retail merchandise of Service exchange stores is not military
prope1ty under this article.
(2) Suffering militmy
property to be lost, damaged, destroyed, sold, or lJ>rongfully disposed of
"To suffer" means to allow or permit. The willful or negligent sufferance specified by this article
includes: deliberate violation or intentional disregard of some specific law, regulation, or order;
reckless or unwarranted personal use of
the property; causing or allowing it to remain exposed to
the weather, insecurely housed, or not guarded; permitting it to be consumed, wasted, or injured
by other persons; or loaning it to a person, known to be irresponsible, by whom it is damaged.
(3) Value and
damage. In the case ofloss, destruction, sale, or wrongful disposition, the value
of
the property controls the maximum punishment which may be adjudged. In the case of
damage,
the amount of
damage controls. As a general rule, the amount of
damage is the estimated or actual
cost of repair by the Government agency normally employed in such work, or the cost of
replacement, as shown by Government price lists or otherwise, whichever is less.
(4) Firearm or explosive. For purposes of determining the maximum punishment for this
offense (see subparagraphs d.(1)(b) and d.(3)(b)), the term "explosive" includes ammunition. See
generally R.C.M. 1
03(11 ), (12).
d. A,faximum punishment.
(1) Selling or otherwise disposing l?f
milifaty property.
(a) Of
a value of$1,000 or less. Bad-conduct discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances,
and confinement for 1 year.
(b) Of
a value (if more than $1,000 or any firearm or explosive. Dishonorable discharge,
forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and confinement for 10 years.
(2) Through neglect damagb1g, destroying, or losing, or through neglect suffering to be lost,
damaged, destroyed, sold, or wrongfully disposed (if, military property.
(a) Of
a value or damage of$1,000 or less. Confinement for 6 months, and forfeiture of
two-
thirds pay per month for 6 months.
(b) Of
a value or damage of
more than $1,000. Bad-conduct discharge, forfeiture of
all pay
and allowances, and confinement for 1 year.
(3) Willfully damaging, destroying, or losing, or wil?fitlly sujjering to be lost, damaged,
destroyed, sold, or wrongfully disposed oj; military
property.
(a) Ofa value or damage of$1,000 or less. Bad-conduct discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and
allowances, and confinement for 1 year.
(b) Ofa value or damage ofmore than $1,000, or ofanyjirearm or explosive. Dishonorable
discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and confinement for 10 years.
e. Sample specifications.
(
1) Selling or disposing of
military property.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about __
20 _,without proper authority,
(sell to
(dispose of by
, [(a firearm) (an explosive)] of a
value of
(about)
military property of
the United States.
(2) Damaging, destroying, or losing militc11y property.
In that
(personal jurisdiction
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about
(willfully) (through neglect) (damage by
308
data), did, (at/on board-location)
20 _,without proper authority,
(destroy by
(lose)
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____
, of a value of (about) $
, military property of the United States (the
amount of said damage being in the sum of(about) $ ____
_J
(3) Suffering mi
lit
my
property to be lost, damaged, destroyed, sold, or wrongfully disposed of
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about __
20 _,without proper authority,
(willfully) (through neglect) suffer
, [(a firearm) (an explosive)] (of a value of(about)
$
military property of the United States, to be (lost) (damaged by ____
_,
(destroyed by
(sold to
(wrongfully disposed of by
(the
amount of said damage being in the sum of (about -_____
,.
44. Article 108a (10 U.S.C. 908a)--Captured or abandoned property
a. Text of
statute.
(a) AH persons subject to this chapter shall secure all public property taken from the
enemy for the service of the United States, and shall give notice and turn over to the proper
authority without delay all captured or abandoned property in their possession, custody, or
control.
(b) Any person subject to this chapter who-
(1) fails to can·y out the duties prescribed in subsection (a);
(2) buys, sells, trades, or in any way deals in or disposes of captured or
abandoned property, whereby he receives or expects any profit, benefit, or advantage to
himself o1· another directly or indirectly connected with himself; or
(3) engages in looting or pillaging;
shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
b. FJements.
(
1) Failing to secure public property Ia
ken from the enemy.
(a) That certain public property was taken from the enemy;
(b) That this property was of a certain value; and
(c) That the accused failed to do what was reasonable under the circumstances to secure this
property for the service of
the United States.
(2) Failing to report and turn over captured or abandoned
property.
(a) That certain captured or abandoned public or private property came into the possession,
custody, or control of
the accused;
(b) That this property was of a certain value; and
(c) That the accused failed to give notice of its receipt and failed to turn over to proper
authority, without delay, the captured or abandoned public or private property.
(3) Dealing in captured
or abandoned
property.
(a) That the accused bought, sold, traded, or otherwise dealt in or disposed of
certain public
or private captured or abandoned property;
(b) That this property was of certain value; and
(c) That by so doing the accused received or expected some profit, benefit, or advantage to
the accused or to a certain person or persons connected directly or indirectly with the accused.
(
4) Looting or
pillaging.
(a) That the accused engaged in looting, pillaging, or looting and pillaging by unlawfully
seizing or appropriating certain public or private property;
(b) That this property was located in enemy or occupied territory, or that it was on board a
seized or captured vessel; and
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(c) That this property was:
(i) left behind, owned by, or in the custody of
the enemy, an occupied state, an inhabitant
of an occupied state, or a person under the protection of the enemy or occupied state, or who,
immediately prior to the occupation of
the place where the act occurred, was under the protection
of
the enemy or occupied state; or
(ii) part of
the equipment of
a seized or captured vessel; or
(iii) owned by, or in the custody of
the officers, crew, or passengers on board a seized or
captured vessel.
c. Explanation.
(
1) Failing to secure public property taken from the enemy.
(a) Nature of
property. Unlike the remaining offenses under this article, failing to secure
public property taken from the enemy involves only public property. Immediately upon its capture
from the enemy public property becomes the property of
the United States. Neither the person who
takes it nor any other person has any private right in this property.
(b) Nature t?{ du(v. Every person subject to military law has an immediate duty to take such
steps as are reasonably within that person's power to secure public property for the service of
the
United States and to protect it from destruction or loss.
(2) Failing to report and turn over captured or abandoned
property.
(a) Reports. Reports of
receipt of
captured or abandoned property are to be made directly or
through such channels as are required by current regulations, orders, or the customs of
the Service.
(b) Proper authority. "Proper authority" is any authority competent to order disposition of
the property in question.
(3) Dealing in captured or abandoned property. "Disposed of' includes destruction or
abandonment
(4) Looting or pillaghzg. "Looting or pillaging" means unlawfully seizing or appropriating
property which is located in enemy or occupied territory.
(5).h)zemy. For a discussion of"enemy," see subparagraph 27.c.(l)(b).
(6) Firearms or explosive. For purposes of determining the maximum punishment for this
otiense (see subparagraph d.( 1
)(b)), the ten11 "explosive" includes ammunition. See generally
R.C.M. 103(11), (12).
d. Maximum punishment.
(
1) railing to secure pubhc property taken from the enemy; jailing to secure, give notice and
turn over, selling, or otherwise wrongf11lly dealing in or disposing of
captured or abandoned
property:
(a) Oja value of$1,000 or less. Bad-conduct discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances,
and confinement for 6 months.
(b) Of
a value of
more than $1,000 or any jirearm or explosive. Dishonorable discharge,
f01feiture of
all pay and allowances, and confinement for 5 years.
(2) Looting or
pillaging. Any punishment, other than death, that a court-martial may direct.
e. Sample specifications.
(
1) Failing to secure public property taken from the enemy.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction, if required), on or about __
20 _,fail to secure for the service of
the United States certain public property taken from the enemy, to wit: _, of a value of (about)
$
(2) Failing to report and turn over captured or abandoned
property.
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In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction, if
required), on or about __
20 _,fail to give notice and tum over
to proper authority without delay certain (captured) (abandoned) property which had come into
(his) (her) (possession) (custody) (control), to wit:
, of a value of (about)
(3) Dealing in captured or abandoned
property.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction, if required), on or about __
20 _, (buy) (sell) (trade) (deal in)
(dispose of)(_) certain (captured) (abandoned) property, to wit:
(a firearm) (an explosive),
of
a value of
(about)
thereby (receiving) (expecting) a (profit) (benefit) (advantage)
to (himself/herself)
(his) (her) accomplice)(
__
, (his) (her) brother) (
).
(4) Looting or pillaging.
Tn that (personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/onboard-location) (subject-matter
jurisdiction, if required), on or about (date), engage in (looting) (and) (pillaging) by unlawfully
(seizing) (appropriating)
(propet1y which had been left behind) (the property of
[(an inhabitant of _____
, ,
_____
IJ
45. Article 109 (tO U.S.C. 909)-Property other than military property of United States-
waste, spoilage, or destruction
a. Text of
statute.
Any person subject to this chapter who willfully or recklessly wastes, spoils, or
otherwise willfully and wrongfully destroys o•· damages any property other than military
property of the United States shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
b. Elements.
( 1) Wasting or spoiling qf
non-militwy property.
(a) That the accused willfully or recklessly wasted or spoiled certain real property in a certain
manner;
(b) That the property was that of another person; and
(c) That the property was of
a certain value.
(2) Damaging non-military property.
(a) That the accused willfully and wrongfully damaged certain personal property in a certain
manner;
(b) that the property was that of
another person; and
(c) that the damage inflicted on the property was of
a certain amount
(3) Destroying non-militwy property.
(a) That the accused willfully and wrongfully destroyed certain personal property in a
certain manner;
(b) That the property was that of another person; and
(c) That the property was of
a certain value.
c. kxplanation.
(1) Wasting or !>poiling non-militWJ! property. This portion of Article 109 proscribes willful
or reckless waste or spoliation of
the real property of another. The tenns "wastes" and "spoils" as
used in this article refer to such wrongful acts of
voluntary destruction of
or pennanent damage to
real property as burning down buildings, burning piers, tearing down fences, or cutting down trees.
This destruction is punishable whether done willfully, that is intentionally, recklessly, or is through
a culpable disregard of
the foreseeable consequences of some voluntary act.
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(2) Destroying or damaging non-militmy property. This portion of Article 109 proscribes the
willful and wrongful destruction or damage of
the personal property of another. To be destroyed,
the property need not be completely demolished or annihilated, but must be sufficiently injured to
be useless for its intended purpose. Damage consists of any physical injury to the property. To
constitute an offense under this section, the destmction or damage of
the property must have been
willful and wrongful. As used in this section "willfully" means intentionally and "wrongfully"
means contrary to law, regulation, lawful order, or custom. Willfulness may be proved by
circumstantial evidence, such as the manner in which the acts were done.
(3) "Value and damage. In the case of destmction, the value of
the property destroyed controls
the maximum punishment which may be adjudged. In the case of damage, the amount of the
damage controls. As a general mle, the amount of
damage is the estimated or actual cost of
repair
by artisans employed in this work who are available to the community wherein the owner resides,
or the replacement cost, whichever is less. See also subparagraph 64.c.(l )(g).
d.lvfaximum punishment.
(1) Wasting or .vmiling, non-military
property-real
property.
(a) O.f property valued at $1,000 or less. Bad-conduct discharge, forfeiture of all pay and
allowances, and confinement for 1 year.
(b) Ofproperty valued at more than $1,000. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay
and allowances, and confinement for 5 years.
(2) Damaging any
property other than militmy
property l?f the United States.
(a) Inflicting damage of
$1,000 or less. Bad-conduct discharge, forfeiture of all pay and
allowances, and confinement for 1 year.
(b) lnjlicting
damage cifmore than $1,000. Dishonorable discharge, fmfeiture of
all pay and
allowances, and confinement for 5 years.
(3) Destroying any property other than militmy
property cif
the United States.
(a) De
.... ·troying property valued at $1,000 or less. Bad-conduct discharge, forfeiture of all
pay and allowances, and confinement for 1 year.
(b) Destroying property valued at more than $1,000. Dishonorable discharge; fmfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and confinement for 5 years.
e. Sample specifications.
(
1) Wasting or spoiling real property other than militmy
property of
the United States.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about __
20 _, [(willfully) recklessly)
waste
[(willfully) (recklessly) spoil
] (of a value of (about) $
) (the
amount of said damage being in the sum of(about) $
, the property of ___
_
(2) Damaging any
property other than military
property of
the United States.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about __
20 _, willfully and wrongfully
damage by (method of damage) (identify property damaged
(the amount of said
damage being in the sum of
(about)$
), the property of-:-:-----=-
(3) Destroying
personal
property other than military property of
the United States.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about __
20 _, willfully and wrongfully
destroy (identify property destroyed
of
a value of
(about)
the property
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46. Article 109a (10 U.S.C. 909a}-Mail matter: wrongful taking, opening, etc.
a. Text ofstatute.
(a) TAKING.-Any person subject to this chapter who, with the intent to obstruct the
correspondence of, or to pry into the business or secrets of, any person or organization,
wrongfully takes mail matter before the mail matter is delivered to or received by the
addressee shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
(b) OPENING, SECRETING, DESTROYING, STEALING.-Any person subject to this
chapter who wrongfully opens, secretes, destroys, or steals mail matter before the mail
matter is delivered to or received by the addressee shall be punished as a court-martial may
direct.
b. Elements.
(1) Taking.
(a) That the accused took certain mail matter;
(b) That such taking was wrongful;
(c) That the mai I matter was taken by the accused before it was delivered to or received by
the addressee; and
(d) That such taking was with the intent to obstruct the correspondence or pry into the
business or secrets of
any person or organization.
(2) Opening, secreting, destroying, or stealing.
(a) That the accused opened, secreted, destroyed, or stole certain mail matter;
(b) That such opening, secreting, destroying, or stealing was wrongful; and
(c) That the mail matter was opened, secreted, destroyed, or stolen by the accused before it
was delivered to or received by the addressee.
c. Explanation. These offenses are intended to protect the mail and mail system. "Mail matter"
means any matter deposited in a postal system of any government or any authorized depository
thereof or in of1icial mail channels of
the United States or an agency thereof including the armed
forces. The value of the mail matter is not an element. See subparagraph 64.c.(l) concerning
"steal."
d. lviaximum punishment. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 5 years.
e. Sample specifications.
(
1) 1
'a/dng.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about __
20 _, wrongfully take certain
mail matter, to wit: (a) (letter(s)) (postal card(s)) (package(s)), addressed to
, (out of
the
Post Office
(orderly room of
(unit mail box of
(from
before (it) (they) (w·as) (were) (delivered)
(actually received) (to) (by) the (addressee) with intent to (obstruct the correspondence) (pry into
the (business) (secrets)) of--,-__
_
(2) Opening, secreting, destroying, or stealing.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter
jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about __
, 20 _,(wrongfully (open) (secret)
(destroy)) (steal) certain mail matter, to wit: (a) (letter(s)) (postal card(s)) (package(s)) addressed
to
, which said (letters(s)) (
(was) (were) then (in (the
Post
Office
(orderly room of
(unit mail box of
(custody of
_____
/ '------/
(had previously been committed to
(a representative of
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____
,)(an official agency for the transmission of communications)) before said (letter(s))
(
____
)(was) (were) (delivered) (actually received) (to) (by) the (addressee).
47. Article 110 (10 U.S.C. 910)-Improper hazarding of vessel or aircraft
a. Text of
statute.
(a) WILLFUL AND WRONGFUL HAZARDING.-Any person subject to this chapter who~
willfully and wrongfully, hazards or suffers to be hazarded any vessel or aircraft of the
armed forces shall be punished by death or such other punishment as a court-martial may
direct.
(b) NEGLIGENT HAZARDING.-Any person subject to this chapter who negligently
hazards or suffers to be hazarded any vessel or ait·craft of the armed forces shall be punished
as a court-martial may direct.
b. Klemenl.'i'.
(1) That a vessel or aircraft of the armed forces was hazarded in a certain manner; and
(2) That the accused by certain acts or omissions, willfully and wrongfully, or negligently,
caused or suffered the vessel or aircraft to be hazarded.
c. F:xplanation.
(1) Hazard. "Hazard" means to put in danger of loss or injury. Actual damage to, or loss of, a
vessel or aircraft of
the armed forces by collision, stranding, running upon a shoal or a rock, or by
any other cause, is conclusive evidence that the vessel or aircraft was hazarded but not of
the fact
of
culpability on the part of
any particular person. "Strand" means run a vessel aground so that the
vessel is fast for a time.
(2) Willfully and 1vrongjully. As used in this article, "willfully" means intentionally and
"wrongfully" means contrary to law, regulation, lawful order, or custom.
(3) Negligence. "Negligence" as used in this article means the failure to exercise the care,
prudence, or attention to duties which the interests of the Government require a prudent and
reasonable person to exercise under the circumstances. This negligence may consist of the
omission to do something the prudent and reasonable person would have done, or the doing of
something which such a person would not have done under the circumstances. No person is
relieved of culpability who fails to perform such duties as are imposed by the general
responsibilities of
that person's grade or rank, or by the customs of
the Service for the safety and
protection of vessels and aircraft of the anned forces, simply because these duties are not
specitl.cally enumerated in a regulation or order. However, a mere error in judgment that a
reasonably able person might have committed under the same circumstances does not constitute
an offense under this article.
(
4) Suffer. "To suffer" means to allow or permit. A ship or aircraft is willfully suffered to be
hazarded by one who, although not in direct control of
the vessel or aircraft, knows a danger to be
imminent but takes no steps to prevent it, for example, as by a navigator of
a ship under way who
fails to report to the officer of
the deck a radar target which is observed to be on a collision course
with, and dangerously close to, the ship, or an aircraft's copilot or navigator who similarly fails to
report an imminent danger. A suffering through neglect implies an omission to take such measures
as were appropriate under the circumstances to prevent a foreseeable danger.
(5) Vessel. See 1 U.S.C. § 3.
(6)Aircraft. See 18 U.S.C. § 3l(a)(l). Additionally, aircraft includes remotely piloted aircraft
and unmanned aerial vehicles.
d.lvfaximum Punishment.
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(1) Wil/jiilly andwrongji1lly. Death or such other punishment as a court-martial may direct.
(2) Negligently. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and confinement
for 2 years.
e. ,_\'ample specifications.
(
1) Hazarding or Sl!ffering to be hazarded
any vessel or aircr~ift. willfully and
"Wrongfully.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data) (subject-matter jurisdiction, if
required), did, on __
20 _,while serving as __
(aboard) (on) the
in the vicinity
of
, willfully and wrongfully (hazard the said (vessel) (aircraft)) (suffer the said (vessel)
(aircraft)) to be hazarded) by (causing the said (vessel) (aircraft) to collide with _____
/
(allowing the said vessel to run aground) (allowing said aircraft to _j
'-----_/
(2) Hazarding of
vessel or aircrqft, negligently.
(a) Example 1.
Tn that
(personal jurisdiction data) (subject-matter jurisdiction, if
required), on
20 __, while serving (in command of the
(as the pilot of
(making entrance to (Boston Harbor)) (approaching
Air Force Base)
,
___
Air Field)) did negligently hazard the said (vessel) (aircraft) by failing and neglecting to
maintain or cause to be maintained an accurate (running plot of
the true position) (location) of said
(vessel) (aircraft) while making said approach, as a result of which neglect the said -----'
at or about
hours on the day aforesaid, became (stranded)
in the
vicinity of(Channel Buoy Number Three)
runway),
___________
,
(b) Example 2.
ln that
(personal jurisdiction data) (subject-matter jurisdiction, if
required), on __
20 _, while serving as navigator of the
, cruising on special
service in the
Ocean off the coast of
notwithstanding the fact that at
about midnight, __
20 _, the northeast point of __
Island bore abeam and was about six
miles distant, the said ship being then under way and making a speed of about ten knots, and well
lmowing the position of
the said ship at the time stated, and that the charts of the locality were
unreliable and the currents thereabouts uncertain, did then and there negligently hazard the said
vessel or aircraft by failing and neglecting to exercise proper care and attention in navigating said
ship while approaching
Island, in that (he) (she) neglected and failed to lay a course
that would carry said ship clear of the last aforesaid island, and to change the course in due time
to avoid disaster; and the said ship, as a result of said negligence on the part of said ____
_
ran upon a rock off the southwest coast of
Island, at about
hours, __
, 20
_,in consequence of
which the said
was lost.
(c) Example 3.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data) (subject-matter jurisdiction, if
required), on __
20 _, while serving as navigator of
the
and well knowing that
at about sunset of said day the said ship had nearly run her estimated distance from the ____
_
position, obtained and plotted by (him) (her), to the position of
, and well knowing the
difficulty of
sighting
, from a safe distance after sunset, did then and there negligently
hazard the said vessel by failing and neglecting to advise (his) (her) commanding officer to lay a
safe course for said ship to the northward before continuing on a westerly course, as it was the
duty of said
to do; in consequence of
which the said ship was, at about ____
_
hours on the day above mentioned, run upon __
bank in the
Sea, about latitude
_degrees,
minutes, north, and longitude
degrees,_ minutes, west, and seriously injured.
(3) St({fering a vessel or aircrqft to be hazarded, negligently.
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(a) Example 1.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data) (subject-matter jurisdiction, if
required), while serving as combat intelligence center officer on board the
, making
passage from Boston to Philadelphia, and having, between __
and __
hours on __
, 20
_,been duly informed of decreasing radar ranges and constant radar bearing indicating that the
said
was upon a collision course approaching a radar target, did then and there
negligently suffer the said vessel or aircraft to be hazarded by failing and neglecting to report said
collision course with said radar target to the officer of the deck, as it was (his) (her) duty to do,
and (he) (she), the said
, through negligence, did cause the said
to collide
with the
at or about
hours on said date, with resultant damage to
(b) Example 2.
Tn that
(personal jurisdiction data) (subject-matter jurisdiction, if
required), while serving as (navigator)
on
transiting from
,
_____
Air Force Base) to
Air Force Base), and having, between
and
hours on
, 20 _, becoming aware of (inclement weather conditions)
(inaccurate fuel calculations) threatening said aircraft, did then and there negligently sutTer the
said aircraft to be hazarded by failing and neglecting to report said (weather conditions) (inaccurate
fuel calculations) to the (pilot) (copilot), as it was (his) (her) duty to do, the said (navigator)
through negligence, did cause the said aircraft to
at or about ___
_
hours on said date, with resultant damage to wit: _____
_
48. Article 111 (10 U.S.C. 911)-Leaving scene of vehicle accident
a. 'J'ext qfstatute.
(a) DRIVER.-Any person subject to this chapter-
(1) who is the driver of a vehicle that is involved in an accident that results in
personal injury or propet·ty damage; and
(2) who wrongfully leaves the scene of the accident-
(
A) without providing assistance to an injured person; or
(B) without providing personal identification to others involved in the
accident o•· to appropriate authorities;
shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
(b) SENIOR PASSENGER.-Any person subject to this chapter-
(1) who is a passenger in a vehicle that is involved in an accident that results
in personal injury or property damage;
(2) who is the superior commissioned or noncommissioned officer of the driver
of the vehicle or is the commander of
the vehicle; and
(3) who wrongfully and unlawfully orders, causes, or permits the driver to
leave the scene of the accident-
(
A) without providing assistance to an injured person; or
(B) without providing personal identification to others involved in the
accident or to appropriate authorities;
shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
b. Elements.
(1) Driver.
(a) That the accused was the driver of
a vehicle;
(b) That while the accused was driving the vehicle was involved in an accident;
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(c) That the accused knew that the vehicle had been in an accident;
(d) That the accused left the scene of
the accident without (providing assistance to the victim
who had been struck (and injured) by the said vehicle) or (providing identification); and
(e) That such leaving was wrongful.
(2) Senior passenger.
(a) That the accused was a passenger in a vehicle which was involved in an accident;
(b) That the accused knew that said vehicle had been in an accident; and
(c) That the accused was the superior commissioned or noncommissioned officer of the
driver, or commander of
the vehicle, and wrongfully and unlawfully ordered, caused, or permitted
the driver to leave the scene of the accident without (providing assistance to the victim who had
been snuck (and injured) by the said vehicle) (or) (providing identification).
c. Explanation.
(1) Nature £?! l?ff'ense. This offense covers "hit and run" situations where there is damage to
property other than the driver's vehicle or injury to someone other than the driver or a passenger
in the driver's vehicle. It also covers accidents caused by the accused, even if
the accused's vehicle
does not contact other people, vehicles, or property.
(2) Knowledge. Actual knowledge that an accident has occurred is an essential element of
this
offense. Actual knowledge may be proved by circumstantial evidence.
(3) Passenger. A passenger other than a senior passenger may also be liable under this
paragraph. See paragraph 1 ofthis Part.
d. A1aximum punishment. Bad-conduct discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 6 months.
e. Sample .~pec(fication.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), [the driver of)][*a passenger in]
[the senior officer/noncommissioned oHicer in](_
in) a vehicle at the time of an accident in
which said vehicle was involved, and having knowledge of said accident, did, at __
(subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about __
20 _[wrongfully leave] [*by __
, assist
the driver of
the said vehicle in wrongfully leaving] [wrongfully order, cause, or permit the driver
to leave] the scene of
the accident without (providing assistance to __
, who had been struck
(and injured) by the said vehicle) (making (his) (her) (the driver's) identity known).
[*Note: This language should be used when the accused was a passenger and is charged as a
principal. See paragraph 1 of
this Part.]
49. Article 112 (10 U.S.C. 912)-Drunkenness and other incapacitation offenses
a Text ~/'statute.
(a) DRUNK ON DUTY.-Any person subject to this chapter who is drunk on duty shall
be punished as a court-martial may direct.
(b) INCAPACITATION FOR DUTY FROM DRUNKENl\;'ESS OR DRUG USE.-Any person
subject to this chapter who, as a result of indulgence in any alcoholic beverage or any drug,
is incapacitated for the proper performance of
duty shall be punished as a court-martial may
direct.
(c) DRUNK PRISONER.-Any person subject to this chapter who is a prisoner and,
while in such status, is drunli. shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
b. Elements.
(I) Drunk on duty.
(a) That the accused was on a certain duty; and
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(b) That the accused was drunk while on this duty.
(2) Incapacitation for duty from drunkenness or drug use.
(a) That the accused had certain duties to petform;
(b) That the accused was incapacitated for the proper performance of such duties; and
(c) That such incapacitation was the result of
previous indulgence in intoxicating liquor or
any drug.
(3) Drunk
prisoner.
(a) That the accused was a prisoner; and
(b) That while in such status the accused was drunk.
c. Explanation.
(1) Drunk on duty.
(a) Drunk. "Drunk" means-
(i) the state of intoxication by alcohol that is sufficient to impair the rational and full
exercise of
mental or physical faculties; or
(ii) the state of meeting or exceeding a blood alcohol content limit with respect to
alcohol concentration in a person's blood of0.08 grams of alcohol per 100 milliliters ofblood and
with respect to alcohol concentration in a person's breath of0.08 grams of alcohol per 210 liters
ofbreath, as shown by chemical analysis.
(b) Duty. "Duty" as used in this article means military duty. Every duty which an officer or
enlisted person may legally be required by superior authority to execute is necessarily a military
duty. Within the meaning of
this article, when in the actual exercise of command, the commander
of a post, or of a command, or of a detachment in the field is constantly on duty, as is the
commanding ot1icer on board a ship. fu the case of other ofllcers or enlisted persons, "on duty"
relates to duties or routine or detail, in garrison, at a station, or in the field, and does not relate to
those periods when, no duty being required of
them by orders or re.srulations, officers and enlisted
persons occupy the status of leisure known as "oti duty" or "on liberty." In a region of active
hostilities, the circumstances are often such that all members of a command may properly be
considered as being continuously on duty within the meaning of
this article. So also, an officer of
the day and members of
the guard, or of
the watch, are on duty during their entire tour within the
meaning of
this article.
(c) Nature ofojjimse. It is necessary that the accused be drunk while actually on the duty
alleged, and the fact the accused became drunk before going on duty, although material in
extenuation, does not affect the question of
guilt. If, however, the accused does not undertake the
responsibility or enter upon the duty at all, the accused's conduct does not fall within the terms of
this article, nor does that of
a person who absents himself or herself from duty and is drunk while
so absent. fucluded within the article is drunkenness while on duty of
an anticipatory nature such
as that of an aircraft crew ordered to stand by for flight duty, or of an enlisted person ordered to
stand by for guard duty.
(d) Defenses. If
the accused is known by superior authorities to be drunk at the time a duty
is assigned, and the accused is thereafter allowed to assume that duty anyway, or if
the drunkenness
results from an accidental over dosage administered for medicinal purposes, the accused will have
a defense to this offense.
(2) Incapacitation for duty from drunkenness or drug use.
(a) Incapacitated. "Incapacitated" means unfit or unable to properly perform duties as a
result of previous alcohol consumption or drug use. Illness resulting from previous indulgence is
an example ofbeing "unable" to perform duties.
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(b) Affirmative defense. The accused's lack of knowledge of the duties assigned is an
affinnative defense to this offense.
(3) Drunk prisoner.
(a) Prisoner. See subparagraph 24.c.(l).
(b) Drunk. See subparagraph 49.c.(l)(a).
d. Maximum punishment.
(1) Drunk on duty. Bad-conduct discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 9 months.
(2) Incapacitation for duty from drunkenness or drug use. Confinement for 3 months and
forfeiture of
two-thirds pay per month for 3 months.
(3) Drunk prisoner. Confinement for 3 months and forfeiture of
two-thirds pay per month for
3 months.
e. Sample spec{fications.
(
1) Drunk on duty.
Tn that
(personal jurisdiction data), was, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction, if required), on or about
20 _,found drunk while on duty as
(2) lncapacilalion.for duty from drunkenness or drug use.
ln that
(personal jurisdiction data), was, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction, if required), on or about __
20 _, as a result of previous
overindulgence in intoxicating liquor or dmgs incapacitated for the proper performance of (his)
(her) duties.
(3) Drunk
prisoner.
ln that
(personal jurisdiction data), a prisoner, was (at/on board-
location) (subject-matter jurisdiction, ifrequired), on or about __
20 _, found dmnk.
50. Article 112a (10 U.S.C. 912a)-\Vrongful use, possession, etc., of controlled substances
a. 1
ext of
statute.
(a) Any person subject to this chapter who wrongfully uses, possesses, manufactures,
distributes, imports into the customs territory of the United States, exports from the United
States, or introduces into an installation, vessel, vehicle, or aircraft used by or under the
control of the armed forces a substance described in subsection (b) shall be punished as a
court-martial may direct.
(b) The substances referred to in subsection (a) are the following:
(1) Opium, heroin, cocaine, amphetamine, lysergic acid diethylamide,
methamphetamine, phencyclidine, barbituric acid, and marijuana and any compound or
derivative of any such substance.
(2) Any substance not specified in clause (1) that is listed on a schedule of
controlled substances prescribed by the President for the purposes of this article.
(3) Any other substance not specified in clause (1) or contained on a list
pr·escribed by the President under clause (2) that is listed in schedules I through V of section
202 ofthe Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. § 812).
b. Elements.
( 1) Wrongful possession of
controlled
substance.
(a) That the accused possessed a certain amount of
a controlled substance; and
(b) That the possession by the accused was wrongful.
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(2) Wrongful use of
controlled substance.
(a) That the accused used a controlled substance; and
(b) That the use by the accused was wrongful.
(3) Wrongful distribution ~{controlled
substance.
(a) That the accused distributed a certain amount of a controlled substance; and
(b) That the distribution by the accused was wrongful.
(4) Wrongful introduction of
a controlled substance.
(a) That the ac.cused introduced onto a vessel, aircraft, vehicle, or installation used by the
armed forces or under the control of the armed forces a certain amount of a controlled substance;
and
(b) That the introduction was wrongful.
(5) Wrongful mam{facture ~fa
controlled substance.
(a) That the accused manufactured a certain amount of a controlled substance; and
(b) That the manufacture was wrongful.
(6) Wrongful possession, mam~facture, or introduction l?{ a controlled substance with intenl to
distribute.
(a) That the accused (possessed) (manufactured) (introduced) a certain amount of a
controlled substance;
(b) That the (possession) (manufacture) (introduction) was wrongful; and
(c) That the (possession) (manufacture) (introduction) was with the intent to distribute.
(7) Wrongful importation or exportation of
a controlled
substance.
(a) That the accused (imported into the customs territory oi) (exported from) the United
States a certain amount of
a controlled substance; and
(b) That the (importation) (exportation) was wrongful.
[Note: When any of
the aggravating circumstances listed in subparagraph d. is alleged, it must be
listed as an element.]
c. t-xplanation.
(1) Controlled substance. "Controlled substance" means amphetamine, cocaine, heroin,
lysergic acid diethylamide, marijuana, methamphetamine, opium, phencyclidine, and barbituric
acid, including phenobarbital and secobarbital. "Controlled substance" also means any substance
that is included in Schedules I through V established by the Controlled Substances Act of 1970
(21 U.S.C. § 812).
(2) Possess. "Possess" means to exercise control of something. Possession may be direct
physical custody like holding an item in one's hand, or it may be constructive, as in the case of a
person who hides an item in a locker or car to which that person may return to retrieve it.
Possession must be knowing and conscious. Possession inherently includes the power or authority
to preclude control by others. It is possible, however, for more than one person to possess an item
simultaneously, as when several people share control of
an item. An accused may not be convicted
of
possession of
a controlled substance if
the accused did not know that the substance was present
under the accused's control. Awareness of
the presence of a controlled substance may be inferred
from circumstantial evidence.
(3) Distribute, deliver. "Distribute" means to deliver to the possession of another. "Deliver"
means the actual, constructive, or attempted transfer of an item, whether or not there exists an
agency relationship.
(4) Mam!facture.
"Manufacture"
means the production,
preparation,
propagation,
compounding, or processing of a drug or other substance, either directly or indirectly or by
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extraction from substances of natural origin, or independently by means of
chemical synthesis or
by a combination of
extraction and chemical synthesis, and includes any packaging or repackaging
of such substance or labeling or relabeling of its container. Production, as used in this
subparagraph, includes the planting, cultivating, growing, or harvesting of a drug or other
substance.
(5) Wrongfulness. To be punishable under A1iicle 112a, possession, use, distribution,
introduction, or manufacture of a controlled substance must be wrongful. Possession, use,
distribution, introduction, or manufacture of
a controlled substance is wrongful if
it is without legal
justification or authorization. Possession, distribution, introduction, or manufacture of
a controlled
substance is not wrongful if
such act or acts are: (A) done pursuant to legitimate law enforcement
activities (for example, an informant who receives drugs as part of an undercover operation is not
in wrongful possession); (B) done by authorized personnel in the performance of
medical duties;
or (C) without knowledge of the contraband nature of the substance (for example, a person who
possesses cocaine, but actually believes it to be sugar, is not guilty of wrongful possession of
cocaine). Possession, use, distribution, introduction, or manufacture of
a controlled substance may
be inferred to be wrongful in the absence of
evidence to the contrary. The burden of
going forward
with evidence with respect to any such exception in any court-martial or other proceeding under
the UCMJ shall be upon the person claiming its benefit. If such an issue is raised by the evidence
presented, then the burden of
proof is upon the United States to establish that the use, possession,
distribution, manufacture, or introduction was wrongful.
(6) Intent to distribute. Intent to distribute may be inferred from circumstantial evidence.
Examples of
evidence which may tend to support an inference of
intent to distribute are: possession
of a quantity of substance in excess of that which one would be likely to have for personal use;
market value of
the substance; the manner in which the substance is packaged; and that the accused
is not a user of the substance. On the other hand, evidence that the accused is addicted to or is a
heavy user ofthe substance may tend to negate an inference of
intent to distribute.
(7) Certain amount. When a specific amount of
a controlled substance is believed to have been
possessed, distributed, introduced, or manufactured by an accused, the specific amount should
ordinarily be alleged in the specification. It is not necessary to allege a specific amount, however,
and a specification is sufficient if it alleges that an accused possessed, distributed, introduced, or
manufactured "some," "traces of," or "an unknown quantity of' a controlled substance.
(8) Missile launch
facility. A missile launch facility includes the place from which missiles are
fired and launch control facilities from which the launch of
a missile is initiated or controlled after
launch.
(9) Customs territory of
the United States. Customs territory of
the United States includes only
the States, the District of Columbia, and Puerto Rico.
(10) Use. "Use" means to inject, ingest, inhale, or otherwise introduce into the human body,
any controlled substance. Knowledge of the presence of the controlled substance is a required
component of use. Knowledge of
the presence of the controlled substance may be inferred from
the presence of the controlled substance in the accused's body or from other circumstantial
evidence. This permissive inference may be legally sufficient to satisfy the Government's burden
of
proof as to knowledge.
( 11) Deliberate ignorance. An accused who consciously avoids knowledge of the presence of
a controlled substance or the contraband nature of the substance is subject to the same criminal
liability as one who has actual knowledge.
d. Maximum punishment.
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(1) Wrongjiiluse, possession, manufacture, or introduction of
controlled substance.
(a)Amphetamine, cocaine, heroin, lysergic acid
diethylamide, marijuana (except possession
of
less than 30 grams or use of
marijuana), methamphetamine, opium, phencyclidine, secobarbital,
and Schedule I, II, III controlled substances. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and
allowances, and confinement for 5 years.
(b) Marijuana (possession of
less than 30 grams or use), phenobarbital, and Schedule IV
and V controlled substances. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 2 years.
(2) Wrongful distribution, possession, mam{facture, or introduction Qf controlled substance
with intent to distribute, or wrongful importation or exportation of
a controlled substance.
(a)
Amphetamine,
cocaine,
heroin,
lysergic
acid
diethylamide,
marijuana,
methamphetamine, opium, phenc.vclidine, secobarbital, and Schedule I, II, and III controlled
subs"lances. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and confinement for 15
years.
(b) Phenobarbital and Schedule JV and V controlled substance:;;. Dishonorable discharge,
forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and contlnement for 10 years.
When any offense under this paragraph is committed; while the accused is on duty as a sentinel or
lookout; on board a vessel or aircraft used by or under the control of the armed forces; in or at a
missile launch facility used by or under the control of the armed forces; while receiving special
pay under 37 U.S.C. § 31 0; in time of
war; or in a contlnernent facility used by or under the control
of the armed forces, the maximum period of confinement authorized for such offense shall be
increased by 5 years.
e
. .S'ample .~pecijications.
(1) WrongFrl possession, mam{fircture, or distribution (l
controlled .'!.·ubstance.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data) did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about __
, 20 _, \Vrongfully (possess)
(distribute) (manufacture) __
(grams) (ounces) (pounds) (_)
of __
(a schedule (_)
controlled substance), (with the intent to distribute the said controlled substance) (while on duty
as a sentinel or lookout) (while (on board a vessel/aircraft) (in or at a missile launch facility) used
by the armed forces or under the control of
the armed forces, to wit _)
(while receiving special
pay under 37 U.S.C. § 310) (during time of
war).
(2) Wrongful use of
controlled substance.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about __
, 20 _, wrongfully use
____
(a Schedule_ controlled substance) (while on duty as a sentinel or lookout) (while
(on board a vessel/aircraft) (in or at a missile launch facility) used by the armed forces or under
the control of
the armed forces, to wit:
) (while receiving special pay under 37 U.S.C.
§ 310) (during time of
war).
(3) Wrongful introduction of
controlled substance.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data) did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about __
, 20 _, wrongfully introduce
____
(grams) (ounces) (pounds)
(a Schedule,
____
_/
controlled substance) onto a vessel, aircraft, vehicle, or installation used by the armed forces or
under control of the armed forces, to wit:
(with the intent to distribute the said
controlled substance) (while on duty as a sentinel or lookout) (while receiving special pay under
37 U.S. C. § 310) (during a time of
war).
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(4) Wrongfi1l importation or exportation ofcontrolled substance.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data) did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about __
, 20 _, wrongfully (import)
(export) __
(grams) (ounces) (pounds)
of
(a Schedule (_)
controlled substance) (into the customs territory of) (from) the United States (while on board a
vessel/aircraft used by the armed forces or under the control of the armed forces, to wit:
(during
time
of
war).
51. Article 113 (1 0 U.S.C. 913)--Drunken or reckless operation of
a vehicle, aircraft, or vessel
a. Text of
statute.
(a) Any person subject to this chapter who-
(1) operates or physically controls any vehicle, aircraft, or vessel in a reckless
or wanton manner or while impaired by a substance described in section 912a(b) of this title
(article 112a(b)), or
(2) operates or is in actual physical control of any vehicle, aircraft, or vessel
while drunk or when the alcohol concentration in the person's blood or breath is equal to or
exceeds the applicable limit under subsection (b),
shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
(b
)(1) For purposes of
subsection (a), the applicable limit on the alcohol concentration
in a pet·son's blood or breath is as follows:
(A) In the case of
the operation or control of
a vehicle, aircraft, or vessel
in the United States, such limit is the lesser of-
(i) the blood alcohol content limit under the law of the State in
which the conduct occurred, except as may be provided under paragraph (2) for conduct on
a military installation that is in more than one State; or
(ii) the blood alcohol content limit specified in paragraph (3).
(B) In the case of the operation or control of
a vehicle, aircraft, or vessel
outside the United States, the applicable blood alcohol content limit is the blood alcohol
content limit specified in paragraph (3) or such lower limit as the Secretary of Defense may
by regulation prescribe.
(2) In the case of a military installation that is in more than one State, if those
States have different blood alcohol content limits under their respective State laws, the
Secretary may select one such blood alcohol content limit to apply uniformly on that
installation.
(3) For purposes of paragraph (1), the blood alcohol content limit with respect
to alcohol concentration in a person's blood is 0.08 grams of alcohol per 100 milliliters of
blood and with respect to alcohol concentration in a person's bt·eath is 0.08 grams of alcohol
per 210 liters of breath, as shown by chemical analysis. The Secretary may by regulation
prescribe limits that are lower than the limits specified in the preceding sentence, if such
lower limits at·e based on scientific developments, as reflected in Federal law of general
applicability.
(4) In this subsection:
(A) The term '"blood alcohol content limit" means the amount of
alcohol concentration in a person's blood or breath at which operation or control of a vehicle,
aircraft, or vessel is prohibited.
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(B) The term "United States" includes the District of Columbia, the
Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, Guam, and American Samoa and the
term "State" includes each of those jurisdictions.
b. Elements.
(
1) That the accused was operating or in physical control of
a vehicle, aircraft, or vessel; and
(2) That while operating or in physical control of a vehicle, aircraft, or vessel, the accused-
(
a) did so in a wanton or reckless manner; or
(b) was drunk or impaired; or
(c) the alcohol concentration in the accused's blood or breath equaled or exceeded the
applicable limit under Article 113(b
).
[Note: Add the following if
applicable]
(3) That the accused thereby caused the vehicle, aircraft, or vessel to injure a person.
c. F,xplanation.
(1) Vehicle. See 1 U.S.C. § 4.
(2) Vessel. See 1 U.S.C. § 3.
(3)Aircrqft. See 18 U.S.C. § 31(a)(1).
(4) Operates. Operating a vehicle, aircraft, or vessel includes not only driving or guiding a
vehicle, aircraft, or vessel while it is in motion, either in person or through the agency of another,
but also setting of
its motive power in action or the manipulation of
its controls so as to cause the
particular vehicle, aircraft, or vessel to move.
(5) Physical control and
actual
physical control. These terms as used in the statute are
synonymous. They describe the present capability and power to dominate, direct, or regulate the
vehicle, vessel, or aircraft, either in person or through the agency of another, regardless of
whether such vehicle, aircraft, or vessel is operated. For example, the intoxicated person seated
behind the steering wheel of
a vehicle with the keys of
the vehicle in or near the ignition but with
the engine not turned on could be deemed in actual physical control of
that vehicle. However, the
person asleep in the back seat with the keys in his or her pocket would not be deemed in actual
physical control. Physical control necessarily encompasses operation.
(6) Drunk or impaired. Dnmk and impaired mean any intoxication which is suf1icient to impair
the rational and full exercise of
the mental or physical faculties. The term drunk is used in relation
to intoxication by alcohol. The term impaired is used in relation to intoxication by a substance
described in Article 112(a).
(7) Reckless. The operation or physical control of a vehicle, vessel, or aircraft is reckless
when it exhibits a culpable disregard of
foreseeable consequences to others from the act or
omission involved. Recklessness is not determined solely by reason of
the happening of
an
injury, or the invasion of the rights of another, nor by proof alone of
excessive speed or erratic
operation, but all these factors may be admissible and relevant as bearing upon the ultimate
question: whether, under all the circumstances, the accused's manner of operation or physical
control of
the vehicle, vessel, or aircraft was of
that heedless nature which made it actually or
imminently dangerous to the occupants, or to the rights or safety of others. It is operating or
physically controlling a vehicle, vessel, or aircraft with such a high degree of negligence that if
death were caused, the accused would have committed involuntary manslaughter, at least. The
nature of
the conditions in which the vehicle, vessel, or aircraft is operated or controlled, the time
of
day or night, the proximity and number of
other vehicles, vessels, or aircraft and the condition
of
the vehicle, vessel, or aircraft, are often matters of importance in the proof of an offense
charged under this article and, where they are of
importance, may properly be alleged.
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(8) Wanton. Wanton includes "reckless," but in describing the operation or physical control of
a vehicle, vessel, or aircraft, wanton may, in a proper case, connote willfulness, or a disregard of
probable consequences, and thus describe a more aggravated offense.
(9) Causation. The accused's drunken or reckless driving must be a proximate cause of
injury
for the accused to be guilty of drunken or reckless driving resulting in personal injury. To be
proximate, the accused's actions need not be the sole cause of the injury, nor must they be the
immediate cause of the injury, that is, the latest in time and space preceding the injury. A
contributing cause is deemed proximate only if
it plays a material role in the victim's injury.
(10) Separate ~ffenses. While the same course of conduct may constitute violations of both
paragraphs (a)(l) and (2) of Article 113, e.g., both drunken and reckless operation or physical
control, this article proscribes the conduct described in both paragraphs (a)(l) and (2) as separate
offenses, which may be charged separately. However, as recklessness is a relative matter, evidence
of all the surrounding circumstances that made the operation dangerous, whether alleged or not,
may be admissible. Thus, on a charge of reckless driving, for example, evidence of drunkenness
might be admissible as establishing one aspect of the recklessness, and evidence that the vehicle
exceeded a safe speed, at a relevant prior point and time, might be admissible as corroborating
other evidence of the specific recklessness charged. Similarly, on a charge of drunken driving,
relevant evidence of recklessness might have probative value as corroborating other proof of
drunkenness.
d. lvfaximum punishment.
(1) Resulting in personal injury. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances,
and confinement for 18 months.
(2) No personal injwy involved. Bad-conduct discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances,
and confinement for 6 months.
e. Sample !>.pecification.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about __
, 20 _, (in the motor pool area)
(near the O±licers' Club) (at the intersection of
and
(while in the Gulf
of
Mexico) (while in flight over North America) physically control [a vehicle, to wit: (a truck) (a
passenger car)(_)] [an aircraft, to wit: (an AH-64 helicopter) (an F-14A fighter) (a KC-135
tanker) (
)] [a vessel, to wit: (the aircraft carrier USS
(the Coast Guard Cutter
___
_/ (
)], [while drunk] [while impaired by
] [while the alcohol
concentration in (his) (her) (blood or breath) equaled or exceeded the applicable limit under
subsection (b) of the text of the statute in paragraph 50 as shown by chemical analysis] [in a
(reckless) (wanton) manner by (attempting to pass another vehicle on a sharp curve) (ordering that
the aircraft be flown below the authorized altitude)] [and did thereby cause said (vehicle) (aircraft)
(vessel) to (strike and) (injure
].
52. Article 1
14 (1 0 U.S.C. 914)-Endangerment offenses
a. Text of
statute.
(a) RECKLESS ENDANCERMENT.-Any person subject to this chapter who engages in
conduct that-
(1) is wrongful and reckless or is wanton; and
(2) is likely to produce death or grievous bodily harm to another person;
shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
(b) DUELING.-Any person subject to this chapter-
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(1) who fights or promotes, or is concerned in or connives at fighting, a duel;
or
(2) who, having knowledge of a challenge sent or about to be sent, fails to
report the facts promptly to the proper authority;
shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
(c) FIREARM DIS~1IARGE,
ENDANGERING HUMAN LIFE.-Any person subject to this
chapter who, willfully and wrongly, discharges a firearm, under circumstances such as to
endanger human life shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
(d) CARRYING CONCEALED WEAPON.-Any person subject to this chapter who
unlawfully carries a dangerous weapon concealed on or about his person shall be punished
as a court-martial may direct.
b. Elements.
(1) Reckle."''S endangerment
(a) That the accused did engage in conduct;
(b) That the conduct was wrongful and reckless or wanton; and
(c) That the conduct was likely to produce death or grievous bodily harm to another
person.
(2) Dueling.
(a) That the accused fought another person with deadly weapons;
(b) That the combat was for private reasons; and
(c) That the combat was by prior agreement.
(3) Promoting a duel.
(a) That the accused promoted a duel between certain persons; and
(b) That the accused did so in a certain manner.
(4) Conniving at
fighting a duel.
(a) That certain persons intended to and were about to engage in a duel;
(b) That the accused had knowledge of
the planned duel; and
(c) That the accused connived at the fighting of
the duel in a certain manner.
(5) i''ctifure to report a duel.
(a) That a challenge to fight a duel had been sent or was about to be sent;
(b) That the accused had knowledge of
this challenge; and
(c) That the accused failed to report this fact promptly to proper authority.
(6) Firearm discharge, endangering human life.
(a) That the accused discharged a firearm;
(b) That the discharge was willful and wrongful; and
(c) That the discharge was under circumstances such as to endanger human life.
(7) Carrying concealed ·weapon.
(a) That the accused carried a certain weapon concealed on or about the accused's person;
(b) That the carrying was unlawful; and
(c) That the weapon was a dangerous weapon.
c. Explanation.
(1) Reckless endangerment.
(a) In general. This offense is intended to prohibit and therefore deter reckless or wanton
conduct that wrongfully creates a substantial risk of
death or grievous bodily harm to others.
(b) Wrongfulness. Conduct is wrongful when it is without legal justification or excuse.
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(c) Recklessness. "Reckless" conduct is conduct that exhibits a culpable disregard of
foreseeable consequences to others from the act or omission involved. The accused need not
intentionally cause a resulting harm or know that his conduct is substantially certain to cause that
result. The ultimate question is whether, under all the circumstances, the accused's conduct was
of
that heedless nature that made it actually or imminently dangerous to the rights or safety of
others.
(d) Wantonness. "Wanton" includes "reckless" but may connote vvillfulness, or a disregard
of probable consequences, and thus describe a more aggravated offense.
(e) Likely to produce. When the natural or probable consequence of
particular conduct
would be death or grievous bodily harm, it may be inferred that the conduct is likely to produce
that result.
(f) Grievous bodily harm. This phrase has the same meaning given it in subparagraph
77.c.(l)(c).
(g) Death or injury not required. It
is not necessary that death or grievous bodily harm be
actually inflicted to prove reckless endangerment.
(2) Dueling.
(a) Duel. A duel is combat between two persons for private reasons fought with deadly
weapons by prior agreement.
(b) Promoting a duel. Urging or taunting another to challenge or to accept a challenge to
duel, acting as a second or as carrier of
a challenge or acceptance, or otherwise furthering or
contributing to the fighting of a duel are examples of promoting a duel.
(c) Conniving at
fighting a duel. Anyone who has knowledge that steps are being taken or
have been taken toward arranging or tlghting a duel and who fails to take reasonable preventive
action thereby connives at the fighting of
a duel.
(3) Firearm discharge, endangering human life. "Under circumstances such as to endanger
human life" refers to a reasonable potentiality tor harm to human beings in general. The test is
not whether the life was in fact endangered but whether, considering the circumstances
surrounding the wrongful discharge of
the weapon, the act was unsafe to human life in general.
(
4) Canying concealed weapon.
(a) Concealed weapon. A weapon is concealed when it is cartied by a person and
intentionally covered or kept from sight.
(b) Dangerous 1veapon. For purposes of
this paragraph, a weapon is dangerous if
it was
specifically designed for the purpose of
doing grievous bodily harm, or it was used or intended to
be used by the accused to do grievous bodily harm.
(c) On or about. "On or about" means the weapon was carried on the accused's person or
was within the immediate reach of
the accused.
d. A-faximum punishment. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 1 year.
e. Sample spec~jications.
(
1) Reckless endangerment.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about __
20 _,wrongfully and
(recklessly) (wantonly) engage in conduct, to wit:
, conduct likely to cause death or
grievous bodily harm to ____
_
(2) Dueling.
(a) Dueling.
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In that
(personal jurisdiction data) (and
, did, (at/onboard-
location) (subject-matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about __
20
__
, fight a duel
(with
, using as weapons therefor (pistols) (swords) (
).
(a) Promoting a duel.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20
__
, promote a duel between
____
and
by (telling said
(he) (she) would be a coward if(he) (she)
failed to challenge said
to a duel) (knowingly carrying from said
to said
~~-a
challenge to fight a duel).
(b) Conniving at
fighting a duel.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), having knowledge that
and
~-- were about to engage in a duel, did (at/onboard-location) (subject-matter jurisdiction
data, if
required), on or about
20
connive at the fighting of said duel by (failing to
take reasonable preventive action)'--~~~-'
(c) Failure to report a duel.
Tn that
(personal jurisdiction data), having knowledge that a challenge to fight
a duel (had been sent) (was about to be sent) by
to
, did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20
fail to report that fact
promptly to the proper authority.
(3) Firearm discharge, endangering human l{fe.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20 _, wrongfully and willfully
discharge a firearm, to wit: __
, (in the mess hall of_)
(
), under circumstances such
as to endanger human life.
(4) Carrying concealed weapon.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about __
20 _,unlawfully carry on or about (his)
(her) person a concealed weapon, to wit: a~~~~-
53. Article 115 (10 U.S.C. 915)-Communicating threats
a. Text ~fstatute.
(a) COMMUNICATING THREATS GENERALLY.-Any person subject to this chapter
who wrongfully communicates a threat to injure the person, property, or reputation of
another shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
(b) COMMUNICATING THREAT To USE EXPLOSIVE, ETC.-Any person subject to this
chapter who wrongfully communicates a threat to injure the person or property of another
by use of (1) an explosive, (2) a weapon of mass destruction, (3) a biological or chemical
agent, substance, or weapon, or (4) a hazat·dous material, shall be punished as a court-
martial may direct.
(c) COJVIMUNICATING FALSE THREAT CONCERNING USE OF EXPLOSIVE, ETC.-Any
person subject to this chapter who maliciously communicates a false threat concerning
injury to the person or property of another by use of (1) an explosive, (2) a weapon of mass
destruction, (3) a biological or chemical agent, substance, or weapon, or (4) a hazardous
material, shall be punished as a court-martial may direct. As used in the preceding
sentence, the term
4'false threat" means a threat that, at the time the threat is
communicated, is known to be false by the person communicating the tht·eat.
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b. Elements.
( 1) Threats generally.
(a) That the accused communicated certain language expressing a present
determination or intent to injure the person, property, or reputation of
another person, presently
or in the future;
and
(b) That the communication was made known to that person or to a third person;
(c) That the communication was wrongful.
(2) Threat to use explosive, etc.
(a) That the accused communicated certain language;
(b) That the information communicated amounted to a threat;
(c) That the hann threatened was to be done by means of an explosive; weapon of
mass destruction; biological or chemical agent, substance, or weapon; or hazardous
material; and
(d) Thatthe communication was wrongful.
(3) False threals concerning use<?{
explosives, elc.
(a) That the accused communicated or conveyed certain information;
(b) That the information communicated or conveyed concerned an attempt being
made or to be made by means of an explosive; weapon of
mass destruction; biological or
chemical agent, substance, or weapon; or hazardous material, to unlawfully kill, injure, or
intimidate a person or to unlawfully damage or destroy certain property;
(c) That the information communicated or conveyed by the accused was false and
that the accused then knew it to be false; and
(d) That the communication of
the information by the accused was malicious.
c. i'.,xplanation.
(1) Threat. A "threat" means an expressed present determination or intent to kill, injure,
or intimidate a person or to damage or destroy certain property presently or in the future. The
communication must be one that a reasonable person would understand as expressing a present
determination or intent to wrongfully injure the person, property, or reputation of another person,
presently or in the future. Proof that the accused actually intended to kill, injure, intimidate,
damage or destroy is not required.
(2) Wrongful. A communication must be wrongful in order to constitute this offense. The
wrongfulness of
the communication relates to the accused's subjective intent. For purposes of
this paragraph, the mental state requirement is satisfied if
the accused transmitted the
communication for the purpose of
issuing a threat or with knowledge that the communication
will be viewed as a threat. A statement made under circumstances that reveal it to be in jest or for
an innocent or legitimate purpose that contradicts the expressed intent to commit the act is not
wrongful. Nor is the offense committed by the mere statement of
intent to commit an unlawful
act not involving a threat.
(3) F.xplosive. "Explosive" means gunpowder, powders used for blasting, all forms of
high explosives, blasting materials, fuses (other than electrical circuit breakers), detonators, and
other detonating agents, smokeless powders, any explosive bomb, grenade, missile, or similar
device, and any incendiary bomb or grenade, fire bomb, or similar device, and any other
explosive compound, mixture, or similar material.
(
4) Weapon qf
mass destruction. A "weapon of
mass destruction" means any device,
explosive or otherwise, that is intended, or has the capability, to cause death or serious bodily
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injury to a significant number of
people through the release, dissemination, or impact of: toxic or
poisonous chemicals, or their precursors; a disease organism; or radiation or radioactivity.
(5)Biological agent. The term "biological agent" means any microorganism (including
bacteria, viruses, fungi, rickettsiae, or protozoa), pathogen, or infectious substance, and any
naturally occurring, bioengineered, or synthesized component of any such micro-organism,
pathogen, or infectious substance, whatever its origin or method of
production, that is capable of
causmg-
(a) death, disease, or other biological malfunction in a human, an
animal, a plant, or another living organism;
(b) deterioration of
food, water, equipment, supplies, or materials of
any kind; or
(c) deleterious alteration of
the environment.
(6) Chemical agent, substance, or 1veapon. A "chemical agent, substance, or weapon"
refers to a toxic chemical and its precursors or a munition or device, specifically designed to
cause death or other harm through toxic properties of
those chemicals that would be released as a
result ofthe employment of such munition or device, and any equipment specifically designed
for use directly in connection with the employment of such munitions or devices.
(7) Hazardous material. A substance or material (including explosive, radioactive
material, etiologic agent, flammable or combustible liquid or solid, poison, oxidizing or
corrosive material, and compressed gas, or mixture thereoi) or a group or class of
material
designated as hazardous by the Secretary of
Transportation.
(8)Malicious. A communication is malicious if
the accused believed that the information
would probably interfere with the peaceful use of
the building, vehicle, aircraft, or other property
concerned, or would cause fear or concern to one or more persons.
d. Maximum punishment.
( 1) l11reats and
fal~·e threats generally. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and
allowances, and confinement for 3 years.
(2) Threats and
false threats concerning use of
explosives, etc. Dishonorable discharge,
forfeitures of all pay and allowances, and confinement for 10 years.
e. Sample specifications.
( 1) Threats generally.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter juri
sdi cti
on data, if
required), on or about __
20 _, wrongfully communicate to
_____
a threat (to injure __
by_)
(to accuse __
of
having committed the
offense of_)(_).
(2) Threats concerning use ofexplosives, etc.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data) did, (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about __
20 _, wrongfully communicate certain
information, to wit:
, which language constituted a threat to harm a person or
property by means of
a(n) [explosive; weapon of
mass destruction; biological agent, substance,
or weapon; chemical agent, substance, or weapon; and/or (a) hazardous material(s)]
(3) False threats concerning use of
explosives, etc.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data) did, (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about __
20 _,maliciously (communicate)
(convey) certain information concerning an attempt being made or to be made to unlawfully
[(kill) (injure) (intimidate)
] [(damage) (destroy)
] by means ofa(n)
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[explosive; weapon of
mass destruction; biological agent, substance, or weapon; chemical agent,
substance, or weapon; and/or (a) hazardous material(s)], to wit:
, which infonnation
was false and which the accused then knew to be false.
54. Article 116 (10 U.S.C. 916)-Riot or breach of peace
a. Text of
statute.
Any person subject to this chapter who causes or participates in any riot or breach of
the peace shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
b. Elements.
(1) Riot.
(a) That the accused was a member of
an assembly of
three or more persons;
(b) That the accused and at least two other members of
this group mutually intended to assist
one another against anyone who might oppose them in doing an act for some private purpose;
(c) That the group or some of its members, in furtherance of such purpose, unlawfully
committed a tumultuous disturbance of
the peace in a violent or turbulent manner; and
(d) That these acts terrorized the public in general in that they caused or were intended to
cause public alarm or terror.
(2) Rreach l?(the peace.
(a) That the accused caused or participated in a certain act of a violent or turbulent nature;
and
(b) That the peace was thereby unlawfully disturbed.
c. Explanation.
(1) Riot. A riot is a tumultuous disturbance of the peace by three or more persons assembled
together in furtherance of a common purpose to execute some enterprise of a private nature by
concerted action against anyone who might oppose them, committed in such a violent and turbulent
manner as to cause or be calculated to cause public terror. The gravamen of
the otiense of riot is
terrorization of
the public. It is immaterial whether the act intended was lawful. Furthermore, it is
not necessary that the common purpose be determined before the assembly. It is su±licient if the
assembly begins to execute in a tumultuous manner a common purpose formed after it assembled.
(2) Breach of
the peace. A breach of the peace is an unlawtld disturbance of the peace by an
outward demonstration of a violent or turbulent nature. The acts or conduct contemplated by this
article are those which disturb the public tranquility or impinge upon the peace and good order to
which the community is entitled. Engaging in an affray and unlawful discharge of fireanns in a
public street are examples of conduct which may constitute a breach of the peace. Loud speech
and unruly conduct may also constitute a breach of
the peace by the speaker. A speaker may also
be guilty of causing a breach of the peace if
the speaker uses language which can reasonably be
expected to produce a violent or turbulent response and a breach of the peace results. The fact that
the words are tme or used under provocation is not a defense, nor is tumultuous conduct excusable
because incited by others.
(3) Community and
public. Community and public include a military organization, post, camp,
ship, aircraft, or station.
d.lvfaximum punishment.
(1) Riot. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and confinement for 10
years.
(2) Breach t?fthe peace. Confinement for 6 months and forfeiture of
two-thirds pay per month
for 6 months.
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e. Sample specifications.
(1) Riot.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about __
20 _,(cause) (participate in) a
riot by unlawfully assembling with __
(and
(and) (others to the number of about __
whose names are unknown) for the purpose of
(resisting the police of
(assaulting passers-
by) (
), and in furtherance of
said purpose did (fight with said police) (assault certain persons,
to wit:
(
), to the terror and disturbance of
(2) Breach qf
the peace.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about __
20 __,(cause) (participate in) a
breach of the peace by (wrongfully engaging in a fist fight in the dayroom with ____
_,.
(using the following provoking language (toward
to wit:"
"or words to that effect)
(wrongfully shouting and singing in a public place, to \vit: ---'
,
___
/
55. Article 117 (10 U.S.C. 917)-Provoking speeches or gestures
a. Text l?lstalule.
Any person subject to this chapter who uses provoking or reproachful words or
gestures towards any other person subject to this chapter shall be punished as a court-
martial may direct.
b. Elements.
(1) That the accused wTongfully used words or gestures toward a certain person;
(2) That the words or gestures used were provoking or reproachful; and
(3) That the person toward whom the words or gestures were used was a person subject to the
UCMJ.
c. Explanation.
(1) In general. As used in this article, provoking and reproachful describe those words or
gestures which are used in the presence of
the person to whom they are directed and which a
reasonable person would expect to induce a breach of
the peace under the circumstances. These
words and gestures do not include reprimands, censures, reproofs and the like which may
properly be administered in the interests of
training, efficiency, or discipline in the armed forces.
(2) Knowledge. It is not necessary that the accused have knowledge that the person toward
whom the words or gestures are directed is a person subject to the UCMJ.
d. Maximum punishment. Confinement for 6 months and forfeiture of two-thirds pay per month
for 6 months.
e. Sample spec?fication.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter
jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20 _,wrongfully use (provoking)
(reproachful) (words, to wit: "
" or words to that effect) (and) (gestures, to wit:
-----·'towards
(Sergeant
U.S. Air Force)'·-----'
56. Article 118 (10 U.S.C. 918)-Murder
a. Text (!lstatute.
Any person subject to this chapter who, without justification or excuse, unlawfully
kills a human being, when he--
(
1) has a premeditated design to kill;
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(2) intends to kill or inflict great bodily harm;
(3) is engaged in an act which is inherently dangerous to another and evinces
a wanton disregard of human life; or
(4) is engaged in the perpetration or attempted perpetration of burglary,
rape, rape of a child, sexual assault, sexual assault of a child, aggravated sexual contact,
sexual abuse of a child, robbery or aggravated arson;
is guilty of murder, and shall suffer such punishment as a court-martial may direct, except
that if found guilty under clause (1) or (
4), he shall suffer death or imprisonment for life as
a court-martial may direct.
b. Elements.
(I) Premeditated murder.
(a) That a certain named or described person is dead;
(b) That the death resulted from the act or omission of
the accused;
(c) That the killing was unlawful; and
(d) That, at the time of
the killing, the accused had a premeditated design to kill.
(2) lnlent to kill or it!flicf great bodily harm.
(a) That a certain named or described person is dead;
(b) That the death resulted from the act or omission of
the accused;
(c) That the killing was unlawful; and
(d) That, at the time of
the killing, the accused had the intent to kill or inflict great bodily
harm upon a person.
(3) Act inherently dangerous to another.
(a) That a certain named or described person is dead;
(b) That the death resulted from the intentional act of
the accused;
(c) That this act was inherently dangerous to another and showed a wanton disregard for
human life;
(d) That the accused knew that death or great bodily hann was a probable consequence of
the act; and
(e) That the killing was unlawful.
(4) During certain offenses.
(a) That a certain named or described person is dead;
(b) That the death resulted from the act or omission of
the accused;
(c) That the killing was unlawful; and
(d) That, at the time of
the killing, the accused was engaged in the perpetration or
attempted perpetration of
burglary, rape, rape of
a child, sexual assault, sexual assault of
a child,
aggravated sexual contact, sexual abuse of a child, robbery, or aggravated arson.
c. Explanation.
(I) In general. Killing a human being is unlawful when done without justification or excuse.
See R.C.M. 916. Whether an unlawful killing constitutes murder or a lesser offense depends
upon the circumstances. The offense is committed at the place of
the act or omission although
the victim may have died elsewhere. Whether death occurs at the time of
the accused's act or
omission, or at some time thereafter, it must have followed from an injury received by the victim
which resulted from the act or omission.
(2) Premeditated murder.
(a) Premeditation. A murder is not premeditated unless the thought of
taking life was
consciously conceived and the act or omission by which it was taken was intended. Premeditated
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murder is murder committed after the formation of
a specific intent to kill someone and
consideration of
the act intended. It is not necessary that the intention to kill have been
entertained for any particular or considerable length of
time. When a fixed purpose to kill has
been deliberately formed, it is immaterial how soon afterwards it is put into execution. The
existence of premeditation may be inferred from the circumstances.
(b) Transferred premeditation. When an accused with a premeditated design attempted to
unlawfully kill a certain person, but, by mistake or inadvertence, killed another person, the
accused is still criminally responsible for a premeditated murder, because the premeditated
design to kill is transferred from the intended victim to the actual victim.
(c)Intoxication. Voluntary intoxication (see R.C.M. 916(1)(2)) not amounting to legal
insanity may reduce premeditated murder (Article 118(1)) to unpremeditated murder (Article
118(2) or (3)) but it does not reduce either premeditated murder or unpremeditated murder to
manslaughter (Article 119) or any other lesser offense.
(3) Intent to kill or ir?fl.ict great bodi~v
harm.
(a) Intent. An unlawful killing without premeditation is also murder when the accused had
either an intent to kill or inflict great bodily ham1. It may be inferred that a person intends the
natural and probable consequences of
an act purposely done. Hence, if a person does an
intentional act likely to result in death or great bodily injury, it may be inferred that death or
great bodily injury was intended. The intent need not be directed toward the person killed, or
exist for any particular time before commission of
the act, or have previously existed at all. It is
sufficient that it existed at the time of
the act or omission (except if
death is inflicted in the heat
of
a sudden passion caused by adequate provocation- see paragraph 57). For example, a person
committing housebreaking who strikes and kills the householder attempting to prevent f1ight can
be guilty of
murder even if
the householder was not seen until the moment before striking the
fatal blow.
(b) Great bodily harm. "Great bodily harm" means serious injury; it does not include
minor injuries such as a black eye or a bloody nose, but it does include fractured or dislocated
bones, deep cuts, tom members of
the body, serious damage to internal organs, and other serious
bodily injuries. It is synonymous with the term "grievous bodily harm."
(c) intoxication. Voluntary intoxication not amounting to legal insanity does not reduce
unpremeditated murder to manslaughter (Article 119) or any other lesser offense.
(
4) Act inherently dangerous to others.
(a) Wanton disregard ofhuman life. Intentionally engaging in an act inherently dangerous
to another-although without an intent to cause the death of
or great bodily hann to any
particular person, or even with a wish that death will not be caused-may also constitute murder
if
the act shows wanton disregard of human life. Such disregard is characterized by heedlessness
of
the probable consequences of
the act or omission, or indifference to the likelihood of
death or
great bodily harm. Examples include throwing a live grenade toward another in jest or flying an
aircraft very low over one or more persons to cause alarm.
(b) Know
ledge. The accused must know that death or great bodily harm was a probable
consequence of
the inherently dangerous act. Such knowledge may be proved by circumstantial
evidence.
(
5) During certain offenses.
(a) In general. The commission or attempted commission of
any of
the offenses listed in
Article 118(
4) is likely to result in homicide, and when an unlawful killing occurs as a
consequence of
the perpetration or attempted perpetration of one of
these offenses, the killing is
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murder. Under these circumstances it is not a defense that the killing was unintended or
accidental.
(b) Separate offenses. The perpetration or attempted perpetration of
burglary, rape, rape of
a child, sexual assault, sexual assault of a child, aggravated sexual contact, sexual abuse of
a
child, robbery, or aggravated arson may be charged separately from the homicide.
d. Maximum punishment.
(1) Article 118(1) or (4)-death. Mandatory minimum-imprisonment for life with the
eligibility for parole.
(2) Article 118(2) or (3)-such punishment other than death as a court-martial may direct.
e. Sample specification.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20_, (with premeditation)
(while (perpetrating) (attempting to perpetrate)
) murder
by
means of(shooting (him) (her) "\\<1th a rifle),
____
,
57. Article 119 (10 U.S.C. 919)-Manslaughter
a. Text (?{statute.
(a) Any person subject to this chapter who, with an intent to kill or inflict great
bodily harm, unlawfully kills a human being in the heat of sudden passion caused by
adequate provocation is guilty of
voluntary manslaughter and shall be punished as a court-
martial may direct.
(b) Any person subject to this chapter who, without an intent to kill or inflict great
bodily harm, unlawfully kills a human being-
(
1) by culpable negligence; or
(2) while perpetrating or attempting to perpetrate an offense, other than
those named in clause (
4) of section 918 of this title (article 118), directly affecting the
person;
is guilty of involuntary manslaughter and shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
b. Elements.
(1) Voluntary manslaughter.
(a) That a certain named or described person is dead;
(b) That the death resulted from the act or omission of
the accused;
(c) That the killing was unlawful; and
(d) That, at the time of
the killing, the accused had the intent to kill or inflict great bodily
harm upon the person killed.
[Note: Add the following if
applicable]
(e) That the person killed was a child under the age of 16 years.
(2) Involuntary manslaughter.
(a) That a certain named or described person is dead;
(b) That the death resulted from the act or omission of
the accused;
(c) That the killing was unlawful; and
(d) That this act or omission of
the accused constituted culpable negligence, or occurred
while the accused was perpetrating or attempting to perpetrate an offense directly affecting the
person other than burglary, rape, rape of
a child, sexual assault, sexual assault of a child,
aggravated sexual contact, sexual abuse of a child, robbery, or aggravated arson.
[Note: Add the following if
applicable]
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(e) That the person killed was a child under the age of 16 years.
c. Explanation.
(1) ·voluntmy manslaughter.
(a) Nature of
offense. An unlawful killing, although done with an intent to kill or inflict
great bodily harm, is not murder but voluntary manslaughter if
committed in the heat of
sudden
passion caused by adequate provocation. Heat of
passion may result from fear or rage. A person
may be provoked to such an extent that in the heat of sudden passion caused by the provocation,
although not in necessary defense of
life or to prevent bodily harm, a fatal blow may be struck
before self-control has returned. Although adequate provocation does not excuse the homicide, it
does preclude conviction of
murder.
(b) Nature of
provocation. The provocation must be adequate to excite uncontrollable
passion in a reasonable person, and the act of
killing must be committed under and because of
the passion. However, the provocation must not be sought or induced as an excuse for killing or
doing harm. If, judged by the standard of
a reasonable person, sufficient cooling time elapses
between the provocation and the killing, the offense is murder, even if
the accused's passion
persists. Examples of
acts which may, depending on the circumstances, constitute adequate
provocation are the unlawful infliction of
great bodily harm, unlawful imprisonment, and the
sight by one spouse of an act of
adultery committed by the other spouse. Insulting or abusive
words or gestures, a slight blow with the hand or fist, and trespass or other injury to property are
not, standing alone, adequate provocation.
(c) 71Vhen committed upon a child under 16 years (if
age. The maximum punishment is
increased when voluntary manslaughter is committed upon a child under 16 years of age. The
accused's knowledge that the child was under 16 years of age at the time of
the offense is not
required for the increased maximum punishment.
(2) involuntary manslaughter.
(a) Culpable negligence.
(i) Nature of
culpable negligence. Culpable negligence is a degree of
carelessness
greater than simple negligence. It is a negligent act or omission accompanied by a culpable
disregard for the foreseeable consequences to others of
that act or omission. Thus, the basis of
a
charge of
involuntary manslaughter may be a negligent act or omission which, when viewed in
the light of human experience, might foreseeably result in the death of another, even though
death would not necessarily be a natural and probable consequence of
the act or omission. Acts
which may amount to culpable negligence include negligently conducting target practice so that
the bullets go in the direction of
an inhabited house within range; pointing a pistol in jest at
another and pulling the trigger, believing, but without taking reasonable precautions to ascertain,
that it would not be dangerous; and carelessly leaving poisons or dangerous drugs where they
may endanger life.
(ii) Legal duty required. When there is no legal duty to act there can be no neglect.
Thus, when a stranger makes no effort to save a drowning person, or a person allows a beggar to
freeze or starve to death, no crime is committed.
(b) Offense directly affecting the person. An "offense directly affecting the person" means
an offense affecting some particular person as distinguished from an offense affecting society in
general. Among offenses directly affecting the person are the various types of
assault, battery,
false imprisonment, voluntary engagement in an affray, and maiming.
(c) "ffl"hen committed upon a child under 16
years~~
age. The maximum punishment is
increased when involuntary manslaughter is committed upon a child under 16 years of
age. The
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accused's knowledge that the child was under 16 years of age at the time of
the offense is not
required for the increased maximum punishment.
d. Maximum punishment.
(1) Voluntat}' manslaughter. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances,
and confinement for 15 years.
(2) Involuntary manslaughter. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances,
and confinement for 10 years.
(3) Voltmtat)l manslaughter of
a child under 16 yem·s of
age. Dishonorable discharge,
forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and confinement for 20 years.
(
4) Involuntary manslaughter of
a child under 16
years of
age. Dishonorable discharge,
forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and confinement for 15 years.
e. Sample spec{fication.
(1) ·voluntary manslaughter.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20 ___,willfully and unlawfully kill
_____
,(a child under 16 years of age) by
(him) (her) (in) (on) the
with a
-----
--------
(2) lnvoluntar;.' manslaughter.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about __
20 _,(by culpable negligence) (while
(perpetrating) (attempting to perpetrate) an offense directly affecting the person of
,
to wit: (maiming) (a battery) (
)) unlawfully kill
(a child under 16 years of
age) by
(him) (her) (in) (on) the
with a ___
_
58. Article 119a (10 U.S.C. 919a)-Death or injury of an unborn child
a. Text (ifstatute.
(a)(1) Any person subject to this chapter who engages in conduct that violates any of
the provisions of law listed in subsection (b) and thereby causes the death of, or bodily
injury (as defined in section 1365 of title 18) to, a child, who is in utero at the time the
conduct takes place, is guilty of a separate offense under this section and shall, upon
conviction, be punished by such punishment, other than death, as a court-martial may
direct, which shall be consistent with the punishments prescribed by the President for that
conduct had that injury or death occurred to the unborn child's mother.
(2) An offense under this section does not require proof that-
(i) the person engaging in the conduct had knowledge or should have
had knowledge that the victim of the underlying offense was pregnant; or
(ii) the accused intended to cause the death of, or bodily injury to, the
unborn child.
(3) If
the person engaging in the conduct thereby intentionally kiHs or
attempts to kill the unborn child, that person shall, instead of being punished under
paragraph (1 ), be punished as provided under sections 880, 918, and 919(a) of this title
(articles 80, 118, and 119(a)) for intentionally killing or attempting to kill a human being.
(4) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the death penalty shall not be
imposed for an offense under this section.
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(b) The provisions referred to in subsection (a) are sections 918, 919(a), 919(b)(2),
920(a), 922, 926, 928, and 928a of this title (articles 118, 119(a), 119(b)(2), 120(a), 122, 126,
128, and 128a).
(c) Nothing in this section shall be construed to permit the prosecution-
(!) of any person for conduct relating to an abortion for which the consent of
the pregnant woman, or a person authorized by law to act on her behalf, has been obtained
or for which such consent is implied by law;
(2) of any person for any medical treatment of the pregnant woman or her
unborn child; or
(3) of any woman with respect to her unborn child.
(d) In this section, the term '"unborn child" means a child in utero, and the term
"child in utero" or "child, who is in utero" means a member of the species homo sapiens, at
any stage of development, who is carried in the womb.
b. Elements.
(1) !t?iuring an unborn child
(a) That the accused was engaged in the [(murder (article 118)), (voluntary manslaughter
(article 119(a))), (involuntary manslaughter (article 119(b)(2))), (rape (article 120(a))), (robbery
(article 122)), (maiming (article 128a)), (assault (article 128)), of] or [burning or setting afire, as
arson (article 126), of (a dwelling inhabited by) (a structure or property (known to be occupied
by) (belonging to))] a woman;
(b) That the woman was then pregnant; and
(c) That the accused thereby caused bodily injury to the unborn child of
that woman.
(2) Killing an unborn child
(a) That the accused was engaged in the [(murder (article 118)), (voluntary manslaughter
(article 119(a))), (involuntary manslaughter (article 119(b)(2))), (rape (article 120(a))), (robbery
(article 122)), (maiming (article 128a)), (assault (article 128)), ofl or [burning or setting afire, as
arson (article 126), of (a dwelling inhabited by) (a structure or property (known to be occupied
by) (belonging to))] a woman;
(b) That the woman was then pregnant; and
(c) That the accused thereby caused the death of
the unborn child of
that woman.
(3) Attempting to kill an unborn child
(a) That the accused was engaged in the [(murder (article 118)), (voluntary manslaughter
(article 119(a))), (involuntary manslaughter (article 119(b
)(2))), (rape (article 120(a))), (robbery
(article 122)), (maiming (article 128a)), (assault (article 128)), of] or [burning or setting afire, as
arson (article 126), of (a dwelling inhabited by) (a stmcture or property (known to be occupied
by) (belonging to))] a woman;
(b) That the \Voman was then pregnant; and
(c) That the accused thereby intended and attempted to kill the unborn child of
that
woman.
(
4) Intentionally killing an unborn child
(a) That the accused was engaged in the [(murder (article 118)), (voluntary manslaughter
(article 119(a))), (involuntary manslaughter (article 119(b
)(2))), (rape (article 120(a))), (robbery
(article 122)), (maiming (article 128a)), (assault (article 128)), of] or [burning or setting afire, as
arson (article 126), of (a dwelling inhabited by) (a stmcture or property (known to be occupied
by) (belonging to))] a woman;
(b) That the woman was then pregnant; and
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(c) That the accused thereby intentionally killed the unborn child of
that woman.
c. Explanation.
(1) Nature of
offense. This article makes it a separate, punishable crime to cause the death of
or bodily injury to an unborn child while engaged in arson (article 126, UCMJ); murder (article
118, UCMJ); voluntary manslaughter (article 119(a), UCMJ); involuntary manslaughter (article
119(b
)(2), UCMJ); rape (article 120(a), UCMJ); robbery (article 122, UCMJ); maiming (article
128a, UCMJ); or assault (article 128, UCMJ) against a pregnant woman. For all underlying
offenses, except arson, this article requires that the victim of the underlying offense be the
pregnant mother. For purposes of
arson, the pregnant mother must have some nexus to the arson
such that she sustained some bodily injury due to the arson. For the purposes of
this article the
term "woman" means a female of
any age. This article does not pennit the prosecution of any-
(
a) person for conduct relating to an abortion for which the consent of
the pregnant
woman, or a person authorized by law to act on her behalf, has been obtained or for which such
consent is implied by law;
(b) person for any medical treatment of
the pregnant woman or her unborn child; or
(c) woman with respect to her unborn child.
(2) The offenses of injuring an unborn child and killing an unborn child do not require proof
that-
(
a) the accused had knowledge or should have had knowledge that the victim of
the
underlying offense was pregnant; or
(b) the accused intended to cause the death of, or bodily injury to, the unborn child.
(3) The offense of
attempting to kill an unborn child requires that the accused intended by his
conduct to cause the death of
the unborn child (see subparagraph b.(3)(c) of this paragraph).
(4) Bodily il?jury. For the purpose of
this offense, the tern1 "bodily injury" is that which is
provided by section 1365 of
title 18, to wit: a cut, abrasion, bruise, burn, or disfigurement;
physical pain; illness; impairment of
the function of a bodily member, organ, or mental faculty;
or any other injury to the body, no matter how temporary.
(5) Unborn child "Unborn child" means a child in utero or a member of
the species homo
sapiens who is carried in the womb, at any stage of
development, from conception to birth.
d. fl.1aximum punishment. The maximum punishment for (1) Injuring an unborn child; (2) Killing
an unborn child; (3) Attempting to kill an unborn child; or (4) Intentionally killing an unborn
child is such punishment, other than death, as a court-martial may direct, but shall be consistent
with the punishment had the bodily injury, death, attempt to kill, or intentional killing occurred
to the unborn child's mother.
d. Sample specifications.
(1) l1ijuring an unborn child
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location), (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20 __
,cause bodily injury to the
unborn child of a pregnant woman, by engaging in the [(murder) (voluntary manslaughter)
(involuntary manslaughter) (rape) (robbery) (maiming) (assault) of] [(burning) (setting afire) of
(a dwelling inhabited by) (a structure or property known to (be occupied by) (belong to))] that
woman.
(2) Killing an unborn child
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location), (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20 __
, cause the death of the
unborn child of a pregnant woman, by engaging in the [(murder) (voluntary manslaughter)
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(involuntary manslaughter) (rape) (robbery) (maiming) (assault) of] [(burning) (setting afire) of
(a dwelling inhabited by) (a structure or property known to (be occupied by) (belong to))] that
woman.
(3) Attempting to kill an unborn child
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location), (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20 __
, attempt to kill the unborn
child of
a pregnant woman, by engaging in the [(murder) (voluntary manslaughter) (involuntary
manslaughter) (rape) (robbery) (maiming) (assault) of] [(burning) (setting afire) of(a dwelling
inhabited by) (a structure or property known to (be occupied by) (belong to))] that woman.
(
4) Intentionally killing an unborn child
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location), (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20 __
, intentionally kill the
unborn child of a pregnant woman, by engaging in the [(murder) (voluntary manslaughter)
(involuntary manslaughter) (rape) (robbery) (maiming) (assault) of] [(burning) (setting afire) of
(a dwelling inhabited by) (a structure or property known to (be occupied by) (belong to))] that
woman.
59. Article 119b (10 U.S.C. 919b)-Child endanget·ment
a. Text (~{statute.
Any person subject to this chapter-
(1) who has a duty for the care of a child under the age of 16 years; and
(2) who, through design or culpable negligence, endangers the child's mental
or physical health, safety, or welfare;
shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
b. Elements.
(l) That the accused had a duty for the care of
a certain child;
(2) That the child was under the age of 16 years; and
(3) That the accused endangered the child's mental or physical health, safety, or welfare
through design or culpable negligence.
c. i'.,xplanation.
(1) Design. "Design" means on purpose, intentionally, or according to plan and requires
specific intent to endanger the child.
(2) Culpable negligence. Culpable negligence is a degree of carelessness greater than simple
negligence. It is a negligent act or omission accompanied by a culpable disregard for the
foreseeable consequences to others of
that act or omission. In the context of
this offense,
culpable negligence may include acts that, when viewed in the light of
human experience, might
foreseeably result in harm to a child. The age and maturity of
the child, the conditions
surrounding the neglectful conduct, the proximity of
assistance available, the nature of
the
environment in whic.h the child may have been left, the provisions made for care of
the child, and
the location of
the parent or adult responsible for the child relative to the location of
the child,
among others, may be considered in determining whether the conduct constituted culpable
negligence.
(3) Harm. Actual physical or mental harm to the child is not required. The offense requires
that the accused's actions reasonably could have caused physical or mental harm or suffering.
However, if
the accused's conduct does cause actual physical or mental harm, the potential
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maximum punishment increases. See subparagraph 77.c.(l)(c) for an explanation of grievous
bodily harm.
(4) Endanger. "Endanger" means to subject one to a reasonable probability of
harm.
(5) Age C!f'victim as a factor. While this offense may be committed against any child under
16, the age of
the victim is a factor in the culpable negligence determination. Leaving a teenager
alone for an evening may not be culpable (or even simple) negligence; leaving an infant or
toddler for the same period might constitute culpable negligence. On the other hand, leaving a
teenager without supervision for an extended period while the accused was on temporary duty
outside commuting distance might constitute culpable negligence.
(6) Duty required The duty of care is determined by the totality of
the circumstances and may
be established by statute, regulation, legal parent-child relationship, mutual agreement, or
assumption of control or custody by affirmative act. When there is no duty of care of a child,
there is no offense under this paragraph. Thus, there is no offense when a stranger makes no
effort to feed a starving child or an individual not charged vv1th the care of
a child does not
prevent the child from running and playing in the street.
d. lvfaximum punishment.
(1) F.ndangermenl by design resulting in grievous bodily harm. Dishonorable discharge,
forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and confinement for 8 years.
(2) Endangerment by design resulting in harm. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of
all pay
and allowances, and confinement for 5 years.
(3) Other cases by design. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances and
confinement for 4 years.
(4) ~·ndangerment
by culpable negligence resulting in grievous bodily harm. Dishonorable
discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and confinement for 3 years.
(5) Endangerment by culpable negligence resulting in harm. Bad-conduct discharge,
forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and confinement for 2 years.
(6) Other cases by culpable negligence. Bad-conduct discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and
allowances, and confinement for 1 year.
e. Sample specifications.
(1) Resulting in grievous bodily harm.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), (at/on board-location) (subject-matter
jurisdiction data, if
required) on or about __
20 _, had a duty for the care of
, a
child under the age of 16 years and did endanger the (mental health) (physical health) (safety)
(welfare) of said
, by (leaving the said
unattended in (his) (her)
quarters for over
(hours) (days) with no adult present in the home) (by failing to
obtain medical care for the said
's diabetic condition) (
, and that such
conduct (was by design) (constituted culpable negligence) (which resulted in grievous bodily
harm, to wit:
(broken leg) (deep cut) (fractured skull)).
(2) Resulting in harm.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), (at/on board-location) (subject-matter
jurisdiction data, if
required) on or about
20 _, had a duty for the care of
____
,a
child under the age of 16 years, and did endanger the (mental health) (physical
health) (safety) (welfare) of said
, by (leaving the said
unattended in (his)
(her) quarters for over
(hours) (days) with no adult present in the home) (by failing to
obtain medical care for the said
's diabetic condition)
and that
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such conduct (was by design) (constituted culpable negligence) (which resulted in (harm, to
wit:
) (a black eye) (bloody nose) (minor cut)).
(3) Other cases.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), (at/on board-location) (subject-matter
jurisdiction data, if
required) on or about
20 _, was responsible for the care of
____
, a child under the age of 16 years, and did endanger the (mental health) (physical
health) (safety) (welfare) of said
by (leaving the said
unattended in
(his) (her) quarters for over
(hours) (days) with no adult present in the home) (by
failing to obtain medical care for the said
's diabetic condition) ,
_____
_J
and that such conduct (was by design) (constituted culpable negligence).
60. Article 120 (10 U.S.C. 920)-Rape and sexual assault generally
!Note: This statute applies to offenses committed on or after 1 January 2019. Previous
versions of Article 120 are located as follows: for offenses committed on or before 30
September 2007, .see Appendix 27; for offenses committed during the period 1 October
2007 through 27 June 2012, see Appendix 28; for offenses committed during the period 28
June 2012 through 31 December 2018, see Appendix 29.]
a. Text ofstatuie.
(a) RAPE.-Any person subject to this chapter who commits a sexual act upon
another person by-
(1) using unlawful force against that other person;
(2) using force causing or likely to cause death or grievous bodily harm to any
person;
(J) threatening or placing that other person in fear that any person will be
subjected to death, grievous bodily harm, or kidnapping;
(4) first rendering that other person unconscious; or
(5) administering to that other person by force or threat of force, or without
the knowledge or consent of that person, a drug, intoxicant, or other similar substance and
thereby substantially impairing the ability of that other person to appraise or control
conduct;
is guilty of •·ape and shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
(b) SEX:UALASSAULT.-Any person subject to this chapter who-
(1) commits a sexual act upon another person by-
(
A) threatening or placing that other person in fear;
(B) making a fraudulent representation that the sexual act serves a
professional purpose; or
(C) inducing a belief by any artifice, pretense, or concealment that the
person is another person;
(2) commits a sexual act upon another person-
(A) without the consent of the other person; or
(B) when the person knows or reasonably should know that the other
person is asleep, unconscious, or otherwise unaware that the sexual act is occurring;
(3) commits a sexual act upon another person when the other person is
incapable of consenting to the sexual act due to--
(A) impairment by any drug, intoxicant, or other similar substance,
and that condition is known or reasonably should be known by the person; or
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(B) a mental disease or defect, or physical disability, and that
condition is known or reasonably should be known by the person;
is guilty of sexual assault and shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
(c) AGGRAVATED SEXUAL CONTACT.-Any person subject to this chapter who
commits or causes sexual contact upon or by another person, if to do so would violate
subsection (a) (rape) bad the sexual contact been a sexual act, is guilty of aggravated sexual
contact and shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
(d) ABUSIVE SEXUAL CONTACT.-Any person subject to this chapter who commits or
causes sexual contact upon or by another person, if to do so would violate subsection (b)
(sexual assault) had the sexual contact been a sexual act, is guilty of abusive sexual contact
and shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
(e) PROOF OF THREAT.-ln a prosecution under this section, in proving that a
person made a threat, it need not be proven that the person actually intended to carry out
the threat or had the ability to carry out the threat.
(f) DEFENSES.-An accused may raise any applicable defenses available under this
chapter or the Rules for Court-Martial. Mar·riage is not a defense for any conduct in issue
in any p•·osecution under this section.
(g) DEFINITIONS.-ln this section:
(
1) SEXUAL ACT .-The term "sexual act" means-
(
A) the penetration, however slight, of the penis into the vulva or anus
or mouth;
(B) contact between the mouth and the penis, vulva, scrotum, or anus;
or
(C) the penetration, however slight, of the vulva or penis or anus of
another by any part of the body or any object, with an intent to abuse, humiliate, harass, or
degrade any person or to arouse or gratify the sexual desire of any person.
(2) SEXUAL CONTACT.-The term "sexual contact" means touching, o•· causing
another person to touch, either directly or through the clothing, the vulva, penis, scrotum,
anus, groin, breast, inner thigh, or buttocks of
any person, with an intent to abuse, humiliate,
harass, or degrade any person or to arouse or gratify the sexual desire of any person.
Touching may be accomplished by any part of the body o•· an object.
(3) GRIEVOUS BODILY HARM.-The term "grievous bodily harm" means
serious bodily injury. It includes fractured or dislocated bones, deep cuts, torn members of
the body, se•·ious damage to internal organs, and other severe bodily injuries. It
does not
include minor injuries such as a black eye or a bloody nose.
(4) FORCE.-The term "force" means-
(A) the use of a weapon;
(B) the use of such physical strength or violence as is sufficient to
overcome, restrain, or injure a person; or
(C) inflicting physical harm sufficient to coerce or compel submission
by the victim.
(5) UNLAWFUL FORCE.-The term "unlawful force" means an act offorce done
without legal justification or excuse.
(6) THREATENING OR PLACING THAT OTHER PERSON IN FEAR.-The term
"threatening or placing that other person in fear" means a communication or action that is
of sufficient consequence to cause a reasonable fear that non-compliance will result in the
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victim or another person being subjected to the wrongful action contemplated by the
communication or action.
(7) CONSENT.-
(A) The term "consent" means a freely given agreement to the
conduct at issue by a com11etent person. An expression of lack of consent through words or
conduct means there is no consent. Lack of verbal or physical resistance does not constitute
consent. Submission resulting from the use of force, threat of for·ce, or placing another
person in fear also does not constitute consent. A current or previous dating or social or
sexual relationship by itself or the manner of dress of the person involved with the accused
in the conduct at issue does not constitute consent.
(B) A sleeping, unconscious, or incompetent person cannot consent. A
person cannot consent to force causing or likely to cause death or grievous bodily harm or
to being rendered unconscious. A person cannot consent while under threat or in fear or
under the circumstances described in subparagraph (B) or (C) of subsection (b)(l).
(C) All the surrounding circumstances are to be considered in
determining whether a person gave consent.
(8) INCAPABLE OF CONSENTJNG.-The term "incapable of consenting" means
the person is-
(A) incapable of appraising the nature of the conduct at issue; or
(B)
physically
incapable
of declining
participation
in,
or
communicating [unwillingness] to engage in, the sexual act at issue.
b. Elements.
(l)Rape.
(a) By unlcnt:fulforce.
(i) That the accused committed a sexual act upon another person; and
(ii) That the accused did so with unlawful force.
(b) By
force causing or likely to cause death or grievous bodily harm.
(i) That the accused committed a sexual act upon another person; and
(ii) That the accused did so by using force causing or likely to cause death
or grievous bodily harm to any person.
(c) By threatening or placing that other person in
fear that an,v person would be
Slt~jected
to death, grievous bodily harm, or kidnapping.
(i) That the accused committed a sexual act upon another person; and
(ii) That the accused did so by threatening or placing that other person in
fear that any person would be subjected to death, grievous bodily harm, or kidnapping.
unconscwus.
(d) By
first rendering that other person unconscious.
(i) That the accused committed a sexual act upon another person; and
(ii) That the accused did so by first rendering that other person
(e) By administering a drug, intoxicant, or other similar substance.
(i) That the accused committed a sexual act upon another person; and
(ii) That the accused did so by administering to that other person by force
or threat of
force, or without the knowledge or consent of
that person, a drug, intoxicant, or other
similar substance and thereby substantially impairing the ability of that other person to appraise
or control conduct.
(2) Sexual assault.
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fear.
(a) By threatening or
placing that other person in fear.
(i) That the accused committed a sexual act upon another person; and
(ii) That the accused did so by threatening or placing that other person in
(b) By
fraudulent representation.
(i) That the accused committed a sexual act upon another person; and
(ii) That the accused did so by making a fraudulent representation that the
sexual act served a professional purpose.
(c) By art!fice, pretense, or concealment.
(i) That the accused committed a sexual act upon another person; and
(ii) That the accused did so by inducing a belief by any artifice, pretense,
or concealment that the accused was another person.
occurring.
(d) Without consent.
(i) That the accused committed a sexual act upon another person; and
(ii) That the accused did so without the consent of
the other person.
(e) Of
a person who is asleep, unconscious, or otherwise unaH!(lre the acl is
(i) That the accused committed a sexual act upon another person;
(ii) That the other person was asleep, unconscious, or othenvise unaware
that the sexual act was occurring; and
(iii) That the accused knew or reasonably should have known that the
other person was asleep, unconscious, or otherwise unaware that the sexual act was occurring.
(t) When the other person is incapable of
consenting.
to:
or
(i) That the accused committed a sexual act upon another person;
(ii) That the other person was incapable of consenting to the sexual act due
(A) Impainnent by any drug, intoxicant or other similar substance;
(B) A mental disease or defect, or physical disability; and
(iii) That the accused knew or reasonably should have known of
that
condition.
and
(3)Aggravated sexual contact.
(a) By
force.
(i) That the accused committed sexual contact upon or by another person;
(ii) That the accused did so with unlawful force.
(b) By
force causing or likely to cause death or grievous bodi~y
harm.
(i) That the accused committed sexual contact upon another person; and
(ii) That the accused did so by using force causing or likely to cause death
or grievous bodily harm to any person.
(c) By threatening or placing that other person in
fear that any
person would be
subjected to death, grievous bodi~v
harm, or kidnapping.
(i) That the accused committed sexual contact upon another person; and
(ii) That the accused did so by threatening or placing that other person in
fear that any person would be subjected to death, grievous bodily harm, or kidnapping.
(d) By
.first rendering that other person unconscious.
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unconsc10us.
(i) That the accused committed sexual contact upon another person; and
(ii) That the accused did so by first rendering that other person
(e) By adnzinistering a drug, intoxicant, or other similar substance.
(i) That the accused committed sexual contact upon another person; and
(ii) That the accused did so by administering to that other person by force
or threat afforce, or without the knowledge or consent of that person, a drug, intoxicant, or other
similar substance and thereby substantially impairing the ability of
that other person to appraise
or control conduct.
(
4) Abusive sexual contact.
(a) By threatening or placing that other person in.fear.
(i) That the accused committed sexual contact upon or by another person;
and
(ii) That the accused did so by threatening or placing that other person in
fear.
(b) Ry.fraudulenl representation.
(i) That the accused committed sexual contact upon another person; and
(ii) That the accused did so by making a fraudulent representation that the
sexual act served a professional purpose.
(c) By arL{fice, pretense, or concealment.
(i) That the accused committed sexual contact upon another person; and
(ii) That the accused did so by inducing a belief
by any artifice, pretense,
or concealment that the accused was another person.
occurring.
(d) Without consent.
(i) That the accused committed sexual contact upon another person; and
(ii) That the accused did so without the consent of
the other person.
(e) Of
a person who is asleep, unconscious, or othenv
ise unaware the contact is
(i) That the accused committed sexual contact upon another person;
(ii) That the other person was asleep, unconscious, or otherwise unaware
that the sexual contact was occurring; and
(iii) That the accused knew or reasonably should have known that the
other person was asleep, unconscious, or otherwise unaware that the sexual contact was
occurring.
due to:
or
condition.
c. Explanation.
(f) W11en the other person is incapable ofconsenting.
(i) That the accused committed sexual contact upon another person;
(ii) That the other person was incapable of
consenting to the sexual contact
(A) Impairment by any drug, intoxicant or other similar substance;
(B) A mental disease or defect, or physical disability; and
(iii) That the accused knew or reasonably should have known of
that
(1) In general. Sexual offenses have been separated into three statutes: offenses against
adults (Art. 120), offenses against children (Art. 120b), and other offenses (Art. 120c).
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(2)Dejinitions. The terms are defined in subparagraph 60.a.(g).
(3) Victim sexual behavior or predisposition and
privilege. See Mil. R. Evid. 412
concerning rules of evidence relating to the sexual behavior or predisposition of
the victim of
an
alleged sexual o±Iense. See Mil. R. Evid. 514 concerning rules of
evidence relating to privileged
communications betw-een the victim and victim advocate.
(
4) Scope of "threatening or placing that other person in fear. "For purposes of
this
offense, the phrase "wrongful action" within Article 120(g)(6) (defining "threatening or placing
that other person in fear") includes an abuse of military rank, position, or authority in order to
engage in a sexual act or sexual contact with a victim. This includes, but is not limited to, threats
to initiate an adverse personnel action unless the victim submits to the accused's requested
sexual act or contact; and threats to withhold a favorable personnel action unless the victim
submits to the accused's requested sexual act or sexual contact. Superiority in rank is a factor in,
but not dispositive of, whether a reasonable person in the position of
the victim would fear that
his or her noncompliance with the accused's desired sexual act or sexual contact would result in
the threatened wrongful action contemplated by the communication or action.
d. Maximum punishment.
(1) Rape. Forfeiture of
all pay and allowances and confinement for life without eligibility
for parole. Mandatory minimum- Dismissal or dishonorable discharge.
(2) Sexual assault. Forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and confinement for 30 years.
Mandatory minimum
Dismissal or dishonorable discharge.
(3) Aggravated
sexual contact. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and
allowances, and confinement for 20 years.
(
4) Abusive sexual contact. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances,
and confinement for 7 years.
e. Sample ,\pecijications.
(l)Rape.
(a) By
force.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20_, commit a sexual act upon
_______
by [penetrating
's (vulva) (anus) (mouth) with
s
penis] [causing contact between
's mouth and
's (penis) (vulva) (scrotum)
(anus)] [penetrating
's (vulva) (penis) (anus) with
's body part) (an object) to
wit:
, with an intent to [(abuse) (humiliate) (harass) (degrade)
[(arouse)
(gratify) the sexual desire of
]], by using unlawful force.
(b) By
force causing or likely to cause death or grievous bodily harm.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20_, commit a sexual act upon
____
by [penetrating
's (vulva) (anus) (mouth) with
's penis]
[causing contact between
's mouth and
's (penis) (vulva) (scrotum)
(anus)] [penetrating
's (vulva) (penis) (anus) with
's body part) (an object)
to wit:
, with an intent to [(abuse) (humiliate) (harass) (degrade)
] [(arouse)
(gratify) the sexual desire of
], by using force likely to cause death or grievous bodily
harm to
, to
(c) By threatening or placing that other person in
fear that any
person would be
su~jected
to death, grievous bodily harm, or kidnapping.
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In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20
, commit a sexual act
upon
by [penetrating
's (vulva) (anus) (mouth) with
's
penis] [causing contact between
's mouth and
's (penis) (vulva)
(scrotum) (anus)] [penetrating
's (vulva) (penis) (anus) with
's body part)
(an object) to wit:
, with an intent to [(abuse) (humiliate) (harass) (degrade)---~
[(arouse) (gratify) the sexual desire of
], by (threatening
(placing
m
fear) that
would be subjected to (death) (gtievous bodily harm) (kidnapping).
(d) By
.first rendering that other person unconscious.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20
__
, commit a sexual act upon
____
by [penetrating
's (vulva) (anus) (mouth) with
's penis]
[causing contact between
's mouth and
's (penis) (vulva) (scrotum)
(anus)] [penetrating
's (vulva) (penis) (anus) with
's body part) (an object) to
wit:
, with an intent to [(abuse) (humiliate) (harass) (degrade)
[(arouse) (gratify)
the sexual desire of
by first rendering
unconscious
(e) Ry administering a drug, intoxicant, or other similar substance.
Tn that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20_, commit a sexual act upon
_____
by [penetrating
's (vulva) (anus) (mouth) with
's penis]
[causing contact between
's mouth and
's (penis) (vulva) (scrotum) (anus)]
[penetrating
's (vulva) (penis) (anus) with
s body part) (an object) to
wit:
, with an intent to [(abuse) (humiliate) (harass) (degrade)
] [(arouse)
(gratify) the sexual desire
by administering to
(by force) (by threat
of
force) (without the knowledge or permission of
a (drug) (intoxicant) (list other
similar substance), to wit:
, thereby substantially impairing the ability of
____
to appraise or control (his) (her) conduct.
(2) Sexual assault.
(a) By threatening or placing that other person in fear.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20_, commit a sexual act upon
____
,by [penetrating
's (vulva) (anus) (mouth) with
's penis]
[causing contact between
's mouth and
's (penis) (vulva) (scrotum) (anus)]
[penetrating
's (vulva) (penis) (anus) with
's body part) (an object) to
wit:
, with an intent to [(abuse) (humiliate) (harass) (degrade)
] [(arouse) (gratify)
the sexual desire of
]], by (threatening
) (placing
in fear).
(b) By
fraudulent representation.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20_, commit a sexual act upon
----,----'by
[penetrating
's (vulva) (anus) (mouth) with
's penis]
[causing contact between
's mouth and
's (penis) (vulva) (scrotum) (anus)]
[penetrating
's (vulva) (penis) (anus) with
s body part) (an object) to
wit:
, with an intent to [(abuse) (humiliate) (harass) (degrade)
[(arouse) (gratify)
the sexual desire of
]], by making a fraudulent representation that the sexual act
served a professional purpose, to
(c) By
false pretense.
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In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20_, commit a sexual act upon
.,--------'by [penetrating
's (vulva) (anus) (mouth) with
's penis]
[causing contact between
's mouth and
's (penis) (vulva) (scrotum) (anus)]
[penetrating
's (vulva) (penis) (anus) with
s body part) (an object) to
wit:
, with an intent to [(abuse) (humiliate) (harass) (degrade)
[(arouse) (gratify)
the sexual desire of
]], by inducing a beliefby (artifice) (pretense) (concealment) that
the said accused was another person.
(d) Without consent.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20_, commit a sexual act upon
____
,by [penetrating
's (vulva) (anus) (mouth) with
's penis]
[causing contact between
's mouth and
's (penis) (vulva) (scrotum) (anus),]
[penetrating
's (vulva) (penis) (anus) with
's body part) (an object) to
wit:
, with an intent to [(abuse) (humiliate) (harass) (degrade)
[(arouse) (gratify)
the sexual desire of
without the consent of _____
·
(e) Of
a person who is asleep, unconscious, or otherwise unaware the act is
occurring.
ln that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20_, commit a sexual act
upon
, by [penetrating
's (vulva) (anus) (mouth) with
's
penis] [causing contact between
's mouth and
's (penis) (vulva) (scrotum)
(anus)] [penetrating
's (vulva) (penis) (anus) with
's body part) (an object) to
wit:
, with an intent to [(abuse) (humiliate) (harass) (degrade)
[(arouse) (gratify)
the sexual desire of
]], when (he) (she) knew or reasonably should have known that
___
was (asleep) (unconscious) (unaware the sexual act was occurring due to _____
,
(t) When the other person is incapable ~f
consenting.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20_, commit a sexual act upon
___
,by [penetrating
's (vulva) (anus) (mouth) with
's penis]
[causing contact between
's mouth and
's (penis) (vulva) (scrotum) (anus)]
[penetrating
's (vulva) (penis) (anus) with
s body part) (an object) to
wit:
, with an intent to [(abuse) (humiliate) (harass) (degrade)
[(arouse) (gratify)
the sexual desire of
]], when
was incapable of consenting to the sexual act
because (he) (she) [was impaired by (a drug, to wit:
(an intoxicant, to
wit:
(
] [had a (mental disease, to wit:
(mental defect, to
wit:
(physical disability, to wit:
], and the accused (knew) (reasonably
should have known) of
that condition.
(3) Aggravated
sexual contact.
(a) By
force.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20
__
, (touch) (cause ___
.
touch) the (vulva) (penis) (scrotum) (anus) (groin) (breast) (inner thigh) (buttocks) of
__
_
with [
's body part) (an object) to wit:
] with an intent to [(abuse) (humiliate)
(harass) (degrade)
[(arouse) (gratify) the sexual desire of
] by using
unlawful force.
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(b) By
force causing or likely to cause death or grievous bodily harm.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location) (subject-matter
jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20_, (touch) (cause
to touch) the
(vulva) (penis) (scrotum) (anus) (groin) (breast) (inner thigh) (buttocks)
with
[ ·
's body part) (an object) to wit:
] with an intent to [(abuse) (humiliate) (harass)
(degrade)
[(arouse) (gratify) the sexual desire of
, by using force likely to
cause death or grievous bodily harm to
, to wit: ____
_
(c) By threatening or placing that other person in fear that any
person would be
suNected to death, grievous bodily harm, or kidnapping.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location) (subject-matter
jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20_, (touch) (cause
to touch)
the (vulva) (penis) (scrotum) (anus) (groin) (breast) (inner thigh) (buttocks) of_.
_____
, with
,
___
's body part) (an object) to wit:
with an intent to [(abuse) (humiliate) (harass)
(degrade)
[(arouse) (gratify) the sexual desire of
by (threatening
-::----'(placing
in fear) that
would be subjected to (death)
(grievous bodily hann) (kidnapping).
(d) By
first rendering that other person unconscious.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20
___j (touch) (cause ---
touch) the (vulva) (penis) (scrotum) (anus) (groin) (breast) (inner thigh) (buttocks) of
__
_
with [
's body part) (an object) to wit:
with an intent to [(abuse) (humiliate)
(harass) (degrade)
[
(arouse) (gratify) the sexual desire of
by rendering
____
unconSClOUS
(e) By administering a drug, intoxicant, or other similar substance.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
_,(touch) (cause
to
touch) the (vulva) (penis) (scrotum) (anus) (groin) (breast) (inner thigh) (buttocks) of
____
_
with [
's body part) (an object) to Vvit:
] with an intent to [(abuse) (humiliate)
(harass) (degrade)
[(arouse) (gratify) the sexual desire of
], by administering
to
(by force) (by threat of force) (without the knowledge or permission of
a
(drug) (intoxicant)
) thereby substantially impairing the ability of
to appraise or
control (his) (her) conduct.
(4)Abusive sexual contact.
(a) By threatening or placing that other person in fear.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location) (subject-matter
jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20_, (touch)(
cause
to touch) the
(vttlva) (penis) (scrotum) (anus) (groin) (breast) (inner thigh) (buttocks) of
, with
[
's body part) (an object) to wit:
with an intent to [(abuse) (humiliate) (harass)
(degrade)
[(arouse) (gratify) the sexual desire of
, by (threatening---'
(placing
in fear).
(b) By
fraudulent representation.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
(touch) (cause
to
touch) the (vulva) (penis) (scrotum) (anus) (groin) (breast) (inner thigh) (buttocks) of
__
_
with [(
's body part) (an object) to wit:
with an intent to [(abuse) (humiliate)
(harass) (degrade)
[(arouse) (gratify) the sexual desire of
by making a
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fraudulent representation that the sexual contact served a professional purpose, to wit:
(c) By
false pretense.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20_, (touch) (cause
to
touch) the (vulva) (penis) (scrotum) (anus) (groin) (breast) (inner thigh) (buttocks) of
__
_
with [
's body part) (an object) to wit:
] with an intent to [(abuse) (humiliate)
(harass) (degrade)
] [(arouse) (gratify) the sexual desire of
], by inducing a
beliefby (artifice) (pretense) (concealment) that the said accused was another person.
(d) Without consent.
In that
(person jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location) (subject-matter
jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20_, (touch) (cause
to touch) the
(vulva) (penis) (scrotum) (anus) (groin) (breast) (inner thigh) (buttocks) of
with
,
___
's body part) (an object) to wit:
with an intent to [(abuse) (humiliate) (harass)
(degrade)
[(arouse) (gratify) the sexual desire of
without the consent of
(e) O.f
a person who is asleep, unconscious, or otherwise unmvare the act is
occurring.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location) (subject-matter
jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20
__
, (touch) (cause
to touch)
the (vulva) (penis) (scrotum) (anus) (groin) (breast) (inner thigh) (buttocks) of
, with
'---- s body part) (an object) to wit:
with an intent to [(abuse) (humiliate) (harass)
(degrade)
[(arouse) (gratify) the sexual desire of
when (he) (she) (knew)
(reasonably should have known) that
was (asleep) (unconscious) (unaware the
sexual contact was occurring due to ____
____,
(t) When that
person is incapable (!f
consenting.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location) (subject-matter
jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20
__
, (touch) (cause
to touch)
the (vulva) (penis) (scrotum) (anus) (groin) (breast) (inner thigh) (buttocks) of
, with
[(
's body part) (an object) to wit:
] with an intent to [(abuse) (humiliate) (harass)
(degrade)
[(arouse) (gratify) the sexual desire of
when
was
incapable of
consenting to the sexual contact because (he) (she) [was impaired by (a drug, to
wit:
(an intoxicant, to wit:
· (
)] [had a (mental disease, to
wit:
(mental defect, to wit:
(physical disability, to
wit:
] and the accused (knew) (reasonably should have known) of
that condition.
61. Article 120a (10 U.S.C. 920a)--Mails: deposit of
obscene matter
a. Text ojstatute.
Any person subject to this chapter who, wrongfully and knowingly, deposits obscene
matter for mailing and delivery shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
b. Elements.
(1) That the accused deposited or caused to be deposited in the mails certain matter for
mailing and delivery;
(2) That the act was done \VTongfully and knowingly; and
(3) That the matter was obscene.
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c. Explanation. Whether something is obscene is a question of
fact. Obscene is synonymous with
indecent as the latter is defined in subparagraph 104.c.The matter must violate community
standards of
decency or obscenity and must go beyond customary limits of
expression.
"Knowingly" means the accused deposited the material with knowledge of its nature. Knowingly
depositing obscene matter in the mails is wrongful if it is done without legal justification or
authorization.
d
. .A1aximum punishment. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 3 years.
e. Sample spec?ftcation.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about_ 20
__
, -v.lfongfully and knowingly
(deposit) (cause to be deposited) in the (United States)
mails, for mailing and
delivery a (letter) (picture)
(containing) (portraying) (suggesting) '-----'
certain obscene matters, to \:v:it: ____
_
62. Article 120b (10 U.S.C. 920b)-Rape and sexual assault of a child
[Note: This statute applies to offenses committed on or after 1 January 2019. Previous
versions of child sexual offenses are located as follows: for offenses committed on or before
30 September 2007, see Appendix 27; for offenses committed during the period 1 October
2007 thr·ough 27 June 2012, see Appendix 28; for offenses committed during the period 28
June 2012 through 31 December 2018, seeAppendix 29.]
a. Text (ifstatute.
(a) RAPE OF A
CHILD.-Any person subject to this chapter who-
years; or
by-
substance;
(1) commits a sexual act upon a child who has not attained the age of 12
(2) commits a sexual act upon a child who has attained the age of 12 years
(A) using force against any person;
(B) threatening or placing that child in fear;
(C) rendering that child unconscious; or
(D) administering to that child a drug, intoxicant, or other similar
is guilty of rape of a child and shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
(b) SEXUAL AssAULT OF A
CHILD.-Any person subject to this chapter who commits
a sexual act upon a child who has attained the age of 12 years is guilty of sexual assault of a
child and shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
(c) SEXUAL ABUSE OF A
CHILD.-Any person subject to this chapter who commits a
lewd act upon a child is guilty of sexual abuse of a child and shall be punished as a court-
martial may direct.
(d) AGE OF CHILD.-
(1) UNDER 12 YEARS.-In a prosecution under this section, it need not be
proven that the accused knew the age of the other person engaging in the sexual act or lewd
act. It
is not a defense that the accused reasonably believed that the child had attained the
age of 12 years.
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(2) UNDER 16 YEARS.-In a prosecution under this section, it need not be
proven that the accused knew that the other person engaging in the sexual act or lewd act
had not attained the age of 16 years, but it is a defense in a prosecution under subsection
(b) (sexual assault of a child) or subsection (c) (sexual abuse of a child), which the accused
must prove by a preponderance of the evidence, that the accused reasonably believed that
the child had attained the age of 16 years, if the child had in fact attained at least the age of
12 years.
(e) PROOF OF THREAT .-In a prosecution under this section, in proving that a
person made a threat, it need not be proven that the person actually intended to carry out
the threat or had the ability to carry out the threat.
(f) MARRIAGE.-In a prosecution under subsection (b) (sexual assault of a child) or
subsection (c) (sexual abuse of a child), it is a defense, which the accused must prove by a
preponderance of the evidence, that the persons engaging in the sexual act or lewd act were
at that time married to each other, except where the accused commits a sexual act upon the
person when the accused knows or t·easonably should know that the other person is asleep,
unconscious, or otherwise unaware that the sexual act is occurring or when the other
person is incapable of consenting to the sexual act due to impairment by any drug,
intoxicant, or other similar substance, and that condition was known or reasonably should
have been known by the accused.
(g) CONSENT.-Lack of consent is not an element and need not be proven in any
prosecution under this section. A child not legally married to the person committing the
sexual act, lewd act, or use of force cannot consent to any sexual act, lewd act, or use of
force.
(h) DEFINITIONS.-In this section:
(1) SEXUAL ACT AND SEXUAL CONTACT.-The terms "sexual act" and "sexual
contact" have the meanings given those terms in section 920(g) of this title (article 120(g)),
except that the term "sexual act" also includes the intentional touching, not through the
clothing, of the genitalia of another person who has not attained the age of 16 years with an
intent to abuse, humiliate, harass, degrade, or arouse or gratify the sexual desire of any
person.
(2) FORCE.-The term "force" means-
(A) the use of a weapon;
(B) the use of such physical strength or violence as is sufficient to
overcome, restrain, or injure a child; or
(C) inflicting physical harm.
In the case of a parent-child or similar relationship, the use or abuse of parental or similar
authority is sufficient to constitute the use of force.
(3) THREATENING OR PLACING THAT CIDLD LN FEAR.-The term "threatening
or placing that child in fear" means a communication or action that is of sufficient
consequence to cause the child to fear that non-compliance will result in the child or
another person being subjected to the action contemplated by the communication or action.
(
4) CH1LD.-The term "child" means any person who has not attained the
age of 16 years.
(5) LEWD A
CT.-The term "lewd act" means-
(A) any sexual contact with a child;
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(B) intentionally exposing one's genitalia, anus, buttocks, or female
areola or nipple to a child by any means, including via any communication technology,
with an intent to abuse, humiliate, or degrade any person, or to arouse or gratify the sexual
desire of any person;
(C) intentionally communicating indecent language to a child by any
means, including via any communication technology, with an intent to abuse, humiliate, or
degmde any person, or to arouse or gratify the sexual desire of any person; or
(D) any indecent conduct, intentionally done with or in the presence of
a child, including via any communication technology, that amounts to a form of immorality
relating to sexual impurity which is grossly vulgar, obscene, and repugnant to common
propriety, and tends to excite sexual desire or depmve morals with respect to sexual
relations.
b. Klemenls
(!)Rape Q/a child
(a) Rape of
a child
who has not attained the age of
12.
(i) That the accused committed a sexual act upon a child; and
(ii) That at the time of the sexual act the child had not attained the age of 12 years.
(b) Rape by force ofa child who has attained the age of12.
(i) That the accused committed a sexual act upon a child;
(ii) That at the time of the sexual act the child had attained the age of 12 years but
had not attained the age of 16 years; and
(iii) That the accused did so by using force against that child or any other person.
(c) Rape by threatening or placing in fear a child who has attained the age ofl2.
(i) That the accused committed a sexual act upon a child;
(ii) That at the time of the sexual act the child had attained the age of 12 years but
had not attained the age of 16 years; and
(iii) That the accused did so by threatening the child or another person or placing that
child in fear.
(d) Rape by rendering unconscious a child who has attained the age of
12.
(i) That the accused committed a sexual act upon a child;
(ii) That at the time of the sexual act the child had attained the age of 12 years but had
not attained the age of 16 years; and
(iii) That the accused did so by rendering that child unconscious.
(e) Rape by administering a drug, intoxicant, or other similar substance to a child
who
has attained the age of
12.
(i) That the accused committed a sexual act upon a child;
(ii) That at the time of the sexual act the child had attained the age of 12 years but
had not attained the age of 16 years; and
(iii) That the accused did so by administering to that child a drug, intoxicant, or
other similar substance.
(2) Sexual a<>sault of
a child
(a) Sexual assault Q/
a childll/ho has attained the age Q/
12.
(i) That the accused committed a sexual act upon a child; and
(ii) That at the time of the sexual act the child had attained the age of 12 years but
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had not attained the age of 16 years.
(3) Sexual abuse of
a child. That the accused committed a lewd act upon a child.
c
. .t,xplanation.
( 1) In general. Sexual offenses have been separated into three statutes: offenses against
adults (120), offenses against children (120b), and other offenses (120c).
(2) Definitions. Terms not defined in this paragraph are defined in subparagraph 60.a.(g),
supra, except that the term "sexual act" also includes the intentional touching, not through the
clothing, of
the genitalia of another person who has not attained the age of 16 years with an
intent to abuse, humiliate, harass, degrade, or arouse or gratify the sexual desire of
any person.
d. !Maximum punishment.
(1) Rape of
a child. Forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and confinement for life
without eligibility for parole. Mandatory minimum-Dismissal or dishonorable discharge.
(2) Sexual assault of a child. Forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and confinement
for 30 years. Mandatory minimum-Dismissal or dishonorable discharge.
(3) Sexual abuse of
a child.
(a) Cases involving sexual contact. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and
allowances, and confinement for 20 years.
(b) Other cases. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 15 years.
e. ,_\'ample spec{fications.
( 1) Rape of
a child
(a) Rape ofa child who has not attained the age of/2.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction, if
required), on or about
20_, commit a sexual act upon
_______
, a child who had not attained the age of 12 years, by [penetrating
_____
's (vulva) (anus) (mouth) with
's penis] [causing contact betw-een
___
's mouth and
's (penis) (vulva) (scrotum) (anus)] [penetrating
's
(vulva) (penis) (anus) with (
's body part) (an object) to '"~t:
,
with an intent to
[(abuse) (humiliate) (harass) (degrade)
[(arouse) (gratify) the sexual desire of
---- ]] [intentionally touching, not through the clothing, the genitalia
with
an intent to [(abuse) (humiliate) (harass) (degrade)
] [(arouse) (gratify) the sexual desire
of
].
(b) Rape by.force qf
a child who has attained the age qf
12 years.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-
location) (subject-matter jurisdiction, if
required), on or about
20_, commit a sexual
act upon
a child who had attained the age of 12 years but had not attained the age
of 16 years, by [penetrating
's (vulva) (anus) (mouth) with
's penis]
[causing contact between
's mouth and
's (penis) (vulva) (scrotum) (anus)]
[penetrating
's (vulva) (penis) (anus) with
's body part) (an object) to
wit:
with an intent to [(abuse) (humiliate) (harass) (degrade)
[(arouse) (gratify)
the sexual desire of
[intentionally touching, not through the clothing, the genitalia
___
__J with an intent to [(abuse) (humiliate) (harass) (degrade)
[(arouse)
(gratify) the sexual desire of
by using force against
, to wit:
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(c) Rape by threatening or placing in
fear a child
1v ho has attained the age of
12
years.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location) (subject-matter
jurisdiction, if
required), on or about
20_, commit a sexual act upon
, a
child who had attained the age of 12 years but had not attained the age of 16 years, by
[penetrating
's (vulva) (anus) (mouth) with
's penis] [causing contact
between
's mouth and
's (penis) (vulva) (scrotum) (anus)] [penetrating
___
's (vulva) (penis) (anus) with
's body part) (an object) to wit:
, with an
intent to [(abuse) (humiliate) (harass) (degrade)
[(arouse) (gratify) the sexual desire of
____
]] [intentionally touching, not through the clothing, the genitalia of
, "'~th
an intent to [(abuse) (humiliate) (harass) (degrade)
] [(arouse) (gratify) the sexual desire
of
], by (threatening
(placing ____
in fear).
(d) Rape hy rendering unconscious (?fa child 1vho has alfained the age (?f 12
years.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-
location) (subject-matter jurisdiction, if
required), on or about
20
__
, commit a sexual act
upon
, a child who had attained the age of 12 years but had not attained the age of 16
years, by [penetrating
's (vulva) (anus) (mouth) with
's penis] [causing
contact between
's mouth and
's (penis) (vulva) (scrotum) (anus)] [penetrating
___
's (vulva) (penis) (anus) with
body part) (an object) to wit:
, with an
intent to [(abuse) (humiliate) (harass) (degrade)
[(arouse) (gratify) the sexual desire of
[intentionally touching, not through the clothing, the genitalia of
with
an intent to [(abuse) (humiliate) (harass) (degrade)
] [(arouse) (gratify) the sexual desire
of
], by rendering
unconscious by _______
_
(e) Rape by administering a drug, intoxicant, or other similar ,\7tbstance to a child
who has attained the age of
12 years.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-
location) (subject-matter jurisdiction, if
required), on or about
20_, commit a sexual act
upon
, a child who had attained the age of 12 years but had not attained the age of 16
years, by [penetrating
's (v1.1lva) (anus) (mouth) with
's penis] [causing
contact between
's mouth and
's (penis) (vulva) (scrotum) (anus)] [penetrating
___
's (vulva) (penis) (anus) with
's body part) (an object) to wit:
, with an
intent to [
(abuse) (humiliate) (harass) (degrade)
[
(arouse) (gratify) the sexual desire of
____
]] [intentionally touching, not through the clothing, the genitalia of
, with
an intent to [(abuse) (humiliate) (harass) (degrade)
] [(arouse) (gratify) the sexual desire
of
], by administering to
a (drug) (intoxicant)(
__
), to wit:
(2) Sexual assault of
a child
(a) Sexual assault of
a child'who has attained the age of
12 years.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction, if
required), on or about __
20_, commit a sexual act upon
---''
a child who had attained the age of 12 years but had not attained the age of 16 years,
by [penetrating
's (vulva) (anus) (mouth) with
's penis] [causing
contact between
's mouth and
's (penis) (vulva) (scrotum) (anus)] [penetrating
___
's (vulva) (penis) (anus) with
's body part) (an object) to wit:
, with an
intent to [(abuse) (humiliate) (harass) (degrade)
[(arouse) (gratify) the sexual desire of
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____
]] [intentionally touching, not through the clothing, the genitalia of
, with
an intent to [(abuse) (humiliate) (harass) (degrade)
] [(arouse) (gratify) the sexual desire
of
].
(3) Sexual abuse ofa child.
(a) Sexual abuse of
a child involving sexual contact.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jmisdiction, if required), on or about
20_, commit a lewd act upon
____
, a child who had not attained the age of 16 years, by (touching) (causing __
to
touch) the (vulva) (penis) (scrotum) (anus) (groin) (breast) (inner thigh) (buttocks) ______
,
with [
's body part) (an object) to wit
with an intent to [(abuse) (humiliate)
(harass) (degrade)
] [
(arouse) (gratify) the sexual desire of
]
.
(b) Sexual abuse qf
a child involving indecent exposure.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction, if required), on or about
20_, commit a lewd act upon
~-:--~
a child who had not attained the age of 16 years, by intentionally exposing [his
(genitalia) (anus) (buttocks)] [her (genitalia) (anus) (buttocks) (areola) (nipple)] to------"
with an intent to [(abuse) (humiliate) (degrade)
[(arouse) (gratify) the sexual desire of
(c) Sexual abuse of
a child involving indecent communication.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction, if required), on or about
20_, commit a lewd act upon
_____
,a child who had not attained the age of 16 years, by intentionally communicating to
____
indecent language to wit:
, with an intent to [(abuse) (humiliate)
(degrade)
__
] [(arouse) (gratify) the sexual desire of ___
__.
(d) Sexual abuse of
a child involving indecent conduct.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction, if required), on or about
20_, commit a lewd act upon
_____
, a child who had not attained the age of 16 years, by engaging in indecent conduct,
to wit:
, intentionally done (with) (in the presence of)
, which conduct
amounted to a form of
immorality relating to sexual impurity which is grossly vulgar, obscene,
and repugnant to common propriety, and tends to excite sexual desire or deprave morals with
respect to sexual relations.
63. Article 120c (10 U.S.C. 920c)-Other sexual misconduct
[Previous versions of offenses included in Article 120c are located as follows: for the offense
of indecent exposure committed on or before 30 September 2007, a previous version of
Article 134, indecent exposure, applies and is located at Appendix 27; for the offense of
forcible pandering committed on or before 30 September 2007, a previous version of
Article 134, pandering and prostitution, applies and is located at Appendix 27; for Article
120c offenses committed during the period 1 October 2007 through 27 June 2012, see
Appendix 28; for Article 120c offenses committed during the period 28 June 2012 through
31 December 2018, the previous version of Article 120c applies and is located at Appendix
29.]
a. Text of
Statute
(a) INDECENT VIEWING, VISUAL RECORDING, OR BROADCASTING.-Any person
subject to this chapter who, without legal justification or lawful authodzation-
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(1) knowingly and wrongfully views the private area of another person,
without that other person's consent and under circumstances in which that other person
has a reasonable expectation of privacy;
(2) knowingly photographs, videotapes, films, or records by any means the
private area of another person, without that other person's consent and under
circumstances in which that other person has a reasonable expectation of privacy; or
(3) knowingly broadcasts or distributes any such recording that the person
knew or reasonably should have known was made under the circumstances proscribed in
paragraphs (t) and (2);
is guilty of an offense under this section and shaJI be punished as a court-martial may
direct.
(b) FORCIBLE PANDERJNG.-Any person subject to this chapter who compels
another person to engage in an act of prostitution with any person is guilty of forcible
pandering and shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
(c) INDECENT EXPOSURE.-Any person subject to this chapter who intentionally
exposes, in an indecent manner, the genitalia, anus, buttocks, or female areola or nipple is
guilty of indecent exposure and shall by punished as a court-martial may direct.
(d) DEFINITIONS.-ln this section:
(
1) AcT OF PROSTITUTION.-The term "act of prostitution" means a sexual
act or sexual contact (as defined in section 920(g) of this title (article 120(g))) on account of
which anything of value is given to, or received by, any person.
(2) PRIVATEAREA.-The term "private area" means the naked or
underwear-clad genitalia, anus, buttocks, or female areola or nipple.
(3) REASONABLE EXPECTATION OF PRN
ACY.-The term "under
circumstances in which that other person has a reasonable expectation of privacy"
means-
(A) circumstances in which a reasonable person would believe that he
or she could disrobe in privacy, without being concerned that an image of a private area of
the person was being captured; or
(B) circumstances in which a reasonable person would believe that a
private area of the person would not be visible to the public.
(4) BROADCAST.-The term "broadcast" means to electronically transmit a
visual image with the intent that it be viewed by a person or persons.
(5) DISTRIBUTE.-The term "distribute" means delivering to the actual or
constructive possession of another, including transmission by electronic means.
(6) INDECENT MANNER.-The term "indecent manner" means conduct that
amounts to a form of immorality relating to sexual impurity which is grossly vulgar,
obscene, and repugnant to common propriety, and tends to excite sexual desire or deprave
morals with respect to sexual •·elations.
b. Elements.
(
1) Indecent viewing.
(a) That the accused knowingly and wrongfully viewed the private area of
another
person;
(b) That said viewing was without the other person's consent; and
(c) That said viewing took place under circumstances in which the other person
had a reasonable expectation of privacy.
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(2) Indecent recording.
(a) That the accused knowingly recorded (photographed, videotaped, filmed, or
recorded by any means) the private area of another person;
(b) That said recording was without the other person's consent; and
(c) That said recording was made under circumstances in which the other person
had a reasonable expectation of privacy.
(3) Broadcasting ofan indecent recording.
(a) That the accused knowingly broadcast a certain recording of
another person's
private area;
(b) That said recording was made without the other person's consent;
(c) That the accused knew or reasonably should have known that the recording
was made without the other person's consent;
(d) That said recording was made under circumstances in which the other person
had a reasonable expectation of privacy; and
(e) That the accused knew or reasonably should have known that said recording
was made under circumstances in which the other person had a reasonable expectation of
pnvacy.
(
4) Distribution <?fan indecent recording.
(a) That the accused knowingly distributed a certain recording of another person's
private area;
(b) That said recording was made without the other person's consent;
(c) That the accused knew or reasonably should have known that said recording
was made without the other person's consent;
(d) That said recording was made under circumstances in which the other person
had a reasonable expectation of privacy; and
(e) That the accused knew or reasonably should have known that said recording
was made under circumstances in which the other person had a reasonable expectation of
pnvacy.
(5) Forcible pandering.
That the accused compelled another person to engage in an act of
prostitution
with any person.
(6) indecent exposure.
or nipple;
c. Explanation.
(a) That the accused exposed his or her genitalia, anus, buttocks, or female areola
(b) That the exposure was in an indecent manner; and
(c) That the exposure was intentional.
(1) In general. Sexual offenses have been separated into three statutes: offenses against
adults (120), offenses against children (120b), and other offenses (120c).
(2) Definitions.
(a) Recording. A recording is a still or moving visual image captured or recorded
by any means.
(b) Other tem1s are defined in subparagraph 60.a.(g), supra.
d. Maximum punishment.
(1) Indecent vierFing. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 1 year.
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(2) Indecent recording. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 5 years.
(3) Broadcasting or distribution of
an indecent recording. Dishonorable discharge,
forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and confinement for 7 years.
(
4) Forcible pandering. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 20 years.
(
5) Indecent exposure. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 1 year.
e. Sample spec?fications.
( 1) Indecent viewing, recording, or broadcasting.
(a) Indecent viewing.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jwisdiction, if required), on or about
20_, knowingly and wrongfully
view the private area of
without (his) (her) consent and under circumstances in
which (he) (she) had a reasonable expectation of privacy.
(b) lndecenl recording.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction, if
required), on or about
20_, knowingly (photograph)
(videotape) (film) (make a recording of) the private area of
without (his) (her)
consent and under circumstances in which (he) (she) had a reasonable expectation of
privacy.
(c) Broadcasting or distributing an indecent recording.
ln that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction, if required), on or about
20_, knowingly (broadcast)
(distribute) a recording of
the private area of
, when the said accused knew or
reasonably should have known that the said recording was made without the consent of
______
and under circumstances in which (he) (she) had a reasonable expectation of
privacy.
(
2) 1· orci
ble pandering.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction, if
required), on or about
20_, wrongfhlly compel
_____
to engage in (a sexual act) (sexual contact) with
, to vvit:
_____
.,for the purpose of
receiving (money) (other compensation) (
).
(3) Indecent exposure.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction, if required), on or about
20_, intentionally expose [his
(genitalia) (anus) (buttocks)] [her (genitalia) (anus) (buttocks) (areola) (nipple)] in an indecent
manner, to wit: -----
64. Article 121 (10 U.S.C. 921)-Larceny and wrongful appropriation
a. Text of
statute.
(a) Any person subject to this chapter who wrongfully takes, obtains, or withholds,
by any means, from the possession of the owner or of any other person any money,
personal property, or article of value of any kind-
(1) with intent permanently to deprive or defraud another person of the use
and benefit of property or to appropriate it to his own use or the use of any person other
than the owner, steals that property and is guilty of larceny; or
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(2) with intent temporarily to deprive or defraud another person of the use
and benefit of property o1· to appropriate it to his own use or the use of any person other
than the owner, is guilty of wrongful appropriation.
(b) Any person found guilty of larceny or wrongful appropriation shall be punished
as a court-martial may direct.
b. Elements.
(1) Larceny.
(a) That the accused wrongfully took, obtained, or withheld certain property from the
possession of
the owner or of
any other person;
(b) That the property belonged to a certain person;
(c) That the property was of
a certain value, or of some value; and
(d) That the taking, obtaining, or withholding by the accused was with the intent
permanently to deprive or defraud another person of
the use and benefit of
the property or
permanently to appropriate the property for the use of the accused or for any person other than
the owner.
[Note: Tfthe property is alleged to be military property, as defined in subparagraph 64.c.(l)(h),
add the following element]
(e) That the property was military property.
(2) Wrongful appropriation.
(a) That the accused wrongfully took, obtained, or withheld certain property from the
possession of
the owner or of
any other person;
(b) That the property belonged to a certain person;
(c) That the property was of
a certain value, or of some value; and
(d) That the taking, obtaining, or withholding by the accused was with the intent
temporarily to deprive or defraud another person of
the use and benefit of
the property or
temporarily to appropriate the property for the use of
the accused or for any person other than the
owner.
c. Lxplanation.
(1) Larceny.
(a) in general. A wrongful taking with intent permanently to deprive includes the common
law offense oflarceny; a wrongful obtaining with intent pennanently to defraud includes the
ofiense fonnerly known as obtaining by false pretense; and a wrongful withholding with intent
permanently to appropriate includes the offense fonnerly known as embezzlement. Any of
the
various types oflarceny under Article 121 may be charged and proved under a specification
alleging that the accused did steal the property in question.
(b) Taking, obtaining, or withholding. There must be a taking, obtaining, or withholding of
the property by the thief. For instance, there is no taking if
the property is connected to a building
by a chain and the property has not been disconnected from the building; property is not obtained
by merely acquiring title thereto without exercising some possessory control over it. As a general
rule, however, any movement of
the property or any exercise of
dominion over it is sufficient if
accompanied by the requisite intent. Thus, if an accused enticed another's horse into the
accused's stable without touching the animal, or procured a railroad company to deliver
another's trunk by changing the check on it, or obtained the delivery of
another's goods to a
person or place designated by the accused, or had the funds of
another transferred to the
accused's bank account, the accused is guilty of larceny if
the other elements of the offense have
been proved. A person may obtain the property of
another by acquiring possession without title,
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and one who already has possession of
the property of another may obtain it by later acquiring
title to it. A withholding may arise as a result of a failure to return, account for, or deliver
property to its owner when a return, accounting, or delivery is due, even if
the owner has made
no demand for the property, or it may arise as a result of
devoting property to a use not
authorized by its owner. Generally, this is so whether the person withholding the property
acquired it lawfully or unlawfully. See subparagraph c.(l)(f) of
this paragraph. However, acts
which constitute the offense of
unlawfully receiving, buying, or concealing stolen property or of
being an accessory after the fact are not included within the meaning of
withholds. Therefore,
neither a receiver of
stolen property nor an accessory after the fact can be convicted of larceny
on that basis alone. The taking, obtaining, or withholding must be of specific property. A debtor
does not withhold specific property from the possession of a creditor by failing or refusing to pay
a debt, for the relationship of debtor and creditor does not give the creditor a possessory right in
any specific money or other property of
the debtor.
(c) Otvnership ~fthe
property.
(i) ln general. Article 121 requires that the taking, obtaining, or withholding be from
the possession of
the owner or of
any other person. Care, custody, management, and control are
among the definitions of
possession.
(ii) Owner. "Owner" refers to the person who, at the time of
the taking, obtaining, or
withholding, had the superior right to possession of
the property in the light of all conflicting
interests therein which may be involved in the particular case. For instance, an organization is
the true owner of
its funds as against the custodian of
the funds charged with the larceny thereof
(iii) Any other person. "Any other person" means any person-even a person who has
stolen the property-who has possession or a greater right to possession than the accused. In
pleading a violation of
this article, the ownership of
the property may be alleged to have been in
any person, other than the accused, who at the time of
the theft was a general owner or a special
owner thereof A general owner of
property is a person who has title to it, whether or not that
person has possession of
it; a special owner, such as a borrower or hirer, is one who does not
have title but who does have possession, or the right of possession, of
the property.
(iv) Person. Person, as used in referring to one from whose possession property has
been taken, obtained, or withheld, and to any owner of
propetty, includes (in addition to a natural
person) a government, a corporation, an association, an organization, and an estate. Such a
person need not be a legal entity.
(d) Wrong/illness of
the taking, obtaining, or withholding. The taking, obtaining, or
withholding of
the property must be wrongful. As a general rule, a taking or withholding of
propetty from the possession of another is wrongful if
done without the consent of
the other, and
an obtaining of
property from the possession of another is wrongful if
the obtaining is by false
pretense. However, such an act is not wrongful if
it is authorized by law or apparently lawful
superior orders, or, generally, if
done by a person who has a right to the possession of
the
property either equal to or greater than the right of one from whose possession the property is
taken, obtained, or withheld. An owner of
property who takes or withholds it from the possession
of another, without the consent of
the other, or who obtains it therefrom by false pretense, does
so wrongfully if
the other has a superior 1ight-such as a lien-to possession of
the property. A
person who takes, obtains, or withholds property as the agent of another has the same rights and
liabilities as does the principal, but may not be charged with a guilty knowledge or intent of
the
principal which that person does not share.
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(e) False pretense. With respect to obtaining property by false pretense, the false pretense
may be made by means of
any act, word, symbol, or token. The pretense must be in fact false
when made and when the property is obtained, and it must be knowingly false in the sense that it
is made without a belief in its tmth. A false pretense is a false representation of
past or existing
fact. In addition to other kinds of
facts, the fact falsely represented by a person may be that
person's or another's power, authority, or intention. Thus, a false representation by a person that
the person presently intends to pe1form a certain act in the future is a false representation of
an
existing fact-the intention-and thus a false pretense. Although the pretense need not be the
sole cause inducing the owner to part with the property, it must be an effective and intentional
cause of
the obtaining. A false representation made after the property was obtained will not result
in a violation of Article 121. A larceny is committed when a person obtains the property of
another by false pretense and with intent to steal, even though the owner neither intended nor
was requested to part with title to the property. Thus, a person who gets another's watch by
pretending that it will be borrowed briefly and then returned, but who really intends to sell it, is
guilty oflarceny.
(f) Intent.
(i) Jn general. The offense of
larceny requires that the taking, obtaining, or withholding
by the thief be accompanied by an intent permanently to deprive or defraud another of
the use
and benefit of
property or permanently to appropriate the property to the thiefs own use or the
use of
any person other than the owner. These intents are collectively called an intent to steal.
Although a person gets property by a taking or obtaining which was not wrongful or which was
without a concurrent intent to steal, a larceny is nevertheless committed if
an intent to steal is
formed after the taking or obtaining and the property is wrongfully withheld with that intent. For
example, if
a person rents another's vehicle, later decides to keep it permanently, and then either
fails to return it at the appointed time or uses it for a purpose not authorized by the terms of
the
rental, larceny has been committed, even though at the time the vehicle was rented, the person
intended to return it after using it according to the agreement.
(ii) lriference of
intent. An intent to steal may be proved by circumstantial evidence.
Thus, if
a person secretly takes property, hides it, and denies knowing anything about it, an intent
to steal may be inferred; if
the property was taken openly and returned, this would tend to negate
such an intent. Proof of sale of
the property may show an intent to steal, and therefore, evidence
of
such a sale may be introduced to support a charge of larceny. An intent to steal may be
inferred from a wrongful and intentional dealing with the property of
another in a manner likely
to cause that person to suffer a permanent loss thereof
(iii) !:J'pecial situations.
(A)Afotive does not negate intent. The accused's purpose in taking an item
ordinarily is irrelevant to the accused's guilt as long as the accused had the intent required under
subparagraph c.(l)(f)(i) of
this paragraph. For example, if
the accused wrongfully took property
as a joke or "to teach the owner a lesson" this would not be a defense, although if
the accused
intended to return the property, the accused would be guilty of
wrongful appropriation, not
larceny. When a person takes property intending only to return it to its lawful owner, as when
stolen property is taken from a thief in order to return it to its owner, larceny or wrongful
appropriation is not committed.
(B) Intent to pay
for or replace property not a defense. An intent to pay for or
replace the stolen property is not a defense, even if
that intent existed at the time of the theft. If,
however, the accused takes money or a negotiable instmment having no special value above its
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face value, with the intent to return an equivalent amount of
money, the offense oflarceny is not
committed although wrongful appropriation may be.
(C) Return of
property not a defense. Once a larceny is committed, a return of
the
property or payment for it is no defense. See subparagraph c.(2) of
this paragraph when the
taking, obtaining, or withholding is with the intent to return.
(g) Value.
(i) In general. Value is a question of
fact to be determined on the basis of
all of the
evidence admitted.
(ii) Government property. When the stolen property is an item issued or procured from
Government sources, the price listed in an official publication for that property at the time of
the
theft is admissible as evidence of
its value. See Mil. R. Evid. 803(17). However, the stolen item
must be shown to have been, at the time of
the theft, in the condition upon which the value
indicated in the official price list is based. The price listed in the official publication is not
conclusive as to the value of the item, and other evidence may be admitted on the question of
its
condition and value.
(iii) Other property. As a general rule, the value of other stolen property is its legitimate
market value at the time and place of
the theft. If
this property, because of
its character or the
place where it was stolen, had no legitimate market value at the time and place of
the theft or if
that value cannot readily be ascertained, its value may be determined by its legitimate market
value in the United States at the time of
the theft, or by its replacement cost at that time,
whichever is less. Market value may be established by proof of
the recent purchase price paid for
the article in the legitimate market involved or by testimony or other admissible evidence from
any person who is familiar through training or experience with the market value in question. The
owner of
the property may testify as to its market value if
familiar with its quality and condition.
The fact that the owner is not an expert of
the market value of
the property goes only to the
weight to be given that testimony, and not to its admissibility. See Mil. R. Evid. 701. When the
character of
the property clearly appears in evidence-for instance, when it is exhibited to the
court-martial-the court-martial, ±rom its own experience, may infer that it has some value. If as
a matter of
common knowledge the property is obviously of
a value substantially in excess of
$1,000, the court-martial may ±ind a value of
more than $1,000. Writings representing value may
be considered to have the value--even though contingent-which they represented at the time of
the theft.
(iv) Limited interest in property. If
an owner of
property or someone acting in the
owner's behalf steals it from a person who has a superior, but limited, interest in the property,
such as a lien, the value for punishment purposes shall be that of
the limited interest.
(h) Military property. Military property is all property, real or personal, owned, held, or
used by one of
the armed forces of the United States. Military property is a term of
art, and
should not be confused with Government property. The terms are not interchangeable. While all
military property is Government property, not all Government property is military property. An
item of
Government property is not military property unless the item in question meets the
definition provided in this paragraph. Retail merchandise of Service exchange stores is not
military prope1iy under this article.
(i) Miscellaneous considerations.
(i) Lost
property. A taking or withholding of lost property by the finder is larceny if
accompanied by an intent to steal and if
a clue to the identity of the general or special owner, or
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through which such identity may be traced, is furnished by the character, location, or marketing
of
the property, or by other circumstances.
(ii) A1ultiple article larceny. When a larceny of several articles is committed at
substantially the same time and place, it is a single larceny even though the articles belong to
different persons. Thus, if
a thief steals a suitcase containing the property of several persons or
goes into a room and takes propetty belonging to various persons, there is but one larceny, which
should be alleged in but one specification.
(iii) Special kinds of
property which may also be the subject of
larceny. Included in
property which may be the subject of larceny is property which is taken, obtained, or withheld by
severing it from real estate and writings which represent value such as commercial paper.
(iv) Services. Theft of
services may not be charged under this paragraph. But see
paragraph 66.
(v) Credit, debit, and electronic transaclions. Wrongfully engaging in a credit, debit, or
electronic transaction to obtain goods or money ordinarily should be charged under paragraph
65.
(2) FVrongful appropriation.
(a) Jn general. Wrongful appropriation requires an intent to temporarily-as opposed to
permanently-deprive the owner of
the use and benefit of, or appropriate to the use of another,
the property wrongfully taken, withheld, or obtained. ln all other respects wrongful appropriation
and larceny are identical.
(b) Examples. Wrongful appropriation includes: taking another's automobile without
pennission or lawful authority with intent to drive it a short distance and then return it or cause it
to be returned to the owner; obtaining a service weapon by falsely pretending to be about to go
on guard duty with intent to use it on a hunting trip and later return it; and while driving a
Government vehicle on a mission to deliver supplies, withholding the vehicle from Government
service by deviating from the assigned route without authority, to visit a friend in a nearby town
and later restore the vehicle to its lawful use. An inadvertent exercise of
control over the property
of
another will not result in wrongful appropriation. For example, a person who fails to return a
borrowed boat at the time agreed upon because the boat inadvertently went aground is not guilty
ofthis offense.
d. A1aximum punishment.
(1) Larceny.
(a) Property of
a value of$1,000 or less. Bad-conduct discharge, forfeiture of all pay and
allowances, and confinement for 1 year.
(b) Militmy property of
a value ~~more
than $1, 000 or of
any military motor vehicle,
aircrc!ft, vessel, firearm, or explosive. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and
allowances, and confinement for 10 years.
(c) Property other than militmy
property ofa value ofmore than $1,000 or any motor
vehicle, aircraft, vessel, firearm, or explosive not included in subparagraph e.(l)(b).
Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and confinement for 5 years.
(2) Wrongful appropriation.
(a) Of
a value of$1,000 or less. Confinement for 3 months, and forfeiture of
two-thirds
pay per month for 3 months.
(b) Of
a value of
more than $1,000. Bad-conduct discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and
allowances, and confinement for 1 year.
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(c) Of
any motor vehicle, aircraji, vessel, firearm, explosive, or military property of
a
value ofmore than $1,000. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 2 years.
e. ,._~'ample specifications.
(1) Larceny.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20_, steal ______
_
(military property), of a value of(about)
the property of _____
_
(2) Wrongful appropriation.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about
20_, wrongfully appropriate
______
,of
a value of(about)
the property of _____
_
65. Article 121 a (
10 LJ.S.C. 921 a)--Fraudulent use of credit cards, debit cards, and other
access devices
a. Text qfstatute.
(a) IN GENERAL.-Any person subject to this chapter who, knowingly and with
intent to defraud, uses-
(
1) a stolen credit card, debit card, or other access device;
(2) a revoked, cancelled, or otherwise invalid credit card, debit
card, or other access device; or
(3) a credit card, debit card, or other access device without the authorization
of a person whose authorization is required for such use;
to obtain money, property, services, or anything else of value shall be punished as a court-
martial may direct.
(b) AccEss DEVICE DEFINED.-In this section (article), the term "access device" has
the meaning given that term in section 1029 of title 18.
b. b'lements.
(1) That the accused knowingly used a stolen credit card, debit card, or other access device; or
(2) That the accused knowingly used a revoked, cancelled, or otherwise invalid credit card,
debit card; or
(3) That the accused knowingly used a credit card, debit card, or other access device without
the authorization of a person whose authorization was required for such use;
(4) That the use was to obtain money, property, services, or anything else of
value; and
(5) The use by the accused was with the intent to defraud.
c. Explanation.
(1) In general. This offense focuses on the intent of
the accused and the technology used by
the accused.
(2) Intent to defraud See subparagraph 70.c.(l4).
(3) Inference of
intent. An intent to defraud may be proved by circumstantial evidence.
(
4) Use of
a credit card, debit card, or other access device without the authorization of
a
person ·whose authorization was requiredfor such use. This provision applies to situations where
an accused has no authorization to use the access device from a person whose authorization is
required for such use, as well as situations where an accused exceeds the authorization of
a
person whose authorization is required for such use.
d. Maximum punishment.
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(1) Fraudulent use ofa credit card, debit card, or other access device to obtain property ofa
value of$1,000 or less. Bad-conduct discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 10 years.
(2) Fraudulent use during any 1-year period of
a credit card, debit card, or other access
device to obtain property the aggregate value of
which is more than $1,000. Dishonorable
discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and confinement for 15 years.
e. Sample specification.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20 _,knowingly and with the intent to
defraud, use a (debit card) (credit card) (access device, to wit
(that was stolen) (that
was revoked, cancelled, or otherwise invalid) (without the authorization of
, a person
whose authorization was required for such use), to obtain (money) (property) (services)
'----'
(of
a value of
about
66. Article 121b (10 U.S.C. 921b)-False pretenses to obtain ser·vices
a. Text qfstatute.
Any person subject to this chapter who, with intent to defraud, knowingly uses false
pretenses to obtain services shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
b. Elements.
(1) That the accused wrongfully obtained certain services;
(2) That the obtaining was done by using false pretenses;
(3) That the accused then knew of
the falsity of
the pretenses;
(4) That the obtaining was with intent to defraud; and
(5) That the services were of a certain value, or of some value.
c. Lxplanation. This ommse is similar to the o±Ienses of
larceny and wrongful appropriation by
false pretenses, except that the object of
the obtaining is services (for example, telephone
service) rather than money, personal property, or articles of
value of
any kind as under Article
121. See paragraph 64.c. See paragraph 70.c.(14) for a definition of
intent to defraud.
d. Maximum punishment. Obtaining services under false pretenses.
(1) Cif
a value of
$1,000 or less. Bad-conduct discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances,
and confinement for 1 year.
(2) Of
a value of
more than $1,000. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and
allowances, and confinement for 5 years.
e. Sample specification.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about __
20 _,with intent to defraud,
falsely pretend to
that
, then knowing that the pretenses were false, and
by means thereof did wrongfully obtain from
services, of
a value of
(about)
to wit:
-----'
-----
67. Article 122 (10 U.S.C. 922)-Robbery
a. Text of
statute.
Any person subject to this chapter who takes anything of value from the person or
in the presence of another, against his will, by means of force or violence or fear of
immediate or future injury to his person or property or to the person or property of a
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relative or member of his family or of anyone in his company at the time of the robbery, is
guilty of robbery and shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
b. Elements.
(1) That the accused wrongfully took certain property from the person or from the possession
and in the presence of a person named or described;
(2) That the taking was against the will of
that person;
(3) That the taking was by means of
force, violence, or force and violence, or putting the
person in fear of immediate or future injury to that person, a relative, a member of
the person's
family, anyone accompanying the person at the time of
the robbery, the person's property, or the
property of
a relative, family member, or anyone accompanying the person at the time of
the
robbery;
(4) That the property belonged to a person named or described; and
(5) That the property was of a certain or of
some value.
[Note: If
the robbery was committed with a dangerous weapon, add the following element]
(6) That the means of
force or violence or of
putting the person in fear was a dangerous
weapon.
c. F,xplanation.
(1) Taking in the presence (?f the victim. Tt is not necessary that the property taken be located
within any certain distance of
the victim. If
persons enter a house and force the owner by threats
to disclose the hiding place of valuables in an adjoining room, and, leaving the owner tied, go
into that room and steal the valuables, they have committed robbery.
(2) Force or violence. For a robbery to be committed by force or violence, there must be
actual force or violence to the person, preceding or accompanying the taking against the person's
will, and it is immaterial that there is no fear engendered in the victim. Any amount of
force is
enough to constitute robbery if
the force overcomes the actual resistance of
the person robbed,
puts the person in such a position that no resistance is made, or su±Iices to overcome the
resistance offered by a chain or other fastening by which the article is attached to the person. The
of:Tense is not robbery if
an article is merely snatched from the hand of
another or a pocket is
picked by stealth, no other force is used, and the owner is not put in fear. But if resistance is
overcome in snatching the article, there is suf:licient violence, as when an earring is torn from a
person's ear. There is sufficient violence when a person's attention is diverted by being jostled
by a confederate of
a pickpocket, who is thus enabled to steal the person's watch, even though
the person had no knowledge of
the act; or when a person is knocked insensible and that person's
pockets rifled; or when a guard steals property from the person of a prisoner in the guard's
charge after handcuffing the prisoner on the pretext of preventing escape.
(3) Fear. For a robbery to be committed by putting the victim in fear, there need be no actual
force or violence, but there must be a demonstration of
force or menace by which the victim is
placed in such fear that the victim is warranted in making no resistance. The fear must be a
reasonable apprehension of present or future injury, and the taking must occur while the
apprehension exists. The injmy apprehended may be death or bodily injury to the person or to a
relative or family member, or to anyone in the person's company at the time, or it may be the
destruction of
the person's habitation or other property or that of a relative or family member or
anyone in the person's company at the time of sufficient gravity to warrant giving up the
property demanded by the assailant
(4) A1ultiple-victim robberies. Robberies of different persons at the same time and place are
separate offenses and each such robbery should be alleged in a separate specification.
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(5) Dangerous weapon. For purposes of qualifying for the maximum punishment for this
offense as specified in subparagraph d.( I), the tenn "dangerous weapon" has the same meaning
as that ascribed to the term in subparagraph 77.c.(5)(a)(iii).
d. Maximun1 punishment.
(1) When committed with a dangerous weapon. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of
all pay
and allowances, and confinement for 15 years.
(2) All other cases. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 10 years.
e. Sample spec~fication.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20
__
, by means of(force)
(violence) (force and violence) (and) (putting (him) (her) in fear) [with a dangerous weapon, to
wit:
seize from the (person) (presence)
against (his) (her)
will, (a watch)
of
value of
(about)
the property of
68. Article 122a (10 U.S.C. 922a)-Receiving stolen property
a. Text r?fstatute.
Any person subject to this chapter who wrongfully receives, buys, or conceals stolen
property, knowing the property to be stolen property, shall be punished as a court-martial
may direct.
b. Elements.
(1) That the accused wrongfully received, bought, or concealed certain property of
some
value;
(2) That the property belonged to another person;
(3) That the property had been stolen; and
(4) That the accused knew that the property had been stolen.
c. Lxplanation.
(1) in general. The actual thief is not criminally liable for receiving the property stolen;
however a principal to the larceny (see paragraph 1), when not the actual thief, may be found
guilty of
knowingly receiving the stolen property but may not be found guilty ofboth the larceny
and receiving the property.
(2) Knowledge. Actual knowledge that the property was stolen is required.
Knowledge may be proved by circumstantial evidence.
(3) Wrongjitlness. Receiving stolen propetiy is wrongful if
it is without justification or
excuse. For example, it would not be wrongful for a person to receive stolen property for the
purpose of
returning it to its rightful owner, or for a law enforcement officer to seize it as
evidence.
d. A1aximum punishment.
(1) Receiving, buying, or concealing stolen property of
a value of$1.000 or less. Bad-conduct
discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and confinement for 1 year.
(2) Receiving, buying, or concealing stolen property of
a value of
more than $1,000.
Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and confinement for 3 years.
e. Sample spec¢cation.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20 _, VvTongfully
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(receive) (buy) (conceal)
, of
a value of(about) $ ____
,the
property of
which property, as (he) (she), the said ______
, then knew, had
been stolen.
69. Article 123 (10 U.S.C. 923)-0ffenses concerning Government computers
a. Text C?l statute.
(a) TN GENERAL.-Any person subject to this chapter who-
(1) knowingly accesses a Government computer, with an unauthorized
purpose, and by doing so obtains classified information, with reason to believe such
information could be used to the injury of the United States, or to the advantage of any
foreign nation, and intentionally communicates, delivers, transmits, or causes to be
communicated, delivered, or transmitted such information to any person not entitled to
receive it;
(2) intentionally accesses a Govemment computer, with an unauthorized
purpose, and thereby obtains classified or other protected information from any such
Government computer; or
(3) knowingly causes the tt·ansmission of a program, information, code, or
command, and as a result of such conduct, intentionally causes damage without
authorization to a Government computer;
shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
(b) DEFINITIONS.-In this section:
(1) The term "computer" has the meaning given that term in section 1030 of
title 18.
(2) The term "Government computer" means a computer owned or operated
by or on behalf of the United States Government.
(3) The term "damage" has the meaning given that term in section 1030 of
title 18.
b. l!.'lements.
(1) Unauthorized distribution of
classified information obtained
from a Government
computer.
(a) That the accused knowingly accessed a Government computer with an unauthorized
purpose;
(b) That the accused obtained classified information;
(c) That the accused had reason to believe the infonnation could be used to injure the
United States or benefit a foreign nation; and
(d) That the accused intentionally communicated, delivered, transmitted, or caused to be
communicated, delivered, or transmitted, such information to any person not entitled to receive
it.
(2) Unauthorized access of
a Government computer and
obtaining classified or other
protected iriformation.
(a) That the accused intentionally accessed a Government computer with an unauthorized
purpose; and
(b) That the accused thereby obtained classified or other protected information from any
such Government computer.
(3) Causing damage to a Government computer.
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(a) That the accused knowingly caused the transmission of a program, information, code,
or command; and
(b) That the accused, as a result, intentionally and without authorization caused damage to
a Government computer.
c. Explanation.
(1) Access. "Access" means to gain entry to, instruct, cause input to, cause output from, cause
data processing with, or communicate with, the logical, arithmetical, or memory function
resources of
a computer.
(2) With an unauthorized
purpose. The phrase "with an unauthorized purpose" may refer to
more than one unauthorized purpose, or an unauthorized purpose in conjunction with an
authorized purpose. The phrase covers persons accessing Government computers without any
authorization, i.e., "outsiders," as well as persons with authorization who access Government
computers for an improper purpose or who exceed their authorization, i.e., "insiders." The key
criterion to detennine criminality is whether the person intentionally used the computer for a
purpose that was clearly contrary to the interests or intent of
the authorizing party.
(3) Class{{ted Information. See 10 U.S. C. § 801 (15).
(4) Protected !t?formalion. Non-classified protected information includes Personally
Identifiable Infonnation (PIT), as well as information designated as Controlled Unclassified
Information (CUI) by the Secretary of
Defense, and information designated as For Official Use
Only (FOUO), Law Enforcement Sensitive (LES), Unclassified Nuclear lnfonnation (UCNI),
and Limited Distribution.
(5) Damage. The definition of"damage" is taken from 18 U.S. C. § 1030 and means any
impairment to the integrity or availability of
data, a program, a system, or information.
(6) Computer. The definition of"computer" is taken from 18 U.S.C. § 1030 and means an
electronic, magnetic, optical, electrochemical, or other high speed data processing device
performing logical, arithmetic, or storage functions, and includes any data storage facility or
communications facility directly related to or operating in conjunction with such device, but such
term does not include an automated typewriter or typesetter, a pmiable hand held calculator, or
other similar device. A portable computer, including a smartphone, is a computer.
d. Maximum punishment.
(1) Unauthorized distribution of
classified il!formation obtained
from a Government
computer. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and confinement for 10
years.
(2) Unauthorized access ~fa
Government computer and obtaining classified or other
protected ir?formation. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 5 years.
(3) Causing damage to a Government computer. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay
and allowances, and confinement for 10 years.
e. Sample specification
( 1) Unauthorized distribution of
classified iliformation obtained
from a Government
computer.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location),
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if
required), (on or about __
20 _)(from about __
to
about __
20 _j, knowingly access a government computer with an unauthorized purpose and
obtained classified infonnation, to wit: __
, with reason to believe the infonnation could be
used to injure the United States or benefit a foreign nation, and intentionally (communicated)
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(delivered) (transmitted) (caused to be communicated/delivered/transmitted) such information to
___
, a person not entitled to receive it.
(2) Accessing a computer and obtaining information.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location),
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if
required), (on or about __
20 _)
(from about __
to
about __
20 _), intentionally access a government computer with an unauthorized purpose
and thereby knowingly obtained (classified) (protected) information, to wit:
from such
government computer.
(3) Causing damage by computer contaminant.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location),
(subject-matter jmisdiction data, ifrequired), (on or about __
20 _)(from about __
to
about
20 _),knowingly cause the transmission of a program, information, code, or
command, and as a result, intentionally and without authorization caused damage to a
government computer.
70. Article 123a (10 U.S.C. 923a)--.Making, drawing, or uttering check, draft, or order
without sufficient funds
a. Text o.fstatute.
Any person subject to this chapter who--
(1) fot· the procurement of any article or thing of value, with intent to
defraud; or
(2) fot· the payment of any past due obligation, or for any other pm·pose, with
intent to deceive;
makes, draws, utters, or delivers any check, draft, or order for the payment of money upon
any bank or other depository, knowing at the time that the maker or drawer has not or will
not have sufficient funds in, or credit with, the bank or other depository for the payment of
that check, draft, or order in full upon its presentment, shall be punished as a court-martial
may direct. The making, drawing, uttering, or delivering by a maker or drawer of a check,
draft, or order, payment of
which is refused by the drawee because of insufficient funds of
the maker or drawer in the drawee's possession or control, is prima facie evidence of his
intent to defraud or deceive and of his knowledge of insufficient funds in, or credit with,
that bank or other depository, unless the maker or drawer pays the holder the amount due
within five days after receiving notice, orally or in writing, that the check, draft, or order
was not paid on presentment. In this section, the word "credit" means an arrangement or
understanding, express or implied, with the bank or other depository for the payment of
that check, draft, or order.
b. Elements.
(1) For the procurement ofany article or thing of
value, with intent to defraud.
(a) That the accused made, drew, uttered, or delivered a check, draft, or order for the
payment of money payable to a named person or organization;
(b) That the accused did so for the purpose of
procuring an article or thing of
value;
(c) That the act was committed with intent to defraud; and
(d) That at the time of
making, drawing, uttering, or delivery of
the instrument the accused
knew that the accused or the maker or drawer had not or would not have sufficient funds in, or
credit with, the bank or other depository for the payment thereof upon presentment.
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(2) For the payment ofany
past due obligation, orjor any otherpwpose, with intent to
deceive.
(a) That the accused made, drew, uttered, or delivered a check, draft, or order for the
payment of
money payable to a named person or organization;
(b) That the accused did so for the purpose or purported purpose of
effecting the payment
of
a past due obligation or for some other purpose;
(c) That the act was committed with intent to deceive; and
(d) That at the time of
making, drawing, uttering, or delivering of
the instrument, the
accused knew that the accused or the maker or drawer had not or would not have sufficient funds
in, or credit with, the bank or other depository for the payment thereof
upon presentment.
c. Explanation.
(1) Written instruments. The wTitten instruments covered by this article include any check,
draft (including share drafts), or order for the payment of
money drawn upon any bank or other
depository, whether or not the drawer bank or depository is actually in existence. It may be
infened that every check, draft, or order carries with it a representation that the instrument will
be paid in full by the bank or other depository upon presentment by a holder when due.
(2) Rank or other depository. Bank or other depository includes any business regularly but not
necessarily exclusively engaged in public banking activities.
(3) A.rfaking or drawing. Making and drawing are synonymous and refer to the act of
writing
and signing the instrument.
(4) Uttering or delivering. Uttering and delivering have similar meanings. Both mean
transferring the instrument to another, but uttering has the additional meaning of
offering to
transfer. A person need not personally be the maker or drawer of
an instrument in order to violate
this article if
that person utters or delivers it. For example, if a person holds a check which that
person knows is worthless, and utters or delivers the check to another, that person may be guilty
of
an offense under this article despite the fact that the person did not personally draw the check.
(5) ror the procurement. "For the procurement" means for the purpose of
obtaining any
article or thing of
value. It is not necessary that an article or thing of
value actually be obtained,
and the purpose of
the obtaining may be for the accused's own use or benefit or for the use or
benefit of another.
(6) For the payment. "For the payment" means for the purpose or purported purpose of
satisfying in whole or in part any past due obligation. Payment need not be legally efiected.
(7) For any other purpose. For any other purpose includes all purposes other than the
payment of
a past due obligation or the procurement of
any article or thing of
value. For
example, it includes paying or purporting to pay an obligation which is not yet past due. The
check, draft, or order, whether made or negotiated for the procurement of
an article or thing of
value or for the payment of
a past due obligation or for some other purpose, need not be intended
or represented as payable immediately. For example, the making of
a postdated check, delivered
at the time of entering into an installment purchase contract and intended as payment for a future
installment, would, if
made with the requisite intent and knowledge, be a violation of
this article.
(8) Article or thing of
value. Article or thing of value extends to every kind of
right or interest
in property, or derived from contract, including interests and rights which are intangible or
contingent or which mature in the future.
(9) Past due obligation. A past due obligation is an obligation to pay money, which obligation
has legally matured before making, drawing, uttering, or delivering the instrument.
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(10)Knmvledge. The accused must have knowledge, at the time the accused makes, draws,
utters, or delivers the instrument, that the maker or drawer, whether the accused or another, has
not or will not have sufficient funds in, or credit with, the bank or other depository for the
payment of
the instmment in full upon its presentment. Such knowledge may be proved by
circumstantial evidence.
(11) Sufficient funds. "Sufficient funds" refers to a condition in which the account balance of
the maker or drawer in the bank or other depository at the time of
the presentment of
the
instrument for payment is not less than the face amount of
the instmment and has not been
rendered unavailable for payment by garnishment, attachment, or other legal procedures.
(12) Credit. "Credit" means an arrangement or understanding, express or implied, with the
bank or other depository for the payment of
the check, draft, or order. An absence of
credit
includes those situations in which an accused writes a check on a nonexistent bank or on a bank
in which the accused has no account.
(13) Upon its presentment. "Upon its presentment" refers to the time the demand for payment
is made upon presentation of
the instrument to the bank or other depository on which it was
drawn.
(14) Tntent to defraud "Intent to defraud" means an intent to obtain, through a
misrepresentation, an article or thing of
value and to apply it to one's own use and benefit or to
the use and benefit of
another, either permanently or temporarily.
(15) Tntent to deceive. "Intent to deceive" means an intent to mislead, cheat, or trick another
by means of a misrepresentation made for the purpose of
gaining an advantage for oneself or for
a third person, or of
bringing about a disadvantage to the interests of
the person to whom the
representation was made or to interests represented by that person.
(16) The relationship (!{time and intent. Under this article, two times are involved: (a) when
the accused makes, draws, utters, or delivers the instrument; and (b) when the instmment is
presented to the bank or other depository for payment. With respect to (a), the accused must
possess the requisite intent and must know that the maker or drawer does not have or will not
have suftl.cient funds in, or credit with, the bank or the depository for payment of
the instmment
in full upon its presentment when due. With respect to (b), if
it can otherwise be shown that the
accused possessed the requisite intent and knowledge at the time the accused made, drew,
uttered, or delivered the instmment, neither proof of
presentment nor refusal of
payment is
necessary, as when the instmment is one drawn on a nonexistent bank.
(17) Statutory rule ofevidence. The provision of
this article with respect to establishing prima
facie evidence of
knowledge and intent by proof of
notice and nonpayment within 5 days is a
statutory rule of
evidence. The failure of
an accused who is a maker or drawer to pay the holder
the amount due within 5 days after receiving either oral or written notice from the holder of
a
check, draft, or order, or from any other person having knowledge that such check, draft, or order
was returned unpaid because of insufficient funds, is prima facie evidence (a) that the accused
had the intent to defraud or deceive as alleged; and (b) that the accused knew at the time the
accused made, drew, uttered, or delivered the check, draft, or order that the accused did not have
or would not have sufficient funds in, or credit with, the bank or other depository for the
payment of such check, draft, or order upon its presentment for payment. Prima facie evidence is
that evidence from which the accused's intent to defraud or deceive and the accused's knowledge
of
insufficient funds in or credit with the bank or other depository may be inferred, depending on
all the circumstances. The failure to give notice referred to in the article, or payment by the
accused, maker, or drawer to the holder of
the amount due within 5 days after such notice has
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been given, precludes the prosecution from using the statutory rule of evidence but does not
preclude conviction of
this offense if
all the elements are otherwise proved.
(
18) Affirmative defense. Honest mistake is an affirmative defense to offenses under this
article. See R.C.M. 9160).
d. Maximum punishment.
(1) For the procurement of
any article or thing of
value, with intent to defraud, in the face
amount of
(a) $1,000 or less. Bad-conduct discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 6 months.
(b) More than $1,000. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 5 years.
(2) For the payment of
any past due obligation, or.for any other purpose, with intent to
deceive. Bad-conduct discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and confinement for 6
months.
e. Sample .~pec{fications.
(1) For the procurement(?{
any article or thing qf
value, with intent to defraud.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board---location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, ifrequired), on or about
20___, with intent to
defraud and for the procurement of
(lawful currency) (and)
(an article) (a thing) of
value), wrongfully and unlawfully ((make (draw)) (utter) (deliver) to
a certain
(check) (draft) (money order) upon the
Bank)
depository) in words
and figures as follows, to wit:
then knowing that (he) (she)
the (maker) (drawer) thereof: did not or would not have sutlicient funds in or
credit with such (bank) (depository) for the payment of
the said (check) (draft) (order) in full
upon its presentment.
(2) For the payment of
any past due obligation, or
for any other pwpose, with intent to
deceive.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20
__
, with intent to deceive and
for the payment of a past due obligation, to wit:
(for the purpose of
-----'wrongfully
and unlawfully ((make) (draw)) (utter) (deliver) to _____
_
a certain (check) (draft) (money order) for the payment of money upon(
__
Bank),
__
_
depository), in words and figures as follows, to wit:
, then knowing that (he) (she)
(
), the (maker) (drawer) thereof, did not or would not have sutlicient funds in or
credit with such (bank) (depository) for the payment of
the said (check) (draft) (order) in full
upon its presentment.
71. Article 124 (10 U.S.C. 924)-Frauds against the United States
a Text of
statute.
Any person subject to this chapter-
(1) who, knowing it to be false m· fraudulent-
(
A) makes any claim against the United States or any officer thereof;
or
(B) presents to any person in the civil or military service thereof, for
approval or payment, any claim against the United States or any officer thereof;
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(2) who, for the purpose of obtaining the approval, allowance, or payment of
any claim against the United States or any officer thereof-
(
A) makes or uses any writing or other paper knowing it to contain
any false or fraudulent statements;
(B) makes any oath to any fact or to any writing or other paper
knowing the oath to be false; or
(C) forges or counterfeits any signature upon any writing or other
paper, or uses any such signature knowing it to be forged or counterfeited;
(3) who, having charge, possession, custody or control of any money, or other
property of the United States, furnished or intended for the armed forces thereof,
knowingly delivers to any person having authority to receive it, any amount thereof less
than that for which he receives a certificate or receipt; or
(4) who, being authorized to make or deliver any paper certifying the receipt
of any property of the lJ nited States furnished or intended for the armed forces thereof,
makes or delivers to any person such writing without having full knowledge of the truth of
the statements therein contained and with intent to defraud the United States;
shall, upon conviction, be punished as a court-martial may direct.
b. F.lemenls.
(l)Makingafalse orfraudulent claim.
(a) That the accused made a certain claim against the United States or an officer thereof;
(b) That the claim was false or fraudulent in certain particulars; and
(c) That the accused then knew that the claim was false or fraudulent in these patticulars.
(2) Presenting
for approval or payment a false or fraudulent claim.
(a) That the accused presented for approval or payment to a certain person in the civil or
military service of
the United States having authority to approve or pay it a certain claim against
the United States or an otiicer thereof;
(b) That the claim was false or fraudulent in certain patticulars; and
(c) That the accused then knew that the claim was false or fraudulent in these particulars.
(3) Making or using a false writing or other paper in connection with a claim.
(a) That the accused made or used a certain writing or other paper;
(b) That certain material statements in the writing or other paper were false or fraudulent;
(c) That the accused then knew the statements were false or fraudulent; and
(d) That the act of
the accused was for the purpose of
obtaining the approval, allowance, or
payment of
a certain claim or claims against the United States or an officer thereof
(4) False oath in connection with a claim.
(a) That the accused made an oath to a certain fact or to a certain writing or other paper;
(b) That the oath was false in ce1tain pa1ticulars;
(c) That the accused then knew it was false; and
(d) That the act was for the purpose of obtaining the approval, allowance, or payment of
a
certain claim or claims against the United States or an officer thereof.
(5) Forge1y of
signature in connection with a claim.
(a) That the accused forged or counterfeited the signature of
a certain person on a certain
writing or other paper; and
(b) That the act was for the purpose of obtaining the approval, allowance, or payment of
a
certain claim against the United States or an officer thereof.
(6) Usingforged signature in connection with a claim.
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(a) That the accused used the forged or counterfeited signature of
a certain person;
(b) That the accused then knew that the signature was forged or counterfeited; and
(c) That the act was for the purpose of
obtaining the approval, allowance, or payment of a
cetiain claim against the United States or an officer thereof.
(7) Delivering less than amount called
for by receipt.
(a) That the accused had charge, possession, custody, or control of
certain money or
property of
the United States furnished or intended for the armed forces thereof;
(b) That the accused obtained a certificate or receipt for a certain amount or quantity of
that money or property;
(c) That for the certificate or receipt the accused knoVvingly delivered to a certain person
having authority to receive it, an amount or quantity of
money or property less than the amount
or quantity thereof specified in the certificate or receipt; and
(d) That the undelivered money or property was of
a certain value.
(8) .Making or delivering receipt 1vithout havingfull knowledge that it is true.
(a) That the accused was authorized to make or deliver a paper certifying the receipt from
a certain person of
certain property of
the United States furnished or intended for the armed
forces thereof;
(b) That the accused made or delivered to that person a certificate or receipt;
(c) That the accused made or delivered the certificate without having full knowledge of
the
truth of
a certain material statement or statements therein;
(d) That the act was done with intent to defraud the United States; and
(e) That the property certified as being received was of
a certain value.
c. Lxplanation.
(1) Making a false or
fraudulent claim.
(a) Claim. A claim is a demand for a transfer of
ownership of
money or property and does
not include requisitions for the mere use of property. This article applies only to claims against
the United States or any officer thereof as such, and not to claims against an officer of
the United
States in that officer's private capacity.
(b) Making a claim. Making a claim is a distinct act from presenting it. A claim may be
made in one place and presented in another. The mere writing of a paper in the form of
a claim,
without any futiher act to cause the paper to become a demand against the United States or an
otlicer thereo±: does not constitute making a claim. However, any act placing the claim in oflicial
channels constitutes making a claim, even if
that act does not amount to presenting a claim. It is
not necessary that the claim be allowed or paid or that it be made by the person to be benefited
by the allowance or payment. See also subparagraph c.(2).
(c) Knowledge. The claim must be made with knowledge of
its fictitious or dishonest
character. This article does not prosctibe claims, however groundless they may be, that the
maker believes to be valid, or claims that are merely made negligently or without ordinary
pmdence.
(2) Presenting
for approval or payment a false or
fraudulent claim.
(a) False and
fraudulent. False and fraudulent claims include not only those containing
some material false statement, but also claims that the claimant knows to have been paid or for
some other reason the claimant knows the claimant is not authotized to present or upon which
the claimant knows the claimant has no right to collect.
(b) Presenting a claim. The claim must be presented, directly or indirectly, to some person
having authotity to pay it. The person to whom the claim is presented may be identified by
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position or authority to approve the claim, and need not be identified by name in the
specification. A false claim may be tacitly presented, as when a person who knows that there is
no entitlement to certain pay accepts it nevertheless without disclosing a disqualification, even
though the person may not have made any representation of
entitlement to the pay. For example,
a person cashing a pay check that includes an amount for a dependency allowance, knowing at
the time that the entitlement no longer exists because of a change in that dependency status, has
tacitly presented a false claim. See also subparagraph (1) of
this paragraph.
(3) !Yfaking or using a false ~writing
or other paper in connection ·with a claim. The false or
fraudulent statement must be material, that is, it must have a tendency to mislead governmental
officials in their consideration or investigation of
the claim. The offense of
making a writing or
other paper known to contain a false or fraudulent statement for the purpose of
obtaining the
approval, allowance, or payment of a claim is complete when the writing or paper is made for
that purpose, whether or not any use of
the paper has been attempted and whether or not the
claim has been presented. See also the explanation in subparagraphs (I) and (2) of
this
paragraph.
(4) False oath in connection with a claim. See subparagraphs (1) and (2) ofthis paragraph.
(5) Forgery ofsignature in connection 1vilh a claim. Any fraudulent making of
the signature
of
another is forging or counterfeiting, whether or not an attempt is made to imitate the
handwriting. See subparagraph 37.c. and subparagraphs (1) and (2) ofthis paragraph.
(6) Delivering less than amount calledfor hy receipt. It is immaterial by what means-
whether deceit, collusion, or otherwise--the accused effected the transaction, or what was the
accused's purpose.
(7) Making or delivering receipt without hm'ingfull knowledge that it is true. When an of11cer
or other person subject to military law is authorized to make or deliver any paper certifying the
receipt of any property of
the United States furnished or intended for the armed forces thereof~
and a receipt or other paper is presented for signature stating that a certain amount of supplies
has been furnished by a certain contractor, it is that person's duty before signing the paper to
know that the full amount of supplies therein stated to have been furnished has in fact been
furnished, and that the statements contained in the paper are true. If
the person signs the paper
with intent to defraud the United States and without that knowledge, that person is guilty of
a
violation of
this section of
the article. If
the person signs the paper with knowledge that the full
amount was not received, it may be inferred that the person intended to defraud the United
States.
d. Afaximum punishment.
(I) Article 124 (1) and (2). Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances,
and confinement for 5 years.
(2)Article 124 (3) and (4).
(a) When amount is $1,000 or less. Bad-conduct discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and
allowances, and confinement for 6 months.
(b) When mnount is more than $1,000. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and
allowances, and confinement for 5 years.
e. Sample specifications.
(1) Making
false claim.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20_, (by preparing (a
voucher)
for presentation for approval or payment)
make a claim against the
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(United States) (finance officer at_)
) in the amount of$
for (private
property alleged to have been (lost) (destroyed) in the military service) (
, which
claim was (false) (fraudulent) (false and fraudulent) in the amount of
in that __
_
and was then known by the said
to be (false) (fraudulent) (false and fraudulent).
(2) Presenting
false claim.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20_,
by presenting (a
voucher) (
) to
, an officer of
the United States duly authorized to (approve) (pay)
(approve and pay) such claim, present for (approval) (payment) (approval and payment) a claim
against the (United States) (finance officer at
(
in the amount of
$
for (services alleged to have been rendered to the United States by ____
_
during
which claim was (false) (fraudulent) (false and fraudulent)
in the amount of
in that
and was then known by the said
to be
(false) (fraudulent) (false and fraudulent).
(3) Making or usingfalse writing.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), for the purpose of
obtaining the
(approval) (allowance) (payment) (approval, allowance, and payment) of
a claim against the
United States in the amount of
did (at/on board-location) (subject-matter jurisdiction
data, if
required), on or about
20
(make) (use) (make and use) a certain (writing)
(paper), to wit:
, which said (writing) (paper), as (he) (she), the said
, then
knew, contained a statement that
, which statement was (false) (fraudulent) (false
and fraudulent) in that
and was then known by the said
to be (false)
(fraudulent) (false and fraudulent).
(
4) Making
fal<se oath.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), for the purpose of
obtaining the
(approval) (allowance) (payment) (approval, allowance, and payment) of
a claim against the
United States, did (at/on board-location) (subject-matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or
about
20
__
, make an oath (to the fact that
(to a certain (writing)
(paper), to wit:
to the effect that
, which said oath was false in
that
, and was then known by the said
to be false.
(5) Forging or counterfeiting signature.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), for the purpose of
obtaining the
(approval) (allowance) (payment) (approval, allowance, and payment) of
a claim against the
United States, did (at/on board-location) (subject-matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or
about
20
__
, (forge) (counterfeit) (forge and counterfeit) the signature of __
_
upon a
in words and figures as follows: ___
_
(6) Using
forged signature.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), for the purpose of
obtaining the
(approval) (allowance) (payment) (approval, allowance, and payment) of
a claim against the
United States, did (at/on board-location) (subject-matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or
about
20
__
, use the signature of
on a certain (writing) (paper), to wit:
____
,then knowing such signature to be (forged) (counterfeited) (forged and
counterfeited).
(7) Paying amount less than called
for by a receipt.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), having (charge) (possession)
(custody) (control) of
(money)
of the United States, (furnished) (intended) (furnished
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and intended) for the armed forces thereof, did, (at/on board-location) (subject-matter
jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20
__
, knowingly deliver to __
, the
said
having authority to receive the same, (an amount) (
), which, as (he)
(she),
, then knew, was($
)
less than the (amount)(
)
for which (he) (she) received a (certificate) (receipt) from the said ___
_
(8)Nfaking receipt without knowledge ofthefacts.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), being authorized to (make)
(deliver) (make and deliver) a paper certifying the receipt of property of
the United States
(furnished) (intended) (furnished and intended) for the armed forces thereof, did, (at/on board-
location) (subject-matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20
__
, without
having full knowledge of
the statement therein contained and with intent to defraud the United
States, (make) (deliver) (make and deliver) to
such a writing, in words and
figures as follows:
the property therein certified as received being of
a value of
about
72. Article 124a (10 U.S.C. 924a)-Bribery
a. Text <?(statute.
(a) ASKING, ACCEPTING, OR RECEIVING THING OF VALUE.-Any person subject to
this chapter-
(1) who occupies an official position or who has official duties; and
(2) who wrongfully asks, accepts, or receives a thing of value with the intent
to have the person's decision or action influenced with respect to an official matter in
which the United States is interested;
shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
(b) PROMISING, OFFERING, OR GIVING TIDNG OF VALUE.-Any person subject to this
chapter who wrongfully promises, offers, or gives a thing of
value to another person, who
occupies an official position or who has official duties, with the intent to influence the
decision or action of the other person with respect to an official matter in which the United
States is interested, shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
b. Elements.
( 1) Asking, accepting, or receiving.
(a) That the accused wrongfully asked, accepted, or received a thing of
value from a
certain person or organization;
(b) That the accused then occupied a certain official position or had certain official duties;
(c) That the accused asked, accepted, or received this thing of
value with the intent to have
the accused's decision or action influenced with respect to a certain matter; and
(d) That this certain matter was an official matter in which the United States was
interested.
(2) Promising, offering, or giving.
(a) That the accused wrongfully promised, offered, or gave a thing of
value to a certain
person;
(b) That this person then occupied a certain official position or had certain official duties;
(c) That this thing of
value was promised, offered, or given with the intent to influence the
decision or action of
this person; and
(d) That this matter was an official matter in which the United States was interested.
c. Explanation. Bribery requires an intent to influence or be influenced in an official matter.
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d.lvfaximum punishment. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 5 years.
e. Sample specifications.
(
1) Asking, accepting, or receiving.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), being at the time (a contracting officer for
_)(the
personnel officer of_)
(
), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-matter
jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about __
20 _,wrongfully (ask) (accept) (receive) from
-~'(a
contracting company engaged in_)(_),
(the sum of$_),
_____
,
of
a value of(about) $_)(
__
),(with intent to have (his) (her) (decision) (action)
influenced with respect to) ((as compensation for) (in recognition of)) service (rendered) (to be
rendered).
(2) Promising, qffering, or giving.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20 _,wrongfully (promise) (offer)
(give) to
((his) (her) commanding officer) (the claims officer of __
, ,
___
,
(the sum of$
__
)
of
a value of(about) $ __
)(
__
),(with intentto influence the
(decision) (action) of
the said __
with respect to) ((as compensation for) (in recognition of))
services (rendered) (to be rendered).
73. Article 124b (10 U.S.C. 924b)-Graft
a. Text (~(statute.
(a) ASKING, ACCEPTING, OR RECEIVING THING OF VALUE.-Any person subject to
this chapter-
(
1) who occupies an official position or who has official duties; and
(2) who wrongfully asks, accepts, or receives a thing of value as compensation
for or in recognition of
services rendered or to be rendered by the person with respect to an
official matter in which the United States is interested;
shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
(b) PROMISING, OFFERING, OR GIVING TIUNG OF V
ALUE.-Any person subject to this
chapter who wrongfully promises, offers, or gives a thing of
value to another person, who
occupies an official position or who has official duties, as compensation for or in
recognition of services rendered or to be rendered by the other person with respect to an
official matter in which the United States is interested, shall be punished as a court-martial
may direct.
b. Elements.
( 1) Asking, accepting, or receiving.
(a) That the accused wrongfully asked, accepted, or received a thing of
value from a
certain person or organization;
(b) That the accused then occupied a certain official position or had certain official duties;
(c) That the accused asked, accepted, or received this thing of
value as compensation for or
in recognition of
services rendered, to be rendered, or both, by the accused in relation to a certain
matter; and
(d) That this certain matter was an official matter in which the United States was
interested.
(2) Promising, qffering, or giving.
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(a) That the accused wrongfully promised, offered, or gave a thing of
value to a certain
person;
(b) That this person then occupied a certain official position or had certain official duties;
(c) That this thing of
value was promised, offered, or given as compensation for or in
recognition of services rendered, to be rendered, or both, by this person in relation to a certain
matter; and
(d) That this matter was an official matter in which the United States was interested.
c. Explanation. Graft does not require an intent to influence or be influenced in an official
matter. Graft involves compensation for services performed in an official matter when no
compensation is due.
d. Jt.faximum punishment. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 3 years.
e. Sample spec{flcafions.
(I) Asf..'ing, accepting, or receiving.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), being at the time (a contracting officer for
---'(the
personnel oft]cer of
(
__
),did,(
at/on board-location) (subject-matter
jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about __
20 _,wrongfully (ask) (accept) (receive) from
(a contracting company engaged in
(the sum of$
__
)
--'
'---------'
of
a value of
(about) $ __
) (__j,
(rendered or to be rendered) by (him) (her) the said
in relation to) an official matter in which the United States was interested, to wit: (the purchasing
of
military supplies from
(the transfer of __
to duty with
(
).
(2) Promising, offering, or giving.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20 _,wrongfully (promise) (offer)
(give) to
, ((his) (her) commanding officer) (the claims officer of __j
(__j,
(the sum of$__j
(_,of
a value of(about) $__j
(_,(rendered or to be rendered)
by the said __
in relation to) an official matter in which the United States was interested, to
wit: (the granting ofleave to __
) (the processing of
a claim against the United States in favor
of__j(__j.
74. Article 125 (10 U.S.C. 925)-Kidnapping
a. Text ~{statute.
Any person subject to this chapter who wrongfully-
(1) seizes, confines, inveigles, decoys, or carries away another person; and
(2) holds the other person against that person's will;
shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
b. Elements.
(1) That the accused seized, confined, inveigled, decoyed, or carried away a certain person;
(2) That the accused then held such person against that person's will; and
(3) That the accused did so wrongfully.
c. Explanation.
( 1) Inveigle, decoy. "Inveigle" means to lure, lead astray, or entice by false representations or
other deceitful means. For example, a person who entices another to ride in a car with a false
promise to take the person to a certain destination has inveigled the passenger into the car.
"Decoy" means to entice or lure by means of some fraud, trick, or temptation. For example, one
who lures a child into a trap with candy has decoyed the child.
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(2) Held. "Held" means detained. The holding must be more than a momentary or incidental
detention. For example, a robber who holds the victim at gunpoint while the victim hands over a
wallet, or a rapist who throws his victim to the ground, does not, by such acts, commit
kidnapping. On the other hand, if, before or after such robbery or rape, the victim is involuntarily
transported some substantial distance, as from a housing area to a remote area of
the base or post,
this may be kidnapping, in addition to robbery or rape.
(3) Against the will. "Against that person's will" means that the victim was held involuntarily.
The involuntary nature of
the detention may result from force, mental or physical coercion, or
from other means, including false representations. If the victim is incapable of
having a
recognizable will, as in the case of
a very young child or a mentally incompetent person, the
holding must be against the will of
the victim's parents or legal guardian. Evidence of the
availability or nonavailability to the victim of
means of
exit or escape is relevant to the
voluntariness of
the detention, as is evidence of
threats or force, or lack thereof, by the accused
to detain the victim.
(4) Financial or
per,<,·onal gain. The holding need not have been for financial or personal gain
or for any other particular purpose. Tt may be an aggravating circumstance that the kidnapping
was for ransom, however. See R.C.M. 1001 (b
)(4).
(5) rVrongfully. "Wrongfully" means without justification or excuse. For example, a law
enforcement official may justifiably apprehend and detain, by force if
reasonably necessary {.<see
R.C.M. 302(d)(3)), a person reasonably believed to have committed an offense. An official who
unlawfully uses the official's authority to apprehend someone is not guilty of
kidnapping, but
may be guilty of unlawful detention. See paragraph 25.
d. Maximum punishment. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and
confinement for life without eligibility for parole.
e. ,S'ample ::,pecification.
In that __
, (personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-matter
jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about __
20 _,wrongfully (seize) (confine) (inveigle)
(decoy) (carry away) and hold __
(a minor whose parent or legal guardian the accused was
not) (a person not a minor) against (his) (her) will.
75. Article 126 (10 U.S.C. 926)-Arson; burning property with intent to defraud
a. 1'ext of
statute.
(a) AGGRAVATED ARSON.-Any person subject to this chapter who, willfully and
maliciously, burns or sets on fire an inhabited dwelling, or any other structure, movable or
immovable, wherein, to the knowledge of that person, there is at the time a human being, is
guilty of aggravated arson and shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
(b) SIMPLE ARSON.-Any person subject to this chapter who, willfully and
maliciously, burns or sets fire to the property of another is guilty of simple arson and shall
be punished as a court-martial may direct.
(c) BURNING PROPERTYWITHlNTENTTODEFRAUD.-Any person subject to this
chapter who, willfully, maliciously, and with intent to defmud, burns or sets fire to any
property shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
b. Elements.
(
1) Aggravated arson.
(a) Inhabited dwelling.
(i) That the accused burned or set on fire an inhabited dwelling; and
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(ii) That the act was willful and malicious.
(b) Structure.
(i) That the accused burned or set on fire a certain structure;
(ii) That the act was willful and malicious;
(iii) That there was a human being in the structure at the time; and
(iv) That the accused knew that there was a human being in the structure at the time.
(2) Simple arson.
(a) That the accused burned or set fire to certain property of
another; and
(b) That the act was willful and malicious.
[Note: if
the property is of a value of
more than $1,000, add the following element]
(c) That the property is of
a value of more than $1,000.
(3) Burning with the intent to defraud.
(a) That the accused burned or set fire to certain property; and
(b) That the act was willful and malicious; and
(c) That such burning or setting on fire was with the intent to defraud a certain person or
organization.
c. Fxplanalion.
(1) ln general. In aggravated arson, danger to human life is the essential element; in simple
arson, it is injury to the property of
another. In either case, it is immaterial that no one is, in fact,
injured. It must be shown that the accused set the fire willfully and maliciously, that is, not
merely by negligence or accident. In burning with intent to defraud, it is the fraudulent intent
motivating the burning of
any property that is the essential element. It is immaterial to whom the
property belonged; the focus is that the burning of
that property was for a fraudulent purpose
(e.g., the intent to file a false insurance claim for the property burned by the accused).
(2) Aggravated arson.
(a) inhabited
dwelling. "An inhabited dwelling" means the structure must be used for
habitation, not that a human being must be present therein at the time the dwelling is burned or
set on fire. It includes the outbuildings that form part of
the cluster of
buildings used as a
residence. A shop or store is not an inhabited dwelling unless occupied as such, nor is a house
that has never been occupied or that has been temporarily abandoned. A person may be guilty of
aggravated arson of
the person's dwelling, whether as owner or tenant.
(b) Structure. Aggravated arson may also be committed by burning or setting on fire any
other structure, movable or immovable, such as a theater, church, boat, trailer, tent, auditorium,
or any other sort of
shelter or edifice, whether public or private, when the offender knows that
there is a human being inside at the time. It may be that the offender had this knowledge when
the nature of
the structure-as a department store or theater during hours of
business, or other
circumstances-are shown to have been such that a reasonable person would have known that a
human being was inside at the time.
(c) Damage to property. It
is not necessary that the dwelling or structure be consumed or
materially injured; it is enough if
fire is actually communicated to any part thereof. Any actual
burning or charring is sufficient, but a mere scorching or discoloration by heat is not.
(d) Value and ownership of
property. For the offense of aggravated arson, the value and
ownership of
the dwelling or other structure are immaterial, but may be alleged and proved to
permit the finding in an appropriate case of the included offense of simple arson.
(3) Simple arson. Simple arson is the willful and malicious burning or setting fire to the
property of
another under circumstances not amounting to aggravated arson. The offense
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includes burning or setting fire to real or personal property of someone other than the offender.
See subparagraph 75.c.(l) for discussion ofwillful and malicious.
(4) Burninglvith the intent to defraud. See subparagraph 70.c.(14) for a discussion of
intent to
defraud.
d. Nfaximum punishment.
(!)Aggravated arson. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 25 years.
(2) Simple arson-
(
a) TJlhere the property is Q[some value. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and
allowances, and confinement for 5 years.
(b) Where the property is Q[ a value Q[more than $1,000. Dishonorable discharge,
forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and confinement for 10 years.
(3) Rurning with intent to de.fi·aud. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and
allowances, and confinement for 10 years.
e. Sample .~pec{ficalions.
(1) Aggravated arson.
(a) Inhabited dwelling.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20
willfully and maliciously (burn)
(set on fire) an inhabited dwelling, to wit: (a house) (an apartment),
_____
,
(b) Structure.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about __
20 _,willfully and maliciously (burn)
(set on fire), knowing that a human being was therein at the time, (the Post Theater)
( ___
-/
(2) Simple arson.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about __
20 _,willfully and maliciously (bum)
(set tire to) (an automobile)
(of some value) (of
a value of more than $1,000), the
property of
another.
(3) Burning with intent to defraud.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about __
20 _,willfully and maliciously (bum)
(set fire to) (a dwelling) (a barn) (an automobile) (
, with intent to defraud (the insurer
thereof, to wit:
).
76. Article 127 (10 U.S.C. 927)-Extortion
a. Text ofstatute.
Any person subject to this chapter who communicates threats to another person
with the intention thereby to obtain anything of
value or any acquittance, advantage, or
immunity is guilty of extortion and shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
b. Elements.
(1) That the accused communicated a certain threat to another; and
(2) That the accused intended to unlawfully obtain something of
value, or any acquittance,
advantage, or immunity.
c. Explanation.
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(1) In general. Extortion is complete upon communication of
the threat with the requisite
intent. The actual or probable success of
the extortion need not be proved.
(2) Threat. A threat may be communicated by any means but must be received by the
intended victim. The threat may be: a threat to do any unlawful injury to the person or property
ofthe person threatened or to any member ofthat person's family or any other person held dear
to that person; a threat to accuse the person threatened, or any member of
that person's family or
any other person held dear to that person, of any crime; a threat to expose or impute any
deformity or disgrace to the person threatened or to any member of
that person's family or any
other person held dear to that person; a threat to expose any secret affecting the person
threatened or any member of
that person's family or any other person held dear to that person; or
a threat to do any other harm.
(3) Acquittance. An acquittance is a release or discharge from an obligation.
(4) Advantage or immunity. Unless it is clear from the circumstances, the advantage or
immunity sought should be described in the specification. An intent to make a person do an act
against that person's will is not, by itself, sufficient to constitute extortion.
d.lvfaximum punishment. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 3 years.
e. Sample .~pec{fication.'i·.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-matter
jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about __
20 _,with intent unlawfully to obtain
(something of
value, to wit:
(an acquittance) (an advantage, to wit:
(an
immunity, to wit:
a threat to (here describe the
threat).
77. Article 128 (10 U.S.C. 928)-Assault
a. Text (ifstatute.
(a) AssAULT.-Any person subject to this chapter who, unlawfully and with force or
violence--
(1) attempts to do bodily harm to another person;
(2) offers to do bodily harm to another person; or
(3) does bodily harm to another person;
is guilty of assault and shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
(b) AGGRAVATED ASSAULT.-Any person subject to this chapter-
(1) who, with the intent to do bodily harm, offers to do bodily harm with a
dangerous weapon; or
(2) who, in committing an assault, inflicts substantial bodily harm or
grievous bodily harm on another person;
is guilty of aggravated assault and shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
(c) ASSAULT WITH INTENT TO COMMIT SPECIFIED OFFENSES.-
(1) IN GENERAL.-Any person subject to this chapter who commits assault
with intent to commit an offense specified in paragraph (2) shall be punished as a court-
martial may direct.
(2) OFFENSES SPECIFIED.-The offenses referred to in paragraph (1) are
murder, voluntary manslaughter, rape, sexual assault, rape of a child, sexual assault of a
child, robbery, arson, burglary, and kidnapping.
b. Elements.
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(1) Simple assault.
(a) That the accused attempted to do or offered to do bodily hann to a certain person;
(b) That the attempt or offer was done unlawfully; and
(c) That the attempt or offer was done with force or violence.
(2) Assault consummated by a battay.
(a) That the accused did bodily harm to a certain person;
(b) That the bodily hann was done unlawfully; and
(c) That the bodily harm was done with force or violence.
(3) Assaults permitting increased
punishment based on status qfvictim.
(a) Assault upon a commissioned, warrant, noncommissioned, or
petty officer.
(i) That the accused attempted to do, offered to do, or did bodily harm to a cettain
person;
(ii) That the attempt, offer, or bodily harm was done unlawfully;
(iii) That the attempt, offer, or bodily ham1 was done with force or violence;
(iv) That the person was a commissioned, walTant, noncommissioned, or petty officer;
and
(v) That the accused then knew that the person was a commissioned, waTTant,
noncommissioned, or petty officer.
(b) Assault upon a sentinel or lookout in the execution (!f duty, or upon a person in the
execution (?f knv er!forcement duties.
(i) That the accused attempted to do, offered to do, or did bodily harm to a certain
person;
(ii) That the attempt, otTer, or bodily harm was done unlawfully;
(iii) That the attempt, offer, or bodily harm was done with force or violence;
(iv) That the person was a sentinel or lookout in the execution of
duty or was a person
who then had and was in the execution of security police, military police, shore patrol, master at
arms, or other military or civilian law enforcement duties; and
(v) That the accused then knew that the person was a sentinel or lookout in the
execution of
duty or was a person who then had and was in the execution of security police,
military police, shore patrol, master at arms, or other military or civilian law enforcement duties.
(c) Assault consummated by a battery upon a child under 16 years, a spouse, intimate
partner, or immediate family member.
(i) That the accused did bodily harm to a certain person;
(ii) That the bodily harm was done unlawfully;
(iii) That the bodily harm was done with force or violence; and
(iv) That the person was then a child under the age of 16 years, or a spouse, intimate
partner, or an immediate family member of
the accused.
(
4) Aggravated assault.
(a) Assault 1vith a dangerous weapon.
(i) That the accused offered to do bodily harm to a certain person;
(ii) The offer was made with the intent to do bodily hann; and
(iii) That the accused did so with a dangerous weapon.
[Note: Add any of the following elements as applicable:]
(iv) That the dangerous weapon was a loaded firearm.
(v) That the person was a child under the age of 16 years, or a spouse, intimate partner,
or an immediate family member of the accused.
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(b) Assault in which substantial bodily harm is inflicted.
(i) That the accused assaulted a certain person; and
(ii) That substantial bodily harm was thereby inflicted upon such person.
[Note: Add any of
the following elements as applicable:]
(iii) That the injury was inflicted with a loaded firearm.
(iv) That the person was a child under the age of 16 years, or a spouse, intimate partner,
or an immediate family member of the accused.
(c)Assault in which grievous bodily harm is inflicted.
(i) That the accused assaulted a certain person; and
(ii) That grievous bodily harm was thereby inflicted upon such person.
[Note: Add any of the following elements as applicable:]
(iii) That the injury was inflicted with a loaded firearm.
(iv) That the person was a child under the age of 16 years, or a spouse, intimate partner,
or an immediate family member of the accused.
(5) Assault wilh intent to commit specified offenses.
(a) That the accused assaulted a certain person; and
(b) That the accused, at the time of
the assault, intended to: kill (as required for murder or
voluntary manslaughter), or commit rape, rape of a child, sexual assault, sexual assault of a child,
robbery, arson, burglary, or kidnapping.
c. F,xplanation.
(1) Definitions of
bodily harm.
(a) "Bodily harm" means an offensive touching of
another, however slight.
(b) "Substantial bodily harm" means a bodily injury that involves:
(i) a temporary but substantial disfigurement, or
(ii) a temporary but substantial loss or impairment of
function of any bodily member,
organ, or mental faculty.
(c) "Grievous bodily harm" means a bodily injury that involves:
(i) a substantial risk of death;
(ii) extreme physical pain;
(iii) protracted and obvious disfigurement; or
(iv) protracted loss or impairment of
the function of a bodily member, organ, or mental
faculty.
(2) Simple assault.
(a) Definition of
assault. An assault is an unlawful attempt or offer, made with force or
violence, to do bodily harm to another, whether or not the attempt or offer is consummated. It
must be done without legal justification or excuse and without the lawful consent of
the person
affected.
(b) Dijjerence betlveen attempt and offer type assaults.
(i) Attempt-type assault. An attempt-type assault requires a specific intent to inflict
bodily harm, and an overt act-that is, an act that amounts to more than mere preparation and
apparently tends to effect the intended bodily harm. An attempt-type assault may be committed
even though the victim had no knowledge of
the incident at the time.
(ii) Offer-type assault. An offer-type assault is an unlawful demonstration of
violence,
either by an intentional or by a culpably negligent act or omission, which creates in the mind of
another a reasonable apprehension of
receiving immediate bodily harm. Specific intent to inflict
bodily harm is not required.
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(iii) Examples.
(A) If
Doe swings a fist at Roe's head intending to hit Roe but misses, Doe has
committed an attempt-type assault, whether or not Roe is aware of
the attempt.
(B) If
Doe swings a fist in the direction ofRoe's head either intentionally or as a
result of
culpable negligence, and Roe sees the blow coming and is thereby put in apprehension
of
being struck, Doe has committed an offer-type assault whether or not Doe intended to hit Roe.
(C) If
Doe swings at Roe's head, intending to hit it, and Roe sees the blow coming
and is thereby put in apprehension of
being struck, Doe has committed both on offer- and an
attempt-type assault.
(D) If
Doe swings at Roe's head simply to frighten Roe, not intending to hit Roe, and
Roe does not see the blow and is not placed in fear, then no assault of
any type has been
committed.
(c) Situations not amounting to assault.
(i) Mere preparation. Preparation not amounting to an overt act, such as picking up a
stone without any attempt or offer to throw it, does not constitute an assault.
(ii) Threatening word">. The use of
threatening words alone does not constitute an
assault. However, if
the threatening words are accompanied by a menacing act or gesture, there
may be an assault, since the combination constitutes a demonstration of violence.
(iii) Circumstances negating intent to harm. If
the circumstances known to the person
menaced clearly negate an intent to do bodily harm, there is no assault. Thus, if a person
accompanies an apparent attempt to strike another by an unequivocal announcement in some
form of
an intention not to strike, there is no assault. For example, if
Doe raises a stick and
shakes it at Roe within striking distance saying, "If
you weren't an old man, I would knock you
down," Doe has committed no assault. However, an offer to inflict bodily injury upon another
instantly if
that person does not comply with a demand that the assailant has no lawful right to
make is an assault. Thus, if
Doe points a pistol at Roe and says, "If
you don't hand over your
watch, I will shoot you," Doe has committed an assault upon Roe. See also paragraph 67
(Robbery) of
this Part.
(d) Situations not constituting defenses to assault.
(i) Assault attempt
fails. It is not a defense to a charge of assault that for some reason
unknown to the assailant, an assault attempt was bound to fail. Thus, if
a person loads a tifle with
what is believed to be a good cmtridge and, pointing it at another, pulls the trigger, that person
may be guilty of assault although the cartridge was defective and did not fire. Likewise, if a
person in a house shoots through the roof at a place where a policeman is believed to be, that
person may be guilty of
assault even though the policeman is at another place on the roof.
(ii) Retreating victim. An assault is complete ifthere is a demonstration of
violence and
an apparent ability to inflict bodily injury causing the person at whom it was directed to
reasonably apprehend that unless the person retreats bodily harm will be inflicted. This is true
even though the victim retreated and was never within actual striking distance of
the assailant.
There must, however, be an apparent present ability to inflict the injury. Thus, to aim a pistol at a
person at such a distance that it clearly could not injure would not be an assault.
(3) Battely.
(a) In general. A battery is an assault in which the attempt or offer to do bodily harm is
consummated by the infliction of
that harm.
(b) Application o.fforce. The force applied in a battery may have been directly or indirectly
applied. Thus, a battery can be committed by inflicting bodily injury on a person through striking
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the horse on which the person is mounted causing the horse to throw the person, as well as by
striking the person directly.
(c) Examples ofbattay. It may be a battery to spit on another, push a third person against
another, set a dog at another that bites the person, cut another's clothes while the person is
wearing them though without touching or intending to touch the person, shoot a person, cause a
person to take poison, or drive an automobile into a person. A person who, although excused in
using force, uses more force than is required, commits a battery. Throwing an object into a
crowd may be a battery on anyone whom the object hits.
(d) Situations not constitutinK battery. If
bodily harm is inflicted unintentionally and
without culpable negligence, there is no battery. It is also not a battery to touch another to attract
the other's attention or to prevent injmy.
(
4) Assaults permittinJ: increased
punishment based on status~~
victims.
(a) Assault upon a commi.s·sionetl, warrant, noncommissioned, or pelly (?fficer. The
maximum punishment is increased when assault is committed upon a commissioned officer of
the am1ed forces of
the United States, or of
a friendly foreign power, or upon a warrant,
noncommissioned, or petty officer of
the armed forces of
the United States. Knowledge of
the
status of
the victim is an essential element of
the offense and may be proved by circumstantial
evidence. It is not necessary that the victim be superior in rank or command to the accused, that
the victim be in the same armed force, or that the victim be in the execution of
office at the time
of
the assault.
(b) Assault upon a sentinel or lookout in the execution(?[
duty, or upon a person in the
execution (?f lmv er!forcement duties. The maximum punishment is increased when assault is
committed upon a sentinel or lookout in the execution of duty or upon a person who was then
performing security police, military police, shore patrol, master at arms, or other military or
civilian law enforcement duties. Knowledge of
the status of
the victim is an essential element of
this o±Iense and may be proved by circumstantial evidence. See subparagraph 22.c.(
1
)(d) for the
definition of sentinel or lookout.
(c) Assault consummated by a battery upon a child under 16
years of
age. The maximum
punishment is increased when assault consummated by a battery is committed upon a child under
16 years of age. Knowledge that the person assaulted was under 16 years of
age is not an element
of
this offense.
(d) Assault consummated by a battel:Jl against a spouse, intimate partner, or an immediate
family member. The maximum punishment is increased when assault consummated by a battery
is committed upon an immediate family member; spouse; or intimate partner. For purposes of
this paragraph, the terms immediate family member and intimate partner have the same meaning
as in subparagraph 80.a.(b)(4) and (5) (Stalking) and include a spouse, a former spouse, or a
former intimate partner.
(5) Aggravated assault.
(a) Assault 1vith a dangerous weapon.
(i) In general. It must be proved that the accused specifically intended to do bodily
harm. Culpable negligence will not suffice.
(ii) Proving intent. Specific intent may be proved by circumstantial evidence. When
bodily harm has been inflicted by means of intentionally using force in a manner capable of
achieving that result, it may be inferred that bodily harm was intended.
(iii) DanJ:erous 11ieapon. A weapon is dangerous when used in a manner capable of
inflicting death or grievous bodily hann. What constitutes a dangerous weapon depends not on
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the nature of
the object itself but on its capacity, given the manner of
its use, to kill or inflict
grievous bodily hann. Thus, a bottle, beer glass, a rock, a bunk adaptor, a piece of pipe, a piece
of
wood, boiling water, drugs, or a rifle butt may be used in a manner capable of
inflicting death
or grievous bodily harm. Furthennore, under the appropriate circumstances, fists, teeth, feet,
elbows, etc. may be considered a dangerous weapon when employed in a manner capable of
inflicting death or grievous bodily harm.
(iv) il?jwy not required. It is not necessary that bodily harm be actually inflicted to
prove assault with a dangerous weapon.
(v) When committed upon a child under 16
years of
age. The maximum punishment is
increased when assault with a dangerous weapon is committed upon a child under 16 years of
age. Knowledge that the person assaulted was under the age of 16 years is not an element of
the
offense.
(vi) When committed upon a .~pouse, intimate partner, or an immediate
family member.
The maximum punishment is increased when assault with a dangerous weapon is committed
upon a spouse; an immediate family member; or intimate partner. For purposes of
this paragraph,
the terms immediate family member and intimate partner have the same meaning as in
subparagraph 80.a.(b
)(4) and (5) (Stalking).
(b) Assault in which substantial or grievous bodily harm is it?flicted.
(i) In general. Assault in which substantial or grievous bodily harm is inflicted is a
general intent crime which requires that the accused assaulted another person and that the assault
resulted in substantial or grievous bodily harm. The offense does not require specific intent to
cause substantial or grievous bodily harm. The focus of
the offense is the degree ofbodily harm
resulting from an assault. This contrasts with the offense of
assault with a dangerous weapon,
where the focus of
the offense is the accused's intent to do bodily harm and the use of a
dangerous weapon, regardless of
whether any bodily harm results.
(ii) When committed on a child under 16
years of
age. The maximum punishment is
increased when assault involving infliction of substantial or grievous bodily harm is inflicted
upon a child under 16 years of
age. Knowledge that the person assaulted was under the age of 16
years is not an element of
the offense.
(iii) When committed on a spouse, intimate partner, or an immediate family member.
The maximum punishment is increased when assault involving infliction of substantial or
grievous bodily hann is committed upon a spouse; an immediate family member; or intimate
partner. For purposes of
this paragraph, the tem1s immediate family member and intimate partner
have the same meaning as in subparagraph 80.a.(b)(4) and (5) (Stalking).
(6) Assault with intent to commit specified ojjimses.
(a) In general. An assault with intent to commit any of
the offenses referenced below is
not necessarily the equivalent of an attempt to commit the intended offense, for an assault can be
committed with intent to commit an offense without achieving that proximity to consummation
of
an intended offense that is essential to an attempt. See paragraph 4 of
this Part.
(b) Assault with intent to murder. Assault with intent to commit murder is assault with the
specific intent to kill. Actual infliction ofinjmy is not necessary. To constitute an assault with
intent to murder with a firearm, it is not necessary that the weapon be discharged. When the
intent to kill exists, the fact that for some unknown reason the actual consummation of
the
murder by the means employed is impossible is not a defense if
the means are apparently adapted
to the end in view. The intent to kill need not be directed against the person assaulted if
the
assault is committed with intent to kill some person. For example, if
a person, intending to kill
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Jones, shoots Smith, mistaking Smith for Jones, that person is guilty of assaulting Smith with
intent to murder. If
a person fires into a group with intent to kill anyone in the group, that person
is guilty of
an assault with intent to murder each member of
the group.
(c) Assault with intent to commit voluntaTy manslaughter. Assault with intent to commit
voluntary manslaughter is an assault committed with a specific intent to kill under such
circumstances that, if
death resulted therefrom, the offense of
voluntary manslaughter would
have been committed. There can be no assault with intent to commit involuntary manslaughter,
for it is not a crime capable of
being intentionally committed.
(d) Assault with intent to commit rape, rape qf
a child, sexual assault, and
sexual assault
of
a child. In assault with intent to commit any rape or sexual assault, the accused must have
intended to complete the offense. Any lesser intent will not suffice. No actual touching is
necessary. Once an assault with intent to commit rape is made, it is no defense that the accused
voluntarily desisted.
(e) Assault with intent to rob. For assault with intent to rob, the fact that the accused
intended to take money and that the person the accused intended to rob had none is not a defense.
d. Maximum Punishment.
(1) Simple assault.
(a) Generally. Confinement for 3 months and forfeiture of
two-thirds pay per month for 3
months.
(b) Tf'hen committed with an unloadedfirearm. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of
a11
pay and allowances, and confinement for 3 years.
(2) Battery.
(a) Assault consummated by a battery. Bad conduct discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and
allowances, and confinement for 6 months.
(b) Assault upon a commissioned officer of
the armed
forces of
the United States or of
a
friendl;y foreign power, not in the execution (if
(1fice. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all
pay and allowances, and confinement for 3 years.
(c) Assault upon a warrant officer, not in the execution of
office. Dishonorable discharge,
forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and confinement for 18 months.
(d) Assault upon a noncommissioned or petty officer, not in the execution of
C!ffice. Bad-
conduct discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and confinement for 6 months.
(e) Assault upon a sentinel or lookout in the execution ofduty, or upon any person who, in
the execution of
office, is performing security police, military police, shore patrol, master at
arms, or other military or civilian law enforcement duties. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and confinement for 3 years.
(t) Assault consummated by a batte1y upon a child under 16
years, spouse, intimate
partner, or an immediate family member. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and
allowances, and confinement for 2 years.
(3) Aggravated assault.
(a) Aggravated assault with a dangerous weapon.
(i) Tf'hen cornmitted ·with a loaded
firearm. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay
and allowances, and confinement for 8 years.
(ii) Tf'hen committed upon a child under the age of
16
years, spouse, intimate partner,
or an immediate
family member. Dishonorable discharge, total forfeitures, and confinement for 5
years.
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(iii) Other cases. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 3 years.
(b) Aggravated
assault in which substantial bodily harm is inflicted.
(i) When the injwy is iriflictedwith a loadedjirearm. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture
of
all pay and allowances, and confinement for 8 years.
(ii) When the injwy is inflicted upon a child under the age of
16
years, spouse, intimate
partner, or an immediate family member. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and
allowances, and confinement for 6 years.
(iii) Other cases. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 3 years.
(c) Aggravated assault in which grievous bodily harm is ir~flicted
(i) When the ir!jury is if!flictedlvith a loaded.firearm. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture
of
all pay and allowances, and confinement for 10 years.
(ii) When the injtny is ir?flicted upon a child under the age qf
16
years, spouse, intimate
partner, or an immediateflmli(v member. Dishonorable discharge, total forfeitures, and
confinement for 8 years.
(iii) Other cases. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 5 years
(4) Assault with intent to commit .~pecffied
offenses.
(a) Assault 1vith intent to commit murder, rape, or rape (?fa child. Dishonorable discharge,
forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and confinement for 20 years.
(b) Assault IV ith intent to commit voluntary manslaughter, robbety, arson, burglary, and
kidnapping. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and contlnement for
10 years.
e. Sample specffications.
(1) Simple assault.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location), (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about __
20 _,assault
by (striking at
(him)(her) with a
( ___
___,
(2) Assault consummated by a battery.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about __
20 _,unlawfully (strike) (
)
____
(on) (in) the
with====
(3) Assault upon a commissioned ojjicer.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about __
20 _,assault __
, who then was and
was then known by the accused to be a commissioned officer of(
__
, a friendly foreign
power) [the United States (Army) (Navy) (Marine Corps) (Air Force) (Coast Guard) (
]
by---,--.,---,----
(
4) Assault upon a warrant, noncommissioned, or
petty officer.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about __
20 _, assault
, who then
was and was then known by the accused to be a (warrant) (noncommissioned) (petty) officer of
the [the United States (Army) (Navy) (Marine Corps) (Air Force) (Coast Guard) (
] by
(5) Assault upon a sentinel or lookout.
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In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about __
20 _, assault
, who then
was and was then known by the accused to be a (sentinel) (lookout) in the execution of(his)
(her) duty, ((in) (on) the
by ___
_
(6) Assault upon a person in the execution of
law enforcement duties.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about __
20 _,assault
, who then
was and was then known by the accused to be a person then having and in the execution of (Air
Force security police) (military police) (shore patrol) (master at arms) ((military) (civilian) law
enforcement)) duties, by ___
_
(7) Assault consummated by a battety upon a child under 16
years, or the spouse, intimate
partner or immediate family member ~f
the accused.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20 _,unlawfully (strike),
___
_./
--:--,-----(a child under the age of 16 years) {the spouse of
the accused) {the intimate partner
of
the accused) (an immediate family member of
the accused), (in) {on) the
with
(8) Assault, aggravated-with a dangerous weapon.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about __
20 _,with the intent to inflict bodily
harm, commit an assault upon
[(a child under the age of 16 years) (spouse of
the
accused) (intimate pattner of
the accused) (an immediate family member of
the accused)] by
(shooting) (pointing) (striking) (cutting)(_) (at (him) (her)) with a dangerous weapon to
wit: a (loaded firearm) (pickax) (bayonet) (club),
____
,
(9) Assault, aggravated-inflicting substantial bodily harm.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about __
20 _,did commit an assault upon
__
[(a child under the age of 16 years) (spouse of
the accused) (intimate pattner of
the
accused) (an immediate family member of
the accused)] by (shooting) (striking) (cutting)(_)
(him) (her) (on) the __
with a (loaded firearm) (club) (rock) (brick) (
) and did
thereby inflict substantial bodily harm upon (him) (her), to wit: (severe bruising of the face)
(head concussion) (temporary blindness)(
____
__/
(10) Assault, aggravated-iriflicting grievous bodily harm.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about __
20 _, did commit an assault upon __
[(a child under the age of 16 years) (spouse of
the accused) (intimate partner of
the accused) (an
immediate family member of
the accused)] by (shooting) (striking) (cutting)(_) (him) (her)
(on) the __
with a (loaded firearm) (club) (rock) (brick) (
and did thereby inflict
grievous bodily harm upon (him) (her), to wit: a (broken leg) (deep cut) (fractured skull)
(11) Assault with intent to commit specified offenses
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about __
20 _,with intent to commit (murder)
(voluntary manslaughter) (rape) (rape of
a child) (sexual assault) (sexual assault of
a child)
(robbery) (arson) (burglary) (kidnapping), assault
by (striking at (him) (her) with
a _____
/ ,
____
__/
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78. Article 128a (10 U.S.C. 928a)-l\'Iaiming
a. Text of
statute.
Any person subject to this chapter who, with intent to injure, disfigure, or disable,
inflicts upon the person of another an injury which-
organ;
(1) seriously disfigures his person by any mutilation thereof;
(2) destroys or disables any member or organ of
his body; or
(3) seriously diminishes his physical vigor by the injury of any member or
is guilty of maiming and shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
b. Elements.
(1) That the accused inflicted a certain injury upon a certain person;
(2) That this injury seriously disfigured the person's body, destroyed or disabled an organ or
member, or seriously diminished the person's physical vigor by the injury to an organ or
member; and
(3) That the accused inflicted this injury with an intent to cause some injury to a person.
c. F:xplanation.
(1) Nature l?foffense. Tt is maiming to put out a person's eye, to cut off a hand, foot, or finger,
or to knock out a tooth, as these injuries destroy or disable those members or organs. It is also
maiming to injure an internal organ so as to seriously diminish the physical vigor of
a person.
Likewise, it is maiming to cut off an ear or to scar a face with acid, as these injuries seriously
dis±lgure a person. A dis±lgurement need not mutilate any entire member to come within the
article, or be of
any particular type, but must be such as to impair perceptibly and materially the
victim's comeliness. The dis±lgurement, diminishment of
vigor, or destruction or disablement of
any member or organ must be a serious injury of
a substantially permanent nature. However, the
offense is complete if
such an injury is inflicted even though there is a possibility that the victim
may eventually recover the use of
the member or organ, or that the disfigurement may be cured
by surgery.
(2) Means of
inflicting injwy. To prove the oflense it is not necessary to prove the specific
means by which the injury was inf1icted. However, such evidence may be considered on the
question of
intent.
(3) intent. Maiming requires a specific intent to injure generally but not a specific intent to
maim. Thus, one commits the offense who intends only a slight injury, if
in fact there is infliction
of
an injury of
the type speci±led in this article. Infliction of
the type of
injuries specified in this
article upon the person of another may support an inference of
the intent to injure, dis±lgure, or
disable.
d. Maximum punishment. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 20 years.
e. Sample specification.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-matter
jurisdiction data, if
required) on or about __
20 _,maim
by (crushing (his)
(her) foot with a sledge hammer) '-----?
79. Article 129 (1 0 U.S.C. 929)-Burglary; unlawful entry
a. Text Q(
statute.
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(a) BURGLARY.-Any person subject to this chapter who, with intent to commit an
offense under this chapter, breaks and enters the building or structure of another shall be
punished as a court-martial may direct.
(b) UNLAWFUL El'.'TRY.-Any person subject to this chapter who unlawfully enters-
(
I) the real property of another; or
(2) the personal property of another which amounts to a structure usually
used for habitation or storage;
shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
b. Elements.
(1) Burglary.
(a) That the accused unlawfully broke and entered the building or structure of
another; and
(b) That the breaking and entering were done with the intent to commit an offense
punishable under the UCMJ.
[Note: If
the breaking and enteting were with the intent to commit an offense punishable under
sections 918-920, 920b-921, 922, 925-928a, and 930 of this title (Article 118-120, 120b-121,
122, 125-128a, and 130), add the following element]
(c) That the breaking and entering were with the intent to commit an offense punishable
under Article 118-120, 120b-121, 122, 125-128a, and 130.
(2) Unlawful enl:ly.
(a) That the accused entered-
(i) the real property of another; or
(ii) certain personal property of
another which amounts to a structure usually used for
habitation or storage; and
(b) That the entry was unlawful.
c. Lxplanation.
(1) In general. This article combines and consolidates the crimes of
burglary, housebreaking,
and unlawful entry. There is no requirement that an accused break and enter in the nighttime or
that the structure entered constitute the dwelling house of another to commit the offense of
burglary.
(2) Breaking. There must be a breaking, actual or constructive. Merely entering through a
hole left in the wall or roof or through an open window or door will not constitute a breaking; but
if
a person moves any obstruction to entry of
the house without which movement the person
could not have entered, the person has committed a breaking. Opening a closed door or window
or other similar fixture, opening wider a door or window already partly open but insufficient for
the entry, or cutting out the glass of
a window or the netting of a screen is a sufficient breaking.
The breaking of
an inner door by one who has entered the house without breaking, or by a person
lawfully within the house who has no authority to enter the particular room, is a sufficient
breaking, but unless such a breaking is followed by an entry into the particular room with the
requisite intent, burglary is not committed. There is a constructive breaking when the entry is
gained by a trick, such as concealing oneself in a box; under false pretense, such as
impersonating a gas or telephone inspector; by intimidating the occupants through violence or
threats into opening the door; through collusion with a confederate, an occupant of
the house; or
by descending a chimney, even if
only a partial descent is made and no room is entered.
(3) Entry. An entry must be effected before the offense is complete, but the entry of
any part
of
the body, even a finger, is sufficient. Insertion into the house of a tool or other instrument is
also a sufficient entry, unless the insertion is solely to facilitate the breaking or entry. An entry is
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unlawful if
made without consent of
any person authorized to consent to entry or without other
lawful authority.
(4) Building, structure. Building includes room, shop, store, office, or apartment in a building.
Structure refers only to those structures that are in the nature of a building or dwelling. Examples
of
these structures are a stateroom, hold, or other compartment of
a vessel, an inhabitable trailer,
an enclosed truck or freight car, a tent, and a houseboat. It is not necessary that the building or
structure be in use at the time of
the entry.
(5) Intent to commit offense.
(a) Burglary. Both the breaking and entry must be done with the intent to commit an
offense punishable under the UCMJ in the building or structure. If, after the breaking and
enteting, the accused commits one or more of
these offenses, it may be inferred that the accused
intended to commit the offense or offenses at the time of
the breaking and entering. If
the
evidence warrants, the intended offense may be separately charged. It
is immaterial whether the
o±Iense intended is committed or even attempted. If
the offense is intended, it is no defense that
its commission was impossible. For example, if an accused enters a house with intent to murder a
resident, but the resident is not present in the house, the accused may still be found guilty of
burglary.
(b) Unlwvful entry. Neither specific intent to commit an offense, nor breaking is required
for this offense.
(6) Properly
protectedfrom unknvful entr_y. The property protected against unlawful entry
includes real property and the sort of personal property that amounts to a stmcture usually used
for habitation or storage, which would usually include vehicles expressly used for habitation,
such as mobile homes and recreational vehicles. It would usually not include an aircraft,
automobile, tracked vehicle, or a person's locker, even though used for storage purposes.
However, depending on the circumstances, an intmsion into such property may be punishable
under Article 134, UCMJ as conduct prejudicial to good order and discipline or of
a nature to
bring discredit upon the armed forces.
(7) Unk.mfulne:-,~· of
entry. An entry is unlawful if
made without the consent of
any person
authorized to consent to entry or without other lawful authority.
d. Maximum punishment.
(1) Burglary (with the intent to commit an offense punishable under Article 118-120, 120b-
121, 122, 125-128a, or 130). Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 10 years.
(2) Burglary (with intent to commit any other ojji.mse punishable under the UCJV!J).
Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and confinement for 5 years.
(3) Unlaw}i1.l entry. Bad-conduct discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 6 months.
e. Sample specifications.
(1) Burglary
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about __
20 _, unlawfully break and enter the
(building) (stmcture) of
, to wit
, with intent to commit an offense under the
Uniform Code of
Military Justice therein, to wit: _______
_
(2) Unknvful entry.
In that
, (personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20 _, unlawfully enter the (real
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property) (personal property) (a structure usually used for habitation or storage) of
_____
_:,to wit _____
_
80. Article 130 (10 U.S.C. 930)-Stalking
a. Text of
statute.
(a) INGENERAL.-Any person subject to this chapter-
(1) who wrongfully engages in a course of conduct directed at a specific
person that would cause a reasonable person to fear death or bodily harm, including sexual
assault, to himself or herself, to a member of his or her immediate family, or to his or her
intimate partner;
(2) who has knowledge, or should have knowledge, that the specific person
will be placed in reasonable fear of death or bodily harm, including sexual assault, to
himself or herself, to a member of his or her immediate family, or to his or her intimate
partner; and
(3) whose conduct induces reasonable fear in the specific person of death or
bodily harm, including sexual assault, to himself or herself, to a member of his or her
immediate family, or to his or her intimate partner;
is guilty of stalking and shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
(b) DEFINITIONS.-In this section:
(1) The term "conduct" means conduct of any kind, including use of
surveillance, the mails, an interactive computer service, an electronic communication
service, or an electronic communication system.
(2) The term "course of conduct" means-
(
A) a repeated maintenance of visual or physical proximity to a
specific person;
(B) a repeated conveyance of verbal threat, written threats, or threats
implied by conduct, or a combination of such threats, directed at or toward a specific
person; or
(C) a pattern of conduct composed of repeated acts evidencing a
continuity of purpose.
(3) The term "repeated", with respect to conduct, means two or more
occasions of such conduct.
(4) The term "immediate family", in the case of a specific person, means-
(A) that person's spouse, parent, brother or sister, child, or other
person to whom he or she stands in loco parentis; or
(B) any other person living in his or her household and related to him
or her by blood or marriage.
(5) The term "intimate partner", in the case of a specific person, means-
(
A) a fm·mer spouse of the specific person, a person who shares a child
in common with the specific person, or a person who cohabits with or has cohabited as a
spouse with the specific person; or
(B) a person who bas been in a social relationship of a romantic or
intimate nature with the specific person, as determined by the length of the relationship,
the type of relationship, and the frequency of interaction between the persons involved in
the relationship.
b. Elements.
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(1) That the accused wrongfully engaged in a course of
conduct directed at a specific person
that would cause a reasonable person to fear death or bodily harm, including sexual assault, to
himself or herself, to a member of
his or her immediate family, or to his or her intimate partner;
(2) That the accused had knowledge, or should have had knowledge, that the specific person
would be placed in reasonable fear of death or bodily harm, including sexual assault, to himself
or herself, to a member of
his or her immediate family, or to his or her intimate partner; and
(3) That the accused's conduct induced reasonable fear in the specific person of death or
bodily harm, including sexual assault, to himself or herself, to a member of
his or her immediate
family, or to his or her intimate partner.
c. Explanation.
(1) Bodily Harm. "Bodily harm" means any offensive touching of
another, however slight,
including sexual assault. See subparagraph 77.c.( 1
).
(2) Threat. "Threat" means a communication, by words or conduct, of
a present determination
or intent to cause bodily harm to a specific person, an immediate family member of
that person,
or intimate partner of
that person, presently or in the future. The threat may be made directly to
or in the presence of
the person it is directed at or towards, or the threat may be conveyed to such
person in some manner. Actual intent to cause bodily harm is not required.
d. A1aximum punishment. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 3 years.
e. Sample .~pec{fications.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location) (subject-matter
jurisdiction, if
required), (on or about
20 _)(from about
to about
20 _),
engage in a course of
conduct directed at
, that would cause a reasonable person to fear
(death) (bodily harm, to wit:
to (himselt) (herself) (a member of(his) (her) immediate
family) ((his) (her) intimate partner); that the accused knew or should have known that the
course of
conduct would place
in reasonable fear of
(death) (bodily harm, to wit_)
to (himself) (herself) (a member of (his) (her) immediate family) ((his) (her) intimate partner);
and that the accused's conduct placed
in reasonable fear of (death) (bodily harm, to
wit:_)
to (himselt) (herself) (a member of
(his) (her) immediate family) ((his) (her) intimate
partner).
81. Article 131 (10 U.S.C. 931)-Perjury
a. Text o..lstatute.
Any person subject to this chapter who in a judicial proceeding or in a course of
justice willfully and corruptly-
(1) upon a lawful oath ot· in any form allowed by law to be substituted for an
oath, gives any false testimony material to the issue or matter of inquiry; or
(2) in any declaration, certificate, verification, or statement under penalty of
perjury as permitted under section 1746 of title 28, subscribes any false statement material
to the issue or matter of inquiry;
is guilty of perjury and shall be punished as a court-mat·tial may direct.
b. Elements.
(1) Giving.false testimony.
(a) That the accused took an oath or affirmation in a certain judicial proceeding or course of
justice;
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(b) That the oath or affirmation was administered to the accused in a matter in which an oath
or affinnation was required or authorized by law;
(c) That the oath or affirmation was administered by a person having authority to do so;
(d) That upon the oath or affirmation that accused willfully gave certain testimony;
(e) That the testimony was material;
(f) That the testimony was false; and
(g) That the accused did not then believe the testimony to be true.
(2) Subscribing
false statement.
(a) That the accused subscribed a certain statement in a judicial proceeding or course of
justice;
(b) That in the declaration, certification, verification, or statement under penalty of
perjury,
the accused declared, certified, verified, or stated the truth of
that certain statement;
(c) That the accused willfully subscribed the statement;
(d) That the statement was material;
(e) That the statement was false; and
(f) That the accused did not then believe the statement to be true.
c. Explanation.
(1) ln general. Judicial proceeding includes a trial by court-martial, and course of justice
includes preliminary hearings conducted under Article 32. If the accused is charged w·ith having
committed perjury before a court-martial, it must be shown that the court-martial was duly
constituted.
(2) Givingjals·e testimony.
(a) Nature. The testimony must be false and must be willfully and corruptly given; that is, it
must be proved that the accused gave the false testimony willfully and did not believe it to be tme.
A witness may commit perjury by testifying to the truth of
a matter when in fact the witness knows
nothing about it at all or is not sure about it, whether the thing is tme or false in fact. A witness
may also commit perjury in testifying falsely as to a belief~ remembrance, or impression, or as to
a judgment or opinion. It is no defense that the witness voluntarily appeared, that the witness was
incompetent as a witness, or that the testimony was given in response to questions that the witness
could have declined to answer.
(b) ]vfaterial matter. The false testimony must be with respect to a material matter, but that
matter need not be the main issue in the case. Thus, perjury may be committed by giving false
testimony with respect to the credibility of a material witness or in an affidavit in support of a
request for a continuance, as well as by giving false testimony with respect to a fact from which a
legitimate inference may be drawn as to the existence or nonexistence of a fact in issue.
(c) Proof The falsity of
the allegedly perjured statement cannot be proved by circumstantial
evidence alone, except with respect to matters which by their nature are not susceptible of direct
proof The falsity of the statement cannot be proved by the testimony of a single witness unless
that testimony directly contradicts the statement and is corroborated by other evidence either direct
or circumstantial, tending to prove the falsity of the statement. However, documentary evidence
directly disproving the truth of the statement charged to have been pe1jured need not be
corroborated if: the document is an official record shown to have been well known to the accused
at the time the oath was taken; or the documentary evidence originated from the accused-or had
in any manner been recognized by the accused as containing the truth-before the allegedly
perjured statement was made.
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(d) Oath. The oath must be one recognized or authorized by law and must be duly
administered by one authorized to administer it. When a fonn of oath has been prescribed, a literal
following of
that form is not essential; it is sufficient if
the oath administered conforms in substance
to the prescribed form. Oath includes an affirmation when the latter is authorized in lieu of
an oath.
(e) Belief
of
accused. The fact that the accused did not believe the statement to be true may
be proved by testimony of one witness without corroboration or by circumstantial evidence.
(3) Subscribing false statement. See subparagraphs (1) and (2), above, as applicable. Section
1746 of
title 28, United States Code, provides for subscribing to the truth of
a document by signing
it expressly subject to the penalty for petjury. The signing must take place in a judicial proceeding
or course of justice-for example, if a witness signs under penalty of perjury summarized
testimony given at an Article 32 preliminary hearing. It is not required that the document be sworn
before a third party. Sectionl746 does not change the requirement that a deposition be given under
oath or alter the situation where an oath is required to be taken before a specific person.
d. A1aximum punishment. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 5 years.
e. Sample spec{fications.
(1) (Jivingftrl\-e testimony.
In that _____ (personal jurisdiction data), having taken a lawful (oath)
(affirmation) in a (trial by
court-martial
(trial by a court of
competent
jurisdiction, to wit:
of
(deposition for use in a trial by
of
____
, '-----'
that (he) (she) would (testify) (depose) truly, did, (at/on board-
location) (subject-matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about
20 _, willfully,
conuptly, and contrary to such (oath) (aflirmation), (testify) (depose) falsely in substance that
_____
,which (testimony) (deposition) was upon a material matter and which (he) (she) did
not then believe to be true.
(2) Subscribingfirlse statement.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about __
20 _, in a Gudicial proceeding)
(course ofjustice), and in a (declaration) (certification) (veritl.cation) (statement) under penalty of
petjury pursuant to section 1746 of
title 28, United States Code, willfully and corruptly subscribed
a false statement material to the (issue) (matter of
inquiry), to wit:
, which statement
was false in that
, and which statement (he) (she) did not then believe to be true.
82. Article 131a (10 U.S.C. 931a)-Subornation of perjury
a. Text of
statute.
(a) IN GENERAL-Any person subject to this chapter who induces and procures
another person-
(1) to take an oath; and
(2) to falsely testify, depose, or state upon such oath;
shall, if
the conditions specified in subsection (b) are satisfied, be punished as a court-martial
may direct.
(b) CONDITIONS.-The conditions referred to in subsection (a) are the following:
(1) The oath is administered with respect to a matter for which such oath is
required or authorized by law.
(2) The oath is administered by a person having authority to do so.
(3) Upon the oath, the other person willfully makes or subscribes a statement.
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(4) The statement is material.
(5) The statement is false.
(6) When the statement is made or subscribed, the person subject to this
chapter and the other person do not believe that the statement is true.
b. Elements.
(1) That the accused induced and procured a certain person to take an oath or its equivalent and
to falsely testify, depose, or state upon such oath or its equivalent conceming a certain matter;
(2) That the oath or its equivalent was administered to said person in a matter in which an oath
or its equivalent was required or authorized by law;
(3) That the oath or its equivalent was administered by a person having authority to do so;
(4) That upon the oath or its equivalent said person willfully made or subscribed a certain
statement;
(5) That the statement was material;
(6) That the statement was false; and
(7) That the accused and the said person did not then believe that the statement was true.
c. El(:planalion.
(1) See subparagraph 81.c for applicable principles.
(2) "Induce and procure" means to influence, persuade, or cause.
(3) The word "oath" includes affirmation, and sworn includes affirmed. See 1 U.S.C. ~ 1.
d. ,"o/taximum punishmem. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 5 years.
e. Sample .spec(fication.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about
20 _, procure
to commit
petjury by inducing (him) (her), the said __
, to take a lawful (oath) (affinnation) in a (trial by
court-martial of __
) (trial by a comt of competent jurisdiction, to wit: __
of----'
(deposition for use in a ttial by __
of
(
) that (he) (she), the said __
,
would (testify) (depose)(_) truly, and to (testify) (depose) (
) willfully, corruptly, and
contrary to such (oath) (atlirmation) in substance that __
, which (testimony) (deposition)
(_)
was upon a material matter and which the accused and the said __
did not then believe
to be true.
83. Article 131b (10 U.S.C. 931b)-Obstructing justice
a. Text ofstatute.
Any person subject to this chapter who engages in conduct in the case of a certain
person against whom the accused had reason to believe there were or would be cdminal or
disciplinary proceedings pending, with intent to influence, impede, or otherwise obstruct the
due administration of justice shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
b. Elements.
(1) That the accused wrongfully did a cetiain act;
(2) That the accused did so in the case of
a certain person against whom the accused had reason
to believe there were or would be criminal or disciplinary proceedings pending; and
(3) That the act was done with the intent to influence, impede, or otherwise obstruct the due
administration of
justice.
c. Explanation.
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This offense may be based on conduct that occurred before preferral of charges. Actual
obstruction of justice is not an element of this offense. Criminal proceedings include general
courts-martial, special courts-martial, and all other criminal proceedings. For purposes of this
paragraph, disciplinary proceedings include summary cowis-martial as well as nonjudicial
punishment proceedings under Part V of this Manual. Examples of obstruction of
justice include
wrongfully influencing, intimidating, impeding, or injuring a witness, a person acting on charges
under this chapter, a preliminary hearing officer, or a party; and by means of
bribery, intimidation,
misrepresentation, or force or threat of
force delaying or preventing communication of
information
relating to a violation of any criminal statute of the United States to a person authorized by a
department, agency, or armed force of the United States to conduct or engage in investigations or
prosecutions of
such offenses; or endeavoring to do so. See also paragraph 87 and Article 3
7.
d. Afaximum punishment. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 5 years.
e. Sample spec~ftcatian.
Tn that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20 _,wrongfully do a certain act, to wit:
_______
,with intent to (influence) (impede) (obstruct) the due administration of
justice in the case of
against whom the accused had reason to believe that there
were or would be (criminal) (disciplinary) proceedings pending.
84. Article 131c (10 U.S.C. 931c)-Misprision of serious offense
a. Text l?fstatule.
IN GENERAL.-Any person subject to this chapter-
(
1) who knows that another person has committed a serious offense; and
(2) wrongfully conceals the commission of the offense and fails to make the
commission of the offense known to civilian or military authorities as soon as possible;
shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
b. 1:..'/ements.
(1) That a certain serious offense was committed by a certain person;
(2) That the accused knew that the said person had committed the serious offense; and
(3) That, thereafter, the accused wrongfully concealed the serious offense and failed to make it
known to civilian or military authorities as soon as possible.
c. Explanation.
(1) In general. Misprision of a serious offense is the offense of concealing a serious offense
committed by another but without such previous concert with or subsequent assistance to the
principal as would make the accused an accessory. See paragraph 2. An intent to benefit the
principal is not necessary to this offense.
(2) Serious offense. For purposes of
this paragraph, a serious offense is any offense punishable
under the authority of
the UCMJ by death or by confinement for a term exceeding 1 year.
(3) Positive act of
concealment. A mere failure or refusal to disclose the serious offense without
some positive act of concealment does not make one guilty of this offense. Making a false entry
in an account book for the purpose of concealing a theft committed by another is an example of a
positive act of
concealment.
d. Maximum punishment. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 3 years.
e. Sample spec?ftcatian.
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In that
(personal jurisdiction data), having knowledge that
had
actually committed a serious offense to wit: (the murder of
(
, did, (at/on
board-location) (subject-matter jurisdiction data, if
required), from about __
20 _,to about
__
20 _,wrongfully conceal such serious offense by
and fail to make the same
known to the civil or military authorities as soon as possible.
85. Article 131d (10 U.S.C. 931d)-,Vrongful refusal to testify
a. Text of
statute.
Any person subject to this chapter who, in the presence of a court-martial, a board of
officers, a military commission, a com·t of inquiry, preliminary hearing, or an officer taking
a deposition, of or for the lJ nited States, wrongfully refuses to qualify as a witness or to
answer a question after having been directed to do so by the person presiding shall be
punished as a court-martial may direct.
b. Elements.
(1) That the accused was in the presence of a court-martial, board of officers, military
commission, court of
inquiry, an officer conducting a preliminary hearing under Article 32, or an
officer taking a deposition, of or for the United States, at which a certain person was presiding;
(2) That the said person presiding directed the accused to qualify as a witness or, having so
qualified, to answer a certain question;
(3) That the accused refused to qualify as a witness or answer said question; and
(4) That the refusal was wrongful.
c. Explanation. "To qualify as a witness" means that the witness declares that the witness will
testify truthfully. See R.C.M. 807; Mil. R. Evid. 603. A good faith but legally incorrect belief in
the right to remain silent does not constitute a defense to a charge of
wrongful refusal to testify.
See also 1\1il. R. Evid. 301 and Section V of
the Military Rules of
Evidence.
d. Maximum punishment. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 5 years.
e. Sample specification.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), being in the presence of
(a) (an) ((general)
(special) (summary) court-martial) (board of officers) (military commission) (court of inquiry)
(officer conducting a preliminary hearing under Article 32, Uniform Code of Military Justice)
(otlicer taking a deposition) (
) (ot) (for) the United States, of which __
was (military
judge) (president), (
), (and having been directed by the said __
to qualify as a witness)
(and having qualified as a witness and having been directed by the said __
to answer the
following question(s) put to (him) (her) as a witness, " __
"), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction, if
required), on or about __
20 _,wrongfully refuse (to qualify as
a witness) (to answer said question(s)).
86. Article 131e (10 U.S.C. 931e)-Prevention of
authorized seizure of property
a. Text of
statute.
Any pet·son subject to this chapter who, knowing that one m· more persons authorized
to make searches and seizures are seizing, are about to seize, or are endeavoring to seize
property, destt·oys, removes, or otherwise disposes of the property with intent to prevent the
seizure thereof shall be punished as a court-mat·tial may direct.
b. Elements.
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(
1) That one or more persons authorized to make searches and seizures were seizing, about to
seize, or endeavoring to seize certain property;
(2) That the accused destroyed, removed, or otherwise disposed of
that property with intent to
prevent the seizure thereof; and
(3) That the accused then knew that person(s) authorized to make searches were seizing, about
to seize, or endeavoring to seize the property.
c. Explanation. See Mil. R. Evid. 316 concerning military personnel who may make seizures. It is
not a defense that a search or seizure was technically defective.
d. Maximum punishment. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 5 years.
e. Sample spec~.fication.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject
matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about
20 _, with intent to prevent its seizure,
(destroy) (remove) (dispose of)
property which, as
then knew, (a)
person(s) authorized to make searches and seizures were (seizing) (about to seize) (endeavoring to
seize).
87. Article 131f (10 U.S.C. 931f}-Noncompliance with procedural rules
a. Text (lstatute.
Any person subject to this chapter who--
(1) is responsible for unnecessary delay in the disposition of any case of a
person accused of an offense under this chapter; or
(2) knowingly and intentionally fails to enforce or comply with any provision
of this chapter regulating the proceedings before, during, or after trial of an accused;
shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
b. 1<-'lement.•;.
(1) Unnecessary delay in disposing of
case.
(a) That the accused was charged with a certain duty in connection with the disposition of
a
case of a person accused of
an offense under the UCMJ;
(b) That the accused knew that the accused was charged with this duty;
(c) That delay occurred in the disposition of
the case;
(d) That the accused was responsible for the delay; and
(e) That, under the circumstances, the delay was unnecessary.
(2) Knowingly and intentionally
jed
ling to enjorce or comply with provisions of
the UCM.J.
(a) That the accused failed to enforce or comply with a certain provision of the UCMJ
regulating a proceeding before, during, or after a trial;
(b) That the accused had the duty of enforcing or complying with that provision of the
UCMJ;
(c) That the accused knew that the accused was charged with this duty; and
(d) That the accused's failure to enforce or comply with that provision was intentional.
c. Explanation.
(1) Unnecessaty delay in disposing of
case. The purpose of section (1) of Article 13lfis to
ensure expeditious disposition of
cases of
persons accused of offenses under the UCMJ. A person
may be responsible for delay in the disposition of a case only when that person's duties require
action with respect to the disposition of
that case.
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(2) Knmvingly and intentionally jailing to enforce or comply 1vith provisions of
the UCMJ.
Section (2) of
Article 131f
does not apply to errors made in good faith before, during, or after trial.
It is designed to punish intentional failure to enforce or comply with the provisions of the UCMJ
regulating the proceedings before, during, and after trial. Unlawful command influence under
Article 37 may be prosecuted under this Article. See also Article 31 and R.C.M. 104.
d. lvfaximum punishment.
(1) Unnecessary delay in disposing of
case. Bad-conduct discharge, forfeiture of all pay and
allowances, and confinement for 6 months.
(2) Knowingly and intentionally failing to errforce or comply with provisions ~~the UCMJ.
Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and confinement for 5 years.
e. Sample spec?fications.
(
1) Unnece
ssmy de
lay in disposing ~~case.
Tn that
(personal jurisdiction data), being charged with the duty of
((investigating) (taking immediate steps to determine the proper disposition of) charges preferred
against
, a person accused of an offense under the Uniform Code of
Military Justice)
was, (at/on board-location) (subject-matter jurisdiction, if required), on or about
__
20 _, responsible for unnecessary delay in (investigating said charges) (determining the
proper disposition of
said charges L_),
in that (he)(she)(did
(failed to
L_).
(2) Knowingly and intentionally
failing to enforce or comply with provisions of
the UCA1J.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), being charged with the duty of
_____
, did, (at/on board-location) (subject-matter jurisdiction, if required), on or about
20 _, knowingly and intentionally fail to (enforce) (comply with) Article _____
,
Uniform Code of
Military Justice, in that (he) (she) ___
_
88. Article 131g (10 U.S.C. 931g)-Wrongful interference with adverse administrative
proceeding
a. Text of
statute.
Any person subject to this chapter who, having reason to believe that an adverse
administrative proceeding is pending against any person subject to this chapter, wrongfully
acts with the intent-
(1) to influence, impede, or obstruct the conduct of the proceeding; or
(2) othenvise to obstruct the due administration of
justice;
shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
b. Elements.
(
1) That the accused wTongfully did a certain act;
(2) That the accused did so in the case of
a certain person against whom the accused had reason
to believe there was or would be an adverse administrative proceeding pending; and
(3) That the act was done with the intent to influence, impede, or obstruct the conduct of such
administrative proceeding, or otherwise obstruct the due administration of
justice.
c. Explanation. For purposes of
this paragraph an adverse administrative proceeding includes any
administrative proceeding or action, initiated against a Servicemember, that could lead to
discharge, loss of special or incentive pay, administrative reduction in grade, loss of a security
clearance, bar to reenlistment, or reclassification. Examples of wrongful interference include
wrongfully influencing, intimidating, impeding, or injuring a witness, an investigator, or other
person acting on an adverse administrative action; by means of bribery, intimidation,
misrepresentation, or force or threat of
force delaying or preventing communication of
information
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relating to such administrative proceeding; and the wrongful destruction or concealment of
infonnation relevant to such adverse administrative proceeding.
d. Maximum punishment. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 5 years.
e. Sample specification.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about __
20 ____:;(wrongfully endeavor to) [impede
(an adverse administrative proceeding) (an investigation)(_)] [influence the actions of __
,
(an officer responsible for making a recommendation concerning the adverse administrative
action) (an individual responsible for making a decision concerning an adverse administrative
proceeding) (an individual responsible for processing an adverse administrative proceeding)
( __
)] [(influence) (alter) the testimony of
a witness before (a board established to
consider an administrative proceeding or elimination) (an investigating officer) (
__
)] in the
case of
by](promising) (offering) (giving) to the said
(the sum of$
__
),
___
,
of
a value of
(about) $
__
)] [communicating to the said
a threat to
] [
], (if)
(unless) the said _____, would [recommend dismissal of the action against said
]
[(wrongfully refuse to testify) (testify falsely concerning
(
)] [(at such administrative
proceeding) (before such investigating officer) (before such administrative board)] [
].
89. Article 132 (10 U.S.C. 932)-Retaliation
a. Text ojstatute.
(a) IN GENERAL.-Any person subject to this chapter who, with the intent to retaliate
against any person for reporting or planning to report a criminal offense, or making or
planning to make a protected communication, or with the intent to discourage any person
from reporting a criminal offense or making or planning to make a protected
communication-
(1) wrongfully takes or threatens to take an adverse personnel action against
any person; or
(2) wrongfully withholds or threatens to withhold a favorable personnel action
with respect to any person;
shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
(b) DEFINITIONS.-In this section:
(1) The term "protected communication" means the following:
(A) A lawful communication to a Member of Congress or an Inspector
General.
(B) A communication to a covered individual or organization in which
a member of the armed forces complains of, or discloses information that the member
reasonably believes constitutes evidence of, any of the following:
(i) A violation of law m· regulation, including a law or
regulation prohibiting sexual harassment or unlawful discrimination.
(ii) Gross mismanagement, a gross waste of funds, an abuse of
authority, or a substantial and specific danger to public health or safety.
(2) The term "Inspector General" has the meaning given that term in section
1
0340) of this title.
(3) The term "covered individual or organization" means any recipient of a
communication specified in clauses (i) through (v) of section 1034(b)(l)(B) of this title.
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(
4) The term "unlawful discrimination" means discrimination on the basis of
race, color, religion, sex, or national origin.
b. Elements.
(
1) Retaliation
(a) That the accused wrongfully
(i) took or threatened to take an adverse personnel action against any person, or
(ii) withheld or threatened to withhold a favorable personnel action with respect to
any person; and
(b) That, at the time of
the action, the accused intended to retaliate against any person for
reporting or planning to report a criminal offense, or for making or planning to make a protected
communication.
(2) Discouraging a report~~
criminal ~ffense or protected communication.
(a) That the accused wrongfully
(i) took or threatened to take an adverse personnel action against any person, or
(ii) withheld or threatened to withhold a favorable personnel action with respect to
any person; and
(b) That, at the time of the action, the accused intended to discourage any person from
reporting a criminal offense or making a protected communication.
c. Explanation.
(1) Tn general. This offense focuses upon the abuse of
otherwise lawful military authority for
the purpose of
retaliating against any person for reporting or planning to report a criminal
offense or for making or planning to make a protected communication or to discourage any
person from reporting a criminal offense or for making or planning to make a protected
communication. The offense prohibits personnel actions, either favorable or adverse, taken or
withheld, or threatened to be taken or withheld, with the specific intent to retaliate against any
person for reporting or planning to report a criminal ofTense or for making or planning to make a
protected communication or to discourage any person from rep011ing a criminal otTense or for
making or planning to make a protected communication. The otTense may be committed by any
person subject to the UCMJ with the authority to initiate, forward, recommend, decide, or
otherwise act on a favorable or adverse personnel action who takes such action wrongfully and
with the requisite specific intent. This offense does not prohibit the lawful and appropriate
exercise of
command authority to discipline or reward Servicemembers.
(2) Personnel action. For purposes of this offense, "personnel action" means any action taken
on a Servicemember that affects, or has the potential to affect, that Servicemember's current
position or career, including promotion, disciplinary or other corrective action, transfer or
reassignment, perfonnance evaluations, decisions concerning pay, benefits, awards, or training,
relief and removal, separation, discharge, referral for mental health evaluations, and any other
personnel actions as defined by law or regulation, such as 5 U.S.C. § 2302 and DoD Directive
7050.06 (17 April 2015).
(3) Intent to retaliate. An action is taken with the intent to retaliate when the personnel action
taken or withheld, or threatened to be taken or withheld, is done for the purpose of reprisal,
retribution, or revenge for reporting or planning to report a criminal offense or for making or
planning to make a protected communication.
(
4) Threatens to take or withhold. This offense requires that the accused had the intent to
retaliate, but proof that the accused actually intended to take an adverse personnel action, or to
withhold a favorable personnel action, is not required. A declaration made under circumstances
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which reveal it to be in jest or for an innocent or legitimate purpose, or which contradict the
expressed intent to commit the act, does not constitute this offense. Nor is the offense committed
by the mere statement of intent to commit an unlawful act not involving a favorable or adverse
personnel action.
(5) Criminal offense. Criminal offense for purposes of this offense includes violations of the
UCMJ, the United States Code, or state law.
(6) Wrongful. Taking or threatening to take adverse personnel action, or withholding or
threatening to withhold favorable personnel action, is wrongful when used for the purpose of
reprisal, rather than for purposes of
lawful personnel administration.
(7) Other retaliat01y actions. This offense does not prohibit the Secretary of Defense and
Secretaries of the Military Services from proscribing other types or categories of prohibited
retaliatory actions by regulation, which may be punished as violations of
Article 92.
d. Maximum punishmenl. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 3 years.
e. Sample .~pec{fications.
(1) Retaliation
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject
matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about
20
with intent to retaliate against
for [(reporting) (planning to report) a criminal offense] [(making) (planning
--------
to make) a protected communication], wrongfully [(took) (threatened to take) an adverse personnel
action against
to wit:
[(withheld) (threatened to withhold) a
favorable personnel action with respect to
to wit: _____
J
(2) Discouraging a report of
criminal offense or protected communication
ln that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject
matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about __
20 _, with intent to discourage
_________
from (reporting a criminal ommse) (making a protected communication),
wrongfully [(took) (threatened to take) an adverse personnel action against
, to
wit :
][(withheld) (threatened to withhold) a favorable personnel action with
respect to
, to wit: ____
__,
90. Article 133 (10 U.S.C. 933)-Conduct unbecoming an officer and a gentleman
a. Text of
statute.
Any commissioned officer, cadet, or midshipman who is convicted of conduct
unbecoming an officer and a gentleman shall be punished as a court-martial may direct.
b. Elements.
(1) That the accused did or omitted to do a certain act;
(2) That, under the circumstances, the act or omission constituted conduct unbecoming an
officer and gentleman.
c. Explanation.
(1) Gentleman. As used in this article, gentleman includes both male and female commissioned
officers, cadets, and midshipmen. The term "gentleman" connotes failings in an officer's personal
character, regardless of
gender.
(2) Nature qf qffense. Conduct violative of this article is action or behavior in an official
capacity which, in dishonoring or disgracing the person as an officer, seriously compromises the
officer's character as a gentleman, or action or behavior in an unofficial or private capacity which,
in dishonoring or disgracing the officer personally, seriously compromises the person's standing
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as an officer. There are certain moral attributes common to the ideal officer and the perfect
gentleman, a lack of which is indicated by acts of dishonesty, unfair dealing, indecency,
indecorum, lawlessness, injustice, or cruelty. Not everyone is or can be expected to meet
unrealistically high moral standards, but there is a limit of tolerance based on customs of the
Service and military necessity below which the personal standards of an officer, cadet, or
midshipman cannot fall without seriously compromising the person's standing as an officer, cadet,
or midshipman or the person's character as a gentleman. This article prohibits conduct by a
commissioned officer, cadet, or midshipman which, taking all the circumstances into
consideration, is thus compromising. This article includes acts made punishable by any other
article, provided these acts amount to conduct unbecoming an officer and a gentleman. Thus, a
commissioned officer who steals property violates both this article and Article 121. Whenever the
offense charged is the same as a specific offense set forth in this Manual, the elements of
proof
are
the same as those set forth in the paragraph which treats that specific offense, with the additional
requirement that the act or omission constitutes conduct unbecoming an officer and gentleman.
(3) F.xamples of(?ffenses. Instances of
violation of
this atticle include knowingly making a false
official statement; dishonorable failure to pay a debt; cheating on an exam; opening and reading a
letter of another without authority; using insulting or defamatory language to another officer in
that officer's presence or about that officer to other military persons; being drunk and disorderly
in a public place; public association with known prostitutes; committing or attempting to commit
a crime involving moral turpitude; and failing without good cause to support the officer's family.
d. Maximum punishment. Dismissal, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and confinement for a
period not in excess of
that authorized for the most analogous offense for which a punishment is
prescribed in this Manual, or, if
none is prescribed, for 1 year.
e. Sample ,~pectfications.
(1) Copying or using examination paper.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter
jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about __
20 _,while undergoing a written
examination on the subject of
, wrongfully and dishonorably (receive) (request)
unauthorized aid by ((using) (copying) the examination paper of_j).
(2) Drunk or disorderly.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), was, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about __
20 _, in a public place, to wit:
____
,(drunk) (disorderly) (drunk and disorderly) while in uniform, to the disgrace of the
armed forces.
91. Article 134 (10 U.S.C. 934)-General article
a Text of
statute.
Though not specifically mentioned in this chapter, all disorders and neglects to the
prejudice of good order and discipline in the armed forces, all conduct of a nature to bring
discredit upon the armed forces, and crimes and offenses not capital, of which persons
subject to this chapter may be guilty, shall be taken cognizance of by a gene.-al, special, or
summary court-martial, according to the nature and degree of the offense, and shall be
punished at the discretion of that court. As used in the preceding sentence, the term "crimes
and offenses not capital" includes any conduct engaged in outside the United States, as
defined in section 5 of title 18, that would constitute a crime or offense not capital if the
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conduct had been engaged in within the special maritime and territorial jurisdiction of the
United States, as defined in section 7 of title 18.
b. Elements. The proof required for conviction of an offense under Article 134 depends upon the
nature of
the misconduct charged. If
the conduct is punished as a crime or offense not capital, the
proof must establish every element of the crime or offense as required by the applicable law. All
offenses under Article 134 require proof of a single terminal element.
(1) For clause 1 offenses under Article 134, the following proof is required:
(a) That the accused did or failed to do certain acts; and
(b) That, under the circumstances, the accused's conduct was to the prejudice of
good order and discipline in the armed forces
(2) For clause 2 offenses under Article 134, the following proof
is required:
(a) That the accused did or failed to do certain acts; and
(b) That, under the circumstances, the accused's conduct was of a nature to bring
discredit upon the armed forces.
(3) For clause 3 offenses under Article 134, the following proof
is required:
(a) That the accused did or failed to do certain acts that satisfy each element of
the
federal statute (including, in the case of a prosecution under 18 U.S.C. § 13, each element of the
assimilated State, Territory, Possession, or District law); and
(b) That the offense charged was an offense not capital.
c. F;xplanation.
(1) In general. Article 134 makes punishable acts in three categories of
offenses not specifically
covered in any other article of
the UCMJ. These are referred to as "clauses 1, 2, and 3" of
Article
134. Clause 1 otl'enses involve disorders and neglects to the prejudice of
good order and discipline
in the armed forces. Clause 2 offenses involve conduct of a nature to bring discredit upon the
armed forces. Clause 3 ofl'enses involve noncapital crimes or offenses which violate federal
civilian law including law made applicable through the Federal Assimilative Crimes Act, see
subparagraph c.(4). If any conduct of
this nature is specifically made punishable by another article
of
the UCMJ, it must be charged as a violation of
that article. See subparagraph c.(S)(a). However,
see subparagraph 90.c for offenses committed by commissioned officers, cadets, and midshipmen.
(2) Disorders and neglects to the prejudice of
good order and discipline in the armed
forces
(clause 1).
(a) To the prejudice of
good order and discipline. To the prejudice of good order and
discipline refers only to acts directly prejudicial to good order and discipline and not to acts which
are prejudicial only in a remote or indirect sense. Almost any irregular or improper act on the part
of a member of the military service could be regarded as prejudicial in some indirect or remote
sense; however, this article does not include these distant effects. It is confined to cases in which
the prejudice is reasonably direct and palpable. An act in violation of a local civil law or of a
foreign law may be punished if
it constitutes a disorder or neglect to the prejudice of good order
and discipline in the armed forces. However, see R.C.M. 203 concerning subject-matter
jurisdiction.
(b) Breach of
custom of
the Service. A breach of a custom of the Service may result in a
violation of clause 1 of Article 134. In its legal sense, "custom" means more than a method of
procedure or a mode of conduct or behavior which is merely of frequent or usual occurrence.
Custom arises out of long established practices which by common usage have attained the force
of
law in the military or other community affected by them. No custom may be contrary to existing
law or regulation. A custom which has not been adopted by existing statute or regulation ceases to
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exist when its observance has been generally abandoned. Many customs of
the Service are now
set forth in regulations of
the various armed forces. Violations of
these customs should be charged
under Article 92 as violations of
the regulations in which they appear if
the regulation is punitive.
See subparagraph 18.b.(l).
(3) Conduct of
a nature to bring discredit upon the armed
forces (clause 2). "Discredit" means
to injure the reputation of. This clause of A1iicle 134 makes punishable conduct which has a
tendency to b1ing the service into disrepute or which tends to lower it in public esteem. Acts in
violation of a local civil law~ or a foreign law may be punished if they are of a nature to bring
discredit upon the armed forces. However, see R.C.M. 203 concerning subject-matter jurisdiction.
(4) Crimes and offenses not capital (Article 134, clause 3).
(a) In general. For the purpose of court-martial jurisdiction, the laws that may be applied
under clause 3 of
Article 134 are divided into two categories:
(1) Federal crimes and offenses according to the terms of
jurisdiction set forth in the
applicable federal ctiminal statute.
(i) Noncapital crimes and offenses prohibited by the United States Code that are
punishable regardless where the wrongful act or omission occurred.
(ii) Noncapital crimes and offenses prohibited by the United States Code within a
limited jurisdiction that are punishable when committed within a specified area.
(iii) The Federal Assimilative Crimes Act (18 U.S.C. ~ 13) is an adoption by
Congress of state criminal laws for areas of exclusive or concurrent federal jurisdiction, provided
federal criminal law, including the UCMJ, has not defined an applicable offense for the misconduct
committed. The Act applies to state laws validly existing at the time of
the offense without regard
to when these laws were enacted, whether before or after passage of
the Act, and whether before
or after the acquisition of the land where the offense was committed. For example, if a person
committed an act on a military installation in the United States at a certain location over which the
United States had either exclusive or concurrent jurisdiction, and it was not an offense specifically
defined by federal law (including the UCMJ), that person could be punished for that act by a court-
martial if it was a violation of a noncapital ommse under the law of the State where the military
installation was located. This is possible because the Act adopts the criminal law of the State
wherein the military installation is located and applies it as though it were federal law. The text of
the Act is as follows: "Whoever within or upon any of
the places now existing or hereafter reserved
or acquired as provided in section 7 of this title, is guilty of any act or omission which, although
not made punishable by any enactment of
Congress, would be punishable if
committed or omitted
within the jurisdiction ofthe State, Territory, Possession, or District in which such place is situated,
by the laws thereof in force at the time of
such act or omission, shall be guilty of a like offense and
subject to a like punishment."
(2) Conduct engaged in outside the United States that would constitute a noncapital federal
crime or offense if
the conduct had been engaged in "within the special maritime and territorial
jurisdiction of the United States." For purposes of this provision, the term "United States" is
defined in section 5 of
title 18, United States Code, and the term "special maritime and territorial
jurisdiction of
the United States" is defined in section 7 of
title 18, United States Code.
(5) Limitations on Article 134.
(a) Preemption doctrine. The preemption doctrine prohibits application of Article 134 to
conduct covered by Articles 80 through 132. For example, larceny is covered in Article 121, and
if an element of
that offense is lacking-for example, intent-there can be no larceny or larceny-
type offense, either under Article 121 or, because of preemption, under Article 134. Article 134
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cannot be used to create a new kind of larceny offense, one without the required intent, where
Congress has already set the minimum requirements for such an offense in Article 121.
(b) Capital offense. A capital offense may not be tried under Article 134.
(6) Drafting specifications jar Article 134 offenses.
(a) Specifications under clause 1 or 2. When alleging a clause 1 or 2 violation, the
specification must expressly allege that the conduct was "to the prejudice of good order and
discipline" or that it was "of
a nature to bring discredit upon the armed forces." The same conduct
may be prejudicial to good order and discipline in the armed forces and at the same time be of a
nature to bring discredit upon the armed forces. Both clauses may be alleged; however, only one
must be proven to satisfy the terminal element If
conduct by an accused does not fall under any
of the enumerated Atticle 134 offenses (paragraphs 92 through 109 of this Part), a specification
not listed in this Manual may be used to allege the offense.
(b) Spec~fication.'i· under clause 3. When alleging a clause 3 violation, each element of the
federal statute (including, in the case of a prosecution under 18 U.S.C. § 13, each element of the
assimilated State, Territory, Possession, or District law) must be alleged expressly or by necessary
implication, and the specification must expressly allege that the conduct was "an offense not
capital." In addition, any applicable statutes should be identified in the specification.
92. Article 134-(Animal abuse)
a. Text (?{statute. See paragraph 91.
b. Elements.
(1) Abuse, neglect, or abandonment (?fan animal.
(a) That the accused vvTongfully abused, neglected, or abandoned a certain (public*) animal
(and the accused caused serious injury or death of
the animal*); and
(b) That, under the circumstances, the conduct of
the accused was either: (i) to the prejudice
of
good order and discipline in the armed forces; (ii) was of a nature to bring discredit upon the
armed forces; or (iii) to the prejudice of good order and discipline in the armed forces and of a
nature to bring discredit upon the armed forces.
[Note: Add these elements as applicable.]
(2) Sexual act with an animal.
(a) That the accused engaged in a sexual act with a cetiain animal; and
(b) That, under the circumstances, the conduct of
the accused was either: (i) to the prejudice
of
good order and discipline in the anned forces; (ii) was of a nature to bring discredit upon the
am1ed forces; or (iii) to the prejudice of good order and discipline in the armed forces and of a
nature to bring discredit upon the armed forces.
c. Explanation.
(1) In general. This offense prohibits intentional abuse, culpable neglect, and abandonment of
an animal. This offense does not include legal hunting, trapping, or fishing; reasonable and
recognized acts of training, handling, or disciplining of an animal; normal and accepted farm or
veterinaty practices; research or testing conducted in accordance with approved governmental
protocols; protection of person or property from an unconfined animal; or authorized military
operations or military training.
(2) Definitions. As used in this paragraph:
(a) "Abuse" means intentionally and unjustifiably overdriving, overloading, overworking,
tormenting, beating, depriving of necessary sustenance, allowing to be housed in a manner that
results in chronic or repeated serious physical harm, carrying or confining in or upon any vehicles
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in a cruel or reckless manner, or otherwise mistreating an animal. Abuse may include any sexual
touching of
an animal if
not included in the definition of sexual act Vvith an animal below.
(b) "Neglect" means knowingly allowing another to abuse an animal, or, having the charge
or custody of any animal, knowingly, or through culpable negligence, failing to provide it with
proper food, drink, or protection from the weather consistent with the species, breed, and type of
animal involved.
(c) "Abandon" means, while having the charge or custody of an animal, knowingly or
through culpable negligence leaving of
that animal at a location without providing minimum care
for the animal.
(d) "Animal" means pets and animals of
the type that are raised by individuals for resale
to others, including: cattle, horses, sheep, pigs, goats, chickens, dogs, cats, and similar animals
owned or under the control of any person. Animal does not include reptiles, insects, arthropods,
or any animal defined or declared to be a pest by the administrator of
the United States
Environmental Protection Agency.
(e) "Public animal" means any animal owned or used by the United States or any animal
owned or used by a local or State government in the United States, its territories or possessions.
This would include, for example, drug detector dogs used by the Government.
(f) "Sexual act with an animal" means
(i) contact between the sex organ or anus of a person and the sex organ, anus, or
mouth of an animal; or
(ii) contact between the sex organ or anus of an animal and a person or object
manipulated by a person, if
done with an intent to arouse or gratify the sexual desire of
any person.
(g) "Serious injury of an animal" means physical harm that involves a temporary but
substantial disfigurement; causes a temporary but substantial loss or impairment of
the function of
any bodily part or organ; causes a fracture of
any bodily part; causes permanent maiming; causes
acute pain of
a duration that results in sufiering; or carries a substantial risk of
death. Serious injury
includes burning, torturing, poisoning, or maiming.
d. Maximum punishment.
(1) Abuse, neglect, or abandonment of
an animal. Bad-conduct discharge, forfeiture of
all pay
and allowances, and confinement for 1 year.
(2) Abuse, neglect, or abandonment ofa
public animal. Bad-conduct discharge, forfeiture of
all
pay and allowances, and confinement for 2 years.
(3) Sexual act with an animal or cases where the accused caused the serious injwy or death of
the animal. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and confinement for 5
years.
e. Sample specification.
In that
, (personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about __
20 _(date), (wrongfully [abuse] [neglect]
[abandon]) (*engage in a sexual act, to wit:
, with) a certain (*public) animal (*and
caused [serious injury to] [the death ofJ the animal), and that said conduct •vas (to the prejudice of
good order and discipline in the anned forces) (of
a nature to bring discredit upon the armed forces)
(to the prejudice of good order and discipline in the armed forces and was of a nature to bring
discredit upon the armed forces).
93. Article 134-(Bigamy)
a. Text ~!statute. See paragraph 91.
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b. Elements.
( 1) That the accused had a living lawful spouse;
(2) That while having such spouse the accused wrongfully manied another person; and
(3) That, under the circumstances, the conduct of the accused was either: (i) to the prejudice of
good order and discipline in the armed forces; (ii) was of
a nature to bring discredit upon the
armed forces; or (iii) to the prejudice of
good order and discipline in the armed forces and of
a
nature to bring discredit upon the armed forces.
c. Explanation. Bigamy is contracting another marriage by one who already has a living lawful
spouse. If
a prior marriage was void, it will have created no status of"lawful spouse." A belief
that a prior marriage has been terminated by divorce, death of the other spouse, or otherwise,
constitutes a mistake of
fact defense only if
the belief
was reasonable. See R.C.M. 916G)(l).
d. Maximum punishment. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 2 years.
e. Sample spec~fication.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, at, (subject-matter jurisdiction
data, if
required), on or about
20 _,wrongfully marry
having at the time
of(his) (her) said marriage to a lawful spouse then living, to wit:
, and
that such conduct was (to the prejudice of
good order and discipline in the armed forces) (of a
nature to bring discredit upon the armed forces) (to the prejudice of
good order and discipline in
the armed forces and of
a nature to bring discredit upon the armed forces).
94. Article 134-(Check, worthless making and uttering -
by dishonorably failing to
maintain funds)
a. Text (?{statute. See paragraph 91.
b . .l!..'lements.
(1) That the accused made and uttered a certain check;
(2) That the check was made and uttered for the purchase of a certain thing, in payment of a
debt, or for a certain purpose;
(3) That the accused subsequently failed to place or maintain sufficient funds in or credit with
the drawee bank for payment of
the check in full upon its presentment for payment;
(4) That this failure was dishonorable; and
(5) That, under the circumstances, the conduct ofthe accused was either: (i) to the prejudice of
good order and discipline in the armed forces; (ii) was of
a nature to bring discredit upon the armed
forces; or (iii) to the prejudice of good order and discipline in the armed forces and of
a nature to
bring discredit upon the armed forces.
c. Explanation. This offense differs from an Article 123a offense (paragraph 70) in that there need
be no intent to defraud or deceive at the time of making, drawing, uttering, or delivery, and that
the accused need not know at that time that the accused did not or would not have sufficient funds
for payment. The gist of
the offense lies in the conduct of
the accused after uttering the instrument
Mere negligence in maintaining one's bank balance is insufficient for this offense, for the
accused's conduct must reflect bad faith or gross indifference in this regard. As in the offense of
dishonorable failure to pay debts (see paragraph 96), dishonorable conduct of the accused is
necessary, and the other principles discussed in paragraph 96 also apply here.
d. Maximum punishment. Bad-conduct discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 6 months.
e. Sample spec?fication.
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In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about __
20 _,make and utter to
a
certain check, in words and figures as follows, to wit:
, (for the purchase of
(in payment of a debt) (for the purpose of
and did thereafter
dishonorably fail to (place) (maintain) sufficient funds in the
Bank for payment of
such check in full upon its presentment for payment, and that said conduct was (to the prejudice
of good order and discipline in the armed forces) (of a nature to bting discredit upon the armed
forces) (to the prejudice of good order and discipline in the armed forces and was of a nature to
bring discredit upon the armed forces).
95. Article 134-(Child pornography)
a. Text~~
statute. See paragraph 91.
b. Klement.\'.
(I) Possessing, receiving, or viewing child pornography.
(a) That the accused knowingly and wrongfully possessed, received, or viewed child
pornography; and
(b) That, under the circumstances, the conduct of
the accused was either: (i) to the prejudice
of good order and discipline in the armed forces; (ii) was of a nature to bring discredit upon the
armed forces; or (iii) to the prejudice of good order and discipline in the armed forces and of a
nature to bring discredit upon the armed forces.
(2) Possessing child
pornography with intent to distribute.
(a) That the accused knowingly and wrongfully possessed child pornography;
(b) That the possession was with the intent to distribute; and
(c) That, under the circumstances, the conduct of
the accused was either: (i) to the prejudice
of
good order and discipline in the armed forces; (ii) was of a nature to bring discredit upon the
armed forces; or (iii) to the prejudice of good order and discipline in the armed forces and of a
nature to bring discredit upon the anned forces.
(3) Distributing child
pornography.
(a) That the accused knowingly and wrongfully distributed child pornography to another;
and
(b) That, under the circumstances, the conduct of
the accused was either: (i) to the prejudice
of
good order and discipline in the anned forces; (ii) was of a nature to bring discredit upon the
armed forces; or (iii) to the prejudice of good order and discipline in the armed forces and of a
nature to bring discredit upon the anned forces.
(
4) Producing child
pomography.
(a) That the accused knowingly and wrongfully produced child pornography; and
(b) That, under the circumstances, the conduct of
the accused was either: (i) to the prejudice
of
good order and discipline in the armed forces; (ii) was of a nature to bring discredit upon the
armed forces; or (iii) to the prejudice of good order and discipline in the armed forces and of a
nature to bring discredit upon the armed forces.
c. Explanation.
(1) In general. The Article 134 offense of child pornography is broader than the federal and
state statutes referenced below and extends to visual depictions of
what appear to be minors. That
is, the images include sexually explicit images that may not actually involve minors, but either
resemble or are staged to appear so. Article 134-Child pornography is not intended to preempt
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prosecution of
other federal and state law child pornography and obscenity offenses which may be
amenable to courts-martial via Article 134 clauses 2 and 3.
(2) Federal "Child
pornography" and "Obscenity" offenses. Practitioners are advised that the
Title 18, United States Code, criminalizes the production, distribution, possession with intent to
distribute, possession, and receipt of sexually explicit images of actual children under the age of
18. See 18 U.S.C. §§ 2251; 2252A. Practitioners may charge these offenses utilizing Article 134,
clause 3 (crimes and offenses not capital). Practitioners are further advised that Title 18 United
States Code, Chapter 71, criminalizes the production of"obscene images," that is, visual depictions
of any kind, including a drawing, cartoon, sculpture, or painting. Such images are considered
obscene under federal law when they depict minors involved in sexually explicit activity, and/or
engaging in bestiality, sadistic or masochistic abuse. See 18 U.S.C. § 1466A. These federal
obscenity offenses may likewise be prosecuted at courts-martial via Article 134, clause 3.
(3) State "child pornography'' and "obscenity'' qffen.s·es. If a Servicemember violates an
applicable state child pornography or obscenity statute within the jurisdiction of
a given state, the
substance of
that state child pornography and obscenity law may be charged via Article 134, clause
2 as conduct "of
a nature to bring discredit upon the armed forces." When so charged, the Article
134 charge should recite every applicable element under the state statute. The maximum
punishment for such offenses is the applicable maximum punishment prescribed for such an
offense under state law.
(4) "Child pornography" means material that contains either an obscene visual depiction of a
minor engaging in sexually explicit conduct or a visual depiction of an actual minor engaging in
sexually explicit conduct.
(5) An accused may not be convicted of possessing, receiving, viewing, distributing, or
producing child pornography if
he was not aware that the images were of
minors, or what appeared
to be minors, engaged in sexually explicit conduct. Awareness may be inferred from circumstantial
evidence such as the name of
a computer tile or folder, the name of
the host website from which a
visual depiction was viewed or received, search tenns used, and the number of
images possessed.
(6) "Distributing" means delivering to the actual or constmctive possession of
another.
(7) "Minor" means any person under the age of 18 years.
(8) "Possessing" means exercising control of something. Possession may be direct physical
custody like holding an item in one's hand, or it may be constmctive, as in the case of a person
who hides something in a locker or a car to which that person may return to retrieve it. Possession
must be knowing and conscious. Possession inherently includes the power or authority to preclude
control by others. It is possible for more than one person to possess an item simultaneously, as
when several people share control over an item.
(9) "Producing" means creating or manufacturing. As used in this paragraph, it refers to
making child pornography that did not previously exist. It does not include reproducing or
copymg.
(10) "Sexually explicit conduct" means actual or simulated:
(a) sexual intercourse or sodomy, including genital to genital, oral to genital, anal to genital,
or oral to anal, whether between persons of
the same or opposite sex;
(b) bestiality;
(c) masturbation;
(d) sadistic or masochistic abuse; or
(e) lascivious exhibition of
the genitals or pubic area of
any person.
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( 11) Visual depiction includes any developed or undeveloped photograph, picture, film, or
video; any digital or computer image, picture, film, or video made by any means, including those
transmitted by any means including streaming media, even if
not stored in a permanent format;
or any digital or electronic data capable of
conversion into a visual image.
(12) Wrongfulness. Any facts or circumstances that show that a visual depiction of child
pornography was unintentionally or inadvetiently acquired are relevant to wrongfulness,
including, but not limited to, the method by which the visual depiction was acquired, the length of
time the visual depiction was maintained, and whether the visual depiction was promptly, and in
good faith, destroyed or reported to law enforcement.
(13) On motion of the Government, in any prosecution under this paragraph, except for good
cause shown, the name, address, social security number, or other nonphysical identifying
information, other than the age or approximate age, of any minor who is depicted in any child
pornography or visual depiction or copy thereof shall not be admissible and may be redacted from
any otherwise admissible evidence, and the panel shall be instructed, upon request of the
Government, that it can draw no inference from the absence of such evidence.
d. Maximum punishment.
(1) Po5·sessing, receiving, or viewing child
pornography. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances, and confinement for 10 years.
(2) Possessing child
pornography with intent to distribute. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture
of
all pay and allowances, and confinement for 15 years.
(3) Distributing child pornography. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and
allowances, and confinement for 20 years.
(
4) Producing child
pornography. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and allowances,
and confinement for 30 years.
e. Sample !:.pecification.
In that __
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location) (subject-matter
jurisdiction data, if required), on or about __
20 _ knowingly and wrongfully (possess)
(receive) (view) (distribute) (produce) child pornography, to wit: a (photograph) (picture) (film)
(video) (digital image) (computer image) of a minor, or what appears to be a minor, engaging in
sexually explicit conduct (with intent to distribute the said child pornography), and that said
conduct was (to the prejudice of good order and discipline in the armed forces) (of a nature to
bring discredit upon the anned forces) (to the prejudice of good order and discipline in the am1ed
forces and was of a nature to bring discredit upon the armed forces).
96. Article 134-(Debt, dishonorably failing to pay)
a. Text of
statute. See paragraph 91.
b. Elements.
( 1) That the accused was indebted to a certain person or entity in a certain sum;
(2) That this debt became due and payable on or about a certain date;
(3) That while the debt was still due and payable the accused dishonorably failed to pay this
debt; and
(4) That, under the circumstances, the conduct of
the accused was either: (i) to the prejudice of
good order and discipline in the armed forces; (ii) was of
a nature to bring discredit upon the armed
forces; or (iii) to the prejudice of good order and discipline in the armed forces and of a nature to
bring discredit upon the armed forces.
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c. Explanation. More than negligence in nonpayment is necessary. The failure to pay must be
characterized by deceit, evasion, false promises, or other distinctly culpable circumstances
indicating a deliberate nonpayment or grossly indifferent attitude toward one's just obligations.
For a debt to form the basis of this offense, the accused must not have had a defense, or an
equivalent offset or counterclaim, either in fact or according to the accused's belief, at the time
alleged. The offense should not be charged if
there was a genuine dispute between the parties as
to the facts or law relating to the debt which would affect the obligation of
the accused to pay. The
offense is not committed if
the creditor or creditors involved are satisfied with the conduct of
the
debtor with respect to payment. The length of the period of nonpayment and any denial of
indebtedness which the accused may have made may tend to prove that the accused's conduct was
dishonorable, but the court-martial may convict only if it finds from all of the evidence that the
conduct was in fact dishonorable.
d. Jvfaximum punishment. Bad-conduct discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 6 months.
e. Sample .~pec{fication.
Tn that
(personal jurisdiction data), being indebted to
in the sum of
$ __
for __
, which amount became due and payable (on) (about) (on or about) __
20 _,
did (at/on board-location) (subject-matter jurisdiction data, if required), from __
20 _,to
20 _,dishonorably fail to pay said debt, and that said conduct was (to the prejudice of
good
order and discipline in the armed forces) (of a nature to bring discredit upon the armed forces) (to
the prejudice of good order and discipline in the armed forces and of a nature to bring discredit
upon the armed forces).
97. Article 134-(Disloyal statements)
a. l'ext of
statute. See paragraph 91.
b. Elements.
(1) That the accused made a certain statement;
(2) That the statement was communicated to another person;
(3) That the statement was disloyal to the United States;
(4) That the statement was made with the intent to promote disloyalty or disaffection toward
the United States by any member of the anned forces or to interfere with or impair the loyalty to
the United States or good order and discipline of
any member of
the anned forces; and
(5) That, under the circumstances, the conduct of
the accused was either: (i) to the prejudice of
good order and discipline in the armed forces; (ii) was of
a nature to bring discredit upon the armed
forces; or (iii) to the prejudice of
good order and discipline in the armed forces and of a nature to
bring discredit upon the armed forces.
c. Explanation. Certain disloyal statements by military personnel may not constitute an offense
under 18 U.S.C. §§ 2385,2387, and 2388, but may, under the circumstances, be punishable under
this article. Examples include praising the enemy, attacking the war aims of the United States, or
denouncing our form of
government with the intent to promote disloyalty or disaffection among
members ofthe anned Services. A declaration of
personal belief
can amount to a disloyal statement
if it disavows allegiance owed to the United States by the declarant. The disloyalty involved for
this offense must be to the United States as a political entity and not merely to a department or
other agency that is a part of
its administration.
d. Maximum punishment. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 3 years.
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e. Sample specification.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction), on or about __
20 _,with intent to (promote (disloyalty) (disaffection)
(disloyalty and disaffection)) ((interfere with) (impair) the (loyalty) (good order and discipline))
of
any member of
the armed forces of
the United States communicate to
, a statement,
to wit:"
,"or words to that effect, which statement was disloyal to the United States,
and that such conduct was (to the prejudice of
good order and discipline in the armed forces) (of a
nature to bring discredit upon the armed forces) (to the prejudice of good order and discipline in
the armed forces and of
a nature to bring discredit upon the armed forces).
98. Article 134-(Disorderly conduct, drunl,enness)
a. Text t<fstatute. See paragraph 91.
b. F:lemefll.'i'.
(1) That the accused was drunk, disorderly, or dmnk and disorderly on board ship or in some
other place; and
(2) That, under the circumstances, the conduct ofthe accused was either: (i) to the prejudice of
good order and discipline in the armed forces; (ii) was of
a nature to bring discredit upon the armed
forces; or (iii) to the prejudice of good order and discipline in the armed forces and of a nature to
bring discredit upon the armed forces.
c. F,xplanation.
(1) Drunkenness. See subparagraph 49.c.(l)(a) for a discussion of
dmnk.
(2) Disorderly. Disorderly conduct is conduct of such a nature as to a±Tect the peace and quiet
of persons who may witness it and who may be disturbed or provoked to resentment thereby. It
includes conduct that endangers public morals or outrages public decency and any disturbance of
a contentious or turbulent character.
(3) Service discrediting. Conduct of a nature to bring discredit upon the armed forces must be
included in the specification and proved in order to authorize the higher maximum punishment
when the otTt~nse is Service discrediting.
d. A1aximu:m punishment.
(1) Disorderly conduct.
(a) Under such circurnstances as to bring discredit upon the 1nilitmy Service. Confinement
for 4 months and forfeiture of
two-thirds pay per month for 4 months.
(b) Other cases. Confinement for 1 month and forfeiture of
two-thirds pay per month for 1
month.
(2) Drunkenness.
(a) Aboard ship or under such circumstances as to bring discredit upon the military Service.
Confinement for 3 months and forfeiture of
two-thirds pay per month for 3 months.
(b) Other cases. Confinement for 1 month and forfeiture of
two-thirds pay per month for 1
month.
(3) Drunk and disorderly.
(a) Aboard ship. Bad-conduct discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 6 months.
(b) Under such circumstm1ces as to bring discredit upon the militmy Service. Confinement
for 6 months and forfeiture of two-thirds pay per month for 6 months.
(c) Other cases. Confinement for 3 months and forfeiture of
two-thirds pay per month for 3
months.
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e. Sample spec{fication.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), was, (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about __
20 _, (drunk) (disorderly) (dnmk and
disorderly) (which conduct was of
a nature to bring discredit upon the armed forces), and that said
conduct was (to the prejudice of good order and discipline in the armed forces) (of a nature to
bring discredit upon the armed forces) (to the prejudice of
good order and discipline in the armed
forces and was of
a nature to bring discredit upon the armed forces).
99. Article 134-(Extramarital sexual conduct)
a. Text of
statute. See paragraph 91.
b. Elements.
(1) That the accused wTongfully engaged in extramarital conduct as described in
subparagraph c.(2) with a certain person;
(2) That, at the time, the accused knew that the accused or the other person was manied to
someone else; and
(3) That, under the circumstances, the conduct of
the accused was either: (i) to the prejudice
of
good order and discipline in the armed forces; (ii) was of
a nature to bring discredit upon the
armed forces; or (iii) to the prejudice of
good order and discipline in the armed forces and of
a
nature to bring discredit upon the armed forces.
c. F:xplanation.
(1) Conduct prejudicial to good order and discipline or (if
a nature to bring discredit upon
the armedforces. To constitute an offense under the UCMJ, the extramarital conduct must either
be directly prejudicial to good order and discipline or service discrediting or both. Extramarital
conduct that is directly prejudicial to good order and discipline includes conduct that has an
obvious, and measurably divisive efTect on unit or organization discipline, morale, or cohesion,
or is clearly detrimental to the authority or stature of
or respect toward a Servicemember, or both.
Extramarital conduct may be Service discrediting, even though the conduct is only indirectly or
remotely prejudicial to good order and discipline. "Discredit" means to injure the reputation of
the anned forces and includes extramarital conduct that has a tendency, because of
its open or
notorious nature, to bring the Service into disrepute, make it subject to public ridicule, or lower it
in public esteem. While extramarital conduct that is private and discreet in nature may not be
service discrediting by this standard, under the circumstances, it may be detennined to be
conduct prejudicial to good order and discipline. Commanders should consider all relevant
circumstances, including but not limited to the following factors, when detennining whether
extramarital conduct is prejudicial to good order and discipline or is of
a nature to bring discredit
upon the armed forces, or both:
(a) The accused's marital status, military rank, grade, or position
(b) The co-actor's marital status, military rank, grade, and position, or relationship to the
armed forces
(c) The military status of
the accused's spouse or the spouse of
the co-actor, or their
relationship to the armed forces;
(d) The impact, if any, of
the extramarital conduct on the ability of
the accused, the co-
actor, or the spouse of either to perform their duties in support of
the armed forces;
(e) The misuse, if
any, of
Government time and resources to facilitate the commission of
the conduct;
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(f) Whether the conduct persisted despite counseling or orders to desist; the flagrancy of
the conduct, such as whether any notoriety ensued; and whether the extramarital conduct was
accompanied by other violations of
the UCMJ;
(g) The negative impact of
the conduct on the units or organizations of
the accused, the co-
actor or the spouse of
either of
them, such as a detrimental effect on unit or organization morale,
teamwork, and efl:iciency;
(h) Whether the accused's or co-actor's marriage was pending legal dissolution, which is
defined as an action with a view towards divorce proceedings, such as the filing of
a petition for
divorce; and
(i) Whether the extramarital conduct involves an ongoing or recent relationship or is
remote in time.
(2) Extramarital conduct. The conduct covered under this paragraph means any of
the
following acts engaged in by persons of
the same or opposite sex:
(a) genital to genital sexual intercourse;
(b) oral to genital sexual intercourse;
(c) anal to genital sexual intercourse; and
(d) oral to anal sexual intercourse.
(3) lv!arriage. A marriage exists until it is dissolved in accordance with the laws of
a
competent state or foreign jurisdiction.
(4) regal Separation. It is an affinnative defense to the offense of
Extramarital sexual
conduct that the accused, co-actor, or both were legally separated by order of
a court of
competent jurisdiction. The affirmative defense does not apply unless all parties to the conduct
are either legally separated or unmarried at the time of
the conduct.
(5)Nfi:-;take offact: A defense of
mistake offact exists ifthe accused had an honest and
reasonable belief either that the accused and the co-actor were both unmatTied or legally
separated, or that they were lawfully married to each other. If
this defense is raised by the
evidence, then the burden of proof is upon the United States to establish that the accused's belief
was unreasonable or not honest.
d. A1aximum punishment. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
confinement for 1 year.
e. Sample specification.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), (a married person), did, (at/on
board-location) (subject-matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20 _,
wrongfully engage in extramarital conduct, (to wit:
with
, (a
person the accused knew was married to a person other than the accused) (a person the accused
knew was not the accused's spouse), and that such conduct was (to the prejudice of
good order
and discipline in the armed forces) (of a nature to bring discredit upon the armed forces) (to the
prejudice of good order and discipline in the armed forces and of
a nature to bring discredit upon
the armed forces).
100. Article 134-----(Firearm, discharging-through negligence)
a. Text of
statute. See paragraph 91.
b. Elements.
(1) That the accused discharged a firearm;
(2) That such discharge was caused by the negligence of
the accused; and
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(3) That, under the circumstances, the conduct of
the accused was either: (i) to the prejudice of
good order and discipline in the armed forces; (ii) was of
a nature to bring discredit upon the armed
forces; or (iii) to the prejudice of good order and discipline in the armed forces and of a nature to
bring discredit upon the armed forces.
c. Explanation. For a discussion of
negligence, see subparagraph 103.c.(2).
d. Maximum punishment. Confinement for 3 months and forfeiture of two-thirds pay per month
for 3 months.
e. Sample specification.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about __
20 _, through negligence, discharge a
(service rifle)(_) in the (squadron) (tent) (barracks)(
__
) of __
, and that said conduct was
(to the prejudice of good order and discipline in the armed forces) (of a nature to bring discredit
upon the armed forces) (to the prejudice of
good order and discipline in the armed forces and was
of
a nature to bring discredit upon the armed forces).
101. Article 134-(Fraternization)
a. Text (?{statute. See paragraph 91.
b. F:lements.
(1) That the accused was a commissioned or warrant officer;
(2) That the accused fraternized on terms of
military equality with one or more certain enlisted
member(s) in a certain manner;
(3) That the accused then knew the person(s) to be (an) enlisted member(s);
(4) That such fraternization violated the custom of
the accused's Service that otiicers shall not
fraternize with enlisted members on terms of
military equality; and
(5) That, under the circumstances, the conduct of
the accused was either: (i) to the prejudice of
good order and discipline in the armed forces; (ii) was of
a nature to bring discredit upon the armed
forces; or (iii) to the prejudice of good order and discipline in the armed forces and of a nature to
bring discredit upon the armed forces.
c. t-xplanation.
(1) in general. The gist of
this offense is a violation of the custom of
the armed forces against
fraternization. Not all contact or association between officers and enlisted persons is an offense.
Whether the contact or association in question is an offense depends on the surrounding
circumstances. Factors to be considered include whether the conduct has compromised the chain
of command, resulted in the appearance of partiality, or otherwise undennined good order,
discipline, authority, or morale. The facts and circumstances must be such as to lead a reasonable
person experienced in the problems of military leadership to conclude that the good order and
discipline of
the armed forces has been prejudiced by their tendency to compromise the respect of
enlisted persons for the professionalism, integrity, and obligations of an officer.
(2) Regulations. Regulations, directives, and orders may also govern conduct between officer
and enlisted personnel on both a Service-wide and a local basis. Relationships between enlisted
persons of different ranks, or between officers of different ranks may be similarly covered.
Violations of such regulations, directives, or orders may be punishable under Article 92. See
paragraph 18.
d. Maximum punishment. Dismissal, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and confinement for 2
years.
e. Sample spec?fication.
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In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about __
20 _, knowingly fraternize with
_____
,an enlisted person, on tenns of
military equality, to wit:
, in violation of
the custom of (the Naval Service of
the United States) (the United States Anny) (the United States
Air Force) (the United States Coast Guard) that officers shall not tl-aternize with enlisted persons
on tenns of military equality, and that said conduct was (to the prejudice of good order and
discipline in the armed forces) (of a nature to bring discredit upon the anned forces) (to the
prejudice of good order and discipline in the anned forces and was of a nature to bring discredit
upon the armed forces).
102. Article 134--(Gambling with subordinate)
a. Text t<f statute. See paragraph 91.
b. F;/emenls.
(I) That the accused gambled with a certain Servicemember;
(2) That the accused was then a noncommissioned or petty officer;
(3) That the Servicemember was not then a noncommissioned or petty officer and was
subordinate to the accused;
(4) That the accused knew that the Servicemember was not then a noncommissioned or petty
officer and was subordinate to the accused; and
(5) That, under the circumstances, the conduct of
the accused was either: (i) to the prejudice of
good order and discipline in the anned forces; (ii) was of
a nature to bring discredit upon the armed
forces; or (iii) to the prejudice of good order and discipline in the armed forces and of a nature to
bring discredit upon the armed forces.
c. Explanation. This offense can only be committed by a noncommissioned or petty officer
gambling with an enlisted person of less than noncommissioned or petty officer rank. Gambling
by an officer with an enlisted person may be a violation of
Article 133. See al'Jo paragraph 90.
d. Maximum punishment. Confinement for 3 months and forfeiture of two-thirds pay per month
for 3 months.
e. Sample spec(fication.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about __
20 _, gamble with
, then
knowing that the said
was not a noncommissioned or petty officer and was
subordinate to the said
, and that said conduct was (to the prejudice of good order and
discipline in the armed forces) (of a nature to bring discredit upon the anned forces) (to the
prejudice of good order and discipline in the anned forces and was of a nature to bring discredit
upon the armed forces).
103. Article 134--(Homicide, negligent)
a. Text of
statute. See paragraph 91.
b. Elements.
(1) That a certain person is dead;
(2) That this death resulted from the act or failure to act of
the accused;
(3) That the killing by the accused was unlawful;
(4) That the act or failure to act of the accused which caused the death amounted to simple
negligence; and
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(5) That, under the circumstances, the conduct of
the accused was either: (i) to the prejudice of
good order and discipline in the armed forces; (ii) was of
a nature to bring discredit upon the armed
forces; or (iii) to the prejudice of good order and discipline in the armed forces and of a nature to
bring discredit upon the armed forces.
c. Explanation.
( 1) Nature of
offense. Negligent homicide is any unlawful homicide which is the result of
simple
negligence. An intent to kill or injure is not required.
(2) Simple negligence. Simple negligence is the absence of
due care, that is, an act or omission
of
a person who is under a duty to use due care which exhibits a lack of that degree of care of
the
safety of
others which a reasonably careful person would have exercised under the same or similar
circumstances. Simple negligence is a lesser degree of
carelessness than culpable negligence. See
subparagraph 57.c.(2)(a).
d. ft./[aximum punishment. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
con±lnement for 3 years.
e. Sample spec{fication.
Tn that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if required), on or about __
20 _, unlawfully kill __
, (by
negligently
the said
(in) (on) the
with a
(by driving a (motor vehicle)
(
__
) against the said
in a negligent manner) ( __
), and that said conduct was (to the
prejudice of
good order and discipline in the armed forces) (of a nature to bring discredit upon the
armed forces) (to the prejudice of
good order and discipline in the armed forces and was of
a nature
to bring discredit upon the armed forces).
104. Article 134-(Indecent conduct)
a. [ext of
Statute. See paragraph 91.
b. ~'fements.
(1) That the accused engaged in certain conduct;
(2) That the conduct was indecent; and
(3) That, under the circumstances, the conduct of
the accused was either: (i) to the prejudice
of
good order and discipline in the armed forces; (ii) was of a nature to bring discredit upon the
armed forces; or (iii) to the prejudice of
good order and discipline in the armed forces and of
a
nature to bring discredit upon the anned forces.
c. Explanation.
( 1) "Indecent" means that fonn of
immorality relating to sexual impurity which is grossly
vulgar, obscene, and repugnant to common propriety, and tends to excite sexual desire or
deprave morals with respect to sexual relations.
(2) Indecent conduct includes offenses previously proscribed by "Indecent acts with another"
except that the presence of
another person is no longer required. For purposes of
this offense, the
words "conduct" and "act" are synonymous. For child offenses, some indecent conduct may be
included in the definition oflewd act and preempted by Article 120b(c). See subparagraph
91.c.(5)(a).
d.lvfaximum punishment. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and
con±lnement for 5 years.
e. Sample specification.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location) (subject-matter
jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20
, commit indecent conduct, to wit:
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____
,and that said conduct was (to the prejudice of good order and discipline in the armed
forces) (of a nature to bring discredit upon the anned forces) (to the prejudice of
good order and
discipline in the armed forces and was of
a nature to bring discredit upon the armed forces).
105. Article 134--(Indecent language)
a. Text of
statute. See paragraph 91.
b. Elements.
(1) That the accused orally or in writing communicated to another person certain language;
(2) That such language was indecent; and
(3) That, under the circumstances, the conduct ofthe accused was either: (i) to the prejudice of
good order and discipline in the armed forces; (ii) was of
a nature to bring discredit upon the armed
forces; or (iii) to the prejudice of
good order and discipline in the armed forces and of a nature to
bring discredit upon the armed forces.
[Note: If
applicable, add the following additional element:]
(
4) That the person to whom the language was communicated was a child under the age of 16.
c. F;xplanafion. Indecent language is that which is grossly offensive to modesty, decency, or
propriety, or shocks the moral sense, because of its vulgar, filthy, or disgusting nature, or its
tendency to incite lustful thought. Language is indecent if
it tends reasonably to corrupt morals or
incite libidinous thoughts. The language must violate community standards. See paragraph 62 if
the communication was made in the physical presence of
a child.
d. Maximum punishment.
(1) Communicated to ar~v child under the age l?{ 16 years. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture
of all pay and allowances, and confinement for 2 years.
(2) Other cases. Bad-conduct discharge; forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and confinement
for 6 months.
e. Sample .~pecijication.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about __
20 _,(orally) (in writing) communicate
to
, (a child under the age of 16 years), certain indecent language, to wit: ------'
and that such conduct was (to the prejudice of
good order and discipline in the armed forces) (of a
nature to bring discredit upon the anned forces) (to the prejudice of good order and discipline in
the anned forces and of
a nature to bring discredit upon the anned forces).
106. Article 134--(Pandering and prostitution)
a. Text of
statute. See paragraph 91.
b. Elements.
(1) Prostitution.
(a) That the accused engaged in a sexual act w-ith another person not the accused's spouse;
(b) That the accused did so for the purpose of receiving money or other compensation;
(c) That this act was wrongful; and
(d) That, under the circumstances, the conduct of
the accused was either: (i) to the
prejudice of good order and discipline in the armed forces; (ii) was of
a nature to bring discredit
upon the armed forces; or (iii) to the prejudice of
good order and discipline in the armed forces
and of a nature to bring discredit upon the armed forces.
(2) Patronizing a prostitute.
(a) That the accused engaged in a sexual act with another person not the accused's spouse;
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(b) That the accused compelled, induced, enticed, or procured such person to engage in a
sexual act in exchange for money or other compensation;
(c) That this act was wrongful; and
(d) That, under the circumstances, the conduct of
the accused was either: (i) to the
prejudice of good order and discipline in the armed forces; (ii) was of a nature to bring discredit
upon the armed forces; or (iii) to the prejudice of
good order and discipline in the armed forces
and of
a nature to bring discredit upon the armed forces.
(3) Pandering by inducing, enticing, or
procuring act of
prostitution.
(a) That the accused induced, enticed, or procured a certain person to engage in a sexual
act for hire and reward with a person to be directed to said person by the accused;
(b) That this inducing, enticing, or procuring was wTongful;
(c) That, under the circumstances, the conduct of the accused was either: (i) to the
prejudice of good order and discipline in the armed forces; (ii) was of a nature to bring discredit
upon the armed forces; or (iii) to the prejudice of
good order and discipline in the atmed forces
and of a nature to bring discredit upon the armed forces.
(4) Pandering by arranging or receiving con:o.·ideralion.for arrangingfbr a sexual act.
(a) That the accused arranged for, or received valuable consideration for arranging for, a
certain person to engage in a sexual act;
(b) That the arranging (and receipt of
consideration) was wrongful; and
(c) That, under the circumstances, the conduct of
the accused was either: (i) to the
prejudice of good order and discipline in the armed forces; (ii) was of
a nature to bring discredit
upon the armed forces; or (iii) to the prejudice of
good order and discipline in the mmed forces
and of
a nature to bring discredit upon the armed forces.
c. Explanation.
(1) Sexual act. Sexual act as used in this paragraph shall be as defined in paragraph
60.a.(g)(1).
(2) Other regulations. This otTense does not preempt any other lawful regulations or orders
prescribed by a proper authority that proscribe other forms of sexual conduct for compensation
by military personnel. Violations of such regulations or orders may be punishable under Article
92. See paragraph 18.
d. Maximunz punishment.
(1) Prostitution and
patronizing a prostitute. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of
all pay and
allowances, and confinement for 1 year.
(2) Pandering. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and confinement
for 5 years.
e. Sample specifications.
(1) Prostitution.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about __
20 _, wrongfully engage in (a
sexual act) (sexual acts), to wit:
, with __
, a person not (his) (her) spouse, for the
purpose of
receiving (money)(_), and that such conduct was (to the prejudice of good order
and discipline in the armed forces) (of a nature to bring discredit upon the armed forces) (to the
prejudice of good order and discipline in the armed forces and of
a nature to bring discredit upon
the armed forces).
(2) Patronizing a prostitute.
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In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about __
20 _, wrongfully (compel)
(induce) (entice) (procure)
, a person not (his) (her) spouse, to engage in (a sexual
act) (sexual acts), to
with the accused in exchange for (money)'------"
and that such conduct was (to the prejudice of
good order and discipline in the armed forces) (of
a nature to bring discredit upon the armed forces) (to the prejudice of
good order and discipline
in the armed forces and of
a nature to bring discredit upon the armed forces).
(3) Inducing, enticing, or procuring act of
prostitution.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about __
20 _,wrongfully (induce)
(entice) (procure)
to engage in (a sexual act) (sexual acts), to ·wit:
for
hire and reward with persons to be directed to (him) (her) by the said
and that such
conduct was (to the prejudice of
good order and discipline in the armed forces) (of a nature to
bring discredit upon the armed forces) (to the prejudice of
good order and discipline in the armed
forces and of a nature to bring discredit upon the anned forces).
(4) Arranging, or receiving consideralion.fbr arrangingfor a sexual act.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location)
(subject-matter jurisdiction data, if
required), on or about
20 _,wrongfully (arrange for)
(receive valuable consideration, to wit:
on account of arranging for)
to
engage in (a sexual act) (sexual acts) to
with
, and that such conduct
was (to the prejudice of
good order and discipline in the armed forces) (of a nature to bring
discredit upon the armed forces) (to the prejudice of
good order and discipline in the armed
forces and of a nature to bring discredit upon the armed forces).
107. Article 134-(Self-injury without intent to avoid se1·vice)
a. Text (ifstatute. See paragraph 91.
b. Elements.
(1) That the accused intentionally int1icted injury upon himself or herself;
(2) That, under the circumstances, the conduct of
the accused was either: (i) to the prejudice of
good order and discipline in the armed forces; (ii) was of
a nature to bring discredit upon the armed
forces; or (iii) to the prejudice of good order and discipline in the armed forces and of a nature to
bring discredit upon the armed forces.
[Note: If
the offense was committed in time of
war or in a hostile fire pay zone, add the following
element:]
(3) That the offense was committed (in time of
war) (in a hostile fire pay zone).
c. Explanation.
(1) Nature of
offense. This offense differs from malingering (see paragraph 7) in that for this
offense, the accused need not have harbored a design to avoid performance of any work, duty, or
service which may properly or normally be expected of
one in the military service. This offense is
characterized by intentional self-injury under such circumstances as prejudice good order and
discipline or discredit the armed forces. It is not required that the accused be unable to perform
duties, or that the accused actually be absent from his or her place of
duty as a result of
the injury.
For example, the accused may inflict the injury while on leave or pass. The circumstances and
extent of injury, however, are relevant to a determination that the accused's conduct was
prejudicial to good order and discipline, or Service discrediting.
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(2) How injwy inflicted. The injury may be inflicted by nonviolent as well as by violent means
and may be accomplished by any act or omission that produces, prolongs, or aggravates a sickness
or disability. Thus, voluntary starvation that results in debility is a self-inflicted injury. Similarly,
the injury may be inflicted by another at the accused's request.
d. Maximum punishment.
(1) Intentional self-inflicted injury. Dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and
allowances, and confinement for 2 years.
(2) Intentional self-inflicted injWJl in time of
war or in a hostile fire pay zone. Dishonorable
discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and confinement for 5 years.
e. Sample specification.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data), did, (at/on board-location) (subject-
matter jurisdiction data, if
required) (in a hostile fire pay zone) on or about
20 _,(a time
of war,) intentionally injure (himself) (herself) by
(nature and circumstances of
injury), and that such conduct was (to the prejudice of good order and discipline in the anned
forces) (of a nature to bring discredit upon the armed forces) (to the prejudice of good order and
discipline in the armed forces and of
a nature to bring discredit upon the armed forces).
108. Article 134-(Straggling)
a. Text (!fstatute. See paragraph 91.
b. F:lemenl.'i'.
(1) That the accused, while accompanying the accused's organization on a march, maneuvers,
or similar exercise, straggled;
(2) That the straggling was wrongful; and
(3) That, under the circumstances, the conduct of
the accused was either: (i) to the prejudice of
good order and discipline in the armed forces; (ii) was of
a nature to bring discredit upon the armed
forces; or (iii) to the prejudice of good order and discipline in the armed forces and of a nature to
bring discredit upon the armed forces.
c. f-xplanation. "Straggle" means to wander away, to stray, to become separated from, or to lag or
linger behind.
d. Maximum punishment. Confinement for 3 months and forfeiture of two-thirds pay per month
for 3 months.
e. Sample specification.
In that
(personal jurisdiction data) (subject-matter jurisdiction data, if required),
did, at
, on or about __
20 _,while accompanying (his) (her) organization on (a
march) (maneuvers) (
), wrongfully straggle, and that such conduct was (to the
prejudice of
good order and discipline in the anned forces) (of a nature to bring discredit upon the
armed forces) (to the prejudice of
good order and discipline in the armed forces and of
a nature to
bring discredit upon the armed forces).
Sec.§.. Part V of the Manual for Courts--Martial, United States is amended to read as
follows:
1. General
a. Authority. Nonjudicial punishment in the United States Armed Forces is authorized by Article
15.
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b. Nature. Nonjudicial punishment is a disciplinary measure more serious than the administrative
corrective measures discussed in paragraph lg, but less serious than trial by court-martial.
c. Pwpose. Nonjudicial punishment provides commanders with an essential and prompt means
of
maintaining good order and discipline and also promotes positive behavior changes in
Servicemembers without the stigma of a court-martial conviction.
d. Policy.
(
1) Commander's responsibility. Commanders are responsible for good order and discipline
in their commands. Generally, discipline can be maintained through effective leadership
including, when necessary, administrative corrective measures. Nonjudicial punishment is
ordinarily appropriate when administrative corrective measures are inadequate due to the nature
of
the minor offense or the record of the Servicemember, unless it is clear that only trial by
court-martial will meet the needs of
justice and discipline. Nonjudicial punishment shall be
considered on an individual basis. Commanders considering nonjudicial punishment should
consider the nature of
the offense, the record of the Servicemember, the needs for good order and
discipline, and the effect of
nonjudicial punishment on the Servicemember and the
Servicemember's record.
(2) Commander's di."'·cretion. A commander who is considering a case for disposition under
Article 15 will exercise personal discretion in evaluating each case, both as to whether
nonjudicial punishment is appropriate, and, if
so, as to the nature and amount of
punishment
appropriate. No superior may direct that a subordinate authority impose nonjudicial punishment
in a particular case, issue regulations, orders, or "guides" which suggest to subordinate
authorities that certain categories of
minor offenses be disposed of
by nonjudicial punishment
instead of
by court-martial or administrative corrective measures, or that predetermined kinds or
amounts of
punishments be imposed for certain classifications of
otTenses that the subordinate
considers appropriate for disposition by nonjudicial punishment
(3) Commander's suspension authority. Commanders should consider suspending all or part
of
any punishment selected under Article 15, particularly in the case of
first o±Ienders or when
significant extenuating or mitigating matters are present. Suspension provides an incentive to the
otrender and gives an opportunity to the commander to evaluate the otrender during the period of
suspensiOn.
e. Minor offenses. Nonjudicial punishment may be imposed for acts or omissions that are minor
o±Tenses under the punitive article (see Part IV). Whether an offense is minor depends on several
factors: the nature of
the offense and the circumstances surrounding its commission; the
offender's age, rank, duty assignment, record and experience; and the maximum sentence
imposable for the offense if
tried by general court-martial. Ordinarily, a minor offense is an
offense for which the maximum sentence imposable would not include a dishonorable discharge
or confinement for longer than 1 year if
tried by general court-martial. The decision whether an
offense is "minor" is a matter of discretion for the commander imposing nonjudicial punishment,
but nonjudicial punishment for an offense other than a minor offense (even though thought by
the commander to be minor) is not a bar to trial by court-martial for the same offense. See
R.C.M. 907(b
)(2)(D)(iii). However, the accused may show at trial that nonjudicial punishment
was imposed, and if
the accused does so, this fact must be considered in determining an
appropriate sentence. See Article 15(£); R.C.M. lOOl(d)(l)(B).
f. Limitations on nmijudicial
punishment.
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(
1) Double punishment
prohibited. When nonjudicial punishment has been imposed for an
offense, punishment may not again be imposed for the same offense under Article 15. But see
paragraph le concerning trial by court-martiaL
(2) Increase in punishment
prohibited. Once nonjudicial punishment has been imposed, it
may not be increased, upon appeal or otherwise.
(3)Multiple punishment prohibited. When a commander determines that nonjudicial
punishment is appropriate for a particular Servicemember, all known offenses determined to be
appropriate for disposition by nonjudicial punishment and ready to be considered at that time,
including all such offenses arising from a single incident or course of conduct, shall ordinarily be
considered together, and not made the basis for multiple punishments.
(
4) Statute t:?f limitations. Except as provided in Article 43(
d), nonjudicial punishment may
not be imposed for offenses which were committed more than 2 years before the date of
imposition, unless knowingly and voluntarily waived by the member. See Article 43(c).
(5) Civilian courts. Nonjudicial punishment may not be imposed for an offense tried by a
court which derives its authority from the United States. Nonjudicial punishment may not be
imposed for an offense tried by a State or foreign court unless authorized by regulations of
the
Secretary concerned.
g. Relationship of
nor~judicial
punishment to administrative corrective measure.•;. Article 15 and
Part V of
this Manual do not apply to, include, or limit use of
administrative corrective measures
that promote efficiency and good order and discipline such as counseling, admonitions,
reprimands, exhortations, disapprovals, criticisms, censures, reproofs, rebukes, extra military
instruction, and administrative withholding of
privileges. See also R.C.M. 306. Administrative
corrective measures are not punishment and they may be used for acts or omissions which are
not otienses under the code and for acts or omissions which are offenses under the code.
h. Applicable standards. Unless otherwise provided, the Service regulations and procedures of
the Servicemember shall apply.
i. ~jfect
of
errors. Failure to comply with any of
the procedural provisions of
Part V of
this
Manual shall not invalidate a punishment imposed under Article 15, unless the error materially
prejudiced a substantial right of
the Servicemember on whom the punishment was imposed.
2. Who may impose nonjudicial punishment
The following persons may serve as a nonjudicial punishment authority for the purposes of
administering nonjudicial punishment proceedings under this Part:
a. Commander. As provided by regulations of
the Secretary concerned, a commander may
impose nonjudicial punishment upon any military personnel of
that command. "Commander"
means a commissioned or warrant officer who, by virtue of
rank and assignment, exercises
primary command authority over a military organization or prescribed territorial area, which
under pertinent official directives is recognized as a "command." "Commander" includes a
commander of a joint command. Subject to subparagraph 1d(2) and any regulations of
the
Secretary concerned, the authority of
a commander to impose nonjudicial punishment as to
certain types of
offenses, certain categories of
persons, or in specitlc cases, or to impose certain
types of
punishment, may be limited or withheld by a superior commander or by the Secretary
concerned.
b. Officer in charge. If authorized by regulations of the Secretary concerned, an oftlcer in charge
may impose nonjudicial punishment upon enlisted persons assigned to that unit.
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c. Principal assistant. If
authorized by regulations of
the Secretary concerned, a commander
exercising general court-martial jurisdiction or an officer of
general or flag rank in command
may delegate that commander's powers under Article 15 to a principal assistant. The Secretary
concerned may define "principal assistant."
3. Right to demand trial
Except in the case of a person attached to or embarked in a vessel, punishment may not be
imposed under Article 15 upon any member of
the armed forces who has, before the imposition
of
nonjudicial punishment, demanded trial by court-martial in lieu of
nonjudicial punishment.
This right may also be granted to a person attached to or embarked in a vessel if
so authorized by
regulations of
the Secretary concerned. A person is "attached to" or "embarked in" a vessel if, at
the time nonjudicial punishment is imposed, that person is assigned or attached to the vessel, is
on board for passage, or is assigned or attached to an embarked staff, unit, detachment, squadron,
team, air group, or other regularly organized body.
4. Procedure
a. Notice. If, after a preliminary inquiry (see R.C.M. 303), the nonjudicial punishment authority
determines that disposition by nonjudicial punishment proceedings is appropriate (seeR. CM. 306;
paragraph 1 of this Part), the nonjudicial punishment authority shall cause the Servicemember to
be notified. The notice shall include:
(1) a statement that the nonjudicial punishment authority is considering the imposition of
nonjudicial punishment;
(2) a statement describing the alleged offenses- including the article of
the code-which the
member is alleged to have committed;
(3) a brief
summmy of
the information upon which the allegations are based or a statement that
the member may, upon request, examine available statements and evidence;
(4) a statement of
the rights that will be accorded to the Servicemember under subparagraphs
4c(l) and (2) ofthis Part;
(5) unless the right to demand trial is not applicable (see paragraph 3 of
this Part), a statement
that the member may demand trial by court-martial in lieu of
nonjudicial punishment, a
statement of
the maximum punishment which the nonjudicial punishment authority may impose
by nonjudicial punishment; a statement that, if
trial by court-martial is demanded, charges could
be referred for trial by summary, special, or general court-martial; that the member may not be
tried by summmy court-martial over the member's objection; and that at a special or general
court-martial the member has the right to be represented by counsel.
b. Decision by Servicemember.
(1) Demandjor trial by court-martial. If
the Servicemember demands trial by court-martial
(when this right is applicable), the nonjudicial proceedings shall be terminated. It is within the
discretion of
the commander whether to forward or refer charges for trial by court-martial (see
R.C.M. 306; 307; 401-407) in such a case, but in no event may nonjudicial punishment be
imposed for the offenses affected unless the demand is voluntarily withdrawn.
(2) No demand
for trial by court-martial. If
the Servicemember does not demand trial by
court-martial within a reasonable time after notice under paragraph 4a of
this Part, or if
the right
to demand trial by court-martial is not applicable, the nonjudicial punishment authority may
proceed under paragraph 4c of
this Part.
c. Nonjudicial punishment
proceeding accepted.
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(l)Personal appearance requested; procedure. Before nonjudicial punishment may be
imposed, the Servicemember shall be entitled to appear personally before the nonjudicial
punishment authority who offered nonjudicial punishment, except when appearance is prevented
by the unavailability of
the nonjudicial punishment authority or by extraordinary circumstances,
in which case the Servicemember shall be entitled to appear before a person designated by the
nonjudicial punishment authority who shall prepare a written summary of any proceedings
before that person and forward it and any written matter submitted by the Servicemember to the
nonjudicial punishment authority. If
the Servicemember requests personal appearance, the
Servicemember shall be entitled to:
(A) Be infonned in accordance with Article 31 (b);
(B) Be accompanied by a spokesperson provided or arranged for by the member unless
the punishment to be imposed will not exceed extra duty for 14 days, restriction for 14 days,
and an oral reprimand. Such a spokesperson need not be qualified under R.C.M. 502(d); such
spokesperson is not entitled to travel or similar expenses, and the proceedings need not be
delayed to permit the presence of a spokesperson; the spokesperson may speak for the
Servicemember, but may not question witnesses except as the nonjudicial punishment
authority may allow as a matter of discretion;
(C) Be informed orally or in writing of
the information against the Servicemember and
relating to the om~nses
alleged;
(D) Be allowed to examine documents or physical objects against the Servicemember that
the nonjudicial punishment authority has examined in connection with the case and on which
the nonjudicial punishment authority intends to rely in deciding whether and how much
nonjudicial punishment to impose;
(E) Present matters in defense, extenuation, and mitigation orally, or in writing, or both;
(F) Have present witnesses, including those adverse to the Servicemember, upon request,
if
their statements will be relevant and they are reasonably available. For purposes of
this
subparagraph, a witness is not reasonably available if
the witness requires reimbursement by
the United States for any cost incurred in appearing, cannot appear without unduly delaying
the proceedings, or, if a military witness, cannot be excused from other important duties;
(G) Have the proceeding open to the public unless the nonjudicial punishment authority
determines that the proceeding should be closed for good cause, such as military exigencies
or security interests, or unless the punishment to be imposed will not exceed extra duty for 14
days, restriction for 14 days, and an oral reprimand; however, nothing in this subparagraph
requires special arrangements to be made to facilitate access to the proceeding.
(2) Per.'iDnal appearance 1-j,'aived; procedure. Subject to the approval of the nonjudicial
punishment authority, the Servicemember may request not to appear personally under
subparagraph 4c(l) of
this Part. lf
such request is granted, the Servicemember may submit written
matters for consideration by the nonjudicial punishment authority before such authority's decision
under subparagraph 4c(4) of
this Part. The Servicemember shall be informed of
the right to remain
silent and that matters submitted may be used against the member in a trial by court-martial.
(3) Evidence. The Military Rules of
Evidence (Part lll), other than with respect to privileges,
do not apply at nonjudicial punishment proceedings. Any relevant matter may be considered, after
compliance with subparagraphs 4c(l)(C) and (D) of
this Part.
(
4) Decision. After considering all relevant matters presented, if
the nonjudicial punishment
authority-
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(A) does not conclude that the Servicemember committed the offenses alleged, the
nonjudicial punishment authority shall so inform the member and terminate the proceedings;
(B) concludes that the Servicemember committed one or more of
the offenses alleged, the
nonjudicial punishment authority shall:
(i) so inform the Servicemember;
(ii) inform the Servicemember of
the punishment imposed; and
(iii) infom1 the Servicemember of
the right to appeal (see paragraph 7 of
this Part).
d. Nonjudicial punishment based on record qf
court qf
inqui1y or other imestigative body.
Nonjudicial punishment may be based on the record of
a court of inquiry or other investigative
body, in which proceeding the member was accorded the rights of
a party. No additional
proceeding under subparagraph 4c(l) of this Part is required. The Servicemember shall be
informed in writing that nonjudicial punishment is being considered based on the record of
the
proceedings in question, and given the opportunity, if applicable, to refi1se nonjudicial
punishment. Tfthe Servicemember does not demand trial by court-martial or has no option, the
Servicemember may submit, in writing, any matter in defense, extenuation, or mitigation, to the
officer considering imposing nonjudicial punishment, for consideration by that officer to
determine whether the member committed the offenses in question, and, if so, to determine an
appropriate punishment.
5. Punishments
a. General limitations. The Secretary concerned may limit the power granted by Article 15 with
respect to the kind and amount of
the punishment authorized. Subject to paragraphs 1 and 4 of
this Part and to regulations of
the Secretary concerned, the kinds and amounts of punishment
authorized by Article lS(b) may be imposed upon Servicemembers as provided in this paragraph.
b. Authorized
maximum punishments. In addition to or in lieu of admonition or reprimand, the
following disciplinary punishments, subject to the limitation of
paragraph Sd of
this Part, may be
imposed upon Servicemembers:
(1) Upon commissioned officers andlt'arrant ojjicers-
(A) By any commanding otlicer-restriction to specified limits, with or without
suspension from duty for not more than 30 consecutive days;
(B) If
imposed by an officer exercising general court-martial jurisdiction, an officer of
general or flag rank in command, or a principal assistant as defined in paragraph 2c of this
Part-
(i) arrest in quarters for not more than 30 consecutive days;
(ii) forfeiture of
not more than one-half of
one month's pay per month for 2 months;
(iii) restriction to specified limits, with or without suspension from duty, for not more
than 60 consecutive days;
(2) Upon other military personnel of
the command-
(A) By any nonjudicial punishment authority-
(i) if
imposed upon a person attached to or embarked in a vessel, confinement for not
more than 3 consecutive days;
(ii) correctional custody for not more than 7 consecutive days;
(iii) forfeiture of
not more than 7 days' pay;
(iv) reduction to the next inferior grade, if the grade from which demoted is within the
promotion authority of
the officer imposing the reduction or any officer subordinate to
the one who imposes the reduction;
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days;
(v) extra duties, including fatigue or other duties, for not more than 14 consecutive
(vi) restriction to specified limits with or without suspension from duty, for not more
than 14 consecutive days;
(B) If
imposed by a commanding officer of
the grade of major or lieutenant commander
or above or a principal assistant as defined in paragraph 2c of
this Part-
days;
(i) if
imposed upon a person attached to or embarked in a vessel, confinement for not
more than 3 consecutive days;
(ii) correctional custody for not more than 30 consecutive days;
(iii) forfeiture of
not more than one-half of 1 month's pay per month for 2 months;
(iv) reduction to the lowest or any intermediate pay grade, if
the grade from which
demoted is within the promotion authority of
the onicer imposing the reduction or any
officer subordinate to the one who imposes the reduction, but enlisted members in pay
grades above E-4 may not be reduced more than one pay grade, except that during time
of
war or national emergency this category of persons may be reduced two grades if
the
Secretary concerned detennines that circumstances require the removal of
this limitation;
(v) extra duties, including fatigue or other duties, for not more than 45 consecutive
(vi) restrictions to specified limits, with or without suspension from duty, for not more
than 60 consecutive days.
c. Nature C!l
punishment.
(
1) Admonition and reprimand Admonition and reprimand are two forms of
censure
intended to express adverse reflection upon or criticism of
a person's conduct. A reprimand is a
more severe fonn of
censure than an admonition. When imposed as nonjudicial punishment, the
admonition or reprimand is considered to be punitive, unlike the nonpunitive admonition and
reprimand provided for in paragraph lg of
this Part. In the case of commissioned officers and
warrant officers, admonitions and reprimands given as nonjudicial punishment must be
administered in writing. In other cases, unless otherwise prescribed by the Secretary concerned,
they may be administered either orally or in writing.
(2) Restriction. Restriction is the least severe form of
deprivation of
liberty. Restriction
involves moral rather than physical restraint. The severity of
this type of
restraint depends on its
duration and the geographical limits specified when the punishment is imposed. A person
undergoing restriction may be required to report to a designated place at specified times if
reasonably necessary to ensure that the punishment is being properly executed. Unless otherwise
specified by the nonjudicial punishment authority, a person in restriction may be required to
perfom1 any military duty.
(3) Arrest in quarters. As in the case of
restriction, the restraint involved in arrest in quarters
is enforced by a moral obligation rather than by physical means. This punishment may be
imposed only on officers. An officer undergoing this punishment may be required to perform
those duties prescribed by the Secretary concerned. However, an oflicer so punished is required
to remain within that officer's quarters during the period of
punishment unless the limits of arrest
are otherwise extended by appropriate authority. The quarters of an ot11cer may consist of a
military residence, whether a tent, stateroom, or other quarters assit,rned, or a private residence
when government quarters have not been provided.
(
4) Correctional custody. Correctional custody is the physical restraint of
a person during
duty or nonduty hours, or both, imposed as a punishment under Article 15, and may include extra
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duties, fatigue duties, or hard labor as an incident of correctional custody. A person may be
required to serve correctional custody in a confinement facility, but, if
practicable, not in
immediate association with persons aw-aiting trial or held in confinement pursuant to trial by
court-mmiial. A person undergoing correctional custody may be required to perform those
regular military duties, extra duties, fatigue duties, and hard labor which may be assigned by the
authority charged with the administration of
the punishment. The conditions under which
correctional custody is served shall be prescribed by the Secretary concerned. In addition, the
Secretary concerned may limit the categories of enlisted members upon whom correctional
custody may be imposed. The authority competent to order the release of a person from
correctional custody shall be as designated by the Secretary concerned.
(5) Cor?ftnement. Confinement may be imposed upon a person attached to or embarked on a
vesseL Confinement involves confinement for not more than three consecutive days in places
where the person so confined may communicate only with authorized personnel. The categories
of
enlisted personnel upon whom this type of
punishment may be imposed may be limited by the
Secretary concemed.
(6) F:xtra duties. Extra duties involve the performance of
duties in addition to those normally
assigned to the person undergoing the punishment. Extra duties may include fatigue duties.
Military duties of any kind may be assigned as extra duty. However, no extra duty may be
imposed which constitutes a known safety or health hazard to the member or which constitutes
cruel or unusual punishment or which is not sanctioned by customs of
the Service concemed.
Extra duties assigned as punishment of
noncommissioned officers, petty officers, or any other
enlisted persons of
equivalent grades or positions designated by the Secretary concerned, should
not be of a kind which demeans their grades or positions.
(7) Reduction in grade. Reduction in grade is one of
the most severe forms of
nonjudicial
punishment and it should be used with discretion. As used in Article 15, the phrase "ifthe grade
from which demoted is within the promotion authority of
the ot1lcer imposing the reduction or
any officer subordinate to the one who imposes the reduction," does not refer to the authority to
promote the person concerned but to the general authority to promote to the grade held by the
person to be punished.
(8) Fmfeiture of
pay. "Forfeiture" means a permanent loss of
entitlement to the pay fmfeited.
"Pay," as used with respect to forfeiture of
pay under Article 15, refers to the basic pay of
the
person or, in the case of
reserve component personnel on inactive-duty, compensation for periods
of
inactive-duty training, plus any sea or hardship duty pay. "Basic pay" includes no element of
pay other than the basic pay fixed by statute for the grade and length of service of
the person
concerned and does not include special pay for a special qualification, incentive pay for the
performance of
hazardous duties, proficiency pay, subsistence and quarters allowances, and
similar types of compensation. If
the punishment includes both reduction, whether or not
suspended, and forfeiture of
pay, the forfeiture must be based on the grade to which reduced. The
amount to be forfeited will be expressed in whole dollar amounts only and not in a number of
day's pay or fractions of monthly pay. If
the forfeiture is to be applied for more than 1 month,
the amount to be forfeited per month and the number of
months should be stated. Forfeiture of
pay may not extend to any pay accrued before the date of its imposition.
d. Limitations on combination ~f
punishments.
(l) Arrest in quarters may not be imposed in combination with restriction;
(2) Confinement may not be imposed in combination with correctional custody, extra duties,
or restriction;
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(3) Correctional custody may not be imposed in combination with restriction or extra duties;
(4) Restriction and extra duties may be combined to run concurrently, but the combination
may not exceed the maximum imposable for extra duties;
(5) Subject to the limits in subparagraphs 5d(l) through (4) all authorized punishments may
be imposed in a single case in the maximum amounts.
e. Punishments imposed on reserve component personnel while on inactive-duty training. When
a punishment under Article 15 amounting to a deprivation ofliber1y (for example, restriction,
correctional custody, extra duties, or arrest in quarters) is imposed on a member of
a reserve
component during a period of
inactive-duty training, the punishment may be served during one
or both of
the following:
(1) A normal period of
inactive-duty training; or
(2) A subsequent period of
active duty (not including a period of
active duty under Article
2(d)(1), unless such active duty was approved by the Secretary concerned).
Unserved punishments may be carried over to subsequent petiods of
inactive-duty training or
active duty. A sentence to forfeiture of
pay may be collected from active duty and inactive-duty
training pay during subsequent periods of
duty.
f. Punishments imposed on reserve component personnel1vhen ordered to active du(v for
disciplinary pwy;m;es. When a punishment under Article 15 is imposed on a member of a reserve
component during a period of
active duty to which the reservist was ordered pursuant to R.C.M.
204 and which constitutes a deprivation of liberty (for example, restriction, correctional custody,
extra duties, or arrest in quarters), the punishment may be served during any or all of
the
following:
(1) That period of
active duty to which the reservist was ordered pursuant to Article 2(d), but
only where the order to active duty was approved by the Secretary concerned;
(2) A subsequent normal period of inactive-duty training; or
(3) A subsequent period of
active duty (not including a period of
active duty pursuant to
R.C.M. 204 which was not approved by the Secretary concerned).
Unserved punishments may be carried over to subsequent periods of
inactive-duty training or
active duty. A sentence to forfeiture of
pay may be collected from active duty and inactive-duty
training pay during subsequent periods of
duty.
g. Ejjective date and execution ofpunishments. Reduction and forfeiture of pay, ifunsuspended,
take efiect on the date the commander imposes the punishments. Other punishments, if
unsuspended, will take effect and be carried into execution as prescribed by the Secretary
concerned.
6. Suspension, mitigation, •·emission, and setting aside
a. Suspension. The nonjudicial punishment authority who imposed nonjudicial punishment, the
commander who imposes nonjudicial punishment, or a successor in command over the person
punished, may, at any time, suspend any part or amount of
the unexecuted punishment imposed
and may suspend a reduction in grade or a forfeiture, whether or not executed, subject to the
following rules:
(
1) An executed punishment of reduction or forfeiture of pay may be suspended only within a
period of
4 months after the date of execution.
(2) Suspension of
a punishment may not be for a period longer than 6 months from the date
of
the suspension, and the expiration of
the current enlistment or term of service of
the
Servicemember involved automatically terminates the period of
suspension.
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(3) Unless the suspension is sooner vacated, suspended portions of
the punishment are
remitted, without further action, upon the termination of
the period of suspension.
(
4) Unless otherwise stated, an action suspending a punishment includes a condition that the
Servicemember not violate any punitive article of
the code. The nonjudicial punishment
authority may specify in writing additional conditions of
the suspension.
(5) A suspension may be vacated by any nonjudicial punishment authority or commander
competent to impose upon the Servicemember concerned punishment of
the kind and amount
involved in the vacation of suspension. Vacation of suspension may be based only on a violation
of
the conditions of suspension which occurs within the period of suspension. Before a
suspension may be vacated, the Servicemember ordinarily shall be notified and given an
opportunity to respond. Although a hearing is not required to vacate a suspension, if
the
punishment is of the kind set forth in Article 15(e)(l)-(7), the Servicemember should, unless
impracticable, be given an opportunity to appear before the officer authorized to vacate
suspension of
the punishment to present any matters in defense, extenuation, or mitigation of
the
violation on which the vacation action is to be based. Vacation of
a suspended nonjudicial
punishment is not itself nonjudicial punishment, and additional action to impose nonjudicial
punishment for a violation of a punitive article of
the code upon which the vacation action is
based is not precluded thereby.
b. Mitigation. Mitigation is a reduction in either the quantity or quality of
a punishment, its
general nature remaining the same. Mitigation is appropriate when the offender's later good
conduct merits a reduction in the punishment, or when it is determined that the punishment
imposed was disproportionate. The nonjudicial punishment authority who imposes nonjudicial
punishment, the commander who imposes nonjudicial punishment, or a successor in command
may, at any time, mitigate any part or amount of the unexecuted portion of the punishment
imposed. The nonjudicial punishment authority who imposes nonjudicial punishment, the
commander who imposes nonjudicial punishment, or a successor in command may also mitigate
reduction in grade, whether executed or unexecuted, to forfeiture of pay, but the amount of the
forfeiture may not be greater than the amount that could have been imposed by the ofllcer who
initially imposed the nonjudicial punishment. Reduction in grade may be mitigated to forfeiture of
pay only within 4 months after the date of execution.
When mitigating-
(
1) arrest in quarters to restriction;
(2) confinement to correctional custody;
(3) correctional custody or confinement to extra duties or restriction, or both; or
(
4) extra duties to restriction, the mitigated punishment may not be for a greater period than
the punishment mitigated. As restriction is the least severe form of
deprivation of
liberty, it may
not be mitigated to a lesser period of
another form of
deprivation of
liberty, as that would mean
an increase in the quality of
the punishment.
c. Remission. Remission is an action whereby any portion of the unexecuted punishment is
cancelled. Remission is appropriate under the same circumstances as mitigation. The nonjudicial
punishment authority who imposes punishment, the commander who imposes nonjudicial
punishment, or a successor in command may, at any time, remit any part or amount of the
unexecuted portion of the punishment imposed. The expiration of the current enlistment or term
of
service of
the Servicemember automatically remits any unexecuted punishment imposed under
Article 15.
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d. Setting aside. Setting aside is an action whereby the punishment, or any part or amount
thereof, whether executed or unexecuted, is set aside and any property, privileges, or rights
affected by the portion of
the punishment set aside are restored. The nonjudicial punishment
authority who imposed punishment, the commander who imposes nonjudicial punishment, or a
successor in command may set aside punishment. The power to set aside punishments and
restore rights, privileges, and propetty affected by the executed portion of
a punishment should
ordinarily be exercised only when the authority considering the case believes that, under all
circumstances of
the case, the punishment has resulted in clear injustice. Also, the power to set
aside an executed punishment should ordinarily be exercised only within a reasonable time after
the punishment has been executed. In this connection, 4 months is a reasonable time in the
absence of
unusual circumstances.
7. Appeals
a. In general. Any Servicemember punished under Article 15 who considers the punishment to
be unjust or disproportionate to the offense may appeal through the proper channels to the next
superior authority.
b. Who may act on appeal. A "superior authority," as prescribed by the Secretary concerned,
may act on an appeal. When punishment has been imposed under delegation of
a commander's
authority to administer nonjudicial punishment (see paragraph 2c of
this Part), the appeal may
not be directed to the commander who delegated the authority.
c. Format of
appeal. Appeals shall be in writing and may include the appellant's reasons for
regarding the punishment as unjust or disproportionate.
d. Time limit. An appeal shall be submitted within 5 days of
imposition of
punishment, or the
right to appeal shall be waived in the absence of
good cause shown. A Servicemember who has
appealed may be required to undergo any punishment imposed while the appeal is pending,
except that if
action is not taken on the appeal within 5 days after the appeal was submitted, and
ifthe Servicemember so requests, any unexecuted punishment involving restraint or extra duty
shall be stayed until action on the appeal is taken.
e. Legal review. Before acting on an appeal from any punishment of
the kind set forth in Article
15(
e)(
1
)-(7), the authority who is to act on the appeal shall refer the case to a judge advocate or
to a lawyer of
the Department of
Homeland Security for consideration and advice, and may so
refer the case upon appeal from any punishment imposed under Article 15. When the case is
referred, the judge advocate or lawyer is not limited to an examination of any written matter
comprising the record of
proceedings and may make any inquiries and examine any additional
matter deemed necessary.
f. Action by superior authority.
(1) In general. In acting on an appeal, the superior authority may exercise the same power
with respect to the punishment imposed as may be exercised under Article 15(
d) and paragraph 6
of
this Part by the officer who imposed the punishment. The superior authority may take such
action even if no appeal has been filed.
(2)lvlatters considered. When reviewing the action of
an officer who imposed nonjudicial
punishment, the superior authority may consider the record of
the proceedings, any matters
submitted by the Servicemember, any matters considered during the legal review, if
any, and any
other appropriate matters.
(3)Additional proceedings. If
the superior authority sets aside a nonjudicial punishment due
to a procedural error, that authority may authorize additional proceedings under Article 15, to be
439
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conducted by the officer who imposed the nonjudicial punishment, the commander, or a
successor in command, for the same offenses involved in the original proceedings. Any
punishment imposed as a result of
these additional proceedings may be no more severe than that
originally imposed.
(
4) Notification. Upon completion of action by the superior authority, the Servicemember
upon whom punishment was imposed shall be promptly notified of
the result.
(5) Delegation to principal assistant. If authorized by regulation of the Secretary concerned a
superior authority who is a commander exercising general court-martial jurisdiction, or is an
officer of
general or flag rank in command, may delegate the power under Article 15(e) and this
paragraph to a principal assistant.
8. Records of nonjudicial punishment
The content, format, use, and disposition of
records of
nonjudicial punishment may be prescribed
by regulations of the Secretary concerned.
440
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Sec.~· Appendix 12A of the :Manual for Courts-Martial, United States is amended to read
as follows:
APPENDIX 12A
This Appendix contains the list of
lesser included offenses prescribed by the President in EO
XX:XXX under Article 79(b
)(2) as "reasonably included" in the greater offense. See Part IV,
paragraph 3.b. of
this Manual for an explanation regarding the offenses designated under Article
79(b
)(2). This is not an exhaustive list of lesser included offenses. For offenses that may or may
not be lesser included offenses, see R.C.M. 307(c)(3) and its accompanying Discussion regarding
charging in the alternative.
PRESIDENTIALLY
-PRESCRIBED LESSER INCLUDED OFFENSES
Article
Offense
Lesset· Included Offense
84
Breach of
medical quarantine
Art. 87b -Breach of restriction
85
Desertion
-Desertion 1vith intent to remain mvay
Art. 86 -Absence without leave
permanently
-Desertion with intent to avoid hazardous
Art. 86
Absence without leave
duty or shirk important service
-Desertion before notice of
acceptance of
Art. 86 -Absence without leave
resignation
-Attempted desertion
Art. 86- Absence without leave
87
Missing movement; jumping from vessel
-1v1issing movement by design
Art. 86 -Absence without leave
Art. 87 -Missing movement by neglect
-lvlissing movement by neglect
Art. 86 Absence without leave
87b
Offenses against correctional custody and
restriction
-Escape.from correctional custody
Art. 87b- Breach of correctional custody
89
Disrespect toward superior commissioned
officer; assault of superior commissioned
officer
-Striking or assaulting superior
Art. 128- Simple assault
commissioned officer
Art. 128- Assault consummated by a
battery
Art. 128
Assault upon a commissioned
officer not in the execution of
office
441
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90
Willfully disobeying superior
Art. 89- Disrespect toward superior
commissioned officer
commissioned officer
Art. 92
Failure to obey lawful order
91
Insubordinate conduct toward warrant
oflicer, noncommissioned ofiicer, or petty
officer
-Striking or assaulting a warrant,
Art. 128- Simple assault
noncommissioned, or petty officer in the
Art. 128- Assault consummated by a
execution (?f (?{fice
battery
Art. 128- Assault upon a warrant,
noncommissioned, or petty officer not in
the execution of
office
-Disobeying a warrant,
Art. 92
Failure to obey lawful order
noncommissioned, or petty (~fficer
94
Mutiny or sedition
-lvfutiny by creating violence or
Art 94- Attempted mutiny
disturbance
Art. 116 -Breach of peace
-Mutiny by refusing to obey orders or
Art. 92
Failure to obey order or
pel:form duty
regulation
Att. 92 - Dereliction of
duty
Att. 94
Attempted mutiny
-Sedition
Art. 116 -Breach of
peace
95
-Drunk on post
Art. 92 - Dereliction of
duty
Att. 112- Drunk on duty
-Sleeping on post
Att. 92- Dereliction of
duty
-T,eaving pm;t
A1t. 86- Going from appointed place of
duty
Art. 92- Dereliction of
duty
-Loitering or wrongfully sitting on post
A1t. 92
Dereliction of
duty
96
Release of
prisoner without authority;
drinking with prisoner
-Allowing a prisoner to escape through
Art. 96
Allowing a prisoner to escape
design
through neglect
99
Misbehavior before the enemy
442
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-Running away
Art. 86- Absence without leave; going
from appointed place of duty
-A'ndangering safety of
a command, unit,
At1. 92
Failure to obey lawful order
place, ship, or milita1y property through
At1. 92 -Dereliction in the perfonnance
disobedience
of duties
-F'-tuiangering safety of
a command, unit,
Art. 92
Dereliction in the performance
place, ship, or military property through
of duties
neglect or intentional misconduct
-Casting awt{V arms or ammunition
Art. 108 - Military property of
the
United States -loss or wrongful
disposition
-Cowardly conduct
-Quitting
place of
duty to plunder or
Art. 86 - Going from appointed place of
pillage
duty
100
Subordinate compelling surrender
-Compelling surrender
Art. 100- Attempting to compel
surrender
103a
Espionage
Art. 103a- Attempted espionage
103b
Aiding the enemy
-Aiding the enemy
Art. 1
03b- Attempting to aid the enemy
105a
False or unauthorized pass offenses
-Wrongful making, altering,
Art. 105a- Wrongful use or possession
counteTfeiting, or tampering with a
of a false or unauthorized military or
militm)' or qfficial pass, permit, discharge official pass, permit, discharge
cert(ficate, or ident(fication card
certificate, or identification card
-Wrongji1l sale, gifi, loan, or disposition
Art. 105a Wrongful use or possession
qf
a military or (?fficial pass, permit,
of a false or unauthorized military or
discharge certificate, or identification
official pass, pennit, discharge
card
certificate, or identification card
-Wrongful use or possession ofafalse or
Art. 105a Wrongful use or possession
unauthorized military or official
pass,
of a false or unauthorized military or
permit, discharge certificate, or
official pass, pennit, discharge
identification card, ·with the intent to
certificate, or identification card without
defraud or deceive
the intent to defraud or deceive
108
Military property of
the United States -
Loss, damage, destruction, or wrongful
disposition
443
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-Willjiflly damaging military property
Art 108- Damaging military property
through neglect
Art. 109- Willfully damaging non-
military property
-Willfi.tlly destroying military property
Art. 108 -Destroying military property
through neglect
Art. 108- Damaging military property
through neglect
Art. 108- Willfully damaging military
property
Art. 109- Willfully destroying non-
military property
Art. 109 -Willfully damaging non-
military property
-Willfidly losing military property
Art. 108
Through neglect, losing
military property
-Willfi.tlly suffering military property to be
Art. 108- Through neglect, suffering
lost. damaged, destroyed, sold, or
military property to be lost, damaged,
-wrongfully disposed (if
destroyed, sold, or wrongfully disposed
of
109a
Mail matter: wrongful taking, opening,
etc.
-Taking
Art. 121
Larceny; wrongtul
appropriation
-Opening, secreting, destroying, or
Art. 121 - Larceny; wrongful
stealing
appropriation
110
Improper hazarding of vessel or aircraft
-Willji1lly and wrongfully causing or
Art. 110- Negligently causing or
Slfffering a vessel or aircrqft to be
suffering a vessel or aircraft to be
hazarded
hazarded
112
Drunkenness and other incapacitation
offenses
-Drunk on duty
Art. 92
Dereliction of duty
-Incapacitation for duty
from drunkenness Art. 92 -Dereliction of duty
or drug use
112a
Wrongful use, possession, etc, of
controlled substances
444
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-Wrongful use (?f controlled suh.s'lance
Art 112a- Wrongful possession of
controlled substance
-Wrongful distribution of
controlled
Att. 112a- Wrongful possession of
substance
controlled substance
Art. 112a- Wrongful possession with
intent to distribute
-Wrongful introduction of
a controlled
Art 112a- Wrongful possession of
substance
controlled substance
-Wrongful manz~facture
(?fa controlled
Att. 112a Wrongful possession of
substance
controlled substance
-Wrongful
possession, nu.tm{facture, or
Art. 112a- Wrongful possession,
introduction (?fa controlled substance
manufacture, or introduction of
with intent to distribute
controlled substance
115
Communicating threats
-Threat to use explosive, etc.
Art. 115 -Communicating threats
generally
116
Riot or breach of peace
-Riot
Art. 116 -Breach of peace
118
Murder
-PremedUated murder
Art. 118- Intent to kill or inflict great
bodily hann
Att. 118
Act inherently dangerous to
another
Att. 119 -Voluntary manslaughter
-Intent to kill or ir?flict great bodily harm
Art. 119 -Voluntary manslaughter
-During certain (?ffenses
Att. 119 -Voluntary manslaughter
119
Manslaughter
-Voluntary manslaughter
Art. 119 - Involuntary manslaughter
119a
Death or injury of
an unborn child
-Killing an unborn child
Art. ll9a- Injuring an unborn child
Art. 119a - Attempting to kill an unborn
child
-Intentionally killing an unborn child
Art. 119a- Killing an unborn child
Art. 119a - Injuring an unborn child
Art. 119a - Attempting to kill an unborn
child
445
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119b
Child endangerment
-Child endangerment by design
Art. 119b - Child endangerment by
culpable negligence
120
Rape and sexual assault generally
Rape
A1i. 128 - Assault with intent to commit
rape
-By unlcmfulforce
Art. 128- Simple assault
-By
force causing or likely to cause death
Art. 128- Simple assault
or grievous bodily harm
-By threatening or placing that other
Art. 120(a)(l)- Rape by unlawful force
person in fear that any
person ·would be
Art. 120(b
)( 1
)(A) - Sexual assault by
su~jected
to death, grievous bodily harm,
threatening or placing that other person
or kidnapping
in fear
-Ryfirst rendering that other person
Art. 120(b
)(2)(8)- Sexual assault of a
unconscious
person who is asleep, unconscious, or
otherwise unaware the act is occurring
-By administering a drug, intoxicant, or
Art. 128- Simple assault
other similar substance
A1i. 128 - Assault consummated by a
battery
Sexual Assault
Art. 128- Assault with intent to commit
sexual assault
-Without consent
Ati. 128- Assault consummated by a
battery
120b
Rape and sexual assault of a child
Rape of a child
-Rape (?fa child who has not attained the
Ali. 128- Assault consummated by a
age of
12
battery
-Rape by
.force of
a child who has allained Art. 128 - Assault consummated by a
the arze qf
12
battery
-Rape by threatening or placing in
Art. 120(b)(1)(A)-Sexual assault by
fear a child H,.ho has attained the age
threatening or placing that other person
of12
in fear
-Rape by rendering unconscious a child
Ati. 120(b
)(2)(B)- Sexual assault of a
who has attained the age of
12
person who is asleep, unconscious, or
otherwise unaware the act is occurring
-Rape by administering a drug, intoxicant,
Art. 128- Simple assault
or other similar ,.,·uhstance to a child who
Art. 128- Assault consummated by a
has attained the age of
12
battery
121
Larceny and wrongful appropriation
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-Larceny
Art. 121- Wrongful appropriation
122
Robbery
-Robbery where the taking was by means
Art. 121 - Larceny; wrongful
C!fforce, violence, or
.force and violence
appropriation
Art. 128- Assault consummated by a
battery
Art. 128- Simple assault
Art. 128 - Assault with intent to commit
robbery
-Robbery where the taking was by means
Art. 121 - Larceny; wrongful
£?(pulling the person in
.fear
appropriation
Art. 128- Simple assault
Art. 128 - Assault with intent to commit
robbery
123
Offenses concerning Government
computers
-Unauthorized distribution of
classified
Art. 123
Unauthorized access of a
ir?fimnation obtainedfrom a Government
Government computer and obtaining
computer
classified or other protected information
124a
Bribery
Art. 124b- Graft
128
Assault
-Assault consummated by a battery upon
Art. 128 - Assault consummated by a
a child under 16
:Jlears, a spouse, intimate
battery
partner, or immediate family member
-Assault in which substantial bodily harm
A1i. 128
Assault consummated by a
is inflicted
battery
-Assault in which grievous bodily harm is
Art. 128- Assault consummated by a
inflicted
battery
Ali. 128- Assault in which substantial
bodily harm is inflicted
-Assault 1vith intent to murder
Art. 128- Simple assault
Art. 128- Assault \Vith intent to commit
voluntary manslaughter
-Assault ·with intent to comrnit voluntmy
Art. 128- Simple assault
manslaughter
447
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Billing code 5001–06–C
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-Assault with intent to commit rape or
Art. 128 - Simple assault
rape <?fa child
-Assault with intent to commit sexual
Art. 128
Simple assault
assault or sexual assault of
a child
-Assault rvith intent to commit robbery,
Art. 128- Simple assault
arson, hurglaty, or kidnapping
128a
Maiming
Art. 128 - Assault consummated by a
battery
Art. 128- Assault in which substantial
bodily harm is inflicted
Art. 128- Assault in which grievous
bodily harm is inflicted
129
Burglary; unlawful entry
-Burglwy
Art. 129
Unlawful entry
134 (95)
Child pornography
-Possesshtg child
pornography with intent Art. 134(95) Possessing child
to distribute
pornography
-Distributing child
pornography
Art. 134(95)- Possessing child
pornography
Art. 134(95)- Possessing child
pornography with intent to distribute
-Producing child
pornography
Art. 134(95)- Possessing child
pornography
448
| 2018 Amendments to the Manual for Courts-Martial, United States | 2018-03-01T00:00:00 | c532132a6033825eccc940187c2145a6682c40670aab98edd4167a7088a0c433 |