Datasets:

guan-wang

/

ReDis-QA

like 3

Dose of Rubella immunoglobulin is:

5 ml

10 ml

20 ml

40 ml

Question: Dose of Rubella immunoglobulin is: Choices: A. 5 ml B. 10 ml C. 20 ml D. 40 ml Answer:

NOT a feature of Classical triad of Congenital Rubella Syndrome is

Cataract

Patent Ductus Arteriosus

Microcephaly

Deafness

Question: NOT a feature of Classical triad of Congenital Rubella Syndrome is Choices: A. Cataract B. Patent Ductus Arteriosus C. Microcephaly D. Deafness Answer:

Rubella vaccination is contraindicated in all except-

Patient on immunosuppressant

Girl with Leukemia

Girls between 11-14 years

Pregnancy

Question: Rubella vaccination is contraindicated in all except- Choices: A. Patient on immunosuppressant B. Girl with Leukemia C. Girls between 11-14 years D. Pregnancy Answer:

Congenital Rubella syndrome may have the following clinical features, except

Intrauterine growth retardation

Neonatal hepatitis

Congenital cataract

Hydrocephalus

Question: Congenital Rubella syndrome may have the following clinical features, except Choices: A. Intrauterine growth retardation B. Neonatal hepatitis C. Congenital cataract D. Hydrocephalus Answer:

Rubella cataract is seen as –

Posterior polar cataract

Nuclear cataract

Blue dot cataract in young

Cuneiform cataract

Question: Rubella cataract is seen as – Choices: A. Posterior polar cataract B. Nuclear cataract C. Blue dot cataract in young D. Cuneiform cataract Answer:

The following age group is most severely affected by Rubella infection –

Females aged 25–35 Year

Young girls

Adolescent girls

Unborn child

Question: The following age group is most severely affected by Rubella infection – Choices: A. Females aged 25–35 Year B. Young girls C. Adolescent girls D. Unborn child Answer:

Rubella virus was isolated in-

1862

1912

1932

1962

Question: Rubella virus was isolated in- Choices: A. 1862 B. 1912 C. 1932 D. 1962 Answer:

Rubella vaccination is contraindicated in all except -

A patient on immunosuppressant

Girl with Leukemia

Girls between 11-14 years

Pregnancy

Question: Rubella vaccination is contraindicated in all except - Choices: A. A patient on immunosuppressant B. Girl with Leukemia C. Girls between 11-14 years D. Pregnancy Answer:

Age group most prone to Rubella is?

Infants

Adolescent girls

Pregnant females

Women of child bearing age

Question: Age group most prone to Rubella is? Choices: A. Infants B. Adolescent girls C. Pregnant females D. Women of child bearing age Answer:

False about transmission of Rubella ?

Droplet infection

Veical transmission

Infection in early pregnancy causes milder disease

Fetus affected in late pregnancy may have only deafness

Question: False about transmission of Rubella ? Choices: A. Droplet infection B. Veical transmission C. Infection in early pregnancy causes milder disease D. Fetus affected in late pregnancy may have only deafness Answer:

A child suffering from Rubella, presented with rose colored lesion in Oropharynx. This is know as __________

Koplik spots

Nagayama spots

Forcheimer spots

None of the above

Question: A child suffering from Rubella, presented with rose colored lesion in Oropharynx. This is know as __________ Choices: A. Koplik spots B. Nagayama spots C. Forcheimer spots D. None of the above Answer:

The heart lesion not found in Congenital Rubella infection is –

ASD

VSD

PDA

PS

Question: The heart lesion not found in Congenital Rubella infection is – Choices: A. ASD B. VSD C. PDA D. PS Answer:

Rubella virus belongs to which family ?

Picornavirus

Paramyxoviridae

Ohomyxoviridae

Togaviridae

Question: Rubella virus belongs to which family ? Choices: A. Picornavirus B. Paramyxoviridae C. Ohomyxoviridae D. Togaviridae Answer:

Most common manifestation of congenital Rubella syndrome is

Cataract

Chorioretinitis

Deafness

Patent ductus arteriosus

Question: Most common manifestation of congenital Rubella syndrome is Choices: A. Cataract B. Chorioretinitis C. Deafness D. Patent ductus arteriosus Answer:

Congenital Rubella Syndrome has all of the following EXCEPT:

Sensorineural deafness

Cataract

Cardiac Defects

Hydrocephalus

Question: Congenital Rubella Syndrome has all of the following EXCEPT: Choices: A. Sensorineural deafness B. Cataract C. Cardiac Defects D. Hydrocephalus Answer:

The following age group is most severely affected by Rubella infection -

Females aged 25 -- 35 Year

Young girls

Adolescent girls

Unborn child

Question: The following age group is most severely affected by Rubella infection - Choices: A. Females aged 25 -- 35 Year B. Young girls C. Adolescent girls D. Unborn child Answer:

Which of the following is NOT a complication of Congenital Rubella Syndrome (CRS)?

Retinopathy

Spontaneous aboion

Cardiac abnormalities

Macrocephaly

Question: Which of the following is NOT a complication of Congenital Rubella Syndrome (CRS)? Choices: A. Retinopathy B. Spontaneous aboion C. Cardiac abnormalities D. Macrocephaly Answer:

True about Congenital Rubella syndrome is

It will become a chronic infection

Virus can be isolated only upto 6months after bih

Triad of CRS are cataract, cardiac defects, cerebral palsy

Infection is most serious after five months of pregnancy

Question: True about Congenital Rubella syndrome is Choices: A. It will become a chronic infection B. Virus can be isolated only upto 6months after bih C. Triad of CRS are cataract, cardiac defects, cerebral palsy D. Infection is most serious after five months of pregnancy Answer:

The hea lesion not found in Congenital Rubella infection is:

ASD

VSD

PDA

PS

Question: The hea lesion not found in Congenital Rubella infection is: Choices: A. ASD B. VSD C. PDA D. PS Answer:

Maternal Rubella, in newborn causes all Except

Neural tube defects

CVS defects

Cataract

Deafness

Question: Maternal Rubella, in newborn causes all Except Choices: A. Neural tube defects B. CVS defects C. Cataract D. Deafness Answer:

Most common cardiac defect seen in Rubella syndrome

Pulmonary stenosis

VSD

ASD

Mitral regurgitation

Question: Most common cardiac defect seen in Rubella syndrome Choices: A. Pulmonary stenosis B. VSD C. ASD D. Mitral regurgitation Answer:

A pregnant female infected with Rubella. Which of the following immunoglobulin is produced by in-utero infection?

IgG

IgA

IgM

IgD

Question: A pregnant female infected with Rubella. Which of the following immunoglobulin is produced by in-utero infection? Choices: A. IgG B. IgA C. IgM D. IgD Answer:

Peripheral pulmonic stenosis is associated with -a) Subaortic stenosis b) Takayasu's arteritisc) William syndromed) Coarctation of syndromee) Rubella

ce

b

ac

ae

Question: Peripheral pulmonic stenosis is associated with -a) Subaortic stenosis b) Takayasu's arteritisc) William syndromed) Coarctation of syndromee) Rubella Choices: A. ce B. b C. ac D. ae Answer:

A 37 year old primi Rh negative patient is very concerned above her pregnancy at this age. Her pregnancy is 16 weeks and she is HIV negative, hepatitis B surface Ag neg, Rubella non immune and has no complain.Her triple test report is normal but still due to her age she insists on getting an amniocentesis done.Which of the following is the next best step in management:

Advise against amniocentesis as it will increase the risk of isoimmunisation

Follow Rh titres carefully and give Anti D if evidence of isoimmunisation is present

Give Anti D at 28 weeks of pregnancy and after delivery if baby is Rh neg

Give Anti D prior to her amniocentesis

Question: A 37 year old primi Rh negative patient is very concerned above her pregnancy at this age. Her pregnancy is 16 weeks and she is HIV negative, hepatitis B surface Ag neg, Rubella non immune and has no complain.Her triple test report is normal but still due to her age she insists on getting an amniocentesis done.Which of the following is the next best step in management: Choices: A. Advise against amniocentesis as it will increase the risk of isoimmunisation B. Follow Rh titres carefully and give Anti D if evidence of isoimmunisation is present C. Give Anti D at 28 weeks of pregnancy and after delivery if baby is Rh neg D. Give Anti D prior to her amniocentesis Answer:

Rubella causes all except

Microcephaly

VSD

PDA

AS

Question: Rubella causes all except Choices: A. Microcephaly B. VSD C. PDA D. AS Answer:

Honeycombimg of lung in C.X.R. is seen in – a) R.A.b) T.B.c) Sclerodermad) Carcinomae) Interstitial lung disease

bcde

abce

acde

abde

Question: Honeycombimg of lung in C.X.R. is seen in – a) R.A.b) T.B.c) Sclerodermad) Carcinomae) Interstitial lung disease Choices: A. bcde B. abce C. acde D. abde Answer:

Diffuse esophageal dilatation on barium swallow is seen in – a) Achlasiab) Trypanosomiasisc) Etidronate therapyd) Scleroderma

ac

ab

ad

bc

Question: Diffuse esophageal dilatation on barium swallow is seen in – a) Achlasiab) Trypanosomiasisc) Etidronate therapyd) Scleroderma Choices: A. ac B. ab C. ad D. bc Answer:

All the following are features of Scleroderma except-

Dysphagia

Raynand's phenomenon

Skin contracture

Clacification in all the long bones

Question: All the following are features of Scleroderma except- Choices: A. Dysphagia B. Raynand's phenomenon C. Skin contracture D. Clacification in all the long bones Answer:

A patient of Scleroderma presents with acute respiratory distress. Chest X-ray shows B/L reticular basilar shadows. What is the next line of investigation in this patient?

Echocardiography to look for Cor pulmonale

High resolution CT

Pulmonary function test

Contrast enhanced CT scan

Question: A patient of Scleroderma presents with acute respiratory distress. Chest X-ray shows B/L reticular basilar shadows. What is the next line of investigation in this patient? Choices: A. Echocardiography to look for Cor pulmonale B. High resolution CT C. Pulmonary function test D. Contrast enhanced CT scan Answer:

Hepatitis C virus is associated with -a) Anti LKM - I antibodyb) Sclerodermac) Cryoglobulinemiad) Polyarteritis nodosa

a

ac

ad

b

Question: Hepatitis C virus is associated with -a) Anti LKM - I antibodyb) Sclerodermac) Cryoglobulinemiad) Polyarteritis nodosa Choices: A. a B. ac C. ad D. b Answer:

All the following are features of Scleroderma except

Dysphagia

Raynaud's phenomenon

Skin contracture

Calcification in all the long bones

Question: All the following are features of Scleroderma except Choices: A. Dysphagia B. Raynaud's phenomenon C. Skin contracture D. Calcification in all the long bones Answer:

Scleroderma involves:

Tightening of oraL mucosa and periodontal involvement

Multiple palmar keratosis

Raynaud's phenomenon

All of the above

Question: Scleroderma involves: Choices: A. Tightening of oraL mucosa and periodontal involvement B. Multiple palmar keratosis C. Raynaud's phenomenon D. All of the above Answer:

HCV is associated with -a) Anti LKM-1 antibody b) Sclerodermac) Cryoglobulinemiad) Polyarteritis nodosa

a

ac

ad

b

Question: HCV is associated with -a) Anti LKM-1 antibody b) Sclerodermac) Cryoglobulinemiad) Polyarteritis nodosa Choices: A. a B. ac C. ad D. b Answer:

Raynaud's phenomenon is seen in - a) Scleroderma b) Reiter 's disease c) Rheumatoid arthritis d) Behcet's syndrome e) Mixed connective tissue disease

ace

acd

abc

cde

Question: Raynaud's phenomenon is seen in - a) Scleroderma b) Reiter 's disease c) Rheumatoid arthritis d) Behcet's syndrome e) Mixed connective tissue disease Choices: A. ace B. acd C. abc D. cde Answer:

All of the following are features of Scleroderma are following except

Diffuse periosteal reaction

Esophageal dysmotility

Erosion of tip of phalanges

Lung Nodular infiltrates

Question: All of the following are features of Scleroderma are following except Choices: A. Diffuse periosteal reaction B. Esophageal dysmotility C. Erosion of tip of phalanges D. Lung Nodular infiltrates Answer:

Teduglutide is a recently introduced drug for Short Bowel Syndrome- What is it?

GLP- 2 analogue

GLP anta agonist

Somatostatin analogue

H1 blocker

Question: Teduglutide is a recently introduced drug for Short Bowel Syndrome- What is it? Choices: A. GLP- 2 analogue B. GLP anta agonist C. Somatostatin analogue D. H1 blocker Answer:

The type of mutation that leads to replacement of Valine for glutamate in Sickle Cell Disease is

Point mutation

Silent mutation

Nonsense mutation

None

Question: The type of mutation that leads to replacement of Valine for glutamate in Sickle Cell Disease is Choices: A. Point mutation B. Silent mutation C. Nonsense mutation D. None Answer:

Drug of choice for EGFR T790M mutation of Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer is

Lapatinib

Crizotinib

Alemtuzumzb

Osimeinib

Question: Drug of choice for EGFR T790M mutation of Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer is Choices: A. Lapatinib B. Crizotinib C. Alemtuzumzb D. Osimeinib Answer:

Where was the last case of Smallpox occured?

Somalia

Libya

Sudan

Uganda

Question: Where was the last case of Smallpox occured? Choices: A. Somalia B. Libya C. Sudan D. Uganda Answer:

Smallpox vaccine was introduced by

Paul Ehrlich

Robe Koch

Louis Pasteur

Edward Jenner

Question: Smallpox vaccine was introduced by Choices: A. Paul Ehrlich B. Robe Koch C. Louis Pasteur D. Edward Jenner Answer:

Smallpox vaccine was discovered by:

Edward Jenner

Louis pasteur

Salk

Sabin

Question: Smallpox vaccine was discovered by: Choices: A. Edward Jenner B. Louis pasteur C. Salk D. Sabin Answer:

Smallpox eradication was declared by WHO in 1980. All of the following epidemiological factors are have a role in eradication of smallpox, EXCEPT:

Patients with subclinical infections did not transmit the disease

Vaccine was highly effective

Cross-immunity from other animal poxviruses

Life-long immunity

Question: Smallpox eradication was declared by WHO in 1980. All of the following epidemiological factors are have a role in eradication of smallpox, EXCEPT: Choices: A. Patients with subclinical infections did not transmit the disease B. Vaccine was highly effective C. Cross-immunity from other animal poxviruses D. Life-long immunity Answer:

Smallpox vaccine was introduced by:

Paul Ehrlich

Robert Koch

Louis Pasteur

Edward Jenner

Question: Smallpox vaccine was introduced by: Choices: A. Paul Ehrlich B. Robert Koch C. Louis Pasteur D. Edward Jenner Answer:

All of the following drugs are used for managing Status Epilepticus except :-

Phenytoin

Diazepam

Thiopentone sodium

Carbamazepine

Question: All of the following drugs are used for managing Status Epilepticus except :- Choices: A. Phenytoin B. Diazepam C. Thiopentone sodium D. Carbamazepine Answer:

Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis is a rare and dangerous complication of;

Measles

Mumps

Rubella

Varicella

Question: Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis is a rare and dangerous complication of; Choices: A. Measles B. Mumps C. Rubella D. Varicella Answer:

Which of the following is false about Takotsubo Cardiomyopathy

Due to major catecholamine discharge

Lv Contractile dysfunction

Presents with acute chest pain

Echo never reverts back to normal

Question: Which of the following is false about Takotsubo Cardiomyopathy Choices: A. Due to major catecholamine discharge B. Lv Contractile dysfunction C. Presents with acute chest pain D. Echo never reverts back to normal Answer:

Which is not true about Tardive Dyskinesia (TD):

Clozapine is useful

Dopaminergic super sensitivity is the cause

Usually seen in perioral area

Combining anticholinergics with antipsychotics Prevents TD

Question: Which is not true about Tardive Dyskinesia (TD): Choices: A. Clozapine is useful B. Dopaminergic super sensitivity is the cause C. Usually seen in perioral area D. Combining anticholinergics with antipsychotics Prevents TD Answer:

Which among the following drug is not used in the treatment of Tetralogy of Fallot?

β blocker

α agonists

Calcium channel blockers

Morphine

Question: Which among the following drug is not used in the treatment of Tetralogy of Fallot? Choices: A. β blocker B. α agonists C. Calcium channel blockers D. Morphine Answer:

Tetralogy of Fallot classically consists of the combination of ail except -

Obstruction to right ventricular outflow (pulmonary' stenosis)

Ventricular septal defect (VSD)

Dextroposition of the aorta with septal over-ride

Left ventricular hypertrophy

Question: Tetralogy of Fallot classically consists of the combination of ail except - Choices: A. Obstruction to right ventricular outflow (pulmonary' stenosis) B. Ventricular septal defect (VSD) C. Dextroposition of the aorta with septal over-ride D. Left ventricular hypertrophy Answer:

NOT a feature of Tetralogy of Fallot among the following

Cyanosis

Ejection Systolic Murmur

Pan Systolic murmur

Single S2

Question: NOT a feature of Tetralogy of Fallot among the following Choices: A. Cyanosis B. Ejection Systolic Murmur C. Pan Systolic murmur D. Single S2 Answer:

NOT seen in Tetralogy of Fallot is

Pulmonary stenosis

Right Ventricular hypertrophy

Ventricular septal defect

Overriding of Aorta

Question: NOT seen in Tetralogy of Fallot is Choices: A. Pulmonary stenosis B. Right Ventricular hypertrophy C. Ventricular septal defect D. Overriding of Aorta Answer:

Tetralogy of Fallot's present with one of the following –

Cenral cyanosis with clubbing

Cardiomegaly

Left ventricular hypertrophy

Normal ECG and Chest x-ray

Question: Tetralogy of Fallot's present with one of the following – Choices: A. Cenral cyanosis with clubbing B. Cardiomegaly C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Normal ECG and Chest x-ray Answer:

All of the following are true regarding Tetralogy of Fallot except -

Ejection systolic murmur in second intercostal space

Single second hea sound

Predominantly left to right shunt

Normal jugular venous pressure

Question: All of the following are true regarding Tetralogy of Fallot except - Choices: A. Ejection systolic murmur in second intercostal space B. Single second hea sound C. Predominantly left to right shunt D. Normal jugular venous pressure Answer:

Components of Tetralogy of Fallot is/are ?

VSD

Lt. Ventricular hyperophy

Lt. Axis detion

All

Question: Components of Tetralogy of Fallot is/are ? Choices: A. VSD B. Lt. Ventricular hyperophy C. Lt. Axis detion D. All Answer:

All of the following are true regarding Tetralogy of Fallot except

Ejection systolic murmur in second intercostal space

Single second hea sound

Predominantly left to right shunt

Normal jugular venous pressure

Question: All of the following are true regarding Tetralogy of Fallot except Choices: A. Ejection systolic murmur in second intercostal space B. Single second hea sound C. Predominantly left to right shunt D. Normal jugular venous pressure Answer:

All of the following are true regarding Tetralogy of Fallot except –

Ejection systolic murmur in second intercostal space

Single second heart sound

Predominantly left to right shunt

Normal jugular venous pressure

Question: All of the following are true regarding Tetralogy of Fallot except – Choices: A. Ejection systolic murmur in second intercostal space B. Single second heart sound C. Predominantly left to right shunt D. Normal jugular venous pressure Answer:

Which of the following is true about Tetralogy of Fallot?

Cyanosis is often present in the first few days of life

There is a right sided aoic arch in about 50% of cases

The murmur becomes so er during a cyano c spell as flow through the pulmonary valve is increased

There is an association with DiGeorge syndrome

Question: Which of the following is true about Tetralogy of Fallot? Choices: A. Cyanosis is often present in the first few days of life B. There is a right sided aoic arch in about 50% of cases C. The murmur becomes so er during a cyano c spell as flow through the pulmonary valve is increased D. There is an association with DiGeorge syndrome Answer:

All of the following are components/features of Tetralogy of Fallot, EXCEPT

RV outlet obstruction

Left ventricular hypertrophy

Aorta over riding VSD

Malaligned VSD

Question: All of the following are components/features of Tetralogy of Fallot, EXCEPT Choices: A. RV outlet obstruction B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. Aorta over riding VSD D. Malaligned VSD Answer:

Tetralogy of Fallot's present with one of the following?

Cenral cyanosis with clubbing

Cardiomegaly

Left ventricular hyperophy

Normal ECG and Chest x-ray

Question: Tetralogy of Fallot's present with one of the following? Choices: A. Cenral cyanosis with clubbing B. Cardiomegaly C. Left ventricular hyperophy D. Normal ECG and Chest x-ray Answer:

A 4-month-old infant with Tetralogy of Fallot presents with fever and loose stools. Which of the following is compatible with the diagnosis of Tetralogy spells?

O2 saturation < 70% in room air

Inability to hear a murmur

Hepatomegaly

S3 gallop rhythm

Question: A 4-month-old infant with Tetralogy of Fallot presents with fever and loose stools. Which of the following is compatible with the diagnosis of Tetralogy spells? Choices: A. O2 saturation < 70% in room air B. Inability to hear a murmur C. Hepatomegaly D. S3 gallop rhythm Answer:

True about 'Tetralogy of Fallot' (TOF) are all of the following EXCEPT?

It is the most common congenital cyanotic hea disease in children

Severity of disease depends on the severity of pulmonary stenosis

Atrial septal defect is one of the components of TOF

Boot shaped hea is seen on chest X ray

Question: True about 'Tetralogy of Fallot' (TOF) are all of the following EXCEPT? Choices: A. It is the most common congenital cyanotic hea disease in children B. Severity of disease depends on the severity of pulmonary stenosis C. Atrial septal defect is one of the components of TOF D. Boot shaped hea is seen on chest X ray Answer:

Tetralogy of Fallot's present with one of the following:

Cenral cyanosis with clubbing

Cardiomegaly

Left ventricular hypertrophy

Normal ECG and Chest x-ray

Question: Tetralogy of Fallot's present with one of the following: Choices: A. Cenral cyanosis with clubbing B. Cardiomegaly C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Normal ECG and Chest x-ray Answer:

A6 month old child with Tetralogy of Fallot develops cyanotic spell initiated by crying. Which one of the following drugs you would like to avoid –

Sodium bicarbonate

Propranolol

Phenylephrine

Isoprenaline

Question: A6 month old child with Tetralogy of Fallot develops cyanotic spell initiated by crying. Which one of the following drugs you would like to avoid – Choices: A. Sodium bicarbonate B. Propranolol C. Phenylephrine D. Isoprenaline Answer:

All are true regarding Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura except:

Normal ADAMTS levels

Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia

Thrombocytopenia

Thrombosis

Question: All are true regarding Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura except: Choices: A. Normal ADAMTS levels B. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia C. Thrombocytopenia D. Thrombosis Answer:

Which of the following characteristics of Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) makes it distinguished from Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP)?

Brisk Reticulocytosis

The Number of Schistocytes

Reduction of Coagulation Factor

Significant Thrombocytopenia

Question: Which of the following characteristics of Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) makes it distinguished from Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP)? Choices: A. Brisk Reticulocytosis B. The Number of Schistocytes C. Reduction of Coagulation Factor D. Significant Thrombocytopenia Answer:

All of the following are used in the treatment of Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura, Except.

Plasmapharesis

Coicosteroids

Immunotherapy

Heparin

Question: All of the following are used in the treatment of Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura, Except. Choices: A. Plasmapharesis B. Coicosteroids C. Immunotherapy D. Heparin Answer:

Killing of Thyroid Cancer cells By I-131 is mainly by

Alpha Rays

X rays

Beta Rays

Gamma Rays

Question: Killing of Thyroid Cancer cells By I-131 is mainly by Choices: A. Alpha Rays B. X rays C. Beta Rays D. Gamma Rays Answer:

The following vaccine, if contaminated can cause Toxic Shock Syndrome (TSS) -

Measles vaccine

DPT

Hepatitis B

Typhoral

Question: The following vaccine, if contaminated can cause Toxic Shock Syndrome (TSS) - Choices: A. Measles vaccine B. DPT C. Hepatitis B D. Typhoral Answer:

Toxic Shock Syndrome is most commonly caused by: March 2005

Sterptococcus pneumoniae

Staphylococcus aureus

Vibrio cholerae

Clostridium tetani

Question: Toxic Shock Syndrome is most commonly caused by: March 2005 Choices: A. Sterptococcus pneumoniae B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Vibrio cholerae D. Clostridium tetani Answer:

Which of the following vaccine is associated with Toxic Shock Syndrome?

Infected BCG vaccine

Infected DPT vaccine

Infected Polio vaccine

Infected Measles vaccine

Question: Which of the following vaccine is associated with Toxic Shock Syndrome? Choices: A. Infected BCG vaccine B. Infected DPT vaccine C. Infected Polio vaccine D. Infected Measles vaccine Answer:

Streptococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome is due to

Erythrogenic toxin

Enterotoxin F

Enteoxin C

None

Question: Streptococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome is due to Choices: A. Erythrogenic toxin B. Enterotoxin F C. Enteoxin C D. None Answer:

TSS (Toxic Shock Syndrome) is caused mainly by:

Streptococci

Staphylococci

Pneumococci

Pseudomonas

Question: TSS (Toxic Shock Syndrome) is caused mainly by: Choices: A. Streptococci B. Staphylococci C. Pneumococci D. Pseudomonas Answer:

Treacher Collins Syndrome is

Maxiaofacial Dysostosis

MandibuLofacial Dysostosis

Maxillomandibutofacial Dysostosis

Condylar Dysostosis

Question: Treacher Collins Syndrome is Choices: A. Maxiaofacial Dysostosis B. MandibuLofacial Dysostosis C. Maxillomandibutofacial Dysostosis D. Condylar Dysostosis Answer:

All of the following statements about Trigeminal Neuralgia are true Except:

Most commonly involves Ophthalmic Division (V3) of Maxillary Nerve

Attacks most commonly occur during the day

Affects women more than men

More common on the Right Side

Question: All of the following statements about Trigeminal Neuralgia are true Except: Choices: A. Most commonly involves Ophthalmic Division (V3) of Maxillary Nerve B. Attacks most commonly occur during the day C. Affects women more than men D. More common on the Right Side Answer:

Trisomy 18 is known as -

Edward Syndrome

Patau sundrome

Cat eye syndrome

Down's syndrome

Question: Trisomy 18 is known as - Choices: A. Edward Syndrome B. Patau sundrome C. Cat eye syndrome D. Down's syndrome Answer:

The eponymus Trisomy 18 is

Cri du chat syndrome

Patau's syndrome

Down's syndrome

Edward's syndrome

Question: The eponymus Trisomy 18 is Choices: A. Cri du chat syndrome B. Patau's syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Edward's syndrome Answer:

Most common pa of larynx involved in Tuberculosis is

Anterior

Posterior

Middle

Anywhere

Question: Most common pa of larynx involved in Tuberculosis is Choices: A. Anterior B. Posterior C. Middle D. Anywhere Answer:

Steroids are useful in treating Tuberculosis patient with-

Endobronchial tuberculosis

Tuberculous osteomyelitis

Lymphadenitis

Pneumonia

Question: Steroids are useful in treating Tuberculosis patient with- Choices: A. Endobronchial tuberculosis B. Tuberculous osteomyelitis C. Lymphadenitis D. Pneumonia Answer:

A 30 year old male patient was on Isoniazid therapy for Tuberculosis.He developed rashes on exposed pas of body.He has disoriented memory. Family members gives history of diarrhea also.What is the diagnosis?

Isoniazid neuropathy

Tuberculosis skin lesions

Niacin deficiency

Some other drugs has caused this

Question: A 30 year old male patient was on Isoniazid therapy for Tuberculosis.He developed rashes on exposed pas of body.He has disoriented memory. Family members gives history of diarrhea also.What is the diagnosis? Choices: A. Isoniazid neuropathy B. Tuberculosis skin lesions C. Niacin deficiency D. Some other drugs has caused this Answer:

Which is the commonest ocular manifestation of Tuberculosis?

Phlyctenular conjunctivitis

Choroiditis

Eales' disease

Acute Retinal necrosis

Question: Which is the commonest ocular manifestation of Tuberculosis? Choices: A. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis B. Choroiditis C. Eales' disease D. Acute Retinal necrosis Answer:

Which of the following is not a feature of Tuberculosis of the spine:

Back pain earliest symptom

Stiffness of back

Exaggerated lumbar lordosis

Cold abscess

Question: Which of the following is not a feature of Tuberculosis of the spine: Choices: A. Back pain earliest symptom B. Stiffness of back C. Exaggerated lumbar lordosis D. Cold abscess Answer:

Tuberculosis of skin is called as – a) Lupus vulgarisb) Lupus pernioc) Lupus profundusd) Scrofuloderma

b

c

ad

ab

Question: Tuberculosis of skin is called as – a) Lupus vulgarisb) Lupus pernioc) Lupus profundusd) Scrofuloderma Choices: A. b B. c C. ad D. ab Answer:

All of the following statements about Miliary Tuberculosis are true Except -

May occur following primar in fection

May occur follwoing secondary reactivation

Sputum microscopy is usually negative

Montoux is always positive

Question: All of the following statements about Miliary Tuberculosis are true Except - Choices: A. May occur following primar in fection B. May occur follwoing secondary reactivation C. Sputum microscopy is usually negative D. Montoux is always positive Answer:

All of the following statements about Miliary Tuberculosis are true Except:

May occur following primary infection

May occur following secondary reactivation

Sputum microscopy is usually negative

Montoux is always positive

Question: All of the following statements about Miliary Tuberculosis are true Except: Choices: A. May occur following primary infection B. May occur following secondary reactivation C. Sputum microscopy is usually negative D. Montoux is always positive Answer:

What is cutaneous Tuberculosis secondary to underlying tissue lymph node called

Scrofuloderma

Lupus vulgaris

Spina ventosa

None of the above

Question: What is cutaneous Tuberculosis secondary to underlying tissue lymph node called Choices: A. Scrofuloderma B. Lupus vulgaris C. Spina ventosa D. None of the above Answer:

Management of a newborn when Mother has active Tuberculosis & is taking ATT –

BCG + Rifampicin + INH + Breast Feeding

BCG + Isolation of baby

BCG + INH for 6 week + Breast Feeding

BCG – F 1NH + with hold Breast Feeding

Question: Management of a newborn when Mother has active Tuberculosis & is taking ATT – Choices: A. BCG + Rifampicin + INH + Breast Feeding B. BCG + Isolation of baby C. BCG + INH for 6 week + Breast Feeding D. BCG – F 1NH + with hold Breast Feeding Answer:

Tuberculosis of spine best diagnostic modality is:

Clinical

X-ray

MRI

CT guided biopsy

Question: Tuberculosis of spine best diagnostic modality is: Choices: A. Clinical B. X-ray C. MRI D. CT guided biopsy Answer:

McKneown’s Theory states that reduced prevalence of Tuberculosis occurs due to

Enhanced knowledge and awareness

Medical advancements

Behavioural modification

Social and environmental factors

Question: McKneown’s Theory states that reduced prevalence of Tuberculosis occurs due to Choices: A. Enhanced knowledge and awareness B. Medical advancements C. Behavioural modification D. Social and environmental factors Answer:

Tuberculosis verrucosa cutis is a form of:-

Tuberculid

Primary tuberculosis

Post primary tuberculosis with good resistance

Post primary tuberculosis with poor resistance

Question: Tuberculosis verrucosa cutis is a form of:- Choices: A. Tuberculid B. Primary tuberculosis C. Post primary tuberculosis with good resistance D. Post primary tuberculosis with poor resistance Answer:

The type of necrosis seen in Tuberculosis:

Gummatous

Coagulative

Caseation

Liquefactive

Question: The type of necrosis seen in Tuberculosis: Choices: A. Gummatous B. Coagulative C. Caseation D. Liquefactive Answer:

Resistance to drugs in Tuberculosis develops by -

Transduction

Conjugution

Transformation

Mutation

Question: Resistance to drugs in Tuberculosis develops by - Choices: A. Transduction B. Conjugution C. Transformation D. Mutation Answer:

Mycobacterium causing lung infection are a) Mycobacterium Tuberculosis b) Mycobacterium Kansasii c) Mycobacterium Fortuitum d) Mycobacterium avium intracellularae e) Mycobacterium Scrofuloceuml

abd

abc

acd

bcd

Question: Mycobacterium causing lung infection are a) Mycobacterium Tuberculosis b) Mycobacterium Kansasii c) Mycobacterium Fortuitum d) Mycobacterium avium intracellularae e) Mycobacterium Scrofuloceuml Choices: A. abd B. abc C. acd D. bcd Answer:

The most common cause of paraplegia of early onset of Tuberculosis of spine is:

Spinal artery thrombosis

Sudden collapse of vertebra

Sequestrum pressing on cord

Cold abscess pressing on the cord

Question: The most common cause of paraplegia of early onset of Tuberculosis of spine is: Choices: A. Spinal artery thrombosis B. Sudden collapse of vertebra C. Sequestrum pressing on cord D. Cold abscess pressing on the cord Answer:

All the following are true of Tuberculosis except -a) For sputum to be positive,bacilli should be > 104/ mlb) Niacin test differentiates M. tuberculosis and M. bovisc) Pathogenicity to rabbits differentiates M. tuberculosis and M. bovisd) Culture techniques have low sensitivity

ab

bc

cd

ac

Question: All the following are true of Tuberculosis except -a) For sputum to be positive,bacilli should be > 104/ mlb) Niacin test differentiates M. tuberculosis and M. bovisc) Pathogenicity to rabbits differentiates M. tuberculosis and M. bovisd) Culture techniques have low sensitivity Choices: A. ab B. bc C. cd D. ac Answer:

All the following are true of Tuberculosis except ?

For sputum to be positive, (A194) bacilli should be > 1

Niacin test differentiates M. tuberculosis and M. bovis

Pathogenicity to rabbits differentiates M. tuberculosis and M. bovis

All

Question: All the following are true of Tuberculosis except ? Choices: A. For sputum to be positive, (A194) bacilli should be > 1 B. Niacin test differentiates M. tuberculosis and M. bovis C. Pathogenicity to rabbits differentiates M. tuberculosis and M. bovis D. All Answer:

Transitional cell carcinoma of bladder is associated with -a) Schistosomiasisb) Naphthylaminec) Smokingd) Tuberculosis of bladder

ab

abc

acd

bcd

Question: Transitional cell carcinoma of bladder is associated with -a) Schistosomiasisb) Naphthylaminec) Smokingd) Tuberculosis of bladder Choices: A. ab B. abc C. acd D. bcd Answer:

WhiCh of the following drugs is most likely to be effective against multi drug resistant strains big M. Tuberculosis including those resistant to Streptomycin

Amikacin

Claruthromycin

Gentamicin

Spectinomycin

Question: WhiCh of the following drugs is most likely to be effective against multi drug resistant strains big M. Tuberculosis including those resistant to Streptomycin Choices: A. Amikacin B. Claruthromycin C. Gentamicin D. Spectinomycin Answer:

Commonest route of spread of Tuberculosis to genital tract is:

Lymphatic spread

Hematogenous spread

Direct spread

Sexually transmitted

Question: Commonest route of spread of Tuberculosis to genital tract is: Choices: A. Lymphatic spread B. Hematogenous spread C. Direct spread D. Sexually transmitted Answer:

Patient diagnosed with HIV and Tuberculosis. How to sta ATT and c-A.R.T

Sta ATT first

Sta cA first

Sta both simultaneously

Sta cA only

Question: Patient diagnosed with HIV and Tuberculosis. How to sta ATT and c-A.R.T Choices: A. Sta ATT first B. Sta cA first C. Sta both simultaneously D. Sta cA only Answer:

A patient is diagnosed with HIV and Tuberculosis. How should ATT and c-A.R.T be staed?

Sta ATT first

Sta cA first

Sta both simultaneously

Sta cA only

Question: A patient is diagnosed with HIV and Tuberculosis. How should ATT and c-A.R.T be staed? Choices: A. Sta ATT first B. Sta cA first C. Sta both simultaneously D. Sta cA only Answer: