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Incomplete closure of palpebral apeure is called: March 2004: (A) Lagophthalmos, (B) Chalazion, (C) Entropion, (D) Ectropion | Answer is A. Ans. A i.e. Lagophthalmos | |
Galactokinesis means :: (A) Sustaining lactation, (B) Secretion of milk, (C) Ejection of milk, (D) Synthesis of milk | Answer is C. Ejection of milk | |
The tendon of Sartorius, gracilis, and semi-tendinosus muscles forms a Pes Anserinus at the neck of tibia. Similar kind of structure is also seen in?: (A) Parotid, (B) Submandibular, (C) Cheek, (D) TMJ | Answer is A. None | |
Serological testing of patient shows HBsAg, IgM Anti-HBc and HBeAg positive . The patient has-: (A) Chronic hepatitis B with low infectivity, (B) Acute hepatitis B with high infectivity, (C) Chronic hepatitis with high in fectivity, (D) Acute on chronic hepatitis | Answer is B. HBs Ag is the first marker appear in the blood after infection. Anti HBc is the earliest antibody seen in blood. HBeAg indicates infectivity REF:MICROBIOLOGY ANANTHA NARAYANAN NINTH EDITION PAGE.546&547 | |
All of the following are seen in GH deficiency except?: (A) Hyperglycemia, (B) Stunting, (C) Delayed bone age, (D) High pitched voice | Answer is A. From late in the first year until mid-teens, poor growth and/ or shoness is the hallmark of childhood GH deficiency. It tends to be accompanied by delayed physical maturation so that bone maturation and pubey may be delayed by several years. Severe GH deficiency in early childhood also results in slower mu... | |
Hydatidiform - mole, characterized histologically by: (A) Hyaline membrane degeneration, (B) Hydropic degeneration of the villous stroma, (C) Non proliferation of cytotrophoblasts, (D) Non proliferation of syncytiotrophoblasts | Answer is B. (Hydropic degeneration of the villous storma): Ref: 193-97, 201-DHYDATIDIFORM MOLE (Vesicular mole) - It is an abnormal condition of placenta where there are partly degenerative and partly proliferative changes in the young chorionic villi.* It is best regarded as a benign neoplasm of the chorion with mali... | |
The nerve impulse which leads to initiation of smooth muscle contraction: (A) Cause opening of the calcium channel which leads to increase in Ca+2 contraction, (B) Cause both plasma membrane and T - tubules to undergo depolarisation, (C) Inhibits Na+ entry in sarcomere, (D) Is initiated by binding of acetylcholine to r... | Answer is A. Ans. (a) Cause opening of the calcium channel which leads to increase in Ca2+ contraction(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.116)The never impulse which leads to initiation of smooth muscle contraction Cause opening of the calcium channel which leads to increase in Ca2+ contraction | |
In a family, the father has widely spaced eyes, increased facial hair and deafness. One of the three children has deafness with similar facial features. The mother is normal. Which one of the following is most likely pattern of inheritance in this case?: (A) Autosomal dominant, (B) Autosomal recessive, (C) X-linked dom... | Answer is A. A i.e. Autosomal dominant (most likely) Waardenburg's Syndrome (WS) is a rare autosomal dominant syndrome characterized by pigmentary disturbances (skin, hair, iris), sensorineural hearing loss, and other developmental anomalies such as dystopia canthorum (widely spaced eyes) and blepharophimosis. The synd... | |
All of the following statements about Heparin are true, except:: (A) Causes Alopecia, (B) Non Teratogenic, (C) Releases Lipoprotein Lipase, (D) Causes Hypokalemia | Answer is D. Heparin inhibits the production of aldosterone. It thus lead to severe Hyperkalemia and not hypokalemia as mentioned in the choice above. Ref: Harrison's Textbook of Internal Medicine, 16th edition, Page 1261; K D Tripathi Textbook of Pharmacology, 5th Edition, Pages 561-63 | |
Tigroid white matter on MRI is seen in?: (A) Pantothenate kinase deficiency, (B) Pelizaeus-merzbacher disease, (C) Neuroferritinopathy, (D) Aceruloplasminemia | Answer is B. The tigroid pattern/ leopard skin sign occurs on MRI head is seen in Pelizaeus-merzbacher disease, due to creation of islands of perivascular myelin due patchy myelin deficiency. It is a rare hypomyelination syndrome caused by mutation in proteolipid protein, PLP 1 gene at chromosome Xq22. Child will show ... | |
Which of the following is the Nysten's law: (A) Cadaveric rigidity does not appear in hot humid conditions, (B) Cadaveric rigidity appears faster in older and the young than in middle age, (C) Cadaveric rigidity occurs in men earlier than in woman, (D) Cadaveric rigidity affects successively the masticatory muscles, th... | Answer is D. In rigor mois, all muscles of body, both voluntary and involuntary are involved. Externally it first appears in the eye lids, then lower jaw, muscles of the face, neck upper limbs and lastly lower limbs. This descending pattern or proximodistal progression is called Nysten's law. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND... | |
If a drug is active against the pre-erythrocytic stage of the malarial parasite it will be useful as a:: (A) Suppressive prophylactic, (B) Causal prophylactic, (C) Clinical curative, (D) Radical curative | Answer is B. If a drug is active against the pre-erythrocytic stage of the malarial parasite it will be useful as a Causal prophylactic. Stage killed Clinical Use Pre-erythrocytic Causal Prophylaxis Erythrocytic Clinical cure Suppressive Prophylaxis Exo-erythrocytic Radical cure Gametocytic Prevention of transmission | |
All are true statement about tracheostomy and larynx in children except:: (A) Omega shaped epiglottis, (B) Laryngeal cailages are soft and collapsable, (C) Larynx is high in children, (D) Trachea can be easily palpated | Answer is D. Infant's larynx differs from adult in:It is situated high up (C2 - C4).Q (in adults = C3 - C6)Of equal size in both sixes (in adults it is larger in males)Larynx is funnel shapedThe narrowest pa of the infantile larynx is the junction of subglottic larynx with trachea and this is because cricoid cailage is... | |
Drug NOT used in pulmonary hypeension is?: (A) Calcium channel blocker, (B) Endothelin receptor antagonist, (C) Alpha blocker, (D) Prostacyclin | Answer is C. alpha blockers Pulmonary hypeension General management Diuretic therapy may be useful as it relieves pulmonary edema. Anticoagulant therapy is advocated for all patients. Specific management Calcium channel blockers Patients who have substantial reductions in pulmonary aerial pressure in response to sho ac... | |
Which of the following is a good prognostic factor in ALL:: (A) High WBC count, (B) Male sex, (C) Age < 2 years, (D) Hyperdiploidy | Answer is D. Answer is D (Hyperdiploidy): Hyperdiploidy is associated with a good prognosis Hyperdiploidy is associated with a good prognosis Patients with hyperdiploidy (>50 chromosomes) or DNA index > 0.16 have a ourable prognosis - Age < 2 years has a poor prognosis Patients who are very young (< 2 years) and older ... | |
A 28 year old labourer, 3 yrs back presented with penile ulcer which was not treated. Later he presented with neurological symptoms for which he got treated. Which is the test to monitor response to treatment?: (A) VDRL, (B) FTA ABS, (C) TPI, (D) RPR | Answer is A. This is a case of neurosyphilis. A positive nontreponemal CSF serologic test result (CSF VDRL) establishes the diagnosis of neurosyphilis (and an increased cell count in response to the spirochete documents the presence of active disease). In VDRL test, the inactivated serum is mixed with cardiolipin antig... | |
70 year old man has abdominal pain with mass inabdomen. Angiography reveals aneurysm of aoa. Mostlikely cause is:: (A) Trauma, (B) Atherosclerosis, (C) Syphilis, (D) Congenital | Answer is B. . Atherosclerosis | |
Which of the following is false regarding neonatal resuscitation?: (A) T - tube delivers free flow oxygen, (B) Self - inflating bag should not be used without reservoir, (C) Self - inflating bag can deliver free flow oxygen, (D) Flow inflating bag delivers free flow oxygen | Answer is B. 1. T - tube delivers free flow oxygen - TRUE 2. Self - inflating bag should not be used without reservoir - FALSE - can be used but FiO2 will be less. 3. Self - inflating bag can deliver free flow oxygen - TRUE 4. Flow inflating bag delivers free flow oxygen - TRUE | |
The most impoant prognostic factor of Wilms tumor-: (A) Histopathology, (B) Ploidy of cells, (C) Age < 1 y, (D) Mutation of c 1p gene | Answer is A. Robbins basic pathology 10th edition page no 290. Wilms tumor or nephroblastoma is the most common primary tumor of the kidney in children. On microscopic examination, Wilms tumors are characterized by recognizable attempts to recapitulate different stages of nephrogenesis. The pattern of anaplastic cells ... | |
The relationship of mean height of two group of children is best studied by-: (A) Student's test, (B) Linear regression, (C) Chi-square test, (D) Test of propoions | Answer is A. . | |
Advantage of brachytherapy – a) Non-invasiveb) Less radiation hazard to normal tissuec) Max.radiation to diseased tissued) Can be given in all malignanciese) Doesn't require trained personnel: (A) a, (B) c, (C) ac, (D) bc | Answer is D. As the radiotherapy source is placed directly in contact with tumor, maximum radiation exposure occurs to tumor tissue with relative sparing of adjacent normal tissue.
Brachytherapy is invasive and requires trained personnel.
Brachytherapy can be used in most (not all) of the malignancies where radiotherap... | |
Acyl carnitine functions in:: (A) Transport of long chain fatty acid, (B) Transport of short chain fatty acid, (C) Transport of NADH, (D) Transport of FADH | Answer is A. Ans: a (Transport of long....) Ref: Vasudevan, 4th ed, p. 129The long chain fatty acyl CoA cannot pass through the inner mitochondrial membrane. There fore a transporter, carnitine is involved in transfer of fatty acids.Beta oxidation:Beta oxidation is absent in brain and erythrocytes (because erythrocytes... | |
Fatal period in sulphuric acid poisoning is :: (A) 2-4 hours, (B) 6-10 hoursd, (C) 12-16 hours, (D) 8-14 hours | Answer is C. C i.e. 12 -16 hours | |
Most common method of anterior capsulotomy in phacoemulsification: (A) Can-opener capsulotomy, (B) Intercapsular capsulotomy, (C) Capsulorhexis, (D) Envelop capsulotomy | Answer is C. Answer- C. CapsulorhexisThe most commonly used technique for anterior capsulotomy during phacoemulsification is continuous curvilinear capsulorhexis (CCC). | |
A 26 year old female patients presents to emegency with history of consuming hair dye paraphenylenediamine . What shall be the expected outcome in such patient ?: (A) Blindness, (B) Nerve pathology, (C) Dermatitis, (D) Rhabdomyolysis | Answer is D. Hair dye poisoning(Paraphenylenediamine ): Cost-effective alternative to Organophosphate poisoning Readily available to masses. Clinical manifestations are Angioedema leading to dysphasia and respiratory distress, Rhabdomyolysis, Intravascular hemolysis, Acute renal failure and hepatic necrosis. Myocarditi... | |
Generally, radiotherapy should not be used for treating benign conditions. The only possible exception being:: (A) Chondromyxoid fibroma, (B) Extensive pigmented villonodular synovitis, (C) Benign fibrous histiocytoma, (D) Desmoplastic fibroma so extensive that it cannot be surgically excise | Answer is B. Ans. B. Extensive pigmented villonodular synovitisPVNS is commonly seen around knee. Synovial inflammation occurs due to cholesterol and pigment deposition. Radiotherapy may alleviate this disease. Else one has to go with synovectomy. Malignant transformation is reported but very rare.SYNOVIAL SARCOMA is a... | |
Blockade of nerve conduction by a local anaesthetic is characterized by -: (A) Greater potential to block a resting nerve as compared to a stimulated nerve, (B) Need to cross the cell membrane to produce the block, (C) Large myelinated fibers are blocked before small myelinated fibers, (D) Cause consistant change of re... | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Need to cross the cell membrane to produce the block Penetration of axonal membrane by L.A. o Local anaesthetics are weak bases and are used in the form of acid salts (usually HCL). o They penetrate the axoplasmic membrane in unionized form (unionize molecules are lipid soluble and diffus... | |
Presence of spiral grooves in the barrel of weapon is referred to as:: (A) Rifling, (B) Incendiary, (C) Cocking, (D) None of the above | Answer is A. Ans. (A). RiflingShotgunRifled gunCHOKING:* The terminal few cms (7-10) is constricted in shot guns.* Reduces the pelletsdispersionQ* Increases the explosive forces of the pellets.* Increases the velocity of the pellets.RIFLING:* Interior of bore has spiral grooves which run parallel to each other, but twi... | |
Duhamel procedure is done for -: (A) Hirschsprung's disease, (B) HPSS, (C) Meckels diverticulum, (D) Volvulus | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Hirschsprung's disease * Surgery in Hirschsprung's disease aims to remove the aganglionic segment and 'pull-through' ganglionic bowel to the anus (e.g. Swenson, Duhamel, Soave and transanal procedures) and can be done in a single stage or in several stages after first establishing a proxi... | |
Post coital test showing non motile sperms in the cervical smear and Motile sperms from the posterior fornix suggests :: (A) Faulty coital practice, (B) Immunological defect, (C) Hypospadias, (D) Azoospermia | Answer is A. Ans. is a i.e. Immunological defect Post coital test is a test for evaluation of the potential role of cervical factor in infeility. The couple is advised intercourse close to ovulation time, in the early hours of morning (preferably) The woman presents herself at the clinic within 2 hours after the interc... | |
The current Global strategy for malaria control is called –: (A) Modified plan of operation, (B) Malaria Eradication Programme, (C) Malaria Control Programme, (D) Roll back Malaria | Answer is D. None | |
Which of the following is a first-generation Cephalosporin used for surgical prophylaxis?: (A) Ceftriaxone, (B) Cefoxitin, (C) Cefazolin, (D) Cefepime | Answer is C. First-Generation Cephalosporins: include - Cefazolin, Cephalexin, Cephradine, Cefadroxil, Cephalothin and Cephapirin Cefazolin is good for skin preparation as it is active against skin infections from S.pyogenes and MRSA. It is administered Intramuscular or Intravenous (i.e Parenteral drug).It is a drug of... | |
"Birbeck granules" are seen in: (A) Melanosomes, (B) Lamellar bodies, (C) Keratohyalin granules, (D) Langerhan cells | Answer is D. "Tennis racket" shaped Birbeck granules are seen in Langerhan cells, which are antigen presenting cells present in epidermis. | |
For each extra-articular manifestation of RA, select the most likely diagnosis.Associated with increased frequency of infections.: (A) Felty syndrome, (B) rheumatoid vasculitis, (C) episcleritis, (D) Sjogren syndrome | Answer is A. Felty syndrome consists of chronic RA, splenomegaly, and neutropenia. The increased frequency of infections is due to both decreased number and function of neutrophils. | |
Bakers cyst is a type of:: (A) Pulsion diveiculum of knee joint, (B) Retention cyst, (C) Bursitis, (D) Benign tumor | Answer is A. Baker's cyst:- It is a pulsion diveiculum of knee joint.- It usually found in the posterior aspect of the knee joint.- It is associated with medial meniscal injury. | |
Most common cranial nerve involved in ophthalmoplegic migraine is:: (A) II nerve, (B) III nerve, (C) V nerve, (D) VI nerve | Answer is B. Ans. III nerve | |
Position of wrist in cast of colle's fracture is:: (A) Palmar detion & pronation, (B) Palmar detion & supination, (C) Dorsal detion & pronation, (D) Dorsal detion & supination | Answer is A. A . i.e. Palmar detion & pronation | |
. Gall stones -: (A) Are about twice as common in men as in women, (B) There is an increased incidence of stones in diabetics, (C) About 80-90% of gall stones are radio-opaque, (D) Are usually more than 50 mm in diameter | Answer is B. None | |
Dental procedures for which antibiotic of choice for the prophylaxis of endocarditis in adults is (Note: Patient is allergic to penicillin and he is not able to take oral medicine):: (A) Clarithromycin 500mg 1 hr. before dental procedures, (B) Cephalexin 2g 1 hour before dental procedures, (C) Cefadroxil 2g 1 hour befo... | Answer is D. None | |
Neonate triangular cord sign on USG is seen in -: (A) Galactosemia, (B) Biliary atresia, (C) Hepatitis, (D) None | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Biliary atresiao Triangular cord sign is seen in biliary ateria due to fibrosis. | |
Surgery for elective hemicolectomy for carcinoma colon is described as -: (A) Clean, (B) Clean contaminated, (C) Dirty, (D) Contaminated | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Clean contaminated | |
Concentration of adrenaline used with lidocaine is?: (A) 0.180555556, (B) 1.430555556, (C) 1:20000, (D) 1:200000 | Answer is D. (334) 1 in 200000 REF: Miller 6th ed p. 589 USES AND DOSES OF ADRENALINE: USE DOSE Anaphylaxis SC or IM injection is 0.3-0.5 mg 1:1,000 Croup Racemic adrenaline is a 1:1 mixture of the dextrototary (d) and levorotatory (1) isomers of adrenaline Local anesthetics 1 in 200000 | |
Patient on treatment on carbidopa + levodopa for 10 yrs now has weaning off effect. What should be added to restore action -: (A) Tolcapone, (B) Amantadine, (C) Rasagiline, (D) Benzhexol | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Tolcapone o Both entacapone and tolcapone enhance and prolong the therapeutic effect of levodopa-carbidopa in advanced and fluctuating parkinsons disease. They may be used to smoothen off the 'wearing off', increase 'on' time and decrease loff' time, improve activities of daily living and... | |
A 33-year-old man has never been vaccinated for hepatitis B. Serologic tests reveal negative hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) and positive antibody to surface antigen. Which of the following conditions does this serologic pattern best fit with?: (A) previous hepatitis B infection, (B) chronic active hepatitis, (C) a... | Answer is A. The antibody can be demonstrated in 80-90% of patients, usually late in convalescence, and indicates relative or absolute immunity. In contrast, HBsAg occurs very early and disappears in < 6 months. Persistence of HBsAg indicates chronic infection. The pattern in this patient is also seen postvaccination, ... | |
Which of the following is seen in cystic fibrosis?: (A) Low sweat chloride levels, (B) Elevated sweat chloride levels, (C) Low sweat sodium levels, (D) Elevated sweat potassium levels | Answer is B. b. Elevated sweat chloride levels(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2100)Because the function of sweat gland duct cells is to absorb rather than secrete chloride, salt is not retrieved from the isotonic primary sweat as it is transported to the skin surface; chloride and sodium levels are consequently elevated. So swea... | |
All of the following are true for retinopathy of prematurity except:: (A) Occurs in premature infants due to late crying, (B) Due to hypoxia there occurs neovascularization followed by fibroproliferation, (C) End result is bilateral blindness, (D) Blindness can be prevented by early diagnosis and ablation of vascular p... | Answer is A. Ans. Occurs in premature infants due to late crying | |
The diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is ceain in which of the following situations?: (A) Abnormal oral glucose tolerance in a 24-yrs-old woman who has been dieting, (B) Successive fasting plasma glucose concentrations of 8, 9, and 8.5 mmol/L in an asymptomatic, otherwise healthy businesswoman, (C) A serum glucose level >... | Answer is B. The occurrence of hyperglycemic ketoacidosis or hyperglycemic hyperosmolar coma is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. Similarly, persistent fasting hyperglycemia , even if it is asymptomatic, has been recommended by the National Diabetes Data Group as a criterion for the diagnosis of diabetes. However, abnor... | |
Features of alcohol withdrawl are all EXCEPT: March 2013: (A) Epileptic seizure, (B) Restlessness, (C) Hallucination, (D) Hypersomnolence | Answer is D. Ans. D i.e. Hypersomnolence Alcohol and psychiatry Wernicke's encephalopathy involves: Mammilary bodies Korsakoff's syndrome presents as: - Profound and persistent anterograde amnesia and Confabulation Feature of alcoholic paranoia: Hallucination Questionarrie used: CAGE Alcohol withdrawl: - Visual and tac... | |
The number of line angles in a permanent maxillary central incisor is: (A) Two, (B) Four, (C) Six, (D) Eight | Answer is C. None | |
The opercular poion of the cerebral coex that contains Broca's area is which of the following?: (A) Superior frontal gyrus, (B) Inferior frontal gyrus, (C) Cingulate sulcus, (D) Insula | Answer is B. Motor speech area of Broca (Brodmann's area 44, 45) occupies the opercular and triangular poions of the inferior frontal gyrus of the dominant hemisphere. Broca's area is formed of two minor gyri, called pars opercularis and pars triangularis, that lie in the posterior end of the inferior frontal gyrus. Th... | |
Autopsy is known by all names except ?: (A) Obduction, (B) Necropsy, (C) Biopsy, (D) Postmoem examination | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Biopsy An autopsy (also known as a post-moem examination, obduction, necropsy, or autopsia cadaverum) is a highly specialized surgical procedure that consists of a thorough examination of a corpse by dissection to determine the cause and manner of death and to evaluate any disease or inju... | |
Which of the following has strongest association with osteosarcoma?: (A) Wilms tumor, (B) Retinoblastoma, (C) Rhabdomyosarcoma, (D) Ewings tumor | Answer is B. Retinoblastoma and osteosarcoma both can occur due to mutation in common gene i.e RB gene. Hence both have strongest association. | |
Most useful for sex determination is: Kerala 08: (A) Skull, (B) Femur, (C) Pelvis, (D) Tibia | Answer is C. Ans. Pelvis | |
Features of shock: (A) Decreased GFR, (B) Increased renin, (C) Decreased rennin, (D) Decreased Coisol | Answer is A. In early clinical septic shock, renal function was lower, which was accompanied by renal vasoconstriction, a lower renal oxygen delivery, impaired renal oxygenation, and tubular sodium reabsorption at a high oxygen cost compared with controls decrease or decline in the GFR implies progression of underlying... | |
DOC for listeria meningitis:: (A) Ampicillin, (B) Cefotaxime, (C) Cefotriaxone, (D) Ciprofloxacin | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ampicillin Treatment of listeria infectiono The antibiotic of choice for listeria infection is ampicillin or penicillin G.Antibiotic regimens for listeria infection||||First line regimensPenicillin allergic patientsAlternative drugso Ampicillin or Penicillin is the drug of choiceo Trimeth... | |
All of the following statements about neuromuscular blockage produced by succinylcholine are true, except:: (A) No fade on Train of four stimulation, (B) Fade on tetanic stimulation, (C) No post tetanic facilitation, (D) Train of four ratio > 0.4 | Answer is B. Succinylcholine is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker. With succinylcholine no fading is observed after train of four or tetanic stimulation. All four stimulatory responses after TOF stimulation are suppressed to the same extent. REF : Smith and atkenhead 10th ed | |
A man is stuck with lathi on the lateral aspect of the head of the fibula. Which of the following can occur as a result of nerve injury: (A) Loss of sensation of lateral foot, (B) Loss of sensation of adjacent sides of 1st & 2nd toe, (C) Inversion inability, (D) Loss of dorsiflexion | Answer is D. The common peroneal nerve is extremely vulnerable to injury as it winds around the neck of the fibula if that happens, clinical features are:Motor loss-a)The foot drop is due to paralysis of muscles of anterior compament of the leg (dorsiflexors of the foot) {dorsiflexion not possible}.b)Loss of extension ... | |
Contraception with increased risk of actinomycosis -: (A) OCPs, (B) Condom, (C) IUCD, (D) Vaginal | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., IUCD o Actinomycosis may occur by use of IUCD.Side effects and complications of lUDs1. Bleeding - Most common2. Pain - Second major side effect3. Pelvic infection - PID4. Uterine perforation5. Pregnancy6. Ectopic pregnancy7. Expulsion8. Mortality' - extremely rare | |
A six year old male baby presents to a hospital with recurrent gross hematuria for 2 years. There is no h/o burning micturition or pyuria. Urine routine examination demonstrated no pus cells and urine culture was sterile. Serum C3 levels were normal. What is the most probable diagnosis-: (A) Wilm's tumour, (B) IgA neph... | Answer is A. Wilms tumor is a rare kidney cancer that is highly treatable. Most kids with Wilms tumor survive and go on to live normal, healthy lives. Also known as nephroblastoma, Wilms tumor can affect both kidneys, but usually develops in just one Wilms' Tumor; Nephroblastoma) Wilms tumor is an embryonal cancer of t... | |
Diagnosis of carcinoid tumors is done by:: (A) 5HIAA, (B) DHEA, (C) DHEA, (D) Metanephrines | Answer is A. Answer is A (5HIAA): The diagnosis of typical carcinoid tumors is done by measurement of 5HIAA levels. Diagnosis of Carcinoid Tumors (Harrison) The diagnosis of carcinoid syndrome relies on measurement of urinary or plasma serotonin or its metabolites in the urine. Typical carcinoid syndrome (high level of... | |
A 6 years child has foreign body in trachea .Best initial management is: (A) Heimlich's maneuver, (B) Cardiac massage, (C) Intubation, (D) Oxygen mask with IPPV | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e.Heimlich's maneuver The best option here is Heimlich's maneuver."Heimlich man oeuvre: stand behind the person and place your arms around his lower chest and give four abdominal thrusts. The residual air in the lungs may dislodge the foreign body providing some airway. "Heimlich's maneuveris... | |
Stapes develops from:: (A) 1st arch, (B) 2nd arch, (C) 3rd arch, (D) 4th arch | Answer is B. Malleus and incus are derived from mesoderm of 1" arch. Stapes develops from second arch except its footplate and annular ligament which are derived from the otic capsule. | |
Buerger waves (alpha waves) of EEG have the rhythm per sec of -: (A) 0-4, (B) 7-Apr, (C) 13-Aug, (D) 13-30 | Answer is C. C i.e. 8-13 | |
Type of cataract in chalcosis is: (A) Sunflower cataract, (B) Blue dot Cataract, (C) Snowflake cataract, (D) Polychromatic lustre | Answer is A. Answer- A. Sunflower cataract | |
Following are more common in multipara women than primipara woman, EXCEPT:: (A) Anemia, (B) Placenta pre, (C) PIH, (D) None of the above | Answer is C. The incidence of preeclampsia in multiparas is variable but is less than that for primiparas. Risk factors associated with pre-eclampsia: Primigravida (young and elderly) Family history (Hypeension, pre-eclampsia, eclampsia) Placental abnormalities Poor placentation Hyperplacentosis Placental ischemia Mola... | |
Which category of ICD is associated with schizophrenia: (A) F0, (B) F1, (C) F2, (D) F3 | Answer is C. ICD ICD mentions International classification of mental and behavioural disorders this was given by WHO( World health Organisation) ICD is used all over the world except America latest edition of ICD is ICD11 ICD 11 was released in 2018 DSM DSM mentions Diagnostic and Statistical manual of mental disorders... | |
Terminal axillary draining lymph nodes -: (A) Anterior, (B) Posterior, (C) Scapular, (D) Apical | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Apical o The apical group of axillary lymph node receives lymph from anterior (pectoral), posterior (subscapular), central and lateral (humeral) group of axillary lymph nodes. Hence apical group of lymph node is the terminal group of axillary lymph node.Axillary lymph nodeRelated vesselsA... | |
True about gastric acid secretion:: (A) Secretion ,l,ses with secretin, (B) H2 blockers prevent release, (C) Total acid output indicates parietal cell mass activity, (D) All | Answer is D. A i.e. Secretion decreases with secretin B i.e., H2 blocker prevents relapse C i.e., Total acid output indicates parietal cell mass activity | |
All of the swelling moves with deglutition except: March 2012: (A) Thyroglossal cyst, (B) Thyroid swelling, (C) Branchial cyst, (D) Tuberculous lymph nodes | Answer is C. Ans: C i.e. Branchial cyst Swellings which are adherent to the larynx and trachea moves on swallowing, e.g. thyroid swelling, thyroglossal cyst & subhyoid bursitis. Tuberculous & malignant lymph nodes when they become fixed to the larynx or trachea will also move on deglutition | |
Shakir's tape is an example of:: (A) Community paicipation, (B) Intersectoral coordination, (C) Equitable distribution, (D) Appropriate technology | Answer is D. Norms under Appropriate technology: Technology that is scientifically sound. adaptable to local needs. acceptable to those who apply it and those for whom it is used. can be maintained using the locally available resources. - Shakir's tape used to measure mid-arm circumference of child accept all the above... | |
In pyogenic liver abscess commonest route of spread: (A) Hematogenous through poal vein., (B) Ascending infection through biliary tract, (C) Hepatic aery, (D) Local spread | Answer is B. "Along with cryptogenic infections, infections from the biliary tree are presently the most common identifiable cause of the hepatic abscess. Biliary obstruction results in bile stasis, with the potential for subsequent bacterial colonization, infection and ascension into the liver. This process is k/a asc... | |
Most common cause for acute infantile gastroenteritis is?: (A) Adenovirus, (B) E coli, (C) Norwalk virus, (D) Rota virus | Answer is D. ANSWER: (D) Rota virusREF: www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov, J Clin Microbiol v. 26(12); Dec 1988Though none of the text books specifically mention most common causes of acute infantile gastroenteritis, most of the literature search in pubmed , cochrane and medscape and major text books of pediatrics point to: Viruses... | |
Hypotension in acute spinal injury is due to:: (A) Loss of sympathetic tone, (B) Loss of parasympathetic tone, (C) Orthostatic hypotension, (D) Vasovagal attack | Answer is A. • High spinal cord injuries can also result in systemic hypotension because of loss of sympathetic tone.
• The patient will usually have hypotension and relative bradycardia and will show evidence of good peripheral perfusion on physical examination.
• The term neurogenic shock is used but is somewhat of a... | |
What overlies the lateral wall of the mastoid antrum?: (A) Tegmen tympani, (B) Mastoid process, (C) Tympanic plate, (D) Suprameatal triangle | Answer is D. BOUNDARIES: SUPERIORLY-Tegmen tympani and beyond it the temporal lobe of the cerebrum INFERIORLY-Mastoid process containing the mastoid air cells ANTERIORLY-It communicates with the epitympanic recess through the aditus. The aditus is related medially to the ampullae of the superior and lateral semicircula... | |
Ferruginous bodies are seen in?: (A) Silicosis, (B) Bysinosis, (C) Asbestosis, (D) Baggassosis | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Asbestosis "Ferruginous bodies are most commonly seen in asbestosis". ------------Chandrasoma Taylor* Ferruginous bodies represent foreign inorganic or organic fibers coated by complexes of iron and glycoproteins.* While ferruginous bodies are most commonly seen in asbestosis they are not... | |
65-year-old man presents with anaemia and posterior column dysfunction, the likely cause is -: (A) B1-deficit, (B) B12-deficit, (C) SSPE, (D) Multiple selerosis | Answer is B. None | |
Which type of cattle poisoning occurs due to ingestion of LINSEED plant?: (A) Aconite, (B) Atropine, (C) Pilocarpine, (D) Hydrocyanic acid | Answer is D. Hydrocyanic acid is also used as cattle poison. Cattle poisoning has been known to occur from eating linseed plant because of the natural development of a cyanogenic glycoside which may liberate hydrocyanic acid. Ref: Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology By Dr K S Narayan Reddy, 27th Edition, Pag... | |
A 40 year old female patient complains of excessive bleeding and drowsiness. Patient gives a history of road traffic accident 5 hours ago and had a lacerated wound on lower back region. General physical examination reveals-
Blood pressure-80/60mmHg.
Juglar venous pressure- low.
Pulsus paradoxus- present.
Cardiac output... | Answer is C. Includes anaphylactic shock, septic shock and spinal cord injury (neurogenic shock).
Inadequate organ perfusion is associated with vascular dilatation and hypotension, low systemic vascular resistance, inadequate afterload and a resulting abnormally high cardiac output.
In anaphylaxis, vasodilatation is du... | |
Which of the following induction agent produce cardiac stability-: (A) Ketamine, (B) Etomidate, (C) Propofol, (D) Midazolam | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Etomidate Effects of Etomidate on cardiovascular systemEtomidate has minimal effects on the cardiovascular system.It causes mild reduction in peripheral vascular resistance which may cause a slight decline in arterial blood pressure.Myocardial contractility and cardiac output are usually ... | |
Which of the following statement regarding Septic tank is true ?: (A) The minimum capacity of a septic tank should be at least 100 gallons, (B) A capacity of 20-30 gallons or 2 & half to 5 c.ft. per person is recommended for household septic tanks, (C) The length of septic tank is usually equal to its breadth., (D) The... | Answer is B. SEPTIC TANK It is water-tight masonry tank into which household sewage is admitted for treatment. It is satisfactory means of disposing excreta & liquid wastes from individual dwellings, small groups of houses & institutions which have adequate water supplies but do not have access to a public sewerage sys... | |
Following are adverse effects of Clofazimine except: (A) Skin staining, (B) Icthyosis, (C) Diarrhoea, (D) Gastritis | Answer is D. Clofazimine is a brick red, fat-soluble crystalline dye. It has weakly bactericidal action against M. leprae It has an anti-inflammatory effect, which is useful in the management of ENL reactions. High drug concentrations are found in the intestinal mucosa, mesenteric lymph nodes and body fat. The most not... | |
Osteoblastic secondaries arises from: March 2003: (A) Renal carcinoma, (B) Thyroid carcinoma, (C) GIT carcinoma, (D) Prostate carcinoma | Answer is D. Ans. D i.e. Prostate carcinoma Metastases to bones are usually osteolytic. Osteoblastic lesions are uncommon. | |
A 52 year old male presents to his physician with a chief complaint of a substantial increase in the size of his breasts over the past few months. Three months ago he was diagnosed with hypeension, and placed on antihypeensive medication. Which of the following medications was most likely prescribed?: (A) Captopril, (B... | Answer is D. All of the medications listed as answer choices can be effectively used in the treatment of hypeension. Spironolactone is a "potassium-sparing" diuretic that exes its action primarily as a competitive inhibitor of aldosterone receptors in the distal nephron. One of the repoed side effects of spironolactone... | |
True about treatment of nocturnal enuresis: (A) lmipramine, (B) CPZ, (C) Alprazolam, (D) Haloperidol | Answer is A. A i.e. Imipramine | |
50 year old male with positive family history of prostate cancer has come to you for a screening test. The screening test done to pickup prostate cancer is: (A) DRE, (B) PSA, (C) DRE + PSA, (D) Endorectal coil MRI with T1 and T2 W images | Answer is C. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) and Digital rectal examination (DRE) Age 50 for men who are at average risk of prostate cancer and are expected to live at least 10 more years. Age 45 for men at high risk of developing prostate cancer. This includes African Americans and men who have a first-degree relative... | |
Refsum's syndrome is associated with ?: (A) Retinitis pigmentosa, (B) Xerophthalmia, (C) Chalcosis, (D) Diabetes retinopathy | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Retinitis pigmentosa Associations of retinitis pigmentosa Ocular associations : These include myopia, primary open angle glaucoma, microphthalmos, conical cornea and posterior subcapsular cataract. Systemic associations : These are in the form of following syndromes :- i) Laurence-Moon-Bi... | |
All are synonyms for PM staining seen in dependant pas of the body during postmoem, except: PGI 13: (A) Cadaveric lividity, (B) Suggilation, (C) Livor mois, (D) Algor mois | Answer is D. Ans. Algor mois | |
All viruses can be cultured in: (A) Chemically defined media as that used for bacteria, (B) Living systems only, (C) Agar culture, (D) Non living systems also | Answer is B. Viruses can be cultivated in living systems only. | |
Bone marrow finding in myelofibrosis-: (A) Dry tap (hypocellular), (B) Megaloblastic cells, (C) Microcytic cells, (D) Thrombocytosis | Answer is A. Dry tap is usually defined as a "failure to obtain bone marrow on attempted marrow aspiration". The diagnosis and management of many haematological diseases depends on examination of the bone marrow, which involves two separate specimens i.e. a cytologic and a histologic preparation.Bone marrow examination... | |
40 yr old female presented with breast lump of size 4 cm with involvement of skin and mobile palpable axillary LN, FNAC of lesion showed intrductal carcinoma. What is the initial management of for this pt?: (A) Radiotherapy, (B) Neo-adjuvant chemotherapy, (C) Modified radical mastectomy, (D) Simple mastectomy | Answer is B. .Locally Advanced Carcinoma of Breast (LABC) * It means locally advanced tumour with muscle/chest wall involvement, extensive skin involvement or fixed axillary nodes. It will be T3, T4a, T4b, T4c or T4d or N2 or N3. * It is investigated by FNAC of tumor, mammography of opposite breast, chest CT, CT abdome... | |
Pott's spine is commonest at which spine:: (A) Thoracolumbar, (B) Sacral, (C) Cervical, (D) Lumbosacral | Answer is A. ANSWER: (A) ThoracolumbarREF: Apley 387-389, S M Tuli 3rd edition page 192Most common site of skeletal tuberculosis is spine followed by hip and knee SPINE (50%) > HIP > KNEECommonest spine involved in spine TB is Thoracolumbar/Dorsolumbar T12-L1 (Lower thoracic to be precise)LOWER THORACIC > LUMBAR > UPPE... | |
A patient present with lower gastrointestinal bleed. Sigmoidoscopy shows ulcers inthe sigmoid. Biopsy from this area shows flask-shaped ulcers. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment -: (A) Intravenous ceftriaxone, (B) Intravenous metronidazole, (C) Intravenous steroids and sulphasalazine, (D) Hydroco... | Answer is B. This may be caused by haemorrhage from the colon, anal canal or small bowel. It is useful to distinguish those patients who present with profuse, acute bleeding from those who present with chronic or subacute bleeding of lesser severity .Severe acute lower gastrointestinal bleeding .This presents with prof... | |
Lalita, a female pt. presents with pigmentation of the lips and oral mucosa and intestinal polyps. Her sister also gives the same history. Most probable diagnosis is -: (A) Carcinoid tumor, (B) Melanoma, (C) Villous adenoma, (D) Peutz-Jegher syndrome | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' ie. Peutz-jeghers syndrome Peutz-Jeghers syndorme consists of: hamaomatous polyps throughout the intestine with maximum density in the jejunum* melanosis of the oral mucous membrane and the lips. The melanosis takes the form of melanin spots sometimes presents on the digits and the perianal ski... | |
Tripod fracture is the name given for -: (A) Zygomatic fracture, (B) Maxillary fracture, (C) Mandibularfracture, (D) Temporal fracture | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a1 i.e., Zygomatic fracture o Zygoma fracture is also known as tripoid fracture.Clinical features of zygoma fractureo Considerable swelling over zygomatic arch is common and makes clinical diagnosis more difficult.o Flattening of malar prominence.o Step-deformit of infraorbital margin.o Anaesthesi... | |
A 12-year-old boy reported with a class II and div 1 malocclusion with proclined upper incisor and deep bite. Intraoral examination revealed a bilaterally symmetrical face, convex profile, potentially competent Lips with normal incisor display during rest and smile. Cephalometric finding showed that the patient had a h... | Answer is A. None | |
For diagnosis of carcinoma cervix, PAP smear screening is done to: (A) 100% Informative, (B) Detects to change into sarcoma, (C) Prevents progress of the disease, (D) Every six months cervical smear in all sexually active women. | Answer is C. C. i.e. (Prevents progress of the disease) (721- Basic pathology 8th)* PAP smear is highly effective screening tool in the detection of cervical dysplasia and carcinoma and has reduced the incidence of cervical carcinoma* Flow cytometry is used routinely in the classification of leukemias and lymphomas* Pa... | |
SLE like reaction is caused by: (A) Hydralazine, (B) Rifampicin, (C) Paracetamol, (D) Furosemide | Answer is A. SLE like syndrome is caused due to S-SULPHONAMIDES H-HYDRALAZINE I-ISONIAZIDE P-PROCAINAMIDE Ref-KDT 7/e p66 | |
Platelet transfusion is not indicated in -: (A) Dilutional Thrombocytopenia, (B) Immunogenic Thrombocytopenia, (C) Aplastic Anemia, (D) DIC | Answer is B. None | |
The drug of choice in digitalis induced ventricular arrhythmias is:: (A) I.V. Lignocaine, (B) Phenytoin, (C) Quinidine, (D) Procainamide | Answer is A. (IV Lignocaine): Ref: 463-KDT (514-KDT 6th)Treatment of digitalis induced ventricular arrhythmias* Lignocaine IV repeated as required is the drug of choice. It suppresses the excessive automaticity but does not accentuate A V block* Phenytoin is also useful but not preffered now (sudden death occurs)* Quin... | |
Deformity in transient synovitis of Hip ?: (A) Abduction, (B) Flexion, (C) External rotation, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above Transient synovitis of Hip Transient synovitis of hip is also known as observation hip, toxic synovitis or irritable hip. Its a self-limiting, inflammatory condition of the synovium, that lasts only a sho time (therefore known as transient) It is the most common cause of ... |
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