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what percentage of england did the black death kill

Black Death in England - wikipedia The Black Death was a pneumonic plague pandemic, which reached England in June 1348. It was the first and most severe manifestation of the Second Pandemic, caused by Yersinia pestis bacteria. The term "Black Death '' was not used until the late 17th century. Originating in China, it spread west along the trade routes across Europe and arrived on the British Isles from the English province of Gascony. The plague seems to have been spread by flea - infected rats, as well as individuals who had been infected on the continent. Rats were the reservoir hosts of the Y. pestis bacteria and the Oriental rat flea was the primary vector. The first known case in England was a seaman who arrived at Weymouth, Dorset, from Gascony in June 1348. By autumn, the plague had reached London, and by summer 1349 it covered the entire country, before dying down by December. Low estimates of mortality in the early twentieth century have been revised upwards due to re-examination of data and new information, and a figure of 40 -- 60 % of the population is widely accepted. The English government handled the crisis well, and the country did not experience the extreme reactions that were seen elsewhere in Europe. The most immediate consequence was a halt to the campaigns of the Hundred Years ' War. In the long term, the decrease in population caused a shortage of labour, with subsequent rise in wages, resisted by the landowners, which caused deep resentment among the lower classes. The Peasants ' Revolt of 1381 was largely a result of this resentment, and even though the rebellion was suppressed, in the long term serfdom was ended in England. The Black Death also affected artistic and cultural efforts, and may have helped advance the use of the vernacular. In 1361 -- 62 the plague returned to England, this time causing the death of around 20 % of the population. After this the plague continued to return intermittently throughout the 14th and 15th centuries, in local or national outbreaks. From this point on its effect became less severe, and one of the last outbreaks of the plague in England was the Great Plague of London in 1665 -- 66. It is impossible to establish with any certainty the exact number of inhabitants in England at the eve of the Black Death, and estimates range from 3 to 7 million. The number is probably in the higher end, and an estimate of around 6 million inhabitants seems likely. Earlier demographic crises − in particular the Great Famine of 1315 -- 1317 − had resulted in great numbers of deaths, but there is no evidence of any significant decrease in the population prior to 1348. England was still a predominantly rural and agrarian society; close to 90 % of the population lived on the countryside. Of the major cities, London was in a class of its own, with perhaps as many as 70,000 inhabitants. Further down the scale were Norwich, with around 12,000 people, and York with around 10,000. The main export, and the source of the nation 's wealth, was wool. Until the middle of the century the export had consisted primarily of raw wool to cloth makers in Flanders. Gradually though, the technology for cloth making used on the Continent was appropriated by English manufacturers, who started an export of cloths around mid-century that would boom over the following decades. Politically, the kingdom was evolving into a major European power, through the youthful and energetic kingship of Edward III. In 1346, the English had won a decisive battle over the Scots at the Battle of Neville 's Cross, and it seemed that Edward III would realise his grandfather Edward I 's ambition of bringing the Scots under the suzerainty of the English crown. The English were also experiencing military success on the continent. Less than two months before the Battle of Neville 's Cross, a numerically inferior English army led by the king himself won a spectacular victory over the French royal forces at the Battle of Crécy. The victory was immediately followed by Edward laying siege to the port city of Calais. When the city fell the next year, this provided the English with a strategically important enclave that would remain in their possession for over two centuries. The term "Black Death '' -- which refers to the first and most serious outbreak of the Second Pandemic -- was not used by contemporaries, who preferred such names as the "Great Pestilence '' or the "Great Mortality ''. It was not until the seventeenth century that the term under which we know the outbreak today became common, probably derived from Scandinavian languages. It is generally agreed today that the disease in question was plague, caused by Yersinia pestis bacteria. These bacteria are carried by fleas, which can be transferred to humans through contact with rats. Flea bites carry the disease into the lymphatic system, through which it makes its way to the lymph nodes. Here the bacteria multiply and form swellings called buboes, from which the term bubonic plague is derived. After three or four days the bacteria enter the bloodstream, and infect organs such as the spleen and the lungs. The patient will then normally die after a few days. A different strain of the disease is pneumonic plague, where the bacteria become airborne and enter directly into the patient 's lungs. This strain is far more virulent, as it spreads directly from person to person. These types of infection probably both played a significant part in the Black Death, while a third strain was more rare. This is the septicaemic plague, where the flea bite carries the bacteria directly into the blood stream, and death occurs very rapidly. A study reported in 2011 of skeletons exhumed from the "Black Death '' cemetery in East Smithfield London found Yersina Pestis DNA. An archeological dig in the vicinity of Thornton Abbey in Lincolnshire was reported in the science section of The Guardian for November 30, 2016 not only confirming evidence of the Yersina Pestis DNA in the human remains exhumed there but also dated them to mid-1349. Genotyping showed that it was (at that time) a newly evolved strain, ancestor of all modern strains and proved the "Black Death '' was bubonic plague. Modern medical knowledge suggests that because it was a new strain human immune system would have had little or no defense against it, which helps to explain its virulence and high death rates. The "Black Death '' seems to have originated in Central Asia, where Yersina Pestis bacterium is endemic in the rodent population. It is unknown exactly what caused the outbreak, but a series of natural occurrences likely brought humans into contact with the infected rodents. The epidemic reached Constantinople in the late spring of 1347, through Genoese merchants trading in the Black Sea. From here it reached Sicily in October that same year, and by early 1348 it had spread all over the Italian mainland. It spread rapidly through France, and had reached as far north as Paris in June 1348. Moving simultaneously westward, it arrived in the English province of Gascony around the same time. Grey Friars ' Chronicle According to the chronicle of the grey friars at King 's Lynn, the plague arrived by ship from Gascony to Melcombe in Dorset -- today normally referred to as Weymouth -- shortly before "the Feast of St. John The Baptist '' on 24 June 1348. Other sources mention different points of arrival, including Bristol and Southampton. Though the plague might have arrived independently at Bristol at a later point, the Grey Friars ' Chronicle is considered the most authoritative account. If it is assumed that the chronicle reports the first outbreak of the plague, rather than its actual arrival, then the arrival most likely happened around 8 May. From Weymouth the disease spread rapidly across the south - west. The first major city to be struck was Bristol. London was reached in the autumn of 1348, before most of the surrounding countryside. This had certainly happened by November, though according to some accounts as early as 29 September. Arrival in London happened by three principal roads: overland from Weymouth -- through Salisbury and Winchester -- overland from Gloucester, and along the coast by ship. The full effect of the plague was felt in the capital early the next year. Conditions in London were ideal for the plague: the streets were narrow and flowing with sewage, and houses were overcrowded and poorly ventilated. By March 1349 the disease was spreading in a haphazard way across all of southern England. During the first half of 1349 the Black Death spread northwards. A second front opened up when the plague arrived by ship at the Humber, wherefrom it spread both south and north. In May it reached York, and during the summer months of June, July and August, it ravaged the north. Certain northern counties, like Durham and Cumberland, had been the victim of violent incursions from the Scots, and were therefore left particularly vulnerable to the devastations of the plague. Pestilence is less virulent during the winter months, and spreads less rapidly. The Black Death in England had survived the winter of 1348 -- 49, but during the following winter it gave in, and by December 1349 conditions were returning to relative normalcy. It had taken the disease approximately 500 days to traverse the entire country. In order to treat patients infected with the plague, various methods were used including sweating, bloodletting, forced vomiting, and urinating. Several symptoms of the illness included blotches, hardening of the glands under the groin and underarms, and dementia. Within the initial phase of the disease, bloodletting was performed on the same side of where the physical manifestations of the buboes or risings appeared. For instance, if a rising appeared on the right side of the groin the physician would bleed a vein in the ankle on the same side. In the case of sweating, it was achieved with such medicines as Mithridate, Venice - Treacle, Matthiolus, Bezoar - Water, Serpentary Roots and Electuarium de Ovo. Sweating was used when measures were desperate; if a patient had tokens, a severe version of risings, the physician would wrap the naked patient in a blanket drenched in cold water. This measure was only performed while the patient still had natural heat in his system. The desired effect was to make the patient sweat violently and thus purge all corruption from the blood which was caused by the disease. Another practice was the use of pigeons when treating swellings. Swellings which were white in appearance and deep were unlikely to break and must be anointed with Oil of Lillies or Camomil. Once the swelling rises to a head and is red in appearance and not deep in the flesh, it can be broken with the use of a feather from a young pigeon 's tail. The feather 's fundament was held to the swelling and would draw out the venom. However, if the swelling dropped and became black in appearance since it had taken in coldness, the physician had to be cautious when drawing the cold from the swelling. If it was too late to prevent, the physician would take the young pigeon, cut her open from breast to back, break her open and apply the pigeon (while still alive) over the cold swelling. The cupping therapy was an alternative method which was heated and then placed over the swellings. Once the sore was broken, the physician would apply Mellilot Plaister with Linimentum Arcei and heal the sore with digence. Although historical records for England were more extensive than those of any other European country, it is still extremely difficult to establish the death toll with any degree of certainty. Difficulties involve uncertainty about the size of the total population, as described above, but also issues regarding the proportion of the population that died from the plague. Contemporary accounts are often grossly inflated, stating numbers as high as 90 %. Modern historians give estimates of death rates ranging from around 25 % to over 60 % of the total population. The pioneering work in the field was made by Josiah William Russell in his 1948 British Medieval Population. Russell looked at inquisitions post mortem (IPMs) -- taken by the crown to assess the wealth of the greatest landowners after their death -- to assess the mortality caused by the Black Death, and from this arrived at an estimate of 23.6 % of the entire population. He also looked at episcopal registers for the death toll among the clergy, where the result was between 30 -- 40 %. Russell believed the clergy was at particular risk of contagion, and eventually concluded with a low mortality level of only 20 %. Several of Russell 's assumptions have been challenged, and the tendency since has been to adjust the assessment upwards. Philip Ziegler, in 1969, estimated the death rate to be at around one third of the population. Jeremy Goldberg, in 1996, believed a number closer to 45 % would be more realistic. A 2004 study by Ole Jørgen Benedictow suggests the exceptionally high mortality level of 62.5 %. Assuming a population of 6 million, this estimate would correspond to 3,750,000 deaths. Such a high percentage would place England above the average that Benedictow estimates for Western Europe as a whole, of 60 %. A death rate at such a high level has not been universally accepted in the historical community. In 2016, Carenza Lewis reported the results of a new method of assessing the death toll. She argues that pottery before and after the Black Death is datable because there was a change at that time from the high medieval to the late medieval style, and that counts of pottery of each type therefore provide a useful proxy for long term changes in population. She and her colleagues analysed pottery sherds from test pits in over fifty continuously occupied rural settlements in eastern England, and found a decline in the number of pottery producing pits of 45 %. Norfolk had the greatest drop of 65 %, while there was no drop in 10 % of settlements, mostly commercial centres. Archbishop Zouche of York issued a warning throughout the diocese in July 1348 (when the epidemic was raging further south) of ' great mortalities, pestilences and infections of the air '. The ' Great Mortality ', as it was then known, entered Yorkshire around February 1349 and quickly spread through the diocese. The clergy were on the front line of the disease, bringing comfort to the dying, hearing final confessions and organising burials. This, almost by necessity, put them at a greater risk of infection. Estimates suggest that the death rate of clergy in some parts of the archdiocese could have been as high as 48 %. This is reflected in the Ordination Register, which shows a massive rise in ordained clergy over the period -- some being recruited before the arrival of plague in a clerical recruitment drive, but many once plague had arrived, replacing those who had been killed. The nation 's population decreased by a third causing a labor shortage and giving the lower class negotiating power against their overlords. In 1346, 111 priests and 337 acolytes were recruited. In 1349, 299 priests and 683 acolytes are named, with 166 priests being ordained in one session alone in February 1350. '' Russell trusted the IPMs to give a true picture of the national average, because he assumed death rates to be relatively equal across the social spectrum. This assumption has later been proven wrong, and studies of peasant plague mortality from manor rolls have returned much higher rates. This could be a consequence of the elite 's ability to avoid infection by escaping plague - infected areas. It could also result from lower post-infection mortality among those more affluent, due to better access to care and nursing. If so, this would also mean that the mortality rates for the clergy -- who were normally better off than the general population -- were no higher than the average. Edward III in a letter to King Alfonso of Castile The manorial records offer a good opportunity to study the geographical distribution of the plague. Its effect seems to have been about the same all over England, though a place like East Anglia, which had frequent contact with the Continent, was severely affected. On a local level, however, there were great variations. A study of the Bishop of Worcester 's estates reveal that, while his manors of Hartlebury and Hambury had a mortality of only 19 %, the manor of Aston lost as much as 80 % of its population. The manor rolls are less useful for studying the demographic distribution of the mortality, since the rolls only record the heads of households, normally an adult male. Here the IPMs show us that the most vulnerable to the disease were infants and the elderly. There seem to have been very few victims of the Black Death at higher levels of society. The only member of the royal family who can be said with any certainty to have died from the Black Death was in France at the time of her infection. Edward III 's daughter Joan was residing in Bordeaux on her way to marry Pedro of Castile in the summer of 1348. When the plague broke out in her household she was moved to a small village nearby, but she could not avoid infection, and died there on 2 September. It is possible that the popular religious author Richard Rolle, who died on 30 September 1349, was another victim of the Black Death. The English philosopher William of Ockham has been mentioned as a plague victim. This, however, is an impossibility. Ockham was living in Munich at the time of his death, on 10 April 1347, two years before the Black Death reached that city. Among the most immediate consequences of the Black Death in England was a shortage of farm labour, and a corresponding rise in wages. The medieval world - view was unable to interpret these changes in terms of socio - economic development, and it became common to blame degrading morals instead. The landowning classes saw the rise in wage levels as a sign of social upheaval and insubordination, and reacted with coercion. In 1349, King Edward III passed the Ordinance of Labourers, fixing wages at pre-plague levels. The ordinance was reinforced by Parliament 's passing of the Statute of Labourers in 1351. The labour laws were enforced with ruthless determination over the following decades. These legislative measures proved largely inefficient at regulating the market, but the government 's repressive measures to enforce them caused public resentment. These conditions were contributing factors to the Peasants ' Revolt in 1381. The revolt started in Kent and Essex in late May, and once the rebels reached London they burnt down John of Gaunt 's Savoy Palace, and killed both the Chancellor and the Treasurer. They then demanded the complete abolition of serfdom, and were not pacified until the young King Richard II personally intervened. The rebellion was eventually suppressed, but the social changes it promoted were already irreversible. By around 1400 serfdom was virtually extinct in England, replaced by the form of tenure called copyhold. It is conspicuous how well the English government handled the crisis of the mid-fourteenth century, without descending into chaos and total collapse in the manner of the Valois government of France. To a large extent this was the accomplishment of administrators such as Treasurer William de Shareshull and Chief Justice William Edington, whose highly competent leadership guided the governance of the nation through the crisis. The plague 's greatest effect on the government was probably in the field of war, where no major campaigns were launched in France until 1355. Another notable consequence of the Black Death was the raising of the real wage of England (due to the shortage of labour as a result of the reduction in population), a trait shared across Western Europe, which in general led to a real wage in 1450 that was unmatched in most countries until the 19th or 20th century. The higher wages for workers combined with sinking prices on grain products led to a problematic economic situation for the gentry. As a result, they started to show an increased interest for offices like justice of the peace, sheriff and member of parliament. The gentry took advantage of their new positions and a more systematic corruption than before spread. A result of this was that the gentry as a group became highly disliked by commoners. The omnipresence of death also inspired greater piety in the upper classes, which can be seen in the fact that three Cambridge colleges were founded during or shortly after the Black Death. England did not experience the same trend of roving bands of flagellants, common on the continent. Neither were there any pogroms against the Jews, since the Jews had been expelled by Edward I in 1290. In the long run, however, the increase in public participation may have served to challenge the absolute authority of the church hierarchy, and thus possibly helped pave the way for the Protestant Reformation. The high rate of mortality among the clergy naturally led to a shortage of priests in many parts of the country. The clergy were seen to have an elevated status among ordinary people and this was partly due to their closeness with God, being his envoys on earth. However, as the church itself had given the cause of the Black Death to be the impropriety of the behaviour of men, the higher death rate among the clergy led the people to lose faith in the Church as an institution − it had proved as ineffectual against the horror of Y. Pestis as every other medieval institution. The corruption within the Catholic priesthood also angered the English people. Many priests abandoned the terrified people. Others sought benefits from the rich families who needed burials. The dissatisfaction led to anti-clericalism and the rise of John Wycliffe, an English priest. His ideas paved a path for the Christian reformation in England. Some people did n't lose their Christian faith, if anything it was renewed; they began to long for a more personal relationship with God − around the time after the Black Death many chantries (private chapels) began to spread in use from not just the nobility, but to among the well to do. This change in the power of the papacy in England is demonstrated by the statutes of Praemunire. The Black Death also affected arts and culture significantly. It was inevitable that a catastrophe of such proportions would affect some of the greater building projects, as the amount of available labour fell sharply. The building of the cathedrals of Ely and Exeter was temporarily halted in the years immediately following the first outbreak of the plague. The shortage of labour also helped advance the transition from the Decorated style of building to the less elaborate Perpendicular style. The Black Death may also have promoted the use of vernacular English, as the number of teachers proficient in French dwindled. This, in turn, would have contributed to the late - fourteenth century flowering of English literature, represented by writers such as Geoffrey Chaucer and John Gower. The Black Death was the first occurrence of the Second Pandemic, which would continue to strike England and the rest of Europe more or less regularly until the eighteenth century. The first serious recurrence in England came in the years 1361 − 62. We know less about the death rates caused by these later outbreaks, but this so - called pestis secunda may have had a mortality of around 20 %. This epidemic was also particularly devastating for the population 's ability to recover, since it disproportionately affected infants and young men. This was also the case with the next occurrence, in 1369, where the death rate was around 10 − 15 %. Over the following decades the plague would return -- on a national or a regional level -- at intervals of five to twelve years, with gradually dwindling death tolls. Then, in the decades from 1430 to 1480, the disease returned in force. An outbreak in 1471 took as much as 10 -- 15 % of the population, while the death rate of the plague of 1479 -- 80 could have been as high as 20 %. From this point on outbreaks became fewer and more manageable. This was to a large extent the result of conscious efforts by central and local governments -- from the late fifteenth century onwards -- to curtail the disease. By the seventeenth century the Second Pandemic was over. One of its last occurrences in England was the famous Great Plague of London in 1665 -- 66.

in and out of love by bon jovi

In and Out of Love (Bon Jovi song) - wikipedia "In and Out of Love '' is a single by American rock band Bon Jovi. It is taken from their second album, 7800 ° Fahrenheit and is also featured on the band 's best - of album Cross Road, and Disc Two of their Greatest Hits album. A live version of the song, recorded in Tokyo during summer 1985, can be found on the album One Wild Night Live 1985 - 2001. In an interview, Bon Jovi said that he wrote the song while watching MTV 's Top 20 Video Countdown. The single entered the Billboard Rock chart in July 1985, peaking at No. 37. It entered the Hot 100 in August and peaked at No. 69, holding that position for two weeks.

when is black ink chicago coming back 2018

Black Ink Crew: Chicago - Wikipedia Black Ink Crew: Chicago is an American reality television series that airs on VH1 and debuted on October 26, 2015. It is the Chicago - based spin - off of Black Ink Crew. It chronicles the daily operations and staff drama at an African American owned and operated tattoo shop, 9MAG, located in Chicago, Illinois. On April 19, 2017, VH1 announced the show 's return for a third season, which premiered on July 19, 2017. Black Ink Crew: Chicago was renewed for a fourth season, which premiered on Q4 2018.

who's face is on the dollar bill

United States dollar - Wikipedia United States East Timor Ecuador El Salvador Marshall Islands Federated States of Micronesia Palau Panama Zimbabwe The United States dollar (sign: $; code: USD; also abbreviated US $ and referred to as the dollar, U.S. dollar, or American dollar) is the official currency of the United States and its insular territories per the United States Constitution. For most practical purposes, it is divided into 100 smaller cent (¢) units, but officially it can be divided into 1000 mills (₥). The circulating paper money consists of Federal Reserve Notes that are denominated in United States dollars (12 U.S.C. § 418). Since the suspension in 1971 of convertibility of paper U.S. currency into any precious metal, the U.S. dollar is, de facto, fiat money. As it is the most used in international transactions, the U.S. dollar is the world 's primary reserve currency. Several countries use it as their official currency, and in many others it is the de facto currency. Besides the United States, it is also used as the sole currency in two British Overseas Territories in the Caribbean: the British Virgin Islands and Turks and Caicos Islands. A few countries use the Federal Reserve Notes for paper money, while still minting their own coins, or also accept U.S. dollar coins (such as the Susan B. Anthony dollar). As of September 20, 2017, there were approximately $1.58 trillion in circulation, of which $1.53 trillion was in Federal Reserve notes (the remaining $50 billion is in the form of coins). Article I, Section 8 of the U.S. Constitution provides that the Congress has the power "To coin money ''. Laws implementing this power are currently codified at 31 U.S.C. § 5112. Section 5112 prescribes the forms in which the United States dollars should be issued. These coins are both designated in Section 5112 as "legal tender '' in payment of debts. The Sacagawea dollar is one example of the copper alloy dollar. The pure silver dollar is known as the American Silver Eagle. Section 5112 also provides for the minting and issuance of other coins, which have values ranging from one cent to 100 dollars. These other coins are more fully described in Coins of the United States dollar. The Constitution provides that "a regular Statement and Account of the Receipts and Expenditures of all public Money shall be published from time to time ''. That provision of the Constitution is made specific by Section 331 of Title 31 of the United States Code. The sums of money reported in the "Statements '' are currently being expressed in U.S. dollars (for example, see the 2009 Financial Report of the United States Government). The U.S. dollar may therefore be described as the unit of account of the United States. The word "dollar '' is one of the words in the first paragraph of Section 9 of Article I of the Constitution. There, "dollars '' is a reference to the Spanish milled dollar, a coin that had a monetary value of 8 Spanish units of currency, or reales. In 1792 the U.S. Congress passed a Coinage Act. Section 9 of that act authorized the production of various coins, including "DOLLARS OR UNITS -- each to be of the value of a Spanish milled dollar as the same is now current, and to contain three hundred and seventy - one grains and four sixteenth parts of a grain of pure, or four hundred and sixteen grains of standard silver ''. Section 20 of the act provided, "That the money of account of the United States shall be expressed in dollars, or units... and that all accounts in the public offices and all proceedings in the courts of the United States shall be kept and had in conformity to this regulation ''. In other words, this act designated the United States dollar as the unit of currency of the United States. Unlike the Spanish milled dollar, the U.S. dollar is based upon a decimal system of values. In addition to the dollar the coinage act officially established monetary units of mill or one - thousandth of a dollar (symbol ₥), cent or one - hundredth of a dollar (symbol ¢), dime or one - tenth of a dollar, and eagle or ten dollars, with prescribed weights and composition of gold, silver, or copper for each. It was proposed in the mid-1800s that one hundred dollars be known as a union, but no union coins were ever struck and only patterns for the $50 half union exist. However, only cents are in everyday use as divisions of the dollar; "dime '' is used solely as the name of the coin with the value of 10 ¢, while "eagle '' and "mill '' are largely unknown to the general public, though mills are sometimes used in matters of tax levies, and gasoline prices are usually in the form of $ X. XX9 per gallon, e.g., $3.599, more commonly written as $3.59 ​ ⁄. When currently issued in circulating form, denominations equal to or less than a dollar are emitted as U.S. coins while denominations equal to or greater than a dollar are emitted as Federal Reserve notes (with the exception of gold, silver and platinum coins valued up to $100 as legal tender, but worth far more as bullion). Both one - dollar coins and notes are produced today, although the note form is significantly more common. In the past, "paper money '' was occasionally issued in denominations less than a dollar (fractional currency) and gold coins were issued for circulation up to the value of $20 (known as the "double eagle '', discontinued in the 1930s). The term eagle was used in the Coinage Act of 1792 for the denomination of ten dollars, and subsequently was used in naming gold coins. Paper currency less than one dollar in denomination, known as "fractional currency '', was also sometimes pejoratively referred to as "shinplasters ''. In 1854, James Guthrie, then Secretary of the Treasury, proposed creating $100, $50 and $25 gold coins, which were referred to as a "Union '', "Half Union '', and "Quarter Union '', thus implying a denomination of 1 Union = $100. Today, USD notes are made from cotton fiber paper, unlike most common paper, which is made of wood fiber. U.S. coins are produced by the United States Mint. U.S. dollar banknotes are printed by the Bureau of Engraving and Printing and, since 1914, have been issued by the Federal Reserve. The "large - sized notes '' issued before 1928 measured 7.42 by 3.125 inches (188.5 by 79.4 mm); small - sized notes, introduced that year, measure 6.14 by 2.61 by 0.0043 inches (155.96 by 66.29 by 0.11 mm). When the current, smaller sized U.S. currency was introduced it was referred to as Philippine - sized currency because the Philippines had previously adopted the same size for its legal currency. In the 16th century, Count Hieronymus Schlick of Bohemia began minting coins known as Joachimstalers (from German thal, or nowadays usually Tal, "valley '', cognate with "dale '' in English), named for Joachimstal, the valley where the silver was mined (St. Joachim 's Valley, now Jáchymov; then part of the Kingdom of Bohemia, now part of the Czech Republic). Joachimstaler was later shortened to the German Taler, a word that eventually found its way into Danish and Swedish as daler, Norwegian as dalar and daler, Dutch as daler or daalder, Ethiopian as ታላሪ (talari), Hungarian as tallér, Italian as tallero, and English as dollar. Alternatively, thaler is said to come from the German coin Guldengroschen ("great guilder '', being of silver but equal in value to a gold guilder), minted from the silver from Joachimsthal. The coins minted at Joachimsthal soon lent their name to other coins of similar size and weight from other places. One such example, was a Dutch coin depicting a lion, hence its Dutch name leeuwendaler (in English: lion dollar). The leeuwendaler was authorized to contain 427.16 grains of. 75 fine silver and passed locally for between 36 and 42 stuivers. It was lighter than the large - denomination coins then in circulation, thus it was more advantageous for a Dutch merchant to pay a foreign debt in leeuwendalers and it became the coin of choice for foreign trade. The leeuwendaler was popular in the Dutch East Indies and in the Dutch New Netherland Colony (New York), and circulated throughout the Thirteen Colonies during the 17th and early 18th centuries. It was also popular throughout Eastern Europe, where it led to the current Romanian and Moldovan currency being called leu (literally "lion ''). Among the English - speaking community, the coin came to be popularly known as lion dollar -- and is the origin of the name dollar. The modern American - English pronunciation of dollar is still remarkably close to the 17th - century Dutch pronunciation of daler. By analogy with this lion dollar, Spanish pesos -- with the same weight and shape as the lion dollar -- came to be known as Spanish dollars. By the mid-18th century, the lion dollar had been replaced by the Spanish dollar, the famous "piece of eight '', which was distributed widely in the Spanish colonies in the New World and in the Philippines. Eventually, dollar became the name of the first official American currency. The colloquialism "buck '' (s) (much like the British word "quid '' (s, pl) for the pound sterling) is often used to refer to dollars of various nations, including the U.S. dollar. This term, dating to the 18th century, may have originated with the colonial leather trade. It may also have originated from a poker term. "Greenback '' is another nickname originally applied specifically to the 19th century Demand Note dollars created by Abraham Lincoln to finance the costs of the Civil War for the North. The original note was printed in black and green on the back side. It is still used to refer to the U.S. dollar (but not to the dollars of other countries). Other well - known names of the dollar as a whole in denominations include "greenmail '', "green '' and "dead presidents '' (the last because deceased presidents are pictured on most bills). A "grand '', sometimes shortened to simply "G '', is a common term for the amount of $1,000. The suffix "K '' or "k '' (from "kilo - '') is also commonly used to denote this amount (such as "$10 k '' to mean $10,000). However, the $1,000 note is no longer in general use. A "large '' or "stack '', it is usually a reference to a multiple of $1,000 (such as "fifty large '' meaning $50,000). The $100 note is nicknamed "Benjamin '', "Benji '', "Ben '', or "Franklin '' (after Benjamin Franklin), "C - note '' (C being the Roman numeral for 100), "Century note '' or "bill '' (e.g. "two bills '' being $200). The $50 note is occasionally called a "yardstick '' or a "grant '' (after President Ulysses S. Grant, pictured on the obverse). The $20 note is referred to as a "double sawbuck '', "Jackson '' (after Andrew Jackson), or "double eagle ''. The $10 note is referred to as a "sawbuck '', "ten - spot '' or "Hamilton '' (after Alexander Hamilton). The $5 note as "Lincoln '', "fin '', "fiver '' or "five - spot ''. The infrequently - used $2 note is sometimes called "deuce '', "Tom '', or "Jefferson '' (after Thomas Jefferson). The $1 note as a "single '' or "buck ''. The dollar has also been referred to as a "bone '' and "bones '' in plural (e.g. "twenty bones '' is equal to $20). The newer designs, with portraits displayed in the main body of the obverse (rather than in cameo insets), upon paper color - coded by denomination, are sometimes referred to as "bigface '' notes or "Monopoly money ''. "Piastre '' was the original French word for the U.S. dollar, used for example in the French text of the Louisiana Purchase. Calling the dollar a piastre is still common among the speakers of Cajun French and New England French. Modern French uses dollar for this unit of currency as well. The term is still used as slang for U.S. dollars in the French - speaking Caribbean islands, most notably Haiti. The symbol $, usually written before the numerical amount, is used for the U.S. dollar (as well as for many other currencies). The sign was the result of a late 18th - century evolution of the scribal abbreviation "p '' for the peso, the common name for the Spanish dollars that were in wide circulation in the New World from the 16th to the 19th centuries. These Spanish pesos or dollars were minted in Spanish America, namely in Mexico City; Potosí, Bolivia; and Lima, Peru. The p and the s eventually came to be written over each other giving rise to $. Another popular explanation is that it is derived from the Pillars of Hercules on the Spanish Coat of arms of the Spanish dollar. These Pillars of Hercules on the silver Spanish dollar coins take the form of two vertical bars () and a swinging cloth band in the shape of an "S ''. Yet another explanation suggests that the dollar sign was formed from the capital letters U and S written or printed one on top of the other. This theory, popularized by novelist Ayn Rand in Atlas Shrugged, does not consider the fact that the symbol was already in use before the formation of the United States. The American dollar coin was initially based on the value and look of the Spanish dollar, used widely in Spanish America from the 16th to the 19th centuries. The first dollar coins issued by the United States Mint (founded 1792) were similar in size and composition to the Spanish dollar, minted in Mexico and Peru. The Spanish, U.S. silver dollars, and later, Mexican silver pesos circulated side by side in the United States, and the Spanish dollar and Mexican peso remained legal tender until the Coinage Act of 1857. The coinage of various English colonies also circulated. The lion dollar was popular in the Dutch New Netherland Colony (New York), but the lion dollar also circulated throughout the English colonies during the 17th century and early 18th century. Examples circulating in the colonies were usually worn so that the design was not fully distinguishable, thus they were sometimes referred to as "dog dollars ''. The U.S. dollar was first defined by the Coinage Act of 1792, which specified a "dollar '' to be based in the Spanish milled dollar and of 371 grains and 4 sixteenths part of a grain of pure or 416 grains (27.0 g) of standard silver and an "eagle '' to be 247 and 4 eighths of a grain or 270 grains (17 g) of gold (again depending on purity). The choice of the value 371 grains arose from Alexander Hamilton 's decision to base the new American unit on the average weight of a selection of worn Spanish dollars. Hamilton got the treasury to weigh a sample of Spanish dollars and the average weight came out to be 371 grains. A new Spanish dollar was usually about 377 grains in weight, and so the new U.S. dollar was at a slight discount in relation to the Spanish dollar. The same coinage act also set the value of an eagle at 10 dollars, and the dollar at ​ ⁄ eagle. It called for 90 % silver alloy coins in denominations of 1, ​ ⁄, ​ ⁄, ​ ⁄, and ​ ⁄ dollars; it called for 90 % gold alloy coins in denominations of 1, ​ ⁄, ​ ⁄, and ​ ⁄ eagles. The value of gold or silver contained in the dollar was then converted into relative value in the economy for the buying and selling of goods. This allowed the value of things to remain fairly constant over time, except for the influx and outflux of gold and silver in the nation 's economy. The early currency of the United States did not exhibit faces of presidents, as is the custom now; although today, by law, only the portrait of a deceased individual may appear on United States currency. In fact, the newly formed government was against having portraits of leaders on the currency, a practice compared to the policies of European monarchs. The currency as we know it today did not get the faces they currently have until after the early 20th century; before that "heads '' side of coinage used profile faces and striding, seated, and standing figures from Greek and Roman mythology and composite Native Americans. The last coins to be converted to profiles of historic Americans were the dime (1946) and the Dollar (1971). For articles on the currencies of the colonies and states, see Connecticut pound, Delaware pound, Georgia pound, Maryland pound, Massachusetts pound, New Hampshire pound, New Jersey pound, New York pound, North Carolina pound, Pennsylvania pound, Rhode Island pound, South Carolina pound, and Virginia pound. During the American Revolution the thirteen colonies became independent states. Freed from British monetary regulations, they each issued £ sd paper money to pay for military expenses. The Continental Congress also began issuing "Continental Currency '' denominated in Spanish dollars. The dollar was valued relative to the states ' currencies at the following rates: Continental currency depreciated badly during the war, giving rise to the famous phrase "not worth a continental ''. A primary problem was that monetary policy was not coordinated between Congress and the states, which continued to issue bills of credit. Additionally, neither Congress nor the governments of the several states had the will or the means to retire the bills from circulation through taxation or the sale of bonds. The currency was ultimately replaced by the silver dollar at the rate of 1 silver dollar to 1000 continental dollars. From 1792, when the Mint Act was passed, the dollar was defined as 371.25 grains (24.056 g) of silver. Many historians erroneously assume gold was standardized at a fixed rate in parity with silver; however, there is no evidence of Congress making this law. This has to do with Alexander Hamilton 's suggestion to Congress of a fixed 15: 1 ratio of silver to gold, respectively. The gold coins that were minted however, were not given any denomination whatsoever and traded for a market value relative to the Congressional standard of the silver dollar. 1834 saw a shift in the gold standard to 23.2 grains (1.50 g), followed by a slight adjustment to 23.22 grains (1.505 g) in 1837 (16: 1 ratio). In 1862, paper money was issued without the backing of precious metals, due to the Civil War. Silver and gold coins continued to be issued and in 1878 the link between paper money and coins was reinstated. This disconnection from gold and silver backing also occurred during the War of 1812. The use of paper money not backed by precious metals had also occurred under the Articles of Confederation from 1777 to 1788. With no solid backing and being easily counterfeited, the continentals quickly lost their value, giving rise to the phrase "not worth a continental ''. This was a primary reason for the "No state shall... make any thing but gold and silver coin a tender in payment of debts '' clause in article 1, section 10 of the United States Constitution. In order to finance the War of 1812, Congress authorized the issuance of Treasury Notes, interest - bearing short - term debt that could be used to pay public dues. While they were intended to serve as debt, they did function "to a limited extent '' as money. Treasury Notes were again printed to help resolve the reduction in public revenues resulting from the Panic of 1837 and the Panic of 1857, as well as to help finance the Mexican -- American War and the Civil War. In addition to Treasury Notes, in 1861, Congress authorized the Treasury to borrow $50 million in the form of Demand Notes, which did not bear interest but could be redeemed on demand for precious metals. However, by December 1861, the Union government 's supply of specie was outstripped by demand for redemption and they were forced to suspend redemption temporarily. The following February, Congress passed the Legal Tender Act of 1862, issuing United States Notes, which were not redeemable on demand and bore no interest, but were legal tender, meaning that creditors had to accept them at face value for any payment except for public debts and import tariffs. However, silver and gold coins continued to be issued, resulting in the depreciation of the newly printed notes through Gresham 's Law. In 1869, Supreme Court ruled in Hepburn v. Griswold that Congress could not require creditors to accept United States Notes, but overturned that ruling the next year in the Legal Tender Cases. In 1875, Congress passed the Specie Payment Resumption Act, requiring the Treasury to allow US Notes to be redeemed for gold after January 1, 1879. The Treasury ceased to issue United States Notes in 1971. The Gold Standard Act of 1900 abandoned the bimetallic standard and defined the dollar as 23.22 grains (1.505 g) of gold, equivalent to setting the price of 1 troy ounce of gold at $20.67. Silver coins continued to be issued for circulation until 1964, when all silver was removed from dimes and quarters, and the half dollar was reduced to 40 % silver. Silver half dollars were last issued for circulation in 1970. Gold coins were confiscated by Executive Order 6102 issued in 1933 by Franklin Roosevelt. The gold standard was changed to 13.71 grains (0.888 g), equivalent to setting the price of 1 troy ounce of gold at $35. This standard persisted until 1968. Between 1968 and 1975, a variety of pegs to gold were put in place, eventually culminating in a sudden end, on August 15, 1971, to the convertibility of dollars to gold later dubbed the Nixon Shock. The last peg was $42.22 per ounce before the U.S. dollar was allowed to freely float on currency markets. According to the Bureau of Engraving and Printing, the largest note it ever printed was the $100,000 Gold Certificate, Series 1934. These notes were printed from December 18, 1934, through January 9, 1935, and were issued by the Treasurer of the United States to Federal Reserve Banks only against an equal amount of gold bullion held by the Treasury. These notes were used for transactions between Federal Reserve Banks and were not circulated among the general public. Official United States coins have been produced every year from 1792 to the present. Discontinued coin denominations include: Collector coins for which everyday transactions are non-existent. Technically, all these coins are still legal tender at face value, though some are far more valuable today for their numismatic value, and for gold and silver coins, their precious metal value. From 1965 to 1970 the Kennedy half dollar was the only circulating coin with any silver content, which was removed in 1971 and replaced with cupronickel. However, since 1992, the U.S. Mint has produced special Silver Proof Sets in addition to the regular yearly proof sets with silver dimes, quarters, and half dollars in place of the standard copper - nickel versions. In addition, an experimental $4.00 (Stella) coin was also minted in 1879, but never placed into circulation, and is properly considered to be a pattern rather than an actual coin denomination. The $50 coin mentioned was only produced in 1915 for the Panama - Pacific International Exposition (1915) celebrating the opening of the Panama Canal. Only 1,128 were made, 645 of which were octagonal; this remains the only U.S. coin that was not round as well as the largest and heaviest U.S. coin ever produced. A $100 gold coin was produced in High relief during 2015, although it was primarily produced for collectors, not for general circulation. From 1934 to present, the only denominations produced for circulation have been the familiar penny, nickel, dime, quarter, half dollar and dollar. The nickel is the only coin still in use today that is essentially unchanged (except in its design) from its original version. Every year since 1866, the nickel has been 75 % copper and 25 % nickel, except for 4 years during World War II when nickel was needed for the war. Due to the penny 's low value, some efforts have been made to eliminate the penny as circulating coinage. The United States Mint produces Proof Sets specifically for collectors and speculators. Silver Proofs tend to be the standard designs but with the dime, quarter, and half dollar containing 90 % silver. Starting in 1983 and ending in 1997, the Mint also produced proof sets containing the year 's commemorative coins alongside the regular coins. Another type of proof set is the Presidential Dollar Proof Set where four special $1 coins are minted each year featuring a president. Because of budget constraints and increasing stockpiles of these relatively unpopular coins, the production of new Presidential dollar coins for circulation was suspended on December 13, 2011, by U.S. Treasury Secretary Timothy F. Geithner. Future minting of such coins will be made solely for collectors. The first United States dollar was minted in 1794. Known as the Flowing Hair Dollar, contained 416 grains of "standard silver '' (89.25 % silver and 10.75 % copper), as specified by Section 13 of the Coinage Act of 1792. It was designated by Section 9 of that Act as having "the value of a Spanish milled dollar ''. Dollar coins have not been very popular in the United States. Silver dollars were minted intermittently from 1794 through 1935; a copper - nickel dollar of the same large size, featuring President Dwight D. Eisenhower, was minted from 1971 through 1978. Gold dollars were also minted in the 19th century. The Susan B. Anthony dollar coin was introduced in 1979; these proved to be unpopular because they were often mistaken for quarters, due to their nearly equal size, their milled edge, and their similar color. Minting of these dollars for circulation was suspended in 1980 (collectors ' pieces were struck in 1981), but, as with all past U.S. coins, they remain legal tender. As the number of Anthony dollars held by the Federal Reserve and dispensed primarily to make change in postal and transit vending machines had been virtually exhausted, additional Anthony dollars were struck in 1999. In 2000, a new $1 coin, featuring Sacagawea, (the Sacagawea dollar) was introduced, which corrected some of the problems of the Anthony dollar by having a smooth edge and a gold color, without requiring changes to vending machines that accept the Anthony dollar. However, this new coin has failed to achieve the popularity of the still - existing $1 bill and is rarely used in daily transactions. The failure to simultaneously withdraw the dollar bill and weak publicity efforts have been cited by coin proponents as primary reasons for the failure of the dollar coin to gain popular support. In February 2007, the U.S. Mint, under the Presidential $1 Coin Act of 2005, introduced a new $1 U.S. Presidential dollar coin. Based on the success of the "50 State Quarters '' series, the new coin features a sequence of presidents in order of their inaugurations, starting with George Washington, on the obverse side. The reverse side features the Statue of Liberty. To allow for larger, more detailed portraits, the traditional inscriptions of "E Pluribus Unum '', "In God We Trust '', the year of minting or issuance, and the mint mark will be inscribed on the edge of the coin instead of the face. This feature, similar to the edge inscriptions seen on the British £ 1 coin, is not usually associated with U.S. coin designs. The inscription "Liberty '' has been eliminated, with the Statue of Liberty serving as a sufficient replacement. In addition, due to the nature of U.S. coins, this will be the first time there will be circulating U.S. coins of different denominations with the same president featured on the obverse (heads) side (Lincoln / penny, Jefferson / nickel, Franklin D. Roosevelt / dime, Washington / quarter, Kennedy / half dollar, and Eisenhower / dollar). Another unusual fact about the new $1 coin is Grover Cleveland will have two coins with two different portraits issued due to the fact he was the only U.S. President to be elected to two non-consecutive terms. Early releases of the Washington coin included error coins shipped primarily from the Philadelphia mint to Florida and Tennessee banks. Highly sought after by collectors, and trading for as much as $850 each within a week of discovery, the error coins were identified by the absence of the edge impressions "E PLURIBUS UNUM IN GOD WE TRUST 2007 P ''. The mint of origin is generally accepted to be mostly Philadelphia, although identifying the source mint is impossible without opening a mint pack also containing marked units. Edge lettering is minted in both orientations with respect to "heads '', some amateur collectors were initially duped into buying "upside down lettering error '' coins. Some cynics also erroneously point out that the Federal Reserve makes more profit from dollar bills than dollar coins because they wear out in a few years, whereas coins are more permanent. The fallacy of this argument arises because new notes printed to replace worn out notes, which have been withdrawn from circulation, bring in no net revenue to the government to offset the costs of printing new notes and destroying the old ones. As most vending machines are incapable of making change in banknotes, they commonly accept only $1 bills, though a few will give change in dollar coins. The U.S. Constitution provides that Congress shall have the power to "borrow money on the credit of the United States ''. Congress has exercised that power by authorizing Federal Reserve Banks to issue Federal Reserve Notes. Those notes are "obligations of the United States '' and "shall be redeemed in lawful money on demand at the Treasury Department of the United States, in the city of Washington, District of Columbia, or at any Federal Reserve bank ''. Federal Reserve Notes are designated by law as "legal tender '' for the payment of debts. Congress has also authorized the issuance of more than 10 other types of banknotes, including the United States Note and the Federal Reserve Bank Note. The Federal Reserve Note is the only type that remains in circulation since the 1970s. Currently printed denominations are $1, $2, $5, $10, $20, $50, and $100. Notes above the $100 denomination stopped being printed in 1946 and were officially withdrawn from circulation in 1969. These notes were used primarily in inter-bank transactions or by organized crime; it was the latter usage that prompted President Richard Nixon to issue an executive order in 1969 halting their use. With the advent of electronic banking, they became less necessary. Notes in denominations of $500, $1,000, $5,000, $10,000, and $100,000 were all produced at one time; see large denomination bills in U.S. currency for details. With the exception of the $100,000 bill (which was only issued as a Series 1934 Gold Certificate and was never publicly circulated; thus it is illegal to own), these notes are now collectors ' items and are worth more than their face value to collectors. Though still predominantly green, post-2004 series incorporate other colors to better distinguish different denominations. As a result of a 2008 decision in an accessibility lawsuit filed by the American Council of the Blind, the Bureau of Engraving and Printing is planning to implement a raised tactile feature in the next redesign of each note, except the $1 and the current version of the $100 bill. It also plans larger, higher - contrast numerals, more color differences, and distribution of currency readers to assist the visually impaired during the transition period. The monetary base consists of coins and Federal Reserve Notes in circulation outside the Federal Reserve Banks and the U.S. Treasury, plus deposits held by depository institutions at Federal Reserve Banks. The adjusted monetary base has increased from approximately 400 billion dollars in 1994, to 800 billion in 2005, and over 3000 billion in 2013. The amount of cash in circulation is increased (or decreased) by the actions of the Federal Reserve System. Eight times a year, the 12 - person Federal Open Market Committee meets to determine U.S. monetary policy. Every business day, the Federal Reserve System engages in Open market operations to carry out that monetary policy. If the Federal Reserve desires to increase the money supply, it will buy securities (such as U.S. Treasury Bonds) anonymously from banks in exchange for dollars. Conversely, it will sell securities to the banks in exchange for dollars, to take dollars out of circulation. When the Federal Reserve makes a purchase, it credits the seller 's reserve account (with the Federal Reserve). This money is not transferred from any existing funds -- it is at this point that the Federal Reserve has created new high - powered money. Commercial banks can freely withdraw in cash any excess reserves from their reserve account at the Federal Reserve. To fulfill those requests, the Federal Reserve places an order for printed money from the U.S. Treasury Department. The Treasury Department in turn sends these requests to the Bureau of Engraving and Printing (to print new dollar bills) and the Bureau of the Mint (to stamp the coins). Usually, the short - term goal of open market operations is to achieve a specific short - term interest rate target. In other instances, monetary policy might instead entail the targeting of a specific exchange rate relative to some foreign currency or else relative to gold. For example, in the case of the United States the Federal Reserve targets the federal funds rate, the rate at which member banks lend to one another overnight. The other primary means of conducting monetary policy include: (i) Discount window lending (as lender of last resort); (ii) Fractional deposit lending (changes in the reserve requirement); (iii) Moral suasion (cajoling certain market players to achieve specified outcomes); (iv) "Open mouth operations '' (talking monetary policy with the market). The 6th paragraph of Section 8 of Article 1 of the U.S. Constitution provides that the U.S. Congress shall have the power to "coin money '' and to "regulate the value '' of domestic and foreign coins. Congress exercised those powers when it enacted the Coinage Act of 1792. That Act provided for the minting of the first U.S. dollar and it declared that the U.S. dollar shall have "the value of a Spanish milled dollar as the same is now current ''. The table to the right shows the equivalent amount of goods that, in a particular year, could be purchased with $1. The table shows that from 1774 through 2012 the U.S. dollar has lost about 97.0 % of its buying power. The decline in the value of the U.S. dollar corresponds to price inflation, which is a rise in the general level of prices of goods and services in an economy over a period of time. A consumer price index (CPI) is a measure estimating the average price of consumer goods and services purchased by households. The United States Consumer Price Index, published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics, is a measure estimating the average price of consumer goods and services in the United States. It reflects inflation as experienced by consumers in their day - to - day living expenses. A graph showing the U.S. CPI relative to 1982 -- 1984 and the annual year - over-year change in CPI is shown at right. The value of the U.S. dollar declined significantly during wartime, especially during the American Civil War, World War I, and World War II. The Federal Reserve, which was established in 1913, was designed to furnish an "elastic '' currency subject to "substantial changes of quantity over short periods '', which differed significantly from previous forms of high - powered money such as gold, national bank notes, and silver coins. Over the very long run, the prior gold standard kept prices stable -- for instance, the price level and the value of the U.S. dollar in 1914 was not very different from the price level in the 1880s. The Federal Reserve initially succeeded in maintaining the value of the U.S. dollar and price stability, reversing the inflation caused by the First World War and stabilizing the value of the dollar during the 1920s, before presiding over a 30 % deflation in U.S. prices in the 1930s. Under the Bretton Woods system established after World War II, the value of gold was fixed to $35 per ounce, and the value of the U.S. dollar was thus anchored to the value of gold. Rising government spending in the 1960s, however, led to doubts about the ability of the United States to maintain this convertibility, gold stocks dwindled as banks and international investors began to convert dollars to gold, and as a result the value of the dollar began to decline. Facing an emerging currency crisis and the imminent danger that the United States would no longer be able to redeem dollars for gold, gold convertibility was finally terminated in 1971 by President Nixon, resulting in the "Nixon shock ''. The value of the U.S. dollar was therefore no longer anchored to gold, and it fell upon the Federal Reserve to maintain the value of the U.S. currency. The Federal Reserve, however, continued to increase the money supply, resulting in stagflation and a rapidly declining value of the U.S. dollar in the 1970s. This was largely due to the prevailing economic view at the time that inflation and real economic growth were linked (the Phillips curve), and so inflation was regarded as relatively benign. Between 1965 and 1981, the U.S. dollar lost two thirds of its value. In 1979, President Carter appointed Paul Volcker Chairman of the Federal Reserve. The Federal Reserve tightened the money supply and inflation was substantially lower in the 1980s, and hence the value of the U.S. dollar stabilized. Over the thirty - year period from 1981 to 2009, the U.S. dollar lost over half its value. This is because the Federal Reserve has targeted not zero inflation, but a low, stable rate of inflation -- between 1987 and 1997, the rate of inflation was approximately 3.5 %, and between 1997 and 2007 it was approximately 2 %. The so - called "Great Moderation '' of economic conditions since the 1970s is credited to monetary policy targeting price stability. There is ongoing debate about whether central banks should target zero inflation (which would mean a constant value for the U.S. dollar over time) or low, stable inflation (which would mean a continuously but slowly declining value of the dollar over time, as is the case now). Although some economists are in favor of a zero inflation policy and therefore a constant value for the U.S. dollar, others contend that such a policy limits the ability of the central bank to control interest rates and stimulate the economy when needed. Notes: 1. Mexican peso values prior to 1993 revaluation 2. Value at the start of the year Sources:

when does state of emergency go into effect

State of emergency - wikipedia A state of emergency is a situation in which a government is empowered to perform actions that it would normally not be permitted. A government can declare such state during a disaster, civil unrest, or armed conflict. Such declaration alerts citizens to change their normal behavior and orders government agencies to implement emergency plans. Justitium is its equivalent in Roman law -- a concept in which the senate could put forward a final decree (senatus consultum ultimum) that was not subject to dispute. States of emergency can also be used as a rationale or pretext for suspending rights and freedoms guaranteed under a country 's constitution or basic law. The procedure for and legality of doing so vary by country. Under international law, rights and freedoms may be suspended during a state of emergency; for example, a government can detain persons and hold them without trial. All rights that can be derogated from are listed in the International Covenant for Civil and Political Rights. Non-derogable rights can not be suspended. Non-derogable rights are listed in Article 4 of the ICCPR, they include right to life, the rights to freedom from arbitrary deprivation of liberty, freedom of slavery and to freedom from torture and / or ill - treatment. Some countries have made it illegal to modify emergency law or the constitution during the emergency; other countries have the freedom to change any legislation or rights based constitutional frameworks at any time that the legislative chooses to do so. Constitutions are contracts between the government and the private individuals of that country. The International Covenant for Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR) is an international law document signed by states. Therefore, the Covenant applies to only those persons acting in an official capacity, not private individuals. However, signatories to the Covenant are expected to integrate it into national legislation. The state of emergency (within the ICCPR framework) must be publicly declared and the Secretary - General of the United Nations must be contacted immediately, to declare the reason for the emergency, the date on which the emergency is to start, the derogations that may take place, with the timeframe of the emergency and the date in which the emergency is expected to finish. Although this is common protocol stipulated by the ICCPR, this is often not strictly followed; enforcement is better regulated by European Convention of human rights. Though fairly uncommon in democracies, dictatorial regimes often declare a state of emergency that is prolonged indefinitely for the life of the regime, or for extended periods of time so that derogations can be used to override human rights of their citizens usually protected by the International Covenant on Civil and political rights. In some situations, martial law is also declared, allowing the military greater authority to act. In other situations, emergency is not declared and de facto measures taken or decree - law adopted by the government. Ms. Nicole Questiaux (France) and Mr. Leandro Despouy (Argentina), two consecutive United Nations Special Rapporteurs, have recommended to the international community to adopt the following "principles '' to be observed during a state or de facto situation of emergency: Principles of Legality, Proclamation, Notification, Time Limitation, Exceptional Threat, Proportionality, Non-Discrimination, Compatibility, Concordance and Complementarity of the Various Norms of International Law (cf. "Question of Human Rights and State of Emergency '', E / CN. 4 / Sub. 2 / 1997 / 19, at Chapter II; see also état d'exception). Article 4 to the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR), permits states to derogate from certain rights guaranteed by the ICCPR in "time of public emergency ''. Any measures derogating from obligations under the Covenant, however, must be to only the extent required by the exigencies of the situation, and must be announced by the State Party to the Secretary - General of the United Nations. The European Convention on Human Rights and American Convention on Human Rights have similar derogatory provisions. No derogation is permitted to the International Labour Conventions. Some political theorists, such as Carl Schmitt, have argued that the power to decide the initiation of the state of emergency defines sovereignty itself. In State of Exception (2005), Giorgio Agamben criticized this idea, arguing that the mechanism of the state of emergency deprives certain people of their civil and political rights, producing his interpretation of homo sacer. The state of emergency can be, and often has been, abused by being invoked. An example would be to allow a state to suppress internal opposition without having to respect human rights. An example was the August 1991 attempted coup in the Soviet Union (USSR) where the coup leaders invoked a state of emergency; the failure of the coup led to the dissolution of the Soviet Union. Derogations by states having ratified or acceded to binding international agreements such as the ICCPR, the American and European Conventions on Human Rights and the International Labour Conventions are monitored by independent expert committees, regional Courts and other State Parties. The Constitution, which has been amended several times, has always allowed for a state of emergency (literally estado de sitio, state of siege), to be declared if the constitution or the authorities it creates are endangered by internal unrest or foreign attack. This provision was much abused during dictatorships, with long - lasting states of siege giving the government a free hand to suppress opposition (as of 2010 state of emergencies had been declared 52 times by democratic and dictatorial governments, starting in 1854 shortly after the constitution came into force). The American Convention on Human Rights (Pacto de San José de Costa Rica), adopted in 1969 but ratified by Argentina only in 1984 immediately after the end of the National Reorganization Process, restricts abuse of the state of emergency by requiring any signatory nation declaring such a state to inform the other signatories of its circumstances and duration, and what rights are affected. State - of - emergency legislation differs in each state of Australia. In Victoria, the premier can declare a state of emergency if there is a threat to employment, safety or public order. The declaration expires after 30 days, and a resolution of either the upper or lower House of Parliament may revoke it earlier. Under the Public Safety Preservation Act, a declared state of emergency allows the premier to immediately make any desired regulations to secure public order and safety. However, these regulations expire if Parliament does not agree to continue them within 7 days. Also, under the Essential Services Act, the premier (or delegate) may operate or prohibit operation of, as desired, any essential service (e.g., transport, fuel, power, water, gas). In regards to Emergency Management, regions (usually on a local government area basis) that have been affected by a natural disaster are the responsibility of the state, until that state declares a State of Emergency where access to the Federal Emergency Fund becomes available to help respond to and recover from natural disasters. A State of Emergency does not apply to the whole state, but rather districts or shires, where essential services may have been disrupted. See also, Exceptional circumstances; a term most commonly used in Australia with regard to emergency relief payments. Extreme act that, in Brazil (Estado de Sítio or Estado de Exceção, in Portuguese), can be declared on the following circumstances: The state of emergency could last for 30 days, being possible to extend it for more days in case of persistence of the reasons of exceptionality. Only the President is able to declare or prorogate this State; after receiving formal authorization from National Congress and after consultation with the National Security Council or the Council of the Republic. The federal government of Canada can use the Emergencies Act to invoke a state of emergency. A national state of emergency automatically expires after 90 days, unless extended by the Governor - in - Council. There are different levels of emergencies: Public Welfare Emergency, Public Order Emergency, International Emergency, and War Emergency. The Emergencies Act replaced the War Measures Act in 1988. The War Measures Act was invoked three times in Canadian history, most controversially during the 1970 October Crisis, and also during World War I (from 1914 to 1920, against threat of Communism) and World War II (from 1942 to 1945, against perceived threat from Japanese Canadians following Imperial Japan 's attack on Pearl Harbor). Under the current Emergency Act a state of emergency can also be declared by provincial, territorial, and municipal governments. In addition Canada 's federal government and any of its provincial governments can suspend, for five years at a time, Charter rights to fundamental freedoms in section 2, to legal rights in sections 7 through 14, and to equality rights in section 15 by legislation which invokes the notwithstanding clause, section 33, and therefore emergency powers can effectively be created even without using the Emergency Act. The police chief in a district can impose a zone in which people can be body searched without a specific suspicion. Such an order must be issued in writing, published, and imposed for a limited period. The police law (article 6) regulates this area. The normal procedure calls for assisting the suspect to a private area and stripping them. If the police feel that a situation involving a crowd of people can get out of hand, they can order the assembly to be dissolved and "pass the street '' in the name of the king. People that after three such warnings are still part of the crowd can then without further warning be subjugated to mass arrest. All people arrested can then be detained for 24 hours without charging them or taking them for a judge. This is called a precluding arrest. Egyptians lived under an Emergency Law (Law No. 162 of 1958) from 1967 to 2012, except for an 18 - month break in 1980 and 1981. The emergency was imposed during the 1967 Arab - Israeli War, and reimposed following the assassination of President Anwar Sadat. The law continuously extended every three years since 1981. Under the law, police powers were extended, constitutional rights suspended and censorship was legalized. The law sharply circumscribed any non-governmental political activity: street demonstrations, non-approved political organizations, and unregistered financial donations were formally banned. Some 17,000 people were detained under the law, and estimates of political prisoners run as high as 30,000. The emergency rule expired on May 31, 2012, and was put back in place in January 2013. Egypt declared a month - long national emergency on 14 August 2013. The Egyptian presidency announced a one - month state of emergency across the country on August 14, 2013 and ordered the armed forces to help the Interior Ministry enforce security. The announcement made on state TV followed deadly countrywide clashes between supporters of deposed President Mohammed Morsi and the security forces. Three main provisions concern various kind of "state of emergency '' in France: Article 16 of the Constitution of 1958 allows, in time of crisis, "extraordinary powers '' to the president. Article 36 of the same constitution regulates "state of siege '' (état de siège). Finally, the Act of 3 April 1955 allows the proclamation, by the Council of Ministers, of the "state of emergency '' (état d'urgence). The distinction between article 16 and the 1955 Act concerns mainly the distribution of powers: whereas in article 16, the executive power basically suspend the regular procedures of the Republic, the 1955 Act permits a twelve - day state of emergency, after which a new law extending the emergency must be voted by the Parliament. These dispositions have been used at various times, in 1955, 1958, 1961, 1988, 2005, and 2015. The Weimar Republic constitution (1919 -- 1933) allowed states of emergency under Article 48 to deal with rebellions. Article 48 was often invoked during the 14 - year life of the Republic, sometimes for no reason other than to allow the government to act when it was unable to obtain a parliamentary majority. After the February 27, 1933, Reichstag fire, an attack blamed on the communists, Adolf Hitler declared a state of emergency using Article 48, and then had President von Hindenburg sign the Reichstag Fire Decree, which suspended the Weimar Constitution for the whole duration of the Third Reich: the Weimar Constitution was never actually repealed by Nazi Germany, but "indefinitely suspended ''. After the prohibition of the Communist Party of Germany on March 1, 1933, the Nazi Party was free to vote in the March 23, 1933 Enabling Act, which enabled Chancellor Adolf Hitler and his cabinet to enact laws without the participation of the Reichstag. These two laws implemented the Gleichschaltung, the Nazis ' institution of totalitarianism. In the postwar Federal Republic of Germany the Emergency Acts state that some of the basic constitutional rights of the Basic Law may be limited in case of a state of defence, a state of tension, or an internal state of emergency or disaster (catastrophe). These amendments to the constitution were passed on May 30, 1968, despite fierce opposition by the so - called extra-parliamentary opposition (see German student movement for details). The Standing Committee of the National People 's Congress can declare a state of emergency and deploy troops from the People 's Liberation Army Hong Kong Garrison under the Law of the People 's Republic of China on the garrisoning of the Hong Kong Special Administrative Region. The Chief Executive of Hong Kong along with the Executive Council can prohibit public gatherings, issue curfew orders, prohibit the movement of vessels or aircraft and appoint special constable all under Chapter 245 ("Public Order Ordinance '') of Hong Kong Law. Since 1997, no emergency measures have been enacted. Prior to that date, emergency measures were used for four major incidents: According to the Hungarian Constitution, the National Assembly of Hungary can declare state of emergency in case of armed rebellion or natural or industrial disaster. It expires after 30 days, but can be extended. Most civil rights can be suspended, but basic human rights (such as the right to life, the ban of torture, and freedom of religion) can not. During state of emergency, the Parliament can not be disbanded. The Icelandic constitution provides no mechanism for state of emergency nor martial law. In India, an external state of emergency was declared two times during wars: In 1975, Prime Minister Indira Gandhi declared a state of internal emergency after she was indicted in a corruption scandal and ordered to vacate her seat in the Indian Parliament, allowing herself to rule by decree until 1977. It all started after Raj Narain, who had been defeated in parliamentary election by Indira Gandhi, lodged cases of election fraud and use of state machinery for election purposes against Gandhi in the Allahabad High Court. While some serious charges such as bribing voters and election malpractices were dropped, on 12 June 1975, Justice Jagmohanlal Sinha of the Allahabad High Court found the Prime Minister guilty on the charge of misuse of government machinery for her election campaign, such as using the state police to build a dais, availing the services of a government officer, Yashpal Kapoor (IAS), during the elections before he had resigned from his position, and use of electricity from the state electricity department. The court declared her election null and void and unseated her from her seat in the Lok Sabha. The court also banned her from contesting any election for an additional six years. Protests led by J.P. Narayan, Raj Narain, Satyendra Narayan Sinha and Morarji Desai flooded the streets of Delhi close to the Parliament building and the Prime Minister 's residence, and in response, Mrs Gandhi declared a state of emergency, suspending civil liberties. Political opposition was heavily suppressed during the emergency. The Government used police forces across the country to arrest thousands of protestors and strike leaders. J.P. Narayan, Raj Narain, Morarji Desai, Charan Singh, Jivatram Kripalani, Atal Bihari Vajpayee, L.K. Advani, Satyendra Narayan Sinha and other protest leaders were immediately arrested. Organizations such as the Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh, along with some opposition political parties were banned. Nearly two years later, confident about her chances of getting re-elected, Indira Gandhi relaxed the emergency, released dissidents and announced elections. In the ensuing election, Raj Narain and his colleagues rode a popular wave of unrest to defeat her and her Government. Raj Narain won decisively in the Prime Minister 's home constituency of Rae Bareli, and for the first time a non-Congress government took office in Republic of India In Ireland declaring a state of "national emergency '' involves Article 28.3. 3 ° of the 1937 Constitution of Ireland, which states that: Nothing in this Constitution (...) shall be invoked to invalidate any law enacted by the Oireachtas (parliament) which is expressed to be for the purpose of securing the public safety and the preservation of the State in time of war or armed rebellion, or to nullify any act done or purporting to be done in time of war or armed rebellion in pursuance of any such law. In addition, during a "war or armed rebellion '', military tribunals may try civilians, and the Defence Forces are not bound by habeas corpus. The First Amendment of the Constitution of 1939 allows an emergency to be declared during wars in which the state is a non-belligerent, subject to resolutions by the houses of the Oireachtas. By the 2nd Amendment of 1941, an emergency ends, not automatically when the war does, but only by Oireachtas resolutions. The 21st Amendment of 2002 prevents the reintroduction of capital punishment during an emergency. The first amendment was rushed through the Oireachtas after the outbreak of the Second World War, in which the state remained neutral. Immediately after, the required resolution was passed, in turn enabling the passage of the Emergency Powers Act 1939 (EPA), which granted the government and its ministers sweeping powers to issue statutory orders termed "Emergency Powers Orders '' (EPOs). (The period in Ireland was and is referred to as "The Emergency ''.) The EPA expired in 1946, although some EPOs were continued under the Supplies and Services (Temporary Provisions) Act 1946 until as late as 1957. Rationing continued until 1951. The 1939 state of emergency was not formally ended until a 1976 resolution, which also declared a new state of emergency in relation to the Troubles in Northern Ireland and in particular the recent assassination of the British ambassador to Ireland, Christopher Ewart Biggs. The Emergency Powers Act 1976 was then passed to increase the Garda Síochána powers to arrest, detain, and question those suspected of offences against the state. President Cearbhall Ó Dálaigh referred the bill under Article 26 of the Constitution to the Supreme Court, which upheld its constitutionality. The referral was condemned by minister Paddy Donegan as a "thundering disgrace '', causing Ó Dálaigh to resign in protest. The 1976 EPA expired after one year, but the state of emergency persisted until 1995, when as part of the Northern Ireland peace process it was rescinded as a "confidence building measure '' to satisfy physical force republicans after the Provisional IRA 's 1994 ceasefire. The Offences against the State Act does not require a state of emergency under Article 28.3. 3 °. Part V of the Act, which provides for a non-jury Special Criminal Court (SCC), is permitted under Article 38.3. 1 °. Part V is activated by a declaration from the government that it is "necessary to secure the preservation of public peace and order '', and it can be rescinded by vote of Dáil Éireann. Provision for internment is similarly activated and rescinded (originally by Part VI of the 1939 act, later by Part II of a 1940 amending act). Parts V and VI were both activated during the Second World War and the IRA 's late 1950s Border Campaign; Part V has been continually active since 1972. Several official reviews of the Constitution and the Offences Against the State Acts have recommended a time limit within which the operation of Article 28.3. 3 ° or Article 38.3. 1 ° must either be explicitly renewed by resolution or else lapse. Israel 's Emergency Defence Regulations are older than the state itself, having been passed under the British Mandate for Palestine in 1945. A repeal was briefly considered in 1967 but cancelled following the Six - Day War. The regulations allow Israel, through its military, to control movements and prosecute suspected terrorists in occupied territories, and to censor publications that are deemed prejudicial to national defense. The Standing Committee of the National People 's Congress can declare a state of emergency and deploy troops from the People 's Liberation Army Macau Garrison under the Article 14 of Macau 's Basic Law on the defence of the Macau Special Administrative Region. The Chief Executive of Macau can use the Macau national security law to prohibit public gatherings, issue curfew orders, prohibit other activities perceived to be a threat against the Region or China. Since 1999 no emergency measure have been enacted. Prior to 1999 emergency measures have been used for 1 major incident: In Malaysia, if the Yang di - Pertuan Agong (Monarch) is satisfied that a grave emergency exists whereby the security, or the economic life, or public order in the Federation or any part thereof is threatened, he may issue a Proclamation of Emergency making therein a declaration to that effect. In the history of Malaysia, a state of emergency was declared by the then - colonial government of Britain. The state of emergency lasted from 1948 until 1960 to deal with the communists led by Chin Peng. States of emergency were also declared during the Konfrontasi in 1962, the 1966 Sarawak constitutional crisis and 1977 Kelantan Emergency. When a race riot broke out on May 13, 1969, a state of emergency was declared. On August 11, 2005 a state of emergency was announced for the world 's 13th largest port, Port Klang and the district of Kuala Selangor after air pollution there reached dangerous levels (defined as a value greater than 500 on the Air Pollution Index or API). Thiery Rommel, the European Commission 's envoy to Malaysia, told Reuters by telephone on November 13, 2007 (the last day of his mission) that, "Today, this country still lives under (a state of) emergency. '' Although not officially proclaimed as a state of emergency, the Emergency Ordinance and the Internal Security Act had allowed detention for years without trial. On June 23, 2013 a state of emergency was declared by Prime Minister Najib Abdul Razak for Muar and Ledang, Johor as smoke from land - clearing fires in Indonesia pushed air pollution index to above 750. This is the first time in years that air quality has dipped to hazardous level with conditions worsening in as dry weather persists and fires rage in Sumatra. On February 5, 2018, a state of emergency was declared by Maldives 's President Abdulla Yameen for 15 days and ordered security forces into the supreme court and arrested a former president Maumoon Abdul Gayoom and the Chief Justice of Honorable Supreme court of Maldives. The Civil Defence Emergency Management Act 2002 gives the government and local city council the power to issue a state of emergency, either over the entire country or within a specific region. This may suspend ordinary work and essential services if need be. The state of emergency in New Zealand expires on the commencement of the seventh day after the date on which it was declared, unless it is extended. However, the minister of civil defence or local mayor may lift the state of emergency after an initial review of the region 's status. In Nigeria, a state of emergency is usually declared in times of great civil unrest. In recent years, it has specifically been implemented in reaction to terrorist attacks on Nigerians by the Islamic jihadist group Boko Haram. On 14 May 2013, Goodluck Jonathan declared a state of emergency for the entire northeastern states of Borno, Yobe and Adamawa. A more limited state of emergency had been declared on 31 December 2011 in parts of Yobe, Borno, Plateau and Niger states. This earlier declaration included the temporary shutdown of the international borders in those regions. In Pakistan, a state of emergency was declared five times in its history: The first three were regarded as the imposition of direct martial law. In Romania, there are two types of states of emergency, each designed for a different type of situation. The most well - known event in which the state of emergency has been enforced was because of 1977 Vrancea earthquake. The last instance in which the special zone of public safety was enforced was in December 8, 2013 - ongoing, in Pungești, Vaslui following civil unrest in Pungești from Chevron 's plans to begin exploring shale - gas in the village. According to police officials, the special security zone will be maintained as long as there is conflict in the area that poses a threat to Chevron 's operations. This special security zone has faced domestic and international criticism for alleged human - rights abuses. States of emergency in South Africa are governed by section 37 of the Constitution and by the State of Emergency Act, 1997. The President may declare a state of emergency only when "the life of the nation is threatened by war, invasion, general insurrection, disorder, natural disaster or other public emergency '' and if the ordinary laws and government powers are not sufficient to restore peace and order. The declaration is made by proclamation in the Government Gazette and may only apply from the time of publication, not retroactively. It can only continue for 21 days unless the National Assembly grants an extension, which may be for at most three months at a time. The High Courts have the power, subject to confirmation by the Constitutional Court, to determine the validity of the declaration of a state of emergency. During a state of emergency the President has the power to make emergency regulations "necessary or expedient '' to restore peace and order and end the emergency. This power can be delegated to other authorities. Emergency measures can violate the Bill of Rights, but only to a limited extent. Some rights are inviolable, including amongst others the rights to life and to human dignity; the prohibition of discrimination on the grounds of race, sex or religion; the prohibition of torture or inhuman punishment; and the right of accused people to a fair trial. Any violation of a constitutional right must be strictly required by the emergency. Emergency measures may not indemnify the government or individuals for illegal actions. They may impose criminal penalties, but not exceeding three years ' imprisonment. They may not require military service beyond that required by the ordinary laws governing the defence force. An emergency measure may be disapproved by the National Assembly, in which case it lapses, and no emergency measure may interfere with the elections, powers or sittings of Parliament or the provincial legislatures. The courts have the power to determine the validity of any emergency measure. The constitution places strict limits on any detention without trial during a state of emergency. A friend or family member of the detainee must be informed, and the name and place of detention must be published in the Government Gazette. The detainee must have access to a doctor and a legal representative. He or she must be brought before a court within at most ten days, for the court to determine whether the detention is necessary, and if not released may demand repeated review every ten days. At the court review the detainee must be allowed legal representation and must be allowed to appear in person. The provisions on detention without trial do not apply to prisoners of war in an international conflict; instead they must be treated in accordance with the Geneva Conventions and other international law. In Spain, there are three degrees of state of emergency (estado de emergencia in Spanish): alarma (alarm or alert), excepción (exception (al circumstance)) and sitio (siege). They are named by the constitution, which limits which rights may be suspended, but regulated by the "Ley Orgánica 4 / 1981 '' (Organic Law). On December 4, 2010, the first state of alert was declared following the air traffic controllers strike. It was the first time since the Francisco Franco 's regime that a state of emergency was declared. In Sri Lanka, the President is able to proclaim emergency regulations under the Public Security Ordinance in the constitution in order to preserve public security and public order; suppression of mutiny, riot or civil commotion; or maintenance of supplies and services essential to the life of the community. These regulations last for one month unless confirmed otherwise by Parliament. According to Art. 185 of the Swiss Federal Constitution The Federal Council (Bundesrat) can call up in their own competence military personnel of maximum 4000 militia for three weeks to safeguard inner or outer security (called Federal Intervention or Federal Execution, respectively). A larger number of soldiers or of a longer duration is subject to parliamentary decision. For deployments within Switzerland the principle of subsidiarity rules: as a first step, unrest has to be overcome with the aid of cantonal police units. An emergency prevailed in Syria from 1962 to 2011. Originally predicated on the conflict with Israel, the emergency acted to centralize authority in the presidency and the national security apparatus while silencing public dissent. The emergency was terminated in response to protests that preceded the Syrian Civil War. Under the 2012 constitution, the president may pass an emergency decree with a 2 / 3 concurrence of his ministers, provided that he presents it to the legislature for constitutional review. A state of emergency was declared in 1970 during the Black Power Revolution by then Prime Minister Eric Williams. During the attempted state coup by the Jamaat al Muslimeen against the NAR government of the then Prime Minister A.N.R. Robinson, a state of emergency was declared during the coup attempt and for a period after the coup. On August 4, 1995, a state of emergency was declared to remove the Speaker of the House Occah Seepaul by Prime Minister Patrick Manning during a constitutional crisis. The government had attempted to remove the speaker via a no - confidence motion, which failed. The state of emergency was used to remove the speaker using the emergency powers granted. The Prime Minister Kamla Persad - Bissessar on 22 August 2011 at 8: 00 pm announced a State of Emergency in an attempt to crack down on the trafficking of illegal drugs and firearms, in addition to gangs. The decision of the President, George Maxwell Richards, to issue the proclamation for the State of Emergency was debated in the country 's Parliament as required by the Constitution on September 2, 2011 and passed by the required simple majority of the House of Representatives. On September 4 the Parliament has extended the State Of Emergency for a further 3 months and ended in December 2011. Since the foundation of the Republic of Turkey in 1923 the military conducted three coups d'état and announced martial law. Martial law between 1978 and 1983 was replaced by a state of emergency that lasted until November 2002. The latest state of emergency was declared by President Erdogan on 20 July 2016 following a failed coup attempt on 15 July 2016 by a faction of the country 's armed forces... In the United Kingdom, only the British Sovereign, on the advice of the Privy Council is able to proclaim emergency regulations under the Civil Contingencies Act 2004 in case of any seriously fatal threats to their human welfare, their human society, and their environment, such as warfare or terrorism. These regulations last for seven days unless confirmed otherwise by Parliament. A state of emergency was last invoked in 1974 by Prime Minister Edward Heath in response to increasing industrial action. The Constitution explicitly provides some emergency powers: Aside from these, many provisions of law exist in various jurisdictions, which take effect only upon an executive declaration of emergency; some 500 federal laws take effect upon a presidential declaration of emergency. The National Emergencies Act regulates this process at the federal level. It requires the President to specifically identify the provisions activated and to renew the declaration annually so as to prevent an arbitrarily broad or open - ended emergency. Presidents have occasionally taken action justified as necessary or prudent because of a state of emergency, only to have the action struck down in court as unconstitutional. A state governor or local mayor may declare a state of emergency within his or her jurisdiction. This is common at the state level in response to natural disasters. The Federal Emergency Management Agency maintains a system of assets, personnel and training to respond to such incidents. For example, on December 10, 2015, Washington state Governor Jay Inslee declared a state of emergency due to flooding and landslides caused by heavy rains. The 1977 International Emergency Economic Powers Act allows the government to freeze assets, limit trade and confiscate property in response to an "unusual and extraordinary threat '' to the United States that originates substantially outside of it. As of 2015 more than twenty emergencies under the IEEPA remain active regarding various subjects, the oldest of which was declared in 1979 with regard to the government of Iran. Another ongoing national emergency, declared after the September 11 attacks, authorizes the president to retain or reactivate military personnel beyond their normal term of service.

who played the secretary in ferris bueller's day off

Ferris Bueller 's Day Off - wikipedia Ferris Bueller 's Day Off is a 1986 American teen comedy film written, co-produced, and directed by John Hughes, and co-produced by Tom Jacobson. The film stars Matthew Broderick as Ferris Bueller, a high - school slacker who spends a day off from school, with Mia Sara and Alan Ruck. Ferris regularly "breaks the fourth wall '' to explain techniques and inner thoughts. Hughes wrote the screenplay in less than a week. Filming began in September 1985 and finished in November. Featuring many landmarks, including the then Sears Tower and the Art Institute of Chicago, the film was Hughes ' love letter to Chicago: "I really wanted to capture as much of Chicago as I could. Not just in the architecture and landscape, but the spirit. '' Released by Paramount Pictures on June 11, 1986, the film became one of the top - grossing films of the year, receiving $70.1 million over a $5.8 million budget, and was enthusiastically acclaimed by critics and audiences alike. In 2014, the film was selected for preservation in the National Film Registry by the Library of Congress, being deemed "culturally, historically, or aesthetically significant. '' In 2016, Paramount, Turner Classic Movies, and Fathom Events re-released the film and Pretty in Pink to celebrate their 30th anniversary. In suburban Chicago, Illinois, near the end of the school year, high school senior Ferris Bueller fakes being sick to stay home. Throughout the film, Ferris frequently breaks the fourth wall to talk about his friends and give the audience advice on how to skip school. His parents believe him, though his sister Jeanie is not convinced. Dean of Students Edward R. Rooney suspects Ferris is being truant again and commits to catching him. Ferris convinces his friend Cameron Frye, who really is absent due to illness, to help get Ferris ' girlfriend Sloane Peterson out of school by reporting that her grandmother has died. To trick Rooney, Ferris sways Cameron to let them use his father 's prized 1961 Ferrari 250 GT California Spyder to collect Sloane. Cameron is dismayed when Ferris continues to use the car to drive them into downtown Chicago to spend the day, but Ferris promises they will return it as it was. The trio leave the car with parking garage attendants who immediately take the car for a joy ride after they leave. Ferris, Cameron, and Sloane sightsee around the city, including the Art Institute of Chicago, Sears Tower, Chicago Mercantile Exchange, and Wrigley Field, while narrowly dodging Mr. Bueller. Cameron remains disinterested, and Ferris attempts to cheer him up by impromptu joining a parade float during the Von Steuben Day parade and lip - syncing Wayne Newton 's cover of "Danke Schoen '', as well as a rendition of The Beatles ' "Twist and Shout '' that excites the gathered crowds. Meanwhile, Rooney investigates the Bueller home to try to prove Ferris ' truancy, getting into several pratfalls. At the same time, Jeanie, frustrated that the entire school believes Ferris has come down with a deadly illness, skips class and returns home to confront him, only to run into, attack, and knock out Rooney. Rooney flees while she calls the police; when they arrive they arrest her for filing a false report and contact her mother to collect her. While waiting, she meets a juvenile delinquent (Charlie Sheen) who advises her not to worry so much about Ferris. Mrs. Bueller arrives at the station, upset about having to forgo a house sale, only to find Jeanie kissing the delinquent, infuriating her more. Ferris and his friends collect the Ferrari and depart for home, but shortly discover many miles have been added to the odometer and Cameron becomes catatonic. Back at Cameron 's garage, Ferris sets the car on blocks and runs it in reverse to try to take miles off the odometer without success. Cameron finally snaps, and lets out his anger against his controlling father by repeatedly kicking the car. This causes it to fall off the blocks and race in reverse through the back of the garage and into the ravine below. Ferris offers to take the blame, but Cameron asserts he will stand up against his father. Ferris returns Sloane home and realizes his parents are due home soon. As he races on foot through the neighborhood he is nearly hit by Jeanie, who is driving their mother home. She speeds off trying to beat Ferris home. Ferris makes it home first to find Rooney waiting for him outside. Jeanie races into the house as their mother talks to their father about her behavior that day. Jeanie discovers Rooney threatening Ferris and tells Rooney that she was just helping to return Ferris from the hospital and shows Rooney his wallet that she had found from his earlier break - in. Rooney flees from the family dog while Ferris rushes back to his bedroom to greet his parents while feigning his waning illness. As they leave, Ferris reminds the audience, "Life moves pretty fast. If you do n't stop and look around once in a while, you could miss it. '' During the end credits a defeated Rooney heads home and is picked up by a school bus, further humiliated by the students. After the credits, Ferris tells the audience the film is over and to go home. As he was writing the film in 1985, John Hughes kept track of his progress in a spiral - bound logbook. He noted that the basic storyline was developed on February 25. It was successfully pitched the following day to Paramount Studios chief Ned Tanen. Tanen was intrigued by the concept, but wary that the Writers Guild of America was hours away from picketing the studio. Hughes wrote the screenplay in less than a week. Editor Paul Hirsch explained that Hughes had a trance - like concentration to his script - writing process, working for hours on end, and would later shoot the film on essentially what was his first draft of the script. "The first cut of Ferris Bueller 's Day Off ended up at two hours, 45 minutes. The shortening of the script had to come in the cutting room '', said Hirsch. "Having the story episodic and taking place in one day... meant the characters were wearing the same clothes. I suspect that Hughes writes his scripts with few, if any costume changes just so he can have that kind of freedom in the editing. '' Hughes intended the movie to be more focused on the characters rather than the plot. "I know how the movie begins, I know how it ends '', said Hughes. "I do n't ever know the rest, but that does n't seem to matter. It 's not the events that are important, it 's the characters going through the event. Therefore, I make them as full and real as I can. This time around, I wanted to create a character who could handle everyone and everything. '' Hughes said that he had Broderick in mind when he wrote the screenplay, saying Broderick was the only actor he could think of who could pull off the role, calling him clever and charming. "Certain guys would have played Ferris and you would have thought, ' Where 's my wallet? ' '' Hughes said. "I had to have that look; that charm had to come through. Jimmy Stewart could have played Ferris at 15... I needed Matthew. '' Alan Ruck later told the AV Club that Anthony Michael Hall, who had previously worked with Hughes on three films, was originally offered the part but turned it down. Other actors who were considered for the role included Jim Carrey, John Cusack, Tom Cruise and Michael J. Fox. Sara surprised Hughes when she auditioned for the role of Sloane Peterson. "It was funny. He did n't know how old I was and said he wanted an older girl to play the 17 - year - old. He said it would take someone older to give her the kind of dignity she needed. He almost fell out of his chair when I told him I was only 18. '' Molly Ringwald had also wanted to play Sloane, but according to Ringwald, "John would n't let me do it: he said that the part was n't big enough for me. '' Ruck had previously auditioned for the Bender role in The Breakfast Club which went to Judd Nelson, but Hughes remembered Ruck and cast him as the 17 - year - old Cameron Frye. According to Hughes, the character of Cameron was largely based on a friend of his in high school. "He was sort of a lost person. His family neglected him, so he took that as license to really pamper himself. When he was legitimately sick, he actually felt good, because it was difficult and tiring to have to invent diseases but when he actually had something, he was relaxed. '' Ruck said the role of Cameron had originally been offered to Emilio Estevez who turned it down. "Every time I see Emilio, I want to kiss him '', said Ruck. "Thank you! '' Ruck, then 29, worried about the age difference. "I was worried that I 'd be 10 years out of step, and I would n't know anything about what was cool, what was hip, all that junk. But when I was going to high school, I did n't know any of that stuff then, either. So I just thought, well, hell -- I 'll just be me. The character, he 's such a loner that he really would n't give a damn about that stuff anyway. He 'd feel guilty that he did n't know it, but that 's it. '' Ruck was not surprised to find himself cast young. "No, because, really, when I was 18, I sort of looked 12 '', he said. "Maybe it 's a genetic imbalance. '' Ruck and Broderick had previously acted together in the Broadway production of Biloxi Blues. Cameron 's Mr. Peterson voice was an in - joke imitation of their former director Gene Saks. Ruck felt at ease working with Broderick, often crashing in his trailer. "We did n't have to invent an instant friendship like you often have to do in a movie '', said Ruck. "We were friends. '' Jones was cast as Rooney based on his role in Amadeus, where he played the emperor; Hughes thought that character 's modern equivalent was Rooney. "My part was actually quite small in the script, but what seemed to be the important part to me was that I was the only one who was n't swept along by Ferris '', recalls Jones. "So I was the only one in opposition, which presented a lot of opportunities, some of which were n't even in the script or were expanded on. John was receptive to anything I had to offer, and indeed got ideas along the way himself. So that was fun, working with him. '' "Hughes told me at the time -- and I thought he was just blowing his own horn -- he said, ' You are going to be known for this for the rest of your life. ' And I thought, ' Sure '... but he was right. '' To help Jones study for the part, Hughes took him to meet his old vice principal. "This is the guy I want you to pay close attention to, '' Jones explained to Hughes ' biographer Kirk Honeycutt. While meeting him, the VP 's coat momentarily flew open revealing a holster and gun attached to the man 's belt. This made Jones realize what Hughes had envisioned. "The guy was ' Sign up for the Army quick before I kill you! ' '' Jones exclaimed. Stein says he got the role of Bueller 's Economics teacher through six degrees of separation. "Richard Nixon introduced me to a man named Bill Safire, who 's a New York Times columnist. He introduced me to a guy who 's an executive at Warner Brothers. He introduced me to a guy who 's a casting director. He introduced me to John Hughes. John Hughes and I are among the only Republicans in the picture business, and John Hughes put me in the movie '', Stein said. Hughes said that Stein was an easy and early choice for the role of the teacher: "He was n't a professional actor. He had a flat voice, he looked like a teacher. '' "Chicago is what I am, '' said Hughes. "A lot of Ferris is sort of my love letter to the city. And the more people who get upset with the fact that I film there, the more I 'll make sure that 's exactly where I film. It 's funny -- nobody ever says anything to Woody Allen about always filming in New York. America has this great reverence for New York. I look at it as this decaying horror pit. So let the people in Chicago enjoy Ferris Bueller. '' For the film, Hughes got the chance to take a more expansive look at the city he grew up in. "We took a helicopter up the Chicago River. This is the first chance I 'd really had to get outside while making a movie. Up to this point, the pictures had been pretty small. I really wanted to capture as much of Chicago as I could, not just the architecture and the landscape, but the spirit. '' Shooting began in Chicago on September 9, 1985. In late October 1985, the production moved to Los Angeles, and shooting ended on November 22. The Von Steuben Day Parade scene was filmed on September 28. Scenes were filmed at several locations in downtown Chicago and Winnetka (Ferris 's home, his mother 's real estate office, etc.). Many of the other scenes were filmed in Northbrook, Illinois, including at Glenbrook North High School, on School Drive, the long, curvy street on which Glenbrook North and neighboring Maple Middle School are situated. The exterior of Ferris 's house is located at 4160 Country Club Drive, Long Beach, California. The modernist house of Cameron Frye is located in Highland Park, Illinois. Known as the Ben Rose House, it was designed by architects A. James Speyer, who designed the main building in 1954, and David Haid, who designed the pavilion in 1974. It was once owned by photographer Ben Rose, who had a car collection in the pavilion. In the film Cameron 's father is portrayed as owning a Ferrari 250 GT California in the same pavilion. According to Lake Forest College art professor Franz Shulze, during the filming of the scene where the Ferrari crashes out of the window, Haid explained to Hughes that he could prevent the car from damaging the rest of the pavilion. Haid fixed connections in the wall and the building remained intact. Haid said to Hughes afterward, "You owe me $25,000 '', which Hughes paid. Other scenes were shot in Chicago, River Forest, Oak Park, Northbrook, Highland Park, Glencoe and Winnetka, Lake Forest and Long Beach, California. After Ben Rose 's death in 2009 the house was offered for sale and was sold in 2014. According to Hughes, the scene at the Art Institute of Chicago was "a self - indulgent scene of mine -- which was a place of refuge for me, I went there quite a bit, I loved it. I knew all the paintings, the building. This was a chance for me to go back into this building and show the paintings that were my favorite. '' The museum had not been shot in, until the producers of the film approached them. "I remember Hughes saying, ' There are going to be more works of art in this movie than there have ever been before, ' '' recalled Jennifer Grey. According to editor Paul Hirsch, in the original cut, the museum scene fared poorly at test screenings until he switched sequences around and Hughes changed the soundtrack. The piece of music I originally chose was a classical guitar solo played on acoustic guitar. It was nonmetrical with a lot of rubato. I cut the sequence to that music and it also became nonmetrical and irregular. I thought it was great and so did Hughes. He loved it so much that he showed it to the studio but they just went "Ehhh. '' Then after many screenings where the audience said "The museum scene is the scene we like least '', he decided to replace the music. We had all loved it, but the audience hated it. I said, ' I think I know why they hate the museum scene. It 's in the wrong place. ' Originally, the parade sequence came before the museum sequence, but I realized that the parade was the highlight of the day, there was no way we could top it, so it had to be the last thing before the three kids go home. So that was agreed upon, we reshuffled the events of the day, and moved the museum sequence before the parade. Then we screened it and everybody loved the museum scene! My feeling was that they loved it because it came in at the right point in the sequence of events. John felt they loved it because of the music. Basically, the bottom line is, it worked. The music used for the final version of the museum sequence is an instrumental cover version of The Smiths ' "Please, Please, Please, Let Me Get What I Want '', performed by The Dream Academy. A passionate Beatles fan, Hughes makes multiple references to them and John Lennon in the script. During filming, Hughes "listened to The White Album every single day for fifty - six days ''. Hughes also pays tribute to his childhood hero Gordie Howe with Cameron 's Detroit Red Wings jersey. "I sent them the jersey '', said Howe. "It was nice seeing the No. 9 on the big screen. '' In the film, Ferris convinces Cameron to borrow his father 's rare 1961 Ferrari 250 GT California Spyder. "The insert shots of the Ferrari were of the real 250 GT California '', Hughes explains in the DVD commentary. "The cars we used in the wide shots were obviously reproductions. There were only 100 of these cars, so it was way too expensive to destroy. We had a number of replicas made. They were pretty good, but for the tight shots I needed a real one, so we brought one in to the stage and shot the inserts with it. '' Prior to filming, Hughes learned about Modena Design and Development who produced the Modena Spyder California, a replica of the Ferrari 250 GT. Hughes saw a mention of the company in a car magazine and decided to research them. Neil Glassmoyer recalls the day Hughes contacted him to ask about seeing the Modena Spyder: The first time he called I hung up on him because I thought it was a friend of mine who was given to practical jokes. Then he called back and convinced me it really was him, so Mark and I took the car to his office. While we were waiting outside to meet Hughes this scruffy - looking fellow came out of the building and began looking the car over; we thought from his appearance he must have been a janitor or something. Then he looked up at a window and shouted, ' This is it! ' and several heads poked out to have a look. That scruffy - looking fellow was John Hughes, and the people in the window were his staff. Turned out it was between the Modena Spyder and a Porsche Turbo, and Hughes chose the Modena. Automobile restorationist Mark Goyette designed the kits for three reproductions used in the film and chronicled the whereabouts of the cars today: One of the "replicars '' was sold by Bonhams on April 19, 2010, at the Royal Air Force Museum at Hendon, United Kingdom for £ 79,600. The "replicar '' was "universally hated by the crew '', said Ruck. "It did n't work right. '' The scene in which Ferris turns off the car to leave it with the garage attendant had to be shot a dozen times because it would not start. The car was built with a real wheel base, but used a Ford V8 engine instead of a V12. At the time of filming, the original 250 GT California model was worth $350,000. Since the release of the film, it has become one of the most expensive cars ever sold, going at auction in 2008 for $10,976,000 and more recently in 2015 for $16,830,000. The vanity plate of Cameron 's dad 's Ferrari spells NRVOUS and the other plates seen in the film are homages to Hughes 's earlier works, VCTN (National Lampoon 's Vacation), TBC (The Breakfast Club), MMOM (Mr. Mom), as well as 4FBDO (Ferris Bueller 's Day Off). Ben Stein 's famous monotonous lecture about the Smoot - Hawley Tariff Act was not originally in Hughes 's script. Stein, by happenstance, was lecturing off - camera to the amusement of the student cast. "I was just going to do it off camera, but the student extras laughed so hard when they heard my voice that (Hughes) said do it on camera, improvise, something you know a lot about. When I gave the lecture about supply - side economics, I thought they were applauding. Everybody on the set applauded. I thought they were applauding because they had learned something about supply - side economics. But they were applauding because they thought I was boring... It was the best day of my life '', Stein said. The parade scene took multiple days of filming; Broderick spent some time practicing the dance moves. "I was very scared '', Broderick said. "Fortunately, the sequence was carefully choreographed beforehand. We worked out all the moves by rehearsing in a little studio. It was shot on two Saturdays in the heart of downtown Chicago. The first day was during a real parade, and John got some very long shots. Then radio stations carried announcements inviting people to take part in ' a John Hughes movie '. The word got around fast and 10,000 people showed up! For the final shot, I turned around and saw a river of people. I put my hands up at the end of the number and heard this huge roar. I can understand how rock stars feel. That kind of reaction feeds you. '' Broderick 's moves were choreographed by Kenny Ortega (who later choreographed Dirty Dancing). Much of it had to be scrapped though as Broderick had injured his knee badly during the scenes of running through neighbors ' backyards. "I was pretty sore '', Broderick said. "I got well enough to do what you see in the parade there, but I could n't do most of Kenny Ortega 's knee spins and things like that that we had worked on. When we did shoot it, we had all this choreography and I remember John would yell with a megaphone, ' Okay, do it again, but do n't do any of the choreography, ' because he wanted it to be a total mess. '' "Danke Schoen '' was somewhat choreographed but for "Twist and Shout '', Broderick said, "we were just making everything up ''. Hughes explained that much of the scene was spontaneously filmed. "It just happened that this was an actual parade, which we put our float into -- unbeknownst to anybody, all the people on the reviewing stand. Nobody knew what it was, including the governor. '' Wrigley Field is featured in two interwoven and consecutive scenes. In the first scene, Rooney is looking for Ferris at a pizza joint while the voice of Harry Caray announces the action of a ballgame that is being shown on TV. From the play - by - play descriptions, the uniforms, and the player numbers, this game has been identified as the June 5, 1985, game between the Atlanta Braves and the Chicago Cubs. The batter rips a foul ball into the left field stands, and as Rooney looks away from the TV briefly, the TV cameras show a close up of Ferris a moment after catching it. The scene in the pizza joint continues as Rooney tries to banter about the game with the guy behind the counter. In the next scene, Sloane, Cameron, and Ferris are in the left field stands inside Wrigley. Ferris flexes his hand in pain after supposedly catching the foul ball. During this scene, the characters enjoy the game and joke about what they would be doing if they had played by the rules. All these "in the park '' shots, including the one from the previous scene where Ferris catches the foul ball on TV, were filmed on September 24, 1985, at a game between the Montreal Expos and the Cubs. During the 1985 season, the Braves and the Expos both wore powder blue uniforms during their road games. And so, with seamless editing by Hughes, it is difficult to distinguish that the game being seen and described in the pizza joint is not only a different game but also a different Cubs ' opponent than the one filmed inside the stadium. John Hughes had originally wanted to film the scene at the baseball game at Comiskey Park, as Hughes was a Chicago White Sox fan. However, due to time constraints, the location was moved to Wrigley Field at the last minute. On October 1, 2011, Wrigley Field celebrated the 25th anniversary of the film by showing it on three giant screens on the infield. Throughout the film a background sub-plot is developed that the public have heard that Ferris is very ill and are raising funds to save him. A friend talks to Ferris on the phone and deduces that he is dying. In school, a teen is collecting money for Ferris and asks Jeanie for a donation. Jeanie swears at him and knocks the collection jar out of his hands. Throughout the city the words ' Save Ferris ' appear in various locations including the Wrigley Field main entry marquee, a hot air balloon, and a water tower. When the family arrive home, the hallway is filled with balloons and flowers wishing Ferris well. Several scenes were cut from the final film; one lost scene entitled "The Isles of Langerhans '' has the three teenagers trying to order in the French restaurant, shocked to discover pancreas on the menu (although in the finished film, Ferris still says, "We ate pancreas '', while recapping the day). This is featured on the Bueller, Bueller Edition DVD. Other scenes were never made available on any DVD version. These scenes included additional screen time with Jeanie in a locker room, Ferris ' younger brother and sister (both of whom were completely removed from the film), and additional lines of dialogue throughout the film, all of which can be seen in the original theatrical trailer. Hughes had also wanted to film a scene where Ferris, Sloane, and Cameron go to a strip club. Paramount executives told him there were only so many shooting days left, so the scene was scrapped. An official soundtrack was not originally released for the film, as director John Hughes felt the songs would not work well together as a continuous album. However, according to an interview with Lollipop Magazine, Hughes noted that he had sent 100,000 7 '' vinyl singles containing two songs featured in the film to members of his fan mailing list. Hughes gave further details about his refusal to release a soundtrack in the Lollipop interview: The only official soundtrack that Ferris Bueller 's Day Off ever had was for the mailing list. A&M was very angry with me over that; they begged me to put one out, but I thought "who 'd want all of these songs? '' I mean, would kids want "Danke Schoen '' and "Oh Yeah '' on the same record? They probably already had "Twist and Shout '', or their parents did, and to put all of those together with the more contemporary stuff, like the (English) Beat -- I just did n't think anybody would like it. But I did put together a seven - inch of the two songs I owned the rights to -- "Beat City '' on one side, and... I forget, one of the other English bands on the soundtrack... and sent that to the mailing list. By ' 86, ' 87, it was costing us $30 a piece to mail out 100,000 packages. But it was a labor of love. "Danke Schoen '' is one of the recurring motifs in the film and is sung by Ferris, Ed Rooney, and Jeanie. Hughes called it the "most awful song of my youth. Every time it came on, I just wanted to scream, claw my face. I was taking German in high school -- which meant that we listened to it in school. I could n't get away from it. '' According to Broderick, Ferris 's singing "Danke Schoen '' in the shower was his idea. "Although it 's only because of the brilliance of John 's deciding that I should sing "Danke Schoen '' on the float in the parade. I had never heard the song before. I was learning it for the parade scene. So we 're doing the shower scene and I thought, ' Well, I can do a little rehearsal. ' And I did something with my hair to make that Mohawk. And you know what good directors do: they say, ' Stop! Wait until we roll. ' And John put that stuff in. '' The soundtrack for the film, limited to 5,000 copies, was released on September 13, 2016 by La - La Land Records. The album includes new wave and pop songs featured in the film, as well as Ira Newborn 's complete score, including unused cues. Due to licensing restrictions, "Twist and Shout, '' "Taking The Day Off, '' and "March of the Swivelheads '' were not included, but are available elsewhere. The Flowerpot Men 's "Beat City '' makes its first official release on CD with a new mix done by The Flowerpot Men 's Ben Watkins and Adam Peters that differs from the original 7 '' fan club release. The film largely received positive reviews from critics. Roger Ebert gave it three out of four stars, calling it "one of the most innocent movies in a long time, '' and "a sweet, warm - hearted comedy. '' Richard Roeper called the film "one of my favorite movies of all time. It has one of the highest ' repeatability ' factors of any film I 've ever seen... I can watch it again and again. There 's also this, and I say it in all sincerity: Ferris Bueller 's Day Off is something of a suicide prevention film, or at the very least a story about a young man trying to help his friend gain some measure of self - worth... Ferris has made it his mission to show Cameron that the whole world in front of him is passing him by, and that life can be pretty sweet if you wake up and embrace it. That 's the lasting message of Ferris Bueller 's Day Off. '' Roeper pays homage to the film with a license plate that reads "SVFRRIS ''. Conservative columnist George Will hailed Ferris as "the moviest movie, '' a film "most true to the general spirit of the movies, the spirit of effortless escapism. '' Essayist Steve Almond called Ferris "the most sophisticated teen movie (he) had ever seen, '' adding that while Hughes had made a lot of good movies, Ferris was the "one film (he) would consider true art, (the) only one that reaches toward the ecstatic power of teendom (sic) and, at the same time, exposes the true, piercing woe of that age. '' Almond also applauded Ruck 's performance, going so far as saying he deserved the Academy Award for Best Supporting Actor of 1986: "His performance is what elevates the film, allows it to assume the power of a modern parable. '' The New York Times reviewer Nina Darnton criticized Mia Sara 's portrayal of Sloane for lacking "the specific detail that characterized the adolescent characters in Hughes 's other films '', asserting she "created a basically stable but forgettable character. '' Conversely, Darnton praised Ruck and Grey 's performances: "The two people who grow in the movie -- Cameron, played with humor and sensitivity by Alan Ruck, and Ferris 's sister Jeanie, played with appropriate self - pity by Jennifer Grey -- are the most authentic. Grey manages to play an insufferably sulky teen - ager who is still attractive and likable. '' National Review writer Mark Hemingway lauded the film 's celebration of liberty. "If there 's a better celluloid expression of ordinary American freedom than Ferris Bueller 's Day Off, I have yet to see it. If you could take one day and do absolutely anything, piling into a convertible with your best girl and your best friend and taking in a baseball game, an art museum, and a fine meal seems about as good as it gets, '' wrote Hemingway. Others were less enamored with Ferris, many taking issue with the film 's "rebel without a cause '' hedonism. David Denby of New York Magazine, called the film "a nauseating distillation of the slack, greedy side of Reaganism. '' Author Christina Lee agreed, adding it was a "splendidly ridiculous exercise in unadulterated indulgence, '' and the film "encapsulated the Reagan era 's near solipsist worldview and insatiable appetite for immediate gratification -- of living in and for the moment... '' Gene Siskel panned the film from a Chicago - centric perspective saying "Ferris Bueller does n't do anything much fun... (t) hey do n't even sit in the bleachers where all the kids like to sit when they go to Cubs games. '' Siskel did enjoy the chemistry between Jennifer Grey and Charlie Sheen. Ebert thought Siskel was too eager to find flaws in the film 's view of Chicago. It has an aggregate score of 79 % (based on 63 critics ' reviews) on Rotten Tomatoes, and an average rating of 7.7 / 10. Broderick was nominated for a Golden Globe Award in 1986 for Best Actor -- Motion Picture Musical or Comedy. The film opened in 1,330 theaters in the United States and had a total weekend gross of $6,275,647, opening at # 2. Ferris Bueller 's Day Off 's total gross in the United States was approximately $70,136,369, making it a box office success. It subsequently became the 10th - highest - grossing film of 1986. As an influential and popular film, Ferris Bueller 's Day Off has been included in many film rating lists. The film is number 54 on Bravo 's "100 Funniest Movies '', came 26th in the British 50 Greatest Comedy Films and ranked number 10 on Entertainment Weekly 's list of the "50 Best High School Movies ''. First Lady Barbara Bush paraphrased the film in her 1990 commencement address at Wellesley College: "Find the joy in life, because as Ferris Bueller said on his day off, ' Life moves pretty fast; if you do n't stop and look around once in a while, you could miss it! ' '' Responding to the audience 's enthusiastic applause, she added "I 'm not going to tell George ya clapped more for Ferris than ya clapped for George. '' Other phrases from Ferris Bueller 's Day Off such as Stein 's nasally - voiced "Bueller?... Bueller?... Bueller? '' (while taking roll call in class), and "Anyone? Anyone? '' (trying to probe the students for answers) as well as Kristy Swanson 's cheerful "No problem whatsoever! '' also permeated popular culture. In fact, Stein 's monotone performance launched his acting career. In 2016, Stein reprised the attendance scene in a campaign ad for Iowa Senator Charles Grassley; Stein intoned the last name of Grassley 's opponent (Patty Judge), to silence, while facts about her missed votes and absences from state board meetings were listed. Stein then calls out "Grassley, '' which gets a response; Stein mutters, "He 's always here. '' Broderick said of the Ferris Bueller role, "It eclipsed everything, I should admit, and to some degree it still does. '' Later at the 2010 Oscar tribute to Hughes, he said, "For the past 25 years, nearly every day someone comes up to me, taps me on the shoulder and says, ' Hey, Ferris, is this your day off? ' '' Ruck says that with Cameron Frye, Hughes gave him "the best part I ever had in a movie, and any success that I 've had since 1985 is because he took a big chance on me. I 'll be forever grateful. '' "While we were making the movie, I just knew I had a really good part '', Ruck says. "My realization of John 's impact on the teen - comedy genre crept in sometime later. Teen comedies tend to dwell on the ridiculous, as a rule. It 's always the preoccupation with sex and the self - involvement, and we kind of hold the kids up for ridicule in a way. Hughes added this element of dignity. He was an advocate for teenagers as complete human beings, and he honored their hopes and their dreams. That 's what you see in his movies. '' Broderick starred in a television advertisement prepared by Honda promoting its CR - V for the 2012 Super Bowl XLVI. The ad pays homage to Ferris Bueller, featuring Broderick (as himself) faking illness to skip out of work to enjoy sightseeing around Los Angeles. Several elements, such as the use of the song "Oh Yeah '', and a valet monotonously calling for "Broderick... Broderick... '', appear in the ad. A teaser for the ad had appeared two weeks prior to the Super Bowl, which had created rumors of a possible film sequel. It was produced by Santa Monica - based RPA and directed by Todd Phillips. AdWeek 's Tim Nudd called the ad "a great homage to the original 1986 film, with Broderick this time calling in sick to a film shoot and enjoying another day of slacking. '' On the other hand, Jalopnik 's Matt Hardigree called the spot "sacrilegious ''. In March 2017, Domino 's Pizza began an advertising campaign parodying the film, featuring actor Joe Keery in the lead role. The film 's influence in popular culture extends beyond the film itself to how musical elements of the film have been received as well, for example, Yello 's song "Oh Yeah ''. As Jonathan Bernstein explains, "Never a hit, this slice of Swiss - made tomfoolery with its varispeed vocal effects and driving percussion was first used by John Hughes to illustrate the mouthwatering must - haveness of Cameron 's dad 's Ferrari. Since then, it has become synonymous with avarice. Every time a movie, TV show or commercial wants to underline the jaw - dropping impact of a hot babe or sleek auto, that synth - drum starts popping and that deep voice rumbles, ' Oh yeah... ' '' Concerning the influence of another song used in the film, Roz Kaveney writes that some "of the finest moments in later teen film draw on Ferris 's blithe Dionysian fervour -- the elaborate courtship by song in 10 Things I Hate About You (1999) draws usefully on the "Twist and Shout '' sequence in Ferris Bueller 's Day Off ". The bands Save Ferris and Rooney were named in allusion to Ferris Bueller 's Day Off. "Twist and Shout '' charted again, 16 years after the Beatles broke up, as a result of its prominent appearance in both this film and Back To School (where Rodney Dangerfield performs a cover version) which was released the same weekend as Ferris Bueller 's Day Off. The re-released single reached # 23 in the U.S; a US - only compilation album containing the track The Early Beatles, re-entered the album charts at # 197. The version heard in the film includes brass overdubbed onto the Beatles ' original recording, which did not go down well with Paul McCartney. "I liked (the) film but they overdubbed some lousy brass on the stuff! If it had needed brass, we 'd had stuck it on ourselves! '' Upon hearing McCartney 's reaction, Hughes felt bad for "offend (ing) a Beatle. But it was n't really part of the song. We saw a band (onscreen) and we needed to hear the instruments. '' Broderick and Hughes stayed in touch for a while after production. "We thought about a sequel to Ferris Bueller, where he 'd be in college or at his first job, and the same kind of things would happen again. But neither of us found a very exciting hook to that. The movie is about a singular time in your life. '' "Ferris Bueller is about the week before you leave school, it 's about the end of school -- in some way, it does n't have a sequel. It 's a little moment and it 's a lightning flash in your life. I mean, you could try to repeat it in college or something but it 's a time that you do n't keep. So that 's partly why I think we could n't think of another '', Broderick added. "But just for fun '', said Ruck, "I used to think why do n't they wait until Matthew and I are in our seventies and do Ferris Bueller Returns and have Cameron be in a nursing home. He does n't really need to be there, but he just decided his life is over, so he committed himself to a nursing home. And Ferris comes and breaks him out. And they go to, like, a titty bar and all this ridiculous stuff happens. And then, at the end of the movie, Cameron dies. '' Many scholars have discussed at length the film 's depiction of academia and youth culture. For Martin Morse Wooster, the film "portrayed teachers as humorless buffoons whose only function was to prevent teenagers from having a good time ''. Regarding not specifically teachers, but rather a type of adult characterization in general, Art Silverblatt asserts that the "adults in Ferris Bueller 's Day Off are irrelevant and impotent. Ferris 's nemesis, the school disciplinarian, Mr. Rooney, is obsessed with ' getting Bueller. ' His obsession emerges from envy. Strangely, Ferris serves as Rooney 's role model, as he clearly possesses the imagination and power that Rooney lacks... By capturing and disempowering Ferris, Rooney hopes to... reduce Ferris 's influence over other students, which would reestablish adults, that is, Rooney, as traditional authority figures. '' Nevertheless, Silverblatt concludes that "Rooney is essentially a comedic figure, whose bumbling attempts to discipline Ferris are a primary source of humor in the film ''. Thomas Patrick Doherty writes that "the adult villains in teenpics such as... Ferris Bueller 's Day Off (1986) are overdrawn caricatures, no real threat; they 're played for laughs ''. Yet Silverblatt also remarks that casting "the principal as a comic figure questions the competence of adults to provide young people with effective direction -- indeed, the value of adulthood itself ''. Adults are not the stars or main characters of the film, and Roz Kaveney notes that what "Ferris Bueller brings to the teen genre, ultimately, is a sense of how it is possible to be cool and popular without being rich or a sports hero. Unlike the heroes of Weird Science, Ferris is computer savvy without being a nerd or a geek -- it is a skill he has taken the trouble to learn. '' In 2010, English comedian Dan Willis performed his show "Ferris Bueller 's Way Of... '' at the Edinburgh Festival, delving into the philosophy of the movie and looking for life answers within. The film was first released on VHS and Laserdisc in 1987, and then re-released on VHS in 1996. The film has been released on DVD three times; including the original DVD release October 19, 1999, the Bueller... Bueller edition January 2006, and the I Love the ' 80s edition August 19, 2008. The original DVD, like most Paramount Pictures films released on DVD for the first time, has very few bonus features, but it does feature a commentary by Hughes. Though this is no longer available for sale, the director 's commentary is available here. The Bueller... Bueller re-release has several more bonus features, but does not contain the commentary track of the original DVD release. The I Love the ' 80s edition is identical to the first DVD release (no features aside from commentary), but includes a bonus CD with songs from the 1980s. The songs are not featured in the film. The Bueller... Bueller edition has multiple bonus features such as interviews with the cast and crew, along with a clip of Stein 's commentaries on the film 's philosophy and impact. The Blu - ray Disc release (which is a part of the Bueller... Bueller edition, with the same bonus material) was first released on May 5, 2009. A 25th anniversary edition for DVD and Blu - ray were both released on August 2, 2011. In 1990, a series called Ferris Bueller started for NBC, starring Charlie Schlatter as Ferris Bueller, Jennifer Aniston as Jeanie Bueller, and Ami Dolenz as Sloane Peterson. The series served as a prequel to the film. In the pilot episode, the audience sees Schlatter cutting up a cardboard cutout of Matthew Broderick, saying that he hated Broderick 's performance as him. It was produced by Maysh, Ltd. Productions in association with Paramount Television. In part because of competition of the similar series on the Fox Television Network, Parker Lewis Ca n't Lose, the series was canceled after the first thirteen episodes aired. Both Schlatter and Aniston later had success on other TV shows, Schlatter on Diagnosis: Murder and Aniston on Friends.

who wrote the hymn we shall behold him

Dottie Rambo - wikipedia Dottie Rambo (March 2, 1934 -- May 11, 2008) was an American gospel singer and songwriter. She was a Grammy and multiple Dove Award - winning artist. Along with husband Buck and daughter Reba, she formed the award - winning southern Gospel group, The Rambos. She wrote more than 2,500 songs, including her most notable, "He Looked Beyond My Fault and Saw My Need '', "We Shall Behold Him '', and "I Go To the Rock ''. In 2000, Rambo was awarded the ASCAP Lifetime Achievement Award. Her music is known for its poetic lyrics and cross genre reaching melodies often dealing with themes such as heaven, Christian sacrifice, hurts, and the born - again Christian experience. She was born Joyce Reba Luttrell in Madisonville, Kentucky in 1934 to Jerald Vernon "Chick '' and Elizabeth Luttrell. According to personal accounts, she grew up in poverty and developed an early affinity for country music. She learned to play guitar while listening at night to the Grand Ole Opry on WSM radio in Nashville. At age eight, she started writing songs while sitting on a creek bank near her Morganfield, Kentucky home. She had the support of her mother and father, and by age ten she was singing and playing country music cover tunes on a local radio program. She was raised inside Apostolic Pentecostalism, and at twelve years old, she became a born - again Christian and made a commitment to write and sing Christian music. The decision turned out to be pivotal in more than one way; it did not sit well with her father who gave her an ultimatum -- give up Christian music or leave. She left home and went on the road, with her first engagement being at a church in Indianapolis, Indiana. She formed a trio called the Gospel Echoes and traveled throughout the midwestern and southern United States. The Gospel Echoes would consist of different members over the years, including Pat Green and Little Joe Hatfield. In 1950, at age sixteen, she met Buck Rambo at a revival meeting she was holding with evangelist Jimmie Russell. They married shortly thereafter and began traveling and singing together after years of her traveling alone and living with pastors ' families. Finally the Rambos created a group, The Gospel Echoes, and later with their daughter Reba as The Singing Rambos and The Rambos. Through an introduction by another gospel group, the Happy Goodman Family, Rambo sang for the then - governor of Louisiana, Jimmie Davis, who was also a popular country and gospel music recording artist. Davis signed her to a writing contract with his publishing company, Jimmie Davis Music (BMI). She received a signing bonus of around $3,000, the most she had ever earned up to that time. Though Jimmie Davis appears as a co-writer on Rambo 's compositions during this time, she publicly stated he did not write any music or lyrics to her compositions but required a writer 's share upon the publishing agreement. Jimmie Davis Music is now owned by Peer Music. Throughout the 1960s her star began to rise, mostly as a songwriter, but also as a soloist. As the leader of The Singing Rambos she traveled internationally, including a 1967 trip to Vietnam to perform for American troops. While there, Rambo ministered in field hospitals, the USS Kitty Hawk, and the USS Ticonderoga. In Vietnam the group was billed as the "Swinging Rambos '', as the government feared that a Christian singing group 's safety could be at risk. US soldiers presented Rambo with a Viet Cong flag and other personal mementos from the war. Her songwriting break and Davis ' company 's promotion of Rambo 's songs resulted in a Warner Bros. Records recording contract for her and the Gospel Echoes. After earning as little as $50 a week for years, and often working day jobs to make ends meet, Rambo 's fortunes began to improve. Their records were selling and her songs were being noticed within the industry, with other gospel groups beginning to record them. In 1968 she won a Grammy Award for Best Soul Gospel Performance for her album It 's The Soul Of Me. Poor record sales for the Gospel Echoes caused the Warner Bros. label to release the group. Warner Bros. saw something special in Rambo as a solo artist and asked her to sign on with a recording contract for R&B music. she signed instead with the Benson Records. Rambo worked with Billy Graham, Jimmy Swaggart, Oral Roberts, Benny Hinn, Kathryn Kuhlman, John Hagee, Jim Bakker, Tammy Faye Bakker - Messner, Paul and Jan Crouch, Paula White, Reinhard Bonnke, Pat Robertson, T.D. Jakes and others. Her Down By The Creekbank is one of the most successful Christian children 's records in history, earning platinum record status. In addition to her solo and trio recordings, Rambo appeared on other artists ' recordings including Jimmie Davis, Barbara Mandrell, Dickey Betts, The Dunaways, David Robertson, and Walt Mills. Rambo reportedly composed upwards of 2,500 songs. ASCAP and BMI show only several hundred registered titles attributed to Rambo in its online database. Rambo 's best - known songs include "We Shall Behold Him '', "Holy Spirit Thou Art Welcome (In This Place) '', "I Go to the Rock '', "Sheltered in the Arms of God '', "I Will Glory in the Cross '', "He Looked Beyond My Fault '', "Tears Will Never Stain the Streets of That City '', "For What Earthly Reason '', "If That Is n't Love '', and "Too Much to Gain to Lose ''. She also wrote country music songs recorded by Jimmie Davis, Charlie Louvin, Rhonda Vincent, and Hank Snow, among others. Rambo 's songs have been recorded by a virtual "who 's who '' in the music world with her biggest songwriting cut being Whitney Houston 's version of "I Go to the Rock '', which appeared on the motion picture soundtrack for The Preacher 's Wife. The recording garnered Rambo and Houston the 1998 GMA Dove Award for Traditional Gospel Song of the Year. In addition, other secular artists have recorded Dottie Rambo compositions, including Solomon Burke, Johnny Cash, Carol Channing, Barbara Fairchild, Larry Gatlin, Crystal Gayle, Vince Gill, Wanda Jackson, George Jones, Alison Krauss, Jerry Lee Lewis, Barbara Mandrell, Bill Monroe, The Oak Ridge Boys, Dolly Parton, Elvis Presley, Little Richard, Jeannie C. Riley, Connie Smith, Hank Snow, Mel Tillis, Rhonda Vincent, Porter Wagoner, and Dottie West. Numerous Christian / gospel artists have recorded her songs, such as Aaron Jeoffrey, Vanessa Bell Armstrong, The Barrett Sisters, The Blackwood Brothers, The Booth Brothers, Commissioned, The Crabb Family, Andrae Crouch, Danniebelle Hall, Jimmie Davis, DC Talk, Jeff and Sheri Easter, The Florida Boys, The Happy Goodmans, Steve Green, Larnelle Harris, Jake Hess, The Hoppers, The Isaacs, Bobby Jones, Ron Kenoly, Doyle Lawson, Mark Lowry, Janet Paschal, Sandi Patty, Karen Peck, The Speer Family, Albertina Walker, Vickie Winans, Karen Wheaton and Jimmy Swaggart, Throughout her career, beginning with the 1960s "Gospel Singing Jubilee '', Rambo appeared on numerous television programs on virtually every Christian network as well as the TNN, PAX, and GMT Women 's Entertainment channels. She had her own series, Dottie Rambo Magazine, in the 1980s on TBN. It was the No. 1 rated program on the network for six years and has rerun on and off since. Dottie Rambo performed on six of the Gaither Homecoming video series (see her discography). Her last appearance was Nashville Homecoming (2009), in which she performed "I Just Came To Talk With You Lord. '' Dottie Rambo has been the subject of many biographic television specials: TBN 's Portrait of Grace, INSP 's Inspirational Groundbreakers, BBC 's White Gospel, and GMC 's Faith and Fame (her last interview aired on television). In 1987, Rambo suffered a ruptured disk which led to paralysis in her left leg. She underwent a series of surgeries that eventually reinstated limited mobility. In 1992, Dottie and Buck separated; they divorced in 1994. Although partially disabled, Rambo made major television appearances including The 700 Club, and as a regular guest performer on TBN. In 1994, TBN produced a Tribute Concert special that featured two hours of performances by Ricky Skaggs, Ricky Van Shelton, Vickie Winans, Jeannie C. Riley, Lulu Roman, and many others. In 2002, Rambo reentered the studio to record her first solo album in eighteen years. The result was the award - winning hit Stand By The River. The title track, a duet with Dolly Parton, went to the number one spot of the Christian Country Radio Chart, as did its follow - up, "I 'm Gonna Leave Here Shoutin ' ''. In 2004, a major live concert DVD / CD project, We Shall Behold Him: A Tribute to Dottie Rambo, was released. The concert was hosted by Barbara Mandrell and included performances by Dolly Parton, Crystal Gayle, Larry Gatlin, The Isaacs, Jessy Dixon, Vestal Goodman, The Speers, The Crabb Family, and Albertina Walker. In 2007, she performed nationwide and appeared in concert at country singer Dolly Parton 's Tennessee theme park, Dollywood. In November 2007, Rambo completed another studio album with the working title of Sheltered. This album was released posthumously in September 2009 on Daywind Records. The project features 12 tracks, including duets with Porter Wagoner, Mel Tillis, The Whites and Lulu Roman. Upon completing this project, Rambo started another project that was to feature new compositions and music for a 2009 release. In 2010, an upcoming tribute CD began the recording process and will feature new tracks by artists from various genres of music, such as George Jones, Little Richard, Dolly Parton, Solomon Burke and other legendary performers. The CD is being produced by her longtime manager, Larry Ferguson and former assistant Chris Barnes. Rambo died on May 11, 2008, as a result of injuries sustained in a bus accident along Interstate 44 just outside Mount Vernon, Missouri. She had just finished a performance at Calvary Life Church in Granite City, Illinois and was en route to a Mother 's Day show in Texas when the 1997 Prévost bus she was traveling in ran off the road, struck a guard rail and hit an embankment. Rambo was pronounced dead at the scene. Her manager Larry Ferguson and his family were injured in the crash. Her funeral was held at Christ Church in Nashville, Tennessee on May 19, 2008. She was interred at the Woodlawn Memorial Park Cemetery in Nashville. Rambo received numerous awards and other honors over the years, including one Grammy and three GMA Dove Awards. She was inducted into the Gospel Music Hall of Fame on two occasions; once with the Rambos and once as a solo artist. In 1994 the Christian Country Music Association awarded her with the Songwriter of the Century Award. She was given the ASCAP Lifetime Achievement Award in 2000, and two Christian Country Music Association (CCMA) awards; the Pioneer Award in 2003, and in 2004, Songwriter of the Year. She was inducted into the Kentucky Music Hall of Fame) in 2006. Her 2002 CD, Stand By The River, won two Christian Music Fan Awards, for Song of The Year and Duo of The Year (with Dolly Parton). The Nashville Songwriter 's Hall of Fame inducted Rambo in 2007. She was inducted posthumously into the Christian Music Hall of Fame at the induction award ceremony on June 14, 2008. She was also posthumously inducted into the Georgia Music Hall of Fame. Her manager and granddaughter accepted on her behalf. In 2011, Rambo was honored with a star on Music City 's Walk of Fame, which her daughter Reba accepted on her behalf.

when does florida georgia line new album release

Florida Georgia Line - wikipedia Florida Georgia Line is an American country duo consisting of lead vocalist, Tyler Hubbard and backing vocalist, Brian Kelley. They have achieved major success since their inception and are one of the most successful country music acts. Their 2012 debut single "Cruise '', which remains their most popular song, broke two major sales records: it was downloaded over seven million times, making it the first country song ever to receive the Diamond certification, and it became the best - selling digital country song of all time, with 24 weeks at number one, until it was surpassed in July 2017 by Sam Hunt 's "Body Like a Back Road ''. "Cruise '' helped to pioneer a style of country music known as "bro - country '', which incorporates production elements from rock and hip - hop music, and tends to cover subject matter such as partying, drinking, driving trucks and romantic attraction. Much of their subsequent music has been tagged with the "bro - country '' label as well. Florida Georgia Line was formed in 2010 in Nashville, Tennessee and began as a covers band. In December 2011, they signed to the Big Loud Mountain label. Their second EP, It'z Just What We Do, was released in 2012 and charted on the Billboard Top Country Albums chart. Several months later they signed with Republic Nashville, part of the Big Machine Label Group. They released their second album, Anything Goes on October 14, 2014. Their third album, Dig Your Roots, was released on August 26, 2016. Both members of Florida Georgia Line grew up and first gained interest in music through church worship services. Brian Kelley, from Ormond Beach, Florida, was a star pitcher on his high school baseball team, leading to a scholarship at Florida State University; he later transferred to Belmont University after it became clear to him he would not succeed in the sport. He began learning to play guitar then began writing music inspired by Christian rock group Casting Crowns. Tyler Hubbard, a native of Monroe, Georgia, was a church worship leader who formed a hip hop group, Ingenious Circuit, in his teens. The two had a myriad of musical interests growing up: "Me and my friends drove trucks, listened to Garth Brooks, Alabama, Lil Wayne and Eminem, '' said Kelley. The duo met at Belmont University in 2008 through a campus worship group, and following graduation, decided to give themselves two years to succeed as a country duo. They moved in with one another and began several odd jobs to pay bills, while playing clubs on the weekends. While independent, they recorded and digitally distributed their first EP, Anything Like Me (2010). They were discovered by Nickelback producer Joey Moi at a county fair, and the three began entering the studio together. Unlike typical country music sessions, the group spent days polishing songs, which were collected on the duo 's second EP, It'z Just What We Do (2012). In terms of production, the band modeled their sound on bands such as Nickelback, Shinedown, and Three Days Grace, while Moi aimed for each song to resemble hair metal group Def Leppard in structure. Major labels became interested when the song "Cruise '' first aired on satellite radio on "The Highway '' channel and began selling well on iTunes, leading to a deal with Republic Nashville and Big Machine Label Group. Kelley likes to think of his career not as a career, but as a lifestyle. "Country music is always evolving and will continue to evolve, '' he told Forbes magazine. In 2017, they featured in the song "Last Day Alive '' by The Chainsmokers. They have also collaborated with Bebe Rexha on her song "Meant to Be ''. Florida Georgia Line 's first EP, released on December 14, 2010, is a six - song EP produced with Wesley Walker. All of the songs were written by either Hubbard or Hubbard and Kelley. The EP consists of the songs "You 're Country '', "Now That She 's Gone '', "Man I Am Today '', "Never Let Her Go '' (co-written with "Cruise '' co-writer Chase Rice), "Black Tears '', and "Backwoods Beauty Queen ''. The song "Black Tears '' was also on Jason Aldean 's 2012 album Night Train. The duo 's second EP is a five - song EP produced by Joey Moi on Big Loud Mountain Records and released on May 15, 2012. It starts off with "Cruise '' and also includes "Get Your Shine On '', "Tip It Back '', "Tell Me How You Like It '', and the title track "It'z Just What We Do ''. The duo 's first studio album, Here 's to the Good Times, was an 11 - song album produced by Joey Moi on Republic Nashville and released on December 4, 2012. The pair 's first full - length, Here 's to the Good Times, was the sixth - best - selling album of 2013 (topping Drake and Katy Perry, among others). "Cruise '', the first single, reached number one on the Country Airplay chart dated December 15, 2012. A remix of "Cruise '' featuring Nelly later hit number four on the US Billboard Hot 100. Florida Georgia Line 's signature hit, "Cruise '', holds one major record to date: the best - selling country digital song of all time, with sales surpassing 10 million. The song spent a record 24 weeks at number one on Billboard 's Hot Country Songs chart, which was the longest reign in the history of the chart until July 2017 when it was surpassed by Sam Hunt 's "Body Like a Back Road ''. The album 's second single, "Get Your Shine On '', was released to country radio on January 21, 2013 and reached number one on the Country Airplay chart in May 2013. It was co-written by the duo along with Rodney Clawson and Chris Tompkins. "Round Here '' was released as the album 's third single on June 3, 2013 and reached number one on the Country Airplay chart in September 2013. The album 's fourth single, "Stay '', was released to country radio on October 7, 2013. It was co-written and originally recorded by Black Stone Cherry. It reached number one on the Hot Country Songs chart and the Country Airplay chart in December 2013. A deluxe edition of Here 's to the Good Times titled Here 's to the Good Times... This Is How We Roll was released on November 25, 2013. "This Is How We Roll '', a collaboration with Luke Bryan, was released from the deluxe edition as the album 's fifth single on February 10, 2014 and reached number one on the Hot Country Songs chart in March 2014. Florida Georgia Line toured the United States as part of the Dirt Road Diaries Tour with Thompson Square and headlining act Luke Bryan. In June 2013, the album reached number one on the Billboard Top Country Albums chart. It stayed at the top spot for ten weeks. The duo revealed on August 15, 2014, that their second studio album would be titled Anything Goes with a release date of October 14, 2014. The album 's first single, "Dirt '', was released to country radio and digital sales outlets on July 8, 2014 and became the sixth consecutive single by Florida Georgia Line to make the top five on the Billboard Hot Country Songs chart. "Sun Daze '' was released to digital sales outlets on September 16, 2014. A week later, the album 's title track, "Anything Goes '', was released on September 22, 2014. Florida Georgia Line also appeared on the Hot Tours recap. "Confession '' released to country radio on November 3, 2015 and reached number one on the Country Airplay chart in April 2016. In 2016, Florida Georgia Line became the first and only country artist to receive the Digital Diamond Award, for their single "Cruise '' crossing the 10 × Platinum threshold. The duo released their third studio album Dig Your Roots on August 29, 2016, featuring Tim McGraw, Ziggy Marley, and the Backstreet Boys. They are currently on their Dig Your Roots tour, with Ryan Follesé, Chris Lane, and Dustin Lynch. They collaborated with Bebe Rexha on a song called Meant to Be for her EP, All Your Fault: Pt. 2 Along with Hank Williams Jr. and Jason Derulo, Florida Georgia Line sang "All My Rowdy Friends Are Here on Monday Night '' for ESPN 's Monday Night Football NFL broadcasts in 2017. In July 2016, Florida Georgia Line came under fire when they banned law enforcement from being backstage before, during and after their concerts in Wisconsin and Iowa. Due to the recent police shootings in Dallas, Baton Rouge, and Falcon Heights; many outraged fans claimed the band was anti-police after their treatment towards law enforcement. The band later asked for a police escort leaving their concert, but had their request denied by various agencies due to their comments. It was later reported that prior to the concert, the band requested not to have law enforcement personnel backstage. Their request was denied by the music festival management team because of security concerns. In the aftermath of the incident, Brian Kelley called Kenosha County Sheriff David Beth and apologized, calling it a misunderstanding. The duo issued a statement on Twitter that said, "we want you to know that we have nothing but love and respect for the police. We are bummed anyone ever got a different impression. '' In December 2015, during their concert at Dick Clark 's New Year 's Rockin ' Eve in New York City, some fans criticized the duo for lip - syncing. Many music industry executives have defended the group, saying when a show is scheduled and there 's technical difficulties or illness, it is usually the only alternative. On December 16, 2013, Kelley married his girlfriend of seven months, Brittney Marie Cole. In February 2014, Hubbard sustained a back injury in a dirt bike accident. On July 1, 2015, Tyler Hubbard married his longtime girlfriend Hayley Stommel. In 2014, Kelley appeared on Animal Planet 's Treehouse Masters. In 2015, Forbes estimated that Florida Georgia Line 's annual income was $36.5 million, split evenly between both men.

what does the degrees of freedom refer to in the student-t distribution

Student 's t - distribution - wikipedia 1 2 + x Γ (ν + 1 2) × 2 F 1 (1 2, ν + 1 2; 3 2; − x 2 ν) π ν Γ (ν 2) (\ displaystyle (\ begin (matrix) (\ frac (1) (2)) + x \ Gamma \ left ((\ frac (\ nu + 1) (2)) \ right) \ times \ \ (0.5 em) (\ frac (\, _ (2) F_ (1) \ left ((\ frac (1) (2)), (\ frac (\ nu + 1) (2)); (\ frac (3) (2)); - (\ frac (x ^ (2)) (\ nu)) \ right)) ((\ sqrt (\ pi \ nu)) \, \ Gamma \ left ((\ frac (\ nu) (2)) \ right))) \ end (matrix))) ν + 1 2 (ψ (1 + ν 2) − ψ (ν 2)) + ln ⁡ (ν B (ν 2, 1 2)) (nats) (\ displaystyle (\ begin (matrix) (\ frac (\ nu + 1) (2)) \ left (\ psi \ left ((\ frac (1 + \ nu) (2)) \ right) - \ psi \ left ((\ frac (\ nu) (2)) \ right) \ right) \ \ (0.5 em) + \ ln (\ left ((\ sqrt (\ nu)) B \ left ((\ frac (\ nu) (2)), (\ frac (1) (2)) \ right) \ right)) \, (\ scriptstyle (\ text ((nats)))) \ end (matrix))) K ν / 2 (ν t) ⋅ (ν t) ν / 2 Γ (ν / 2) 2 ν / 2 − 1 (\ displaystyle \ textstyle (\ frac (K_ (\ nu / 2) \ left ((\ sqrt (\ nu)) t \ right) \ cdot \ left ((\ sqrt (\ nu)) t \ right) ^ (\ nu / 2)) (\ Gamma (\ nu / 2) 2 ^ (\ nu / 2 - 1)))) for ν > 0 (\ displaystyle \ nu > 0) In probability and statistics, Student 's t - distribution (or simply the t - distribution) is any member of a family of continuous probability distributions that arises when estimating the mean of a normally distributed population in situations where the sample size is small and population standard deviation is unknown. It was developed by William Sealy Gosset under the pseudonym Student. The t - distribution plays a role in a number of widely used statistical analyses, including Student 's t - test for assessing the statistical significance of the difference between two sample means, the construction of confidence intervals for the difference between two population means, and in linear regression analysis. The Student 's t - distribution also arises in the Bayesian analysis of data from a normal family. If we take a sample of n observations from a normal distribution, then the t - distribution with ν = n − 1 (\ displaystyle \ nu = n - 1) degrees of freedom can be defined as the distribution of the location of the sample mean relative to the true mean, divided by the sample standard deviation, after multiplying by the standardizing term n (\ displaystyle (\ sqrt (n))). In this way, the t - distribution can be used to construct a confidence interval for the true mean. The t - distribution is symmetric and bell - shaped, like the normal distribution, but has heavier tails, meaning that it is more prone to producing values that fall far from its mean. This makes it useful for understanding the statistical behavior of certain types of ratios of random quantities, in which variation in the denominator is amplified and may produce outlying values when the denominator of the ratio falls close to zero. The Student 's t - distribution is a special case of the generalised hyperbolic distribution. In statistics, the t - distribution was first derived as a posterior distribution in 1876 by Helmert and Lüroth. The t - distribution also appeared in a more general form as Pearson Type IV distribution in Karl Pearson 's 1895 paper. In the English - language literature the distribution takes its name from William Sealy Gosset 's 1908 paper in Biometrika under the pseudonym "Student ''. Gosset worked at the Guinness Brewery in Dublin, Ireland, and was interested in the problems of small samples -- for example, the chemical properties of barley where sample sizes might be as few as 3. One version of the origin of the pseudonym is that Gosset 's employer preferred staff to use pen names when publishing scientific papers instead of their real name, so he used the name "Student '' to hide his identity. Another version is that Guinness did not want their competitors to know that they were using the t - test to determine the quality of raw material. Gosset 's paper refers to the distribution as the "frequency distribution of standard deviations of samples drawn from a normal population ''. It became well - known through the work of Ronald Fisher, who called the distribution "Student 's distribution '' and represented the test value with the letter t. Let X,..., X be independent and identically distributed as N (μ, σ), i.e. this is a sample of size n from a normally distributed population with expected mean value μ and variance σ. Let be the sample mean and let be the (Bessel - corrected) sample variance. Then the random variable has a standard normal distribution (i.e. normal with expected value 0 and variance 1), and the random variable (where S has been substituted for σ) has a Student 's t - distribution with n − 1 degrees of freedom. Note that the numerator and the denominator in the preceding expression are independent random variables, which can be proven by induction. Student 's t - distribution has the probability density function given by where ν (\ displaystyle \ nu) is the number of degrees of freedom and Γ (\ displaystyle \ Gamma) is the gamma function. This may also be written as where B is the Beta function. In particular for integer valued degrees of freedom ν (\ displaystyle \ nu) we have: For ν > 1 (\ displaystyle \ nu > 1) even, For ν > 1 (\ displaystyle \ nu > 1) odd, The probability density function is symmetric, and its overall shape resembles the bell shape of a normally distributed variable with mean 0 and variance 1, except that it is a bit lower and wider. As the number of degrees of freedom grows, the t - distribution approaches the normal distribution with mean 0 and variance 1. For this reason ν (\ displaystyle (\ nu)) is also known as the normality parameter. The following images show the density of the t - distribution for increasing values of ν (\ displaystyle \ nu). The normal distribution is shown as a blue line for comparison. Note that the t - distribution (red line) becomes closer to the normal distribution as ν (\ displaystyle \ nu) increases. The cumulative distribution function can be written in terms of I, the regularized incomplete beta function. For t > 0, where Other values would be obtained by symmetry. An alternative formula, valid for t 2 < ν (\ displaystyle t ^ (2) < \ nu), is where F is a particular case of the hypergeometric function. For information on its inverse cumulative distribution function, see quantile function # Student 's t - distribution. Certain values of ν (\ displaystyle \ nu) give an especially simple form. Let x,..., x be the numbers observed in a sample from a continuously distributed population with expected value μ. The sample mean and sample variance are given by: The resulting t - value is The t - distribution with n − 1 degrees of freedom is the sampling distribution of the t - value when the samples consist of independent identically distributed observations from a normally distributed population. Thus for inference purposes t is a useful "pivotal quantity '' in the case when the mean and variance (μ, σ) are unknown population parameters, in the sense that the t - value has then a probability distribution that depends on neither μ nor σ. In Bayesian statistics, a (scaled, shifted) t - distribution arises as the marginal distribution of the unknown mean of a normal distribution, when the dependence on an unknown variance has been marginalised out: where D stands for the data (x), and I represents any other information that may have been used to create the model. The distribution is thus the compounding of the conditional distribution of μ given the data and σ with the marginal distribution of σ given the data. With n data points, if uninformative, or flat, location and scale priors p (μ ∣ σ 2, I) = const (\ displaystyle p (\ mu \ mid \ sigma ^ (2), I) = (\ text (const))) and p (σ 2 ∣ I) ∝ 1 / σ 2 (\ displaystyle p (\ sigma ^ (2) \ mid I) \ propto 1 / \ sigma ^ (2)) can be taken for μ and σ, then Bayes ' theorem gives a normal distribution and a scaled inverse chi - squared distribution respectively, where ν = n − 1 (\ displaystyle \ nu = n - 1) and The marginalisation integral thus becomes This can be evaluated by substituting z = A / 2 σ 2 (\ displaystyle z = A / 2 \ sigma ^ (2)), where A = n (μ − x _̄) 2 + ν s 2 (\ displaystyle A = n (\ mu - (\ bar (x))) ^ (2) + \ nu s ^ (2)), giving so But the z integral is now a standard Gamma integral, which evaluates to a constant, leaving This is a form of the t - distribution with an explicit scaling and shifting that will be explored in more detail in a further section below. It can be related to the standardised t - distribution by the substitution The derivation above has been presented for the case of uninformative priors for μ and σ; but it will be apparent that any priors that lead to a normal distribution being compounded with a scaled inverse chi - squared distribution will lead to a t - distribution with scaling and shifting for P (μ D, I), although the scaling parameter corresponding to s / n above will then be influenced both by the prior information and the data, rather than just by the data as above. Student 's t - distribution with ν (\ displaystyle \ nu) degrees of freedom can be defined as the distribution of the random variable T with where A different distribution is defined as that of the random variable defined, for a given constant μ, by This random variable has a noncentral t - distribution with noncentrality parameter μ. This distribution is important in studies of the power of Student 's t - test. Suppose X,..., X are independent realizations of the normally - distributed, random variable X, which has an expected value μ and variance σ. Let be the sample mean, and be an unbiased estimate of the variance from the sample. It can be shown that the random variable has a chi - squared distribution with ν = n − 1 (\ displaystyle \ nu = n - 1) degrees of freedom (by Cochran 's theorem). It is readily shown that the quantity is normally distributed with mean 0 and variance 1, since the sample mean X _̄ n (\ displaystyle (\ overline (X)) _ (n)) is normally distributed with mean μ and variance σ / n. Moreover, it is possible to show that these two random variables (the normally distributed one Z and the chi - squared - distributed one V) are independent. Consequently the pivotal quantity which differs from Z in that the exact standard deviation σ is replaced by the random variable S, has a Student 's t - distribution as defined above. Notice that the unknown population variance σ does not appear in T, since it was in both the numerator and the denominator, so it canceled. Gosset intuitively obtained the probability density function stated above, with ν (\ displaystyle \ nu) equal to n − 1, and Fisher proved it in 1925. The distribution of the test statistic T depends on ν (\ displaystyle \ nu), but not μ or σ; the lack of dependence on μ and σ is what makes the t - distribution important in both theory and practice. Student 's t - distribution is the maximum entropy probability distribution for a random variate X for which E (ln ⁡ (ν + X 2)) (\ displaystyle E (\ ln (\ nu + X ^ (2)))) is fixed. For ν > 1 (\ displaystyle \ nu > 1), the raw moments of the t - distribution are Moments of order ν (\ displaystyle \ nu) or higher do not exist. The term for 0 < k < ν (\ displaystyle 0 < k < \ nu), k even, may be simplified using the properties of the gamma function to For a t - distribution with ν (\ displaystyle \ nu) degrees of freedom, the expected value is 0 if ν > 1 (\ displaystyle \ nu > 1), and its variance is ν ν − 2 (\ displaystyle (\ frac (\ nu) (\ nu - 2))) if ν > 2 (\ displaystyle \ nu > 2). The skewness is 0 if ν > 3 (\ displaystyle \ nu > 3) and the excess kurtosis is 6 ν − 4 (\ displaystyle (\ frac (6) (\ nu - 4))) if ν > 4 (\ displaystyle \ nu > 4). There are various approaches to constructing random samples from the Student 's t - distribution. The matter depends on whether the samples are required on a stand - alone basis, or are to be constructed by application of a quantile function to uniform samples; e.g., in the multi-dimensional applications basis of copula - dependency. In the case of stand - alone sampling, an extension of the Box -- Muller method and its polar form is easily deployed. It has the merit that it applies equally well to all real positive degrees of freedom, ν, while many other candidate methods fail if ν is close to zero. The function A (t ν) is the integral of Student 's probability density function, f (t) between − t and t, for t ≥ 0. It thus gives the probability that a value of t less than that calculated from observed data would occur by chance. Therefore, the function A (t ν) can be used when testing whether the difference between the means of two sets of data is statistically significant, by calculating the corresponding value of t and the probability of its occurrence if the two sets of data were drawn from the same population. This is used in a variety of situations, particularly in t - tests. For the statistic t, with ν degrees of freedom, A (t ν) is the probability that t would be less than the observed value if the two means were the same (provided that the smaller mean is subtracted from the larger, so that t ≥ 0). It can be easily calculated from the cumulative distribution function F (t) of the t - distribution: where I is the regularized incomplete beta function (a, b). For statistical hypothesis testing this function is used to construct the p - value. Student 's t distribution can be generalized to a three parameter location - scale family, introducing a location parameter μ (\ displaystyle \ mu) and a scale parameter σ (\ displaystyle \ sigma), through the relation or This means that x − μ σ (\ displaystyle (\ frac (x - \ mu) (\ sigma))) has a classic Student 's t distribution with ν (\ displaystyle \ nu) degrees of freedom. The resulting non-standardized Student 's t - distribution has a density defined by Here, σ (\ displaystyle \ sigma) does not correspond to a standard deviation: it is not the standard deviation of the scaled t distribution, which may not even exist; nor is it the standard deviation of the underlying normal distribution, which is unknown. σ (\ displaystyle \ sigma) simply sets the overall scaling of the distribution. In the Bayesian derivation of the marginal distribution of an unknown normal mean μ (\ displaystyle \ mu) above, σ (\ displaystyle \ sigma) as used here corresponds to the quantity s / n (\ displaystyle \ scriptstyle (s / (\ sqrt (n)))), where Equivalently, the distribution can be written in terms of σ 2 (\ displaystyle \ sigma ^ (2)), the square of this scale parameter: Other properties of this version of the distribution are: This distribution results from compounding a Gaussian distribution (normal distribution) with mean μ (\ displaystyle \ mu) and unknown variance, with an inverse gamma distribution placed over the variance with parameters a = ν / 2 (\ displaystyle a = \ nu / 2) and b = ν σ 2 / 2 (\ displaystyle b = \ nu \ sigma ^ (2) / 2). In other words, the random variable X is assumed to have a Gaussian distribution with an unknown variance distributed as inverse gamma, and then the variance is marginalized out (integrated out). The reason for the usefulness of this characterization is that the inverse gamma distribution is the conjugate prior distribution of the variance of a Gaussian distribution. As a result, the non-standardized Student 's t - distribution arises naturally in many Bayesian inference problems. See below. Equivalently, this distribution results from compounding a Gaussian distribution with a scaled - inverse - chi - squared distribution with parameters ν (\ displaystyle \ nu) and σ 2 (\ displaystyle \ sigma ^ (2)). The scaled - inverse - chi - squared distribution is exactly the same distribution as the inverse gamma distribution, but with a different parameterization, i.e. ν = 2 a, σ 2 = b / a (\ displaystyle \ nu = 2a, \ sigma ^ (2) = b / a). An alternative parameterization in terms of an inverse scaling parameter λ (\ displaystyle \ lambda) (analogous to the way precision is the reciprocal of variance), defined by the relation λ = 1 σ 2 (\ displaystyle \ lambda = (\ frac (1) (\ sigma ^ (2)))). Then the density is defined by Other properties of this version of the distribution are: This distribution results from compounding a Gaussian distribution with mean μ (\ displaystyle \ mu) and unknown precision (the reciprocal of the variance), with a gamma distribution placed over the precision with parameters a = ν / 2 (\ displaystyle a = \ nu / 2) and b = ν / (2 λ) (\ displaystyle b = \ nu / (2 \ lambda)). In other words, the random variable X is assumed to have a normal distribution with an unknown precision distributed as gamma, and then this is marginalized over the gamma distribution. Student 's t - distribution arises in a variety of statistical estimation problems where the goal is to estimate an unknown parameter, such as a mean value, in a setting where the data are observed with additive errors. If (as in nearly all practical statistical work) the population standard deviation of these errors is unknown and has to be estimated from the data, the t - distribution is often used to account for the extra uncertainty that results from this estimation. In most such problems, if the standard deviation of the errors were known, a normal distribution would be used instead of the t - distribution. Confidence intervals and hypothesis tests are two statistical procedures in which the quantiles of the sampling distribution of a particular statistic (e.g. the standard score) are required. In any situation where this statistic is a linear function of the data, divided by the usual estimate of the standard deviation, the resulting quantity can be rescaled and centered to follow Student 's t - distribution. Statistical analyses involving means, weighted means, and regression coefficients all lead to statistics having this form. Quite often, textbook problems will treat the population standard deviation as if it were known and thereby avoid the need to use the Student 's t - distribution. These problems are generally of two kinds: (1) those in which the sample size is so large that one may treat a data - based estimate of the variance as if it were certain, and (2) those that illustrate mathematical reasoning, in which the problem of estimating the standard deviation is temporarily ignored because that is not the point that the author or instructor is then explaining. A number of statistics can be shown to have t - distributions for samples of moderate size under null hypotheses that are of interest, so that the t - distribution forms the basis for significance tests. For example, the distribution of Spearman 's rank correlation coefficient ρ, in the null case (zero correlation) is well approximated by the t distribution for sample sizes above about 20. Suppose the number A is so chosen that when T has a t - distribution with n − 1 degrees of freedom. By symmetry, this is the same as saying that A satisfies so A is the "95th percentile '' of this probability distribution, or A = t (0.05, n − 1) (\ displaystyle A = t_ ((0.05, n - 1))). Then and this is equivalent to Therefore, the interval whose endpoints are is a 90 % confidence interval for μ. Therefore, if we find the mean of a set of observations that we can reasonably expect to have a normal distribution, we can use the t - distribution to examine whether the confidence limits on that mean include some theoretically predicted value -- such as the value predicted on a null hypothesis. It is this result that is used in the Student 's t - tests: since the difference between the means of samples from two normal distributions is itself distributed normally, the t - distribution can be used to examine whether that difference can reasonably be supposed to be zero. If the data are normally distributed, the one - sided (1 − a) - upper confidence limit (UCL) of the mean, can be calculated using the following equation: The resulting UCL will be the greatest average value that will occur for a given confidence interval and population size. In other words, X _̄ n (\ displaystyle (\ overline (X)) _ (n)) being the mean of the set of observations, the probability that the mean of the distribution is inferior to UCL is equal to the confidence level 1 − a. The t - distribution can be used to construct a prediction interval for an unobserved sample from a normal distribution with unknown mean and variance. The Student 's t - distribution, especially in its three - parameter (location - scale) version, arises frequently in Bayesian statistics as a result of its connection with the normal distribution. Whenever the variance of a normally distributed random variable is unknown and a conjugate prior placed over it that follows an inverse gamma distribution, the resulting marginal distribution of the variable will follow a Student 's t - distribution. Equivalent constructions with the same results involve a conjugate scaled - inverse - chi - squared distribution over the variance, or a conjugate gamma distribution over the precision. If an improper prior proportional to σ is placed over the variance, the t - distribution also arises. This is the case regardless of whether the mean of the normally distributed variable is known, is unknown distributed according to a conjugate normally distributed prior, or is unknown distributed according to an improper constant prior. Related situations that also produce a t - distribution are: The t - distribution is often used as an alternative to the normal distribution as a model for data, which often has heavier tails than the normal distribution allows for; see e.g. Lange et al. The classical approach was to identify outliers and exclude or downweight them in some way. However, it is not always easy to identify outliers (especially in high dimensions), and the t - distribution is a natural choice of model for such data and provides a parametric approach to robust statistics. A Bayesian account can be found in Gelman et al. The degrees of freedom parameter controls the kurtosis of the distribution and is correlated with the scale parameter. The likelihood can have multiple local maxima and, as such, it is often necessary to fix the degrees of freedom at a fairly low value and estimate the other parameters taking this as given. Some authors report that values between 3 and 9 are often good choices. Venables and Ripley suggest that a value of 5 is often a good choice. Most statistical textbooks list t - distribution tables. Nowadays, the better way to a fully precise critical t value or a cumulative probability is the statistical function implemented in spreadsheets, or an interactive calculating web page. The following table lists a few selected values for t - distributions with ν degrees of freedom for a range of one - sided or two - sided critical regions. For an example of how to read this table, take the fourth row, which begins with 4; that means ν, the number of degrees of freedom, is 4 (and if we are dealing, as above, with n values with a fixed sum, n = 5). Take the fifth entry, in the column headed 95 % for one - sided (90 % for two - sided). The value of that entry is 2.132. Then the probability that T is less than 2.132 is 95 % or Pr (− ∞ < T < 2.132) = 0.95; this also means that Pr (− 2.132 < T < 2.132) = 0.9. This can be calculated by the symmetry of the distribution, and so Note that the last row also gives critical points: a t - distribution with infinitely many degrees of freedom is a normal distribution. (See Related distributions above). The first column is the number of degrees of freedom. The number at the beginning of each row in the table above is ν, which has been defined above as n − 1. The percentage along the top is 100 % (1 − α). The numbers in the main body of the table are t. If a quantity T is distributed as a Student 's t - distribution with ν degrees of freedom, then there is a probability 1 − α that T will be less than t. (Calculated as for a one - tailed or one - sided test, as opposed to a two - tailed test.) For example, given a sample with a sample variance 2 and sample mean of 10, taken from a sample set of 11 (10 degrees of freedom), using the formula we can determine that at 90 % confidence, we have a true mean lying below In other words, on average, 90 % of the times that an upper threshold is calculated by this method, this upper threshold exceeds the true mean. And, still at 90 % confidence, we have a true mean lying over In other words, on average, 90 % of the times that a lower threshold is calculated by this method, this lower threshold lies below the true mean. So that at 80 % confidence (calculated from 1 − 2 × (1 − 90 %) = 80 %), we have a true mean lying within the interval In other words, on average, 80 % of the times that upper and lower thresholds are calculated by this method, the true mean is both below the upper threshold and above the lower threshold. This is not the same thing as saying that there is an 80 % probability that the true mean lies between a particular pair of upper and lower thresholds that have been calculated by this method; see confidence interval and prosecutor 's fallacy.

who plays the wolf in hotel transylvania 2

Hotel Transylvania - wikipedia Hotel Transylvania is a 2012 American 3D computer - animated comedy film directed by Genndy Tartakovsky, produced by Columbia Pictures and Sony Pictures Animation, and distributed by Sony Pictures Releasing. The film, which was written by Peter Baynham and Robert Smigel from a story by Todd Durham, Daniel Hageman and Kevin Hageman, stars the voices of Adam Sandler, Andy Samberg, Selena Gomez, Kevin James, Fran Drescher, Steve Buscemi, Molly Shannon, David Spade, and CeeLo Green. The film tells a story of Count Dracula, the owner of a hotel called Hotel Transylvania where the world 's monsters can take a rest from human civilization. Dracula invites some of the most famous monsters to celebrate the 118th birthday of his daughter Mavis. When the "human - free hotel '' is unexpectedly visited by an ordinary 21 - year - old traveler named Jonathan, Dracula must protect Mavis from falling in love with him before the hotel 's guests learn that there is a human in the castle, which may jeopardize the hotel 's future and his career. The film was released on September 28, 2012, and was met with mixed critical reception, while the general public received it favorably. It earned a total of $358 million worldwide against a budget of $85 million at the box office, and was nominated for a Golden Globe Award for Best Animated Feature Film. It launched a franchise with a sequel titled Hotel Transylvania 2, which takes place seven years after the film, released in 2015, and a third film titled Hotel Transylvania 3: Summer Vacation released in 2018. A television series based on the film premiered on Disney Channel in June 2017, focusing on the teenage years of Mavis and her friends at the Hotel Transylvania. In 1895, in the aftermath of the death of his wife Martha (Jackie Sandler) at the hands of an angry human mob, Count Dracula (Adam Sandler) commissions and builds a massive five - star, monsters - only hotel in Transylvania in which he raises his daughter Mavis (Selena Gomez) and to serve as a safe - place getaway for the world 's monsters from fear of human persecution. Famous monsters such as Frank (Kevin James) and his wife Eunice (Fran Drescher), Wayne and Wanda Werewolf (Steve Buscemi and Molly Shannon) and their massive immediate family, Griffin The Invisible Man (David Spade), and Murray the Mummy (CeeLo Green) often come to stay at the hotel. In the present day, on Mavis 's 118th birthday, Dracula allows his daughter to leave the castle in order to explore the human world, but he sets up an elaborate plan using his zombie bellhops disguised as humans to make them seem intimidating, and frighten her home. The plan works, but the zombies inadvertently lead a 21 - year - old human Jonathan Loughran (Andy Samberg) back to the hotel. Dracula frantically disguises him as a Frankensteinesque Monster and passes him off as Frank 's cousin "Johnnystein ''. Johnny soon encounters Mavis and the two "Zing '', in a form of romantic attraction. Unable to get Johnny out of the hotel without notice, Dracula quickly improvises that Johnny is a party planner, brought in to bring a fresher approach to his own traditional and boring parties. Johnny quickly becomes a hit to the other monsters, but this disgusts and worries Dracula greatly. Dracula orders Johnny to leave, but Johnny is brought back by Mavis. After being shown the beauty of a sunrise by Johnny, Mavis is inspired to give humans another chance. Meanwhile, the hotel chef Quasimodo (Jon Lovitz) with the help of his pet rat Esmeralda learns that Johnny is a human and kidnaps him in order to cook him. Dracula intervenes and magically freezes Quasimodo to keep him from telling anyone that Johnny is human. Dracula leads Johnny to his quarters and shows him a painting of Martha, allowing Johnny to realize why Dracula built the hotel and became overprotective of Mavis. Johnny then agrees to leave for good, but Dracula convinces him to stay for the time - being to avoid ruining Mavis 's birthday. The party is a great success the next night, and Mavis looks forward to opening a gift from Martha. However, when Johnny and Mavis share their first kiss, Dracula overreacts, and, in his outburst, inadvertently confesses to deceiving Mavis with the town. A still - frozen Quasimodo bursts in and Mr. Fly (Chris Parnell) reveals from his frozen speech that Johnny is a human disguised by Dracula. The guests are outraged by the deceit at play, but Mavis is undeterred and wants to be with Johnny. Johnny feigns disinterest in Mavis and rejects her out of respect for her father and leaves the hotel. Mavis flies onto the roof with her mother 's present, and Dracula follows her in hopes of comforting her. He learns the present is a book about how Martha and Dracula "Zinged '' and fell in love. Dracula realizes he no longer knows humankind 's true tolerance of monsters, and manages to convince Frank, Wayne, Griffin, and Murray to head out into the human world to help him find Johnny, and with the scent - tracking ability of Wayne 's daughter, Winnie, they learn that he is about to catch a flight to the United States. The four head to the airport, but are held up in a town celebrating a Monster Festival along the way. Admiring the group, the humans agree to help, and a team of men dressed as vampires provide Dracula shelter from the sunlight while he rushes to the airport. Dracula arrives to see Johnny 's plane taking off, and he gives chase in bat form, burning in the sunlight. After getting Johnny 's attention, Dracula makes his way to the front of the plane and uses his mind - controlling power on the pilot (Brian Stack) to help him apologize, stating that Mavis has grown up and can make her own decisions. Jonathan accepts his apology, and Dracula manipulates the pilot to return to the Transylvanian airport. Dracula returns Jonathan to Mavis, announcing that he approves of Johnny. Johnny confesses to Mavis that their ' Zing ' was mutual and the two kiss. The monsters finish celebrating Mavis 's party, impressing the hotel guests. Hotel Transylvania was originally created and developed by comedy writer Todd Durham, which he based on his book of the same name; after creating the bible for a franchise of several films, television series, video games, books, merchandising, hotel chain, and theme park, he took the package unsolicited to Columbia Pictures and set it up at Sony Pictures Animation where he became the first of several screenwriters on the project. The development process ultimately went through six directors: in 2006 Anthony Stacchi and David Feiss became the first directors set to helm the film. They were replaced by Jill Culton in 2008, who was followed by Chris Jenkins, with Todd Wilderman in 2010. In February 2011, Genndy Tartakovsky took over as the sixth scheduled director, and made his feature directorial debut with the film. He reimagined the film to follow the energy, organic nature, and exaggeration of 2D animation, particularly as seen in the work of director Tex Avery. "I took all the aesthetics I like from 2 - D and applied them here, '' Tartakovsky said. "I do n't want to do animation to mimic reality. I want to push reality. '' "I wanted to have an imprint so you 'd go, ' Well, only Genndy can make this. ' It 's hard, especially with CG, but I feel there 's a lot of moments that feel that they 're very me, so hopefully it 'll feel different enough that it has a signature to it. '' In November 2011, it was announced that Miley Cyrus would voice Mavis, Dracula 's teenage daughter, but in February 2012, Cyrus left the film to coordinate a musical comeback. It was later announced that Selena Gomez would replace Cyrus. Hotel Transylvania premiered on September 8, 2012, at the Toronto International Film Festival. The film received a wide release on September 28, 2012. On October 26, 2012, Regal Entertainment Group Cinemas began exclusively playing the traditionally animated short film Goodnight Mr. Foot before the film. Based on Hotel Transylvania, the short was directed and animated by Genndy Tartakovsky. Hotel Transylvania was released on Blu - ray (2D and 3D) and DVD on January 29, 2013. It was accompanied by the short animated film, Goodnight Mr. Foot. Review aggregator Rotten Tomatoes reports that 44 % of critics gave the film positive reviews; the average rating is 5.3 / 10, based on 140 reviews. The site 's critical consensus reads: "Hotel Transylvania 's buoyant, giddy tone may please children, but it might be a little too loud and thinly - scripted for older audiences. '' Another review aggregate, Metacritic, calculated an average score of 47 out of 100, based on 32 critics, indicating "mixed or average reviews ''. Audiences polled by CinemaScore gave Hotel Transylvania an average grade of "A - '' on an A+ to F scale. IGN editor Geoff Chapman rated the film 9 out of 10 and wrote "This is a fun film, full of quirky gags and lovable characters. There are a few songs that smack a bit like soundtrack marketing for the kids, and the story is of course fairly predictable, but this movie is about enjoying a fun journey with great characters. It 's a romp that kids and families will all enjoy. Hotel Transylvania is definitely somewhere you 'll want to check in. '' Hotel Transylvania earned $148.3 million in North America, and $210.1 million in other countries, for a worldwide total of $358.4 million. The officially reported budget for the film was $85 million, although Deadline Hollywood claimed that the film actually cost $104 million. For the film 's marketing, Sony spent $52.1 million in the United States, and $31 million in other countries. Hotel Transylvania topped the box office with $11 million on its first Friday, and $42.5 million domestically and $50.6 million worldwide for its opening weekend, which at the time of its release broke the record for the largest - grossing September opening, a record which was overtaken by its sequel Hotel Transylvania 2 in 2015, with a weekend gross of $48.5 million. The film also earned the highest - grossing domestic debut for Sony Pictures Animation (also later overtaken by Hotel Transylvania 2). According to Sony 's president of worldwide distribution, Rory Bruer, Sony was very satisfied with the film 's performance, which was "beyond anyone 's imagination, and the holds are ridiculous. It exceeds expectations in every new market it opens in. '' Hotel Transylvania was theatrically released in China on October 28, 2013, more than a year after the worldwide premiere, and contributed $11,180,000 to the overall gross. A social game based on the film, titled Hotel Transylvania Social Game and made by Sony Pictures Interactive, was released on August 15, 2012. The game allows players to create their own Hotel Transylvania, where they must take care of the hotel 's guests. Another video game, titled Hotel Transylvania, developed by WayForward and published by GameMill Entertainment, was released on September 18, 2012, for Nintendo DS and Nintendo 3DS at retail. The game was also released in the Nintendo eShop in North America on November 15, 2012. A mobile game, titled Hotel Transylvania Dash, developed by Sony Pictures Consumer Products Inc. and PlayFirst, was released to iTunes App Store on September 20, 2012. The game is a variation of Hotel Dash mobile game and features the film 's art and characters. A mobile digital storybook app, titled Hotel Transylvania BooClips Deluxe App, developed by Castle Builders and Sony Pictures Animation, was released to iTunes App Store, Nook Store, Google Play for the Android, iBookstore, Microsoft 's Metro, and for the PC and Mac via www.BooClips.com, both in English and in Spanish, on September 20, 2012. Goodnight Mr. Foot is a traditionally animated short film based on Hotel Transylvania, featuring Bigfoot from the film. Premiering in time for Halloween, on October 26, 2012, the short was shown exclusively in Regal Entertainment Group Cinemas, before the theatrical shows of Hotel Transylvania. As Sony Pictures Animation 's first traditionally animated film, it was written and directed by Genndy Tartakovsky himself, who also animated the short with the help of Rough Draft Studios. Animated in the style of Bob Clampett, Tex Avery and Chuck Jones, Tartakovsky created the short in four weeks during the final production stages of the main film. Bigfoot (who has a non-speaking role in Hotel Transylvania) was voiced by Corey Burton while the Witch Maid was voiced by Rose Abdoo. Both voice actors provided additional voices in Hotel Transylvania. Taking place before the events of Hotel Transylvania, the short stars Bigfoot, whose rest in Hotel Transylvania is being constantly disturbed by an overly enthusiastic witch maid. A sequel, titled Hotel Transylvania 2, was released on September 25, 2015. Its story takes place seven years after the first film, with the hotel now open to human guests, and its owner, Count Dracula, being more preoccupied with the fact that his 5 - year - old grandson is not a pure - blood vampire. The original crew and cast returned for the film, except CeeLo Green as the role of Murray, who was replaced by Keegan - Michael Key. New additions include Mel Brooks as Dracula 's father, Vlad; Nick Offerman and Megan Mullally as Jonathan 's parents, Mike and Linda; and Asher Blinkoff as Mavis and Johnny 's half - human / half - vampire son, Dennis. In November 2015, Sony Pictures Animation announced that Hotel Transylvania 3: Summer Vacation will be released on September 21, 2018 (now July 13, 2018). Despite previously leaving the series to direct other projects, Genndy Tartakovsky returned as director for this installment. In 2017, Tartakovsky directed a five minute length short film set between the events of Hotel Transylvania 2 and 3, called Puppy!, which was released in cinemas as a pre-show special in front of The Emoji Movie. The story surrounds the events of Dennis requesting a puppy dog from Dracula. A television series based on the film premiered in June 2017, on Disney Channel. Developed and produced by Nelvana Limited, in partnership with Sony Pictures Animation, the series takes place before the first film, focusing on the teenage years of Mavis and her friends at the Hotel Transylvania.

who plays sarah in picnic at hanging rock

Picnic at Hanging Rock - wikipedia Picnic at Hanging Rock may refer to:

how many players in a davis cup team

Davis Cup - wikipedia The Davis Cup is the premier international team event in men 's tennis. It is run by the International Tennis Federation (ITF) and is contested annually between teams from competing countries in a knock - out format. It is described by the organisers as the "World Cup of Tennis '', and the winners are referred to as the World Champion team. The competition began in 1900 as a challenge between Great Britain and the United States. By 2016, 135 nations entered teams into the competition. The most successful countries over the history of the tournament are the United States (winning 32 tournaments and finishing as runners - up 29 times) and Australia (winning 28 times, including four occasions with New Zealand as Australasia, and finishing as runners - up 19 times). The present champions are France, who beat Belgium to win their tenth title in 2017. The women 's equivalent of the Davis Cup is the Fed Cup. Australia, the Czech Republic, and the United States are the only countries to have held both Davis Cup and Fed Cup titles in the same year. The Hopman Cup, a third competition for mixed teams, carries less prestige, but is a popular curtain raiser to the tennis season. The idea for a tournament pitting the best British and Americans in competition against one another was probably first conceived by James Dwight, the first president of the U.S. National Lawn Tennis Association when it formed in 1881. Desperate to assess the development of American players against the renowned British champions, he worked tirelessly to engage British officials in a properly sanctioned match, but failed to do so. He nevertheless tried to entice top international (particularly British) talent to the U.S. and sanctioned semi-official tours of the top American players to Great Britain. Diplomatic relations between Great Britain and the United Stated on the tennis front had strengthened such that, by the mid 1890s, reciprocal tours were staged annually between players of the two nations, and an ensuing friendship between American William Larned and Irishman Harold Mahony spurred efforts to formalize an official team competition between the two nations. International competitions had been staged for some time before the first Davis Cup match in 1900. From 1892, England and Ireland had been competing in an annual national - team - based competition, similar to what would become the standard Davis Cup format, mixing single and doubles matches, and in 1895 England played against France in a national team competition. During Larned 's tour of the British Isles in 1896, where he competed in several tournaments including the Wimbledon Championships, he was also a spectator for the annual England vs. Ireland match. He returned to exclaim that Britain had agreed to send a group of three to the US the following summer, which would represent the first British lawn tennis "team '' to compete in the U.S. Coincidentally, some weeks before Larned left for his British tour, the idea for an international competition was discussed also between leading figures in American lawn tennis - one of whom was tennis journalist E.P. Fischer - at a tournament in Niagara - on - the - Lake, Ontario. Dwight F. Davis was in attendance at this tournament, and was thought to have got wind of the idea as it was discussed in the tournament 's popular magazine, and Davis 's name was mentioned as someone who might ' do something for the game... put up some big prize, or cup '. Larned and Fischer met on several occasions that summer and discussed the idea of an international match to be held in Chicago the following summer, pitting six of the best British players against six of the best Americans, in a mixture of singles and doubles matches. This was discussed openly in two articles in the Chicago Tribune, but did not come to fruition. Nevertheless, the following summer, Great Britain - though not under the official auspices of the Lawn Tennis Association - sent three of its best players to compete in several US tournaments. Their relative poor performances convinced Dwight and other leading officials and figures in American lawn tennis that the time was right for a properly sanctioned international competition. This was to be staged in Newcastle in July 1898, but the event never took place as the Americans could not field a sufficiently strong team. A reciprocal tour to the U.S. in 1899 amounted to just a single British player travelling overseas, as many of the players were involved in overseas armed conflicts. It was at this juncture, in the summer of 1899, that four members of the Harvard University tennis team - Dwight Davis included - travelled across the States to challenge the best west - coast talent, and upon his return, it apparently occurred to Davis that if teams representing regions could arouse such great feelings, then why would n't a tennis event that pitted national teams in competition be just as successful. He approached James Dwight with the idea, which was tentatively agreed, and he ordered an appropriate sterling silver punchbowl trophy from Shreve, Crump & Low, purchasing it from his own funds for about $ 1,000. They in turn commissioned a classically styled design from William B. Durgin 's of Concord, New Hampshire, crafted by the Englishman Rowland Rhodes. Beyond donating a trophy for the competition, however, Davis 's involvement in the incipient development of the tournament that came to bear his name was negligible, yet a persistent myth has emerged that Davis devised both the idea for an international tennis competition and its format of mixing singles and doubles matches. Research has shown this to be a myth, similar in its exaggeration of a single individual 's efforts within a highly complex long - term development to the myths of William Webb Ellis and Abner Doubleday, who have both been wrongly credited with inventing rugby and baseball, respectively. Davis nevertheless went on to become a prominent politician in the United States in the 1920s, serving as US Secretary of War from 1925 to 1929 and as Governor - General of the Philippines from 1929 to 1932. The first match, between the United States and Britain (competing as the "British Isles ''), was held at the Longwood Cricket Club in Boston, Massachusetts in 1900. The American team, of which Dwight Davis was a part, surprised the British by winning the first three matches. The following year the two countries did not compete, but the US won the match in 1902 and Britain won the following four matches. By 1905 the tournament expanded to include Belgium, Austria, France, and Australasia, a combined team from Australia and New Zealand that competed together until 1914. The tournament was initially titled the International Lawn Tennis Challenge although it soon became known as the Davis Cup, after Dwight Davis ' trophy. The Davis Cup competition was initially played as a challenge cup. All teams competed against one another for the right to face the previous year 's champion in the final round. Beginning in 1923, the world 's teams were split into two zones: the "America Zone '' and the "Europe Zone ''. The winners of the two zones met in the Inter-Zonal Zone ("INZ '') to decide which national team would challenge the defending champion for the cup. In 1955 a third zone, the "Eastern Zone '', was added. Because there were three zones, the winner of one of the three zones received a bye in the first round of the INZ challenger rounds. In 1966, the "Europe Zone '' was split into two zones, "Europe Zone A '' and "Europe Zone B '', so the winners of the four zones competed in the INZ challenger rounds. From 1950 to 1967, Australia dominated the competition, winning the Cup 15 times in 18 years. Beginning in 1972, the format was changed to a knockout tournament, so that the defending champion was required to compete in all rounds, and the Davis Cup was awarded to the tournament champion. Up until 1973, the Davis Cup had only ever been won by the United States, Great Britain / British Isles, France and Australia / Australasia. Their domination was eventually broken in 1974 when South Africa and India made the final; however the final was scratched and South Africa awarded the cup after India refused to travel to South Africa in protest at South Africa 's apartheid policies. The following year saw the first actual final between two "outsider '' nations, when Sweden beat Czechoslovakia 3 -- 2, and since then, many other countries have gone on to capture the trophy. In 1981, the tiered system of competition in use today was created, in which the 16 best national teams compete in the World Group and all other national teams compete in one of four groups in one of three regional zones. In 1989, the tiebreak was introduced into Davis Cup competition, and from 2016 it is used in all five sets. In 2018, the ITF voted to change the format of the competition from 2019 onwards, changing it to an 18 - team event to happen at the end of the season, with 71 % of ITF member federations voting in favour of the change. The new format, backed by footballer Gerard Pique and Japanese businessman Hiroshi Mikitani, was likened to a world cup of tennis and was designed to be more attractive to sponsors and broadcasters. Opposing federations included those from Australia, Germany, and Great Britain. Support for the reform was also mixed among current and former players, with some such as Novak Djokovic and Rafael Nadal being in favour of the new format, but others such as Rod Laver, Lucas Pouille and Roger Federer being opposed. Davis Cup games have been affected by political protests several times, especially in Sweden: The 16 best national teams are assigned to the World Group and compete annually for the Davis Cup. Nations which are not in the World Group compete in one of three regional zones (Americas, Asia / Oceania, and Europe / Africa). The competition is spread over four weekends during the year. Each elimination round between competing nations is held in one of the countries, and is played as the best of five matches (4 singles, 1 doubles). The ITF determines the host countries for all possible matchups before each year 's tournament. The World Group is the top group and includes the world 's best 16 national teams. Teams in the World Group play a four - round elimination tournament. Teams are seeded based on a ranking system released by the ITF, taking into account previous years ' results. The defending champion and runner - up are always the top two seeds in the tournament. The losers of the first - round matches are sent to the World Group playoff round, where they play along with winners from Group I of the regional zones. The playoff round winners play in the World Group for the next year 's tournament, while the losers play in Group I of their respective regional zone. Each of the three regional zones is divided into four groups. Groups I and II play elimination rounds, with the losing teams facing relegation to the next - lower group. The teams in Groups III and those in Group IV play a round - robin tournament with promotion and relegation. 16 countries 6 countries 11 countries 7 countries 8 countries 16 countries 8 countries 9 countries 15 countries 10 countries 9 countries 11 countries Note: The total number of nations in Group One is 24. However, the distribution among the three zones may vary each year, according to the number of nations promoted or relegated between Group One and the World Group. The number of nations in the World Group and Group One together is 22 from Euro / Africa Zone, 9 from Americas Zone and 9 from Asia / Oceania Zone. As in other cup competitions tie is used in the Davis Cup to mean an elimination round. In the Davis Cup, the word rubber means an individual match. In the annual World Group competition, 16 nations compete in eight first - round ties; the eight winners compete in four quarterfinal ties; the four winners compete in two semifinal ties; and the two winners compete in the final tie. Each tie consists of five rubbers, which are played in three days (usually on Friday, Saturday, and Sunday). The winner of the tie is the nation which wins three or more of the five rubbers in the tie. On the first day, the first two rubbers are singles, which are generally played by each nation 's two best available singles players. On the second day, the doubles rubber is played. On the third day, the final two rubbers are typically reverse singles, in which the first - day contestants usually play again, but they swap opponents from the first day 's singles rubbers. However, in certain circumstances, the team captain may replace one or two of the players who played the singles on Friday by other players who were nominated for the tie. For example, if the tie has already been decided in favour of one of the teams, it is common for younger or lower - ranked team members to play the remaining dead rubbers in order for them to gain Davis Cup experience. Since 2011, if a nation has a winning 3 -- 1 lead after the first reverse single match and that match has gone to four sets or more, then the remaining reverse single match which is a dead rubber is not played. All five rubbers are played if one nation has a winning 3 -- 0 lead after the doubles match. Ties are played at a venue chosen by one of the competing countries. The right of choice is given on an alternating basis. Therefore, countries play in the country where the last tie between the teams was not held. In case the two countries have not met since 1970, lots are drawn to determine the host country. Venues in the World Group must comply with certain minimum standards, including a minimum seating capacity as follows: Prior to each tie, the captain (non-playing coach appointed by the national association) nominates a squad of four players and decides who will compete in the tie. On the day before play starts, the order of play for the first day is drawn at random. In the past, teams could substitute final day singles players only in case of injury or illness, verified by a doctor, but current rules permit the captain to designate any player to play the last two singles rubbers, provided that no first day matchup is repeated. There is no restriction on which of the playing team members may play the doubles rubber: the two singles players, two other players (usually doubles specialists) or a combination. Each rubber is normally played as best of five sets. Since 2016, all sets use a tiebreak at 6 -- 6 if necessary (formerly, the fifth set usually had no tiebreaker, so play continued until one side won by two games e.g. 10 -- 8). However, if a team has clinched the tie before all five rubbers have been completed, the remaining rubbers may be shortened to best of three sets, with a tiebreak if necessary to decide all three sets. In Group III and Group IV competitions, each tie consists only of three rubbers, which include two singles and one doubles rubber, which is played in a single day. The rubbers are in the best of three sets format, with a tie breaker if necessary to decide all three sets. - also won Junior Davis Cup title Players must now be aged 14 and over For more information, see ITF Rankings Change since previous ranking update ATP Points were distributed from 2009 to 2015. Only World Group and World Group Play - Off matches and only live matches earn points. Dead rubbers earn no points. If a player does not compete in the singles of one or more rounds he will receive points from the previous round when playing singles at the next tie. This last rule also applies for playing in doubles matches. A player who wins a singles rubber in the first day of the tie is awarded 5 points, whereas a singles rubber win in tie 's last day grants 10 points for a total of 15 available points. For the first round only, any player who competes in a live rubber, without a win, receives 10 ranking points for participation. Team bonus awarded to a singles player who wins 7 live matches in a calendar year and his team wins the competition. Performance bonus awarded to a singles player who wins 8 live matches in a calendar year. In this case, no Team bonus is awarded. Team bonus awarded to an unchanged doubles team who wins 4 matches in a calendar year and his team wins the competition.

what is the natural habitat of a ball python

Ball Python - wikipedia The ball python (Python regius), also known as the royal python, is a python species found in sub-Saharan Africa. Like all other pythons, it is a nonvenomous constrictor. This is the smallest of the African pythons and is popular in the pet trade, largely due to its small size and typically docile temperament. No subspecies are currently recognized. The name "ball python '' refers to the animal 's tendency to curl into a ball when stressed or frightened. The name "royal python '' (from the Latin regius) comes from the fact that rulers in Africa would wear the python as jewelry. Maximum adult length of this species is 182 cm (6.0 ft). Females tend to be slightly bigger than males, maturing around 122 -- 137 cm (4.0 -- 4.5 ft). Males typically grow to around 90 -- 107 cm (3.0 -- 3.5 ft). Their build is stocky, while the head is relatively small. The scales are smooth and both sexes have anal spurs on either side of the vent. Although males tend to have larger spurs, this is not definitive, and sex is best determined by manual eversion of the male hemipenes or inserting a probe into the cloaca to check the presence of an inverted hemipenis (if male). When probing to determine sex, males typically measure eight to 10 subcaudal scales, and females typically measure two to four subcaudal scales. The color pattern is typically black or dark brown with light brown or gold sides and dorsal blotches. The belly is a white or cream that may include scattered black markings. However, those in the pet industries have, through selective breeding, developed many morphs (genetic mutations) with altered colors and patterns. They are found in west Africa from Senegal, Mali, Guinea - Bissau, Guinea, Sierra Leone, Liberia, Ivory Coast, Ghana, Benin, and Nigeria through Cameroon, Chad, and the Central African Republic to Sudan and Uganda. No type locality was given in the original description. The ball python bears a strong physical resemblance to the Burmese python, whose adaptive abilities have caused it to become classified as an invasive species in places such as the Florida Everglades. The ball python, however, has not been known to reproduce in the wild outside of its native range and no reproducing wild populations are known in Florida. Ball pythons prefer grasslands, savannas, and sparsely wooded areas. but have been shown to adapt to all types of environments. Males tend to display more semi-arboreal behaviours, whilst females tend towards terrestrial behaviours. This terrestrial species is known for its defense strategy that involves coiling into a tight ball when threatened, with its head and neck tucked away in the middle. In this state, it can literally be rolled around. Favored retreats include mammal burrows and other underground hiding places, where they also aestivate. In captivity, they are considered good pets, with their relatively small size and placid nature making them easy to handle. In the wild, their diet consists mostly of small mammals, such as African soft - furred rats, shrews, and striped mice and birds. Younger pythons, under 70 cm total length, and males prey almost exclusively on small birds (nestlings and immature young) whilst pythons greater than 70 cm total length, and females prey almost exclusively on small mammals. Females are oviparous, with 3 to 11 rather large, leathery eggs being laid (four to six are most common). These are incubated by the female under the ground (via a shivering motion), and hatch after 55 to 60 days. Sexual maturity is reached at 11 -- 18 months for males, and 20 -- 36 months for females. Age is only one factor in determining sexual maturity and ability to breed; weight is the second factor. Males breed at 600 g or more, but in captivity are often not bred until they are 800 g (1.7 lb), although in captivity, some males have been known to begin breeding at 300 -- 400 g. Females breed in the wild at weights as low as 800 g though 1200 g or more in weight is most common; in captivity, breeders generally wait until they are no less than 1500 g (3.3 lb). Parental care of the eggs ends once they hatch, and the female leaves the offspring to fend for themselves. Wild - caught specimens have greater difficulty adapting to a captive environment, which can result in refusal to feed, and they generally carry internal or external parasites. Specimens have survived for over 40 years in captivity, with the oldest recorded ball python being kept in captivity 47 years and 6 months until its death in 1992 at the Philadelphia Zoo. Hundreds of different color patterns are available in captive snakes. Some of the most common are Spider, Pastel, Albino, Mojave, and Lesser. Breeders are continuously creating new designer morphs, and over 5,300 different morphs currently exist. This species is particularly revered in the traditional religion of the Igbo people of southeastern Nigeria. It is considered symbolic of the earth, being an animal that travels so close to the ground. Even among many Christian Igbos, these pythons are treated with great care whenever they happen to wander into a village or onto someone 's property; they are allowed to roam freely or are very gently picked up and placed out in a forest or field away from any homes. If one is accidentally killed, many communities in Igboland still build a coffin for the snake 's remains and give it a short funeral.

what was dan aykroyd's name in trading places

Trading Places - wikipedia Trading Places is a 1983 American comedy film directed by John Landis, starring Dan Aykroyd and Eddie Murphy. It tells the story of an upper - class commodities broker and a homeless street hustler whose lives cross paths when they are unknowingly made part of an elaborate bet. Ralph Bellamy, Don Ameche, Denholm Elliott, and Jamie Lee Curtis also star. The storyline is often called a modern take on Mark Twain 's classic 19th - century novel The Prince and the Pauper. The film was written by Timothy Harris and Herschel Weingrod and was produced by Aaron Russo. It was released to theaters in North America on June 8, 1983, where it was distributed by Paramount Pictures. The film earned over $90 million during its theatrical run in the United States, finishing as the fourth highest earning film of the year and the second highest earning R - rated film of 1983. Denholm Elliott and Jamie Lee Curtis won the awards for Best Actor in a Supporting Role and Best Actress in a Supporting Role, respectively, at the 37th British Academy Film Awards. The film was nominated for several additional awards including Best Motion Picture -- Musical or Comedy at the 41st Golden Globe Awards. Duke brothers Randolph and Mortimer own a successful commodities brokerage in Philadelphia. Holding opposing views on the issue of nature versus nurture, they make a wager and agree to conduct an experiment switching the lives of two unwitting people at opposite sides of the social hierarchy and observing the results. They witness an encounter between their managing director -- the well - mannered and educated Louis Winthorpe III, engaged to the Dukes ' grand - niece Penelope -- and a poor street hustler named Billy Ray Valentine; Valentine is arrested at Winthorpe 's insistence because of a suspected robbery attempt. The Dukes decide to use the two men for their experiment. Winthorpe is publicly framed as a thief, drug dealer and philanderer by Clarence Beeks at the request of the Dukes. Winthorpe is fired from Duke & Duke, his bank accounts are frozen, he is denied entry to his Duke - owned home, and he quickly finds himself vilified by Penelope and his former friends. He befriends Ophelia, a prostitute who agrees to help him in exchange for a financial reward once he is exonerated. Meanwhile, the Dukes bail Valentine out of jail, install him in Winthorpe 's former job and grant him use of Winthorpe 's home. Valentine soon becomes well - versed in the business using his street smarts to achieve success, and begins to act well - mannered. During the firm 's Christmas party, Winthorpe is caught planting drugs in Valentine 's desk in an attempt to frame him, and he brandishes a gun to escape. Later, the Dukes discuss their experiment and settle their wager for one dollar, before plotting to return Valentine to the streets. Valentine overhears the conversation, and seeks out Winthorpe, who attempts suicide by overdosing on pills. Valentine, Ophelia and Winthorpe 's butler Coleman nurse him back to health and inform him of the Dukes ' experiment. On television, they learn that Clarence Beeks is transporting a secret USDA report on orange crop forecasts. Winthorpe and Valentine recall large payments made to Beeks by the Dukes and realize that the Dukes plan to obtain the report to corner the market on frozen orange juice. On New Year 's Eve, the four board Beeks ' Philadelphia - bound train, intending to switch the original report with a forgery that predicts low orange crop yields. Beeks uncovers their scheme and attempts to kill them, but he is knocked unconscious by a gorilla being transported on the train. The four disguise Beeks with a gorilla costume and cage him with the real gorilla. After delivering the forged report to the Dukes in Beeks ' place, Valentine and Winthorpe travel to New York City with Coleman 's and Ophelia 's life savings to carry out their part of the plan. On the commodities trading floor, the Dukes commit all their holdings to buying frozen concentrated orange - juice futures contracts; other traders follow their lead, inflating the price. Meanwhile, Valentine and Winthorpe sell futures heavily at the inflated price. Following the broadcast of the actual crop report and its prediction of a normal forecast, the price of orange - juice futures plummets. Valentine and Winthorpe close their futures position by buying futures at the lower price from everyone but the Dukes, turning a large profit. The Dukes fail to meet a margin call, and are left owing $394 million. Valentine and Winthorpe explain to the Dukes that they had made a wager on whether they could simultaneously get rich while making the Dukes poor. Valentine collects $1 from Winthorpe while Randolph collapses holding his chest and Mortimer shouts angrily at his brother about their failed plan. Later, the now wealthy Valentine, Winthorpe, Ophelia, and Coleman vacation on a tropical beach, while Beeks and the gorilla are loaded onto a ship heading for Africa. The cast also includes Robert Curtis - Brown as Todd, Winthorpe 's romantic rival for Penelope; James Belushi as Harvey, a party - goer on New Year 's Eve; Jamie Lee Curtis ' sister Kelly Curtis cameos as Penelope 's friend Muffy; Frank Oz as a police officer; James Eckhouse as a police officer; Muppet performer Richard Hunt as Wilson; and Bo Diddley as a pawnbroker. Tom Davis and Al Franken, also Saturday Night Live cast members, cameo as train baggage handlers. The storyline of Trading Places -- a member of society trading places with another whose socio - economic status stands in direct contrast to his own -- often draws comparisons to Mark Twain 's novel The Prince and the Pauper. First published in 1881, the novel follows the lives of a prince and a beggar -- both of them of adolescent age -- who use their uncanny resemblance to each other as a premise to switch places temporarily; the prince takes on a life of poverty and misery while the pauper enjoys the lavish luxuries of a royal life. Parallels have also been drawn between Trading Places and Mozart 's 18th century comic opera The Marriage of Figaro in which a servant (Figaro) foils the plans of his rich master who tried to steal Figaro 's bride to be. The music from The Marriage of Figaro is used as a cinematic narrative in the film when the viewers are introduced to the daily routine of protagonist Louis Winthorpe 's privileged life with the opera 's overture playing in the background. The work also takes inspiration from Twain 's The Million Pound Bank Note. American philosopher and professor at Harvard University Stanley Cavell wrote about Trading Places in his 2005 book Cavell on Film. Cavell postulates that film is sometimes used as a new technology in the production and experience of an opera. He explains that this axiom asserts its importance not in the fact that "our time '' sees an increased expectation of new operas being developed but, rather, in the fact that there is an increased expectation of "new productions of operas. '' Cavell draws a comparison of themes between Trading Places and the opera The Marriage of Figaro, stating that "what Trading Places wants from its reference to Figaro is mostly the idea of resourceful and sociable young and poor overcoming with various disguises the conniving of the unsociable old and rich but with no sense that the old may be redeemed by a recognition of their faults and no revolutionary desire to see the world formed on a new basis. '' David Budd, in his 2002 book Culture Meets Culture in the Movies, writes about the experiences of characters when the expected roles of races in society are sometimes reversed. The 1995 fiction film White Man 's Burden and John Howard Griffin 's factual book Black Like Me are used as a foundation to show how different the experience of white people can be when subjected to the prejudices faced by black people. In that respect, Budd proclaims Trading Places as "uncannily illustrative if heavy - handed ''. Beginning from the premise that, in the film, the "expectations of the races also stand upon their head '', Budd states that "through even a highly comedic vessel a message loudly asking for a reassessment of prejudice, and for level playing fields, is heard. '' Trading Places was released theatrically in the United States on June 10, 1983. During its opening weekend, the film earned $7.3 million from 1,375 theaters -- an average of $5,334 per theater -- ranking as the third highest - grossing film of the weekend, behind Octopussy ($8.9 million) -- debuting the same weekend -- and Return of the Jedi ($12 million). The film remained in the top ten grossing films for 17 weeks. It went on to earn $90.4 million during its U.S. theatrical run, making it the 4th highest - grossing film of 1983, behind Flashdance ($92.9 million), Terms of Endearment ($108.4 million) and Return of the Jedi ($252.5 million), and the second highest grossing R - rated film of 1983, behind Flashdance. Adjusted for inflation, the film remains the number 58 highest - grossing R - rated film of all time. Trading Places was met with positive reviews from critics. Review aggregation website Rotten Tomatoes gives the film an approval rating of 86 %, based on 42 reviews, with an average rating of 7.3 out of 10. The site 's consensus states: "Featuring deft interplay between Eddie Murphy and Dan Aykroyd, Trading Places is an immensely appealing social satire. '' Metacritic gave the film a score of 66 out of 100, based on 9 critics, which indicates "generally favorable reviews ''. Author and critic Richard Schickel of Time magazine called Trading Places "one of the most emotionally satisfying and morally gratifying comedies of recent times ''. While admitting Aykroyd 's success in demonstrating "perfect prissiness as Winthorpe '', Schickel commented on Murphy 's performance as Valentine calling Murphy "a force to be reckoned with '' and stating that he "makes Trading Places something more than a good - hearted comedy. He turns it into an event. '' Film critic Roger Ebert of Chicago Sun - Times awarded the film three and a half stars out of four, while offering that the film resembles Tootsie and comparing it to comedies of Frank Capra and Preston Sturges. Ebert stated "This is good comedy ''; he described the characters as "wonderful comic inventions '' that rose above what could have been stereotypes due to the actors ' skill and explained that the comedy is successful because it "develops the quirks and peculiarities of its characters, so that they 're funny because of who they are. '' He further commented on the cast by favorably commenting on acting as "engaging '', stating that "Murphy and Aykroyd are perfect foils for each other '', that they 're both capable of being "specifically eccentric '', that "they both play characters with a lot of native intelligence '' and concluding that "It 's fun to watch them thinking. '' Commenting on Bellamy and Ameche in the roles of the Duke brothers, Ebert called their involvement in the film "a masterstroke of casting. '' Janet Maslin of The New York Times repeated some of Roger Ebert 's sentiments stating that "Preston Sturges might have made a movie like Trading Places - if he 'd had a little less inspiration and a lot more money. '' She, again, also commended the cast by calling it "well - chosen '', commenting on Murphy and Aykroyd as "the two actors best suited '', stating that the Duke brothers were "played delightfully '' by Ameche and Bellamy and -- concluding that "the supporting cast is also quite good '' -- praising Curtis for managing "to turn a hard - edged, miniskirted prostitute into a character of unexpected charm. '' Jay Carr of The Boston Globe called it "easily the best of the movies I 've seen by the various Saturday Night Live alumni. '' Empire magazine awarded the film a rating of four stars out of five, classifying Trading Places as "Excellent '' per the magazine 's star rating system, stating that Murphy and Aykroyd are the show - stealers. A review of the film published by Variety magazine called the film "a light romp geared up by the schtick shifted by Dan Aykroyd and Eddie Murphy. '' The review gave further commendations to supporting actors, stating that Murphy and Aykroyd "could n't have brought this one off without the contributions of three veterans - Ralph Bellamy, Don Ameche and the droll Englishman, Denholm Elliott '' and calling the presence of Jamie Lee Curtis "enjoyable. '' The film received several award nominations in 1984 including an Academy Award, two Golden Globes, and three BAFTA awards. Elliott and Curtis attracted the film 's two wins, earning respectively, the BAFTA award for Best Supporting Actor and Best Supporting Actress. A score album was released by La - La Land Records on October 11, 2011 and was limited to 2000 copies. The album features Elmer Bernstein 's Oscar - nominated score, as well as the source material that he wrote and arranged, including traditional Christmas carols that appear in the film. A significant portion of Bernstein 's music is based on Mozart 's music from The Marriage of Figaro. "Do Ya Wanna Funk, '' a hit song by Sylvester featured in the movie, was omitted from the album. The song "The Loco - Motion '' by Little Eva is also heard on the train scene and is credited on the film. Almost 30 years after its release, the plot for the movie was part of the inspiration for new regulations on the financial markets. On March 3, 2010, Commodity Futures Trading Commission chief Gary Gensler stated, in testimony he gave to the 111th Congress: "We have recommended banning using misappropriated government information to trade in the commodity markets. In the movie Trading Places, starring Eddie Murphy, the Duke brothers intended to profit from trades in frozen concentrated orange juice futures contracts using an illicitly obtained and not yet public Department of Agriculture orange crop report. '' The "Eddie Murphy Rule '', as it came to be known, later came into effect as Section 136 of the Wall Street Transparency and Accountability Act of the Dodd - Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, under Section 746, which dealt with insider trading. In Italy the movie has become a Christmas classic, being broadcast by Italian television every year, from December 24, 1997.

the kinks i'm not like everybody else sopranos

I 'm Not Like Everybody Else - wikipedia "I 'm Not Like Everybody Else '' is a song written by Ray Davies and first recorded by The Kinks in 1966 and released that year as the B - side of "Sunny Afternoon ''. The lead vocal is sung by Dave Davies, with occasional parts vocalized by his brother Ray, the band 's usual lead singer. The song is a defiant anthem of non-conformity. It has been covered by various artists, notably the Chocolate Watchband in their 1968 rendition of the song. Davies had written the song for The Animals, but it was turned down, so the Kinks released their own version with guitarist Dave Davies on lead vocals. This went against the norm where each brother usually sang songs they had written themselves. Later performances of the song were sung by Ray, with Dave providing backing vocals and Eric Clapton - influenced guitar solos. Both the Davies brothers continue to perform the song in their solo concerts. Dave Davies described the song as "a Kinks fans favorite. '' He also said, "(I) t was never a hit for The Kinks, but over the years every true Kinks fan relates to that particular song, and it 's funny, because that particular version is one of the only songs where Ray and I actually swap lead vocals. Elsewhere, when he sings lead I do the octave harmonies, or where I sing lead he 's doing background vocals. Ray and I have very different ranges, fortunately, and our textures are different, which really helps for distinctive harmonies. '' The song is a defiant anthem of non-conformity, and its lyrics exhibit sentiments of frustration, accompanied by the outsider perception of being different from the rest, while yearning to seek and find, as well as assert, one 's own individual identity. The song begins with an opening signature played somewhat menacingly on a twelve - string electric guitar in the key of A-minor, punctuated by subtle drum beats, which then shifts into a key of G - major when the lyrics begin, highlighting the song 's angry stance. Yet the mood also conveys a sense of sadness, and in the third verse expresses love and a sense of remorse, but with a cautious warning: As the song progresses into its last bars, it builds up to a cathartic finale with intense playing from all of the members of the Kinks and then comes to a crashing close. The song was first released as the B - side to their single "Sunny Afternoon '' but soon became a favourite and was often part of the Kinks live act. Ray Davies continues to play the song regularly and used the song as an opening number in his 2006 - 2008 solo live appearances. The song has been included on many compilations including Sunny Afternoon in the UK in 1967, The Great Lost Kinks Album in the US in 1973 and the 2002 greatest hits release The Ultimate Collection. It also appears as a bonus track on the 1998 CD reissue of Face to Face, the 2011 deluxe edition of The Kink Kontroversy, and the compilation "The Anthology 1964 - 1971 '' Covered by Peter Perrett on his solo album Woke Up Sticky

ed sheeran wrote a song for justin bieber

Love Yourself - wikipedia "Love Yourself '' is a song recorded by Canadian singer Justin Bieber for his fourth studio album Purpose (2015). The song was released first as a promotional single on November 8, 2015, and later was released as the album 's third single. It was written by Ed Sheeran, Benny Blanco and Bieber, and produced by Blanco. An acoustic pop song, "Love Yourself '' features an electric guitar and a brief flurry of trumpets as its main instrumentation. During the song, Bieber uses a husky tone in the lower registers. Lyrically, the song is a kiss - off to a narcissistic ex-lover who did the protagonist wrong. On the US Billboard Hot 100 and the UK Singles Chart, the song became Bieber 's third consecutive number - one, where in the United States it spent 24 non-consecutive weeks in the top ten (later named the best - performing single of 2016) and was also Bieber 's first number one on the Adult Contemporary chart, while in the United Kingdom it spent six weeks at the top. "Love Yourself '' topped the charts in fifteen countries, including Australia, Canada, New Zealand, and Sweden. "Love Yourself '' was nominated for two Grammy Awards: Song of the Year and Best Pop Solo Performance. It was the seventh - best - selling song of 2016 in the US. The music video for the song was released along with the Purpose: The Movement project on November 14, 2015. It features a couple doing an interpretive dance in their house. Bieber promoted the song with performances on TV shows, as well as awards shows throughout 2015 -- 16, while adding it on the set list of his Purpose World Tour. On September 29, 2015, Justin Bieber announced in an interview with Australia 's Sunrise morning show that British singer and songwriter Ed Sheeran had written a song for his then - upcoming album. Later, during an interview for Capital FM, Bieber revealed details about the song, saying: "It 's just me and a guitar. Basically that 's how I started, playing on the street with a guitar. '' About Sheeran, he said: "I think he 's one of the most talented writers in the game right now, so just to have his input and his stories and our stories and match them up together and say ' What have you been through?, ' and telling the same story. '' In another interview for the same radio network, he commented about the collaboration, stating: "It was a process. Just getting us together, you know, in the same room cause we did a lot of it separate. He is a good guy, super talented. Really good songwriter so just to be able to work with that calibre of songwriter was really, really awesome. '' In 2017, Sheeran revealed that "Love Yourself '' was written for his album ÷. He said in an interview that the track would have been scrapped before Bieber took the song. On November 9, 2015 "Love Yourself '' premiered on Beats 1 along with "The Feeling ''. The song was also made available on iTunes in the same day as a promotional single of Purpose, and later it was announced as the album 's official third radio single. When talking to Ryan Seacrest, Bieber said "Love Yourself '' is "definitely about someone in my past, someone who I do n't want to put on blast, '' he described the song as "cool because so many people can resonate with that because how many women do we bring back that mom does n't really necessarily like?. '' "Love Yourself '' was written by Ed Sheeran, Benny Blanco and Justin Bieber, with production being done by Benny Blanco, who was also responsible for the song 's instrumentation and programming. It features background vocals by Sheeran. According to the sheet music published at Musicnotes.com by Sony / ATV Music Publishing, the song is composed in the key of E major with a moderate tempo of 100 beats per minute and a time signature of. Bieber 's vocals range from the note of B to B. It is an acoustic pop song, featuring just vocals, an electric guitar, and a brief flurry of trumpets, which was considered "the most subdued and least electronic of Bieber 's new tracks. '' Lyrically, "Love Yourself '' is a kiss - off to a narcissistic ex-lover who did the protagonist wrong, with Bieber singing in a snappy and spiteful tone while "hating on a girl for loving herself too much. '' In the pre-chorus, he sings with a husky tone in the lower registers: "My mama do n't like you, and she likes everyone, '' "in a style that molds well to Sheeran 's, '' according to Rolling Stone 's Brittany Spanos. "And I (never) like to admit that I was wrong. And I 've been so caught up in my job, did n't see what 's going on, and now I know, I 'm better sleeping on my own, '' he continues. In the chorus, Bieber sings, "Cause if you like the way you look that much, oh baby you should go and love yourself, '' which according to Digital Spy 's Amy Davidson, "' love yourself ' means ' go f * * k yourself ' in this context. '' On March 7, 2017, composer Ed Sheeran stated on the Howard Stern Show that he had Rihanna in mind for the song at first, and the original lyric was indeed "fuck yourself ''. In the song 's bridge, Bieber uses a "brass - and - vocalese '' style. Andrew Unterberger of Spin called it "an earth - salting, cruelly chuckling kiss - off track, it features an unprecedented - for - Bieber caliber of lyrical detail, and its minimal arrangement allows every lyrical barb to pop like one of the song 's palm - mutes. For such sour grapes, though, ' Love Yourself ' still sounds exultant; one of many reminders this year that for all his insistence on being a good person, Bieber may ultimately be best served as a Top 40 heel. '' Leah Greenblatt of Entertainment Weekly complimented the track as one of her favourites from the album, naming it "the world 's first campfire - folk diss track. '' Amy Davidson of Digital Spy agreed, calling it a ' deliciously evil poison - pen ballad '. Sheldon Pearce of Complex praised "Sorry '' and "Love Yourself '' for "display (ing) the best of Bieber in tandem: the full scope of his pop stylings -- blue - eyed soul fleshing out both electronic and acoustic spaces. '' Kenneth Partridge of Billboard wrote that Bieber "overplay (s) his renewed spirituality... mak (ing) like John Mayer doing Sam Smith, '' citing the track as an example. Josh Gonzalez of Music Times thought the song was "a cool change of pace and nod musically to his 2014 duet with Cody Simpson ' Home to Mama ', '' adding: "Bieber is a great vocalist and does well on acoustic tracks. '' For Consequence of Sound editor Janine Schaults, "all the credit goes to Sheeran 's cherubic magic powers. Refreshingly, just a guitar and a lonely trumpet interlude accompany Bieber 's coy delivery. '' Michelles Geslani of the same publication opined that the track "sounds exactly what you 'd expect from a meeting of these two minds, '' considering it "' Thinking Out Loud ' crossed with low - key, lovelorn Bieber. '' Kitty Empire, writing for The Observer, aprecciated the song for "strip (ping) everything back very effectively to a guitar line and a vocal. '' Annie Zaleski of The A.V. Club was mixed, noting that "despite being a nicely deadpan kiss - off to a snobby ex, is generic acoustic - pop. '' In a less favorable review, Pitchfork 's Brad Nelson wrote that, lyrically, "it 's needlessly mean, neither funny nor clever, and it does n't do much to justify the severity of its perspective. '' Al Horner of NME noted that the song is "more traditionally Bieber, and (its) big pop hook (is) out of place amidst the forward - thinking electronic scuttle. '' Sam C. Mac of Slant Magazine called the lyrics "unintentionally hilarious. '' Alex Macpherson of The National called it "a cloying Ed Sheeran collaboration. '' Billboard ranked "Love Yourself '' at number 34 on their "100 Best Pop Songs of 2016 '' list. In the United States, the song debuted at number four on the Billboard Hot 100, giving Bieber his ninth top ten song and his third consecutive top ten debut from Purpose. It also debuted at number two and four on the Digital Songs and Streaming Songs charts, respectively, with 141,000 downloads and 17.4 million streams. The following week, it descended to number seven on the Hot 100. Two weeks later, it ascended from seven to five on the Hot 100, meanwhile Bieber 's "Sorry '' and "What Do You Mean? '' were at number two and four, respectively. Thus, as he did three weeks prior when "Love Yourself '' debuted at number four, Bieber had three concurrent songs in the Hot 100 's top five, becoming the third act to achieve it since 50 Cent in 2005. Bieber and The Beatles are the only acts to earn the honor as a lead artist on all three songs. On the chart dated February 6, 2016, "Love Yourself '' ascended from three to two on the Hot 100, meanwhile Bieber 's "Sorry '' was at number one. With the feat, Bieber became the 17th act in the Hot 100 's history to rank at numbers one and 2 simultaneously. He was also the 11th act to hold the Hot 100 's top two as a lead artist on both songs. The following week, "Love Yourself '' replaced "Sorry '' at number one, becoming his third consecutive number - one single. Thus, Bieber was the 12th artist to succeed himself in the Hot 100 's 57 - year history; the last artist before Bieber was The Weeknd, who is also from Canada. Additionally, Bieber 's Purpose became the first album by a male artist to produce three number - one songs since Justin Timberlake 's FutureSex / LoveSounds did so in 2006 -- 07. After being replaced at the top of the Hot 100 by Zayn 's debut single as a solo artist, "Pillowtalk '', for one week, it returned to the number one position the following date. Also, "Love Yourself '' replaced "Sorry '' at the top of the Radio Songs chart with 144 million weekly audience, becoming Bieber 's second number - one song on the chart. However, the next week, "Love Yourself '' was replaced at the top by Rihanna 's "Work '' and descended to number two. By the middle of 2016, the song had sold 1.6 million copies in the U.S. On the chart dated 7 May 2016, "Love Yourself '' spent its 23rd consecutive week in the Hot 100 's top ten, breaking the record for the most consecutive weeks logged in the top 10 from a song 's debut, previously set by Nicki Minaj 's "Starships '', Maroon 5 's "Sugar '' and Bieber 's both "What Do You Mean? '' and "Sorry ''. It has since been passed by The Chainsmokers 's "Closer '' (2016 -- 2017), which spent 32 weeks in the top 10. Additionally, the song spent an eleventh week at the top of the Radio Songs chart. Additionally, on the chart dated 14 May 2016, "Love Yourself '' became Bieber 's first chart - topper on the Adult Contemporary chart. The song was the most - played song in the United States in 2016, with nearly 4 billion audience impressions. During 2016, "Love Yourself '' sold 1.8 million copies in the US, thus being listed seventh on the best - selling songs of the year list. Overall, it has sold 2.7 million copies in the country. "Love Yourself '' finished at No. 1 on the Billboard Hot 100 Year - End of 2016 released in December 2016, becoming Bieber 's highest charting song on Hot 100 Year - End to date, surpassing "Boyfriend '' on the Hot 100 Year - End of 2012. This made him the youngest artist to date to receive a No. 1 single on a Hot 100 Year - End chart in Billboard 's history. In the United Kingdom, "Love Yourself '' debuted at number three on the UK Singles Chart on 19 November 2015, after the release of Purpose. The following week, it rose to number two before replacing "Sorry '' at the top of the chart on 4 December 2015. Bieber is the first artist to replace themselves at the chart 's summit since Elvis Presley in 2005. "Love Yourself '' marked Bieber 's third consecutive chart - topping song in Britain. The following week, the song stayed at the top of the chart with 114,000 combined sales and "Sorry '' stayed at number two, which made Bieber the first artist ever to knock himself off the top spot with both songs holding at one and 2 for two consecutive weeks. "Love Yourself '' and "Sorry '' remained at the same place the next week, which made Bieber the first artist ever to log four weeks at numbers one and 2 consecutively, breaking the record previously held by The Beatles, who logged three consecutive weeks at numbers one and 2 in 1967 -- 68. "Love Yourself '' was beaten to the top by NHS Choir 's "A Bridge Over You '' charity single by nearly 31,000 chart sales. However, the single rose to the number - one spot the next week, logging a fourth week at the summit and claiming the first number - one song of 2016. The following week, it remained at number one, making Bieber the first artist on the UK Singles Chart to occupy the top three spots on the chart at the same time with "Sorry '' at number two and "What Do You Mean? '' climbing one place to three. "Love Yourself '' spent six non-consecutive weeks at number one. On 4 January 2016, the Official Charts Company announced that ' Love Yourself ' has earned 719,000 combined sales. In Australia, "Love Yourself '' debuted at number three on the ARIA Singles Chart, after the release of Purpose, giving Bieber his fifth top - three single in the country. That week the singer had three songs inside the top ten: "Sorry '' (2), "Love Yourself '' (3) and "What Do You Mean? '' (7). Two weeks later, "Love Yourself '' was the most streamed track in the country and rose to number two, also it earned a gold certification for sales of over 35,000 copies. In its fourth week, the song ascended from two to one, dethroning Adele 's "Hello '' and earning a platinum certification for sales of over 70,000 copies. With that, Bieber became the only act to have two number - one songs in 2015 following previous single "What Do You Mean? '', which topped the chart during four consecutive weeks in September. The song stayed at the top of the chart the following two weeks. On its third week at number one, Bieber 's ' Sorry ' and "What Do You Mean? '' were at number two and eight, respectively. With that, Bieber became the first act to dominate the top two positions since Macklemore & Ryan Lewis did in 2013 with "Same Love '' and "Thrift Shop ''. He also was the first act to have three singles inside the chart 's top ten since 2012. The song was the first number - one song of 2016 and has spent seven consecutive weeks at number one, which places Bieber at number 8 on the list for the most accumulated weeks (11) at number one in the 2010s. Also, it is his longest - running number - one single in Australia. "Love Yourself '' also topped the charts in Sweden, Ireland, New Zealand, Netherlands and Denmark. The song 's music video was released on YouTube on November 14, 2015 along with the other videos from "Purpose: The Movement ''. The video starts with Bieber saying: "Love is n't ' do this for me and I 'm going to do this for you. ' That 's not what love is. Love is just ' I 'm gon na do this for you because I wan na do this for you. ' '' Later, the video features husband and wife dancers Keone and Mari Madrid dancing their way through their house. They are later seen dancing on their phone screens. The video ends when the wife wakes up and finds a note on her husband 's pillow saying, "Love Yourself ''. As of February 2018, the music video has received over 1.3 billion views on YouTube. Bieber first performed "Love Yourself '' on The Ellen DeGeneres Show during ' Purpose ' week release. On November 18, 2015, the song was also performed on The Today Show along with other tracks from the album. Bieber also added the song to the set list of his show on Capital FM 's Jingle Bell Ball 2015. He performed the song at the 58th Annual Grammy Awards. The singer performed an acoustic version of the track with James Bay on the guitar before performing "Sorry '' during the 2016 Brit Awards. He also performed an acoustic version of the song during the 3rd iHeartRadio Music Awards before proceeding to a full performance of "Company ''. "Love Yourself '' is also part of the set list of his Purpose World Tour. The performance has Bieber on acoustic guitar while seated on a red velvet couch down center stage. He performed the song at Radio Disney Music Awards during a special pocket show for fans, previously recorded. On June 4, 2017, Bieber performed "Love Yourself '' at the One Love Manchester benefit concert for the victims of the 2017 Manchester Arena bombing. Canadian singer Alessia Cara posted a video covering of the song on her YouTube channel on November 14, 2015. English singer Conor Maynard also posted a video covering the song on his YouTube channel on November 17, 2015. American singer Halsey also performed a cover version for Triple J 's Like a Version studio in Australia on February 4, 2016. Her version garnered attention since she replaced "love yourself '' with "fuck yourself. '' British singers Yo Preston and Kelly Kiara teamed up to write a reply to the song, with the version being called "Love Yourself vs F * ck Yourself. '' In their version, Kiara responds to Bieber 's lyrics taking about the boy 's cheating habits and overwhelming jealousy. Their version charted on the ARIA Charts, reaching the top - twenty, peaking at number 16. The song was also covered by American pop punk band Grayscale for Punk Goes Pop Vol. 7, a compilation album of covers, which was released by Fearless Records on July 14, 2017. Recording Personnel Credits adapted from the liner notes of Purpose, Def Jam Recordings. sales figures based on certification alone shipments figures based on certification alone sales + streaming figures based on certification alone

who led the 1948 boycott of european goods in gold coast

1948 Accra riots - wikipedia The Accra Riots started on 28 February 1948 in Accra (capital of present - day Ghana, which at the time was the British colony of the Gold Coast), after a protest march by unarmed ex-servicemen was broken up by police, leaving several leaders of the group dead. Among those killed was Sergeant Nii Adjetey, who has since been memorialized in Accra. In January 1948, the Ga chief Nii Kwabena Bonne II had organized a boycott of all European imports in response to their inflated prices, and the 28 February incident is considered "the straw that broke the camel 's back '', marking the beginning of the process of independence for the Gold Coast as Ghana - the first African colony to achieve this. The ex-servicemen were veterans of World War II, members of the Gold Coast Regiment, who were among the most decorated African soldiers, fighting alongside British troops in Burma. They had been promised pensions and jobs after the war; however, when they returned home, jobs were scarce and their pensions were never disbursed. Their march on 28 February 1948 was a peaceful attempt to bring a petition to the Governor of the Gold Coast requesting the dispensation of promised pensions and other compensation for their valiant efforts during the war. As the group marched toward the Governor 's residence at Christiansborg Castle, they were stopped and confronted by the colonial police, who refused to let them pass. The British Head of Police, Superintendent Imray, ordered his subordinate to shoot at the protesters, but the man shot into the air. Frustrated, Imray grabbed the gun and shot into the crowd, killing three former soldiers: Sergeant Adjetey, Corporal Attipoe and Private Odartey Lamptey. Apart from the three fatalities, a further 60 ex-servicemen were wounded. In response to this violence, the population of Accra erupted into five days of rioting, in which both Asian and European - owned stores and businesses were looted and more deaths occurred. By 1 March, the Governor had declared a state of emergency and a new Riot Act was put in place. The British colonial government set up the Watson Commission, which examined the circumstances surrounding the riots, and paved the way for constitutional changes that eventually culminated in Ghana 's independence. The immediate aftermath of the riots included the arrest on 12 March 1948 of "the Big Six '' - Kwame Nkrumah and other leading activists in the UGCC party (namely Ebenezer Ako - Adjei, Edward Akufo - Addo, J.B. Danquah, Emmanuel Obetsebi - Lamptey, and William Ofori Atta), who were held responsible for orchestrating the disturbances and were detained, being released a month later. The arrest of the leaders of the UGCC raised the profile of the party around the country and made them national heroes. The Watson Commission reported that the 1946 constitution was inappropriate from the start, because it did not address the concerns of the natives of the Gold Coast. It also recommended that the Gold Coast be allowed to draft its own constitution. A 40 - member committee was set up to draft a constitution, with six representatives of the UGCC. The governor excluded "radicals '' such as Kwame Nkrumah, among others, from the constitutional drafting committee for fear of drafting a constitution that would demand absolute independence for the colony. By 1949, Nkrumah had broken away from the UGCC to form the Convention People 's Party, (CPP), with the motto "Self - government now '', and a campaign of "Positive Action ''. Nkrumah broke away due to misunderstandings at the leadership front of the UGCC. On 6 March 1957, the country achieved its independence and was renamed Ghana, with Nkrumah as its first President.

can i enter canada with a driver's license

American entry into Canada by land - wikipedia U.S. citizens and permanent residents entering Canada by land are required to possess the requisite documentation, and to meet other criteria before they are allowed entry into Canada. Consequently, travelers must also meet the requirements for re-entering the U.S. at the end of their visit. Entry into Canada is solely determined by Canada Border Services Agency (CBSA) officials in accordance with Canadian law. Visitors are required to have the necessary travel documentation and be in good health. If asked, they must satisfy an immigration officer of ties to their country of origin, such as a job, home, and family. They must also satisfy the officer that they will leave Canada at the end of their visit. Additionally, they must have sufficient money for their stay, and all items belonging to an individual, including the vehicle the individual may be traveling in, are subject to search by the CBSA. Canadian law requires that all persons entering Canada must carry proof of both citizenship and identity. A valid U.S. passport or passport card is preferred, although a birth certificate, naturalization certificate, citizenship certificate, or another document proving U.S. nationality, together with a government - issued photo ID (such as a driver 's license) are acceptable to establish identity and nationality. However, the documents required to return to the United States can be more restrictive (for example, a birth certificate and photo ID are insufficient) -- see the section below on Return entry into the U.S. An enhanced driver 's license (EDL), currently issued by the states of Michigan, Minnesota, New York, Vermont, and Washington, is specifically designed to meet the requirements of the Western Hemisphere Travel Initiative (WHTI) to re-enter the United States via a land or water border. An EDL will also suffice as proof of identity and citizenship for American citizens entering Canada by road. NEXUS is a joint U S. / Canadian program for pre-approved, low - risk travelers and requires an extensive background check and face to face interview with border officials of both nations. FAST (Free and Secure Trade) is the equivalent for international truck drivers. Membership in either program can expedite border clearance through the use of dedicated lanes. United States permanent residents are required to show their Permanent Resident Card (green card). No passport or visa is required. Children under 16 need only present proof of U.S. citizenship. Nevertheless, it is recommended that identification for children be carried anyway. Any person under 18 traveling alone requires a letter from a parent or guardian granting permission to travel to Canada. The letter must state the traveler 's name and the duration of the trip. A divorced parent who has or shares custody of a child should carry a copy of the custody document. An adult who is not the parent or legal guardian of a child they are accompanying should have written permission from the parents or guardians to supervise the child. When traveling in a group of vehicles, parents or guardians should be in the same vehicle as their children when arriving at the border. CBSA personnel are looking for missing children and may question adults about children traveling with them. Persons driving into Canada must have their vehicle 's registration document and proof of insurance. A visa is not required for U.S. citizens to visit Canada for up to 180 days. Anyone seeking to enter Canada for any purpose besides a visit (e.g. to work, study or immigrate) must qualify for the appropriate entry status and can see the Canadian immigration website. The Canadian embassy or nearest consulate can be contacted for additional information. Some persons are inadmissible -- they are not allowed to enter Canada. As of 2011, if a person is denied entry and advised to re-enter the U.S., they are issued form IMM 1282B. This form indicates that the person is allowed to withdraw their application to enter Canada, and is allowed to leave Canada. Persons who have been denied entry and provided this form are advised by the CBSA to show this form to the U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP). There appears to be no legal precedent, however, for the traveler to voluntarily submit this form to the CBP, and doing so may cause the CBP to consider the traveler suspicious, and as a result they may subject the traveler to exhaustive questioning and search. Information about the denial of entry may nevertheless be automatically and immediately available to the CBP. Individuals may be refused entry to or removed from Canada on the following grounds: Persons can be denied entry into Canada on the basis of suspicion alone. In particular, the CBSA may deny entry to persons they doubt will be able to support themselves and their dependents, or whose willingness and means to return to the U.S. is in doubt. Certain documents, such as the following, can serve to reduce these doubts: A single criminal conviction, no matter how minor or how long ago, is grounds for exclusion from Canada. With the exception of civil traffic violations such as speeding, and some municipal ordinance infractions (which are typically not handled through the legal system) such as parking violations or littering, persons with a conviction must either have received a pardon, applied for and been accepted for rehabilitation, met the requirement to be considered deemed rehabilitated, or if ineligible for rehabilitation or deemed rehabilitated status, apply for and receive a temporary resident permit (a special type of visa) to enter Canada. Individuals with a criminal conviction that has been expunged are allowed entry into Canada. Since the criminal database might not be up - to - date, it is best to have paperwork of the expungement to guarantee entry. A letter from an attorney will suffice. To be a candidate for rehabilitation, at least five years (or more depending on the severity of the offense) since the conclusion of any sentence imposed (imprisonment, probation, fine paid, suspension of driver 's license, etc...) must have elapsed. Due to differences between legal systems, an overturned conviction or dismissed charges does not automatically overcome inadmissibility, unless the offense itself occurred in Canada. However, applicants in either of these situations can use an abbreviated process and the five - year waiting period generally does not apply. In simple cases, such as a single misdemeanor conviction, the application can typically be reviewed and approved by a Canadian Embassy, High Counsel, or CIC office. For more complicated histories or in the case of a felony conviction, the application will need to be forwarded to Ottawa for approval. Processing time in either case can take several months to a year or more, so it is advisable to begin the process of applying for rehabilitation well in advance of any planned travel to Canada. Factors considered when determining whether to approve an application for rehabilitation or not include the nature of the offense, the time elapsed and one 's behavior since the offense was committed or since the sentence. Applicants are required to obtain clearances from law enforcement in the communities in which they have lived, and are strongly urged to submit documentation showing stability and reform such as records of employment and any education or treatment programs completed, as well as character references. A person with a past conviction can also be "deemed rehabilitated '' by an immigration officer at the port of entry. Ten years must have elapsed since the conclusion of any sentence imposed and other criteria must be satisfied. Persons attempting to enter under the deemed rehabilitated system should also bring law enforcement clearances, documents showing a stable and reformed life, and character references, as the decision as to whether to admit someone as deemed rehabilitated is completely at the discretion of the border official and there is no recourse or right of appeal should deemed rehabilitated status be denied. It should be noted that anyone with a felony conviction (unless a pardon was granted) can not be deemed rehabilitated and must instead apply for rehabilitation or a temporary resident permit. Temporary resident permits are a one - time authorization for someone who is otherwise criminally inadmissible to enter Canada. Permits are rarely granted without cause, typically only in extenuating circumstances (such as a documented family emergency), on significant humanitarian grounds (such as sponsoring an inadmissible spouse or child), or for reasons of Canadian national interest, or in circumstances where the reasons for criminal inadmissibility are negligible. TRP 's are usually issued with varying restrictions and can be revoked if deemed necessary. Temporary resident permits can, however, be obtained by an individual who has a criminal record if it can be proven that he has been rehabilitated and is able to demonstrate that the need for him to enter Canada outweighs any risk that he may cause to Canada. If an individual is deemed inadmissible, members of his or her family may also be deemed inadmissible solely based on that fact. In theory, a person is not inadmissible if they were convicted of a crime before the age of 18 and were tried as a young offender or through the juvenile justice system. If the person in question could have been tried as an adult (which is frequently the case in the US, where minors as young as 8 can be tried as an adult), regardless of whether they actually were or not, they are inadmissible. Firearms are much more strictly controlled in Canada than in the U.S. Visitors bringing any firearms into Canada, or planning to borrow and use firearms while in Canada, are required to declare the firearms in writing using a Non-Resident Firearm Declaration form. Multiple firearms can be declared at the same time. Upon acceptance, this declaration serves as a temporary license and registration certificate for up to 60 days. The Non-Resident Firearm Declaration has a cost of $25 (Canadian). Visitors planning to borrow a firearm in Canada are required to obtain in advance a Temporary Firearms Borrowing License, the cost of which is $30 (Canadian), payable at the border. These forms are required to be signed before a CBSA officer at the border. Note that the forms are not available at the border itself. Details and downloadable forms are provided by the Canadian Firearms Program. Canada has three classes of firearms: non-restricted, restricted, and prohibited. Non-restricted firearms include most ordinary hunting rifles and shotguns. These can be brought temporarily into Canada for sporting or hunting use during hunting season, use in competitions, in - transit movement through Canada, or personal protection against wildlife in remote areas of Canada. Any person wishing to bring a hunting rifle into Canada is required to be at least 18 years old, and the firearm must be properly stored for transport. Restricted firearms are primarily handguns. A restricted firearm may be brought into Canada, but an Authorization to Transport permit must be obtained in advance from a Chief Firearms Officer. Prohibited firearms include fully automatic, converted automatics and assault - type weapons. Prohibited firearms are not allowed into Canada. A comprehensive guide on importation of firearms and weapons is published by the CBSA. It is recommended that the Canadian embassy or a consulate, or the Canadian Firearms Program be contacted for detailed information and instructions on temporarily importing firearms in advance of any travel. In all cases, travelers are required to declare to Canadian authorities any firearms and weapons in their possession when entering Canada. If a traveler is denied permission to bring in the firearm, there may be facilities near border crossings where firearms may be stored, pending the traveler 's return to the U.S. Canadian law requires that officials confiscate firearms and weapons from those crossing the border that deny having them in their possession. Confiscated firearms and weapons are never returned. Possession of an undeclared firearm can result in a five - year prison sentence. Food, plants, animals and related products are required to be declared when entering Canada using a declaration form. Once declared, a CBSA officer will ask questions about these items, such as their country of origin or intended use. The items may be inspected. Non-allowable items are either seized, disposed of, or ordered removed from Canada. A failure to declare can lead to confiscation of products, fines of up to $400 (Canadian) per undeclared item, as well as prosecution. Persons wishing to dispose product needing declaration can do so in product disposal bins. Electronic media of travelers entering Canada can be randomly checked. Computers and mobile phone are subject to search without a warrant at the border, and illegal content can result in the seizure of the electronic device as well as detention, arrest and prosecution of the bearer. Agents may access or otherwise view contents of online accounts and services if your electronic device contains saved passwords or access tokens. Certain weapons that may be legal to possess in the U.S. are prohibited weapons in Canada, most notably pepper spray, mace and Tasers. Under the Canadian Criminal Code, a person can face a maximum of five years in prison for unauthorized possession and five years for unauthorized importation of an illegal weapon. If, however, it can be proven that the person, despite knowing that its importation or possession is illegal, imports or possess a prohibited weapon, the maximum penalty increases to ten years imprisonment. Canadian law prohibits the unlawful importation or trafficking of controlled substances and narcotics. A number of travelers, including Americans, have been arrested for attempting to smuggle khat, an herbal stimulant from East Africa, into Canada. Smugglers risk substantial fines, a permanent bar from Canada, and imprisonment. It is recommended that prescription medicines be in their original prescription container. Suspicious looking or unidentifiable pills found during a search can be tested for narcotics. Entry into Canada can be delayed until the tests have completed. Moreover, their discovery can lead to being denied entry even if the tests passed. A person or organization may disagree with the CBSA about an assessment or decision made by the CBSA. If at the border, the Border Services Officer (BSO) or superintendent can be consulted. To address disagreements afterwards, a CBSA office can be contacted. Persons who believe that they have not received their full entitlements under Canadian law, and have been unable to reach an agreement with the CBSA on a duty or penalty matter, have the right to a formal review of their file. A formal review is conducted by appeals representatives who were not involved in the original decision, and is impartial. Appeals staff are trained to review the client 's and the CBSA 's facts and reasons. The role of the appeals representative who reviews a case is to carry out a complete, professional, and impartial review. This representative reviews the case by interpreting acts administered by the CBSA and reviewing CBSA policies, considering the appellant 's point of view; and when necessary, asking for a technical opinion from CBSA experts or seeking legal advice from the Canadian Department of Justice. The representative who reviews the case will not have been involved in the original assessment, determination, or ruling of a duty, penalty or other matter. The appellant can discuss the case with an appeals representative, and has the right to obtain certain documents related to the case. The CBSA does not charge for a review. If a person is not satisfied with the review, a further appeal can be made to the appropriate court or, to the Canadian International Trade Tribunal for relevant matters. A business visitor is someone who comes to Canada to engage in international business activities without directly entering the Canadian labor market. Such visitors may be in Canada for business meetings or site visits (to observe only), but not to work. Business visitors are required to prove that their main source of income and their main place of business are outside Canada. A visa is not required for a business visitor who is an American citizen. All business visitors are required to have a passport valid until the end of their stay, a letter of support from their parent company, a letter of invitation from the Canadian host business, a copy of any contracts or bills to support the visit, 24 - hour contact details of the business host in Canada, and proof of enough money for both the stay in Canada and the return home. Business visitors do not need a temporary work permit unless they plan on doing executive, managerial, technical or production work. Beginning in 2009, U.S. citizens aged 16 and older traveling into the U.S. from Canada by land or sea (including ferries) have had to present documents denoting citizenship and identity, which include a valid U.S. passport, U.S. passport card, Trusted Traveler Program card (NEXUS, SENTRI, Global Entry or FAST), an Enhanced Driver 's License, U.S. Military identification card when traveling on official orders, U.S. Merchant Mariner document when traveling in conjunction with official maritime business, Form I - 872 American Indian Card, or (when available) Enhanced Tribal Card. Children under age 16 (or under 19, if traveling with a school, religious group, or other youth group) need only to present a birth certificate issued by an appropriate state or local authority, or a Naturalization Certificate. Persons who do not present acceptable documents may be delayed as U.S. Customs and Border Protection officers at the port of entry attempt to verify identity and citizenship. The U.S. Customs and Border Protection has the authority from the U.S. Congress to conduct searches of persons and their baggage, cargo, and means of transportation entering the United States. Persons unhappy with their treatment can ask to have a supervisor listen to their comments, or can make a complaint online. Persons whose vehicles are searched can be asked to leave their phones in the car. There exists the potential of data on a phone or laptop being collected, rapidly copied and searched. Contrary to Fourth Amendment protections, persons including U.S. citizens can be detained until they unlock their device so it can be searched. It is recommended that an alternative phone be used and that it be reset before entering the country. Certain items such as monetary instruments over U.S. $10,000, hunting trophies, and firearms require a declaration. Prescription medicines are required to be in their original prescription container. Prohibited items include absinthe, biological materials, Cuban cigars and other products of Cuba, endangered species and products thereof; explosives, including fireworks; some fruits, vegetables, and meats; narcotics and paraphernalia, pornographic materials, seditious or treasonable matter, and switchblade knives (except by one - armed persons). Pets must be accompanied with a valid rabies vaccination certificate. Wait times for vehicles at popular border crossings can sometimes be excessive on either side of the border. It is recommended that the estimated wait time be checked in advance of travel. These are provided by both the CBSA and the CBP. Both the U.S. and Canadian governments urge frequent travelers to join the NEXUS trusted traveler program. NEXUS members receive a card that allows expedited border crossings for both private and commercial travelers through both U.S. and Canada border controls quickly.

where do agencies publish federal regulations before they are codified

Code of Federal Regulations - wikipedia The Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) is the codification of the general and permanent rules and regulations (sometimes called administrative law) published in the Federal Register by the executive departments and agencies of the federal government of the United States. The CFR is divided into 50 titles that represent broad areas subject to federal regulation. The CFR annual edition is the codification of the general and permanent rules published by the Office of the Federal Register (part of the National Archives and Records Administration) and the Government Publishing Office. In addition to this annual edition, the CFR is published in an unofficial format online on the Electronic CFR website, which is updated daily. Under the nondelegation doctrine, federal agencies are authorized by "enabling legislation '' to promulgate regulations (rulemaking). The process of rulemaking is governed by the Administrative Procedure Act (APA): generally, the APA requires a process that includes publication of the proposed rules in a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM), a period for comments and participation in the decisionmaking, and adoption and publication of the final rule, via the Federal Register. The rules and regulations are first promulgated or published in the Federal Register. The CFR is structured into 50 subject matter titles. Agencies are assigned chapters within these titles. The titles are broken down into chapters, parts, sections and paragraphs. For example, 42 CFR 260.11 (a) (1) would be read as "title 42, part 260, section 11, paragraph (a) (1). '' While new regulations are continually becoming effective, the printed volumes of the CFR are issued once each calendar year, on this schedule: The Office of the Federal Register also keeps an unofficial, online version of the CFR, the e-CFR, which is normally updated within two days after changes that have been published in the Federal Register become effective. The Parallel Table of Authorities and Rules lists rulemaking authority for regulations codified in the CFR. The CFR is divided into 50 titles that represent broad subject areas: The Federal Register Act originally provided for a complete compilation of all existing regulations promulgated prior to the first publication of the Federal Register, but was amended in 1937 to provide a codification of all regulations every five years. The first edition of the CFR was published in 1938. Beginning in 1963 for some titles and for all titles in 1967, the Office of the Federal Register began publishing yearly revisions, and beginning in 1972 published revisions in staggered quarters. On March 11, 2014, Rep. Darrell Issa introduced the Federal Register Modernization Act (H.R. 4195; 113th Congress), a bill that would revise requirements for the filing of documents with the Office of the Federal Register for inclusion in the Federal Register and for the publication of the Code of Federal Regulations to reflect the changed publication requirement in which they would be available online but would not be required to be printed. The American Association of Law Libraries (AALL) strongly opposed the bill, arguing that the bill undermines citizens ' right to be informed by making it more difficult for citizens to find their government 's regulations. According to AALL, a survey they conducted "revealed that members of the public, librarians, researchers, students, attorneys, and small business owners continue to rely on the print '' version of the Federal Register. AALL also argued that the lack of print versions of the Federal Register and CFR would mean the 15 percent of Americans who do n't use the internet would lose their access to that material. The House voted on July 14, 2014 to pass the bill 386 -- 0.

who is first on record as proposing a geocentric universe

Geocentric model - wikipedia In astronomy, the geocentric model (also known as geocentrism, or the Ptolemaic system) is a superseded description of the universe with Earth at the center. Under the geocentric model, the Sun, Moon, stars, and planets all orbited Earth. The geocentric model served as the predominant description of the cosmos in many ancient civilizations, such as those of Aristotle and Ptolemy. Two observations supported the idea that Earth was the center of the Universe. First, from the view on Earth, the Sun appears to revolve around Earth once per day. While the Moon and the planets have their own motions, they also appear to revolve around Earth about once per day. The stars appeared to be on a celestial sphere, rotating once each day along an axis through the north and south geographic poles of Earth. Second, Earth does not seem to move from the perspective of an Earth - bound observer; it appears to be solid, stable, and unmoving. Ancient Greek, ancient Roman and medieval philosophers usually combined the geocentric model with a spherical Earth. It is not the same as the older flat Earth model implied in some mythology. The ancient Jewish Babylonian uranography pictured a flat Earth with a dome - shaped, rigid canopy called the firmament placed over it (רקיע - rāqîa '). However, the ancient Greeks believed that the motions of the planets were circular and not elliptical, a view that was not challenged in Western culture until the 17th century through the synthesis of theories by Copernicus and Kepler. The astronomical predictions of Ptolemy 's geocentric model were used to prepare astrological and astronomical charts for over 1500 years. The geocentric model held sway into the early modern age, but from the late 16th century onward, it was gradually superseded by the Heliocentric model of Copernicus, Galileo and Kepler. There was much resistance to the transition between these two theories. Christian theologians were reluctant to reject a theory that agreed with Bible passages (e.g. "Sun, stand you still upon Gibeon '', Joshua 10: 12). Others felt a new, unknown theory could not subvert an accepted consensus for geocentrism. The geocentric model entered Greek astronomy and philosophy at an early point; it can be found in pre-Socratic philosophy. In the 6th century BC, Anaximander proposed a cosmology with Earth shaped like a section of a pillar (a cylinder), held aloft at the center of everything. The Sun, Moon, and planets were holes in invisible wheels surrounding Earth; through the holes, humans could see concealed fire. About the same time, Pythagoras thought that the Earth was a sphere (in accordance with observations of eclipses), but not at the center; they believed that it was in motion around an unseen fire. Later these views were combined, so most educated Greeks from the 4th century BC on thought that the Earth was a sphere at the center of the universe. In the 4th century BC, two influential Greek philosophers, Plato and his student Aristotle, wrote works based on the geocentric model. According to Plato, the Earth was a sphere, stationary at the center of the universe. The stars and planets were carried around the Earth on spheres or circles, arranged in the order (outwards from the center): Moon, Sun, Venus, Mercury, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, fixed stars, with the fixed stars located on the celestial sphere. In his "Myth of Er '', a section of the Republic, Plato describes the cosmos as the Spindle of Necessity, attended by the Sirens and turned by the three Fates. Eudoxus of Cnidus, who worked with Plato, developed a less mythical, more mathematical explanation of the planets ' motion based on Plato 's dictum stating that all phenomena in the heavens can be explained with uniform circular motion. Aristotle elaborated on Eudoxus ' system. In the fully developed Aristotelian system, the spherical Earth is at the center of the universe, and all other heavenly bodies are attached to 47 -- 55 transparent, rotating spheres surrounding the Earth, all concentric with it. (The number is so high because several spheres are needed for each planet.) These spheres, known as crystalline spheres, all moved at different uniform speeds to create the revolution of bodies around the Earth. They were composed of an incorruptible substance called aether. Aristotle believed that the moon was in the innermost sphere and therefore touches the realm of Earth, causing the dark spots (macula) and the ability to go through lunar phases. He further described his system by explaining the natural tendencies of the terrestrial elements: Earth, water, fire, air, as well as celestial aether. His system held that Earth was the heaviest element, with the strongest movement towards the center, thus water formed a layer surrounding the sphere of Earth. The tendency of air and fire, on the other hand, was to move upwards, away from the center, with fire being lighter than air. Beyond the layer of fire, were the solid spheres of aether in which the celestial bodies were embedded. They, themselves, were also entirely composed of aether. Adherence to the geocentric model stemmed largely from several important observations. First of all, if the Earth did move, then one ought to be able to observe the shifting of the fixed stars due to stellar parallax. In short, if the Earth was moving, the shapes of the constellations should change considerably over the course of a year. If they did not appear to move, the stars are either much farther away than the Sun and the planets than previously conceived, making their motion undetectable, or in reality they are not moving at all. Because the stars were actually much further away than Greek astronomers postulated (making movement extremely subtle), stellar parallax was not detected until the 19th century. Therefore, the Greeks chose the simpler of the two explanations. Another observation used in favor of the geocentric model at the time was the apparent consistency of Venus ' luminosity, which implies that it is usually about the same distance from Earth, which in turn is more consistent with geocentrism than heliocentrism. In reality, that is because the loss of light caused by Venus ' phases compensates for the increase in apparent size caused by its varying distance from Earth. Objectors to heliocentrism noted that terrestrial bodies naturally tend to come to rest as near as possible to the center of the Earth. Further barring the opportunity to fall closer the center, terrestrial bodies tend not to move unless forced by an outside object, or transformed to a different element by heat or moisture. Atmospheric explanations for many phenomena were preferred because the Eudoxan -- Aristotelian model based on perfectly concentric spheres was not intended to explain changes in the brightness of the planets due to a change in distance. Eventually, perfectly concentric spheres were abandoned as it was impossible to develop a sufficiently accurate model under that ideal. However, while providing for similar explanations, the later deferent and epicycle model was flexible enough to accommodate observations for many centuries. Although the basic tenets of Greek geocentrism were established by the time of Aristotle, the details of his system did not become standard. The Ptolemaic system, developed by the Hellenistic astronomer Claudius Ptolemaeus in the 2nd century AD finally standardised geocentrism. His main astronomical work, the Almagest, was the culmination of centuries of work by Hellenic, Hellenistic and Babylonian astronomers. For over a millennium European and Islamic astronomers assumed it was the correct cosmological model. Because of its influence, people sometimes wrongly think the Ptolemaic system is identical with the geocentric model. Ptolemy argued that the Earth was a sphere in the center of the universe, from the simple observation that half the stars were above the horizon and half were below the horizon at any time (stars on rotating stellar sphere), and the assumption that the stars were all at some modest distance from the center of the universe. If the Earth was substantially displaced from the center, this division into visible and invisible stars would not be equal. In the Ptolemaic system, each planet is moved by a system of two spheres: one called its deferent; the other, its epicycle. The deferent is a circle whose center point, called the eccentric and marked in the diagram with an X, is removed from the Earth. The original purpose of the eccentric was to account for the difference in length of the seasons (northern autumn was about five days shorter than spring during this time period) by placing the Earth away from the center of rotation of the rest of the universe. Another sphere, the epicycle, is embedded inside the deferent sphere and is represented by the smaller dotted line to the right. A given planet then moves around the epicycle at the same time the epicycle moves along the path marked by the deferent. These combined movements cause the given planet to move closer to and further away from the Earth at different points in its orbit, and explained the observation that planets slowed down, stopped, and moved backward in retrograde motion, and then again reversed to resume normal, or prograde, motion. The deferent - and - epicycle model had been used by Greek astronomers for centuries along with the idea of the eccentric (a deferent which is slightly off - center from the Earth), which was even older. In the illustration, the center of the deferent is not the Earth but the spot marked X, making it eccentric (from the Greek ἐκ ec - meaning "from, '' and κέντρον kentron meaning "center ''), from which the spot takes its name. Unfortunately, the system that was available in Ptolemy 's time did not quite match observations, even though it was considerably improved over Hipparchus ' system. Most noticeably the size of a planet 's retrograde loop (especially that of Mars) would be smaller, and sometimes larger, than expected, resulting in positional errors of as much as 30 degrees. To alleviate the problem, Ptolemy developed the equant. The equant was a point near the center of a planet 's orbit which, if you were to stand there and watch, the center of the planet 's epicycle would always appear to move at uniform speed; all other locations would see non-uniform speed, like on the Earth. By using an equant, Ptolemy claimed to keep motion which was uniform and circular, although it departed from the Platonic ideal of uniform circular motion. The resultant system, which eventually came to be widely accepted in the west, seems unwieldy to modern astronomers; each planet required an epicycle revolving on a deferent, offset by an equant which was different for each planet. It predicted various celestial motions, including the beginning and end of retrograde motion, to within a maximum error of 10 degrees, considerably better than without the equant. The model with epicycles is in fact a very good model of an elliptical orbit with low eccentricity. The well known ellipse shape does not appear to a noticeable extent when the eccentricity is less than 5 %, but the offset distance of the "center '' (in fact the focus occupied by the sun) is very noticeable even with low eccentricities as possessed by the planets. To summarize, Ptolemy devised a system that was compatible with Aristotelian philosophy and managed to track actual observations and predict future movement mostly to within the limits of the next 1000 years of observations. The observed motions and his mechanisms for explaining them include: The geocentric model was eventually replaced by the heliocentric model. The earliest heliocentric model, Copernican heliocentrism, could remove Ptolemy 's epicycles because the retrograde motion could be seen to be the result of the combination of Earth and planet movement and speeds. Copernicus felt strongly that equants were a violation of Aristotelian purity, and proved that replacement of the equant with a pair of new epicycles was entirely equivalent. Astronomers often continued using the equants instead of the epicycles because the former was easier to calculate, and gave the same result. It has been determined, in fact, that the Copernican, Ptolemaic and even the Tychonic models provided identical results to identical inputs. They are computationally equivalent. It was n't until Kepler demonstrated a physical observation that could show that the physical sun is directly involved in determining an orbit that a new model was required. The Ptolemaic order of spheres from Earth outward is: Ptolemy did not invent or work out this order, which aligns with the ancient Seven Heavens religious cosmology common to the major Eurasian religious traditions. It also follows the decreasing orbital periods of the moon, sun, planets and stars. Muslim astronomers generally accepted the Ptolemaic system and the geocentric model, but by the 10th century texts appeared regularly whose subject matter was doubts concerning Ptolemy (shukūk). Several Muslim scholars questioned the Earth 's apparent immobility and centrality within the universe. Some Muslim astronomers believed that the Earth rotates around its axis, such as Abu Sa'id al - Sijzi (d. circa 1020). According to al - Biruni, Sijzi invented an astrolabe called al - zūraqī based on a belief held by some of his contemporaries "that the motion we see is due to the Earth 's movement and not to that of the sky. '' The prevalence of this view is further confirmed by a reference from the 13th century which states: According to the geometers (or engineers) (muhandisīn), the Earth is in constant circular motion, and what appears to be the motion of the heavens is actually due to the motion of the Earth and not the stars. Early in the 11th century Alhazen wrote a scathing critique of Ptolemy 's model in his Doubts on Ptolemy (c. 1028), which some have interpreted to imply he was criticizing Ptolemy 's geocentrism, but most agree that he was actually criticizing the details of Ptolemy 's model rather than his geocentrism. In the 12th century, Arzachel departed from the ancient Greek idea of uniform circular motions by hypothesizing that the planet Mercury moves in an elliptic orbit, while Alpetragius proposed a planetary model that abandoned the equant, epicycle and eccentric mechanisms, though this resulted in a system that was mathematically less accurate. Alpetragius also declared the Ptolemaic system as an imaginary model that was successful at predicting planetary positions but not real or physical. His alternative system spread through most of Europe during the 13th century. Fakhr al - Din al - Razi (1149 -- 1209), in dealing with his conception of physics and the physical world in his Matalib, rejects the Aristotelian and Avicennian notion of the Earth 's centrality within the universe, but instead argues that there are "a thousand thousand worlds (alfa alfi ' awalim) beyond this world such that each one of those worlds be bigger and more massive than this world as well as having the like of what this world has. '' To support his theological argument, he cites the Qur'anic verse, "All praise belongs to God, Lord of the Worlds, '' emphasizing the term "Worlds. '' The "Maragha Revolution '' refers to the Maragha school 's revolution against Ptolemaic astronomy. The "Maragha school '' was an astronomical tradition beginning in the Maragha observatory and continuing with astronomers from the Damascus mosque and Samarkand observatory. Like their Andalusian predecessors, the Maragha astronomers attempted to solve the equant problem (the circle around whose circumference a planet or the center of an epicycle was conceived to move uniformly) and produce alternative configurations to the Ptolemaic model without abandoning geocentrism. They were more successful than their Andalusian predecessors in producing non-Ptolemaic configurations which eliminated the equant and eccentrics, were more accurate than the Ptolemaic model in numerically predicting planetary positions, and were in better agreement with empirical observations. The most important of the Maragha astronomers included Mo'ayyeduddin Urdi (d. 1266), Nasīr al - Dīn al - Tūsī (1201 -- 1274), Qutb al - Din al - Shirazi (1236 -- 1311), Ibn al - Shatir (1304 -- 1375), Ali Qushji (c. 1474), Al - Birjandi (d. 1525), and Shams al - Din al - Khafri (d. 1550). Ibn al - Shatir, the Damascene astronomer (1304 -- 1375 AD) working at the Umayyad Mosque, wrote a major book entitled Kitab Nihayat al - Sul fi Tashih al - Usul (A Final Inquiry Concerning the Rectification of Planetary Theory) on a theory which departs largely from the Ptolemaic system known at that time. In his book, Ibn al - Shatir, an Arab astronomer of the fourteenth century, E.S. Kennedy wrote "what is of most interest, however, is that Ibn al - Shatir 's lunar theory, except for trivial differences in parameters, is identical with that of Copernicus (1473 -- 1543 AD). '' The discovery that the models of Ibn al - Shatir are mathematically identical to those of Copernicus suggests the possible transmission of these models to Europe. At the Maragha and Samarkand observatories, the Earth 's rotation was discussed by al - Tusi and Ali Qushji (b. 1403); the arguments and evidence they used resemble those used by Copernicus to support the Earth 's motion. However, the Maragha school never made the paradigm shift to heliocentrism. The influence of the Maragha school on Copernicus remains speculative, since there is no documentary evidence to prove it. The possibility that Copernicus independently developed the Tusi couple remains open, since no researcher has yet demonstrated that he knew about Tusi 's work or that of the Maragha school. Not all Greeks agreed with the geocentric model. The Pythagorean system has already been mentioned; some Pythagoreans believed the Earth to be one of several planets going around a central fire. Hicetas and Ecphantus, two Pythagoreans of the 5th century BC, and Heraclides Ponticus in the 4th century BC, believed that the Earth rotated on its axis but remained at the center of the universe. Such a system still qualifies as geocentric. It was revived in the Middle Ages by Jean Buridan. Heraclides Ponticus was once thought to have proposed that both Venus and Mercury went around the Sun rather than the Earth, but this is no longer accepted. Martianus Capella definitely put Mercury and Venus in orbit around the Sun. Aristarchus of Samos was the most radical. He wrote a work, which has not survived, on heliocentrism, saying that the Sun was at the center of the universe, while the Earth and other planets revolved around it. His theory was not popular, and he had one named follower, Seleucus of Seleucia. In 1543, the geocentric system met its first serious challenge with the publication of Copernicus ' De revolutionibus orbium coelestium (On the Revolutions of the Heavenly Spheres), which posited that the Earth and the other planets instead revolved around the Sun. The geocentric system was still held for many years afterwards, as at the time the Copernican system did not offer better predictions than the geocentric system, and it posed problems for both natural philosophy and scripture. The Copernican system was no more accurate than Ptolemy 's system, because it still used circular orbits. This was not altered until Johannes Kepler postulated that they were elliptical (Kepler 's first law of planetary motion). With the invention of the telescope in 1609, observations made by Galileo Galilei (such as that Jupiter has moons) called into question some of the tenets of geocentrism but did not seriously threaten it. Because he observed dark "spots '' on the moon, craters, he remarked that the moon was not a perfect celestial body as had been previously conceived. This was the first time someone could see imperfections on a celestial body that was supposed to be composed of perfect aether. As such, because the moon 's imperfections could now be related to those seen on Earth, one could argue that neither was unique: rather, they were both just celestial bodies made from Earth - like material. Galileo could also see the moons of Jupiter, which he dedicated to Cosimo II de ' Medici, and stated that they orbited around Jupiter, not Earth. This was a significant claim as it would mean not only that not everything revolved around Earth as stated in the Ptolemaic model, but also showed a secondary celestial body could orbit a moving celestial body, strengthening the heliocentric argument that a moving Earth could retain the Moon. Galileo 's observations were verified by other astronomers of the time period who quickly adopted use of the telescope, including Christoph Scheiner, Johannes Kepler, and Giovan Paulo Lembo. In December 1610, Galileo Galilei used his telescope to observe that Venus showed all phases, just like the Moon. He thought that while this observation was incompatible with the Ptolemaic system, it was a natural consequence of the heliocentric system. However, Ptolemy placed Venus ' deferent and epicycle entirely inside the sphere of the Sun (between the Sun and Mercury), but this was arbitrary; he could just as easily have swapped Venus and Mercury and put them on the other side of the Sun, or made any other arrangement of Venus and Mercury, as long as they were always near a line running from the Earth through the Sun, such as placing the center of the Venus epicycle near the Sun. In this case, if the Sun is the source of all the light, under the Ptolemaic system: If Venus is between Earth and the Sun, the phase of Venus must always be crescent or all dark. If Venus is beyond the Sun, the phase of Venus must always be gibbous or full. But Galileo saw Venus at first small and full, and later large and crescent. This showed that with a Ptolemaic cosmology, the Venus epicycle can be neither completely inside nor completely outside of the orbit of the Sun. As a result, Ptolemaics abandoned the idea that the epicycle of Venus was completely inside the Sun, and later 17th century competition between astronomical cosmologies focused on variations of Tycho Brahe 's Tychonic system (in which the Earth was still at the center of the universe, and around it revolved the Sun, but all other planets revolved around the Sun in one massive set of epicycles), or variations on the Copernican system. Johannes Kepler analysed Tycho Brahe 's famously accurate observations and afterwards constructed his three laws in 1609 and 1619, based on a heliocentric view where the planets move in elliptical paths. Using these laws, he was the first astronomer to successfully predict a transit of Venus (for the year 1631). The change from circular orbits to elliptical planetary paths dramatically improved the accuracy of celestial observations and predictions. Because the heliocentric model by Copernicus was no more accurate than Ptolemy 's system, new observations were needed to persuade those who still held on to the geocentric model. However, Kepler 's laws based on Brahe 's data became a problem which geocentrists could not easily overcome. In 1687, Isaac Newton stated the law of universal gravitation, described earlier as a hypothesis by Robert Hooke and others. His main achievement was to mathematically derive Kepler 's laws of planetary motion from the law of gravitation, thus helping to prove the latter. This introduced gravitation as the force that both kept the Earth and planets moving through the heavens and also kept the air from flying away. The theory of gravity allowed scientists to construct a plausible heliocentric model for the solar system quickly. In his Principia, Newton explained his system of how gravity, previously thought of as an occult force (that is, an unexplained force), directed the movements of celestial bodies, and kept our solar system in its working order. His descriptions of centripetal force were a breakthrough in scientific thought which used the newly developed differential calculus, and finally replaced the previous schools of scientific thought, i.e. those of Aristotle and Ptolemy. However, the process was gradual. Several empirical tests of Newton 's theory, explaining the longer period of oscillation of a pendulum at the equator and the differing size of a degree of latitude, gradually became available over the period 1673 -- 1738. In addition, stellar aberration was observed by Robert Hooke in 1674 and tested in a series of observations by Jean Picard over ten years finishing in 1680. However, it was not explained until 1729 when James Bradley provided an approximate explanation in terms of the Earth 's revolution about the sun. In 1838, astronomer Friedrich Wilhelm Bessel measured the parallax of the star 61 Cygni successfully, and disproved Ptolemy 's claim that parallax motion did not exist. This finally confirmed the assumptions made by Copernicus, provided accurate, dependable scientific observations, and displayed truly how far away stars were from Earth. A geocentric frame is useful for many everyday activities and most laboratory experiments, but is a less appropriate choice for solar - system mechanics and space travel. While a heliocentric frame is most useful in those cases, galactic and extra-galactic astronomy is easier if the sun is treated as neither stationary nor the center of the universe, but rotating around the center of our galaxy, and in turn our galaxy is also not at rest in the cosmic background. Albert Einstein and Leopold Infeld wrote in The Evolution of Physics (1938): "Can we formulate physical laws so that they are valid for all CS (= coordinate systems), not only those moving uniformly, but also those moving quite arbitrarily, relative to each other? If this can be done, our difficulties will be over. We shall then be able to apply the laws of nature to any CS. The struggle, so violent in the early days of science, between the views of Ptolemy and Copernicus would then be quite meaningless. Either CS could be used with equal justification. The two sentences, ' the sun is at rest and the Earth moves ', or ' the sun moves and the Earth is at rest ', would simply mean two different conventions concerning two different CS. Could we build a real relativistic physics valid in all CS; a physics in which there would be no place for absolute, but only for relative, motion? This is indeed possible! '' Despite giving more respectability to the geocentric view than Newtonian physics does, relativity is not geocentric. Rather, relativity states that the Sun, the Earth, the Moon, Jupiter, or any other point for that matter could be chosen as a center of the solar system with equal validity. For this reason Robert Sungenis, a modern geocentrist, spent much of Volume I of his book Galileo Was Wrong: The Church Was Right critiquing and trying to unravel the Special and General theories of Relativity. Relativity agrees with Newtonian predictions that regardless of whether the Sun or the Earth are chosen arbitrarily as the center of the coordinate system describing the solar system, the paths of the planets form (roughly) ellipses with respect to the Sun, not the Earth. With respect to the average reference frame of the fixed stars, the planets do indeed move around the Sun, which due to its much larger mass, moves far less than its own diameter and the gravity of which is dominant in determining the orbits of the planets. (In other words, the center of mass of the solar system is near the center of the Sun.) The Earth and Moon are much closer to being a binary planet; the center of mass around which they both rotate is still inside the Earth, but is about 4,624 km (2,873 mi) or 72.6 % of the Earth 's radius away from the centre of the Earth (thus closer to the surface than the center). What the principle of relativity points out is that correct mathematical calculations can be made regardless of the reference frame chosen, and these will all agree with each other as to the predictions of actual motions of bodies with respect to each other. It is not necessary to choose the object in the solar system with the largest gravitational field as the center of the coordinate system in order to predict the motions of planetary bodies, though doing so may make calculations easier to perform or interpret. A geocentric coordinate system can be more convenient when dealing only with bodies mostly influenced by the gravity of the Earth (such as artificial satellites and the Moon), or when calculating what the sky will look like when viewed from Earth (as opposed to an imaginary observer looking down on the entire solar system, where a different coordinate system might be more convenient). The Ptolemaic model of the solar system held sway into the early modern age; from the late 16th century onward it was gradually replaced as the consensus description by the heliocentric model. Geocentrism as a separate religious belief, however, never completely died out. In the United States between 1870 and 1920, for example, various members of the Lutheran Church -- Missouri Synod published articles disparaging Copernican astronomy, and geocentrism was widely taught within the synod during that period. However, in the 1902 Theological Quarterly, A.L. Graebner claimed that the synod had no doctrinal position on geocentrism, heliocentrism, or any scientific model, unless it were to contradict Scripture. He stated that any possible declarations of geocentrists within the synod did not set the position of the church body as a whole. Articles arguing that geocentrism was the biblical perspective appeared in some early creation science newsletters pointing to some passages in the Bible, which, when taken literally, indicate that the daily apparent motions of the Sun and the Moon are due to their actual motions around the Earth rather than due to the rotation of the Earth about its axis. For example, in Joshua 10: 12, the Sun and Moon are said to stop in the sky, and in Psalms the world is described as immobile. Psalms 93: 1 says in part "the world is established, firm and secure ''.) Contemporary advocates for such religious beliefs include Robert Sungenis (president of Bellarmine Theological Forum and author of the 2006 book Galileo Was Wrong). These people subscribe to the view that a plain reading of the Bible contains an accurate account of the manner in which the universe was created and requires a geocentric worldview. Modern geocentrism is pseudoscientific, and most contemporary creationist organizations reject such perspectives. After all, Copernicanism was the first major victory of science over religion, so it 's inevitable that some folks would think that everything that 's wrong with the world began there. Morris Berman quotes a 2006 survey that show currently some 20 % of the U.S. population believe that the sun goes around the Earth (geocentricism) rather than the Earth goes around the sun (heliocentricism), while a further 9 % claimed not to know. Polls conducted by Gallup in the 1990s found that 16 % of Germans, 18 % of Americans and 19 % of Britons hold that the Sun revolves around the Earth. A study conducted in 2005 by Jon D. Miller of Northwestern University, an expert in the public understanding of science and technology, found that about 20 %, or one in five, of American adults believe that the Sun orbits the Earth. According to 2011 VTSIOM poll, 32 % of Russians believe that the Sun orbits the Earth. The famous Galileo affair pitted the geocentric model against the claims of Galileo. In regards to the theological basis for such an argument, two Popes addressed the question of whether the use of phenomenological language would compel one to admit an error in Scripture. Both taught that it would not. Pope Leo XIII (1878 -- 1903) wrote: we have to contend against those who, making an evil use of physical science, minutely scrutinize the Sacred Book in order to detect the writers in a mistake, and to take occasion to vilify its contents... There can never, indeed, be any real discrepancy between the theologian and the physicist, as long as each confines himself within his own lines, and both are careful, as St. Augustine warns us, "not to make rash assertions, or to assert what is not known as known ''. If dissension should arise between them, here is the rule also laid down by St. Augustine, for the theologian: "Whatever they can really demonstrate to be true of physical nature, we must show to be capable of reconciliation with our Scriptures; and whatever they assert in their treatises which is contrary to these Scriptures of ours, that is to Catholic faith, we must either prove it as well as we can to be entirely false, or at all events we must, without the smallest hesitation, believe it to be so. '' To understand how just is the rule here formulated we must remember, first, that the sacred writers, or to speak more accurately, the Holy Ghost "Who spoke by them, did not intend to teach men these things (that is to say, the essential nature of the things of the visible universe), things in no way profitable unto salvation. '' Hence they did not seek to penetrate the secrets of nature, but rather described and dealt with things in more or less figurative language, or in terms which were commonly used at the time, and which in many instances are in daily use at this day, even by the most eminent men of science. Ordinary speech primarily and properly describes what comes under the senses; and somewhat in the same way the sacred writers - as the Angelic Doctor also reminds us -- "went by what sensibly appeared '', or put down what God, speaking to men, signified, in the way men could understand and were accustomed to. Maurice Finocchiaro, author of a book on the Galileo affair, notes that this is "a view of the relationship between biblical interpretation and scientific investigation that corresponds to the one advanced by Galileo in the "Letter to the Grand Duchess Christina ''. Pope Pius XII (1939 -- 1958) repeated his predecessor 's teaching: The first and greatest care of Leo XIII was to set forth the teaching on the truth of the Sacred Books and to defend it from attack. Hence with grave words did he proclaim that there is no error whatsoever if the sacred writer, speaking of things of the physical order "went by what sensibly appeared '' as the Angelic Doctor says, speaking either "in figurative language, or in terms which were commonly used at the time, and which in many instances are in daily use at this day, even among the most eminent men of science ''. For "the sacred writers, or to speak more accurately -- the words are St. Augustine 's -- the Holy Spirit, Who spoke by them, did not intend to teach men these things -- that is the essential nature of the things of the universe -- things in no way profitable to salvation ''; which principle "will apply to cognate sciences, and especially to history '', that is, by refuting, "in a somewhat similar way the fallacies of the adversaries and defending the historical truth of Sacred Scripture from their attacks ''. In 1664, Pope Alexander VII republished the Index Librorum Prohibitorum (List of Prohibited Books) and attached the various decrees connected with those books, including those concerned with heliocentrism. He stated in a Papal Bull that his purpose in doing so was that "the succession of things done from the beginning might be made known (quo rei ab initio gestae series innotescat) ''. The position of the curia evolved slowly over the centuries towards permitting the heliocentric view. In 1757, during the papacy of Benedict XIV, the Congregation of the Index withdrew the decree which prohibited all books teaching the Earth 's motion, although the Dialogue and a few other books continued to be explicitly included. In 1820, the Congregation of the Holy Office, with the pope 's approval, decreed that Catholic astronomer Giuseppe Settele was allowed to treat the Earth 's motion as an established fact and removed any obstacle for Catholics to hold to the motion of the Earth: The Assessor of the Holy Office has referred the request of Giuseppe Settele, Professor of Optics and Astronomy at La Sapienza University, regarding permission to publish his work Elements of Astronomy in which he espouses the common opinion of the astronomers of our time regarding the Earth 's daily and yearly motions, to His Holiness through Divine Providence, Pope Pius VII. Previously, His Holiness had referred this request to the Supreme Sacred Congregation and concurrently to the consideration of the Most Eminent and Most Reverend General Cardinal Inquisitor. His Holiness has decreed that no obstacles exist for those who sustain Copernicus ' affirmation regarding the Earth 's movement in the manner in which it is affirmed today, even by Catholic authors. He has, moreover, suggested the insertion of several notations into this work, aimed at demonstrating that the above mentioned affirmation (of Copernicus), as it has come to be understood, does not present any difficulties; difficulties that existed in times past, prior to the subsequent astronomical observations that have now occurred. (Pope Pius VII) has also recommended that the implementation (of these decisions) be given to the Cardinal Secretary of the Supreme Sacred Congregation and Master of the Sacred Apostolic Palace. He is now appointed the task of bringing to an end any concerns and criticisms regarding the printing of this book, and, at the same time, ensuring that in the future, regarding the publication of such works, permission is sought from the Cardinal Vicar whose signature will not be given without the authorization of the Superior of his Order. In 1822, the Congregation of the Holy Office removed the prohibition on the publication of books treating of the Earth 's motion in accordance with modern astronomy and Pope Pius VII ratified the decision: The most excellent (cardinals) have decreed that there must be no denial, by the present or by future Masters of the Sacred Apostolic Palace, of permission to print and to publish works which treat of the mobility of the Earth and of the immobility of the sun, according to the common opinion of modern astronomers, as long as there are no other contrary indications, on the basis of the decrees of the Sacred Congregation of the Index of 1757 and of this Supreme (Holy Office) of 1820; and that those who would show themselves to be reluctant or would disobey, should be forced under punishments at the choice of (this) Sacred Congregation, with derogation of (their) claimed privileges, where necessary. The 1835 edition of the Catholic Index of Prohibited Books for the first time omits the Dialogue from the list. In his 1921 papal encyclical, In praeclara summorum, Pope Benedict XV stated that, "though this Earth on which we live may not be the center of the universe as at one time was thought, it was the scene of the original happiness of our first ancestors, witness of their unhappy fall, as too of the Redemption of mankind through the Passion and Death of Jesus Christ ''. In 1965 the Second Vatican Council stated that, "Consequently, we can not but deplore certain habits of mind, which are sometimes found too among Christians, which do not sufficiently attend to the rightful independence of science and which, from the arguments and controversies they spark, lead many minds to conclude that faith and science are mutually opposed. '' The footnote on this statement is to Msgr. Pio Paschini 's, Vita e opere di Galileo Galilei, 2 volumes, Vatican Press (1964). Pope John Paul II regretted the treatment which Galileo received, in a speech to the Pontifical Academy of Sciences in 1992. The Pope declared the incident to be based on a "tragic mutual miscomprehension ''. He further stated: Cardinal Poupard has also reminded us that the sentence of 1633 was not irreformable, and that the debate which had not ceased to evolve thereafter, was closed in 1820 with the imprimatur given to the work of Canon Settele... The error of the theologians of the time, when they maintained the centrality of the Earth, was to think that our understanding of the physical world 's structure was, in some way, imposed by the literal sense of Sacred Scripture. Let us recall the celebrated saying attributed to Baronius "Spiritui Sancto mentem fuisse nos docere quomodo ad coelum eatur, non quomodo coelum gradiatur ''. In fact, the Bible does not concern itself with the details of the physical world, the understanding of which is the competence of human experience and reasoning. There exist two realms of knowledge, one which has its source in Revelation and one which reason can discover by its own power. To the latter belong especially the experimental sciences and philosophy. The distinction between the two realms of knowledge ought not to be understood as opposition. A few Orthodox Jewish leaders maintain a geocentric model of the universe based on the aforementioned Biblical verses and an interpretation of Maimonides to the effect that he ruled that the Earth is orbited by the sun. The Lubavitcher Rebbe also explained that geocentrism is defensible based on the theory of Relativity, which establishes that "when two bodies in space are in motion relative to one another,... science declares with absolute certainty that from the scientific point of view both possibilities are equally valid, namely that the Earth revolves around the sun, or the sun revolves around the Earth '', although he also went on to refer to people who believed in geocentrism as "remaining in the world of Copernicus ''. The Zohar implies: "The entire world and those upon it, spin round in a circle like a ball '', both those at the bottom of the ball and those at the top. All God 's creatures, wherever they live on the different parts of the ball, look different (in color, in their features) because the air is different in each place, but they stand erect as all other human beings. Therefore, there are places in the world where, when some have light, others have darkness; when some have day, others have night. While geocentrism is important in Maimonides ' calendar calculations, the great majority of Jewish religious scholars, who accept the divinity of the Bible and accept many of his rulings as legally binding, do not believe that the Bible or Maimonides command a belief in geocentrism. Prominent cases of modern geocentrism in Islam are very isolated. Very few individuals promoted a geocentric view of the universe. One of them was Ahmed Raza Khan Barelvi, a Sunni scholar of Indian subcontinent. He rejected the heliocentric model and wrote a book that explains the movement of the sun, moon and other planets around the Earth. The Grand Mufti of Saudi Arabia from 1993 to 1999, Ibn Baz also promoted the geocentric view between 1966 and 1985. The geocentric (Ptolemaic) model of the solar system is still of interest to planetarium makers, as, for technical reasons, a Ptolemaic - type motion for the planet light apparatus has some advantages over a Copernican - type motion. The celestial sphere, still used for teaching purposes and sometimes for navigation, is also based on a geocentric system which in effect ignores parallax. However this effect is negligible at the scale of accuracy that applies to a planetarium. All Islamic astronomers from Thabit ibn Qurra in the ninth century to Ibn al - Shatir in the fourteenth, and all natural philosophers from al - Kindi to Averroes and later, are known to have accepted... the Greek picture of the world as consisting of two spheres of which one, the celestial sphere... concentrically envelops the other.

what happens after infinity wars in the comics

The Infinity War - wikipedia The Infinity War is a six - issue comic book limited series published by Marvel Comics in 1992. The series was written by Jim Starlin and penciled by Ron Lim, Ian Laughlin, Al Milgrom, Jack Morelli and Christie Scheele. The storyline is a direct sequel to the 1991 "Infinity Gauntlet '' crossover, and was followed by The Infinity Crusade in 1993. The story had additional tie - ins including Alpha Flight # 110 - 112, Captain America # 408, Daredevil # 310, Deathlok # 16, Doctor Strange: Sorcerer Supreme # 42 - 47, Fantastic Four # 366 - 370, Guardians of the Galaxy vol 1 # 27 - 29, Marc Spector: Moon Knight # 41 - 44, Marvel Comics Presents # 108 - 111, New Warriors # 27, Nomad vol. 2, # 7, Quasar # 38 - 40, Silver Sable and The Wild Pack # 4 - 5, Silver Surfer vol. 3, # 67 - 69, Sleepwalker # 18, Spider - Man # 24, and Wonder Man # 13 - 14. All of these were published between July and November 1992. What The --?! # 20 featured a parody story about various comedic superheroes struggle against the "Infinity Wart ''. When hero Adam Warlock takes possession of the artifact known as the Infinity Gauntlet, he expels the good and evil aspects of his being to become a totally logical being, who can therefore use the Gauntlet wisely. This act recreates his "evil '' persona and old foe the Magus, who desires universal conquest and revenge against Warlock and the Titan Thanos. (Meanwhile, the effectively emotionless Adam is brought before a "jury '' of the cosmic powers and voluntarily surrenders his godhood once he is found to be "guilty '' of being unworthy.) The Magus collects five cosmic containment units (another name for the Cosmic Cubes), and with the power gained incapacitates the cosmic entity Eternity; creates an interdimensional realm and an army of doppelgängers -- evil "mirror '' images of Earth 's superheroes. After investigating the energy of the containment units, Thanos discovers the Magus and retreats to warn Warlock. Galactus and several of Earth 's heroes also investigate and then attempt to revive Eternity, as the entity will be required to petition the Living Tribunal, who has decreed that the Infinity Gems can no longer be used in unison in the Earth - 616 universe. The rationale is that if the Gauntlet can be reactivated, then the Magus can be removed from existence. The Magus sends the doppelgängers to Earth to distract the heroes, and the evil version of Mister Fantastic detonates a gamma bomb when the heroes assemble at Four Freedoms Plaza. However, the Invisible Woman contains the blast while Thunder God Thor directs the radiation into space, and a surprise attack by the Magus and the doppelgänger of Thanos has the heroes believing the two characters are now allied. The story climaxes at the Magus ' base: a group of heroes free those who were replaced by doppelgängers; cosmic adventurer Quasar arrives with the Ultimate Nullifier (with Thanos goading Quasar to use it against the Magus knowing that Quasar would also be destroyed) and villains Kang the Conqueror and Doctor Doom appear, hoping to harness the source of the powerful energies detected. Warlock and the still inactive Gauntlet are captured by the Magus, and both attacked by Doom and Kang. Warlock is defeated and the Magus is severely weakened in the battle and attempts to use the containment units but discovers they have been stolen. Doom betrays and stops Kang, and then demands the Gauntlet from the Magus. Eternity, however, has just been revived and has requested the Gauntlet be reactivated, which the Living Tribunal agrees to. An apparently omnipotent Magus easily defeats Doom and dissolves Quasar, who arrives with the Ultimate Nullifier. Thanos defeats his doppelgänger and distracts the Magus, allowing Warlock to grapple with the villain for the Gauntlet. Warlock releases from the Gauntlet a being that is a composite of the entity Eternity and his twin, Infinity. The being incapacitates the Magus, allowing Warlock to absorb the Magus into the Soul Gem. The experience places Warlock in a coma. Thanos reveals to the assembled heroes that the Magus was tricked and never gained omnipotence as the Reality Gem on the Gauntlet -- which Thanos is revealed to be the secret guardian of -- was a convincing fake. The heroes return to Earth and the final page of the last issue reveals that the containment units have been stolen by Warlock 's "good '' persona, the Goddess. In addition to these developments, Eternity -- who is apparently ' deputized ' by the Living Tribunal to make such a decree -- thereafter declares that the Gems on the Gauntlet will never be able to be used again as a single unit, no matter what future crisis befalls the universe. The full storyline was published as The Infinity War, a 400 - page trade paperback that collects The Infinity War limited series, Warlock and the Infinity Watch # 7 - 10, and Marvel Comics Presents # 108 - 111 (April 2006, ISBN 0 - 7851 - 2105 - 6) In October 2014, Marvel announced a two - part film titled Avengers: Infinity War written by Christopher Markus & Stephen McFeely and directed by the Russo brothers. On August 1, 2016, Marvel made an interim announcement that Infinity War might be one film, which it later dropped in preference to its original two - part film plans. The Russos added that the movie will not be a literal adaptation of the story, but will borrow elements. The first part, Avengers: Infinity War, was released on April 27, 2018.

i wish i may i wish i might wish upon a star tonight

Star Light, Star Bright - wikipedia "Star Light, Star Bright '' is an English language nursery rhyme. It has a Roud Folk Song Index number of 16339. The lyrics usually conform to the following: The superstition of hoping for wishes granted when seeing a shooting or falling star may date back to the ancient world. Wishing on the first star seen may also predate this rhyme, which first began to be recorded in late nineteenth - century America. "Star Light, Star Bright '' is also found in Madonna 's 1983 single Lucky Star. The song and tradition seem to have reached Britain by the early twentieth century and have since spread worldwide.

width of hash marks on a football field

Hash marks - Wikipedia Hash marks are short lines, running perpendicular to sidelines or sideboards, used to mark locations, primarily in sports. In ice hockey, the hash marks are two pairs of parallel lines on either side of the face - off circles in both ends of the rink. Players must remain on their team 's side of the hash mark nearest their own goal during a face - off until the puck hits the ice. In US football and Canadian football, the hash marks are two rows of lines near the middle of the field that are perpendicular to the side lines. These small lines (about 1 yard long) are used to mark the 1 - yard sections between each of the 5 - yard lines, which go from sideline to sideline. All plays start with the ball on or between the hash marks. That is, if the ball is downed in between a hash mark and the nearest sideline, it must be placed on that hash mark for the next play. The width of a standard football field in the United States is 160 feet (531⁄3 yards). Prior to the adoption of hash marks (which were first utilized at the first NFL playoff game in 1932), all plays began where the ball was declared dead, including extra point attempts. The hashmarks in that indoor 1932 playoff game were originally 10 yards from the sideline, and that width was adopted by the NFL for the 1933 season. It was increased to 15 yards (70 feet apart) in 1935, 20 yards (40 ft apart) in 1945, and to the current 23 yards, 1 foot, 9 inches (181⁄2 ft apart) in 1972. In most forms of professional football in the U.S., including the National Football League and most forms of indoor football, the hash marks are in line with the goal posts, both being 18 feet 6 inches apart in the NFL and between 9 and 10 feet in indoor football. High school football, college football and Canadian football have hash marks significantly wider than the goal posts. The college football standard, which was the previous standard in the NFL (1945 -- 1971), is 40 feet apart, (20 yards from the sidelines) introduced in 1993. Previously, the college width was the same as the high school standard, at one - third of the width of the field (531⁄3 feet). The Canadian standard is 51 feet in width, 24 yards from each sideline. A Canadian football field width is 65 yards (195 feet), 35 feet wider than those in the United States.

how far are we from grand rapids michigan

US route 131 - wikipedia US Highway 131 (US 131) is a north -- south United States Highway, of which all but 0.64 of its 269.96 miles (1.03 of 434.46 km) are within the state of Michigan. The highway starts in rural Indiana south of the state line as a state road connection to the Indiana Toll Road. As the road crosses into Michigan it becomes a state trunkline highway that connects to the metropolitan areas of Kalamazoo and Grand Rapids before continuing north to its terminus at Petoskey. US 131 runs as a freeway from south of Portage through to Manton in the north. Part of this freeway runs concurrently with Interstate 296 (I - 296) as an unsigned designation through Grand Rapids. US 131 forms an important corridor along the western side of the Lower Peninsula of Michigan, running through rural farm and forest lands as well as urban cityscapes. Various names have been applied to the roadway over the years. The oldest, the Mackinaw Trail, originated from an Indian trail in the area while other names honored politicians. An attempt to dedicate the highway to poet James Whitcomb Riley failed to gain official support in Michigan. The first state highways along the US 131 corridor were designated as early as 1919. When the US Highway System was formed on November 11, 1926, US 131 was created along the route of M - 13 in Michigan. Originally ending at Fife Lake on the north end, the highway was extended to Petoskey in the late 1930s. Further changes were made, starting in the 1950s, to convert segments of the road to a full freeway. The state started this conversion simultaneously at two locations: heading north from Three Rivers, and heading both north and south from a point in southern Kent County. A third segment was built south of Cadillac and over subsequent years Michigan filled the gaps in the freeway. Cadillac and Manton were bypassed in the early part of the 21st century, resulting in the current freeway configuration. Another large - scale construction project in 2000 rebuilt an unusual section of the freeway through Grand Rapids known as the S - Curve. Two bridges formerly used by US 131 have been labeled by the Michigan Department of Transportation (MDOT) as historic structures; one of them has been listed on the National Register of Historic Places (NRHP). Plans to further extend the freeway have either been canceled or placed back under study. Upgrades on the north end through Kalkaska ceased to be considered in 2000. South of Three Rivers, MDOT is studying possible upgrades to US 131. One option for these upgrades is a full freeway, an option that was initially rejected. The preferred alternative in 2008 was a two - lane bypass of Constantine that opened in October 2013. Running 269.98 miles (434.49 km) in Indiana and Michigan, US 131 in its entirety is listed as a part of the National Highway System, a system of roads crucial to the nation 's economy, defense and mobility. As a state highway in both states, the roadway is maintained by the Indiana Department of Transportation (INDOT) and MDOT. The Michigan section includes approximately 172 miles (277 km) of freeway between Kalamazoo and Wexford counties. US 131 extends 0.643 miles (1.0 km) through Elkhart County, Indiana, between the entrance to the Indiana Toll Road, a few hundred feet north of the Toll Road overpass, and the state line to the north. State Road 13 (SR 13) runs concurrently with US 131 in this section but is not signposted. INDOT surveys the roads under its control on a regular basis to measure the amount of traffic using the state 's highways. These traffic counts are expressed in terms of annual average daily traffic (AADT), a calculation of the average daily number of vehicles on a segment of roadway. The 2007 survey reported average daily traffic of 7,949 cars and 2,068 trucks. As a state trunkline highway, US 131 runs approximately 266 miles (428 km) in Michigan, from the Indiana state line north to Petoskey. The highway is an important link between Grand Rapids and the tourist areas of Northern Michigan. The trunkline enters Michigan about three miles (4.8 km) south of White Pigeon, crossing a branch of the Michigan Southern Railroad before meeting US 12 on the west side of the village. The highway passes through rural farmland north to just south of Constantine, where US 131 turns northeastward to bypass the downtown business district, crosses the St. Joseph River and continues north to Three Rivers. The stretch of highway between Constantine and the start of the divided highway south of Three Rivers averaged 7,579 cars and 1,045 trucks daily in 2009 according to MDOT, one of the lowest AADT counts for the highway in Michigan. US 131 runs through a business corridor along the west side of Three Rivers. M - 60 runs concurrently along this part of US 131 until the two highways meet the south end of the business loop through town. The main road curves to the northeast as it leaves town, and M - 60 turns east to follow Business US 131 (Bus. US 131) into downtown. The trunkline runs parallel to a branch of the Grand Elk Railroad. North of the other end of the business loop, US 131 follows a four - lane surface highway through rural farmland in northern St. Joseph County. The highway has at - grade junctions with cross roads, but otherwise has limited access from adjoining property. This arrangement ends on the south side of Schoolcraft, where the highway transitions to follow Grand Street through town. North of town US 131 returns to an expressway as the highway continues through southern Kalamazoo County farmland. After an intersection with Shaver Road, US 131 widens into a full freeway which passes the Gourdneck State Game Area as it enters the Kalamazoo metropolitan area. US 131 meets I - 94 southwest of Kalamazoo and picks up the Business Loop I - 94 (BL I - 94) designation for a couple of miles. This secondary designation leaves the freeway at exit 36 and follows US 131 's business loop along Stadium Drive into downtown Kalamazoo near the main campus of Western Michigan University. As the freeway passes the west side of Kalamazoo the environs change to a more forested and semi-residential area. US 131 passes the northern end of Bus. US 131, a freeway spur accessible from the southbound lanes of US 131. North of this partial interchange the freeway crosses into eastern Allegan County. As US 131 passes through the outskirts of Plainwell, it curves to the northeast through a commercial area centered around the interchange with M - 89. North of this area US 131 crosses the Kalamazoo River and runs past the US 131 Raceway Park, a dragstrip close to the M - 222 interchange near Martin. The freeway continues north through mixed farm and forest land to the residential areas that abut it in Wayland. Further north the highway crosses into Kent County and the southern end of the Grand Rapids metropolitan area. As the freeway continues farther north, and closer to Grand Rapids, it is lined with more commercial and light industrial properties. The unincorporated suburb of Cutlerville lies to the east as US 131 approaches M - 6, the South Beltline Freeway, and meets in the largest freeway interchange in West Michigan. Gaining a third lane in each direction, the interchange stretches over a half mile (0.8 km) in width and over a mile (1.6 km) in length and encompasses 27 bridges and 18 retaining walls. US 131 continues north through the city of Wyoming to the more suburban residential areas near the southern city limits of Grand Rapids north of M - 11 (28th Street). The freeway continues through the southern end of Grand Rapids, alongside residential areas until Burton Street. A large rail yard abuts the trunkline on the east, and the freeway turns northeasterly on its approach to downtown. At Wealthy Street, the freeway takes a sharp turn to the west to cross the Grand River and immediately turns back north on a bridge structure known as the S - Curve. The highest traffic volumes along US 131 are located north of this river crossing. In 2009, MDOT measured an AADT of 107,200 cars and 5,992 trucks through the stretch between Market Avenue and Pearl Street. The trunkline continues past the Gerald R. Ford Museum and the Public Museum of Grand Rapids before the northbound carriageway crosses over, then back under, the southbound lanes, forcing traffic through this stretch to briefly drive on the left. North of I - 196, US 131 picks up a second, hidden designation on highway inventory logs called I - 296, although the number is not signposted along the road. I - 296 / US 131 continues along the banks of the Grand River into Walker where the hidden I - 296 designation turns to the northwest along a series of ramps to I - 96 while US 131 curves to the northeast along a bend in the river. As it continues along the river the freeway passes through the unincorporated community of Comstock Park and near to Fifth Third Ballpark, home of the West Michigan Whitecaps local minor league baseball team. The trunkline turns north, away from the river, as it nears the stadium and passes through the remainder of the northern suburb, changing to a more rural character as the freeway passes through the northern end of Kent County. M - 46 joins US 131 from the west at Cedar Springs and the two highways pass into northwestern Montcalm County near Sand Lake. North of Pierson the landscape is dominated by forests. M - 46 turns east and leaves the freeway near Howard City while US 131 continues into Mecosta County near the Little Muskegon River. The freeway forms the eastern boundary of the Manistee National Forest near the river and north to Big Rapids. Further north M - 20 joins the US 131 freeway near Stanwood and the two highways cross the Muskegon River on the way to Big Rapids. The city is served by its own business loop and M - 20 turns east off the freeway along Bus. US 131 toward the main campus of Ferris State University. North of Big Rapids US 131 runs through rural Osceola County to a junction with US 10 at Reed City. Passing through rural Osceola County and providing access to rural communities such as Le Roy and Tustin, US 131 approaches the south side of Cadillac in Wexford County. At exit 176, M - 55 leaves a concurrency with M - 115 and joins the US 131 freeway around the east side of Cadillac. This bypass was built in the early 21st century and the old routing is now a business loop through downtown. M - 55 follows the freeway to exit 180 while US 131 continues around the east side of Cadillac and north around the east side of Manton. The lowest freeway traffic counts along US 131, 7,455 cars and 709 trucks in 2009, are on the northeast side of Manton, as the trunkline transitions back to a two - lane undivided highway before meeting the north end of Manton 's business loop. The two - lane highway runs through the Pere Marquette State Forest and over the Manistee River, crossing the southeast corner of Grand Traverse County. It meets the southern end of M - 113 in Walton, where it runs parallel to the Great Lakes Central Railroad. Passing through Fife Lake, US 131 crosses into Kalkaska County and to South Boardman. The area around South Boardman is marked by farmland as the trunkline crosses the Boardman River in the small unincorporated community. The road once again runs parallel to the railroad as it meets M - 66 / M - 72 south of Kalkaska. The three highways join and run concurrently through downtown. North of town M - 72 turns west toward Traverse City and US 131 / M - 66 continues north through farmland into Antrim County. About 3 -- 3.5 miles (4.8 -- 5.6 km) north of town, standing on the west side of the road, is the Shoe Tree. A local icon since shortly after the turn of the 21st century, the origins of the landmark are unknown. The trunkline follows the railroad into Antrim and Mancelona. North of downtown Mancelona M - 66 turns north toward Charlevoix and US 131 continues along the Mackinaw Trail, through Alba. M - 32 follows US 131 for a half mile (0.8 km) near the community of Elmira. As it continues farther north US 131 enters the Mackinaw State Forest. Here, MDOT has calculated the lowest average daily traffic counts of all on US 131: 5,114 cars and 448 trucks in 2009. The highway passes through rural Charlevoix County where the terrain has many rolling hills and begins to descend to Lake Michigan. As the highway enters the southern section of the city of Petoskey it runs along Spring Street passing retail establishments and the Odawa Casino, owned by the Little Traverse Bay Indian Reservation of the Odawa Indians. At the northern terminus of US 131, US 31 turns off Charlevoix Avenue and follows Spring Street to the north. MDOT operates 67 rest areas and 14 welcome centers in the state, all named in honor of retired department employees, although in some cases an honoree 's name may be dropped from the rest area. Eight of these are along US 131, providing bathroom facilities, dog runs, picnic areas and usually vending machines. The rest areas near Kalamazoo, Rockford, Big Rapids and Tustin serve southbound traffic while those near Morley and Cadillac serve the northbound side of the freeway. The two near Manton and Fife Lake are accessible from both directions. A ninth rest area used to exist near Cutlerville on the northbound side of US 131, but this location was demolished on January 22, 2001, to make way for the interchange with M - 6. The department wanted to build a replacement near Dorr, in northern Allegan County, but the plans were canceled in late 2001. MDOT has also built carpool lots for motorists along the freeway. There are 21 lots, all but one adjacent to a freeway interchange. The department touts these lots as a way to save money and benefit the environment, and has partnered with a network of local agencies offering Local Rideshare Offices. Before Michigan became a state, the first land transportation corridors were the Indian trails. The original Mackinaw Trail ran roughly parallel to the route of the modern US 131 from east of Kalkaska to Petoskey. In the 19th century, the Michigan Legislature chartered private companies to build and operate plank roads or turnpikes in the state. These roads were originally made of oak planks, but later legislation permitted gravel as well. Two thoroughfares in the Grand Rapids area, Division and Plainfield avenues, were originally plank roads. The companies were funded through the collection of tolls. The infrastructure was expensive to maintain, and often the turnpikes fell into disrepair as the wood warped and rotted away. Mark Twain once commented that "the road could not have been bad if some unconscionable scoundrel had not now and then dropped a plank across it, '' after a trip on the Kalamazoo and Grand Rapids Plank Road. By the first decade of the 20th century, only 23 of the 202 chartered turnpikes were still in operation; many companies that received a charter never built their specified roadways. The remaining plank roads were turned over to the state or purchased by railway companies in the early part of the century. The first state - maintained highway along the path of US 131 was M - 13, a designation applied to the road by July 1, 1919. US 131 debuted along with the rest of the initial U.S. Highway System on November 11, 1926, although at the time it was shown on maps from the Michigan -- Indiana state line north to the small Northern Michigan community of Acme in Grand Traverse County. The northernmost section of the highway between Fife Lake and Acme was not signposted in the field and the designation ended instead at Fife Lake, about 213 miles (343 km) north of the state line. At the same time, the Michigan State Highway Department (MSHD) redesignated the remainder of M - 13, between Fife Lake and Petoskey, as M - 131. Public Act 131 of 1931 allowed the MSHD to take control over the city streets that carried state highways through cities in the state. Until this point, the City of Grand Rapids arbitrarily moved the route of state highways through the city on a regular basis. The department took control of a series of streets and fixed the routing of US 131 through the city after the passage of the act. The highway was shifted between Three Rivers and Constantine to the west side of the St. Joseph River in 1936. In late 1938 or early 1939, the MSHD extended US 131 northward over the southern section of M - 131. After the changes US 131 turned eastward into Fife Lake and north to Kalkaska and Mancelona before ending in Petoskey. This extension connected US 131 directly to its parent highway, US 31, for the first time. By the end of the 1930s, the MSHD under the leadership of future governor Murray Van Wagoner had shifted emphasis to a program of road improvements designed to make the state 's roads "safer and smoother for burgeoning traffic volumes. '' In 1940, a new roadway was opened, completing the third side of a triangle between the junction with M - 113, Walton Corners and Fife Lake. US 131 was shifted to the new highway and the former routing along the other two sides of the triangle became part of M - 113 and M - 186. A second realignment opened the following year between Fife Lake and Kalkaska. US 131 no longer turned east along Boardman Road between South Boardman and Lodi. Instead the MSHD rerouted the highway directly to the northeast, from the end of the previous new routing north of Fife Lake to Kalaska. By 1945, a Bypass US 131 was created around the south and east sides of Grand Rapids, following 28th Street and East Beltline Avenue, while the main highway continued to run through downtown unchanged. A decade later, mainline US 131 was rerouted around Grand Rapids over the former bypass route, and Business US 131 (Bus. US 131) was created for the former route through downtown. A second business loop was created in Three Rivers, Michigan, after an expressway bypass of the city 's downtown was opened in early 1954. Another expressway section was opened between Mancelona and the M - 32 junction west of Elmira in late 1956. By the end of 1957, US 131 had been realigned as an expressway from the Three Rivers bypass to Moorepark. The section of freeway in the Grand Rapids area opened near the southern county line north to 28th Street. This latter freeway segment was extended further south to Wayland by the middle of 1958. By the middle of 1960, the freeway was extended to M - 118 in Martin, where traffic used M - 118 to connect back to the old routing. The southern end of US 131 was moved to another location on the state line. Instead of running concurrently with US 112 between White Pigeon and Mottville, US 131 ran directly south of White Pigeon to the state line. In the process, the M - 103 designation was swapped with US 131. The MSHD had proposed that the section of US 131 south of Kalamazoo be built as an electronic highway under a bid through General Motors the same year; the testing for such a roadway was ultimately done at Ohio State University instead. Another project, through the end of 1961, extended the freeway south to Plainwell and north into downtown Grand Rapids. This extension was designated as part of Bus. US 131 and opened in December 1961. The opening ceremony for the bridge across the Grand River included the state highway commission and the then - Miss Michigan, pulled by a team of sled dogs, to lead the first traffic over the river. Until the early 1960s, US 131 never left the state of Michigan; the southernmost point was always at the Indiana state line. In 1961, the highway designation was extended to its current southern terminus in rural Elkhart County, Indiana at a connection with the Indiana Toll Road at the request of the state of Michigan. The MSHD asked the Indiana State Highway Department (ISHD) to extend US 131 farther to reconnect with US 31 in Indiana near Indianapolis. Michigan State Highway Commissioner John C. Mackie said that officials with the IHSD were "receptive to the idea '' of a further addition to Indianapolis which would provide a "great benefit to Michigan 's tourist industry ''. On December 17, 1962, the freeway through downtown Grand Rapids was completed, including the section marked as I - 296. The business loop was removed from the freeway when US 131 took its place. East Beltline Avenue was renumbered as an extension of M - 44, while 28th Street retains the M - 11 / M - 21 designations it had in addition to US 131. I - 296 / US 131 runs alongside the Grand River between I - 96 downtown and I - 196 north of town. At the end of I - 296, US 131 followed I - 196 east to the northern portion of the business loop at Plainfield Avenue and followed Plainfield Avenue back to the remainder of its routing north of Grand Rapids. The other end of the freeway was extended south to M - 43 on the west side of Kalamazoo. Traffic there is directed along M - 43 into downtown to connect with the remainder of the highway. Freeway construction continued through the 1960s. By the end of 1963, the southern section of freeway was extended to Schoolcraft. The following year, a business loop in Kalamazoo was created. The new loop used a freeway stub on the north and M - 43 on the south to connect the main highway to the former routing of US 131 along Westnedge and Park avenues downtown. A discontinuous segment of freeway, south of Cadillac into Osceola County, opened in September 1966. The freeway was extended north from the Grand Rapids area through the Comstock Park area in 1966. That year, the former Grand Rapids Speedrome, a local race car track was closed. Located on North Park Street between the North Park Bridge and West River Drive, the track was in operation from 1950 until it was closed for the freeway construction in 1966. The freeway was extended further to M - 57 (14 Mile Road) near Cedar Springs in 1969. In 1968, the section of expressway near Mancelona was downgraded to a two - lane highway. The original roadway had been left in place when a new parallel carriageway was built in 1956. During the winter months, the original lanes built in the 1920s were closed because the grade of the roadway accumulated additional snow and made it difficult to plow. The MSHD had considered reconstructing the older road to retain the expressway setup, but that would have cost $1.5 million while removing it and permanently reconfiguring the 1956 roadway cost only $170,000 (equivalent to $18.3 million and $2.08 million in 2016). The 1970s saw the US 131 freeway expand to north of Grand Rapids. The section between the two M - 57 junctions near Rockford and in Cedar Springs opened on September 21, 1973, at a dedication ceremony featuring then - Congressman Gerald R. Ford. By the end of the year, the freeway would be open as far north as Howard City. At the same time, M - 46 was realigned to extend south down the freeway to Cedar Springs and west to replace M - 57 west of Rockford. Construction to complete these sections north of Grand Rapids had been delayed in 1967. Before the delays, the MSHD planned to have the gap in the freeway between Grand Rapids and Cadillac completed by 1974. The state even proposed adding the freeway north of Grand Rapids to Petoskey, with a further continuation to Mackinaw City as part of the Interstate Highway System in an effort to receive additional funding in 1968. In September 1972, the US 131 Area Development Association lobbied Congress to "expedite funding and priority for the reconstruction of US 131 in Michigan. '' The 12.2 - mile (19.6 km) section of US 131 freeway south of the Wexford -- Osceola county line was opened on November 9, 1976, at a cost of $7.4 million (equivalent to $49.3 million in 2016). By 1977, the state postponed any plans to complete the freeway north of Cadillac. The department cited rising construction material costs and opposition to the freeway in Petoskey. By the end of the decade, I - 296 signs were removed from the section of freeway in Grand Rapids. However, the freeway remains listed as a part of the Interstate Highway System. The next section of freeway opened between Howard City and Stanwood in 1980. Another segment was opened farther north, bypassing Big Rapids by 1984. The former route through town and a section of M - 20 were designated as a business loop simultaneously. US 131 followed 19 Mile Road between the end of the freeway and the former routing north of town. The gap was filled in when the freeway segment between Big Rapids and Osceola County was opened in 1986. The section of highway along 19 Mile Road was transferred to the Big Rapids business loop to connect it back to the new freeway. When the expansions ended, in the mid-1980s, it was expected that the US 131 freeway would end at the south side of Cadillac, "perhaps forever ''. MDOT had ended all consideration of additional freeway mileage in 1981, citing decreased gas tax revenues, decreased traffic and higher construction costs. A 1979 report said that while traffic forecasts showed continued growth, upgrades to existing roads would be sufficient to handle traffic needs. One of the more unusual sections of the US 131 freeway in the Grand Rapids area is the S - Curve. This section of freeway carries US 131 over the Grand River with two sharp turns in the road, resembling the letter S. The design for this structure was completed in 1952 and placed the freeway on the least expensive land in the area, despite the knowledge that it would someday create issues. As noted by The Grand Rapids Press in 1981, "the speed limit on the S - Curve must be reduced as low as 25 mph (40 km / h) on some bad - weather days because of the sharpness of the turns and (the) numerous accidents (that) have occurred there. '' On December 27, 1999, the state awarded a $85.7 million contract (equivalent to $142 million in 2016) for the replacement of the S - Curve on US 131. Deposits of gypsum under the roadway were dissolving and causing it to settle. A deteriorating bridge also forced the reconstruction of the freeway through the area. Construction began on January 15, 2000, diverting the roughly 115,000 vehicles per day that used the stretch of road to detours through the downtown area. As part of the project, a $1.2 million (equivalent to $1.89 million in 2016) de-icing system was installed. The system is designed to spray a de-icing fluid on the roadway that would be carried by car tires up to a mile (1.6 km) along the road surface. This fluid is expected to melt ice at temperatures below the − 20 ° F (− 29 ° C) at which salt stops working. Unlike salt, the non-corrosive de-icer does not harm the bridge, but it is more costly. The system is designed to be activated manually, or automatically via sensors along the road. However, plowing would still be required on the roadway. The idea behind the de-icing system is to keep the pavement wet and prevent the formation of ice. Construction delays were caused by river flooding during spring rains. A design mistake meant that one of the bridges in the structure was built a foot (30 cm) too low, and Grandville Avenue was lowered to compensate for the error. Before the opening, MDOT held a ribbon - cutting ceremony on the freeway to allow local residents to walk along the structure on August 12. The first northbound lanes were opened to traffic in mid-August, three weeks ahead of schedule. Lead contractor Kiewit Western, a company whose "employees have been known to work 13 - hour days and 100 - hour weeks '', accelerated their work schedule over the course of the project to compensate for the delays and still finish the venture early. The remaining lanes opened to traffic on October 26, also ahead of schedule. Additional work started after the main roadway opened by closing various ramps for reconstruction. This work also focused on restoring parking lots located under or adjacent to the freeway and testing the de-icing system; the final ramps were opened in early December 2000 and early January 2001. The end result of the construction produced a freeway design that increased the rated traffic speed from 45 to 50 mph (72 to 80 km / h). MDOT approved a $3.5 billion 10 - year transportation plan (equivalent to $10.5 billion in 2016) in 1986 that included an extension of the US 131 freeway north to Manton. Construction started on the Cadillac bypass in 1999, and the first section was opened to traffic in November 2000. This 3.5 - mile (5.6 km) southern segment ran from US 131 south of town to M - 55 east of downtown. US 131 remained routed through downtown, but M - 55 was rerouted to the bypass. Local residents were allowed to use the northern section of the bypass for recreational activities until it was opened to traffic. The full 9.2 - mile (14.8 km) bypass around Cadillac was dedicated to Sidney Ouwinga in a ceremony on October 27, 2001, and the road was opened to traffic on October 30, 2001. The former routing through town was redesignated Bus. US 131 at the same time. Ouwinga was a state lawmaker who died in 1991 while serving in the Michigan House of Representatives. He was also a member of the US 131 Area Development Association which promoted further northern extensions of the freeway. The 10.5 - mile (16.9 km) freeway expansion north around the city of Manton was opened in 2003. The former routing was redesignated as a business loop at the time. The two bypasses cost $146 million (equivalent to $225 million in 2016) to complete. Design plans for the new bridge over the St. Joseph River were announced in January 2011. The expected groundbreaking on the venture was scheduled for February 4, 2013, with planned completion in 2014. Residents in the community were divided over the proposed five - mile (8.0 km) highway. Business owners look to the 3,000 cars and trucks that pass through downtown Constantine each day for customers, traffic that would be diverted around the village by the new roadway. On the other hand, residents that work outside of the small community were looking forward to decreased commute times to their workplaces. The bypass opened on October 30, 2013. Originally, MDOT and its predecessor agencies had planned to convert US 131 into a freeway all the way to Petoskey. They suggested adding the highway to the Interstate Highway System in the late 1960s, when the federal government took proposals for additions to the network of highways. While further northward extension of the freeway from Manton to Kalkaska and beyond was postponed by the department in the 1970s, and canceled "perhaps forever '' in the early 1980s, MDOT made an attempt to revive the extension to Kalkaska in 2000. The proposal was ultimately abandoned when the year 's transportation plan was finalized. A bridge replacement project over the Manistee River in 2009 -- 10 ensured the end of further consideration by MDOT of the proposal. According to the local project director, "currently, the department has no plans (to expand the freeway). Someday it may happen, but not in the foreseeable future. '' A southerly extension of the freeway to or near the Indiana state line is still under study. Improvements to the US 131 corridor from Portage to the Indiana Toll Road have been underway for several years and although a late - 2005 decision by MDOT to not pursue a new controlled - access route through St. Joseph County seemed to terminate the discussion, public outcry and backlash from local legislators forced the department to re-evaluate its decision. State House Speaker Craig DeRoche was critical of the original decision, citing the economic development benefit such a road would bring to the area in defense of the proposed freeway. The previous "no - build decision '' was rescinded in April 2006. MDOT has begun a project to upgrade a 16.4 - mile (26.4 km) segment of US 131 in St. Joseph County, home of one of the most dangerous roadway sections in Southwest Michigan for auto crashes. The final environmental impact statement for the project was published in mid-2008 and the preferred alternative consists of a two - lane road bypassing the village of Constantine. The new highway would maintain access to local roads via at - grade intersections, and the department would maintain jurisdiction of the old route through town. MDOT has stated that present traffic demands do not warrant the cost of a full freeway facility on a new alignment from the Indiana Toll Road to north of Three Rivers, stating that such a project would cost over $300 million (equivalent to $371 million in 2016) to build. Construction plans were placed on hold after an announcement in June 2009 as various proposals around the state, including the Constantine bypass, were shelved until funding issues could be resolved. In total, 137 road and bridge projects totaling $740 million were delayed to 2012 because the state could not match available federal funding to pay for the work. US 131 and its predecessors bears several memorial designations in addition to the Sidney Ouwinga Memorial Bypass near Cadillac. One of the oldest is the Mackinaw Trail, named after a former Indian trail that ran from Saginaw to Mackinaw City and Sault Ste. Marie. By 1915, the name was transferred to the roadway that was later numbered US 131. The Mackinaw Trail Association was formed that year to promote an all - weather highway between Grand Rapids and Mackinaw City, using a logo incorporating a trout for the road. The name was to be officially applied to the highway in 1929, but the State Senate did not agree to the proposal. The official endorsement of the name came in 1959, after the opening of the Mackinac Bridge revitalized the idea. During World War I, households would display a service flag if a family member was serving in the war. A blue star denoted a service member in action, and a gold star symbolized someone who died in the military. In St. Joseph County, the chapters of the Daughters of the American Revolution and the American Legion wanted to honor the local fallen soldiers. Using the flags as inspiration, they planted 100 black walnut and four Norway spruce trees along the road south of Three Rivers. Dedicated on May 4, 1924, this tribute was named the Gold Star Memorial Highway and ran for 1.5 miles (2.4 km) along what is now US 131 south of Three Rivers. In 1921, the section of highway south of Kalamazoo was named part of the Colgrove Highway. This designation included several other roads in the Lower Peninsula, all named in honor of Philip Colgrove, the first president of the Michigan Good Roads Association. Colgrove was also the Barry County prosecutor and a state senator in the late 19th century. No maps documents the name, although the original law remains in records. The Michigan Legislature proposed a bill in 2000 that would have repealed the 1921 statute naming the Colgrove Highway, but the bill ultimately faded, sparing the name. In the age of the auto trails, it was common for highways to be named rather than numbered. An attempt to create a trail such as the Lincoln Highway failed in Michigan. School children in 1926 from Anderson, Indiana, wanted to honor James Whitcomb Riley, the poet from the Hoosier State, with a highway that connected the country 's summer and winter resort areas. The Michigan segment of the road running through the state was to follow what would later be US 131. The James Whitcomb Riley Association promoted the highway by painting white bands on telephone poles with the name of the road in orange letters during that August and September. However, the road in question was already named the Mackinaw Trail, and the association did not secure permission of the state highway commissioner, as was required by a 1919 Michigan law. The law made it illegal for any "association to delineate or mark any other routes or trails through the State of Michigan... unless the same shall be approved in writing by the State Highway Commissioner. '' As a result, government officials refused to endorse the association 's proposal, and Michigan was excluded from the highway. The efforts of the national association were stunted by the halted progress, and the highway was disbanded by December 1926. The Michigan Trail, another auto trail from the 1920s, "followed just about every major trunk line at that time in the Lower Peninsula and covered over a thousand miles (1,600 km) of state highways. '' The Michigan Trail started in Toledo, Ohio, and ran to Detroit; its branches extended to New Buffalo, Grand Rapids, and Port Huron. Other segments included US 131 between Kalamazoo and Petoskey, US 31 between New Buffalo and the Straits of Mackinac and a route between Port Huron and Big Rapids. The highway failed as a concept because it lacked focus, and many of the segments of roadway had already assigned names. The most recent name applied to US 131 is related to the first. Enacted in 2004, Public Act 138 added an additional name to the Mackinaw Trail from the M - 66 junction near Kalkaska to Petoskey, the "Green Arrow Route - Mackinaw Trail ''. Residents of the state have questioned the wisdom of having a "compound road name whose signboards (would) be nearly as long as the highway itself. '' MDOT maintains a listing of historic bridges that includes two which formerly carried US 131. In 1913, the State Trunk Line Act required the highway department to build and maintain bridges at the state 's expense if they were included in the nascent highway system. Among the first of these state - built structures is the Division Avenue -- Plaster Creek Bridge in Grand Rapids. The crossing is listed on the NRHP for its architectural and engineering significance. Built as Trunk Line Bridge No. 3 over Plaster Creek in 1914 by the MSHD, the span cost just over $6,000. Division Avenue carried US 131 until the construction of the freeway through Grand Rapids in the 1960s. The bridge, a filled spandrel arch design, is 50 - foot - long (15 m), and was modified in 1935 to widen its deck from 28 feet (8.5 m) to the current 43 feet (13 m). The structure was added to the NRHP on December 17, 1999. The second bridge listed by MDOT is the crossing of the Little Muskegon River for 190th Avenue in southern Mecosta County. Like the Plaster Creek bridge, this structure was also built by the MSHD under the Trunk Line Act of 1913. Built in 1916 -- 17 the 45 - foot - long (14 m), 18 - foot - wide (5.5 m), concrete through - girder bridge cost around $10,000 to build. It was initially named Trunk Line Bridge No. 61. The span is the oldest concrete girder bridge designed by the MSHD. US 131 followed 190th Avenue over the river until a realignment shifted the highway to another route in 1927. Route map: Google

who is nancy wray man with a plan

Man with a Plan (TV series) - wikipedia Man with a Plan is an American sitcom series created by Jackie and Jeff Filgo and starring Matt LeBlanc. It was ordered to series on May 13, 2016, for the CBS 2016 -- 2017 television season. The series premiered on October 24, 2016. On November 14, 2016, CBS picked up the series for a full season of 19 episodes. On January 6, 2017, CBS ordered three additional episodes, increasing the first season order to 22. On March 23, 2017, CBS renewed the series for a second season which premiered on November 13, 2017. On November 27, 2017, CBS ordered eight additional episodes for the second season, bringing the total to 21 episodes. On May 12, 2018, CBS renewed the series for a third season. Adam Burns is a construction worker living in suburban Pittsburgh, Pennsylvania, with wife Andi, daughters Katie and Emme, and son Teddy. He looks forward to spending time with his family and hanging out with his friends, who are also co-educators: Lowell, Marie and Ms. Rodriguez. However, his elder daughter Katie, who was away at middle school; Teddy is becoming dimwitted child, whose intelligence is often issues; and youngest daughter Emme is a innocent child who often knows her parents will never let her get away with a lot issues. On February 3, 2016, the production officially received a pilot order and James Burrows would direct the pilot. The pilot was written by Jackie and Jeff Filgo who was also set to executive produce alongside with Michael Rotenberg and Troy Zien. Production companies involved with the pilot include Double Double Bonus Entertainment, CBS Television Studios, and 3 Arts Entertainment. On May 12, 2016, it was announced that CBS had given the production, now titled Man with a Plan, a series order. A day after that, it was announced that the series would premiere in the fall of 2016 and air on Mondays at 8: 30 P.M. On March 23, 2017, CBS renewed the series for a second season which premiered on November 13, 2017. On November 27, 2017, CBS ordered eight additional episodes for the second season, bringing the total to 21 episodes. On May 12, 2018, CBS renewed the series for a third season. Casting for the main cast started in February 2016 with Matt LeBlanc and ended the next month with Matt Cook and Grace Kaufman. On May 13, 2016, it was reported that Jenna Fischer, who was originally cast to play the female lead opposite LeBlanc in the series, had exited and her role would be recast. On August 1, it was announced Liza Snyder would replace Fischer in the role. On August 2, 2016, it was reported that Kevin Nealon had joined the cast in a main role. Man with a Plan has received generally negative reviews from critics. On the review aggregator Rotten Tomatoes, the series has an approval rating of 21 %, based on 28 reviews, with an average rating of 3.5 / 10. The site 's critical consensus reads, "Man with a Plan 's flawed, unimaginative writing fails to properly showcase the charm of its unfortunately underperforming lead. '' On Metacritic, which assigns a normalized rating, the series has a score 36 out of 100, based on 25 critics, indicating "generally unfavorable reviews ''.

star trek in the wink of an eye

Wink of an Eye - wikipedia "Wink of an Eye '' is a third season episode of the American science fiction television series, Star Trek, first broadcast on November 29, 1968, and repeated on June 24, 1969. It is episode # 66, production # 68, and was written by Arthur Heinemann, based on a story by Gene L. Coon (under the pen name Lee Cronin), and directed by Jud Taylor. In the episode, normally invisible time - accelerated aliens take over the Enterprise and attempt to abduct the crew for use as "genetic stock ''. Following a distress call, the Federation starship USS Enterprise arrives at the planet Scalos. Captain Kirk beams down with an away party into an advanced metropolis but can find no signs of life, except for an odd constant insect - like buzzing around them from no apparent source. Suddenly, crewman Compton disappears in front of their eyes, and Kirk orders the away team back to the Enterprise for safety. Back aboard, the ship begins to experience strange malfunctions, and Engineering reports the sudden appearance of an unknown device attached to the ship 's life support systems. Kirk has the ship placed on red alert while Engineering attempts to remove the device. While waiting, Kirk has a cup of coffee, but after drinking it, finds the bridge crew appears to have become motionless. He suddenly sees a woman, who introduces herself to him as Deela, Queen of the Scalosians. She explains that due to radiation around the planet Scalos, her people have entered a state of hyperacceleration, causing them to move faster than can be seen; this has also caused her people to become sterile. They used the distress signal to bring a ship here, planning on putting its crew into cryogenic suspension and using them to help procreate their species. She has used some of the radiation - tainted water in Kirk 's coffee to bring him to this state to help them complete their plan as well as to become Deela 's consort. Kirk refuses, and he is taken under guard to the other Scalosians, as well as finding that Compton is still alive, having also been hyperaccelerated, and willfully working with the Scalosians. Kirk condemns Compton 's actions, and attempts to escape. In his efforts, Compton is slightly injured, but this causes his body to age rapidly and he dies, a side effect of the hyperacceleration. Meanwhile, First Officer Spock and the other bridge crew witness Kirk 's apparent disappearance, and recognize the insect - like buzzing again. They find that the buzzing is actually voices at a sped - up pace. This leads Spock to study Kirk 's coffee and find it was dosed with Scalosian water, and determines what has happened to Kirk. Spock refines a dose of the water to ingest, while Chief Medical Officer Dr. McCoy gives him antidotes for him and Kirk to return them to normal speed. On becoming hyperaccelerated, Spock quickly locates Kirk and helps to subdue the guards. The two remove the alien device from the life support system and then see to transporting Deela and her guards back to the surface. Kirk takes the antidote to return to normal time, while Spock uses the state to effect repairs on the other systems with which the Scalosians had interfered. The Enterprise departs with a warning to others about the planet. Star Trek novelist Dayton Ward judged that "the setup for ' Wink of an Eye ' is interesting enough at first blush: A race of beings who move through time at a rate so fast that they 're all but undetectable. Unfortunately, it 's upon the second and subsequent blushes that the concept begins to fall apart. '' He writes that the Scalosians had too limited imagination for continuing their race, and that mating with members of other species would be no help. He found the science wanting, though "I have to admit that here it provides for one of the series ' more original ' redshirt deaths. ' '' Ward did admire the set design: "Clever use of tilted camera angles and lighting help to sell the illusion of the characters moving about the ship at their hyper - accelerated rate. One nice touch is the slowing down of the various lights and gauges that fill the bridge 's workstations when Kirk and Deela are there. '' David Alan Mack, also a Star Trek novelist, wrote, "It 's not a bad idea for an episode, but the execution on this one felt sorely lacking. '' He noted some gaps in logic: "Still, how does one propagate a species by mating one 's women with aliens?... And if time moves so slowly for them, why would they need to place the Enterprise crew in suspended animation? Would n't a few days ' worth of knockout drugs suffice? '' Zack Handlen of The A.V. Club was unimpressed by the episode, assigning it a B - and noting some plot holes: "They manage to beam aboard the Enterprise somehow, which does n't make a lot of sense, science-wise. If their speed makes them invisible to the computer as life - forms, how would the transporter even work? Especially since they get brought on without anyone on the ship realizing it. '' Handlen judges that the "hook is clever, '' although "the ep might 've been stronger if it had spent more time focusing on the mystery, and the danger that mystery represented, instead of dropping Kirk down the rabbit hole and spoiling the question so early on. '' He concludes, "In a stronger season, "Eye '' would 've been a low spot, a perfunctory by - the - numbers programmer which, while not embarrassing, would n't have made much of an impression. Here, it reminds us that, for a while anyway, competency was the least we could hope to expect from the series. '' Melissa N. Hayes - Gehrke of the University of Maryland found more problems with the science: Unfortunately, the ramifications of the accelerated living just do not stand up under scrutiny. If a Scalosian stays in one place for awhile - even just to have a protracted conversation - he should become visible, albeit briefly, to a normal person. We did n't see any indication that this could happen. Kirk fires his phaser at Deela and she steps out of the way because the beam is moving so slowly. This is patently ridiculous; phaser beams travel at the speed of light, and no object with mass can travel faster than that. From a practical perspective, how do the ship 's doors know to open for the Scalosians, when the ship 's sensors can not detect them? How can the Scalosians flip and slide switches (like the transporter controls), that are not designed to move so quickly, without breaking them? StarTrekReviews.com found some praise: "There 's no character interaction between our heroes, save for the wonderful moment when Kirk meets Spock in the corridor and simply smiles '' -- a moment which many other reviewers also enjoyed.

who made delhi the capital of his kingdom for the first time

Delhi Sultanate - Wikipedia The Delhi Sultanate (Persian: دهلی سلطان, Urdu: دہلی سلطنت ‬) was a Muslim sultanate based mostly in Delhi that stretched over large parts of the Indian subcontinent for 320 years (1206 -- 1526). Five dynasties ruled over the Delhi Sultanate sequentially: the Mamluk dynasty (1206 -- 90), the Khalji dynasty (1290 -- 1320), the Tughlaq dynasty (1320 -- 1414), the Sayyid dynasty (1414 -- 51), and the Lodi dynasty (1451 -- 1526). The sultanate is noted for being one of the few states to repel an attack by the Mongol Empire, and enthroned one of the few female rulers in Islamic history, Razia Sultana, who reigned from 1236 to 1240. Qutb al - Din Aibak, a former Turkic Mamluk slave of Muhammad Ghori, was the first sultan of Delhi, and his Mamluk dynasty conquered large areas of northern India. Afterwards, the Khalji dynasty was also able to conquer most of central India, but both failed to conquer the whole of the Indian subcontinent. The sultanate reached the peak of its geographical reach during the Tughlaq dynasty, occupying most of the Indian subcontinent. This was followed by decline due to Hindu reconquests, states such as the Vijayanagara Empire asserting independence, and new Muslim sultanates such as the Bengal Sultanate breaking off. During and in the Delhi Sultanate, there was a synthesis of Indian civilization with that of Islamic civilization, and the further integration of the Indian subcontinent with a growing world system and wider international networks spanning large parts of Afro - Eurasia, which had a significant impact on Indian culture and society, as well as the wider world. The time of their rule included the earliest forms of Indo - Islamic architecture, increased growth rates in India 's population and economy, and the emergence of the Hindi - Urdu language. The Delhi Sultanate was also responsible for repelling the Mongol Empire 's potentially devastating invasions of India in the 13th and 14th centuries. However, the Delhi Sultanate also caused large scale destruction and desecration of temples in the Indian subcontinent. In 1526, the Sultanate was conquered and succeeded by the Mughal Empire. The context behind the rise of the Delhi Sultanate in India was part of a wider trend affecting much of the Asian continent, including the whole of southern and western Asia: the influx of nomadic Turkic peoples from the Central Asian steppes. This can be traced back to the 9th century, when the Islamic Caliphate began fragmenting in the Middle East, where Muslim rulers in rival states began enslaving non-Muslim nomadic Turks from the Central Asian steppes, and raising many of them to become loyal military slaves called Mamluks. Soon, Turks were migrating to Muslim lands and becoming Islamicized. Many of the Turkic Mamluk slaves eventually rose up to become rulers, and conquered large parts of the Muslim world, establishing Mamluk Sultanates from Egypt to Afghanistan, before turning their attention to the Indian subcontinent. It is also part of a longer trend predating the spread of Islam. Like other settled, agrarian societies in history, those in the Indian subcontinent have been attacked by nomadic tribes throughout its long history. In evaluating the impact of Islam on the subcontinent, one must note that the northwestern subcontinent was a frequent target of tribes raiding from Central Asia in the pre-Islamic era. In that sense, the Muslim intrusions and later Muslim invasions were not dissimilar to those of the earlier invasions during the 1st millennium. By 962 AD, Hindu and Buddhist kingdoms in South Asia were under a wave of raids from Muslim armies from Central Asia. Among them was Mahmud of Ghazni, the son of a Turkic Mamluk military slave, who raided and plundered kingdoms in north India from east of the Indus river to west of Yamuna river seventeen times between 997 and 1030. Mahmud of Ghazni raided the treasuries but retracted each time, only extending Islamic rule into western Punjab. The wave of raids on north Indian and western Indian kingdoms by Muslim warlords continued after Mahmud of Ghazni. The raids did not establish or extend permanent boundaries of their Islamic kingdoms. The Ghurid sultan Mu'izz ad - Din Muhammad Ghori, commonly known as Muhammad of Ghor, began a systematic war of expansion into north India in 1173. He sought to carve out a principality for himself by expanding the Islamic world. Muhammad of Ghor sought a Sunni Islamic kingdom of his own extending east of the Indus river, and he thus laid the foundation for the Muslim kingdom called the Delhi Sultanate. Some historians chronicle the Delhi Sultanate from 1192 due to the presence and geographical claims of Muhammad Ghori in South Asia by that time. Ghori was assassinated in 1206, by Ismāʿīlī Shia Muslims in some accounts or by Hindu Khokhars in others. After the assassination, one of Ghori 's slaves (or mamluks, Arabic: مملوك), the Turkic Qutb al - Din Aibak, assumed power, becoming the first Sultan of Delhi. Qutb al - Din Aibak, a former slave of Mu'izz ad - Din Muhammad Ghori (known more commonly as Muhammad of Ghor), was the first ruler of the Delhi Sultanate. Aibak was of Cuman - Kipchak (Turkic) origin, and due to his lineage, his dynasty is known as the Mamluk (Slave) dynasty (not to be confused with the Mamluk dynasty of Iraq or the Mamluk dynasty of Egypt). Aibak reigned as the Sultan of Delhi for four years, from 1206 to 1210. After Aibak died, Aram Shah assumed power in 1210, but he was assassinated in 1211 by Shams ud - Din Iltutmish. Iltutmish 's power was precarious, and a number of Muslim amirs (nobles) challenged his authority as they had been supporters of Qutb al - Din Aibak. After a series of conquests and brutal executions of opposition, Iltutmish consolidated his power. His rule was challenged a number of times, such as by Qubacha, and this led to a series of wars. Iltumish conquered Multan and Bengal from contesting Muslim rulers, as well as Ranthambore and Siwalik from the Hindu rulers. He also attacked, defeated, and executed Taj al - Din Yildiz, who asserted his rights as heir to Mu'izz ad - Din Muhammad Ghori. Iltutmish 's rule lasted till 1236. Following his death, the Delhi Sultanate saw a succession of weak rulers, disputing Muslim nobility, assassinations, and short - lived tenures. Power shifted from Rukn ud - Din Firuz to Razia Sultana and others, until Ghiyas ud - Din Balban came to power and ruled from 1266 to 1287. He was succeeded by 17 - year - old Muiz ud - Din Qaiqabad, who appointed Jalal ud - Din Firuz Khalji as the commander of the army. Khalji assassinated Qaiqabad and assumed power, thus ending the Mamluk dynasty and starting the Khalji dynasty. Qutb al - Din Aibak initiated the construction of the Qutub Minar and the Quwwat - ul - Islam (Might of Islam) Mosque, now a UNESCO world heritage site. It was built from the remains of twenty seven demolished Hindu and Jain temples. The Qutub Minar Complex or Qutb Complex was expanded by Iltutmish, and later by Ala ud - Din Khalji (the second ruler of the Khalji dynasty) in the early 14th century. During the Mamluk dynasty, many nobles from Afghanistan and Persia migrated and settled in India, as West Asia came under Mongol siege. The Khalji dynasty was of Turko - Afghan heritage. They were originally of Turkic origin. They had long been settled in present - day Afghanistan before proceeding to Delhi in India. The name "Khalji '' refers to an Afghan village or town known as Qalat - e Khalji (Fort of Ghilji). Sometimes they were treated by others as ethnic Afghans due to their intermarraiges with local Afghans, adoption of Afghan habits and customs. As a result of this, the dynasty is sometimes referred to as Turko - Afghan. The dynasty later also had Indian ancestry, through Jhatyapali (daughter of Ramachandra of Devagiri), wife of Alauddin Khalji and mother of Shihabuddin Omar. The first ruler of the Khalji dynasty was Jalal ud - Din Firuz Khalji. Firuz Khalji had already gathered enough support among the Afghans for taking over the crown. He came to power in 1290 after killing the last ruler of the Mamluk dynasty, Muiz ud - Din Qaiqabad, with the support of Afghan and Turkic nobles. He was around 70 years old at the time of his ascension, and was known as a mild - mannered, humble and kind monarch to the general public. Jalal ud - Din Firuz was of Turko Afghan origin, and ruled for 6 years before he was murdered in 1296 by his nephew and son - in - law Juna Muhammad Khalji, who later came to be known as Ala ud - Din Khalji. Ala ud - Din began his military career as governor of Kara province, from where he led two raids on Malwa (1292) and Devagiri (1294) for plunder and loot. His military campaigning returned to these lands as well other south Indian kingdoms after he assumed power. He conquered Gujarat, Ranthambore, Chittor, and Malwa. However, these victories were cut short because of Mongol attacks and plunder raids from the northwest. The Mongols withdrew after plundering and stopped raiding northwest parts of the Delhi Sultanate. After the Mongols withdrew, Ala ud - Din Khalji continued expanding the Delhi Sultanate into southern India with the help of generals such as Malik Kafur and Khusro Khan. They collected lots of war booty (anwatan) from those they defeated. His commanders collected war spoils and paid ghanima (Arabic: الْغَنيمَة, a tax on spoils of war), which helped strengthen the Khalji rule. Among the spoils was the Warangal loot that included the famous Koh - i - noor diamond. Ala ud - Din Khalji changed tax policies, raising agriculture taxes from 20 % to 50 % (payable in grain and agricultural produce), eliminating payments and commissions on taxes collected by local chiefs, banned socialization among his officials as well as inter-marriage between noble families to help prevent any opposition forming against him, and he cut salaries of officials, poets, and scholars. These tax policies and spending controls strengthened his treasury to pay the keep of his growing army; he also introduced price controls on all agriculture produce and goods in the kingdom, as well as controls on where, how, and by whom these goods could be sold. Markets called "shahana - i - mandi '' were created. Muslim merchants were granted exclusive permits and monopoly in these "mandis '' to buy and resell at official prices. No one other than these merchants could buy from farmers or sell in cities. Those found violating these "mandi '' rules were severely punished, often by mutilation. Taxes collected in the form of grain were stored in the kingdom 's storage. During famines that followed, these granaries ensured sufficient food for the army. Historians note Ala ud - Din Khalji as being a tyrant. Anyone Ala ud - Din suspected of being a threat to this power was killed along with the women and children of that family. In 1298, between 15,000 and 30,000 people near Delhi, who had recently converted to Islam, were slaughtered in a single day, due to fears of an uprising. He is also known for his cruelty against kingdoms he defeated in battle. After Ala ud - Din 's death in 1316, his eunuch general Malik Kafur, who was born in a Hindu family in India and had converted to Islam, tried to assume power. He lacked the support of Persian and Turkic nobility and was subsequently killed. The last Khalji ruler was Ala ud - Din Khalji 's 18 - year - old son Qutb ud - Din Mubarak Shah Khalji, who ruled for four years before he was killed by Khusro Khan, another of Ala ud - Din 's generals. Khusro Khan 's reign lasted only a few months, when Ghazi Malik, later to be called Ghiyath al - Din Tughlaq, killed him and assumed power in 1320, thus ending the Khalji dynasty and starting the Tughlaq dynasty. The Tughlaq dynasty lasted from 1320 to nearly the end of the 14th century. The first ruler Ghazi Malik rechristened himself as Ghiyath al - Din Tughlaq and is also referred to in scholarly works as Tughlak Shah. He was of Turko - Indian origins; his father was a Turkic slave and his mother was a Hindu. Ghiyath al - Din ruled for five years and built a town near Delhi named Tughlaqabad. According to some historians such as Vincent Smith, he was killed by his son Juna Khan, who then assumed power in 1325. Juna Khan rechristened himself as Muhammad bin Tughlaq and ruled for 26 years. During his rule, Delhi Sultanate reached its peak in terms of geographical reach, covering most of the Indian subcontinent. Muhammad bin Tughlaq was an intellectual, with extensive knowledge of the Quran, Fiqh, poetry and other fields. He was also deeply suspicious of his kinsmen and wazirs (ministers), extremely severe with his opponents, and took decisions that caused economic upheaval. For example, he ordered minting of coins from base metals with face value of silver coins - a decision that failed because ordinary people minted counterfeit coins from base metal they had in their houses and used them to pay taxes and jizya. On another occasion, after becoming upset by some accounts, or to run the Sultanate from the center of India by other accounts, Muhammad bin Tughlaq ordered the transfer of his capital from Delhi to Devagiri in modern - day Maharashtra (renaming it to Daulatabad), by forcing the mass migration of Delhi 's population. Those who refused were killed. One blind person who failed to move to Daulatabad was dragged for the entire journey of 40 days - the man died, his body fell apart, and only his tied leg reached Daulatabad. The capital move failed because Daulatabad was arid and did not have enough drinking water to support the new capital. The capital then returned to Delhi. Nevertheless, Muhammad bin Tughlaq 's orders affected history as a large number of Delhi Muslims who came to the Deccan area did not return to Delhi to live near Muhammad bin Tughlaq. This influx of the then - Delhi residents into the Deccan region led to a growth of Muslim population in central and southern India. Muhammad bin Tughlaq 's adventures in the Deccan region also marked campaigns of destruction and desecration of Hindu and Jain temples, for example the Swayambhu Shiva Temple and the Thousand Pillar Temple. Revolts against Muhammad bin Tughlaq began in 1327, continued over his reign, and over time the geographical reach of the Sultanate shrunk. The Vijayanagara Empire originated in southern India as a direct response to attacks from the Delhi Sultanate., and liberated south India from the Delhi Sultanate 's rule. In 1337, Muhammad bin Tughlaq ordered an attack on China, sending part of his forces over the Himalayas. Few survived the journey, and they were executed upon their return for failing. During his reign, state revenues collapsed from his policies such as the base metal coins from 1329 - 1332. To cover state expenses, he sharply raised taxes. Those who failed to pay taxes were hunted and executed. Famines, widespread poverty, and rebellion grew across the kingdom. In 1338 his own nephew rebelled in Malwa, whom he attacked, caught, and flayed alive. By 1339, the eastern regions under local Muslim governors and southern parts led by Hindu kings had revolted and declared independence from the Delhi Sultanate. Muhammad bin Tughlaq did not have the resources or support to respond to the shrinking kingdom. The historian Walford chronicled Delhi and most of India faced severe famines during Muhammad bin Tughlaq 's rule in the years after the base metal coin experiment. By 1347, the Bahmani Sultanate had become an independent and competing Muslim kingdom in Deccan region of South Asia. Muhammad bin Tughlaq died in 1351 while trying to chase and punish people in Gujarat who were rebelling against the Delhi Sultanate. He was succeeded by Firuz Shah Tughlaq (1351 -- 1388), who tried to regain the old kingdom boundary by waging a war with Bengal for 11 months in 1359. However, Bengal did not fall. Firuz Shah ruled for 37 years. His reign attempted to stabilize the food supply and reduce famines by commissioning an irrigation canal from the Yamuna river. An educated sultan, Firuz Shah left a memoir. In it he wrote that he banned the practice of torture, such as amputations, tearing out of eyes, sawing people alive, crushing people 's bones as punishment, pouring molten lead into throats, setting people on fire, driving nails into hands and feet, among others. He also wrote that he did not tolerate attempts by Rafawiz Shia Muslim and Mahdi sects from proselytizing people into their faith, nor did he tolerate Hindus who tried to rebuild temples that his armies had destroyed. As punishment for proselytizing, Firuz Shah put many Shias, Mahdi, and Hindus to death (siyasat). Firuz Shah Tughlaq also lists his accomplishments to include converting Hindus to Sunni Islam by announcing an exemption from taxes and jizya for those who convert, and by lavishing new converts with presents and honours. Simultaneously, he raised taxes and jizya, assessing it at three levels, and stopping the practice of his predecessors who had historically exempted all Hindu Brahmins from the jizya. He also vastly expanded the number of slaves in his service and those of Muslim nobles. The reign of Firuz Shah Tughlaq was marked by reduction in extreme forms of torture, eliminating favours to select parts of society, but also increased intolerance and persecution of targeted groups. The death of Firuz Shah Tughlaq created anarchy and disintegration of the kingdom. The last rulers of this dynasty both called themselves Sultan from 1394 to 1397: Nasir ud - Din Mahmud Shah Tughlaq, the grandson of Firuz Shah Tughlaq who ruled from Delhi, and Nasir ud - Din Nusrat Shah Tughlaq, another relative of Firuz Shah Tughlaq who ruled from Firozabad, which was a few miles from Delhi. The battle between the two relatives continued till Timur 's invasion in 1398. Timur, also known as Tamerlane in Western scholarly literature, was the Turkic ruler of the Timurid Empire. He became aware of the weakness and quarreling of the rulers of the Delhi Sultanate, so he marched with his army to Delhi, plundering and killing all the way. Estimates for the massacre by Timur in Dehli range from 100,000 to 200,000 people. Timur had no intention of staying in or ruling India. He looted the lands he crossed, then plundered and burnt Delhi. Over five days, Timur and his army raged a massacre. Then he collected and carried the wealth, captured women and slaves (particularly skilled artisans), and returned to Samarkand. The people and lands within the Delhi Sultanate were left in a state of anarchy, chaos, and pestilence. Nasir ud - Din Mahmud Shah Tughlaq, who had fled to Gujarat during Timur 's invasion, returned and nominally ruled as the last ruler of Tughlaq dynasty, as a puppet of various factions at the court. The Sayyid dynasty was a Turkic dynasty that ruled the Delhi Sultanate from 1415 to 1451. The Timurid invasion and plunder had left the Delhi Sultanate in shambles, and little is known about the rule by the Sayyid dynasty. Annemarie Schimmel notes the first ruler of the dynasty as Khizr Khan, who assumed power by claiming to represent Timur. His authority was questioned even by those near Delhi. His successor was Mubarak Khan, who rechristened himself as Mubarak Shah and tried to regain lost territories in Punjab, unsuccessfully. With the power of the Sayyid dynasty faltering, Islam 's history on the Indian subcontinent underwent a profound change, according to Schimmel. The previously dominant Sunni sect of Islam became diluted, alternate Muslim sects such as Shia rose, and new competing centers of Islamic culture took roots beyond Delhi. The Sayyid dynasty was displaced by the Lodi dynasty in 1451. The Lodi dynasty belonged to the Pashtun (Afghan) Lodi tribe. Bahlul Khan Lodi started the Lodi dynasty and was the first Pashtun, to rule the Delhi Sultanate. Bahlul Lodi began his reign by attacking the Muslim Jaunpur Sultanate to expand the influence of the Delhi Sultanate, and was partially successful through a treaty. Thereafter, the region from Delhi to Varanasi (then at the border of Bengal province), was back under influence of Delhi Sultanate. After Bahlul Lodi died, his son Nizam Khan assumed power, rechristened himself as Sikandar Lodi and ruled from 1489 to 1517. One of the better known rulers of the dynasty, Sikandar Lodi expelled his brother Barbak Shah from Jaunpur, installed his son Jalal Khan as the ruler, then proceeded east to make claims on Bihar. The Muslim governors of Bihar agreed to pay tribute and taxes, but operated independent of the Delhi Sultanate. Sikandar Lodi led a campaign of destruction of temples, particularly around Mathura. He also moved his capital and court from Delhi to Agra, an ancient Hindu city that had been destroyed during the plunder and attacks of the early Delhi Sultanate period. Sikandar thus erected buildings with Indo - Islamic architecture in Agra during his rule, and the growth of Agra continued during the Mughal Empire, after the end of Delhi Sultanate. Sikandar Lodi died a natural death in 1517, and his second son Ibrahim Lodi assumed power. Ibrahim did not enjoy the support of Afghan and Persian nobles or regional chiefs. Ibrahim attacked and killed his elder brother Jalal Khan, who was installed as the governor of Jaunpur by his father and had the support of the amirs and chiefs. Ibrahim Lodi was unable to consolidate his power, and after Jalal Khan 's death, the governor of Punjab, Daulat Khan Lodi, reached out to the Mughal Babur and invited him to attack Delhi Sultanate. Babur defeated and killed Ibrahim Lodi in the Battle of Panipat in 1526. The death of Ibrahim Lodi ended the Delhi Sultanate, and the Mughal Empire replaced it. Before and during the Delhi Sultanate, Islamic civilization was the most cosmopolitan civilization of the Middle Ages. It had a multicultural and pluralistic society, and wide - ranging international networks, including social and economic networks, spanning large parts of Afro - Eurasia, leading to escalating circulation of goods, peoples, technologies and ideas. While initially disruptive due to the passing of power from native Indian elites to Turkic Muslim elites, the Delhi Sultanate was responsible for integrating the Indian subcontinent into a growing world system, drawing India into a wider international network, which led to cultural and social enrichment in the Indian subcontinent. Economist Angus Maddison has estimated that, during the Medieval Delhi Sultanate era, between 1000 and 1500, India 's GDP grew nearly 80 % up to $60.5 billion in 1500. The worm gear roller cotton gin was invented in the Indian subcontinent during the early Delhi Sultanate era of the 13th -- 14th centuries, and is still used in India through to the present day. Another innovation, the incorporation of the crank handle in the cotton gin, first appeared in the Indian subcontinent some time during the late Delhi Sultanate or the early Mughal Empire. The production of cotton, which may have largely been spun in the villages and then taken to towns in the form of yarn to be woven into cloth textiles, was advanced by the diffusion of the spinning wheel across India during the Delhi Sultanate era, lowering the costs of yarn and helping to increase demand for cotton. The diffusion of the spinning wheel, and the incorporation of the worm gear and crank handle into the roller cotton gin, led to greatly expanded Indian cotton textile production. The Indian population had largely been stagnant at 75 million during the Middle Kingdoms era from 1 AD to 1000 AD. During the Medieval Delhi Sultanate era from 1000 to 1500, India experienced lasting population growth for the first time in a thousand years, with its population increasing nearly 50 % to 110 million by 1500 AD. While the Indian subcontinent has had invaders from Central Asia since ancient times, what made the Muslim invasions different is that unlike the preceding invaders who assimilated into the prevalent social system, the successful Muslim conquerors retained their Islamic identity and created new legal and administrative systems that challenged and usually in many cases superseded the existing systems of social conduct and ethics, even influencing the non-Muslim rivals and common masses to a large extent, though the non-Muslim population was left to their own laws and customs. They also introduced new cultural codes that in some ways were very different from the existing cultural codes. This led to the rise of a new Indian culture which was mixed in nature, different from ancient Indian culture. The overwhelming majority of Muslims in India were Indian natives converted to Islam. This factor also played an important role in the synthesis of cultures. The Hindustani language (Hindi - Urdu) began to emerge in the Delhi Sultanate period, developed from the Middle Indo - Aryan apabhramsha vernaculars of North India. Amir Khusro, who lived in the 13th century CE during the Delhi Sultanate period in North India, used a form of Hindustani, which was the lingua franca of the period, in his writings and referred to it as Hindavi. The bulk of Delhi Sultanate 's army consisted of nomadic Turkic Mamluk military slaves, who were skilled in nomadic cavalry warfare. A major military contribution of the Delhi Sultanate was their successful campaigns in repelling the Mongol Empire 's invasions of India, which could have been devastating for the Indian subcontinent, like the Mongol invasions of China, Persia and Europe. The Delhi Sultanate 's Mamluk army were skilled in the same style of nomadic cavalry warfare used by the Mongols, making them successful in repelling the Mongol invasions, as was the case for the Mamluk Sultanate of Egypt. Were it not for the Delhi Sultanate, it is possible that the Mongol Empire may have been successful in invading India. The strength of the armies changes according to time. According to firishta during the battle of kili Alauddin led an army of 300,000 cavalry and 2,700 elephants. During the tughlaq period Muhammad bin tughlaq rose an army of 3 million. The soldiers used weapons such as swords, spears, shields etc. Armour such as steel helmet and chainmail was commonly used. Armored war elephants were effectively used against the enemies such as the Mongols. Historian Richard Eaton has tabulated a campaign of destruction of idols and temples by Delhi Sultans, intermixed with instances of years where the temples were protected from desecration. In his paper, he has listed 37 instances of Hindu temples being desecrated or destroyed in India during the Delhi Sultanate, from 1234 to 1518, for which reasonable evidences are available. He notes that this was not unusual in medieval India, as there were numerous recorded instances of temple desecration by Hindu and Buddhist kings against rival Indian kingdoms between 642 and 1520, involving conflict between devotees of different Hindu deities, as well as between Hindus, Buddhists and Jains. He also noted there were also many instances of Delhi sultans, who often had Hindu ministers, ordering the protection, maintenance and repairing of temples, according to both Muslim and Hindu sources. For example, a Sanskrit inscription notes that Sultan Muhammad bin Tughluq repaired a Siva temple in Bidar after his Deccan conquest. There was often a pattern of Delhi sultans plundering or damaging temples during conquest, and then patronizing or repairing temples after conquest. This pattern came to an end with the Mughal Empire, where Akbar the Great 's chief minister Abu'l - Fazl criticized the excesses of earlier sultans such as Mahmud of Ghazni. In many cases, the demolished remains, rocks and broken statue pieces of temples destroyed by Delhi sultans were reused to build mosques and other buildings. For example, the Qutb complex in Delhi was built from stones of 27 demolished Hindu and Jain temples by some accounts. Similarly, the Muslim mosque in Khanapur, Maharashtra was built from the looted parts and demolished remains of Hindu temples. Muhammad bin Bakhtiyar Khalji destroyed Buddhist and Hindu libraries and their manuscripts at Nalanda and Odantapuri Universities in 1193 AD at the beginning of the Delhi Sultanate. The first historical record of a campaign of destruction of temples and defacement of faces or heads of Hindu idols lasted from 1193 through the early 13th century in Rajasthan, Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh under the command of Ghuri. Under the Khaljis, the campaign of temple desecration expanded to Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Maharashtra, and continued through the late 13th century. The campaign extended to Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu under Malik Kafur and Ulugh Khan in the 14th century, and by the Bahmanis in 15th century. Orissa temples were destroyed in the 14th century under the Tughlaqs. Beyond destruction and desecration, the sultans of the Delhi Sultanate in some cases had forbidden reconstruction of damaged Hindu, Jain and Buddhist temples, and they prohibited repairs of old temples or construction of any new temples. In certain cases, the Sultanate would grant a permit for repairs and construction of temples if the patron or religious community paid jizya (fee, tax). For example, a proposal by the Chinese to repair Himalayan Buddhist temples destroyed by the Sultanate army was refused, on the grounds that such temple repairs were only allowed if the Chinese agreed to pay jizya tax to the treasury of the Sultanate. In his memoirs, Firoz Shah Tughlaq describes how he destroyed temples and built mosques instead and killed those who dared build new temples. Other historical records from wazirs, amirs and the court historians of various Sultans of the Delhi Sultanate describe the grandeur of idols and temples they witnessed in their campaigns and how these were destroyed and desecrated.

4. why is parthenogenesis and hermaphroditism important to the evolution of some species

Parthenogenesis - wikipedia Parthenogenesis (/ ˌpɑːrθɪnoʊˈdʒɛnɪsɪs, - θɪnə - /; from the Greek παρθένος parthenos, "virgin '', + γένεσις genesis, "creation '') is a natural form of asexual reproduction in which growth and development of embryos occur without fertilization. In animals, parthenogenesis means development of an embryo from an unfertilized egg cell. In plants parthenogenesis is a component process of apomixis. Parthenogenesis occurs naturally in some plants, some invertebrate animal species (including nematodes, water fleas, some scorpions, aphids, some mites, some bees, some Phasmida and parasitic wasps) and a few vertebrates (such as some fish, amphibians, reptiles and very rarely birds). This type of reproduction has been induced artificially in a few species including fish and amphibians. Normal egg cells form after meiosis and are haploid, with half as many chromosomes as their mother 's body cells. Haploid individuals, however, are usually non-viable, and parthenogenetic offspring usually have the diploid chromosome number. Depending on the mechanism involved in restoring the diploid number of chromosomes, parthenogenetic offspring may have anywhere between all and half of the mother 's alleles. The offspring having all of the mother 's genetic material are called full clones and those having only half are called half clones. Full clones are usually formed without meiosis. If meiosis occurs, the offspring will get only a fraction of the mother 's alleles since crossing over of DNA takes place during meiosis, creating variation. Parthenogenetic offspring in species that use either the XY or the X0 sex - determination system have two X chromosomes and are female. In species that use the ZW sex - determination system, they have either two Z chromosomes (male) or two W chromosomes (mostly non-viable but rarely a female), or they could have one Z and one W chromosome (female). Some species reproduce exclusively by parthenogenesis (such as the Bdelloid rotifers), while others can switch between sexual reproduction and parthenogenesis. This is called facultative parthenogenesis (other terms are cyclical parthenogenesis, heterogamy or heterogony). The switch between sexuality and parthenogenesis in such species may be triggered by the season (aphid, some gall wasps), or by a lack of males or by conditions that favour rapid population growth (rotifers and cladocerans like daphnia). In these species asexual reproduction occurs either in summer (aphids) or as long as conditions are favourable. This is because in asexual reproduction a successful genotype can spread quickly without being modified by sex or wasting resources on male offspring who wo n't give birth. In times of stress, offspring produced by sexual reproduction may be fitter as they have new, possibly beneficial gene combinations. In addition, sexual reproduction provides the benefit of meiotic recombination between non-sister chromosomes, a process associated with repair of DNA double - strand breaks and other DNA damages that may be induced by stressful conditions. (See also Meiosis section: Origin and function of meiosis.) Many taxa with heterogony have within them species that have lost the sexual phase and are now completely asexual. Many other cases of obligate parthenogenesis (or gynogenesis) are found among polyploids and hybrids where the chromosomes can not pair for meiosis. The production of female offspring by parthenogenesis is referred to as thelytoky (e.g., aphids) while the production of males by parthenogenesis is referred to as arrhenotoky (e.g., bees). When unfertilized eggs develop into both males and females, the phenomenon is called deuterotoky. Parthenogenesis can occur without meiosis through mitotic oogenesis. This is called apomictic parthenogenesis. Mature egg cells are produced by mitotic divisions, and these cells directly develop into embryos. In flowering plants, cells of the gametophyte can undergo this process. The offspring produced by apomictic parthenogenesis are full clones of their mother. Examples include aphids. Parthenogenesis involving meiosis is more complicated. In some cases, the offspring are haploid (e.g., male ants). In other cases, collectively called automictic parthenogenesis, the ploidy is restored to diploidy by various means. This is because haploid individuals are not viable in most species. In automictic parthenogenesis the offspring differ from one another and from their mother. They are called half clones of their mother. Automixis is a term that covers several reproductive mechanisms, some of which are parthenogenetic. Diploidy might be restored by the doubling of the chromosomes without cell division before meiosis begins or after meiosis is completed. This is referred to as an endomitotic cycle. This may also happen by the fusion of the first two blastomeres. Other species restore their ploidy by the fusion of the meiotic products. The chromosomes may not separate at one of the two anaphases (called restitutional meiosis), or the nuclei produced may fuse or one of the polar bodies may fuse with the egg cell at some stage during its maturation. Some authors consider all forms of automixis sexual as they involve recombination. Many others classify the endomitotic variants as asexual, and consider the resulting embryos parthenogenetic. Among these authors the threshold for classifying automixis as a sexual process depends on when the products of anaphase I or of anaphase II are joined together. The criterion for "sexuality '' varies from all cases of restitutional meiosis, to those where the nuclei fuse or to only those where gametes are mature at the time of fusion. Those cases of automixis that are classified as sexual reproduction are compared to self - fertilization in their mechanism and consequences. The genetic composition of the offspring depends on what type of apomixis takes place. When endomitosis occurs before meiosis or when central fusion occurs (restitutional meiosis of anaphase I or the fusion of its products), the offspring get all to more than half of the mother 's genetic material and heterozygosity is mostly preserved (if the mother has two alleles for a locus, it is likely that the offspring will get both). This is because in anaphase I the homologous chromosomes are separated. Heterozygosity is not completely preserved when crossing over occurs in central fusion. In the case of pre-meiotic doubling, recombination - if it happens - occurs between identical sister chromatids. If terminal fusion (restitutional meiosis of anaphase II or the fusion of its products) occurs, a little over half the mother 's genetic material is present in the offspring and the offspring are mostly homozygous. This is because at anaphase II the sister chromatids are separated and whatever heterozygosity is present is due to crossing over. In the case of endomitosis after meiosis the offspring is completely homozygous and has only half the mother 's genetic material. This can result in parthenogenetic offspring being unique from each other and from their mother. In apomictic parthenogenesis, the offspring are clones of the mother and hence (except for aphids) are usually female. In the case of aphids, parthenogenetically produced males and females are clones of their mother except that the males lack one of the X chromosomes (XO). When meiosis is involved, the sex of the offspring will depend on the type of sex determination system and the type of apomixis. In species that use the XY sex - determination system, parthenogenetic offspring will have two X chromosomes and are female. In species that use the ZW sex - determination system the offspring genotype may be one of ZW (female), ZZ (male), or WW (non-viable in most species but a fertile, viable female in a few (e.g., boas)). ZW offspring are produced by endoreplication before meiosis or by central fusion. ZZ and WW offspring occur either by terminal fusion or by endomitosis in the egg cell. In polyploid obligate parthenogens like the whiptail lizard, all the offspring are female. In many hymenopteran insects such as honeybees, female eggs are produced sexually, using sperm from a drone father, while the production of further drones (males) depends on the queen (and occasionally workers) producing unfertilised eggs. This means that females (workers and queens) are always diploid, while males (drones) are always haploid, and produced parthenogenetically. Facultative parthenogenesis is the term for when a female can produce offspring either sexually or via asexual reproduction. Facultative parthenogenesis is extremely rare in nature, with only a few examples of animal taxa capable of facultative parthenogenesis. One of the best known examples of taxa exhibiting facultative parthenogenesis are mayflies; presumably this is the default reproductive mode of all species in this insect order. Facultative parthenogenesis is believed to be a response to a lack of a viable male. A female may undergo facultative parthenogenesis if a male is absent from the habitat or if it is unable to produce viable offspring. Facultative parthenogenesis is often incorrectly used to describe cases of accidental or spontaneous parthenogenesis in normally sexual animals. For example, many cases of accidental parthenogenesis in sharks, some snakes, Komodo dragons and a variety of domesticated birds were widely perpetuated as facultative parthenogenesis. These cases are, however, examples of accidental parthenogenesis, given the frequency of asexually produced eggs and their hatching rates are extremely low, in contrast to true facultative parthenogenesis where the majority of asexually produced eggs hatch. The occurrence of such asexually produced eggs in sexual animals can be explained by a meiotic error, leading to eggs produced via automixis. Obligate parthenogenesis is the process in which organisms exclusively reproduce through asexual means. Many species have been shown to transition to obligate parthenogenesis over evolutionary time. Among these species, one of the most well documented transitions to obligate parthenogenesis was found in almost all metazoan taxa, albeit through highly diverse mechanisms. These transitions often occur as a result of inbreeding or mutation within large populations. There are a number of documented species, specifically salamanders and geckos, that rely on obligate parthenogenesis as their major method of reproduction. As such, there are over 80 species of unisex reptiles (mostly lizards but including a single snake species), amphibians and fishes in nature for which males are no longer a part of the reproductive process. A female will produce an ovum with a full set (two sets of genes) provided solely by the mother. Thus, a male is not needed to provide sperm to fertilize the egg. This form of asexual reproduction is thought in some cases to be a serious threat to biodiversity for the subsequent lack of gene variation and potentially decreased fitness of the offspring. Some invertebrate species that feature (partial) sexual reproduction in their native range are found to reproduce solely by parthenogenesis in areas to which they have been introduced. Relying solely on parthenogenetic reproduction has several advantages for an invasive species: it obviates the need for individuals in a very sparse initial population to search for mates, and an exclusively female sex distribution allows a population to multiply and invade more rapidly, potentially up to twice as fast. Examples include several aphid species and the willow sawfly, Nematus oligospilus, which is sexual in its native Holarctic habitat but parthenogenetic where it has been introduced into the Southern Hemisphere. Parthenogenesis is seen to occur naturally in aphids, Daphnia, rotifers, nematodes and some other invertebrates, as well as in many plants. Among vertebrates, strict parthenogenesis is only known to occur in lizards, snakes, birds and sharks, with fish, amphibians and reptiles exhibiting various forms of gynogenesis and hybridogenesis (an incomplete form of parthenogenesis). The first all - female (unisexual) reproduction in vertebrates was described in the fish Poecilia formosa in 1932. Since then at least 50 species of unisexual vertebrate have been described, including at least 20 fish, 25 lizards, a single snake species, frogs, and salamanders. Other, usually sexual, species may occasionally reproduce parthenogenetically and Komodo dragons; the hammerhead and blacktip sharks are recent additions to the known list of spontaneous parthenogenetic vertebrates. As with all types of asexual reproduction, there are both costs (low genetic diversity and therefore susceptibility to adverse mutations that might occur) and benefits (reproduction without the need for a male) associated with parthenogenesis. Parthenogenesis is distinct from artificial animal cloning, a process where the new organism is necessarily genetically identical to the cell donor. In cloning, the nucleus of a diploid cell from a donor organism is inserted into an enucleated egg cell and the cell is then stimulated to undergo continued mitosis, resulting in an organism that is genetically identical to the donor. Parthenogenesis is different, in that it originates from the genetic material contained within an egg cell and the new organism is not necessarily genetically identical to the parent. Parthenogenesis may be achieved through an artificial process as described below under the discussion of mammals. Parthenogenesis in insects can cover a wide range of mechanisms. The offspring produced by parthenogenesis may be of both sexes, only female (thelytoky, e.g. aphids and some hymenopterans) or only male (arrhenotoky, e.g. most hymenopterans). Both true parthenogenesis and pseudogamy (gynogenesis or sperm - dependent parthenogenesis) are known to occur. The egg cells, depending on the species may be produced without meiosis (apomictically) or by one of the several automictic mechanisms. A related phenomenon, polyembryony is a process that produces multiple clonal offspring from a single egg cell. This is known in some hymenopteran parasitoids and in Strepsiptera. In automictic species the offspring can be haploid or diploid. Diploids are produced by doubling or fusion of gametes after meiosis. Fusion is seen in the Phasmatodea, Hemiptera (Aleurodids and Coccidae), Diptera, and some Hymenoptera. In addition to these forms is hermaphroditism, where both the eggs and sperm are produced by the same individual, but is not a type of parthenogenesis. This is seen in three species of Icerya scale insects. Parasitic bacteria like Wolbachia have been noted to induce automictic thelytoky in many insect species with haplodiploid systems. They also cause gamete duplication in unfertilized eggs causing them to develop into female offspring. Among species with the haplo - diploid sex - determination system, such as hymenopterans (ants, bees and wasps) and thysanopterans (thrips), haploid males are produced from unfertilized eggs. Usually eggs are laid only by the queen, but the unmated workers may also lay haploid, male eggs either regularly (e.g. stingless bees) or under special circumstances. An example of non-viable parthenogenesis is common among domesticated honey bees. The queen bee is the only fertile female in the hive; if she dies without the possibility for a viable replacement queen, it is not uncommon for the worker bees to lay eggs. This is a result of the lack of the queen 's pheromones and the pheromones secreted by uncapped brood, which normally suppress ovarian development in workers. Worker bees are unable to mate, and the unfertilized eggs produce only drones (males), which can mate only with a queen. Thus, in a relatively short period, all the worker bees die off, and the new drones follow if they have not been able to mate before the collapse of the colony. This behaviour is believed to have evolved to allow a doomed colony to produce drones which may mate with a virgin queen and thus preserve the colony 's genetic progeny. A few ants and bees are capable of producing diploid female offspring parthenogenetically. These include a honey bee subspecies from South Africa, Apis mellifera capensis, where workers are capable of producing diploid eggs parthenogenetically, and replacing the queen if she dies; other examples include some species of small carpenter bee, (genus Ceratina). Many parasitic wasps are known to be parthenogenetic, sometimes due to infections by Wolbachia. The workers in five ant species and the queens in some ants are known to reproduce by parthenogenesis. In Cataglyphis cursor, a European formicine ant, the queens and workers can produce new queens by parthenogenesis. The workers are produced sexually. In Central and South American electric ants, Wasmannia auropunctata, queens produce more queens through automictic parthenogenesis with central fusion. Sterile workers usually are produced from eggs fertilized by males. In some of the eggs fertilized by males, however, the fertilization can cause the female genetic material to be ablated from the zygote. In this way, males pass on only their genes to become fertile male offspring. This is the first recognized example of an animal species where both females and males can reproduce clonally resulting in a complete separation of male and female gene pools. As a consequence, the males will only have fathers and the queens only mothers, while the sterile workers are the only ones with both parents of both genders. These ants get both the benefits of both asexual and sexual reproduction -- the daughters who can reproduce (the queens) have all of the mother 's genes, while the sterile workers whose physical strength and disease resistance are important are produced sexually. Other examples of insect parthenogenesis can be found in gall - forming aphids (e.g., Pemphigus betae), where females reproduce parthenogenetically during the gall - forming phase of their life cycle and in grass thrips. In the grass thrips genus Aptinothrips there have been, despite the very limited number of species in the genus, several transitions to asexuality. Crustacean reproduction varies both across and within species. The water flea Daphnia pulex alternates between sexual and parthenogenetic reproduction. Among the better - known large decapod crustaceans, some crayfish reproduce by parthenogensis. "Marmorkrebs '' are parthenogenetic crayfish that were discovered in the pet trade in the 1990s. Offspring are genetically identical to the parent, indicating it reproduces by apomixis, i.e. parthenogenesis in which the eggs did not undergo meiosis. Spinycheek crayfish (Orconectes limosus) can reproduce both sexually and by parthenogenesis. The Louisiana red swamp crayfish (Procambarus clarkii), which normally reproduces sexually, has also been suggested to reproduce by parthenogenesis, although no individuals of this species have been reared this way in the lab. Artemia parthenogenetica is a species or series of populations of parthenogenetic brine shrimps. No males of Epiperipatus imthurni have been found, and specimens from Trinidad were shown to reproduce parthenogenetically. This species is the only known velvet worm to reproduce via parthenogenesis. At least two species of spiders in the family Oonopidae (goblin spiders), Heteroonops spinimanus and Triaeris stenaspis, are thought to be parthenogenetic, as no males have ever been collected. Parthenogenetic reproduction has been demonstrated in the laboratory for T. stenaspis. In bdelloid rotifers, females reproduce exclusively by parthenogenesis (obligate parthenogenesis), while in monogonont rotifers, females can alternate between sexual and asexual reproduction (cyclical parthenogenesis). At least in one normally cyclical parthenogenetic species obligate parthenogenesis can be inherited: a recessive allele leads to loss of sexual reproduction in homozygous offspring. At least two species in the genus Dugesia, flatworms in the Turbellaria sub-division of the phylum Platyhelminthes, include polyploid individuals that reproduce by parthenogenesis. This type of parthenogenesis requires mating, but the sperm does not contribute to the genetics of the offspring (the parthenogenesis is pseudogamous, alternatively referred to as gynogenetic). A complex cycle of matings between diploid sexual and polyploid parthenogenetic individuals produces new parthenogenetic lines. Several species of parthenogenetic gastropods have been studied, especially with respect to their status as invasive species. Such species include the New Zealand mud snail (Potamopyrgus antipodarum), the red - rimmed melania (Melanoides tuberculata), and the Quilted melania (Tarebia granifera). Most reptiles of the squamatan order (lizards and snakes) reproduce sexually, but parthenogenesis has been observed to occur naturally in certain species of whiptails, some geckos, rock lizards, Komodo dragons and snakes. Some of these like the mourning gecko Lepidodactylus lugubris, Indo - Pacific house gecko Hemidactylus garnotii, the hybrid whiptails Cnemidophorus, Caucasian rock lizards Darevskia, and the brahminy blindsnake, Indotyphlops braminus are unisexual and obligately parthenogenetic. Other reptiles, such as the Komodo dragon, other monitor lizards, and some species of boas, pythons, filesnakes, gartersnakes and rattlesnakes were previously considered as cases of facultative parthenogenesis, but are in fact cases of accidental parthenogenesis. In 2012, facultative parthenogenesis was reported in wild vertebrates for the first time by US researchers amongst captured pregnant copperhead and cottonmouth female pit - vipers. The Komodo dragon, which normally reproduces sexually, has also been found able to reproduce asexually by parthenogenesis. A case has been documented of a Komodo dragon reproducing via sexual reproduction after a known parthenogenetic event, highlighting that these cases of parthenogenesis are reproductive accidents, rather than adaptive, facultative parthenogenesis. Some reptile species use a ZW chromosome system, which produces either males (ZZ) or females (ZW). Until 2010, it was thought that the ZW chromosome system used by reptiles was incapable of producing viable WW offspring, but a (ZW) female boa constrictor was discovered to have produced viable female offspring with WW chromosomes. Parthenogenesis has been studied extensively in the New Mexico whiptail in the genus Cnemidophorus (also known as Aspidoscelis) of which 15 species reproduce exclusively by parthenogenesis. These lizards live in the dry and sometimes harsh climate of the southwestern United States and northern Mexico. All these asexual species appear to have arisen through the hybridization of two or three of the sexual species in the genus leading to polyploid individuals. The mechanism by which the mixing of chromosomes from two or three species can lead to parthenogenetic reproduction is unknown. Recently, a hybrid parthenogenetic whiptail lizard was bred in the laboratory from a cross between an asexual and a sexual whiptail. Because multiple hybridization events can occur, individual parthenogenetic whiptail species can consist of multiple independent asexual lineages. Within lineages, there is very little genetic diversity, but different lineages may have quite different genotypes. An interesting aspect to reproduction in these asexual lizards is that mating behaviors are still seen, although the populations are all female. One female plays the role played by the male in closely related species, and mounts the female that is about to lay eggs. This behaviour is due to the hormonal cycles of the females, which cause them to behave like males shortly after laying eggs, when levels of progesterone are high, and to take the female role in mating before laying eggs, when estrogen dominates. Lizards who act out the courtship ritual have greater fecundity than those kept in isolation, due to the increase in hormones that accompanies the mounting. So, although the populations lack males, they still require sexual behavioral stimuli for maximum reproductive success. Some lizard parthenogens show a pattern of geographic parthenogenesis, occupying high mountain areas where their ancestral forms have an inferior competition ability. In Caucasian rock lizards of genus Darevskia, which have six parthenogenetic forms of hybrid origin hybrid parthenogenetic form D. "dahli '' has a broader niche than either of its bisexual ancestors and its expansion throughout the Central Lesser Caucasus caused decline of the ranges of both its maternal and paternal species. Parthenogenesis in sharks has been confirmed in at least three species, the bonnethead, the blacktip shark, and the zebra shark, and reported in others. A bonnethead, a type of small hammerhead shark, was found to have produced a pup, born live on 14 December 2001 at Henry Doorly Zoo in Nebraska, in a tank containing three female hammerheads, but no males. The pup was thought to have been conceived through parthenogenic means. The shark pup was apparently killed by a stingray within days of birth. The investigation of the birth was conducted by the research team from Queen 's University Belfast, Southeastern University in Florida, and Henry Doorly Zoo itself, and it was concluded after DNA testing that the reproduction was parthenogenic. The testing showed the female pup 's DNA matched only one female who lived in the tank, and that no male DNA was present in the pup. The pup was not a twin or clone of her mother, but rather, contained only half of her mother 's DNA ("automictic parthenogenesis ''). This type of reproduction had been seen before in bony fish, but never in cartilaginous fish such as sharks, until this documentation. In the same year, a female Atlantic blacktip shark in Virginia reproduced via parthenogenesis. On 10 October 2008 scientists confirmed the second case of a virgin birth in a shark. The Journal of Fish Biology reported a study in which scientists said DNA testing proved that a pup carried by a female Atlantic blacktip shark in the Virginia Aquarium & Marine Science Center contained no genetic material from a male. In 2002, two white - spotted bamboo sharks were born at the Belle Isle Aquarium in Detroit. They hatched 15 weeks after being laid. The births baffled experts as the mother shared an aquarium with only one other shark, which was female. The female bamboo sharks had laid eggs in the past. This is not unexpected, as many animals will lay eggs even if there is not a male to fertilize them. Normally, the eggs are assumed to be inviable and are discarded. This batch of eggs was left undisturbed by the curator as he had heard about the previous birth in 2001 in Nebraska and wanted to observe whether they would hatch. Other possibilities had been considered for the birth of the Detroit bamboo sharks including thoughts that the sharks had been fertilized by a male and stored the sperm for a period of time, as well as the possibility that the Belle Isle bamboo shark is a hermaphrodite, harboring both male and female sex organs, and capable of fertilizing its own eggs, but that is not confirmed. In 2008, a Hungarian aquarium had another case of parthenogenesis after its lone female shark produced a pup without ever having come into contact with a male shark. The repercussions of parthenogenesis in sharks, which fails to increase the genetic diversity of the offspring, is a matter of concern for shark experts, taking into consideration conservation management strategies for this species, particularly in areas where there may be a shortage of males due to fishing or environmental pressures. Although parthenogenesis may help females who can not find mates, it does reduce genetic diversity. In 2011, recurring shark parthenogenesis over several years was demonstrated in a captive zebra shark, a type of carpet shark. DNA genotyping demonstrated that individual zebra sharks can switch from sexual to parthenogenetic reproduction. Parthenogenesis in birds is known mainly from studies of domesticated turkeys and chickens, although it has also been noted in the domestic pigeon. In most cases the egg fails to develop normally or completely to hatching. The first description of parthenogenetic development in a passerine was demonstrated in captive zebra finches, although the dividing cells exhibited irregular nuclei and the eggs did not hatch. Parthenogenesis in turkeys appears to result from a conversion of haploid cells to diploid; most embryos produced in this way die early in development. Rarely, viable birds result from this process, and the rate at which this occurs in turkeys can be increased by selective breeding, however male turkeys produced from parthenogenesis exhibit smaller testes and reduced fertility. There are no known cases of naturally occurring mammalian parthenogenesis in the wild. Parthenogenetic progeny of mammals would have two X chromosomes, and would therefore be female. In 1936, Gregory Goodwin Pincus reported successfully inducing parthenogenesis in a rabbit. Helen Spurway, a geneticist specializing in the reproductive biology of the guppy, Lebistes reticulatus, claimed, in 1955, that parthenogenesis, which occurs in the guppy in nature, may also occur (though very rarely) in the human species, leading to so - called "virgin births. '' This created some sensation among her colleagues and the lay public alike. In April 2004, scientists at Tokyo University of Agriculture used parthenogenesis successfully to create a fatherless mouse. Using gene targeting, they were able to manipulate two imprinted loci H19 / IGF2 and DLK1 / MEG3 to produce bi-maternal mice at high frequency and subsequently show that fatherless mice have enhanced longevity. Induced parthenogenesis in mice and monkeys often results in abnormal development. This is because mammals have imprinted genetic regions, where either the maternal or the paternal chromosome is inactivated in the offspring in order for development to proceed normally. A mammal created by parthenogenesis would have double doses of maternally imprinted genes and lack paternally imprinted genes, leading to developmental abnormalities. It has been suggested that defects in placental folding or interdigitation are one cause of swine parthenote abortive development. As a consequence, research on human parthenogenesis is focused on the production of embryonic stem cells for use in medical treatment, not as a reproductive strategy. Use of an electrical or chemical stimulus can produce the beginning of the process of parthenogenesis in the asexual development of viable offspring. During oocyte development, high metaphase promoting factor (MPF) activity causes mammalian oocytes to arrest at the metaphase II stage until fertilization by a sperm. The fertilization event causes intracellular calcium oscillations, and targeted degradation of cyclin B, a regulatory subunit of MPF, thus permitting the MII - arrested oocyte to proceed through meiosis. To initiate parthenogenesis of swine oocytes, various methods exist to induce an artificial activation that mimics sperm entry, such as calcium ionophore treatment, microinjection of calcium ions, or electrical stimulation. Treatment with cycloheximide, a non-specific protein synthesis inhibitor, enhances parthenote development in swine presumably by continual inhibition of MPF / cyclin B. As meiosis proceeds, extrusion of the second polar is blocked by exposure to cytochalasin B. This treatment results in a diploid (2 maternal genomes) parthenote Parthenotes can be surgically transferred to a recipient oviduct for further development, but will succumb to developmental failure after ≈ 30 days of gestation. The swine parthenote placentae often appears hypo - vascular: see free image (Figure 1) in linked reference. On June 26, 2007, International Stem Cell Corporation (ISCC), a California - based stem cell research company, announced that their lead scientist, Dr. Elena Revazova, and her research team were the first to intentionally create human stem cells from unfertilized human eggs using parthenogenesis. The process may offer a way for creating stem cells that are genetically matched to a particular female for the treatment of degenerative diseases that might affect her. In December 2007, Dr. Revazova and ISCC published an article illustrating a breakthrough in the use of parthenogenesis to produce human stem cells that are homozygous in the HLA region of DNA. These stem cells are called HLA homozygous parthenogenetic human stem cells (hpSC - Hhom) and have unique characteristics that would allow derivatives of these cells to be implanted into millions of people without immune rejection. With proper selection of oocyte donors according to HLA haplotype, it is possible to generate a bank of cell lines whose tissue derivatives, collectively, could be MHC - matched with a significant number of individuals within the human population. On August 2, 2007, after much independent investigation, it was revealed that discredited South Korean scientist Hwang Woo - Suk unknowingly produced the first human embryos resulting from parthenogenesis. Initially, Hwang claimed he and his team had extracted stem cells from cloned human embryos, a result later found to be fabricated. Further examination of the chromosomes of these cells show indicators of parthenogenesis in those extracted stem cells, similar to those found in the mice created by Tokyo scientists in 2004. Although Hwang deceived the world about being the first to create artificially cloned human embryos, he did contribute a major breakthrough to stem cell research by creating human embryos using parthenogenesis. The truth was discovered in 2007, long after the embryos were created by him and his team in February 2004. This made Hwang the first, unknowingly, to successfully perform the process of parthenogenesis to create a human embryon and, ultimately, a human parthenogenetic stem cell line. Apomixis can apparently occur in Phytophthora, an oomycete. Oospores from an experimental cross were germinated, and some of the progeny were genetically identical to one or other parent, implying that meiosis did not occur and the oospores developed by parthenogenesis. A form of asexual reproduction related to parthenogenesis is gynogenesis. Here, offspring are produced by the same mechanism as in parthenogenesis, but with the requirement that the egg merely be stimulated by the presence of sperm in order to develop. However, the sperm cell does not contribute any genetic material to the offspring. Since gynogenetic species are all female, activation of their eggs requires mating with males of a closely related species for the needed stimulus. Some salamanders of the genus Ambystoma are gynogenetic and appear to have been so for over a million years. It is believed that the success of those salamanders may be due to rare fertilization of eggs by males, introducing new material to the gene pool, which may result from perhaps only one mating out of a million. In addition, the amazon molly is known to reproduce by gynogenesis. Hybridogenesis is a mode of reproduction of hybrids. Hybridogenetic hybrids (for example AB genome), usually females, during gametogenesis exclude one of parental genomes (A) and produce gametes with unrecombined genome of second parental species (B), instead of containing mixed recombined parental genomes. First genome (A) is restored by fertilization of these gametes with gametes from the first species (AA, sexual host, usually male). So hybridogenesis is not completely asexual, but instead hemiclonal: half of genome is passed to the next generation clonally, unrecombined, intact (B), other half sexually, recombined (A). This process continues, so that each generation is half (or hemi -) clonal on the mother 's side and has half new genetic material from the father 's side. This form of reproduction is seen in some live - bearing fish of the genus Poeciliopsis as well as in some of the Pelophylax spp. ("green frogs '' or "waterfrogs ''): and perhaps in P. demarchii. Other examples where hybridogenesis is at least one of modes of reproduction include i.e.

what is the prize money for us open 2017

2017 US Open (tennis) - wikipedia The 2017 US Open was the 137th edition of tennis ' US Open and the fourth and final Grand Slam event of the year. It was held on outdoor hard courts at the USTA Billie Jean King National Tennis Center in New York City. Experimental rules featured in qualifying for the main draw as well as in the junior, wheelchair and exhibition events. Stan Wawrinka and Angelique Kerber were the previous year 's men 's and women 's singles champions. Neither managed to defend their title as Wawrinka withdrew before the start of the tournament due to a knee injury that ended his season, while Kerber lost in the first round to Naomi Osaka. The men 's singles tournament concluded with Rafael Nadal defeating Kevin Anderson in the final, while the women 's singles tournament concluded with Sloane Stephens defeating Madison Keys in the final. The 2017 US Open was the 137th edition of the tournament and took place at the USTA Billie Jean King National Tennis Center in Flushing Meadows -- Corona Park of Queens in New York City, New York, United States. The tournament was held on 14 DecoTurf hard courts. The tournament was an event run by the International Tennis Federation (ITF) and was part of the 2017 ATP World Tour and the 2017 WTA Tour calendars under the Grand Slam category. The tournament consisted of both men 's and women 's singles and doubles draws as well as a mixed doubles event. There were also singles and doubles events for both boys and girls (players under 18), which were part of the Grade A category of tournaments. Additionally, there were singles and doubles wheelchair tennis events for men, women and quads. The 2017 tournament saw the USTA try out two experimental rules. Firstly, the USTA introduced a shot clock to combat slow play and to address players going over the allotted time for warm ups and medical time outs. Secondly, coaching was allowed from the side of the court. Whilst a player was at the same end as their box they could verbally communicate, if they were at the opposite end then sign language would be allowed. This meant that coaching incidents involving Victoria Azarenka and Caroline Garcia at Wimbledon would have been allowed. The rules only applied in qualifying matches for the main draw, junior, wheelchair and legends matches. The tournament was played on hard courts and took place over a series of 15 courts with DecoTurf surface, including the two existing main showcourts -- Arthur Ashe Stadium and the new Grandstand. Louis Armstrong Stadium, one of the main stadiums used in the previous tournament, was demolished after the 2016 tournament and was replaced for the 2017 edition by a temporary stadium located next to parking lot B near the construction of the previous Louis Armstrong Stadium site. In the United States, the 2017 US Open will be the third year in a row under an 11 - year, $825 million contract with ESPN, in which the broadcaster holds exclusive rights to the entire tournament and the US Open Series. This means that the tournament is not available on broadcast television. This also makes ESPN the exclusive U.S. broadcaster for three of the four tennis majors. In Australia, SBS won the rights to broadcast the US Open with the free to air coverage starting from the quarter finals.. Below is a series of tables for each of the competitions showing the ranking points on offer for each event. The total prize - money compensation for the 2017 US Open is $50.4 million, a 3.7 % increase on the same total last year. Of that total, a record $3.7 million goes to both the men 's and women 's singles champions, which is increased to 7.5 percent from last year. This made the US Open the most lucrative and highest paying tennis grand slam in the world, leapfrogging Wimbledon in total prize money fund. Prize money for the US Open qualifying tournament is also up 49.2 percent, to $2.9 million. The total prize money for the wheelchair tennis events was $200,000. Seeds are based on the ATP and WTA rankings as of August 21, 2017. Rank and points before are as of August 28, 2017. Rankings as of August 21, 2017. Rankings as of August 21, 2017. Rankings as of August 21, 2017. The following players were given wildcards to the main draw based on internal selection and recent performances. The qualifying competitions took place at the USTA Billie Jean King National Tennis Center on 22 -- 25 August 2017. The following players were accepted directly into the main draw using a protected ranking: The following players were accepted directly into the main tournament, but withdrew with injuries, suspensions or for personal reasons.

when does elena get her memories back of loving damon

Do You Remember the First Time? (The Vampire Diaries) - wikipedia "Do You Remember the First Time? '' is the 7th episode of the sixth season of the American series The Vampire Diaries and the series ' 118th episode overall. "Do You Remember the First Time? '' was originally aired on November 13, 2014, on The CW. The episode was written by Rebecca Sonnenshine and directed by Darren Genet. Elena, after everyone continues to convince her that she had once loved damon decides to run through the magic free, mystic falls border. So she does, and she gets glimpses of her and Damon but never fully remembers yet that she loves him. Damon pulls her back across the line and she asks about a kiss in the rain. He continues to try to get her to remember. In the episode "Do You Remember the First Time? '' we can hear the songs: In its original American broadcast, "Do You Remember the First Time? '' was watched by 1.54 million; slightly down by 0.05 from the previous episode. "Do You Remember the First Time? '' received positive reviews. Stephanie Flasher from TV After Dark gave a B+ rating to the episode saying that it was a nice one, especially for the fans of Damon and Elena. "Bittersweet trip down the couple 's history and an epic rain kiss. Finally, Caroline and Stefan have the feelings conversation and Alaric gets his groove back now that he 's a human again. And the music was good. '' Rebecca Jane Stokes of Den of Geek rated the episode with 4 / 5 saying that it was a sweet episode and that Stefan finally found out about Caroline 's feelings. "The show did what it does best this week. It married romance and longing with the deliberate if piecemeal doling out of key plot points. '' Ashley Dominique from Geeked Out Nation rated the episode with 7.9 / 10 saying that the episode "forced Damon and Elena to explore the new status of their relationship in another slow drawn out episode. However, it was made interesting by not relying on flashbacks, but let them be in the moment. '' Sara Ditta of Next Projection rated the episode with 7.2 / 10 saying that the episode "satisfied because of its tempered tone. The drama was n't taken overboard, and viewers could relate to each of our main characters who tried to grasp on to friendships and relationships that had already fallen apart. '' Leigh Raines from TV Fanatic rated the episode with 3.5. "All in all, a decent episode, with minor developments but not enough. '' Caroline Preece of Den of Geek gave a good review to the episode saying that the show has improved greatly since it stopped paying attention only to Damon and Elena 's relationship. "The Damon / Elena storyline is still a frustrating mess, but it 's also not the only thing on the show anymore -- and that gives viewers no longer interested in Elena 's love life a reason to come back. Just that simple thing is what fans have been asking for and, now that we have it, it 's glorious. '' Lindsay Sperling from We Got This Covered gave a mixed review to the episode saying that this episode was the first filler one for season six. "This season of The Vampire Diaries is arguably already better than the last two combined, but there 's a limit to the amount of Elena and Damon drama that fans should have to endure. Either let them be together, or let them move on. (...) There were a few notable plot twists in (the episode) despite the overwhelming feeling that nothing really happened to move the story along. ''

who played lisa left eye lopes in the tlc movie

CrazySexyCool: the TLC Story - Wikipedia CrazySexyCool: The TLC Story is a 2013 American television biographical film about the R&B and hip hop musical trio TLC. It derives its title from the title of the group 's second album, CrazySexyCool. The film stars Keke Palmer as Rozonda "Chilli '' Thomas, Niatia "Lil Mama '' Kirkland as Lisa "Left Eye '' Lopes and Drew Sidora as Tionne "T - Boz '' Watkins. The film was directed by Charles Stone III and written by Kate Lanier. Thomas and Watkins also served as executive producers of the film. The film premiered on VH1 on October 21, 2013. TLC released a compilation album, 20, released by LaFace and Epic Records on October 15, 2013, marking both the band 's 20 - plus year in entertainment business and the release of CrazySexyCool: The TLC Story which largely inspired the track listing for 20. Next to their four number - one singles "Creep '', "Waterfalls '', "No Scrubs '' and "Unpretty '' plus a new track written by singer Ne - Yo, "Meant to Be ''. The film 's premiere generated 4.5 million viewers, making it the highest - rated television film premiere of 2013, as well as the highest - rated original film premiere in VH1 history. The film was released on DVD on October 21, 2014. The film begins with Tionne Watkins (Drew Sidora) narrating, telling about the girls ' lives as children and summarizing their story. The film then jumps to the year 1990 in Atlanta, Georgia. Tionne, after being rejected for an all - male street dance crew despite impressing the crowd at a rollerskating center, is approached by her friend, Marie, who informs her about a girl group being formed by Ian Burke and persuades her to audition for LaFace Records. Tionne, although reluctant, brings Crystal (Brooke Montalvo), the founder of the group, to meet her rapper friend Lisa Lopes (Natia "Lil Mama '' Kirkland) and see her perform and Crystal says that she will be perfect for the group. After singing "Meeting in the Ladies Room '', they receive a mixed reception, mostly in part due to Crystal 's ill - fated off key performance. However, both Tionne and Lisa garner interest from both Perri "Pebbles '' Reid (Rochelle Aytes) and her husband, co-founder of LaFace Antonio "L.A. '' Reid (Carl Anthony Payne II). After receiving the good news from both Pebbles and L.A. Reid, Lisa decides that she should call her family in Philadelphia and tell them the great news, especially her father, who told her that she would never make it as a rapper. She calls her family only to learn that her father has been shot and killed, which causes her to begin drinking heavily in her grief. The film jumps ahead to a dance class where we see Rozonda Thomas (Lauren "Keke '' Palmer) dancing. Rozonda sees Pebbles walk in and talk to her teacher. She asks one of the other girls why Pebbles was there. The girl tells her about Pebbles looking for another girl for a girl group. Rozanda rushes over and immediately talks to Pebbles and when her dance teacher tries to shoo her away, she starts singing, amazing everyone listening. Pebbles brings Rozonda to meet Lisa, Tionne, and music producer Dallas Austin (Evan Ross), who is Tionne 's longtime friend. The girls become fast friends and start working on their audition with L.A. Reid. At the audition, where they perform "What About Your Friends '', L.A. gives them a green light to go ahead and cut their first video and record, and Rozonda is rechristened "Chilli '' for the group. After the audition, Chilli asks Tionne and Lisa about Dallas, and they state that he is a player - a guy who has flings with several women and will not settle down with anyone. Pebbles takes the girls out to lunch to sign the contracts telling them that they have a weekly stipend of $25.00 and will only get paid when they have sold records and tickets to shows. The girls are given studio sessions, where Pebbles forces the girls to do sections of their dance routines repeatedly to get them right. During the rehearsal, Pebbles notices Chilli eying Dallas, who is producing some tracks for the album, and Lisa complains she is hungry whilst swearing. She pulls all the girls aside and tells them that they will not cuss or be "loose '', this seems to rub Chilli and Tionne the wrong way, but they get back to work. Pebbles later leaves the girls during a studio session to attend a meeting. She tells Dallas to keep the girls working, but instead a fun food fight breaks out between the girls and Dallas. Dallas chases Chilli into one of the sound booths and proceeds to kiss her. After re-entering the studio Pebbles sees the two lip - locked lovers and begins to reprimand the girls and Dallas for their behavior while she was gone. After docking the girls two weeks ' pay, she then pulls Chilli into the sitting area and tells her that she is suspended for two days and that she may or may not get her job back. Pebbles tells Chilli to leave the studio and says that she has a lot of thinking to do. Pebbles goes and talks to Tionne and Lisa who both tell her that they want Chilli to stay. Pebbles still insists on putting out an advertisement on the radio about the auditions to see if there is another singer who fits the vision she has for the group. During the auditions, an upset Chilli is with Dallas, who comforts her by kissing her, which leads to them making love while Tionne and Lisa sit through a day of auditionees. After a day of bad auditions, Pebbles decides to let Chilli stay in the group. Lisa and Tionne call Chilli to tell her that she is back in the group and that everything will go according to plan. Right after Chilli gets that call she looks down at a pregnancy test that she has just taken and it is positive. She tells Dallas that she is uncertain what to do, despite her desire to be a mother, and Dallas says that he will support her in whatever decision she makes. Chilli decides that it 's best that she get an abortion because of the fragile state her career is in. Tionne and Lisa come to visit Chilli after the operation to cheer her up. After Chilli has recovered, they are seen working on their first music video for their song "Ai n't 2 Proud 2 Beg '' from their debut album, Ooooooohhh... On the TLC Tip. During the video shoot, Chilli begins to suspect that Dallas is cheating on her when she sees him talking to another girl. Later in a car, Lisa proposes that they do a video and an album with a futuristic theme, but Tionne says that they should wait until they get recognized. The girls are then estatic when they hear "What About Your Friends '' on the radio for the first time. The girls begin their first nationwide tour as an opening act for MC Hammer, and their first concert is met with rousing acclaim from the stadium audience. Midway through the successful tour, during which their album and singles also sell well, after learning that they will only get paid once the label is reimbursed for the costs spent on them, the girls ask Pebbles if they can review their initial contracts. A hurt Pebbles, who thinks that the girls do n't trust her, storms out, so they decide to wait before pursuing the matter any further. Backstage following a concert, Chilli eyes Dallas talking to yet another girl, arousing her suspicions, and Tionne collapses on the floor and is taken to the hospital. A doctor informs Lisa, Chilli and Pebbles that Tionne 's collapse was due a crisis from her sickle - cell anemia, a fact previously unknown to the girls, and she needs two weeks to recover, resulting in several cancelled shows. Tionne 's mother complains to the doctor about not being given reassurance on the ongoing prognosis, but Tionne says that as long as she is living her dream of performing in front of thousands of people, she will be okay. After the girls return home from their tour, they receive their platinum records for 1 million copies sold of their album and they receive their brand new cars, but still wonder where the rest of the money is. They go to their attorney so that they can go over their contracts, only to find out that their attorney works for Pebbles. The attorney tells them that L.A. Reid has all their money and they are to only get a stipend while the rest goes into an account so that they do n't spend it all. They go talk to L.A. and tell him that they do n't want Pebbles on their second album because they want more artistic freedom. L.A. tells them that since Pebbles owns the trademarks and copyrights of the name TLC they will either have to buy her out or change their name. They decide to buy her out in order to achieve the creative freedom that they need. In 1993, the girls begin working on their second album CrazySexyCool, believing that their new creative freedom will come with more rights to their money. When Chilli rejects a night out with Tionne and Lisa to get some rest at home, they go clubbing at a nearby club. However, Lisa gets drunk and dances on top of the bar, and she smashes the bar owner in the head with a beer bottle when he tries to get her to stop, causing her to be banned from the club. Tionne takes her to a hotel, where she has a nervous breakdown about people taking things away from her. The same night, Chilli comes home only to find Dallas has thrown a party there without informing her, but he calms her down by kissing her. The next morning, Chilli admits to her mother that she is uncertain, saying she should n't be with Dallas but she can not let him go. During a recording session, Tionne notices Dallas talking to another woman, so scolds him on his behaviour while he is still dating Chilli, who walks in, witnesses the confrontation and sees the woman. During a night of clubbing with her friend, Lisa complains about a man watching her from afar. Her friend says that the man is Andre Rison, a wide receiver with the NFL 's Atlanta Falcons. Andre walks up to Lisa, proclaiming that he is her biggest fan and requests that she honor him with a dance, to which Lisa obliges. Later, as Lisa and her friend are leaving the club, Andre picks Lisa up and carries her in his arms, and despite Lisa 's demands that he put her down, he persuades her to come home with him. As they arrive in his house, Lisa asks him why there is no furniture inside; he says he was waiting for her and they kiss passionately. Later in 1994, Lisa moves in with Andre and Chilli is horrified when another girl announces that she is pregnant with Dallas ' baby, so she pours her heartbreak into the recording of "Creep ''. Later that night, Lisa comes home and finds Andre cheating on her with another woman, she slaps him and storms out. Dallas arrives at Chilli 's house the next night to apologise to her, and they make love again. At the same time, Lisa and her friend notice newly - bought tennis shoes on her and Andre 's bed. Realising that Andre did not buy the shoes for her, she takes some of the shoes, puts them in a bathtub and sets fire to them to get back at Andre. However, the fire quickly spreads and their entire house is burnt down, which makes the news. Lisa flees and Tionne and Chilli find her in a forest, coming to terms with all that she has been through. Eventually, Lisa turns herself in to the police and is charged for first - degree arson and sentenced to five years of probation and a $10,000 fine. She spends time in rehab, and is only released during her stay for two recording sessions with Tionne and Chilli, during which she contributes an introspective rap verse to what will become the group 's biggest hit, "Waterfalls '', after seeing a rainbow on the ride to the studio. During the video shoot for "Creep '', Lisa complains to Tionne that they never get to do her "futuristic '' idea and threatens to wear tape on her mouth, which turns into Lisa and Chilli complaining that they spoke with L.A. who told them that he is n't in control of the money, that Clive Davis (Ed Amatrudo) has all their money and that they need to speak with him. Tionne then urges them not to fixate on it, as she believes that getting rid of Pebbles is supposed to fix their problems in the first place. In 1995, after receiving awards and other acknowledgements they still do n't see any money come in. At the 1996 Grammy Awards, they announce that they are broke - because of greedy people at their record company. The film flashes back to 1995, where they complain to each other about only receiving $50,000 a year, whereas most people make more money than they do. So the girls band a group together to go storm the record label 's building to speak with Clive, who is in the middle of a meeting with Sean "Puffy '' Combs (Shaun Davis). Clive tells the girls that they will get the attorneys and the accountants in a meeting and see what the record label owes them. They are all cut small checks of $25,000, and Lisa reveals in an on - air radio interview that the group owe $200,000 that they do n't have in order to pay back managers, lawyers and damages that Pebbles is suing them for. The group then file for bankruptcy and find a new manager, Bill Diggins (Donny Boaz), who gives them a worldwide headlining tour, the Budweiser Fest Tour, and an improved profit margin after they record their next album. In late 1996, following the tour, Chilli announces to Tionne and Lisa that she is pregnant with Dallas ' baby. By 1997, the girls are recording their third album FanMail, dedicated to their fans whose letters they have received, and Chilli gives birth to her and Dallas ' son, Tron. In 1998, during a sickle - cell scare in hospital after being comforted by her mother, Tionne writes a poem dealing with a woman 's struggle with her self - image and unrealistic concepts of beauty portrayed in the media, which Dallas helps her adapt into "Unpretty '', an empowering song for the group 's female fan base to overcome feelings of physical inadequacy. During the song 's recording, Chilli breaks up with Dallas, saying that even though they have a son together, they are still very different people and they are not right for each other. In October 1999, the girls are about to go on tour to support FanMail. However, by this time, friction between the girls has increased because Lisa is complaining to her new boyfriend Larry about Tionne and Chilli rejecting her ideas and apparently plagiarizing them, and she has challenged Tionne and Chilli to make their own solo albums in a bid to see who is most successful member of the group. Following a confrontation between Tionne and Bill and Lisa and Larry before a scheduled appearance at TRL, during which Tionne reveals that Larry is married, Bill urges Lisa to sort out her issues with Tionne and Chilli before going on tour or they will all fall back into bankruptcy again. In February 2000, Bill offers the girls 10 shows in Europe for their tour the following week with estimated earnings of $25 million, which Tionne and Chilli are ecstatic about, but Lisa declines, stating that she is going to Honduras that week for spiritual healing and she is beginning work on her debut solo album. Later, while Lisa is in Honduras, Tionne learns in hospital that she is pregnant with her first child and chooses to keep the baby, despite the risks for her and the baby. Shortly after, Bill urges the girls to do another album and another tour, but Tionne, due to her pregnancy, and Lisa, awaiting the release of her album Supernova, are reluctant. Later, Lisa learns that her record company is n't releasing Supernova in the U.S. due to poor sales and reception overseas, so she has a nervous breakdown. After she admits to Tionne and Chilli that she feels that the numbers are n't aligning properly, they comfort her and urge her to go back to Honduras for more spiritual healing and work on her second solo album in addition to working with them on their next album. Tionne then gives birth to her daughter, Chase. By early 2002, the group are recording their fourth album 3D, with Tionne and Chilli adjusting to life as mothers with growing children and Lisa contributing raps to some of the songs before heading to Honduras. Lisa promises to record more songs with them when she gets back from Honduras, and vows that there will be no more friction between them. However, on April 25, 2002, a devastated Tionne and Chilli learn that Lisa has been killed on impact in a car accident in La Ceiba, Honduras while filming what will become her documentary. During a radio interview, Tionne and Chilli vow to always stay together despite Lisa 's death, although they are uncertain about the group 's fate. The film ends 10 years later with Tionne and Chilli reuniting in the studio to begin recording their next album. The film then transitions into real - life studio footage of Tionne and Chilli recording "Meant to Be '' in the studio with singer - songwriter Shaffer "Ne - Yo '' Smith, as vigils in the career of TLC play during the song.

who says the mangal bhavan amangal hari to whom

Ramcharitmanas - Wikipedia Ramcharitmanas (Devanāgarī: श्रीरामचरितमानस, IAST: ŚrīRāmacaritamānasa), is an epic poem in the language Awadhi, composed by the 16th - century Indian bhakti poet Goswami Tulsidas (c. 1532 -- 1623). Ramcharitmanas literally means "Lake of the deeds of Rama ''. Ramcharitmanas is considered as one of the greatest works of Hindi literature, Indian literature as well as of the world literature. The work has variously been acclaimed as "the living sum of Indian culture '', "the tallest tree in the magic garden of medieval Indian poetry '', "the greatest book of all devotional literature '' and "the best and most trustworthy guide to the popular living faith of the Indian people ''. Divisions Sama vedic Yajur vedic Atharva vedic Vaishnava puranas Shaiva puranas Tulsidas (the Sanskrit name of Tulsidas can be transliterated in two ways. Using the IAST transliteration scheme, the name is written as Tulasīdāsa, as pronounced in Sanskrit. Using the Hunterian transliteration scheme, it is written as Tulsidas or Tulsīdās, as pronounced in Hindi). Tulsidas was a great scholar of Sanskrit. However, he wanted the story of Rama to be accessible to the general masses and not just the Sanskrit - speaking elite. In order to make the story of Rama as accessible to the layman as to the scholar, Tulsidas chose to write in Awadhi, a local dialect of Hindi which was in vogue as the language of general parlance in large parts of north India during the composition of the work. Tradition has it that Tulsidas had to face a lot of criticism from the sanskrit scholars of Varanasi for being a bhasha (vernacular) poet. However, Tulsidas remained steadfast in his resolve for simplifying the knowledge contained in the Vedas, the Upanishads and the Puranas to the common people. Subsequently, his work was accepted by all. Ramcharitmanas, made available the story of Rama to the common man to sing, meditate and perform on. The writing of Ramcharitmanas also heralded many a cultural tradition, most significantly that of the tradition of Ramlila, the dramatic enactment of the text. Ramcharitmanas is considered by many as a work belonging to the Saguna school of the Bhakti movement in Hindi literature. Tulsidas began writing the Ramcharitmanas in Ayodhya in Vikram Samvat 1631 (1574 CE). The exact date is stated within the poem as being the ninth day of the month of Chaitra, which is the birthday of Rama, Rama Navami. Ramcharitmanas was composed at Ayodhya, Varanasi & Chitrakoot. India was under the reign of Mughal emperor Akbar (1556 - 1605 CE) during this period. This also makes Tulsidas a contemporary of William Shakespeare. The Ramcharitmanas is written in vernacular Awadhi language, The core of the work is considered by some to be a poetic retelling of the events of the Sanskrit epic Ramayana by Valmiki. The Valmiki Ramayana is centered on the narrative of Rama, the scion of the family tree of king Raghu of the Sun Dynasty. Rama was the crown prince of Ayodhya and is considered in Hindu tradition as the seventh Avatar of Vishnu. However, the Ramacharitmanas is by no means a word - to - word copy of the Valmiki Ramayana nor an abridged re-telling of the latter. Ramcaritmanas has elements from many other Ramayanas written earlier in Sanskrit and other Indian dialects as well as stories from Puranas. Tulsidas himself never writes Ramcharitmanas as being a retelling of Valmiki Ramayana. He calls the epic Ramcharitmanas as the story of Rama, that was stored in the mind (Mānasa) of Shiva before he narrated the same to His wife Parvati. Tulsidas claims to have received the story through his guru, Narharidas. Tulsidas was a naive (Acheta) child and the story was stored in his mind (Mānasa) for long before he wrote it down as Ramcharitmanas. Some understand this passage of the Ramcharitmanas to mean that Tulsidas at first could not grasp the story fully as he was a naïve young boy. His guru graciously repeated it again and again so that he could understand and remember it. Then he narrated the story and named it Ramcharitmanas as Shiva himself called it. The epic poem is, therefore, also referred to as Tulsikrit Ramayana (literally, The Ramayana composed by Tulsidas). The Ramcharitmanas is a masterpiece of vernacular literature. Some believe it to represent a challenge to the dominance of high - class Brahmanical Sanskrit, echoing the revolt of Buddha against Brahmanical elitism. However, this interpretation appears faulty as Tulsidas himself was a brahmin and often talks very highly of the Brahmins in Ramcharitmanas and other books written by him. It was the attempt of Tulsidas to reconcile the different stories of Rama and to bring the story within the reach of the common man. Ramcharitmanas consists of seven Kāndas (literally "books '' or "episodes '', cognate with cantos). Tulsidas compared the seven Kāndas of the epic to seven steps leading into the holy waters of Lake Manasarovar "which purifies the body and the soul at once ''. The first two parts, Bāl Kāṇḍ (Childhood Episode) and Ayodhyā Kāṇḍ (Ayodhya Episode), make up more than half of the work. The other parts are Araṇya Kāṇḍ (Forest Episode), Kiśkindhā Kāṇḍ (Kishkindha Episode), Sundar Kāṇḍ (Pleasant Episode), Laṅkā Kāṇḍ (Lanka Episode), and Uttar Kāṇḍ (Later Episode). The work is primarily composed in the Chaupai metre (four - line quatrains), separated by the Doha metre (two - line couplets), with occasional Soratha and various Chhand metres. Every chapter of the Ramcharitmanas begins with an invocation or Mangalācharaņ. It is customary of the Indian tradition of writing that the author begins a new book with invocation to the Gods to ensure that the sankalpa is finished unhindered. The first three or four verses of each Kānd are typically in the form of invocations. Bāl Kāṇḍ begins with a hymn honouring the goddess Saraswati and the god Ganesha, the deities related to knowledge, wisdom, speech and auspiciousness. Ayodhyā Kāṇḍ begins with the famous verse dedicated to the god Shiva: May He in whose lap shines forth the Daughter of the mountain king, who carries the celestial stream on His head, on whose brow rests the crescent moon, whose throat holds poison and whose breast is support of a huge serpent, and who is adorned by the ashes on His body, may that chief of gods, the Lord of all, the Destroyer of the universe, the omnipresent Śhiva, the moon - like Śańkara, ever protect me. '' Araṇya Kāṇḍ 's first verse again extols Shiva: I reverence Bhagavan Śańkara, the progeny of Brahmā, the very root of the tree of piety, the beloved, devotee of King Śri Rama, the full moon that brings joy to the ocean of wisdom, the sun that opens the lotus of dispassion, the wind that disperses the clouds of ignorance, who dispels the thick darkness of sin and eradicates the threefold agony and who wipes off all calumny and obloquy. Kiśkindhā Kāṇḍ commences with the following verse: Lovely as a jasmine and a blue lotus, of surpassing strength, repositories of wisdom, endowed with natural grace, excellent bowmen, hymned by the Vedas, and lovers of the cow and Brāhmaņas, who appeared in the form of mortal men through their own Māyā (deluding potency) as the two noble scions of Raghu, the armours of true dharma, friendly to all and journeying in quest for Sita, may they both grant us Devotion. Sundar Kāṇḍ begins with a hymn in the praise of Rama: I adore the Lord of the universe bearing the name of Rama, the chief of the Raghu 's line and the crest - jewel of kings, the mine of compassion, the dispeller of all sins, appearing in human form through His Māyā (deluding potency), the greatest of all gods, knowable through Vedānta (the Upanishads), constantly worshipped by Brahmā (the Creator), Śhambhu (Śivā), and Śeşa (the serpent - god), the one who bestows of supreme peace in the form of final beatitude, placid, eternal, beyond the ordinary means of cognition, sinless and all - pervading. Laṅkā Kāṇḍ begins with this hymn: I adore Śri Rama, the supreme Deity, the object of worship even by Śivā (the destroyer of Kāma, the God of Love), the Dispeller of the fear of rebirth, the lion to quell the mad elephant in the form of Death, the Master of Yogīs, attainable through immediate knowledge, the storehouse of good qualities, unconquerable, attributeless, immutable, beyond the realm of Māyā, the Lord of celestials, intent on killing the evil - doers, the only protector of the Brāhmaņas, beautiful as a cloud laden with moisture, who has lotus like eyes and appeared in the form of an earthly king. Uttar Kāṇḍ begins with the following hymn: I unceasingly extol Śri Ramā, the praiseworthy lord of Jānakī (Sītā, Janakā 's daughter and the wife of Rama), the chief of Raghu 's line, possessed of a form greenish blue, the color of the neck of a peacock and adorned with an insignia of Brahmā pada, the lotus - foot, which testifies to His being the greatest of all gods - rich in splendour, clad in yellow robes, lotus - eyed, ever - propitious, holding a bow and arrow in His hands, riding an aerial car named Puşpakā, accompanied by a host of monkeys and waited upon by His own brother Lakşmaņa. Tulsidas ends every chapter in a similar manner describing the ending in the Sanskrit language. Every Kānd is formally concluded by Goswami Tulsidas. The following is an example of the ending of Kiśkindhā Kāṇḍ: Translation: "Thus ends the fourth descent into the Mānasa lake of Sri Rama 's exploits, that eradicates all the impurities of the kali age. '' All the other Kāndas are concluded in the same way where the word caturthah is substituted, according to the Kānd being concluded. Ramcharitmanas is structured around three separate conversations. The conversations happen between Shiva and Parvati, Sages Bharadwaj and Yajnavalkya and finally Kakbhushundi and the king of birds, Garuda. Some scholars are of the opinion that there is also an underlying personal conversation between Tulsidas and Lord Rama all through the text of Ramcharitmanas. The Child Episode Tulsidas begins the story with an invocation to various deities, his guru, and saints who have preceded him and those who will succeed him in the future. Homage is paid to Valmiki for bringing the Ramayana to the devotees of Rama. Next are introduced and praised the various characters of the epic beginning with the birthplace of Rama, the holy city of Ayodhya. Praises are bestowed on Dasharatha, the king of Ayodhya and Rama 's father, and his queens Kausalya, Kaikeyi and Sumitra. Tulsidas then praises King Janaka, the father - in - law of Rama), and his family. He goes on to praise the brothers of Rama - Bharata, Lakshman & Shatrughna and sings the glories of Hanuman, the constant companion to Rama, Sugriva, the monkey king and Jambavan, the leader of bears. Next, the characters of Sita and Rama are introduced. The story of Ramcharitmanas is then underway. It begins with the meeting of two sages - Bharadwaj and Yajnavalkya. Bharadwaj asks Yajnavalkya to narrate in detail the story of Rama. Yajnavalkya begins with how Shiva came about retelling the story of Rama to his wife Parvati. (The great story of Sati 's self - immolation, the destruction of her father Daksha 's sacrifice, the rebirth of Sati as Parvati and her marriage to Shiva). Shiva explains five different reasons as to why Rama incarnated on earth in different ages Kalpa (aeon). Each of these stories is discussed in detail, with the primary message being that Rama incarnated on earth to protect the righteous who follow the path of Dharma. The story then moves to the birth of Ravana and his brothers. Post this point, the narration is done at different times by Shiva, Yajnavalkya, Kakbhushundi and Tulsidas. The story now moves to the abode of Brahma where Brahma and the other Hindu Devas are found mulling on the ways to rid the earth of Ravana and his excesses. Unable to find a solution, they pray to Shiva and ask him for his guidance on where to find the supreme God who will come to their rescue. Shiva tells them that they do n't need to go anywhere to find the Supreme God for He resides in the hearts of his devotees. All the Devas then Pray to the supreme Brahman to rid the earth of the demons wreaking havoc on men as well as Devas. Brahman shows compassion to all and announces in an Akashvani that He will be born in the Sun Dynasty to save the Devas and His devotees from the demons. The story then moves to Ayodhya. One fine day, Dasharatha, the king of Ayodhya, realizes that he has become old and still issueless... He conveys his distress to sage Vasistha, the family guru, and seeks the way forward. Vasistha comforts Dasharatha and tells him that he will have four sons. Vasistha requests Shringi Rishi to perform the Putrakām yajna (vedic yajna for the birth of sons). Tulsidas states that the birth of Rama and his brothers took place on the ninth day of the Chaitra month. It was the fortnight of the moon, known as the shukla period. The story then moves on and Rama and His brothers are now grown - up boys. The sage Vishvamitra arrives at Dashratha 's royal court where the King receives his eminent guest with great honour. Sage Vishvamitra lived in the forest and was performing great sacrifices. However, the demons Maricha and Subahu would always desecrate the ceremonial offerings. He knew that Rama had taken birth on earth to protect his devotees and so he decided to visit Dashratha to ask him a favour. The sage asks the king to let his sons accompany him to the forest. Reluctantly the king agrees. Rama knew before hand the intention of Vishvamitra in asking him to come along with him. He asures the sage that he would obey his commands. Lakshman kills Subahu and Rama kills Maricha, the dreaded demons. The story then moves to the deliverance of Ahalya. Rama, Lakshman and Vishvamitra venture on a journey and reach the beautiful kingdom of the Videhas, Mithila. The king of Mithila, Janaka, welcomes the great sage and asks him who are the two boys accompanying him... Janaka is overcome by great emotion as he is able to sense the true nature of their mission... The brothers then set out to discover the beautiful city and visit Janaka 's garden. This is an important section of the manās as it portrays the first meeting of Rama and Sita... In the meanwhile, King Janaka arranges a swayamvara ceremony for his daughter Sita. A swayamvara ceremony is a Vedic ritual in which a prospective bride selects her groom from among a group of suitors who attend the ceremony. Sita falls in love with Rama at first sight in Janaka 's garden and prays to Gauri that she may get Rama as her husband. King Janaka sends a messenger to invite Rama, Laksman and Sage Vishvamitra to attend the swayamvara. Janaka puts a condition to identify the right groom for Sita. The great bow of Shiva by the name of Pinaka was kept in the arena. Any suitor who would be able to string Pinaka would be married to Sita. Many princes try but fail to even nudge the mammoth bow. This causes great distress to Janaka who wonders aloud if the earth has become devoid of brave men. This statement of Janaka angers Lakshman who retorts that no one talks in this vein, when a gathering like this, has the presence of scions of the Sun Dynasty. Rama gently nudges him to keep calm as Vishwamitra asks him to break the bow and make Janaka happy once again... Rama steps in and effortlessly lifts and strings the divine bow. In a swift move, he breaks the bow. The breaking of Pinaka causes a great noise that disturbs the great sage Parashurama in his meditation and he storms into the swayamvara arena in great anger vowing to kill whoever had dared to break the bow of lord Shiva. Lakshman enters into an argument with Parashurama paying scant respect to the sage who was known for his bursts of anger and was known to slay whoever dared to oppose him. Ultimately, Rama brings him around. Parashurama comes to know the real nature of lord Rama as the ultimate Brahman, pays his respects and leaves for the forests for meditation. Sita places the wreath of victory around the neck of Rama in accordance with the rules of the swayamvara and is thus wedded to him. However, Sita being his beloved daughter, Janaka desires to conduct a grand marriage of Sita and Rama in accordance with both Vedic and laukik (traditional) customs. Janaka dispatches messengers to Ayodhya to inform Dashratha and his family about the marriage of Rama and Sita and invites them for the formal consummation of marriage ceremony. Dashratha starts with a great marriage procession, consisting of Rama 's family, friends and well wishers in addition to Shiva, Vishnu, Brahma and all Devas who take up human form and depart for Mithila. After a grand wedding, the kind of which had never been witnessed in the universe, Rama and Sita return to Ayodhya where there was a great celebration and much rejoicing. The Ayodhya Episode Ayodhya was described as being like a heaven on earth ever since Rama and Sita came back from Mithila. As King Dasaratha was getting old, he wanted to install his son Rama as Prince regent... He took a decision to start the ceremonies for his crowning, the next day itself. The Devas however became very concerned at the prospect of Rama remaining in Ayodhya, and not pursuing the wicked Ravana, and vanquishing him... something had to happen if Rama were to embark on his mission to rid the world of Ravana. They approached Goddess Saraswati for help. King Dashratha has three wives. Queen Kaushalya is the principle queen and the mother of Rama. Queen Kaikeyi is the mother of Bharata and Queen Sumitra is the mother of Lakshman and Shatrughna. Saraswati decides to influence the mind of one of Queen Kaikeyi 's maid servants named Manthara. Manthara 's mind harbors evil intentions and she begins to talk to Queen Kaikeyi in harsh and conceited tones. She finds faults with Kaikeyi for being supportive of the king 's plan of installing Rama, as Prince Regent when her own mind tells her that Bharata would clearly be a greater king. At that time Bharata is in Kaikeya country visiting his uncle and so he is unaware of what is happening in Ayodhya. Slowly Queen Kaikeyi 's mind is poisoned. Manthara reminds Queen Kaikeyi of the two boons that the King had promised her. Kaikeyi enters the private room in the royal palace, where the King gives audience to his queens, and awaits Dashratha. Dashratha is greatly alarmed and concerned that Kaikeyi is sitting in the sulking chamber, while the entire population of Ayodhya is greatly happy and eagerly anticipating the coronation of Rama. Queen Kaikeyi speaks harshly to Dashratha, which surprises the king. She reminds him of the two boons he promised her and to his bewilderment, asks him to install her son Bharata as Prince Regent and send Rama into forest for 14 years. Queen Kaikeyi is unmoved by Dashratha 's lamentations and finally the king emotionally breaks down. The king 's assistant Sumantra sends for Rama with a request to meet his father. Queen Kaikeyi speaks to Rama and explains to him the boons that she had asked of His father. Rama is actually the Supreme Personality of Godhead incarnated on earth, yet He accepts His step mother 's request and decides to leave the kingdom as it serves his purpose as well... The people of Ayodhya remonstrate against Queen Kaikeyi who firmly believes that she is doing the right thing. Rama attempts to dissuade Lakshman and Sita from joining him but is unable to do so. The scene becomes very emotional as Rama, Sita and Lakshman greet their mothers before finally going to Dashratha to take leave of him. Dashratha attempts, in vain, to try to talk Sita out of joining Rama in the forest. The residents of Ayodhya ca n't spare the thought of being away from Rama and decide to join him in the forest. Rama, Sita, Lakshman and Sumantra go incognito and in the dead of the night leave the city and move into the forest. They leave for a place called Sringaverapur after which they meet Guha, the Nishad king. They arrive at Prayag, the holy city where the Rivers Ganges, Yamuna and Saraswati meet. Rama meets with the Sage Bharadwaj at his ashram. Rama is overwhelmed with the reception and love shown by the people inhabiting the banks of the Yamuna. Rama then meets Sage Valmiki, the author of the Ramayan at Chitrakoot dham. Valmiki recognises the true opulence of Rama and sings His praises. At this point Tulsidas takes great care to describe the beauty of the land of Chitrakoot with some inspiring poetry. Rama asks Sumantra to return to Ayodhya which saddens Sumantra. He not only wants to stay with Rama, he is also afraid of going back only to face the anger and wrath of the citizens of Ayodhya. Rama persuades him to go back. On returning to Ayodhya, Sumantra meets Dashratha, who asks him the whereabouts of Rama. The pain of separation from Rama is too much for Dashratha who passes away crying Rama 's name. Sage Vashishtha knows that Rama will not return to the kingdom and so immediately sends an envoy to call Bharata and Shatrughna back to Ayodhya. Bharata learns of all that has happened and chastises his mother, Queen Kaikeyi. He is greatly pained and blames himself for Rama leaving Ayodhya. He accuses her of bringing ruin to the family. Shatrughna comes across Manthara and beats her in rage. They approach Queen Kaushalya and see her in a sorry state. Bharata begs for her forgiveness and loudly laments while the Queen attempts to pacify him. She asks him to carry out his duty and rule Ayodhya, but Bharata can not bear the thought of sitting on the throne with his father dead and his brothers in exile in the forest. The cremation of King Dashratha takes place. Bharata and Shatrughna decide to go into the forest and ask Rama to return to Ayodhya and take the throne. Many citizens as well as the royal family, who have been grieving ever since Rama had left them, decide to join the brothers. The Nishads see the approaching royal party and become suspicious. Guha approaches Bharata to understand his motive for bringing such a large party to the forest. He assumes that Bharata has some sinister motive. Bharata shows his love for Rama and Guha is moved to tears by his love for his brother. The royal procession then moves forward to Chitrakoot. Lakshman sees the huge army of people with Bharata and immediately begins to chastise Bharata. Rama counters this by praising the greatness of Bharata, leaving Lakshman feeling sorry for his harsh words. Bharata finally arrives at Chitrakoot where the brothers are all reunited once again. They collectively mourn the passing of their father and perform his Shraddha (obsequies) along with Sage Vashistha leading the ceremony. Despite all of Bharata 's convincing, Rama is true to the word given to his father and step mother Kaikeyi, and vows that he will fulfill her wish. Bharata says that he simply can not sit on the throne while Rama wanders in the forest. He asks Rama for his sandals, which he would place at the throne and would only act as Rama 's representative and not as a full - fledged king. With much sorrow and hurt, Bharata leaves Rama and returns to Ayodhya. He decides that he would not live in the kingdom while Rama is in exile and so lives like a hermit in a nearby town called Nandigram. The Forest Episode Rama, Sita and Lakshman wander in the forest and come across the hermitage of a sage called Atri. Atri sees them approaching and is overcome with great joy. Sita is embraced by Atri 's wife, Anasuya. Anusuya talks to Sita at length about the duties of a devoted wife. Rama, Sita and Lakshman venture further into the forest and encounter Viradha. Viradha attempts to capture Sita. Rama kills him by burying him in a ditch. They then visit the ashram of Sage Sarabhanga. Rama asks him of where he should go for shelter in the forest. He is advised to visit the sage Sutiksna. As Rama approaches Sutiksna, the latter comes out of his meditation. He tells Rama that he had been awaiting his arrival, and had even turned down the offer of entering the heavenly planets. Continuing on their journey through the forest, they meet with Sage Agastya where Rama pays his respect to the sage. Agastya gifts divine weapons to Rama and advises him to venture further into the forest and into the region of Dandaka. Rama meets with the eagle, Jatayu. Rama, Sita and Lakshman take up abode at Panchavati and build a beautiful ashram, as per the advice of Agastya. Laksman becomes nostalgic of the past and begins to talk harshly about Kaikeyi. Rama pacifies him and explains that it is sinful to speak of his mother in such a way. The story takes a new turn, as Rama, Sita and Lakshman are approached by the sister of the demon - king Ravana, called Surpanakha. She immediately takes a liking to Rama and falls in love with him. She disguises herself and talks to Rama in sweet tones. Rama rejects her advances explaining that he is already married and advises her to approach Laksman as he is unmarried. However, Laksman also rejects her advances. Surpanakha takes it as a great insult to be spurned like this, and attempts to hurt Sita. Laksman takes hold of his sword and lops off Surpanakha 's ear lobes and nose. Feeling humiliated, Surpanakha leaves the forest and goes to the abode of her brothers Khara, Dusana and Trisira. They are angry at the treatment meted out to their sister and leave with the intention of killing Rama. All three brothers are vanquished by Rama. Surpanakha is greatly upset and visits Ravana at his residence in Lanka. She explains all that has happened, after which Ravana calls for his old friend Maricha. Ravana hatches a plot and asks Maricha to disguise himself as a golden deer, so that Ravana may then kidnap Sita. Maricha has already felt the power of Rama (as mentioned in Bālakāṇḍa) and is apprehensive, however, he thinks that he is going to die either way since Ravana will kill him in rage for refusing him. Ravana and Marich immediately leave for Rama 's forest abode. Maricha takes his position and instantly Sita is attracted by his deer form. Rama knows that Ravana 's intentions and orders Sita to place her shadow (Maya Sita) in her place, while she would hide in the fire. She asks Rama time and time again to hunt for the deer and bring it to her. Rama runs after the deer and is soon quite a far distance away from the ashram. Rama releases an arrow and hits the deer. Impersonating Rama 's voice, Marich shouts out to Laksman to help him. Maya Sita (hereafter called simply Sita) hears the cry and orders Laksman to go help his brother. Ravana, while posing as a begging minstrel, uses this opportunity to forcibly kidnap Sita from the ashram. Jatayu, the eagle, sees Ravana 's sinful act and attempts to fight with him, but Ravana has too much power and cuts off Jatayu 's wings and leaves him for dead. Rama and Lakshman return to find the ashram empty. They anxiously set out to find Sita and find the severely wounded eagle. Jatayu dies in Rama 's lap and receives liberation. As they continue to look for Sita they come across the hermitage of Shabari. Tulsidas says that Shabari washes the feet of Ram with tears from her eyes and feeds him half eaten wild berries to ensure he gets only sweet ones. She is given liberation by Rama. The brothers then head towards the Pampasarovar lake. The Kiśkindhā Region Episode High up in the Rishyamuk mountains, Sugriva sees Rama and Laksman at the foothills. He consults Hanuman as to whether he thinks they have been sent by his brother Bali. Hanuman disguises himself as a Brahmin and approaches the brothers. Hanuman recognises the true nature of Rama as God - incarnation and surrenders himself to his Holy feet. He tells the brothers that his king, Sugriva, wishes to extend his friendship to Them and will help Them to find Sita. Rama asks Sugriva why he resides in the mountains instead of Kishkindha, where Sugriva tells of his feud with his brother Bali. Rama sympathises with Sugriva and decides to help Sugriva in return for the latter 's help in finding Sita. Ram kills Bali and installs Sugriva as king of Kishkindha and Angada, Bali 's son, as prince regent. Sugriva becomes too attached to his new regal lifestyle and forgets about his agreement with Rama, which fills Rama with great anger. Rama asks Laksman to bring Sugriva to him. Laksman enters the royal court and threatens to burn the entire city to ashes. Sugriva is gravely worried and asks Hanuman to pacify him. Laksman escorts Sugriva to Rama and upon seeing Him, Sugriva falls as His feet and begs forgiveness. Sugriva immediately orders the gathering of the region 's bear and monkey community. Armies of bears and monkeys are dispatched north, south east and west to search for Sita. Rama knew that only Hanuman was really capable of finding Sita. He asks Hanuman to narrate the agony of separation from her and then hands over his ring. Hanuman is joined by Angad, Nala, Kesari and Jambavan as well as many others as they head to the south. As the army approach the coast, Jambavan and Angad see a cave by the shore of the ocean. The cave is occupied by Sampati (who is actually Jatayu 's older brother). There is a conversation during which Angad explains that Jatayu died serving Rama and thereafter Sampati narrates his biography. He tells the monkeys that he is sure that Sita is captive in Ashok Vatika in Lanka. The island is 400 miles away and requires someone who is able to jump the distance. Jambavan deduces that Hanuman is the only one capable of the task. The Pleasant Episode Hanuman takes Jambavan 's suggestion and immediately takes off for Lanka. He climbs onto the mountain and using it as a pivot, launches himself into the air. He meets Surasa, the mother of serpents and passes her test. The ocean demoness tries to capture Hanuman, thinking of him as a bird. He quickly kills her and then lands on the shore of the ocean in Lanka. He sees beautiful lush gardens, groves, lakes and reservoirs. Hanuman takes a minute form and, remembering Rama, enters Lanka. He is accosted by the demon Lankini whom he hits with his fist and causes her to fall to the ground. Hanuman flies through the various palaces and gardens for his search of Sita, and amongst all the demonic activities going on in Lanka, Hanuman sees a palace where Sri Hari 's name is being chanted. He is drawn towards the palace and decides to visit the inhabitant. The palace belongs to Ravana 's brother, Vibhishan. Hanuman narrates Rama katha (story) and then introduces himself. Hanuman proceeds to Ashok Vatika where he finally sees Sita. He positions himself on a branch of a tree, under which Sita was sitting, and contemplates his next move. He sees Ravana walk towards Sita and beg her to glance at least once toward him. She simply looks at a blade of grass to insult him. Ravana threatens to behead Sita but is calmed down by his wife, Mandodari. Hanuman has to use all his powers of calm not to react to Ravana 's threats. When all is quiet again, Hanuman begins to sing the glory of Rama in sweet tones. He then approaches Sita and explains who he is. He presents the ring lord Rama had given him and Sita is overjoyed. She blesses Hanuman with many kind words and boons. Hanuman tells Sita that he is hungry and asks for her permission to eat fruits from the grove. He not only eats but manages to destroy large parts of it. He easily kills one of Ravana 's sons, prince Aksaya. Indrajit arrives in the grove and Hanuman allows himself to be captured. He is brought in front of the king of Lanka, Ravana. Ravana orders his death, however, Vibhishan reminds him that Hanuman is an envoy and can not be killed according to religious principle. Ravana decides to humiliate Hanuman by setting his tail on fire. Large amounts of clothes are tied to his tail and soaked in oil. Hanuman chants the name of Rama and his tail begins to get longer, and more cloth and oil is used. He changes from his small form into a gigantic form and decides to torch alight the whole of Lanka. He returns to the ocean to extinguish his tail and then goes to Sita to reassure her that the next time she sees him, it will be with Rama. He bids farewell to Sita and leaps back towards Angad and Jambavan. The monkey army then ventures back to where Sugriva, Rama and Lakshman are waiting. On arrival Hanuman explains all that happened and immediately an army is prepared to go south towards Lanka. Meanwhile, in Lanka, both Mandodari and Vibhishan ask Ravana to hand Sita back to Rama. Ravana takes great exception to this suggestion and begins to insult Vibhishan particularly. He tells him he has no need for a weakling like him and that he is no longer needed. Vibhishan decides to join Rama at Kishkindha. Vibhishan falls at Ram 's feet and asks him for protection. The army deliberate over how to cross the ocean to Lanka. The deity of the seas tells Rama of the boon obtained by the monkey brothers Nila and Nala, and that they have the power to build a bridge to link the seashore to Lanka. The Lanka Episode Jambavan asks the monkeys Nala and Nila to begin work on building the bridge across the sea. The Mānas states that entire mountain ranges were used by Nala and Nila to complete their objective. Rama remembers Lord Shiva and decides to install a shrine for Rameswaram. Upon completion, the army of Rama begins to cross the bridge and arrives at Lanka, taking camp on Mount Suvela. Ravana hears of the advances of Rama 's army and feels greatly agitated. Mandodari asks Ravana to return Sita to Rama as she fears for her husband 's life. Ravana is dismissive of Rama 's power and pacifies his wife. Next, Ravana 's son Prahasta attempts to reinforce his mothers sentiments, but all to no avail. Rama fires a warning shot from his retreat in Suvela. The arrow strikes Ravana 's crown and royal umbrella. Mandodari once again attempts to convince Ravana of handing Sita back to Rama. Meanwhile, Rama asks Jambavan what should be done. Jambavan suggests that they send Angada, as messenger, to give Ravana a chance to return Sita. On reaching Ravana 's court, Angada explains he is the ambassador of Rama, and tells Ravana that he still has time to save himself from destruction. Ravana insults Angada and his refusal to comply makes war inevitable. The war begins with great ferocity as Ravana loses half of his army on the first day. Indrajit, Ravan 's son, is required to enter the battle far earlier than he expected. He severely wounds Lakshman with his special weapon, the Saang. Hanumanji is ordered to fetch the doctor of Lanka called Sushena. Sushena tells Rama that there exists a herb called Sanjivani which can only be found in the Himalayan mountains. It is the only hope to save Lakshman. Hanuman immediately reassures Rama that he shall find this herb. As Hanuman is about to leave, Ravana orders the demon Kalanemi to impede him. However, Hanuman kills Kalanemi with ease. Hanuman reaches the mountain and ca n't find the herb. In his frustration he decides to take the entire mountain to Lanka. Hanuman makes good speed towards Lanka when suddenly he is shot by an arrow as he approaches Nandigram. Hanuman is mistaken to be a demon by Bharat. Hanuman falls to the ground together with the great hill. Hanuman regains consciousness and recognizes that Bharata is Rama 's brother. He continues on to Lanka where he delivers the Sanjivani herb and Sushena treats Lakshman. Rama embraces Hanuman with great pride and affection. Ravan takes the news of Lakshman 's recovery very badly and decides to awaken his brother Kumbhakarna. Kumbhakarna kills indiscriminantly and wreaks much havoc. Rama releases an arrow which kills him instantly. The death of his brother scares Ravan greatly. Indrajit hastily tries to arrange a ceremony to receive great boons and powers but is interrupted by Hanuman and Angada. Lakshman takes up arms against Indrajit and kills him. Rama throws numerous arrows at Ravana but is unable to kill him. He asks Vibhishan on how to kill his brother after which Rama finally kills Ravana. The war is over. Ravana 's funeral takes place and Vibhishan is crowned the king of Lanka. Hanuman carries the happy news to Sita in Ashok vatika. Finally Rama and Sita are reunited. Rama and the army prepare to depart Lanka and return towards Ayodhya. Rama, Sita, Lakshman and the senior monkeys travel back in Ravana 's flying vehicle, Pushpak Vimaan. The Epilogue It is now the day before Rama is to return to Ayodhya after serving his exile. Bharata is anxious that his brother still has n't arrived. The Mānas mentions that Bharata had passed his days shedding tears for fourteen years in Nandigram. Hanuman meets Bharata telling him of the arrival of Rama, Sita and Laksman. Bharata rushes to Ayodhya to tell the citizens of the great news. As the Pushpak Vimaan landed in Ayodhya the citizens shouted chants of ' Glory be to Ramchandra '. Rama, Sita and Laksman collectively touch the feet of the sage Vashishta on arriving in Ayodhya and thereafter greet all that have gathered in the assembly. Lastly Rama meets Bharata with great affection and love. Rama 's coronation takes place and he is finally crowned king of Ayodhya. Shiva arrives to glorify the festivities further and asks Rama of the boon that he may have firm and undeviating devotion of Rama 's feet. In conclusion to the tale, Rama has twin sons named Lava and Kusha. The other brothers each have two sons as well. It is mentioned that great sages like Nārad and Sanaka visit Ayodhya to meet with Rama and to see his great city. In the subsequent passages of Uttar Kānd the biography of Saint Kakbhushundi is given, followed by a description of what is to be expected in the current age of Kaliyuga. Shiva ends his narration of the Rama Katha to Parvati as does Kakbhushundi to Garuda. It is not mentioned whether Yajnavalkya finishes his recitation to Bharadwaj. Finally, Goswami Tulsidas concludes his retelling of the Shri Ramcharitmanas. The Rudrastakam in Sanskrit is a part of this Kanda. During the Bālakāṇḍa, it is mentioned that Shiva is retelling the story of Rama (Rama Katha) to his spouse Parvati. During this retelling, Shiva explains as many as five reasons why Rama incarnated on earth. The brothers Jay and Vijay are the two favoured gate keepers of Hari. Due to a curse, by the Brahmin Sanaka and his three brothers, Jay and Vijay were born in the species of the demons. One took the birth of Hiranyakashipu and the other was born as Hiranyaksha. The Supreme incarnated Himself as Varaha in order to kill Hiranyaksha, while incarnating as Narasimha to kill Hiranyakashipu. Even though these brothers are killed by Hari Himself, they do not attain liberation as the Brahman 's had cursed them to three births and so were reborn as the powerful demons Ravana and Kumbhakarna. Hari took a human incarnation, as Rama, to kill Ravana and Kumbhakarna. Nārad Muni was wandering in Himalayan mountains and begins to think about Vishnu. He instantly falls into a deep meditative trance. Seeing the sage 's state, Indra becomes apprehensive as he sees Nārad 's trance as a threat to his own position as the chief of demigods in heaven. Indra asks Kamadeva to disturb Nārad 's trance. He creates an illusion of fragrant flowers, delightful breezes and such. Heavenly damsels are called but all this has no effect on the sage. Kamadeva accepts defeat and falls at Nārad 's feet, addressing him with deep humility. He recalls all that happened to Shiva and becomes puffed up with pride of his defeating of Kamadeva. Shiva admonishes him not to repeat the story to Hari. Nārad visits Vishnu at his abode, and unable to control his pride, re-tells his episode with Kamadeva, ignoring all that Shiva had advised. Vishnu further fans Nārad 's pride by telling him that his steadfast vow of celibacy is so strong that he can never be smitten. Nārad then departs Vishnu 's abode. Hari tells Laksmi that he has a plan and sets his illusory powers (maya) into operation. As Nārad departs Vaikuntha, Vishnu creates a beautiful illusory city with illusionary inhabitants. The city is ruled by King Sheelanidhi, who has a beautiful daughter called Vishvamohini. Nārad is intrigued with the city and decides to visit the king. Nārad sees the king 's daughter and falls in love with her. The king explains that he wishes to marry his daughter to a suitable man. Nārad devises a plot to get the princess to choose him. Nārad approaches Hari and asks him for the gift of great beauty. Vishnu says that he will do only that which is beneficial to Nārad. The sage is glad at heart and thinks that with Vishnu 's favour, the princess will surely choose him. In reality the Hari had made Nārad look hideous. The entire royal court is aware of Nārad 's appearance, but says nothing. The princess filled with rage as soon as she sees Nārad 's ugly form and completely ignores him. He sees a reflection of his face in water and is consumed with rage. He instantly goes back to Vaikuntha and begins to speak to Hari in ugly tones. He curses Hari, "You made me look like a monkey; therefore You shall have monkeys for Your mates. And as You have grievously wronged me, so shall You suffer the pangs of separation from Your wife ''. Hari accepts Nārad 's curse and instantly withdraws his illusionary spell. Nārad realises that there is no city and there is no Visvamohini, and is dismayed at what he has done. He begs Vishnu to invalidate his curse. Hari explains that it was His will and advises Nārad to chant his name to absolve himself of any sin. Nārad returns to his abode chanting the praises of Ram. Svayambhuva Manu had Shatarupa as his wife. Manu ruled the earth for many years and carried out the Lord 's commandments. He longed to devotion to Hari and decides to give up rulership to his son so that he can retire to the forest with Satarupa and meditate upon the Lord. Manu and Satarupa settle at the banks of the Sarayu river and devoutly repeat the twelve - syllable Mantra, calling out to who is the source of many Brahmas, Vishnus and Shivas emanate. Some commentators indicate that the twelve - syllable mantra is the Vishnu mantra (Oṃ Namo Bhagavate Vāsudevāya). Rambhadracharya comments that the twelve - letter mantra is the coupled mantra for Sita and Rama. Manu and Shatarupa first sacrifice food and then water and are finally willing to sacrifice air. Brahma, Hari and Shiva call on Manu but Manu and Satarupa are resolute and do not swerve on their sacrifices. A great voice from the heavens tells Manu, in sweet tones, to ask for a boon. Rama and Sita approach Manu in a beautiful form, which leaves Manu overcome with emotion. Manu explains now that he and Satarupa have seen the Lord 's lotus feet, all their desires have been met. Manu has one longing but does n't know how to ask the Lord. Finally he asks, "O gracious Lord, I tell You my sincere wish: I would have a son like You. I have nothing to conceal from You. '' The Lord announces that it shall be, however, where would he find a son like Himself? The Lord tells Manu that He Himself would be a son to him. The Lord then asks Satarupa of her wish. She says that she greatly likes the boon received by her husband and wants the same. Bowing at the Lord 's feet, Manu then asks one more favour. He asks that he be dependent on which is granted. The Lord then commands the couple to dwell in Indra 's capital in heaven. The Lord explains that after some time Manu would be born as the king of Ayodhya, Dashrath and Satarupa as Kausalya. He would then manifest Himself in the royal household as their son. He reassured the couple that their desire would be accomplished. Prior to the birth of Rama, Muni Bharadwaja is told the story of King Pratapbhanu by Yajnavalkya. There is a kingdom called Kaikay where Satyaketu is king. He has two sons, Pratapbhanu and Arimardana and rules his kingdom with his prime minister Dharamaruchi. Satyaketu abdicates and hands the reign to Pratapbhanu, who becomes conqueror of the world. Once Pratapbhanu goes into the forest to hunt and sees a wild boar. The boar is actually the demon Kalaketu in disguise who runs away from the king. Pratapbhanu gives chase deeper into the forest. Pratapbhanu chases for many miles and becomes thirsty. He approaches a fake saints ashram, where the resident fake saint wants to hurt and insult Pratapbhanu due to a previous incident. Pratapbhanu does n't recognise the saint, who begins to sweet talk the king and says that by pure love, he wishes to impart boons onto the king. The king asks to be invicible and never ageing, which the fake saint grants, but with the condition that he needs to win favour of all Brahmans. The fake saint advises that the king arrange the cooking of holy food (prasadam) to feed the bramanas, who would surely be in his favour for such an act of kindness. The fake saint 's real intention is to trap the king and repay him for his old grievances. The fake saint asks the king to go rest, and that he would arrange the feast for the bramanas using his mystic powers. Pratapbhanu waits for three days for the fake saint. Kalaketu, now disguised as a priest, approaches the King in his court and says that he has been sent to cook the holy food. The entire brahmana community is invited. A heavenly voice from above warns the brahmanas that the food is unpure and they should run away immediately. They curse the king that he, his kingdom and entire family are wiped from the face of earth. They also curse that he be born a demon in his next life. The heavenly voice says that the brahmana 's curse is ill thought, as Pratapbhanu is not to blame. Since their curse can not be taken back, the voice says that it is the Brahmana community that will bare the brunt of the evil of his next life. Pratapbhanu is distraught and quickly goes to his kitchen to find Kalaketu. The king is pained and cries as he realises Kalaketu has vanished. The brahmanas feel sorry for Pratapbhanu and tell him that his evil next life will be ended by Supreme Vishnu himself. As per the curse, Pratapbhanu, Arimardam and Dharmaruchi are all killed as other neighbouring kings invade Kaikay. Pratapbhanu is reborn as Ravan, Arimardam is reborn as Kumbhkarna and Dharmaruchi as Vibhishan. All three take great penances and are approached by Brahma and Shiva and are asked for any boon. Ravan asks that no one should be able to kill me except the tribes of man and monkeys. Kumbhkarna asks for uninterrupted sleep for periods of six months. Vibhishan asks for unshakeable love for the feet of Vishnu. The story of how Shiva came about retelling Ramkatha to his consort Parvati is retold in great detail within the Bālakāṇḍa. This part of the story is narrated by Sant Yajnavalkya to Bharadvaj Muni. In the age of Treta, Shiva, accompanied by His consort Bhavani Sati, went to visit Rishi Agastya. The Rishi being pleased with Shiva 's visit, began to narrate the eternal story of Ram. Shiva listens with great pleasure and then they return towards Their abode. Around these exact days Ram had descended on earth and was wondering the Dandaka forest with Sita and Lakshman. Shiva ponders how he can catch sight of Ram. He finally sees Ram, who is frantically searching for Sita, and instantly joins his palms and prays "Glory to the Redeemer of the universe, who is Truth, Consciousness and Bliss ''. Sati can not recognise Ram and wonders why her Supreme Shiva is praising a mortal. Shiva is the knower of all truth and instantly reads Sati 's thoughts. He advises her to not harbour such doubts and accept that she had seen Ram, whom Agastya had praised earlier. He finally says that if she is still not convinced then she should seek to verify this truth herself. Shiva observes as Sati takes the guise of Sita. Ram and Lakshman instantly see through Sati 's disguised and asks about Shiva 's whereabouts. Sati feels very uncomfortable and heads towards Shiva, thinking of how she is going to explain her folly of questioning His word. Shiva asks her to tell the truth of how she tested Ram. Sati is unable to tell the truth and says that she did not test Ram, but praised his as You had. Sati forgets that Shiva knows all that has happened and is disappointed that she was disguised as his Sita. He decides that Sati is too chaste to abandon and it is a sin to continue to be her Husband and so from then he has no connection with Sati in her current body. Sati concludes that Shiva has come to know everything and feels very foolish for having tried deceiving Him. Shiva sits under a banyan tree and enters into a long trance. Sati feel extremely sorry but accepts that providence is repaying her for her sins. Many years pass and Shiva finally ends his trance whilst praising Ram. Sati bows down at Shiva 's feet, after which he seats Sati opposite him and he begins to tell stories of Vishnu 's exploits. While Shiva is narrating the stories of Vishnu, the air is filled with celestial beings. Sati asks Shiva what the occasion is. Shiva explains that Her father Daksha has organised a great sacrifice where many demigods were invited. All except Brahma, Vishnu and Shiva were invited as Daksha had developed a hatred towards the Gods. Sati thinks of Her father and asks if She may visit him at this time. Shiva says that they have no formal invite and that all of Sati 's sisters are invited but because of his animosity towards Shiva, Her father has not invited us. Shiva tries to reason with Sati, that no good can come of Her attending, but Tulsidas explains that a daughters ties to her father are very strong. When she reaches her father 's abode, no one welcomes Her apart from Her mother. Daksha does not even acknowledge Her and actually burns with anger that She has turned up uninvited. Sati looks around and sees no oblations set apart for Shiva and the lack of respect of her father causes Her mind to rage with great anger. She faces Her father 's court and announces that Shiva is the father of the universe and the beneficent of all. It is the same Shiva that Her father vilifies. She burns Her body with the fires of Yoga. Her guards are beaten and thrashed. When Shiva came to know this, he sends Virabhadra, who wreaks havoc of the sacrifice and Daksha is slain. As Sati is about to die, She asks Lord Hari of the boon that she be devoted to Shiva 's feet in successive births. She is reborn as Parvati, the daughter of Himachal and Mena. Years after the birth of Parvati, Nārad Muni visits her parents Himachal and Mena. Himachal asks Nārad what the future holds for his daughter. Nārad says that Parvati will be adorned with good traits and win unfailing love of her husband. She will remain ever united with him and bring great glory upon her parents. The only drawback is that her husband will be an ascetic with matted hair who is naked and of hideous accoutrements. Himachal and Mena become disconsolate while Parvati is greatly pleased, as she senses from Nārad 's words that her boon from Vishnu is coming true. Nārad explains to Himachal that the only person who shows the virtues as described by him is Shiva. Parvati 's parents are immediately uplifted and as Nārad leaves, he asks Parvati to fix Her thoughts on Hari and practice austerity. The young Parvati enters the forest and performs great penances in order to obtain Shiva. Her body thins greatly due to her self - mortification after which Brahma declares that she should cease her severe penances as Shiva would soon be hers. History had produced many great sages, but none had performed such penances as this. Brahma instructs that her father would soon come for her and that she should return home with him. Ever since Sati had quit her body, Shiva had begun chanting Ram 's name and entered into a great trance. Through his mystic power, Ram asks Shiva to marry Parvati. Shiva says that this is not a justifiable request but the word of a master can not be set aside and must be obeyed. Shiva remains in his great trance. Around that time the demon Tāraka was causing distress and was in full flourish. Brahma declares that the son of Shiva will kill Tāraka, but for this to happen His wedding with Parvati needs to be arranged and for that to happen, Shiva 's trance has to be broken. It is decided that the God of Love should be sent to awaken Shiva. He fires five arrows of flowers at Shiva 's breast, the trance is broken and Shiva awakens. Shiva is enraged and, through his third eye, reduces Love to ashes. Love 's consort Rati faints as soon as she hears of her husband 's demise. Seeing the helpless woman, Shiva foretells that her husband will now be called bodiless and shall dominate all without a body form. When Krishna descends on earth, her husband would be born as His son Pradyumna. Thereafter Brahma and other gods approach Shiva and declare that they wish to witness His wedding with their own eyes. Remembering Vishnu 's early request, Shiva gladly agrees and Brahma proceeds to arrange the marriage. Shiva has no real family and so his attendants begin to adorn Him for His wedding to Parvati. His hair is formed into a crown with serpents forming a crest. Serpents form His earrings, bracelets and adorn his neck and He is smeared in ashes and has lion 's skin wrapped around His loins. He heads the wedding procession and Vishnu and Brahma, as well as a host of spirits, gandharavs and danavs follow behind. On the ninth day of the Chaitra month, the Manas describes that the Sun is at its meridian and the climate is neither cold nor hot. There is a cool, soft and fragrant breeze. The woods are full of blossom and the rivers or in full flow. Brahma deduces that the time for Ram 's birth is approaching and the heavenly beings all crowd over the skies to glimpse sight of the auspicious moment. The sky resounds of music and song as the heavenly beings offer their praises to the Supreme Personality of Godhead. Here begins one of the most famous chhands from the Manas, the Ram Janam Stuti. The stuti begins with the appearance of Ram. Mother Kaushalya 's is filled with joy as she marvels over Ram 's dark complexion and his four armed form. He is adorned with jewels and a garland of Sylvan flowers and is described as being an ocean of beauty. Kaushalya joins her palms and prays. "O Infinite, How can I praise You! The Vedas and Puranas reveal you to be the repository of all virtues. You are the Lord of Laksmi and the lover of all of Your devotees and have appeared for my good. Every pore of Your body contains multitudes of universes and the thought that You stayed in my womb is truly staggering. '' Ram smiles and exhorts Kaushalya by telling her the charming account of her previous birth so that she can accept Him as her own child. Kaushalya asks Ram to give up His current superhuman form and to start to indulge in childish sports that are dear to a mother 's heart. Ram, described as the Lord of immortals, immediately becomes an infant and begins to cry. Tulsidas concludes that whoever sings this Stuti attains the abode of Lord Vishnu and never falls into the well of mundane existence. The Stuti has therefore been immortalised and it is a popular prayer sung on the occasion of Ram 's birthday. Ahalya, the wife of Rishi Gautam, was a beautiful woman. Indra, king of the gods, was tempted and decided to seduce her with trickery. Early morning Rishi Gautam when the dawn had arrived go down to the nearby Ganges for his usual morning bath. While the Rishi was bathing at the river, Indra assumed Gautam 's form and visited Ahalya, fooling her into thinking he was her husband. When Gautam returned, he encountered Indra, emerging from his hut in his (Gautam 's) form. Spiritually powerful, Gautam employed his divine vision to see the whole episode. Enraged, he cursed Indra with impotence. Losing his potency, Indra lost heaven to demons and sat prayerfully in a lotus flower for thousands of years in order to repent. Rishi Gautam, in a blind rage, also cursed his wife, Ahalya, to turn into a boulder. Innocent of any intentional wrongdoing, Ahalya begged for forgiveness. Gautam relented somewhat and said that when Ram is incarnated, he will bless her and break her curse. Ram, while going to Mithila for Sita Svayamvar along with Sage Vishwamitra and Laksman, stopped at the, then - uninhabited, hermitage of Rishi Gautam. Vishwamitra narrated Ahalya 's story to Ram, and asked him to free her. Ram touched the boulder with his foot and Ahalya was immediately released from the curse. She fell to Ram 's feet and washed his feet with her tears. She felt that her curse had become her fortune as she got the opportunity to seek Ram 's refuge in person. She then returned to her husband 's place. Many scholars have commented on the sudden ending to the Manas. Valmiki 's Uttar Kānd goes into great detail about Sita going into the forest, as a result of disapproving gossip of the citizens of Ayodhya, during the rule of Ram over Ayodhya. Sitaji asks mother Earth to receive her and Ram leaves His human form and returns to His celestial abode. Tulsidas decides not to mention these at all. The Katha Kar Morari Bapu has mentioned in many of his retellings of Ram Katha, that Tulsidasji did n't want to end the Manas in heartache for Sita. Tulsidas refers to Sita as his mother (as well as the mother of the entire universe) many times in the poem and so, on an emotional level, this becomes very understandable. She has endured enough pain throughout the Manas and so ends his retelling at a relatively happy moment. It is said that there are some Vaishnav devotees who will only recite the Bālakāṇḍa of the Manas, as this is seen as the happiest period of Ram and Sita 's lila on earth. However, Ramchritmans at few places do make reference of Sita 's abandonment, birth of lav - kush and Ram 's demise to his abode. These stories thus can be said to have mentioned in brief. An unpublished English poetic translation of Ramcharitmanas is provided by (Late) Binda Prasad Khattri of New Market, Banda, Uttar Pradesh. Apparently, the translation can be sung essentially in the same way and with the same rhythm as the original Hindi work. Frederick Growse translated the Ramcharitmanas into English under the title The Ramayan of Tulsidas during the nineteenth century. His translation remains in print. The English commentary by Morari Bapu, Mangal Ramayan, is an English composition of one of his orrated Ram Katha commentaries. The book contains all the translations of prayers, Doha, Chaupais, and Chandan sung by Bapu, as well as an in - depth disccusion behind the meanings of the poetry. Tulsi Manas Mandir Notes References Online sources Bibliography

how to identify amino acid sequence of a protein

Protein sequencing - wikipedia Protein sequencing is the practical process of determining the amino acid sequence of all or part of a protein or peptide. This may serve to identify the protein or characterize its post-translational modifications. Typically, partial sequencing of a protein provides sufficient information (one or more sequence tags) to identify it with reference to databases of protein sequences derived from the conceptual translation of genes. The two major direct methods of protein sequencing are mass spectrometry and Edman degradation using a protein sequenator (sequencer). Mass spectrometry methods are now the most widely used for protein sequencing and identification but Edman degradation remains a valuable tool for characterizing a protein 's N - terminus. It is often desirable to know the unordered amino acid composition of a protein prior to attempting to find the ordered sequence, as this knowledge can be used to facilitate the discovery of errors in the sequencing process or to distinguish between ambiguous results. Knowledge of the frequency of certain amino acids may also be used to choose which protease to use for digestion of the protein. The misincorporation of low levels of non-standard amino acids (e.g. norleucine) into proteins may also be determined. A generalized method often referred to as amino acid analysis for determining amino acid frequency is as follows: Hydrolysis is done by heating a sample of the protein in 6 M hydrochloric acid to 100 -- 110 ° C for 24 hours or longer. Proteins with many bulky hydrophobic groups may require longer heating periods. However, these conditions are so vigorous that some amino acids (serine, threonine, tyrosine, tryptophan, glutamine, and cysteine) are degraded. To circumvent this problem, Biochemistry Online suggests heating separate samples for different times, analysing each resulting solution, and extrapolating back to zero hydrolysis time. Rastall suggests a variety of reagents to prevent or reduce degradation, such as thiol reagents or phenol to protect tryptophan and tyrosine from attack by chlorine, and pre-oxidising cysteine. He also suggests measuring the quantity of ammonia evolved to determine the extent of amide hydrolysis. The amino acids can be separated by ion - exchange chromatography then derivatized to facilitate their detection. More commonly, the amino acids are derivatized then resolved by reversed phase HPLC. An example of the ion - exchange chromatography is given by the NTRC using sulfonated polystyrene as a matrix, adding the amino acids in acid solution and passing a buffer of steadily increasing pH through the column. Amino acids are eluted when the pH reaches their respective isoelectric points. Once the amino acids have been separated, their respective quantities are determined by adding a reagent that will form a coloured derivative. If the amounts of amino acids are in excess of 10 nmol, ninhydrin can be used for this; it gives a yellow colour when reacted with proline, and a vivid purple with other amino acids. The concentration of amino acid is proportional to the absorbance of the resulting solution. With very small quantities, down to 10 pmol, fluorescent derivatives can be formed using reagents such as ortho - phthaldehyde (OPA) or fluorescamine. Pre-column derivatization may use the Edman reagent to produce a derivative that is detected by UV light. Greater sensitivity is achieved using a reagent that generates a fluorescent derivative. The derivatized amino acids are subjected to reversed phase chromatography, typically using a C8 or C18 silica column and an optimised elution gradient. The eluting amino acids are detected using a UV or fluorescence detector and the peak areas compared with those for derivatised standards in order to quantify each amino acid in the sample. Determining which amino acid forms the N - terminus of a peptide chain is useful for two reasons: to aid the ordering of individual peptide fragments ' sequences into a whole chain, and because the first round of Edman degradation is often contaminated by impurities and therefore does not give an accurate determination of the N - terminal amino acid. A generalised method for N - terminal amino acid analysis follows: There are many different reagents which can be used to label terminal amino acids. They all react with amine groups and will therefore also bind to amine groups in the side chains of amino acids such as lysine - for this reason it is necessary to be careful in interpreting chromatograms to ensure that the right spot is chosen. Two of the more common reagents are Sanger 's reagent (1 - fluoro - 2, 4 - dinitrobenzene) and dansyl derivatives such as dansyl chloride. Phenylisothiocyanate, the reagent for the Edman degradation, can also be used. The same questions apply here as in the determination of amino acid composition, with the exception that no stain is needed, as the reagents produce coloured derivatives and only qualitative analysis is required. So the amino acid does not have to be eluted from the chromatography column, just compared with a standard. Another consideration to take into account is that, since any amine groups will have reacted with the labelling reagent, ion exchange chromatography can not be used, and thin layer chromatography or high - pressure liquid chromatography should be used instead. The number of methods available for C - terminal amino acid analysis is much smaller than the number of available methods of N - terminal analysis. The most common method is to add carboxypeptidases to a solution of the protein, take samples at regular intervals, and determine the terminal amino acid by analysing a plot of amino acid concentrations against time. This method will be very useful in the case of polypeptides and protein - blocked N termini. C - terminal sequencing would greatly help in verifying the primary structures of proteins predicted from DNA sequences and to detect any postranslational processing of gene products from known codon sequences. The Edman degradation is a very important reaction for protein sequencing, because it allows the ordered amino acid composition of a protein to be discovered. Automated Edman sequencers are now in widespread use, and are able to sequence peptides up to approximately 50 amino acids long. A reaction scheme for sequencing a protein by the Edman degradation follows; some of the steps are elaborated on subsequently. Peptides longer than about 50 - 70 amino acids long can not be sequenced reliably by the Edman degradation. Because of this, long protein chains need to be broken up into small fragments that can then be sequenced individually. Digestion is done either by endopeptidases such as trypsin or pepsin or by chemical reagents such as cyanogen bromide. Different enzymes give different cleavage patterns, and the overlap between fragments can be used to construct an overall sequence. The peptide to be sequenced is adsorbed onto a solid surface. One common substrate is glass fibre coated with polybrene, a cationic polymer. The Edman reagent, phenylisothiocyanate (PITC), is added to the adsorbed peptide, together with a mildly basic buffer solution of 12 % trimethylamine. This reacts with the amine group of the N - terminal amino acid. The terminal amino acid can then be selectively detached by the addition of anhydrous acid. The derivative then isomerises to give a substituted phenylthiohydantoin, which can be washed off and identified by chromatography, and the cycle can be repeated. The efficiency of each step is about 98 %, which allows about 50 amino acids to be reliably determined. A protein sequenator is a machine that performs Edman degradation in an automated manner. A sample of the protein or peptide is immobilized in the reaction vessel of the protein sequenator and the Edman degradation is performed. Each cycle releases and derivatises one amino acid from the protein or peptide 's N - terminus and the released amino - acid derivative is then identified by HPLC. The sequencing process is done repetitively for the whole polypeptide until the entire measurable sequence is established or for a pre-determined number of cycles. Protein identification is the process of assigning a name to a protein of interest (POI), based on its amino - acid sequence. Typically, only part of the protein 's sequence needs to be determined experimentally in order to identify the protein with reference to databases of protein sequences deduced from the DNA sequences of their genes. Further protein characterization may include confirmation of the actual N - and C - termini of the POI, determination of sequence variants and identification of any post-translational modifications present. A general scheme for protein identification is described. The pattern of fragmentation of a peptide allows for direct determination of its sequence by de novo sequencing. This sequence may be used to match databases of protein sequences or to investigate post-translational or chemical modifications. It may provide additional evidence for protein identifications performed as above. The peptides matched during protein identification do not necessarily include the N - or C - termini predicted for the matched protein. This may result from the N - or C - terminal peptides being difficult to identify by MS (e.g. being either too short or too long), being post-translationally modified (e.g. N - terminal acetylation) or genuinely differing from the prediction. Post-translational modifications or truncated termini may be identified by closer examination of the data (i.e. de novo sequencing). A repeat digest using a protease of different specificity may also be useful. Whilst detailed comparison of the MS data with predictions based on the known protein sequence may be used to define post-translational modifications, targeted approaches to data acquisition may also be used. For instance, specific enrichment of phosphopeptides may assist in identifying phosphorylation sites in a protein. Alternative methods of peptide fragmentation in the mass spectrometer, such as ETD or ECD, may give complementary sequence information. The protein 's whole mass is the sum of the masses of its amino - acid residues plus the mass of a water molecule and adjusted for any post-translational modifications. Although proteins ionize less well than the peptides derived from them, a protein in solution may be able to be subjected to ESI - MS and its mass measured to an accuracy of 1 part in 20,000 or better. This is often sufficient to confirm the termini (thus that the protein 's measured mass matches that predicted from its sequence) and infer the presence or absence of many post-translational modifications. Proteolysis does not always yield a set of readily analyzable peptides covering the entire sequence of the POI. The fragmentation of peptides in the mass spectrometer often does not yield ions corresponding to cleavage at each peptide bond. Thus, the deduced sequence for each peptide is not necessarily complete. The standard methods of fragmentation do not distinguish between leucine and isoleucine residues since they are isomeric. Because the Edman degradation proceeds from the N - terminus of the protein, it will not work if the N - terminus has been chemically modified (e.g. by acetylation or formation of Pyroglutamic acid). Edman degradation is generally not useful to determine the positions of disulfide bridges. It also requires peptide amounts of 1 picomole or above for discernible results, making it less sensitive than mass spectrometry. In biology, proteins are produced by translation of messenger RNA (mRNA) with the protein sequence deriving from the sequence of codons in the mRNA. The mRNA is itself formed by the transcription of genes and may be further modified. These processes are sufficiently understood to use computer algorithms to automate predictions of protein sequences from DNA sequences, such as from whole - genome DNA - sequencing projects, and have led to the generation of large databases of protein sequences such as UniProt. Predicted protein sequences are an important resource for protein identification by mass spectrometry. Historically, short protein sequences (10 to 15 residues) determined by Edman degradation were back - translated into DNA sequences that could be used as probes or primers to isolate molecular clones of the corresponding gene or complementary DNA. The sequence of the cloned DNA was then determined and used to deduce the full amino - acid sequence of the protein. Bioinformatics tools exist to assist with interpretation of mass spectra (see De novo peptide sequencing), to compare or analyze protein sequences (see Sequence analysis), or search databases using peptide or protein sequences (see BLAST).

when was season 7 of vampire diaries filmed

The vampire Diaries (season 7) - Wikipedia The Vampire Diaries, a one - hour American supernatural drama, was renewed for a seventh season by The CW on January 11, 2015, and premiered on October 8, 2015. This is the first season to not feature Nina Dobrev as Elena Gilbert following her departure from the series after the season six finale. On March 11, 2016, The CW renewed The Vampire Diaries for an eighth and final season. Damon, Bonnie and Alaric have been spending the summer in Europe while Stefan, Caroline and Matt make a deal with Lily and her Heretics when they failed to defeat them. Stefan and Caroline evacuate the whole town to protect them from the Heretics but agree that anyone who passes the border will be Heretics ' blood meal. Alaric consults psychics about his dead wife. Damon rescues Bonnie from a car accident but only at the last minute. When the trio get back in town, they discover about the deal with the Heretics. Damon and Bonnie make their own plan and kill a Heretic. When Lily learns about the death, she attains revenge by kidnapping Caroline with the help of Enzo. In present day, Caroline is held prisoner by vervain soaked ropes but escapes from Enzo, only to get recaptured by the Heretic girls. The girls torture her. Valerie seems to be good to her by putting a spell on her which keeps her away from other vampires. Damon and Stefan rescue Caroline from the house which was made easy to enter by making Matt 's heart stop temporarily, as Matt was made owner of the house. In the last minute, Stefan is pulled out of the house and Damon is told by Enzo that the Heretics have Elena. Lily and the Heretics perform a funeral ritual for their fellow dead heretic and the love of Lily 's life. Lily threatens Damon into admitting to the murder of the Heretic and tells him to keep away from Mystic Falls. Meanwhile, Alaric tests the Phoenix stone on a corpse in the morgue. Damon sets off on a road trip with Bonnie and Alaric in search of leverage they can use against his mother. The trio searches for and meet the last heretic, Oscar, who defected from Lily 's group. Damon asked for Oscar 's help in siphoning magic from Bonnie who was getting horrible visions after touching the Phoenix Stone. Oscar refuses to help when he finds out about the stone, and tries to escape by knocking Alaric and Bonnie unconscious and breaking Damon 's neck. The trio captures Oscar and makes a deal with Lily in exchange for Elena 's coffin. Meanwhile, Caroline, still being held hostage by the Heretics, learns some information about Valerie 's past. Flashbacks to 1863 show Valerie meeting Stefan for the first time and showing how they fell in love. In actual fact, Valerie was sent by Lily to watch out for her son but they fell in love. When Valerie planned to run away while pregnant, Julian beat her and brought her back to the ship. There, Valerie killed herself which turned her into the very first heretic as she had died with Lily 's blood in her system. At the same time, Stefan learns a few unexpected details about his own past from Lily about how she first met Valerie. Also, Alaric turns to Bonnie for her help after coming clean that he has the Phoenix Stone which can bring the dead back to life. Lily sets Caroline free out of admiration for Stefan 's honesty with her. On Halloween, Stefan and Damon desperately hide Oscar 's corpse, as his death disables their exchange plan with Lily, who released Caroline to Enzo 's delighted relief. They turn for his resuscitation to Bonnie and Alaric, who admits having kept the Phoenix stone. However the sorcery ritual proves hard to crack while the heretic girls, Nora and Mary Louise come searching for the corpse, which is hid in the dorm. Lily instructs Nora and Mary Louise to kill a student at Whitmore College every hour unless Oscar is returned to her. So, Stefan and Bonnie team up to lure Nora and Mary Louise to Whitmore 's annual Heaven and Hell dance to keep an eye on the couple while Damon, Bonnie and Alaric try to resurrect Oscar using the Phoenix Stone. Also, Valerie confides in Enzo about killing Oscar in order to prevent him from detailing the whereabouts of Lily 's former lover, Julian, whom Valerie has a past with. Damon and Stefan team up with Valerie, who is searching for Julian 's coffin to destroy it. Meanwhile, Rick is dealing with Jo to cope things after she becomes alive again. Bonnie goes to the Salvatore manor to ask Oscar, who is under Enzo 's watch, about the Phoenix stone but unfortunately, gets attacked by him. Enzo gets the Phoenix stone as Bonnie loses it when she tries to run away from Oscar. Enzo then stabs Oscar when he goes crazy. When the Salvatore brothers and Valerie reach their location, she explains that the Phoenix stone does not bring people alive but it transferred vampire souls imprisoned in the stone into a body. Just as Valerie tries to burn Julian 's corpse, Lily and the Heretics arrive and rescue him. Valerie, who for her actions are left alone by the Heretics, tells Damon that it was Lily 's plan to make Elena sleep as long as Bonnie is alive. Damon tries to murder Lily but they escape by making coffins explode and injuring Stefan, Damon and Valerie. Back in the Salvatore house, Enzo, in possession of Phoenix stone, makes Lily choose between him and Julian but Lily chooses the latter and disappointed, Enzo gives her the stone. With the stone, the Heretics revive Julian. Bonnie sadly informs Rick about the stone and that Jo 's body might not have his wife 's soul. Bonnie is joined by Damon who vows to get revenge on Lily who destroys everything that makes him happy. Lily and the Heretics throw a party at Salvatore manor which Stefan and Damon also attend. Bonnie arrives with Enzo and she tries to make Lily jealous for Enzo. Meanwhile, Rick deals with Jo and her suddenly declining health. Valerie and Caroline arrive there, where Valerie explains that Jo was human and the vampire soul is not compatible with her body which meant that she was as good as dead. Back in the manor, Julian and the Salvatore brothers get into an argument which brings them to fight until Lily intervenes and says she will never let her children suffer. Rick has to let go of Jo but Valerie finds out the twins are still alive. They then make a locator spell which seems to points nowhere but shockingly Valerie deduces that the twins are inside Caroline 's body. Lily, Damon and Stefan plan killing Julian which requires unlinking him from Lily with the help of the Heretics. Caroline informs Stefan about her pregnancy who finally comes to terms with it. Enzo warns Lily of the impending threat to her life and they share a moment. Later, Enzo is kidnapped by Matt and his troop. Valerie and the Salvatore brothers corner Julian but are interrupted by Mary Louise. Julian forces Lily to choose between killing Valerie or Damon. Unaware that the unlinking 's already done, Lily stakes herself, thinking this could kill Julian. Nora breaks up with Mary Louise as the latter sided with Julian instead of Lily. Everybody then says their goodbyes to Lily before her death, except Damon, who coldly dismisses her for Elena 's sleep spell. Lily is put to rest. Stefan and Damon 's search for Julian leads them to a bar outside of Mystic Falls filled with dead Santas. As Julian arrives with his minions, the two parties tiff up which later aggravates back home. Nora and Bonnie become friends during a toy drive. Caroline is struggling with her pregnancy as her feeding urges keep her on the edge; she visits her mom 's grave for some peace. The fight between the Salvatore brothers and Julian finally leads to him staking Damon with the Phoenix sword, ergo trapping his soul inside the Phoenix hell - stone. It is shown that Damon is back to his Civil War days, injured and scared. When Nora learns that all this time Bonnie was simply stalling her from saving Julian, she siphons out Bonnie 's magic and stakes Stefan with the Phoenix Sword as well. Damon saves Matt and Bonnie as Caroline stealthily injects him with vervain. Stefan is having disturbing post-hell hallucinations of him and Damon underwater with the latter drowning. In his hallucinations, Damon even posed a threat to his and Caroline 's relationship. (Damon kept Stefan from escaping hell - world, so in order to escape, the latter had to let go of him). Soon, Henry 's spirit starts haunting Damon. Tyler shows up for Caroline 's baby shower. Under Julian 's leadership, Mystic Falls is now a shoddy home to his vampire mates. It is revealed that Alaric will move to Dallas and Caroline finds it hard to accept that she has to eventually part with the twins. Matt is arrested by a lady cop named Penny for DUI who later questions his wooden weapons. Nora and Bonnie anxiously plan to face a ruthless legendary vampire huntress (she hunts down any Phoenix sword - staked vampire) after Nora receives an X-marked envelope warning of her arrival. Damon meets up with an apprehensive Tyler forcing him to take him to see Elena. As Damon opens Elena 's coffin, he finds Henry. He charges at a prepared Tyler but eventually bashes him against concrete. Henry here advises Damon to attain liberation by letting go of what holds back his true monstrous nature. An exasperated Damon attempts to finish off Henry by setting the coffin on fire. As he watches it burn, Henry reappears telling him that he burnt Elena for good which leaves him devastated. Back home, Stefan assures Damon that he will always have his back who is at a loss of words, unable to reveal that his reason to breathe and live is no more as he killed Elena. Back in Whitmore, Caroline 's supernatural pregnancy is affecting her as the babies are siphoners who keep siphoning away her vampirism magic causing her to desiccate inside out. Valerie tries swapping their magic source for a magic - filled talisman but eventually it all goes in vain. Officer Penny learns about Mystic Falls brimming with vampires from Matt. Bonnie, Mary Lou and Nora search for Rayna Cruz, "The Huntress '' finding her old and feeble in a psychiatric ward. Puzzled, the Heretics carry on their search when suddenly, Rayna attacks Bonnie who is saved just in time by Enzo who kills off Rayna. It is revealed that Enzo sent the ' X ' cards to track Rayna; he burns her to ashes only to revive her back in her young true self. Elsewhere, Damon returns to his road - kill antics, picks on Julian and indulges in dangerous games with his mates. The fight gets nastier with Julian stepping up to fight him. By this time, Stefan has reached the spot and begs Damon to stop, who gives him a deaf ear continuing to fight as if he had a death wish. After a while, Damon begs Julian for death. Stefan interferes and finally gets Damon to walk off the ring. Eventually, Damon discloses about him burning Elena alive to a stunned Stefan who beats him up, abandons him and has a breakdown. He is now hell bent on killing Julian. Damon looks on as he stands there taken over by remorse and bleeding profusely. Back in Mystic Falls, Valerie and Stefan finally take on Julian as Stefan catches him off guard and stakes him while Valerie keeps them cloaked. Back in Salvatore boarding house, Damon gets an unexpected visitor, a brunette (she saved him during one of the ring fights) who comes in and kisses him. Wallowing in emptiness, Damon gazes into her eyes accepting the bitter truth of fate and as a final jolt of mental agony, he bends down to kiss her back. Rayna is a supernaturally blessed vampire huntress who was once compelled by Julian to kill her own father, a hunter belonging to one among The Five, using the Phoenix sword as her weapon. Back in 1863, hell bent on seeking revenge, she had impaled Beau and staked Julian into the Phoenix hell - stone. She has now released herself and retrieved her sword from Bonnie and Damon. Caroline 's fast desiccation called for an early C section delivery which was aided by all the Heretics and later Bonnie. Suddenly, Beau 's wound reopens and he gets killed and burnt by Rayna. Nora and Mary Louise run for their lives. Meanwhile, Valerie and Stefan try easing the delivery (the twins were reluctant to come out thus leave their constant source of magic). Bonnie, Alaric and Valerie watched as Caroline successfully gave birth to the twins. Damon distracted and tried fighting Rayna but almost gets staked just as Stefan came to rescue. In this process Stefan gets marked by the sword once more forcing him to run from her. Enzo informs Damon that Elena is alive and well protected by his men and that he was hallucinating her death. Beyond relieved, Damon promises Stefan that he will make things right now that life has offered him a second chance. Alaric names the twins Josie in honor of their mom Josette Laughlin, and Elizabeth, in honor of Caroline 's mom. Caroline moves to Dallas with Alaric and the twins. Valerie locates an anti-magic bar in New Orleans, "St. James Infirmary '' where Stefan must hide (as Rayna 's sword will not be able to trace him there). At the bar, Stefan meets Klaus. He eventually finds out that Stefan is there hiding from Rayna and is furious. He asks Stefan to leave, and Stefan forgets his phone. Klaus gets to talk with Caroline, finally agreeing to protect Stefan and does so. While on the run, both Nora and Mary Louise are tranquilized and captured by men who work for "The Armory ''. Meanwhile, Bonnie and Damon meet Enzo at a supernatural museum - like organization named "The Armory '', who are desperate to lock up Rayna. Enzo works for them as they are giving him information about his family. He wants to know Stefan 's location in order to lure Rayna in. Damon adamantly keeps his brother 's location a secret after getting warned about the organization 's dubious past from Valerie. An equally adamant Enzo tranquilizes Damon and knocks out Bonnie (it is shown that, somehow, Enzo makes Bonnie immune to magic). Damon finds himself locked in with a comatose Tyler who will soon transition into a werewolf because it is a full moon. Bonnie takes desperate measures to save Damon from being bitten. Damon struggles with Tyler, who makes him realize that "people around him are always dying in order to save him and it must stop ''. Taking it to heart, Damon advises Bonnie to not open the cell as she could die. Undeterred, Bonnie manages to open the cell, only to get her skull bashed by Tyler who runs away after a fight. Damon sees that she is not healing with his blood and gets her hospitalized. As he talks to an unconscious Bonnie, he says that he is deeply hurt to have put her and Stefan 's lives in danger, both of whom tried to save him. This makes him think that it would be best to take himself out of the equation as to no longer bother his loved ones, and it will all end tomorrow. This episode begins a crossover with The Originals that concludes on "A Streetcar Named Desire ''. Stefan and Valerie pursue a herb that can hide them from Rayna. With help from Matt, Damon finally captures Rayna and kills her multiple times in order to die permanently. Bonnie and Enzo discover that once Rayna 's lives are over, all of those she marked will die as well and inform Damon just in time before she dies permanently. Damon escapes and notifies Stefan of his intention to desiccate for the next 60 years, to Stefan 's disapproval. After an advise from Penny, Matt confronts Stefan and tells him and all vampires to get away from Mystic Falls, otherwise he will show the world the existence of vampires on a CCTV footage. Damon arrives at the storage unit where he plans to desiccate alongside Elena 's coffin, but Bonnie shows up letting him know that she is extremely hurt with his decision. She leaves him there and Damon finally lies down to slowly desiccate near to death with hopes that he has saved his loved ones from the array of bad choices he makes putting their lives in jeopardy. Enzo, Damon, Stefan and Caroline try coming up with plans to open The Armory while Matt and Bonnie are chasing after them. While doing so, they meet an accident that injures Matt badly. Alaric and Caroline decide on making the twins open up the vault by siphoning off Bonnie 's spell. Penny 's spirit makes Matt realize that he deserves better, making him regain his consciousness. The twins open the Armory. Damon and Stefan go inside. Enzo lures Bonnie to the cabin letting Damon and Stefan buy more time. The tiny cabin gets nasty as Bonnie, unable to hold her urges, holds a stake down Enzo 's chest. While searching, Damon and Stefan finally approach the vault which Damon decides to venture in, alone. He assures Stefan that in some way or another, everything will be okay. They share a handshake and hug and part ways as Damon finally gets inside the vault. Enzo recollects of the glorious 3 years as he struggles to the impale while Damon, just in time, finds the Everlasting 's body, sets it on fire thus severing the link and lifting the curse off of Bonnie. Outside, Alaric tells Caroline to stay back with Stefan and parts ways on good terms saying that no matter what, they will always be family. Stefan and Caroline get back together. A rejoiced Bonnie forgives Damon on the phone and while he 's getting out, he starts hearing Elena 's voice. Enzo and Bonnie warn Damon that it is the vault playing tricks with his mind but he keeps following the voice and something scary overpowers him. Enzo rushes in to help encountering a strange Damon. The monster takes Enzo as well. The cast features Paul Wesley as Stefan Salvatore, Ian Somerhalder as Damon Salvatore, Kat Graham as Bonnie Bennett, Candice Accola as Caroline Forbes and Zach Roerig as Matt Donovan. On April 6, 2015, it was announced that Nina Dobrev would be leaving after the sixth season; he announced that Michael Trevino would only appear as a guest on the new season. On April 11, 2015, it was announced that Steven R. McQueen would be departing the show. On July 15, 2015, it was announced that Scarlett Byrne and Teressa Liane were hired to play Nora and Mary Louise, respectively. Nora and Mary Louise are described as extremely powerful and protective with each other, because it is the first same - sex couple in the series; additionally it reported that Elizabeth Blackmore was chosen to give life to Valerie. The trio is part of the family of heretics Lily Salvatore. On November 5, he announced that Leslie - Anne Huff was hired to play Rayna, a slayer.

can you have two jobs in south africa

South African Labour law - Wikipedia South African labour law regulates the relationship between employers, employees and trade unions in the Republic of South Africa. The Native Labour Regulations Act 1911 prohibited strikes by trade unions, introduced wage ceilings and a pass system for moving around jobs. Over 70,000 Chinese labourers were brought in, and used by landowners to undercut the wages of other workers. Among white workers, there was significant unrest, and major strikes took place in 1907, 1913, 1914 and 1922 For a period of sixteen years, from 1979 to 1995, several critical developments occurred in the field of labour law in South Africa, beginning with a radical change in the first of these years, when a significant Commission of Enquiry was held, resulting in the establishment of an Industrial Court, which was given extensive powers to mould, change, shape and develop the law. Prior to 1995, most labour relations were based on contracts. In 1995, much of the law developed by the Commission and the Industrial Court was put together in the Labour Relations Act 1995 (LRA). Since then, most labour law has been based on statute. Prior to 1995, an employee could be dismissed in terms of the contract of employment, which could permit any reason for dismissal. Since 1995, an employee may be dismissed only for misconduct, operational reasons and incapacity. The Labour Relations Act 1995 is a pivotal piece of legislation, as it recognises the need for fast and easy access to justice in labour disputes. The Industrial Court had the status of a High Court, and therefore was not accessible to all labourers. 1995 also saw the introduction of the Commission for Conciliation, Mediation and Arbitration (CCMA) which is an administrative tribunal. The Commission for Conciliation, Mediation and Arbitration endeavours first and foremost to conciliate between the parties. If it is unsuccessful in this, the matter moves on to arbitration. The entire process is very informal, and at no charge, and is therefore very accessible to labourers, who often utilise it: About 300 new cases are brought before the Commission for Conciliation, Mediation and Arbitration daily. In addition to the Commission for Conciliation, Mediation and Arbitration, 1995 saw the introduction of bargaining councils, which allow for communication across the industry. A bargaining council is organised collectively and voluntarily, and must be registered. In order to be registered, an alternative - dispute - resolution mechanism, similar to the Commission for Conciliation, Mediation and Arbitration, must be put in place. The Labour Relations Act 1995 also regulated the issue of fairness, not only in termination but during employment, too. In 1998, however, most of the law on unfair labour practices was removed from the Labour Relations Act 1995 and put into the Employment Equity Act (EEA). The EEA also deals with issues such as fairness regarding a worker 's human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) status or disability, as well as the issue of affirmative action. The Basic Conditions of Employment Act (BCEA), the Health and Safety Acts and the Skills Development Act, must be read with the EEA. The Skills Development Act provides that a small percentage of a labourer 's salary must be contributed to the Department of Labour, enabling certain workshops to be run which are designed to develop skills. Chapter 2 of the Constitution contains several provisions of relevance to employment and labour law: It is important to interpret all labour legislation in light of the Constitution. Section 23 of the Constitution deals specifically with labour relations, providing that everyone has the right to fair labour practices, and specifically the right Every employer, meanwhile, has the right Every trade union and every employers ' organisation has the right Finally, every trade union, employers ' organisation and employer has the right to engage in collective bargaining. Section 23 (1) is an unusual provision -- only South Africa and Malawi expressly protect the right to fair labour practices -- as it is so broad and overarching. An exact definition of fair labour practices is impossible, since this is a dynamic field of the law, rooted in socioeconomic rights. Section 23 (1) refers to "everyone, '' encompassing far more than merely employees and workers; it also includes would - be workers, employers and juristic persons. Section 23 is not entirely universal, however, as soldiers are excluded from its ambit insofar as they may not strike at a time of war. The Labour Relations Act was promulgated as the "national legislation '' referred to in subsections 23 (5) and 23 (6), which provide respectively that "national legislation may be enacted to regulate collective bargaining, '' and that "national legislation may recognise union security arrangements contained in collective agreements. '' Both subsections stipulate that, to the extent that such legislation may limit one of the rights in section 23, the limitation must comply with section 36 (1), the limitations clause of the Constitution. The current Basic Conditions of Employment Act is also designed to give effect to the right to fair labour practices. Both Acts are bolstered by the EEA, which replicates the equality clause in the Constitution in its totality, adding that one may not discriminate on the basis of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) status. The general guarantee of fair labour practices has far - reaching effects on the civil courts ' approach to the interpretation of the rights of parties to employment contracts. All courts are enjoined, when applying and developing the common law, to have due regard to the spirit, purport and objects of the Bill of Rights. This calls for a reconsideration of some of the assumptions underlying the common - law contract of employment, in particular the employer 's power of command and unfettered rights in respect of promotion and dismissal. Furthermore, the labour courts ' judgments on such contentious issues as the dismissal of striking workers are subject to review by the Constitutional Court, so long as the applicants have exhausted the procedures available to them under the labour legislation. In NUMSA v Bader Bop, the Constitutional Court overturned a decision of the Labour Appeal Court which restrictively interpreted the Labour Relations Act 1995. The court recognised the necessity of collective bargaining and bargaining councils which facilitate the establishment of trade unions. The court held that minority unions may not strike in support of demands for organisational rights reserved in the Act for majority unions. In NEHAWU v University of Cape Town, the Constitutional Court overturned another decision of the Labour Appeal Court which restrictively interpreted the Labour Relations Act 1995. It had been argued that the term "everyone '' did not include a university or a company, but the court held otherwise. Furthermore, the court ruled that, under the original section 197 of the Labour Relations Act 1995, contracts of employment transferred automatically when businesses were transferred, irrespective of the wishes of the employers. SANDU v Minister of Defence, another Constitutional Court, case Judge O'Reagan dealt with the concept of a "worker, '' and held that, although the Labour Relations Act 1995 does not apply to South African National Defense Force (SANDF) members, they are still "workers '' in terms of the Constitution, which protects the rights of every person in South Africa. The first question to be asked, when seeking to resolve any labour law problem, is whether the parties are indeed "employees '' and "employers '' within the meaning of the applicable statute or the common law. This has long been a difficult task in South Africa, as it is not always immediately apparent whether the parties have entered into the locatio conductio operarum (contract of employment) or merely the locatio conductio operis (contract of work). Distinguishing between these two kinds of contracts is critically important, as different legal consequences flow from the various forms of contract. Most important is that South African labour legislation applies only in respect of employees, who are entitled to social security benefits and have access to the statutory mechanisms if they wish to seek remedies for violations of their employment rights. Similarly, only employers are bound by the labour statutes, and are vicariously liable for the delicts of their employees. The first source to be examined, when seeking to determine whether parties to a work relationship are employers and employees, is the contract into which they have entered. A contract of employment comes into existence when the parties conclude an agreement that conforms to the requirements of the locatio conductio operarum. The contract of employment is traditionally defined as "a contract between two persons, the master (employer) and the servant (employee), for the letting and hiring of the latter 's services for reward, the master being able to supervise and control the servant 's work. '' This, however, begs the question of how much supervision or control is required to distinguish between employees and independent contractors. Reported judgments have indicated that the task of distinguishing employees and employers from parties to other contractual relationships entailing the provision of work, or the rendering of services, is not a matter of definition; classification of such contracts is a "matter of substance, not merely of form. '' The true nature of the contract, therefore, is determined from the relationship between the parties, not merely the label the parties have given their contract. Statutory definitions do not resolve the problem. "Employee '' is defined The difference between the Labour Relations Act 1995 and the EEA is that the Labour Relations Act 1995 excludes independent contractors only in section 213 (a), while the EEA excludes independent contractors in both subsections. It is safe, however, to assume that even from the second part of the definition of an "employee, '' as it appears in the Labour Relations Act 1995 or the Basic Conditions of Employment Act, independent contractors are implicitly excluded. At the core of subsection (a) of both definitions lies a reference to the contract of employment: one person working for another in exchange for some form of remuneration. The basic idea behind subsection (b) of both definitions is that employees are those people who place their capacity to work at the disposal of others. This is the essence of employment. The case of Liberty Life Association of Africa v Niselow reiterates the law set out above and the interpretation of the definition of "employee. '' Labour legislation does not define "contract of service '' or the concept of "work '' at all. This means that it is necessary to look outside the legislation to determine the meaning of these terms, in order to distinguish between an employee and an independent contractor. The courts have formulated a number of tests for drawing the distinction. The control test focuses on the element of "control '' exercised by the employer over the employee. The power to control has traditionally been regarded as the hallmark of the employment contract. With the advent of highly skilled employees who are given free rein in performing their duties, the courts no longer insist on de facto control, as once they did, but recognise that a right to control is sufficient. The courts initially applied the requirement of a right to control rather strictly, as in R v AMCA Services, where the presiding officer spoke of "a right to control, not only the end to be achieved by the other 's labour and the general lines to be followed, but the detailed manner in which the work is to be performed. '' It is now clear, however, that the courts have in mind, a right to control only in principle. The employer not choosing to exercise that right does not render the contract something other than one of employment. The application of the control test in isolation is entirely inadequate, as certain employees have a wide discretion as to how to perform their work. Such discretion does not alone render them independent contractors. The ultimate difference between an employee and an independent contractor is that the principal has no legal right to prescribe the manner in which the independent contractor brings about the desired result, but may prescribe methods by which the employee works. In Colonial Mutual Life Assurance Society v MacDonald, the court held that the employee was subject to the control of the employer in the sense that the latter had the right to prescribe not only what work had to be done, but also the manner in which that work had to be done. The independent contractor, on the other hand, could be directed only as to what work must be done, not how it was to be done. In any event, to define a contract in terms of one of its characteristics is tautological. The organisation test was developed in French law and adopted by South African law in R v AMCA Services and Another. It is based upon the assumption that whether or not one is an employment does not rest on submission to orders; it depends on whether the person is part and parcel of the organisation. In other words, one looks at the extent to which a person (the worker) is integrated into the organisation of the other person (the employer), or whether the person is performing work inside the organisation of another. The work of an independent contractor, although done for the business, is not integrated into it; it is only accessory to it. If a person is incorporated into or related sufficiently to the organisation, that person will be regarded as an employee or a worker even though the employer might exercise little actual control over him. One of the problems with this test is that it is not always possible to measure the extent of integration, or to determine what degree of integration is sufficient for someone to qualify as an employee. The test was rejected by the Appellate Division in S v AMCA Services on the basis of it being too vague. The deficiencies of the control and organisation tests led the courts to approach the question in the same way that they approach so many other problems: The relationship is viewed as a whole; a conclusion is drawn from the entire picture. In Ongevallekommissaris v Onderlinge Versekeringsgenootskap AV - BOB, although the court did not spell out exactly what may be included in the general picture, guidance may be derived from the English case of Ready Mixed Concrete v Minister of Pensions and National Insurance, in which the presiding officer set out three possible components: When courts examine the "other provisions of the contract, '' they will consider all relevant aspects of the relationship. These include: The decisive difference between the control test and the dominant - impression test is that, in the latter, the existence or absence of control is only one of the factors to be taken into account. In Smit v Workmen 's Compensation Commissioner, the court had to decide whether Smit, who had been employed as an "agent '' for an insurance company, was an employee or not. He had been The dominant - impression test was followed in this case, and Smit was held to not be an employee of the insurance company. In Medical Association of SA v Minister of Health, several district surgeons challenged the decision of the provincial MEC for Health for the Free State to terminate their contracts summarily as part of the restructuring of the district health service. The multiple or dominant impression test was followed, and the court used the factors discussed in Smit to assist it in obtaining the dominant impression that part - time district surgeons were in fact employees of the State. The court held that the dominant - impression tests entails that one should have regard to all those considerations or indica which would contribute towards a determination of whether the contract is one of service or of work, and react to the impression one gets upon a consideration of all such indica. The Labour Court based its decision on the following factors: The test has been subjected to severe criticism. Etienne Mureinik has said that it test offers no guidance in answering the (legal) question whether the facts are of such a nature that the individual may be held to be servant within the meaning of the common law in difficult (penumbral) cases. Indeed, it is no test at all. To say that an employment contract is a contract which looks like one of employment sheds no light whatsoever on the legal nature of the relationship. This criticism is based on the idea that it is not helpful to say a particular relationship exists because it looks like it does. In other decisions, the courts appear to have resorted to what may be described as the "productive capacity '' test. This test was formulated in Martin Brassey 's article "The Nature of Employment '' in the following terms: The independent contractor "sells the job '' whereas the employee "sells his hands '' (... E) mployment is a relationship in which one person is obliged, by contract or otherwise, to place his or her capacity to work at the disposal of another (... A) n employee is to be distinguished from an independent contractor, who undertakes to deliver, not his or her capacity to produce, but the product of that capacity, the completed work. In SA Broadcasting Corporation v McKenzie, the Labour Appeal Court summarised the main differences between the contract of employment proper and what is called the "contract of work '' (locatio conductio operis): There is very little work that can not be outsourced. Outsourcing is generally not supported by trade unions, who represent employees. If work is outsourced, the worker is an independent contractor. Political pressure was placed on government to move away from outsourcing and more towards employment. In 2002, accordingly, a new presumption was added to the Labour Relations Act 1995, providing guidelines on when it has to be ascertained whether or not someone is an employee. This presumption was introduced as a part of significant amendments to the Labour Relations Act 1995 and the Basic Conditions of Employment Act in 2002. The effect of this rebuttable presumption is that, if one or more of the list of factors is present, the person is presumed to be an employee unless and until the contrary is proven. Many of the factors and issues discussed by the courts in the cases above resurface again: The presumption is thus created The legislative provision has been taken by some to be merely a restatement or summary of the principles laid down by the courts with the passing of time. Although this presumption is useful in determining whether a person is an employee or not, as it is closely linked to the principles and approaches developed by the courts, the Labour Court held, in Catlin v CCMA, that section 200A does not do away with the principle that the true nature of the relationship between the parties must be gathered from the contract between them. Section 200A is not the starting point, therefore; the court held that it is necessary to consider the provisions of the contract before applying the presumptions. The common - law concept of employment sets the scene for the interpretation of the Labour Relations Act 1995. The contract of employment is the foundation of the relationship between an employee and his employer. It links the two parties in an employment relationship, irrespective of the form the contract takes. The existence of an employment relationship is the starting point for the application of all labour law rules. Without an employment relationship between the parties, the rules of labour law do not apply. The origin of South Africa 's modern contract of employment lie in Roman law, where a distinction was made between the two types of contracts discussed above: locatio conductio operis and locatio conductio operarum. In terms of the common law, one does not have to have a written contract; therefore, not having the contract in written form is not a fatal flaw, as the contract can be verbal. There are, however, a number of statutes which require specific contracts of employment to be in writing. Section 29 of the Basic Conditions of Employment Act, for example, states that the employer must supply the employee with certain written particulars concerning specific things, like hours worked and remuneration. Like any contract, the locatio conductio operarum commences when the parties have agreed to its essential terms, unless both parties have agreed to suspend its operation for a particular period. If the contract 's operation is suspended, the employer is obliged to allow the employee to commence work on the specified date. Failure to do so, without good cause, constitutes a breach of contract at common law and a dismissal under the Labour Relations Act 1995. It is important, therefore, to determine what the essentials of the contract of employment are. Stripped to its essence, the contract of employment today may be defined as an agreement between two parties, in terms of which one party (the employee) works for another (the employer) in exchange for remuneration. Although this definition appears to be simple, it contains a number of important principles, aspects and implications. When they are taken into account below, the definition of the employment contract may be expanded as follows: The contract of employment is a voluntary agreement between two legal personae (the parties) in terms of which one party (the employee) places his or her personal services or labour potential at the disposal of the other party (the employer) for an indefinite or determined period in exchange for some form of fixed or ascertainable remuneration, which may include money and / or payments in kind. This entitles the employer to define the employee 's duties and to control the manner in which the employee discharges them. Firstly, it must be noted that the employment contract is based on agreement; the parties must enter into it voluntarily. This idea finds expression in section 13 of the Constitution, which provides that "no one may be subjected to slavery, servitude or forced labour, '' and section 48 of the Basic Conditions of Employment Act, which states that "all forced labour is prohibited. '' Another implication of the fact that the employment contract is based on agreement is that it is a contract, and therefore must comply with the requirements of our law for a valid contract. If it does not comply with these requirements, it will not be regarded as binding and enforceable. Consensus between the parties means that both must have a serious intention to create mutual rights and duties to which they will be legally bound. They must have each been fully aware of the nature of the duties, and that the other had this intention. At common law, the parties are not required to observe any formalities. There is no requirement that the contract be in writing, but certain employment contracts are required by statute to be in writing, like those of merchant seamen and learners under the Skills Development Act. In addition, those of apprentices and candidate attorneys must also be registered with the appropriate authorities. Lastly, where parties wish to alter provisions of the Basic Conditions of Employment Act, this must be done in writing. Secondly, one of the pivotal concepts in the initial definition is that of work. Generally, to work means to place one 's labour potential at the disposal and under the control of another. This means that, when we work, we offer our services to another person, and agree that the other person will be able to tell us what to do, when to do it, how to do it and where to do it. To place your labour potential at the disposal of another means to offer your ability to perform certain tasks to another person, and to offer, at the same time to follow that person 's instructions. Remuneration normally takes the form of payment of money, or the provision of another benefit. (According to the common law, payment may be made in kind.) Payment may be made monthly, weekly, daily or even in irregular cash payments. The common law does not prescribe what form payment must take. The Labour Relations Act 1995 contains a statutory definition of remuneration in section 213: "any payment in money or in kind, or both in money and in kind, made or owing to any person in return for that person working for any other person, including the State. '' The contract may state that remuneration is the "normal going rate for a specific type of work, '' or state a specific amount or merely "minimum wage. '' The common law does not indicate minimum wages; these are usually set by collective - bargaining councils and are industry specific. The contract of employment is a reciprocal contract. This means that one promise is made in exchange for another, and one obligation is incurred in exchange for the other. The employee works in exchange for remuneration; the employer remunerates the employee in exchange for the employee offering to place his labour potential at the disposal and under the control of the employer. To summarise, the essential elements of the employment contract are as follows: An employment relationship commences only when the parties conclude a contract of service. Prior to this, neither party has any rights against the other; they are merely a prospective employee and a prospective employer. There are, however, two statutory exceptions to the principle that employers have no obligations to applicants for employment: In addition to the three principle duties of the employer, discussed below, employers are further obliged to accord employees their rights in terms of the applicable contracts of service, collective agreements and legislation, as well as to adhere to certain statutory duties imposed in the interests of employees. The employer 's obligation to receive the employee into service is the corollary of the employee 's duty to enter and remain in service. The duty to receive employees into service does not mean that employers must necessarily provide employees with work to keep them busy, although this general rule is subject to some exceptions: where, for example, remuneration is based on the volume of work done, as in the case of piece - workers or salespersons working on commission, or where the failure to allow the employee to work degrades his status. A duty to provide work may also arise where the employer has contracted to train the employee in a particular profession or trade, as in the case of article clerks and apprentices. The common law permits the suspension of an employee, suspected of some form of grave misconduct, while the matter is being investigated, but the employee is entitled to his remuneration during the period of suspension. Employers may deny their employees access to the workplace, or otherwise prevent them from working, in the course of collective bargaining. This is known as a "lock out, '' and is the employer 's equivalent of the employees ' strike. If a lock out is lawful -- if, that is, it complies with the Labour Relations Act 1995 -- the employer is relieved of its obligation to pay the locked - out employees their wages. Since the contract of employment is personal, one employer can not compel an employee to work for another if the first employer has no work for him, unless the first employer 's business is transferred as a going concern. This duty is so fundamental to the employment contract that the courts will assume, where there has been no agreement on remuneration, either that the contract is not a contract of employment, or else that the parties impliedly intended the payment of a reasonable sum according to the custom and practice of the industry and locality. The duty to pay, and the commensurate right to remuneration, arises not from the actual performance of work, but from the tendering of service. It has become a widespread practice for employers to make up remuneration "packages '' for their higher - paid employees in a tax - effective way, by substituting various benefits (like housing and car allowances) for the cash component of the salary. The periodicity of payment depends on the parties ' agreement or on custom. An employer may not unilaterally deduct any amount from the remuneration to which an employee is entitled. If the contract is terminated summarily for good cause, the employer must pay the employee for services rendered to the day of the dismissal. The same principle applies when the employee deserts mid-term before the end of a fixed - term contract or without proper notice. Under the common law, employers are obliged to provide their employees with reasonably safe and healthy working conditions. The scope of this duty extends to providing proper machinery and equipment, properly trained and competent supervisory staff, and a safe system of working. If the employer fails to meet with this obligation, affected employees are not in breach of contract if they refuse to work until the dangerous situation is corrected. Under the common law, employees had to rely on delict if the employer did not ensure that the working conditions were safe and healthy, but this was viewed to be imprecise, and the Legislature intervened. The situation is now governed by the Occupational Health and Safety Act, which implements strict liability on the employer, and states how much must be paid to the employee if accidents occur. If the breach is material, the employee may claim damages. Provided it is a material breach, the employee may also cancel the contract of employment. The employee may also claim specific performance. This was seldom granted in the past but is now considered an option. Finally, the employee may refuse to work, withholding labour until the contract is performed. The main obligation of the employee under the contract is to place his personal services at the disposal of his employer. The tender of service is a prerequisite to and the corollary of the employee 's right to claim payment of wages: "no work, no pay. '' The reverse also applies: "no pay, no work, '' so that employees who have not been paid may legitimately refuse to work without breaching their contracts. If a number of workers engage in a concerted cessation of work for the purpose of obtaining some concession from their employer, they are deemed to be on strike. Under the common law, striking workers need not be paid. The common law also allowed employers summarily to dismiss striking employees, but this has since been changed by the Labour Relations Act 1995. Subject to the right to take such paid leave as has been agreed upon or conferred by statute, once employees have entered service, they remain obliged to render service until the contract of employment ends. If the employee fails to render service (by desertion, absenteeism, abscondment, unpunctuality, etc.), the employer is entitled to deduct from the employee 's wage an amount proportional to the absence. Employees are deemed by law to guarantee impliedly that they are capable of performing the tasks they agree to perform, and that they will carry them out with reasonable efficiency. Where an employer seeks assurances about employees ' competence before taking them into service, the employees are bound by any representations they may make, whether those professions of competence are made by the employees themselves, or in testimonials of which they are aware. The standard of competence employers are entitled to expect of their employees depends on the capacities in which the employees are engaged and the status and seniority accorded them. The test for the standard of competence is that of persons comparable with the employees in question, having regard to training, experience and any special claims the employee might have made regarding his competence. Where an employee has warranted that he possesses a particular degree of skill, he must satisfy that representation. Employees are obliged to devote their energies and skills to furthering their employer 's business interests. They must devote all their normal working hours to the employer 's business; they may not, without the employer 's permission, simultaneously work for another employer during the hours they are contractually obliged to devote to their employer 's needs. These duties arise because the relationship between the parties is of a fiduciary nature: Employees may not place themselves in positions where their own interests conflict with those of their employers and may not, by exercising their powers of agency, acquire interests or benefits without the knowledge of their employers. The interests of Employees must be bona fide: They may not work for another employer if its business interests are in conflict with those of the principle employer. In the absence of a contrary provision in the contract, there is nothing to preclude employees from holding two compatible jobs, provided the second is not conducted during the working hours they are obliged to devote to the first job. Contractual provisions limiting employees ' moonlighting activities are, however, permissible. In addition, employees may not compete with their employer 's business for their own account. Respect and obedience are regarded as an implied duty of every employee. Absence of the former renders the interpersonal relationship between employer and employee intolerable; denial of the latter undermines the employer 's right to decide how its employees will work. The courts require all employees to show a reasonable degree of respect and courtesy to their employers, and to obey their employers ' reasonable and lawful instructions. Respect, being a disposition, is a quality that is difficult to define with precision. It is not to be equated with deference in a manner compatible with the subordinate position in which the employee by definition stands vis - à - vis the employer. Mere failure on occasion to greet the employer or superiors will not place employees in breach of their obligation to show respect. Disrespect must be gross if it is to justify termination of the employment relationship, or so frequent as to suggest that the employee has repudiated the employer 's lawful authority, or that it has rendered the continuation of the employment relationship "intolerable. '' Each case must be considered on its own merits to establish whether these inferences may be drawn. Unless insolence is particularly gross, the proper sanction is a written warning in the first instance. The employee 's duty of obedience applies only to work - related orders and generally during working hours and to those orders which are lawful and reasonable. Employees are also entitled to disobey instructions that would subject them to personal dangers not normally connected with the performance of their duties. An order is unlawful if it requires the employee to perform an illegal act or to do something that falls outside the scope of the contractual relationship. Any misconduct that renders the continuation of the employment relationship intolerable or unworkable, or undermines trust and confidence between employer and employee, is regarded as sufficient to justify dismissal, provided it is serious enough to offset the importance which the courts otherwise attach to the work security of employees. Examples of misconduct are insubordination, theft, fraud. With regard to misconduct committed before the formation of the conduct (like the commission of a serious crime), the general principle is that there is no duty on prospective employees to disclose prejudicial information from their past to their future employers unless they are specifically asked to do so. A duty may arise, however, where the non-disclosure is material and amounts to fraud. Whether or not an employee may be dismissed for non-disclosure depends on whether or not the employment relationship can reasonably be sustained after the discovery of the past misdeed. The employer may only dismiss the employee summarily for misconduct, incapacity or operational requirements. If damages are incurred as a result of a breach of one of these duties, the employer may claim compensation. The Basic Conditions of Employment Act is aimed at low - income earners: those who earn less than R193, 805 per annum. No matter what the contract itself says, the Basic Conditions of Employment Act is applicable as the minimum standard that must be achieved. The Labour Relations Act 1995 deals with strikes and unions and the like; the Basic Conditions of Employment Act is a fall back option for those vulnerable workers who are not able to unionize due to various reasons, such as the kind of work they do. Domestic and farm workers are pertinent examples in the South African context. The purpose of the Basic Conditions of Employment Act is to advance economic development by providing basic conditions of employment. The Basic Conditions of Employment Act also contains the definition of an employee, so that issue, discussed above, is relevant here, too. The Minister is empowered to extend the provisions of the Basic Conditions of Employment Act to non-employees in specific circumstances. Even, therefore, if a domestic worker is not considered an employee in terms of the Basic Conditions of Employment Act, the Minister may extend the provisions to her for her own protection. The employer has no discretion to pay less than the minimum wage. As noted above, the Basic Conditions of Employment Act provides the minimum standard to be achieved; employers must, at the very least, abide by the Basic Conditions of Employment Act. Minimum wages are the result of bargaining councils in most circumstances, but some professions have no bargaining councils. Their minimum wage is therefore regulated by the Basic Conditions of Employment Act. A maximum of 45 hours per week is allowed to be worked. These stipulations (regarding hours) are not applicable on the following persons: Overtime is permitted on the basis of a voluntary agreement. Payment for overtime is 11⁄2 times the normal wage. Payment for working on a Sunday is twice the normal wage if the employee is not expected in terms of his / her contract to work on Sundays, however if the employee is expected to work on Sundays in terms of his or her contract, the employee shall receive 1.5 times the normal wage. A worker is entitled to double pay only if it is stipulated in the employee 's contract that he / she is expected to work on public holidays. An employee is entitled to one hour off for every 5 hours of work. An employee is entitled to 36 consecutive hours off. Issues such as night work, holidays and public holidays are also covered. An employee is entitled to 6 weeks off over a three - year period, it is often interpreted as one day for 26 days of work. An employee is entitled to four months off in total, the leave must start at least 4 weeks prior to the expected birth date, and end at least 6 weeks after the expected date of birth. It does not, however, stipulate that this is paid leave. In terms of the Unemployment Insurance Fund, when a woman is on maternity leave, she is entitled to Unemployment Insurance Fund benefits for half the time spent away. Usually the employer will pay the other half, but this is not required in the Basic Conditions of Employment Act. If the employee has been working for more than four months, he is entitled to 3 days family - responsibility leave, as in the case where there has been a death in his family. Employers must keep records of the hours worked and remuneration awarded for each employee for at least three years. Employees are to be paid in South African currency at the place of work (unless this is altered in the contract). Employers may not deduct money from employees unless prior consent in writing is obtained. Regarding severance pay, in cases of retrenchments or dismissals for operational reasons, employees are entitled to one week 's pay for every year worked. The Basic Conditions of Employment Act is the very minimum standard required by employers. Employers may award more, but never less, than what is stipulated. If an employer gives more than the minimum, he may be locked into always giving more, as he must then abide by the required annual increases, which are based on a percentage of the current pay. An employer may vary the provisions in the contract by In the past, the concept of "unfair labour practice '' was broadly defined. The Industrial Court (a specialist tribunal that exercised jurisdiction over alleged unfair labour practices) took several innovative approaches. The court formulated a set of rules to govern unfair dismissals. These rules are now contained in Chapter VIII of the Labour Relations Act 1995 and in the Code of Good Practice: Dismissal. The employment relationship has three stages: Unfair conduct by the employer at the beginning of the relationship normally takes the form of unfair discrimination. Unfair conduct by the employer at the end of the relationship normally takes the form of unfair dismissal. Unfair conduct by the employer during the subsistence of the relationship will take the form of unfair labour practice. Section 186 (2) of the Labour Relations Act 1995 defines an "unfair labour practice '' as "an unfair act or omission that arises between an employer and an employee, '' and involves The first part of section 186 (2) speaks of an unfair labour practice as any unfair act or omission that arises between an employer and an employee. Only persons who are already in employment, therefore, enjoy protection against unfair labour practices; only persons, that is, who fall within the definition of "employee. '' This concept may also cover ex-employees, if an employer refuses or fails to re-employ a former employee in terms of an agreement, for example. Due to the use of the word "involving, '' the courts have held that the list of unfair labour practices, contained in section 186 (2), is exhaustive. Therefore the definition of "unfair labour practice '' in the current Labour Relations Act is considerably narrower than that of its predecessor, the Labour relations Act of 1956. This is because concepts such as unfair discrimination have been removed from its ambit and included in the EEA. The fact that the list is exhaustive raises three issues, as the Constitution expressly affords everyone the right to fair labour practices: With regard to the interpretation of this definition, the general principle is that legislation that limits constitutional rights must be interpreted in such a way as to minimise the limitation. The definition must be interpreted so as to give the maximum possible protection. With regard to the freedom to rely directly on the Constitution, employees may rely directly on the Constitution to challenge practices not covered by the Labour Relations Act 1995, like transfers. This issue, however, remains to be developed by the courts. Many cases have been referred to the Commission for Conciliation, Mediation and Arbitration and the courts in this regard. From these cases, three main issues arise: Employers commonly use one of two systems to promote employees: The second system is problematic. The Commission for Conciliation, Mediation and Arbitration and the courts have held that it is not promotion at all, as the employee is nothing other than a job applicant. Firstly, in order to constitute a dispute concerning promotion or demotion, the aggrieved individual must be an employee of the employer to which he wishes to take action. Secondly, one must compare the current job held by the employee with the job applied for. Factors which are taken into account include any difference in remuneration levels, fringe benefits, status, levels of responsibility or authority or power, and the level of job security. In Mashegoane v University of the North, the dispute was whether the university 's refusal to appoint a lecturer to the position of Dean of a faculty involved a promotion. The legislation governing the university provided that Deans were appointed by the Senate acting on the recommendation of the Faculty Board. The university argued Once the court established that the applicant was a current employee, it found that his salary would have remained the same, but that he would have received a Dean 's allowance and would have had a car at his disposal; these were the only benefits. His status would have been considerably elevated. He would have had more responsibilities, authority and powers. In light of this, the appointment amounted to a promotion. In Nawa v Department of Trade and Industry, however, the court held that there was no promotion because there was no intention to change the existing terms and conditions of employment, even though there was an intention to change the way in which work was done. Generally the Commission for Conciliation, Mediation and Arbitration and other institutions are quick to assume that there was indeed a promotion or demotion. Disputes concerning Promotion and Demotion generally involve employees being denied a higher - level post within the structure of the employer 's organization or being stripped of status or benefits. Generally, unfairness implies a failure to meet an objective standard, and includes arbitrary, capricious or inconsistent conduct, regardless of whether it is intentional or negligent. Mere unhappiness on the part of the employee is not unfair. With regard to substantive fairness, it may be difficult to justify the choice of a particular candidate in precise terms. An employer is at liberty to take into account subjective factors, such as performance at an interview, when considering an appointment or promotion. The employer must still provide reasons, however. With regard to procedural fairness, the employer must follow its own procedures: If there is a practice of advertising the posts, it may not, without good reason, depart from that policy. An employee may challenge the composition and competency of a selection panel. Examples of unfairness include bias, nepotism and erroneous exclusion of an employee from a shortlist due to a mistake by the employer or selection committee. The relief must be determined on terms deemed reasonable by the Commissioner. Relief may be in the form of a declaratory order, protective promotion, remitting the matter back to the employer for reconsideration, and reinstatement to a previous position (in the case of demotion). Guidelines may be gathered from the rules which govern the obligations of the employer before a fair decision to dismiss on the grounds of poor performance is reached, and also from the Code of Good Practice: Dismissals. In this context, unfair conduct may include the failure to inform the employee properly about required performance standards, and the failure by an employer to afford the employee reasonable guidance, evaluation, training, counselling and instruction. An employer may commit an unfair labour practice through unfair conduct relating to the provision of benefits. This provision, contained in section 186 (2) (a) of the Labour Relations Act 1995, does not appear to be problematic, but it has been beset by considerable uncertainties regarding the interpretation of "benefits. '' Early decisions of the Commission for Conciliation, Mediation and Arbitration attached a wide meaning to the term "benefits. '' The problem is complicated by section 65 (1) (c) of the Labour Relations Act 1995, which provides that employees may not strike over issues that may be referred to arbitration in terms of the Labour Relations Act 1995. A dispute over "benefits '' may be referred to arbitration. If "benefits '' is given a wide meaning, and is taken to include remuneration, this would mean that employees may not strike over wages and salaries. There are two approaches to resolving the problem of interpretation: Generally the courts take a narrow approach to interpretation. They apply a combination of the two approaches above. It has been held that the term "benefits '' in the definition of an unfair labour practice includes only benefits ex contractu and ex lege: benefits that already exist in terms of a contract or law. There is growing support for the notion that unfair labour practices should include not only disputes of right, but also disputes where there is an expectation of a right. This prohibition has had little effect in practice. In view, however, of the obligations placed on employers in terms of the EEA and Skills Development Act, it may become more important in the future. Generally employees may challenge the denial of training where such training is a prerequisite for advancement in the workplace. There are two types of suspension: In the context of section 186 (2) (b), one must consider whether both types of suspension are covered, and what the requirements for a fair suspension are. Initially the view was taken that only punitive suspensions fell within the scope of the "unfair labour practice, '' but this view was rejected by the Labour Court. The Commission for Conciliation, Mediation and Arbitration follows the Labour Court 's view and assumes jurisdiction over both punitive and preventative suspensions. The practice of preventative suspension is not in itself unfair so long as there is substantive and procedural fairness when the employer takes this decision. Substantive fairness in this context refers to the reason for the suspension. The employer must have a reason for believing that the suspension is necessary. This could be, for example, where the seriousness of the misconduct creates rumours and suspicion, necessitating a suspension of the employee in order for work to carry on smoothly, or where the employer has reason to fear that the employee in question may interfere with the investigation or the witnesses. It may also be that the employer fears another recurrence of the misconduct, or that the seniority and authority of the employee in question has a bearing on the matter. Procedural fairness does not necessarily mean that the employee must be given a hearing before the suspension. At least, though, that the employer must inform him of the suspension, the reasons for it, and the conditions of the suspension. As a general rule, the employer must continue remunerating the employee during the course of the suspension. If he were to cease remuneration, this would constitute a breach of contract. Suspension without pay is generally only possible if the employee consents, or if this is provided by legislation or the contract of employment itself. If the suspension is grossly unfair, the employee may seek reinstatement as a remedy. Where the unfairness is less serious, the employee may seek an alteration of the conditions of the suspension or require that the employer hold a disciplinary hearing within a specified time. Other disciplinary actions, like warnings, suspensions with or without pay, demotions and transfers, must also meet the requirement of fairness. The employer must be able to show that the warning, demotion or other disciplinary action was fair and appropriate in the circumstances. Section 186 (2) (c) of the Labour Relations Act 1995 protects employees against a "failure or refusal of an employer to reinstate or re-employ a former employee in terms of any agreement. '' The wording is almost exactly the same as that in section 186 (d), which deals with dismissal. Unlike section 186 (2) (d), however, section 186 (2) (c) does not deal with termination of employment; nor does it state that there must be an offer of re-employment to some employees and no offer in respect of others. Furthermore, section 186 (2) (d) does not refer to an agreement; section 186 (2) (c) does. Any occupational detriment an employee may suffer due to the making of a protected disclosure is an unfair labour practice. "Occupational detriment '' and "protected disclosure '' are defined in the Protected Disclosures Act. "Occupational detriment '' includes, inter alia, being subjected to disciplinary action; dismissed, suspended, demoted, harassed or intimidated; transferred against one 's will, refused transfer or promotion, etc. Once it is established that the employee has suffered an "occupational detriment, '' it must be proved that the detriment was due to a protected disclosure. This means that there must be a protected disclosure, and that there must be causality between the disclosure and the detriment. As far as causality is concerned, the Labour Relations Act 1995 requires that the detriment must be "on account of '' the protected disclosure. "Disclosure '' is defined as "any disclosure of information regarding any conduct of an employer, or an employee of that employer, made by any employee who has reason to believe that the information concerned shows or tends to show one or more of the following: Generally, such disclosures become protected when they are made to certain persons and offices under certain conditions: Furthermore, the employee must have reason to believe Not every disclosure made by an employee will be protected. Only gradually are the courts beginning to consider the nature of a protected disclosure and the protection to be afforded to employees. In Grieve v Denel, the employee was busy preparing a report for the employer 's board of directors relating to allegations of wrongdoing by a manager. The employee found himself charged with misconduct, suspended and told to attend a disciplinary enquiry. He approached the Labour Court for an interdict to stop the employer 's taking disciplinary action. The court held that the disclosures the employee intended to make were in good faith, and that, if the allegations were true, they could indicate possible criminal conduct. The disclosures were held to fall within the ambit of protection. The employer was ordered not to proceed with the pending disciplinary action. In CWU v Mobile Telephone Networks, the Labour Court held that an employee 's accusation of fraud by management did not constitute a protected disclosure; it was merely the employee 's opinion and was not supported by any facts. The procedure for resolving unfair - labour - practice disputes is similar to the dispute resolution for unfair dismissals. First, the dispute must be referred to a bargaining council (or the Commission for Conciliation, Mediation and Arbitration if there is no bargaining council) for conciliation. If conciliation does not succeed, the matter may be referred to arbitration. Unlike unfair dismissal disputes, unfair - labour - practice disputes are required, by section 191 of the Labour Relations Act 1995, to be referred within ninety days of the relevant act or omission, or ninety days from the date on which the employee became aware of the act or occurrence. In terms of section 193 (4) of the Labour Relations Act 1995, an arbitrator has the power to determine any unfair labour practice dispute on "reasonable terms, '' which may include ordering reinstatement, re-employment or compensation (of up to twelve months ' pay). The onus is on the employee to prove all the elements of the alleged unfair labour practice in question. Seen generally, there are three mechanisms designed to protect the individual employee: The fourth mechanism of protection is protection against unfair discrimination. The Labour Relations Act 1995 was the first piece of legislation to deal with discrimination in the workplace. The EEA also contains detailed provisions to counteract and eliminate discrimination in the workplace. The Constitution, with its right to equality, provides an important constitutional context for employment equity. A consideration of this constitutional provision indicates that the elimination of discrimination has two bases: Section 6 of the EEA contains the main thrust of the Act 's prohibition against unfair discrimination. It provides that no person may unfairly discriminate, directly or indirectly, against an employee, in any employment policy or practice, on one or more grounds, including race, gender, sex, pregnancy, marital status, family responsibility, ethnic or social origin, colour, sexual orientation, age, disability, religion, HIV status, conscience, belief, political opinion, culture, language and birth. It is not unfair discrimination Harassment of an employee is a form of unfair discrimination, and is prohibited on any of the above grounds. Furthermore, the EEA places a positive duty on every employer to take steps to promote equal opportunity in the workplace by eliminating unfair discrimination in any employment policy or practice. In certain circumstances there may be a duty on the employer to take reasonable measures to accommodate certain groups of employees. In this regard, the Code of Good Practice: Key Aspects of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) / acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) and Employment, together with the Code of Good Practice on the Employment of People with Disabilities, provides guidelines on how HIV / AIDS and disability should be dealt with and accommodated in the workplace. This is the only legislative provision that mentions human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) status as a prohibited ground of discrimination. Its inclusion makes section 6 of the EEA even wider than section 9 of the Constitution. Section 6 protects only an "employee, '' but it does not speak only of an employer; it provides that "no person '' may discriminate. This is broader, and may include, inter alia, an independent pension fund or an independent medical aid scheme, or even a fellow employee. In this regard, if an employee lodges a complaint of discrimination against another employee, and the employer does not consult in an attempt to eliminate the discrimination, the employer may be held liable. The difference between discrimination and differentiation must always be kept in mind, as not all differentiations amount to discrimination. There may be a fair differentiation between employees on the basis, for example, of educational qualifications or experience or seniority. Generally, differentiation will amount to discrimination if it is based on an unacceptable reason. Even if the discrimination suffered is not listed in section 6 (1) of the EEA, it would amount to discrimination if, objectively, it is based on attributes and characteristics which have the potential to impair the fundamental human dignity of persons as human beings, or to affect them adversely in a comparably serious manner. Once the employee has proven that there has been a differentiation, the EEA and Constitution provide that it is presumed to have been unfair discrimination. The employer then bears the onus of proving the differentiation to be fair. Discrimination may be direct or indirect: The EEA provides that harassment amounts to "a form of unfair discrimination, '' and as such is prohibited. The most prevalent forms of harassment encountered in the workplace are Of these, sexual harassment is by far the most common. The Code of Good Practice on Handling of Sexual Harassment Cases lists three types of conduct which could constitute sexual harassment: Another way to define sexual harassment is to consider the effect of the harassment. Three types of harassment may be so identified: The questions remain: From whose perspective does one analyse the conduct to see if it amounts to sexual harassment? What test does one apply? Does one look to the way in which the victim experienced the situation (a subjective test), or does one try to be more objective? Decided cases are inconsistent on which test should be used. The Code of Good Practice states that sexual harassment is "unwanted conduct of a sexual nature. '' This implies a subjective test. It goes on to say, however, that sexual attention will only become sexual harassment The Code thus adopts a mixture of the subjective and the objective test. The EEA states that the employer may be held liable if he was made aware of the conduct but did nothing, or did not do everything that could be expected of a reasonable employer. Furthermore, the Code provides that, as a first step in expressing concern about and commitment to dealing with the problem of sexual harassment, employers should issue a policy statement, stipulating the following: The Code recommends that management be given a positive duty to implement the policy, and to take disciplinary action against employees who do not comply with it. A policy on sexual harassment should explain the procedure to be followed by employees who are victims of sexual harassment. The policy should also state the following: Finally, the Code recommends that policy statements on sexual harassment be communicated effectively to all employees. The employee who resigns due to sexual harassment may argue that this was a constructive dismissal, which would provide grounds for finding an automatically unfair dismissal. A victim of harassment may institute a civil claim, based on delict, against the perpetrator; she may also institute a claim against the employer, based on the common - law principles of vicarious liability. The EEA prohibits medical testing of an employee, unless Testing may be justifiable in the light of Job applicants are also protected from medical testing. The EEA prohibits "psychological and other similar assessments '' of employees, unless such an assessment The EEA lists HIV status as one of the grounds on which an employee may not be discriminated against. South African Airways, for example, formerly had a policy of not employing HIV - positive employees as cabin attendants, partly because it believed that HIV - positive people could not have vaccinations, a requirement for international travel, and were at risk of infection, which might be transmitted to others. In Hoffman v South African Airways, the court found that people living with HIV constitute a minority, to which society has responded with intense prejudice, stigmatization and marginalization. Society 's response has forced many of them not to reveal their HIV status, for fear of such prejudice, and has thus deprived them of the help they would otherwise have received. This stigmatization the court considered an assault on their dignity. The EEA is designed to counteract Such testing is prohibited unless it is held to be justifiable by the Labour Court, which may impose various conditions on such testing, including Employers may make HIV testing available to employees as part of a "wellness '' program, provided that it takes place confidentially and on the basis of informed consent. Authorisation from the Labour Court is not required for such testing. The EEA does not forbid anonymous testing undertaken for epidemiological purposes, or to establish the prevalence of HIV / AIDS among the workforce. In Joy Mining Machinery v NUMSA, the court held that the following considerations should be taken into account in determining whether or not HIV testing is justifiable: The court will also want to be informed about the following, which do not go to the question of justifiability, but which are also relevant to arriving at a proper decision: There is also a Code of Good Practice on Key Aspects of HIV / AIDS and Employment, which provides guidelines to employers and employees on how to deal with HIV / AIDS in general. With regard to HIV / AIDS and disability, the Code states that an employee who has become too ill to work may be dismissed on grounds of incapacity. A mental or physical impairment will constitute a disability only if it is "substantially limiting '' in respect of entry into, or advancement in, employment. A dispute about unfair discrimination must be referred to the Commission for Conciliation, Mediation and Arbitration for conciliation within six months of the alleged discriminatory act or omission. Disputes of this nature may not be referred to a bargaining council. In referring the dispute to the Commission for Conciliation, Mediation and Arbitration, the referring party must indicate that it has made a reasonable attempt to resolve the dispute, depending on the circumstances. If conciliation fails, the matter may be referred to the Labour Court, unless the parties consent to the jurisdiction of the Commission for Conciliation, Mediation and Arbitration for arbitration. The Labour Court may make any appropriate order that is "just and equitable '' in the circumstances, including compensation, damages, and orders directing the employer to take preventative steps. Again, once the employee proves that there was discrimination, the onus shifts to the employer to prove that the discrimination was fair. Alongside the prohibition against unfair discrimination, affirmative action is the second cornerstone of the EEA. According to section 2 (b) of the EEA, the goal of affirmative action is to ensure the equitable representation of certain groups in all occupational categories and levels in the workplace. "Equitable representation '' is not defined in the EEA, but section 42 states that it may be determined by a consideration of Affirmative action is, by its very nature, a temporary measure. Once the goal of equality in the workplace has been achieved, the reason for the measure will fall away. A potential beneficiary of affirmative action must meet two requirements: There are, in this regard, four key definitions in the EEA: Employees from one of the designated groups may approach the Labour Court, citing unfair discrimination, to enforce a lack of affirmative action. The Labour Court has held, however, that there is no individual right to affirmative action, which is collective in nature. The prohibition of unfair discrimination applies to all employers, regardless of their size, but the affirmative - action provisions of the EEA apply only to "designated employers. '' A "designated employer '' is defined as follows: Employers that do not fall within the ambit of this definition may still voluntarily indicate that they intend to comply with the Act. The employment - equity plan is the centrepiece of the procedure for implementing affirmative action in the workplace. A designated employer has to consult with the workforce on The analysis described above must also contain a profile of the employer 's workforce. Using this profile, the employer must determine the degree of under - representation of people from designated groups in the various categories and levels. The employment - equity plan must include If there is an under - representation of people from designated groups, the plan must also outline A copy of the plan must be made available to employees. The designated employer must assign one or more senior manager the responsibility and authority and means to monitor and implement the plan. Designated employers must submit reports to the Department of Labour: Designated employers are required to submit a statement to the Employment Conditions Commission about the remuneration and benefits received by employees in each occupational category and level. If this statement reflects disproportionate income differentials, the employer must take steps progressively to reduce such differentials. The EEA provides for four ways in which compliance with its affirmative - action provisions may be ensured: Employment equity plans must include dispute - resolution procedures. Employers and employees must use these procedures first. A labour inspector, with reasonable grounds for believing that an employer is not complying with the EEA, may try to obtain a written undertaking from the employer that he will comply. If he refuses, the inspector may issue a compliance order, to which the employer may object within 21 days. The Labour Court has the power Designated employers who wish to enter into commercial contracts with organs of state must comply with the EEA. They must attach to their offer either If these requirements are not met, the organ of state may reject the offer; it may even constitute grounds for the cancellation of a contract that has already been concluded. The common law afforded the employee virtually no protection against unfair dismissal. Before the Labour Relations Act (LRA), as long as the employer gave the required period of notice, dismissal or probation was acceptable. The common law focused only on the lawfulness of the employment contract itself; the reason for the dismissal was irrelevant. The employer was not required to give the employee an explanation for the termination; nor was there any requirement that the dismissal be fair. This had the effect of increasing the bargaining power of the employer, who could, essentially, do as he pleased, because of his more powerful position. The employer could threaten to dismiss the employee if the latter refused to accept less favourable terms and conditions of employment. The reason for this, it has been contended, is that, prior to 1980, this area of law was based on the incorrect assumption that there existed equal bargaining power between employer and employee. South Africa has since subscribed to international labour standards, in the form of International Labour Organisation (ILO) instruments like the Termination of Employment Convention, 1982, which provides that an employer must have a fair reason to terminate the employment contract, and that the reason for dismissal must fall into one of three broad categories: Misconduct relates to the behaviour of the worker, usually involving some fault on his part, like insubordination, assault, theft, dishonesty, frequent late - coming or intimidation of co-workers. Capacity relates to the worker 's ability to do his job. It includes incompetence or incapability for medical reasons (ill health or injury). It is viewed as a no - fault dismissal. Operational requirements relate not to the employee, but rather to the business enterprise of the employer. If an employee is dismissed on this ground, his is a no - fault dismissal. The most common form that this category takes is dismissal based on the economic needs of the business, or on the employer 's need to restructure the organisation. The Convention states further that employers must notify employees or their representatives that dismissal is contemplated, and must provide relevant information to them. The employer is obliged to consult regarding measures to minimise the number of dismissals, and also to mitigate the adverse effects of dismissal. Unfair dismissal is now governed by the Labour Relations Act. Some have argued that the Labour Relations Act undermines the flexibility required for the free market to exist. Others have argued that a restrictive labour law promotes job security, loyalty and incorporation into companies. The Labour Relations Act provides for the right not to be unfairly dismissed or subjected to unfair labour practices. Only employees have the right not to be unfairly dismissed; non-employees enjoy no such protection. The Labour Relations Act 's approach to unfair dismissal may be summarised in the following three questions: The employee has the onus to establish that there has in fact been a dismissal. If this is discharged, the onus shifts to the employer, who prove the fairness of the dismissal. "Dismissal '' describes the termination of the employment relationship by the employer, with or without notice. It can also entail An employer who has dismissed a number of employees for the same or similar reasons, but who now offers to re-employ one or more of them, while refusing to re-employ another, will have dismissed the latter. The statutory definition also recognises as constituting dismissal certain circumstances in which the employee terminates the employment relationship. This is known as constructive dismissal. Where, for example, an employee terminates a contract of employment, with or without notice, because the employer has made continued employment intolerable for him, he will have been constructively dismissed. An employee may also be regarded as having been constructively dismissed if he terminates a contract of employment, with or without notice, because his new employer, after a transfer of the business as a going concern, provided him with conditions or circumstances at work which are substantially less favourable than those provided by his former employer. Section 186 (1) (a) of the Labour Relations Act refers to the standard form of dismissal. Either the employee is given notice of the termination, or his contract of employment is terminated by way of summary termination. Note, again, that only "employees '' may be dismissed. The requisite period of notice may be expressly stated in the contract itself, in terms of a statute such as the Basic Conditions of Employment Act, or even in terms of a collective agreement. In terms of the Basic Conditions of Employment Act, Summary termination by the employer may be justified if the employee has committed a serious or fundamental breach of a material term of the contract. In CSIR v Fijen, an employee and his employer had quarrelled during negotiations, with the employee declaring their relationship "finished, '' and the employer interpreting this as a resignation. The employee subsequently denied having resigned; what he meant, he argued, was that the working relationship had become intolerable. The court held that, in the absence of a clear and unambiguous intention to quit, there could not have been a proper resignation. The employer, therefore, was mistaken in its interpretation of his words. There were indications, in Ouwehand v Hout Bay Fishing, that the employee would be retrenched. Representations were made to him that he should find other work. He stopped going to work, therefore, on the assumption that he had been dismissed. The court, however, held that he had resigned, because the onus is on the employee to show that he has been dismissed. The employee in this case did not discharge that onus. When dismissal may be effected is a question of some practical importance. It relates to the question regarding the commencement of employment: Does it commence when the contract is concluded, or rather when the employee starts working? The difficulty is that there may be a significant lapse of time between these two events. The Labour Court held, in Whitehead v Woolworths, that, to qualify as an employee, it was insufficient for the employee to prove that a contract of employment had been concluded. The conclusion of the contract merely gives rise to contractual claims; it does not confer the status of an employee or employer on the parties for the purposes of the Labour Relations Act. "In terms of the definition, '' Waglay AJ found, a person is only an employee when such person actually works for another person. The employee must therefore have rendered a service to another which services are not that (sic) of an independent contractor. In addition to working for another the employee must also "receive '' or be "entitled to receive '' remuneration. The remuneration referred to must correspondingly mean remuneration for work done or tendered to be done. Two subsequent decisions of the Labour Court, in Jack v Director - General, Department of Environmental Affairs and Wyeth SA v Manqele, have taken a different approach. The rights and remedies of a job applicant were considered in Jack, where the employer breached the contract by not allowing the party to commence work on the agreed date. The Labour Court, having examined the question of whether or not there was an employment relationship between the parties, decided that, once the parties have reached agreement on all the essential terms of the contract, it will be binding and enforceable. In Wyeth, employer and employee had concluded a written contract on 15 March providing that the employee would commence work on 1 April. Before work commenced, the employer informed the employee that it was no longer prepared to employ him. The Labour Court held that the term "employee '' in the Labour Relations Act encompasses a person who has concluded a contract to work, and that such person would also enjoy protection against unfair dismissal. This is in line with a purposive interpretation of the definition of "employee. '' The employment relationship is wider than the employment contract. While the contract of employment is the foundation of the relationship, the relationship may begin before the employee commences working, and may endure for some time after the contract has been terminated. It ought also to be noted that, although abscondment by the employee constitutes a breach of contract, this by itself does not necessarily bring the contract to an end. Only when the employer accepts the employee 's repudiation of the contract may it be said that there has been a dismissal. In some cases, an employment relationship is terminated by neither the employer nor the employee, but by operation of law. This occurs, for example, when an employee 's residence or work permit expires, and is sometimes called "automatic dismissal. '' The employee must have a "reasonable '' expectation that the fixed - term contract will be renewed. He bears the onus of proving that the expectation of continued or permanent employment is reasonable. The test is objective, inquiring into whether or not a reasonable person would anticipate renewal in such circumstances. In addition, the employer must have created the impression that such an expectation was justified. The following are among the ways in which the employer or his representative may create such an impression: There must, then, be some form of "prior promise or past practice. '' An offer on less favourable terms is also subject to the reasonable - expectation test. In SA Rugby v CCMA, the coach of the team indicated to certain players that he had "plans for them. '' When it came to choosing the side, however, certain of those players were not even sent to training, and therefore were ineligible for the renewal of their contracts. It was held that the coach 's representations to the players were such that they had a reasonable expectation of renewal. What about the reasonable expectation of a permanent position? In Dierks v Unisa, the employee had been employed by means of a series of fixed - term contracts. He argued that he had been unfairly retrenched, and that he was entitled to a permanent position. It is important to draw a distinction between the employee 's two expectations: The court held that section 186 (1) (b) relates to the first expectation only, but the Labour Court later found, in McInnes v Technikon Natal, that its decision in Dierks had been incorrect. It took the view that the focus should be on the nature of the expectation, and whether or not in the circumstances the expectation was reasonable. In casu, the employee genuinely believed that she would be doing the same work as before, the only difference being that her appointment would in future be permanent. In this case, the "similar terms '' referred to included the reasonable expectation of permanent employment on similar terms. The uncertainty continued with Auf Der Heyde v University of Cape Town, where the Labour Court accepted that the approach in Dierks was correct, and that section 186 (1) (b) did not include a reasonable expectation of permanent employment. This case, however, went on appeal, where the judge found it unnecessary in the circumstances to decide the issue. The Basic Conditions of Employment Act provides for four months ' maternity leave, but does not require that it be paid. It is possible, however, for an employee to make a claim in terms of the Unemployment Insurance (UIF) Act. Individual or collective agreements may provide for paid maternity leave. An important concession in the Basic Conditions of Employment Act is that no employee may be expected to work for the first six weeks after the birth of her baby, but a midwife or medical practitioner may certify that she is fit to work if the employee wishes to do so. An employer 's refusal to allow an employee to return to work after she has been on maternity leave (paid or unpaid) will now fall within the ambit of "dismissal '' for the purposes of the Labour Relations Act. If an employee does not return to work within the period permitted, this will probably be viewed as abscondment, in which case the normal sanctions will apply. In a sense, in cases of selective re-employment, the employment relationship continues even after the employment contract itself has been terminated. Three elements are essential: The essential feature of a constructive dismissal is that the employee terminates the employment contract. His resignation is not entirely voluntary, however, as it is brought about or necessitated by the actions or omissions of the employer. These actions must be "intolerable. '' The employee, in resigning, indicates that he would have carried on work indefinitely had not the intolerable situation been created. In considering whether or not there has in fact been a constructive dismissal, the courts will ask the following questions: This is a relatively new form of statutory dismissal, added in terms of the 2002 amendment to the LRA. If a business is transferred, the employees must be transferred with it, and employed on the same or similar terms and conditions. Failure on the part of the new employer to do so constitutes dismissal. This area of the law is highly problematic. The LRA states that certain dismissals are automatically unfair; there is no argument as to their fairness. The compensation payable to an employee who has been dismissed for reasons that constitute automatic unfairness is up to 24 months ' salary, depending on the circumstances. For a normal, merely unfair dismissal, the compensation is up to twelve months ' salary. Section 187 of the LRA lists the reasons for which an employee may not be dismissed under any circumstances. Such dismissals are "automatically unfair. '' Once it is proved that the employee has been dismissed for any of these reasons, the employer may not raise any defence save those provided for in the Act. Victims of automatically unfair dismissals will invariably be reinstated unless they choose compensation instead. Section 187 (1) (d) is of particular importance. It designates as automatically unfair dismissals in response to the employee 's taking action, or indicating an intention to take any action, against the employer by exercising any right conferred by the LRA, or by participating in any proceedings in terms of the LRA. Dismissal for any conduct regarding membership of a trade union, or for exercising the rights conferred by the labour legislation, is automatically unfair. The rights referred to are found in section 5 of the LRA. They include lawful trade - union participation, non-compliance with an unlawful order and disclosure of information. In CEPPWAWU & another v Glass & Aluminium, hostility from the employer in the workplace led to a constructive dismissal. The hostility was very closely related to the employee 's work as shop steward. The court held that the employer had made the employee 's life unbearable due to the fact that he was a shop steward; the dismissal was therefore automatically unfair. The court noted that victims of automatically unfair dismissal will invariably be reinstated unless they choose compensation instead. This is a factual dispute. Whether the facts give rise to an automatically unfair dismissal, or merely an unfair dismissal, depends on the circumstances of each case. Section 5 confers on employees a right to freedom of association and the right to belong to workplace forums. No employee may be dismissed for exercising these freedoms in any way: for example, Section 5 further prohibits prejudicing employees for failing or refusing to do anything that an employer may not lawfully require of him. No dismissal is permitted for the disclosure of information which the employee is lawfully entitled or required to communicate to other persons, or for exercising any right or participating in any proceedings in terms of the LRA. The mere fact that employees are exercising a right under the LRA does not mean, however, that they are immunised against disciplinary action for misconduct committed outside the scope of their duties. The LRA distinguishes between protected and unprotected strikes. The dismissal of an employee for participating in a protected strike is automatically unfair. Participants in protected strikes, however, may be dismissed for misconduct (assault, for example, or intimidation) during the course of the strike. In cases where it is difficult to distinguish between a dismissal for striking and a dismissal for (by way of example) misconduct, the "true '' and "proximate '' cause of the dismissal must be identified. Section 65 (5) provides that participation in a strike which does not comply with the provisions of the LRA is misconduct. It "may constitute a fair reason for dismissal, '' but there are specific procedures to follow. In terms of section 187 (1) (c), employers may not threaten employees with disciplinary action if they do not comply with a demand: a salary decrease, for example. The Labour Court has considered situations in which employees are threatened with dismissal for refusing to accept unilateral amendments of their terms and conditions of employment by their employers. In this regard, Employers may lock out employees (provided that they follow the proper procedure) as a bargaining strategy. A lock - out does not constitute dismissal, as the employees are still employed by the employer. The difficulty is that an employer may argue that he has the right to dismiss, for operational reasons, those employees who do not accept such a demand. It can be factually difficult in such cases to determine what was the true reason for the dismissal. Section 187 (1) (c) does not prevent employers from dismissing employees who refuse to accept a demand if the effect of that dismissal is to save other workers from retrenchment. Nor does this form of automatically unfair dismissal preclude an employer from dismissing a grossly insubordinate employee. In Afrox Limited v SACWU & Others, the company had a distribution system that resulted in its drivers working in excess of the overtime permitted by law. It decided to introduce a system of staggered shifts to overcome the problem. The employees, refusing to work under the new system, went on strike. They were subsequently dismissed for "operational reasons '', as the deliveries from the branch that had been striking were outsourced. The employees contended that the real reason why they were fired was because they were on strike. The court held that, although the strike accelerated the dismissal, the workers did not comply with the Basic Conditions of Employment Act when they went on strike; therefore, regardless of the strike, the dismissal on operational reasons was upheld as fair. In Fry 's Metal v NUMSA, the court held that the dismissal of employees who refuse to accept a demand does not infringe section 187 (c) if the employer intends to get rid of the workers permanently. In this case, the dismissal was not in an attempt to force compliance; it had gone so far as to constitute operational reasons. In CWIU v Algorax (Pty) Ltd, Algorax had not formally declared a lock - out. The court held, therefore, that the employer had infringed section 187 (1) (c), because it offered to reinstate the employees after dismissing them. Had Algorax formally declared the lock - out, it would seem that it could have kept the employees out for as long as it did without having to compensate them for unfair dismissal. In retrenchment cases, it is difficult to decide when an employer is entitled to dismiss for insubordination when employees refuse to comply with instructions. One must distinguish between refusal to work and refusal to do work in the specific way required by the employer. A computer technician refusing to fix computers is refusing to work, but an employee refusing to use a particular computer programme is refusing to do work in a specific way. If the employees are contractually obliged to perform the work demanded of them, and the employer 's instructions are reasonable, the employees ' refusal amounts to insubordination. It is not unfair to dismiss employees for refusing to comply with their employers ' instructions to perform the work required by their contracts. What if the employee refuses to carry out an order not in accordance with the contract, but with how the employer runs his business? This will depend on the facts: If the instructions are reasonable, such refusal could amount to insubordination. In Kroukam v SA Airlink, Kroukam was an airline pilot who doubled as a shop steward. He was dismissed after deposing to an affidavit for the purposes of an urgent application by his union to have the company 's senior manager committed for contempt of court. He was charged with a number of offences, including gross insubordination. The company claimed that he had divulged the content of an off - the - record discussion in his affidavit, and also that he had refused to submit to a health test required of pilots. The Labour Court ruled that this was not an automatically unfair dismissal. On appeal, however, the court held unanimously that the main or dominant reason for Kroukam 's dismissal was his involvement in litigation against the company. The court held, accordingly, that such a dismissal was indeed automatically unfair. Section 187 (1) (e) is one of a number of statutory provisions aimed at protecting women in employment. Prior to these types of provisions, a woman who left work to have a baby was largely at the mercy of her employer. Under the common law, her absence could be treated as a reason for termination of the contract. Now, according to the EEA and the LRA, dismissal is unlawful if it is for any reason regarding pregnancy or discrimination on the ground of pregnancy. The employee has no duty to inform her employer that she is pregnant; the employer has no right to ask and demand an answer. Accordingly, a woman may not now be dismissed in any circumstances merely because she is pregnant. Section 187 (1) (e) also renders impermissible the dismissal of a woman on maternity leave (now up to four months under the new Basic Conditions of Employment Act). Nothing precludes an employer from dismissing a pregnant employee for operational requirements, provided that the court can be persuaded that there was indeed a valid economic or related reason. In Whitehead v Woolworths, the court held that an employer may have regard to economic considerations, including the woman 's availability to perform her services, when considering whether to employ a pregnant applicant. Section 187 (1) (e) embraces any reason "related to her pregnancy. '' It therefore includes reasonable absences for medical attention and changes in the woman 's physical configuration, which may dispose certain employers to fire employees engaged in certain types of work. If the main reason for the dismissal is the employee 's pregnancy, the employer may not rely on an ancillary reason like the employee 's alleged deceit in not disclosing her condition. Conversely, a pregnant woman may not rely on her pregnancy as a defence against conduct that constitutes a disciplinary offence. Mashava, in Mashava v Cuzen & Woods Attorneys, was admitted as a candidate attorney at the firm. At the time of her employment, she was pregnant. She did not disclose this. The firm accordingly dismissed her, but the court held that this was automatically unfair. The employer could not rely on her deceit regarding her condition as a reason for dismissal. Fair dismissals are composed of two golden threads: substantive fairness and procedural fairness. Both must be present in order for the dismissal to be fair and in accordance with the labour legislation. Employees may be dismissed fairly only for misconduct, incapacity and operational reasons. Each of these has its own procedure, which must be followed. Any person considering whether or not the reason for dismissal is fair, or whether or not the dismissal was effected in accordance with a fair procedure, must take into account any relevant code of good practice issued in terms of the Act. Dismissal is the most severe penalty that an employer may impose against an employee guilty of misconduct. In determining whether or not dismissal is appropriate in the circumstances of a case, the employer may have to weigh up a number of factors to come to a decision. Generally, the employer has the right to maintain and enforce discipline in the workplace. This right has its origin in common law as an implied term in the contract of employment. It is also inextricably linked to the employee 's duty to obey all lawful and reasonable instructions, and is linked to the employer 's right to give instructions. Today the employer 's right to discipline is regulated to a certain degree by the LRA and the Code of Good Practice: Dismissal, annexed to the LRA as Schedule 8 (the Code). Under the common law, the employer may summarily dismiss the employee if the latter 's misconduct is serious, or dismiss the employee merely by giving the required notice. Occasionally, the employer may prefer to impose a less severe penalty, but the employer 's action in imposing a penalty may not amount to a breach of contract. Suspension without pay or demotion, or ordering forfeiture of an agreed bonus or part of the wages, would constitute a breach of contract. The employer may, however, suspend the employee on full pay and give warnings. The effectiveness of these penalties was questionable. Suspension on full pay, for example, was found to have little deterrent effect. In practice, the employer 's superior bargaining power, and his right to dismiss merely by giving notice, meant that the employer could "convince '' the employee to agree to a penalty which would otherwise have amounted to a breach of contract. The Code of Good Practice recognizes the employer 's common - law right to discipline employees by requiring, in item 3 (1), that "all employers should adopt disciplinary rules which establish the standard of conduct required of employees. '' If an agreed disciplinary code exists in the workplace, item 1 (2) of the Code stipulates that disciplinary action against employees must comply with the disciplinary code and procedure. If, however, the disciplinary code was unilaterally introduced by the employer, or if no such code exists, regard must be had to the Code 's provisions. The employer 's own code must be measured against the provisions of the Code; in the absence of an employer code, the Code will constitute the minimum guidelines for discipline. The Code accepts that the form of the employer 's disciplinary rules will vary according to the size and nature of the business, but these rules must be clear and made available to employees so that there is certainty as to what the employer expects from them and as to what sort of behavior will not be tolerated. A disciplinary code may take the form of a collective agreement between the employer and a trade union or unions; it may be a policy unilaterally imposed by the employer; or it may be incorporated into the terms and conditions of employment. Very often a recognition agreement, in terms of which the employer recognizes one or more trade unions as the collective bargaining agent of a certain category of employees, will include, as an annexure, an agreed disciplinary code and procedure. In this way, a disciplinary code and procedure obtains the status of a collective agreement. The Code accepts that the content of a disciplinary code will vary according to the size and nature of the employer 's business. Some rules of conduct may be so well established and well known that it is unnecessary for the employer to communicate them to the employees. An employee who breaches such a rule can not argue that the rule does not appear in the written disciplinary code. A rule will be so well established that it need not be communicated if the employees know that a particular act or omission will not be tolerated if the employer has always in the past disciplined employees who committed the particular act or omission. Rules may also be considered to be well established by virtue of common - law contract principles, like a breach of the duty to act in good faith. Examples of acts and omissions that are held to constitute such a breach include Employer disciplinary codes usually contain the disciplinary sanctions for each type of disciplinary infraction and the procedure to be followed. In some cases, the industrial court has drawn a distinction between theft and petty pilfering, and has required that, to justify dismissal, the offence at issue should disclose a "thieving propensity '' on the part of the employee. In Anglo American Farms Boschendal Restaurant v Komjwayo, however, this distinction was rejected. The court held that the true test was whether or not the employee 's action had the effect of rendering the relationship of employer and employee intolerable. Although it has been somewhat more lenient in some cases, the CCMA has generally followed a strict approach in cases of theft and other forms of dishonesty. Due to South Africa 's apartheid past, racist abuse is viewed in a particularly serious light. In Lebowa Platinum Mines v Hill, an employee was dismissed for calling another employee a "bobbejaan '' (baboon). The court held the dismissal to be justified because the court found that the term had a racist connotation. In terms of the common law, the employer may either condone the misconduct or elect to act against the employee. If the misconduct is of a sufficiently serious nature, the employer may decide to cancel the contract of employment and dismiss the employee. Dismissal is only one of a number of penalties that the employer may impose against the guilty employee. Examples of other penalties are The Code emphasizes the concept of corrective or progressive discipline. Item 3 (2) requires that the employer try to correct employees ' behavior through a system of graduated disciplinary measures such as counselling and warnings. Formal disciplinary procedures do not have to be invoked every time a rule is broken. Informal advice and correction is the best way to deal with minor violations of work discipline. Warnings may be graded according to degrees of severity, as with a verbal warning for a first offence, then a first written warning, then a final written warning or suspension without pay or demotion, and finally dismissal, which is reserved for repeated offences or serious misconduct. Item 3 (4) gives a list of examples of serious misconduct that may result in a disciplinary enquiry and possible dismissal for a first occurrence. The list includes As stated before, section 188 (1) of the LRA requires that, if misconduct is the reason for dismissal, it must be with fair reason. Item 7 of the Code provides some guidelines as to when misconduct will constitute a fair reason for dismissal. The following must be considered: The guidelines in item 7 for a substantively fair dismissal are not hard and fast rules. The employer 's non-compliance with a particular guideline will not necessarily make the dismissal unfair. The question of whether or not non-compliance with a particular guideline is permissible depends on the circumstances. There are two issues to be considered under this heading. In the first instance, it must be determined whether or not the rule existed; in the second, if the rule existed, it must be determined whether or not the employee contravened it. The formulation of disciplinary rules is the responsibility of the employer. The most important source of these rules is a written disciplinary code or rules of conduct. If such a written code or set of rules exists, it must be examined to determine whether the rule which the employee is accused of having contravened is contained in that code. If the disciplinary code does not contain the rule under consideration, this may be an important indicator that such a rule does not exist in the particular workplace. If the particular rule which the employee is accused of having contravened is not included in the written code, this does not necessarily mean that the employee 's dismissal is unfair. The particular rule may be contained in Legislation such as the Occupational Health and Safety Act may also regulate the conduct of employees. Sections 14 and 15 impose a number of duties on employees, such as Another important source for rules is the common law, which includes, for example, the duty to act in good faith. Item 7 (a) of the Code provides that one may also consider whether the employee contravened a rule regulating conduct "in, or of relevance to the workplace. '' The provision is broad enough to entitle the employer to proceed against the employee who has contravened a rule after working hours, or even outside the premises of the employer. The circumstances that this is possible are limited, however, to those situations where the misconduct in some way affects or is otherwise relevant to the employer 's business. Once it has been established that the rule exists, the next issue to be addressed is whether or not the employee has contravened it. This is an issue which must be determined on the facts. If, for example, the employee is charged with unauthorised possession of company property, this must be proven in the circumstances. Section 192 (2) of the LRA states that it is the employer who must prove that the dismissal was fair; therefore the employer must prove that the employee has contravened the rule. Neither the LRA nor the Code stipulates the standard by which the employer must prove the employee 's contravention of the rule, but it is submitted that the employer must prove the contravention on a balance of probabilities. The LRA and the Code also do not stipulate on what facts the employer may rely to prove the contravention. The Industrial Court has given conflicting opinions on whether the employer is restricted to relying on those facts which are available at the time of the enquiry, or whether he may also rely on facts which came to light after the dismissal. It is submitted that the Commission for Conciliation, Mediation and Arbitration will probably adopt the second approach. Once it is clear that the rule existed and the employee actually contravened it, attention must be focused on the rule itself. The first aspect which must be determined is whether the rule is valid or reasonable. This is a factual question. Generally a rule will be valid or reasonable if it is lawful and can be justified with reference to the needs and circumstances of the business. Factors which may determine whether or not a rule is justified include the following: An important indicator of the validity or reasonableness of a rule is its inclusion in a disciplinary code that is contained in a collective agreement between the employer and a trade union. Unlike the rule the employer unilaterally enforces, this rule is the product of collective bargaining. The reasonableness of a rule may be affected by the employer 's preparedness in the past to enforce it. If it has not been enforced in the past, it may be an indication that the employer does not regard the rule as reasonable. The employer 's failure to enforce a rule does not make that rule permanently invalid, however. It may regain its validity if the employer clearly and unequivocally informs the employees that the rule will be enforced in the future. The fundamental issue is that the employer can not act against the employee if the latter is unaware that the employer now regards a breach of the rule as serious. The employee must have known, or could reasonably be expected to have been aware, of the rule. The rationale for this is that the employee should only be penalised for actions or omissions which the employee knew (at the time) were unacceptable. It is implied that the employee must also have known that a transgression of this rule may lead to dismissal. Knowledge of the rule may be achieved through Certain forms of misconduct may be so well known in the workplace that notification is unnecessary. This would be the case with theft assault, intimidation, insolence and insubordination. An employer must, as far as possible, treat employees in the same way if they have committed the same or similar offences. The employer must be consistent, in other words, in meting out discipline. Two types of inconsistency may be distinguished: Inconsistency will not always be unfair. The employer can justify inconsistency through factors such as the employees ' different circumstances: length of service, for example, or disciplinary records and personal circumstances. In SA Commercial Catering & Allied Workers Union v Bonus Building, the court held that, if a distinction is drawn between different employees, this distinction must be properly motivated; otherwise it will give rise to a perception of bias. The court in City of Cape Town v Mashitho & Others found that, if an employer intends to discipline employees for misconduct which he has not disciplined them for in the past, the proper course is to make it known that such discipline will now be effected and the reasons for this change. Whether or not dismissal will be an appropriate sanction is a factual question. Item 3 (5) - (6) of the Code lists factors to be taken into consideration. The employer should consider, in addition to the gravity of the misconduct, such factors as the employee 's circumstances (including length of service, previous disciplinary record and personal circumstances), the nature of the job and the circumstances of the infringement itself. The employer should apply the penalty of dismissal consistently with the way in which it has been applied to the same and other employees in the past, and consistently as between two or more employees who participate in the misconduct under consideration. All these factors must be considered and weighed up together to decide whether dismissal is justified or whether a less severe sanction would be more appropriate. It has been submitted that, even if the commissioner does not consider dismissal to be the appropriate sanction after considering all these factors, the penalty of dismissal will stand if the commissioner or judge is satisfied that a reasonable employer could also have decided to dismiss under the circumstances. In the case of Sidumo and Another v Rustenburg Platinum Mines Ltd and Others (2007) 12 BLLR 1097 (CC), however, a security guard at a mine was not abiding by the search procedures he was obliged to employ for the workers at the mine. There was video footage available as proof that he was not adequately searching the workers. The security guard was dismissed on the suspicion that he could be fraternising with the workers in order to steal from the mines. The CCMA having held that this sanction was too harsh, the case was appealed to the Labour Court and then to Labour Appeal Court. When the case reached the SCA, the court held that employers have a discretion to dismiss. If the employer acts reasonably, his decision must be upheld. On appeal to the Constitutional Court, it was held that the commissioner who hears the appeal must decide afresh if the decision was fair or unfair; therefore, it is not appropriate to look to the reasonable employer. The SCA approach, therefore, was found to be wrong. The test is what the reasonable commissioner would have done in those circumstances. The court, then, is not bound by the choice made by the reasonable employer. The "reasonable employer '' test is no longer used. The more serious the misconduct, the greater the likelihood that dismissal is the appropriate penalty. The seriousness of the misconduct depends on a number of considerations: A serious offence does not automatically warrant the employee 's dismissal. It is not a "knee - jerk response '' to all serious offences. There may be circumstances which have a tempering effect, not on the seriousness of the offence as such, but on the severity of the penalty: for example, In the case of a brewery, the employer will be justified in taking a strict disciplinary approach regarding intoxication and the use of alcohol during working hours. A less strict approach to intoxication may be expected from an employer whose employees do not deal directly with the public or who do not work with dangerous machinery. This, however, does not mean that such an employer may never dismiss employees for intoxication; it only means that a greater measure of progressive discipline will be expected from such an employer. These include the employee 's length of service, status within the undertaking, previous disciplinary record and personal circumstances. Years of service generally count in the employees favor. It must be noted, however, that the employer often puts a great deal of trust in an employee with long service; therefore, it could count against the employee if he breaches this trust after many years of service. The employer will also expect a higher degree of responsible behavior from a supervisor or manager than from an ordinary worker. If there is a previous warning on the employee 's personnel file, stating that he will be dismissed if the same offence is committed in future, dismissal may be fair if this occurs. A warning does not remain valid indefinitely. The employer and trade union may agree on the period for which a warning will remain valid, or the employer 's code may stipulate this. In the absence of such agreement or stipulation, the default position is that the warning remains valid for six months, unless the infraction is particularly serious, in which case it may remain valid for the duration of the employee 's service. Other personal circumstances which may be important include the employee 's age, marital status and number of dependents. The employer must, as far as possible, treat employees the same if they have breached the same rule or rules which are similar: There must be consistency when meting out discipline. Section 188 (1) (b) of the LRA requires that a dismissal for misconduct must be effected in accordance with a fair procedure, which entails a fair disciplinary enquiry. The LRA does not regulate a fair disciplinary enquiry. The employer 's disciplinary code and procedure usually prescribes the procedure to be followed and the manner in which the hearing should be conducted. The Code provides a number of guidelines for a fair enquiry in item 4: This is not a substitute for a disciplinary procedure but merely a template by which the fairness of a dismissal must be judged. Normally, the employer should conduct an investigation to determine whether there are grounds for dismissal. This does not need to be a formal enquiry. The employer should notify the employee of the allegations, using a form and language that the employee can reasonably understand. The employee should be allowed the opportunity to state a case in response to the allegations. The employee should also be entitled to a reasonable amount of time to prepare the response, and to the assistance of a trade union representative or fellow employee. After the enquiry, the employer should communicate the decision taken, and preferably furnish the employee with written notification of that decision. Discipline against a trade union representative, or against an employee who is an office - bearer or official of a trade union, should not be instituted without first informing and consulting the trade union. If the employee is dismissed, the employee should be given the reason for dismissal and reminded of any rights to refer the matter to a council with jurisdiction or to the commission, or to any dispute resolution procedures established in terms of a collective agreement. In exceptional circumstances, if the employer can not reasonably be expected to comply with these guidelines, the employer may dispense with pre-dismissal procedures. The purpose of the investigation is to determine whether or not there are grounds for dismissal. The investigation need not be a formal enquiry. The employer must notify the employee of the allegations against him. The employer must use a form and language that the employee can reasonably understand. Usually the charge will be in writing and in the language which is commonly used in the workplace. Notice of the charge and of the disciplinary enquiry is usually given simultaneously and in the same document The question of what is a "reasonable time '' is a factual one. The nature and complexity of the charges will certainly be relevant in ascertaining whether the employee has had sufficient time. Whether the employee had assistance in preparing a response will also be relevant. This is the core of procedural fairness in the context of dismissal for misconduct. The employee may dispute the facts on which the charges are based, or may plead guilty to the charges but argue that dismissal is not the appropriate sanction. The employee is entitled to the assistance of a trade union representative or a fellow employee during the enquiry. "Trade union representative '' is defined in section 213 of the LRA as a member of a trade union who is elected to represent employees in a workplace (commonly called a shop steward). "Fellow employee '' includes a colleague, supervisor or even a director of the company for which the employee is working, provided that the director is also an employee. The purpose of assistance is Item 4 (1) does not provide for assistance by a legal practitioner, such as an advocate or attorney, but some disciplinary codes provide for legal representation under certain circumstances. The decision as to whether or not an employee is guilty of the alleged misconduct, and as to the sanction, is usually the responsibility of the chairperson of the disciplinary enquiry. Some disciplinary codes, however, provide that the chairperson may only may a recommendation to senior management. The latter must then take the final decision, which could differ from the chairperson 's recommendation. An important question arises: Can senior management overturn the decision of a chairperson or order a second enquiry into whether or not the latter is empowered by the code not merely to make a recommendation but actually to decide the issue? The court has indicated that this would be possible, subject to certain limitations, and that whether or not a second disciplinary enquiry may be opened depends on whether or not it would be fair to do so in the circumstances. The court has also stipulated two cautionary remarks: The important yardstick is that of fairness. Item 4 (1) of the Code requires that the employer communicate the decision taken, preferably in writing. Both the verdict and the penalty must be communicated. Item 4 (3) of the Code requires that, if the penalty is dismissal, the employee must be given the reason for it, and must be reminded of any rights to refer the matter to a bargaining council with jurisdiction, or to the CCMA or any dispute resolution procedure established in terms of a collective agreement. Item 4 of the Code does not make a provision for an appeal to a higher level of management against the outcome of a disciplinary enquiry. If the employee is dissatisfied, he must implement the dispute - settling procedures provided by the LRA. If, however, the disciplinary code in the workplace makes provision for such an appeal, the employee will be entitled to appeal in accordance with the code. Traditionally an appeal entails a re-hearing of the entire matter, including all the evidence presented, and a fresh consideration of the appropriate sanction. Item 4 (4) stipulates that the employer may dispense with a disciplinary enquiry in exceptional circumstances if the employer can not reasonably be expected to comply with this requirement. Two broad categories of exceptional circumstances are Waiver of the right may also be assumed if Incapacity is one of the internationally recognized grounds for a fair dismissal, provided that a fair reason exists for the dismissal and that a fair procedure has been followed. Section 188 of the LRA refers only to "incapacity. '' It does not distinguish between poor work performance and ill health or injury. This distinction is, however, drawn in the Code of Good Practice: Dismissal (the Code). Different sets of guidelines are provided for each: Item 11 deals with ill health or injury; item 9 deals with poor work performance. According to the former Prime Minister, "It will probably take a long time for the mods to find this. '' While culpability or fault on the part of the employee is the essence of dismissal for misconduct, a dismissal for incapacity is a no - fault dismissal. Incapacity means that, unrelated to any intentional or negligent conduct or performance by the employee, the employee is not able to meet the standard of performance required by the employer. The employee is not capable of doing the work. This ground of dismissal ties in with the common law duty of the employee to perform competently and without negligence. The difference between incapacity and misconduct in this regard is that A dismissal for poor work performance implies that there must be an objective standard of performance against which the employee can be measured, before the employee may be dismissed for failing to meet that standard. It is generally accepted that the setting of performance standards is within the employer 's prerogative. There are various ways in which an employer may establish performance standards and appraise an employee 's ability to do the job to the satisfaction of the employer. At the outset of the relationship the employer may decide to put the employee on a period of probation. The Code distinguishes between employees who are dismissed during the probationary period and those who are dismissed after probation. Item 9 of the Code provides, as guidelines in cases of dismissal arising from poor work performance, that any person, in determining whether or not a dismissal for poor work performance is unfair, should consider Item 8 (1) of the Code sets out the basic principles in respect of probationary employees: It must be noted that different jobs may take different lengths of time to determine suitability. The requirement in terms of the length of probation is that of reasonableness. If the probationary employee is not performing adequately, the evaluation, instruction, training, guidance or counselling referred to in the Code should focus on making it possible for the probationary employee to perform to the satisfaction of the employer. If the performance is not up to standard, the probationary employee should be given an opportunity to improve to the requisite standard. In sub items (f) to (i) the word "should '' is used, so the duty on the employer is less onerous than if the employee had already been confirmed in a permanent position. Item 8 (1) (g) - (h) makes it clear that there is a difference between a dismissal during probation and after probation. The amended Item 8 (1) emphasizes that an employee is protected against an unfair dismissal even while serving a probation. The justification for these amendments is to make the dismissal of probationary employees easier in order to encourage job creation and to relieve employers of the onerous procedures they had to comply with before this item was amended. After the probationary period has expired, most employees will have tenure or permanent status. The procedures that an employer must follow to justify a dismissal for poor work performance after probation are to be found in Item 8 (2) - (4), which provides that, after probation, an employee should not be dismissed for unsatisfactory performance unless the employer has The procedure leading to dismissal should include an investigation to establish the reasons for the unsatisfactory performance. The employer should consider other ways, short of dismissal, to remedy the matter. In the process, the employee should have the right to be heard and to be assisted by a trade union representative or a fellow employee. Incapacity dismissals are made difficult, then, by the fact that there is considerable overlap between substantive and procedural fairness. They are not always clearly distinguishable. An employer is entitled to set the standards that it requires the employee to meet. The employer has the prerogative to decide whether or not those standards have been met. In A-B v SA Brewaries, an employee engaged as a planning and administrative manager was charged with poor work performance on six occasions and demoted to the position of project controller. The arbitrator held that an employer is entitled to set the standards that it requires the employee to meet. Generally speaking, the court should not intervene unless the standards so set are "grossly unreasonable. '' The commissioner held that the employee had been given a fair opportunity to meet the standards set by the employer and that the demotion was not procedurally unfair. The employer 's performance appraisal and review process had identified the problem areas. The employee had been given an opportunity to improve before the demotion. The commissioner stressed that, in most cases, senior managers have a duty to appraise their own performance and to rectify poor performance themselves. The status of the employee may play a role in the performance standards that the employee is expected to reach, and the extent to which the employee will be given an opportunity to improve his performance. The size of the organisation will also be a factor to consider when deciding the degree of the employer 's responsibility towards employees whose performance is sub-standard. Senior managers may indeed have a duty to assess their own performance standards. The courts have long accepted that senior employees are not always entitled to an opportunity to improve. They have been held to have the ability and duty to monitor their own work performance. A dismissal for incapacity may be justified if the employee does not have the requisite qualifications or has not been accredited by a professional or statutory body. The courts have stressed the need for a proper evaluation and assessment of an employee before any action is taken. There must be careful assessment and consultation, and an opportunity to improve. The Commission for Constellation, Meditation and Aggregation has accepted that less strict standards should be applied to small businesses tasked with evaluating an employee for poor work performance. It is emphasised that it is through fair process that fair decisions are generally reached. If the dismissal was procedurally unfair, the courts have often been reluctant to reinstate the employee, choosing rather to award the employee compensation. No employee may be dismissed for poor work performance without first being made aware of the standards required and then being given an opportunity to improve. The employer is expected to make a reasonable accommodation for an employee and offer the employee alternative employment in some circumstances. There was great debate regarding whether or not an employee 's incompatibility (his inability to work harmoniously with other employees or to fit in with the corporate culture of the undertaking or organisation) constituted incapacity or a ground for an operational - requirements dismissal. Considering the way the LRA is now structured, this distinction has become vital. Different pre-dismissal procedures must be followed by the employer; disputes about an allegedly unfair dismissal would follow different procedures. Commission for Conciliation, Mediation and Arbitration commissioners now generally take the view that incompatibility constitutes incapacity and not operational requirements, but the debate continues. There must still be a fair reason and fair procedure for such a dismissal. The employer is obliged to assist an employee who is causing disruptions in workplace relationship before dismissing him. If the employee is a genuine "misfit, '' appropriate warnings and counselling would be required. It may happen that a call is made for the dismissal of an employee by a third party or co-workers. If this happens, the demand made must be "good and sufficient, '' and must be backed by a real and serious threat: for example, that the employees making the demand will go on strike if the employee in question is not dismissed. The employer must investigate alternatives and consult the employee in question. The requirement that there must be no possible alternative is particularly true when racial or ethnic tension is the cause of the incompatibility. The test in such cases is that of necessity. The second type of incapacity dealt with in the Code is ill health or injury. It is addressed in Item 10 and Item 11. The assessments referred to in Item 11 must be done in order to determine whether a dismissal would be appropriate in the circumstances. Item 11 of the Code provides that any person determining whether a dismissal arising from ill health or injury is unfair should consider Once again the dismissal must be both substantively and procedurally fair. Various aspects of substantive and procedural fairness are illustrated in Item 10. Incapacity on the grounds of ill health or injury may be temporary or permanent. If an employee is temporarily unable to work in these circumstances, the employer should investigate the extent of the incapacity or injury. If the employee is likely to be absent for a time that is unreasonably long in the circumstances, the employer should investigate all the possible alternatives short of dismissal. When alternatives are considered, relevant factors might include In cases of permanent incapacity, the employer should ascertain the possibility of securing alternative employment or adapting the duties or work circumstances of the employee to accommodate the employee 's disability. In the process of the investigation referred to above, the employee should be allowed the opportunity to state a case in response, and to be assisted by a trade union representative or fellow employee. The degree of incapacity is relevant to the fairness of any dismissal. The cause of the incapacity may also be relevant. In the case of certain kinds of incapacity, like alcoholism or drug abuse, counselling and rehabilitation may be appropriate steps for the employer to consider. Particular consideration should be given to employees who are injured at work or who are incapacitated by work - related illness. The courts have indicated that the duty on the employer to accommodate the incapacity of the employee is more onerous in these circumstances. Item 10 (1) highlights the nature, degree and extent of the incapacity, and the steps the employer should take to accommodate the employee. Whether the incapacity is temporary or permanent is also an important consideration. Item 10 (2) sets out the guidelines specifically for procedural fairness. There has been debate as to whether this process entails a formal hearing. As long as the employee is given a fair opportunity to indicate why he should not be dismissed, however, this feature has been complied with. The degree of incapacity also plays a role (see Item 10 (3)). The employer 's duty to accommodate is emphasized, with particular reference to employees incapacitated due to a work - related injury or illness (see Item 10 (4)). A related issue if that of habitual absenteeism, where an employee is often absent from work due to illness or injury. It appears that the approach of the court will vary according to the degree and nature of the absenteeism. Frequent and lengthy absences due to ill health may justify termination at a point where the employer can no longer be expected to tolerate such absences. In many cases, the terms "incapacity '' and "disability '' are used interchangeably. Incapacity may be due to an accident causing a loss of limb or the slow onset of an illness like cancer or HIV / AIDS, or a person may have been born with a physical or mental impairment that others perceive as a disability. The real issue in equity or anti-discrimination legislation is to protect the rights of disabled people, particularly in the area of employment, as employers may perceive a ' disabled person ' to be unsuitable for the workplace. Although the Constitution and LRA both have general equity provisions for people with disabilities, there is no statutory definition in these Acts. The EEA, however, defines people with disabilities as people who have a long - term or recurring physical or mental impairment which substantially limits their prospects of entry into, or advancement in, employment. The Americans with Disabilities Act (arguably the most important international legislation in this field) defines a disabled person as "one who has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits a major life activity, a person who has a past record of such an impairment, or a person who is regarded by other people as having such an impairment. '' "Reasonable accommodation '' means any modification or adjustment to a job or to the working environment that will enable a person from a designated group to have access to or participate or advance in employment. A dismissal based on disability may thus be automatically unfair, giving the employer no defense and the judge no discretion -- except that the dismissal may be fair if the reason is based on an inherent requirement of the job. The employer will also bear the onus of proving that the dismissal for disability was based on the inherent requirements of the job and that the dismissal is both substantively and procedurally fair. An employer may find itself facing financial ruin (due to unsound strategy, large clients or contracts having been lost, or factors in the economy at large). Under pressure, the employer may be forced into considering reducing its wage bill by restructuring the organisation, which may mean dismissing some employees. In this scenario, the word "retrenchment '' is often used. Section 188 of the LRA recognizes that an employer also has operational requirements and needs, and that, in certain cases, these may also be a fair and valid reason for dismissal. According to section 213 of the LRA, "operational requirements '' are requirements based on the economic, technological, structural or similar needs of an employer. There are four categories of operational requirements. From these categories it is clear that the reason for the dismissal does not relate to the employee; it is due to the needs of the employer, and therefore reason for the dismissal is the employer 's. An employer 's economic needs, for example, include those needs and requirements relating to the economic well - being of the enterprise. One of the most common economic reasons for dismissal is financial difficulties (due to, for example, a downturn in the economy or a decrease in the demand for certain products). "Technological needs '' refers to the introduction of new technology, such as more advanced machinery, mechanization or computerization, leading to the redundancy of employees. Structural needs as a reason for dismissal describes posts becoming redundant following a restructuring of the enterprise. This often follows a merger or amalgamation. This is a very broad category and must be determined with reference to the circumstances of the case. There is no clear and absolute dividing line between an employer 's "economic '' needs and "similar '' needs, as there are often considerable overlaps. A business may have to be restructured or amalgamated with another enterprise, or its mode of operation may have to be altered in order to ensure its survival or to make it more competitive. These changes may lead to an employee 's becoming redundant, but changes of this nature may also lead to the employee 's being offered a new position, with changes to the terms and conditions of employment. If the employee unreasonably refuses to accept the changes to the terms and conditions of employment, the employee may be dismissed for operational requirements. In WL Ochse Webb & Pretorius v Vermeulen, the employee was a tomato salesman for WL Ochse (the employer) and was paid a basic salary and commission. He earned more than the other employees, as the sale of tomatoes attracted a higher commission than the sale of the vegetables sold by the other employees. This caused dissatisfaction among the other workers, which the employer tried to address by proposing a new remuneration system. The salesman was given three alternatives: He proposed that the old system be retained. When this proposal was rejected by the employer, he resigned. The court held that the employer had not acted unfairly, as a successful business requires contented employees. Unhappiness can lead to several problems, such as labour unrest and a drop in productivity. A commercial rationale for the changes was thus established by the employer. Dismissal to compel an employee to accept changes to terms and conditions of employment is branded as automatically unfair by section 187 (1) (c) of the LRA. The primary motive for dismissal must be a commercial rationale or operational reason in order for the dismissal to be fair. The fundamental difference between an operational requirement dismissal and an automatically unfair dismissal is the employer 's reason for the dismissal. If an employer dismisses employees because the terms and conditions of employment must be altered for the business to continue being viable, the employees may be fairly dismissed, as they no longer serve the employer 's operational requirements. In Fry 's Metals v National Union of Metalworkers, the court discussed the difference between an operational - requirement dismissal and an automatically unfair dismissal: A change in the terms and conditions of employment need not always be the result of changes regarding the business. The circumstances or attitude of the employee could change. This could have such serious economic repercussions for the employer that the latter deems it vital to change the employee 's conditions of employment. The nature of a business may be such that special demands are made on the employees. It may be essential for the economic success of the business, for example, that the employees are able and willing to work overtime. The employee 's inability or refusal to do so could jeopardise the well - being of the business; therefore a dismissal would be fair. The courts have accepted than an employee whose actions negatively affect the operation of a business may be dismissed. This may occur where certain actions of the employee create disharmony among his co-workers, as when, for example, he antagonises co-workers by continually making racist or sexist remarks. In Erasmus v BB Bread, employees called for the dismissal of a manager because of his problematic attitude towards them, and his having made derogatory remarks, particularly aimed at black employees. The Industrial Court (in terms of the old LRA) held that his dismissal was for a valid and fair reason, as the employer is entitled to insist on reasonably harmonious interpersonal relationships between employees. If sound relationships appear to be impossible, the employer may be entitled to remove the employee from the scene. In East Rand Proprietary Mines v UPUSA, the issue was the fairness of the dismissal of a number of Zulu - speaking workers after violent clashes between them and workers belonging to other ethnic groups. Although the court found that the dismissal had been unfair in the circumstances, it did acknowledge that a dismissal which had its roots in an arbitrary ground, such as ethnic origin, could be fair if the employer could prove that dismissal was the only option left to ensure the safety of the targeted employees and the continued well - being of the business. The court held that an employer may dismiss employees because it can not guarantee their safety in light of the ethnic hostilities, but the employer must be able to show that it truly had no other alternative. The relationship between the employer and employee is one of trust. It entails the confidence that the employee is adhering to the common - law duty to act in good faith towards and in the best interests of the business. If the facts show that this duty is breached, the employee is guilty of misconduct and, if sufficiently serious, may be dismissed. If the employer is unable to prove such a breach on a balance of probabilities, the employee may not be dismissed for misconduct, but may be dismissed for operational reasons, as such mistrust is counter-productive to the operation of the business. In Food & Allied Workers Union v Amalgamated Beverage Industries, the Industrial Court accepted that the dismissal of a number of employees on suspicion of assault had an operational rationale to it. Before the introduction of section 189A of the LRA in 2002, there was no statutory definition of substantive fairness in the case of an operational - requirements dismissal. The question is a factual one; the employer must prove: A dismissal for operational reasons need not be restricted to the cutting of costs and expenditure. Profit, or an increase in profit, or gaining some advantage such as a more efficient enterprise, may also be acceptable reasons for dismissal. If the employer can show that a good profit is to be made in accordance with a sound economic rationale, and it follows a fair process to retrench an employee, the dismissal is fair. Section 189A of the LRA distinguishes between the size of employers and also the size of dismissals when regulating substantive and procedural fairness of dismissal. Section 189A (1) distinguishes between a small employer (less than fifty employees) and a big employer (more than fifty employees). In terms of s189A (1) (a) a large - scale dismissal would entail the employer 's dismissing In terms of s189A (1) (b), a dismissal by a big employer of fewer than the prescribed minimum listed above still constitutes a large - scale dismissal if the number of employees to be dismissed, together with the number of employees that have been dismissed for operational reasons in the twelve months previously, exceeds the number specified above. This is a so - called "rolling twelve - month period '' and must always be calculated backwards, starting from the date on which the employer gives notice in terms of section 189 (3) of the latest proposed dismissal for operational reasons. The purpose of the twelve - month rolling period is to ensure that employers do not manipulate the number of employees to be dismissed so that the dismissal always falls outside the ambit of section 189A. Section 189A (19) of the LRA provides that, in any dispute referred to the Labour Court concerning the dismissal of the number of employees in terms of subsection (1), the court must find that the employee was dismissed for a fair reason if This requirement entails that the reason for dismissal must be for "operational requirements, '' as defined in section 213. It must also be the real reason for the dismissal. "Rational '' grounds are grounds that are founded upon "reason '' or "logic. '' The rationality test is an objective one, measuring the acceptability of the reasons for dismissal against that which would generally be considered acceptable. It is not a subjective test focussed only on what the particular employer considered to be justifiable under the circumstances. One of the requirements for a procedurally fair dismissal is consultations on measures to avoid dismissals. This inclusion makes this procedural requirement also a requirement for substantive fairness, and goes further by requiring "proper '' consideration. "Proper '' consideration entails more than merely considering alternatives. The employer must apply its mind and give defensible reasons for dismissing such alternatives, and show that dismissal was a last resort. One of the requirements for a procedurally fair operational requirements dismissal is that the parties must attempt to reach consensus about the method to be used to select employees for dismissal. Where the parties are unable to agree, the criteria used must be "fair and objective. '' This procedural requirement is also, therefore, a requirement for substantive fairness. In the past, the courts took the view that the function of the court is not to second - guess the employer 's decision. It is not up to the court to ask whether it was the "best '' decision under those circumstances; it needed only to consider whether it was a rational, commercial or operational decision. Now the courts take a closer view of the employer 's business decisions. In BMD Knitting Mills v SA Clothing & Textile Workers Union, the court departed from its deferential approach and focused on the fairness of the reason to both parties: The starting point is whether there is a commercial rationale for the decision. But rather than take such justification at face value, a court is entitled to examine whether the particular decision has been taken in a manner which is also fair to the affected party, namely the employees to be retrenched. To this extent the court is entitled to enquire as whether a reasonable basis exists on which the decision, including the proposed manner, to dismiss for operational requirements is predicated. Viewed accordingly, the test becomes less deferential and the court is entitled to examine the content of the reasons given by the employer, albeit that the enquiry is not directed to whether the reason offered is the one which would have been chosen by the court. Fairness, not correctness is the mandated test. In Chemical Workers Industrial Union v Algorax, the court considered itself to be entitled to scrutinize the employer 's business reasoning and decision - making in considerable detail. The reasoning given is that the court should not hesitate to deal with an issue which requires no special expertise, skills or knowledge that it does not have, but simply requires common sense or logic. The most important implication of this approach is that the employer will need to convince the court not only that it has considered alternatives, but that it has chosen the option that makes the best business sense. There is no clear dividing line between substantive and procedural fairness in dismissals for operational reasons; the issues overlap considerably. The consultation process is at the heart of procedural fairness in the case of dismissal for operational requirements. Section 189 (1) of the LRA provides that, when an employer contemplates dismissing one or more employees for reasons based on the employer 's operational requirements, the employer must consult In United National Breweries v Khanyeza, the court held that, where a union is recognized as a consulting party in a collective agreement, it is entitled to consult on behalf of all employees, even those falling outside the bargaining unit for which the union is recognised. Note that consultation must take place when the employer "contemplates dismissal '' -- when the possibility of dismissal is foreseen, but the final decision to dismiss has not been reached. At most, therefore, the employer must have an intention to retrench. Item 3 of the Code further entrenches the idea that consultation must take place when dismissal is "contemplated. '' This ensures that the employees are afforded the opportunity to influence the employer in its final decision to dismiss or not to dismiss. Section 189 does not prescribe the period over which consultation should extend, but Item 5 of the Code states that the circumstances of each case are relevant to the determination of a reasonable period. Item 6 further states that the more urgent the need of the employer to respond to the factors giving rise to contemplated dismissals, the shorter the consultation process will be. Consultation entails that the parties must engage in a meaningful joint consensus - seeking process and attempt to reach consensus. This means that the parties must embark on a joint problem - solving exercise, striving for consensus. For the process to be meaningful, the employer must consult in good faith and not simply "go through the motions. '' This means the employer can not have made up his mind to dismiss prior to consultation, and must be prepared to keep an open mind with regard to the representations made. The employees must engage properly, make representations and ensure that their representations are well founded and substantiated, and not merely prolong consultations. Should the parties fail to reach consensus, the final decision remains that of the employer. In NEHAWU v University of Pretoria, the Labour Appeal court held that, after restructuring had been exhaustively discussed by a steering committee, on which all stakeholders were represented, the university was not required to consult again on all those issues after formally giving notice in terms of section 189 of the LRA. Section 189 (2) of the LRA provides that the employer and the other consulting parties must engage in a meaningful joint process, attempting to reach consensus on There must be proper consideration of alternatives. The employer must apply its mind to the proposals and, if applicable, give defendable reasons for dismissing these alternatives and coming to the conclusion that dismissal was the only solution. Possible alternatives include the following: The parties may consider spreading the dismissals out over a period of time to allow a natural attrition of numbers through retirements or resignations. Once dismissals have been agreed as the only solution, the number of dismissals must be kept to a minimum. This may mean While the employer may prefer the dismissals to be immediate, the union may prefer them to be spread over a period of time, or that they take place at a later stage. The employer may, for example, assist the employee in finding alternative work by giving the employee time without loss of pay to search for alternative work. The employer may also make an office available in which to complete job applications and arrange interviews. The employer may provide a reference for the employee. In Sikhosana v Sasol Synthetic Fuels, the court noted that the LRA contemplates a hierarchy of consulting parties, each if applicable excluding its successors. The courts apply section 189 (1) strictly. It was held that, although appropriate measures to mitigate the adverse effects of the dismissals should be taken, employers are not required actively to seek alternative work for retrenched employees. The employer may also undertake to give priority to the dismissed employee should a vacancy arise. Consensus must also be reached on the criteria used to select which employees will be dismissed and the amount of severance pay the employee is entitled to. The employer must disclose all relevant information in writing. Verbal assurances, explanations and information by the employer will not suffice; the other party may demand that the employer put everything down in writing or provide documentation such as financial reports. According to section 189 (3) of the LRA, all "relevant information '' must be disclosed. This may include, inter alia, Relevance is a question of fact and entails all information that will allow effective consultation. The onus is on the employer to prove that any information that it has refused to disclose is not relevant for the purposes for which it is sought. Privileged information, information that may cause harm if disclosed and private personal information relating to an employee is not required to be disclosed, even if it is relevant. Section 189 (5) of the LRA provides that the employer must allow the other party an opportunity to make representations on any matter on which the parties are consulting. Representations on issues regarding the reasons for dismissal, alternatives to dismissal, measures to minimise the number of dismissals, the timetable for dismissal, assistance offered, severance pay, etc., are therefore allowed. Representations about the disclosure of information and about "any other matter relating to the proposed dismissals '' are also allowed: for example, the socio - economic effect that a mass dismissal would have on the local community. The employer must engage with those representations and consider and respond to them. Employees must be selected for dismissal in terms of selection criteria that have either been agreed upon or that are fair and objective. This means that the criterion should not be arbitrary; it must be relevant, in that it relates to the conduct of the employee, such as length of service, ability, capacity and the needs of the business. The following criteria are commonly used: This is the "last in, first out '' or LIFO principle. Long - serving employees are retained at the expense of those with shorter service in similar or less - skilled categories of work. This method minimises the use of subjective judgment to decide who shall be retrenched. This is why it is favoured by most unions. The Code also acknowledges LIFO as a fair and objective criterion, but provides that it should not operate so as to undermine an agreed affirmative - action programme. Exceptions may also include the retention of employees based on criteria (like special skills) which are fundamental to the successful operation of the business. This criterion will be fair and objective if it is based on objectively determined conduct, like attendance records and previous warnings, and if the employee was at all times made aware that the employer found such conduct unacceptable. These criteria are generally favored by employers. They are regarded as objective, provided they do not depend solely upon the opinion of the person making the selection, but can be objectively tested. Furthermore, they may only be used if the employee knew that the employer considered them important. This criterion will only be allowed if it can be proved that the employee always knew that the employer regarded absences from work seriously. If retrenchment is to affect only one department in an enterprise, the practice is sometimes to retrench on the LIDO basis and to drain off remaining employees in that department into other departments. Employees who have reached the minimum retirement age may be identified as the first population for retrenchment. After these employees have been retrenched, LIFO is used. This criterion is often applied in jobs which require a level of fitness and strength. Parties may agree that the employer will first ask for volunteers before embarking on any selection process. Section 41 of the Commission for Conciliation, Mediation and Arbitration creates a statutory duty for the employer to pay severance to workers who are dismissed for operational reasons. Severance pay is an amount for each completed year of continuous service. Section 84 of the Commission for Conciliation, Mediation and Arbitration suggests that, for the purposes of determining the length of the employee 's employment, previous employment with the employer must be taken into account if the break between the periods is less than one year. The duty to pay severance is not absolute. If an employee unreasonably refuses an alternative position, he loses the right to severance pay. The question of whether or not the refusal is reasonable is one of fact. Item 11 of the Code states that reasonableness is determined by a consideration of the reasonableness of the offer of alternative employment and the reasonableness of the employee 's refusal. Objective facts such as remuneration, status and job security are relevant. If the offered position amounts to a demotion, the refusal will not be unreasonable. Section 189A introduces additional requirements for a procedurally fair dismissal in the case of a large - scale dismissal. Firstly section 189A affords either party the right to ask the Commission for Conciliation, Mediation and Arbitration to appoint a facilitator to assist the parties during the consultations; secondly, section 189A introduces a moratorium of sixty days, during which the employer may not dismiss. Only the Commission for Conciliation, Mediation and Arbitration may be approached to appoint a facilitator. The employer must make this request when it gives notice in terms of section 189 (3) to the employee party that it is contemplating a large - scale dismissal. The employee party (the union, for example) representing the majority of the employees may also ask for a facilitator. The employee party must notify the Commission for Conciliation, Mediation and Arbitration within fifteen days of the employer 's notice of contemplated dismissal. If neither party asks for a facilitator within the above timeframes, they may agree to ask for one to be appointed during the consultation process. If a facilitator is appointed, the facilitation must be conducted in terms of the regulations made by the Minister of Labour for the conduct of such facilitation. These regulations relate to the time period and variation of such time periods for facilitation, the powers and duties of facilitators, the circumstances in which the Commission for Conciliation, Mediation and Arbitration may charge a fee for appointing the facilitator, and the amount of the fee. An employer may not dismiss before sixty days have elapsed from the date on which notice in terms of s189A (3) is given. If none of the parties request a facilitator, section 189A stipulates that a minimum period of thirty days, from when notice in terms of section 189A (3) was given, must have lapsed before a dispute may be referred to the CCMA or other council. Disputes regarding the procedural and substantive fairness of dismissals by a small employer, and small - scale dismissal by a big employer, are referred to the Labour Court. In large - scale dismissals, disputes about procedural fairness must be referred to the Labour Court within thirty days after notice of dismissal has been given to employees. In large - scale dismissals, where there are disputes about substantive fairness, there are two choices: In the case of dismissal for operational reasons of a single employee, the employee may refer a dispute about substantive or procedural fairness either to arbitration or to the Labour Court. In terms of section 67 (5), employees engaged in a protected strike may be dismissed if A unique problem in labour law is the fate of employees when a business is sold or closes. This problem has a close practical connection to dismissals for operational reasons, as many businesses are sold because they are unhealthy and require restructuring. In terms of the common law, the position of the employees was that no employee could be forced to continue his contract of employment with the new employer; conversely, the new employer had no obligation to continue to employ the employee. Transfer of a business could therefore mean the termination of existing employment contracts. When the LRA came into operation, section 197 endeavored to address job security in cases of the transfer of a business in the normal run of things and as a result of insolvency. The section was much criticised for its creation of uncertainty and for failing to define certain concepts. The section did not expressly state that employees have the right to have their contracts of employment transferred; the courts had to read that into the section. It also did not address the exact rights of the employees in such a situation. The rewritten section 197 attempts to address the situation in a more calculated and extensive way. The most important difference is that ordinary transfers are dealt with separately from insolvency transfers. Section 197 applies only in cases of a transfer of a business. Section 197 (1) defines a "business '' as the "whole or a part of a business, trade, undertaking or service. '' "Transfer '' is defined as a "transfer of a business (...) as a going concern. '' The right of employees to have their contracts transferred is dependent, therefore, on the business 's transfer meeting the exact wording of section 197. The meaning of this word is wider than a mere "sale. '' In Schutte & Others v Powerplus Performance, the court held as follows: A business or part of a business, may be transferred in circumstances other than a sale. These may arise in the case of merger, takeover or as part of a broader process of restructuring within a company or group of companies. Transfer can take place by virtue of an exchange of assets or a donation (... G) iven the range of circumstances under which a transfer can take place, the need for an agreed price or valuation may not arise. Consideration may take some other form. The outsourcing in this matter was part of a broader process of restructuring and must be seen against the backdrop of the (old employer 's) acquisition of 50 % stake in the (new employer). Once it is established that there was a transfer, the important question is whether that transfer was of the "whole or a part of any business, trade, undertaking or service (...) as a going concern. '' A distinction is often made between three ways of transferring a business: In respect of a sale of shares, it has been held that a distinction should be made between a transfer of a business as a going concern and a transfer of possession and control of a business: the result of a sale of shares. A sale of shares is excluded from the ambit of section 197. In respect of a sale of assets, the court in Kgethe v LMK Manufacturing held that an agreement to sell a portion of the assets of a business is not a transfer as a going concern. Although this judgment was overturned on appeal, it was on the basis that the court was not entitled to make a finding as to the true of the agreement. Therefore the previous decision is still tenuous authority for the proposition that a sale of assets does not constitute a transfer as a going concern. In Schutte v Powerplus Performance, however, the court held that, irrespective of the form the agreement takes, the court will look to the substance of the agreement to determine whether or not it is transferred "as a going concern. '' The following factors may be taken into account in finding that there has been a transfer of a business as contemplated in section 197. This list is not exhaustive: In National Education Health & Allied Workers Union v University of Cape Town, the court held as follows: In deciding whether a business has been transferred as a going concern, regard must be had to the substance and not the form of the transaction. A number of factors will be relevant to (this question), such as the transfer or otherwise of assets both tangible and intangible, whether or not workers are taken over by the new employer, whether customers are transferred and whether or not the same business is being carried on by the new employer. What must be stressed is that this list (...) is not exhaustive and that none of them is decisive individually. They must all be considered in the overall assessment and therefore should not be considered in isolation. The question of whether or not an outsourcing of services falls within the ambit of section 197 has been subject to some scrutiny. In SAMWU v Rand Airport Management Company, the employer outsourced its gardening and security services to outside contractors, as this was cheaper. The court held that the gardening and security services fell within the ambit of the term "service '' in section 197, and that these services could be transferred from one employer to another. The next question considered was whether these services were being transferred as a going concern. The court referred to the decision in NEHAWU v University of Cape Town, and affirmed that a flexible approach must be taken in finding an objective answer to this question. On the facts, the court held that the agreement between RAMC and the other employer in respect of the outsourced services amounted to a transfer of a service within the ambit of section 197. On the evidence, however, the court could not decide whether the agreement between the two companies had been implemented, and therefore could not decide whether the contracts had been transferred from RAMC to the service provider. This decision confirms, however, that an outsourcing exercise may constitute a transfer of a going concern as envisaged in section 197. The Labour Appeal court did not specify, however, what factors are to be taken into account, so this does not provide a final answer to the question of whether or not all outsourcing arrangements will fall within section 197. Once it is established that s197 applies, one must consider the effect thereof. The four consequences of such a transfer are listed in section 197 (2). These principles have far - reaching implications for the new employer, who may want to restructure the business and possibly retrench employees. If the new employer decides to retrench employees, severance pay will be calculated on the basis of service with the old and new employer to determine the years of service. Similarly, remuneration and benefits may be linked to years of service, which may also place a financial burden on the new employer. Section 197 may also affect the freedom of the new employer to apply certain selection criteria in cases of retrenchment. In Keil v Foodgro (A Division of Leisurenet), Keil was first employed by MacRib and then by Foodgro, who bought MacRib as a going concern. Keil was employed in the same position by both employers. Foodgro sought to justify Keil 's selection for retrenchment on the basis that it had applied LIFO, and that Keil 's old contract was substituted with a new one when Foodgro bought the business. The court rejected this argument on the basis that section 197 provides for continuity of employment, so Foodgro should have taken Keil 's service with MacRib into account. Foodgro 's selection for dismissal was therefore fundamentally flawed. Keil was awarded nine months ' compensation. The new employer will also be expected to pay for the "sins '' of the old employer. In NUMSA v Success Panelbeaters & Service Centre, an employee was unfairly dismissed by the old employer. The employee successfully challenged the fairness of the dismissal, the Labour Court ordering that the employee be reinstated. By this time, however, the old employer had sold the business as a going concern. The court held, accordingly, that the new employer was obliged to take the employee into service. There are a number of additional principles relating to the consequences of a transfer. Should the new employer not adhere to its obligations to provide transferred employees with at least substantially the same conditions or circumstances at work, and should this lead to termination of the contract by the employee, it will be considered an automatically unfair dismissal according to sections 186 to 187 of the LRA. The general rule that the employees of the old employer become the employers of the new employee, with the same terms and conditions of employment, and with continuity of employment, is subject to a number of exceptions. Section 197 (3) provides that the new employer may provide terms and conditions of employment that "are on the whole not less favorable. '' Furthermore, the consequences of a transfer, as envisaged in section 197 (2), are expressly subject to an agreement in terms of section 197 (6). Although employees may insist on their contracts being transferred, the right to be afforded the same contractual rights must be agreed upon. Regarding the identity if the parties, section 197 (6) (a) states that the agreement must be with the same bodies or persons with whom an employer has to consult about retrenchments. As far as the employer is concerned, either the old or the new employer may be the other party to the agreement. Any agreement which interferes with the employees ' existing terms and conditions has to involve the employees in order to be valid. In cases of retrenchment prior to transfer, the retrenchment will only be substantively fair if the retrenchment is based on the operational requirements of the old employer and not those of the new employer. An employee of the old employer who refuses "adequate alternative '' employment with the new employer when faced with retrenchment by the old employer is not entitled to severance pay. Only those rights which actually did accrue contractually to employees prior to the transfer are transferred. Only the rights of the employees existing at the time of transfer become the obligations of the new employer. Employees can not use section 197 as a form of statutory bargaining to insist on better terms and conditions of employment. Not all benefits (especially pension benefits) are provided by employers. Only existing rights may be transferred. Section 197 of the LRA allows the transfer of employees from one pension fund to another as a result of a transfer of a business if the criteria in section 14 of the Pension Funds Act are met. The term "sequestration '' refers to the insolvency of an individual. The terms "liquidation '' and "winding - up '' refer to the insolvency of a company, close corporation or other legal entity. In the past, the approach has been that all contracts of employment between the insolvent employer and its employees terminate automatically. This meant that the employees lost their jobs. In respect of unpaid wages, they became creditors of the insolvent estate of the employer. It also meant that an employer could manipulate the process of insolvency by applying for a provisional liquidation to get rid of employees, and then come to some kind of arrangement with a prospective buyer, or with the creditors, to ensure the survival or continuation of the operations. The employer could thus ensure the automatic termination of the employment contracts without actually going out of business. Section 197A of the LRA addresses this situation. This section also only applies to a "transfer '' of a "business. '' These terms have the same meaning as under section 197. Section 197A applies only if the old employer is insolvent, or if a scheme of arrangement or compromise with creditors is entered into in order to avoid winding - up or sequestration. As a general principle, the effect of section 197A is that all employees of the old employer become employees of the new employer; continuity of employment is preserved. These consequences are also subject to agreement (between the employees and the new or old employer, or both) to the contrary. Other similarities between ordinary transfers and transfers in case of insolvency are: In transfers in the normal course of business, however, Subsections 197 (7) to (9), regarding the valuation and provision of accrued benefits, do not apply to transfers in cases of insolvency. The power play between employers and employees is clearly in evidence in the engagement of employer and employee through collective labour law. The LRA, together with other labour legislation, lays down basic rights and duties and remedies for ensuring fairness in the employment relationship. These are matters relating to the rights of employees and are accordingly known as "rights issues. '' When it comes to creating new terms and conditions of employment -- these are known as "interest issues '' or "matters of mutual interest '' -- or to changing existing terms, no legislation exists which explicitly regulates the situation. These issues, it is assumed, are better dealt with by the parties themselves. A court may not, for example, determine an annual increase for employees, or decide whether or not a crèche facility at the workplace is mandatory, or whether employees should be permitted to take Friday afternoons off. The reason for this is that "it is impossible to regulate these matters of mutual interest. '' This is where collective bargaining comes into the picture. The LRA recognizes the importance of collective bargaining and supports the mechanism: If collective bargaining can be compared to a boxing match, the LRA can be seen as the organiser of the boxing match and the employers and trade unions are the boxers on opposite sides. The LRA provides the basic rules to protect the boxers both inside and outside the boxing ring. This is done, for example, by protecting the right of employees to form and join trade unions and to participate in their activities. This applies equally to employers who can form employers ' organisations. Section 213 of the LRA defines a trade union as "an association of employees whose principal purpose is to regulate relations between employees and employers, including any employers ' organisation. '' An employer organisation is defined as "any number of employers associated together for the purpose, whether by itself or with other purposes, of regulating relations between employers and employees or trade unions. '' The LRA regulates the registration of trade unions and employers ' organisations. It creates bargaining fora, such as bargaining councils and statutory councils, and guarantees the right to freedom of association. It also regulates organisational rights and strikes and lock - outs. Once workers are organised in a registered trade union, and employers in an employers ' organisation, the power play between workers and employers begins. Employees may try to force the employer 's hand by way of strike action, while the employer ma exert pressure on the employees by way of a lock - out. It is accepted that strike action will result in a certain measure of economic handship for the employer. Provided that the strike has obtained protected status in terms of the law -- in other words, is not prohibited, and the prescribed procedures have been followed -- such economic hardship is considered to be part and parcel of the power struggle between employees and their employers: "In fact, this is the whole idea! '' The more the employer is hurt economically, the greater the chance that the strikers ' demands will be met. It is important to know when a strike or lock - out is protected, and when it is not, because that will determine the course of action and remedies for employers in the case of a strike, and for employees in the case of a lock - out. Between 1911 and 1918, a succession of laws was promulgated in South Africa which dealt with various industrial sectors, and with labour in general. Only in the aftermath of large - scale industrial unrest on the Witwatersrand in 1922, however, was any comprehensive attempt undertaken to regulate relations between management and organised labour. The tumult on the Rand led directly to the first comprehensive piece of labour legislation, the Industrial Conciliation Act 1924, which was also the first legislation to regulate strikes in the country. It also recognised and regulated lock - outs. The Act provided for the registration of white trade unions and employers ' organisations, "self - evidently also white, '' and established a framework for collective bargaining through industrial councils or conciliation boards, as well as a dispute settlement system. Although the Act was "largely voluntarist, '' compliance with its provisions and with collective agreements was enforced by criminal sanction. The 1924 Act resulted in greater wage disparity between different racial groups. The Industrial Conciliation Act dealt only with collective labour rights; individual rights were dealt with in a Wage Act in 1925. Problems of enforcement led to a major revision of South African labour law, with the introduction of the Industrial Conciliation Act 1937. The 1937 Act tried to introduce more councils, in a greater geographical spread, so that more collective engagements could be facilitated. There was a proliferation of unregistered trades union for black people, who were legislatively excluded. Specifically, pass - bearing black workers were excluded, although certain black women could unionise. 1948 was a watershed year. The Nationalist Party won the election, albeit by small margin (which grew in later years), on the promise of apartheid. The Botha Commission was established to determine how to regulate labour relations in such a way as to protect the interests of white people. The Commission 's comprehensive review led to legislation that had a far - reaching effect on the labour structure. Trade unions were racially divided, job reservation was introduced and blacks were precluded from joining registered trade unions. The commission recommended that black trade unions should be dealt with in separate legislation, but the government went a step further and created an entirely separate legislative framework for black workers in general. Trade unions in the 1950s among black workers were therefore not part of the formal collective bargaining framework. By 1952, black women were also excluded from trade - union membership, while in 1953 the Black Labour Relations Regulation Act made provision for, inter alia, the creation of a Central Black Labour Council and regional committees, black labour officials and black workers ' committees. 1956 saw the prohibition of the creation of mixed - race trade unions, necessitating different unions for different race groups. This was part of the State 's attempt to isolate and fragment the workforce. It fuelled unrest, however, rather than quelling it. In the 1970s, the power of the black trade unions became especially notable, in a period marked by political unrest and industrial action. In 1973, provision was made for the creation of liaison and coordinating committees, and a restricted right to strike was accorded black workers. This attempt to accommodate black interests, without recognizing their parity with white interests, did not have the desired effect. This dualistic system of labour relations -- one for blacks and the other for whites, "coloureds '' and Indians (although the latter groups were also discriminated against) -- lasted until the beginning of the 1980s. In 1977, the government appointed the Commission of Enquiry into Labour Legislation, commonly known as the Wiehahn Commission that made significant recommendations for change, which changed the face of collective bargaining in South Africa. It was tasked to examine the current legislation and make recommendations to maintain the peace in the labour system. The Commission produced a six - part report, the primary recommendations of which were: In an attempt to give effect to these recommendations, significant amendments were made to the Industrial Conciliation Act (renamed the Labour Relations Act 28 of 1956), which with further amendments formed the legislative structure for regulating collective labour relations for the next 15 years. The country 's labour laws were thus largely "deracialised. '' All African workers who were not migrant workers could now join trade unions. The National Manpower Commission, a statutory body comprising representatives from employers organisations, trades and the State, which would meet to discuss economic and industrial policy, was duly established. In recognition of the fact dispute - resolution mechanisms, thitherto inadequate, needed to be bolstered, the Industrial Court (predecessor of the present - day Labour Court) was duly established, too. The Industrial Court was largely hands - off in respect of collective bargaining, in which it did not think it had any place involving itself here. The last change to be implemented as a result of the Commission 's findings was the removal of race - based job reservation, which was seen as having contributed to the unrest. These changes led to a tremendous growth in the trade union movement, which proved instrumental, especially in the 1980s, in the struggle against apartheid. The system in place up to the advent of democracy, "when South Africa was shaken to the roots by the transformation of the apartheid regime into a fully democratic constitutional order, '' was very fragmented. There were numerous definitional problems, too. Given the prominent role played by trade unions in bringing down apartheid, and given "the rapid and large - scale movement of former union leaders and cadres into party politics and government, it is hardly surprising that much attention was given to labour rights m the new dispensation. '' The right to fair labour practices, the right to bargain collectively and the right to strike were entrenched with a number of other fundamental rights in a new interim Constitution that came into force in 1993. Those rights remained entrenched in the final Constitution, adopted by the new democratic parliament on 8 May 1996. At that point, although all parties agreed that these fundamental labour rights should be given constitutional status (although there was some dispute about the extent of an employer 's right to lock out), there was room for disagreement on the scope and content of those rights. The final Constitution provided that "national legislation may be enacted to regulate collective bargaining. '' "From this cue, '' writes John Grogan, "the government set about preparing legislation to give flesh to the bones of the constitutional guarantees. '' The first step was to appoint a commission, under the chairmanship of Professor Halton Cheadle, to produce a draft Labour Relations Amendment Bill. This was accomplished six months later. The draft formed the basis of the new Labour Relations Act 66 of 1995, which appeared in its current form after "intensive debate '' in the National Economic Development & Labour Council (NEDLAC), a body consisting of representatives of government, organised labour, and employers, including the Manpower Commission and the National Economic Forum. They started thrashing out a new framework, to deal comprehensively with both individual and collective labour law. Given the adversarial nature of the relationship between organised labour and employers up to that point, this was a revolutionary development. Under the watchful eye of government representatives, and with their participation, management and labour were entrusted with the task of developing the draft bill into a uniquely South African product that at once satisfied the aspirations of labour and the reservations of management, and yet conformed to the letter and spirit of the Constitution and the requirements of the International Labour Organisation (ILO), of which South Africa was now a member. This produced the current LRA, "yet another turning point. '' One of the hopes of the drafters was to change the adversarial stance which tended to be adopted by unions and management under the old dispensation to a more co-operative one. The LRA created new institutions for encouraging union - management cooperation, and revamped old ones, "in the hope this would help transform and mature attitudes and bargaining styles. '' The common law of South Africa, "an amalgam of principles drawn from Roman, Roman - Dutch, English and other jurisdictions, which were accepted and applied by the courts in colonial times and during the period that followed British rule after Union in 1910, '' plays virtually no role in collective labour law. Initially, in fact, employment law, or "the law of master and servant, '' was regarded as a branch of the law of lease. As such, the common law did not concern itself directly with collective bargaining; its focus instead was on the rights and duties of individual employees and employers, as reflected in the contract on which their relationship was based. The law did not recognize claims by employees which had not been conferred by agreement. Although the role of the common law is minimal, therefore, it should be noted that the common - law contractual relationship between employer and employee underpins collective labour law in general and collective bargaining in particular. Legislation therefore is pivotal. The Constitution, however, is more pivotal still. Section 23 enshrines the right to "fair labour practices, '' while section 18 provides that "everyone has the right to freedom of association. '' The right to strike, furthermore, has been explicitly constitutionalized. The Constitution also provides not only for the right of every worker "to form and join a trade union, '' but also for the right of every trade union "to form and join a federation, '' like COSATU. Similar rights are granted to employers and employers ' associations as well. The right to collective bargaining is constitutionalized, with a mandate for national legislation to regulate it. More controversially, the Constitution also provides that "national legislation may recognize union security arrangements contained in collective agreements. '' Collective bargaining is one of the ways in which the LRA gives effect to section 23 of the Constitution. It is also an important part of freedom of association. Among the first of the LRA 's aspirations, listed in the Preamble, is "to regulate the organisational rights of trade unions. '' A trade union without organisational rights is not much of a trade union. Organisational rights allow the trade union to access the workplace, etc. The Preamble also describes as a purpose of the LRA the promotion of collective bargaining, and the regulation of the rights to strike and to lock out. It seeks also to advance "the democratization of the workplace '' by involving employees in decision - making through workplace forums, although these have not proliferated. The LRA defines as an "employee '' any person (excluding an independent contractor) who "Trade union '' is defined in the LRA as an association strictly of employees, whose principal purpose is to regulate relations between employees and employers. The trade union must act in the interests of its members. Trade unions also support individual members with individual disputes. A trade union must have an address in South Africa, and its name must not be so similar to that of another union "that it is likely to mislead or cause confusion. '' Other requirements are set out in section 95. Excluded from the application of the LRA are the members of Freedom of association, "one of the cornerstones of liberal democracy, '' is also one of the basic principles of labour law, reflected in several ILO Conventions, in the LRA and in the Constitution. Freedom of association "stems from a basic human need for society, community, and shared purpose in a freely chosen enterprise (...) protecting individuals from the vulnerability of isolation and ensuring the potential of effective participation in a society. '' In short, people have the right to associate with others in order to defend and protect their common interests. This constitutes "both an individual and a collective human right. '' In addressing the individual facet of freedom of association, the Supreme Court of Canada, in Lavigne v Ontario recognized that "the essence of freedom of association is the protection of the individual interests in self - actualization and fulfillment that can be realized only through combination with others. '' "However, '' writes Mpfariseni Budeli, freedom of association is important not only to facilitate effective participation in civil and political society. It is equally important in the field of social and economic activity and is particularly significant as a basis for securing trade union freedom from interference by the employer on the one hand and the government on the other. Freedom of association in the workplace may be defined as "those legal and moral rights of workers to form unions, to join unions of their choice and to demand that their unions function independently. '' It also includes the right of workers to participate in these unions ' lawful activities. "Freedom of association must therefore be seen, '' according to Budeli, "as the foundation of the collective bargaining process, '' which contributes to ensuring fairness and equity in labour matters, and to facilitating orderly and stable industrial relations. Freedom of association is the foundation of the collective - bargaining process. Before a group or collective may engage in collective bargaining, it is necessary that legal protection be extended to that group or collective. Legal measures are also necessary to protect the rights of people to belong to a group or collective. This is what freedom of association is all about: the legal protection of the freedom of persons to join a collective entity. The law, therefore, both permits people to join trade unions, and also protects their right to do so. The ILO Committee of Experts has provided "what can be regarded as the correct approach concerning freedom of association and social policy. '' In the Committee 's view, freedom of association should be guaranteed in such a way as to allow trade unions to express their aspirations, and so as to provide an indispensable contribution to economic development and social progress. The Constitution grants a general right to freedom of association to "everyone, '' as well as explicitly and specifically to trade unions. Section 23 of the Constitution protects the right of employees to form and join a trade union and to participate in the activities and programmes of that union. Freedom of association does not apply only to employees, however; the employer 's freedom of association is protected, too: Section 23 also protects the right of employers to form and join employers ' organisations, and to participate in the activities and programmes of such organisations. Both trade unions and employers ' organisations have the right Finally, every trade union, employers ' organisation and employer has the right to engage in collective bargaining. National legislation may be enacted to regulate collective bargaining. To the extent that the legislation may limit a right in this chapter the limitation must comply with section 36 (1). While the Constitution lays emphasis on the importance of freedom of association, the LRA emphasizes, protects and gives concrete content to this foundational right. The LRA recognizes the right of trade unions to organize themselves. Membership of a trade union is subject to the constitution of the trade union. This means that a union may determine, in its constitution, what types of employees may become members of the union, and what types of employees are disqualified from membership. Unless an employee qualifies for membership in terms of the union 's constitution, he is ineligible for membership. This principle has its limits. A trade union which attempts, through its constitution, to limit its members to persons of a certain race or sex could find such a provision ruled invalid; "it would certainly not be registered in terms of the LRA. '' Section 4 does not only protect the right to join and form a union. It also grants members of a union the right to participate in the affairs of the union. As a member of a trade union, an employee has the following rights: Again, these rights are subject to the constitution of the union. If the constitution of a union requires that the nomination of a candidate as union office - bearer be signed by ten members in good standing, and also that the election be by means of a secret ballot at the union 's annual conference, these provisions of the union constitution must be complied with. The LRA specifically grants employees the right to freedom of association, and protects both employees and people seeking employment, should this right be infringed by the employer. Section 5 of the LRA prohibits a wide range of actions which infringe the right to freedom of association in section 4. In terms of section 5 (1), "No person may discriminate against an employee for exercising any right conferred by this Act. '' Examples of such discrimination would include an employer 's dismissal of an employee, or failure to give an employee a discretionary annual bonus, because the employee joined a trade union, and an employer 's resort to harassment against an employee because that employee has been elected as a trade - union representative. The general protection of section 5 (1) is complemented by section 5 (2), which prohibits certain specific types of conduct that would undermine freedom of association. In terms of section 5 (2) (a), no person may require an employee The LRA grants the right of freedom of association to employers as well. Section 5 (2) (b) provides that no person may prevent an employee (or a prospective employee) from exercising any right in terms of the LRA, or prevent an employee from participating in any LRA proceedings. For example, where an employer prevents an employee from standing for election as a trade - union representative, or where he threatens a union representative with dismissal because the representative is representing a union member at a disciplinary hearing, the employer would be acting unlawfully. In terms of section 5 (2) (c), employees or job seekers may not be prejudiced because of their trade - union membership, their joining a trade union, their participation in the lawful activities of a trade union, or their disclosure of information that they are entitled or required to disclose. Section 5 (3) prohibits an employer from attempting to persuade or tempt an employee into surrendering rights granted in terms of the LRA. The employer may not, for example, offer to promote the employee, or promise a wage increase, on the condition that the employee surrender rights accorded him by the LRA. Section 5 (4) provides that any contract of employment that limits freedom of association, either directly or indirectly, is regarded as invalid -- irrespective of whether or not the contract was concluded before the LRA came into effect. In terms of section 187 of the LRA, it will be an automatically unfair dismissal if the employer, in dismissing an employee, acts contrary to the provisions protecting an employee 's right to freedom of association. The protection of freedom of association, then, has two aspects: Although the right to freedom of association is not only guaranteed in terms of the LRA, but also in terms of the Constitution, the scope of this right has not been tested. The question has arisen, however, of whether or not groups excluded from the application of the LRA, such as the Defense Force, are entitled to form and join trade unions, based on their constitutional right to freedom of association. The issue came before the Constitutional Court in SANDU v Minister of Defence. The court found that, although uniformed members of the South African Defense Force, the Secret Service and the Intelligence Service are excluded from the protection of the LRA, they may claim the right to freedom of association under section 23 of the Constitution. Section 4 of the LRA states that all employees have the rights set out in that section. Section 4 therefore applies to senior managers as well. This may in some circumstances, "and does, '' cause problems both for employers and for the managers themselves. A senior manager involved in the formulation of an employer 's approach to the annual wage negotiations (including its "final offer '') may not be able to perform his functions properly if he is also a member of the union sitting on the other side of the bargaining table. It might be difficult, too, for the manager not to divulge confidential information, bearing on the bargaining process, to the union. This issue arose for decision in the case of Independent Municipal and Allied Trade Union v Rustenburg Transitional Council, where the Labour Court declared unconstitutional a prohibition on senior managers holding executive positions within a union. The court indicated, however, that there are limitations to the scope of section 4. It pointed out that, in terms of common - law principles, an employee owes an employer a "duty of fidelity '' -- a duty to act in good faith. Because of the conflicting aims of trade unions and employers, the joining of a union and participation in its affairs may, in terms of common - law principles at least, and especially in the case of senior managerial employees, breach this duty of fidelity. Common - law principles have been amended by the Constitution, and especially by section 4 of the LRA. The court in IMATU stated that the rights granted in section 4 are "unequivocal and unconditional, '' but that they are not unlimited. Employees, including senior managers, are entitled to join trade unions and take part in their affairs, but this does not relieve them of their contractual obligations to their employers. If, for example, an employee takes time off without permission to attend to union affairs, the employee may be disciplined on the basis of misconduct. If a senior employee, part of whose job it is to conduct disciplinary enquiries, refuses to undertake this task when union members are disciplined, this will amount to incapacity. A senior employee who has access to confidential information of the employer must also, the court added, tread carefully when conducting trade - union business, and ensure that this information is not disclosed. In FAWU v The Cold Chain, where an employee was offered a managerial position as an alternative to retrenchment, on condition that he no longer participated in the activities of the union, he refused and was retrenched, and the court found his dismissal to be automatically unfair, holding that there was nothing absurd in permitting a senior managerial employee to participate in the activities of a trade union -- provided that the employee complies with his contractual obligations. In Kroukam v SA Airlink, the court held that Kroukam 's dismissal was automatically unfair in terms of section 187 (1) (d) of LRA, because he had been dismissed for union activities and for initiating litigation against the company on behalf of his union. The court, in delivering its verdict, cautioned against the argument that participation in trade - union activities destroys the trust relationship between employer and employee; such an argument is unacceptable on policy grounds. Managerial employees, therefore, must balance the right to freedom of association with their common - law duty to act in good faith towards their employers. If a manager, for example, divulges information to the trade union that he acquired by virtue of his managerial position, he may be disciplined. Sections 6 and 7 of the LRA grant and protect employer rights to freedom of association in terms similar to those granted to employees: to form, join and participate in the activities of employers ' organisations. Freedom of association is generally regarded as a positive right; it protects the rights of employees and employers actively to form collective entities and to join them. In the case of trade unions, this positive right is protected by prohibiting both the State and employers from infringing it. Freedom of association also has a negative aspect, however. This does not refer to any disadvantages or drawbacks it may have; it refers to the right not to associate. In the context of labour relations, the principle of freedom of non-association means that no person may force an employee to belong to a union in the first place, or to belong to a union other than the union of the employee 's choice. Where the limits of freedom of non-association lie is the subject of considerable controversy. Closed - shop agreements exist where an employer and a trade union conclude a collective agreement in terms of which the employer undertakes to employ or retain in its services only those employees who have joined the union. The closed - shop agreement forces employees to join a certain union if they are to keep their jobs. A closed - shop agreement could be seen as an infringement of the employees ' right not to associate. Sometimes mention is made of the freedom of dissociation. This refers to the situation where employees who have decided to associate with each other also decide to prevent other employees from associating with them: for example, where the union 's constitution stipulates that only employees in a certain industry may join. In practice, this freedom of dissociation is not so controversial. More controversial is that the constitutions of some unions state that the union has the right to refuse to admit a person as a member of that union even if that person is eligible for membership. A constitution may also provide for the expulsion of members. This becomes vitally important if there is a closed - shop agreement, because the refusal of membership of the union may mean the loss of a job. If a person alleges that one of the rights relating to freedom of association has been infringed, the dispute - resolution procedure contained in section 9 of the LRA applies. Disputes about the interpretation or application of the right to freedom of association should be referred for conciliation to a bargaining council, a statutory council or (if no council exists) the Commission for Conciliation, Mediation and Arbitration. If the dispute remains unresolved, it should be referred to the Labour Court for adjudication, unless the parties agree to arbitration. The Constitution allows for "union security arrangements contained in collective agreements. '' There is no firm definition of the term "union - security arrangements, '' but it is generally viewed as a generic term for a collective agreement between an employer or employers ' organisation and a trade union or trade unions, in terms of which union membership, or alternatively the payment of trade union subscriptions, is a condition of employment for all employees. Clearly this infringes upon an employee 's right to freedom of association. Union security arrangements therefore require compulsory union membership, or compulsory payment of a union subscription. In the South African context, the term "union - security arrangements '' refers to the so - called "closed - shop '' and "agency - shop '' agreements. The only limits set in the Constitution are that such agreements must The two types of union security arrangements are illustrated by way of the following example: K employs 100 employees. 60 of them belong to trade union T. These members pay a monthly membership fee of R20. From the other 40 employees 10 belong to union R and 30 are non-unionised. Every year with wage negotiations, T negotiates with K and the increase agreed on is applied across the board. T feels that it does all the hard work which both union and non-union members benefit from. If T concludes an agency - shop agreement with K, it will mean that K will deduct an agency fee of R20 from the salaries of all the other 40 employees and pay it over to T. The other 40 employees do not have to become members of T (... but) the members of R will pay their own membership fee for R as well as the R20 agency fee. If K and T conclude a closed - shop agreement, it will mean that all other 40 employees of K must become members of T. R will no longer be allowed to operate in the workplace. All 100 employees will have to pay the R20 membership fee to T. An agency - shop agreement is defined in section 25 (1) of the LRA: "A representative trade union and an employers organisation may conclude a collective agreement, to be known as an agency shop agreement, requiring the employer to deduct an agreed agency fee from the wages of employees identified in the agreement who are not members of the trade union but are eligible for membership thereof. '' An agency - shop agreement is concluded by a majority union and an employer or an employers ' organisation -- concluded, that is, by way of a collective agreement. The employer must deduct an agreed agency fee from the salaries of the employees identified in the agreement. In this regard, it is important to note that it may be deducted only from those who are not members of the union but also from those who are eligible for membership. Conscientious objectors to the policies of the union (on religious or moral grounds) must pay the fee; the fee, in turn, must be paid into a fund administered by the DoL. The fee that non-members pay must not be higher than the subscription fee payable by members of the majority union. Agency fees are paid over to a separate account and may be used only for the benefit of all employees at the workplace. Agency fees may not be used for political affiliation and may not be used for any purpose other than advancing or protecting the socioeconomic interests of employees. The employer may deduct agency fees from the wages of employees without their authorisation. A closed shop is defined in section 26 (1) of the LRA: "A representative trade union and an employer or employer 's organisation may conclude a collective agreement, to be known as a closed - shop agreement, requiring that all employees covered by the agreement be members of the trade union. '' A closed - shop agreement is concluded by a majority union and an employer or an employers ' organisation, by way of a collective agreement. The employees to be covered by the agreement must have a ballot before a closed - shop agreement is concluded. Two thirds of the employees (who will potentially be covered) who voted must have voted in favour of the agreement. Union subscription fees may not be used for political affiliation; they may be used only to advance the socioeconomic interests of the employees. Employees who were already employed when the closed - shop agreement came into effect, along with conscious objectors, may not be dismissed for refusing to join the union which is a party to a closed - shop agreement. A closed - shop agreement may be terminated if a majority of the employees votes for its termination. It is not unfair to dismiss an employee for refusing to join a union which is a party to a closed - shop agreement, or who is refused union membership, or has been expelled from a union which is a party to the agreement -- provided that the refusal or expulsion is in accordance with the union 's constitution, and provided that the reason for the refusal or expulsion is a fair one. An employee may not be required to be a member of a majority union before the commencement of employment. The latter is called a post entry closed - shop agreement. The opposite of this is a pre-entry closed - shop agreement: that is, a closed - shop agreement that requires an employee to be a member of a majority trade union before employment. Pre-entry closed shops are not allowed in South Africa. There is an important difference between the two: In the agency shop, employees are not compelled to be or to become members of the trade union. In the closed shop, however, all employees who are covered by the collective agreement must be or must become members of the trade union. The reason for these agreements relates to the nature and practice of collective bargaining. Under certain circumstances, employees who are not members of a trade union will be bound by the provisions of an agreement entered into by the union. In other circumstances, the employer may, in the interests of administrative convenience, extend the provisions of a collective agreement to non-union members. In effect, employees who are not members of the trade union may derive benefits from a collective agreement entered into by a union. "Understandably, '' unions have reservations about this state of affairs. These non-union employees are sometimes called "free riders, '' because they derive benefits for free: They do not pay union subscriptions, but they still obtain the benefits of the union 's collective bargaining. This is the main argument in favour of forcing employees either to belong to a union (in the case of closed - shop agreements) or to pay a fee (in the case of agency - shop agreements). Those who support union - security arrangements argue that they are necessary to avoid free riders. Furthermore, there is a view that they encourage "responsible '' unionism. They support collective bargaining by aiding the development of strong and representative trade unions. Such arrangements are said to give union organizers a sense of security, and to enable them to devote themselves to the long - term interest of their members, "instead of collecting subscriptions and trying to persuade reluctant employees to join. '' For some, the main justification for union - security arrangements is that they add to the power of the unions during the collective - bargaining process, creating a more effective counterbalance to the naturally superior economic power of the corporate employer. This they do by preventing the defection of members during wage bargaining which may lead to strike action. There may also be some benefit in such arrangements for the employer. If all employees belong to one union (or contribute to that union), the employer need only deal with that specific union. As a collective - bargaining relationship grows, a certain pattern and consistency of collective bargaining can thus be formed. On the other hand, those who consider that the unions already possess monopoly status and excessive power see union security arrangements, particularly the closed shop, "as a main cause of undesirable state of affairs at the workplace. '' The main arguments against union security arrangements are, The two ILO Conventions on freedom of association and collective bargaining do not make any express reference to the notion of union - security arrangements. The ILO Committee also left it to the practice and regulation of each state to authorise and, where necessary, to regulate the use of union - security clauses in practice. According to the Committee, union security arrangements are compatible with the ILO Conventions on freedom of association, provided that they are the results of free negotiations between workers ' organisations and employers. As long as this is the case, then, the international body will not interfere with them, provided that the law of a particular country does not go so far as to impose them generally and make union membership compulsory. However, when trade union security clauses are imposed by the law itself, then the right to join an organization of one 's own choosing is compromised, and those provisions will be incompatible with the ILO Convention. Accordingly ILO member states are at liberty to include or not to include in their constitutions and labour legislation provisions regulating union - security arrangements. Despite the arguments in favour of agency shops and closed shops, it would appear prima facie that these types of agreement do infringe the employee 's freedom of association. Particularly in the case of a closed shop, an employee is no longer free not to associate: The employee must belong to a specific trade union. Employees are no longer free to choose which union they want to belong to, or even if they want to belong to a union at all. If the employee is not a member of a particular trade union, or if he loses his trade - union membership in terms of the union 's constitution, the employee may end up out of a job. It has been argued, accordingly, that the closed - shop agreement amounts to an infringement of the employee 's freedom of association, as protected by sections 18 and 23 of the Constitution. The situation is different in the case of agency shops: The employee still has the freedom to choose whether or not he wants to belong to the union which is party to the collective agreement -- "that is if the employee wants to belong to a union in the first place. '' The solution to this problem lies in a constitutional provision, section 23 (6) of the Constitution, which provides that "national Legislation may recognize union security arrangements contained in collective agreements. To the extent that the legislation may limit a right in this Chapter, the limitation must comply with s 36 (1). '' In other words, union - security arrangements are permitted within the scheme of constitutional rights, and these arrangements may be recognized by national legislation (the LRA). Agency shops and closed shops, then, are not automatically unconstitutional, but a limitation of any right by a union - security arrangement must comply with section 36 (1) of the Constitution, which provides that a fundamental right, such as freedom of association, may be limited by legislation as long as that limitation is reasonable and justifiable in an open and democratic society based on human dignity, equality and freedom. Section 36 (1) contains a list of the factors that must be considered: Applied to agency and closed shops, the purpose of these arrangements is, at least in part, to enhance collective bargaining by the development of strong and powerful trade unions and stable bargaining relationships. (Collective bargaining is also protected by section 23 of the Constitution.) While agency shops do not represent all that serious an infringement of freedom of association, it is clear that the closed - shop agreement does. The question (which still awaits an answer) is whether or not it is really necessary to force employees to become members of a union, especially when a less restrictive method -- that is, the agency shop -- exists. Disputes about collective agreements (including closed - and agency - shop agreements) must be referred to the Commission for Conciliation, Mediation and Arbitration for conciliation. If conciliation fails, any party to the dispute may refer the matter to arbitration. By way of exception, the LRA makes provision in this context for an appeal against an award issued by the Commission for Conciliation, Mediation and Arbitration commissioner. The arbitration award may be taken on appeal to the Labour Court. The LRA does not impose a legal obligation on employers to bargain collectively with unions. The law encourages collective bargaining; it does not compel it. One of the ways it seeks to do this is by enabling trade unions to acquire organisational rights in certain circumstances. The granting of organisational rights to a trade union is seen as a way of enabling that trade union to establish a collective - bargaining relationship with an employer or employer 's organisation. The trade union is the essential instrument for engaging in collective bargaining. The LRA sets certain minimum rights for trade unions (which may be expanded upon by agreement) in their engagement with employers. These organisational rights are granted to unions by the LRA to enable them to function more effectively, to build support at the workplace, and thereby to lay the foundations of a collective - bargaining relationship with the employer. If the union, through the acquisition of organisational rights, gains sufficient membership and a significant presence in the workplace or industry, an employer or employers ' organisation may be persuaded to "recognize '' the union for the purpose of collective bargaining. Organisational rights are granted only to registered trade unions. The LRA does not compel trade unions and employers ' organisations to register, but it does encourage registration. It does this by granting most of the rights in the LRA only to registered unions. For instance, only a registered union may Registration is not a prerequisite for protected strike action. Once a trade union or employers ' organisation has complied with the requirements set out in the LRA, the Registrar of Labour Relations must register the union or organisation. In respect of unions, there are four requirements to be met: The first three requirements apply also in the case of an employers ' organisation; the last one, given the overlap, obviously does not. The LRA makes provision for granting of five types of organisational rights. Other organisational rights may also be granted which are not referred to in the LRA; these must be obtained through negotiation and agreement. The five types of organisational rights made provision for in the LRA are listed and discussed below: The logical place for contact between union representatives and the members they represent, as well as prospective members whom the union might recruit, is in the workplace. Section 12 of the LRA states that a registered trade union, sufficiently representative, has the right of access to the workplace. This right allows the union The purpose of this access is for the union to recruit new members, to communicate with existing ones and to serve the interests of union members in other ways. The right of access refers to access for union officials, to be clear, not just anyone who is affiliated with union. Nor do such officials also not have free rein. The right of access is not unlimited. Section 12 (4) states that the exercise of the union 's right of access to the workplace may be subject to such conditions, as regards time and place, as are reasonable and necessary to protect life and property, or to prevent the undue disruption of work. In the case of domestic workers, there is no right of access to workplace, given the intimate nature of the workplace. This is the primary source of income for unions. Section 13 of the LRA grants unions the right to stop - order facilities. Union fees are used to perform the work and functions of the union, to hire officers and offices, and to provide training. There is no stipulation in the LRA or in related regulations as to how much unions are allowed to charge, but usually it is not much. The amount is determined by the constitution of the trade union. Payment is voluntary: A member of a registered and sufficiently representative union may authorize the employer, in writing, to deduct union subscriptions from his wages. Usually this is done on the union membership form. The employer should start to make the deductions agreed to as soon as possible, and should pay the subscription over to the union not later than the fifteenth day of each month. The employee may subsequently revoke authorization, however, on written notice of a month, to both the employer and the trade union. At end of that period, employer must stop making the deduction. When paying deductions to the trade union, the employer must also furnish union with Shop stewards are union representatives, "the infantry of the trade union. '' They play a very important role in industrial relations, being in the best position to represent the union in the workplace and to relay information about the workplace to the union. They look after the day - to - day operation of the union and the protection and assistance of workers with their work - related problems. Their statutory role is to ensure compliance with the law and with collective agreements. Section 14 of the LRA provides that members of a registered trade union, provided that the union represents the majority of employees in the workplace, are entitled to elect trade - union representatives if the union has at least ten members in the workplace. The nomination, election, terms of office and removal from office of representatives are governed by the union 's constitution. The number of representatives is determined according to the number of union members in the specific workplace. For example, if there are only between ten and fifty union members, there will be two representatives. The amount increases on a sliding scale. The maximum number of representatives is twenty. The functions of union representatives are set out in section 14 (4) of the LRA: Shop stewards are employed by the employer, not by the union. Grogan describes "the difficult position in which shop stewards find themselves, '' keeping two sets of books, or attempting "to serve two masters, '' their employer and their trade union -- masters whose interests are often diametrically opposed. "This situation is particularly difficult, '' writes Grogan, "when shop stewards also occupy supervisory or managerial positions. '' The courts have held, however, that employers may not for this reason forbid managerial employees from being elected as shop stewards; the most they can do is to discipline them if their union role actually prevents them from performing their managerial duties properly. The distinction between union officials and union representatives (like shop stewards) is an important one. Trade - union officials are employees of the trade union; they perform various duties for the trade union in this capacity. Trade - union representatives, on the other hand, remain employees of the particular employer at the workplace, although they also represent the union in various ways within the workplace where they are employed. Section 14 (5) of LRA entitles the trade - union representative to "reasonable '' time off, during working hours, without loss of pay, to perform union functions and be trained in any subject relevant to performance of those functions. The meaning of "reasonable '' in relation to paid time off is not stated in the Act. Attendance at union conferences and meetings may require the office - bearer to be absent from work. In terms of section 15 (1), the office - bearer of a registered, sufficiently representative trade union is entitled to take reasonable leave during working hours for the purpose of performing the functions of his office. In terms of section 15 (2), the union and employer may agree on the number of days ' leave, the number of days ' paid leave and the conditions attached to any leave. If the union and the employer are unable to reach an agreement, the dispute may be determined by an award made in terms of section 21 of the LRA. No benchmark for shop stewards ' leave emerges from the decided cases, but arbitrators have generally accepted ten days per annul as "reasonable. '' Employers may take disciplinary action against shop stewards if they exceed or abuse their powers by, for example, intimidating employees, including other shop stewards. Employers are entitled to refuse to deal with shop stewards if they have committed serious misconduct. Item 4 (2) of the Code of Good Practice: Dismissal, seeks to discourage victimization of shop stewards by requiring employers to inform and "consult '' their unions before taking disciplinary action against them for any reason. A number of cases concerning the dismissal of shop stewards have reached the courts. The approach in such cases is to determine If it does, the dismissal is ' automatically ' unfair, and the shop steward will invariably be reinstated. For a trade union to do its job effectively, it may need access to certain information. Section 16 provides for the provision of information both to trade - union representatives and to trade unions. Only registered unions which represent the majority of the employees in the workplace are entitled to rely on section 16. Only relevant information must be disclosed: That is to say, in terms of section 16 (2), all relevant information that will allow the representative trade union to engage effectively in consultation or collective bargaining must be disclosed. The information must be relevant to the effective performance of functions in terms of section 14 (4). There is, in other words, an important link between the information required and the function of the representative. Often the requirement of "relevance '' means relevance to the performance of a specific task. Typically the information in question is in the hands of the employer. A common example is production plans or plans for restructuring, which will affect or cause retrenchment. The registered majority union has a right to information when the employer is actually involved in consultation or bargaining with the union, or when consultation or bargaining is about to start. For example, at annual wage negotiations, the employer may argue that its financial position, both short - and long - term, is poor. The trade union may dispute this and demand that all relevant information on which the employer bases this argument be disclosed. The employer would then have to furnish, for example, proof of cancellation of orders, and reasons for such cancellation, any existing and possible new orders, and financial statements. The employer, however, can not be expected to disclose information which If the employer regards certain types of information as confidential, it must notify the union of this fact. Disputes on the disclosure of information are to be referred to the Commission for Conciliation, Mediation and Arbitration, which will attempt to settle the dispute through conciliation and, failing that, arbitration. Whether a trade union is entitled to organisational rights depends on the level of representativeness of the trade union in the workplace, which can be either majority representation or "sufficient '' representation. If a union represents the majority of workers, it will have access to all organisational rights. If the union is sufficiently representative, it will have access only to certain organisational rights: the rights of access, leave and stop - order facilities. The rights to elect shop stewards and to disclosure of information, on the other hand, are reserved for unions that have as members the majority of the employees in the workplace. Usually, only a single union will be seeking organisational rights, but two or more unions may also act together to do so. Where the union has a majority, representing 50 per cent plus one, or more, of all employees in the workplace, it enjoys the following organisational rights: Where the union is "sufficiently represented, '' it represents less than the majority of employees in the workplace. There is no fixed rule as to "sufficient representation; '' it is decided on a case - by - case basis. A sufficiently representative union enjoys the following organisational rights: If the union is a member of a bargaining council, it enjoys the following organisational rights: If it is a minority union, it may enforce its rights through collective bargaining and industrial action. Two or more trade unions may act jointly to acquire rights. The LRA does not define "sufficient representation, '' but it does give guidelines. Factors to be taken into account would include the nature of the workplace and the industry involved, as well as the presence or absence of other unions with membership in the workplace. The approximate figure is thirty per cent. In UPUSA v Komming Knitting, the Commissioner extended the right to access the workplace, together with the right to deductions of union subscriptions, to a union which, at the time of the award, represented just seven employees out of 31. The Commissioner made this decision on the basis The Commissioner held that the union seemed capable of recruiting a majority of the workers at the workplace. In SACTWU v Marley, the Commission for Conciliation, Mediation and Arbitration refused organisational rights to a union with 42 per cent representivity, on the basis that another union represented 56 per cent of employees in the workplace, and because the employer had a long association with the other union, which included an agency - shop agreement. In NUMSA v Feltex Foam, the question was whether differing degrees of "sufficient representativeness '' could be set for different organisational rights: a higher degree for gaining access to workplace, for example, than for stop - order facilities. The Commission for Conciliation, Mediation and Arbitration held that there have to be very special circumstances to allow him to distinguish between such rights. If the arbitrator is prepared to grant one of these rights, in other words, there would have to be special circumstances to justify a refusal to grant any of the others. In Organisation of Labour Affairs v Old Mutual Life Assurance, the Commissioner was prepared to order the employer to grant access to the workplace and stop - order facilities to a union with level of representivity which would not ordinarily have permitted the granting of these rights, on the basis that the rights had been granted to other unions with lower representivity. A similar approach was adopted in Group 4 Falck v DUSWO. The effect of these decisions is that, when an employer grants organisational rights to a union with, for example, only ten per cent representivity, the employer can not really argue that another union seeking organisation rights must have at least thirty per cent. Section 18 allows an employer and majority union in a workplace, as well as parties to a bargaining council, to establish by collective agreement the level of representativeness required for the purposes of gaining access, deductions and leave at a particular workplace. The only limit is that the agreed threshold must be applied equally to all unions seeking to exercise any, or all, of these rights. The "workplace '' is defined in section 213 of LRA. There is a distinction to be drawn, in this regard, between the public service and the private sector. If the private employer has two businesses, independent of each other by reason of size or function or organisation, the place where the employees work in connection with each independent operation constitutes the workplace for that operation. This foresees the possibility that geographically distinct operations may constitute one workplace. Commission for Conciliation, Mediation and Arbitration commissioners been unwilling to accept too easily that geographically distinct places of work constitute separate workplaces. In Speciality Stores v SACCAWU, the Labour Court was loath to find, in the absence of proof by the trade union, that different stores of a retailer constituted different workplaces. The court also made it clear that the onus rests on the union to prove that two operations are two different workplaces. Employers and majority unions are permitted to conclude collective agreements that set thresholds for the acquisition of rights under sections 12 (union access to the workplace), 13 (stop - orders) and 15 (time off). This right is conferred by section 18 ("Right to establish thresholds of representativeness ''), which reads as follows: (1) An employer and a registered trade union whose members are a majority of the employees employed by that employer in a workplace, or the parties to a bargaining council, may conclude a collective agreement establishing a threshold of representativeness required in respect of one or more of the organisational rights referred to in sections 12, 13 and 15. (2) A collective agreement concluded in terms of subsection (1) is not binding unless the thresholds of representativeness in the collective agreement are applied equally to any registered trade union seeking any of the organisational rights referred to in that subsection. A threshold agreement, then, is an agreement to restrict certain rights to unions with a certain percentage of representation. The idea is to prevent union fragmentation, and to make bargaining genuinely collective. Trade unions may acquire organisational rights in the following ways: The LRA makes provision in section 20 for a registered trade union and an employer or employers ' organisation to conclude a collective agreement that regulates organisational rights. This means that, even if the trade union is not representative, it could have organisational rights on which the parties agreed. This route generally begins with an approach by the union to the employer, and a request that it grant the union organisational rights. Section 20 does not prescribe any representivity requirements before the employer will be entitled to grant such rights in a collective agreement. Even a union with only a small degree of representivity, therefore, may obtain organisational rights. In terms of section 19 of the LRA, a registered trade union, if party to a bargaining council, automatically acquires the right of access to the premises, together with the right to have trade union subscriptions deducted by stop orders, in respect of all workplaces falling within the jurisdiction of the bargaining council. Again, it does not matter, for the purposes of this route, how representative the union is in the specific workplace. A union acquires these rights irrespective of whether it is sufficiently representative or not. Briefly, the section - 21 procedure involves notice by the union to the employer of its intention to seek organisational rights, consultation between union and employer in an attempt to reach a collective agreement, and referral by the union of a dispute, if any, to the CCMA, which will attempt to settle the matter through conciliation, failing which it will arbitrate the dispute and issue a binding award. The union in this case must be registered, and must enjoy a certain level of representation in the workplace. The onus rests on the union to notify the employer, in writing, that it intends to seek the organisational rights conferred by the Act. The notice must contain the following information: The notice must be accompanied by a certified copy of the trade union registration certificate. Within thirty days of receiving the notice, employer must meet with the union. The parties must then try to conclude a collective agreement regulating the manner in which the organisational rights will be exercised. The employer may refuse to grant union rights on the grounds there is a dispute as to what constitutes a "workplace, '' or because the employer argues that the union does not enjoy the required degree of representativeness. If the parties fail to conclude a collective agreement, either of the parties may refer the dispute, in writing, to the Commission for Conciliation, Mediation and Arbitration for conciliation. If conciliation fails, either party may request that the dispute be arbitrated. The CCMA has jurisdiction to arbitrate only if the union has complied with all the provisions of section 21, which are peremptory. Failure by the union to comply with them will mean that Commission for Conciliation, Mediation and Arbitration may not deal with the dispute. The CCMA commissioner will be called upon to decide whether or not the union is representative. Section 21 authorizes him to make inquiries, conduct a ballot and take all other relevant information into account. Once the actual number of members has been established, section 21 (8) provides that the commissioner Here the LRA gives "clear legislative support for the principle of majoritarianism. '' In this regard, the commissioner must consider If the employer is of the opinion that the union is no longer representative, it may refer matter to the Commission for Conciliation, Mediation and Arbitration, requesting that it withdraw the organisational rights. The commissioner may withdraw any of the organisational rights once conferred which are exercised by any other registered trade union in respect of that workplace, if that other union has ceased to be a representative union. In order to determine the membership or support of the registered trade union, the Commissioner may The employer must co-operate with the Commissioner and make available any information and facilities that are reasonably necessary for this purpose. An employer who alleges that a union is no longer a representative trade union may apply to the CCMA to withdraw any of the organisational rights previously granted. In summary, the section 21 procedure runs as follows: The LRA Amendment Bill now before parliament proposes to amend section 21. Section 8A of the proposed amendment would allow a non-majority trade union to bring shop stewards into the workplace. The LRA would prohibit a strike in support of a demand that the employer grant all or some organisational rights to a union, because such a dispute may be referred to arbitration in terms of section 21. Section 65 (2) (a) specifically permits a union which would otherwise have the right to refer a dispute about organisational rights to arbitration in terms of section 21 to embark on strike action in an attempt to force employer to grant these rights. A trade union, including a minority union, may therefore strike in support of a demand for organisational rights even if it does not meet the statutory threshold for acquiring such rights. Except for the right to information, in fact, organisational rights are the only rights conferred by the LRA over which strikes are permitted. This is the consequence of NUMSA v Bader Bop, where NUMSA, although not a majority union, sought to acquire the right to elect shop stewards by striking. The lower courts were divided. A divided Labour Appeal Court held that minority unions could not do strike for such a right because, This judgment was overturned by the Constitutional Court, however, which held that the minority unions may strike in support of demands for organisational rights to which they are not entitled under the LRA. The Constitutional Court found that nothing in section 20 of the LRA precludes a collective agreement granting collective - bargaining rights, even if the qualification for representativity is not met. The court 's interpretation of this was that, if a minority union asks for, but does not succeed in acquiring, the organisational rights in question, and if conciliation subsequently fails, the dispute - resolution mechanism is to strike for it. This judgment has been severely criticized. If the union utilizes the strike remedy, but is unsuccessful in forcing employer to grant the rights, the union loses the right to utilize the section - 21 procedure for one year from date on which notice was given of the intention to go on strike. If there is a dispute about the interpretation of organisational rights, any party may refer the dispute in writing to the Commission for Conciliation, Mediation and Arbitration for conciliation and, if conciliation fails, for arbitration. Disputes about disclosure of information follow the same route. In determining the dispute, the Commissioner must strike a balance between the employer 's right to privacy and the interests of sound collective bargaining. The Commissioner has a fairly wide discretion to make a suitable award to achieve this. The legal rules relating to freedom of association and organisational rights are all aimed at making collective bargaining possible. There are specific rules that govern the collective bargaining process and the result thereof: collective agreements. Neither the Constitution nor the LRA defines "collective bargaining. '' This is primarily because the law does not impose a legal duty to bargain on employers and trade unions. Collective bargaining must be understood as a process. The process of collective bargaining entails negotiations between the two parties: Broadly, then, the collective - bargaining process may be defined as a process whereby employers (or employers ' organisations) bargain with employee representatives (trade unions) about terms and conditions of employment, and about other matters of mutual interest. Unlike mere consultation, collective bargaining presumes a willingness from each party, not only to listen to and consider the representations of the other party, but also to abandon its own fixed positions where possible, in order to find common ground. Bargaining occurs, inter alia, Bargaining, then, is a dynamic process. Collective bargaining is mainly concerned with disputes of interest, but not to the exclusion of disputes of right. The word "collective '' refers to the fact that employees join together in trade unions to increase their power in bargaining with employers over wages, working conditions and any other matters of mutual interest between them. It is important to note that, on the workers ' side, only trade unions may engage in collective bargaining. Although a single employer can engage in collective bargaining, an individual employee can not, by definition, engage in collective bargaining. If successful, collective bargaining leads to a settlement and the conclusion of a collective agreement. If it fails, there are several options available to the employer or the union, including When a trade union enters into the collective - bargaining process, it will normally have one of three objectives in mind: The LRA makes provision for the establishment of two institutions within which collective bargaining may take place: The establishment, composition and function of bargaining councils and statutory councils are regulated in some detail by the LRA. Employers and trade unions remain free, however, to agree to their own collective - bargaining fora and procedures. The Act, however, does not regulate this "non-statutory collective bargaining '' in any detail; it is left to the employer and the trade union to reach agreement on issues such as The only facet of this type of bargaining regulated by the LRA is the legal effect and binding nature of collective agreements entered into. It could be argued that the constitutional right to bargain collectively (s 23 (5)) includes both a legally enforceable right to bargain collectively, as well as a corresponding duty to bargain collectively on the other party to the relationship. Since the LRA does not create a duty to bargain, this may give rise to the argument that the Act does not go far enough in protecting and giving content to the constitutional right. This debate may have to be solved by the courts in the future. For now, however, there is no general duty to bargain on employers and trade unions in terms of the LRA. An employer may refuse to engage with a trade union; in turn, the trade union may take strike action. The question of whether the constitutional right to bargain collectively includes a duty on the other party has arisen in connection with one group of persons not covered by the Act: members of the South African National Defence Force (SANDF). In three separate disputes, the High Court had to consider whether the South African National Defense Force Union (SANDU) may rely on the provisions of section 23 in order to obtain a court order to require the State to bargain collectively with it. These decisions, and their arguments, were contradictory. The SCA, on appeal, held that the constitutional provision does not impose a judicially enforceable duty to bargain on employers or employees. On further appeal, however, the Constitutional court left the question open. It did point out, however, that the contrary approach could create difficulties. It came close, then, to agreeing with the SCA that no duty to bargain collectively exists in South African labour law. Although the LRA does not compel parties to bargain with each other, it encourages collective bargaining through the granting of organisational rights, the right to establish bargaining institutions and closed - shop and agency - shop agreements. Should an employer refuse to bargain, the Act allows for strike action by employees to convince the employer to bargain. A refusal to bargain includes: Disputes regarding refusal to bargain must first be referred to the Commission for Conciliation, Mediation and Arbitration for an advisory award. An advisory award provides guidance only; it is not binding on the parties. Collective bargaining is performed by bargaining agents, namely trade unions and employers ' organisations. The LRA sets requirements for unions and organisations relating to registration. A trade union is defined as an association of employees whose principal purpose is to regulate the relations between employers or employers ' organisations and employees. Only employees may be members of a trade union. Job seekers and ex-employees may not be members of a trade union. To qualify as a trade union, an association of employees need not be registered. Registration is beneficial, however, since only a registered trade union is entitled to rights, such as the right to The powers and functions of a bargaining council are outlined in section 28 of the LRA. A bargaining council has three main functions: Collective bargaining can take place at plant level, sector level or industry level. The LRA encourages collective bargaining at sector or industry level. Provision is made for the establishment of bargaining councils for a particular sector. It is at this level that bargaining will take place in bargaining councils. Moreover, bargaining councils may be established in the private as well as the public sector. The private sector is the economic sector in which the State is not the employer; in the public sector, the State is the employer. disputes. and incapacity: A bargaining council may conciliate and arbitrate these disputes by way of the con - arb procedure. The main goal of collective bargaining between an employer and a trade union is to reach consensus about certain matters and formalise their relationship by means of a collective agreement. A collective agreement regulates the rights and duties of parties, as well as the terms and conditions of the employment of workers. In terms of section 213 of the LRA, a collective agreement is a written agreement concerning terms and conditions of employment or any other matter of mutual interest concluded by one or more registered trade unions, on the one hand and, on the other The parties, therefore, are There are three important elements that distinguish a collective agreement from any other agreement between employees and employers: A collective agreement need not be signed by the parties to the agreement to be valid. All that is required is that the agreement be in writing. It is not even necessary that the collective agreement be contained in a single document. It would, however, be advisable for the parties to the agreement to sign a single written document, as this would assist in eliminating later disputes as to whether or not an agreement was actually entered into, and what the content of the agreement was. Only registered unions may be parties to collective agreements, but a union being unregistered does not mean that the union may not conclude an agreement with an employer; it simply means that the agreement will fall outside the scope of the LRA, and will not be enforceable in terms of the LRA. A single employer may conclude a collective agreement; a single employee can not. The reason for this is the inequality of power between an employer and a single employee, and that a single employee is not a "collective ''. The definition also states what topics must be regulated by a collective agreement. It must deal with the terms and conditions of employment, and other matters of mutual interest between the parties. Terms and conditions of employment relate to those substantive provisions of the employment relationship, like working hours, remuneration and leave. Collective agreements can also regulate the granting of organisational rights to registered unions. A distinction must be drawn between parties to the agreement and members of the parties to the agreement. Section 23 of the LRA provides that the following entities or persons are bound by a collective agreement: A collective agreement binds for the whole period of the collective agreement every person bond in terms of section (1) (c) who was a member at the time it became binding, or who becomes a member after it became binding, whether or not that person continues to be a member of the registered trade union or registered employers ' organisation for the duration of the collective agreement. Where applicable, a collective agreement varies any contract of employment between an employee and an employer if they are both bound by the collective agreement. Unless the collective agreement provides otherwise, any party to a collective agreement that is concluded for an indefinite period may terminate the agreement by giving reasonable notice in writing to the other parties. To encourage workers ' participation in the workplace, the concept of a "workplace forum '' has been introduced by the LRA. A workplace forum is an in - house institution promoting workers ' participation in decision making at the workplace. Workplace fora are intended to deal with non-wage - related issues such as restructuring, introduction of new technology, new work methods, and the like. It is important not to confuse a trade union and a workplace forum, as the latter is not a bargaining structure: All employees, including non-union members, may be members of a forum. Senior managerial employees, however, may not be members of a forum. Only registered trade unions or trade unions acting jointly, representing the majority of all employees employed in the workplace, may apply for the establishment of a forum. A forum may be established in any workplace of employers with more than 100 employees, either through a collective agreement or through the intervention of the CCMA. Only larger employers, therefore, will be involved in fora. A forum must meet regularly. Its functions are to consult on certain matters and to have joint decision making on other matters. Consultation entails that the employer Consultation must take place before the employer implements any proposal. Joint decision making requires the employer to consult and reach consensus with a forum. Matters for consultation include (unless they are regulated by a collective agreement) proposals relating to A bargaining council or a representative union and an employer may conclude a collective agreement granting a forum the right to be consulted about additional matters that fall within the council 's registered scope. Matters for joint decision making can not be regulated by a collective agreement. Matters for joint decision making relate to A representative union and the employer may also enter into a collective agreement conferring on the forum joint decision making in respect of additional matters or removing other matters. In fulfilling its duties to consult and to have joint decision making, an employer is required to disclose all relevant information that will allow the forum to participate effectively in consultation and joint decision making. The employer is not obliged to disclose information, however, Disputes about disclosure of information must be referred to the Commission for Conciliation, Mediation and Arbitration. If parties fail to resolve the dispute through conciliation, any party to the dispute may request arbitration. The Commissioner will not compel the employer to disclose "irrelevant '' information. Despite the potentially important influence that a forum may have on a workplace, few such forums are found in practice. This is due to employers ' viewing fora as an inroad to managerial prerogative, and the concern of unions that fora will undermine collective bargaining structures. At the end of a collective - bargaining session or process, parties may either reach an agreement or fail to do so. If an agreement is reached, a collective agreement is concluded. If no agreement is reached, parties may agree on mediation or arbitration, or decide to exert pressure on each other through industrial action. Industrial action, sometimes also called collective action, generally refers to employees acting together to force the hand of the employer, but employers, too, for the purposes of industrial action, employers may act individually or collectively with other employers to lock out employees. Industrial action for employees can take the form of strikes, secondary strikes, pickets and protest action, while employers have recourse to lock - outs. Strikes and lock - outs are a reality in the workplace -- "just like friction in a marriage is a reality. '' Conflict in the workplace -- "and in a marriage '' -- is not necessarily negative: It gives the parties an opportunity to reaffirm their different bargaining strengths and positions. Conflict becomes problematic only if matters get out of hand as a result of the power struggle. That will then undermine the purpose of the conflict. Another problematic aspect of conflict is that once parties are in a stand - off, the matter will not be resolved without a "loser '' and a "winner ''. In the long run, this may lead to a deterioration of the relationship and it may even spark further friction about other issues. In the workplace, again "just like in a marriage, '' the law seeks "to ensure healthy and productive conflict that can lead to the resolution of matters of mutual interest. '' The LRA sets out the manner in which this is to be done by regulating various types of industrial action. In the past few years, South Africa has seen a high level of industrial action. The Department of Labour has reported that working days lost to work stoppages in 2010 were the highest ever, with approximately 20,674,737 working days lost from about 74 work stoppages; in 2009, there were only 51. The right to strike is clearly protected in South Africa through the Constitution, which guarantees that "every worker has the right (...) to strike. '' The Constitution does not give employers the right to lock out employees. Employers ' right to lock - out is implied in the Constitution 's express protection of the right to bargain collectively. The LRA provides, however, in section 64 (1), that every employee has the right to strike, and that every employer has recourse to a lock - out. Neither the right to strike nor the right to a lock - out is directly protected in terms of an ILO Convention, but it is indirectly done through ILO Convention 87 and ILO Convention 98, which were both ratified by South Africa. Both strikes and lock - outs are essential elements of collective bargaining, but "such rights should be used only as measures of last resort. '' Strikes are used by employees to back up their demands in promoting and defending their employment - related interests; lock - outs are used by employers to back up their employment - related demands. In matters of industrial action, "it is important to know what type of action to take. '' Different types of industrial action serve different purposes. The purpose of the employer or the employees will determine the type of action to be taken: Not only is it important to ensure that the right type of action is chosen; it is important "also to ensure that the action will be protected by the LRA. '' In the case of a protected strike or lock - out -- it used to be called a "legal '' strike or lock - out under the 1956 LRA -- the parties taking part in the action are not guilty of breach of contract and can not be dismissed for that reason. The court may not order an interdict to stop the action from continuing, and the participants in the industrial action will not be held liable for compensation for the work stoppage. No right is unlimited. Rights may be limited in the interests of society or by the rights of others. Section 36 (1) of the Constitution provides for the limitation of rights in terms of law of general application. The LRA is such a law. It limits the right to strike. Strikes and lock - outs are not automatically protected, as there are some hurdles that employees and employers have to cross before their actions will be protected: It is important that the actions taken by employees and employers fall within the definitions of a strike or a lock - out. Action that does not amount to a strike or a lock - out will not enjoy protection in terms of the LRA. This is the first hurdle to be crossed by employees and unions for a protected strike, and by employers for a protected lock - out. This hurdle stands on two legs: "Strike '' is defined as follows: the partial or complete concerted refusal to work, or the retardation or obstruction of work, by persons who are or have been employed by the same employer or by different employers, for the purposes of remedying a grievance or resolving a dispute in respect of any matter of mutual interest between employer and employee and every reference to work in this definition includes overtime work, whether it is voluntary or compulsory. Except for "protest action, '' any intentional refusal to work will amount to misconduct unless it can be regarded as strike action in terms of the above definition. In order to qualify as strike action, the employees must comply with the following three elements contained in the definition: There must be a refusal to work in order for an action to qualify as a strike. This is the first hurdle that employees must cross. The refusal to work must be The action may be partial (in that the employees still perform some of their duties), or complete (in that the employees do not perform any of their duties), or the retardation of work (where employees work, but at a reduced pace), or obstruction of work (where employees disturb production through their actions). A refusal by employees to work overtime also constitutes a strike, whether the overtime is compulsory (required by a contract or by a collective agreement) or voluntary. Although the Constitution grants individual workers the right to strike, the right itself can not be exercised individually. The action must be An individual employee can not engage in a strike. More than one person must be involved in order for the action to constitute a strike. The action must be carried out by people acting together who are or have been employed by the same employer or by different employers (as in the case of an industry - wide strike). The action is thus directed at the employer or employers. If, for example, employees refuse to work because they have a demand against a union, that will not amount to strike action. An exception exists in respect of secondary strikes. The refusal to work must be for the common purpose of remedying a grievance or resolving a dispute in respect of any matter of mutual interest between the employer and employee. A grievance or an issue in dispute in respect of a matter of mutual interest must exist, therefore, before an action may be deemed a strike. Where there is no grievance or dispute against the employer, there can not be a strike. While the concept of "mutual interest '' is not defined in the LRA, it was described as "whatever can be fairly and reasonably regarded as calculated to promote the well - being of the trade concerned. '' Matters of mutual interest may include, for example, An important indication that a matter is one of mutual interest would be that the matter can be dealt with through collective bargaining. For example, political issues or demands against the State do not qualify, unless the State is the employer and the demands relate to the State 's role as employer. These political issues or demands should be dealt with by way of protest action. While employees have the right to strike in terms of the Constitution and the LRA, employers do not have a right to lock - out, but they do have recourse to a lock - out in terms of section 64 of the LRA. "Lock - out '' is defined as the exclusion by an employer of employees from the employer 's workplace, for the purpose of compelling the employees to accept a demand in respect of any matter of mutual interest between employer and employee, whether or not the employer breaches those employees ' contracts of employment in the course of or for the purpose of that exclusion. To constitute a lock - out, the employer 's action must contain the following two elements: The second hurdle to be crossed in order for a strike or lock - out to be regarded as protected is that certain procedural requirements must be complied with. This hurdle stands on the three legs prescribed by section 64 (1): The LRA defines an "issue in dispute '' as "the demand, the grievance, or the dispute that forms the subject matter of the strike or lock - out. '' The issue in dispute must fall within the definition of a strike (or lock - out). In other words, the demand, grievance or dispute about which the employees strike (or the employer locks out) must relate to a matter of mutual interest. The LRA requires that parties must try to resolve the issue. It requires that the parties first refer the dispute to a bargaining council (if there is one for that sector). If no bargaining council exists, the dispute must be referred to the Commission for Conciliation, Mediation and Arbitration for conciliation. The bargaining council or the Commission for Conciliation, Mediation and Arbitration must attempt to resolve the dispute through conciliation within thirty days of the referral. If the parties to the dispute reach an agreement, the dispute is resolved. If no agreement is reached, the conciliator must issue a certificate to indicate that the matter has not been resolved. After this (or after thirty days have gone by since referral of the dispute for conciliation), the parties can give notice of the proposed strike (or lock - out). If conciliation fails, or thirty days have passed since the referral of the dispute, at least 48 hours ' written notice must be given of the commencement of the strike or lock - out. If the State is the employer, at least seven days ' notice must be given. If the employer is a member of an employers ' organisation, notice must be given to the employers ' organisation. In case of a proposed lock - out, the employer must give notice to the union involved in the dispute, or to the employees directly if there is no union. The LRA does not prescribe what details the notice must contain; it only regulates that it must be in writing and must be issued 48 hours before commencement of the industrial action. There are some exceptions, according to which, the parties do not need to follow the procedures prescribed by the LRA:

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Visa requirements for Myanmar citizens - wikipedia Visa requirements for Myanmar citizens are administrative entry restrictions by the authorities of other states placed on citizens of Myanmar. As of February 2018, Myanmar citizens had visa - free or visa on arrival access to 47 countries and territories, ranking the Myanmar passport 90th in terms of travel freedom according to the Henley Passport Index. On 6 September 2017, India has announced gratis (no cost) visa for citizens of Myanmar. 30 days, available at Bosaso, Galcaio and Mogadishu airports. British Overseas Territories. Open border with Schengen Area. Russia is a transcontinental country in Eastern Europe and Northern Asia. The vast majority of its population (80 %) lives in European Russia. Turkey is a transcontinental country in the Middle East and Southeast Europe. Has a small part of its territory (3 %) in Southeast Europe called Turkish Thrace. Azerbaijan and Georgia (Abkhazia; South Ossetia) are transcontinental countries. Both have a small part of their territories in the European part of the Caucasus. Kazakhstan is a transcontinental country. Has a small part of its territories located west of the Urals in Eastern Europe. Armenia (Artsakh) and Cyprus (Northern Cyprus) are entirely in Southwest Asia but having socio - political connections with Europe. Egypt is a transcontinental country in North Africa and the Middle East. Has a small part of its territory in the Middle East called Sinai peninsula. Partially recognized. British Overseas Territories. Open border with Schengen Area. Russia is a transcontinental country in Eastern Europe and Northern Asia. The majority of its population (80 %) lives in European Russia, therefore Russia as a whole is included as a European country here. Turkey is a transcontinental country in the Middle East and Southeast Europe. Has part of its territory (3 %) in Southeast Europe called Turkish Thrace. Azerbaijan (Artsakh) and Georgia (Abkhazia; South Ossetia) are transcontinental countries. Both have part of their territories in the European part of the Caucasus. Kazakhstan is a transcontinental country. Has part of its territories located west of the Urals in Eastern Europe. Armenia and Cyprus (Northern Cyprus; Akrotiri and Dhekelia) are entirely in Southwest Asia but having socio - political connections with Europe. Egypt is a transcontinental country in North Africa and the Middle East. Has part of its territory in the Middle East called Sinai Peninsula. Part of the Realm of New Zealand. Partially recognized. Unincorporated territory of the United States. Part of Norway, not part of the Schengen Area, special open - border status under Svalbard Treaty

what does it mean to be an additional insured

Additional insured - wikipedia In US insurance policies, an additional insured is a person or organization that enjoys the benefits of being insured under an insurance policy, in addition to whoever originally purchased the insurance policy. The term generally applies within liability insurance and property insurance, but is an element of other policies as well. Most often it applies where the original named insured needs to provide insurance coverage to additional parties so that they enjoy protection from a new risk that arises out of the original named insured 's conduct or operations. An additional insured often gains this status by means of an endorsement added to the policy which either identifies the additional party by name or by a general description contained in a "blanket additional insured endorsement. '' For instance, in vehicle insurance a typical Personal Auto Policy will cover not only the original named insured that purchased the auto policy, but will also cover additional persons while they are driving the auto with permission of the named insured. This is a simple type of blanket additional insurance arrangement, because it does not identify the additional insured by name, but by a "blanket '' general description that will automatically apply to many persons. Similarly, in liability insurance, all directors, officers, and employees of a named insured company will also enjoy the status of being an insured, so long as they are acting in their capacity of carrying out the business of the named insured company. These persons enjoy insured status only while they pursue the business of the named insured. If they deviate to pursue their own affairs, they lose this extension of coverage. This extension of coverage to people with a constant and close relationship to the named insured company is accomplished via the "Who Is An Insured '' section of the liability policy. In other cases, the original named insured wishes to extend coverage to others who would not come within these standard categories. To extend coverage further, Additional Insured Endorsements are added to the policy. The usual reasons for including other parties as additional insureds is due to the close relationship or legal requirements between the original named insured and the additional insured. In most cases it is beneficial for a party to be covered as an additional insured on the policies of other parties because this will reduce the loss history of the additional insured and lower its premiums. The losses will be posted against the policies of the party providing the additional insurance and their premiums will rise accordingly. Typically, a larger and more powerful business will require that smaller entities (desiring to do business) have the larger business named as an additional insured. For example, a landlord in a commercial building will often require that a tenant have the landlord named as an additional insured on the tenant 's insurance policies. In this manner, if there is an accident or loss on the tenant 's premises (such as a fall or a fire), then the landlord will enjoy the benefits of the tenant 's insurance coverage. Similarly, general contractors often require subcontractors to name the general and the owner on the subcontractor 's policies. In this way, if the general contractor or owner are sued due to accidents arising out of the work of the subcontractor, the subcontractor 's insurance will protect the general contractor and owner. The costs associated with the risk are returned to the party most able to control the risk of loss, the subcontractor. Similarly, manufacturers of products often wish to cover the sellers of the products as additional insureds under the manufacturer 's liability policies. This helps induce the seller to promote the sale of the products, because the seller knows that any product liability lawsuit against the seller will be covered by the manufacturer 's liability insurance. The cost of adding an additional insured to a property or liability insurance policy is generally low, as compared to the costs of the original premium. The underwriting departments of insurance companies, rightly or wrongly, often view the additional risk associated with additional insureds as marginal. Additional insurance coverage and endorsements are the subject of frequent disagreements, misunderstandings, and litigation. The disagreements are often about whether the additional insurance coverage should cover "independent negligence '' by the additional insured, or should only cover liabilities caused by the named insured 's acts. Generally, additional insured clauses are worded in broad terms, such as "any person or organization whom you (the named insured) are required to add as an additional insured on this policy under a written contract... that person is only an additional insured with respect to liability arising out of ' your work ' for that additional insured. '' (CG 70 48 04 02) The clauses often include conditional limitations, such as limiting coverage to claims arising during the "ongoing operations '' of the named insured, unless contracts require otherwise. And, they often contain assertions that they will be excess to other insurance policies (the "Other '' Insurance problem). These can conflict with opposite provisions in other policies, leading to mutual repugnance of the Other Insurance clauses. Thus disputes often arise based on the relative responsibility of an insured in causing an incident, and the relative liabilities of their respective insurers. These disputes are further complicated by the fact that some of the original contracting parties may have contractually agreed to indemnify other parties. These indemnifications, in turn, can be liabilities to be covered by the policies pursuant to "insured contract '' coverage. Courts in different states decide these disputes differently, depending on the unique facts of each case and the law of that particular state. Following the general rule that insurance policies are broadly interpreted in favor of coverage, such disputes are often resolved in favor of maximizing coverage for every insured.

who played the earl of surrey in the tudors

David O'Hara - wikipedia David Patrick O'Hara (born 9 July 1965) is a Scottish actor. O'Hara was born in Glasgow, Scotland, the son of Martha (née Scott) and Patrick O'Hara, a construction worker. He has appeared in many films and TV series, including a featured role in the US series The District, which he left after one season to return to the UK. He had a memorable role as the ' mad ' Irishman Stephen in Braveheart. In 2006, O'Hara appeared as Fitzy, one of Jack Nicholson 's chief mobsters in the Oscar - winning film The Departed. In June 2009, O'Hara was filming The Tudors in Dublin. He played Albert Runcorn and Harry Potter disguised as Runcorn in Harry Potter and the Deathly Hallows -- Part 1.

where does the chattahoochee river begin and end

Chattahoochee river - wikipedia The Chattahoochee River forms the southern half of the Alabama and Georgia border, as well as a portion of the Florida border. It is a tributary of the Apalachicola River, a relatively short river formed by the confluence of the Chattahoochee and Flint rivers and emptying from Florida into Apalachicola Bay in the Gulf of Mexico. The Chattahoochee River is about 430 miles (690 km) long. The Chattahoochee, Flint, and Apalachicola rivers together make up the Apalachicola -- Chattahoochee -- Flint River Basin (ACF River Basin). The Chattahoochee makes up the largest part of the ACF 's drainage basin. The source of the Chattahoochee River is located in Jacks Gap at the southeastern foot of Jacks Knob, in the very southeastern corner of Union County, in the southern Blue Ridge Mountains, a subrange of the Appalachian Mountains. The headwaters of the river flow south from ridges that form the Tennessee Valley Divide. The Appalachian Trail crosses the river 's uppermost headwaters. The Chattahoochee 's source and upper course lies within Chattahoochee National Forest. From its source in the Blue Ridge Mountains, the Chattahoochee River flows southwesterly to Atlanta and through its suburbs. It eventually turns due - south to form the southern half of the Georgia / Alabama state line. Flowing through a series of reservoirs and artificial lakes, it flows by Columbus, the second - largest city in Georgia, and the Fort Benning Army base. At Columbus, it crosses the Fall Line of the eastern United States. From Lake Oliver to Fort Benning, the Chattahoochee Riverwalk provides cycling, rollerblading, and walking along 15 miles (24 km) of the river 's banks. Farther south, it merges with the Flint River and other tributaries at Lake Seminole near Bainbridge, to form the Apalachicola River that flows into the Florida Panhandle. Although the same river, this portion was given a different name by separated settlers in different regions during the colonial times. The name Chattahoochee is thought to come from a Muskogean word meaning "rocks - marked '' (or "painted ''), from chato ("rock '') plus huchi ("marked ''). This possibly refers to the many colorful granite outcroppings along the northeast - to - southwest segment of the river. Much of that segment of the river runs through the Brevard fault zone. A local Georgia nickname for the Chattahoochee River is "The Hooch ''. The vicinity of the Chattahoochee River was inhabited in prehistoric times by indigenous peoples since at least 1000 BC. The Kolomoki Mounds, now protected in the Kolomoki Mounds Historic Park near present - day Blakely in Early County in southwest Georgia, were built from 350 AD to 650 AD and constitute the largest mound complex in the state. Among the historical Indigenous nations, the Chattahoochee served as a dividing line between the Muscogee (Creek) (to the east) and the Cherokee territories (to the west) in the Southeast. The Chattahoochee River became the dividing point for the Creek Confederacy, which straddled the river and became known as the Upper Creek Red Sticks and the Lower Creek White Sticks. The United States accomplished the removal of Native Americans, to extinguish their claims and make way for European - American settlement, through a series of treaties, land lotteries, and forced removals lasting from 1820 through 1832. The Muscogee were first removed from the southeastern side of the river, and then the Cherokee from the northwest. The Chattahoochee River was of considerable strategic importance during the Atlanta Campaign by Union General William Tecumseh Sherman of the American Civil War. Between the tributaries of Proctor Creek and Nickajack Creek on the Cobb and Fulton county lines in metropolitan Atlanta, are nine remaining "Shoupades '' that were part of a defensive line occupied by the Confederate Army in early July 1864. Designed by Confederate Brigadier General Francis A. Shoup, the line became known as Johnston 's River Line after Confederate General Joseph E. Johnston and is listed on the National Register of Historic Places. A month prior to the Battle of Atlanta, Shoup talked with Johnston on June 18, 1864 about building fortifications. Johnston agreed, and Shoup supervised the building of 36 small elevated earth and wooden triangular fortifications, arranged in a sawtooth pattern to maximize the crossfire of defenders. Sherman tried to avoid the Shoupade defenses by crossing the river to the northeast. The nine remaining Shoupades consist of the earthworks portion of the original earth and wooden structures; they are endangered by land development in the area. Two of the last battles of the war, West Point and Columbus took place at strategically important crossings of the Chattahoochee. Since the nineteenth century, early improvements and alterations to the river were for the purposes of navigation. The river was important for carrying trade and passengers and was a major transportation route. In the twentieth century, the United States Congress passed legislation in 1944 and 1945 to improve navigation for commercial traffic on the river, as well as to establish hydroelectric power and recreational facilities on a series of lakes to be created by building dams and establishing reservoirs. Creating the manmade, 46,000 - acre Walter F. George Lake required evacuating numerous communities, including the historically majority - Native American settlement of Oketeyeconne, Georgia. The lakes were complete in 1963, covering over numerous historic and prehistoric sites of settlement. Beginning in the late twentieth century, the nonprofit organization called "Upper Chattahoochee Riverkeeper '' has advocated for the preservation of the environment and ecology of the northern part of the river, especially the part traversing Metropolitan Atlanta. In 2010, a campaign to create a whitewater river course was launched in the portion of the Chattahoochee River that runs through Columbus, Georgia. Between 2010 and 2013, construction took place on the river, the Eagle and Phenix and City Mills Dams were breached and a 2.5 mile Whitewater Course was formed in Uptown, Columbus. The project returned the river to its natural path across the Fall Line, as well as creating the longest urban whitewater course in the world. Several large manmade reservoirs, including Lanier, Walter F. George, West Point, and George W. Andrews, lakes are controlled by the United States Army Corps of Engineers. The dams and reservoirs were developed following legislation by Congress of the mid-1940s for flood control, domestic and industrial water, hydroelectricity, recreation, and improved navigation for river barges. Most of the lakes were completed by 1963. Numerous historic and prehistoric sites were covered over by the lakes during the flooding of the reservoirs, including Oketeyconne, Georgia. The Georgia Power Company also owns a small series of dams along the middle portion of the river (the Columbus area) between West Point Lake and Lake Walter F. George. Several smaller and older lakes and dams also provide these services on a much smaller and more localized scale, including Bull Sluice Lake, which is held by the Morgan Falls Dam. This dam was built by the Georgia Railway and Power Company in 1902 to provide electric power for the Atlanta trolley system, which has long since been replaced by other forms of transportation. At various points, the Chattahoochee serves as the boundary between several counties and cities, as well as forming the lower half of the boundary between Alabama and Georgia. Within Georgia, it divides: Atlanta is built upon the crest of a large ridge, rather than in the floodplain of the river. This has contributed the preservation of much of the natural scenic beauty of the section that runs through metropolitan Atlanta. North of the metropolis, the Chattahoochee River National Recreation Area protects other portions of the riverbanks in a region that is spread across several disconnected areas. The river traverses through much of Atlanta 's hilly topography of the northern suburbs. Wealthy suburban communities in northern metro Atlanta that abut the river include: Vinings, Buckhead, Sandy Springs, East Cobb, Roswell, Dunwoody, Peachtree Corners, Johns Creek, and Berkeley Lake. Since three states have needs related to the river, there has been increasing controversy since the late twentieth century related to competing development among the regions and the implications for the river. The enormous growth of metropolitan Atlanta has increased its water withdrawals from the river. This has effects downstream. For example, the oysters in the Apalachicola Bay of Florida depend on the brackish water mixture of river and ocean water, and the alternating freshwater and saltwater flows that the river and the tides provide. The amount of flow in the Chattahoochee has also been decreased by interbasin water transfers, where water is withdrawn from the Chattahoochee, but discharged as treated sewage water into another river, such as the Oconee River, which flow to the Atlantic Seaboard via the Altamaha River. Interest groups and the state of Florida have asked the U.S. Congress to intervene to reduce the priority given to put navigation of the lower Chattahoochee, south of Columbus, by river barge. This requirement causes large water withdrawals, which environmental supporters consider a waste of water needed to support habitats, especially during droughts. The navigation issue has aggravated the fight between Georgia, Florida, and Alabama over rights to the river water. A lawsuit has been filed in the case to reduce priorities given to navigation. The lawsuit is now in court, and may take years to resolve. The most recent major flooding of the Chattahoochee River took place in November 2009. This was caused by torrential rains from Tropical Storm Ida as it tore through the Georgia Piedmont. Downstream from Roswell, the Chattahoochee River remained in moderate flood stage. Streams affected by the September 2009 floods included the following: The second most recent major flood along the river occurred during the 2009 Georgia floods, with 28.10 feet (8.56 m) of water recorded at Vinings at the northwestern Atlanta city limit. The flood was over 5 feet (1.5 m) higher than the previous flood recorded in September 2004, as a result of Hurricane Fred. Numerous tributaries also swelled far over and beyond their banks. These were the highest water levels seen since 1990, and the second - highest ever since the large Buford Dam was built upstream. The National Weather Service in Peachtree City estimated that this was a 500 - year flood event. The main stream gauges are located: Water - level forecasts are regularly issued only at Vinings and Atlanta. Forecasts are issued only during high water at Norcross, Whitesburg, West Point, and the Lake Walter F. George and Andrews Dams. All other locations have observations only. Tributary creeks, streams, and rivers, as well as lakes, along with the county they are in: Note that the above list is incomplete, and that each item is not in the exact order in which it joins the Chattahoochee. (For confluences now inundated by lakes, it may be impossible to determine from current maps exactly where they were.) The beauty of the Chattahoochee River is commemorated in the epic poem The Song of the Chattahoochee (1877), by the noted Georgian poet Sidney Lanier. Lake Lanier on the Chattahoochee is named for him. Country music artist Alan Jackson released his song "Chattahoochee '' in 1993 as a single off his album A Lot About Livin ' (And a Little ' bout Love). "Chattahoochee '' received Country Music Association awards for Single of the Year and Song of the Year. † -- Centennial Olympic Stadium was rebuilt in 1997 as Turner Field. Subsenquently, Turner Field was rebuilt in 2017 as Georgia State Stadium.

when does a series of unfortunate events start on netflix

A Series of Unfortunate Events (TV Series) - wikipedia Lemony Snicket 's A Series of Unfortunate Events, or simply A Series of Unfortunate Events, is an American black comedy - drama television series from Netflix, and developed by Mark Hudis and Barry Sonnenfeld, based on the children 's novel series of the same name by Lemony Snicket. It stars Neil Patrick Harris, Patrick Warburton, Malina Weissman, Louis Hynes, K. Todd Freeman and Presley Smith. The first season, which premiered on January 13, 2017, consists of eight episodes and adapts the first four books of the series. The series was renewed for a second season in March 2017, intended to consist of ten episodes that adapt books five through nine of the novel series, and was renewed for a third season a month later, which is expected to adapt the remaining four books. The second season is scheduled to be released in early 2018. When a mysterious fire kills their parents, the Baudelaire children are placed into the care of their distant relative Count Olaf, an actor who is determined to claim the family fortune for himself. Following Olaf 's failed attempt, the Baudelaires set out to elude Olaf and uncover the mystery behind a secret society from their parents ' past. Daniel Handler cameos as a fish head salesperson in Lake Lachrymose. The first season adapts the first four books of the novel series: The Bad Beginning, The Reptile Room, The Wide Window and The Miserable Mill. The second season is intended to adapt books five through nine of the novel series: The Austere Academy, The Ersatz Elevator, The Vile Village, The Hostile Hospital, and The Carnivorous Carnival. Loni Peristere and Jonathan Teplitzky will direct episodes in the season. The third season plans to adapt the final four books of the novel series: The Slippery Slope, The Grim Grotto, The Penultimate Peril and The End. The thirteen A Series of Unfortunate Events novels, written by Daniel Handler under the pen name Lemony Snicket from 1999 to 2006, achieved success in young adult fiction around the same time as the Harry Potter novels. As such, the Snicket books had been optioned to be filmed before they were published. This led to the development of a 2004 feature film, Lemony Snicket 's A Series of Unfortunate Events, which covered the narratives of the first three novels in the series. Barry Sonnenfeld, who has expressed his love for the series, was originally slated to direct the feature film, and had hired Handler to write the screenplay. About 10 months into production, shortly after the casting of Jim Carrey as Olaf, there was a "big crisis '', according to Handler, which caused producer Scott Rudin to walk away and Sonnenfeld left the production under unclear terms. With the film 's completion in flux, its producing studios Paramount Pictures and DreamWorks fired Handler. While the film was eventually completed and released, sequels which would adapt the other novels in the series became unlikely due to "corporate shakeups '' within DreamWorks, according to Handler, and the child actors that portrayed the Baudelaire children grew too old to star in a sequel. In November 2014, Netflix, in association with Paramount Television, announced its plans to adapt the novels into an original television series, with the author of the series, Daniel Handler, serving as executive producer. In September 2015, it was announced that Barry Sonnenfeld and Mark Hudis had agreed to helm the series. Hudis would serve as showrunner, Sonnenfeld as director, and both as executive producers, with Handler writing some of the scripts along with working with the series ' writing team. However, in January 2016, Netflix announced that Hudis had left the project, with a replacement showrunner not named at the time. The first season consists of eight episodes, with two episodes adapting each of the first four books of the series. Handler considered this more in line with how he had written the books in the manner of a serialized melodrama, citing The Perils of Pauline as one of his influences in writing the book series. In January 2017, Handler revealed that he was writing the series ' second season, to consist of ten episodes adapting the fifth through ninth books of the series. A third season would adapt the remaining novels of the series, which Handler hoped "to get the go - ahead to do '' since "given how quickly young actors age and change, we 're trying to film everything as quickly as possible. '' In March 2017, Netflix revealed the series had been renewed for a second season by releasing a video on their social media pointing to a viral marketing website, where a letter written by Snicket revealed the decision. A month later, the series was "quietly '' renewed for a third season. On December 3, 2015, an open casting call was announced for the roles of Violet and Klaus Baudelaire. In January 2016, Netflix announced that Neil Patrick Harris had been cast as Count Olaf and Malina Weissman and Louis Hynes were cast as Violet and Klaus. Handler had first considered Harris for the role of Olaf after seeing him perform the opening number "It 's Not Just for Gays Anymore '', at the 65th Tony Awards in 2011, noting "I just immediately saw someone who could pull off a million things at once '' as was necessary for the character of Olaf, who utilizes various disguises and accents in his quest to steal the Baudelaire fortune. In March 2016, K. Todd Freeman was cast as Mr. Poe, followed shortly after by the casting of Patrick Warburton as Lemony Snicket, and Aasif Mandvi as Uncle Monty. In September 2016, it was revealed that Dylan Kingwell and Avi Lake were cast as the Quagmire siblings, Duncan and Isadora, respectively. In November 2016, Handler revealed Catherine O'Hara, Don Johnson, and Alfre Woodard had been cast as Dr. Georgina Orwell, Sir, and Aunt Josephine, respectively; O'Hara had previously portrayed Justice Strauss in the 2004 film adaptation of A Series of Unfortunate Events. It was also revealed that Presley Smith would play Sunny Baudelaire, whose quasi-nonsensical lines are voiced by Tara Strong, and Rhys Darby would play Charles, Sir 's partner. Production began in May 2016 in Vancouver, British Columbia, and in August 2016 several cast members expressed through social media that filming had finished. Filming for the second season began in April 2017. One aspect of the series of books that the production team wanted to be captured in the series was the notion of a lack of specific time period or geography for the settings; Handler stated that he wrote enough for establishing set pieces, but purposely left more specific details vague "in order for young readers to fill in the blanks themselves ''. Sonnenfeld wanted to capture that same sense of ambiguous time and place, and he and his team worked to try to define a set of subjective rules of what elements could be included. Sonnenfeld brought on Bo Welch, production designer for Edward Scissorhands, which Handler considered to capture the same sense of a "familiar but completely imaginary '' suburban setting he had in mind for his books. While the production team used computer - generated imagery where needed, they attempted to avoid this use where possible, such as by using large painted backdrops, by key scenic artist John E. Wilcox, rather than employing green screen filming. In April 2016, Nick Urata was initially reported to be composing music for the series. Once the series was released, it was revealed that Urata collaborated with Daniel Handler to compose the main title theme, as well as various original songs that appear throughout the series, with Handler contributing the lyrics. The original score was composed by James Newton Howard, with his frequent collaborators Sven Faulconer and Chris Bacon filling in to score certain episodes. Zoic Studios created visual effects for the series, including the effects for many of Sunny Baudelaire 's actions. Tippett Studio also did work on the series, including the effects for the destruction of Josephine 's house, landscape shots of Lake Lachrymose and some of the more movement heavy Sunny Baudelaire shots. All eight episodes of A Series of Unfortunate Events were released worldwide on Netflix on January 13, 2017, in Ultra HD 4K. The second season is scheduled to be released in early 2018. On July 5, 2015 a video titled "An Unfortunate Teaser '' was uploaded to YouTube by a user named "Eleanora Poe ''. Netflix quickly released a statement saying "This was not released from Netflix. '' Media outlets were almost unanimous in agreement that the trailer was fan - made. However, Caitlin Petrakovitz of CNET argued that the trailer may be real and that Netflix 's carefully worded denial was a marketing campaign, noting the user name "Eleanora Poe '' being the same as a character from the series, and that a vinyl record seen in the trailer was of The Gothic Archies, a band who provided the theme music for the audio books of A Series of Unfortunate Events. The trailer was later revealed to be a spec promo, similar to a spec script, by an independent commercial director, whom Netflix contracted to make a title sequence for the series after the video 's popularity, though they did not go ahead with the concept. In October 2016, Netflix released the first teaser trailer for A Series of Unfortunate Events, where Warburton narrates the events of the series as Lemony Snicket. A trailer, featuring footage from the series and Neil Patrick Harris 's character, Count Olaf, was released by Netflix in November 2016, followed shortly by the first full trailer. The second trailer was released in December 2016, followed by a "holiday - themed '' trailer from Count Olaf leading fans to a viral marketing website for the fictional Valorous Farms Dairy, which featured four holiday e-cards for download. As Netflix does not reveal subscriber viewership numbers for any of their original series, Symphony Technology Group compiled data for the first season based on people using software on their devices that measure television viewing by detecting a program 's sound. According to Symphony, 3.755 million viewers age 18 - 49 were watching an episode of A Series of Unfortunate Events over the average minute in its first weekend of release. The first season of A Series of Unfortunate Events received critical acclaim. Review aggregator Rotten Tomatoes gives the season an approval rating of 94 % based on 50 reviews, with an average rating of 8.1 / 10. The site 's critical consensus reads, "Enjoyably dark, A Series of Unfortunate Events matches the source material 's narrative as well as its tone, leaving viewers with a wonderfully weird, dry, gothic comedy. '' On Metacritic the season has a score of 81 out of 100, based on 23 critics, indicating "universal acclaim ''. Erik Adams of The A.V. Club awarded the season a B and praised it for treating "mature themes like grief, loss, and disappointment with sardonic honesty. '' Adams compared the program positively to the Adam West Batman series, calling it "kids stuff with adult sophistication, driven by two - part stories, outrageous visuals, and the scenery - chewing of big - name guest stars ''. Ben Travers of Indiewire gave the series an A -, saying that it "proves as inspirational and endearing as it claims to be forlorn and heartbreaking ''. Brian Lowry of CNN praised the showrunners for "infusing the show with a lemony - fresh feel, conjuring a series similar to the fantastical tone of Pushing Daisies. Lowry wrote that "the show proves a good deal of fun '' and that "Harris dives into his over-the - top character with considerable gusto ''. He also argued that the series improved upon the 2004 film. Several critics praised the television series as a better adaptation of the books than the 2004 feature film, which starred Jim Carrey as Count Olaf. Kelly Lawler of USA Today felt the television format gave the stories more room to develop, the addition of Warburton as the fourth wall - breaking Snicket helped to convey some of the wordplay humor used in the books, and Harris 's portrayal of Olaf was "much more dynamic, and creepier '' than Carrey 's version. The Verge 's Chaim Gartenburg said that the show follows the books much more faithfully than the film, and "nails down the tone that made the stories so special ''. Los Angeles Times writer Robert Lloyd felt that the backgrounds of Sonnenfeld and Welch made them "the right people for this job, set in a milieu that is hard to fix in time, except to say it is not now '', in capturing the tones of the book compared to the feature film. Nick Allen of RogerEbert.com, on the other hand, gave the series a negative review, calling it "an unfunny parody of sadness '' that is "never as clever as it wants to be '' and would only appeal to fans of the books. Caroline Framke of Vox Media praised the series for its unique and weird visuals, but found the show 's tone, pacing and performances to be haphazard and considered the show to be "literally, a series of unfortunate events ''.

who won outstanding lead actress in a limited series or movie

Primetime Emmy award for Outstanding Lead Actress in a Limited Series or Movie - wikipedia The Primetime Emmy Award for Outstanding Lead Actress in a Limited Series or Movie is an award presented annually by the Academy of Television Arts & Sciences (ATAS). It is given in honor of an actress who has delivered an outstanding performance in a leading role on a television limited series or television movie for the primetime network season. The award was first presented at the 7th Primetime Emmy Awards on March 7, 1955 to Judith Anderson for her performance as Lady Macbeth on the Hallmark Hall of Fame episode "Macbeth ''. It has undergone several name changes, with the category split into two categories at the 25th Primetime Emmy Awards -- Outstanding Lead Actress in a Special Program -- Drama or Comedy and Outstanding Lead Actress in a Limited Series. By the 31st Primetime Emmy Awards, the categories were merged into one, and has since undergone several name changes, leading to its current title. Since its inception, the award has been given to 54 actresses. Regina King is the current recipient of the award for her portrayal of Latrice Butler on Seven Seconds. Helen Mirren has won the most awards in this category, with four, and has received the most nominated for the award on ten occasions, the most within the category. Listed below are the winners of the award for each year, as well as the other nominees. Outstanding Single Performance by an Actress in a Leading Role

the unit of area in mks system is

MKS system of units - wikipedia The MKS system of units is a physical system of units that expresses any given measurement using base units of the metre, kilogram, and / or second (MKS). Historically the use of the MKS system of units succeeded the centimetre -- gram -- second system of units (CGS) in commerce and engineering, (1889). The metre and kilogram system served as the basis for the development of the International System of Units, which now serves as the international standard. Because of this, the standards of the CGS system were gradually replaced with metric standards incorporated from the MKS system. The exact list of units used in the MKS system changed over time. It incorporated base units other than the metre, kilogram, and second in addition to derived units. An incomplete list of the base and derived units appears below. Since the MKS system of units never had a governing body to rule on a standard definition, the list of units depended on different conventions at different times. In 1901, Giovanni Giorgi proposed to the Associazione elettrotecnica italiana (it) (AEI) that this system, extended with a fourth unit to be taken from the units of electromagnetism, be used as an international system. This system was strongly promoted by electrical engineer George A. Campbell.

what is the difference between bologna and salami

Bologna sausage - wikipedia Bologna sausage, sometimes phonetically spelled baloney (/ bəˈloʊni /), known in Europe as a Lyoner, is a sausage derived from mortadella, a similar - looking, finely ground pork sausage containing cubes of pork fat, originally from the Italian city of Bologna (IPA: (boˈloɲɲa) (listen)). Aside from pork, bologna can alternatively be made out of chicken, turkey, beef, venison, a combination, or soy protein. Typical seasoning for bologna includes black pepper, nutmeg, allspice, celery seed, coriander, and like mortadella, myrtle berries give it its distinctive flavor. U.S. Government regulations require American bologna to be finely ground and without visible pieces of fat. Ring bologna is much smaller in diameter than standard bologna. It is a good size for slicing and putting on crackers as a snack or hors d'oeuvre (as opposed to the "sandwich - sized '' slices of typical bologna). It is generally sold as an entire link rather than sliced. The link is arranged as a semicircle or "ring '' when prepared for sale (hence the name). Pickled bologna is usually made from ring bologna soaked in vinegar and typical pickling spices. It is usually served in chunks as a cold snack. Rag bologna is a long stick, or "chub '' of high - fat bologna traditionally sold wrapped in a cloth rag. The recipe has a higher content of filler than that of regular bologna. Milk solids, flour, cereal, and spices are added during processing, and the roll of bologna is bathed in lactic acid before being coated in paraffin wax. This type of bologna is native to West Tennessee and the surrounding regions and is not commonly available outside this area. It is generally eaten on white bread with mustard and pickles, but is also a staple of family gatherings, where thick slices are smoked and barbecued along with other meats. (1) In Newfoundland, a type of rag bologna referred to as "wax '' bologna is sliced thickly and fried, which is referred to as "Newfie steak ''. (2) South Africans refer to bologna exclusively as polony, although South African polony is typically made using highly processed meat. These processed meat products are typically an artificially bright pink color, and are a low - income food due to their low cost. Very small sausages of the same content and color are also called polonies in New Zealand and Australia. Large pink, bland polonies are called French polony (3), with thinner rolls referred to simply as polony. Garlic Polony is also widely available. (4) Various vegetarian and vegan versions of polony are available. A typical UK recipe uses soya and wheat protein in the place of lean meat and palm oil instead of fat together with starch, carrageenan, and flavorings. It can be eaten cold or cooked in the same ways as traditional polony.

why do they say as the crow flies

As the crow flies - wikipedia As the crow flies, similar to in a beeline, is an idiom for the most direct path between two points. This meaning is attested from the early 19th century, and appeared in Charles Dickens 's novel Oliver Twist: We cut over the fields at the back with him between us -- straight as the crow flies -- through hedge and ditch. According to BBC Focus, "' As the crow flies ' is a pretty common saying but it is n't particularly accurate ''. Crows do not swoop in the air like swallows or starlings, but they often circle above their nests. Crows do conspicuously fly alone across open country, but neither crows nor bees (as in "beeline '') fly in particularly straight lines. Before modern navigational methods were introduced, Crows were kept upon ships and released when land was sought. Crows instinctively fly towards land.

janet king will there be a season 4

Janet King (TV series) - Wikipedia Janet King is an Australian television drama program which began airing on ABC1 from 27 February 2014. It was created as a spin - off from the 2011 legal drama Crownies. It follows the story of Senior Crown Prosecutor Janet King (Marta Dusseldorp), tracing her journey in Series 1 in the Department of Public Prosecutions to a Royal Commission into Serious Firearm Crime in Series 2 to the National Crime Commission in Series 3. Various cast members who appeared alongside Dusseldorp in Crownies will also appear in Janet King. A number of new characters were also created. The show was commissioned for an eight part series and filming began in 2013. A second series aired from March 2016, and a third began in May 2017. Shortly before the final episode of the ABC1 legal drama Crownies was broadcast in November 2011, David Knox from TV Tonight reported that the series could continue in the form of a spin - off. The drama had suffered from modest ratings and mixed critical reviews during its 22 - part run. ABC1 controller, Brendan Dahill explained "Crownies wo n't be coming back as Crownies. But we are talking to (producers) Screentime about a spin - off. There are lots of things I love about Crownies and lots of things that were done brilliantly, and I 'm really proud of Crownies. I 'm genuinely surprised it did n't engage a bigger audience than it did. Genuinely surprised. But I do n't want to throw the baby out with the bathwater. There are plenty of brilliant things in it and we 're talking to Screentime at the moment. '' Dahill stated that the spin - off would not be season two of Crownies and that it would take the characters in different directions. He told Knox that there were certain elements of Crownies that worked well and he did not want to lose them because of poor ratings. He continued "So what Screentime have come up with is a really great compromise that allows us to keep the best bits, and learn and move on. '' Knox added that a spin - off is rare in Australian television drama, but not unprecedented. On 20 August 2012, ABC TV confirmed that it had commissioned the Crownies spin - off, Janet King. The series was billed as an 8 - part legal and political thriller. Janet King was produced by Karl Zwicky, Jane Allen and Lisa Scott, with Hilary Bonney acting as story consultant. Greg Haddrick, Jane Allen, Kris Mrksa and Shaun Grant wrote the series. Dahill said he was excited about Janet King and the fresh new direction it would take. Carole Sklan, ABC 's Head of Fiction, commented "Screentime has developed an exciting drama series about the fabulous character, Janet King. The series looks at the dilemmas of a contemporary woman who returns to work after a year 's maternity leave and is flung into a shocking prosecution that involves layers of intrigue played out at the highest levels of power. Janet King 's case leads her through some astounding twists and revelations that impact on her life on every level. '' Screentime 's Des Monaghan said that it had become clear to Screentime and the ABC that viewers had developed "a great deal '' of affection for the character of Janet King and the cast of Crownies, so he was "delighted '' that there would be a chance to build on that. On 30 June 2015, it was announced that ABC had renewed Janet King for a second eight - part series. At the ASTRA Conference in September 2016, Dusseldorp confirmed four scripts for the third series had been written. The third series began airing from 25 May 2017, replacing Seven Types of Ambiguity. It focuses on organised crime in the sporting world, with Janet heading up a National Crime Commission investigation. Her former colleague Richard Stirling (Hamish Michael) is now a barrister for some of the athletes involved, while Owen Mitchell (Damian Walshe - Howling) has become the head of the DPP. Anthony Soegito from If Magazine revealed that Marta Dusseldorp would return as Janet King, while many of the characters that became established on Crownies would also make appearances. These include; Hamish Michael (Richard Stirling), Ella Scott Lynch (Erin O'Shaughnessy), Andrea Demetriades (Lina Badir), Peter Kowitz (Tony Gillies), Christopher Morris (Andy Campbell), Indiana Evans (Tatum Novak), Jeanette Cronin (Tracey Samuels), Aimee Pedersen (Ashleigh Larsson) and Lewis Fitz - Gerald (David Sinclair). Knox revealed that Vince Colosimo had been cast as Chief Superintendent Jack Rizzoli, while Damian Walshe - Howling was cast as Owen Mitchell, a rising star prosecutor. John Howard, Sonia Todd, Jessica Napier, Deborah Kennedy and Tiriel Mora also have roles in the series. Todd Lasance and Daniel Lissing did not reprise their respective roles as Ben McMahon and Conrad De Groot. Joining Dusseldorp as title character Janet King for series 2 include former Crownies originals; Hamish Michael (Richard Stirling), Andrea Demetriades (Lina Badir), Christopher Morris (Andy Campbell) and Peter Kowitz (Tony Gillies), as well as, Janet King season one cast members, Damian Walshe - Howling (Owen Mitchell) and Terry Serio (Terry Renner). New faces include Leah Purcell, Philip Quast, Anita Hegh, Aaron Jeffery, Genevieve Hegney, Nicholas Hope and Ewen Leslie. Dusseldorp, Michael, Demetriades, Morris, Kowitz, Walshe - Howling, Hegh all returned for the third series. Joining them was Don Hany, Robert Mammone, Susie Porter, Andrew Ryan, Huw Higginson, Steve Le Marquand, Arka Das, Adam Demos, Geraldine Viswanathan and Zoe Terakes. John Bach was cast as Janet 's estranged father Graham King. Todd Lasance reprised his Crownies role of Ben McMahon. The series went into production in early 2013. Grant Brown, Peter Andrikidis, and Ian Watson were hired to direct the episodes. Filming finished by June 2013. It began broadcasting on 27 February 2014. Filming on the second series commenced in October 2015 for 11 weeks. The series was mostly shot in Bankstown, and locations included the former library, the Compass Centre, and Saigon Place. The third series went into production during the week commencing 7 November 2016. Ben Neutze from Crikey said that Janet was an "audience favourite '' from Crownies. He also noted that Dusseldorp 's acting profile had been raised following her appearance in A Place to Call Home. He predicted that the combination would secure success for the show and ABC. Ben Pobjie, writing for The Sydney Morning Herald, praised the series for trying "to keep things varied and interesting. Most likely aware of the pitfalls of such a familiar genre, the show moves at a neat pace. '' Series 1 was released on a three disc DVD on 18 April 2014, and released in the U.S. on 21 June 2016. Series 2 was released in the U.S. on 25 October 2016. Series 3 was released in the U.S. on 26 September 2017. In the United States, the series premiered on Acorn TV on 14 March 2016. The show also airs in Denmark, Finland, Iceland and Spain.

where is everything located on the periodic table

Periodic table - wikipedia The periodic table is a tabular arrangement of the chemical elements, ordered by their atomic number, electron configurations, and recurring chemical properties. This ordering shows periodic trends, such as elements with similar behaviour in the same column. It also shows four rectangular blocks with some approximately similar chemical properties. In general, within one row (period) the elements are metals on the left, and non-metals on the right. The rows of the table are called periods; the columns are called groups. Six groups have generally accepted names as well as numbers: for example, group 17 elements are the halogens; and group 18, the noble gases. The periodic table can be used to derive relationships between the properties of the elements, and predict the properties of new elements yet to be discovered or synthesized. The periodic table provides a useful framework for analyzing chemical behaviour, and is widely used in chemistry and other sciences. The Russian chemist Dmitri Mendeleev published the first widely recognized periodic table in 1869. He developed his table to illustrate periodic trends in the properties of the then - known elements. Mendeleev also predicted some properties of then - unknown elements that would be expected to fill gaps in this table. Most of his predictions were proved correct when the elements in question were subsequently discovered. Mendeleev 's periodic table has since been expanded and refined with the discovery or synthesis of further new elements and the development of new theoretical models to explain chemical behaviour. All elements from atomic numbers 1 (hydrogen) to 118 (oganesson) have been discovered or synthesized, with the most recent additions (nihonium, moscovium, tennessine, and oganesson) being confirmed by the International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry (IUPAC) in 2015 and officially named in 2016: they complete the first seven rows of the periodic table. The first 94 elements exist naturally, although some are found only in trace amounts and were synthesized in laboratories before being found in nature. Elements with atomic numbers from 95 to 118 have only been synthesized in laboratories or nuclear reactors. Synthesis of elements having higher atomic numbers is being pursued. Numerous synthetic radionuclides of naturally occurring elements have also been produced in laboratories. Each chemical element has a unique atomic number (Z) representing the number of protons in its nucleus. Most elements have differing numbers of neutrons among different atoms, with these variants being referred to as isotopes. For example, carbon has three naturally occurring isotopes: all of its atoms have six protons and most have six neutrons as well, but about one per cent have seven neutrons, and a very small fraction have eight neutrons. Isotopes are never separated in the periodic table; they are always grouped together under a single element. Elements with no stable isotopes have the atomic masses of their most stable isotopes, where such masses are shown, listed in parentheses. In the standard periodic table, the elements are listed in order of increasing atomic number Z (the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom). A new row (period) is started when a new electron shell has its first electron. Columns (groups) are determined by the electron configuration of the atom; elements with the same number of electrons in a particular subshell fall into the same columns (e.g. oxygen and selenium are in the same column because they both have four electrons in the outermost p - subshell). Elements with similar chemical properties generally fall into the same group in the periodic table, although in the f - block, and to some respect in the d - block, the elements in the same period tend to have similar properties, as well. Thus, it is relatively easy to predict the chemical properties of an element if one knows the properties of the elements around it. As of 2016, the periodic table has 118 confirmed elements, from element 1 (hydrogen) to 118 (oganesson). Elements 113, 115, 117 and 118, the most recent discoveries, were officially confirmed by the International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry (IUPAC) in December 2015. Their proposed names, nihonium (Nh), moscovium (Mc), tennessine (Ts) and oganesson (Og) respectively, were announced by the IUPAC in June 2016 and made official in November 2016. The first 94 elements occur naturally; the remaining 24, americium to oganesson (95 -- 118) occur only when synthesized in laboratories. Of the 94 naturally occurring elements, 83 are primordial and 11 occur only in decay chains of primordial elements. No element heavier than einsteinium (element 99) has ever been observed in macroscopic quantities in its pure form, nor has astatine (element 85); francium (element 87) has been only photographed in the form of light emitted from microscopic quantities (300,000 atoms). A group or family is a vertical column in the periodic table. Groups usually have more significant periodic trends than periods and blocks, explained below. Modern quantum mechanical theories of atomic structure explain group trends by proposing that elements within the same group generally have the same electron configurations in their valence shell. Consequently, elements in the same group tend to have a shared chemistry and exhibit a clear trend in properties with increasing atomic number. However, in some parts of the periodic table, such as the d - block and the f - block, horizontal similarities can be as important as, or more pronounced than, vertical similarities. Under an international naming convention, the groups are numbered numerically from 1 to 18 from the leftmost column (the alkali metals) to the rightmost column (the noble gases). Previously, they were known by roman numerals. In America, the roman numerals were followed by either an "A '' if the group was in the s - or p - block, or a "B '' if the group was in the d - block. The roman numerals used correspond to the last digit of today 's naming convention (e.g. the group 4 elements were group IVB, and the group 14 elements were group IVA). In Europe, the lettering was similar, except that "A '' was used if the group was before group 10, and "B '' was used for groups including and after group 10. In addition, groups 8, 9 and 10 used to be treated as one triple - sized group, known collectively in both notations as group VIII. In 1988, the new IUPAC naming system was put into use, and the old group names were deprecated. Some of these groups have been given trivial (unsystematic) names, as seen in the table below, although some are rarely used. Groups 3 -- 10 have no trivial names and are referred to simply by their group numbers or by the name of the first member of their group (such as "the scandium group '' for group 3), since they display fewer similarities and / or vertical trends. Elements in the same group tend to show patterns in atomic radius, ionization energy, and electronegativity. From top to bottom in a group, the atomic radii of the elements increase. Since there are more filled energy levels, valence electrons are found farther from the nucleus. From the top, each successive element has a lower ionization energy because it is easier to remove an electron since the atoms are less tightly bound. Similarly, a group has a top - to - bottom decrease in electronegativity due to an increasing distance between valence electrons and the nucleus. There are exceptions to these trends, however: for example, in group 11, electronegativity increases farther down the group. A period is a horizontal row in the periodic table. Although groups generally have more significant periodic trends, there are regions where horizontal trends are more significant than vertical group trends, such as the f - block, where the lanthanides and actinides form two substantial horizontal series of elements. Elements in the same period show trends in atomic radius, ionization energy, electron affinity, and electronegativity. Moving left to right across a period, atomic radius usually decreases. This occurs because each successive element has an added proton and electron, which causes the electron to be drawn closer to the nucleus. This decrease in atomic radius also causes the ionization energy to increase when moving from left to right across a period. The more tightly bound an element is, the more energy is required to remove an electron. Electronegativity increases in the same manner as ionization energy because of the pull exerted on the electrons by the nucleus. Electron affinity also shows a slight trend across a period. Metals (left side of a period) generally have a lower electron affinity than nonmetals (right side of a period), with the exception of the noble gases. Specific regions of the periodic table can be referred to as blocks in recognition of the sequence in which the electron shells of the elements are filled. Each block is named according to the subshell in which the "last '' electron notionally resides. The s - block comprises the first two groups (alkali metals and alkaline earth metals) as well as hydrogen and helium. The p - block comprises the last six groups, which are groups 13 to 18 in IUPAC group numbering (3A to 8A in American group numbering) and contains, among other elements, all of the metalloids. The d - block comprises groups 3 to 12 (or 3B to 2B in American group numbering) and contains all of the transition metals. The f - block, often offset below the rest of the periodic table, has no group numbers and comprises lanthanides and actinides. According to their shared physical and chemical properties, the elements can be classified into the major categories of metals, metalloids and nonmetals. Metals are generally shiny, highly conducting solids that form alloys with one another and salt - like ionic compounds with nonmetals (other than the noble gases). The majority of nonmetals are coloured or colourless insulating gases; nonmetals that form compounds with other nonmetals feature covalent bonding. In between metals and nonmetals are metalloids, which have intermediate or mixed properties. Metal and nonmetals can be further classified into subcategories that show a gradation from metallic to non-metallic properties, when going left to right in the rows. The metals are subdivided into the highly reactive alkali metals, through the less reactive alkaline earth metals, lanthanides and actinides, via the archetypal transition metals, and ending in the physically and chemically weak post-transition metals. The nonmetals are simply subdivided into the polyatomic nonmetals, which, being nearest to the metalloids, show some incipient metallic character; the diatomic nonmetals, which are essentially nonmetallic; and the monatomic noble gases, which are nonmetallic and almost completely inert. Specialized groupings such as the refractory metals and the noble metals, which are subsets (in this example) of the transition metals, are also known and occasionally denoted. Placing the elements into categories and subcategories based on shared properties is imperfect. There is a spectrum of properties within each category and it is not hard to find overlaps at the boundaries, as is the case with most classification schemes. Beryllium, for example, is classified as an alkaline earth metal although its amphoteric chemistry and tendency to mostly form covalent compounds are both attributes of a chemically weak or post-transition metal. Radon is classified as a nonmetal and a noble gas yet has some cationic chemistry that is more characteristic of a metal. Other classification schemes are possible such as the division of the elements into mineralogical occurrence categories, or crystalline structures. Categorizing the elements in this fashion dates back to at least 1869 when Hinrichs wrote that simple boundary lines could be drawn on the periodic table to show elements having like properties, such as the metals and the nonmetals, or the gaseous elements. The electron configuration or organisation of electrons orbiting neutral atoms shows a recurring pattern or periodicity. The electrons occupy a series of electron shells (numbered shell 1, shell 2, and so on). Each shell consists of one or more subshells (named s, p, d, f and g). As atomic number increases, electrons progressively fill these shells and subshells more or less according to the Madelung rule or energy ordering rule, as shown in the diagram. The electron configuration for neon, for example, is 1s 2s 2p. With an atomic number of ten, neon has two electrons in the first shell, and eight electrons in the second shell -- two in the s subshell and six in the p subshell. In periodic table terms, the first time an electron occupies a new shell corresponds to the start of each new period, these positions being occupied by hydrogen and the alkali metals. Since the properties of an element are mostly determined by its electron configuration, the properties of the elements likewise show recurring patterns or periodic behaviour, some examples of which are shown in the diagrams below for atomic radii, ionization energy and electron affinity. It is this periodicity of properties, manifestations of which were noticed well before the underlying theory was developed, that led to the establishment of the periodic law (the properties of the elements recur at varying intervals) and the formulation of the first periodic tables. Atomic radii vary in a predictable and explainable manner across the periodic table. For instance, the radii generally decrease along each period of the table, from the alkali metals to the noble gases; and increase down each group. The radius increases sharply between the noble gas at the end of each period and the alkali metal at the beginning of the next period. These trends of the atomic radii (and of various other chemical and physical properties of the elements) can be explained by the electron shell theory of the atom; they provided important evidence for the development and confirmation of quantum theory. The electrons in the 4f - subshell, which is progressively filled from cerium (element 58) to ytterbium (element 70), are not particularly effective at shielding the increasing nuclear charge from the sub-shells further out. The elements immediately following the lanthanides have atomic radii that are smaller than would be expected and that are almost identical to the atomic radii of the elements immediately above them. Hence hafnium has virtually the same atomic radius (and chemistry) as zirconium, and tantalum has an atomic radius similar to niobium, and so forth. This is known as the lanthanide contraction. The effect of the lanthanide contraction is noticeable up to platinum (element 78), after which it is masked by a relativistic effect known as the inert pair effect. The d - block contraction, which is a similar effect between the d - block and p - block, is less pronounced than the lanthanide contraction but arises from a similar cause. The first ionization energy is the energy it takes to remove one electron from an atom, the second ionization energy is the energy it takes to remove a second electron from the atom, and so on. For a given atom, successive ionization energies increase with the degree of ionization. For magnesium as an example, the first ionization energy is 738 kJ / mol and the second is 1450 kJ / mol. Electrons in the closer orbitals experience greater forces of electrostatic attraction; thus, their removal requires increasingly more energy. Ionization energy becomes greater up and to the right of the periodic table. Large jumps in the successive molar ionization energies occur when removing an electron from a noble gas (complete electron shell) configuration. For magnesium again, the first two molar ionization energies of magnesium given above correspond to removing the two 3s electrons, and the third ionization energy is a much larger 7730 kJ / mol, for the removal of a 2p electron from the very stable neon - like configuration of Mg. Similar jumps occur in the ionization energies of other third - row atoms. Electronegativity is the tendency of an atom to attract electrons. An atom 's electronegativity is affected by both its atomic number and the distance between the valence electrons and the nucleus. The higher its electronegativity, the more an element attracts electrons. It was first proposed by Linus Pauling in 1932. In general, electronegativity increases on passing from left to right along a period, and decreases on descending a group. Hence, fluorine is the most electronegative of the elements, while caesium is the least, at least of those elements for which substantial data is available. There are some exceptions to this general rule. Gallium and germanium have higher electronegativities than aluminium and silicon respectively because of the d - block contraction. Elements of the fourth period immediately after the first row of the transition metals have unusually small atomic radii because the 3d - electrons are not effective at shielding the increased nuclear charge, and smaller atomic size correlates with higher electronegativity. The anomalously high electronegativity of lead, particularly when compared to thallium and bismuth, appears to be an artifact of data selection (and data availability) -- methods of calculation other than the Pauling method show the normal periodic trends for these elements. The electron affinity of an atom is the amount of energy released when an electron is added to a neutral atom to form a negative ion. Although electron affinity varies greatly, some patterns emerge. Generally, nonmetals have more positive electron affinity values than metals. Chlorine most strongly attracts an extra electron. The electron affinities of the noble gases have not been measured conclusively, so they may or may not have slightly negative values. Electron affinity generally increases across a period. This is caused by the filling of the valence shell of the atom; a group 17 atom releases more energy than a group 1 atom on gaining an electron because it obtains a filled valence shell and is therefore more stable. A trend of decreasing electron affinity going down groups would be expected. The additional electron will be entering an orbital farther away from the nucleus. As such this electron would be less attracted to the nucleus and would release less energy when added. However, in going down a group, around one - third of elements are anomalous, with heavier elements having higher electron affinities than their next lighter congenors. Largely, this is due to the poor shielding by d and f electrons. A uniform decrease in electron affinity only applies to group 1 atoms. The lower the values of ionization energy, electronegativity and electron affinity, the more metallic character the element has. Conversely, nonmetallic character increases with higher values of these properties. Given the periodic trends of these three properties, metallic character tends to decrease going across a period (or row) and, with some irregularities (mostly) due to poor screening of the nucleus by d and f electrons, and relativistic effects, tends to increase going down a group (or column or family). Thus, the most metallic elements (such as caesium and francium) are found at the bottom left of traditional periodic tables and the most nonmetallic elements (oxygen, fluorine, chlorine) at the top right. The combination of horizontal and vertical trends in metallic character explains the stair - shaped dividing line between metals and nonmetals found on some periodic tables, and the practice of sometimes categorizing several elements adjacent to that line, or elements adjacent to those elements, as metalloids. From left to right across the four blocks of the long - or 32 - column form of the periodic table are a series of linking or bridging groups of elements, located approximately between each block. These groups, like the metalloids, show properties in between, or that are a mixture of, groups to either side. Chemically, the group 3 elements, scandium, yttrium, lanthanum and actinium behave largely like the alkaline earth metals or, more generally, s block metals but have some of the physical properties of d block transition metals. Lutetium and lawrencium, at the end of the end of the f block, may constitute another linking or bridging group. Lutetium behaves chemically as a lanthanide but shows a mix of lanthanide and transition metal physical properties. Lawrencium, as an analogue of lutetium, would presumable display like characteristics. The coinage metals in group 11 (copper, silver, and gold) are chemically capable of acting as either transition metals or main group metals. The volatile group 12 metals, zinc, cadmium and mercury are sometimes regarded as linking the d block to the p block. Notionally they are d block elements but they have few transition metal properties and are more like their p block neighbors in group 13. The relatively inert noble gases, in group 18, bridge the most reactive groups of elements in the periodic table -- the halogens in group 17 and the alkali metals in group 1. In 1789, Antoine Lavoisier published a list of 33 chemical elements, grouping them into gases, metals, nonmetals, and earths. Chemists spent the following century searching for a more precise classification scheme. In 1829, Johann Wolfgang Döbereiner observed that many of the elements could be grouped into triads based on their chemical properties. Lithium, sodium, and potassium, for example, were grouped together in a triad as soft, reactive metals. Döbereiner also observed that, when arranged by atomic weight, the second member of each triad was roughly the average of the first and the third; this became known as the Law of Triads. German chemist Leopold Gmelin worked with this system, and by 1843 he had identified ten triads, three groups of four, and one group of five. Jean - Baptiste Dumas published work in 1857 describing relationships between various groups of metals. Although various chemists were able to identify relationships between small groups of elements, they had yet to build one scheme that encompassed them all. In 1857, German chemist August Kekulé observed that carbon often has four other atoms bonded to it. Methane, for example, has one carbon atom and four hydrogen atoms. This concept eventually became known as valency; different elements bond with different numbers of atoms. In 1862, Alexandre - Emile Béguyer de Chancourtois, a French geologist, published an early form of periodic table, which he called the telluric helix or screw. He was the first person to notice the periodicity of the elements. With the elements arranged in a spiral on a cylinder by order of increasing atomic weight, de Chancourtois showed that elements with similar properties seemed to occur at regular intervals. His chart included some ions and compounds in addition to elements. His paper also used geological rather than chemical terms and did not include a diagram; as a result, it received little attention until the work of Dmitri Mendeleev. In 1864, Julius Lothar Meyer, a German chemist, published a table with 44 elements arranged by valency. The table showed that elements with similar properties often shared the same valency. Concurrently, William Odling (an English chemist) published an arrangement of 57 elements, ordered on the basis of their atomic weights. With some irregularities and gaps, he noticed what appeared to be a periodicity of atomic weights among the elements and that this accorded with "their usually received groupings ''. Odling alluded to the idea of a periodic law but did not pursue it. He subsequently proposed (in 1870) a valence - based classification of the elements. English chemist John Newlands produced a series of papers from 1863 to 1866 noting that when the elements were listed in order of increasing atomic weight, similar physical and chemical properties recurred at intervals of eight; he likened such periodicity to the octaves of music. This so termed Law of Octaves, however, was ridiculed by Newlands ' contemporaries, and the Chemical Society refused to publish his work. Newlands was nonetheless able to draft a table of the elements and used it to predict the existence of missing elements, such as germanium. The Chemical Society only acknowledged the significance of his discoveries five years after they credited Mendeleev. In 1867, Gustavus Hinrichs, a Danish born academic chemist based in America, published a spiral periodic system based on atomic spectra and weights, and chemical similarities. His work was regarded as idiosyncratic, ostentatious and labyrinthine and this may have militated against its recognition and acceptance. Russian chemistry professor Dmitri Mendeleev and German chemist Julius Lothar Meyer independently published their periodic tables in 1869 and 1870, respectively. Mendeleev 's table was his first published version; that of Meyer was an expanded version of his (Meyer 's) table of 1864. They both constructed their tables by listing the elements in rows or columns in order of atomic weight and starting a new row or column when the characteristics of the elements began to repeat. The recognition and acceptance afforded to Mendeleev 's table came from two decisions he made. The first was to leave gaps in the table when it seemed that the corresponding element had not yet been discovered. Mendeleev was not the first chemist to do so, but he was the first to be recognized as using the trends in his periodic table to predict the properties of those missing elements, such as gallium and germanium. The second decision was to occasionally ignore the order suggested by the atomic weights and switch adjacent elements, such as tellurium and iodine, to better classify them into chemical families. Later in 1913, Henry Moseley determined experimental values of the nuclear charge or atomic number of each element, and showed that Mendeleev 's ordering actually corresponds to the order of increasing atomic number. The significance of atomic numbers to the organization of the periodic table was not appreciated until the existence and properties of protons and neutrons became understood. Mendeleev 's periodic tables used atomic weight instead of atomic number to organize the elements, information determinable to fair precision in his time. Atomic weight worked well enough in most cases to (as noted) give a presentation that was able to predict the properties of missing elements more accurately than any other method then known. Substitution of atomic numbers, once understood, gave a definitive, integer - based sequence for the elements, and Moseley predicted (in 1913) that the only elements still missing between aluminium (Z = 13) and gold (Z = 79) were Z = 43, 61, 72 and 75, all of which were later discovered. The sequence of atomic numbers is still used today even as new synthetic elements are being produced and studied. In 1871, Mendeleev published his periodic table in a new form, with groups of similar elements arranged in columns rather than in rows, and those columns numbered I to VIII corresponding with the element 's oxidation state. He also gave detailed predictions for the properties of elements he had earlier noted were missing, but should exist. These gaps were subsequently filled as chemists discovered additional naturally occurring elements. It is often stated that the last naturally occurring element to be discovered was francium (referred to by Mendeleev as eka - caesium) in 1939. However, plutonium, produced synthetically in 1940, was identified in trace quantities as a naturally occurring element in 1971. The popular periodic table layout, also known as the common or standard form (as shown at various other points in this article), is attributable to Horace Groves Deming. In 1923, Deming, an American chemist, published short (Mendeleev style) and medium (18 - column) form periodic tables. Merck and Company prepared a handout form of Deming 's 18 - column medium table, in 1928, which was widely circulated in American schools. By the 1930s Deming 's table was appearing in handbooks and encyclopaedias of chemistry. It was also distributed for many years by the Sargent - Welch Scientific Company. With the development of modern quantum mechanical theories of electron configurations within atoms, it became apparent that each period (row) in the table corresponded to the filling of a quantum shell of electrons. Larger atoms have more electron sub-shells, so later tables have required progressively longer periods. In 1945, Glenn Seaborg, an American scientist, made the suggestion that the actinide elements, like the lanthanides, were filling an f sub-level. Before this time the actinides were thought to be forming a fourth d - block row. Seaborg 's colleagues advised him not to publish such a radical suggestion as it would most likely ruin his career. As Seaborg considered he did not then have a career to bring into disrepute, he published anyway. Seaborg 's suggestion was found to be correct and he subsequently went on to win the 1951 Nobel Prize in chemistry for his work in synthesizing actinide elements. Although minute quantities of some transuranic elements occur naturally, they were all first discovered in laboratories. Their production has expanded the periodic table significantly, the first of these being neptunium, synthesized in 1939. Because many of the transuranic elements are highly unstable and decay quickly, they are challenging to detect and characterize when produced. There have been controversies concerning the acceptance of competing discovery claims for some elements, requiring independent review to determine which party has priority, and hence naming rights. In 2010, a joint Russia -- US collaboration at Dubna, Moscow Oblast, Russia, claimed to have synthesized six atoms of tennessine (element 117), making it the most recently claimed discovery. It, along with nihonium (element 113), moscovium (element 115), and oganesson (element 118), are the four most recently named elements, whose names all became official on 28 November 2016. The modern periodic table is sometimes expanded into its long or 32 - column form by reinstating the footnoted f - block elements into their natural position between the s - and d - blocks. Unlike the 18 - column form this arrangement results in "no interruptions in the sequence of increasing atomic numbers ''. The relationship of the f - block to the other blocks of the periodic table also becomes easier to see. Jensen advocates a form of table with 32 columns on the grounds that the lanthanides and actinides are otherwise relegated in the minds of students as dull, unimportant elements that can be quarantined and ignored. Despite these advantages the 32 - column form is generally avoided by editors on account of its undue rectangular ratio (compared to a book page ratio), and the familiarity of chemists with the modern form (as introduced by Seaborg). Within 100 years of the appearance of Mendeleev 's table in 1869 it has been estimated that around 700 different periodic table versions were published. As well as numerous rectangular variations, other periodic table formats have been shaped, for example, like a circle, cube, cylinder, building, spiral, lemniscate, octagonal prism, pyramid, sphere, or triangle. Such alternatives are often developed to highlight or emphasize chemical or physical properties of the elements that are not as apparent in traditional periodic tables. A popular alternative structure is that of Theodor Benfey (1960). The elements are arranged in a continuous spiral, with hydrogen at the centre and the transition metals, lanthanides, and actinides occupying peninsulas. Most periodic tables are two - dimensional; however, three - dimensional tables are known to as far back as at least 1862 (pre-dating Mendeleev 's two - dimensional table of 1869). More recent examples include Courtines ' Periodic Classification (1925), Wringley 's Lamina System (1949), Giguère 's Periodic helix (1965) and Dufour 's Periodic Tree (1996). Going one further, Stowe 's Physicist 's Periodic Table (1989) has been described as being four - dimensional (having three spatial dimensions and one colour dimension). The various forms of periodic tables can be thought of as lying on a chemistry -- physics continuum. Towards the chemistry end of the continuum can be found, as an example, Rayner - Canham 's "unruly '' Inorganic Chemist 's Periodic Table (2002), which emphasizes trends and patterns, and unusual chemical relationships and properties. Near the physics end of the continuum is Janet 's Left - Step Periodic Table (1928). This has a structure that shows a closer connection to the order of electron - shell filling and, by association, quantum mechanics. A somewhat similar approach has been taken by Alper, albeit criticized by Eric Scerri as disregarding the need to display chemical and physical periodicity. Somewhere in the middle of the continuum is the ubiquitous common or standard form of periodic table. This is regarded as better expressing empirical trends in physical state, electrical and thermal conductivity, and oxidation numbers, and other properties easily inferred from traditional techniques of the chemical laboratory. Its popularity is thought to be a result of this layout having a good balance of features in terms of ease of construction and size, and its depiction of atomic order and periodic trends. Simply following electron configurations, hydrogen (electronic configuration 1s) and helium (1s) should be placed in groups 1 and 2, above lithium ((He) 2s) and beryllium ((He) 2s). However, such placing is rarely used outside of the context of electron configurations: When the noble gases (then called "inert gases '') were first discovered around 1900, they were known as "group 0 '', reflecting no chemical reactivity of these elements known at that point, and helium was placed on the top that group, as it did share the extreme chemical inertness seen throughout the group. As the group changed its formal number, many authors continued to assign helium directly above neon, in group 18; one of the examples of such placing is the current IUPAC table. Hydrogen 's chemical properties are not very close to those of the alkali metals, which occupy group 1, and on that basis hydrogen is sometimes placed elsewhere: one of the most common alternatives is in group 17; one of the factors behind it is the strictly univalent predominantly non-metallic chemistry of hydrogen, and that of fluorine (the element placed on the top of group 17) is strictly univalent and non-metallic. Sometimes, to show how hydrogen has properties both corresponding to those of the alkali metals and the halogens, it may be shown in two columns simultaneously. Another suggestion is above carbon in group 14: placed that way, it fits well into the trends of increasing ionization potential values and electron affinity values, and is not too far from the electronegativity trend, even though hydrogen can not show the tetravalence characteristic of the heavier group 14 elements. Finally, hydrogen is sometimes placed separately from any group; this is based on how general properties of hydrogen differ from that of any group. The other period 1 element, helium, is sometimes placed separately from any group as well. The property that distinguishes helium from the rest of the noble gases (even though the extraordinary inertness of helium is extremely close to that of neon and argon) is that in its closed electron shell, helium has only two electrons in the outermost electron orbital, while the rest of the noble gases have eight. Although scandium and yttrium are always the first two elements in group 3, the identity of the next two elements is not completely settled. They are commonly lanthanum and actinium, and less often lutetium and lawrencium. The two variants originate from historical difficulties in placing the lanthanides in the periodic table, and arguments as to where the f block elements start and end. It has been claimed that such arguments are proof that, "it is a mistake to break the (periodic) system into sharply delimited blocks ''. A third variant shows the two positions below yttrium as being occupied by the lanthanides and the actinides. Chemical and physical arguments have been made in support of lutetium and lawrencium but the majority of authors seem unconvinced. Most working chemists are not aware there is any controversy. In December 2015 an IUPAC project was established to make a recommendation on the matter. Lanthanum and actinium are commonly depicted as the remaining group 3 members. It has been suggested that this layout originated in the 1940s, with the appearance of periodic tables relying on the electron configurations of the elements and the notion of the differentiating electron. The configurations of caesium, barium and lanthanum are (Xe) 6s, (Xe) 6s and (Xe) 5d 6s. Lanthanum thus has a 5d differentiating electron and this establishes "it in group 3 as the first member of the d - block for period 6 ''. A consistent set of electron configurations is then seen in group 3: scandium (Ar) 3d 4s, yttrium (Kr) 4d 5s and lanthanum (Xe) 5d 6s. Still in period 6, ytterbium was assigned an electron configuration of (Xe) 4f 5d 6s and lutetium (Xe) 4f 5d 6s, "resulting in a 4f differentiating electron for lutetium and firmly establishing it as the last member of the f - block for period 6 ''. Later spectroscopic work found that the electron configuration of ytterbium was in fact (Xe) 4f 6s. This meant that ytterbium and lutetium -- the latter with (Xe) 4f 5d 6s -- both had 14 f - electrons, "resulting in a d - rather than an f - differentiating electron '' for lutetium and making it an "equally valid candidate '' with (Xe) 5d 6s lanthanum, for the group 3 periodic table position below yttrium. Lanthanum, however, has the advantage of incumbency since the 5d electron appears for the first time in its structure whereas it appears for the third time in lutetium, having also made a brief second appearance in gadolinium. In terms of chemical behaviour, and trends going down group 3 for properties such as melting point, electronegativity and ionic radius, scandium, yttrium, lanthanum and actinium are similar to their group 1 -- 2 counterparts. In this variant, the number of f electrons in the most common (trivalent) ions of the f - block elements consistently matches their position in the f - block. For example, the f - electron counts for the trivalent ions of the first three f - block elements are Ce 1, Pr 2 and Nd 3. In other tables, lutetium and lawrencium are the remaining group 3 members. Early techniques for chemically separating scandium, yttrium and lutetium relied on the fact that these elements occurred together in the so - called "yttrium group '' whereas La and Ac occurred together in the "cerium group ''. Accordingly, lutetium rather than lanthanum was assigned to group 3 by some chemists in the 1920s and 30s. Several physicists in the 1950s and 60s favoured lutetium, in light of a comparison of several of its physical properties with those of lanthanum. This arrangement, in which lanthanum is the first member of the f - block, is disputed by some authors since lanthanum lacks any f - electrons. However, it has been argued that this is not valid concern given other periodic table anomalies -- thorium, for example, has no f - electrons yet is part of the f - block. As for lawrencium, its gas phase atomic electron configuration was confirmed in 2015 as (Rn) 5f 7s 7p. Such a configuration represents another periodic table anomaly, regardless of whether lawrencium is located in the f - block or the d - block, as the only potentially applicable p - block position has been reserved for nihonium with its predicted configuration of (Rn) 5f 6d 7s 7p. Chemically, scandium, yttrium and lutetium (and presumably lawrencium) behave like trivalent versions of the group 1 -- 2 metals. On the other hand, trends going down the group for properties such as melting point, electronegativity and ionic radius, are similar to those found among their group 4 -- 8 counterparts. In this variant, the number of f electrons in the gaseous forms of the f - block atoms usually matches their position in the f - block. For example, the f - electron counts for the first five f - block elements are La 0, Ce 1, Pr 3, Nd 4 and Pm 5. A few authors position all thirty lanthanides and actinides in the two positions below yttrium (usually via footnote markers). This variant emphasizes similarities in the chemistry of the 15 lanthanide elements (La -- Lu), possibly at the expense of ambiguity as to which elements occupy the two group 3 positions below yttrium, and a 15 - column wide f block (there can only be 14 elements in any row of the f block). The definition of a transition metal, as given by IUPAC, is an element whose atom has an incomplete d sub-shell, or which can give rise to cations with an incomplete d sub-shell. By this definition all of the elements in groups 3 -- 11 are transition metals. The IUPAC definition therefore excludes group 12, comprising zinc, cadmium and mercury, from the transition metals category. Some chemists treat the categories "d - block elements '' and "transition metals '' interchangeably, thereby including groups 3 -- 12 among the transition metals. In this instance the group 12 elements are treated as a special case of transition metal in which the d electrons are not ordinarily involved in chemical bonding. The 2007 report of mercury (IV) fluoride (HgF), a compound in which mercury would use its d electrons for bonding, has prompted some commentators to suggest that mercury can be regarded as a transition metal. Other commentators, such as Jensen, have argued that the formation of a compound like HgF can occur only under highly abnormal conditions; indeed, its existence is currently disputed. As such, mercury could not be regarded as a transition metal by any reasonable interpretation of the ordinary meaning of the term. Still other chemists further exclude the group 3 elements from the definition of a transition metal. They do so on the basis that the group 3 elements do not form any ions having a partially occupied d shell and do not therefore exhibit any properties characteristic of transition metal chemistry. In this case, only groups 4 -- 11 are regarded as transition metals. However, though the group 3 elements show few of the characteristic chemical properties of the transition metals, they do show some of their characteristic physical properties (on account of the presence in each atom of a single d electron). Although all elements up to oganesson have been discovered, of the elements above hassium (element 108), only copernicium (element 112), nihonium (element 113), and flerovium (element 114) have known chemical properties, and only for the copernicium is there enough evidence for a conclusive categorisation at present. The other elements may behave differently from what would be predicted by extrapolation, due to relativistic effects; for example, flerovium has been predicted to possibly exhibit some noble - gas - like properties, even though it is currently placed in the carbon group. More recent experiments have suggested, however, that flerovium behaves chemically like lead, as expected from its periodic table position. It is unclear whether new elements will continue the pattern of the current periodic table as period 8, or require further adaptations or adjustments. Seaborg expected the eighth period to follow the previously established pattern exactly, so that it would include a two - element s - block for elements 119 and 120, a new g - block for the next 18 elements, and 30 additional elements continuing the current f -, d -, and p - blocks, culminating in element 168, the next noble gas. More recently, physicists such as Pekka Pyykkö have theorized that these additional elements do not follow the Madelung rule, which predicts how electron shells are filled and thus affects the appearance of the present periodic table. There are currently several competing theoretical models for the placement of the elements of atomic number less than or equal to 172. The number of possible elements is not known. A very early suggestion made by Elliot Adams in 1911, and based on the arrangement of elements in each horizontal periodic table row, was that elements of atomic weight greater than 256 ± (which would equate to between elements 99 and 100 in modern - day terms) did not exist. A higher -- more recent -- estimate is that the periodic table may end soon after the island of stability, which is expected to centre around element 126, as the extension of the periodic and nuclides tables is restricted by proton and neutron drip lines. Other predictions of an end to the periodic table include at element 128 by John Emsley, at element 137 by Richard Feynman, and at element 155 by Albert Khazan. The Bohr model exhibits difficulty for atoms with atomic number greater than 137, as any element with an atomic number greater than 137 would require 1s electrons to be travelling faster than c, the speed of light. Hence the non-relativistic Bohr model is inaccurate when applied to such an element. The relativistic Dirac equation has problems for elements with more than 137 protons. For such elements, the wave function of the Dirac ground state is oscillatory rather than bound, and there is no gap between the positive and negative energy spectra, as in the Klein paradox. More accurate calculations taking into account the effects of the finite size of the nucleus indicate that the binding energy first exceeds the limit for elements with more than 173 protons. For heavier elements, if the innermost orbital (1s) is not filled, the electric field of the nucleus will pull an electron out of the vacuum, resulting in the spontaneous emission of a positron; however, this does not happen if the innermost orbital is filled, so that element 173 is not necessarily the end of the periodic table. The many different forms of periodic table have prompted the question of whether there is an optimal or definitive form of periodic table. The answer to this question is thought to depend on whether the chemical periodicity seen to occur among the elements has an underlying truth, effectively hard - wired into the universe, or if any such periodicity is instead the product of subjective human interpretation, contingent upon the circumstances, beliefs and predilections of human observers. An objective basis for chemical periodicity would settle the questions about the location of hydrogen and helium, and the composition of group 3. Such an underlying truth, if it exists, is thought to have not yet been discovered. In its absence, the many different forms of periodic table can be regarded as variations on the theme of chemical periodicity, each of which explores and emphasizes different aspects, properties, perspectives and relationships of and among the elements.

st maria goretti high school in hagerstown md

St. Maria Goretti High School - wikipedia Saint Maria Goretti High School is a private, Roman Catholic day school located in Hagerstown, Maryland. It is located in the Roman Catholic Archdiocese of Baltimore, within the tri-state areas of the Eastern Panhandle of West Virginia, Western Maryland, and Southern Pennsylvania. Saint Maria Goretti High School is located in the North End of Hagerstown, Maryland. The school was originally the upper school for St. Mary 's Catholic School, currently a K - 8 day school located in downtown Hagerstown. From 1933 to 1955 the school was known as St. Mary 's High School. In 1957, the upper school was relocated to a new campus in Hagerstown 's North End and was renamed St. Maria Goretti High School in honor of the Italian saint Maria Goretti (1890 -- 1902) who was "murdered to protect her purity '' per quote of Goretti 's website, www.goretti.org. The campus sits adjacent to St. Ann Roman Catholic Church. For much of the school 's history, its faculty and administration was composed partly of members of the School Sisters of Notre Dame, an international teaching order that has a motherhouse in Baltimore. However, in the 1980s and 1990s the high school grew increasingly reliant on lay faculty. Currently, the faculty and administration are entirely from the laity, though the school continues to have a chaplain. Goretti enrollment is approx. 225 St. Maria Goretti, an archdiocesan high school, provides an educational environment committed to Catholic values and traditions. Our college preparatory program emphasizes academic excellence and nurtures the whole person through spiritual and physical development. The uniqueness of each individual is recognized, respected and affirmed by the school community. Guided by the spirit and example of St. Maria Goretti, our young men and women are prepared to lead lives of service working to shape a just and compassionate society. Many courses are offered at St. Maria Goretti High School with varying levels of difficulty and can be selected based on an individual student 's abilities and interests. College - Prep (CP) level classes are designed for students with average, college preparatory ability and provide a solid foundation for College. Honors level courses are designed for students with above average ability who are able to accept challenging studies. Advanced Placement (AP) courses are designed for students who demonstrate the ability to master a college level course in English, Biology, Chemistry, Calculus, Spanish and U.S. History. St. Maria Goretti is a member of the Baltimore Catholic League in basketball. Despite being located 1.5 hrs. from the city, Goretti has captured several BCL regular season and tournament championships, and the 1986 and 1987 (private and public) Baltimore city championships. The most notable athlete - alumnus of the school is Rodney Monroe, a four - year starter (1983 -- 1987) who ended his high school career as Maryland boys basketball 's all - time leading scorer and went on to college stardom at NC State University. An outstanding mid-range shooter, Monroe is the ACC 's 4th - all - time leading scorer and was the 1991 ACC Player of the Year. He was later drafted by and played one year for the Atlanta Hawks before moving on to the European leagues. Also notable is Monroe 's former coach, Robert "Cokey '' Robertson, who led the boys basketball program 1974 - 2006 and retired with nearly 800 lifetime victories (at Goretti and elsewhere), second in Maryland High School boys basketball behind legendary DeMatha coach Morgan Wootten. In 2003, the varsity men 's soccer team went 11 - 11 - 1 and won the Private School State Championship. The following year they went 12 - 12 - 2 and finished runners - up. In 2005 they went 16 - 3 - 2 and won the Apple Valley League Championship. In 2008 the varsity men 's soccer team won the Private School State Championship by defeating the Heights School 2 - 1. in 2009 they went undefeated in the preseason. In the 2010 season the Boy 's Varsity soccer team won the Private School State Championship beating Bishop Walsh. St. Maria Goretti High School has developed a very strong swimming program. A strong team existed in the mid-late ' 80s, but interest dissolved upon entering the 1990s and 2000s, and the team, while still extant, lots its competitive status. The team was revived by Erik Meinelschmidt in 2005 with under 10 swimmers. Interest in the sport grew rapidly. Many new swimmers came, and the Gaels swim team became competitive once again. The Gaels improved their rankings in the Apple Valley League meet and a handful of swimmers competed in METROS Championships. Coach Erik died unexpectedly in May 2008. Erik 's brother, Cort Meinelschmidt took his place as head swim coach. In the 2008 - 2009 school year, Cort lead the team on to win the men 's championship at AVLs, and more swimmers advanced to METROs. In the 2009 - 2010 school year, the men 's team was once again victorious at the AVL championship (for the second year in a row). Six swimmers advanced to METROS. At METROS, four of Goretti 's records were broken (each record broken was from the mid-late 1980s respectively). Goretti Swimming is a co-ed sport, however, for fairness, meets are scored in a male category, and a female category.

fabolous can't let you go lyrics meaning

Ca n't Let You Go - wikipedia "Ca n't Let You Go '' is a song by American hip - hop artist Fabolous. It was released in February 2003 as the second single from his second studio album Street Dreams. The song features Mike Shorey and Lil ' Mo and was produced by Just Blaze. When Lil ' Mo was going to record the first single to her debut album titled "Superwoman (Part 2) '', she asked DJ Clue for Fabolous to do the track with her after hearing him on one of Clue 's mixtapes. She had previously worked with Jay - Z and Ja Rule, but wanted Fabolous on the track, despite only hearing him on a mixtape. The music video was filmed in Los Angeles, California on February 21 and 22, 2003, after the music video for Lil ' Mo 's "4Ever '' was filmed in Brooklyn, New York the previous month. Directed by Erik White, the music video starts with Fabolous creeping back into bed in the morning with one twin sister, after spending the night with the other twin. It continues showing him with the two women in similar places, expressing his admiration for both, even buying two copies of a necklace for each twin. Mike Shorey and Lil ' Mo sing the chorus after each dating scene. At a restaurant, the two women confront each other, then confront Fabolous and begin to argue. The video then transitions to a song titled "Damn '', where Fabolous is rapping in front of lighted letters that read "damn '' while women dance behind him.

who is credited with proposing the principle of uniformitarianism

Uniformitarianism - wikipedia Uniformitarianism, also known as the Doctrine of Uniformity, refers to the invariance in the principles underpinning science, such as the constancy of causality, or causation, throughout time, but it has also been used to describe invariance of physical laws through time and space. Though an unprovable postulate that can not be verified using the scientific method, uniformitarianism has been a key first principle of virtually all fields of science. In geology, uniformitarianism has included the gradualistic concept that "the present is the key to the past '' (that events occur at the same rate now as they have always done); many geologists now, however, no longer hold to a strict theory of gradualism. Coined by William Whewell, the word was proposed in contrast to catastrophism by British naturalists in the late 18th century, starting with the work of the geologist James Hutton in his many books including Theory of the Earth. Hutton 's work was later refined by scientist John Playfair and popularised by geologist Charles Lyell 's Principles of Geology in 1830. Today, Earth 's history is considered to have been a slow, gradual process, punctuated by occasional natural catastrophic events. The earlier conceptions likely had little influence on 18th - century European geological explanations for the formation of Earth. Abraham Gottlob Werner (1749 -- 1817) proposed Neptunism, where strata represented deposits from shrinking seas precipitated onto primordial rocks such as granite. In 1785 James Hutton proposed an opposing, self - maintaining infinite cycle based on natural history and not on the Biblical account. The solid parts of the present land appear in general, to have been composed of the productions of the sea, and of other materials similar to those now found upon the shores. Hence we find reason to conclude: Hence we are led to conclude, that the greater part of our land, if not the whole had been produced by operations natural to this globe; but that in order to make this land a permanent body, resisting the operations of the waters, two things had been required; Hutton then sought evidence to support his idea that there must have been repeated cycles, each involving deposition on the seabed, uplift with tilting and erosion, and then moving undersea again for further layers to be deposited. At Glen Tilt in the Cairngorm mountains he found granite penetrating metamorphic schists, in a way which indicated to him that the presumed primordial rock had been molten after the strata had formed. He had read about angular unconformities as interpreted by Neptunists, and found an unconformity at Jedburgh where layers of greywacke in the lower layers of the cliff face have been tilted almost vertically before being eroded to form a level plane, under horizontal layers of Old Red Sandstone. In the spring of 1788 he took a boat trip along the Berwickshire coast with John Playfair and the geologist Sir James Hall, and found a dramatic unconformity showing the same sequence at Siccar Point. Playfair later recalled that "the mind seemed to grow giddy by looking so far into the abyss of time '', and Hutton concluded a 1788 paper he presented at the Royal Society of Edinburgh, later rewritten as a book, with the phrase "we find no vestige of a beginning, no prospect of an end ''. Both Playfair and Hall wrote their own books on the theory, and for decades robust debate continued between Hutton 's supporters and the Neptunists. Georges Cuvier 's paleontological work in the 1790s, which established the reality of extinction, explained this by local catastrophes, after which other fixed species repopulated the affected areas. In Britain, geologists adapted this idea into "diluvial theory '' which proposed repeated worldwide annihilation and creation of new fixed species adapted to a changed environment, initially identifying the most recent catastrophe as the biblical flood. From 1830 to 1833 Charles Lyell 's multi-volume Principles of Geology was published. The work 's subtitle was "An attempt to explain the former changes of the Earth 's surface by reference to causes now in operation ''. He drew his explanations from field studies conducted directly before he went to work on the founding geology text, and developed Hutton 's idea that the earth was shaped entirely by slow - moving forces still in operation today, acting over a very long period of time. The terms uniformitarianism for this idea, and catastrophism for the opposing viewpoint, were coined by William Whewell in a review of Lyell 's book. Principles of Geology was the most influential geological work in the middle of the 19th century. Geoscientists support diverse systems of Earth history, the nature of which rest on a certain mixture of views about process, control, rate, and state which are preferred. Because geologists and geomorphologists tend to adopt opposite views over process, rate and state in the inorganic world, there are eight different systems of beliefs in the development of the terrestrial sphere. All geoscientists stand by the principle of uniformity of law. Most, but not all, are directed by the principle of simplicity. All make definite assertions about the quality of rate and state in the inorganic realm. According to Reijer Hooykaas (1963), Lyell 's uniformitarianism is a family of four related propositions, not a single idea: None of these connotations requires another, and they are not all equally inferred by uniformitarians. Gould explained Lyell 's propositions in Time 's Arrow, Time 's Cycle (1987), stating that Lyell conflated two different types of propositions: a pair of methodological assumptions with a pair of substantive hypotheses. The four together make up Lyell 's uniformitarianism. The two methodological assumptions below are accepted to be true by the majority of scientists and geologists. Gould claims that these philosophical propositions must be assumed before you can proceed as a scientist doing science. "You can not go to a rocky outcrop and observe either the constancy of nature 's laws or the working of unknown processes. It works the other way around. '' You first assume these propositions and "then you go to the outcrop. '' The substantive hypotheses were controversial and, in some cases, accepted by few. These hypotheses are judged true or false on empirical grounds through scientific observation and repeated experimental data. This is in contrast with the previous two philosophical assumptions that come before one can do science and so can not be tested or falsified by science. Stephen Jay Gould 's first scientific paper, Is uniformitarianism necessary? (1965), reduced these four assumptions to two. He dismissed the first principle, which asserted spatial and temporal invariance of natural laws, as no longer an issue of debate. He rejected the third (uniformity of rate) as an unjustified limitation on scientific inquiry, as it constrains past geologic rates and conditions to those of the present. So, Lyellian uniformitarianism was unnecessary. Uniformitarianism was proposed in contrast to catastrophism, which states that the distant past "consisted of epochs of paroxysmal and catastrophic action interposed between periods of comparative tranquility '' Especially in the late 19th and early 20th centuries, most geologists took this interpretation to mean that catastrophic events are not important in geologic time; one example of this is the debate of the formation of the Channeled Scablands due to the catastrophic Missoula glacial outburst floods. An important result of this debate and others was the re-clarification that, while the same principles operate in geologic time, catastrophic events that are infrequent on human time - scales can have important consequences in geologic history. Derek Ager has noted that "geologists do not deny uniformitarianism in its true sense, that is to say, of interpreting the past by means of the processes that are seen going on at the present day, so long as we remember that the periodic catastrophe is one of those processes. Those periodic catastrophes make more showing in the stratigraphical record than we have hitherto assumed. '' Even Charles Lyell thought that ordinary geological processes would cause Niagara Falls to move upstream to Lake Erie within 10,000 years, leading to catastrophic flooding of a large part of North America. Modern geologists do not apply uniformitarianism in the same way as Lyell. They question if rates of processes were uniform through time and only those values measured during the history of geology are to be accepted. The present may not be a long enough key to penetrate the deep lock of the past. Geologic processes may have been active at different rates in the past that humans have not observed. "By force of popularity, uniformity of rate has persisted to our present day. For more than a century, Lyell 's rhetoric conflating axiom with hypotheses has descended in unmodified form. Many geologists have been stifled by the belief that proper methodology includes an a priori commitment to gradual change, and by a preference for explaining large - scale phenomena as the concatenation of innumerable tiny changes. '' The current consensus is that Earth 's history is a slow, gradual process punctuated by occasional natural catastrophic events that have affected Earth and its inhabitants. In practice it is reduced from Lyell 's conflation, or blending, to simply the two philosophical assumptions. This is also known as the principle of geological actualism, which states that all past geological action was like all present geological action. The principle of actualism is the cornerstone of paleoecology.

who organized the march on washington in 1963

March on Washington for Jobs and Freedom - wikipedia The March on Washington for Jobs and Freedom, the March on Washington, or The Great March on Washington, was held in Washington, D.C. on Wednesday, August 28, 1963. The purpose of the march was to advocate for the civil and economic rights of African Americans. At the march, Martin Luther King Jr., standing in front of the Lincoln Memorial, delivered his historic "I Have a Dream '' speech in which he called for an end to racism. The march was organized by A. Philip Randolph and Bayard Rustin, who built an alliance of civil rights, labor, and religious organizations that came together under the banner of "jobs and freedom. '' Estimates of the number of participants varied from 200,000 to 300,000; the most widely cited estimate is 250,000 people. Observers estimated that 75 -- 80 % of the marchers were black. The march was one of the largest political rallies for human rights in United States history. The march is credited with helping to pass the Civil Rights Act of 1964 and preceded the Selma Voting Rights Movement which led to the passage of the Voting Rights Act of 1965. Although African Americans had been legally freed from slavery, elevated to the status of citizens and the men given full voting rights at the end of the American Civil War, many continued to face social, economic, and political repression over the years and into the 1960s. In the early 1960s, a system of legal discrimination, known as Jim Crow laws, were pervasive in the American South, ensuring that Black Americans remained oppressed. They also experienced discrimination from businesses and governments, and in some places were prevented from voting through intimidation and violence. Twenty - one states prohibited interracial marriage. The impetus for a march on Washington developed over a long period of time, and earlier efforts to organize such a demonstration included the March on Washington Movement of the 1940s. A. Philip Randolph -- the president of the Brotherhood of Sleeping Car Porters, president of the Negro American Labor Council, and vice president of the AFL - CIO -- was a key instigator in 1941. With Bayard Rustin, Randolph called for 100,000 black workers to march on Washington, in protest of discriminatory hiring by U.S. military contractors and demanding an Executive Order. Faced with a mass march scheduled for July 1, 1941, President Franklin D. Roosevelt issued Executive Order 8802 on June 25. The order established the Committee on Fair Employment Practice and banned discriminatory hiring in the defense industry. Randolph called off the March. Randolph and Rustin continued to organize around the idea of a mass march on Washington. They envisioned several large marches during the 1940s, but all were called off (despite criticism from Rustin). Their Prayer Pilgrimage for Freedom, held at the Lincoln Memorial on May 17, 1957, featured key leaders including Adam Clayton Powell, Martin Luther King Jr., and Roy Wilkins. Mahalia Jackson performed. The 1963 march was an important part of the rapidly expanding Civil Rights Movement, which involved demonstrations and nonviolent direct action across the United States. 1963 also marked the 100th anniversary of the signing of the Emancipation Proclamation by Abraham Lincoln. Members of The National Association for the Advancement of Colored People (NAACP), and the Southern Christian Leadership Conference put aside their differences and came together for the march. Many whites and blacks also came together in the urgency for change in the nation. Violent confrontations broke out in the South: in Cambridge, Maryland; Pine Bluff, Arkansas; Goldsboro, North Carolina; Somerville, Tennessee; Saint Augustine, Florida; and across Mississippi. Most of these incidents involved white people retaliating against nonviolent demonstrators. Many people wanted to march on Washington, but disagreed over how the march should be conducted. Some called for a complete shutdown of the city through civil disobedience. Others argued that the movement should remain nationwide in scope, rather than focus its energies on the nation 's capital. There was a widespread perception that the Kennedy administration had not lived up to its promises in the 1960 election, and King described Kennedy 's race policy as "tokenism ''. On May 24, 1963, Attorney General Robert F. Kennedy invited African - American novelist James Baldwin, along with a large group of cultural leaders, to a meeting in New York to discuss race relations. However, the meeting became antagonistic, as black delegates felt that Kennedy did not have a full understanding of the race problem in the nation. The public failure of the meeting, which came to be known as the Baldwin -- Kennedy meeting, underscored the divide between the needs of Black America and the understanding of Washington politicians. However, the meeting also provoked the Kennedy administration to take action on the civil rights for African - Americans. On June 11, 1963, President John F. Kennedy gave his famous civil rights address on national television and radio, announcing that he would begin to push for civil rights legislation -- the law which eventually became the Civil Rights Act of 1964. That night, Mississippi activist Medgar Evers was murdered in his own driveway, further escalating national tension around the issue of racial inequality. A. Philip Randolph and Bayard Rustin began planning the march in December 1961. They envisioned two days of protest, including sit - ins and lobbying followed by a mass rally at the Lincoln Memorial. They wanted to focus on joblessness and to call for a public works program that would employ blacks. In early 1963 they called publicly for "a massive March on Washington for jobs ''. They received help from Amalgamated Clothing Workers unionist Stanley Aronowitz, who gathered support from radical organizers who could be trusted not to report their plans to the Kennedy administration. The unionists offered tentative support for a march that would be focused on jobs. On May 15, 1963, without securing the cooperation of the NAACP or the Urban League, Randolph announced an "October Emancipation March on Washington for Jobs ''. He reached out to union leaders, winning the support of the UAW 's Walter Reuther, but not of AFL -- CIO president George Meany. Randolph and Rustin intended to focus the March on economic inequality, stating in their original plan that "integration in the fields of education, housing, transportation and public accommodations will be of limited extent and duration so long as fundamental economic inequality along racial lines persists. '' As they negotiated with other leaders, they expanded their stated objectives to "Jobs and Freedom '' to acknowledge the agenda of groups that focused more on civil rights. In June 1963, leaders from several different organizations formed the Council for United Civil Rights Leadership, an umbrella group which would coordinate funds and messaging. This coalition of leaders, who became known as the "Big Six '', included: Randolph who was chosen as the titular head of the march, James Farmer, president of the Congress of Racial Equality; John Lewis, chairman of the Student Nonviolent Coordinating Committee; Martin Luther King Jr., president of the Southern Christian Leadership Conference; Roy Wilkins, president of the NAACP; and Whitney Young, president of the National Urban League. King in particular had become well known for his role in the Birmingham campaign and for his Letter from Birmingham Jail. Wilkins and Young initially objected to Rustin as a leader for the march, because he was a homosexual, a former Communist, and a draft resistor. They eventually accepted Rustin as deputy organizer, on the condition that Randolph act as lead organizer and manage any political fallout. About two months before the march, the Big Six broadened their organizing coalition by bringing on board four white men who supported their efforts: Walter Reuther, president of the United Automobile Workers; Eugene Carson Blake, former president of the National Council of Churches; Mathew Ahmann, executive director of the National Catholic Conference for Interracial Justice; and Joachim Prinz, president of the American Jewish Congress. Together, the Big Six plus four became known as the "Big Ten. '' John Lewis later recalled, "Somehow, some way, we worked well together. The six of us, plus the four. We became like brothers. '' On June 22, the organizers met with President Kennedy, who warned against creating "an atmosphere of intimidation '' by bringing a large crowd to Washington. The civil rights activists insisted on holding the march. Wilkins pushed for the organizers to rule out civil disobedience and described this proposal as the "perfect compromise ''. King and Young agreed. Leaders from CORE and SNCC, who wanted to conduct direct actions against the Department of Justice, endorsed the protest before they were informed that civil disobedience would not be allowed. Finalized plans for the March were announced in a press conference on July 2. President Kennedy spoke favorably of the March on July 17, saying that organizers planned a peaceful assembly and had cooperated with the Washington, D.C., police. Mobilization and logistics were administered by Rustin, a civil rights veteran and organizer of the 1947 Journey of Reconciliation, the first of the Freedom Rides to test the Supreme Court ruling that banned racial discrimination in interstate travel. Rustin was a long - time associate of both Randolph and Dr. King. With Randolph concentrating on building the march 's political coalition, Rustin built and led the team of two hundred activists and organizers who publicized the march and recruited the marchers, coordinated the buses and trains, provided the marshals, and set up and administered all of the logistic details of a mass march in the nation 's capital. During the days leading up to the march, these 200 volunteers used the ballroom of Washington DC radio station WUST as their operations headquarters. The march was not universally supported among civil rights activists. Some, including Rustin (who assembled 4,000 volunteer marshals from New York), were concerned that it might turn violent, which could undermine pending legislation and damage the international image of the movement. The march was condemned by Malcolm X, spokesperson for the Nation of Islam, who termed it the "farce on Washington ''. March organizers themselves disagreed over the purpose of the march. The NAACP and Urban League saw it as a gesture of support for a civil rights bill that had been introduced by the Kennedy Administration. Randolph, King, and the Southern Christian Leadership Conference (SCLC) saw it as a way of raising both civil rights and economic issues to national attention beyond the Kennedy bill. Student Nonviolent Coordinating Committee (SNCC) and Congress of Racial Equality (CORE) saw it as a way of challenging and condemning the Kennedy administration 's inaction and lack of support for civil rights for African Americans. Despite their disagreements, the group came together on a set of goals: Although in years past, Randolph had supported "Negro only '' marches, partly to reduce the impression that the civil rights movement was dominated by white communists, organizers in 1963 agreed that whites and blacks marching side by side would create a more powerful image. The Kennedy Administration cooperated with the organizers in planning the March, and one member of the Justice Department was assigned as a full - time liaison. Chicago and New York City (as well as some corporations) agreed to designate August 28 as "Freedom Day '' and give workers the day off. To avoid being perceived as radical, organizers rejected support from Communist groups. However, some politicians claimed that the March was Communist - inspired, and the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) produced numerous reports suggesting the same. In the days before August 28, the FBI called celebrity backers to inform them of the organizers ' communist connections and advising them to withdraw their support. When William C. Sullivan produced a lengthy report on August 23 suggesting that Communists had failed to appreciably infiltrate the civil rights movement, FBI Director J. Edgar Hoover rejected its contents. Strom Thurmond launched a prominent public attack on the March as Communist, and singled out Rustin in particular as a Communist and a gay man. Organizers worked out of a building at West 130th St. and Lenox in Harlem. They promoted the march by selling buttons, featuring two hands shaking, the words "March on Washington for Jobs and Freedom '', a union bug, and the date August 28, 1963. By August 2, they had distributed 42,000 of the buttons. Their goal was a crowd of at least 100,000 people. As the march was being planned, activists across the country received bomb threats at their homes and in their offices. The Los Angeles Times received a message saying its headquarters would be bombed unless it printed a message calling the president a "Nigger Lover ''. Five airplanes were grounded on the morning of August 28 due to bomb threats. A man in Kansas City telephoned the FBI to say he would put a hole between King 's eyes; the FBI did not respond. Roy Wilkins was threatened with assassination if he did not leave the country. Thousands traveled by road, rail, and air to Washington D.C. on Wednesday, August 28. Marchers from Boston traveled overnight and arrived in Washington at 7am after an eight - hour trip, but others took much longer bus rides from places like Milwaukee, Little Rock, and St. Louis. Organizers persuaded New York 's MTA to run extra subway trains after midnight on August 28, and the New York City bus terminal was busy throughout the night with peak crowds. A total of 450 buses left New York City from Harlem. Maryland police reported that "by 8: 00 a.m., 100 buses an hour were streaming through the Baltimore Harbor Tunnel. '' The United Automobile Workers financed bus transportation for 5,000 of its rank - and - file members, providing the largest single contingent from any organization. One reporter, Fred Powledge, accompanied African - Americans who boarded six buses in Birmingham, Alabama, for the 750 - mile trip to Washington. The New York Times carried his report: The 260 demonstrators, of all ages, carried picnic baskets, water jugs, Bibles and a major weapon - their willingness to march, sing and pray in protest against discrimination. They gathered early this morning (August 27) in Birmingham 's Kelly Ingram Park, where state troopers once (four months previous in May) used fire hoses and dog to put down their demonstrations. It was peaceful in the Birmingham park as the marchers waited for the buses. The police, now part of a moderate city power structure, directed traffic around the square and did not interfere with the gathering... An old man commented on the 20 - hour ride, which was bound to be less than comfortable: "You forget we Negroes have been riding buses all our lives. We do n't have the money to fly in airplanes. '' John Marshall Kilimanjaro, a demonstrator traveling from Greensboro, North Carolina, said: Contrary to the mythology, the early moments of the March -- getting there -- was no picnic. People were afraid. We did n't know what we would meet. There was no precedent. Sitting across from me was a black preacher with a white collar. He was an AME preacher. We talked. Every now and then, people on the bus sang ' Oh Freedom ' and ' We Shall Overcome, ' but for the most part there was n't a whole bunch of singing. We were secretly praying that nothing violent happened. Other bus rides featured racial tension, as black activists criticized liberal white participants as fair - weather friends. Hazel Mangle Rivers, who had paid $8 for her ticket -- "one - tenth of her husband 's weekly salary '' -- was quoted in the August 29 New York Times. Rivers stated that she was impressed by Washington 's civility: "The people are lots better up here than they are down South. They treat you much nicer. Why, when I was out there at the march a white man stepped on my foot, and he said, "Excuse me, '' and I said "Certainly! '' That 's the first time that has ever happened to me. I believe that was the first time a white person has ever really been nice to me. '' Some participants who arrived early held an all - night vigil outside the Department of Justice, claiming it had unfairly targeted civil rights activists and that it had been too lenient on white supremacists who attacked them. The Washington, D.C., police forces were mobilized to full capacity for the march, including reserve officers and deputized firefighters. A total of 5,900 police officers were on duty. The government mustered 2,000 men from the National Guard, and brought in 3,000 outside soldiers to join the 1,000 already stationed in the area. These additional soldiers were flown in on helicopters from bases in Virginia and North Carolina. The Pentagon readied 19,000 troops in the suburbs. All of the forces involved were prepared to implement a coordinated conflict strategy named "Operation Steep Hill ''. For the first time since Prohibition, liquor sales were banned in Washington D.C. Hospitals stockpiled blood plasma and cancelled elective surgeries. Major League Baseball cancelled two games between the Minnesota Twins and the last place Washington Senators even though the venue, D.C. Stadium, was nearly four miles from the Lincoln Memorial rally site. Rustin and Walter Fauntroy negotiated some security issues with the government, gaining approval for private marshals with the understanding that these would not be able to act against outside agitators. The FBI and Justice Department refused to provide preventive guards for buses traveling through the South to reach D.C. William Johnson recruited more than 1,000 police officers to serve on this force. Julius Hobson, an FBI informant who served on the March 's security force, told the team to be on the lookout for FBI infiltrators who might act as agents provocateurs. Jerry Bruno, President Kennedy 's advance man, was positioned to cut the power to the public address system in the event of any incendiary rally speech. The organizers originally planned to hold the march outside of the Capitol Building. However, Reuther persuaded them to move the march to the Lincoln Memorial. He believed the Lincoln Memorial would be less threatening to Congress and the occasion would be appropriate underneath the gaze of Abraham Lincoln 's statute. The committee, notably Rustin, agreed to move the site on the condition that Reuther pay for a $19,000 sound system so that everyone on the National Mall could hear the speakers and musicians. Rustin pushed hard for an expensive sound system, maintaining "We can not maintain order where people can not hear. '' The system was obtained and set up at the Lincoln Memorial, but was sabotaged on the day before the March. Its operators were unable to repair it. Fauntroy contacted Attorney General Robert Kennedy and his civil rights liaison Burke Marshall, demanding that the government fix the system. Fauntroy reportedly told them: "We have a couple hundred thousand people coming. Do you want a fight here tomorrow after all we 've done? '' The system was successfully rebuilt overnight by the U.S. Army Signal Corps. The march commanded national attention by preempting regularly scheduled television programs. As the first ceremony of such magnitude ever initiated and dominated by African Americans, the march also was the first to have its nature wholly misperceived in advance. Dominant expectations ran from paternal apprehension to dread. On Meet the Press, reporters grilled Roy Wilkins and Martin Luther King about widespread foreboding that "it would be impossible to bring more than 100,000 militant Negroes into Washington without incidents and possibly rioting. '' Life magazine declared that the capital was suffering "its worst case of invasion jitters since the First Battle of Bull Run. '' The Pentagon readied 19,000 troops in the suburbs and the jails shifted inmates to other prisons to make room for those arrested in mass arrests; the city banned all sales of alcoholic beverages; hospitals made room for riot casualties by postponing elective surgery. With nearly 1,700 extra correspondents supplementing the Washington press corps, the march drew a media assembly larger than the Kennedy inauguration two years earlier. Students from the University of California came together as black power organizations and emphasized on the importance of African American freedom struggle. The march included black political parties and William Worthy who was one of many who lead college students during the freedom struggle era. On August 28, more than 2,000 buses, 21 chartered trains, 10 chartered airliners, and uncounted cars converged on Washington. All regularly scheduled planes, trains, and buses were also filled to capacity. Although Randolph and Rustin had originally planned to fill the streets of Washington, D.C., the final route of the March covered only half of the National Mall. The march began at the Washington Monument and was scheduled to progress to the Lincoln Memorial with a program of music and speakers. Demonstrators were met at the monument by speakers and musicians. Women leaders were asked to march down Independence Avenue, while the male leaders marched on Pennsylvania Avenue with the media. The march failed to start on time because its leaders were meeting with members of Congress. To the leaders ' surprise, the assembled group began to march from the Washington Monument to the Lincoln Memorial without them. The leaders met the March at Constitution Avenue, where they linked arms at the head of a crowd in order to be photographed ' leading the march '. Marchers were not supposed to create their own signs, though this rule was not completely enforced by marshals. Most of the demonstrators did carry pre-made signs, available in piles at the Washington Monument. The UAW provided thousands of signs that, among other things, read: "There Is No Halfway House on the Road to Freedom, '' "Equal Rights and Jobs NOW, '' "UAW Supports Freedom March, '' "in Freedom we are Born, in Freedom we must Live, '' and "Before we 'll be a Slave, we 'll be Buried in our Grave. '' About 50 members of the American Nazi Party staged a counter-protest and were quickly dispersed by police. The rest of Washington was quiet during the March. Most non-participating workers stayed home. Jailers allowed inmates to watch the March on TV. Representatives from each of the sponsoring organizations addressed the crowd from the podium at the Lincoln Memorial. Speakers (dubbed "The Big Ten '') included The Big Six; three religious leaders (Catholic, Protestant, and Jewish); and labor leader Walter Reuther. None of the official speeches were by women; Josephine Baker gave a speech during the preliminary offerings, but women 's presence in the official program was limited to a "tribute '' led by Bayard Rustin, at which Daisy Bates spoke (see "excluded speakers '' below.) Floyd McKissick read James Farmer 's speech because Farmer had been arrested during a protest in Louisiana; Farmer had written that the protests would not stop "until the dogs stop biting us in the South and the rats stop biting us in the North. '' The actual order of the speakers was as follows: 1. A. Philip Randolph -- March Director, 2. Walter Reuther -- UAW, AFL - CIO, 3. Roy Wilkins -- NAACP, 4. John Lewis -- SNCC, 5. Daisy Bates -- Little Rock, Arkansas, 6. Dr. Eugene Carson Blake -- United Presbyterian Church and the National Council of Churches, 7. Floyd McKissick -- CORE, 8. Whitney Young -- National Urban League, 9. Several smaller speeches, including Rabbi Joachim Prinz -- American Jewish Congress, Mathew Ahmann -- National Catholic Conference, Josephine Baker -- actress, and 10. Dr. Martin Luther King Jr. -- SCLC. Then closing remarks by A. Philip Randolph and Bayard Rustin, March Organizers, leading with The Pledge and list of demands. Marian Anderson was scheduled to lead the National Anthem but was unable to arrive on time; Camilla Williams performed in her place. Following an invocation by Archbishop Patrick O'Boyle, the opening remarks were given by march director A. Philip Randolph, followed by Eugene Carson Blake. A tribute to "Negro Women Fighters for Freedom '' was then led by Bayard Rustin, at which Daisy Bates spoke briefly in place of Myrlie Evers, who had missed her flight. The tribute introduced Daisy Bates, Diane Nash, Prince E. Lee, Rosa Parks, and Gloria Richardson. The following speakers were SNCC chairman John Lewis, labor leader Walter Reuther and CORE chairman Floyd McKissick (substituting for arrested CORE director James Farmer). The Eva Jessye Choir then sang, and Rabbi Uri Miller (president of the Synagogue Council of America) offered a prayer, followed by National Urban League director Whitney Young, NCCIJ director Mathew Ahmann, and NAACP leader Roy Wilkins. After a performance by singer Mahalia Jackson, American Jewish Congress president Joachim Prinz spoke, followed by SCLC president Martin Luther King Jr. Rustin then read the march 's official demands for the crowd 's approval, and Randolph led the crowd in a pledge to continue working for the march 's goals. The program was closed with a benediction by Morehouse College president Benjamin Mays. Although one of the officially stated purposes of the march was to support the civil rights bill introduced by the Kennedy Administration, several of the speakers criticized the proposed law as insufficient. Two government agents stood by in a position to cut power to the microphone if necessary. Roy Wilkins announced that W.E.B. Du Bois had died in Ghana the previous night; the crowd observed a moment of silence in his memory. Wilkins had initially refused to announce the news because he despised Du Bois as a Communist -- but then insisted on making the announcement when he realized that Randolph would make it if he did n't. Wilkins said: "Regardless of the fact that in his later years Dr. Du Bois chose another path, it is incontrovertible that at the dawn of the twentieth century his was the voice that was calling you to gather here today in this cause. If you want to read something that applies to 1963 go back and get a volume of The Souls of Black Folk by Du Bois, published in 1903. '' John Lewis of SNCC was the youngest speaker at the event. His speech -- which a number of SNCC activists had helped write -- took the Administration to task for how little it had done to protect southern blacks and civil rights workers under attack in the Deep South. Deleted from his original speech at the insistence of more conservative and pro-Kennedy leaders were phrases such as: In good conscience, we can not support wholeheartedly the administration 's civil rights bill, for it is too little and too late... I want to know, which side is the federal government on?... The revolution is a serious one. Mr. Kennedy is trying to take the revolution out of the streets and put it into the courts. Listen, Mr. Kennedy. Listen, Mr. Congressman. Listen, fellow citizens. The black masses are on the march for jobs and freedom, and we must say to the politicians that there wo n't be a "cooling - off '' period. ... We will march through the South, through the heart of Dixie, the way Sherman did. We shall pursue our own scorched earth policy and burn Jim Crow to the ground -- nonviolently... Lewis ' speech was distributed to fellow organizers the evening before the march, garnering resistance from Reuther, O'Boye, and others who thought it was too divisive and militant. O'Boyle objected most strenuously to a part of the speech that called for immediate action and disavowed "patience. '' The government and moderate organizers could not countenance Lewis ' explicit opposition to Kennedy 's civil rights bill. That night, O'Boyle and other members of the Catholic delegation began preparing a statement announcing their withdrawal from the March. Reuther convinced them to wait and called Rustin; Rustin informed Lewis at 2 A.M. on the day of the march that his speech was unacceptable to key coalition members. (Rustin also reportedly contacted Tom Kahn, mistakenly believing that Kahn had edited the speech and inserted the line about Sherman 's March to the Sea. Rustin asked, "How could you do this? Do you know what Sherman did?) But Lewis did not want to change the speech. Other members of SNCC, including Stokely Carmichael, were also adamant that the speech not be censored. The dispute continued until minutes before talks were scheduled to begin. Under threat of public denouncement by the religious leaders, and under pressure from the rest of his coalition, Lewis agreed to omit the ' inflammatory ' passages. Many activists from SNCC, CORE, and even SCLC were angry at what they considered censorship of his speech. In the end, Lewis added a qualified endorsement of Kennedy 's civil rights legislation, saying: "It is true that we support the administration 's Civil Rights Bill. We support it with great reservation, however. '' Even after toning down his speech, Lewis called for activists to "get in and stay in the streets of every city, every village and hamlet of this nation until true freedom comes ''. The speech given by SCLC president King, who spoke last, became known as the "I Have a Dream '' speech, which was carried live by TV stations and subsequently considered the most impressive moment of the march. In it, King called for an end to racism in the United States. It invoked the Declaration of Independence, the Emancipation Proclamation, and the United States Constitution. At the end of the speech, Mahalia Jackson shouted from the crowd, "Tell them about the dream, Martin! '', and King departed from his prepared text for a partly improvised peroration on the theme of "I have a dream ''. Over time it has been hailed as a masterpiece of rhetoric, added to the National Recording Registry and memorialized by the National Park Service with an inscription on the spot where King stood to deliver the speech. A. Philip Randolph spoke first, promising: "we shall return again and again to Washington in ever growing numbers until total freedom is ours. '' Randolph also closed the event along with Bayard Rustin. Rustin followed King 's speech by slowly reading the list of demands. The two concluded by urging attendees to take various actions in support of the struggle. Walter Reuther urged Americans to pressure their politicians to act to address racial injustices. He said, American democracy is on trial in the eyes of the world... We can not successfully preach democracy in the world unless we first practice democracy at home. American democracy will lack the moral credentials and be both unequal to and unworthy of leading the forces of freedom against the forces of tyranny unless we take bold, affirmative, adequate steps to bridge the moral gap between American democracy 's noble promises and its ugly practices in the field of civil rights. According to Irving Bluestone, who was standing near the platform while Reuther delivered his remarks, he overheard two black women talking. One asked, "Who is that white man? '' The other replied, "Do n't you know him? That 's the white Martin Luther King. '' Author James Baldwin was prevented from speaking at the March on the grounds that his comments would be too inflammatory. Baldwin later commented on the irony of the "terrifying and profound '' requests that he prevent the March from happening: In my view, by that time, there was, on the one hand, nothing to prevent -- the March had already been co-opted -- and, on the other, no way of stopping the people from descending on Washington. What struck me most horribly was that virtually no one in power (including some blacks or Negroes who were somewhere next door to power) was able, even remotely, to accept the depth, the dimension, of the passion and the faith of the people. Despite the protests of organizer Anna Arnold Hedgeman, no women gave a speech at the March. Male organizers attributed this omission to the "difficulty of finding a single woman to speak without causing serious problems vis - à - vis other women and women 's groups ''. Hedgeman read a statement at an August 16 meeting, charging: In light of the role of Negro women in the struggle for freedom and especially in light of the extra burden they have carried because of the castration of our Negro men in this culture, it is incredible that no woman should appear as a speaker at the historic March on Washington Meeting at the Lincoln Memorial... The assembled group agreed that Myrlie Evers, the new widow of Medgar Evers, could speak during the "Tribute to Women ''. However, Mrs. Evers was unavailable. Daisy Bates spoke briefly (less than 200 words) in place of Myrlie Evers, who had missed her flight. Earlier, Josephine Baker had addressed the crowd before the official program began. Although Gloria Richardson was on the program and had been asked to give a two - minute speech, when she arrived at the stage her chair with her name on it had been removed, and the event marshal took her microphone away after she said "hello ''. Richardson, along with Rosa Parks and Lena Horne, was escorted away from the podium before Martin Luther King Jr. spoke. Early plans for the March would have included an "Unemployed Worker '' as one of the speakers. This position was eliminated, furthering criticism of the March 's middle - class bias. Gospel legend Mahalia Jackson sang "How I Got Over '', and Marian Anderson sang "He 's Got the Whole World in His Hands ''. This was not Marian Anderson 's first appearance at the Lincoln Memorial. In 1939, the Daughters of the American Revolution refused permission for Anderson to sing to an integrated audience in Constitution Hall. With the aid of First Lady Eleanor Roosevelt and her husband Franklin D. Roosevelt, Anderson performed a critically acclaimed open - air concert on Easter Sunday, 1939, on the steps of the Lincoln Memorial. Joan Baez led the crowds in several verses of "We Shall Overcome '' and "Oh Freedom ''. Musician Bob Dylan performed "When the Ship Comes In '', for which he was joined by Baez. Dylan also performed "Only a Pawn in Their Game '', a provocative and not completely popular choice because it asserted that Byron De La Beckwith, as a poor white man, was not personally or primarily to blame for the murder of Medgar Evers. Peter, Paul and Mary sang "If I Had a Hammer '' and Dylan 's "Blowin ' in the Wind ''. Odetta sang "I 'm On My Way ''. Some participants, including Dick Gregory criticized the choice of mostly white performers and the lack of group participation in the singing. Dylan himself said he felt uncomfortable as a white man serving as a public image for the Civil Rights Movement. After the March on Washington, he performed at few other immediately politicized events. The event featured many prominent celebrities in addition to singers on the program. Harry Belafonte, Sidney Poitier, James Baldwin, Jackie Robinson, Sammy Davis, Jr., Ruby Dee, Diahann Carroll, and Lena Horne were among the black celebrities attending. There were also quite a few white celebrities there supporting the cause: James Garner, Charlton Heston, Paul Newman, Joanne Woodward, Marlon Brando, and Burt Lancaster, among others. After the March, the speakers travelled to the White House for a brief discussion of proposed civil rights legislation with President Kennedy. Kennedy had watched King 's speech on TV and was very impressed. According to biographer Thomas C. Reeves, Kennedy "felt that he would be booed at the March, and also did n't want to meet with organizers before the March because he did n't want a list of demands. He arranged a 5 P.M. meeting at the White House with the 10 leaders on the 28th. '' The March was considered a "triumph of managed protest '' and Kennedy felt it was a victory for him as well -- bolstering the chances for his civil rights bill. Media attention gave the march national exposure, carrying the organizers ' speeches and offering their own commentary. In his section The March on Washington and Television News, William Thomas notes: "Over five hundred cameramen, technicians, and correspondents from the major networks were set to cover the event. More cameras would be set up than had filmed the last Presidential inauguration. One camera was positioned high in the Washington Monument, to give dramatic vistas of the marchers ''. The major networks broadcast some of the March live, though they interspersed footage of interviews with politicians. Subsequent broadcasts focused heavily on the "I have a dream '' portion of King 's speech. The Voice of America translated the speeches and rebroadcast them in 36 languages. The United States Information Agency organized a press conference for the benefit of foreign journalists, and also created a documentary film of the event for distribution to embassies abroad. Commented Michael Thelwell of SNCC: "So it happened that Negro students from the South, some of whom still had unhealed bruises from the electric cattle prods which Southern police used to break up demonstrations, were recorded for the screens of the world portraying ' American Democracy at Work. ' '' Although the mass media generally declared the March successful because of its high turnout, organizers were not confident that it would create change. Randolph and Rustin abandoned their belief in the effectiveness of marching on Washington. King maintained faith that action in Washington could work, but determined that future marchers would need to call greater attention to economic injustice. In 1967 -- 1968, he organized a Poor People 's Campaign to occupy the National Mall with a shantytown. Black nationalist Malcolm X, in his Message to the Grass Roots speech, criticized the march, describing it as "a picnic '' and "a circus ''. He said the civil rights leaders had diluted the original purpose of the march, which had been to show the strength and anger of black people, by allowing white people and organizations to help plan and participate in the march. One SNCC staffer commented during the march, "He 's denouncing us as clowns, but he 's right there with the clown show. '' But the membership of SNCC, increasingly frustrated with the tactics of the NAACP and other moderate groups, gradually embraced Malcolm X 's position. Segregationists including William Jennings Bryan Dorn criticized the government for cooperating with the civil rights activists. Senator Olin D. Johnston rejected an invitation to attend, writing: "You are committing the worst possible mistake in promoting this March. You should know that criminal, fanatical, and communistic elements, as well as crackpots, will move in to take every advantage of this mob. You certainly will have no influence on any member of Congress, including myself. '' Many participants said they felt the March was a historic and life - changing experience. Nan Grogan Orrock, a student at Mary Washington College, said: "You could n't help but get swept up in the feeling of the March. It was an incredible experience of this mass of humanity with one mind moving down the street. It was like being part of a glacier. You could feel the sense of collective will and effort in the air. '' SNCC organizer Bob Zellner reported that the event "provided dramatic proof that the sometimes quiet and always dangerous work we did in the Deep South had had a profound national impact. The spectacle of a quarter of a million supporters and activists gave me an assurance that the work I was in the process of dedicating my life to was worth doing. '' Richard Brown, then a white graduate student at Harvard University, recalls that the March fostered direct actions for economic progress: "Henry Armstrong and I compared notes. I realized the Congress of Racial Equality might help black employment in Boston by urging businesses to hire contractors like Armstrong. He agreed to help start a list of reliable contractors that CORE could promote. It was a modest effort -- but it moved in the right direction. '' Other participants, more sympathetic to Malcolm X and the black nationalists, expressed ambivalence. One marcher from New York explained: It 's like St. Patrick 's Day. I came out of respect for what my people are doing, not because I believe it will do any good. I thought it would do some good in the beginning. But when the march started to get all the official approval from Mastah Kennedy, Mastah Wagner, Mastah Spellman, and they started setting limits on how we had to march peacefully, I knew that the march was going to be a mockery, that they were giving us something again. Marcher Beverly Alston thought that the day had its greatest impact within the movement: "Culturally, there has been tremendous progress over the past forty years. Black awareness and self - determination has soared. Politically, I just do n't think we 've made enough progress. '' Fifteen - year - old Ericka Jenkins from Washington said: I saw people laughing and listening and standing very close to one another, almost in an embrace. Children of every size, pregnant women, elderly people who seemed tired but happy to be there, clothing that made me know that they struggled to make it day to day, made me know they worked in farms or offices or even nearby for the government. I did n't see teenagers alone; I saw groups of teenagers with teachers. White people (were) standing in wonder. Their eyes were open, they were listening. Openness and nothing on guard -- I saw that in everybody. I was so happy to see that in the white people that they could listen and take in and respect and believe in the words of a black person. I had never seen anything like that. Some people discussed racism becoming less explicit after the March. Reverend Abraham Woods of Birmingham commented: "Everything has changed. And when you look at it, nothing has changed. Racism is under the surface, and an incident that could scratch it, can bring it out. '' The symbolism of the March has been contested since before it even took place. In the years following the March, movement radicals increasingly subscribed to Malcolm X 's narrative of the March as a co-optation by the white establishment. Liberals and conservatives tended to embrace the March, but focused mostly on King 's "I Have a Dream '' speech and the legislative successes of 1964 and 1965. The mass media identified King 's speech as a highlight of the event and focused on this oration to the exclusion of other aspects. For several decades, King took center stage in narratives about the March. More recently, historians and commentators have acknowledged the role played by Bayard Rustin in organizing the event. Soon after the speakers ended their meetings with Congress to go join the March, both houses passed legislation to create a dispute arbitration board for striking railroad workers. The March is credited with propelling the U.S. government into action on civil rights, creating political momentum for the Civil Rights Act of 1964 and the Voting Rights Act of 1965. The cooperation of a Democratic administration with the issue of civil rights marked a pivotal moment in voter alignment within the U.S. The Democratic Party gave up the Solid South -- its undivided support since Reconstruction among the segregated Southern states -- and went on to capture a high proportion of votes from blacks from the Republicans. The 1963 March also spurred anniversary marches that occur every five years, with the 20th and 25th being some of the most well known. The 25th Anniversary theme was "We Still have a Dream... Jobs * Peace * Freedom. '' At the 2013 anniversary march, President Barack Obama conferred a posthumous Presidential Medal of Freedom on Bayard Rustin and 15 others. For the 50th Anniversary, the United States Postal Service released a forever stamp that commemorates the 1963 March on Washington. The stamp shows marchers near the Washington Monument with signs calling for equal rights and jobs for all. In 2013, the Economic Policy Institute launched a series of reports around the theme of "The Unfinished March ''. These reports analyze the goals of the original march and assess how much progress has been made. They echo the message of Randolph and Rustin that civil rights can not transform people 's quality of life unless accompanied by economic justice. They contend that many of the March 's primary goals -- including housing, integrated education, and widespread employment at living wages -- have not been accomplished. They further argued that although legal advances were made, black people still live in concentrated areas of poverty ("ghettoes ''), where they receive inferior education and suffer from widespread unemployment. Dedrick Muhammad of the NAACP writes that racial inequality of income and homeownership have increased since 1963 and worsened during the recent Great Recession. Sidney Poitier, Harry Belafonte and Charlton Heston Actor Ossie Davis Dr. Ralph Bunche Major League Baseball player, Jackie Robinson Four young marchers singing Charlton Heston, James Baldwin, Marlon Brando, and Harry Belafonte Food service crew Sammy Davis Jr., with Roy Wilkins, Executive Secretary of NAACP Vocalists Peter, Paul, and Mary National Basketball Association player, Bill Russell Notes Bibliography Further reading Video

the neurotransmitter that is released by the postganglionic axons in the sympathetic nervous system

Sympathetic nervous system - wikipedia The sympathetic nervous system (SNS) is one of the two main divisions of the autonomic nervous system, the other being the parasympathetic nervous system. (The enteric nervous system (ENS) is now usually referred to as separate from the autonomic nervous system since it has its own independent reflex activity.) The autonomic nervous system functions to regulate the body 's unconscious actions. The sympathetic nervous system 's primary process is to stimulate the body 's fight - or - flight response. It is, however, constantly active at a basic level to maintain homeostasis. The sympathetic nervous system is described as being complementary to the parasympathetic nervous system which stimulates the body to "feed and breed '' and to (then) "rest - and - digest ''. There are two kinds of neurons involved in the transmission of any signal through the sympathetic system: pre-ganglionic and post-ganglionic. The shorter preganglionic neurons originate from the thoracolumbar region of the spinal cord specifically at T1 to L2 ~ L3, and travel to a ganglion, often one of the paravertebral ganglia, where they synapse with a postganglionic neuron. From there, the long postganglionic neurons extend across most of the body. At the synapses within the ganglia, preganglionic neurons release acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that activates nicotinic acetylcholine receptors on postganglionic neurons. In response to this stimulus, the postganglionic neurons release norepinephrine, which activates adrenergic receptors that are present on the peripheral target tissues. The activation of target tissue receptors causes the effects associated with the sympathetic system. However, there are three important exceptions: Sympathetic nerves arise from near the middle of the spinal cord in the intermediolateral nucleus of the lateral grey column, beginning at the first thoracic vertebra of the vertebral column and are thought to extend to the second or third lumbar vertebra. Because its cells begin in the thoracic and lumbar regions of the spinal cord, the sympathetic nervous system is said to have a thoracolumbar outflow. Axons of these nerves leave the spinal cord through the anterior root. They pass near the spinal (sensory) ganglion, where they enter the anterior rami of the spinal nerves. However, unlike somatic innervation, they quickly separate out through white rami connectors (so called from the shiny white sheaths of myelin around each axon) that connect to either the paravertebral (which lie near the vertebral column) or prevertebral (which lie near the aortic bifurcation) ganglia extending alongside the spinal column. To reach target organs and glands, the axons must travel long distances in the body, and, to accomplish this, many axons relay their message to a second cell through synaptic transmission. The ends of the axons link across a space, the synapse, to the dendrites of the second cell. The first cell (the presynaptic cell) sends a neurotransmitter across the synaptic cleft where it activates the second cell (the postsynaptic cell). The message is then carried to the final destination. Presynaptic nerves ' axons terminate in either the paravertebral ganglia or prevertebral ganglia. There are four different paths an axon can take before reaching its terminal. In all cases, the axon enters the paravertebral ganglion at the level of its originating spinal nerve. After this, it can then either synapse in this ganglion, ascend to a more superior or descend to a more inferior paravertebral ganglion and synapse there, or it can descend to a prevertebral ganglion and synapse there with the postsynaptic cell. The postsynaptic cell then goes on to innervate the targeted end effector (i.e. gland, smooth muscle, etc.). Because paravertebral and prevertebral ganglia are relatively close to the spinal cord, presynaptic neurons are generally much shorter than their postsynaptic counterparts, which must extend throughout the body to reach their destinations. A notable exception to the routes mentioned above is the sympathetic innervation of the suprarenal (adrenal) medulla. In this case, presynaptic neurons pass through paravertebral ganglia, on through prevertebral ganglia and then synapse directly with suprarenal tissue. This tissue consists of cells that have pseudo-neuron like qualities in that when activated by the presynaptic neuron, they will release their neurotransmitter (epinephrine) directly into the bloodstream. In the sympathetic nervous system and other components of the peripheral nervous system, these synapses are made at sites called ganglia. The cell that sends its fiber is called a preganglionic cell, while the cell whose fiber leaves the ganglion is called a postganglionic cell. As mentioned previously, the preganglionic cells of the sympathetic nervous system are located between the first thoracic segment and third lumbar segments of the spinal cord. Postganglionic cells have their cell bodies in the ganglia and send their axons to target organs or glands. The ganglia include not just the sympathetic trunks but also the cervical ganglia (superior, middle and inferior), which sends sympathetic nerve fibers to the head and thorax organs, and the celiac and mesenteric ganglia (which send sympathetic fibers to the gut). Messages travel through the sympathetic nervous system in a bi-directional flow. Efferent messages can trigger changes in different parts of the body simultaneously. For example, the sympathetic nervous system can accelerate heart rate; widen bronchial passages; decrease motility (movement) of the large intestine; constrict blood vessels; increase peristalsis in the oesophagus; cause pupillary dilation, piloerection (goose bumps) and perspiration (sweating); and raise blood pressure. One exception is with certain blood vessels such as those in the cerebral and coronary arteries, which dilate (rather than constrict) with an increase in sympathetic tone. This is because of a proportional increase in the presence of β adrenergic receptors rather than α receptors. β receptors promote vessel dilation instead of constriction like α1 receptors. An alternative explanation is that the primary (and direct) effect of sympathetic stimulation on coronary arteries is vasoconstriction followed by a secondary vasodilation caused by the release of vasodilatory metabolites due to the sympathetically increased cardiac inotropy and heart rate. This secondary vasodilation caused by the primary vasoconstriction is termed functional sympatholysis, the overall effect of which on coronary arteries is dilation. The target synapse of the postganglionic neuron is mediated by adrenergic receptors and is activated by either norepinephrine (noradrenaline) or epinephrine (adrenaline). The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for up - and down - regulating many homeostatic mechanisms in living organisms. Fibers from the SNS innervate tissues in almost every organ system, providing at least some regulation of functions as diverse as pupil diameter, gut motility, and urinary system output and function. It is perhaps best known for mediating the neuronal and hormonal stress response commonly known as the fight - or - flight response. This response is also known as sympatho - adrenal response of the body, as the preganglionic sympathetic fibers that end in the adrenal medulla (but also all other sympathetic fibers) secrete acetylcholine, which activates the great secretion of adrenaline (epinephrine) and to a lesser extent noradrenaline (norepinephrine) from it. Therefore, this response that acts primarily on the cardiovascular system is mediated directly via impulses transmitted through the sympathetic nervous system and indirectly via catecholamines secreted from the adrenal medulla. The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for priming the body for action, particularly in situations threatening survival. One example of this priming is in the moments before waking, in which sympathetic outflow spontaneously increases in preparation for action. Sympathetic nervous system stimulation causes vasoconstriction of most blood vessels, including many of those in the skin, the digestive tract, and the kidneys. This occurs as a result of activation of alpha - 1 adrenergic receptors by norepinephrine released by post-ganglionic sympathetic neurons. These receptors exist throughout the vasculature of the body but are inhibited and counterbalanced by beta - 2 adrenergic receptors (stimulated by epinephrine release from the adrenal glands) in the skeletal muscles, the heart, the lungs, and the brain during a sympathoadrenal response. The net effect of this is a shunting of blood away from the organs not necessary to the immediate survival of the organism and an increase in blood flow to those organs involved in intense physical activity. The afferent fibers of the autonomic nervous system, which transmit sensory information from the internal organs of the body back to the central nervous system (or CNS), are not divided into parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers as the efferent fibers are. Instead, autonomic sensory information is conducted by general visceral afferent fibers. General visceral afferent sensations are mostly unconscious visceral motor reflex sensations from hollow organs and glands that are transmitted to the CNS. While the unconscious reflex arcs normally are undetectable, in certain instances they may send pain sensations to the CNS masked as referred pain. If the peritoneal cavity becomes inflamed or if the bowel is suddenly distended, the body will interpret the afferent pain stimulus as somatic in origin. This pain is usually non-localized. The pain is also usually referred to dermatomes that are at the same spinal nerve level as the visceral afferent synapse. Together with the other component of the autonomic nervous system, the parasympathetic nervous system, the sympathetic nervous system aids in the control of most of the body 's internal organs. Reaction to stress -- as in the flight - or - fight response -- is thought to counteract the parasympathetic system, which generally works to promote maintenance of the body at rest. The comprehensive functions of both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems are not so straightforward, but this is a useful rule of thumb. In heart failure, the sympathetic nervous system increases its activity, leading to increased force of muscular contractions that in turn increases the stroke volume, as well as peripheral vasoconstriction to maintain blood pressure. However, these effects accelerate disease progression, eventually increasing mortality in heart failure. Sympathicotonia is a stimulated condition of the sympathetic nervous system, marked by vascular spasm, elevated blood pressure, and goose bumps. A recent study has shown the expansion of Foxp3+ natural Treg in the bone marrow of mice after brain ischemia and this myeloid Treg expansion is related to sympathetic stress signaling after brain ischemia. The name of this system can be traced to the concept of sympathy, in the sense of "connection between parts '', first used medically by Galen. In the 18th century, Jacob B. Winslow applied the term specifically to nerves.

where does mcdonald's get their sausage from

International availability of McDonald 's products - wikipedia McDonald 's Corporation (NYSE: MCD) is the world 's largest chain of fast food restaurants, serving around 68 million customers daily in 119 countries. McDonald 's traces its origins to a 1940 restaurant in San Bernardino, California. After expanding within the United States, McDonald 's became an international corporation in 1967, when it opened a location in Richmond, Canada. By the end of the 1970s, McDonald 's restaurants existed in five of the Earth 's seven continents; an African location came in 1992. In order to cater to local tastes and culinary traditions, and often in respect of particular laws or religious beliefs, McDonald 's offers regionalized versions of its menu among and within different countries. As a result, products found in one country or region may not be found in McDonald 's restaurants in other countries. In 2001, McDonald 's introduced the McFalafel sandwich in its Egypt locations. These restaurants also offer a Chicken Big Mac and Fish Mac, variations on the standard Big Mac which substitute breaded chicken or fish, respectively, for the usual beef patties. In the summer of 2008, McDonald 's introduced fish fingers with tartar dipping sauce as a side in Egyptian restaurants. Early 2010 saw the introduction of Egyptian cookies to the Cairo location. Egypt has almost 70 locations throughout the country. The McArabia, a grilled chicken sandwich from Morocco. In 2005, a product called the McSahara was briefly sold. In late 2006, the Chicken Mythic, Petit Plaisirs ("small pleasures, '' a sandwich usually made from chicken or beef), and a 280 - gram Recette Moutarde ("mustard burger '') were released. During the Islamic holy month of Ramadan, a special menu is offered for the breaking of the fast, including local specialties such as dates, milk, and harira. As in all McDonald 's locations in the Islamic Middle East, food in Bahraini locations is halal. In addition to the McArabia, Bahraini locations offer, beginning in March 2009, the McCrispy, a meal consisting of up to three chicken fingers with a choice of barbecue, sweet and sour, or garlic sauce. In China, Chicken McNuggets can come with the traditional barbecue, sweet and sour, honey and hot mustard sauces; or even a special chili garlic sauce, which is popular in China. Chinese menus also include crispy Buffalo chicken wings, called McWings. All chicken burgers offered in Chinese McDonald 's use thigh fillet (e.g., Premium Grilled Thigh Fillet Burger, Hot and Spicy Grilled Thigh Fillet Burger), rather than breast meat, which is preferred in western countries. Unique ice cream flavors such as Matcha Green Tea ice cream is available. Pies come in two standard flavors: pineapple or taro, although special flavors including chocolate, apple, banana, and azuki bean have also been offered on a limited basis. There is a seasonal Chinese New Year meal available, including the Grilled Chicken Burger and curly fries, with a horoscope of the twelve zodiac animals of Chinese astrology and traditional red packets (lai see). A unique feature of Chinese McDonald 's locations is the "McExpress '' walk - up window, which sells a small range of drinks and ice cream desserts. Most McExpress windows are attached to restaurants, but in some cases, they can be physically independent, typically in locations such as shopping malls, department stores and subway stations. Most major urban locations offer delivery for an extra fee. Deliveries are usually made by electrically powered scooters, although in several cities where motorcycle bans are in place, a conventional courier bicycle is used. The food is normally carried in a large insulated backpack. Hong Kong hosts some of the world 's busiest McDonald 's with many operating 24 hours a day. Breakfasts include pasta soups with sausage or chicken. Locations offer cups of corn as substitutes for French fries or à la carte. Desserts include soft serve ice cream in azuki bean and mung bean flavors; pineapple or red bean sundaes are sometimes offered. A selection of seasonal or other limited - time foods is available, such as spicy French fries, the Shogun Burger (a teriyaki pork patty with lettuce served on a sesame seed bun), salads, soups such as tomato and pumpkin, taco flatbreads, the Rice Fantastic (a burger - like entree with rice patties instead of buns). Other such specialties have included shrimp burgers, Wasabi Filet O ' Fish, onion rings, and Shake Shake fries, flavored French fries in flavors such as seaweed, chargrill, French onion, and salt and pepper. During the local Bun Festival, restaurants on the island of Cheung Chau sell mushroom burgers instead of hamburgers and other meat products. Toys, gift and other non-food promotion products are offered from time to time. Indian McDonald 's serve the Chicken Maharaja Mac, a grilled chicken double patty with habanero sauce and Veg Maharaja Mac, cheese and corn double patty with cocktail sauce. Apart from these, the McSpicy burgers / wraps, McGrill and Pizza McPuff are sold in India. In 2016, McDonald 's released two limited edition burgers called the Mexican and Lebanese McAloo Tikki. The Mexican burger consists of jalapeños, tomatoes and a Mexican marinara sauce; while its Lebanese counterpart is loaded with harissa mayonnaise sauce and gherkins. Both these burgers contain the signature aloo patty with cornmeal dusted buns. Past promotional items have included the McPaneer and Grilled Chicken Royale, Mexican Spice Chicken and Veg, Asian Hot Garlic Dip and African Peri Peri Shake Shake (as part of the Spice Fest) Indi - McSpicy and the McCurry Pan. McDonald 's in India do not serve beef products, in deference to Hindu beliefs. Meat and vegetarian meals are prepared in separate areas of the restaurant due to religious laws; cooks preparing vegetarian dishes wear a distinctive green apron. To accommodate Muslim - majority population, all McDonald 's in Indonesia are certified halal, which means they do not serve bacon or pork patties, while serving only beef, chicken, and fish. Local items include crispy and spicy fried chicken; the McRice, a small mound of steamed rice wrapped in paper and available to supersize; McSoup, a chicken flavored soup with bits of croutons and vegetables; and Buryam (short for bubur ayam or chicken congee), later renamed as Bubur Ayam Spesial with the addition of fried egg topping. Sambal chili sauce, an essential component of Indonesian cuisine, and tomato ketchup are available as condiments. McDonald 's fried chicken, McRice, and fruit tea are sold together as PaNas (paket nasi or "rice package '') with an additional sachet of sambal chili sauce. This adopts the Indonesians ' way of consuming ayam goreng (fried chicken) with steamed rice and sambal. Other than fried chicken with rice and bubur ayam chicken rice congee, locals ' preference of rice - based food is accommodated further by the introduction of Chicken with Spicy Tomato and Chicken Teriyaki, which is a bowl of steamed rice topped with strips of fried chicken patty with sauces and vegetables, similar to the Japanese donburi (rice bowl) fashion of serving. McDonald 's in Indonesia also promotes some seasonal foods, sold only within a limited certain period of time. Those limited periods include Chinese New Year, Ramadhan, and Independence Day specials. During Chinese New Year, a Beef Prosperity Burger, consisting of two beef patties covered in black pepper sauce and topped with diced onions, is sold. During Ramadhan, McDonald 's Indonesia has offered BBQ Beef Flatbread (2014), Curry Beef Delight (2015), Moroccan Burger (2016) and Ayam Kremes (2017). In certain periods, such as August (the month of Indonesian independence), McDonald 's Indonesia launched local - inspired dishes such as the Burger Sate, a hamburger with satay sauce (spicy ground peanut sauce), with Teh Soda Markisa (passion fruit tea soda); Local - inspired dessert include McFlurry with markisa (passion fruit) and rujak pedas (spicy mango rujak) flavour. The only entirely kosher McDonald 's are in Israel and Argentina. In these locations, patties are barbecued on charcoal rather than fried. Some kosher locations serve milk based desserts, but in separate booths, allowing for full separation of dairy and meat products in food preparation areas. However, most of the McDonald 's outlets in Israel are not kosher service, as they serve cheeseburgers, which mix dairy and meat products. Specialty items in Israeli McDonald 's include the McShawarma and McKebab, both served on flatbread. On January 18, 2011, McDonald 's introduced the McFalafel sandwich in Israel, but withdrew the item six months later. Within the last few years they have added a vegetarian option, corn sticks (which are bite sized corn shniztels). Regular menu items in Japanese McDonald 's include: the Teriyaki McBurger, with ground pork patties, mayonnaise, lettuce, and teriyaki sauce; Shaka Shaka Chicken, a fried chicken strip served in a paper pouch, with cheese or pepper seasonings to shake in the bag; and the Fillet - O - Ebi (shrimp), with a fried shrimp patty and mustard. Breakfast options include a hot dog with pickle relish, ketchup, and mustard. As well as regular soft drinks (which in Japan include grape flavoured Fanta and iced tea), McDonald 's in Japan also serve cartons of milk, Minute Maid orange juice and "Yassai Seikatsu '', a type of vegetable juice. Seasonal and limited - time items have included: On United States military establishments in Japan (like the US Naval Base in Yokosuka), both American and Japanese menus are sold, depending on availability. Japan has made "American burgers ''. The burgers in Japan are based on imaginations and symbolisms of burgers from different regions of the U.S. Such as Idaho burgers. All McDonald 's in Malaysia are certified halal. Regular menu items include the Spicy Chicken McDeluxe, a burger with crispy marinated chicken, lettuce, and special sauce in a cornmeal bun, the Bubur Ayam McD ("McD Chicken Porridge ''), chicken strips in rice porridge with scallions, sliced ginger, fried shallots, and diced chilies, and the Ayam Goreng McD ("McD 's Fried Chicken ''), large chicken strips made just like the ones sold at KFC restaurants served in two - piece or three - piece meals. The Ayam Goreng McD was introduced as McDonald 's Fried Chicken in 1986. The product 's name was changed to Chicken McCrispy in 2000 and again to Ayam Goreng McD in 2002 to better suit the country 's culture. Other seasonal and limited - time specialties have included the Bubur Ikan McD (a fish variant of the Bubur Ayam McD), the Grilled Chicken Foldover (equivalent to the McArabia), the Grilled Chicken Burger and spicy McNuggets. Specialty desserts have included a kiwifruit sundae, served in 2000 in Kuala Lumpur. Like in Singapore and Indonesia, during Chinese New Year, Prosperity Burgers are sold. These come in beef and chicken varieties. In 2011, these were served with a McFizz, a specialty beverage mixing and Curly Fries Minute Maid orange juice and Sprite. Another limited time promotional item that appears almost yearly is the Samurai Burger, a large beef burger dipped in teriyaki sauce. In 2012 it was promoted with two new sides, a Sakura McFizz (Sprite + Ribena), and the Katsu Curry McShakers. They also serve a unique ' Taro Pie, a pie made of taro All McDonald 's in Pakistan are certified halal. Pakistani menus resemble those of Middle Eastern and South Asian locations. McArabias and Spicy Chicken Burgers are popular in Pakistan. A Chicken Big Mac is also available. In addition to apple pie, McDonald 's Pakistan serves choco - orange pie and blueberry custard pie, which is fried. All McDonald 's Pakistan menu items with the exception of ice cream cones are also available for delivery. Most Filipinos colloquially refer to McDonald 's as "McDo '' (equivalent to "Mickey D 's ''), and the term has been adapted by McDonald 's Philippines, even naming most of their products after the term. Menu items in McDonald 's in the Philippines include McSpaghetti, Chicken McDo, Burger McDo, and the Hamdesal, a Pandesal bun with pineapple glaze syrup, mayonnaise, and Canadian bacon served with scrambled eggs, cheese, or both. From 2001 to 2006 the McRice, steamed rice formed into buns, was available as a replacement for bread buns on beef and chicken sandwiches. Breakfast options include longaniza, a Philippine sausage, served with rice and a fried egg. Some pies come in pineapple, and taro flavors, although the McDonald 's Apple Pie is served in all locations. Only select locations serve milkshakes. Twister Fries is also served seasonally, as well as Shake Shake Fries, which are McDonald 's French Fries that come in a paper bag and served with a packet of flavored powder (Barbeque, Cheesy Butter, Sour Cream, Ketchup, and Pizza flavors); customers must administer the flavoring to the bag of fries themselves, shaking the bag until the powder is evenly distributed among the fries. They are available annually. McDonald 's in the Philippines also promotes movie tie - in products seasonally, such as the Banana - Oreo McFlurry and Banana McFloat during the release of the Minions movie in 2015. All McDonald 's in Saudi Arabia are certified halal. Saudi locations serve the Spicy McChicken, McArabia, and the Big Tasty, the latter of which is also available in some European locations. All McDonald 's in Singapore are certified halal. Singaporean locations offer the McSpicy, a spicy chicken burger. A 24 - hour McDelivery service is available in all locations on the island. The curry sauce is a dip unique to Singapore and is the favourite complementary dip to McNuggets. In 2011, due to congestion at the United States ' West Coast ports, the popular chicken nugget dip was unavailable for a period of time, causing a public outcry. A similar crisis happened in 2015. In July 2016, McDonald 's launched a limited edition take - home bottle of the curry sauce (375ml) and is limited to four purchases per single receipt. The news was met with overwhelming popularity and several outlets ran out of stock on the item in no time. McDonald 's has also introduced several special additions to the Singapore menu, such as the Salted Egg York Chicken Burger in 2016, coupled with salt & pepper shaker fries and gula mekala McFlurry. McDonald 's locations in South Korea serve a shrimp burger as well as a Bulgogi Burger, a pork patty in bulgogi marinade. The bulgogi - flavored sauce was developed by Ottogi, a large South Korean food manufacturer that provides all of the condiments to the country 's McDonald 's. A 24 - hour McDelivery service was launched in 2007 and now is available across South Korea. McDelivery also has an app available on both Google Play and the Apple Store. Dessert options include affogato. Former options included a green tea McFlurry and the McBingsu, a seasonal option similar to patbingsu. McDonald 's in Taiwan serve kao fan (烤 飯, kǎo fàn) (literally "baked rice ''), a burger - like entrée with rice patties instead of buns. It is modelled on the eponymous product of McDonald 's Japanese rival, MOS Burger. McDonald 's locations in Taiwan sell fried chicken legs to compete with KFC. Additionally, corn soup is available as a substitute for French fries or à la carte. In Thailand, McDonald 's serves the Samurai Pork Burger, with teriyaki sauce, lettuce, and mayonnaise. As in other Asian markets, Thai McDonald 's sell fried chicken and spicy chicken wings. Chilli sauce is available as a condiment, along with ketchup. Other Thailand - specific items include rice patties made with jasmine rice, the Caribbean Shrimp Burger, and a salad shaker based on som tam papaya salad. McDonald 's restaurants in Thailand also serve the Mega animals Mac (known as the Double Big Mac) all year long. Between October 1 and 13, 2013, or until supplies ran out, McDonald 's offered a "McVeggie '' burger to coincide with the tradition of many people of Chinese descent only eating vegetarian food during the annual "Kin J '' period. The McVeggie is an all vegetable fried patty consisting of potatoes, beets, peas and carrot topped with lettuce and teriyaki sauce. All McDonald 's meat in Turkey are certified halal by Pinar, a Turkish company. Restaurants offer the Turkish drink ayran and the McTurco, a type of kebab with chicken or beef. Turkish locations also serve onion rings, the Mega Mac (known as the Double Big Mac) and the Kofteburger, with a spiced mincemeat patty. In the United Arab Emirates, as of 2016, McDonald 's standard a-la - carte menu include the hamburger (marketed as "beefbuger ''), cheesebuger, double cheesebuger, chicken burger, veggie burger, Quarter Pounder with Cheese, Big Mac, Mega Mac, Big Tasty, McRoyale, McChicken, Spicy McChicken, Chicken Mac, Chicken Mega Mac, Grand Chicken (Classic, Deluxe, Special, and Spicy variants), McArabia Chicken, Chicken McNuggets, and Filet - O - Fish sandwiches. In some outlets, the Indian - inspired Mc Aloo Tikki burger is also served as part of the McSavers and Happy Meal lines. The McArabia initially was available as both a chicken and beef kofta variants, but only the chicken remained as standard, although the kofta and sujuk variants are sometimes reintroduced in limited promotional runs. Other limited edition sandwiches included The Asian, The Mexican, The French, and The Turkish. The standard menu formerly carried other McDonald 's staples such as the Chicken Fillet, the Spicy Chicken Fillet, and the McWings. McDonald 's in the U.A.E. is a certified halal chain. Vietnam serves broken rice also known as Cơm tấm, named simply as cơm. The dish consists of broken rice, grilled pork and various other sides that come at an extra price. Bánh mì (General term for bread) is also served and looks very similar to a Subway sandwich. Belgian McDonald 's serve the Croque McDo, consisting of two slices of Emmental cheese and a slice of ham toasted between two hamburger buns. This is a variation of the traditional croque - monsieur sandwich found in France and Belgium. The "Belgo '' burger is a hamburger with bacon, Belgian Maredsous cheese, roasted onions, and cocktail sauce. The McCountry sandwich is a regular menu item in Croatian McDonald 's restaurants, consisting of two pork sausage patties on a bun with cheese, lettuce, tomato, onion, and a special sauce. Another regular menu item is the McToast, a ham and cheese sandwich on toast. The Maestro Burger can also be found which is normally seen in the Netherlands. Seasonal and promotional offers include Greek and Italian offerings. McDonald 's in Cyprus sells the Greek Mac, a Big Mac variant with pita bread and tzatziki sauce, and the Greek Chicken, a Greek Mac with chicken patties instead of beef. A shrimp burger is also sold during the period of Lent when Orthodox Christians do n't eat meat. This only applies to the Republic of Cyprus, and not the northern Turkish Republic of Northern Cyprus, where due to the lack of international recognition, McDonald 's does not exist. The McCountry sandwich served in Croatia is also available in the Czech Republic. In 2012, McDonald 's added McSmažák, a variation on smažený sýr, a type of cheese sandwich. It is similar to the Slovak McSyr. In Denmark, every McDonald 's serves a small size chicken burger called "Chicken Salsa Cheese ''. As similar to Finland and Sweden 's "El Maco '', Danish McDonald 's locations sells "El Maco Jr. '': A small size "El Maco ''. Also following its other Scandinavian cousins, Danish McDonald 's serve a Daim McFlurry. In Finland, most McDonald 's hamburgers can be ordered with a rye bun, based on the success of the promotional "McRuis '' (McRye) burger. El Maco is a burger with salsa and sour cream sauce. The El Maco meal is served with a barbecue spice mixture and a paper bag in which the fries and the spice mixture are poured, similar to Japan 's Shaka Shaka Chicken. In France, McDonald 's offers donuts for breakfast and Kronenbourg 1664 beer in 25 or 33 cl measures. The Croque McDo and various Petit Plaisir items are available, as in Belgium and Morocco, respectively. In 2016, McDonald 's launched a summer menu, called the "American Summer '' Menu, with one burger containing crispy peppers. Standard menu items at German McDonald 's include the Hamburger Royal TS, Caesar salads, one Veggieburger called Veggie Clubhouse, and Caesar, honey mustard, and Ranch chicken wraps. The McRib sandwich, a seasonal item in most countries, is a permanent menu item in Germany. As of Mid-February 2013, McDonald 's Germany started selling the Mc Currywurst with bread roll or Fries, a hot sausage with tangy tomato sauce and Curry powder in mild and spicy. The German McDonald 's Breakfast does provide Brötchen, a crispy bread roll; McCroissant, a Croissant with stuffed with Ham and Cheese; Scrambled Eggs with Bacon and "Classic Breakfast '', a choice of bread rolls with sweet spreads resembling a very common German breakfast choice. Beer is no longer sold at all locations. It is still served in older outlets owned by German brewers with leases allowing the serving of beer. McDonald 's in Greece currently sells the Greek Mac, a Big Mac variant on pita bread with tzatziki sauce. Other regular menus include the McToast, a ham and cheese sandwich on toast, Deluxe fries (potato wedges), and onion rings. Heineken beer is also served in all locations. During the period of Lent when Orthodox Christians abstain from eating meat, McDonald 's also offers the McVeggie burger, a Shrimp Burger, a McWrap Shrimp, fried veggie snackers, spring rolls, and fried shrimp with dipping sauce. Hungarian McDonald 's sell the McFarm, once available in Greece. Limited - time products available only in Hungary have included McDonald 's version of the popular Hungarian breakfast food lángos, and a "Hungarian flavors '' menu. Italian McDonald 's offers, since 2000, Crispy McBacon, composed of two beef patties, one slice of cheddar, bacon and a special sauce. In 2014 a variation with chicken is offered. It also began offering "McItaly '' items in 2010 in a limited period. Products include burger with "100 percent made - in - Italy meat '' and various ingredients. The company advertises burgers in several European countries as using Italian beef. On May 24, 2013 McDonald 's Italia in cooperation with Barilla began offering a pasta salad McCafè, launched in 2005, has also been adapted to Italian taste. From May 2015 the menu includes the vegetarian burger McVeggie, offered here with the local "scamorza '' cheese. In Malta, McDonald 's sell mozzarella sticks and chicken wings as side dishes. The Big Tasty is a variant to the Big N ' Tasty while chicken nuggets come with an array of sauces, such as BBQ, sweet and sour, ketchup or mayonnaise. The McCafe was also first introduced in Malta, more specifically on its sister island Gozo, where the only McDonald 's and McCafe on the island are found in the Arcadia shopping centre in the capital city of Victoria. It is also the place where the McFtira was sold, a beef or chicken burger with the addition of goat cheese and served in traditional Maltese bread. In the Netherlands, McDonald 's sells the McKroket, a deep - fried roll containing beef ragout, similar to the Dutch bitterballen sold in snack bars. Dutch McDonald 's serve frite sauce or "American Sauce, '' a yellow mayonnaise - like sauce not eaten in the United States with French fries. The ChickenSaté burger was also offered, consisting of fried chicken with peanut sauce; this popular food is inspired by the Netherlands ' historical connection to Indonesia. The Joppie Burger was also available using Joppie sauce, popular in the Netherlands. Since 2015, the Maestro Burger menu has been available. The Maestro Burger is a large burger with sesameseed bread, 2 Angus beef patties, onion, lettuce, bacon and mustard. Also included in the menu is "Boerenfriet '', which are thick, large fries, as commonly found in burgerbars, as well as regular mayonnaise. The introduction of the Maestro Burger is part of the revamp McDonald 's is going through in the Netherlands since change of directors, focussing more on customers that seek higher quality burgers and that who would usually visit burgerbars. Special Dutch drinks include Fristi (a yogurt drink) and Chocomel (a chocolate milk drink). Also available in the Netherlands are stroopwafel McFlurries. As in Finland, Norwegian McDonald 's serve the El Maco (on a seasonal basis) and offer gluten free buns without an extra cost. They also serve a Laksewrap, deep - fried fish with salad and a mango slice in a tortilla. In 2002, the McAfrika burger was introduced in Norway, coinciding with major famines in Southern Africa. The name of the burger drew much negative publicity as being highly insensitive. The burger with vegetables were placed in pita bread. Offerings in Polish McDonald 's restaurants include: the WieśMac ("Country Mac ''), a quarter - pound beef patty with onions, lettuce, cheese, mustard, and horseradish sauce on a sesame seed bun; the Pikantny Kurczakburger ("Spicy Chickenburger ''), a chicken sandwich with lettuce and hot Mexican - style sauce; McWrap - tortilla with chicken available in two versions: Classic (mayonnaise, mild - Mexican sauce, lettuce, rucola, shredded cheese, two slices of tomato and chicken patty) and Honey - Mustard (honey - mustard sauce, lettuce, shredded cheese, two slices of tomato, two strips of bacon and chicken patty). During winter period you can get Kanapka Drwala ("The Lumberjack 's Sandwich '') - a big bun with pork rinds instead of sesame, a quarter pounder, bacon, big piece of deep - fried cheese, sauce and vegetables. To every Happy Meal there 's a free apple added. Does n't show amount of people that are being served daily. Portuguese McDonald 's offers a variety of soups, including their national dish of Kale Soup (caldo verde) and cream of carrot, white bean and spinach. These are offered as add - ons to Happy meals as well. There is also a McBifana and a McPrego on a ciabatta roll and an array of salads. The mixed salad contains olives, corn, onions and tomatoes. In November 2016 McDonalds Portugal introduced a vegetarian burger option called McVeggie (it 's made of quinoa, bell peppers, wheat flour, wheat protein, vegetable oil, wheat bran, eggs, vegetable starch, spices, salt, onion, garlic, green peas, sugar and mixed herbs). For dessert there is fresh pineapple chunks, apple cinnamon sundae, and a practical sandwich - shaped apple pie. Beer is available in all restaurants. In Russia, McDonald 's started selling special burgers with ingredients 100 % made in the Russian Federation such as cheese, bread, tomatoes, beef, bacon, lettuce in 2015 under the "Биф А - ля Рус (Beef à la Russe) '' name, aimed at authentic Russian native hamburger. In Slovakia, McDonald 's offers the McSyr, a sandwich containing breaded fried cheese and tartar sauce which emulates the Slovak dish vyprážaný syr. It is similar to the Czech McSmažák. Also, like in the United Kingdom, McDonald 's restaurants in Slovakia serve donuts, which are named McDonuts. McDonuts can be served with either vanilla or chocolate frosting. The McCountry sandwich served in Croatia is also available in the Slovenia. Swedish McDonald 's occasionally, when there is a time - limited campaign, serve the El Maco and offer gluten free buns without an extra cost. They also serve a vegan burger called the McBean. Ukraine features the McLavash sandwich on its menus in the southern part of the country, which is served in flatbread. It has two spicy beef patties, some greens, onion and tomato. The McLavash is also served in some other nearby countries. British and Irish McDonald 's serve the Chicken Legend, a chicken breast coated in seasoned batter either spicy tomato salsa, BBQ Sauce or mayonnaise. In June 2011, Deli Choices, a line of sandwich rolls with fillings, was released in the UK. Curry flavoured sauce is available for McNuggets in British and Irish restaurants. From 2003 to 2005, menus included the Quorn Premiere, a vegetarian burger with sweet chilli sauce, light Hellmann 's mayonnaise, tomato, and lettuce in a focaccia bun. In 2015, McDonald 's released a limited edition burger in the Republic of Ireland called the McMór. In 2016, this burger was brought back for six weeks. It features Ballymaloe Relish, Charleville cheddar and a potato bun. In 2016, McDonald 's launched the brand new BBQ Smokehouse Range of burgers. The two burgers that were launched contained chicken and beef with bacon, cheese and BBQ Sauce. Past promotional items have included the Apple Pie Sundae, Mozzarella Dippers, Cheese Melt Dippers, the Summer Chorizo Supreme, BBQ Chicken Premiere with Bacon, the 1955 burger, Apple and Blackberry Pie, and Festive Pie, with mincemeat and custard. A series of burgers intending to represent various American locales has been released under the "Great Taste of America '' name. These burgers have represented New York City, Chicago, Las Vegas, Texas, Arizona, Miami, California, and New Orleans. Not all of these burgers resemble their respective local cuisines. British and Irish McDonald 's also released a series of burgers representing several different countries in the world. These have included Australia, South Africa, Canada and Mexico. Several Summer and Winter menus have been launched. Also, McDonald 's has launched several kinds of McFlurrys over the past few years, such as Cornetto, Cadbury brands like Dairy Milk and Creme egg had mcflurrys launched. In Serbia, McDonald 's offers the McBaguette sandwich. The sandwich is available in two varieties including chicken or ham & cheese. The restaurants throughout the country offer alcoholic and energy drinks. They also offer orange juice and apple juice for the junior menus. French fries may be substituted with McDonald 's version of poutine. Previously, McDonald 's poutine was available widely only in Francophone Canada (Quebec and parts of New Brunswick) and available elsewhere on a more limited basis; however, in December 2013, McDonald 's formally announced the nationwide availability of poutine at all of its Canadian restaurants, due to popular demand. Quebec also saw the release of the limited - time 1967 Burger, commemorating Canada 's first McDonald 's franchise. Deli Choices were introduced throughout Canada in 2006. Unique to Canadian McDonald 's locations is the McMini, miniature sandwiches with grilled or crispy chicken; flavors include Pesto Chicken (later replaced by Zesty Mango) and Spicy Thai. As in the United States, the McRib periodically appears on the menu for limited runs. The crispy chicken patty used in the McChicken sandwich sold in Canada uses both white and dark meat - it is essentially the same size and taste as the original McChicken that first appeared in the USA in 1980. Seasonal items previously available in McDonald 's in Canada include the McLobster, a lobster roll, available in the Maritime Provinces, called McHomard in French. Regionally a blueberry - shortbread McFlurry is also available. Discontinued items in Canadian McDonald 's include pizzas, including a calzone - style "McPizza. '' The McFlurry Originated in New Brunswick. Costa Rican McDonald 's have McCafés. They serve the McNifica burger, similar to Burger King 's Whopper. Fry sauce is available as a condiment for French fries or steak fries, a French fry substitute. Gallo pinto, a traditional seasoned rice and black bean dish, is available with scrambled eggs and natilla (light sour cream). Mexican McDonald 's locations do not serve fish, except during the period of Lent. Special items at these locations have included the Flaming Hot Doritos Quarter Pounder and the BBQ Double Burger. For breakfast, Mexican McDonald 's locations serve the McMollete, which is made on an English muffin spread with beans, topped with a slice of melted cheese and pico de gallo. Mexican locations also serve a version of the McSkillet burrito known as the "McBurrito ''. McDonald 's restaurants in the United States of America offer various types of shellfish dishes on a regional basis, such as seasonal lobster rolls in New England and crab cakes in the Mid-Atlantic states. Parts of the Upper Midwest sell Johnsonville Brats, a toasted hot dog bun with a Johnsonville bratwurst topped with spicy mustard and onions. Other regional variations include the Texas Homestyle Burger, and traditional Southern breakfast items, such as a country ham biscuit and biscuits and gravy. Locations in the Southwest regularly offer burgers topped with New Mexico chile. Hawaii locations offer saimin on their regular menu, and include Spam, Portuguese sausage and rice as a breakfast option. Pineapple and taro pies, as regularly sold in some Asian countries, have been occasionally offered on the regular menu, along with haupia pies; pineapple is also sometimes available as a topping on burgers. In Waikiki locations, small trays of pineapple can be ordered as a side dish. Except for saimin, Hawaiian and selected Asian specialty items can also be found in McDonald 's in the US territories of Guam and the Northern Mariana Islands. During Easter time, Hawaii, Guam and the CNMI all feature the Double Filet - O - Fish meal due to having a heavy concentration of Catholics (mostly people who immigrated from the Philippines) in that region. As in Mexico, Puerto Rican McDonald 's do not serve fish and serve the McCriollo (with eggs and cheese) for breakfast. Criollo is a Puerto Rican bread, like a baguette, but bigger and softer. Basically, the McCriollo is a sandwich with ham, cheese, and egg on a Criollo roll. Previous products have included: Shaker Fries, similar to Japan 's Shaka Shaka Chicken; a BLT; the Mc Beefsteak, promoted by country music singer Lee Kernaghan; the Big Kahuna Burger, served with pineapple; the Romano Burger, a chicken patty with Italian sauce and mozzarella served on an herbed focaccia bun; the Tandoori Burger, a chicken patty with lettuce and mint yogurt sauce served on flatbread; and a Chive Omelette Roll. Current products have included: Chicken Mcbites, Classic Angus and Aussie BBQ Angus. Every so often (typically once a year) the McOz is sold for a limited time. The McOz is a quarter - pound burger with lettuce, tomato, cheese, mustard, ketchup and the so - called Australian ingredients of beetroot and cooked onion served on a sesame seed bun. Many McDonald 's menu items in New Zealand are similar to those in Australia. Some unique items include the Kiwiburger, a beef patty with McMuffin egg, tomato, lettuce, cheese, onion, beetroot, ketchup, and mustard. In 2011, a special "Kiwi Menu '' was featured to promote the country 's hosting of the 2011 Rugby World Cup. In April 2012, McDonald 's re-released the El Maco, a variant of the product of the same name offered in other markets, such as Scandinavia. El Maco had previously been sold in New Zealand in the early 1990s. In 1996, the New Zealand affiliate bought out failing local fast food chain Georgie Pie, which based itself around Australian and New Zealand meat pies. McDonald 's trialed a partial relaunch of the Georgie Pie brand in May 2013 with one pie flavor sold through eleven of its restaurants. In October 2013, the affiliate announced it would expand the sale of Georgie Pie to 107 of its 161 restaurants by the end of 2013. As of January 2017, two pie flavors are available: Steak Mince ' n ' Cheese and Bacon ' n ' Egg. McNífica is served. McDonald 's Argentina serves Big Tasty Angus Burger, made with premium Argentinean Angus Beef. Argentina is the only country besides Israel in which McDonald 's has full kosher locations. These are the only places in the world where McDonald 's burgers are barbecued on charcoal rather than fried. Croissants are served for breakfast and afternoon tea. In Brazil, McDonald 's offers the Cheddar McMelt, a beef burger with creamy cheddar cheese and grilled onions, flavored with soy sauce on a whole - wheat bun. Banana - flavored pies are served in Brazilian McDonald 's. In Chile, cheese empanadas are sold at all McDonald 's locations in Chile as side dishes. Also, customers can add avocado paste to any sandwich, other than the McPalta (Chilean Spanish for McAvocado), whose basis is avocado paste along burger as current Cuarto Palta (Avocado Quarter Pounder) and McWrap Palta with Fuze Tea, sliced fried chicken with lettuce, tomatoes and purple onion in a tortilla. Celebrating the 200 - year anniversary of the founding of Chilean republic, in 2010 McDonald 's offered Combo Bicentenario, a beef burger with pebre, a Chilean condiment made of coriander, chopped onion, olive oil, garlic and ground spicy chili pepper, and merkén, a smoked chili pepper. Recently, celebrating Chile 's 2013 National Day on September, the fast food restaurant served empanadas de pino (stuffed with beef, olives, onions, raisins, and boiled eggs) as special side dishes. For breakfast, McDonald 's serves croissants, also known in Chile as Medialuna and local versions of two Chilean sandwiches: Barros Jarpa, whose basis is ham and molten cheese on bread, and Lomo Palta, a avocado paste along a slice pork. Colombian McDonald 's restaurants serve the McCriollo breakfast combo, which includes a sausage patty, two traditional Colombian arepas, scrambled eggs and sweetcorn, a hashbrown, coffee, butter, and jam. In Ecuador, McDonald 's started selling cheese empanadas, burgers with cheese sausage or guacamole, blackberry sundae and nuggets with spicy sausage in 2012 under the "Nuestros sabores '' campaign, aimed at providing a more local cuisine. In Peru, McDonald 's offers ají, a spicy sauce made from peppers, as a condiment. Peruvian locations also serve Pollo Crujiente ("crunchy chicken '') and Inca Kola. Now, McDonald _́ s offers "Peruvian Foods '' and blackberry Sundae. In Venezuela, McDonald 's offers arepas, empanadas for breakfast; these are traditional breakfast foods. Venezuelan locations have also served fried yuca sticks.

they might be giants she was a hotel detective

(She was a) Hotel Detective - wikipedia "(She Was A) Hotel Detective '' is a song and single by alternative rock band They Might Be Giants. It was released as a single two years after the release of They Might Be Giants, the album on which it originally appeared. The "Hotel Detective '' title has become a somewhat recurring theme for the band. As in the single release of "Do n't Let 's Start '', the version of the song on the "Hotel Detective '' single is slightly different from the album version. In this case, a drum track fades in to open the song, and Linnell 's saxophone is more prominent. Additionally, Peter Pearmain Thomson sings backing vocals, whereas on the album, the backing vocals are sung by John Flansburgh. The entire contents of the EP also appear on the compilation album Miscellaneous T. The track "Kiss Me, Son of God '' went on to be re-recorded and released on the band 's 1988 album, Lincoln. Neither the CD release nor the 12 '' release of the EP list the untitled track in their respective track listings. The track consists of a conversation recorded on Dial - A-Song's answering machine between a listener known only as "Gloria '' and an unknown male. The song "(She Was A) Hotel Detective '', which was written by John Flansburgh, first appeared on They Might Be Giants, the band 's debut album. It was later followed up by "She Was a Hotel Detective '', which appeared on an EP, Back to Skull, released in 1994. The musically irrelevant sequel was written by John Linnell, "in the tradition of ' Peggy Sue Got Married ' and ' Let 's Twist Again ' ''. The lyrics to "She Was A Hotel Detective '' (the sequel) include the phrase "motel directive '', which is transcribed between the leadout grooves of the original Hotel Detective vinyl EP. A second sequel, "(She Was A) Hotel Detective in the Future '', was released on the band 's podcast, and subsequently on a CD compilation of songs from the podcast, Cast Your Pod to the Wind. This final sequel was followed by a fake "commentary track '' for the song, which was actually far longer than the song itself. The music video for "(She Was A) Hotel Detective '' was directed by Adam Bernstein. Some portions of the video show cartoons of the two Johns, animated by Joey Ahlbum. The video is split between these animated segments and segments of John Flansburgh and John Linnell performing the song in a dark room in front of a large "ROCK MUSIC '' sign. The video is intentionally over-indulgent, but John and John were unhappy with the final result. Joey Ahlbum 's animated versions of John Linnell and John Flansburgh from the "(She Was A) Hotel Detective '' music video were used in the first episode of the 1991 sitcom Clarissa Explains It All to show that Clarissa liked Linnell (referred to as "the John without the glasses ''). The figures were also used by Bar / None on promotional postcards. All tracks by They Might Be Giants.

where does naruto ultimate ninja storm 3 end

Naruto Shippuden: Ultimate Ninja Storm 3 - wikipedia Naruto Shippuden: Ultimate Ninja Storm 3, known in Japan as Naruto Shippūden: Narutimate Storm 3 (Japanese: NARUTO - ナルト - 疾風 伝 ナルティメット ストーム 3, Hepburn: Naruto Shippūden: Narutimetto Sutōmu 3), the fourth installment of the UltimatStorm series, is a fighting game developed by CyberConnect2 as part of the Naruto: Ultimate Ninja video - game series based on Masashi Kishimoto 's Naruto manga. It was released for PlayStation 3, PlayStation Vita and Xbox 360 by Namco Bandai Games on March 5, 2013 in North America, March 8, 2013 in Europe, and April 18, 2013 in Japan. The story focuses on the conflict between ninjas from all the villages and the terrorist organization known as Akatsuki as a world war starts between the groups. Its gameplay retains elements of Ultimate Ninja Storm 2 (such as quick time events), adding hack and slash scenarios and options to increase battle difficulty. A re-release (Naruto Shippuden: Ultimate Ninja Storm 3 Full Burst) was released on October 22 and 24, 2013 in North America and Japan, respectively. Its European version was released over three months later, on January 31, 2014. The game had positive reviews and good sales, surpassing its predecessors from the series. Critics praised the return of boss battles from Storm 2, the Ultimate Decision mechanics and improved graphics and controls. Reception of story - mode development, based on the number of cutscenes, was mixed. Lack of depth in the fighting mechanics and the under - use of hack and slash were criticized. A sequel, Naruto Shippuden: Ultimate Ninja Storm 4, was released in 2016. In 2017, CyberConnect2 re-released it again with the first two Storm games as a trilogy. The game was also released online that year. The game has 80 playable characters and seven support characters (81 playable characters and seven support characters in Full Burst) The fighting system has been modified, with the Awakening Mode, giving each character enhanced abilities when their health is low and usable by certain characters during a fight. The item system was rearranged, so a player can choose between healing and offensive items. As the game progresses, the player can store items to use in combat. Like the previous games, a player can choose two characters to assist the player character in battle. The assisting characters can aid the playable one with thirteen combos. In the team - attack system, a player can use support characters to charge and attack. The assistants have health bars, losing health when they are hit and becoming unusable when their health bars are depleted. If a player has one support character, they have ten health bars; if a player has two support characters, each has five health bars. Several arenas are interactive, making a player lose a fight if they leave an area. Story mode is similar to Naruto Shippuden: Ultimate Ninja Storm 2 rather than the previous game, Naruto Shippuden: Ultimate Ninja Storm Generations; it features boss battles, including quick time events requiring strategy to defeat the opponent. Ultimate Decision Mode has the option of changing battle difficulties, with higher scores if greater difficulty is chosen. The game has mob battles, in which the player controls a character who must battle a series of enemies. In this mode, controls from regular fights are retained and the player can transport to another enemy after they defeat one. Ultimate Ninja Storm 3 begins with the attack of the Nine - tailed Demon Fox of the Konohagakure ninja village while its former leader, Third Hokage Hiruzen Sarutobi, tries to stop it. The current leader of Konohagakure, Fourth Hokage Minato Namikaze, faces the masterminds behind the attack: Madara Uchiha and the fox. The story then moves to some time after Ultimate Ninja Storm 2 's; the five leaders of the ninja village face Sasuke Uchiha, who intends to kill acting hokage Danzo Shimura. Madara saves Sasuke and declares a world war against the ninja forces. In the next chapter, Sasuke 's former comrades from Konohagakure try to kill Sasuke until Naruto Uzumaki convinces him to have a death match. Naruto trains to obtain the power of the fox with the help of Killer Bee and the spirit of his mother, Kushina Uzumaki. The fourth ninja world war begins, with the ninjas facing the Madara 's army of Zetsu and Kabuto Yakushi 's reanimated warriors. When Naruto and Killer Bee go to war, Kabuto revives the original Madara Uchiha and reveals that the "other Madara '' is an imposter. While the five Kages make Madara retreat, Naruto defeats the fake Madara forces. After the story mode 's ending, a side story reveals that Sasuke is joining the war. He changes sides when he allies with the reanimated body of his brother, Itachi, to defeat Kabuto and send his forces to the afterlife. The new Naruto game was first leaked online in the Weekly Shōnen Jump magazine in June 2012, with Namco Bandai Games confirming that it was Ultimate Ninja Storm 3 shortly afterwards. With the announcement, Yusuke Sasaki of Namco Bandai promised improvements to the fighting system and story mode. To make areas more interactive and add strategy to the fights, the staff added the ring - out option. The story mode was developed to be accessible to players unfamiliar with the Naruto series. CyberConnect2 CEO Hiroshi Matsuyama promised the return of "epic boss battles '' absent from Naruto Shippuden: Ultimate Ninja Storm Generations. Bandai promoted graphics improvements in its first trailer, released in July 2012. Two alternative costumes for Naruto Uzumaki (a samurai outfit and Goku 's uniform from Dragon Ball) were based on illustrations by Masashi Kishimoto which were published in Shonen Jump and an art book. They attracted producer Yuki Nishikawa, who consulted other members of the company to include them in the game. In August 2012, CyberConnect2 began a suggestion forum on their website which asked players worldwide to say what they wanted to see in Ultimate Ninja Storm 3 and upcoming Naruto games. The feedback was used to create the game. At Comic - Con International in July 2012, Namco Bandai Games America representatives confirmed plans for a March 2013 release in North America. First - run copies of the game included a code to download six costumes: a Goku costume, a samurai suit for Naruto Uzumaki, Road to Ninja costumes for Hinata Hyuga and Sasuke Uchiha, a kimono for Sasuke, swimsuits for Sakura Haruno and Tsunade, a Japanese school uniform for Sakura, and ANBU costumes for Kakashi Hatake and Itachi Uchiha. The game was released in a regular form and in two limited editions which included action figures and the soundtrack. Downloadable content is available for the game, a new addition to the series. All content released are new costumes for existing characters. Pre-orders for the game included a code to download the Goku 's Turtle School uniform for Naruto Uzumaki. Players who subscribed to Weekly Shonen Jump or Neon Alley in North America received a code to download samurai costume for Naruto, a kimono for Sasuke Uchiha, a school uniform for Sakura Haruno, a swimsuit for Tsunade and an ANBU costume for Itachi Uchiha; these costumes were included with the Goku costume in Europe. On March 26, 2013, a School Uniform Pack was released in the North American and European PlayStation Store with school uniforms for Hinata Hyuga, Kakashi Hatake, Ino Yamanaka, Naruto, and Sasuke. Akatsuki straw hats for Deidara, Itachi, and Kisame Hoshigaki and a torn cloak for Pain were released on April 2, 2013 as part of the Akatsuki Hats Pack. Five costumes for Naruto and one for Sasuke were released on April 9, 2013, each based on traditional clothing from cultures around the world. New costumes for Hinata, Jiraiya, Kakashi, Madara Uchiha, Orochimaru, Sasuke, Yamato, and Tsunade were made available for download on April 16, 2013, some of which were from the ninth Naruto film (Road to Ninja: Naruto the Movie). On April 23, 2013, a Hello Kitty - inspired costume for Sakura and a Swimsuit Pack with swimsuits for Hinata, Ino, Sakura, and Temari were released. The final DLC for North America and Europe (the Kage Hats Pack) was released on April 30, 2013, with kage hats for Danzo Shimura, Gaara, Mizukage, Raikage, and Tsuchikage. Most costumes released in bundles in North America and Europe are available for purchase at the Japanese PlayStation Store. Storm 3 sold 87,661 units in its opening week, surpassing the initial sales of its predecessors. The game sold one million copies in North America and Europe by May 2013. Over two million copies of Naruto Shippuden: Ultimate Ninja Storm 3 were shipped worldwide by August 28, 2014; it sold one million copies in North America, 750,000 copies in Europe, and 250,000 copies in Japan. The game has been well - received, with an average score of 77 on Metacritic for the PlayStation 3 version and average of 70 for Xbox 360 version. IGN praised its improvements over its predecessors in gameplay and story - mode action scenes. Its cinematic boss battles were praised, particularly those exploring the series ' background. Its story presentation was contrasted with its predecessor, Storm 2. Despite finding Storm 3 's plot inferior to Storm 2, Destructoid still found it one of the best anime - based games based on its graphics and fights. Other sites had mixed responses, due to the amount of dialogue and length of cutscenes. GameTrailers felt that the exposition and lack of visual appeal made Storm 3 fail to show the manga and anime 's appeal; its fighting system was simplistic and its soundtrack unsuitable. However, Play called it the best Naruto game ever released. The addition of Decision Mode was well - received, since it could increase the game 's difficulty. Noting that newcomers might not understand the game 's plot, retellings might make it easier to grasp. Gaming Age appreciated the graphics and cast, saying that it surpassed Level - 5 's Ni no Kuni. Although hack and slash was more entertaining than Ultimate Ninja Impact 's, its scarcity was criticized. Despite the number of characters, the combat 's technical depth was also criticized. Gaming Union found the story 's presentation similar to Storm 2, with limited exploration and few side quests. On July 4, 2013, Namco Bandai Games Europe announced Naruto Shippuden: Ultimate Ninja Storm 3 Full Burst, available in a retail pack or downloadable add - on and with support for PC. CyberConnect2 called it a "director 's cut '' version of the original Storm 3. The game has a number of additions, including enhanced cinematics, 38 additional character costumes, more missions and one playable character, and an additional chapter in story mode. A new Decision Mode allows a player to choose their fate: Legend (hard) or Hero (easy). It was released on October 22, 2013 (October 25, 2013 for PC via Steam) in North America, on October 24, 2013 for PS3 and Xbox 360 in Japan, and on January 31, 2014 (October 25, 2013 for PC via Steam) in Europe. Full Burst scored 80 out of 100 on Metacritic. Vandal praised Full Burst 's improvements, notably the boss fight between the Uchiha brothers and Kabuto. Worthplaying found the new missions and online features appealing, but thought that only Naruto fans would buy it. According to the Siliconera website, many players wanted to control the reanimated Kages which debuted in Storm 3 as enemies but CyberConnect2 focused on Sage Kabuto Yakushi in Full Burst. A sequel, Naruto Shippuden: Ultimate Ninja Storm 4, was released in early 2016. Bandai Namco released Naruto Shippuden: Ultimate Ninja Storm Legacy, which contains Storm 3, on August 25, 2017. Storm 2, its prequel and sequels were released online at the same time.

what was the main cause of the 2008 global economic crisis

Financial crisis of 2007 -- 2008 - wikipedia The financial crisis of 2007 -- 2008, also known as the global financial crisis and the 2008 financial crisis, is considered by many economists to have been the worst financial crisis since the Great Depression of the 1930s. It began in 2007 with a crisis in the subprime mortgage market in the United States, and developed into a full - blown international banking crisis with the collapse of the investment bank Lehman Brothers on September 15, 2008. Excessive risk - taking by banks such as Lehman Brothers helped to magnify the financial impact globally. Massive bail - outs of financial institutions and other palliative monetary and fiscal policies were employed to prevent a possible collapse of the world financial system. The crisis was nonetheless followed by a global economic downturn, the Great Recession. The European debt crisis, a crisis in the banking system of the European countries using the euro, followed later. The Dodd -- Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act of 2010 was enacted in the US in the aftermath of the crisis to "promote the financial stability of the United States ''. The Basel III capital and liquidity standards were adopted by countries around the world. The precipitating factor for the Financial Crisis of 2007 -- 2008 was a high default rate in the United States subprime home mortgage sector -- the bursting of the "subprime bubble ''. While the causes of the bubble are disputed, some or all of the following factors must have contributed. The accumulation and subsequent high default rate of these subprime mortgages led to the financial crisis and the consequent damage to the world economy. High mortgage approval rates led to a large pool of homebuyers, which drove up housing prices. This appreciation in value led large numbers of homeowners (subprime or not) to borrow against their homes as an apparent windfall. This "bubble '' would be burst by a rising single - family residential mortgages delinquency rate beginning in August 2006 and peaking in the first quarter, 2010. The high delinquency rates led to a rapid devaluation of financial instruments (mortgage - backed securities including bundled loan portfolios, derivatives and credit default swaps). As the value of these assets plummeted, the market (buyers) for these securities evaporated and banks who were heavily invested in these assets began to experience a liquidity crisis. Freddie Mac and Fannie Mae were taken over by the federal government on September 7, 2008. Lehman Brothers filed for bankruptcy on September 15, 2008. Merrill Lynch, AIG, HBOS, Royal Bank of Scotland, Bradford & Bingley, Fortis, Hypo Real Estate, and Alliance & Leicester were all expected to follow -- with a US federal bailout announced the following day beginning with $85 billion to AIG. In spite of trillions paid out by the US federal government, it became much more difficult to borrow money. The resulting decrease in buyers caused housing prices to plummet. While the collapse of large financial institutions was prevented by the bailout of banks by national governments, stock markets still dropped worldwide. In many areas, the housing market also suffered, resulting in evictions, foreclosures, and prolonged unemployment. The crisis played a significant role in the failure of key businesses, declines in consumer wealth estimated in trillions of US dollars, and a downturn in economic activity leading to the Great Recession of 2008 -- 2012 and contributing to the European sovereign - debt crisis. The active phase of the crisis, which manifested as a liquidity crisis, can be dated from August 9, 2007, when BNP Paribas terminated withdrawals from three hedge funds citing "a complete evaporation of liquidity ''. The bursting of the US housing bubble, which peaked at the end of 2006, caused the values of securities tied to US real estate pricing to plummet, damaging financial institutions globally. The financial crisis was triggered by a complex interplay of policies that encouraged home ownership, providing easier access to loans for subprime borrowers; overvaluation of bundled subprime mortgages based on the theory that housing prices would continue to escalate; questionable trading practices on behalf of both buyers and sellers; compensation structures that prioritize short - term deal flow over long - term value creation; and a lack of adequate capital holdings from banks and insurance companies to back the financial commitments they were making. Questions regarding bank solvency, declines in credit availability, and damaged investor confidence affected global stock markets, where securities suffered large losses during 2008 and early 2009. Economies worldwide slowed during this period, as credit tightened and international trade declined. Governments and central banks responded with unprecedented fiscal stimulus, monetary policy expansion and institutional bailouts. In the US, Congress passed the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009. Many causes for the financial crisis have been suggested, with varying weight assigned by experts. The immediate cause or trigger of the crisis was the bursting of the US housing bubble, which peaked in 2006 / 2007. Already - rising default rates on "subprime '' and adjustable - rate mortgages (ARM) began to increase quickly thereafter. Easy availability of credit in the US, fueled by large inflows of foreign funds after the Russian debt crisis and Asian financial crisis of the 1997 -- 1998 period, led to a housing construction boom and facilitated debt - financed consumer spending. As banks began to give out more loans to potential home owners, housing prices began to rise. Lax lending standards and rising real estate prices also contributed to the real estate bubble. Loans of various types (e.g., mortgage, credit card, and auto) were easy to obtain and consumers assumed an unprecedented debt load. As part of the housing and credit booms, the number of financial agreements called mortgage - backed securities (MBS) and collateralized debt obligations (CDO), which derived their value from mortgage payments and housing prices, greatly increased. Such financial innovation enabled institutions and investors around the world to invest in the US housing market. As housing prices declined, major global financial institutions that had borrowed and invested heavily in subprime MBS reported significant losses. Falling prices also resulted in homes worth less than the mortgage loan, providing the lender with a financial incentive to enter foreclosure. The ongoing foreclosure epidemic that began in late 2006 in the US and only reduced to historical levels in early 2014 drained significant wealth from consumers, losing up to $4.2 trillion in wealth from home equity. Defaults and losses on other loan types also increased significantly as the crisis expanded from the housing market to other parts of the economy. Total losses are estimated in the trillions of US dollars globally. While the housing and credit bubbles were building, a series of factors caused the financial system to both expand and become increasingly fragile, a process called financialization. US government policy from the 1970s onward has emphasized deregulation to encourage business, which resulted in less oversight of activities and less disclosure of information about new activities undertaken by banks and other evolving financial institutions. Thus, policymakers did not immediately recognize the increasingly important role played by financial institutions such as investment banks and hedge funds, also known as the shadow banking system. Some experts believe these institutions had become as important as commercial (depository) banks in providing credit to the US economy, but they were not subject to the same regulations. These institutions, as well as certain regulated banks, had also assumed significant debt burdens while providing the loans described above and did not have a financial cushion sufficient to absorb large loan defaults or MBS losses. These losses affected the ability of financial institutions to lend, slowing economic activity. Concerns regarding the stability of key financial institutions drove central banks to provide funds to encourage lending and restore faith in the commercial paper markets, which are integral to funding business operations. Governments also bailed out key financial institutions and implemented economic stimulus programs, assuming significant additional financial commitments. The US Financial Crisis Inquiry Commission reported its findings in January 2011. It concluded that: ... the crisis was avoidable and was caused by: The 2000s were the decade of subprime borrowers; no longer was this a segment left to fringe lenders. The relaxing of credit lending standards by investment banks and commercial banks drove this about - face. Subprime did not become magically less risky; Wall Street just accepted this higher risk. During a period of tough competition between mortgage lenders for revenue and market share, and when the supply of creditworthy borrowers was limited, mortgage lenders relaxed underwriting standards and originated riskier mortgages to less creditworthy borrowers. In the view of some analysts, the relatively conservative government - sponsored enterprises (GSEs) policed mortgage originators and maintained relatively high underwriting standards prior to 2003. However, as market power shifted from securitizers to originators and as intense competition from private securitizers undermined GSE power, mortgage standards declined and risky loans proliferated. The worst loans were originated in 2004 -- 2007, the years of the most intense competition between securitizers and the lowest market share for the GSEs. As well as easy credit conditions, there is evidence that competitive pressures contributed to an increase in the amount of subprime lending during the years preceding the crisis. Major US investment banks and GSEs such as Fannie Mae played an important role in the expansion of lending, with GSEs eventually relaxing their standards to try to catch up with the private banks. A contrarian view is that Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac led the way to relaxed underwriting standards, starting in 1995, by advocating the use of easy - to - qualify automated underwriting and appraisal systems, by designing the no - down - payment products issued by lenders, by the promotion of thousands of small mortgage brokers, and by their close relationship to subprime loan aggregators such as Countrywide. Depending on how "subprime '' mortgages are defined, they remained below 10 % of all mortgage originations until 2004, when they rose to nearly 20 % and remained there through the 2005 -- 2006 peak of the United States housing bubble. The majority report of the Financial Crisis Inquiry Commission, written by the six Democratic appointees, the minority report, written by three of the four Republican appointees, studies by Federal Reserve economists, and the work of several independent scholars generally contend that government affordable housing policy was not the primary cause of the financial crisis. Although they concede that governmental policies had some role in causing the crisis, they contend that GSE loans performed better than loans securitized by private investment banks, and performed better than some loans originated by institutions that held loans in their own portfolios. In his dissent to the majority report of the Financial Crisis Inquiry Commission, American Enterprise Institute fellow Peter J. Wallison stated his belief that the roots of the financial crisis can be traced directly and primarily to affordable housing policies initiated by the US Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD) in the 1990s and to massive risky loan purchases by government - sponsored entities Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac. Later, based upon information in the SEC 's December 2011 securities fraud case against six former executives of Fannie and Freddie, Peter Wallison and Edward Pinto estimated that, in 2008, Fannie and Freddie held 13 million substandard loans totaling over $2 trillion. In the early and mid-2000s, the Bush administration called numerous times for investigation into the safety and soundness of the GSEs and their swelling portfolio of subprime mortgages. On September 10, 2003, the House Financial Services Committee held a hearing at the urging of the administration to assess safety and soundness issues and to review a recent report by the Office of Federal Housing Enterprise Oversight (OFHEO) that had uncovered accounting discrepancies within the two entities. The hearings never resulted in new legislation or formal investigation of Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac, as many of the committee members refused to accept the report and instead rebuked OFHEO for their attempt at regulation. Some believe this was an early warning to the systemic risk that the growing market in subprime mortgages posed to the US financial system that went unheeded. A 2000 United States Department of the Treasury study of lending trends for 305 cities from 1993 to 1998 showed that $467 billion of mortgage lending was made by Community Reinvestment Act (CRA) - covered lenders into low and mid level income (LMI) borrowers and neighborhoods, representing 10 % of all US mortgage lending during the period. The majority of these were prime loans. Sub-prime loans made by CRA - covered institutions constituted a 3 % market share of LMI loans in 1998, but in the run - up to the crisis, fully 25 % of all sub-prime lending occurred at CRA - covered institutions and another 25 % of sub-prime loans had some connection with CRA. Furthermore, most sub-prime loans were not made to the LMI borrowers targeted by the CRA, especially in the years 2005 -- 2006 leading up to the crisis, nor did it find any evidence that lending under the CRA rules increased delinquency rates or that the CRA indirectly influenced independent mortgage lenders to ramp up sub-prime lending. To other analysts the delay between CRA rule changes (in 1995) and the explosion of subprime lending is not surprising, and does not exonerate the CRA. They contend that there were two, connected causes to the crisis: the relaxation of underwriting standards in 1995 and the ultra-low interest rates initiated by the Federal Reserve after the terrorist attack on September 11, 2001. Both causes had to be in place before the crisis could take place. Critics also point out that publicly announced CRA loan commitments were massive, totaling $4.5 trillion in the years between 1994 and 2007. They also argue that the Federal Reserve 's classification of CRA loans as "prime '' is based on the faulty and self - serving assumption that high - interest - rate loans (3 percentage points over average) equal "subprime '' loans. Others have pointed out that there were not enough of these loans made to cause a crisis of this magnitude. In an article in Portfolio Magazine, Michael Lewis spoke with one trader who noted that "There were n't enough Americans with (bad) credit taking out (bad loans) to satisfy investors ' appetite for the end product. '' Essentially, investment banks and hedge funds used financial innovation to enable large wagers to be made, far beyond the actual value of the underlying mortgage loans, using derivatives called credit default swaps, collateralized debt obligations and synthetic CDOs. As of March 2011, the FDIC had paid out $9 billion to cover losses on bad loans at 165 failed financial institutions. The Congressional Budget Office estimated, in June 2011, that the bailout to Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac exceeds $300 billion (calculated by adding the fair value deficits of the entities to the direct bailout funds at the time). Economist Paul Krugman argued in January 2010 that the simultaneous growth of the residential and commercial real estate pricing bubbles and the global nature of the crisis undermines the case made by those who argue that Fannie Mae, Freddie Mac, CRA, or predatory lending were primary causes of the crisis. In other words, bubbles in both markets developed even though only the residential market was affected by these potential causes. Countering Krugman, Peter J. Wallison wrote: "It is not true that every bubble -- even a large bubble -- has the potential to cause a financial crisis when it deflates. '' Wallison notes that other developed countries had "large bubbles during the 1997 -- 2007 period '' but "the losses associated with mortgage delinquencies and defaults when these bubbles deflated were far lower than the losses suffered in the United States when the 1997 -- 2007 (bubble) deflated. '' According to Wallison, the reason the US residential housing bubble (as opposed to other types of bubbles) led to financial crisis was that it was supported by a huge number of substandard loans -- generally with low or no downpayments. Krugman 's contention (that the growth of a commercial real estate bubble indicates that US housing policy was not the cause of the crisis) is challenged by additional analysis. After researching the default of commercial loans during the financial crisis, Xudong An and Anthony B. Sanders reported (in December 2010): "We find limited evidence that substantial deterioration in CMBS (commercial mortgage - backed securities) loan underwriting occurred prior to the crisis. '' Other analysts support the contention that the crisis in commercial real estate and related lending took place after the crisis in residential real estate. Business journalist Kimberly Amadeo reported: "The first signs of decline in residential real estate occurred in 2006. Three years later, commercial real estate started feeling the effects. Denice A. Gierach, a real estate attorney and CPA, wrote: ... most of the commercial real estate loans were good loans destroyed by a really bad economy. In other words, the borrowers did not cause the loans to go bad, it was the economy. Between 1998 and 2006, the price of the typical American house increased by 124 %. During the two decades ending in 2001, the national median home price ranged from 2.9 to 3.1 times median household income. This ratio rose to 4.0 in 2004, and 4.6 in 2006. This housing bubble resulted in many homeowners refinancing their homes at lower interest rates, or financing consumer spending by taking out second mortgages secured by the price appreciation. In a Peabody Award winning program, NPR correspondents argued that a "Giant Pool of Money '' (represented by $70 trillion in worldwide fixed income investments) sought higher yields than those offered by US Treasury bonds early in the decade. This pool of money had roughly doubled in size from 2000 to 2007, yet the supply of relatively safe, income generating investments had not grown as fast. Investment banks on Wall Street answered this demand with products such as the mortgage - backed security and the collateralized debt obligation that were assigned safe ratings by the credit rating agencies. In effect, Wall Street connected this pool of money to the mortgage market in the US, with enormous fees accruing to those throughout the mortgage supply chain, from the mortgage broker selling the loans to small banks that funded the brokers and the large investment banks behind them. By approximately 2003, the supply of mortgages originated at traditional lending standards had been exhausted, and continued strong demand began to drive down lending standards. The collateralized debt obligation in particular enabled financial institutions to obtain investor funds to finance subprime and other lending, extending or increasing the housing bubble and generating large fees. This essentially places cash payments from multiple mortgages or other debt obligations into a single pool from which specific securities draw in a specific sequence of priority. Those securities first in line received investment - grade ratings from rating agencies. Securities with lower priority had lower credit ratings but theoretically a higher rate of return on the amount invested. By September 2008, average US housing prices had declined by over 20 % from their mid-2006 peak. As prices declined, borrowers with adjustable - rate mortgages could not refinance to avoid the higher payments associated with rising interest rates and began to default. During 2007, lenders began foreclosure proceedings on nearly 1.3 million properties, a 79 % increase over 2006. This increased to 2.3 million in 2008, an 81 % increase vs. 2007. By August 2008, 9.2 % of all US mortgages outstanding were either delinquent or in foreclosure. By September 2009, this had risen to 14.4 %. Lower interest rates encouraged borrowing. From 2000 to 2003, the Federal Reserve lowered the federal funds rate target from 6.5 % to 1.0 %. This was done to soften the effects of the collapse of the dot - com bubble and the September 2001 terrorist attacks, as well as to combat a perceived risk of deflation. As early as 2002 it was apparent that credit was fueling housing instead of business investment as some economists went so far as to advocate that the Fed "needs to create a housing bubble to replace the Nasdaq bubble ''. Moreover, empirical studies using data from advanced countries show that excessive credit growth contributed greatly to the severity of the crisis. Additional downward pressure on interest rates was created by the high and rising US current account deficit, which peaked along with the housing bubble in 2006. Federal Reserve chairman Ben Bernanke explained how trade deficits required the US to borrow money from abroad, in the process bidding up bond prices and lowering interest rates. Bernanke explained that between 1996 and 2004, the US current account deficit increased by $650 billion, from 1.5 % to 5.8 % of GDP. Financing these deficits required the country to borrow large sums from abroad, much of it from countries running trade surpluses. These were mainly the emerging economies in Asia and oil - exporting nations. The balance of payments identity requires that a country (such as the US) running a current account deficit also have a capital account (investment) surplus of the same amount. Hence large and growing amounts of foreign funds (capital) flowed into the US to finance its imports. All of this created demand for various types of financial assets, raising the prices of those assets while lowering interest rates. Foreign investors had these funds to lend either because they had very high personal savings rates (as high as 40 % in China) or because of high oil prices. Ben Bernanke has referred to this as a "saving glut ''. A flood of funds (capital or liquidity) reached the US financial markets. Foreign governments supplied funds by purchasing Treasury bonds and thus avoided much of the direct effect of the crisis. US households, on the other hand, used funds borrowed from foreigners to finance consumption or to bid up the prices of housing and financial assets. Financial institutions invested foreign funds in mortgage - backed securities. The Fed then raised the Fed funds rate significantly between July 2004 and July 2006. This contributed to an increase in 1 - year and 5 - year adjustable - rate mortgage (ARM) rates, making ARM interest rate resets more expensive for homeowners. This may have also contributed to the deflating of the housing bubble, as asset prices generally move inversely to interest rates, and it became riskier to speculate in housing. US housing and financial assets dramatically declined in value after the housing bubble burst. Subprime lending standards declined in the USA: in early 2000, a subprime borrower had a FICO score of 660 or less. By 2005, many lenders dropped the required FICO score to 620, making it much easier to qualify for prime loans and making subprime lending a riskier business. Proof of income and assets were de-emphasized. Loans moved from full documentation to low documentation to no documentation. One subprime mortgage product that gained wide acceptance was the no income, no job, no asset verification required (NINJA) mortgage. Informally, these loans were aptly referred to as "liar loans '' because they encouraged borrowers to be less than honest in the loan application process. Testimony given to the Financial Crisis Inquiry Commission by Richard M. Bowen III on events during his tenure as the Business Chief Underwriter for Correspondent Lending in the Consumer Lending Group for Citigroup (where he was responsible for over 220 professional underwriters) suggests that by the final years of the US housing bubble (2006 -- 2007), the collapse of mortgage underwriting standards was endemic. His testimony stated that by 2006, 60 % of mortgages purchased by Citi from some 1,600 mortgage companies were "defective '' (were not underwritten to policy, or did not contain all policy - required documents) -- this, despite the fact that each of these 1,600 originators was contractually responsible (certified via representations and warrantees) that its mortgage originations met Citi 's standards. Moreover, during 2007, "defective mortgages (from mortgage originators contractually bound to perform underwriting to Citi 's standards) increased... to over 80 % of production ''. In separate testimony to Financial Crisis Inquiry Commission, officers of Clayton Holdings -- the largest residential loan due diligence and securitization surveillance company in the United States and Europe -- testified that Clayton 's review of over 900,000 mortgages issued from January 2006 to June 2007 revealed that scarcely 54 % of the loans met their originators ' underwriting standards. The analysis (conducted on behalf of 23 investment and commercial banks, including 7 "too big to fail '' banks) additionally showed that 28 % of the sampled loans did not meet the minimal standards of any issuer. Clayton 's analysis further showed that 39 % of these loans (i.e. those not meeting any issuer 's minimal underwriting standards) were subsequently securitized and sold to investors. There is strong evidence that the GSEs -- due to their large size and market power -- were far more effective at policing underwriting by originators and forcing underwriters to repurchase defective loans. By contrast, private securitizers have been far less aggressive and less effective in recovering losses from originators on behalf of investors. Predatory lending refers to the practice of unscrupulous lenders, enticing borrowers to enter into "unsafe '' or "unsound '' secured loans for inappropriate purposes. A classic bait - and - switch method was used by Countrywide Financial, advertising low interest rates for home refinancing. Such loans were covered by very detailed contracts, and swapped for more expensive loan products on the day of closing. Whereas the advertisement might state that 1 % or 1.5 % interest would be charged, the consumer would be put into an adjustable rate mortgage (ARM) in which the interest charged would be greater than the mortgage payments, creating negative amortization which the credit consumer might not notice until long after the loan transaction had been consummated. Countrywide, sued by California Attorney General Jerry Brown for "unfair business practices '' and "false advertising '', was making high cost mortgages "to homeowners with weak credit, adjustable rate mortgages (ARMs) that allowed homeowners to make interest - only payments ''. When housing prices decreased, homeowners in ARMs then had little incentive to pay their monthly payments, since their home equity had disappeared. This caused Countrywide 's financial condition to deteriorate, ultimately resulting in a decision by the Office of Thrift Supervision to seize the lender. One Countrywide employee -- who would later plead guilty to two counts of wire fraud and spent 18 months in prison -- stated that, "If you had a pulse, we gave you a loan. '' Former employees from Ameriquest, which was United States ' leading wholesale lender, described a system in which they were pushed to falsify mortgage documents and then sell the mortgages to Wall Street banks eager to make fast profits. There is growing evidence that such mortgage frauds may be a cause of the crisis. A 2012 OECD study suggest that bank regulation based on the Basel accords encourage unconventional business practices and contributed to or even reinforced the financial crisis. In other cases, laws were changed or enforcement weakened in parts of the financial system. Key examples include: Prior to the crisis, financial institutions became highly leveraged, increasing their appetite for risky investments and reducing their resilience in case of losses. Much of this leverage was achieved using complex financial instruments such as off - balance sheet securitization and derivatives, which made it difficult for creditors and regulators to monitor and try to reduce financial institution risk levels. These instruments also made it virtually impossible to reorganize financial institutions in bankruptcy, and contributed to the need for government bailouts. US households and financial institutions became increasingly indebted or overleveraged during the years preceding the crisis. This increased their vulnerability to the collapse of the housing bubble and worsened the ensuing economic downturn. Key statistics include: Free cash used by consumers from home equity extraction doubled from $627 billion in 2001 to $1,428 billion in 2005 as the housing bubble built, a total of nearly $5 trillion over the period, contributing to economic growth worldwide. US home mortgage debt relative to GDP increased from an average of 46 % during the 1990s to 73 % during 2008, reaching $10.5 trillion. US household debt as a percentage of annual disposable personal income was 127 % at the end of 2007, versus 77 % in 1990. In 1981, US private debt was 123 % of GDP; by the third quarter of 2008, it was 290 %. From 2004 to 2007, the top five US investment banks each significantly increased their financial leverage (see diagram), which increased their vulnerability to a financial shock. Changes in capital requirements, intended to keep US banks competitive with their European counterparts, allowed lower risk weightings for AAA securities. The shift from first - loss tranches to AAA tranches was seen by regulators as a risk reduction that compensated the higher leverage. These five institutions reported over $4.1 trillion in debt for fiscal year 2007, about 30 % of US nominal GDP for 2007. Lehman Brothers went bankrupt and was liquidated, Bear Stearns and Merrill Lynch were sold at fire - sale prices, and Goldman Sachs and Morgan Stanley became commercial banks, subjecting themselves to more stringent regulation. With the exception of Lehman, these companies required or received government support. Lehman reported that it had been in talks with Bank of America and Barclays for the company 's possible sale. However, both Barclays and Bank of America ultimately declined to purchase the entire company. Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac, two US government - sponsored enterprises, owned or guaranteed nearly $5 trillion in mortgage obligations at the time they were placed into conservatorship by the US government in September 2008. These seven entities were highly leveraged and had $9 trillion in debt or guarantee obligations; yet they were not subject to the same regulation as depository banks. Behavior that may be optimal for an individual (e.g., saving more during adverse economic conditions) can be detrimental if too many individuals pursue the same behavior, as ultimately one person 's consumption is another person 's income. Too many consumers attempting to save (or pay down debt) simultaneously is called the paradox of thrift and can cause or deepen a recession. Economist Hyman Minsky also described a "paradox of deleveraging '' as financial institutions that have too much leverage (debt relative to equity) can not all de-leverage simultaneously without significant declines in the value of their assets. In April 2009, US Federal Reserve vice-chair Janet Yellen discussed these paradoxes: Once this massive credit crunch hit, it did n't take long before we were in a recession. The recession, in turn, deepened the credit crunch as demand and employment fell, and credit losses of financial institutions surged. Indeed, we have been in the grips of precisely this adverse feedback loop for more than a year. A process of balance sheet deleveraging has spread to nearly every corner of the economy. Consumers are pulling back on purchases, especially on durable goods, to build their savings. Businesses are cancelling planned investments and laying off workers to preserve cash. And, financial institutions are shrinking assets to bolster capital and improve their chances of weathering the current storm. Once again, Minsky understood this dynamic. He spoke of the paradox of deleveraging, in which precautions that may be smart for individuals and firms -- and indeed essential to return the economy to a normal state -- nevertheless magnify the distress of the economy as a whole. The term financial innovation refers to the ongoing development of financial products designed to achieve particular client objectives, such as offsetting a particular risk exposure (such as the default of a borrower) or to assist with obtaining financing. Examples pertinent to this crisis included: the adjustable - rate mortgage; the bundling of subprime mortgages into mortgage - backed securities (MBS) or collateralized debt obligations (CDO) for sale to investors, a type of securitization; and a form of credit insurance called credit default swaps (CDS). The usage of these products expanded dramatically in the years leading up to the crisis. These products vary in complexity and the ease with which they can be valued on the books of financial institutions. CDO issuance grew from an estimated $20 billion in Q1 2004 to its peak of over $180 billion by Q1 2007, then declined back under $20 billion by Q1 2008. Further, the credit quality of CDO 's declined from 2000 to 2007, as the level of subprime and other non-prime mortgage debt increased from 5 % to 36 % of CDO assets. As described in the section on subprime lending, the CDS and portfolio of CDS called synthetic CDO enabled a theoretically infinite amount to be wagered on the finite value of housing loans outstanding, provided that buyers and sellers of the derivatives could be found. For example, buying a CDS to insure a CDO ended up giving the seller the same risk as if they owned the CDO, when those CDO 's became worthless. This boom in innovative financial products went hand in hand with more complexity. It multiplied the number of actors connected to a single mortgage (including mortgage brokers, specialized originators, the securitizers and their due diligence firms, managing agents and trading desks, and finally investors, insurances and providers of repo funding). With increasing distance from the underlying asset these actors relied more and more on indirect information (including FICO scores on creditworthiness, appraisals and due diligence checks by third party organizations, and most importantly the computer models of rating agencies and risk management desks). Instead of spreading risk this provided the ground for fraudulent acts, misjudgments and finally market collapse. Martin Wolf further wrote in June 2009 that certain financial innovations enabled firms to circumvent regulations, such as off - balance sheet financing that affects the leverage or capital cushion reported by major banks, stating: "... an enormous part of what banks did in the early part of this decade -- the off - balance - sheet vehicles, the derivatives and the ' shadow banking system ' itself -- was to find a way round regulation. '' The pricing of risk refers to the incremental compensation required by investors for taking on additional risk, which may be measured by interest rates or fees. Several scholars have argued that a lack of transparency about banks ' risk exposures prevented markets from correctly pricing risk before the crisis, enabled the mortgage market to grow larger than it otherwise would have, and made the financial crisis far more disruptive than it would have been if risk levels had been disclosed in a straightforward, readily understandable format. For a variety of reasons, market participants did not accurately measure the risk inherent with financial innovation such as MBS and CDOs or understand its effect on the overall stability of the financial system. For example, the pricing model for CDOs clearly did not reflect the level of risk they introduced into the system. Banks estimated that $450 billion of CDO were sold between "late 2005 to the middle of 2007 ''; among the $102 billion of those that had been liquidated, JPMorgan estimated that the average recovery rate for "high quality '' CDOs was approximately 32 cents on the dollar, while the recovery rate for mezzanine CDO was approximately five cents for every dollar. Another example relates to AIG, which insured obligations of various financial institutions through the usage of credit default swaps. The basic CDS transaction involved AIG receiving a premium in exchange for a promise to pay money to party A in the event party B defaulted. However, AIG did not have the financial strength to support its many CDS commitments as the crisis progressed and was taken over by the government in September 2008. US taxpayers provided over $180 billion in government support to AIG during 2008 and early 2009, through which the money flowed to various counterparties to CDS transactions, including many large global financial institutions. The Financial Crisis Inquiry Commission (FCIC) made the major government study of the crisis. It concluded in January 2011: The Commission concludes AIG failed and was rescued by the government primarily because its enormous sales of credit default swaps were made without putting up the initial collateral, setting aside capital reserves, or hedging its exposure -- a profound failure in corporate governance, particularly its risk management practices. AIG 's failure was possible because of the sweeping deregulation of over-the - counter (OTC) derivatives, including credit default swaps, which effectively eliminated federal and state regulation of these products, including capital and margin requirements that would have lessened the likelihood of AIG 's failure. The limitations of a widely used financial model also were not properly understood. This formula assumed that the price of CDS was correlated with and could predict the correct price of mortgage - backed securities. Because it was highly tractable, it rapidly came to be used by a huge percentage of CDO and CDS investors, issuers, and rating agencies. According to one wired.com article: Then the model fell apart. Cracks started appearing early on, when financial markets began behaving in ways that users of Li 's formula had n't expected. The cracks became full - fledged canyons in 2008 -- when ruptures in the financial system 's foundation swallowed up trillions of dollars and put the survival of the global banking system in serious peril... Li 's Gaussian copula formula will go down in history as instrumental in causing the unfathomable losses that brought the world financial system to its knees. As financial assets became more complex and harder to value, investors were reassured by the fact that the international bond rating agencies and bank regulators accepted as valid some complex mathematical models that showed the risks were much smaller than they actually were. George Soros commented that "The super-boom got out of hand when the new products became so complicated that the authorities could no longer calculate the risks and started relying on the risk management methods of the banks themselves. Similarly, the rating agencies relied on the information provided by the originators of synthetic products. It was a shocking abdication of responsibility. '' Moreover, a conflict of interest between professional investment managers and their institutional clients, combined with a global glut in investment capital, led to bad investments by asset managers in over-priced credit assets. Professional investment managers generally are compensated based on the volume of client assets under management. There is, therefore, an incentive for asset managers to expand their assets under management in order to maximize their compensation. As the glut in global investment capital caused the yields on credit assets to decline, asset managers were faced with the choice of either investing in assets where returns did not reflect true credit risk or returning funds to clients. Many asset managers continued to invest client funds in over-priced (under - yielding) investments, to the detriment of their clients, so they could maintain their assets under management. They supported this choice with a "plausible deniability '' of the risks associated with subprime - based credit assets because the loss experience with early "vintages '' of subprime loans was so low. Despite the dominance of the above formula, there are documented attempts of the financial industry, occurring before the crisis, to address the formula limitations, specifically the lack of dependence dynamics and the poor representation of extreme events. The volume "Credit Correlation: Life After Copulas '', published in 2007 by World Scientific, summarizes a 2006 conference held by Merrill Lynch in London where several practitioners attempted to propose models rectifying some of the copula limitations. See also the article by Donnelly and Embrechts and the book by Brigo, Pallavicini and Torresetti, that reports relevant warnings and research on CDOs appeared in 2006. Mortgage risks were underestimated by every institution in the chain from originator to investor by underweighting the possibility of falling housing prices based on historical trends of the past 50 years. Limitations of default and prepayment models, the heart of pricing models, led to overvaluation of mortgage and asset - backed products and their derivatives by originators, securitizers, broker - dealers, rating - agencies, insurance underwriters and investors. There is strong evidence that the riskiest, worst performing mortgages were funded through the "shadow banking system '' and that competition from the shadow banking system may have pressured more traditional institutions to lower their own underwriting standards and originate riskier loans. In a June 2008 speech, President and CEO of the New York Federal Reserve Bank Timothy Geithner -- who in 2009 became Secretary of the United States Treasury -- placed significant blame for the freezing of credit markets on a "run '' on the entities in the "parallel '' banking system, also called the shadow banking system. These entities became critical to the credit markets underpinning the financial system, but were not subject to the same regulatory controls. Further, these entities were vulnerable because of maturity mismatch, meaning that they borrowed short - term in liquid markets to purchase long - term, illiquid and risky assets. This meant that disruptions in credit markets would make them subject to rapid deleveraging, selling their long - term assets at depressed prices. He described the significance of these entities: In early 2007, asset - backed commercial paper conduits, in structured investment vehicles, in auction - rate preferred securities, tender option bonds and variable rate demand notes, had a combined asset size of roughly $2.2 trillion. Assets financed overnight in triparty repo grew to $2.5 trillion. Assets held in hedge funds grew to roughly $1.8 trillion. The combined balance sheets of the five largest investment banks totaled $4 trillion. In comparison, the total assets of the top five bank holding companies in the United States at that point were just over $6 trillion, and total assets of the entire banking system were about $10 trillion. The combined effect of these factors was a financial system vulnerable to self - reinforcing asset price and credit cycles. Paul Krugman, laureate of the Nobel Prize in Economics, described the run on the shadow banking system as the "core of what happened '' to cause the crisis. He referred to this lack of controls as "malign neglect '' and argued that regulation should have been imposed on all banking - like activity. The securitization markets supported by the shadow banking system started to close down in the spring of 2007 and nearly shut - down in the fall of 2008. More than a third of the private credit markets thus became unavailable as a source of funds. According to the Brookings Institution, the traditional banking system does not have the capital to close this gap as of June 2009: "It would take a number of years of strong profits to generate sufficient capital to support that additional lending volume. '' The authors also indicate that some forms of securitization are "likely to vanish forever, having been an artifact of excessively loose credit conditions. '' Rapid increases in a number of commodity prices followed the collapse in the housing bubble. The price of oil nearly tripled from $50 to $147 from early 2007 to 2008, before plunging as the financial crisis began to take hold in late 2008. Experts debate the causes, with some attributing it to speculative flow of money from housing and other investments into commodities, some to monetary policy, and some to the increasing feeling of raw materials scarcity in a fast - growing world, leading to long positions taken on those markets, such as Chinese increasing presence in Africa. An increase in oil prices tends to divert a larger share of consumer spending into gasoline, which creates downward pressure on economic growth in oil importing countries, as wealth flows to oil - producing states. A pattern of spiking instability in the price of oil over the decade leading up to the price high of 2008 has been recently identified. The destabilizing effects of this price variance has been proposed as a contributory factor in the financial crisis. Copper prices increased at the same time as oil prices. Copper traded at about $2,500 per ton from 1990 until 1999, when it fell to about $1,600. The price slump lasted until 2004, when a price surge pushed copper to $7,040 per ton in 2008. Nickel prices boomed in the late 1990s, then declined from around $51,000 / £ 36,700 per metric ton in May 2007 to about $11,550 / £ 8,300 per metric ton in January 2009. Prices were only just starting to recover as of January 2010, but most of Australia 's nickel mines had gone bankrupt by then. As the price for high grade nickel sulphate ore recovered in 2010, so did the Australian nickel mining industry. Coincidentally with these price fluctuations, long - only commodity index funds became popular -- by one estimate investment increased from $90 billion in 2006 to $200 billion at the end of 2007, while commodity prices increased 71 % -- which raised concern as to whether these index funds caused the commodity bubble. The empirical research has been mixed. Another analysis is that the financial crisis was merely a symptom of another, deeper crisis, which is a systemic crisis of capitalism itself. Ravi Batra 's theory is that growing inequality of financial capitalism produces speculative bubbles that burst and result in depression and major political changes. He has also suggested that a "demand gap '' related to differing wage and productivity growth explains deficit and debt dynamics important to stock market developments. John Bellamy Foster, a political economy analyst and editor of the Monthly Review, believes that the decrease in GDP growth rates since the early 1970s is due to increasing market saturation. The conventional Marxist explanation of capitalist crises was pointed to by economists Andrew Kliman, Michael Roberts, and Guglielmo Carchedi, in contradistinction to the Monthly Review school represented by Foster. These Marxist economists do not point to low wages or underconsumption as the cause of the crisis, but instead point to capitalism 's long - term tendency of the rate of profit to fall as the underlying cause of crises generally. From this point of view, the problem was the inability of capital to grow or accumulate at sufficient rates through productive investment alone. Low rates of profit in productive sectors led to speculative investment in riskier assets, where there was potential for greater return on investment. The speculative frenzy of the late 90s and 2000s was, in this view, a consequence of a rising organic composition of capital, expressed through the fall in the rate of profit. According to Michael Roberts, the fall in the rate of profit "eventually triggered the credit crunch of 2007 when credit could no longer support profits ''. In 2005, John C. Bogle wrote that a series of challenges face capitalism that have contributed to past financial crises and have not been sufficiently addressed: Corporate America went astray largely because the power of managers went virtually unchecked by our gatekeepers for far too long... They failed to ' keep an eye on these geniuses ' to whom they had entrusted the responsibility of the management of America 's great corporations. Echoing the central thesis of James Burnham 's 1941 seminal book, The Managerial Revolution, Bogle cites particular issues, including: An analysis conducted by Mark Roeder, a former executive at the Swiss - based UBS Bank, suggested that large - scale momentum, or The Big Mo "played a pivotal role '' in the 2008 -- 09 global financial crisis. Roeder suggested that "recent technological advances, such as computer - driven trading programs, together with the increasingly interconnected nature of markets, has magnified the momentum effect. This has made the financial sector inherently unstable. '' Robert Reich attributes the current economic downturn to the stagnation of wages in the United States, particularly those of the hourly workers who comprise 80 % of the workforce. He says this stagnation forced the population to borrow to meet the cost of living. Economists Ailsa McKay and Margunn Bjørnholt argue that the financial crisis and the response to it revealed a crisis of ideas in mainstream economics and within the economics profession, and call for a reshaping of both the economy, economic theory and the economics profession. The former Governor of the Reserve Bank of India, Raghuram Rajan, had predicted the crisis in 2005 when he became chief economist at the International Monetary Fund. In 2005, at a celebration honouring Alan Greenspan, who was about to retire as chairman of the US Federal Reserve, Rajan delivered a controversial paper that was critical of the financial sector. In that paper, "Has Financial Development Made the World Riskier? '', Rajan "argued that disaster might loom. '' Rajan argued that financial sector managers were encouraged to "take risks that generate severe adverse consequences with small probability but, in return, offer generous compensation the rest of the time. These risks are known as tail risks. But perhaps the most important concern is whether banks will be able to provide liquidity to financial markets so that if the tail risk does materialise, financial positions can be unwound and losses allocated so that the consequences to the real economy are minimised. '' The financial crisis was not widely predicted by mainstream economists. Karim Abadir, based on his work with Gabriel Talmain, predicted the timing of the recession whose trigger had already started manifesting itself in the real economy from early 2007. A number of heterodox economists predicted the crisis, with varying arguments. Dirk Bezemer in his research credits (with supporting argument and estimates of timing) 12 economists with predicting the crisis: Dean Baker (US), Wynne Godley (UK), Fred Harrison (UK), Michael Hudson (US), Eric Janszen (US), Steve Keen (Australia), Jakob Brøchner Madsen & Jens Kjaer Sørensen (Denmark), Med Jones (US) Kurt Richebächer (US), Nouriel Roubini (US), Peter Schiff (US), and Robert Shiller (US). Examples of other experts who gave indications of a financial crisis have also been given. The Austrian economic school regarded the crisis as a vindication and classic example of a predictable credit - fueled bubble that could not forestall the disregarded but inevitable effect of an artificial, manufactured laxity in monetary supply, a perspective that even former Fed Chair Alan Greenspan in Congressional testimony confessed himself forced to return to. A cover story in BusinessWeek magazine claims that economists mostly failed to predict the worst international economic crisis since the Great Depression of the 1930s. The Wharton School of the University of Pennsylvania 's online business journal examines why economists failed to predict a major global financial crisis. Popular articles published in the mass media have led the general public to believe that the majority of economists have failed in their obligation to predict the financial crisis. For example, an article in the New York Times informs that economist Nouriel Roubini warned of such crisis as early as September 2006, and the article goes on to state that the profession of economics is bad at predicting recessions. According to The Guardian, Roubini was ridiculed for predicting a collapse of the housing market and worldwide recession, while The New York Times labelled him "Dr. Doom ''. Shiller, an expert in housing markets, wrote an article a year before the collapse of Lehman Brothers in which he predicted that a slowing US housing market would cause the housing bubble to burst, leading to financial collapse. Schiff regularly appeared on television in the years before the crisis and warned of the impending real estate collapse. Within mainstream financial economics, most believe that financial crises are simply unpredictable, following Eugene Fama 's efficient - market hypothesis and the related random - walk hypothesis, which state respectively that markets contain all information about possible future movements, and that the movements of financial prices are random and unpredictable. Recent research casts doubt on the accuracy of "early warning '' systems of potential crises, which must also predict their timing. Stock trader and financial risk engineer Nassim Nicholas Taleb, author of the 2007 book The Black Swan, spent years warning against the breakdown of the banking system in particular and the economy in general owing to their use of and reliance on bad risk models and reliance on forecasting, and framed the problem as part of "robustness and fragility ''. He also took action against the establishment view by making a big financial bet on banking stocks and making a fortune from the crisis ("They did n't listen, so I took their money ''). According to David Brooks from the New York Times, "Taleb not only has an explanation for what 's happening, he saw it coming. '' The US stock market peaked in October 2007, when the Dow Jones Industrial Average index exceeded 14,000 points. It then entered a pronounced decline, which accelerated markedly in October 2008. By March 2009, the Dow Jones average had reached a trough of around 6,600. Four years later, it hit an all - time high. It is probable, but debated, that the Federal Reserve 's aggressive policy of quantitative easing spurred the partial recovery in the stock market. Market strategist Phil Dow believes distinctions exist "between the current market malaise '' and the Great Depression. He says the Dow Jones average 's fall of more than 50 % over a period of 17 months is similar to a 54.7 % fall in the Great Depression, followed by a total drop of 89 % over the following 16 months. "It 's very troubling if you have a mirror image, '' said Dow. Floyd Norris, the chief financial correspondent of The New York Times, wrote in a blog entry in March 2009 that the decline has not been a mirror image of the Great Depression, explaining that although the decline amounts were nearly the same at the time, the rates of decline had started much faster in 2007, and that the past year had only ranked eighth among the worst recorded years of percentage drops in the Dow. The past two years ranked third, however. The first notable event signaling a possible financial crisis occurred in the United Kingdom on August 9, 2007, when BNP Paribas, citing "a complete evaporation of liquidity '', blocked withdrawals from three hedge funds. The significance of this event was not immediately recognized but soon led to a panic as investors and savers attempted to liquidate assets deposited in highly leveraged financial institutions. The International Monetary Fund estimated that large US and European banks lost more than $1 trillion on toxic assets and from bad loans from January 2007 to September 2009. These losses are expected to top $2.8 trillion from 2007 to 2010. US bank losses were forecast to hit $1 trillion and European bank losses will reach $1.6 trillion. The International Monetary Fund (IMF) estimated in 2009 that US banks were about 60 % through their losses, but British and eurozone banks only 40 %. One of the first victims was Northern Rock, a medium - sized British bank. The highly leveraged nature of its business led the bank to request security from the Bank of England. This in turn led to investor panic and a bank run in mid-September 2007. Calls by Liberal Democrat Treasury Spokesman Vince Cable to nationalise the institution were initially ignored; in February 2008, however, the British government (having failed to find a private sector buyer) relented, and the bank was taken into public hands. Northern Rock 's problems proved to be an early indication of the troubles that would soon befall other banks and financial institutions. The first visible institution to run into trouble in the United States was the Southern California -- based IndyMac, a spin - off of Countrywide Financial. Before its failure, IndyMac Bank was the largest savings and loan association in the Los Angeles market and the seventh largest mortgage originator in the United States. The failure of IndyMac Bank on July 11, 2008, was the fourth largest bank failure in United States history up until the crisis precipitated even larger failures, and the second largest failure of a regulated thrift. IndyMac Bank 's parent corporation was IndyMac Bancorp until the FDIC seized IndyMac Bank. IndyMac Bancorp filed for Chapter 7 bankruptcy in July 2008. IndyMac Bank was founded as Countrywide Mortgage Investment in 1985 by David S. Loeb and Angelo Mozilo as a means of collateralizing Countrywide Financial loans too big to be sold to Freddie Mac and Fannie Mae. In 1997, Countrywide spun off IndyMac as an independent company run by Mike Perry, who remained its CEO until the downfall of the bank in July 2008. The primary causes of its failure were largely associated with its business strategy of originating and securitizing Alt - A loans on a large scale. This strategy resulted in rapid growth and a high concentration of risky assets. From its inception as a savings association in 2000, IndyMac grew to the seventh largest savings and loan and ninth largest originator of mortgage loans in the United States. During 2006, IndyMac originated over $90 billion of mortgages. IndyMac 's aggressive growth strategy, use of Alt - A and other nontraditional loan products, insufficient underwriting, credit concentrations in residential real estate in the California and Florida markets -- states, alongside Nevada and Arizona, where the housing bubble was most pronounced -- and heavy reliance on costly funds borrowed from a Federal Home Loan Bank (FHLB) and from brokered deposits, led to its demise when the mortgage market declined in 2007. IndyMac often made loans without verification of the borrower 's income or assets, and to borrowers with poor credit histories. Appraisals obtained by IndyMac on underlying collateral were often questionable as well. As an Alt - A lender, IndyMac 's business model was to offer loan products to fit the borrower 's needs, using an extensive array of risky option - adjustable - rate - mortgages (option ARMs), subprime loans, 80 / 20 loans, and other nontraditional products. Ultimately, loans were made to many borrowers who simply could not afford to make their payments. The thrift remained profitable only as long as it was able to sell those loans in the secondary mortgage market. IndyMac resisted efforts to regulate its involvement in those loans or tighten their issuing criteria: see the comment by Ruthann Melbourne, Chief Risk Officer, to the regulating agencies. May 12, 2008, in a small note in the "Capital '' section of its what would become its last 10 - Q released before receivership, IndyMac revealed -- but did not admit -- that it was no longer a well - capitalized institution and that it was headed for insolvency. IndyMac reported that during April 2008, Moody 's and Standard & Poor 's downgraded the ratings on a significant number of Mortgage - backed security (MBS) bonds -- including $160 million issued by IndyMac that the bank retained in its MBS portfolio. IndyMac concluded that these downgrades would have harmed the Company 's risk - based capital ratio as of June 30, 2008. Had these lowered ratings been in effect at March 31, 2008, IndyMac concluded that the bank 's capital ratio would have been 9.27 % total risk - based. IndyMac warned that if its regulators found its capital position to have fallen below "well capitalized '' (minimum 10 % risk - based capital ratio) to "adequately capitalized '' (8 -- 10 % risk - based capital ratio) the bank might no longer be able to use brokered deposits as a source of funds. Senator Charles Schumer (D - NY) later pointed out that brokered deposits made up more than 37 percent of IndyMac 's total deposits, and ask the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) whether it had considered ordering IndyMac to reduce its reliance on these deposits. With $18.9 billion in total deposits reported on March 31, Senator Schumer would have been referring to a little over $7 billion in brokered deposits. While the breakout of maturities of these deposits is not known exactly, a simple averaging would have put the threat of brokered deposits loss to IndyMac at $500 million a month, had the regulator disallowed IndyMac from acquiring new brokered deposits on June 30. IndyMac was taking new measures to preserve capital, such as deferring interest payments on some preferred securities. Dividends on common shares had already been suspended for the first quarter of 2008, after being cut in half the previous quarter. The company still had not secured a significant capital infusion nor found a ready buyer. IndyMac reported that the bank 's risk - based capital was only $47 million above the minimum required for this 10 % mark. But it did not reveal some of that $47 million capital it claimed it had, as of March 31, 2008, was fabricated. When home prices declined in the latter half of 2007 and the secondary mortgage market collapsed, IndyMac was forced to hold $10.7 billion of loans it could not sell in the secondary market. Its reduced liquidity was further exacerbated in late June 2008 when account holders withdrew $1.55 billion or about 7.5 % of IndyMac 's deposits. This "run '' on the thrift followed the public release of a letter from Senator Charles Schumer to the FDIC and OTS. The letter outlined the Senator 's concerns with IndyMac. While the run was a contributing factor in the timing of IndyMac 's demise, the underlying cause of the failure was the unsafe and unsound way they operated the thrift. On June 26, 2008, Senator Charles Schumer (D - NY), a member of the Senate Banking Committee, chairman of Congress ' Joint Economic Committee and the third - ranking Democrat in the Senate, released several letters he had sent to regulators, which warned that, "The possible collapse of big mortgage lender IndyMac Bancorp Inc. poses significant financial risks to its borrowers and depositors, and regulators may not be ready to intervene to protect them. '' Some worried depositors began to withdraw money. On July 7, 2008, IndyMac announced on the company blog that it: IndyMac announced the closure of both its retail lending and wholesale divisions, halted new loan submissions, and cut 3,800 jobs. On July 11, 2008, citing liquidity concerns, the FDIC put IndyMac Bank into conservatorship. A bridge bank, IndyMac Federal Bank, FSB, was established to assume control of IndyMac Bank 's assets, its secured liabilities, and its insured deposit accounts. The FDIC announced plans to open IndyMac Federal Bank, FSB on July 14, 2008. Until then, depositors would have access their insured deposits through ATMs, their existing checks, and their existing debit cards. Telephone and Internet account access was restored when the bank reopened. The FDIC guarantees the funds of all insured accounts up to US $100,000, and has declared a special advance dividend to the roughly 10,000 depositors with funds in excess of the insured amount, guaranteeing 50 % of any amounts in excess of $100,000. Yet, even with the pending sale of Indymac to IMB Management Holdings, an estimated 10,000 uninsured depositors of Indymac are still at a loss of over $270 million. With $32 billion in assets, IndyMac Bank was one of the largest bank failures in American history. IndyMac Bancorp filed for Chapter 7 bankruptcy on July 31, 2008. Initially the companies affected were those directly involved in home construction and mortgage lending such as Northern Rock and Countrywide Financial, as they could no longer obtain financing through the credit markets. Over 100 mortgage lenders went bankrupt during 2007 and 2008. Concerns that investment bank Bear Stearns would collapse in March 2008 resulted in its fire - sale to JP Morgan Chase. The financial institution crisis hit its peak in September and October 2008. Several major institutions either failed, were acquired under duress, or were subject to government takeover. These included Lehman Brothers, Merrill Lynch, Fannie Mae, Freddie Mac, Washington Mutual, Wachovia, Citigroup, and AIG. On October 6, 2008, three weeks after Lehman Brothers filed the largest bankruptcy in US history, Lehman 's former CEO Richard S. Fuld Jr. found himself before Representative Henry A. Waxman, the California Democrat who chaired the House Committee on Oversight and Government Reform. Fuld said he was a victim of the collapse, blaming a "crisis of confidence '' in the markets for dooming his firm. In September 2008, the crisis hit its most critical stage. There was the equivalent of a bank run on the money market funds, which frequently invest in commercial paper issued by corporations to fund their operations and payrolls. Withdrawal from money markets were $144.5 billion during one week, versus $7.1 billion the week prior. This interrupted the ability of corporations to rollover (replace) their short - term debt. The US government responded by extending insurance for money market accounts analogous to bank deposit insurance via a temporary guarantee and with Federal Reserve programs to purchase commercial paper. The TED spread, an indicator of perceived credit risk in the general economy, spiked up in July 2007, remained volatile for a year, then spiked even higher in September 2008, reaching a record 4.65 % on October 10, 2008. In a dramatic meeting on September 18, 2008, Treasury Secretary Henry Paulson and Fed chairman Ben Bernanke met with key legislators to propose a $700 billion emergency bailout. Bernanke reportedly told them: "If we do n't do this, we may not have an economy on Monday. '' The Emergency Economic Stabilization Act, which implemented the Troubled Asset Relief Program (TARP), was signed into law on October 3, 2008. Economist Paul Krugman and US Treasury Secretary Timothy Geithner explain the credit crisis via the implosion of the shadow banking system, which had grown to nearly equal the importance of the traditional commercial banking sector as described above. Without the ability to obtain investor funds in exchange for most types of mortgage - backed securities or asset - backed commercial paper, investment banks and other entities in the shadow banking system could not provide funds to mortgage firms and other corporations. This meant that nearly one - third of the US lending mechanism was frozen and continued to be frozen into June 2009. According to the Brookings Institution, at that time the traditional banking system did not have the capital to close this gap: "It would take a number of years of strong profits to generate sufficient capital to support that additional lending volume. '' The authors also indicate that some forms of securitization were "likely to vanish forever, having been an artifact of excessively loose credit conditions. '' While traditional banks raised their lending standards, it was the collapse of the shadow banking system that was the primary cause of the reduction in funds available for borrowing. There is a direct relationship between declines in wealth and declines in consumption and business investment, which along with government spending, represent the economic engine. Between June 2007 and November 2008, Americans lost an estimated average of more than a quarter of their collective net worth. By early November 2008, a broad US stock index, the S&P 500, was down 45 % from its 2007 high. Housing prices had dropped 20 % from their 2006 peak, with futures markets signaling a 30 -- 35 % potential drop. Total home equity in the United States, which was valued at $13 trillion at its peak in 2006, had dropped to $8.8 trillion by mid-2008 and was still falling in late 2008. Total retirement assets, Americans ' second - largest household asset, dropped by 22 %, from $10.3 trillion in 2006 to $8 trillion in mid-2008. During the same period, savings and investment assets (apart from retirement savings) lost $1.2 trillion and pension assets lost $1.3 trillion. Taken together, these losses total a staggering $8.3 trillion. Since peaking in the second quarter of 2007, household wealth is down $14 trillion. Further, US homeowners had extracted significant equity in their homes in the years leading up to the crisis, which they could no longer do once housing prices collapsed. Readily obtainable cash used by consumers from home equity extraction doubled from $627 billion in 2001 to $1,428 billion in 2005 as the housing bubble built, a total of nearly $5 trillion over the period. US home mortgage debt relative to GDP increased from an average of 46 % during the 1990s to 73 % during 2008, reaching $10.5 trillion. To offset this decline in consumption and lending capacity, the US government and US Federal Reserve committed $13.9 trillion, of which $6.8 trillion was invested or spent as of June 2009. In effect, the Fed went from being the "lender of last resort '' to the "lender of only resort '' for a significant portion of the economy. In some cases the Fed was considered the "buyer of last resort. '' In November 2008, economist Dean Baker observed: There is a really good reason for tighter credit. Tens of millions of homeowners who had substantial equity in their homes two years ago have little or nothing today. Businesses are facing the worst downturn since the Great Depression. This matters for credit decisions. A homeowner with equity in her home is very unlikely to default on a car loan or credit card debt. They will draw on this equity rather than lose their car and / or have a default placed on their credit record. On the other hand, a homeowner who has no equity is a serious default risk. In the case of businesses, their creditworthiness depends on their future profits. Profit prospects look much worse in November 2008 than they did in November 2007... While many banks are obviously at the brink, consumers and businesses would be facing a much harder time getting credit right now even if the financial system were rock solid. The problem with the economy is the loss of close to $6 trillion in housing wealth and an even larger amount of stock wealth. At the heart of the portfolios of many of these institutions were investments whose assets had been derived from bundled home mortgages. Exposure to these mortgage - backed securities, or to the credit derivatives used to insure them against failure, caused the collapse or takeover of several key firms such as Lehman Brothers, AIG, Merrill Lynch, and HBOS. The crisis rapidly developed and spread into a global economic shock, resulting in a number of European bank failures, declines in various stock indexes, and large reductions in the market value of equities and commodities. Both MBS and CDO were purchased by corporate and institutional investors globally. Derivatives such as credit default swaps also increased the linkage between large financial institutions. Moreover, the de-leveraging of financial institutions, as assets were sold to pay back obligations that could not be refinanced in frozen credit markets, further accelerated the solvency crisis and caused a decrease in international trade. World political leaders, national ministers of finance and central bank directors coordinated their efforts to reduce fears, but the crisis continued. At the end of October 2008 a currency crisis developed, with investors transferring vast capital resources into stronger currencies such as the yen, the dollar and the Swiss franc, leading many emergent economies to seek aid from the International Monetary Fund. Several commentators have suggested that if the liquidity crisis continues, an extended recession or worse could occur. The continuing development of the crisis has prompted fears of a global economic collapse although there are now many cautiously optimistic forecasters in addition to some prominent sources who remain negative. The financial crisis is likely to yield the biggest banking shakeout since the savings - and - loan meltdown. Investment bank UBS stated on October 6 that 2008 would see a clear global recession, with recovery unlikely for at least two years. Three days later UBS economists announced that the "beginning of the end '' of the crisis had begun, with the world starting to make the necessary actions to fix the crisis: capital injection by governments; injection made systemically; interest rate cuts to help borrowers. The United Kingdom had started systemic injection, and the world 's central banks were now cutting interest rates. UBS emphasized the United States needed to implement systemic injection. UBS further emphasized that this fixes only the financial crisis, but that in economic terms "the worst is still to come ''. UBS quantified their expected recession durations on October 16: the Eurozone 's would last two quarters, the United States ' would last three quarters, and the United Kingdom 's would last four quarters. The economic crisis in Iceland involved all three of the country 's major banks. Relative to the size of its economy, Iceland 's banking collapse is the largest suffered by any country in economic history. At the end of October UBS revised its outlook downwards: the forthcoming recession would be the worst since the early 1980s recession with negative 2009 growth for the US, Eurozone, UK; very limited recovery in 2010; but not as bad as the Great Depression. The Brookings Institution reported in June 2009 that US consumption accounted for more than a third of the growth in global consumption between 2000 and 2007. "The US economy has been spending too much and borrowing too much for years and the rest of the world depended on the US consumer as a source of global demand. '' With a recession in the US and the increased savings rate of US consumers, declines in growth elsewhere have been dramatic. For the first quarter of 2009, the annualized rate of decline in GDP was 14.4 % in Germany, 15.2 % in Japan, 7.4 % in the UK, 18 % in Latvia, 9.8 % in the Euro area and 21.5 % for Mexico. Some developing countries that had seen strong economic growth saw significant slowdowns. For example, growth forecasts in Cambodia show a fall from more than 10 % in 2007 to close to zero in 2009, and Kenya may achieve only 3 -- 4 % growth in 2009, down from 7 % in 2007. According to the research by the Overseas Development Institute, reductions in growth can be attributed to falls in trade, commodity prices, investment and remittances sent from migrant workers (which reached a record $251 billion in 2007, but have fallen in many countries since). This has stark implications and has led to a dramatic rise in the number of households living below the poverty line, be it 300,000 in Bangladesh or 230,000 in Ghana. Especially states with a fragile political system have to fear that investors from Western states withdraw their money because of the crisis. Bruno Wenn of the German DEG recommends to provide a sound economic policymaking and good governance to attract new investors The World Bank reported in February 2009 that the Arab World was far less severely affected by the credit crunch. With generally good balance of payments positions coming into the crisis or with alternative sources of financing for their large current account deficits, such as remittances, Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) or foreign aid, Arab countries were able to avoid going to the market in the latter part of 2008. This group is in the best position to absorb the economic shocks. They entered the crisis in exceptionally strong positions. This gives them a significant cushion against the global downturn. The greatest effect of the global economic crisis will come in the form of lower oil prices, which remains the single most important determinant of economic performance. Steadily declining oil prices would force them to draw down reserves and cut down on investments. Significantly lower oil prices could cause a reversal of economic performance as has been the case in past oil shocks. Initial impact will be seen on public finances and employment for foreign workers. The output of goods and services produced by labor and property located in the United States decreased at an annual rate of approximately 6 % in the fourth quarter of 2008 and first quarter of 2009, versus activity in the year - ago periods. The US unemployment rate increased to 10.1 % by October 2009, the highest rate since 1983 and roughly twice the pre-crisis rate. The average hours per work week declined to 33, the lowest level since the government began collecting the data in 1964. With the decline of gross domestic product came the decline in innovation. With fewer resources to risk in creative destruction, the number of patent applications flat - lined. Compared to the previous 5 years of exponential increases in patent application, this stagnation correlates to the similar drop in GDP during the same time period. Typical American families did not fare as well, nor did those "wealthy - but - not wealthiest '' families just beneath the pyramid 's top. On the other hand, half of the poorest families did not have wealth declines at all during the crisis. The Federal Reserve surveyed 4,000 households between 2007 and 2009, and found that the total wealth of 63 percent of all Americans declined in that period. 77 percent of the richest families had a decrease in total wealth, while only 50 percent of those on the bottom of the pyramid suffered a decrease. A 2015 study commissioned by the ACLU found that white home - owning households recovered from the financial crisis faster than black home - owning households, and projected that the financial crisis will likely widen the racial wealth gap in the US. On November 3, 2008, the European Commission at Brussels predicted for 2009 an extremely weak growth of GDP, by 0.1 %, for the countries of the Eurozone (France, Germany, Italy, Belgium etc.) and even negative number for the UK (− 1.0 %), Ireland and Spain. On November 6, the IMF at Washington, D.C., launched numbers predicting a worldwide recession by − 0.3 % for 2009, averaged over the developed economies. On the same day, the Bank of England and the European Central Bank, respectively, reduced their interest rates from 4.5 % down to 3 %, and from 3.75 % down to 3.25 %. As a consequence, starting from November 2008, several countries launched large "help packages '' for their economies. The US Federal Reserve Open Market Committee release in June 2009 stated: ... the pace of economic contraction is slowing. Conditions in financial markets have generally improved in recent months. Household spending has shown further signs of stabilizing but remains constrained by ongoing job losses, lower housing wealth, and tight credit. Businesses are cutting back on fixed investment and staffing but appear to be making progress in bringing inventory stocks into better alignment with sales. Although economic activity is likely to remain weak for a time, the Committee continues to anticipate that policy actions to stabilize financial markets and institutions, fiscal and monetary stimulus, and market forces will contribute to a gradual resumption of sustainable economic growth in a context of price stability. Economic projections from the Federal Reserve and Reserve Bank Presidents include a return to typical growth levels (GDP) of 2.5 -- 3 % in 2010; an unemployment plateau in 2009 and 2010 around 10 % with moderation in 2011; and inflation that remains at typical levels around 1 -- 2 %. The US Federal Reserve and central banks around the world took steps to expand money supplies to avoid the risk of a deflationary spiral, in which lower wages and higher unemployment led to a self - reinforcing decline in global consumption. In addition, governments enacted large fiscal stimulus packages, by borrowing and spending to offset the reduction in private sector demand caused by the crisis. The US Federal Reserve 's new and expanded liquidity facilities were intended to enable the central bank to fulfill its traditional lender - of - last - resort role during the crisis while mitigating stigma, broadening the set of institutions with access to liquidity, and increasing the flexibility with which institutions could tap such liquidity. This credit freeze brought the global financial system to the brink of collapse. The response of the Federal Reserve, the European Central Bank, the Bank of England and other central banks was immediate and dramatic. During the last quarter of 2008, these central banks purchased US $2.5 trillion of government debt and troubled private assets from banks. This was the largest liquidity injection into the credit market, and the largest monetary policy action, in world history. Following a model initiated by the United Kingdom bank rescue package, the governments of European nations and the US guaranteed the debt issued by their banks and raised the capital of their national banking systems, ultimately purchasing $1.5 trillion newly issued preferred stock in their major banks. In October 2010, Nobel laureate Joseph Stiglitz explained how the US Federal Reserve was implementing another monetary policy -- creating currency -- as a method to combat the liquidity trap. By creating $600 billion and inserting this directly into banks, the Federal Reserve intended to spur banks to finance more domestic loans and refinance mortgages. However, banks instead were spending the money in more profitable areas by investing internationally in emerging markets. Banks were also investing in foreign currencies, which Stiglitz and others point out may lead to currency wars while China redirects its currency holdings away from the United States. Governments have also bailed out a variety of firms as discussed above, incurring large financial obligations. To date, various US government agencies have committed or spent trillions of dollars in loans, asset purchases, guarantees, and direct spending. Significant controversy has accompanied the bailout, leading to the development of a variety of "decision making frameworks '', to help balance competing policy interests during times of financial crisis. The US executed two stimulus packages, totaling nearly $1 trillion during 2008 and 2009. Other countries also implemented fiscal stimulus plans beginning in 2008. United States President Barack Obama and key advisers introduced a series of regulatory proposals in June 2009. The proposals address consumer protection, executive pay, bank financial cushions or capital requirements, expanded regulation of the shadow banking system and derivatives, and enhanced authority for the Federal Reserve to safely wind - down systemically important institutions, among others. In January 2010, Obama proposed additional regulations limiting the ability of banks to engage in proprietary trading. The proposals were dubbed "The Volcker Rule '', in recognition of Paul Volcker, who has publicly argued for the proposed changes. The US Senate passed a reform bill in May 2010, following the House, which passed a bill in December 2009. These bills must now be reconciled. The New York Times provided a comparative summary of the features of the two bills, which address to varying extent the principles enumerated by the Obama administration. For instance, the Volcker Rule against proprietary trading is not part of the legislation, though in the Senate bill regulators have the discretion but not the obligation to prohibit these trades. European regulators introduced Basel III regulations for banks. It increased capital ratios, limits on leverage, narrow definition of capital (to exclude subordinated debt), limit counter-party risk, and new liquidity requirements. Critics argue that Basel III does n't address the problem of faulty risk - weightings. Major banks suffered losses from AAA - rated created by financial engineering (which creates apparently risk - free assets out of high risk collateral) that required less capital according to Basel II. Lending to AA - rated sovereigns has a risk - weight of zero, thus increasing lending to governments and leading to the next crisis. Johan Norberg argues that regulations (Basel III among others) have indeed led to excessive lending to risky governments (see European sovereign - debt crisis) and the ECB pursues even more lending as the solution. At least two major reports were produced by Congress: the Financial Crisis Inquiry Commission report, released January 2011, and a report by the United States Senate Homeland Security Permanent Subcommittee on Investigations entitled Wall Street and the Financial Crisis: Anatomy of a Financial Collapse (released April 2011). In Iceland in April 2012, the special Landsdómur court convicted former Prime Minister Geir Haarde of mishandling the 2008 -- 2012 Icelandic financial crisis. As of September 2011, no individuals in the UK have been prosecuted for misdeeds during the financial meltdown of 2008. As of 2012, in the United States, a large volume of troubled mortgages remained in place. It had proved impossible for most homeowners facing foreclosure to refinance or modify their mortgages and foreclosure rates remained high. The US recession that began in December 2007 ended in June 2009, according to the US National Bureau of Economic Research (NBER) and the financial crisis appears to have ended about the same time. In April 2009 TIME magazine declared "More Quickly Than It Began, The Banking Crisis Is Over. '' The United States Financial Crisis Inquiry Commission dates the crisis to 2008. President Barack Obama declared on January 27, 2010, "the markets are now stabilized, and we 've recovered most of the money we spent on the banks. '' The New York Times identifies March 2009 as the "nadir of the crisis '' and noted in 2011 that "Most stock markets around the world are at least 75 percent higher than they were then. Financial stocks, which led the markets down, have also led them up. '' Nevertheless, the lack of fundamental changes in banking and financial markets worries many market participants, including the International Monetary Fund. The distribution of household incomes in the United States has become more unequal during the post-2008 economic recovery, a first for the US but in line with the trend over the last ten economic recoveries since 1949. Income inequality in the United States has grown from 2005 to 2012 in more than 2 out of 3 metropolitan areas. Median household wealth fell 35 % in the US, from $106,591 to $68,839 between 2005 and 2011. The financial crisis generated many articles and books outside of the scholarly and financial press, including articles and books by author William Greider, economist Michael Hudson, author and former bond salesman Michael Lewis, Kevin Phillips, and investment broker Peter Schiff. In May 2010, a documentary, Overdose: A Film about the Next Financial Crisis, premiered about how the financial crisis came about and how the solutions that have been applied by many governments are setting the stage for the next crisis. The film is based on the book Financial Fiasco by Johan Norberg and features Alan Greenspan, with funding from the libertarian think tank The Cato Institute. Greenspan is responsible for de-regulating the derivatives market while chairman of the Federal Reserve. In October 2010, a documentary film about the crisis, Inside Job directed by Charles Ferguson, was released by Sony Pictures Classics. In 2011, it was awarded the Academy Award for Best Documentary Feature at the 83rd Academy Awards. Time magazine named "25 People to Blame for the Financial Crisis ''. Michael Lewis published a best - selling non-fiction book about the crisis, entitled The Big Short. In 2015, it was adapted into a film of the same name, which won the Academy Award for Best Adapted Screenplay. One point raised is to what extent those outside of the markets themselves (i.e., not working for a mainstream investment bank) could forecast the events and be generally less myopic. Subsequent to the crisis itself some observers furthermore noted a change in social relations as some group culpability emerged. Advanced economies led global economic growth prior to the financial crisis with "emerging '' and "developing '' economies lagging behind. The crisis overturned this relationship. The International Monetary Fund found that "advanced '' economies accounted for only 31 % of global GDP while emerging and developing economies accounted for 69 % of global GDP from 2007 to 2014. In the tables, the names of emergent economies are shown in boldface type, while the names of developed economies are in Roman (regular) type. The twenty largest economies contributing to global GDP growth (2007 -- 2014) The initial articles and some subsequent material were adapted from the Wikinfo article Financial crisis of 2007 -- 2008 released under the GNU Free Documentation License Version 1.2

who plays the homeless singer on the simpsons

Gal of Constant Sorrow - wikipedia Bob Boilen as himself Kelsey Grammer as Sideshow Bob Natalie Maines as Hettie (singing voice) Kate McKinnon as Hettie "Gal of Constant Sorrow '' is the fourteenth episode of the twenty - seventh season of the animated television series The Simpsons, and the 588th episode of the series overall. It aired in the United States on Fox on February 21, 2016. During breakfast, Marge Simpson discovers a loose tile on the floor and says that she 'll have to call a handyman. Homer Simpson gets the hint that he 's not handy and decides to replace the tile himself. He succeeds with the help of an online tutorial, but soon realizes that he has trapped the family cat Snowball II inside the floor. Meanwhile, Bart Simpson is participating of sled race on a hill, but Milhouse Van Houten is slowing them down, because he 's scared. Bart knocks Milhouse off, but he loses control of the sled and hits the shopping cart of a homeless woman named Hettie Mae Boggs, throwing it and all of her things into a frozen river. Feeling guilty, he invites Hettie to the Simpsons ' house. Hettie is getting too comfortable in Bart 's closet, so she decides to give Bart one dollar per day as a rent. Lisa Simpson soon realizes Bart 's suspicious income, and discovers Bart 's scheme, but Bart convinces her not to tell Marge, because if she does so, Hettie will get kicked out of the house. They also discover Hettie 's incredible talent for music, so Lisa invites her to stay in her closet. During the recordings of one of her songs, Bart warns Lisa that she should n't be doing that, because if Hettie lets her down, Lisa wo n't be able to deal with her emotions. Lisa showcases the song to Mr. Dewey Largo, her music teacher. He is initially hostile, saying he 's come to hate music, but he is convinced to let her keep her idealism until she is taught by Mrs. Ortner the following year. She then seeks Mayor Quimby and Krusty the Clown where she manages to arrange a concert and a NPR interview for Hettie. However, during the interview, Hettie reveals that she 's a drug and heroin addict. Lisa is shocked when she also discovers that Hettie could be very violent to the point of shooting someone (and possibly her parents) in the face. Meanwhile, Homer manages to free the cat from the walls, but he also traps Santa 's Little Helper inside. Later, Bart and Lisa come clean about Hettie to Marge, but Homer interrupts the conversation by falling through the roof trying to rescue Santa 's Little Helper. Marge reveals that she has already rescued him. She also tells Homer about Hettie, but Hettie has gone missing with her concert in thirty minutes. Homer and Bart manage to find Hettie drinking on Cletus Spuckler 's farm while Lisa is distracting the concert 's audience by playing her saxophone. After a conversation and almost getting shot in the face, Homer manages to bring Hettie to her concert, but Lisa had failed to entertain the crowd, so the place is almost empty. Lisa is heartbroken about Hettie, so she decides to sing one last song dedicated to Lisa, who decides to forgive her. During the credits, Hettie is shown playing in a rehab clinic only for the interns to escape to Moe 's Tavern through a secret tunnel. One of the interns, Disco Stu, comments that the bar is dirtier than the tunnel. "Gal of Constant Sorrow '' scored a 1.4 rating and was watched by 3.10 million viewers, making it Fox 's highest rated show of the night. Dennis Perkins of The A.V. Club gave the episode a B+ stating, "For all the griping about The Simpsons overstaying its welcome, it does n't take much for the show to win back viewers ' trust and affection. The characters and pieces are all in place, just waiting for the right tune to start moving in a semblance of their former hilarious harmony. For the second episode this season, credited writer Carolyn Omine pitches her script with a deftness and an understanding of the Simpsons that makes an episode fairly sing. ''

the night the lights went oit in georgia

The Night the Lights Went Out in Georgia (film) - Wikipedia The Night the Lights Went Out in Georgia is a 1981 American musical drama film starring Kristy McNichol, Dennis Quaid, Mark Hamill and Don Stroud, directed by Ronald F. Maxwell. It was very loosely inspired by the 1973 Vicki Lawrence song of the same name (it shares almost no plot elements with the original song). In 1981, Tanya Tucker recorded a different version for the film 's soundtrack and new lyrics related to the plot of the film were written. These altered lyrics were based on the plot line of the movie, which is not the same as the story of the original song. A young singer and his sister / manager travel to Nashville in search of stardom. As they journey from one grimy hotel to another, it becomes increasingly obvious that only one of them has what it takes to become a star. Travis Child (Quaid) is a country singer who had one hit song and then faded from the scene. His ambitious younger sister, Amanda (McNichol), is determined to get them to Nashville where Travis can once again become a star. Her plans are derailed by Travis 's lack of ambition and easy distraction by women and booze. The two are separated in one town and by the time they find each other in the next one, Travis has been arrested for public drunkenness. To pay the fine he takes a job bartending at a roadside tavern called Andy 's, where he meets and falls for a young lady with a very jealous ex-boyfriend -- who happens to be the deputy sheriff. The film was shot on location in Dade County, Georgia, but some scenes were filmed around Chattanooga, Tennessee, and Manchester, TN as well. At least one of the scenes was filmed on 23rd St. in Chattanooga, TN, and Scotty Maclellan had a small role in it. The bedroom scene was filmed in Ringgold, GA, at least according to the granddaughter of the woman who owned the house. "The Night the Lights Went Out in Georgia '' proves to be a film of considerable feeling and tenderness. '' Kevin Thomas, Los Angeles Times, Aug 7, 1981

when did the star spangled banner became the official national anthem

The Star - Spangled Banner - wikipedia "The Star - Spangled Banner '' is the national anthem of the United States of America. The lyrics come from "Defence of Fort M'Henry '', a poem written on September 14, 1814, by the 35 - year - old lawyer and amateur poet Francis Scott Key after witnessing the bombardment of Fort McHenry by British ships of the Royal Navy in Baltimore Harbor during the Battle of Baltimore in the War of 1812. Key was inspired by the large American flag, the Star - Spangled Banner, flying triumphantly above the fort during the American victory. The poem was set to the tune of a popular British song written by John Stafford Smith for the Anacreontic Society, a men 's social club in London. "To Anacreon in Heaven '' (or "The Anacreontic Song ''), with various lyrics, was already popular in the United States. Set to Key 's poem and renamed "The Star - Spangled Banner '', it soon became a well - known American patriotic song. With a range of one octave and one fifth (a semitone more than an octave and a half), it is known for being difficult to sing. Although the poem has four stanzas, only the first is commonly sung today. "The Star - Spangled Banner '' was recognized for official use by the United States Navy in 1889, and by U.S. President Woodrow Wilson in 1916, and was made the national anthem by a congressional resolution on March 3, 1931 (46 Stat. 1508, codified at 36 U.S.C. § 301), which was signed by President Herbert Hoover. Before 1931, other songs served as the hymns of American officialdom. "Hail, Columbia '' served this purpose at official functions for most of the 19th century. "My Country, ' Tis of Thee '', whose melody is identical to "God Save the Queen '', the British national anthem, also served as a de facto anthem. Following the War of 1812 and subsequent American wars, other songs emerged to compete for popularity at public events, among them "The Star - Spangled Banner '', as well as "America the Beautiful ''. On September 3, 1814, following the Burning of Washington and the Raid on Alexandria, Francis Scott Key and John Stuart Skinner set sail from Baltimore aboard the ship HMS Minden, flying a flag of truce on a mission approved by President James Madison. Their objective was to secure an exchange of prisoners, one of whom was Dr. William Beanes, the elderly and popular town physician of Upper Marlboro and a friend of Key 's who had been captured in his home. Beanes was accused of aiding the arrest of British soldiers. Key and Skinner boarded the British flagship HMS Tonnant on September 7 and spoke with Major General Robert Ross and Vice Admiral Alexander Cochrane over dinner while the two officers discussed war plans. At first, Ross and Cochrane refused to release Beanes, but relented after Key and Skinner showed them letters written by wounded British prisoners praising Beanes and other Americans for their kind treatment. Because Key and Skinner had heard details of the plans for the attack on Baltimore, they were held captive until after the battle, first aboard HMS Surprise and later back on HMS Minden. After the bombardment, certain British gunboats attempted to slip past the fort and effect a landing in a cove to the west of it, but they were turned away by fire from nearby Fort Covington, the city 's last line of defense. During the rainy night, Key had witnessed the bombardment and observed that the fort 's smaller "storm flag '' continued to fly, but once the shell and Congreve rocket barrage had stopped, he would not know how the battle had turned out until dawn. On the morning of September 14, the storm flag had been lowered and the larger flag had been raised. During the bombardment, HMS Terror and HMS Meteor provided some of the "bombs bursting in air ''. Key was inspired by the American victory and the sight of the large American flag flying triumphantly above the fort. This flag, with fifteen stars and fifteen stripes, had been made by Mary Young Pickersgill together with other workers in her home on Baltimore 's Pratt Street. The flag later came to be known as the Star - Spangled Banner and is today on display in the National Museum of American History, a treasure of the Smithsonian Institution. It was restored in 1914 by Amelia Fowler, and again in 1998 as part of an ongoing conservation program. Aboard the ship the next day, Key wrote a poem on the back of a letter he had kept in his pocket. At twilight on September 16, he and Skinner were released in Baltimore. He completed the poem at the Indian Queen Hotel, where he was staying, and titled it "Defence of Fort M'Henry ''. Much of the idea of the poem, including the flag imagery and some of the wording, is derived from an earlier song by Key, also set to the tune of "The Anacreontic Song ''. The song, known as "When the Warrior Returns '', was written in honor of Stephen Decatur and Charles Stewart on their return from the First Barbary War. Absent elaboration by Francis Scott Key prior to his death in 1843, some have speculated in modern times about the meaning of phrases or verses. According to British historian Robin Blackburn, the words "the hireling and slave '' allude to the thousands of ex-slaves in the British ranks organised as the Corps of Colonial Marines, who had been liberated by the British and demanded to be placed in the battle line "where they might expect to meet their former masters. '' Conversely, Professor Mark Clague, a professor of musicology at the University of Michigan, writes that the "middle two verses of Key 's lyric vilify the British enemy in the War of 1812 '' and "in no way glorifies or celebrates slavery. '' Clague writes that "For Key... the British mercenaries were scoundrels and the Colonial Marines were traitors who threatened to spark a national insurrection. '' This harshly anti-British nature of Verse 3 led to its omission in sheet music in World War I, when Britain and the U.S. were allies. Responding to the assertion of writer Jon Schwarz of The Intercept that the song is a "celebration of slavery, '' Clague said that: "The reference to slaves is about the use, and in some sense the manipulation, of black Americans to fight for the British, with the promise of freedom. The American forces included African - Americans as well as whites. The term ' freemen, ' whose heroism is celebrated in the fourth stanza, would have encompassed both. '' Others suggest that "Key may have intended the phrase as a reference to the British Navy 's practice of impressment (kidnapping sailors and forcing them to fight in defense of the crown), or as a semi-metaphorical slap at the British invading force as a whole (which included a large number of mercenaries). '' Key gave the poem to his brother - in - law Judge Joseph H. Nicholson who saw that the words fit the popular melody "The Anacreontic Song '', by English composer John Stafford Smith. This was the official song of the Anacreontic Society, an 18th - century gentlemen 's club of amateur musicians in London. Nicholson took the poem to a printer in Baltimore, who anonymously made the first known broadside printing on September 17; of these, two known copies survive. On September 20, both the Baltimore Patriot and The American printed the song, with the note "Tune: Anacreon in Heaven ''. The song quickly became popular, with seventeen newspapers from Georgia to New Hampshire printing it. Soon after, Thomas Carr of the Carr Music Store in Baltimore published the words and music together under the title "The Star Spangled Banner '', although it was originally called "Defence of Fort M'Henry ''. Thomas Carr 's arrangement introduced the raised fourth which became the standard deviation from "The Anacreontic Song ''. The song 's popularity increased, and its first public performance took place in October, when Baltimore actor Ferdinand Durang sang it at Captain McCauley 's tavern. Washington Irving, then editor of the Analectic Magazine in Philadelphia, reprinted the song in November 1814. By the early 20th century, there were various versions of the song in popular use. Seeking a singular, standard version, President Woodrow Wilson tasked the U.S. Bureau of Education with providing that official version. In response, the Bureau enlisted the help of five musicians to agree upon an arrangement. Those musicians were Walter Damrosch, Will Earhart, Arnold J. Gantvoort, Oscar Sonneck and John Philip Sousa. The standardized version that was voted upon by these five musicians premiered at Carnegie Hall on December 5, 1917, in a program that included Edward Elgar 's Carillon and Gabriel Pierné 's The Children 's Crusade. The concert was put on by the Oratorio Society of New York and conducted by Walter Damrosch. An official handwritten version of the final votes of these five men has been found and shows all five men 's votes tallied, measure by measure. The Italian opera composer Giacomo Puccini used an extract of the melody in writing the aria "Dovunque al mondo... '' in 1904 for his work Madama Butterfly. The song gained popularity throughout the 19th century and bands played it during public events, such as July 4th celebrations. A plaque displayed at Fort Meade, South Dakota, claims that the idea of making "The Star Spangled Banner '' the national anthem began on their parade ground in 1892. Colonel Caleb Carlton, Post Commander, established the tradition that the song be played "at retreat and at the close of parades and concerts. '' Carlton explained the custom to Governor Sheldon of South Dakota who "promised me that he would try to have the custom established among the state militia. '' Carlton wrote that after a similar discussion, Secretary of War, Daniel E. Lamont issued an order that it "be played at every Army post every evening at retreat. '' On July 27, 1889, Secretary of the Navy Benjamin F. Tracy signed General Order # 374, making "The Star - Spangled Banner '' the official tune to be played at the raising of the flag. In 1916, President Woodrow Wilson ordered that "The Star - Spangled Banner '' be played at military and other appropriate occasions. The playing of the song two years later during the seventh - inning stretch of Game One of the 1918 World Series, and thereafter during each game of the series is often cited as the first instance that the anthem was played at a baseball game, though evidence shows that the "Star - Spangled Banner '' was performed as early as 1897 at opening day ceremonies in Philadelphia and then more regularly at the Polo Grounds in New York City beginning in 1898. In any case, the tradition of performing the national anthem before every baseball game began in World War II. On April 10, 1918, John Charles Linthicum, U.S. Congressman from Maryland, introduced a bill to officially recognize "The Star - Spangled Banner '' as the national anthem. The bill did not pass. On April 15, 1929, Linthicum introduced the bill again, his sixth time doing so. On November 3, 1929, Robert Ripley drew a panel in his syndicated cartoon, Ripley 's Believe it or Not!, saying "Believe It or Not, America has no national anthem ''. In 1930, Veterans of Foreign Wars started a petition for the United States to officially recognize "The Star - Spangled Banner '' as the national anthem. Five million people signed the petition. The petition was presented to the United States House Committee on the Judiciary on January 31, 1930. On the same day, Elsie Jorss - Reilley and Grace Evelyn Boudlin sang the song to the Committee to refute the perception that it was too high pitched for a typical person to sing. The Committee voted in favor of sending the bill to the House floor for a vote. The House of Representatives passed the bill later that year. The Senate passed the bill on March 3, 1931. President Herbert Hoover signed the bill on March 4, 1931, officially adopting "The Star - Spangled Banner '' as the national anthem of the United States of America. As currently codified, the United States Code states that "(t) he composition consisting of the words and music known as the Star - Spangled Banner is the national anthem. '' O say can you see, by the dawn 's early light, What so proudly we hailed at the twilight 's last gleaming, Whose broad stripes and bright stars through the perilous fight, O'er the ramparts we watched, were so gallantly streaming? And the rockets ' red glare, the bombs bursting in air, Gave proof through the night that our flag was still there; O say does that star - spangled banner yet wave O'er the land of the free and the home of the brave? On the shore dimly seen through the mists of the deep, Where the foe 's haughty host in dread silence reposes, What is that which the breeze, o'er the towering steep, As it fitfully blows, half conceals, half discloses? Now it catches the gleam of the morning 's first beam, In full glory reflected now shines in the stream: ' Tis the star - spangled banner, O long may it wave O'er the land of the free and the home of the brave. And where is that band who so vauntingly swore That the havoc of war and the battle 's confusion, A home and a country, should leave us no more? Their blood has washed out their foul footsteps ' pollution. No refuge could save the hireling and slave From the terror of flight, or the gloom of the grave: And the star - spangled banner in triumph doth wave, O'er the land of the free and the home of the brave. O thus be it ever, when freemen shall stand Between their loved homes and the war 's desolation. Blest with vict'ry and peace, may the Heav'n rescued land Praise the Power that hath made and preserved us a nation! Then conquer we must, when our cause it is just, And this be our motto: ' In God is our trust. ' And the star - spangled banner in triumph shall wave O'er the land of the free and the home of the brave! In indignation over the start of the American Civil War, Oliver Wendell Holmes, Sr. added a fifth stanza to the song in 1861, which appeared in songbooks of the era. When our land is illumined with Liberty 's smile, If a foe from within strike a blow at her glory, Down, down with the traitor that dares to defile The flag of her stars and the page of her story! By the millions unchained who our birthright have gained, We will keep her bright blazon forever unstained! And the Star - Spangled Banner in triumph shall wave While the land of the free is the home of the brave. In a version hand - written by Francis Scott Key in 1840, the third line reads "Whose bright stars and broad stripes, through the clouds of the fight ''. The song is notoriously difficult for nonprofessionals to sing because of its wide range -- a 12th. Humorist Richard Armour referred to the song 's difficulty in his book It All Started With Columbus. In an attempt to take Baltimore, the British attacked Fort McHenry, which protected the harbor. Bombs were soon bursting in air, rockets were glaring, and all in all it was a moment of great historical interest. During the bombardment, a young lawyer named Francis Off Key (sic) wrote "The Star - Spangled Banner '', and when, by the dawn 's early light, the British heard it sung, they fled in terror. Professional and amateur singers have been known to forget the words, which is one reason the song is sometimes pre-recorded and lip - synced. Other times the issue is avoided by having the performer (s) play the anthem instrumentally instead of singing it. The pre-recording of the anthem has become standard practice at some ballparks, such as Boston 's Fenway Park, according to the SABR publication The Fenway Project. "The Star - Spangled Banner '' is traditionally played at the beginning of public sports events and orchestral concerts in the United States, as well as other public gatherings. The National Hockey League and Major League Soccer both require venues in both the U.S. and Canada to perform both the Canadian and American national anthems at games that involve teams from both countries (with the "away '' anthem being performed first). It is also usual for both American and Canadian anthems (done in the same way as the NHL and MLS) to be played at Major League Baseball and National Basketball Association games involving the Toronto Blue Jays and the Toronto Raptors (respectively), the only Canadian teams in those two major U.S. sports leagues, and in All Star Games on the MLB, NBA, and NHL. The Buffalo Sabres of the NHL, which play in a city on the Canada -- US border and have a substantial Canadian fan base, play both anthems before all home games regardless of where the visiting team is based. Two especially unusual performances of the song took place in the immediate aftermath of the United States September 11 attacks. On September 12, 2001, the Queen broke with tradition and allowed the Band of the Coldstream Guards to perform the anthem at Buckingham Palace, London, at the ceremonial Changing of the Guard, as a gesture of support for Britain 's ally. The following day at a St. Paul 's Cathedral memorial service, the Queen joined in the singing of the anthem, an unprecedented occurrence. The 200th anniversary of the "Star - Spangled Banner '' occurred in 2014 with various special events occurring throughout the United States. A particularly significant celebration occurred during the week of September 10 -- 16 in and around Baltimore, Maryland. Highlights included playing of a new arrangement of the anthem arranged by John Williams and participation of President Obama on Defender 's Day, September 12, 2014, at Fort McHenry. In addition, the anthem bicentennial included a youth music celebration including the presentation of the National Anthem Bicentennial Youth Challenge winning composition written by Noah Altshuler. The first popular music performance of the anthem heard by the mainstream U.S. was by Puerto Rican singer and guitarist José Feliciano. He created a nationwide uproar when he strummed a slow, blues - style rendition of the song at Tiger Stadium in Detroit before game five of the 1968 World Series, between Detroit and St. Louis. This rendition started contemporary "Star - Spangled Banner '' controversies. The response from many in the Vietnam War - era U.S. was generally negative. Despite the controversy, Feliciano 's performance opened the door for the countless interpretations of the "Star - Spangled Banner '' heard in the years since. One week after Feliciano 's performance, the anthem was in the news again when American athletes Tommie Smith and John Carlos lifted controversial raised fists at the 1968 Olympics while the "Star - Spangled Banner '' played at a medal ceremony. Marvin Gaye gave a soul - influenced performance at the 1983 NBA All - Star Game and Whitney Houston gave a soulful rendition before Super Bowl XXV in 1991, which was released as a single that charted at number 20 in 1991 and number 6 in 2001 (along with José Feliciano, the only times the anthem has been on the Billboard Hot 100). In 1993, Kiss did an instrumental rock version as the closing track on their album, Alive III. Another famous instrumental interpretation is Jimi Hendrix 's version, which was a set - list staple from autumn 1968 until his death in September 1970, including a famous rendition at the Woodstock music festival in 1969. Incorporating sonic effects to emphasize the "rockets ' red glare '', and "bombs bursting in air '', it became a late - 1960s emblem. Roseanne Barr gave a controversial performance of the anthem at a San Diego Padres baseball game at Jack Murphy Stadium on July 25, 1990. The comedian belted out a screechy rendition of the song, and afterward she attempted a gesture of ball players by spitting and grabbing her crotch as if adjusting a protective cup. The performance offended some, including the sitting U.S. President, George H.W. Bush. Sufjan Stevens has frequently performed the "Star - Spangled Banner '' in live sets, replacing the optimism in the end of the first verse with a new coda that alludes to the divisive state of the nation today. David Lee Roth both referenced parts of the anthem and played part of a hard rock rendition of the anthem on his song, "Yankee Rose '' on his 1986 solo album, Eat ' Em and Smile. Steven Tyler also caused some controversy in 2001 (at the Indianapolis 500, to which he later issued a public apology) and again in 2012 (at the AFC Championship Game) with a cappella renditions of the song with changed lyrics. A version of Aerosmith 's Joe Perry and Brad Whitford playing part of the song can be heard at the end of their version of "Train Kept A-Rollin ' '' on the Rockin ' the Joint album. The band Boston gave an instrumental rock rendition of the anthem on their Greatest Hits album. The band Crush 40 made a version of the song as opening track from the album Thrill of the Feel (2000). In March 2005, a government - sponsored program, the National Anthem Project, was launched after a Harris Interactive poll showed many adults knew neither the lyrics nor the history of the anthem. Several films have their titles taken from the song 's lyrics. These include two films titled Dawn 's Early Light (2000 and 2005); two made - for - TV features titled By Dawn 's Early Light (1990 and 2000); two films titled So Proudly We Hail (1943 and 1990); a feature (1977) and a short (2005) titled Twilight 's Last Gleaming; and four films titled Home of the Brave (1949, 1986, 2004, and 2006). United States Code, 36 U.S.C. § 301, states that during a rendition of the national anthem, when the flag is displayed, all present except those in uniform should stand at attention facing the flag with the right hand over the heart; Members of the Armed Forces and veterans who are present and not in uniform may render the military salute; men not in uniform should remove their headdress with their right hand and hold the headdress at the left shoulder, the hand being over the heart; and individuals in uniform should give the military salute at the first note of the anthem and maintain that position until the last note; and when the flag is not displayed, all present should face toward the music and act in the same manner they would if the flag were displayed. Military law requires all vehicles on the installation to stop when the song is played and all individuals outside to stand at attention and face the direction of the music and either salute, in uniform, or place the right hand over the heart, if out of uniform. A law passed in 2008 allows military veterans to salute out of uniform, as well. However, this statutory suggestion does not have any penalty associated with violations. 36 U.S.C. § 301 This behavioral requirement for the national anthem is subject to the same First Amendment controversies that surround the Pledge of Allegiance. For example, Jehovah 's Witnesses do not sing the national anthem, though they are taught that standing is an "ethical decision '' that individual believers must make based on their "conscience. '' The 1968 Olympics Black Power salute was a political demonstration conducted by African - American athletes Tommie Smith and John Carlos during their medal ceremony at the 1968 Summer Olympics in the Olympic Stadium in Mexico City. After having won gold and bronze medals respectively in the 200 meter running event, they turned on the podium to face their flags, and to hear the American national anthem, "The Star - Spangled Banner ''. Each athlete raised a black - gloved fist, and kept them raised until the anthem had finished. In addition, Smith, Carlos, and Australian silver medalist Peter Norman all wore human rights badges on their jackets. In his autobiography, Silent Gesture, Smith stated that the gesture was not a "Black Power '' salute, but a "human rights salute ''. The event is regarded as one of the most overtly political statements in the history of the modern Olympic Games. Politically motivated protests of the national anthem began in the National Football League (NFL) after San Francisco 49ers quarterback (QB) Colin Kaepernick sat during the anthem, as opposed to the tradition of standing, before his team 's third preseason game of 2016. Kaepernick also sat during the first two preseason games, but he went unnoticed. As a result of immigration to the United States and the incorporation of non-English speaking people into the country, the lyrics of the song have been translated into other languages. In 1861, it was translated into German. The Library of Congress also has record of a Spanish - language version from 1919. It has since been translated into Hebrew and Yiddish by Jewish immigrants, Latin American Spanish (with one version popularized during immigration reform protests in 2006), French by Acadians of Louisiana, Samoan, and Irish. The third verse of the anthem has also been translated into Latin. With regard to the indigenous languages of North America, there are versions in Navajo and Cherokee.

who sang i am henry the eighth i am

I 'm Henery the Eighth, I am - wikipedia "I 'm Henery the Eighth, I Am '' (also "I 'm Henery the VIII, I Am '' or "I 'm Henry VIII, I Am ''; spelled "Henery '' but pronounced "' Enery '' in the Cockney style normally used to sing it) is a 1910 British music hall song by Fred Murray and R. P. Weston. It was a signature song of the music hall star Harry Champion. In 1965, it became the fastest - selling song in history to that point when it was revived by Herman 's Hermits, becoming the group 's second number - one on the Billboard Hot 100 chart. The lead solo on the Hermits ' version was played by the group 's lead guitarist Derek "Lek '' Leckenby. In the well - known chorus, Henery explains that his wife had been married seven times before: I 'm ' Enery the Eighth, I am, ' Enery the Eighth I am, I am! I got married to the widow next door, She 's been married seven times before And every one was an ' Enery She would n't have a Willie nor a Sam I 'm her eighth old man named ' Enery ' Enery the Eighth, I am! According to one source, Champion "used to fire off (the chorus) at tremendous speed with almost desperate gusto, his face bathed in sweat and his arms and legs flying in all directions. '' In later versions recorded by Champion, "Willie '' is changed to "William '' because the former is a British slang term for the penis. The song is often sung in a Cockney accent. In 1961 this song was recorded and extensively performed live by the British star Joe Brown, who revived the song and made it largely known in the British pop world. His version has two choruses either side of his guitar solo. (B - side, Piccadilly Records 7N 35005) He performs it live still today. The Herman 's Hermits version consists of the chorus sung three times. Between the first two choruses, Peter Noone calls out, "Second verse, same as the first! ''. The background singers on the version recorded by Connie Francis for her 1966 album Connie Francis and The Kids Next Door use this call as well. Earlier sources usually spell the name "Henery '' (as do some old sources when referring to the historical King of England), and the music requires the name "Henery '' (or "' Enery '') to be pronounced as three syllables. The sheet music for the 1965 Herman 's Hermits revival, however, presented the name as "Henry '', as do sources referring to this version.

how many federal workers are there in the us

United States federal civil Service - Wikipedia The United States federal civil service is the civilian workforce (i.e., non-elected and non-military, public sector employees) of the United States federal government 's departments and agencies. The federal civil service was established in 1871 (5 U.S.C. § 2101). U.S. state and local government entities often have comparable civil service systems that are modeled on the national system, in varying degrees. According to the Office of Personnel Management, as of December 2011, there were approximately 2.79 million civil servants employed by the U.S. government. This includes employees in the departments and agencies run by any of the three branches of government (the executive branch, legislative branch, and judicial branch), such as over 600,000 employees in the U.S. Postal Service. The majority of civil service positions are classified as competitive service, meaning employees are selected based on merit after a competitive hiring process for positions that are open to all applicants. The Senior Executive Service (SES) is the classification for non-competitive, senior leadership positions filled by career employees or political appointments (e.g., Cabinet members, ambassadors, etc.). Excepted service positions (also known as unclassified service) are non-competitive jobs in certain federal agencies with security and intelligence functions (e.g., the CIA, FBI, State Department, etc.) that are authorized to create their own hiring policies and are not subject to most appointment, pay, and classification laws. In the early 19th century, positions in the federal government were held at the pleasure of the president -- a person could be fired at any time. The spoils system meant that jobs were used to support the American political parties, though this was gradually changed by the Pendleton Civil Service Reform Act of 1883 and subsequent laws. By 1909, almost two - thirds of the U.S. federal workforce was appointed based on merit, that is, qualifications measured by tests. Certain senior civil service positions, including some heads of diplomatic missions and executive agencies, are filled by political appointees. Under the Hatch Act of 1939, civil servants are not allowed to engage in political activities while performing their duties. In some cases, an outgoing administration will give its political appointees positions with civil service protection in order to prevent them from being fired by the new administration; this is called "burrowing '' in civil service jargon. Employees in the civil services work under one of the independent agencies or one of the 15 executive departments. In addition to departments, there are a number of staff organizations grouped into the Executive Office of the President. These include the White House staff, the National Security Council, the Office of Management and Budget, the Council of Economic Advisers, the Office of the U.S. Trade Representative, the Office of National Drug Control Policy and the Office of Science and Technology Policy. There are also independent agencies such as the United States Postal Service, the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA), the Central Intelligence Agency (CIA), the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), and the United States Agency for International Development (USAID). In addition, there are government - owned corporations such as the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) and the National Railroad Passenger Corporation. There were 456 federal agencies in 2009. The pay system of the United States government civil service has evolved into a complex set of pay systems that include principally the General Schedule (GS) for white - collar employees, Federal Wage System (FWS) for blue - collar employees, Senior Executive System (SES) for Executive - level employees, Foreign Service Schedule (FS) for members of the Foreign Service and more than twelve alternate pay systems that are referred to as alternate or experimental pay systems such as the first experimental system China Lake Demonstration Project. The current system began as the Classification Act of 1923 and was refined into law with the Classification Act of 1949. These acts that provide the foundation of the current system have been amended through executive orders and through published amendments in the Federal Register that sets for approved changes in the regulatory structure of the federal pay system. The common goal among all pay systems is to achieve the goal of paying equitable salaries to all involved workers regardless of system, group or classification. This is referred to as pay equity or ("equal pay for equal work ''). Select careers in high demand may be subject to a special rate table, which can pay above the standard GS tables. These careers include certain engineering disciplines and patent examiners. The General Schedule (GS) includes white collar workers at levels 1 through 15, most professional, technical, administrative, and clerical positions in the federal civil service. The Federal Wage System or Wage Grade (WG) schedule includes most federal blue - collar workers. As of September 2004, 71 % of federal civilian employees were paid under the GS; the remaining 29 % were paid under other systems such as the Federal Wage System for federal blue - collar civilian employees, the Senior Executive Service / Senior Level and the Executive Schedule for high - ranking federal employees, and the pay schedules for the United States Postal Service and the Foreign Service. In addition, some federal agencies -- such as the United States Securities and Exchange Commission, the Federal Reserve System, and the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation -- have their own unique pay schedules. All federal employees in the GS system receive a base pay that is adjusted for locality. Locality pay varies, but is at least 10 % of base salary in all parts of the United States. The following salary ranges represent the lowest and highest possible amounts a person can earn in base salary, without earning over-time pay or receiving a merit - based bonus. Actual salary ranges differ adjusted for increased locality pay (for instance a GS - 9, step 1 in rural Arkansas may start at $50,598 versus $61,084 in San Jose, California), but all base salaries lie within the parameters of the following ranges (effective January, 2018): Nineteen percent of federal employees earned salaries of $100,000 or more in 2009. The average federal worker 's pay was $71,208 compared with $40,331 in the private sector, although under Office of Management and Budget Circular A-76, most menial or lower paying jobs have been outsourced to private contractors. In 2010, there were 82,034 workers, 3.9 % of the federal workforce, making more than $150,000 annually, compared to 7,240 in 2005. GS salaries are capped by law so that they do not exceed the salary for Executive Schedule IV positions. The increase in civil servants making more than $150,000 resulted mainly from an increase in Executive Schedule salary approved during the Administration of George W. Bush, which raised the salary cap for senior GS employees slightly above the $150,000 threshold. Basic pay rates for Senior Executive Service (i.e. non-Presidentially appointed civil servants above GS - 15) will range from $119,554 to $179,700 in 2012. As of January 2009, the Federal Government, excluding the Postal Service and soldiers, employed about 2 million civilian workers. The Federal Government is the nation 's single largest employer. Although most federal agencies are based in the Washington, D.C. region, only about 16 % (or about 288,000) of the federal government workforce is employed in this region. Public support in the United States for civil service reform strengthened following the assassination of President James Garfield. The United States Civil Service Commission was created by the Pendleton Civil Service Reform Act, which was passed into law on January 16, 1883. The commission was created to administer the civil service of the United States federal government. The law required federal government employees to be selected through competitive exams and basis of merit; it also prevented elected officials and political appointees from firing civil servants, removing civil servants from the influences of political patronage and partisan behavior. However, the law did not apply to state and municipal governments. Effective January 1, 1978, the commission was renamed the Office of Personnel Management under the provisions of Reorganization Plan No. 2 of 1978 (43 F.R. 36037, 92 Stat. 3783) and the Civil Service Reform Act of 1978. The United States Civil service exams have since been abolished for many positions, since statistics show that they do not accurately allow hiring of minorities according to the affirmative action guidelines. This act abolished the United States Civil Service Commission and created the U.S. Office of Personnel Management (OPM), the Federal Labor Relations Authority (FLRA) and the U.S. Merit Systems Protection Board (MSPB). OPM primarily provides management guidance to the various agencies of the executive branch and issues regulations that control federal human resources. FLRA oversees the rights of federal employees to form collective bargaining units (unions) and to engage in collective bargaining with agencies. MSPB conducts studies of the federal civil service and mainly hears the appeals of federal employees who are disciplined or otherwise separated from their positions. This act was an effort to replace incompetent officials. President Donald Trump signed three executive orders designed to enforce merit - system principles in the civil service and intended to improve efficiency, transparency, and accountability in the federal government. Supporters of the executive orders hope that these initiatives will make civil service more accountable and that both taxpayers and federal workers will benefit.

what happened to the former host of man versus food

Adam Richman - wikipedia Adam Richman (born May 16, 1974) is an American actor and television personality. He has hosted various dining and eating - challenge programs on the Travel Channel. Richman was born into a Jewish family in Brooklyn, New York, and raised in the Sheepshead Bay neighborhood of the borough. He attended "a Solomon Schechter school through eighth grade and then a Talmud Torah high school '', ultimately graduating from Midwood High School. He completed his undergraduate degree in International Studies at Emory University in Atlanta, Georgia, and earned a master 's degree from the Yale School of Drama. While attending Emory University, Richman was a member of Alpha Epsilon Pi fraternity. His acting career has included guest roles on Guiding Light, All My Children, Law & Order: Trial by Jury, and in 2004 he portrayed God as a butcher on Joan of Arcadia. In addition to appearing in regional theater productions throughout the United States, Richman has also been seen in several national television commercials. As a self - educated food expert and trained sushi chef, Richman has kept a travel journal that includes every restaurant he has visited since 1995. To maintain his health while indulging for his show on Travel Channel 's Man v. Food (which originally aired between 2008 and 2012), Richman would exercise twice a day while on the road. When the schedule permitted, he would not eat the day before a challenge. He also tried to stay hydrated by drinking lots of water or club soda and forgoing coffee and soft drinks. Richman retired from competitive eating in January 2012; thus, Man v. Food Nation was the final season of Man v. Food. During his time as a competitive eater, Richman gained a considerable amount of weight and became depressed. After retiring from competitive eating, he lost 60 pounds (27 kg). Richman was a paid spokesman for Zantac during Season 3 of Man v. Food. He is also the author of America the Edible: A Hungry History from Sea to Dining Sea, which was released on November 9, 2010, by Rodale Publishing. On January 23, 2011, Richman appeared on Food Network 's Iron Chef America as a judge for a battle with Gruyère cheese as the theme ingredient. Richman hosted Travel Channel 's The Traveler 's Guide to Life, which debuted on January 26, 2011, and Amazing Eats, a spin - off of his popular series Man v. Food and Man v. Food Nation, which premiered on January 11, 2012. Richman also hosted the TV series Adam Richman 's Best Sandwich in America which premiered Wednesday, June 6, 2012 at 9 p.m. ET. This 11 episode weekly series documented Richman 's "nationwide quest to find the best thing since sliced bread ' on ' sliced bread. '' He ultimately declared the roast - pork sandwich from Tommy DiNic 's in Philadelphia 's Reading Terminal Market his "Best Sandwich in America. '' He hosts the Travel Channel 's Adam Richman 's Fandemonium. An NBC game show called Food Fighters, with Richman as host, premiered on July 22, 2014. In June 2014, Richman found himself embroiled in a social media controversy over comments he made about his weight loss, which were accompanied by a hashtag said to be linked to eating disorders. Highlighting the controversial nature of the encounter are allegations that Richman referred to one or more of his followers as "haters '' and further advised them to "grab a razor blade & draw a bath '' He later apologized, but the Travel Channel postponed Richman 's series Man Finds Food. In 2015, he told The Independent that he eats a vegan diet when training for soccer. In 2015, he was a judge on the British television series BBQ Champ, hosted by Myleene Klass and broadcast on ITV. Richman is a fan of the New York Yankees, English Premier League club Tottenham Hotspur and the Miami Dolphins (especially their Hall of Fame quarterback, Dan Marino.) On June 8, 2014 Richman represented the "Rest of the World '' team in the annual Soccer Aid match against England at Old Trafford, Manchester in a game that combined former professional players and celebrities. Richman was quoted as saying that he lost 30 kilograms (66 lb) for the game, and cried when he was asked to take part.

fabled offer of milk to the stork and the fox

The fox and the stork - wikipedia The Fox and the Stork, also known as The Fox and the Crane, is one of Aesop 's fables and is first recorded in the collection of Phaedrus. It is numbered 426 in the Perry Index. A fox invites the stork to eat with him and provides soup in a bowl, which the fox can lap up easily; however, the stork can not drink it with its beak. The stork then invites the fox to a meal, which is served in a narrow - necked vessel. It is easy for the stork to access but impossible for the fox. The moral drawn is that the trickster must expect trickery in return and that the golden rule of conduct is for one to do to others what one would wish for oneself. The fable has been illustrated since the Middle Ages in Europe. One of the earliest depictions is on the top of a column on the north side of the cloisters in the Collegiata di Sant'Orso in Aosta. In the Romanesque style of the 12th century, both the fox 's and the stork 's tricks are shown on different sides. While medieval and early Renaissance pictorial convention allowed composite designs the episodes of the two meals both appeared in the same design. Thereafter, only one could appear, and it was usually the stork 's revenge that was depicted. However, since the 19th century some artists have been returning to composite designs. One exception in the applied arts occurred when both episodes were included among the thirty nine hydraulic statues built for the Versailles labyrinth that was constructed for Louis XIV to further the Dauphin 's education. A similar solution is provided by the suggestive sculptures in the square of Barzy - sur - Marne, where the two animals are juxtaposed at right angles and the meal is left to the viewer 's imagination. A different solution was chosen by Pieter Bruegel the Elder in his depiction of Netherlandish Proverbs (1559). The saying ' The fox and the crane entertain each other ' had come to mean that tricksters look out for their own advantage, so the two are pictured at the centre of the painting seated before their preferred receptacle. The story 's popularity was further assured after it appeared in La Fontaine 's Fables (I. 18). It then began to be applied on a number of domestic items, including buttons, firebacks, snuff graters, household china and tiles, and on wallpaper. Among the artists who have chosen it as a subject are Frans Snyders (about 1650), Jan van Kessel, senior (1661), Jean - Baptiste Oudry (1747) and his son Jacques - Charles, Hippolyte Lecomte, and Philippe Rousseau (1816 -- 1887). It also features on the right - hand side of Gustav Klimt 's "The Fable '' (1883). There the fox is accompanied by two storks, one of which has a frog in its beak -- in reference to the fable of The Frogs Who Desired a King. In the contemporary fountain sculpture by the Catalan Eduard Batiste Alentorn (1855 -- 1920) in Barcelona 's Parc de la Ciutadella, the frustrated fox kicks over the tall vessel, from which the fountain 's water pours. In the 20th century, Le Renard et la Cigogne figured in the series of medals illustrating La Fontaine 's fables cast by Jean Vernon (1940) and Marc Chagall made it Plate 9 in his etchings of them (1952). Among European musical settings was one by Louis Lacombe (op. 72, 1875). Later it appeared as the first piece in Andre Asriel 's 6 Fabeln nach Aesop (1972). In 1995 it was among the seven in Catalan translation that the composer Xavier Benguerel i Godó set for recitation with orchestral accompaniment. The fable has also appeared on postage stamps illustrating La Fontaine 's fables. These include the 35 franc air mail stamp issued by Dahomey in 1995 to commemorate the tricentenary of his death, the 170 forint stamp issued as part of a set by Hungary in 1960, and a Monaco commemoration of the 350th anniversary of the fabulist 's birth. Media related to The fox and the stork at Wikimedia Commons

who played the original anne of green gables

Anne of Green Gables (1934 film) - wikipedia Anne of Green Gables is a 1934 film directed by George Nicholls, Jr., based upon the novel, Anne of Green Gables by Lucy Maud Montgomery. The actress Dawn O'Day who portrayed the title character of Anne Shirley changed her stage name to Anne Shirley after making this film. There was also a sequel; Anne of Windy Poplars. This modest film became a surprise hit in 1934, easily succeeding in becoming one of four top - grossing films RKO made that year (as noted in The R.K.O. Story published by Arlington House). Anne Shirley (Dawn O'Day) is an orphan who has been adopted by farmer Matthew Cuthbert (O.P. Heggie) and his sister, Marilla (Helen Westley). Although the pair were expecting a young boy to help on their farm, Anne endears herself to them and to the local villagers. She befriends Diana Barry and most of the children at her school, all except for Gilbert Blythe after he calls her ' carrots ' and she smashes her slate over his head. She and Diana have a bet that Anne can flirt with Gilbert and he will fall head over heels in love with her. Little do they know, Gilbert overheard them and has already fallen in love with her. Anne flirts with him, which becomes unsuccessful, and Diana wins the bet. Anne lies to Gilbert that she has a boyfriend to make him jealous, but she only ends up embarrassing herself. Shortly after, Anne is playing the Lady of Shalott when she realizes her boat is sinking, and Gilbert sees her and saves her life. She then decides to forgive him and give him a reward for saving her. She will kiss him. Gilbert is surprised. Anne thinks he does n't want to claim his reward, but he tells her he does and that he wants her to be his girl. For three years they have an affair, but Mrs. Barry spies on them and tells Marilla. Marilla does not want Anne to even talk to Gilbert, since his mother broke Matthew 's heart. Anne and Gilbert are both devastated and Matthew is upset with Marilla, since it was n't she who got her heart broken. Anne goes to college. Diana, who is now married, visits Anne and tells her that Matthew is ill. She returns to Green Gables, finding out it 's for sale to save Matthew, since he needs the best doctor in Halifax. She remembers Gilbert is studying with this doctor, so she goes to see Gilbert. He tries flirting with her, and she eventually gives in and finds out that Gilbert heard about Matthew and begged the doctor to save him for free, which he did. After Marilla finds out what he had done, she forgives the Blythes and lets Anne and Gilbert see each other again. The film made a profit of $272,000.

summary of alice through the looking glass book

Through the Looking - Glass - wikipedia Through the Looking - Glass, and What Alice Found There (1872) is a novel by Lewis Carroll (Charles Lutwidge Dodgson), the sequel to Alice 's Adventures in Wonderland (1865). Set some six months later than the earlier book, Alice again enters a fantastical world, this time by climbing through a mirror into the world that she can see beyond it. Through the Looking - Glass includes such celebrated verses as "Jabberwocky '' and "The Walrus and the Carpenter '', and the episode involving Tweedledum and Tweedledee. The mirror which inspired Carroll remains displayed in Charlton Kings. Chapter One -- Looking - Glass House: Alice is playing with a white kitten (whom she calls "Snowdrop '') and a black kitten (whom she calls "Kitty '') -- the offspring of Dinah, Alice 's cat in Alice 's Adventures in Wonderland -- when she ponders what the world is like on the other side of a mirror 's reflection. Climbing up onto the fireplace mantel, she pokes at the wall - hung mirror behind the fireplace and discovers, to her surprise, that she is able to step through it to an alternative world. In this reflected version of her own house, she finds a book with looking - glass poetry, "Jabberwocky '', whose reversed printing she can read only by holding it up to the mirror. She also observes that the chess pieces have come to life, though they remain small enough for her to pick up. Chapter Two -- The Garden of Live Flowers: Upon leaving the house (where it had been a cold, snowy night), she enters a sunny spring garden where the flowers can speak; they perceive Alice as being a "flower that can move about ''. Elsewhere in the garden, Alice meets the Red Queen, who is now human - sized, and who impresses Alice with her ability to run at breathtaking speeds. This is a reference to the chess rule that queens are able to move any number of vacant squares at once, in any direction, which makes them the most "agile '' of pieces. Chapter Three -- Looking - Glass Insects: The Red Queen reveals to Alice that the entire countryside is laid out in squares, like a gigantic chessboard, and offers to make Alice a queen if she can move all the way to the eighth rank / row in a chess match. This is a reference to the chess rule of Promotion. Alice is placed in the second rank as one of the White Queen 's pawns, and begins her journey across the chessboard by boarding a train that literally jumps over the third row and directly into the fourth rank, thus acting on the rule that pawns can advance two spaces on their first move. Chapter Four -- Tweedledum and Tweedledee: She then meets the fat twin brothers Tweedledum and Tweedledee, who she knows from the famous nursery rhyme. After reciting the long poem "The Walrus and the Carpenter '', the Tweedles draw Alice 's attention to the Red King -- loudly snoring away under a nearby tree -- and maliciously provoke her with idle philosophical banter that she exists only as an imaginary figure in the Red King 's dreams (thereby implying that she will cease to exist the instant he wakes up). Finally, the brothers begin acting out their nursery - rhyme by suiting up for battle, only to be frightened away by an enormous crow, as the nursery rhyme about them predicts. Chapter Five -- Wool and Water: Alice next meets the White Queen, who is very absent - minded but boasts of (and demonstrates) her ability to remember future events before they have happened. Alice and the White Queen advance into the chessboard 's fifth rank by crossing over a brook together, but at the very moment of the crossing, the Queen transforms into a talking Sheep in a small shop. Alice soon finds herself struggling to handle the oars of a small rowboat, where the Sheep annoys her with (seemingly) nonsensical shouting about "crabs '' and "feathers ''. Unknown to Alice, these are standard terms in the jargon of rowing. Thus (for a change) the Queen / Sheep was speaking in a perfectly logical and meaningful way. Chapter Six -- Humpty Dumpty: After crossing yet another brook into the sixth rank, Alice immediately encounters Humpty Dumpty, who, besides celebrating his unbirthday, provides his own translation of the strange terms in "Jabberwocky ''. In the process, he introduces Alice (and the reader) to the concept of portmanteau words, before his inevitable fall. Chapter Seven -- The Lion and the Unicorn: "All the king 's horses and all the king 's men '' come to Humpty Dumpty 's assistance, and are accompanied by the White King, along with the Lion and the Unicorn, who again proceed to act out a nursery rhyme by fighting with each other. In this chapter, the March Hare and Hatter of the first book make a brief re-appearance in the guise of "Anglo - Saxon messengers '' called "Haigha '' and "Hatta '' (i.e. "Hare '' and "Hatter '' -- these names are the only hint given as to their identities other than John Tenniel 's illustrations). Chapter Eight -- "It 's my own Invention '': Upon leaving the Lion and Unicorn to their fight, Alice reaches the seventh rank by crossing another brook into the forested territory of the Red Knight, who is intent on capturing the "white pawn '' -- who is Alice -- until the White Knight comes to her rescue. Escorting her through the forest towards the final brook - crossing, the Knight recites a long poem of his own composition called Haddocks ' Eyes, and repeatedly falls off his horse. His clumsiness is a reference to the "eccentric '' L - shaped movements of chess knights, and may also be interpreted as a self - deprecating joke about Lewis Carroll 's own physical awkwardness and stammering in real life. Chapter Nine -- Queen Alice: Bidding farewell to the White Knight, Alice steps across the last brook, and is automatically crowned a queen, with the crown materialising abruptly on her head. She soon finds herself in the company of both the White and Red Queens, who relentlessly confound Alice by using word play to thwart her attempts at logical discussion. They then invite one another to a party that will be hosted by the newly crowned Alice -- of which Alice herself had no prior knowledge. Chapter Ten -- Shaking: Alice arrives and seats herself at her own party, which quickly turns to a chaotic uproar -- much like the ending of the first book. Alice finally grabs the Red Queen, believing her to be responsible for all the day 's nonsense, and begins shaking her violently with all her might. By thus "capturing '' the Red Queen, Alice unknowingly puts the Red King (who has remained stationary throughout the book) into checkmate, and thus is allowed to wake up. Chapter Eleven -- Waking: Alice suddenly awakes in her armchair to find herself holding the black kitten, who she deduces to have been the Red Queen all along, with the white kitten having been the White Queen. Chapter Twelve -- Which dreamed it?: The story ends with Alice recalling the speculation of the Tweedle brothers, that everything may have, in fact, been a dream of the Red King, and that Alice might herself be no more than a figment of his imagination. One final poem is inserted by the author as a sort of epilogue which suggests that life itself is but a dream. The characters of Hatta and Haigha ("hatter '' and "hare '' as pronounced in posh English) make an appearance, and are pictured (by Sir John Tenniel, not by Carroll) to resemble their Wonderland counterparts, the Hatter and the March Hare. However, Alice does not recognise them as such. Dinah, Alice 's cat, also makes a return -- this time with her two kittens, Kitty (the black one) and Snowdrop (the white one). At the end of the book they are associated with the Red Queen and the White Queen respectively in the looking - glass world. Though she does not appear, Alice 's sister is mentioned. In both Alice 's Adventures in Wonderland and Through the Looking - Glass, there are puns and quips about two non-existing characters, Nobody and Somebody. Paradoxically, the gnat calls Alice an old friend, though it was never introduced in Alice 's Adventures in Wonderland. The themes and settings of Through the Looking - Glass make it a kind of mirror image of Wonderland: the first book begins outdoors, in the warm month of May (4 May), uses frequent changes in size as a plot device, and draws on the imagery of playing cards; the second opens indoors on a snowy, wintry night exactly six months later, on 4 November (the day before Guy Fawkes Night), uses frequent changes in time and spatial directions as a plot device, and draws on the imagery of chess. In it, there are many mirror themes, including opposites, time running backwards, and so on. The White Queen offers to hire Alice as her lady 's maid and to pay her "Twopence a week, and jam every other day. '' Alice says that she does n't want any jam today, and the Queen tells her: "You could n't have it if you did want it. The rule is, jam tomorrow and jam yesterday -- but never jam to - day. '' This is a reference to the rule in Latin that the word iam or jam meaning now in the sense of already or at that time can not be used to describe now in the present, which is nunc in Latin. Jam is therefore never available today. Whereas the first book has the deck of cards as a theme, this book is based on a game of chess, played on a giant chessboard with fields for squares. Most main characters in the story are represented by a chess piece or animals, with Alice herself being a pawn. The looking - glass world is divided into sections by brooks or streams, with the crossing of each brook usually signifying a notable change in the scene and action of the story: the brooks represent the divisions between squares on the chessboard, and Alice 's crossing of them signifies advancing of her piece one square. Furthermore, since the brook - crossings do not always correspond to the beginning and ends of chapters, most editions of the book visually represent the crossings by breaking the text with several lines of asterisks (* * *). The sequence of moves (white and red) is not always followed. The most extensive treatment of the chess motif in Carroll 's novel is provided in Glen Downey 's The Truth About Pawn Promotion: The Development of the Chess Motif in Victorian Fiction. Lewis Carroll decided to suppress a scene involving what was described as "a wasp in a wig '' (possibly a play on the commonplace expression "bee in the bonnet ''). It has been suggested in a biography by Carroll 's nephew, Stuart Dodgson Collingwood, that one of the reasons for this suppression was a suggestion from his illustrator, John Tenniel, who wrote in a letter to Carroll dated 1 June 1870: ... I am bound to say that the ' wasp ' chapter does n't interest me in the least, and I ca n't see my way to a picture. If you want to shorten the book, I ca n't help thinking -- with all submission -- that there is your opportunity. For many years no one had any idea what this missing section was or whether it had survived. In 1974, a document purporting to be the galley proofs of the missing section was sold at Sotheby 's; the catalogue description read, in part, that "The proofs were bought at the sale of the author 's... personal effects... Oxford, 1898... ''. The bid was won by John Fleming, a Manhattan book dealer. He paid the equivalent of $4,000. The contents were subsequently published in Martin Gardner 's The Annotated Alice: The Definitive Edition, and is also available as a hardback book The Wasp in a Wig: A Suppressed Episode... The rediscovered section describes Alice 's encounter with a wasp wearing a yellow wig, and includes a full previously unpublished poem. If included in the book, it would have followed, or been included at the end of, Chapter 8 -- the chapter featuring the encounter with the White Knight. The discovery is generally accepted as genuine, but the proofs have yet to receive any physical examination to establish age and authenticity. The book has been adapted several times, in combination with Alice 's Adventures in Wonderland and as a stand - alone film or television special. The adaptations include live, TV musicals, live action and animated versions and radio adaptations. One of the earliest adaptations was a silent movie directed by Walter Lang, Alice Through a Looking Glass, in 1928. A dramatised version directed by Douglas Cleverdon and starring Jane Asher was recorded in the late 1950s by Argo Records, with actors Tony Church, Norman Shelley and Carleton Hobbs, and Margaretta Scott as the narrator. Musical versions include the 1966 TV musical with songs by Moose Charlap, and Judi Rolin in the role of Alice, a Christmas 2007 multimedia stage adaptation at The Tobacco Factory directed and conceived by Andy Burden, written by Hattie Naylor, music and lyrics by Paul Dodgson and a 2008 opera Through the Looking Glass by Alan John. Television versions include the 1973 BBC TV movie, Alice Through the Looking Glass, with Sarah Sutton playing Alice, a 1982 38 - minute Soviet cutout - animated film made by Kievnauchfilm studio and directed by Yefrem Pruzhanskiy, an animated TV movie in 1987, with Janet Waldo as the voice of Alice (Mr. T was the voice of the Jabberwock) and the 1998 Channel 4 TV movie, with Kate Beckinsale playing the role of Alice. This production restored the lost "Wasp in a Wig '' episode. In March 2011, Japanese companies Toei and Banpresto announced that a collaborative animation project based on Through the Looking - Glass tentatively titled Kyōsō Giga (京 騒 戯画) was in production. On 22 December 2011, BBC Radio 4 broadcast an adaptation by Stephen Wyatt on Saturday Drama with Lauren Mote as Alice, Julian Rhind - Tutt as Lewis Carroll (who not only narrates the story but is also an active character), Carole Boyd as the Red Queen, Sally Phillips as the White Queen, Nicholas Parsons as Humpty - Dumpty, Alistair McGowan as Tweedledum and Tweedledee and John Rowe as the White Knight. Adaptations combined with Alice 's Adventures in Wonderland include the 1933 live - action movie Alice in Wonderland, starring a huge all - star cast and Charlotte Henry in the role of Alice. It featured most of the elements from Through the Looking Glass as well, including W.C. Fields as Humpty Dumpty, and a Harman - Ising animated version of The Walrus and the Carpenter. The 1951 animated Disney movie Alice in Wonderland also features several elements from Through the Looking - Glass, including the talking flowers, Tweedledee and Tweedledum, and "The Walrus and the Carpenter ''. Another adaptation, Alice 's Adventures in Wonderland, produced by Joseph Shaftel Productions in 1972 with Fiona Fullerton as Alice, included the twins Fred and Frank Cox as Tweedledum and Tweedledee. The 2010 film Alice in Wonderland by Tim Burton contains elements of both Alice 's Adventures in Wonderland and Through the Looking - Glass. The 1974 Italian TV series Nel Mondo Di Alice (In the World of Alice) which covers both novels, covers Through the Looking - Glass in episodes 3 and 4. Combined stage productions include the 1980 version, produced and written by Elizabeth Swados, Alice in Concert (aka Alice at the Palace), performed on a bare stage. Meryl Streep played the role of Alice, with additional supporting cast by Mark Linn - Baker and Betty Aberlin. In 2007, Chicago - based Lookingglass Theater Company debuted an acrobatic interpretation of Alice 's Adventures in Wonderland and Through the Looking Glass with Lookingglass Alice. Lookingglass Alice was performed in New York City, Philadelphia, Chicago, and in a version of the show which toured the United States. Iris Theatre in London, England, had a 2 part version of both novels in which Through the Looking - Glass was part 2. Alice was played in both parts by Laura Wickham. It was staged in the summer of 2013. Laura Wade 's Alice, a modern adaptation of both books premiering at the Crucible Theatre in Sheffield in 2010, adapted parts of both novels. Wonder. land by Moira Buffini and Damon Albarn takes some characters from the second novel, notably Dum and Dee and Humpty Dumpty. The show also merges the Queen of Hearts and the Red Queen into one character. Adrian Mitchell 's Alice in Wonderland and Through the Looking - Glass adaptation for the RSC (Royal Shakespeare Company) adapted through the Looking - Glass in act 2. The 1985 two - part TV musical Alice in Wonderland, produced by Irwin Allen, covers both books; Alice was played by Natalie Gregory. In this adaptation, the Jabberwock materialises into reality after Alice reads "Jabberwocky '', and pursues her through the second half of the musical. The 1999 made - for - TV Hallmark / NBC film Alice in Wonderland, with Tina Majorino as Alice, merges elements from Through the Looking Glass including the talking flowers, Tweedledee and Tweedledum, "The Walrus and the Carpenter '', and the chess theme including the snoring Red King and White Knight. The 2009 Syfy TV miniseries Alice contains elements from Alice 's Adventures in Wonderland and Through the Looking - Glass. Media related to Through the Looking - Glass and What Alice Found There at Wikimedia Commons ((Category: 1872 British novels)) ((Category: 1872 in the United Kingdom))

who acts as the gatekeeper in a health maintenance organization (hmo)

Health maintenance Organization - wikipedia In the United States a health maintenance organization (HMO) is a medical insurance group that provides health services for a fixed annual fee. It is an organization that provides or arranges managed care for health insurance, self - funded health care benefit plans, individuals, and other entities, acting as a liaison with health care providers (hospitals, doctors, etc.) on a prepaid basis. The Health Maintenance Organization Act of 1973 required employers with 25 or more employees to offer federally certified HMO options if the employer offers traditional healthcare options. Unlike traditional indemnity insurance, an HMO covers care rendered by those doctors and other professionals who have agreed by contract to treat patients in accordance with the HMO 's guidelines and restrictions in exchange for a steady stream of customers. HMOs cover emergency care regardless of the health care provider 's contracted status. HMOs often require members to select a primary care physician (PCP), a doctor who acts as a "gatekeeper '' to direct access to medical services but this is not always the case. PCPs are usually internists, pediatricians, family doctors, geriatricians, or general practitioners (GPs). Except in medical emergency situations, patients need a referral from the PCP in order to see a specialist or other doctor, and the gatekeeper can not authorize that referral unless the HMO guidelines deem it necessary. Some HMOs pay gatekeeper PCPs set fees for each defined medical procedure they provide to insured patients (fee - for - service) and then capitate specialists (that is, pay a set fee for each insured person 's care, irrespective of which medical procedures the specialists performs to achieve that care), while others use the reverse arrangement. "Open access '' and "POS '' (point of service) products are a combination of an HMO and traditional indemnity plan. The member (s) are not required to use a gatekeeper or obtain a referral before seeing a specialist. In that case, the traditional benefits are applicable. If the member uses a gatekeeper, the HMO benefits are applied. However, the beneficiary cost sharing (e.g., co-payment or coinsurance) may be higher for specialist care. HMOs also manage care through utilization review. That means they monitor doctors to see if they are performing more services for their patients than other doctors, or fewer. HMOs often provide preventive care for a lower copayment or for free, in order to keep members from developing a preventable condition that would require a great deal of medical services. When HMOs were coming into existence, indemnity plans often did not cover preventive services, such as immunizations, well - baby checkups, mammograms, or physicals. It is this inclusion of services intended to maintain a member 's health that gave the HMO its name. Some services, such as outpatient mental health care, are limited, and more costly forms of care, diagnosis, or treatment may not be covered. Experimental treatments and elective services that are not medically necessary (such as elective plastic surgery) are almost never covered. Other choices for managing care are case management, in which patients with catastrophic cases are identified, or disease management, in which patients with certain chronic diseases like diabetes, asthma, or some forms of cancer are identified. In either case, the HMO takes a greater level of involvement in the patient 's care, assigning a case manager to the patient or a group of patients to ensure that no two providers provide overlapping care, and to ensure that the patient is receiving appropriate treatment, so that the condition does not worsen beyond what can be helped. Although businesses pursued the HMO model for its alleged cost containment benefits, some research indicates that private HMO plans do n't achieve any significant cost savings over non-HMO plans. Although out - of - pocket costs are reduced for consumers, controlling for other factors, the plans do n't affect total expenditures and payments by insurers. A possible reason for this failure is that consumers might increase utilization in response to less cost sharing under HMOs. Some have asserted that HMOs (especially those run for profit) actually increase administrative costs and tend to cherry - pick healthier patients. Though some forms of group "managed care '' did exist prior to the 1970s, in the USA they came about chiefly through the influence of U.S. President Richard Nixon and his friend Edgar Kaiser. In discussion in the White House on February 17, 1971, Nixon expressed his support for the essential philosophy of the HMO, which John Ehrlichman explained thus: "All the incentives are toward less medical care, because the less care they give them, the more money they make. '' Kaiser Permanente disputes Ehrlichman 's "secondhand, inarticulate paraphrase '', and presents a record of the briefs received by Ehrlichman and the White House. The earliest form of HMOs can be seen in a number of prepaid health plans. In 1910, the Western Clinic in Tacoma, Washington offered lumber mill owners and their employees certain medical services from its providers for a premium of $0.50 per member per month. This is considered by some to be the first example of an HMO. However, Ross - Loos Medical Group, established in 1929, is considered to be the first HMO in the United States; it was headquartered in Los Angeles and initially provided services for Los Angeles Department of Water and Power (DWP) and Los Angeles County employees. Approximately 500 DWP employees enrolled at a cost of $1.50 each per month. Within a year, the Los Angeles Fire Department signed up, then the Los Angeles Police Department, then the Southern California Telephone Company (now AT&T Inc.), and more. By 1951, enrollment stood at 35,000 and included teachers, county and city employees. In 1982 through the merger of the Insurance Company of North America (INA) founded in 1792 and Connecticut General (CG) founded in 1865 came together to become CIGNA. Ross - Loos Medical Group, became now known as CIGNA HealthCare. Also in 1929 Dr. Michael Shadid created a health plan in Elk City, Oklahoma in which farmers bought shares for $50 to raise the money to build a hospital. The medical community did not like this arrangement and threatened to suspend Shadid 's licence. The Farmer 's Union took control of the hospital and the health plan in 1934. Also in 1929, Baylor Hospital provided approximately 1,500 teachers with prepaid care. This was the origin of Blue Cross. Around 1939, state medical societies created Blue Shield plans to cover physician services, as Blue Cross covered only hospital services. These prepaid plans burgeoned during the Great Depression as a method for providers to ensure constant and steady revenue. In 1970, the number of HMOs declined to fewer than 40. Paul M. Ellwood, Jr., often called the "father '' of the HMO, began having discussions with what is today the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services that led to the enactment of the Health Maintenance Organization Act of 1973. This act had three main provisions: This last provision, called the dual choice provision, was the most important, as it gave HMOs access to the critical employer - based market that had often been blocked in the past. The federal government was slow to issue regulations and certify plans until 1977, when HMOs began to grow rapidly. The dual choice provision expired in 1995. In 1971, Gordon K. MacLeod MD developed and became the director of the United States ' first federal Health Maintenance Organization (HMO) program. He was recruited by Elliot Richardson, the secretary of the U.S. Department of Health, Education and Welfare. HMOs operate in a variety of forms. Most HMOs today do not fit neatly into one form; they can have multiple divisions, each operating under a different model, or blend two or more models together. In the staff model, physicians are salaried and have offices in HMO buildings. In this case, physicians are direct employees of the HMOs. This model is an example of a closed - panel HMO, meaning that contracted physicians may only see HMO patients. Previously this type of HMO was common, although currently it is nearly inactive. In the group model, the HMO does not employ the physicians directly, but contracts with a multi-specialty physician group practice. Individual physicians are employed by the group practice, rather than by the HMO. The group practice may be established by the HMO and only serve HMO members ("captive group model ''). Kaiser Permanente is an example of a captive group model HMO rather than a staff model HMO, as is commonly believed. An HMO may also contract with an existing, independent group practice ("independent group model ''), which will generally continue to treat non-HMO patients. Group model HMOs are also considered closed - panel, because doctors must be part of the group practice to participate in the HMO - the HMO panel is closed to other physicians in the community. If not already part of a group medical practice, physicians may contract with an independent practice association (IPA), which in turn contracts with the HMO. This model is an example of an open - panel HMO, where a physician may maintain their own office and may see non-HMO members. In the network model, an HMO will contract with any combination of groups, IPAs (Independent Practice Associations), and individual physicians. Since 1990, most HMOs run by managed care organizations with other lines of business (such as PPO, POS and indemnity) use the network model. HMOs in the USA are regulated at both the state and federal levels. They are licensed by the states, under a license that is known as a certificate of authority (COA) rather than under an insurance license. State and federal regulators also issue mandates, requirements for health maintenance organizations to provide particular products. In 1972 the National Association of Insurance Commissioners adopted the HMO Model Act, which was intended to provide a model regulatory structure for states to use in authorizing the establishment of HMOs and in monitoring their operation. HMOs often have a negative public image due to their restrictive appearance. HMOs have been the target of lawsuits claiming that the restrictions of the HMO prevented necessary care. Whether an HMO can be held responsible for a physician 's negligence partially depends on the HMO 's screening process. If an HMO only contracts with providers meeting certain quality criteria and advertises this to its members, a court may be more likely to find that the HMO is responsible, just as hospitals can be liable for negligence in selecting physicians. However, an HMO is often insulated from malpractice lawsuits. The Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA) can be held to preempt negligence claims as well. In this case, the deciding factor is whether the harm results from the plan 's administration or the provider 's actions. ERISA does not preempt or insulate HMOs from breach of contract or state law claims asserted by an independent, third - party provider of medical services143.

what county is raleigh north carolina located in

Raleigh, North Carolina - wikipedia Raleigh (/ ˈrɑːli /; RAH - lee) is the capital of the state of North Carolina and the seat of Wake County in the United States. Raleigh is the second largest city in the state of North Carolina behind Charlotte. Raleigh is known as the "City of Oaks '' for its many oak trees, which line the streets in the heart of the city. The city covers a land area of 142.8 square miles (370 km). The U.S. Census Bureau estimated the city 's population as 451,066 as of July 1, 2015. It is one of the fastest - growing cities in the country. The city of Raleigh is named after Sir Walter Raleigh, who established the lost Roanoke Colony in present - day Dare County. Raleigh is home to North Carolina State University and is part of the Research Triangle area, together with Durham (home of Duke University) and Chapel Hill (home of the University of North Carolina at Chapel Hill). The "Triangle '' nickname originated after the 1959 creation of the Research Triangle Park, located in Durham and Wake counties, among the three cities and their universities. The Research Triangle region encompasses the U.S. Census Bureau 's Raleigh - Durham - Chapel Hill Combined Statistical Area (CSA), which had an estimated population of 2,037,430 in 2013. The Raleigh Metropolitan Statistical Area (MSA) had an estimated population of 1,214,516 in 2013. Most of Raleigh is located within Wake County, with a very small portion extending into Durham County. The towns of Cary, Morrisville, Garner, Clayton, Wake Forest, Apex, Holly Springs, Fuquay - Varina, Knightdale, Wendell, Zebulon, and Rolesville are some of Raleigh 's primary nearby suburbs and satellite towns. Raleigh is an early example in the United States (US) of a planned city. Following the American Revolutionary War when the US gained independence, this was chosen as the site of the state capital in 1788 and incorporated in 1792 as such. The city was originally laid out in a grid pattern with the North Carolina State Capitol in Union Square at the center. During the United States Civil War, the city was spared from any significant battle. It fell to the Union in the closing days of the war, and struggled with the economic hardships in the postwar period related to the reconstitution of labor markets, over-reliance on agriculture, and the social unrest of the Reconstruction Era. Following the establishment of the Research Triangle Park in 1959, numerous jobs were created in science and technology. The region and city have attracted a large influx of population, making it one of the fastest growing communities in the United States by the early 21st century. Raleigh is home to numerous cultural, educational, and historic sites. The Duke Energy Center for the Performing Arts features three theater venues and serves as the home for the North Carolina Symphony and the Carolina Ballet. Coastal Credit Union Music Park at Walnut Creek is a large music amphitheater. Museums include the state museums of art, history and natural sciences, two in downtown. Major universities and colleges, in addition to those above, include Shaw University, the first historically black university in the American South. In the 1960s, the Student Nonviolent Coordinating Committee, an important civil rights organization, was founded here. One U.S. president, Andrew Johnson, was born in Raleigh. Bath, the oldest town in North Carolina, was the first nominal capital of the colony from 1705 until 1722, when Edenton took over the role. The colony had no permanent institutions of government until the new capital New Bern was established in 1743. In December 1770, Joel Lane successfully petitioned the North Carolina General Assembly to create a new county. On January 5, 1771, the bill creating Wake County was passed in the General Assembly. The county was formed from portions of Cumberland, Orange, and Johnston counties. The county was named for Margaret Wake Tryon, the wife of Governor William Tryon. The first county seat was Bloomsbury. New Bern, a port town on the Neuse River 35 miles (56 km) from the Atlantic Ocean, was the largest city and the capital of North Carolina during the American Revolution. When the British Army laid siege to the city, that site could no longer be used. Raleigh was chosen as the site of the new capital in 1788, as its central location protected it from attacks from the coast. It was officially established in 1792 as both county seat and state capital (incorporated on December 31, 1792 -- charter granted January 21, 1795). The city was named for Sir Walter Raleigh, sponsor of Roanoke, the "lost colony '' on Roanoke Island. The city 's location was chosen, in part, for being within 11 mi (18 km) of Isaac Hunter 's Tavern, a popular tavern frequented by the state legislators. No known city or town existed previously on the chosen city site. Raleigh is one of the few cities in the United States that was planned and built specifically to serve as a state capital. Its original boundaries were formed by the downtown streets of North, East, West and South. The plan, a grid with two main axes meeting at a central square and an additional square in each corner, was based on Thomas Holme 's 1682 plan for Philadelphia. The North Carolina General Assembly first met in Raleigh in December 1794, and granted the city a charter, with a board of seven appointed commissioners and an "Intendant of Police '' (which developed as the office of Mayor) to govern it. (After 1803 city commissioners were elected.) In 1799, the N.C. Minerva and Raleigh Advertiser was the first newspaper published in Raleigh. John Haywood was the first Intendant of Police. In 1808, Andrew Johnson, the nation 's future 17th President, was born at Casso 's Inn in Raleigh. The city 's first water supply network was completed in 1818, although due to system failures, the project was abandoned. In 1819 Raleigh 's first volunteer fire company was founded, followed in 1821 by a full - time fire company. In 1817, the Episcopal Diocese of North Carolina was established and headquartered in Raleigh. In 1831, a fire destroyed the State Capitol. Two years later, reconstruction began with quarried gneiss being delivered by the first railroad in the state. Raleigh celebrated the completions of the new Capitol and new Raleigh & Gaston Railroad Company in 1840. In 1853, the first State Fair was held near Raleigh. The first institution of higher learning in Raleigh, Peace College, was established in 1857. Raleigh 's Historic Oakwood contains many houses from the 19th century that are still in good condition. North Carolina seceded from the Union. After the Civil War began, Governor Zebulon Baird Vance ordered the construction of breastworks around the city as protection from Union troops. During General Sherman 's Carolinas Campaign, Raleigh was captured by Union cavalry under the command of General Hugh Judson Kilpatrick on April 13, 1865. As the Confederate cavalry retreated west, the Union soldiers followed, leading to the nearby Battle of Morrisville. The city was spared significant destruction during the War. Due to the economic and social problems of the post-war period and Reconstruction, with a state economy still overly based on agriculture, it grew little over the next several decades. After the Civil War ended in 1865, African Americans were emancipated. The Reconstruction era legislature established public education for blacks and whites. Freedmen were often led by free blacks who had become educated before the war. With the help of the Freedmen 's Bureau, many freedmen migrated from rural areas to Raleigh. It had an established free black community, more work opportunities, and many freedmen wanted to get out from under white supervision in the rural areas. Shaw University, the South 's first African - American college, began classes in 1865 and was chartered in 1875. Its Estey Hall was the first building constructed for the higher education of black women, and Leonard Medical Center was the first four - year medical school in the country for African Americans. In 1867, Episcopal clergy founded St. Augustine 's College for the education of freedmen. The biracial Reconstruction legislature created new welfare institutions: in 1869, it approved the nation 's first school for blind and deaf blacks, to be located in Raleigh. In 1874, the federal government constructed the Federal Building in Raleigh, the first federal government project in the South following the Civil War. In 1880, the newspapers News and Observer combined to form The News & Observer. It continues to be Raleigh 's primary daily newspaper. The North Carolina College of Agriculture and Mechanic Arts, now known as North Carolina State University, was founded as a land - grant college in 1887. The city 's Rex Hospital opened in 1889 and included the state 's first nursing school. The Baptist Women 's College, now known as Meredith College, opened in 1891, and in 1898, The Academy of Music, a private music conservatory, was established. In the late nineteenth century, two black Congressmen were elected from North Carolina 's 2nd district, the last in 1898. George Henry White sought to promote civil rights for blacks and to challenge efforts by white Democrats to reduce black voting by new discriminatory laws. He and allies were unsuccessful. Based on a white supremacy campaign that returned Democrats to dominance, in 1900 the state legislature passed a new constitution, with a suffrage amendment that raised barriers to voter registration, resulting in the disenfranchisement of most blacks and many poor whites. The state succeeded in reducing black voting to zero by 1908. Loss of the ability to vote also disqualified black men (and later women) from sitting on juries and serving in any office, local, state or federal. The rising black middle - class in Raleigh and other areas was politically silenced and shut out of local governance, and the Republican Party was no longer competitive in the state. It was not until after federal civil rights legislation was passed in the mid-1960s that the majority of blacks in North Carolina would again be able to vote, sit on juries and serve in local offices. By that time many African Americans had left the state in the Great Migration to northern industrial cities for more opportunities. No African American was elected to Congress from North Carolina until 1992. In 1912, Bloomsbury Park opened, featuring a popular carousel ride. Relocated to Pullen Park, the Pullen Park Carousel is still operating. From 1914 to 1917, an influenza epidemic killed 288 Raleigh citizens. In 1922, WLAC signed on as the city 's first radio station, but lasted only two years. WFBQ signed on in 1924 and became WPTF in 1927. It is now Raleigh 's oldest continuous radio broadcaster. Following immigration by Catholics, on December 12, 1924, the Roman Catholic Diocese of Raleigh was officially established by Pope Pius XI. The Sacred Heart Cathedral became the official seat of the diocese with William Joseph Hafey as its bishop. The city 's first airport, Curtiss - Wright Flying Field, opened in 1929. That same year, the stock market crash resulted in six Raleigh banks closing. During the difficult 1930s of the Great Depression, government at all levels was integral to creating jobs. The city provided recreational and educational programs, and hired people for public works projects. In 1932, Raleigh Memorial Auditorium was dedicated. The North Carolina Symphony, founded the same year, performed in its new home. From 1934 to 1937, the federal Civilian Conservation Corps constructed the area now known as William B. Umstead State Park. In 1939, the State General Assembly chartered the Raleigh - Durham Aeronautical Authority to build a larger airport between Raleigh and Durham, with the first flight occurring in 1943. In 1947, Raleigh citizens adopted a council - manager form of government, the current form. Council members are elected from single - member districts. They hire a city manager. The Dorton Arena, a 7,610 - seat multi-purpose arena designed by Matthew Nowicki, was opened in 1952 on the grounds of the North Carolina State Fair. It was listed in the National Register of Historic Places in 1973. Raleigh experienced significant damage from Hurricane Hazel in 1954. In 1953, WNAO - TV, channel 28, became the city 's first television station, though it folded in 1957. With the opening of the Research Triangle Park in 1959, Raleigh began to experience a population increase, resulting in a total city population of 100,000 by 1960. In 1960, the Census Bureau reported Raleigh 's population as 76.4 % white and 23.4 % black. Following passage of the federal Voting Rights Act of 1965, one of the main achievements of the Civil Rights Movement and the Lyndon B. Johnson presidency, political participation and voting by African Americans in Raleigh increased rapidly. In 1967, Clarence Lightner was elected to the City Council, and in 1973 became Raleigh 's first African - American mayor. In 1976, the Raleigh City and Wake County schools merged to become the Wake County Public School System, now the largest school system in the state and 19th largest in the country. During the 1970s and 1980s, the I - 440 beltline was constructed, easing traffic congestion and providing access to most major city roads. The first Raleigh Convention Center (replaced in 2008) and Fayetteville Street Mall were both opened in 1977. Fayetteville Street was turned into a pedestrian - only street in an effort to help the then - ailing downtown area, but the plan was flawed and business declined for years to come. Fayetteville Street was reopened in 2007 as the main thoroughfare of Raleigh 's downtown. The 1988 Raleigh tornado outbreak of November 28, 1988, was the most destructive of the seven tornadoes reported in Northeastern North Carolina and southeastern Virginia between 1: 00 AM and 5: 45 AM. The Raleigh tornado produced over $77 million in F4 damage, along with four fatalities (two in the city of Raleigh, and two in Nash County) and 154 injuries. The damage path from the storm was measured at 84 miles (135 km) long, and. 5 miles (0.8 km) wide at times. In 1991, two large skyscrapers in Raleigh were completed, First Union Capitol Center and Two Hannover Square, along with the popular Coastal Credit Union Music Park at Walnut Creek in Southeast Raleigh. In 1996, the Olympic Flame passed through Raleigh while on its way to the 1996 Summer Olympics in Atlanta. Also in 1996, Hurricane Fran struck the area, causing massive flooding and extensive structural damage. In addition, WRAL - TV became the first High - Definition broadcast station in the world. In 1997, the National Hockey League 's Hartford Whalers announced their intention to move to Raleigh as the Carolina Hurricanes, becoming the city 's first major league professional sports franchise. In 1999, the Raleigh Entertainment and Sports Arena (later renamed the RBC Center and now called PNC Arena), opened to provide a home for the Hurricanes and the NC State Wolfpack men 's basketball team, as well as an up - to - date major concert venue. In the first decade of the 21st century, Raleigh was featured prominently in a number of "Top 10 Lists '', including those by Forbes, MSNBC and Money magazine, due to its quality of life and business climate. In 2001, the Raleigh Memorial Auditorium complex was expanded with the addition of the Progress Energy Center for the Performing Arts, Meymandi Concert Hall, Fletcher Opera Theater, Kennedy Theatre, Betty Ray McCain Gallery and Lichtin Plaza. Fayetteville Street reopened to vehicular traffic in 2006. A variety of downtown building projects began around this time including the 34 - story RBC Bank Tower, multiple condominium projects and several new restaurants. Additional skyscrapers are in the proposal / planning phase. In 2006, the city 's NHL franchise, the Carolina Hurricanes won the Stanley Cup, North Carolina 's first and only professional sports championship. With the opening of parts of I - 540 from 2005 to 2007, a new 70 - mile (110 km) loop around Wake County, traffic congestion eased somewhat in the North Raleigh area. Completion of the entire loop is expected to take another 15 years. In 2008, the city 's Fayetteville Street Historic District joined the National Register of Historic Places. In September 2010, Raleigh hosted the inaugural Hopscotch Music Festival. In January 2011, Raleigh hosted the National Hockey League All - Star Game. In April 2011, a devastating EF - 3 tornado hit Raleigh, and many other tornadoes touched down in the state (ultimately the largest, but not the strongest (1984 Carolinas tornado outbreak) outbreak to ever hit the state), killing 24 people. The tornado tracked northeast through parts of Downtown, East Central Raleigh and Northeast Raleigh and produced $115 million in damages in Wake County. There were 4 fatalities in the city. According to the United States Census Bureau, Raleigh occupies a total area of 144.0 square miles (373.0 km), of which 142.9 square miles (370.1 km) is land and 1.1 square miles (2.8 km), or 0.76 %, is covered by water. The Neuse River flows through the northeast end of the city. Raleigh is located in the northeast central region of North Carolina, where the Piedmont and Atlantic Coastal Plain regions meet. This area is known as the "fall line '' because it marks the elevation inland at which waterfalls begin to appear in creeks and rivers. As a result, most of Raleigh features gently rolling hills that slope eastward toward the state 's flat coastal plain. Its central Piedmont location situates Raleigh about two hours west of Atlantic Beach, North Carolina, by car and four hours east of the Great Smoky Mountains. The city is 155 miles (249 km) south of Richmond, Virginia, 263 miles (423 km) south of Washington, D.C., and 150 miles (240 km) northeast of Charlotte, North Carolina. Raleigh is divided into several major geographic areas, each of which use a Raleigh address and a ZIP code that begins with the digits 276. PNC Plaza, formerly known as RBC Plaza, is the largest and tallest skyscraper in the city of Raleigh. The tower rises to a height of 538 feet (164 m), with a floor count of 34. The downtown area is home to historic buildings such as the Sir Walter Raleigh Hotel built in the early 20th century, the restored City Market, the Fayetteville Street downtown business district, which includes the PNC Plaza and Wells Fargo Capitol Center buildings, as well as the North Carolina Museum of History, North Carolina Museum of Natural Sciences, North Carolina State Capitol, Peace College, the City of Raleigh Museum, Raleigh Convention Center, Shaw University, Campbell University School of Law, and St. Augustine 's College. In the 2000s, an effort by the Downtown Raleigh Alliance was made to separate this area of the city into five smaller districts: Fayetteville Street, Moore Square, Glenwood South, Warehouse (Raleigh), and Capital District (Raleigh). Some of the names have become common place among locals such as the Warehouse, Fayetteville Street, and Glenwood South Districts. The Inside the Beltline neighborhoods include Cameron Park, Boylan Heights, Country Club Hills, Coley Forest, Five Points, Budleigh, Glenwood - Brooklyn, Hayes Barton Historic District, Moore Square, Mordecai, Rosengarten Park, Belvidere Park, Woodcrest, Oberlin Village, and Historic Oakwood. Inside the Beltline refers to I - 440 which used to be called the Beltline before being re-branded to ease driver navigation. These neighborhoods were typically built before World War II. Midtown Raleigh is a residential and commercial area just North of the I - 440 Beltline and is part of North Raleigh. It is roughly framed by Glenwood / Creedmoor Road to the West, Wake Forest Road to the East, and Millbrook Road to the North. It includes shopping centers such as North Hills and Crabtree Valley Mall. It also includes North Hills Park and part of the Raleigh Greenway System. The term was coined by the Greater Raleigh Chamber of Commerce, developer John Kane and planning director Mitchell Silver. The News & Observer newspaper started using the term for marketing purposes only. The Midtown Raleigh Alliance was founded on July 25, 2011 as a way for community leaders to promote the area. East Raleigh is situated roughly from Capital Boulevard near the I - 440 beltline to New Hope Road. Most of East Raleigh 's development is along primary corridors such as U.S. 1 (Capital Boulevard), New Bern Avenue, Poole Road, Buffaloe Road, and New Hope Road. Neighborhoods in East Raleigh include Hedingham, Longview, Lockwood, Madonna Acres, New Hope, Thompson - Hunter and Wilder 's Grove. The area is bordered to the east by the town of Knightdale. West Raleigh lies along Hillsborough Street and Western Boulevard. The area is bordered to the west by suburban Cary. It is home to North Carolina State University, Meredith College, Pullen Park, Pullen Memorial Baptist Church, Cameron Village, Lake Johnson, the North Carolina Museum of Art and historic Saint Mary 's School. Primary thoroughfares serving West Raleigh, in addition to Hillsborough Street, are Avent Ferry Road, Blue Ridge Road, and Western Boulevard. The PNC Arena is also located here adjacent to the North Carolina State Fairgrounds. These are located approximately 2 miles from Rex Hospital. North Raleigh is an expansive, diverse, and fast - growing suburban area of the city that is home to established neighborhoods to the south along with many newly built subdivisions and along its northern fringes. The area generally falls North of Millbrook Road. It is primarily suburban with large shopping areas. Primary neighborhoods and subdivisions in North Raleigh include Bartons Creek Bluffs, Bedford, Bent Tree, Black Horse Run, Brier Creek, Brookhaven, Coachman 's Trail, Crossgate, Crosswinds, Dominion Park, Ethans Glen, Falls River, Harrington Grove, Hidden Valley, Lake Park, Long Lake, North Haven, North Ridge, Oakcroft, Shannon Woods, Six Forks Station, Springdale Estates, Stonebridge, Stone Creek, Stonehenge, Summerfield, Valley Estates, Wakefield, Weathersfield, Windsor Forest, and Wood Valley. The area is served by a number of primary transportation corridors including Glenwood Avenue U.S. Route 70, Interstate 540, Wake Forest Road, Millbrook Road, Lynn Road, Six Forks Road, Spring Forest Road, Creedmoor Road, Leesville Road, Norwood Road, Strickland Road, and North Hills Drive. South Raleigh is located along U.S. 401 south toward Fuquay - Varina and along US 70 into suburban Garner. This area is the least developed and least dense area of Raleigh (much of the area lies within the Swift Creek watershed district, where development regulations limit housing densities and construction). The area is bordered to the west by Cary, to the east by Garner, and to the southwest by Holly Springs. Neighborhoods in South Raleigh include Eagle Creek, Renaissance Park, Lake Wheeler, Swift Creek, Carolina Pines, Rhamkatte, Riverbrooke, and Enchanted Oaks. Southeast Raleigh is bounded by downtown on the west, Garner on the southwest, and rural Wake County to the southeast. The area includes areas along Rock Quarry Road, Poole Road, and New Bern Avenue. Primary neighborhoods include Chastain, Chavis Heights, Raleigh Country Club, Southgate, Kingwood Forest, Rochester Heights, Emerald Village and Biltmore Hills. Coastal Credit Union Music Park (formerly Time Warner Cable Music Pavilion, Alltel Pavilion and Walnut Creek Amphitheatre) is one of the region 's major outdoor concert venues and is located on Rock Quarry Road. Shaw University is located in this part of the city. Like much of the southeastern United States, Raleigh has a humid subtropical climate (Köppen Cfa), with four distinct seasons. Winters are short and generally cool, with a January daily average of 41.0 ° F (5.0 ° C). On average, there are 69 nights per year that drop to or below freezing, and only 2.7 days that fail to rise above freezing. April is the driest month, with an average of 2.91 inches (73.9 mm) of precipitation. Precipitation is well distributed around the year, with a slight maximum between July and September; on average, July is the wettest month, owing to generally frequent, sometimes heavy, showers and thunderstorms. Summers are hot and humid, with a daily average in July of 80.0 ° F (26.7 ° C). There are 48 days per year with highs at or above 90 ° F (32 ° C). Autumn is similar to spring overall but has fewer days of rainfall, but greater potential for extremely heavy rainfall in a one / two day period, owing to occasional threat from tropical weather systems (hurricanes and tropical storms) packing torrential rainfall. In September 1999, Raleigh recorded its wettest month ever, with over 21 inches of rain, due to torrential rainfall from tropical weather systems, most notably Hurricane Floyd on September 15 - 16. Extremes in temperature have ranged from − 9 ° F (− 23 ° C) on January 21, 1985 up to 105 ° F (41 ° C), most recently on July 8, 2012. Raleigh receives an average of 6.0 inches (15.2 cm) of snow in winter. Freezing rain and sleet also occur most winters, and occasionally the area experiences a major damaging ice storm. On January 24 -- 25, 2000, Raleigh received its greatest snowfall from a single storm -- 20.3 inches (52 cm) -- the Winter Storm of January 2000. Storms of this magnitude are generally the result of cold air damming that affects the city due to its proximity to the Appalachian Mountains. Winter storms have caused traffic problems in the past as well. The region also experiences occasional periods of drought, during which the city sometimes has restricted water use by residents. During the late summer and early fall, Raleigh can experience hurricanes. In 1996, Hurricane Fran caused severe damage in the Raleigh area, mostly from falling trees. Hurricanes Dennis and Floyd in September 1999 were primary contributors to that month 's extreme rainfall of over 21 inches. The most recent hurricane to have a considerable effect on the area was Matthew in 2016. Tornadoes also have on occasion affected the city of Raleigh, most notably the November 28, 1988 tornado which occurred in the early morning hours and rated an F4 on the Fujita Tornado Scale and affected northwestern portions of the city. There also was the April 16, 2011 F3 tornado, which affected portions of downtown and northeast Raleigh and the suburb of Holly Springs. Despite the concerns of occasional drought that comes with the region, Raleigh and the state of North Carolina receive large amounts of rainfall throughout the year. Raleigh receives an average annual rainfall of 43.34 inches (110.1 cm), which is 4.2 inches (10.7 cm) more than the national average. According to the 2010 Census, the racial composition of the city was: In addition, 7 % of city residents were Hispanic or Latino Americans, of any race (5.9 % Mexican, 1.1 % Puerto Rican). As of the 2000 United States census, there were 276,093 persons (July 2008 estimate was 380,173) and 61,371 families residing in Raleigh. The population density was 2,409.2 people per square mile (930.2 / km2). There were 120,699 housing units at an average density of 1,053.2 per square mile (406.7 / km2). The racial composition of the city was: 63.31 % White, 27.80 % Black or African American, 7.01 % Hispanic or Latino American, 3.38 % Asian American, 0.36 % Native American, 0.04 % Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander, 3.24 % some other race, and 1.88 % two or more races. There were 112,608 households in the city in 2000, of which 26.5 % included children below the age of 18, 39.5 % were composed of married couples living together, 11.4 % reported a female householder with no husband present, and 45.5 % classified themselves as nonfamily. Unmarried partners were present in 2.2 % of households. In addition, 33.1 % of all households were composed of individuals living alone, of which 6.2 % was someone 65 years of age or older. The average household size in Raleigh was 2.30 persons, and the average family size was 2.97 persons. Raleigh 's population in 2000 was evenly distributed with 20.9 % below the age of 18, 15.9 % aged 18 to 24, 36.6 % from 25 to 44, and 18.4 % from 45 to 64. An estimated 8.3 % of the population was 65 years of age or older, and the median age was 31 years. For every 100 females, there were 98.0 males; for every 100 females aged 18 or older, there were 96.6 males aged 18 or older. The median household income in the city was $46,612 in 2000, and the median family income was $60,003. Males earned a median income of $39,248, versus $30,656 for females. The median per capita income for the city was $25,113, and an estimated 11.5 % of the population and 7.1 % of families were living below the poverty line. Of the total population, 18.8 % of those below the age of 18, and 9.3 % of those 65 and older, were living below the poverty line. Raleigh is home to a wide variety of religious practitioners. The predominant religion in Raleigh is Christianity, with the largest numbers of adherents being Roman Catholic (11.3 %), Baptist (10.85 %), and Methodist (7.08 %). Others include Presbyterian (2.52 %), Pentecostal (1.99 %), Episcopalian (1.12 %), Lutheran (1.06 %), Latter - Day Saints (0.99 %), and other Christian denominations (6.68 %) including Eastern Orthodox, Coptic Orthodox, Jehovah 's Witness, Christian Science, Christian Unitarianism, other Mainline Protestant groups, and non-denominational. The Roman Catholic Diocese of Raleigh, the Episcopal Diocese of North Carolina, the North Carolina Annual Conference of the United Methodist Church, and the New Hope Presbytery of the Presbyterian Church (USA) are all headquartered in Raleigh. Other religions including Hinduism, Buddhism, Bahá'í, Druze, Taoism, and Shintoism make up 1.31 % of religious practitioners. Islam (1.14 %) and Judaism (0.38 %) are also practiced. In Wake County, 29 % of the population are affiliated with the Southern Baptist Convention, 22 % are affiliated with the Catholic Church, 17 % are affiliated with the United Methodist Church, 6 % are affiliated with the Presbyterian Church (USA), and 27 % are religiously affiliated with other denominations, religions, or are not religiously affiliated. Raleigh 's industrial base includes banking / financial services; electrical, medical, electronic and telecommunications equipment; clothing and apparel; food processing; paper products; and pharmaceuticals. Raleigh is part of North Carolina 's Research Triangle, one of the country 's largest and most successful research parks, and a major center in the United States for high - tech and biotech research, as well as advanced textile development. The city is a major retail shipping point for eastern North Carolina and a wholesale distributing point for the grocery industry. Raleigh was number one on the 2015 Forbes list of the best place for businesses and careers. Companies based in Raleigh include BB&T Insurance Services, Capitol Broadcasting Company, Carquest, First Citizens BancShares, Golden Corral, Martin Marietta Materials, Red Hat, Waste Industries, and Lulu. In April 2014 Steven P. Rosenthal of Northland Investment Corp. referred to Raleigh as "a real concentration of brain power. You have a lot of smart people living in the same place. That will drive the economy. '' According to Raleigh 's 2011 Comprehensive Annual Financial Report, the top employers in the city are: The Coastal Credit Union Music Park at Walnut Creek hosts major international touring acts. In 2011, the Downtown Raleigh Amphitheater opened (now sponsored as the Red Hat Amphitheater), which hosts numerous concerts primarily in the summer months. An additional amphitheater sits on the grounds of the North Carolina Museum of Art, which hosts a summer concert series and outdoor movies. Nearby Cary is home to the Koka Booth Amphitheatre which hosts additional summer concerts and outdoor movies, and serves as the venue for regularly scheduled outdoor concerts by the North Carolina Symphony based in Raleigh. During the North Carolina State Fair, Dorton Arena hosts headline acts. The private Lincoln Theatre is one of several clubs in downtown Raleigh that schedules many concerts throughout the year in multiple formats (rock, pop, country). The Duke Energy Center for the Performing Arts complex houses the Raleigh Memorial Auditorium, the Fletcher Opera Theater, the Kennedy Theatre, and the Meymandi Concert Hall. In 2008, a new theatre space, the Meymandi Theatre at the Murphey School, was opened in the restored auditorium of the historic Murphey School. Theater performances are also offered at the Raleigh Little Theatre, Long View Center, Ira David Wood III Pullen Park Theatre, and Stewart and Thompson Theaters at North Carolina State University. Raleigh is home to several professional arts organizations, including the North Carolina Symphony, the Opera Company of North Carolina, Theatre In The Park, Burning Coal Theatre Company, the North Carolina Theatre, Broadway Series South and the Carolina Ballet. The numerous local colleges and universities significantly add to the options available for viewing live performances. North Carolina Museum of Art, occupying a large suburban campus on Blue Ridge Road near the North Carolina State Fairgrounds, maintains one of the premier public art collections located between Washington, D.C., and Atlanta. In addition to its extensive collections of American Art, European Art and ancient art, the museum recently has hosted major exhibitions featuring Auguste Rodin (in 2000) and Claude Monet (in 2006 - 07), each attracting more than 200,000 visitors. Unlike most prominent public museums, the North Carolina Museum of Art acquired a large number of the works in its permanent collection through purchases with public funds. The museum 's outdoor park is one of the largest such art parks in the country. The museum facility underwent a major expansion which greatly expanded the exhibit space that was completed in 2010. The 127,000 sf new expansion is designed by NYC architect Thomas Phifer and Partners. Raleigh 's downtown is also home to many local art galleries such as Art Space in City Market, Visual Art Exchange, and 311 Gallery, on Martin Street, and Bee Hive Studios on Hargett Street. CAM Raleigh is a downtown contemporary art museum, also on Martin Street, that serves to promote new artists and does not house a permanent collection. CAM Raleigh was designed by the award - winning architectural firm Brooks + Scarpa of Los Angeles. Raleigh frequently receives national recognition for its quality of life and business climate. Some recent national rankings include: The National Hockey League 's Carolina Hurricanes franchise moved to Raleigh in 1997 from Hartford, Connecticut (where it was known as the Hartford Whalers). The team played its first two seasons more than 60 miles away at Greensboro Coliseum while its home arena, Raleigh Entertainment and Sports Arena (later RBC Center and now PNC Arena), was under construction. The Hurricanes are the only major league (NFL, NHL, NBA, MLB) professional sports team in North Carolina to have won a championship, winning the Stanley Cup in 2006, over the Edmonton Oilers. The city played host to the 2011 NHL All - Star Game. In addition to the Hurricanes, the North Carolina FC of the North American Soccer League play in suburban Cary to the west; North Carolina Courage women 's professional soccer team play in suburban Cary to the west; the Carolina Mudcats, a Single - A minor - league baseball team, play in the city 's eastern suburbs; the newly formed Single - A minor - league baseball Buies Creek Astros play in the nearby out - of - county southern suburb of Buies Creek, North Carolina until their ballpark finishes in Fayetteville, North Carolina in a few years, Raleigh Flyers of the American Ultimate Disc League play primarily at Cardinal Gibbons High School near the PNC Arena; and the Durham Bulls, the AAA minor - league baseball team made internationally famous by the movie Bull Durham, play in the neighboring city of Durham. Several other professional sports leagues have had former franchises (now defunct) in Raleigh, including the Raleigh IceCaps of the ECHL (1991 -- 1998); Carolina Cobras of the Arena Football League (2000 -- 2004); the Raleigh -- Durham Skyhawks of the World League of American Football (1991); the Raleigh Bullfrogs of the Global Basketball Association (1991 -- 1992); the Raleigh Cougars of the United States Basketball League (1997 -- 1999); and most recently, the Carolina Courage of the Women 's United Soccer Association (2000 -- 2001 in Chapel Hill, 2001 -- 2003 in suburban Cary), which won that league 's championship Founders Cup in 2002. The Raleigh area has hosted the Professional Golfers ' Association (PGA) Nationwide Tour Rex Hospital Open since 1994, with the current location of play at Raleigh 's Wakefield Plantation. Nearby Prestonwood Country Club hosts the PGA SAS Championship every fall. North Carolina State University is located in southwest Raleigh where the Wolfpack competes nationally in 24 intercollegiate varsity sports as a member of the Atlantic Coast Conference. The university 's football team plays in Carter -- Finley Stadium, the third largest football stadium in North Carolina, while the men 's basketball team shares the PNC Arena with the Carolina Hurricanes hockey club. The Wolfpack women 's basketball, volleyball, and gymnastics as well as men 's wrestling events are held on campus at Reynolds Coliseum. The men 's baseball team plays at Doak Field. The North Carolina Tigers compete as an Australian Rules football club in the United States Australian Football League, in the Eastern Australian Football League. Raleigh is also home to one of the Cheer Extreme All Stars gyms. In 2009 and again in 2010, Cheer Extreme Raleigh 's Small Senior Level 5 Team were silver medalists at the Cheerleading Worlds Competition in Orlando, Florida, and in 2012 they received the bronze medal. Raleigh is also home to one of the Southeast 's premier Hardcourt Bike Polo clubs. Because of the area 's many billiards rooms, Raleigh is home to one of the largest amateur league franchises for playing pool, the Raleigh, Durham, Chapel Hill American Poolplayers Association. There are leagues available in formats for players of any skill level. The Raleigh Parks and Recreation Department offers a wide variety of leisure opportunities at more than 150 sites throughout the city, which include: 8,100 acres (33 km) of park land, 78 miles (126 km) of greenway, 22 community centers, a BMX championship - caliber race track, 112 tennis courts among 25 locations, 5 public lakes, and 8 public aquatic facilities. The J.C. Raulston Arboretum, an 8 - acre (32,000 m2) arboretum and botanical garden in west Raleigh administered by North Carolina State University, maintains a year - round collection that is open daily to the public without charge. Historically, Raleigh voters have tended to elect conservative Democrats in local, state, and national elections, a holdover from their one - party system of the late 19th century. Raleigh operates under a council - manager government. Raleigh City Council consists of eight members; all seats, including the Mayor 's, are open for election every two years. Five of the council seats are district representatives and two seats are citywide representatives elected at - large. According to the Federal Bureau of Investigation 's Uniform Crime Reports, in 2010 the Raleigh Police Department and other agencies in the city reported 1,740 incidents of violent crime and 12,995 incidents of property crime -- far below both the national average and the North Carolina average. Of the violent crimes reported, 14 were murders, 99 were sexual assaults and 643 were robberies. Aggravated assault accounted for 984 of the total violent crimes. Property crimes included burglaries which accounted for 3,021, larcenies for 9,104 and arson for 63 of the total number of incidents. Motor vehicle theft accounted for 870 incidents out of the total. The Raleigh Fire Department provides fire protection throughout the city. The North Carolina Correctional Institution for Women, the state 's primary correctional facility housing female inmates is based in Raleigh. As of 2011, Time ranked Raleigh as the third most educated city in the US based on the percentage of residents who held college degrees. This statistic can most likely be credited to the presence of universities in and around Raleigh, as well as the presence of Research Triangle Park to the Northwest. Public schools in Raleigh are operated by the Wake County Public School System. Observers have praised the Wake County Public School System for its innovative efforts to maintain a socially, economically and racial balanced system by using income as a prime factor in assigning students to schools. Raleigh is home to three magnet high schools and three high schools offering the International Baccalaureate program. There are four early college high schools in Raleigh. Raleigh also has two alternative high schools. Wake County Public high schools in Raleigh include: The State of North Carolina provides for a legislated number of charter schools. These schools are administered independently of the Wake County Public School System. Raleigh is currently home to 11 such charter schools: (IATA: RDU, ICAO: KRDU, FAA LID: RDU) Raleigh - Durham International Airport, the region 's primary airport and the second - largest in North Carolina, located northwest of downtown Raleigh via Interstate - 40 between Raleigh and Durham, serves the city and greater Research Triangle metropolitan region, as well as much of eastern North Carolina. The airport offers service to more than 35 domestic and international destinations and serves approximately 10 million passengers a year. The airport also offers facilities for cargo and general aviation. The airport authority tripled the size of its Terminal 2 (formerly Terminal C) in January 2011. In addition to RDU, several smaller publicly owned general - aviation airports also operate in the metropolitan region: Several licensed private general - aviation airports operate in Raleigh 's immediate suburban areas: Raleigh 's train station is one of Amtrak 's busiest stops in the Southern U.S. The station is served by four passenger trains daily: the Silver Star, twice - daily Piedmont service, and the Carolinian. Daily service is offered between Raleigh and: Public transportation in and around Raleigh is provided by GoRaleigh, which operates 33 fixed bus routes, including the R - Line and the Wake - Forest Loop. Although there are 33 routes, some routes are designed to cover multiple other routes at times when they are not served. Depending on the time of the day, and the day of the week, the number of routes operating is between 5 and 29. Raleigh is also served by GoTriangle (known formerly as the Triangle Transit Authority, and Triangle Transit). GoTriangle offers scheduled, fixed - route regional and commuter bus service between Raleigh and the region 's other principal cities of Durham, Cary and Chapel Hill, as well as to and from the Raleigh - Durham International Airport, Research Triangle Park and several of the region 's larger suburban communities. Triangle Transit also coordinates an extensive vanpool and rideshare program that serves the region 's larger employers and commute destinations. North Carolina State University also maintains its own transit system, the Wolfline, that provides zero - fare bus service to the general public along multiple routes serving the university 's campuses in southwest Raleigh. Government agencies throughout the Raleigh - Durham metropolitan area have struggled with determining the best means of providing fixed - rail transit service for the region. From 1995 the cornerstone of Triangle Transit 's long - term plan was a 28 - mile rail corridor from northeast Raleigh, through downtown Raleigh, Cary, and Research Triangle Park, to Durham using DMU technology. There were proposals to extend this corridor 7 miles to Chapel Hill with light rail technology. However, in 2006 Triangle Transit deferred implementation indefinitely when the Federal Transit Administration declined to fund the program due to low ridership projections. The region 's two metropolitan planning organizations appointed a group of local citizens in 2007 to reexamine options for future transit development in light of Triangle Transit 's problems. The Special Transit Advisory Commission (STAC) retained many of the provisions of Triangle Transit 's original plan, but recommended adding new bus services and raising additional revenues by adding a new local half - cent sales tax to fund the project. Greyhound lines provides an inter-city bus service to Durham, Charlotte, Richmond, Washington, D.C., Atlanta, and other cities. There are several newspapers and periodicals serving Raleigh: Raleigh is part of the Raleigh - Durham - Fayetteville Designated Market Area, the 24th largest broadcast television market in the United States. The following stations are licensed to Raleigh and / or have significant operations and viewers in the city: Raleigh has several sister cities: Nation: States: Territories:

the wolf among us a telltale games series

The Wolf Among Us - wikipedia The Wolf Among Us is an episodic interactive fantasy mystery graphic adventure video game based on Bill Willingham 's Fables comic book series. It is developed by Telltale Games. It is canon with the comic book universe and is set as a prequel to the comic book. The game consists of five episodes, with the first episode being released for Microsoft Windows and Xbox 360 worldwide on October 11, 2013, for OS X worldwide on October 14, 2013, for PlayStation 3 on October 15, 2013, in North America and on October 16, 2013, in Europe and Australia, for iOS worldwide on December 4, 2013, and PlayStation Vita before the end of 2014. Retail versions for the PlayStation 3, PlayStation 4, PlayStation Vita, Xbox 360, and Xbox One consoles were released in November 2014. Since its release, the game has been generally well received by critics and garnered a considerable cult following. In July 2017, Telltale announced that season 2 of The Wolf Among Us would be coming in 2018. However by May 2018, Telltale announced that due to recent internal studio issues, they had to push back the release of the sequel until 2019. The Wolf Among Us is a graphic adventure game, played from a third - person perspective. The player controls protagonist Bigby Wolf, who must investigate the murder of a woman. Throughout the game, the player will explore various three - dimensional environments, such as apartment buildings and a bar. When exploring an environment, the player may find an object they can interact with; when this occurs, they must move a cursor over the object to select and examine it. Items of interest are stored in an inventory, and can be used later in the story. The player may also talk with non-player characters, and the conversations presented in the form of dialogue trees. The dialogue options chosen during conversations will either have a positive or negative affect on how other characters view Bigby, and their perceptions will influence future events in the story. Some scenes are more action - oriented, forcing the player to respond to a series of quick time event (QTE) prompts. The player is not required to complete every QTE prompt, and skipping certain prompts may affect future events in the story. The Wolf Among Us is set in the year 1986, nearly twenty years before the events of Fables. For years, many of the magical lands described in myth, legend, and folklore (known as The Homelands) have been occupied by an enigmatic tyrant known as the Adversary. To escape the Adversary 's totalitarian regime, many of The Homelands inhabitants fled to colonial America, and created an enclave known as Fabletown, now located in modern - day Manhattan. To mask their presence from the native humans, all non-human fables have to purchase an enchantment known as a "glamour '' which allows them to appear human, or be relocated to a rural community known as "The Farm ''. The player - protagonist of The Wolf Among Us is Bigby Wolf (Adam Harrington), formerly the Big Bad Wolf. He is the sheriff of Fabletown, currently working at the "Business Office '' under interim mayor Ichabod Crane (Roger L. Jackson), aided by Snow White (Erin Yvette) and her Magic Mirror (Gavin Hammon) in his investigation along with the help of Bufkin the winged monkey (Chuck Kourouklis) that manages Fabletown 's records. Bluebeard (Dave Fennoy) also works at the Office though his motives are unclear. Bigby resides at the Woodlands apartments, where he is currently allowing Colin (Brian Sommer), one of the Three Little Pigs, to stay with him after blowing down the pig 's home. Beauty and the Beast (Melissa Hutchison and Gavin Hammon) are also residents of Woodlands, though currently struggling with a troubled marriage. One of the Fables that Bigby frequently contacts is Mr. Toad (Chuck Kourouklis) and his son TJ (Toad Jr.), who live in a run - down apartment building nearby. As the game opens, the player is introduced to The Woodsman (Adam Harrington) who lives in the same building as Mr. Toad, and Faith (Cia Court) and Prince Lawrence (Anthony Lam), characters from the Allerleirauh / Donkeyskin fables. Standing in Bigby 's way are Dee and Dum Tweedle (Gavin Hammon), twin thugs working for an unknown agent. Bigby also encounters Holly (Janet Lipsey), a Troll that runs the Trip Trap bar, and Grendel (Kid Beyond), a barfly there. The second episode introduces Georgie Porgie (Kevin Howarth), the owner of the Pudding and Pie strip club and Faith 's pimp, along with two of his dancers, Nerissa (Molly Benson) the former Little Mermaid and Vivian (Sandy Delonga), and Clever Hans (Ben Knoll), the club 's bouncer. The third episode introduces Bloody Mary (Kathryn Cressida) as an agent of the Crooked Man (Philip Banks) and Aunty Greenleaf (Laura Bailey), a rogue witch who illegally sells cheap black - market glamours to Fables who can not afford the glamours in the 13th Floor. The fourth episode introduces the Jersey Devil (Bobby Vickers), the manager of the Lucky Pawn shop and Johann the butcher (Terry McGovern), the former owner of the Cut Above butcher shop and has since been forced out by the Crooked Man 's henchmen. This is a broad overview of the plot. Certain decisions made by the player will alter details of specific events. Bigby Wolf, formerly the Big Bad Wolf, is the Sheriff of Fabletown, a hidden community of fairytale characters located in 1980s New York City. Receiving a call from Mr. Toad, Bigby manages to save a prostitute from an intoxicated Woodsman. He escorts her to safety and before she departs, she tells him he is not as bad as everyone says he is. Later that night, Bigby is shocked to find the woman 's head left on the Woodlands doorstep. Clues left with the head identify her as Faith, a Fable from Allerleirauh. Deputy Mayor Ichabod Crane orders him and Snow White to investigate her death. They head to the apartment she shared with her husband Prince Lawrence and find the Tweedles, Dee and Dum, snooping through it. They learn from Lawrence that they struggled to make ends meet and Faith took up prostitution to help pay the bills. Bigby leaves Snow at the Woodlands while he continues to trace leads. When he returns, he finds the Woodlands surrounded by police, Snow 's head sitting on the building 's steps. Bigby is taken in for questioning, but Crane uses a spell to wipe the incident from the police 's minds. When they return, they are surprised to find Snow still alive; the head is shown to be disguised by a black - market glamour, a spell that Fables use to look human, and belongs to a troll named Lily. Bigby tracks Lily 's connections to a strip club run by Georgie Porgie, but Georgie claims innocence. One of his other prostitutes, Nerissa, cryptically directs Bigby to a nearby hotel room. There he finds Lily 's blood on the bed, and photographic evidence of Crane engaging in sexual acts with Lily glamoured to look like Snow. He informs Snow of this, and they race back to the Woodlands to find Crane gone, and the Magic Mirror, which could have revealed his location, shattered with one shard missing. Bigby follows a trail of clues to Crane 's whereabouts to the apartment of Aunty Greenleaf, one of the witches that makes the black - market glamours. Along the way, Bigby discovers that Crane has been embezzling money from Fabletown over the years to pay off a loan shark known as the Crooked Man. When Bigby and Snow threaten to destroy the tree she needs to make them, Greenleaf begs forgiveness and points the two back to Georgie 's club. Storming the club, they find Crane trying to hide in the back. Snow realizes Crane 's actions are not that of a murderer, and the two convince Crane to return for questioning. En route, they are stopped by the Crooked Man and his agents, the Tweedles and Bloody Mary. Mary and the Tweedles goad Bigby into his werewolf form, and a fight breaks out. When Mary wounds Bigby with a silver bullet, Snow steps in to stop the fight and willingly gives up Crane. Back at Woodlands, Bigby is healed and is struggling to find clues when Nerissa appears. He realizes the ribbon she wears prevents her from speaking the truth, that Faith wore an identical ribbon, and that Faith died when the ribbon was removed. He follows another trail of clues, and finds evidence of the black - market glamour ring in the Cut Above butcher shop, a pawn shop called the Lucky Pawn where the Crooked Man distributes his loans to Fables owned by Jersey Devil, another henchman of the Crooked Man, and Crane 's presence, as well as the missing Mirror Shard. The Mirror reveals Mary putting Crane onto an overseas flight to keep him from talking, as well as the next location of the door to the Crooked Man 's realm, which moves around the city. Bigby enters the Crooked Man 's realm alone, meeting him and his agents. The Crooked Man explains that the situation is all a misunderstanding by Georgie, who had only been asked to deal with an internal problem, but Georgie asserts the Crooked Man told him to kill the women. A fight ensues and ends with the Crooked Man escaping, and a fatally slashed Georgie fleeing with Vivian. When Bigby tracks Vivian to the Club, she explains that the Crooked Man and Georgie were acting to stop a plot spearheaded by Faith with the other prostitutes. Vivian is revealed to be the girl with the ribbon around her neck and, having made copies of her ribbon, trapped women like Faith, Lily, and Nerissa for Georgie whilst guaranteeing their silence. Regretting her actions, Vivian undoes her ribbon, breaking the spell but severing her head. Bigby then finds the Crooked Man 's hideout and corners him in an office, where he demands a fair trial at the Woodlands. Bigby returns to the Witching Well at the Business Office to recount events to the assembled Fables of Woodlands, where he and Snow are forced to defend their actions against claims from the Fables. Bigby recounts Vivian 's and Georgie 's confessions regarding the Crooked Man 's involvement, but his word is deemed untrustworthy. Nerissa appears and testifies that she and five other women heard the Crooked Man order the murders. Their testimonies are considered sufficient to believe what Bigby did was right. In the epilogue, Snow and Bluebeard deal with the fallout of the Crooked Man 's actions, while Bigby sees off those Fables being taken back to the Farm. Afterward, he encounters Nerissa, who is moving on with her life. She admits that Faith concocted a plan with Lily, Nerissa, and the other prostitutes to blackmail Georgie and the Crooked Man for their freedom, using a picture of Lily and Crane together, but Georgie killed Faith when he discovered their plot. Nerissa left Faith 's head at the Woodlands to get Bigby involved, and gave false testimony to have the Crooked Man punished, knowing that he was the one who ordered their deaths. Leaving, she comments Bigby is not as bad everyone says he is, causing Bigby to recall Faith said the same before her death. Several past conversations with Faith and Nerissa, regarding the use of glamours play out in Bigby 's head, leading him to question the true identity of Nerissa. Episodic releases for the Microsoft Windows, Xbox 360, OS X and PlayStation 3 platforms were released near - simultaneously within the same week; the iOS and PlayStation Vita episodic releases are expected to trail these by about a month or so. In 2011, Telltale Games announced that it had acquired licenses to develop video games based on two comic book series, The Walking Dead by Robert Kirkman, and Fables by Bill Willingham. This announcement came around the same time that the television series The Walking Dead became critically successful, leading to Telltale to put much of their initial focus on developing The Walking Dead property through 2011 and 2012. This game was released by April 2012, and was a critical success for Telltale. With The Walking Dead shipping, the company then started working on their Fables title, but according to Telltale 's Job Stauffer, they struggled with the narrative of the title over a year and a half. Stauffer said at one point, they found the game to be more of a comedy, but without much humorous substance and in an un-shippable state. Stauffer said that their team rallied together to refocus the game, delaying it from an early 2012 release to late 2012, and ultimately to October 2013 when it finally shipped. This did allow for Telltale to incorporate mechanics that had proven successful in The Walking Dead into their Fables game. Due to these delays, Telltale re-announced the Fables game at the New York Comic Con in October 2012. The name The Wolf Among Us was revealed in February 2013, and is based on the main character Bigby Wolf. The game was initially released across five episodes between October 2013 and July 2014 for Microsoft Windows, PlayStation 3, and Xbox 360 platform. Releases for the PlayStation 4 and Xbox One consoles were announced in May 2014 with release at a later date, along with retail versions of the game for PlayStation 3 and Xbox 360 consoles. When The Wolf Among Us was completed by July 2014, Telltale had thought of doing a second season, but they had already committed to the projects leading to Tales from the Borderlands, Minecraft: Story Mode, and Game of Thrones. The company has been aware of strong interest in a second season through the intervening years, and they have been looking for the right time to develop it. A second yet - to - be-named season was announced during the July 2017 San Diego Comic Con, and was original set to premiere in 2018 for personal computers, consoles, and mobile devices. Both Harrington and Yvette will return to voice Bigby and Snow White, respectively. Stauffer said that Season Two will not resolve the apparent cliffhanger related to Nerissa 's connection to Faith; he said that it was meant to be ending similar to a film noir work that made the viewer think about the implications, but never saw this themselves as a cliffhanger. Instead, Season 2 will continue on with more narrative related to Bigby and Snow White. By May 2018, Telltale announced that due to recent internal studio issues, they had to push back the release of the sequel until 2019. The Wolf Among Us has received mostly positive reviews from critics. Praise was given to the game 's story, action sequences, atmosphere, visual style and faithfulness to the source material while criticism was focused on its pacing and technical issues. Episode 1 -- Faith received positive reviews from critics. Aggregating review websites GameRankings and Metacritic gave the PlayStation 3 version 87.00 % and 85 / 100, the PC version 86.14 % and 85 / 100 and the Xbox 360 version 80.96 % and 82 / 100. Episode 2 -- Smoke and Mirrors received mixed to positive reviews from critics. Aggregating review websites GameRankings and Metacritic gave the PlayStation 3 version 84.57 % and 82 / 100, the PC version 78.37 % and 76 / 100 and the Xbox 360 version 73.50 % and 73 / 100. Episode 3 -- A Crooked Mile received positive reviews. Aggregating review websites GameRankings and Metacritic gave the PlayStation 3 version 88.80 % and 82 / 100, the PC version 83.10 % and 82 / 100 and the Xbox 360 version 78.62 % and 77 / 100. Episode 4 -- In Sheep 's Clothing received mixed to positive reviews from critics. Aggregating review websites GameRankings and Metacritic gave the PC version 76.73 % and 75 / 100, the Xbox 360 version 71.36 % and 74 / 100 and the PlayStation 3 version 70.75 % and 69 / 100. Episode 5 -- Cry Wolf received positive reviews from critics. Aggregating review websites GameRankings and Metacritic gave the PC version 87.96 % and 84 / 100, the Xbox 360 version 84.77 % and 85 / 100 and the PlayStation 3 version 76.83 % and 75 / 100. The series was nominated for Outstanding Achievement in Story and Adventure Game of the Year for the 18th Annual D.I.C.E. Awards by the Academy of Interactive Arts & Sciences. The series was nominated for two 2014 BAFTA Games Awards for Story and Performer (Adam Harrington as Bigby Wolf), losing both to The Last of Us: Left Behind. At the 2014 National Academy of Video Game Trade Reviewers (NAVGTR) awards the game won Direction in a Game Cinema and received six nominations: Writing in a Drama (Pierre Shorette), Performance in a Drama, Lead (Adam Harrington), Original Dramatic Score, Franchise (Jared Emerson - Johnson), Game, Original Adventure (Joe Pinney), Camera Direction in a Game Engine (Dennis Lenart) and Art Direction, Contemporary (David Bogan). At the 2014 New York Comic Con, Vertigo Comics announced that they will be adapting The Wolf Among Us into comic form, to be released digitally first in December 2014 and later as print comic. The story was adapted for the comic by Matthew Sturges, who has previously written for the Fables series, and Dave Justus, staying otherwise true to the game 's story but exploring some of the characters and back story in more depth. The comic has since been completed.

which is the highest viewed video in youtube

List of most - viewed YouTube videos - wikipedia YouTube is an American video - sharing website headquartered in San Bruno, California. Since its establishment in 2005, the website has featured a "most viewed '' section, which lists the most viewed videos on the site. Although the most viewed videos were initially viral videos, such as Evolution of Dance and Charlie Bit My Finger, the most viewed videos were increasingly related to music videos. In fact, since Lady Gaga 's "Bad Romance '', every video that has reached the top of the "most viewed YouTube videos '' list has been a music video. Although the most viewed videos are no longer listed on the site, reaching the top of the list is still considered a tremendous feat. By June 21, 2015, only two videos, "Gangnam Style '' and "Baby '', had exceeded one billion views. However, three and a half months later, on October 7, ten videos had done so. As of December 2017, 88 videos on the list have exceeded one billion views, with 20 of them exceeding two billion views; three of which exceed three billion views and one of which exceeds four billion views. "Despacito '' became the first video to reach three billion views on August 4, 2017, followed by "See You Again '' on August 6, 2017, and then on November 25, 2017, "Gangnam Style '' became the third video to hit three billion views. "Despacito '' also became the first video to reach four billion views on October 11, 2017. As of December 2017, the five fastest videos to reach the one billion view mark are "Hello '' (87 days), "Despacito '' (96 days), "Shape of You '' (97 days), "Mi Gente '' (102 days) and "Sorry '' (136 days). The five fastest videos to reach two billion views are "Despacito '' (154 days), "Shape of You '' (187 days), "Chantaje '' (379 days), "Sorry '' (394 days) and "See You Again '' (515 days). As of December 2017, Justin Bieber and Katy Perry each have four videos exceeding one billion views, while Taylor Swift, Calvin Harris, Shakira, Ariana Grande and Bruno Mars each have three, and Fifth Harmony, Psy, Adele, Ellie Goulding, The Weeknd, Ed Sheeran, Nicky Jam, Eminem, Maluma, J Balvin, Ricky Martin and channel Get Movies each have two. Swift, Perry and Sheeran are the only artists to have two videos exceeding two billion views. The following table lists the top 100 most viewed videos on YouTube, with each total rounded to the nearest 10 million views, as well as the creator and date of publication to YouTube. The following table lists the current top 5 most viewed YouTube videos uploaded in each year, with each total rounded to the nearest ten million views, as well as the uploader and date of publication to YouTube. As of December 2017, Katy Perry has the most appearances on the list with five, while Taylor Swift and Adele have three. Only Linkin Park (2007), Gummibär / icanrockyourworld (2007) and Taylor Swift (2014) have two videos in the top 5 of a single year, with both the English and French versions of Gummibär 's The Gummy Bear Song being in the top five videos of 2007. The following table lists the last 15 videos to become YouTube 's most viewed video, from October 2005 to the present. * The approximate number of views each video had when it became YouTube 's most viewed video. Timeline of Most Viewed Videos (Oct 2005 - Dec 2017) No 1 Most Viewed Video (Oct 2005 - Jun 2006) No 1 Most Viewed Video (Apr 2006 - Jan 2010) No 1 Most Viewed Video (Oct 2009 - Jan 2013) No 1 Most Viewed Video (Jan 2012 - Dec 2017)

which of the following is not treated as part of indian constitution

Fundamental rights in India - Wikipedia Fundamental Rights are the basic rights of the people and the charter of rights contained in Part III of Constitution of India. It guarantees civil liberties such that all Indians can lead their lives in peace and harmony as citizens of India. These include individual rights common to most liberal democracies, such as equality before law, freedom of speech and expression, religious and cultural freedom and peaceful assembly, freedom to practice religion, and the right to constitutional remedies for the protection of civil rights by means of writs such as habeas corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorariand Quo Warranto. Violation of these rights result in punishments as prescribed in the Indian Penal Code or other special laws, subject to discretion of the judiciary. The Fundamental Rights are defined as basic human freedoms that every Indian citizen has the right to enjoy for a proper and harmonious development of personality. These rights universally apply to all citizens, irrespective of race, place of birth, religion, caste or gender. Aliens (persons who are not citizens) are also considered in matters like equality before law. They are enforceable by the courts, subject to certain restrictions. Though the rights conferred by the constitution other than fundamental rights are equally valid, their enforcement in case of violation shall be secured from the judiciary in a time consuming legal process. However in case of fundamental rights violation, Supreme court of India can be approached directly for ultimate justice per Article 32. The Rights have their origins in many sources, including England 's Bill of Rights, the United States Bill of Rights and France 's Declaration of the Rights of Man. The seven fundamental rights recognised by the Indian constitution are: Fundamental rights for Indians have also been aimed at overturning the inequalities of pre-independence social practices. Specifically, they have also been used to abolish untouchability and thus prohibit discrimination on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. They also forbid trafficking of human beings and forced labour (a crime). They also protect cultural and educational rights of ethnic and religious minorities by allowing them to preserve their languages and also establish and administer their own education institutions. They are covered in Part III (Articles 12 to 35) of Indian constitution. The development of constitutionally guaranteed fundamental human rights in India was inspired by historical examples such as England 's Bill of Rights (1689), the United States Bill of Rights (approved on 17 September 1787, final ratification on 15 December 1791) and France 's Declaration of the Rights of Man (created during the revolution of 1789, and ratified on 26 August 1789). In 1919, the Rowlatt Act gave extensive powers to the British government and police, and allowed indefinite arrest and detention of individuals, warrant-less searches and seizures, restrictions on public gatherings, and intensive censorship of media and publications. The public opposition to this act eventually led to mass campaigns of non-violent civil disobedience throughout the country demanding guaranteed civil freedoms, and limitations on government power. Indians, who were seeking independence and their own government, were particularly influenced by the independence of Ireland and the development of the Irish constitution. Also, the directive principles of state policy in Irish constitution were looked upon by the people of India as an inspiration for the independent India 's government to comprehensively tackle complex social and economic challenges across a vast, diverse nation and population. In 1938, the Nehru Commission composing of representatives of Indian political parties proposed constitutional reforms for India that apart from calling for dominion status for India and elections under universal suffrage, would guarantee rights deemed fundamental, representation for religious and ethnic minorities, and limit the powers of the government. In 1931, the Indian National Congress (the largest Indian political party of the time) adopted resolutions committing itself to the defence of fundamental civil rights, as well as socio - economic rights such as the minimum wage and the abolition of untouchability and serfdom. Committing themselves to socialism in 1936, the Congress leaders took examples from the Constitution of the Soviet Union, which inspired the fundamental duties of citizens as a means of collective patriotic responsibility for national interests and challenges. Task of developing a constitution for the nation was undertaken by the Constituent Assembly of India, composing of elected representatives. The Constituent Assembly first met on December 9, 1946 under the presidency of Dr. Sachidanand later Dr. Rajendra Prasad was made its President. While members of Congress composed of a large majority, Congress leaders appointed persons from diverse political backgrounds to responsibilities of developing the constitution and national laws. Notably, Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar became the chairperson of the drafting committee, while Jawaharlal Nehru and Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel became chairpersons of committees and sub-committees responsible for different subjects. A notable development during that period having significant effect on the Indian constitution took place on 10 December 1948 when the United Nations General Assembly adopted the Universal Declaration of Human Rights and called upon all member states to adopt these rights in their respective constitutions. The fundamental rights were included in the First Draft Constitution (February 1948), the Second Draft Constitution (17 October 1948) and final Third Draft Constitution (26 November 1949), prepared by the Drafting Committee. The fundamental rights were included in the constitution because they were considered essential for the development of the personality of every individual and to preserve human dignity. The writers of the constitution regarded democracy of no avail if civil liberties, like freedom of speech and religion were not recognised and protected by the State. According to them, "democracy '' is, in essence, a government by opinion and therefore, the means of formulating public opinion should be secured to the people of a democratic nation. For this purpose, the constitution guaranteed to all the citizens of India the freedom of speech and expression and various other freedoms in the form of the fundamental rights. All people, irrespective of race, religion, caste or sex, have been given the right to petition directly the Supreme Court or the High Courts for the enforcement of their fundamental rights. It is not necessary that the aggrieved party has to be the one to do so. Poverty stricken people may not have the means to do so and therefore, in the public interest, anyone can commence litigation in the court on their behalf. This is known as "Public interest litigation ''. In some cases, High Court judges have acted suo moto on their own on the basis of newspaper reports. These fundamental rights help not only in protection but also the prevention of gross violations of human rights. They emphasise on the fundamental unity of India by guaranteeing to all citizens the access and use of the same facilities, irrespective of background. Some fundamental rights apply for persons of any nationality whereas others are available only to the citizens of India. The right to life and personal liberty is available to all people and so is the right to freedom of religion. On the other hand, freedoms of speech and expression and freedom to reside and settle in any part of the country are reserved to citizens alone, including non-resident Indian citizens. The right to equality in matters of public employment can not be conferred to overseas citizens of India. Fundamental rights primarily protect individuals from any arbitrary state actions, but some rights are enforceable against individuals. For instance, the Constitution abolishes untouchability and also prohibits begar. These provisions act as a check both on state action as well as the action of private individuals. However, these rights are not absolute or uncontrolled and are subject to reasonable restrictions as necessary for the protection of general welfare. They can also be selectively curtailed. The Supreme Court has ruled that all provisions of the Constitution, including fundamental rights can be amended. However, the Parliament can not alter the basic structure of the constitution. Since the fundamental rights can be altered only by a constitutional amendment, their inclusion is a check not only on the executive branch but also on the Parliament and state legislatures. A state of national emergency has an adverse effect on these rights. Under such a state, the rights conferred by Article 19 (freedoms of speech, assembly and movement, etc.) remain suspended. Hence, in such a situation, the legislature may make laws that go against the rights given in Article 19. Also, the President may by order suspend the right to move court for the enforcement of other rights as well. Right to equality is an important right provided for in Articles 14, 15, 16, 17 and 18 of the constitution. It is the principal foundation of all other rights and liberties, and guarantees the following: The Constitution of India contains the right to freedom, given in articles 19, 20, 21, 21A and 22, with the view of guaranteeing individual rights that were considered vital by the framers of the constitution. It is a cluster of four main laws. The right to freedom in Article 19 guarantees the following six freedoms: Article 21A gives education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may, by law, determine. The constitution also imposes restrictions on these rights. The government restricts these freedoms in the interest of the independence, sovereignty and integrity of India. In the interest of morality and public order, the government can also impose restrictions. However, the right to life and personal liberty can not be suspended. The six freedoms are also automatically suspended or have restrictions imposed on them during a state of emergency. Right To Information (RTI) Right To Information has been given the status of a fundamental right under Article 19 (1) of the Constitution in 2005. Article 19 (1) under which every citizen has freedom of speech and expression and have the right to know how the government works, what role does it play, what are its functions and so on. The right against exploitation, given in Articles 23 and 24, provides for two provisions, namely the abolition of trafficking in human beings and Begar (forced labour), and abolition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in dangerous jobs like factories, mines, etc. Child labour is considered a gross violation of the spirit and provisions of the constitution. Begar, practised in the past by landlords, has been declared a crime and is punishable by law. Trafficking in humans for the purpose of slave trade or prostitution is also prohibited by law. An exception is made in employment without payment for compulsory services for public purposes. Compulsory military conscription is covered by this provision. Right to freedom of religion, covered in Articles 25, 26, 27 and 28, provides religious freedom to all citizens of India. The objective of this right is to sustain the principle of secularism in India. According to the Constitution, all religions are equal before the State and no religion shall be given preference over the other. Citizens are free to preach, practice and propagate any religion of their choice. Religious communities can set up charitable institutions of their own. However, activities in such institutions that are not religious are performed according to the laws laid down by the government. Establishing a charitable institution can also be restricted in the interest of public order, morality and health. No person shall be compelled to pay taxes for the promotion of a particular religion. A State run institution can not be impart education that is pro-religion. Also, nothing in this article shall affect the operation of any existing law or prevent the State from making any further law regulating or restricting any economic, financial, political or other secular activity that may be associated with religious practice, or providing for social welfare and reform. The constitution guarantees the right to life and personal liberty, which in turn cites specific provisions in which these rights are applied and enforced: As India is a country of many languages, religions, and cultures, the Constitution provides special measures, in Articles 29 and 30, to protect the rights of the minorities. Any community that has a language and a script of its own has the right to conserve and develop it. No citizen can be discriminated against for admission in State or State aided institutions. All minorities, or linguistic, can set up their own educational institutions to preserve and develop their own culture. In granting aid to institutions, the State can not discriminate against any institution on the basis of the fact that it is administered by a minority institution. But the right to administer does not mean that the State can not interfere in case of maladministration. In a precedent - setting judgement in 1980, the Supreme Court held that the State can certainly take regulatory measures to promote the efficiency and excellence of educational standards. It can also issue guidelines for ensuring the security of the services of the teachers or other employees of the institution. In another landmark judgement delivered on 31 October 2002, the Supreme Court ruled that in case of aided minority institutions offering professional courses, admission could be only through a common entrance test conducted by State or a university. Even an unaided minority institution ought not to ignore the merit of the students for admission. Right to constitutional remedies (Article 32 to 35) empowers the citizens to move a court of law in case of any denial of the fundamental rights. For instance, in case of imprisonment, any citizen can ask the court to see if it is according to the provisions of the law of the country by lodging a PIL. If the court finds that it is not, the person will have to be freed. This procedure of asking the courts to preserve or safeguard the citizens ' fundamental rights can be done in various ways. The courts can issue various kinds of writs. These writs are habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar rightly declared Right to constitutional remedies as "the heart and soul '' of Indian constitution. When a national or state emergency is declared, this right is suspended by the central government. Article 32 is also called citizens right to protect and defend the constitution as it can be used by the citizens to enforce the constitution through the judiciary. The right to privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 and as a part of the freedoms guaranteed by Part III of the Constitution. It protects the inner sphere of the individual from interference from both State, and non-State actors and allows the individuals to make autonomous life choices. On 24 August 2017 the Supreme Court ruled that: "Right to Privacy is an integral part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty guaranteed in Article 21 of the Constitution, '' The fundamental rights have been revised for many reasons. Political groups have demanded that the right to work, the right to economic assistance in case of unemployment, old age, and similar rights be enshrined as constitutional guarantees to address issues of poverty and economic insecurity, though these provisions have been enshrined in the Directive Principles of state policy. The right to freedom and personal liberty has a number of limiting clauses, and thus have been criticised for failing to check the sanctioning of powers often deemed "excessive ''. There is also the provision of preventive detention and suspension of fundamental rights in times of Emergency. The provisions of acts like the Maintenance of Internal Security Act (MISA), Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act and the National Security Act (NSA) are a means of countering the fundamental rights, because they sanction excessive powers with the aim of fighting internal and cross-border terrorism and political violence, without safeguards for civil rights. The phrases "security of State '', "public order '' and "morality '' are of wide implication. People of alternate sexuality are criminalised in India with prison term up to 10 years. The meaning of phrases like "reasonable restrictions '' and "the interest of public order '' have not been explicitly stated in the constitution, and this ambiguity leads to unnecessary litigation. The freedom to assemble peaceably and without arms is exercised, but in some cases, these meetings are broken up by the police through the use of non-fatal methods. "Freedom of press '' has not been included in the right to freedom, which is necessary for formulating public opinion and to make freedom of expression more legitimate. Employment of child labour in hazardous job environments has been reduced, but their employment even in non-hazardous jobs, including their prevalent employment as domestic help violates the spirit and ideals of the constitution. More than 16.5 million children are employed and working in India. India was ranked 88 out of 159 in 2005, according to the degree to which corruption is perceived to exist among public officials and politicians worldwide. But in 2014, India has improved marginally to a rank of 85. The right to equality in matters regarding public employment shall not be conferred to overseas citizens of India, according to the Citizenship (Amendment) Bill, 2003. As per Article 19 of Part III of the Indian constitution, the fundamental rights of people such as freedom of speech and expression, gathering peaceably without arms and forming associations or unions shall not effect the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India but not unity of India. The words sovereignty and integrity are the qualities to be cultivated / emulated by Indian people as urged by the Indian constitution but not used related to territory of India. Article 1 of Part 1 of the Indian constitution, defines India (Bharat) as union of states. In nutshell, India is its people not its land as enshrined in its constitution. Since speedy trial is not the constitutional right of the citizens, the cases involving violations of fundamental rights take inordinate time for resolution by the Supreme Court which is against the legal maxim ' justice delayed is justice denied '. Changes to the fundamental rights require a constitutional amendment, which has to be passed by a special majority of both houses of Parliament. This means that an amendment requires the approval of two - thirds of the members present and voting. However, the number of members voting should not be less than the simple majority of the house -- whether the Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha. The right to education at elementary level has been made one of the fundamental rights under the Eighty - Sixth Amendment of 2002. Up till the 24th constitutional amendment in 1971, the fundamental rights of the people were permanent and can not be repealed or diluted by the Parliament. 24th constitutional amendment introduced a new Article 13 (4) enabling Parliament to legislate on the subjects of Part III of the constitution using its constituent powers per Article 368 (1). In the year 1973, the 13 member constitutional bench of supreme court also upheld with majority the validity of 24th constitutional amendment. However it ruled that Basic structure of the constitution which is built on the basic foundation representing the dignity and freedom of the individual. This is of supreme importance and can not be destroyed by any form of amendment to the constitution. Many constitutional amendments to Part III of the constitution were made deleting or diluting the existing fundamental rights after the validity of 24th constitutional amendment is upheld by the Supreme Court. Section 4 of the 42nd Amendment, had changed Article 31C of the constitution to accord precedence to the Directive Principles (earlier applicable only to clauses b & c of Article 39) over the fundamental rights of individuals. In Minerva Mills v. Union of India case, supreme court ruled that the amendment to the Article 31C is not valid and ultra vires. The Constitution originally provided for the right to property under Articles 19 and 31. Article 19 guaranteed to all citizens the right to acquire, hold and dispose of property. Article 31 provided that "no person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law. '' It also provided that compensation would be paid to a person whose property has been taken for public purposes. The provisions relating to the right to property were changed a number of times. The Forty - Fourth Amendment of 1978 deleted the right to property from the list of fundamental rights A new provision, Article 300 - A, was added to the constitution, which provided that "no person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law ''. Thus if a legislature makes a law depriving a person of his property, there would be no obligation on the part of the State to pay anything as compensation. The aggrieved person shall have no right to move the court under Article 32. Thus, the right to property is no longer a fundamental right, though it is still a constitutional right. If the government appears to have acted unfairly, the action can be challenged in a court of law by citizens. The liberalisation of the economy and the government 's initiative to set up special economic zones has led to many protests by farmers and have led to calls for the reinstatement of the fundamental right to private property. The Supreme Court has sent a notice to the government questioning why the right should not be brought back but in 2010 the court rejected the PIL Article 21A -- On 2 April 2010, India joined a group of few countries in the world, with a historic law making education a fundamental right of every child coming into force. Making elementary education an entitlement for children in the 6 -- 14 age group, the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act will directly benefit children who do not go to school at present. This act provides for appointment of teachers with the requisite entry and academic qualifications. The former Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh announced the operationalisation of the Act. Children, who had either dropped out of schools or never been to any educational institution, will get elementary education as it will be binding on the part of the local and State governments to ensure that all children in the 6 -- 14 age group get schooling. As per the Act, private educational institutions should reserve 25 per cent seats for children from the weaker sections of society. The Centre and the States have agreed to share the financial burden in the ratio of 55: 45, while the Finance Commission has given Rs. 250 billion to the States for implementing the Act. The Centre has approved an outlay of Rs. 150 billion for 2010 -- 2011. The school management committee or the local authority will identify the drop - outs or out - of - school children aged above six and admit them in classes appropriate to their age after giving special training.

who plays jacques snicket in series of unfortunate events

A Series of Unfortunate Events (TV Series) - wikipedia Lemony Snicket 's A Series of Unfortunate Events, or simply A Series of Unfortunate Events, is an American black comedy - drama web television series from Netflix, developed by Mark Hudis and Barry Sonnenfeld, based on the children 's novel series of the same name by Lemony Snicket. It stars Neil Patrick Harris, Patrick Warburton, Malina Weissman, Louis Hynes, K. Todd Freeman, and Presley Smith with Lucy Punch, Avi Lake, and Dylan Kingwell joining the cast in the second season. The first season, which premiered on January 13, 2017, consists of eight episodes and adapts the first four books of the series. The second season was ordered in March 2017 and released on March 30, 2018. A Series of Unfortunate Events was renewed for a third season in April 2017, which will consist of seven episodes and adapt the remaining four books. When a mysterious fire kills their parents, the Baudelaire children are placed into the care of their distant relative Count Olaf, an actor who is determined to claim the family fortune for himself. Following Olaf 's failed attempt and his plot being exposed, the Baudelaires set out to elude Olaf and uncover the mystery behind a secret society from their parents ' past. Daniel Handler cameos as a fish head salesperson at Lake Lachrymose. Barry Sonnenfeld does a picture cameo as the late Ike Anwhistle in "The Wide Window '' and appears as him in a flashback scene in "The Carnivorous Carnival '' Pt. 1. The first season adapts the first four books of the novel series: The Bad Beginning, The Reptile Room, The Wide Window and The Miserable Mill. The second season adapts books five through nine of the novel series: The Austere Academy, The Ersatz Elevator, The Vile Village, The Hostile Hospital, and The Carnivorous Carnival. The third season will adapt the final four books of the novel series in seven episodes: The Slippery Slope, The Grim Grotto and The Penultimate Peril will be adapted into two episodes each, and The End will conclude the series with a longer single episode. Barry Sonnenfeld will direct the episodes for The Penultimate Peril. Liza Johnson and Jonathan Teplitzky will also direct episodes in the season. The thirteen A Series of Unfortunate Events novels, written by Daniel Handler under the pen name Lemony Snicket from 1999 to 2006, achieved success in young adult fiction around the same time as the Harry Potter novels. As such, the Snicket books had been optioned to be filmed before they were published. This led to the development of a 2004 feature film, Lemony Snicket 's A Series of Unfortunate Events, which covered the narratives of the first three novels in the series. Barry Sonnenfeld, who has expressed his love for the series, was originally slated to direct the feature film, and had hired Handler to write the screenplay. About 10 months into production, shortly after the casting of Jim Carrey as Olaf, there was a "big crisis '', according to Handler, which caused producer Scott Rudin to walk away and Sonnenfeld left the production under unclear terms. With the film 's completion in flux, its producing studios Paramount Pictures and DreamWorks fired Handler. While the film was eventually completed and released, sequels which would adapt the other novels in the series became unlikely due to "corporate shakeups '' within DreamWorks, according to Handler, and the child actors that portrayed the Baudelaire children grew too old to star in a sequel. In November 2014, Netflix, in association with Paramount Television, announced its plans to adapt the novels into an original television series, with the author of the series, Daniel Handler, serving as executive producer. In September 2015, it was announced that Barry Sonnenfeld and Mark Hudis had agreed to helm the series. Hudis would serve as showrunner, Sonnenfeld as director, and both as executive producers, with Handler writing some of the scripts along with working with the series ' writing team. However, in January 2016, Netflix announced that Hudis had left the project, with a replacement showrunner not named at the time. The first season consists of eight episodes, with two episodes adapting each of the first four books of the series. Handler considered this more in line with how he had written the books in the manner of a serialized melodrama, citing The Perils of Pauline as one of his influences in writing the book series. In January 2017, Handler revealed that he was writing the series ' second season, to consist of ten episodes adapting the fifth through ninth books of the series. A third season would adapt the remaining novels of the series, which Handler hoped "to get the go - ahead to do '' since "given how quickly young actors age and change, we 're trying to film everything as quickly as possible. '' In March 2017, Netflix revealed the series had been renewed for a second season by releasing a video on their social media pointing to a viral marketing website, where a letter written by Snicket revealed the decision. A month later, the series was "quietly '' renewed for a third season, which Harris confirmed would be the final one for the series. On December 3, 2015, an open casting call was announced for the roles of Violet and Klaus Baudelaire. In January 2016, Netflix announced that Neil Patrick Harris had been cast as Count Olaf and Malina Weissman and Louis Hynes were cast as Violet and Klaus. Handler had first considered Harris for the role of Olaf after seeing him perform the opening number "It 's Not Just for Gays Anymore '', at the 65th Tony Awards in 2011, noting "I just immediately saw someone who could pull off a million things at once '' as was necessary for the character of Olaf, who utilizes various disguises and accents in his quest to steal the Baudelaire fortune. In March 2016, K. Todd Freeman was cast as Mr. Poe, followed shortly after by the casting of Patrick Warburton as Lemony Snicket, and Aasif Mandvi as Uncle Monty. In September 2016, it was revealed that Dylan Kingwell and Avi Lake were cast as the Quagmire siblings, Duncan and Isadora, respectively. In November 2016, Handler revealed Catherine O'Hara, Don Johnson, and Alfre Woodard had been cast as Dr. Georgina Orwell, Sir, and Aunt Josephine, respectively; O'Hara had previously portrayed Justice Strauss in the 2004 film adaptation of A Series of Unfortunate Events. It was also revealed that Presley Smith would play Sunny Baudelaire, whose quasi-nonsensical lines are voiced by Tara Strong, and Rhys Darby would play Charles, Sir 's partner. Production began in May 2016 in Vancouver, British Columbia, and in August 2016 several cast members expressed through social media that filming had finished. Filming for the second season began in April 2017. The third season began filming on January 5, 2018. One aspect of the series of books that the production team wanted to be captured in the series was the notion of a lack of specific time period or geography for the settings; Handler stated that he wrote enough for establishing set pieces, but purposely left more specific details vague "in order for young readers to fill in the blanks themselves. '' Sonnenfeld wanted to capture that same sense of ambiguous time and place, and he and his team worked to try to define a set of subjective rules of what elements could be included. Sonnenfeld brought on Bo Welch, production designer for Edward Scissorhands, which Handler considered to capture the same sense of a "familiar but completely imaginary '' suburban setting he had in mind for his books. While the production team used computer - generated imagery where needed, they attempted to avoid this use where possible, such as by using large painted backdrops, by key scenic artist John E. Wilcox, rather than employing green screen filming. In April 2016, Nick Urata was initially reported to be composing music for the series. Once the first season was released, it was revealed that Urata collaborated with Daniel Handler to compose the main title theme, "Look Away '', as well as various original songs that appear throughout the series, with Handler contributing the lyrics. The first season 's original score was composed by James Newton Howard, with his frequent collaborators Sven Faulconer and Chris Bacon filling in to score certain episodes. In the second season, Jim Dooley joined the production as composer and subsequently wrote the music for all ten episodes. "Look Away '', the theme song for the opening titles of the series, is performed by Neil Patrick Harris. In keeping with the tone of the book series, the song warns the viewer against continuing to watch the unpleasant story any further. The lyrics of one verse of the song change for each pair of episodes, comprising a brief synopsis of those episodes ' premise. Zoic Studios created visual effects for the series, including the effects for many of Sunny Baudelaire 's actions. Tippett Studio also did work on the series, including the effects for the destruction of Josephine 's house, landscape shots of Lake Lachrymose and some of the more movement heavy Sunny Baudelaire shots. All eight episodes of the first season of A Series of Unfortunate Events were released worldwide on Netflix on January 13, 2017, in Ultra HD 4K. The second season was released on March 30, 2018. On July 5, 2015 a video titled "An Unfortunate Teaser '' was uploaded to YouTube by a user named "Eleanora Poe ''. Netflix quickly released a statement saying "This was not released from Netflix. '' Media outlets were almost unanimous in agreement that the trailer was fan - made. However, Caitlin Petrakovitz of CNET argued that the trailer may be real and that Netflix 's carefully worded denial was a marketing campaign, noting the user name "Eleanora Poe '' being the same as a character from the series, and that a vinyl record seen in the trailer was of The Gothic Archies, a band who provided the theme music for the audio books of A Series of Unfortunate Events. The trailer was later revealed to be a spec promo, similar to a spec script, by an independent commercial director, whom Netflix contracted to make a title sequence for the series after the video 's popularity, though they did not go ahead with the concept. In October 2016, Netflix released the first teaser trailer for A Series of Unfortunate Events, where Warburton narrates the events of the series as Lemony Snicket. A trailer, featuring footage from the series and Neil Patrick Harris 's character, Count Olaf, was released by Netflix in November 2016, followed shortly by the first full trailer. The second trailer was released in December 2016, followed by a "holiday - themed '' trailer from Count Olaf leading fans to a viral marketing website for the fictional Valorous Farms Dairy, which featured four holiday e-cards for download. As Netflix does not reveal subscriber viewership numbers for any of their original series, Symphony Technology Group compiled data for the first season based on people using software on their devices that measure television viewing by detecting a program 's sound. According to Symphony, 3.755 million viewers age 18 - 49 were watching an episode of A Series of Unfortunate Events over the average minute in its first weekend of release. The first season of A Series of Unfortunate Events received critical acclaim. Review aggregator Rotten Tomatoes gives the season an approval rating of 94 % based on 62 reviews, with an average rating of 8.1 / 10. The site 's critical consensus reads, "Enjoyably dark, A Series of Unfortunate Events matches the source material 's narrative as well as its tone, leaving viewers with a wonderfully weird, dry, gothic comedy. '' On Metacritic the season has a score of 81 out of 100, based on 23 critics, indicating "universal acclaim ''. Erik Adams of The A.V. Club awarded the season a B and praised it for treating "mature themes like grief, loss, and disappointment with sardonic honesty. '' Adams compared the program positively to the Adam West Batman series, calling it "kids stuff with adult sophistication, driven by two - part stories, outrageous visuals, and the scenery - chewing of big - name guest stars ''. Ben Travers of Indiewire gave the series an A -, saying that it "proves as inspirational and endearing as it claims to be forlorn and heartbreaking ''. Brian Lowry of CNN praised the showrunners for "infusing the show with a lemony - fresh feel, conjuring a series similar to the fantastical tone of Pushing Daisies ''. Lowry wrote that "the show proves a good deal of fun '' and that "Harris dives into his over-the - top character with considerable gusto. '' He also argued that the series improved upon the 2004 film. Several critics praised the television series as a better adaptation of the books than the 2004 feature film, which starred Jim Carrey as Count Olaf. Kelly Lawler of USA Today felt the television format gave the stories more room to develop, the addition of Warburton as the fourth wall - breaking Snicket helped to convey some of the wordplay humor used in the books, and Harris 's portrayal of Olaf was "much more dynamic, and creepier '' than Carrey 's version. The Verge 's Chaim Gartenburg said that the show follows the books much more faithfully than the film, and "nails down the tone that made the stories so special ''. Los Angeles Times writer Robert Lloyd felt that the backgrounds of Sonnenfeld and Welch made them "the right people for this job, set in a milieu that is hard to fix in time, except to say it is not now '', in capturing the tones of the book compared to the feature film. Nick Allen of RogerEbert.com, on the other hand, gave the series a negative review, calling it "an unfunny parody of sadness '' that is "never as clever as it wants to be '' and would only appeal to fans of the books. Caroline Framke of Vox Media praised the series for its unique and weird visuals, but found the show 's tone, pacing and performances to be haphazard and considered the show to be "literally, a series of unfortunate events ''. As with the first season, the second season of A Series of Unfortunate Events received critical acclaim. Review aggregator Rotten Tomatoes gives the second season an approval rating of 100 % based on 13 reviews, with an average rating of 7.8 / 10. Clarisse Loughrey of The Independent praised the show as one that "essentially deals with thoughtful, intelligent young people battling to speak up against an illogical world. '' While observing that the "show may revel in the miserable '', she opined "that the purpose of its own morbidity is to offer the assurance that hope lives in even the darkest of places. '' Loughrey also credited the show 's expanded storyline for the Baudelaires ' adult allies for "plumping up '' the episodes ' narrative arcs and deepening the show 's emotional impact. Tristram Fane Saunders of The Telegraph awarded the second season four out of five stars. He described the show as a "gothic treat (that) also offers a wicked line in absurdist humour, and the most gorgeously toybox - like set designs you 'll find anywhere outside a Wes Anderson film. '' Radio Times reviewer Huw Fullerton praised the series for its faithfulness to the original novels. While praising the improved CGI used to make Presley Smith 's character Sunny Baudelaire react better to situations, he criticized the addition of supporting "good '' characters such as Nathan Fillion 's Jacques Snicket and Sara Canning 's Jacquelyn for "undercutting the bleakness and loneliness that characterized the novels. '' Rohan Naahar of the Hindustan Times described A Series of Unfortunate Events as "one of the most lavish originals in Netflix 's bottomless catalogue, created by fans, for fans. '' He also praised Neil Patrick Harris ' performance as Count Olaf. The Den of Geek reviewer Michael Ahr praised tortoise - shell ' amphibiophones ' and stone marimbas score for giving the television series its primal sound. IGN reviewer Jonathon Dornbush criticized the second season 's formulaic plot structure and lack of the insightful observations compared to the first season. He also praised several of the second season 's episodes particularly "The Ersatz Elevator '', "The Hostile Hospital '', and "The Carnivorous Carnival '' for smartly twisting the story formula and deepening the novel series ' mythology. Dornbush also praised the performance of guest stars such as Lucy Punch and Patrick Warburton and awarded the second season 7.2 stars.

when agitprop was being developed the illiteracy rate in russia was

Agitprop - wikipedia Agitprop (/ ˈædʒɪtprɒp /; from Russian: агитпроп, tr. Agitpróp, portmanteau of "agitation '' and "propaganda '') is political propaganda, especially the communist propaganda used in Soviet Russia, that is spread to the general public through popular media such as literature, plays, pamphlets, films, and other art forms with an explicitly political message. In the Western world, agitprop often has a negative connotation. The term originated in Soviet Russia as a shortened name for the Department for Agitation and Propaganda (отдел агитации и пропаганды, otdel agitatsii i propagandy), which was part of the central and regional committees of the Communist Party of the Soviet Union. The department was later renamed Ideological Department. Typically Russian agitprop explained the policies of the Communist Party and persuaded the general public to share its values and goals. In other contexts, propaganda could mean dissemination of any kind of beneficial knowledge, e.g., of new methods in agriculture. After the October Revolution of 1917, an agitprop train toured the country, with artists and actors performing simple plays and broadcasting propaganda. It had a printing press on board the train to allow posters to be reproduced and thrown out of the windows if it passed through villages. It gave rise to agitprop theatre, a highly politicized left - wing theatre that originated in 1920s Europe and spread to the United States; the plays of Bertolt Brecht are a notable example. Russian agitprop theater was noted for its cardboard characters of perfect virtue and complete evil, and its coarse ridicule. Gradually the term agitprop came to describe any kind of highly politicized art. During Russian Civil War agitprop took various forms:

where does the energy come from when cooking food with natural gas

Natural gas - wikipedia Natural gas is a naturally occurring hydrocarbon gas mixture consisting primarily of methane, but commonly including varying amounts of other higher alkanes, and sometimes a small percentage of carbon dioxide, nitrogen, hydrogen sulfide, or helium. It is formed when layers of decomposing plant and animal matter are exposed to intense heat and pressure under the surface of the Earth over millions of years. The energy that the plants originally obtained from the sun is stored in the form of chemical bonds in the gas. Natural gas is a fossil fuel used as a source of energy for heating, cooking, and electricity generation. It is also used as fuel for vehicles and as a chemical feedstock in the manufacture of plastics and other commercially important organic chemicals. Fossil fuel based natural gas is a non-renewable resource. Natural gas is found in deep underground rock formations or associated with other hydrocarbon reservoirs in coal beds and as methane clathrates. Petroleum is another resource and fossil fuel found in close proximity to and with natural gas. Most natural gas was created over time by two mechanisms: biogenic and thermogenic. Biogenic gas is created by methanogenic organisms in marshes, bogs, landfills, and shallow sediments. Deeper in the earth, at greater temperature and pressure, thermogenic gas is created from buried organic material. In petroleum production gas is often burnt as flare gas. The World Bank estimates that over 150 cubic kilometers of natural gas are flared or vented annually. Before natural gas can be used as a fuel, most, but not all, must be processed to remove impurities, including water, to meet the specifications of marketable natural gas. The by - products of this processing include: ethane, propane, butanes, pentanes, and higher molecular weight hydrocarbons, hydrogen sulfide (which may be converted into pure sulfur), carbon dioxide, water vapor, and sometimes helium and nitrogen. Natural gas is often informally referred to simply as "gas '', especially when compared to other energy sources such as oil or coal. However, it is not to be confused with gasoline, especially in North America, where the term gasoline is often shortened in colloquial usage to gas. Natural gas was discovered accidentally in ancient China, as it resulted from the drilling for brines. The natural gas was used to boil brine to make salt. Natural gas was first used by the Chinese in about 500 BCE (possibly even 1000 BCE). They discovered a way to transport gas seeping from the ground in crude pipelines of bamboo to where it was used to boil salt water to extract the salt, in the Ziliujing District of Sichuan. The world 's first industrial extraction of natural gas started at Fredonia, New York, United States in 1825. By 2009, 66 000 km3 (or 8 %) had been used out of the total 850 000 km3 of estimated remaining recoverable reserves of natural gas. Based on an estimated 2015 world consumption rate of about 3400 km3 of gas per year, the total estimated remaining economically recoverable reserves of natural gas would last 250 years at current consumption rates. An annual increase in usage of 2 -- 3 % could result in currently recoverable reserves lasting significantly less, perhaps as few as 80 to 100 years. In the 19th century, natural gas was usually obtained as a by - product of producing oil, since the small, light gas carbon chains came out of solution as the extracted fluids underwent pressure reduction from the reservoir to the surface, similar to uncapping a soft drink bottle where the carbon dioxide effervesces. Unwanted natural gas was a disposal problem in the active oil fields. If there was not a market for natural gas near the wellhead it was prohibitively expensive to pipe to the end user. In the 19th century and early 20th century, unwanted gas was usually burned off at oil fields. Today, unwanted gas (or stranded gas without a market) associated with oil extraction often is returned to the reservoir with ' injection ' wells while awaiting a possible future market or to repressurize the formation, which can enhance extraction rates from other wells. In regions with a high natural gas demand (such as the US), pipelines are constructed when it is economically feasible to transport gas from a wellsite to an end consumer. In addition to transporting gas via pipelines for use in power generation, other end uses for natural gas include export as liquefied natural gas (LNG) or conversion of natural gas into other liquid products via gas to liquids (GTL) technologies. GTL technologies can convert natural gas into liquids products such as gasoline, diesel or jet fuel. A variety of GTL technologies have been developed, including Fischer -- Tropsch (F -- T), methanol to gasoline (MTG) and STG+. F -- T produces a synthetic crude that can be further refined into finished products, while MTG can produce synthetic gasoline from natural gas. STG+ can produce drop - in gasoline, diesel, jet fuel and aromatic chemicals directly from natural gas via a single - loop process. In 2011, Royal Dutch Shell 's 140,000 barrel (16 dam3) per day F -- T plant went into operation in Qatar. Natural gas can be "associated '' (found in oil fields), or "non-associated '' (isolated in natural gas fields), and is also found in coal beds (as coalbed methane). It sometimes contains a significant amount of ethane, propane, butane, and pentane -- heavier hydrocarbons removed for commercial use prior to the methane being sold as a consumer fuel or chemical plant feedstock. Non-hydrocarbons such as carbon dioxide, nitrogen, helium (rarely), and hydrogen sulfide must also be removed before the natural gas can be transported. Natural gas extracted from oil wells is called casinghead gas (whether or not truly produced up the annulus and through a casinghead outlet) or associated gas. The natural gas industry is extracting an increasing quantity of gas from challenging resource types: sour gas, tight gas, shale gas, and coalbed methane. There is some disagreement on which country has the largest proven gas reserves. Sources that consider that Russia has by far the largest proven reserves include the US CIA (47 600 km3), the US Energy Information Administration (47 800 km3), and OPEC (48 700 km3). However, BP credits Russia with only 32 900 km3, which would place it in second place, slightly behind Iran (33 100 to 33 800 km3, depending on the source). With Gazprom, Russia is frequently the world 's largest natural gas extractor. Major proven resources (in cubic kilometers) are world 187 300 (2013), Iran 33 600 (2013), Russia 32 900 (2013), Qatar 25 100 (2013), Turkmenistan 17 500 (2013) and the United States 8500 (2013). It is estimated that there are about 900 000 km3 of "unconventional '' gas such as shale gas, of which 180 000 km3 may be recoverable. In turn, many studies from MIT, Black & Veatch and the DOE predict that natural gas will account for a larger portion of electricity generation and heat in the future. The world 's largest gas field is the offshore South Pars / North Dome Gas - Condensate field, shared between Iran and Qatar. It is estimated to have 51 000 cubic kilometers of natural gas and 50 billion barrels (6 km3) of natural gas condensates. Because natural gas is not a pure product, as the reservoir pressure drops when non-associated gas is extracted from a field under supercritical (pressure / temperature) conditions, the higher molecular weight components may partially condense upon isothermic depressurizing -- an effect called retrograde condensation. The liquid thus formed may get trapped as the pores of the gas reservoir get depleted. One method to deal with this problem is to re-inject dried gas free of condensate to maintain the underground pressure and to allow re-evaporation and extraction of condensates. More frequently, the liquid condenses at the surface, and one of the tasks of the gas plant is to collect this condensate. The resulting liquid is called natural gas liquid (NGL) and has commercial value. Shale gas is natural gas produced from shale. Because shale has matrix permeability too low to allow gas to flow in economical quantities, shale gas wells depend on fractures to allow the gas to flow. Early shale gas wells depended on natural fractures through which gas flowed; almost all shale gas wells today require fractures artificially created by hydraulic fracturing. Since 2000, shale gas has become a major source of natural gas in the United States and Canada. Following the success in the United States, shale gas exploration is beginning in countries such as Poland, China, and South Africa. Because of this increase in shale production, the United States is now the number one natural gas producer in the world Town gas is a flammable gaseous fuel made by the destructive distillation of coal. It contains a variety of calorific gases including hydrogen, carbon monoxide, methane, and other volatile hydrocarbons, together with small quantities of non-calorific gases such as carbon dioxide and nitrogen, and is used in a similar way to natural gas. This is a historical technology and is not usually economically competitive with other sources of fuel gas today. Most town "gashouses '' located in the eastern US in the late 19th and early 20th centuries were simple by - product coke ovens that heated bituminous coal in air - tight chambers. The gas driven off from the coal was collected and distributed through networks of pipes to residences and other buildings where it was used for cooking and lighting. (Gas heating did not come into widespread use until the last half of the 20th century.) The coal tar (or asphalt) that collected in the bottoms of the gashouse ovens was often used for roofing and other waterproofing purposes, and when mixed with sand and gravel was used for paving streets. Methanogenic archaea are responsible for all biological sources of methane. Some live in symbiotic relationships with other life forms, including termites, ruminants, and cultivated crops. Other sources of methane, the principal component of natural gas, include landfill gas, biogas, and methane hydrate. When methane - rich gases are produced by the anaerobic decay of non-fossil organic matter (biomass), these are referred to as biogas (or natural biogas). Sources of biogas include swamps, marshes, and landfills (see landfill gas), as well as agricultural waste materials such as sewage sludge and manure by way of anaerobic digesters, in addition to enteric fermentation, particularly in cattle. Landfill gas is created by decomposition of waste in landfill sites. Excluding water vapor, about half of landfill gas is methane and most of the rest is carbon dioxide, with small amounts of nitrogen, oxygen, and hydrogen, and variable trace amounts of hydrogen sulfide and siloxanes. If the gas is not removed, the pressure may get so high that it works its way to the surface, causing damage to the landfill structure, unpleasant odor, vegetation die - off, and an explosion hazard. The gas can be vented to the atmosphere, flared or burned to produce electricity or heat. Biogas can also be produced by separating organic materials from waste that otherwise goes to landfills. This method is more efficient than just capturing the landfill gas it produces. Anaerobic lagoons produce biogas from manure, while biogas reactors can be used for manure or plant parts. Like landfill gas, biogas is mostly methane and carbon dioxide, with small amounts of nitrogen, oxygen and hydrogen. However, with the exception of pesticides, there are usually lower levels of contaminants. Landfill gas can not be distributed through utility natural gas pipelines unless it is cleaned up to less than 3 per cent CO, and a few parts per million H 2S, because CO and H 2S corrode the pipelines. The presence of CO will lower the energy level of the gas below requirements for the pipeline. Siloxanes in the gas will form deposits in gas burners and need to be removed prior to entry into any gas distribution or transmission system. Consequently, it may be more economical to burn the gas on site or within a short distance of the landfill using a dedicated pipeline. Water vapor is often removed, even if the gas is burned on site. If low temperatures condense water out of the gas, siloxanes can be lowered as well because they tend to condense out with the water vapor. Other non-methane components may also be removed to meet emission standards, to prevent fouling of the equipment or for environmental considerations. Co-firing landfill gas with natural gas improves combustion, which lowers emissions. Biogas, and especially landfill gas, are already used in some areas, but their use could be greatly expanded. Experimental systems were being proposed for use in parts of Hertfordshire, UK, and Lyon in France. Using materials that would otherwise generate no income, or even cost money to get rid of, improves the profitability and energy balance of biogas production. Gas generated in sewage treatment plants is commonly used to generate electricity. For example, the Hyperion sewage plant in Los Angeles burns 8 million cubic feet (230,000 m) of gas per day to generate power New York City utilizes gas to run equipment in the sewage plants, to generate electricity, and in boilers. Using sewage gas to make electricity is not limited to large cities. The city of Bakersfield, California, uses cogeneration at its sewer plants. California has 242 sewage wastewater treatment plants, 74 of which have installed anaerobic digesters. The total biopower generation from the 74 plants is about 66 MW. Huge quantities of natural gas (primarily methane) exist in the form of hydrates under sediment on offshore continental shelves and on land in arctic regions that experience permafrost, such as those in Siberia. Hydrates require a combination of high pressure and low temperature to form. In 2010, the cost of extracting natural gas from crystallized natural gas was estimated to be as much as twice the cost of extracting natural gas from conventional sources, and even higher from offshore deposits. In 2013, Japan Oil, Gas and Metals National Corporation (JOGMEC) announced that they had recovered commercially relevant quantities of natural gas from methane hydrate. The image below is a schematic block flow diagram of a typical natural gas processing plant. It shows the various unit processes used to convert raw natural gas into sales gas pipelined to the end user markets. The block flow diagram also shows how processing of the raw natural gas yields byproduct sulfur, byproduct ethane, and natural gas liquids (NGL) propane, butanes and natural gasoline (denoted as pentanes +). Natural gas production in the US reached a peak in 1973, and went over a second lower peak in 2001, but recently has peaked again and is continuing to rise. Natural gas is primarily used in the northern hemisphere. North America and Europe are major consumers. Natural gas flowing in the distribution lines and at the natural gas well head are often used to power natural gas powered engines. These engines rotate compressors to facilitate the natural gas transmission. These compressors are required in the mid-stream line to pressurize and to re-pressurize the natural gas in the transmission line as the gas travels. The natural gas transmission lines extend to the natural gas processing plant or unit which removes the higher molecular weighted natural gas hydrocarbons to produce a British thermal unit (BTU) value between 950 and 1050 BTUs. The processed natural gas may then be used for residential, commercial and industrial uses. Often mid-stream and well head gases require removal of many of the various hydrocarbon species contained within the natural gas. Some of these gases include heptane, pentane, propane and other hydrocarbons with molecular weights above Methane (CH4) to produce a natural gas fuel which is used to operate the natural gas engines for further pressurized transmission. Typically, natural gas compressors require 950 to 1050 BTU per cubic foot to operate at the natural gas engines rotational name plate specifications. Several methods are used to remove these higher molecular weighted gases for use at the natural gas engine. A few technologies are as follows: Natural gas is a major source of electricity generation through the use of cogeneration, gas turbines and steam turbines. Natural gas is also well suited for a combined use in association with renewable energy sources such as wind or solar and for alimenting peak - load power stations functioning in tandem with hydroelectric plants. Most grid peaking power plants and some off - grid engine - generators use natural gas. Particularly high efficiencies can be achieved through combining gas turbines with a steam turbine in combined cycle mode. Natural gas burns more cleanly than other hydrocarbon fuels, such as oil and coal, and produces less carbon dioxide per unit of energy released. For transportation, burning natural gas produces about 30 percent less carbon dioxide than burning petroleum. For an equivalent amount of heat, burning natural gas produces about 45 percent less carbon dioxide than burning coal for power. The US Energy Information Administration reports the following emissions in million metric tons of carbon dioxide in the world for 2012: Coal - fired electric power generation emits around 2,000 pounds of carbon dioxide for every megawatt hour generated, which is almost double the carbon dioxide released by a natural gas - fired electric plant per megawatt hour generated. Because of this higher carbon efficiency of natural gas generation, as the fuel mix in the United States has changed to reduce coal and increase natural gas generation, carbon dioxide emissions have unexpectedly fallen. Those measured in the first quarter of 2012 were the lowest of any recorded for the first quarter of any year since 1992. Combined cycle power generation using natural gas is currently the cleanest available source of power using hydrocarbon fuels, and this technology is widely and increasingly used as natural gas can be obtained at increasingly reasonable costs. Fuel cell technology may eventually provide cleaner options for converting natural gas into electricity, but as yet it is not price - competitive. Locally produced electricity and heat using natural gas powered Combined Heat and Power plant (CHP or Cogeneration plant) is considered energy efficient and a rapid way to cut carbon emissions. Natural gas generated power has increased from 740 TW in 1973 to 5140 TW in 2014, generating 22 % of the worlds total electricity. Approximately half as much as generated with coal. Efforts around the world to reduce the use of coal has led some regions to switch to natural gas. Natural gas dispensed in a residential setting can generate temperatures in excess of 1100 ° C (2000 ° F) making it a powerful domestic cooking and heating fuel. In much of the developed world it is supplied through pipes to homes, where it is used for many purposes including ranges and ovens, gas - heated clothes dryers, heating / cooling, and central heating. Heaters in homes and other buildings may include boilers, furnaces, and water heaters. Both North America and Europe are major consumers of natural gas. Boilers use low pressure, usually 6 to 7 inches of water (6 '' to 7 '' WC), which is about 0.25 psig. The pressures in the supply lines under the streets vary, either utilization pressure (UP, the aforementioned 6 '' to 7 '' WC) or elevated pressure (EP), which may be anywhere from 1 psig to 120 psig. Systems using EP have a regulator at the service entrance to step down the pressure to UP. In the US Compressed natural gas (CNG) is used in rural homes without connections to piped - in public utility services, or with portable grills. Natural gas is also supplied by independent natural gas suppliers through Natural Gas Choice programs throughout the United States. However, as CNG costs more than LPG, LPG (propane) is the dominant source of rural gas. CNG is a cleaner and also cheaper alternative to other automobile fuels such as gasoline (petrol) and diesel. By the end of 2012 there were 17.25 million natural gas vehicless worldwide, led by Iran (3.3 million), Pakistan (3.1 million), Argentina (2.18 million), Brazil (1.73 million), India (1.5 million), and China (1.5 million). The energy efficiency is generally equal to that of gasoline engines, but lower compared with modern diesel engines. Gasoline / petrol vehicles converted to run on natural gas suffer because of the low compression ratio of their engines, resulting in a cropping of delivered power while running on natural gas (10 % -- 15 %). CNG - specific engines, however, use a higher compression ratio due to this fuel 's higher octane number of 120 -- 130. Besides use in road vehicles, CNG can also be used in aircraft. Compressed natural gas has been used in some aircraft like the Aviat Aircraft Husky 200 CNG and the Chromarat VX - 1 KittyHawk LNG is also being used in aircraft. Russian aircraft manufacturer Tupolev for instance is running a development program to produce LNG - and hydrogen - powered aircraft. The program has been running since the mid-1970s, and seeks to develop LNG and hydrogen variants of the Tu - 204 and Tu - 334 passenger aircraft, and also the Tu - 330 cargo aircraft. It claims that at current market prices, an LNG - powered aircraft would cost 5,000 roubles (~ US $218 / £ 112) less to operate per ton, roughly equivalent to 60 per cent, with considerable reductions to carbon monoxide, hydrocarbon and nitrogen oxide emissions. The advantages of liquid methane as a jet engine fuel are that it has more specific energy than the standard kerosene mixes do and that its low temperature can help cool the air which the engine compresses for greater volumetric efficiency, in effect replacing an intercooler. Alternatively, it can be used to lower the temperature of the exhaust. Natural gas is a major feedstock for the production of ammonia, via the Haber process, for use in fertilizer production. Natural gas can be used to produce hydrogen, with one common method being the hydrogen reformer. Hydrogen has many applications: it is a primary feedstock for the chemical industry, a hydrogenating agent, an important commodity for oil refineries, and the fuel source in hydrogen vehicles. Natural gas is also used in the manufacture of fabrics, glass, steel, plastics, paint, and other products. Because of its low density, it is not easy to store natural gas or to transport it by vehicle. Natural gas pipelines are impractical across oceans, since the gas needs to be cooled down and compressed, as the friction in the pipeline causes the gas to heat up. Many existing pipelines in America are close to reaching their capacity, prompting some politicians representing northern states to speak of potential shortages. The large trade cost implies that natural gas markets are globally much less integrated, causing significant price differences across countries. In Western Europe, the gas pipeline network is already dense. New pipelines are planned or under construction in Eastern Europe and between gas fields in Russia, Near East and Northern Africa and Western Europe. See also List of natural gas pipelines. Whenever gas is bought or sold at custody transfer points, rules and agreements are made regarding the gas quality. These may include the maximum allowable concentration of CO, H S and H O. Usually sales quality gas that has been treated to remove contamination is traded on a "dry gas '' basis and is required to be commercially free from objectionable odours, materials, and dust or other solid or liquid matter, waxes, gums and gum forming constituents, which might damage or adversely affect operation of equipment downstream of the custody transfer point. LNG carriers transport liquefied natural gas (LNG) across oceans, while tank trucks can carry liquefied or compressed natural gas (CNG) over shorter distances. Sea transport using CNG carrier ships that are now under development may be competitive with LNG transport in specific conditions. Gas is turned into liquid at a liquefaction plant, and is returned to gas form at regasification plant at the terminal. Shipborne regasification equipment is also used. LNG is the preferred form for long distance, high volume transportation of natural gas, whereas pipeline is preferred for transport for distances up to 4,000 km (2,485 mi) over land and approximately half that distance offshore. CNG is transported at high pressure, typically above 200 bars. Compressors and decompression equipment are less capital intensive and may be economical in smaller unit sizes than liquefaction / regasification plants. Natural gas trucks and carriers may transport natural gas directly to end - users, or to distribution points such as pipelines. In the past, the natural gas which was recovered in the course of recovering petroleum could not be profitably sold, and was simply burned at the oil field in a process known as flaring. Flaring is now illegal in many countries. Additionally, higher demand in the last 20 -- 30 years has made production of gas associated with oil economically viable. As a further option, the gas is now sometimes re-injected into the formation for enhanced oil recovery by pressure maintenance as well as miscible or immiscible flooding. Conservation, re-injection, or flaring of natural gas associated with oil is primarily dependent on proximity to markets (pipelines), and regulatory restrictions. Natural gas can be indirectly exported through the absorption in other physical output. A recent study suggests that the expansion of shale gas production in the US has caused prices to drop relative to other countries. This has caused a boom in energy intensive manufacturing sector exports, whereby the average dollar unit of US manufacturing exports has almost tripled its energy content between 1996 and 2012. A "master gas system '' was invented in Saudi Arabia in the late 1970s, ending any necessity for flaring. Satellite observation, however, shows that flaring and venting are still practiced in some gas - extracting countries. Natural gas is used to generate electricity and heat for desalination. Similarly, some landfills that also discharge methane gases have been set up to capture the methane and generate electricity. Natural gas is often stored underground inside depleted gas reservoirs from previous gas wells, salt domes, or in tanks as liquefied natural gas. The gas is injected in a time of low demand and extracted when demand picks up. Storage nearby end users helps to meet volatile demands, but such storage may not always be practicable. With 15 countries accounting for 84 per cent of the worldwide extraction, access to natural gas has become an important issue in international politics, and countries vie for control of pipelines. In the first decade of the 21st century, Gazprom, the state - owned energy company in Russia, engaged in disputes with Ukraine and Belarus over the price of natural gas, which have created concerns that gas deliveries to parts of Europe could be cut off for political reasons. The United States is preparing to export natural gas. Floating liquefied natural gas (FLNG) is an innovative technology designed to enable the development of offshore gas resources that would otherwise remain untapped because due to environmental or economic factors it is nonviable to develop them via a land - based LNG operation. FLNG technology also provides a number of environmental and economic advantages: Many gas and oil companies are considering the economic and environmental benefits of floating liquefied natural gas (FLNG). There are currently projects underway to construct five FLNG facilities. Petronas is close to completion on their FLNG - 1 at Daewoo Shipbuilding and Marine Engineering and are underway on their FLNG - 2 project at Samsung Heavy Industries. Shell Prelude is due to start production 2017 and the Browse LNG project has completed FEED with final investment decisions expected in mid-2016. Natural gas is mainly composed of methane. After release to the atmosphere it is removed by gradual oxidation to carbon dioxide and water by hydroxyl radicals (OH) formed in the troposphere or stratosphere, giving the overall chemical reaction CH + 2O → CO + 2H O. While the lifetime of atmospheric methane is relatively short when compared to carbon dioxide, with a half - life of about 7 years, it is more efficient at trapping heat in the atmosphere, so that a given quantity of methane has 84 times the global - warming potential of carbon dioxide over a 20 - year period and 28 times over a 100 - year period. Natural gas is thus a more potent greenhouse gas than carbon dioxide due to the greater global - warming potential of methane. But because when it is burned, it produces more water than carbon dioxide by mole, in contrast to coal which produces mainly carbon dioxide, it produces only about half the carbon dioxide per kilowatt - hour that coal does. Current estimates by the EPA place global emissions of methane at 85 billion cubic metres (3.0 × 10 ^ cu ft) annually, or 3.2 per cent of global production. Direct emissions of methane represented 14.3 per cent by volume of all global anthropogenic greenhouse gas emissions in 2004. During extraction, storage, transportation, and distribution, natural gas is known to leak into the atmosphere, particularly during the extraction process. A Cornell University study in 2011 demonstrated that the leak rate of methane may be high enough to jeopardize its global warming advantage over coal. This study was criticized later for its over-estimation of methane leakage values. Preliminary results of some air sampling from airplanes done by the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration indicated higher - than - estimated methane releases by gas wells in some areas, but the overall results showed methane emissions in line with previous EPA estimates Natural gas extraction also releases an isotope of radon, ranging in activity from 5 to 200,000 becquerels per cubic meter of gas. Natural gas is often described as the cleanest fossil fuel. It produces about 29 % and 44 % less carbon dioxide per joule delivered than oil and coal respectively, and potentially fewer pollutants than other hydrocarbon fuels. However, in absolute terms, it comprises a substantial percentage of human carbon emissions, and this contribution is projected to grow. According to the IPCC Fourth Assessment Report, in 2004, natural gas produced about 5.3 billion tons a year of CO emissions, while coal and oil produced 10.6 and 10.2 billion tons respectively. According to an updated version of the Special Report on Emissions Scenario by 2030, natural gas would be the source of 11 billion tons a year, with coal and oil now 8.4 and 17.2 billion respectively because demand is increasing 1.9 percent a year. Natural gas produces far lower amounts of sulfur dioxide and nitrous oxides than other fossil fuels. The other pollutants due to natural gas combustion are listed below in pounds per billion BTU: Some gas fields yield sour gas containing hydrogen sulfide (H S). This untreated gas is toxic. Amine gas treating, an industrial scale process which removes acidic gaseous components, is often used to remove hydrogen sulfide from natural gas. Extraction of natural gas (or oil) leads to decrease in pressure in the reservoir. Such decrease in pressure in turn may result in subsidence, sinking of the ground above. Subsidence may affect ecosystems, waterways, sewer and water supply systems, foundations, and so on. Releasing natural gas from subsurface porous rock formations may be accomplished by a process called hydraulic fracturing or "fracking ''. It 's estimated that hydraulic fracturing will eventually account for nearly 70 % of natural gas development in North America. Since the first commercial hydraulic fracturing operation in 1949, approximately one million wells have been hydraulically fractured in the United States. The production of natural gas from hydraulically fractured wells has utilized the technological developments of directional and horizontal drilling, which improved access to natural gas in tight rock formations. Strong growth in the production of unconventional gas from hydraulically fractured wells occurred between 2000 - 2012. In hydraulic fracturing, well operators force water mixed with a variety of chemicals through the wellbore casing into the rock. The high pressure water breaks up or "fracks '' the rock, which releases gas from the rock formation. Sand and other particles are added to the water as a proppant to keep the fractures in the rock open, thus enabling the gas to flow into the casing and then to the surface. Chemicals are added to the fluid to perform such functions as reducing friction and inhibiting corrosion. After the "frack, '' oil or gas is extracted and nearly 30 percent to 70 percent of the frack fluid, i.e. the mixture of water, chemicals, sand, etc., flows back to the surface. Many gas - bearing formations also contain water, which will flow up the wellbore to the surface along with the gas, in both hydraulically fractured and non-hydraulically fractured wells. This produced water often has a high content of salt and other dissolved minerals that occur in the formation. The volume of water used to hydraulically fracture wells varies according to the hydraulic fracturing technique. In the United States, the average volume of water used per hydraulic fracture has been reported as nearly 7,375 gallons for vertical oil and gas wells prior to 1953, nearly 197,000 gallons for vertical oil and gas wells between 2000 - 2010, and nearly 3 million gallons for horizontal gas wells between 2000 - 2010. Determining which fracking technique is appropriate for well productivity depends largely on the properties of the reservoir rock from which to extract oil or gas. If the rock is characterized by low - permeability -- which refers to its ability to let substances, i.e. gas, pass through it, then the rock may be considered a source of tight gas. Fracking for shale gas, which is currently also known as a source of unconventional gas, involves drilling a borehole vertically until it reaches a lateral shale rock formation, at which point the drill turns to follow the rock for hundreds or thousands of feet horizontally. In contrast, conventional oil and gas sources are characterized by higher rock permeability, which naturally enables the flow of oil or gas into the wellbore with less intensive hydraulic fracturing techniques than the production of tight gas has required. The decades in development of drilling technology for conventional and unconventional oil and gas production has not only improved access to natural gas in low - permeability reservoir rocks, but also posed significant adverse impacts on environmental and public health. The US EPA has acknowledged that toxic, carcinogenic chemicals, i.e. benzene and ethylbenzene, have been used as gelling agents in water and chemical mixtures for high volume horizontal fracturing (HVHF). Following the hydraulic fracture in HVHF, the water, chemicals, and frack fluid that return to the well 's surface, called flowback or produced water, may contain radioactive materials, heavy metals, natural salts, and hydrocarbons which exist naturally in shale rock formations. Fracking chemicals, radioactive materials, heavy metals, and salts that are removed from the HVHF well by well operators are so difficult to remove from the water they 're mixed with, and would so heavily pollute the water cycle, that most of the flowback is either recycled into other fracking operations or injected into deep underground wells, eliminating the water that HVHF required from the hydrologic cycle. In order to assist in detecting leaks, an odorizer is added to the otherwise colorless and almost odorless gas used by consumers. The odor has been compared to the smell of rotten eggs, due to the added tert - Butylthiol (t - butyl mercaptan). Sometimes a related compound, thiophane, may be used in the mixture. Situations in which an odorant that is added to natural gas can be detected by analytical instrumentation, but can not be properly detected by an observer with a normal sense of smell, have occurred in the natural gas industry. This is caused by odor masking, when one odorant overpowers the sensation of another. As of 2011, the industry is conducting research on the causes of odor masking. Explosions caused by natural gas leaks occur a few times each year. Individual homes, small businesses and other structures are most frequently affected when an internal leak builds up gas inside the structure. Frequently, the blast is powerful enough to significantly damage a building but leave it standing. In these cases, the people inside tend to have minor to moderate injuries. Occasionally, the gas can collect in high enough quantities to cause a deadly explosion, disintegrating one or more buildings in the process. The gas usually dissipates readily outdoors, but can sometimes collect in dangerous quantities if flow rates are high enough. However, considering the tens of millions of structures that use the fuel, the individual risk of using natural gas is very low. Natural gas heating systems may cause carbon monoxide poisoning if unvented or poorly vented. In 2011, natural gas furnaces, space heaters, water heaters and stoves were blamed for 11 carbon monoxide deaths in the US. Another 22 deaths were attributed to appliances running on liquified petroleum gas, and 17 deaths on gas of unspecified type. Improvements in natural gas furnace designs have greatly reduced CO poisoning concerns. Detectors are also available that warn of carbon monoxide and / or explosive gas (methane, propane, etc.). Quantities of natural gas are measured in normal cubic meters (corresponding to 0 ° C at 101.325 kPa) or in standard cubic feet (corresponding to 60 ° F (16 ° C) and 14.73 psia). The gross heat of combustion of 1 m of commercial quality natural gas is around 39 MJ (≈ 10.8 kWh), but this can vary by several percent. This comes to about 49 MJ (≈ 13.5 kWh) for 1 kg of natural gas (assuming a density of 0.8 kg m, an approximate value). The price of natural gas varies greatly depending on location and type of consumer. In 2007, a price of $7 per 1000 cubic feet (about 25 cents per m) was typical in the United States. The typical caloric value of natural gas is roughly 1,000 British thermal units (BTU) per cubic foot, depending on gas composition. This corresponds to around $7 per million BTU, or around $7 per gigajoule. In April 2008, the wholesale price was $10 per 1,000 cubic feet (28 m) ($10 / MMBTU). The residential price varies from 50 % to 300 % more than the wholesale price. At the end of 2007, this was $12 -- $16 per 1000 cubic feet (about 50 cents per m). Natural gas in the United States is traded as a futures contract on the New York Mercantile Exchange. Each contract is for 10,000 MMBTU (~ 10,550 gigajoules), or 10 billion BTU. Thus, if the price of gas is $10 per million BTUs on the NYMEX, the contract is worth $100,000. Gas prices for end users vary greatly across the EU. A single European energy market, one of the key objectives of the EU, should level the prices of gas in all EU member states. Moreover, it would help to resolve supply and global warming issues, as well as strengthen relations with other Mediterranean countries and foster investments in the region. In US units, one standard cubic foot 1 cubic foot (28 L) of natural gas produces around 1,028 British thermal units (1,085 kJ). The actual heating value when the water formed does not condense is the net heat of combustion and can be as much as 10 % less. In the United States, retail sales are often in units of therms (th); 1 therm = 100,000 BTU. Gas meters measure the volume of gas used, and this is converted to therms by multiplying the volume by the energy content of the gas used during that period, which varies slightly over time. Wholesale transactions are generally done in decatherms (Dth), or in thousand decatherms (MDth), or in million decatherms (MMDth). A million decatherms is roughly a billion cubic feet of natural gas. Gas sales to domestic consumers may be in units of 100 standard cubic feet (scf). The typical annual consumption of a single family residence is 1,000 therms or one RCE. Canada uses metric measure for internal trade of petrochemical products. Consequently, natural gas is sold by the gigajoule, cubic metre (m) or thousand cubic metres (E3m3). Distribution infrastructure and meters almost always meter volume (cubic foot or cubic metre). Some jurisdictions, such as Saskatchewan, sell gas by volume only. Other jurisdictions, such as Alberta, gas is sold by the energy content (GJ). In these areas, almost all meters for residential and small commercial customers measure volume (m or ft), and billing statements include a multiplier to convert the volume to energy content of the local gas supply. A gigajoule (GJ) is a measure approximately equal to half a barrel (250 lbs) of oil, or 1 million BTUs, or 1000 cu ft of gas, or 28 m of gas. The energy content of gas supply in Canada can vary from 37 to 43 MJ per m depending on gas supply and processing between the wellhead and the customer. In the rest of the world, natural gas is sold in gigajoule retail units. LNG (liquefied natural gas) and LPG (liquefied petroleum gas) are traded in metric tons or MMBTU as spot deliveries. Long term natural gas distribution contracts are signed in cubic metres, and LNG contracts are in metric tonnes (1,000 kg). The LNG and LPG is transported by specialized transport ships, as the gas is liquified at cryogenic temperatures. The specification of each LNG / LPG cargo will usually contain the energy content, but this information is in general not available to the public. In the Russian Federation, Gazprom sold approximately 250 billion cubic metres of natural gas in 2008. In 2013 the Group produced 487.4 billion cubic meters of natural and associated gas. Gazprom supplied Europe with 161.5 billion cubic meters of gas in 2013. In August 2015, possibly the largest natural gas discovery in history was made and notified by an Italian gas company ENI. The energy company indicated that it has unearthed a "supergiant '' gas field in the Mediterranean Sea covering about 40 square miles. It was also reported that the gas field could hold a potential 30 trillion cubic feet of natural gas. ENI said that it is about the energy equivalent of 5.5 billion barrels of oil. The field was found in the deep waters off the northern coast of Egypt and ENI claims that it will be the largest ever in the Mediterranean and even the world. Research conducted by the World Pensions Council (WPC) suggests that large US and Canadian pension funds and Asian and MENA area SWF investors have become particularly active in the fields of natural gas and natural gas infrastructure, a trend started in 2005 by the formation of Scotia Gas Networks in the UK by OMERS and Ontario Teachers ' Pension Plan. Another way to store natural gas is adsorbing it to the porous solids called sorbents. The best condition for methane storage is at room temperature and atmospheric pressure. The used pressure can be up to 4 MPa (about 40 times atmospheric pressure) for having more storage capacity. The most common sorbent used for ANG is activated carbon (AC). Three main types of activated carbons for ANG are: Activated Carbon Fiber (ACF), Powdered Activated Carbon (PAC), activated carbon monolith. General:

when was deadpool 2 released in the uk

Deadpool 2 - wikipedia Deadpool 2 is a 2018 American superhero film based on the Marvel Comics character Deadpool, distributed by 20th Century Fox. It is the eleventh installment in the X-Men film series, and a direct sequel to the 2016 film Deadpool. The film is directed by David Leitch from a script by Rhett Reese, Paul Wernick, and Ryan Reynolds, with Reynolds starring in the title role alongside Josh Brolin, Morena Baccarin, Julian Dennison, Zazie Beetz, T.J. Miller, Brianna Hildebrand, and Jack Kesy. In the film, Deadpool forms the team X-Force to protect a young mutant from the time - traveling soldier Cable. Plans for a sequel to Deadpool began before that film 's release, and were confirmed in February 2016. Though the original creative team of Reynolds, Reese, Wernick, and director Tim Miller were quickly set to return for the second film, Miller left the project in October 2016 due to creative differences with Reynolds and was soon replaced by Leitch. An extensive casting search took place to fill the role of Cable, with Brolin ultimately cast. Filming took place in British Columbia, Canada, from June to October 2017. During filming, stunt woman Joi "SJ '' Harris died in a motorcycle accident; the film is dedicated to her memory. The film 's score is the first to receive a parental advisory warning for explicit content, and the soundtrack also includes the original song "Ashes '' by Céline Dion. Deadpool 2 was released in the United States on May 18, 2018. It has grossed over $734 million worldwide, making it the sixth highest - grossing film of 2018, as well as the third highest - grossing R - rated film and the third highest - grossing X-Men film. It received positive reviews from critics, who praised its humor, acting (particularly Reynolds, Brolin, and Beetz 's performances), story, and action sequences, with some calling it better than the first film, although a feeling of cynicism drew some criticism. An extended edition was released in August 2018, and a re-cut, PG - 13 version of the film will be released theatrically in December 2018. A sequel, Deadpool 3, is in development. After successfully working as the mercenary Deadpool for two years, Wade Wilson fails to kill one of his targets on his anniversary with Vanessa, his girlfriend. That night, after the pair decide to start a family together, the target tracks Wilson down and kills Vanessa. Wilson kills the man in revenge. He blames himself for her death and attempts to commit suicide six weeks later by blowing himself up. Wilson has a vision of Vanessa in the afterlife, but the pieces of his body remain alive and are put back together by Colossus. Wilson is left with only a Skee - Ball token, an anniversary gift, as a final memento of Vanessa. Recovering at the X-Mansion, Wilson reluctantly agrees to join the X-Men as a form of healing. He, Colossus, and Negasonic Teenage Warhead respond to a standoff between authorities and the unstable young mutant Russell Collins / Firefist at an orphanage, labeled a "Mutant Reeducation Center ''. Wilson realizes that Collins has been abused by the orphanage staff, and kills one of the staff members. Colossus stops him from killing anyone else, and both Wilson and Collins are arrested. Restrained with collars that suppress their powers, they are taken to the Ice Box, an isolated prison for mutant criminals. Meanwhile, Cable -- a cybernetic soldier from the future whose family is murdered by an older Collins -- travels back in time to kill Collins before he ever becomes a killer. Cable breaks into the Ice Box and attacks Collins. Wilson, whose collar breaks in the ensuing melee, attempts to defend Collins. After Cable takes Vanessa 's token, Wilson forces himself and Cable out of the prison, but not before Collins overhears Wilson deny that he cares for the young mutant. Near death again, Wilson has another vision of Vanessa in which she convinces him to help Collins. Wilson organizes a team called X-Force to break Collins out of a prison - transfer convoy and defend him from Cable. The team launches its assault on the convoy by parachute, but all of the members die during the landing except for Wilson and the lucky Domino. While they fight Cable, Collins frees fellow inmate Juggernaut, who agrees to help Collins kill the abusive orphanage headmaster. Juggernaut destroys the convoy, allowing himself and Collins to escape. Cable offers to work with Wilson and Domino to stop Collins ' first murder, and agrees to give Wilson a chance to talk Collins down. At the orphanage, they are overpowered by Juggernaut while Collins attacks the headmaster, until Colossus -- who had at first refused to help Wilson due to Wilson 's murderous ways -- arrives to distract Juggernaut. When Wilson fails to talk down Collins, Cable shoots at the young mutant. Wilson leaps in front of the bullet while wearing the Ice Box collar and dies, reuniting with Vanessa in the afterlife. Seeing this sacrifice, Collins does not kill the headmaster; this changes the future so that Cable 's family now survives. Cable uses the last charge on his time - traveling device, which he needed for returning to his family, to go back several minutes and strap Vanessa 's token in front of Wilson 's heart. Now when Wilson takes the bullet for Collins, it is stopped by the token and both survive while Collins still has his change of heart. Afterwards, the headmaster is run over by Wilson 's taxi - driver friend Dopinder. In a mid-credits sequence, Negasonic Teenage Warhead and her girlfriend Yukio repair Cable 's time - traveling device for Wilson. He uses it to save the lives of Vanessa and X-Force member Peter, and kills both X-Men Origins: Wolverine 's version of Deadpool and actor Ryan Reynolds while he is considering starring in the film Green Lantern. In addition to portraying Deadpool and himself, Reynolds provided the voice for the Juggernaut. Juggernaut is credited as being voiced by "himself '', and was previously portrayed by Vinnie Jones in the 2006 film X-Men: The Last Stand. According to Reese, the creative team on Deadpool 2 felt that appearance did not do justice to the character. Wanting an additional villain for the film to support Firefist for the final fight with X-Force, the writers chose Juggernaut because he is "a force of nature (who) was probably the coolest character never to be used... in the right way ''. The character 's face was modeled on Leitch 's, with Reynolds providing facial capture and his voice. The latter was digitally modulated to make it deeper. Reese added that the character "did n't have many lines, he 's a man of few words, but he 's a man of great anger and forcefulness ''. Stefan Kapičić voices Colossus, an X-Man with the mutant ability to transform his entire body into organic steel. Kapičić described Colossus as one of the most important characters in the film, requiring a more intense process for Kapičić during recording for the character. He explained that Colossus would continue to try make Deadpool a better person and potential X-Man after doing so in the first film. Unlike the first film, Kapičić also provided performance capture for the character 's face on the sequel, while Andre Tricoteux returned to stand - in for the character on set. Leslie Uggams and Karan Soni also return from the first film as Deadpool 's elderly roommate Blind Al and the taxi driver Dopinder, respectively. Additionally, Eddie Marsan plays the headmaster of the Essex Home for Mutant Rehabilitation, an orphanage; Robert Maillet briefly appears as Sluggo, an inmate of the Ice Box who originally had a more prominent antagonistic role alongside Black Tom before both roles were reduced due to the number of villains in the film; Hayley Sales and Islie Hirvonen respectively appear as Cable 's wife and Hope, their daughter, during a flashforward; and Shioli Kutsuna portrays Yukio, Negasonic Teenage Warhead 's girlfriend and fellow X-Man. A version of Yukio previously appeared in the 2013 film The Wolverine, portrayed by Rila Fukushima. The film 's version of the X-Force team also includes Terry Crews as Bedlam, Lewis Tan as Shatterstar, Bill Skarsgård as Zeitgeist, Rob Delaney as Peter, and Brad Pitt as Vanisher. Pitt was considered for the role of Cable before scheduling issues prevented him from taking it; he filmed his Vanisher cameo in two hours during post-production. Reprising their roles as the X-Men for a brief appearance are James McAvoy as Professor X, Nicholas Hoult as Beast, Evan Peters as Quicksilver, Tye Sheridan as Cyclops, Alexandra Shipp as Storm, and Kodi Smit - McPhee as Nightcrawler. Archive footage of Hugh Jackman as Wolverine from X-Men Origins: Wolverine is used in the mid-credits sequence, with Jackman 's permission. This was re-edited for the sequence, and included raw footage shot for that film. Luke Roessler, who portrays a young David Haller in the X-Men - based television series Legion, appears as a young mutant credited as "Cereal Kid ''. When Cable travels to the present day, he comes across two "rednecks '' discussing a toilet paper manifesto. This was inspired by a real manifesto written by Reese, which the writers wanted to be discussed in the film by a certain "calibre '' of actor: the characters are portrayed by Alan Tudyk and a disguised Matt Damon, with the latter credited as "Dickie Greenleaf '' (a reference to the 1999 film The Talented Mr. Ripley in which Damon stars). Leitch and writers Reese and Paul Wernick respectively cameo as Ice Box inmate "Ground Chuck Mutant '', a news helicopter pilot, and a news cameraman. Stan Lee was unable to cameo in the sequel, as he did in the first film and the short No Good Deed, but his likeness was used for a bust in the X-Mansion and for graffiti on a wall. Producer Simon Kinberg revealed in September 2015 that discussions had begun regarding ideas for a sequel to Deadpool, which was set to be released in February 2016. One idea was for the film to introduce the character Cable, who had previously been looked at to appear in the first Deadpool, and X-Men: Days of Future Past (2014) before that. Cable 's inclusion in the potential sequel was confirmed by the character Deadpool while breaking the fourth wall in the post-credit scene of the first film. Domino, a character with connections to Cable in the comics, was also believed to be featured in the sequel. By the first film 's release, 20th Century Fox had green - lit a sequel, with writers Rhett Reese and Paul Wernick returning to write the screenplay. Though director Tim Miller and producer / star Ryan Reynolds were not confirmed for the sequel at the time, Fox was "intent on keeping the creative team together ''. Miller and Reynolds ' involvement was confirmed at the 2016 CinemaCon that April, though Miller had still not formally signed on to direct the sequel. He began work developing the script with the writers, while Reynolds had signed a new contract granting him "casting approval and other creative controls ''. -- Producer Simon Kinberg on approaching Deadpool 2 In June 2016, Kinberg expected filming to begin at the beginning of 2017. By August, Kyle Chandler was believed to be in the running to portray Cable. Testing of actresses for Domino had also begun by October, with the shortlist of actresses under consideration including Lizzy Caplan, Mary Elizabeth Winstead, Sienna Miller, Sofia Boutella, Stephanie Sigman, Sylvia Hoeks, Mackenzie Davis, Ruby Rose, Eve Hewson, and Kelly Rohrbach. The producers were particularly interested in casting a black or Latina actress in the role. At the end of October, Miller left the film over "mutual creative differences '' with Reynolds, reportedly based on several factors, including Reynolds ' expanded creative control over the sequel; Miller 's wish for a more stylized follow - up than the first film, versus Reynolds ' focus "on the raunchy comedy style that earned the first movie its R rating ''; and Miller 's intention to cast Chandler as Cable, which Reynolds opposed. Fox ultimately backed "its marketable star '' over Miller, who had made his directorial debut with the first film. Miller denied this report, while Reynolds said he could only add that "I 'm sad to see him off the film. Tim 's brilliant and nobody worked harder on Deadpool than he did. '' A week after Miller 's departure, Fox was looking at David Leitch, Drew Goddard, Magnus Martens, and Rupert Sanders as potential replacements for the director. Leitch was the "strong frontrunner '' for the role, and signed on a month later. Reynolds, a fan of Leitch 's John Wick, said the director "really understands those Deadpool sensibilities and where we need to take the franchise '', and "can make a movie on an ultra tight minimal budget look like it was shot for 10 -- 15 times what it cost ''. The first completed draft from Wernick and Reese was expected around June 2016; multiple had been completed by January 2017. The pair felt a responsibility to explore the team X-Force, which includes Deadpool, Cable, and Domino in the comics, but to also keep the film focused on Deadpool. By the next month, the studio was still not happy with the script, with Reynolds and the writers "bunkered down... trying to cross the finish line and create something everyone is excited to make ''. Goddard joined them as a consultant. Reese, Wernick, and Reynolds were credited for the script, the three having split the film 's scenes between them before passing them around to be re-written by the others. Reese felt they were able to maintain "one voice '' because of their long history with the character during development on the first film. Deadpool 2 is set "more or less '' when the first film ends, and focuses on "an existential crisis and a deeply personal cause '' for Deadpool. Leitch felt that retaining these personal stakes was more compelling for audiences than trying to build the film around global stakes. The writers felt that the sequel was tonally similar to the first film, but wanted to explore a different theme by focusing on a group of individuals (X-Force) and their need for family, with Reynolds explaining that "the first movie is a love story masquerading as a comic - book movie, and this one is kind of a family film masquerading as a comic - book film again. '' Deadpool spends around half of the film unmasked, which the writers wanted for exploring the more emotional scenes, though Reynolds was reluctant to do this because he found the make - up required to portray an unmasked Deadpool "time consuming and really uncomfortable ''. An early idea was to have the film begin five years after the first and explore Deadpool being a father, but the writers quickly decided that this was "never, ever going to work '' and reworked the idea to explore the character wanting to have a child but being unable to. Earlier versions of the script included prominent roles for the characters Black Tom Cassidy and Sluggo, but they ultimately had a supporting role and a brief appearance, respectively. The villain Mr. X was also included in early drafts, but was cut due to the number of villains already in the film. The mutant inmates of the Ice Box were going to be explored more by having Cable breaking into the prison cause their power dampening collars to malfunction. This was removed from the script due to not being feasible within the film 's budget. Leitch fought to include more aspects of Cable 's backstory in the film after the writers chose to mostly ignore it due to it being convoluted; a painting of Cyclops which would have acknowledged that character as Cable 's father was ultimately cut, but the Techno - Organic Virus that Cable is inflicted with and his daughter Hope are depicted. The film features contradictory connections to the various films of the franchise, which Leitch acknowledged as confusing but said that the issue had not really been discussed during development since the Deadpool films are considered their own "entity '' in a way, and the character of Deadpool allows them to be "flexible with the timeline, per se ''. Reese and Wernick preferred to use jokes in the film that only certain members of the audience would understand, though Reynolds would not allow some to be used if he thought not enough people would enjoy them (including a reference to golfer Davis Love III). Following the announcement of the proposed acquisition of 21st Century Fox by Disney in December 2017, the film includes several Disney related jokes including a running gag about the Disney film Frozen (2013). However, Fox did make the producers remove a joke from the film that directly acknowledged the deal, which Reynolds said "was a wise decision ''. Other cut jokes included many "bizarre '' characters interviewing to join the X-Force, such as an idea to have Chris Evans reprise his role as the Human Torch from the Fantastic Four films. Reese and Wernick confirmed in January 2017 that Stefan Kapičić 's Colossus, Brianna Hildebrand 's Negasonic Teenage Warhead, and Karan Soni 's Dopinder would be returning from the first film to "make at least an appearance ''. By the beginning of March 2017, Michael Shannon had been in the running to portray Cable, but no longer could due to a scheduling conflict. David Harbour had screen - tested for the role, and Pierce Brosnan was believed to be in negotiations for a part in the film, potentially Cable. Reynolds announced shortly after that Zazie Beetz had been cast as Domino. Shannon was in the running to portray Cable again later in the month, and was considered the frontrunner ahead of a shortlist that also included Harbour. Brad Pitt was also considered for the role, but had "moved on ''. Leitch soon addressed the potential casting of these actors, saying Shannon "would make an incredible Cable... If that happens, I would be through the roof ''; and on Pitt, "We had a great meeting with Brad, he was incredibly interested in the property. Things did n't work out schedule-wise (but) I think he would 've made an amazing Cable. '' At the end of March, Morena Baccarin confirmed her return from the first film as Vanessa, and expressed interest in exploring the character 's Copycat persona from the comics in the sequel. Josh Brolin emerged as a "surprise contender '' to play Cable in April, ahead of Shannon and Harbour, and was officially cast in the role. Brolin also portrays the Marvel Comics character Thanos, in the Marvel Cinematic Universe. Also in April, Leslie Uggams confirmed that she would be reprising her role of Blind Al from the first film, while Fox gave the sequel a June 1, 2018 release date. Noting the release date, Leitch wanted to ensure that the film "was worthy of a summer tentpole movie, and we knew we were going to be wedged in between some big films '', specifically wanting to expand the action and make the general feeling of the film "bigger '' than the first one. However, he wanted the film to have the same DNA as the original "in terms of the tone, and the fun... I love that challenge '' of combining that with the increased scope. The film uses Deadpool 's fourth wall - breaking to reference this release period, with Leitch calling these comments "definitely fresh and timely when they come up ''. In May 2017, Fox was reportedly looking to use a post-credits scene at the end of Deadpool 2 to introduce several other members of X-Force who would go on to star alongside Reynolds, Brolin, and Beetz in an X-Force film. Casting for the characters -- Sunspot, Feral, and Shatterstar -- would take place over the coming months, though Reese denied the accuracy of this report. Later, T.J. Miller confirmed that he would return from the first film as Weasel, and described the sequel as "even more weaselicious '' than the first. He noted that Reynolds and the writers had "really put the time in on the script '' to meet their own expectations for the sequel as well as those of fans. Jack Kesy also joined the cast, as Black Tom Cassidy. In June, Shioli Kutsuna was cast in a key role for the film, Negasonic Teenage Warhead 's girlfriend Yukio. The writers felt free to use the character in whatever way the film needed due to her having only a minor role in the comics. Initial filming had begun by June 17, 2017, at Hatley Castle in Victoria, British Columbia, Canada, which is used to portray the X-Mansion in the X-Men films. Principal photography began in Vancouver, on June 26, under the working title Love Machine. The East Lawn building of Riverview Hospital in Coquitlam served as the location for the final battle sequence. Jonathan Sela served as cinematographer for the film. At the end of June, Reynolds revealed that Julian Dennison had been cast in the film. The next month, T.J. Miller said that he found the sequel to be funnier than the first film, and that "it 's not going to be the same movie in a different location (like The Hangover Part II). It 's got different stakes, different things happen, some pretty tragic, dark shit happens in the first part of the film, in the beginning, and the rest of the film is kind of dealing with that. '' By then, Kapičić had been working with Leitch on set, and expected to continue contributing to Colossus through to April 2018. Production on the X-Men film Dark Phoenix was taking place in Montreal concurrently with the filming of Deadpool 2, with Kinberg directing that film. He directed a brief moment where the X-Men are seen through an open door in the X-Mansion, which was added to Deadpool 2 with the aid of green screen to allow those characters to appear in this film. Leitch worked closely with Sela, the pair having previously collaborated on Leitch 's earlier films, to acknowledge the aesthetic of the first film while expanding the look of the sequel to match the new situations and characters introduced. The pair created specific shot lists and plans for blocking out scenes before they arrived on set, and were very particular about the colors they used; they planned the color palette of the entire film, and also produced color wheels detailing specific palettes for each set piece. These color wheels were sometimes adjusted several days into the filming of a sequence after digital intermediate work revealed a different look than Leitch and Sela had been anticipating. Elements that were carried over from the first film included the "moodiness '' and saturation of scenes set in Deadpool 's apartment, and the contrast with blacks in action sequences, while Cable 's future had a new aesthetic unlike anything in the first film. Another example of these color wheels was the sequence in which Firefist is introduced, with Leitch taking advantage of the scene being set during day to overemphasize the lighting and create a general sepia / orange tone that represented the fire abilities the character displays. This aesthetic met the storytelling needs of the scene as well as the practicalities of the filmmaking process. Because the film was shot digitally, Sela worked with Vantage Film to develop custom lenses that created the "texture and flavor '' he wanted for it where he otherwise would have manipulated the exposure and development of film stock to achieve the same effect. On August 14, stunt woman Joi "SJ '' Harris died in a motorcycle accident after losing control and crashing into Shaw Tower. Harris, the first African - American female professional road racer, was working on the film as a stunt performer for the first time and had only joined the production a week before. Harris was not wearing a helmet because the character she was portraying, Domino, does not wear one in the scene, and there had not been time since she joined the film to create one for her to fit underneath the Domino wig. She had two full days of rehearsing the stunt as well as five more attempts on the day of the accident. Veteran stunt double Melissa Stubbs had been available and willing to do the stunt, but the inexperienced Harris was preferred due to her skin color being a match for Beetz. This decision was criticized by multiple stunt professionals, with many noting that Harris ' experiences racing motorcycles did not necessarily qualify her as an able stunt performer. Production was shut down immediately after the incident, but resumed two days later. With this news also came reports that the film 's crew were "enduring very long hours '' and were "exhausted by the schedule '', with the studio confirming that some days had increased from the scheduled 12 -- 13 hours filming to over 15 hours. The film 's credits includes a dedication to the stuntwoman that reads "In memory of Sequana Harris ''. Earlier in August, Reynolds revealed that Rob Delaney was at the film 's set, and Eddie Marsan revealed later in the month that he was also on set for a role in the film. Filming in Vancouver was expected to last until October 6, with production on Deadpool 2 being officially completed on October 14. Discussing the film 's action, having previously worked as a stunt coordinator, Leitch said that all stunts are "variations on a theme '' with the same basic elements, but Deadpool allows you to "subvert those basics, and there 's an expectation for a classic gag, but oops, maybe you get something else ''. He also felt that introducing Domino gave the film unique opportunities for action sequences taking advantage of her luck - based abilities, as well as focusing on Deadpool 's healing abilities and trying to use those interestingly. Darrin Prescott served as second - unit director on the film, and Jonathan Eusebio was the stunt - coordinator for the film, both having worked on John Wick previously. Domino 's abilities were envisioned as a Rube Goldberg machine "on steroids '', while Deadpool allowing his arm to be broken during a fight was an example of his abilities being used. Unlike the first film, for which Fox was unwilling to pay for the writers to be on set, the studio did pay for Reese and Wernick to be on set for the sequel. Leitch was happy for this to happen, Reynolds wanted them to be there, and it allowed the pair to continue contributing to the script and suggest new jokes and ideas throughout the filming process. Scroggins Aviation Mockup & Effects was hired to supply a CH - 47 Chinook (s / n 90 - 00204) in the film. Scroggins made modification to the CH - 47 and worked with SFX to rig it to a motion base (Gimbal), It would be the first time a real Chinook was placed on a motion base in a motion picture. Fox revealed in November that the film was technically untitled at that point, and not officially known as Deadpool 2 as had been assumed; the studio was temporarily referring to the film as The Untitled Deadpool Sequel. Sexual misconduct allegations against T.J. Miller surfaced a month later, and by January 2018 some commentators had called for Miller to be replaced in the film in a similar manner to how Kevin Spacey was replaced by Christopher Plummer through reshoots in All the Money in the World (2017). Producer Lauren Shuler Donner addressed whether this would be possible, saying "We 're in the final editing. I do n't think so. '' Miller was later arrested for calling in a false bomb threat; Reynolds would not comment on either issue, but stated that Miller would not be appearing in the X-Force film. Also in January, the film 's release was moved up to May 18, 2018. In February 2018, Terry Crews was revealed to have a role in the film, the character Shatterstar was confirmed to be appearing, and the production returned to Vancouver for six days of reshoots under a new working title, Daisy. Some reports emerged by mid-March claiming that these reshoots were due to poor audience responses during test screenings of the film, and consisted of sweeping changes. However, the film was soon confirmed to be testing better than the original did, up to 98 out of 100 over three different tests (compared to a maximum score of 91 during tests of the first film). Because of this, the reshoots were adding more of the elements that audiences responded positively to, including additional material featuring Cable and Domino. Sam Hargrave joined the film as a stunt coordinator for the reshoots, trying to "breathe some new life in a couple of sequences ''. He highlighted a car chase which combines vehicles, actors, and green screen. By the end of the month, Pitt filmed a secret cameo appearance as the X-Force team member Vanisher during two hours of filming in Los Angeles, having been asked to shoot the part by Reynolds and agreeing to be paid "scale '', which Reese described as the equivalent of a Starbucks coffee. This was the final photography work done for the film. The film 's first full trailer officially titled the film Deadpool 2, and revealed that Crews was portraying Bedlam; confirmed that Delaney would appear, portraying Peter; and that Bill Skarsgård also had a role. The film 's final trailer, released a month later, confirmed that Lewis Tan would portray Shatterstar, joining Domino, Bedlam, and Peter as members of X-Force. The group also includes Skarsgård 's character, revealed to be Zeitgeist. One scene that was cut from the film following test screenings was a post-credits scene featuring Deadpool travelling back in time to kill a baby Adolf Hitler. It was decided that the scene made audiences too "squeamish '', which was not the feeling that the creative team wanted people to be leaving the film with. The film originally did not have any post - or mid - credits scenes, with the Hitler scene and the film 's other time - traveling mid-credits scenes shot during additional photography. The latter came about when someone suggested the time travel device be used to fix real - world mistakes like Reynolds ' role in Green Lantern which the writers felt was "the funniest idea ever, and what a great idea to end the movie ''. Additional footage of the X-Force team was shot for the film 's marketing to hide the fact that the majority of the X-Force are immediately killed as a joke in the film. Due to Deadpool 's mask, the creative team was able to change the character 's dialogue up to the film being officially completed; Reynolds took this opportunity to keep adding new jokes to the film as long as possible. Visual effects for the characters of Colossus and Juggernaut were provided by Framestore. The model for Colossus was altered from the first film to make him more "chiseled and angular '', and his movements were based on motion capture done by Andre Tricoteux on set. Tricoteux wore several metallic pieces, including a helmet and chest piece, as reference. Kapičić provided the character 's facial performance. The character 's "iconic metal ridges '' were live textured by animators for the first film, but Framestore changed this to use a combination of shape movement and distortion so they could be more precise with the geometry of the lines. Juggernaut was represented on set by a 6 feet 8 inches (2.03 m) stand - in, who wore a helmet extension to match the character 's 9 feet 6 inches (2.90 m) height. A full scale replica of the character 's metal helmet was built for interacting with stunts on set, but the final version was completely digital along with the rest of the character. Framestore animators found it challenging to move the helmet in a way that the character could still move his head underneath it, and studied the movement of bodybuilders for the character. Juggernaut 's face was modeled on Leitch 's, and Reynolds provided facial capture for the character, but this was modified during the animation process. For the final fight between the two characters, two stuntmen who matched the height difference between the two were filmed on a motion capture stage for reference; this footage was edited into a previsualization. Junkie XL chose not to return for Deadpool 2 after composing the score for the first film, given that Miller was "the driving force behind '' him working on that film in the first place. In October 2017, it was confirmed that Tyler Bates would be writing the score for Deadpool 2 after doing the same for Leitch 's previous films. Bates approached the music with a slight rock sensibility, and used a distorted guitar run through a wah - wah pedal, microsynths to add "unique colors '', and a choir. The choir originally sings lyrics such as "you ca n't stop this motherfucker '' and "holy shit balls! '', which ultimately earned the score a parental advisory warning. It is the first score album to receive such a warning. Bates felt this was not "merit-less debauchery, it was just fun. It 's very rare that we can work on something at such a high professional level that embraces the irreverence of Deadpool. '' Leitch wanted to create an original song for the film that served as an emotional through - line for all of the film 's characters; the song "Ashes '' was ultimately produced, as recorded by Céline Dion. Leitch directed a music video to go with the release of the song, and Reynolds both wanted to produce a music video to accompany the song; Leitch was initially conflicted about this, as he wanted audiences to discover the song, which was filmed in The Colosseum at Caesars Palace. It features dancer Yanis Marshall performing as Deadpool in high heels while Dion sings the song. The song was released as a single with the music video on May 3, 2018, before Sony Classical Records released a score album on May 11, and Columbia Records released an album featuring the songs from the film -- including "Ashes '' -- on May 18. For the Fox presentation at CineEurope 2017 in June, Reynolds made a video message featuring himself in costume as Deadpool from the film 's set. The first teaser poster, which pays homage to Norman Rockwell 's 1943 painting Freedom from Want, was released that November. Justin Carter of Comic Book Resources found it "oddly appropriate for Deadpool 2 to co-opt (this) iconic work for a modern pop culture audience '' as it is "true to Deadpool 's incredibly referential nature ''. Eric Diaz of Nerdist said, "It strikes exactly the irreverent tone you 'd expect for the Deadpool sequel. '' The first footage from the film debuted the following week, at the end of a video where Reynolds (in - character as Deadpool) parodies Bob Ross and his television show The Joy of Painting. The video was described by The Hollywood Reporter 's Ryan Parker as "completely out of left field '' and setting the tone perfectly for the film, though his colleague Graeme McMillan was less positive due to not knowing of Ross (Deadpool co-creator Fabian Nicieza thought the fact that many in the audience would n't know of Ross made the video "exactly the kind of quirky pop culture choice that works perfectly for Deadpool ''). Parker added, "This trailer only showed a few seconds from the film, but fans will be talking about it all day '' because of the presentation, unlike "any other trailer which would have shown so little of the product ''. Rather than pay for an expensive advertisement spot during Super Bowl LII, the film 's official Twitter account was used to "live tweet '' the event with in - character commentary from Deadpool. A new trailer for the film was released later that week, focusing on introducing Cable. Parker felt that "Reynolds and company have completely changed the trailer game. The formula of just showing some of the actual movie, but with a tiny story thrown in is such an incredible marketing idea. '' McMillan and their colleague Aaron Couch praised the trailer playing on the visual effects for Cable 's arm not being finished, noting it as a joke about the visual effects to remove Henry Cavill 's mustache from Justice League. The group collectively praised the overall marketing for the franchise, with McMillan suggesting that the campaign for the sequel may surpass that of the first Deadpool. A full trailer for the film, explaining its general plot, was released at the end of March. Forbes contributor Scott Mendelson called it "pretty funny and mostly entertaining '', but was disappointed in it being a "conventional '' trailer compared to the more out - there videos previously released for the film. He explained that he thought the first film "had a winning lead character and fine character - centric jokes, but a pretty generic origin story plot that eventually became the thing it was critiquing '', and was concerned that the sequel would turn out to be "a more standard ' superhero sequel ' sell ''. Mendelson also noted the inclusion of T.J. Miller in the trailer following the reveal of sexual misconduct allegations against the actor in late 2017, calling it "inevitable no matter how tarnished his reputation might be these days ''. The Hollywood Reporter group also noted the more traditional style of the trailer, but remained generally positive about the film and highlighted the supporting cast for the film as appearing in the trailer, including Brolin, Beetz, Kutsuna, and Crews. Also in March, a Twitter account was established for the character Peter and began to be regularly updated with tweets about his interests, including photos of the character beekeeping and preparing for his role in the X-Force team (as seen in the film). A month later, Fox released the final trailer for the film, with Mendelson lamenting that it was as "conventional '' as the previous trailer but finding it understandable that Fox not be seen to be hiding the film, and ultimately felt that the trailer indicated the film would be "a pretty solid comic book sequel ''. The group at The Hollywood Reporter praised the final trailer as well, highlighting its references to X-Men Origins: Wolverine and the DC universe as well as its introduction of Peter. At the end of April, Leitch stated that alternate versions of jokes that had been cut from the film were included in the trailers, since "only one can live in the movie, so we might have snuck a couple in sort of additional materials that people can discover. '' As part of a promotion for the film with beverage company Mike 's Harder, the Sister Margaret 's School for Wayward Girls fictional bar from the film was emulated in pop - ups at the Alligator Lounge in New York from April 26 through 28, and the Slipper Clutch in Los Angeles from May 10 through 12. The pop - ups respectively served pizza and chimichangas, traditionally Deadpool 's favorite food, as well as Deadpool - inspired Harder drinks. The campaign also included the chance to win a trip to the film 's premiere through Harder, and the Los Angeles pop - up benefitted the nonprofit DTLA Film Festival. Deadpool 2 premiered at Leicester Square in London on May 10, 2018. It was released in the United States on May 18, 2018, having been previously scheduled for release on June 1 of that year. Leitch 's initial cut of the film was around two hours and twelve minutes, with "nips and tucks '' done to it to get the run time down to the final two hours. By May 2018, Leitch was working on an official extended edition of the film with Fox wanting to "spin that out as a special thing ''. He said it would be closer to his initial runtime and would include a cut montage of Deadpool trying to commit suicide in various ways, an extended sequence in the X-Mansion, and alternate versions of jokes that were not chosen for the film 's theatrical version. The extended cut was screened at San Diego Comic - Con 2018 at an event titled Deadpool 2: Uncut Screening. Ahead of the screening, a panel was held at the convention moderated by Soni and featuring other cast members. Some of the scenes cut from the theatrical version of the film were debuted at the panel. At the end of September 2018, Fox announced that it would release an untitled Deadpool film in theaters on December 21. The studio suggested that press and fans "guess away '' as to what this new film would be, but it was believed to be a re-cut version of Deadpool 2 that would carry a PG - 13 rating rather than being R - rated like the initial theatrical release. Reynolds hinted that the version of the film would feature Deadpool telling the story of the main version of the film to Fred Savage, parodying The Princess Bride (1987) in which a young Savage was told a bedtime story by Peter Falk who avoided "the scary parts that were a bit too adult for the youngster ''. Reese and Wernick revealed in October that the idea for the new version of the film was raised by Reynolds during a general discussion about the character following the film 's initial release, and that Reynolds also suggested the framing device for the story. Reese and Wernick wrote new scenes for the new version, and Leitch returned to direct them around August. Wernick said the version would not just be for children who were unable to watch the R - rated release, as "it 's subversive enough and fun and creative and something that only Deadpool could do. So I think it 's going to be a real joy for not only a whole new audience, but also an audience that has seen and loved the Deadpool movies. '' They added that the story of the film would not change "appreciably '' between versions. The film was released on Digital HD on August 7, 2018, and physically on August 21. The latter release covered the 4K Ultra HD, Blu - ray, and DVD formats, including both the theatrical version and Super Duper $ @ %! # & Cut unrated extended edition. The physical release includes an audio commentary for the theatrical version in 4K Ultra HD and Blu - ray formats, from Reynolds, Leitch, Reese, and Wernick. The Blu - ray format also includes a gag reel, deleted and extended scenes, alternate takes, featurettes on Easter eggs, the cast and characters, Leitch 's directing, and the action and stunts, and more. As of September 27, 2018, Deadpool 2 has grossed $318.5 million in the United States and Canada, and $415.8 million in other territories, for a worldwide total of $734.2 million, against a production budget of $110 million. On April 20, 2018, both Fandango and Regal Cinemas announced that Deadpool 2 was the best pre-selling R - rated film in their respective histories. The film opened in 4,332 theaters, setting the record for widest R - rated release ever (beating the 4,103 count by It in September 2017). It made $18.6 million from Thursday night previews and $53.3 million on its first day, setting records for both by an R - rated film, beating It 's $13.5 million and $50.4 million, respectively. The film went on to debut to $125.5 million, the second - best opening for an R - rated film behind the original, and became the first film to dethrone Avengers: Infinity War atop the box office. It fell 65.4 % in its second weekend, grossing $43.5 million and finishing second behind newcomer Solo: A Star Wars Story. The film made $23.2 million in its third weekend, remaining in second behind Solo. It dropped 39 % in both its fourth and fifth weekends, making a respective $14.1 million and $8.7 million. Worldwide, the film had a global debut of $300.4 million, including $174.9 million internationally, the largest - ever for an R - rated film or Fox release. It opened in 81 markets and finished first in all of them, including the United Kingdom ($18 million), Korea ($17 million), Russia ($11.8 million) and Australia ($11.7 million). It remained number one in 27 markets in its second weekend, making $57 million and bringing its foreign total through its first full week to $279.7 million. In its third week of international release the film made $47 million, including a $5.5 million debut in Japan (26 % better than the first film), bringing its foreign total to $344 million. On review aggregation website Rotten Tomatoes, the film holds an approval rating of 83 % based on 320 reviews, with an average rating of 7 / 10. The website 's critical consensus reads, "Though it threatens to buckle under the weight of its meta gags, Deadpool 2 is a gory, gleeful lampoon of the superhero genre buoyed by Ryan Reynolds ' undeniable charm. '' On Metacritic, which assigns a normalized rating to reviews, the film has a weighted average score of 66 out of 100, based on reviews from 51 critics, indicating "generally favorable reviews ''. Audiences polled by CinemaScore gave the film an average grade of "A '' on an A+ to F scale, the same score as the first film. Audiences were 59 % male and 41 % female. Richard Roeper of the Chicago Sun - Times gave the film 3.5 out of 4 stars, jokingly calling it the best sequel since The Godfather Part II and saying: "Deadpool 2 is wicked, dark fun from start to finish, with some twisted and very funny special effects, cool production elements (and) terrific ensemble work. '' PopMatters writer J.R. Kinnard wrote: "If you enjoyed the guilty pleasures of Deadpool, it 's an immutable law of physics that you will love Deadpool 2. The second verse may be the same as the first, but that verse is a dirty limerick of childish goodness. '' Michael Phillips of the Chicago Tribune gave the film 3 out of 4 stars and wrote, "Deadpool 2 is just like Deadpool only more so. It 's actually a fair bit better -- funnier, more inventive than the 2016 smash... and more consistent in its chosen tone and style: ultraviolent screwball comedy. '' A.O. Scott of The New York Times was critical of the cynical tone of the film, writing "something ever so slightly dishonest about this character, something false about the boundaries drawn around his sadism and his rage. Deadpool 2 dabbles in ugliness and transgression, but takes no real creative risks. '' By November 2016, with development underway on Deadpool 2, Fox was also planning Deadpool 3, which was said to include the team X-Force. With the confirmation that Leitch would direct Deadpool 2, it was revealed that Fox was looking for a separate filmmaker to direct Deadpool 3. In March 2017, Reese clarified that though Deadpool 2 sets - up the X-Force team, a future film focused on the team would be separate from Deadpool 3, "so I think we 'll be able to take two paths. (X-Force) is where we 're launching something bigger, but then (Deadpool 3 is) where we 're contracting and staying personal and small. '' After the proposed acquisition of 21st Century Fox by Disney was announced in December 2017, Disney CEO Bob Iger said that Deadpool would be integrated with the Marvel Cinematic Universe under Disney, and that the company would be willing to make future R - rated Deadpool films "as long as we let the audiences know what 's coming ''. In May 2018, Reynolds stated that a third Deadpool film may not be made given the franchise 's shift of focus to X-Force, though Reese and Wernick felt a third film would "absolutely '' be happening after Reynolds took a break from the character and X-Force was released, which they compared to the Iron Man franchise having Iron Man 3 (2013) release after the crossover film The Avengers (2012). Also, Leitch expressed interest in returning to the franchise, saying, "I would be grateful to work on something (starring Reynolds ' Deadpool) again. It just depends on time and place, so we 'll see what happens. ''

who are the hosts on fox and friends this morning

Fox & Friends - wikipedia Fox & Friends is a daily morning conservative news / talk program that airs on Fox News Channel, hosted by Steve Doocy, Ainsley Earhardt, and Brian Kilmeade. It begins at 6: 00 a.m. Eastern Time with the latest Fox News Live headlines and news of the morning and continues with a variety of segments including current events, interviews, updates of news stories with correspondents, political analysis from the hosts, and entertainment segments. Fox & Friends evolved from Fox X-press, Fox News Channel 's original morning news program. After the September 11, 2001 terrorist attacks, an additional hour was added to the beginning of the weekday show, but branded as a separate show called Fox & Friends First. It was the first Fox News show to air live for the day, starting at 6: 00 a.m. It was discontinued on July 13, 2008 and replaced with an additional hour of Fox & Friends The Fox & Friends First title was reintroduced on March 5, 2012, also as a separate show airing one hour before the main three - hour program, but using a separate slate of rotating anchors. Fox & Friends has been described as being more akin to the morning shows broadcast by the Big Three television networks than its cable competitors (particularly CNN 's New Day and MSNBC 's Morning Joe), with a mix of news, entertainment and lifestyle - oriented segments, and a generally casual presentation. However, as with the morning shows on competing cable news channels, its news content focuses primarily upon politics, which are presented from Fox News Channel 's conservative viewpoints. Currently, Steve Doocy, Ainsley Earhardt, and Brian Kilmeade co-host the program. The New York Times has reported the show is one of the most successful on the network. After the arrival of Elisabeth Hasselbeck in September 2013, the show climbed 23 percent in total viewers compared to its average for the third quarter of 2013, and 22 percent in the key 25 -- 54 news demo. For Hasselbeck 's first four weeks on the show, Fox & Friends averaged 1.226 million total viewers, up from the 1.058 that the show averaged for the third quarter of the year. In February 2017, the program 's average ratings increased to around 1.7 million viewers, fueled by the recent inauguration of Republican candidate Donald Trump as president. In 2012, The New York Times wrote that Fox & Friends "has become a powerful platform for some of the most strident attacks on President Obama. '' The program has provided a platform for conspiracy theories about Obama 's religion and, in May 2012, aired a 4 - minute video attacking Obama 's record as President. The video was widely criticized as a political attack ad masquerading as journalism, Time magazine television critic James Poniewozik wrote: "It 's hard to imagine a more over-the - top parody of Fox raw - meat - hurling, fear - stoking, base - pleasing agitprop. '' In response, a Fox News exec vice-president ' disavowed ' the video, blaming an associate producer and that the video ' slipped by ' senior managers at the network. Fox stated that the show was entertainment and "does not pretend to be straight news. '' Current U.S. president Donald Trump is a regular viewer of Fox & Friends, and has openly praised the program on Twitter because it provides favorable coverage of his presidency. Critics have noted that Trump often "live - tweets '' about stories featured on Fox & Friends as they air -- which creates a "feedback loop '' when the stories are acknowledged as national issues because they were discussed by Trump on social media. Trump was a frequent guest on Fox & Friends before his presidency. In 2011, Fox News announced that he would appear on the show to offer commentary every Monday. On April 26, 2018, Trump was interviewed by phone on Fox & Friends in a segment that stretched to nearly half an hour, and discussed several recent topics and controversies surrounding himself and his government. Trump said that he might interfere with the Special Counsel investigation, acknowledged that lawyer Michael Cohen had represented Trump in the Stormy Daniels -- Donald Trump legal dispute, and said that he had gotten a card and flowers for Melania, his wife, whose birthday was the same day.

history of voting right in the united states

Voting rights in the United States - wikipedia The issue of voting rights in the United States, specifically the enfranchisement and disenfranchisement of different groups, has been contested throughout United States history. Eligibility to vote in the United States is established both through the federal constitution and by state law. Several constitutional amendments (the 15th, 19th, and 26th specifically) require that voting rights can not be abridged on account of race, color, previous condition of servitude, sex, or age for those above 18; the constitution as originally written did not establish any such rights during 1787 -- 1870. In the absence of a specific federal law or constitutional provision, each state is given considerable discretion to establish qualifications for suffrage and candidacy within its own respective jurisdiction; in addition, states and lower level jurisdictions establish election systems, such as at - large or single member district elections for county councils or school boards. Beyond qualifications for suffrage, rules and regulations concerning voting (such as the poll tax) have been contested since the advent of Jim Crow laws and related provisions that indirectly disenfranchised racial minorities. Since the Voting Rights Act of 1965, the 24th Amendment to the Constitution, and related laws, voting rights have been legally considered an issue related to election systems. The Supreme Court ruled in 1964 that both houses of all state legislatures had to be based on election districts that were relatively equal in population size, under the "one man, one vote '' principle. In 1972, the Court ruled that state legislatures had to redistrict every ten years based on census results; at that point, many had not redistricted for decades, often leading to a rural bias. In other cases, particularly for county or municipal elections, at - large voting has been repeatedly challenged when found to dilute the voting power of significant minorities in violation of the Voting Rights Act. In the early 20th century, numerous cities established small commission forms of government in the belief that "better government '' could result from the suppression of ward politics. Commissioners were elected by the majority of voters, excluding candidates who could not afford large campaigns or who appealed to a minority. Generally the solution to such violations has been to adopt single - member districts (SMDs) but alternative election systems, such as limited voting or cumulative voting, have also been used since the late 20th century to correct for dilution of voting power and enable minorities to elect candidates of their choice. The United States Constitution did not originally define who was eligible to vote, allowing each state to determine who was eligible. In the early history of the U.S., most states allowed only white male adult property owners to vote. Freed slaves could vote in four states. Women were largely prohibited from voting, as were men without property. Women could vote in New Jersey until 1807 (provided they could meet the property requirement) and in some local jurisdictions in other northern states. Non-white Americans could also vote in these jurisdictions, provided they could meet the property requirement. By 1856, white men were allowed to vote in all states regardless of property ownership, although requirements for paying tax remained in five states. On the other hand, several states, including Pennsylvania and New Jersey stripped the free black males of the right to vote in the same period. Four of the fifteen post-Civil War constitutional amendments were ratified to extend voting rights to different groups of citizens. These extensions state that voting rights can not be denied or abridged based on the following: Following the Reconstruction Era until the culmination of the Civil Rights Movement, Jim Crow laws such as literacy tests, poll taxes, and religious tests were some of the state and local laws used in various parts of the United States to deny immigrants (including legal ones and newly naturalized citizens), non-white citizens, Native Americans, and any other locally "undesirable '' groups from exercising voting rights granted under the constitution. Because of such state and local discriminatory practices, over time, the federal role in elections has increased, through amendments to the Constitution and enacted legislation (e.g., the Voting Rights Act of 1965). The "right to vote '' is not explicitly stated in the U.S. Constitution except in the above referenced amendments, and only in reference to the fact that the franchise can not be denied or abridged based solely on the aforementioned qualifications. In other words, the "right to vote '' is perhaps better understood, in layman 's terms, as only prohibiting certain forms of legal discrimination in establishing qualifications for suffrage. States may deny the "right to vote '' for other reasons. For example, many states require eligible citizens to register to vote a set number of days prior to the election in order to vote. More controversial restrictions include those laws that prohibit convicted felons from voting, even those who have served their sentences. Another example, seen in Bush v. Gore, are disputes as to what rules should apply in counting or recounting ballots. A state may choose to fill an office by means other than an election. For example, upon death or resignation of a legislator, the state may allow the affiliated political party to choose a replacement to hold office until the next scheduled election. Such an appointment is often affirmed by the governor. The Constitution, in Article VI, clause (paragraph) 3, states that "no religious Test shall ever be required as a Qualification to any Office or public Trust under the United States ''. However, as described in the sections below, voting rights reforms in the 19th and 20th centuries extended the franchise to non-whites, those who do not own property, women, and those 18 -- 21 years old. Each extension of voting rights has been a product of, and also brought about, social change. Extension of voting rights happened through movements and a need for the US to adapt to its growing population. From 1778 to 1871, the government tried to resolve its relationship with the various native tribes by negotiating treaties. These treaties formed agreements between two sovereign nations, stating that Native American people were citizens of their tribe, living within the boundaries of the United States. The treaties were negotiated by the executive branch and ratified by the U.S. Senate. It said that native tribes would give up their rights to hunt and live on huge parcels of land that they had inhabited in exchange for trade goods, yearly cash annuity payments, and assurances that no further demands would be made on them. Most often, part of the land would be "reserved '' exclusively for the tribe 's use. Throughout the 1800s, many native tribes gradually lost claim to the lands they had inhabited for centuries through the federal government 's Indian Removal policy to relocate tribes from the Southeast and Northwest to west of the Mississippi River. European - American settlers continued to encroach on western lands. Only in 1879, in the Standing Bear trial, were American Indians recognized as persons in the eyes of the United States government. Judge Elmer Scipio Dundy of Nebraska declared that Indians were people within the meaning of the laws, and they had the rights associated with a writ of habeas corpus. However, Judge Dundy left unsettled the question as to whether Native Americans were guaranteed US citizenship. Although Native Americans were born within the national boundaries of the United States, those on reservations were considered citizens of their own tribes, rather than of the United States. They were denied the right to vote because they were not considered citizens by law and were thus ineligible. Many Native Americans were told that they would become citizens if they gave up their tribal affiliations in 1887 under the Dawes Act, which allocated communal lands to individual households and was intended to aid in the assimilation of Native Americans into majority culture. This still did not guarantee their right to vote. In 1924 the remaining Native Americans, estimated at about one - third, became United States citizens. But, many western states continued to restrict Native American ability to vote through property requirements, economic pressures, hiding the polls, and condoning of physical violence against those who voted. Since the late 20th century, they have been protected under provisions of the Voting Rights Act as a racial minority, and in some areas, language minority, gaining election materials in their native languages. In several British North American colonies, before and after the 1776 Declaration of Independence, Jews, Quakers and / or Catholics were excluded from the franchise and / or from running for elections. The Delaware Constitution of 1776 stated that "Every person who shall be chosen a member of either house, or appointed to any office or place of trust, before taking his seat, or entering upon the execution of his office, shall (...) also make and subscribe the following declaration, to wit: I, A B. do profess faith in God the Father, and in Jesus Christ His only Son, and in the Holy Ghost, one God, blessed for evermore; and I do acknowledge the holy scriptures of the Old and New Testament to be given by divine inspiration. ''. This was repealed by Article I, Section II. of the 1792 Constitution: "No religious test shall be required as a qualification to any office, or public trust, under this State ''. The 1778 Constitution of the State of South Carolina stated, "No person shall be eligible to sit in the house of representatives unless he be of the Protestant religion '', the 1777 Constitution of the State of Georgia (art. VI) that "The representatives shall be chosen out of the residents in each county (...) and they shall be of the Protestant religion ''. With the growth in the number of Baptists in Virginia before the Revolution, who challenged the established Anglican Church, the issues of religious freedom became important to rising leaders such as James Madison. As a young lawyer, he defended Baptist preachers who were not licensed by (and were opposed by) the established state Anglican Church. He carried developing ideas about religious freedom to be incorporated into the constitutional convention of the United States. In 1787, Article One of the United States Constitution stated that "the Electors in each State shall have the Qualifications requisite for Electors of the most numerous Branch of the State Legislature ''. More significantly, Article Six disavowed the religious test requirements of several states, saying: "(N) o religious Test shall ever be required as a Qualification to any Office or public Trust under the United States. '' But, in Maryland, Jewish Americans were excluded from State office until the law requiring candidates to affirm a belief in an afterlife was repealed in 1828. At the time of ratification of the Constitution in the late 18th century, most states had property qualifications which restricted the franchise; the exact amount varied by state, but by some estimates, more than half of white men were disenfranchised. Several states granted suffrage to free men of color after the Revolution, including North Carolina. This fact was noted by Justice Benjamin Robbins Curtis ' dissent in Dred Scott v. Sandford (1857), as he emphasized that blacks had been considered citizens at the time the Constitution was ratified: Of this there can be no doubt. At the time of the ratification of the Articles of Confederation, all free native - born inhabitants of the States of New Hampshire, Massachusetts, New York, New Jersey, and North Carolina, though descended from African slaves, were not only citizens of those States, but such of them as had the other necessary qualifications possessed the franchise of electors, on equal terms with other citizens. When the Fourteenth Amendment was ratified in 1868 after the Civil War, it granted citizenship to all persons born or naturalized in the United States and subject to its jurisdiction. In 1869, the Fifteenth Amendment prohibited the government from denying a citizen the right to vote based on that citizen 's "race, color, or previous condition of servitude ''. The major effect of these amendments was to enfranchise African American men, the overwhelming majority of whom were freedmen in the South. After the war, some southern states passed "Black Codes '', state laws to restrict the new freedoms of African Americans. They attempted to control their movement, assembly, working conditions and other civil rights. Some states also prohibited them from voting. The Fifteenth Amendment to the Constitution, one of three ratified after the American Civil War to grant freedmen full rights of citizenship, prevented any state from denying the right to vote to any citizen based on race. This was primarily related to protecting the franchise of freedmen, but it also applied to non-white minorities, such as Mexican Americans in Texas. The state governments under Reconstruction adopted new state constitutions or amendments designed to protect the ability of freedmen to vote. The white resistance to black suffrage after the war regularly erupted into violence as white groups tried to protect their power. Particularly in the South, in the aftermath of the Civil War whites made efforts to suppress freedmen 's voting. In the 1860s, secret vigilante groups such as the Ku Klux Klan (KKK) used violence and intimidation to keep freedmen in a controlled role and reestablish white supremacy. But, black freedmen registered and voted in high numbers, and many were elected to local offices through the 1880s. In the mid-1870s, the insurgencies continued with a rise in more powerful white paramilitary groups, such as the White League, originating in Louisiana in 1874 after a disputed gubernatorial election; and the Red Shirts, originating in Mississippi in 1875 and developing numerous chapters in North and South Carolina; as well as other "White Line '' rifle clubs. They operated openly, were more organized than the KKK, and directed their efforts at political goals: to disrupt Republican organizing, turn Republicans out of office, and intimidate or kill blacks to suppress black voting. They worked as "the military arm of the Democratic Party ''. For instance, estimates were that 150 blacks were killed in North Carolina before the 1876 elections. Economic tactics such as eviction from rental housing or termination of employment were also used to suppress the black vote. White Democrats regained power in state legislatures across the South by the late 1870s, and the federal government withdrew its troops as a result of a national compromise related to the presidency, officially ending Reconstruction. African Americans were a majority in three southern states following the Civil War, and represented over 40 % of the population in four other states. While they did not elect a majority of African Americans to office in any state legislature during Reconstruction, whites still feared and resented the political power exercised by freedmen. After ousting the Republicans, whites worked to restore white supremacy. Although elections were often surrounded by violence, blacks continued to vote and gained many local offices in the late 19th century. In the late 19th century, a Populist - Republican coalition in several states gained governorships and some congressional seats in 1894. To prevent such a coalition from forming again and reduce election violence, the Democratic Party, dominant in all southern state legislatures, took action to disfranchise most blacks and many poor whites outright. From 1890 to 1908, ten of the eleven former Confederate states completed political suppression and exclusion of these groups by ratifying new constitutions or amendments which incorporated provisions to make voter registration more difficult. These included such requirements as payment of poll taxes, complicated record keeping, complicated timing of registration and length of residency in relation to elections, with related record - keeping requirements; felony disenfranchisement focusing on crimes thought to be committed by African Americans, and a literacy test or comprehension test. Prospective voters had to prove the ability to read and write the English language to white voter registrars, who in practice applied subjective requirements. Blacks were often denied the right to vote on this basis. Even well - educated blacks were often told they had "failed '' such a test, if in fact, it had been administered. On the other hand, illiterate whites were sometimes allowed to vote through a "grandfather clause, '' which waived literacy requirements if one 's grandfather had been a qualified voter before 1866, or had served as a soldier, or was from a foreign country. As most blacks had grandfathers who were slaves before 1866 and could not have fulfilled any of those conditions, they could not use the grandfather clause exemption. Selective enforcement of the poll tax was frequently also used to disqualify black and poor white voters. As a result of these measures, at the turn of the century voter rolls dropped markedly across the South. Most blacks and many poor whites were excluded from the political system for decades. Unable to vote, they were also excluded from juries or running for any office. In Alabama, for example, its 1901 constitution restricted the franchise for poor whites as well as blacks. It contained requirements for payment of cumulative poll taxes, completion of literacy tests, and increased residency at state, county and precinct levels, effectively disenfranchised tens of thousands of poor whites as well as most blacks. Historian J. Morgan Kousser found, "They disfranchised these whites as willingly as they deprived blacks of the vote. '' By 1941, more whites than blacks in total had been disenfranchised. Although African Americans quickly began legal challenges to such provisions in the 19th century, it was years before any were successful before the U.S. Supreme Court. Booker T. Washington, better known for his public stance of trying to work within societal constraints of the period at Tuskegee University, secretly helped fund and arrange representation for numerous legal challenges to disfranchisement. He called upon wealthy Northern allies and philanthropists to raise funds for the cause. The Supreme Court 's upholding of Mississippi 's new constitution, in Williams v. Mississippi (1898), encouraged other states to follow the Mississippi plan of disfranchisement. African Americans brought other legal challenges, as in Giles v. Harris (1903) and Giles v. Teasley (1904), but the Supreme Court upheld Alabama constitutional provisions. In 1915 Oklahoma was the last state to append a grandfather clause to its literacy requirement due to Supreme Court cases. From early in the 20th century, the newly established National Association for the Advancement of Colored People (NAACP) took the lead in organizing or supporting legal challenges to segregation and disfranchisement. Gradually they planned the strategy of which cases to take forward. In Guinn v. United States (1915), the first case in which the NAACP filed a brief, the Supreme Court struck down the grandfather clause in Oklahoma and Maryland. Other states in which it was used had to retract their legislation as well. The challenge was successful. But, nearly as rapidly as the Supreme Court determined a specific provision was unconstitutional, state legislatures developed new statutes to continue disenfranchisement. For instance, in Smith v. Allwright (1944), the Supreme Court struck down the use of state - sanctioned all - white primaries by the Democratic Party in the South. States developed new restrictions on black voting; Alabama passed a law giving county registrars more authority as to which questions they asked applicants in comprehension or literacy tests. The NAACP continued with steady progress in legal challenges to disenfranchisement and segregation. In 1957, Congress passed the Civil Rights Act of 1957 to implement the Fifteenth Amendment. It established the United States Civil Rights Commission; among its duties is to investigate voter discrimination. As late as 1962, programs such as Operation Eagle Eye in Arizona attempted to stymie minority voting through literacy tests. The 24th Amendment was ratified in 1964 to prohibit poll taxes as a condition of voter registration and voting in federal elections. Many states continued to use them in state elections as a means of reducing the number of voters. The American Civil Rights Movement, through such events as the Selma to Montgomery marches and Freedom Summer in Mississippi, gained passage by the United States Congress of the Voting Rights Act of 1965, which authorized federal oversight of voter registration and election practices and other enforcement of voting rights. Congress passed the legislation because it found "case by case litigation was inadequate to combat widespread and persistent discrimination in voting ''. Activism by African Americans helped secure an expanded and protected franchise that has benefited all Americans, including racial and language minorities. The bill provided for federal oversight, if necessary, to ensure just voter registration and election procedures. The rate of African - American registration and voting in Southern states climbed dramatically and quickly, but it has taken years of federal oversight to work out the processes and overcome local resistance. In addition, it was not until the U.S. Supreme Court ruled 6 - 3 in Harper v. Virginia Board of Elections (1966) that all state poll taxes (for both state and federal elections) were officially declared unconstitutional as violating the Equal Protection Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment. This removed a burden on the poor. Legal challenges have continued under the Voting Rights Act, primarily in areas of redistricting and election systems, for instance, challenging at - large election systems that effectively reduce the ability of minority groups to elect candidates of their choice. Such challenges have particularly occurred at the county and municipal level, including for school boards, where exclusion of minority groups and candidates at such levels has been persistent in some areas of the country. This reduces the ability of women and minorities to participate in the political system and gain entry - level experience. A parallel, yet separate, movement was that for women 's suffrage. Leaders of the suffrage movement included Susan B. Anthony, Elizabeth Cady Stanton, and Alice Paul. In some ways this, too, could be said to have grown out of the American Civil War, as women had been strong leaders of the abolition movement. Middle - and upper - class women generally became more politically active in the northern tier during and after the war. In 1848, the Seneca Falls Convention, the first women 's rights convention, was held in Seneca Falls, New York. Of the 300 present, 68 women and 32 men signed the Declaration of Sentiments which defined the women 's rights movement. The first National Women 's Rights Convention took place in 1850 in Worcester, Massachusetts, attracting more than 1,000 participants. This national convention was held yearly through 1860. When Susan B. Anthony and Elizabeth Cady Stanton formed the National Women Suffrage Association, their goal was to help women gain voting rights through reliance on the Constitution. Also, in 1869 Lucy Stone and Henry Blackwell formed the American Woman Suffrage Association (AWSA). However, AWSA focused on gaining voting rights for women through the amendment process. Although these two organization were fighting for the same cause, it was not until 1890 that they merged to form the National American Woman Suffrage Association (NAWSA). After the merger of the two organizations, the (NAWSA) waged a state - by - state campaign to obtain voting rights for women. Wyoming was the first state in which women were able to vote, although it was a condition of the transition to statehood. Utah was the second territory to allow women to vote, but the federal Edmunds -- Tucker Act of 1887 repealed woman 's suffrage in Utah. Colorado was the first established state to allow women to vote on the same basis as men. Some other states also extended the franchise to women before the Constitution was amended to this purpose. During the 1910s Alice Paul, assisted by Lucy Burns and many others, organized such events and organizations as the 1913 Women 's Suffrage Parade, the National Woman 's Party, and the Silent Sentinels. At the culmination of the suffragists ' requests and protests, ratification of the Nineteenth Amendment gave women the right to vote in time to participate in the Presidential election of 1920. Another political movement that was largely driven by women in the same era was the anti-alcohol Temperance movement, which led to the Eighteenth Amendment and Prohibition. Washington, D.C., was created from a portion of the states of Maryland and Virginia in 1801. The Virginia portion was retroceded (returned) to Virginia upon request of the residents, by an Act of Congress in 1846 to protect slavery, and restore state and federal voting rights in that portion of Virginia. When Maryland delegated a portion of its land to Congress so that it could be used as the Nation 's capital, Congress did not continue Maryland Voting Laws. It canceled all state and federal elections starting with 1802. Local elections limped on in some neighborhoods, until 1871, when local elections were also forbidden by the U.S. Congress. The U.S. Congress is the National Legislature. Under Article I, Section 8, Clause 17, Congress has the sole authority to exercise "Exclusive Legislature in all cases whatsoever '' over the nation 's capital and over federal military bases. Active disfranchisement is typically a States Rights Legislative issue, where the removal of voting rights is permitted. At the national level, the federal government typically ignored voting rights issues, or affirmed that they were extended. Congress, when exercising "exclusive legislation '' over U.S. Military Bases in the United States, and Washington, D.C., viewed its power as strong enough to remove all voting rights. All state and federal elections were canceled by Congress in D.C. and all of Maryland 's voting Rights laws no longer applied to D.C. when Maryland gave up that land. Congress did not pass laws to establish local voting processes in the District of Columbia. This omission of law strategy to disfranchise is contained in the Congressional debates in Annals of Congress in 1800 and 1801. In 1986, the US Congress voted to restore voting rights on U.S. Military bases for all state and federal elections. D.C., citizens were granted the right to vote in Presidential elections in 1961, after the ratification of the twenty - third amendment. Amendment 23 is the only known limit to U.S. Congressional powers, forcing Congress to enforce Amendments 14, 15, 19, 24, and 26 for the first time in Presidential elections. The Maryland citizens and territory converted in Washington, D.C., in 1801 were represented in 1801 by U.S. Rep. John Chew Thomas from Maryland 's 2nd, and U.S. Rep. William Craik from Maryland 's 3rd Congressional Districts. These Maryland U.S. Congressional Districts were redrawn and removed from Washington, D.C. No full Congressional elections have been held since in D.C., a gap continuing since 1801. Congress created a non-voting substitute for a U.S. Congressman, a Delegate, between 1871 -- 1875, but then abolished that post as well. Congress permitted restoration of local elections and home rule for the District on December 24, 1973. In 1971, Congress still opposed restoring the position of a full U.S. Congressman for Washington, D.C. That year it re-established the position of non-voting Delegate to the U.S. Congress. A third voting rights movement was won in the 1960s to lower the voting age from twenty - one to eighteen. Activists noted that most of the young men who were being drafted to fight in the Vietnam War were too young to have any voice in the selection of the leaders who were sending them to fight. Some states had already lowered the voting age: notably Georgia, Kentucky, and Hawaii, had already permitted voting by persons younger than twenty - one. The Twenty - sixth Amendment, ratified in 1971, prohibits federal and state laws which set a minimum voting age higher than 18 years. As of 2008, no state has opted for an earlier age, although some state governments have discussed it. California has, since the 1980s, allowed persons who are 17 to register to vote for an election where the election itself will occur on or after their 18th birthday, and several states including Indiana allow 17 - year - olds to vote in a primary election provided they will be 18 by the general election. Prisoner voting rights are defined by individual states, and the laws are different from state to state. Some states allow only individuals on probation to vote. Others allow individuals on parole and probation. As of 2012, only three states, Florida, Kentucky and Virginia, continue to impose a lifelong denial of the right to vote to all citizens with a felony record, absent a restoration of rights granted by the Governor or state legislature. However, in Kentucky, a felon 's rights can be restored after the completion of a restoration process to regain civil rights. In 2007, Florida legislature restored voting rights to convicted felons who had served their sentences. In March 2011, however, Governor Rick Scott reversed the 2007 reforms. He signed legislation that permanently disenfranchises citizens with past felony convictions. In July 2005, Iowa Governor Tom Vilsack issued an executive order restoring the right to vote for all persons who have completed supervision. On October 31, 2005, Iowa 's Supreme Court upheld mass reenfranchisement of convicted felons. Nine other states disenfranchise felons for various lengths of time following the completion of their probation or parole. Other than Maine and Vermont, all U.S. states prohibit felons from voting while they are in prison. In Puerto Rico, felons in prison are allowed to vote in elections. Practices in the United States are in contrast to some European nations, such as Norway. Some nations allow prisoners to vote. Prisoners have been allowed to vote in Canada since 2002. The United States has a higher proportion of its population in prison than any other Western nation, and more than Russia or China. The dramatic rise in the rate of incarceration in the United States, a 500 % increase from the 1970s to the 1990s, has vastly increased the number of people disenfranchised because of the felon provisions. According to the Sentencing Project, as of 2010 an estimated 5.9 million Americans are denied the right to vote because of a felony conviction, a number equivalent to 2.5 % of the U.S. voting - age population and a sharp increase from the 1.2 million people affected by felony disenfranchisement in 1976. Given the prison populations, the effects have been most disadvantageous for minority and poor communities. The Supreme Court of the United States struck down one - year residency requirements to vote in Dunn v. Blumstein 405 U.S. 330 (1972). The Court ruled that limits on voter registration of up to 30 to 50 days prior to an election were permissible for logistical reasons, but that residency requirements in excess of that violated the equal protection clause, as granted under the Fourteenth Amendment, according to strict scrutiny. In the 1980s homelessness was recognized as an increasing national problem. By the early 21st century, there have been numerous court cases to help protect the voting rights of persons without a fixed address. Low income and homeless citizens face some obstacles in registering to vote. These obstacles include establishing residency, providing a mailing address, and showing proof of identification. A residency requirement varies from state to state. States can not require citizens to show residency of more than 30 days before Election Day. The states of Idaho, Maine, Minnesota, Wisconsin, and Wyoming allow voters to register on Election Day. North Dakota does not require voters to register. In the 21st century, homeless persons in all states have the right to register and vote if they satisfy other conditions. In most states, when registering to vote, homeless voters may designate any place of residence, including a street corner, a park, a shelter, or any other location where an individual stays at night. A citizen may only have one residency during registration, but they may switch their registration each time they change locations. Designating residency is needed to prove that the citizen lives within the district where he or she wishes to vote. Some states also require a mailing address in order to send out the voter ID card, which the individual must show on Election Day. Some states allow individuals to use PO Boxes as mailing addresses; other states allow the address to be that of a local shelter, advocacy organization, outreach center, or anywhere else that accepts mail on behalf of a person registering to vote. States such as Arizona and Nebraska allow homeless citizens to use county court houses or county clerks ' offices as mailing address. States that do not require a mailing address include Alaska, Connecticut, Delaware, Florida, Georgia, Idaho, Montana, New Jersey, Vermont, West Virginia, Wisconsin, and Wyoming. All potential voters face new requirements since 2002, when President Bush signed the Help America Vote Act (HAVA). It requires voters to provide their driver 's license numbers, or the last four digits of their Social Security Number on their voter registration form. This has been enforced. The National Coalition for the Homeless (NCH) assists nonprofit organizations, in getting lower income and homeless citizens registered to vote. In 1992, the NCH created a campaign called "You do n't need a home to vote ''. This campaign provided useful resources and guidelines for nonprofit organizations to follow when assisting citizens to register. Nonprofits, like homeless shelters and food banks, set up a voter registration party to help homeless citizens to register. The nonprofit workers must remain nonpartisan when assisting in the registration process. Voting rights of the American homeless is an issue that has been addressed in the courts since the 1980s. Each state is responsible for voting regulations in their area; however, many states throughout America have adopted similar laws regarding homeless citizen voting. Disenfranchising the homeless is considered a violation of their rights under the Fourteenth Amendment 's Equal Protection Clause. Many arguments have been made against homeless people being able to vote. Their status of true citizenship has been called into question because of their lack of residency. However, the courts have ruled on more than one occasion in favor of the homeless voting. One of the first court cases regarding homeless voting was Pitts v. Black in New York. The US district court ruled that disenfranchising homeless citizens is a direct violation of the Equal Protection clause found in the Fourteenth Amendment. Two California court rulings, Collier v. Menzel, and Walters v. Weed, also addressed the residency question of homeless voters: Several locales retained restrictions for specialized local elections, such as for school boards, special districts, or bond issues. Property restrictions, duration of residency restrictions, and, for school boards, restrictions of the franchise to voters with children, remained in force. In a series of rulings from 1969 to 1973, the Court ruled that the franchise could be restricted in some cases to those "primarily interested '' or "primarily affected '' by the outcome of a specialized election, but not in the case of school boards or bond issues, which affected taxation to be paid by all residents. In Ball v. James 451 U.S. 335 (1981), the Court further upheld a system of plural voting, by which votes for the board of directors of a water reclamation district were allocated on the basis of a person 's proportion of land owned in the district. The Court has overseen operation of political party primaries to ensure open voting. While states were permitted to require voters to register for a political party 30 days before an election, or to require them to vote in only one party primary, the state could not prevent a voter from voting in a party primary if the voter has voted in another party 's primary in the last 23 months. The Court also ruled that a state may not mandate a "closed primary '' system and bar independents from voting in a party 's primary against the wishes of the party. (Tashijan v. Republican Party of Connecticut 479 U.S. 208 (1986)) The Office of Hawaiian Affairs of the state of Hawaii, created in 1978, limited voting eligibility and candidate eligibility to native Hawaiians on whose behalf it manages 1,800,000 acres (7,300 km) of ceded land. The Supreme Court of the United States struck down the franchise restriction under the Fifteenth Amendment in Rice v. Cayetano 528 U.S. 495 (2000), following by eliminating the candidate restriction in Arakaki v. State of Hawai'i a few months later. Citizens of the nation 's capital, Washington, D.C., have not been apportioned a representative or US senator in Congress. This is because D.C. is a federal district and not a state and under the Constitution, only states are apportioned congresspersons. District of Columbia citizens had voting rights removed in 1801 by Congress, when Maryland delegated that portion of its land to Congress. Congress incrementally removed effective local control or home rule by 1871. It restored some home rule in 1971, but maintained the authority to override any local laws. Washington, D.C., does not have full representation in the U.S. House or Senate. The Twenty - third Amendment, restoring U.S. Presidential Election after a 164 - year - gap, is the only known limit to Congressional "exclusive legislature '' from Article I - 8 - 17, forcing Congress to enforce for the first time Amendments 14, 15, 19, 24, and 26. Amendment 23 gave the District of Columbia three electors and hence the right to vote for President, but not full U.S. Congresspersons nor U.S. Senators. In 1978, Congress proposed a constitutional amendment that would have restored to the District a full seat for representation in the Congress as well. This amendment failed to receive ratification by sufficient number of states within the seven years required. As of 2013, a bill is pending in Congress that would treat the District of Columbia as "a congressional district for purposes of representation in the House of Representatives '', and permit United States citizens residing in the capital to vote for a member to represent them in the House of Representatives. The District of Columbia House Voting Rights Act, S. 160, 111th Cong. was passed by the U.S. Senate on February 26, 2009, by a vote of 61 - 37. On April 1, 1993, the Inter-American Commission on Human Rights of the Organization of American States received a petition from Timothy Cooper on behalf of the Statehood Solidarity Committee (the "Petitioners '') against the government of the United States (the "State '' or "United States ''). The petition indicated that it was presented on behalf of the members of the Statehood Solidarity Committee and all other U.S. citizens resident in the District of Columbia. The petition alleged that the United States was responsible for violations of Articles II (right to equality before law) and XX (right to vote and to participate in government) of the American Declaration of the Rights and Duties of Man in connection with the inability of citizens of the District of Columbia to vote for and elect a representative to the U.S. Congress. On December 29, 2003, The Inter-American Commission on Human Rights having examined the information and arguments provided by the parties on the question of admissibility. Without prejudging the merits of the matter, the Commission decided to admit the present petition in respect of Articles II and XX of the American Declaration. In addition, the Commission concluded that the United States violates the Petitioners ' rights under Articles II and XX of the American Declaration of the Rights and Duties of Man by denying District of Columbia citizens an effective opportunity to participate in their federal legislature. U.S. citizens residing overseas who would otherwise have the right to vote are guaranteed the right to vote in federal elections by the Uniformed and Overseas Citizens Absentee Voting Act (UOCAVA) of 1986. As a practical matter, individual states implement UOCAVA. U.S. citizens who reside in Puerto Rico, Guam, Northern Mariana Islands, or the United States Virgin Islands are not allowed to vote in U.S. national and presidential elections, as these U.S. territories belong to the United States but are not part of the United States. The U.S. Constitution requires a voter to be resident in one of the 50 states or in the District of Columbia to vote in federal elections. To say that the Constitution does not require extension of federal voting rights to U.S. territories residents does not, however, exclude the possibility that the Constitution may permit their enfranchisement under another source of law. A citizen who has never resided in the United States can vote if a parent is eligible to vote in certain states. In some of these states the citizen can vote in local, state and federal elections, in others in federal elections only. Puerto Rico is an insular area -- a United States territory that is neither a part of one of the fifty states nor a part of the District of Columbia, the nation 's federal district. Insular areas, such as Puerto Rico, the U.S. Virgin Islands and Guam, are not allowed to choose electors in U.S. presidential elections or elect voting members to the U.S. Congress. This grows out of Article I and Article II of the United States Constitution, which specifically mandate that electors are to be chosen by "the People of the several States ''. In 1961, the 23rd amendment to the constitution extended the right to choose electors to the District of Columbia. Any U.S. citizen who resides in Puerto Rico (whether a Puerto Rican or not) is effectively disenfranchised at the national level. Although the Republican Party and Democratic Party chapters in Puerto Rico have selected voting delegates to the national nominating conventions participating in U.S. presidential primaries or caucuses, U.S. citizens not residing in one of the 50 states or in the District of Columbia may not vote in federal elections. Various scholars (including a prominent U.S. judge in the United States Court of Appeals for the First Circuit) conclude that the U.S. national - electoral process is not fully democratic due to U.S. government disenfranchisement of U.S. citizens residing in Puerto Rico. As of 2010, under Igartúa v. United States, the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR) is judicially considered not to be self - executing, and therefore requires further legislative action to put it into effect domestically. Judge Kermit Lipez wrote in a concurring opinion, however, that the en banc majority 's conclusion that the ICCPR is non-self - executing is ripe for reconsideration in a new en banc proceeding, and that if issues highlighted in a partial dissent by Judge Juan R. Torruella were to be decided in favor of the plaintiffs, United States citizens residing in Puerto Rico would have a viable claim to equal voting rights. Congress has in fact acted in partial compliance with its obligations under the ICCPR when, in 1961, just a few years after the United Nations first ratified the ICCPR, it amended our fundamental charter to allow the United States citizens who reside in the District of Columbia to vote for the Executive offices. See U.S. Constitutional Amendment XXIII. 51. Indeed, a bill is now pending in Congress that would treat the District of Columbia as "a congressional district for purposes of representation in the House of Representatives '', and permit United States citizens residing in the capitol to vote for members of the House of Representatives. See District of Columbia House Voting Rights Act, S. 160, 111th Congress (passed by the Senate, February 26, 2009) (2009). 52 However, the United States has not taken similar "steps '' with regard to the five million United States citizens who reside in the other U.S. territories, of which close to four million are residents of Puerto Rico. This inaction is in clear violation of the United States ' obligations under the ICCPR ". Federal legislation such as the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (ADA), the National Voter Registration Act of 1993 (NVRA, or "Motor - Voter Act '') and the Help America Vote Act of 2001 (HAVA) help to address some of the concerns of disabled and non-English speaking voters in the United States. Some studies have shown that polling places are inaccessible to disabled voters. The Federal Election Commission reported that, in violation of state and federal laws, more than 20,000 polling places across the nation are inaccessible, depriving people with disabilities of their fundamental right to vote. In 1999, the Attorney General of the State of New York ran a check of polling places around the state to see if they were accessible to voters with disabilities and found many problems. A study of three upstate counties of New York found fewer than 10 percent of polling places fully compliant with state and federal laws. Many polling booths are set in church basements or in upstairs meeting halls where there are no ramps or elevators. This means problems not just for people who use wheelchairs, but for people using canes or walkers too. And in most states people who are blind do not have access to Braille ballot to vote; they have to bring someone along to vote for them. Studies have shown that people with disabilities are more interested in government and public affairs than most and are more eager to participate in the democratic process. Many election officials urge people with disabilities to vote absentee, however some disabled individuals see this as an inferior form of participation. Voter turnout is lower among the disabled. In the 2012 United States presidential election 56.8 % of people with disabilities reported voting, compared to the 62.5 % of eligible citizens without disabilities. Jurisprudence concerning candidacy rights and the rights of citizens to create a political party are less clear than voting rights. Different courts have reached different conclusions regarding what sort of restrictions, often in terms of ballot access, public debate inclusion, filing fees, and residency requirements, may be imposed. In Williams v. Rhodes (1968), the United States Supreme Court struck down Ohio ballot access laws on First and Fourteenth Amendment grounds. However, it subsequently upheld such laws in several other cases. States can require an independent or minor party candidate to collect signatures as high as five percent of the total votes cast in a particular preceding election before the court will intervene. The Supreme Court has also upheld a state ban on cross-party endorsements (also known as electoral fusion) and primary write - in votes. More than 40 states or territories, including colonies before the Declaration of Independence, have at some time allowed noncitizens who satisfied residential requirements to vote in some or all elections. This in part reflected the strong continuing immigration to the United States. Some cities like Chicago, towns or villages (in Maryland) today allow noncitizen residents to vote in school or local elections. In 1875, the Supreme Court in Minor v. Happersett noted that "citizenship has not in all cases been made a condition precedent to the enjoyment of the right of suffrage. Thus, in Missouri, persons of foreign birth, who have declared their intention to become citizens of the United States, may under certain circumstances vote ''. Federal law prohibits noncitizens from voting in federal elections.

rolling stones it's just a kiss away

Gimme Shelter - wikipedia "Gimme Shelter '' is the opening track to the 1969 album Let It Bleed by the Rolling Stones. Although the first word was spelled "Gimmie '' on that album, subsequent recordings by the band and other musicians have made "Gimme '' the customary spelling. Greil Marcus, writing in Rolling Stone magazine at the time of its release, praised the song, stating that the band has "never done anything better. '' The recording features Richards playing in his new open tuning on electric guitar. The recording also features vocals by Merry Clayton. Lisa Fischer was later recruited to perform the song during concerts. "Gimme Shelter '' was written by the Rolling Stones ' lead vocalist Mick Jagger and guitarist Keith Richards, the band 's primary songwriting team. Richards began working on the song 's signature opening riff in London whilst Jagger was away filming Performance. As released, the song begins with Richards performing a guitar intro, soon joined by Jagger 's lead vocal. Of Let It Bleed 's bleak world view, Jagger said in a 1995 interview with Rolling Stone magazine: Well, it 's a very rough, very violent era. The Vietnam War. Violence on the screens, pillage and burning. And Vietnam was not war as we knew it in the conventional sense. The thing about Vietnam was that it was n't like World War II, and it was n't like Korea, and it was n't like the Gulf War. It was a real nasty war, and people did n't like it. People objected, and people did n't want to fight it... That 's a kind of end - of - the - world song, really. It 's apocalypse; the whole record 's like that. Similarly, on NPR in 2012: It was a very moody piece about the world closing in on you a bit... When it was recorded, early ' 69 or something, it was a time of war and tension, so that 's reflected in this tune. It 's still wheeled out when big storms happen, as they did the other week (during Hurricane Sandy). It 's been used a lot to evoke natural disaster. However, the song 's inspiration was not Vietnam or social unrest, but Keith Richards seeing people scurrying for shelter from a sudden rain storm. According to him: I had been sitting by the window of my friend Robert Fraser 's apartment on Mount Street in London with an acoustic guitar when suddenly the sky went completely black and an incredible monsoon came down. It was just people running about looking for shelter -- that was the germ of the idea. We went further into it until it became, you know, rape and murder are ' just a shot away. The recording features guest vocals by Merry Clayton, recorded at a last - minute late - night recording session during the mixing phase, arranged by her friend and record producer Jack Nitzsche. After the first verse, Merry Clayton enters and shares the next three verses. A harmonica solo by Jagger and guitar solo by Richards follow, then with great energy, Clayton repeatedly sings "Rape, murder! It 's just a shot away! It 's just a shot away! '', almost screaming the final stanza. She and Jagger then repeat the line "It 's just a shot away '' and finish with repeats of "It 's just a kiss away. '' When speaking of her inclusion in the recording, Jagger stated in the 2003 book According to the Rolling Stones: "The use of the female voice was the producer 's idea. It would be one of those moment - s along the lines of ' I hear a girl on this track -- get one on the phone. ' '' Summoned -- pregnant -- from bed around midnight by producer Jack Nitzsche, Clayton made her recording with just a few takes then returned home to bed. It remains the most prominent contribution to a Rolling Stones track by a female vocalist. At about 2: 59 into the song, Clayton 's voice cracks under the strain; once during the second refrain on the word "shot '', then on the word "murder '' during the third refrain, after which Jagger is faintly heard exclaiming "Woo! '' in response to Clayton 's powerful delivery. Upon returning home she suffered a miscarriage, attributed by some sources to her exertions during the recording. Merry Clayton 's name was erroneously written on the original release, appearing as ' Mary '. Her name is also listed as ' Mary ' on the 2002 Let It Bleed remastered CD. The song was first recorded in London at Olympic Studios in February and March 1969; the version with Clayton was recorded in Los Angeles at Sunset Sound Recorders and Elektra Studios in October and November that same year. Nicky Hopkins played piano, the Rolling Stones ' producer Jimmy Miller played percussion, Charlie Watts played drums, Bill Wyman played bass, Jagger played harmonica and sang backup vocals with Richards and Clayton. Guitarist Brian Jones was present during the early sessions but did not contribute, Richards being credited with both rhythm and lead guitars on the album sleeve. For the recording, Richards used an Australian - made Maton SE777, a large single - cutaway hollowbody guitar, which he had previously used on "Midnight Rambler. '' Unfortunately, the guitar barely survived the recording before literally falling apart. "(O) n the very last note of ' Gimmie Shelter, ' '' Richards told Guitar World in 2002, "the whole neck fell off. You can hear it on the original take. '' "Gimme Shelter '' quickly became a staple of the Rolling Stones ' live shows. It was first performed sporadically during their 1969 American Tour and became a regular addition to their setlist during the 1972 American Tour. Concert versions appear on the Stones ' albums No Security (recorded 1997, released 1998), Live Licks (recorded 2003, released 2004), Brussels Affair (recorded 1973, released 2011), and Sweet Summer Sun: Hyde Park Live (2013). A May 1995 performance recorded at Paradiso (Amsterdam) was released as audio on the 1996 Saint of Me single, included in The Singles Collection 1971 - 2006 (45CD Box Set, 2011), and as video, on Totally Stripped Blu - Ray and DVD (2016). The song appears in the 2010 official DVD release of the 1972 Rolling Stones tour film, Ladies and Gentlemen: The Rolling Stones. It is also featured on Bridges to Babylon Tour ' 97 -- 98 (1998), Four Flicks (2003), The Biggest Bang (2007), Sweet Summer Sun: Hyde Park Live (2013), and The Rolling Stones: Havana Moon (2016). The female contributor to the song live is Lisa Fischer, the only woman to appear in all their tours since 1989. In their 2012 50th anniversary tour, the Rolling Stones sang this song with Mary J. Blige, Florence Welch, and Lady Gaga. "Gimme Shelter '' was never released as a single. Nevertheless, it has been included on many compilation releases, including Gimme Shelter, Hot Rocks 1964 -- 1971, Forty Licks and GRRR!. Michel Gondry, an Academy Award - winning French filmmaker, directed a music video for the song, which was released in 1998. The video features a sixteen - year old Brad Renfro, playing a young man escaping with his brother from a dysfunctional home and the abuse they suffered at the hands of their abusive alcoholic father, and then from society as a whole. The Rolling Stones Additional personnel Greil Marcus, writing for Rolling Stone magazine at the time of the "Gimme Shelter '' 's release stated that "(t) he Stones have never done anything better. '' "Gimme Shelter '' was placed at number 38 on Rolling Stone 's list of "The 500 Greatest Songs of All Time '' in 2004. Pitchfork Media placed it at number 12 on its list of "The 200 Greatest Songs of the 1960s ''. Ultimate Classic Rock put the song at number one on their Top 100 Rolling Stones songs and number three on their Top 100 Classic Rock Songs "Gimme Shelter '' has been played in a variety of movies and television shows / commercials. The 1970 documentary film Gimme Shelter, directed by Albert and David Maysles and Charlotte Zwerin, chronicling the last weeks of the Stones ' 1969 US tour and culminating in the disastrous Altamont Free Concert, took its name from the song. A live version of the song played over the documentary 's credits. In 1993, a Food Records project collected various versions of the track by the following bands and collaborations, the proceeds of which went to the Shelter charity 's "Putting Our House in Order '' homeless initiative. The versions were issued across various formats, and had a live version of the song by the Rolling Stones as a common lead track to ensure chart eligibility. "Gimme Shelter '' (pop version -- cassette single) "Gimme Shelter '' (alternative version -- CD single) "Gimme Shelter '' (rock version -- CD single) "Gimme Shelter '' (dance version -- 12 '' single)

how many episodes are there in originals season 4

The Originals (Season 4) - wikipedia The Originals, a one - hour American supernatural drama, was renewed for a fourth season by The CW on March 17, 2016, by The CW 's President, Mark Pedowitz. The 2016 -- 17 United States television season debut of The Originals was pushed to midseason, which saw the fourth - season premiere on March 17, 2017. It concluded on June 23, 2017, after 13 episodes.

who makes the odroid boards (hint 10 characters in capitals except for 'a' )

Odroid - wikipedia The ODROID is a series of single - board computers and tablet computers created by Hardkernel Co., Ltd., an open - source hardware company located in South Korea. Even though the name ' ODROID ' is a portmanteau of ' open ' + ' Android ', the hardware is n't actually open because some parts of the design are retained by the company. Many ODROID systems are capable of running not only Android, but also regular Linux distributions. Several models of ODROID 's have been released by Hardkernel. The first generation was released in 2009, followed by higher specification models. Current boards are priced US $35 for the C1+, US $46 for the C2 and US $59 for the XU4. C models feature a Amlogic system on a chip (SoC), while XU models feature a Exynos SoC. Both include an ARM central processing unit (CPU) and an on chip graphics processing unit (GPU). CPU architectures include ARMv7 - A and ARMv8 - A, a board memory range from 1 GB RAM to 2 GB RAM. Secure Digital SD cards are used to store the operating system and program memory in either the SDHC or MicroSDHC sizes. Most boards have between three and five mixed USB 2.0 or 3.0 slots, HDMI output, and a 3.5 mm jack. Lower level output is provided by a number of general - purpose input / output (GPIO) pins which support common protocols like I2C. Current models have an Gigabit Ethernet (8P8C) port and eMMC module socket. 8 GB SDHC 1 × ADB / Mass storage (micro USB) 1 × ADB / Mass storage (Micro USB) RGB 24 - bit LCD interface port 1 x USB 2.0 ADB / Mass Storage (Micro USB) ADC and LCD 1 x USB 3.0 Host, 1 x USB 3.0 OTG MIPI DSI and touchscreen I2C ports ADC and LCD 1 x USB 3.0 Host, 1 x USB 3.0 OTG Integrated power consumption monitoring tool ADC and LCD 2 x USB 3.0 Host ADC

where are the mississippi river located on a map

Mississippi River - wikipedia The Mississippi River is the chief river of the second - largest drainage system on the North American continent, second only to the Hudson Bay drainage system. Flowing entirely in the United States (although its drainage basin reaches into Canada), it rises in northern Minnesota and meanders slowly southwards for 2,320 miles (3,730 km) to the Mississippi River Delta at the Gulf of Mexico. With its many tributaries, the Mississippi 's watershed drains all or parts of 31 U.S. states and 2 Canadian provinces between the Rocky and Appalachian Mountains. The Mississippi ranks as the fourth - longest and fifteenth - largest river in the world by discharge. The river either borders or passes through the states of Minnesota, Wisconsin, Iowa, Illinois, Missouri, Kentucky, Tennessee, Arkansas, Mississippi, and Louisiana. Native Americans long lived along the Mississippi River and its tributaries. Most were hunter - gatherers, but some, such as the Mound Builders, formed prolific agricultural societies. The arrival of Europeans in the 16th century changed the native way of life as first explorers, then settlers, ventured into the basin in increasing numbers. The river served first as a barrier, forming borders for New Spain, New France, and the early United States, and then as a vital transportation artery and communications link. In the 19th century, during the height of the ideology of manifest destiny, the Mississippi and several western tributaries, most notably the Missouri, formed pathways for the western expansion of the United States. Formed from thick layers of the river 's silt deposits, the Mississippi embayment is one of the most fertile agricultural regions of the country, which resulted in the river 's storied steamboat era. During the American Civil War, the Mississippi 's capture by Union forces marked a turning point towards victory due to the river 's importance as a route of trade and travel, not least to the Confederacy. Because of substantial growth of cities and the larger ships and barges that supplanted riverboats, the first decades of the 20th century saw the construction of massive engineering works such as levees, locks and dams, often built in combination. Since modern development of the basin began, the Mississippi has also seen its share of pollution and environmental problems -- most notably large volumes of agricultural runoff, which has led to the Gulf of Mexico dead zone off the Delta. In recent years, the river has shown a steady shift towards the Atchafalaya River channel in the Delta; a course change would be an economic disaster for the port city of New Orleans. The word itself comes from Messipi, the French rendering of the Anishinaabe (Ojibwe or Algonquin) name for the river, Misi - ziibi (Great River). In the 18th century, the river was the primary western boundary of the young United States, and since the country 's expansion westward, the Mississippi River has been widely considered a convenient if approximate dividing line between the Eastern, Southern, and Midwestern United States, and the Western United States. This is exemplified by the Gateway Arch in St. Louis and the phrase "Trans - Mississippi '' as used in the name of the Trans - Mississippi Exposition. It is common to qualify a regionally superlative landmark in relation to it, such as "the highest peak east of the Mississippi '' or "the oldest city west of the Mississippi ''. The FCC also uses it as the dividing line for broadcast callsigns, which begin with W to the east and K to the west, mixing together in media markets along the river. The geographical setting of the Mississippi River includes considerations of the course of the river itself, its watershed, its outflow, its prehistoric and historic course changes, and possibilities of future course changes. The New Madrid Seismic Zone along the river is also noteworthy. These various basic geographical aspects of the river in turn underlie its human history and present uses of the waterway and its adjacent lands. The Mississippi River can be divided into three sections: the Upper Mississippi, the river from its headwaters to the confluence with the Missouri River; the Middle Mississippi, which is downriver from the Missouri to the Ohio River; and the Lower Mississippi, which flows from the Ohio to the Gulf of Mexico. The Upper Mississippi runs from its headwaters to its confluence with the Missouri River at St. Louis, Missouri. It is divided into two sections: The source of the Upper Mississippi branch is traditionally accepted as Lake Itasca, 1,475 feet (450 m) above sea level in Itasca State Park in Clearwater County, Minnesota. The name "Itasca '' was chosen to designate the "true head '' of the Mississippi River as a combination of the last four letters of the Latin word for truth (veritas) and the first two letters of the Latin word for head (caput). However, the lake is in turn fed by a number of smaller streams. From its origin at Lake Itasca to St. Louis, Missouri, the waterway 's flow is moderated by 43 dams. Fourteen of these dams are located above Minneapolis in the headwaters region and serve multiple purposes, including power generation and recreation. The remaining 29 dams, beginning in downtown Minneapolis, all contain locks and were constructed to improve commercial navigation of the upper river. Taken as a whole, these 43 dams significantly shape the geography and influence the ecology of the upper river. Beginning just below Saint Paul, Minnesota, and continuing throughout the upper and lower river, the Mississippi is further controlled by thousands of wing dikes that moderate the river 's flow in order to maintain an open navigation channel and prevent the river from eroding its banks. The head of navigation on the Mississippi is the Coon Rapids Dam in Coon Rapids, Minnesota. Before it was built in 1913, steamboats could occasionally go upstream as far as Saint Cloud, Minnesota, depending on river conditions. The uppermost lock and dam on the Upper Mississippi River is the Upper St. Anthony Falls Lock and Dam in Minneapolis. Above the dam, the river 's elevation is 799 feet (244 m). Below the dam, the river 's elevation is 750 feet (230 m). This 49 - foot (15 m) drop is the largest of all the Mississippi River locks and dams. The origin of the dramatic drop is a waterfall preserved adjacent to the lock under an apron of concrete. Saint Anthony Falls is the only true waterfall on the entire Mississippi River. The water elevation continues to drop steeply as it passes through the gorge carved by the waterfall. After the completion of the St. Anthony Falls Lock and Dam in 1963, the river 's head of navigation moved upstream, to the Coon Rapids Dam. However, the Locks were closed in 2015 to control the spread of invasive Asian carp, making Minneapolis once again the site of the head of navigation of the river. The Upper Mississippi has a number of natural and artificial lakes, with its widest point being Lake Winnibigoshish, near Grand Rapids, Minnesota, over 11 miles (18 km) across. Lake Onalaska, created by Lock and Dam No. 7, near La Crosse, Wisconsin, is more than 4 miles (6.4 km) wide. Lake Pepin, a natural lake formed behind the delta of the Chippewa River of Wisconsin as it enters the Upper Mississippi, is more than 2 miles (3.2 km) wide. By the time the Upper Mississippi reaches Saint Paul, Minnesota, below Lock and Dam No. 1, it has dropped more than half its original elevation and is 687 feet (209 m) above sea level. From St. Paul to St. Louis, Missouri, the river elevation falls much more slowly, and is controlled and managed as a series of pools created by 26 locks and dams. The Upper Mississippi River is joined by the Minnesota River at Fort Snelling in the Twin Cities; the St. Croix River near Prescott, Wisconsin; the Cannon River near Red Wing, Minnesota; the Zumbro River at Wabasha, Minnesota; the Black, La Crosse, and Root rivers in La Crosse, Wisconsin; the Wisconsin River at Prairie du Chien, Wisconsin; the Rock River at the Quad Cities; the Iowa River near Wapello, Iowa; the Skunk River south of Burlington, Iowa; and the Des Moines River at Keokuk, Iowa. Other major tributaries of the Upper Mississippi include the Crow River in Minnesota, the Chippewa River in Wisconsin, the Maquoketa River and the Wapsipinicon River in Iowa, and the Illinois River in Illinois. The Upper Mississippi is largely a multi-thread stream with many bars and islands. From its confluence with the St. Croix River downstream to Dubuque, Iowa, the river is entrenched, with high bedrock bluffs lying on either side. The height of these bluffs decreases to the south of Dubuque, though they are still significant through Savanna, Illinois. This topography contrasts strongly with the Lower Mississippi, which is a meandering river in a broad, flat area, only rarely flowing alongside a bluff (as at Vicksburg, Mississippi). The Mississippi River is known as the Middle Mississippi from the Upper Mississippi River 's confluence with the Missouri River at St. Louis, Missouri, for 190 miles (310 km) to its confluence with the Ohio River at Cairo, Illinois. The Middle Mississippi is relatively free - flowing. From St. Louis to the Ohio River confluence, the Middle Mississippi falls 220 feet (67 m) over 180 miles (290 km) for an average rate of 1.2 feet per mile (23 cm / km). At its confluence with the Ohio River, the Middle Mississippi is 315 feet (96 m) above sea level. Apart from the Missouri and Meramec rivers of Missouri and the Kaskaskia River of Illinois, no major tributaries enter the Middle Mississippi River. The Mississippi River is called the Lower Mississippi River from its confluence with the Ohio River to its mouth at the Gulf of Mexico, a distance of about 1,000 miles (1,600 km). At the confluence of the Ohio and the Middle Mississippi, the long - term mean discharge of the Ohio at Cairo, Illinois is 281,500 cubic feet per second (7,970 cubic metres per second), while the long - term mean discharge of the Mississippi at Thebes, Illinois (just upriver from Cairo) is 208,200 cu ft / s (5,900 m / s). Thus, by volume, the main branch of the Mississippi River system at Cairo can be considered to be the Ohio River (and the Allegheny River further upstream), rather than the Middle Mississippi. In addition to the Ohio River, the major tributaries of the Lower Mississippi River are the White River, flowing in at the White River National Wildlife Refuge in east central Arkansas; the Arkansas River, joining the Mississippi at Arkansas Post; the Big Black River in Mississippi; and the Yazoo River, meeting the Mississippi at Vicksburg, Mississippi. The widest point of the Mississippi River is in the Lower Mississippi portion where it exceeds 1 mile (1.6 km) in width in several places. Deliberate water diversion at the Old River Control Structure in Louisiana allows the Atchafalaya River in Louisiana to be a major distributary of the Mississippi River, with 30 % of the Mississippi flowing to the Gulf of Mexico by this route, rather than continuing down the Mississippi 's current channel past Baton Rouge and New Orleans on a longer route to the Gulf. Although the Red River is commonly thought to be a tributary, it is actually not, because its water flows separately into the Gulf of Mexico through the Atchafalaya River. The Mississippi River has the world 's fourth - largest drainage basin ("watershed '' or "catchment ''). The basin covers more than 1,245,000 square miles (3,220,000 km), including all or parts of 31 U.S. states and two Canadian provinces. The drainage basin empties into the Gulf of Mexico, part of the Atlantic Ocean. The total catchment of the Mississippi River covers nearly 40 % of the landmass of the continental United States. The highest point within the watershed is also the highest point of the Rocky Mountains, Mount Elbert at 14,440 feet (4,400 m). In the United States, the Mississippi River drains the majority of the area between the crest of the Rocky Mountains and the crest of the Appalachian Mountains, except for various regions drained to Hudson Bay by the Red River of the North; to the Atlantic Ocean by the Great Lakes and the Saint Lawrence River; and to the Gulf of Mexico by the Rio Grande, the Alabama and Tombigbee rivers, the Chattahoochee and Appalachicola rivers, and various smaller coastal waterways along the Gulf. The Mississippi River empties into the Gulf of Mexico about 100 miles (160 km) downstream from New Orleans. Measurements of the length of the Mississippi from Lake Itasca to the Gulf of Mexico vary somewhat, but the United States Geological Survey 's number is 2,320 miles (3,730 km). The retention time from Lake Itasca to the Gulf is typically about 90 days. The Mississippi River discharges at an annual average rate of between 200 and 700 thousand cubic feet per second (7,000 -- 20,000 m / s). Although it is the fifth - largest river in the world by volume, this flow is a small fraction of the output of the Amazon, which moves nearly 7 million cubic feet per second (200,000 m / s) during wet seasons. On average, the Mississippi has only 8 % the flow of the Amazon River. Fresh river water flowing from the Mississippi into the Gulf of Mexico does not mix into the salt water immediately. The images from NASA 's MODIS (to the right) show a large plume of fresh water, which appears as a dark ribbon against the lighter - blue surrounding waters. These images demonstrate that the plume did not mix with the surrounding sea water immediately. Instead, it stayed intact as it flowed through the Gulf of Mexico, into the Straits of Florida, and entered the Gulf Stream. The Mississippi River water rounded the tip of Florida and traveled up the southeast coast to the latitude of Georgia before finally mixing in so thoroughly with the ocean that it could no longer be detected by MODIS. Before 1900, the Mississippi River transported an estimated 400 million metric tons of sediment per year from the interior of the United States to coastal Louisiana and the Gulf of Mexico. During the last two decades, this number was only 145 million metric tons per year. The reduction in sediment transported down the Mississippi River is the result of engineering modification of the Mississippi, Missouri, and Ohio rivers and their tributaries by dams, meander cutoffs, river - training structures, and bank revetments and soil erosion control programs in the areas drained by them. Over geologic time, the Mississippi River has experienced numerous large and small changes to its main course, as well as additions, deletions, and other changes among its numerous tributaries, and the lower Mississippi River has used different pathways as its main channel to the Gulf of Mexico across the delta region. Through a natural process known as avulsion or delta switching, the lower Mississippi River has shifted its final course to the mouth of the Gulf of Mexico every thousand years or so. This occurs because the deposits of silt and sediment begin to clog its channel, raising the river 's level and causing it to eventually find a steeper, more direct route to the Gulf of Mexico. The abandoned distributaries diminish in volume and form what are known as bayous. This process has, over the past 5,000 years, caused the coastline of south Louisiana to advance toward the Gulf from 15 to 50 miles (24 to 80 km). The currently active delta lobe is called the Birdfoot Delta, after its shape, or the Balize Delta, after La Balize, Louisiana, the first French settlement at the mouth of the Mississippi. The current form of the Mississippi River basin was largely shaped by the Laurentide Ice Sheet of the most recent Ice Age. The southernmost extent of this enormous glaciation extended well into the present - day United States and Mississippi basin. When the ice sheet began to recede, hundreds of feet of rich sediment were deposited, creating the flat and fertile landscape of the Mississippi Valley. During the melt, giant glacial rivers found drainage paths into the Mississippi watershed, creating such features as the Minnesota River, James River, and Milk River valleys. When the ice sheet completely retreated, many of these "temporary '' rivers found paths to Hudson Bay or the Arctic Ocean, leaving the Mississippi Basin with many features "oversized '' for the existing rivers to have carved in the same time period. Ice sheets during the Illinoian Stage about 300,000 to 132,000 years before present, blocked the Mississippi near Rock Island, Illinois, diverting it to its present channel farther to the west, the current western border of Illinois. The Hennepin Canal roughly follows the ancient channel of the Mississippi downstream from Rock Island to Hennepin, Illinois. South of Hennepin, to Alton, Illinois, the current Illinois River follows the ancient channel used by the Mississippi River before the Illinoian Stage. Timeline of outflow course changes In March 1876, the Mississippi suddenly changed course near the settlement of Reverie, Tennessee, leaving a small part of Tipton County, Tennessee, attached to Arkansas and separated from the rest of Tennessee by the new river channel. Since this event was an avulsion, rather than the effect of incremental erosion and deposition, the state line still follows the old channel. The town of Kaskaskia, Illinois once stood on a peninsula at the confluence of the Mississippi and Kaskaskia (Okaw) Rivers. Founded as a French colonial community, it later became the capital of the Illinois Territory and was the first state capital of Illinois until 1819. Beginning in 1844, successive flooding caused the Mississippi River to slowly encroach east. A major flood in 1881 caused it to overtake the lower 10 miles of the Kaskaskia River, forming a new Mississippi channel and cutting off the town from the rest of the state. Later flooding destroyed most of the remaining town, including the original State House. Today, the remaining 2,300 acre island and community of 14 residents is known as an enclave of Illinois and is accessible only from the Missouri side. The New Madrid Seismic Zone, along the Mississippi River near New Madrid, Missouri, between Memphis and St. Louis, is related to an aulacogen (failed rift) that formed at the same time as the Gulf of Mexico. This area is still quite active seismically. Four great earthquakes in 1811 and 1812, estimated at approximately 8 on the Richter magnitude scale, had tremendous local effects in the then sparsely settled area, and were felt in many other places in the midwestern and eastern U.S. These earthquakes created Reelfoot Lake in Tennessee from the altered landscape near the river. The Mississippi River runs through or along 10 states, from Minnesota to Louisiana, and was used to define portions of these states ' borders, with Wisconsin, Illinois, Kentucky, Tennessee, and Mississippi along the east side of the river, and Iowa, Missouri, and Arkansas along its west side. Substantial parts of both Minnesota and Louisiana are on either side of the river, although the Mississippi defines part of the boundary of each of these states. In all of these cases, the middle of the riverbed at the time the borders were established was used as the line to define the borders between adjacent states. In various areas, the river has since shifted, but the state borders have not changed, still following the former bed of the Mississippi River as of their establishment, leaving several small isolated areas of one state across the new river channel, contiguous with the adjacent state. Also, due to a meander in the river, a small part of western Kentucky is contiguous with Tennessee, but isolated from the rest of its state. Many of the communities along the Mississippi River are listed below; most have either historic significance or cultural lore connecting them to the river. They are sequenced from the source of the river to its end. The road crossing highest on the Upper Mississippi is a simple steel culvert, through which the river (locally named "Nicolet Creek '') flows north from Lake Nicolet under "Wilderness Road '' to the West Arm of Lake Itasca, within Itasca State Park. The earliest bridge across the Mississippi River was built in 1855. It spanned the river in Minneapolis, Minnesota where the current Hennepin Avenue Bridge is located. No highway or railroad tunnels cross under the Mississippi River. The first railroad bridge across the Mississippi was built in 1856. It spanned the river between the Rock Island Arsenal in Illinois and Davenport, Iowa. Steamboat captains of the day, fearful of competition from the railroads, considered the new bridge a hazard to navigation. Two weeks after the bridge opened, the steamboat Effie Afton rammed part of the bridge, setting it on fire. Legal proceedings ensued, with Abraham Lincoln defending the railroad. The lawsuit went to the Supreme Court of the United States, which ruled in favor of the railroad. Below is a general overview of selected Mississippi bridges which have notable engineering or landmark significance, with their cities or locations. They are sequenced from the Upper Mississippi 's source to the Lower Mississippi 's mouth. A clear channel is needed for the barges and other vessels that make the main stem Mississippi one of the great commercial waterways of the world. The task of maintaining a navigation channel is the responsibility of the United States Army Corps of Engineers, which was established in 1802. Earlier projects began as early as 1829 to remove snags, close off secondary channels and excavate rocks and sandbars. Steamboats entered trade in the 1820s, so the period 1830 -- 1850 became the golden age of steamboats. As there were few roads or rails in the lands of the Louisiana Purchase, river traffic was an ideal solution. Cotton, timber and food came down the river, as did Appalachian coal. The port of New Orleans boomed as it was the trans - shipment point to deep sea ocean vessels. As a result, the image of the twin stacked, wedding cake Mississippi steamer entered into American mythology. Steamers worked the entire route from the trickles of Montana, to the Ohio River; down the Missouri and Tennessee, to the main channel of the Mississippi. Only with the arrival of the railroads in the 1880s did steamboat traffic diminish. Steamboats remained a feature until the 1920s. Most have been superseded by pusher tugs. A few survive as icons -- the Delta Queen and the River Queen for instance. A series of 29 locks and dams on the upper Mississippi, most of which were built in the 1930s, is designed primarily to maintain a 9 - foot - deep (2.7 m) channel for commercial barge traffic. The lakes formed are also used for recreational boating and fishing. The dams make the river deeper and wider but do not stop it. No flood control is intended. During periods of high flow, the gates, some of which are submersible, are completely opened and the dams simply cease to function. Below St. Louis, the Mississippi is relatively free - flowing, although it is constrained by numerous levees and directed by numerous wing dams. On the lower Mississippi, from Baton Rouge to the mouth of the Mississippi, the navigation depth is 45 feet (14 m), allowing container ships and cruise ships to dock at the Port of New Orleans and bulk cargo ships shorter than 150 - foot (46 m) air draft that fit under the Huey P. Long Bridge to traverse the Mississippi to Baton Rouge. There is a feasibility study to dredge this portion of the river to 50 feet (15 m) to allow New Panamax ship depths. In 1829, there were surveys of the two major obstacles on the upper Mississippi, the Des Moines Rapids and the Rock Island Rapids, where the river was shallow and the riverbed was rock. The Des Moines Rapids were about 11 miles (18 km) long and just above the mouth of the Des Moines River at Keokuk, Iowa. The Rock Island Rapids were between Rock Island and Moline, Illinois. Both rapids were considered virtually impassable. In 1848, the Illinois and Michigan Canal was built to connect the Mississippi River to Lake Michigan via the Illinois River near Peru, Illinois. The canal allowed shipping between these important waterways. In 1900, the canal was replaced by the Chicago Sanitary and Ship Canal. The second canal, in addition to shipping, also allowed Chicago to address specific health issues (typhoid fever, cholera and other waterborne diseases) by sending its waste down the Illinois and Mississippi river systems rather than polluting its water source of Lake Michigan. The Corps of Engineers recommended the excavation of a 5 - foot - deep (1.5 m) channel at the Des Moines Rapids, but work did not begin until after Lieutenant Robert E. Lee endorsed the project in 1837. The Corps later also began excavating the Rock Island Rapids. By 1866, it had become evident that excavation was impractical, and it was decided to build a canal around the Des Moines Rapids. The canal opened in 1877, but the Rock Island Rapids remained an obstacle. In 1878, Congress authorized the Corps to establish a 4.5 - foot - deep (1.4 m) channel to be obtained by building wing dams which direct the river to a narrow channel causing it to cut a deeper channel, by closing secondary channels and by dredging. The channel project was complete when the Moline Lock, which bypassed the Rock Island Rapids, opened in 1907. To improve navigation between St. Paul, Minnesota, and Prairie du Chien, Wisconsin, the Corps constructed several dams on lakes in the headwaters area, including Lake Winnibigoshish and Lake Pokegama. The dams, which were built beginning in the 1880s, stored spring run - off which was released during low water to help maintain channel depth. In 1907, Congress authorized a 6 - foot - deep (1.8 m) channel project on the Mississippi, which was not complete when it was abandoned in the late 1920s in favor of the 9 - foot - deep (2.7 m) channel project. In 1913, construction was complete on Lock and Dam No. 19 at Keokuk, Iowa, the first dam below St. Anthony Falls. Built by a private power company (Union Electric Company of St. Louis) to generate electricity (originally for streetcars in St. Louis), the Keokuk dam was one of the largest hydro - electric plants in the world at the time. The dam also eliminated the Des Moines Rapids. Lock and Dam No. 1 was completed in Minneapolis, Minnesota in 1917. Lock and Dam No. 2, near Hastings, Minnesota, was completed in 1930. Before the Great Mississippi Flood of 1927, the Corps 's primary strategy was to close off as many side channels as possible to increase the flow in the main river. It was thought that the river 's velocity would scour off bottom sediments, deepening the river and decreasing the possibility of flooding. The 1927 flood proved this to be so wrong that communities threatened by the flood began to create their own levee breaks to relieve the force of the rising river. The Rivers and Harbors Act of 1930 authorized the 9 - foot (2.7 m) channel project, which called for a navigation channel 9 feet (2.7 m) feet deep and 400 feet (120 m) wide to accommodate multiple - barge tows. This was achieved by a series of locks and dams, and by dredging. Twenty - three new locks and dams were built on the upper Mississippi in the 1930s in addition to the three already in existence. Until the 1950s, there was no dam below Lock and Dam 26 at Alton, Illinois. Chain of Rocks Lock (Lock and Dam No. 27), which consists of a low - water dam and an 8.4 - mile - long (13.5 km) canal, was added in 1953, just below the confluence with the Missouri River, primarily to bypass a series of rock ledges at St. Louis. It also serves to protect the St. Louis city water intakes during times of low water. U.S. government scientists determined in the 1950s that the Mississippi River was starting to switch to the Atchafalaya River channel because of its much steeper path to the Gulf of Mexico. Eventually the Atchafalaya River would capture the Mississippi River and become its main channel to the Gulf of Mexico, leaving New Orleans on a side channel. As a result, the U.S. Congress authorized a project called the Old River Control Structure, which has prevented the Mississippi River from leaving its current channel that drains into the Gulf via New Orleans. Because the large scale of high - energy water flow threatened to damage the structure, an auxiliary flow control station was built adjacent to the standing control station. This $300 million project was completed in 1986 by the Corps of Engineers. Beginning in the 1970s, the Corps applied hydrological transport models to analyze flood flow and water quality of the Mississippi. Dam 26 at Alton, Illinois, which had structural problems, was replaced by the Mel Price Lock and Dam in 1990. The original Lock and Dam 26 was demolished. The Corps now actively creates and maintains spillways and floodways to divert periodic water surges into backwater channels and lakes, as well as route part of the Mississippi 's flow into the Atchafalaya Basin and from there to the Gulf of Mexico, bypassing Baton Rouge and New Orleans. The main structures are the Birds Point - New Madrid Floodway in Missouri; the Old River Control Structure and the Morganza Spillway in Louisiana, which direct excess water down the west and east sides (respectively) of the Atchafalaya River; and the Bonnet Carré Spillway, also in Louisiana, which directs floodwaters to Lake Pontchartrain (see diagram). Some experts blame urban sprawl for increases in both the risk and frequency of flooding on the Mississippi River. Some of the pre-1927 strategy is still in use today, with the Corps actively cutting the necks of horseshoe bends, allowing the water to move faster and reducing flood heights. The area of the Mississippi River basin was first settled by hunting and gathering Native American peoples and is considered one of the few independent centers of plant domestication in human history. Evidence of early cultivation of sunflower, a goosefoot, a marsh elder and an indigenous squash dates to the 4th millennium BCE. The lifestyle gradually became more settled after around 1000 BCE during what is now called the Woodland period, with increasing evidence of shelter construction, pottery, weaving and other practices. A network of trade routes referred to as the Hopewell interaction sphere was active along the waterways between about 200 and 500 CE, spreading common cultural practices over the entire area between the Gulf of Mexico and the Great Lakes. A period of more isolated communities followed, and agriculture introduced from Mesoamerica based on the Three Sisters (maize, beans and squash) gradually came to dominate. After around 800 CE there arose an advanced agricultural society today referred to as the Mississippian culture, with evidence of highly stratified complex chiefdoms and large population centers. The most prominent of these, now called Cahokia, was occupied between about 600 and 1400 CE and at its peak numbered between 8,000 and 40,000 inhabitants, larger than London, England of that time. At the time of first contact with Europeans, Cahokia and many other Mississippian cities had dispersed, and archaeological finds attest to increased social stress. Modern American Indian nations inhabiting the Mississippi basin include Cheyenne, Sioux, Ojibwe, Potawatomi, Ho - Chunk, Fox, Kickapoo, Tamaroa, Moingwena, Quapaw and Chickasaw. The word Mississippi itself comes from Messipi, the French rendering of the Anishinaabe (Ojibwe or Algonquin) name for the river, Misi - ziibi (Great River). The Ojibwe called Lake Itasca Omashkoozo - zaaga'igan (Elk Lake) and the river flowing out of it Omashkoozo - ziibi (Elk River). After flowing into Lake Bemidji, the Ojibwe called the river Bemijigamaag - ziibi (River from the Traversing Lake). After flowing into Cass Lake, the name of the river changes to Gaa - miskwaawaakokaag - ziibi (Red Cedar River) and then out of Lake Winnibigoshish as Wiinibiigoonzhish - ziibi (Miserable Wretched Dirty Water River), Gichi - ziibi (Big River) after the confluence with the Leech Lake River, then finally as Misi - ziibi (Great River) after the confluence with the Crow Wing River. After the expeditions by Giacomo Beltrami and Henry Schoolcraft, the longest stream above the juncture of the Crow Wing River and Gichi - ziibi was named "Mississippi River ''. The Mississippi River Band of Chippewa Indians, known as the Gichi - ziibiwininiwag, are named after the stretch of the Mississippi River known as the Gichi - ziibi. The Cheyenne, one of the earliest inhabitants of the upper Mississippi River, called it the Máʼxe - éʼometaaʼe (Big Greasy River) in the Cheyenne language. The Arapaho name for the river is Beesniicíe. The Pawnee name is Kickaátit. The Mississippi was spelled Mississipi or Missisipi during French Louisiana and was also known as the Rivière Saint - Louis. On May 8, 1541, Spanish explorer Hernando de Soto became the first recorded European to reach the Mississippi River, which he called Río del Espíritu Santo ("River of the Holy Spirit ''), in the area of what is now Mississippi. In Spanish, the river is called Río Mississippi. French explorers Louis Jolliet and Jacques Marquette began exploring the Mississippi in the 17th century. Marquette traveled with a Sioux Indian who named it Ne Tongo ("Big river '' in Sioux language) in 1673. Marquette proposed calling it the River of the Immaculate Conception. When Louis Jolliet explored the Mississippi Valley in the 17th century, natives guided him to a quicker way to return to French Canada via the Illinois River. When he found the Chicago Portage, he remarked that a canal of "only half a league '' (less than 2 miles (3.2 km), 3 km) would join the Mississippi and the Great Lakes. In 1848, the continental divide separating the waters of the Great Lakes and the Mississippi Valley was breached by the Illinois and Michigan canal via the Chicago River. This both accelerated the development, and forever changed the ecology of the Mississippi Valley and the Great Lakes. In 1682, René - Robert Cavelier, Sieur de La Salle and Henri de Tonti claimed the entire Mississippi River Valley for France, calling the river Colbert River after Jean - Baptiste Colbert and the region La Louisiane, for King Louis XIV. On March 2, 1699, Pierre Le Moyne d'Iberville rediscovered the mouth of the Mississippi, following the death of La Salle. The French built the small fort of La Balise there to control passage. In 1718, about 100 miles (160 km) upriver, New Orleans was established along the river crescent by Jean - Baptiste Le Moyne, Sieur de Bienville, with construction patterned after the 1711 resettlement on Mobile Bay of Mobile, the capital of French Louisiana at the time. Following Britain 's victory in the Seven Years War the Mississippi became the border between the British and Spanish Empires. The Treaty of Paris (1763) gave Great Britain rights to all land east of the Mississippi and Spain rights to land west of the Mississippi. Spain also ceded Florida to Britain to regain Cuba, which the British occupied during the war. Britain then divided the territory into East and West Florida. Article 8 of the Treaty of Paris (1783) states, "The navigation of the river Mississippi, from its source to the ocean, shall forever remain free and open to the subjects of Great Britain and the citizens of the United States ''. With this treaty, which ended the American Revolutionary War, Britain also ceded West Florida back to Spain to regain the Bahamas, which Spain had occupied during the war. In 1800, under duress from Napoleon of France, Spain ceded an undefined portion of West Florida to France. When France then sold the Louisiana Territory to the U.S. in 1803, a dispute arose again between Spain and the U.S. on which parts of West Florida exactly had Spain ceded to France, which would in turn decide which parts of West Florida were now U.S. property versus Spanish property. These aspirations ended when Spain was pressured into signing Pinckney 's Treaty in 1795. France reacquired ' Louisiana ' from Spain in the secret Treaty of San Ildefonso in 1800. The United States then secured effective control of the river when it bought the Louisiana Territory from France in the Louisiana Purchase of 1803. The last serious European challenge to U.S. control of the river came at the conclusion of War of 1812 when British forces mounted an attack on New Orleans -- the attack was repulsed by an American army under the command of General Andrew Jackson. In the Treaty of 1818, the U.S. and Great Britain agreed to fix the border running from the Lake of the Woods to the Rocky Mountains along the 49th parallel north. In effect, the U.S. ceded the northwestern extremity of the Mississippi basin to the British in exchange for the southern portion of the Red River basin. So many settlers traveled westward through the Mississippi river basin, as well as settled in it, that Zadok Cramer wrote a guide book called The Navigator, detailing the features and dangers and navigable waterways of the area. It was so popular that he updated and expanded it through 12 editions over a period of 25 years. The colonization of the area was barely slowed by the three earthquakes in 1811 and 1812, estimated at approximately 8 on the Richter magnitude scale, that were centered near New Madrid, Missouri. Mark Twain 's book, Life on the Mississippi, covered the steamboat commerce which took place from 1830 to 1870 on the river before more modern ships replaced the steamer. The book was published first in serial form in Harper 's Weekly in seven parts in 1875. The full version, including a passage from the then unfinished Adventures of Huckleberry Finn and works from other authors, was published by James R. Osgood & Company in 1885. The first steamboat to travel the full length of the Lower Mississippi from the Ohio River to New Orleans was the New Orleans in December 1811. Its maiden voyage occurred during the series of New Madrid earthquakes in 1811 -- 12. The Upper Mississippi was treacherous, unpredictable and to make traveling worse, the area was not properly mapped out or surveyed. Until the 1840s only two trips a year to the Twin Cities landings were made by steamboats which suggests it was not very profitable. Steamboat transport remained a viable industry, both in terms of passengers and freight until the end of the first decade of the 20th century. Among the several Mississippi River system steamboat companies was the noted Anchor Line, which, from 1859 to 1898, operated a luxurious fleet of steamers between St. Louis and New Orleans. Italian explorer Giacomo Beltrami, wrote about his journey on the Virginia, which was the first steam boat to make it to Fort St. Anthony in Minnesota. He referred to his voyage as a promenade that was once a journey on the Mississippi. The steamboat era changed the economic and political life of the Mississippi, as well as the nature of travel itself. The Mississippi was completely changed by the steamboat era as it transformed into a flourishing tourists trade. Control of the river was a strategic objective of both sides in the American Civil War. In 1862 Union forces coming down the river successfully cleared Confederate defenses at Island Number 10 and Memphis, Tennessee, while Naval forces coming upriver from the Gulf of Mexico captured New Orleans, Louisiana. The remaining major Confederate stronghold was on the heights overlooking the river at Vicksburg, Mississippi, and the Union 's Vicksburg Campaign (December 1862 to July 1863), and the fall of Port Hudson, completed control of the lower Mississippi River. The Union victory ending the Siege of Vicksburg on July 4, 1863, was pivotal to the Union 's final victory of the Civil War. The "Big Freeze '' of 1918 -- 19 blocked river traffic north of Memphis, Tennessee, preventing transportation of coal from southern Illinois. This resulted in widespread shortages, high prices, and rationing of coal in January and February. In the spring of 1927, the river broke out of its banks in 145 places, during the Great Mississippi Flood of 1927 and inundated 27,000 sq mi (70,000 km) to a depth of up to 30 feet (9.1 m). In 1962 and 1963, industrial accidents spilled 3.5 million US gallons (13,000,000 L) of soybean oil into the Mississippi and Minnesota rivers. The oil covered the Mississippi River from St. Paul to Lake Pepin, creating an ecological disaster and a demand to control water pollution. On October 20, 1976, the automobile ferry, MV George Prince, was struck by a ship traveling upstream as the ferry attempted to cross from Destrehan, Louisiana, to Luling, Louisiana. Seventy - eight passengers and crew died; only eighteen survived the accident. In 1988, the water level of the Mississippi fell to 10 feet (3.0 m) below zero on the Memphis gauge. The remains of wooden - hulled water craft were exposed in an area of 4.5 acres (18,000 m) on the bottom of the Mississippi River at West Memphis, Arkansas. They dated to the late 19th to early 20th centuries. The State of Arkansas, the Arkansas Archeological Survey, and the Arkansas Archeological Society responded with a two - month data recovery effort. The fieldwork received national media attention as good news in the middle of a drought. The Great Flood of 1993 was another significant flood, primarily affecting the Mississippi above its confluence with the Ohio River at Cairo, Illinois. Two portions of the Mississippi were designated as American Heritage Rivers in 1997: the lower portion around Louisiana and Tennessee, and the upper portion around Iowa, Illinois, Minnesota and Missouri. The Nature Conservancy 's project called "America 's Rivershed Initiative '' announced a ' report card ' assessment of the entire basin in October 2015 and gave the grade of D+. The assessment noted the aging navigation and flood control infrastructure along with multiple environmental problems. In 2002, Slovenian long - distance swimmer Martin Strel swam the entire length of the river, from Minnesota to Louisiana, over the course of 68 days. In 2005, the Source to Sea Expedition paddled the Mississippi and Atchafalaya Rivers to benefit the Audubon Society 's Upper Mississippi River Campaign. Geologists believe that the lower Mississippi could take a new course to the Gulf. Either of two new routes -- through the Atchafalaya Basin or through Lake Pontchartrain -- might become the Mississippi 's main channel if flood - control structures are overtopped or heavily damaged during a severe flood. Failure of the Old River Control Structure, the Morganza Spillway, or nearby levees would likely re-route the main channel of the Mississippi through Louisiana 's Atchafalaya Basin and down the Atchafalaya River to reach the Gulf of Mexico south of Morgan City in southern Louisiana. This route provides a more direct path to the Gulf of Mexico than the present Mississippi River channel through Baton Rouge and New Orleans. While the risk of such a diversion is present during any major flood event, such a change has so far been prevented by active human intervention involving the construction, maintenance, and operation of various levees, spillways, and other control structures by the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers. The Old River Control Structure, between the present Mississippi River channel and the Atchafalaya Basin, sits at the normal water elevation and is ordinarily used to divert 30 % of the Mississippi 's flow to the Atchafalaya River. There is a steep drop here away from the Mississippi 's main channel into the Atchafalaya Basin. If this facility were to fail during a major flood, there is a strong concern the water would scour and erode the river bottom enough to capture the Mississippi 's main channel. The structure was nearly lost during the 1973 flood, but repairs and improvements were made after engineers studied the forces at play. In particular, the Corps of Engineers made many improvements and constructed additional facilities for routing water through the vicinity. These additional facilities give the Corps much more flexibility and potential flow capacity than they had in 1973, which further reduces the risk of a catastrophic failure in this area during other major floods, such as that of 2011. Because the Morganza Spillway is slightly higher and well back from the river, it is normally dry on both sides. Even if it failed at the crest during a severe flood, the flood waters would have to erode to normal water levels before the Mississippi could permanently jump channel at this location. During the 2011 floods, the Corps of Engineers opened the Morganza Spillway to 1 / 4 of its capacity to allow 150,000 ft / sec of water to flood the Morganza and Atchafalaya floodways and continue directly to the Gulf of Mexico, bypassing Baton Rouge and New Orleans. In addition to reducing the Mississippi River crest downstream, this diversion reduced the chances of a channel change by reducing stress on the other elements of the control system. Some geologists have noted that the possibility for course change into the Atchafalaya also exists in the area immediately north of the Old River Control Structure. Army Corps of Engineers geologist Fred Smith once stated, "The Mississippi wants to go west. 1973 was a forty - year flood. The big one lies out there somewhere -- when the structures ca n't release all the floodwaters and the levee is going to have to give way. That is when the river 's going to jump its banks and try to break through. '' Another possible course change for the Mississippi River is a diversion into Lake Pontchartrain near New Orleans. This route is controlled by the Bonnet Carré Spillway, built to reduce flooding in New Orleans. This spillway and an imperfect natural levee about 4 -- 6 meters (12 to 20 feet) high are all that prevents the Mississippi from taking a new, shorter course through Lake Pontchartrain to the Gulf of Mexico. Diversion of the Mississippi 's main channel through Lake Pontchartrain would have consequences similar to an Atchafalaya diversion, but to a lesser extent, since the present river channel would remain in use past Baton Rouge and into the New Orleans area. The sport of water skiing was invented on the river in a wide region between Minnesota and Wisconsin known as Lake Pepin. Ralph Samuelson of Lake City, Minnesota, created and refined his skiing technique in late June and early July 1922. He later performed the first water ski jump in 1925 and was pulled along at 80 mph (130 km / h) by a Curtiss flying boat later that year. There are seven National Park Service sites along the Mississippi River. The Mississippi National River and Recreation Area is the National Park Service site dedicated to protecting and interpreting the Mississippi River itself. The other six National Park Service sites along the river are (listed from north to south): The Mississippi basin is home to a highly diverse aquatic fauna and has been called the "mother fauna '' of North American fresh water. About 375 fish species are known from the Mississippi basin, far exceeding other North Hemisphere river basin exclusively within temperate / subtropical regions, except the Yangtze. Within the Mississippi basin, streams that have their source in the Appalachian and Ozark highlands contain especially many species. Among the fish species in the basin are numerous endemics, as well as relicts such as paddlefish, sturgeon, gar and bowfin. Because of its size and high species diversity, the Mississippi basin is often divided into subregions. The Upper Mississippi River alone is home to about 120 fish species, including walleye, sauger, large mouth bass, small mouth bass, white bass, northern pike, bluegill, crappie, channel catfish, flathead catfish, common shiner, freshwater drum and shovelnose sturgeon. In addition to fish, several species of turtles (such as snapping, musk, mud, map, cooter, painted and softshell turtles), American alligator, aquatic amphibians (such as hellbender, mudpuppy, three - toed amphiuma and lesser siren), and cambarid crayfish (such as the red swamp crayfish) are native to the Mississippi basin. Numerous introduced species are found in the Mississippi and some of these are invasive. Among the introductions are fish such as Asian carp, including the silver carp that have become infamous for outcompeting native fish and their potentially dangerous jumping behavior. They have spread throughout much of the basin, even approaching (but not yet invading) the Great Lakes. The Minnesota Department of Natural Resources has designated much of the Mississippi River in the state as infested waters by the exotic species zebra mussels and Eurasian watermilfoil.

who sings that song you're going to miss me when i'm gone

Cups (song) - wikipedia "Cups '' is a version of the 1931 Carter Family song "When I 'm Gone '', usually performed a cappella with a cup used to provide percussion, as in the cup game. It was first performed this way in a YouTube video by Luisa Gerstein and Heloise Tunstall - Behrens as Lulu and The Lampshades in 2009 (under the title "You 're Gonna Miss Me ''). Composition of the song is credited to A.P. Carter and Luisa Gerstein of Lulu and the Lampshades. The song became popular after it was performed by Anna Kendrick in the 2012 film Pitch Perfect. That version also became the official theme song of the 2013 CONCACAF Gold Cup tournament. The original song "When I 'm Gone '' was written by A.P. Carter, then recorded in 1931 by the Carter Family (not to be confused with their 1928 song "Will You Miss Me When I 'm Gone? ''). The song was reworked in 1937 by J.E. Mainer. Over the years it has been recorded by many people including Mainer 's Mountaineers and Charlie Monroe. In 1940 it was released by Elizabeth Cotten. A vocalist and guitar player. It can also be heard in the film Dan in Real Life. Lulu and the Lampshades were the first to perform the song using the cup game for percussion. Anna Burden made her own version of the Lulu on Youtube and the Lamspshades video that was discovered by Reddit, and where Anna Kendrick learned the routine, prompting dozens of other Youtube users to submit cover versions of the song using the Cup Clap technique. It was soon dubbed The Cup Song. The song is also used for the theme song for the BBC Two sitcom ' Mum ' starring Lesley Manville. Though the song had been popular online for years, mainstream success came when it was incorporated into the film Pitch Perfect in 2012. In the film it is performed by the main character, Beca Mitchell (Anna Kendrick) during an audition for a college a cappella group. Unlike the soundtrack version, the single version of the song was re-produced with additional instrumentation (notably the banjo) by American Music Award - winning music producer Ali Dee Theodore, Jordan Yaeger and Harvey Mason, Jr... The single version was extended by an additional minute. Prior to the single 's release, covers of the song as well as tutorials on how to do the song (using cups) went viral. Kendrick has stated that she learned the song and its cup percussion from watching and doing it many times on Reddit prior to being cast in Pitch Perfect, and it was therefore written into the film. Prior to the song 's release as a single in March 2013, the song debuted at number 93 on the Billboard Hot 100 for the week ending January 12, 2013. Afterward, the single was released and the song began a slow but steady ascent up the chart. In its 32nd week on the chart, the song reached number 6, its peak position to date. By October 2013, all versions of the song had sold 2.5 million downloads in the US. On May 4, 2013, "Cups '' returned to the top 50 of the ARIA Charts at a new peak of number 44, achieved in part due to the DVD of Pitch Perfect being released in Australia on April 13, 2013. It originally made it to number 48 in January 2013. The song 's music video was shot in the fourth week of March 2013, and it was directed by Pitch Perfect 's director Jason Moore. It was released on April 12, 2013 on Anna Kendrick 's Vevo channel; as of February 2018, it has over 400 million views. It opens with Anna Kendrick in a restaurant 's kitchen cutting dough into biscuits with a styrene - acrylonitrile pebbled tumbler, while looking up longingly at some postcards of far - away places, such as Scotland and Paris, stuck to the refrigerator. She puts the biscuits in the oven, sets a timer, and dusts her hands off with an oscillating fan, before pausing a moment, and then starting the song using the cup on the table. In a long continuous shot, she washes her hands, takes a plate of food from the chef, and makes her way out into the dining area, where all the customers are drumming the cups in various ways. The camera then follows her singing while collecting dirty dishes and cleaning tables, before it pans around and back out wide, showing the entire diner synchronously doing the routine during the bridge section. It then cuts back to her walking back to the kitchen, passing the chef now drumming with a cup instead of wooden utensils, and follows back to her at the table. The timer rings as the song ends, and she looks back up, out towards the dining area where everyone is now normal, realizing it was all her imagination. Taking one last look at the chef, she smiles and exits through the back door. sales figures based on certification alone shipments figures based on certification alone Since May 2013 RIAA certifications for digital singles include on - demand audio and / or video song streams in addition to downloads. The Maccabeats, a Jewish a capella group from Yeshiva University, covered Kendrick 's version and parodied her music video with group members sitting around a Shabbat table singing the Shabbat morning table song "D'ror Yikra '' while performing the cups routine.

colloids and surfaces a physicochem. eng. aspects impact factor

Colloids and Surfaces a - wikipedia Colloids and Surfaces A: Physicochemical and Engineering Aspects is a peer - reviewed scientific journal publishing research on the science related to applications of colloids and interfacial phenomena. The journal has been published since 1980 as Colloids and Surfaces and subsequently split in 1993 into Colloids and Surfaces A and Colloids and Surfaces B. The journal is published biweekly by Elsevier and jointly edited by M. Adler, F. Grieser, J.B. Li and D. Prieve

is there going to be a wwe draft in 2017

WWE draft - wikipedia The WWE draft is a process used by professional wrestling promotion WWE to provide new brand competition and to refresh its rosters. The draft was first used during the brand extension of 2002, though it was officially incepted and used in 2004. Since the inception of the process, it has been referred to as the WWE draft lottery (2004 -- 2005) and later simplified to the "draft '' (2007 -- 2011). Starting in 2005, the draft took place during the month of June; it was held in April between 2009 and 2011. After that, WWE terminated the brand split and promotion of interbrand competition from 2011 to 2016. On May 25, 2016, due to SmackDown moving to Tuesdays and to a live broadcast starting July 19, necessitating a brand extension, WWE announced that the draft would be returning. It would later be announced that the 2016 WWE draft would take place on July 19 during SmackDown 's first live broadcast, which was also the first time that the draft took place on SmackDown. The 2017 draft was labeled the Superstar Shake - up as instead of a traditional draft, the general managers of Raw and SmackDown could trade and make deals between their respective talent. During the 2002 draft, Undisputed WWE Champion Triple H and Women 's Champion Jazz were ineligible to be drafted as, at the time, their respective services were deemed available to both brands. The rest of the champions, however, were eligible to be drafted to either brand 's roster. The first half of the draft was televised live on TNN for two hours, as part of the WWF 's flagship program, Raw. The second half was conducted over the Internet on WWF 's official website, WWF.com. There were thirty draft picks, with sixty superstars drafted overall by co-owners of the WWF, onto their respective brands, Raw and SmackDown. The remaining superstars were divided randomly in a draft lottery, with each brand receiving a grand total of thirty superstars. A draft did not occur in 2003, with the second official draft occurring in 2004. The draft took place live for two hours on WWE 's flagship television program, Raw on Spike TV. Post-draft trades were announced on WWE 's official website, WWE.com, until midnight on March 22, 2004. There were twelve draft picks, with nineteen superstars overall switching between the promotion 's two brands: Raw and SmackDown. During the draft lottery, the General manager of Raw, Eric Bischoff, and the General manager of SmackDown!, Paul Heyman, stood on opposite ends of the stage on the Raw set, where they drafted six superstars randomly via two machines. At the conclusion of the draft, the two GMs would then be allowed to trade anyone on the roster until Midnight EST, which was later extended until Tuesday night after Heyman resigned. Every WWE employee was eligible to be drafted, including injured superstars, commentators, champions, and general managers. During the 2005 draft, WWE Champion John Cena was drafted to Raw and kept his championship. General Manager Theodore Long announced that a new SmackDown Championship was to be created but the idea was abandoned when World Heavyweight Champion Batista was drafted to SmackDown, bringing the title with him. There were ten draft picks and an eleven - person trade conducted between the promotion 's two brands: Raw and SmackDown, where twenty - two superstars were drafted and traded overall. The draft took place on WWE 's two - hour television programs, Raw, which aired on Spike TV, and SmackDown!, which aired on UPN. Post-draft trades were announced on WWE 's official website, WWE.com. The draft picks were announced each Monday on Raw and each Thursday on SmackDown! from June 6 to June 30. Each draftee was drafted at random. Every Superstar and Diva from Raw and SmackDown! was eligible to be drafted, including announcers, commentators, and general managers. There was no Raw and SmackDown draft in 2006, however, ECW became a third brand. The draft featured ECW representative Paul Heyman receiving two total draft picks from the existing SmackDown and Raw rosters for the newly created ECW brand. During the 2007 draft, ECW World Champion Bobby Lashley was stripped of the title after being drafted to Raw. The first half of the draft was televised live for three hours on World Wrestling Entertainment 's flagship program, Raw on USA Network. The second half of the draft, or the "supplemental draft '', was conducted over WWE 's website, WWE.com, for four hours on June 17, 2007 as draft picks were announced at twenty - minute intervals. There were twenty - three draft picks, with twenty - seven wrestlers drafted overall, between the promotion 's three brands: Raw, SmackDown, and ECW. For the televised half of the draft, each brand 's draft pick was determined by nine matches, one being a battle royal for two draft picks, where wrestlers from their respective brands wrestled to earn a draft pick. The supplemental draft, however, was conducted randomly, with each brand receiving random draft selections. Raw and SmackDown! received five random draft picks, while ECW received three random draft picks. The televised draft picks were randomly selected by a computer that was shown on the Raw titantron. Every WWE wrestler from Raw, SmackDown!, and ECW was eligible to be drafted. During the 2008 draft, Matt Hardy was drafted to ECW with his United States Championship, Triple H was drafted to SmackDown with his WWE Championship, and Kane was drafted to Raw with his ECW Championship. The draft took place live for three hours on Raw. Every WWE employee, diva, announcer, commentator and general manager were eligible to be drafted. Similar to the 2007 WWE Draft, wrestlers from each brand competed in matches to win a random draft pick for their brand. Draft picks were kayfabe selected at random via a computer that was shown on the Raw titantron. Like the previous year, a supplemental draft took place on June 25, where draft selections were randomly conducted. During the 2009 draft, Unified WWE Tag Team Champions The Colóns (Carlito and Primo), Divas Champion Maryse, United States Champion MVP, and WWE Champion Triple H were drafted to Raw, while Women 's Champion Melina and Intercontinental Champion Rey Mysterio were drafted to SmackDown. The draft took place over two days: the first day was televised live for three hours on April 13; the second part, the "supplemental draft '', was held on April 13. The first day was broadcast on WWE 's program Raw, and the supplemental draft was available on the Internet, at WWE 's official website. The televised portion was held in Atlanta, Georgia at Philips Arena. The 2009 WWE draft marked the third time that the Raw, SmackDown, and ECW brands were featured in the draft; wrestlers, general managers and commentators were all eligible to be drafted from the company 's roster. For the televised half, matches determined which brand received a random draft selection. During the supplemental draft, brand and employee selections were made at random. Overall, 36 draft selections were made, the most since the original draft in 2002 (which featured 57 selections). Twelve selections were made on television; six were made by Raw, five by SmackDown, and one by ECW. All of the draftees were wrestlers: 28 males (10 drafted on television) and 8 females (2 drafted on television). Before the 2010 draft, the ECW brand was disbanded, and therefore the draft was one again only Raw and SmackDown. During the draft, Unified WWE Tag Team Champions The Hart Dynasty (Tyson Kidd and David Hart Smith) were drafted to Raw. The draft took place over two days: the first day was televised live for three hours on April 26, and the second part, the "supplemental draft '', was held on April 27. The first day was broadcast on WWE 's Monday night program Raw, and the supplemental draft was available on WWE 's official website. The televised portion was held at Richmond Coliseum in Richmond, Virginia. During the 2011 draft, United States Champion Sheamus was drafted to SmackDown. The draft aired live on Raw, for two hours in Raleigh, North Carolina from the RBC Center. As a standard for previous drafts, most on - air personnel were eligible to be drafted. A continuation of the draft took place on WWE 's official website at 12: 00pm Eastern time on the following afternoon. SmackDown received 16 additional members to its roster while Raw received 13. For the first time in draft history, two of the draft picks consisted of the same wrestler (John Cena) being selected to SmackDown with the first pick and back to Raw with the last televised pick. With the end of the first brand extension in August 2011, no drafts were held until the brand extension was brought back in 2016. During the 2016 draft, SmackDown drafted WWE Champion Dean Ambrose and Intercontinental Champion The Miz (along with his wife Maryse), while Raw drafted Women 's Champion Charlotte, United States Champion Rusev (along with his wife Lana), and WWE Tag Team Champions The New Day. During the 2017 WWE Superstar Shake - up, Intercontinental Champion Dean Ambrose and the championship moved to Raw, while United States Champion Kevin Owens and the championship moved to SmackDown. On the April 3 episode of Raw, WWE Chairman Vince McMahon announced that on the April 10 and April 11 episodes of Raw and SmackDown Live, respectively, "it 's time to shake things up around here '', effectively announcing the 2017 draft, or what was labeled the "Superstar Shake - up ''. Instead of a traditional draft, Raw General Manager Kurt Angle and SmackDown General Manager Daniel Bryan had the "opportunity to make trades, deals and other moves that they (felt) fit ''.

queens of the stone age villains album cover meaning

Villains (Queens of the Stone Age album) - wikipedia Villains is the seventh studio album by American rock band Queens of the Stone Age, released on August 25, 2017 through Matador. The album was announced on June 14, with a teaser trailer taking the form of a comedy skit featuring the band performing a polygraph test with Liam Lynch. The first single, "The Way You Used to Do '', was released the following day along with the announcement of a world tour. Villains does not feature any guest musicians unlike the band 's previous albums. Several of the songs from the album were previewed in some form prior to its release. The album 's final track, "Villains of Circumstance '', was first premiered by Homme in 2014 at an acoustic concert for James Lavelle 's Meltdown Festival, while "The Evil Has Landed '' was performed by the band during their first gig of 2017 on June 22 at The Rapids Theatre in Niagara Falls, New York. "The Evil Has Landed '' was released as a single on August 10, 2017. In addition to this, several snippets of songs have been featured in teaser trailers released online in promotion of the album, including a short clip of the album 's opening track, "Feet Do n't Fail Me '', as well as an a cappella from the intro to the same song. The album has been described as "a little looser and more uptempo than their last release... Like Clockwork and "more carefree ''. Josh Homme cites his interest in dancing, working with Mark Ronson, and the song, "Uptown Funk '' for the direction of the album. Kory Grow of Rolling Stone notes, "While the guitars still have the limber crunch of Queens albums past, they 're playing around easy - breezy disco beats and chilly synths on songs like "Feet Do n't Fail Me '' and "Un-Reborn Again. '' '' The cover art for Villains was designed by graphic artist Boneface, who designed the artwork for Queens of the Stone Age 's previous album,... Like Clockwork. It was the first time that the band had returned to an artist to request artwork on a subsequent album. In an interview with the Juxtapoz magazine, Boneface talked about returning to create a cover for the album and his working relationship with Josh Homme. In the article he stated that, "Returning was honestly a pretty daunting task. People seemed to like all the artwork I did for the last album, so I felt I had something to live up to. Also, the fact that QOTSA tend to use a different artist for each album cover made it kind of special that they decided to use me again. I think Josh likened our relationship to Hunter S. Thompson and Ralph Steadman in the initial rallying call. So after I 'd decided to plunge back into the QOTSA jacuzzi, I started work the way I usually do, just trying to create something cool. I did a bunch of preliminary drawings before I 'd heard any new songs or we 'd even talk about the album, and one of those sketches actually ended up being the basis for the album cover. '' Each band member was given their own artwork, with Homme 's on the front cover, and the rest of the band members on the back. An alternate vinyl cover that was released exclusively through independent record stores had a light blue tint over the image, gave Josh Homme a bloody nose, and the devil behind Homme giving two middle fingers. In the Billboard charting week of September 3, 2017, Villains was the No. 3 album on the Billboard 200 upon its first week of release, selling 73,000 equivalent units, and 69,000 in traditional album sales. It was also the best selling album of the week, starting at No. 1 on the Top Album Sales chart. Villains received favorable reviews upon release. According to Metacritic which assigns a normalized rating out of 100 to reviews from mainstream critics, the album received a score of 81, based on 30 reviews, indicating ' universal acclaim '. Giving the album four out of five, AllMusic editor Stephen Thomas Erlewine claimed that "At this stage, Queens of the Stone Age do n't have many new tricks in their bag, but their consummate skill -- accentuated by the fact that this is the first QOTSA album that features just the band alone, not even augmented by Mark Lanegan -- means they know when to ratchet up the tempo, when to slide into a mechanical grind, and when to sharpen hooks so they puncture cleanly. All that makes Villains a dark joy, a record that offers visceral pleasure in its winking menace. '' In his review for Rolling Stone, Will Hermes wrote, "Queens of the Stone Age always sounded like the best glam - band name ever, and while Josh Homme 's free - ranging heavy rock hypnotists were never quite that, they come as close as ever on Villains. '' In a more reserved review for Pitchfork, contributor Zoe Camp concluded that, "Villains is n't always so smooth and several sections fall flat, like the staccato - spiked funk that surfaces midway through "The Evil Has Landed '' or the melodically static refrains on "Fortress. '' Nevertheless, the stalled moments do n't detract from the fun of the ride. Queens ' final destination is what matters -- and a beeline into the unknown sure beats another go at the merry - go - round. Villains reaffirms what makes this band so special to begin with: their willingness to blow up the status quo as established by their riff - rock brethren, and even themselves. '' Amongst the most critical reviews was an article by Will Butler for Under the Radar. In the review, Butler claimed "It 'll be of concern to Queens purists that Villains pulls from sounds that expired a decade ago and beyond. Dwelling on better times of a bygone era is a fundamental pillar of escapism, but it 's disconcerting when one of the most uncompromising, forward - thinking bands in the rock pantheon leans so heavily on what worked in the past that they forget that the onus is on them to innovate. '' All music composed by Queens of the Stone Age. All lyrics written by Josh Homme. Queens of the Stone Age Additional personnel Production and design sales figures based on certification alone shipments figures based on certification alone

great big gobs of greasy grimey gopher guts

Great green gobs of greasy, grimy gopher guts - wikipedia The song "Great Green Gobs of Greasy, Grimy Gopher Guts '' is a children 's public domain playground song popular throughout the United States. Dating back to at least the mid-20th century, the song is sung to the tune of "The Old Gray Mare ''. The song, especially popular in school lunchrooms and at summer camps, presents macabre horrors through cheerful comedy while allowing children to explore taboo images and words especially as they relate to standards of cleanliness and dining. Many local and regional variations of the lyrics exist, but whatever variant, they always entail extensive use of the literary phonetic device known as an alliteration which helps to provide an amusing description of animal body parts and fluids not normally consumed by Americans. The song appears on the Smithsonian Folkways compilation release entitled A Fish That 's A Song, a collection of traditional public domain children 's songs from the United States performed by Mika Seeger. The Smithsonian release appears to be derived from an earlier 1959 release entitled The Sounds Of Camp. The lyrics performed by Mika Seeger are as follows: We are smarter than you think (well, some) Lyrics of a more extensive version from New York City was in use during the 1990s as follows: The following version was sung in the mid-1950s in the Shadyside and East Liberty neighborhoods of Pittsburgh, Pennsylvania. This alternate Pittsburgh version was sung in the 1980s in the Shadyside and East Liberty neighborhoods of Pittsburgh, Pennsylvania, as well as the eastern suburbs. Another suburban Pittsburgh variant of the song dated near c. 2005 As made popular by local Atlanta comedian Daniel Weinstein in 1970s This version was sung in the 1960s and 70s, in the Livingston area. Great green gobs of greasy grimy gopher guts, Mutilated monkey meat, French fried parakeet, All mixed together with fuzzy wuzz y beetle brains That 's what we had for lunch. Bizarre Foods America rap version Bizarre Foods America, a cooking show which began airing in 2012 on cable television 's Travel Channel, uses a hip - hop version for its theme song. The rapped lyrics are backed by keyboards and electronically produced drum beats. North Central Illinois version circa 1970 's Great green gobs of greasy grimy gopher guts, Mutilated monkey meat, Little birdies dirty feet, French fried eyeballs rolling in a hot pan, Thats what I had for lunch today!

does a nucleus have a positive or negative charge

Electric charge - Wikipedia Electric charge is the physical property of matter that causes it to experience a force when placed in an electromagnetic field. There are two types of electric charges; positive and negative (commonly carried by protons and electrons respectively). Like charges repel and unlike attract. An object with an absence of net charge is referred to as neutral. Early knowledge of how charged substances interact is now called classical electrodynamics, and is still accurate for problems that do n't require consideration of quantum effects. Electric charge is a conserved property; the net charge of an isolated system, the amount of positive charge minus the amount of negative charge, can not change. Electric charge is carried by subatomic particles. In ordinary matter, negative charge is carried by electrons, and positive charge is carried by the protons in the nuclei of atoms. If there are more electrons than protons in a piece of matter, it will have a negative charge, if there are less it will have a positive charge, and if there are equal numbers it will be neutral. Charge is quantized; it comes in integer multiples of individual small units called the elementary charge, e, about 6981160200000000000 ♠ 1.602 × 10 coulombs, which is the smallest charge which can exist free (particles called quarks have smaller charges, multiples of 1 / 3e but they are only found in combination). The proton has a charge of + e, and the electron has a charge of − e. Electric charges create an electric field, if they are moving they also generate a magnetic field. The combination of the electric and magnetic field is called the electromagnetic field, and its interaction with charges is the source of the electromagnetic force, which is one of the four fundamental forces in physics. The study of charged particles, and how their interactions are mediated by photons, is called quantum electrodynamics. The SI derived unit of electric charge is the coulomb (C). In electrical engineering, it is also common to use the ampere - hour (Ah); in physics and chemistry, it is common to use the elementary charge (e as a unit). Chemistry also uses the Faraday constant as the charge on a mole of electrons. The symbol Q often denotes charge. Charge is the fundamental property of forms of matter that exhibit electrostatic attraction or repulsion in the presence of other matter. Electric charge is a characteristic property of many subatomic particles. The charges of free - standing particles are integer multiples of the elementary charge e; we say that electric charge is quantized. Michael Faraday, in his electrolysis experiments, was the first to note the discrete nature of electric charge. Robert Millikan 's oil drop experiment demonstrated this fact directly, and measured the elementary charge. It has been discovered that one type of particle, quarks, have fractional charges of either − 1 / 3 or + 2 / 3, but it is believed they always occur in multiples of integral charge; free - standing quarks have never been observed. By convention, the charge of an electron is negative, − e, while that of a proton is positive, + e. Charged particles whose charges have the same sign repel one another, and particles whose charges have different signs attract. Coulomb 's law quantifies the electrostatic force between two particles by asserting that the force is proportional to the product of their charges, and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them. The charge of an antiparticle equals that of the corresponding particle, but with opposite sign. The electric charge of a macroscopic object is the sum of the electric charges of the particles that make it up. This charge is often small, because matter is made of atoms, and atoms typically have equal numbers of protons and electrons, in which case their charges cancel out, yielding a net charge of zero, thus making the atom neutral. An ion is an atom (or group of atoms) that has lost one or more electrons, giving it a net positive charge (cation), or that has gained one or more electrons, giving it a net negative charge (anion). Monatomic ions are formed from single atoms, while polyatomic ions are formed from two or more atoms that have been bonded together, in each case yielding an ion with a positive or negative net charge. During formation of macroscopic objects, constituent atoms and ions usually combine to form structures composed of neutral ionic compounds electrically bound to neutral atoms. Thus macroscopic objects tend toward being neutral overall, but macroscopic objects are rarely perfectly net neutral. Sometimes macroscopic objects contain ions distributed throughout the material, rigidly bound in place, giving an overall net positive or negative charge to the object. Also, macroscopic objects made of conductive elements, can more or less easily (depending on the element) take on or give off electrons, and then maintain a net negative or positive charge indefinitely. When the net electric charge of an object is non-zero and motionless, the phenomenon is known as static electricity. This can easily be produced by rubbing two dissimilar materials together, such as rubbing amber with fur or glass with silk. In this way non-conductive materials can be charged to a significant degree, either positively or negatively. Charge taken from one material is moved to the other material, leaving an opposite charge of the same magnitude behind. The law of conservation of charge always applies, giving the object from which a negative charge is taken a positive charge of the same magnitude, and vice versa. Even when an object 's net charge is zero, charge can be distributed non-uniformly in the object (e.g., due to an external electromagnetic field, or bound polar molecules). In such cases the object is said to be polarized. The charge due to polarization is known as bound charge, while charge on an object produced by electrons gained or lost from outside the object is called free charge. The motion of electrons in conductive metals in a specific direction is known as electric current. The SI unit of quantity of electric charge is the coulomb, which is equivalent to about 7018624200000000000 ♠ 6.242 × 10 e (e is the charge of a proton). Hence, the charge of an electron is approximately 3018839800000000000 ♠ − 1.602 × 10 C. The coulomb is defined as the quantity of charge that has passed through the cross section of an electrical conductor carrying one ampere within one second. The symbol Q is often used to denote a quantity of electricity or charge. The quantity of electric charge can be directly measured with an electrometer, or indirectly measured with a ballistic galvanometer. After finding the quantized character of charge, in 1891 George Stoney proposed the unit ' electron ' for this fundamental unit of electrical charge. This was before the discovery of the particle by J.J. Thomson in 1897. The unit is today treated as nameless, referred to as "elementary charge '', "fundamental unit of charge '', or simply as "e ''. A measure of charge should be a multiple of the elementary charge e, even if at large scales charge seems to behave as a real quantity. In some contexts it is meaningful to speak of fractions of a charge; for example in the charging of a capacitor, or in the fractional quantum Hall effect. The unit faraday is sometimes used in electrochemistry. One faraday of charge is the magnitude of the charge of one mole of electrons, i.e. 96485.33289 (59) C. In systems of units other than SI such as cgs, electric charge is expressed as combination of only three fundamental quantities (length, mass, and time), and not four, as in SI, where electric charge is a combination of length, mass, time, and electric current. From ancient times, persons were familiar with four types of phenomena that today would all be explained using the concept of electric charge: (a) lightning, (b) the torpedo fish (or electric ray), (c) St Elmo 's Fire, and (d) that amber rubbed with fur would attract small, light objects. The first account of the "amber effect '' is often attributed to the ancient Greek mathematician Thales of Miletus, who lived from c. 624 -- c. 546 BC, but there are doubts about whether Thales left any writings; his account about amber is known from an account from early 200s. This account can be taken as evidence that knowledge the phenomenon was known since at least c. 600 BC, but Thales explained this phenomenon as evidence for inanimate objects having a soul. In other words, there was no indication of any conception of electric charge. More generally, the ancient Greeks did not understand the connections among these four kinds of phenomena. The Greeks observed that the charged amber buttons could attract light objects such as hair. They also found that if they rubbed the amber for long enough, they could even get an electric spark to jump, but there is also a claim that no mention of electric sparks appeared until late 17th century. This property derives from the triboelectric effect. In late 1100s, the substance jet, a compacted form of coal, was noted to have an amber effect, and in the middle of the 1500s, Girolamo Fracastoro, discovered that diamond also showed this effect. Some efforts were made by Fracastoro and others, especially Gerolamo Cardano to develop explanations for this phenomenon. In contrast to astronomy, mechanics, and optics, which had been studied quantitatively since antiquity, the start of ongoing qualitative and quantitative research into electrical phenomena can marked with the publication of De Magnete by the English scientist William Gilbert in 1600. In this book, there was a small section where Gilbert returned to the "amber effect '' (as he called it) in addressing many of the earlier theories, and coined the New Latin word electrica (from ἤλεκτρον (ēlektron), the Greek word for amber). The Latin word was translated into English as "electrics ''. Gilbert is also credited with the term electrical, while the term electricity came later, first attributed to Sir Thomas Browne in his Pseudodoxia Epidemica from 1646. (For more linguistic details see Etymology of electricity.) Gilbert was followed in 1660 by Otto von Guericke, who invented what was probably the first electrostatic generator. Other European pioneers were Robert Boyle, who in 1675 stated that electric attraction and repulsion can act across a vacuum; Stephen Gray, who in 1729 classified materials as conductors and insulators. In 1733 Charles François de Cisternay du Fay, inspired by Gray 's work, made a series of experiments (reported in Mémoires de l'Académie Royale des Sciences), showing that more or less all substances could be ' electrified ' by rubbing, except for metals and fluids and proposed that electricity comes in two varieties that cancel each other, which he expressed in terms of a two - fluid theory. When glass was rubbed with silk, du Fay said that the glass was charged with vitreous electricity, and, when amber was rubbed with fur, the amber was charged with resinous electricity. Another important two - fluid theory from this time was proposed by Jean - Antoine Nollet (1745). In 1839, Michael Faraday showed that the apparent division between static electricity, current electricity, and bioelectricity was incorrect, and all were a consequence of the behavior of a single kind of electricity appearing in opposite polarities. It is arbitrary which polarity is called positive and which is called negative. Positive charge can be defined as the charge left on a glass rod after being rubbed with silk. One of the foremost experts on electricity in the 18th century was Benjamin Franklin, who argued in favour of a one - fluid theory of electricity. Franklin imagined electricity as being a type of invisible fluid present in all matter; for example, he believed that it was the glass in a Leyden jar that held the accumulated charge. He posited that rubbing insulating surfaces together caused this fluid to change location, and that a flow of this fluid constitutes an electric current. He also posited that when matter contained too little of the fluid it was "negatively '' charged, and when it had an excess it was "positively '' charged. For a reason that was not recorded, he identified the term "positive '' with vitreous electricity and "negative '' with resinous electricity. William Watson independently arrived at the same explanation at about the same time (1746). It is now known that the Franklin - Watson model was fundamentally correct. There is only one kind of electrical charge, and only one variable is required to keep track of the amount of charge. On the other hand, just knowing the charge is not a complete description of the situation. Matter is composed of several kinds of electrically charged particles, and these particles have many properties, not just charge. Actually, all bodies are electrified, but may appear not electrified because of the relatively similar charge of neighboring objects in the environment. An object further electrified + or -- creates an equivalent or opposite charge by default in neighboring objects, until those charges can equalize. The effects of attraction can be observed in high - voltage experiments, while lower voltage effects are merely weaker and therefore less obvious. The attraction and repulsion forces are codified by Coulomb 's law (attraction falls off at the square of the distance, which has a corollary for acceleration in a gravitational field, suggesting that gravitation may be merely electrostatic phenomenon between relatively weak charges in terms of scale). See also Casimir effect. Static electricity refers to the electric charge of an object and the related electrostatic discharge when two objects are brought together that are not at equilibrium. An electrostatic discharge creates a change in the charge of each of the two objects. When a piece of glass and a piece of resin -- neither of which exhibit any electrical properties -- are rubbed together and left with the rubbed surfaces in contact, they still exhibit no electrical properties. When separated, they attract each other. A second piece of glass rubbed with a second piece of resin, then separated and suspended near the former pieces of glass and resin causes these phenomena: This attraction and repulsion is an electrical phenomena, and the bodies that exhibit them are said to be electrified, or electrically charged. Bodies may be electrified in many other ways, as well as by friction. The electrical properties of the two pieces of glass are similar to each other but opposite to those of the two pieces of resin: The glass attracts what the resin repels and repels what the resin attracts. If a body electrified in any manner whatsoever behaves as the glass does, that is, if it repels the glass and attracts the resin, the body is said to be vitreously electrified, and if it attracts the glass and repels the resin it is said to be resinously electrified. All electrified bodies are either vitreously or resinously electrified. An established convention in the scientific community defines vitreous electrification as positive, and resinous electrification as negative. The exactly opposite properties of the two kinds of electrification justify our indicating them by opposite signs, but the application of the positive sign to one rather than to the other kind must be considered as a matter of arbitrary convention -- just as it is a matter of convention in mathematical diagram to reckon positive distances towards the right hand. No force, either of attraction or of repulsion, can be observed between an electrified body and a body not electrified. Electric current is the flow of electric charge through an object, which produces no net loss or gain of electric charge. The most common charge carriers are the positively charged proton and the negatively charged electron. The movement of any of these charged particles constitutes an electric current. In many situations, it suffices to speak of the conventional current without regard to whether it is carried by positive charges moving in the direction of the conventional current or by negative charges moving in the opposite direction. This macroscopic viewpoint is an approximation that simplifies electromagnetic concepts and calculations. At the opposite extreme, if one looks at the microscopic situation, one sees there are many ways of carrying an electric current, including: a flow of electrons; a flow of electron "holes '' that act like positive particles; and both negative and positive particles (ions or other charged particles) flowing in opposite directions in an electrolytic solution or a plasma. Beware that, in the common and important case of metallic wires, the direction of the conventional current is opposite to the drift velocity of the actual charge carriers; i.e., the electrons. This is a source of confusion for beginners. The total electric charge of an isolated system remains constant regardless of changes within the system itself. This law is inherent to all processes known to physics and can be derived in a local form from gauge invariance of the wave function. The conservation of charge results in the charge - current continuity equation. More generally, the rate of change in charge density ρ within a volume of integration V is equal to the area integral over the current density J through the closed surface S = ∂ V, which is in turn equal to the net current I: Thus, the conservation of electric charge, as expressed by the continuity equation, gives the result: The charge transferred between times t i (\ displaystyle t_ (\ mathrm (i))) and t f (\ displaystyle t_ (\ mathrm (f))) is obtained by integrating both sides: where I is the net outward current through a closed surface and Q is the electric charge contained within the volume defined by the surface. Aside from the properties described in articles about electromagnetism, charge is a relativistic invariant. This means that any particle that has charge Q, no matter how fast it goes, always has charge Q. This property has been experimentally verified by showing that the charge of one helium nucleus (two protons and two neutrons bound together in a nucleus and moving around at high speeds) is the same as two deuterium nuclei (one proton and one neutron bound together, but moving much more slowly than they would if they were in a helium nucleus).

the song you & i by stevie wonder

You and I (We Can Conquer the World) - wikipedia "You and I (We Can Conquer the World) '' is a song written and sung by Stevie Wonder from his 1972 album Talking Book. Wonder is also credited for playing piano and T.O.N.T.O. synthesizer on the song. In April 2011, George Michael released a version of the song titled just "You and I '' solely on MP3 as a gift to Prince William and Catherine Middleton on the occasion of their wedding on April 29, 2011. Although the MP3 was downloadable for free, Michael asked that downloaders make a contribution to the "Prince William & Miss Catherine Middleton Charitable Gift Fund ''. The song had its world premiere on April 15, 2011 on CNN 's Piers Morgan Tonight. The show repeated on Saturday, April 16.

who said if you can't do the time dont do the crime

Baretta - wikipedia Baretta is an American detective television series which ran on ABC from 1975 to 1978. The show was a revised milder version of a 1973 -- 74 ABC series, Toma, starring Tony Musante as chameleon - like, real - life New Jersey police officer David Toma. When Musante left the series after a single season, the concept was retooled as Baretta, with Robert Blake in the title role. Detective Anthony Vincenzo "Tony '' Baretta is an unorthodox plainclothes cop (badge # 609) with the 53rd precinct, who lives with Fred, his Triton sulphur - crested cockatoo, in apartment 2C at the run - down King Edward Hotel in an unnamed, fictional city. A master of disguise, Baretta wore many while performing his duties. When not working he usually wore a short - sleeve sweatshirt, casual slacks, a brown suede jacket and a newsboy cap. Baretta was often seen with an unlit cigarette in his lips or behind his ear. His catchphrases included "You can take dat to da bank '' and "And dat 's the name of dat tune. '' When exasperated he would occasionally speak in asides to his late father, Louie Baretta. He drove a rusted - out Mist Blue 1966 Chevrolet Impala four - door sport sedan nicknamed "The Blue Ghost '' (license plate 532 BEM). He hung out at Ross 's Billiard Academy and referred to his numerous girlfriends as his "cousins ''. "Keep Your Eye on the Sparrow, '' the show 's theme music was composed by Dave Grusin and Morgan Ames and sung by Sammy Davis, Jr. The theme song, "Keep Your Eye on the Sparrow '', was written by Dave Grusin and Morgan Ames; initially an instrumental, lyrics were added in later seasons that were sung by Sammy Davis, Jr. Every episode of Baretta began with the song, which contained the motto, "Do n't do the crime if you ca n't do the time. '' The song was released as a single in Europe in 1976, reaching number one in the Dutch Top 40 as "Baretta 's Theme ''. The music for the theme song was performed by Los Angeles - based Latin influenced Rock band El Chicano from Los Angeles, California. El Chicano also released the song as a 45 and also as a track on one of their albums. The "Baretta '' theme song by El Chicano was a huge hit in many countries including Turkey, Malaysia, Singapore, France and The Philippines. After its initial run in syndication beginning in 1979, the series later re-appeared on TV Land in 1999 as part of a package of series licensed from Universal. Me - TV aired reruns of Baretta on Saturday afternoons in 2007. On October 29, 2002, Universal Studios Home Entertainment released the first season of Baretta on Region 1 DVD in the United States. It is unknown if the remaining three seasons will be released. Mad magazine spoofed the series as "Barfetta ''.

who do you think was the most influential ruler of the ghaznavid dynasty

Ghaznavids - wikipedia in Anatolia Artuqid dynasty Saltuqid dynasty in Azerbaijan Ahmadili dynasty Ildenizid dynasty in Egypt Tulunid dynasty Ikhshidid dynasty in Fars Salghurid dynasty in The Levant Burid dynasty Zengid dynasty in Yemen Rasulid dynasty The Ghaznavid dynasty (Persian: غزنویان ‎ ġaznaviyān) was a Persianate Muslim dynasty of Turkic mamluk origin, at their greatest extent ruling large parts of Iran, Afghanistan, much of Transoxiana and the northwest Indian subcontinent from 977 to 1186. The dynasty was founded by Sabuktigin upon his succession to rule of the region of Ghazna after the death of his father - in - law, Alp Tigin, who was a breakaway ex-general of the Samanid Empire from Balkh, north of the Hindu Kush in Greater Khorasan. Although the dynasty was of Central Asian Turkic origin, it was thoroughly Persianised in terms of language, culture, literature and habits and hence is regarded by some as a "Persian dynasty ''. Sabuktigin 's son, Mahmud of Ghazni, declared independence from the Samanid Empire and expanded the Ghaznavid Empire to the Amu Darya, the Indus River and the Indian Ocean in the East and to Rey and Hamadan in the west. Under the reign of Mas'ud I, the Ghaznavid dynasty began losing control over its western territories to the Seljuq dynasty after the Battle of Dandanaqan, resulting in a restriction of its holdings to modern - day Afghanistan, Punjab, Pakistan and Balochistan. In 1151, Sultan Bahram Shah lost Ghazni to the Ghurid king Ala al - Din Husayn. Two military families arose from the Turkic slave - guards of the Samanid Empire, the Simjurids and Ghaznavids, who ultimately proved disastrous to the Samanids. The Simjurids received an appanage in the Kohistan region of eastern Khorasan. The Samanid generals Alp Tigin and Abu al - Hasan Simjuri competed for the governorship of Khorasan and control of the Samanid Empire by placing on the throne emirs they could dominate after the death of Abd al - Malik I in 961. His death created a succession crisis between his brothers. A court party instigated by men of the scribal class -- civilian ministers rather than Turkic generals -- rejected the candidacy of Alp Tigin for the Samanid throne. Mansur I was installed instead, and Alp Tigin prudently retired to south of the Hindu Kush, where he captured Ghazna and became the ruler of the city as a Samanid authority. The Simjurids enjoyed control of Khorasan south of the Amu Darya but were hard - pressed by a third great Iranian dynasty, the Buyid dynasty, and were unable to survive the collapse of the Samanids and the subsequent rise of the Ghaznavids. The struggles of the Turkic slave generals for mastery of the throne with the help of shifting allegiance from the court 's ministerial leaders both demonstrated and accelerated the Samanid decline. Samanid weakness attracted into Transoxiana the Karluks, a Turkic people who had recently converted to Islam. They occupied Bukhara in 992, establishing in Transoxania the Kara - Khanid Khanate. After Alp Tigin 's death in 963, Abu Ishaq Ibrahim, followed by his slave Sabuktigin, took the throne. Sabuktigin 's son Mahmud of Ghazni made an agreement with the Kara - Khanid Khanate whereby the Amu Darya was recognised as their mutual boundary. Sabuktigin, son - in - law of Alp Tigin and founder of the Ghaznavid Empire, began expanding it by capturing Samanid and Kabul Shahi territories, including most of what is now Afghanistan and part of Pakistan. The 16th century Persian historian, Firishta, records Sabuktigin 's genealogy as descended from the Sasanian emperors: "Subooktu - geen, the son of Jookan, the son of Kuzil - Hukum, the son of Kuzil - Arslan, the son of Ferooz, the son of Yezdijird, king of Persia. '' However, modern historians believe this was an attempt to connect himself with the history of old Persia. After the death of Sabuktigin, his son Ismail claimed the throne for a temporary period, but he was defeated and captured by Mahmud in 998 at the Battle of Ghazni. In 997, Mahmud, another son of Sebuktigin, succeeded the throne, and Ghazni and the Ghaznavid dynasty have become perpetually associated with him. He completed the conquest of the Samanid and Shahi territories, including the Ismaili Kingdom of Multan, Sindh, as well as some Buwayhid territory. By all accounts, the rule of Mahmud was the golden age and height of the Ghaznavid Empire. Mahmud carried out seventeen expeditions through northern India to establish his control and set up tributary states, and his raids also resulted in the looting of a great deal of plunder. He established his authority from the borders of Ray to Samarkand, from the Caspian Sea to the Yamuna. During Mahmud 's reign (997 -- 1030), the Ghaznavids settled 4,000 Turkmen families near Farana in Khorasan. By 1027, due to the Turkmen raiding neighbouring settlements, the governor of Tus, Abu l'Alarith Arslan Jadhib, led military strikes against them. The Turkmen were defeated and scattered to neighbouring lands. Although, as late as 1033, Ghaznavid governor Tash Farrash executed fifty Turkmen chiefs for raids into Khorasan. The wealth brought back from the Mahmud 's Indian expeditions to Ghazni was enormous, and contemporary historians (e.g. Abolfazl Beyhaghi, Ferdowsi) give glowing descriptions of the magnificence of the capital and of the conqueror 's munificent support of literature. Mahmud died in 1030. Mahmud left the empire to his son Mohammed, who was mild, affectionate and soft. His brother, Mas'ud, asked for three provinces that he had won by his sword, but his brother did not consent. Mas'ud had to fight his brother, and he became king, blinding and imprisoning Mohammed as punishment. Mas'ud was unable to preserve the empire and following a disastrous defeat at the Battle of Dandanaqan in 1040, he lost all the Ghaznavid lands in Iran and Central Asia to the Seljuks, plunging the realm into a "time of troubles ''. His last act was to collect all his treasures from his forts in hope of assembling an army and ruling from India, but his own forces plundered the wealth and he proclaimed his blind brother as king again. The two brothers now exchanged positions: Mohammed was elevated from prison to the throne, while Mas'ud was consigned to a dungeon after a reign of ten years and was assassinated in 1040. Mas'ud's son, Madood, was governor of Balkh, and in 1040, after hearing of his father 's death, he came to Ghazni to claim his kingdom. He fought with the sons of the blind Mohammed and was victorious. However, the empire soon disintegrated and most kings did not submit to Madood. In a span of nine years, four more kings claimed the throne of Ghazni. In 1058, Mas'ud's son Ibrahim, a great calligrapher who wrote the Koran with his own pen, became king. Ibrahim re-established a truncated empire on a firmer basis by arriving at a peace agreement with the Seljuks and a restoration of cultural and political linkages. Under Ibrahim and his successors the empire enjoyed a period of sustained tranquility. Shorn of its western land, it was increasingly sustained by riches accrued from raids across Northern India, where it faced stiff resistance from Indian rulers such as the Paramara of Malwa and the Gahadvala of Kannauj. He ruled until 1098. Masud III became king for sixteen years, with no major event in his lifetime. Signs of weakness in the state became apparent when he died in 1115, with internal strife between his sons ending with the ascension of Sultan Bahram Shah as a Seljuk vassal. Bahram shah defeated his brother Arslan for the throne at the Battle of Ghazni in 1117. Sultan Bahram Shah was the last Ghaznavid King, ruling Ghazni, the first and main Ghaznavid capital, for thirty five years. In 1148 he was defeated in Ghazni by Sayf al - Din Suri, but he recaptured the capital the next year. Ala al - Din Husayn, a Ghorid King, conquered the city in 1151, for the revenge of his brother Kutubbuddin 's death, who was son - in - law of the king but was publicly punished and killed for a minor offence. Ala al - Din Husayn then razed the city and burned it for 7 days, after which he became known as "Jahānsuz '' (World Burner). Ghazni was restored to the Ghaznavids by the intervention of the Seljuks, who came to the aid of Bahram. Ghaznavid struggles with the Ghurids continued in subsequent years as they nibbled away at Ghaznavid territory, and Ghazni and Zabulistan was lost to a group of Oghuz Turks before captured by the Ghurids. Ghaznavid power in northwestern India continued until the Ghurid conquest of Lahore from Khusrau Malik in 1186. The core of the Ghaznavid army was primarily made up of Turks, as well as thousands of native Afghans who were trained and assembled from the area south of the Hindu Kush in what is now Afghanistan. During the rule of Sultan Mahmud, a new, larger military training center was established in Bost (now Lashkar Gah). This area was known for blacksmiths where war weapons were made. After capturing and conquering the Punjab region, the Ghaznavids began to employ Hindus in their army. Like the other dynasties that rose out of the remains of the Abbasid Caliphate, the Ghaznavid administrative traditions and military practice came from the Abbasids. The Arabian horses, at least in the earliest campaign was still substansial in Ghaznavid military incursions especially in dashing raids deep into hostile territory. As evidenced there is a record about ' 6000 Arab horse ' were sent against king Anandapala in 1008 AD and the existence of this Arabian cavalry persist until 1118 under Ghaznavid governor in Lahore. There were, however, unique changes adopted that met the demands of the geographic situation of the Ghaznavid dynasty. Due to their access to the Indus - Ganges plains, the Ghaznavids, during the 11th and 12th centuries, developed the first Muslim army to use war elephants in battle. The elephants were protected by armour plating on their fronts. The use of these elephants in other regions that the Ghaznavids fought in, particularly in Central Asia, to which the elephant was a foreign weapon. According to Clifford Edmund Bosworth: The Ghaznavid sultans were ethnically Turkish, but the sources, all in Arabic or Persian, do not allow us to estimate the persistence of Turkish practices and ways of thought amongst them. Yet given the fact that the essential basis of the Ghaznavids ' military support always remained their Turkish soldiery, there must always have been a need to stay attuned to their troops ' needs and aspirations; also, there are indications of the persistence of some Turkish literary culture under the early Ghaznavids (Köprülüzade, pp. 56 -- 57). The sources do make it clear, however, that the sultans ' exercise of political power and the administrative apparatus which gave it shape came very speedily to be within the Perso - Islamic tradition of statecraft and monarchical rule, with the ruler as a distant figure, buttressed by divine favor, ruling over a mass of traders, artisans, peasants, etc., whose prime duty was obedience in all respects but above all in the payment of taxes. The fact that the personnel of the bureaucracy which directed the day - to - day running of the state, and which raised the revenue to support the sultans ' life - style and to finance the professional army, were Persians who carried on the administrative traditions of the Samanids, only strengthened this conception of secular power. Persianisation of the state apparatus was accompanied by the Persianisation of high culture at the Ghaznavid court... The level of literary creativity was just as high under Ebrāhīm and his successors up to Bahrāmšāh, with such poets as Abu'l - Faraj Rūnī, Sanāʾī, ʿOṯmān Moḵtārī, Masʿūd - e Saʿd - e Salmān, and Sayyed Ḥasan Ḡaznavī (Rypka, Hist. Iran. Lit., pp. 196 -- 97; Bosworth, Later Ghaznavids, pp. 75 -- 77, 107 -- 10). We know from the biographical dictionaries of poets (taḏkera - ye šoʿarā) that the court in Lahore of Ḵosrow Malek had an array of fine poets, none of whose dīvāns has unfortunately survived, and the translator into elegant Persian prose of Ebn Moqaffaʿ 's Kalīla wa Demna, namely Abu'l - Maʿālī Naṣr - Allāh b. Moḥammad, served the sultan for a while as his chief secretary (Bosworth, Later Ghaznavids, pp. 127 -- 28). The Ghaznavids thus present the phenomenon of a dynasty of Turkish slave origin which became culturally Persianised to a perceptibly higher degree than other contemporary dynasties of Turkish origin such as Saljuqs and Qarakhanids. Persian literary culture enjoyed a renaissance under the Ghaznavids during the 11th century. The Ghaznavid court was so renowned for its support of Persian literature that the poet Farrukhi traveled from his home province to work for them. The poet Unsuri 's short collection of poetry was dedicated to Sultan Mahmud and his brothers Nasr and Yaqub. Another poet of the Ghaznavid court, Manuchehri, wrote numerous poems to the merits and advantages of drinking wine. Sultan Mahmud, modelling the Samanid Bukhara as a cultural center, made Ghazni into a center of learning, inviting Ferdowsi and al - Biruni. He even attempted to persuade Avicenna, but was refused. Mahmud preferred that his fame and glory be publicized in Persian and hundreds of poets assembled at his court. He brought whole libraries from Rayy and Isfahan to Ghazni and even demanded that the Khwarizmshah court send its men of learning to Ghazni. Due to his invasion of Rayy and Isfahan, Persian literary production was inaugurated in Azerbaijan and Iraq. The Ghaznavids continued to develop historical writing in Persian that had been initiated by their predecessors, the Samanid Empire. The historian Abu'l - Fadl Bayhaqi 's Tarikh - e Beyhaqi, written in the latter half of the 11th century, is an example. Although the Ghaznavids were of Turkic origin and their military leaders were generally of the same stock, as a result of the original involvement of Sebuktigin and Mahmud of Ghazni in Samanid affairs and in the Samanid cultural environment, the dynasty became thoroughly Persianized, so that in practice one can not consider their rule over Iran one of foreign domination. They also copied their administrative system from the Samanids. In terms of cultural championship and the support of Persian poets, they were more Persian than their ethnically - Iranian rivals, the Buyid dynasty, whose support of Arabic letters in preference to Persian is well known. Historian Bosworth explains: "In fact with the adoption of Persian administrative and cultural ways the Ghaznavids threw off their original Turkish steppe background and became largely integrated with the Perso - Islamic tradition. '' As a result, Ghazni developed into a great centre of Arabic learning. With Sultan Mahmud 's invasions of North India, Persian culture was established at Lahore, which later produced the famous poet, Masud Sa 'd Salman. Lahore, under the Ghaznavid rule in the 11th century, attracted Persian scholars from Khorasan, India and Central Asia and became a major Persian cultural centre. It was also during Mahmud 's reign that Ghaznavid coinage began to have bilingual legends consisting of Arabic and Devanagari script. The Persian culture, established by the Ghaznavids in Ghazna and Eastern Afghanistan, survived the Ghurid invasion in the 12th century and endured until the invasion of the Mongols. At its height, the Ghaznavid empire grew to cover large parts of present - day Iran, Turkmenistan and Uzbekistan, all of Afghanistan, Pakistan and large parts of northwest India. The Ghaznavid rulers are generally credited with spreading Islam into the Indian subcontinent. In addition to the wealth accumulated through raiding Indian cities, and exacting tribute from Indian rajas, the Ghaznavids also benefited from their position as an intermediary along the trade routes between China and the Mediterranean. They were, however, unable to hold power for long and by 1040 the Seljuks had taken over their Persian domains and a century later the Ghurids took over their remaining sub-continental lands. The Nasher Khans, are said to be the descendants of the Ghaznavid dynasty.

what are the names of the simpsons characters

List of the Simpsons characters - wikipedia Along with the Simpson family, The Simpsons includes a large array of characters: co-workers, teachers, family friends, extended relatives, townspeople, local celebrities, and as well as fictional characters. The creators originally intended many of these characters as one - time jokesters or for fulfilling needed functions in the town. A number of them have gained expanded roles and subsequently starred in their own episodes. According to creator Matt Groening, the show adopted the concept of a large supporting cast from the Canadian sketch comedy show Second City Television. The main characters, the Simpson family, are listed first; all other characters are listed in alphabetical order. Only main, supporting, and recurring characters are listed. For one - time characters, see "List of one - time The Simpsons characters ''. The next main character, who is yet to debut is Megan.

which of the following statements about the administrative procedure act of 1946 is false

Freedom of information Act (United States) - wikipedia The Freedom of Information Act (FOIA), 5 U.S.C. § 552, is a federal freedom of information law that allows for the full or partial disclosure of previously unreleased information and documents controlled by the United States government. The Act defines agency records subject to disclosure, outlines mandatory disclosure procedures and grants nine exemptions to the statute. This amendment was signed into law by President Lyndon B. Johnson, despite his misgivings, on July 4, 1966, and went into effect the following year. As indicated by its long title, FOIA was actually extracted from its original home in Section 3 of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA). Section 3 of the APA, as enacted in 1946, gave agencies broad discretion concerning the publication of governmental records. Following concerns that the provision had become more of a withholding than a disclosure mechanism, Congress amended the section in 1966 as a standalone act to implement "a general philosophy of full agency disclosure. '' The amendment required agencies to publish their rules of procedure in the Federal Register, 5 U.S.C. § 552 (a) (1) (C), and to make available for public inspection and copying their opinions, statements of policy, interpretations, and staff manuals and instructions that are not published in the Federal Register, § 552 (a) (2). In addition, § 522 (a) (3) requires every agency, "upon any request for records which... reasonably describes such records '' to make such records "promptly available to any person. '' If an agency improperly withholds any documents, the district court has jurisdiction to order their production. Unlike the review of other agency action that must be upheld if supported by substantial evidence and not arbitrary or capricious, FOIA expressly places the burden "on the agency to sustain its action, '' and directs the district courts to "determine the matter de novo. '' The Federal Government 's Freedom of Information Act should not be confused with the different and varying Freedom of Information Acts passed by the individual states. Many of those state acts may be similar but not identical to the federal act. With the ongoing stress on both constitutional and inherent rights of American citizens and the added assertion of government subservience to the individual, some, particularly representative John Moss, thought it was necessary for government information to be available to the public. This push built on existing principles and protocols of government administration already in place. Others, though -- most notably President Lyndon B. Johnson -- believed that certain types of unclassified government information should nonetheless remain secret. Notwithstanding the White House 's opposition, Congress expanded Section 3 of the Administrative Procedure Act as a standalone measure in 1966 to further standardize the publication of government records, consistent with the belief that the people have the "right to know '' about them. The Privacy Act of 1974 was passed as a countervailing measure to ensure the security of government documents increasingly kept on private citizens. The act explicitly applies only to executive branch government agencies. These agencies are under several mandates to comply with public solicitation of information. Along with making public and accessible all bureaucratic and technical procedures for applying for documents from that agency, agencies are also subject to penalties for hindering the process of a petition for information. If "agency personnel acted arbitrarily or capriciously with respect to the withholding, (a) Special Counsel shall promptly initiate a proceeding to determine whether disciplinary action is warranted against the officer or employee who was primarily responsible for the withholding. '' In this way, there is recourse for one seeking information to go to a federal court if suspicion of illegal tampering or delayed sending of records exists. However, there are nine exemptions, ranging from a withholding "specifically authorized under criteria established by an Executive order to be kept secret in the interest of national defense or foreign policy '' and "trade secrets '' to "clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy. '' The nine current exemptions to the FOIA address issues of sensitivity and personal rights. They are (as listed in Title 5 of the United States Code, section 552): The Postal Reorganization Act of 1970 (at 39 U.S.C. § 410 (c) (2)) exempts the United States Postal Service (USPS) from disclosure of "information of a commercial nature, including trade secrets, whether or not obtained from a person outside the Postal Service, which under good business practice would not be publicly disclosed ''. The law came about because of the determination of Congressman John E. Moss of California. Moss was the chairman of the Government Information Subcommittee. It took Moss 12 years to get the Freedom of Information Act through Congress successfully. Much of the desire for government transparency stemmed from the Department of Defense and Congressional committees evaluation of the nation 's classification system in the late 1950s. They determined that the misuse of government classification of documents was causing insiders to leak documents that were marked "confidential. '' The committee also determined that the lowest rung of the confidentiality ladder "confidential '' should be removed. They deemed that "secret '' and "top secret '' covered National security adequately. The Moss Committee took it upon itself to reform confidentiality policy and implement punishments for the overuse of classification by officials and departments. The FOIA has been changed repeatedly by both the legislative and executive branches. The Freedom of Information Act was initially introduced as the bill S. 1160 in the 89th Congress. When the two - page bill was signed into law it became Pub. L. 89 -- 487, 80 Stat. 250, enacted July 4, 1966, but had an effective date of one year after the date of enactment, or July 4, 1967. The law set up the structure of FOIA as we know it today. That law was initially repealed. During the period between the enactment of the act and its effective date, Title 5 of the United States Code was enacted into positive law. For reasons now unclear but which may have had to do with the way the enactment of Title 5 changed how the law being amended was supposed to be cited, the original Freedom of Information Act was replaced. A new act in Pub. L. 90 -- 23, 81 Stat. 54, enacted June 5, 1967 (originally H.R. 5357 in the 90th Congress), repealed the original and put in its place a substantively identical law. This statute was signed on June 5, 1967, and had the same effective date as the original statute: July 4, 1967. Following the Watergate scandal, President Gerald R. Ford wanted to sign FOIA - strengthening amendments in the Privacy Act of 1974, but White House Chief of Staff Donald Rumsfeld and deputy Dick Cheney were concerned about leaks. Assistant Attorney General for the Office of Legal Counsel Antonin Scalia advised the bill was unconstitutional and even telephoned the CIA asking them to lobby a particular White House staffer. President Ford was persuaded to veto the bill on October 17, 1974, according to documents declassified in 2004. However, on November 21, the lame - duck Congress overrode President Ford 's veto, giving the United States the core Freedom of Information Act still in effect today, with judicial review of executive secrecy claims. Scalia remained highly critical of the 1974 amendments, writing years later that "It is the Taj Mahal of the Doctrine of Unanticipated Consequences, the Sistine Chapel of Cost - Benefit Analysis Ignored. '' Scalia particularly disliked the availability of judicial review, decrying that if "an agency denies a freedom of information request, shazam! -- the full force of the Third Branch of the government is summoned to the wronged party 's assistance. '' These amendments that these FOIA regulate government control of documents which concern a citizen. It gives one "(1) the right to see records about (one) self, subject to the Privacy Act 's exemptions, (2) the right to amend that record if it is inaccurate, irrelevant, untimely, or incomplete, and (3) the right to sue the government for violations of the statute including permitting others to see (one 's) records unless specifically permitted by the Act. '' In conjunction with the FOIA, the PA is used to further the rights of an individual gaining access to information held by the government. The Justice Department 's Office of Information and Privacy and federal district courts are the two channels of appeal available to seekers of information. In 1976, as part of the Government in the Sunshine Act, Exemption 3 of the FOIA was amended so that several exemptions were specified: Between 1982 and 1995, President Reagan 's Executive Order 12356 allowed federal agencies to withhold enormous amounts of information under Exemption 1 (relating to national security information), claiming it would better protect the country and strengthen national security. The outcry from the effect that the Reagan Order had on FOIA requests was a factor in leading President Clinton to dramatically alter the criteria in 1995. The FOIA amendments were a small part of the bipartisan Anti-Drug Abuse Act of 1986. Congress amended FOIA to address the fees charged by different categories of requesters and the scope of access to law enforcement and national security records. The amendments are not referenced in the congressional reports on the Act, so the floor statements provide an indication of Congressional intent. Between 1995 and 1999, President Clinton issued executive directives (and amendments to the directives) that allowed the release of previously classified national security documents more than 25 years old and of historical interest, as part of the FOIA. This release of information allowed many previously publicly unknown details about the Cold War and other historical events to be discussed openly. The Electronic Freedom of Information Act Amendments of 1996 (E-FOIA) stated that all agencies are required by statute to make certain types of records, created by the agency on or after November 1, 1996, available electronically. Agencies must also provide electronic reading rooms for citizens to use to have access to records. Given the large volume of records and limited resources, the amendment also extended the agencies ' required response time to FOIA requests. Formerly, the response time was ten days and the amendment extended it to twenty business days. Executive Order 13233, drafted by Alberto R. Gonzales and issued by President George W. Bush on November 1, 2001, restricted access to the records of former presidents. This order was revoked on January 21, 2009, as part of President Barack Obama 's Executive Order 13489. Public access to presidential records was restored to the original extent of five years (12 for some records) outlined in the Presidential Records Act. In 2002, Congress passed the Intelligence Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2003, Pub. L. 107 -- 306. Within this omnibus legislation were amendments to the FOIA (pertaining mainly to intelligence agencies) entitled "Prohibition on Compliance with Requests for Information Submitted by Foreign Governments '': Section 552 (a) (3) of title 5, United States Code, is amended -- (1) in subparagraph (A) by inserting "and except as provided in subparagraph (E) '', after "of this subsection ''; and (2) by adding at the end the following: In effect, this new language precluded any covered U.S. intelligence agency from disclosing records in response to FOIA requests made by foreign governments or international governmental organizations. By its terms, it prohibits disclosure in response to requests made by such non-U.S. governmental entities either directly or through a "representative ''. This means that for any FOIA request that by its nature appears as if it might have been made by or on behalf of a non-U.S. governmental entity, a covered agency may inquire into the particular circumstances of the requester in order to properly implement this new FOIA provision. The agencies affected by this amendment are those that are part of, or contain "an element of '', the "intelligence community ''. As defined in the National Security Act of 1947 (as amended), they consist of the CIA, the National Security Agency, the Defense Intelligence Agency, the National Imagery and Mapping Agency, the National Reconnaissance Office (and certain other reconnaissance offices within the Department of Defense), the intelligence elements of the Army, the Navy, the Air Force, and the Marine Corps, the FBI, the Department of the Treasury, the Department of Energy, and the Coast Guard, the Department of Homeland Security, the Bureau of Intelligence and Research in the Department of State, and "such other elements of any other department or agency as may be designated by the President, or designated jointly by the Director of Central Intelligence and the head of the department or agency concerned, as an element of the intelligence community ''. President Bush signed the Openness Promotes Effectiveness in our National Government Act of 2007, Pub. L. 110 -- 175, on December 31, 2007. This law, also known as the "OPEN Government Act of 2007 '', amended the federal FOIA statute in several ways. According to a White House press release, it does so by: Changes include the following: On December 29, 2009, President Barack Obama issued Executive Order 13526, which allows the government to classify certain specific types of information relevant to national security after it has been requested. That is, a request for information that meets the criteria for availability under FOIA can still be denied if the government determines that the information should have been classified, and unavailable. It also sets a timeline for automatic declassification of old information that is not specifically identified as requiring continued secrecy. The Dodd -- Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, signed into law in July 2010, included provisions in section 929I that shielded the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) from requests under the Freedom of Information Act. The provisions were initially motivated out of concern that the FOIA would hinder SEC investigations that involved trade secrets of financial companies, including "watch lists '' they gathered about other companies, trading records of investment managers, and "trading algorithms '' used by investment firms. In September 2010, the 111th Congress passed an act repealing those provisions. The act was introduced in the Senate on August 5, 2010 as S. 3717 and given the name "A bill to amend the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, the Investment Company Act of 1940, and the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 to provide for certain disclosures under section 552 of title 5, United States Code, (commonly referred to as the Freedom of Information Act), and for other purposes. '' A major issue in released documentation is government "redaction '' of certain passages deemed applicable to the Exemption section of the FOIA. Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) officers in charge of responding to FOIA requests "so heavily redacted the released records as to preclude needed research. '' This has also brought into question just how one can verify that they have been given complete records in response to a request. This trend of unwillingness to release records was especially evident in the process of making public the FBI files on J. Edgar Hoover. Of the 164 files and about eighteen thousand pages collected by the FBI, two - thirds were withheld from Athan G. Theoharis and plaintiff, most notably one entire folder entitled the "White House Security Survey. '' Despite finding out that the Truman Library had an accessible file which documented all the reports of this folder, the FBI and Office of Information and Privacy put forth "stony resistance '' to the FOIA appeal process. (I -- pg. 27) Some argue that it was not even this sixteen year series of three appeals to the Justice Department which gained a further opening of the files, but rather the case of Department of Justice v. Landano which spurred on a break in stolid FBI opposition. A murder trial decided in 1993, Department of Justice v. Landano, 508 U.S. 165 (1993), involved what was alleged to be a felony murder committed during a group burglary by defendant Landano. Justice Sandra Day O'Connor wrote the unanimous opinion. "In an effort to support his claim in subsequent state court proceedings that the prosecution violated Brady v. Maryland, 373 U.S. 83 (1963), by withholding material exculpatory evidence, he filed Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) requests with the FBI for information it had compiled in connection with the murder investigation. '' In defense, the FBI put forth a claim that the redacted sections of the documents requested were withheld in accordance with FOIA regulations protecting the identity of informants who gave information regarding case details. However, O'Connor ruled that those who supplied information had no need to remain anonymous in the court setting. "To the extent that the Government 's proof may compromise legitimate interests, the Government still can attempt to meet its burden with in camera affidavits. '' The court thus remanded the case to the Circuit Courts and rejected the FBI 's claim of confidentiality as being a valid reason to withhold information. "While most individual sources may expect confidentiality, the Government offers no explanation, other than administrative ease, why that expectation always should be presumed. '' Thus, when Theoharis and company were in the middle of fighting in court to obtain J. Edgar Hoover files, they may well have benefited from Landano and also Janet Reno 's assertions of the government 's need for "greater openness '' and "discretionary releases '' in 1993. In the case of Scott Armstrong v. Executive Office of the President, et al., the White House used the PROFS computer communications software. With encryption designed for secure messaging, PROFS notes concerning the Iran -- Contra affair (arms - for - hostages) under the Reagan Administration were insulated. However, they were also backed up and transferred to paper memos. The National Security Council, on the eve of President George H.W. Bush 's inauguration, planned to destroy these records. The National Security Archive, Armstrong 's association for the preservation of government historical documents, obtained an injunction in Federal District Court against the head, John Fawcett, of the National Archives and Records Administration and the National Security Council 's purging of PROFS records. A Temporary Restraining Order was approved by Senior U.S. District Court Judge Barrington D. Parker. Suit was filed at District Court under Judge Richey, who upheld the injunction of PROFS records. Richey gave a further injunction to prevent a purging of the George H.W. Bush 's administration 's records as well. On counts of leaving the White House clean for the new Clinton Administration, the Bush group appealed but was denied its request. Finally, the Clinton Administration appealed to the U.S. Court of Appeals, stating that the National Security Council was not truly an agency but a group of aides to the President and thus not subject to FOIA regulations. Under the Presidential Records Act, "FOIA requests for NSC (could) not be filed until five years after the president ha (d) left office... or twelve years if the records (were) classified. '' The Clinton administration won, and the National Security Archive was not granted a writ of certiorari by the Supreme Court on these grounds. According to Scott Armstrong, taking into account labor and material costs, the three presidential administrations spent almost $9.3 million on contesting the National Security Archive FOIA requests for PROFS e-mail records. The AP uncovered several federal agencies where staff regularly use fictitious identities and secret or unlisted email accounts to conduct government business. Their use stymied FOIA requests. In some cases, the government demanded enormous (> $1 million) fees for records that appeals show should be available for minimal cost. The Center for Effective Government analyzed 15 federal agencies which receive the most FOIA requests in - depth. It concluded, that federal agencies are struggling to implement public disclosure rules. In the latest analysis published in 2015 (using 2012 and 2013 data, the most recent years available) ten of the 15 did not earn satisfactory overall grades, scoring less than 70 out of a possible 100 points. Eight of the ten earned Ds, including the Department of Homeland Security (69 percent), Department of Transportation (68 percent), United States Department of the Treasury (Treasury) (68 percent), the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) (67 percent), the United States Department of Labor (63 percent), the United States Department of Veterans Affairs (64 percent), the United States Department of Defense (61 percent), the Securities and Exchange Commission (61 percent). The Department of Health and Human Services and the Department of State earned an F. The State Department 's score (37 percent) was dismal due to its extremely low processing score of 23 percent, which was completely out of line with any other agency 's performance. Scores of five agencies, the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, the Department of Health and Human Services, the SEC, the DOJ, and the EPA, even decreased marginally.

where did the term southern belle come from

Southern belle - wikipedia The Southern belle (derived from the French word belle, ' beautiful ') is a stock character representing a young woman of the American Deep South 's upper socioeconomic class. The image of the Southern belle developed in the South during the antebellum era. It was based on the young, unmarried woman in the plantation - owning upper class of Southern society. The image of a Southern belle is often characterized by fashion elements such as a hoop skirt, a corset, pantalettes, a wide - brimmed straw hat, and gloves. As signs of tanning were considered working - class and unfashionable during this era, parasols and fans are also often represented. Southern belles were expected to marry respectable young men, and become ladies of society dedicated to the family and community. The Southern belle archetype is characterized by Southern hospitality, a cultivation of beauty, and a flirtatious yet chaste demeanor. For example, Sallie Ward, who was born into the Southern aristocracy of Kentucky in the Antebellum South, was called a Southern belle. The Southern belle archetype has been criticized as part of an overall idealization of the Antebellum era American South in popular culture. Slavery figured strongly into the region 's economy during the plantation era. In turn, the image of the idyllic Southern plantation is considered by many to be insensitive to the plight of slaves. During the early 20th century, the release of the film Gone with the Wind popularized the image of the Southern belle. Southern belles have also been featured in A Streetcar Named Desire, The Glass Menagerie, Jezebel, Fried Green Tomatoes, Wacky Races, Steel Magnolias, and Sweet Home Alabama. Dick Pope, Sr., promoter of Florida tourism, played an important role in popularizing the archetypal image. Hostesses at his famed Cypress Gardens were portrayed as Southern belles in promotional materials for the theme park. The X-Men member Rogue is the team 's self - described Southern belle.

where is the small intestine located in a fetal pig

Fetal pig - wikipedia Fetal pigs are unborn pigs used in elementary as well as advanced biology classes as objects for dissection. Pigs, as a mammalian species, provide a good specimen for the study of physiological systems and processes due to the similarities between many pig and human organs. Along with frogs and earthworms, fetal pigs are among the most common animals used in classroom dissection. There are several reasons for this, the main reason being that pigs, like humans, are mammals. Shared traits include common hair, mammary glands, live birth, similar organ systems, metabolic levels, and basic body form. They also allow for the study of fetal circulation, which differs from that of an adult. Secondly, fetal pigs are easy to obtain because they are by - products of the pork industry. Fetal pigs are the unborn piglets of sows that were killed by the meat packing industry. These pigs are not bred and killed for this purpose, but are extracted from the deceased sow 's uterus. Fetal pigs not used in classroom dissections are often used in fertilizer or simply discarded. Thirdly, fetal pigs are cheap, which is an essential component for dissection use by schools. They can be ordered for a little more than $25 at biological product companies. Fourthly, fetal pigs are easy to dissect because of their soft tissue and incompletely developed bones that are still made of cartilage. In addition, they are relatively large with well - developed organs that are easily visible. As long as the pork industry exists, fetal pigs will be relatively abundant, making them the prime choice for classroom dissections. Several peer - reviewed comparative studies have concluded that the educational outcomes of students who are taught basic and advanced biomedical concepts and skills using non-animal methods are equivalent or superior to those of their peers who use animal - based laboratories such as animal dissection. A systematic review concluded that students taught using non-animal methods demonstrated "superior understanding of complex biological processes, increased learning efficiency, and increased examination results. '' It also reported that students ' confidence and satisfaction increased as did their preparedness for laboratories and their information - retrieval and communication abilities. Three studies at universities across the United States found that students who modeled body systems out of clay were significantly better at identifying the constituent parts of human anatomy than their classmates who performed animal dissection. Another study found that students preferred using clay modeling over animal dissection and performed just as well as their cohorts who dissected animals. The size of the fetal pig depends on the time allowed for the mother to gestate: No studies have found significant data regarding the mother swine 's diet and fetal pig survival rate. However, there is a correlation between a mother pig having a nutritious diet containing proteins, vitamins and minerals during gestation period and the survival rate of piglets. The correlation, however, is not statistically different. Weight is also not a factor of survival rate because a healthier diet does not lead to a heavier offspring or a greater chance of live birth. The placenta is used as a means of transferring nutrients from the mother to the fetus. The efficiency at which nutrients are transferred dictates the health and growth of the fetus. FRP, or fetal weight: placental weight ratio, was commonly used to determine placental efficiency. However, increasing FPR does not prove to increase litter size. Instead, a more accurate way of determining fetus growth is through certain characteristics of the placental lining. The placenta is made of a folded trophoblast / endometrial epithelial bilayer. The width and length of the placenta folds are positively related and increase as gestation progresses. The width of the placental folds decreases until day 85 of gestation. From here, the width increases with gestation and is at its largest around day 105. The rate at which these folds increase is negatively related to fetus size. Thus, greater fold widths will be seen in smaller fetuses. Although increasing placental fold width does increase the interaction between fetus and mother, nutrient exchange is not most efficient in smaller fetal pigs, as would be expected. Many other factors, including depth of placental folds, are also responsible for these interactions. The prenatal development of the fetus includes all the tissue and organ development. Within hours of mating, the sperm and egg undergo fertilization in the oviduct and three days later the egg moves into the uterus. The cells begin to specialize by day six, and attach themselves to the uterus lining by day eleven. From fertilization to day 18, the endoderm, ectoderm and mesoderm have been forming inside the embryo, and are completely formed by day 18, the same day the placenta forms. The endoderm transforms into the lungs, trachea, thyroid gland, and digestive tract of the fetus. The ectoderm has a greater role in the development of the fetus. It forms into the skin, nervous system, enamel of the teeth, lining of the intestine, mammary and sweat glands, hoofs, and hair. The mesoderm forms the major organ components that help keep the fetus alive. It forms the muscles and connective tissues of the body, blood vessels and cells, the skeleton, kidneys, adrenal glands, heart, and the reproductive organs. By day 20, most of the major organs are visible, and the last half of gestation focuses greatly on increasing the size of the fetuses. The development of the lymphatic system and the formation of blood circulation occur at different stages of fetal pig development. The first lymphatic organ to become present is the thymus. Lymphocyte builds up in the spleen on the 70th day. By day 77, the thymus is already completely developed and is distinguishable from other organs. Also, follicles are present on the tongue and intestines on day 77. On the 84th day, Periarteriolar lymphoid sheaths appear in the fetal pig. By this time, the liver and bone marrow are active and functional. Studies have shown that litter size, the amount of floor space during the growing period, and the number of pigs the gilt, or female pig, is placed with while growing affect the reproduction rates of the gilts. Data from a study in 1976 by Nelson and Robinson showed that gilts from a small litter size ovulated more than the gilts from the larger litters. The study suggests stress plays a role in impacting the reproduction. The amount of floor space has been shown to impact the time it takes gilts to reach puberty. An adequate amount of floor space allowed the higher percentage of gilts to reach puberty sooner than those gilts who had less floor space. The gilts placed in smaller groups bore one more pig per litter than gilts in larger groups. Still, the environment in which the fetal gilt develops is significant to the reproductive and physiological development. Author: Brandon Anderson Fetal pigs are often preserved in formaldehyde, a carcinogenic substance. A 1980 study found that exposure to formaldehyde could possibly cause nasal cancer in rats, leading to research on whether this was possible in humans or not. In 1995 it was concluded by the International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) that formaldehyde is a carcinogen for humans. In Albania, fetal pigs are preserved by means of alcohol, and are used as an ingredient in Raki, a local moonshine liquor. The anatomy of a fetal pig is similar to that of the adult pig in various aspects. Systems that are similar include the nervous, skeletal, respiratory (neglecting the under developed diaphragm), and muscular. Other important body systems have significant differences from the adult pig. There are only a few differences between the circulatory system of an adult pig and a fetal pig, besides from the umbilical arteries and vein. There is a shunt between the wall of the right and left atrium called the foramen ovale. This allows blood to pass directly from the right to left atrium. There is also the ductus arterius which allows blood from the right atrium to be diverted to the aortic arch. Both of these shunts close a few minutes after birth. The monogastric digestive system of the fetal pig harbors many similarities with many other mammals. The fetal pig 's digestive organs are well developed before birth, although it does not ingest food. These organs include the esophagus, stomach, small and large intestines. Mesenteries serve to connect the organs of the fetal pig together. In order for digestion to occur, the fetal pig would have to ingest food. Instead, it gains much needed nutrition from the mother pig via the umbilical cord. In the adult pig, food will follow the general flow through the esophagus, which can be located behind the tracheae. From the oral cavity, the esophagus leads to the stomach, small intestine, and large intestine. Other organs developing during fetal pig development such as the gallbladder, pancreas and spleen are all critical in contributing to the overall flow of the digestive system because they contain digestive enzymes that will perform chemical digestion of food. After food is digested and nutrients are absorbed, the food follows through the large intestine and solid wastes are excreted through the anus. In the fetal pig however, the metabolic wastes are sent back to the mother through the umbilical cord where the mother excretes the wastes. Other remaining wastes remain in the fetal pig until birth. Then The oral cavity of the fetal pig begins developing before birth. The tongue 's taste buds, located in the enlarged papillae, facilitate food handling after birth. These taste buds develop during fetal development. Adult pigs have up to 15,000 taste buds, a much larger number than the average human tongue, which has 9,000. The dental anatomy of the fetal pig shows differences from adult pigs. The fetal pig develops primary teeth (which are later replaced with permanent teeth). Some may erupt during fetal stage, which is why some of the fetuses show evidence of teeth. Depending on the age of the fetal pig, it is natural to see eruptions of third incisor and canine in the fetal pig. Because the fetal pigs were still in the mother 's uterus, teeth will still form which supports reasons for hollow unerupted teeth that may be seen. Similar to human dental anatomy, the overall dental anatomy of the pig consists of incisors, canines, pre-molars, and molars. Piglets can have 28 teeth total and adult pigs can have 44 teeth total. The fetal pig 's urogenital system is similar to the adult pig 's system with the exception of the reproductive organs. The fetal pig urinary tract is relatively developed and easy to locate during dissection. The kidneys are located behind the abdominal organs and are partially embedded into the dorsal body wall by the spine. The ureters carry the urine to the urinary bladder, the large sack - like organ by the umbilical artery and vein, to the urethra. From there, the urine can be excreted. If the fetal pig is a female, there will be a fleshy protrusion ventral near the anus called the genital papilla. The female 's internal reproductive system is located below the kidneys. The two sac - like organs attached to the coil - like fallopian tubes are the ovaries. The uterus, which becomes the vagina, is located where the fallopian tubes meet. This system can be difficult to find as it is small as well as extremely dorsal and posterior to the other systems. Male fetal pigs have an urogenital opening located behind the umbilical cord. The swelling behind the hind legs of the fetal pig is the scrotum. The male 's internal reproductive system has two scrotal sacs, which depending on the age of the fetal pig may or may not have developed testes. The epididymis coil on the testes connects to the vas deferens. The vas deferens crosses over the ureter and enters the urethra, which then connects to the penis located just posterior to the skin. Similar to the female system, it may be difficult to identify all parts.

who is known for his gothic style of writing

Gothic fiction - wikipedia Gothic fiction, which is largely known by the subgenre of Gothic horror, is a genre or mode of literature and film that combines fiction and horror, death, and at times romance. Its origin is attributed to English author Horace Walpole, with his 1764 novel The Castle of Otranto, subtitled (in its second edition) "A Gothic Story ''. The effect of Gothic fiction feeds on a pleasing sort of terror, an extension of Romantic literary pleasures that were relatively new at the time of Walpole 's novel. It originated in England in the second half of the 18th century where, following Walpole, it was further developed by Clara Reeve, Ann Radcliffe, William Thomas Beckford and Matthew Lewis. The genre had much success in the 19th century, as witnessed by Mary Shelley 's Frankenstein and the works of Edgar Allan Poe. Another well known novel in this genre, dating from the late Victorian era, is Bram Stoker 's Dracula. The name Gothic refers to the (pseudo) - medieval buildings, emulating Gothic architecture, in which many of these stories take place. This extreme form of romanticism was very popular in England and Germany. The English Gothic novel also led to new novel types such as the German Schauerroman and the French Georgia. The novel usually regarded as the first Gothic novel is The Castle of Otranto by English author Horace Walpole, which was first published in 1764. Walpole 's declared aim was to combine elements of the medieval romance, which he deemed too fanciful, and the modern novel, which he considered to be too confined to strict realism. The basic plot created many other staple Gothic generic traits, including a threatening mystery and an ancestral curse, as well as countless trappings such as hidden passages and oft - fainting heroines. Walpole published the first edition disguised as a medieval romance from Italy discovered and republished by a fictitious translator. When Walpole admitted to his authorship in the second edition, its originally favourable reception by literary reviewers changed into rejection. The reviewers ' rejection reflected a larger cultural bias: the romance was usually held in contempt by the educated as a tawdry and debased kind of writing; the genre had gained some respectability only through the works of Samuel Richardson and Henry Fielding. A romance with superstitious elements, and moreover void of didactical intention, was considered a setback and not acceptable. Walpole 's forgery, together with the blend of history and fiction, contravened the principles of the Enlightenment and associated the Gothic novel with fake documentation. Clara Reeve, best known for her work The Old English Baron (1778), set out to take Walpole 's plot and adapt it to the demands of the time by balancing fantastic elements with 18th - century realism. The question now arose whether supernatural events that were not as evidently absurd as Walpole 's would not lead the simpler minds to believe them possible. Ann Radcliffe developed the technique of the explained supernatural in which every seemingly supernatural intrusion is eventually traced back to natural causes. Her success attracted many imitators. Among other elements, Ann Radcliffe introduced the brooding figure of the Gothic villain (A Sicilian Romance in 1790), a literary device that would come to be defined as the Byronic hero. Radcliffe 's novels, above all The Mysteries of Udolpho (1794), were best - sellers. However, along with most novels at the time, they were looked down upon by many well - educated people as sensationalist nonsense. Radcliffe also provided an aesthetic for the genre in an influential article "On the Supernatural in Poetry '', examining the distinction and correlation between horror and terror in Gothic fiction. Romantic literary movements developed in continental Europe concurrent with the development of the Gothic novel. The roman noir ("black novel '') appeared in France, by such writers as François Guillaume Ducray - Duminil, Baculard d'Arnaud and Madame de Genlis. In Germany, the Schauerroman ("shudder novel '') gained traction with writers as Friedrich Schiller, with novels like The Ghost - Seer (1789), and Christian Heinrich Spiess, with novels like Das Petermännchen (1791 / 92). These works were often more horrific and violent than the English Gothic novel. Matthew Lewis ' lurid tale of monastic debauchery, black magic and diabolism entitled The Monk (1796) offered the first continental novel to follow the conventions of the Gothic novel. Though Lewis 's novel could be read as a pastiche of the emerging genre, self - parody had been a constituent part of the Gothic from the time of the genre 's inception with Walpole 's Otranto. Lewis 's portrayal of depraved monks, sadistic inquisitors and spectral nuns -- and his scurrilous view of the Catholic Church -- appalled some readers, but The Monk was important in the genre 's development. The Monk also influenced Ann Radcliffe in her last novel, The Italian (1797). In this book, the hapless protagonists are ensnared in a web of deceit by a malignant monk called Schedoni and eventually dragged before the tribunals of the Inquisition in Rome, leading one contemporary to remark that if Radcliffe wished to transcend the horror of these scenes, she would have to visit hell itself. The Marquis de Sade used a subgothic framework for some of his fiction, notably The Misfortunes of Virtue and Eugenie de Franval, though the Marquis himself never thought of his like this. Sade critiqued the genre in the preface of his Reflections on the novel (1800) stating that the Gothic is "the inevitable product of the revolutionary shock with which the whole of Europe resounded ''. Contemporary critics of the genre also noted the correlation between the French revolutionary Terror and the "terrorist school '' of writing represented by Radcliffe and Lewis. Sade considered The Monk to be superior to the work of Ann Radcliffe. German gothic fiction is usually described by the term Schauerroman ("shudder novel ''). However, genres of Gespensterroman / Geisterroman ("ghost novel ''), Räuberroman ("robber novel ''), and Ritterroman ("chivalry novel '') also frequently share plot and motifs with the British "gothic novel ''. As its name suggests, the Räuberroman focuses on the life and deeds of outlaws, influenced by Friedrich von Schiller 's drama The Robbers (1781). Heinrich Zschokke 's Abällino, der grosse Bandit (1793) was translated into English by M.G. Lewis as The Bravo of Venice in 1804. The Ritterroman focuses on the life and deeds of the knights and soldiers, but features many elements found in the gothic novel, such as magic, secret tribunals, and medieval setting. Benedikte Naubert 's novel Hermann of Unna (1788) is seen as being very close to the Schauerroman genre. While the term Schauerroman is sometimes equated with the term "Gothic novel '', this is only partially true. Both genres are based on the terrifying side of the Middle Ages, and both frequently feature the same elements (castles, ghost, monster, etc.). However, Schauerroman 's key elements are necromancy and secret societies and it is remarkably more pessimistic than the British Gothic novel. All those elements are the basis for Friedrich von Schiller 's unfinished novel The Ghost - Seer (1786 -- 1789). The motive of secret societies is also present in the Karl Grosse 's Horrid Mysteries (1791 -- 1794) and Christian August Vulpius 's Rinaldo Rinaldini, the Robber Captain (1797). Other early authors and works included Christian Heinrich Spiess, with his works Das Petermännchen (1793), Der alte Überall and Nirgends (1792), Die Löwenritter (1794), and Hans Heiling, vierter und letzter Regent der Erd - Luft - Feuer - und Wasser - Geister (1798); Heinrich von Kleist 's short story "Das Bettelweib von Locarno '' (1797); and Ludwig Tieck 's Der blonde Eckbert (1797) and Der Runenberg (1804). Early examples of female - authored Gothic include Sophie Albrecht 's Das höfliche Gespenst (1797) and Graumännchen oder die Burg Rabenbühl: eine Geistergeschichte altteutschen Ursprungs (1799). During the next two decades, the most famous author of Gothic literature in Germany was polymath E.T.A. Hoffmann. His novel The Devil 's Elixirs (1815) was influenced by Lewis 's novel The Monk, and even mentions it during the book. The novel also explores the motive of doppelgänger, the term coined by another German author (and supporter of Hoffmann), Jean Paul in his humorous novel Siebenkäs (1796 -- 1797). He also wrote an opera based on the Friedrich de la Motte Fouqué 's Gothic story Undine, with de la Motte Fouqué himself writing the libretto. Aside from Hoffmann and de la Motte Fouqué, three other important authors from the era were Joseph Freiherr von Eichendorff (The Marble Statue, 1819), Ludwig Achim von Arnim (Die Majoratsherren, 1819), and Adelbert von Chamisso (Peter Schlemihls wundersame Geschichte, 1814). After them, Wilhelm Meinhold wrote The Amber Witch (1838) and Sidonia von Bork (1847). Also writing in the German language, Jeremias Gotthelf wrote The Black Spider (1842), an allegorical work that used Gothic themes. The last work from German writer Theodor Storm, The Rider on the White Horse (1888), also uses Gothic motives and themes. In the beginning of the 20th century, many German authors wrote works influenced by Schauerroman, including Hanns Heinz Ewers. Russian Gothic was not, until recently, viewed as a critical label by Russian critics. If used, the word "gothic '' was used to describe (mostly early) works of Fyodor Dostoyevsky. Most critics simply used the tags such as "Romanticism '' and "fantastique ''. Even in relatively new story collection translated as Russian 19th - Century Gothic Tales (from 1984), the editor used the name Фантастический мир русской романтической повести (The Fantastic World of Russian Romanticism Short Story / Novella). However, since the mid-1980s, Russian gothic fiction was discussed in books like The Gothic - Fantastic in Nineteenth - Century Russian Literature, European Gothic: A Spirited Exchange 1760 -- 1960, The Russian Gothic novel and its British antecedents and Goticheskiy roman v Rossii (Gothic Novel in Russia). The first Russian author whose work can be described as gothic fiction is considered to be Nikolay Mikhailovich Karamzin. Although many of his works feature gothic elements, the first one which is considered to belong purely in the "gothic fiction '' label is Ostrov Borngolm (Island of Bornholm) from 1793. The next important early Russian author is Nikolay Ivanovich Gnedich with his novel Don Corrado de Gerrera from 1803, which is set in Spain during the reign of Philip II. The term "gothic '' is sometimes also used to describe the ballads of Vasily Andreyevich Zhukovsky (particularly "Ludmila '' (1808) and "Svetlana '' (1813)). Also, the following poems are considered to belong in the gothic genre: Meshchevskiy 's "Lila '', Katenin 's "Olga '', Pushkhin 's "The Bridegroom '', Pletnev 's "The Gravedigger '' and Lermontov 's "Demon ''. The other authors from the romanticism era include: Antony Pogorelsky (penname of Alexey Alexeyevich Perovsky), Orest Somov, Oleksa Storozhenko, Alexandr Pushkin, Nikolai Alekseevich Polevoy, Mikhail Lermontov (his work Stuss) and Alexander Bestuzhev - Marlinsky. Pushkin is particularly important, as his short story "The Queen of Spades '' (1833) was adapted into operas and movies by both Russian and foreign artists. Some parts of Mikhail Yuryevich Lermontov 's "A Hero of Our Time '' (1840) are also considered to belong in the gothic genre, but they lack the supernatural elements of the other Russian gothic stories. The key author of the transition from romanticism to realism, Nikolai Vasilievich Gogol, is also one of the most important authors of the romanticism, and has produced a number of works which qualify as gothic fiction. His works include three short story collections, of which each one features a number of stories in the gothic genre, as well as many stories with gothic elements. The collections are: Evenings on a Farm Near Dikanka (1831 -- 1832) with the stories "St John 's Eve '' and "A Terrible Vengeance ''; Arabesques (1835), with the story "The Portrait ''; and Mirgorod (1835), with the story "Viy ''. The last story is probably the most famous, having inspired at least eight movie adaptations (two of which are now considered to be lost), one animated movie, two documentaries, and a video game. Gogol 's work is very different from western European gothic fiction, as he is influenced by Ukrainian folklore, Cossack lifestyle and, being a very religious man, Orthodox Christianity. Other authors of Gogol 's era included Vladimir Fyodorovich Odoevsky (The Living Corpse, written 1838, published 1844; The Ghost; The Sylphide; and other stories), Count Aleksey Konstantinovich Tolstoy (The Family of the Vourdalak, 1839, and The Vampire, 1841), Mikhail Zagoskin (Unexpected Guests), Józef Sękowski / Osip Senkovsky (Antar), and Yevgeny Baratynsky (The Ring). After Gogol, the Russian literature saw the rise of the realism, but many authors wrote stories belonging to the gothic fiction territory. Ivan Sergeyevich Turgenev, one of the world 's most celebrated realists, wrote Faust (1856), Phantoms (1864), Song of the Triumphant Love (1881), and Clara Milich (1883). Another Russian realist classic, Fyodor Mikhailovich Dostoyevsky, incorporated gothic elements in many of his works, although none of his novels are seen as purely gothic. Grigory Petrovich Danilevsky, who wrote historical and early science fiction novels and stories, wrote Mertvec - ubiytsa (Dead Murderer) in 1879. Also, Grigori Alexandrovich Machtet wrote the story "Zaklyatiy kazak ''. During the last years of the Russian Empire, in the early 20th century, many authors continued to write in the gothic fiction genre. These include historian and historical fiction writer Alexander Valentinovich Amfiteatrov; Leonid Nikolaievich Andreyev, who developed psychological characterization; symbolist Valery Yakovlevich Bryusov; Alexander Grin; Anton Pavlovich Chekhov; and Aleksandr Ivanovich Kuprin. Nobel Prize winner Ivan Alekseyevich Bunin wrote Dry Valley (1912), which is considered to be influenced by gothic literature. In her monograph on the subject, Muireann Maguire writes, "The centrality of the Gothic - fantastic to Russian fiction is almost impossible to exaggerate, and certainly exceptional in the context of world literature. '' Further contributions to the Gothic genre were seen in the work of the Romantic poets. Prominent examples include Samuel Taylor Coleridge 's The Rime of the Ancient Mariner and Christabel as well as John Keats ' La Belle Dame sans Merci (1819) and Isabella, or the Pot of Basil (1820) which feature mysteriously fey ladies. In the latter poem the names of the characters, the dream visions and the macabre physical details are influenced by the novels of premiere Gothicist Ann Radcliffe. Percy Bysshe Shelley 's first published work was the Gothic novel Zastrozzi (1810), about an outlaw obsessed with revenge against his father and half - brother. Shelley published a second Gothic novel in 1811, St. Irvyne; or, The Rosicrucian, about an alchemist who seeks to impart the secret of immortality. The poetry, romantic adventures, and character of Lord Byron -- characterised by his spurned lover Lady Caroline Lamb as "mad, bad and dangerous to know '' -- were another inspiration for the Gothic, providing the archetype of the Byronic hero. Byron features, under the codename of "Lord Ruthven '', in Lady Caroline 's own Gothic novel: Glenarvon (1816). Byron was also the host of the celebrated ghost - story competition involving himself, Percy Bysshe Shelley, Mary Shelley, and John William Polidori at the Villa Diodati on the banks of Lake Geneva in the summer of 1816. This occasion was productive of both Mary Shelley 's Frankenstein (1818) and Polidori 's The Vampyre (1819). This latter story revives Lamb 's Byronic "Lord Ruthven '', but this time as a vampire. The Vampyre has been accounted by cultural critic Christopher Frayling as one of the most influential works of fiction ever written and spawned a craze for vampire fiction and theatre (and latterly film) which has not ceased to this day. Mary Shelley 's novel, though clearly influenced by the Gothic tradition, is often considered the first science fiction novel, despite the omission in the novel of any scientific explanation of the monster 's animation and the focus instead on the moral issues and consequences of such a creation. A late example of traditional Gothic is Melmoth the Wanderer (1820) by Charles Maturin, which combines themes of anti-Catholicism with an outcast Byronic hero. By the Victorian era, Gothic had ceased to be the dominant genre, and was dismissed by most critics. (Indeed, the form 's popularity as an established genre had already begun to erode with the success of the historical romance popularised by Sir Walter Scott.) However, in many ways, it was now entering its most creative phase. Recently readers and critics have begun to reconsider a number of previously overlooked Penny Blood or Penny Dreadful serial fictions by such authors as G.W.M. Reynolds who wrote a trilogy of Gothic horror novels: Faust (1846), Wagner the Wehr - wolf (1847) and The Necromancer (1857). Reynolds was also responsible for The Mysteries of London which has been accorded an important place in the development of the urban as a particularly Victorian Gothic setting, an area within which interesting links can be made with established readings of the work of Dickens and others. Another famous penny dreadful of this era was the anonymously authored Varney the Vampire (1847). The formal relationship between these fictions, serialised for predominantly working class audiences, and the roughly contemporaneous sensation fictions serialised in middle class periodicals is also an area worthy of inquiry. An important and innovative reinterpreter of the Gothic in this period was Edgar Allan Poe. Poe focused less on the traditional elements of gothic stories and more on the psychology of his characters as they often descended into madness. Poe 's critics complained about his "German '' tales, to which he replied, ' that terror is not of Germany, but of the soul '. Poe, a critic himself, believed that terror was a legitimate literary subject. His story "The Fall of the House of Usher '' (1839) explores these ' terrors of the soul ' while revisiting classic Gothic tropes of aristocratic decay, death, and madness. The legendary villainy of the Spanish Inquisition, previously explored by Gothicists Radcliffe, Lewis, and Maturin, is based on a true account of a survivor in "The Pit and the Pendulum '' (1842). The influence of Ann Radcliffe is also detectable in Poe 's "The Oval Portrait '' (1842), including an honorary mention of her name in the text of the story. The influence of Byronic Romanticism evident in Poe is also apparent in the work of the Brontë sisters. Emily Brontë 's Wuthering Heights (1847) transports the Gothic to the forbidding Yorkshire Moors and features ghostly apparitions and a Byronic hero in the person of the demonic Heathcliff. The Brontës ' fiction is seen by some feminist critics as prime examples of Female Gothic, exploring woman 's entrapment within domestic space and subjection to patriarchal authority and the transgressive and dangerous attempts to subvert and escape such restriction. Emily 's Cathy and Charlotte Brontë 's Jane Eyre are both examples of female protagonists in such a role. Louisa May Alcott 's Gothic potboiler, A Long Fatal Love Chase (written in 1866, but published in 1995) is also an interesting specimen of this subgenre. Elizabeth Gaskell 's tales "The Doom of the Griffiths '' (1858) "Lois the Witch '', and "The Grey Woman '' all employ one of the most common themes of Gothic fiction, the power of ancestral sins to curse future generations, or the fear that they will. The gloomy villain, forbidding mansion, and persecuted heroine of Sheridan Le Fanu 's Uncle Silas (1864) shows the direct influence of both Walpole 's Otranto and Radcliffe 's Udolpho. Le Fanu 's short story collection In a Glass Darkly (1872) includes the superlative vampire tale Carmilla, which provided fresh blood for that particular strand of the Gothic and influenced Bram Stoker 's vampire novel Dracula (1897). According to literary critic Terry Eagleton, Le Fanu, together with his predecessor Maturin and his successor Stoker, form a subgenre of Irish Gothic, whose stories, featuring castles set in a barren landscape, with a cast of remote aristocrats dominating an atavistic peasantry, represent in allegorical form the political plight of colonial Ireland subjected to the Protestant Ascendancy. The genre was also a heavy influence on more mainstream writers, such as Charles Dickens, who read Gothic novels as a teenager and incorporated their gloomy atmosphere and melodrama into his own works, shifting them to a more modern period and an urban setting, including Oliver Twist (1837 -- 8), Bleak House (1854) (Mighall 2003) and Great Expectations (1860 -- 61). These pointed to the juxtaposition of wealthy, ordered and affluent civilisation next to the disorder and barbarity of the poor within the same metropolis. Bleak House in particular is credited with seeing the introduction of urban fog to the novel, which would become a frequent characteristic of urban Gothic literature and film (Mighall 2007). His most explicitly Gothic work is his last novel, The Mystery of Edwin Drood, which he did not live to complete and which was published in unfinished state upon his death in 1870. The mood and themes of the Gothic novel held a particular fascination for the Victorians, with their morbid obsession with mourning rituals, mementos, and mortality in general. The 1880s saw the revival of the Gothic as a powerful literary form allied to fin de siecle, which fictionalized contemporary fears like ethical degeneration and questioned the social structures of the time. Classic works of this Urban Gothic include Robert Louis Stevenson 's Strange Case of Dr Jekyll and Mr Hyde (1886), Oscar Wilde 's The Picture of Dorian Gray (1891), George du Maurier 's Trilby (1894), Richard Marsh 's The Beetle: A Mystery (1897), Henry James ' The Turn of the Screw (1898), and the stories of Arthur Machen. Some of the works of Canadian writer Gilbert Parker also fall into the genre, including the stories in The Lane that Had No Turning (1900). The most famous Gothic villain ever, Count Dracula, was created by Bram Stoker in his novel Dracula (1897). Stoker 's book also established Transylvania and Eastern Europe as the locus classicus of the Gothic. Gaston Leroux 's serialized novel The Phantom of the Opera (1909 -- 1910) is another well - known example of gothic fiction from the early 20th century. In America, two notable writers of the end of the 19th century, in the Gothic tradition, were Ambrose Bierce and Robert W. Chambers. Bierce 's short stories were in the horrific and pessimistic tradition of Poe. Chambers, though, indulged in the decadent style of Wilde and Machen, even to the extent of his inclusion of a character named ' Wilde ' in his The King in Yellow. The conventions of Gothic literature did not spring from nowhere into the mind of Horace Walpole. The components that would eventually combine into Gothic literature had a rich history by the time Walpole perpetrated his literary hoax in 1764. Gothic literature is often described with words such as "wonder '' and "terror. '' This sense of wonder and terror, which provides the suspension of disbelief so important to the Gothic -- which, except for when it is parodied, even for all its occasional melodrama, is typically played straight, in a self - serious manner -- requires the imagination of the reader to be willing to accept the idea that there might be something "beyond that which is immediately in front of us. '' The mysterious imagination necessary for Gothic literature to have gained any traction had been growing for some time before the advent of the Gothic. The necessity for this came as the known world was beginning to become more explored, reducing the inherent geographical mysteries of the world. The edges of the map were being filled in, and no one was finding any dragons. The human mind required a replacement. Clive Bloom theorizes that this void in the collective imagination was critical in the development of the cultural possibility for the rise of the Gothic tradition. The setting of most early Gothic works was a medieval one, but this had been a common theme long before Walpole. In Britain especially, there was a desire to reclaim a shared past. This obsession frequently led to extravagant architectural displays, and sometimes mock tournaments were held. It was not merely in literature that a medieval revival made itself felt, and this too contributed to a culture ready to accept a perceived medieval work in 1764. The Gothic often uses scenery of decay, death, and morbidity to achieve its effects (especially in the Italian Horror school of Gothic). However, Gothic literature was not the origin of this tradition; indeed it was far older. The corpses, skeletons, and churchyards so commonly associated with the early Gothic were popularized by the Graveyard Poets, and were also present in novels such as Daniel Defoe 's Journal of the Plague Year, which contains comical scenes of plague carts and piles of plague corpses. Even earlier, poets like Edmund Spenser evoked a dreary and sorrowful mood in such poems as Epithalamion. All of the aspects of pre-Gothic literature mentioned above occur to some degree in the Gothic, but even taken together, they still fall short of true Gothic. What was lacking was an aesthetic, which would serve to tie the elements together. Bloom notes that this aesthetic must take the form of a theoretical or philosophical core, which is necessary to "sav (e) the best tales from becoming mere anecdote or incoherent sensationalism. '' In this particular case, the aesthetic needed to be an emotional one, which was finally provided by Edmund Burke 's 1757 work, A Philosophical Enquiry into the Origin of Our Ideas of the Sublime and the Beautiful, which "finally codif (ied) the gothic emotional experience. '' Specifically, Burke 's thoughts on the Sublime, Terror, and Obscurity were most applicable. These sections can be summarized thus: the Sublime is that which is or produces the "strongest emotion which the mind is capable of feeling, ''; the Sublime is most often evoked by Terror; and to cause Terror we need some amount of Obscurity -- we ca n't know everything about that which is inducing Terror -- or else "a great deal of the apprehension vanishes ''; Obscurity is necessary in order to experience the Terror of the unknown. Bloom asserts that Burke 's descriptive vocabulary was essential to the Romantic works that eventually informed the Gothic. The excesses, stereotypes, and frequent absurdities of the traditional Gothic made it rich territory for satire. The most famous parody of the Gothic is Jane Austen 's novel Northanger Abbey (1818) in which the naive protagonist, after reading too much Gothic fiction, conceives herself a heroine of a Radcliffian romance and imagines murder and villainy on every side, though the truth turns out to be much more prosaic. Jane Austen 's novel is valuable for including a list of early Gothic works since known as the Northanger Horrid Novels. These books, with their lurid titles, were once thought to be the creations of Jane Austen 's imagination, though later research by Michael Sadleir and Montague Summers confirmed that they did actually exist and stimulated renewed interest in the Gothic. They are currently all being reprinted. Another example of Gothic parody in a similar vein is The Heroine by Eaton Stannard Barrett (1813). Cherry Wilkinson, a fatuous female protagonist with a history of novel - reading, fancies herself as the heroine of a Gothic romance. She perceives and models reality according to the stereotypes and typical plot structures of the Gothic novel, leading to a series of absurd events culminating in catastrophe. After her downfall, her affectations and excessive imaginations become eventually subdued by the voice of reason in the form of Stuart, a paternal figure, under whose guidance the protagonist receives a sound education and correction of her misguided taste Notable English 20th - century writers in the Gothic tradition include Algernon Blackwood, William Hope Hodgson, M.R. James, Hugh Walpole, and Marjorie Bowen. In America pulp magazines such as Weird Tales reprinted classic Gothic horror tales from the previous century, by such authors as Poe, Arthur Conan Doyle, and Edward Bulwer - Lytton and printed new stories by modern authors featuring both traditional and new horrors. The most significant of these was H.P. Lovecraft who also wrote an excellent conspectus of the Gothic and supernatural horror tradition in his Supernatural Horror in Literature (1936) as well as developing a Mythos that would influence Gothic and contemporary horror well into the 21st century. Lovecraft 's protégé, Robert Bloch, contributed to Weird Tales and penned Psycho (1959), which drew on the classic interests of the genre. From these, the Gothic genre per se gave way to modern horror fiction, regarded by some literary critics as a branch of the Gothic although others use the term to cover the entire genre. Gothic Romances of this description became popular during the 1950s, 1960s, and 1970s, with authors such as Phyllis A. Whitney, Joan Aiken, Dorothy Eden, Victoria Holt, Barbara Michaels, Mary Stewart, and Jill Tattersall. Many featured covers depicting a terror - stricken woman in diaphanous attire in front of a gloomy castle, often with a single lit window. Many were published under the Paperback Library Gothic imprint and were marketed to a female audience. Though the authors were mostly women, some men wrote Gothic romances under female pseudonyms. For instance the prolific Clarissa Ross and Marilyn Ross were pseudonyms for the male writer Dan Ross, and Frank Belknap Long published Gothics under his wife 's name, Lyda Belknap Long. Another example is British writer Peter O'Donnell, who wrote under the pseudonym Madeleine Brent. Outside of companies like Lovespell, who carry Colleen Shannon, very few books seem to be published using the term today. The genre also influenced American writing to create the Southern Gothic genre, which combines some Gothic sensibilities (such as the grotesque) with the setting and style of the Southern United States. Examples include William Faulkner, Eudora Welty, Truman Capote, Flannery O'Connor, Davis Grubb, Anne Rice and Harper Lee. Contemporary American writers in this tradition include Joyce Carol Oates, in such novels as Bellefleur and A Bloodsmoor Romance and short story collections such as Night - Side (Skarda 1986b) and Raymond Kennedy in his novel Lulu Incognito. The Southern Ontario Gothic applies a similar sensibility to a Canadian cultural context. Robertson Davies, Alice Munro, Barbara Gowdy, Timothy Findley and Margaret Atwood have all produced works that are notable exemplars of this form. Another writer in this tradition was Henry Farrell, whose best - known work was the 1960 Hollywood horror novel What Ever Happened To Baby Jane? Farrell 's novels spawned a subgenre of "Grande Dame Guignol '' in the cinema, represented by such films as the 1962 film based on Farrell 's novel, which starred Bette Davis versus Joan Crawford; this subgenre of films was dubbed the "psycho - biddy '' genre. Many modern writers of horror (or indeed other types of fiction) exhibit considerable Gothic sensibilities -- examples include the works of Anne Rice, Stella Coulson, Susan Hill, Poppy Z. Brite and Neil Gaiman as well as some of the sensationalist works of Stephen King Thomas M. Disch 's novel The Priest (1994) was subtitled A Gothic Romance, and was partly modelled on Matthew Lewis ' The Monk. The Romantic strand of Gothic was taken up in Daphne du Maurier 's Rebecca (1938) which is considered by some to be in many respects a reworking of Charlotte Brontë 's Jane Eyre. Other books by du Maurier, such as Jamaica Inn (1936), also display Gothic tendencies. Du Maurier 's work inspired a substantial body of "female Gothics '', concerning heroines alternately swooning over or being terrified by scowling Byronic men in possession of acres of prime real estate and the appertaining droit du seigneur. Educators in literary, cultural, and architectural studies appreciate the Gothic as an area that facilitates the investigation of the beginnings of scientific certainty. As Carol Senf has stated, "the Gothic was (...) a counterbalance produced by writers and thinkers who felt limited by such a confident worldview and recognized that the power of the past, the irrational, and the violent continue to hold sway in the world. '' As such, the Gothic helps students better understand their own doubts about the self - assurance of today 's scientists. Scotland is the location of what was probably the world _́ s first postgraduate program to exclusively consider the genre: the MLitt in the Gothic Imagination at the University of Stirling, which first recruited in 1996. The themes of the literary Gothic have been translated into other media. The early 1970s saw a Gothic Romance comic book mini-trend with such titles as DC Comics ' The Dark Mansion Of Forbidden Love and The Sinister House of Secret Love, Charlton Comics ' Haunted Love, Curtis Magazines ' Gothic Tales of Love, and Atlas / Seaboard Comics ' one - shot magazine Gothic Romances. There was a notable revival in 20th - century Gothic horror films such the classic Universal Horror films of the 1930s, Hammer Horror, and Roger Corman 's Poe cycle. In Hindi cinema, the Gothic tradition was combined with aspects of Indian culture, particularly reincarnation, to give rise to an "Indian Gothic '' genre, beginning with the films Mahal (1949) and Madhumati (1958). Modern Gothic horror films include Sleepy Hollow, Interview with the Vampire, Underworld, The Wolfman, From Hell, Dorian Gray, Let The Right One In, The Woman in Black, and Crimson Peak. The 1960s Gothic television series Dark Shadows borrowed liberally from the Gothic tradition and featured elements such as haunted mansions, vampires, witches, doomed romances, werewolves, obsession, and madness. The Showtime TV series Penny Dreadful brings many classic gothic characters together in a psychological thriller that takes place in the dark corners of Victorian London (2014 debut). 20th - century rock music also had its Gothic side. Black Sabbath 's 1970 debut album created a dark sound different from other bands at the time and has been called the first ever "Goth - rock '' record. Themes from Gothic writers such as H.P. Lovecraft were also used among gothic rock and heavy metal bands, especially in black metal, thrash metal (Metallica 's The Call of Ktulu), death metal, and gothic metal. For example, heavy metal musician King Diamond delights in telling stories full of horror, theatricality, satanism and anti-Catholicism in his compositions. Various video games feature Gothic horror themes and plots. For example, the Castlevania series typically involves a hero of the Belmont lineage exploring a dark, old castle, fighting vampires, werewolves, Frankenstein 's monster, and other Gothic monster staples, culminating in a battle against Dracula himself. Others, such as Ghosts'n Goblins feature a campier parody of Gothic fiction. In role - playing games, the pioneering 1983 Dungeons & Dragons adventure Ravenloft instructs the players to defeat the vampire Strahd von Zarovich, who pines for his dead lover. It has been acclaimed as one of the best role - playing adventures of all time, and even inspired an entire fictional world of the same name. Elements found especially in American Gothic fiction include: Gothic literature is intimately associated with the Gothic Revival architecture of the same era. In a way similar to the Gothic revivalists ' rejection of the clarity and rationalism of the neoclassical style of the Enlightened Establishment, the literary Gothic embodies an appreciation of the joys of extreme emotion, the thrills of fearfulness and awe inherent in the sublime, and a quest for atmosphere. The ruins of Gothic buildings gave rise to multiple linked emotions by representing the inevitable decay and collapse of human creations -- thus the urge to add fake ruins as eyecatchers in English landscape parks. English Gothic writers often associated medieval buildings with what they saw as a dark and terrifying period, characterized by harsh laws enforced by torture, and with mysterious, fantastic, and superstitious rituals. In literature such Anti-Catholicism had a European dimension featuring Roman Catholic institutions such as the Inquisition (in southern European countries such as Italy and Spain). Just as elements of Gothic architecture were borrowed during the Gothic Revival period in architecture, ideas about the Gothic period and Gothic period architecture were often used by Gothic novelists. Architecture itself played a role in the naming of Gothic novels, with many titles referring to castles or other common Gothic buildings. This naming was followed up with many Gothic novels often set in Gothic buildings, with the action taking place in castles, abbeys, convents and monasteries, many of them in ruins, evoking "feelings of fear, surprise, confinement ''. This setting of the novel, a castle or religious building, often one fallen into disrepair, was an essential element of the Gothic novel. Placing a story in a Gothic building served several purposes. It drew on feelings of awe, it implied the story was set in the past, it gave an impression of isolation or being cut off from the rest of the world and it drew on the religious associations of the Gothic style. This trend of using Gothic architecture began with The Castle of Otranto and was to become a major element of the genre from that point forward. Besides using Gothic architecture as a setting, with the aim of eliciting certain associations from the reader, there was an equally close association between the use of setting and the storylines of Gothic novels, with the architecture often serving as a mirror for the characters and the plot lines of the story. The buildings in the Castle of Otranto, for example, are riddled with underground tunnels, which the characters use to move back and forth in secret. This secret movement mirrors one of the plots of the story, specifically the secrets surrounding Manfred 's possession of the castle and how it came into his family. The setting of the novel in a Gothic castle was meant to imply not only a story set in the past but one shrouded in darkness. In William Thomas Beckford 's The History of the Caliph Vathek, architecture was used to both illustrate certain elements of Vathek 's character and also warn about the dangers of over-reaching. Vathek 's hedonism and devotion to the pursuit of pleasure are reflected in the pleasure wings he adds on to his castle, each with the express purpose of satisfying a different sense. He also builds a tall tower in order to further his quest for knowledge. This tower represents Vathek 's pride and his desire for a power that is beyond the reach of humans. He is later warned that he must destroy the tower and return to Islam or else risk dire consequences. Vathek 's pride wins out and, in the end, his quest for power and knowledge ends with him confined to Hell. In the Castle of Wolfenbach the castle that Matilda seeks refuge at while on the run is believed to be haunted. Matilda discovers it is not ghosts but the Countess of Wolfenbach who lives on the upper floors and who has been forced into hiding by her husband, the Count. Matilda 's discovery of the Countess and her subsequent informing others of the Countess 's presence destroys the Count 's secret. Shortly after Matilda meets the Countess the Castle of Wolfenbach itself is destroyed in a fire, mirroring the destruction of the Count 's attempts to keep his wife a secret and how his plots throughout the story eventually lead to his own destruction. The major part of the action in the Romance of the Forest is set in an abandoned and ruined abbey and the building itself served as a moral lesson, as well as a major setting for and mirror of the action in the novel. The setting of the action in a ruined abbey, drawing on Burke 's aesthetic theory of the sublime and the beautiful established the location as a place of terror and of safety. Burke argued the sublime was a source of awe or fear brought about by strong emotions such as terror or mental pain. On the other end of the spectrum was the beautiful, which were those things that brought pleasure and safety. Burke argued that the sublime was the more preferred to the two. Related to the concepts of the sublime and the beautiful is the idea of the picturesque, introduced by William Gilpin, which was thought to exist between the two other extremes. The picturesque was that which continued elements of both the sublime and the beautiful and can be thought of as a natural or uncultivated beauty, such as a beautiful ruin or a partially overgrown building. In Romance of the Forest Adeline and the La Mottes live in constant fear of discovery by either the police or Adeline 's father and, at times, certain characters believe the castle to be haunted. On the other hand, the abbey also serves as a comfort, as it provides shelter and safety to the characters. Finally, it is picturesque, in that it was a ruin and serves as a combination of both the natural and the human. By setting the story in the ruined abbey, Radcliffe was able to use architecture to draw on the aesthetic theories of the time and set the tone of the story in the minds of the reader. As with many of the buildings in Gothic novels, the abbey also has a series of tunnels. These tunnels serve as both a hiding place for the characters and as a place of secrets. This was mirrored later in the novel with Adeline hiding from the Marquis de Montalt and the secrets of the Marquis, which would eventually lead to his downfall and Adeline 's salvation. Architecture served as an additional character in many Gothic novels, bringing with it associations to the past and to secrets and, in many cases, moving the action along and foretelling future events in the story. Characterized by its castles, dungeons, gloomy forests and hidden passages, from the Gothic novel genre emerged the Female Gothic. Guided by the works of authors such as Ann Radcliffe, Mary Shelley and Charlotte Brontë, the Female Gothic permitted the introduction of feminine societal and sexual desires into Gothic texts. It has been said that medieval society, on which some Gothic texts are based, granted women writers the opportunity to attribute "features of the mode (of Gothicism) as the result of the suppression of female sexuality, or else as a challenge to the gender hierarchy and values of a male - dominated culture ''. Significantly, with the development of the Female Gothic came the literary technique of explaining the supernatural. The Supernatural Explained -- as this technique was aptly named -- is a recurring plot device in Radcliffe 's The Romance of the Forest. The novel, published in 1791, is among Radcliffe 's earlier works. The novel sets up suspense for horrific events, which all have natural explanations. An 18th - century response to the novel from the Monthly Review reads: "We must hear no more of enchanted forests and castles, giants, dragons, walls of fire and other ' monstrous and prodigious things; ' -- yet still forests and castles remain, and it is still within the province of fiction, without overstepping the limits of nature, to make use of them for the purpose of creating surprise. '' Radcliffe 's use of Supernatural Explained is characteristic of the Gothic author. The female protagonists pursued in these texts are often caught in an unfamiliar and terrifying landscape, delivering higher degrees of horror. The end result, however, is the explained supernatural, rather than terrors familiar to women such as rape or incest, or the expected ghosts or haunted castles. In Radcliffe 's The Romance of the Forest, one may follow the female protagonist, Adeline, through the forest, hidden passages and abbey dungeons, "without exclaiming, ' How these antique towers and vacant courts / chill the suspended soul, till expectation wears the cast of fear! '' The decision of Female Gothic writers to supplement true supernatural horrors with explained cause and effect transforms romantic plots and Gothic tales into common life and writing. Rather than establish the romantic plot in impossible events Radcliffe strays away from writing "merely fables, which no stretch of fancy could realize. '' English scholar Chloe Chard 's published introduction to The Romance of the Forest refers to the "promised effect of terror ''. The outcome, however, "may prove less horrific than the novel has originally suggested ''. Radcliffe sets up suspense throughout the course of the novel, insinuating a supernatural or superstitious cause to the mysterious and horrific occurrences of the plot. However, the suspense is relieved with the Supernatural Explained. For example, Adeline is reading the illegible manuscripts she found in her bedchamber 's secret passage in the abbey when she hears a chilling noise from beyond her doorway. She goes to sleep unsettled, only to awake and learn that what she assumed to be haunting spirits were actually the domestic voices of the servant, Peter. La Motte, her caretaker in the abbey, recognizes the heights to which her imagination reached after reading the autobiographical manuscripts of a past murdered man in the abbey. He then informed her, that when he thought Monsieur and Madame La Motte were asleep, he had stolen to her chamber door (...) that he had called several times as loudly as he dared, but receiving no answer, he believed she was asleep (...) This account of the voice she had heard relieved Adeline 's spirits; she was even surprised she did not know it, till remembering the perturbation of her mind for some time preceding, this surprise disappeared. '' While Adeline is alone in her characteristically Gothic chamber, she detects something supernatural, or mysterious about the setting. However, the "actual sounds that she hears are accounted for by the efforts of the faithful servant to communicate with her, there is still a hint of supernatural in her dream, inspired, it would be seem, by the fact that she is on the spot of her father 's murder and that his unburied skeleton is concealed in the room next hers ''. The supernatural here is indefinitely explained, but what remains is the "tendency in the human mind to reach out beyond the tangible and the visible; and it is in depicting this mood of vague and half - defined emotion that Mrs. Radcliffe excels ''. Transmuting the Gothic novel into a comprehensible tale for the imaginative 18th - century woman was useful for the Female Gothic writers of the time. Novels were an experience for these women who had no outlet for a thrilling excursion. Sexual encounters and superstitious fantasies were idle elements of the imagination. However, the use of Female Gothic and Supernatural Explained, are a "good example of how the formula (Gothic novel) changes to suit the interests and needs of its current readers ''. In many respects, the novel 's "current reader '' of the time was the woman who, even as she enjoyed such novels, would feel that she had to "(lay) down her book with affected indifference, or momentary shame, '' according to Jane Austen, author of Northanger Abbey. The Gothic novel shaped its form for female readers to "turn to Gothic romances to find support for their own mixed feelings ''. Following the characteristic Gothic Bildungsroman - like plot sequence, the Female Gothic allowed its readers to graduate from "adolescence to maturity, '' in the face of the realized impossibilities of the supernatural. As female protagonists in novels like Adeline in The Romance of the Forest learn that their superstitious fantasies and terrors are replaced with natural cause and reasonable doubt, the reader may understand the true position of the heroine in the novel: "The heroine possesses the romantic temperament that perceives strangeness where others see none. Her sensibility, therefore, prevents her from knowing that her true plight is her condition, the disability of being female. '' Another text in which the heroine of the Gothic novel encounters the Supernatural Explained is The Castle of Wolfenbach (1793) by Gothic author Eliza Parsons. This Female Gothic text by Parsons is listed as one of Catherine Morland 's Gothic texts in Austen 's Northanger Abbey. The heroine in The Castle of Wolfenbach, Matilda, seeks refuge after overhearing a conversation in which her Uncle Weimar speaks of plans to rape her. Matilda finds asylum in the Castle of Wolfenbach: a castle inhabited by old married caretakers who claim that the second floor is haunted. Matilda, being the courageous heroine, decides to explore the mysterious wing of the Castle. Bertha, wife of Joseph, (caretakers of the castle) tells Matilda of the "other wing '': "Now for goodness sake, dear madam, do n't go no farther, for as sure as you are alive, here the ghosts live, for Joseph says he often sees lights and hears strange things. '' However, as Matilda ventures through the castle, she finds that the wing is not haunted by ghosts and rattling chains, but rather, the Countess of Wolfenbach. The supernatural is explained, in this case, ten pages into the novel, and the natural cause of the superstitious noises is a Countess in distress. Characteristic of the Female Gothic, the natural cause of terror is not the supernatural, but rather female disability and societal horrors: rape, incest and the threatening control of the male antagonist.

what pitch is a perfect fourth (p4) above g#

Perfect fourth - wikipedia A fourth is a musical interval encompassing four staff positions in the music notation of Western culture, and a perfect fourth (Play (help info)) is the fourth spanning five semitones (half steps, or half tones). For example, the ascending interval from C to the next F is a perfect fourth, as the note F is the fifth semitone above C, and there are four staff positions between C and F. Diminished and augmented fourths span the same number of staff positions, but consist of a different number of semitones (four and six, respectively). The perfect fourth may be derived from the harmonic series as the interval between the third and fourth harmonics. The term perfect identifies this interval as belonging to the group of perfect intervals, so called because they are neither major nor minor (unlike thirds, which are either minor or major) but perfect. A perfect fourth in just intonation corresponds to a pitch ratio of 4: 3, or about 498 cents (Play (help info)), while in equal temperament a perfect fourth is equal to five semitones, or 500 cents (see additive synthesis). Up until the late 19th century, the perfect fourth was often called by its Greek name, diatessaron. Its most common occurrence is between the fifth and upper root of all major and minor triads and their extensions. A helpful way to recognize a perfect fourth is to hum the beginning of the "Bridal Chorus '' from Wagner 's Lohengrin ("Treulich geführt '', the colloquially - titled "Here Comes the Bride ''). Other examples are the first two notes of the Christmas carol "Hark! The Herald Angels Sing '' or "El Cóndor Pasa '', and, for a descending perfect fourth, the second and third notes of "O Come All Ye Faithful ''. The perfect fourth is a perfect interval like the unison, octave, and perfect fifth, and it is a sensory consonance. In common practice harmony, however, it is considered a stylistic dissonance in certain contexts, namely in two - voice textures and whenever it appears above the bass. If the bass note also happens to be the chord 's root, the interval 's upper note almost always temporarily displaces the third of any chord, and, in the terminology used in popular music, is then called a suspended fourth. Conventionally, adjacent strings of the double bass and of the bass guitar are a perfect fourth apart when unstopped, as are all pairs but one of adjacent guitar strings under standard guitar tuning. Sets of tom - tom drums are also commonly tuned in perfect fourths. The 4: 3 just perfect fourth arises in the C major scale between G and C. Play (help info) The use of perfect fourths and fifths to sound in parallel with and to "thicken '' the melodic line was prevalent in music prior to the European polyphonic music of the Middle Ages. In the 13th century, the fourth and fifth together were the concordantiae mediae (middle consonances) after the unison and octave, and before the thirds and sixths. In the 15th century the fourth came to be regarded as dissonant on its own, and was first classed as a dissonance by Johannes Tinctoris in his Terminorum musicae diffinitorium (1473). In practice, however, it continued to be used as a consonance when supported by the interval of a third or fifth in a lower voice. Modern acoustic theory supports the medieval interpretation insofar as the intervals of unison, octave, fifth and fourth have particularly simple frequency ratios. The octave has the ratio of 2: 1, for example the interval between a ' at A440 and a ' ' at 880 Hz, giving the ratio 880: 440, or 2: 1. The fifth has a ratio of 3: 2, and its complement has the ratio of 3: 4. Ancient and medieval music theorists appear to have been familiar with these ratios, see for example their experiments on the Monochord. In the years that followed, the frequency ratios of these intervals on keyboards and other fixed - tuning instruments would change slightly as different systems of tuning, such as meantone temperament, well temperament, and equal temperament were developed. In early western polyphony, these simpler intervals (unison, octave, fifth and fourth) were generally preferred. However, in its development between the 12th and 16th centuries: The music of the 20th century for the most part discards the rules of "classical '' western tonality. For instance, composers such as Erik Satie borrowed stylistic elements from the Middle Ages, but some composers found more innovative uses for these intervals. In medieval music, the tonality of the common practice period had not yet developed, and many examples may be found with harmonic structures that are built on fourths and fifths. The Musica enchiriadis of the mid 10th century, a guidebook for musical practice of the time, described singing in parallel fourths, fifths, and octaves. This development continued, and the music of the Notre Dame school may be considered the apex of a coherent harmony in this style. For instance, in one Alleluia (Listen) by Pérotin, the fourth is favoured. Elsewhere, in parallel organum at the fourth, the upper line would be accompanied a fourth below. Also important was the practice of Fauxbourdon, which is a three voice technique (not infrequently improvisatory) in which the two lower voices proceed parallel to the upper voice at a fourth and sixth below. Fauxbourdon, while making extensive use of fourths, is also an important step towards the later triadic harmony of tonality, as it may be seen as a first inversion (or 6 / 3) triad. This parallel 6 / 3 triad was incorporated into the contrapuntal style at the time, in which parallel fourths were sometimes considered problematic, and written around with ornaments or other modifications to the Fauxbourdon style. An example of this is the start of the Marian - Antiphon Ave Maris Stella (Listen) by Guillaume Dufay, a master of Fauxbourdon. The development of tonality continued through the Renaissance until it was fully realized at last by composers of the Baroque era. As time progressed through the late Renaissance and early Baroque, the fourth became more understood as an interval that needed resolution. Increasingly the harmonies of fifths and fourths yielded to uses of thirds and sixths. In the example, cadence forms from works by Orlando di Lasso and Palestrina show the fourth being resolved as a suspension. (Listen) In the early Baroque music of Claudio Monteverdi and Girolamo Frescobaldi triadic harmony was thoroughly utilized. Diatonic and chromatic passages strongly outlining the interval of a fourth appear in the Lamento genre, and often in Passus duriusculus passages of chromatic descent. In the madrigals of Claudio Monteverdi and Carlo Gesualdo the intensive interpretation of the text (Word painting) frequently highlights the shape of a fourth as an extremely delayed resolution of a fourth suspension. Also, in Frescobaldi 's Chromatic Toccata of 1635 the outlined fourths overlap, bisecting various church modes. In the first third of the 18th century, ground - laying theoretical treatises on composition and harmony were written. Jean - Philippe Rameau completed his treatise Le Traité de l'harmonie réduite à ses principes naturels (French: the theory of harmony reduced to its natural principles) in 1722 which supplemented his work of four years earlier, Nouveau Système de musique theoretique (French: new system of music theory); these together may be considered the cornerstone of modern Music theory relating to consonance and harmony. The Austrian composer Johann Fux published in 1725 his powerful treatise on the composition of Counterpoint in the style of Palestrina under the title Gradus ad Parnassum (Latin: The Steps to Parnassus). He outlined various types of counterpoint (e.g., note against note), and suggested a careful application of the fourth so as to avoid dissonance. The blossoming of tonality and the establishment of well temperament in Bach 's time both had a continuing influence up to the late Romantic period, and the tendencies towards quartal harmony were somewhat suppressed. An increasingly refined cadence, and triadic harmony defined the musical work of this era. Counterpoint was simplified to favour an upper line with a clear accompanying harmony. Still, there are many examples of dense counterpoint utilizing fourths in this style, commonly as part of the background urging the harmonic expression in a passage along to a climax. Mozart in his so - called Dissonance Quartet KV 465 (Listen) used Chromatic and Whole tone scales to outline fourths, and the subject of the fugue in the third movement of Beethoven 's Piano sonata op. 110 (Listen) opens with three ascending fourths. These are all melodic examples, however, and the underlying harmony is built on thirds. Composers started to reassess the quality of the fourth as a consonance rather than a dissonance. This would later influence the development of quartal and quintal harmony. The Tristan chord is made up of the notes F ♮, B ♮, D ♯ and G ♯ and is the very first chord heard in Richard Wagner 's opera Tristan und Isolde. The chord had been found in earlier works (notably Beethoven 's Piano Sonata No. 18) but Wagner 's usage was significant, first because it is seen as moving away from traditional tonal harmony and even towards atonality, and second because with this chord Wagner actually provoked the sound or structure of musical harmony to become more predominant than its function, a notion which was soon after to be explored by Debussy and others. Fourth - based harmony became important in the work of Slavic and Scandinavian composers such as Modest Mussorgsky, Leoš Janáček, and Jean Sibelius. These composers used this harmony in a pungent, uncovered, almost archaic way, often incorporating the Folk music of their particular homelands. Sibelius ' Piano Sonata in F - Major op. 12 of 1893 used tremolo passages of near - quartal harmony in a way that was relatively hard and modern. Even in the example on the right from Mussorgsky 's piano - cycle Pictures at an Exhibition (Избушка на курьих ножках (Баба - Яга) -- The Hut on Fowl 's Legs) (Listen) the fourth always makes an "unvarnished '' entrance. The Romantic composers Frédéric Chopin and Franz Liszt, had use the special "thinned out '' sound of fourth - chord in late works for piano (Nuages gris (Fr: Grey Clouds), La lugubre gondola (Fr: The Mournful Gondola), and other works). In the 1897 work The Sorcerer 's Apprentice (L'Apprenti sorcier) by Paul Dukas, the repetition of rising fourths is a musical representation of the tireless work of out - of - control walking brooms causes the water level in the house to "rise and rise ''. Quartal harmony in Ravel 's Sonatine and Ma Mère l'Oye (Fr: Mother Goose) would follow a few years later. In the 20th century, harmony explicitly built on fourths and fifths became important. This became known as quartal harmony for chords based on fourths and quintal harmony for chords based on fifths. In the music of composers of early 20th century France, fourth chords became consolidated with Ninth chords, the Whole tone scale, the Pentatonic scale, and polytonality as part of their language, and quartal harmony became an important means of expression in music by Debussy, Maurice Ravel, and others. Examples are found in Debussy 's orchestral work La Mer (The Sea) and in his piano works, in particular La cathédrale engloutie (The Sunken Cathedral) from his Préludes for piano, Pour les quartes (For Fourths) and Pour les arpéges composées (For Composite Arpeggios) from his Etudes. Jazz uses quartal harmonies (usually called voicing in fourths). Cadences are often "altered '' to include unresolved suspended chords which include a fourth above the bass:

can i go to england with schengen visa

Visa policy of the United Kingdom - wikipedia The visa policy of the United Kingdom is the policy by which Her Majesty 's Government determines who may and may not enter the country of the United Kingdom, and the Crown dependencies of Guernsey, Jersey, and the Isle of Man. Visitors must obtain a visa unless they are exempt. The UK is a member of the European Union, but it has an opt - out from the Schengen border - free area. It operates its own visa policy and also maintains the Common Travel Area with the Republic of Ireland, the Channel Islands and the Isle of Man. British Overseas Territories generally apply their own similar but legally distinct visa policies. Visa policy of the United Kingdom is similar to the visa policy of the Schengen Area. It grants visa - free entry to all Schengen Annex II nationalities, except for Albania, Bosnia and Herzegovina, Colombia, Georgia, Macedonia, Moldova, Montenegro, Peru, Serbia, Ukraine, United Arab Emirates and Venezuela. The UK also grants visa - free entry to several additional countries -- Belize, Botswana, Maldives, Nauru, Namibia and Papua New Guinea. The following individuals can enter the United Kingdom, the Channel Islands and the Isle of Man without a visa: British Nationals who are not European Union citizens and citizens of 56 countries and territories are visa - exempt for stays in the UK of up to 6 months (or 3 months if they enter from the Republic of Ireland): Unknown: Andorra, Germany, Latvia and Lithuania (1992 - 1993), Vatican Antigua and Barbuda, Australian, Bahamian, Barbadian, Belizean, Botswana, Bruneian, Canadian, Cypriot, Dominica, East Timorese, Grenadian, Hong Kong, Irish, Kiribati, Malaysian, Maltese, Marshallese, Micronesian, Namibian, New Zealand, Nauruan, Palauan, Saint Kitts and Nevis, Saint Lucian, Saint Vincent and the Grenadines, Samoan, Seychellois, Singaporean, Solomon Islands, Tongan, Trinidad and Tobago, Tuvaluan and Vanuatuan citizens have never needed a visa to gain access to the United Kingdom Citizens of the following countries can obtain an electronic visa waiver (EVW) online: Citizens of the following countries can travel to the UK without a visa if they hold a valid Irish visa endorsed with BIVS: The scheme might be expanded for all visa requiring nationals in the future. Holders of diplomatic or special passports of the following countries do not require a visa: Visa waiver also applies to holders of United Nations laissez - passer when they travel to the United Kingdom on official business. There are two types of transit through the United Kingdom under the United Kingdom Transit Rules -- the airside transit and the landside transit. The Transit Without Visa facility for visa requiring nationals was abolished, effective 1 December 2014, and replaced with United Kingdom Transit Rules. Notwithstanding the lists below, in general, even persons from ' Direct Airside transit visa exempt nationalities ' require a transit visa if transiting though the UK to other parts of the Common Travel Area including Ireland. The exemption applies where travellers: E-visas or e-residence permits are not acceptable for airside transit unless the airline is able to verify it with the issuing country. Nationals of Syria who are holders of US B1 / B2 visas are not exempt. The exemption applies where travellers: E-visas such as those regularly issued by Australia or e-residence permits are not acceptable for landside transit. Visitors entering the UK, the Channel Islands and / or the Isle of Man who do not qualify for one of the visa exemptions listed above have to apply for a visa in advance through the UK Visas and Immigration at a visa application centre. All visitors must apply by registering an online account (except citizens of North Korea who must apply in person at the British Embassy), fill in the application form, pay the fee and attend an appointment at a visa application centre. A visitor 's visa for a single stay or multiple stays of up to 6 months costs £ 83. A multiple - entry visitor 's visa valid for 2 years costs £ 300, 5 years £ 544 and 10 years £ 737. Special provisions are made for Chinese citizens as they are eligible for a 2 - year, multiple - entry visitor 's visa at a cost of £ 83. Family members of EU, EEA and Swiss citizens who are not covered by one of the visa exemptions above can apply for an EEA Family Permit free of charge (instead of a visa). Visitors applying for most types of UK visas (including a visitor 's visa and an EEA Family Permit) are required to submit biometric identifiers (all fingerprints and a digital facial image) as part of the visa application process. However, diplomats, foreign government ministers and officials and members of Commonwealth Forces are exempt from the requirement to submit biometric identifiers. Applicants who have obtained a new passport and are merely requesting a transfer of their visa vignette from their old passport to their new passport are not required to re-submit biometric identifiers. In addition, applicants who are travelling directly to the Channel Islands or Gibraltar without passing through the UK or the Isle of Man are exempt from providing biometric information. Children must be accompanied by an adult when their biometric identifiers are taken. Biometric identifiers may be shared with foreign governments. Biometric identifiers are destroyed 10 years after the last date a person 's fingerprints and digital facial image were captured. Most visa applications are decided within 3 weeks. Applicants resident in the following countries and territories who wish to enter the UK for 6 months or more are required to be tested for tuberculosis as part of the visa application process: After a person has successfully obtained a UK visa, if he / she subsequently obtains a new passport, but the UK visa in his / her old passport still has remaining validity, he / she is not required to have the UK visa vignette affixed in the old passport transferred to the new passport, but must be able to present both the new and old passports at passport control when entering the UK. If a person who has successfully obtained a UK visa subsequently loses the passport in which the visa vignette is affixed (or if it is stolen), he / she has to pay the original visa fee in full again and may be required to show that his / her circumstances have not changed when applying for a replacement visa. However, a new ' confirmation of acceptance for studies ' (CAS) / ' certificate of sponsorship ' (COS) is not required when applying for a replacement Tier 4 / Tier 2 visa. These are correct as of April 2015. By early 1917, all aliens (i.e. persons who were not British subjects) were required to obtain visas from a British consul before embarking for the United Kingdom. Visa requirements would then be maintained for aliens under the peacetime regime of immigration control retained after 1918. In March 2007, the Home Office announced that it would carry out its first Visa Waiver Test to review the list of countries and territories outside the European Union, European Economic Area and Switzerland whose nationals are exempt from holding a visa for the UK. After carrying out the review, in July 2008, Jacqui Smith, the Home Secretary, and David Miliband, the Foreign Secretary, announced to Parliament that the results of the test showed a ' strong case ' for introducing visa regimes for 11 countries (Bolivia, Botswana, Brazil, Lesotho, Malaysia, Mauritius, Namibia, South Africa, Swaziland, Trinidad and Tobago and Venezuela) having taken into account the following factors (including the extent to which they were being addressed by the countries ' authorities): Following the July 2008 announcement, the UK Government entered into a 6 - month period of ' detailed dialogue ' with the governments of the 11 countries ' to examine how risks can be reduced in a way that obviates the need for a visa regime to be introduced '. In order to maintain visa - free access to the UK, the 11 countries had to ' demonstrate a genuine commitment to put into effect credible and realistic plans, with clear timetables, to reduce the risks to the UK, and begin real implementation of these plans by the end of the dialogue period '. On 9 January 2009, the new visa rules announced required citizens of Bolivia, Lesotho, South Africa and Swaziland to obtain a visa, and only Venezuelan nationals travelling on biometric passports with an electronic chip issued since 2007 could continue to enter the UK without a visa. The existing visa - free status for citizens of Botswana, Brazil, Malaysia, Mauritius, Namibia and Trinidad and Tobago was maintained. Starting from 3 March 2009, a transitional regime was put in place until 30 June 2009 for South African citizens - those who held a valid South African passport and had previously entered the UK lawfully using that passport could continue to enter the UK without a visa, whilst all other South African citizens were required to apply for a visa. On the same day, Taiwan citizens were able to enter the UK without a visa. On 18 May 2009, Bolivian citizens were no longer able to enter the UK without a visa and Venezuelan citizens were required to present a biometric passport to enter the UK without a visa. On 1 July 2009, all South African citizens were required to apply for a visa to enter the UK. On the same day, citizens of Lesotho and Swaziland were required to apply for a visa to enter the UK. On 30 March 2010, Alan Johnson, the Home Secretary, and David Miliband, the Foreign Secretary, announced to Parliament that, having carried out a review of visa regimes in relation to Eastern Caribbean countries, 5 countries (Antigua and Barbuda, Barbados, Grenada, St Kitts and Nevis and St Vincent and the Grenadines) would have their visa - free status maintained. At the same time, the UK Government would enter a six - month period of ' detailed dialogue ' with the governments of 2 countries (Dominica and St Lucia), who would have to ' demonstrate a genuine commitment to put into effect credible and realistic plans, with clear timetables, to reduce the risks to the UK, and begin implementing these plans by the end of the dialogue period ' to maintain their visa - free status. On 2 March 2011, Theresa May, the Home Secretary, and William Hague, the Foreign Secretary, announced to Parliament that the governments of Dominica and St Lucia ' have made concrete improvements to the immigration, border control and identity systems which would not have happened without the test ', and so the visa - free status for the 2 countries would be maintained. On 13 June 2011, new Immigration Rules were laid before Parliament that came into force on 4 July 2011 introducing a new streamlined application procedure (waiving the normal requirements to provide documentary evidence of maintenance and qualifications at the time of application) for some non-visa nationals from ' low - risk countries ' who wish to study in the UK for more than 6 months and apply for Tier 4 entry clearance. The following 15 countries and territories were categorised as ' low - risk ' and included in ' Appendix H ' of the Immigration Rules: Argentina, Australia, Brunei, Canada, Chile, Croatia, Hong Kong, Japan, New Zealand, Singapore, South Korea, Taiwan, Trinidad and Tobago and the United States. Although the announcement did not relate to a Visa Waiver Test per se, it showed that the UK Border Agency considers some countries and territories in the list of visa - free nationalities to be lower risk than others. In particular, Trinidad and Tobago, which was considered to be a high - risk country from a visa regime perspective in 2008 when the Visa Waiver Test was carried out, was now viewed by the UK Border Agency as a low - risk country. On 5 September 2012, two more countries (Botswana and Malaysia) were added to the list of ' low - risk ' nationalities for the purpose of Tier 4 entry clearance applications, i.e. ' Appendix H ', (taking effect on 1 October 2012), whilst on 6 September 2013, Barbados was also added to ' Appendix H ' (taking effect on 1 October 2013). Again, although the announcement did not relate to a Visa Waiver Test per se, it showed that Botswana, Malaysia and Barbados (countries which were considered to be a high - risk countries from a visa regime perspective when the Visa Waiver Test was carried out in 2008 in the case of Botswana and Malaysia, and in 2010 in the case of Barbados) were now viewed by the UK Border Agency as low - risk countries. In March 2013, it was revealed that Theresa May, the Home Secretary, was considering removing Brazil from the list of visa - exempt nationalities due to concerns about illegal immigration, since Brazil was fifth in the top 10 of illegal immigrant nationalities in the UK according to Home Office figures for 2011, and was the only country on the list for which short - term visitors do not need a visa. However, the UK Government later decided to retain the visa exemption for Brazilian citizens, a decision which was seen as attempting to develop closer trading links with Brazil. On 1 January 2014, an electronic visa waiver (EVW) scheme was introduced, enabling citizens of Oman, Qatar and the United Arab Emirates who have obtained an EVW authorisation online to visit and / or study in the UK for up to 6 months without a visa. After ' assessing countries against a list of risk and compliance criteria ', on 13 March 2014 the UK Government added Oman, Qatar and the UAE to ' Appendix H ' (the list of ' low - risk ' nationalities for the purpose of Tier 4 student visa applications), with the change taking effect on 6 April 2014. These two changes reflect the UK Government 's view that Oman, Qatar and the UAE should now be regarded as low - risk countries from a visa regime perspective, and it is possible that in future nationals of these three countries will be classified as non-visa nationals (enabling them to visit and / or study in the UK without a visa for up to 6 months without having to obtain an EVW authorisation online every time they wish to enter the UK). According to Frank Baker, the British Ambassador to Kuwait, the EVW will be extended to Kuwaiti citizens in the near future. On 13 March 2014, the UK Government announced that, with effect from 5 May 2014, Venezuelan citizens (including those with biometric passports) would require a visa to enter the UK. At present, although citizens of Argentina, Brazil, Israel, holders of Hong Kong SAR passports and Macao SAR passports are able to visit and / or study in the UK without a visa for up to 6 months, and although citizens of Oman, Qatar and the United Arab Emirates with an EVW can visit and / or study in the UK without a visa for up to 6 months, if they decide to stay for more than 6 months and have been granted entry clearance permitting them to do so, they are required to register with the police at a cost of £ 34 within 7 days of arriving in the UK (or within 7 days of obtaining their visa if they apply within the UK). Directive 2004 / 38 / EC of the European Parliament and of the Council of 29 April 2004 recognises the right of citizens of the Union and their family members to move and reside freely within the territory of the Member States defines the right of free movement for citizens of the European Economic Area (EEA), which includes the European Union (EU) and the three European Free Trade Association (EFTA) members Iceland, Norway and Liechtenstein. Switzerland, which is a member of EFTA but not of the EEA, is not bound by the Directive but rather has a separate bilateral agreement on the free movement with the EU. Citizens of all European Economic Area (EEA) member states and Switzerland holding a valid passport or national identity card enjoy freedom of movement rights in each other 's territory and can enter and reside in the each other 's territory without a visa. Although, by law, EU, EEA and Swiss citizens are entitled to use their valid national identity cards as travel documents to enter the UK, in practice UK Border Force officials have been known to place extra scrutiny on and to spend longer processing identity cards issued by certain member states which are deemed to have limited security features and hence more susceptible to tampering / forgery. Unlike their counterparts in the Schengen Area (who, by law, must only perform a ' rapid ' and ' straightforward ' visual check for signs of falsification and tampering and are not obliged to use technical devices (such as document scanners, UV light and magnifiers) when EU / EEA / Swiss citizens present their passports and / or national identity cards at external border checkpoints), as a matter of policy UKBF officials are required to examine physically all passports and national identity cards presented by EU / EEA / Swiss citizens for signs of forgery and tampering. In addition, unlike their counterparts in the Schengen Area (who, when presented with a passport or national identity card by an EU / EEA / Swiss citizen, are not legally obliged to check it against a database of lost / stolen / invalidated travel documents (and, if they do so, must only perform a ' rapid ' and ' straightward ' database check) and may only check to see if the traveller is on a database containing persons of interest on a strictly ' non-systematic ' basis where such a threat is ' genuine ', ' present ' and ' sufficiently serious '), as a matter of policy UKBF officials are required to check every EU / EEA / Swiss citizen and their passport / national identity card against the Warnings Index (WI) database. For this reason, when presented with a non-machine readable identity card, it can take up to four times longer for a UKBF official to process the card as the official has to enter the biographical details of the holder manually into the computer to check against the WI database and, if a large number of possible matches is returned, a different configuration has to be entered to reduce the number of possible matches. For example, at Stansted Airport UKBF officials have been known to take longer to process Italian paper identity cards because they often need to be taken out of plastic wallets, because they are particularly susceptible to forgery / tampering and because, as non-machine readable documents, the holders ' biographical details have to be entered manually into the computer. If EU, EEA and Swiss nationals are unable to present a valid passport or national identity card at the border, they must nonetheless be afforded every reasonable opportunity to obtain the necessary documents or have them brought to them within a reasonable period of time or corroborate or prove by other means that they are covered by the right of free movement. Where, after being given every reasonable opportunity, they are still unable to demonstrate their identity and nationality, they should be either considered for Temporary Admission to allow further enquiries to be made or refused entry. However, entry can be refused to an EU / EEA / Swiss national on public policy, public security or public health grounds where the person presents a "genuine, present and sufficiently serious threat affecting one of the fundamental interests of society ''. If the person has obtained permanent residence in the country where he / she seeks entry (a status which is normally attained after 5 years of residence), the member state can only expel him / her on serious grounds of public policy or public security. Where the person has resided for 10 years or is a minor, the member state can only expel him / her on imperative grounds of public security (and, in the case of minors, if expulsion is necessary in the best interests of the child, as provided for in the Convention on the Rights of the Child). Expulsion on public health grounds must relate to diseases with ' epidemic potential ' which have occurred less than 3 months from the person 's the date of arrival in the Member State where he / she seeks entry. A family member of an EU / EEA / Swiss citizen who is in possession of a residence card indicating their status is exempt from the requirement to hold a visa when entering the Schengen area, European Economic Area or Switzerland if his residence card is issued from one of a Schengen members states and Ireland (called Stamp 4 EU FAM), European Economic Area or Switzerland. However A family member of an EU / EEA / Swiss citizen who is in possession of a residence permit indicating their status is exempt from the requirement to hold a visa for entering to European Union outside Schengen member states (Ireland, Bulgaria, Romania, Cyprus) when they are accompanying their EU / EEA / Swiss family member or are seeking to join them. As of 6 April 2015, the non-EU family members of an EU national who are in possession of a residence card, which is issued to them under article 10 of directive 2004 / 38, are entitled to enter the UK without the need to apply for an EEA Family Permit, only by providing their residence card at the border. However, the UK border officers would grant entry to non-EU family members if they can prove their relation to the EU national family member who would be accompanying them, by providing documents such as marriage or birth certificate. In the case of the EU national family member being present in the UK, the non-EU family members should be able to prove that the EU national family member is residing in the UK and whether they have a right of residency in the UK as a qualified person. Therefore, the non-EU family member should be able to demonstrate that the EU national family member is residing in the UK less than three months (the initial right of residence) and if more than three month, then they are in the UK as worker, self - employed, self - sufficient or student or they acquired the status of permanent residency after having resided in the UK for five years. Of the 58 countries and territories outside the European Union, European Economic Area and Switzerland whose citizens are granted 6 months ' visa - free access to the UK, the following offer full reciprocal treatment to British citizens: Andorra, Antigua and Barbuda, Bahamas, Barbados, Canada, Dominica, Grenada, Hong Kong, Macao, Mexico, Monaco, New Zealand, Panama, San Marino and Vatican City. Other countries and territories only offer partially reciprocal treatment to British citizens (i.e. visa - free access that is less than 6 months). The following countries permit British citizens to stay without a visa for up to 90 days (or 3 months) only: Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Brunei, Chile, Costa Rica, El Salvador, Guyana, Honduras, Israel, Malaysia, Namibia, Nicaragua, Paraguay, Saint Kitts and Nevis, Singapore, Solomon Islands, South Korea, Trinidad and Tobago, United States, Uruguay and Venezuela. (However, the United States requires British citizens to obtain an ESTA (at a cost of US $14) in advance if entering the US by air or by sea, whilst Australia requires British citizens to obtain an eVisitor authorisation online in advance free of charge, although the UK does not require Australian and US citizens to obtain an authorisation in advance.) The following countries and territories permit British citizens to stay without a visa for up to 90 days (although an extension is possible for a stay beyond 90 days): Botswana, Japan and Taiwan. The following countries also only offer partially reciprocal treatment: Belize (1 month), Fiji (4 months, extendable for an extra 2 months), Kiribati (30 days), Maldives (30 days), Marshall Islands (30 days), Mauritius (60 days for tourists, 90 days on business), Micronesia (30 days), Nauru (30 days), Palau (30 days), St Lucia (6 weeks), Samoa (60 days), Seychelles (1 month, extendable to 12 months), Tonga (31 days), Tuvalu (1 month) and Vanuatu (30 days). Two countries whose citizens can enter the UK visa - free for up to 6 months require British citizens to obtain a visa: Papua New Guinea requires British citizens to obtain a visa on arrival that is valid for up to 60 days and costs PGK100 (tourist) or PGK500 (business); Timor - Leste requires British citizens to obtain a visa on arrival valid for up to 30 days at a cost of US $30. Most visitors arriving to United Kingdom were from the following countries of nationality: British Overseas Territories. Open border with Schengen Area. Russia is a transcontinental country in Eastern Europe and Northern Asia. The majority of its population (80 %) lives in European Russia, therefore Russia as a whole is included as a European country here. Turkey is a transcontinental country in the Middle East and Southeast Europe. Has part of its territory (3 %) in Southeast Europe called Turkish Thrace. Azerbaijan (Artsakh) and Georgia (Abkhazia; South Ossetia) are transcontinental countries. Both have part of their territories in the European part of the Caucasus. Kazakhstan is a transcontinental country. Has part of its territories located west of the Ural River in Eastern Europe. Armenia and Cyprus (Northern Cyprus; Akrotiri and Dhekelia) are entirely in Southwest Asia but having socio - political connections with Europe. Egypt is a transcontinental country in North Africa and the Middle East. Has part of its territory in the Middle East called Sinai Peninsula. Part of the Realm of New Zealand. Partially recognized. Unincorporated territory of the United States. Part of Norway, not part of the Schengen Area, special open - border status under Svalbard Treaty British Overseas Territories. Open border with Schengen Area. Russia is a transcontinental country in Eastern Europe and Northern Asia. The vast majority of its population (80 %) lives in European Russia. Turkey is a transcontinental country in the Middle East and Southeast Europe. Has a small part of its territory (3 %) in Southeast Europe called Turkish Thrace. Abkhazia, Azerbaijan, Georgia, and South Ossetia are often regarded as transcontinental countries. Both have a small part of their territories in the European part of the Caucasus. Kazakhstan is a transcontinental country. Has a small part of its territories located west of the Urals in Eastern Europe. Armenia, Artsakh, Cyprus, and Northern Cyprus are entirely in Southwest Asia but having socio - political connections with Europe. Egypt is a transcontinental country in North Africa and the Middle East. Has a small part of its territory in the Middle East called Sinai Peninsula. Partially recognized.

what post on instagram has the most likes

List of most - liked Instagram pictures - wikipedia This list contains the top ten pictures with the most likes on the social photo - sharing platform Instagram; Instagram does not provide an official list. As of November 2017, Beyoncé 's twin pregnancy announcement is the most - liked picture with over 11 million likes. Additionally, Selena Gomez and Cristiano Ronaldo each have four of the top ten. The following table lists the top ten most liked pictures on Instagram, with each total rounded to the nearest hundred thousand likes, as well as the creator and date of publication to Instagram.

when is call of duty world war ii released

Call of Duty: WWII - wikipedia Call of Duty: WWII is an upcoming first - person shooter video game developed by Sledgehammer Games and published by Activision for PlayStation 4, Xbox One and Microsoft Windows. It is the fourteenth primary installment and first Call of Duty series game to be set primarily during World War II since Call of Duty: World at War in 2008. The game is set in European theatre of the war. The campaign is centered around a squad in the 1st Infantry Division, and follows their battles in the Western Front, while the multiplayer expands on different fronts not seen in the campaign. Zombies mode also returns. It was announced on April 21, 2017, with a reveal trailer released on April 26, 2017, and is scheduled to be released worldwide on November 3, 2017. Similar to its predecessors, Call of Duty: WWII is a first - person shooter game but it removes the advanced system of movement present in the three previous Call of Duty titles, which included double jumping and wall running. Instead, it features a return of traditional movement to the series, taking it back to a "boots on the ground '' gameplay style. The game does not feature an unlimited sprint mechanic, seen in the previous two titles. Instead of a "slide '' movement mechanic, which allowed players to slide quickly on the ground, WWII features a "hit - the - deck '' mechanic that allows the player to leap forward and throw themselves on the ground in order to get to cover quickly, similarly to a previous mechanic known as "dolphin dive '' in Treyarch 's Call of Duty: Black Ops and Call of Duty: Black Ops II. Gameplay-wise, WWII is the first title since the original Call of Duty to not feature health regeneration in the campaign. Instead, players must rely on their medic squadmates to provide health packs, as well as other squad members to provide ammunition. Other squad members can spot enemies, revealing their position in form of silhouettes. Enemy soldiers in the campaign can be captured, and wounded allies can be dragged to cover. Both of these actions, as well as killing enemies and completing objectives, add up to player 's experience (XP) which can be increased and improve the character 's skills. In some parts of the campaign, players will be able to control vehicles. The multiplayer mode for Call of Duty: WWII was revealed on E3 2017, which took place from June 13 -- 15. Sledgehammer Games has announced new features such as the new headquarters social space, divisions, war mode and the return to "boots - on - the - ground '' gameplay. Players who pre-order the game were invited to a closed beta, which was released initially for the PlayStation 4, but later was released on other platforms. In online multiplayer matches, players are randomly assigned either to Allies or Axis side. On Allies side, players can play as soldiers in American, British, or French Resistance armies. On the Axis side, players play directly as Germans. When explaining which German Axis powers would be playable, Glen Schofield, co-founder and co-studio head at Sledgehammer, appeared to state that the Clean Wehrmacht myth was the criteria they had used in their decision, saying: "The big distinction that Germans still make today is that between the German military and the Nazis. We made sure we made that distinction in the game, that the Germans were doing their duty. '' Instead of the usual create - a-class system, WWII features Divisions. Players can choose one out of five divisions, each with their own different basic combat training, division training and weapon skills. This also eliminates perks, as players need to progress through ranks in divisions in order to use additional skills. Five divisions featured in the game are: WWII also features Headquarters mode, which acts as a social space in the game. The massive hub is set on the Omaha Beach in Normandy, three days after the invasion when Allies retake the beach and turn it into a base. 48 players can be in the Headquarters at a time, and take part in various activities. For example, players can watch other players open loot boxes while in the Headquarters. There is a firing range in the hub, where all players can practise their shooting skills with all weapons, as well as a field where they can test scorestreaks. There are also areas where players can engage in "1v1 '' fights, as other players watch the duels. The end - game "killcam '' highlight shown at the end of every Multiplayer match has been changed to "Bronze Star '', which only show kills "deemed most impressive, '' similar to Overwatch.. The only exception to this is the Search & Destroy game mode, which does not use Bronze Star killcam. WWII will include a zombies cooperative game mode, similar to previous entries by Treyarch and Infinity Ward, with its own original storyline set in alternate history and separate from the campaign. The game mode, dubbed Nazi Zombies in reference to its first iteration in Treyarch 's Call of Duty: World at War, is also set in the events of World War II, as the Third Reich makes a desperate attempt to turn the tide of the war by creating an undead army in the final stages of the war. While the mode is based on science - fiction and is a fictional take on the war, Sledgehammer Games co-founder Michael Condrey said that the story of the mode is based on some "real events ''. He also revealed that the experience is similar to Dead Space, a third person shooter horror video game directed by both Condrey and Schofield during their work time at EA Redwood Shores. In regards to gameplay, Nazi Zombies retains the wave - based survival formula that have been used in all previous Zombies entries, with brand new additions. A class system is introduced, where players can opt for one of four combat roles: Offense, Control, Medic and Support, which provide different in - game abilities. Class loadouts are also included, with equippable perks similar to the multiplayer mode. Sledgehammer Games also attempted to rationalize some of the popular mechanics, such as weapon wallbuys and currencies, with realistic explanation that fit within the lore of the game mode. Call of Duty: WWII focuses on the actions of a 12 - men squad of the 1st Infantry Division from 1944 to 1945 in the European theater of conflict, at a time when the Allied forces were starting to gather strength on their march into Germany. The campaign will cover fighting in occupied France and Belgium, and across the Rhine river valley into the heart of Germany. Some of the iconic historical battles covered in the campaign will be the Invasion of Normandy (D - Day), Liberation of Paris, Battle of Aachen, Battle of Hürtgen Forest and Battle of the Bulge. Although the story is primarily set in 1944 and 1945, some parts of it will "touch on '' events that happened from 1940 to 1944 to "help set the stage for the narrative and establish the characters. '' In the single - player campaign, players primarily play as two soldiers of the 16th Infantry Regiment: Private Ronald "Red '' Daniels (Brett Zimmerman) and his best friend, Jewish American, Private First Class Robert Zussman (Jonathan Tucker). Additional playable characters include Rousseau, a female Maquis leader of the French Forces of the Interior, and Major Arthur Crowley, a British Special Operations Executive officer a RAF Pilot and Tank Commander. Daniels ' and Zussman 's platoon mates include Technical Sergeant William Pierson (Josh Duhamel), and platoon leader, 1st Lieutenant Joseph Turner (Jeffrey Pierce). Pittsburgh Steelers running back Le'Veon Bell and offensive tackle Alejandro Villanueva are set to make a cameo appearance in the game. The Nazi Zombies story of WWII takes place in an alternate history, where the Nazis have conducted research on necromancy based on the legend of King Frederick Barbarossa 's hidden treasure. The story is centered around Marie Fischer (Katheryn Winnick), a young German engineer working with the Office of Strategic Services. Marie 's brother, Klaus, has taken part in the research of Barbarossa 's treasure, working with Doctor Peter Straub (Udo Kier). Marie is joined by three companions: ex-art thief Drostan Hynd (David Tennant), ex-art historian and French Resistance fighter Olivia Durant (Élodie Yung), and military sergeant Jefferson Potts (Ving Rhames), as they attempt to conduct a covert operation to learn of the Nazis ' plans, retrieve the stolen artifacts and rescue Klaus in the process. A modern Call of Duty title set in World War II was alluded to in a 2014 Call of Duty: Advanced Warfare launch interview with Michael Condrey, co-founder of Sledgehammer Games. In the interview by Metro, the interviewer asked him what the possibilities of where the next Call of Duty could go in terms of setting. Condrey responded, "Well, no. It 's curious. I can only answer from my own personal tastes, this is my own personal opinion. But some of my favourite pieces of entertainment are set in World War II. Band of Brothers, I 'm a massive fan of Band of Brothers. '' Condrey then dived further into the subject, "And that 's a great hero 's war, kind of the last that was recognised as a noble cause in a war. So yeah, I think a next generation game with the latest production values and robustness in a World War II setting like Band of Brothers would be amazing. Now, how would it play and how would the multiplayer work after the new movement set in Advanced Warfare? That 's a tougher question than I 've had to tackle yet... ''. Sledgehammer Games have yet to reveal all the authentic settings from World War II that developers have put into the game 's storyline. Activision is refusing to deny claims that Nazi extermination camps could feature in the game. Adam Rosenberg of Mashable wrote that video games set during World War II tended to be "Holocaust deniers '' in the sense that they avoided broaching the subject for business reasons, but that this could be the very first Call of Duty World War II based game where the Holocaust would be depicted. Senior creative director Bret Robbins said in an interview "Some very, very dark things happened during this conflict and it felt wrong for us to ignore that. '' He further stated "We absolutely show atrocities. It 's an unfortunate part of the history, but you ca n't tell an authentic, truthful story without going there. So we went there. '' Robbins argued that audiences can now handle games with more maturity and nuance, "People are ready for it. They want it, '' he said. When asked directly over Twitter as to whether or not the story campaign would allow gamers the opportunity to play as soldiers from the Axis powers such as Nazi Germany and Fascist Italy, Sledgehammer Games confirmed that the campaign gameplay would be limited to allied forces. More specifically, Sledgehammer co-founder Michael Condrey confirmed that the game will focus exclusively on the Allied powers. The PC version of the game is developed in partnership with developer Raven Software. In regards to the PC version, Raven 's CTO Dwight Luetscher stated that they are trying to focus on the PC platform, as well as the community, by responding to their needs for the PC version to excel. The PC version features several notable changes, including removal of controller aim assist and addition of sensitivity slider for aim - down - sights mechanic. All pre-orders excluding the PC version include access to the private beta, which was made available first on the PlayStation 4 from August 25 to 28, followed by a second week for both PlayStation 4 and Xbox One from September 1 to 4. The PC beta was announced as an open beta, and ran from September 29 to October 2 on Steam. Players who participated in the beta receive the Beta Combat Pack for the full game, which contains a special in - game helmet, emblem and calling card. The game will be available in 3 editions: Base Edition, Digital Deluxe Edition, and the Pro Edition. The Pro Edition is sold exclusively at GameStop. Any pre-orders of the game at GameStop will also include a limited edition hat for a limited time. Additional pre-order bonuses for the game include: A Division customization pack, a Zombies - exclusive weapon camouflage, 500 COD Points currency for Call of Duty: Infinite Warfare and Call of Duty: Black Ops III (which was a time - limited offer up until September 5, 2017), and 1,100 COD Points for use in WWII. The game will be released worldwide on November 3, 2017 for Microsoft Windows, PlayStation 4 and Xbox One.

who are the actors in thelma and louise

Thelma & Louise - wikipedia Thelma & Louise is a 1991 American road film directed by Ridley Scott and written by Callie Khouri. It stars Geena Davis as Thelma and Susan Sarandon as Louise, two friends who embark on a road trip with unforeseen consequences. The supporting cast include Harvey Keitel, Michael Madsen, and Brad Pitt, whose career was launched by the film. The film became a critical and commercial success, receiving six Academy Award nominations and winning for Best Original Screenplay. Scott was nominated for Best Director, and both Sarandon and Davis were nominated for Best Actress. At its release, the film stirred controversy. At the intersection of several genres, it is now considered a classic. It influenced other films and artistic works and became a landmark of feminist film. In 2016, the United States Library of Congress selected the film for preservation in the National Film Registry, finding it "culturally, historically, or aesthetically significant ''. Best friends Thelma Dickinson and Louise Sawyer set out for a weekend vacation at a fishing cabin in the mountains to take a break from their dreary lives in Arkansas. Thelma, a ditzy housewife, is married to a disrespectful and controlling man, Darryl, while sharp - tongued Louise works as a waitress in a diner and is on -- off dating a musician, Jimmy, who spends most of his time on the road. On the way, they stop for a drink at a roadhouse bar, where Thelma meets and dances with a flirtatious stranger, Harlan. When he takes her outside to the parking lot to get some fresh air, he starts kissing her and taking her clothes off without her consent. Thelma resists, but Harlan hits her, and then attempts to rape her. Louise finds them and threatens to shoot Harlan with the gun that Thelma brought with her. Harlan stops, but, as the women walk away, he yells that he should have continued the rape and continually insults them. Enraged, Louise shoots him dead, and the pair flee the scene. At a motel, they discuss how to handle the situation. Thelma wants to go to the police, but Louise fears that no one will believe Thelma 's claim of attempted rape and they will be subsequently charged for murder. They decide to go on the run, but Louise insists that they travel from Oklahoma to Mexico without going through Texas. Something happened to Louise in Texas several years earlier, and Thelma suspects it was something similar to what had happened with Harlan but Louise vehemently says she will not talk about it. Heading west, the women come across an attractive young drifter, J.D., who Thelma quickly falls for, and Thelma convinces Louise to let him hitch a ride with them. Louise contacts Jimmy and asks him to wire transfer her life savings to her. When she goes to pick up the money, she finds that Jimmy has come to deliver the money in person, and the two spend the night together. Jimmy proposes to Louise, but she refuses. Meanwhile, Thelma invites J.D. to her room, and they sleep together. She then learns he is a thief who has broken parole. The following morning, Thelma leaves J.D. in her motel room to meet Louise downstairs for breakfast, and, when they return, they discover J.D. has stolen Louise 's life savings and fled. Louise is distraught, so a guilty Thelma takes charge and later robs a nearby convenience store using tactics she learned from listening to J.D. Meanwhile, the FBI is getting closer to catching the fugitives after witnesses at the bar saw Louise 's 1966 Ford Thunderbird convertible speeding out of the parking lot the night of the shooting. Their whereabouts are also questioned by the owner of the fishing cabin after the women failed to arrive for the weekend. Arkansas State Police Investigator Hal Slocumb leads the investigation and questions both J.D. and Jimmy and taps into the phone line at Darryl 's house. He discovers that Louise had been raped years earlier in Texas, so sympathizes with her situation and understands why they did n't report Harlan 's murder to the authorities. During a couple of brief phone conversations with Louise, he expresses his sympathy but is unsuccessful in his attempts to persuade her to surrender. Thelma tells Louise she understands if she wants to go back home, knowing she has Jimmy waiting for her, but explains she can not go back to Darryl. Louise promises they will keep going together. The pair are later pulled over by a New Mexico state trooper for speeding. Knowing he will soon discover they are wanted for murder and armed robbery, Thelma holds him at gunpoint and locks him in the trunk of his police car, while Louise takes his gun and ammunition. They drive away from the scene and spend the next few nights heading further west. On the road, they encounter a foul - mouthed truck driver who repeatedly makes obscene gestures at them. They pull over and demand an apology from him; when he refuses, they fire at the fuel tanker he is driving, causing it to explode. Thelma and Louise are finally cornered by the authorities only one hundred yards from the edge of the Grand Canyon. Hal arrives on the scene, but he is refused the chance to make one last attempt to talk the women into surrendering. Rather than be captured and spend the rest of their lives in jail, Thelma proposes that they "keep going ''. Louise asks Thelma if she is certain, and Thelma says yes. They kiss, Louise steps on the gas, and they accelerate over the cliff. As they arc over the canyon, the film freezes and fades to white. Although the setting for the film is a fictional route between Arkansas and the Grand Canyon, it was filmed almost entirely in the states of California and Utah. The primary filming locations were rural areas around Bakersfield, California and Moab, Utah. The Grand Canyon scenes were actually filmed just south of Dead Horse Point State Park in Utah. Parts of the film were also shot at Shafer Overlook, Monument Valley, La Sal Mountains, La Sal Junction, Cisco, Old Valley City Reservoir, Thompson Springs, Arches National Park, and Crescent Junction in Utah. The film was an overwhelming critical success. Metacritic lists a composite critical score of 88 out of 100. Rotten Tomatoes rates Thelma & Louise 83 % "Fresh ''. Janet Maslin of The New York Times had only praise for the film in her review: Mr. Scott 's Thelma and Louise, with a sparkling screenplay by the first - time writer Callie Khouri, is a surprise on this and many other scores. It reveals the previously untapped talent of Mr. Scott (best known for majestically moody action films like Alien, Blade Runner and Black Rain) for exuberant comedy, and for vibrant American imagery, notwithstanding his English roots. It reimagines the buddy film with such freshness and vigor that the genre seems positively new. It discovers unexpected resources in both its stars, Susan Sarandon and Geena Davis, who are perfectly teamed as the spirited and original title characters. Roger Ebert also praised the film but withheld a perfect score on the basis of "the last shot before the titles begin. It 's a freeze frame that fades to white, which is fine, except it does so with unseemly haste... It 's unsettling to get involved in a movie that takes 128 minutes to bring you to a payoff that the filmmakers seem to fear. '' The film was screened out of competition at the 1991 Cannes Film Festival. After watching the film, singer - songwriter Tori Amos wrote "Me and a Gun '', the story of her rape several years earlier. Argentinian singer and musician Fito Páez wrote a hit song called "Dos días en la vida '' ("Two days in one lifetime '') after watching the film. The lyrics tell the story of the main characters, with verses played by singers Fabiana Cantilo (in the role of Thelma) and Celeste Carballo (Louise). It was one of the most successful singles from his 1992 album El amor después del amor. The final scene, where the two embrace before driving off a cliff, has become iconic. Numerous homages and parodies of the scene have appeared, including alternate film endings, cartoon parodies, video game "Easter eggs '', and as a tragic ending to television series, music videos, and commercials. The film also received harsh and significant criticism from those who thought it was biased against men and that its depictions of men were unfairly negative. Numerous critics and writers have remarked on the strong feminist overtones of Thelma & Louise. Film critic B. Ruby Rich praises the film as an uncompromising validation of women 's experiences, while Kenneth Turan calls it a "neo-feminist road movie ''. In her essay "The Daughters of Thelma and Louise '', Jessica Enevold argues that the film constitutes "an attack on conventional patterns of chauvinist male behavior toward females ''. In addition, it "exposes the traditional stereotyping of male -- female relationships '' while rescripting the typical gender roles of the road movie genre. In her review for The Los Angeles Times, film critic Sheila Benson objects to the characterization of the film as feminist, arguing that it is more preoccupied with revenge and violence than feminist values. In his review for The New York Post, film critic Kyle Smith describes the film as "a misogynist tale about unbelievably ditzy women who lose what remains of their reason under pressure and suffer the ultimate punishment. '' Smith 's review focused less on the fact that the film stars strong female characters and instead points out the terrible decisions these strong female characters make throughout the entire film. In an article commemorating the film 's 20th anniversary in 2011, Raina Lipsitz called it "the last great film about women '' and said that it heralded the achievements of women that caused 1992 to become "the year of the woman ''. However, she also said that women - themed films have since been losing ground. Khouri won an Academy Award for Screenplay Written Directly for the Screen; Scott, Davis, Sarandon, cinematographer Adrian Biddle, and film editor Thom Noble were nominated for Oscars. The British Film Institute published a book about the film in 2000 as part of a Modern Classics series. On the Writers Guild of America Award 's list of 101 best screenplays, it made No. 72. The film was ranked on the Australian program 20 to 1, in the episode Magnificent Movie Moments. American Film Institute lists Pete Haycock on slide guitar contributed to Thunderbird, the theme music for the film. In addition to Glenn Frey 's "Part of Me, Part of You '', which became the film 's primary theme song, the soundtrack included songs by Chris Whitley, Martha Reeves, Toni Childs, Marianne Faithfull, Charlie Sexton, Grayson Hugh, B.B. King, and Michael McDonald.

and here you'll stay until it's time for you to go

Until It 's Time for You to Go - wikipedia "Until It 's Time for You to Go '' is a song from the 1965 album Many a Mile by Canadian First Nations singer - songwriter Buffy Sainte - Marie. It was a UK Top 20 hit for British group The Four Pennies in 1965, and for Elvis Presley in 1972, and a US Hot 100 single for Neil Diamond in 1970 and New Birth featuring future Supremes member Susaye Greene in 1973. Andy Williams released a version in 1972 on his album, Love Theme from "The Godfather ''. Buffy Sainte - Marie included a French language reworking of the song, "T'es pas un autre '', on her 1967 album Fire & Fleet & Candlelight. French translation was made by Quebecer songwriter Claude Gauthier. The lyrics concern an ordinary man and woman who love each other, but can not stay together because they come from different worlds. The singer asks her (or his) lover: "Do n't ask why / Do n't ask how / Do n't ask forever / Love me now. '' According to Sainte - Marie, the song "popped into my head while I was falling in love with someone I knew could n't stay with me. '' Besides The Four Pennies, Diamond and Presley, it has been covered by Paul Anka, Eddy Arnold, Chet Atkins, Emilie - Claire Barlow, Shirley Bassey, The Boston Pops Orchestra, Glen Campbell, Vikki Carr, Anita Carter, Cher, Jim Croce, Bobby Darin, Bette Davis, Ken Dodd, Roberta Flack, Robert Goulet, Françoise Hardy, Cleo Laine, Pierre Lalonde (in French), Claudine Longet, Joe Longthorne, Vera Lynn, Johnny Mathis, Willie Nelson, Michael Nesmith, New Birth, Helen Reddy, Nancy Sinatra, Barbra Streisand, Grover Washington, Jr., Evie Sands, Dottie West, and Andy Williams.

current commissioner of education in akwa ibom state

List of ministries, agencies and commissions in Akwa Ibom State - Wikipedia This is a list of the government ministries of Akwa Ibom State, Nigeria under the governor Udom Gabriel Emmanuel led administration. Each ministry is headed by the Commissioner, assisted by a Permanent Secretary.