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In the comments to [this answer](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/a/5258/85) to [the question of why Abraham lied to Pharaoh about his relationship with Sarah](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/3524/why-did-abraham-lie-to-pharaoh-about-sarah-being-his-sister-in-gen-12/5258#5258), the following question which I am about to pose, appeared: **Was the marriage between Abraham and Sarah incestuous?** In two separate occasions, Abraham told the local ruler that Sarah was his sister. These two passages are found in in [Genesis 12:10-20](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Gen%2012:10-20&version=NIV) and [Genesis 20](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Genesis%2020&version=NIV). Let's examine the first passage: [Genesis 12:10-20 (NIV)](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Gen%2012:10-20&version=NIV) > > 10 Now there was a famine in the land, and Abram went down to Egypt to live there for a while because the famine was severe. 11 As he was about to enter Egypt, he said to his wife Sarai, “I know what a beautiful woman you are. **12 When the Egyptians see you, they will say, ‘This is his wife.’ Then they will kill me but will let you live. 13 Say you are my sister, so that I will be treated well for your sake and my life will be spared because of you.”** > > > 14 When Abram came to Egypt, the Egyptians saw that Sarai was a very beautiful woman. 15 And when Pharaoh’s officials saw her, they praised her to Pharaoh, and she was taken into his palace. 16 He treated Abram well for her sake, and Abram acquired sheep and cattle, male and female donkeys, male and female servants, and camels. > > > 17 But the LORD inflicted serious diseases on Pharaoh and his household because of Abram’s wife Sarai. **18 So Pharaoh summoned Abram. “What have you done to me?” he said. “Why didn’t you tell me she was your wife? 19 Why did you say, ‘She is my sister,’ so that I took her to be my wife? Now then, here is your wife. Take her and go!”** 20 Then Pharaoh gave orders about Abram to his men, and they sent him on his way, with his wife and everything he had. > > > This seems to imply that since Abraham told Pharaoh that Sarah was his sister, Sarah was believed to be his sister only and not his wife. This, in turns, makes me draw the conclusion that marriage between siblings was unusual. Let's head on to the second passage: [Genesis 20 (NIV)](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Genesis%2020&version=NIV) > > 1 Now Abraham moved on from there into the region of the Negev and > lived between Kadesh and Shur. For a while he stayed in Gerar, **2 and > there Abraham said of his wife Sarah, “She is my sister.” Then > Abimelek king of Gerar sent for Sarah and took her.** 3 But God came to > Abimelek in a dream one night and said to him, “You are as good as > dead because of the woman you have taken; she is a married woman.” > > > 4 Now Abimelek had not gone near her, so he said, “Lord, will you > destroy an innocent nation? **5 Did he not say to me, ‘She is my > sister,’ and didn’t she also say, ‘He is my brother’? I have done this > with a clear conscience and clean hands.”** > > > 6 Then God said to him in the dream, “Yes, I know you did this with a > clear conscience, and so I have kept you from sinning against me. That > is why I did not let you touch her. 7 Now return the man’s wife, for > he is a prophet, and he will pray for you and you will live. But if > you do not return her, you may be sure that you and all who belong to > you will die.” > > > 8 Early the next morning Abimelek summoned all his officials, and > when he told them all that had happened, they were very much afraid. 9 > Then Abimelek called Abraham in and said, “What have you done to us? > How have I wronged you that you have brought such great guilt upon me > and my kingdom? You have done things to me that should never be done.” > 10 And Abimelek asked Abraham, “What was your reason for doing this?” > > > 11 Abraham replied, “I said to myself, ‘There is surely no fear of > God in this place, and they will kill me because of my wife.’ **12 > Besides, she really is my sister, the daughter of my father though not > of my mother; and she became my wife. 13 And when God had me wander > from my father’s household, I said to her, ‘This is how you can show > your love to me: Everywhere we go, say of me, “He is my brother.”’”** > > > 14 Then Abimelek brought sheep and cattle and male and female slaves > and gave them to Abraham, and he returned Sarah his wife to him. 15 > And Abimelek said, “My land is before you; live wherever you like.” > > > 16 To Sarah he said, “I am giving your brother a thousand shekels[a] > of silver. This is to cover the offense against you before all who are > with you; you are completely vindicated.” > > > 17 Then Abraham prayed to God, and God healed Abimelek, his wife and > his female slaves so they could have children again, 18 for the LORD > had kept all the women in Abimelek’s household from conceiving because > of Abraham’s wife Sarah. > > > This second passage also tells us that marriage between siblings was unusual. It also tells us that Abraham did not really lie when he said that Sarah was his sister, since she was his half-sister. *Also note that nowhere in the two passages Abraham is accused of lying!* This is a quite interesting fact. In any way, it is clear that our definition of incest in today's western society, is not the same as it was in that time and place. Still, [Deuteronomy 27:22](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Deuteronomy%2027:22&version=NIV) clearly states that for a man to marry his father's daughter (as Abraham did) is a sin! How does one reconcile these passages? Was Abraham's and Sarah's marriage a sin? Was it considered incest?

2012/01/13

Like my answer [here](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/5049/did-adam-and-eves-progeny-commit-incest), you need to keep the chronology right. There is no levitical law at the time of Abraham. Thus, even if he did marry his sister, remember that he was breaking no covenantal restriction on doing so. As I said in that answer, you don't convict someone of a crime *ex post facto*.

"If Sarai (later Sarah) was the daughter of Terah, then Sarai would have been listed along with Abram, Nahor, and Haran. So we can confirm that the intended meaning was cousin." Hmm, but in Genesis 20 Abraham says ... Abraham replied, “I said to myself, ‘There is surely no fear of God in this place, and they will kill me because of my wife.’ 12 Besides, she really is my sister, the daughter of my father though not of my mother; and she became my wife. ... So I guess she was his half-sister and the marraige very much was an incestuous one.

In the comments to [this answer](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/a/5258/85) to [the question of why Abraham lied to Pharaoh about his relationship with Sarah](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/3524/why-did-abraham-lie-to-pharaoh-about-sarah-being-his-sister-in-gen-12/5258#5258), the following question which I am about to pose, appeared: **Was the marriage between Abraham and Sarah incestuous?** In two separate occasions, Abraham told the local ruler that Sarah was his sister. These two passages are found in in [Genesis 12:10-20](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Gen%2012:10-20&version=NIV) and [Genesis 20](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Genesis%2020&version=NIV). Let's examine the first passage: [Genesis 12:10-20 (NIV)](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Gen%2012:10-20&version=NIV) > > 10 Now there was a famine in the land, and Abram went down to Egypt to live there for a while because the famine was severe. 11 As he was about to enter Egypt, he said to his wife Sarai, “I know what a beautiful woman you are. **12 When the Egyptians see you, they will say, ‘This is his wife.’ Then they will kill me but will let you live. 13 Say you are my sister, so that I will be treated well for your sake and my life will be spared because of you.”** > > > 14 When Abram came to Egypt, the Egyptians saw that Sarai was a very beautiful woman. 15 And when Pharaoh’s officials saw her, they praised her to Pharaoh, and she was taken into his palace. 16 He treated Abram well for her sake, and Abram acquired sheep and cattle, male and female donkeys, male and female servants, and camels. > > > 17 But the LORD inflicted serious diseases on Pharaoh and his household because of Abram’s wife Sarai. **18 So Pharaoh summoned Abram. “What have you done to me?” he said. “Why didn’t you tell me she was your wife? 19 Why did you say, ‘She is my sister,’ so that I took her to be my wife? Now then, here is your wife. Take her and go!”** 20 Then Pharaoh gave orders about Abram to his men, and they sent him on his way, with his wife and everything he had. > > > This seems to imply that since Abraham told Pharaoh that Sarah was his sister, Sarah was believed to be his sister only and not his wife. This, in turns, makes me draw the conclusion that marriage between siblings was unusual. Let's head on to the second passage: [Genesis 20 (NIV)](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Genesis%2020&version=NIV) > > 1 Now Abraham moved on from there into the region of the Negev and > lived between Kadesh and Shur. For a while he stayed in Gerar, **2 and > there Abraham said of his wife Sarah, “She is my sister.” Then > Abimelek king of Gerar sent for Sarah and took her.** 3 But God came to > Abimelek in a dream one night and said to him, “You are as good as > dead because of the woman you have taken; she is a married woman.” > > > 4 Now Abimelek had not gone near her, so he said, “Lord, will you > destroy an innocent nation? **5 Did he not say to me, ‘She is my > sister,’ and didn’t she also say, ‘He is my brother’? I have done this > with a clear conscience and clean hands.”** > > > 6 Then God said to him in the dream, “Yes, I know you did this with a > clear conscience, and so I have kept you from sinning against me. That > is why I did not let you touch her. 7 Now return the man’s wife, for > he is a prophet, and he will pray for you and you will live. But if > you do not return her, you may be sure that you and all who belong to > you will die.” > > > 8 Early the next morning Abimelek summoned all his officials, and > when he told them all that had happened, they were very much afraid. 9 > Then Abimelek called Abraham in and said, “What have you done to us? > How have I wronged you that you have brought such great guilt upon me > and my kingdom? You have done things to me that should never be done.” > 10 And Abimelek asked Abraham, “What was your reason for doing this?” > > > 11 Abraham replied, “I said to myself, ‘There is surely no fear of > God in this place, and they will kill me because of my wife.’ **12 > Besides, she really is my sister, the daughter of my father though not > of my mother; and she became my wife. 13 And when God had me wander > from my father’s household, I said to her, ‘This is how you can show > your love to me: Everywhere we go, say of me, “He is my brother.”’”** > > > 14 Then Abimelek brought sheep and cattle and male and female slaves > and gave them to Abraham, and he returned Sarah his wife to him. 15 > And Abimelek said, “My land is before you; live wherever you like.” > > > 16 To Sarah he said, “I am giving your brother a thousand shekels[a] > of silver. This is to cover the offense against you before all who are > with you; you are completely vindicated.” > > > 17 Then Abraham prayed to God, and God healed Abimelek, his wife and > his female slaves so they could have children again, 18 for the LORD > had kept all the women in Abimelek’s household from conceiving because > of Abraham’s wife Sarah. > > > This second passage also tells us that marriage between siblings was unusual. It also tells us that Abraham did not really lie when he said that Sarah was his sister, since she was his half-sister. *Also note that nowhere in the two passages Abraham is accused of lying!* This is a quite interesting fact. In any way, it is clear that our definition of incest in today's western society, is not the same as it was in that time and place. Still, [Deuteronomy 27:22](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Deuteronomy%2027:22&version=NIV) clearly states that for a man to marry his father's daughter (as Abraham did) is a sin! How does one reconcile these passages? Was Abraham's and Sarah's marriage a sin? Was it considered incest?

2012/01/13

Marrying a close relative was not forbidden at that time. The old question of "Where did Cain get his wife?" is answered by saying that he married a sister of his. It was not immoral at that time, since there was no law forbidding it. Leviticus is where we find such laws, which was written over 400 years after the time of Abraham. We now understand that as the genetic pool has become degraded, it is best not to marry a close relative because of the possibility of both husband and wife having the same genetic deficiencies. Early on in human history, these genetic deficiencies were quite minimal, so there wasn't an issue. Marrying a sister may have been uncommon at that time, so Abraham appears to be fudging a bit to justify Sarah as his sister. He has to explain how she is his sister, because she isn't his direct sister. So, he's trying to justify his lie by a tenuous explanation. So again, there was no law that he was breaking at that time. It would be as if the government passed a law against eating twinkies and then rounded up everyone who had ever eaten one before it was outlawed. The American Justice system strictly forbids this practice (Ex Post Facto).

In Genesis 11:31 the KJV reads "And Terah took Abram his son, and Lot the son of Haran his son's son, and Sarai his daughter in law, his son Abram's wife; and they went forth with them from Ur of the Chaldees, to go into the land of Canaan; and they came unto Haran, and dwelt there." Why would it say "Sarai his daughter in law" if she was in fact Terah's daughter? It would be shorter and more accurate to say "Sarai his daughter, his son Abram's wife" rather than "Sarai his daughter in law, his son Abram's wife" as it does. Was the fact that she was married to Abraham more relevant in a patriarchal society, so that it should be repeated twice while leaving out the father-daughter relationship? Or perhaps the author of Genesis 11 wanted to obscure the fact that Abraham had committed incest? None of these seem very satisfactory to me. This induces me to consider that in Genesis 20:12, Abraham is lying again to Abimelech, in order to cover up the fact that he lied about Sarah being his sister. He said she was his sister in order to deceive Abimelech about her being his wife, and now he's saying that she's his half-sister in order to deceive Abimelech about the fact that he lied to the king. However, the first lie was justified (albeit through the mouth of Abraham, not the narrator). That the second lie would not be explained to the reader at all seems jarring. I guess another interpretation is based on something that other posters have asserted, that the words for "daughter" and "father" should be read loosely according to the languages spoken by the people involved. In that case, Sarah could have been Terah's grand-daughter; then maybe 11:31 left out this detail because the genealogies were being precise about lineage; while Abraham was being imprecise with Abimelech partly to cover up his first obfuscation. However, I would like to see where else in the Bible a granddaughter or grandson, for example, is referred to as a daughter or son.

In the comments to [this answer](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/a/5258/85) to [the question of why Abraham lied to Pharaoh about his relationship with Sarah](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/3524/why-did-abraham-lie-to-pharaoh-about-sarah-being-his-sister-in-gen-12/5258#5258), the following question which I am about to pose, appeared: **Was the marriage between Abraham and Sarah incestuous?** In two separate occasions, Abraham told the local ruler that Sarah was his sister. These two passages are found in in [Genesis 12:10-20](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Gen%2012:10-20&version=NIV) and [Genesis 20](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Genesis%2020&version=NIV). Let's examine the first passage: [Genesis 12:10-20 (NIV)](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Gen%2012:10-20&version=NIV) > > 10 Now there was a famine in the land, and Abram went down to Egypt to live there for a while because the famine was severe. 11 As he was about to enter Egypt, he said to his wife Sarai, “I know what a beautiful woman you are. **12 When the Egyptians see you, they will say, ‘This is his wife.’ Then they will kill me but will let you live. 13 Say you are my sister, so that I will be treated well for your sake and my life will be spared because of you.”** > > > 14 When Abram came to Egypt, the Egyptians saw that Sarai was a very beautiful woman. 15 And when Pharaoh’s officials saw her, they praised her to Pharaoh, and she was taken into his palace. 16 He treated Abram well for her sake, and Abram acquired sheep and cattle, male and female donkeys, male and female servants, and camels. > > > 17 But the LORD inflicted serious diseases on Pharaoh and his household because of Abram’s wife Sarai. **18 So Pharaoh summoned Abram. “What have you done to me?” he said. “Why didn’t you tell me she was your wife? 19 Why did you say, ‘She is my sister,’ so that I took her to be my wife? Now then, here is your wife. Take her and go!”** 20 Then Pharaoh gave orders about Abram to his men, and they sent him on his way, with his wife and everything he had. > > > This seems to imply that since Abraham told Pharaoh that Sarah was his sister, Sarah was believed to be his sister only and not his wife. This, in turns, makes me draw the conclusion that marriage between siblings was unusual. Let's head on to the second passage: [Genesis 20 (NIV)](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Genesis%2020&version=NIV) > > 1 Now Abraham moved on from there into the region of the Negev and > lived between Kadesh and Shur. For a while he stayed in Gerar, **2 and > there Abraham said of his wife Sarah, “She is my sister.” Then > Abimelek king of Gerar sent for Sarah and took her.** 3 But God came to > Abimelek in a dream one night and said to him, “You are as good as > dead because of the woman you have taken; she is a married woman.” > > > 4 Now Abimelek had not gone near her, so he said, “Lord, will you > destroy an innocent nation? **5 Did he not say to me, ‘She is my > sister,’ and didn’t she also say, ‘He is my brother’? I have done this > with a clear conscience and clean hands.”** > > > 6 Then God said to him in the dream, “Yes, I know you did this with a > clear conscience, and so I have kept you from sinning against me. That > is why I did not let you touch her. 7 Now return the man’s wife, for > he is a prophet, and he will pray for you and you will live. But if > you do not return her, you may be sure that you and all who belong to > you will die.” > > > 8 Early the next morning Abimelek summoned all his officials, and > when he told them all that had happened, they were very much afraid. 9 > Then Abimelek called Abraham in and said, “What have you done to us? > How have I wronged you that you have brought such great guilt upon me > and my kingdom? You have done things to me that should never be done.” > 10 And Abimelek asked Abraham, “What was your reason for doing this?” > > > 11 Abraham replied, “I said to myself, ‘There is surely no fear of > God in this place, and they will kill me because of my wife.’ **12 > Besides, she really is my sister, the daughter of my father though not > of my mother; and she became my wife. 13 And when God had me wander > from my father’s household, I said to her, ‘This is how you can show > your love to me: Everywhere we go, say of me, “He is my brother.”’”** > > > 14 Then Abimelek brought sheep and cattle and male and female slaves > and gave them to Abraham, and he returned Sarah his wife to him. 15 > And Abimelek said, “My land is before you; live wherever you like.” > > > 16 To Sarah he said, “I am giving your brother a thousand shekels[a] > of silver. This is to cover the offense against you before all who are > with you; you are completely vindicated.” > > > 17 Then Abraham prayed to God, and God healed Abimelek, his wife and > his female slaves so they could have children again, 18 for the LORD > had kept all the women in Abimelek’s household from conceiving because > of Abraham’s wife Sarah. > > > This second passage also tells us that marriage between siblings was unusual. It also tells us that Abraham did not really lie when he said that Sarah was his sister, since she was his half-sister. *Also note that nowhere in the two passages Abraham is accused of lying!* This is a quite interesting fact. In any way, it is clear that our definition of incest in today's western society, is not the same as it was in that time and place. Still, [Deuteronomy 27:22](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Deuteronomy%2027:22&version=NIV) clearly states that for a man to marry his father's daughter (as Abraham did) is a sin! How does one reconcile these passages? Was Abraham's and Sarah's marriage a sin? Was it considered incest?

2012/01/13

During Abraham's time the law hadn't been written against a man taking his father's daughter as his wife. After the law was written in: > > **[Deuteronomy 27:22](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Deuteronomy%2027:22&version=NKJV)** (NKJV) > > 22 ‘Cursed *is* the one who lies with his sister, the daughter of his father or the daughter of his mother.’ > > “And all the people shall say, ‘Amen!’ > > > it forbade such a practice even today, but the lineage of Christ was coming through Abraham and Sarah. This also shows what happens when we are faced with fear that our faith is too weak to overcome.

Abraham married his wife before his calling from God and before the 10 commandments. Every wrong action after the 10 commandments is a sin.

In the comments to [this answer](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/a/5258/85) to [the question of why Abraham lied to Pharaoh about his relationship with Sarah](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/3524/why-did-abraham-lie-to-pharaoh-about-sarah-being-his-sister-in-gen-12/5258#5258), the following question which I am about to pose, appeared: **Was the marriage between Abraham and Sarah incestuous?** In two separate occasions, Abraham told the local ruler that Sarah was his sister. These two passages are found in in [Genesis 12:10-20](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Gen%2012:10-20&version=NIV) and [Genesis 20](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Genesis%2020&version=NIV). Let's examine the first passage: [Genesis 12:10-20 (NIV)](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Gen%2012:10-20&version=NIV) > > 10 Now there was a famine in the land, and Abram went down to Egypt to live there for a while because the famine was severe. 11 As he was about to enter Egypt, he said to his wife Sarai, “I know what a beautiful woman you are. **12 When the Egyptians see you, they will say, ‘This is his wife.’ Then they will kill me but will let you live. 13 Say you are my sister, so that I will be treated well for your sake and my life will be spared because of you.”** > > > 14 When Abram came to Egypt, the Egyptians saw that Sarai was a very beautiful woman. 15 And when Pharaoh’s officials saw her, they praised her to Pharaoh, and she was taken into his palace. 16 He treated Abram well for her sake, and Abram acquired sheep and cattle, male and female donkeys, male and female servants, and camels. > > > 17 But the LORD inflicted serious diseases on Pharaoh and his household because of Abram’s wife Sarai. **18 So Pharaoh summoned Abram. “What have you done to me?” he said. “Why didn’t you tell me she was your wife? 19 Why did you say, ‘She is my sister,’ so that I took her to be my wife? Now then, here is your wife. Take her and go!”** 20 Then Pharaoh gave orders about Abram to his men, and they sent him on his way, with his wife and everything he had. > > > This seems to imply that since Abraham told Pharaoh that Sarah was his sister, Sarah was believed to be his sister only and not his wife. This, in turns, makes me draw the conclusion that marriage between siblings was unusual. Let's head on to the second passage: [Genesis 20 (NIV)](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Genesis%2020&version=NIV) > > 1 Now Abraham moved on from there into the region of the Negev and > lived between Kadesh and Shur. For a while he stayed in Gerar, **2 and > there Abraham said of his wife Sarah, “She is my sister.” Then > Abimelek king of Gerar sent for Sarah and took her.** 3 But God came to > Abimelek in a dream one night and said to him, “You are as good as > dead because of the woman you have taken; she is a married woman.” > > > 4 Now Abimelek had not gone near her, so he said, “Lord, will you > destroy an innocent nation? **5 Did he not say to me, ‘She is my > sister,’ and didn’t she also say, ‘He is my brother’? I have done this > with a clear conscience and clean hands.”** > > > 6 Then God said to him in the dream, “Yes, I know you did this with a > clear conscience, and so I have kept you from sinning against me. That > is why I did not let you touch her. 7 Now return the man’s wife, for > he is a prophet, and he will pray for you and you will live. But if > you do not return her, you may be sure that you and all who belong to > you will die.” > > > 8 Early the next morning Abimelek summoned all his officials, and > when he told them all that had happened, they were very much afraid. 9 > Then Abimelek called Abraham in and said, “What have you done to us? > How have I wronged you that you have brought such great guilt upon me > and my kingdom? You have done things to me that should never be done.” > 10 And Abimelek asked Abraham, “What was your reason for doing this?” > > > 11 Abraham replied, “I said to myself, ‘There is surely no fear of > God in this place, and they will kill me because of my wife.’ **12 > Besides, she really is my sister, the daughter of my father though not > of my mother; and she became my wife. 13 And when God had me wander > from my father’s household, I said to her, ‘This is how you can show > your love to me: Everywhere we go, say of me, “He is my brother.”’”** > > > 14 Then Abimelek brought sheep and cattle and male and female slaves > and gave them to Abraham, and he returned Sarah his wife to him. 15 > And Abimelek said, “My land is before you; live wherever you like.” > > > 16 To Sarah he said, “I am giving your brother a thousand shekels[a] > of silver. This is to cover the offense against you before all who are > with you; you are completely vindicated.” > > > 17 Then Abraham prayed to God, and God healed Abimelek, his wife and > his female slaves so they could have children again, 18 for the LORD > had kept all the women in Abimelek’s household from conceiving because > of Abraham’s wife Sarah. > > > This second passage also tells us that marriage between siblings was unusual. It also tells us that Abraham did not really lie when he said that Sarah was his sister, since she was his half-sister. *Also note that nowhere in the two passages Abraham is accused of lying!* This is a quite interesting fact. In any way, it is clear that our definition of incest in today's western society, is not the same as it was in that time and place. Still, [Deuteronomy 27:22](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Deuteronomy%2027:22&version=NIV) clearly states that for a man to marry his father's daughter (as Abraham did) is a sin! How does one reconcile these passages? Was Abraham's and Sarah's marriage a sin? Was it considered incest?

2012/01/13

Marrying a close relative was not forbidden at that time. The old question of "Where did Cain get his wife?" is answered by saying that he married a sister of his. It was not immoral at that time, since there was no law forbidding it. Leviticus is where we find such laws, which was written over 400 years after the time of Abraham. We now understand that as the genetic pool has become degraded, it is best not to marry a close relative because of the possibility of both husband and wife having the same genetic deficiencies. Early on in human history, these genetic deficiencies were quite minimal, so there wasn't an issue. Marrying a sister may have been uncommon at that time, so Abraham appears to be fudging a bit to justify Sarah as his sister. He has to explain how she is his sister, because she isn't his direct sister. So, he's trying to justify his lie by a tenuous explanation. So again, there was no law that he was breaking at that time. It would be as if the government passed a law against eating twinkies and then rounded up everyone who had ever eaten one before it was outlawed. The American Justice system strictly forbids this practice (Ex Post Facto).

"If Sarai (later Sarah) was the daughter of Terah, then Sarai would have been listed along with Abram, Nahor, and Haran. So we can confirm that the intended meaning was cousin." Hmm, but in Genesis 20 Abraham says ... Abraham replied, “I said to myself, ‘There is surely no fear of God in this place, and they will kill me because of my wife.’ 12 Besides, she really is my sister, the daughter of my father though not of my mother; and she became my wife. ... So I guess she was his half-sister and the marraige very much was an incestuous one.

I'm working on a journaling system in C# at our local church, but I've run into trouble with the database connection when storing birth dates. According to [MSDN](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.datetime.minvalue.aspx?appId=Dev10IDEF1&l=EN-US&k=k%28SYSTEM.DATETIME%29;k%28TargetFrameworkMoniker-%22.NETFRAMEWORK&k=VERSION=V4.0%22%29;k%28DevLang-CSHARP%29&rd=true) the earlist date possible to represent is January 1st year 1. How am I supposed to record the birth date of Jesus Christ and earlier personalities that are important us?

2010/11/28

You are going to have to roll your own class to handle BC dates in .NET, and store them in the database either as strings or as separate fields for year, month day (depending on what accuracy is required) if you require searching and sorting to be performed on the database side (which I assume you would). SQL Server's support for dates is more restrictive than .NET's (it only goes back as far as 1753 or 1752 or thereabouts). [This blog post](http://blog.flipbit.co.uk/2009/03/representing-large-ad-and-bc-dates-in-c.html) is one possible implementation, albeit a pretty limited one as it only stores the year. But I am sure you could modify it as necessary for your needs. For instance, it could probably do well to implement some interfaces such as IComparable, IEquatable, IFormattable and possibly IConvertible as well if you're keen so it can better interact with the rest of the framework.

Simple answer - store the day, month and year as separate numeric fields. The day and month can be combined into a day-of-the-year value, but you need to watch out for leap years. Alternative answer - there are standard ways to convert a date into a day-number and back... <http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Julian_day> If you do the conversion yourself, you're basically storing a number (that just happens to represent a date) so you should have no problems. Well - other than making sure your conversions are correct.

I'm working on a journaling system in C# at our local church, but I've run into trouble with the database connection when storing birth dates. According to [MSDN](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.datetime.minvalue.aspx?appId=Dev10IDEF1&l=EN-US&k=k%28SYSTEM.DATETIME%29;k%28TargetFrameworkMoniker-%22.NETFRAMEWORK&k=VERSION=V4.0%22%29;k%28DevLang-CSHARP%29&rd=true) the earlist date possible to represent is January 1st year 1. How am I supposed to record the birth date of Jesus Christ and earlier personalities that are important us?

2010/11/28

If you are free to decide on type of calendar then I would recommend you to go-ahead with the Gregorian calendar, which has the > > ability to recognize two eras: B.C. > and A.D. > > > <http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.globalization.gregoriancalendar.aspx>

Simple answer - store the day, month and year as separate numeric fields. The day and month can be combined into a day-of-the-year value, but you need to watch out for leap years. Alternative answer - there are standard ways to convert a date into a day-number and back... <http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Julian_day> If you do the conversion yourself, you're basically storing a number (that just happens to represent a date) so you should have no problems. Well - other than making sure your conversions are correct.

I'm working on a journaling system in C# at our local church, but I've run into trouble with the database connection when storing birth dates. According to [MSDN](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.datetime.minvalue.aspx?appId=Dev10IDEF1&l=EN-US&k=k%28SYSTEM.DATETIME%29;k%28TargetFrameworkMoniker-%22.NETFRAMEWORK&k=VERSION=V4.0%22%29;k%28DevLang-CSHARP%29&rd=true) the earlist date possible to represent is January 1st year 1. How am I supposed to record the birth date of Jesus Christ and earlier personalities that are important us?

2010/11/28

<http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.globalization.gregoriancalendar.getera(v=VS.100).aspx>

Simple answer - store the day, month and year as separate numeric fields. The day and month can be combined into a day-of-the-year value, but you need to watch out for leap years. Alternative answer - there are standard ways to convert a date into a day-number and back... <http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Julian_day> If you do the conversion yourself, you're basically storing a number (that just happens to represent a date) so you should have no problems. Well - other than making sure your conversions are correct.

Concerning "[Uranium-series dating](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Uranium%E2%80%93thorium_dating)", also known as "Uranium-thorium dating". Uranium is present in deposits, "typically at levels of between a few parts per billion and few parts per million by weight", according to the wikipedia article on the subject. As an example, with carbon dating, the amount of carbon-14 originally present in any given sample is consistent with the amount of carbon-14 created by the activity of sunlight in the atmosphere. How do we know how much uranium-234 was in any given sample of rock when it was created/deposited?

2017/08/15

The chemistry of lead is very different from that of uranium and thorium. There are key kinds of rock that could not possibly have been formed with even the smallest amount of primordial lead. The lithophilic nature of uranium and thorium means that those same kinds of rock could easily have readily accepted primordial uranium or thorium. Any lead in those kinds of rocks must necessarily be the result of decay of uranium or thorium after the rock formed.

**Lead and uranium have completely different electro-chemical properties**. So as David mentioned it does not matter how much uranium the sample had (as long as it is enough to measure) what matters is whether it contained any lead when it formed. Uranium and lead do not form the same kinds of bonds with other elements, so what you do is look for a uranium based crystal or uranium incorporating crystal. Crystals have a very regular bonding pattern, so you know when the crystal formed it was uranium and not lead, becasue lead cannot form those types of bonds with the smale materials uranium can. So when you find lead locked in those crystals you know it is because when it crystallized it was uranium and later decayed into lead. Most samples used are crystals for this reason. We pick materials that could not normally include lead, by doing this you can add up the total amount of lead and uranium and that will tell you how much uranium there was originally. **Zircon** is especially common for this becasue it will readily incorporate uranium but strongly rejects lead, so even if there is lead present in the solution (molten rock) in will not be incorporated into the crystal, because it is actively repelled by the crystal surface, thus insuring any lead you find came after the crystal was already solid and the repulsion could not push it out.

Concerning "[Uranium-series dating](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Uranium%E2%80%93thorium_dating)", also known as "Uranium-thorium dating". Uranium is present in deposits, "typically at levels of between a few parts per billion and few parts per million by weight", according to the wikipedia article on the subject. As an example, with carbon dating, the amount of carbon-14 originally present in any given sample is consistent with the amount of carbon-14 created by the activity of sunlight in the atmosphere. How do we know how much uranium-234 was in any given sample of rock when it was created/deposited?

2017/08/15

The field of nuclear physics has established the [radioactive decay](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Radioactive_decay) series for radioactive elements (see [here](https://www.boundless.com/physics/textbooks/boundless-physics-textbook/nuclear-physics-and-radioactivity-30/radioactivity-190/radioactive-decay-series-introduction-708-1301/) as well). Unlike [Uranium 238](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Uranium-238), [Uranium 234](http://www.nuclear-power.net/nuclear-power-plant/nuclear-fuel/uranium/uranium-234/) is not [primordial nuclide](http://www.nuclear-power.net/glossary/primordial-matter/). It is a indirect decay product of Uranium 238. By knowing what elements, and their isotopes, are present in rocks and how much of these isotopes are present, combined with the radioactive decay chain it is possible to determine the amount of Uranium 234 that was once present when the rocks formed.

**Lead and uranium have completely different electro-chemical properties**. So as David mentioned it does not matter how much uranium the sample had (as long as it is enough to measure) what matters is whether it contained any lead when it formed. Uranium and lead do not form the same kinds of bonds with other elements, so what you do is look for a uranium based crystal or uranium incorporating crystal. Crystals have a very regular bonding pattern, so you know when the crystal formed it was uranium and not lead, becasue lead cannot form those types of bonds with the smale materials uranium can. So when you find lead locked in those crystals you know it is because when it crystallized it was uranium and later decayed into lead. Most samples used are crystals for this reason. We pick materials that could not normally include lead, by doing this you can add up the total amount of lead and uranium and that will tell you how much uranium there was originally. **Zircon** is especially common for this becasue it will readily incorporate uranium but strongly rejects lead, so even if there is lead present in the solution (molten rock) in will not be incorporated into the crystal, because it is actively repelled by the crystal surface, thus insuring any lead you find came after the crystal was already solid and the repulsion could not push it out.

I occasionally have Python programs that take a long time to run, and that I want to be able to save the state of and resume later. Does anyone have a clever way of saving the state either every x seconds, or when the program is exiting?

2011/04/06

Put all of your "state" data in one place and use a [pickle](http://docs.python.org/library/pickle.html). > > The pickle module implements a fundamental, but powerful algorithm for serializing and de-serializing a Python object structure. “Pickling” is the process whereby a Python object hierarchy is converted into a byte stream, and “unpickling” is the inverse operation, whereby a byte stream is converted back into an object hierarchy. Pickling (and unpickling) is alternatively known as “serialization”, “marshalling,” [1](http://docs.python.org/library/pickle.html) or “flattening”, however, to avoid confusion, the terms used here are “pickling” and “unpickling”. > > >

If you want to save everything, including the entire namespace and the line of code currently executing to be restarted at any time, there is not a standard library module to do that. As another poster said, the pickle module can save pretty much everything into a file and then load it again, but you would have to specifically design your program around the pickle module (i.e. saving your "state" -- including variables, etc -- in a class).

I occasionally have Python programs that take a long time to run, and that I want to be able to save the state of and resume later. Does anyone have a clever way of saving the state either every x seconds, or when the program is exiting?

2011/04/06

Put all of your "state" data in one place and use a [pickle](http://docs.python.org/library/pickle.html). > > The pickle module implements a fundamental, but powerful algorithm for serializing and de-serializing a Python object structure. “Pickling” is the process whereby a Python object hierarchy is converted into a byte stream, and “unpickling” is the inverse operation, whereby a byte stream is converted back into an object hierarchy. Pickling (and unpickling) is alternatively known as “serialization”, “marshalling,” [1](http://docs.python.org/library/pickle.html) or “flattening”, however, to avoid confusion, the terms used here are “pickling” and “unpickling”. > > >

If you ok with OOP, consider creating a method for each class that output a serialised version ( using pickle ) to file. Then add a second method to load in the instance the data, and if the pickled file is there you call the load method instead of the processing one. I use this approach for ML and it really seed up my workflow.

I occasionally have Python programs that take a long time to run, and that I want to be able to save the state of and resume later. Does anyone have a clever way of saving the state either every x seconds, or when the program is exiting?

2011/04/06

Put all of your "state" data in one place and use a [pickle](http://docs.python.org/library/pickle.html). > > The pickle module implements a fundamental, but powerful algorithm for serializing and de-serializing a Python object structure. “Pickling” is the process whereby a Python object hierarchy is converted into a byte stream, and “unpickling” is the inverse operation, whereby a byte stream is converted back into an object hierarchy. Pickling (and unpickling) is alternatively known as “serialization”, “marshalling,” [1](http://docs.python.org/library/pickle.html) or “flattening”, however, to avoid confusion, the terms used here are “pickling” and “unpickling”. > > >

In the traditional programming approach the obvious way to save a state of variables or objects after some point of execution is serialization. So if you want to execute the program after some heavy already computed state we need to start only from the deserialization part. These steps will be mostly needed mostly in data science modelling where we load a huge CSV or some other data and compute it and we do not want to recompute every time we run a program. <http://jupyter.org/> - A tool which does these serialization/deserialization automatically without you doing any manual work. All you need to do is do execute a selected portion of your python code let us say line 10-15, which are dependent on pervious lines 1-9. Jupyter saves the state of 1-9 for you. Explore a tutorial it and give it a try.

I occasionally have Python programs that take a long time to run, and that I want to be able to save the state of and resume later. Does anyone have a clever way of saving the state either every x seconds, or when the program is exiting?

2011/04/06

If you want to save everything, including the entire namespace and the line of code currently executing to be restarted at any time, there is not a standard library module to do that. As another poster said, the pickle module can save pretty much everything into a file and then load it again, but you would have to specifically design your program around the pickle module (i.e. saving your "state" -- including variables, etc -- in a class).

If you ok with OOP, consider creating a method for each class that output a serialised version ( using pickle ) to file. Then add a second method to load in the instance the data, and if the pickled file is there you call the load method instead of the processing one. I use this approach for ML and it really seed up my workflow.

I occasionally have Python programs that take a long time to run, and that I want to be able to save the state of and resume later. Does anyone have a clever way of saving the state either every x seconds, or when the program is exiting?

2011/04/06

If you want to save everything, including the entire namespace and the line of code currently executing to be restarted at any time, there is not a standard library module to do that. As another poster said, the pickle module can save pretty much everything into a file and then load it again, but you would have to specifically design your program around the pickle module (i.e. saving your "state" -- including variables, etc -- in a class).

In the traditional programming approach the obvious way to save a state of variables or objects after some point of execution is serialization. So if you want to execute the program after some heavy already computed state we need to start only from the deserialization part. These steps will be mostly needed mostly in data science modelling where we load a huge CSV or some other data and compute it and we do not want to recompute every time we run a program. <http://jupyter.org/> - A tool which does these serialization/deserialization automatically without you doing any manual work. All you need to do is do execute a selected portion of your python code let us say line 10-15, which are dependent on pervious lines 1-9. Jupyter saves the state of 1-9 for you. Explore a tutorial it and give it a try.

I occasionally have Python programs that take a long time to run, and that I want to be able to save the state of and resume later. Does anyone have a clever way of saving the state either every x seconds, or when the program is exiting?

2011/04/06

If you ok with OOP, consider creating a method for each class that output a serialised version ( using pickle ) to file. Then add a second method to load in the instance the data, and if the pickled file is there you call the load method instead of the processing one. I use this approach for ML and it really seed up my workflow.

In the traditional programming approach the obvious way to save a state of variables or objects after some point of execution is serialization. So if you want to execute the program after some heavy already computed state we need to start only from the deserialization part. These steps will be mostly needed mostly in data science modelling where we load a huge CSV or some other data and compute it and we do not want to recompute every time we run a program. <http://jupyter.org/> - A tool which does these serialization/deserialization automatically without you doing any manual work. All you need to do is do execute a selected portion of your python code let us say line 10-15, which are dependent on pervious lines 1-9. Jupyter saves the state of 1-9 for you. Explore a tutorial it and give it a try.

It is often said that Nibbana is unconditioned. But isn't Nibbana to be attained through practice of the Noble Eightfold Path (abandoning desire, meditation, realizing paticcasamuppada etc)? Aren't those practices conditions for Nibbana? What am I missing here :) ?

2015/05/18

In Theravada Buddhism, when we talk about conditions and conditioning there are 24 conditions found in the [Patthana](http://sanskritdocuments.org/articles/Notes_on_PATTHANA_DHAMMA.pdf) The Patthana Dhamma are packed into 24 Paccaya or 24 conditions. They are: 1.Root condition ( Hetu Paccayo ) 2.Object condition ( Arammana Paccayo ) 3.Predominance condition ( Adhipati Paccayo ) 4.Proximity condition ( Anantara Paccayo )... etc...

I do not have sufficent knowledge to answer the question in a satisfactory way. So i will instead point you to some great ressources regarding your question. The first one is a book called [*"On the Nature of Nibbana"*](http://www.saraniya.com/books/mahasi-sayadaw/pdf/mahasi_sayadaw-1964_on_the_nature_of_nibbana.pdf) by Ven. Mahasi Sayadaw. In this book Nibbana is being discussed e.g. *"What is Nibbana and what is the meaning of it?, Mental Formation and Nibbana, The Nature and Attributes of Nibbana and many more things regarding Nibbana"*. The second source is a great audio dhamma talk called [*"Nibbana"*](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=IBNMqqmZI6E) by Ven. Bhikkhu Bodhi. Here is also some text material on *Nibbana* by Ven. Bhikkhu Bodhi. A short quote from the section [*"Nibbana is an existing reality"*](http://www.beyondthenet.net/dhamma/nibbanaReal.htm): > > "Regarding the nature of Nibbana, the question is often asked: Does Nibbana signify only extinction of the defilements and liberation from samsara or does it signify some reality existing in itself? Nibbana is not only the destruction of defilements and the end of samsara but a reality transcendent to the entire world of mundane experience, a reality transcendent to all the realms of phenomenal existence. > > > The Buddha refers to Nibbana as a 'dhamma'. For example, he says "of all dhammas, conditioned or unconditioned, the most excellent dhamma, the supreme dhamma is, Nibbana". 'Dhamma' signifies actual realities, the existing realities as opposed to conceptual things. Dhammas are of two types, conditioned and unconditioned. A conditioned dhamma is an actuality which has come into being through causes or conditions, something which arises through the workings of various conditions. The conditioned dhammas are the five aggregates: material form, feeling, perception, mental formations and consciousness. The conditioned dhammas, do not remain static. They go through a ceaseless process of becoming. They arise, undergo transformation and fall away due to its conditionality. > > > However, the unconditioned dhamma is not produced by causes and conditions. It has the opposite characteristics from the conditioned: it has no arising, no falling away and it undergoes no transformation. Nevertheless, it is an actuality, and the Buddha refers to Nibbana as an unconditioned Dhamma." > > > May this be of some help to you. Lanka

It is often said that Nibbana is unconditioned. But isn't Nibbana to be attained through practice of the Noble Eightfold Path (abandoning desire, meditation, realizing paticcasamuppada etc)? Aren't those practices conditions for Nibbana? What am I missing here :) ?

2015/05/18

The practice of the eightfold noble path leads to the *experience* of nibbāna, just like the act of adverting the mind to the eye door leads to seeing light. Light, the object of seeing, is saṅkhata (conditioned), but nibbāna, the object of supermundane consciousness, is asaṅkhata (unconditioned). So nibbāna isn't the result of the eightfold noble path, the experience of it is.

I see two ambiguities here which might be the responsible for the confusion. > > with the six sense bases as condition, contact; > > > -- SN 12:1 > > > The above is one link of conditioned arising chain, which explain how many things are conditioned. Would it be correct to, according to the above, conclude that the six senses *cause* (or produce) contact? That would be awkward. This quote means that if a "contact experience" is present, then the corresponding sense is present. A more verbose reading of the above would be "six sense bases are a supporting condition for contact". As another (unrelated to buddhism, and perhaps poorly chosen) example, if you study, you become more knowledgeable. But your knowledge, at any given point, is not constituted by "studies". There is an ambiguity in how we can interpret "conditioned". Conditioned ≠ caused by. The matter in question is that it is more a statement about a ["necessary condition"](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Necessity_and_sufficiency) than a statement about a particular cause. There is also another ambiguity in play here. Nibbāna is unconditioned in the sense that **it** has no supporting condition. Echoing [yuttadhammo's answer](https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/a/9083/382), nibbāna is "one thing" and the experience of attaining nibbāna (which requires all the proverbial effort) is "something else".

It is often said that Nibbana is unconditioned. But isn't Nibbana to be attained through practice of the Noble Eightfold Path (abandoning desire, meditation, realizing paticcasamuppada etc)? Aren't those practices conditions for Nibbana? What am I missing here :) ?

2015/05/18

No, the practices are causes of the unconditional result of Nibbana. Things in the past or future do not even exist to ultimate reality. We can't understand this without practicing virtue and witnessing what really is in the present moment(mindfulness or Vipassana) moment by moment

I do not have sufficent knowledge to answer the question in a satisfactory way. So i will instead point you to some great ressources regarding your question. The first one is a book called [*"On the Nature of Nibbana"*](http://www.saraniya.com/books/mahasi-sayadaw/pdf/mahasi_sayadaw-1964_on_the_nature_of_nibbana.pdf) by Ven. Mahasi Sayadaw. In this book Nibbana is being discussed e.g. *"What is Nibbana and what is the meaning of it?, Mental Formation and Nibbana, The Nature and Attributes of Nibbana and many more things regarding Nibbana"*. The second source is a great audio dhamma talk called [*"Nibbana"*](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=IBNMqqmZI6E) by Ven. Bhikkhu Bodhi. Here is also some text material on *Nibbana* by Ven. Bhikkhu Bodhi. A short quote from the section [*"Nibbana is an existing reality"*](http://www.beyondthenet.net/dhamma/nibbanaReal.htm): > > "Regarding the nature of Nibbana, the question is often asked: Does Nibbana signify only extinction of the defilements and liberation from samsara or does it signify some reality existing in itself? Nibbana is not only the destruction of defilements and the end of samsara but a reality transcendent to the entire world of mundane experience, a reality transcendent to all the realms of phenomenal existence. > > > The Buddha refers to Nibbana as a 'dhamma'. For example, he says "of all dhammas, conditioned or unconditioned, the most excellent dhamma, the supreme dhamma is, Nibbana". 'Dhamma' signifies actual realities, the existing realities as opposed to conceptual things. Dhammas are of two types, conditioned and unconditioned. A conditioned dhamma is an actuality which has come into being through causes or conditions, something which arises through the workings of various conditions. The conditioned dhammas are the five aggregates: material form, feeling, perception, mental formations and consciousness. The conditioned dhammas, do not remain static. They go through a ceaseless process of becoming. They arise, undergo transformation and fall away due to its conditionality. > > > However, the unconditioned dhamma is not produced by causes and conditions. It has the opposite characteristics from the conditioned: it has no arising, no falling away and it undergoes no transformation. Nevertheless, it is an actuality, and the Buddha refers to Nibbana as an unconditioned Dhamma." > > > May this be of some help to you. Lanka

It is often said that Nibbana is unconditioned. But isn't Nibbana to be attained through practice of the Noble Eightfold Path (abandoning desire, meditation, realizing paticcasamuppada etc)? Aren't those practices conditions for Nibbana? What am I missing here :) ?

2015/05/18

The practice of the eightfold noble path leads to the *experience* of nibbāna, just like the act of adverting the mind to the eye door leads to seeing light. Light, the object of seeing, is saṅkhata (conditioned), but nibbāna, the object of supermundane consciousness, is asaṅkhata (unconditioned). So nibbāna isn't the result of the eightfold noble path, the experience of it is.

In the material world alls phenomena arises and passes based on conditionality (as opposed to totally random). In Nibbana there is no arising and passing away of phenomena. It is true that realising Nibbana is the result of practising the path to realise it, hence if you have realised Nibbana then this is because you practice the path.

It is often said that Nibbana is unconditioned. But isn't Nibbana to be attained through practice of the Noble Eightfold Path (abandoning desire, meditation, realizing paticcasamuppada etc)? Aren't those practices conditions for Nibbana? What am I missing here :) ?

2015/05/18

The practice of the eightfold noble path leads to the *experience* of nibbāna, just like the act of adverting the mind to the eye door leads to seeing light. Light, the object of seeing, is saṅkhata (conditioned), but nibbāna, the object of supermundane consciousness, is asaṅkhata (unconditioned). So nibbāna isn't the result of the eightfold noble path, the experience of it is.

When it says that "Anicca vata sankhara" ( Impermanent are all conditioned things). "Uppadavaya dhammino" ( Of the nature to rise and fall). It is saying that things arise dependent on conditions, things "exist" because of the conditions that support them. So we are talking about characteristic nature of things or its attribute. The attributes of nibbana as pointed out above is permanent, does not arise depending on conditions.

It is often said that Nibbana is unconditioned. But isn't Nibbana to be attained through practice of the Noble Eightfold Path (abandoning desire, meditation, realizing paticcasamuppada etc)? Aren't those practices conditions for Nibbana? What am I missing here :) ?

2015/05/18

The practice of the eightfold noble path leads to the *experience* of nibbāna, just like the act of adverting the mind to the eye door leads to seeing light. Light, the object of seeing, is saṅkhata (conditioned), but nibbāna, the object of supermundane consciousness, is asaṅkhata (unconditioned). So nibbāna isn't the result of the eightfold noble path, the experience of it is.

I do not have sufficent knowledge to answer the question in a satisfactory way. So i will instead point you to some great ressources regarding your question. The first one is a book called [*"On the Nature of Nibbana"*](http://www.saraniya.com/books/mahasi-sayadaw/pdf/mahasi_sayadaw-1964_on_the_nature_of_nibbana.pdf) by Ven. Mahasi Sayadaw. In this book Nibbana is being discussed e.g. *"What is Nibbana and what is the meaning of it?, Mental Formation and Nibbana, The Nature and Attributes of Nibbana and many more things regarding Nibbana"*. The second source is a great audio dhamma talk called [*"Nibbana"*](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=IBNMqqmZI6E) by Ven. Bhikkhu Bodhi. Here is also some text material on *Nibbana* by Ven. Bhikkhu Bodhi. A short quote from the section [*"Nibbana is an existing reality"*](http://www.beyondthenet.net/dhamma/nibbanaReal.htm): > > "Regarding the nature of Nibbana, the question is often asked: Does Nibbana signify only extinction of the defilements and liberation from samsara or does it signify some reality existing in itself? Nibbana is not only the destruction of defilements and the end of samsara but a reality transcendent to the entire world of mundane experience, a reality transcendent to all the realms of phenomenal existence. > > > The Buddha refers to Nibbana as a 'dhamma'. For example, he says "of all dhammas, conditioned or unconditioned, the most excellent dhamma, the supreme dhamma is, Nibbana". 'Dhamma' signifies actual realities, the existing realities as opposed to conceptual things. Dhammas are of two types, conditioned and unconditioned. A conditioned dhamma is an actuality which has come into being through causes or conditions, something which arises through the workings of various conditions. The conditioned dhammas are the five aggregates: material form, feeling, perception, mental formations and consciousness. The conditioned dhammas, do not remain static. They go through a ceaseless process of becoming. They arise, undergo transformation and fall away due to its conditionality. > > > However, the unconditioned dhamma is not produced by causes and conditions. It has the opposite characteristics from the conditioned: it has no arising, no falling away and it undergoes no transformation. Nevertheless, it is an actuality, and the Buddha refers to Nibbana as an unconditioned Dhamma." > > > May this be of some help to you. Lanka

It is often said that Nibbana is unconditioned. But isn't Nibbana to be attained through practice of the Noble Eightfold Path (abandoning desire, meditation, realizing paticcasamuppada etc)? Aren't those practices conditions for Nibbana? What am I missing here :) ?

2015/05/18

In the material world alls phenomena arises and passes based on conditionality (as opposed to totally random). In Nibbana there is no arising and passing away of phenomena. It is true that realising Nibbana is the result of practising the path to realise it, hence if you have realised Nibbana then this is because you practice the path.

I do not have sufficent knowledge to answer the question in a satisfactory way. So i will instead point you to some great ressources regarding your question. The first one is a book called [*"On the Nature of Nibbana"*](http://www.saraniya.com/books/mahasi-sayadaw/pdf/mahasi_sayadaw-1964_on_the_nature_of_nibbana.pdf) by Ven. Mahasi Sayadaw. In this book Nibbana is being discussed e.g. *"What is Nibbana and what is the meaning of it?, Mental Formation and Nibbana, The Nature and Attributes of Nibbana and many more things regarding Nibbana"*. The second source is a great audio dhamma talk called [*"Nibbana"*](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=IBNMqqmZI6E) by Ven. Bhikkhu Bodhi. Here is also some text material on *Nibbana* by Ven. Bhikkhu Bodhi. A short quote from the section [*"Nibbana is an existing reality"*](http://www.beyondthenet.net/dhamma/nibbanaReal.htm): > > "Regarding the nature of Nibbana, the question is often asked: Does Nibbana signify only extinction of the defilements and liberation from samsara or does it signify some reality existing in itself? Nibbana is not only the destruction of defilements and the end of samsara but a reality transcendent to the entire world of mundane experience, a reality transcendent to all the realms of phenomenal existence. > > > The Buddha refers to Nibbana as a 'dhamma'. For example, he says "of all dhammas, conditioned or unconditioned, the most excellent dhamma, the supreme dhamma is, Nibbana". 'Dhamma' signifies actual realities, the existing realities as opposed to conceptual things. Dhammas are of two types, conditioned and unconditioned. A conditioned dhamma is an actuality which has come into being through causes or conditions, something which arises through the workings of various conditions. The conditioned dhammas are the five aggregates: material form, feeling, perception, mental formations and consciousness. The conditioned dhammas, do not remain static. They go through a ceaseless process of becoming. They arise, undergo transformation and fall away due to its conditionality. > > > However, the unconditioned dhamma is not produced by causes and conditions. It has the opposite characteristics from the conditioned: it has no arising, no falling away and it undergoes no transformation. Nevertheless, it is an actuality, and the Buddha refers to Nibbana as an unconditioned Dhamma." > > > May this be of some help to you. Lanka

It is often said that Nibbana is unconditioned. But isn't Nibbana to be attained through practice of the Noble Eightfold Path (abandoning desire, meditation, realizing paticcasamuppada etc)? Aren't those practices conditions for Nibbana? What am I missing here :) ?

2015/05/18

When it says that "Anicca vata sankhara" ( Impermanent are all conditioned things). "Uppadavaya dhammino" ( Of the nature to rise and fall). It is saying that things arise dependent on conditions, things "exist" because of the conditions that support them. So we are talking about characteristic nature of things or its attribute. The attributes of nibbana as pointed out above is permanent, does not arise depending on conditions.

I do not have sufficent knowledge to answer the question in a satisfactory way. So i will instead point you to some great ressources regarding your question. The first one is a book called [*"On the Nature of Nibbana"*](http://www.saraniya.com/books/mahasi-sayadaw/pdf/mahasi_sayadaw-1964_on_the_nature_of_nibbana.pdf) by Ven. Mahasi Sayadaw. In this book Nibbana is being discussed e.g. *"What is Nibbana and what is the meaning of it?, Mental Formation and Nibbana, The Nature and Attributes of Nibbana and many more things regarding Nibbana"*. The second source is a great audio dhamma talk called [*"Nibbana"*](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=IBNMqqmZI6E) by Ven. Bhikkhu Bodhi. Here is also some text material on *Nibbana* by Ven. Bhikkhu Bodhi. A short quote from the section [*"Nibbana is an existing reality"*](http://www.beyondthenet.net/dhamma/nibbanaReal.htm): > > "Regarding the nature of Nibbana, the question is often asked: Does Nibbana signify only extinction of the defilements and liberation from samsara or does it signify some reality existing in itself? Nibbana is not only the destruction of defilements and the end of samsara but a reality transcendent to the entire world of mundane experience, a reality transcendent to all the realms of phenomenal existence. > > > The Buddha refers to Nibbana as a 'dhamma'. For example, he says "of all dhammas, conditioned or unconditioned, the most excellent dhamma, the supreme dhamma is, Nibbana". 'Dhamma' signifies actual realities, the existing realities as opposed to conceptual things. Dhammas are of two types, conditioned and unconditioned. A conditioned dhamma is an actuality which has come into being through causes or conditions, something which arises through the workings of various conditions. The conditioned dhammas are the five aggregates: material form, feeling, perception, mental formations and consciousness. The conditioned dhammas, do not remain static. They go through a ceaseless process of becoming. They arise, undergo transformation and fall away due to its conditionality. > > > However, the unconditioned dhamma is not produced by causes and conditions. It has the opposite characteristics from the conditioned: it has no arising, no falling away and it undergoes no transformation. Nevertheless, it is an actuality, and the Buddha refers to Nibbana as an unconditioned Dhamma." > > > May this be of some help to you. Lanka

I am using aptana studio v 3.4.2.201308081805 on windows 7, I know that v 3.5 is available because I was prompted to update to 3.5 on a different computer. I have not received the update prompt on my macbook air or on my work computer. Does anyone know how to force aptana to update to v 3.5?

2014/02/04

Aptana has removed version 3.5 due to several bugs. Current stable version is 3.4.2 You can check here [Aptana download](http://www.aptana.com/products/studio3/download)

Check out the other Stack Overflow question from [here](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/11182618/how-to-update-aptana-studio-to-the-latest). It's also about updating Aptana Studio. Basically, in your case, Aptana may not have the update sites list configured yet. You'll need to import the XML file containing these addresses (many people have had to deal with this, as show in the support thread [on Aptana Studio's support site](http://aptanastudio.tenderapp.com/discussions/problems/2791-available-software-sites-list-is-empty-on-aptana3) about adding update sites to Aptana. Also, check out [this](https://wiki.appcelerator.org/display/tis/Errors+While+Updating) page on the Appcelerator wiki about common issues with updating.

After watching the thirteen films in the *Marvel Cinematic Universe*, I've been wondering if there is a longer running series of films that maps out a continuous storyline. [I've found this article on Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_film_series_with_more_than_twenty_entries), but I am unsure if any of these film series have reboots, or even if they follow a continuous plotline/timeline. The *James Bond* series of films features a reboot, but even before *Casino Royale* there didn't seem to be much of a continual plotline across the entire series of films (despite the recurring characters, organisations and themes). To explain what I mean by continuous plotline, I am going by the following criteria: * Films set in the same "universe" or setting * A continuous timeline of events depicted by the films (although not necessarily in sequence) * Each film should intentionally reference at least one of the other films that preceded it * Preferably at least one of the characters should be shared across more than one of the films in the series * Reboots or remakes break the continuous plotline, so these cannot be included (but they can be ignored if subsequent films continue the original plotline) The important part here is the continuous timeline of events. If a film can be placed somewhere in the timeline of a series without causing issues (eg. characters being revived without explanation, previously destroyed places suddenly restored without explanation, massive jumps in time for the setting and yet the characters don't age without explanation), then it is part of the continuous timeline. Otherwise that film breaks the timeline and cannot be included. I am more than happy to accept parts of a film series. For example if twenty of the thirty or more *Godzilla* films all follow these criteria, then I would accept those twenty films as a continuous plotline. I can think of several film series that fit these criteria, the *Star Wars* and *Harry Potter* film series are two examples. But I am looking for the longest series of films that fits my criteria of a continuous plotline or timeline of events. Films don't have to be direct sequels/prequels to fit into my criteria - films in the same setting but chronologically spread out, and therefore with different characters would fit the bill so long as they kept to a continuous timeline of events. Also, I would accept foreign language films and films that are TV movies or straight to DVD films.

2016/10/24

According to [Wikipedia's entry for *Blondie* (the comic strip)](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Blondie_(comic_strip)), of the 28 movies made based on the strip, at least the first 14 were a continuous series meeting your definition: > > Blondie was adapted into a long-running series of 28 low-budget theatrical B-features, produced by Columbia Pictures. *[...]* > > > Columbia was careful to maintain continuity, so each picture progressed from where the last one left off. Thus the Bumstead children grew from toddlers to young adults onscreen. *[...]* > > > In 1943 Columbia felt the series was slipping, and ended the string with It's a Great Life and Footlight Glamour, deliberately omitting "Blondie" from the titles to attract unwary moviegoers. After 14 Blondies, stars Singleton and Lake moved on to other productions. During their absence from the screen, Columbia heard from many exhibitors and fans who wanted the Blondies back. The studio reactivated the series, which ran another 14 films until discontinued permanently in 1950. > > > So this is definitely 14, and most likely all 28; I note that the entry for Larry Sims (the child actor who plays Dagwood & Blondie's son Alexander) is listed as appearing in all 28 films along with the two main stars, Penny Singleton and Arthur Lake.

**New Answer**: It is [The Land Before Time](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/The_Land_Before_Time_(franchise)#Films). There have been 14 movies in the series, but the 13th one is reboot. So, if we don't count it, there are still 12. > > The Land Before Time is a franchise of Universal Studios animated films centered on dinosaurs. The series began in 1988 with The Land Before Time, directed and produced by Don Bluth and executive produced by George Lucas and Steven Spielberg. > > > [Source](https://movies.stackexchange.com/q/6855/27264) **Old Answer** (after pointed out in comment) This can be [Carry On](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Carry_On_(franchise)) (1958-1992). > > The Carry On franchise primarily consists of a sequence of **31 low-budget British comedy motion pictures (1958–92)**, four Christmas specials, a television series of thirteen episodes, and three West End and provincial stage plays. The films' humour was in the British comic tradition of the music hall and bawdy seaside postcards. Producer Peter Rogers and director Gerald Thomas drew on a regular group of actors, the Carry On team, that included Sidney James, Kenneth Williams, Charles Hawtrey, Joan Sims, Kenneth Connor, Peter Butterworth, Hattie Jacques, Terry Scott, Bernard Bresslaw, Barbara Windsor, Jack Douglas and Jim Dale. > > > **NOTE: There may be many other series in other languages, but one can only say confirm if he/she has watched it.**

After watching the thirteen films in the *Marvel Cinematic Universe*, I've been wondering if there is a longer running series of films that maps out a continuous storyline. [I've found this article on Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_film_series_with_more_than_twenty_entries), but I am unsure if any of these film series have reboots, or even if they follow a continuous plotline/timeline. The *James Bond* series of films features a reboot, but even before *Casino Royale* there didn't seem to be much of a continual plotline across the entire series of films (despite the recurring characters, organisations and themes). To explain what I mean by continuous plotline, I am going by the following criteria: * Films set in the same "universe" or setting * A continuous timeline of events depicted by the films (although not necessarily in sequence) * Each film should intentionally reference at least one of the other films that preceded it * Preferably at least one of the characters should be shared across more than one of the films in the series * Reboots or remakes break the continuous plotline, so these cannot be included (but they can be ignored if subsequent films continue the original plotline) The important part here is the continuous timeline of events. If a film can be placed somewhere in the timeline of a series without causing issues (eg. characters being revived without explanation, previously destroyed places suddenly restored without explanation, massive jumps in time for the setting and yet the characters don't age without explanation), then it is part of the continuous timeline. Otherwise that film breaks the timeline and cannot be included. I am more than happy to accept parts of a film series. For example if twenty of the thirty or more *Godzilla* films all follow these criteria, then I would accept those twenty films as a continuous plotline. I can think of several film series that fit these criteria, the *Star Wars* and *Harry Potter* film series are two examples. But I am looking for the longest series of films that fits my criteria of a continuous plotline or timeline of events. Films don't have to be direct sequels/prequels to fit into my criteria - films in the same setting but chronologically spread out, and therefore with different characters would fit the bill so long as they kept to a continuous timeline of events. Also, I would accept foreign language films and films that are TV movies or straight to DVD films.

2016/10/24

Beating the 14 movie streak of the Blondie movies, we now have **23** movies in the Marvel Cinematic Universe: 1. [Iron Man](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#Iron_Man_(2008)) 2. [The Incredible Hulk](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#The_Incredible_Hulk_(2008)) 3. [Iron Man 2](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#Iron_Man_2_(2010)) 4. [Thor](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#Thor_(2011)) 5. [Captain America: The First Avenger](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#Captain_America:_The_First_Avenger_(2011)) 6. [Marvel's The Avengers](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#Marvel's_The_Avengers_(2012)) 7. [Iron Man 3](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#Iron_Man_3_(2013)) 8. [Thor: The Dark World](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#Thor:_The_Dark_World_(2013)) 9. [Captain America: The Winter Soldier](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#Captain_America:_The_Winter_Soldier_(2014)) 10. [Guardians of the Galaxy](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#Guardians_of_the_Galaxy_(2014)) 11. [Avengers: Age of Ultron](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#Avengers:_Age_of_Ultron_(2015)) 12. [Ant-Man](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#Ant-Man_(2015)) 13. [Captain America: Civil War](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#Captain_America:_Civil_War_(2016)) 14. [Doctor Strange](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#Doctor_Strange_(2016)) 15. [Guardians of the Galaxy Vol. 2](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#Guardians_of_the_Galaxy_Vol._2_(2017)) 16. [Spider-Man: Homecoming](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#Spider-Man:_Homecoming_(2017)) 17. [Thor: Ragnarok](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#Thor:_Ragnarok_(2017)) 18. [Black Panther](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#Black_Panther_(2018)) 19. [Avengers: Infinity War](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#Avengers:_Infinity_War_(2018)) 20. [Ant-Man and the Wasp](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#Ant-Man_and_the_Wasp_(2018)) 21. [Captain Marvel](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#Captain_Marvel_(2019)) 22. [Avengers: Endgame](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#Avengers:_Endgame_(2019)) 23. [Spider-Man: Far From Home](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#Spider-Man:_Far_From_Home_(2019)) The next MCU film (as of February 2020) will be [Black Widow](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Marvel_Cinematic_Universe:_Phase_Four#Black_Widow_(2020)) on May 1, 2020 with five additional films listed as part of "[Phase Four](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Marvel_Cinematic_Universe:_Phase_Four)".

**New Answer**: It is [The Land Before Time](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/The_Land_Before_Time_(franchise)#Films). There have been 14 movies in the series, but the 13th one is reboot. So, if we don't count it, there are still 12. > > The Land Before Time is a franchise of Universal Studios animated films centered on dinosaurs. The series began in 1988 with The Land Before Time, directed and produced by Don Bluth and executive produced by George Lucas and Steven Spielberg. > > > [Source](https://movies.stackexchange.com/q/6855/27264) **Old Answer** (after pointed out in comment) This can be [Carry On](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Carry_On_(franchise)) (1958-1992). > > The Carry On franchise primarily consists of a sequence of **31 low-budget British comedy motion pictures (1958–92)**, four Christmas specials, a television series of thirteen episodes, and three West End and provincial stage plays. The films' humour was in the British comic tradition of the music hall and bawdy seaside postcards. Producer Peter Rogers and director Gerald Thomas drew on a regular group of actors, the Carry On team, that included Sidney James, Kenneth Williams, Charles Hawtrey, Joan Sims, Kenneth Connor, Peter Butterworth, Hattie Jacques, Terry Scott, Bernard Bresslaw, Barbara Windsor, Jack Douglas and Jim Dale. > > > **NOTE: There may be many other series in other languages, but one can only say confirm if he/she has watched it.**

After watching the thirteen films in the *Marvel Cinematic Universe*, I've been wondering if there is a longer running series of films that maps out a continuous storyline. [I've found this article on Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_film_series_with_more_than_twenty_entries), but I am unsure if any of these film series have reboots, or even if they follow a continuous plotline/timeline. The *James Bond* series of films features a reboot, but even before *Casino Royale* there didn't seem to be much of a continual plotline across the entire series of films (despite the recurring characters, organisations and themes). To explain what I mean by continuous plotline, I am going by the following criteria: * Films set in the same "universe" or setting * A continuous timeline of events depicted by the films (although not necessarily in sequence) * Each film should intentionally reference at least one of the other films that preceded it * Preferably at least one of the characters should be shared across more than one of the films in the series * Reboots or remakes break the continuous plotline, so these cannot be included (but they can be ignored if subsequent films continue the original plotline) The important part here is the continuous timeline of events. If a film can be placed somewhere in the timeline of a series without causing issues (eg. characters being revived without explanation, previously destroyed places suddenly restored without explanation, massive jumps in time for the setting and yet the characters don't age without explanation), then it is part of the continuous timeline. Otherwise that film breaks the timeline and cannot be included. I am more than happy to accept parts of a film series. For example if twenty of the thirty or more *Godzilla* films all follow these criteria, then I would accept those twenty films as a continuous plotline. I can think of several film series that fit these criteria, the *Star Wars* and *Harry Potter* film series are two examples. But I am looking for the longest series of films that fits my criteria of a continuous plotline or timeline of events. Films don't have to be direct sequels/prequels to fit into my criteria - films in the same setting but chronologically spread out, and therefore with different characters would fit the bill so long as they kept to a continuous timeline of events. Also, I would accept foreign language films and films that are TV movies or straight to DVD films.

2016/10/24

According to [Wikipedia's entry for *Blondie* (the comic strip)](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Blondie_(comic_strip)), of the 28 movies made based on the strip, at least the first 14 were a continuous series meeting your definition: > > Blondie was adapted into a long-running series of 28 low-budget theatrical B-features, produced by Columbia Pictures. *[...]* > > > Columbia was careful to maintain continuity, so each picture progressed from where the last one left off. Thus the Bumstead children grew from toddlers to young adults onscreen. *[...]* > > > In 1943 Columbia felt the series was slipping, and ended the string with It's a Great Life and Footlight Glamour, deliberately omitting "Blondie" from the titles to attract unwary moviegoers. After 14 Blondies, stars Singleton and Lake moved on to other productions. During their absence from the screen, Columbia heard from many exhibitors and fans who wanted the Blondies back. The studio reactivated the series, which ran another 14 films until discontinued permanently in 1950. > > > So this is definitely 14, and most likely all 28; I note that the entry for Larry Sims (the child actor who plays Dagwood & Blondie's son Alexander) is listed as appearing in all 28 films along with the two main stars, Penny Singleton and Arthur Lake.

[The *Up* documentary series](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Up_Series) currently consists of nine films spanning 55 years. The original film, [*Seven Up!*](https://www.imdb.com/title/tt0058578/), was released in 1964 and featured interviews with several 7-year-old British children from a variety of backgrounds. Since then, the original filmmakers have produced [new](https://www.imdb.com/title/tt0066356/) [documentaries](https://www.imdb.com/title/tt0075610/) [revisiting](https://www.imdb.com/title/tt0088650/) [the](https://www.imdb.com/title/tt0101254/) [subjects](https://www.imdb.com/title/tt0164312/) [every](https://www.imdb.com/title/tt0473434/) [seven](https://www.imdb.com/title/tt2147134/) [years](https://www.imdb.com/title/tt8929142/). The most recent film in the series is [*63 Up*](https://www.imdb.com/title/tt8929142/) released in 2019, and there's every reason to believe that the series will continue on schedule.

After watching the thirteen films in the *Marvel Cinematic Universe*, I've been wondering if there is a longer running series of films that maps out a continuous storyline. [I've found this article on Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_film_series_with_more_than_twenty_entries), but I am unsure if any of these film series have reboots, or even if they follow a continuous plotline/timeline. The *James Bond* series of films features a reboot, but even before *Casino Royale* there didn't seem to be much of a continual plotline across the entire series of films (despite the recurring characters, organisations and themes). To explain what I mean by continuous plotline, I am going by the following criteria: * Films set in the same "universe" or setting * A continuous timeline of events depicted by the films (although not necessarily in sequence) * Each film should intentionally reference at least one of the other films that preceded it * Preferably at least one of the characters should be shared across more than one of the films in the series * Reboots or remakes break the continuous plotline, so these cannot be included (but they can be ignored if subsequent films continue the original plotline) The important part here is the continuous timeline of events. If a film can be placed somewhere in the timeline of a series without causing issues (eg. characters being revived without explanation, previously destroyed places suddenly restored without explanation, massive jumps in time for the setting and yet the characters don't age without explanation), then it is part of the continuous timeline. Otherwise that film breaks the timeline and cannot be included. I am more than happy to accept parts of a film series. For example if twenty of the thirty or more *Godzilla* films all follow these criteria, then I would accept those twenty films as a continuous plotline. I can think of several film series that fit these criteria, the *Star Wars* and *Harry Potter* film series are two examples. But I am looking for the longest series of films that fits my criteria of a continuous plotline or timeline of events. Films don't have to be direct sequels/prequels to fit into my criteria - films in the same setting but chronologically spread out, and therefore with different characters would fit the bill so long as they kept to a continuous timeline of events. Also, I would accept foreign language films and films that are TV movies or straight to DVD films.

2016/10/24

Beating the 14 movie streak of the Blondie movies, we now have **23** movies in the Marvel Cinematic Universe: 1. [Iron Man](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#Iron_Man_(2008)) 2. [The Incredible Hulk](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#The_Incredible_Hulk_(2008)) 3. [Iron Man 2](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#Iron_Man_2_(2010)) 4. [Thor](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#Thor_(2011)) 5. [Captain America: The First Avenger](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#Captain_America:_The_First_Avenger_(2011)) 6. [Marvel's The Avengers](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#Marvel's_The_Avengers_(2012)) 7. [Iron Man 3](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#Iron_Man_3_(2013)) 8. [Thor: The Dark World](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#Thor:_The_Dark_World_(2013)) 9. [Captain America: The Winter Soldier](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#Captain_America:_The_Winter_Soldier_(2014)) 10. [Guardians of the Galaxy](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#Guardians_of_the_Galaxy_(2014)) 11. [Avengers: Age of Ultron](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#Avengers:_Age_of_Ultron_(2015)) 12. [Ant-Man](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#Ant-Man_(2015)) 13. [Captain America: Civil War](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#Captain_America:_Civil_War_(2016)) 14. [Doctor Strange](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#Doctor_Strange_(2016)) 15. [Guardians of the Galaxy Vol. 2](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#Guardians_of_the_Galaxy_Vol._2_(2017)) 16. [Spider-Man: Homecoming](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#Spider-Man:_Homecoming_(2017)) 17. [Thor: Ragnarok](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#Thor:_Ragnarok_(2017)) 18. [Black Panther](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#Black_Panther_(2018)) 19. [Avengers: Infinity War](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#Avengers:_Infinity_War_(2018)) 20. [Ant-Man and the Wasp](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#Ant-Man_and_the_Wasp_(2018)) 21. [Captain Marvel](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#Captain_Marvel_(2019)) 22. [Avengers: Endgame](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#Avengers:_Endgame_(2019)) 23. [Spider-Man: Far From Home](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Marvel_Cinematic_Universe_films#Spider-Man:_Far_From_Home_(2019)) The next MCU film (as of February 2020) will be [Black Widow](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Marvel_Cinematic_Universe:_Phase_Four#Black_Widow_(2020)) on May 1, 2020 with five additional films listed as part of "[Phase Four](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Marvel_Cinematic_Universe:_Phase_Four)".

[The *Up* documentary series](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Up_Series) currently consists of nine films spanning 55 years. The original film, [*Seven Up!*](https://www.imdb.com/title/tt0058578/), was released in 1964 and featured interviews with several 7-year-old British children from a variety of backgrounds. Since then, the original filmmakers have produced [new](https://www.imdb.com/title/tt0066356/) [documentaries](https://www.imdb.com/title/tt0075610/) [revisiting](https://www.imdb.com/title/tt0088650/) [the](https://www.imdb.com/title/tt0101254/) [subjects](https://www.imdb.com/title/tt0164312/) [every](https://www.imdb.com/title/tt0473434/) [seven](https://www.imdb.com/title/tt2147134/) [years](https://www.imdb.com/title/tt8929142/). The most recent film in the series is [*63 Up*](https://www.imdb.com/title/tt8929142/) released in 2019, and there's every reason to believe that the series will continue on schedule.

I'm getting aversion when someone do things that I don't like. This happens when a person do and not on natural things like rain. But It is hard to recorgnise it as aversion because that aversion is not towards a person. I just don't like certain actions that affect me (Only the things that affects me in someway). I don't want to hit someone or to hurt someone. So I always try to avoid such situations. But It is not always possible and that avoiding proccess makes suffering, makes doubts. So, How can I stop avoiding things ? How can I practise more acceptance ? How can I face anything without getting aversion?

2020/11/03

Very good question, focused on real and useful problem. Mind generates aversion when things go contrary to what it believes is "right". This belief is called "attachment". For example you believe that only certain weather is good and that it should be that same weather most of the time. So the first technique is to remember this as soon as you feel aversion (basically, as soon as you feel emotionally disturbed): "what is my attachment in this case?". Once you identify the attachment you should think: "this attachment is a cause of suffering and an obstacle to Enlightenment, I shall let it go". And then you should make effort to let go of that attachment. "I shall not be attached to what I think is good weather. I should enjoy all weather as it is." The second technique is to turn problems into blessings by changing your perspective. Here's how. Every time you have some unpleasant experience, tell to yourself: "this is actually a blessing because it gives me chance to practice Dharma and reach Enlightenment." Thinking like this will immediately turn a negative experience into a positive, happy event. Instead of experiencing suffering your mind will be elated. Initially, you may tend to keep forgetting these instructions. If that happens you will react automatically as you always did. That's okay, keep practicing, keep trying to remember. (This is called mindfulness.) Eventually you will reach a point when the problems themselves will serve as automatic reminders. At which point the game is won: what was previously triggering aversion will now trigger recollection of Dharma.

Not sure whether it is a Buddhist perspective, i would like to share few things which may be of some sense to you. Please excuse my immature writing skills. There are two streams of thoughts/ideas/concepts/feelings we are put up with in any life situation. In present case, first stream is the feeling/idea of aversion. Please don't assume i am denouncing that there is nothing called aversion. And the second stream is the idea of avoiding it. If you can look at both of these streams and try to see how we play this never ending game of duality like, "this is how things are !! and this is how things should be", not just intellectually, even with a minute bit of intuitiveness if you can see yourself how the game is played, you are at the shore of great ocean called freedom. Along with the instructions from Andrei try to see what i struggled to convey !!!. All the best in your journey!!!.

I'm getting aversion when someone do things that I don't like. This happens when a person do and not on natural things like rain. But It is hard to recorgnise it as aversion because that aversion is not towards a person. I just don't like certain actions that affect me (Only the things that affects me in someway). I don't want to hit someone or to hurt someone. So I always try to avoid such situations. But It is not always possible and that avoiding proccess makes suffering, makes doubts. So, How can I stop avoiding things ? How can I practise more acceptance ? How can I face anything without getting aversion?

2020/11/03

Very good question, focused on real and useful problem. Mind generates aversion when things go contrary to what it believes is "right". This belief is called "attachment". For example you believe that only certain weather is good and that it should be that same weather most of the time. So the first technique is to remember this as soon as you feel aversion (basically, as soon as you feel emotionally disturbed): "what is my attachment in this case?". Once you identify the attachment you should think: "this attachment is a cause of suffering and an obstacle to Enlightenment, I shall let it go". And then you should make effort to let go of that attachment. "I shall not be attached to what I think is good weather. I should enjoy all weather as it is." The second technique is to turn problems into blessings by changing your perspective. Here's how. Every time you have some unpleasant experience, tell to yourself: "this is actually a blessing because it gives me chance to practice Dharma and reach Enlightenment." Thinking like this will immediately turn a negative experience into a positive, happy event. Instead of experiencing suffering your mind will be elated. Initially, you may tend to keep forgetting these instructions. If that happens you will react automatically as you always did. That's okay, keep practicing, keep trying to remember. (This is called mindfulness.) Eventually you will reach a point when the problems themselves will serve as automatic reminders. At which point the game is won: what was previously triggering aversion will now trigger recollection of Dharma.

You reflect aversion is harmful to yourself & others; it causes stress to yourself & can even lead to physical disease, such as cancer. If you get angry at the other person in the wrong way or place, you can lose your job, etc, or get suspended by politically correct authorities. You also reflect the Buddha taught the foundational element of the world is "ignorance". People do bad things due to ignorance. The Buddha said only a relative few people in the world are free from ignorance or blindness. If the bad action is closely related to your life, family, work, etc, you should learn to calmly talk to the other person about their behavior.

I'm getting aversion when someone do things that I don't like. This happens when a person do and not on natural things like rain. But It is hard to recorgnise it as aversion because that aversion is not towards a person. I just don't like certain actions that affect me (Only the things that affects me in someway). I don't want to hit someone or to hurt someone. So I always try to avoid such situations. But It is not always possible and that avoiding proccess makes suffering, makes doubts. So, How can I stop avoiding things ? How can I practise more acceptance ? How can I face anything without getting aversion?

2020/11/03

Very good question, focused on real and useful problem. Mind generates aversion when things go contrary to what it believes is "right". This belief is called "attachment". For example you believe that only certain weather is good and that it should be that same weather most of the time. So the first technique is to remember this as soon as you feel aversion (basically, as soon as you feel emotionally disturbed): "what is my attachment in this case?". Once you identify the attachment you should think: "this attachment is a cause of suffering and an obstacle to Enlightenment, I shall let it go". And then you should make effort to let go of that attachment. "I shall not be attached to what I think is good weather. I should enjoy all weather as it is." The second technique is to turn problems into blessings by changing your perspective. Here's how. Every time you have some unpleasant experience, tell to yourself: "this is actually a blessing because it gives me chance to practice Dharma and reach Enlightenment." Thinking like this will immediately turn a negative experience into a positive, happy event. Instead of experiencing suffering your mind will be elated. Initially, you may tend to keep forgetting these instructions. If that happens you will react automatically as you always did. That's okay, keep practicing, keep trying to remember. (This is called mindfulness.) Eventually you will reach a point when the problems themselves will serve as automatic reminders. At which point the game is won: what was previously triggering aversion will now trigger recollection of Dharma.

The rain is cold. With too much rain we can die of exposure. Knowing a body is cold, we can shield it or take it to a dry place. The thought "I am cold" or "I am averse to cold" can be replaced with the simple thought, "there is wet. there is cold." Further thoughts can address the situation with "this is bearable" or "this should be remedied to avoid cruelty." Aversion is unskillful in its reactiveness. The escape from aversion is skillful consideration: > > [SN7.2:3.1](https://suttacentral.net/sn7.2/en/sujato#sn7.2:3.1): Someone who, when abused, harassed, and attacked, abuses, harasses, and attacks in return is said to eat the food and have a reaction to it. > > > [SN7.2:3.2](https://suttacentral.net/sn7.2/en/sujato#sn7.2:3.2): But we neither eat your food nor do we have a reaction to it. > > >

I'm getting aversion when someone do things that I don't like. This happens when a person do and not on natural things like rain. But It is hard to recorgnise it as aversion because that aversion is not towards a person. I just don't like certain actions that affect me (Only the things that affects me in someway). I don't want to hit someone or to hurt someone. So I always try to avoid such situations. But It is not always possible and that avoiding proccess makes suffering, makes doubts. So, How can I stop avoiding things ? How can I practise more acceptance ? How can I face anything without getting aversion?

2020/11/03

Very good question, focused on real and useful problem. Mind generates aversion when things go contrary to what it believes is "right". This belief is called "attachment". For example you believe that only certain weather is good and that it should be that same weather most of the time. So the first technique is to remember this as soon as you feel aversion (basically, as soon as you feel emotionally disturbed): "what is my attachment in this case?". Once you identify the attachment you should think: "this attachment is a cause of suffering and an obstacle to Enlightenment, I shall let it go". And then you should make effort to let go of that attachment. "I shall not be attached to what I think is good weather. I should enjoy all weather as it is." The second technique is to turn problems into blessings by changing your perspective. Here's how. Every time you have some unpleasant experience, tell to yourself: "this is actually a blessing because it gives me chance to practice Dharma and reach Enlightenment." Thinking like this will immediately turn a negative experience into a positive, happy event. Instead of experiencing suffering your mind will be elated. Initially, you may tend to keep forgetting these instructions. If that happens you will react automatically as you always did. That's okay, keep practicing, keep trying to remember. (This is called mindfulness.) Eventually you will reach a point when the problems themselves will serve as automatic reminders. At which point the game is won: what was previously triggering aversion will now trigger recollection of Dharma.

"Come, bite your botty" sometimes help quick if telling angy children, or to "force" them looking, or need to look, into a mirror. Try it, when ever aversion arises.

> > * What does her parents do? > * What do her parents do? > > > Which one is correct? Can you have *does* and *do* in the same sentence like the first one? Would it be incorrect because parents is plural so *do* must be used throughout?

2014/12/10

> > What do her parents do? > > > Here the subject of the sentence is *her parents*. Because *her parents* is plural the auxiliary verb *DO* must agree with the plural noun phrase, so we need *do* and not *does*. The auxiliary verb *DO* is the first verb in the sentence. This is the verb that moves in front of the subject. It has no meaning, it just helps to make the sentence a question. The verb after auxiliary *Do* is ***ALWAYS*** an infinitive. It can never be "Xing", "Xs", "Xed" or "to X".: * Does he ~~eats~~? * Did they ~~went~~? * We don't ~~liking~~... * They didn't ~~to come~~. It should be: * Does he eat? * Did they go? * We don't like ... * They didn't come. We can only have one auxiliary verb *DO* in a sentence. However, the second *DO* in the Original Poster's example is the main verb. It's the lexical verb *DO*. It isn't an auxiliary. Because it comes after the auxiliary *DO*, it must be in the infinitive. The verb after *auxiliary* *DO* is ***ALWAYS*** an infinitive. Therefore the sentence must be like this: * What do her parents do? Hope this is helpful!

The correct question is, "What do her parents do?" Since the word 'parents' is plural you would use 'do.' Of course if you had the word 'parent' instead of 'parents'you would use does. "What do her parents do?" "What does her parent do?"

> > * What does her parents do? > * What do her parents do? > > > Which one is correct? Can you have *does* and *do* in the same sentence like the first one? Would it be incorrect because parents is plural so *do* must be used throughout?

2014/12/10

> > What do her parents do? > > > Here the subject of the sentence is *her parents*. Because *her parents* is plural the auxiliary verb *DO* must agree with the plural noun phrase, so we need *do* and not *does*. The auxiliary verb *DO* is the first verb in the sentence. This is the verb that moves in front of the subject. It has no meaning, it just helps to make the sentence a question. The verb after auxiliary *Do* is ***ALWAYS*** an infinitive. It can never be "Xing", "Xs", "Xed" or "to X".: * Does he ~~eats~~? * Did they ~~went~~? * We don't ~~liking~~... * They didn't ~~to come~~. It should be: * Does he eat? * Did they go? * We don't like ... * They didn't come. We can only have one auxiliary verb *DO* in a sentence. However, the second *DO* in the Original Poster's example is the main verb. It's the lexical verb *DO*. It isn't an auxiliary. Because it comes after the auxiliary *DO*, it must be in the infinitive. The verb after *auxiliary* *DO* is ***ALWAYS*** an infinitive. Therefore the sentence must be like this: * What do her parents do? Hope this is helpful!

I saw you're struggling between "parent" and parents. Let's start from your question. First, we need to see the subject here which is "parents", mean both of our mother and father, which means that this is a plural subject. For plural subject, you must use the root word. So,.... What does her parents do? (Wrong) What do her parents do? (Right) I saw that you ask Ste about the word "parent". The word "parent" here means one of the parent(father or mother), which is a singular subject. For singular subject, we must add -s, -es, -ies and more. So,..... What do her parent do? (Wrong) What does her parent do? (Right) In conclusion, we must pay attention on the subject to see which is suitable for the sentence.

> > * What does her parents do? > * What do her parents do? > > > Which one is correct? Can you have *does* and *do* in the same sentence like the first one? Would it be incorrect because parents is plural so *do* must be used throughout?

2014/12/10

Araucaria answered the part about which is correct. Yes, it's "do", because the subject is "her parents", which is plural, and so requires a plural verb. As to whether you can use the word "do" twice in a sentence: Sure you can. Maybe you're thinking of the common advice to avoid using the same word twice in a sentence, but this is a matter of style and not an absolute rule. I wouldn't write, "I bought a car from the car salesman at Friendly Car Lot" because the repeated use of the word "car" sounds awkward. But short, common words like "the" and "do" are used repeatedly all the time and no one really notices. Note the two "do"s are serving different functions in the sentence. The first is part of the conventional way of phrasing a question about an action: "What do ..." The second is the specific action being asked about. Many other verbs would fit in its place. "What do her parents read?" "What do her parents eat?" etc.

The correct question is, "What do her parents do?" Since the word 'parents' is plural you would use 'do.' Of course if you had the word 'parent' instead of 'parents'you would use does. "What do her parents do?" "What does her parent do?"

> > * What does her parents do? > * What do her parents do? > > > Which one is correct? Can you have *does* and *do* in the same sentence like the first one? Would it be incorrect because parents is plural so *do* must be used throughout?

2014/12/10

To answer your specific question, *Can you have **does** and **do** in the same sentence like the first one?*, Yes, you can. You can have *do* twice, but not *does* twice. This is not a very helpful rule, however. The role that each word plays is very different in each case. The first use of *do*/*does* is just a way to construct a question in English. It has nothing to do with the second use, which is what the question is really about. Try with a different verb in the question: *What **do**/**does** her parents **cook**?* Clearly, the word *cook* is irrelevant to whether we should use *do* or *does*. In reply to your hypothetical question, you could preserve the *do* to give a more assertive tone. *Her parents **do** cook.* *Her parents **do** do.* Or in singular form: *Her father **does** cook.* *Her father **does** do.* So there's nothing wrong with a sentence with multiple uses of *do*.

The correct question is, "What do her parents do?" Since the word 'parents' is plural you would use 'do.' Of course if you had the word 'parent' instead of 'parents'you would use does. "What do her parents do?" "What does her parent do?"

> > * What does her parents do? > * What do her parents do? > > > Which one is correct? Can you have *does* and *do* in the same sentence like the first one? Would it be incorrect because parents is plural so *do* must be used throughout?

2014/12/10

Araucaria answered the part about which is correct. Yes, it's "do", because the subject is "her parents", which is plural, and so requires a plural verb. As to whether you can use the word "do" twice in a sentence: Sure you can. Maybe you're thinking of the common advice to avoid using the same word twice in a sentence, but this is a matter of style and not an absolute rule. I wouldn't write, "I bought a car from the car salesman at Friendly Car Lot" because the repeated use of the word "car" sounds awkward. But short, common words like "the" and "do" are used repeatedly all the time and no one really notices. Note the two "do"s are serving different functions in the sentence. The first is part of the conventional way of phrasing a question about an action: "What do ..." The second is the specific action being asked about. Many other verbs would fit in its place. "What do her parents read?" "What do her parents eat?" etc.

I saw you're struggling between "parent" and parents. Let's start from your question. First, we need to see the subject here which is "parents", mean both of our mother and father, which means that this is a plural subject. For plural subject, you must use the root word. So,.... What does her parents do? (Wrong) What do her parents do? (Right) I saw that you ask Ste about the word "parent". The word "parent" here means one of the parent(father or mother), which is a singular subject. For singular subject, we must add -s, -es, -ies and more. So,..... What do her parent do? (Wrong) What does her parent do? (Right) In conclusion, we must pay attention on the subject to see which is suitable for the sentence.

> > * What does her parents do? > * What do her parents do? > > > Which one is correct? Can you have *does* and *do* in the same sentence like the first one? Would it be incorrect because parents is plural so *do* must be used throughout?

2014/12/10

To answer your specific question, *Can you have **does** and **do** in the same sentence like the first one?*, Yes, you can. You can have *do* twice, but not *does* twice. This is not a very helpful rule, however. The role that each word plays is very different in each case. The first use of *do*/*does* is just a way to construct a question in English. It has nothing to do with the second use, which is what the question is really about. Try with a different verb in the question: *What **do**/**does** her parents **cook**?* Clearly, the word *cook* is irrelevant to whether we should use *do* or *does*. In reply to your hypothetical question, you could preserve the *do* to give a more assertive tone. *Her parents **do** cook.* *Her parents **do** do.* Or in singular form: *Her father **does** cook.* *Her father **does** do.* So there's nothing wrong with a sentence with multiple uses of *do*.

I saw you're struggling between "parent" and parents. Let's start from your question. First, we need to see the subject here which is "parents", mean both of our mother and father, which means that this is a plural subject. For plural subject, you must use the root word. So,.... What does her parents do? (Wrong) What do her parents do? (Right) I saw that you ask Ste about the word "parent". The word "parent" here means one of the parent(father or mother), which is a singular subject. For singular subject, we must add -s, -es, -ies and more. So,..... What do her parent do? (Wrong) What does her parent do? (Right) In conclusion, we must pay attention on the subject to see which is suitable for the sentence.

> > * What does her parents do? > * What do her parents do? > > > Which one is correct? Can you have *does* and *do* in the same sentence like the first one? Would it be incorrect because parents is plural so *do* must be used throughout?

2014/12/10

It's "do". Think about the answer to the questions. "Her parents *does*" is incorrect, whereas > > Her parents do a mean chicken casserole. > > > Is natural sounding and correct.

The correct question is, "What do her parents do?" Since the word 'parents' is plural you would use 'do.' Of course if you had the word 'parent' instead of 'parents'you would use does. "What do her parents do?" "What does her parent do?"

> > * What does her parents do? > * What do her parents do? > > > Which one is correct? Can you have *does* and *do* in the same sentence like the first one? Would it be incorrect because parents is plural so *do* must be used throughout?

2014/12/10

To answer your specific question, *Can you have **does** and **do** in the same sentence like the first one?*, Yes, you can. You can have *do* twice, but not *does* twice. This is not a very helpful rule, however. The role that each word plays is very different in each case. The first use of *do*/*does* is just a way to construct a question in English. It has nothing to do with the second use, which is what the question is really about. Try with a different verb in the question: *What **do**/**does** her parents **cook**?* Clearly, the word *cook* is irrelevant to whether we should use *do* or *does*. In reply to your hypothetical question, you could preserve the *do* to give a more assertive tone. *Her parents **do** cook.* *Her parents **do** do.* Or in singular form: *Her father **does** cook.* *Her father **does** do.* So there's nothing wrong with a sentence with multiple uses of *do*.

Araucaria answered the part about which is correct. Yes, it's "do", because the subject is "her parents", which is plural, and so requires a plural verb. As to whether you can use the word "do" twice in a sentence: Sure you can. Maybe you're thinking of the common advice to avoid using the same word twice in a sentence, but this is a matter of style and not an absolute rule. I wouldn't write, "I bought a car from the car salesman at Friendly Car Lot" because the repeated use of the word "car" sounds awkward. But short, common words like "the" and "do" are used repeatedly all the time and no one really notices. Note the two "do"s are serving different functions in the sentence. The first is part of the conventional way of phrasing a question about an action: "What do ..." The second is the specific action being asked about. Many other verbs would fit in its place. "What do her parents read?" "What do her parents eat?" etc.

> > * What does her parents do? > * What do her parents do? > > > Which one is correct? Can you have *does* and *do* in the same sentence like the first one? Would it be incorrect because parents is plural so *do* must be used throughout?

2014/12/10

It's "do". Think about the answer to the questions. "Her parents *does*" is incorrect, whereas > > Her parents do a mean chicken casserole. > > > Is natural sounding and correct.

I saw you're struggling between "parent" and parents. Let's start from your question. First, we need to see the subject here which is "parents", mean both of our mother and father, which means that this is a plural subject. For plural subject, you must use the root word. So,.... What does her parents do? (Wrong) What do her parents do? (Right) I saw that you ask Ste about the word "parent". The word "parent" here means one of the parent(father or mother), which is a singular subject. For singular subject, we must add -s, -es, -ies and more. So,..... What do her parent do? (Wrong) What does her parent do? (Right) In conclusion, we must pay attention on the subject to see which is suitable for the sentence.

> > * What does her parents do? > * What do her parents do? > > > Which one is correct? Can you have *does* and *do* in the same sentence like the first one? Would it be incorrect because parents is plural so *do* must be used throughout?

2014/12/10

> > What do her parents do? > > > Here the subject of the sentence is *her parents*. Because *her parents* is plural the auxiliary verb *DO* must agree with the plural noun phrase, so we need *do* and not *does*. The auxiliary verb *DO* is the first verb in the sentence. This is the verb that moves in front of the subject. It has no meaning, it just helps to make the sentence a question. The verb after auxiliary *Do* is ***ALWAYS*** an infinitive. It can never be "Xing", "Xs", "Xed" or "to X".: * Does he ~~eats~~? * Did they ~~went~~? * We don't ~~liking~~... * They didn't ~~to come~~. It should be: * Does he eat? * Did they go? * We don't like ... * They didn't come. We can only have one auxiliary verb *DO* in a sentence. However, the second *DO* in the Original Poster's example is the main verb. It's the lexical verb *DO*. It isn't an auxiliary. Because it comes after the auxiliary *DO*, it must be in the infinitive. The verb after *auxiliary* *DO* is ***ALWAYS*** an infinitive. Therefore the sentence must be like this: * What do her parents do? Hope this is helpful!

It's "do". Think about the answer to the questions. "Her parents *does*" is incorrect, whereas > > Her parents do a mean chicken casserole. > > > Is natural sounding and correct.

I have a question about camera calibration. I've followed approach shown in a book Learning OpenCV for camera calibration process. But the calibrated(undistorted) image is worse than the original one. Is it possible that my camera don't need calibration anymore?(means that the calibration is done by some driver or something like that)? In fact it seems that the original image is not distorted at all. I know that it's not only about distortion, but what would you recommend me to do? Thanks for every reply

2010/07/07

The calibration cannot be done by the driver. If you're planning 3D reconstruction, then you cannot do without a calibration matrix.

Several things to check: 1. Have you verified the corner finder is working correctly (draw them on the calibration images and see if there are any outliers)? 2. Taken good calibration images? Visual inspection for blur, drastic perspective changes, etc. 3. Have good coverage of the image area with your calibration images? The calibration is done using a nonlinear optimizer which depends heavily on inputs. I usually will take one that has target taking up entire image, four with target taking up each quadrant, then another four with target taking up ~1/9 the area in each of the four corners. Note: bias to corners is often useful since lens distortion is usually bad at the corners and minimal in the middle. Also, have you checked the other solved intrinsics such as focal length and thought about whether it makes sense? You can compare it to what the lens says. You can also estimate it manually by estimating FOV with placing known objects at the edge of FOV and looking at their configuration relative to the camera.

> > HTTP/1.1 has served the Web well for more than fifteen years, but its > age is starting to show. > > > Can anybody explain what is the **main difference** between HTTP 1.1 and 2.0? Is there any change in the transport protocol?

2015/02/18

HTTP/2 supports queries multiplexing, headers compression, priority and more intelligent packet streaming management. This results in reduced latency and accelerates content download on modern web pages. [More details here.](https://daniel.haxx.se/http2/)

HTTP 2.0 is a **binary** protocol that multiplexes numerous streams going over a single (normally TLS-encrypted) TCP connection. The contents of each stream are HTTP 1.1 requests and responses, just encoded and packed up differently. HTTP2 adds a number of features to manage the streams, but leaves old semantics untouched.

I have often heard developers mention that Java can't "*do [Real Time](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Real-time_computing)*", meaning a Java app running on Linux cannot meet the requirements of a deterministic real-time system, such as something running on RIOT-OS, etc. I am trying to understand *why*. My [SWAG](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Scientific_Wild-Ass_Guess) tells me that this is probably largely due to Java's Garbage Collector, which can run at any time and totally pause the system. And although there are so-called "pauseless GCs" out there, I don't necessarily believe their advertising, and also don't have $80K-per-JVM-instance to fork over for a hobby project! I was also reading [this article about running drone software on Linux](http://owenson.me/build-your-own-quadcopter-autopilot/). In that article, the author describes a scenario where Linux almost caused his drone to crash into his car: > > I learnt a hard lesson after choosing to do the low level control loop (PIDs) on the Pi - trying to be clever I decided to put a log write in the middle of the loop for debugging - the quad initially flied fine but then Linux decided to take 2seconds to write one log entry and the quad almost crashed into my car! > > > Now although that author wrote his drone software in C++, I would imagine a Java app running on Linux could very well suffer the same fate. According to Wikipedia: > > A system is said to be real-time if the total correctness of an operation depends not only upon its logical correctness, but also upon the time in which it is performed. > > > So to me, this means "*You don't have real-time if total correctness requires logical correctness and timeliness.*" Let's pretend I've written a Java app to be super performant, and that I've "squeezed the lemon" so to speak, and it couldn't reasonably be written (in Java) to be any faster. All in all, my question is: I'm looking for someone to explain to me all/most of the reasons for why a Java app running n Linux would fail to be a "real time app". **Meaning, what are all the categories of things on a Java/Linux stack that prevent it from "being timely", and therefore, from being "*totally correct*"?** As mentioned, it looks like GC and Linux log-flushing can pause execution, but I'm sure there are more things outside the Java app itself that would cause bad timing/performance, and cause it to meet hard deadline constraints. **What are they?**

2016/01/30

A software is real time not when it is as fast as possible, but when it is guaranteed that a process completes within some determined time slot. In a soft real time system, it is good but not absolutely necessary that this is guaranteed. E.g. in a game, the calculations necessary for a frame should complete within the period of a frame, or the framerate will drop. This degrades the quality of the gameplay, but does not make it incorrect. E.g. Minecraft is enjoyable even though the game occasionally stutters. In a hard real time system, we don't have such liberties. A flight control software must react within some deadline, or the vehicle could crash. And the hardware, OS, and software must work together to support real time. For example, the OS has a scheduler to decide when which thread is run. For a real-time program, the scheduler has to guarantee big enough, frequent enough time slots. Any other process that wants to execute in such a slot must be interrupted in favour of the real-time process. This requires a scheduler with explicit real-time support. Also, a user-space program will do system calls into the kernel. In a real-time OS, these too must be real-time. E.g. writing to a file handle would have to be guaranteed to take no more that *x* time units, which would solve the log problem. This impacts how such a system call can be implemented, e.g. how buffers can be used. It also means that a call must fail if it can't complete within the required time, and that the user-space program must be prepared to deal with these cases. In the case of Java, the JVM and the standard library are also kernel-like and would need explicit real-time support. For anything that is real-time, your programming style will change. If you don't have endless time, you have to restrict yourself to small problems. All your loops must be bounded by some constant. All memory can be allocated statically, since you have an upper bound on size. Unrestricted recursion is forbidden. This goes against a lot of best practices, but they don't apply for real-time systems. E.g. a logging system might use a statically allocated ring buffer to store log messages when they are written. Once the start is reached, old logs would be discarded, or this condition might be an error.

From [wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Real-time_operating_system): > > A key characteristic of an RTOS is the level of its consistency concerning the amount of time it takes to accept and complete an application's task; the variability is jitter. > > > The important thing is that jitter is quantified for the system to be considered *real time*. The article goes on to say that if the jitter is *usually* bounded, the system is *soft real-time*. If the jitter is *always* bounded, the system is *hard real-time*. Unless the versions of Java and Linux you use are quantified in terms of jitter, they're *not* real-time. Garbage collection and log-writing are certainly sources of jitter, but even autonomous processing of (e.g.) network packets counts if it introduces jitter into *your* processes.

I have often heard developers mention that Java can't "*do [Real Time](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Real-time_computing)*", meaning a Java app running on Linux cannot meet the requirements of a deterministic real-time system, such as something running on RIOT-OS, etc. I am trying to understand *why*. My [SWAG](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Scientific_Wild-Ass_Guess) tells me that this is probably largely due to Java's Garbage Collector, which can run at any time and totally pause the system. And although there are so-called "pauseless GCs" out there, I don't necessarily believe their advertising, and also don't have $80K-per-JVM-instance to fork over for a hobby project! I was also reading [this article about running drone software on Linux](http://owenson.me/build-your-own-quadcopter-autopilot/). In that article, the author describes a scenario where Linux almost caused his drone to crash into his car: > > I learnt a hard lesson after choosing to do the low level control loop (PIDs) on the Pi - trying to be clever I decided to put a log write in the middle of the loop for debugging - the quad initially flied fine but then Linux decided to take 2seconds to write one log entry and the quad almost crashed into my car! > > > Now although that author wrote his drone software in C++, I would imagine a Java app running on Linux could very well suffer the same fate. According to Wikipedia: > > A system is said to be real-time if the total correctness of an operation depends not only upon its logical correctness, but also upon the time in which it is performed. > > > So to me, this means "*You don't have real-time if total correctness requires logical correctness and timeliness.*" Let's pretend I've written a Java app to be super performant, and that I've "squeezed the lemon" so to speak, and it couldn't reasonably be written (in Java) to be any faster. All in all, my question is: I'm looking for someone to explain to me all/most of the reasons for why a Java app running n Linux would fail to be a "real time app". **Meaning, what are all the categories of things on a Java/Linux stack that prevent it from "being timely", and therefore, from being "*totally correct*"?** As mentioned, it looks like GC and Linux log-flushing can pause execution, but I'm sure there are more things outside the Java app itself that would cause bad timing/performance, and cause it to meet hard deadline constraints. **What are they?**

2016/01/30

From [wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Real-time_operating_system): > > A key characteristic of an RTOS is the level of its consistency concerning the amount of time it takes to accept and complete an application's task; the variability is jitter. > > > The important thing is that jitter is quantified for the system to be considered *real time*. The article goes on to say that if the jitter is *usually* bounded, the system is *soft real-time*. If the jitter is *always* bounded, the system is *hard real-time*. Unless the versions of Java and Linux you use are quantified in terms of jitter, they're *not* real-time. Garbage collection and log-writing are certainly sources of jitter, but even autonomous processing of (e.g.) network packets counts if it introduces jitter into *your* processes.

For starter, the vanilla Linux itself can't do real time. That's why [RTLinux](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/RTLinux) was developed. Lets say you run a few java processes on RTLinux, they would still be considered real time as all those processes are scheduled by the kernel, i.e. if one process is late, other processes still can have their slice of cpu time, guaranteed. Now, if the java processes run [Green threads](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Green_threads), then the execution of these threads won't be real time anymore since the JVM doesn't do real time scheduling.

I have often heard developers mention that Java can't "*do [Real Time](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Real-time_computing)*", meaning a Java app running on Linux cannot meet the requirements of a deterministic real-time system, such as something running on RIOT-OS, etc. I am trying to understand *why*. My [SWAG](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Scientific_Wild-Ass_Guess) tells me that this is probably largely due to Java's Garbage Collector, which can run at any time and totally pause the system. And although there are so-called "pauseless GCs" out there, I don't necessarily believe their advertising, and also don't have $80K-per-JVM-instance to fork over for a hobby project! I was also reading [this article about running drone software on Linux](http://owenson.me/build-your-own-quadcopter-autopilot/). In that article, the author describes a scenario where Linux almost caused his drone to crash into his car: > > I learnt a hard lesson after choosing to do the low level control loop (PIDs) on the Pi - trying to be clever I decided to put a log write in the middle of the loop for debugging - the quad initially flied fine but then Linux decided to take 2seconds to write one log entry and the quad almost crashed into my car! > > > Now although that author wrote his drone software in C++, I would imagine a Java app running on Linux could very well suffer the same fate. According to Wikipedia: > > A system is said to be real-time if the total correctness of an operation depends not only upon its logical correctness, but also upon the time in which it is performed. > > > So to me, this means "*You don't have real-time if total correctness requires logical correctness and timeliness.*" Let's pretend I've written a Java app to be super performant, and that I've "squeezed the lemon" so to speak, and it couldn't reasonably be written (in Java) to be any faster. All in all, my question is: I'm looking for someone to explain to me all/most of the reasons for why a Java app running n Linux would fail to be a "real time app". **Meaning, what are all the categories of things on a Java/Linux stack that prevent it from "being timely", and therefore, from being "*totally correct*"?** As mentioned, it looks like GC and Linux log-flushing can pause execution, but I'm sure there are more things outside the Java app itself that would cause bad timing/performance, and cause it to meet hard deadline constraints. **What are they?**

2016/01/30

A software is real time not when it is as fast as possible, but when it is guaranteed that a process completes within some determined time slot. In a soft real time system, it is good but not absolutely necessary that this is guaranteed. E.g. in a game, the calculations necessary for a frame should complete within the period of a frame, or the framerate will drop. This degrades the quality of the gameplay, but does not make it incorrect. E.g. Minecraft is enjoyable even though the game occasionally stutters. In a hard real time system, we don't have such liberties. A flight control software must react within some deadline, or the vehicle could crash. And the hardware, OS, and software must work together to support real time. For example, the OS has a scheduler to decide when which thread is run. For a real-time program, the scheduler has to guarantee big enough, frequent enough time slots. Any other process that wants to execute in such a slot must be interrupted in favour of the real-time process. This requires a scheduler with explicit real-time support. Also, a user-space program will do system calls into the kernel. In a real-time OS, these too must be real-time. E.g. writing to a file handle would have to be guaranteed to take no more that *x* time units, which would solve the log problem. This impacts how such a system call can be implemented, e.g. how buffers can be used. It also means that a call must fail if it can't complete within the required time, and that the user-space program must be prepared to deal with these cases. In the case of Java, the JVM and the standard library are also kernel-like and would need explicit real-time support. For anything that is real-time, your programming style will change. If you don't have endless time, you have to restrict yourself to small problems. All your loops must be bounded by some constant. All memory can be allocated statically, since you have an upper bound on size. Unrestricted recursion is forbidden. This goes against a lot of best practices, but they don't apply for real-time systems. E.g. a logging system might use a statically allocated ring buffer to store log messages when they are written. Once the start is reached, old logs would be discarded, or this condition might be an error.

For starter, the vanilla Linux itself can't do real time. That's why [RTLinux](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/RTLinux) was developed. Lets say you run a few java processes on RTLinux, they would still be considered real time as all those processes are scheduled by the kernel, i.e. if one process is late, other processes still can have their slice of cpu time, guaranteed. Now, if the java processes run [Green threads](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Green_threads), then the execution of these threads won't be real time anymore since the JVM doesn't do real time scheduling.

Helo Guys, I want to know your experience about carbon material and grease Can I use normal grease with carbon ? I want to put grease onto fork and stem.... Or WD-40 or silicone penetrant would be ok ? Thank you.... Can I use this one ? 

2012/01/11

From [Sheldon Brown](http://sheldonbrown.com/gloss_g.html): > > Grease lubrication is commonly used on all ball bearings. Good mechanics also use grease (or oil) on the threads of most threaded fittings and fasteners, and also inside the steerer (to keep the stem from becoming stuck) and the seat tube (to keep the seatpost from becoming stuck.) > > > There are a great many different greases on the market with different special features, mainly for automotive applications. For bicycle use, almost any grease is adequate, since the loads and temperatures are generally low. > > > Seems to me like the answer is *yes*, although to be safe why don't you invest in some [Finish Line Teflon Grease](http://www.finishlineusa.com/products/fortified-grease.htm) - one tube will last you for years. From the Finish Line [website](http://www.finishlineusa.com/frequentquestions/index.htm): > > **Q. Are Finish Line products safe for use on Carbon Fiber Frames and Parts?** > > > **A. Yes.** All of our products are safe to use on carbon fiber bike parts; our three degreasers, four lubes, our polish, grease, etc are all safe to use on and around carbon fiber bike parts. The exception is our DOT Brake Fluid – you don’t want to get DOT fluid on any painted or finished surface because it’ll attack the paint / finish. > > >

Most automotive use grease is too thick for bicycle applications. It will lubricate, but it will add friction to the movement of the bike. Aside from the "weight" of the grease, you only need to worry about purity. Phil Wood, of Phil Wood Components, used to say that his most important criteria for his bicycle grease was too make sure it matched the color of his original green sample. If it varied, even a little, he was besieged by inquiries about what he'd changed in his "formula".

Helo Guys, I want to know your experience about carbon material and grease Can I use normal grease with carbon ? I want to put grease onto fork and stem.... Or WD-40 or silicone penetrant would be ok ? Thank you.... Can I use this one ? 

2012/01/11

From [Sheldon Brown](http://sheldonbrown.com/gloss_g.html): > > Grease lubrication is commonly used on all ball bearings. Good mechanics also use grease (or oil) on the threads of most threaded fittings and fasteners, and also inside the steerer (to keep the stem from becoming stuck) and the seat tube (to keep the seatpost from becoming stuck.) > > > There are a great many different greases on the market with different special features, mainly for automotive applications. For bicycle use, almost any grease is adequate, since the loads and temperatures are generally low. > > > Seems to me like the answer is *yes*, although to be safe why don't you invest in some [Finish Line Teflon Grease](http://www.finishlineusa.com/products/fortified-grease.htm) - one tube will last you for years. From the Finish Line [website](http://www.finishlineusa.com/frequentquestions/index.htm): > > **Q. Are Finish Line products safe for use on Carbon Fiber Frames and Parts?** > > > **A. Yes.** All of our products are safe to use on carbon fiber bike parts; our three degreasers, four lubes, our polish, grease, etc are all safe to use on and around carbon fiber bike parts. The exception is our DOT Brake Fluid – you don’t want to get DOT fluid on any painted or finished surface because it’ll attack the paint / finish. > > >

i would be careful of any type of grease i use on a bike.. Grease attracts the dirt and can lead to further issues on the mechanics of your bike. like stated before - use an oil specially formulated for your bike. and make sure after every cycle to clean your bike down and re-oil.

Helo Guys, I want to know your experience about carbon material and grease Can I use normal grease with carbon ? I want to put grease onto fork and stem.... Or WD-40 or silicone penetrant would be ok ? Thank you.... Can I use this one ? 

2012/01/11

Most automotive use grease is too thick for bicycle applications. It will lubricate, but it will add friction to the movement of the bike. Aside from the "weight" of the grease, you only need to worry about purity. Phil Wood, of Phil Wood Components, used to say that his most important criteria for his bicycle grease was too make sure it matched the color of his original green sample. If it varied, even a little, he was besieged by inquiries about what he'd changed in his "formula".

i would be careful of any type of grease i use on a bike.. Grease attracts the dirt and can lead to further issues on the mechanics of your bike. like stated before - use an oil specially formulated for your bike. and make sure after every cycle to clean your bike down and re-oil.

I need to implement an audit trail for Add/Edit/Delete on my objects,I'm using an ORM (XPO) for defining my objects etc. I implemented an audit trail object that is triggered on 1. OnSaving 2. OnDeleting Of the base object, and I store the changes in Audit-AuditTrail (Mast-Det) table, for field changes. etc. using some method services called. How do you implement audit trail in you OOP code? Please share your insights? Any patterns etc? Best practices etc? Another thing is that how to disable audit when running unit test,since I don't need to audit them but since base object has the code. Changes to object (edit/add/del) and what field changes need to be audited

2008/09/29

Database triggers are the preferred way to go here, if you can. However, recently I had to do this in client-side code and I ended up writing a class that created a deep (value) copy of the object when it was opened for editing, compared the two objects at save time (using ToString() only) and wrote any changes to an audit table. Edit: I had an [Audit] attribute on each property I wanted to consider auditable and used reflection to find them, making the method non-specific to the objects being audited.

I know this doesn't answer your question, but for the record, I prefer to handle this type of auditing logic in the database.

I need to implement an audit trail for Add/Edit/Delete on my objects,I'm using an ORM (XPO) for defining my objects etc. I implemented an audit trail object that is triggered on 1. OnSaving 2. OnDeleting Of the base object, and I store the changes in Audit-AuditTrail (Mast-Det) table, for field changes. etc. using some method services called. How do you implement audit trail in you OOP code? Please share your insights? Any patterns etc? Best practices etc? Another thing is that how to disable audit when running unit test,since I don't need to audit them but since base object has the code. Changes to object (edit/add/del) and what field changes need to be audited

2008/09/29

Database triggers are the preferred way to go here, if you can. However, recently I had to do this in client-side code and I ended up writing a class that created a deep (value) copy of the object when it was opened for editing, compared the two objects at save time (using ToString() only) and wrote any changes to an audit table. Edit: I had an [Audit] attribute on each property I wanted to consider auditable and used reflection to find them, making the method non-specific to the objects being audited.

We have a table that all audit trail entries are stored in. A database trigger is on every table (it's put there by a stored procedure, but that's not relevant to this answer). When a value is changed, the old value is stored in the audit trail. Ours is a little complex in that we also have a look-up table that contains a list of every table we have, and another table that contains every field for each table. This allows us to look up an entry in audit trail, based on what table it's in by ID of that table in the first column. Then we also know exactly what field we are looking for based on the 2nd table's ID. This keeps us from having to store strings for the table name and the field name. To display it, our grids have an "audit trail" button next to the delete button. This opens a popup-grid with the history of that record. We use kendo grids, but none of this implementation is necessary for that. The popup is a bootstrap popup.

I need to implement an audit trail for Add/Edit/Delete on my objects,I'm using an ORM (XPO) for defining my objects etc. I implemented an audit trail object that is triggered on 1. OnSaving 2. OnDeleting Of the base object, and I store the changes in Audit-AuditTrail (Mast-Det) table, for field changes. etc. using some method services called. How do you implement audit trail in you OOP code? Please share your insights? Any patterns etc? Best practices etc? Another thing is that how to disable audit when running unit test,since I don't need to audit them but since base object has the code. Changes to object (edit/add/del) and what field changes need to be audited

2008/09/29

Database triggers are the preferred way to go here, if you can. However, recently I had to do this in client-side code and I ended up writing a class that created a deep (value) copy of the object when it was opened for editing, compared the two objects at save time (using ToString() only) and wrote any changes to an audit table. Edit: I had an [Audit] attribute on each property I wanted to consider auditable and used reflection to find them, making the method non-specific to the objects being audited.

I come more from the SW side that the DB side, if you create a set of DAOs (Data access objects) that you use for your interaction with the database. I would then insert the audit functionality into the respective functions in the DAOs that need to be trailed. The database trigger solution is also feasible, it depends where you like to put your functionality, in the DB or in the code There are a lot of ORM (Object relational Mapping) tools out there that create the DAO layer for you.

I need to implement an audit trail for Add/Edit/Delete on my objects,I'm using an ORM (XPO) for defining my objects etc. I implemented an audit trail object that is triggered on 1. OnSaving 2. OnDeleting Of the base object, and I store the changes in Audit-AuditTrail (Mast-Det) table, for field changes. etc. using some method services called. How do you implement audit trail in you OOP code? Please share your insights? Any patterns etc? Best practices etc? Another thing is that how to disable audit when running unit test,since I don't need to audit them but since base object has the code. Changes to object (edit/add/del) and what field changes need to be audited

2008/09/29

I don't know if it will fit seamlessly with your ORM, but i used [Point-in-Time](http://www.simple-talk.com/sql/database-administration/database-design-a-point-in-time-architecture/) database design for an ERP application and really recommend it. You automatically get History and Audit from this architecture, as well as other benefits.

We've implemented a similar solution, using AOP (aspectJ implementation). Using this particular points can be captured and specific operations can be performed. This can be plugged in and plugged off when we like. If you really want to do it in the app layer, i would suggest this. Hope it helps..

I need to implement an audit trail for Add/Edit/Delete on my objects,I'm using an ORM (XPO) for defining my objects etc. I implemented an audit trail object that is triggered on 1. OnSaving 2. OnDeleting Of the base object, and I store the changes in Audit-AuditTrail (Mast-Det) table, for field changes. etc. using some method services called. How do you implement audit trail in you OOP code? Please share your insights? Any patterns etc? Best practices etc? Another thing is that how to disable audit when running unit test,since I don't need to audit them but since base object has the code. Changes to object (edit/add/del) and what field changes need to be audited

2008/09/29

I've done this in Hibernate (another ORM) using an Interceptor for the Session. That way the audit code is seperate from your code.

We have a table that all audit trail entries are stored in. A database trigger is on every table (it's put there by a stored procedure, but that's not relevant to this answer). When a value is changed, the old value is stored in the audit trail. Ours is a little complex in that we also have a look-up table that contains a list of every table we have, and another table that contains every field for each table. This allows us to look up an entry in audit trail, based on what table it's in by ID of that table in the first column. Then we also know exactly what field we are looking for based on the 2nd table's ID. This keeps us from having to store strings for the table name and the field name. To display it, our grids have an "audit trail" button next to the delete button. This opens a popup-grid with the history of that record. We use kendo grids, but none of this implementation is necessary for that. The popup is a bootstrap popup.

I need to implement an audit trail for Add/Edit/Delete on my objects,I'm using an ORM (XPO) for defining my objects etc. I implemented an audit trail object that is triggered on 1. OnSaving 2. OnDeleting Of the base object, and I store the changes in Audit-AuditTrail (Mast-Det) table, for field changes. etc. using some method services called. How do you implement audit trail in you OOP code? Please share your insights? Any patterns etc? Best practices etc? Another thing is that how to disable audit when running unit test,since I don't need to audit them but since base object has the code. Changes to object (edit/add/del) and what field changes need to be audited

2008/09/29

Database triggers are the preferred way to go here, if you can. However, recently I had to do this in client-side code and I ended up writing a class that created a deep (value) copy of the object when it was opened for editing, compared the two objects at save time (using ToString() only) and wrote any changes to an audit table. Edit: I had an [Audit] attribute on each property I wanted to consider auditable and used reflection to find them, making the method non-specific to the objects being audited.

We've implemented a similar solution, using AOP (aspectJ implementation). Using this particular points can be captured and specific operations can be performed. This can be plugged in and plugged off when we like. If you really want to do it in the app layer, i would suggest this. Hope it helps..

I need to implement an audit trail for Add/Edit/Delete on my objects,I'm using an ORM (XPO) for defining my objects etc. I implemented an audit trail object that is triggered on 1. OnSaving 2. OnDeleting Of the base object, and I store the changes in Audit-AuditTrail (Mast-Det) table, for field changes. etc. using some method services called. How do you implement audit trail in you OOP code? Please share your insights? Any patterns etc? Best practices etc? Another thing is that how to disable audit when running unit test,since I don't need to audit them but since base object has the code. Changes to object (edit/add/del) and what field changes need to be audited

2008/09/29

I don't know if it will fit seamlessly with your ORM, but i used [Point-in-Time](http://www.simple-talk.com/sql/database-administration/database-design-a-point-in-time-architecture/) database design for an ERP application and really recommend it. You automatically get History and Audit from this architecture, as well as other benefits.

I come more from the SW side that the DB side, if you create a set of DAOs (Data access objects) that you use for your interaction with the database. I would then insert the audit functionality into the respective functions in the DAOs that need to be trailed. The database trigger solution is also feasible, it depends where you like to put your functionality, in the DB or in the code There are a lot of ORM (Object relational Mapping) tools out there that create the DAO layer for you.

I need to implement an audit trail for Add/Edit/Delete on my objects,I'm using an ORM (XPO) for defining my objects etc. I implemented an audit trail object that is triggered on 1. OnSaving 2. OnDeleting Of the base object, and I store the changes in Audit-AuditTrail (Mast-Det) table, for field changes. etc. using some method services called. How do you implement audit trail in you OOP code? Please share your insights? Any patterns etc? Best practices etc? Another thing is that how to disable audit when running unit test,since I don't need to audit them but since base object has the code. Changes to object (edit/add/del) and what field changes need to be audited

2008/09/29

We've implemented a similar solution, using AOP (aspectJ implementation). Using this particular points can be captured and specific operations can be performed. This can be plugged in and plugged off when we like. If you really want to do it in the app layer, i would suggest this. Hope it helps..

We have a table that all audit trail entries are stored in. A database trigger is on every table (it's put there by a stored procedure, but that's not relevant to this answer). When a value is changed, the old value is stored in the audit trail. Ours is a little complex in that we also have a look-up table that contains a list of every table we have, and another table that contains every field for each table. This allows us to look up an entry in audit trail, based on what table it's in by ID of that table in the first column. Then we also know exactly what field we are looking for based on the 2nd table's ID. This keeps us from having to store strings for the table name and the field name. To display it, our grids have an "audit trail" button next to the delete button. This opens a popup-grid with the history of that record. We use kendo grids, but none of this implementation is necessary for that. The popup is a bootstrap popup.

I need to implement an audit trail for Add/Edit/Delete on my objects,I'm using an ORM (XPO) for defining my objects etc. I implemented an audit trail object that is triggered on 1. OnSaving 2. OnDeleting Of the base object, and I store the changes in Audit-AuditTrail (Mast-Det) table, for field changes. etc. using some method services called. How do you implement audit trail in you OOP code? Please share your insights? Any patterns etc? Best practices etc? Another thing is that how to disable audit when running unit test,since I don't need to audit them but since base object has the code. Changes to object (edit/add/del) and what field changes need to be audited

2008/09/29

I come more from the SW side that the DB side, if you create a set of DAOs (Data access objects) that you use for your interaction with the database. I would then insert the audit functionality into the respective functions in the DAOs that need to be trailed. The database trigger solution is also feasible, it depends where you like to put your functionality, in the DB or in the code There are a lot of ORM (Object relational Mapping) tools out there that create the DAO layer for you.

We have a table that all audit trail entries are stored in. A database trigger is on every table (it's put there by a stored procedure, but that's not relevant to this answer). When a value is changed, the old value is stored in the audit trail. Ours is a little complex in that we also have a look-up table that contains a list of every table we have, and another table that contains every field for each table. This allows us to look up an entry in audit trail, based on what table it's in by ID of that table in the first column. Then we also know exactly what field we are looking for based on the 2nd table's ID. This keeps us from having to store strings for the table name and the field name. To display it, our grids have an "audit trail" button next to the delete button. This opens a popup-grid with the history of that record. We use kendo grids, but none of this implementation is necessary for that. The popup is a bootstrap popup.

I need to implement an audit trail for Add/Edit/Delete on my objects,I'm using an ORM (XPO) for defining my objects etc. I implemented an audit trail object that is triggered on 1. OnSaving 2. OnDeleting Of the base object, and I store the changes in Audit-AuditTrail (Mast-Det) table, for field changes. etc. using some method services called. How do you implement audit trail in you OOP code? Please share your insights? Any patterns etc? Best practices etc? Another thing is that how to disable audit when running unit test,since I don't need to audit them but since base object has the code. Changes to object (edit/add/del) and what field changes need to be audited

2008/09/29

I don't know if it will fit seamlessly with your ORM, but i used [Point-in-Time](http://www.simple-talk.com/sql/database-administration/database-design-a-point-in-time-architecture/) database design for an ERP application and really recommend it. You automatically get History and Audit from this architecture, as well as other benefits.

We have a table that all audit trail entries are stored in. A database trigger is on every table (it's put there by a stored procedure, but that's not relevant to this answer). When a value is changed, the old value is stored in the audit trail. Ours is a little complex in that we also have a look-up table that contains a list of every table we have, and another table that contains every field for each table. This allows us to look up an entry in audit trail, based on what table it's in by ID of that table in the first column. Then we also know exactly what field we are looking for based on the 2nd table's ID. This keeps us from having to store strings for the table name and the field name. To display it, our grids have an "audit trail" button next to the delete button. This opens a popup-grid with the history of that record. We use kendo grids, but none of this implementation is necessary for that. The popup is a bootstrap popup.

I am trying to start from scratch a website that has similar functionality to grubhub.com. Fundamentally, a website where restaurant owners can come on to the website, post their menu and most importantly customers will be able to order instant delivery online which sends an email or something to the restaurant. The problem is I have no idea where to start. I have been trying to figure out for a long time. I am familiar with HTML, CSS and somewhat familiar with PHP and MYSQL. So my question is how should I go about starting this project, how do I use the languages and where. Also, should I create a CMS from scratch or just use premade ones. If so, are there any recommendations?

2011/04/02

I would use a premade CMS, unless i had a very solid reason not to (they did not have the functionality that i wanted). This would save you LOTS of time. If you are familiar with PHP, MySQL, CSS and the likes, starting should not be such a problem. You first design how you want your program to work, think of the database tables and how functionality applies to each. Then, you would create the appropriate classes that handle database models and maybe even use a template system that handles the views. Since everything starts with an index page, you may want to start there and include more and more pages as you develop more and more things. Now, just start :)

You should definitely not build yourself a CMS from scratch. This will take a very long time and will definitely lead HUGE security holes and total lack of scalability if you don't know what you are doing. Take a look at this question: <https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/46716/what-should-a-developer-know-before-building-a-public-web-site> Granted, you shouldn't need or can't know absolutely everything before building a website, but you should at least have a very solid basis. Specially since there is so much free open source software that with little tweaking should cover your needs perfectly, it makes absolutely no sense re-inventing the wheel. I would say go for an opensource project that suits you. Good luck!

I am trying to start from scratch a website that has similar functionality to grubhub.com. Fundamentally, a website where restaurant owners can come on to the website, post their menu and most importantly customers will be able to order instant delivery online which sends an email or something to the restaurant. The problem is I have no idea where to start. I have been trying to figure out for a long time. I am familiar with HTML, CSS and somewhat familiar with PHP and MYSQL. So my question is how should I go about starting this project, how do I use the languages and where. Also, should I create a CMS from scratch or just use premade ones. If so, are there any recommendations?

2011/04/02

You should consider that developing web applications without experience can lead to severe security issues. I would recommend using a premade CMS if it provides the features that you need for your application (or makes it possible to script additional features). If that is not the case, maybe consider using a web application framework.

You should definitely not build yourself a CMS from scratch. This will take a very long time and will definitely lead HUGE security holes and total lack of scalability if you don't know what you are doing. Take a look at this question: <https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/46716/what-should-a-developer-know-before-building-a-public-web-site> Granted, you shouldn't need or can't know absolutely everything before building a website, but you should at least have a very solid basis. Specially since there is so much free open source software that with little tweaking should cover your needs perfectly, it makes absolutely no sense re-inventing the wheel. I would say go for an opensource project that suits you. Good luck!

Suppose that a Tor client wants to access a certain hidden service. According to the protocol, instead of submitting a request directly to the server IP (which is hidden[1][2]), this client submit a request via a series of relays. However, at some point, there will be a final relay in charge of delivering the client's message specifically to the server running the hidden service. In order to do so, this final relay must know the IP of this hidden server, otherwise the current internet infrastructure cannot deliver the message. If the aforementioned steps are indeed correct, this means that in order to host a website using TOR Hidden Service you must reveal the IP address to a final relay. Therefore, Tor network does not hide the IP address of hidden services. How to reconcile that? Am I missing something? --- [1]: "TOR Hidden Service allows you to host a website, without revealing where the website is, and hence protects the identity of the publisher/webmaster.", [WikiBooks](https://en.wikibooks.org/wiki/How_to_Protect_your_Internet_Anonymity_and_Privacy/TOR_Hidden_Service_for_Anonymous_Websites) [2]: "The Tor network hides the IP address of hidden services, instead using onion addresses and public keys to keep the real location hidden.", [Privay.net](https://privacy.net/make-site-visible-dark-web-tor-hidden-services/)

2019/09/12

Tor uses TCP tunnels, so - regardless of the previous answer - no need to use it. The hidden service is reached from the Tor node that is hosting it, usually through a localhost. The scenario you've described about IP revealing - yes, it *can* be a privacy problem. The design doc states clear - the system is anonymizing mostly the client, not the server - it's only rudimentary in a *standard* setup. To conceal your server IP use bridges-only for your hosting server(s) - that will elevate the privacy, but if you want both client and server to be equally anonymized - use I2P, not Tor - it's designed for exactly that purpose

This is a bit of a simplistic explanation, but I hope it helps. The Tor service, running on the machine where the onion service is being hosted, reaches out to the Tor Network and says, if you want to use onion abcxyz.onion or port 80, then you have to talk to me (the service) but not to the IP of the machine. Because the connection is originated from the machine being hosted and not from an external machine, no actual IP is needed to be shared. To look at it another way. I set up a web server on standard TCP port 80 I make sure that my firewall is closed on TCP port 80 so nobody can connect to that web server. (sounds pointless, right?) I then tell the Tor service to advertise that web server on Tor so people can view it. You say, "but wait you have a firewall up, they won't be able to see your web sserver!" That would be true if I was expecting external users to connect to me. Instead, the Tor service connected to the Tor Network via UDP (not TCP) and other people are able to use that connection to come in and view my web server even with the firewall turned on. Nobody ever sees my IP because that UDP connection from my web server to the Tor network doesn't contain TCP/IP informatation. It just contains an address and a connection to get in.

I use VMware Fusion created a VM(Linux) in my Mac, but I don't know how to delivery the data from my Mac to the VM. If the VM is on the Windows I can use the WinSCP to load data to it, but how can I load data to VM from Mac? Some friend can recommend me a software to load data to Linux?

2017/06/16

I have been using something called [Alpha VNC Lite](https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=de.abr.android.avnc). Alpha VNC lite doesn't seem to work on the home screen but most other apps seem to work fine. The device doesn't need to be rooted but you do not to enable a special keyboard and accessibility options. It requires Android 5.0 and up. You can use it for free. VNC software never really works perfectly but it is still cool. [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/X5BgR.png)

There also is [droidVNC-NG](https://github.com/bk138/droidVNC-NG) (which I authored). It does not require root and runs on Android 7+. It's open-source and available for free on Google Play and F-Droid.

As stated from the questions title: **What does 'beta' state of a SE site actually imply?** Could someone elaborate, which restrictions or drawbacks we should expect from a *'beta'* SE site? I could have well been missing something, that's already been answered, or is an easy to find policies concept.

2014/09/15

Beta sites aren't full sites. They're sites in a "trial" period, to see if they have the potential to become successful sites, or if interest in them wanes and the community dies out. From time to time, the site's community will be asked to [evaluate their site to ensure it is fulfilling its goal](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/161033/which-questions-need-community-evaluaton). However, terms of functionality, beta sites behave like full sites, though with [reduced reputation requirements](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/58587/reputation-requirements-compared) for most of the tools, to make it easier for a brand new community to self-moderate. The main difference between beta and full sites is the presentation. Beta sites all use the same generic theme and don't have a prominent link in the site footer (they're buried under "more").

Also, in addition to [Troyen's great answer](https://meta.stackexchange.com/a/239406/184589), another significant difference is that on Beta sites there are no moderator elections. The moderators are instead hand-picked by the Community Managers from the pool of members that contribute with valuable content and demonstrate constant participation.

As stated from the questions title: **What does 'beta' state of a SE site actually imply?** Could someone elaborate, which restrictions or drawbacks we should expect from a *'beta'* SE site? I could have well been missing something, that's already been answered, or is an easy to find policies concept.

2014/09/15

Beta sites aren't full sites. They're sites in a "trial" period, to see if they have the potential to become successful sites, or if interest in them wanes and the community dies out. From time to time, the site's community will be asked to [evaluate their site to ensure it is fulfilling its goal](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/161033/which-questions-need-community-evaluaton). However, terms of functionality, beta sites behave like full sites, though with [reduced reputation requirements](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/58587/reputation-requirements-compared) for most of the tools, to make it easier for a brand new community to self-moderate. The main difference between beta and full sites is the presentation. Beta sites all use the same generic theme and don't have a prominent link in the site footer (they're buried under "more").

Although this doesn't answer your question specifically, you can glean a lot about how sites are created and grow in Area 51. Some die on the vine too. [StackExchange Area 51](http://area51.stackexchange.com)

As stated from the questions title: **What does 'beta' state of a SE site actually imply?** Could someone elaborate, which restrictions or drawbacks we should expect from a *'beta'* SE site? I could have well been missing something, that's already been answered, or is an easy to find policies concept.

2014/09/15

Also, in addition to [Troyen's great answer](https://meta.stackexchange.com/a/239406/184589), another significant difference is that on Beta sites there are no moderator elections. The moderators are instead hand-picked by the Community Managers from the pool of members that contribute with valuable content and demonstrate constant participation.

Although this doesn't answer your question specifically, you can glean a lot about how sites are created and grow in Area 51. Some die on the vine too. [StackExchange Area 51](http://area51.stackexchange.com)

My attendant and I met a year ago and had intercourse back then, we recently picked back up where we left off, but want to go about it the right way and get married. Is there a time frame that we have to be apart from each other sexually and not sexual before marriage? What is needed to be done for our marriage to be halal?

2014/11/25

There's no time frame, but both of you must repent to Allah(SWT) and never commit that sin again. You and your potential cannot be alone together privately anywhere and at anytime. You must restrain your looks at each other. You must have a **Wali** involved to go about your business with him. You must be covered properly i.e. hijab, and he must have himself covered properly also. There can't be any intimate conversations between the two of you. Until you're married, you can't really have much physical contact.

If i understood what you said i think you write this advice to the person who will get married Yes that's right but i just add to your spaech or i can say in the other word ...... tray to don't do the sins than allah will help you ... And even you didn't have contact physical before get married , you will found the happiness in your life because whoever fears Allah - He will make for him of his matter ease. my greetings ... your sister maryam

I want to buy the full version of Minecraft, but I'm one of those creative types. What are some of the differences in Creative mode in the full version of Minecraft?

2013/01/22

From [the wiki](http://www.minecraftwiki.net/wiki/Classic#Advantages_of_purchasing) about the classic version: > > Advantages of purchasing > > > Although this mode is free to the public, there are several advantages > made available to those who have purchased the game. Some of them are > the ability to: > > - Use custom skins in both singleplayer and multiplayer. > > - Use mods that require placement of files in the original minecraft.jar folder. > > - **Build with more blocks and items.** > > - Use crafting and create items. > > - Combat mobs. > > > From a purely creative point of view, you will get more space, and more blocks to choose from, in the full version. Keep in mind also that Minecraft classic is a prototype which has not been updated since 2009. From a technical point of view, the new version (full) will perform better, and look better (new lighting system).

You can play the free version, so I won't waste too many words about it. You have a small sandbox and a few kinds of blocks you can mess around and build with. You can explore the randomly generated world for caves, pockets of air, etc.; you can grief with water sources... It's the core of Minecraft. The paid version features a world many times as large, with blocks that do actually something rather than just sitting there (with the exception of the sponge, the only "useful" block in the "free" version of Minecraft and is completely useless in the paid version\*). There's also adventure mode, which lets people play through your map without their ability to modify it in ways that break it. \*As of version 1.8, sponges soak up water in a 5x5 radius, similar to Miencraft Classic

I want to buy the full version of Minecraft, but I'm one of those creative types. What are some of the differences in Creative mode in the full version of Minecraft?

2013/01/22

You can play the free version, so I won't waste too many words about it. You have a small sandbox and a few kinds of blocks you can mess around and build with. You can explore the randomly generated world for caves, pockets of air, etc.; you can grief with water sources... It's the core of Minecraft. The paid version features a world many times as large, with blocks that do actually something rather than just sitting there (with the exception of the sponge, the only "useful" block in the "free" version of Minecraft and is completely useless in the paid version\*). There's also adventure mode, which lets people play through your map without their ability to modify it in ways that break it. \*As of version 1.8, sponges soak up water in a 5x5 radius, similar to Miencraft Classic

There is only about a dozen blocks in Classic, and they don't really do much. The full version of Minecraft not only includes nearly 150 blocks, but also has Redstone (an extremely flexible system you can use to make machines in Minecraft), custom avatars, infinite worlds, enhanced multiplayer, and the awesome survival mode. You can give it a try using the [demo mode](http://minecraft.net/demo), which lets you try a survival map for five in-game days.

I want to buy the full version of Minecraft, but I'm one of those creative types. What are some of the differences in Creative mode in the full version of Minecraft?

2013/01/22

From [the wiki](http://www.minecraftwiki.net/wiki/Classic#Advantages_of_purchasing) about the classic version: > > Advantages of purchasing > > > Although this mode is free to the public, there are several advantages > made available to those who have purchased the game. Some of them are > the ability to: > > - Use custom skins in both singleplayer and multiplayer. > > - Use mods that require placement of files in the original minecraft.jar folder. > > - **Build with more blocks and items.** > > - Use crafting and create items. > > - Combat mobs. > > > From a purely creative point of view, you will get more space, and more blocks to choose from, in the full version. Keep in mind also that Minecraft classic is a prototype which has not been updated since 2009. From a technical point of view, the new version (full) will perform better, and look better (new lighting system).

There is only about a dozen blocks in Classic, and they don't really do much. The full version of Minecraft not only includes nearly 150 blocks, but also has Redstone (an extremely flexible system you can use to make machines in Minecraft), custom avatars, infinite worlds, enhanced multiplayer, and the awesome survival mode. You can give it a try using the [demo mode](http://minecraft.net/demo), which lets you try a survival map for five in-game days.

There is an existing light fixture and switch for the light fixture. I want to add a bath fan with its own switch. What is the easiest way?

2013/06/24

If you're not comfortable working with electricity then hire a professional. Improper wiring and the resulting fire isn't worth saving a few bucks. That said: Your existing fan/light combo is likely connected using a 2-conductor cable (like 14-2)... but for two separately switched circuits you'll need three conductors (14-3) or two separate 14-2 wires. At the gang box, one of the conductors goes to the light, and the other goes to the fan.

You need to check to see how many wires you have going into your current switch from the fan. It is most likely that you have a black and a white. If this is the case you will need to run either 12-3 or 14-3 wiring from fan to switch. Size dependent on amperage of circuit. 15A gets 14 and 20A gets 12-3. 12-3 will actually work for either. You need to hook up the wiring for the fan part of the kit to the extra cable (red) and to power. The other side of the red powers your individual fan switch. The hardest part of doing this is getting the cable from the fan to the box inside the wall. This usually consists of taking out and patching drywall. Not counting the drywall issues, this is a 30 min job. Now if you have a white, black, and red (or two blacks) currently coming into your box then you are in luck. You simply need to install a bigger box where your current one is and take the fan power (red or extra black) to its own switch.

In *Asterix and the Magic Carpet*, [Cacofonix's](https://www.asterix.com/en/portfolio/cacofonix/) singing produces rain. (Previously, this had never happened.) **Why is it that when Cacofonix sings, it rains in #28 (*Magic Carpet*, 1987), but not in Books #1-27 (1961-83)?** (Others may disagree, but I find this problematic, puzzling, and in need of explanation.) (This effect also continues in the next book *Asterix and the Secret Weapon*.) --- Four of the five current answers simply quote from Wikipedia's (unsourced) assertion that there is a French saying that when one sings poorly, it rains. This could very well be an explanation. But absent either in-universe (i.e. within the comic books, perhaps cleared up in later books) or out-of-universe (e.g. interviews with Uderzo) evidence, this is just speculation. Moreover, it is unsatisfying because it fails to address my above question (in bold). --- Edit: In case it isn't clear, I am not disputing the existence of such a French saying. I am disputing that the existence of such a French saying is a satisfactory explanation to my question. In particular, it fails to explain why Cacofonix's singing had not previously produced rain in the previous 27 books.

2020/06/15

According to [the Wikipedia section on Cacofonix](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Asterix_characters#Cacofonix): > > In later albums his music is so spectacularly horrible that it actually starts thunderstorms (even indoors), because of an old French saying that bad singing causes rain. > > > A French person reading the comics would automatically get the reference, and thus it isn't stated.

As many have pointed out, it could be because of the French connection and the French proverb that bad singing may cause rain. Another possibility could be interpreted from the fact that Watziznehm requests the Gauls to help him with draught in his region in the Ganges region. In the Ganges region, although the timeline doesn't match, back in the days, there exists a myth that a singer "Tansen", residing in a Mughal emperor's court, was capable of causing rain and thunderstorms merely by his singing. It might be a small chance that the writers slipped a reference to Tansen but I wouldn't put it past them to have thought of this too!

In *Asterix and the Magic Carpet*, [Cacofonix's](https://www.asterix.com/en/portfolio/cacofonix/) singing produces rain. (Previously, this had never happened.) **Why is it that when Cacofonix sings, it rains in #28 (*Magic Carpet*, 1987), but not in Books #1-27 (1961-83)?** (Others may disagree, but I find this problematic, puzzling, and in need of explanation.) (This effect also continues in the next book *Asterix and the Secret Weapon*.) --- Four of the five current answers simply quote from Wikipedia's (unsourced) assertion that there is a French saying that when one sings poorly, it rains. This could very well be an explanation. But absent either in-universe (i.e. within the comic books, perhaps cleared up in later books) or out-of-universe (e.g. interviews with Uderzo) evidence, this is just speculation. Moreover, it is unsatisfying because it fails to address my above question (in bold). --- Edit: In case it isn't clear, I am not disputing the existence of such a French saying. I am disputing that the existence of such a French saying is a satisfactory explanation to my question. In particular, it fails to explain why Cacofonix's singing had not previously produced rain in the previous 27 books.

2020/06/15

On page 6 of *Asterix and the Magic Carpet* (in-panel numbering), Vitalstatistix says regarding Cacofonix’ rainmaking abilities: > > Oh, yes … I was forgetting, Cacofonix has new string to his lyre these days. > > > As noted by [Darren](https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/75476/darren), this is probably a pun involving adding a [string to one’s bow](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/string_to_one%27s_bow), which analogously works with [avoir plus d’une corde à son arc](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/avoir_plus_d%27une_corde_%C3%A0_son_arc) in the French original. Now, there are two ways to interpret this: * The pun only happens out-of-universe, in which case the new string actually is responsible in-universe. * The pun happens in-universe, i.e., Vitalstatistix (as opposed to only Uderzo) makes the pun, in which case Cacofonix somehow acquired a new “skill” to do this. Either way, the new rainmaking effects of Cacofonix’ music are addressed on the page: Either it’s because he actually upgraded (or rather: downgraded) his instrument or his abilities.

Perhaps not immediately clear for English readers, the original French name of the bard in the cartoons is *Assurancetourix*, a contraction of the French term *Assurance tous risques*, literally "all-risk insurance". An all-risk insurance includes coverage that automatically covers any risk, including natural disasters. It's not unreasonable to assume that in the development of the character the new writers (Goscinni, the original story writer died in 1977) some of the "all-risk" natural disasters are being incorporated.

In *Asterix and the Magic Carpet*, [Cacofonix's](https://www.asterix.com/en/portfolio/cacofonix/) singing produces rain. (Previously, this had never happened.) **Why is it that when Cacofonix sings, it rains in #28 (*Magic Carpet*, 1987), but not in Books #1-27 (1961-83)?** (Others may disagree, but I find this problematic, puzzling, and in need of explanation.) (This effect also continues in the next book *Asterix and the Secret Weapon*.) --- Four of the five current answers simply quote from Wikipedia's (unsourced) assertion that there is a French saying that when one sings poorly, it rains. This could very well be an explanation. But absent either in-universe (i.e. within the comic books, perhaps cleared up in later books) or out-of-universe (e.g. interviews with Uderzo) evidence, this is just speculation. Moreover, it is unsatisfying because it fails to address my above question (in bold). --- Edit: In case it isn't clear, I am not disputing the existence of such a French saying. I am disputing that the existence of such a French saying is a satisfactory explanation to my question. In particular, it fails to explain why Cacofonix's singing had not previously produced rain in the previous 27 books.

2020/06/15

In France we have this saying that if you sing badly it will produce rain. More precisely if you sing out of key, or pitchy, then you'll make it rain. "Cacophonix" means "cacophonie" which is French for "cacophony": harsh discordant mixture of sounds. Thus triggering the rain.

Perhaps not immediately clear for English readers, the original French name of the bard in the cartoons is *Assurancetourix*, a contraction of the French term *Assurance tous risques*, literally "all-risk insurance". An all-risk insurance includes coverage that automatically covers any risk, including natural disasters. It's not unreasonable to assume that in the development of the character the new writers (Goscinni, the original story writer died in 1977) some of the "all-risk" natural disasters are being incorporated.

In *Asterix and the Magic Carpet*, [Cacofonix's](https://www.asterix.com/en/portfolio/cacofonix/) singing produces rain. (Previously, this had never happened.) **Why is it that when Cacofonix sings, it rains in #28 (*Magic Carpet*, 1987), but not in Books #1-27 (1961-83)?** (Others may disagree, but I find this problematic, puzzling, and in need of explanation.) (This effect also continues in the next book *Asterix and the Secret Weapon*.) --- Four of the five current answers simply quote from Wikipedia's (unsourced) assertion that there is a French saying that when one sings poorly, it rains. This could very well be an explanation. But absent either in-universe (i.e. within the comic books, perhaps cleared up in later books) or out-of-universe (e.g. interviews with Uderzo) evidence, this is just speculation. Moreover, it is unsatisfying because it fails to address my above question (in bold). --- Edit: In case it isn't clear, I am not disputing the existence of such a French saying. I am disputing that the existence of such a French saying is a satisfactory explanation to my question. In particular, it fails to explain why Cacofonix's singing had not previously produced rain in the previous 27 books.

2020/06/15

This is an ongoing joke that Cacofonix's singing is so bad, it causes negative things to happen (a common trope). [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/6xBoN.jpg) According to [Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Asterix_characters#Cacofonix) (My emphasis): > > In Asterix and the Normans [his singing] is so unbearable that it teaches the fearless Normans the meaning of fear. In later albums his music is so spectacularly horrible that it actually starts thunderstorms (even indoors), **because of an old French saying that bad singing causes rain.** > > > The joke even leads to him causing it to rain inside: [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/groSL.png) And sometimes even leads to Cacofonix saving the day: [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/wURO3.png)

As many have pointed out, it could be because of the French connection and the French proverb that bad singing may cause rain. Another possibility could be interpreted from the fact that Watziznehm requests the Gauls to help him with draught in his region in the Ganges region. In the Ganges region, although the timeline doesn't match, back in the days, there exists a myth that a singer "Tansen", residing in a Mughal emperor's court, was capable of causing rain and thunderstorms merely by his singing. It might be a small chance that the writers slipped a reference to Tansen but I wouldn't put it past them to have thought of this too!

In *Asterix and the Magic Carpet*, [Cacofonix's](https://www.asterix.com/en/portfolio/cacofonix/) singing produces rain. (Previously, this had never happened.) **Why is it that when Cacofonix sings, it rains in #28 (*Magic Carpet*, 1987), but not in Books #1-27 (1961-83)?** (Others may disagree, but I find this problematic, puzzling, and in need of explanation.) (This effect also continues in the next book *Asterix and the Secret Weapon*.) --- Four of the five current answers simply quote from Wikipedia's (unsourced) assertion that there is a French saying that when one sings poorly, it rains. This could very well be an explanation. But absent either in-universe (i.e. within the comic books, perhaps cleared up in later books) or out-of-universe (e.g. interviews with Uderzo) evidence, this is just speculation. Moreover, it is unsatisfying because it fails to address my above question (in bold). --- Edit: In case it isn't clear, I am not disputing the existence of such a French saying. I am disputing that the existence of such a French saying is a satisfactory explanation to my question. In particular, it fails to explain why Cacofonix's singing had not previously produced rain in the previous 27 books.

2020/06/15

This is an ongoing joke that Cacofonix's singing is so bad, it causes negative things to happen (a common trope). [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/6xBoN.jpg) According to [Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Asterix_characters#Cacofonix) (My emphasis): > > In Asterix and the Normans [his singing] is so unbearable that it teaches the fearless Normans the meaning of fear. In later albums his music is so spectacularly horrible that it actually starts thunderstorms (even indoors), **because of an old French saying that bad singing causes rain.** > > > The joke even leads to him causing it to rain inside: [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/groSL.png) And sometimes even leads to Cacofonix saving the day: [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/wURO3.png)

In France we have this saying that if you sing badly it will produce rain. More precisely if you sing out of key, or pitchy, then you'll make it rain. "Cacophonix" means "cacophonie" which is French for "cacophony": harsh discordant mixture of sounds. Thus triggering the rain.

In *Asterix and the Magic Carpet*, [Cacofonix's](https://www.asterix.com/en/portfolio/cacofonix/) singing produces rain. (Previously, this had never happened.) **Why is it that when Cacofonix sings, it rains in #28 (*Magic Carpet*, 1987), but not in Books #1-27 (1961-83)?** (Others may disagree, but I find this problematic, puzzling, and in need of explanation.) (This effect also continues in the next book *Asterix and the Secret Weapon*.) --- Four of the five current answers simply quote from Wikipedia's (unsourced) assertion that there is a French saying that when one sings poorly, it rains. This could very well be an explanation. But absent either in-universe (i.e. within the comic books, perhaps cleared up in later books) or out-of-universe (e.g. interviews with Uderzo) evidence, this is just speculation. Moreover, it is unsatisfying because it fails to address my above question (in bold). --- Edit: In case it isn't clear, I am not disputing the existence of such a French saying. I am disputing that the existence of such a French saying is a satisfactory explanation to my question. In particular, it fails to explain why Cacofonix's singing had not previously produced rain in the previous 27 books.

2020/06/15

This is an ongoing joke that Cacofonix's singing is so bad, it causes negative things to happen (a common trope). [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/6xBoN.jpg) According to [Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Asterix_characters#Cacofonix) (My emphasis): > > In Asterix and the Normans [his singing] is so unbearable that it teaches the fearless Normans the meaning of fear. In later albums his music is so spectacularly horrible that it actually starts thunderstorms (even indoors), **because of an old French saying that bad singing causes rain.** > > > The joke even leads to him causing it to rain inside: [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/groSL.png) And sometimes even leads to Cacofonix saving the day: [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/wURO3.png)

On page 6 of *Asterix and the Magic Carpet* (in-panel numbering), Vitalstatistix says regarding Cacofonix’ rainmaking abilities: > > Oh, yes … I was forgetting, Cacofonix has new string to his lyre these days. > > > As noted by [Darren](https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/75476/darren), this is probably a pun involving adding a [string to one’s bow](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/string_to_one%27s_bow), which analogously works with [avoir plus d’une corde à son arc](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/avoir_plus_d%27une_corde_%C3%A0_son_arc) in the French original. Now, there are two ways to interpret this: * The pun only happens out-of-universe, in which case the new string actually is responsible in-universe. * The pun happens in-universe, i.e., Vitalstatistix (as opposed to only Uderzo) makes the pun, in which case Cacofonix somehow acquired a new “skill” to do this. Either way, the new rainmaking effects of Cacofonix’ music are addressed on the page: Either it’s because he actually upgraded (or rather: downgraded) his instrument or his abilities.

In *Asterix and the Magic Carpet*, [Cacofonix's](https://www.asterix.com/en/portfolio/cacofonix/) singing produces rain. (Previously, this had never happened.) **Why is it that when Cacofonix sings, it rains in #28 (*Magic Carpet*, 1987), but not in Books #1-27 (1961-83)?** (Others may disagree, but I find this problematic, puzzling, and in need of explanation.) (This effect also continues in the next book *Asterix and the Secret Weapon*.) --- Four of the five current answers simply quote from Wikipedia's (unsourced) assertion that there is a French saying that when one sings poorly, it rains. This could very well be an explanation. But absent either in-universe (i.e. within the comic books, perhaps cleared up in later books) or out-of-universe (e.g. interviews with Uderzo) evidence, this is just speculation. Moreover, it is unsatisfying because it fails to address my above question (in bold). --- Edit: In case it isn't clear, I am not disputing the existence of such a French saying. I am disputing that the existence of such a French saying is a satisfactory explanation to my question. In particular, it fails to explain why Cacofonix's singing had not previously produced rain in the previous 27 books.

2020/06/15

According to [the Wikipedia section on Cacofonix](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Asterix_characters#Cacofonix): > > In later albums his music is so spectacularly horrible that it actually starts thunderstorms (even indoors), because of an old French saying that bad singing causes rain. > > > A French person reading the comics would automatically get the reference, and thus it isn't stated.

In France we have this saying that if you sing badly it will produce rain. More precisely if you sing out of key, or pitchy, then you'll make it rain. "Cacophonix" means "cacophonie" which is French for "cacophony": harsh discordant mixture of sounds. Thus triggering the rain.

In *Asterix and the Magic Carpet*, [Cacofonix's](https://www.asterix.com/en/portfolio/cacofonix/) singing produces rain. (Previously, this had never happened.) **Why is it that when Cacofonix sings, it rains in #28 (*Magic Carpet*, 1987), but not in Books #1-27 (1961-83)?** (Others may disagree, but I find this problematic, puzzling, and in need of explanation.) (This effect also continues in the next book *Asterix and the Secret Weapon*.) --- Four of the five current answers simply quote from Wikipedia's (unsourced) assertion that there is a French saying that when one sings poorly, it rains. This could very well be an explanation. But absent either in-universe (i.e. within the comic books, perhaps cleared up in later books) or out-of-universe (e.g. interviews with Uderzo) evidence, this is just speculation. Moreover, it is unsatisfying because it fails to address my above question (in bold). --- Edit: In case it isn't clear, I am not disputing the existence of such a French saying. I am disputing that the existence of such a French saying is a satisfactory explanation to my question. In particular, it fails to explain why Cacofonix's singing had not previously produced rain in the previous 27 books.

2020/06/15

This is an ongoing joke that Cacofonix's singing is so bad, it causes negative things to happen (a common trope). [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/6xBoN.jpg) According to [Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Asterix_characters#Cacofonix) (My emphasis): > > In Asterix and the Normans [his singing] is so unbearable that it teaches the fearless Normans the meaning of fear. In later albums his music is so spectacularly horrible that it actually starts thunderstorms (even indoors), **because of an old French saying that bad singing causes rain.** > > > The joke even leads to him causing it to rain inside: [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/groSL.png) And sometimes even leads to Cacofonix saving the day: [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/wURO3.png)

According to [the Wikipedia section on Cacofonix](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Asterix_characters#Cacofonix): > > In later albums his music is so spectacularly horrible that it actually starts thunderstorms (even indoors), because of an old French saying that bad singing causes rain. > > > A French person reading the comics would automatically get the reference, and thus it isn't stated.

In *Asterix and the Magic Carpet*, [Cacofonix's](https://www.asterix.com/en/portfolio/cacofonix/) singing produces rain. (Previously, this had never happened.) **Why is it that when Cacofonix sings, it rains in #28 (*Magic Carpet*, 1987), but not in Books #1-27 (1961-83)?** (Others may disagree, but I find this problematic, puzzling, and in need of explanation.) (This effect also continues in the next book *Asterix and the Secret Weapon*.) --- Four of the five current answers simply quote from Wikipedia's (unsourced) assertion that there is a French saying that when one sings poorly, it rains. This could very well be an explanation. But absent either in-universe (i.e. within the comic books, perhaps cleared up in later books) or out-of-universe (e.g. interviews with Uderzo) evidence, this is just speculation. Moreover, it is unsatisfying because it fails to address my above question (in bold). --- Edit: In case it isn't clear, I am not disputing the existence of such a French saying. I am disputing that the existence of such a French saying is a satisfactory explanation to my question. In particular, it fails to explain why Cacofonix's singing had not previously produced rain in the previous 27 books.

2020/06/15

This is an ongoing joke that Cacofonix's singing is so bad, it causes negative things to happen (a common trope). [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/6xBoN.jpg) According to [Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Asterix_characters#Cacofonix) (My emphasis): > > In Asterix and the Normans [his singing] is so unbearable that it teaches the fearless Normans the meaning of fear. In later albums his music is so spectacularly horrible that it actually starts thunderstorms (even indoors), **because of an old French saying that bad singing causes rain.** > > > The joke even leads to him causing it to rain inside: [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/groSL.png) And sometimes even leads to Cacofonix saving the day: [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/wURO3.png)

Perhaps not immediately clear for English readers, the original French name of the bard in the cartoons is *Assurancetourix*, a contraction of the French term *Assurance tous risques*, literally "all-risk insurance". An all-risk insurance includes coverage that automatically covers any risk, including natural disasters. It's not unreasonable to assume that in the development of the character the new writers (Goscinni, the original story writer died in 1977) some of the "all-risk" natural disasters are being incorporated.

In *Asterix and the Magic Carpet*, [Cacofonix's](https://www.asterix.com/en/portfolio/cacofonix/) singing produces rain. (Previously, this had never happened.) **Why is it that when Cacofonix sings, it rains in #28 (*Magic Carpet*, 1987), but not in Books #1-27 (1961-83)?** (Others may disagree, but I find this problematic, puzzling, and in need of explanation.) (This effect also continues in the next book *Asterix and the Secret Weapon*.) --- Four of the five current answers simply quote from Wikipedia's (unsourced) assertion that there is a French saying that when one sings poorly, it rains. This could very well be an explanation. But absent either in-universe (i.e. within the comic books, perhaps cleared up in later books) or out-of-universe (e.g. interviews with Uderzo) evidence, this is just speculation. Moreover, it is unsatisfying because it fails to address my above question (in bold). --- Edit: In case it isn't clear, I am not disputing the existence of such a French saying. I am disputing that the existence of such a French saying is a satisfactory explanation to my question. In particular, it fails to explain why Cacofonix's singing had not previously produced rain in the previous 27 books.

2020/06/15

According to [the Wikipedia section on Cacofonix](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Asterix_characters#Cacofonix): > > In later albums his music is so spectacularly horrible that it actually starts thunderstorms (even indoors), because of an old French saying that bad singing causes rain. > > > A French person reading the comics would automatically get the reference, and thus it isn't stated.

Perhaps not immediately clear for English readers, the original French name of the bard in the cartoons is *Assurancetourix*, a contraction of the French term *Assurance tous risques*, literally "all-risk insurance". An all-risk insurance includes coverage that automatically covers any risk, including natural disasters. It's not unreasonable to assume that in the development of the character the new writers (Goscinni, the original story writer died in 1977) some of the "all-risk" natural disasters are being incorporated.

I'm having a hard time figuring out which is the correct form of asking this kind of question. I mean speaking strictly, this doesn't sound right: ***You alright?*** or ***You eaten anything?*** compared to ***Are you alright?*** and ***Have you eaten anything?***. So please enlighten me. Are those both forms correct or just something which is ignored for the sake slang speakers?

2013/01/24

Those phrases are examples of ellipsis: the omission of words that can be understood from the context, or given contextual clues. While ellipsis is not normally used in formal English, it is more used in spoken English, or informal English.

These aren't correct in formal English. Here, the sentences say "Are you alright?", "Have you eaten anything", as you mentioned. The "Are"/"Have" are implied here, that's all. One finds this a lot in informal English -- words which can be guessed from context are sometimes dropped altogether. It's just a way to save time, similar to how contractions are used (though contractions may be used in formal English as well)

I'm having a hard time figuring out which is the correct form of asking this kind of question. I mean speaking strictly, this doesn't sound right: ***You alright?*** or ***You eaten anything?*** compared to ***Are you alright?*** and ***Have you eaten anything?***. So please enlighten me. Are those both forms correct or just something which is ignored for the sake slang speakers?

2013/01/24

These aren't correct in formal English. Here, the sentences say "Are you alright?", "Have you eaten anything", as you mentioned. The "Are"/"Have" are implied here, that's all. One finds this a lot in informal English -- words which can be guessed from context are sometimes dropped altogether. It's just a way to save time, similar to how contractions are used (though contractions may be used in formal English as well)

*“You alright?”* is not necessarily true according to the grammar rules. It is instead used for conversations with friends and relatives. The most correct sentence, in my opinion, would definitely be: **“*Are you alright*?”**

I'm having a hard time figuring out which is the correct form of asking this kind of question. I mean speaking strictly, this doesn't sound right: ***You alright?*** or ***You eaten anything?*** compared to ***Are you alright?*** and ***Have you eaten anything?***. So please enlighten me. Are those both forms correct or just something which is ignored for the sake slang speakers?

2013/01/24

These aren't correct in formal English. Here, the sentences say "Are you alright?", "Have you eaten anything", as you mentioned. The "Are"/"Have" are implied here, that's all. One finds this a lot in informal English -- words which can be guessed from context are sometimes dropped altogether. It's just a way to save time, similar to how contractions are used (though contractions may be used in formal English as well)

We use ellipsis a lot in spoken English. It's certainly not good written style though! I might have a conversation like this with friends: Alright? Coming to the pub tonight? Naa (No). Too tired. Went out last night. Stay out late, did ya (you)? Yeah. Got home about 2 in the morning. Wife wasn't happy!

I'm having a hard time figuring out which is the correct form of asking this kind of question. I mean speaking strictly, this doesn't sound right: ***You alright?*** or ***You eaten anything?*** compared to ***Are you alright?*** and ***Have you eaten anything?***. So please enlighten me. Are those both forms correct or just something which is ignored for the sake slang speakers?

2013/01/24

Those phrases are examples of ellipsis: the omission of words that can be understood from the context, or given contextual clues. While ellipsis is not normally used in formal English, it is more used in spoken English, or informal English.

*“You alright?”* is not necessarily true according to the grammar rules. It is instead used for conversations with friends and relatives. The most correct sentence, in my opinion, would definitely be: **“*Are you alright*?”**

I'm having a hard time figuring out which is the correct form of asking this kind of question. I mean speaking strictly, this doesn't sound right: ***You alright?*** or ***You eaten anything?*** compared to ***Are you alright?*** and ***Have you eaten anything?***. So please enlighten me. Are those both forms correct or just something which is ignored for the sake slang speakers?

2013/01/24

Those phrases are examples of ellipsis: the omission of words that can be understood from the context, or given contextual clues. While ellipsis is not normally used in formal English, it is more used in spoken English, or informal English.

We use ellipsis a lot in spoken English. It's certainly not good written style though! I might have a conversation like this with friends: Alright? Coming to the pub tonight? Naa (No). Too tired. Went out last night. Stay out late, did ya (you)? Yeah. Got home about 2 in the morning. Wife wasn't happy!

I'm having a hard time figuring out which is the correct form of asking this kind of question. I mean speaking strictly, this doesn't sound right: ***You alright?*** or ***You eaten anything?*** compared to ***Are you alright?*** and ***Have you eaten anything?***. So please enlighten me. Are those both forms correct or just something which is ignored for the sake slang speakers?

2013/01/24

We use ellipsis a lot in spoken English. It's certainly not good written style though! I might have a conversation like this with friends: Alright? Coming to the pub tonight? Naa (No). Too tired. Went out last night. Stay out late, did ya (you)? Yeah. Got home about 2 in the morning. Wife wasn't happy!

*“You alright?”* is not necessarily true according to the grammar rules. It is instead used for conversations with friends and relatives. The most correct sentence, in my opinion, would definitely be: **“*Are you alright*?”**

I have a need to support multiple websites on a single IIS 7 server. One of these websites needs to be able to support wildcard subdomains. I was hoping to use host headers for this approach but am thinking this is not possible. The site that requires wildcard subdomains won't let me use \*.site.com in the host header and therefore won't respond to subdomain requests unless i set it to listen blindly on port 80. If I have that site listen blindly on port 80, it seems my other sites will not work. It's completely plausible I'm missing a step. Any help is greatly appreciated!

2009/10/23

Give each separate website its own IP address and configure IIS to listen based on IP address rather than `Host` header. Then, any single website with multiple or wildcard subdomains but at a separate IP will work with IIS listening to all incoming requests on that IP.

Just use site.com not \*.site.com

I have a need to support multiple websites on a single IIS 7 server. One of these websites needs to be able to support wildcard subdomains. I was hoping to use host headers for this approach but am thinking this is not possible. The site that requires wildcard subdomains won't let me use \*.site.com in the host header and therefore won't respond to subdomain requests unless i set it to listen blindly on port 80. If I have that site listen blindly on port 80, it seems my other sites will not work. It's completely plausible I'm missing a step. Any help is greatly appreciated!

2009/10/23

Give each separate website its own IP address and configure IIS to listen based on IP address rather than `Host` header. Then, any single website with multiple or wildcard subdomains but at a separate IP will work with IIS listening to all incoming requests on that IP.

My understanding is IIS doesnt support this. Im assuming the next best option is to use URL rewriting and set a rewrite in the global rules (not per site). I've been using IIRF with good results, and it is free. Version 2.x now has a server-level global re-write rules, then each site has its own per-site rewrite rules. I'd set something to redirect (or maybe even rewrite) \*.domain.com to a fixed sub, like www.domain.com. Or even get creative and pass it as a folder like domain.com/subdomain . Not optimal solutions, but should work. I'm really surprised we cant get iis to do regular wildcards on hostheaders. Seems pretty basic fucntionality.

I'm interested in \*coin, but I'm afraid of sinking money into something out of idle curiosity and then losing that money to value fluctuations. Would it be a good idea to have several different \*coin (lite, doge, idk what else there is) so that the fluctuations balance each other? Have different \*coin in the past gained and lost value in 'lockstep', or totally independent or inversely? I'm aware that I would also loose the chance to gain money from course fluctuations, but I don't that's [something to loose sleep over](http://blockchain.info/de/charts/market-price).

2014/11/04

I don't see how different coins would protect against volatility, as Bitcoin is by far the leading cryptocurrency, and the others (even all of them combined) are really totally insignificant in terms of market cap and trading volume. If you want to protect against volatility (given that you measure volatility in terms of value expressed in fiat currency), there's two options: * use [Coinapult Locks](https://coinapult.com/locks/info) * keep part of your money in fiat Simple as that. Seriously, just not investing part of your money in something is the best and easiest way to suppress its volatility.

You should see \*coin as a **very high risk** asset. The strategy "diversify your investment" only works on regular stocks since people generally see the markets rising over large amounts of time on established companies. (The fluctuations average in accordance to the *law of large numbers*) It is much more risky to invest in something completely new no-one has genuine, long-term experience with. Stating that, the *law of large numbers* cannot be applied since chances are equally high for rates to explode or crash. tl;dr **Diversifying does not really work on \*coins by now**

I'm interested in \*coin, but I'm afraid of sinking money into something out of idle curiosity and then losing that money to value fluctuations. Would it be a good idea to have several different \*coin (lite, doge, idk what else there is) so that the fluctuations balance each other? Have different \*coin in the past gained and lost value in 'lockstep', or totally independent or inversely? I'm aware that I would also loose the chance to gain money from course fluctuations, but I don't that's [something to loose sleep over](http://blockchain.info/de/charts/market-price).

2014/11/04

I don't see how different coins would protect against volatility, as Bitcoin is by far the leading cryptocurrency, and the others (even all of them combined) are really totally insignificant in terms of market cap and trading volume. If you want to protect against volatility (given that you measure volatility in terms of value expressed in fiat currency), there's two options: * use [Coinapult Locks](https://coinapult.com/locks/info) * keep part of your money in fiat Simple as that. Seriously, just not investing part of your money in something is the best and easiest way to suppress its volatility.

There are services emerging to combat the volatility of Bitcoin. Bitreserve is one. But to be honest if you are worried about the volatility, just keep your funds in your native currency and buy bitcoin when you need bitcoin since there are plenty of places you can buy bitcoin almost instantly.

Recently, I learned about the concept of the [51% attack](https://www.investopedia.com/terms/1/51-attack.asp) which a malicious actor could perform on a cryptocurrency. Essentially, if you can control >50% of the hashing power for a given cryptocurrency, you can control the blockchain which allows you to do all sorts of devious things like [double-spending](https://www.investopedia.com/terms/d/doublespending.asp) the cryptocurrency. There's even a website, [crypto51.app](https://www.crypto51.app/), which keeps track of the theoretical costs of performing such an attack. This cost seems to come from the money one would spend in gaining that >50% control for an hour - usually in terms of renting computing time. Clearly, the more computing power the cryptocurrency community is putting into mining, for a given cryptocurrency, the harder and more expensive it is to perform a 51% attack. So crypocurrencies like Bitcoin are reasonably safe from an attack like this. However, newer, less mined crypocurrencies are *much* more likely susceptible to the 51% attack. So my question is, how can new cryptocurrencies even form? It seems like people are forming their own cryptocurrencies left and right, even as jokes (see , e.g., [dogecoin](https://dogecoin.com/)). How can new currencies get off the ground and gain enough critical mass to be reasonably safeguarded against a 51% attack? Why don't most new cryptocurrencies get killed off nearly immediately by an attack like this?

2020/04/03

Generally new cryptocurrencies are protected either by a complete lack of incentive to attack them, or by amassing support leading up to their eventual "launch." Older ones are somewhat protected by people being vigilant and communities occasionally agreeing on hard forks to ignore transactions on "compromised" chains; 51% attacks -- which don't actually need 51% of the network to pull off -- are still a threat even for well established blockchains. Double spending relies on there being someone who wants the cryptocurrency you have that you can dupe, and the amounts being transacted being high enough to offset hardware costs, time investments, opportunity costs, or other costs related to the attack. Very new cryptocurrencies will typically have almost nobody to transact with in the first place; and will have a very low "market cap", which severely limits the returns. There is generally no financial incentive to attack a new blockchain. There are some cyrptocurrenices that are "launched" with substantial support, where individuals creating the cryptocurrency will offer "ICOs" and other means of generating interest. While this would make for a much more lucrative target compared to another new crypto that has no such interest, it also means that the costs for the attack are much greater, and there will be more interest in forking away from "compromised" chains among the userbase. Futher, successfully attacking a blockchain like this is relatively easy to detect, and will erode confidence or interest in a cryptocurrency, of which most new cryptos have little to spare. Even if your attack is not "reversed" by the majority with a fork, you will crater the value of any amount you gain through double spends.

Many cryptocurrencies are launched with the intent to fleece people by giving you money for worthless cryptocurrency. So all you need is a great launch and lots of initial sales. Since the intent was never for the victims / suckers to make any profit, who cares about a 51% attack? The people who launched the cryptocurrency got lots of money for worthless cryptocurrency, they don't care if others can use a 51% attack to steal more of that cryptocurrency.

I'm a junior .NET developer and our company has a ton of code in their main application. All of our css for the web application is using bootstrap 2.3. I've been assigned the task to migrate from 2.3 to the new 3.0. This update has a ton of major changes. I'm looking for any and all suggestions on how I can make this work efficiently without having to go into each file and change the class. Container fluid and row fluid are now just container and fluid. These classes are probably on every single html page in our application. Please help me :)

2014/01/15

Bootstrap 3 is a major upgrade. You will have to "manually" update the classes in each file, and in some cases change the structure of your markup. There are some tools that can help.. See: [Updating Bootstrap to version 3 - what do I have to do?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/17974998/updating-bootstrap-to-version-3-what-do-i-have-to-do) <http://upgrade-bootstrap.bootply.com>

Use the find and replace for entire solution.

I've recently signed up for Google Apps because of the email support. I only use the web based gmail client for all my mail. I'd like to have a professional email signature for each email that I send that includes a small image which is the Logo of my company. How can include such an signature with Gmail?

2010/07/16

Google recently [announced](http://gmailblog.blogspot.com/2010/07/rich-text-signatures.html) support for rich text in signatures. That means you can now configure the font family, size and color, as well as insert images into the signature. Just go to your gmail settings and you'll find it right there, no need to enable as a lab feature or anything! It's possible it hasn't been expanded to Google Apps for your domain yet, in which case it should be coming pretty soon. [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Ce09S.png) (source: [blogspot.com](https://4.bp.blogspot.com/_JE4qNpFW6Yk/TDYhaX9aJCI/AAAAAAAAAok/SUZMdB9N7sI/s1600/rich_text_signatures1.png))

Just to add to that if you have multiple accounts (and hence want multiple signatures) Gmail can now handle this too (I used to have to use 'labs' canned responses to do this). So if you also set up Gmail to automatically respond to the e-mail account the message was originally sent to it means you automatically get the correct signature on your reply. Very nice.

I'm looking for a way to send a user a regular file (mp3s or pictures), and keeping count of how many times this file was accessed **without going through an HTML/PHP page**. For example, the user will point his browser to bla.com/file.mp3 and start downloading it, while a server-side script will do something like saving data to a database. Any idea where should I get started? Thanks!

2012/09/21

You will need to go through a php script, what you could do is rewrite the extensions you want to track, preferably at the folder level, to a php script which then does the calculations you need and serves the file to the user. For Example: If you want to track the /downloads/ folder you would create a rewrite on your webserver to rewrite all or just specific extensions to a php file we'll call proxy.php for this example. An example uri would be proxy.php?file=file.mp3 the proxy.php script sanitizes the file parameter, checks if the user has permission to download if applicable, checks if the file exists, serves the file to the client and perform any operations needed on the backend like database updates etc..

Do you mean that you don't want your users to be presented with a specific page and interrupt their flow? If you do, you can still use a PHP page using the following steps. (I'm not up to date with PHP so it'll be pseudo-code, but you'll get the idea) * Provide links to your file as (for example) <http://example.com/trackedDownloader.php?id=someUniqueIdentifer> * In the tracedDownloader.php file, determine the real location on the server that relates to the unique id (e.g. 12345 could map to /uploadedFiles/AnExample.mp3) * Set an appropriate content type header in your output. * Log the request to your database. * Return the contents of the file directly as page output.

I'm looking for a way to send a user a regular file (mp3s or pictures), and keeping count of how many times this file was accessed **without going through an HTML/PHP page**. For example, the user will point his browser to bla.com/file.mp3 and start downloading it, while a server-side script will do something like saving data to a database. Any idea where should I get started? Thanks!

2012/09/21

You will need to go through a php script, what you could do is rewrite the extensions you want to track, preferably at the folder level, to a php script which then does the calculations you need and serves the file to the user. For Example: If you want to track the /downloads/ folder you would create a rewrite on your webserver to rewrite all or just specific extensions to a php file we'll call proxy.php for this example. An example uri would be proxy.php?file=file.mp3 the proxy.php script sanitizes the file parameter, checks if the user has permission to download if applicable, checks if the file exists, serves the file to the client and perform any operations needed on the backend like database updates etc..

You would need to scan log files. Regardless you most likely would want to store counters in a database? There is a great solution in serving static files using PHP: <https://tn123.org/mod_xsendfile/>

I am studying mathematical modeling of a battery in simulink and for this it is necessary to determine some parameters. I'm stuck in the part where I need to determine an alpha parameter, which would be the relation between capacity and temperature. Not all battery manufacturers provide this parameter and would like to know with the author or how I could get to the value of it to proceed with the study of the model. Below the discussion that deals with the subject and attached the paper about it. [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/hLorS.png) Paper: <https://drive.google.com/file/d/1u__5DWaSZtZ60xpXi2b1eJa0bVuv8yyt/view?usp=sharing> **UPDATE** Looking for some manufactures data I found a data sheet with some informations I think can help me. So, with this specifications what is the value of alpha ? [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/OEpSm.png)

2018/05/22

Working with Li-ion or LiPo cells, I never heard of an *alpha* parameter in datasheets. But, usually you can easily find the discharge curves at various temperatures i.e. you can estimate a correlation coefficient between temperature and total capacity.

IEC 61215 standard requires this measurement for Li-ion and I believe the manufacturer must make the results of the testing available to the public. I have found the report for some batteries in the past. All I remember is I don't want to do that again. You can measure it. Follow the IEC 61215 testing methods. See: [*Temperature Coefficients Measured pre-post Thermal Stress Testing and Comparison of Four Measurement Procedures*](https://www.nrel.gov/pv/assets/pdfs/2014_pvmrw_65_riedel.pdf) This may not help but it may. Li-ion batteries have a thermistor for safety. You can access and use the thermistor to measure the temperature. > > If at all possible, connect the thermistor during charging and > discharging to protect the battery against possible overheating. Use > an ohmmeter to locate the internal thermistor. The most common > thermistors are 10 Kilo Ohm NTC, which reads 10kΩ at 20°C (68°F). NTC > stands for negative temperature coefficient, meaning that the > resistance decreases with rising temperature. In comparison, a > positive temperature coefficient (PTC) causes the resistance to > increase. Warming the battery with your hand is sufficient to detect a > small change in resistor value when looking for the correct terminal > on the battery. > > > Source: [*Battery University, How to Repair a Laptop Battery*](http://batteryuniversity.com/learn/article/how_to_repair_a_laptop_battery) See also: [*Battery University, Making Lithium-ion Safe*](http://batteryuniversity.com/learn/article/bu_304b_making_lithium_ion_safe)

I am interested to know if anyone has built a javascript websocket listener for a browser. Basically the server side of a websocket that runs in a client. This would allow messages to be sent to the client directly. Why? Because instead of having a Node.js, python, java, etc, server process sitting on or near the client/browser, I can just use a thread in the browser as a listening server thread. I don't think that any browsers support this currently. I've run across answers like this: <https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=2316132> Just curious if anyone has done this. I believe that the current Websockets spec does not support listeners on the browser. It would make the deployment of various peer-to-peer applications a bit easier to deploy.

2015/11/24

[WebRTC](https://webrtc.org/getting-started/overview) allows for peer-to-peer connections to be made between browsers. You would still need a server in order for individual users to discover each other but then they could connect directly to each other rather than having to pass all their traffic via a central server.

The idea. You can use a simple **echo server** written in any language. Your script can send the data to the server then get it back, handle it on the same page with different functions/classes emulating the real server. An example: <http://www.websocket.org/echo.html> Then, you can think about different formats of packets to/from server to diffirentiate them inside one script.

Anyone around coy with being Mr. Fixit? (Ms. Fixit would be even better, but either will do nicely.) I can't absorb dragon souls, and yes, I've been through almost every thread there is here on the answer. (So please, do not duplicate me. Pretty please?) Mind you, I got a *TRUCKLOAD* of mods installed... *(ducks in preparation for the coming brick)* Odd thing is, I was playing with a very similar list before installing Dragon Combat Overhaul and Succubus Race, but deactivating either won't get me anywhere. Done some digging on the Nexus and Steam forums... I read somewhere that No Spinning Death overwrites a script related to dragon death. It *might* be mucking up things some, but I can't tell. Disabling that mod didn't get me anywhere, but scripts are baked into saves (right?), so in theory I have to *(cringes)* restart the game to be absolutely sure... Other bits worth (?) knowing: * Running SKSE * Running ENB * Using ModOrganizer UPDATE: There is something seriously broken with my game itself. Tried the following: * Disabled ALL the mods, save for Alternate Start for quicker starts (and yes, this includes USKP, UDGP and UDBP) * Started a new game, created a vanilla Nord character * Toggled godmode on * Given the PC Lightning Storm * Spawned Mirmulnir * Turned the overgrown lizard into charred meat And STILL I'm not absorbing its soul! UPDATE 2: Verifying the game cache integrity turned up 3 corrupted files. Wish I knew which those were, but I had cleaned my master files using TES5Edit, so I thought I had screwed up something there. Created a new barebones game, and at last, I'm having some dragon spirit chow. Then, created a new fully modded game, and no soul chow for me... For a moment I wanted to pin the blame on TES5Edit but now I know that's not the cause. The culprit's still at large. UPDATE 3: After having no luck with a fully modded game, started to gradually activate mods again... eventually I realized that the truckload of mods I had activated on my previous attempt broke something **again** on my vanilla installation, for even another barebones try was plagued with this issue. Re-check integrity, and bam, another file -a very small one, not even 1k in size- was corrupted. (Again, I wish there was a way to know which!) UPDATE 4: Tried a new game with just these on: * USKP * UDGP * UDBP * Alternate Start Guess what. AGAIN the corrupted file issue. Tried again with only Alternate Start active, and still cannot absorb dragon souls. Even while today I could on a similar setup. (I don't understand anything anymore here...) Anyone knows of a way to skip the intro without installing this mod? (Could it be that ModOrganizer is somehow mucking things up?) UPDATE 5: *Probably* ModOrganizer has something to do with this. However insane it sounds. Instead of manually disabling ESPs, I right-clicked on the mod list, selected 'Disable all visible mods', manually re-activated Alternate Start, and *this time* I could dine on dragon essence. Read again: a near-completely barebones setup, without even the unofficial patches. UPDATE 6: Disregard what I said about MO screwing up things. One of the unofficial patches is misbehaving. Even with a truckload of mods on, I can still eat dragonstuff--right until activating all three of them. Which one is to blame I don't yet know. **UPDATE 7 AND FINAL:** Finally, finally figured what's going on. USKP has a problem with the dragonactorscript.pex file. Found and installed a fix available here: <http://www.nexusmods.com/skyrim/mods/31685> Personally, I went and overwrote the file from USKP itself instead of treating this fix as a separate mod, keeping a backup available just in case.

2013/11/06

USKP has a problem with the dragonactorscript.pex file. Found and installed a fix available here: <http://www.nexusmods.com/skyrim/mods/31685> Personally, I went and overwrote the file from USKP itself instead of treating this fix as a separate mod, keeping a backup available just in case.

If that is your load order I see one problem: You have the skyrim patch after the DLC patches - it needs to go first. The correct order is given at: <http://skyrim.nexusmods.com/mods/19/> > > * Skyrim.esm > * Update.esm > * Unofficial Skyrim Patch.esp > * Dawnguard.esm > * Unofficial Dawnguard Patch.esp > * Hearthfires.esm > * Unofficial Hearthfire Patch.esp > * Dragonborn.esm > * Unofficial Dragonborn Patch.esp > * HighResTexturePack01.esp > * HighResTexturePack02.esp > * HighResTexturePack03.esp > * Unofficial High Resolution Patch.esp > > > The patches should be interleaved with the actual DLC.