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Initially, renal arteries are branches of - | {
"A": "Internal pudendal artery",
"B": "External iliac artery",
"C": "Common iliac artery",
"D": "Aorta"
} | Common iliac artery | 2C
| Ans. is 'c' i.e., Common iliac artery o Due to ascent of kidneys during development, the blood supply of kidney changes:-Initially when the kidneys are in pelvis, the renal arteries are branches of common iliac arteries.With progressive ascent, the arteries to kidneys are derived from different levels of aorta. | Anatomy | Blood Vessels of Abdomen and Pelvis |
Okazaki fragment | {
"A": "DNA fragment",
"B": "RNA fragment",
"C": "DNA fragment with RNA head",
"D": "RNA fragment with DNA head"
} | DNA fragment with RNA head | 2C
| The small DNA molecules attached to its own primer RNA are called Okazaki fragments The synthesis along the lagging strand is in 5&;-3&; direction As it moves, the primers synthesizes sho RNA primer to which deoxynucleotides are added by DNA polymeraseRef: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 581 | Biochemistry | Metabolism of nucleic acids |
The neck of pancreas is related on its posterior surface to | {
"A": "Gastroduodenal aery",
"B": "Superior mesenteric vein",
"C": "Inferior vena cava",
"D": "Bile duct"
} | Superior mesenteric vein | 1B
| Neck of pancreas is located between the head and the body of the pancreas. It overlies the superior mesenteric vessels which form a groove in its posterior aspect. Ref - BDC 6e vol2 pg 298-300 | Anatomy | Abdomen and pelvis |
True regarding cytoplasmic m RNA? | {
"A": "It is chiefly translated from nuclear DNA",
"B": "The sugar is deoxyribose",
"C": "Thymine is present in place of uracil",
"D": "Its MW is greater than heterogenous RNA"
} | It is chiefly translated from nuclear DNA | 0A
| mRNA is chiefly transcribed from nuclear DNA
MW of cytoplasmic mRNA is lesser than the heterogenous RNA .
mRNA contain only uracil not the thymine .
Sugar is ribose moiety, not the deoxyribose moiety . Messenger RNA (mRNA) is a molecule of RNA that encodes a chemical "blueprint" for a protein product. mRNA is transcribed from a DNAtemplate, and carries coding information to the sites of protein synthesis, the ribosomes. In the ribosomes, the mRNA is translated into a polymer of amino acids: a protein. (This process is sometimes referred to as the central dogma of molecular biology.) Heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA) a diverse group of long primary transcripts formed in the eukaryotic nucleus, many of which will be processed to mRNA molecules by splicing. | Unknown | None |
Daily dose of isoniazid in treatment of tuberculosis is | {
"A": "5 mg/kg body weight",
"B": "10 mg/kg body weight",
"C": "20 mg/kg body weight",
"D": "15 mg/kg body weight"
} | 5 mg/kg body weight | 0A
| DAILY DOSES OF ANTITUBERCULAR DRUGS: DRUG DOSE (mg/kg) H 5 R 10 Z 25 E 15 S 15 | Pharmacology | Mycobacterial Diseases (TB, Leprosy and MAC) |
Enamel organ is | {
"A": "Vascular",
"B": "Avascular",
"C": "Rich of capillaries",
"D": "Slightly vascular"
} | Avascular | 1B
| None | Dental | None |
A 43 year old man complains of abdominal pain just above his umbilicus. On examination , a tumor is found anterior to the IVC. Which of the following structures would most likely to be compressed by this tumor? | {
"A": "Right sympathetic trunk",
"B": "Left third lumbar aery",
"C": "Third pa of the duodenum",
"D": "Left renal aery"
} | Third pa of the duodenum | 2C
| The third pa of the duodenum (transverse poion) crosses anterior to the IVC. The other structures do not cross the IVC anteriorly. Ref: Gray&;s Anatomy 41st edition Pgno: 1156 | Anatomy | Abdomen and pelvis |
Secreting active thyroid follicles are lined by which type of epithelium: | {
"A": "Columnar",
"B": "Cuboidal",
"C": "Squamous",
"D": "Pseudostratified squamous"
} | Columnar | 0A
| Secreting active thyroid follicles are lined by columnar type of epithelium. Thyroid follicle epithelial lining depends on activity of cells involved in secretion of thyroxine. The more the secretion, the more is endoplasmic reticulum content, the more is the height of the cell - tendency to become columnar. Scanty (resting follicle)- simple squamous Medium (normal follicle)- simple cuboidal High (active follicle)- simple columnar(secreting epithelium) Note: Normally a thyroid follicle is mostly lined by cuboidal epithelium (central spehrical nucleus, with height of the cell equal to breath). | Anatomy | Neuroanatomy, Head and Neck |
Periodic acid schiff stain shows block positiveity in - | {
"A": "Myeloblasts",
"B": "Lymphoblasts",
"C": "Monoblasts",
"D": "Megakaryoblasts"
} | Lymphoblasts | 1B
| Ans. is 'b ' i.e., LymphoblastImpoant characteristics of Leukemic cellso Myeloblast -o Myeloperoxidase positive, Auer rod positive, Sudan Black B o Monoblast --> Nonspecific exterase positiveo Lymphoblast --> Periodic acid schiff (PAS) positive | Pathology | None |
A patient presents with thyrotoxicosis and both eyeballs protruded. Thyroid test done would reveal? | {
"A": "T3 increased, T4 increased TSH normal",
"B": "T3 deceased, T4 decreased, TSH increases",
"C": "T3 increased, T4 increased, TSH decreased",
"D": "T3 decreased, T4 normal, TSH decreased"
} | T3 increased, T4 increased, TSH decreased | 2C
| The presence of proptosis along with thyrotoxicosis indicates the diagnosis of GRAVE'S DISEASE. It is characterized by suppressed TSH and elevated T3, T4, FT3 and FT4. | Medicine | Diseases of Thyroid |
Absolute indication of Cesarean Section is? | {
"A": "Placenta Previa",
"B": "Previous Cesarean section",
"C": "CPD",
"D": "Breech presentation"
} | CPD | 2C
| ANSWER: (C) CPDREF: Dutta 6th ed page 589Indications for caesarean section:ABSOLUTERELATIVECentral placenta previaAbsolute CPDPelvic mass causing obstructionAdvanced cervical caVaginal obstructionCPD (relative)Previous CSNon reassuring FHR or fetal distressDystochiaAntepartum hemmorrhageMalpresentationFailed surgical inductionBad obstetric historyHypertensive disorderMedical gynaecological disordersIndications of caesarean section in cases of previous CS:When primary was due to a recurrent indication like CPD Previous two CS Features of scar dehiscencePrevious classical CS | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Caesarean Section |
False about branchial cyst is: | {
"A": "it develops from the remnants of 2nd branchial cleft",
"B": "Usually line by squamous epithelium",
"C": "Found at the anterior border of lower third of Sternocleidomastoid muscle",
"D": "Treatment involves complete excision"
} | Found at the anterior border of lower third of Sternocleidomastoid muscle | 2C
| Branchial cyst is found at the junction of upper third & middle third of Sternocleidomastoid over anterior border. | Surgery | None |
Myositis - Ossificans common at | {
"A": "Shoulder joini",
"B": "Elbow joint",
"C": "Knee joint",
"D": "Hipjoiiu"
} | Elbow joint | 1B
| B. i.e. (Elbow joint) (599 - Apley 8th) (369 - current Diagnosis and Treatment) 4th Myositis - ossificans (Post- traumatic ossification)* Ossification of the haematoma around a joint resulting in the formation of a mass of bone restricting joint movements often completely* Common at elbow joints (stress- reactive pseudo tumor)* Myositis ossificans histologically resembles to osteogenic sarcoma*** Quadriceps muscle is commonly involved* With maturation, ossification occurs in the traumatized muscle facial planes. Which may suggest the diagnosis of a synovial sarcoma or other calcifying sarcoma.* If the myositis pseudotumor is attached to the subjacent bone. It can mimic a parosteal osteosarcoma | Orthopaedics | Injuries Around Arm & Elbow |
Baby brought to mother with history of hair fall with boggy scalp hair easily pluckable. There was similar history 6 months back. What is the treatment: | {
"A": "Oral ketoconazole",
"B": "Oral griseofulvin",
"C": "Topical cotrimoxaxol",
"D": "Intralesional steroid"
} | Oral griseofulvin | 1B
| Ans. b. Oral griesofulvinDOC for kerion (Tinea capitis) is oral griseofulvin | Skin | Fungal Infection |
10 years old Ramu was brought by his mother with complaints of increasing muscle weakness. Laboratory findings shows raised CPK levels. The most likely defect is in plasma membrane of: | {
"A": "Nerves",
"B": "Muscle fibres",
"C": "Basement membrane",
"D": "All body cells"
} | Muscle fibres | 1B
| Significant history of muscle weakness and raised creatinine phosphokinase (CPK) levels are indicative of muscle pathology. Muscular dystrophies are a group of inherited myopathic disorders characterized by progressive muscle weakness and wasting. CPK is the preferred muscle enzyme to measure in the evaluation of myopathies. Damage to muscle causes the CPK to leak from the muscle fiber to the serum. The MM isoenzyme predominates in skeletal muscle, while creatine phosphokinase-myocardial bound (CPK-MB) is the marker for cardiac muscle. Also know: Serum CK can be elevated in normal individuals without provocation, presumably on a genetic basis or after strenuous activity, minor trauma (including the EMG needle), a prolonged muscle cramp, or a generalized seizure. Ref: Amato A.A., Brown, R.H. (2012). Chapter 387. Muscular Dystrophies and Other Muscle Diseases. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds), Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e. | Pediatrics | None |
. A woman of 50 years who attained menopause, coming with one epidose of bleeding P/ V. Which of the following to be done:a) Assess for H/o HRTb) Hysterectomyc) PAPs Smeard) Endometrial biopsye) DUB | {
"A": "acd",
"B": "ad",
"C": "bc",
"D": "bde"
} | acd | 0A
| None | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | None |
True about Raynaud's disease are all except: | {
"A": "More common in females",
"B": "Good prognosis",
"C": "Positive antinuclear phenomenon",
"D": "Most common cause of Raynoud's phenomenon"
} | Positive antinuclear phenomenon | 2C
| Answer is C (Positive antinuclear antibodies) : Raynaud's disease is the term applied for idiopathic Raynaud's phenomenon when secondary causes of the phenomenon have been excluded. Presence of antinuclear antibodies points towards a secondary cause of Ravnaud's phenomenon. ANA 's are not associated with primary idiopathic Ravnaud's disease. The most common cause of Raynaud's phenomenon is Idiopathic Ravnaud's disease. Raynaud's phenomenon/syndrome is an episodic vasopastic disorder characterized by digital colour change (white --> Blue --> Red), following exposure to cold and subsequent rewarming, or emotional stress. Idiopathic Raynaud's phenomenon is also known as Raynaud's disease. Raynaud's disease term is applied when secondary causes of Raynaud's phenomenon have been excluded. Over 50% of patient with Raynaud's phenomenon have Raynaud's disease. - Harrison Raynaud's disease is more common in females 'Women are affected five times more often than men and the age of presentation is usually between 20-40 years'. Raynaud's disease has a good prognosis `Raynaud's disease is usually benign, causing mild disease appear to have the milder forms of Raynaud's Phenomenon.- Harrison | Medicine | None |
Anterior cruciate ligament attached to: | {
"A": "Medial part of medial femoral condyle",
"B": "Lateral part of medial femoral condyle",
"C": "Medial part of lateral femoral condyle",
"D": "Lateral part of lateral femoral condyle"
} | Medial part of lateral femoral condyle | 2C
| Ans. C. Medial part of lateral femoral condyleCruciate ligaments are two thick, strong fibrous bands, which act as direct bonds of union between the femur and tibia. They are present inside the knee joint. They maintain anteroposterior stability of the knee joint. They are named anterior and posterior according to their site of attachment to the tibia. The ligaments cross each other like the letter "X" hence the name cruciate.The anterior cruciate ligament is attached below to the anterior part of the intercondylar area of the tibia. It runs upward, backward, and laterally and is attached to the posterior part of the medial surface of the lateral condyle of femur. It is taut during extension of the knee and prevents the anterior dislocation of tibia on femur. | Anatomy | Lower Extremity |
An unconscious patient is brought to the Emergency Depament with suspected cervical cord injury. Which of the following clinical signs is not suggestive of cervical spinal cord injury. | {
"A": "Flaccidity",
"B": "Increased Rectal sphincter Tone",
"C": "Diaphragmatic Breathing",
"D": "Priapism"
} | Increased Rectal sphincter Tone | 1B
| Answer is B (Increased Rectal sphincter Tone): Cervical cord injury is suggested by a decrease in tone of the Rectal Sphincter and not by an increased tone of the rectal sphincter Findings that indicate a cervical cord injury (in an unconscious patient) Flaccid Paralysis with Areflexia (Spinal shock) Flaccid Rectal sphincter or decreased tone of the rectal sphincter Hypotension with bradvcardia (Neurogenic shock) Diaphragmatic Breathing Priapism (Autonomic transaction) Ability to flex but not extend the elbow Response on eliciting painful stimuli above the clavicle but not below the clavicle | Medicine | None |
Teiary vitreous is represented by | {
"A": "Zonular system",
"B": "Ciliary body",
"C": "Anterior uvea",
"D": "Lens"
} | Zonular system | 0A
| Answer- A. Zonular system"Teiary vitteous indicates the mnular system. The pimary and secondary vitreous are stages in developmmt of vitreous,However the teiary vitreous i.e. the zonules are named so only because of their proximity to the vitreous. | Ophthalmology | None |
Single drug regimen for carcinoma esophagus which shows significant decrease in tumor size in 15 - 20% of patients incorporates which drug? | {
"A": "Cisplatin",
"B": "Bleomycin",
"C": "Doxorubicin",
"D": "Vincristine"
} | Cisplatin | 0A
| Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cisplatin Management oesophageal carcinoma* The prognosis for patients with esophageal carcinoma is poor.* Fewer than 5% of patients survive 5 years after the diagnosis; thus, management focuses on symptom control.* Surgical resection of all gross tumor (i.e., total resection) is feasible in only 45% of cases, with residual tumor cells frequently present at the resection margins.* Such esophagectomies have been associated with a postoperative mortality rate of approximately 5% due to anastomotic fistulas, subphrenic abscesses, and respiratory complications. About 20% of patients who survive a total resection live 5 years.* The efficacy of primary radiation therapy (5500- 6000 cGy) for squamous cell carcinomas is similar to that of radical surgery, sparing patients perioperative morbidity but often resulting in less satisfactory palliation of obstructive symptoms.* The evaluation of chemotherapeutic agents in patients with esophageal carcinoma has been hampered by ambiguity in the definition of "response" and the debilitated physical condition of many treated individuals. Nonetheless, significant reductions in the size of measurable tumor masses have been reported in 15-25% of patients given single-agent cisplatin treatment and in 30-60% of patients treated with drug combinations that include cisplatin. | Surgery | Oesophagus |
Renal pathology in SLE includes all EXCEPT ? | {
"A": "Focal glomerulonephritis",
"B": "Diffuse glomerulonephritis",
"C": "Membranous glomerulonephritis",
"D": "Lipoid nephrosis"
} | Lipoid nephrosis | 3D
| Ans. is 'd' i.e., Lipoid nephrosis | Pathology | None |
Wave II in BERA originates from ? | {
"A": "Cochlear nucleus",
"B": "Lateral laminiscus",
"C": "Proximal eighth nerve",
"D": "Distal eighth nerve"
} | Proximal eighth nerve | 2C
| Waves of BERA Anatomical site from where the waves arises are: Wave I- distal pa of 8th nerve Wave II - proximal pa of 8th nerve Wave III- cochlear nucleus Wave IV- superior olivary complex Wave V- lateral lemniscus Waves VI & VII- inferior colliculus | ENT | None |
SI unit of Absorption is: | {
"A": "Sv",
"B": "Curie",
"C": "Becquerel",
"D": "Gy"
} | Gy | 3D
| None | Radiology | None |
A man with blunt injury abdomen after road side accident has a blood pressure of 100/80 mm Hg and a pulse rate of 120 bpm. Airway has been established and respiration has been stabilized. Next best step in management is | {
"A": "Immediate blood transfusion",
"B": "Blood for cross matching & IV fluids",
"C": "Ventilate the patient",
"D": "Rush the patient to the OT"
} | Blood for cross matching & IV fluids | 1B
| Abdomen is a potential site for major blood loss. Rapid thready pulse and low blood pressure are the signs of hypovolemic shock so blood volume must be rapidly restored. Blood cross matching should be done and IV fluids must be given as a pa of fluid resuscitation. This is the next step in primary survey of trauma care. Reference: Bailey and Love's Sho Practice of Surgery, 26th edition, pg no: 304. | Surgery | Trauma |
Concentric hyperophy of left ventricle is seen in | {
"A": "Mitral stenosis",
"B": "Hypeension",
"C": "Aoic regurgitation",
"D": "None"
} | Hypeension | 1B
| In pressure overload states (e.g., hypeension or valvular stenosis), new sarcomeres tend to be added parallel to the long axis of the myocytes, adjacent to existing sarcomeres. The growing muscle fiber diameter thus results in concentric hyperophy--the ventricular wall thickness increases without an increase in the size of the chamber. The chronic pressure overload of systemic hypeension causes left ventricular concentric hyperophy, often associated with left atrial dilation due to impaired diastolic filling of the ventricle. Persistently elevated pressure overload can cause ventricular failure with dilation. (Robbins Basic Pathology,9th edition,pg no.386,388) | Pathology | Cardiovascular system |
True regarding hypothermia during Anesthesia is | {
"A": "Occurs in all types of Anaesthesia",
"B": "Treated with warm saline",
"C": "Is beneficial to patients",
"D": "Mechanism of heat loss is conduction"
} | Treated with warm saline | 1B
| . | Anatomy | All India exam |
Minamata Bay disease refers to chronic toxicity with: TN 09 | {
"A": "Ergot",
"B": "Dhatura",
"C": "Organophosphorus",
"D": "Mercury"
} | Mercury | 3D
| Ans. Mercury | Forensic Medicine | None |
The epithelial lining of cervical canal is : | {
"A": "Low columnar",
"B": "High columnar",
"C": "Stratified squamous",
"D": "Ciliated columnar"
} | High columnar | 1B
| High columnar Friends, Quite a few Questions are asked on the epithelial lining of various structures. I am listing down a few impoant ones for you. Organ/Structure Epithelial lining Baholin gland Baholin duct Adult Newborn Uterus Cervix Ectocervix Single layer of low columnar cell Multilayered columnar cells (Not transitional) Stratified squamous epithelium Transitional epithelium Columnar epithelium (High)columnar epitheluim Squamous epithelium | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | None |
Oxytocin challenge test for assessing fetal well being is contraindicated in all except : | {
"A": "Placenta pre",
"B": "Previous 2 LSCS",
"C": "Breech",
"D": "Premature labour"
} | Breech | 2C
| Breech | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | None |
Drug of choice for actinomycosis: | {
"A": "Penicillin",
"B": "Sulfonamides",
"C": "Tetracycline",
"D": "Azithromycin"
} | Penicillin | 0A
| 78. Ans: a (Penicillin) Ref: Harrison's, 16th ed, p. 939; 17th ed, p. 998Treatment of actinomycosis is intravenous administration of of penicillin 18-24 million units daily for 2- 6 weeks, followed by oral therapy with penicillin or amoxicillin (total duration. 6-12 months). This is a reasonable guideline for serious infections and bulky disease. Less extensive disease, particularly that involving the oral-cervicofacial region, may be cured with a shorter course. | Pharmacology | Anti Microbial |
Joint not involved in Rheumatoid arthritis according to 1987 modified ARA criteria? | {
"A": "Knee",
"B": "Ankle",
"C": "Tarsometatarsal",
"D": "Metatarsophalangeal"
} | Tarsometatarsal | 2C
| According to 1987 modified ARA criteria : -
Arthritis of 3 or more joint areas: soft tissue swelling (arthritis) of 3 or more joint areas observed simultaneously by a physician. The 14 possible joint areas involved are, right or left:
Proximal interphalangeal
Metacarpophalangeal
Metatarsophalangeal
Wrist
Knee
Elbow
Ankle | Orthopaedics | None |
Hand joining sign is characteristic of | {
"A": "Pelviceal duplication",
"B": "Uerterocoele",
"C": "Ureteric duplication",
"D": "Horseshoe kidney"
} | Horseshoe kidney | 3D
| Both kidneys meet in midline seen has hand joining sign. | Surgery | None |
In granuloma, epithelial and giant cells are derived from: | {
"A": "T cells",
"B": "B cells",
"C": "Plasma cells",
"D": "Monocyte"
} | Monocyte | 3D
| None | Pathology | None |
Which of the following(s) is are state responsibility for healthsector | {
"A": "water supply and sanitation",
"B": "Promotion of research through reseach centres & other bodies",
"C": "Prevention of adulteration",
"D": "Prevention of communicable disease"
} | water supply and sanitation | 0A
| For purpose of planning health sector has been divided into the following subsectors Water supply and sanitation Control of communicable diseases Medical education training and research Public health services Family planning Indigenous system of medicine(refer pgno:876 park 23 rd edition) | Social & Preventive Medicine | Health education & planning |
Pulmonary hypeension may occur in all of the following conditions, EXCEPT: | {
"A": "Toxic oil syndrome",
"B": "Progressive systemic sclerosis",
"C": "Sickle cell anaemia",
"D": "Argemone mexicana poisoning"
} | Argemone mexicana poisoning | 3D
| Argemone mexicana poisoning results from use of edible oils adulterated with argemone mexicana seed oil the clinical condition is known as epidemic dropsy. Sanguinarine and dihydrosanguinarine are two major toxic alkaloids of argemone oil, which cause widespread capillary dilatation, proliferation and increased capillary permeability. When mustard oil is adulterated deliberately (as in most cases) or accidentally with argemone oil, proteinuria (specifically loss of albumin) occurs, with a resultant edema. Pulmonary hypeension is not described in argemone mexicana poisoning. All other conditions are well known to produce pulmonary hypeension. | Medicine | None |
Increased Reid index is classically associated with? | {
"A": "Chronic Bronchitis",
"B": "Emphysema",
"C": "Bronchiectasis",
"D": "Interstitial lung disease"
} | Chronic Bronchitis | 0A
| The diagnostic feature of chronic bronchitis in the trachea and larger bronchi is enlargement of the mucus secretinggland . The magnitude of the increase insize is assessed by the ratio of the thickness of the submucosal gland layer to that of the bronchial wall (the Reid index--normally 0.4). Chronic smoking causes submucosal gland hyperophy and hyperplasia, leading to a Reid Index of >0.5 indicating chronic bronchitis. | Medicine | COPD and Asthma |
Podocytes are seen in | {
"A": "Bowman's capsule",
"B": "Proximal consulted tubule",
"C": "Distal convoluted tubule",
"D": "Collecting tubule of the kidney"
} | Bowman's capsule | 0A
| Reference Robbins page no Pg 900 Podocytes are cells6in the Bowman's capsule in the kidney s that wrap around the capillaries of the Glomerulus | Pathology | Urinary tract |
The concept of simple act of "Hand-washing between cases" was introduced by | {
"A": "Joseph Lister",
"B": "Ignac Semmelweis",
"C": "Holmes",
"D": "Louis Pasteur"
} | Ignac Semmelweis | 1B
| (B) Ignac Semmelweis # Hand washing was introduced by Ignaz Philipp Semmelweis.> Austrian obstetrician Ignac Semmelweis showed that puerperal sepsis could be reduced from over 10% to under 2% by the simple act of hand-washing between cases, particularly between post-mortem examinations and the delivery suite.> Louis Pasteur recognised that micro-organisms were responsible for spoiling wine, turning it into vinegar.> Joseph Lister introduced hand washing with carbolic acid, a disinfectant.> Lister then experimented with hand-washing, sterilizing instruments and spraying carbolic in the theatre while operating, in order to limit infection. Lister introduced both Antiseptic Technique & Aseptic Technique.> His lowered infection rate was very good and Listerian principles were adopted throughout many countries by a number of surgeons.> Lister is now known as 'Father of Antiseptic Surgery'> Robert Koch laid down the first definition of infective disease (Koch's postulates). | Surgery | Miscellaneous |
Mycosis fungoides is: | {
"A": "Fungal infections of skin",
"B": "Leukemia",
"C": "Exfoliative erythroderma",
"D": "Cutaneous lymphoma"
} | Cutaneous lymphoma | 3D
| Mycosis fungoides is a T cell lymphoma affecting skin which can evolve into generalized lymphoma. Histological hallmark: Sezary Lutzner cells which are helper T cells forming band like aggregates in superficial dermis and have cerebriform contourQ. May invade epidermis as single cells and small clusters called as Pautrier microabscessesQ | Pathology | Non Hodgkin Iymphoma |
Medical wall of orbit formed by | {
"A": "Body of sphenoid",
"B": "Lesser wing of sphenoid",
"C": "Greater wing of sphenoid",
"D": "Frontal process of maxilla"
} | Body of sphenoid | 0A
| Medial wall of the orbit is very thin. From before backward, it is formed by (a) The frontal process of the maxilla; (b) the lacrimal bone; (c) the orbital plate of the ethmoid; and (d) the body of the sphenoid bone. Features: (a) The lacrimal groove lies anteriorly on the medial wall. It is bounded anteriorly by the lacrimal crest of the frontal process of the maxilla, and posteriorly by the crest of the lacrimal bone. The floor of the groove is formed by the maxilla in front and by the lacrimal bone behind. The groove lodges the lacrimal sac which lies deep to the lacrimal fascia bridging the lacrimal groove. The groove leads inferiorly, through the nasolacrimal canal, to the inferior meatus of the nose. (b) The anterior and posterior ethmoidal foramina lie on the frontoethmoidal suture, at the junction of the roof and medial wall. Ref: BD Chaurasia's HUMAN ANATOMY, Volume 3, 4th edition. | Anatomy | Head and neck |
Ca prostate most common metastasis to - | {
"A": "Skull",
"B": "Femur",
"C": "Lumbar spine",
"D": "Sacrum"
} | Lumbar spine | 2C
| Ans. is 'c' i.e.' Lumbar spine "Lymphatic metastases are most often identified in the obturator lymph node chain _____Smith so Most common metastatic sites of prostate carcinoma are lymph nodes & bones,o Lymphatic metastasis occurs most commonly to - obturator lymph nodes,o Other lymph nodes involved are :Common iliacPresacralPeriaorticAlso Remembero Most common bony metastasis occurs in (in decreasing order)Lumbar spine (most common)Proximal femurPelvisThoracic spineRibsSternumSkullHumerus (Smith s Urology? 17/e)o The bone lesions of metastatic carcinoma prostate are typically osteoblastic,o Visceral metastases most commonly involve the lung, liver, and adrenal gland. | Surgery | Prostate Cancer |
'Whip-lash' injury is caused due to: | {
"A": "A fall from a height.",
"B": "Acute hyperextension of the spine.",
"C": "A blow on top to head.",
"D": "Acute hyper flexion of the spine."
} | Acute hyperextension of the spine. | 1B
| Ans. is 'b' i.e. acute hyperextension of the spine Whiplash injuryIt is a term given to soft tissue sprains of the neck seen commonly after automobile accidents. It is mainly seen after hyperextension of the spine however it can also occur with flexion and rotationMechanism of injuryIt usually follows a rear end collision of automobile in which the occupant's body is thrown forwards and the head jerked backwards with hyperextension of the lower cervical spine.Clinical features: -Pain & Stiffness of the neck (appears within 12 to 48 hrs. of accidents)Neck tendernessNeurological deficits (uncommon)Diagnosis -X-ray - straightening out of the normal cervical lordosis (a sign of muscle spasm)MRI -may show disc abnormalities.TreatmentSimple pain relieving methods (analgesics) needed for the first few weeks.Then physiotherapy is needed.(collars are more likely to hinder than to help recovery) | Orthopaedics | Whiplash Injury |
Which of the following is not seen in exudative type of ascites? | {
"A": "Protein > 2.5 gm/dl",
"B": "Specific gravity > 1.016",
"C": "SAAG> 1.1 gm/dl",
"D": "None of the above"
} | SAAG> 1.1 gm/dl | 2C
| Ans: c (SAAG >1.1 gm/dl) Ref: Harrison, 16th ed, p. 245,17th ed, p.In exudative ascites SAAG <1.1SAAG is serum ascites albumin gradient. It is the difference between serum albumin and ascitic fluid albumin. In exudative ascites, the ascitic fluid albumin is more so S AAG is less than 1.1 gm/dlExudative ascitesProtein concentration > 2.5 gm/dlSpecific gravity >1.016SAAG< 1.1 gm/dlTransudative ascitesProtein concentration < 2.5 gm/dlSpecific gravity < 1.016S AAG > 1.1 gm/dlCauses of exudative ascitesTuberculousMalignantBacterial peritonitisPancreatic ascitesCauses of transudative ascitesCirrhosis and portal hypertensionCongestive cardiac failureNephrotic syndromeConstrictive pericarditisBeriberiHypoproteinaemiaInferior venacaval obstructionCauses of chylous ascitesTraumaTumorTuberculosisFilariasisNote:Ascitic amylase activity > 1000 U/l is suggestive of pancreatic ascitesIn spontaneous bacterial peritonitis polymorphonuclear leucocyte count > 250/cubic mm-Mucinous ascites is seen in Pseudomyxoma peritonei | Medicine | G.I.T. |
Which of the following does not require radiograph: | {
"A": "Tanaka and Johnson",
"B": "Hixon - old father.",
"C": "Stanley and Kerber",
"D": "Nance model analysis"
} | Tanaka and Johnson | 0A
| None | Dental | None |
Third generation oral contraceptive pills containing norgestrel and gestodene along with estrogens : | {
"A": "Are more lipid friendly",
"B": "Decreases the risk of venous thromboembolism",
"C": "Increase the risk of breakthrough bleeding",
"D": "Are not used for emergency contraception"
} | Are more lipid friendly | 0A
| Ans. is a i.e. Are more lipid friendly 3rd generation Oral contraceptive pill contain 3rd generation progestins such as : Desogestrel Gestodene Norgestimate Advantages of 3rd generation progestins are : Diminished adverse effects on lipid metabolism. Reliable monthly blood pattern The 3rd generation pills appear to carry higher risk of venous thrombosis but have lower risk of aerial thrombosis. Use of third generation progestins increase the risk of venous thromboembolism according to Shaw 14/e, p 209 whereas they have no effect on rate of thrombolism according to Leon Speroff 7/e, p 890. "Risks of aerial venous thrombosis are a consequence of the estrogen component of combination oral contraceptives." "There is no evidence that any oral contraceptive formulations that are approximately equivalent in estrogen and progesterin dosages are significantly different in the rate of breakthrough bleeding." | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | None |
Barium swallow is used for | {
"A": "Esophagus",
"B": "Colon",
"C": "Duodenum",
"D": "Jejunum"
} | Esophagus | 0A
| The esophagus is a muscular tube connecting the throat (pharynx) with the stomach.
The esophagus is about 8 inches long and is lined by moist pink tissue called mucosa.
The esophagus runs behind the windpipe (trachea) and heart, and in front of the spine. | Radiology | None |
Which of the following statements related to gastric injury is not true | {
"A": "Mostly related to penetrating trauma",
"B": "Treatment is simple debridement and suturing",
"C": "Blood in stomach is always related to gastric injury",
"D": "Heals well and fast"
} | Blood in stomach is always related to gastric injury | 2C
| A gastric injury is usually related to mostly to penetrating trauma, and it heals well and fast due to increased vascularity.The treatment for gastric injury is mainly simple debridement and suturing.but blood in the stomach is not always indicative of trauma only.it can be due to other reasons also.ABDOMINAL TRAUMA can be * Blunt trauma * Stab injury * Abdominal wall injury Ref: SRB&;s manual of surgery,3 rd ed, pg no 123 | Surgery | G.I.T |
Most common site of Atherosclerotic aneurysm is | {
"A": "Aorta",
"B": "Abdominal aorta",
"C": "Thoracic aorta",
"D": "Arch of aorta"
} | Abdominal aorta | 1B
| i.e. (Abdominal aorta): (406-Harsh Mohan 6th) (507-509-Robbins & Cotran 8th)* Most common site of Atherosclerotic aneurysm is-Abdominal aorta*** Most common site of Syphilic (Luetic) aneurysm is - Thorasic aorta (especially ascending part)**Thoracic aortic aneurysms are most commonly associated with Hypertension other causes Marfan and Leoys Dietz syndromes* Most common site of Dissecting aneurysm and Cystic Medial Necrosis is - AortaMost common cause of aneurysm of aortic arch = Atherosclerosis* Aneurysm of Takayasu arteritis affect == Aortic arch* MYCOTIC ANEURYSM - resulting from direct trauma to a vessel with secondary infections Most commonly occur in femoral arteries and less commonly in arteries of of the neck (1237-CMDT-2011)* Saccular (Berry) aneurysm - is the most common type of intracranial aneurysm. About 90% of saccular aneurysm are found near major arterial branch points in the anterior circulation*** Most common site of rupture of Abdominal aortic aneurysm is - Laterally in the left retroperitoneum (Postero-lateral wall Cleft)** | Pathology | Blood Vessels |
Fatal dose of Pottasium cyanide is: | {
"A": "5 mg",
"B": "10 mg C",
"C": "20 mg D.",
"D": "200 mg"
} | 200 mg | 3D
| 200 mg | Forensic Medicine | None |
Paradoxical Aciduria is seen - | {
"A": "Congenital Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis",
"B": "Duodenal Ulcer",
"C": "Achalsia Cardia",
"D": "Crohn's Disease"
} | Congenital Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis | 0A
| Ans. is 'a' i.e., Congenital Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis o Biochemical abnormality in congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is a regular feature of AIIMS and AI examinations it has been repeated several times, o The biochemical abnormalities seen are:1. Hypokalemia2. Hypochloremia3. Alkalosis and4. Paradoxical aciduria | Surgery | Benign Gastric Disease |
A patient of depression who is on lithium therapy is diagnosed to have hypeension. Which of the following antihypeensive agent should be avoided in order to reduce the risk of lithium toxicity? | {
"A": "Methyldopa",
"B": "Beta blockers",
"C": "Calcium channel blockers",
"D": "Diuretics"
} | Diuretics | 3D
| Lithium generally should not be given with diuretics because they reduce its renal clearance and add a high risk of lithium toxicity. | Pharmacology | All India exam |
Winging of scapula is due to paralysis of nerve - | {
"A": "Long thoracic",
"B": "Axillary",
"C": "Radial",
"D": "Median"
} | Long thoracic | 0A
| Paralysis of serratus anterior presents with winging of scapula. Nerve to serratus anterior is also known as Long thoracic nerve. | Anatomy | None |
Full thickness flap is advantageous than partial thickness in all except | {
"A": "For large defects involving wide area",
"B": "Better esthetics",
"C": "Less shrinkage",
"D": "Better Colour matching"
} | For large defects involving wide area | 0A
| None | Dental | None |
Clathrin is associated with which of the following functions? | {
"A": "Pinocytosis",
"B": "Adhesion",
"C": "Coagulation",
"D": "None of the above"
} | Pinocytosis | 0A
| Clathrin-mediated endocytosis occurs at membrane indentations where the protein clathrin accumulates. Pinocystosis is endocytosis known as 'cell drinking'. Clathrin molecules have the shape of triskelions, with three "legs" radiating from a central hub. As endocytosis progresses, the clathrin molecules form a geometric array that surrounds the endocytotic vesicle. Ref: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology 23rd edition, Chapter 2. | Physiology | None |
Aconite poisoning causes all, EXCEPT: | {
"A": "Hypersalivation",
"B": "Tingling and numbness",
"C": "Increased BP",
"D": "Chest pain"
} | Increased BP | 2C
| Aconite poisoning is characterized by hypotension and hypeension. Tingling, numbness, hypersalivation and chest pain is usually seen in all cases of aconite poisoning. The aconite leaves when rubbed or handled on the skin, produces tingling and numbness. The eyes on exposed to pollen, becomes painful and swollen. It gives rise to gastro-intestinal symptoms like burning sensation of the mouth and stomach, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea and tingling sensation of the mouth, tongue and pharynx. The tingling and numbness then progresses all over the body. The general symptoms include pallor, giddiness, profuse sweating, headache and weakness. The neurological symptoms are dimness of vision, diplopia and hallucinations. The cardiovascular symptoms are hypotension, cardiac arrhythmia and AV block. Death occurs from paralysis of the cardiac centre and respiratory centre. Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology By Dr. K. S. Narayan Reddy, 27th Edition, Pages 551-552. | Forensic Medicine | None |
True statement | {
"A": "Embryonic peroid : 9-20 weeks",
"B": "Fertilization to implantation : 0-4 weeks",
"C": "Embryonic period : 4-8 weeks",
"D": "None"
} | Embryonic period : 4-8 weeks | 2C
| None | Anatomy | None |
Epinephrine act by stimulating: | {
"A": "Adenyl cyclase",
"B": "Phosohodiestaerse",
"C": "Phospholipase",
"D": "None"
} | Adenyl cyclase | 0A
| None | Pharmacology | None |
Most common site for fracture mandible: TN 11 | {
"A": "Condyle",
"B": "Angle",
"C": "Body",
"D": "Symphysis"
} | Condyle | 0A
| Ans. Condyle | Forensic Medicine | None |
A schizophrenic patient on antipsychotic drugs may develop the following side effect | {
"A": "Decreased prolactin",
"B": "Increased prolactin",
"C": "Hypeension",
"D": "Wakefullness"
} | Increased prolactin | 1B
| NAME OF THE TRACT LOCATION FUNCTION PROBLEMS WHEN BLOCKED Meso coical To prefrontal coex Controls attention, drive In patients with schizophrenia decreased dopamine in meso coical tract causes lack of drive, decreased attention Decreased attention, drive Worsens negative symptoms in schizophrenia Meso limbic To limbic system Control thoughts, emotions In patients with schizophrenia increased dopamine in mesolimbic tract causes delusions and hallucinations Decreases thoughts and emotions Improves positive symptoms in schizophrenia Nigro striatal To basal ganglia Smoothens and co-ordinates movements Extra pyramidal symptoms Tubero infundibular To hypothalamus Regulates prolactin Dopamine decreases prolactin Galactorrhea Amenorrhea Sexual dysfunctions Reference: Kaplon and sadock, 11 th edition, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 537 | Psychiatry | All India exam |
All have antioxidant property except - | {
"A": "Catalase",
"B": "Glutathione peroxidase",
"C": "Phosphorylase",
"D": "Superoxide dismutase"
} | Phosphorylase | 2C
| Ans, is 'c' i.e., Phosphorylase o There are two types of antioxidant systems:-1. Enzymatic antioxidant systemThis includeCatalaseSuperoxide dismutase (SOD)Glutathione peroxidase2. Non-enzymatic antioxidant systemThis is further subdivided intoVitamins : Vitamin E, Vitam in A & beta carotene, Vitamin C.Minerals : Selenium, Copper, Zinc, ManganeseTissue proteins : Transferrin, ferritin, lactoferrin, ceruloplasminAmino acids : Glutathione, Cysteine | Biochemistry | Miscellaneous (Enzymes) |
Multiphasis screening means - | {
"A": "Application of the two or more screening tests in combination at one time",
"B": "Application of two or more screening tests in combination at different time",
"C": "Application of two or more screening tests in combination at different geographical areas.",
"D": "Application of separate screening tests for different diseases"
} | Application of the two or more screening tests in combination at one time | 0A
| .it has been defined as the application of two or more screening tests in combination to a large number of people at one time than to carry out seperate screening tests for single diseases.the procedure may also include a health questionnaire,clinical examination,and a range of measurements.and investigations.all of which can be performed rapidly with the appropriate staffing organization and equipment..it has increased the cost of health services without any observable benefit. ref:park&;s textbook ,22 nd edition,pg no 129 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Screening |
Granulation tissue comprises of: | {
"A": "Fibroblasts",
"B": "Small blood vessels",
"C": "Macrophages",
"D": "All of the above"
} | All of the above | 3D
| The combination of proliferating fibroblasts, loose connective tissue, new blood vessels and scattered chronic inflammatory cells, forms a type of tissue that is unique to healing wounds and is called granulation tissue. This term derives from its pink, soft, granular gross appearance, such as that seen beneath the scab of a skin wound.
Robbins Pathology 10th ed page no 90 | Pathology | None |
A major factor determining the efficiency of bur is | {
"A": "Taper angle",
"B": "Spiral angle",
"C": "Head length",
"D": "Head diameter"
} | Spiral angle | 1B
| None | Dental | None |
Measure of risk calculated from case-control study is - | {
"A": "Odds ratio",
"B": "Relative risk",
"C": "Attributable risk",
"D": "Population attributable risk"
} | Odds ratio | 0A
| It's the measure of the strength of association between risk factor and outcome The disease being investigated must be relatively rare The cases must be representative of those with the disease The controls must be representatives of those without the disease Ref: 25th edition, Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, Page no. 81 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Epidemiology |
Foreign body from trachea most common goes to right bronchus due to ? | {
"A": "Right bronchus shallow",
"B": "Wider & in continuous line with trachea",
"C": "Right bronchus is longer",
"D": "Right bronchus is horizontal"
} | Wider & in continuous line with trachea | 1B
| Trachea bifurcates at Carina (at lower border of T4 veebra at T4-T5 disc space) into right and left principal (primary) bronchi. Right principal bronchus is wider, shoer (2.5 cm long), and more veical in the line of trachea (25deg with median plane). Therefore a foreign body is most likely to lodge in the right bronchus. | Anatomy | None |
Regarding Anti-mullerian hormone true is all except | {
"A": "It causes regression of ipsilateral paramesonephric duct.",
"B": "Controls rapid gubernacular growth necessary for transabdominal descent of testis.",
"C": "AMH levels in women reflect ovarian follicle reserve.",
"D": "AMH is secreted by Leydig cells."
} | AMH is secreted by Leydig cells. | 3D
| AMH is secreted by sertoli cells. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | None |
60 year female with tense bulla in lower extremity and subepidermal bullous lesion on microscopy, diagnosis is- | {
"A": "Bullous pemphigoid",
"B": "Pemphigus vulgaris",
"C": "Erythema multiforme",
"D": "Dermatitis herpetiformis"
} | Bullous pemphigoid | 0A
| Ans. is 'a' i.e., Bullous pemphgoid Important differential diagnosis of vesiculo bullous disordersVesicle / Bullae Itching presentNo or minimal Itching o Moderate ItchingPain absentPain presento Intense Itching|||||Papulovesicular lesions on normal or erythmatous baseonExtensors (knee, elbows), scapular region, buttocks, shoulder and sacral areaTense bullae on erythematous baseonLower part of body eg. lower abdomen, inner thigh, groins, intertiginous areao TenseVesicle / bullae surrounding central erythema, erythematous halo (Target lesion)onface, acral partso FlaccidVesicle / bullae onUpper part of body(face, scalp, trunk & necko Painful rash with vesicles along the distribution of a nerve (dermatome)o Rash is unilateralo Suggestive featuresy Age - 20-40 yrsy B/L symmetric distributiony Mucous membrane involvement - rarey Nickolsky's sign (-)vey IgA in dermal papilla along basement membraneo Suggestive featuresy Sub epidermal bullaey Age - 60-80 yrsy Acantholysis absenty B/L symmetric distributiony Mucous membrane not involvedy Nikolsky's sign (-)vey C3 & IgG along basement membrane (DEJ)o Suggestive featuresy Age - children & youngy Oral mucosa in 20%y Starts acutelyy Bilateral symmetricaly Lasts < 2 weeksy H/O precipitating factors (Drug, infection, UV radiation)o Suggestive featuresy Intraepidermal bullaey Age -> 30-60 yrsy Acantholysis (+) vey Assy metric distributiony Involvement of mucous membraney Nikolsky rs sign (+)vey IgG within epidermal intercellular substanceo Suggestive featuresy Age 45-70 yrsy History of pain, fever before the appearance of vesicley Rash appears before vesiclesy H/O chicken pox in childhood|||||Dermatitis herpetiformisBullous pemphigoidErythema multiformePemphigus vulgarisHerpes zosterNote - Acral parts - Palms, soles, dorsuin of hands & feet & distal parts of forearms & legs. | Skin | Pemphigoid Group |
Highest pH of the given Root end conditioning material is of: | {
"A": "Citric acid.",
"B": "Doxycycline.",
"C": "EDTA.",
"D": "None."
} | EDTA. | 2C
| citric acid pH=1.
Doxycycline pH= 1.8
EDTA pH= 7.3 | Dental | None |
Hallucinations, psychosis, hypertension, and tachycardia are adverse effects typically associated with which of the following narcotics: | {
"A": "Morphine",
"B": "Meperidine",
"C": "Pentazocine",
"D": "Buprenorphine"
} | Pentazocine | 2C
| None | Pharmacology | None |
Alcohol dehydrogenase is a/an - | {
"A": "Transferase",
"B": "Hydrolase",
"C": "Ligase",
"D": "Oxidoreductase"
} | Oxidoreductase | 3D
| Ans. is 'd' i.e., Oxidoreductase o Alcohol dehydrogenase is a NAD-linked dehydrogenase (oxidoreductase)o It catalyzes the oxidation of ethanol to acetaldehyde. | Biochemistry | Mechanisms of Enzyme Action |
In children, which of the following congenital hea disease presents with absence of sinus arrhythmia? | {
"A": "Fallot's tetralogy",
"B": "PDA",
"C": "ASD",
"D": "Ebstein's anomaly"
} | ASD | 2C
| Sinus arrhythmia is a cyclic increase in normal hea rate with inspiration and decrease with expiration. It results from reflex changes in vagal influence on the normal pacemaker and disappears with breath holding, or increase of hea rate. It has no clinical significance. It is common in both the young and the elderly. ASD is found in approximately 6% of children with congenital hea disease who survive beyond the first year of life. After bicuspid aoic valve, it is the most common form of congenital hea disease among adults. ASDs have a female-to-male ratio of approximately 2:1. The mode of transmission is best explained in most instances on a multifactorial basis, in which the risk would be approximately 2.5% for first-degree relatives of a single affected family member In a child with Large ASD the filling of the two ventricles remains constant throughout the respiration cycle. Hence sinus arrhythmia is absent or slight and this therefore is a sign of ASD. Ref: rown D.W., Fulton D.R. (2011). Chapter 83. Congenital Hea Disease in Children and Adolescents. In V. Fuster, R.A. Walsh, R.A. Harrington (Eds), Hurst's The Hea, 13e. | Pediatrics | None |
Emergence or reemergence seen in which of the following organisms - | {
"A": "Polio virus",
"B": "Measles virus",
"C": "Nipah virus",
"D": "West Nile virus"
} | Nipah virus | 2C
| <p> Nipah virus is a new infectious disease recognised in 1999. Emerging infectious diseases are those whose incidence in humans has increased during the last two decades or which threaten to increase in the near future. Reference:Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,K.Park,23rd edition,page no:355-357. <\p> | Social & Preventive Medicine | Communicable diseases |
Most cardiotoxic local anesthetic agent is? | {
"A": "Lignocaine",
"B": "Procaine",
"C": "Mepivacaine",
"D": "Bupivacaine"
} | Bupivacaine | 3D
| Ans is 'd' i.e. Bupivacaine * Bupivacaine is the most cardiotoxic local anesthetic.* Levobupivacaine (The S(-) enantiomer of bupivacaine) is less cardiotoxic and less prone to cause seizure.Other important information about Bupivacaine (Sensoricaine, Marcaine)* Bupivacaine is 2nd most commonly used local anesthetic (after lidocaine).* Bupivacaine has the highest local tissue irritancy amongst local anesthetics.* Concentrations used for bupivacaine are : - Nerve block : 0.5%, Epidural: 0.25 - 0.5 % (WB 98)> and spinal : 0.5%.* Maximum safe dose is 2 mg/kg without adrenaline and 3mg/kg with epinephrine. | Anaesthesia | Local and Regional Anesthesia |
Peroxidases belong to which enzyme group? | {
"A": "Oxidase-Reductase",
"B": "Lipase",
"C": "Hydrolase",
"D": "Transferase"
} | Oxidase-Reductase | 0A
| Ans. (a) Oxidase-ReductaseOxidoreductase enzyme groups can be remembered by mnemonic DOOP* Dehydrogenases* Oxidases* Oxygenases* Peroxidases | Biochemistry | Vitamins and Minerals |
In which type of ptosis the amount of ptosis decreases with mouth opening | {
"A": "Blepharophimosis syndrome",
"B": "Marcus gunn ptosis",
"C": "Myogenic ptosis",
"D": "Neurogenic ptosis"
} | Marcus gunn ptosis | 1B
| Marcus Gunn Jaw Ptosis (congenital synkinetic ptosis) In this condition there occurs retraction of the ptotic lid with jaw movements, because with stimulation of ipsilateral pterygoid muscle the levator palpebrae is also stimulated due to trigemino occulomotor synkinesis In the picture look that on opening of the jaw, ptosis has improved, this is typically marcus jaw winking phenomenon. | Ophthalmology | Lacrimal Apparatus and Eyelid Disorders |
Primordial Germ cell develops from? | {
"A": "Chorion",
"B": "Amnion",
"C": "Yolk sac",
"D": "Cord blood"
} | Yolk sac | 2C
| ANSWER: (C) Yolk sacREF: Embryology by Ramesh Mathur,Meenakshi Mehta page-38, Color atlas of embryology by Ulrich Drews page 15"In mammalian embryo, including man, the primordial germ cells apparently arise from the en do dermal layer near the yolk sac"'Germ cells arise in the embryonic yolk sac, differentiate in the gonads and pass on the genome as gametes" | Anatomy | Fertilization and Development of Embryo |
Which of the following treatments is appropriate for tall peaked T waves, on ECG? | {
"A": "Atropine IV",
"B": "Nitroprusside IV",
"C": "Inhaled Salbutamol",
"D": "Inhaled betamethasone"
} | Inhaled Salbutamol | 2C
| Tall or peaked T waves could be caused by hyperkalemia Salbutamol selectively produces Beta2 agonism decreasing the levels of potassium. It has an additive effect with insulin and glucose, which may in turn help shift potassium into the intracellular space. This agent lowers the serum potassium level by 0.5-1.5 mEq/L Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed. | Pharmacology | Cardiovascular system |
In cases of swelling in testes, investigation of choice: | {
"A": "FNAC",
"B": "CT",
"C": "USG",
"D": "MRI"
} | USG | 2C
| Ans. (c) USGRef: Campbell Urology 11th Edition, Page 790* Scrotal USG is IOC for testicular pathology. With high frequency transducers (5 to 10 MHz) intra testicular lesions can be identified and readily distinguished from extra testicular pathology. | Surgery | Urethra & Penis |
Health care worker is - | {
"A": "X-ray technician",
"B": "Hospital electrical engineer",
"C": "Staff nurse",
"D": "All of the above"
} | All of the above | 3D
| Ans. is 'd' i.e., AH of the above o Health care workers (HCWs) refers to all people delivering health care services, including students, trainees, loboratory staff and mortuary attendants, who have direct contact with patients or with a patient's blood or body substances.o Health care workers work in a hospital or health centre.o HCWs include doctors, dentists, nurses, health care students, assistants (lab assistants, X-ray technicians etc), health care assistants (OT assistant, lab assistants etc), emergency personal (fire, ambulance and volunteer first aid worker), maintenance engineers, cleaning staff and central sterile supply staff. (The list is still incomplete). | Social & Preventive Medicine | Community Healthcare |
Features of right side carcinoma colon are
I. Obstruction
II. Altered bowel habit
III. Anemia
IV. Melena | {
"A": "1 only",
"B": "1 and 2",
"C": "3 and 4",
"D": "2, 3 and 4"
} | 3 and 4 | 2C
| Right sided Ca. Bleeds ( melena) causing anemia. | Surgery | None |
Soot in trachea is a sign of? | {
"A": "Postmortem burns",
"B": "Cyanide poisoning",
"C": "Antemortem burns",
"D": "CO poisoning"
} | Cyanide poisoning | 1B
| Soot in external respiratory passages could be due to antemortem or postmortem burn. But if soot is seen deep in trachea, it is a sign of antemortem burn. | Forensic Medicine | None |
True statement regarding purkinje fibres:September 2009, March 2013 | {
"A": "Are myelinated fibres",
"B": "Have action potential about a tenth as long as those in the hea muscle",
"C": "Have conduction velocity of four times than that of the hea muscle",
"D": "All of the above"
} | Have conduction velocity of four times than that of the hea muscle | 2C
| Ans. C: Have conduction velocity of four times than that of the hea muscleConduction rate is 4 m/s in purkinje fibers whereas it is 1 m/s in ventricular muscles, atrial pathways and Bundle of His. SA Node and AV Node has a conduction speed of 0.05 m/s | Physiology | None |
Keratoconus is defined as: March 2013 (h) | {
"A": "Degeneration of conjunctiva",
"B": "Cornea undergoes necrosis due to vitamin A deficiency",
"C": "Cornea thins near the centre & bulges forwards",
"D": "Recurrent corneal ulcerations of cornea"
} | Cornea thins near the centre & bulges forwards | 2C
| Ans. C i.e. Cornea thins near the centre & bulges forwards | Ophthalmology | None |
A 7 yrs old child has conservative behavior, not playing quitely with peers, and difficulty in organization. He also interrupts others in school and easily gets distracted. Which of the foiling is likely diagnosis? | {
"A": "Learning disorder",
"B": "Autistic disorder",
"C": "Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder",
"D": "Conduct disorder"
} | Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder | 2C
| Ans. C. ADHD. (Ref: Kaplan & Sadock's Synopsis of Psychiatry, Xth/Ch.43, Page no, 1208.)A 7-year-old child has conservative behavior, not playing quietly with peers, and difficulty in organization. He also interrupts others in school and easily gets distracted. The most likely diagnosis is ADHD (Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder).Kaplan, pg. 576............"Excessive motor activity, usually with intrusive and annoying qualities, poor sustained attention, difficulties inhibiting impulsive behaviors in social situations and on cognitive tasks, and difficulties with peers are the main characteristics of ADHD, combined type. Symptoms must be present in two or more settings (in this case, home and school) and must cause significant impairment. The Rx of choice for ADHD is CNS stimulants, primarily detroamphetamine, methylphenidate, and pemoline.**.Discussion:Conduct disorder# Children with conduct disorder display a persistent disregard for rules and other people's rights that lasts at least one year.# Aggression toward people and animals, destruction of property, deceit and illegal activities, and frequent truancy from school are the main characteristics of the disorder.# Patients with antisocial personality disorder display a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others since the age of 15 years, with evidence of a conduct disorder before age 15. Substance abuse is just one facet of conduct disorder.# Children with oppositional defiant disorder are problematic and rebellious but do not routinely engage in aggressive, destructive, or illegal activities.Autistic disorder# Autistic disorder is characterized by lack of interest in social interactions, severely impaired verbal and nonverbal communication, stereotyped behaviors, and a very restricted range of interests.# Children with autism do not involve themselves in imaginative and imitative play and can spend hours lining and spinning things or dismantling toys and putting them together.# Patients with obsessive-compulsive disorder may spend hours on repetitive tasks (such as lining up toys) but do not show the difficulties with language and social interaction that this patient displays.# Patients with Asperger's syndrome show no clinically significant delay in spoken or receptive language development, making this diagnosis unlikely.# Patients with Rett's disorder by the age of 5 would be expected to have microcephaly and a disordered gait (unsteady and stiff).Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorderOnset before age 12. Limited attention span and poor impulse control. Characterized by hyperactivity, impulsivity, and/or inattention in multiple settings (school, home, places of worship, etc.). Normal intelligence, but commonly coexists with difficulties in school. Continues into adulthood in as many as 50% of individuals. Associated with*frontal lobe volume/ metabolism. Treatment: methylphenidate, amphetamines, atomoxetine, behavioral interventions (reinforcement, reward).Conduct disorderRepetitive and pervasive behavior violating the basic rights of others (e.g,, physical aggression, destruction of property, theft). After age 18, many of these patients will meet criteria for diagnosis of antisocial personality disorder.Oppositional defiant disorderEnduring pattern of hostile, defiant behavior toward authority figures in the absence of serious violations of social norms.Tourette syndromeOnset before age 18. Characterized by sudden, rapid, recurrent, nonrhythmic, stereotyped motor and vocal tics that persist for > 1 year. Lifetime prevalence of 0.1-1.0% in the general population. Coprolalia (involuntary obscene speech) found in only 10-20% of patients. Associated with OCD and ADHD. Treatment: antipsychotics and behavioral therapy.Separation anxiety disorderCommon onset at 7-9 years. Overwhelming fear of separation from home or loss of attachment figure. May lead to factitious physical complaints to avoid going to or staying at school. Treatment: SSRIs and relaxation techniques/behavioral interventions. | Psychiatry | Child Psychiatry |
In DNA, Adenine pairs with | {
"A": "Guanine",
"B": "Thymine",
"C": "Cytosine",
"D": "Uracil"
} | Thymine | 1B
| Adenine is always paired with thymine by formation of two hydrogen bonds. Guanine is always paired with cytosine by formation of three hydrogen bonds. | Biochemistry | None |
Man is intermediate host of - | {
"A": "Kala azar",
"B": "Filariasis",
"C": "Hydatid cyst",
"D": "All of the above"
} | Hydatid cyst | 2C
| Man as INTERMEDIATE HOST: (mnemonic: PET) Plasmodium Echinococcus granulosus (Hydatid cyst) Toxoplasma gondii In Tinea solium man may be intermediate or definitive Host. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Environment and health |
All are used for treating Pulmonary hypeension except: | {
"A": "Endothelin receptor antagonists",
"B": "Phosphodiesterase inhibitors",
"C": "Calcium Channel Blockers",
"D": "Beta blockers"
} | Beta blockers | 3D
| Beta blockers Repeat .from May10 Q no.69 | Surgery | None |
Interpret the following chest Xray | {
"A": "PDA",
"B": "Pericardial effusion",
"C": "Constrictive pericarditis",
"D": "Emphysema"
} | Pericardial effusion | 1B
| . | Radiology | All India exam |
Regarding HRCT, all are true except - | {
"A": "Means high reconstruction CT imaging",
"B": "Has narrow beam collimation",
"C": "Investigation of choice for interstitial lung disease",
"D": "Has small field of vision"
} | Means high reconstruction CT imaging | 0A
| HRCT means High Resolution CT Principles of HRCT : Thin collimation (1-2 mm) High frequency reconstruction algorithm (Eg : Bone algorithm). | Radiology | Fundamentals in Radiology |
NADP is not needed in: | {
"A": "Steroid synthesis",
"B": "Urea synthesis",
"C": "Fatty acid synthesis",
"D": "Reduced glutathione synthesis"
} | Urea synthesis | 1B
| Ans: b (Urea synthesis) Ref: Lippincott, 23th ed, p. 145; Vasudevan, 4th ed, p. 284; 5th ed, p. 181NADPH uses:Fatty acid synthesisSources of NADPH:Cholesterol synthesisGeneration of superoxide in phagocytosisNucleotide synthesisGlutathione reductionSynthesis of spingolipids. steroidsPhenyl alanine to tyrosineMet Hb to HbUronic acid pathwayDrug metabolismHMP shunt.Malic enzyme (malate to pyruvate).Cytoplasmic isocitrate dehydrogenase.6- Phosphogluconate dehydrogenase in the shunt pathway.(Glucose-6 Po4 - 6- Phosphogluconolactone) | Biochemistry | Miscellaneous (Bio-Chemistry) |
Which of the following structure are not normally visualized during the ahroscopy of the knee? | {
"A": "Meniscus",
"B": "Cruciate ligaments",
"C": "Collateral ligaments",
"D": "Patella aicular surface"
} | Collateral ligaments | 2C
| Ans. is 'c' i.e., Collateral ligaments The following structures are visualized during the knee ahroscopy :- i) Medial and lateral meniscus ii) Anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments iii) Knee aicular cailage iv) Patello - femoral joint v) Loose bodies in joint | Surgery | None |
Which of the following is not a 2 way communication – | {
"A": "Lectures",
"B": "Group discussion",
"C": "Panel discussion",
"D": "Symposium"
} | Lectures | 0A
| Communication
Communication is a process of transferring information from one source to another.
There are following types of communication :-
1. One-way communication (Didactic method)
One way communication is one in which information is always transferred in only one preassigned direction, i.e. from communicator to the audience.
Example - Lectures, demonstration, mass media communication (TV, radio, internet).
2. Two-way communication (Socratic method)
It is method of communication in which both the communicator and the audience take part and the information is transferred in both direction.
Examples →Group discussion, Panel discussion, symposium, workshop, conferences.
Verbal communication → communication by words of mouth.
Non-verbal communication → communication without words, by whole range of bodily movements, postures, gestures, facial expressions (e.g. smiling, frown).
Formal and informal education
Follows lines of authority → Formal communication.
From channels that fall outside the formal communication → informal (grape-vine) communication.
Visual communication → charts, graphs, tables etc.
Telecommunication and internet → Telecommunication is the process of communication over distance using electromagnetic instruments designed for the purpose.
Examples → Radio, TV and internet. | Social & Preventive Medicine | None |
All are primary level of prevention EXCEPT: March 2013 (e) | {
"A": "Installation of sanitary latrines",
"B": "Immunization",
"C": "Provision of safe water",
"D": "Mass treatment"
} | Mass treatment | 3D
| Ans. D i.e. Mass treatment Primary prevention It refers to: - Health promotion, which fosters wellness in general and thus reduces the likelihood of disease, disability, and premature death in a nonspecific manner, as well as - Specific protection against the inception of disease. Examples of the former include the: -- Promotion of physical activity and prudent dietary practices; - Smoking avoidance or cessation; and the - Mitigation of stress. Immunization is a clear example of the latter. | Social & Preventive Medicine | None |
Eustachian tube opens into middle ear cavity at- | {
"A": "Anterior walls",
"B": "Hypotympanum",
"C": "Superior surface",
"D": "Posterior wall"
} | Anterior walls | 0A
| The tympanic end of the eustachian tube is bony and is situated in the anterior wall of middle ear. The pharyngeal end of the tube is slit like and is situated in the lateral wall of the nasopharynx, 1–1.25 cm behind the posterior end of inferior tubinate.Q
Ref. Dhingra 6/e, p 5, 5/e, p 6; Scott Brown 7/e, Vol. III p 3114 Fig. 225.13 | ENT | None |
The taste sensation to anterior two thirds of the tongue is carried by: | {
"A": "Hypoglossal nerve",
"B": "Vagus nerve",
"C": "Glossopharyngeal nerve",
"D": "Facial nerve"
} | Facial nerve | 3D
| None | Dental | None |
Which is not a premalignant condition? | {
"A": "Bowens disease",
"B": "Leukoplakia",
"C": "Acanthosisnigricans",
"D": "Solar keratosis"
} | Acanthosisnigricans | 2C
| ANSWER: (C) Acanthosis nigricansREF: Das text book of surgery 3rd edition page 104Premalignant conditions of oral cavity:LeukoplakiaErythroplakiaChronic hyperplastic candidiasisOral sub mucosal fibrosisSyphillitic glossitisSideropenic dysphagiaPremalignant condition of squamous cell carcinoma of skin:Bowen's diseaseSenile keratosisXeroderma pigmentosaSolar/actinic keratosisLong standing chronic ulcerLupus vulgaris | Surgery | Miscellaneous (Neoplasia) |
All the following are true about multiple myeloma except: | {
"A": "Osteolytic bone disease",
"B": "t(8-14) translocation",
"C": "Light chain proliferation",
"D": "Bence-Jones proteins in urine"
} | t(8-14) translocation | 1B
| Answer is B (t (8-14) translocation) A variety of chromosomal alterations have been found in patients with Multiple myeloma. The most common translocation is t (11; 14) (q 13; q32). 13q14 deletions and 17p13 deletions and 11 q abnormalities predominate. Translocation 1(8-14) has not been mentioned. Complete Immunoglobulin chain comprises of both heavy chains and light chains. But in Multiple myeloma there is excess production of light chains e over heavy chains. These light chains are eliminated in urine as Bence Jones proteinQ Protein cast in urine are thus made up of light chains only Q (not complete immunoglobulin chains). Bone lesions in multiple myeloma are lytic in nature and are rarely associated with osteoblastic new bone formation.' - Harrison. Bone lesions in MM are caused by the proliferation of tumor cells and activation of osteoclasts that destroy the bone. 'Bone pain is the most common symptom in MM affecting 70% of patients Q'-Harrison | Medicine | None |
Creeping fat is characteristic of which of the following Gastrointestinal pathology ? | {
"A": "Cllcerative colitis",
"B": "Crohn's disease",
"C": "Celiac disease",
"D": "Whipples disease"
} | Crohn's disease | 1B
| Mesenteric fat wrapping around the circumferance of the intestine is called creeping fat. It is pathognomonic of Crohns disease. | Pathology | None |
BRCA 1 gene is located on ? | {
"A": "Chromosome 13",
"B": "Chromosome 11",
"C": "Chromosome 17",
"D": "Chromosome 22"
} | Chromosome 17 | 2C
| Chromosome 17 Repeat from May 11 BRCA-1 is located on chromosome 17q21 (Long arm of chromosome 17 at position 21). BRCA -2 is located on chromosome 13812 Read more .from May 11 | Pathology | None |