instruction
stringclasses 1
value | input
stringlengths 32
1.6k
| output
stringlengths 0
140k
|
|---|---|---|
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Culture media for Legionella: and explain in detail? | Buffered charcoal, yeast extract (BCYE) agar- Legionellae are highly fastidious and grow on complex media, such as BCYE agar (pH 6.8- 6.9) Plates are incubated al 37 degree Celsius in 5% CO2 for 3-5 days. Colonies are round with an entire edge, glistening, convex, green or pink iridescent and have granular or speckled opalescence resembling ground glass. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Children born to mothers with systemic lupus erythematosis are likely to have one of the following anomalies - and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Complete hea block o Maternal lupus erythmatosus has been associated with a high incidence of congenital hea block in offspring. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Agoraphobia treated with and explain in detail? | A i.e. Systemic desensitization; B i.e. Psychodynamic therapy; C i.e. Exposure therapy |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Oligohydramnios is seen in ail except: and explain in detail? | Rh incompatibility |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Prevalance of cataract at one point of time can be determined by: and explain in detail? | Ans is 'b' i.e. Cross-sectional study RepeatCross-sectional or Prevalence study - in cross-sectional studies, we 'survey' several individuals at one point in time and collect information on health status, health-related behaviour, and other exposure factors. In this way we can estimate the burden of disease in a group of individuals and try to estimate whether a particular exposure is linked to a disease or health outcome. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Ramu, a 40 years old male, a chronic smoker presents with claudication and a medial leg ulcer. For the past one month, he is having rest pain. Which of the following procedures would not relieve his rest pain - and explain in detail? | This patient is suffering from Buergers ds (also k/a Thromboangitis obliterans)
Buergers ds is characterized by occlusive disease of the small and medium-sized arteries* (planters, tibialis and radial artery), thrombophlebitis of the superficial or deep veins and Raynaud's syndrome.
As Buerger's disease involves the arteries beyond the popliteal artery, there would be no help from a femoropopliteal bypass. It is helpful if the artery is blocked proximally as in atherosclerosis.
Not only femoro-popliteal bypass operation but any vascular reconstructive operation is not feasible in Buerger's ds, because the involvement of the small vessels of the extremity makes it difficult to locate suitable outflow sites for bypass grafts.
Treatment of Buergers ds
Stop smoking
Sympathectomy → is used with some success.
Amputation → is the only way out when gangrene occurs.
Free omental graft → Microvascular transplantation of free omental grafts to areas not
amenable to arterial reconstruction has been successfully tried.
It appears that conservative amputation should not be used in this pt. who does not have gangrene, but a femoro-popliteal bypass has no role whatsoever and is the better answer out of the two options. Amputation can be used to relieve the patient of persisting rest pain. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is All are true about Hypothyroidism except and explain in detail? | Congenital hypothyroidism is characterized by growth retardation, delayed skeletal maturation,dental development,myopathy,widened fontanelle,umbilical hernia ,large abdomen,large tongue,pallor,hypotonia. Reference: Ghai essential of pediatrics, eighth edition, p.no:517,table 17.6 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is If the external causes are removed, the sleep-wake cycle in humans? and explain in detail? | Ans. d. Continue with cycle length of more than 24 hours (Ref: R L Bijlani 4/e p730; Principle of Neural Science by Kandel 4/e p936)If the external causes are removed, the sleep-wake cycle in humans continue with cycle length of more than 24 hours."The sleep-wakefulness cycle follows a 24-hour, or circadian rhythm, and is related to the light-dark cycle. If the external cues in the form of light and darkness are removed, the sleep-wakefulness cycle still remains circadian although it has a tendency to lengthen to 25-30 hours."- R L Bijlani 4/e p730Sleep-wake cycleSleep and wakefulness have a circadian periodicity of about 24 hours.Sleep-wake cycle, like other circadian rhythms, is endogenous.The biological or the internal clock controlling the circadian rhythms is the suprachiasmatic nucleus of the anterior hypothalamus.The circadian rhythms are endogenous and can persist without environmental cues: however, under normal circumstances the rhythms are modulated by external timing cues (called 'zeitgeher's or time givers) that adapt the rhythm to the environment.Sunlight is a powerful external timing cue.Light entrains this rhythm by means of the retino-hypothalmic tract, a pathway from the retina to the suprachiasmatic tract, a pathway from the retina to the suprachiasmatic nucleus of the hypothalamus.The sleep-wakefulness cycle follows a 24-hour, or circadian rhythm, and is related to the light-dark cycleQ.If the external cues in the form of light and darkness are removed, the sleep-wakefulness cycle still remains circadian although it has a tendency to lengthen to 25-30 hoursQ. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Median nerve lesion at the wrist causes all of the following.except ? and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Weakness of Adductor pollicis Adductor pollicis is supplied by ulnar nerve. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is The mother of a 5-year-old patient is concerned about the child’s thumb-sucking habit. Six months ago, the patient had 5-mm overjet and a 3-mm anterior open bite. Today, the patient has 10% overbite and 3.5-mm overjet. The mother says that the child only sucks his thumb every night when falling to sleep. Of the following, which is the best advice? and explain in detail? | The patient’s overbite/overjet improved from the previous examination and therefore it is likely that the patient’s digit-sucking habit had decreased significantly. The mother did state that the patient only sucks his thumb while falling asleep. When digit-sucking occurs for a limited time per day, not only is tooth movement normally associated with digit-sucking unlikely, it is possible for teeth to return to a more normalized position. Remember that the risk of malocclusion as related to habitual activity is a function of amount of time per day the habit is practiced, the duration of the habit in terms of weeks and months, and the intensity of the habit. Because the occlusion seems to be improving and because the habit has significantly decreased, the best treatment is to counsel the parent regarding thumb-sucking, and recall the patient in 3 months. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is TRUE statement regarding Kugel's anastomotic aery and explain in detail? | Kugel's aery - come from proximal circumflex aery & reach distal pa of right coronary aery (have variations) - help in emergencies AERIAL SUPPLY OF HEA:- There are left & right coronary aeries which are coming from ascending aoa.- Ascending aoa have 3 coronary sinuses- Right coronary aery - from right coronary sinus of ascending aoa- Left coronary aery - from left coronary sinus - Left coronary aery divides into * Left anterior descending aery/ Anterior Inter-ventricular aery running on & supplying anterior interventricular septum- Circumflex aery (around & behind hea) which anastomose with right coronary aery.- Though, they do have anastomosis anatomically, physiologically they are not going to help each other.- Kugel's aery - come from proximal circumflex aery & reach distal pa of right coronary aery (have variations) - help in emergencies * Some times; connected to coronary venous sinus of hea forming aeriovenous anastomosis |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Variegate porphyria and explain in detail? | Variegate porphyria, also known by several other names, is an autosomal dominant porphyria that can have acute (severe but usually not long-lasting) symptoms along with symptoms that affect the skin. The disorder results from low levels of the enzyme responsible for the seventh step in heme production. Heme is a vital molecule for all of the bodys organs. It is a component of hemoglobin, the molecule that carries oxygen in the blood.
Signs and symptoms
When symptoms occur, they can include acute attacks (similar to acute intermittent porphyria) or skin damage. Acute attacks usually begin in adulthood and cause abdominal pain, vomiting, diarrhoea and constipation. During an attack, a person may also experience muscle weakness, seizures, and mental changes such as anxiety and hallucinations. These signs and symptoms are triggered by nongenetic factors such as certain drugs, dieting or fasting, certain hormones and stress.Some people with variegate porphyria have skin that is overly sensitive to sunlight (photosensitive). Areas of skin exposed to the sun develop severe blistering, scarring, changes in pigmentation, and increased hair growth. Exposed skin becomes fragile and is easily damaged.Rarely, the signs and symptoms of variegate porphyria can begin in infancy or early childhood. In such cases, the signs and symptoms are usually more severe than those starting later in life.
Genetics
Mutations in the PPOX gene cause variegate porphyria. The PPOX gene makes a membrane bound mitochondrial enzyme called protoporphyrinogen oxidase, which is critical to the chemical process that leads to heme production |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is The best prognosis in carcinoma stomach is with and explain in detail? | Ca stomach may be divided into 5 morphological subtypes, that correlates loosely with the natural history and outcome.
Ulcerating Ca
Polypoidal Ca
Superficial spreading Ca
also known as early gastric cancer, superficial ca is confined to mucosa and submucosa.
these cancers have excellent prognosis (-90% 5 year survival rate) after resection
Linitis plastica or Scirrhous Ca
these tumors infiltrate the entire thickness of the stomach and cover a very large surface area, commonly involve the entire stomach. Marked desmoplastic reaction is noted, the stomach loses its pliability.
it has the worst prognosis of all types as spread is early.
Advanced carcinoma
this largest category contains the big tumors that are found partly within and partly outside the stomach. They may originally have qualified for inclusion in one of the preceding groups but have outgrown that early stage. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is A patient diagnosed as having ventilator associated pneumonia, is on treatment with ceftriaxone and amikacin. Culture and sensitivity turned out to be positive for ESBL producing Klebsiella infection. The most appropriate next action should be: and explain in detail? | Klebsiella organisms are resistant to multiple antibiotics. This is thought to be a plasmid-mediated propey. Length of hospital stay and performance of invasive procedures are risk factors for acquisition of these strains. Treatment depends on the organ system involved. In general, initial therapy of patients with possible bacteremia is empirical. The choice of a specific antimicrobial agent depends on local susceptibility patterns. Once bacteremia is confirmed, treatment may be modified. Agents with high intrinsic activity against K pneumoniae should be selected for severely ill patients. Examples of such agents include third-generation cephalosporins (eg, cefotaxime, ceftriaxone), carbapenems (eg, imipenem/cilastatin), aminoglycosides (eg, gentamicin, amikacin), and quinolones. These agents may be used as monotherapy or combination therapy. Some expes recommend using a combination of an aminoglycoside and a third-generation cephalosporin as treatment for non-ESBL-producing isolates. Others disagree and recommend monotherapy. Aztreonam may be used in patients who are allergic to beta-lactam antibiotics. Quinolones are also effective treatment options for susceptible isolates in patients with either carbapenem allergy or major beta-lactam allergy. Other antibiotics used to treat susceptible isolates include ampicillin/sulbactam, piperacillin/tazobactam, ticarcillin/clavulanate, ceftazidime, cefepime, levofloxacin, norfloxacin, moxifloxacin, meropenem, and eapenem. Treatment of Klebsiella pneumonia has discrepant results. For patients with severe infections, a clinically prudent approach is the use of an initial sho course (48-72 h) of combination therapy with an aminoglycoside, followed by a switch to an extended-spectrum cephalosporin when susceptibility is confirmed. REFERENCE: www.medscape.com |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which of the following is false about portal vein? and explain in detail? | Portal vein ascends behind the first part of the duodenum.
Other options are correct. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Patient has loss of sensation at angle of mandible and parotid area. Which of the following nerve is most likely to be injured and explain in detail? | Angle of mandible is supplied by great auricular nerve (C23) Tip of nose is supplied by ophthalmic division of trigeminal and side and alae of nose is supplied by maxillary division of trigeminal nerve
The skin of face is supplied by three division of trigeminal nerve, except for the small area over the angle of mandible and paotied gland which is supplied by great auricular nerve (C2, C3) |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is True statements about P53. gene are all except ? and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Wild/non-mutated form is associated with increased risk of child-hood tumorsIt is mutated form (not non mutated form) of p53 which is associated with increased risk of tumors.o p53 gene is a tumor suppressor gene and non-mutated form of this gene prevent development of malignancy by :(i) Causing cell cycle arrest in late GI phase(ii) Inducing apoptosis(iii) Helping in DNA repairo Mutation in p53 gene causes inactivation of p53 gene and abolishen of above function that results in uncontrolled proliferation of cells and malignant transformation.o Mutation in p53 gene is the most common genetic alteration found in human Cancer.o The name p53 is in reference to its apparent molecular mass; it runs as a 53 kilodalton (Kda) protein on SDS-page. But based on calculations from its amino acid residues, p53 's mass is actually only 43.7 K Da.Following information have been added in P/e of Robbin'so p53 prevents neoplastic transformation by three interlocking mechanisms : ?1. Activation of temporary cell cycle arrest (quiescence)o It is considered as the primordial response to DNA damage.o p53 causes arrest in late GI through p2 I .o This is temporary arrest that gives the cell "breathing time" to repair DNA damage.o After DNA repair, cell cycle block is relieved by MDM-3 which degrades p53.2. Induction of permanent cell cycle arrest (senscence)o p53 induced sencence is a permanent cell cycle arrest characterized by specific changes in morphology and gene expression that differentiate it from quiescence (temporary or reversible cycle arrest).o The mechanisms of senscence is unknown, but involve epigenetic changes that result in the formation of heterochromatin at different loci throughout the genome.3. Triggering of programmed cell deatho p53 directs the transcription of several pro-apoptotic genes such as BAX and PUMA (approved name BBC3) and induces apoptosis.o It has been shown that p53 activates transcription of the mir 34 family of micro RNAs (miRNAs), mir 34a? mir34c. It has already been discussed in genetics that miRNA prevents translation of mRNA.o mir34 inhibits translation of anti-apoptotic genes such as BCL2 (there by induce apoptosis) and pro-proliferative genes such as cyclins (there by prevent proliferation) p53 induce apoptosis and prevent proliferation through mir34. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is The most suitable agent for IV induction and maintenance in a day care surgery and explain in detail? | PROPOFOL The active ingredient in propofol, 2,6-diisopropylphenol, is essentially insoluble in aqueous solutions and is formulated only for IV administration as a 1% (10 mg/ml) emulsion in 10% soybean oil, 2.25% glycerol, and 1.2% purified egg phosphatide. In the United States, disodium EDTA (0.05 mg/ml) or sodium metabisulfite (0.25 mg/ml) is added to inhibit bacterial growth. The induction dose of propofol in a healthy adult is 1.5 to 2.5 mg/kg and it has an onset and duration of anesthesia similar to thiopental. As with barbiturates, dosages should be reduced in the elderly and in the presence of other sedatives and increased in young children. Because of its reasonably sho elimination half-life, propofol often is used for maintenance of anesthesia as well as for induction. For sho procedures, small boluses (10% to 50% of the induction dose) every 5 minutes or as needed are effective. An infusion of propofol produces a more stable drug level (100 to 300 mg/kg per minute) and is better suited for longer-term anesthetic maintenance. Infusion rates should be tailored to patient response and the levels of other hypnotics. Sedating doses of propofol are 20% to 50% of those required for general anesthesia. However, even at these lower doses, caregivers should be vigilant and prepared for all of the side effects of propofol discussed below, paicularly airway obstruction and apnea. Propofol elicits pain on injection that can be reduced with lidocaine and the use of larger arm and antecubital veins. Excitatory phenomena during induction with propofol occur at about the same frequency as with thiopental, but much less frequently than with methohexital. Side Effects: Nervous System: The CNS effects of propofol are similar to those of barbiturates. Propofol decreases CMRO2, cerebral blood flow, and intracranial and intraocular pressures by about the same amount as thiopental. Like thiopental, propofol has been used in patients at risk for cerebral ischemia; however, no human outcome studies have been performed to determine its efficacy as a neuroprotectant. Results from studies on the anticonvulsant effects of propofol have been mixed; some data even suggest it has proconvulsant activity when combined with other drugs. Thus, unlike thiopental, propofol is not a proven acute intervention for seizures. Cardiovascular. Propofol produces a dose-dependent decrease in blood pressure that is significantly greater than that produced by thiopental. The fall in blood pressure can be explained by both vasodilation and mild depression of myocardial contractility. Propofol appears to blunt the baroreceptor reflex or is directly vagotonic because smaller increases in hea rate are seen for any given drop in blood pressure after doses of propofol. As with thiopental, propofol should be used with caution in patients at risk for or intolerant of decreases in blood pressure. Respiratory and Other Side Effects: At equipotent doses, propofol produces a slightly greater degree of respiratory depression than thiopental. Patients given propofol should be monitored to ensure adequate oxygenation and ventilation. Propofol appears to be less likely than barbiturates to provoke bronchospasm. It has no clinically significant effects on hepatic, renal, or endocrine organ systems. Unlike thiopental, propofol appears to have significant anti-emetic action and is a good choice for sedation or anesthesia of patients at high risk for nausea and vomiting. Propofol provokes anaphylactoid reactions and histamine release at about the same low frequency as thiopental. Although propofol does cross placental membranes, it is considered safe for use in pregnant women, and like thiopental, only transiently depresses activity in the newborn. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Glassware is sterilized in Hot air oven at - and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 160degC for 1 hour |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Vitrectomy should be considered if the vitreous haemorrhage is not absorbed within: and explain in detail? | Ans. 3 months |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is True about zafirlukast is and explain in detail? | Refer KDT 6/e p 222 Zafirlukast and Montelukast are cysteinyl Leukotriene receptor antagonist They cause modest improvement in lung function and reduction in asthma symptoms and lessen the need for beta agonists rescue therapy These drugs can be considered in patients with persistent asthma Zafirlukast is long acting and can be given twice to once daily orally It is a modest bronchodilator |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is According to Maslow&;s hierarchy of needs, following is at the top of the pyramid and explain in detail? | Maslow&;s hierarchy of needs from base to top: Physiological, safety, love/belonging, esteem, self-actualization.They describe the pattern that human motivations generally move through. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is MHC I is recognized by? and explain in detail? | Ans. (b) CD 8 T cellsRef: Jawetz 24/e, chapter 8 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is In case of uncontrolled epistaxis ligation of internal maxillary artery is to be done in the: and explain in detail? | (b) Pterygopalatine fossa(Ref. Scott Brown, 8th ed., Vol 1; 1178)The maxillary artery which is also called internal maxillary artery along with sphenopalatine and greater palatine artery lies in the sphenopalatine/ pterygopalatine fossa just behind the posterior wall of maxillary antrum.In uncontrolled epistaxis ligation of internal maxillary artery is to be done in the sphenopalatine fossa via Caldwell-Luc operation. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Microfilled composites cannot have a high filler load due to: and explain in detail? | Filler content of microfilled composite is 50-60% by weight. Because of the greater surface area per unit volume of these microfine particles they cannot be heavily filled.
Reference- Sturdevant 6th ed P:218 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Tamoxifen is: and explain in detail? | (Non steroidal antioestrogenic) (306-Shaw's 13th) (186-S14th)* Tamoxifen - non steroidal antioestrogenic drug* Clomiphene citrate - non steroidal anti oestrogens related to the diethylstilbestrol (DES)* Mifepristone - Synthetic antiprogesterone* Anti androgens - Cyproterone acetate, Spironolactone, Flutamide, FinastJeride {Inhibitor of 5a- reductase) |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is The medical indications for circumcision are all except and explain in detail? | Phimosis is often wrongly applied to describe a normal, non-retractile foreskin.True phimosis is seen as a whitish scarring of the foreskin and is rare before 5 years of age. It is caused by the localised skin disease balanitis xerotica obliterans (BXO), which also affects the glans penis and can cause urethral meatal stenosisCircumcision is not indicated for an otherwise healthy nonretractile foreskinMedical indications are phimosis, BXO, recurrent balanoposthitis, paraphimosis, scarring from traumaCircumcision is occasionally justified in boys with an abnormal upper urinary tract anomaly and recurrent urinary infection.Ref: Bailey and Love 27e pg: 127 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Endogenous triglycerides are maximum in: and explain in detail? | More the fat content less will be the density The density increases from: VLDL< LDL< HDL. Hence VLDL have maximum amount of triglycerides. ENDOGENOUS TRIGLYCERIDES MAX IN : VLDL EXOGENOUS TRIGLYCERIDES MAX IN :CHYLOMICRON |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Adrenal medulla secretes all EXCEPT: and explain in detail? | Coisol REF: Ganong 22ed chapter20 "Coisol is secreted by adrenal coex not medulla" "Norepinephrine, epinephrine, and dopamine are secreted by the adrenal medulla" |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is An 18-year-old man, of Italian extraction, is found to have a hypochromic microcytic anemia of 10 g/dL. In addition, there are a fair number of anisocytosis, poikilocytosis, and target cells seen on the blood film. The WBC is 9500/mL, the platelet count is 240,000/mL, and the reticulocyte count is 7%. The spleen is palpated 5 cm below the left costal margin. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? and explain in detail? | Thalassemia minor usually represents a heterozygous state and is often asymptomatic. Symptoms may develop during periods of stress such as pregnancy or severe infection. Hemoglobin values are usually in the 9-11 g/dL range. The red cells are small and poorly hemoglobinized. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which of the following ligament connects cervix to lateral pelvic wall? and explain in detail? | the transverse cervical ligaments - the transverse cervical ligaments are also known by various other names like lateral cervical ligaments; cardinal ligaments; paracervical ligaments; retinacula uterior sustent-aculum of Bonny. These are fan-shaped condensations of the pelvic fascia on each side of the cervix above the levator ani and around the uterine vessels. They connect the lateral aspects of the cervix and of the upper vaginal wall to the lateral pelvic wall, about 2.5 cm ventraJ to the ischial spine. They form a 'hammock' that suppos the uterus. ref : B D Chaurasia's Human Anatomy , seventh edition , volume 2 , pg. no. 425 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Reassoment is seen in aEUR' and explain in detail? | Rotavirus If a virus has a segmented genome and if two variants of that virus infect a single cell, progency virions can result with same segments from one parent and some from the other. This process is called "reassoment" of the virus. - Normally when a segmented virus infects a cell, the individual RNA segments enter the nucleus of the host. - There they are copied many times over to form RNA genomes, for new infectious virions. - The new RNA segments are expoed to the cytoplasm where they are assembled into new virus paicles which buds from the cell. If a cell is infected simultaneously with two different segmented viruses, the RNA of both the viruses are copied in the nucleus. These segmented viruses undergo a kind of "gene swapping or exchange" i.e., segments from viruses are interchanged or transferred to each other. - As a result new virus paicles emerge that contain RNA segments from both the viruses. - These new viruses are called "reassoants" and the process is called reassoment. Reassoment is an efficient process but is limited to the viruses with "segmented genomes". So far the only human viruses characterized with segmented genomes are RNA viruses e.g., ohomyxoviruses, reo viruses, arenaviruses, Bunya viruses. - In paicular reassoment is characteristic of "influenza viruses" whose genomes consists of eight distinct segment of RNA. - Reassoment is responsible for some of the major genetic shifts in the history of influenza virus which has lead to epidemics. Reassoment in Rotavirus Rotavirus is an impoant cause of severe diarrhea in infants and young children. Rotavirus are segmented virus - Due to segmented nature of their genome rotavirus can exchange (reasso) genes during coinfection a features that ispredicted to generate new possibly more dangerous virus strains. - However the amount of gene reassoment occurring in nature is not known as very few Rotavirus genomes have been segmented. - In contrast to what was previously thought very few Rota viruses exchanged gene segments with each other: instead the genomic constillations of the viruses remained relatively stable. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is A 24-year-old woman came to the emergency department late night with incomplete abortion, for which immediate suction and evacuation was done. The next morning her blood reports came which showed Hb=6gm%, TLC=5500/mm3. Her BP is 84/40mm Hg and her PR is 100/min. What is the most appropriate management? and explain in detail? | Ans. A. Blood transfusionThere is acute blood loss leading to severe anemia(Hb<7gm%) and the woman is symptomatic with decreased BP and tachycardia. Therefore, best for her at this stage is blood transfusion.Indications of Blood transfusion in pregnancy:* >36wk&Hb<=6gm%* <=5gm% anytime* <7gm% if incipient cardiac failure, pneumonia, infection, malaria |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is A most severe form of G–6–PD deficiency – and explain in detail? | It is of 3 types :
Type I is the mildest form.
Type II is a moderately severe form.
Type III patients suffer from a non-spherocytic hemolytic anemia even without exposure to drugs. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Drumstick appearence is seen in - and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Accidental drowning is ruled out if : and explain in detail? | D i.e. All Accidental (>suicidal) is the most common type of drowningQ In suicidal drowning body should be free from marks of any injury indicating an assault or struggle (violence)e. In cases of women the body is usually fully dressed and clothes are tied in such a manner that their private pas are not exposed. Sometimes a determined suicide may tie his legs & hands together or attach weights to his body, take poison, or cut throat before immersion. However, it should be examined whether tie could have been made by person himself. - If the body is found with heavy weights attached to it or hand & legs tied with rope, it must be either homicide or suicide and with children homicide alone. Homicidal drowning is very rare except in infants & children. Mark of severe violence applied to head, strangulation, throttling, or bruises are strongly presumptive of homicide. Post moel injuries by fishes, crabs, frogs etc. lack signs of vital reaction. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is How many hormones are produced by the anterior pituitary gland? and explain in detail? | There are 5 hormones produced by the anterior pituitary. Those hormones are luteinizing hormone (LH), growth hormone (GH), follicle stimulating hormone (FSH), prolactin (PRL) and thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH). Ref: Molina P.E. (2013). Chapter 3. Anterior Pituitary Gland. In P.E. Molina (Ed),Endocrine Physiology, 4e. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Nicoldoni sign is also known as and explain in detail? | Branham sign (or Nicoladoni sign): This sign is elicited when aeriovenous fistula is suspected. A pressure on the aery proximal to the fistula will cause: a. Reduction in size of the swelling. b. Disappearance of bruit. c. Fall in pulse rate. d. Pulse pressure returns to normal. Reference : page 1193 SRB's manual of surgery 5th edition |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which of the following is Bruton's tyrosine Kinase inhibitor ? and explain in detail? | Ibrutinib is a Bruton's tyrosine Kinase inhibitor that inhibits porliferation of B-cells. It is used in the treatment of CLL, Waldenstorm macroglobulinemia. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Uniocular polyopia is seen in which stage of cataract- and explain in detail? | Monoocular diplopia means perception of two images of one object by one eye and monoocular polyopia means refers to perception of multiple images of one eye. It is paicularly seen in incipent cataract. Ref: Ashok Garg 1st/e p.633. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Fatal dose of potassium cyanide is? and explain in detail? | ANSWER: (D) 200 mgREF: Textbook Of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology: Principles and Practice by Vij page 695Fatal dose of cyanide:HCN gas - 100-200 ppm in airHCN liquid- 50-60 mgKCN, NaCN- 150-300 mg (200 mg as per Parikh) |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is When orthotoludine reagent is added to water, and if free chlorine is present, what colour will be produced? and explain in detail? | Ans. B. Yellow. (Ref. Park's 22nd/pg. 664; style="font-size: 1.04761904761905em; font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif">)Discussion:OT test enables both free and combined chlorine in water. Add 0.1ml of reagent to 1 ml of water. Yellow colour produced is matched against suitable standard colour.Modification is Orthotoludine Arsinite (OTA) test - to determine the free and combined chlorine separately. Also errors caused by the presence of interfering substances like nitrites, iron, manganese which also produce yellow colour to OT is overcome by OTA test.CHLORINATION# Chlorine kills pathogenic bacteria but it has no effect on spores and certain viruses (e.g., polio, viral hepatitis, protozoal cyst, helementhic).# The disinfecting action of chlorine is mainly due to hypochlorus acid.0# Chlorine acts best as a disinfectant when pH of water is around 7, because of the predominance of hypochlorus acid.# When pH value exceeds 8.5, it is unreliable as a disinfectant because about 90% of the hypochlorous acid gets ionized.# One tablet of chlorine, chlorinates 20 litres of water.0# Principles of chlorination- Water should be clear and free from turbidity because turbidity impedes efficient chlorination.- The chlorine demand of the water should be estimated. If further chlorine is added to the water beyond break point, free chlorine begins to appear in the water.- The pesence of free residual chlorine for a contact period of at least one hour is essential to kill bacteria and viruses; the chlorine has no effect on spores, protozoal cysts and helminthic ovas.- The minimum recommended concentration of free chlorine is 0.5 mg/L for one hour. The point at which the residual chlorine appears and all combined chlorines have been completely destroyed is the breakpoint and corresponding dosage is the break-point dosage. Presence of free residual chlorine for contact period of at least 1 hour.Orthotolidine Test# The yellow colour is produced by both free and combined chlorine residuals. The test is carried out by adding 0.1 mL of the reagent to 1 mL of water. The colour produced after 15-20 minutes is due to the action of both free and combined chlorine.# In this test, 10 ml of chlorinated sample of water is taken after the required contact period, in a glass tube. To this 0.1 mL of orthotolidine solution is added. The colour formed is observed after 5 minutes.# The formation of yellow colour normally indicates the presence of chlorine (either combined or free) in the water.# The more yellow the colour, the greater, is the chlorine residual.# The amount of residual chlorine can be ascertained by comparing the colour developed in the glass tube with the standard colours already kept in the laboratory.# This test, is therefore, very simple and does not require much technique or time. Under normal conditions, a lemon yellow colour is satisfactory for public water supply.# The orthotolidine test will normally give the total residual chlorine present in water. However, it may be adjusted so as to give separately the quantities of free residual as well as combined residual of chlorine.# The free residual chlorine forms the yellow colour during the first 5 seconds of the addition of orthotolidine, while the combined residual chlorine goes on forming the colour for about 5 minutes. Hence, the colour after 5 seconds will give the quantity of free residual chlorine, and the colour after 5 minutes will give the free and combined chlorine. The difference in value between the two values is the combined chlorine.# The orthotolidine test, however, is not accurate, because the impurities such as iron, manganese, nitrate etc., are likely to cause a false yellow colour, and indicating wrong and increased chlorine residual. To overcome this problem Orthotolidine - Arsenite (OT A) test is carried out.Now the different chlorine residuals can be easily determined as follows:# Free residual chlorine = (X2) - (XI)# Combine residual chlorine = (X3) - (X2)# In the orthotolidine test as well as in the OT A test, the temperature of water is to be controlled to room temperature. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Characteristic 'tram-line' calcifications in the skull radiographs are observed in: and explain in detail? | People who have Sturge-Weber syndrome usually have both facial and intraoral macular hemangioma, although the intraoral hemangiomas may also be of the exophytic variety. An additional characteristic is the "tramline" calcifications seen in lateral skull radiographs.
Wood and Goaz - Differential Diagnosis of oral & maxillofacial lesions ; 5th ed. Page no 65 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is POEMS Syndrome includes all, EXCEPT: and explain in detail? | The features of this syndrome are polyneuropathy, organomegaly, endocrinopathy, multiple myeloma, and skin changes (POEMS). Patients usually have a severe, progressive sensorimotor polyneuropathy associated with sclerotic bone lesions from myeloma. Polyneuropathy occurs in ~1.4% of myelomas, but the POEMS syndrome is only a rare subset of that group. Unlike typical myeloma, hepatomegaly and lymphadenopathy occur in about two-thirds of patients, and splenomegaly is seen in one-third. Ref: Harrison's principle of internal medicine 17th edition, Chapter 106. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is In early congenital syphilis, which is not seen – and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is In Osteomalacia and explain in detail? | Rickets / Osteomalacia Pathophysiology - Failure of calcification & mineralization of cailage and osteoid tissue Clinical featuresRadiological featuresGeneralized muscle weakness, lethargy, irritability and listlessness Protuberant abdomen Large head, open fontanelles and craniotabesThickening of knees, ankle & wrists due to physeal overgrowth Rachitic rosary Harrison's groove Pectus carinatumSho stature & bowing of long bones with genu valgum, coxa vara, kyphoscoliosis Elongation of physis & hazy appearance of provisional zone of calcification Widened growth plate Cupping of metaphysis Splaying and flaring of epiphysis Bowing of diaphysis with thinning of coices OsteopeniaLooser's zone Biconcave codfish veebra Thoracolumbar kyphosis Trefoil & Champagne glass pelvis (Refer: Tachdijian'spaediatric Ohopedics, 5th edition, pg no: 1685-1696) |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is All-trans-retinoic acid is used in treatment of and explain in detail? | Ref: Harrison 17th/389,447 All-trans-retinoic acid is used in the treatment of acute promyelocytic leukemia. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Ocular lesions of rubella include all of the following except and explain in detail? | Ans. Congenital megalocornea |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Wedged hepatic venous pressure represents pressure in : and explain in detail? | C i.e. SinusoidsWedged Hepatic Venous Pressure - It is the pressure recorded by a catheter wedged in a hepatic vein.- It reflects the contribution of hepatic sinusoids to poal venous pressure.Q- It is elevated in sinusoidal & presinusoidal poal hypeension,- Poal venous pressure: Wedged hepatic venous pressure - free hepatic venous pressure. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is True Statement about Pneumocystic Jiroveci is and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Usually diagnosed by sputum exammination Pneumocystic Jiroveci is the new nomenclature for human infection with Pneucystis carinii. The term Pneumocystic carinii is used only for pneumocytis infection in rats. Pneumocystic infection in rats -p Pneumocystis carinii. Pneumocystic infection in man --> Pneumocystic Jiroveci Pneumocystis is an oppounist pathogen that is an impoant cause of pneumonia. The host factors that predispose to the development of pneumocystic are defects in cellular and humoral immunity. Pneumocystic Jiroveci may infect an immunocompetent individual but the disease is manifested only when the patient is immunocompromised. Pneumocystis Jiroveci does not cause disease in the absence of immunosuppression. The persons at risk for developing pneumocytosis. HIV patient with CD4 count < 200/m1 Patients receiving immunosuppressive therapy. Organ transplantation. Children with primary immunodeficiency Premature malnourished children. Diagnosis of pneumocystosis Diagnosis of pneumocystic pneumonia is based on specific identification of the organisms. Various methods used are - Sputum examination The initial method of diagnosis for pneumocystic infection is sputum examination. Routine sputum samples are often inadequate therefore sputum sample should be obtained by induction with hypeonic saline. Histopathological staining of sputum is done to identify the organism. Bronchoalveolar Lavage Sputum examination may be the initial method of diagnosis of Pneumocystic pneumonia. But the mainstay of the of diagnosis of pneumocystic pneumonia is bronchoalveolar lavage. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Pregnancy complication in retroveed uterus can be : and explain in detail? | Ans. is d i.e. All of the above Retroveed gravid ute.4,. Uterus is retroveed during early pregnancy in 15% cases but Spontaneous rectification occurs in majority by the 10th week. In minority cases, spontaneous rectification does not occur. In such cases between 12-16 weeks the developing uterus gradully fills up the pelvic cavity and becomes incarcerated. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is n-3 PUFA is present in all except: and explain in detail? | Groundnut oil > Corn oil Various research papers on the net have clearly mentioned both the groundnut oil and corn oil are devoid of n-3 fatty acids. However Lippincott Biochemistry 3/e p360 mentions that corn oil contains little amount of n-3 fatty acids. According to Park 19/e p482, table 2, both Groundnut oil and Corn oil are rich in n-6 fatty acid (Linoleic acid). n-3 fatty acids (popularly referred to as co-3 fatty acids or omega-3 fatty acids) are long-chain polyunsaturated fatty acids, with the first double bond beginning at the third carbon atom (when counting form the methyl end of the fatty acid molecule). Impoant nutritionally essential n-3 fatty acids are: - a-linolenic acid (ALA), - eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA), and - docosahexaenoic acid (DHA). n-6 fatty acids are long chain polyunsaturated fatty acids, with the first double bond beginning at the sixth carbon atom eg. Linoleic acid, the most impoant essential fatty acid. Both the n-3 a-linolenic acid and n-6 linoleic acid are essential fatty, acids which must be obtained from food. Park mentions that an ideal fat for good health is one which maintains a balance so as to give a ratio of PUFA/saturated fatty acids of 0.8-1.0 and linoleic/alpha-linolenic (n-6/n3) of 5-10 in the total diet. Park gives a list of food rich in alpha linolenic acid (n-3 fatty acid): wheat, bajra, blackgram, iobia, rajmah soyabean, green leafy vegetables, fenugreek (methi) mustard and fish. Flaxseed oil is one of the best sources of the essential fatty acids. It contains approximately 50-60% of the omega-3 essential fatty acid (alpha-linolenic acid), and roughly 18-20% of the omega-6 essential fatty acid (linoleic acid). Flaxseed oil is nature's richest source of linolenic acid (n-3 fatty acid). |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is In type 2 DM, increased fasting plasma glucose is predominantly due to and explain in detail? | Insulin resistance impairs glucose utilization by insulin-sensitive tissues and increases hepatic glucose output; both effects contribute to the hyperglycemia. Increased hepatic glucose output predominantly accounts for increased FPG levels, whereas decreased peripheral glucose usage results in postprandial hyperglycemia. Glucose metabolism in insulin-independent tissues is not altered in type 2 DM.Ref: Harrison 19e pg: 2405 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Tooth structure cutting is preceded by crack propogation due to tensile forces known as: and explain in detail? | Tooth structure is cut by two types of fracture
Brittle fracture
Tensile fracture
Tensile fracture proceeds by plastic deformation due to shear forces. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which of the following are not non absorbable sutures : and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Uses of Neuroleptanalgesia includes and explain in detail? | (D) Atropines # Neuroleptanalgesia is a state of apparent indifference to pain produced by combination of potent analgesic with a neuroleptic or major Tranquillizer (here the patient remains conscious but assumes a trance like state in which he is immobile, apparently free from pain) The addition of nitrous oxide leads to unconsciousness and general anaesthesia (Neurolepttoanalgesia)> Neuroleptic combination consists of: Major Tranquilizer (Usually Butyrophenone - Droperidol) + Potent opioid analgesic (Fentanyl or Phenoperidine)> Uses: Neurosurgical operations/neuro-radiological procedures;> Idiosyncrasy to barbiturates;> Ophthalmic surgery/Burns dressing;> As part of balanced anaesthesia; Adjunct to local anaesthetic technique; Invasive radiological procedures/radiotherapy;> Surgery with high incidence of post operative nausea, vomiting. E.g.: Middle ear surgery; Out patient procedures associated with nausea, vomiting. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which of the following fluorinated anaesthetics corrodes metal in vaporizers and breathing systems ? and explain in detail? | In the presence of moisture halothane attacks metals (tin, brass and aluminum) in vaporisers and circuits. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Best retainer advised after the closure of midline
diastema is and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is 5. According to Transplantation of Human Organs Act, 1994, punishment for doctor if found guilty: AIIMS 11 and explain in detail? | Ans.D.)2- 5 years. THE TRANSPLANTATION OF HUMAN ORGANS AND TISSUES ACT, 1994Punishment for removal of human organ without authority.-- (1) Any person who renders his services to or at any hospital and who, for purposes of transplantation, conducts, associates with, or helps in any manner in, the removal of any human organ without authority, shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to . (2) Where any person convicted under sub-section (1) is a registered medical practitioner, his name shall be repoed by the Appropriate Authority to the respective State Medical Council for taking necessary action including the removal of his name from the register of the Council for a period of for the first offence and permanently for the subsequent offence. Punishment for commercial dealings in human organs.--Whoever-- (a) makes or receives any payment for the supply of, or for an offer to supply, any human organ; (b) seeks to find a person willing to supply for payment any human organ; (c) offers to supply any human organ for payment; or (d) initiates or negotiates any arrangement involving the making of any payment for the supply of, or for an offer to supply, any human organ; (e) takes pa in the management or control of a body of persons, whether a society, firm or company, whose activities consist of or include the initiation or negotiation of any arrangement referred to in clause (d); or (f) publishes or distributes or causes to be published or distributed any adveisement,-- (a) inviting persons to supply for payment of any human organ; (b) offering to supply any human organ for payment; or(c) indicating that the adveiser is willing to initiate or negotiate any arrangement referred to in clause (d); . Punishment for illegal dealings in human tissues.--Whoever-- (a) makes or receives any payment for the supply of, or for an offer to supply, any human tissue; or (b) seeks to find a person willing to supply for payment and human tissue; or (c) offers to supply any human tissue for payment; or (d) initiates or negotiates any arrangement involving the making of any payment for the supply of, or for an offer to supply, any human tissue; or (e) takes pa in the management or control of a body of persons, whether a society, firm or company, whose activities consist of or include the initiation or negotiation of any arrangement referred to in clause (d); or (f) publishes or distributes or causes to be published or distributed any adveisement-- (i) inviting persons to supply for payment of any human tissue; or (ii) offering to supply any human tissue for payment; or (iii) indicating that the adveiser is willing to initiate or negotiate any arrangement referred to in clause (d); or (g) abets in the preparation or submission of false documents including giving false affidavits to establish that the donor is making the donation of the human tissues as a near relative or by reason of affection or attachment towards the recipient, shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than one year but which may extend to three years and shall be liable to fine which shall not be less than five lakh rupees but which may extend to twenty-five lakh rupees.] Punishment for contravention of any other provision of this Act.-- Whoever contravenes any provision of this Act or any rule made, or any condition of the registration granted, thereunder for which no punishment is separately provided in this Act, shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to . |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is In a caries-free individual the saliva has: and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is 29 years female, G2 P1A1 with 16 weeks amenorrhoea, lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding, ultrasonography shows snow storm appearance. What is the most feasible method of treatment- and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Suction evacuation o 29 yrs female with amenorrohea of 16 weeks with lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding and snow storm appearance on usg gives us a diagnosis of kydatidiform mole.o The most preferred definitive treatment in case of hvdatidiform mole in almost all cases is suction evacuation.It can be easily done upto 28 weeks of gestation.In favourable cervix suction evacuation is done with a negative pressure of200 - 250 mm Hg. F the cervix is closed prior dilatation is followed by suction and evacuation. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is The lesion is painful and bleeds easily while taking the swab for gram staining. What will be the probable cause of infection? and explain in detail? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Haemophilus ducreyiImage description - Chancroid (also known as soft chancre and ulcus molle) is a bacterial sexually transmitted infection characterized by painful ulceration on the genitalia that bleeds easily on if it is scrapped. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Consider the following statements; giant cells are a
characteristic histopathologic finding in and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is One of the following is true regarding Zenker diveiculum ? and explain in detail? | |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Vein draining to IVC is: and explain in detail? | B. i.e. Rt. Supra renal vein- Left testicular / ovarian / supra renal vein drain into left renal veinQ before entering to IVC.Right testicular / ovarian / suprarenal vein and both renal veins drain into IVCQ |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is "Onion-skin" fibrosis of bile duct is seen in and explain in detail? | Pathology of Primary sclerosing cholangitis Cholangiocytea, epithelial cells that lines the bile duct are target cell of injury in PSC Histologic finding "Onion skin appearance" is pathognomic of PSC, but seen in <10% cases Involvement of large intrahepatic and extrahepatic duct distinguishes PSC from PBC Absence of the smallest intrahepatic ducts leading to a reduction in the branching of biliary tree (giving rise to pruned-tree appearance on direct cholangiography) Histologic changes in the same liver can be markedly varied from segment to segment at any given time Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1508-1509 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Drug of choice for precocious puberty in girls is: and explain in detail? | Ans. (A) GnRH analogue(Ref: Harrison 19th/2380, KDT 8/e p264)Long-acting gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists are the current therapy of choice for central precocious puberty. In girls, mostly central precocious puberty is seen.GnRH agonists are not effective as therapy for peripheral precocious puberty. Androgen antagonists, spironolactone, aromatase inhibitors (Anastrozole and Letrozole), ketoconazole, and medroxyprogesterone acetate are used to treat peripheral precocious puberty. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which of the following is the most common cause of a mixed cystic and solid suprasellar mass seen on cranial MR scan of a 10 years old child – and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Human placenta is best described as: and explain in detail? | Ans. is d, i.e. All of the aboveRef: Dutta Obs 9/e, p 25Human placenta is discoid-disc like in shape hemochorial because of direct contact of chorion with blood maternal deciduate, i.e. it is shed at the time of parturition. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Size of sperm ? and explain in detail? | |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Chronic hyperpLastic pulpitis is and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which of the following Urban health post is attached to a hospital for sterilization, MTP & referral? and explain in detail? | Type D Health Post is attached to a hospital for sterilization, MTP and referral. Type A, B and C Health Posts are attached to a hospital for providing referral and supervisory services. Type D Health Post is attached to a hospital for sterilization, MTP and referral. Only type D health post have a post of medical officer. Types of Urban Health Post Population Range Type A less than 5,000, Type B between 5,000-10,000 Type C between 10,000-25,000 Type D between 25,000-50,000 *If the population is more than 50,000, then it is to be divided into sectors of 50,000 population and Health Posts are provided. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Enzyme causing covalent bond cleavage without hydrolysis ? and explain in detail? | Cleavage by hydrolysis (addition of water) -p Hydrolases
Cleavage without hydrolysis (without addition of water) —> Lyases |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Contribution of employees to ESIS corporation is______ % of wages.(MHPGM CET 2008) and explain in detail? | Ans. b (1.75%) (Ref. Text book of PSM by Park 22nd/ 760; style="font-size: 1.04761904761905em; font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif">)ESI Act -1948: Benefit to both employee and employer.# Employer contributes 4.75% of total wage bill.0# While, the employee contributes 1.75% of wages.0# The state share on medical expenditure is l/8th and ESIC bears 7/8th cost of total medical care.0# Employees getting daily wages below Rs. 50 are exempted from payment of contribution.THE EMPLOYEES STATE INSURANCE ACT SCHEME# The Union Minister for Labour is chairman.# Scope- the ESIS Act extends to whole India.- Includes:* small power using factories with 10-19 persons and non-power using factories with >20 workers,* Service establishments like road transport, cinema houses, shops, restaurants, hotels and newspapers printing are now covered.# Which are the sectors excluded?- Excludes mines, plantation, railways and defence# What is the advantage to employer having ESIS scheme to its workers?- Exemption from the applicability of Workmen's Compensation Act 1923- Exemption from Maternity Benefit Act 1961- Exemption from payment of medical allowance to employees and their dependents or arranging for their medical care- Rebate under the Income Tax Act on contribution deposited in the ESI account- Healthy work-force# What are the benefits to workers?- Medical benefits,- Sickness benefits,- Disablement benefits,- Dependants benefits,- Funeral expenses and- Rehabilitation allowance |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is The Lab investigation of a patient shows |T4, & |TSH Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis: and explain in detail? | |T4, & |TSH - suggests primary hypothyroidism Chronic thyroiditis or Hashimoto's disease is a common thyroid gland disorder. It can occur at any age, but is most often seen in middle-aged women. It is caused by a reaction of the immune system against the thyroid gland. The disease begins slowly. It may take months or even years for the condition to be detected. Chronic thyroiditis is most common in women and people with a family history of thyroid disease. Laboratory tests to determine thyroid function include: 1. Free T4 test (low) 2. Serum TSH (high) 3. T3 (low or normal) Thyroid autoantibodies: Antithyroid peroxidase pothalamic failure are causes of secondary hypothyroidism with low TSH and T4 Ref: Harrison's 16th Edition, Page 2109 (table) |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Glander&;s disease is caused by and explain in detail? | Glanders disease # Gram(-) bacillus, Burkholderia mallei # Caused by contact w/ infected horses or donkeys . Four forms: - * Localized--hemorrhagic, ulcerative papulopustule at inoculation site * Chronic--multiple soft tissue nodules ("farcy buds") on skin overlying lymphatics * Septicemic form--moality rate >95% without treatment and 50% w/ treatment * Pulmonary form--moality similar to septicemic form Treatment: - * Localized disease: 60- to 150-day course of amoxicillin/clavulanate, doxycycline, or TMP/SMX. * Septicemic: IV carbapenems + ciprofloxacin or doxycycline. Ref:- Review of Dermatology by Alikhan; pg num:-298 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which of the following statements is not true about pancreatic carcinoma? and explain in detail? | Ans. (c) Median survival in locally advanced (stage III) disease is 3-6 monthsRef: Sabiston 19/e p1541* Following surgical resection and adjuvant therapy for pancreatic cancer, the median survival is approximately 22 months, with 5-year survival of 15% to 20%.* In the absence of surgical resection, those with locally advanced disease who receive palliative chemotherapy may survive 10 to 12 months, whereas those with metastases rarely survive beyond 6 monthsInoperable cases - survival:* Stage 3-10-12 months* Stage 4- <6 months |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Highest bond strength is found in which generation of dentin bonding agent? and explain in detail? | Bonding strength of dentin bonding agents generations:
First - 2-3 MPa
Second – 1-5 MPa
Third – 3-13 MPa
Fourth – 13-80 MPa
Fifth – 3-75 Mpa
Sixth – 10-75 Mpa
Seventh – 0-60 Mpa |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Most fulminant fungal meningitis is caused by - and explain in detail? | None |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Drug contraindicated in renal failure is and explain in detail? | B i.e. Pethidine Meperidine (pethidine, demerol), a phenylpiperidine is metabolized chiefly in liver to nonmeperidine, which is eliminated by the kidney and liver. In patients or addicts who are tolerant to the depressant effects of meperidine, large doses repeated at sho interval may produce an excitatory syndrome including hallncination, tremors, muscle twitches, dilated pupils, hyperactive reflexes and convulsions. These excitatory symptoms are d/t accumulation of normeperidine, which has a half life of 15-20 hours, compared to 3 hours for meperidine. In patients with cirrhosis, the bioavailability of meperidine is --80% increased and t1/2 of both meperidine and normeperidine are prolonged. Since normeperidine is eleminated by kidney and liver, decreased renal or hepatic function predispose to neurotoxic effects of nor-meperidineQ. Meperidine is also not recommended for the treatment of chronic pain b/o concerns of metabolite toxicity. It should not be used for longer than 48 hours or in doses > 600 mg/day. Major pathway for morphine metabolism is conjugation with glucuronic acid forming morphine -6- glucuronide and morphine -3- glucuronide. Morphine-6-glucuronide is twice as potent as morphine with somewhat longer t1/2. (t1/2 of morphine is 2 hours) and pharmacological actions indistinguishable from those of morphine. With chronic morphine administration, the 6-glucuronide accounts for most of analgesia and its blood levels exceed those of morphine. Morphine-6-glucuronide is excreted by kidney, so its levels increase in renal failure, perhaps explaining morphine's potency and long action in compromised renal function. So in patients with renal failure decreased protein binding of morphine (resulting in higher plasma free drug level) and accumulation of morphine -6- glucuronide predispose them to respiratory depression. So morphine is given cautiously in low doses in renal failure. Respiratory depression is also repoed in patients with CRF receiving sufentanyl. Except for slightly decreased protein binding, the free drug volume of distribution and clearance of alfentanil appears to be unaffected by renal failure. Fentanyl, has sho half life and its metabolites are inactive. Therefore, it is a good choice in patients with renal diseaseQ. In renal disease (renal failure) remifentanil > fentanyl > alfentanil > sufentanil are safe. Whereas morphine (d/t morphine 6 glucoronide) 1/t respiratory depression is used very cautiously in low dose and meperidine (pethidine) is contraindicated d/t very long acting metabolite nor-meperidine causing neurotoxic excitatory syndrome. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is The fifth generation amalgam included? and explain in detail? | The alloying of silver, copper, tin and indium together creating a quaternary alloy in which almost none of the tin is available to react with the mercury when mixed with the powder, was the 5th generation amalgam to be developed.
Reference: Marzouk Operative dentistry, pg-106 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which of the following circulating antibodies has the best sensitivity and sepcificity for the diagnosis of celiac disease - and explain in detail? | IgA anti-endomysial antibodies are found in 90% coeliac patients. They are a very specific & sensitive marker for coeliac disease and dermatitis herpetiformis. The anti-endomysial antibody test has been suggested to be 98% sensitive and 98% specific for clinical or subclinical coeliac disease Ref Davidson edition23rd pg 805 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is A 20-year-old man is examined by a new family physician who discovers numerous pigmented patches and pedunculated skin tumors on his chest. Biopsy of a tumor discloses a benign neoplasm derived from Schwann cells. Neither the patient's father nor mother shows signs of this disease. The patient is at increased risk of developing which of the following malignant neoplasms? and explain in detail? | One of the major complications of neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1), occurring in 3% to 5% of patients, is the appearance of a neurofibrosarcoma in a neurofibroma. NF1 is also associated with an increased incidence of other neurogenic tumors, including meningioma, optic glioma, and pheochromocytoma. The other tumors listed are not associated with NF1.Diagnosis: Neurofibromatosis, type 1 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Coffee ground vomiting and explain in detail? | Coffee ground vomitus refers to a particular appearance of vomit. Within organic heme molecules of red blood cells is the element iron, which oxidizes following exposure to gastric acid |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is In Judicial hanging which vertebrae are dislocated? and explain in detail? | ANSWER: (B) C2-C3 REF: Parikh 6th edition page 3.44, Forensic Medicine By P.V. Guharaj 2nd ed page 143, Textbook of Forensic Medicine & Toxicology: Principles & Practice By Krishan Vij 5th ed page 161See difference of Antemortem and postmortem hanging in Forensic medicine June 2009In Judicial hanging death takes place due to fracture dislocation at the level of 2nd and 3rd cervical vertebra which is caused by sudden drop. Fracture dislocation of 1st and 2nd vertebra is less common.The most frequent cause of death by hanging is obstruction of the cervical blood vessels. Fracture of the spine and the base of the skull are rarely observed in cases of death by hanging and if so, generally only in cases of a fall from a certain height ("drop") as in judicial hanging, |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Daily additional requirement of protein in lactation is – and explain in detail? | Additional requirement of protein is :
Pregnancy → 23 gm
Lactation → 19 gm (0-6 months) 13 gm (6-12 months) |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Most common cause of ESRD in children and explain in detail? | This is why kidney failure is also called end-stage renal disease, or ESRD for sho. Diabetes is the most common cause of ESRD. Common causes of acute renal failure include: Hea attack. Illegal drug use and drug abuse. Not enough blood flowing to the kidneys. Urinary tract problems Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Internal capsule- All of the following are pas except ? and explain in detail? | |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which of the following is the largest intestinal protozoa? and explain in detail? | Balantidium coli is the largest of the human intestinal protozoa. It can produce a spectrum of large-intestinal disease called as balantidiasis. Infective cysts can be transmitted from person to person and through water, but many cases are due to the ingestion of cysts derived from porcine feces. Many patients remain asymptomatic. In symptomatic individuals, the pathology in the bowel--both gross and microscopic--is similar to that seen in amebiasis. Balantidiasis, unlike amebiasis, does not spread hematogenously to other organs. The diagnosis is made by detection of the trophozoite stage in stool or sampled colonic tissue. Tetracycline (500 mg four times daily for 10 days) is an effective therapeutic agent. Ref: Weller P.F. (2012). Chapter 215. Protozoal Intestinal Infections and Trichomoniasis. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds), Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Purpose of sentinel surveillance is and explain in detail? | A method for identifying the missing cases and there by supplementing the notified cases is required. This is known as sentinel surveillance. The sentinel data is extrapolated to entire population to estimate the disease prevalence in entire population |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which drug used for differentiating myasthenia gravis from cholinergic crisis? and explain in detail? | Ans. (A) Edrophonium(Ref: KDT 8th/e p120)Patients with myasthenia gravis may present in the emergency with muscle weakness. This could be because of the aggravation of their primary problem (myasthenic crisis) or due to the overdose of the drugs like neostigmine (cholinergic crisis). The etiology of the two conditions is important to understand because in myasthenic crisis, there is deficiency of acetylcholine whereas in cholinergic crisis, there is excess of acetylcholine.Edrophonium is an inhibitor of the enzyme acetylcholinestrase and thus, increases the concentration of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. The increased availability of ACh causes dramatic improvement in the symptoms of patients with myasthenic crisis.In contrast, the symptoms of patients with cholinergic crisis worsen with edrophonium (because it further increases ACh in cholinergic crisis). The drug, therefore, is useful to clinically differentiate the actual cause of muscle weakness in an emergency situation.The reason for preferring edrophonium over other inhibitors of acetylcholinesterase is its short duration of action. This may be desirable for patients presenting with cholinergic crisis as the worsening in their condition would be only for a short time. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is 36 year old Santhosh, fights with his uncle saying that he is not his uncle. Some stranger has come in disguise in the form of his uncle to steal his property. Diagnosis: and explain in detail? | Capgrass syndrome is a delusional disorder where patient believes that a stranger has replaced his family member. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is All are risk factor for breast carcinoma except- and explain in detail? | First-degree relative with breast cancer Menstrual historyAge at menarche <12 yearsAge at menopause >55 years Other Possible Factors Exogenous estrogens Oral contraceptives Obesity High-fat diet Alcohol consumption Cigarette smoking ref : Robbins Basic Pathology, 9E,page-708 ref img |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is All of the following indicate Fetal distress except: and explain in detail? | Fetal skull blood pH>7.32 |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Chalicosis and explain in detail? | |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is All of the following statements are true about the above condition except and explain in detail? | Ans. (c) It is associated with a good visual prognosisOption a - it can be both unilateral and bilateral, though frequently it is BilateralOption b - FACTOption c - it is associated with a poor visual prognosis except the abortive form, as the overlying skin is fused with the underlying metaplastic corneaOption d - even in the complete form the underlying eye moves and may even show some reaction to light in the form of contractions of periocular skin. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Idiopathic degeneration of the proximal bundle branch fibres is known as: and explain in detail? | Answer is A (Lev's Disease) Progressive idiopathic fibrosis of the proximal bundle branch fibres is termed as LEV Disease. Lev's Disease Progressive idiopathic fibrosis of the proximal bundle branch fibres (usually occurs in relatively older population) Lenegre's Disease Progressive idiopathic fibrosis of the more distal/peripheral poion of the bundle branches (usually occurs in younger population) Ashman Transient bundle branch block resulting from an aberrant intraventricular conduction abnormality that Phenomenon occurs in response to a change in QRS cycle length (When a sho cycle follows a long one). RBBB aberration is typically more common than LBBB. Ashman's phenomenon should be suspected in atrial fibrillation when there is a long cycle followed by a sho cycle, with the subsequent QRS complex manifesting a right bundle branch block pattern. Brugada Syndrome Syncopal episodes and/or sudden death with a characteristic electrocardiogram (ECG) pattern of right bundle branch block and ST segment elevation in leads V1 to V3. The diagnosis Brugada syndrome is based on the history of sudden death with the typical electrocardiographic pattern of ST segment elevation in leads V1-V3, with or without right bundle branch block. The presence of RBBB is not essential to the diagnosis of Brugada Syndrome. Patients with Brugada Syndrome may have a structurally normal hea. |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Which of the following is a branch of the internal carotid aery? and explain in detail? | NASAL SEPTUM INTERNAL CAROTID SYSTEM 1. Anterior ethmoidal aery 2. Posterior ethmoidal aery Both are branches of the ophthalmic aery. EXTERNAL CAROTID SYSTEM 1. Sphenopalatine aery ( branch of the maxillary aery ) gives nasopalatine and posterior medial nasal branches. 2. Septal branch of the greater palatine aery ( branch of the maxillary aery ). 3. Septal branch of the superior labial aery ( branch of the facial aery ). LATERAL WALL INTERNAL CAROTID SYSTEM 1. Anterior ethmoidal 2. Posterior ethmoidal Both are branches of the ophthalmic aery. EXTERNAL CAROTID SYSTEM 1. Posterior lateral nasal ( from the sphenopalatine aery). 2. Greater palatine aery ( from the maxillary aery). 3. Nasal branch of anterior superior dental ( from the infraorbital branch of maxillary). 4. Branches of the facial aery to the nasal vestibule. (Ref: Diseases of Ear, Nose and Throat and head and neck surgery, PL Dhingra, 7th edition, Pg no. 197) |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is Vitamin A prophylaxis is an example of: and explain in detail? | |
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information. | What is McFadyean reaction is seen in: and explain in detail? | Ref: Harrisons 19th ed. pg. 261e2 \* McFadyean reaction is a special staining reaction, demonstrating a pink capsule around a blue cell, after staining with methylene blue, which is used as a presumptive diagnosis for anthrax in a blood smear.* Anthrax is caused by B. anthracis a Gram-positive, nonmotile, spore-forming rod that is found in soil and predominantly causes disease in herbivores such as cattle, goats, and sheep. |