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You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is If a bacteria were susceptible to both penicillin and Erythromycin, then it would not be appropriate to treat the patients with both antibiotics at the same time because and explain in detail?
None
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is A 7-year-old child reported to clinic with mother. The child complains of severe pain and swelling in the tooth. On examination, the child had a grossly decayed molar with abscess. What will be the next step? and explain in detail?
As in question, child has acute symptoms of pulpitis, so treatment like pulpotomy, puipectomy or extraction should be avoided at same time. Antibiotic therapy also usually is not indicated in localized dental infection without systemic signs of an infection like fever and no facial swelling. Due to anaerobic environment of abscess and impaired leukocytic function, systemic antibiotics will be much lesser effective in restricted blood flow into the infected area. Now in abscess formation cases, to immediately relieve the pain, drainage should be done. If teeth is decayed (as mentioned in question), it can be achieved by opening of the affected tooth into the pulp chamber or if soft fluctuant mass is detected, drainage should be done through incision of the soft tissue fluctuance. After achieving drainage, patient should be observed for 1 to 3 days and proceeded further treatment according to that condition.
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What is Best marker for GIST is and explain in detail?
Diagnostic markers GISTs and cajal cells express c-KIT (also known as CD117) and CD34. Most useful diagnostic marker is c-KIT and immunohistochemically detected in 95% of gastric GISTs GENERAL AND SYSTEMIC PATHOLOGY RAMDAS NAYAK FIRST EDITION PAGE 390
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What is Belimumab is used in and explain in detail?
Belimumab is a monoclonal antibody against B - cell activating factor ( BAFF ) and is thus useful in decreasing autoimmune response in Systemic lupus erythematous .
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What is During assessment of an analog X-ray film, the lights of a well lit operatory should : and explain in detail?
Optimal viewing conditions should allow one to collimate the light, so the light area is restricted to the size of the film. The viewer’s eyes should be blocked to surrounding light to ameliorate perception of details. Also, the ambient light in the room should be dimmed so that more details in the radiographic image can be seen. This is not always feasible in a dental office setting, but efforts should be made to place the view box in a dimmed area of the office.  It is clear that assessing radiographs in a brightly lit dental operatory increases the clinician’s potential to miss diagnostically useful information contained in a radiographic image. Despite the fact that the parents and patients appreciate viewing the radiographic images in the operatory, the initial diagnosis should not be made at the chairside monitor, but rather in an area of the office where the light is dimmed.
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What is Fibroid causes all the following Except and explain in detail?
Symptoms of fibroid are:Menorrhagia, polymenorrhea and metrorrhagia Infeility, recurrent aboionsPainAbdominal lumpPressure symptomsVaginal dischargeAround 50% women are asymptomatic.Ref: Shaw&;s Textbook of Gynaecology; Chapter 29; Benign diseases of the uterus
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What is Structure piercing investing layer of deep cervical fascia in posterior triangle of neck and explain in detail?
Investing layer in the posterior triangle of neck is pierced by: * External jugular vein * Supraclavicular nerves. * Cutaneous nerves including lymphatics.
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What is The dominant histologic feature of infarction is: and explain in detail?
Pathognomonic cytologic change in all infarcts is coagulative (ischaemic) necrosis of the affected area of tissue or organ.  In cerebral infarcts, however, there is characteristic liquefactive necrosis. Mohan H. Textbook of pathology. Jaypee Brothers Medical Publishers; 2015. Edition 7. Page 112
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What is A lady came with complaints of a bluish lesion over left side of forehead and left eye. Shows irregular bluish lesion in left superior conjunctiva and forehead. What is most probable diagnosis ? and explain in detail?
Nevus of Ota: Unilateral bluish grey colour discolouration. Along ophthalmic and maxillary division of Trigeminal nerve. Naevus of ito- along acromioclavicular nerve (neck)Mongolian spots- Bluish discoloration in infants (MC site is lower back)Becker's nevus- Hyperpimented path with hyperichosis over upper trunk
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What is Specific sign of kwashiorkor is: September 2007 and explain in detail?
Ans. A: Pitting Edema Early signs of kwashiorkor present as general symptoms of malnutrition and include fatigue, irritability and lethargy. As protein deprivation continues the following abnormalities become apparent. Failure to thrive (failure to put on height and weight) Loss of muscle mass Pitting oedema- This is the main sign Large protuberant belly (pot belly) Fatty liver Failing immune system so prone to infections and increased severity of normally mild infections Skin and hair changes Characteristic skin and hair changes occur in kwashiorkor and develop over a few days. Skin lesions are at first erythematous before turning purple and reddish-brown in colour with marked exfoliation (skin peeling and sloughing) Where the skin becomes dark and dry, it splits open when stretched to reveal pale areas between the cracks ("lacquered flaky paint", "crazy pavement dermatosis") Irregular or patchy discolouration of the skin caused by pigmentary changes Hair becomes dry and lustreless and may turn reddish yellow to white in colour. It becomes sparse and brittle and can be pulled out easily. A 'flag sign is alternate bands of hypopigmented and normally pigmented hair pattern and is seen when growth of child occurs in spus. Nail plates are thin and soft and may be fissured or ridged.
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What is Vegetations on undersurface ofA. V. valves are found in - and explain in detail?
None
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What is True about relation of epiploic foramen is : and explain in detail?
D. i.e. Bile duct anteriorly
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What is Which of the following is not a glycogen storage disorder - and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Lesch Nyhan syndrome
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What is Gyromagnetic property of proton is seen in - and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., MRI o Ultrasonography is based on piezoelectric effect.o MRI is based on gyeromagnetic property of proton (H+)
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What is No of iron in ferritin: and explain in detail?
Ans. D. 4000FerritinStorage Form of IronPoly nuclear complex of Hydrous ferric oxide carry about 4500 iron atomsSeen in Intestinal cells, Liver, Spleen Bone marrow Sensitive index of Body iron stores
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is Carcinoma common in dye industry workers is and explain in detail?
Aniline dye is a risk for for TCC of bladder.
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What is Air bronchogram is seen in: and explain in detail?
Ans. Consolidation
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What is Which of the following Antimicrobials has antipseudomonal action - and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Cefoperazone
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What is Following are features of Paget's disease except - and explain in detail?
Paget's disease of bone (PDB) is a common condition characterised by focal areas of increased and disorgan ised bone remodelling. It mostly affects the axial skele ton, and bones that are commonly involved include the pelvis, femur, tibia, lumbar spine, skull and scapula. PATHOPHYSIOLOGY-Diseases of bone The primary abnormality is increased osteoclastic bone resorption, accompanied by marrow fibrosis, increased vascularity of bone and increased osteoblast activity. Bone in PDB is architecturally abnormal and has reduced mechanical strength. Osteoclasts in PDB are increased in number, are unusually large and contain characteristic nuclear inclusion bodies. Genetic factors are impoant and mutations in the SQSTM1 gene are a common cause of classical PDB. The presence of nuclear inclusion bodies in osteoclasts has fuelled speculation that PDB might be caused by a slow virus infection with measles or distemper but the evidence is conflicting. Biomechani cal factors may help determine the pattern of involve ment, since PDB often stas at sites of muscle inseions into bone and, in some cases, localises to bones or limbs that have been subjected to repetitive trauma or overuse. Involvement of subchondral bone can compromise the joint and predispose to OA ('Pagetic ahropathy'). CLINICAL FEATURES -The classic presentation is with bone pain, deformity, deafness and pathological fractures, but many patients are asymptomatic and diagnosed from an abnormal Xray or blood test performed for another reason. Cli nical signs include bone deformity and expansion, increased warmth over affected bones, and pathological fracture. Bone deformity is most evident in weight bearing bones such as the femur and tibia, but when the skull is affected the patient may complain that hats no longer fit due to cranial enlargement. Neurological problems, such as deafness, cranial nerve defects, nerve root pain, spinal cord compression and spinal stenosis, are recognised complications due to enlargement of affected bones and encroachment upon the spinal cord and nerve foraminae. Surprisingly, deafness seldom results from compression of the auditory nerve, but is conductive due to osteosclerosis of the temporal bone. The increased vascularity of Pagetic bone makes opera tive procedures difficult and, in extreme cases, can precipitate highoutput cardiac failure in elderly patients with limited cardiac reserve. Osteosarcoma is a rare but serious complication that presents with subacute onset of increasing pain and swelling of an affected site. INVESTIGATIONS -The characteristic features are an elevated serum ALP and bone expansion on Xray, with alternating areas of radiolucency and osteosclerosis (Fig. 25.57B). ALP is normal in about 5% of cases, usually because of mono stotic involvement. Radionuclide bone scanning is useful to define the presence and extent of disease (Fig. 25.57A). If the bone scan is positive, Xrays should be taken of an affected bone to confirm the diagnosis. Bone biopsy is not usually required but may help to exclude osteo sclerotic metastases in cases of diagnostic unceainty. MANAGEMENT-The main indication for treatment with inhibitors of bone resorption is bone pain thought to be due to increased metabolic activity (Box 25.82). It is often difficult to dif ferentiate this from pain due to complications such as bone deformity, nerve compression symptoms and OA. If there is doubt, it can be wohwhile giving a therapeu tic trial of antiresorptive therapy to determine whether the symptoms improve. A positive response indicates that the pain was due to increased metabolic activity. The aminobisphosphonates pamidronate, zoledronate and risedronate are more effective than simple bisphos phonates such as etidronate and tiludronate at suppress ing bone turnover in PDB, but their effects on pain are similar. Although bisphosphonates suppress bone turn over in PDB, there is no evidence to show that they alter the natural history or prevent complications. Calcitonin can be used as an alternative but is less convenient to administer and more expensive. Repeated courses of bisphosphonates or calcitonin can be given if symptoms recur. If symptoms do not respond to antiresorptive therapy, it is likely that the pain is due to a complication of the disease and this should be managed according to the principles described on page 1085. DAVIDSONS PRINCIPLES AND PRACTICE OF MEDICINE 22ND EDITION PAGE NO-1128,112
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What is Which action of extra-ocular muscle is spared in involvement of Occulomotor nerve : and explain in detail?
A i.e. Abduction
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What is 'Vagitus uterinus' is: and explain in detail?
C i.e. A Cry of unborn baby from uterus - Vagitus is the first cry of unborn childQ from uterus (V. uterinus) or vagina (V. vaginalis). - Foetus is ble (& capable of independent existence) after 210 days (7 months)Q. The average length (crown-heel length) of full term child is 48-52 cms.
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What is Drug tolerance and explain in detail?
Drug tolerance or drug insensitivity is a pharmacological concept describing subjects reduced reaction to a drug following its repeated use. Increasing its dosage may re-amplify the drugs effects; however, this may accelerate tolerance, further reducing the drugs effects. Drug tolerance is indicative of drug use but is not necessarily associated with drug dependence or addiction. The process of tolerance development is reversible (e.g., through a drug holiday) and can involve both physiological factors and psychological factors.One may also develop drug tolerance to side effects, in which case tolerance is a desirable characteristic. A medical intervention that has an objective to increase tolerance (e.g., allergen immunotherapy, in which one is exposed to larger and larger amounts of allergen to decrease ones allergic reactions) is called drug desensitization.The opposite concept to drug tolerance is drug reverse tolerance (or drug sensitization), in which case the subjects reaction or effect will increase following its repeated use. The two notions are not incompatible and tolerance may sometimes lead to reverse tolerance. For example, heavy drinkers initially develop tolerance to alcohol (requiring them to drink larger amounts to achieve a similar effect) but excessive drinking can cause liver damage, which then puts them at risk of intoxication when drinking even very small amounts of alcohol.Drug tolerance should not be confused with drug tolerability, which refers to the degree to which overt adverse effects of a drug can be tolerated by a patient. Tachyphylaxis Tachyphylaxis is a subcategory of drug tolerance referring to cases of sudden, short-term onset of tolerance following the administration of a drug. Pharmacodynamic tolerance Pharmacodynamic tolerance begins when the cellular response to a substance is reduced with repeated use. A common cause of pharmacodynamic tolerance is high concentrations of a substance constantly binding with the receptor, desensitizing it through constant interaction. Other possibilities include a reduction in receptor density (usually associated with receptor agonists), or other mechanisms leading to changes in action potential firing rate. Pharmacodynamic tolerance to a receptor antagonist involves the reverse, i.e., increased receptor firing rate, an increase in receptor density, or other mechanisms. While most occurrences of pharmacodynamic tolerance occur after sustained exposure to a drug, instances of acute or instant tolerance (tachyphylaxis) can occur. Pharmacokinetic (metabolic) tolerance Pharmacokinetics refers to the absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of drugs (ADME)
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What is A study was conducted on two different samples for comparing variation between DBP and Vitamin D. Diastolic blood pressure normal is 110 with standard deviation 11 and vitamin D levels normal 18 with standard deviation 3. Which of the sample has more variable? and explain in detail?
Ans. (b) Vitamin D is more than DBPRef: Parks Text book of Preventive and Social Medicine 24th Ed; Page No-886* Coefficient of variation (CV)=MeanSD x100* Standard Deviation (SD):# It is denoted by the Greek word sigma.# It gives us an idea of "spread" of dispersion.# Standard deviation =Variance * Coefficient of variation for DBP=11011 x100=10%* Coefficient of variation for vitamin D=183 x100=16%* So Coefficient of variation for DBP< Coefficient of variation for vitamin D
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What is If the rectal mucosa is injured, it is which degree of Perineal Tear ? and explain in detail?
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What is Which of the following is locking muscle for knee ? and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Quadriceps Locking muscle --Quadriceps femoris (especially vastus medialis pa).Unlocking muscle --Politeus.
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What is Pegloticase used in treatment of gout acts by which of the following mechanism: and explain in detail?
Rasburicase and Pegloticase metabolize insoluble uric acid to soluble allantoin and used in the treatment of chronic gout.
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What is Which of the following is the effect of restriction endonuclease on nucleotides? and explain in detail?
Restriction endonucleases breaks down the double stranded DNA in a specific manner.
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What is Which is electrical synapse? and explain in detail?
In electrical synapses, the membranes of the presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons come close together, and gap junctions form between the cells.(REF: GANONG'S REVIEW OF MEDICAL PHYSIOLOGY 23rd EDITION page no.115)
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What is All are pas of vulva except and explain in detail?
The vulva includes the mons pubis, labia majora (outer lips), labia minora (inner lips), clitoris, and the external openings of the urethra and vagina. ref - BDC 6e vol2 pg 358 , pubmed.com
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What is Most common cause of chronic pancreatitis is and explain in detail?
Etiology of Chronic Pancreatitis Heavy alcohol consumption is most common cause of CP (70-80%) Smoking increases the risk of alcohol induced CP Other causes : Chronic duct obstruction, trauma, pancreas divisum, cystic dystrophy of the duodenal wall, Hyperparathyroidism, hyperiglyceridemia, autoimmune pancreatitis, tropical pancreatitis&hereditary pancreatitis (accounts for <10 %of all cases) Ref:Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1531
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What is Pain of ovarian carcinoma is referred to: and explain in detail?
pain in the medial surface of thigh may be due to irritation of obturator nerve.other features include abdominal pain,abdominal lump,abdomibal discomfo,postmenopausal bleeding,weight loss,cachexia,anemia are the symptoms of advanced stage of cancer. Refer page no 526 of Text book of obstetrics,sheila balakrishnan.
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What is Which of the following is/are not the cause of hypopigmentation: and explain in detail?
D i.e. None
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What is True about negatively skewed data is and explain in detail?
negative or left skew means the mean is less than the median.mean<median<mode
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What is Nitric oxide is synthesized from which amino acid: and explain in detail?
NO is also called as Endothelium Derived Relaxing Factor (EDRF). NO (nitric oxide) is synthesized from arginine by enzyme NOS (Nitric oxide synthase) in the endothelial cells. It requires 5 cofactors:- NADPH FAD FMN Heme and Tetrahydrobiopterin (BH4). The vasodilator - nitroglycerin also enters smooth muscle cells, where its metabolism also leads to the formation of NO. NO synthase :-There are three isoforms of NOS (Nitric oxide synthase) 1. nNOS - neuronal 2. iNOS- inducible 3. eNOS- endothelial EC no. 1 (oxido-reductase) Mono oxygenase (one oxygen is added in substrate) Usually belongs to EC no 4 but NO synthase is an exception.
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What is Living ligature of the uterus is ? and explain in detail?
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What is Most common type of salivary neoplasm - and explain in detail?
Most common salivary gland tumor → Pleomorphic adenoma (mixed tumor). Most Common benign Salivary gland tumor → Pleomorphic adenoma (mixed tumor). Most Common malignant tumor of salivary gland → Mucoepidermoid Carcinoma Most Common site of pleomorphic adenoma → Parotid gland. Most Common site of mucoepidermoid Carcinoma → Parotid gland. Most Common site for acinic cell carcinoma → Parotid gland. Most Common site for adenoid cystic Carcinoma → Minor salivary glands. Multifocal and bilateral Salivary gland tumor → Warthin tumor and acinic cell tumor. Salivary gland tumor with tendency to invade perineural space → Adenoid cystic carcinoma.
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What is Inheritance of "Wilsons disease " is and explain in detail?
AR autosomal recessive
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What is Carhart's notch is seen in- and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Otosclerois Pure tone audiometry in otosclerosiso Shows loss of air conduction, more for lower frequencies with characteristic rising patterno Bone conduction is normal. However in some cases, there is a dip in bone conduction curve which is maximum at 2000 Hz (2 KHz) and is called the Carhart's notcho Dip in bone conduction in otosclerosis (Carhart's notch) - 2000 Hzo Dip in noise induced hearing loss (Acoustic dip) - 4000 Hz
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What is During appendectomy if it is noticed that base of appendix is inflamed then further line of treatment is and explain in detail?
The following steps are usually followed in appendectomy The base of the appendix is crushed with an artery forceps (No longer recommended). The base is then ligated with an absorbable suture. Distal to the ligature the appendix is divided. A purse string suture is applied in the cecal wall around the base of the appendix. The purse string suture is tightened and the appendix stump is invaginated into the cecum. (This step has also lost its popularity and there are surgeons who are in favour of simple ligation and amputation only). Methods adopted in special circumstances When the cecal wall is edematous & inflamed → purse string suture is not applied and the stump is not invaginated. When the base of the appendix is inflamed → the base is not crushed for the fear of the spread of infection by way of lymphatics and bloodstream. It is ligated close to the cecum, after which the appendix is amputated and the stump invaginated. If the base is gangrenous →it is neither crushed nor ligated. Two stitches are placed through the cecal wall close to the base of the appendix, which is amputated flush with the cecal wall after which these stitches are tied. Further closure is effected by means of the second layer of interrupted sutures.
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What is Area that lies immediately lateral to the anterior perforating substance is. and explain in detail?
Limen insula lies immediately lateral to substantia perforate anterior (i.e. anterior perforating substance).
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What is Which of the following is not seen in early onset Alzheimer's Disease: and explain in detail?
Answer is None (All are seen) > AgnosiaAphasia, Apraxia, Acalculia and Agnosias may all be seen in Alzheimer's Dementia.`Agnosia' in Alzheimer's disease usually presents late in the disease and is not included in the ICD-10 Diagnostic criteria for dementia in Alzheimer's disease with early onset and hence may be selected as the single best answer by exclusion.Dementia in Alzheimer's Disease with Early Onset (ICD-10 criterion)The criteria for dementia in Alzheimer's Disease must be met, and the age at onset must be less than 65 years.In addition atleast one of the following requirements must be met:a) evidence of relatively rapid onset and progressionb) in addition to memory impairment there must be:- Aphasia (Amnesia or sensory)- Agraphia- Alexia (indicating the presence of temporal, parietal or frontal lobe involvement)- Acalculia or- Apraxia
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What is An 18 year old male comes to the university clinic suppoed by his roommates because he cannot walk. He describes a rapidly evolving weakness affecting his legs and feet staing 2 days ago. On physical examination he cannot move his feet or ankles and he can barely raise his thighs off the bed. He has symmetrical hyporeflexia of the legs, but his sensorium is completely intact. Scanning his cha, the physician notes that he was treated 10 days previously for an upper respiratory tract infection. The immunological response producing the patient's symptoms is most intense at which of the following locations? and explain in detail?
The patient has developed Guillain-Barre syndrome, also known as inflammatory polyneuropathy. This presentation is classic-rapidly evolving limb weakness with symmetrical hyporeflexia but normal sensation. The syndrome frequently follows viral infections and may evolve into complete paralysis with respiratory failure. Guillain-Barre syndrome is thought to be an autoimmune disease. The clinical course is correlated with a chronic inflammatory infiltrate and demyelination of peripheral nerves, especially spinal and cranial motor nerve roots. Inflammation localized to a small poion of spinal cord (lateral coicospinal tracts) or cerebral coex (precentral gyrus) may occur in progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML) or in multiple sclerosis (MS). PML occurs in the immunosuppressed, and MS presents with hyperreflexia (upper motor neuron signs). The classic autoimmune disease involving the neuromuscular junction is myasthenia gravis. Although the weakness caused by myasthenia gravis may affect the legs, extraocular muscles are involved in the majority of cases, and isolated limb weakness is rare. Ref: Smith M.L., Bauman J.A., Grady M. (2010). Chapter 42. Neurosurgery. In F.C. Brunicardi, D.K. Andersen, T.R. Billiar, D.L. Dunn, J.G. Hunter, J.B. Matthews, R.E. Pollock (Eds), Schwaz's Principles of Surgery, 9e.
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What is A patient presents to ER after RTA, what is the best way to differentiate cardiac tamponade from Tension Pneumothorax? and explain in detail?
Ans. (a) Presence of Breath SoundsRef: ATLS Guidelines 10th Edition Page 69* Tension pneumothorax, particularly on the left side, can mimic same line cardiac tamponade.* Because of the similarity in their signs like muffled heart sounds, Raised JVP and Dilated neck veins, tension pneumothorax can initially be confused with cardiac tamponade.* The presence of hyperresonance on percussion indicates tension pneumothorax, whereas the presence of bilateral breath sounds indicates cardiac tamponade.
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What is All of the following are features of Grave’s disease except: and explain in detail?
None
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What is In good pasture syndrome, which organ is involved apa from lung? and explain in detail?
Goodpasture Syndrome - Type 2 HSN, Ab against anti - GBM Ab. Lung (Hemoptysis) and Kidney (Hematuria) MC involved organs. Treatment - Steroid
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What is True about following skin disease and explain in detail?
Psoriasis characteristically appears as elevated plaques of red scaling itching skin on the scalp, elbows, and knees. Its presence aside from its unpleasant appearance signals a systemic form of inflammation that can produce a destructive form of ahritis along with premature coronary vascular disease.
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What is Chassar moir surgery is done is case of : and explain in detail?
Chassar moir technique is widely used in repair of vesicovaginal fistula. Vagina and bladder are separated all around by flap splitting method and sutured separately in two layers. Reference: Chapter 18; Genital fistula and urinary incontinence; Shaw&;s textbook of gynecology- 16th edition
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What is "CARE " stands for and explain in detail?
CARE (Cooperative for Assistance and Relief Everywhere) provides emergency aid and long-term development assistance.CARE-India focused its food suppo in the ICDS programme and in development programmes in the areas of health and income supplementation.Park 23e pg: 924
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What is All are nephrotoxic, EXCEPT and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Chlorpromazine Nephrotoxic drugs:Lithium - Causes Nephrogenic diabetes insipidusCephalosporins - Cause interstitial nephritis and acute tubular necrosis (cephaloridine)Gentamicin - Causes injury to proximal tubular cells leading to acute renal failure.Also knowMost nephrotoxic cephalosporin - Cephaloridine Most nephrotoxic aminoglycoside - Neomycin Least nephrotoxic aminoglycoside - Streptomycin
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What is Alcohol dependence is associated with all of the following except and explain in detail?
Amotivational syndrome is seen with chronic cannabis abuse.
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What is CARE is associated with - and explain in detail?
Cooperative for Assistance and Relief Everywhere was founded in Noh america.Its world largest independent ,non-profit ,non secretarian international relief and devolopment organization.CARE provides emergency aid and long term devolopment assistance. CARE India focused its food suppo in the ICDS programme and in devolopment of programmes in areas of health and income supplementation.Parks textbook of preventive and social medicine.K Park. Edition 23.Pg no: 924
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What is Mallampati score is done for assessing: and explain in detail?
Ans. (b) Oral cavity of patient for intubation* Mallampati score, also known as Mallampati classification is used to assess the oral cavity of patient to predict the ease of intubation.* It is assessed by looking at the anatomy of the oral cavity; specifically, it is based on the visibility of the base of soft palate, uvula, fauces, and pillars.* A high Mallampati score (class 3 or 4) is associated with more difficult intubation as well as a higher incidence of sleep apnea.MODIFIED MALLAMPATI SCORING* Class I: Soft palate, uvula, fauces, pillars visible.* Class II: Soft palate, uvula, fauces visible.* Class III: Soft palate, base of uvula visible.* Class IV: Only hard palate visible
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What is Not a feature of Hartnup's disease: and explain in detail?
c. Mental retardation(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 636-642, Ghai 8/e p 653-655)Clinical features of Hartnup disease:Most children with Hartnup defect remain asymptomaticMajor clinical manifestation in symptomatic patient is cutaneous photosensitivity: pellagra-like rash on sun exposureSome patients may have intermittent ataxia & Psychological disturbances, but mental development is usually normal.
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What is Delusions are seen in all the following except - and explain in detail?
None
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What is Tirbanibulin and explain in detail?
Tirbanibulin, sold under the brand name Klisyri, is a medication for the treatment of actinic keratosis (AKs) on the face or scalp.The most common side effects include local skin reactions, application site pruritus, and application site pain.Tirbanibulin was approved for medical use in the United States in December 2020, and in the European Union in July 2021. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) considers it to be a first-in-class medication.It functions as a mitotic inhibitor by inhibiting tubulin polymerization and Src kinase signaling can be potentially effective in deferring the development of AKs to squamous cell carcinoma in situ. Medical uses Tirbanibulin is indicated for the topical treatment of actinic keratosis of the face or scalp. Mechanism of Action Tirbanibulin, chemically known as N-benzyl-2-(5-(4-(2-morpholinoethoxy)phenyl) pyridine-2-yl) acetamide, is a microtubule and non–ATP-competitive inhibitor. The drug in various ways mimics the mechanisms of chemotherapy by suspending the protooncogenic Src tyrosine kinase signaling pathway. Notably, it promotes G2/M arrest during cell cycle, upregulates p53, and triggers apoptosis via caspase-3 stimulation and poly (ADP-ribose) polymerase cleavage. Side effects In several studies tirbanibulin has been observed to induce skin reactions at the site of application, ranging from mild to severe erythema, flaking, ulceration, and pain.As of now, there has been no extensive research conducted on the risks of tirbanibulin usage by specific human populations (i.e., pregnant populations). There also has been no significant differences observed in safety or effectiveness of the drug between geriatric or pediatric populations. History The U.S
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What is In a DNA molecule adenine always forms a linkage with and explain in detail?
None
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What is Neonatal period extends upto - and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., 28 days of life Neonate (Newborn) o From bih to under four weeks of age (< 28 days), the infant is called neonate. o The neonatal period has been fuher subdivided into - i) Early neonatal period ----> First week of life (< 7 days) ii) Late neonatal period ----> 7th to < 28th day Term neonate (term baby) o Any neonate born between 37 and < 42 weeks (259 - 293 days) of pregnancy irrespective of the bih weight. Preterm baby o Any neonate born before 37 weeks ( o Any neonate born at or after 42 weeks (294 days or more) of pregnancy irrespective of the bih weight.
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What is Submicroscopic deletions of any size can be detected by: and explain in detail?
a. Multiplex ligation-Dependent probe amplification(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 605, Ghai 8/e p 6045)Multiplex Ligation-Dependent Probe Amplification (MLPA): It is a technique which mixes DNA hybridization, ligation, & PCR amplification to detect deletions & duplications of any size, including anomalies that are too large to be detected by PCR and too small to be identified by FISH.
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What is Acetic acid staining of cervix shows following except: and explain in detail?
None
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What is Which of the following is defective in renal glycosuria: and explain in detail?
Renal Glycosuria (also called Familial Renal Glucosuria or Glycosuria ) Blood glucose is normal, But still Glucose appears in urine. It is due to defect/mutation in SGLT-2, which is major glucose transpoer (90% glucose reabsorption) present in kidneys for the reabsorption and transpo of Glucose (see fig below). Mutation in SGLT-1 (10% glucose reabsoption) leads to glucose-galactose malabsorption
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What is Following delivery, uterus becomes a pelvic organ after: UPSC 07; MAHE 11 and explain in detail?
Ans. 2 weeks
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What is A 56-year-old man presented with bony pain. X-ray of skull showing which lesions in brain: and explain in detail?
Ans. a. Paget's diseasePAGET DISEASE OF BONE (OSTEITIS DEFORMANS)Common, localized disorder of bone remodeling caused by increases osteoclastic activity followed by increasing osteoblastic activity that forms poor-quality bone.In Paget disease; Serum Ca2+, phosphorus, and PTH levels are normal.ALP value elevated in Paget disease.Mosaic pattern of woven and lamellar bone (osteocytes within lacunae in chaotic juxtapositions); chalk-stick fractures seen in long bone.Increases blood flow from increases arteriovenous shunts may cause high-output heart failure.It Increases risk of osteogenic sarcoma.Due to skull thickening; Hat size increaseHearing loss is more commonly seen due to auditory foramen narrowing.STAGES OF PAGET DISEASELytic--osteoclastsMixed--osteoclasts +osteoblastsSclerotic--osteoblastsQuiescent--minimal osteoclast/osteoblast activity Treatment: Bisphosphonates
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What is Austin flint murmur is seen in cases of and explain in detail?
The Austin Flint murmur of chronic severe AR is a low-pitched mid to late apical diastolic murmur that sometimes can be confused with MS. The Austin Flint murmur typically decreases in intensity after exposure to vasodilators, whereas the murmur of MS may be accompanied by an opening snap and also may increase in intensity after vasodilators because of the associated increase in cardiac output.
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What is PG responsible for fever in brain is and explain in detail?
(B) PGE2 [?]Fever:-An abnormally elevation of body temperature-Pyrexia, febrile-Results from trauma, infections, drug reactions, brain tumors and other causes.oFever is an adaptive defence mechanism, in moderation, does more good than harm-Promotes interferon activity-Elevates metabolic rate and accelerates tissue repair-Inhibits reproduction of bacteria and viruses.oInitiation of fever by exogenous pyrogens - fever producing agents.-Glycolipids on bacterial and viral surfaces.-Attacking neutrophils & macrophages secrete endogenous pyrogens.-Stimulate neurons in anterior hypothalamus to secrete prostaglandin E2 .-PGE2 raises hypothalamic set point for body temperature.oStages of fever:-Onset, stadium, defervescence[?]Endogenous pyrogensoDerived from the macrophages, small molecule, can pass blood brain barrieroPyrogen cytokines trigger hypothalamus to release PGE2 resulting in resetting of thermostatic temperature, activation of vasomotor center, vasodilatation and heat production.[?]Fever pathogenesisoRegulated like body temperature, at a higher set pointoSet point is reset by endogenous pyrogens (IL-1, IL-6, TNF-a, TNF-b, and IFNg)oEndogenous Pyrogens stimulate Organum Vsculosum Laminae Terminalis (OVLT) surrounding the preoptic nucleus, anterior hypothalamus and septum palusolumoTriggered OVLT synthesis of PG (PGE2 ) - preoptic nucleus - fever
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What is The commonest site for impaction of foreign body in the Gastro Intestinal Tract is and explain in detail?
None
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What is Apoptosis can occur by change in hormone levels in the ovarian cycle. When there is no fertilization of the ovum, the endometrial cells die because: and explain in detail?
None
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What is Acquired symmetric hyper pigmentation of the sun exposed skin of the face and neck, which is strongly associated with pregnancy & use of oral contraceptives is called- and explain in detail?
(Ref: Burket, Ed. 10th Pg-132) * Melasma or Cholasma describes the discrete patches of facial pigmentation which occur in pregnancy and in some women taking oral contraceptives. * This pigmentation is seen paicularly in periorbital and perioral region.
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What is The number 12 in a 3 unit formula 12-6-8 indicates the blade is and explain in detail?
None
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What is Which of the following milestones is not developed at 1 year? and explain in detail?
A child is able to copy a circle at 3 years age
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What is Propranolol should not be given to a patient on treatment with which of the following drug ? and explain in detail?
None
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What is For satisfactory vision the minimum illumination accepted is – and explain in detail?
None
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What is Treatment of choice for HIT syndrome - and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Lepirudin Heparin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)o Heparin induced thrombocytopenia is an important adverse effect of heparin administration, usually caused by unfractionated heparin, but may also be seen with the use of low molecular weight heparin (LMWH).o HIT may be of two types :1. Type 1 (Non-immune mediated)It is mild and heparin may be continued.2. Type 2 (Immune mediated)It is due to formation of antibodies against platelets. Paradoxical thrombosis can occur. Heparin must be discontinued immediately. Warfarin and LMW are contraindicated. Lepirudin (a direct thrombin inhibitor) is anticoagulant of choice. Alternatives are danaparoid, hirudin and Argatroban.
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What is DNA repair defect is associated with - and explain in detail?
Defective DNA repair syndromes are : Xeroderma pigmentosa, Bloom syndrome, Fanconi syndrome and ataxia telongectisia.
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What is Ten days after a kidney transplant, a 32-year-old man returns to the hospital with symptoms of fever, and decreased urine output. He reports no cough, sputum, or dysuria. An ultrasound of the transplant kidney shows allograft enlargement. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? and explain in detail?
Renal scans initially show a reduction in excretion with cortical retention. This is the most common type of rejection. Most acute rejections will respond to immunosuppressive agents if diagnosed early. In contrast, immediate nonfunction of a graft can be caused by damage to the kidney during procurement and storage. Such problems are becoming less frequent. Obstruction, vascular compression, and ureteral compression are other causes of primary nonfunction of a renal graft.
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What is Postganglionic sympathetic fibres are and explain in detail?
The axons of postganglionic neurons are mostly unmyelinated C fibres and terminate on visceral effectors. Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 23rd edition; pg:263.
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What is Following are the structure passing through foramen magnum except (NOT REALTED TO PHARMACOLOGY) and explain in detail?
Structure crossing foramen magnum is lower medulla. The Spinal cord begins at the upper border of atlas veebra.
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What is An individual lacking the enzyme tyrosinase would be paicularly predisposed to develop which of the following? and explain in detail?
This question is simple if you know that tyrosinase is an enzyme in the biosynthetic pathway for melanin formation from tyrosine. A lack of tyrosinase causes one form of albinism; a second form is caused by defective tyrosine uptake. Patients with albinism are vulnerable to developing cancers of the skin of all types, including basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, and melanoma. The melanomas are unusual in that they are non-pigmented (amelanotic) rather than black, since the patients cannot form melanin. Ref: Park H., Yaar M. (2012). Chapter 72. Biology of Melanocytes. In L.A. Goldsmith, S.I. Katz, B.A. Gilchrest, A.S. Paller, D.J. Leffell, N.A. Dallas (Eds), Fitzpatrick's Dermatology in General Medicine, 8e.
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What is 2nd pharyngeal arch is supplied by and explain in detail?
B. i.e. (Facial) (109-LB. Singh Embryo 8th)ArchNerve of archMuscles of archFirstMandibular- Tensor tympani, tensor palate, medial and lateral pterygoids, masseter, temporalis, mylohyoid, anterior belly of digastric **SecondFacial- Stapedius stylohyoid, posterior belly of digastric**, muscles of face, auricular muscles, occipito- frontalis, platysmaThirdGlossopharyngeal- StylopharyngeusFourthSuperior laryngeal Muscles of pharynxSixthRecurrent laryngeal Soft palate and larynxThe cartilage of the second arch forms the following* Stapes* Styloid process* Stylohyoid ligament* Smaller (lesser) cornu of hyoid*** Superior part of body of hyoid
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What is Ramu, 40 year old male, chronic alcoholic, diagnosed as cirrhosis, presents with a lump in the right lobe of liver. Serum AFP level is normal. Most probable diagnosis is and explain in detail?
This is a typical presentation of hepatocellular carcinoma (age, cirrhosis, presence of lump, all perfectly match.) The only problem is that AFP is not elevated. This should not prevent us from making a diagnosis of HCC as Schwaz writes-"It must be kept in mind that only 60 to 75% of HCCs produce AFP; therefore, a normal serum AFP level does not rule out HCC." Hepatocellular adenoma and focal nodular hyperplasia (I' could not find any term as Fibrohyperplasia) are seen in women of reproductive age gp. They are associated with OCPs. Ref : Schwaz 9/e, p 1110
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What is Following muscles are supplied by facial nerve except and explain in detail?
The facial nerve is the seventh cranial nerve, or simply cranial nerve VII. It emerges from the brainstem between the pons and the medulla, controls the muscles of facial expression, and functions in the conveyance of taste sensations from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue and oral cavity. It also supplies preganglionic parasympathetic fibers to several head and neck ganglia. imageref - Sciencedirect.com
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What is All of the following are risk factors for atherosclerosis except : and explain in detail?
Answer is C (Decreased fibrinogen levels) Increased levels of .fibrinogen (and not decreased fibrinogen levels) are associated with increased risk of atherosclerosis. Fibrinogen Levels 'Fibrinogen levels correlate with coronary risk and provide information regarding coronary risk independent of lipoprotein profile. Elevated fibrinogen levels might promote a thrombotic diathesis'. Waist Hip Ratio : This refers to a characteristic 'male' distribution of adipose tissue i.e. excess of fat in the abdomen compared with that in hips. `An elevated waist/hip ratio has been associated with symptomatic cardiovascular disease and cerebrovascular disease in both men and women. - Pubmed (NCBI - website) Hyperhomocvsteinemia and low HDL levels are known risk factors for Atherosclerosis (as depicted in the following table). Major risk Factors for Atherosclerosis Cigarette smoking Hypeension (BP > 140/90mm/hg) or (on Antihypeensive medication) Low HDL cholesterol Diabetes mellitus Family history of CHD Age (Men > 45 years; Women > 55 years) Life style risk factors Obeity (BMI > 30 kg/m2) Physical inactivity Atherogenic diet Emerging risk factors Lipoprotein (a) Homocystine * Prothrombotic factors (Fibrinogen) Pro inflammatory factors Impaired fasting glucose Subcl inical atherogenesis
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What is Consumer protection act includes all, except ? and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., ESI hospitals not included Consumer protection act For the first time in India, the Consumer Protection Act 1986 provided consumers a forum for speedy redressal of their grievances against medical services. According to this act, the decision should be taken within 3-6 months. There is no cou fee payment and the person can plead his own case. Recently even ESI hospitals have been brought within the ambit of this act. COPRA is a piece of comprehensive legislation and recognizes six rights of consumer:- Right to safety Right to be informed Right to choose Right to be heard Right to seek redressal Right to consumer education For medical negligence, complain can be given to MCI or can be filed in consumer cou. MCI can take disciplinary action, e.g. temporary or permanent cancellation of registration of concerned doctor. But, MCI cannot punish a doctor or give a compensation. Consumer cous give compensation. The limits of consumer cous are:- District consumer cou - Up to Rs. 20 lacs. State commission - Rs. 20 lacs to Rs. 1 crore. National commission - Above Rs. 1 crore.
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What is Dilutionalhyponatremia is seen in - and explain in detail?
In Addison's disease in more advanced stages of adrenal destruction,serum sodium, chloride and bicarbonate levels are reduced,serum potassium level is elevated. Hyponatremia is due to both loss of sodium into urine and to movement into intracellular compament.(Harrison 17 pg 2264).-
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What is Insulin acts on glucose metabolism by: and explain in detail?
B i.e. T permeability across cell membrane against glucose gradient Insulin increases glucose uptake by increasing the number of glucose transpoer in cell membrane. Direct insulin stimulated glucose uptake is mediated by Glut 4 and is seen only in: Muscle: Skeletal muscleQ and cardiac muscleQ Adipose tissueQ Glucose Transpoers In Mammals Facilitated Bidirection Diffusion Function Major Sites of Expression Km GLUT 1 Basal glucose uptake - Placenta, blood - brain barrier, Red cells, kidneys 1-2 GLUT 2 B cell glucose sensor; transpo out of intestinal & renal epithelial cells. - B cells of islets, Liver, Small intestine, Kidney 12-20 GLUT 3 Basal glucose uptake - Brain, placenta, kidney <1 GLUT 4 Insulin stimulated glucose uptakeQ - Skeletal & cardiac muscleQ - Adipose tissueQ 5 GLUT 5 Fructose transpo - Jejunum, Sperm 1-2 GLUT 6 None - Pseudogene ? GLUT 7 Glucose 6-PO4 transpoer in endoplasmic reticulum - Liver ? Secondary Active Transpo Na+ glucose cotranspo (unidirectional -transpoer) SGLT-1 Active uptake of glucose against Small intestine, renal tubule 0.1 - 1.0 SGLT-2 concentration gradient Renal tubule 1.6
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What is The macrophage in the brain is - and explain in detail?
None
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What is HLA-B27 histocompatibility antigen is seen in and explain in detail?
None
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What is All of the following are supplied by anterior cerebral aery except: and explain in detail?
*Middle cerebral aery supplies Broca area Aery Area of brain supplied Anterior cerebral aery Anterior cerebrum Medial cerebrum( major contribution) Paracentral lobule Lateral cerebrum Middle cerebral aery Lateral cerebrum(major contribution) Wernicke's, Broca's area Basilar aery Pons Upper medulla Mid brain PICA Posterior cerebellum Lateral medulla Posterior cerebral aery Posterior cerebrum Occipital visual coex/striate coex Calcarine sulcus Mid brain Thalamus Posterior communicating aery Thalamus
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What is Fogarty's catheter is used for - and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Removal of embolus from blood vessels
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What is Hungry diarrhoea is seen in- and explain in detail?
(Ref: Davidson, Ed. 18th, Pg-516) KWASHIORKAR MARASMUS * There is sufficient calorie intake but protein deficiency. * Overal lack of calories due to starvation. * Common in children between 6 months and 3 years of * Common in infants under 1 year of age. * Wasting of muscles but preserved adipose tissues. * Wasting of all tissues including muscles and adipose tissue * Localized or generalized oedema present. * Oedema absent. * Enlarged fatty liver. * No hepatic enlargement. * Flag sign- alternate bands of light and dark hair. * Monkey like face, protuberant abdomen, thin limbs.
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What is A 35-year-old man presents with following problem. Most likely diagnosis? and explain in detail?
Ans. C. Gouta. Acute gout causing swelling, erythema and extreme pain and tenderness of the first metatarsophalangeal joint.b. This is also known as Podagra- Colchicine and indomethacin are the drug of choice in this acute attack.
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What is Inhibitor of platelet aggregation includes and explain in detail?
None
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What is A 75-year-old man presents to his GP for a routine check-up. On examination the GP hears a high-pitched diastolic murmur, heard loudest at the right sternal edge and on expiration. Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following is NOT a risk factor for this condition? and explain in detail?
Aoic regurgitation, High pitched diastolic murmur heard in case of AR Best heard on the left side. Option A: MC cardiovascular disease in Ankylosing spondylitis =A.R. Option B: Marfan syndrome is a Risk factor. Option C: ASD+ skeletal defects/Absent radius bone - Holt Oram Syndrome = In ASD shunt murmur is absent, in ASD it is flow murmur | Mid diastolic murmur Option D: Inf. endocarditis- bacteria will invade the valve leaflet & will contribute to developing Diastolic Murmur.
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What is Fructose from the intestine to enterocytes is transpoed through glucose transpoer? and explain in detail?
None
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What is All are true about Ramsay hunt syndrome except? and explain in detail?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Palatal myoclonus o The symptoms and sings of Ramsay Hunt syndrome include acute facial nerve paralysis, pain in the ear, taste loss in the front two-thirds of the tongue, dry mouth and eyes, and eruption of an erythematous vesicular rask in the ear canal, the tongue, and/or hard palate.o Since the vestibulocochlear nerve is in proximity to the geniculate ganglion, it may also be affected , and patients may also suffer from tinnitus, hearing loss, and vertigo.o Patients lose their sense of taste in the anterior two-thirds of the thogue while developing ipsilateral facial palsy. The geniculate ganglion of the sensory branch of the facial nerve in involved.o Possible involvement of the trigeminal nerve can cause anesthesia of the face.o Palatal myoclonus is a rapid spasm of the palatal muscles, which results in clicking or popping in the ear. It is often due to lesions of the central tegmental tract (which connects the red nucleus to the ipsilateral inferior olivary nucleus) and the clickinh noise does not subside when the patient sleeps.Ramsay Hunt Syndromeo Ear pain radiating to tonsillar region.o Vesicles in external auditory canal, pinna and anterior pillar of fauces.o Facial paralysisAlso seen# Loss of taste sensation on anterior 2/3rd of tongue.# Occasionally hearing loss and vertigo.Causeo Reactivation of HZV in geniculate ganglion.
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What is Anti endomysial antibody is seen in? and explain in detail?
ANSWER: (A) Celiac diseaseREF: Harrisson 17th edition, Chap. 288 & Table 308-12Repeat in December 2009See APPENDIX-51 below for "AUTOANTIBODIES"Asymptomatic celiac disease with selective malabsorption is beingfound with increasing frequency; the diagnosis can be made by testing for antigliadin, antiendomysial, or transglutaminase antibodies but may require endoscopic biopsy. A trial of a gluten-free diet can be confirmatory. APPENDIX - 51AutoantibodiesAutoantigenAutommune DiseasesCell- or Organ-specific Autoimmunity Acetylcholine receptorMyasthenia gravisActinChronic active hepatitis, primary bilary cirrhosisAdenine nucleotide translator [ANT)Dilated cardiomyopathy, myocarditisAdrenoreceptorDilated cardiomyopathyAromatic L-amino acid decarboxylaseAutoimmune polyendocrine syndrome type 1 (APS-1)Asialoglycoprotein receptorAutoimmune hepatitisBactericidal/permeability-increasing protein (Bpi)Cystic fibrosis vasculitidesCalcium-sensing receptorAcquired hypoparathyroidismCholesterol side-chain cleavage enzyme (CYPlla)Autoimmune polyglandular syndrome-1Collagen type IV-3-chainGoodpasture syndromeCytochrome P450 2D6 (CYP2D6)Autoimmune hepatitisDesminCrohn disease, coronary artery diseaseDesmoglein 1Pemphigus foliaceusDesmoglein 3Pemphigus vulgarisF-actinAutoimmune hepatitisGM gangliosidesGuillain-Barre syndromeGlutamate decarboxylase (GAD65)Type 1 diabetes, stiff man syndromeGlutamate receptor (GLUR)Rasmussen encephalitisH/KATPaseAutoimmune gastritis17-- Hydroxylase (CYP17)Autoimmune polyglandular syndrome-121-Hydroxylase (CYP21)Addison diseaseLA-2 (ICA512)Type 1 diabetesinsulinType 1 diabetes, insulin hypoglycemic syndrome (Hirata disease)Insulin receptorType B insulin resistance, acanthosis, systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)Intrinsic factor type 1Pernicious anemiaLeukocyte function-associated antigen (LFA-1)Treatment-resistant Lyme arthritisMyelin-associated glycoprotein (MAG)PolyneuropathyMyelin-basic proteinMultiple sclerosis, demyelinating diseasesMyelin oligodendrocyte glycoprotein (MOG)Multiple sclerosisMyosinRheumatic feverp-80-CollinAtopic dermatitisPyruvate dehydrogenase complex-E2 (PDC-E2)Primary biliary cirrhosisSodium iodide symporter (NIS)Graves' disease, autoimmune hypothyroidismSOX-IOVitiligoThyroid and eye muscle shared proteinThynroid-associated ophthalmopathyThyroglobulinAutoimmune thyroiditisThyroid peroxidaseAutoimmune Hashimoto thyroiditisTbrotropin receptorGraves' diseaseTissue transglutaminaseCeliac diseaseTranscription coactivator p75Atopic dermatitisTryptophan hydroxylaseAutoimmune polyglandular svndrome-1TyrosinaseVitiligo, metastatic melanomaTyrosine hydroxylaseAutoimmune polyglandular syndrome-1Systemic Autoimmunity ACTHACTH deficiencyAminoacyl-tRAN histidyl synthetaseMyositis, dermatomyositisAminoacyl-tRNA synthetase (several)Polymyositis, dermatomyositisCardiolipinSLE, Anti- phospholipid syndromeCarbonic anhydrase IISLE, Sjogren syndrome, systemic sclerosisKu-nucleoproteinConnective tissue syndromeLa phosphoprotein (La 55-B)Sjogren syndromeCollagen (multiple types)Rheumatoid arthritis (RA), SLE, progressive systemic sclerosisCentromere-associated proteinsSystemic sclerosisDNA-dependent nucleosine-stimulated ATPaseDermatomyositisFibriUarinSclerodermaFibronectinSLE, RA, morpheaGIucose-6-phosphate isomeraseRA2-Glycoprotein I (B2-GPI)Primary antiphospholipid syndromeGolgin (95, 97,160,180)Sjogren syndrome, SLE, RAHeat shock proteinVarious immune-related disordersHemidesmosomal protein 180Bullous pemphigoid, herpes gestationis, cicatricial pemphigoidHistone H2A-H2B-DNASLEIgE receptorChronic idiopathic urticariaKeratinRAKu-DNA-protein kinaseSLEMyeloperoxidaseNecrotizing and crescentic glomerulonephritis (NCGN), systemic vasculitisProteinase 3 (PR3)Wegener granulomatosis, Churg-Strauss syndromeRNA polymerase I-III (RNP)Systemic sclerosis, SLESignal recognition protein (SRP54)PolymyositisTopoisomerase-1 (Scl-70)Scleroderma, Raynaud syndromeTublinChronic liver disease, visceral leishmaniasisVimentinSystemic autoimmune diseasePlasma Protein and Cytokine Autoimmunity Cl inhibitorAutoimmune Cl deficiencyClqSLE, membrane proliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN)Cytokines (IL-1, IL-1, IL-6, IL-10, LIF)RA, systemic sclerosis, normal subjectsFactor II, factor V, factor VII, factor VIII, factor IX, factor X, factor XI, thrombin VwfProlonged coagulation timeGlycoprotein Ilb/IIIg and Ib/IXAutoimmune thrombocytopenia purpuraIgAImmunodeficiency associated with SLE, pernicious anemia, thyroiditis, Sjogren's syndrome and chronic active hepatitisOxidized LDL (OxLDL)AtherosclerosisCancer And Paraneoplastic Autoimmunity AmphiphysinNeuropathy, small-cell lung cancerCyclin B1Hepatocellular carcinomaDNA topoisomerase IILiver cancerDesmoplakinParaneoplastic pemphigusGephyrinParaneoplastic stiff man syndromeHu proteinsParaneoplastic encephalomyelitisNeuronal nicotinic acetylcholine receptorSubacute autonomic neuropathy, cancerp53Cancer, SLEp62 (IGF-II mRNA-binding protein)Hepatocellular carcinoma (China)RecoverinCancer-associated retinopathyRi proteinParaneoplastic opsoclonus myoclonus ataxiaIV SpectrinLower motor neuron syndromeSynaptotagminLambert-Eaton myasthenic syndromeVoltage-gated calcium channelsLambert-Eaton myasthenic syndromeYo proteinParaneoplastic cerebellar degeneration
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What is Most common cause of neuropathic joint ? and explain in detail?
Ans. is `c' i.e., Diabetes Neuropathic joint (Charcot's joint) o It is a progressive destructive ahritis associated with loss of pain sensationx, proprioception or both, in addition normal muscular reflexes that modulate joint movements are decreased. Without these protective mechanisms, joints are subjected to repeated trauma, resulting in progressive cailage and bone damage. o It is most commonly caused by diabetes mellitus. Causes of Neuropathic joint disease (Charcoat's joint) Causes of Neuropathic joint disease (Charcoat's joint) Diabetes mellitus (most common) Amyloidosis Tabes Dorsalis Leprosy Meningomyelocele Congenital indifference to pain Syringomyelia Peroneal muscular atrophy
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What is Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS is: and explain in detail?
None
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What is Fosinopril and explain in detail?
Fosinopril is an angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor used for the treatment of hypertension and some types of chronic heart failure. Fosinopril is the only phosphonate-containing ACE inhibitor marketed, by Bristol-Myers Squibb under the trade name Monopril. Fosinopril is a cascading pro-drug. The special niche for the medication that differentiates it from the other members of the ACE Inhibitor drug class is that was specifically developed for the use for patients with renal impairment. This was through manipulation of the metabolism and excretion, and is seen that fifty percent of the drug is hepatobiliary cleared, which can compensate for diminished renal clearance. The remaining fifty percent is excreted in urine. It does not need dose adjustment. It was patented in 1980 and approved for medical use in 1991. Medical uses In congestive heart failure, the ability of the heart to pump enough blood to satisfy the physiological needs of the body is reduced
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What is A 50-year-old female is admitted to the hospital after a traumatic injury of the abdomen. NCCT examination reveals the lesion. An emergency procedure is performed. Which of the following peritoneal structures must be carefully manipulated to prevent intraperitoneal bleeding? and explain in detail?
CT shows a subcapsular hematoma with a splenic laceration extending from the capsule to the hilum with an intraparenchymal hematoma Leinorenal ligament, also known as the Splenorenal ligament contains: tail of the pancreas splenic aery splenic vein Hence it is needed to be manipulated carefully to prevent bleeding. Gastrosplenic ligament contains: Sho gastric vessels and left gastroepiploic vessels The coronary ligament is the peritoneal reflection from the diaphragmatic surface of the liver onto the diaphragm that encloses the bare area of liver; it is not attached to the spleen The phrenico-colic ligament, also known as Hensing's ligament, is a peritoneal ligament extending from the splenic flexure of the colon to the diaphragm. It functions as a potential barrier to the spread of infection between the left paracolic gutter and the left subphrenic space. It also prevents downward extension of spleen during splenomegaly.
You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is All of the following drugs are used for the treatment of urinary incontinence except: and explain in detail?
Ans. (B) Ipratropium(Ref: Katzung 10/e p115; KDT 8th/e p129)Ipratropium is an anticholinergic drug which is used for the treatment of COPD and bronchial asthma.