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what are flame tests
<P> A flame test is an analytic procedure used in chemistry to detect the presence of certain elements, primarily metal ions, based on each element's characteristic emission spectrum. The test involves introducing a sample of the element or compound to a hot, non-luminous flame, and observing the color of the flame that results. <P> The flame test carried out on a copper halide. The characteristic bluish-green color of the flame is due to the copper. Different flame types of Bunsen Burner depending on air flow through the valve: 1. air valve closed. 2. air valve nearly fully closed. 3. air valve semi-opened. 4. air valve maximally opened. The test involves introducing a sample of the element or compound to a hot, non-luminous flame, and observing the color of the flame that results. <P> flame test. flame test, test used in the identification of certain metals. It is based on the observation that light emitted by any element gives a unique spectrum when passed through a spectroscope. When a salt of the metal is introduced into a Bunsen burner flame, the metallic ion produces characteristic color in the flame <P> Flame Test Introduction. The flame test is used to visually determine the identity of an unknown metal or metalloid ion based on the characteristic color the salt turns the flame of a Bunsen burner. The heat of the flame excites the electrons of the metals ions, causing them to emit visible light. <P> FLAME TESTS This page describes how to do a flame test for a range of metal ions, and briefly describes how the flame colour arises. Flame tests are used to identify the presence of a relatively small number of metal ions in a compound. Not all metal ions give flame colours. For Group 1 compounds, flame tests are usually by far the easiest way of identifying which metal you have got. For other metals, there are usually other easy methods which are more reliable-but the flame test can give a useful hint as to where to look. <P> The color of flames in general also depends on temperature; see flame color. The test involves introducing a sample of the element or compound to a hot, non-luminous flame, and observing the color of the flame that results. The idea of the test is that sample atoms evaporate and since they are hot, they emit light when being in flame <P> Flame tests are useful because gas excitations produce a signature line emission spectrum for an element. In comparison, incandescence produces a continuous band of light with a peak dependent on the temperature of the hot object. Because each element has an exactly defined line emission spectrum, scientists are able to identify them by the color of flame they produce. For example, copper produces a blue flame, lithium and strontium a red flame, calcium an orange flame, sodium a yellow flame, and barium a green flame. <P> Metals change the colour of a flame when they are heated in it. Different metals give different colours to the flame, so flame tests can be used to identify the presence of a particular metal in a sample. This is how you would carry out a typical flame test: 1 dip a clean flame test loop in the sample solution. 2 hold the flame test loop at the edge of a bunsen burner flame. <P> 1 A flame test is performed by introducing a sample into the blue flame of a bunsen burner and noting any change in the colour of the flame. 2 Flame tests can be used to detect the presence of some metallic elements in salts. 1 Flame tests can be used to detect the presence of some metallic elements in salts. 2 The heat of the bunsen burner's flame causes electrons in the element to move from their lower energy ground state to a higher energy excited state. <P> The Flame Test The flame test is a qualitative test used in chemistry to help determine the identity or possible identity of a metal or metalloid ion found in an ionic compound. If the compound is placed in the flame of a gas burner, there may be a characteristic color given off that is visible to the naked eye.
It is an analytic procedure used in chemistry to detect the presence of certain elements, primarily metal ions.
what sources does protein come from
<P> Source of Whey Protein. Twenty percent of the protein in milk is in the form of whey protein, while the remaining 80 percent is from casein. When whey protein is manufactured, the first step is to change milk into curds and whey. Whey protein, a form of protein that is manufactured from milk, is an excellent source of protein for people of all ages. <P> Protein is unique because it is the only food source of nitrogen, which is essential to all plant and animal life. Proteins are made up of chains of amino acids. For each protein, there are specific amino acids in a specific amount, and they are joined in a unique order. Incomplete proteins, found in plant foods, such as grains, seeds, nuts, beans and vegetables, provide a varying but limited array of amino acids. A greater variety and amount of incomplete proteins must be consumed to cover all the amino acids needed for protein building. <P> Though some vegetable sources of protein contain sufficient values of all essential amino acids, many are lower in one or more essential amino acids than animal sources, especially lysine, and to a lesser extent methionine and threonine. 1 Proteins derived from plant foods (legumes, seeds, grains, and vegetables) can be complete as well (examples include chickpeas, black beans, pumpkin seeds, cashews, cauliflower, quinoa, pistachios, turnip greens, black-eyed peas, and soy). 2 Most plant foods tend to have less of one or more essential amino acid <P> Sources of Complete Protein. Animal sources of protein are complete proteins, and some plant foods contain all essential amino acids. Sources of complete animal proteins include milk, yogurt, cheese, meat, poultry, fish, seafood and eggs. Soy protein is a plant-based source of high-quality, complete protein. Grains that contain all essential amino acids and are complete proteins include quinoa and amaranth, according to the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics. <P> Protein foods are classified in two ways: complete and incomplete. Complete proteins, which come from animal sources such as chicken, fish, dairy and soybeans, contain all the essential amino acids that help build your muscle and body tissue. Incomplete proteins, found in plant foods, such as grains, seeds, nuts, beans and vegetables, provide a varying but limited array of amino acids. A greater variety and amount of incomplete proteins must be consumed to cover all the amino acids needed for protein building. <P> Main article: Protein (nutrient). A complete protein (or whole protein) is a source of protein that contains an adequate proportion of all nine of the essential amino acids necessary for the dietary needs of humans or other animals. 1 Proteins derived from plant foods (legumes, seeds, grains, and vegetables) can be complete as well (examples include chickpeas, black beans, pumpkin seeds, cashews, cauliflower, quinoa, pistachios, turnip greens, black-eyed peas, and soy). 2 Most plant foods tend to have less of one or more essential amino acid <P> Complete proteins are those that contain all essential amino acids in sufficient quantity – these are typically animal-based proteins, but a few plant sources are also considered complete. A few examples are (* indicates plant-based): 1 Meat. 2 Fish. 3 Dairy products (milk, yogurt, whey). 4 Eggs. Complete vs Incomplete Protein Sources. Your body needs 22 different types of amino acids to function properly. Adults can synthesize 13 of those within the body (known as non-essential amino acids), but the other 9 must be obtained from food (known as essential amino acids). <P> The use of whey protein as a source of amino acids and its effect on reducing the risks of diseases such as heart disease, cancer and diabetes has been the focus of ongoing research as of 2007. Whey is an abundant source of branched-chain amino acids (BCAAs), which are used to stimulate protein synthesis. When leucine is ingested in high amounts, such as with whey protein supplementation, there is greater stimulation of protein synthesis, which may speed recovery and adaptation to stress (exercise). Whey protein is the collection of globular proteins isolated from whey. The protein in cow's milk is 20% whey protein and 80% casein protein, whereas the protein in human milk is 60% whey and 40% casein. <P> Protein foods are classified in two ways: complete and incomplete. Complete proteins, which come from animal sources such as chicken, fish, dairy and soybeans, contain all the essential amino acids that help build your muscle and body tissue. Food sources of protein include meat, dairy products, eggs, beans, nuts and seeds, whole grains, and vegetables. Most foods include some protein, even if only a little.
Proteins derived from plant foods (legumes, seeds, grains, and vegetables) can be complete as well (examples include chickpeas, black beans, pumpkin seeds, cashews, cauliflower, quinoa, pistachios, turnip greens, black-eyed peas, and soy). Most plant foods tend to have less of one or more essential amino acid.
what sea is iceland in
<P> The Norwegian Sea (Norwegian: Norskehavet) is a marginal sea in the North Atlantic Ocean, northwest of Norway. It is located between the North Sea (i.e. north of the United Kingdom) and the Greenland Sea and adjoins the North Atlantic Ocean to the west and the Barents Sea to the northeast. The Norwegian Sea is part of the Northern Sea Route for ships from European ports to Asia. The travel distance from Rotterdam to Tokyo is 21,100 km (13,111 mi) via the Suez Canal and only 14,100 km (8,761 mi) through the Norwegian Sea. <P> Geologically, Iceland is part of the Mid-Atlantic Ridge, a ridge along which the oceanic crust spreads and forms new oceanic crust. This part of the mid-ocean ridge is located above a mantle plume, causing Iceland to be subaerial (above the surface of the sea). Iceland is located at the juncture of the North Atlantic and Arctic oceans. The main island is entirely south of the Arctic Circle, which passes through the small Icelandic island of Grimsey grímsey off the main'island s northern. coast <P> Iceland (/ˈaɪslaend/ ; ˈaɪslænd: Ísland [island]) ísland ˈistlant Is a nordic island country Between The north atlantic And The. arctic ocean Iceland is located at the juncture of the North Atlantic and Arctic oceans. The main island is entirely south of the Arctic Circle, which passes through the small Icelandic island of Grimsey grímsey off the main'island s northern. coast <P> Iceland. Print this map. Print this map. Located in the North Atlantic Ocean, directly east of Greenland, Iceland is Europe's western most country, the second largest island in the North-Atlantic Ocean, and a little over 3 hours flight from London, Paris or Copenhagen. <P> Geography. Iceland is an island in the Atlantic Ocean, located near the Arctic Circle, between Greenland and Norway. An island of 103.000 km 2 (40,000 square miles), it is about the same size as Hungary and Portugal, or Kentucky and Virginia. Iceland is the second largest island in Europe, following Great Britain, and the 18th largest island in the world. The coastline is 4,970 km, and Iceland maintains a 200 nautical-miles exclusive economic zone. It takes approximately five hours to fly from New York to Reykjavik, reykjavík and three hours From. london <P> Confidence votes 40. Iceland is an island entirely in the North Atlantic Ocean. The most northerly part of Iceland almost reaches the Arctic Ocean, which is separated from the Atlantic Ocean by the Arctic Circle. Atlantic Ocean. <P> This makes Iceland one of the most geologically active places on Earth. Iceland is located east of Greenland in the middle of the North Atlantic Ocean. Iceland is around 20 million years old, which is rather young geologically speaking. Some of the most active volcanoes in the world are located in Iceland. This is due to Iceland remaining situated on a hotspot. A hotspot is an area under the crust that is relatively hot that receives energy from a thermal plume. Historical volcanism in Iceland provides more information on Iceland's volcanoes and their past eruptions. A detailed map of Iceland lying in the middle of the Atlantic Ocean. <P> A small volcanic island located between the Greenland Sea and the North Atlantic Ocean in the Arctic, Iceland is the westernmost European country. <P> Sea ice around Iceland. Ice in the ocean around Iceland has mostly arrived from afar. It comes here from the Denmark strait, which connects the Atlantic Ocean and the Arctic Ocean, between Iceland and Greenland. This great cold current transports a lot of ice southwards, both sea ice which is formed in sea water and ice bergs which break off from the glacier of Greenland. Late winter the ice can cover fishing grounds northwest of Iceland. <P> Iceland (/ˈaɪslaend/ ; ˈaɪslænd: Ísland [island]) ísland ˈistlant Is a nordic island country Between The north atlantic And The. Arctic ocean it has a 329,100 of 329100 and an 103,000 of 103000 (40,000 2 40000), sq mi making it the most sparsely populated Country. In europe the capital and largest City. is reykjavik reykjavík Iceland is located at the juncture of the North Atlantic and Arctic oceans. The main island is entirely south of the Arctic Circle, which passes through the small Icelandic island of Grimsey grímsey off the main'island s northern. coast
North Atlantic Ocean
what elements does lime CaO contain
<P> Lime water most commonly known as Calcium hydroxide solution.It is sparingly soluble in water.It uses as 'lime wash' or 'water wash'. It is made up of two elements which are 'quick lime' and water,through following reaction: <P> No. Quicklime is calcium oxide a compound with the formula CaO. Lime water is calcium hydroxide or Ca(OH)2 dissolved in water, producing a very basic solution. Lime, will … form lime water if it is dissolved in water though. Dry calcium hydroxide is known as slaked lime. <P> Aragonite and calcite are two minerals formed from calcium carbonate (CaCO. Lime (calcium oxide) is produced by heating limestone or seashells (calcium carbonate). The chemistry of calcium carbonate is similar to that of sodium carbonate and potassium carbonate except that calcium carbonate is not soluble in water. <P> Adding lime to your garden, lawn or soil. Lime and liming. Lime is strictly defined as a white caustic alkaline substance—quicklime; chemically, calcium oxide (CaO); made by heating chalk or limestone. But in gardening, lime means any calcium-containing material which is capable of correcting soil acidity. <P> Lime is ambiguous: Lime as fruit is not a compound but Lime as inorganic mineral is Calcium hydroxide, meaning that it is constituted of three elements: calcium hydrogen and o … xygen. <P> Another name for calcium oxide is quicklime. When lime is added to water in a process called slaking, calcium oxide is converted to calcium hydroxide, or slaked lime.. (II) CaO(s) + H. While limestone is insoluble in water, slaked lime is marginally soluble in water.
calcium carbonate
how old do you have to be to have a nose job
<P> Report Abuse. If you're talking about a nose job for cosmetic reasons, most doctors will require you be at least sixteen years old, with your parents' consent. Otherwise, you will wait until you're 18. However, if you need rhinoplasty for medical reasons, then it can be done at any age. If you are a minor, then a parent has to sign their consent. You'll have to find a doctor willing to do the procedure on a minor, however. This won't be difficult in the case of an older teenager, but younger than that and doctors will have more concerns. <P> A 12 year old can get a nose job if its a medical condition and is prescribed by a doctor. Otherwise surgeons won't do it until you are 15 or 16 for girls and 16 or 17 f … or boys. If you do a surgery really early then your nose will grow back or maybe be even worse than before. You should wait until you are 18. <P> The nose has to be fully developed for a teenager to get a surgery. If the teenager gets a rhinoplasty at too young of an age then the nose can grow disproportional to how it was reshaped. Apart from the physical aspect of a nose job, the 15 and 16 year old is more mature than a 13 year old. Some doctors will go as early as 14 for boys and 13 for girls, but it's not recommended. You should make the decision of plastic surgery on logic and not purely emotion <P> Before getting a nose job, teens and their parents or guardians should talk extensively with the surgeon and weigh all of the risks and benefits. Honest communication between you, your parents, and the surgeon is very important to the success of the operation. <P> Report Abuse. I think you have to be at least 16 with parental consent, because you're mostly done growing by then. Or 18 without parental consent. When you get it the first week you will have to wear a cast/splint and the second your doctor might tape your nose. You will have bruising and swelling the first week but it depends on how much <P> Best Answer: You don't have to be a certain age; many teenagers have this procedure. The cost of the nose job depends on whether it is septoplasty (medical problem) or rhinoplasty (purely for appearance). With septoplasty, you will get a significant rebate from Medicare. With rhinoplasty, expect to pay around $7500 plus anethetist costs (approximately $400). Your GP should be able to recommend a cosmetic surgeon, but even so, you should do your homework and make sure that they are fully qualified. <P> A 12 year old can get a nose job if its a medical condition and is prescribed by a doctor. Otherwise surgeons won't do it until you are 15 or 16 for girls and 16 or 17 f … or boys. If you do a surgery really early then your nose will grow back or maybe be even worse than before. You should wait until you are 18. <P> If you get one before you have stopped growing for cosmetic reasons alone, you will end up needing another one eventually. My daughter broke her nose in a fall when she was three years old. she will eventually need a nose job so to speak, simply for cosmetic reasons. If you are a minor, then a parent has to sign their consent. You'll have to find a doctor willing to do the procedure on a minor, however. This won't be difficult in the case of an older teenager, but younger than that and doctors will have more concerns. <P> how old do you have to be to get a nose job? Nose job cannot be performed until the nose is fully developed usually between 15 and 16 years of age. Dr Simoni believes that a teenager must be the one to desire nose job. Psychological maturity is a must. A teenager needs to understand the nose surgery involves recovery time, discomfort, swelling and a less than pleasing appearance for sometime following nose surgery. It is important that the teenager should have support in their decision to proceed with nose surgery.
15 or 16 for girls and 16 or 17 for boys.
patriarchal meaning in urdu
<P> patriarchy. n, pl-chies. 1. (Sociology) a form of social organization in which a male is the head of the family and descent, kinship, and title are traced through the male line. 2. (Sociology) any society governed by such a system. (ˈpeɪ triˌɑr ki). n., pl. <P> You have searched the English word Patriarchal meaning in Urdu سر قبیلی صلیب . Patriarchal meaning has been search 833 (eight hundred and thirty-three) times till 9/29/2015. You can also find Patriarchal meaning and Translation in Urdu, Arabic, Hindi, Spanish, French and other languages. English to Urdu. <P> You have searched the English word Patriarchy meaning in Urdu بدر شاہی حکومت . Patriarchy meaning has been search 6873 (six thousand eight hundred and seventy-three) times till 10/5/2015. You can also find Patriarchy meaning and Translation in Urdu, Arabic, Hindi, Spanish, French and other languages. English to Urdu. <P> 1. a. a form of social organization in which the father is the head of the family, clan, or tribe and descent is reckoned in the male line. b. a society based on this social organization. 2. a. an institution or organization in which power is held by and transferred through males. <P> Radical feminism is a philosophy emphasizing the patriarchal roots of inequality between men and women, or, more specifically, social dominance of women by men. Radical feminism views patriarchy as dividing rights, privileges and power primarily by gender, and as a result oppressing women and privileging men.
سر قبیلی صلیب
how well does deloitte pay
<P> Deloitte average salary is $69,592, median salary is $62,090 with a salary range from $21,840 to $1,560,000. Deloitte salaries are collected from government agencies and companies. Each salary is associated with a real job position. Deloitte salary statistics is not exclusive and is for reference only. <P> The data includes salaries from many Deloitte divisions – including Deloitte Tax LLP and Deloitte Consulting LLP, as well as Deloitte & Touche, the firm’s auditing arm. <P> Deloitte Consulting Salary. Deloitte Consulting average salary is $92,041, median salary is $86,000 with a salary range from $36,000 to $1,060,000. Deloitte Consulting salaries are collected from government agencies and companies. <P> Deloitte Salary. Deloitte average salary is $69,592, median salary is $62,090 with a salary range from $21,840 to $1,560,000. Deloitte salaries are collected from government agencies and companies. Each salary is associated with a real job position. Deloitte salary statistics is not exclusive and is for reference only.
$21,840 to $1,560,000
why is pluto a planet
<P> Even though Pluto is a dwarf planet, and no longer officially a planet, it'll still be a fascinating target for study. And that's why NASA has sent their New Horizons spacecraft off to visit it. New Horizons will reach Pluto in July 2015, and it will capture the first closeup images of the (dwarf) planet's surface. <P> A planet is a celestial body that (a) is in orbit around the Sun, (b) has sufficient mass for its self-gravity to overcome rigid body forces so that it assumes a hydrostatic equilibrium (nearly round) shape, and (c) has cleared the neighbourhood [sic] around its orbit [ref]. <P> Any object that doesn’t meet this 3rd criteria is considered a dwarf planet. And so, Pluto is a dwarf planet. There are still many objects with similar size and mass to Pluto jostling around in its orbit. And until Pluto crashes into many of them and gains mass, it will remain a dwarf planet. Eris suffers from the same problem. <P> Pluto is not a planet because it doesn't meet the necessary requirements needed to be a planet. The requirements are: It needs to be in orbit around the sun --Yes, Pluto does orbit the sun. It needs to have enough gravity to pull itself into a spherical shape -- Pluto has sufficient gravity to have become spherical. <P> Since its discovery in 1930, Pluto has been a bit of a puzzle: 1 It's smaller than any other planet -- even smaller than Earth 's moon. 2 It's dense and rocky, like the terrestrial planets (Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars). 3 However, its nearest neighbors are the gaseous Jovian planets (Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune). <P> Even though Pluto is a dwarf planet, and no longer officially a planet, it’ll still be a fascinating target for study. And that’s why NASA has sent their New Horizons spacecraft off to visit it. New Horizons will reach Pluto in July 2015, and capture the first close-up images of the (dwarf) planet’s surface. <P> (2) A dwarf planet is a celestial body that (a) is in orbit around the sun, (b) has sufficient mass for its self-gravity to overcome rigid body forces so that it assumes a hydrostatic equilibrium (nearly round) shape [2], (c) has not cleared the neighborhood around its orbit, and (d) is not a satellite. <P> Pluto, a celestial snowball with a surface of methane ice 3.6 billion miles from the sun, might be making its way back into the solar system fraternity. First discovered and classified as planet in 1930, Pluto was relegated to dwarf-planet status by the International Astronomical Union in 2006. <P> Since its discovery in 1930, Pluto has been a bit of a puzzle: 1 It's smaller than any other planet -- even smaller than Earth 's moon. 2 It's dense and rocky, like the terrestrial planets (Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars). 3 Pluto's orbit is erratic. 4 One of its moons, Charon, is about half Pluto's size.
There are still many objects with similar size and mass to Pluto jostling around in its orbit And it crashes into many of them and gains mass, it will remain a dwarf planet.
what is the formula for calculating the amount of decking needed
<P> Estimating Wood and Screws for the Deck Surface. If the width of the boards is a inches and the spacing between them is b inches, then the total length of board needed to surface the top part of the deck is. L(12W + b)/(a + b). (feet). If your value for b = 0, then the formula is simply. 12LW/a (feet). <P> To get the square footage, all you need to do is multiply the length of the room in feet by the width of the room in feet. For example, a 16 foot long by 14 foot wide room has a square footage of 224. So we will multiply 224 by 15 and we get 3,360 lumens. List of the required lumens per sq foot based on the room type: <P> Use the instructions below to help you find the measurements. 1. Measure both the lengths and the heights of the deck that you want to cover. If the area is irregular, fit that area in a rectangle and measure that rectangle for its length and height. Then add the amount into the calculator. 2. <P> 2[(12W + d)/(x + d)][(12L + j)/j], and compute the number of screws needed for the frame of the deck with the formula. 4(12L +j)/j. Add the two numbers that you get, and this is the approximate number of screws you will need for the entire deck. You may want to factor in an extra 3%. Next, use the following equation to calculate the total length of deck boards needed to construct the top of the deck, L(12W-x)/(x + d) + L. You can use the simplified form, (12WL + dL)/(x + d). Add up the two numbers found in Steps 3 and 4, and this is the total length of board needed to construct the deck. <P> Convert the actual width of the deck board to a decimal and add 0.13 for the 1/8-inch spacing required between the boards. Divide the result by 12 for the decimal portion of one foot. For example, the decimal portion of a foot for a 5 ½-inch deck board with 1/8-inch spacing is 5.63 divided by 12 which is 0.47. Divide the square footage of the deck by the square feet each deck board will cover. In the example above, each deck board will cover 3.8 feet. If a deck is 484 square feet, round the result of 127.4 up to 128 deck boards. <P> When planning cost and materials, calculate the number of deck boards required to complete the deck without running out or having a lot left over. The square footage of a deck also plays a role in planning your materials cost for the type of material used for the deck. Divide the square footage of the deck by the square feet each deck board will cover. In the example above, each deck board will cover 3.8 feet. If a deck is 484 square feet, round the result of 127.4 up to 128 deck boards. <P> You will require 32 rows of decking boards. Next you need to work out the total lineal metres you will require. Multiply the “number of rows” amount by the length of your deck – again ensuring you allow for the fascia and the overhangs on both sides of the deck. I suggest and recommend allowing 10% for waste. The finial calculation is as follows: “Number of decking board rows” x “length of deck in metres” x “1.1″ (multiplying by 1.1 automatically adds on the 10% waste) = total lineal metres. Using the previous example your calculation would be: 32 x 5 x 1.1 = 176 lineal metres. <P> Overview. When planning cost and materials, calculate the number of deck boards required to complete the deck without running out or having a lot left over. The square footage of a deck also plays a role in planning your materials cost for the type of material used for the deck. Step 4. Convert the actual width of the deck board to a decimal and add 0.13 for the 1/8-inch spacing required between the boards. Divide the result by 12 for the decimal portion of one foot. For example, the decimal portion of a foot for a 5 ½-inch deck board with 1/8-inch spacing is 5.63 divided by 12 which is 0.47. <P> Multiply the number of joists needed along its length you calculated first by the number of joists needed to make a full length joist along the width of the floor and that will be the total amount of joists needed. On the outside edge along the floors length you will need 2″ X 10″ etc..
(12L +j)/j. Add the two numbers that you get, and this is the approximate number of screws you will need for the entire deck
How long after birth until period
<P> If you're still breastfeeding day and night, it can be up to a year before you have a period. If you're lucky enough to have a baby who sleeps through the night from an early age, your periods will probably return sooner. Your periods could start within three months to eight months. <P> Answer by lauryn (194). The length of time it takes a women to get her period after giving birth varies from women to women. For many women it can take about 2 to 3 months before your period returns to normal. If you are nursing than this time frame will last even longer. It could take about 6 months on average. <P> If you're not breastfeeding, your period may start again in 6 to 8 weeks after giving birth. If you are breastfeeding, you may not start again for months. Some women don’t have a period again until they stop breastfeeding. It’s possible that you may ovulate (release an egg) before you get your period again. <P> If you are breast feeding you may not have a period until after you have finished breast feeding and your milk has dried up.If you aren't breast feeding then depending on how quickly your hormone levels return to normal usually 2-6 months It took me about 6 weeks. <P> There's always the chance that you'll get pregnant even before your periods have started again. If you're formula-feeding your baby, you may start your periods again any time between five weeks and three months after giving birth. So you could be fertile just three weeks after having your baby. Learn more about contraception after having a baby. 1 your periods haven't returned properly yet.
about 2 to 3 months
hr directors responsibilities
<P> Job Duties. HR directors are responsible for the smooth and profitable operation of a company’s human resources department. Typically, they supervise and provide consultation to management on strategic staffing plans, compensation, benefits, training and development, budget, and labor relations. <P> They create employment training and organizational development programs. HR Director Job Responsibilities. 1 Providing the safety of the workforce. 2 Developing a superior and efficient workforce. 3 Developing and managing the Human Resource department. <P> For this reason, a human resources manager must be well-versed in each of the human resources disciplines – compensation and benefits, training and development, employee relations, and recruitment and selection. <P> Human Resources Manager Job Responsibilities: Maintains and enhances the organization's human resources by planning, implementing, and evaluating employee relations and human resources policies, programs, and practices. <P> Rising through the ranks of the human resources field to the role of HR director is a solid career goal – and with the right combination of education and experience, it’s an achievable one. Knowledgeable in all aspects of human resources, the HR director can be a valued management position. <P> Human Resources Director Job Description. This human resources director sample job description can assist in your creating a job application that will attract job candidates who are qualified for the job. Feel free to revise this job description to meet your specific job duties and job requirements. <P> Daily tasks may vary, but a typical HR director supervises staff and reports to the chief executive officer on issues regarding implementation of policies and procedures, safety of the workforce, recruiting and hiring high-performing employees, and labor, legislative and other human resources issues.
They supervise and provide consultation to management on strategic staffing plans, compensation, benefits, training and development, budget, and labor relations.
are the veins going to or from the heart
<P> Report Abuse. Arteries transport blood to the body, and Veins transport blood to the heart. Blood goes through the Left and Right Atrium's of the heart, into the pulmonary arteries, back into the right and left ventricles, and into the body. The process is continuously repeated. Veins go into the right side of the heart, to send de-oxygenated blood to the lungs. Arteries come out of the left side of the heart to pump oxygenated blood around the body. <P> Report Abuse. Arteries carry oxygenated blood to the body, except for the pulmonary artery which carries de-oxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs. Veins carry de-oxygenated blood to the heart, except for the pulmonary vein which carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart. Nicola P · 7 years ago. Thumbs up <P> Best Answer: arteries carry oxygenated blood away from the heart to the body veins carry deoxygenated blood towards the heart with the exception of the pulmonary artery which carries deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs and the pulmonary vein that carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart. Veins carry de-oxygenated blood to the heart, except for the pulmonary vein which <P> Arteries. The arteries (red) carry oxygen and nutrients away from your heart, to your body's tissues. The veins (blue) take oxygen-poor blood back to the heart. 1 Arteries begin with the aorta, the large artery leaving the heart. 2 They carry oxygen-rich blood away from the heart to all of the body's tissues. 3 They branch several times, becoming smaller and smaller as they carry blood further from the heart. 1 These are blood vessels that take oxygen-poor blood back to the heart. 2 Veins become larger and larger as they get closer to the heart. 3 The superior vena cava is the large vein that brings blood from the head and arms to the heart, and the inferior vena cava brings blood from the abdomen and legs in <P> Location: The coronary system is comprised of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules and veins. From the innumerable cardiac capillaries, blood flows back to the cardiac chambers through venules, which in turn coalesce into the cardiac veins. <P> In the circulatory system, veins (from the Latin vena) are blood vessels that carry blood toward the heart. Most veins carry deoxygenated blood from the tissues back to the heart; exceptions are the pulmonary and umbilical veins, both of which carry oxygenated blood to the heart. In contrast to veins, arteries carry blood away from the heart. Veins are less muscular than arteries and are often closer to the skin. There are valves in most veins to prevent backflow. <P> The heart is a pumping system which takes in deoxygenated blood through the veins and delivers it to the lungs for oxygenation before pumping it into the various arteries (which provide oxygen and nutrients to body tissues by transporting the blood throughout the body). The right side of the heart receives deoxygenated blood from the systemic veins and pumps it to the lungs for oxygenation. The left side of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs and pumps it through the systemic arteries to the tissues of the body. <P> Overview. Veins are blood vessels that carry blood from your body's tissues to your heart. Your heart pumps the blood to your lungs to pick up oxygen. The oxygen-rich blood then is pumped to your body through blood vessels called arteries. <P> The pulmonary veins carry relatively oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart. The superior and inferior venae cavae carry relatively deoxygenated blood from the upper and lower systemic circulations, respectively. The portal venous system is a series of veins or venules that directly connect two capillary beds. In contrast to veins, arteries carry blood away from the heart. Veins are less muscular than arteries and are often closer to the skin. There are valves in most veins to prevent backflow.
To the heart.
what is bird cage made from for budgies
<P> Cage or aviary requirements for multiple budgies are a little different. Always buy a bird cage larger than you think you will need to prevent overcrowding. Crowded conditions can lead to several problems. Aggression is more likely to occur if the less dominant parakeets cannot escape from dominant parakeets. A minimum cage size is 24 by 24 inches with 1/4-inch bar spacing so the budgie cannot fit its head through the bars. Birds spend just about every minute of every day on their feet. Be sure to give your parakeet at least three perches, with at least one made of natural wood. <P> Although sometimes difficult to understand, Budgies can also learn to mimic speech. Bird Cages 4 Less has a variety of small bird cages with 1/2” bar spacing just perfect for housing your Budgie or other small Parakeet. <P> Well there are some fairly basic rules to help you with your decision. Firstly you need to make sure the cage is safe for your pet. Then you can think about necessary features such as perches and feed containers. Ease of cleaning is important. And last but not least is how will it accommodate a few special toys. So read on to prepare for your cage buying expedition. <P> Intro Edit. This wiki is about budgerigars and how best to raise them. For those of you unsure of what a budgie is, they are adorable little birds who make wonderful companions. They are small, colourful parakeets that are a popular pet around the world. Your bird should be fine on a diet of seed, millet and water, but for optimum nutrition, you should in troduce some kinds of fruit and vegetables, and give them a cuttlebone to eat and sharpen their beaks on (this provides them with calcium). Seeds are high in fat, so they shouldn't take up the whole of a bird's diet. <P> Ample perch space, again, guarantees each parakeet its own space. If the plan is for one large community cage, a couple of smaller cages are necessary for emergencies and to house a troublemaking budgie or two. Your parakeet needs a cage that is at least 24 inches by 24 inches. Measure the area where your parakeet will reside to get an idea of the size of cage the area will accommodate. This will keep you bringing home a bird cage only to find that it is too large for the space — or that you could have purchased a larger cage. A minimum cage size is 24 by 24 inches with 1/4-inch bar spacing so the budgie cannot fit its head through the bars. Birds spend just about every minute of every day on their feet. Be sure to give your parakeet at least three perches, with at least one made of natural wood. <P> In some countries, it is illegal to house a pet bird in a cage that does not permit it to spread its wings. Wingspans of common pet birds range from approximately 30 cm (12 in) for a budgie and 41 cm (16 in) for a cockatiel up to as much as 91–122 cm (36–48 in) for the larger macaws. Good quality cages designed for pet birds are more suitable. Most parrot cages are made or wrought iron and painted with a non-toxic paint referred to as powder-coating. However, the newest trend in the market is cages made of solid stainless steel. <P> 4) What type of bird cage should I get for my pet budgie? Pet budgies are quite active, so your budgie needs a spacious bird cage. Opt for a bird cage that is at least 24 inches wide by 24 inches tall with ½- to 1-inch bar spacing. Look for bird cages that are easy to clean and maintain, (e.g. the cage has a pull-out tray, food and water dishes that are accessible from outside the pet bird cage). <P> A birdcage (or bird cage) is a cage designed to house birds as pets. Antique (or antique-style) birdcages are often popular as collectors' items or as household decor but most are not suitable for housing live birds, being too small, or of unsafe materials or construction. Good quality cages designed for pet birds are more suitable. Most parrot cages are made or wrought iron and painted with a non-toxic paint referred to as powder-coating. However, the newest trend in the market is cages made of solid stainless steel. <P> The standard minimum cage size recommended by bird professionals is 12- by 18- by 18-inches for a single bird. This cage size is fine if your budgie is outside of the cage most of the time, but if you have a cage-confined budgie, it's going to be much too small to keep your bird happy and healthy. For two budgies, 39- by 20- by 32-inches is a recommended size. Your budgie's cage needs to be large enough that your little guy can spread his wings out completely without hitting the sides of the cage, toys or perches. This is the absolute minimum width and length.
Made of natural wood.
what is the flammability of butane
<P> Butane is a gaseous compound that is composed of four carbon atoms. It can either be found as the isomer n-butane or in the form of methylpropane or isobutane. This compound has no color and is highly flammable. It also liquefies easily. Butane is also classified as a natural gas and this simply means that it can be sourced through extraction of fossils. By means of liquefaction, this colorless and flammable compound can be sourced or extracted. <P> N-Butane. N-Butane, also known as Normal Butane, is a flammable, colorless, mostly nontoxic gas with a natural gas odor. Exposure to 1% of Butane for an interval of 10 minutes will result in a drowsiness feeling, but no other systemic effects. Butane cannot be detected by odor below 0.5% concentration levels. It may cause frostbite if the gas comes in contact with the skin. For more information visit our MSDS database <P> Temperature, pressure, and the concentration of the oxidizer also influences flammability limits. Higher temperature or pressure, as well as higher concentration of the oxidizer (primarily oxygen in air), results in lower LFL and higher UFL, hence the gas mixture will be easier to explode. Lower explosive limit (LEL): The lowest concentration (percentage) of a gas or a vapor in air capable of producing a flash of fire in presence of an ignition source (arc, flame, heat). The term is considered by many safety professionals to be the same as the lower flammable limit (LFL). <P> Butane is a flammable hydrocarbon with the molecular formula C 4 H 10. It is a natural gas perhaps best known for its use as a fuel for refillable and disposable lighters. Butane's uses can be observed in many sectors of life. It is a reliable source of energy, and can be obtained through the processing of natural gas. Butane serves as fuel for both the disposable and refillable lighter. Butane is used in this item for its high flammability and its low cost to produce. The butane torch is another item that takes advantage of its flammable properties. <P> Butane is also used as lighter fuel for a common lighter or butane torch and is sold bottled as a fuel for cooking and camping. In this form it is often mixed with small amounts of hydrogen sulfide and mercaptans which will give the unburned gas an offensive smell easily detected by the human nose. The term may refer to either of two structural isomers, n-butane or isobutane (or methylpropane), or to a mixture of these isomers. In the IUPAC nomenclature, however, butane refers only to the n-butane isomer (which is the isomer with the unbranched structure). <P> Butane is a hydrocarbon with a formula of C 4 H 10, which means it contains 4 carbon atoms and 10 hydrogen atoms. This gas is considered an alkane, which means it is a member of the alkanine series, a grouping of . . Butane serves as fuel for both the disposable and refillable lighter. Butane is used in this item for its high flammability and its low cost to produce. The butane torch is another item that takes advantage of its flammable properties. <P> When blended with propane and other hydrocarbons, it is referred to commercially as LPG, for liquified petroleum gas. It is used as a petrol component, as a feedstock for the production of base petrochemicals in steam cracking, as fuel for cigarette lighters and as a propellant in aerosol sprays such as deodorants. In addition, butane acts as a blending agent for gasoline at varying levels throughout the year. <P> Normal butane is mainly used for gasoline blending, as a fuel gas, either alone or in a mixture with propane, and as a feedstock for the manufacture of ethylene and butadiene, … a key ingredient of synthetic rubber. Isobutane is primarily used by refineries to enhance the octane content of motor gasoline. When blended with propane and other hydrocarbons, it is referred to commercially as LPG, for liquified petroleum gas. It is used as a petrol component, as a feedstock for the production of base petrochemicals in steam cracking, as fuel for cigarette lighters and as a propellant in aerosol sprays such as deodorants.
Butane is a flammable hydrocarbon with the molecular formula C 4 H 10. It is a natural gas perhaps best known for its use as a fuel for refillable and disposable lighters.
Oxygen in blood is transported mainly
<P> Best Answer: As you breath the oxygen in from the air it is transported round the body by the red blood cells. The cells are full of a compound called HAEMOGLOBIN, which has a strong affinity to oxygen. <P> While carbon dioxide is a metabolic waste product, it plays some important physiological roles as well. This lesson describes how carbon dioxide is transported in our blood, how carbon dioxide is converted into a pH buffer, and how carbon dioxide helps with oxygen transport. In summary, carbon dioxide is a metabolic waste product of ATP synthesis. As our cells produce carbon dioxide, it diffuses into the blood, where it is transported to the lungs for expiration. Some of the carbon dioxide is transported dissolved in the plasma. Some carbon dioxide is transported as carbaminohemoglobin. However, most carbon dioxide is transported as bicarbonate. As blood flows through the tissues, carbon dioxide diffuses into red blood cells, where it is converted into bicarbonate <P> Normal hemoglobin can bind a total of: 3 molecules of oxygen, 4 molecules of oxygen, 2 molecule of oxygen, or 1 molecule of oxygen. The majority of oxygen in the blood is transported by ________. dissolution in the blood, binding to hemoglobin, binding to blood plasma, or being carried as bicarbonate ions. <P> Confidence votes 8. Oxygen is transported by the haemoglobin of the red blood cells (erythrocytes). The oxygen binds reversibly to the haemoglobin to form oxyhemoglobin. Oxygen may also be dissolved and be transported in the solution form in blood plasma. Carbon dioxide is transported mainly as hydrogencarbonate ions. The process whereby carbon dioxide is converted into the bicarbonate ions occurs in the red blood cells. The reaction is reversible <P> Report Abuse. Pretty sure it's (2), bound to hemoglobin. Could be (3), dissolved in red blood cells because red blood cells transport oxygen throughout the body, but I don't think the oxygen is actually dissolved into the cells. sarge927 · 8 years ago. Thumbs up. <P> The oxygen that we obligate aerobes need for survival is transported from the lungs to peripheral tissues by the hemoglobin that is densely packed in our red blood cells (erythrocytes). Hemoglobin is the most intensively studied protein in the world, and its structure is known in intimate detail. <P> Vertebrate blood is bright red when its haemoglobin is oxygenated and dark red when it is deoxygenated. Some animals, such as crustaceans and mollusks, use hemocyanin to carry oxygen, instead of hemoglobin. <P> Red blood cells and haemoglobin. Oxygen is one of the substances transported with the assistance of red blood cells. The red blood cells contain a pigment called haemoglobin, each molecule of which binds four oxygen molecules. Oxyhaemoglobin forms. Transport of oxygen in the blood Blood Blood is an 'aqueous body fluid'. In other words it is water containing a whole range of substances. It is contained in a complex network called the vascular system and is pumped around the body by the heart.
The haemoglobin of the red blood cells.
what is an ivd
<P> Hoerlein reported the highest incidence of IVD disease (73.1%) in dogs 3 to 6 years of age. Dogs over 7 years of age constituted 21.2% of the reported cases. (28) Table 62-3 is a summary of the incidence of IVD disease by breed during a 5 and 1/2-year period(January 1976 June 1981) at the Purdue Small Animal Clinic. Severe or acute spinal cord compression following a cervical IVD protrusion is treated with 2.0 mg/kg intravenous dosage. This initial therapy is followed by more conservative doses (0.2 mg to 0.4 mg/kg sid or bid) for 2 to 3 days or as needed. More subtle episodes are treated with the conservative dosage initially. <P> The IVD gene is located on the long (q) arm of chromosome 15 between positions 14 and 15. More precisely, the IVD gene is located from base pair 40,405,484 to base pair 40,435,947 on chromosome 15. The official name of this gene is “isovaleryl-CoA dehydrogenase.”. IVD is the gene's official symbol. The IVD gene is also known by other names, listed below. Read more about gene names and symbols on the About page. <P> The IVD gene provides instructions for making an enzyme called isovaleryl-CoA dehydrogenase. This enzyme plays an essential role in processing proteins obtained from the diet. Normally, the body breaks down proteins from food into smaller parts called amino acids. The official name of this gene is “isovaleryl-CoA dehydrogenase.”. IVD is the gene's official symbol. The IVD gene is also known by other names, listed below. Read more about gene names and symbols on the About page. <P> First published: Part of: Medical devices regulation and safety and Medicines, medical devices and blood regulation and safety. Guidance for healthcare professionals covers the use, management and safety of in vitro diagnostic (IVD) devices, including blood glucose meters. <P> Definition: In vitro diagnostic products are those reagents, instruments, and systems intended for use in diagnosis of disease or other conditions, including a determination of the state of health, in order to cure, mitigate, treat, or prevent disease or its sequelae. It allows the recipient of an NSE (not substantially equivalent) letter to request a risk-based classification determination to be made for the device. In some cases, this allows a manufacturer to use the De Novo process to submit a 510(k) for a new IVD that would otherwise have to get to market via the PMA process. <P> This section provides an overview of how FDA regulates IVDs. It does not operate to bind FDA or the Public. Manufacturers can find detailed information about complying with the Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act from the Device Advice: Device Regulation and Guidance section. For more information, see IVD Guidance Documents. It allows the recipient of an NSE (not substantially equivalent) letter to request a risk-based classification determination to be made for the device. In some cases, this allows a manufacturer to use the De Novo process to submit a 510(k) for a new IVD that would otherwise have to get to market via the PMA process. <P> in vitro diagnostic. 1. Any device, reagent, material, or system designed for use in the laboratory diagnosis of disease or health status. The term also refers to a general category of entities that are highly and specifically regulated by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration and other regulatory bodies. A gene on chromosome 15q14-q15 that encodes isovaleryl-CoA dehydrogenase, a mitochondrial matrix enzyme that catalyses the third step in leucine catabolism. Molecular pathology. Defects in IVD leads to a toxic accumulation of isovaleric acid in the brain or isovaleric acidaemia. <P> Intervertebral disk (IVD) disease in the dog is a common clinical disorder manifested by pain, ataxia, paresis, motor paralysis, or sensorimotor paralysis. It occurs most frequently in the chondrodystrophoid dogs but also affects the nonchondrodystrophoid breeds. Severe or acute spinal cord compression following a cervical IVD protrusion is treated with 2.0 mg/kg intravenous dosage. This initial therapy is followed by more conservative doses (0.2 mg to 0.4 mg/kg sid or bid) for 2 to 3 days or as needed. More subtle episodes are treated with the conservative dosage initially. <P> At least 25 mutations in the IVD gene have been identified in people with isovaleric acidemia. Some of these mutations disrupt the normal function of the enzyme, while other mutations prevent the cell from producing any functional enzyme. As a result, the body is unable to break down leucine properly. The official name of this gene is “isovaleryl-CoA dehydrogenase.”. IVD is the gene's official symbol. The IVD gene is also known by other names, listed below. Read more about gene names and symbols on the About page. <P> FDA classifies IVD products into Class I, II, or III according to the level of regulatory control that is necessary to assure safety and effectiveness. The classification of an IVD (or other medical device) determines the appropriate premarket process. It allows the recipient of an NSE (not substantially equivalent) letter to request a risk-based classification determination to be made for the device. In some cases, this allows a manufacturer to use the De Novo process to submit a 510(k) for a new IVD that would otherwise have to get to market via the PMA process.
In vitro diagnostic products are those reagents, instruments, and systems intended for use in diagnosis of disease or other conditions, including a determination of the state of health, in order to cure, mitigate, treat, or prevent disease or its sequelae.
how often should dogs be vaccinated
<P> Puppies should receive their first canine distemper, canine adenovirus (infectious canine hepatitis) and canine parvovirus at 7-9 weeks of age, then at 12-13 weeks of age, and finally at 16-18 weeks of age to insure they are solidly protected against these diseases. Also, by law, most states require a yearly rabies vaccination even though studies have shown that many of the rabies vaccines we use give us three years of protection. Many veterinarians, myself included, were suspicious that the vaccines we used were giving much longer periods of protection than one year. <P> However, this protection only lasts a few weeks so they need regular vaccinations from an early age. Puppies are typically vaccinated at eight and 10 weeks, kittens at nine and 12 weeks, with an initial course of two injections. Your young pet should then be given a booster 12 months after their first vaccination. Rabbits need regular vaccinations too. Find out more about rabbit vaccinations. Older pets need protecting too, as their immunity can decline. <P> Which vaccinations should your puppy get? How often does your puppy need to be vaccinated? Do you really have to go back every three weeks for another vaccine? <P> 1 For adult dogs or puppies older than 16 weeks, the intranasal vaccine can be given once, and the injectable vaccine should be given twice, two to four weeks apart. 1 Kittens can be vaccinated intranasally as early as 8 weeks of age. 2 Puppies can receive the injectable vaccine starting at 6 to 8 weeks of age, followed by a booster between 10 and 12 <P> After the initial series of puppy vaccines your pet should get a parvo shot yearly. Your best option is to get the combination vaccine with parvo, distemper and some other stuff all in one because they are all needed yearly. I went to the Vet with my friend, her adult dog was sick. They should be vaccinated with distemper/parvo at 8 and 12 weeks. 16 is optional. They can get one final one at ~1.5 years of age and then every 3 years after that MAX. <P> Every day across the country, puppies and kittens, as well as adult dogs are massively vaccinated with multiple viral and bacterial antigens with the hope of enhancing their health and preventing potential future infectious disease. Vaccination titers are blood tests that can document protective immunity in most pets, and we are now finding that viral immunity to most core viruses like parvo and distemper in dogs, as well as panleukopenia in cats can last for many years to the life of the pet. <P> A vaccination is sometimes given three to four weeks later, about age 17 to 18 weeks. Most all veterinarians agree the final vaccination in the series should be given after the puppy is 4 months old. Once the puppy series is complete, your dog should received a booster vaccination each year. Most veterinarians recommend that a puppy receive his first parvovirus vaccination when he is 8 weeks old. The second vaccination is given in three to four weeks, about age 11 to 12 weeks. A third vaccination is given in three to four more weeks, about age 14 to 15 weeks. <P> Consult with your veterinarian to determine which vaccinations your puppy should receive, and how often. Drs. Foster and Smith prefer to vaccinate puppies with a combination vaccine at six weeks of age initially, with boosters given every three weeks until the puppy is about sixteen weeks of age. <P> Report Abuse. They should be vaccinated with distemper/parvo at 8 and 12 weeks. 16 is optional. They can get one final one at ~1.5 years of age and then every 3 years after that MAX. Distemper and parvo are the only vaccinations they absolutely need. The others (lepto, adenovirus, etc) are not strictly necessary <P> 1 Puppies can receive the injectable vaccine starting at 6 to 8 weeks of age, followed by a booster between 10 and 12 weeks of age. 2 For adult dogs or puppies older than 16 weeks, the intranasal vaccine can be given once, and the injectable vaccine should be given twice, two to four weeks apart. 1 Kittens can be vaccinated intranasally as early as 8 weeks of age. 2
Puppies can receive the injectable vaccine starting at 6 to 8 weeks of age, followed by a booster between 10 and 12 weeks of age. For adult dogs or puppies older than 16 weeks, the intranasal vaccine can be given once, and the injectable vaccine should be given twice, two to four weeks apart.
what makes perseus and medusa statue renaissance
<P> (1500 - 1571). Perseus. Benvenuto and welcome to this page about Cellini’s masterpiece, the larger-than-life bronze statue of Perseus with the Head of Medusa in the Loggia di Lanzi in Florence. Cellini was, by his own humble admission, the finest goldsmith, craftsman and sculptor of his day. <P> SCULPTURE. Sculpture is considered a masterpiece of Italian Mannerism, and is one of the most famous statues in Florence’s Piazza della Signoria. Located in the Loggia dei Lanzi, it depicts Perseus as he stands on Medusa’s body and holds her head up in the air. <P> In the final scene, Perseus stands at the broken statue of Zeus seen at the beginning. Zeus appears and offers to make Perseus a god on Olympus; but he refuses. Zeus notes that Zeus will return one day for revenge when mankind is in fear. <P> Hermes said that they were all siblings as Perseus was in fact the son of Zeus, so they would help him in his quest; so Hermes offered him his winged sandals and the sickle that was used by Cronus to castrate Uranus; while Athena gave him her shield, so that Perseus would not have to look straight into Medusa 's eyes. <P> Perseus with the head of Medusa, also known as Cellini’s Persus, is a bronze sculpture, considered a masterpiece of Italian Mannerism. Perseus with the head of Medusa, also known as Cellini’s Persus, is a bronze sculpture. It is considered a masterpiece of Italian Mannerism, and is one of the most famous statues in Florence’s Piazza della Signoria. Located in the Loggia dei Lanzi, it depicts Perseus as he stands on Medusa’s body and holds her head up in the air. <P> Cellini’s Perseus recalls Donatello’s bronze sculpture Judith and Holofernes (1460), but Cellini takes a step away from the early Renaissance style towards the characteristic titanism of the Italian Mannerism. Cellini’s Perseus also has political meaning, just like the vast majority of the statuary in the piazza.
Perseus with the head of Medusa, also known as Cellini’s Persus, is a bronze sculpture.
how do you determine age in veiled chameleon
<P> Although you can't tell the age of an adult chameleon, there are ways to estimate the ages of babies and juveniles. Different species vary in color and size. The ages of babies and juveniles are estimated by observing their sizes and colorations. Estimate His Age by His Size. Estimate a juvenile chameleon's age using his size as a gauge. Veiled chameleon hatchlings are 2 to 3 inches long, from nose to tail tip. By 8 months old, they've reach adult length. Females measure 8 to 12 inches long, including their tails, and males are 12 to 19 inches long <P> A pet chameleon can provide hours of enjoyment. You may wonder about your new pet, including such things as how long you think this chameleon will be a part of your life. Chameleons generally live for three to eight years, depending on their gender and species. Ask a reputable breeder. This is particularly useful if you bought the chameleon at a pet store and the salesperson is uncertain of the age. If you don't know of any breeders in your area, you can locate one using the search function on the Chameleons Online website. <P> Their lifespan is about five years. The veiled chameleon is usually around 3 to 4 inches at birth and marked by a light green color, eventually growing to between 8 inches and a foot after a year with much brighter and more varied color patterns. Veiled chameleons live between five and eight years. Ask a reputable breeder. This is particularly useful if you bought the chameleon at a pet store and the salesperson is uncertain of the age. If you don't know of any breeders in your area, you can locate one using the search function on the Chameleons Online website. <P> A reputable chameleon breeder who's familiar with your chameleon species may be able to estimate your juvenile pet's age. Most reputable breeders will not sell juvenile chameleons less than 6 weeks old. Estimate His Age by His Size. Estimate a juvenile chameleon's age using his size as a gauge. Veiled chameleon hatchlings are 2 to 3 inches long, from nose to tail tip. By 8 months old, they've reach adult length. Females measure 8 to 12 inches long, including their tails, and males are 12 to 19 inches long <P> Do you have the space that is required to house an adult chameleon? The size of the enclosure that you have for your 6-8 week old chameleon, and the size of the enclosure that you will have for your adult chameleon will be significantly different (enclosure sizes vary between species). Typically, a 6-8 week old chameleon can be housed in a 25-35 gallon reptarium (see housing). Not all species of chameleons require the same amount, or type of care. Some require much more time and effort, while others will do just fine with the basic requirements of most reptiles. Some of the easier species to care for are the Veiled Chameleon, Jackson's Chameleon, and Panther Chameleon. <P> The Appearance of the Veiled Chameleon. The veiled chameleon is a rather large species of chameleon and can grow as long as 24 inches long! While some veiled chameleons do grow to this length the average size for this species is between 14 and 18 inches long. Due to its prevalence in Yemen, many people often refer to this chameleon as the Yemen <P> Veiled Chameleon Size. Adult male veiled chameleons may reach a total length of 2 feet, and females can attain approximately 18 inches, making the veiled chameleon one of the larger chameleon species seen in captivity. Hatchling veiled chameleons are approximately 3 to 4 inches in total length. For adult veiled chameleons, bigger is better as far as their enclosures are concerned. The ideal cage for an adult male veiled chameleon would be a screened enclosure measuring about 2 feet wide by 2 feet long by 4 feet tall. Females can be kept in screened enclosures measuring about 18 inches long by 18 inches deep and 3 feet tall <P> The veiled chameleon (Chamaeleo calyptratus) is a species of chameleon native to the Arabian Peninsula in Yemen and Saudi Arabia. Other common names include cone-head chameleon and Yemen chameleon. The veiled chameleon is an omnivore. It favors insects, and it also eats plant matter, especially as a source of water. The life span is about 5 years for females, and up to 8 years for males. They reach sexual maturity at four to five months.
Veiled chameleon hatchlings are 2 to 3 inches long, from nose to tail tip. By 8 months old.
what does an oral surgeon do
<P> Your dentist may perform oral surgery or refer you to an oral surgeon, called an oral and maxillofacial surgeon. An oral surgeon is a dentist who has completed a university post-graduate specialty program in oral and maxillofacial surgery. Your dentist or oral surgeon may suggest that you add 1/2 teaspoon of salt to a cup of warm water each time you rinse. Rinse 4 or 5 times a day, for 3 or 4 days. What NOT to do. 1 Do not rinse your mouth within the first 24 hours, even if the bleeding and oozing leave a bad taste in your mouth. <P> Call Us: 1-800-SmileGen. (800-764-5343). An oral surgeon, also referred to as an oral-maxillofacial surgeon, is a dental professional who specializes in performing surgical and non-surgical procedures on the mouth, face, and neck. These procedures may include oral surgery, reconstructive surgery, and cosmetic dentistry. Your general dentist will typically refer you to an oral surgeon. At SmileGeneration.com, you can find a list of qualified oral surgeons in your area, view staff bios, read patient reviews, and request your appointment online in minutes. <P> No, an oral surgeon and a dental surgeon are not the same. A dental surgeon is simply a dentist. They are trained to do a certain amount of surgery in the mouth, such as removing teeth. But they haven’t studied to do the more complex surgeries which anoral and maxillofacial surgeon performs. <P> When your oral surgeon works in collaboration with other dental and medical professionals on your case, it is important that you have the same level of trust and confidence in their professional skills and care as you do in those of your oral surgeon. An oral surgeon is skilled in the following: Removing diseased and impacted teeth and administering anesthesia. An oral surgeon can remove impacted and damaged teeth and provide in-office anesthesia services, including intravenous (IV) sedation and general anesthesia. Placing dental implants. <P> Some of the procedures oral and maxillofacials surgeons do are: 1 Removal of teeth. 2 Oral surgeons commonly remove impacted wisdom teeth as well teeth which are broken down and difficult to remove. 3 Orthognathic surgery (jaw surgery). A dental surgeon is simply a dentist. They are trained to do a certain amount of surgery in the mouth, such as removing teeth. But they haven’t studied to do the more complex surgeries which anoral and maxillofacial surgeon performs. <P> Oral & Maxillofacial surgery (OMS) specializes in treating many diseases, injuries and defects in the head, neck, face, jaws and the hard and soft tissues of the Oral (mouth) and Maxillofacial (jaws and face) region. It is an internationally recognized surgical specialty. Oral & Maxillofacial (OMF) Surgeons specialise in the diagnosis and treatment of diseases affecting the mouth, jaws, face and neck. <P> Education and Training for Oral Surgeons. To be certified as a diplomate of the American Board of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, an oral and maxillofacial surgeon (commonly called an OMFS or oral surgeon) must graduate from an accredited dental school and be licensed in the state in which he/she is practicing. An oral surgeon is skilled in the following: Removing diseased and impacted teeth and administering anesthesia. An oral surgeon can remove impacted and damaged teeth and provide in-office anesthesia services, including intravenous (IV) sedation and general anesthesia. Placing dental implants. <P> 1 If you are badly injured in an accident, oral surgeons can reconstruct your jaw and implant missing teeth. 2 If you need a bridge or an implant, you'll need an oral surgeon to help you. 3 There is a lot of overlap between oral surgery and other dental specialties. <P> 1 Removal of teeth. 2 Oral surgeons commonly remove impacted wisdom teeth as well teeth which are broken down and difficult to remove. 3 Orthognathic surgery (jaw surgery). 4 This surgery can be done to realign the jaws and may be done in conjunction with orthodontic braces. A dental surgeon is simply a dentist. They are trained to do a certain amount of surgery in the mouth, such as removing teeth. But they haven’t studied to do the more complex surgeries which anoral and maxillofacial surgeon performs. <P> 10 most extreme places on Earth. Oral surgeons, also called maxillofacial surgeons, perform many different dental procedures to correct problems with the teeth, gums, jaw, and face. If it was something to do with the tongue, maybe an oral surgeon would be more capable of handling it. My only suggestion if you are trying to find an oral surgeon is to always get a second opinion if you need some sort of major work done. I know that some people are constrained by what their insurance can cover.
They specializes in performing surgical and non-surgical procedures on the mouth, face, and neck.
what does a rash above the ankles mean
<P> Find a Great Dermatologist Near You. An ankle rash can be a sign of a relatively minor condition, such as irritant contact dermatitis caused by exposure to poison ivy or poison oak. A rash on the ankles can also be caused by an allergic reaction to a variety of allergens (allergic contact dermatitis), such as grass. The texture of an ankle rash can be flat, raised, bumpy or scaly and include flaking off or peeling of skin cells. Ankle rashes can also appear as dots, spots or patches, or they may appear to be solid and continuous. <P> If your ankles are red, blotchy and itchy -- you likely have contact dermatitis. Contact refers to your skin touching a substance or allergen, and dermatitis is the inflammatory response that occurs from touching that substance. These symptoms can also be caused by insect bites. Identification. Contact dermatitis develops into a rash of itchy, red skin. Red patches that resemble a burn may be visible on your ankles. A warm sensation and swelling is often present after the ankles come in contact with a substance. The skin on your ankles may blister, ooze and have a dry crust-like appearance <P> It's a chronic disease, so if this is the cause of your blotchy skin, it's likely you've had this rash elsewhere. Contact dermatitis is a red itchy rash that occurs when the skin reacts to an irritant such as poison ivy or a new detergent. If you have noticed patchy red skin on your ankles, make sure to record what the rash looks like and what you were doing before it appeared -- even if it was something as benign as sleeping or watching television -- as this information will help your health care provider narrow the field of potential causes. <P> Ankle itch: A sensation that causes a desire to scratch the skin of the ankle. See detailed information below for a list of 12 causes of Ankle itch, Symptom Checker, including diseases and drug side effect causes. » Review Causes of Ankle itch: Causes | Symptom Checker ». <P> Skin rash and Swelling. WebMD Symptom Checker helps you find the most common medical conditions indicated by the symptoms skin rash and swelling including Poison ivy, oak, and sumac, Lyme disease, and Sprained ankle. There are 44 conditions associated with skin rash and swelling. The links below will provide you with more detailed information on these medical conditions from the WebMD Symptom Checker and help provide a better understanding of causes and treatment of these related conditions. 1 Poison ivy, oak, and sumac <P> Ankle rash: Introduction. Ankle rash: An eruption on the skin of the ankle. See detailed information below for a list of 17 causes of Ankle rash, Symptom Checker, including diseases and drug side effect causes. » Review Causes of Ankle rash: Causes | Symptom Checker ». <P> An ankle rash is an inflammatory reaction of the skin on the ankles. Rashes on the ankle can be caused by a wide variety of mild to serious diseases, disorders and conditions. Ankle rashes can affect a small to large area of one or both ankles at a time, and can occur in all age groups and populations. The texture of an ankle rash can be flat, raised, bumpy or scaly and include flaking off or peeling of skin cells. Ankle rashes can also appear as dots, spots or patches, or they may appear to be solid and continuous. <P> Red Skin Blotches on the Ankles. Irritated skin on your ankles can be caused by a variety of issues. Photo Credit phototake/iStock/Getty Images. Red, patchy rashes are a common complaint and can be caused by a variety of issues. The skin can react to both outside and systemic irritants that cause this symptom. If you have noticed patchy red skin on your ankles, make sure to record what the rash looks like and what you were doing before it appeared -- even if it was something as benign as sleeping or watching television -- as this information will help your health care provider narrow the field of potential causes.
An ankle rash can be a sign of a relatively minor condition, such as irritant contact dermatitis caused by exposure to poison ivy or poison oak. A rash on the ankles can also be caused by an allergic reaction to a variety of allergens (allergic contact dermatitis), such as grass.
what is average age of menopause
<P> 1 The average age of U.S. women at the time of menopause is 51 years. 2 The most common age range at which women experience menopause is 48-55 years. 3 Premature menopause is defines as menopause occurring in a woman younger than 40 years. 4 About 1% of women experience premature menopause. <P> The average age for menopause in the United States is 51, according to the National Institute on Aging. Generally, most women experience onset between the ages of 40 and 60. Early menopause usually refers to cases where onset occurs before the age of 40. <P> On average, menopause takes place at the age of 51 in the western world. However, some women experience menopause from as early as 35 years of age. Meanwhile others have to wait until 60 in order for their menstrual periods to stop completely. <P> Interestingly, 100 years ago, the average age of menopause was 45. However, the average life expectancy for women was 49. Today, the average age has increased to 51, and the average female life expectancy is close to 80. <P> The average age of menopause in the United States is 51, but it is considered perfectly normal for a woman to go through it at any time between the ages of 35 and 59, says Lila Schmidt, MD, a reproductive endocrinologist in private practice in San Diego. “Anything above 35 is not premature,” she says. <P> Postmenopause follows perimenopause and lasts the rest of your life. The average age of a woman having her last period, menopause, is 51. But, some women have their last period in their forties, and some have it later in their fifties. Smoking can lead to early menopause. So can some types of operations. <P> The average age of menopause varies among women. Studies show that many will see signs by age 51. Somewhere between the ages of 40 and 58, though, is when most women will start to experience symptoms of menopause. This stage is called perimenopause.
Between the ages of 40 and 58
how much sugar should be consumed in a day
<P> take the number of calories you consume daily, and take 20% of this number (the amount of fat calories per day you need). in your case, you should consume 360 fat calori … es. one gram of fat is equal to 9 fat calories, so divide the 360 grams of fat by nine, to give you 40 grams of dat per day. <P> By comparison, most women should be getting no more than 6 teaspoons a day, or 100 calories, of added sugar — the sweeteners and syrups that are added to foods during processing, preparation or at the table. For most men, the recommended limit is 9 teaspoons, or 150 calories, the heart group says. <P> How much is 10 percent? Well, in a 2000-calorie-a-day diet, 10 percent would be equal to about 50 grams, or 10 teaspoons of sugar. Unfortunately, most Americans consume 30 to 40 teaspoons or more of refined sugar per day. Most of this sugar comes from food products to which sugar has been added, such as soda, candy and baked goods. <P> Average daily intake. On average, in 2004, Canadians consumed 110.0 grams of sugar a day, the equivalent of 26 teaspoons. This amounted to 21.4% of their total daily calorie intake. Absolute daily sugar consumption varied substantially with age (Figure 1). <P> Sugar Allowance. Because sugar isn’t an essential nutrient, it doesn’t have an official recommendation. However, the American Heart Association set a recommended limit, so you don’t get too many extra calories in your diet. Men shouldn't have more than 9 teaspoons daily, while women shouldn't have more than 6 teaspoons. <P> Currently, Western European adults consume an average of 101 grams of sugar per day, while in South America the figure rises to 130 grams. Sugar represents around 16-17% of an adult’s daily energy intake in the United Kingdom and Spain.
50 grams or 10 teaspoons of sugar.
how much does an average maple tree weigh
<P> 1 A sugar maple tree that is smaller than 24″ will usually cost $5 to $9 each, while a sugar maple tree that is as large eight feet tall can cost $50 to $65 each. 2 At Porcupine Hollow Farm in W. State Central Lake, Michigan, the following are the different sizes of sugar maple trees offered and their respective costs: <P> How much is it? 1 On average, a maple tree can cost as little as $10 for a sapling to as much as $1,500 for a 20 foot tree or larger. 2 The Arbor Day Foundation provides maple trees for as little as $6 to $10. <P> 1 On average, a maple tree can cost as little as $10 for a sapling to as much as $1,500 for a 20 foot tree or larger. 2 The Arbor Day Foundation provides maple trees for as little as $6 to $10. <P> 1 This type of maple leaf tree can cost $35 to $70 for a smaller 3 foot tree. 2 The Legacy Sugar Maple is a tree that can resist heat and drought and is often used in lawns as shade and screens. 3 This type of tree is sold for $35 to $60. 4 A Japanese Maple can cost $80 to $125. <P> Example: An 80 foot hardwood tree with a 24” diameter has a weight that can exceed 20,000 pounds. A 50-foot pine tree with a 12” diameter has a weight of more than 2000 pounds. These algorithms calculate the total weight of a tree including root. Full size hardwoods can exceed 50 tons.
20,000 pounds
what makes someone sedentary
<P> Sedentary activities include sitting, reading, watching television, playing video games, and computer use for much of the day with little or no vigorous physical exercise. A sedentary lifestyle can contribute to many preventable causes of death. Screen time is the amount of time a person spends watching a screen such as a television, computer monitor, or mobile device. It is shown to be a risk factor on its own independent of hard exercise and BMI. The more still, the higher risk of chronic diseases. People that sit still more than 4 hours per day have a 40 percent higher risk than those that sit fewer than 4 hours per day. <P> The vocational guidelines for Social Security disability define work activity as medium, light, or sedentary. This is how these work activity levels are defined. 1 Sedentary work means that you are able to sit for up to 6 hours in an 8 hour day and lift up to 10 lbs. occasionally during a day. Social Security medical consultants assign an applicant a residual functional capacity (RFC) level of sedentary, light, or medium work, and then disability claims examiners use the RFC to see if the applicant can be expected to work by using a vocational grid pubished by Social Security. <P> Photo: yourdon /Flickr. A sedentary lifestyle is defined by an excessive amount of daily sitting. Be it to watch television, work the computer, or even read, its negative health influences include increased anxiety, cardiovascular disease, diabetes, depression and more. <P> These 10 animal facts will amaze you. A sedentary lifestyle is a mode of living in which a person, an adult or child, does not engage in sufficient physical activity or exercise for what is generally considered healthy living. Post 4. @Cafe41 - I think that a lot of people live a sedentary life because they are so busy. Many people have very demanding jobs in which they have to travel constantly. Although there are gyms in the hotels this type of lifestyle does make it more difficult to maintain a healthy lifestyle. <P> The consequences of sedentary lifestyle are obvious. Obesity, heart disease, colon cancer, diabetes and hypertension are linked to sedentary lifestyle. In addition, mood disorders are more common in those with sedentary lifestyle. Substance use and abuse is more common in those who are physically inactive. Overall, reversing a sedentary lifestyle is one of the most rewarding lifestyle changes a person can undertake. Initiation of exercise releases the body s natural opioids; the phenomenon of runner s high is well documented. Plus, becoming active can have nearly immediate reinforcing effects. <P> A sedentary lifestyle is a type of lifestyle with no or irregular physical activity. A person who lives a sedentary lifestyle may colloquially be known as a slob or couch potato. It is commonly found in both the developed and developing world. It is shown to be a risk factor on its own independent of hard exercise and BMI. The more still, the higher risk of chronic diseases. People that sit still more than 4 hours per day have a 40 percent higher risk than those that sit fewer than 4 hours per day. <P> What is a sedentary man? A sedentary person is someone who lives in a single place for a extended period of time (many years)opposed to Nomadic people who move very frequently. A sedentary lifestyle (which is the context that sedentary is most commonly used in) means an inactive lifestyle. A quiet lifestyle, as opposed to lazy. <P> First, you may be wondering what we are referring to when we mention a sedentary lifestyle. A sedentary lifestyle is defined as a type of lifestyle where an individual does not receive regular amounts of physical activity. Overall, sedentary jobs have increased 83% since 1950 and physically active jobs now make up only about 25% of our workforce, which is 50% less than in 1950. Additionally, our average work week is longer. Americans now work 47 hours a week–164 more hours a year than 20 years ago. <P> The more active we are the more energy we expend. The energy cost of an activity can be expressed as multiples of metabolic rate (to account for differences in body size) as a metabolic energy equivalent (MET) or physical activity ratio (PAR).
A person who lives in a single place for a extended period of time (many years)opposed to Nomadic people who move very frequently.
per diem usa
<P> this close working relationship with our clients benefits travelmed usa s local per diem contract staff because it gives them access to immediate real time staffing needs that are more exclusive to other outside agencies <P> what is the federal per diem rate for my area publication 1542 per diem rates provides the rates for all continental u s areas return to top 3 what does per diem cover there is a per diem rate for combined lodging and meal costs and a per diem rate for meal costs alone an employer mayuse either per diem method for reimbursing employee travel expenses a self employed person can only use per diem forthe meal costs return to top 4 <P> a per diem can include part or all of the expenses incurred for example it may exclude accommodation for which reimbursement may be available on presentation of receipts and only cover meals per diem is also used as an adjective and an adverb the per diem committee establishes per diem rates for overseas us areas e g alaska hawaii guam and other non foreign locations and also per diem committee provides world wide per diem rates from gsa for conus and from state department for foreign countries <P> the per diem of meals incidental expense m ie allowance must be reduced for all meals provided at a conference training or meeting a copy of the agenda must be attached to the travel expense voucher for per diem rates outside of the country please visit the u s department of state once you have identified the m ie meals and incidentals rate for your area return to the state controller per diem travel page this page on the page below find your m ie rate on the components table to determine the breakdown <P> u s pro rata per diem rates can be found at u s general services administration to locate the amount of per diem eligible please follow the gsa link above and follow the below steps choose your travel location on the us map the above link will take you out of the osc website next review the list by city or county once you have identified the m ie meals and incidentals rate for your area return to the state controller per diem travel page this page on the page below find your m ie rate on the components table to determine the breakdown <P> per diem breakdown the gsa breaks down business trip per diem rates into two categories the first is lodging and the second is meals and incidental expenses the incidental part of the meals and incidental expenses per diem is $ 5 per day no matter where you travel the daily per diem is further broken down into each meal plus the $ 5 incidental rate tier 1 per diems are $ 7 for breakfast $ 11 for lunch and $ 23 for dinner tier 2 per diems are $ 8 for breakfast $ 12 for lunch and $ 26 for dinner tier 3 provides $ 9 for breakfast $ 13 for lunch and $ 29 for dinner <P> 2014 per diem rates for federal travelers released gsa to eliminate per diem allocation for conferences today we released the fiscal year fy 2014 travel per diem rates which will take effect on october 1st 2013 each year these rates are set by law for the continental united stat <P> april 2007 per diem latin for per day or for each day is a daily allowance for expenses a specific amount of money an organization gives an individual often an employee per day to cover living expenses when traveling for work the per diem committee establishes per diem rates for overseas us areas e g alaska hawaii guam and other non foreign locations and also per diem committee provides world wide per diem rates from gsa for conus and from state department for foreign countries <P> meals broken down the daily per diem is further broken down into each meal plus the $ 5 incidental rate tier 1 per diems are $ 7 for breakfast $ 11 for lunch and $ 23 for dinner tier 2 per diems are $ 8 for breakfast $ 12 for lunch and $ 26 for dinner tier 3 provides $ 9 for breakfast $ 13 for lunch and $ 29 for dinner
Per diem latin for per day or for each day is a daily allowance for expenses a specific amount of money an organization gives an individual often an employee per day to cover living expenses when traveling.
why did jackson believed the bank was unconstitutional
<P> The idea continued to be a threat to the American union until the issue was settled in the Civil War which began in 1861. While President Jackson battled the nullifiers, another struggle began. This time, it was Jackson against the Bank of the United States. Congress provided money to establish the Bank of the United States in 1816. It gave the bank a charter to do business for 20 years. The bank was permitted to use the government's money to make loans. <P> Andrew Jackson did not like the National Bank because the bankers would not let poor people borrow money, but they would let wealthy people. (Andrew Jackson was poor.) He thou … ght it was unconstitutional and nothing would get done. 4 people found this useful. J.P. Helm. The Bank of the US was run by the rich people in the Eastern US. It gave preferential treatment to business interests in the East and was not of service to Jackson's people on … the Western frontier. <P> Congress reduced the tariff in 1833, defusing the crisis. The Second Bank of the United States was a corporation chartered by Congress to provide a national paper currency and manage the government's finances. Like Thomas Jefferson, Jackson believed such a bank to be dangerous and unconstitutional. In 1832, he vetoed a bill to extend the Bank's charter beyond its scheduled expiration in 1836. Jackson's veto message counterposed the virtuous plain people against the Bank's privileged stockholders. Andrew Jackson, seventh President of the United States, was the dominant actor in American politics between Thomas Jefferson and Abraham Lincoln. Born to obscure parents and orphaned in youth, he was the first self-made man and the first westerner to reach the White House. <P> Jackson Vetoes Re-Charter of the Second Bank of the US. Andrew Jackson vetoed the bill re-chartering the Second Bank in July 1832 by arguing that in the form presented to him it was incompatible with “justice,” “sound policy” and the Constitution. Speech on the Bank of the United States veto and its aftermath. Report of a Committee of Directors of the Second Bank of the United States, 1833 (first edition). Political cartoon: A potential Third Bank of the United States provides Jackson and Van Buren an awful affright. <P> President Andrew Jackson opposed the Second Bank of the United States because he believed that it held too much power without accountability and undermined the rights of s … tates. Furthermore, it used that power to benefit the old Eastern establishment and shortchanged the farmers on the frontier. The Bank of the US was run by the rich people in the Eastern US. It gave preferential treatment to business interests in the East and was not of service to Jackson's people on … the Western frontier. <P> The bank’s charter was unfair, Jackson argued in his veto message, because it gave the bank considerable, almost monopolistic, market power, specifically in the markets that moved financial resources around the country and into and out of other nations. Speech on the Bank of the United States veto and its aftermath. Report of a Committee of Directors of the Second Bank of the United States, 1833 (first edition). Political cartoon: A potential Third Bank of the United States provides Jackson and Van Buren an awful affright. <P> Following Jefferson, and contradicting the Supreme Court in McCulloch, Jackson denied the Bank's constitutionality and affirmed his right to judge that question independent of Congress or the courts. Ingeniously, and perversely, he targeted foreign stockholders for special censure. <P> Jackson was not opposed to central banking, per se, but to the Second Bank in particular. No other bill to renew the Bank's charter was presented to Jackson, and so the Second Bank of the United States expired in 1836. Although the Second Bank was not a campaign issue (Biddle actually voted for Jackson), by 1832, four years before the Bank's charter was to expire, political divisions over the Bank had already formed (Ibid). Pro-Bank members of Congress produced a renewal bill for the Bank's charter, but Jackson vetoed it. <P> And kill it he did. In 1832, the Bank had to be re-chartered, and because Jackson' … s intentions were known, the Bank became a major election issue. But when the time came, Jackson vetoed the charter and disbanded the bank. The Bank of the US was run by the rich people in the Eastern US. It gave preferential treatment to business interests in the East and was not of service to Jackson's people on … the Western frontier.
Because he believed that it held too much power without accountability and undermined the rights of state.
what is meaning of name shirley?
<P> I love this name. Well, child actress and former ambassador to (former) Czechoslovakia and an African Country (I forgot the name) is Shirley Temple. -- Lakota_so_italian 1/14/2006. Anne Shirley = Anne of Green Gables is a fictional famous bearer, who named one of her daughters Shirley. Laverne and Shirley was the name of a sitcom in the '70's. It was a spin-off of Happy Days.. -- breakofday 12/16/2005. Dame Shirley Bassey is a Welsh-born singer, perhaps best-known for performing the theme songs to the James Bond films Goldfinger (1964), Diamonds Are Forever (1971), and Moonraker (1979). <P> Shirley /shir-ley/ [2 sylls.] as a girls' name is pronounced SURE-lee. It is of Old English origin, and the meaning of Shirley is bright meadow . Place name. Made famous by child actress and American ambassador Shirley Temple-Black. Actress Shirley MacLaine; politician Shirley Chisholm; novelist Shirley Hazzard. <P> Meaning of Shirley. English name. In English, the name Shirley means-bright meadow.The name Shirley originated as an English name. The name Shirley is most often used as a girl name or female name. English Name Meaning-bright meadow. Origin-England. <P> View the Sherly Name Popularity Page to see how the popularity trend for Sherly has changed since 1880, or to compare the popularity of Sherly to other names. Sherly is a variant spelling of Shirley. Sherly falls into the flower name category. <P> View the Shirley Name Popularity Page to see how the popularity trend for Shirley has changed since 1880, or to compare the popularity of Shirley to other names. Variants of the name Shirley include Sherily, Sherl, Sherle, Sherlee, Sherleen, Sherlene, Sherley, Sherli, Sherlie, Sherline, Sherly, Shirlee. <P> Here is the characteristics of Shirley in details. advertisements. Meaning of the name Shirley, analysis of the name Shirley and so much more… What does Shirley mean and its numerology, definition, origin, popularity and very interesting information. Please use the menu below. Quick Menu. 1 Information About The Name Shirley. 2 Prononciation Of Shirley. <P> See other adorable names for boys and girls. Popularity. See worldwide popularity rankings of Shirley as a baby name (outside USA). As a baby girl name, Shirley is currently a popular baby name, with a recent overall USA popularity ranking of 871 out of 1000 (source: 2000s U.S. Census) . <P> This unusual surname is of Anglo-Saxon origin, and is a locational name from any of the various places called Shirley in Derbyshire, Hampshire, Surrey and the West Midlands. The placename derives from the Olde English pre 7th Century scir, meaning bright, plus leah, wood, clearing. <P> Meaning of the name-Shirley. Tweet. English Name: Shirley. Hebrew Name: שִׁירְלִי. Meaning: The meaning will be updated soon. For information in Hebrew, click here. The meaning will be updated soon. <P> Meaning of name Shirley. Etymology: From a surname which was originally derived from a place name meaning bright clearing in Old English. Saint : Origin: English.
Bright meadow
how long does a foreclosure take
<P> the short answer is it depends many factors determine how long a foreclosure takes in florida this answer may be different depending on which county the lender filed the foreclosure suit and the steps you take within the first 20 days of being served <P> by ignoring them if you will probably make the foreclosure process happen even faster how long does foreclosure take with a judicial foreclosure with a judicial foreclosure you will be served a complaint notice if you are more than 60 to 90 days late also hearing will be scheduled at this time at the hearing the judge will decide whether or not the foreclosure can proceed <P> states that have a nonjudicial foreclosure can usually complete the foreclosure process in 3 to 6 months if you have a payment that is due on 1 september most mortgages companies will give you a 15 day grace period this means that your payment has to be in by september 15 or you will be charged with a late fee <P> the following states currently take an exceptionally long time to complete the foreclosure process as of the first quarter of 2014 new jersey has the longest timeline coming in at 1103 days just over three years
60 to 90 days.
what is a legislative veto
<P> In the case of representative governments that divide their executive and legislative functions, legislative veto refers to the power of a legislature, or one house of a bicameral legislature, to nullify an action of the executive authority. In the case of monarchy, legislative veto describes the right of the ruler to nullify the actions of a legislative body, for example, the French monarch's claim to the right to veto actions of the National Assembly at the start of the French Revolution. <P> The legislative veto describes features of at least two different forms of government, monarchies and those based on the separation of powers, applied to the authority of the monarch in the first and to the authority of the legislature in the second. In the case of monarchy, legislative veto describes the right of the ruler to nullify the actions of a legislative body, for example, the French monarch's claim to the right to veto actions of the National Assembly at the start of the French Revolution. <P> The legislative veto was a feature of dozens of statutes enacted by the United States federal government between approximately 1930 and 1980, until held unconstitutional by the U.S. Supreme Court in 1983. The legislative veto provision found in federal legislation took several forms. Some laws established a veto procedure that required a simple resolution passed by a majority vote of one chamber of Congress. Other laws required a concurrent resolution passed by both the House and the Senate. <P> In administrative law, a provision that allows a congressional resolution (passed by a majority of congress, but not signed by the President) to nullify a rulemaking or other action taken by an executive agency. At one time, legislative veto provisions were relatively common, and went along with many congressional delegations of power to administrative agencies (e.g. congress would give the INS power to regulate immigration, but retain the power to overrule any of their decisions by legislative veto). <P> Legislative veto. The legislative veto describes features of at least two different forms of government, monarchies and those based on the separation of powers, applied to the authority of the monarch in the first and to the authority of the legislature in the second. In the case of monarchy, legislative veto describes the right of the ruler to nullify the actions of a legislative body, for example, the French monarch's claim to the right to veto actions of the National Assembly at the start of the French Revolution. <P> exists and is an alternate of. Merge this question into. Split and merge into it. Answer by Jim.10. Confidence votes 13. A legislative veto is an oversight tool of Congress. It requires that an executive agency have the approval of Congress before it takes a specified action. The US Supreme Court ruled in 1982 that one-house legislative vetoes were unconstitutional. <P> Report Abuse. A legislative veto exists in governments that separate executive (branch of government responsible for the day-to-day management of the state) and legislative (known by many names, the most common are parliament and congress) functions if actions by the executive can be rejected by the legislative. The legislative veto or congressional veto was first developed in context of the delegation to the Executive of power to reorganize governmental agencies and was first authorized by the Reorganization Act of 1939. <P> Federal government [edit]. The legislative veto was first developed in context of the delegation to the president to reorganize governmental agencies and was first authorized by the Legislative Appropriations Act in 1932. The legislative veto provision found in federal legislation took several forms. Some laws established a veto procedure that required a simple resolution passed by a majority vote of one chamber of Congress. Other laws required a concurrent resolution passed by both the House and the Senate. <P> Article I, section 7 of the Constitution grants the President the authority to veto legislation passed by Congress. This authority is one of the most significant tools the President can employ to prevent the passage of legislation. The regular veto is a qualified negative veto. The President returns the unsigned legislation to the originating house of Congress within a 10 day period usually with a memorandum of disapproval or a “veto message.” Congress can override the President’s decision if it musters the necessary two–thirds vote of each house.
It was a feature of dozens of statutes enacted by the United States federal government between approximately 1930 and 1980, until held unconstitutional by the U.S. Supreme Court in 1983.
how would you define integrity
<P> I also believe that integrity is the ability to not judge someone else because of their beliefs. I may disagree with you, we can discuss it with civility, and as long as you can respect my beliefs we can be friends and have a beer. If you can't respect me and discuss it with civility, then we's a fighting. <P> The Wikipedia page about integrity is useful here. It defines the word this way: a concept of consistency of actions, values, methods, measures, principles, expectations, and outcomes. In ethics, integrity is regarded as the honesty and truthfulness or accuracy of one's actions. <P> My Personal definition / opinion of integrity is what insight my moral character consists of being. Honesty, Standing by the principles I believe in. Ethically that guide my actions as leading a Christian life essential and a sound conscience of the thoughts that make up my everyday decisions in life. <P> This is an example of how and organization can exercise integrity. It is important to note that a set of core values at an organization is a set of values that everyone can agree upon and rally behind. Make sure you research your department and know the core values and the mission statement. <P> Best Answer: Integrity. . One of the words they pretended to teach us in the Army. Integrity to me is not only having a belief, not only having principals, but being able to voice them and face opposition, and fighting for your beliefs. <P> Integrity is something that you have through the choices you make. It means always doing what your inner voice tells you is right....even when you can rationalize a thousand other reasons, for doing the opposite. <P> Definition: Integrity is one of the fundamental values that employers seek in the employees that they hire. It is the hallmark of a person who demonstrates sound moral and ethical principles at work. A person who has integrity lives his or her values in relationships with coworkers, customers, and stakeholders. <P> It is the mission of the University of Oklahoma to create an academic culture that fosters student integrity both in and out of the classroom. Resources found throughout this website can help you to understand this mission, as well as guide you through the academic integrity system.
A concept of consistency of actions, values, methods, measures, principles, expectations, and outcomes.
why are birds service animals
<P> Service animals may also be referred to as assistance animals, assist animals, support animals, or helper animals depending on the country and the animal's function. Dogs are the most common service animals, assisting people in many different ways since at least 1927. Other animals such as monkeys, birds, and horses have also been documented. In places of public accommodation in the United States, only dogs (and in some cases miniature horses) are legally considered service animals. It is also legal to train your own service animal in the United States. <P> The only animals allowed to serve as service animals are any breed of dog and, in some cases, miniature horses. With respect to Emotional Support Animals, there are no species or breed restictions. Consequently, cats, rabbits, miniature pigs, ferrets, birds, etc. may be ESAs. Other species of animals, whether wild or domestic, trained or untrained, are not service animals for the purposes of this definition. The work or tasks performed by a service animal must be directly related to the handler's disability. <P> The law recently to allow dogs only as service animals in March 2011. No birds. Key changes include the following: 1. Only dogs will be recognized as service animals. A company called Avian Fashions is selling attire for birds that identifies them as Service Animals. I wondered if a bird wearing this type of outfit could go anywhere with their owner. <P> Not as a seizure alert service animal. Dogs are used by people with epilepsy for a special task: to warn when a seizure is about to come on. Dogs have an amazing sense of smell, and are able to detect chemicals on or in the body's makeup that makes note of when a person is about to have a seizure. Off hand, I can't think of anything useful a bird could do for a person with a seizure disorder, and I have a seizure disorder, an alert/response dog, and train service dogs. Birds are also impractical for public access work because they are so fragile. <P> Best Answer: No, a bird cannot legally be a service animal. You could put any kind of outfit or attire on it, have a warehouse of phony service animal certificates for it and hang tons of Avian Fashions service animal tags around its neck....and it would still never be a legitimate or legal service animal. A company called Avian Fashions is selling attire for birds that identifies them as Service Animals. I wondered if a bird wearing this type of outfit could go anywhere with their owner. <P> So why do we continue to see a growing number of pets, dogs, cats, birds, and other species, decked out in service animal costumes with their pet parent quick to flash a service animal ID card? There is no government certification for service dogs, and owners aren't required to carry proof of a service dog's training. <P> Service animals are animals that have been trained to perform tasks that assist people with disabilities. In places of public accommodation in the United States, only dogs (and in some cases miniature horses) are legally considered service animals. It is also legal to train your own service animal in the United States. <P> A company called Avian Fashions is selling attire for birds that identifies them as Service Animals. I wondered if a bird wearing... show more Although I knew birds could be Emotional Support Animals, I did not think they could qualify as Service Animals. I thought only dogs could qualify as Service Animals. A company called Avian Fashions is selling attire for birds that identifies them as Service Animals. I wondered if a bird wearing this type of outfit could go anywhere with their owner. <P> Communicating with others is another aspect of mental health that a parrot service animal can help. Often, it is hard for a person to express emotions appropriately. A parrot, still acting as a focus, can help keep the client from excited outbursts of anger, mania and more. Does anyone under ADA, have the right to claim that the bird is a service animal without first notifing the employer or this need. Can a bird be use when needed as the person sees fit or will the person truly become dependnat in all aspects of life. How does an employer, during an interview find this type of need.
Service animals may also be referred to as assistance animals, assist animals, support animals, or helper animals depending on the country and the animal's function,Dogs are the most common service animals, assisting people in many different ways since at least 1927.
what does integrity means
<P> If you behave consistently and use moral principles, reliability, and trustworthiness as your guiding lights, you can rightfully be described as a person of integrity. It is a description that is earned, and one that should be prized. If you have it, guard and nurture it. <P> Integrity -noun 1. adherence to moral and ethical principles; soundness of moral character; honesty. 2. the state of being whole, entire, or undiminished … : to preserve the integrity of the empire. \Keeping your integrity would be keeping your good name or maintaining your respectable character. Integrity - 1:soundness 2:adherence to a code of values: utter sincerity, honesty, and candor 3:completeness. Answer 2. <P> Full Definition of INTEGRITY. 1. : firm adherence to a code of especially moral or artistic values: incorruptibility. 2. : an unimpaired condition: soundness. 3. : the quality or state of being complete or undivided: completeness. See integrity defined for English-language learners. See integrity defined for kids. <P> Rating Newest Oldest. Best Answer: To have integrity means that you do the right thing, make the right choices, without anyone watching. :) Basically it means being a genuine good person who doesn't need to succumb to peer pressure and make bad choices or be a jerk. <P> Integrity. Integrity is a concept of consistency of actions, values, methods, measures, principles, expectations, and outcomes. In ethics, integrity is regarded as the honesty and truthfulness or accuracy of one's actions. <P> For other uses, see Integrity (disambiguation) . Integrity is the quality of being honest and having strong moral principles; moral uprightness. It is generally a personal choice to uphold oneself to consistent moral and ethical standards. In ethics, integrity is regarded by many people as the honesty and truthfulness or accuracy of one's actions. The word integrity evolved from the Latin adjective integer, meaning whole or complete. In this context, integrity is the inner sense of wholeness deriving from qualities such as honesty and consistency of character. <P> Academic integrity essentially means intellectual honesty: honesty in the use of information, in formulating arguments, and in other activities related to the pursuit of knowledge and understanding. <P> Mr Carter's notion of integrity agrees with Islamic teachings, which commands us to do what's right and be proud of it. Having integrity is an important part of our religion. The Arabic word for integrity, nazahah, means doing the right thing regardless of the situation. People who hold this characteristic abstain from doing wicked acts. Integrity is a concept that should be included in every part of our lives <P> Answer 1. \Keeping your integrity would be keeping your good name or maintaining your respectable character. Integrity - 1:soundness 2:adherence to a code of values: utter sincerity, honesty, and candor 3:completeness. Answer 2. Integrity means: 1. Strict adherence to a moral code, reflected in transparent honesty and complete harmony in what one thinks, says, and does
Integrity is the quality of being honest and having strong moral principles
where is the pyramids of giza
<P> The Great Pyramid of Giza (also known as the Pyramid of Khufu or the Pyramid of Cheops) is the oldest and largest of the three pyramids in the Giza Necropolis bordering what is now El Giza, Egypt. It is the oldest of the Seven Wonders of the Ancient World, and the only one to remain largely intact. The Great Pyramid is surrounded by a complex of several buildings including small pyramids. The Pyramid Temple, which stood on the east side of the pyramid and measured 52.2 metres (171 ft) north to south and 40 metres (130 ft) east to west, has almost entirely disappeared apart from the black basalt paving. <P> Khufu’s son, Khafre (also known as Chephren). His pyramid, on a nearby site at Giza, appears taller than his father’s, but this is an illu¬sion; it is built on higher ground and was in fact, origi¬nally at 447 .5 feet (136.4 m), 33.5 feet (10.2 m) shorter than the Great Pyramid. <P> Khufu, son of Snefru and second ruler of the 4th dynasty (time line) moved the royal necropolis to Giza, north of modern-day Cairo. According to ancient Greek historian Herodotus, Khufu (aka Cheops) enslaved his people to build his pyramid. On the Giza Plateau, Khufu's builders oriented his pyramid almost perfectly north. The largest pyramid ever built, it incorporates about 2.3 million stone blocks, weighing an average of 2.5 to 15 tons each. It is estimated that the workers would have had to set a block every two and a half minutes. <P> The largest of the three pyramids at Giza, known as the Great Pyramid, is truly an astonishing work of engineering. It was built over a twenty year period. Some believe that it was built by slaves, but this is not true. His pyramid, on a nearby site at Giza, appears taller than his father’s, but this is an illu¬sion; it is built on higher ground and was in fact, origi¬nally at 447 .5 feet (136.4 m), 33.5 feet (10.2 m) shorter than the Great Pyramid. <P> Standing at the base of the Great Pyramid, it is hard to imagine that this monument—which remained the tallest building in the world until early in this century—was built in just under 30 years. It presides over the plateau of Giza, on the outskirts of Cairo, and is the last survivor of the Seven Wonders of the World. <P> Back to Site List. Giza is located west and south of modern Cairo, in the vast desert imagined by the ancient Egyptians to be the land of the dead. Guarded by the Great Sphinx, the plateau is dominated by the massive pyramids of Khufu (Gr. Cheops), Khafre (Gr. Chephren), and Menkaure (Gr. Mycerinus), all of whom ruled Egypt during the 4th Dynasty (c. 2500 BC). <P> The united passageway then leads to the burial chamber. The Pyramid of Menkaure: Khafre's son, Menkaure, built the smallest of the 3 main Pyramids on the Giza Plateau. This one was only a mere 65.5m (215ft) tall, nowadays 62m (203ft), with sides of only 105m (344ft) and an angle of 51.3 degrees. <P> 1 Khufu’s pyramid, known as the great pyramid of Giza, is the oldest and largest, rising at 481 feet (146 meters). 2 Archaeologists say it was the tallest structure in the world for about 3, 800 years. 3 The relationship between Pi (p) and Phi (F) is expressed in the fundamental proportions of the Great Pyramid. 1 The curvature designed into the faces of the pyramid exactly matches the radius of the earth. 2 Khufu’s pyramid, known as the great pyramid of Giza, is the oldest and largest, rising at 481 feet (146 meters). 3 <P> The Great Pyramid of Giza stands on the northern edge of the Giza Plateau, located about 10 miles west of Cairo. It is composed of over 2 ½ million blocks of limestone, which weigh from 2 to 70 tons each.
El Giza, Egypt.
how far in advance do you sign up for social security
<P> For example, if you're eligible for Medicare when you turn 65, you can sign up during the 7-month period that begins 3 months before the month you turn 65, includes the month you turn 65, and ends 3 months after the month you turn 65. Example. For example, if you're eligible for Medicare when you turn 65, you can sign up during the 7-month period that begins 3 months before the month you turn 65, includes the month you turn 65, and ends 3 months after the month you turn 65. Note. <P> When you apply for Social Security benefits you should not apply any sooner than 4 months prior to when you want your retirement benefits to begin. If you are planning to retire at the age of 62, you cannot apply for benefits before you are the age of 61 years and 9 months old. If you are not planning to retire, but have reached the age of 65, you should apply for your Medicare benefits immediately. <P> If you do not live in the U.S. or one of its territories you can also-Contact the nearest U.S. Social Security office, U.S. Embassy or consulate. Reminders: 1 You must be at least 61 years and 9 months old to apply for retirement benefits. 2 If you are already age 62, you may be able to start your benefits in the month you apply. 3 You should apply for benefits no more than four months before the date you want your benefits to start. 1 If you are not getting Social Security and you are not ready to retire, you should still use our online retirement benefit application to sign up for just Medicare three months before your 65th birthday. <P> Be aware that Social Security pays a month behind — if you're entitled to a benefit for the month of March, it's paid to you in April. And if you want to start retirement benefits at the earliest possible age, 62, the first payment will arrive two months after the month of your birthday. For example, if your birthday is Feb. 15, your first month of entitlement for benefits will be March, and your first payment will arrive in April. December 27, 2013. En espanol | Español apply three months before you want to start. Collecting be aware That Social security pays a month — behind if'you re entitled to a benefit for the month Of, march'it s paid to you In. april <P> In the year you reach your full retirement age, you can earn up to $37,680 between January and your birthday without penalty. Above that amount, your Social Security check will be reduced by about 33 cents for every dollar earned. About 54 percent of current 61-year-olds didn't know that you need to apply 3 months in advance of receiving your first payment, Fidelity found, and 7 percent erroneously believed that the Social Security Administration would contact them to set up payments. <P> Social Security recipients younger than their full retirement age who continue to work can earn up to $14,160 without penalty in 2009. (For baby boomers turning 62 in 2009, the full retirement age is 66.) If a worker earns above that amount, he or she will lose 50 cents of every benefit dollar. About 54 percent of current 61-year-olds didn't know that you need to apply 3 months in advance of receiving your first payment, Fidelity found, and 7 percent erroneously believed that the Social Security Administration would contact them to set up payments. <P> For more information, go to Applying Online for Retirement Benefits. You can also apply: 1 By phone-Call us at 1-800-772-1213 (TTY 1-800-325-0778), Monday through Friday from 7 a.m. to 7 p.m. or. 2 In person-Visit your local Social Security Office. You should apply for retirement benefits three months before you want your payments to start. The easiest and most convenient way to apply for retirement benefits is by using our online application. Apply for Retirement Benefits. We may need to see certain documents in order to pay benefits. <P> 1 You must be at least 61 years and 9 months old to apply for retirement benefits. 2 If you are already age 62, you may be able to start your benefits in the month you apply. 3 You should apply for benefits no more than four months before the date you want your benefits to start. 1 If you are not getting Social Security and you are not ready to retire, you should still use our online retirement benefit application to sign up for just Medicare three months before your 65th birthday. <P> A. You can. Social Security will accept your application for early benefits when you're 61 years 9 months. Regardless of how old you are, the agency generally recommends that you apply three months before you would like the first payment to arrive. See also: How to apply for Social Security benefits online. But I'm afraid that even if you apply in advance with all your paperwork in order, you can't expect to get a check right after your birthday. Community: Share your fears about Social Security. <P> If you are already receiving Social Security benefits, you will be automatically enrolled in Medicare. After you receive your Medicare card, you can choose your path (Original Medicare or Medicare Advantage), find the right plan(s), and sign up for coverage.
Three months
non deductible ira contribution converted to roth
<P> Reminder: IRS Form 8606 must be filed for any tax years that you distribute assets from your Traditional IRA if any of your Traditional IRA balances include non-deductible contributions. IRS Form 8606 is used to help you determine the taxable portion of your distribution or conversion. When your Traditional IRA balance consists of deductible and non-deductible contributions, any amount distributed or converted from the Traditional IRA is pro-rated to include a taxable and non-taxable portion of the assets. You may figure the taxable amount by using the following formula: (Total Deductible Contribution/Total IRA Balance) x Distribution/Conversion Amount = Non-Taxable Amount. Let's say you have non-deductible contributions of $8,000 in a Traditional IRA that have grown to $100,000. The taxable amount would be: <P> If this is the case, then you can convert your entire Non-deductible IRA to a Roth IRA, and you'll only have to pay tax on the earnings portion. For example, Susan Smith is in a 30% tax bracket this year and she only has one IRA worth $100,000. At a 30% tax rate, she would owe $3,000 in tax to convert the entire $100,000 to Roth. If Smith had no earnings in this IRA, the entire $100,000 (all non-deductible contributions) could be converted with no tax liability. <P> Since you never received a tax deduction for these contributions, these non-deductible contribution amounts are not taxed when withdrawn from the IRA account and they are commonly known as basis.. Converting IRAs to Roth IRA. In 2010, Congress eliminated the $100,000 income limit on Roth IRA conversions. At a 30% tax rate, she would owe $3,000 in tax to convert the entire $100,000 to Roth. If Smith had no earnings in this IRA, the entire $100,000 (all non-deductible contributions) could be converted with no tax liability. <P> Instructions. Request a conversion from your traditional IRA containing non-deductible contributions to your Roth IRA by completing the Roth IRA conversion form available from your financial institution. Once you have submitted the form, the financial institution will automatically transfer the money. <P> Deductible vs. nondeductible IRA contributions. In 2013, the maximum you can contribute to all of your traditional and Roth IRAs is the lesser of (a) $5,500 or (b) your taxable compensation for the year. If you're 50 or older, the limit is $6,500. You can make contributions to a traditional IRA until age 70-1/2. <P> The IRA consists of $90,000 in non-deductible contributions and $10,000 in earnings. If she decides to convert the entire IRA to Roth, she would only have to pay tax on the earnings portion ($10,000). At a 30% tax rate, she would owe $3,000 in tax to convert the entire $100,000 to Roth. If Smith had no earnings in this IRA, the entire $100,000 (all non-deductible contributions) could be converted with no tax liability. <P> You can convert the contributions to a Roth IRA; however, a portion of the amount you convert to the Roth will be subject to income tax. When your Traditional IRA balance consists of deductible and non-deductible contributions, any amount distributed or converted from the Traditional IRA is pro-rated to include a taxable and non-taxable portion of the assets. You may figure the taxable amount by using the following formula: (Total Deductible Contribution/Total IRA Balance) x Distribution/Conversion Amount = Non-Taxable Amount. Let's say you have non-deductible contributions of $8,000 in a Traditional IRA that have grown to $100,000. The taxable amount would be: <P> If you decide to convert all $30,000 of your IRA money, then $15,000 (the amount you contributed to the non-deductible IRA on an after-tax basis) would not be taxable since you’ve already paid the tax on that money. <P> For example, if 5% of your non-Roth IRA are non-deductible contributions, then 5% of the conversion amount must be non-deductible contributions, and the rest must come from the deductible contributions, including earnings and rollover contributions. When you make non-deductible contributions to a traditional IRA, you'll have the basis, the amount of non-deductible contributions, reported on Form 8606. When you convert a part or all of your traditional IRA to a Roth IRA, the conversion amount must contain the non-deductible portion proportionally.
Once you have submitted the form, the financial institution will automatically transfer the money.
what are tocopherols in food
<P> Vegetables. Many green vegetables provide alpha-tocopherol. Spinach is especially rich in the vitamin, with 1 cup providing about 4 milligrams. Turnip greens, broccoli and asparagus also contain vitamin E, with a 1-cup serving of each providing about 2 milligrams. Alpha-tocopherol is an alternative name for vitamin E, which has many important functions in your body. A potent antioxidant, alpha-tocopherol protects you from potentially damaging free radicals, while also boosting your immune system to help you fight off viruses and pathogenic bacteria. <P> Flint River Ranch uses tocopherols, a natural antioxidant and Vitamin E source, and human-quality ingredients to slow the oxidation process of fats and oils to ensure its premium pet food products remain fresh as in their initial state. Vitamin E is an antioxidant that retards the oxidation of other vitamins. <P> Vitamin E is widely used as an inexpensive antioxidant in cosmetics and foods. Vitamin E containing products are commonly used in the belief that vitamin E is good for the skin; many cosmetics include it, often labeled as tocopherol acetate, tocopheryl linoleate or tocopheryl nicotinate. Alpha-tocopherol is the form of vitamin E that is preferentially absorbed and accumulated in humans. The measurement of vitamin E activity in international units (IU) was based on fertility enhancement by the prevention of miscarriages in pregnant rats relative to alpha-tocopherol. <P> Tocopherol is a naturally occurring chemical element found in a variety of foods. It is commonly called vitamin E in a generic sense, as vitamin E substances are made up of tocopherol and similar elements. The most common form of this element is called alpha-tocopherol. Tocopherol in the form of vitamin E is a regular part of the average diet, with specific recommended dosages available to the public from U.S. science institutions in the form of recommended daily allowance or RDA. Foods that include vitamin E will usually have the RDA printed on the nutritional label. <P> Sources of Vitamin E. Food. Numerous foods provide vitamin E. Nuts, seeds, and vegetable oils are among the best sources of alpha-tocopherol, and significant amounts are available in green leafy vegetables and fortified cereals (see Table 2 for a more detailed list) [ 7 ]. At present, the vitamin E content of foods and dietary supplements is listed on labels in international units (IUs), a measure of biological activity rather than quantity. Naturally sourced vitamin E is called d-alpha-tocopherol; the synthetically produced form is dl-alpha-tocopherol. <P> The proportion of vitamin E to other tocopherols in a nutrient source varies greatly. For example, the tocopherol content is 96% vitamin E in almonds and 9% vitamin E in poppy seeds. Alpha-tocopherol is the form of vitamin E that is preferentially absorbed and accumulated in humans. The measurement of vitamin E activity in international units (IU) was based on fertility enhancement by the prevention of miscarriages in pregnant rats relative to alpha-tocopherol. <P> An assessment of the safety of tocopherols as food additives. Tomassi G, Silano V. This paper is a critical review of data relevant to the safety of tocopherols as food additives. Tocopherols are considered from the standpoint of their chemical-physical properties, occurrence in nature and use in commercial products. <P> Food sources. Major sources of α-tocopherol in the American diet include vegetable oils (olive, sunflower, and safflower oils), nuts, whole grains, and green leafy vegetables (Table 2). All eight forms of vitamin E (α-, β-, γ-, and δ-tocopherols and tocotrienols) occur naturally in foods but in varying amounts. For more information on the nutrient content of foods, search the USDA food composition database. Often vitamin E-fortified foods contain synthetic α-tocopherol, and the amounts are given as a percentage of the daily value of 30 IU. Throughout this article, amounts of α-tocopherol are expressed in both international units (IU) and milligrams (mg). <P> Other nuts, including hazelnuts, pine nuts, peanuts, Brazil nuts and pistachios are also good sources, with between 0.5 and 2 milligrams in a 1-ounce serving. Sunflower seeds are high in alpha-tocopherol as well, providing over 8 milligrams in 1/4 cup. Sprouted seeds provide small amounts of the vitamin, too. Alpha-tocopherol is an alternative name for vitamin E, which has many important functions in your body. A potent antioxidant, alpha-tocopherol protects you from potentially damaging free radicals, while also boosting your immune system to help you fight off viruses and pathogenic bacteria.
Naturally occurring chemical element found in a variety of foods.
richmond virginia hill names
<P> Libby Hill Park. Last Updated: 2009-12-06. 2801 E. Franklin Street, Richmond, VADogwood Dell Event Line: (804) 646-DELL. Located at 28th and E. Franklin Streets, Libby Hill Park is one of the three original parks in Richmond's park system. It was originally called Marshall Square, and the view from Libby Hill Park is said to so closely resemble the view of Richmond on the Thames in England that it gave the city its name. <P> History [edit]. Church Hill is known as the site of Virginia's second revolutionary convention, where Patrick Henry gave his Give me liberty or give me death speech in St. John's Episcopal Church, Richmond, Virginia. It is also known for Chimborazo Park, where the largest American Civil War Hospital was located. <P> Church Hill, also known as the St. John's Church Historic District, is an Old and Historic District in Richmond, Virginia. This district encompasses the original land plat of the city of Richmond. Church Hill is the eastern terminus of Broad Street, a major east-west thoroughfare in the Richmond Metropolitan Area]]. <P> Church Hill is known as the site of Virginia's second revolutionary convention, where Patrick Henry gave his Give me liberty or give me death speech in St. John's Episcopal Church, Richmond, Virginia. It is also known for Chimborazo Park, where the largest American Civil War Hospital was located. <P> Church Hill, due east of downtown, above Shockoe Valley, where Patrick Henry gave his famous speech at St. John’s Church, which is apparently the highest spot in the city. Union Hill, just north of Church Hill on that same knobby ridgeline, is an old residential neighborhood.
Church Hill, and Libby Hill Park.
average temperature in Turks and Caicos
<P> July is the hottest month in Providenciales with an average temperature of 30°C (86°F) and the coldest is January at 25°C (77°F) . <P> Aside from the idyllic seas and skies, the weather here is a big draw. The average temperature on the Turks and Caicos Islands ranges between 85° and 90°F (29°-32°C) from June to October, sometimes reaching the mid-90s (35°C), especially in the late summer months. <P> This report describes the typical weather at the Providenciales International Airport (Providenciales, Turks and Caicos Islands) weather station over the course of an average year. It is based on the historical records from 2010 to 2013. <P> The Turks & Caicos Islands enjoy abundant sunshine. Providenciales (Provo), North Caicos and Middle Caicos average 44 to 50 inches (112 - 127cm) of rainfall annually, with Grand Turk, Salt Cay and South Caicos averaging 22 inches (55cm) of rain annually. <P> It's Sunny. . . Turks and Caicos weather is sunny, sunny, sunny! The sun shines 350 days a year with an average temperature of 83°F (28°C). An added bonus is that Turks and Caicos weather is generally warmer with less rain and humidity than its Caribbean neighbors. With a Cool Breeze. <P> Grand Turk and South Caicos have an annual rainfall of 53 centimeters (21 in.), but as you travel farther west, the average rainfall can increase to as much as 102 centimeters (40 in.). In an average year the Turks and Caicos Islands have 350 days of sunshine. <P> Temperatures in Turks and Caicos during the high season average between 80 and 84 degrees Fahrenheit, and rainfall averages at about 1.7 inches, with December being the wettest month of this period.
between 85° and 90°F
what is the purpose of brit milah ceremony
<P> H. The brit milah (Hebrew: בְּרִית מִילָה ‎, [bʁit miˈla] ; Ashkenazi pronunciation: [bʁis ˈmilə] , covenant of circumcision ; Yiddish pronunciation: bris [bʀɪs]) is a Jewish religious male circumcision ceremony performed by a mohel on the eighth day of a male infant's life. A Milah L'shem giur is a Circumcision for the purpose of conversion. In Orthodox Judaism, this procedure is usually done by adoptive parents for adopted boys who are being converted as part of the adoption or by families with young children converting together. <P> Judaism and circumcision. Circumcision is an initiation rite for Jewish newborn babies. This usually takes place in a ceremony called a Brit (or Bris) milah witnessed by family and community members. Milah is Hebrew for Covenant of Circumcision. The ritual is an ancient practice that has been carried out by Jewish parents for more than 3,000 years. Such is the importance of Brit milah that circumcision can take place on the Sabbath or a holy day even though the drawing of blood is not normally allowed on these days under Jewish law. <P> The Objective of the Ritual Circumcision Translating Brit Milah as simply circumcision rather than covenant circumcision, erroneously implies that the removal of the foreskin is the most important element of the mitzvah. Circumcision is coupled with the intent to forge a covenant between God and the Jewish people. Today, by performing the act circumcision, Jews perpetuate the covenant and make their children a part of that eternal promise. The Deeper Meaning The fact that the Brit Milah is performed on the eighth day after a boy is born hints to this idea of eternal Jewish continuity. <P> The Order of the Ceremony of Brit Milah. The ceremony of Brit Milah takes place in three parts. The first part of the ceremony includes the physical circumcision. The ceremony begins when the kvatterin takes the infant from his mother and brings him to the room where the circumcision will occur. <P> The complete name of the ritual is bris (or brit) milah, with the second word meaning “circumcision” and the first word meaning “covenant.” The circumci­sion ceremony identifies the Jewish child as a member of the covenant with God by virtue of his birth as a Jew into a Jewish family. <P> After you successfully pass your interview by the conversion court, all males come to the second step in the conversion ceremony, brit milah. This is a traditional Jewish ceremony, in which a man’s foreskin is removed, as a sign of the covenant between him and his Creator. If your foreskin was removed in the past, not in a Jewish-halachic context, or you were born without a foreskin, you will instead have a hatafat dam brit. <P> Brit milah, which means covenant of circumcision, is a Jewish ritual performed on a baby boy eight days after he is born. A minyan is not required for a bris. The only people who are required to be present are the father, mohel and a sandek, who is the person who holds the baby while the circumcision is performed. Brit Milah is composed of three main parts. <P> The Ceremony. The ceremony of brit milah takes place on the eighth day of a baby boy’s life, even if that day falls on Shabbat or a holiday, including Yom Kippur. The only reason the ritual would not be performed is if the child is ill or too weak to safely undergo the procedure. A minyan is not required for a bris. The only people who are required to be present are the father, mohel and a sandek, who is the person who holds the baby while the circumcision is performed. Brit Milah is composed of three main parts. <P> Brit Milah, or circumcision, is performed on a Jewish male eight days after he is born. The procedure is performed by a mohel – a person who has mastered the set of Jewish laws regarding circumcision and received extensive practical training. At a Brit Milah, the mohel removes the baby's foreskin and draws blood from the reproductive organ, after which the baby is given a Jewish name. Today, by performing the act circumcision, Jews perpetuate the covenant and make their children a part of that eternal promise. The Deeper Meaning The fact that the Brit Milah is performed on the eighth day after a boy is born hints to this idea of eternal Jewish continuity. <P> Kveller Staff. Kveller Staff. The main element of a bris –also called a brit milah –is the removal of the foreskin from an eight-day-old baby boy’s penis. But a bris is actually more than just a snip; it is a ceremony that includes various traditions, rituals, and prayers. Here’s a rundown of the main events.
In Orthodox Judaism, this procedure is usually done by adoptive parents for adopted boys who are being converted as part of the adoption or by families with young children converting together.
what is hematopoietic marrow
<P> A hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT) is the infusion of bone marrow or peripheral blood stem cells into a patient’s bloodstream. In adults, the bones of the hip and chest contain the greatest amount of bone marrow and stem cells. Stem cells that leave the bone marrow and circulate into the bloodstream are called peripheral blood stem cells (PBSCs) . <P> Harrison et al. write that short-term blood-progenitor cells in a mouse may restore hematopoiesis for three to four months [ 36 ]. The longevity of short-term stem cells for humans is not firmly established. A true stem cell, capable of self-renewal, must be able to renew itself for the entire lifespan of an organism. The gold standard for proving that a cell derived from mouse bone marrow is indeed an HSC is still based on the same proof described above and used in mice many years ago. That is, the cells are injected into a mouse that has received a dose of irradiation sufficient to kill its own blood-producing cells. <P> Foci of hematopoietic tissue form in the embryonic mesenchyma and, later, in the liver (where red and white blood cells are formed) and thymus (where lymphocytes are formed). Still later, hematopoiesis shifts to the bone marrow, and lymphocytes begin to develop in the thymus, spleen, and lymph nodes. <P> Hematopoietic stem cell transplants are now routinely used to treat patients with cancers and other disorders of the blood and immune systems. Recently, researchers have observed in animal studies that hematopoietic stem cells appear to be able to form other kinds of cells, such as muscle, blood vessels, and bone. The gold standard for proving that a cell derived from mouse bone marrow is indeed an HSC is still based on the same proof described above and used in mice many years ago. That is, the cells are injected into a mouse that has received a dose of irradiation sufficient to kill its own blood-producing cells. <P> The two types of bone marrow are red marrow (Latin: medulla ossium rubra), which consists mainly of hematopoietic tissue, and yellow marrow (Latin: medulla ossium flava), which is mainly made up of fat cells. In humans, red blood cells are produced by cores of bone marrow in the heads of long bones in a process known as hematopoiesis. On average, bone marrow constitutes 4% of the total body mass of humans; in an adult weighing 65 kilograms (143 lb), bone marrow typically accounts for approximately 2.6 kilograms (5.7 lb). <P> The hematopoietic component of bone marrow produces approximately 500 billion blood cells per day, which use the bone marrow vasculature as a conduit to the body's systemic circulation. Bone marrow is also a key component of the lymphatic system, producing the lymphocytes that support the body's immune system. In humans, red blood cells are produced by cores of bone marrow in the heads of long bones in a process known as hematopoiesis. On average, bone marrow constitutes 4% of the total body mass of humans; in an adult weighing 65 kilograms (143 lb), bone marrow typically accounts for approximately 2.6 kilograms (5.7 lb). <P> Bone marrow is the flexible tissue in the interior of bones. In humans, red blood cells are produced by cores of bone marrow in the heads of long bones in a process known as hematopoiesis. On average, bone marrow constitutes 4% of the total body mass of humans; in an adult weighing 65 kilograms (143 lb), bone marrow typically accounts for approximately 2.6 kilograms (5.7 lb). <P> Bone marrow is the soft, sponge-like tissue that fills the hollow center of bones. There are two types of bone marrow: red marrow and yellow marrow. Red Marrow-Consisting mainly of hematopoietic tissue, or tissue involved in the formation of red blood cells, all bone marrow is red at birth. About 50% of red marrow converts to yellow marrow over time. <P> In addition, the bone marrow contains hematopoietic stem cells, which give rise to the three classes of blood cells that are found in the circulation: white blood cells (leukocytes), red blood cells (erythrocytes), and platelets (thrombocytes). In humans, red blood cells are produced by cores of bone marrow in the heads of long bones in a process known as hematopoiesis. On average, bone marrow constitutes 4% of the total body mass of humans; in an adult weighing 65 kilograms (143 lb), bone marrow typically accounts for approximately 2.6 kilograms (5.7 lb). <P> The bone marrow has two types of stem cells: mesenchymal and hematopoietic. Red bone marrow consists of a delicate, highly vascular fibrous tissue containing hematopoietic stem cells, which are blood-forming stem cells. There are two types of bone marrow: red bone marrow (also known as myeloid tissue) and yellow bone marrow (fatty tissue). 1. Both types of bone marrow are highly vascular and enriched with numerous blood vessels and capillaries. 2. The bone marrow makes more than 200 billion new blood cells every day.
The bone marrow contains hematopoietic stem cells, which give rise to the three classes of blood cells that are found in the circulation: white blood cells (leukocytes), red blood cells (erythrocytes) and platelets.
regulatory sequence definition biology
<P> Gene expression is the process by which information from a gene is used in the synthesis of a functional gene product. These products are often proteins, but in non-protein coding genes such as ribosomal RNA (rRNA) genes or transfer RNA (tRNA) genes, the product is a functional RNA. Generation of RNA from DNA is known as transcription. In other word transcription is the process of creating a complementary RNA copy of a sequence of DNA. During transcription, a DNA sequence is read by RNA polymerase, which produces a complementary, antiparallel RNA strand. <P> Gene regulatory protein. (Science: molecular biology) Any protein that interacts with dna sequences of a gene and controls its transcription. Please contribute to this project, if you have more information about this term feel free to edit this page. <P> Eukaryotic promoter regulatory sequences typically bind proteins called transcription factors which are involved in the formation of the transcriptional complex. An example is the E-box (sequence CACGTG), which binds transcription factors in the basic-helix-loop-helix (bHLH) family (e.g. BMAL1-Clock, cMyc). Generation of RNA from DNA is known as transcription. In other word transcription is the process of creating a complementary RNA copy of a sequence of DNA. During transcription, a DNA sequence is read by RNA polymerase, which produces a complementary, antiparallel RNA strand. <P> A regulator gene, regulator, or regulatory gene is a gene involved in controlling the expression of one or more other genes. Regulator genes can be located within an operon, adjacent to it, or far away from it. Other regulatory genes code for activator proteins. An activator binds to a site on the DNA molecule and causes an increase in transcription of a nearby gene. In prokaryotes, a well-known example of an activator protein is the catabolite activator protein or CAP, which is involved in positive control of the lac operon <P> A regulatory sequence is a segment of a nucleic acid molecule which is capable of increasing or decreasing the expression of specific genes within an organism. Regulation of gene expression is an essential feature of all living organisms and viruses. Regulatory sequence controls when expression occurs for the multiple protein coding regions (red). Promoter, operator and enhancer regions (yellow) regulate the transcription of the gene into an mRNA. The mRNA untranslated regions (blue) regulate translation into the final protein products. <P> Regulator gene. From Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia. A regulator gene, regulator, or regulatory gene is a gene involved in controlling the expression of one or more other genes. A regulator gene may encode a protein, or it may work at the level of RNA, as in the case of genes encoding microRNAs. In prokaryotes, regulator genes often code for repressor proteins. Repressor proteins bind to operators or promoters, preventing RNA polymerase from transcribing RNA. Regulator genes can be located within an operon, adjacent to it, or far away from it. Other regulatory genes code for activator proteins. An activator binds to a site on the DNA molecule and causes an increase in transcription of a nearby gene. In prokaryotes, a well-known example of an activator protein is the catabolite activator protein or CAP, which is involved in positive control of the lac operon <P> enhancer. Enhancer sequences are regulatory DNA sequences that, when bound by specific proteins called transcription factors, enhance the transcription of an associated gene. Enhancer sequences act upon genes on the same DNA molecule; however, enhancer sequences can be located thousands of base pairs away from the transcription start site of the gene being regulated. <P> Regulatory sequence controls when and where expression occurs for the protein coding region (red). Promoter and enhancer regions (yellow) regulate the transcription of the gene into a pre-mRNA which is modified to add a 5' cap and poly-A tail (grey) and remove introns. Regulatory sequence controls when expression occurs for the multiple protein coding regions (red). Promoter, operator and enhancer regions (yellow) regulate the transcription of the gene into an mRNA. The mRNA untranslated regions (blue) regulate translation into the final protein products. <P> Regulatory gene. Definition. noun, plural: regulatory genes. A gene that is involved in the production of a substance that controls or regulates the expression of one or more genes, such as the gene that codes for a repressor protein that inhibits the activity of an operator gene. Supplement. The repressor protein binds to operator gene, which consequently prevents the production of a specific enzyme. When that enzyme is needed again, a specific regulatory metabolite inhibits the repressor so that the enzyme is produced. Also called: 1 regulator.
A regulatory sequence is a segment of a nucleic acid molecule which is capable of increasing or decreasing the expression of specific genes within an organism.
what are the group a strep species
<P> Most of these species are referred to as a group – viridans streptococci. They are also sometimes referred to as “green strep” owing to the color of blood agar surrounding the colonies. Many different species comprise the <P> Strep is short for Streptococcus, a type of bacteria. There are two types: group A and group B. Group A strep causes. 1 Strep throat-a sore, red throat, sometimes with white spots on the tonsils. 2 Scarlet fever-an illness that follows strep throat. 3 It causes a red rash on the body. 4 Impetigo-a skin infection. <P> Michael Melia, M.D. Streptococcus species is a topic covered in the Johns Hopkins Antibiotic (ABX) Guide. To view the entire topic, please sign in or purchase a subscription. Johns Hopkins Guides provide diagnosis, management, and treatment guidance for infectious diseases, diabetes, and psychiatric conditions. <P> 1 The streptococci are a very heterogeneous group of bacteria. 2 Some members are a part of our normal flora while others are potent pathogens. 3 The primary pathogens are S. pyogenes and S. pneumoniae but other species can be opportunistic. <P> Streptococcus Genus Characteristics Many members of the Streptococcus genus are normal flora to the mouth, nose, and throat. The genus Streptococcus is a complex group causing a wide range of diseases such as: rheumatic fever, impetigo, pharyngitis, laryngitis, toxic shock syndrome, scarlet fever, and endocarditis. Streptococci are often classified based on hemolysis which can be seen by their reaction on blood agar. <P> Group B streptococcus (GBS) has only one species, i.e., S. agalactiae, but is subclassified into 7 capsular serotypes, namely: Ia, Ib, II, III, IV, V, and VI. Type III is most commonly associated with neonatal disease while Ia and Ib with adult diseases (25, 91). GABS is discussed elsewhere in this textbook. <P> Groups A and B are the most common and devastating human pathogens. Group A Streptococcus bacteria causes disease ranging from streptococcal sore throat (strep throat) to necrotizing fasciitis (flesh-eating disease).
Group A and group B.
what class is a german shepherd
<P> General Appearance. The first impression of a good German Shepherd Dog is that of a strong, agile, well muscled animal, alert and full of life. It is well balanced, with harmonious development of the forequarter and hindquarter. The dog is longer than tall, deep-bodied, and presents an outline of smooth curves rather than angles. <P> [ˈʃɛːfɐˌhʊnt]) is a breed of large-sized working dog that originated in Germany. The breed's officially recognized name is German Shepherd Dog in the English language, sometimes abbreviated as GSD , and was also formerly known as the Alsatian and Alsatian Wolf Dog in Britain. The German Shepherd is a relatively new breed of dog, with their origin dating to 1899. As part of the Herding Group, German Shepherds are working dogs developed originally for herding sheep <P> We're so confident in our World Class Gunbil German shepherds breeding program that we offer a WORRY FREE FIVE YEAR genetic HEALTH and TEMPERAMENT GUARANTEE ! In the event that the guarantee is honored, Gunbil German Shepherds will provide another dog of the same quality, age, gender (of choice) and value. <P> 10. Enroll your German Shepherd puppy in a basic or puppy obedience class. Typically, as puppies are first learning commands, one adult family member will be responsible for training. Later, when the puppy is consistent and understands the basics, other members of the family can participate in formal training. Although any German Shepherd dog is trainable, they are very strong and powerful animals. If you start out with a puppy, you have the opportunity to shape and mold its personality and develop your relationship early. 1 If you happen to get an older dog, adult dogs can still be trained effectively. <P> That is why the German Shepherd Dog Club of Minneapolis and St. Paul is offering a Puppy Foundation Class. Core components of the class are: socialization, basic manners training, and educating owners on how to properly develop a young GSD into a confident, well adjusted adult. Most handlers in the advanced class have exhibited German Shepherd Dogs in a dog show. Please bring your German Shepherd Dog, a show collar, a lead (4-6 foot, leather preferred), bait (treats to reward your dog), and wear comfortable clothing and shoes (No Heels!), as you will be running with your dog. <P> German Shepherd. World Class Canine is proud to present our genuine German Shepherd sales and breeding program. At World Class Canine we only supply and breed exceptional military grade working German Shepherd dogs that possess rock solid nerves and exceptional working drives. It is rare for a client to bring in a German Shepherd (that wasn't breed here) that possesses the drives and solid nerves required for serious protection or, patrol work. By rare I mean, your chances of winning the lotto or, finding a decent working GSD in the newspaper are about even. <P> German Shepherds are powerful and third most intelligent dogs in the world. 75% of police dogs are German Shepherds. German Shepherds have extremely powerful bite force an … d have defined pointed ears (non-cropped) and thick fur which is usually tan with a black sadle and dark snout. German shepherds are fierce and loyal guard dogs but gentle and caring family dogs that will stay by your side through thick and thin. <P> Begin your training attempts with a German Shepherd puppy when it is around 8 weeks old. Although any German Shepherd dog is trainable, they are very strong and powerful animals. If you start out with a puppy, you have the opportunity to shape and mold its personality and develop your relationship early. 1 If you happen to get an older dog, adult dogs can still be trained effectively. <P> The German Shepherd dog/puppy is a pack animal. They need you to be the leader of the pack, providing structure and guidance. You must provide an environment of trust-through training and repeitition, with appropriate verbal and non-verbal commands. THE KEY TO TRAINING IS CONSISTENCY & PRACTICE ... <P> These rare genuine working German Shepherds are truly the upper echelon of the German Shepherd breed. Purchasing a World Class Canine German Shepherd is truly a step back into time, prior to over-breeding and Americanization of the typical GSD. It is rare for a client to bring in a German Shepherd (that wasn't breed here) that possesses the drives and solid nerves required for serious protection or, patrol work. By rare I mean, your chances of winning the lotto or, finding a decent working GSD in the newspaper are about even.
Herding Group
what is incubation period for pink eye
<P> The incubation period for pink eye is defined as the period between transmission and the beginning of symptoms. Once the virus or bacterium enters the eye, symptoms do not begin immediately. For a viral infection, the incubation period is generally 12 hours to three days. For pink eye caused by a bacterial infection, symptoms generally start one to three days after transmission. <P> For someone with pink eye caused by a virus, the person can be contagious for up to 14 days from the time that symptoms first appear. Keep in mind that just because you or your child was given an antibiotic, this does not necessarily mean that it is bacterial conjunctivitis. <P> Please Share! When pink eye is caused by certain bacteria or viruses, the infected person can be contagious for several days to several weeks or more. Fortunately, people do not appear to be contagious during the incubation period the time between when they are exposed and when pink eye symptoms begin. Schools and day care centers often require a child diagnosed with pink eye to stay home until the condition is resolved. <P> The incubation period for pink eye will vary, depending on whether it is caused by bacteria or a virus and the specific type. For a viral infection, generally 12 hours to three days later, signs and/or symptoms of pink eye will appear. Incubation Period for Pink Eye: An Overview. Pink eye is the layman's term for conjunctivitis. Conjunctivitis is inflammation of the conjunctiva, which is a clear, thin piece of tissue that covers the whites of the eyes and the inner eyelids. There are several reasons why the conjunctiva can become inflamed. <P> 1. Pink eye caused by virus or bacteria is highly contagious, but during the incubation period for pink eye, it is not contagious. Bacterial conjunctivitis becomes contagious when the symptoms start to appear and continue for 24 hours after an antibiotic is given. Incubation Period for Pink Eye. Conjunctivitis is also referred to as red eye and is quite common. It is also called infectious conjunctivitis. The front of the eye is covered with a thin tissue layer which gets red and inflamed. <P> Incubation period for pink eye caused by virus is around 12 hours to 3 days and a person can go back to work or school when the symptoms improve. That would be in 3 to 5 days. For bacterial infection, the person can go back to work 24 hours after antibiotic has been administered and symptoms start improving. Incubation Period for Pink Eye. Conjunctivitis is also referred to as red eye and is quite common. It is also called infectious conjunctivitis. The front of the eye is covered with a thin tissue layer which gets red and inflamed. <P> The incubation period for pink eye can range from a couple of days to a couple of weeks. More Info: Conjunctivitis, more commonly referred to as pink eye, can be caused by a variety of factors. The incubation period, that is the span of time that elapses between a person coming in contact with the infection and the symptoms ultimately appearing, depend upon what has caused the infection.
12 hours to 3 days
what organelles stores food wastes products and other materials
<P> An active cell constantly produces waste products. cytoplasm, organelles called lysosomes contain chemicals. (enzymes) that digest wastes and worn-out cell parts. These. chemicals also break down food. These organelles are found primarily in animal cells. Cells require a continuous supply of energy. The cell wall is a rigid structure outside the cell membrane that. supports and protects the cell (for plants, fungi, and some. protists and bacteria). The cell wall is made of tough cellulose fibers and other. materials made by the cell. Note: fungal cell walls contain chitin. instead of cellulose. <P> The vacuole is the organelle that stores food, water, and waste. They're are present in both plant and animal cells, but are more prominent in plant cells. The central vacuole, an organelle that a plant cell has that an animal cell doesn't have, stores food, water, and wastes. The central vacuole also supports the plant cell's st … ructure when full. The vacuole (in both plants and animals) has the same function but isn't big enough to support the cell's structure <P> Plastids are double membrane bound organelles. It is in plastids that plants make and store food. Plastids are found in the cytoplasm and there are two main types: Leucoplasts-colorless organelles which store starch or other plant nutrients. (example-starch stored in a potato). Chromoplasts-contain different colored pigments. The most important type of chromoplast is the chloroplast, which contains the green pigment chlorophyll. This is important in the process of photosynthesis. <P> Question and answer. Which organelle is used as temporary storage for water, waste products, food, and other cellular material? Vacuole is used as temporary storage for water, waste products, food, [ and other cellular material. ]. <P> Vacuole (12)  A sac of fluid surrounded by a membrane  FUNCTION-stores food, enzymes, and other materials for the cell. Some store waste products.  Plant Cells have one LARGE vacuole that contains water and other substances. <P> Cell Parts and Organelle Functions -. The cell membrane (or plasma Membrane) is a structure that forms the outer boundary of the cell and allows only certain materials to move into and out of the cell. Food, oxygen and water move into the cell through the membrane. Waste products also leave through the membrane. The cell wall is a rigid structure outside the cell membrane that. supports and protects the cell (for plants, fungi, and some. protists and bacteria). The cell wall is made of tough cellulose fibers and other. materials made by the cell. Note: fungal cell walls contain chitin. instead of cellulose. <P> Cell Membrane The cell membrane protects the cell and regulates what substances enter and leave the cell. Vacuole Most mature plant cells have one large vacuole. This sac within the cytoplasm stores water, food, waste products, and other materials. Chloroplasts These organelles capture energy from sunlight and use it to produce food for the cell. Golgi BodyRibosomesMitochondrionCytoplasm Plant Cell sx05_LEP_L_ch2.fm Page 64 Monday, September 27, 2004 11:53 AM Vacuole Some animal cells have vacuoles that store food, water, waste, and other materials. Golgi Body The Golgi bodies receive materials from the endoplasmic reticulum and send them to other parts of the cell. They also release materials outside the cell. Cytoplasm The cytoplasm includes a gel-like fluid in which many different organelles are found.
The vacuole
what is government island vancouver, wa
<P> View north to Washington State, from Rocky Butte, Oregon. Mount St. Helens, the Columbia River, Government Island (running through center of image), and the Interstate 205 Bridge are all in this view looking north from Rocky Butte. Columbia River and Government Island complex, looking upstream, as seen from Rocky Butte. View of the Columbia River, with Government Island (left on river) and McGuire Island (center of river). McGuire Island is part of the Government Island complex. Image taken June 15, 2005. <P> The downstream tip of Government Island (downstream of the Interstate 205 Bridge) is Lemon Island, and two smaller islands are on the north side of Lemon Island. The larger (0.8-miles in length) is referred to as Tri-Club Island, and the smaller is unnamed. Columbia River and Government Island complex, looking upstream, as seen from Rocky Butte. View of the Columbia River, with Government Island (left on river) and McGuire Island (center of river). McGuire Island is part of the Government Island complex. Image taken June 15, 2005. <P> Vancouver Island is separated from mainland British Columbia by the Strait of Georgia and Queen Charlotte Strait, and from Washington by the Juan De Fuca Strait. Vancouver Island, located in British Columbia, Canada, is the largest Pacific island east of New Zealand. While the city of Vancouver stands on the North American mainland, Victoria, the capital city of British Columbia, is located on the island. Along with most of the southern Gulf Islands, plus various minor islands offshore from its southern end, the southern part of Vancouver Island is the only part of British Columbia (and of Western Canada) that lies south of the 49th Parallel. <P> Three miles downstream lies Hayden Island and just upstream is Lady Island. Government Island lies between the Portland International Airport on the Oregon shore and Vancouver, Washington, on the northern shore. The Interstate 205 bridge crosses Government Island and connects the two shores. Columbia River and Government Island complex, looking upstream, as seen from Rocky Butte. View of the Columbia River, with Government Island (left on river) and McGuire Island (center of river). McGuire Island is part of the Government Island complex. Image taken June 15, 2005. <P> Government Island, a historic 18th and 19th century quarry site provided Aquia sandstone for the construction of the U.S. Capitol and the White House and other historic buildings in Washington, D.C. Today this 17-acre park is a historic scenic nature preserve and archaeological site. Located in the middle of Stafford I-95 exit 140, Visit the quarry where the U.S. Government's most famous buildings were born. <P> Most of the island is owned by the Port of Portland. The Port acquired the entire island (as well as adjacent Lemon Island and McGuire Island) in 1969 in order to expand nearby Portland International Airport. (Although there is a city controlled locked gate in the 205 fence.) Government Island is known for its great blue heron colony and the Government Island State Recreation Area (primitive camping, beaches). <P> Map of Government Island. Government Island is a 1,760-acre (7 km 2) island in the Columbia River north of Portland, in Multnomah County, in the U.S. state of Oregon. Though Interstate 205 passes over it on the Glenn L. Jackson Memorial Bridge, access to the island is only by boat. (Although there is a city controlled locked gate in the 205 fence.) Government Island is known for its great blue heron colony and the Government Island State Recreation Area (primitive camping, beaches). <P> Downstream side of the Interstate-205 Bridge as seen from Marine Drive, Oregon. Government Island is to the left and the Oregon banks of the Columbia River are to the right. Mount Hood, Oregon, is in the background. Columbia River and Government Island complex, looking upstream, as seen from Rocky Butte. View of the Columbia River, with Government Island (left on river) and McGuire Island (center of river). McGuire Island is part of the Government Island complex. Image taken June 15, 2005.
Located in British Columbia, Canada, is the largest Pacific island east of New Zealand.
what does porifera mean
<P> porifera means pore bearing sponges are covered with tiny pores on the outside called ostia 2 ostia lead to an internal system of canals which leads to one or more larger holes called oscula which are the openings to the out side ostia are surrounded by donut shaped cells called porocytes the life of a sponge elephant ear sponge 2006 richard ling the word sponge for most of us relates to the scrubbing sponge or a bath sponge it is easy to forget that there is much more to sponges than the scrubbing and bath the sponges are living animals that live in the water <P> sponges are classified in the phylum porifera a word that comes from the latin words porus pore and ferre bear meaning pore bearer this is a reference to the numerous holes pores on the sponge s surface sponges do not have tissues or organs like some animals do but they have specialized cells to perform necessary functions these cells each have a job some are in charge of digestion some reproduction some bringing in water so the sponge can filter feed and some for getting rid of wastes <P> sponges are the simplest form of multi cellular animals they are very diverse and come in a large variety of colours shapes and structural complexities they range in heights of 1 200cm and in diameters of 1 150cm they have partially differentiated tissues and not true tissues sponges don t have internal organs they don t have muscles a nervous system or a circulatory system their walls are lined with many small pores called ostia that allow water flow into the sponge the structure of a sponge is simple one end is attached to a solid such as a rock while the other end called the osculum is open to the environment sponges are able to get microorganisms such as algae and bacteria for food through openings <P> unlike the cells of most other animals the cells of sponges do not form into various organs like kidney liver or nerves sponge cells are totipotent dawkins 2004 the totipotent cells could give rise to reproductive cells or other types of cells of the organism the life of a sponge elephant ear sponge 2006 richard ling the word sponge for most of us relates to the scrubbing sponge or a bath sponge it is easy to forget that there is much more to sponges than the scrubbing and bath the sponges are living animals that live in the water <P> the skeleton or structure of sponges is formed by spicules which are made of silica a glass like material or calcareous calcium or calcium carbonate materials and spongin a protein that supports the spicules sponge species may be most readily identified by examining their spicules under a microscope sponges do not have tissues or organs like some animals do but they have specialized cells to perform necessary functions these cells each have a job some are in charge of digestion some reproduction some bringing in water so the sponge can filter feed and some for getting rid of wastes <P> porifera the cells sponges have a cellular grade of organization they do not possess any structures that can be considered organs for instance sponges do not have stomachs or kidneys instead sponge cells of various types are responsible for bodily functions the day to day activities that sustain life many of the most common types of cells are illustrated below in a cartoon view of the wall of a poriferan <P> the phylum porifera consists of the sponges to make it into the porifera phylum an animal must have no true tissue some contain spicules a skeletal element and all contain choanocysts a type of cell which move water through the porous bodies of poriferas porifera also have totipotent cells which have the cabalitity of changing into whatever type of cell is needed by the organism <P> reproduction by sponges is by both sexual and asexual means asexual reproduction is by means of external buds some species also form internal buds called gemmules which can survive extremely unfavorable conditions that cause the rest of the sponge to die sexual reproduction takes place in the mesohyl other characteristics of sponges include a system of pores also called ostia and canals through which water passes water movement is driven by the beating of flagellae which are located on specialized cells called choanocytes collar cells
Phylum an animal
what does payroll mean
<P> Answer. Arrears payroll means employees are paid approximately two weeks after the end of a pay cycle. Employees are paid for the 1st-15th of each month at the end of that month. Then employees are paid for the 16th-31st of each month in the middle of the following month (15th or 16th). <P> In business, payroll governs all the forms of compensation that a company uses. At its most basic form, payroll is made of wages and salaries, but a company must account not only for taxes and incentive plans, but a number of fees and costs about which the employee may not be completely aware. Elements. Gross payroll is made out of several elements. The major component is the main form of compensation, given in either a wage or a salary. But many employees also receive money from bonuses, overtime, pay for time off and time sick and payment allowances for tools and services they need to buy. <P> Payroll taxes are taxes imposed on employers or employees, and are usually calculated as a percentage of the salaries that employers pay their staff. Payroll taxes generally fall into two categories: deductions from an employee’s wages, and taxes paid by the employer based on the employee's wages. <P> Definition. Gross payroll is the total amount of money designated for a particular employee or for all employees in the business, depending on how the term is being used. The goal is to provide a maximum figure that can be easily examined by managers, payroll employees and analysts. Elements. Gross payroll is made out of several elements. The major component is the main form of compensation, given in either a wage or a salary. But many employees also receive money from bonuses, overtime, pay for time off and time sick and payment allowances for tools and services they need to buy. <P> DEFINITION of 'Payroll'. The sum total of all compensation that a business must pay to its employees for a set period of time or on a given date. Payroll is usually managed by the accounting department of a business. Small-business payrolls may be handled directly by the owner or an associate. Payroll can also refer to the list of employees of a business and the amount of compensation that is due to each of them. Payroll is a major expense for most businesses and is almost always deductible as such. Payroll can differ from one pay period to another due to overtime, sick pay and other variables <P> • PAYROLL (noun). The noun PAYROLL has 3 senses: 1. a list of employees and their salaries. 2. the total amount of money paid in wages. 3. the department that determines the amounts of wage or salary due to each employee. Familiarity information: PAYROLL used as a noun is uncommon. <P> Gross payroll is the total amount of money designated for a particular employee or for all employees in the business, depending on how the term is being used. Elements. Gross payroll is made out of several elements. The major component is the main form of compensation, given in either a wage or a salary. But many employees also receive money from bonuses, overtime, pay for time off and time sick and payment allowances for tools and services they need to buy. <P> A payroll is a company's list of its employees, but the term is commonly used to refer to: 1 the total amount of money that a company pays to its employees. 2 a company's records of its employees' salaries and wages, bonuses, and withheld taxes. 1 the total amount of money that a company pays to its employees. 2 a company's records of its employees' salaries and wages, bonuses, and withheld taxes. 3 the company's department that calculates and pays these.
The total amount of money that a company pays to its employees.
how much does a surgeon make an hour
<P> On average, general surgeons can earn anywhere between $69,000 and $348,000 a year. The average salary for an orthopedic surgeon is between $122,000 and $549,000 per year. 1 million for 6 months It depends on the number of customers (patients) and how much profit they average per customer. <P> more than $50 an hour....depending on the type of surgeon. a surgeon makes $189,000 a year on average. that averages out to $517 a day or $21.58 an hour of he works 24/7 365 days a year. or if he/she works only week days they would make $724 a day or$31.21 an hour. <P> General surgeon salary and wage in USA. Based on percentiles, the median yearly salary for 90th percentile of surgeons has been around $419,139. Similarly, about 75th percentile of surgeons received $367,032, 25th percentile of them received $271,246 while 10th percentile received $236,145 per year. <P> Average Pay. According to the ongoing Allied Physicians Salary Survey, plastic surgeons earn anywhere from $237,000 (entry-level) to $820,000 (top earners) per year. Additionally, Salary.com lists a median salary of $321,017 as of 2010 for reconstructive plastic surgeons. <P> The median hourly wage for a general surgeon ranges from between $56.44 – $111.32 per hour. Some of the best paying states for general surgeons are New York $300,000, Houston $264,000, Miami $255,000, Los Angeles $287,000 and Seattle $280,000. general surgeon salary. <P> Average orthopedic surgeon salary. The median expected salary for an orthopedic surgeon in the United States is about $412,453 per annum while an average hourly wage based on the size of work setting and medical experience ranges from $26,00 to $204,50 per hour. <P> General surgeon salary in UK. The average and median salaries for general surgeons in the UK is about £65,000 per year. A general surgeon’s salary varies based on one’s age such as the one in 20s earns up to £48,750, one in 30s earns about £63,700, in 40s and in 50s earns about £75,400. <P> According to percentiles, the median salary for 90th percentile of orthopedic surgeons has been around $686,289 per year. Similarly, about 75th percentile of orthopedic surgeons received about $555,789, 25th percentile of them received $324,032 while 10th percentile received $243,530 per year.
$56.44 – $111.32 per hour.
what is a rash
<P> A rash is a noticeable change in the texture or color of the skin. The skin may become itchy, bumpy, chapped, scaly, or otherwise irritated. Rashes are caused by a wide range of conditions, including allergies, medication, cosmetics, and various diseases. Other types of rashes include: 1 eczema: a common rash for people with asthma or allergies. 2 The rash is often reddish and itchy, with a scaly texture. 3 bug bites: tick bites are of particular concern, as they can transmit disease. 4 psoriasis: a scaly, itchy, red rash that forms along the scalp and joint <P> A rash means some change has affected the skin. Rashes are generally caused by skin irritation, which can have many causes. A rash is generally a minor problem that may go away with home treatment. In some cases a rash does not go away or the skin may become so irritated that medical care is needed. In adults and older children, rashes are often caused by contact with a substance that irritates the skin (contact dermatitis). <P> Rash facts. 1 Rash is not a specific diagnosis. 2 Common rashes include eczema, poison ivy, hives, and heat rash. 3 Infections that cause rashes may be fungal, bacterial, parasitic, or viral. 4 Over-the-counter products may be helpful treatments for many skin rashes. 5 Rashes lasting more than a few days that are unexplained should be evaluated by a doctor. Rash facts. 1 Rash is not a specific diagnosis. 2 Instead it means skin inflammation and discoloration that changes the way the skin looks. 3 Common rashes include eczema, poison ivy, hives, and heat rash. 4 Infections that cause rashes may be fungal, bacterial, parasitic, or viral <P> Rash. A person with a generalized rash has a rash that covers most of the body, or has a rash in several locations on the body. A person with a localized rash has a rash that is present in only one location on the body. Common causes of generalized rash include viral infections and allergic reactions. Common causes of localized rash include skin sensitivity and bacterial infections. <P> Heat rash (prickly heat) is a red or pink rash usually found on body areas covered by clothing. It can develop when the sweat ducts become blocked and swell and often leads to discomfort and itching. Heat rash is most common in babies, but it may affect adults in hot, humid climates. Heat rash looks like dots or tiny pimples. In young children, heat rash can appear on the head, neck, and shoulders. The rash areas can get irritated by clothing or scratching, and, in rare cases, a secondary skin infection may develop. <P> The word rash means a change in the color and texture of skin that usually causes an outbreak of red patches or bumps on the skin. In common usage of the term, a rash can refer to many different skin conditions. A rash can be caused, directly or indirectly, by a bacterial, viral, or fungal infection. Doctors use specific terms to describe rashes. A macular rash refers to flat, small red patches on the skin, while a papular rash refers to small raised red bumps. If both rash symptoms and signs are present, a rash is called maculopapular. <P> A rash is an inflammatory reaction of the skin. Rashes can be caused by a wide variety of mild to serious diseases, disorders and conditions. Rashes can affect a small area of the skin or the full body and occur in all age groups and populations. Rashes vary greatly in appearance, extent and severity, depending on the underlying cause. Rashes can be red, white, purple or silver in color, and raised, bumpy or flat in texture. <P> A rash may be localized in one part of the body, or affect all the skin. Rashes may cause the skin to change color, itch, become warm, bumpy, chapped, dry, cracked or blistered, swell, and may be painful. The causes, and therefore treatments for rashes, vary widely. For example, the rash in measles is an erythematous, morbilliform, maculopapular rash that begins a few days after the fever starts. It classically starts at the head, and spreads downwards.
A rash is an inflammatory reaction of the skin
what is a major landform in east africa
<P> The most daunting landform in both East Africa and the entirety of Africa is Mt. Kilimanjaro. Kilimanjaro is actually comprised of three volcanic peaks, the highest of which exceeds 19,000 ft. <P> Mount Kilimanjaro is the highest peak in Africa at 19,340 feet. Other major peaks in East Africa include Mount Kenya (17,058 feet) and Rwenzori Range (6,761 feet). The Ethiopian Highlands is a region of plateaus and mountains that cover parts of Ethiopia, Eritrea, and Somalia. <P> It is sometimes called the Roof of Africa for its height and large area. Great Rift Valley: A dramatic depression on the earth's surface, approximately 4,000 miles (6,400 km) in length, extends from the Red Sea area near Jordan in the Middle East, south to the African country of Mozambique. <P> The Great Rift Valley also helped to create other major landforms such as Lake Victoria, Lake Tangynika, and Victoria Falls which is a part of the Zambezi River. Another interesting feature of East Africa is the elevation. In the Ethiopian Highlands, elevations can reach 13,000 feet. <P> Dividing these highlands is the Great Rift Valley. In East Africa, where it forms two arms (eastern and western), the Great Rift Valley has a series of lakes on its floor and all around it. <P> Lakes and Rivers. Located in and around the Great Rift Valley are several major lakes. Lake Victoria is the largest in surface area, the second-largest lake on Earth and the source of the Nile River. Lake Tanganyika is notable for its depth. At 4,823 feet is the second-deepest lake on Earth. <P> Landforms. The Great Rift Valley is like a jagged scar on the face of Africa. It extends from South Africa, along the eastern region, and up to the Arabian Peninsula. The Great Rift Valley is a long line of escarpments that have been created by two tectonic plates drifting apart. <P> The Great Rift Valley is like a jagged scar on the face of Africa. It extends from South Africa, along the eastern region, and up to the Arabian Peninsula. The Great Rift Valley is a long line of escarpments that have been created by two tectonic plates drifting apart. <P> The Great Rift Valley is a series of rifts and valleys running from north to south across the whole of East Africa. The African continent is gradually splitting in two along these fault lines.
Great Rift Valley
normal range thyroid levels
<P> Clinical chemists and doctors decided decades ago that healthy people with normal functioning thyroid glands have TSH levels within a range of 0.450 to 4.500 mIU/L (and some labs go as high as 5.000mIU/L). In clinical shorthand, the diagnostic range is rounded out to 0.4-4.0. <P> Normal ranges of a T3 level needs to be 3-8. The normal levels for the T4 need to be 4-11. When levels are beyond 8 to 11, this is considered an overactive thyroid, also known as hyperthyroidism. Hyperthyroidism simply means the body is creating too much of these hormones. <P> Speaking roughly, normal levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) are in the range of 0.4 to 4.0 mIU/L. However, each laboratory and test manufacturer identifies its own normal TSH range. This is based on the test, the equipment being used, and the patients being tested. <P> If you go by TSH normal ranges your score is normal, however TSH alone does not give a full picture of thyroid health. Insist on testing for Free T4, Free T3, Reverse T3, thyroid antibodies, ferritin and D3 as the first step. One test is just not enough to get a full picture. <P> Results. A thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) blood test is used to check for thyroid gland problems. The normal values listed here-called a reference range-are just a guide. These ranges vary from lab to lab, and your lab may have a different range for what's normal. <P> The range for normal values is 100 to 200 nanograms per deciliter, according to Medline Plus. Greater-than-normal values may be due to hyperthyroidism, thyroid cancer or high levels of a protein that carries T3 in the blood. Lower-than-normal values may indicate hypothyroidism, starvation or a long illness.
0.4 to 4.0 mIU/L
how do you cook tilapia in the oven
<P> 1 If desired, you can add other seasonings to the tilapia at this time, as well. 2 Flavors that complement the taste of lemon include onion, garlic, parsley, dill, basil, and oregano. 3 For concentrated powders like garlic powder or onion powder, use no more than 1/4 tsp (1.25 ml). 1 You do not need to add the tomato, but the benefit of cooking tilapia in foil packets is that you cook vegetables with the fish while infusing the fillets with the flavor. 2 You can also layer chopped green onion, chopped sweet onion, or chopped bell peppers over the fish. <P> 5. Broil the tilapia fillets for 4 to 6 minutes, flipping once. Place the pan on the top rack of the oven, no further than 4 inches (10 cm) from the top heating element. At the 2 or 3 minute mark, flip the fillets and continue broiling. 1 Use a fish spatula or other flat, heat-resistant spatula to turn the fish. 1 You do not need to add the tomato, but the benefit of cooking tilapia in foil packets is that you cook vegetables with the fish while infusing the fillets with the flavor. 2 You can also layer chopped green onion, chopped sweet onion, or chopped bell peppers over the fish. <P> 1 Place the tilapia fillets in the bottom of the baking dish and dot with butter. 2 Season with Old Bay seasoning and garlic salt. 3 Top each one with a slice or two of lemon. 4 Arrange the frozen mixed vegetables around the fish, and season lightly with salt and pepper. 1 Preheat the oven to 375 degrees F (190 degrees F). 2 Grease a 9x13 inch baking dish. 3 Place the tilapia fillets in the bottom of the baking dish and dot with butter. 4 <P> Place the baking dish on the center rack in the oven and cook the fish for 15 to 18 minutes. When the fish is cooked, it should flake apart easily when prodded with the tines of a fork. Step 7. Remove the baking dish from the oven and allow the fish to rest for about five minutes before plating and serving it. <P> Preheat oven to 375 degrees F. Coat a large cast iron pan with a nonstick butter spray. Rinse fish and pat dry; place on the cast iron pan. Season each fillet with salt, cracked pepper, lime zest and lime juice. Add fish to the pan. Place a pat of butter on each fillet and cook in the oven for 8 to 12 minutes. <P> 1 Grease a 9x13 inch baking dish. 2 Place the tilapia fillets in the bottom of the baking dish and dot with butter. 3 Season with Old Bay seasoning and garlic salt. 4 Top each one with a slice or two of lemon. 5 Arrange the frozen mixed vegetables around the fish, and season lightly with salt and pepper. 1 Preheat the oven to 375 degrees F (190 degrees F). 2 Grease a 9x13 inch baking dish. 3 Place the tilapia fillets in the bottom of the baking dish and dot with butter. 4 <P> Step 5. Set your oven to 325 degrees F, preheat and then bake the tilapia fillets, uncovered, for about 10 minutes. When your fish is ready, it will flake easily with a fork. TIPS: For additional flavor, slice a fresh lemon into wedges and serve with your baked tilapia. Mix together 1 tsp. dill weed, ¾ tsp. paprika and ¼ tsp. black pepper in a small bowl. Depending on your seasoning preference, this amount can season up to 1 lb. of tilapia fillets. Sprinkle the amount you prefer over each fillet and spray lightly with vegetable oil spray. <P> Mix together the lemon juice, butter, and black pepper. Combine the ingredients in a small dish. 1 You can also add other seasonings, like chopped herbs or onion powder, if desired. 2 Use no more than 1/4 tsp (1.25 ml) concentrated powders, 1 tsp (5 ml) dried herbs, or 1 Tbsp (15 ml) fresh herbs. 1 You do not need to add the tomato, but the benefit of cooking tilapia in foil packets is that you cook vegetables with the fish while infusing the fillets with the flavor. 2 You can also layer chopped green onion, chopped sweet onion, or chopped bell peppers over the fish. <P> 1 Place fillets in baking dish. 2 Pour lemon juice over fillets, then drizzle butter on top. 3 Sprinkle with garlic, parsley, and pepper. 4 Bake in preheated oven until the fish is white and flakes when pulled apart with a fork, about 30 minutes. 1 Pour lemon juice over fillets, then drizzle butter on top. 2 Sprinkle with garlic, parsley, and pepper. 3 Bake in preheated oven until the fish is white and flakes when pulled apart with a fork, about 30 minutes.
Preheat oven to 375 degrees F. Coat a large cast iron pan with a nonstick butter spray. Rinse fish and pat dry; place on the cast iron pan. Season each fillet with salt, cracked pepper, lime zest and lime juice. Add fish to the pan.Place a pat of butter on each fillet and cook in the oven for 8 to 12 minutes.
what ethnicity is john schnabel
<P> The Young Master. Parker Schnabel is a miner and member of the Schnabel family. Parker's net-worth is about 10,000,000.00 $US. Parker is the spitting image of someone who is strikingly similar in appearance to his grandfather when his grandpa was a teen. In season 2. He has worked at the Big Nugget Mine for many years, under the direction and order of his grandfather, John Schnabel. During the Hoffman's second season, Parker was given the mine when John decided to step down. <P> Big Nugget Mine Edit. 91 year old John had been the boss of the mine, when in 2011 (season 2), he gave it to his 17 year old grandson Parker Schnabel. John was around to help his grandson with the mine. In season 4, John resumed running the mine. John found over 50 ounces of gold and very large nuggets in one day on McKilrevie Bench. Early life Edit. John was born in 1920. He lived in Kansas, the son of a wheat farmer. When he became a teen, the country was mired in the Great Depression, and the family had lost the farm. He was raised in southern Oregon. At the age of 17, John chopped off his big toe while he was logging. <P> John Richard Schneider was born April 8, 1960, in Mt. Kisco, New York, to Shirley and John Schneider III, a pilot and U.S. Air Force veteran. His parents divorced when he was two. John began acting at the age of eight. He was in many plays in New York. He and his mother moved to Atlanta, Georgia, when he was fourteen. <P> A force to be reckoned with, this year Tony has an audacious plan to resurrect a 75-year-old gold-mining dredge and drag it clanking and screeching into the 21st century. Tony has spent one million dollars buying the dredge and believes it has the potential to mine up to $1.5m in gold in just one season. <P> HOMETOWN: Haines, AK. Gold fever is in Parker's blood. Ever since he can remember, Parker's beloved Grandpa Schnabel has been running the family gold mine, Big Nugget. Since Parker's feet could reach the pedals, he's been operating heavy machinery and learning the trade. <P> By season Edit. In season 2. He has worked at the Big Nugget Mine for many years, under the direction and order of his grandfather, John Schnabel. During the Hoffman's second season, Parker was given the mine when John decided to step down. <P> Schnabel is a German surname meaning beak . Notable people with the surname include: 1 Artur Schnabel (1882–1951), Polish-Austrian classical pianist and composer, husband of Therese Schnabel. 2 Charles Schnabel (1895–1974), American agricultural chemist. 3 Enrico Schnabel (born 1974), German rower. 1 Artur Schnabel (1882–1951), Polish-Austrian classical pianist and composer, husband of Therese Schnabel. 2 Charles Schnabel (1895–1974), American agricultural chemist. <P> $5 Million. Tony Beets net worth and salary: Tony Beets is an Dutch-Canadian miner and reality telvison personality who has a net worth of $5 million dollars. Born in Wijdenes, Netherlands, Tony Beets worked for his family for many years, and then relocated to Canada to seek better career opportunities.
John found over 50 ounces of gold and very large nuggets in one day on McKilrevie Bench.
how did the environmental protection agency start
<P> The Environment Agency (EA) is a non-departmental public body, established in 1996 and sponsored by the United Kingdom government 's Department for Environment, Food and Rural Affairs (DEFRA), with responsibilities relating to the protection and enhancement of the environment in England (and until 2013 also Wales). The Environment Agency's remit covers the whole of England, about 13 million hectares of land, 22,000 miles (35,000 km) of river and 3,100 miles (5,000 km) of coastline seawards to the three-mile limit which includes 2 million hectares of coastal waters. <P> In 1990, the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) identified the byproducts of wood preserving processes as hazardous waste and began regulating the industry in 1991. The hazardous waste K-list from the Environmental Protection Agency identifies source-specific wastes. It lists wastes from specific industries including pesticide manufac … turing and petroleum refining. <P> RTImages/Shutterstock. It's one of those facts that sweeps you back into an alien, almost unrecognizable era. On July 9, 1970, Republican President Richard Nixon announced to Congress his plans to create the Environmental Protection Agency and the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration. By the end of that year, both agencies were a reality. <P> The EPA was proposed by President Richard Nixon and began operation on December 2, 1970, after Nixon signed an executive order. The order establishing the EPA was ratified by committee hearings in the House and Senate. The agency is led by its Administrator, who is appointed by the president and approved by Congress. In 1970, President Richard Nixon proposed an executive reorganization that would consolidate many of the federal government's environmental responsibilities under one agency, a new Environmental Protection Agency. That reorganization proposal was reviewed and passed by the House and Senate. <P> The agency has approximately 15,193 full-time employees and engages many more people on a contractual basis. More than half of EPA human resources are engineers, scientists, and environmental protection specialists; other groups include legal, public affairs, financial, and information technologists. In 1970, President Richard Nixon proposed an executive reorganization that would consolidate many of the federal government's environmental responsibilities under one agency, a new Environmental Protection Agency. That reorganization proposal was reviewed and passed by the House and Senate. <P> Nixon recognized that such federal legislation needed the attention of an exclusive agency. By the summer of 1970, he submitted Reorganization Plan Number Three to Congress, which called for a single entity to govern the United States' environmental policy [ EPA ]. The EPA inherited environmental charges that had been arbitrarily assigned to other governmental departments. With the reassignment of environmental programs and the formation of a comprehensive agency to deal with them, the U.S. was well on its way to effective environmental policy. In the next section, we'll learn about some well-known EPA programs. <P> The current administrator is Gina McCarthy. The EPA is not a Cabinet department, but the administrator is normally given cabinet rank. The EPA has its headquarters in Washington, D.C. , regional offices for each of the agency's ten regions, and 27 laboratories. The agency conducts environmental assessment, research, and education. In 1970, President Richard Nixon proposed an executive reorganization that would consolidate many of the federal government's environmental responsibilities under one agency, a new Environmental Protection Agency. That reorganization proposal was reviewed and passed by the House and Senate. <P> The Environment Agency's stated purpose is, to protect or enhance the environment, taken as a whole so as to promote the objective of achieving sustainable development (taken from the Environment Act 1995, section 4). Protection of the environment relates to threats such as flood and pollution. The Environment Agency's remit covers the whole of England, about 13 million hectares of land, 22,000 miles (35,000 km) of river and 3,100 miles (5,000 km) of coastline seawards to the three-mile limit which includes 2 million hectares of coastal waters. <P> About ENERGY STAR. ENERGY STAR is a U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) voluntary program that helps businesses and individuals save money and protect our climate through superior energy efficiency. The ENERGY STAR program was established by EPA in 1992, under the authority of the Clean Air Act Section 103(g).
December 2, 1970
what exactly is haggis>
<P> Ingredients. Haggis is a traditional Scottish sausage made from a sheep’s stomach stuffed with diced sheep’s liver, lungs and heart, oatmeal, onion, suet and seasoning. Most haggis is part-cooked before being sold and needs to be simmered in boiling water for one to two hours. You can also buy vegetarian haggis based on beans. <P> A Haggis is a very old Scottish dish, which combines meats, spices and oatmeal to create a very rich, unusual, but none the less delicious feast. The factual and historic description of Haggis is sometimes off-putting to people who have not tried it. <P> Throw it in a Ziploc bag for goodness sake. Haggis is often served with neeps and tatties which would be rutabagas and potatoes to you and me. Interestingly enough it is also often served with a dram or rather Scottish whiskey. <P> They may not even know what, exactly, it is. Haggis is a type of sausage, popular in several parts of the U.K., but mostly Scotland. Haggis traditionally contains sheep’s pluck (lungs, liver and heart), onions, oatmeal, spices and mutton fat, boiled in a sheep’s stomach. That’s the real thing, which you may not have in the States because the sale of lung was banned in this country in 1971. <P> Haggis recipes. Haggis is a traditional Scottish sausage made from a sheep’s stomach stuffed with diced sheep’s liver, lungs and heart, oatmeal, onion, suet and seasoning. Most haggis is part-cooked before being sold and needs to be simmered in boiling water for one to two hours. You can also buy vegetarian haggis based on beans.
A traditional Scottish sausage made from a sheep’s stomach stuffed with diced sheep’s liver, lungs and heart, oatmeal, onion, suet and seasoning.
how long does fluconazole stay in your system
<P> Get help from a doctor now ›. Fluconazole: Peak plasma concentrations in fasted normal volunteers occur between 1 and 2 hours with a terminal plasma elimination half-life of approximately 30 hours (range: 20 to 50 hours) after oral administration. If you wait 5 half-lives it will all be gone. ...Read more. <P> It will stay in your body for over a week. If you have taken only one dosage, then diflucan will stay in your system for about 30 hours to three to four days. It is difficult to state the exact time period, but that is how long it might take infection to clear up with a single dose if the infection is mild. <P> Fluconazole is a very expensive drug. Taking fluconazole for a long period of time can lead to yeast infections (such as thrush, vaginitis, or severe candida infection of the throat, see Fact Sheet 501) that are resistant to fluconazole. These resistant infections can only be... <P> I would always take Diflucan. It is a pill that your doctor gives you and you take it once and it lasts up to seven days in your system. That has worked the best for me. Also they told me to eat yogurt when taking other antibiotics. I would always get a bladder infection that would turn into a yeast infection. <P> Fluconazole: Peak plasma concentrations in fasted normal volunteers occur between 1 and 2 hours with a terminal plasma elimination half-life of approximately 30 hours (range: 20 to 50 hours) after oral administration. If you wait 5 half-lives it will all be gone. ...Read more.
Approximately 30 hours
what is the origin of the name yemen
<P> Nicknames for Yemen: | Edit. Share what you know! Meanings and history of the name Yemen: | Edit. The name Yemen is not of certain origin but probably derives from the Arabic word meaning south, signifying its location on the Arabian Peninsula. <P> Between the 12th century BC and the 6th century AD, it was dominated by six successive civilizations which rivaled each other, or were allied with each other and controlled the lucrative spice trade: Ma'in, Qataban, Hadhramaut, Awsan, Saba and Himyar. Islam arrived in AD 630, and Yemen became part of the Muslim realm. The Sulayhid dynasty was founded in the northern highlands around 1040. At the time, Yemen was ruled by different local dynasties. In 1060, Ali ibn Mohammed Al-Sulayhi conquered Zabid and killed its ruler Al-Najah, founder of the Najahid dynasty, whose sons were forced to flee to Dahlak. <P> Yemen (/ˈjɛmən/ ; Arabic: اليَمَن ‎ al-Yaman), officially known as the Republic of Yemen (الجمهورية اليمنية al-Jumhūrīyah al-Yamanīyah), is an Arab country in Southwest Asia, occupying the southwestern to southern end of the Arabian Peninsula. It is bordered by Saudi Arabia to the north, the Red Sea to the west, the Gulf of Aden and Arabian Sea to the south, and Oman to the east. Although Yemen's constitutionally stated capital is the city of Sana'a, the city has been under rebel control since February 2015. <P> country S Arabia bordering on Red Sea & Gulf of Aden; a republic formed 1990 by merger of Yemen Arab Republic (∗ Sanaa) with People's Democratic Republic of Yemen or Southern Yemen (∗ Aden) ∗ Sanaa area 203,849 square miles (527,969 square kilometers), pop 19,700,000. <P> From 1958 to 1961, North Yemen was federated with Egypt and Syria in the United Arab States. Imam Ahmad’s son Badr assumed power after Ahmad’s death but was deposed one week later by army officers, led by Colonel Abdallah al Sallal, who took control of Sanaa and created the YAR. Former North Yemen: By the sixteenth century and again in the nineteenth century, northern Yemen was controlled in the cities by the Ottoman Empire and in tribal areas by the Zaydi imam’s suzerainty. <P> Yemen is a developing country. Under the rule of President Ali Abdullah Saleh, Yemen was described as a kleptocracy. According to the 2009 international corruption Perception Index by Transparency International, Yemen ranked 164 out of 182 countries surveyed. It is bordered by Saudi Arabia to the north, the Red Sea to the west, the Gulf of Aden and Arabian Sea to the south, and Oman to the east. Although Yemen's constitutionally stated capital is the city of Sana'a, the city has been under rebel control since February 2015. <P> Medieval History. Yemen, no matter how it is defined or what its current political structure, has always controlled the southwestern tip of the Arabian Peninsula—the Babel Mandeb, choke point to and from the Red Sea. Former North Yemen: By the sixteenth century and again in the nineteenth century, northern Yemen was controlled in the cities by the Ottoman Empire and in tribal areas by the Zaydi imam’s suzerainty. <P> Southern Arabia, especially Yemen is often referred to as Arabia Felix, or the Happy Arabia. This name is a Latin translation from Periplus of the Erythraean Sea, a 1st century AD book by an anonymous Greek writer, who coined the original phrase “Eudaemon Arabia” when describing the port of Aden. There are different theories about the source of Yemen's Arabic name, Al Yaman. The early Muslims living around Mecca divided their lands into those lying northward, or shaman, and those lying to the south, or yamanan. <P> One etymology derives Yemen from yamin, meaning on the right side, as the south is on the right when facing the sunrise. Another derives Yemen from yumn, meaning felicity, as much of the country is fertile. The Romans called it Arabia Felix (Happy Arabia) as opposed to Arabia Deserta (Deserted Arabia). It is bordered by Saudi Arabia to the north, the Red Sea to the west, the Gulf of Aden and Arabian Sea to the south, and Oman to the east. Although Yemen's constitutionally stated capital is the city of Sana'a, the city has been under rebel control since February 2015. <P> On 30 November 1967, the state of South Yemen was formed, comprising Aden and the former Protectorate of South Arabia. This socialist state was later officially known as the People's Democratic Republic of Yemen and a programme of nationalisation was begun. The Sulayhid dynasty was founded in the northern highlands around 1040. At the time, Yemen was ruled by different local dynasties. In 1060, Ali ibn Mohammed Al-Sulayhi conquered Zabid and killed its ruler Al-Najah, founder of the Najahid dynasty, whose sons were forced to flee to Dahlak.
One etymology derives Yemen from yamin, meaning on the right side, as the south is on the right when facing the sunrise. Another derives Yemen from yumn, meaning felicity, as much of the country is fertile.
how much to renovate a small kitchen
<P> Just keep in mind that this type of renovation doesn't come cheap. Even a minor kitchen remodel averages $19,588, according to Remodeling magazine's annual Cost vs. Value report, though homeowners can expect to recoup 72% of the cost at resale. <P> Costs, materials and best practices for the example Small Kitchen Remodeling project will help you answer these questions. Use this information to develop a budget, bid requirements, hiring contracts and a project plan. Actual returns vary widely and are affected by the range of home prices in your neighborhood, the overall condition of your home and sensible design choices. A good quality Small Kitchen Remodeling project in the right neighborhoods can return 61% - 72% of its initial cost. <P> The cost of remodeling a kitchen can vary widely depending on the size and scope of your project, with the national average coming in around $17,000 and most homeowners spending between $12,000 and $19,000. This guide can help estimate your costs and give you a starting point for various upgrades and services. The average cost of having new countertops installed is $3,401, but it is important to realize how much this can vary from project to project. The price will be dependent on the size of your kitchen, the simplicity of the layout and the materials used. <P> 1 These are averages; actual costs may be higher or lower. 2 In contrast, DoItYourself.com estimates that the cost of a typical kitchen remodel can start around $5,000 with some do-it-yourself work included, and averages $15,000-$26,000. 1 The cost of remodeling a kitchen depends on the current layout, size and condition of the room, as well as the quality of replacement products chosen. <P> 1. Decide how much you want to spend, and stick to it. Setting a budget for your kitchen remodel and staying within it sounds so obvious and simple, but it's harder than you think. The average cost of an upscale kitchen remodel is more than $80,000, but three factors should determine whether you want to spend that much. The first is how much you can afford to spend. Take a look at your finances to determine this number. The second is how long you plan to stay in your house. If you are planning on selling the home within five years, then your kitchen renovation should be viewed as an improvement on a real estate investment. <P> How much did your kitchen renovation cost, and where did you spend it? According to Today, the average cost for a kitchen remodel is $15,000 to $20,000 — without the appliances. Costs can be driven by location, size of the kitchen, and the quality of appliances. You can opt for less expensive IKEA cabinets, or have them built by hand to be completely custom to your kitchen. You can also do demolition and much of the installation yourself, or contract everything out. So, we're curiou <P> 1 In contrast, DoItYourself.com estimates that the cost of a typical kitchen remodel can start around $5,000 with some do-it-yourself work included, and averages $15,000-$26,000. 1 The cost of remodeling a kitchen depends on the current layout, size and condition of the room, as well as the quality of replacement products chosen. <P> When you're working with a $15,000 to $30,000 kitchen remodel budget, you can leave more work to the professionals instead of doing much of it yourself. This might include refinishing or refacing your countertops, painting the walls and ceilings, installing new lighting and rewiring some electrical work. For example, cabinets take up almost 30 percent of the kitchen remodel budget, but you can save by investing in stock kitchen cabinets rather than custom cabinets. Also, you can do some of the installation and replacement yourself. You can also break up the projects over time so you can save for one project at a time.
61% - 72% of its initial cost.
how long does it take for meat to digest in the stomach
<P> Digestion time varies between individuals and between men and women. After you eat, it takes about six to eight hours for food to pass through your stomach and small intestine. Food then enters your large intestine (colon) for further digestion, absorption of water and, finally, elimination of undigested food. <P> It usually takes from 24 to 72 hours for healthy people to completely digest food and eliminate waste products. The first stop for food is the esophagus, which moves food from the back of the throat to the stomach. About six to eight hours after eating, food passes through the stomach and small intestine. <P> Report an error. Digestion time varies depending on the individual. For most healthy adults, it's usually between 24 and 72 hours. After you eat, it takes about six to eight hours for food to pass through your stomach and small intestine. Food then enters your large intestine (colon) for further digestion and absorption of water. Elimination of undigested food residue through the large intestine usually begins after a total of 24 hours. <P> To further elaborate the hours of digestion from small intestine where the real digestion happens, the size of small intestine is normally ranging from 18-21 feet long and may take 3-6 hours for the chemical elements from food pass all the way though the blood stream to absorb the nutrients. <P> However, the normal range of digestion will take 24 to 72 hours. Now, let us have insight on how it takes to digest from the moment we ingest food up to the last process of digestion. <P> Meat may stay in the intestines for 24-72 hours and still depend on its type. Likewise, red meat in particular takes 1-3 days to complete the digestion process because of fat content and high protein, according to Lisa Cicciarello Andrews of University of Cincinnati. <P> Your body can digest most food in less time it takes hotshot celebrities to get engaged: about 4-12 hours. Fruits are the fastest travelers on the intestinal interstate, with meats driving like an oversized load in the right lane (they can take 2-3 days to be excreted or even longer as it rots inside your intestine).
1-3 days
average cost for anytime fitness
<P> Anytime Fitness Prices. Anytime Fitness is a health fitness center, with 1,935 clubs in the United States and 474 more around the world. With more than a million members, Fitness operates in several countries including Canada, Japan, Australia, the UK, Qatar, New Zealand, Spain and many other countries. <P> We fit your busy schedule and on-the-go lifestyle. With your membership, you can work out when it’s best for you—day or night! Our clubs are open 24 hours a day, 7 days a week, 365 days a year. At Anytime Fitness you hold the key, literally. Access to our clubs is protected by our state-of-the-art security system and will only be granted with the proper key. Once inside, you have full use of cutting-edge strength training and cardio equipment. <P> Anytime Fitness Membership Fees and Benefits. Anytime Fitness prices will depend on the kind of membership you apply for and where, although the cost is usually $30 to $36 with a $50 activation fee. However, in other clubs the membership fee is $44 for a single monthly membership and $39 for a 12 month membership. <P> 1 Monthly fees average $35 to $40 for a single membership, but can be as low as $20 depending on age, location and whether customers are willing to sign an extended contract. 2 Many health clubs also charge an average enrollment fee of $40, but some can charge more than $100.
Anytime Fitness prices will depend on the kind of membership you apply for and where, although the cost is usually $30 to $36 with a $50 activation fee.
how long is a football pitch in metres
<P> What is the length and width of a football pitch? 77 metres long 66 wide is acceptable, but this can vary widely, as FIFA rules indicate a variance between 100-130 yards long, and 50-100 yards wide. <P> An American football field is 109.728 meters long (120 yards) by 48.768 meters wide (53 1/3 yards). <P> A maximum size football pitch is 120 x 90 metres. This is an area of 10 800 square metres; one hectare is 10 000 square metres. So a full size pitch could be 1.08 ha. <P> The dimensions are specified in Law 1 of the official FIFA Laws of the Game. According to FIFA rules, the standard length of a football pitch should be between 90-120 meters (100-131 yards) while its width is from 45-90 meters (49-100 yards). Football fields used in international matches have similar measurement to the league pitches. <P> Soccer is played on a rectangular field, traditionally called a pitch, which must be between 100 and 130 yards long and 50 to 100 yards wide.. 91–119 m. Soccer.. The World Book Encyclopedia. <P> Depending on the age and skill level of the players, the field can range from 100 to 130 yards (91 to 119 meters) in length and 50 to 100 yards (46 to 91 meters) in width. At either end, there is a goal, a goal area enclosed in the larger penalty area. <P> Best Answer: The largest size of a full football pitch is 90m wide by 120m long. <P> Find out the size details of a football pitch. Did you know that not all pitches are the same size? The length of a pitch must be between 100 yards (90m) and 130 yards (120m) and the width not less than 50 yards (45m) and not more than 100 yards (90m).
Between 90-120 meters.
where did shinola get its name
<P> Shinola watches range in price from $475 to $995. It also makes luxury bicycles, $1,950 to $2,950, and leather journals. The brand’s other products include “Shinola Cola” and, as a throwback, actual shoe polish. FORTUNE — Judith Walker used to have to drive more than an hour to get to her job at the General Motors plant in Lake Orion, Mich. Now, she commutes about five minutes to get to her job in Detroit. But she’s not making cars, she’s assembling the near-microscopic components of $700 watches. <P> The Shinola bikes are assembled in a workshop in the company's newly opened flagship Detroit retail store, which sells the bikes and the watches. Shinola has also just opened a retail location in the New York City neighborhood of Tribeca. The road to this Motor City start-up began with a simple idea: We wanted to manufacture in the United States, recalled Heath Carr, chief executive of Shinola, the maker of Detroit-built watches and bicycles. (Yep, the company derived its name from the World War II phrase, You don't know s--- from Shinola.). The new Shinola, which bought the rights to the name but doesn't have anything to do with the old shoe polish company, has been in business for about 2½ years. It currently has more than 100 employees—75 of whom are in Detroit, where the company's precision watches and bicycles are assembled <P> A colloquialism which dates back to the early 1940s in the United States, sometimes ended with that's why your shoes don't shine. [1] Shinola was a popular brand of shoe polish, which had a color and texture not unlike feces. <P> An ambitious new manufacturing company is repurposing the Shinola brand (as in you don’t know s**t from … ) to tell a unique story of American craftsmanship. Having your brand name become part of the common lexicon is a marketing coup of the highest order. In the case of Shinola’s new watches, part of that story is construction in a fifth-floor factory above a Detroit design college. <P> The company markets the Shinola out of Detroit, printing the city name on every product, even shoe polish made in Chicago (although it continues to move more production to Michigan). DETROIT — You may not know you-know-what from Shinola, but no worries. Shinola does. No, not the World War II-era shoe polish that gave rise to that unprintable colloquialism. <P> The goal is 500,000. Nearly a century ago, the name Shinola (pronounced SHY-nola) referred to a brand of shoe polish, immortalized in the old-timey saying, “You don’t know shit from Shinola.” Defunct for years, the watchmakers bought the slightly irreverent brand name and are hoping to shine up its reputation. FORTUNE — Judith Walker used to have to drive more than an hour to get to her job at the General Motors plant in Lake Orion, Mich. Now, she commutes about five minutes to get to her job in Detroit. But she’s not making cars, she’s assembling the near-microscopic components of $700 watches. <P> The original Shinola shoe polish brand was founded in Rochester New York in 1907, and went out of business in 1960. In 2001, the name Shinola was acquired by Bedrock Manufacturing, a venture capital firm based in Dallas, Texas (later rechristened as Bedrock Brands). Kartsotis wanted to create an American watch-manufacturing brand to rival Swiss-makers at a lower price point. <P> Shinola is an American luxury lifestyle brand which specializes in watches, bicycles, and leather goods among items. Founded in 2011, its name is a nod to the former Shinola shoe polish company that was manufactured in the early-and mid-20th century. In 2001, the name Shinola was acquired by Bedrock Manufacturing, a venture capital firm based in Dallas, Texas (later rechristened as Bedrock Brands). Kartsotis wanted to create an American watch-manufacturing brand to rival Swiss-makers at a lower price point. <P> Before Washington, D.C., became America’s capital in 1800, the Congress met in a number of different locations, including Baltimore, Trenton and New York City.
From the former Shinola shoe polish company that was manufactured in the early-and mid-20th century.
what are packaging clamshells
<P> Our equipment is designed for large parts, and has the capacity to produce large orders very cost effectively. Call Pat at 800-914-8994 for more information about our free design services and the custom thermoformed plastic clamshell packaging manufactured by Great River Plastics, LLC. We do NOT offer stock products. Clamshell Packaging. Clamshell packaging manufactured by Great River Plastics, LLC, is custom thermoformed for specific retail products. Plastic clamshell packages display products for optimum display value, anti-pilferage, and best use of shelf space. <P> clamshell packaging. Follow clamshell packaging to get e-mail alerts and updates on your eBay Feed. Unfollow clamshell packaging to stop getting updates on your eBay Feed. Yay! You're now following clamshell packaging in your eBay Feed. <P> Stock. Stock Clamshell Packaging FormTight Inc. provides multiple stock clamshell packaging sizes and shapes that would give you off-the-shelf, ready to ship packaging options that fit your specific product’s form, fit and function. <P> When it comes to retail packaging, clamshell packaging has the fastest growth rate of clear thermoformed packaging and has become one of the most recognized types of thermoformed package. Material distribution is determined by plugs and process sequence. Process sequence would be vacuum, form air, tool temperature, and the timing of all of those three. Undercuts make the parts difficult to remove from the tool, to de-nest from each other, and to process parts on a heat sealer. <P> Custom Clamshell Packaging Capabilities at Universal Plastics: Our custom manufacturing expertise along with an ISO 9001:2008 certification allows us to design ideal solutions for all of your custom clamshell packaging needs. <P> Stock Plastic Clamshells. The originator of the BlisterBox® line of re-closable hinged clamshell containers, Placon, a family-owned, US-based company has been leading the stock plastic clamshell packaging industry since 1966. <P> Our clamshells and clamshell packaging solutions offer many advantages for showcasing products. We have a wide array of model types to choose from, including various boxes, containers, and trays, many of which come standard with tamper evident and theft deterrent features. They are box-shaped containers with a hinged lid and closures, which can be made re-closable or permanently sealed with theft deterrence. An insert card displays product information and graphics. SouthPack can configure custom clamshell packaging in many ways, enabling the package to hang or stand upright. <P> Custom Thermoformed Packaging. At National Plastics, we do more than just sell clamshell packaging, we sell packaging solutions. Our design team will work with you to create a package that not only functions well, but adds to the aesthetic appeal of your product. <P> Plastic Clamshell Packaging. Custom plastic clamshell packaging from Dordan Manufacturing is the ideal packaging medium for protecting and selling your product at retail.
Is custom thermoformed for specific retail products. Plastic clamshell packages display products for optimum display value, anti-pilferage, and best use of shelf space.
what is maximum solar flare
<P> The sun’s cycle is marked from minimum to minimum, so the solar maximum occurs about halfway through the cycle. Scientists are not certain why the cycles consistently last about 11 years, but they do understand the mechanisms that cause solar activity like solar flares and coronal mass ejections (CMEs). <P> Solar flares occur in active regions. The frequency of flares coincides with the Sun's eleven year cycle. When the solar cycle is at a minimum, active regions are small and rare and few solar flares are detected. These increase in number as the Sun approaches the maximum part of its cycle. The Sun will reach its next maximum in the year 2011, give or take one year. On the other hand, it is less than one-tenth of the total energy emitted by the Sun every second. There are typically three stages to a solar flare. First is the precursor stage, where the release of magnetic energy is triggered. Soft x-ray emission is detected in this stage. <P> Like flares, CMEs are more frequent during the active phase of the Sun's approximately 11 year cycle. The last maximum in solar activity was in the year 2000. The next maximum is expected to occur in 2013. Coronal mass ejections are more likely to have a significant effect on our activities than flares because they carry more material into a larger volume of interplanetary space, increasing the likelihood that they will interact with the Earth. <P> The current prediction for Sunspot Cycle 24 gives a smoothed sunspot number maximum of about 66 in the Summer of 2013. The smoothed sunspot number has already reached 67 (in February 2012) due to the strong peak in late 2011 so the official maximum will be at least this high. The smoothed sunspot number has been flat over the last four months. <P> Solar maximum or solar max is a normal period of greatest solar activity in the 11 year solar cycle of the Sun. During solar maximum, large numbers of sunspots appear and the sun's irradiance output grows by about 0.07%. The smoothed sunspot number has already reached 67 (in February 2012) due to the strong peak in late 2011 so the official maximum will be at least this high. The smoothed sunspot number has been flat over the last four months. <P> A solar flare occurs when magnetic energy that has built up in the solar atmosphere is suddenly released. Radiation is emitted across virtually the entire electromagnetic spectrum, from radio waves at the long wavelength end, through optical emission to x-rays and gamma rays at the short wavelength end. On the other hand, it is less than one-tenth of the total energy emitted by the Sun every second. There are typically three stages to a solar flare. First is the precursor stage, where the release of magnetic energy is triggered. Soft x-ray emission is detected in this stage. <P> The frequency of occurrence of solar flares varies, from several per day when the Sun is particularly active to less than one every week when the Sun is quiet, following the 11-year cycle (the solar cycle). Large flares are less frequent than smaller ones. A solar flare is a sudden flash of brightness observed near the Sun 's surface. <P> [image-36]. The sun goes through a natural solar cycle approximately every 11 years. The cycle is marked by the increase and decrease of sunspots -- visible as dark blemishes on the sun's surface, or photosphere. The greatest number of sunspots in any given solar cycle is designated as solar maximum.. The lowest number is solar minimum.. The solar cycle provides more than just increased sunspots, however. In the sun's atmosphere, or corona, bright active regions appear, which are rooted in the lower sunspots. Scientists track the active regions since they are often the origin of eruptions on the sun such as solar flares or coronal mass ejections. <P> As the magnetic energy is being released, particles, including electrons, protons, and heavy nuclei, are heated and accelerated in the solar atmosphere. The energy released during a flare is typically on the order of 10 ergs per second. Large flares can emit up to 10 ergs of energy. On the other hand, it is less than one-tenth of the total energy emitted by the Sun every second. There are typically three stages to a solar flare. First is the precursor stage, where the release of magnetic energy is triggered. Soft x-ray emission is detected in this stage.
It is a normal period of greatest solar activity in the 11 year solar cycle of the Sun.
what gpa do you need to get your md degree
<P> Let's say you need a 3.0 to get into a degree program. The calculator will automatically put in your current GPA and credits. You simply enter in the desired GPA, 3.0, and press calculate. It tells you how many credits you need and what grade. You can use the Wolverine Track GPA Calculator to determine your semester GPA, cumulative GPA including current semester grades, and what grades you need to reach a certain GPA. Logging into Wolverine Track: To log into Wolverine Track, first log into UVLink. Click on the Student Tab. <P> A Bachelor's Degree Most medical schools require a completed Bachelor's degree, but not all schools do. Some schools only require completion of the pre-requisite courses, as listed previously, and at least 92 completed credits (you are a senior at that point). Having completed a Master's Degree or PhD is advantageous for admissions and may give you an edge by making you stand out from your peers, but is not required by any medical school for admission. These degrees are especially helpful when applying to some of the more prestigious medical schools. <P> Originally Posted by SurfDoctor I've been musing on the idea that the GPA you earn while attaining a doctorate degree is not all that important anymore. I busted my hump earning a high GPA on my masters, but I'm not sure that it is all that relevant once you reach your terminal degree. Of course there is a minimum GPA to be able to stay in a program and I think that's usually a 3.0, what I'm wondering is whether there is any benefit to having a GPA that is higher. Some programs have a minimum GPA in coursework to qualify for comprehensives. Your dissertation is what people will review and question. Originally Posted by SurfDoctor. I've been musing on the idea that the GPA you earn while attaining a doctorate degree is not all that important anymore. <P> For the class admitted in 2014, the average MCAT score was 34 and the average GPA was 3.7. Emory receives over 8000 applications each year for its incoming class of 138 students, so you’ll need to be competitive in order to be invited for an interview. You will also need to complete six semester hours of English (a full year of college-level grammar and composition). If you feel that your coursework in other areas would fulfill this requirement, you will be given an opportunity in the Emory Supplemental Application to explain. <P> The easiest way to calculate your GPA is to use Wolverine Track. You can use the Wolverine Track GPA Calculator to determine your semester GPA, cumulative GPA including current semester grades, and what grades you need to reach a certain GPA. Logging into Wolverine Track: To log into Wolverine Track, first log into UVLink. Click on the Student Tab. <P> If you are concerned and applying with a low GPA, it could be worth your while to consider the following two options: 1. Time off: The average age of entering medical students is now 24, with a considerable number of students applying later. Not only do medical schools appreciate mature applicants who learned from their mistakes, but if you take time off you will have more time to prepare a more competitive application. <P> First, you need to get your GPA up – a year of good grades in upper-level science courses might be enough to get you up to a 3.0. At that point, you can apply to an SMP with strong links to a medical school. This will take you a minimum two years, which might not seem appealing at this point. <P> Best Answer: A college GPA of 3.5+ is highly recommended to get into med school. You might be able to pull it off with lower then that but it would be very hard. In college it really doesn't matter what you major in as long as you're declared pre med. You don't need a certain GPA to become a doctor...but you need a good enough GPA to get into a good college/med school. Major in biology and then eventually take all pre-med courses..
Usually a 3.0
who did odysseus see in the underworld
<P> Odysseus sees a bunch of random souls as soon as he prepares the offering(to get Tiresias to come up in the underworld to visit him and tell him his future) Odysseus sees his … mom, Anticeleia, he sees as well Achilles, Ajax, Agamemnon, and of course Tiresias. + 9 others found this useful. Dina Chester. Jkm Young. <P> V.283-290 Poseidon refrained from drowning the hero, but he threw Odysseus and his crew off course. Waylaid on the island of Circe (the enchantress who initially turned his men into swine), Odysseus spent a luxurious year enjoying the bounty of the goddess. <P> The souls that Odysseus saw in the Underworld On seeing Achilles' soul, said Odysseus: … Achilles, the most fortunate man that ever was or will be … honoured as though you were a god … and now you are a mighty prince among the dead. For you … Death should have lost its sting.. (Odysseus to Achilles. <P> In order to complete his quest home, Odysseus explains that he must enter the underworld (at the advice of Circe) to speak to the wise man Tisereas. Here he meets the spirits of the dead, notably his mother, Agamemnon, Achilles, and Ajax. <P> Confidence votes 36.2K. Odysseus sees a bunch of random souls as soon as he prepares the offering(to get Tiresias to come up in the underworld to visit him and tell him his future) Odysseus sees his mom, Anticeleia, he sees as well Achilles, Ajax, Agamemnon, and of course Tiresias. <P> Odysseus talked to his mother Anticlea, who died of grief when he did not return home after the Trojan War. Odysseus was also surprised to see Elphenor, the youngest member of his crew, in the Underworld. Elphenor was sitting on the roof of Circe's house, when he had fallen asleep and fell to his death.
Elphenor and Achilles.
hyperphagia definition
<P> Example sentences. 1 Preparation for migration and for winter requires a period of hyperphagia and a laying down of fat reserves. 2 Although hyperphagia is well documented during and prior to migration, it is not known whether it persists until birds reach their breeding grounds. 1 Although hyperphagia is well documented during and prior to migration, it is not known whether it persists until birds reach their breeding grounds. 2 Children with Prader-Willi syndrome show extreme hyperphagia and obsessive-compulsive behavior. <P> 1 Preparation for migration and for winter requires a period of hyperphagia and a laying down of fat reserves. 2 Although hyperphagia is well documented during and prior to migration, it is not known whether it persists until birds reach their breeding grounds. 1 Although hyperphagia is well documented during and prior to migration, it is not known whether it persists until birds reach their breeding grounds. 2 Children with Prader-Willi syndrome show extreme hyperphagia and obsessive-compulsive behavior. <P> Definition of HYPERPHAGIA. : abnormally increased appetite for consumption of food frequently associated with injury to the hypothalamus. — hy·per·phag·ic \-ˈfa-jik\ adjective. ADVERTISEMENT. Medical Definition of HYPERPHAGIA. : abnormally increased appetite for food frequently associated with injury to the hypothalamus—compare polyphagia. — hy·per·phag·ic \-ˈfaj-ik\ adjective. <P> Novelty induced hypophagia Edit. Novelty-induced hypophagia: Hypophagia, one of the anxiety symptoms in rodents, is defined as the reduction in feeding in response to novelty, and it can be evoked by various novel features of the environment, including novel food, novel testing environment and novel food containers. Novelty-induced hypophagia (NIH) is a very recently developed test, which measures the latency and consumption of food in a novel unfamiliar environment. The test rather reflects the anxiolytic effects of antidepressants, and the response is seen only after chronic treatment with antidepressants rather than acute. <P> In biology, polyphagia is a type of phagy, referring to an animal that feeds on many kinds of food. Polyphagia or hyperphagia is excessive hunger or increased appetite. It derives from the Greek words πολύς (polys) which means very much or many, and φαγῶ (phago) meaning eating or devouring. Causes of increased appetite include: 1 Anxiety. 2 Depression. 3 Certain drugs. 4 Diabetes mellitus. 5 Hyperthyroidism. 6 Hypoglycemia. <P> bu•lim•i•a. 1. Also called bulim′ia ner•vo′sa (nɜrˈvoʊ sə) a habitual disturbance in eating behavior characterized by bouts of excessive eating followed by self-induced vomiting, purging with laxatives, strenuous exercise, or fasting. 2. Also called hyperphagia. abnormally voracious appetite or unnaturally constant hunger <P> In medicine, polyphagia (sometimes known as hyperphagia) is a medical sign meaning excessive hunger and abnormally large intake of solids by mouth. Causes of increased appetite include: 1 Anxiety. 2 Depression. 3 Certain drugs. 4 Diabetes mellitus. 5 Hyperthyroidism. 6 Hypoglycemia. <P> hyperphagia (hī´pərfā´jēə) , n a disorder marked by an abnormal appetite and excessive ingestion of food, even to the point of gastric pain and vomiting. It is associated with the malfunction of the hypothalamus and is often linked to conditions such as Kleine-Levin syndrome and central nervous disorders.
It is a medical sign meaning excessive hunger and abnormally large intake of solids by mouth.
what is the kaieteur falls known for
<P> Kaieteur Falls is about five times higher than the more well known Niagara Falls, located on the border between Canada and the United States and about two times the height of the Victoria Falls located on the border of Zambia and Zimbabwe in Africa. It is located in Kaieteur National Park. It is 226 meters (741 ft) high when measured from its plunge over a sandstone and conglomerate cliff to the first break. It then flows over a series of steep cascades that, when included in the measurements, bring the total height to 251 meters (822 ft). <P> Kaieteur Falls of the Central Guyana-Image by Barefoot Traveler. 1- Kaieteur Falls is a waterfall on the Potaro River in central Guyana. It is located in the Kaieteur National Park. 3- Kaieteur Falls is about three times higher than the more well known Niagara Falls, located on the border between Canada Falls and the US and about two times the height of the Victoria Falls located on the border of Zambia and Zimbabwe in Africa. Amazing falls of the Kaieteur national park – Image by Tim Snell. <P> Luckily, there is the Kaieteur Falls that stands out among the rest of the falls in the whole wide world. The Kaieteur Falls is located in Guyana, a tropical country on the continent of South America. It is estimated to be as five times high as the Niagara Falls, which is considered the highest falls in the continent of North America. Since Kaieteur Falls is one of the most sought-after tourist spot not only in Guyana but in South America as well, the transportation means to go to the area are made easier for the tourists. The falls are situated in Kaieteur National Park. It can be found in the central part of Guyana’s tropical rainforest. <P> Kaieteur Falls is a major tourist attraction in Guyana. The falls is located in Kaieteur National Park and is in the center of Guyana's rainforest. There are frequent flights between the falls airstrip and Ogle Airport and Cheddi Jagan International Airport in Georgetown. Kaieteur Falls is about four times higher than the Niagara Falls, on the border between Canada and the United States, and about twice the height of the Victoria Falls, on the border of Zambia and Zimbabwe in Africa. It is a single drop waterfall <P> Kaieteur Falls is one of the most powerful waterfalls on the planet. The falls occur where the Potaro River plunges 741 feet off the edge of the Mazaruni-Potaro Shield into a long, broad isolated gorge. When you situate a waterfall of that height on a river of the Potaro's size then it becomes elevated to a classification that very few waterfalls can achieve. Kaieteur Falls is indeed one of the planets most spectacular and most powerful waterfalls, its really a shame that it isn't more easily accessible. <P> Kaieteur Falls is the world's widest single drop waterfall, located on the Potaro River in the Kaieteur National Park, in Essequibo, Guyana. Its location is in the Amazon forest. Kaieteur Falls is about four times higher than the Niagara Falls, on the border between Canada and the United States, and about twice the height of the Victoria Falls, on the border of Zambia and Zimbabwe in Africa. It is a single drop waterfall <P> 5 Kaieteur Falls. flickr/sorenriise. Kaieteur Falls is located on the Potaro River in the centre of Guyana’s rainforest. It is one of the most powerful waterfalls in the world, averaging 663 cubic meters per second (23,400 cubic feet per second). <P> Guyana submitted the Kaieteur National Park, including the Kaieteur Falls, to UNESCO as its first World Heritage Site nomination. The proposed area and surrounds have some of Guyana's most diversified life zones with one of the highest levels of endemic species found in South America. <P> Kaieteur Falls is a high-volume waterfall on the Potaro River in central Guyana, Potaro-Siparuni region. It is located in Kaieteur National Park. It is 226 meters (741 ft) high when measured from its plunge over a sandstone and conglomerate cliff to the first break. It then flows over a series of steep cascades that, when included in the measurements, bring the total height to 251 meters (822 ft).
World's widest single drop waterfall
where can i buy a scale like doctor's have
<P> The same scale every time. Most of us who attend do the same thing. My scale at home is a good LED scale, but it can differ depending on its mood I guess. KEELYME Posts: 1,154 6/26/11 11:58 A. Doctors tend to use the old school scales with the bars that have to be moved, and the calibration can be off. I use an electronic scale at home. <P> Answers. Best Answer: I have a digital scale at my house and I check weight everyday, but in the Dr's office I weigh 8.5 lbs. lighter. I was a nurse for a number of years and can tell you that the one at the Dr's office comes closest to being correct. My son and daughter in law have a digital scale and they are both Doctors but theirs weighs heavier than mine. There are some differences that you should think about before you think that your scale is that far off, one is time of day and the other is clothing along with fecal and water retention <P> Hospitals and clinics from across the USA have commented on the fine selection of medical scales we have. We have balance beam scales for doctor's offices with great features like height rods, hand posts and wheels. We also have digital physician scales that can measure BMI and more. The Detecto 349 Eye Level Physician's Scale. This beam balance has a 400 lb/175 kg capacity with 4 oz/100 g resolution and height rod. Durable construction and sturdy handpost make this scale great for hospitals, nursing homes and health centers. <P> Detecto's industry-leading physician scales are used every day in the medical profession by doctors and nurses around the world. Doctor scales measure factors like weight, height, and Body Mass Index (BMI). Each scale is USA-manufactured and built from sturdy materials that will provide years of accurate weighing. Detecto's EMR scales and physician scales are available in waist-high and eye-level models with digital LCD displays or mechanical weigh beam options for convenient, reliable readings. <P> Determine if you would like to buy a balance beam scale or a bathroom scale. Balance beam scales, also known as physician's scales or doctor's scales, are upright and take up more room than a bathroom scale, although they tend to be more accurate. You can purchase a bathroom scale almost anywhere, but getting a scale that is accurate is key. Some scales provide fancy features like a body mass index calculator. Whether you want a souped-up scale, or a no-frills option, purchasing a scale that is accurate is the most important feature. <P> Health O Meter's mechanical physician scales have been the mainstay of doctors offices and medical establishments throughout the country for decades. Sturdy construction, powder coat finish and a 10 year warranty make it a great value as well. Seca® - 700 Series-Mechanical physicians scale. Precise, robust and convenient: both you and your patients will benefit more from the new seca 700. It sets a new standard worldwide. More precision due to the 0.1 lb graduation and a higher capacity of up to 500 lbs. <P> Best Answer: I have a digital scale at my house and I check weight everyday, but in the Dr's office I weigh 8.5 lbs. I was a nurse for a number of years and can tell you that the one at the Dr's office comes closest to being correct. My son and daughter in law have a digital scale and they are both Doctors but theirs weighs heavier than mine. <P> You can even get your own doctor scale for under two hundred dollars plus shipping like the Detecto 439 or the HealthOMeter 402KL. What's great about these scales is that you do not have to change any battries, do any maintenance and these scales come wilth long a warranty (up to 10 years). <P> The Detecto 339 Eye Level Physician's Scale. This beam balance has a 400 lb / 175 kg capacity with 4 oz / 100 g resolution and height rod for getting weight and height together. This scale also has a durable construction and easy to clean design. The Detecto 349 Eye Level Physician's Scale. This beam balance has a 400 lb/175 kg capacity with 4 oz/100 g resolution and height rod. Durable construction and sturdy handpost make this scale great for hospitals, nursing homes and health centers. <P> The Detecto 337 Eye Level Physician's Scale. This beam balance has a 400 lb / 175 kg capacity with 4 oz / 100 g resolution and easy to read dual beams. Durable construction and easy care make this scale great for hospitals and health centers. The Detecto 349 Eye Level Physician's Scale. This beam balance has a 400 lb/175 kg capacity with 4 oz/100 g resolution and height rod. Durable construction and sturdy handpost make this scale great for hospitals, nursing home
From anywhere
balbiani body definition
<P> Oocyte Polarity and the Embryonic Axes: The Balbiani Body, an Ancient Oocyte Asymmetry. The divisions of the germline stem cell are asymmetric in that they generate a renewing cell and a cell with the capacity to differentiate as an oocyte. Regulators of Balbiani body dynamics in zebrafish oocytes. (A) Formation of the Balbiani body adjacent to the nucleus requires the novel protein Bucky ball, while Magellan/MacF1 (an actin-microtubule crosslinking protein) contributes to dispersal of the (more...). <P> In contrast to bucky ball mutant oocytes, which fail to form Balbiani bodies, primary oocytes of magellan mutants are able to recruit germ plasm mRNAs and mitochondria to establish a Balbiani body that initially resembles the Balbiani body of wild-type oocytes (Gupta et al., 2010). Regulators of Balbiani body dynamics in zebrafish oocytes. (A) Formation of the Balbiani body adjacent to the nucleus requires the novel protein Bucky ball, while Magellan/MacF1 (an actin-microtubule crosslinking protein) contributes to dispersal of the (more...). <P> bucky ball is the first gene in a vertebrate known to function in Balbiani body formation. In Xenopus and zebrafish, vegetal pole destined transcripts co-localize with the Balbiani body, leading to the hypothesis that it functions early in a vegetal pole localization pathway (Kloc et al., 2004b; Kosaka et al., 2007). To investigate if bucky ball functions in the establishment of the earliest known polarized structure in zebrafish and Xenopus, the Balbiani body or mitochondrial cloud, we determined if the Balbiani body was affected in bucky ball mutants. <P> Specialized cells undergo repeated rounds of DNA replication without cell division (endomitosis), to increase cell volume, forming a giant polytene chromosome. Polytene chromosomes form when multiple rounds of replication produce many sister chromatids that remain synapsed together. Polytene chromosomes were originally observed in the larval salivary glands of Chironomus midges by Balbiani in 1881, but the hereditary nature of these structures was not confirmed until they were studied in Drosophila melanogaster in the early 1930s by Emil Heitz and Hans Bauer. <P> The Balbiani body is an aggregate of mitochondria, ER, germinal granules and transcripts, which forms adjacent to the germinal vesicle (GV, the oocyte nucleus) in stage I oocytes. It moves vegetally and dissociates, leaving the germinal granules and vegetally-destined transcripts localized to the vegetal pole. To investigate if bucky ball functions in the establishment of the earliest known polarized structure in zebrafish and Xenopus, the Balbiani body or mitochondrial cloud, we determined if the Balbiani body was affected in bucky ball mutants. <P> In the absence of bucky ball the Balbiani body fails to form, and vegetal mRNAs are not localized in oocytes. In contrast, animal pole-localized oocyte markers are expanded into vegetal regions in bucky ball mutants, but patterning within the expanded animal pole remains intact. To investigate if bucky ball functions in the establishment of the earliest known polarized structure in zebrafish and Xenopus, the Balbiani body or mitochondrial cloud, we determined if the Balbiani body was affected in bucky ball mutants. <P> (A) EM images of Balbiani bodies (pink arrows) in the primary oocytes of model organisms and humans. The Balbiani body is composed of organelles including (more...). Balbiani bodies share many features with P-bodies and stress bodies of other cell types. P bodies and stress bodies are distinct cellular granules containing mRNAs and enzymes that mediate mRNA turnover or storage. Regulators of Balbiani body dynamics in zebrafish oocytes. (A) Formation of the Balbiani body adjacent to the nucleus requires the novel protein Bucky ball, while Magellan/MacF1 (an actin-microtubule crosslinking protein) contributes to dispersal of the (more...). <P> The Balbiani body is an evolutionarily conserved asymmetric aggregate of organelles that is present in early oocytes of all animals examined, including humans. Although first identified more than 150 years ago, genes acting in the assembly of the Balbiani body have not been identified in a vertebrate. To investigate if bucky ball functions in the establishment of the earliest known polarized structure in zebrafish and Xenopus, the Balbiani body or mitochondrial cloud, we determined if the Balbiani body was affected in bucky ball mutants. <P> 1. Define the role(s) of ooplasmic Balbiani bodies in body plan patterning and cell fate determination during embryogenesis. 2. Investigate the functions of ooplasmic ecdysone during insect embryogenesis. 3. Determine the biological significance of nonrandom distributions of yolk proteins within insect oocytes. Understanding how a complex organism develops from a single fertilized egg is critical for improved agricultural and medical practices. Crucial information for accomplishing this is assembled in the cytoplasm of the egg before fertilization.
The Balbiani body is an evolutionarily conserved asymmetric aggregate.
when does mercury go retrograde in april
<P> Aries. How Mercury retrograde will affect you for the April May 2010 retrograde period: Anything to do with finances, possession or property is affected during this period. You can expect delays, and mix-ups, some small and some grand. <P> About 19% of the movement of Mercury is retrograde. This implies that about 1/5 of people have retrograde Mercury in their radix. In 2016, Mercury retrogrades four times, all in the earth signs of Capricorn, Taurus and Virgo and then Capricorn again. This year's Mercury retrograde points to the end of a nine-year cycle that started in 2008. <P> Sometimes the other planets appear to be traveling backward through the zodiac; this is an illusion. We call this illusion retrograde motion. Three times a year, it appears as if Mercury is going backwards for about three weeks. This time was traditionally associated with confusions, delay, and frustration. <P> It goes in a retrograde motion or motion that makes it appear to be going backwards in the night sky three times a year for approximately three weeks at a time. When Mercury is retrograde, there s usually much confusion. People forget little things. <P> Mercury goes retrograde three times a year for about three weeks at a time. The next time is coming up soon — Sept. 19 through Oct. 9. The dates for Mercury retrograde for the next few years are: 2016: Jan. 5 - Jan. 25, April 28 - May 22, Aug. 30 - Sept. 22, Dec. 19, 2016 - Jan. 8, 2017. <P> The planet Mercury rules communication, travel, contracts, automobiles, and such. So,when Mercury is retrograde, remain flexible, allow time for extra travel, and avoid signing contracts. <P> During Mercury retrograde you do not have all the facts...so usually this is not a good time for surgery.At the same time..you could have some other transitsbor aspects that suggest it is a good time. But in general, I personally hold of a decision during a mercury retrograde period. <P> Mercury will be in retrograde for about 3 weeks. The sun is now in Taurus, moving into Gemini on May 22. Linda Goodman has written books that will help you to answer your questions.
April 28
purest form of honey
<P> About. At America’s Heartland Honey we are committed to bringing you the purest form of honey possible. Our honey comes straight from the hive in Wisconsin. Once our bees are finished producing the honey, we collect the honey, strain it and bottle it. Ensuring you receive 100% all natural, raw honey. <P> At America’s Heartland Honey we are committed to bringing you the purest form of honey possible. Our honey comes straight from the hive in Wisconsin. Once our bees are finished producing the honey, we collect the honey, strain it and bottle it. Ensuring you receive 100% all natural, raw honey. <P> Honey Comb is as close to the hive as you can get. This is pure, raw, unprocessed honey. The comb is cut directly from the hive and packaged, no processing is done. Each honey comb contains raw gallberry honey, a very sweet and flavorful honey. Honey comb can be paired with a variety of cheeses and fruits. <P> Today, very little honey is produced as comb honey. Comb honey is raw pure honey sections taken straight from the hive – honey bees' wax comb with no further handling at all. It is the most unprocessed form in which honey comes -- the bees fill the hexagon shaped wax cells of the comb with honey and cap it with beeswax. You can eat comb honey just like a chewy candy.
Comb honey
what is granular material
<P> For example, if a granular material is heaped on an inclined plane, then the large scale state of the system depends on the angle of the plane. For large angles the granular material flows like a non-Newtonian liquid. For small angles the granular material will behave like a solid and remain stationary. Constitutive laws for granular flows. A constitutive relation is an equation that relates the stress in a material to other known variables. The common constitutive relation in fluid dynamics sets the stress proportional to the strain rate. <P> Granular “A” Base is a layer of granular material generally composed of high stability graded crushed gravel or stone. It is a load bearing layer, provides drainage, reduces frost action and provides a smooth surface for paving. <P> Much mechanical energy is lost to heat as the particles move (think of what happens to your kinetic energy when you jump on a beanbag chair). Granular materials form what are called “collective” systems, because the particles’ touching and rubbing together is so important in determining what happens. In a sandpile, for instance, each particle touches only a few others, but these “short range” interactions determine what happens to the whole pile. Many basic products, including a variety of building materials, chemicals, pharmaceuticals and food, are granular. Because of the properties of granular materials, many processing plants operate inefficiently and sometimes experience catastrophic failures, such as the collapsing grain container shown in the photo. <P> Granular materials are important constituents in many industrial processes and geophysical phenomena. However, no fundamental statistical theory is currently available to describe their properties. A major factor is the lack of quantitative experiments that can be used to develop models. We may think of these systems as a collection of grains. The behavior of a single grain is easily understood, but the properties of a collection of grains is very complex. Granular materials when poured or shaken display a surprising range of collective behavior such as convection, size separation and pattern formation. <P> Granular Materials. A granular material is a collection of distinct macroscopic particles, such as sand in an hourglass or peanuts in a container. The evolution of the particles follows Newton's equations, with repulsive forces between particles that are non-zero only when there is a contact between particles. Constitutive laws for granular flows. A constitutive relation is an equation that relates the stress in a material to other known variables. The common constitutive relation in fluid dynamics sets the stress proportional to the strain rate. <P> Examples of granular materials. A granular material is a conglomeration of discrete solid, macroscopic particles characterized by a loss of energy whenever the particles interact (the most common example would be friction when grains collide). In some sense, granular materials do not constitute a single phase of matter but have characteristics reminiscent of solids, liquids, or gases depending on the average energy per grain. However in each of these states granular materials also exhibit properties which are unique. <P> According to material scientist Patrick Richard, Granular materials are ubiquitous in nature and are the second-most manipulated material in industry (the first one is water). In some sense, granular materials do not constitute a single phase of matter but have characteristics reminiscent of solids, liquids, or gases depending on the average energy per grain. However in each of these states granular materials also exhibit properties which are unique. <P> Thus, the lower size limit for grains in granular material is about 1 µm. On the upper size limit, the physics of granular materials may be applied to ice floes where the individual grains are icebergs and to asteroid belts of the solar system with individual grains being asteroids. In some sense, granular materials do not constitute a single phase of matter but have characteristics reminiscent of solids, liquids, or gases depending on the average energy per grain. However in each of these states granular materials also exhibit properties which are unique. <P> Granularity is the extent to which a material or system is composed of distinguishable pieces or grains. It can either refer to the extent to which a larger entity is subdivided, or the extent to which groups of smaller indistinguishable entities have joined together to become larger distinguishable entities. The terms fine and coarse are used consistently across fields, but the term granularity itself is not. For example, in investing, more granularity refers to more positions of smaller size, while photographic film that is more granular has fewer and larger chemical grains..
A granular material is a collection of distinct macroscopic particles, such as sand in an hourglass or peanuts in a container.
streptococcus anginosus causes what disease
<P> Contribution of Streptococcus anginosus to infections caused by groups C and G streptococci, southern India. Emerg Infect Dis [serial on the Internet]. 2010 Apr [ date cited ]. Suggested citation for this article: Reissmann Reißmann, S Friedrichs, C Rajkumari, R Itzek, A Fulde, M RODLOFF, ac et. Al contribution Of streptococcus anginosus to infections caused by Groups c And g, streptococci Southern. india <P> MICROBIOLOGY. Members of the S. anginosus group are gram-positive, catalase-negative cocci (like other members of the genus Streptococcus). They are non-motile, facultative anaerobes that demonstrate variable hemolysis patterns (alpha, beta, or gamma) on sheep blood agar [ 17 ]. He named these organisms Streptococcus milleri in honor of the microbiologist W. D. Miller [ 1,7 ]. The organisms were subsequently recognized as normal flora of the human oral cavity and gastrointestinal tract with the ability to cause abscesses and systemic infections [ 8-12 ]. <P> Together with Streptococcus constellatus and Streptococcus intermedius they constitute the anginosus group, which is sometimes also referred to as the milleri group after the previously assumed single but later refuted species Streptococcus milleri. The majority of Streptococcus anginosus strains produce acetoin from glucose, ferment lactose, trehalose, salicin, and sucrose, and hydrolyze esculin and arginine. Carbon dioxide can stimulate growth or is even required for growth in certain strains. <P> Lancefield groups C and G comprise a variety of distinct species; of these species, S. dysgalactiae subsp. equisimilis, S. equi subsp. zooepidemicus, S. canis, and streptococci of the anginosus group cause severe infections in humans (2 – 5, 17 – 27). Suggested citation for this article: Reissmann Reißmann, S Friedrichs, C Rajkumari, R Itzek, A Fulde, M RODLOFF, ac et. Al contribution Of streptococcus anginosus to infections caused by Groups c And g, streptococci Southern. india <P> Streptococcus anginosus is part of the human bacteria flora, but can cause diseases including brain and liver abscesses under certain circumstances. The habitat of S. anginosus is a wide variety of sites inside the human body. The majority of Streptococcus anginosus strains produce acetoin from glucose, ferment lactose, trehalose, salicin, and sucrose, and hydrolyze esculin and arginine. Carbon dioxide can stimulate growth or is even required for growth in certain strains. <P> A: Group A Streptococcus is a bacterium that can cause a wide range of infections. People may also carry group A streptococci in the throat or on the skin and have no symptoms of illness. Most GAS infections are relatively mild illnesses such as strep throat, or impetigo (a skin infection). <P> Lancefield groups C and G comprise a variety of species; one of those species, Streptococcus dysgalactiae subsp. equisimilis (SDSE), frequently causes human infections. This species can cause the whole spectrum of infections caused by S. pyogenes (4, 5). Suggested citation for this article: Reissmann Reißmann, S Friedrichs, C Rajkumari, R Itzek, A Fulde, M RODLOFF, ac et. Al contribution Of streptococcus anginosus to infections caused by Groups c And g, streptococci Southern. india <P> Description of Streptococcus milleri. Streptococcus milleri: A subset of VIRIDANS STREPTOCOCCI, but the species in this group differ in their hemolytic pattern and diseases caused. These species are often beta-hemolytic and produce pyogenic infections. Source: Diseases Database. <P> Streptococcal infections are any type of infection caused by the streptococcus (strep) group of bacteria. There are many different types of Streptococci bacteria, and infections vary in severity from mild throat infections to life-threatening infections of the blood or organs. <P> Streptococcus intermedius is a member of the Streptococcus anginosus group, also known as the Streptococcus milleri group. Members of this group include S. intermedius, S. anginosus, and S. constellatus [ 1 ].
Brain and liver abscesses
what weight do you need a booster seat
<P> Stephanie Tombrello. child passenger safety specialist. You can safely switch your child to a booster seat if she's at least 4 years old and she weighs 40 pounds or more or has grown too tall for her car seat (when her shoulders are higher than the top set of harness-strap slots in the car seat's back). In a crash, belt-positioning seats are far safer. (If you have only lap belts in the rear of your car, select a booster seat with an extra energy absorber belt.) Backless booster seats tend to provide a better fit than the high-back kind, and are more portable when you're switching them from car to car. <P> A backless booster. A booster seat is used to lift up a child and properly position the vehicle's lap/shoulder belts on children who are too small to fit the adult seat belt. Boosters are rated for use from 30-40 lbs to 80-100 lbs. Booster seats do not have a harness. <P> Six seats had the more reasonable minimum weight limit of 40 pounds. This makes sense because the growth of children between 30 and 40 pounds occurs at a slower rate than when they are infants. An average 40-pound child is typically closer to age five, a much safer age to consider making a transition to booster use. <P> Boosters Are For Big Kids Most kids need to ride in a booster seat from about age 4 until age 10-12. If your child isn’t using a booster, try the simple test below the next time you ride together in the car. You may find that your child is not yet ready to use a safety belt without a booster. <P> Buckling children in age-and size-appropriate car seats, booster seats, and seat belts reduces the risk of serious and fatal injuries: 1 2. 2 Booster seat use reduces the risk for serious injury by 45% for children aged 4–8 years when compared with seat belt use alone. Age 5 up until seat belts fit properly: Booster seat. Once children outgrow their forward-facing seat, (by reaching the upper height or weight limit of their seat), they should be buckled in a belt positioning booster seat until seat belts fit properly. <P> restraint until they are at least 5 years old and weigh more than 40 pounds. • Children older than 5 and more than 40 pounds must ride in a booster seat. until the child is 8 years old or is taller than 4 feet 9 inches. • Anyone over the age of 8 must be protected by a safety belt. • A booster seat helps your child fit correctly in your vehicle’s safety belt. It positions the lap belt on the hips and the shoulder belt across the chest, providing the greatest amount of protection. • Motor vehicle crashes are the #1 killer of children between the ages of 4-8. <P> Does my 8-year-old still need to ride in a booster seat?... Can my son ride in a forward-facing car seat if he is over 1 year old?... What do I do if my daughter has outgrown the height restriction for her car seat, but not the weight restriction?... Should my 60 lb. child ride in the front seat or the back seat?... <P> Children no longer need to use a booster seat once seat belts fit them properly. Seat belts fit properly when the lap belt lays across the upper thighs (not the stomach) and the shoulder belt lays across the chest (not the neck). The recommended height for proper seat belt fit is 57 inches tall. Age 5 up until seat belts fit properly: Booster seat. Once children outgrow their forward-facing seat, (by reaching the upper height or weight limit of their seat), they should be buckled in a belt positioning booster seat until seat belts fit properly. <P> Forward facing harnessed seats are outgrown when a child reaches the weight limit, or more commonly when the child's shoulders are above the top harness slots. If the child is 4 years AND 40lbs, then he may move to a booster with vehicle lap shoulder belt seatbelt. The minimum on a 5 pt harness seat is 40 lbs, the minimum in CA on the booster is 6 yrs, 60 lbs. Again, that's the minimum, not the safest. I bought a Britax Regent. It holds them forward facing in a 5 pt harness from 20 lbs to 80 lbs. and I don't have kids. I bought it for when my nephew is in my car
At least 4 years old and she weighs 40 pounds
what does the name symone mean
<P> The name Simone is a Greek baby name. In Greek the meaning of the name Simone is: Snub-nosed. Hebrew Meaning: The name Simone is a Hebrew baby name. In Hebrew the meaning of the name Simone is: Loud. <P> [ syll. sy-mo-ne, sym-one ] The baby girl name Symone is pronounced as S IH M OW N- †. Symone is used chiefly in English and its origin is Hebrew. Symone is a spelling variant of the name Simone (English, French, and German). Symone is an unusual baby girl name. Its usage peaked in 1991 with 0.013% of baby girls being named Symone. It had a ranking of #761 then. The baby name has fallen from favor since then, and is today of very modest use. <P> Symone is generally used as a girl's name. It consists of 6 letters and 2 syllables and is pronounced Sy-mone. In the U.S. in 2014, it ranked 2422 in baby name popularity for girls with 75 occurrences. <P> Symone /sy-mone/ [2 sylls.] as a girls' name is of Hebrew origin, and the name Symone means hear, listen. Symone is a variant transcription of Simone (Hebrew): feminine of Simon. Compare surname Samon. <P> Symone is an unusual given name for women. Symone is an equally unusual surname for all people. (2000 U.S. Census). Displayed below is the baby name popularity of Symone for girls.
Hear, listen
cost of adding a bedroom and bath to a house
<P> 1 Adding new floor space for a simple bedroom and closet with a foundation (but no bathroom) costs about $25-$50 a square foot if you do all or most of the work yourself (requires high-level skills), and anywhere from $50-$150 or more a square foot to hire a builder, depending on complexity and local labor rates. 1 If you're adding weight to your foundation, you may need a report from a structural engineer at a cost of $300-$800 or more, to see if your existing foundation needs to be reinforced or repaired. 2 You'll probably need a set of plans for your bedroom addition. 3 Your builder might be able to supply them. <P> Suite Addition. Building out to add a bedroom allows you maximum flexibility. Adding a 14-by-16-foot master suite, including bathroom, over a crawlspace costs an average of $103,844 as of 2014, according to Remodeling. Costs can vary significantly by region, as the same master suite addition costs an average of $137,840 in a high-cost urban market. Choose upscale finishes and a bit more space and your new bedroom costs could skyrocket, with an average price of $224,989 for an upscale master suite addition as of 2014. <P> Converting an unfinished attic to a 15-by-15-foot bedroom with small bath costs an average of $49,438, with a nearly 85 percent return on investment, according to a 2014 report by Remodeling. The cost of this bedroom conversion can be as much as 30 percent higher in high cost-of-living areas. Costs can vary significantly by region, as the same master suite addition costs an average of $137,840 in a high-cost urban market. Choose upscale finishes and a bit more space and your new bedroom costs could skyrocket, with an average price of $224,989 for an upscale master suite addition as of 2014. <P> 1 Do-it-yourself costs to convert an existing garage or basement into a bedroom run anywhere from $200-$5,000. 2 Hiring a contractor for the conversion project can be $7,500-$50,000 or more depending on the size and condition of the existing space; whether the project includes a bathroom; and local labor rates. 1 If you're adding weight to your foundation, you may need a report from a structural engineer at a cost of $300-$800 or more, to see if your existing foundation needs to be reinforced or repaired. 2 You'll probably need a set of plans for your bedroom addition. 3 Your builder might be able to supply them. <P> An addition with a kitchen can run $250 to $300 a square foot, not counting finishing details like appliances and countertops. An addition with a bathroom can cost $125 to $200 a square foot, again with a number of cost variables including type of flooring, shower and tub, plumbing appliances or custom lighting. <P> 1 Contractor costs for a more extensive project (such as 500 square feet of new floor space with two bedrooms and a bathroom) can run $50-$250 or more a square foot, or $25,000-$125,000, and costs can go as high as $300-$500 a square foot for complex and luxurious projects. 1 If you're adding weight to your foundation, you may need a report from a structural engineer at a cost of $300-$800 or more, to see if your existing foundation needs to be reinforced or repaired. 2 You'll probably need a set of plans for your bedroom addition. 3 Your builder might be able to supply them. <P> My husband just added a bedroom onto our house. It cost about $5,000 and didn't include a bathroom. He did all the work, so there was no labor cost. Remember that most contractors will add 1/3 material cost for labor. So we got a quote to add a bedroom, bathroom and laundry room plus some remodel in the kitchen for $26,000. We are skating by on the electrical and plumbing because my dad knows how to do it. We are doing as much labor as we can also. Nycole · 2 years ago. <P> After careful review of your adding a bedroom to a house project where you Hire a contractor, do None of the work yourself and use Average cost materials, we estimate the cost will be between $10,500 and $12,100. We also estimate the payback (the amount your home will appreciate by doing the remodel) will be $800. <P> How much will you spend? The cost of an addition varies widely depending on the type of room and where you live. But just to give you a sense of how much it might cost, CostHelper.com estimates that adding a bathroom or bedroom could run from $25,000 to $50,000. A bedroom could easily cost just as much. A large room, such as a family room, could run as high as $100,000.
From $25,000 to $50,000
cost of elderly prisoners
<P> If it costs New Jersey an average of $71,000 to care for each elderly inmate, as one study suggests, that would cost taxpayers $21.3 million -- about double the cost for the same number of younger, healthy inmates. Health care costs for older inmates skyrocket. The growing number of older prisoners represents a potential fiscal time bomb. Elderly prisoners cost more because almost all expenses related to their health care must be borne by state tax dollars. <P> The rising cost of care. State and federal prisons spend an estimated $16 billion taxpayer dollars a year keeping elderly convicts in the clink, Fathi said. Nearly a quarter of that price tag – roughly $3 billion taxpayer dollars annually – is devoted to providing health care to sick or drying prisoners. By the year 2030, there will be upward of 400,000 elderly prisoners — nearly a third of the projected total penal population, said Inimai Chettiar, a director at the Brennan Center for Justice at NYU School of Law and the co-author of the ACLU report. <P> At least 15% of the prisoners in 20 states are 50 or older, according to the ACLU report. In West Virginia, 20% were at least 50. The costs of confining such prisoners are about double — $68,270 per year — the $34,135 annual cost for the average younger inmate. 1 Costs of keeping aging and sick prisoners - $68,270 per year-are double that of younger, healthier inmates. 2 Some inmates languish and die before their release requests are acted on by prison authorities. <P> (AP). State spending on prisoner health care increased in 42 states between 2001 and 2008, with a median growth of 52 percent, according to a new report from The Pew Charitable Trusts. The primary driver of the cost spike is bigger and older prison populations. During the same period, the number of state and federal inmates age 55 and older grew from 40,200 to 77,800, a 94 percent increase. Since 2008, the number of elderly inmates has continued to grow to 121,800 in 2011. <P> The growing number of older prisoners like Thomas represents a potential fiscal time bomb for the state and nation: Elderly prisoners cost more because almost all expenses related to their health care must be borne by state tax dollars. Health care costs for older inmates skyrocket. The growing number of older prisoners represents a potential fiscal time bomb. Elderly prisoners cost more because almost all expenses related to their health care must be borne by state tax dollars. <P> The Pew Center on Research has estimated that the cost of managing an elderly prisoner is approximately $70,000 annually. This yields a per diem of $192, compared with the Department’s average healthcare cost of $10.96 per inmate per day for all facilities during Fiscal Year 2013-14. The remaining 82,209 prison population is under the age of 50, and their health care costs average approximately $2,500 per prisoner.”. “This rough analysis indicates that elderly prisoners cost four times as much as non-elderly prisoners. <P> Assuming hospitalization days are representative of overall prison health care costs, the elderly prison population was responsible for approximately half of the $408 million prisoner healthcare costs in 2012, which averages to $11,000 per year solely for the health care of elderly prisoners. The remaining 82,209 prison population is under the age of 50, and their health care costs average approximately $2,500 per prisoner.”. “This rough analysis indicates that elderly prisoners cost four times as much as non- <P> 1 In Georgia, prisoners age 65 and older command an annual average medical care cost of $8,565 -- a huge leap from the annual average of $961 for inmates under age 65, according to a report by the Human Rights Watch. By the year 2030, there will be upward of 400,000 elderly prisoners — nearly a third of the projected total penal population, said Inimai Chettiar, a director at the Brennan Center for Justice at NYU School of Law and the co-author of the ACLU report. <P> Elderly more expensive. A 2012 ACLU study estimated that it costs nearly $70,000 a year to house a prisoner over 50, compared with an average of $34,135 for a younger inmate. The increase is primarily driven by much higher health care costs for the older population. Health care costs for older inmates skyrocket. The growing number of older prisoners represents a potential fiscal time bomb. Elderly prisoners cost more because almost all expenses related to their health care must be borne by state tax dollars.
$70,000 per year
how long does it take to heal from a piercing
<P> The average time for a piercing to heal is 6 weeks but it can take a little longer for some…. wait another week or so and if it still hurts or there is blood than i say you go to the place you got it done and ask them why it is doing this, maybe they can give you something to quicken the healing process! <P> How long does it take to heal a lip piercing? So long as the lip piercing is performed correctly and proper aftercare is followed and no infection or other hindrance in the healing process occur, most lip piercings require a minimum of six to eight weeks to heal. <P> No piercing is considered fully healed until it's a year old. Contrary to what you may read, it takes the body a full year to season a piercing to the point where it can be removed for extended periods of time without the risk of the piercing closing. <P> Healing time is different depending on the part of your body that you get pierced. Some parts are more likely to get infected or have problems. Piercings on your ear lobes usually take about 6-8 weeks to heal. However, piercings on the side of your ear (cartilage) can take anywhere from 4 months to 1 year to heal. <P> The healing time of a navel/ belly button piercing can take longer due to the irritation of tight clothing. This can cause an infection. Here is a general guideline for how long it takes for certain body piercings to heal. — Ear lobe piercing takes between six to eight weeks to heal. <P> 1 How long does it take for an ear piercing to heal? ...I got a second ear piercing at claire’s about two months ago. 2 I kept the earring on for 6 weeks and cleaned it with the antiseptic like they said to. <P> Until the piercing has healed, taking the earring post out of the hole will only expose your raw tissue to infection. For ear piercings, the healing process typically takes 6-8 weeks. During that time, you must wear the earring you put into your new piercing at all times or risk a painful <P> As we have said the time frame for a newly pierced nose to completely heal varies from 2 to 4 months for nostril piercing and 6 to 8 months for septum piercings. Swelling and other symptoms that appear immediately after the piercing is done however normally go away in 10 to 15 days. <P> Keep the same earring on till it’s completely healed. I have 6 ear piercings n all took different lengths of time to heal. Longest was on the cartilage on the top lobe. About 6 months. My belly ring took over 6 months n my nose ring nearly 1 year. Depends how irritated it gets.
On ear lobes it usually take about 6-8 weeks to heal and piercings on the side of your ear (cartilage) can take anywhere from 4 months to 1 year to heal.
cost for mastectomy
<P> 1 If a mastectomy is required, the patient might choose to get breast reconstruction. 2 This typically costs $5,000-$15,000 or more per breast for implants or from $25,000-$50,000 or more per breast for flap techniques using tissue from the patient's own body. 1 This typically costs $5,000-$15,000 or more per breast for implants or from $25,000-$50,000 or more per breast for flap techniques using tissue from the patient's own body. 2 Breast cancer patients will need regular follow-up doctor visits and screenings to check for recurrence. <P> 1 Depending on the individual case and the type and number of treatments needed, the total cost of breast cancer treatment, on average, can reach $100,000 -- or, in advanced cases, $300,000 or more. 2 In a BreastCancer.org forum, patients discuss total costs of their breast cancer treatment. 1 This typically costs $5,000-$15,000 or more per breast for implants or from $25,000-$50,000 or more per breast for flap techniques using tissue from the patient's own body. 2 Breast cancer patients will need regular follow-up doctor visits and screenings to check for recurrence. <P> 1 For patients not covered by health insurance, breast cancer treatment typically costs $15,000-$50,000 or more for a mastectomy or $17,000 to $35,000 or more for a lumpectomy followed by radiation. 1 This typically costs $5,000-$15,000 or more per breast for implants or from $25,000-$50,000 or more per breast for flap techniques using tissue from the patient's own body. 2 Breast cancer patients will need regular follow-up doctor visits and screenings to check for recurrence. <P> 1 For patients covered by health insurance, out-of-pocket costs for a mastectomy typically consist of doctor visit, lab and prescription drug copays as well as coinsurance of 10%-50% for the surgery. 1 For example, BlueCross BlueShield of Tennessee estimates a cost of more than $15,000 for a bilateral prophylactic mastectomy. 2 Saint Elizabeth Regional Medical Center in Nebraska, charges about $14,000-$37,000 for a simple complete <P> 1 After a mastectomy, some patients will require radiation therapy, which can cost from less than $10,000-$50,000 or more, or chemotherapy, which can cost up to $30,000 or more, depending on the drug. 1 For example, BlueCross BlueShield of Tennessee estimates a cost of more than $15,000 for a bilateral prophylactic mastectomy. 2 Saint Elizabeth Regional Medical Center in Nebraska, charges about $14,000-$37,000 for a simple complete <P> 1 For example, women on a BreastCancer.org forum report chemotherapy costs of $7,000-$40,000 per treatment. 2 Depending on the individual case and the type and number of treatments needed, the total cost of breast cancer treatment, on average, can reach $100,000 -- or, in advanced cases, $300,000 or more. 1 This typically costs $5,000-$15,000 or more per breast for implants or from $25,000-$50,000 or more per breast for flap techniques using tissue from the patient's own body. 2 Breast cancer patients will need regular follow-up doctor visits and screenings to check for recurrence. <P> 1 In the state of Chicago, a mastectomy may cost $7,000 to $20,000. 2 The higher price usually includes anesthesia, supplies, as well as the surgeon’s fee. 3 In a state such as Florida, it can be anywhere from $14,000 to $20,000, which also includes hospital fees and the surgeon fee. 1 The location of the medical clinic usually contributes to the varying price for mastectomy. 2 On average, a mastectomy can run about $9,000 to $50,000 for the removal of two breasts. 3 In the state of Chicago, a mastectomy may cost $7,000 to $20,000 <P> 1 On average, a mastectomy can run about $9,000 to $50,000 for the removal of two breasts. 2 In the state of Chicago, a mastectomy may cost $7,000 to $20,000. 3 The higher price usually includes anesthesia, supplies, as well as the surgeon’s fee. 1 The location of the medical clinic usually contributes to the varying price for mastectomy. 2 On average, a mastectomy can run about $9,000 to $50,000 for the removal of two breasts. 3 In the state of Chicago, a mastectomy may cost $7,000 to $20,000 <P> 1 Expect to pay about $37,000 for a radical mastectomy, which involves removal of breast tissue, nipple, underlying muscle and lymph nodes; costs can reach $50,000 or more if there are complications. 2 Doctor fees and laboratory pathology costs can add up to $2,000 or more each to the total bill. 1 For example, BlueCross BlueShield of Tennessee estimates a cost of more than $15,000 for a bilateral prophylactic mastectomy. 2 Saint Elizabeth Regional Medical Center in Nebraska, charges about $14,000-$37,000 for a simple complete
About $9,000 to $50,000 for the removal of two breasts.
what does the brachialis muscle do
<P> Structure [edit]. The brachialis originates from the lower half of the front of the humerus, near the insertion of the deltoid muscle, which it embraces by two angular processes. Its origin extends below to within 2.5 cm of the margin of the articular surface of the humerus at the elbow joint. The brachialis muscle and brachial muscle can be considered as the anglicized variant of the Latin expression musculus bracchialis. In classical Latin bracchialis means of or belonging to the arm, and is derived from classical Latin bracchium ,arm. <P> The brachialis muscle is located in the upper arm. It lies underneath the biceps muscle. It acts as a structural bridge between the humerus, which is the bone of the upper arm, and the ulna, which is one of the forearm bones. The muscle is innervated by both the musculoskeletal nerve and the radial nerve. In some people, the muscle may appear doubled. Also called the brachialis anticus, its primary action is to flex the forearm muscles at the elbow. Due to its high contractile strength, the branchialis makes many arm and elbow movements possible. Such movements are important for the activities of daily life <P> The brachialis (brachialis anticus) is a muscle in the upper arm that flexes the elbow joint. It lies deeper than the biceps brachii, and is a synergist that assists the biceps brachii in flexing at the elbow. It makes up part of the floor of the region known as the cubital fossa. The brachialis muscle and brachial muscle can be considered as the anglicized variant of the Latin expression musculus bracchialis. In classical Latin bracchialis means of or belonging to the arm, and is derived from classical Latin bracchium ,arm. <P> The brachialis muscle can contribute to pain in the shoulder, arm, elbow, hand and thumb. 1 Pain at the front and /or back of the base of the thumb. 2 Pain on the outside of the upper arm near the elbow. 3 Numbness or tingling in the back of the forearm and thumb. 4 Difficulty bending the elbow. The Elite-Kold Wrist and Elbow Ice Wrap is a good choice for brachialis pain. I like this wrap because it can be used for the elbow and forearm. To treat the brachialis muscle, begin with the wrap at the elbow then reposition the wrap to treat the wrist, thumb, and thumb pad (20 minutes per position). <P> Anatomy and supply. The Brachialis is a long and strong muscle of the upper arm. It originates at the distal half of the anterior side of the humerus. In addition, the origin tendon attaches to the medial and lateral intermuscular septa of the arm, two dividing membranes separating the flexor from the extensor muscles. Pathology. In cases of extreme strain of the elbow, inflammation of the brachialis tendon (brachialis tendonitis) or injuries of the joint capsule often occur. Too many pull-ups, excessive tennis practice or other inappropriate strain of the elbow are among the typical causes. <P> When properly developed, the brachialis muscles help the biceps appear bigger, especially the lower portion of the biceps. The brachialis helps in elbow flexion when an overhand grip is used on a weight bar, and also helps to initiate elbow flexion. <P> The brachialis is a muscle located at the front of your upper arms. It originates at the lower half of the front of the humerus, or upper arm bone, and inserts at the front of the ulna, or outer forearm bone. If you look directly at the front of your upper arms, you can't see the brachialis. This is because it actually lies underneath the two-headed biceps muscle group. To see the brachialis, you need to flex your arms by bending your elbows and then look at the outer side of your upper arms. <P> The brachioradialis is a superficial, fusiform muscle on the lateral side of the forearm that attaches proximally on the lateral supracondylar ridge of the humerus and distally on the radius, close to its styloid process. Near the elbow, it forms the lateral limit of the cubital fossa, or elbow pit. The brachioradialis is a stronger elbow flexor when the forearm is in a midposition between supination and pronation at the radioulnar joint. When pronated, the brachioradialis is more active during elbow flexion since the biceps brachii is in a mechanical disadvantage. <P> Function. The brachialis is the strongest flexor of the elbow joint. It is even a stronger flexor than the biceps brachii, because it is closer to the joint axis and furthermore only stretches over one joint in contrast to the biceps brachii. A small contraction of the muscle consequently leads to a larger flexion in the elbow. Pathology. In cases of extreme strain of the elbow, inflammation of the brachialis tendon (brachialis tendonitis) or injuries of the joint capsule often occur. Too many pull-ups, excessive tennis practice or other inappropriate strain of the elbow are among the typical causes.
It flexes the elbow joint.
downtrodden meaning
<P> Follow HinKhoj Dictionary on FaceBook and Google.... Tags: Hindi meaning of Downtrodden, Downtrodden meaning in hindi, Downtrodden ka matalab hindi me, Downtroddentranslation and definition in Hindi language. <P> A poor, degraded, downtrodden, ignorant, superstitious people, they were; accustomed for generations to the heel of first one invader and then another and in the interims, when there were any, the heels of their feudal lords and their rapacious monarchs. <P> adjective. The definition of downtrodden is feeling oppressed or kept down by a situation or a ruler. An example of downtrodden is the feelings of citizens in a cruel dictatorship. <P> This is the British English definition of downtrodden. View American English definition of downtrodden. Change your default dictionary to American English. View the pronunciation for <P> Full Definition of DOWNTRODDEN. : suffering oppression. See downtrodden defined for English-language learners. See downtrodden defined for kids. ADVERTISEMENT. <P> Downtrodden meaning in Hindi : Get detailed meaning of DOWNTRODDEN in Hindi language.This page shows Downtrodden meaning in Hindi with Downtrodden definition,translation and usage.This page provides translation and definition of Downtrodden in Hindi language along with grammar, synonyms and antonyms. Answer of question : <P> 1 You've already done your part for the oppressed and downtrodden demons of the world. 2 In the fight for change, the most oppressed and downtrodden come to the forefront.
feeling oppressed
what does a floor tech do
<P> Duties. Floor technicians scrub, shine, clean and repair carpeted and noncarpeted areas using appropriate equipment and chemicals. This job includes moving large furniture and objects and following safety guidelines to prevent injury to themselves and others. Floor technicians clean floors and carpets for large facilities such as gymnasiums, hospitals, businesses and schools. Their work improves the overall appearance of an organization, presenting a clean environment to visitors and employees. 1 Floor Care Technician Job Description. <P> I do not recommend using a damp mop unless it has truly has got all the water completely wrung out of it. We vacuum our pebble tech floors weekly and semi annually get in and really clean them well. We vacuum, then use a carpet steam cleaner, if you can get one with a brush that is best. Use simple green as a cleaner or an antibacterial non sudsy product. If the floor is especially dirty, we use a long handled brush to help the steam cleaner along, let it sit for 15 minutes or so and then rinse, rinse, rinse. <P> The Donor Floor Technician is an entry-level position, and is responsible for preparing the donor area for the plasmapheresis process (i.e., donor and equipment... 1 hour ago-save job-email-more... 1 View all Octapharma Plasma jobs in Hazelwood, MO-Hazelwood jobs. Donor Floor Technician. Some of the Donor Floor Tech responsibilities are; Escorting the donor to the donor floor, performing donor ID, PCS2 machine set ups, and donor disconnects once... Easily apply. 30+ days ago-save job-email-more... 1 View all BPL Plasma jobs in Jonesboro, AR-Jonesboro <P> Floor Cleaning Technician. Provides floor maintenance and Some lifting. Hiring Part Floor Tech for Local Retail Store. Handles floor care, including routine mopping (dry and damp),... Swedish Medical Center is looking for a 1.0 FTE Environmental Services Project/Floor Technician... Providence Health & Services - 5 days ago-save job-email-more... 1 View all Swedish Medical Center jobs in Seattle, WA-Seattle jobs. <P> Floor Technician. Strip and Wax floors. The duties of a Floor Technician are to operate buffers, sweepers, strippers, mops and other equipment but not limited to the following:.... 4 days ago-save job-email-more... 1 View all GCA Services Group jobs in Whitehall, MI-Whitehall jobs. Swedish Medical Center is looking for a 1.0 FTE Environmental Services Project/Floor Technician... Providence Health & Services - 5 days ago-save job-email-more... 1 View all Swedish Medical Center jobs in Seattle, WA-Seattle jobs. <P> We are currently seeking a Carpet Cleaning/ Floor Care Technician for the Seattle and Surrounding Areas at an hourly rate of $18.00/hr DOE.... 5 days ago-save job-email-more... 1 View all Management Services Northwest jobs in Seattle, WA-Seattle jobs. Swedish Medical Center is looking for a 1.0 FTE Environmental Services Project/Floor Technician... Providence Health & Services - 5 days ago-save job-email-more... 1 View all Swedish Medical Center <P> Average Floor Technician Salaries. The average salary for floor technician jobs is $32,000. Average floor technician salaries can vary greatly due to company, location, industry, experience and benefits. This salary was calculated using the average salary for all jobs with the term floor technician anywhere in the job listing. The floor technician salary comparisons feature allows job seekers to get the information required to make important career decisions and negotiate salary ranges. For additional floor technician salary information, we recommend visiting Payscale.com. <P> I'm a PCT house float in ohio (I work in all units of 2 hospitals in our network)-. on med surg floors-. PCT's can do vitals, bladder scans, draw blood, remove catheters, and any other STNA type duties. On our cardiac/step down units PCT's can do EKGs as well as all of the above. In ER we can technically do more, because a PCT can also be an ER tech in some hospitals (again depends on hospital policy). <P> Job Description of a Floor Technician. Floor technicians clean floors and carpets for large facilities such as gymnasiums, hospitals, businesses and schools. Their work improves the overall appearance of an organization, presenting a clean environment to visitors and employees. 1 Floor Care Technician Job Description.
Floor technicians scrub, shine, clean and repair carpeted and noncarpeted areas using appropriate equipment and chemicals.
what family is a gong in
<P> GONG is a Space/Canterbury Rock group formed by Australian guitarist (formerly of SOFT MACHINE) Daevid Allan in Paris, France in 1968. He did not do it alone though, he & his wife, Gilli Smyth are the whole nucleus of that band with numerous band line-ups. <P> Click on the image to see a larger version of the first page of the Gong family tree in Guangdong. Click to see the entire document. Pictured on the left is the first page of 36 generations of Gongs included in a book from our ancestral village, Lok Cherng, in Fah Yuen, Guangdong, China. <P> Surname Gong 龔, 共 [edit]. Gong (simplified Chinese: 龚; traditional Chinese: 龔, rank 192 in China), aka Kung or Kong in Cantonese (Hong Kong and Macao), is the 99th most prevalent Chinese surname listed in the ancient Song Dynasty classic text, Hundred Family Surnames . It is the English transcription of a number of different Chinese surnames: 宫, 龔, 共, 公, 鞏, 功, 貢, and 弓. Gong may also be a Korean surname, but this Korean Gong may be the English transcription of another surname Kong (孔). <P> See also: Kong (surname). Gong is a Chinese surname. It is the English transcription of a number of different Chinese surnames: 宫, 龔, 共, 公, 鞏, 功, 貢, and 弓. Gong may also be a Korean surname, but this Korean Gong may be the English transcription of another surname Kong (孔). <P> A gong (Chinese: 鑼; pinyin: luo; Luó indonesian Or: javanese; Gong: malay) gong is An, African east And South East asian musical percussion instrument that takes the form of a, flat circular metal disc which is hit with a. mallet The smaller gong is used to announce the entry of lesser players, of women, and to identify points of humour. Opera gongs range in size from 7 to 12, with the larger of a pair one or two inches larger than the smaller. <P> Gong Name Meaning. Chinese: the origin of this surname dates back to the time of the legendary emperor Huang Di (2697–2595 bc). An adviser held the surname Gonggong, comprised of two different characters that are pronounced Gong in modern Chinese. <P> Gong Li was born in Shenyang, China, Liaoning, the youngest in a family of five children. Her father was a professor of economics and her mother was a teacher. Gong grew up in Jinan, the capital of Shandong. In 1985, Gong sought to study at China's top music school, but was denied entrance. In June 1998, Gong Li became a recipient of France's Ordre des Arts et des Lettres. Two years later, she was invited by the Berlin Film Festival to be the president of its international jury at the festival's 50th anniversary (2001 February). <P> Gong 101 - Basics of Gongs. Item# gong-basics. Availability: Usually ships the next business day. The gong is a musical instrument in the percussion family. A gong can have either a definite or an indefinite musical pitch. Gongs come in a variety of sizes, styles, and shapes. Like dialects of language or sects of religion, the instrument evolved differently in each location and culture it was used. Bowl gongs are called such because they are literally bowl-shaped. They can rest on the ground or special cushions. Bowl gongs can be played in several different manners. A musician can bang a bowl gong with a mallet, but might also rub the rim with his or her finger to elicit a whole other sound. <P> A Pasi gong is a medium-size gong 12 to 15 in size, with a crashing sound. It is used traditionally to announce the start of a performance, play or magic. Construction varies, some having nipples and some not, so this type is named more for its function than for its structure or even its sound. The smaller gong is used to announce the entry of lesser players, of women, and to identify points of humour. Opera gongs range in size from 7 to 12, with the larger of a pair one or two inches larger than the smaller.
Percussion family
denture reline cost
<P> 1 Dentures may crack or break, and the fit will change over time. 2 Repairs can cost $50-$200 and professional relining to adjust the fit is typically $250-$450. 3 Do-it-yourself repair or reline kits (available from drug stores or online) cost $10-$50. 1 Often the price includes several follow-up visits to fine-tune the fit. 2 Removable partial dentures start at $300 -$500, average around $700-$1,800, and can cost $2,000-$4,000 or more in gold (instead of acrylic or another metal). <P> We carry reline kits here.Reline Denture or Reline Dentures: reline denture or dentures is adding a denture material to denture and placing it into your mouth to fill in the empty space between the denture and the natural gums for a secure fit (reline dentures)(reline denture). We carry reline kits here.Denture Reline Kit: a kit containing denture materials in a package ready to reline or fill the empty space between the denture and the natural gums for a secure fit (denture reline kit)(denture reline) . <P> A complete lower denture; ITEM 712 will also cost $900-$1400. The average price according to the ADA 2012 member fee survey for either an upper or a lower complete denture is $1197. An complete upper and lower denture set; ITEM 719 in Australia will cost in the range of $1600- $2500. The average price according to the ADA 2012 member fee survey for both upper and lower complete dentures is $2091. A dentist will charge the same amount for a full upper denture as for a full lower denture, it makes no difference. Generally, however, a full set of dentures i.e. an upper and a lower full denture will have a slightly lower combined price, because you are doing both at the same time. A complete upper denture; ITEM 711 in Australia will cost in the range of $900-$1400 <P> 1 A mid-range denture typically costs $500-$1,500 per plate or $1,000-$3,000 for a set. 2 These offer a fairly personalized fit and usually come with a 1- or 2-year warranty. 3 Premium dentures can cost $2,000-$4,000 per plate, or $4,000-$8,000 or more for a set. 1 Often the price includes several follow-up visits to fine-tune the fit. 2 Removable partial dentures start at $300 -$500, average around $700-$1,800, and can cost $2,000-$4,000 or more in gold (instead of acrylic or another metal). <P> Laboratory denture relines cost more than chairside ones in part because the dentist incurs an expense from the dental lab that performs the work. Fee estimate for laboratory reline: (Your dentist's cost.). 1 Reline services, complete denture, hard plastic. - 2 $50.00 to $75.00. With a chairside reline, a runny plastic is placed directly into the patient's denture. The denture is then seated in the patient's mouth. As the plastic hardens, it captures the shape of the patient's gum tissue. <P> And for this reason, one portion of the expense involved with providing this procedure for you is paying their dental laboratory's bill. Estimate of complete denture dental lab fees: (Your dentist's cost.). 1 Complete denture (upper or lower) - $145.00 to $240.00. With a chairside reline, a runny plastic is placed directly into the patient's denture. The denture is then seated in the patient's mouth. As the plastic hardens, it captures the shape of the patient's gum tissue. <P> 1 Tooth extraction typically costs $75-$450 per tooth for a simple extraction and $150-$650 or more per tooth for a surgical extraction. 2 Depending on the number of teeth to be pulled, the total cost of getting dentures can be $1,500-$20,000 or more for a full set (uppers and lowers). 1 Often the price includes several follow-up visits to fine-tune the fit. 2 Removable partial dentures start at $300 -$500, average around $700-$1,800, and can cost $2,000-$4,000 or more in gold (instead of acrylic or another metal). <P> 1 If dentures are medically necessary, insurance might pay 15%-50% of the costs (up to the plan's annual limit, if there is one). 2 A basic denture starts at about $300-$500 per plate, or $600-$1,000 for a full set of upper and lower teeth. 1 Often the price includes several follow-up visits to fine-tune the fit. 2 Removable partial dentures start at $300 -$500, average around $700-$1,800, and can cost $2,000-$4,000 or more in gold (instead of acrylic or another metal). <P> Over time your bone and gum will slowly shrink, this changes the shape of the ridges that support your denture. This may result in a denture that no longer fits as well as it used to. The solution may be a reline for your complete or partial denture. The two most common types of denture relines are hard and soft relines. A hard reline is created by placing a soft putty inside the denture and then placing the denture inside of the mouth, which allows the gums to mould it into shape.
Professional relining to adjust the fit is typically $250-$450. reline kits (available from drug stores or online) cost $10-$50.
what is virtual net metering
<P> HelioPower’s Virtual Net Metering Experience. HelioPower was early to develop the MASH marketplace and I developed among the first VNM projects in each of the major regulated utilities: Las Serenas in SDG&E, and Sunrise Vista in SCE and Sherwood Village in PG&E territory. Going Virtual. Recently some sectors have been allowed to take advantage of “ Virtual Net Metering ” (VNM) policy, which allows multi-meter property owner to allocate an eligible system’s energy credits to other meters. <P> Virtual Net Metering (VNM). Virtual Net Metering (VNM) allows energy produced by a renewable generating facility to be credited to the tenants' individual utility accounts who are connected at the same service delivery point. NEM-V vs MASH VNM. How VNM Works. Under Virtual Net Metering, the owner or operator of a multi-tenant property designates the percentage of the total metered output of the generator or generators, to be allocated to each tenant service account known as ‘Benefitting Accounts’. <P> Net Metering and Remote Net Metering. In a conventional net metering situation, a customer-sited renewable energy system is connected to the utility grid through a customer’s utility meter. Net Metering/Remote Net Metering and Interconnection. Renewable energy systems can be grid-connected (connected to the utility electrical grid), or they can work independent from a utility's electricity distribution system (off-grid). <P> About Net Metering. Net metering allows you to use the energy generated by your renewable energy system to offset your monthly power bill. Any NV Energy customer who installs a renewable energy system may be eligible for Net Metering. Net Metering Billing. Once your system is complete and a new bidirectional meter is installed, your bill will change to accommodate the additional information provided by the net meter. <P> Executive Summary. Inflexible metering procedures limit the types of customers who can invest in solar electric power, and the scale of systems. New policies for virtual net metering, community solar, and meter aggregation can make solar more economical and accessible. Meter Aggregation. What is “meter aggregation”. Meter aggregation allows for allocation of the credits from a solar electric system to meters in buildings separate from where the actual power is produced, if they are on the same customer’s utility account. <P> Under the Rhode Island net metering program, National Grid is not entitled to the system's RECs. However, under the terms of the RE Growth program, National Grid will receive title to the system's RECs. 1 I'm moving into a house with a self-generation system already installed. <P> Virtual Net Metering. Net metering is a common distributed renewable energy policy in the United States, allowing individuals to “turn back” their meter (and reduce their electric bill) by generating on-site electricity.
Virtual Net Metering (VNM) allows energy produced by a renewable generating facility to be credited to the tenants' individual utility accounts who are connected at the same service delivery point.
active tb symptoms
<P> If TB bacteria become active in the body and multiply, the person will go from having latent TB infection to being sick with TB disease. People with TB disease usually have symptoms and may spread TB bacteria to others. A cough lasting 3 weeks or longer is a symptom of <P> The classic symptoms of active TB infection are a chronic cough with blood-tinged sputum, fever, night sweats, and weight loss (the last of these giving rise to the formerly common term for the disease, consumption). Infection of other organs causes a wide range of symptoms. <P> People with latent TB don't have symptoms unless the disease becomes active. Symptoms of active TB may include: 1 A cough that brings up thick, cloudy, and sometimes bloody mucus from the lungs (called sputum) for more than 2 weeks. 2 Tiredness and weight loss. 3 Night sweats and a fever. 4 A rapid heartbeat. <P> If you have active TB, you do have symptoms and can spread the disease to others. Which specific symptoms you have will depend on whether your TB infection is in your lungs (the most common site) or in another part of your body (extrapulmonary TB). <P> Symptoms of active TB in the lungs begin gradually and develop over a period of weeks or months. You may have one or two mild symptoms and not even know that you have the disease. Common symptoms include: 1 A cough with thick, cloudy, and sometimes bloody mucus from the lungs (sputum) for more than 2 weeks. 2 Fever, chills, and night sweats. 3 Fatigue and weakness. <P> What Are the Symptoms of Active TB? Active TB begins with a bad cough (produces blood-tinged phlegm) that lasts 3 or more weeks and is accompanied by chest pain, fatigue, loss of appetite, weight loss, fever, chills and night sweating.
1 A cough with thick, cloudy, and sometimes bloody mucus from the lungs (sputum) for more than 2 weeks. 2 Fever, chills, and night sweats. 3 Fatigue and weakness.
linux how to change directory
<P> To change directories while in a *nix environment, use the cd command. Below are some basic examples of how this command can be used to change directories. Before changing directories, you need to know what directories are available in the current directory. To do this, use the ls command. For example, type the below command to only list directories in the current directory. ls-d */. See the ls command page for further information and examples of this command. Once you know the directory is available, type a command similar to the below command. For example, type the below command to only list directories in the current directory. dir /ad. See the dir command page for further information and examples of this command. In the picture is an example of the tree command that list all directories and subdirectories from your current location. <P> With the cd command if you do not specify any directory it will automatically change directory to your home, so just running cd in the Linux shell will take you to your home directory as well. Another way to get to your home directory in Linux is using the home variable $HOME. So if you type cd $HOME you will be taken to your user’s home directory as well. You can also use the $HOME variable as part of a path. <P> The directory you are standing in is called the working directory. To find the name of the working directory, use the. command. When you first log on to a Linux system, the working directory is set to your home directory. This is where you put your files. (change directory), and. (list files and directories). If you have not worked with a command line interface before, you will need to pay close attention to this lesson, since the concepts will take some getting used to. <P> cd, sometimes also available as chdir (change directory), is a command line command to change the current working directory in operating systems such as Unix, DOS, OS/2, AmigaOS (where if a bare path is given, cd is implied), Windows, and Linux. It is also available for use in shell scripts and batch files. <P> Change Directory using cd Linux Command. In this Linux tutorial for beginners, you will learn how to change directories in Linux using the cd command. The Linux cd command is very easy to use. There are a couple options you can use with the cd command, but I won’t cover them as I hardly ever use them. I will show you how to use some common variables with the Linux cd command though. When using the Linux cd command to change directory, the syntax of the Unix cd command is cd [directory] . Another way to get to your home directory in Linux is using the home variable $HOME. So if you type cd $HOME you will be taken to your user’s home directory as well. You can also use the $HOME variable as part of a path. <P> To change directories while in MS-DOS or the Windows command line use the cd command. Below are some basic examples of how this command can be used to change directories. 1 How to get to an MS-DOS prompt or Windows command line. For example, type the below command to only list directories in the current directory. dir /ad. See the dir command page for further information and examples of this command. In the picture is an example of the tree command that list all directories and subdirectories from your current location. <P> In Unix, to change a user's home directory, you must have administrator privileges. Modify the second-to-last field in the user's /etc/passwd entry. For example, if you want to move the user dvader from /disk1/dvader to /disk2/dvader, first locate his entry in /etc/passwd. <P> To change or open directories (folders) while in Microsoft Windows, open either My Computer or Windows Explorer and double-click the folder you want to move into. For example, if we wanted to move into the Boot folder of the current Windows folder shown in the picture below we would double-click the Boot folder. For example, type the below command to only list directories in the current directory. dir /ad. See the dir command page for further information and examples of this command. In the picture is an example of the tree command that list all directories and subdirectories from your current location. <P> cd ~. The cd command is used to change the current directory (i.e., the directory in which the user is currently working) in Linux and other Unix-like operating systems. It is similar to the CD and CHDIR commands in MS-DOS. cd [option] [directory]. The cd Command. The cd command is used to change the current directory (i.e., the directory in which the user is currently working) in Linux and other Unix-like operating systems.
To change directories while in a *nix environment, use the cd command. Below are some basic examples of how this command can be used to change directories. Before changing directories, you need to know what directories are available in the current directory.
acre definition
<P> 1. A unit of area in the US Customary System, used in land and sea floor measurement and equal to 160 square rods, 4,840 square yards, or 43,560 square feet. See Table at measurement. 2. a. acres Property in the form of land; estate. 1. a common variable unit of land measure, now equal in the U.S. and Great Britain to 43,560 square feet or 1/640 square mile (4047 square meters). 2. acres, a. lands; landed property: wooded acres. <P> 1 British English: acre An acre is a unit of area equal to 4840 square yards or approximately 4047 square metres.The property has two acres of land.ˈeɪkə NOUN. Translations for 'acre'. 1 British English: acre An acre is a unit of area equal to 4840 square yards or approximately 4047 square metres.The property has two acres of land.ˈeɪkə NOUN. 2 Arabic: 3 َكْر. 4 Brazilian Portuguese: acre. 5 Chinese: 英亩. 6 Croatian: jutro. 7 Czech: akr. <P> One acre equals 0.0015625 square miles, 4,840 square yards, 43,560 square feet or about 4,047 square metres (0.405 hectares) (see below). Since the difference between the US survey acre and international acre is only about a quarter of the size of an A4 sheet of paper (0.016 square metres, 160 square centimetres or 24.8 square inches), it is usually not important which one is being discussed. <P> Full Definition of ACRE. 1. a archaic: a field especially of arable land or pastureland b plural: lands, estate. 2. : any of various units of area; specifically: a unit in the United States and England equal to 43,560 square feet (4047 square meters) — see weight table. <P> : a measure of land area in the U.S. and Britain that equals 4,840 square yards (about 4,047 square meters). : any of various units of area; specifically: a unit in the United States and England equal to 43,560 square feet (4047 square meters) — see weight table. <P> The acre is a unit of land area used in the imperial and US customary systems. It is defined as the area of 1 chain (22 yards) by 1 furlong (220 yards), which is exactly equal to 1⁄640 of a square mile, approximately 4,046.856 m 2, or about 40% of a hectare. Since the difference between the US survey acre and international acre is only about a quarter of the size of an A4 sheet of paper (0.016 square metres, 160 square centimetres or 24.8 square inches), it is usually not important which one is being discussed. <P> LINK / CITE ADD TO WORD LIST. noun. The definition of an acre is a unit of measure that is equal to 43,560 square feet or a square which measures 208.71 feet by 208.71 feet. A standard National Football League field not including the end zones is an example of something that is just over an acre. (plural acres). 1 A unit of surface area (symbol a. or ac.), originally as much as a yoke of oxen could plough in a day; later defined as an area 1 chain (22 yd) by 1 furlong (220 yd), or 4,840 square yards. 2 Equivalent to about 4,046.86 square metres. ( 3 in the plural, informal) A large amount (of area). <P> noun. 1 A unit of land area equal to 4,840 square yards (0.405 hectare): he farms 1,200 acres in East Yorkshire [as modifier]: a 15-acre estate. More example sentences. 1 We want to fence off a quarter of an acre of our land to create a building plot with access from our existing driveway <P> The definition of an acre is a unit of measure that is equal to 43,560 square feet or a square which measures 208.71 feet by 208.71 feet. (plural acres). 1 A unit of surface area (symbol a. or ac.), originally as much as a yoke of oxen could plough in a day; later defined as an area 1 chain (22 yd) by 1 furlong (220 yd), or 4,840 square yards. 2 Equivalent to about 4,046.86 square metres. ( 3 in the plural, informal) A large amount (of area). <P> acre. 1 a unit of land area in the FPS system, equal to 4,840 square yards or 160 square rods (0.4047 hectare or 4,046.8564 square meters): abbrev. ac. 2 specific holdings in land; lands. 3 Informal a large quantity. (plural acres). 1 A unit of surface area (symbol a. or ac.), originally as much as a yoke of oxen could plough in a day; later defined as an area 1 chain (22 yd) by 1 furlong (220 yd), or 4,840 square yards. 2 Equivalent to about 4,046.86 square metres. ( 3 in the plural, informal) A large amount (of area).
The acre is a unit of land area used in the imperial and US customary systems.
hours for montgomery county libraries
<P> For help locating government information, both within our libraries and online, contact our librarians in person, by phone 215-641-6594, instant message (mccclibrarian) or email This email address is being protected from spambots. <P> The fee is used to make available legal materials to local judges, litigants, and lawyers; and to staff the Law Library. The County provides the space and maintains the Law Library. The Montgomery County Law Library was renovated in 2011. <P> The Brendlinger Library at Montgomery County Community College is a congressionally designated depository for U.S. Government documents. Public access to the government documents collection is guaranteed by public law (Title 44 United States Code). <P> The library will close at 6pm on Saturday, October 10, and is expected to reopen early next year (2016). http://ow.ly/SUkn4. Montgomery County Public Libraries-Kensington Park LibraryInformation about the Kensington Park Library, including location, directions, hours, and events.montgomerycountymd.gov. Montgomery County Public Libraries-Kensington Park Library. <P> 301 North Thompson, Suite 105, Conroe, Texas 77301. Phone: 936-539-7960 Pro Se Services: 936-539-7976 Fax: 936-538-8058. Monday-Friday 8 a.m. to 5 p.m. The Montgomery County Law Library makes available legal print and online resources to local judges, litigants, and attorneys. The Law Library is open to the general public. Members of the general public are welcome to come in to do their own research. There is no fee to use the legal resources on premises.
Monday-Friday 8 a.m. to 5 p.m.
what is the difference between weight & mass
<P> Publisert 11. mai 2014. The difference between weight and mass is that mass is always a constant at any place and time while weight depends on gravity at the place. Mass is measured using balance while weight is measured using scale. The other difference is that mass can never be zero but weight can be. <P> Mass is not the same as weight, even though we often calculate an object's mass by measuring its weight with a spring scale instead of comparing it to known masses. An object on the Moon would weigh less than it would on Earth because of the lower gravity, but it would still have the same mass. The mass of an object determines its acceleration in the presence of an applied force. This phenomenon is called inertia. According to Newton's second law of motion, if a body of fixed mass m is subjected to a single force F, its acceleration a is given by F / m. <P> Mass gives matter its inertia and the inertia of a lump of matter is the same, no matter where it is in the universe. Weight: Weight is a measure of the heaviness of an object-which is the result of the force of attraction between to lumps of matter (mass). <P> By Anne Marie Helmenstine, Ph.D. The difference between mass and weight is that mass is the amount of matter in a material and weight is a measure of how the force of gravity acts upon that mass. Mass is the measure of the amount of matter in a body. Mass is denoted using m or M. <P> Weight is an extensive physical property because it increases when the object size is getting higher. Difference between Density and Weight. 1. Weight is a measure of the amount of matter in an object, whereas density measures the amount of matter in a unit volume. 2. Density is an intensive physical property, whereas weight is an extensive property. 3. Weight is measured in Newtons, whereas density is measured in kilograms per cubic meter <P> An example of mass and weight-the moon. In the below example, we've featured an astronaut on earth and on the moon. The Moon's gravity is much less than the Earth's gravity-approximately one sixth. So, a 100 kg astronaut weighs 980N on Earth. On the Moon, the astronaut would weigh only 162.2N. <P> Key Differences: Mass is the amount of matter in an object and it is always the same, while weight is the force of gravity on an object and constantly differs. Mass and Weight are two terms that are often used interchangeably in everyday usage. <P> Weight is a force caused by gravity. The weight of an object is the gravitational force between the object and the Earth. The more mass the object has the greater its weight will be. Weight is a force, so it's measured in newtons. On the surface of the Earth an object with a mass of 1 kg has a weight of about 10 N. <P> There is a common perception that weight and mass are basically the same thing. This video aims to tease out the difference between mass and weight by asking people what makes a car difficult to push. The standard answer is that it is difficult to push because it's heavy.
The difference between mass and weight is that mass is the amount of matter in a material and weight is a measure of how the force of gravity acts upon that mass. Mass is the measure of the amount of matter in a body.
what type of receptor is responsible for sense of smell
<P> 1 Odorant molecules (molecules that we can smell) dissolve in the mucus and. 2 bind to receptors on the cilia. 3 These are 7-pass transmembrane proteins. 4 Binding of the odorant activates a G protein coupled to the receptor on its cytoplasmic side. 1 bind to receptors on the cilia. 2 These are 7-pass transmembrane proteins. 3 Binding of the odorant activates a G protein coupled to the receptor on its cytoplasmic side. 4 This activates adenylyl cyclase, an enzyme embedded in the plasma membrane of <P> Taste and Smell Receptors. Chemoreceptors are responsible for the detection of chemicals in our environment. From the ability to taste and enjoy a piece of candy to the pleasure of perfume, these receptors transmit the information. Sweet, salty and sour tastes are dependent on these receptors. <P> Smell. The nose is the organ responsible for the sense of smell. The cavity of the nose is lined with mucous membranes that have smell receptors connected to the olfactory nerve. The smells themselves consist of vapors of various substances. Aristotle (384 BC - 322 BC) is credited with the traditional classification of the five sense organs: sight, smell, taste, touch, and hearing. As far back as the 1760's, the famous philosopher Immanuel Kant proposed that our knowledge of the outside world depends on our modes of perception. <P> The chemoreceptors of taste and smell are closely related; in fact one receptor type, the Lewis acid receptor is common to both the taste (gustatory) and smell (olfactory) modalities. <P> The sense of smell, just like the sense of taste, is a chemical sense. They are called chemical senses because they detect chemicals in the environment, with the difference being that smell works at dramatically larger distances than that of taste. The process of smelling goes more or less like this: The olfactory bulb is one of the structures of the limbic system and a very ancient part of the brain. As mentioned in the previous description of the olfactory process, the information captured by the sense of smell goes from the olfactory bulb to other structures of the limbic system. <P> The sensory receptors involved in taste and smell contain receptor molecules that bind to specific chemicals. Odor receptors in olfactory receptor neurons, for example, are activated by interacting with molecular structures on the odor molecule. Similarly, taste receptors (gustatory receptors) in taste buds interact with chemicals in food to produce an action potential. <P> 1 The cilia of the sensory neurons are immersed in a layer of mucus. 2 Odorant molecules (molecules that we can smell) dissolve in the mucus and. 3 bind to receptors on the cilia. 4 These are 7-pass transmembrane proteins. 5 Binding of the odorant activates a G protein coupled to the receptor on its cytoplasmic side. 1 bind to receptors on the cilia. 2 These are 7-pass transmembrane proteins. 3 Binding of the odorant activates a G protein coupled to the receptor on its cytoplasmic side. 4 This activates adenylyl cyclase, an enzyme embedded in the plasma membrane of <P> Olfaction, along with taste, is a form of chemoreception. The chemicals themselves that activate the olfactory system, in general at very low concentrations, are called odorants. Although taste and smell are separate sensory systems in land animals, water-dwelling organisms often have one chemical sense. The binding of the ligand (odor molecule or odorant) to the receptor leads to an action potential in the receptor neuron, via a second messenger pathway, depending on the organism. <P> Taste is the ability to respond to dissolved molecules and ions called tastants. Humans detect taste with taste receptor cells. These are clustered in taste buds and scattered in other areas of the body. Each taste bud has a pore that opens out to the surface of the tongue enabling molecules and ions taken into the mouth to reach the receptor cells inside. 1 salty. 1 These are transmembrane proteins which. 2 admit the ions that give rise to the sensation of salty; 3 bind to the molecules that give rise to the sensations of sweet, bitter, and umami. 4 A single taste cell seems to be restricted to expressing only a single type of receptor (except for bitter receptors). <P> Olfaction or the sense of smell involves chemicals. The receptors for smell are the olfactory hair cells located on the roof of each nasal cavity in a path of cells called the olfactory epithelium or membrane. Odors or scents chemical vapors. Chemoreceptor cells (neurons) perceive the chemicals as they vaporize.
Sensory receptor
what is good eye pressure
<P> The term ocular hypertension usually refers to any situation in which the pressure inside the eye, called intraocular pressure, is higher than normal. Eye pressure is measured in millimeters of mercury (mm Hg). Normal eye pressure ranges from 10-21 mm Hg. Ocular hypertension is an eye pressure of greater than 21 mm Hg. <P> Normal intraocular pressures average between 12-22 mm Hg. The “mm Hg” refers to millimeters of mercury, which is a scale for recording the eye pressure. Eye pressure can vary hourly, daily and weekly. Many factors can affect the up and down changes in a person's intraocular pressure. These daily changes are normal. Usually, the higher the pressure, the more risk to the optic nerve. Some optic nerves develop glaucoma even at low pressures (this is called normal-tension glaucoma) so it is important to have the optic nerve examined no matter what the pressure may be. <P> On this page: 5 causes of high eye pressure • High eye pressure treatment. Ocular hypertension means the pressure in your eyes your intraocular pressure (IOP) is higher than normal. Left untreated, high eye pressure can cause glaucoma and permanent vision loss in some individuals. <P> The term ocular hypertension usually refers to any situation in which the pressure inside the eye, called intraocular pressure, is higher than normal. Eye pressure is measured in millimeters of mercury (mm Hg). Normal eye pressure ranges from 10-21 mm Hg. <P> Intraocular pressure (IOP) is the fluid pressure inside the eye. Tonometry is the method eye care professionals use to determine this. IOP is an important aspect in the evaluation of patients at risk from glaucoma. Most tonometers are calibrated to measure pressure in millimeters of mercury (mmHg). Intraocular pressure is mainly determined by the coupling of the production of aqueous humor and the drainage of aqueous humor mainly through the trabecular meshwork located in the anterior chamber angle. <P> Glaucoma is usually high pressure inside the eye that damages the optic nerve and can result in permanent vision loss. Normal-tension glaucoma (also called low-tension glaucoma) is a unique condition in which optic nerve damage and vision loss have occurred despite a normal pressure inside the eye. <P> Glaucoma is a multi-factorial, complex eye disease with specific characteristics such as optic nerve damage and visual field loss. While increased pressure inside the eye (called intraocular pressure or IOP) is usually present, even patients with normal range IOP can develop glaucoma. When the IOP is higher than normal but the person does not show signs of glaucoma, this is referred to as ocular hypertension. High eye pressure alone does not cause glaucoma. However, it is a significant risk factor. <P> Measuring Eye Pressure. Eye pressure is measured in millimeters of mercury (mm Hg). Normal eye pressure ranges from 12-22 mm Hg, and eye pressure of greater than 22 mm Hg is considered higher than normal. When the IOP is higher than normal but the person does not show signs of glaucoma, this is referred to as ocular hypertension. High eye pressure alone does not cause glaucoma. However, it is a significant risk factor. <P> Eye pressure is measured in millimeters of mercury (mm Hg). Normal eye pressure ranges from 10 to 21 mm Hg. When a person's pressure is higher than 21 mm Hg, they are at an increased risk for developing glaucoma. Some people can tolerate pressures slightly higher than normal without developing glaucoma
From 10 to 21 mm Hg.
what does it mean when a disease is eradicated
<P> It is sometimes confused with elimination, which describes either the reduction of an infectious disease's prevalence in a regional population to zero, or the reduction of the global prevalence to a negligible amount. Studies of measles in the pre-vaccination era led to the concept of the Critical community size, the size of the population below which a pathogen ceases to circulate. Use of vaccination programmes before the introduction of an eradication campaign can reduce the susceptible population. The disease to be eradicated should be clearly identifiable, and an accurate diagnostic tool should exis <P> Can it be treated? There is no cure for smallpox, but vaccination can be used very effectively to prevent infection from developing if given during a period of up to four days after a person has been exposed to the virus. This is the strategy that was used to eradicate the disease during the 20th century. Smallpox is an ancient disease caused by the variola virus. Early symptoms include high fever and fatigue. The virus then produces a characteristic rash, particularly on the face, arms and legs. <P> Smallpox. Smallpox is a disfiguring and potentially deadly infectious disease caused by the Variola major virus. Before smallpox was eradicated, there were two forms of the disease worldwide: Variola major, the deadly disease, and Variola minor, a much milder form. According to some health experts, over the centuries smallpox was responsible for more deaths than all other infectious diseases combined <P> So far only one disease, smallpox, has been eradicated by vaccines, saving approximately 5 million lives annually. Polio could be next. Over 80% of the world's children are now being immunized against the polio virus, and the annual number of cases has been cut from 400,000 in 1980 to 90,000 in the mid-1990s. <P> There is a vaccine against smallpox and it was a key tool in the eradication of the disease. The vaccine does not contain the Variola virus which causes smallpox, but a closely related virus called vaccinia. Smallpox is an ancient disease caused by the variola virus. Early symptoms include high fever and fatigue. The virus then produces a characteristic rash, particularly on the face, arms and legs. <P> The Dahlem Workshop discussed the hierarchy of possible public health interventions in dealing with infectious diseases, which were deflned as control, elimination of disease, elimination of infections, eradication, and extinction. Also in early 1997, WHO listed leprosy, onchocerciasis, and Chagas disease as being candidates for elimination as public health problems within ten years. With this background, the Dahlem Workshop on the Eradication of Infectious Diseases was held in March 1997 (2). <P> Selection of infectious diseases for eradication is based on rigorous criteria, as both biological and technical features determine whether a pathogenic organism is (at least potentially) eradicable. Studies of measles in the pre-vaccination era led to the concept of the Critical community size, the size of the population below which a pathogen ceases to circulate. Use of vaccination programmes before the introduction of an eradication campaign can reduce the susceptible population. The disease to be eradicated should be clearly identifiable, and an accurate diagnostic tool should exist <P> If a particular disease is eliminated worldwide, it’s considered eradicated. To date, only one infectious disease that affects humans has been eradicated.* In 1980, after decades of efforts by the World Health Organization, the World Health Assembly endorsed a statement declaring smallpox eradicated. The eradication of smallpox raised hopes that the same could be accomplished for other diseases, with many named as possibilities: polio, mumps, and dracunculiasis (Guinea worm disease), among others. Malaria has also been considered, and its incidence has been reduced drastically in many countries
If a particular disease is eliminated worldwide, it’s considered eradicated.
partial toll road meaning
<P> Partial toll roads mean that the road has a section that is a toll road, and a section that is not. For instance, in the state of Illinois, I80 is a toll road as you enter from Indiana, but once you are past Chicago, it is no longer a toll road. <P> Answer by Xquizzyt1. Confidence votes 181. It means that there is a part of the road-if you're travelling on it, that will require you to pay a toll, and part of it that will not. Like on I87, if you're just driving on it through the Bronx, you won't have to pay a toll, but if you're taking it towards upstate, there's a point where you will. That's all it means. On the flip side, there are other roads, like the NJ Turnpike, where no matter where you enter or exit, you will have to pay a toll. Those are not partial toll roads. They are plain ol' <P> It means that there is a part of the road-if you're travelling on it, that will require you to pay a toll, and part of it that will not. Like on I87, if you're just driving on it through the Bronx, you won't have to pay a toll, but if you're taking it towards upstate, there's a point where you will. That's all it means. <P> In other instances, a toll road was built, and the Feds decided to add to it when making the Interstate system, so the original part of the road is a toll road and the part that was build with Federal money is not. Source(s): wizard8100@sbcglobal.net · 8 years ago. <P> It means that there is a part of the road-if you're travelling on it, that will require you to pay a toll, and part of it that will not. Like on I87, if you're just dr … iving on it through the Bronx, you won't have to pay a toll, but if you're taking it towards upstate, there's a point where you will.
The road has a section that is a toll road, and a section that is not.
what are the structures involved in removing waste from the body
<P> Urea: Chemical compound of carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, and oxygen produced as waste by cells that break down protein. Ureter: Tube that carries urine from a kidney to the urinary bladder. Urethra: Duct leading from the urinary bladder to outside the body through which urine is eliminated. <P> The waste removal system, or excretory system, is actually shared by several body systems. The main contributor to excretion is the gastrointestinal tract, GI tract. It is made mainly of epithelial tissue with a mucosal lining and it is in the shape of a tube. <P> The excretory system is a system of organs that removes waste products from the body. When cells in the body break down proteins (large molecules that are essential to the structure and functioning of all living cells), they produce wastes such as urea (a chemical compound of carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, and oxygen). <P> The respiratory system provides oxygen to the body’s cells while removing carbon dioxide, a waste product that can be lethal if allowed to accumulate. There are 3 major parts of the respiratory system: the airway, the lungs, and the muscles of respiration. <P> There are two systems that remove wastes from the body. The lower digestive tract (the colon) removes solid wastes and sodium whiles it retains water. The urinary system remov … es waste from the blood by way of the kidneys. <P> Although the student fails to name any parts of a cell involved in the removal of metabolic waste, two body systems (circulatory and excretory) are identified. A general description of how harmful waste products are removed (perspiration, and breathing) is also provided. <P> Other systems and organs in the body also play a part in excretion. The respiratory system eliminates water vapor and carbon dioxide through exhalation (the process of breathing out). The digestive system removes feces, the solid undigested wastes of digestion, by a process called defecation or elimination. <P> Describe how harmful waste products are removed from the body. In your response, be sure to. 1 identify the parts of a cell that are involved in waste removal. 2 identify the body systems involved in the removal of waste products. 3 explain how the body systems work together to remove waste
There are two systems that remove wastes from the body. The lower digestive tract (the colon) removes solid wastes and sodium whiles it retains water.
what did colin fry die of
<P> PA. The TV medium Colin Fry has died of lung cancer aged 53. Fry, who appeared on Most Haunted and presented the popular UKTV show 6ixth Sense, passed away in hospital in the early hours of Monday morning, his management said in a statement on his website. He was diagnosed with terminal cancer in April. Colin Fry, the TV medium and spiritualist, who appeared on Most Haunted, Psychic Private Eyes and 6ixth Sense With Colin Fry, has died of lung cancer on 25 August, aged 53. <P> The TV medium, Colin Fry, has died at the age of 53. The psychic, who appeared on ‘Most Haunted’, ‘6ixth Sense With Colin Fry’ and ‘Psychic Private Eyes, had been battling lung cancer. Colin's management released a statement confirming his death on his official website. Colin Fry (1962-2015). <P> 12:29PM BST 25 Aug 2015. Follow. Colin Fry, the television medium, has died at the age of 53. The spiritualist-who appeared on Most Haunted, Psychic Private Eyes and 6ixth Sense With Colin Fry-was diagnosed with terminal lung cancer in April this year. Fellow TV psychic medium Derek Acorah led the tributes to Fry on Twitter: <P> Colin Fry has passed away (Picture: Ken McKay/ITV/REX Shutterstock). Reverend Colin Fry has died at the age of 53. The TV medium known for his appearances in Most Haunted, Psychic Private Eyes and 6ixth Sense With Colin Fry, was suffering from terminal lung cancer. <P> Image caption Colin Fry was diagnosed with cancer earlier this year. TV medium Colin Fry has died at the age of 53, his management has announced. The spiritualist, whose shows included Most Haunted and 6ixth Sense With Colin Fry, was diagnosed with terminal lung cancer in April. He cancelled his 6ixth Sense Anniversary Tour after his diagnosis. <P> 7:50PM BST 30 Aug 2015. Comments. Colin Fry, who has died aged 53, was a self-proclaimed medium who relayed messages from “the dead” to audiences in Australia, New Zealand, Norway and Japan; on British satellite television he featured in such “paranormal reality” shows as Most Haunted and 6ixth Sense. <P> Colin Fry, the TV medium has died after battling terminal lung cancer Colin Fry. TV medium Colin Fry, who appeared in shows including Most Haunted and 6ixth Sense with Colin Fry has died at the age of 53. The spiritualist's manager David Hahn, said: He had a very big heart. Since the diagnosis, he'd been very upbeat. Because of what he does, he had no fear of death.. <P> Colin Fry, a psychic and medium who appeared on Most Haunted, has died at the age of 53. The self-professed paranormal expert appeared on a number of TV shows, including 6ixth Sense With Colin Fry – but was diagnosed with terminal lung cancer earlier this year. <P> Colin Fry. TV medium Colin Fry has died aged 53. The star of Most Haunted, 6ixth Sense with Colin Fry and Psychic Private Eyes, has lost his battle with terminal lung cancer.
Lung cancer
what kind of toxin is Cadmium
<P> Cadmium. Cadmium (Cd) is a soft, malleable, bluish white metal found in zinc ores, and to a much lesser extent, in the cadmium mineral greenockite. In 2011, US production of cadmium was estimated at 600 metric tons, down approximately 40% from the production levels 20 years ago (1992). Electroplating, metal machining, welding and painting are operations associated with cadmium exposure. Workers involved in landfill operations, the recycling of electronic parts, or the recycling of plastics may be exposed to cadmium. <P> Introduction. The term heavy metal refers to any metallic chemical element that has a relatively high density and is toxic or poisonous at low concentrations. Examples of heavy metals include mercury (Hg), cadmium (Cd), arsenic (As), chromium (Cr), thallium (Tl), and lead (Pb). <P> Even though cadmium and its compounds may be toxic in certain forms and concentrations, the British Pharmaceutical Codex from 1907 states that cadmium iodide was used as a medication to treat enlarged joints, scrofulous glands, and chilblains. Cadmium and its congeners are not always considered transition metals, in that they do not have partly filled d or f electron shells in the elemental or common oxidation states. The average concentration of cadmium in Earth's crust is between 0.1 and 0.5 parts per million (ppm). <P> This soft, bluish-white metal is chemically similar to the two other stable metals in group 12, zinc and mercury. Like zinc, it prefers oxidation state +2 in most of its compounds and like mercury it shows a low melting point compared to transition metals. Cadmium and its congeners are not always considered transition metals, in that they do not have partly filled d or f electron shells in the elemental or common oxidation states. The average concentration of cadmium in Earth's crust is between 0.1 and 0.5 parts per million (ppm). <P> The expanding Ni-Cd battery recycling industry is a concern for cadmium exposure. Electroplating, metal machining, welding and painting are operations associated with cadmium exposure. Workers involved in landfill operations, the recycling of electronic parts, or the recycling of plastics may be exposed to cadmium. <P> Pure cadmium is a soft, silver-white metal found naturally in small amounts in soil. Cadmium usually combines with other things to form different compounds. Some of these compounds affect the body more than others. Cadmium does not have a definite taste or odor. Cadmium is not mined, but it is a by-product of the smelting of other metals such as zinc, lead, and copper. Cadmium is used in nickel-cadmium rechargeable batteries and for metal plating. It will explain what cadmium is, where it is found, how it can affect your health, and what you can do to prevent or reduce exposure to it. Cadmium is released into the environment from mining and metal processing operations, burning fuels, making and using phosphate fertilizers, and disposing of metal products. <P> Hydrated cadmium sulfate (3CdSO 4 ·5H 2 O), one of cadmium's compounds, is used in a device called a Weston cell, a type of battery that produces a precise voltage used to calibrate medical and laboratory equipment. Cadmium sulfide (CdS), another cadmium compound, is a yellow powder that is used as a pigment. Other cadmium compounds are used in the phosphors of black and white television sets and in the blue and green phosphors in color television sets. <P> Cadmium is a soft, malleable, ductile, bluish-white divalent metal. It is similar in many respects to zinc but forms complex compounds. Unlike most other metals, cadmium is resistant to corrosion and as a result it is used as a protective layer when deposited on other metals. Cadmium and its congeners are not always considered transition metals, in that they do not have partly filled d or f electron shells in the elemental or common oxidation states. The average concentration of cadmium in Earth's crust is between 0.1 and 0.5 parts per million (ppm). <P> Cadmium is used extensively in electroplating, although the nature of the operation does not generally lead to overexposures. Cadmium is also found in some industrial paints and may represent a hazard when sprayed. Operations involving removal of cadmium paints by scraping or blasting may pose a significant hazard. The Cadmium (Cd) is an extremely toxic industrial and environmental pollutant classified as a human carcinogen [Group 1 – according to International Agency for Research on Cancer; Group 2a – according to Environmental Protection Agency (EPA); and 1B carcinogen classified by European Chemical Agency.
It is a soft, malleable, ductile, bluish-white divalent metal.