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how often should puppies get shots

<P> A puppy can be vaccinated for Parvovirus as early as 5 weeks. A combination vaccine (5-way) should be given at 6 and 9 weeks. At 12 and 15 weeks of age your puppy will need another combination vaccine, possibly a 7-way, as well as a rabies vaccine. Adult dogs will also require a booster shot once a year <P> A second vaccination is recommended after 1 year, then boosters every 3 years. Core dog vaccine. Distemper. At least 3 doses, given between 6 and 16 weeks of age. 2 doses, given 3-4 weeks apart. Puppies need a booster 1 year after completing their initial series, then all dogs need a booster every 3 years or more often. <P> Puppies need to be dewormed and need to be given their shots between the age of seven to nine weeks, twelve to thirteen weeks and sixteen to eighteen weeks to make sure that they are properly protected against distemper, canine adenovirus and canine parvovirus. This is a vaccine that is most often given to dogs. Whenever we go to board our dog, we are always asked if he has his Bordetella shots or not. Bordetella is also known as the kennel-cough shot. Kennel-cough is very mild and lasts for a short period of time. <P> How often they should get them, and how the shots should be given (singly or as combination vaccines). Although the AAHA and AVMA still recommend yearly boosters for all dogs. A lot of research shows that this is not strictly necessary-and can even cause health problems. If you've adopted an older pup or adult dog and don't know their puppy shots history, then the minimum vaccinations you'll need to get them are against Distemper, Parvo and Hepatitis. He/she will need two rounds of shots, given 3 weeks apart. <P> Puppies should receive their first canine distemper, canine adenovirus (infectious canine hepatitis) and canine parvovirus at 7-9 weeks of age, then at 12-13 weeks of age, and finally at 16-18 weeks of age to insure they are solidly protected against these diseases. We are just luck that dogs don't get the number of vaccination-associated tumors that cats do. The exceptions are vaccine against leptospirosis, which seem to only last a year and vaccination against kennel cough (which last six months to a year) and vaccinations against Lyme disease. <P> Consult with your veterinarian to determine which vaccinations your puppy should receive, and how often. Drs. Foster and Smith prefer to vaccinate puppies with a combination vaccine at six weeks of age initially, with boosters given every three weeks until the puppy is about sixteen weeks of age. We feel that this schedule will help protect the widest range of dogs <P> I just got a puppy and I cannot for the life of me remember how often they need shots. He is a Saint Bernard and is eight weeks old. He had his First shot May 24, 2007. It goes by a number of names, including DHPP, DA2PP, and “five way”. Puppies should get this vaccine every three to four weeks, starting at 6 – 8 weeks of age, and ending at 12 – 16 weeks of age. In your case, I’d recommend having your pet vaccinated immediately (or at least within the next week), and then following up with two more injections at monthly intervals <P> It’s almost impossible to get a group of vets to agree on just how often adult pets need shots. However, almost all of us agree that it is critical for puppies and kittens to get a series of at least three shots before they are 16 weeks old. It goes by a number of names, including DHPP, DA2PP, and “five way”. Puppies should get this vaccine every three to four weeks, starting at 6 – 8 weeks of age, and ending at 12 – 16 weeks of age. In your case, I’d recommend having your pet vaccinated immediately (or at least within the next week), and then following up with two more injections at monthly intervals <P> Timing. Different veterinarians have different protocols about the timing of vaccinations. Most veterinarians recommend that a puppy receive his first parvovirus vaccination when he is 8 weeks old. The second vaccination is given in three to four weeks, about age 11 to 12 weeks. A third vaccination is given in three to four more weeks, about age 14 to 15 weeks. A vaccination is sometimes given three to four weeks later, about age 17 to 18 weeks. Most all veterinarians agree the final vaccination in the series should be given after the puppy is 4 months old. Once the puppy series is complete, your dog should received a booster vaccination each year.

A puppy can be vaccinated for Parvovirus as early as 5 weeks. A combination vaccine (5-way) should be given at 6 and 9 weeks. At 12 and 15 weeks of age your puppy will need another combination vaccine.

how much is a current postage stamp

<P> USPS Postage Rates. USPS ® Rates are determined based on a combination of weight, mail class, and shape. For certain services, discounted pricing is available for customers who purchase from online PC Postage services such as Stamps.com. Below is a summary of the latest USPS prices: <P> 1 The discounted “Metered Mail” category for First Class Mail Letters (1 oz.), which includes online postage providers and postage meters, will increase from $0.48 to $0.485 in 2015. 2 First Class Flats (1 oz.) will stay the same at $0.98 in 2015. 3 Each additional ounce will cost $0.22 (up one cent from 2014). 1 First Class Package Service will see an increase of 5.1% in 2015. 2 Commercial Base (online postage) rates will start at $2.04 (1 oz.), up $0.11 compared to 2014. 3 Priority Mail rates are NOT INCREASING in 2015. 4 Commercial Base (online postage) rates will continue to start at $5.05. <P> Recommendation: Buy Forever Stamps! Welcome! Price of a Stamp is a simple reference site which keeps track of the current stamp price. Bookmark it if you find it handy — it’s always kept up with the most current info from the USPS. The price of a stamp increased by three cents to 49 cents, effective January 26, 2014. Of course, if you own “forever” stamps, the value of your stamp goes up automatically when the rates increase, so there’s not much to worry about. Stamps work with single-piece First-Class Mail — basically, a standard letter. <P> The figure is the exact amount that was effective January 26, 2014 as the result of a $0.03 increase from $0.46. Any extra ounce(s) are subject to a fee of $0.22 per added ounce as of May 31st, 2015 (previously $0.21 per oz). Another prior rise in rates occurred January 27, 2013 when the price of a first class letter sent through the United States Post Office went up $0.01 to $0.46. Before this, there was an increase January 22, 2012, when first class stamps increased a penny to 45 cents for the same domestic delivery. That announcement followed a yet former increase that occurred approximately 2 years and 7 months prior. <P> Letters destined for Canada and Mexico-for the (1) ounce first class letter cost $1.20 as of May 31st, 2015 that was a 5 cent hike from $1.15 effective January 26 `014 with the global forever stamp (then applying to all international destinations forward). Before this, there was an increase January 22, 2012, when first class stamps increased a penny to 45 cents for the same domestic delivery. That announcement followed a yet former increase that occurred approximately 2 years and 7 months prior. <P> And the price of a first class (1) ounce letter sent through the United States Post Office remains at $0.49 for letters mailed within the United States. The fee will continue to apply and extend for some indeterminate period of time. Before this, there was an increase January 22, 2012, when first class stamps increased a penny to 45 cents for the same domestic delivery. That announcement followed a yet former increase that occurred approximately 2 years and 7 months prior. <P> 1 Each additional ounce will cost $0.22 (up one cent from 2014). 2 The discounted “Metered Mail” category for First Class Mail Letters (1 oz.), which includes online postage providers and postage meters, will increase from $0.48 to $0.485 in 2015. 1 First Class Package Service will see an increase of 5.1% in 2015. 2 Commercial Base (online postage) rates will start at $2.04 (1 oz.), up $0.11 compared to 2014. 3 Priority Mail rates are NOT INCREASING in 2015. 4 Commercial Base (online postage) rates will continue to start at $5.05. <P> Summary of the 2015 Postage Rate Increase: 1 First Class Mail Letters (1 oz.) will remain the same at $0.49 when purchased at the Post Office. 2 Each additional ounce will cost $0.22 (up one cent from 2014). 1 First Class Package Service will see an increase of 5.1% in 2015. 2 Commercial Base (online postage) rates will start at $2.04 (1 oz.), up $0.11 compared to 2014. 3 Priority Mail rates are NOT INCREASING in 2015. 4 Commercial Base (online postage) rates will continue to start at $5.05. <P> Price of a Stamp. The current price of a first class stamp is 49 cents. A domestic first class letter (1 oz.) is 49 cents. The price of each additional ounce is 21 cents. It will cost you 34 cents to send a domestic postcard

49 cents.

how to remove header from second page of document

<P> To start numbering with 1, click Page Number in the Header & Footer group, then click Format Page Numbers, and then click Start at and enter 1. 4. To return to the body of your document, click Close Header and Footer on the Design tab (under Header & Footer Tools). <P> How to Remove a Header from the Second Page. When you create a header for your document using Microsoft Office, the program adds the header to all pages of your document by default. However, you can remove the header from the second page of your document by making changes to your Header and Footer settings. <P> Click Open.. Browse to the document with the header to remove and double-click the file name. The document opens in a new Word window. Scroll to the second page of the document. Double-click anywhere within the top margin/header area of the second page to turn on the header editor. The header appears, surrounded by dotted lines and a new tab opens on the top of the workspace. Highlight the header information with the cursor and press the Delete key on the keyboard. <P> Select a header style for your document and enter the text for the header. Click “Close Header and Footer.”. Move your cursor to beginning of the second page of the document. Be sure your cursor is in front of the first letter on the page you want a different header. Click “Page Layout” in the ribbon. Click “Breaks” in the Page Setup section. You will get a drop-down menu of breaks you can do in your document. <P> 1 open microsoft word and the document you want to work with double click the first page at the top of the page and above the words to open the header area of the document click header in the ribbon under the header footer section select a header style for your document and enter the text fo <P> Double-click the header on the second page of your document. Notice in your header the words “Same as Previous” appear in the far right corner. When you double-clicked the header section, you brought up the Design menu in the ribbon. In the Navigation section, you should see a Link to Previous option. <P> 2. Click on the section of the document where you want a new page started without the header. For example, if you want the header removed from the second page, place your cursor at the beginning of the second page. 3. Click on the tab labeled “Page Layout,” then click on “Breaks. ”. 4. Click on “Next Page.

When you create a header for your document using Microsoft Office, the program adds the header to all pages of your document by default. However, you can remove the header from the second page of your document by making changes to your Header and Footer settings.

what conditions do cocoa beans grow in

<P> Cocoa beans grow best where there are fairly constant, warm or even hot temperatures all year round (usually in the 65 to 90 degree F range). For cocoa beans to thrive, they need high humidity and a lot of rainfall (from about 40 to 100 inches per year). Cocoa beans grow poorly in any kind of cold or drought conditions. Additionally, cocoa beans grow best where there is a lot of light. Cocoa beans grow into beautiful trees; these trees grow most successfully in a narrow band called the Cocoa Belt or the Chocolate Belt; this band extends up to 20 degrees of latitude north and south of the equator. <P> Pods containing cocoa beans grow from the trunk and branches of the cocoa tree. Harvesting involves removing ripe pods from the trees and opening them to extract the wet beans. The pods are harvested manually by making a clean cut through the stalk with a well sharpened blade. <P> Cocoa beans grow on a tree called Theobroma cacao and are the base ingredient for making chocolate. The relatively small tree is native to the tropical regions of Central and South America and it thrives in moist, shady areas of the rain forest. <P> Cocoa Growing Countries. The cocoa tree is a native of the Amazon basin and other tropical areas of South and Central America, where wild varieties still grow in the forests, but the cocoa growing area has extended to the Carribbean and beyond. Different types of cocoa are selected for cultivation in the various growing areas. <P> Cocoa Bean Growing Conditions. As we’ve already discovered, the cocoa tree is native to the forests of Central and South America, enjoying a hot, humid environment but also a little shade. <P> Soils. Cocoa plants require well drained soil and grow best in slightly acid to neutral pH soils. Amending the top 4 to 8 inches (10-20 cm) of acid and alkaline soils with a mixture of compost, topsoil, and native soil may enhance plant establishment and growth. <P> WHY COCOA IS GROWN. People grow cocoa trees in order to sell the cocoa beans that are in the pods. The kernel of the cocoa beans is used to make cocoa and chocolate. In the countries of Europe and North America people eat a lot of cocoa and chocolate. But the cocoa tree does not grow in their countries; they buy cocoa from Africa. The countries of Africa earn a lot of money by selling their cocoa. <P> One of the reasons why people ask us “Where do cocoa beans grow” is because they are interested in knowing whether they can grow cocoa beans in their house into a cocoa tree. Unfortunately, it is very difficult to grow cocoa trees indoors – especially in the United States. Cocoa beans grow into beautiful trees; these trees grow most successfully in a narrow band called the Cocoa Belt or the Chocolate Belt; this band extends up to 20 degrees of latitude north and south of the equator. <P> Cocoa beans come from cocoa pods, which are found naturally in jungle biomes. Placing a cocoa bean on the side of jungle wood will plant a new cocoa pod. (The log does not need to be attached to a tree). Cocoa has three stages of growth. During its first, the pod is small and green.

Fairly constant, warm or even hot temperatures all year round usually in the 65 to 90 degree F range.

what color is phlegm

<P> Green or Dark Yellow Phlegm. A thick and dark yellow phlegm may be a sign of a viral or bacterial infection, sinus infection, or lower respiratory tract infection. Typically, this occurs when the immune system sends white blood cells, known as neutrophils, to the area of infection. Pink Phlegm. Pink-colored phlegm is anything but pretty. Coughing up pink phlegm is an indicator of pulmonary edema, also known as fluid in the lungs. It can also be a sign of bleeding when seen in small amounts, which show up as a stain or streak. <P> If you’re coughing up yellow, green, or brown phlegm, your body is in the process of fighting an infection. If the color of your phlegm is brown or gray, it may be your body is expelling tars or resins built up from smoking or inhaling large amounts of dust. <P> Home » Pulmonology » Phlegm ». Phlegm or respiratory system mucus is a gel like substance produced by upper and lower respiratory system organs in response to various types of irritants in the form of allergens, viruses, bacteria, environmental toxins and pollution. However, in response to various irritants and inflammatory processes, the color of phlegm changes along with its consistency. The presence of white blood cells, proteins and irritants gives mucus its tint. <P> Your mucus can also change color when you're sick. Green mucus is a sign that your body’s immune system is at work. The color comes from a type of infection-fighting white blood cell. “With cold or flu, mucus starts clear, then begins to darken as it gets thicker, Kemmerly says. <P> The green-colored phlegm is often produced due to a long term infection or non-infectious inflammatory causes. The color of the phlegm can be attributed to the enzyme called myeloperoxidases (MPO) which is caused by the breakdown of neutrophils in the cells and secreted by the white blood cells. The phlegm can be a sign of infections like bronchitis, pneumonia, cold or flu, chronic sinus problems, asthma and even lung cancer in certain situations. Different types of infections produce different colored phlegm. The color of sputum could help in identifying the nature of an infection. <P> A rainbow of mucus and phlegm As far as color goes, mucus is typically clear. But when the immune system sends white blood cells into the nose to fight off infection, they contain a greenish enzyme that shades the substance yellow or green. These are the same tones mucus takes on when it dries and clumps into boogers. <P> Color of phlegm is a very helpful way for you to know how your body is coping with an illness. No matter what the color of phlegm is, if it’s accompanied by a fever of 102 F degrees or higher, if you generally feel run down, experience wheezing, chest pains and persistent cough, it is time to call a doctor. However, in response to various irritants and inflammatory processes, the color of phlegm changes along with its consistency. The presence of white blood cells, proteins and irritants gives mucus its tint. <P> Normal Mucus is a whitish cloudy looking glob – Your fine! Dr Oz Phlegm – Yellow Phlegm Green Phlegm Red Phlegm Yellow phlegm means a viral infection – If you yellow phlegm, you could see this color phlegm if you have a cold or bronchitis. It has a thicker consistency. Green Phlegm – Green Phlegm is the first sign that you need antibiotics, you could have pneumonia. The consistency is typically thick like molasses and sticks in your throat. Guaifenesin is found in a lot of OTC medications. <P> Coughing up yellow mucus can be a sign of a sinus infection, especially when the color changes to a dark yellow. It can also be a sign of bronchitis if it is accompanied by the symptoms already described for bronchitis under Green mucus, above. Yet when the air is very dry some persons produce a light yellow mucus. Brown mucus. 1 Smokers or non-smokers who have been heavenly subjected to tobacco smoke, can have mucus turned into a brown color. 2 if the mucus or liquid is yellow-brown or greenish and part of vomit, and it is accompanied by other symptoms such as: 3 severe abdominal pain. 4 lump in the abdomen. <P> A rainbow of mucus and phlegm. As far as color goes, mucus is typically clear. But when the immune system sends white blood cells into the nose to fight off infection, they contain a greenish enzyme that shades the substance yellow or green. These are the same tones mucus takes on when it dries and clumps into boogers.

Thick and dark yellow.

how much does it cost to be in a sorority at fsu

<P> 1 The panhellenic conference at Penn State gives a range from $350 to $600 each semester, but sororities do not have houses at Penn State, and are instead given a dormitory floor or suite. 2 Sorority members at the University of Florida pay about $3,700 per year including housing. 3 New members, as usual, will pay more. Here’s a list of sorority costs at various colleges and universities. 1 The average cost of a sorority at the University of California, Berkeley is between $3,500 and $4,200 per semester including housing and food. <P> 1 The average cost of a sorority at the University of California, Berkeley is between $3,500 and $4,200 per semester including housing and food. 2 The University of Southern California lists the average cost of a sorority at $1,300 per year, but does not include housing and food. Here’s a list of sorority costs at various colleges and universities. 1 The average cost of a sorority at the University of California, Berkeley is between $3,500 and $4,200 per semester including housing and food. <P> #8. Tallalassie Posts: 538- Member. The way i figured it, the cost to be a member of a sorority at FSU could easily exceed $4000/semester if you figure dues are maybe $2000/semester and you'd need maybe another $2000/semester to keep up with the other girls paying for clothes and partying together, etc. <P> 1 The University of Southern California lists the average cost of a sorority at $1,300 per year, but does not include housing and food. 2 Costs are about $350 a month at the University of Mississippi and do not include housing. 3 The registration fee at Ole Miss is $100. Here’s a list of sorority costs at various colleges and universities. 1 The average cost of a sorority at the University of California, Berkeley is between $3,500 and $4,200 per semester including housing and food. <P> Each sorority sets its own fees and housing costs as well as payment schedules. The average cost the first year of joining a sorority is $1,614 a year. This first year has a higher level of costs due to one-time expenses and fees. The average annual cost of sorority membership for a member who lives in the sorority chapter house is $5,707 a year. This cost includes all membership fees as well as room and board. For comparison, the cost of living in a residence hall double room with a 15 meal dining plan is $7,660 <P> Jake Shepp, 18, worked part-time jobs at Sonic, a Hyatt hotel and a Mexican restaurant in Scottsdale, Ariz. to build a $3,500 savings account — and is now planning to use his hard-earned money for Kappa Sigma Fraternity fees at the University of Arizona. According the most recent data, the average new sorority member will pay $1,280 per semester and the average fraternity member will pay $605 per semester, not including room and board at the chapter house. Many chapters also charge fines as punishment for unexcused absences and even tardiness at events. <P> 2. 0. If you put tv in your car it will cost upto $100 to $500 dollars plus the installation fees, including the installation fees it can be upto $1000 as installation is very expensive. hope this helps. . . . . . . . . . .. <P> Best Answer: It depends on the sorority. Most social sororities are very expensive. There is not typically any financial help, as it is not considered part of a colleges tuition, room/board, or books. You don't NEED to be in a sorority and it's not like athletics where there are scholarships. Being a part of a sorority is not cheap. I went to a very small school and my dues were $60 a month (and that was almost 10 years ago so I can't imagine what it would be now). And I've never heard of any sort of financial aid for it

$3,700 per year

what is vesicle

<P> The membrane enclosing the vesicle is also a lamellar phase, similar to that of the plasma membrane, and vesicles can fuse with the plasma membrane to release their contents outside of the cell. Vesicles can also fuse with other organelles within the cell. Vesicles perform a variety of functions. Because it is separated from the cytosol, the inside of the vesicle can be made to be different from the cytosolic environment. For this reason, vesicles are a basic tool used by the cell for organizing cellular substances. Vesicles are involved in metabolism, transport, buoyancy control, and enzyme storage. <P> noun, plural: vesicles. (general) A small sac or cyst containing fluid or gas. (cell biology) A bubble-like membranous structure that stores and transports cellular products, and digests metabolic wastes within the cell; an intracellular membranous sac that is separated from the cytosol by at least one lipid bilayer. <P> Lysosomes are cellular vesicles that contain digestive enzymes. Lysosomes are used by cells to break down food particles and to get rid of unneeded cellular materials. Transport vesicles move molecules within the cells. All cells make proteins and require them to function. Proteins are made in ribosomes. <P> Definition of VESICLE. 1. a: a membranous and usually fluid-filled pouch (as a cyst, vacuole, or cell) in a plant or animal b: a small abnormal elevation of the outer layer of skin enclosing a watery liquid: blister c: a pocket of embryonic tissue that is the beginning of an organ. 2. Medical Definition of VESICLE. 1. a: a membranous and usually fluid-filled pouch (as a cyst, vacuole, or cell) in a plant or animal b: synaptic vesicle. 2. : a small abnormal elevation of the outer layer of skin enclosing a watery liquid: blister. 3. <P> Vesicle: In dermatology, a vesicle is a small blister, as on the skin. Vesicles also occur on the mucous membranes, such as the buccal mucosa (the lining of the mouth). Vesicles are less than 0.5 centimeters in diameter. In anatomy, a vesicle is any small pouch. For example, the seminal vesicles are a pair of pouch-like structures about five cm (2 inches) long located behind the bladder and above the prostate gland that contribute fluid to the ejaculate <P> vesicle. 1. a small bladder or sac containing liquid. 2. a small circumscribed elevation of the epidermis containing a serous fluid; a small blister. allantoic vesicle the internal hollow portion of the allantois. otic vesicle a detached ovoid sac formed by closure of the otic pit in embryonic development of the external ear. primary brain vesicles the three earliest subdivisions of the embryonic neural tube, including the prosencephalon, mesencephalon, and rhombencephalon. <P> In biology, a vesicle is a relatively small intracellular, membrane-enclosed sac that stores or transports substances. A Vesicle is relatively small, intercellular, membrane-enclosed sac that stores or transports substances within a cell. + 15 others found this useful. Matthew Sturm. Edit.

A vesicle is a small blister, as on the skin. A Vesicle is relatively small, intercellular, membrane-enclosed sac that stores or transports substances within a cell.

how fast can a person run

<P> View full size image. Humans could perhaps run as fast 40 mph, a new study suggests. Such a feat would leave in the dust the world's fastest runner, Usain Bolt, who has clocked nearly 28 mph in the 100-meter sprint. The new findings come after researchers took a new look at the factors that limit human speed. <P> In 100 Meter Dash. It depends on how fast you can run the world record for men is 9.58 s is held by Usain Bolt and women 10.49 s was set by Florence Griffith-Joyner. The avergage person might ru … n a 100 meter das in 13-15 seconds. Answered. In Uncategorized. <P> Use a stopwatch to time how long it takes you to run a mile. Once you have an exact time-whether it's 8 minutes or 16 minutes-you can work on improving it! 1 This is where running on a track comes in handy, as each 400M lap of the track is equal to 1/4 of a mile, so four laps of the track is equal to one mile. <P> Most adults can run at about 7 mph in a short distance. That would be at top speed. If the same person ran a mile it would probably take about 30 to40 minutes depending if they are tired or fully energized. http://wiki.answers.com/Q/How_fast_can_an_average_person_run. <P> The average human walking speed is in the neighborhood of 3 mph (4.8 km/h). How fast do you think you could run at a full sprint? 10 mph? 15 mph? Below, I have taken several men's and women's world records and calculated the runners' average speed. Usain Bolt has averaged over 23 miles per hour in both the 100 and 200 meter events. It's interesting to note that the 60 meter race has a slower average speed for both men and women than the 100 meter race. <P> Small decrease, but in competitive track and field, it’s a big difference. And just for anyone still unimpressed, that time would translate to 10.6 meters per second, or an average of 23.7 miles per hour. The one thing even more interesting about Bolt isn’t how much energy he produces, but how much he wastes. Noone at this time can run the 100 meter dash as fast as Bolt.I heard he can hit 30m.p.h. in sprints.Anything under 10 seconds in the 100 meter is incredibly fast. <P> Usain Bolt. Wikimedia Commons. The limit to how fast a human can run is 9.48 seconds for the 100-meter race, 0.10 seconds faster than Usain Bolt's current world record, according to Stanford biologist Mark Denny. That is, if you are talking about natural human beings <P> Report Abuse. As a physical trainer I have observed that the average person with zero training can run about a 10-12 minute mile but with approximately one month of training the average is down to a 7-8 minute mile. Source(s): 5 years as a physical trainer. Bethany Wright · 2 years ago. Thumbs up. <P> How fast can a person run 100 meters? It depends on how fast you can run the world record for men is 9.58 s is held by Usain Bolt and women 10.49 s was set by Florence Griffith-Joyner. The avergage person might ru … n a 100 meter das in 13-15 seconds. Answered. In Uncategorized. <P> Men at the gym typically have their treadmill set to about 7 miles per hour, or 8:30 minutes per mile. They can probably run faster if they try, maybe 8.5 miles per hour if they pushed it. Very few gymrats can run 9 miles per hour, 10 miles per hour is much harder. The gymrats are usually in better shape than average couch potato: the average man probably can't run a mile at all, or possibly an 11-12 minute mile. 30% of the US is obese (30+ pounds overweight) . 200,000+ people a year are so overweight that they have surgery to shrink their stomachs. Like those people on The Biggest Loser, almost none of them can run a mile. Walking a mile takes 20-30 minutes.

40 mph

height of the highest ocean mountain

<P> The bases of mountain islands are below sea level, and given this consideration Mauna Kea (4,207 m (13,802 ft) above sea level) is the world 's tallest mountain and volcano, rising about 10,203 m (33,474 ft) from the Pacific Ocean floor. The highest mountains above sea level are generally not the highest above the surrounding terrain. There is no precise definition of surrounding base, but Denali, Mount Kilimanjaro and Nanga Parbat are possible candidates for the tallest mountain on land by this measure. <P> Mount Everest. Mount Everest is the Earth’s highest mountain, with a peak at 8,848 metres (29,029 ft) above sea level and the 5th tallest mountain measured from the centre of the Earth. It is located on the border between Sagarmatha Zone, Nepal, and Tibet, China and is part of the Himalayan Mountain Range. <P> Mount Kosciuszko is a mountain located on the Main Range of the Snowy Mountains in Kosciuszko National Park, part of the Australian Alps National Parks and Reserves, in New South Wales, Australia. With a height of 2,228 metres (7,310 ft) above sea level, it is the highest mountain in Australia. Various measurements of the peak originally called Kosciuszko showed it to be slightly lower than its neighbour, Mount Townsend. <P> But the world’s tallest mountain ON EARTH (Land and Ocean) is the volcano Mauna Kea. Standing 4,205 m (13,796 ft) above sea level, its peak is the highest point in the U.S. state of Hawaii. However, much of the mountain is below sea level; when measured from its oceanic base, the total height difference is 10,200 m (33,500 ft). McKinley’s base-to-peak height is only little more than half that of the 10,200 metres (33,500 ft). <P> Depending upon how you define highest mountain, Mount Everest has some rivals! Highest Altitude: An altitude of 8,850 meters (29,035 feet) above sea level makes Mount Everest the mountain on Earth with the highest altitude. Highest altitude means that it has the highest elevation above mean sea level. Tallest Mountain: The base of Mauna Kea is about 6000 meters below sea level and the summit is about 4000 meters above sea level. The distance between the foot of the mountain and the summit is about 10,000 meters. This makes Mauna Kea the tallest mountain in the world. <P> List of mountains by elevation. From Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia. This is an incomplete list of mountains on Earth, arranged by elevation in metres above sea level. For a complete list of mountains over 7200 m high, with at least 500 m of prominence, see List of highest mountains. See also a list of mountains ranked by prominence. <P> (Everest). The TALLEST mountain on earth, measured from base to summit is the volcanic peak of Mauna Kea, one of five volcanic masses making up the Big Islandof Hawaii. It is about 9,000 m (30,000 ft) tall, however only 4,245 m (13,796 ft) of that is above sea level.. 9,000 m. (Mauna Kea). <P> Mount Everest is called the world's highest mountain because it has the highest elevation above sea level . We could also say that it has the highest altitude. The peak of Mount Everest is 8,850 meters (29,035 feet) above sea level. No other mountain on Earth has a higher altitude. Tallest Mountain: The base of Mauna Kea is about 6000 meters below sea level and the summit is about 4000 meters above sea level. The distance between the foot of the mountain and the summit is about 10,000 meters. This makes Mauna Kea the tallest mountain in the world. <P> Using this metric, Mount Everest is the highest mountain on Earth, at 8,848 metres (29,029 ft). There are at least 100 mountains with heights of over 7,200 metres (23,622 ft) above sea level, all of which are located in central and southern Asia.

Mauna Kea: 4,207 m(13,802 ft)

what are the four structures of the forebrain

<P> The midbrain is formed by three main structures: the cerebral peduncle (peduncle meaning 'foot' or 'base' of the cerebrum), the corpora quadrigemina (meaning 'quadruplet bodies' since it has four mound or hill-like structures), and the cerebral aqueduct, which is a canal dividing the two structures. <P> Also known as the prosencephalon, the forebrain is mostly comprised of the cerebrum, which is divided into two hemispheres. The two main sections of the forebrain, however, are the telencephalon and the diencephalon. The telecephalon includes the cerebral cortex, the subcortical structures, and the corpus callosum, while the diencephalon includes the thalamus and the hypothalamus. The cerebrum includes the cerebral cortex, which is made up of four lobes: frontal, temporal, parietal and occipital. Imagining, planning and reasoning are some of the functions of the frontal lobe. Hearing and smelling, as well as forming memories and retrieving them later, are functions of the temporal lobes. <P> The subcortical structures of the forebrain are located deeper in the brain and include the basal ganglia, hippocampus and amygdala. The basal ganglia, groups of nerve cells, are responsible for the coordination of movement. Both the hippocampus and amygdala are parts of the limbic system. The cerebrum includes the cerebral cortex, which is made up of four lobes: frontal, temporal, parietal and occipital. Imagining, planning and reasoning are some of the functions of the frontal lobe. Hearing and smelling, as well as forming memories and retrieving them later, are functions of the temporal lobes. <P> In prenatal development, the forebrain (prosencephalon) is the most anterior vesicle of the neural tube that later forms both the diencephalon and the telencephalon (which develops into the cerebrum). The diencephalon or interbrain is one of the major regions of the brain in vertebrates. It consists of several structures between the brainstem and the cerebrum, including the thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus, pituitary gland, and pineal gland. Embryologically, the diencephalon begins as the region of the embryonic vertebrate neural tube that gives rise to posterior forebrain structures <P> The Cerebrum: The cerebrum or cortex is the largest part of the human brain, associated with higher brain function such as thought and action. The cerebral cortex is divided into four sections, called lobes: the frontal lobe, parietal lobe, occipital lobe, and temporal lobe. The forebrain consists of the cerebrum, thalamus, and hypothalamus (part of the limbic system). The midbrain consists of the tectum and tegmentum. The hindbrain is made of the cerebellum, pons and medulla. <P> limbic system. group of forebrain structures that form a border around the brainstem (beneath the cerebral cortex); involved in emotion, motivation, learning, and memory; 4 key structures: hippocampus, thalamus, hypothalamus, amygdala. forebrain. largest and most complex region of the brain (~90% of the brain) composed of the cerebral cortex and limbic system; also called cerebrum. <P> The brain is made of three main parts: the forebrain, midbrain, and hindbrain. The forebrain consists of the cerebrum, thalamus, and hypothalamus (part of the limbic system). The midbrain consists of the tectum and tegmentum. The hindbrain is made of the cerebellum, pons and medulla. Often the midbrain, pons, and medulla are referred to together as the brainstem <P> Introduction. The forebrain (proencephalon) is the largest part of the brain, most of which is cerebrum. Other important structures found in the forebrain include the thalamus, the hypothalamus and the limbic system. Limbic System. The Limbic system is made up of parts of the brain bordering the corpus collosum. The Limbic system contains areas of cerebral cortex, the cingulate gyrus (dorsally), the parahippocampus gyrus (ventrally), the amygdala, parts of the hypothalamus (mamillary body) and the hippocampus. <P> Human Brain. Paul Carus. The anatomy of the brain is complex due its intricate structure and function. This amazing organ acts as a control center by receiving, interpreting, and directing sensory information throughout the body. The brain and spinal cord are the two main structures of the central nervous system.

Thalamus, The hypothalamus,The limbic system and The corpus collosum.

where can you find canyons

<P> 1 5 Activities at the Grand Canyon South Rim The Grand Canyon's south rim is the most popular area of the canyon to visit and one of the most visited attractions in the United States. 2 About three quarters of the visitor…. 3 5 Slot Canyon Hikes in Arizona A slot canyon is deeper than it is wide. Edit. Share to: 1 <P> However, while many (but not all) canyons are found offshore from major rivers, subaerial river erosion cannot have been active to the water depths as great as 3000 meters where canyons have been mapped, as it is well established (by many lines of evidence) that sea levels did not fall to those depths. Canyons cutting the continental slopes have been found at depths greater than 2 km below sea level. Many submarine canyons continue as submarine channels across continental rise areas and may extend seawards for hundreds of kilometres onto the abyssal plain. <P> 4. Kali Gandaki Gorge, Nepal. Because all canyons and gorges are different, from the slope of their walls and their rim height above sea level, it’s difficult to determine a list of the “deepest” canyons in the world. <P> Someone can find more information about canyons from a number of websites such as the National Park Service website. The website has detailed information about various canyons … located throughout the US. Edit. Share to: 1 5 Activities at the Grand Canyon South Rim The Grand Canyon's south rim is the most popular area of the canyon to visit and one of the most visited attractions in the United States. <P> Photograph by Bruce Dale. Bound by cliffs and cut by erosion, canyons are deep, narrow valleys in the Earth's crust that evoke superlatives and a sense of wonder. Layers of rock outline stories of regional geology like the table of contents to a scientific text. <P> Most canyons were formed by a process of long-time erosion from a plateau or table-land level. The cliffs form because harder rock strata that are resistant to erosion and weathering remain exposed on the valley walls. In the United States, place names generally use canyon in the southwest and gorge in the northeast, with the rest of the country graduating between these two according to geography. In Canada, gorges are usually narrow, and ravines more open and often wooded. <P> About 3% of submarine canyons are joined to shelf valleys that connect with large rivers; the largest canyons (equal to about 29% by number) incise into the continental shelf but the largest number of canyons (about 69%) terminate on the slope, making so-called “blind” or “headless” canyons. Canyons cutting the continental slopes have been found at depths greater than 2 km below sea level. Many submarine canyons continue as submarine channels across continental rise areas and may extend seawards for hundreds of kilometres onto the abyssal plain. <P> 1 Amazon Canyon, extending from the Amazon River. 2 Baltimore and Wilmington Canyons, East Coast of Maryland and Delaware States. 3 Bering Canyon, in the Bering Sea. 4 Congo Canyon, the largest river canyon, extending from the Congo River, is 800 km (497 mi) long, and 1,200 m (3,900 ft) deep. Canyons cutting the continental slopes have been found at depths greater than 2 km below sea level. Many submarine canyons continue as submarine channels across continental rise areas and may extend seawards for hundreds of kilometres onto the abyssal plain. <P> Tourists can also enjoy hiking, snowshoeing, and cross-country skiing. Bryce Canyon is close to both Zion National Park and the Grand Canyon, as well as the town of Kanab, Utah, where many visitors to the area choose to find accommodation. Lodging can also be found in Bryce Canyon National Park’s two campgrounds or its lodge. Credit: charlesgyoung. Credit: Andreas Adelmann. <P> For a period of time it was barren, but the Den Depot takes it's place. The Den Depot is a place where you can buy various different dens as used today. Coral Canyons is a gorge-like land full of red dust and sandstone. It seems to be based on the famous Grand Canyon. It was released on September 10th, 2010 (January 2015 for the app), as a celebration after the Beta Days ended.

It can be found offshore from major rivers.

what is the awl

<P> An awl is a long, pointed spike. It may be a: 1 Bradawl, a tool for making holes in wood. 2 Scratch awl, a tool used for marking wood. 3 Stitching awl, a tool for piercing holes in leather. <P> 1 A pointed instrument for piercing small holes, as in leather or wood; used by shoemakers, saddlers, cabinetmakers, etc. 2 The blade is differently shaped and pointed for different uses, as in the brad awl, saddler's awl, shoemaker's awl, etc. awl ‎(plural awls). 1 A pointed instrument for piercing small holes, as in leather or wood; used by shoemakers, saddlers, cabinetmakers, etc. <P> The Awl is a website about news, ideas and obscure Internet minutiae of the day based in New York City. Its motto is Be Less Stupid.. The Awl Network currently employs 13 people, as well as many freelance contributors. The current editors are Matt Buchanan and John Herrman. It was published by John Shankman from 2011 until May 2014 and is now published by Michael Macher. In 2011, David Cho left the Awl to join ESPN-affiliated sports site Grantland. <P> What is the Academic Word List? The AWL is a list of words which appear with high frequency in English-language academic texts. The list was compiled by Averil Coxhead at the Victoria University of Wellington, New Zealand. The list contains 570 word families and is divided into 10 sublists. Sublist 1 consists of the 60 most common words in the AWL. <P> Bradawl or Pricker. This carpentry awl has a beveled tip and is used to make pilot holes in wood for brads and screws. Bridle or Harness Awl. Used by leatherworkers to make holes in leather prior to stitching, this type has a diamond-shaped point and comes with a range of diameters to suit the work. Saddler’s Awl. <P> Full Definition of AWL. : a pointed tool for marking surfaces or piercing small holes (as in leather or wood). See awl defined for English-language learners. See awl defined for kids. ADVERTISEMENT. Definition of AWL for Kids. : a pointed tool for making small holes (as in leather or wood).

It is a sharpened tool used to make holes in wood and soft materials like leather etc.

what is filial bonding

<P> Level 3 Bonding can be described as a biological process in which animals of the same or different species socially connect. This can be for many different reasons. For example, pair bonding. This leads to mating and reproduction. Social bonding for example, Wolves. As a result it is able to recognise its own species which allows for the development of social bonds within the species Sexual Imprinting. This can best be described as a process by which the young animal learns the characteristics of a desirable mate. <P> fil·i·al. adj. 1. Of, relating to, or befitting a son or daughter: filial respect. 2. Having or assuming the relationship of child or offspring to parent. 3. Genetics Of or relating to a generation or the sequence of generations following the parental generation <P> by Roger Abrantes. Dog and Child in a bonding moment (photo by Elena Shumilova). Bonding in animal behavior is a biological process in which individuals of the same or different species develop a connection. The function of bonding is to facilitate co-operation. Parents and offspring develop strong bonds so that the former take care of the latter, and the latter accept the teachings of the former. As a result of filial bonding, offspring and parents or foster parents develop an attachment. <P> In the case of domestic animals, filial imprinting may occur, but maternal recognition may not, hence the young animal is rejected by its mother and attacked. Bonding is an important part of the relationship, as it causes the parent and offspring to remain close until the young animal has learnt to fend for itself. Source(s): http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Filial_impr... Chloe · 9 years ago. Thumbs up. In many animals, imprinting occurs soon after birth, and in animals such as ducks and geese they will follow around anyone who they have imprinted on (be it mother duck, a human or a boat!). <P> Filial Bonds is a quest in The Elder Scrolls V: Dragonborn given by Wulf Wild-Blood to find his brother, Torkild. I met Wulf Wild-Blood, whose brother disappeared many years ago. There are a few locations where random encounters occur and he may be found: 1 On the coastline between Glacial Cave and Bujold's Retreat is a popular place for Torkild to wander. 2 West of Glacial Cave, along the coastline. 3 Just South of Bujold's Retreat on the east side of Solstheim. <P> Best Answer: Filial imprinting reffers to the process by which a young animal learns who its parents (or mother only) are. In many animals, imprinting occurs soon after birth, and in animals such as ducks and geese they will follow around anyone who they have imprinted on (be it mother duck, a human or a boat!). <P> If filial imprinting fails to occur, most young animals would not survive in the wild, as it would not remain close to its parents and be protected and reared by them. In many animals, imprinting occurs soon after birth, and in animals such as ducks and geese they will follow around anyone who they have imprinted on (be it mother duck, a human or a boat!). <P> It was first used to describe situations in which an animal or person learns the characteristics of some stimulus, which is therefore said to be imprinted onto the subject. Filial imprinting is when a young animal learns the characteristics of its parent. It is most obvious in nidifugous birds, who imprint on their parents and then follow them around. Relevance. Rating Newest Oldest. Best Answer: Imprinting is the term used in psychology and ethology to describe any kind of phase-sensitive learning (learning occurring at a particular age or a particular life stage) that is rapid and apparently independent of the consequences of behavior. <P> Filal Bonds is one of the Dragonborn Sidequests available as part of the Dragonborn DLC. Speak to Wulf Wild-Blood in the Skaal Village to get this quest. He has a workshop in the middle of the village. Wulf is the First Hunter of the Skaal Village and leads all of the hunts.

It is one of the Dragonborn Sidequests available as part of the Dragonborn DLC.

what is rimadyl

<P> Rimadyl is a type of drug used to treat arthritis in dogs. It is an NSAID or a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug which is primarily used to address all the symptoms brought about by the disease. Rimadyl is a prescription drug and the right dosage for your dog can only be determined by the veterinarian. <P> WHAT IS RIMADYL. RIMADYL (pronounced “Rim-a-dill”) is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) approved by the FDA for once-or twice-daily dosing to relieve the pain and inflammation in the joints of dogs with arthritis. Pain medications that help manage arthritis pain in people — like aspirin — can be toxic to dogs. <P> Rimadyl is the brand name of the drug carprofen. In the United States, this nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, commonly referred to as an NSAID, is approved for use in dogs to treat inflammation and pain. Rimadyl is commonly used as an arthritis treatment for dogs. <P> Carprofen chewables. Over 20% savings! Rimadyl is a 24-hour, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). Your veterinarian may prescribe Rimadyl (pronounced Rim-a-dill) to treat the pain associated with arthritis, or to help control pain after soft tissue and orthopedic surgeries. <P> Rimadyl is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) intended for the relief of pain and inflammation in dogs. It is often used for dogs with osteoarthritis, although it is also prescribed in other situations, such as post-operatively for pain. <P> What is the most important information I should know about Rimadyl: Rimadyl is a prescription medication that is FDA-approved for use in dogs. Rimadyl is available as 25mg, 75mg, and 100mg Pork Liver flavored chewable, scored tablets.

A non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) approved by the FDA for once-or twice-daily dosing to relieve the pain and inflammation in the joints of dogs with arthritis.

what are pyroclastic flows

<P> Pyroclastic flows commonly are produced either by the fallback and downslope movement of fragments from an eruption column or by the direct frothing over at the vent of magma undergoing rapid gas loss. Volcanic froth so formed is called pumice. The term pyroclastic''--derived from the Greek words pyro (fire) and klastos (broken)--describes materials formed by the fragmentation of magma and rock by explosive volcanic activity. <P> In the dark, these pyroclastic flows glowed red. Pyroclastic flows that contain a much higher proportion of gas to rock are known as fully dilute pyroclastic density currents or pyroclastic surges. The lower density sometimes allows them to flow over higher topographic features such as ridges and hills. 508 pages on this wiki. A pyroclastic flow (also known scientifically as a pyroclastic density current) is a fast-moving current of hot gas and rock (collectively known as tephra), which reaches speeds moving away from a volcano of up to 700 km/h (450 mph). The gas can reach temperatures of about Template:Convert. <P> A pyroclastic flow (also known scientifically as a pyroclastic density current) is a fast-moving current of hot gas and rock (collectively known as tephra), which reaches speeds moving away from a volcano of up to 700 km/h (450 mph). The gas can reach temperatures of about 1,000 °C (1,830 °F). Pyroclastic flows normally hug the ground and travel downhill, or spread laterally under gravity. Their speed depends upon the density of the current, the volcanic output rate, and the gradient of the slope. They are a common and devastating result of certain explosive volcanic eruptions <P> GENERAL CHARACTERISTICS. A pyroclastic flow is a fluidized mixture of solid to semi-solid fragments and hot, expanding gases that flows down the flank of a volcanic edifice. PUMICE FLOWS. Pumice flows are pumice-rich pyroclastic flows derived from the collapse of an eruption column. The lowermost part of the eruption column is called the gas thrust region. Here, the density of the eruption column is greater than the density of the surrounding air. <P> Pyroclastic flows are one kind of sediment gravity flow. Sediment gravity flows are unique fluids because properties such as density and viscosity can change as they move, unlike fluids such as water or air within which density and viscosity change very little, if at all, during movement. Volcanologists first became aware of pyroclastic flows in 1902 at Mont Pelee Pelée martinique 29,000 29000 people. LaCroix (lacroix) 1904 applied the name nuee nuée ardente to, the flows pointing out-the co existence of a basal (glowing avalanche higher density) basal flow and a dilute upper lower density. glowing cloud <P> The terminology of pyroclastic flows and pyroclastic flow deposits can be complex and confusing. In general, there are two end-member types of flows: 1 NUEE NUéE -- ardentes these contain dense lava fragments derived from the collapse of a growing lava dome or dome, flow. and PUMICE FLOWS. Pumice flows are pumice-rich pyroclastic flows derived from the collapse of an eruption column. The lowermost part of the eruption column is called the gas thrust region. Here, the density of the eruption column is greater than the density of the surrounding air. <P> Pyroclastic Flow. There is another type of flow that comes from a volcanic eruption that is much more dangerous than a lava flow, and that is a pyroclastic flow. A pyroclastic flow is a dense collection of fragments and gases from a volcanic eruption that flows down the slope of a volcano. You can recall this term by remembering that the prefix 'pyro' means 'fire,' and the suffix 'clastic' means 'fragments.' So a pyroclastic flow is literally the 'flow of fiery fragments.' <P> A pyroclastic flow is essentially an avalanche of ash, rock, and gas that flows down the slopes of a volcano at great speed. Temperatures inside these flows can be well over 1 … ,000 degrees Fahrenheit, which is unsurvivable for any human, plant, or animal. A pyroclastic flowFlows that contain high-density mixtures of hot, dry rock fragments and hot gases. sort of spans the volcanic spectrum from pyroclastic material to a lava fl … ow. They flow down the volcano's side at tremendous speeds.

It is a fast-moving current of hot gas and rock,which reaches speeds moving away from a volcano of up to 700 km/h(450 mph).

thoracic cavity definition

<P> Thoracic cavity seen from left. Lungs, among others removed. The thoracic cavity (or chest cavity) is the chamber of the human body (and other animal bodies) that is protected by the thoracic wall (rib cage and associated skin, muscle, and fascia). The central compartment of the thoracic cavity is the mediastinum. <P> mediastinum-the part of the thoracic cavity between the lungs that contains the heart and aorta and esophagus and trachea and thymus. chest, pectus, thorax-the part of the human torso between the neck and the diaphragm or the corresponding part in other vertebrates. <P> 1. chest cavity-the cavity in the vertebrate body enclosed by the ribs between the diaphragm and the neck and containing the lungs and heart. thoracic cavity. bodily cavity, cavum, cavity - (anatomy) a natural hollow or sinus within the body. mediastinum-the part of the thoracic cavity between the lungs that contains the heart and aorta and esophagus and trachea and thymus. chest, pectus, thorax-the part of the human torso between the neck and the diaphragm or the corresponding part in other vertebrates. <P> mediastinum (the part of the thoracic cavity between the lungs that contains the heart and aorta and esophagus and trachea and thymus). Holonyms (thoracic cavity is a part of...): chest; pectus; thorax (the part of the human torso between the neck and the diaphragm or the corresponding part in other vertebrates). The cavity in the vertebrate body enclosed by the ribs between the diaphragm and the neck and containing the lungs and heart. <P> Definition. Thoracic surgery is the repair of organs located in the thorax, or chest. The thoracic cavity lies between the neck and the diaphragm, and contains the heart and lungs (cardiopulmonary system), the esophagus, trachea, pleura, mediastinum, chest wall, and diaphragm. <P> Medical Definition of THORACIC CAVITY. : the division of the body cavity that lies above the diaphragm, is bounded peripherally by the wall of the chest, and contains the heart and lungs. What made you want to look up thoracic cavity? Tweet. : the division of the body cavity that lies above the diaphragm, is bounded peripherally by the wall of the chest, and contains the heart and lungs. <P> The noun THORACIC CAVITY has 1 sense: 1. the cavity in the vertebrate body enclosed by the ribs between the diaphragm and the neck and containing the lungs and heart. Familiarity information: THORACIC CAVITY used as a noun is very rare. Dictionary entry details. • THORACIC CAVITY (noun). T <P> thoracic cavity. Definitions: 1. the space within the thoracic walls, bounded below by the diaphragm and above by the base of the neck or superior thoracic aperture. Synonyms: cavitas thoracica/thoracis, cavum thoracis. The definition information for thoracic cavity is provided by Stedman's. You can search our medical dictionary here

It is the chamber of the human body (and other animal bodies) that is protected by the thoracic wall (rib cage and associated skin, muscle, and fascia).

how much time can you go between oil changes

<P> Oil chemistry and engine technology have improved to the point that most cars can go several thousand more miles before changing the oil, Mr. Reed said. A better average, he said, would be 7,500 between oil changes, and sometimes up to 10,000 miles or more. So before you go in for your oil change, dig out your owner’s manual and see what it says. And when the mechanic slaps on a sticker that gives the next change date in 3,000 miles, ask questions. And then, go get the car washed. That’s one thing that always seems to be needed. <P> The interval that is perfectly fine for one car could be way too long for another. So in reality, very few drivers will go 25,000 miles without an oil change, even if they spring for high-grade synthetic oil. And most of them shouldn't, although some can go 10,000 without a problem [source: CIWMB ]. <P> Report Abuse. With synthetics, you can go as high as 10,000 miles, but that's the hypothetical range for synthetics. Some manufacturer manuals I remember said 7500 miles between oil changes. I change mine every 5000 miles because its easier to keep track every 5000 miles instead of 7500 miles. Synthetics last a lot longer than conventional, so 5000 is equivalent to 3000 of the conventional. <P> If you are using synthetic oil for your car, read the manual of your car. (80 dollars oil change). It is between 5.000 to 10.000 miles. Chris Tengler, on average, people keep a car for 2-3 years, then they trade it in for a new one. <P> Driven by an outdated 3,000-mile oil change commandment, they are unnecessarily spending millions of dollars and spilling an ocean of contaminated waste oil. The majority of automakers today call for oil changes at either 7,500 or 10,000 miles, and the interval can go as high as 15,000 miles in some cars. <P> Mobil 1 Extended Performance is recommended for up to 15,000-mile or one-year oil change intervals. However, if your vehicle manufacturer recommends an oil change interval beyond 15,000 miles and Mobil 1 meets the performance level specified, you can be assured that Mobil 1 will go the distance. Click to expand... <P> Regular oil changes (every 3000 to 7000 miles, or every 6 months if it's a vehicle that's not driven often) with the proper type of oil for your car will assure you get the maximum possible mileage and performance from your engine. If you don't put a lot of miles on your car you need to go by time rather than miles for oil changes. Blowby gasses in the crankcase condense to form all kinds of nasty acids that can literally eat up <P> Cost. An oil change for a gas powered car or truck will usually run between $20 and $30 depending on where you go. Chain lube stations may offer sales or specials, but individual mechanics often do a more thorough job for just a little more money. Diesel oil change cost, on the other hand, is somewhere between $50 and $70. If you use synthetics, it will be more expensive. This is because diesel fuel, including oil, is typically more expensive than petroleum. Again, it depends on where you go for the oil change. <P> Ignore the oil industry and go by your car's user manual, which will probably advise an interval of 5,000 miles or more. You'll save some money -- and possibly keep the world a little greener in the process. For more information on oil changes, car care and related topics, look over the links on the next page. So in reality, very few drivers will go 25,000 miles without an oil change, even if they spring for high-grade synthetic oil. And most of them shouldn't, although some can go 10,000 without a problem [source: CIWMB ].

3000 to 7000 miles

what is anencephaly

<P> Anencephaly is a condition that prevents the normal development of the brain and the bones of the skull. This condition results when a structure called the neural tube fails to close during the first few weeks of embryonic development. Because anencephaly is caused by abnormalities of the neural tube, it is classified as a neural tube defect. Because the neural tube fails to close properly, the developing brain and spinal cord are exposed to the amniotic fluid that surrounds the fetus in the womb. <P> Anencephaly is a condition present at birth that affects the formation of the brain and the skull bones that surround the head. Anencephaly results in only minimal development of the brain. <P> Anencephaly is a defect in the closure of the neural tube during fetal development. The neural tube is a narrow channel that folds and closes between the 3rd and 4th weeks of pregnancy to form the brain and spinal cord of the embryo. Anencephaly occurs when the cephalic or head end of the neural tube fails to close, resulting in the absence of a major portion of the brain, skull, and scalp. <P> Anencephaly is a condition that prevents the normal development of the brain and the bones of the skull. This condition results when a structure called the neural tube fails to close during the first few weeks of embryonic development. *Anencephaly facts medical author: Melissa Conrad Stoeppler, STöPPLER. 1 Md anencephaly is an example of a neural tube, defect a condition that results from an error in the first weeks of embryonic. 2 Development in, anencephaly the bones of the skull and brain do not develop. properly <P> Anencephaly, also known as “open skull,” is a birth defect in which the major parts of the brain, scalp, and skull of the fetus do not form completely as it is developing in the womb. An infant who is born with anencephaly has some or most of the brain missing. These infants are unconscious, cannot feel, and are usually blind and deaf. In many cases, some brain tissue may be exposed because parts of the skull are missing. Some infants may have a primitive brain stem at birth. <P> 1 Anencephaly is an example of a neural tube defect, a condition that results from an error in the first weeks of embryonic development. 2 In anencephaly, the bones of the skull and brain do not develop properly. 3 Babies with anencephaly are missing large areas of the brain and have an incomplete skull. *Anencephaly facts medical author: Melissa Conrad Stoeppler, STöPPLER. 1 Md anencephaly is an example of a neural tube, defect a condition that results from an error in the first weeks of embryonic. 2 Development in, anencephaly the bones of the skull and brain do not develop. properly <P> Click here to view a larger image. Anencephaly is a serious birth defect in which a baby is born without parts of the brain and skull. It is a type of neural tube defect (NTD). These are birth defects that happen during the first month of pregnancy, usually before a woman knows she is pregnant. Anencephaly happens if the upper part of the neural tube does not close all the way. This often results in a baby being born without the front part of the brain (forebrain) and the thinking and coordinating part of the brain (cerebrum). The remaining parts of the brain are often not covered by bone or skin. <P> Anencephaly is a condition present at birth that affects the formation of the brain and the skull bones that surround the head. Anencephaly results in only minimal development of the brain. Anencephaly is a type of neural tube defect. Neural tube defects, spina bifida (open spine) and anencephaly (open skull) are seen in one to two per 1,000 live births. During pregnancy, the human brain and spine begin as a flat plate of cells, which rolls into a tube, called the neural tube.

It is a serious birth defect in which a baby is born without parts of the brain and skull and prevents the normal development.

what is zfs

<P> The ZFS file system is a revolutionary new file system that fundamentally changes the way file systems are administered, with features and benefits not found in any other file system available today. <P> ZFS is an advanced, modern filesystem that was specifically designed to provide features not available in traditional UNIX filesystems. It was originally developed at Sun with the intent to open source the filesystem so that it could be ported to other operating systems. <P> For ZFS, data integrity is achieved by using a (Fletcher-based) checksum or a (SHA-256) hash throughout the file system tree. Each block of data is checksummed and the checksum value is then saved in the pointer to that block—rather than at the actual block itself. <P> The ZFS pooled storage model eliminates the concept of volumes and the associated problems of partitions, provisioning and stranded storage by enabling thousands of file systems to draw from a common storage pool, using only as much space as it actually needs. <P> Instead of forcing you to create virtualized volumes, ZFS aggregates devices into a storage pool. The storage pool describes the physical characteristics of the storage (device layout, data redundancy, and so on) and acts as an arbitrary data store from which file systems can be created. <P> After acquiring Sun in 2010, Oracle Corp. discontinued work on open source ZFS. The company trademarked the name ZFS and turned ZFS into its proprietary root file system for Oracle Solaris, Oracle's ZFS Storage Appliances, mainframe storage (VSM) and other Oracle technologies. Oracle continues to develop and add features to its proprietary ZFS. <P> With a transactional file system, data is managed using copy on write semantics. Data is never overwritten, and any sequence of operations is either entirely committed or entirely ignored. Thus, the file system can never be corrupted through accidental loss of power or a system crash. <P> ZFS is a transactional, Copy-On-Write filesystem. For each write request, a copy is made of the associated disk block(s) and all changes are made to the copy rather than to the original block(s). Once the write is complete, all block pointers are changed to point to the new copy. <P> ZFS Snapshots. A snapshot is a read-only copy of a file system or volume. Snapshots can be created quickly and easily. Initially, snapshots consume no additional disk space within the pool. As data within the active dataset changes, the snapshot consumes disk space by continuing to reference the old data.

ZFS is a transactional, Copy-On-Write filesystem.

how old do i have to be to be a bartender in texas

<P> In Texas if you wish to work as a bartender or alcohol seller/server, it is required that you have a TABC card, which is a Texas Alcohol Beverage Commission certification card. This means that you need to pass an approved Responsible Serving training course. <P> State, county and city laws govern how old a person must be to legally bartend. As with most laws, the strictest applicable law is the one that must be followed. We have listed the STATE mandated bartending age in the table below for each state. <P> Bartending Age-Varies by State & City. State, county and city laws govern how old a person must be to legally bartend. As with most laws, the strictest applicable law is the one that must be followed. We have listed the STATE mandated bartending age in the table below for each state. Before making any decision about being a bartender, you should verify the correct age for your city if you are near the legal minimum. The state and/or city government website is a good place to start. Our schools train people of all ages and backgrounds. Our students range from 18 to 75 years of age. Regardless of your age or background there will always be a bar for you. Just like the customers that vary with each bar, the bartenders age usually follows that of the crowd they serve. <P> 1 In New York the law is 18 or over to serve alcohol. 2 How much bartenders earn depends on the city and the type of establishment you are working at. 3 There is no denying that bartending is a very lucrative job. 4 In New York bartenders average $250 to $400 a shift, with some making way more than that. 1 How much bartenders earn depends on the city and the type of establishment you are working at. 2 There is no denying that bartending is a very lucrative job. 3 <P> Depending on the state you plan to tend bar in, the age minimum is a little different. In some states, an 18 year old can tend bar, while in other states you have to be 21. Here’s a quick guide to each state’s minimum age required to become a bartender: Alabama 21 Illinois 21 Montana 18 Rhode Island 18. Your job as a bartender will be easier and restaurants and bars more likely to hire you if you complete your bartender certification. A bartending certification course can cost hundreds of dollars depending on the type of “bartender school” you choose. <P> Rating Newest Oldest. Best Answer: TABC certification classes-you can do it online. But if you have never bartended I recommend going to bartending school as there is a lot to know if you work in a full-service bar. You have to be 21 I think. Look in the back of the Houston Press-I went to ABC I think-on Richmond. It takes 2-3 weeks. <P> Yet another reason that if I ever leave the great state of Texas you bet I will not set foot in Indiana. Even more strange is Illinois where you can serve at the age of 18...unless you are in the windy city of Chicago (which is the third largest in the nation) then you have to wait till you are 21. There are a plethora of different types of bars in the world, meaning there are a plethora of bartenders working in those bars! A bar with a clietele that skews younger (like a nightlcub on 6th street or clubs in downtown Houston) looks to hire people around the same age of their clientele.

Age 21

what species is a dandelion

<P> Description. There are considered to be about 600 species of dandelion found throughout the world where, in many cases, it is considered a noxious weed. One seed from a dandelion blown by the wind can start 200 or more new plants. It is also cultivated in many parts, including France and Germany. In China, the flowers, leaves, root, and seed heads of either the common dandelion or from an Oriental species (T. mongolicum). The Chinese have used dandelions for more than a thousand years as a diuretic, hypoglycemic, antispasmodic, anticancer, antibacterial, and antifungal agent. <P> Each single flower in a head is called a floret. Many Taraxacum species produce seeds asexually by apomixis, where the seeds are produced without pollination, resulting in offspring that are genetically identical to the parent plant. A number of species of Taraxacum are seed-dispersed ruderals that rapidly colonize disturbed soil, especially the common dandelion (T. officinale), which has been introduced over much of the temperate world. After flowering is finished, the dandelion flower head dries out for a day or two. <P> About this species. Dandelions are well-known, robust weeds; vernacular names for the dandelion include 'wet-the-bed' and 'pissy-beds', which refer to the belief that just touching part of a dandelion can cause bed-wetting. <P> Plant Description. Hundreds of species of dandelion grow in the temperate regions of Europe, Asia, and North America. Dandelion is a hardy perennial that can grow to a height of nearly 12 inches. The plants have deeply-notched, toothy, spatula-like leaves that are shiny and hairless. Dandelion stems are capped by bright yellow flowers. While many people think of the dandelion (Taraxacum officinale) as a pesky weed, it is chock full of vitamins A, B, C, and D, as well as minerals, such as iron, potassium, and zinc. Dandelion leaves are used to add flavor to salads, sandwiches, and tea <P> The common name Dandelion is given to members of the genus Taraxacum, a large genus of flowering plants in the family Asteraceae. In the Asteraceae (formerly Compositae) the flowers are morphologically a composite flower head consisting of many tiny flowers called florets. Dandelion flowers can be used to make dandelion wine, for which there are many recipes. It has also been used in a saison ale called Pissenlit (literally wet the bed in French) made by Brasserie Fantome fantôme In. Belgium another recipe using the plant is dandelion flower. jam <P> Taraxacum /təˈraeksəkʉm/ təˈræksəkʉm is a large genus of flowering plants in the Family asteraceae and consists of species commonly known as. Dandelion they are native To eurasia And North, america and two, Species. t officinale And. t, erythrospermum are found as commonplace wild flowers. worldwide A number of species of Taraxacum are seed-dispersed ruderals that rapidly colonize disturbed soil, especially the common dandelion (T. officinale), which has been introduced over much of the temperate world. After flowering is finished, the dandelion flower head dries out for a day or two. <P> Both species are edible in their entirety. The common name dandelion (/ˈdaendɨlaɪ.ˈdændɨlaɪ/ əN-dan-di-ly, ən From french-dent-de, lion meaning'lion s) tooth is given to members of the. genus A number of species of Taraxacum are seed-dispersed ruderals that rapidly colonize disturbed soil, especially the common dandelion (T. officinale), which has been introduced over much of the temperate world. After flowering is finished, the dandelion flower head dries out for a day or two. <P> Taraxacum /təˈraeksəkʉm/ təˈræksəkʉm is a large genus of flowering plants in the Family asteraceae and consists of species commonly known as. dandelion A number of species of Taraxacum are seed-dispersed ruderals that rapidly colonize disturbed soil, especially the common dandelion (T. officinale), which has been introduced over much of the temperate world. After flowering is finished, the dandelion flower head dries out for a day or two.

T. officinale

how much carbohydrates starches should a child eat per day

<P> Well, those calories will all come from carbs. And, since 1 gram of carbs contains 4 calories, you’d just need to divide this left over amount of calories by 4 to figure out exactly how many grams of carbs you’d need to eat each day. 1 First you figured out how many calories you need to eat per day for your specific goal (losing fat, building muscle, or maintaining your current weight). 2 From there you figured out where those calories should come from each day by calculating your ideal daily intake of protein, fat and just now, carbs. <P> Grams of Carbs. Determine the number of grams of carbs you need each day by calculating 45 to 65 percent of your total calorie intake, and dividing by 4. For example, if you eat a 2,000-calorie diet, shoot for 225 to 325 grams of carbs per day; and if you eat 2,500 calories a day, aim for 281 to 406 grams of carbs. Percent of Calories. According to the Institute of Medicine, children and adults should consume 45 to 65 percent of their calorie intake as carbohydrates, and at least 130 grams of carbs per day. <P> Dietary Fiber. Fiber is included in the daily intake of total carbohydrates, but it also has separate guidelines to ensure children get an adequate amount. From the ages of 1 to 3 years, all children need 19 grams of fiber daily. They should consume 25 grams daily between the ages of 4 to 8 years. At the age of 9, boys need 31 grams of fiber daily, and when they turn 14, their requirement increases to 38 grams. Girls should consume 26 grams of fiber daily from age 9 to 18. Starches are healthy complex carbohydrates found in whole grains, vegetables, beans and fruits. They break down more slowly during digestion, so they provide long-term energy and have less impact on blood sugar. Children who are 2 to 3 years old need 1 cup each of fruits and vegetables and 3 ounces of grains daily. <P> Understanding Carbohydrates. How much and what type of carbohydrate foods are important for managing diabetes. The balance between how much insulin is in your body and the carbohydrate you eat makes a difference in your blood glucose levels. Learn more about how much and what foods to include in your meal plan. <P> I eat _____ starch servings each day. 2. Check how many servings of starches to have each day in the section on How much should I eat each day. I will eat _____ starch servings each day. 3. I will eat this many servings of starches at. A diabetes teacher can help you with your meal plan. <P> The Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommends that carbohydrates make up 45 to 65 percent of your total daily calories. So, if you get 2,000 calories a day, between 900 and 1,300 calories should be from carbohydrates. That translates to between 225 and 325 grams of carbohydrates a day. You can find the carbohydrate content of packaged foods on the Nutrition Facts label. The Nutrition Facts label shows total carbohydrates, which includes starches, fiber, sugar alcohols, and naturally occurring and added sugars. <P> 1 All of those 1155 calories will come from carbs. 2 And, since 1 gram of carbs contains 4 calories, all our example person would need to do now is divide 1155 by 4 and get 288. 3 Which means, this example person would need to eat about 288 grams of carbs per day. 1 First you figured out how many calories you need to eat per day for your specific goal (losing fat, building muscle, or maintaining your current weight). 2 From there you figured out where those calories should come from each day by calculating your ideal daily intake of protein, fat and just now, carbs. <P> Carb grams/day range*: 259–455 grams. Carb grams/meal range (3 meals per day): 86–151 grams. *Based on 45%–65% of calories from carbohydrate. Note: Men who are under 65 years of age, moderate to large in stature, at a healthy weight, and get a lot of exercise may need more calories and grams of carbohydrate. Carb grams/day range*: 180–308 grams. Carb grams/meal range (3 meals per day): 60–103 grams. *Based on 45%–­65% of calories from carbohydrate. Note: These recommendations are the same for a woman of small stature who wants to maintain weight. <P> Good sources of fiber include legumes, whole grains, vegetables and fruit. The recommended amount each day is based on the amount of calories consumed; 14 grams of fiber for every 1000 calories. For a child eating 1600 calories a day, they should take in at least 22 grams of fiber.

130 gram

age limit to claim child as dependent on taxes

<P> There is no age limit on claiming your child as a dependent if the child meets the qualifying relative test. As long as all of the following tests are met, you may claim a dependency exemption for your child: 1 Qualifying child or qualifying relative test, 2 Dependent taxpayer test, 3 Citizen or resident test, and. 4 Joint return test. <P> You can reduce you total taxes owed by claiming a child as a dependent on your income tax return. But not all children qualify and age is a factor. In some cases, you can claim a child under the age of 19. In other instances, you can claim a child under the age of 24. And in still other scenarios, a child might not qualify at all – regardless of their age. Read on for more details about under what circumstance you can claim a child as a dependent on your income taxes. IRS Guidelines on Age Limits for Dependents. As mentioned above, age is a factor in determining whether your child is a qualifying child for your tax return. If your child is a student or is disabled, then you can claim him or her as a dependent as long as your child is under age 24. Otherwise, the child must be under 19 years old. However, there are other tests that allow you to claim a dependency exemption for your child <P> Background. A tax deduction reduces the income subject to tax. A tax credit is a dollar-for-dollar reduction of the tax. The tax credit for child and dependent care expenses allows taxpayers to claim a credit for expenses paid for the care of children under age 13 and for a disabled spouse or dependent. <P> Qualifying Child. A dependent must be either a qualifying child or qualifying relative.. Only qualifying children have an age test. A qualifying child must be under 19 at the end of the year. If your child is a full-time student, you can claim an exemption until she's 24 years old. If she becomes permanently and totally disabled, you can potentially claim her as a dependent at any age <P> The ability to claim a child as a dependent may result in a reduction of your income taxes. Age is one test the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) uses to determine eligibility, but there are four additional conditions the child must meet before you are allowed to claim him as your dependent. Under 19 Years of Age. If your child meets the other tests, he must not be older than you or, if married and filing a joint return, your spouse. He does not have to be a student to qualify as long as he is under the age of 19 as of Dec. 31 of the year for which you are filing taxes. <P> A child younger than 24 years of age as of Dec. 31 of the tax year in question may still qualify as a dependent if she is a full-time student. She may attend high school, a college or university or a technical school as long as she attends for at least the minimum hours the school considers full-time. Under 19 Years of Age. If your child meets the other tests, he must not be older than you or, if married and filing a joint return, your spouse. He does not have to be a student to qualify as long as he is under the age of 19 as of Dec. 31 of the year for which you are filing taxes. <P> To claim the Child Tax Credit, you must determine if your child is eligible. There are seven qualifying tests to consider: age, relationship, support, dependent status, citizenship, length of residency and family income. You and/or your child must pass all seven to claim this tax credit. <P> Tax Credits. Claiming your college-age child as your dependent might result in a tax credit as well, which reduces your tax bill to the IRS. As of the 2012 tax year, the IRS offers three tax credits for tuition, although one of them is set to expire after 2012 unless legislation passes to renew it. <P> A taxpayer cannot claim a dependency exemption for a person who can be claimed as a dependent on another tax return. The term dependent means a qualifying child or a qualifying relative.. A. To claim a dependency exemption for a qualifying child, all of the qualifying child dependency tests must be met: A dependent is a person other than the taxpayer or spouse who entitles the taxpayer to claim a dependency exemption. Each dependency exemption decreases income subject to tax by the exemption amount. 1 For 2014, the exemption amount is $3,950.

Under 19.

average cost of replacing tie rods

<P> Labor: $100 - $127. Parts: $53 - $100. The average cost for a tie rod end replacement-outer is between $153 to $227. Labor costs are estimated between $100 to $127 while parts are priced between $53 to $100. Get a personalized estimate based on your location and specific car. <P> The average cost for a tie rod end replacement-outer is between $153 to $227. Labor costs are estimated between $100 to $127 while parts are priced between $53 to $100. <P> The cost of tie rod ends vary from vehicle to vehicle and whether you purchase them from a dealer or an after-market auto parts supply retailer. Normally, dealer prices for parts are higher than parts purchased at an auto parts store. Expect to pay $30 to $80 per tie rod end as of December 2010. <P> The average cost for a tie rod end replacement-inner is between $245 to $348. Labor costs are estimated between $187 to $237 while parts are priced between $58 to $111. Get a personalized estimate based on your location and specific car. Estimate does not include taxes and fees. <P> 1 On average, to replace both tie rods, the professional job can range anywhere from $150 to as much as $475. 2 If only one tie rod has to be replaced, you can often cut this price in half. 3 For those that want to complete the job themselves, the cost of parts can vary anywhere from $30 to as much as $120 per rod. <P> Parts: $58 - $111. The average cost for a tie rod end replacement-inner is between $245 to $348. Labor costs are estimated between $187 to $237 while parts are priced between $58 to $111. Get a personalized estimate based on your location and specific car. Estimate does not include taxes and fees.

$150 to $475

how to access xfinity dvr

<P> Watch Your DVR Shows Online. X1 Customers: Turn any device into a personal TV screen anywhere in your home. Stream any channel live, watch XFINITY On Demand™ and access your DVR shows on your tablet, smartphone or computer. Plus, you can download your recordings to watch on mobile devices, even when you're offline. Try the new XFINITY TV experience now. Go to the website Get the app. <P> Xfinity TV customers with X1 DVR with cloud technology* can turn any screen into a TV inside the home. That means the ability to stream any channel live, watch thousands of Xfinity On Demand titles and access DVR shows on a tablet or smartphone. It's simple, and you'll use it every day. <P> You will need to be in front of each of your Comcast DVRs/TVs to set up the television portion, and on a computer with Internet access to set up the online portion. From your television with Comcast DVR: 1 Press Menu on your remote twice to access the Main Menu. 2 Select Setup. 3 Select Anywhere Access Setup. 4 Select Begin Setup. 5 On the next screen you will be presented with a unique access code that will enable you to continue your registration online. <P> SHARE. Xfinity TV customers with X1 DVR with cloud technology* can turn any screen into a TV inside the home. That means the ability to stream any channel live, watch thousands of Xfinity On Demand titles and access DVR shows on a tablet or smartphone. It's simple, and you'll use it every day.

1 Press Menu on your remote twice to access the Main Menu. 2 Select Setup. 3 Select Anywhere Access Setup.

bordetella pertussis cell morphology

<P> Bordetella pertussis is a Gram-negative, aerobic coccobacillus capsulate of the genus Bordetella, and the causative agent of pertussis or whooping cough. Unlike B. bronchiseptica, B. pertussis is not motile. Pertussis [edit]. Pertussis (or whooping cough) is an infection of the respiratory system characterized by a “whooping” sound when the person breathes in. In the US, it killed between 10,000 and 20,000 people per year before a vaccine was available. <P> Bordetella Pertussis. Bordetella pertussis is a kind of bacteria. It is a gram-negative organism and has a morphology named coccobacillus. It is an aerobic organism, meaning that it has to be in an oxygenated atmosphere in order to survive. The disease has to live in a warmer temperature, like that of the human body. Pertussis is an infection of the respiratory system. It was called the whooping cough since victims of the disease make a whooping sound when breathing. <P> Morphology and culture. B. pertussis is an immobile, gram-negative, short rod-shaped bacterium with a capsule form, strictly aerobic growth, very sensitive to cold and desiccation. Bordetella Pertussis epidemiology. The only known host for B. pertussis is the man, diseases occur from infancy through to adulthood and are transmitted by droplet infection. Young people and adults to play as a reservoir of pathogens and vectors of increasing importance. <P> Bordetella pertussis. Bordetella pertussis (B. Pertussis) is a small, coccobacillus. Coccobacillus are rod-shaped bacteria. Cocco comes from cocci meaning spherical shaped and bacillus comes from bacilli meaning elongated. B. pertussis colonize the cilia of the mammalian respiratory epithelium. The epithelium is a tissue composed of a layer of cells. The main purpose of the respiratory epithelium is to moisten and protect the airways. It was originally thought that B. pertussis did not invade the tissues <P> Bordetella pertussis, the agent of pertussis or whooping cough. Gram stain. (CDC). Bordetella pertussis colonizes the cilia of the mammalian respiratory epithelium (Figure 1). Generally, it is thought that B. pertussis does not invade the tissues, but some recent work has shown the bacterium in alveolar macrophages. <P> B. pertussis and B. parapertussis are very similar species. Both species cause pertussis (whooping cough) in humans and are separated merely by the toxins they release during infection. B. parapertussis releases toxins that seem to cause a milder form of pertussis (whooping cough). B. bronchiseptica causes respiratory disease in various mammals and occasionally in humans. B. pertussis colonize the cilia of the mammalian respiratory epithelium. The epithelium is a tissue composed of a layer of cells. The main purpose of the respiratory epithelium is to moisten and protect the airways. It was originally thought that B. pertussis did not invade the tissue <P> Enter keyword (s) : Bordetella pertussis. Overview: Bordella pertussis is a Gram-negative, coccobacillus-shaped, aerobic bacterium, belonging to the family Alcaligenaceae. Like other Gram-negative species, B. pertussis possesses lipooligosaccharide (LOS, or endotoxin) in its cell-wall outer membrane. <P> M icrobiology. Bordetella pertussis, a small gram-negative coccobacillus, is the most important cause of pertussis. B. parapertussis causes similar, but often milder type of cough with posttussive vomiting. B. bronchiseptica and B. avium are important pathogens in wild and domestic animals.

Bordetella pertussis is a kind of bacteria. It is a gram-negative organism and has a morphology named coccobacillus.

what temperature do you cook beef ribs

<P> According to USDA, ribs are done when they are 145°F internal temp, but they may still be tough. If you take them up to 180°F, drop the oven temp to about 180°F and hold them at this temp for about 30 minutes, the collagens and fats melt some more at this temp and make the meat more tender and juicy. On most cookers, when the oven temp is 225°F at sea level, it takes about three to four hours to cook a slab of baby backs and about five to six hours to cook a slab of St. Louis cut ribs or spares. They are slightly undercooked at that stage. <P> 2. Season your meat before slow cooking beef ribs. You may rub the ribs with dry seasonings or marinade them in your favorite sauce. 1 Make a dry rub out of sugar, salt, spices and/or herbs. 2 Soak your ribs in a marinade. 3 When smoking meats, an acidic marinade will act as a tenderizer. Check the temperature with a thermometer. When slow cooking meat, it is imperative that you have a thermometer to monitor the temperature of the smoker. When the temperature reaches 225 degrees Fahrenheit (107.22 C), you may begin cooking your ribs. <P> How to Cook Beef Ribs in the Oven. Prepare the ribs as directed in your recipe. Preheat an oven to 350-degrees F. Place the ribs with bone side down on a wire rack in a roasting pan. If you’re doing several slabs, it’s OK to stack them on top of one another. Cover pan tightly with aluminum foil. Bake for 1 hour. <P> Sear the rib roast (prime rib) for 15 minutes at the higher oven temperature (450 degrees F.), then turn the oven to the lower temperature (325 degrees F.) for the rest of the cooking time. Every 1/2 hour, baste the cut ends of the roast with the fat accumulated in the roasting pan. Do Not Cover the roast. Residual Heat or Carry-Over Cooking: Remember, the rib roast will continue to cook as it sets. The internal temperature will rise to 125 degrees F. to 130 degrees F. (medium rare) in approximately 15 to 20 minutes. If allowed to rest as long as an hour, the internal temperature will rise even higher. <P> 3. Shorten smoking time by covering the ribs with aluminum foil after they have cooked for 2 hours. Smoked beef ribs may take 6 to 8 hours to prepare, and if you're in a hurry, wrapping the ribs will shorten the cooking time. Check the temperature with a thermometer. When slow cooking meat, it is imperative that you have a thermometer to monitor the temperature of the smoker. When the temperature reaches 225 degrees Fahrenheit (107.22 C), you may begin cooking your ribs. <P> up vote 3 down vote accepted. You can do a low temperature cook on your ribs the same way you would do your pork shoulders. It's just the cooking times are shorter, that's all. Set your oven to 250-275F, and roast those ribs until they're done. I've had beef ribs done in as few as 3-4 hours, but as many as 5. Optionally, you can foil your ribs about halfway into your cook, with some liquid in the foil pack. Just be aware that they'll cook faster if they're foiled. All, I would like to cook spare ribs to a fall-off-the-bone consistency. I don't have access to a grill. I know how to do that with pork shoulders (dry rubbed, then uncovered in the oven at low heat for 6-8hrs), but spare ribs are a different type of animal. <P> Beef ribs will take about 6 hours to cook properly at a temperature between 225 and 250 degrees F. The best way to tell when your ribs are close to done is by the tenderness of the meat. Properly cooked the meat will be fork tender. <P> If cooking several racks of ribs, use a rib rack and place the meat side of the ribs facing the fire. Add the smoking chips and cover the grill. On average, beef ribs will need about 3 to 5 hours of cooking time, depending on the thickness of the meat and other factors such as weather conditions. Your main goal at this point is to watch and adjust the temperature. The heat will have a tendency to climb up to the 300-degree F range rather quickly. Preheat an oven to 350-degrees F. Place the ribs with bone side down on a wire rack in a roasting pan. If you’re doing several slabs, it’s OK to stack them on top of one another. Cover pan tightly with aluminum foil. Bake for 1 hour. <P> 1 Grill your ribs for 3 hours bone-side down. 2 Wrap them in foil and grill, bone-side up, for 30 to 60 minutes. 3 Same as with baby backs, you can an extra special touch here by pouring a cup of apple cider or juice into the foil packet. 4 Unwrap them and grill for 30 more minutes bone-side down. <P> Cooking the Ribs. Lower the temperature of the oven to approximately 400 degrees Fahrenheit and place the pan with the beef ribs in it. Ensure that the lid is properly placed. Cook at this temperature for about 45 minutes. Then slow cook the beef ribs in the oven for three hours by lowering the temperature further to about 200 degrees Fahrenheit. Slow cooking the meat enables the maximum amount of fat to melt away

The oven to approximately 400 degrees.

how much does it cost to upgrade your electrical panel

<P> 1 Typically it costs $800-$1,200 to have a qualified electrician upgrade an existing panel to 100 amps, or $1,500-$2,500 if a new panel is needed. 2 Expect to pay $1,300-$3,000 to upgrade to 200 amps, or $2,000-$4,000 to go to 400 amps. 3 Installing a new sub-panel runs $500-$1,000. Just a note on panel upgrades. For a majority of the states electrical code panels (2011 National Electrical Code), when upgrading a panel, a majority of breakers must be replaced with the Arc-Fault type. this may increase the past cost of the job by as much as $50 a breaker. <P> In older homes, the existing service could be 100 amps, 125 amps or 150 amps. If your home is smaller-less than 1,800 square feet - 150 amps may be sufficient. A larger home will require a 200-amp service upgrade and new electrical panel, which can cost about $3,500. If you have an electric range and central air conditioning, you will almost certainly need a 200-amp service to power these and other higher-amperage appliances.. <P> The average home is going to require a minimum of 100 amp service, but it isn't unheard of to see installations of 200 amps and more. For this discussion we will look at the costs of upgrading the average home from 40 amps to a new panel with 200 amp service. The average cost for a 200 amp upgrade is going to be from $1300 to $3000 (including materials). <P> If a brand new panel is needed expect to pay double or triple that price, as much as $2,500 for 100 amps. If you are in need of a panel that can handle more than 100 amps the price goes up. If you wish to upgrade your existing electric breaker panel to 200 amps the cost is anywhere from $1,200-$3,000. Upgrading to a 400-amp panel, which is what most new homes are being constructed with, will range anywhere from $2000 all the way up to $4000. You have an option of installing an electrical subpanel to supplement your existing panel. If you wish to just upgrade your existing panel to 100 amps without buying a new panel expect to pay anywhere from $800-$1300. Keep in mind that if you want to upgrade your existing panel it must be a relatively new model. <P> Our free calculator uses recent, trusted data to estimate costs for your Electrical Service Panel Upgrade project. For a basic 1 panel project in zip code 47474, the benchmark cost to Upgrade an Electrical Service Panel ranges between $930.42 - $1,404.73 per panel. To estimate costs for your project: 1. Set Project Zip Code Enter the Zip Code for the location where labor is hired and materials purchased. <P> Electrical Subpanel Cost. In most cases of upgrading to a 400-amp electric panel (and in some cases a 200-amp panel) you will also need a subpanel or two. These subpanels range in price from $500-$1000. You have an option of installing an electrical subpanel to supplement your existing panel. If you wish to just upgrade your existing panel to 100 amps without buying a new panel expect to pay anywhere from $800-$1300. Keep in mind that if you want to upgrade your existing panel it must be a relatively new model. <P> A qualified electrical contractor usually charges between $800 and $1,200 to upgrade an existing panel to 100 amps. This will only occur in older homes, like in Philadelphia for example, because the current minimum requirement is 100 amps. If a new panel is needed, it will cost between $1,500 and $2,500. An upgrade to 200 amps typically costs from $1,300-$3,000, and an upgrade to 400 amps can cost up to $4,000. Many people believe their circuit breaker or electrical panel is faulty because they experience a tripped breaker. Often, this is not the case <P> 1 Upgrade 100 amp electrical service to 200 amp, how much cost? 2 Should the cost of a replacement vs upgrade of electrical panel be different? 3 Cost to upgrade 60 amp panel with 200 amp panel in michigan, old 60s house with old wire do ineed to replace by cod. 4 how do you determine if an electrical panel is overloaded? 1 Should the cost of a replacement vs upgrade of electrical panel be different? 2

$800-$1,200 to have a upgrade an existing panel to 100 amps, or $1,500-$2,500 if a new panel is needed.

how long should a tattoo take to heal

<P> It must be healed before you even think about getting in the water. Tattoos take anywhere from two weeks to a months to heal, it can be longer though. Color should not effect healing. If you can't stay out of the water for that long, wait until the following fall to get the tattoo, that way you won't have to miss out. crazzy_nascar_chick · 6 years ago. Thumbs up. <P> best answer about four weeks how long a tattoo takes to heal depends on your immune system how detailed the tattoo and the size of the tattoo it can take a couple of weeks to around a month <P> yes its normal. my foot tattoo started to scab only a couple of days after getting it done. it takes about 2 weeks for it to look and feel healed but about 30 days to be completely healed under the skin. my back tattoo also did the same. just take care of it as your tattoo artist instructed you to and u should be fine! <P> A tattoo normally takes anywhere from 7 to 14 days to look fully healed, depending on the type, style, size and placement. The truth is that it can really take up to a month for a tattoo to be fully healed below the surface of the skin and for your body’s natural healing abilities to lock the ink in completely. <P> Rating Newest Oldest. Best Answer: A tattoo will surface heal in approx. one week, varying from person to person, but the healing process beneath will take 1-3 months, during which time strong sunlight and extremes of temperature should be avoided. Make sure you clean your tattoo and use an oniment such as Savlon whilst it's still healing. <P> Best Answer: It takes a tattoo about 3 weeks to heal completely. It's fair to say it should be treated like an open wound for the first 2 weeks of this time. That means no swimming, soaking in the bath, or doing anything where the transfer of germs is possible.

3 weeks.

how can i get a job as a food tester

<P> While you don't need to be a veterinarian in order to work as a dog food tester, it does help quite a little bit to know a lot about animal health. This way, you can better evaluate how dog food will taste to the audience that's actually meant to be eating it (i.e the dogs). Remember that most Americans do love their pets and there is nothing that most people won't do for them so you can potentially make a business out of recommending and selling assorted dog foods if you get turned down by Purina for the job of dog food tester. <P> Check out these helpful resources to find out more about becoming a dog food tester: Career Search: Dog Food Tester-This is an overview of the job of a dog food tester, though as previously noted, in most cases this is part of a larger job of being a pet nutritionist rather than being only a dog food tester. Remember that most Americans do love their pets and there is nothing that most people won't do for them so you can potentially make a business out of recommending and selling assorted dog foods if you get turned down by Purina for the job of <P> The best place to start is with a Google search for taste testers in your area. 1 Consumer taste testers get paid approximately $15/hour or up, but sometimes are paid per test, instead of per hour. 2 If you know of a specific organization in your area, start your search on their website. 1 Before a taste test, the organization will send you information about the ingredients in the items you’ll be testing. 2 Review this information to ensure you won’t have an issue with any of them. 3 Some additional ways to prepare are included below: 4 Be on time, or a little early. <P> Instructions. Apply for position of food tester at any food manufacturing company. You must be at least 18 and have a high school education for an entry-level position. This involves tasting a sample of the food. Enjoy the food that you are testing. For example, if you apply to be a chocolate food tester, then you do need to like chocolate. You can sample many pieces of whatever food it is, so this is a very important consideration. Taste the food sample as part of your food tester duties. After you taste it, you must write a report on your findings. Sometimes you tell another person how it tastes, and that person writes the report. Take you job position very seriously. <P> Recipe testing is not always a fulltime job — unless you get hired by one of the major food companies or a related company — but if you are looking for part-time work and consider yourself a careful cook, it might be just the thing. Why Test a Recipe? A recipe is a scientific formula. Some food magazines employ recipe testers. Unfortunately, a number do not, as they accomplish the task in-house. Some do a little of both and farm out recipes. Send inquiries to as many food and shelter (i.e., Good Housekeeping) magazines as you can. <P> List of FREE Product Testing Companies: If you want to become a product tester and want to test products for money then you need to join survey panels that provide paid product testing opportunities. Below is a list of free product testing companies that I use to get free products to try and test at home. We highly recommend to join the below product testing companies. You need to verify your email id by clicking the confirmation link to get product testing invitations. <P> The term “taste tester” can be applied to a variety of different jobs. There are consumer taste testers, who help food manufacturers decide when a product is ready for the market. And there are what we’ll refer to as “professional” taste testers, which include food scientists and sensory analysts. 1 Before a taste test, the organization will send you information about the ingredients in the items you’ll be testing. 2 Review this information to ensure you won’t have an issue with any of them. 3 Some additional ways to prepare are included below: 4 Be on time, or a little early. <P> Working as a Dog Food Tester By Eric Hammer If you've looked at Fido's canned dog food and wondered if it tastes good or not, then you might just be interested in becoming a dog food tester. Yes, you read that right. Amongst weird jobs, dog food testers are definitely up there right along with breath odor evaluators and dice inspectors. Remember that most Americans do love their pets and there is nothing that most people won't do for them so you can potentially make a business out of recommending and selling assorted dog foods if you get turned down by Purina for the job of <P> Not ones to let pets suffer from unhealthy, tasteless food, Pet Food Testers evaluate the nutritional value of pet food and, yes, taste-test it. Pet Food Testers don’t spend every day sampling a cuisine fit for a pampered pooch, though (don’t worry, most Pet Food Testers spit it out instead of swallowing it). Most days, they’re writing reports and thinking up new ideas on how to put a nutritional spin on a new line of food

Apply for position of food tester at any food manufacturing company. You must be at least 18 and have a high school education for an entry-level position. This involves tasting a sample of the food. Enjoy the food that you are testing.For example, if you apply to be a chocolate food tester, then you do need to like chocolate. You can sample many pieces of whatever food it is, so this is a very important consideration. Taste the food sample as part of your food tester duties.After you taste it, you must write a report on your findings.Sometimes you tell another person how it tastes, and that person writes the report. Take you job position very seriously.

kinds of oils used for food

<P> All types of extra-virgin and virgin oils are made from the first pressing of the olives, which removes about 90 percent of the olives' juice. Chemicals and high heat are not allowed in the production of extra-virgin or virgin oils -- no further processing or refining occurs after the pressing process. <P> Corn Oil: Most corn oil is extracted only from the germ of the corn kernel and is golden yellow in color; unrefined oil will have a darker color and richer corn taste. Use in salad dressings and dips with stronger flavors like peppers or garlic. <P> This means they keep better than polyunsaturated oils but not as well as saturated oils. They are most appropriate for light cooking or used raw in salad dressings and the like. Oils that are predominantly monounsaturated include olive, avocado, peanut, sesame, lard and duck fat. <P> Rich, beautiful, and fragrant, olive oil is much like wine -- taste is a matter of personal preference. The many variables that go into the production of olive oil yield dramatic differences in color, aroma, and flavor. And several names are used to differentiate all of these versions, which you'll learn about here. <P> Cleveland Cooks: Cooking oils Plain Dealer food and restaurant editor Joe Crea discusses the various types of oils for cooking, and which one to choose for the job. Taped at the Heinen's store in Brecksville. An endless array of oils can be found, but most cooks know only one or two varieties. <P> The current olive oil category used to be called pure olive oil.. Today, oils in this classification are a blend of refined olive oil and a virgin olive oil. The virgin oil lends a little aroma and flavor to the final product, which can have an acidity level of no more than 1.5 percent. <P> Oil is used as an ingredient and is also used for frying. One of the most common cooking oils is vegetable oil, but do you really know what that is? Do you know what oils are best used for frying or the proper way to store it? Here you will find different types of common cooking oils and the proper use of each of them. <P> Sesame Oil: The seed of the sesame plant provides sesame oil, which has a high antioxidant content. Unrefined sesame oil is great as a key flavor component in sauces or dressings. Use refined sesame oil for high heat applications like frying and toasted sesame oil for stir fries and Asian sauces and dips.

Vegetable oil

what is eclectic paradigm theory

<P> The eclectic paradigm is developed by John Dunning seeks to offer a general framework for determining the extent and pattern of both foreign-owned production undertaken by a country's own enterprises and also that of domestic production owned by foreign enterprises. <P> VOLUME฀18฀฀฀฀•฀฀฀฀NUMBER฀1 Alan M. Rugman 1 Reconciling Internalization Theory and the Eclectic Paradigm Alan M. Rugman Abstract: The eclectic paradigm of Dunning (1980) (with its OLI and four motives for FDI framework) can be reconciled with the firm and country matrix of Rugman (1981). However, the fit is not perfect. <P> DEFINITION of 'Eclectic Paradigm'. A theory that provides a three-tiered framework for a company to follow when determining if it is beneficial to pursue direct foreign investment. <P> The eclectic paradigm is a theory in economics and is also known as the OLI-Model or OLI-Framework. It is a further development of the internalization theory and published by John H. Dunning in 1993. Internalization theory itself is based on the transaction cost theory. <P> The eclectic theory paradigm is based on the assumption that institutions will avoid transactions in the open market when internal transactions carry lower costs. <P> An approach to analyzing whether it is beneficial for a company to make a foreign direct investment. The eclectic paradigm considers three factors. The first factor is whether a comparative advantage exists for the product the company wishes to develop in the foreign country. <P> BREAKING DOWN 'Eclectic Paradigm'. In order for a direct investment in a foreign country to be beneficial, the following advantages must be present: 1. Product or company specific advantages, such as a comparative advantage. 2. Location specific advantages-where the company derives greater benefit through a foreign establishment. 3.

It is a theory in economics and is also known as the OLI-Model or OLI-Framework.

what temp does frost hit

<P> I know 32 degrees is freezing...but at what temp. do we experience a *light* frost? The forecast is for 37 degrees tonight..... But, a light frost can form with an average air temperature somewhere between 33 and about 37/38. Some surfaces radiate heat better than others, which is why you will get frost at times on elevated surfaces such as car windshields, blades of grass, roofs, or mulch when nothing else is frosty. <P> Frost or freezing occurs when the temperature of air falls below the freezing point of water (0 °C, 32 °F, 273.15 K). This is usually measured at the height of 1.2 m above the ground surface. There is a rather subjective scale to show several degrees of frost severity: 1 slight frost: 0 to −3.5 °C (32.0 to 25.7 °F). For example, frost is used sometimes to indicate ice which forms on the ground during cold nights, but other times to indicate air temperature below freezing point. Hoar frost should be used for any frosted surface but it is sometimes reserved to indicate big ice crystals forming on very cold surfaces. <P> Winter and spring are usually associated with freezing temperatures. A freeze happens when the temperature falls to---or below--32 degrees F. While your fruit trees might withstand temperatures as low as 28 F, a mere three degrees lower may damage leaves, blooms and fruits. <P> Now frost is a covering of ice crystals on the surface produced by the depositing of water vapor to a surface cooler than 0° C (32° F). The deposition occurs when the temperature of the surface falls below the frost point. Similarly, dew forms when the air or surface temperature falls below the dew point temperature. Thus, if the temperature on the ground or an object such as a bush or a car windshield near the ground falls below the frost point, frost crystals may form. But the measured surface temperature may still be above freezing. <P> A light frost occurs when the temperature drops to below 32 degrees Fahrenheit, and refers to the conditions that allow a layer of ice crystals to form when water vapor condenses and freezes without first becoming dew. 1 Harvest basil and other tender herbs before a light frost (when the temperature drops to 32 degrees Fahrenheit). 2 Even if they survive the frost, they don't do well in cold temperatures. 3 The same is true for most annuals. <P> Frost forms when the temperature of a solid surface in the open cools to below the freezing point of water and for the most clearly crystalline forms of frost in particular, below the frost point in still air. Frost is the coating or deposit of ice that may form in humid air in cold conditions, usually overnight. In temperate climates it most commonly appears as fragile white crystals or frozen dew drops near the ground, but in cold climates it occurs in a greater variety of forms. <P> Frost (also called white or hoarfrost) occurs when air temperatures dip below 32°F and ice crystals form on plant leaves, injuring, and sometimes killing, tender plants. If a frost is predicted, cover your plants, both to retain as much soil heat and moisture as possible and to protect them against strong winds, which can hasten drying and cooling. You can use newspapers, baskets, tarps, straw, and other materials to cover your plants.

0 to −3.5 °C (32.0 to 25.7 °F)

where is milford sound located

<P> Milford Sound. Milford Sound is located near the bottom of New Zealand's South Island in Fiordland National Park. Milford Sound is known for its rain. It receives up to 8 metres of rain per year. This makes it one of the wettest places on earth. There's so much rain that the first few metres of water in the sound is fresh water! <P> Milford Sound. Milford Sound is a fiord located in the beautiful Fiordland region in the south-west of the South Island. It was named after Milford Haven in Wales and lies roughly 287km from Queenstown (about a three and a half hour drive) and 757km from Christchurch (nearly a nine hour drive). FIORDLAND LODGE-Te Anau, Milford. Located on the highway to Milford Sound, Fiordland Lodge offers the discerning traveller style, comfort and privacy, yet is only five kilometres from the tourist township of Te Anau. <P> Geography [edit]. Milford Sound runs 15 kilometres inland from the Tasman Sea at Dale Point (also named after a location close to Milford Haven in Wales) - the mouth of the fiord-and is surrounded by sheer rock faces that rise 1,200 metres (3,900 ft) or more on either side. By road, Milford Sound is 307 km from Queenstown and 279 km from Invercargill (about four hours' drive), with most of the tour buses to the sound departing from Queenstown. Some tourists also arrive from the smaller tourism centre of Te Anau, 121 km away. <P> Milford Sound. Milford Sound map location. Milford Sound (Māori: Piopiotahi) is a fiord in the south west of New Zealand 's South Island, within Fiordland National Park, Piopiotahi (Milford Sound) Marine Reserve, and the Te Wahipounamu World Heritage site. By road, Milford Sound is 307 km from Queenstown and 279 km from Invercargill (about four hours' drive), with most of the tour buses to the sound departing from Queenstown. Some tourists also arrive from the smaller tourism centre of Te Anau, 121 km away. <P> Te Anau (118 km from Milford Sound): The lakefront town of Te Anau is 2 hours driving from Milford Sound depending on traffic. On the whole, Te Anau is an ideal place to stay with a beautiful location, good cafes and restaurants, and ample area activities. Lodging in the Milford Sound Area. Milford Lodge (2 km from Milford Sound): The Milford Lodge is by far the closest accommodation to Milford Sound and the only place to stay within 50 kilometers. <P> Situated on the west coast of the South Island, Milford Sound is a fusion of spectacular natural features with amazing visual cues around every corner. Read more Close. Described by Rudyard Kipling as the 'eighth wonder of the world', Milford Sound was carved by glaciers during the ice ages. <P> Geology. Milford Sound, located at the northern most end of Fiordland National Park on the South Island of New Zealand, is a national icon. In places as much as 400 metres deep, celebrated for its pristine landscapes, and remote and rugged beauty, it is actually a fiord, rather than a sound. From 1930-1954 the Homer Tunnel was built, allowing road access to Milford Sound, and visitors began to flock to Milford Sound to see it for themselves. Today it is New Zealand’s most famous tourist destination and frequently tops lists of the most beautiful places in the world. <P> Knob’s Flat (54 km from Milford Sound): Knob's Flat is located halfway between Te Anau and Milford Sound along the Milford Road. The accommodations are basic—there are six simple cabins and campsites—but the Eglinton Valley is spectacular and the morning drive to visit Milford Sound is a snap. Lodging in the Milford Sound Area. Milford Lodge (2 km from Milford Sound): The Milford Lodge is by far the closest accommodation to Milford Sound and the only place to stay within 50 kilometers.

Milford Sound is located near the bottom of New Zealand's South Island in Fiordland National Park.

abbreviation for semester

<P> The contraction of you are is you're. An abbreviation is a shortened form often followed by a period. A contraction follows a spoken form of a word pair by omitting one or m … ore letters (e.g. you've, he's, won't). What is the abbreviation for semester? already exists. already exists as an alternate of this question. exists and is an alternate of. Did you always want to be an actress? How do you abbreviate it has? How do you abbreviate did not? What is the abbreviation for are not? What is the abbreviation for you will? What is the abbreviation for will not? <P> Following is the system of abbreviations and symbols used in the course listings that appear throughout this Bulletin. Part of each course number is an alphabetical prefix that indicates the University school, college, or program (first three letters) and the department (next two letters) in which the course originates. For example, CAS HI 102 indicates a course in the College of Arts & Sciences, Department of History. Course descriptions usually offer a brief outline of the content of the course, any prerequisites or corequisites, the instructor, credit value, and semester the course is offered. Abbreviations frequently used are: <P> For example Ave. stands for Avenue and Apt. stands for apartment. An abbreviation (from Latin brevis sho … rt) is a shorter form of a word. More particularly, an abbreviation is a letter or group of letters, taken from a word or words, and employed to represent them for the sake of. For example, the word abbreviation can be abbreviated as abbr. or abbrev.. What is the abbreviation for semester? already exists. already exists as an alternate of this question. exists and is an alternate of. Did you always want to be an actress? How do you abbreviate it has? How do you abbreviate did not? What is the abbreviation for are not? What is the abbreviation for you will? What is the abbreviation for will not? <P> Course Abbreviations. Penn State identifies courses by a departmental abbreviation and course number (e.g., MATH 140, ENGL 015, ART 020). Uniformity of Course Abbreviations exists at all Penn State colleges and campuses. A list of current Course Abbreviations is in the Undergraduate Degree Programs Bulletin. A course is listed by its abbreviation in degree programs, the Schedule of Courses, and on students’ records (e.g., degree audit and transcript). <P> An X after a course number indicates that the course is given off campus. Course descriptions usually offer a brief outline of the content of the course, any prerequisites or corequisites, the instructor, credit value, and semester the course is offered. Abbreviations frequently used are: <P> MMHCA is moving forward to adopt updated educational standards that reflect the national trend of requiring the equivalent of 60 semester hours in a master's degree for future licensing. Payment for tuition and fees cannot exceed $250 per semester hour or $166. Tuition assistance is capped at $250 per semester hour or $750 per course and an annual cap of $4,500 according to Hicks. <P> In Acronyms & Abbreviations. AbbreviationAn abbreviation is a way to shorten a word to save space. For example Ave. stands for Avenue and Apt. stands for apartment. An abbreviation (from Latin brevis sho … rt) is a shorter form of a word. More particularly, an abbreviation is a letter or group of letters, taken from a word or words, and employed to represent them for the sake of. For example, the word abbreviation can be abbreviated as abbr. or abbrev.. More particularly, an abbreviation is a letter or group of letters, taken from a word or words, and employed to represent them for the sake of <P> The contraction of you are is you're. An abbreviation is a shortened form often followed by a period. A contraction follows a spoken form of a word pair by omitting one or m … ore letters (e.g. you've, he's, won't). More particularly, an abbreviation is a letter or group of letters, taken from a word or words, and employed to represent them for the sake of.

Following is the system of abbreviations and symbols used in the course listings that appear throughout this Bulletin. Part of each course number is an alphabetical prefix that indicates the University school, college, or program (first three letters) and the department (next two letters) in which the course originates.

what structures receive arterial blood from the brachiocephalic artery

<P> At this point, it divides, giving rise to the common carotid artery, which carries blood to the right side of the neck and head, and the right subclavian artery, which leads to the right ... Click to read more below. The brachiocephalic trunk is another word for the brachiocephalic artery. The brachiocephalic artery supplies blood to the tissues of the brain and the head. It is the first branch of the aortic arch and rises up to a point near the junction of the sternum (breast bone) and the right clavicle (collarbone). <P> Arteries are blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart. The brachiocephalic (Brachi- , -cephal) artery extends from the aortic arch to the head. It branches off into the right common carotid artery and the right subclavian artery. <P> Pulmonary arteries carry blood from the heart to the lungs where the blood picks up oxygen. The oxygen rich blood is then returned to the heart via the pulmonary veins. Systemic arteries deliver blood to the rest of the body. The aorta is the main systemic artery and the largest artery of the body. It originates from the heart and branches out into smaller arteries which supply blood to the head region (brachiocephalic artery), the heart itself (coronary arteries), and the lower regions of the body. The smallest arteries are called arterioles and they play a vital role in microcirculation. <P> The brachiocephalic artery is a branch off of the aortic arch and send blood to the head, neck, and right arm. Edit. Share to: 1 Blood Gas Testing for the COPD Patient If you have difficulty breathing, seek medical attention. 2 Shortness of breath is a symptom of a dangerous and progressive disease known as COPD. <P> Arteries are blood vessels that supply blood to the tissues of body. They carry the blood away from heart and because the blood inside them is oxygenated, they appear red in color. <P> Making the world better, one answer at a time. It is an artery of the mediastinum that supplies oxygenated blood the right arm, head and neck.

Head, neck, and right arm.

spots on lungs that are not cancer

<P> My grandmother has had a spot on her lung for 20 years, they just kept watching it. She is now 96. A spot on the lungs does not mean lung cancer, that is just one of the many things it could be. The fact that he is not a smoker increases the chances that it could be one of the many other things. In a non-smoking 34-year-old man it is highly likely that these 2 spots are not cancer. If they are in the area of the pneumonia, they could even be patches of slowly resolving infection. The densities and other characteristics of these 2 spots on the CT scan should enable your husband. <P> This is often the first test your doctor will do to look for any masses or spots on the lungs. Plain x-rays of your chest can be done at imaging centers, hospitals, and even in some doctors’ offices. If the x-ray is normal, you probably don’t have lung cancer (although some lung cancers may not show up on an x-ray). <P> Answer: A solitary spot on a chest X-ray — generally referred to as a lung nodule — sometimes can be an early cancer, so it's important to talk to your doctor to determine the best course of action. Lung nodules are common and typically noncancerous (benign). Tests may include the following: 1 CT scan of the chest if the nodule was first seen on a chest X-ray; 2 Positron emission tomography (PET) scan to see how active the nodule cells are — high cellular activity is an indicator of cancer or active inflammation; and/or. 3 Tissue sample (biopsy the nodule). <P> Factors that influence the likelihood that a solo spot on a lung X-ray indicates cancer include: 1 age: If you’re in your fifties or older, you have a 50 percent chance of a nodule being cancerous. While not all lung cancers will appear on an X-ray, you likely don’t have lung cancer if the X-ray looks normal. If a spot does appear on your X-ray, your doctor will probably want to order more tests to learn more, such as: 1 computed tomography (CT) scan. 2 magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan. <P> A benign lung tumor is an abnormal growth of tissue that serves no purpose and is found not to be cancerous. Benign lung tumors may grow from many different structures in the lung. Determining whether a nodule is a benign tumor or an early stage of cancer is very important. The first thing that may come to mind is a dreaded word: cancer. In many cases, though, a lung nodule turns out to be benign. This means that it isn't cancer. A hard part is waiting and not knowing. <P> A lung nodule is a spot at least two centimeters in diameter that appears on an X-ray of the lung. Spots that are smaller than one centimeter often can’t be seen on a chest X-ray. Spots that are more than two centimeters are considered a mass, not a nodule. While not all lung cancers will appear on an X-ray, you likely don’t have lung cancer if the X-ray looks normal. If a spot does appear on your X-ray, your doctor will probably want to order more tests to learn more, such as: 1 computed tomography (CT) scan. 2 magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan. <P> A chest X-ray is usually the first test your doctor will perform to look for spots or masses on your lungs. This X-ray may be given at an imaging center or hospital. While not all lung cancers will appear on an X-ray, you likely don’t have lung cancer if the X-ray looks normal. If a spot does appear on your X-ray, your doctor will probably want to order more tests to learn more, such as: 1 computed tomography (CT) scan. 2 magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan. <P> A nodule is a spot on the lung, seen on an X-ray or computed tomography (CT) scan. In fact, a nodule shows up on about one in every 500 chest X-rays. Normal lung tissue surrounds this small round or oval solid overgrowth of tissue. It may be a single or solitary pulmonary nodule. Or, you may have multiple nodules. Your lung nodule is more likely to be benign if: 1 You are younger than age 40. 2 You are a nonsmoker. 3 There is calcium in the nodule. 4 The nodule is small. The first thing that may come to mind is a dreaded word: cancer. In many cases, though, a lung nodule turns out to be benign. This means that it isn't cancer. A hard part is waiting and not knowing. <P> Lung Cancer. Lung cancer is known to be the leading cause of cancer deaths in the United States in both men and women. Lung cancer often appears as a spot or nodule on the lungs when a chest x-ray is taken. People who smoke are at a high risk of developing this condition. There are several other risk factors which include the family history of a person, exposure to radon gas, smoke and asbestos <P> However, keep in mind that a spot on a chest X-ray is common and lung nodules usually indicate a benign condition rather than cancer. Nevertheless, a spot on the lungs can sometimes indicate a problem and your doctor should monitor it closely over time for changes and growth. While not all lung cancers will appear on an X-ray, you likely don’t have lung cancer if the X-ray looks normal. If a spot does appear on your X-ray, your doctor will probably want to order more tests to learn more, such as: 1 computed tomography (CT) scan. 2 magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan.

Your lung nodule is more likely to be benign if: 1 You are younger than age 40. 2 You are a nonsmoker. 3 There is calcium in the nodule. 4 The nodule is small.

what is the time span of the roman empire

<P> The history of the Roman Empire covers the history of Ancient Rome from the fall of the Roman Republic in 27 BC until the abdication of the last Emperor in 476 AD. Rome had begun expanding shortly after the founding of the Republic in the 6th century BC, though didn't expand outside of Italy until the 3rd century BC. Civil war engulfed the Roman state in the mid 1st century BC, first between Julius Caesar and Pompey, and finally between Octavian and Mark Antony. <P> The eastern part of the Roman Empire was not affected by the invasions which cause the western part to fall and continued to exist for nearly 1,000 years.Historians have coined the term Byzantine Empire to indicate the eastern part of the Roman Empire after the fall of the western part of the Roman Empire. The term Byzantine is derived from Byzantium, the Greek city which was redeveloped, turned into the imperial capital of the eastern part of the Roman Empire and renamed Constantinople by the emperor Constantine the Great in 330. <P> The Western Roman Empire officially ended 4 September 476 CE, when Emperor Romulus Augustus was deposed by the Germanic King Odoacer (though some historians date the end as 480 CE with the death of Julius Nepos). The Fall of the Roman Empire. From 376-382 CE, Rome fought a series of battles against invading Goths known today as the Gothic Wars. At the Battle of Adrianople, 9 August 378 CE, the Roman Emperor Valens was defeated, and historians mark this event as pivotal in the decline of the Western Roman Empire. <P> The Roman Empire was among the most powerful economic, cultural, political and military forces in the world of its time. It was the largest empire of the classical antiquity period, and one of the largest empires in world history. The Roman Empire was one of the largest in history, with contiguous territories throughout Europe, North Africa, and the Middle East. The Latin phrase imperium sine fine (empire without end) expressed the ideology that neither time nor space limited the Empire. <P> The imperial successor to the Republic lasted approximately 500 years. The first two centuries of the Empire's existence were a period of unprecedented political stability and prosperity known as the Pax Romana, or Roman Peace. Following Octavian's victory, the size of the Empire was dramatically increased. The Roman Empire was one of the largest in history, with contiguous territories throughout Europe, North Africa, and the Middle East. The Latin phrase imperium sine fine (empire without end) expressed the ideology that neither time nor space limited the Empire. <P> In the East, the Roman Empire (commonly called the Byzantine Empire) continued until 1453, when it was replaced by the Ottoman Empire, whose Sultan used the title Qaysar y Rum (Emperor of Rome) and which survived until 1922. The term Byzantine is derived from Byzantium, the Greek city which was redeveloped, turned into the imperial capital of the eastern part of the Roman Empire and renamed Constantinople by the emperor Constantine the Great in 330. <P> It it's peak the Roman empire spread from the Atlantic coast of Spain and Portugal to the Caspian sea. Northwards it spread to the border of Scotland and in the South it included Egypt and the north coast of Africa. The term Byzantine is derived from Byzantium, the Greek city which was redeveloped, turned into the imperial capital of the eastern part of the Roman Empire and renamed Constantinople by the emperor Constantine the Great in 330. <P> The Roman Empire. The Roman Empire included most of what would now be considered Western Europe. The empire was conquered by the Roman Army and a Roman way of life was established in these conquered countries. The main countries conquered were England/Wales (then known as Britannia), Spain (Hispania), France (Gaul or Gallia), Greece (Achaea), the Middle East (Judea) and the North African coastal region <P> 1 In Magi: The Labyrinth of Magic, Reim's Peace is the Reim Empire's version of Pax Romana, established about 200 years prior to the series by Empress Scherazade. 2 Reim is a nation based on the Roman Empire. Since it was established by Augustus, it is sometimes called Pax Augusta. Its span was approximately 206 years (27 BC to 180 AD) according to Encyclopedia Britannica or from 70 AD to 192 AD according to The Cambridge Ancient History.

27 BC to 476 AD

what is lactate in a blood test

<P> Introduction. A lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) test measures the amount of LDH in the blood. Lactate dehydrogenase is an enzyme that the body uses during the process of turning sugar into energy for your cells to use. LDH is found in many of the body's tissues and organs, including the muscles, liver, heart, pancreas, kidneys, brain and blood cells <P> A test for lactic acid is done to: 1 Check for lactic acidosis. 2 See whether the right amount of oxygen is reaching the body's tissues. 3 Find the cause for a high amount of acid (low pH) in the blood. A lactic acid test is generally done on a blood sample taken from a vein in the arm but it may also be done on a sample of blood taken from an artery (arterial blood gas). <P> Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) is an enzyme that helps facilitate the process of turning sugar into energy for your cells to use. LDH is present in many kinds of organs and tissues throughout the body, including the liver, heart, pancreas, kidneys, skeletal muscles, brain, and blood cells. When illness or injury damages your cells, LDH may be released into the bloodstream, causing the level of LDH in your blood to rise. <P> This is a blood test that measures the level of lactic dehydrogenase (LDH) in your body. LDH is an enzyme, or catalyst, found in many different tissues in your body. These include your red blood cells, skeletal muscles, kidneys, brain, and lungs. <P> Lactic Acid. Guide. A lactic acid test is a blood test that measures the level of lactic acid made in the body. Most of it is made by muscle tissue and red blood cells. When the oxygen level in the body is normal, carbohydrate breaks down into water and carbon dioxide. A lactic acid test is generally done on a blood sample taken from a vein in the arm but it may also be done on a sample of blood taken from an artery (arterial blood gas). <P> A high lactate level in the blood means that the disease or condition a person has is causing lactate to accumulate. In general, a greater increase in lactate means a greater severity of the condition. When associated with lack of oxygen, an increase in lactate can indicate that organs are not functioning properly. The Test. The lactate test is primarily ordered to help determine if someone has lactic acidosis, a level of lactate that is high enough to disrupt a person's acid-base (ph) balance. <P> The lactate test measures the level of lactate in the blood at a given point in time. A normal lactate level indicates that a person does not have lactic acidosis, that there is sufficient oxygen at the cellular level, and/or that their signs and symptoms are not caused by lactic acidosis. ^ Back to top. The Test. The lactate test is primarily ordered to help determine if someone has lactic acidosis, a level of lactate that is high enough to disrupt a person's acid-base (ph) balance.

A lactic acid test is a blood test that measures the level of lactic acid made in the body. Most of it is made by muscle tissue and red blood cells.When the oxygen level in the body is normal, carbohydrate breaks down into water and carbon dioxide.

in which Sc ecosystem is a horseshoe crab found

<P> Horseshoe Crab. Horseshoe crabs (Limulus polyphemus) are a marine arthropod found along the Atlantic coast from northern Maine to the Yucatan Peninsula and the Gulf of Mexico. The Delaware Bay supports the largest spawning population in the world. Life History. Horseshoe crabs (Limulus polyphemus) are a marine arthropod found along the Atlantic coast from northern Maine to the Yucatan Peninsula and the Gulf of Mexico. <P> Horseshoe crabs are a keystone species within the Delaware Bay ecosystem. Description: Horseshoe crabs look like prehistoric crabs. They have a hard exoskeleton, ten walking legs under the shell, spines on the abdomen and a long tail. Most horseshoe crabs will not even make it to the larval stage before being eaten. If the egg survives, the larval horseshoe crab will hatch from the egg after about 2 weeks or more. The larva looks like a very tiny version of an adult horseshoe crab without a tail. <P> Horseshoe Crab eggs in a shell 12 inches wide, Edisto Island, SC, May 2008. I found the crab dead with appendages and book gills eaten away. This is the shell on the left. It is 29 inches long from the front edge of the carapace to the tip of the tail. Horseshoe Crab, live, Sunset Beach, NC, 12/14 and 12/15/06. <P> If you want to see one of the world’s oldest natural phenomena, then make a journey to the Delaware Bay in late spring. During full and new moons and high tides in May and June, hundreds of thousands of horseshoe crabs converge on the Delaware Bay to breed. Most horseshoe crabs will not even make it to the larval stage before being eaten. If the egg survives, the larval horseshoe crab will hatch from the egg after about 2 weeks or more. The larva looks like a very tiny version of an adult horseshoe crab without a tail. <P> Horseshoe crabs are used as bait to fish for eels (mostly in the United States) and whelk. However, fishing with horseshoe crab is temporarily forbidden in New Jersey (moratorium on harvesting) and restricted to only males in Delaware. A permanent moratorium is in effect in South Carolina. The eggs are eaten in parts of Southeast Asia and China. <P> He found the crab in the first row at Wrightsville, Beach, NC, and the crab without a shell on Masonboro Island, NC. Like hermit crabs, Shellback Crabs lack shells of their own. A Shellback Crab carries a clam shell on itsback, holding the shell in place with its last two pairs of legs. The first, very small pair is used to put ground-up food into the crab's mouth. The next five pairs are for walking. The first of those five, i.e., the second pair of appendages, is larger in males and is used to grasp a female during spawning. There are two very important facts to know about Horseshoe Crabs. <P> Chitin is a substance found in the shells, or exoskeleton, of horseshoe crabs, as well as other arthropods, such as lobsters, crabs, shrimp, spiders, beetles, and mosquitoes. Chitin has received a lot of attention from scientists because it is non-toxic and biodegradable. Horseshoe crabs belong to the phylum, Arthropoda, along with crabs, insects, and other invertebrates with jointed legs, but their closest living relatives are spiders and scorpions. True crabs have two pairs of antennae and a pair of mandibles, or jaws; horseshoe crabs lack these structures. <P> These fascinating creatures (Limulus polyphemus) are found commonly along our beachfront sitting within the intertidal flats. The horseshoe crab is one of the oldest living species. Fossils of horseshoe crabs have been dated at 360 million years old. They evolved in the shallow seas of the Paleozoic Era (540-248 million years ago) with other primitive arthropods called trilobites, a long extinct close relative of the horseshoe crab. Among today’s species, they are more closely related to spiders than crab <P> Horseshoe Crab eggs in a shell 12 inches wide, Edisto Island, SC, May 2008. I found the crab dead with appendages and book gills eaten away. This is the shell on the left. It is 29 inches long from the front edge of the carapace to the tip of the tail. The first, very small pair is used to put ground-up food into the crab's mouth. The next five pairs are for walking. The first of those five, i.e., the second pair of appendages, is larger in males and is used to grasp a female during spawning. There are two very important facts to know about Horseshoe Crabs.

Delaware Bay ecosystem

the cervical spine is composed of

<P> The normal anatomy of the spine is usually described by dividing up the spine into three major sections: the cervical, the thoracic, and the lumbar spine. (Below the lumbar spine is a bone called the sacrum, which is part of the pelvis). Each section is made up of individual bones, called vertebrae. There are 7 cervical vertebrae, 12 thoracic vertebrae, and 5 lumbar <P> What is a herniated cervical disc? The backbone, or spine, is composed of a series of connected bones called vertebrae.. The vertebrae surround the spinal cord and protect it from damage. Nerves branch off the spinal cord and travel to the rest of the body, allowing for communication between the brain and the body. <P> Gross Anatomy. The cervical spine is made up of the first 7 vertebrae, referred to as C1-7 (see the images below). It functions to provide mobility and stability to the head while connecting it to the relatively immobile thoracic spine. <P> Overview. The cervical spine is made up of 7 vertebrae. The first 2, C1 and C2, are highly specialized and are given unique names: atlas and axis, respectively. C3-C7 are more classic vertebrae, having a body, pedicles, laminae, spinous processes, and facet joints. <P> The spine (also called the vertebral column or spinal column) is composed of a series of bones called vertebrae stacked one upon another. There are four regions of the spine: 1 cervical (neck). 2 thoracic (chest/trunk). 3 lumbar (low back). <P> The cervical spine is made up of seven cervical vertebrae. The main function of the cervical spine is to support the weight of the head which is approximately 10-12 pounds. The cervical spine has the greatest range of motion, in part because of two specialized vertebra that move with the skull.

Made up of 7 vertebrae.

kambos malaga contact

<P> You can purchase come nice jars for this at Kambo's-the BODUM range is particularly nice, with a variety of sizes and colours, the 600ml would be perfect!: https://www.kambos.com.au/…/kitchenwa…/containters-jars.html. <P> Stage 2 of Kwinana Supa Centre will commence later this year. “Kambo’s decision to ancho r the K winana precinct was imperat iv e ,” Mr Gi smondi said. “There is a significant lack of electrical and homewares goods on offer to the primary and secondary catchments. <P> CAPS Malaga. Phone: (08) 9249 7776 | Location: 6 Trade Road, Malaga, WA | Web: http://www.caps.com.au. CAPS Malaga, we make it easier by being a one stop shop for all your compressed air needs. We stock a comprehensive range of compressors, air & power tools, dryers, lighting towers and generators. <P> The commitment from Kambo’s means approximately 86% of the circa 6,000sqm of space in Stage 1 has been leased ahead of the official handover in April. Other tenants include Autobahn, Jetts, Stateswim, Muzz Buzz, a Wellness Centre and a veterinary clinic, with negotiations underway on the remaining space. <P> Kambo’s Homemaker Superstore to anchor Perth’s first hybrid centre. ​. Perth, 04 February 2015 – Family owned electrical and homewears business Kambo’s Homemaker Superstore has secured a 2,000sqm showroom at Kwinana Supa Centre to further expand its WA footprint. <P> Saw Kambos online website had a product I wanted for sale @$250 on Friday 2/10/15. It was a good deal so I ordered one straight away and paid with my credit card on the same day. On Monday 5/10/15, the price had reverted back to $350. Checked my order status on Wednesday 7/10/15 and it was still showing 'pending'. <P> The new lease will see Kambo’s anchor the first stage of Kwinana Supa Centre, which is set to become Perth’s first true hybrid retail complex, incorporating a mix of shopping centre and showroom tenants.

(08) 9249 7776

what is the function of the ciliated mucous membrane in the nose

<P> The interior of the nose is lined with mucous membrane, and most of the membrane is covered with minute hairlike projections called cilia. Moving in waves these cilia sweep out from the nasal passages the nasal mucus, which may contain pollen, dust, and bacteria from the air. the specialized structure of the head that serves both as the organ of smell and as the first segment of the respiratory apparatus. Air breathed in through the nose is warmed, humidified and filtered by the richly vascular mucous membrane. <P> Making the world better, one answer at a time. The function of mucus is to produce a blanket that carries debri and pathogens (disease causing microorganisms like bacteria and viruses) out of the respiratory tract with the action of cilia. The cilia in the nose play a major role in the sense of smell. The cilia transmit the smell to the olfactory nerve. They also catch toxins like chemicals, viruses, and bac … teria and cause them to become trapped in mucus and swallowed instead of being inhaled into the lungs. <P> The nasal mucous membrane lines the nasal cavities, and is intimately adherent to the periosteum or perichondrium. It is continuous with the skin through the nares, and with the mucous membrane of the nasal part of the pharynx through the choanae. Structure of the Mucous Membrane (Fig. 857).—The epithelium covering the mucous membrane differs in its character according to the functions of the part of the nose in which it is found. In the respiratory region it is columnar and ciliated <P> Like the nasal cavity, the sinuses are lined with a mucous membrane composed of cells that produce mucus and have cilia. Incoming dirt particles are trapped by the mucus, and then moved by the cilia into the nasal cavity, through small sinus openings. Because these openings are so small, the drainage can easily be blocked by conditions such as colds or allergies, which produce swelling of the mucous membranes. Know your nose The nasal cavity is divided into two passages by the nasal septum. The nasal septum is composed of both bone and cartilage and extends from the nostrils to the back of the throat. Bones called nasal conchae project into the lateral walls of the nasal cavity, forming a series of folds called turbinates. <P> The mucous membrane is thickest, and most vascular, over the nasal conchae. It is also thick over the septum; but it is very thin in the meatuses on the floor of the nasal cavities, and in the various sinuses. It is one of the most commonly infected tissues in adults and children. Structure of the Mucous Membrane (Fig. 857).—The epithelium covering the mucous membrane differs in its character according to the functions of the part of the nose in which it is found. In the respiratory region it is columnar and ciliated <P> Scattered throughout the cilia are goblet … cells that secrete mucus which helps protect the lining of the bronchus and trap microorganisms. The purpose of mucus is to lubricate and protect the organs that it lines. The cilia in the nose play a major role in the sense of smell. The cilia transmit the smell to the olfactory nerve. They also catch toxins like chemicals, viruses, and bac … teria and cause them to become trapped in mucus and swallowed instead of being inhaled into the lungs. <P> The interior lining of the nose is a mucous membrane. Healthy lung function is aided by a thin mucus lining. The mucous membrane that lines the urogenital tract can make someone vulnerable to infections passed between sexual partners. Mucosa is commonly found in the respiratory tract. 10 most extreme places on Earth. A mucous membrane is a layer of epithelial tissue which lines an area of the body which comes into contact with air. Mucous membranes are moist because of the presence of glands which secrete a thick fluid known as mucus, and they are important for a number of bodily functions. <P> Mucus in the airways helps trap foreign particles to protect the respiratory system. Cilia are tiny beating hairs that sweep the mucus up to your throat where it is either … coughed out or swallowed by the acids in your stomach. The cilia are like a janitor who always sweeps up the messes. The cilia in the nose play a major role in the sense of smell. The cilia transmit the smell to the olfactory nerve. They also catch toxins like chemicals, viruses, and bac … teria and cause them to become trapped in mucus and swallowed instead of being inhaled into the lungs. <P> Ciliated mucous membrane lines the nose, closely adhering to the periosteum. The mucous membrane is continuous with the skin through the nares and with the mucous membrane of the nasal part of the pharynx through the choanae. the specialized structure of the head that serves both as the organ of smell and as the first segment of the respiratory apparatus. Air breathed in through the nose is warmed, humidified and filtered by the richly vascular mucous membrane.

It is lined with mucous membrane, and most of the membrane is covered with minute hairlike projections called cilia.

how many calories burned during aquafit

<P> Calories Burned During Aquafit. A person weighing 125 pounds can burn an estimated 240 calories during a one hour aquafit workout. A person weighing 185 pounds may burn 356 calories during the same workout. The heavier you are the more energy it takes to do activities because your body has to move more weight. During the classes, you may perform calisthenic-type moves, use the water resistance while exercising with floaties, tread water, walk or jog -- all in waist-or neck-deep water. Although the calories burned vary, you may burn more than 200 calories per hour in an aquafit class. <P> You have to burn 3500 calories to lose one pound of weight. This is why you should use a calorie counter regularly. How to lose 20 pounds? You have to have a calorie deficit* of 70,000 calories to lose 20 pounds (*burn 70,000 more calories than the number of calories you eat). 1 Enter your age and gender. 2 Enter your height and weight. <P> Calories Burned-Water aerobics. Find out how many calories you burn for Water aerobics. The number of calories you burn while exercising is dependent on the exercise you do, your weight, and the time spent doing the exercise. Use the calories burned calculator below to see how many calories you burned during your workout. Your Weight in Pounds: <P> Everyone burns calories at a different rate due to their weight, metabolism, muscle mass and intensity level. Shape magazine reports that you can generally expect to burn in the neighborhood of 700 calories during a 60-minute Aqua Zumba class. <P> This page provides you with a Zumba calories calculator, allowing you to easily estimate how many Zumba® calories you have burned during your Zumba Fitness class or how many Zumba calories you burned at home with your Zumba Wii Fit, Zumba Fitness Party for XBox 360 or Zumba Fitness for PS3. <P> Units of Energy -- Calories. A calorie is a unit of measurement that describes energy. When you exercise you burn calories or expend energy. The more calories you burn the harder you have exercised. In terms of body weight, 1 pound of fat is equivalent to 3,500 calories. The stored energy in your body fat can provide a lot of calories during your exercise routines. During the classes, you may perform calisthenic-type moves, use the water resistance while exercising with floaties, tread water, walk or jog -- all in waist-or neck-deep water. Although the calories burned vary, you may burn more than 200 calories per hour in an aquafit class. <P> You can burn 145-380 calories in 30 minutes of water aerobics. It depends on how much you weigh, how hard you work, and how long you exercise. Below is an estimate of how many calories you can burn during 30 minutes of water aerobics. 1 If you weigh 150 lbs, you can burn approximately 145 calories in 30 minutes. 2 If you weigh 200 lbs, you can burn approximately 190 calories in 30 minutes. <P> Calorie Calculator. The workout calorie calculator helps you calculate calories burned during a workout-walking, biking, swimming, cycling, even kayaking. It uses standard calorie calculations based on your height, weight, gender and the duration of your workout. Plan healthy meals and track calories to help you meet your fitness goals

240 calories.

thyroid autoimmune disease sugar

<P> 1 Some autoimmune diseases, like diabetes and thyroid disease, can affect the body's ability to make substances it needs to function. 2 With diabetes, insulin injections are needed to regulate blood sugar. 3 Thyroid hormone replacement restores thyroid hormone levels in people with underactive thyroid. 1 Replace vital substances the body can no longer make on its own. 2 Some autoimmune diseases, like diabetes and thyroid disease, can affect the body's ability to make substances it needs to function. 3 <P> Hashimoto’s disease is an autoimmune disease that affects the thyroid. It also is called Hashimoto’s thyroiditis (theye-royd-EYET-uhss). The thyroid is a small gland in the front of the neck. The thyroid makes hormones called T3 and T4 that regulate how the body uses energy. An underactive thyroid causes every function of the body to slow down, such as heart rate, brain function, and the rate your body turns food into energy. Hashimoto’s disease is the most common cause of an underactive thyroid. It is closely related to Graves’ disease, another autoimmune disease affecting <P> General Discussion. Autoimmune thyroiditis (AT), also known as Hashimoto's disease, is a chronic inflammatory disorder of the thyroid gland that is caused by abnormal blood antibodies and white blood cells that mistakenly attack and damage healthy thyroid cells. <P> A Little Gland with Big Problems. Hashimoto’s is an autoimmune disease of the thyroid. This little butterfly-shaped ball of endocrine activity happens to be rather important – it controls metabolism, female hormones, circadian rhythms and energy levels. Pretty much, as one specialist told me, everything that makes you feel good about being you. Quitting sugar, quite frankly, is mandatory if you have an autoimmune disease. Sugar causes leaky gut (often cited as the precursor to autoimmune disease). Sugar inflames and mucks with the entire endocrine system and insulin spikes destroy the thyroid gland. In addition to the damage caused by insulin, a compromised thyroid gland will slow the removal of insulin from the bloodstream <P> Autoimmune thyroid diseases, such as autoimmune thyroiditis, which is also known as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis or chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis, are conditions in which the immune system attacks the body’s own thyroid gland. Autoimmune thyroid diseases are generally hereditary in origin, although environmental factors, such as infection, certain drugs, and iodine consumption, can play a role in their progression. Autoimmune thyroiditis is more common in women than in men, and it primarily affects people between 40 and 60 years of age. <P> This is actually a post I’ve been busting to write for a while. I first quit sugar because of my autoimmune (AI) disease. I have Hashimoto’s. And a big part of why I’ve stuck to the sugar-free program is that it’s made such a damn big difference. <P> A note from Sarah about Autoimmune Disease and Sugar: This is actually a post I’ve been busting to write for a while. And I really rather like that I’m finally writing it in Thyroid Awareness Month. As many of you know, I first quit sugar because of my autoimmune (AI) disease. I have Hashimotos. <P> Hashimoto's thryoiditis is an autoimmune condition that is a common cause of hypothyroidism. In Hashimoto's thyroiditis, the body mounts an immune reaction against its own thyroid gland tissue, leading to inflammation of the gland (thyroiditis). 1 Hashimoto's thyroiditis is caused by an autoimmune process that causes inflammation of the thyroid gland. 2 Symptoms of Hashimoto's thyroiditis are those of hypothyroidism and include. 3 feeling cold, 4 depression, 5 dry skin, 6 constipation, 7 fatigue, 8 sleepiness, and. 9 weight gain. <P> Hashimoto's thyroiditis is a condition caused by inflammation of the thyroid gland. It is an autoimmune disease, which means that the body inappropriately attacks the thyroid gland-as if it was foreign tissue. The underlying cause of the autoimmune process remains unknown. 1 Hashimoto's thyroiditis is caused by an autoimmune process that causes inflammation of the thyroid gland. 2 Symptoms of Hashimoto's thyroiditis are those of hypothyroidism and include. 3 feeling cold, 4 depression, 5 dry skin, 6 constipation, 7 fatigue, 8 sleepiness, and. 9 weight gain.

Quitting sugar is mandatory if you have an autoimmune disease. Sugar causes leaky gut.It inflames and mucks with the entire endocrine system and insulin spikes destroy the thyroid gland.

how much does the masters champion win

<P> Masters payout 2015: Winning share is $1.8 million of total purse. By Mark Sandritter  @MarkSandritter on Apr 12, 2015, 5:00p +. Jack Gruber-USA TODAY. The purse at Augusta National is even richer this year with the winner taking home nearly $200,000 more than Bubba Watson won last year. There is also a very large payday attached, and this year it will be the largest in Masters history. The 2015 Masters purse was bumped to $10 million according to the Augusta Chronicle, that's up $1 million from last year and $2 million from 2013. <P> Next: Jordan Spieth wins The Masters: 3 things we learned. If Spieth is able to continue his marvelous tournament with a strong day in Sunday’s final round and win the green jacket, he will win $1.8 million in the process of being the youngest Masters winner since Tiger Woods. More From The Masters. 1 8/17 - Jordan Spieth installed as 2016 Masters favorite. The final round of The Masters is underway with Justin Spieth holding a four-stroke lead over Justin Rose before the two tee off at 2:50, but both are guaranteed a significant payday for their work over the previous three days at Augusta National. <P> The winner of the 2014 Masters will take home the green jacket, but they'll also walk away with a large check. A very large one in fact. The Masters prize pool increased from $8 million to $9 million this year and the winner will take home a significant portion of the increased pot. The first-place check at the Masters is worth $1.62 million. The 2014 winnings are nearly $200,000 more than the $1.44 million Adam Scott won with his green jacket last year <P> Jordan Spieth didn't just get that coveted green jacket for winning the 2015 Masters golf tournament. He also took home some pretty impressive earnings. The first-place purse for the Masters victory was $1.8 million; the amount was $200,000 more than Bubba Watson earned last year for his win. Other purse amounts were: <P> 2015 Masters prize money announced. April 11, 2015 - 4:51 pm. UPDATE-Final 2015 money list: Click here to see the amount of prize money each player received. The total prize money for professionals competing in the 2015 Masters is $10 million. The breakdown by position: <P> In total, there is a $10 million purse for the 50 players who make the cut this year, but there is a steep drop from winning to second place, so there could be a point later today where someone wins or loses hundreds of thousands of dollars on a single putt. The final round of The Masters is underway with Justin Spieth holding a four-stroke lead over Justin Rose before the two tee off at 2:50, but both are guaranteed a significant payday for their work over the previous three days at Augusta National. <P> Total prize money for the 2013 Masters Tournament is $8,000,000. <P> The Masters Tournament, also known as The Masters or The US Masters, is one of the four major championships in professional golf. Scheduled for the first full week of April, it is the first of the majors to be played each year. The Masters was his again the next year, making him only the third player in history to win the tournament in consecutive years, as well as in 2005 when he defeated Chris DiMarco in a playoff for his first major championship win in almost three years.

$1.8 million

what is a squa carcinoma

<P> Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) is a health condition involving the uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells in the skin outer squamous cells of the epidermis. It occurs as a result of keratinization of the epidermal cells and has the potential to metastasize to other regions of the body. <P> Basal cell carcinoma is a slow growing, nonmelanoma cancer of the skin and is the number one cause of skin cancer in the United States. According the American Cancer Society, about 75% of all cancers of the skin are in the form of basal cell carcinoma. The cancer usually begins in the epidermis or the skin’s top layer. Squamous cell carcinoma is second only to basal cell carcinoma in incidence, but is a more serious cancer of the skin. It primarily occurs when there are changes in the skin’s cells. <P> Squamous-cell carcinoma of the skin is the most common among all sites of the body. Solid organ transplant recipients (heart, lung, liver, pancreas, among others) are also at a heightened risk of developing aggressive, high-risk SCC. 1 The tumor grows relatively slowly. 2 Unlike basal-cell carcinoma (BCC), squamous-cell carcinoma (SCC) has a substantial risk of metastasis. 3 Risk of metastasis is higher in SCC arising in scars, on the lower lips or mucosa, and occurring in immunosuppressed patients. <P> However, squamous cells also occur in the lining of the digestive tract, lungs, and other areas of the body, and SCC occurs as a form of cancer in diverse tissues, including the lips, mouth, esophagus, urinary bladder, prostate, lung, vagina, and cervix, among others. 1 The tumor grows relatively slowly. 2 Unlike basal-cell carcinoma (BCC), squamous-cell carcinoma (SCC) has a substantial risk of metastasis. 3 Risk of metastasis is higher in SCC arising in scars, on the lower lips or mucosa, and occurring in immunosuppressed patients. <P> The Second Most Common Form of Skin Cancer. Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) is an uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells arising in the squamous cells, which compose most of the skin’s upper layers (the epidermis). SCCs often look like scaly red patches, open sores, elevated growths with a central depression, or warts; they may crust or bleed. <P> Basal cell carcinoma is the most common type of skin cancer. It usually occurs on areas of the skin that have been in the sun, most often the nose. Often this cancer appears as a raised bump that looks smooth and pearly. 1 Skin cancer is a disease in which malignant (cancer) cells form in the tissues of the skin. 2 There are different types of cancer that start in the skin. 3 Skin color and being exposed to sunlight can increase the risk of nonmelanoma skin cancer and actinic keratosis. <P> The epidermis, or skin, consists of several layers. The outer layer is made up of scale like cells called the squamous epithelium. This layer of tissue covers the surface of much of the body, and lines the cavities of the body. A squamous cell carcinoma is a type of cancer that originates in the squamous epithelium. It may appear to be a white skin mass, or a raised bump on the skin. Often the raised mass will necrotize in the center and ulcerate, with occasional bleeding. <P> SCC is still sometimes referred to as epidermoid carcinoma and squamous-cell epithelioma , though the use of these terms has decreased. SCC typically initially occurs in the sixth decade of life (the 50s), but is most common in the eighth decade (the 70s). It is twice as prevalent in men as in women. 1 The tumor grows relatively slowly. 2 Unlike basal-cell carcinoma (BCC), squamous-cell carcinoma (SCC) has a substantial risk of metastasis. 3 Risk of metastasis is higher in SCC arising in scars, on the lower lips or mucosa, and occurring in immunosuppressed patients. <P> The most common types are basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma, which are nonmelanoma skin cancers. Nonmelanoma skin cancers rarely spread to other parts of the body. Melanoma is the rarest form of skin cancer. It is more likely to invade nearby tissues and spread to other parts of the body. 1 Skin cancer is a disease in which malignant (cancer) cells form in the tissues of the skin. 2 There are different types of cancer that start in the skin. 3 Skin color and being exposed to sunlight can increase the risk of nonmelanoma skin cancer and actinic keratosis. <P> Carcinoma is a type of cancer that develops from epithelial cells. Specifically, a carcinoma is a cancer that begins in a tissue that lines the inner or outer surfaces of the body, and that generally arises from cells originating in the endodermal or ectodermal germ layer during embryogenesis.

The Second Most Common Form of Skin Cancer. Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) is an uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells arising in the squamous cells, which compose most of the skin’s upper layers (the epidermis).

what is a hepatic hemangioma

<P> Causes. A hepatic hemangioma is the most common type of liver tumor that is not caused by cancer. It may be a birth defect. Hepatic hemangiomas can occur at any time. They are most common in people in their 30s to 50s. Women get these tumors more often than men and the tumors are often bigger. <P> Hemangioma is the most common benign tumor affecting the liver. Hepatic hemangiomas are mesenchymal in origin and usually are solitary. Some authorities consider them to be benign congenital hamartomas. Hemangiomas are composed of masses of blood vessels that are atypical or irregular in arrangement and size. <P> Causes. A hepatic hemangioma is the most common type of liver tumor that is not caused by cancer. It may be a birth defect. Hepatic hemangiomas can occur at any time. They are most common in people in their 30s to 50s. Women get these tumors more often than men and the tumors are often bigger. <P> A liver hemangioma is a tangle of blood vessels in or on the surface of the liver. Liver hemangiomas usually are not bothersome and do not cause symptoms. Because signs of a liver hemangioma may go undetected, they are usually only discovered if you are being tested for an unrelated condition. <P> Hepatic hemangioma: A common benign tumor of the liver made up of small blood vessels. It is 4-6 times more common in women than men. These tumors are usually small, a quarter inch (less than 1 cm) in diameter, cause no problems and are discovered incidentally in the course of testing for an unrelated medical problem. <P> A hepatic hemangioma is the most common type of liver tumor that is not caused by cancer. It may be a birth defect. Hepatic hemangiomas can occur at any time. They are most common in people in their 30s to 50s. Women get these tumors more often than men and the tumors are often bigger.

The most common type of liver tumor that is not caused by cancer. It may be a birth defect.

cost of insulating a home

<P> Cost breakdown. Generally, the typical home insulation costs include: 1 The Attic-according to the HomeInspectorLocator.com website the costs for insulating an attic to modern standards will run between $1 and $1.50 per square foot, though the costs increase by 100% when the insulation is one of the blown varieties. <P> Get an INSTANT estimate of the cost to Insulate Your Home! Our free calculator uses recent, trusted data to estimate costs for your Home Insulation project. For a basic 500 square feet project in zip code 47474, the benchmark cost to Insulate Your Home ranges between $0.63 - $1.43 per square foot* . To estimate costs for your project: 1. Set Project Zip Code Enter the Zip Code for the location where labor is hired and materials purchased. <P> 1 The sheathing will average around $1.02 per square foot while the R15 cavity insulation costs roughly $.73 per square foot. 2 This means that a total price of $1.75 per square foot is necessary for the purchase of the materials. <P> 1 The Attic-according to the HomeInspectorLocator.com website the costs for insulating an attic to modern standards will run between $1 and $1.50 per square foot, though the costs increase by 100% when the insulation is one of the blown varieties. <P> 1 That's $400-$1,800 for an 800 square foot space, with a typical attic insulation averaging $750-$1,100. 2 Do-it-yourself materials for roll-out batting in an open attic can run $100-$500, depending on R-values, attic size and other factors.

$1 and $1.50 per square foot

weather morocco may

<P> Check the Weather in Morocco in May before you book your next holiday. This gives the best indication of the weather in May and includes figures for temperature, sunshine and rainfall. The Morocco may weather guide shown below is for Marrakech. <P> Averages for Agadir in May. Weather Lowdown. May is pleasantly warm in Agadir and slightly quieter than the later summer months, so this is an ideal time of year to travel if you prefer a calmer, cooler holiday. Only four degrees separates the average high and low temperature each day in May. Most days are at most partly cloudy but on a clear day visibility is up to 10km. Sun rise is at around 6:30-7:00AM each morning which, with the cool temperatures at this time of day, means perfect weather for a jog on the beach. The sun shines for 12 hours a day in May so stock up on the sunscreen! <P> Marrakesh weather text for Sat 17 th October. The weather is forecasted to be sunny with daytime temperature reaching 33 °c. Night time temperature are expected to be 19 °c .It will be dry with no precipitation. The visibility is going to be around 10 km i.e. 6 miles and an atmospheric pressure of 1012 mb. Marrakech in the Spring. Marrakech spring weather is very pleasant, with daytime temperatures of around 22°C in March, rising to the high 20s by May. It may rain on a couple of days each month, but these short sharp showers are usually over very quickly. <P> This report describes the typical weather at the Marrakech-Menara Airport (Marrakech, Morocco) weather station over the course of an average May. It is based on the historical records from 1974 to 2012. <P> This report describes the typical weather at the Anfa Airport (Casablanca, Morocco) weather station over the course of an average May. It is based on the historical records from 1995 to 2012. Earlier records are either unavailable or unreliable. <P> Weather in Morocco. As far as the weather goes, it will be better to visit the south and the desert routes outside midsummer when, for the most of the day, it's far too hot for casual exploration-especially if you're dependant on public transport. <P> As the weather gets warmer, there are numerous festivals in Morocco in May. One that is unique to Morocco is the Festival of the Roses which is celebrated in Kelaa-des-Mgouna. The average temperature during the month of May rises to 21 degrees Celsius. This figure incorporates a potential low of 14 degrees Celsius, which would likely occur at night, and a high of 27 degrees Celsius. Travellers can expect to en... <P> The Morocco climate guide is perfect for planning your holiday. Monthly weather averages give the best indication of what the weather is usually like for every month of the year including figures for temperature, rainfall and sunshine. The Morocco climate guide shown below is for Marrakech. <P> Weather lowdown. May sees the tourist season really kick off in Marrakesh. The city gets busier and the weather becomes much warmer signalling high temperatures and long hours of sunshine. The average temperature during the month of May rises to 21 degrees Celsius. This figure incorporates a potential low of 14 degrees Celsius, which would likely occur at night, and a high of 27 degrees Celsius. Travellers can expect to en...

21 degrees Celsius.

what album is soulshine on

<P> Wow! What a great weekend. Weather was absolutely beautiful. Soulshine would like to thank everyone for coming out to this weekends shows. We have a new venue coming up this Friday (10/9) at The Bar in Pearland. Please join us on this new venture. SoulShine added 3 new photos. Soulshine is playing at America's Icehouse tonight from 8-12 (weather permitting). Come join us as we play tribute to 1st Responders for the 14th Anniversary honoring those who lost their lives. <P> Tampa Theatre and Soulshine Music are proud to announce that country legend Lyle Lovett and His Acoustic Group will perform live on the Theatre’s historic stage at 7:30 p.m. Monday, Dec. 9. It is the first time Lovett has been back to the Bay area since his 2010 performance with[...]. Filed Under: Concerts. Soulshine Music is proud to announce our Gasparilla Music Festival 2015, Main Stage Sponsorship. The event is held annually and for the second straight year, The ‘Soulshine Music Main Stage,’ will host a number of talented musicians, including Trampled By Turtles and Modest Mouse. <P> In 2007, vocalist Beth Hart released the album 37 Days, which included a cover of this song. Soulshine was originally recorded and released by bluesman Larry McCray on the 1993 album Delta Hurricane, with permission from Warren Haynes. A live version of the song, which appeared on the Allmans' 2003 DVD Live At The Beacon Theatre, had Allman and Haynes alternating vocals on the verses and harmonizing on the chorus. This has been the standard for the song in most recent years with the dual vocals. <P> mai 2011. Album:The Deep End Vol.1(2001). Gov't Mule (pronounced Government Mule) is a Southern rock jam band formed in 1994 as an Allman Brothers Band side project by Warren Haynes and Allen Woody. They released their debut album Gov't Mule in 1995. Gov't Mule has become a staple act at music festivals across North America, with both its members and frequent guests boasting members from other notable bands, adding various funk and blues rock elements to the band's sound. <P> ABOUT THIS ALBUM. Read more... Album Notes. The vision for this first SoulShine CD began in the summer of 2006 with Rhonda and Greg Baker sitting in their basement rehearsal studio with a handheld tape recorder (used to record lectures-back in the day). The concept for this project was to create an old-school album in both style and message <P> Soulshine is a song recorded by The Allman Brothers Band and released on their 1994 album Where It All Begins. It was written by guitarist Warren Haynes with vocals by Gregg Allman. The song's title originates from Haynes' nickname, given by his father. A live version of the song, which appeared on the Allmans' 2003 DVD Live At The Beacon Theatre, had Allman and Haynes alternating vocals on the verses and harmonizing on the chorus. This has been the standard for the song in most recent years with the dual vocals. <P> While DJ Vadim -- another European hip-hop mixer whose career began on the same trajectory -- pursued breakbeat hip-hop into the realm of heavily American/underground rap, the production work of Frenchman DJ Cam has become much smoother and closer in sound and execution to the British acid jazz scene. Cam also cultivates his American R&B connection, drafting Cameo 's Larry Blackmon and Nathan Leftenant for a serviceable Roy Ayers impression, while Condor (Espionage) features Guru (aka Baldhead Slick) relaxing over a live cut. <P> This funky horn band's music keeps you groovin’ while the message of the songs inspires you to look into your Soul, to find the power of love that gives you the strength to create a peaceful coexistence with your Soul brothers and Soul sisters. The vision for this first SoulShine CD began in the summer of 2006 with Rhonda and Greg Baker sitting in their basement rehearsal studio with a handheld tape recorder (used to record lectures-back in the day).

Where It All Begins.

what is xanax pills used for

<P> A: Xanax (alprazolam) (http://www.everydayhealth.com/drugs/xanax) is a benzodiazepine that works on chemicals in the brain that become unbalanced. Xanax is indicated for anxiety. Common side effects of Xanax include drowsiness, dizziness, dry mouth, muscle weakness, and blurred speech. Xanax is in a class of drugs called benzodiazepines, and is available in several forms including tablets, a liquid, disintegrating tablets, and extended release tablets. Xanax is made by Pfizer and was approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) in 1981. It's also available as a generic drug. <P> A: Xanax (alprazolam) is in a drug class called benzodiazepines. Xanax is used in the treatment of anxiety disorders, such as generalized anxiety disorder. Xanax is also used for the short-term relief of anxiety symptoms. Xanax is also used to treat panic disorders. Xanax is in a class of drugs called benzodiazepines, and is available in several forms including tablets, a liquid, disintegrating tablets, and extended release tablets. Xanax is made by Pfizer and was approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) in 1981. It's also available as a generic drug. <P> Alprazolam /aelˈpraezəlaem/ ælˈpræzəlæm /or/ , aelˈpreɪzəlaem ælˈpreɪzəlæm available as the Trade /name/ xanax ˈzaenaeks, ˈzænæks among others-is a short acting anxiolytic of. The benzodiazepine class it is commonly used for the treatment, of panic disorder, and anxiety disorders such as (GENERALIZED) anxiety disorder gad or (SOCIAL). anxiety disorder sad It was the 12th most prescribed medicine in 2010. Alprazolam, like other benzodiazepines, binds to specific sites on the GABAA receptor. It possesses anxiolytic, sedative, hypnotic, skeletal muscle relaxant, anticonvulsant, and amnestic properties. <P> A: Xanax (alprazolam) is a medication that is in the group of medications called benzodiazepines that are used to treat anxiety and panic disorders. Antidepressants mainly work on specific chemicals in the brain: serotonin, norepinephrine and dopamine. Xanax is in a class of drugs called benzodiazepines, and is available in several forms including tablets, a liquid, disintegrating tablets, and extended release tablets. Xanax is made by Pfizer and was approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) in 1981. It's also available as a generic drug. <P> More detail and supporting information is in the main article. 1 Xanax (alprazolam) is the single most prescribed psychiatric medication in the US. 2 Xanax is a member of the benzodiazepine family of drugs and is primarily used to treat anxiety and panic disorders. Alprazolam is an anti-anxiety medication in the benzodiazepine family, the same family that includes diazepam (Valium), clonazepam (Klonopin), lorazepam (Ativan), flurazepam (Dalmane), and others. 9 Xanax works by decreasing abnormal excitement in the brain. 11. <P> Xanax is the brand name for a drug called alprazolam. Xanax is a type of medication called a benzodiazepine, which is a central nervous system depressant that decreases abnormal excitement in the brain. Doctors most frequently prescribe Xanax as a tablet, but it can also come in a liquid concentration as well. Xanax can also be used to treat mental health disorders and is currently being studied in the treatment of nausea and vomiting caused by some cancer treatments. * agoraphobia (fear of open spaces). * anxiety disorders. * cancer treatments (for nausea and vomiting). <P> 1 Xanax is a member of the benzodiazepine family of drugs and is primarily used to treat anxiety and panic disorders. 2 Xanax are dispensed in 0.25 mg, 0.5 mg, 1 mg and 2 mg strengths. 3 The drug is 10 to 20 times as potent as Valium of the same dosage. Alprazolam is an anti-anxiety medication in the benzodiazepine family, the same family that includes diazepam (Valium), clonazepam (Klonopin), lorazepam (Ativan), flurazepam (Dalmane), and others. 9 Xanax works by decreasing abnormal excitement in the brain. 11. <P> Uses. Alprazolam is used to treat anxiety and panic disorders. It belongs to a class of medications called benzodiazepines which act on the brain and nerves (central nervous system) to produce a calming effect. It works by enhancing the effects of a certain natural chemical in the body (GABA). How to use Xanax. Take this medication by mouth as directed by your doctor. Dosage is based on your medical condition, age, and response to treatment. Your dose may be gradually increased until the drug starts working well. Follow your doctor's instructions closely to reduce the risk of side effects <P> Xanax is the brand name of alprazolam, a prescription drug used to treat anxiety disorders. Xanax is prescribed for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) , anxiety associated with depression, and panic disorder. Other uses include treatment of depression and premenstrual syndrome (PMS) . Xanax is in a class of drugs called benzodiazepines, and is available in several forms including tablets, a liquid, disintegrating tablets, and extended release tablets. Xanax is made by Pfizer and was approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) in 1981. It's also available as a generic drug.

Anxiety and Panic disorders.

how much does it cost american taxpayers to house american arrested for marijuana

<P> According to MARP, over the past 25 years more than 210,000 people have been arrested for marijuana possession in Colorado -- and of those arrests, communities of color have been disproportionately impacted. <P> $95: The national average per-diem cost of housing an inmate arrested due to a marijuana-related offense. $2: The average amount communities spend each day on marijuana supervision. Previous attempts have been made to assess how much energy law enforcement expels enforcing marijuana possession laws. Here are some most startling numbers from the ACLU’s report with regards to the cost of enforcing marijuana laws: $20 billion: The amount states will spend enforcing marijuana laws over the next six years. $900: The minimum per-capita cost spent by California, Nevada and Washington on criminal justice for marijuana offenders. $750: The low-level estimate that states pay for each marijuana arrest <P> In reality, nearly 1 out of 8 U.S. drug prisoners are locked up for pot. Of course, several hundred thousand more Americans are arrested each year for violating marijuana laws, costing taxpayers another $8 billion dollars annually in criminal justice costs. Among those arrested, about 88 percent -- some 696,074 Americans -- were charged with possession only. The remaining 90,471 individuals were charged with sale/manufacture, a category that includes all cultivation offenses, even those where the marijuana was being grown for personal or medical use. <P> Comments. American taxpayers are now spending more than a billion dollars per year to incarcerate its citizens for pot. That's according to statistics recently released by the U.S. Department of Justice's Bureau of Justice Statistics. Among those arrested, about 88 percent -- some 696,074 Americans -- were charged with possession only. The remaining 90,471 individuals were charged with sale/manufacture, a category that includes all cultivation offenses, even those where the marijuana was being grown for personal or medical use. <P> TALKING POINT #4: Criminal laws prohibiting marijuana possession do not deter marijuana use. TALKING POINT #1: Decriminalizing marijuana frees up police resources to deal with more serious crimes. 60,000 individuals are behind bars for marijuana offenses at a cost to taxpayers of $1.2 billion per year. REFERENCE: Marijuana Arrests and Incarceration in the United States <P> 9. The cost to put a single drug dealer in jail is about $450,000, composed of the following: The cost for arrest and conviction is about $150,000. The cost for an additional prison bed is about $50,000 to $150,000, depending upon the jurisdiction. It costs about $30,000 per year to house a prisoner. With an average sentence of 5 years, that adds up to another $150,000. <P> Washington, DC: Marijuana prohibition costs US taxpayers nearly $42 billion dollars per year in criminal justice costs and in lost tax revenues, according to an economic analysis released this week. <P> These marijuana possession arrests cost taxpayers $75 million a year. Nearly 70 percent of those arrested are under 30 years old, and most are under 21 years old. Eighty-four percent of those arrested are black and Latino, even though whites use marijuana at higher rates.

$8 billion dollars annually

what is aldehydes and ketones

<P> In chemistry, a ketone (alkanone) /ˈkiːtoʊn/ is an organic compound with the structure RC(=O)R', where R and R' can be a variety of carbon-containing substituents. Ketones and aldehydes are simple compounds that contain a carbonyl group (a carbon-oxygen double bond). Ketones differ from aldehydes in that the carbonyl group (CO) is bonded to two carbons within a carbon skeleton. In aldehydes, the carbonyl is bonded to one carbon and one hydrogen and are located at the ends of carbon chains. <P> An aldehyde /ˈaeldɨhaɪd/ ˈældɨhaɪd or alkanal is an organic compound containing a formyl. Group the formyl group is a functional, group with the Structure-R, cho consisting of a carbonyl (center a carbon double bonded to) oxygen bonded to hydrogen and An r, group which is any generic alkyl or side. chain The formyl group is a functional group, with the structure R-CHO, consisting of a carbonyl center (a carbon double bonded to oxygen) bonded to hydrogen and an R group, which is any generic alkyl or side chain. The group without R is called the aldehyde group or formyl group. Aldehydes differ from ketones in that the carbonyl is placed at the end of a carbon skeleton rather than between two carbon atoms. Aldehydes are common in organic chemistry. Many fragrances are aldehydes. <P> - The carbonyl group of aldehyde is bonded to a hydrogen from one end, but in ketone, the carbonyl group is bonded to carbon atoms from both sides. - Therefore, a ketone functional group is always seen in the middle of a molecule, and aldehyde group is always at a termini. Aldehyde. Aldehydes have a carbonyl group. This carbonyl group is bonded to another carbon from one side, and from the other end, it is connected to hydrogen. Therefore, aldehydes can be characterized with the –CHO group, and following is the general formula of an aldehyde. The simplest aldehyde is formaldehyde. <P> Nomenclature of Aldehydes and Ketones. Aldehydes and ketones are organic compounds which incorporate a carbonyl functional group, C=O. The carbon atom of this group has two remaining bonds that may be occupied by hydrogen or alkyl or aryl substituents. If at least one of these substituents is hydrogen, the compound is an aldehyde. If neither is hydrogen, the compound is a ketone. The IUPAC system of nomenclature assigns a characteristic suffix to these classes, al to aldehydes and one to ketones. For example, H 2 C=O is methan al, more commonly called formaldehyde. Aldehydes and ketones are widespread in nature, often combined with other functional groups. Example are shown in the following diagram. The compounds in the top row are found chiefly in plants or microorganisms; those in the bottom row have animal origins. <P> Aldol Condensation. The aldol condensation is a reaction in which aldehydes and ketones react to form larger molecules. A new carbon-carbon bond is formed. In this generalized reaction the a-carbon of one aldehyde forms a bond with the carbonyl carbon of the other aldehyde. <P> You will remember that the difference between an aldehyde and a ketone is the presence of a hydrogen atom attached to the carbon-oxygen double bond in the aldehyde. Ketones don't have that hydrogen. The presence of that hydrogen atom makes aldehydes very easy to oxidise. <P> Aldehyde vs Ketone. Aldehydes and ketones are known as organic molecules with a carbonyl group. In a carbonyl group, carbon atom has a double bond to oxygen. The carbonyl carbon atom is sp 2 hybridized. So, aldehydes and ketones have a trigonal planar arrangement around the carbonyl carbon atom. Aldehyde. Aldehydes have a carbonyl group. This carbonyl group is bonded to another carbon from one side, and from the other end, it is connected to hydrogen. Therefore, aldehydes can be characterized with the –CHO group, and following is the general formula of an aldehyde. The simplest aldehyde is formaldehyde. <P> Aldehydes () and ketones () are both carbonyl compounds. They are organic compounds in which the carbonyl carbon is connected to C or H atoms on either side. An aldehyde has one or both vacancies of the carbonyl carbon satisfied by a H atom, while a ketone has both its vacancies satisfied by carbon.

Ketones and aldehydes are simple compounds that contain a carbonyl group (a carbon-oxygen double bond).

why is uranus tilted

<P> One of the great mysteries of our Solar System is why Uranus is tilted on its side. Surely, if the solar system formed from the same rotating cloud of dust and gas, then all the bodies within it should rotate in the same way. And yet Uranus’ axis of rotation lies at 97 degrees to the plane of the solar system. <P> Yes, Uranus is really tilted on its side! Uranus has the largest tilt of any planet in our Solar System and it spins on its side. This means that one of Uranus' poles is often pointed towards the Sun, giving Uranus very long seasons. The rings of Uranus are also sideways compared to the rings of other planets. <P> The Earth’s axis is tilted about 23.5 degrees. This is why we have seasons on Earth. But the axis of Uranus is tilted so far it’s hard to imagine how it might have even happened. The axis of Uranus is tilted at an angle of 98-degrees compared to the Sun’s orbital plane. Uranus. Image credit: Hubble. While the rest of the planets in the Solar System can be thought of like spinning tops, Uranus is more like a rolling ball going around the Sun. <P> Of all the planets in the solar system, Uranus is probably the oddest. A cool blue planet, it rotates on its side! The faint ring system around the planet gives testament to the fact, and makes the sight even more interesting. It really is quite baffling, since such a tilt is unmatched by the other planets. <P> Uranus is a real oddball in our solar system. Its spin axis is tilted by a whopping 98 degrees, meaning it essentially spins on its side. No other planet has anywhere near such a tilt. Jupiter is tilted by 3 degrees, for example, and Earth by 23 degrees.

Uranus poles is often pointed towards the Sun, giving Uranus very long seasons. The rings of Uranus are also sideways compared to the rings of other planets.

between what years did the bronze age,stone age and iron age era occur

<P> The Stone Age is a broad prehistoric period during which stone was widely used to make implements with a sharp edge, a point, or a percussion surface. The period lasted roughly 3.4 million years, and ended between 6000 BCE and 2000 BCE with the advent of metalworking. Stone Age artifacts include tools used by modern humans and by their predecessor species in the genus Homo, as well as the earlier partly contemporaneous genera Australopithecus and Paranthropus. <P> The earliest global date for the beginning of the Stone Age is 2.5 million years ago in Africa, and the earliest end date is about 3300 BCE, which is the beginning of Bronze Age in the Near East. Neolithic or New Stone Age: begins with the introduction of farming, dating variously from c. 9,000 BCE in the Near East, c. 7,000 BCE in Southeast Europe, c. 6,000 BCE in East Asia, and even later in other regions. <P> The period known as the Iron Age lasted in Britain for about 800 years (from c.750 BC to AD 43). <P> Copper Age. The Copper Age was a transitional period between the late Neolithic Stone Age and beginning of the Bronze Age. Stone toolmaking gave way to the beginning of early humans' smelting and casting of easily forged and sharpened metallic tools and weapons. The Bronze Age began around 3000 to 2000 B.C. in Turkey, Greece and Europe with the making of tools and weaponry from copper and tin alloys. Trading networks became important, as tin was a rare metal in many regions. <P> Bronze is made when copper is heated and mixed with tin, creating a stronger metal than copper. Date Event 3700 BC The Bronze Age (About 3700 BC to about 500 BC) The Bronze Age starts at different areas of the world at different times. The knowledge of how to mix the copper and tin moves slowly from place to place, plus many areas have no tin and/or copper to make the new metal. 2300 BC Europe (About 2300 BC) The Bronze Age starts about 2300 BC in Europe. Few tools are made in the beginning, but by 1200 BC bronze has replaced all stone tools. 2000 BC Britain (About 2000 BC) Bronze starts to be worked in Britain. <P> While the idea of a Stone Age, Bronze Age and Iron Age made sense to archeologists in the early 1800s, they weren’t based on enough data. Obviously it was expected progress would be more uniform. <P> The Bronze Age lasted until the beginning of the Iron Age. The Bronze Age did not occur all at once in every place. Some cultures never had a Bronze Age at all, jumping directly from mixed copper and stone tools and ornaments (a Chalcolithic Period) to using and/or producing iron tools. 1 Timeline of the Bronze Age The Bronze Age is the middle era of the three early phases in the development of civilization: the Stone Age, the Bronze Age, and <P> The Middle Stone Age was a period of African prehistory between Early Stone Age and Late Stone Age. It began around 300,000 years ago and ended around 50,000 years ago. It is considered as an equivalent of European Middle Paleolithic. It is associated with anatomically modern or almost modern Homo sapiens. Stone Age artifacts include tools used by modern humans and by their predecessor species in the genus Homo, as well as the earlier partly contemporaneous genera Australopithecus and Paranthropus. <P> The terms stone age, bronze age, and iron age are three classic divisions of history based on the chief material used for tools and weapons at different stages in the history of man. STONE, BRONZE, and IRON. The terms stone age, bronze age, and iron age are three classic divisions of history based on the chief material used for tools and weapons at different stages in the history of man. These ages were first used as classifications for dating artifacts found in Europe.

The Bronze Age is about 3700 BC to about 500 BC). Iron Age is 750 BC to AD 43. Stone age was around 2000 BCE.

what influenced the impressionist movement

<P> Impressionism is a 19th-century art movement that originated with a group of Paris-based artists whose independent exhibitions brought them to prominence during the 1870s and 1880s. Musical Impressionism is the name given to a movement in European classical music that arose in the late 19th century and continued into the middle of the 20th century. Originating in France, musical Impressionism is characterized by suggestion and atmosphere, and eschews the emotional excesses of the Romantic era. <P> The principle Impressionist painters, a small group, were French. The movement faded and made a transition to Post-impressionism by 1886, but its influence on art was both major and lasting. Movements: Impressionism. Impressionism got its start in 1863 at le Salon des Refuses, refusés although the Term impressionism'wasn t coined until (1874 by a, critic ridiculing the). Movement the Principle impressionist, painters a small, group Were. french <P> Manet's paintings are considered among the first works of art in the modern era, due to his rough painting style and absence of idealism in his figures. Manet was a close friend of and major influence on younger artists who founded Impressionism such as Claude Monet, Edgar Degas and Pierre-Auguste Renoir. Impressionism can be considered the first distinctly modern movement in painting. Developing in Paris in the 1860s, its influence spread throughout Europe and eventually the United States. <P> 1 The Post Impressionists were a few independent artists at the end of the 19th century who rebelled against the limitations of Impressionism to develop a range of personal styles that influenced the development of art in the 20th century. 2 The art of Paul Gauguin was a major influence in the development of Fauvism. <P> Posted by Sandrine. Post-Impressionism is an art period that took place for the last two decades of the nineteenth century (more precisely from 1886 to 1914) during which many famous and iconic modern artworks were painted. The term “Post-Impressionism” was first used by artist and art critic Roger Fry in London, for a 1910 exhibition at the Grafton Gallery: “Monet and the Post-Impressionists.” At the time, he was looking for a term that would underline both a continuity with Impressionism and a departure from it. <P> The Neo-Impressionist movement was brief yet influential. The term Divisionism was also the name of an Italian version of Neo-Impressionism in the 1890s and early 1900s, and one can trace a line to Futurism which was founded in 1909. Some of the greatest impressionist artists were Edouard Manet, Camille Pissaro, Edgar Degas, Alfred Sisley, Claude Monet, Berthe Morisot and Pierre Auguste Renoir. Manet influenced the development of impressionism. He painted everyday objects. <P> 'Waterlilies and Japanese Bridge', 1899 (oil on canvas). Impressionism was an art movement in France at the end of the 19th century. The Impressionists were a group of artists renowned for their innovative painting techniques and approach to using colour in art. 1 Impressionism was a style of painting that used a more scientific analysis of colour to capture the effects of light in nature. 2 The main artists associated with Impressionism were Claude Monet, Pierre Auguste Renoir, Camille Pissarro, Edgar Degas, Alfred Sisley and Henri Marie Raymond de Toulouse-Lautrec. <P> 1 Impressionist compositions were strongly influenced by the development of photography and the discovery of Japanese woodcuts. 2 Impressionism is now seen as the first movement in modern art, and had a huge influence on the development of art in the 20th century. 1 Impressionism was a style of painting that used a more scientific analysis of colour to capture the effects of light in nature. 2 The main artists associated with Impressionism were Claude Monet, Pierre Auguste Renoir, Camille Pissarro, Edgar Degas, Alfred Sisley and Henri Marie Raymond de Toulouse-Lautrec. <P> Paul Gauguin was a French post impressionist artist who experimented with bold colors and found much inspiration in the South Seas. He was an important artist in the symbolist movement and his bold use of color led to the synthetist style of art. Paul Cezanne was a French post impressionist painter who led the way from 19th century art to 20th century art including the style of cubism.

Influenced by the development of photography and the discovery of Japanese woodcuts.

cast of ringer

<P> The Ringer cast list, listed alphabetically with photos when available. This list of The Ringer actors includes any The Ringer actresses and all other actors from the film. You can view additional information about each The Ringer actor on this list, such as when and where they were born. <P> The cast members of The Ringer have been in many other movies, so use this list as a starting point to find actors or actresses that you may not be familiar with. This list is made up of actors like Katherine Heigl and Brian Cox. <P> . Learn more about the star-studded cast of With This Ring, including Regina Hall, Jill Scott, Eve Jeffers Cooper and Brooklyn Sudano. Character: <P> Ringer cast list, including photos of the actors when available. This list includes all of the Ringer main actors and actresses, so if they are an integral part of the show you'll find them below. You can various bits of trivia about these Ringer stars, such as where the actor was born and what their year of birth is. This cast list of actors from Ringer focuses primarily on the main characters, but there may be a few actors who played smaller roles on Ringer that are on here as well. Examples of actors on this list include Andrea Roth and Sarah Michelle Gellar.

Andrea Roth, Sarah Michelle, GellarKatherine Heigl and Brian Cox.

what is greywater

<P> Greywater can also be used to irrigate vegetable plants as long as it doesn’t touch edible parts of the plants. In any greywater system, it is essential to use “plant friendly” products, those without salts, boron, or chlorine bleach. The build-up of salts and boron in the soil can damage plants. Greywater is different from fresh water and requires different guidelines for it to be reused. 1 Don’t store greywater (more than 24 hours). 2 If you store greywater the nutrients in it will start to break down, creating bad odors. <P> Greywater is the water that comes from your baths, showers and washing machines. Recycling household greywater for gardening use is an excellent way of saving water and saving money! Unlike rainwater, which is only seasonally available, greywater is available every time you shower or wash your clothes. The simplest way to get greywater onto the garden is by diverting the water directly from the laundry or bathroom. The greywater system will filter the water and divert it to your garden. Your greywater appliance just needs to be connected to your washing machine or your shower, and then to your irrigation system. <P> Greywater can be defined as any domestic wastewater produced, excluding sewage. The main difference between greywater and sewage (or blackwater) is the organic loading. Sewage has a much larger organic loading compared to greywater. Some people also categorise kitchen wastewater as blackwater because it has quite a high organic loading relative to other sources of wastewater such as bath water. People are now waking up to the benefits of greywater re-use, and the term Wastewater is in many respects a misnomer. Maybe a more appropriate term for this water would be Used Water. <P> Greywater is any household wastewater with the exception of wastewater from toilets, which is known as blackwater. Typically, 50-80% of household wastewater is greywater from kitchen sinks, dishwashers, bathroom sinks, tubs and showers. Freshly generated greywater is not as nasty as blackwater, but if it's not handled properly it can soon become so. Greywater decomposes at a much faster rate than blackwater and if stored for as little as 24 hours, the bacteria in it use up all the oxygen and the greywater becomes anaerobic and turns septic. <P> Greywater is washwater. That is, all wastewater excepting toilet wastes and food wastes derived from garbage grinders. There are significant distinctions between greywater and toilet wastewater (called blackwater). These distinctions tell us how these wastewaters should be treated /managed and why, in the interests of public health and environmental protection, they should not be mixed together. Greywater decomposes much faster than blackwater The implication of the more rapid decomposition of greywater pollutants is the quicker stabilization and therefore enhanced prevention of water pollution. <P> Greywater is gently used water from your bathroom sinks, showers, tubs, and washing machines. It is not water that has come into contact with feces, either from the toilet or from washing diapers. Greywater may contain traces of dirt, food, grease, hair, and certain household cleaning products. Greywater is different from fresh water and requires different guidelines for it to be reused. 1 Don’t store greywater (more than 24 hours). 2 If you store greywater the nutrients in it will start to break down, creating bad odors. <P> Right: greywater following membrane bioreactor treatment. Greywater (also spelled graywater) or sullage is all wastewater generated in households or office buildings from streams without fecal contamination, i.e. all streams except for the wastewater from toilets. Sources of greywater include, e.g. sinks, showers, baths, clothes washing machines or dish washers. As greywater contains fewer pathogens than domestic wastewater, it is generally safer to handle and easier to treat and reuse onsite for toilet flushing, landscape or crop irrigation, and other non-potable uses. When greywater is mixed with toilet wastewater, it is called sewage or blackwater and should be treated in sewage treatment plants or onsite sewage facility, which often is a septic system. <P> Greywater contains far less nitrogen than blackwater Nine-tenths of the nitrogen contained in combined wastewater derives from toilet wastes (i.e., from the blackwater). Nitrogen is one of the most serious and difficult-to-remove pollutants affecting our potential drinking water supply. Greywater decomposes much faster than blackwater The implication of the more rapid decomposition of greywater pollutants is the quicker stabilization and therefore enhanced prevention of water pollution.

Any household wastewater with the exception of wastewater from toilets, which is known as blackwater.

normal level of tsh in children

<P> TSH causes the thyroid gland to make two hormones: triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4). T3 and T4 help control your body's metabolism. Triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4) are needed for normal growth of the brain, especially during the first 3 years of life. A baby whose thyroid gland does not make enough thyroid hormone (congenital hypothyroidism) may, in severe cases, be mentally retarded. 1 Find the cause of an underactive thyroid gland (hypothyroidism). 2 TSH levels can help determine whether hypothyroidism is due to a damaged thyroid gland or some other cause (such as a problem with the pituitary gland or the hypothalamus). <P> Speaking roughly, normal levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) are in the range of 0.4 to 4.0 mIU/L. However, each laboratory and test manufacturer identifies its own normal TSH range. This is based on the test, the equipment being used, and the patients being tested. The American Association of Clinical Endocrinologists has proposed a range of 0.3 to 3.0 for normal TSH levels. Using these cutoff values would lead to more people being diagnosed with an underactive thyroid (hypothyroidism). <P> 1 The TSH narrows to 0.6 to 5.5 micro units per milliliter in school going children. 2 The normal TSH level gradually decreases in children; however, the free thyroid hormone (T4) levels in the blood will be relatively balanced for certain period. 1 The range of normal TSH levels for full term newborns is higher, as it can range from between 1.3 and 16 micro units per ML of blood. 2 The TSH range gradually reduces to 0.9 to 7.7 micro units per milliliter after 30 days. 3 The TSH narrows to 0.6 to 5.5 micro units per milliliter in school going children <P> 1 An under active thyroid presents with a TSH ranging from 2mIU/L or more than that. 2 A TSH level count ranging between 0.5 and 3mIU/L confirms thyroid disorder. 3 The normal TSH range for newborns ranges from between 1 – 39 mIU/L. 4 The normal TSH levels for children ranges from between 0.7 – 6.4 mIU/L. 1 The range of normal TSH levels for full term newborns is higher, as it can range from between 1.3 and 16 micro units per ML of blood. 2 The TSH range gradually reduces to 0.9 to 7.7 micro units per milliliter after 30 days. 3 The TSH narrows to 0.6 to 5.5 micro units per milliliter in school going children <P> Normal Levels in children. 1 The range of normal TSH levels for full term newborns is higher, as it can range from between 1.3 and 16 micro units per ML of blood. 2 The TSH range gradually reduces to 0.9 to 7.7 micro units per milliliter after 30 days. 1 The range of normal TSH levels for full term newborns is higher, as it can range from between 1.3 and 16 micro units per ML of blood. 2 The TSH range gradually reduces to 0.9 to 7.7 micro units per milliliter after 30 days. 3 The TSH narrows to 0.6 to 5.5 micro units per milliliter in school going children <P> TSH level is an indicator of thyroid function in children. Photo Credit Stockbyte/Stockbyte/Getty Images. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) is released from the pituitary gland and stimulates the thyroid gland to release thyroid hormones T3 and T4. Measuring levels of TSH is one way to assay the function of a child's thyroid gland. Typically, levels of TSH are quite high immediately after birth, and fall to adult levels by school age. TSH levels in school-age children normally ranges from 0.6 to 5.5 microunits per milliliter of blood. Normal Levels. For full term newborns, the range of normal TSH levels is quite large. TSH can vary between 1.3 and 16 microunits per milliliter of blood. After about a month, this range narrows to 0.9 to 7.7 microunits per milliliter, and by school age it decreases to 0.6 to 5.5 microunits per milliliter. <P> Thyroid-stimulating hormone (also known as thyrotropin, TSH, or hTSH for human TSH) is a pituitary hormone that stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroxine (T 4), and then triiodothyronine (T 3) which stimulates the metabolism of almost every tissue in the body. <P> The TSH level is above normal in a child who is overweight, but that’s not due to an underactive thyroid, and hormone replacement won’t help. When someone has a lot of body fat, they have a lot of leptin, which stimulates the body to make TSH. In hypothyroidism, the thyroid gland is underactive and fails to make enough thyroid hormone. Hypothyroidism is common in children and adolescents, and is very treatable. In newborns, a lack of thyroid hormone is serious and needs prompt treatment.

0.7 – 6.4 mIU/L

name meaning of zadkiel

<P> The most beautiful qualities of the Christ are resonating with the same vibration as the violet ray: freedom, mercy, forgiveness, justice, diplomacy, respect, tolerance, intuition, gratitude, spiritual awakening, mastery of alchemy and transmutation, prophecy. <P> Archangel Zadkiel and Holy Amethyst embody God’s freedom, alchemy, transmutation, forgiveness and justice, the very same qualities embodied by Saint Germain and his twin flame. Their work corresponds to the seat-of-the-soul chakra, and their color is violet. The day of the seventh ray is Saturday, which means we can receive a greater release of light, energy and cosmic consciousness from the causal bodies of Zadkiel and Amethyst on that day. The name Zadkiel means “righteousness of God.” In rabbinic tradition, Zadkiel is known as the angel of benevolence, mercy and memory. <P> Archangel Zadkiel and his twin flame, Holy Amethyst, are the archangels of the seventh ray. Together with the violet-flame angels, they serve mankind from the Temple of Purification. The day of the seventh ray is Saturday, which means we can receive a greater release of light, energy and cosmic consciousness from the causal bodies of Zadkiel and Amethyst on that day. The name Zadkiel means “righteousness of God.” In rabbinic tradition, Zadkiel is known as the angel of benevolence, mercy and memory. <P> Rabbinical tradition considers him to be the angel of mercy. In rabbinic writings Zadkiel belongs to the order of Hashmallim, and considered by some sources to be chief of that order. In Maseket Azilut Zadkiel/Hesediel is listed as co-chief with Gabriel of the order of Shinanim. As an angel of mercy, some texts claim that Zadkiel is the unnamed Biblical Angel of the Lord who holds back Abraham to prevent the patriarch from sacrificing his son, and because of this is usually shown holding a dagger. Zadkiel is associated with the color violet. In Jewish mysticism and Western ritual magic, Zadkiel is associated with the planet Jupiter. The angel's position in the Sephirot is fourth, which corresponds to mercy. <P> Zadkiel or Hesediel (Heb. Tzadqiel, Righteousness of God) is the archangel of freedom, benevolence, mercy, and the Patron Angel of all who forgive, also known as Sachiel, Zedekiel, Zadakiel, Tzadkiel, and Zedekul. Rabbinical tradition considers him to be the angel of mercy. Zadkiel was said to be the Angel who prevented Abraham from sacrificing his son, Isaac. In rabbinic writings Zadkiel belongs to the order of Hashmallim (equated with the Dominations or Dominions), and considered by some sources to be chief of that order (others sources name Hashmal or Zacharael). In Maseket Azilut Zadkiel/Hesediel is listed as co-chief with Gabriel of the order of Shinanim <P> Zadkiel the Archangel. Zadkiel Righteousness of God is the archangel of prayer, freedom, benevolence, mercy, and the Patron Angel of all who forgive. Also known as Sachiel, Zedekiel, Zadakiel, Tzadkiel, Zedekul and Hesediel. Rabbinical tradition considers him to be the angel of mercy. <P> [ syll. zad-kiel, za-dki-el ] The baby boy name Zadkiel is pronounced Z AA DK IY-L †. Zadkiel's origin, as well as its use, is in the Hebrew language. Zadkiel is of the meaning 'angel of mercy'. Zadkiel is an uncommon baby name for boys. It is not listed within the top 1000 names. Baby names that sound like Zadkiel include Zaydel (Yiddish), Zdislaw (Polish), Zodel, and Tzadkiel (Hebrew) <P> By Whitney Hopler. Name: Zadkiel means righteousness of God.. Other spellings include Zadakiel, Zedekiel, Zedekul, TZadkiel, Sachiel, and Hesediel. Main Characteristics: Zadkiel is known as the angel of mercy. The Zohar, the holy book of the mystical branch of Judaism called Kabbalah, names Zadkiel as one of two archangels (the other is Jophiel), who help the archangel Michael when he fights evil in the spiritual realm. Other Religious Roles: Zadkiel is the patron angel of people who forgive.

Angel of mercy

who was the president who caused the trail of tears

<P> Andrew Jackson pushed the Indian Removal Act through Congress in 1830, and for years thereafter the U.S. government forced Indians to move westward, beyond the Mississippi Riv … er. One aspect of this forced removal from their lands is called the Trail of Tears. <P> Removal of the Indian tribes the Cherokee, Chickasaw, Seminoles, Creek, and Choctaw left for the west due to the Indian removal act.It is named The Trail Of Tears Because man … y Natives died as being forced through harsh weather. President Andrew Jackson. This all happened around the 1830's. <P> by Angela Darrenkamp. Overview: In 1830 Congress, urged on by President Andrew Jackson, passed the Indian Removal Act which gave the federal government the power to relocate any Native Americans in the east to territory that was west of the Mississippi River. <P> The Indian Removal Act (known as the Trail of Tears) took place over 11 years (1831 - 1842) and under 4 administrations: President Andrew Jackson 1829 - 1837: Jackson made t … he Indian Removal Act one of his key elements of his campaign. <P> The Trail of Tears resulted from President Andrew Jackson's Indian Removal Policy. It was prompted by the settlers to expand into land belonging to the five tribes. <P> The Trail of Tears resulted from President Andrew Jackson's Indian Removal Policy. It was prompted by the settlers to expand into land belonging to the five tribes. <P> Removal of the Indian tribes the Cherokee, Chickasaw, Seminoles, Creek, and Choctaw left for the west due to the Indian removal act.It is named The Trail Of Tears Because man … y Natives died as being forced through harsh weather. President Andrew Jackson.

Andrew Jackson

what molecules are made in the heterochromatin

<P> This DNA/protein complex forms a fine fibrous material called chromatin. Especially dense regions of chromatin, in which the DNA is highly coiled, are called heterochromatin, whilst less dense chromatin, in which the DNA is largely uncoiled from the protein scaffold, is called euchromatin. <P> Chromatin. The nucleus contains the chromosomes of the cell. Each chromosome consists of a single molecule of DNA complexed with an equal mass of proteins. Collectively, the DNA of the nucleus with its associated proteins is called chromatin. Most of the protein consists of multiple copies of 5 kinds of histones. <P> 1. Cells with an enclosed nucleus are called eukaryotic cells. Organisms composed of one or more eukaryotic cells are called eukaryotes. The mains elements of the nucleus are chromatin (made of DNA molecules), the nucleolus, the karyolymph, or nucleoplasm, and the nuclear membrane (or karyotheca). <P> Chromosomes are made up of a DNA-protein complex called chromatin that is organized into subunits called nucleosomes. The way in which eukaryotes compact and arrange their chromatin not only allows a large amount of DNA to fit in a small space, but it also helps regulate gene expression. eBooks. Figure 2: A the appearance of DNA during interphase versus mitosis. During interphase, the cell's DNA is not condensed and is loosely distributed. A stain for heterochromatin (which indicates the position of chromosomes) shows this broad distribution of chromatin in a mouse cell (upper left). The same stain also shows the organized, aligned structure of the chromosomes during mitosi <P> Since it is less condensed, euchromatin is the biologically active part of the DNA, that is, the region that contains active genes to transcribe into RNA. Heterochromatin makes up the inactive portions of the DNA molecule. The mains elements of the nucleus are chromatin (made of DNA molecules), the nucleolus, the karyolymph, or nucleoplasm, and the nuclear membrane (or karyotheca). <P> Euchromatin is a lightly packed form of chromatin (DNA, RNA and protein) that is rich in gene concentration, and is often (but not always) under active transcription. Euchromatin comprises the most active portion of the genome within the cell nucleus. 92% of the human genome is euchromatic. In prokaryotes, euchromatin is the only form of chromatin present; this indicates that the heterochromatin structure evolved later along with the nucleus, possibly as a mechanism to handle increasing genome size. <P> Chromatin and Chromosomes. Packed inside the nucleus of every human cell is nearly 6 feet of DNA, which is subdivided into 46 individual molecules, one for each chromosome and each about 1.5 inches long. Collecting all this material into a microscopic cell nucleus is an extraordinary feat of packaging. Euchromatin is the genetically active type of chromatin involved in transcribing RNA to produce proteins used in cell function and growth. The predominant type of chromatin found in cells during interphase, euchromatin is more diffuse than the other kind of chromatin, which is termed heterochromatin. <P> The cell appears to require this triple methylation for heterochromatin to be stable. Credit: Art For Science. To fit the two-meter long DNA molecule into a cell nucleus that is only a few thousandths of a millimetre in size, long sections of the DNA must be strongly compacted. Epigenetic marks maintain these sections, known as heterochromatin. The cell apparently requires methylation at H3K9 and a yet-unknown chromatin or lamina protein by Prdm3 and Prdm16 for heterochromatin to be stable. As with other methyltransferases, we assume that both enzymes can methylate other molecules besides histones. <P> You won't believe these 10 facts about people. Euchromatin is a substance composed of DNA and protein molecules that makes up the bulk of material within a mammalian cell nucleus. It is one particular type of chromatin that is distinguished from heterochromatin both by its function and location.

Protein molecules

how long does a average person keep a car in us

<P> For instance, with 5 percent financing over three years, a $22,000 sedan ends up costing a total of $23,737. If you double that length to six years and keep the same interest rate, the amount owed is $25,510. By doubling the length of the loan, you'll pay more than twice as much in interest: $3,510 in interest payments versus $1,737. There is, however, an acceptable limit to how long a vehicle loan should be <P> Among these buyers, the average price of the car is just over $26,000. This means that one-third of the cars you see on the road are dragging a $475 payment behind them. The car dealer won’t tell you that your awesome new car loses about 25% of its value the instant you drive it off the lot. Think about it this way: If you were to invest that $475 (remember, this is the average car payment in the U.S.) into a good mutual fund with a 12% rate of return, you would have over $100,000 in 10 years! At 20 years, you would have made $470,000. <P> Confidence votes 4. The average person will keep their car for 17.46 years. The average car lasts about three years longer than that, but around 30% will sell their car. That's why it's brought down to 17 years. The average person in the UK has braces for around 1 year depending on how bad your teeth are. If they are just slightly crooked or wonky then 9 months - 1 year maximum but, i … f they're really quite bad, you could be looking around 1.5 - 3 years. <P> The average person will keep their car for 17.46 years. The average car lasts about three years longer than that, but around 30% will sell their car. That's why it's bro … ught down to 17 years. 3 people found this useful <P> 1 Used Cars: Where Bargains Can Be Found The average price of a new car is now over $30,000 according to [Forbes](http://www.forbes.com/sites/moneybuilder/2012/05/10/average-price-of-a-new-car/), a price that is bey…. The average car lasts about three years longer than that, but around 30% will sell their car. <P> But not all of us are hitting the showrooms with that frequency. Mike in Maine, for example, wants to know how long his car will keep going. I’m driving a 1993 Toyota Camry with over 235,000 miles. I have spent about $2,000 in maintenance on the car since 1996, when I bought it with 64k on the odometer. The car runs fine and drives fine <P> A shorter-term loan pays off the car faster and helps you pay less in overall interest costs, she said. The flip side of that is that a short-term loan — say, three years — comes with monthly payments that are more expensive: For a $22,000 car financed at 5 percent, you'll pay around $659 a month over three years. If you double that length to six years and keep the same interest rate, the amount owed is $25,510. By doubling the length of the loan, you'll pay more than twice as much in interest: $3,510 in interest payments versus $1,737. <P> I want to say that the average car that isn't wrecked is on the road for 14 years, but I can't remember where I read it.Anecdotally, my 1995 ford escort is still on the road with 140k miles and significant body rust. <P> That is good news for drivers, who are keeping their cars longer than ever before; the average age of all cars on the road is more than 11 years, up from about eight years in 1995, according to Polk research. Still, motorists might not realize the long-term financial benefits of keeping a car for 200,000 miles.

17.46 years

ideal temperature to store eggs till incubation

<P> It takes 21 days on average for an egg to hatch once incubation begins. Before placing the eggs inside, turn on the heat source and measure the temperature and humidity over a 24-hour period, making adjustments as necessary to create the optimal environment. Temperature: The eggs need to be kept at 99.5 degrees at all times; just one degree higher or lower for a few hours can terminate the embryo. Humidity: 40 to 50 percent humidity must be maintained for the first 18 days; 65 to 75 percent humidity is needed for the final days before hatching. <P> Eggs may be collected and stored for up to seven days before incubating, longer than this and your hatch results will start to deteriorate. Make sure that you turn the eggs at least once per day while in storage to keep the embryo from dying. The eggs should be kept at room temperature for best results. During the last 2-3 days of incubation the eggs no longer need to be turned but they will require extra humidity. Each type of incubator will have suggestions as to how to increase the humidity at this time. Usually this involves closing air vents and adding more water to the incubator. <P> Also, do not soak the eggs in water. If the egg is allowed to soak in water for a period of time, the temperature difference can equalize and bacteria has a greater chance of entering through the pores. Be sure eggs are dry before storing. Humidity should be 60-65% (80-90° wet bulb) during incubation and 70-75% (92-97° wet bulb) at hatching time. It is very easy to overheat the eggs in still-air incubators and difficult to maintain proper humidity. <P> Incubating Eggs. Up until the last 2-3 days of incubation, eggs will require a constant temperature and humidity. They will also need to be turned a minimum of twice a day and preferably three or five times a day. During the last 2-3 days of incubation the eggs no longer need to be turned but they will require extra humidity. Each type of incubator will have suggestions as to how to increase the humidity at this time. Usually this involves closing air vents and adding more water to the incubator. <P> Table: ideal temperature and humidity values depend on the number of days the eggs are stored. It is not advisable to store eggs above 21°C as this can also lead to increased bacterial growth on the eggs’ surface. Storage longer than 7 days will lead to greater early embryonic mortality due to cell death. Upon arrival at the hatchery, eggs are stored for a number of days before incubation starts. This period of time can vary considerably between 0 to 20 or more days. <P> When handling quail eggs make sure that hands are washed to avoid bacterial contamination. Before incubation, quail eggs can be stored for up to 7 days. When storing quail eggs before incubating, make sure that they are kept at a constant temperature of 13-18 degrees Celsius or 55-65 degrees Fahrenheit. Do not store the quail eggs at ordinary room temperature or in a refrigerator. Avoid placing the quail eggs in a draft when in storage before incubation. Store quail eggs with the small end facing down. Try to keep the quail eggs at the correct humidity prior to incubation which is a humidity of 84-88%. Make sure the stored quail eggs are turned twice daily before they are incubated. Keep the stored quail eggs in an egg carton and prop up one end at a 35 degree angle. Hope this information helps. <P> Therefore, do not store eggs more than 7 days before incubating. After 3 weeks of storage, hatchability drops to almost zero. Plan ahead and have a regular hatching schedule to avoid storage problems and reduced hatches. Allow cool eggs to warm slowly to room temperature before placing in the incubator. When hatching, the humidity is increased to 65% relative humidity or more. An excellent method to determine correct humidity is to candle the eggs at various stages of incubation. The normal size of the air cell after 7, 14, and 18 days of incubation for a chicken egg is shown. <P> 1 Humidity The best humidity level at which to store eggs is between 75 to 85% RH to avoid significant drying out of the egg before incubation. 2 Time in Storage It is generally considered that eggs should not be kept for more than 7 days prior to incubation. 3 Beyond this time chances of hatchability decrease considerably. 1 Collection of Eggs Generally the best time to collect eggs is before 9am, and to check again at lunchtime. 2 Eggs left in the nest for much longer than 24 hours tend to be poor hatchers. 3 Egg Shape, Shell Texture and Quality Some naturally misshaped eggs have lower than expected hatch rates. <P> Turning. Turning is essential during the first 14 days of incubation and should be continued until 3 days prior to the eggs expected hatch day. If hand turning, always turn the eggs an uneven number of times a day, so the eggs do not spent two nights in a row in the same position.

7 Days

what does the huntingtin gene do

<P> The defective gene codes the blueprint for a protein called huntingtin. This protein's normal function isn't yet known, but it's called huntingtin because scientists identified its defective form as the cause of Huntington's disease. The defective gene identified in 1993 causes virtually all Huntington’s disease. The huntingtin gene defect involves extra repeats of one specific chemical code in one small section of chromosome 4. The normal huntingtin gene includes 17 to 20 repetitions of this code among its total of more than 3,100 codes. The defect that causes Huntington's disease includes 40 or more repeats. Genetic tests for Huntington's disease measure the number of repeats present in an individual's huntingtin protein gen <P> For example, the gene that encodes for huntingtin in fruit flies does not contain a sequence of CAG repeats. This evidence hints at the possibility that when humans and fruit flies diverged along the evolutionary tree, the function of their huntingtin evolved to differ as well. <P> Summary. Huntingtin is a disease gene linked to Huntington's disease, a neurodegenerative disorder characterized by loss of striatal neurons. This is thought to be caused by an expanded, unstable trinucleotide repeat in the huntingtin gene, which translates as a polyglutamine repeat in the protein product. <P> huntingtin: The name of the gene responsible for Huntington disease (HD) and of the protein encoded by that gene. The molecular basis of HD is an increase in the length of a CAG triplet repeat (or 'polyglutamine') within the huntingtin gene. <P> The huntingtin gene, also called the HTT or HD (Huntington disease) gene, is the IT15 (interesting transcript 15) gene, which codes for a protein called the huntingtin protein. The gene and its product are under heavy investigation as part of Huntington's disease clinical research and the suggested role for huntingtin in long-term memory storage. It is variable in its structure, as the many polymorphisms of the gene can lead to variable numbers of glutamine residues present in the protein. <P> Huntington's disease (HD) is caused by a mutated form of the huntingtin gene, where excessive (more than 36) CAG repeats result in formation of an unstable protein. These expanded repeats lead to production of a huntingtin protein that contains an abnormally long polyglutamine tract at the N-terminus. The gene and its product are under heavy investigation as part of Huntington's disease clinical research and the suggested role for huntingtin in long-term memory storage. It is variable in its structure, as the many polymorphisms of the gene can lead to variable numbers of glutamine residues present in the protein. <P> The HTT gene provides instructions for making a protein called huntingtin. Although the exact function of this protein is unknown, it appears to play an important role in nerve cells (neurons) in the brain and is essential for normal development before birth. The official name of this gene is “huntingtin.”. HTT is the gene's official symbol. The HTT gene is also known by other names, listed below. Read more about gene names and symbols on the About page. <P> (To read more about DNA, click here .) Everyone has a gene that codes for huntingtin protein, a protein found in the cells of the body, which we will discuss later. Towards the beginning of this gene, the three-letter codon sequence C-A-G is repeated a few times. Recall that a gene is a section of DNA made up of four different nucleotide bases, abbreviated by the letters A, T, C, and G. The order of these bases determines the protein “product” of the gene. <P> Huntingtin (HTT) was the first disease-associated gene to be molecularly mapped to a human chromosome (Gusella et al. , 1983) . Ten years later, scientists identified the DNA sequence and determined the precise nature of the HD-associated mutation in HTT (MacDonald et al. , 1993). Children of a parent with HD have a 50% chance of receiving the mutated HTT gene and thus developing the disease later in life. Today, through the use of PCR-based techniques, individuals at risk for HD can view their genetic blueprint and see their certain future. Whether they do so is a personal choice.

It is responsible for Huntington disease (HD) and of the protein encoded by that gene.

what are transform boundaries

<P> Slippin' and a Slidin' Transform boundaries neither create nor consume crust. Rather, two plates move against each other, building up tension, then releasing the tension in a sudden and often violent jerk. This sudden jerk creates an earthquake. The San Andreas Fault is undoubtedly the most famous transform boundary in the world. <P> Transform fault (the red lines). A transform fault or transform boundary, also known as conservative plate boundary since these faults neither create nor destroy lithosphere, is a type of fault whose relative motion is predominantly horizontal in either sinistral or dextral direction. Transform faults are closely related to transcurrent faults. Both types of faults are strike-slip or side-to-side in movement, (see diagrams to the right) however transform faults end at the junction of another plate boundary or fault type, while transcurrent faults die out without a junction. <P> Since the plates on either side of a transform boundary are merely sliding past each other and not tearing or crunching each other, transform boundaries lack the spectacular features found at convergent and divergent boundaries. <P> Transform fault. 508 pages on this wiki. A transform fault or transform boundary, also known as conservative plate boundary since these faults neither create nor destroy lithosphere, is a type of fault whose relative motion is predominantly horizontal in either sinistral or dextral direction. <P> The most famous example of a transform boundary is the San Andreas Fault in California. The San Andreas Fault is the edges of the Pacific Plate and the North American Plate. The fault line runs through the Gulf of California and through the western part of California before running back under the ocean. Convergent boundaries form strong earthquakes, as well as volcanic mountains or islands, when the sinking oceanic plate melts. The third type is transform boundaries, or a boundary where plates slide past each other, forming strong earthquakes. All of this crashing, banging, and erupting are one reason why the surface of the earth has such a variety of landforms and features. To unlock this lesson you must be a Study.com Member <P> Introduction. A transform boundary is a fault zone where two plates slide past each other horizontally. Most transform faults are found in the ocean where they offset spreading ridges creating a zigzag pattern between the plates. Some transform faults occur on land. San Andreas Fault. The San Andreas Fault is the transform boundary between the North American Plate and the Pacific Plate. During the 1906 San Francisco earthquake the northern section of the San Andreas Fault slipped northward along the fault from San Juan Bautista to Cape Mendocino, a total of 296 miles (477km). <P> Transform Plate Boundaries are locations where two plates slide past one another. The fracture zone that forms a transform plate boundary is known as a transform fault. Most transform faults are found in the ocean basin and connect offsets in the mid-ocean ridges. A smaller number connect mid-ocean ridges and subduction zones. <P> Transform Boundaries The final type of boundary is one where the two plates slide against each other in a sideways motion. These boundaries between plates is referred to as transform boundaries. As two plates slide past one another, in a transform boundary, neither plate is added to at the boundary, nor destroyed. The result of two massive plates pushing against one another is that massive amounts of energy build up.

It is a type of fault whose relative motion is predominantly horizontal in either sinistral or dextral direction.

what is fructose malabsorption symptoms

<P> Hereditary fructose intolerance should not be confused with a condition called fructose malabsorption. In people with fructose malabsorption, the cells of the intestine cannot absorb fructose normally, leading to bloating, diarrhea or constipation, flatulence, and stomach pain. <P> Fructose malabsorption, formerly named dietary fructose intolerance (DFI), is a digestive disorder in which absorption of fructose is impaired by deficient fructose carriers in the small intestine's enterocytes. This results in an increased concentration of fructose in the entire intestine. Occurrence in patients identified to be suffering symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome is not higher than occurrence in the normal population. However, due to the similarity in symptoms, patients with fructose malabsorption often fit the profile of those with irritable bowel syndrome. A small proportion of patients with both fructose malabsorption and lactose intolerance also suffer from celiac diseas <P> Fructose malabsorption is a common digestive disorder in which absorption of fructose (or other sugars like lactose or sorbitol) in the small intestine is impaired. About 30-40% of people suffer from FM. Symptoms of fructose malabsorption. The symptoms of fructose malabsorption have some similarities to those of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) , food allergies, food intolerance, and the inability to digest properly (weak digestion) . These symptoms can also be caused by yeast sensitivity or candida, from which around 1 in 3 people suffer <P> Hereditary Fructose Intolerance (HFI) should not be confused with Fructose Malabsorption. They are two different conditions but with some similar symptoms. In HFI fructose is not properly metabolised once inside our blood. This is due to a deficiency of an enzyme called aldolase B produced by the liver. <P> Fructose Malabsorption. When we eat fruit, fructose (the sugar found in fruit) passes through the walls of the small intestine lining into the blood stream. Once in the blood it is converted into glucose which the body utilises to burn for energy (like a fuel of a motor). <P> Symptoms of fructose malabsorption vary from person to person. Many of the symptoms are IBS-like symptoms and, in fact, fructose malabsorption may be one of the leading causes of irritable bowel syndrome. The test for fructose malabsorption is a simple hydrogen breath test – the same test used for lactose intolerance. The poor man’s way to test for fructose malabsorption is by eliminating fructose and observing symptoms. <P> Fructose malabsorption (FM) was previously known as ‘dietary fructose intolerance’ (DFI), but this term should be avoided to prevent confusion with hereditary fructose intolerance (HFI) . Fructose is a monosacharide or a single sugar, also called fruit sugar. Fructose has the same chemical formula as glucose (C6H12O6), but different molecular structure. They both have about the same caloric value, but fructose is sweeter. <P> Fructose is absorbed in the small intestine without help of digestive enzymes. Even in healthy persons, however, only about 25–50 g of fructose per sitting can be properly absorbed. People with fructose malabsorption absorb less than 25 g per sitting. Occurrence in patients identified to be suffering symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome is not higher than occurrence in the normal population. However, due to the similarity in symptoms, patients with fructose malabsorption often fit the profile of those with irritable bowel syndrome. A small proportion of patients with both fructose malabsorption and lactose intolerance also suffer from celiac disease

The symptoms of fructose malabsorption have some similarities to those of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) , food allergies, food intolerance, and the inability to digest properly (weak digestion).

in your opinion living on a farm or in city yahoo answer

<P> Once your question has been posted for at least 1 hour and has at least one answer, click on 'Award Best Answer' button next to your chosen answer. 1 Upload failed. 2 Please upload a file larger than 100x100 pixels. 3 We are experiencing some problems, please try again. 4 You can only upload files of type PNG, JPG, or JPEG. <P> Answers. Best Answer: Always busy; some people just can't stand the quiet of the country or suburbs. More accepting; there is far more diversity in the city Simply more stuff to do; more sources of entertainment and fun ways to spend your free time. <P> I think it depends on what your looking for. Both have pros and cons. City life is a faster pace of life, where there is something always happening, while village life is much slower and laid back. City life offers lots of convenience, stores and restaurants are in closer reach. <P> Rating Newest Oldest. Best Answer: I think a village life is better because it is more peaceful and relaxing. In a city one is always running around with the clock-life seems more hectic. Maybe there is more to do in a city life then in a village life when it comes to entertainment. <P> Once your question has been posted for at least 1 hour and has at least one answer, click on 'Award Best Answer' button next to your chosen answer. 1 Upload failed. 2 Please upload a file larger than 100x100 pixels. 3 We are experiencing some problems, please try again. 4 You can only upload files of type PNG, JPG, or JPEG. <P> Award Best Answer. Once your question has been posted for at least 1 hour and has at least one answer, click on 'Award Best Answer' button next to your chosen answer. 1 Upload failed. 2 Please upload a file larger than 100x100 pixels. 3 We are experiencing some problems, please try again. 4 You can only upload files of type PNG, JPG, or JPEG.

Once your question has been posted for at least 1 hour and has at least one answer, click on 'Award Best Answer' button next to your chosen answer. 1 Upload failed. 2 Please upload a file larger than 100x100 pixels. 3 We are experiencing some problems, please try again.

what does mrna do?

<P> mRNA, abbreviation for messenger RNA. An RNA (ribonucleic acid) molecule which has coding regions and translation signals derived from a gene, carries the reverse template message from DNA, and is required for protein synthesis. mRNA is a nucleic acid intermediate that specifies the amino acid sequence of a polypeptide during translation. <P> MRNA. Definition. noun. Abbreviated form for messenger ribonucleic acid, the type of RNA that codes for the chemical blueprint for a protein (during protein synthesis). Supplement. In prokaryotes, mRNA is produced by splicing a large primary transcript from a DNA sequence. <P> The have anti-codons that are complimentary to the codons … on the mRNA. They carry an amino acid that is specific to their anti-codon. mRNA is an RNA copy of a gene in the DNA that sends instruction for making a protein to the cytoplasm from the nucleus. <P> transfer RNA / tRNA. Transfer ribonucleic acid (tRNA) is a type of RNA molecule that helps decode a messenger RNA (mRNA) sequence into a protein. tRNAs function at specific sites in the ribosome during translation, which is a process that synthesizes a protein from an mRNA molecule. <P> The noun MRNA has 1 sense: 1. the template for protein synthesis; the form of RNA that carries information from DNA in the nucleus to the ribosome sites of protein synthesis in the cell. Familiarity information: MRNA used as a noun is very rare. Dictionary entry details.

The form of RNA that carries information from DNA in the nucleus to the ribosome sites of protein synthesis in the cell.

what is pecorino

<P> Pecorino is a term used to define Italian cheeses made from 100% sheep’s milk. However, the American counterpart of the cheese is made from cow’s milk. <P> Pecorino is a preferred cheese in many pasta cheeses and an obvious choice in Italian regions where the cheese is produced. Also, it served as a good substitute for the expensive Parmigiano-Reggiano. 1 Made from sheep 's milk. 2 Country of origin: Italy. <P> Post 1. Pecorino Toscano cheese is one of my favorite Italian sheep cheeses. It's softer and a lot less salty than the Pecorino Romano cheese which is used more often in Italian dishes. <P> Pecorino Romano is one of most widely used, sharper alternatives to Parmesan cheeses. Because of the hard texture and sharp & salty flavour, Pecorino Romano is an excellent grating cheese over pasta dishes, breads and baking casseroles. Although, the use of the cheese is limited because of its extreme saltiness. <P> Cheeses made from sheep’s milk often are called pecorino cheeses. They can be hard in texture and sharp and salty in flavor, or medium soft to creamy and mild in taste. <P> Pecorino. Pecorino is the name given to all Italian cheeses made from sheep's milk. It covers a wide variety of cheeses produced around the country, but specifically it refers to four main varieties of Pecorino, all of which enjoy PDO protection. <P> Categories: Cheese. In Italy, cheese made from sheep's milk is known as pecorino. The most widely known is Pecorino Romano, followed by Percorino Sardo, Percorino Siciliano and Percorino Toscano, all of which have denominazione di origine controllata (DOC) status. <P> Pecorino Romano. Pecorino is a term used to define Italian cheeses made from 100% sheep’s milk. However, the American counterpart of the cheese is made from cow’s milk.

Term used to define Italian cheeses made from 100% sheep’s milk.

how much do freelance editors make

<P> January 19, 2014 at 8:08 am. Zimmy, I actually recommend new freelance writers shoot for $35-$50 an hour as a starting rate. You have many more expenses as a freelancer than you do as an employee, so you can’t make it as a freelance writer in any developed country earning much below that. Remember that every hour is not a billable hour, too. <P> A good ballpark figure is 10 cents a word, so a 100,000-word book might set you back $10,000 while a 400-word blog post could cost around $40. These are just rough averages, however. Some editors work cheaper and some charge substantially more — it’s all about supply and demand. Some editors will tell you they’re charging by the page or the project but we all base our fees on our preferred hourly rates. 1 Substantive editing, $50-$60 per hour or more, depending on the editor. <P> Developmental editing: $50 to $80 per hour Pace: 2 to 5 pages per hour. Of course, rates vary from one book editor to another. Some freelance book editors will work for $10 to $20 per hour, but you can expect experienced book editors to charge $25 or more per hour. Expect to pay more for editing technical writing or specialized subject matter, as well. <P> Expected Lifetime Earnings: $2,249,000. According to the Bureau of Labor Statistics, copy editors make a mean annual wage of $59,340 a year. Basically, you may make $28.53 an hour as a copy editor, but the range is wide and fat (like many of the editors who feast on late night Chinese food). The salary differs depending on the size and prestige of a company. Copy editors in New York make roughly $74,690 a year. Editors living in Texas make an annual mean wage of $50,150 a year. Basically, those living in an area with a high cost of living will make more. Well if that isn't the darnedest coincidence. Freelancers generally make less than an editor on staff. <P> Your wage may also depend on where you live. Copy editors in New York make roughly $74,690 a year. Editors living in Texas make an annual mean wage of $50,150 a year. Basically, those living in an area with a high cost of living will make more. Well if that isn't the darnedest coincidence. Freelancers generally make less than an editor on staff. <P> Editors in North America can be hired for anywhere from $25 an hour to north of $60 an hour, which is reasonable compared to a lawyer, CPA or a plumber, but it’s far from free. Some editors will tell you they’re charging by the page or the project but we all base our fees on our preferred hourly rates. 1 Substantive editing, $50-$60 per hour or more, depending on the editor. <P> And so on. Editors make between $30,000 and $80,000 a year. Of course there are outliers (those making more or less); but the average salary is around $50,000. Freelance editors can earn between $30 and $100 an hour. A higher salary and hourly rate is earned by those with many years of experience, and who have established themselves in that field. Phew, that was long.

$10 to $25 per hour.

uses of tea or coffee or alcohol

<P> The Lord's law of health, also known as the Word of Wisdom, is a gateway to enriching every aspect of life. We believe that some substances are harmful to the body, including coffee, tea, alcohol, tobacco, and illegal drugs. I choose not to drink or partake of things that can harm my body because 1) I respect my body. I want to have complete control of myself and my actions and 2) I don't use tobacco, alcohol, coffee, tea or illegal drugs because I believe that it brings unhappiness. <P> Tea culture is defined by the way tea is made and consumed, by the way the people interact with tea, and by the aesthetics surrounding tea drinking, it includes aspects of tea production, tea brewing, tea arts and ceremony, society, history, health, ethics, education, and communication and media issues. <P> We do not drink coffee, tea, alcohol, use tobacco, or illegal drugs because of a commandment known as the Word of Wisdom. The Word of Wisdom was a commandment revealed to the prophet Joseph Smith in 1833. It tells us the importance of keeping care of our bodies because they are temples. I choose not to drink or partake of things that can harm my body because 1) I respect my body. I want to have complete control of myself and my actions and 2) I don't use tobacco, alcohol, coffee, tea or illegal drugs because I believe that it brings unhappiness. <P> Tea originated in the southwest of China, possibly as a medicinal drink. It became a popular drink throughout China during the Tang dynasty, and tea drinking spread to other East Asian countries. Portuguese priests and merchants introduced it to the West during the 16th century. Tea is an aromatic beverage commonly prepared by pouring hot or boiling water over cured leaves of the Camellia sinensis, an evergreen shrub native to Asia. After water, it is the most widely consumed drink in the world <P> Why You Should Be Drinking Tea. Tea's health benefits: Although coffee has been linked to some health benefits such as lower risk of certain types of cancer, there are also some negative effects associated with coffee, such as caffeine dependency. The beneficial antioxidants, polyphenols, in tea may make the body absorb caffeine differently, over a longer period of time. So, while you might have to stop drinking coffee by noon to avoid sleep problems, you probably can go on drinking tea the rest of the day with no ill effects. <P> 1 Preventing or delaying Parkinson's disease. 2 There is evidence that people who drink caffeinated beverages such as coffee, tea, and cola have a decreased risk of Parkinson's disease. 3 For men, the effect seems to depend on the amount of caffeine consumed. The body breaks down the caffeine in coffee to get rid of it. Alcohol can decrease how quickly the body breaks down caffeine. Taking coffee along with alcohol might cause too much caffeine in the bloodstream and caffeine side effects including jitteriness, headache, and fast heartbeat. <P> Scientists have devised a way to produce alcohol with used coffee grounds. (Photo via Getty) | Getty. Scientists have devised a way to produce alcohol with used coffee grounds. (Photo via Getty) | Getty. Forget boozy coffee drinks. Scientists have now devised a way to make alcohol from used coffee grounds. And, yes, the 80-proof beverage should make drinkers feel the alcoholic effects. <P> Medicines in my Home: Caffeine and Your Body Caffeine occurs naturally in more than 60 plants including coffee beans, tea leaves, kola nuts used to flavor soft drink colas, and cacao pods used to make chocolate products. Man-made caffeine is sometimes added to foods, drinks, and medicines. <P> Start substituting one of your daily coffees with a cup of green tea. Continue substituting little by little. 1 If you drink 4 coffees a day, begin by drinking 3 coffees and one green tea. 2 A day later (or a few days – depending on how tough going it is) move that down to two coffees and two green teas.

Tea uses as medicinal drink. And coffee linked to some healtg benefits such as lower risk of certain types of cancer.

what is a terrestrial biome

<P> [tɐjˈɡa] ; from Turkic) also known as boreal forest or snow forest, is a biome characterized by coniferous forests consisting mostly of pines, spruces and larches. The taiga is the world's largest terrestrial biome. Coniferous trees are the dominant plants of the taiga biome. A very few species in four main genera are found: the evergreen spruce, fir and pine, and the deciduous larch. In North America, one or two species of fir and one or two species of spruce are dominant. <P> The taiga is the terrestrial biome with the lowest annual average temperatures after the tundra and permanent ice caps. Extreme winter minimums in the northern taiga are typically lower than those of the tundra. Coniferous trees are the dominant plants of the taiga biome. A very few species in four main genera are found: the evergreen spruce, fir and pine, and the deciduous larch. In North America, one or two species of fir and one or two species of spruce are dominant. <P> A biome /ˈbaɪoʊm/ is a formation of plants and animals that have common characteristics due to similar climates and can be found over a range of continents. Biomes are defined by climate regimes and biogeography. A 1978 study on North American grasslands found a positive logistic correlation between evapotranspiration in mm/yr and above-ground net primary production in g/m 2 /yr. <P> Biomes are regions of the world with similar climate (weather, temperature) animals and plants. There are terrestrial biomes (land) and aquatic biomes, both freshwater and marine. Would you like to know what the weather is like in different biomes around the world? <P> Terrestrial Biomes: Tropical forest Savanna Desert Extreme Desert Chaparral Grassland Deciduous forest Taiga Tundra Biomes are often named for their predominant vegetation, and all have certain characteristics such as microorganisms, fungi, and animals which have adapted to their particular environment. Terrestrial biome is a land biome such as rain forest, deciduous forests, tundra and such By the way, extra terrestrial is from outer space, like E.T. ;). Green Phoenix · 7 years ago. Thumbs up. 0. <P> Terrestrial Biomes. Tundra-A terrestrial biome with low, shrubby or mat-like vegetation found at extremely high latitudes or elevations, near the limit of plant growth. Soils usually subject to permafrost. Plant diversity is typically low and the growing season is short. Temperate forest-Forests occuring at temperate latitudes (&gt;23.5 degrees N or S latitude). This terrestrial biome is characterized by moderate to large seasonal changes in temperature; rainfall, however, is usually more evenly distributed. Leaves of deciduous trees drop during autumn and winter. <P> Scrub forest-Scrub forests develop in areas that experience dry seasons. Tropical scrub forest-A terrestrial biome similar to tropical deciduous forest, but most trees are small, the dry season is prolonged, and many plant species bear thorns. Temperate forest-Forests occuring at temperate latitudes (&gt;23.5 degrees N or S latitude). This terrestrial biome is characterized by moderate to large seasonal changes in temperature; rainfall, however, is usually more evenly distributed. Leaves of deciduous trees drop during autumn and winter. <P> Tropical deciduous forest-A terrestrial biome similar to tropical rainforest and found at the same latitudes, but rainy and dry seasons are more distinct and the total amount of rainfall is usually less. Most trees are deciduous and drop their leaves during the dry season. Thorny vegetation is sometimes prominent. Temperate forest-Forests occuring at temperate latitudes (&gt;23.5 degrees N or S latitude). This terrestrial biome is characterized by moderate to large seasonal changes in temperature; rainfall, however, is usually more evenly distributed. Leaves of deciduous trees drop during autumn and winter. <P> Best Answer: Terrestrial Biomes Abiotic factors, such as climate, are important in determining where a particular biome is located. There are longtitudal patterns of climate over the Earth’s surface, and therefore, there are also longtitudal patterns of biome distribution over the Earth’s surface. Terrestrial biome is a land biome such as rain forest, deciduous forests, tundra and such By the way, extra terrestrial is from outer space, like E.T. ;). Green Phoenix · 7 years ago. Thumbs up. 0.

A land biome such as rain forest, deciduous forests, tundra and such By the way.

what are the function and metabolism of macronutrients

<P> Nutrients are substances needed for growth, metabolism, and for other body functions. Macronutrients are nutrients that provide calories or energy. The prefix makro is from the Greek and means big or large, used because macronutrients are required in large amounts. <P> Image: Selection of foods. Nutrients are substances needed for growth, energy provision and other body functions. Macronutrients are those nutrients required in large amounts that provide the energy needed to maintain body functions and carry out the activities of daily life. <P> Macronutrients are nutrients that provide calories or energy. Nutrients are substances needed for growth, metabolism, and for other body functions. Since macro means large, macronutrients are nutrients needed in large amounts. <P> Confidence votes 1.1K. The three macronutrients are: fat, protein, and carbohydrates (carbs). These are the nutrients humans consume the most of. When your body breaks these down, it can provide you with energy (which, in turn, can keep you healthy--especially when used in exercise). <P> Nutrients can be divided into 2 categories: macronutrients, and micronutrients. Macronutrients are those nutrients that the body needs in large amounts. These provide the body with energy (calories). Micronutrients are those nutrients that the body needs in smaller amounts. <P> The macronutrients provide the substances we need for growth, metabolism, and body function. Breaking the macronutrients down into calories per gram helps simplify things. <P> Nutrients are environmental substances used for energy, growth, and bodily functions by organisms. Depending on the nutrient, these substances are needed in small amounts or larger amounts. Those that are needed in large amounts are called macronutrients.

The three macronutrients are: fat, protein, and carbohydrates (carbs). These are the nutrients humans consume the most of. When your body breaks these down, it can provide you with energy.

what is budesonide inhalation suspension

<P> Common side effects of budesonide inhalation suspension include: runny nose, respiratory infections, coughing, earaches, itchy throat and diarrhea. More serious side effects that require a doctor's attention include: Call your doctor if your child experiences signs of an allergic reaction after using budesonide inhalation suspension, such as hives or an itchy rash. Call 911 for difficulty breathing or swelling of the mouth, lips, tongue or throat <P> (budesonide) Inhalation suspension. Budesonide, the active component of PULMICORT RESPULES® (budesonide inhalation suspension) , is a corticosteroid designated chemically as (RS)-11β, 16α, 17, 21-tetrahydroxypregna-1, 4-diene-3, 20dione cyclic 16, 17-acetal with butyraldehyde. Budesonide is provided as a mixture of two epimers (22R and 22S) <P> When switching from using an oral steroid to budesonide inhalation suspension to control your child's asthma symptoms, follow your doctor's advice, as there are some health risks while the body works to produce natural steroids. 1 pain in your child's bones, ears or joints. 2 fainting or weakness. 3 more wheezing than normal. More serious side effects that require a doctor's attention include: Call your doctor if your child experiences signs of an allergic reaction after using budesonide inhalation suspension, such as hives or an itchy rash. Call 911 for difficulty breathing or swelling of the mouth, lips, tongue or throat <P> 1 Pulmicort Respules™(budesonide inhalation suspension)0.25 mg and 0.5 mg Rx only For inhalation use via compressed air driven jet nebulizers only (not for use with ultrasonicdevices). Not for injection. Read patient instructions before using. <P> Patients randomized to budesonide inhalation suspension (BIS) receive 2 nebulized albuterol sulfate (5mg/mL) doses (2mL =10mg for patients over 20kg, 1.5mL =7.5mg for patients 10-20kg) mixed with 8mL (2mg) of BIS(0.5mg/2mL). The purpose of this study is to determine whether the addition of budesonide inhalation suspension (BIS) to the standard therapy of albuterol, ipratropium bromide, and systemic corticosteroids (SCS) for moderate to severe asthma flares in children reduces asthma severity more rapidly than standard therapy alone. <P> Budesonide inhalation comes in two forms -- the budesonide inhalation, and budesonide inhalation suspension that is inhaled using a nebulizer (a device that changes liquid medications into fine droplets that are inhaled into the lungs). Inhaled steroids go directly into the lungs and help to decrease the inflammation of airways that makes asthma attacks more likely. Because budesonide inhalation does not work quickly, it should not be used for treating an asthma attack. Rather, it is used once or twice a day in order to prevent asthma attacks. <P> Budesonide is a steroid. It prevents the release of substances in the body that cause inflammation. Budesonide inhalation is used to prevent asthma attacks. It will not treat an asthma attack that has already begun. Budesonide may also be used for other purposes not listed in this medication guide. <P> Because budesonide inhalation is inhaled directly into the lungs, the rest of the body is exposed to lower steroid levels, compared to steroids taken by mouth. This helps reduce or eliminate many of the side effects associated with long-term steroid use. Inhaled steroids go directly into the lungs and help to decrease the inflammation of airways that makes asthma attacks more likely. Because budesonide inhalation does not work quickly, it should not be used for treating an asthma attack. Rather, it is used once or twice a day in order to prevent asthma attacks. <P> This is not a complete list of side effects and others may occur. Call your doctor for medical advice about side effects. You may report side effects to FDA at 1-800-FDA-1088. Read the Pulmicort Respules (budesonide inhalation suspension) Side Effects Center for a complete guide to possible side effects. Budesonide inhalation is used to prevent asthma attacks. It will not treat an asthma attack that has already begun. Budesonide may also be used for other purposes not listed in this medication guide.

Budesonide Inhalation suspension that is inhaled using a nebulizer a device that changes liquid medications into fine droplets that are inhaled into the lungs.

what are the differences between photosynthesis and respiration

<P> The main similarities between cellular respiration and photosynthesis is that they are both processes in which a cell produces glucose or energy. Both are used in your everyda … y environment. One difference is that photosynthesis happens in plants and cellular respiration in both plants and animals. <P> Both Photosynthesis and Cellular Respiration are processes, which organisms use to obtain energy to sustain life. Both the processes have two stages; photosynthesis occurs in the presence and the absence of light. And cellular respiration occurs in the presence and the absence of oxygen. <P> One difference of photosynthesis and respiration is that their process is being reversed. In photosynthesis, carbon dioxide and water is yielded to glucose or also known as sugar and oxygen while in respiration, it is the other way around. Sugar and oxygen is yielded to carbon dioxide and water. <P> Photosynthesis converts the light energy obtained from the sun into chemical energy of sugar and oxygen, whereas cellular respiration is a biochemical process by which cells obtain energy from the chemical bonds of food molecules. Photosynthesis and cellular respiration are both key processes for life. <P> Photosynthesis and respiration are reactions that complement each other in the environment. They are in reality the same reactions but occurring in reverse. While in photosynthesis carbon dioxide and water yield glucose and oxygen, through the respiration process glucose and oxygen yield carbon dioxide and water. <P> As with cellular respiration, photosynthesis occurs in two stages. The difference between the two cellular processes is that cellular respiration processes are divided into processes that require oxygen and those that do not require oxygen. In the case of photosynthesis, the processes are divided into those that require light energy and those that do not require light energy. <P> The biggest difference between photosynthesis and respiration is that photosynthesis only occurs in plants and some bacteria while respiration occurs in all living organisms. They do share one big similarity and that is that the process of photosynthesis is actually the same process only it is completed in reverse.

In photosynthesis,is carbon dioxide and water is yielded to glucose or also known as sugar and oxygen, is that photosynthesis only occurs in plants and some bacteria Whereas, in respiration, it is the other way around, respiration occurs in all living organisms.

foods that are good for pancreatitis

<P> Diet for chronic pancreatitis is a number one strategy recommended for patients diagnosed with inflamed pancreas. Inflammation in the pancreas causes narrowing of the bilary ducts or sometimes even their complete obstruction. <P> 2. Lean cuts of meat, preferably filets of chicken, turkey, rabbit and veal, are low in fat and high in proteins, iron, zinc and essential amino acids to maintain good health. Diet for chronic pancreatitis needs to include only steaming or poaching methods of meat cooking, absolutely no frying or grilling. <P> -Yogurt. Probiotics are crucial in a pancreatitis diet. These live bacteria in yogurt help keep the balance of your digestive system, as well as help to maintain your body’s immunity level, which prevents inflammation. <P> You should eat small portions and often, so as not to elevate your symptoms. Products to be avoided in the Pancreatitis diet include caffeine, tobacco, spicy foods, eggs, butter, cheese, fried foods, bacon, pizza, beer, beans, and other general gas-forming foods, which could cause inflammation of the pancreas. <P> Spinach is a good source of iron and vitamin B, both of which your pancreas needs. Try a spinach salad, or spinach stir-fried with garlic. Other leafy greens, like kale, mustard and Swiss chard are also beneficial for your pancreas. <P> 1. Avoid foods with high fat content. One of the causes of pancreatitis are high triglycerides (fats) in the blood. A diet high in fat is sure to bring on pancreatitis attacks so it is best to avoid meats, dairy and fried foods. Eat more carbohydrates, legumes, and fish. <P> The pancreas produces insulin, which reduces blood sugar levels and allows your body to store food energy for future use. Eating the right foods can heal and nourish your pancreas. It may also help you avoid pancreatitis, a painful inflammation of the pancreas.

Spinach salad, or spinach stir-fried with garlic, leafy greens, like kale, mustard, Swiss chard and yogurt.

what is the purpose of connective tissue

<P> The most abundant fiber in connective tissues is a tough protein called collagen. Tendons, ligaments, and the white stringy tissue (fascia) seen in some cuts of meat are composed almost entirely of collagen, as is leather, which consists of the connective tissue layer (dermis) of animal skins. Collagen also strengthens bone and cartilage. Elastic and reticular fibers are less abundant connective tissue proteins with a more limited distribution. The ground substance may be liquid, as in blood; gelatinous, as in areolar tissue; rubbery, as in cartilage; or calcified and stony, as in bone. <P> Connective tissue (CT) is one of the four types of biological tissue that support, connect, or separate different types of tissues and organs in the body. The other three types are epithelial, muscle, and nervous tissue. Connective tissue is found in between other tissues everywhere in the body, including the nervous system. In the central nervous system the outer membranes, the meninges, that cover the brain and spinal cord are composed of connective tissue. Other kinds of connective tissues include fibrous, elastic, and lymphoid connective tissues. Fibroblasts are the cells responsible for the production of some CT. Type-I collagen, is present in many forms of connective tissue, and makes up about 25% of the total protein content of the mammalian body. <P> For example, red and white blood cells are found in blood, which is a fluid connective tissue. Adipocytes are fat cells found in adipose tissue, or fat. And fibroblasts are cells found in large quantities in many different types of connective tissues. Because the types of connective tissue vary greatly, so do their functions. Adipose, or fat tissue, is a loose connective tissue that is specialized for storage. Although some people may have more adipose tissue than they would like, it does serve the important purpose of warmth and elasticity of certain organs. <P> Adipose Tissue is a loose fibrous connective tissue that is packed with many fat cells (called adipocytes ): Adipose tissue forms a thick layer under the skin, around the kidneys and in the buttocks. More generally, it is found at the same locations throughout the body as areolar connective tissue. Adipose Tissue is a loose fibrous connective tissue packed with many cells (called adipocytes ) that are specialized for storage of triglycerides more commonly referred to as fats . Each adipocyte cell is filled with a single large droplet of triglyceride (fat). <P> Both the cells and the fibres are embedded in the intercellular substance. The consistency of this substance is highly variable from gelatin-like to a much more rigid material. The proportions of the cells, fibres, and intercellular substance vary, depending on a particular nature and function of the connective tissue. Areolar connective tissue is the most widespread connective tissue of the body. It is used to attach the skin to the underlying tissue. It also fills the spaces between various organs and thus holds them in place as well as cushions and protects them. <P> All connective tissue apart from blood and lymph consists of three main components: fibers (elastic and collagenous fibers), ground substance and cells. (Not all authorities include blood or lymph as connective tissue.) Blood and lymph lack the fiber component. All are immersed in the body water. Other kinds of connective tissues include fibrous, elastic, and lymphoid connective tissues. Fibroblasts are the cells responsible for the production of some CT. Type-I collagen, is present in many forms of connective tissue, and makes up about 25% of the total protein content of the mammalian body. <P> 2.0 The Structure of adipose tissue. Adipose Tissue is a loose fibrous connective tissue packed with many cells (called adipocytes ) that are specialized for storage of triglycerides more commonly referred to as fats . Each adipocyte cell is filled with a single large droplet of triglyceride (fat). <P> Connective Tissue This is the most widespread and abundant type of tissue in the human body. Its function is primarily to support, anchor and connect various parts of the body. Areolar connective tissue is the most widespread connective tissue of the body. It is used to attach the skin to the underlying tissue. It also fills the spaces between various organs and thus holds them in place as well as cushions and protects them. <P> Loose connective tissue is primarily located beneath epithelial membranes and glandular epithelium, binding these epithelia to other tissues, contributing to the formation of organs. <P> Areolar and reticular tissue are types of loose connective tissue that provide support, as well as fill up unused spaces in the body. Blood, a fluid connective tissue, provides a transport system within our body for oxygen and other important substances. Because the types of connective tissue vary greatly, so do their functions. Adipose, or fat tissue, is a loose connective tissue that is specialized for storage. Although some people may have more adipose tissue than they would like, it does serve the important purpose of warmth and elasticity of certain organs.

Connective tissue (CT) is one of the four types of biological tissue that support, connect, or separate different types of tissues and organs in the body.

highest interest rates in usa

<P> how much you ll earn in interest from the bank can differ from state to state so if you re looking to stash away some money for savings finding out the best rates offered by banks in your area and beyond can definitely mean more money in your pocket state average apy 0 96 % banks in nevada may earn you a relatively low interest rate compared with banks across the rest of the country but there are still a few with pretty good rates <P> 2 ge capital bank with the same minimum deposit requirement as nationwide bank at $ 500 and only a slightly lower interest rate of 1 10 percent apy for a 12 month cd ge capital bank s cd account ranked no 2 ge capital bank also accepts high deposits capping cd accounts at $ 1 million 3 ally bank <P> their online savings account continues to offer one of the best interest rates available today and the account takes less than 120 seconds to open hsbc direct is part of hsbc bank usa n a which has about 450 branches in the u s and hsbc group which has more than 10000 office worldwide its online cd account is offered in terms ranging from 6 months to 60 months with a variety of interest rates its certificates of deposit range in terms from 3 months to 60 months with interest rates apr currently ranging from 0 30 % to 1 81 % for its yield pledge cd penalties for early withdrawal vary depending on the term of the cd <P> top high yield savings accounts for 2015 the following table lists banks and credit unions that offers the highest yield savings account and money market rates as of today to get more information you can follow the link to the bank website or use the or icons many banks and credit unions offer a variety of savings and money market accounts and this article aims to help you find the highest interest rate for this type of deposit account of course a high interest rate is not the only factor to consider when selecting an account <P> the federal reserve left its target range for the fed funds rate unchanged at 0 to 0 25 percent amid concerns that recent global economic and financial developments may restrain economic activity and put further downward pressure on inflation in the united states the authority to set interest rates is divided between the board of governors of the federal reserve board and the federal open market committee fomc <P> 1 mysavingsdirect tie the high interest savings account from mysavingsdirect boasts america s highest rate which they define as the highest nationally advertised apy for a no fee no minimum required savings account at 1 05 percent apy we re not arguing 3 barclays bank delaware tie with an interest rate of 1 percent apy this savings account was one of the higher yielding products on the our list more than 12 times the national average deposit rate of 0 08 percent according to a recent gobankingrates study <P> state average apy 0 95 credit unions don t always have the best rates for savers in indiana the highest apy on a 12 month cd comes from union savings bank in bloomington which offers 2 5 % on a minimum deposit of $ 500 according to bankingmyway com state average apy 0 96 % banks in nevada may earn you a relatively low interest rate compared with banks across the rest of the country but there are still a few with pretty good rates <P> 1971 2015 percent daily in the united states the authority to set interest rates is divided between the board of governors of the federal reserve board and the federal open market committee fomc <P> interest rate in the united states averaged 5 95 percent from 1971 until 2015 reaching an all time high of 20 percent in march of 1980 and a record low of 0 25 percent in december of 2008 in the united states the authority to set interest rates is divided between the board of governors of the federal reserve board and the federal open market committee fomc <P> state average apy 1 38 % alabama banks may offer a fairly high interest rate over the national average for a 12 month cd but local marion bank trust company in marion ala still significantly outdoes that state average apy 0 96 % banks in nevada may earn you a relatively low interest rate compared with banks across the rest of the country but there are still a few with pretty good rates

An all time high of 20 percent in march of 1980.

what is normal prolactin level in males

<P> After months of breast-feeding, prolactin levels may also return to normal levels even if you still breast-feed. The pituitary glands of men and nonpregnant women also make prolactin but it is not clear what it does in the body for these people. Prolactin levels are different throughout the day. <P> Sexual problems in men may be linked to low levels of the hormone prolactin, according to a new study. The finding is perhaps surprising because experts have traditionally thought prolactin, which stimulates breast development and milk production in women, impairs men's sexual functioning at high levels. Men and non-pregnant women also produce prolactin, but it's not clear what the hormone does in these people. Studies have found that high prolactin levels in men are linked to low sexual desire and erectile dysfunction, and men suffering from such conditions are sometimes tested for high prolactin levels. <P> Hyperprolactinemia is defined as increased levels of serum prolactin. Normal prolactin levels are between 5-21 ng/mL. A prolactin level greater than 21 ng/mL is abnormally high (7). Hyperprolactinemia can be high due to normal physiological causes. Physiological or psychological stress can elevate prolactin in both men and women, but values rarely exceed 40 ng/mL. Women generally have higher levels of prolactin than men and also secrete more prolactin in response to physiological triggers than men (6). Strenuous exercise, sleep, and high-protein meals have also shown to increase prolactin levels. There are many pathologic causes of hyperprolactinemia <P> Hyperprolactinaemia or hyperprolactinemia is the presence of abnormally high levels of prolactin in the blood. Normal levels are less than 500 mIU/L [20 ng/mL or µg/L] for women, and less than 450 mIU/L for men. <P> 1 A normal or low prolactin level does not always mean there is no pituitary tumor. 2 An MRI test may be done if a pituitary tumor is suspected. 3 High levels of prolactin may mean that the pituitary gland is making excess prolactin for unknown reasons (idiopathic hyperprolactinemia). High values. 1 High levels of prolactin (usually higher than 200 ng/mL) may mean a pituitary gland tumor (prolactinoma) is present. 2 The higher the prolactin level, the more likely a pituitary gland tumor <P> Prolactin. Guide. A prolactin test measures the level of the hormone prolactin, which is made by the pituitary gland, in your blood. Pregnant women have high levels of prolactin, which helps make breast milk. During pregnancy, prolactin levels increase by 10 to 20 times. After the baby is born, prolactin stays high if you are breast-feeding. In women who do not breast-feed, prolactin levels return to normal soon after they give birth. The pituitary glands of men and nonpregnant women also make prolactin but it is not clear what it does in the body for these people. Prolactin levels are different throughout the day. <P> 1 High levels of prolactin (usually higher than 200 ng/mL) may mean a pituitary gland tumor (prolactinoma) is present. 2 The higher the prolactin level, the more likely a pituitary gland tumor is present. High values. 1 <P> Traditionally, prolactin levels were measured in ng/ml, and normal prolactin levels in women are less than 29 ng/ml. The new units are pmol/l and to convery you need to multiply by 44. This means the normal level is less than. 700 pmol/l or mIU/L. A low level is of no clinical importance. <P> Some women have high prolactin levels without any symptoms. In men, high prolactin levels can cause galactorrhea, impotence (inability to have an erection during sex), reduced desire for sex, and infertility. A man with untreated hyperprolactinemia may make less sperm or no sperm at all. Normally, both men and women have small amounts of prolactin in their blood. Prolactin levels are controlled by other hormones called prolactin inhibiting factors (PIFs), such as dopamine. During pregnancy, prolactin levels go up. After the baby is born, there is a sudden drop in estrogen and progesterone.

5-21 ng/mL

what are vitamins and minerals good for

<P> The list below will help you out. It covers all the vitamins and minerals you should get, preferably from food. Calcium. Foods that have it: Milk, fortified nondairy alternatives like soy milk, yogurt, hard cheeses, fortified cereals, kale. How much you need: 1 Adults ages 19-50: 1,000 milligrams per day. 2 Women age 51 and older: 1,2 <P> While diet is the key to getting the best vitamins and minerals, supplements can help. For instance, if you’re doing your best to eat healthy foods but still are deficient in some areas, supplements can help. The key is to ensure they’re taken in addition to healthy diet choices and nutrient-dense foods. <P> Multivitamin/mineral (MVM) supplements contain a combination of vitamins and minerals, and sometimes other ingredients as well. They go by many names, including multis and multiples or simply vitamins. The vitamins and minerals in MVMs have unique roles in the body. <P> Vitamins and minerals are substancesyour body needs to grow properly,function normally and stay healthy. It’spossible — and highly recommended —that you get these substances from thefoods you eat. However, it sometimescan be difficult to get the recommendedamount of some vitamins and mineralsfrom diet alone. <P> What it does: Helps your body process iron. Don't get more than this much: 10,000 micrograms per day for adults. Fiber. Foods that have it: Plant foods, including oatmeal, lentils, peas, beans, fruits, and vegetables. 1 1. 2 2. 3 3.

Vitamins and minerals are substancesyour body needs to grow properly,function normally and stay healthy.

definition of regeneration geography

<P> Regeneration: In biological terms it means to recreate lost or damaged tissues. In geographical terms it means improving an area that has been experiencing a period of decline. In the east end of London the decline was bought about be deindustrialisation. The area of London that is seeing the most regeneration because of the Olympics is the borough of Newham. This area is sometimes referred to as the Lower Lea Valley, because Newham is situated at the end of the River Lea. The borough of Newham has a population of about 270,000. <P> Rejuvenation. Rejuvenation occurs when there is either a fall inn sea level relative to the level of the land or a rise pf the land relative to the sea. This enables a river to renew its capacity to erode as its potential energy is increased. <P> Medical Definition of REGENERATION. 1. : an act or the process of regenerating: the state of being regenerated. 2. : spiritual renewal or revival. 3. : renewal or restoration of a body, bodily part, or biological system (as a forest) after injury or as a normal process. 4. <P> An example of an exam question, and how to structure your answer because there is a lot of information. This is very full on and very long,... The Three Gorges Dam, Yangtze River, China. In the IGCSE Geography Specification, you're meant to know a case study for a dam or reservoir project, and I learnt this, so...: ... IGCSE Geography. This is for IGCSE Geography (EDEXCEL). The topics I've done are: River + Hazardous + Urban + Fragile Environments; Economic Activity and Energy. Clicking on the labels at the end of a post will show you all the posts linked to that topic. It'll make using this blog easier since I didn't post in a defined order <P> Urban regeneration: the investment of capital in the revival of old, urban areas by either improving what is there or clearing it away and rebuilding. Urban re-imaging: changing the image of an urban area and the way people view it. IGCSE Geography. This is for IGCSE Geography (EDEXCEL). The topics I've done are: River + Hazardous + Urban + Fragile Environments; Economic Activity and Energy. Clicking on the labels at the end of a post will show you all the posts linked to that topic. It'll make using this blog easier since I didn't post in a defined order <P> Deprived areas of the UK were made UDCs to try and encourage regeneration. UDCs had the powers to give tax breaks, relax planning, help with finance etc. The Docklands area of London (next to the Olympic Park) area was made a UDC back in the 1980's to help regeneration. Deprived: An area that is relatively poor. The area of London that is seeing the most regeneration because of the Olympics is the borough of Newham. This area is sometimes referred to as the Lower Lea Valley, because Newham is situated at the end of the River Lea. The borough of Newham has a population of about 270,000. <P> As far as i know this is the definition i found from AQA: Property-led regeneration involves the regeneration of an inner-city area by changing the image of the area, improving the environment, attracting private investment and improving confidence for further investment. Definition: Property-led regeneration projects are the inwards movement of people due to a large scale investment programme focused upon urban regeneration concerning financial, social and physical changes. <P> Noun. 1. regeneration - (biology) growth anew of lost tissue or destroyed parts or organs. biological science, biology-the science that studies living organisms. morphallaxis-regeneration on a reduced scale of a body part; observed especially in invertebrates such as certain lobsters. Why, to maintain this theory of the regeneration of mankind by means of the pursuit of his own advantage is to my mind almost the same thing. Notes from the Underground by Dostoyevsky, Fyodor View in context. Deep unspeakable suffering may well be called a baptism, a regeneration, the initiation into a new state.

It means improving an area that has been experiencing a period of decline.

what is myer

<P> When the phrase Myers Briggs is used in the name of a personality questionnaire, it refers specifically to the commercial Myers-Briggs Type Indicator® instrument, published by Consulting Psychologists Press. However, there are many alternative questionnaires that produce a similar result. There is a lot to Myers Briggs theory, though at its heart are four simple preferences. Do you prefer to deal with: 1 People and things (Extraversion or E), or ideas and information (Introversion or I). 2 Facts and reality (Sensing or S), or possibilities and potential (Intuition or N). <P> The purpose of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator® (MBTI ®) personality inventory is to make the theory of psychological types described by C. G. Jung understandable and useful in people's lives. Your Personality Type: When you decide on your preference in each category, you have your own personality type, which can be expressed as a code with four letters. The 16 personality types of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator ® instrument are listed here as they are often shown in what is called a type table.. <P> In 1985 the Myer Emporium (and Target, its discount department store) merged with GJ Coles & Coy forming Coles Myer Limited, then Australia's largest retailer. Myer remained a distinct entity within the new corporate structure until it was sold in 2006. The MYER one program was introduced in August 2004 after Coles Myer discontinued its shareholder discount card the previous month. It initially credited 1-point per $1 spent up to $2500 per annum; 1.5 points per $1 spent from $2500 to $5000 per annum; and 2 points per $1 spent for $5000+ per annum. <P> Myer retails a broad range of products across women's, men's and children's clothing, footwear and accessories; cosmetics and fragrance; homewares; electrical; furniture and bedding; toys; books and stationery; food and confectionery; and travel goods. Myer's main department store rival is David Jones. The MYER one program was introduced in August 2004 after Coles Myer discontinued its shareholder discount card the previous month. It initially credited 1-point per $1 spent up to $2500 per annum; 1.5 points per $1 spent from $2500 to $5000 per annum; and 2 points per $1 spent for $5000+ per annum. <P> Myers is an English origin and German origin surname. The English surname traces its origins to Anglo-Saxon England, from the Old English word maire (originally maior) meaning Mayor. The German origin of the surname MYERS has the meaning steward or bailiff, as in the magistrate of a city or town. <P> The Myer retail group was started by Sidney Myer, who migrated from Russia to Melbourne in 1899 with very little money and little knowledge of English to join his elder brother, Elcon Myer (1875–1938), who had left Russia two years earlier. They opened the first Myer store in Bendigo, Victoria in 1900. The MYER one program was introduced in August 2004 after Coles Myer discontinued its shareholder discount card the previous month. It initially credited 1-point per $1 spent up to $2500 per annum; 1.5 points per $1 spent from $2500 to $5000 per annum; and 2 points per $1 spent for $5000+ per annum. <P> Also referred to by many as the Myers-Briggs test, the Myers-Briggs personality test, the MBTI test, or even “that personality test”, the Myers-Briggs® assessment traces the patterns in your behavior to one of 16 distinct personality types. <P> Profiles of the Sixteen Personality Types. Get in-depth information on Briggs Myers' 16 personality types, including top careers, relationships, and core values and motivations. Understand your personality type like never before and discover how you can use your strengths to create a happy and satisfying life. Isabel Briggs Myers created the sixteen personality types with the help of her mother, Katharine Briggs, and the theories of psychologist Carl Jung. <P> The phrase Myers Briggs is most often used to describe a personality theory developed by Isabel Briggs Myers and her mother Katherine Briggs. It explains some of the main differences between people and is often used to help choose a career, improve relationships, develop leadership skills, etc. There is a lot to Myers Briggs theory, though at its heart are four simple preferences. Do you prefer to deal with: 1 People and things (Extraversion or E), or ideas and information (Introversion or I). 2 Facts and reality (Sensing or S), or possibilities and potential (Intuition or N). <P> In developing the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator [instrument], the aim of Isabel Briggs Myers, and her mother, Katharine Briggs, was to make the insights of type theory accessible to individuals and groups. They addressed the two related goals in the developments and application of the MBTI instrument: Your Personality Type: When you decide on your preference in each category, you have your own personality type, which can be expressed as a code with four letters. The 16 personality types of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator ® instrument are listed here as they are often shown in what is called a type table..

A broad range of products across women's, men's and children's clothing, footwear and accessories,cosmetics and fragrance,homewares,electrical,furniture and bedding,toys, books and stationery,food and confectionery,and travel goods.

how much is lipscomb tuition

<P> 100% of Lipscomb University students received grant aid in 2013/2014. The average total aid amount was $15,044. 26 percent of students received aid in the form of Pell Grants from the U.S. Federal Government. The average Pell Grant awarded for 2013/2014 was $3,976. <P> Tuition for Lipscomb University is $25,290 for the 2014/2015 academic year. This is 0% more expensive than the national average private non-profit four year college tuition of $25,224. The cost is $7,982 and 46% more expensive than the average Tennessee tuition of $17,308 for 4 year colleges. Tuition ranks 57th in Tennessee amongst 4 year colleges for affordability and is the 11th most expensive 4 year college in the state. <P> Looking out five, ten, fifteen or eighteen years, these are CollegeCalc's estimates how much you could expect to pay for a 4 year degree assuming tuition increases at the national average rate. Estimated future prices are based on the current 4 year cost of $156,960.00. <P> Tuition & Cost. The estimated cost for a student to attend Lipscomb is just over $39,000 a year. Estimate costs for a typical undergraduate student living on campus for 2015-2016: <P> Tuition & Financial Aid. We know the first question you might ask is if you can afford to attend Lipscomb. The answer is yes! There are many scholarship opportunities and financial aid options that can make Lipscomb the perfect fit. We'll walk you through them all, answer your questions and help you get from there to here!

$25,290 (2014-2015 academic year)

how long can a diamondback terrapin hold its breath

<P> Turtles do not breathe underwater in the sense of what we call breathing. That is, they do not take in oxygen through inhalation and exhalation. Rather, they absorb or take in oxygen through means other than just by their lungs. Turtles have a set of lungs that it can breathe with. <P> Yes, terrapins live in water, although if housing in a fish tank they need somewhere they can get up and out of the water to take a breath and sleep. <P> Diamondback terrapins can hold their breath from 45 minutes (during summer) to five hours. Sometimes groups of this species are found on exposed mudflats, basking in the sun. <P> At high tide, they swim about the marshes in search of food;at low tide, they are found nearly or entirely buried in the mud or hiddenunder drift. Diamondback terrapins can hold their breath from 45 minutes(during summer) to five hours.Sometimes groups of this species are found on exposed mudflats, baskingin the sun. Mating occurs in the spring when individuals move from openlagoons into small canals and ditches. <P> As its activity increases so does its demand for air. The turtle, depending on the species can hold its breath underwater for a long time. Most species can hold their breath anywhere from 30 minutes to 3 hours. How long the turtle can hold its breath is also in direct proportion to how active it is and if it is able to find pockets of air. These pockets of air can be found in small caves and/or under ice. <P> We suggest a water temperature of 76-78° F (24-26° C) and the optimal pH for captive Diamondback Terrapins seems to be in the 6.8 to 7.0 range. In much of their natural range, Diamondback Terrapins are found in brackish water. <P> Yes, terrapins live in water, although if housing in a fish tank they need somewhere they can get up and out of the water to take a breath and sleep.

From 45 minutes(during summer) to five hours.

which tick has lyme disease

<P> Lyme disease is a bacterial infection caused by the bite of an infected deer tick. Untreated, the disease can cause a number of health problems. Patients treated with antibiotics in the early stage of the infection usually recover rapidly and completely. <P> Lyme disease is an infection that is transmitted through the bite of a tick infected with a bacterium called Borrelia burgdorferi. Ticks typically get the bacterium by biting infected animals, like deer and mice. Most people who get tick bites do not get Lyme disease. <P> If you find a tick attached to your skin, remove the tick with tweezers (see tick removal instructions on page 6), and watch for the symptoms of Lyme disease. In 60-80% of cases the first symptom is a rash, known as erythema migrans, that: 1 Occurs at or near the site of the tick bite. <P> Lyme disease is a bacterial infection caused by the bite of an infected deer tick. Untreated, the disease can cause a number of health problems. Patients treated with antibiotics in the early stage of the infection usually recover rapidly and completely. <P> Lyme disease is a bacterial infection primarily transmitted by Ixodes ticks, also known as deer ticks, and on the West Coast, black-legged ticks. These tiny arachnids are typically found in wooded and grassy areas. <P> In the South, a Lyme-like disease called STARI (Southern Tick-Associated Rash Illness) transmitted by the Lone Star tick has been described. Scientists are still debating about what organism(s) in the Lone Star tick may cause the disease as well as the treatment of patients with a rash in the South. <P> Lyme disease is a bacterial infection that can affect humans, dogs, cats and other mammals. Its primary carrier is the deer tick (Ixodes scapularis), which often feeds on rodents in its early stages. Later, the tick can attach to a dog or human and transmit the bacteria that cause Lyme disease. <P> Lyme Disease. Lyme disease is an illness that may affect the skin, joints, nervous system, heart, and other areas of the body. People of all ages can get Lyme disease, which is caused by the bacteria, Borrelia burgdorferi. The bacteria are transmitted to humans by the bite of an infected deer tick.

Borrelia burgdorferi

who was alfred von schlieffen

<P> Alfred Graf von Schlieffen, mostly called Count Schlieffen (. [ˈʃliːfən] ; 28 February 1833 – 4 January 1913) was a German field marshal and strategist who served as Chief of the Imperial German General Staff from 1891 to 1906. <P> Alfred von Schlieffen. Alfred von Schlieffen was born in Berlin, Germany, in 1833. He attended the Berlin War Academy (1858-61) and was a staff officer during the Austro-Prussian War (1866). In 1891 Schlieffen replaced Helmuth von Moltke as Chief of General Staff. Schlieffen feared that France and Russia would join together to attack Germany. His main concern was to devise a plan that could deal with a war against Russia in the east and France in the west. This strategy involved a German invasion of Belgium and a right-wheel flanking movement through Holland and then southwards, cutting off Paris from the sea. Schlieffen retired as Chief of General Staff of the German Army in 1906. Alfred von Schlieffen died in 1913. <P> General Alfred von Schlieffen developed the Schlieffen Plan in 1905 to ensure that Germany would win a war against an alliance between France and Russia in Europe. A modif … ied version of his plan was unsuccessfully used in World War 1 that started in 1914. The Schlieffen Plan was created by Count Alfred von Schlieffen and modified by Helmuth von Moltke the Younger after Schlieffen's retirement. It was Moltke who actually put the plan into action, despite initial reservations about it. It was the German plan to avoid war on two fronts in short. <P> When Helmuth von Moltke replaced Alfred von Schlieffen as German Army Chief of Staff in 1906, he modified the plan by proposing that Holland was not invaded. <P> Count Alfred von Schlieffen in 1906. The Schlieffen Plan (German: Schlieffen-Plan, [ʃliːfən plaːn]) was adopted as Aufmarsch I (Deployment [Plan] I) in 1905 (later Aufmarsch I West) and modelled a Franco-German war, which would not involve Russia but was expected to include Italy and Austria-Hungary as German allies. <P> 6,719 pages on this wiki. Alfred Graf von Schlieffen (28 February 1833 - 4 January 1913) was a German field marshal and strategist who served as Chief of the Imperial German General Staff from 1891 to 1905. His name lived on in the 1905 Schlieffen Plan for the defeat of the French Third Republic and the Russian Empire. <P> Count Alfred von Schlieffen. Count Alfred von Schlieffen, mastermind of the Schlieffen Plan, served as Germany’s Chief of the Imperial General Staff from 1891 to 1905. It was Schlieffen’s plan that was used for the August 1914 attack on France that was to trigger World War One. Alfred von Schlieffen was born in Berlin on February 28th, 1833. As the son of a Prussian army officer it would have been natural for Schlieffen to have joined the army, which he did in 1854. <P> Who's Who-Alfred von Schlieffen. Alfred von Schlieffen (1833-1913) was the German Field Marshal who, as chief of the general staff from 1891-1905, was responsible for devising the Schlieffen Plan, upon which German strategy at the outbreak of the war was unsuccessfully based. During World War Two a variation of the Schlieffen Plan was again employed by Germany which, in the absence of Russian opposition, proved successful. Alfred von Schlieffen died on 4 January 1913 in Berlin. <P> General Alfred von Schlieffen was chief of the German general staff from 1891 to 1905. He developed the Schlieffen Plan for the German conquest of Europe during this time, but his plan was not fully followed when WW1 started in 1914. The Schlieffen Plan was created by Count Alfred von Schlieffen and modified by Helmuth von Moltke the Younger after Schlieffen's retirement. It was Moltke who actually put the plan into action, despite initial reservations about it. It was the German plan to avoid war on two fronts in short.

It is called Count Schlieffen was a German field marshal and strategist who served as Chief of the Imperial German General Staff from 1891 to 1906.

what is dna testing used for

<P> English. Autosomal DNA is a term used in genetic genealogy to describe DNA which is inherited from the autosomal chromosomes. An autosome is any of the numbered chromosomes, as opposed to the sex chromosomes. Humans have 22 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes (the X chromosome and the Y chromosome). <P> Genetic testing is the analysis of chromosomes (DNA), proteins, and certain metabolites in order to detect heritable disease-related genotypes, mutations, phenotypes, or karyotypes for clinical purposes.. It can provide information about a person 's genes and chromosomes throughout life. 1 Diagnostic testing: Diagnostic testing is used to diagnose or rule out a specific genetic or chromosomal condition. 2 In many cases, genetic testing is used to confirm a diagnosis when a particular condition is suspected based on physical mutations and symptoms. <P> This article focuses on genetic testing for medical purposes. DNA sequencing, which actually produces a sequences of As, Cs, Gs, and Ts, is used in molecular biology, evolutionary biology, metagenomics, epidemiology, ecology, and microbiome research. 1 Diagnostic testing: Diagnostic testing is used to diagnose or rule out a specific genetic or chromosomal condition. 2 In many cases, genetic testing is used to confirm a diagnosis when a particular condition is suspected based on physical mutations and symptoms. <P> If the DNA patterns between mother, child, and the alleged father match on every DNA probe, the likelihood of paternity is 99.9 percent. To conduct DNA testing, either a blood test known as Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLP) or a procedure called a Buccal scrap is used. DNA Tests. DNA (Deoxyribonucleic Acid) is the genetic material present in every cell of the human body. Except in the case of identical multiple births, each individual's DNA is unique. A child receives half of his or her genetic material (DNA) from the biological mother, and half from the biological father. <P> Guide. DNA fingerprinting is a test to identify and evaluate the genetic information-called DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid)-in a person's cells. A drop of blood or the root of a hair contains enough DNA for testing. Semen, hair, or skin scrapings are often used in criminal investigations. A person who has DNA fingerprinting done voluntarily usually provides a sample of blood taken from a vein. <P> What is a paternity test used for? Paternity and other family relationship DNA testing results can be used as legal evidence for child support, parental rights, inheritance claims, social benefits, immigration, adoption and other circumstances when proof of blood relationship is required. Therefore, the type of DNA sample used in the test is not going to affect the results. Our laboratory’s standard samples are buccal swab and blood specimens. We also accept non-standard samples such as organ tissue, hair (with roots), cigarette butts, tooth brushes, and other frequently-used personal items. <P> Since DNA contains genetic code, much of it is studied and analyzed for a variety of reasons. Generally, DNA testing may be used in identification or classification of family trees and it may also be used in various sciences for study in diseases and crimes. In cases where a particular child has no identified father, DNA testing is a big help in tracing the real person who fathered the said child. The parts of the DNA that contains genetic code are called genes. A DNA molecule usually has two strands that are connected and entwined forming a helix. In most living organisms, DNA is stored mostly on the nucleus of the cell. <P> DNA or deoxyribonucleic acid contains the genetic make-up or properties of all living things. It contains information or codes necessary for cellular activity, like in the formation of proteins and RNA or ribonucleic acid. The parts of the DNA that contains genetic code are called genes. A DNA molecule usually has two strands that are connected and entwined forming a helix. In most living organisms, DNA is stored mostly on the nucleus of the cell. <P> In a DNA parentage test, the result (called the 'probability of parentage) is 0% when the alleged parent is not biologically related to the child and the probability of parentage is typically 99.99% when the alleged parent is biologically related to the child. However, testing the mitochondrial genome can prove only if two individuals are related by common descent through maternal lines only from a common ancestor and is, thus, of limited value (for instance, it could not be used to test for paternity). <P> Genetic testing is a type of medical test that identifies changes in chromosomes, genes, or proteins. The results of a genetic test can confirm or rule out a suspected genetic condition or help determine a person’s chance of developing or passing on a genetic disorder. More than 1,000 genetic tests are currently in use, and more are being developed. Several methods can be used for genetic testing:

It is used to diagnose or rule out a specific genetic or chromosomal condition.

how to fix tv that goes off in a few minutes after turned on

<P> I demonstrate in this video how to repair a Sanyo by swap out the Analog power board on a 42 inch. This IC chip gets overheated often from too high of volume and blows an IC chip on the Analog Power Board. TV Model: Sanyo DP42841. Special thanks to norcal715 (info) and Ronald Jenkees. (music). https://www.youtube.com/user/norcal715. https://www ... <P> show more When it does this, you can't turn it back on with the remote. You have to press the power button off and then on again and then press a channel button up or down (on the tv itself, not the remote) and then it will turn on for a few seconds and go off again. We have repeated this process up to 10 times in a row.. <P> PE. My Monitor turns off after a few minutes though the power settings say that it should turn off after 60 minutes of no activity. Before then the screen saver should activate after 10 minutes of no activity. But in my case the screen saver never activates and my monitor just fades to black. penciline wrote in message. news:*** Email address is removed for privacy ***... My Monitor turns off after a few minutes though the power settings say that. it should turn off after 60 minutes of no activity. Before then the screen. saver should activate after 10 minutes of no activity. <P> -penciline. My Monitor turns off after a few minutes though the power settings say that it should turn off after 60 minutes of no activity. Before then the screen saver should activate after 10 minutes of no activity. But in my case the screen saver never activates and my monitor just fades to black. penciline wrote in message. news:*** Email address is removed for privacy ***... My Monitor turns off after a few minutes though the power settings say that. it should turn off after 60 minutes of no activity. Before then the screen. saver should activate after 10 minutes of no activity. <P> 1) Turn the TV off and back on. If the TV will not respond to the remote or the power button, or if that does not fix the issue, unplug the TV. For a Projection TV or Projector, leave it off for 3 minutes. For other TVs leave it off for 1 minute. Plug the TV it back in and turn it on. 55 in Sony TV turns off and on by itself. ‎12-12-2012 02:44 AM edited {1}. My 55 in Sony TV turns off and on by itself. I turn the TV on and a few minutes later it will turn itself off. A green light begins flashing (it flashes about 30 times) and then the TV turns back on. <P> Then it turns on and off repeatly again. Then I turned it off using the remote control. Its off for few minutes, I turned it back on, its became normal again but also only last for 10 minutes or more. I tried it few times, the TV still turned on and off repeatly after 10 minutes. I gave up and turned it off. Then I unplugged my surge protector for few minutes and plugged in another outlet from the wall. <P> Main Symptom of this fault: The TV appears to be working ok, but the picture goes off after a few seconds. Sound is still working and the TV responds to remote control as normal. The usual time that the screen stays on for is about 2 seconds, then it goes off. <P> My tv turns itself off. When it does this, you can't turn it back on with the remote. You have to press the power button off and then on again and then press a channel button up or down (on the tv itself, not the remote) and then it will turn on for a few seconds and go off again. We have repeated this process up to 10 times in a row..

Then I turned it off using the remote control. Its off for few minutes, I turned it back on, its became normal again but also only last for 10 minutes or more. I tried it few times, the TV still turned on and off repeatly after 10 minute.

what does the name paige mean

<P> Look up Paige in Wiktionary, the free dictionary. Paige is a given name for males and females. It is of Latin origin (Byzantine Pagius págius young boy/helper mate of young, nobles from padius young, boy derived From Greek paidion) child and its meaning is young helper or young. child <P> It is pronounced as P EY-JH †. Forms of Paige include the name Padget, the name Padgett, the English Paget, the English Pagett, and the name Payge. In addition, Paige is a form of the English Page. Paige is popular as a baby girl name. The name increased in popularity from the 1950s up to the 1990s. Its usage peaked modestly in 1995 with 0.298% of baby girls being named Paige. Tweet. Paige has its origins in the Middle English language and it is used largely in English. The first name is derived from the surname, which is itself from the ordinary English word page (meaning 'servant, helper'). This word is in turn derived via Old French and Italian from the Greek 'paidion'. <P> What does Paige mean, popularity, numerology and more. The name Paige is of French origin. The meaning of Paige is young assistant. It is also of English origin, where its meaning is page. French names have similar origins to those of other old-world European nations. They are often derivations of place names or trade names, or have their basis in history, mythology, religion or nature. They may also be created names. The popularity of hyphenated names is a unique feature of French given names. <P> Meaning of Paige. French name. In French, the name Paige means-assistant.The name Paige originated as an French name. The name Paige is a unisex name and can be used for a boy or girl name (male or female). French Name Meaning-assistant. <P> Paige-Meaning of Paige. Tweet. Paige has its origins in the Middle English language and it is used largely in English. The first name is derived from the surname, which is itself from the ordinary English word page (meaning 'servant, helper'). This word is in turn derived via Old French and Italian from the Greek 'paidion'. <P> Paige /pai-ge/ [1 syll.] as a girls' name (also used less regularly as boys' name Paige) is pronounced page. It is of English origin, and the meaning of Paige is young servant. A page in medieval households was usually a young boy whose service was the first step in his training as a knight. Paige is a very popular first name for females (#614 out of 4276, Top 14%) and also a very popular last name for all people (#1766 out of 150436, Top 1%). (2000 U.S. Census). Presented below is the birth name popularity of Paige for girls <P> Meanings and history of the name Paige : | Edit. Paige \pa(i)-ge\ as a girl's name (also used as boy's name Paige), is pronounced page. It is of English origin, and the meaning of Paige is young servant. A page in medieval households was usually a young boy whose service was the first step in his training as a knight. <P> French Meaning: The name Paige is a French baby name. In French the meaning of the name Paige is: Attendant. Anglo-Saxon Meaning: The name Paige is an Anglo-Saxon baby name. In Anglo-Saxon the meaning of the name Paige is: Page. SoulUrge Number: 6 <P> In modern times Paige has become a given name, generally given to girls living in North America since the middle of the 20th century, but also occasionally to boys. Page, Paij, Payj, and Payge are alternative spellings for the given name. Paige is a given name for males and females.

Young helper or young.

salary range for registered dietitian by state

<P> Registered dietitian’s salary is ranging from $38,974 to $70,643 in the United States. Registered dietitians, or nutritionists, are health care experts who focus on food and nutrition. They usually work in hospitals, nursing homes, schools, and cafeterias, while some are self-employed. Conclusion about registered dietitian salary. The BLS reported an average annual salary of $56,170, or $27 per hour for registered dietitians and nutritionists in the US. The top 10% highest paid dietitians earn around $77,590 a year, while the lowest 10% make $34,500. <P> The best city or metropolitan areas to earn an Dietitian or Nutritionist salary are Bethesda-Rockville MD, Vallejo-Fairfield CA, Las Vegas NV, Salinas CA, and Oakland CA. Salaries range from $98,500 to $77,050. Click here to see salary for Dietician and Nutritionists in all 50 states. Hourly. The average dietitian salary or nutritionist salary is $26.56 per hour. The lowest 10% earn less than $17 per hour and those in the upper 10% earn more than $37 per hour. <P> The primary geographic locations for dietitian salary are in California, with the exception of Bethesda-Rockville-Frederick in Maryland; this area has an average salary of $98,500. Salaries in California range from around $73,000 to $79,000, with Nevada peeking in at $78,800. <P> The state that paid nutritionists and dietitians the highest salary was Maryland, which offered workers an average yearly wage of $82,650. Nevada came in second with a mean wage of $71,840. Other states with high mean wages included Hawaii ($65,050) and Alaska ($63,560). As a dietary nutritionist, you might work for hospitals, outpatient care centers, nursing care facilities or physician offices. According to the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS), most dietitians and nutritionists were employed at hospitals and made an average yearly salary of $55,970 as of May 2012 (www.bls.gov). <P> Average registered dietitian salary. According to BLS, the average wage of a registered dietitian or nutritionist in the United States is $25.60 per hour, and average registered dietitian salary is roughly $53,250 per annum. Conclusion about registered dietitian salary. The BLS reported an average annual salary of $56,170, or $27 per hour for registered dietitians and nutritionists in the US. The top 10% highest paid dietitians earn around $77,590 a year, while the lowest 10% make $34,500. <P> Registered Dietitian Salary. (United States). The median salary for Registered Dietitians in the United States is approximately $50K per year, but employers pay the most in Los Angeles, offering around $69K on average. (Each state will have its own requirements related to the license required for a registered dietitian.) Communication and people skills, organization and planning are essential for registered dietitians. Registered dietitians must also have a moderate degree of computer literacy. <P> The average salary for a registered dietitian in the US is around $38,974 to $70,643 per year. PayScale reported their median salary to be $50,154. Dietitians are actually paid a basic salary of $38,239 to $63,304, a bonus of up to $1,497, and profit sharing of up to $983. Conclusion about registered dietitian salary. The BLS reported an average annual salary of $56,170, or $27 per hour for registered dietitians and nutritionists in the US. The top 10% highest paid dietitians earn around $77,590 a year, while the lowest 10% make $34,500. <P> The average salary is $55,240 per year. The average Registered Dietitian Salary or Nutritionist Salary is calculated by the US Government Bureau of Labor Statistics from a variety of sources. Dietitian or Nutritionists work in a number of settings including hospitals, clinics and schools. Hourly. The average dietitian salary or nutritionist salary is $26.56 per hour. The lowest 10% earn less than $17 per hour and those in the upper 10% earn more than $37 per hour. <P> Registered Dietitians will also find cushy salaries in New York (+19 percent), San Diego (+7 percent), Miami (+3 percent), and Philadelphia (+3 percent). This snapshot results from replies to PayScale's salary survey. (Each state will have its own requirements related to the license required for a registered dietitian.) Communication and people skills, organization and planning are essential for registered dietitians. Registered dietitians must also have a moderate degree of computer literacy.

In Los Angeles, offering around $69 K on average, average yearly wage of $82,650 in Maryland, $71,840 in Nevada, In Hawaii ($65,050) and Alaska ($63,560),

where in the world can rattlesnakes be found

<P> Rattlesnakes are large, venomous snakes that are found throughout North and South America. The greatest concentration of them is in the Southwestern United States and in Northern Mexico. Arizona is home to 13 species of rattler, more than any other state. <P> Range: Rattlesnakes are found in almost every part of the continental U.S., but they’re especially common in the southwest. Mexico, Central America, and South America are also homes to rattlesnakes. Life History and Reproduction: Rattlesnakes are ovoviviparous—they don’t lay eggs. <P> Now snakes are found in deserts, grasslands, forests and mountains virtually everywhere in the world. Everywhere, that is, except New Zealand, Iceland, Greenland, Antarctica and, of course, Ireland. Notice these few snake free parts of the world are surrounded by water. <P> Rattlesnakes are a group of venomous snakes of the genera Crotalus and Sistrurus of the subfamily Crotalinae (pit vipers). The 36 known species of rattlesnakes have between 65 and 70 subspecies, all native to the Americas, ranging from southern Alberta and southern British Columbia in Canada to Central Argentina. <P> They can be found in the swamplands of the Southeastern United States and in the meadows of the Northeast. These snakes can handle high elevation and are found everywhere from sea level to 11,000 feet (3,353 m), according to the San Diego Zoo. A rattlesnake's rattle is made of interlocking rings of keratin. <P> There are more than 3,000 species of snakes in the world and there is at least one type of snake on every continent except Antarctica. While the snake has a bad rap as a pest, snakes can often be quite helpful and even a fun pet.

Southwestern United States and in Northern Mexico.

how many people fit in a crew cab truck

<P> Once a work tool with few creature comforts, in the 1950s consumers began purchasing pickups for lifestyle reasons and by the 1990s less than 15 percent of owners reported use in work as the pickup truck's primary purpose. Today in North America, the pickup is mostly used like a passenger car. Seeking part of this market share, Dodge introduced a 3/4-ton pickup with cab and body constructed entirely of wood in 1924. In 1925 Ford followed up with a Model T-based steel-bodied, half-ton with an adjustable tailgate and heavy-duty rear springs. <P> In other words, when it comes to large crew-cab pickups, the F-150's dimensions top rival trucks. With that said, only a few inches separate each pickup, so we don't think you'd have too much trouble fitting the whole family in any large, crew-cab truck. If you're thinking about a full-size truck that can fit the whole family, you're probably interested in interior dimensions. The current class leader in rear legroom is the Ford F-150 SuperCrew, followed closely by the Toyota Tundra CrewMax. <P> A full-size pickup truck can fit up to six people comfortably if it has a front bench seat. Without the front bench, a truck accommodates five people. The beauty of a truck's rear seat in a crew cab is that three child-safety seats often will easily fit across the rear bench. <P> Many of today's crew-cab pickups have the same legroom as a luxury sedan, and even shoppers who don't go for a crew cab will find that many extended-cab trucks have more passenger room than you'd need under usual circumstances. If you're thinking about a full-size truck that can fit the whole family, you're probably interested in interior dimensions. The current class leader in rear legroom is the Ford F-150 SuperCrew, followed closely by the Toyota Tundra CrewMax. <P> Extended Cab Trucks. 2012 Silverado LT Extended Cab Pickup Truck. Photo Credit: Silverado Photo © General Motors. Chevy and GMC call this pickup truck body style an Extended Cab. Trucks with this cab style have a second row of seating, but the rear seats -- and access to them -- are configured in different ways. The important thing to remember is that an Extended Cab truck's second row of seating is more compact than that of a Crew Cab truck and is not accessed through full size doors. Crew Cab Pickup Trucks. 2012 Ram Express Crew Cab Truck. Photo Credit: © Ram. Our collection of cab style photos will help you visualize the many body styles you'll see when you shop for a pickup truck -- use the images to preview and choose a cab style that suits your needs. <P> We also help you share the load inside your truck, with 24 models in the crew cab range, including the 4,500 kg GVM rated NLS, NNR and higher capacity NPR models right up to the 13,900 kg GVM rated FTS models. A REAL HEAD TURNER, UNLESS YOU'RE THE DRIVER. Based on the class-leading N and F Series, Isuzu now has 10 Crew Cab models with a total of 18 variants including 4x4 and Tipper configurations. Whether you're digging, paving, pruning, or even putting out a blaze, there's only one truck to choose to share the load with your crew. DOWNLOAD BROCHURE. <P> There are also two larger cab varieties. Most trucks offer an extended cab configuration, which boasts smaller seats in back and, in many cases, small doors behind the front doors that open to provide rear-seat access. If you're only getting a larger cab for some enclosed storage space, an extended cab will likely work just fine. You'll also want to consider a truck's cost. Extended cab pickups are often several thousand dollars less expensive than crew cab models. But it's not all about the upfront cost, as crew cabs will likely have better resale value <P> Many of today's crew-cab trucks offer impressive rear-seat room that'll allow even the tallest passengers to spread out in back. The only drawback to a crew-cab truck: capability. Many manufacturers don't offer their longest truck beds with a crew cab, since it would make the truck too large to drive on most roads. And most crew-cab trucks can't tow as well as regular or extended-cab models. If you're thinking about a full-size truck that can fit the whole family, you're probably interested in interior dimensions. The current class leader in rear legroom is the Ford F-150 SuperCrew, followed closely by the Toyota Tundra CrewMax. <P> One thing to consider is how big you want your truck to be. Many pickups don't offer their longest bed in crew cab guise, as most crew cab shoppers aren't looking for the practicality of a huge bed. Trucks that offer both a crew cab and a full-size bed are extremely long and, as a result, hard to maneuver. Once you've considered size, the next important question is just how often your family and friends will be riding with you. If you're only getting a larger cab for some enclosed storage space, an extended cab will likely work just fine. You'll also want to consider a truck's cost. Extended cab pickups are often several thousand dollars less expensive than crew cab models. But it's not all about the upfront cost, as crew cabs will likely have better resale value

Three child-safety seats

what is maximum term for relevant life policy

<P> Term Life Insurance. Term life insurance is a good fit for short-term needs or those that have a specific end point. Simply choose a term policy duration to meet those needs—for example, to help ensure your family will be able to pay a 20-year mortgage, you can choose a 20-year term policy. Our policies allow you to choose the length of coverage you need, such as 10, 15, 20, or even 30 years. The security of term insurance with a guarantee to have your premiums returned if you outlive the level-premium period (Terms and conditions apply). A term life insurance policy for needs that last from 1-5 years at most. <P> Term life insurance or term assurance is life insurance that provides coverage at a fixed rate of payments for a limited period of time, the relevant term. If the life insured dies during the term, the death benefit will be paid to the beneficiary. Term insurance is the least expensive way to purchase a substantial death benefit on a coverage amount per premium dollar basis over a specific period of time. <P> The maximum amount that an insurance policy will provide over a given period of time or over the life of the policy. For example, if an insurance company has agreed to pay all of a person's medical bills up to $100,000 and the person incurs $135,000 in services, the policyholder must pay $35,000 out of pocket. <P> Term insurance is generally used when the need for death benefit protection is temporary or if you are unable to afford the premiums of a permanent life insurance policy. Term insurance typically provides for the largest immediate death benefit amount for each premium dollar. The death benefit of the policy is paid only if the insured dies during that period. If the insured lives beyond the term period, no death benefit is paid. Typically, there are no cash values or loan values for term life insurance. <P> Simply put, a limit is the highest amount Allstate will pay you for a claim that your insurance policy covers. For example, if your limit is $100,000 and the cost of your accident is $105,000, you'll have to pay the remaining $5,000. You'll often see coverage limits that look like this: $50,000/$100,000. The first number, $50,000, is the maximum amount your coverage will pay per person in an accident. The second number, $100,000, is the maximum your car insurance will pay for the total accident. A higher coverage limit means a higher payout to you on a covered loss. Understanding Deductibles. A deductible is the amount you agree to pay out-of-pocket if you make a claim covered by your car insurance policy. For example, if your deductible is $500 and the accident damage costs $1,500, you'll pay $500 and Allstate will pay the remaining $1,000. <P> The simplest form of term life insurance is for a term of one year. The death benefit would be paid by the insurance company if the insured died during the one year term, while no benefit is paid if the insured dies one day after the last day of the one year term. If the life insured dies during the term, the death benefit will be paid to the beneficiary. Term insurance is the least expensive way to purchase a substantial death benefit on a coverage amount per premium dollar basis over a specific period of time. <P> Much more common than annual renewable term insurance is guaranteed level premium term life insurance, where the premium is guaranteed to be the same for a given period of years. The most common terms are 10, 15, 20, and 30 years. If the life insured dies during the term, the death benefit will be paid to the beneficiary. Term insurance is the least expensive way to purchase a substantial death benefit on a coverage amount per premium dollar basis over a specific period of time. <P> maximum dollar limit. DEFINITION: The maximum dollar limit is the maximum amount of money that an insurance company (or self-insured company) will pay for claims within a specific time period. Maximum dollar limits vary greatly. They may be based on or specified in terms of types of illnesses or types of services. <P> Term life insurance provides death benefit protection for a period of one or more years. The death benefit of the policy is paid only if the insured dies during that period. If the insured lives beyond the term period, no death benefit is paid. Typically, there are no cash values or loan values for term life insurance. <P> Liability limits-The maximum amount your liability policy will pay. Your policy must pay at least $30,000 for each injured person, up to a total of $60,000 per accident, and $25,000 for property damage per accident. This basic coverage is called 30/60/25 coverage.

life insurance that provides coverage at a fixed rate of payments for a limited period of time, the relevant term.f the life insured dies during the term, the death benefit will be paid to the beneficiary. Term insurance is the least expensive way to purchase a substantial death benefit on a coverage amount per premium dollar basis over a specific period of time.

what time is the A-Day game

<P> The final date of Alabama's spring practice schedule is set. The school announced the annual A-Day will be played April 18 in Bryant-Denny Stadium. The scrimmage will kickoff at 2 p.m., but the television information will be announced at a later date. <P> - The University of Alabama will hold its annual A-Day Game to conclude spring football practice on Saturday, April 17, at Bryant-Denny Stadium. Admission will again be free to the public and kickoff is tentatively set for 2 p.m. <P> TUSCALOOSA | The University of Alabama has set dates for the 2013 A-Day Spring Game and the 2013 homecoming game, UA announced in a release. The A-Day Game will be televised on ESPN2 on April 20, with kickoff scheduled for 2 p.m. Admission is free to the public. More information on A-Day, including additional activities, traffic and parking, will be announced at a later date. <P> The University of Alabama announced on Monday that the A-Day game will be held on April 18 and will kickoff at 2 p.m. CT. Television air times will be announced at a later date. The A-Day game is the 15th and final practice for the spring and as in the past, admission into the game will be free. <P> Alabama announced Monday that its annual A-Day spring game will be played Saturday, April 18 in Bryant-Denny Stadium. The controlled scrimmage activities are set to begin around 2 p.m. CT. <P> TUSCALOOSA, Alabama — Mark the calendars. Alabama on Wednesday announced the date and time for the 2014 A-Day Game in Bryant-Denny Stadium. The annual spring scrimmage will kick off at 2 p.m. on April 19. Admission will be free.

2 p.m.

what are huckleberry

<P> Conflict between civilization and natural life. The primary theme of the novel is the conflict between civilization and natural life.. Huck represents natural life through his freedom of spirit, uncivilized ways, and desire to escape from civilization. The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn study guide contains a biography of Mark Twain, literature essays, a complete e-text, quiz questions, major themes, characters, and a full summary and analysis of Huck Finn. 1 About The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn. 2 The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn Summary. <P> There are various huckleberry and bilberry species native to the Northwest. Dwarf huckleberry, dwarf blueberry, dwarf bilberry, or dwarf whortleberry (V. caespitosum) is native throughout North America. The plants grow three to twenty-four inches tall and bear bright blue berries with excellent flavor. <P> huck•le•ber•ry. 1. the dark blue or black edible berry of any of various shrubs belonging to the genus Gaylussacia of the heath family. 2. a shrub bearing such fruit. <P> Chapter 1. The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn begins where the The Adventures of Tom Sawyer leaves off. At the end of the previous novel, Huck and Tom find a treasure of twelve thousand dollars, which they divide. <P> Slavery and Racism. Though Mark Twain wrote The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn after the abolition of slavery in the United States, the novel itself is set before the Civil War, when slavery was still legal and the economic foundation of the American South. <P> Huckleberry is a name used in North America for several plants in the family Ericaceae, in two closely related genera: Vaccinium and Gaylussacia. The huckleberry is the state fruit of Idaho. <P> Welcome to the Huckleberry Patch Web Site! The Huckleberry Patch is Montana's original huckleberry cannery. First known as Willow's Wildberry Farm, the business has operated as The Huckleberry Patch for nearly 20 years. <P> Huckleberry [edit]. Huckleberry Huck Finn is the son of the town's vagrant drunkard, Pap Finn. Sleeping on doorsteps when the weather is fair, in empty hogsheads during storms, and living off of what he receives from others, Huck lives the life of a destitute vagabond. (March 2014). Huckleberry Huck Finn is a fictional character created by Mark Twain who first appeared in the book The Adventures of Tom Sawyer and is the protagonist and narrator of its sequel, Adventures of Huckleberry Finn (taking place after The Adventures of Tom Sawyer). <P> Jill MacKenzie. Garden huckleberry. Garden huckleberry or wonderberry (Solanum melanocerasum, syn S. nigrum guineense) is not related to true huckleberries, woody plants in the heath family. Instead, it is an herbaceous annual in the nightshade family, related to tomatoes, peppers, tobacco, eggplant and potato.

The dark blue or black edible berry of any of various shrubs belonging to the genus Gaylussacia of the heath family.

how much cost the lawyer for citizenship

<P> 1 Attorney's fees for preparing a full visa packet average $2,000-$3,000, but can run $4,000-$12,000 or more, depending on the nature and complexity of the case, the location, and the attorney's level of experience. 2 A retainer is an up-front fee you pay to hire an attorney. <P> 1 The actual immigration process is an entirely separate cost. 2 With most cases, an attorney will require a deposit and United States Citizenship fees to proceed with the case. 3 USCIS filing fees can range anywhere from $0 to as much as $1,000. 4 per form. <P> another big consideration in the overall cost of the lawyer is how they bill generally immigration lawyers either bill through a flat fee or by the hour if a lawyer charges a flat fee expect to pay $ 1000 $ 5000 with an hourly fee it is not uncommon for legal bills to quickly get into the $ 10000 range <P> The current filing fee for Form N-400, the Application for Naturalization, with U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, for adult applicants is $680 ($595 plus an $85 biometric fee). This is certainly a prohibitive cost for individuals living below the poverty level. <P> 1 An immigration attorney may charge an hourly rate of $100-$300 or a flat fee covering specific services. 2 Some immigration attorneys charge $75-$150 for an initial 20-30 minute consultation. 3 Charges for assisting in filing basic forms for an ongoing immigration case may run $300-$700, plus the USCIS fees. <P> In rural areas and small towns, lawyers tend to charge less, and fees in the range of $100 to $200 an hour for an experienced attorney are probably the norm. In major metropolitan areas, the norm is probably closer to $200 to $400 an hour. Lawyers with expertise in specialized areas may charge much more. <P> 1 With most cases, an attorney will require a deposit and United States Citizenship fees to proceed with the case. 2 USCIS filing fees can range anywhere from $0 to as much as $1,000. 3 per form. 4 On average, most people who apply for a visa will pay upwards of $2,000. <P> For those eligible to apply, the application cost of naturalization is one of the main barriers to citizenship. LPRs are price sensitive to the costs, so fee increases, such as the significant increase in 2007, may have had a negative impact on the rate of naturalization. <P> Shopping for an immigration attorney: 1 Your lawyer's charges do not include USCIS filing fees of $0-$1,000 per form; total application fees for a visa average $2,000. 2 Typically visas take 4-5 months to process; premium processing in about 15 days costs an extra $1,000.

Hourly rate of $100-$300.

what is cyber spoofing

<P> In computer networking, IP address spoofing or IP spoofing is the creation of Internet Protocol (IP) packets with a forged source IP address, with the purpose of concealing the identity of the sender or impersonating another computing system. <P> In the context of network security, a spoofing attack is a situation in which one person or program successfully masquerades as another by falsifying data and thereby gaining an illegitimate advantage. <P> Figure 2: Spoofing, by definition, means to imitate or trick someone. To understand the spoofing attack, we need to examine the IP packet structure in detail. Many cyber attacks stem from design flaws in the fundamental network designs; packet spoofing is no exception. We offer cyber security penetration testing and consultancy services to a variety of customers. <P> A spoofing attack is when a malicious party impersonates another device or user on a network in order to launch attacks against network hosts, steal data, spread malware or bypass access controls. There are several different types of spoofing attacks that malicious parties can use to accomplish this. This type of spoofing attack results in data that is intended for the host’s IP address getting sent to the attacker instead. Malicious parties commonly use ARP spoofing to steal information, modify data in-transit or stop traffic on a LAN. <P> Spoofing can take place on the Internet in several different ways. One common method is through e-mail. E-mail spoofing involves sending messages from a bogus e-mail address or faking the e-mail address of another user. Another way spoofing takes place on the Internet is via IP spoofing. This involves masking the IP address of a certain computer system. By hiding or faking a computer's IP address, it is difficult for other systems to determine where the computer is transmitting data from. <P> ARP spoofing is a type of attack in which a malicious actor sends falsified ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) messages over a local area network. This results in the linking of an attacker’s MAC address with the IP address of a legitimate computer or server on the network. Once the attacker’s MAC address is connected to an authentic IP address, the attacker will begin receiving any data that is intended for that IP address. <P> Spoofing. The word spoof means to hoax, trick, or deceive. Therefore, in the IT world, spoofing refers tricking or deceiving computer systems or other computer users. This is typically done by hiding one's identity or faking the identity of another user on the Internet. One common method is through e-mail. E-mail spoofing involves sending messages from a bogus e-mail address or faking the e-mail address of another user. Fortunately, most e-mail servers have security features that prevent unauthorized users from sending messages. <P> Phishing and spoofing are clearly different beneath the surface. One downloads malware to your computer or network, and the other tricks you into giving up sensitive financial information to a cyber crook. Phishing is a method of retrieval, while spoofing is a means of delivery. <P> Spoofing can take place on the Internet in several different ways. One common method is through e-mail. E-mail spoofing involves sending messages from a bogus e-mail address or faking the e-mail address of another user. Fortunately, most e-mail servers have security features that prevent unauthorized users from sending messages. <P> This video provides Cyber spoofing after a successful Cyber offense is launched and the effects of a spoof on ADWar using map.exe. 1 Education. 2 Standard YouTube License. Published on Aug 29, 2014.

A spoofing attack is a situation in which one person or program successfully masquerades as another by falsifying data and thereby gaining an illegitimate advantage.

average cost of pressure washing by professional

<P> Electric Pressure Washers. Electric washers have a range of 1,300 to 1,400 psi and are best for washing cars, grills and garage floors. They can cost around $90 to $200 depending on the pressure you need. They are quiet and portable so you can quickly clean your driveways and decks. Provide a few details about your project and receive competitive quotes from local pros. The average national cost of power or pressure washing an exterior surface is $284, with most homeowners spending between $185 and $383. This data is based on actual project costs as reported by HomeAdvisor members. <P> Cost of Power Washing Driveways. Driveways are tough, which means that you can pressure wash them at a PSI of 3,500 and higher. This speeds up the cleaning process, bringing the average cost down to $221 for most properties. Make sure that anyone you employ knows the difference and can use high-quality equipment for the cleanest possible finish. While the cost of a power washing project will differ substantially from home to home, expect to pay somewhere between $474 and $690 for the average job. <P> $0.48. Get an INSTANT estimate of the cost to Power Wash House! Our free calculator uses recent, trusted data to estimate costs for your House Power Washing project. For a basic 500 square feet project in zip code 47474, the benchmark cost to Power Wash House ranges between $0.28 - $0.48 per square foot* . To estimate costs for your project: 1. Set Project Zip Code Enter the Zip Code for the location where labor is hired and materials purchased <P> 1 Contractor/commercial models start around $1,000-$6,000 but can cost $10,000-$25,000 or more. 2 Hiring a professional pressure-washer costs about $0.08-$0.35 per square foot (depending on local rates), but can go as high as $0.40-$0.80 a square foot depending on the amount and type of stains, dirt, mold or other problems. 1 Buying a basic residential pressure washer with an electric motor starts around $70-$200, depending on size and capacity. 2 A gas-powered residential model usually has a higher pressure rating than an electric machine, and is about $300-$1,000. <P> Find out how much your project will cost. Provide a few details about your project and receive competitive quotes from local pros. The average national cost of power or pressure washing an exterior surface is $284, with most homeowners spending between $185 and $383. This data is based on actual project costs as reported by HomeAdvisor members. <P> 1 Washing the exterior of a 2,100-square-foot home runs around $150-$750 or more. 2 Having an entire home pressure-washed (driveway, walkways, house, roof, deck, porch, patio, etc.), can be $500-$1,400 or more, depending on size, condition and local rates. 1 Buying a basic residential pressure washer with an electric motor starts around $70-$200, depending on size and capacity. 2 A gas-powered residential model usually has a higher pressure rating than an electric machine, and is about $300-$1,000. <P> The following cost information is intended to be general information. If you are looking for an exact cost for a pressure washing service, you need to contact a professional in your local area. What is the average cost of a pressure washing a house? The average cost of pressure washing a house ranges from $250 to $450 depending upon your geographic location and the size of your home. <P> Average Cost of Professional Roof Cleaning. Unless you live in an unusual climate or have an incredibly large home, there is a good chance that the cost of professionally cleaning your roof will fall within the national average range of $391 to $517. Enter your zip code to get started. Unless you live in an unusual climate or have an incredibly large home, there is a good chance that the cost of professionally cleaning your roof will fall within the national average range of $391 to $517. <P> 1 Hiring a professional pressure-washer costs about $0.08-$0.35 per square foot (depending on local rates), but can go as high as $0.40-$0.80 a square foot depending on the amount and type of stains, dirt, mold or other problems. 1 Buying a basic residential pressure washer with an electric motor starts around $70-$200, depending on size and capacity. 2 A gas-powered residential model usually has a higher pressure rating than an electric machine, and is about $300-$1,000.

It is about $0.08-$0.35 per square foot but can go as high as $0.40-$0.80 a square foot.