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(a) Application or solicitation disclosures. A creditor shall provide the disclosures required under paragraph (a) of this section on or with a solicitation or an application for a private education loan., (1) Interest rates. (i) The interest rate or range of interest rates applicable to the loan and actually offered by the creditor at the time of application or solicitation. If the rate will depend, in part, on a later determination of the consumer's creditworthiness or other factors, a statement that the rate for which the consumer may qualify will depend on the consumer's creditworthiness and other factors, if applicable., (ii) Whether the interest rates applicable to the loan are fixed or variable., (iii) If the interest rate may increase after consummation of the transaction, any limitations on the interest rate adjustments, or lack thereof; a statement that the consumer's actual rate could be higher or lower than the rates disclosed under paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, if applicable; and, if the limitation is determined by applicable law, that fact., (iv) Whether the applicable interest rates typically will be higher if the loan is not co-signed or guaranteed., (2) Fees and default or late payment costs. (i) An itemization of the fees or range of fees required to obtain the private education loan., (ii) Any fees, changes to the interest rate, and adjustments to principal based on the consumer's defaults or late payments., (3) Repayment terms. (i) The term of the loan, which is the period during which regularly scheduled payments of principal and interest will be due., (ii) A description of any payment deferral options, or, if the consumer does not have the option to defer payments, that fact., (iii) For each payment deferral option applicable while the student is enrolled at a covered educational institution:, (A) Whether interest will accrue during the deferral period; and, (B) If interest accrues, whether payment of interest may be deferred and added to the principal balance., (iv) A statement that if the consumer files for bankruptcy, the consumer may still be required to pay back the loan., (4) Cost estimates. An example of the total cost of the loan calculated as the total of payments over the term of the loan:, (i) Using the highest rate of interest disclosed under paragraph (a)(1) of this section and including all finance charges applicable to loans at that rate;, (ii) Using an amount financed of $10,000, or $5000 if the creditor only offers loans of this type for less than $10,000; and, (iii) Calculated for each payment option., (5) Eligibility. Any age or school enrollment eligibility requirements relating to the consumer or co-signer., (6) Alternatives to private education loans. (i) A statement that the consumer may qualify for Federal student financial assistance through a program under title IV of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1070 et seq.)., (ii) The interest rates available under each program under title IV of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1070 et seq.) and whether the rates are fixed or variable., (iii) A statement that the consumer may obtain additional information concerning Federal student financial assistance from the institution of higher education that the student attends, or at the Web site of the U.S. Department of Education, including an appropriate Web site address., (iv) A statement that a covered educational institution may have school-specific education loan benefits and terms not detailed on the disclosure form., (7) Rights of the consumer. A statement that if the loan is approved, the terms of the loan will be available and will not change for 30 days except as a result of adjustments to the interest rate and other changes permitted by law., (8) Self-certification information. A statement that, before the loan may be consummated, the consumer must complete the self-certification form and that the form may be obtained from the institution of higher education that the student attends., (b) Approval disclosures. On or with any notice of approval provided to the consumer, the creditor shall disclose the information required under § 226.18 and the following information:, (1) Interest rate. (i) The interest rate applicable to the loan., (ii) Whether the interest rate is fixed or variable., (iii) If the interest rate may increase after consummation of the transaction, any limitations on the rate adjustments, or lack thereof., (2) Fees and default or late payment costs. (i) An itemization of the fees or range of fees required to obtain the private education loan., (ii) Any fees, changes to the interest rate, and adjustments to principal based on the consumer's defaults or late payments., (3) Repayment terms. (i) The principal amount of the loan for which the consumer has been approved., (ii) The term of the loan, which is the period during which regularly scheduled payments of principal and interest will be due., (iii) A description of the payment deferral option chosen by the consumer, if applicable, and any other payment deferral options that the consumer may elect at a later time., (iv) Any payments required while the student is enrolled at a covered educational institution, based on the deferral option chosen by the consumer., (v) The amount of any unpaid interest that will accrue while the student is enrolled at a covered educational institution, based on the deferral option chosen by the consumer., (vi) A statement that if the consumer files for bankruptcy, the consumer may still be required to pay back the loan., (vii) An estimate of the total amount of payments calculated based on:, (A) The interest rate applicable to the loan. Compliance with § 226.18(h) constitutes compliance with this requirement., (B) The maximum possible rate of interest for the loan or, if a maximum rate cannot be determined, a rate of 25%., (C) If a maximum rate cannot be determined, the estimate of the total amount for repayment must include a statement that there is no maximum rate and that the total amount for repayment disclosed under paragraph (b)(3)(vii)(B) of this section is an estimate and will be higher if the applicable interest rate increases., (viii) The maximum monthly payment based on the maximum rate of interest for the loan or, if a maximum rate cannot be determined, a rate of 25%. If a maximum cannot be determined, a statement that there is no maximum rate and that the monthly payment amount disclosed is an estimate and will be higher if the applicable interest rate increases., (4) Alternatives to private education loans. (i) A statement that the consumer may qualify for Federal student financial assistance through a program under title IV of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1070 et seq.)., (ii) The interest rates available under each program under title IV of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1070 et seq.), and whether the rates are fixed or variable., (iii) A statement that the consumer may obtain additional information concerning Federal student financial assistance from the institution of higher education that the student attends, or at the Web site of the U.S. Department of Education, including an appropriate Web site address., (5) Rights of the consumer. (i) A statement that the consumer may accept the terms of the loan until the acceptance period under § 226.48(c)(1) has expired. The statement must include the specific date on which the acceptance period expires, based on the date upon which the consumer receives the disclosures required under this subsection for the loan. The disclosure must also specify the method or methods by which the consumer may communicate acceptance., (ii) A statement that, except for changes to the interest rate and other changes permitted by law, the rates and terms of the loan may not be changed by the creditor during the period described in paragraph (b)(5)(i) of this section., (c) Final disclosures. After the consumer has accepted the loan in accordance with § 226.48(c)(1), the creditor shall disclose to the consumer the information required by § 226.18 and the following information:, (1) Interest rate. Information required to be disclosed under §§ 226.47(b)(1)., (2) Fees and default or late payment costs. Information required to be disclosed under § 226.47(b)(2)., (3) Repayment terms. Information required to be disclosed under § 226.47(b)(3)., (4) Cancellation right. A statement that:, (i) the consumer has the right to cancel the loan, without penalty, at any time before the cancellation period under § 226.48(d) expires, and, (ii) loan proceeds will not be disbursed until after the cancellation period under § 226.48(d) expires. The statement must include the specific date on which the cancellation period expires and state that the consumer may cancel by that date. The statement must also specify the method or methods by which the consumer may cancel. If the creditor permits cancellation by mail, the statement must specify that the consumer's mailed request will be deemed timely if placed in the mail not later than the cancellation date specified on the disclosure. The disclosures required by this paragraph (c)(4) must be made more conspicuous than any other disclosure required under this section, except for the finance charge, the interest rate, and the creditor's identity, which must be disclosed in accordance with the requirements of § 226.46(c)(2)(iii).

(a) Application required. Subject to § 303.62(b)(2), a deposit insurance application is required for a state-chartered interim institution if the related merger transaction is subject to approval by a federal banking agency other than the FDIC. A separate application for deposit insurance for an interim institution is not required in connection with any merger requiring FDIC approval pursuant to subpart D of this part., (b) Content of separate application. A letter application for deposit insurance for an interim institution, accompanied by a copy of the related merger application, shall be filed with the appropriate FDIC office. The letter application shall briefly describe the transaction and contain a statement that deposit insurance is being requested for an interim institution that does not operate independently but exists solely as a vehicle to accomplish a merger transaction which will be reviewed by a federal banking agency other than the FDIC. , (c) Processing. An application for deposit insurance for an interim depository institution will be acknowledged in writing by the FDIC. Final action will be taken within 21 days after receipt of a substantially complete application, unless the applicant is notified in writing that additional review is warranted. If the FDIC does not act within the expedited processing period, it does not constitute an automatic or default approval.

(a) Application requirements. Each application submitted in response to a Credit Score Solicitation must meet the requirements set forth in the Credit Score Solicitation to which it responds. Each application must include the following elements, and any additional requirements that may be set forth in the Credit Score Solicitation:, (1) Application fee. Each application must include an application fee established by the Enterprise. An Enterprise may address conditions for refunding a portion of a fee in the Credit Score Solicitation. The application fee is intended to cover the direct costs to the Enterprise of conducting the Credit Score Assessment., (2) Fair lending certification and compliance. Each application must address compliance of the credit score model and credit scores produced by it with federal fair lending requirements, including information on any fair lending testing and evaluation of the model conducted. Each application must include a certification that no characteristic that is based directly on or is highly correlated solely with a classification prohibited under the Equal Credit Opportunity Act (15 U.S.C. 1691(a)(1)), the Fair Housing Act (42 U.S.C. 3605(a)), or the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4545(1)) was used in the development of the credit score model or is used as a factor in the credit score model to produce credit scores., (3) Use of model by industry. Each application must demonstrate use of the credit score by creditors to make a decision whether to extend credit to a prospective borrower. An Enterprise may address criteria for such demonstration in the Credit Score Solicitation. An Enterprise may permit such demonstration of use to include submission of testimonials by creditors (mortgage or non-mortgage) who use the applicant's credit score when making a determination to approve the extension of credit., (4) Qualification of credit score model developer. Each application must include any information that an Enterprise may require to evaluate the credit score model developer (i.e., relevant experience and financial capacity). Such information must include a detailed description of the credit score model developer's:, (i) Corporate structure, including any business relationship to any other person through any degree of common ownership or control;, (ii) Governance structure; and, (iii) Past financial performance., (5) Other requirements. Each application must include any other information an Enterprise may require., (b) Historical consumer credit data. An Enterprise may obtain any historical consumer credit data necessary for the Enterprise to test a credit score model's historical record of measuring and predicting default rates and other credit behaviors. An Enterprise may assess the applicant for any costs associated with obtaining or receiving such data unless such costs were included in the up-front application fee., (c) Acceptance of applications. Each application submitted in response to a Credit Score Solicitation within the solicitation time period must be reviewed for acceptance by the Enterprise., (1) Notice of status. Within 60 days of an applicant's submission, the Enterprise must provide the applicant with an Application Status Notice, which will indicate whether the application requires additional information to be provided by the applicant. An applicant may submit additional information through the end of the solicitation period., (2) Complete application. Completeness of an application will be determined by the Enterprise. An application is complete when an Enterprise determines that required information has been received by the Enterprise from the applicant and from any third party. Information from a third party for a specific application may be received by the Enterprise after the solicitation period closes. The Enterprise must notify the applicant upon determining that the application is complete with a Complete Application Notice.

(a) Application to take deposition. Any party desiring to take the deposition of any person shall make written application to the presiding officer setting forth the name and address of the witness, the subject matter concerning which the witness is expected to testify, its relevance, the time and place of the deposition, and the reasons why such deposition should be taken. The application may include a request that specified documents be produced at the deposition. A copy of the application shall be served on the other parties at the same time the application is filed with the presiding officer., (b) Subpoena; notice to other parties. Upon a showing that the testimony or other evidence sought will be material, and the taking of the deposition will not result in any undue burden to the witness or any party or undue delay of the proceedings, the presiding officer may issue a subpoena or subpoena duces tecum. Notice of the issuance of such subpoena shall be served upon all parties at least 10 days in advance of the date set for deposition., (c) Deposition by notice. The requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section may be waived by agreement of the parties and the witness whose testimony or documentary evidence is sought. Such agreement shall be embodied in a stipulation which becomes part of the record and may provide for the taking of depositions upon notice without leave of the presiding officer., (d) Procedure on deposition. Depositions may be taken before any person having the power to administer oaths. Each witness whose testimony is taken by deposition shall be duly sworn before any question is propounded. Examination and cross-examination of deponents may proceed as permitted at the hearing. Objections to questions or documents shall be in short form, stating the grounds relief upon for the objection. Failure to object to questions or evidence is deemed a waiver if the ground of the objection is one which might have been obviated or removed if presented at that time. The questions propounded and the answers thereto, together with all objections made (but not including argument or debate) shall be recorded by or under the direction of the person before whom the deposition is taken. The deposition shall be signed by the witness, unless the parties by stipulation waive the signing or the witness is physically unable to sign, cannot be found, or refuses to sign. The deposition shall also be certified as a true and complete transcript by the person recording the testimony. If the deposition is not signed by the witness, the person recording the testimony shall state this fact and the reason therefor on the record. The person before whom the deposition is taken shall promptly file the transcript and all exhibits with the presiding officer. Interested parties shall make their own arrangements with the person recording the testimony for copies of the testimony and exhibits., (e) Introduction as evidence. Subject to appropriate rulings by the presiding officer on such objections and answers as were noted at the time the deposition was taken or as would be valid were the witness personally present and testifying at the hearing, the deposition or any part thereof may be received in evidence by the presiding officer in his or her discretion. Only such part of a deposition as is received in evidence at a hearing shall constitute a part of the record upon which a decision may be based., (f) Payment of fees. Deponents whose depositions are taken and the reporter taking the same shall be entitled to the same fees as are paid for like services in the district courts of the United States, which fees shall be paid by the party upon whose application the deposition is taken.

(a) Application. Except as otherwise specified in this part, no institution may become a member of a Bank unless it has submitted to that Bank an application that satisfies the requirements of this part. The application shall include a written resolution or certification duly adopted by the applicant's board of directors, or by an individual with authority to act on behalf of the applicant's board of directors, of the following:, (1) Applicant review. The applicant has reviewed the requirements of this part and, as required by this part, has provided to the best of its knowledge the most recent, accurate, and complete information available; and, (2) Duty to supplement. The applicant will promptly supplement the application with any relevant information that comes to its attention prior to the Bank's decision on whether to approve or deny the application, and if the Bank's decision is appealed pursuant to § 1263.5, prior to resolution of any appeal by FHFA., (b) Digest. The Bank shall prepare a written digest for each applicant stating whether or not the applicant meets each of the requirements in §§ 1263.6 to 1263.19, the Bank's findings, and the reasons therefor. In preparing a digest for an applicant whose satisfaction of the membership eligibility requirements of § 1263.6(a) is contingent upon its meeting the definition of “insurance company” set forth in § 1263.1, the Bank shall state its conclusion as to whether the applicant meets that definition and summarize the bases for that conclusion. In preparing a digest for a non-federally-insured credit union applicant, the Bank shall summarize the manner in which the applicant has complied with the requirements of § 1263.19(a)., (c) File. The Bank shall maintain a membership file for each applicant for at least three years after the Bank decides whether to approve or deny membership or, in the case of an appeal to FHFA, for three years after the resolution of the appeal. The membership file shall contain at a minimum:, (1) Digest. The digest required by paragraph (b) of this section., (2) Required documents. All documents required by §§ 1263.6 to 1263.19, including documents required to establish or rebut a presumption under this part, shall be described in and attached to the digest. The Bank is not required to retain in the file portions of regulatory financial reports that are not relevant to its decision on the membership application. If an applicant's appropriate regulator requires return or destruction of a regulatory examination report, the date that the report is returned or destroyed shall be noted in the file., (3) Additional documents. Any additional document submitted by the applicant, or otherwise obtained or generated by the Bank, concerning the applicant., (4) Decision resolution. The decision resolution described in § 1263.3(b).

(a) Applications for deposit insurance shall be filed with the appropriate FDIC office. The relevant application forms and instructions for applying for deposit insurance for an existing or proposed depository institution may be obtained from any FDIC regional director. , (b) An application for deposit insurance for an interim depository institution shall be filed and processed in accordance with the procedures set forth in § 303.24, subject to the provisions of § 303.62(b)(2) regarding deposit insurance for interim institutions. An interim institution is defined as a state- or federally-chartered depository institution that does not operate independently but exists solely as a vehicle to accomplish a merger transaction. , (c) A request for continuation of deposit insurance upon withdrawing from membership in the Federal Reserve System shall be in letter form and shall provide the information prescribed in § 303.25.

(a) Applications for membership and stock. (1) State banks applying for membership in the Federal Reserve System shall file with the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank an application for membership in the Federal Reserve System and for stock in the Reserve Bank, 2<FTREF/> in accordance with this part and § 262.3 of the Rules of Procedure, located at 12 CFR 262.3., 2 A mutual savings bank not authorized to purchase Federal Reserve Bank stock may apply for membership evidenced initially by a deposit, but if the laws under which the bank is organized are not amended at the first session of the legislature after its admission to authorize the purchase, or if the bank fails to purchase the stock within six months of the amendment, its membership shall be terminated., (2) Board approval. If an applying bank conforms to all the requirements of the Federal Reserve Act and this section, and is otherwise qualified for membership, the Board may approve its application subject to such conditions as the Board may prescribe., (3) Effective date of membership. A State bank becomes a member of the Federal Reserve System on the date its Federal Reserve Bank stock is credited to its account (or its deposit is accepted, if it is a mutual savings bank not authorized to purchase Reserve Bank stock) in accordance with the Board's Regulation I (12 CFR part 209)., (b) Factors considered in approving applications for membership. Factors given special consideration by the Board in passing upon an application are:, (1) Financial condition and management. The financial history and condition of the applying bank and the general character of its management., (2) Capital. The adequacy of the bank's capital in accordance with § 208.4, and its future earnings prospects., (3) Convenience and needs. The convenience and needs of the community., (4) Corporate powers. Whether the bank's corporate powers are consistent with the purposes of the Federal Reserve Act., (c) Expedited approval for eligible banks and bank holding companies - (1) Availability of expedited treatment. The expedited membership procedures described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section are available to:, (i) An eligible bank; and, (ii) A bank that cannot be determined to be an eligible bank because it has not received CAMELS compliance or CRA ratings from a bank regulatory authority, if it is controlled by a bank holding company that meets the criteria for expedited processing under § 225.14(c) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.14(c))., (2) Expedited procedures. A completed membership application filed with the appropriate Reserve Bank will be deemed approved on the fifteenth day after receipt of the complete application by the Board or appropriate Reserve Bank, unless the Board or the appropriate Reserve Bank notifies the bank that the application is approved prior to that date or the Board or the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank notifies the bank that the application is not eligible for expedited review for any reason, including, without limitation, that:, (i) The bank will offer banking services that are materially different from those currently offered by the bank, or by the affiliates of the proposed bank;, (ii) The bank or bank holding company does not meet the criteria under § 208.3(c)(1);, (iii) The application contains a material error or is otherwise deficient; or, (iv) The application raises significant supervisory, compliance, policy or legal issues that have not been resolved, or a timely substantive adverse comment is submitted. A comment will be considered substantive unless it involves individual complaints, or raises frivolous, previously considered, or wholly unsubstantiated claims or irrelevant issues., (d) Conditions of membership - (1) Safety and soundness. Each member bank shall at all times conduct its business and exercise its powers with due regard to safety and soundness. Each member bank shall comply with the Interagency Guidelines Establishing Standards for Safety and Soundness prescribed pursuant to section 39 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831p-1), set forth in appendix D-1 to this part, and the Interagency Guidelines Establishing Information Security Standards prescribed pursuant to sections 501 and 505 of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (15 U.S.C. 6801 and 6805) and section 216 of the Fair and Accurate Credit Transactions Act of 2003 (15 U.S.C. 1681w), set forth in appendix D-2 to this part., (2) General character of bank's business. A member bank may not, without the permission of the Board, cause or permit any change in the general character of its business or in the scope of the corporate powers it exercises at the time of admission to membership., (3) Compliance with conditions of membership. Each member bank shall comply at all times with this Regulation H (12 CFR part 208) and any other conditions of membership prescribed by the Board., (e) Waivers - (1) Conditions of membership. A member bank may petition the Board to waive a condition of membership. The Board may grant a waiver of a condition of membership upon a showing of good cause and, in its discretion, may limit, among other items, the scope, duration, and timing of the waiver., (2) Reports of affiliates. Pursuant to section 21 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 486), the Board waives the requirement for the submission of reports of affiliates of member banks, unless such reports are specifically requested by the Board., (f) Voluntary withdrawal from membership. Voluntary withdrawal from membership becomes effective upon cancellation of the Federal Reserve Bank stock held by the member bank, and after the bank has made due provision to pay any indebtedness due or to become due to the Federal Reserve Bank in accordance with the Board's Regulation I (12 CFR part 209).

(a) Applications under this subpart. Any filing with the Board required under this subpart must be filed in accordance with § 238.14 of this chapter. The Board will review any filing made under this subpart in accordance with § 238.14 of this chapter., (b) Requirements. (1) The application for conversion must include all of the following information., (i) A plan of conversion meeting the requirements of § 239.54(b)., (ii) Pricing materials meeting the requirements paragraph (g)(2) of this section., (iii) Proxy soliciting materials under § 239.57(d), including:, (A) A preliminary proxy statement with signed financial statements;, (B) A form of proxy meeting the requirements of § 239.57(b); and, (C) Any additional proxy soliciting materials, including press releases, personal solicitation instructions, radio or television scripts that the mutual holding company plans to use or furnish to the members, and a legal opinion indicating that any marketing materials comply with all applicable securities laws., (iv) An offering circular described in § 239.58(a)., (v) The documents and information required by Form AC. The mutual holding company may obtain Form AC from the appropriate Reserve Bank and the Board's Web site (http://www.federalreserve.gov)., (vi) Where indicated, written consents, signed and dated, of any accountant, attorney, investment banker, appraiser, or other professional who prepared, reviewed, passed upon, or certified any statement, report, or valuation for use. See Form AC, instruction B(7)., (vii) The business plan, submitted as a separately bound, confidential exhibit. See paragraph (c) of this section., (viii) Any additional information the Board requests., (2) The Board will not accept for filing, and will return, any application for conversion that is improperly executed, materially deficient, substantially incomplete, or that provides for unreasonable conversion expenses., (c) Filing an application for conversion. (1) The mutual holding company must file the application for conversion on Form AC with the appropriate Reserve Bank., (2) Upon receipt of an application under this subpart, the Reserve Bank will promptly furnish notice and a copy of the application to the primary federal supervisor of any subsidiary savings association. The primary supervisor will have 30 calendar days from the date of the letter giving notice in which to submit its views and recommendations to the Board., (d) Confidential treatment of portions of an application for conversion. (1) The Board makes all filings under this subpart available to the public, but may keep portions of the application for conversion confidential under paragraph (d)(2) of this section., (2) The mutual holding company may request the Board keep portions of the application confidential. To do so, the mutual holding company must separately bind and clearly designate as “confidential” any portion of the application for conversion that the mutual holding company deems confidential. The mutual holding company must provide a written statement specifying the grounds supporting the request for confidentiality. The Board will not treat as confidential the portion of the application describing how the mutual holding company plans to meet the Community Reinvestment Act (CRA) objectives. The CRA portion of the application may not incorporate by reference information contained in the confidential portion of the application., (3) The Board will determine whether confidential information must be made available to the public under 5 U.S.C. 552 and part 261 of this chapter. The Board will advise the mutual holding company before it makes information the mutual holding company designated as “confidential” available to the public., (e) Amending an application for conversion. To amend an application for conversion, the mutual holding company must:, (1) File an amendment with an appropriate facing sheet;, (2) Number each amendment consecutively;, (3) Respond to all issues raised by the Board; and, (4) Demonstrate that the amendment conforms to all applicable regulations., (f) Notice of filing of application and comment process - (1) Public notice of an application for conversion. (i) The mutual holding company must publish a public notice of the application for conversion in accordance with the procedures in § 238.14 of this chapter. The mutual holding company must simultaneously prominently post the notice in its home office and in all of the branch offices of its subsidiary savings associations., (ii) Promptly after publication, the mutual holding company must file a copy of any public notice and an affidavit of publication from each publisher with the appropriate Reserve Bank., (iii) If the Board does not accept the application for conversion under § 239.55(g) and requires the mutual holding company to file a new application, the mutual holding company must publish and post a new notice and allow an additional 30 days for comment., (2) Public comments. Commenters may submit comments on the application in accordance with the procedures in § 238.14 of this chapter. A commenter must file any comments with the appropriate Reserve Bank., (g) Board review of the application for conversion - (1) Board action on a conversion application. The Board may approve an application for conversion only if:, (i) The conversion complies with this subpart;, (ii) The mutual holding company will meet all applicable regulatory capital requirements after the conversion; and, (iii) The conversion will not result in a taxable reorganization under the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended., (2) Board review of appraisal. The Board will review the appraisal required by paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section in determining whether to approve the application. The Board will review the appraisal under the following requirements., (i) Independent persons experienced and expert in corporate appraisal, and acceptable to the Board, must prepare the appraisal report., (ii) An affiliate of the appraiser may serve as an underwriter or selling agent, if the mutual holding company ensures that the appraiser is separate from the underwriter or selling agent affiliate and the underwriter or selling agent affiliate does not make recommendations or affect the appraisal., (iii) The appraiser may not receive any fee in connection with the conversion other than for appraisal services., (iv) The appraisal report must include a complete and detailed description of the elements of the appraisal, a justification for the appraisal methodology, and sufficient support for the conclusions., (v) If the appraisal is based on a capitalization of the pro forma income, it must indicate the basis for determining the income to be derived from the sale of shares, and demonstrate that the earnings multiple used is appropriate, including future earnings growth assumptions., (vi) If the appraisal is based on a comparison of the shares with outstanding shares of existing stock associations, the existing stock associations must be reasonably comparable in size, market area, competitive conditions, risk profile, profit history, and expected future earnings., (vii) The Board may decline to process the application for conversion and deem it materially deficient or substantially incomplete if the initial appraisal report is materially deficient or substantially incomplete., (viii) The mutual holding company may not represent or imply that the Board has approved the appraisal., (3) Board review of compliance record. The Board will review the compliance record of the subsidiary savings association under the regulations applicable to the savings association and the business plan to determine how the conversion will affect the convenience and needs of its communities., (i) Based on this review, the Board may approve the application, deny the application, or approve the application on the condition that the resulting stock holding company will improve the CRA performance or will address the particular credit or lending needs of the communities that it will serve., (ii) The Board may deny the application if the business plan does not demonstrate that the proposed use of conversion proceeds will help the resulting stock holding company to meet the credit and lending needs of the communities that the resulting stock holding company will serve., (4) The Board may request that the mutual holding company amend the application if further explanation is necessary, material is missing, or material must be corrected., (5) The Board will deny the application if the application does not meet the requirements of this subpart, unless the Board waives the requirement under § 239.50(c)., (h) Judicial review. (1) Any person aggrieved by the Board's final action on the application for conversion may ask the court of appeals of the United States for the circuit in which the principal office or residence of such person is located, or the U.S. Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit, to review the action under 12 U.S.C. 1467a(j), which provisions shall apply in all respects as if such final action were an order, subject to paragraph (h)(2) of this section., (2) To obtain court review of the action, the aggrieved person must file a written petition requesting that the court modify, terminate, or set aside the final Board action. The aggrieved person must file the petition with the court within the later of 30 days after the Board publishes notice of its final action in the <E T="04">Federal Register or 30 days after the mutual holding company mails the proxy statement to its members under § 239.56(c).

(a) Appointment of conservator or receiver. Notwithstanding any other provision of federal or state law, the Director may appoint the FHFA as conservator or receiver of any Bank at any time after the Director determines that the Bank is, or the Director otherwise exercises authority to reclassify the Bank as, critically undercapitalized., (b) Periodic determination - (1) Determination. Not later than 30 calendar days after the Director first determines that a Bank is, or the Director otherwise exercises authority to reclassify the Bank as, critically undercapitalized, and a least once during each succeeding 30-day calendar period, the Director make a determination in writing as to whether:, (i) The assets of the Bank are, and during the preceding 60 calendar days have been, less than its obligations to its creditors and others, provided that the Director shall consider as an obligation only that amount of outstanding consolidated obligations for which the Bank is primary obligor or for which the Bank has been ordered to make payments of principal or interest on behalf of another Bank, or is actually making payments of principal or interest on behalf of another Bank; or, (ii) The Bank is not, and during the previous 60 calendar days has not been paying its debts on a regular basis as such debts become due, provided that this provision does not apply to any unpaid debts that are the subject of a bona fide dispute., (2) Mandatory receivership. If the Director determines that the conditions described in either paragraph (b)(1)(i) or (b)(1)(ii) of this section applies to a Bank, the Director shall appoint the FHFA as receiver for the Bank. The appointment of the FHFA as receiver under this paragraph shall immediately terminate any conservatorship established for the Bank., (3) Determination not required. A determination under paragraph (b)(1) of this section shall not be required during any period in which the FHFA serves as receiver for a Bank., (c) Judicial review. If the Director appoints the FHFA as conservator or receiver of a Bank under paragraph (a) or (b)(2) of this section, the Bank may within 30 days of such appointment bring an action in the United States district court for the judicial district in which the Bank was established pursuant to section 3 of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1423) or in the United States District Court for the District of Columbia, for an order requiring the FHFA to remove itself as conservator or receiver., (d) Other applicable actions. Until such time as FHFA is appointed as conservator or receiver for a critically undercapitalized Bank, a critically undercapitalized Bank shall be subject to all mandatory restrictions or obligations applicable to a significantly undercapitalized Bank under § 1229.8 of this subpart and will remain subject to any on-going restrictions or obligations that the Director imposed on the Bank under § 1229.7 or § 1229.9 of this subpart, or any restrictions or obligations that are applicable to the Bank under the terms of an approved capital restoration plan.

(a) Appointment. (1) Each Bank's board of directors shall appoint an Advisory Council of 7 to 15 persons who reside in the Bank's district and are drawn from community and not-for-profit organizations that are actively involved in providing or promoting low- and moderate-income housing, and community and not-for-profit organizations that are actively involved in providing or promoting community lending, in the district. Community organizations include for-profit organizations., (2) Each Bank shall solicit nominations for membership on the Advisory Council from community and not-for-profit organizations pursuant to a nomination process that is as broad and as participatory as possible, allowing sufficient time for responses., (3) The Bank's board of directors shall appoint Advisory Council members from a diverse range of organizations so that representatives of no one group constitute an undue proportion of the membership of the Advisory Council, giving consideration to the size of the Bank's district and the diversity of low- and moderate-income housing and community lending needs and activities within the district., (b) Terms of Advisory Council members. Pursuant to policies adopted by the Bank's board of directors, Advisory Council members shall be appointed by the Bank's board of directors to serve for terms of three years, which shall be staggered to provide continuity in experience and service to the Advisory Council, except that Advisory Council members may be appointed to serve for terms of one or two years solely for purposes of reconfiguring the staggering of the three-year terms. No Advisory Council member may be appointed to serve for more than three full consecutive terms. An Advisory Council member appointed to fill a vacancy shall be appointed for the unexpired term of his or her predecessor in office., (c) Election of officers. Each Advisory Council shall elect from among its members a chairperson, a vice chairperson, and any other officers the Advisory Council deems appropriate., (d) Duties - (1) Meetings with the Banks. (i) The Advisory Council shall meet with representatives of the Bank's board of directors at least quarterly to provide advice on ways in which the Bank can better carry out its housing finance and community lending mission, including, but not limited to, advice on the low- and moderate-income housing and community lending programs and needs in the Bank's district, and on the use of AHP subsidies, Bank advances, and other Bank credit products for these purposes., (ii) The Advisory Council's advice shall include recommendations on:, (A) The Bank's Targeted Community Lending Plan, and any amendments thereto, pursuant to 12 CFR 1290.6(a)(5)(iii);, (B) The amount of AHP funds to be allocated to the Bank's General Fund and any Targeted Funds and Homeownership Set-Aside Programs, including how the set-aside funds should be apportioned under the one-third funding allocation requirement in § 1291.12(b);, (C) The AHP Implementation Plan and any subsequent amendments thereto;, (D) The Bank's scoring methodologies, related definitions, and any additional optional district eligibility requirements for the General Fund and any Targeted Funds; and, (E) The eligibility requirements and any priority criteria for any Homeownership Set-Aside Programs., (2) Summary of AHP applications. The Bank shall comply with requests from the Advisory Council for summary information regarding AHP applications from prior funding rounds., (3) Annual analysis; public access. (i) Each Advisory Council annually shall submit to FHFA by May 1 its analysis of the low- and moderate-income housing and community lending activity of the Bank by which it is appointed., (ii) Within 30 days after the date the Advisory Council's annual analysis is submitted to FHFA, the Bank shall publish the analysis on its publicly available website., (e) Expenses. The Bank shall pay Advisory Council members' travel expenses, including transportation and subsistence, for each day devoted to attending meetings with representatives of the board of directors of the Bank and meetings requested by FHFA., (f) No delegation. A Bank's board of directors shall not delegate to Bank officers or other Bank employees the responsibility to appoint persons as members of the Advisory Council or to meet with the Advisory Council at the quarterly meetings required by the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1430(j)(11)).

(a) Appointment. Unless otherwise directed by the Board of Directors or as otherwise provided in the Local Rules, a hearing within the scope of this part 308 shall be held before an administrative law judge of the Office of Financial Institution Adjudication (“OFIA”). , (b) Procedures. (1) The Enforcement Counsel shall promptly after issuance of the notice file the matter with the Office of Financial Institution Adjudication (“OFIA”) which shall secure the appointment of an administrative law judge to hear the proceeding. , (2) OFIA shall advise the parties, in writing, that an administrative law judge has been appointed.

(a) Appraisal means a written statement independently and impartially prepared by a qualified appraiser setting forth an opinion as to the market value of an adequately described property as of a specific date(s), supported by the presentation and analysis of relevant market information. , (b) Appraisal Foundation means the Appraisal Foundation established on November 30, 1987, as a not-for-profit corporation under the laws of Illinois. , (c) Appraisal Subcommittee means the Appraisal Subcommittee of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council. , (d) Business loan means a loan or extension of credit to any corporation, general or limited partnership, business trust, joint venture, pool, syndicate, sole proprietorship, or other business entity., (e) Commercial real estate transaction means a real estate-related financial transaction that is not secured by a single 1-to-4 family residential property., (f) Complex appraisal for a residential real estate transaction means one in which the property to be appraised, the form of ownership, or market conditions are atypical., (g) Federally related transaction means any real estate-related financial transaction entered into on or after August 9, 1990, that: , (1) The Board or any regulated institution engages in or contracts for; and , (2) Requires the services of an appraiser. , (h) Market value means the most probable price which a property should bring in a competitive and open market under all conditions requisite to a fair sale, the buyer and seller each acting prudently and knowledgeably, and assuming the price is not affected by undue stimulus. Implicit in this definition is the consummation of a sale as of a specified date and the passing of title from seller to buyer under conditions whereby: , (1) Buyer and seller are typically motivated; , (2) Both parties are well informed or well advised, and acting in what they consider their own best interests; , (3) A reasonable time is allowed for exposure in the open market; , (4) Payment is made in terms of cash in U.S. dollars or in terms of financial arrangements comparable thereto; and , (5) The price represents the normal consideration for the property sold unaffected by special or creative financing or sales concessions granted by anyone associated with the sale. , (i) Real estate or real property means an identified parcel or tract of land, with improvements, and includes easements, rights of way, undivided or future interests, or similar rights in a tract of land, but does not include mineral rights, timber rights, growing crops, water rights, or similar interests severable from the land when the transaction does not involve the associated parcel or tract of land., (j) Real estate-related financial transaction means any transaction involving: , (1) The sale, lease, purchase, investment in or exchange of real property, including interests in property, or the financing thereof; or , (2) The refinancing of real property or interests in real property; or , (3) The use of real property or interests in property as security for a loan or investment, including mortgage-backed securities. , (k) Residential real estate transaction means a real estate-related financial transaction that is secured by a single 1-to-4 family residential property., (l) State certified appraiser means any individual who has satisfied the requirements for certification in a State or territory whose criteria for certification as a real estate appraiser currently meet or exceed the minimum criteria for certification issued by the Appraiser Qualifications Board of the Appraisal Foundation. No individual shall be a State certified appraiser unless such individual has achieved a passing grade upon a suitable examination administered by a State or territory that is consistent with and equivalent to the Uniform State Certification Examination issued or endorsed by the Appraiser Qualifications Board of the Appraisal Foundation. In addition, the Appraisal Subcommittee must not have issued a finding that the policies, practices, or procedures of the State or territory are inconsistent with title XI of FIRREA. The Board may, from time to time, impose additional qualification criteria for certified appraisers performing appraisals in connection with federally related transactions within its jurisdiction. , (m) State licensed appraiser means any individual who has satisfied the requirements for licensing in a State or territory where the licensing procedures comply with title XI of FIRREA and where the Appraisal Subcommittee has not issued a finding that the policies, practices, or procedures of the State or territory are inconsistent with title XI. The Board may, from time to time, impose additional qualification criteria for licensed appraisers performing appraisals in connection with federally related transactions within the Board's jurisdiction. , (n) Tract development means a project of five units or more that is constructed or is to be constructed as a single development. , (o) Transaction value means: , (1) For loans or other extensions of credit, the amount of the loan or extension of credit; , (2) For sales, leases, purchases, and investments in or exchanges of real property, the market value of the real property interest involved; and , (3) For the pooling of loans or interests in real property for resale or purchase, the amount of the loan or the market value of the real property calculated with respect to each such loan or interest in real property.

(a) Appraisal means a written statement independently and impartially prepared by a qualified appraiser setting forth an opinion as to the market value of an adequately described property as of a specific date(s), supported by the presentation and analysis of relevant market information., (b) Appraisal Foundation means the Appraisal Foundation established on November 30, 1987, as a not-for-profit corporation under the laws of Illinois., (c) Appraisal Subcommittee means the Appraisal Subcommittee of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council., (d) Business loan means a loan or extension of credit to any corporation, general or limited partnership, business trust, joint venture, pool, syndicate, sole proprietorship, or other business entity. , (e) Commercial real estate transaction means a real estate-related financial transaction that is not secured by a single 1-to-4 family residential property., (f) Complex appraisal for a residential real estate transaction means one in which the property to be appraised, the form of ownership, or market conditions are atypical., (g) Federally related transaction means any real estate-related financial transactions entered into after the effective date hereof that:, (1) The FDIC or any regulated institution engages in or contracts for; and, (2) Requires the services of an appraiser., (h) Market value means the most probable price which a property should bring in a competitive and open market under all conditions requisite to a fair sale, the buyer and seller each acting prudently and knowledgeably, and assuming the price is not affected by undue stimulus. Implicit in this definition is the consummation of a sale as of a specified date and the passing of title from seller to buyer under conditions whereby:, (1) Buyer and seller are typically motivated;, (2) Both parties are well informed or well advised, and acting in what they consider their own best interests;, (3) A reasonable time is allowed for exposure in the open market;, (4) Payment is made in terms of cash in U.S. dollars or in terms of financial arrangements comparable thereto; and , (5) The price represents the normal consideration for the property sold unaffected by special or creative financing or sales concessions granted by anyone associated with the sale., (i) Real estate or real property means an identified parcel or tract of land, with improvements, and includes easements, rights of way, undivided or future interests and similar rights in a tract of land, but does not include mineral rights, timber rights, growing crops, water rights and similar interests severable from the land when the transaction does not involve the associated parcel or tract of land., (j) Real estate-related financial transaction means any transaction involving:, (1) The sale, lease, purchase, investment in or exchange of real property, including interests in property, or the financing thereof; or, (2) The refinancing of real property or interests in real property; or, (3) The use of real property or interests in property as security for a loan or investment, including mortgage-backed securities., (k) Residential real estate transaction means a real estate-related financial transaction that is secured by a single 1-to-4 family residential property., (l) State certified appraiser means any individual who has satisfied the requirements for certification in a State or territory whose criteria for certification as a real estate appraiser currently meet the minimum criteria for certification issued by the Appraiser Qualifications Board of the Appraisal Foundation. No individual shall be a State certified appraiser unless such individual has achieved a passing grade upon a suitable examination administered by a State or territory that is consistent with and equivalent to the Uniform State Certification Examination issued or endorsed by the Appraiser Qualifications Board. In addition, the Appraisal Subcommittee must not have issued a finding that the policies, practices, or procedures of a State or territory are inconsistent with title XI of FIRREA. The FDIC may, from time to time, impose additional qualification criteria for certified appraisers performing appraisals in connection with federally related transactions within its jurisdiction., (m) State licensed appraiser means any individual who has satisfied the requirements for licensing in a State or territory where the licensing procedures comply with title XI of FIRREA and where the Appraisal Subcommittee has not issued a finding that the policies, practices, or procedures of the State or territory are inconsistent with title XI. The FDIC may, from time to time, impose additional qualification criteria for licensed appraisers performing appraisals in connection with federally related transactions within its jurisdiction., (n) Tract development means a project of five units or more that is constructed or is to be constructed as a single development., (o) Transaction value means: , (1) For loans or other extensions of credit, the amount of the loan or extension of credit;, (2) For sales, leases, purchases, and investments in or exchanges of real property, the market value of the real property interest involved; and, (3) For the pooling of loans or interests in real property for resale or purchase, the amount of the loan or market value of the real property calculated with respect to each such loan or interest in real property.

(a) Appraisals required. An appraisal performed by a State certified or licensed appraiser is required for all real estate-related financial transactions except those in which: , (1) The transaction is a residential real estate transaction that has a transaction value of $400,000 or less; , (2) A lien on real estate has been taken as collateral in an abundance of caution; , (3) The transaction is not secured by real estate; , (4) A lien on real estate has been taken for purposes other than the real estate's value; , (5) The transaction is a business loan that: , (i) Has a transaction value of $1 million or less; and , (ii) Is not dependent on the sale of, or rental income derived from, real estate as the primary source of repayment; , (6) A lease of real estate is entered into, unless the lease is the economic equivalent of a purchase or sale of the leased real estate; , (7) The transaction involves an existing extension of credit at the lending institution, provided that: , (i) There has been no obvious and material change in market conditions or physical aspects of the property that threatens the adequacy of the institution's real estate collateral protection after the transaction, even with the advancement of new monies; or , (ii) There is no advancement of new monies, other than funds necessary to cover reasonable closing costs; , (8) The transaction involves the purchase, sale, investment in, exchange of, or extension of credit secured by, a loan or interest in a loan, pooled loans, or interests in real property, including mortgaged-backed securities, and each loan or interest in a loan, pooled loan, or real property interest met FDIC regulatory requirements for appraisals at the time of origination; , (9) The transaction is wholly or partially insured or guaranteed by a United States government agency or United States government sponsored agency; , (10) The transaction either: , (i) Qualifies for sale to a United States government agency or United States government sponsored agency; or , (ii) Involves a residential real estate transaction in which the appraisal conforms to the Federal National Mortgage Association or Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation appraisal standards applicable to that category of real estate; , (11) The regulated institution is acting in a fiduciary capacity and is not required to obtain an appraisal under other law; , (12) The FDIC determines that the services of an appraiser are not necessary in order to protect Federal financial and public policy interests in real estate-related financial transactions or to protect the safety and soundness of the institution;, (13) The transaction is a commercial real estate transaction that has a transaction value of $500,000 or less; or, (14) The transaction is exempted from the appraisal requirement pursuant to the rural residential exemption under 12 U.S.C. 3356., (b) Evaluations required. For a transaction that does not require the services of a State certified or licensed appraiser under paragraphs (a)(1), (5), (7), (13), or (14) of this section, the institution shall obtain an appropriate evaluation of real property collateral that is consistent with safe and sound banking practices., (c) Appraisals to address safety and soundness concerns. The FDIC reserves the right to require an appraisal under this subpart whenever the agency believes it is necessary to address safety and soundness concerns. , (d) Transactions requiring a State certified appraiser - (1) All transactions of $1,000,000 or more. All federally related transactions having a transaction value of $1,000,000 or more shall require an appraisal prepared by a State certified appraiser., (2) Commercial real estate transactions of more than $500,000. All federally related transactions that are commercial real estate transactions having a transaction value of more than $500,000 shall require an appraisal prepared by a State certified appraiser., (3) Complex appraisals for residential real estate transactions of more than $400,000. All complex appraisals for residential real estate transactions rendered in connection with federally related transactions shall require a State certified appraiser if the transaction value is more than $400,000. A regulated institution may presume that appraisals for residential real estate transactions are not complex, unless the institution has readily available information that a given appraisal will be complex. The regulated institution shall be responsible for making the final determination of whether the appraisal is complex. If during the course of the appraisal a licensed appraiser identifies factors that would result in the property, form of ownership, or market conditions being considered atypical, then either:, (i) The regulated institution may ask the licensed appraiser to complete the appraisal and have a certified appraiser approve and co-sign the appraisal; or, (ii) The institution may engage a certified appraiser to complete the appraisal., (e) Transactions requiring either a State certified or licensed appraiser. All appraisals for federally related transactions not requiring the services of a State certified appraiser shall be prepared by either a State certified appraiser or a State licensed appraiser., (f) Effective date. Regulated institutions are required to use state certified or licensed appraisers as set forth in this section no later than December 31, 1992, unless otherwise required by law.

(a) Appraisals required. An appraisal performed by a State certified or licensed appraiser is required for all real estate-related financial transactions except those in which: , (1) The transaction is a residential real estate transaction that has a transaction value of $400,000 or less;, (2) A lien on real estate has been taken as collateral in an abundance of caution; , (3) The transaction is not secured by real estate; , (4) A lien on real estate has been taken for purposes other than the real estate's value; , (5) The transaction is a business loan that: , (i) Has a transaction value of $1 million or less; and , (ii) Is not dependent on the sale of, or rental income derived from, real estate as the primary source of repayment; , (6) A lease of real estate is entered into, unless the lease is the economic equivalent of a purchase or sale of the leased real estate; , (7) The transaction involves an existing extension of credit at the lending institution, provided that: , (i) There has been no obvious and material change in market conditions or physical aspects of the property that threatens the adequacy of the institution's real estate collateral protection after the transaction, even with the advancement of new monies; or , (ii) There is no advancement of new monies, other than funds necessary to cover reasonable closing costs; , (8) The transaction involves the purchase, sale, investment in, exchange of, or extension of credit secured by, a loan or interest in a loan, pooled loans, or interests in real property, including mortgaged-backed securities, and each loan or interest in a loan, pooled loan, or real property interest met Board regulatory requirements for appraisals at the time of origination; , (9) The transaction is wholly or partially insured or guaranteed by a United States government agency or United States government sponsored agency; , (10) The transaction either: , (i) Qualifies for sale to a United States government agency or United States government sponsored agency; or , (ii) Involves a residential real estate transaction in which the appraisal conforms to the Federal National Mortgage Association or Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation appraisal standards applicable to that category of real estate; , (11) The regulated institution is acting in a fiduciary capacity and is not required to obtain an appraisal under other law; , (12) The transaction involves underwriting or dealing in mortgage-backed securities; , (13) The Board determines that the services of an appraiser are not necessary in order to protect Federal financial and public policy interests in real estate-related financial transactions or to protect the safety and soundness of the institution; , (14) The transaction is a commercial real estate transaction that has a transaction value of $500,000 or less; or, (15) The transaction is exempted from the appraisal requirement pursuant to the rural residential exemption under 12 U.S.C. 3356., (b) Evaluations required. For a transaction that does not require the services of a State certified or licensed appraiser under paragraphs (a)(1), (5), (7), (14), or (15) of this section, the institution shall obtain an appropriate evaluation of real property collateral that is consistent with safe and sound banking practices., (c) Appraisals to address safety and soundness concerns. The Board reserves the right to require an appraisal under this subpart whenever the agency believes it is necessary to address safety and soundness concerns. , (d) Transactions requiring a State certified appraiser - (1) All transactions of $1,000,000 or more. All federally related transactions having a transaction value of $1,000,000 or more shall require an appraisal prepared by a State certified appraiser., (2) Commercial real estate transactions of more than $500,000. All federally related transactions that are commercial real estate transactions having a transaction value of more than $500,000 shall require an appraisal prepared by a State certified appraiser., (3) Complex appraisals for residential real estate transactions of more than $400,000. All complex appraisals for residential real estate transactions rendered in connection with federally related transactions shall require a State certified appraiser if the transaction value is more than $400,000. A regulated institution may presume that appraisals for residential real estate transactions are not complex, unless the institution has readily available information that a given appraisal will be complex. The regulated institution shall be responsible for making the final determination of whether the appraisal is complex. If during the course of the appraisal a licensed appraiser identifies factors that would result in the property, form of ownership, or market conditions being considered atypical, then either:, (i) The regulated institution may ask the licensed appraiser to complete the appraisal and have a certified appraiser approve and co-sign the appraisal; or, (ii) The institution may engage a certified appraiser to complete the appraisal., (e) Transactions requiring either a State certified or licensed appraiser. All appraisals for federally related transactions not requiring the services of a State certified appraiser shall be prepared by either a State certified appraiser or a State licensed appraiser.

(a) Appraiser certification or licensing of owners. (1) An AMC subject to State registration pursuant to this section shall not be registered by a State or included on the AMC National Registry if such AMC, in whole or in part, directly or indirectly, is owned by any person who has had an appraiser license or certificate refused, denied, cancelled, surrendered in lieu of revocation, or revoked in any State for a substantive cause, as determined by the appropriate State appraiser certifying and licensing agency., (2) An AMC subject to State registration pursuant to this section is not barred by § 323.11(a)(1) from being registered by a State or included on the AMC National Registry if the license or certificate of the appraiser with an ownership interest was not revoked for a substantive cause and has been reinstated by the State or States in which the appraiser was licensed or certified., (b) Good moral character of owners. An AMC shall not be registered by a State if any person that owns more than 10 percent of the AMC - , (1) Is determined by the State appraiser certifying and licensing agency not to have good moral character; or, (2) Fails to submit to a background investigation carried out by the State appraiser certifying and licensing agency.

(a) Appraiser certification or licensing of owners. (1) An AMC subject to State registration pursuant to § 1222.23 shall not be registered by a State or included on the AMC National Registry if such AMC, in whole or in part, directly or indirectly, is owned by any person who has had an appraiser license or certificate refused, denied, cancelled, surrendered in lieu of revocation, or revoked in any State for a substantive cause, as determined by the appropriate State appraiser certifying and licensing agency., (2) An AMC subject to State registration pursuant to § 1222.23 is not barred by paragraph (a)(1) of this section from being registered by a State or included on the AMC National Registry if the license or certificate of the appraiser with an ownership interest was not revoked for a substantive cause and has been reinstated by the State or States in which the appraiser was licensed or certified., (b) Good moral character of owners. An AMC shall not be registered by a State if any person that owns more than 10 percent of the AMC - , (1) Is determined by the State appraiser certifying and licensing agency not to have good moral character; or, (2) Fails to submit to a background investigation carried out by the State appraiser certifying and licensing agency.

(a) Appraiser certification or licensing of owners. (1) An AMC subject to State registration pursuant to § 225.193 shall not be registered by a State or included on the AMC National Registry if such AMC, in whole or in part, directly or indirectly, is owned by any person who has had an appraiser license or certificate refused, denied, cancelled, surrendered in lieu of revocation, or revoked in any State for a substantive cause, as determined by the appropriate State appraiser certifying and licensing agency., (2) An AMC subject to State registration pursuant to § 225.193 is not barred by paragraph (a)(1) of this section from being registered by a State or included on the AMC National Registry if the license or certificate of the appraiser with an ownership interest was not revoked for a substantive cause and has been reinstated by the State or States in which the appraiser was licensed or certified., (b) Good moral character of owners. An AMC shall not be registered by a State if any person that owns more than 10 percent of the AMC - , (1) Is determined by the State appraiser certifying and licensing agency not to have good moral character; or, (2) Fails to submit to a background investigation carried out by the State appraiser certifying and licensing agency.

(a) Approval of AHP applications. Subject to the requirements in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, a Bank shall approve applications for AHP subsidy under its General Fund and any Targeted Funds that meet all of the applicable AHP eligibility requirements in this part in descending order, starting with the highest scoring application until the total funding amount for the particular AHP funding round, except for any amount insufficient to fund the next highest scoring application, has been approved., (b) AHP application alternates. For the General Fund and any Targeted Funds, the Bank also may, in its discretion, approve a specified number, as determined by the Bank, of the next highest scoring applications as alternates eligible for funding, and may approve any tied applications as alternates eligible for funding pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section, if any previously committed AHP subsidies become available, pursuant to a written policy on approving alternates for funding established by the Bank and included in the Bank's AHP Implementation Plan. If a Bank has established such a policy for approving alternates for funding and sufficient previously committed AHP subsidies become available within one year of application approval, the Bank shall approve the designated alternates for funding within that one-year period., (c) Tied applications. (1) Where two or more applications to a General Fund or Targeted Fund have identical scores in the same AHP funding round and there is insufficient AHP subsidy to approve all of the tied applications but sufficient subsidy to approve one of them, a Bank shall approve the tied application that prevails under the Bank's scoring tie-breaker methodology in its policy adopted pursuant to § 1291.25(c)., (2) A tied application that does not prevail under the Bank's scoring tie-breaker methodology, or is tied with another application but requested more subsidy than the amount of AHP funds that remain to be awarded under the Fund, shall be approved as an alternate for funding if the Bank has a written policy to approve alternates for funding under the Fund., (d) Applications to multiple Funds - approval under one Fund. If an application for the same project is submitted to more than one Fund at a Bank in a calendar year and the application scores high enough to be approved under each Fund, the Bank shall approve the application under only one of the Funds pursuant to the Bank's policy established in its AHP Implementation Plan., (e) No delegation. A Bank's board of directors may not delegate to Bank officers or other Bank employees the responsibility to approve or disapprove the AHP subsidy applications, as well as any alternates under the Bank's General Fund and any Targeted Fund if the Bank has a written policy to approve alternates for funding under such Fund.

(a) Approval of transition period. (1) To the extent an insured depository institution for which the Board is the appropriate Federal banking agency qualifies as a “swaps entity” and would be subject to the Federal assistance prohibition in section 716(a) of the Dodd-Frank Act (15 U.S.C. 8305(a)), the insured depository institution may request a transition period of up to 24 months from the later of July 16, 2013, or the date on which it becomes a swaps entity, during which to conform its swaps activities to the requirements of section 716 of the Dodd-Frank Act (15 U.S.C. 8305) by submitting a request in writing to the Board., (2) Any request submitted pursuant to this paragraph (a) of this section shall, at a minimum, include the following information:, (i) The length of the transition period requested;, (ii) A description of the quantitative and qualitative impacts of divestiture or cessation of swap or security-based swaps activities on the insured depository institution, including information that addresses the factors in paragraph (c) of this section; and, (iii) A detailed explanation of the insured depository institution's plan for conforming its activities to the requirements of section 716 of the Dodd-Frank Act (15 U.S.C. 8305) and this part., (3) The Board may, at any time, request additional information that it believes is necessary for its decision., (b) Transition period for insured depository institutions. Following review of a written request submitted under paragraph (a) of this section, the Board shall permit an insured depository institution for which it is the appropriate Federal banking agency up to 24 months after the later of July 16, 2013, or the date on which the insured depository institution becomes a swaps entity, to comply with the requirements of section 716 of the Dodd-Frank Act (15 U.S.C. 8305) and this subpart based on its consideration of the factors in paragraph (c)., (c) Factors governing Board determinations. In establishing an appropriate transition period pursuant to any request under this section, the Board will take into account and make written findings regarding:, (1) The potential impact of divestiture or cessation of swap or security-based swaps activities on the insured depository institution's:, (i) Mortgage lending;, (ii) Small business lending;, (iii) Job creation; and, (iv) Capital formation versus the potential negative impact on insured depositors and the Deposit Insurance Fund of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation; and, (2) Any other factor that the Board believes appropriate., (d) Timing of Board review. The Board will seek to act on a request under paragraph (a) of this section expeditiously after the receipt of a complete request., (e) Extension of transition period. The Board may extend a transition period provided under this section for a period of up to one additional year. To request an extension of the transition period, an insured depository institution must submit a written request containing the information set forth in paragraph (a) of this section no later than 60 days before the end of the transition period., (f) Authority to impose restrictions during any transition period. The Board may impose such conditions on any transition period granted under this section as the Board determines are necessary or appropriate., (g) Consultation. The Board shall consult with the Commodity Futures Trading Commission or the Securities and Exchange Commission, as appropriate, prior to the approval of a request by an insured depository institution for a transition period under this section.

(a) Approval. The Board will notify an applicant if an application under this subpart is approved. An approval by the Board may include such conditions as the Board determines to be appropriate., (b) Denial. If Board denies an application, the Board will notify an applicant promptly.

(a) Are cross marketing activities prohibited? - (1) In general. A depository institution, including a subsidiary of a depository institution, controlled by a financial holding company may not: , (i) Offer or market, directly or through any arrangement, any product or service of any company if more than 5 percent of the company's voting shares, assets or ownership interests are owned or controlled by the financial holding company pursuant to this subpart; or , (ii) Allow any product or service of the depository institution, including any product or service of a subsidiary of the depository institution, to be offered or marketed, directly or through any arrangement, by or through any company described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section. , (2) How are certain subsidiaries treated? For purposes of paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a subsidiary of a depository institution does not include a financial subsidiary held in accordance with section 5136A of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 24a) or section 46 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act. (12 U.S.C. 1831w), any company held by a company owned in accordance with section 25 or 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 601 et seq.; 12 U.S.C. 611 et seq.), or any company held by a small business investment company owned in accordance with the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (15 U.S.C. 661 et seq.). , (3) How do the cross marketing restrictions apply to private equity funds? The restriction contained in paragraph (a)(1) of this section does not apply to: , (i) Portfolio companies held by a private equity fund that the financial holding company does not control; or , (ii) The sale, offer or marketing of any interest in a private equity fund, whether or not controlled by the financial holding company. , (b) When are companies held under section 4(k)(4)(H) affiliates under sections 23A and B? - (1) Rebuttable presumption of control. The following rebuttable presumption of control shall apply for purposes of sections 23A and 23B of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c, 371c-1): if a financial holding company directly or indirectly owns or controls more than 15 percent of the total equity of a company pursuant to this subpart, the company shall be presumed to be an affiliate of any member bank that is affiliated with the financial holding company. , (2) Request to rebut presumption. A financial holding company may rebut this presumption by providing information acceptable to the Board demonstrating that the financial holding company does not control the company. , (3) Presumptions that control does not exist. Absent evidence to the contrary, the presumption in paragraph (b)(1) of this section will be considered to have been rebutted without Board approval under paragraph (b)(2) of this section if any one of the following requirements are met: , (i) No officer, director or employee of the financial holding company serves as a director, trustee, or general partner (or individual exercising similar functions) of the company; , (ii) A person that is not affiliated or associated with the financial holding company owns or controls a greater percentage of the equity capital of the portfolio company than the amount owned or controlled by the financial holding company, and no more than one officer or employee of the holding company serves as a director or trustee (or individual exercising similar functions) of the company; or , (iii) A person that is not affiliated or associated with the financial holding company owns or controls more than 50 percent of the voting shares of the portfolio company, and officers and employees of the holding company do not constitute a majority of the directors or trustees (or individuals exercising similar functions) of the company. , (4) Convertible instruments. For purposes of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, equity capital includes options, warrants and any other instrument convertible into equity capital. , (5) Application of presumption to private equity funds. A financial holding company will not be presumed to own or control the equity capital of a company for purposes of paragraph (b)(1) of this section solely by virtue of an investment made by the financial holding company in a private equity fund that owns or controls the equity capital of the company unless the financial holding company controls the private equity fund as described in § 225.173(d)(4). , (6) Application of sections 23A and B to U.S. branches and agencies of foreign banks. Sections 23A and 23B of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c, 371c-1) shall apply to all covered transactions between each U.S. branch and agency of a foreign bank that acquires or controls, or that is affiliated with a company that acquires or controls, merchant banking investments and - , (i) Any portfolio company that the foreign bank or affiliated company controls or is presumed to control under paragraph (b)(1) of this section; and , (ii) Any company that the foreign bank or affiliated company controls or is presumed to control under paragraph (b)(1) of this section if the company is engaged in acquiring or controlling merchant banking investments and the proceeds of the covered transaction are used for the purpose of funding the company's merchant banking investment activities.

(a) As a condition for extending funding, discount and other similar financial assistance to an OFI, each Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank shall require every OFI to:, (1) Execute a general financing agreement pursuant to the regulations in subpart C of part 614; and, (2) Purchase non-voting stock in its Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank pursuant to the bank's bylaws., (b) A Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank shall extend funding, discount and other similar financial assistance to an OFI only for purposes and terms authorized under sections 1.10(b) and 2.4(a) and (b) of the Act., (c) Rural home loans to borrowers who are not bona fide farmers, ranchers, and aquatic producers and harvesters are subject to the restrictions in § 613.3030 of this chapter. Loans that an OFI makes to processing and marketing operators who supply less than 20 percent of the throughput shall be included in the calculation that § 613.3010(b)(1) of this chapter establishes for Farm Credit Banks and agricultural credit banks., (d) The borrower rights requirements in part C of title IV of the Act, and the regulations in part 617 of this chapter shall apply to all loans that an OFI funds or discounts through a Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank, unless such loans are subject to the Truth-in-Lending Act, 15 U.S.C. 1601 et seq., (e) As a condition for obtaining funding, discount and other similar financial assistance from a Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank, all State banks, trust companies, or State-chartered savings associations shall execute a written consent that authorizes their State regulators to furnish examination reports to the Farm Credit Administration upon its request. Any OFI that is not a depository institution shall consent in writing to examination by the Farm Credit Administration as a condition precedent for obtaining funding, discount and other similar financial assistance from a Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank, and file such consent with its Farm Credit funding bank.

(a) As a result of broadened authority provided by the Government Securities Act Amendments of 1993 (15 U.S.C. 78o-3 and 78o-5), the Board is adopting sales practice rules for the government securities market, a market with a particularly broad institutional component. Accordingly, the Board believes it is appropriate to provide further guidance to banks on their suitability obligations when making recommendations to institutional customers., (b) The Board's Suitability Rule, § 208.37(d), is fundamental to fair dealing and is intended to promote ethical sales practices and high standards of professional conduct. Banks' responsibilities include having a reasonable basis for recommending a particular security or strategy, as well as having reasonable grounds for believing the recommendation is suitable for the customer to whom it is made. Banks are expected to meet the same high standards of competence, professionalism, and good faith regardless of the financial circumstances of the customer., (c) In recommending to a customer the purchase, sale, or exchange of any government security, the bank shall have reasonable grounds for believing that the recommendation is suitable for the customer upon the basis of the facts, if any, disclosed by the customer as to the customer's other security holdings and financial situation and needs., (d) The interpretation in this section concerns only the manner in which a bank determines that a recommendation is suitable for a particular institutional customer. The manner in which a bank fulfills this suitability obligation will vary, depending on the nature of the customer and the specific transaction. Accordingly, the interpretation in this section deals only with guidance regarding how a bank may fulfill customer-specific suitability obligations under § 208.37(d). 8<FTREF/>, 8 The interpretation in this section does not address the obligation related to suitability that requires that a bank have”* * * a ‘reasonable basis’ to believe that the recommendation could be suitable for at least some customers.” In the Matter of the Application of F.J. Kaufman and Company of Virginia and Frederick J. Kaufman, Jr., 50 SEC 164 (1989)., (e) While it is difficult to define in advance the scope of a bank's suitability obligation with respect to a specific institutional customer transaction recommended by a bank, the Board has identified certain factors that may be relevant when considering compliance with § 208.37(d). These factors are not intended to be requirements or the only factors to be considered but are offered merely as guidance in determining the scope of a bank's suitability obligations., (f) The two most important considerations in determining the scope of a bank's suitability obligations in making recommendations to an institutional customer are the customer's capability to evaluate investment risk independently and the extent to which the customer is exercising independent judgement in evaluating a bank's recommendation. A bank must determine, based on the information available to it, the customer's capability to evaluate investment risk. In some cases, the bank may conclude that the customer is not capable of making independent investment decisions in general. In other cases, the institutional customer may have general capability, but may not be able to understand a particular type of instrument or its risk. This is more likely to arise with relatively new types of instruments, or those with significantly different risk or volatility characteristics than other investments generally made by the institution. If a customer is either generally not capable of evaluating investment risk or lacks sufficient capability to evaluate the particular product, the scope of a bank's customer-specific obligations under § 208.37(d) would not be diminished by the fact that the bank was dealing with an institutional customer. On the other hand, the fact that a customer initially needed help understanding a potential investment need not necessarily imply that the customer did not ultimately develop an understanding and make an independent investment decision., (g) A bank may conclude that a customer is exercising independent judgement if the customer's investment decision will be based on its own independent assessment of the opportunities and risks presented by a potential investment, market factors and other investment considerations. Where the bank has reasonable grounds for concluding that the institutional customer is making independent investment decisions and is capable of independently evaluating investment risk, then a bank's obligations under § 208.25(d) for a particular customer are fulfilled. 9<FTREF/> Where a customer has delegated decision-making authority to an agent, such as an investment advisor or a bank trust department, the interpretation in this section shall be applied to the agent., 9 See footnote 8 in paragraph (d) of this section., (h) A determination of capability to evaluate investment risk independently will depend on an examination of the customer's capability to make its own investment decisions, including the resources available to the customer to make informed decisions. Relevant considerations could include:, (1) The use of one or more consultants, investment advisers, or bank trust departments;, (2) The general level of experience of the institutional customer in financial markets and specific experience with the type of instruments under consideration;, (3) The customer's ability to understand the economic features of the security involved;, (4) The customer's ability to independently evaluate how market developments would affect the security; and, (5) The complexity of the security or securities involved., (i) A determination that a customer is making independent investment decisions will depend on the nature of the relationship that exists between the bank and the customer. Relevant considerations could include:, (1) Any written or oral understanding that exists between the bank and the customer regarding the nature of the relationship between the bank and the customer and the services to be rendered by the bank;, (2) The presence or absence of a pattern of acceptance of the bank's recommendations;, (3) The use by the customer of ideas, suggestions, market views and information obtained from other government securities brokers or dealers or market professionals, particularly those relating to the same type of securities; and, (4) The extent to which the bank has received from the customer current comprehensive portfolio information in connection with discussing recommended transactions or has not been provided important information regarding its portfolio or investment objectives., (j) Banks are reminded that these factors are merely guidelines that will be utilized to determine whether a bank has fulfilled its suitability obligation with respect to a specific institutional customer transaction and that the inclusion or absence of any of these factors is not dispositive of the determination of suitability. Such a determination can only be made on a case-by-case basis taking into consideration all the facts and circumstances of a particular bank/customer relationship, assessed in the context of a particular transaction., (k) For purposes of the interpretation in this section, an institutional customer shall be any entity other than a natural person. In determining the applicability of the interpretation in this section to an institutional customer, the Board will consider the dollar value of the securities that the institutional customer has in its portfolio and/or under management. While the interpretation in this section is potentially applicable to any institutional customer, the guidance contained in this section is more appropriately applied to an institutional customer with at least $10 million invested in securities in the aggregate in its portfolio and/or under management.

(a) As a result of broadened authority provided by the Government Securities Act Amendments of 1993 (15 U.S.C. 78o-3 and 78o-5), the FDIC is adopting sales practice rules for the government securities market, a market with a particularly broad institutional component. Accordingly, the FDIC believes it is appropriate to provide further guidance to banks on their suitability obligations when making recommendations to institutional customers. , (b) The FDIC's suitability rule (§ 368.4) is fundamental to fair dealing and is intended to promote ethical sales practices and high standards of professional conduct. Banks' responsibilities include having a reasonable basis for recommending a particular security or strategy, as well as having reasonable grounds for believing the recommendation is suitable for the customer to whom it is made. Banks are expected to meet the same high standards of competence, professionalism, and good faith regardless of the financial circumstances of the customer. , (c) In recommending to a customer the purchase, sale, or exchange of any government security, the bank shall have reasonable grounds for believing that the recommendation is suitable for the customer upon the basis of the facts, if any, disclosed by the customer as to the customer's other security holdings and financial situation and needs. , (d) The interpretation in this section concerns only the manner in which a bank determines that a recommendation is suitable for a particular institutional customer. The manner in which a bank fulfills this suitability obligation will vary, depending on the nature of the customer and the specific transaction. Accordingly, the interpretation in this section deals only with guidance regarding how a bank may fulfill customer-specific suitability obligations under § 368.4. 1<FTREF/>, 1 The interpretation in this section does not address the obligation related to suitability that requires that a bank have “ * * * a ‘reasonable basis’ to believe that the recommendation could be suitable for at least some customers.” In the Matter of the Application of F.J. Kaufman and Company of Virginia and Frederick J. Kaufman, Jr., 50 SEC 164 (1989)., (e) While it is difficult to define in advance the scope of a bank's suitability obligation with respect to a specific institutional customer transaction recommended by a bank, the FDIC has identified certain factors that may be relevant when considering compliance with § 368.4. These factors are not intended to be requirements or the only factors to be considered but are offered merely as guidance in determining the scope of a bank's suitability obligations. , (f) The two most important considerations in determining the scope of a bank's suitability obligations in making recommendations to an institutional customer are the customer's capability to evaluate investment risk independently and the extent to which the customer is exercising independent judgement in evaluating a bank's recommendation. A bank must determine, based on the information available to it, the customer's capability to evaluate investment risk. In some cases, the bank may conclude that the customer is not capable of making independent investment decisions in general. In other cases, the institutional customer may have general capability, but may not be able to understand a particular type of instrument or its risk. This is more likely to arise with relatively new types of instruments, or those with significantly different risk or volatility characteristics than other investments generally made by the institution. If a customer is either generally not capable of evaluating investment risk or lacks sufficient capability to evaluate the particular product, the scope of a bank's customer-specific obligations under § 368.4 would not be diminished by the fact that the bank was dealing with an institutional customer. On the other hand, the fact that a customer initially needed help understanding a potential investment need not necessarily imply that the customer did not ultimately develop an understanding and make an independent investment decision. , (g) A bank may conclude that a customer is exercising independent judgement if the customer's investment decision will be based on its own independent assessment of the opportunities and risks presented by a potential investment, market factors and other investment considerations. Where the bank has reasonable grounds for concluding that the institutional customer is making independent investment decisions and is capable of independently evaluating investment risk, then a bank's obligations under § 368.4 for a particular customer are fulfilled. 2<FTREF/> Where a customer has delegated decision-making authority to an agent, such as an investment advisor or a bank trust department, the interpretation in this section shall be applied to the agent. , 2 See footnote 1 in paragraph (d) of this section., (h) A determination of capability to evaluate investment risk independently will depend on an examination of the customer's capability to make its own investment decisions, including the resources available to the customer to make informed decisions. Relevant considerations could include: , (1) The use of one or more consultants, investment advisers, or bank trust departments; , (2) The general level of experience of the institutional customer in financial markets and specific experience with the type of instruments under consideration; , (3) The customer's ability to understand the economic features of the security involved; , (4) The customer's ability to independently evaluate how market developments would affect the security; and , (5) The complexity of the security or securities involved. , (i) A determination that a customer is making independent investment decisions will depend on the nature of the relationship that exists between the bank and the customer. Relevant considerations could include: , (1) Any written or oral understanding that exists between the bank and the customer regarding the nature of the relationship between the bank and the customer and the services to be rendered by the bank; , (2) The presence or absence of a pattern of acceptance of the bank's recommendations; , (3) The use by the customer of ideas, suggestions, market views and information obtained from other government securities brokers or dealers or market professionals, particularly those relating to the same type of securities; and , (4) The extent to which the bank has received from the customer current comprehensive portfolio information in connection with discussing recommended transactions or has not been provided important information regarding its portfolio or investment objectives. , (j) Banks are reminded that these factors are merely guidelines that will be utilized to determine whether a bank has fulfilled its suitability obligation with respect to a specific institutional customer transaction and that the inclusion or absence of any of these factors is not dispositive of the determination of suitability. Such a determination can only be made on a case-by-case basis taking into consideration all the facts and circumstances of a particular bank/customer relationship, assessed in the context of a particular transaction. , (k) For purposes of the interpretation in this section, an institutional customer shall be any entity other than a natural person. In determining the applicability of the interpretation in this section to an institutional customer, the FDIC will consider the dollar value of the securities that the institutional customer has in its portfolio and/or under management. While the interpretation in this section is potentially applicable to any institutional customer, the guidance contained in this section is more appropriately applied to an institutional customer with at least $10 million invested in securities in the aggregate in its portfolio and/or under management.

(a) As an alternative to filing a complaint under this part, an aggrieved individual may file a civil action in a United States district court under the ADEA against the agency after giving the Commission not less than 30 days' notice of the intent to file such an action. Such notice must be filed in writing with EEOC, at P.O. Box 77960, Washington, DC 20013, or by personal delivery or facsimile within 180 days of the occurrence of the alleged unlawful practice., (b) The Commission may exempt a position from the provisions of the ADEA if the Commission establishes a maximum age requirement for the position on the basis of a determination that age is a bona fide occupational qualification necessary to the performance of the duties of the position. , (c) When an individual has filed an administrative complaint alleging age discrimination, administrative remedies will be considered to be exhausted for purposes of filing a civil action:, (1) 180 days after the filing of an individual complaint if the Board has not taken final action and the individual has not filed an appeal or 180 days after the filing of a class complaint if the Board has not issued a final decision; , (2) After final action on an individual or class complaint if the individual has not filed an appeal; or , (3) After the issuance of a final decision by the Commission on an appeal or 180 days after the filing of an appeal, if the Commission has not issued a final decision.

(a) As authorized under sections 7.0 and 7.12 of the Act, a Farm Credit bank may merge or consolidate with one or more Farm Credit banks operating under the same or different titles of the Act., (b) The plan to merge or consolidate two or more Farm Credit banks is subject to the requirements of §§ 611.1122, 611.1123, and 611.1126 of this part, unless otherwise instructed by the FCA. In interpreting those sections, the phrase “Farm Credit bank(s)” will be read for the word “association(s)” and references to “funding bank” are to be ignored.

(a) As soon as practicable after taking possession of a Farm Credit institution the conservator shall make an inventory of the assets and liabilities of the institution as of the date possession was taken. One copy of the inventory shall be filed with the Farm Credit Administration. , (b) The institution in conservatorship shall be examined by the Farm Credit Administration in accordance with section 5.19 of the Act. The institution must also be audited by a qualified public accountant in accordance with part 621 of this chapter., (c) Each institution in conservatorship shall prepare and file with the Farm Credit Administration financial reports in accordance with the requirements of part 621 of this chapter. The conservator of the institution shall provide the certification required in § 621.14 of this chapter. , (d) Each institution in conservatorship must prepare and issue published financial reports in accordance with the provisions of part 620 of this chapter, and the certifications and signatures of the board of directors or management provided for in § 620.3 of this chapter must be provided by the conservator of the institution.

(a) As soon as practicable after taking possession of the Corporation, the conservator shall take an inventory of the assets and liabilities of the Corporation as of the date possession was taken. One copy of the inventory shall be filed with the Farm Credit Administration. , (b) The conservatorship shall be examined by the Farm Credit Administration in accordance with section 8.11 of the Act. , (c) The conservatorship shall prepare and file financial reports and other documents in accordance with the requirements of § 655.1 and part 621 of this chapter. The conservator of the Corporation shall provide the certification required in § 621.14 of this chapter.

(a) As soon as practicable after taking possession of the Corporation, the receiver shall take an inventory of the assets and liabilities as of the date possession was taken. , (b) The receivership shall be audited on an annual basis by a certified public accountant selected by the receiver. , (c) The receiver shall make an annual accounting or report, as appropriate, available for review upon request to any stockholder of the Corporation or any member of the public, with a copy provided to the Farm Credit Administration. , (d) As soon as practicable after final distribution, the receiver shall send to each stockholder of record a report summarizing the disposition of the assets of the receivership and claims against the receivership.

(a) As used in this subpart, the following terms shall have the meaning given in this section unless the context otherwise requires., (b)(1) Practice before the Board includes any matters connected with presentations to the Board or to any of its officers or employees relating to a client's rights, privileges or liabilities under laws or regulations administered by the Board. Such matters include, but are not limited to, the preparation of any statement, opinion or other paper or document by an attorney, accountant, or other licensed professional which is filed with, or submitted to, the Board, on behalf of another person in, or in connection with, any application, notification, report or document; the representation of a person at conferences, hearings and meetings; and the transaction of other business before the Board on behalf of another person., (2) Practice before the Board does not include work prepared for an institution solely at its request for use in the ordinary course of its business., (c) Attorney means any individual who is a member in good standing of the bar of the highest court of any state, possession, territory, commonwealth, or the District of Columbia., (d) Accountant means any individual who is duly qualified to practice as a certified public accountant or a public accountant in any state, possession, territory, commonwealth, or the District of Columbia.

(a) Assessment base for all insured depository institutions. Except as provided in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section, the assessment base for an insured depository institution shall equal the average consolidated total assets of the insured depository institution during the assessment period minus the average tangible equity of the insured depository institution during the assessment period., (1) Average consolidated total assets defined and calculated. Average consolidated total assets are defined in the schedule of quarterly averages in the Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income, using either a daily averaging method or a weekly averaging method as described in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) or (ii) of this section. The amounts to be reported as daily averages are the sum of the gross amounts of consolidated total assets for each calendar day during the quarter divided by the number of calendar days in the quarter. The amounts to be reported as weekly averages are the sum of the gross amounts of consolidated total assets for each Wednesday during the quarter divided by the number of Wednesdays in the quarter. For days that an office of the reporting institution (or any of its subsidiaries or branches) is closed (e.g., Saturdays, Sundays, or holidays), the amounts outstanding from the previous business day will be used. An office is considered closed if there are no transactions posted to the general ledger as of that date. For institutions that begin operating during the calendar quarter, the amounts to be reported as daily averages are the sum of the gross amounts of consolidated total assets for each calendar day the institution was operating during the quarter divided by the number of calendar days the institution was operating during the quarter., (i) Institutions that must report average consolidated total assets using a daily averaging method. All insured depository institutions that report $1 billion or more in quarter-end consolidated total assets on their March 31, 2011 Consolidated Report of Condition and Income or Thrift Financial Report (or successor report), and all institutions that become insured after March 31, 2011, shall report average consolidated total assets as of the close of business for each day of the calendar quarter., (ii) Institutions that may report average consolidated total assets using a weekly averaging method. All insured depository institutions that report less than $1 billion in quarter-end consolidated total assets on their March 31, 2011, Consolidated Report of Condition and Income or Thrift Financial Report may report average consolidated total assets as an average of the balances as of the close of business on each Wednesday during the calendar quarter, or may at any time opt permanently to report average consolidated total assets on a daily basis as set forth in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section. Once an institution that reports average consolidated total assets using a weekly average reports average consolidated total assets equal to or greater than $1 billion for two consecutive quarters, it shall permanently report average consolidated total assets using daily averaging starting in the next quarter., (iii) Mergers and consolidations. The average calculation of the assets of the surviving or resulting institution in a merger or consolidation shall include the assets of all the merged or consolidated institutions for the days in the quarter prior to the merger or consolidation, whether reported by the daily or weekly method., (2) Average tangible equity defined and calculated. Tangible equity is defined as Tier 1 capital., (i) Calculation of average tangible equity. Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section, average tangible equity shall be calculated using monthly averaging. Monthly averaging means the average of the three month-end balances within the quarter., (ii) Alternate calculation of average tangible equity. Institutions that report less than $1 billion in quarter-end consolidated total assets on their March 31, 2011 Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income or Thrift Financial Reports may report average tangible equity using an end-of-quarter balance or may at any time opt permanently to report average tangible equity using a monthly average balance. An institution that reports average tangible equity using an end-of-quarter balance and reports average daily or weekly consolidated assets of $1 billion or more for two consecutive quarters shall permanently report average tangible equity using monthly averaging starting in the next quarter. Newly insured institutions shall report using monthly averaging., (iii) Calculation of average tangible equity for the surviving institution in a merger or consolidation. For the surviving institution in a merger or consolidation, Tier 1 capital shall be calculated as if the merger occurred on the first day of the quarter in which the merger or consolidation occurred., (3) Consolidated subsidiaries - (i) Reporting for insured depository institutions with consolidated subsidiaries that are not insured depository institutions. For insured institutions with consolidated subsidiaries that are not insured depository institutions, assets, including assets eliminated in consolidation, shall be calculated using a daily or weekly averaging method, corresponding to the daily or weekly averaging requirement of the parent institution. The Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income instructions in effect for the quarter for which data is being reported shall govern calculation of the average amount of subsidiaries' assets, including those assets eliminated in consolidation. An insured depository institution that reports average tangible equity using a monthly averaging method and that has subsidiaries that are not insured depository institutions shall use monthly average reporting for the subsidiaries. The monthly average data for these subsidiaries, however, may be calculated for the current quarter or for the prior quarter consistent with the method used to report average consolidated total assets and in conformity with Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income requirements. Once the method of reporting the subsidiaries' assets and tangible equity is chosen, however (current quarter or prior quarter), insured depository institutions cannot change the reporting method from quarter to quarter. An institution that reports consolidated assets and tangible equity using data for the prior quarter may switch to concurrent reporting on a permanent basis., (ii) Reporting for insured depository institutions with consolidated insured depository subsidiaries. Insured depository institutions that consolidate with other insured depository institutions for financial reporting purposes shall report for the parent and for each subsidiary individually, daily average consolidated total assets or weekly average consolidated total assets, as appropriate under paragraph (a)(1)(i) or (ii) above, and tangible equity, without consolidating their insured depository institution subsidiaries into the calculations. Investments in insured depository institution subsidiaries should be included in total assets using the equity method of accounting., (b) Assessment base for banker's banks - (1) Bankers bank defined. A banker's bank for purposes of calculating deposit insurance assessments shall meet the definition of banker's bank as that term is used in 12 U.S.C. 24. Banker's banks that have funds from government capital infusion programs (such as TARP and the Small Business Lending Fund), and stock owned by the FDIC resulting from banks failures, as well as non-bank-owned stock resulting from equity compensation programs, are not thereby excluded from the definition of banker's banks., (2) Self-certification. Institutions that meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section shall so certify to that effect each quarter on the Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income or Thrift Financial Report or successor report., (3) Assessment base calculation for banker's banks. A banker's bank shall pay deposit insurance assessments on its assessment base as calculated in paragraph (a) of this section provided that it conducts 50 percent or more of its business with entities other than its parent holding company or entities other than those controlled (control has the same meaning as in section 3(w)(5) of the FDI Act) either directly or indirectly by its parent holding company. The assessment base will exclude the average (daily or weekly depending on how the institution calculates its average consolidated total assets) amount of reserve balances passed through to the Federal Reserve, the average amount of reserve balances held at the Federal Reserve for its own account (including all balances due from the Federal Reserve as described in the instructions to line 4 of Schedule RC-A of the Consolidated Report of Condition and Income as of December 31, 2010), and the average amount of the institution's federal funds sold, but in no case shall the amount excluded exceed the sum of the bank's average amount of total deposits of commercial banks and other depository institutions in the United States and the average amount of its federal funds purchased., (c) Assessment base for custodial banks - (1) Custodial bank defined. A custodial bank for purposes of calculating deposit insurance assessments shall be an insured depository institution with previous calendar-year trust assets (fiduciary and custody and safekeeping assets, as described in the instructions to Schedule RC-T of the Consolidated Report of Condition and Income) of at least $50 billion or an insured depository institution that derived more than 50 percent of its total revenue (interest income plus non-interest income) from trust activity over the previous calendar year., (2) Assessment base calculation for custodial banks. A custodial bank shall pay deposit insurance assessments on its assessment base as calculated in paragraph (a) of this section, but the FDIC will exclude from that assessment base the daily or weekly average (depending on how the bank reports its average consolidated total assets) of all asset types described in the instructions to lines 1, 2, and 3 of Schedule RC of the Consolidated Report of Condition and Income with a standardized approach risk weight of 0 percent, regardless of maturity, plus 50 percent of those asset types described in the instructions to lines 1, 2, and 3 of Schedule RC of the Consolidated Report of Condition and Income, with a standardized approach risk-weight greater than 0 and up to and including 20 percent, regardless of maturity, subject to the limitation that the daily or weekly average (depending on how the bank reports its average consolidated total assets) value of all assets that serve as the basis for a deduction under this section cannot exceed the daily or weekly average value of those deposits that are classified as transaction accounts in the instructions to Schedule RC-E of the Consolidated Report of Condition and Income and that are identified by the institution as being directly linked to a fiduciary or custodial and safekeeping account asset., (d) Assessment base for insured branches of foreign banks. Average consolidated total assets for an insured branch of a foreign bank are defined as total assets of the branch (including net due from related depository institutions) in accordance with the schedule of assets and liabilities in the Report of Assets and Liabilities of U.S. Branches and Agencies of Foreign Banks as of the assessment period for which the assessment is being calculated, but measured using the definition for reporting total assets in the schedule of quarterly averages in the Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income, and calculated using the appropriate daily or weekly averaging method under paragraph (a)(1)(i) or (ii) of this section. Tangible equity for an insured branch of a foreign bank is eligible assets (determined in accordance with § 347.210 of the FDIC's regulations) less the book value of liabilities (exclusive of liabilities due to the foreign bank's head office, other branches, agencies, offices, or wholly owned subsidiaries) calculated on a monthly or end-of-quarter basis, according to the branch's size., (e) Newly insured institutions. A newly insured institution shall pay an assessment for the assessment period during which it became insured. The FDIC will prorate the newly insured institution's assessment amount to reflect the number of days it was insured during the period.

(a) Assessment of fees, generally. FHFA will assess you for fees covering the direct costs of responding to your request and costs for duplicating records, except as otherwise provided in a statute with respect to the determination of fees that may be assessed for disclosure, search time, or review of particular records., (b) Assessment of fees, categories of requesters. The fees that FHFA may assess vary depending on the type of request or the type of requester you are - , (1) Commercial use. If you request records for a commercial use, the fees that FHFA may assess are limited to FHFA's operating costs incurred for document search, review, and duplication., (2) Educational institution, noncommercial scientific institution, or representative of the news media. If you are not requesting records for commercial use and you are an educational institution or a noncommercial scientific institution, whose purpose is scholarly or scientific research, or a representative of the news media, the fees that may be assessed are limited to standard reasonable charges for duplication in excess of 100 pages or an electronic equivalent of 100 pages., (3) Other. If neither paragraph (b)(1) nor paragraph (b)(2) of this section applies, the fees assessed are limited to the costs for document searching in excess of two hours and duplication in excess of 100 pages, or an electronic equivalent of 100 pages., (c) Fee schedule. FHFA will charge fees for processing requests under the FOIA in accordance with the provisions of this section and OMB guidelines (basic pay plus 16 percent). There are three different groups of grades typically involved in processing FOIA requests: Personnel in grades EL-6 to EL-9; personnel in grades EL-10 to EL-13; and personnel EL-14 and above. FHFA's Web site, www.fhfa.gov, will contain current rates for search and review fees for each group. The rates will be updated as salaries change and will be determined by using the formula in this regulation. The formula is the sum of the mid-point of each grade divided by the number of grades in each category divided by 2088 and then multiplied by 1.16.1<FTREF/> Fees for searches of computerized records are based on the actual cost to FHFA. For requests that require the retrieval of records stored by FHFA at a Federal records center operated by the National Archives and Records Administration, FHFA will charge additional costs in accordance with the Transaction Billing Rate Schedule established by NARA., 1 Example of the rate formula is as follows: For 2016, EL-6 to EL-9 is ($55,769 + $63,554 + $71,816 + $81,152)/41/2088 hours per year1.16 OMB markup factor = $37.82 per hour., (d) Notice of anticipated fees in excess of $25.00. When FHFA determines or estimates that the fees chargeable to you will exceed $25.00, you will be notified of the actual or estimated amount of fees you will incur, unless you earlier indicated your willingness to pay fees as high as those anticipated. When you are notified that the actual or estimated fees exceed $25.00, your request will be tolled until you agree to pay, in writing, the anticipated total fee., (e) Advance payment of fees. FHFA may request that you pay estimated fees or a deposit in advance of responding to your request. If FHFA requests advance payment or a deposit, your request will be tolled by FHFA until the advance payment or deposit is received. FHFA may request advance payment or a deposit if - , (1) The fees are likely to exceed $250.00;, (2) You do not have a history of payment;, (3) You previously failed to pay a FOIA fee to FHFA in a timely fashion, i.e., within 30 calendar days of the date of a billing; or, (4) You have an outstanding balance due from a prior request. FHFA will require you to pay the full amount owed plus any applicable interest, as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, or demonstrate that the fee owed has been paid, as well as payment of the full amount of anticipated fees before processing your request., (f) Interest. FHFA may charge you interest on an unpaid bill starting on the 31st calendar day following the day on which the bill was sent. Once a fee payment has been received by FHFA, even if not processed, FHFA will stay the accrual of interest. Interest charges will be assessed at the rate prescribed by 31 U.S.C. 3717 and will accrue from the date of the billing., (g) FHFA assistance to reduce costs. If FHFA notifies you of estimated fees exceeding $100.00 or requests advance payment or a deposit, you will have an opportunity to consult with FHFA FOIA staff to modify or reformulate your request to meet your needs at a lower cost., (h) Fee waiver requests. You may request a fee waiver in accordance with the FOIA and this regulation. Requests for a waiver of fees must be made in writing and should be made at the time you submit your FOIA request. However, your fee waiver may be submitted at a later time so long as the underlying record request is pending or on administrative appeal. FHFA may grant your fee waiver request or a reduction of fees if disclosure of the information is in the public interest because it is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the Federal Government and is not primarily in your commercial interest. In submitting a fee waiver request, you must address the following six factors - , (1) Whether the subject of the requested records concerns the operations or activities of the Federal Government. The subject of the request must concern identifiable operations or activities of the Federal Government with a connection that is direct and clear, not remote or attenuated;, (2) Whether the disclosure is likely to contribute significantly to the public understanding of Federal Government operations or activities. This factor is satisfied when the following criteria are met:, (i) Disclosure of the requested information must be meaningfully informative about government operations or activities. The disclosure of information that already is in the public domain, in either the same or a substantially identical form, would not be meaningfully informative if nothing new would be added to the public's understanding; and, (ii) The disclosure must contribute to the understanding of a reasonably broad audience of persons interested in the subject, as opposed to your individual understanding. Your expertise in the subject area as well as your ability and intention to effectively convey information to the public must be considered. FHFA will presume that a representative of the news media will satisfy this consideration., (3) The disclosure must not be primarily in your commercial interest. To determine whether disclosure of the requested information is primarily in your commercial interest FHFA will consider the following criteria:, (i) FHFA will determine whether you have any commercial interest that would be furthered by the requested disclosure. A commercial interest includes any commercial, trade, or profit interest. You will be given an opportunity to provide explanatory information regarding this consideration; and, (ii) If there is an identified commercial interest, FHFA will determine whether that is the primary interest furthered by the request., (i) Fee Waiver determination. FHFA will notify you within 20 days of receipt of your request whether the fee waiver has been granted. Where only some of the records to be released satisfy the requirements for a waiver of fees, a waiver will be granted for those records. For those records that do not satisfy the requirements for a waiver of fees, you may be charged for those records. When you have committed to pay fees and subsequently ask for a waiver of those fees and that waiver is denied, you must pay any costs incurred up to the date the fee waiver request was received. A request for fee waiver that is denied may only be appealed when a final decision has been made on the initial FOIA request., (j) Restrictions on charging fees. (1) When FHFA determines that you are an educational institution, non-commercial scientific institution, or representative of the news media, and the records are not sought for commercial use, FHFA will not charge search fees., (2)(i) If FHFA fails to comply with the FOIA's time limits in which to respond to your request, FHFA will not charge search fees, or, in the instances of requests from requesters described in paragraph (j)(1) of this section, will not charge duplication fees, except as described in paragraphs (j)(2)(ii) through (iv) of this section., (ii) If FHFA has determined that unusual circumstances as defined by the FOIA apply and FHFA has provided timely written notice to you in accordance with the FOIA, FHFA's failure to comply with the time limit will be excused for an additional 10 days., (iii) If FHFA determines that unusual circumstances, as defined by the FOIA, apply and more than 5,000 pages are necessary to respond to your request, FHFA may charge search fees, or, in the case of a requester described in paragraph (j)(1) of this section, may charge duplication fees, if the following steps are taken. FHFA must have provided timely written notice of unusual circumstances to you in accordance with the FOIA and FHFA must have discussed with you via written mail, email, or telephone (or made not less than three good-faith attempts to do so) how you could effectively limit the scope of your request in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B)(ii). If this exception is satisfied, FHFA may charge all applicable fees incurred in the processing of the request., (iv) If a court has determined that exceptional circumstances exist, as defined by the FOIA, a failure to comply with the time limits shall be excused for the length of time provided by the court order., (3) No search or review fees will be charged for a quarter-hour period unless more than half of that period is required for search or review., (4) If you seek records for a commercial use, FHFA will provide without charge:, (i) The first 100 pages of duplication (or the cost equivalent for other media); and, (ii) The first two hours of search., (5) No fee will be charged when the total fee, after deducting the 100 free pages (or its cost equivalent) and the first two hours of search, is equal to or less than $25.00., (k) Additional resource. The FOIA Public Liaison or other FOIA contact is available to assist you in modifying or reformulating a request to meet your needs at a lower cost. FHFA will also notify you of the availability of OGIS to provide dispute resolution service.

(a) Assessment rate schedules before the reserve ratio of the DIF reaches 1.15 percent - (1) Applicability. The assessment rate schedules in paragraph (a) of this section will cease to be applicable when the reserve ratio of the DIF first reaches 1.15 percent., (2) Initial Base Assessment Rate Schedule. Before the reserve ratio of the DIF reaches 1.15 percent, the initial base assessment rate for an insured depository institution shall be the rate prescribed in the following schedule:, <P class="gpotbl_title">Initial Base Assessment Rate Schedule Before the Reserve Ratio of the DIF Reaches 1.15 Percent, <P class="gpotbl_note">* All amounts for all risk categories are in basis points annually. Initial base rates that are not the minimum or maximum rate will vary between these rates., (i) Risk Category I Initial Base Assessment Rate Schedule. The annual initial base assessment rates for all institutions in Risk Category I shall range from 5 to 9 basis points., (ii) Risk Category II, III, and IV Initial Base Assessment Rate Schedule. The annual initial base assessment rates for Risk Categories II, III, and IV shall be 14, 23, and 35 basis points, respectively., (iii) All institutions in any one risk category, other than Risk Category I, will be charged the same initial base assessment rate, subject to adjustment as appropriate., (iv) Large and Highly Complex Institutions Initial Base Assessment Rate Schedule. The annual initial base assessment rates for all large and highly complex institutions shall range from 5 to 35 basis points., (3) Total Base Assessment Rate Schedule after Adjustments. Before the reserve ratio of the DIF reaches 1.15 percent, the total base assessment rates after adjustments for an insured depository institution shall be as prescribed in the following schedule., <P class="gpotbl_title">Total Base Assessment Rate Schedule (After Adjustments)* Before the Reserve Ratio of the DIF Reaches 1.15 Percent **, <P class="gpotbl_note">* All amounts for all risk categories are in basis points annually. Total base rates that are not the minimum or maximum rate will vary between these rates., <P class="gpotbl_note">** Total base assessment rates do not include the depository institution debt adjustment., (i) Risk Category I Total Base Assessment Rate Schedule. The annual total base assessment rates for all institutions in Risk Category I shall range from 2.5 to 9 basis points., (ii) Risk Category II Total Base Assessment Rate Schedule. The annual total base assessment rates for Risk Category II shall range from 9 to 24 basis points., (iii) Risk Category III Total Base Assessment Rate Schedule. The annual total base assessment rates for Risk Category III shall range from 18 to 33 basis points., (iv) Risk Category IV Total Base Assessment Rate Schedule. The annual total base assessment rates for Risk Category IV shall range from 30 to 45 basis points., (v) Large and Highly Complex Institutions Total Base Assessment Rate Schedule. The annual total base assessment rates for all large and highly complex institutions shall range from 2.5 to 45 basis points., (b) Assessment rate schedules for established small institutions and large and highly complex institutions applicable in the first assessment period after June 30, 2016, where the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period has reached or exceeded 1.15 percent, and in all subsequent assessment periods where the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period is less than 2 percent., (1) Initial base assessment rate schedule for established small institutions and large and highly complex institutions. In the first assessment period after June 30, 2016, where the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period has reached or exceeded 1.15 percent, and for all subsequent assessment periods where the reserve ratio as of the end of the prior assessment period is less than 2 percent, the initial base assessment rate for established small institutions and large and highly complex institutions, except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, shall be the rate prescribed in the following schedule:, <P class="gpotbl_title">Initial Base Assessment Rate Schedule Beginning the First Assessment Period After June 30, 2016, Where the Reserve Ratio as of the End of the Prior Assessment Period Has Reached 1.15 Percent, and for All Subsequent Assessment Periods Where the Reserve Ratio as of the End of the Prior Assessment Period Is Less Than 2 Percent ¹, <P class="gpotbl_note">¹ All amounts for all risk categories are in basis points annually. Initial base rates that are not the minimum or maximum rate will vary between these rates., (i) CAMELS composite 1- and 2-rated established small institutions initial base assessment rate schedule. The annual initial base assessment rates for all established small institutions with a CAMELS composite rating of 1 or 2 shall range from 3 to 16 basis points., (ii) CAMELS composite 3-rated established small institutions initial base assessment rate schedule. The annual initial base assessment rates for all established small institutions with a CAMELS composite rating of 3 shall range from 6 to 30 basis points., (iii) CAMELS composite 4- and 5-rated established small institutions initial base assessment rate schedule. The annual initial base assessment rates for all established small institutions with a CAMELS composite rating of 4 or 5 shall range from 16 to 30 basis points., (iv) Large and highly complex institutions initial base assessment rate schedule. The annual initial base assessment rates for all large and highly complex institutions shall range from 3 to 30 basis points., (2) Total base assessment rate schedule after adjustments. In the first assessment period after June 30, 2016, that the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period has reached or exceeded 1.15 percent, and for all subsequent assessment periods where the reserve ratio for the prior assessment period is less than 2 percent, the total base assessment rates after adjustments for established small institutions and large and highly complex institutions, except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, shall be as prescribed in the following schedule:, <P class="gpotbl_title">Total Base Assessment Rate Schedule (After Adjustments) ¹ Beginning the First Assessment Period After June 30, 2016, Where the Reserve Ratio as of the End of the Prior Assessment Period Has Reached 1.15 Percent, and for All Subsequent Assessment Periods Where the Reserve Ratio as of the End of the Prior Assessment Period Is Less Than 2 Percent ², <P class="gpotbl_note">¹ The depository institution debt adjustment, which is not included in the table, can increase total base assessment rates above the maximum assessment rates shown in the table., <P class="gpotbl_note">² All amounts for all risk categories are in basis points annually. Total base rates that are not the minimum or maximum rate will vary between these rates., (i) CAMELS composite 1- and 2-rated established small institutions total base assessment rate schedule. The annual total base assessment rates for all established small institutions with a CAMELS composite rating of 1 or 2 shall range from 1.5 to 16 basis points., (ii) CAMELS composite 3-rated established small institutions total base assessment rate schedule. The annual total base assessment rates for all established small institutions with a CAMELS composite rating of 3 shall range from 3 to 30 basis points., (iii) CAMELS composite 4- and 5-rated established small institutions total base assessment rate schedule. The annual total base assessment rates for all established small institutions with a CAMELS composite rating of 4 or 5 shall range from 11 to 30 basis points., (iv) Large and highly complex institutions total base assessment rate schedule. The annual total base assessment rates for all large and highly complex institutions shall range from 1.5 to 40 basis points., (c) Assessment rate schedules if the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period is equal to or greater than 2 percent and less than 2.5 percent - (1) Initial base assessment rate schedule for established small institutions and large and highly complex institutions. If the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period is equal to or greater than 2 percent and less than 2.5 percent, the initial base assessment rate for established small institutions and large and highly complex institutions, except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, shall be the rate prescribed in the following schedule:, <P class="gpotbl_title">Initial Base Assessment Rate Schedule if the Reserve Ratio as of the End of the Prior Assessment Period Is Equal to or Greater Than 2 Percent But Less Than 2.5 Percent ¹, <P class="gpotbl_note">¹ All amounts for all risk categories are in basis points annually. Initial base rates that are not the minimum or maximum rate will vary between these rates., (i) CAMELS composite 1- and 2-rated established small institutions initial base assessment rate schedule. The annual initial base assessment rates for all established small institutions with a CAMELS composite rating of 1 or 2 shall range from 2 to 14 basis points., (ii) CAMELS composite 3-rated established small institutions initial base assessment rate schedule. The annual initial base assessment rates for all established small institutions with a CAMELS composite rating of 3 shall range from 5 to 28 basis points., (iii) CAMELS composite 4- and 5-rated established small institutions initial base assessment rate schedule. The annual initial base assessment rates for all established small institutions with a CAMELS composite rating of 4 or 5 shall range from 14 to 28 basis points., (iv) Large and highly complex institutions initial base assessment rate schedule. The annual initial base assessment rates for all large and highly complex institutions shall range from 2 to 28 basis points., (2) Total base assessment rate schedule after adjustments for established small institutions and large and highly complex institutions. If the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period is equal to or greater than 2 percent and less than 2.5 percent, the total base assessment rates after adjustments for established small institutions and large and highly complex institutions, except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, shall be as prescribed in the following schedule:, <P class="gpotbl_title">Total Base Assessment Rate Schedule (After Adjustments) ¹ If the Reserve Ratio as of the End of the Prior Assessment Period Is Equal To or Greater Than 2 Percent but Less Than 2.5 Percent ², <P class="gpotbl_note">¹ The depository institution debt adjustment, which is not included in the table, can increase total base assessment rates above the maximum assessment rates shown in the table., <P class="gpotbl_note">² All amounts for all risk categories are in basis points annually. Total base rates that are not the minimum or maximum rate will vary between these rates., (i) CAMELS composite 1- and 2-rated established small institutions total base assessment rate schedule. The annual total base assessment rates for all established small institutions with a CAMELS composite rating of 1 or 2 shall range from 1 to 14 basis points., (ii) CAMELS composite 3-rated established small institutions total base assessment rate schedule. The annual total base assessment rates for all established small institutions with a CAMELS composite rating of 3 shall range from 2.5 to 28 basis points., (iii) CAMELS composite 4- and 5-rated established small institutions total base assessment rate schedule. The annual total base assessment rates for all established small institutions with a CAMELS composite rating of 4 or 5 shall range from 9 to 28 basis points., (iv) Large and highly complex institutions total base assessment rate schedule. The annual total base assessment rates for all large and highly complex institutions shall range from 1 to 38 basis points., (d) Assessment rate schedules if the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period is greater than 2.5 percent - (1) Initial base assessment rate schedule. If the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period is greater than 2.5 percent, the initial base assessment rate for established small institutions and large and highly complex institutions, except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, shall be the rate prescribed in the following schedule:, <P class="gpotbl_title">Initial Base Assessment Rate Schedule if the Reserve Ratio as of the End of the Prior Assessment Period Is Greater Than or Equal to 2.5 Percent ¹, <P class="gpotbl_note">¹ All amounts for all risk categories are in basis points annually. Initial base rates that are not the minimum or maximum rate will vary between these rates., (i) CAMELS composite 1- and 2-rated established small institutions initial base assessment rate schedule. The annual initial base assessment rates for all established small institutions with a CAMELS composite rating of 1 or 2 shall range from 1 to 13 basis points., (ii) CAMELS composite 3-rated established small institutions initial base assessment rate schedule. The annual initial base assessment rates for all established small institutions with a CAMELS composite rating of 3 shall range from 4 to 25 basis points., (iii) CAMELS composite 4- and 5-rated established small institutions initial base assessment rate schedule. The annual initial base assessment rates for all established small institutions with a CAMELS composite rating of 4 or 5 shall range from 13 to 25 basis points., (iv) Large and highly complex institutions initial base assessment rate schedule. The annual initial base assessment rates for all large and highly complex institutions shall range from 1 to 25 basis points., (2) Total base assessment rate schedule after adjustments. If the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period is greater than 2.5 percent, the total base assessment rates after adjustments for established small institutions and large and highly complex institutions, except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, shall be the rate prescribed in the following schedule:, <P class="gpotbl_title">Total Base Assessment Rate Schedule (After Adjustments) ¹ If the Reserve Ratio as ofthe End of the Prior Assessment Period is Greater Than or Equal to 2.5 Percent ², <P class="gpotbl_note">¹ The depository institution debt adjustment, which is not included in the table, can increase total base assessment rates above the maximum assessment rates shown in the table., <P class="gpotbl_note">² All amounts for all risk categories are in basis points annually. Total base rates that are not the minimum or maximum rate will vary between these rates., (i) CAMELS composite 1- and 2-rated established small institutions total base assessment rate schedule. The annual total base assessment rates for all established small institutions with a CAMELS composite rating of 1 or 2 shall range from 0.5 to 13 basis points., (ii) CAMELS composite 3-rated established small institutions total base assessment rate schedule. The annual total base assessment rates for all established small institutions with a CAMELS composite rating of 3 shall range from 2 to 25 basis points., (iii) CAMELS composite 4- and 5-rated established small institutions total base assessment rate schedule. The annual total base assessment rates for all established small institutions with a CAMELS composite rating of 4 or 5 shall range from 8 to 25 basis points., (iv) Large and highly complex institutions total base assessment rate schedule. The annual total base assessment rates for all large and highly complex institutions shall range from 0.5 to 35 basis points., (e) Assessment rate schedules for new institutions and insured branches of foreign banks. (1) New depository institutions, as defined in § 327.8(j), shall be subject to the assessment rate schedules as follows:, (i) Prior to the reserve ratio of the DIF first reaching 1.15 percent on or after June 30, 2016. Prior to the reserve ratio of the DIF reaching 1.15 percent for the first time on or after June 30, 2016, all new institutions shall be subject to the initial and total base assessment rate schedules provided for in paragraph (a) of this section., (ii) Assessment rate schedules for new large and highly complex institutions once the DIF reserve ratio first reaches 1.15 percent on or after June 30, 2016. In the first assessment period after June 30, 2016, where the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period has reached or exceeded 1.15 percent, and for all subsequent assessment periods, even if the reserve ratio equals or exceeds 2 percent or 2.5 percent, new large and new highly complex institutions shall be subject to the initial and total base assessment rate schedules provided for in paragraph (b) of this section., (iii) Assessment rate schedules for new small institutions beginning the first assessment period after June 30, 2016, where the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period has reached or exceeded 1.15 percent, and for all subsequent assessment periods - (A) Initial base assessment rate schedule for new small institutions. In the first assessment period after June 30, 2016, where the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period has reached or exceeded 1.15 percent, and for all subsequent assessment periods, the initial base assessment rate for a new small institution shall be the rate prescribed in the following schedule, even if the reserve ratio equals or exceeds 2 percent or 2.5 percent:, <P class="gpotbl_title">Initial Base Assessment Rate Schedule Beginning the First Assessment Period After June 30, 2016,Where the Reserve Ratio as of the End of the Prior Assessment Period Has Reached 1.15 Percent,and For All Subsequent Assessment Periods ¹, <P class="gpotbl_note">¹ All amounts for all risk categories are in basis points annually., (1) Risk category I initial base assessment rate schedule. The annual initial base assessment rates for all new small institutions in Risk Category I shall be 7 basis points., (2) Risk category II, III, and IV initial base assessment rate schedule. The annual initial base assessment rates for all new small institutions in Risk Categories II, III, and IV shall be 12, 19, and 30 basis points, respectively., (B) Total base assessment rate schedule for new small institutions. In the first assessment period after June 30, 2016, that the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period has reached or exceeded 1.15 percent, and for all subsequent assessment periods, the total base assessment rates after adjustments for a new small institution shall be the rate prescribed in the following schedule, even if the reserve ratio equals or exceeds 2 percent or 2.5 percent:, <P class="gpotbl_title">Total Base Assessment Rate Schedule (After Adjustments) ¹ Beginningthe First Assessment Period After June 30, 2016, Where the Reserve Ratio as of the End of the Prior Assessment Period Has Reached 1.15 Percent, and for All Subsequent Assessment Periods Where the Reserve Ratio as of the End of the Prior Assessment Period Is Less Than 2 Percent ², <P class="gpotbl_note">¹ The depository institution debt adjustment, which is not included in the table, can increase total base assessment rates above the maximum assessment rates shown in the table., <P class="gpotbl_note">² All amounts for all risk categories are in basis points annually. Total base rates that are not the minimum or maximum rate will vary between these rates., (1) Risk category I total assessment rate schedule. The annual total base assessment rates for all new small institutions in Risk Category I shall be 7 basis points., (2) Risk category II total assessment rate schedule. The annual total base assessment rates for all new small institutions in Risk Category II shall range from 12 to 22 basis points., (3) Risk category III total assessment rate schedule. The annual total base assessment rates for all new small institutions in Risk Category III shall range from 19 to 29 basis points., (4) Risk category IV total assessment rate schedule. The annual total base assessment rates for all new small institutions in Risk Category IV shall range from 30 to 40 basis points., (2) Insured branches of foreign banks - (i) Beginning the first assessment period after June 30, 2016, where the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period has reached or exceeded 1.15 percent, and for all subsequent assessment periods where the reserve ratio as of the end of the prior assessment period is less than 2 percent. In the first assessment period after June 30, 2016, where the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period has reached or exceeded 1.15 percent, and for all subsequent assessment periods where the reserve ratio as of the end of the prior assessment period is less than 2 percent, the initial and total base assessment rates for an insured branch of a foreign bank, except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, shall be the rate prescribed in the following schedule:, <P class="gpotbl_title">Initial and Total Base Assessment Rate Schedule ¹ Beginning the First Assessment Period After June 30, 2016, Where the Reserve Ratio as of the End of the Prior Assessment Period Has Reached 1.15 Percent, and for All Subsequent Assessment Periods Where the Reserve Ratio as of the End of the Prior Assessment Period Is Less Than 2 Percent ², <P class="gpotbl_note">¹ The depository institution debt adjustment, which is not included in the table, can increase total base assessment rates above the maximum assessment rates shown in the table., <P class="gpotbl_note">² All amounts for all risk categories are in basis points annually. Initial and total base rates that are not the minimum or maximum rate will vary between these rates., (A) Risk category I initial and total base assessment rate schedule. The annual initial and total base assessment rates for an insured branch of a foreign bank in Risk Category I shall range from 3 to 7 basis points., (B) Risk category II, III, and IV initial and total base assessment rate schedule. The annual initial and total base assessment rates for Risk Categories II, III, and IV shall be 12, 19, and 30 basis points, respectively., (C) All insured branches of foreign banks in any one risk category, other than Risk Category I, will be charged the same initial base assessment rate, subject to adjustment as appropriate., (ii) Assessment rate schedule for insured branches of foreign banks if the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period is equal to or greater than 2 percent and less than 2.5 percent. If the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period is equal to or greater than 2 percent and less than 2.5 percent, the initial and total base assessment rates for an insured branch of a foreign bank, except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, shall be the rate prescribed in the following schedule:, <P class="gpotbl_title">Initial and Total Base Assessment Rate Schedule ¹ if the Reserve Ratio as of the End of the Prior Assessment Period is Equal to or Greater Than 2 Percent but Less Than 2.5 Percent ², <P class="gpotbl_note">¹ The depository institution debt adjustment, which is not included in the table, can increase total base assessment rates above the maximum assessment rates shown in the table., <P class="gpotbl_note">² All amounts for all risk categories are in basis points annually. Initial and total base rates that are not the minimum or maximum rate will vary between these rates., (A) Risk category I initial and total base assessment rate schedule. The annual initial and total base assessment rates for an insured branch of a foreign bank in Risk Category I shall range from 2 to 6 basis points., (B) Risk category II, III, and IV initial and total base assessment rate schedule. The annual initial and total base assessment rates for Risk Categories II, III, and IV shall be 10, 17, and 28 basis points, respectively., (C) All insured branches of foreign banks in any one risk category, other than Risk Category I, will be charged the same initial base assessment rate, subject to adjustment as appropriate., (iii) Assessment rate schedule for insured branches of foreign banks if the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period is greater than 2.5 percent. If the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period is greater than 2.5 percent, the initial and total base assessment rate for an insured branch of foreign bank, except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, shall be the rate prescribed in the following schedule:, <P class="gpotbl_title">Initial and Total Base Assessment Rate Schedule ¹ If the Reserve Ratio as of the End of the Prior Assessment Period Is Greater Than or Equal to 2.5 Percent ², <P class="gpotbl_note">¹ The depository institution debt adjustment, which is not included in the table, can increase total base assessment rates above the maximum assessment rates shown in the table., <P class="gpotbl_note">² All amounts for all risk categories are in basis points annually. Initial and total base rates that are not the minimum or maximum rate will vary between these rates., (A) Risk category I initial and total base assessment rate schedule. The annual initial and total base assessment rates for an insured branch of a foreign bank in Risk Category I shall range from 1 to 5 basis points., (B) Risk category II, III, and IV initial and total base assessment rate schedule. The annual initial and total base assessment rates for Risk Categories II, III, and IV shall be 9, 15, and 25 basis points, respectively., (C) All insured branches of foreign banks in any one risk category, other than Risk Category I, will be charged the same initial base assessment rate, subject to adjustment as appropriate., (f) Total base assessment rate schedule adjustments and procedures - (1) Board rate adjustments. The Board may increase or decrease the total base assessment rate schedule in paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section up to a maximum increase of 2 basis points or a fraction thereof or a maximum decrease of 2 basis points or a fraction thereof (after aggregating increases and decreases), as the Board deems necessary. Any such adjustment shall apply uniformly to each rate in the total base assessment rate schedule. In no case may such rate adjustments result in a total base assessment rate that is mathematically less than zero or in a total base assessment rate schedule that, at any time, is more than 2 basis points above or below the total base assessment schedule for the Deposit Insurance Fund in effect pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, nor may any one such adjustment constitute an increase or decrease of more than 2 basis points., (2) Amount of revenue. In setting assessment rates, the Board shall take into consideration the following:, (i) Estimated operating expenses of the Deposit Insurance Fund;, (ii) Case resolution expenditures and income of the Deposit Insurance Fund;, (iii) The projected effects of assessments on the capital and earnings of the institutions paying assessments to the Deposit Insurance Fund;, (iv) The risk factors and other factors taken into account pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1817(b)(1); and, (v) Any other factors the Board may deem appropriate., (3) Adjustment procedure. Any adjustment adopted by the Board pursuant to this paragraph (f) will be adopted by rulemaking, except that the Corporation may set assessment rates as necessary to manage the reserve ratio, within set parameters not exceeding cumulatively 2 basis points, pursuant to paragraph (f)(1) of this section, without further rulemaking., (4) Announcement. The Board shall announce the assessment schedules and the amount and basis for any adjustment thereto not later than 30 days before the quarterly certified statement invoice date specified in § 327.3(b) for the first assessment period for which the adjustment shall be effective. Once set, rates will remain in effect until changed by the Board.

(a) Assessment risk assignment. For the purpose of determining the annual assessment rate for insured depository institutions under § 327.9 or § 327.16 , each insured depository institution will be provided an assessment risk assignment. Notice of an institution's current assessment risk assignment will be provided to the institution with each quarterly certified statement invoice. Adjusted assessment risk assignments for prior periods may also be provided by the Corporation. Notice of the procedures applicable to reviews will be included with the notice of assessment risk assignment provided pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section., (b) Payment of assessment at rate assigned. Institutions shall make timely payment of assessments based on the assessment risk assignment in the notice provided to the institution pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section. Timely payment is required notwithstanding any request for review filed pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section. Assessment risk assignments remain in effect for future assessment periods until changed. If the risk assignment in the notice is subsequently changed, any excess assessment paid by the institution will be credited by the Corporation, with interest, and any additional assessment owed shall be paid by the institution, with interest, in the next assessment payment after such subsequent assignment or change. Interest payable under this paragraph shall be determined in accordance with § 327.7., (c) Requests for review. An institution that believes any assessment risk assignment provided by the Corporation pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section is incorrect and seeks to change it must submit a written request for review of that risk assignment. An institution cannot request review through this process of the CAMELS ratings assigned by its primary federal regulator or challenge the appropriateness of any such rating; each federal regulator has established procedures for that purpose. An institution may also request review of a determination by the FDIC to assess the institution as a large, highly complex, or a small institution (§§ 327.9(e)(3) and 327.16(f)(3)) or a determination by the FDIC that the institution is a new institution (§§ 327.9(f)(5) and 327.16(g)(5)). Any request for review must be submitted within 90 days from the date the assessment risk assignment being challenged pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section appears on the institution's quarterly certified statement invoice. The request shall be submitted to the Corporation's Director of the Division of Insurance and Research in Washington, DC, and shall include documentation sufficient to support the change sought by the institution. If additional information is requested by the Corporation, such information shall be provided by the institution within 21 days of the date of the request for additional information. Any institution submitting a timely request for review will receive written notice from the Corporation regarding the outcome of its request. Upon completion of a review, the Director of the Division of Insurance and Research (or designee) or the Director of the Division of Supervision and Consumer Protection (or designee) or any successor divisions, as appropriate, shall promptly notify the institution in writing of his or her determination of whether a change is warranted. If the institution requesting review disagrees with that determination, it may appeal to the FDIC's Assessment Appeals Committee. Notice of the procedures applicable to appeals will be included with the written determination., (d) Disclosure restrictions. The portion of an assessment risk assignment provided to an institution by the Corporation pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section that reflects any supervisory evaluation or confidential information is deemed to be exempt information within the scope of § 309.5(g)(8) of this chapter and, accordingly, is governed by the disclosure restrictions set out at § 309.6 of this chapter., (e) Limited use of assessment risk assignment. Any assessment risk assignment provided to a depository institution under this part 327 is for purposes of implementing and operating the FDIC's risk-based assessment system. Unless permitted by the Corporation or otherwise required by law, no institution may state in any advertisement or promotional material, or in any other public place or manner, the assessment risk assignment provided to it pursuant to this part., (f) Effective date for changes to risk assignment. Changes to an insured institution's risk assignment resulting from a supervisory ratings change become effective as of the date of written notification to the institution by its primary federal regulator or state authority of its supervisory rating (even when the CAMELS component ratings have not been disclosed to the institution), if the FDIC, after taking into account other information that could affect the rating, agrees with the rating. If the FDIC does not agree, the FDIC will notify the institution of the FDIC's supervisory rating; resulting changes to an insured institution's risk assignment become effective as of the date of written notification to the institution by the FDIC., (g) Designated Reserve Ratio. The designated reserve ratio for the Deposit Insurance Fund is 2 percent.

(a) Assessment. Each assessed company shall pay to the Board an assessment for any assessment period for which the Board determines the company to be an assessed company., (b)(1) Assessment formula. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the assessment will be calculated according to the Assessment Formula, as follows:, (2) In any assessment period, if, at the time a company becomes a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company, it also becomes an assessed company, as defined in § 246.3, the Board shall pro-rate that company's assessment for that assessment period based on the number of quarters in which such company is an assessed company. For a nonbank financial company supervised by the Board, for the assessment period that the company is designated for Board supervision, Board shall pro-rate that company's assessment for that assessment period based on the number of quarters the company has been a nonbank financial company supervised by the Board., (c) Assessment rate. Assessment rate means, with regard to a given assessment period, the rate published by the Board on its Web site for the calculation of assessments for that period., (1)(i) The assessment rate for Category IV and “other” firms will be calculated according to this formula:, (ii) The assessment rate for Category I, II, and III firms will be calculated according to this formula:, (2) For the calculation set forth in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the number of assessed companies and the total assessable assets of all assessed companies will each be that of the relevant assessment period, provided, however, that for the assessment periods corresponding to 2012, 2013 and 2014, the Board shall use the number of assessed companies and the total assessable assets of the 2012 assessment period to calculate the assessment rate., (d) Assessment basis. (1) For the 2012, 2013, and 2014 assessment periods, the assessment basis is the amount of total expenses the Board estimates is necessary or appropriate to carry out the supervisory and regulatory responsibilities of the Board with respect to assessed companies for 2012.1<FTREF/>, 1 The categories of operating expenses that the Board believes are necessary or appropriate include but are not limited to (1) direct operating expenses for supervising and regulating assessed companies such as conducting examinations, conducting stress tests, communicating with the company regarding supervisory matters and laws and regulations, etc.; and (2) operating expenses for activities integral to carrying out supervisory and regulatory responsibilities such as training staff in the supervisory function, research and analysis functions including library subscription services, collecting and processing regulatory reports filed by supervised institutions, etc. All operating expenses include applicable support, overhead, and pension expenses., (2) For the 2015 assessment period and for each assessment period thereafter, the assessment basis is the average of the amount of total expenses the Board estimates is necessary or appropriate to carry out the supervisory and regulatory responsibilities of the Board with respect to assessed companies for that assessment period and the two prior assessment periods.2<FTREF/>, 2 The categories of operating expenses that the Board believes are necessary or appropriate include but are not limited to (1) direct operating expenses for supervising and regulating assessed companies such as conducting examinations, conducting stress tests, communicating with the company regarding supervisory matters and laws and regulations, etc.; and (2) operating expenses for activities integral to carrying out supervisory and regulatory responsibilities such as training staff in the supervisory function, research and analysis functions including library subscription services, collecting and processing regulatory reports filed by supervised institutions, etc. All operating expenses include applicable support, overhead, and pension expenses., (3) Net Assessment Basis is the assessment basis, as defined by paragraph (d)(2), net of the total $50,000 base amount charged to all assessed companies. Net Assessment Basis = assessment basis−(number of assessed companies × $50,000)., (4) The variable S represents the estimated share of total costs attributable to changes in supervisory and regulatory responsibilities resulting from EGRRCPA for Category IV and “other” firms. S = 0.1 (10 percent)., (e) Total assessable assets. Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, total assessable assets are calculated as follows:, (1) Bank holding companies. For any bank holding company, other than a foreign bank holding company, total assessable assets will be the average of the bank holding company's total consolidated assets as reported for the assessment period on the bank holding company's FR Y-9C or such other reports as determined by the Board as applicable to the bank holding company,, (2) Foreign bank holding companies and foreign savings and loan holding companies - (i) In general. For any foreign bank holding company or any foreign savings and loan holding company, with the exception of the 2012 and 2013 assessment periods, total assessable assets will be the average of the foreign bank holding company's or foreign savings and loan holding company's total combined assets of its U.S. operations, net of intercompany balances and transactions between U.S. domiciled affiliates, branches and agencies, as reported for the assessment period on the Part 1 of the FR Y-7Q or such other reports as determined by the Board as applicable to the foreign bank holding company or foreign savings and loan holding company,, (ii) 2012 and 2013 assessment periods. For the 2012 and 2013 assessment periods, for any foreign bank holding company, total assessable assets will be the average of the sum of the line items set forth in this section reported quarterly, plus any line items set forth in this section reported annually for the assessment period on an applicable regulatory reporting form for the assessment period for all of the foreign bank holding company's majority-owned:, (A) Top-tier, U.S.-domiciled bank holding companies and savings and loan holding companies, calculated as:, (1) Total assets (line item 12) as reported on Schedule HC of the FR Y-9C and, as applicable;, (2) Total assets (line item 1, column B) as reported on FR 2320;, (B) Related branches and agencies of Foreign Banks in the United States, calculated as: total claims on nonrelated parties (line item 1.i from column A on Schedule RAL) plus net due from related institutions in foreign countries (line items 2.a, 2.b(1), 2.b(2), and 2.c from column A, minus line items 2.a, 2.b(1), 2.b(2) and 2.c from column B, part 1 on Schedule M), minus transactions with related nondepository majority-owned subsidiaries in the U.S. (line item 1 from column A, part 3 on Schedule M), as reported on the Report of Assets and Liabilities of U.S. Branches and Agencies of Foreign Banks (FFIEC 002);, (C) U.S.-domiciled nonbank subsidiaries, calculated as:, (1) For FR Y-7N filers: total assets (line item 10) as reported for each nonbank subsidiary reported on Schedule BS - Balance Sheet of the Financial Statements of U.S. Nonbank Subsidiaries Held by Foreign Banking Organizations (FR Y-7N); minus balances due from related institutions located in the United States, gross (line item 4.a), as reported on Schedule BS-M - Memoranda, and, as applicable;, (2) For FR Y-7NS (annual) filers: total assets (line item 2) as reported for each nonbank subsidiary reported on abbreviated financial statements (page 3) of the Abbreviated Financial Statements of U.S. Nonbank Subsidiaries Held by Foreign Banking Organizations (FR Y-7NS);, (D) Edge Act and agreement corporations that are not reflected in the assets of a U.S.-domiciled parent's regulatory reporting form submission, calculated as claims on nonrelated organizations (line item 9, “consolidated total” column on Schedule RC of the Consolidated Report of Condition and Income for Edge and Agreement Corporations (FR 2886b)), plus claims on related organizations domiciled outside the United States (line items 2.a and 2.b, column A on Schedule RC-M), as reported on FR 2886b;, (E) Banks and savings associations that are not reflected in the assets of a U.S.-domiciled parent's regulatory reporting form submission, calculated as: total assets (line item 12) as reported on Schedule RC - Balance Sheet of the Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income for a Bank with Domestic and Foreign Offices (FFIEC 031), or total assets (line item 12) as reported on Schedule RC - Balance Sheet of the Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income for a Bank with Domestic Offices Only (FFIEC 041), as applicable; and, (F) Broker-dealers that are not reflected in the assets of a U.S.-domiciled parent's regulatory reporting form submission, calculated as: total assets as reported on statement of financial condition of the Securities and Exchange Commission's Form X-17A-5 (FOCUS REPORT), Part II line item 16, Part IIa, line item 12, or Part II CSE, line item 18, as applicable., (3)(i) Savings and loan holding companies. For any savings and loan holding company, other than a foreign savings and loan holding company, total assessable assets will be, except as provided in paragraph (e)(3)(ii) of this section, the average of the savings and loan holding company's total consolidated assets as reported for the assessment period on the regulatory reports on the savings and loan holding company's Form FR Y-9C, column B of the Quarterly Savings and Loan Holding Company Report (FR 2320), or other reports as determined by the Board as applicable to the savings and loan holding company. If the savings and loan holding company is a grandfathered unitary savings and loan holding company, total assessable assets will only include the assets associated with its savings association subsidiary and its other financial activities., (ii) If a company does not calculate its total consolidated assets under GAAP for any regulatory purpose (including compliance with applicable securities laws), the company may request that the Board permit the company to file a quarterly estimate of its total consolidated assets. The Board may, in its discretion and subject to Board review and adjustment, permit the company to provide estimated total consolidated assets on a quarterly basis. The company's total assessable assets will be the average of the estimated total consolidated assets provided for the assessment period., (4) Nonbank financial companies supervised by the Board. For a nonbank financial company supervised by the Board, if the company is a U.S. company, this amount will be the average of the nonbank financial company's total consolidated assets as reported for the assessment period on such regulatory or other reports as are applicable to the nonbank financial company determined by the Board; if the company is a foreign company, this amount will be the average of the nonbank financial company's total combined assets of U.S. operations, net of intercompany balances and transactions between U.S. domiciled affiliates, branches and agencies, as reported for the assessment period on such regulatory or other reports as determined by the Board as applicable to the nonbank financial company.

(a) Assessments. The Director shall establish and collect from the Regulated Entities such assessments he or she deems necessary to maintain a working capital fund., (b) Purposes. Assessments collected to maintain the working capital fund shall be used to establish an operating reserve and to provide for the payment of large or multiyear capital and operating expenditures as well as unanticipated expenses., (c) Remittance of excess assessed funds. At the end of each year for which an assessment under this section is made, the Director shall remit to each Regulated Entity any amount of assessed and collected funds in excess of the amount the Director deems necessary to maintain a working capital fund in the same proportions as paid under the most recent annual assessment.

(a) Asset-backed security means a security that is serviced primarily by the cash flows of a discrete pool of receivables or other financial assets, either fixed or revolving, that by their terms convert into cash within a finite time period plus any rights or other assets designed to assure the servicing or timely distribution of proceeds to the security holders., (b) Cash management sweep account means a prearranged, automatic transfer of funds above a certain dollar level from a deposit account to purchase a security or securities, or any prearranged, automatic redemption or sale of a security or securities when a deposit account drops below a certain level with the proceeds being transferred into a deposit account., (c) Collective investment fund means funds held by an FDIC-supervised institution as fiduciary and, consistent with local law, invested collectively:, (1) In a common trust fund maintained by such FDIC-supervised institution exclusively for the collective investment and reinvestment of monies contributed thereto by the FDIC-supervised institution in its capacity as trustee, executor, administrator, guardian, or custodian under the Uniform Gifts to Minors Act; or, (2) In a fund consisting solely of assets of retirement, pension, profit sharing, stock bonus or similar trusts which are exempt from Federal income taxation under the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C.)., (d) Completion of the transaction means:, (1) For purchase transactions, the time when the customer pays the FDIC-supervised institution any part of the purchase price (or the time when the FDIC-supervised institution makes the book-entry for any part of the purchase price, if applicable), however, if the customer pays for the security prior to the time payment is requested or becomes due, then the transaction shall be completed when the FDIC-supervised institution transfers the security into the account of the customer; and, (2) For sale transactions, the time when the FDIC-supervised institution transfers the security out of the account of the customer or, if the security is not in its custody, then the time when the security is delivered to it, however, if the customer delivers the security to the FDIC-supervised institution prior to the time delivery is requested or becomes due then the transaction shall be completed when the FDIC-supervised institution makes payment into the account of the customer., (e) Crossing of buy and sell orders means a security transaction in which the same FDIC-supervised institution acts as agent for both the buyer and the seller., (f) Customer means any person or account, including any agency, trust, estate, guardianship, or other fiduciary account for which an FDIC-supervised institution effects or participates in effecting the purchase or sale of securities, but does not include a broker, dealer, insured depository institution acting as a broker or a dealer, issuer of the securities that are the subject of the transaction or a person or account having a direct, contractual agreement with a fully disclosed broker/dealer., (g) Debt security means any security, such as a bond, debenture, note, or any other similar instrument that evidences a liability of the issuer (including any security of this type that is convertible into stock or a similar security) and fractional or participation interests in one or more of any of the foregoing; provided, however, that securities issued by an investment company registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940, 15 U.S.C. 80a - 1 et seq., shall not be included in this definition., (h) FDIC-supervised institution means any insured depository institution for which the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation is the appropriate Federal banking agency pursuant to section 3(q) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(q)., (i) Government security means:, (1) A security that is a direct obligation of, or obligation guaranteed as to principal and interest by, the United States;, (2) A security that is issued or guaranteed by a corporation in which the United States has a direct or indirect interest and which is designated by the Secretary of the Treasury for exemption as necessary or appropriate in the public interest or for the protection of investors;, (3) A security issued or guaranteed as to principal and interest by any corporation whose securities are designated, by statute specifically naming the corporation, to constitute exempt securities within the meaning of the laws administered by the Securities and Exchange Commission; or, (4) Any put, call, straddle, option, or privilege on a security described in paragraph (i)(1), (2), or (3) of this section other than a put, call, straddle, option, or privilege that is traded on one or more national securities exchanges, or for which quotations are disseminated through an automated quotation system operated by a registered securities association., (j) Investment discretion means that, with respect to an account, an FDIC-supervised institution directly or indirectly:, (1) Is authorized to determine what securities or other property shall be purchased or sold by or for the account; or, (2) Makes decisions as to what securities or other property shall be purchased or sold by or for the account even though some other person may have responsibility for these investment decisions., (k) Municipal security means a security which is a direct obligation of, or an obligation guaranteed as to principal or interest by, a State or any political subdivision, or any agency or instrumentality of a State or any political subdivision, or any municipal corporate instrumentality of one or more States or any security which is an industrial development bond (as defined in 26 U.S.C. 103(c)(2)) the interest on which is excludable from gross income under 26 U.S.C. 103(a)(1) if, by reason of the application of paragraph (4) or (6) of 26 U.S.C. 103(c) (determined as if paragraphs (4)(A), (5) and (7) were not included in 26 U.S.C. 103(c), paragraph (1) of 26 U.S.C. 103(c) does not apply to such security. See 15. U.S.C. 78c(a)(29)., (l) Periodic plan means any written authorization for an FDIC-supervised institution to act as agent to purchase or sell for a customer a specific security or securities, in a specific amount (calculated in security units or dollars) or to the extent of dividends and funds available, at specific time intervals, and setting forth the commission or charges to be paid by the customer or the manner of calculating them. Periodic plans include dividend reinvestment plans, automatic investment plans, and employee stock purchase plans., (m) Security means any note, stock, treasury stock, bond, debenture, certificate of interest or participation in any profit-sharing agreement or in any oil, gas, or other mineral royalty or lease, any collateral-trust certificate, preorganization certificate or subscription, transferable share, investment contract, voting-trust certificate, and any put, call, straddle, option, or privilege on any security or group or index of securities (including any interest therein or based on the value thereof), or, in general, any instrument commonly known as a “security”; or any certificate of interest or participation in, temporary or interim certificate for, receipt for, or warrant or right to subscribe to or purchase, any of the foregoing. The term security does not include:, (1) A deposit or share account in a federally or state insured depository institution;, (2) A loan participation;, (3) A letter of credit or other form of insured depository institution indebtedness incurred in the ordinary course of business;, (4) Currency;, (5) Any note, draft, bill of exchange, or bankers acceptance which has a maturity at the time of issuance of not exceeding nine months, exclusive of days of grace, or any renewal thereof the maturity of which is likewise limited;, (6) Units of a collective investment fund;, (7) Interests in a variable amount (master) note of a borrower of prime credit; or, (8) U.S. Savings Bonds.

(a) Assistance in revising business plans. Upon timely request by a credit union having total assets of less than $10 million (regardless how long it has been in operation), the NCUA Board shall provide assistance in preparing a revised business plan required to be filed under § 702.206., (b) Assistance. Management training and other assistance to new credit unions will be provided in accordance with policies approved by the NCUA Board., (c) Small credit union program. A new credit union is eligible to join and receive comprehensive benefits and assistance under NCUA's Small Credit Union Program.

(a) Associations operating under the same title of the Act may merge or consolidate voluntarily, but only pursuant to a written agreement. The agreement must set forth all of the terms of the transaction, including, but not limited to, the following:, (1) The proposed effective date of the merger or consolidation., (2) The proposed name and headquarters location of the continuing or consolidated association., (3) The names of the persons nominated to serve as directors until the first regular annual meeting of the continuing or consolidated association to be held after the effective date of the merger or consolidation. Any director of a constituent association may be designated in the agreement to serve as a director of the continuing or consolidated association for a period not to exceed his or her current term, after which he or she must stand for reelection. However, the terms of the agreement must provide for the election of at least one director at each annual meeting subsequent to the effective date of the merger or consolidation. The bylaws of the continuing or consolidated association must reflect the provisions of the merger or consolidation agreement regarding director terms., (4) A statement of the formula to be used to exchange the stock of the constituent associations for the stock of the continuing or consolidated association. No fractional shares of stock may be issued., (5) A statement of any conditions which must be satisfied prior to the effective date of the proposed transaction, including but not limited to approval by stockholders, the funding bank, and the FCA., (6) A statement of the representations or warranties, if any, made or to be made by any association, or its officers, directors, or employees that is a party to the proposed transactions., (7) A statement that the board of directors of each constituent association can terminate the agreement before the effective date upon a determination by an association, with the concurrence of the FCA, that:, (i) The information disclosed to stockholders contained material errors or omissions; , (ii) Material misrepresentations were made to stockholders regarding the impact of the merger or consolidation; , (iii) Fraudulent activities were used to obtain stockholders' approval; or , (iv) An event occurred between the time of the vote and the merger that would have a significant adverse impact on the future viability of the continuing or consolidated association. , (8) A description of the legal opinions or rulings (including those related to tax matters), if any, that have been obtained or furnished by any party in connection with the proposed transaction. Also, refer to paragraph (a)(5) of this section., (9) The capitalization plan and capital structure for the continuing or consolidated association and a statement that the capitalization plan must comply with applicable FCA regulations., (10) Provision for the employee benefits plan, its subsequent continuation or adaptation by the board of directors of the continuing or consolidated association following the merger or consolidation., (11) A statement of the authority of those persons designated to carry out the terms of the agreement, including the authority to waive provisions of the agreement and to execute any documents necessary to perfect title, on behalf of the constituent associations., (b) As an attachment to the agreement, the constituent associations must set forth those provisions of the charter and bylaws of the continuing or consolidated association which differ from the existing charter or bylaw provisions of the constituent associations.

(a) At a Bank's initiative. A Bank may suspend or debar a member, project sponsor, or project owner from participation in the Program if such party shows a pattern of noncompliance, or engages in a single instance of flagrant noncompliance, with the terms of an approved application for AHP subsidy or the requirements of this part., (b) At FHFA's initiative. FHFA may order a Bank to suspend or debar a member, project sponsor, or project owner from participation in the Program if such party shows a pattern of noncompliance, or engages in a single instance of flagrant noncompliance, with the terms of an approved application for AHP subsidy or the requirements of this part.

(a) At a minimum, your bond coverage must:, (1) Be purchased in an individual policy from a company holding a certificate of authority from the Secretary of the Treasury;, (2) Cover fraud and dishonesty by all employees, directors, officers, supervisory committee members, and credit committee members;, (3) Include an option for the liquidating agent to purchase coverage in the event of an involuntary liquidation that extends the discovery period for a covered loss for at least one year after liquidation; and, (4) In the case of a voluntary liquidation, remain in effect, or provide that the discovery period is extended, for at least four months after the final distribution of assets, as required in § 710.2(c) of this chapter., (b) The requirement in subsection (a) of this section does not prohibit a federally insured credit union from having a fidelity bond that also covers its credit union service organization (CUSO(s)), provided the federally insured credit union owns more than 50 percent of the CUSO(s) or the CUSO(s) is organized by the federally insured credit union for the purpose of handling certain of its business transactions and composed exclusively of the federally insured credit union's employees.

(a) At any stage in the processing of a complaint, including the counseling stage under § 268.104, the complainant shall have the right to be accompanied, represented, and advised by a representative of complainant's choice., (b) If the complainant is an employee of the Board, he or she shall have a reasonable amount of official time, if otherwise on duty, to prepare the complaint and to respond to Board and EEOC requests for information. If the complainant is an employee of the Board and he designates another employee of the Board as his or her representative, the representative shall have a reasonable amount of official time, if otherwise on duty, to prepare the complaint and respond to Board and EEOC requests for information. The Board is not obligated to change work schedules, incur overtime wages, or pay travel expenses to facilitate the choice of a specific representative or to allow the complainant and representative to confer. The complainant and the representative, if employed by the Board and otherwise in a pay status, shall be on official time, regardless of their tour of duty, when their presence is authorized or required by the Board or the Commission during the investigation, informal adjustment, or hearing on the complaint., (c) In cases where the representation of a complainant or the Board would conflict with the official or collateral duties of the representative, the Commission or the Board may, after giving the representative an opportunity to respond, disqualify the representative., (d) Unless the complainant states otherwise in writing, after the Board has received written notice of the name, address and telephone number of a representative for the complainant, all official correspondence shall be with the representative with copies to the complainant. When the complainant designates an attorney as representative, service of all official correspondence shall be made on the attorney and the complainant, but time frames for receipt of material shall be computed from the time of receipt by the attorney. The complainant must serve all official correspondence on the designated representative of the Board., (e) The complainant shall at all times be responsible for proceeding with the complaint whether or not he or she has designated a representative., (f) Witnesses who are Board employees shall be in a duty status when their presence is authorized or required by Commission or Board officials in connection with a complaint.

(a) At expiration of period. A proposed director or senior executive officer may begin service at the end of the 30-day period and any extension as provided under § 238.74 unless the Board or Reserve Bank notifies you that it has disapproved the notice before the end of the period., (b) Prior to expiration of period. A proposed director or senior executive officer may begin service before the end of the 30-day period and any extension as provided under section 238.74 of this section, if the Board or the Reserve Bank notifies in writing the savings and loan holding company or individual submitting the notice of the Board's or Reserve Bank's intention not to disapprove the notice.

(a) At least 15 days before the hearing or at such other time as may be ordered by the ALJ, the parties must exchange witness lists, copies of prior statements of proposed witnesses, and copies of proposed hearing exhibits, including copies of any written statements that the party intends to offer in lieu of live testimony in accordance with § 308.532(b) of this subpart. At the time such documents are exchanged, any party that intends to rely on the transcript of deposition testimony in lieu of live testimony at the hearing, if permitted by the ALJ, must provide each party with a copy of the specific pages of the transcript it intends to introduce into evidence. , (b) If a party objects, the ALJ will not admit into evidence the testimony of any witness whose name does not appear on the witness list or any exhibit not provided to the opposing party as provided in paragraph (a) of this section unless the ALJ finds good cause for the failure or that there is no prejudice to the objecting party. , (c) Unless another party objects within the time set by the ALJ, documents exchanged in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section will be deemed to be authentic for the purpose of admissibility at the hearing.

(a) At least monthly, a Federal credit union must prepare a written report setting forth, for each security held, the fair value and dollar change since the prior month-end, with summary information for the entire portfolio. , (b) At least quarterly, a Federal credit union must prepare a written report setting forth the sum of the fair values of all fixed and variable rate securities held that have one or more of the following features: , (1) Embedded options; , (2) Remaining maturities greater than 3 years; or , (3) Coupon formulas that are related to more than one index or are inversely related to, or multiples of, an index. , (c) Where the amount calculated in paragraph (b) of this section is greater than a Federal credit union's net worth, the report described in that paragraph must provide a reasonable and supportable estimate of the potential impact, in percentage and dollar terms, of an immediate and sustained parallel shift in market interest rates of plus and minus 300 basis points on: , (1) The fair value of each security in the Federal credit union's portfolio; , (2) The fair value of the Federal credit union's portfolio as a whole; and , (3) The Federal credit union's net worth. , (d) If the Federal credit union does not have an investment-related committee, then each member of its board of directors must receive a copy of the reports described in paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section. If the Federal credit union has an investment-related committee, then each member of the committee must receive copies of the reports, and each member of the board of directors must receive a summary of the information in the reports.

(a) At least quarterly, a Federal credit union must prepare a written report listing all of its shares and deposits in banks, credit unions, and other depository institutions, that have one or more of the following features: , (1) Embedded options; , (2) Remaining maturities greater than 3 years; or , (3) Coupon formulas that are related to more than one index or are inversely related to, or multiples of, an index. , (b) The requirement of paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to shares and deposits that are securities. , (c) If a Federal credit union does not have an investment-related committee, then each member of its board of directors must receive a copy of the report described in paragraph (a) of this section. If a Federal credit union has an investment-related committee, then each member of the committee must receive a copy of the report, and each member of the board must receive a summary of the information in the report.

(a) Attorneys. Any attorney who is qualified to practice as an attorney and is not currently under suspension or debarment pursuant to this subpart may practice before the Board., (b) Accountants. Any accountant who is qualified to practice as a certified public accountant or public accountant and is not currently under suspension or debarment by the Board may practice before the Board.

(a) Audit by alternative licensed person. The NCUA Board may compel a federal credit union to obtain a supervisory committee audit which meets the minimum requirements of § 715.5 or § 715.7, and which is performed by an independent person who is licensed by the State or jurisdiction in which the credit union is principally located, for any fiscal year in which any of the following three conditions is present:, (1) The Supervisory Committee has not obtained an annual financial statement audit or performed a supervisory committee audit; or, (2) The Supervisory Committee has obtained a financial statement audit or performed a supervisory committee audit which does not meet the requirements of part 715 including those in § 715.8., (3) The credit union has experienced serious and persistent recordkeeping deficiencies as defined in paragraph (c) of this section., (b) Financial statement audit required. The NCUA Board may compel a federal credit union to obtain a financial statement audit performed in accordance with GAAS by an independent person who is licensed by the State or jurisdiction in which the credit union is principally located (even if such audit is not required by § 715.5), for any fiscal year in which the credit union has experienced serious and persistent recordkeeping deficiencies as defined in paragraph (c) of this section. The objective of a financial statement audit performed under this paragraph is to reconstruct the records of the credit union sufficient to allow an unqualified or, if necessary, a qualified opinion on the credit union's financial statements. An adverse opinion or disclaimer of opinion should be the exception rather than the norm., (c) “Serious and persistent recordkeeping deficiencies.” A record-keeping deficiency is “serious” if the NCUA Board reasonably believes that the board of directors and management of the credit union have not timely met financial reporting objectives and established practices and procedures sufficient to safeguard members' assets. A serious recordkeeping deficiency is “persistent” when it continues beyond a usual, expected or reasonable period of time.

(a) Audit report. Upon completion and/or receipt of the written report of a financial statement audit or a supervisory committee audit, the Supervisory Committee must verify that the audit was performed and reported in accordance with the terms of the engagement letter prescribed herein. The Supervisory Committee must submit the report(s) to the board of directors, and provide a summary of the results of the audit to the members of the credit union orally or in writing at the next annual meeting of the credit union. If a member so requests, the Supervisory Committee shall provide the member access to the full audit report. If the NCUA so requests, the Supervisory Committee shall provide NCUA a copy of each of the audit reports it receives or produces., (b) Working papers. The supervisory committee shall be responsible for preparing and maintaining, or making available, a complete set of original working papers supporting each supervisory committee audit. The supervisory committee shall, upon request, provide NCUA staff unconditional access to such working papers, either at the offices of the credit union or at a mutually agreeable location, for purposes of inspecting such working papers.

(a) Audited financial statements. Each insured depository institution shall prepare annual financial statements in accordance with GAAP, which shall be audited by an independent public accountant. The annual financial statements must reflect all material correcting adjustments necessary to conform with GAAP that were identified by the independent public accountant., (b) Management report. Each insured depository institution annually shall prepare, as of the end of the institution's most recent fiscal year, a management report that must contain the following:, (1) A statement of management's responsibilities for preparing the institution's annual financial statements, for establishing and maintaining an adequate internal control structure and procedures for financial reporting, and for complying with laws and regulations relating to safety and soundness that are designated by the FDIC and the appropriate Federal banking agency;, (2) An assessment by management of the insured depository institution's compliance with such laws and regulations during such fiscal year. The assessment must state management's conclusion as to whether the insured depository institution has complied with the designated safety and soundness laws and regulations during the fiscal year and disclose any noncompliance with these laws and regulations; and, (3) For an insured depository institution with consolidated total assets of $1 billion or more as of the beginning of such fiscal year, an assessment by management of the effectiveness of such internal control structure and procedures as of the end of such fiscal year that must include the following:, (i) A statement identifying the internal control framework 14<FTREF/> used by management to evaluate the effectiveness of the insured depository institution's internal control over financial reporting;, 14 For example, in the United States, the Committee of Sponsoring Organizations (COSO) of the Treadway Commission has published Internal Control - Integrated Framework, including an addendum on safeguarding assets. Known as the COSO report, this publication provides a suitable and available framework for purposes of management's assessment., (ii) A statement that the assessment included controls over the preparation of regulatory financial statements in accordance with regulatory reporting instructions including identification of such regulatory reporting instructions; and, (iii) A statement expressing management's conclusion as to whether the insured depository institution's internal control over financial reporting is effective as of the end of its fiscal year. Management must disclose all material weaknesses in internal control over financial reporting, if any, that it has identified that have not been remediated prior to the insured depository institution's fiscal year-end. Management is precluded from concluding that the institution's internal control over financial reporting is effective if there are one or more material weaknesses., (c) Management report signatures. Subject to the criteria specified in § 363.1(b):, (1) If the audited financial statements requirement specified in § 363.2(a) is satisfied at the insured depository institution level and the management report requirement specified in § 363.2(b) is satisfied in its entirety at the insured depository institution level, the management report must be signed by the chief executive officer and the chief accounting officer or chief financial officer of the insured depository institution;, (2) If the audited financial statements requirement specified in § 363.2(a) is satisfied at the holding company level and the management report requirement specified in § 363.2(b) is satisfied in its entirety at the holding company level, the management report must be signed by the chief executive officer and the chief accounting officer or chief financial officer of the holding company; and, (3) If the audited financial statements requirement specified in § 363.2(a) is satisfied at the holding company level and (i) the management report requirement specified in § 363.2(b) is satisfied in its entirety at the insured depository institution level or (ii) one or more of the components of the management report specified in § 363.2(b) is satisfied at the holding company level and the remaining components of the management report are satisfied at the insured depository institution level, the management report must be signed by the chief executive officers and the chief accounting officers or chief financial officers of both the holding company and the insured depository institution and the management report must clearly indicate the level (institution or holding company) at which each of its components is being satisfied.

(a) Authorities. System banks and associations may only offer related services that meet the criteria specified in this regulation and are authorized by the FCA. , (b) New service proposals. (1) A System bank or association that proposes or intends to offer a related service that the FCA has not previously authorized must submit to the FCA, in writing, a proposal that includes a description of the service, a statement of how it meets the regulatory definition of “related services” in § 618.8000(b), and the risk analysis cited in § 618.8020(b)(3). The FCA will evaluate the proposed service based on the information submitted, and may also consider whether there are extenuating circumstances or other compelling reasons that justify the proposed service or support a determination that the service is not authorized. This evaluation will focus primarily on Systemwide issues rather than on institution or program-specific factors. , (2) When authorizing a proposed related service, at its discretion, the FCA may impose special conditions or limitations on any related service or program to offer a related service. , (3) At its discretion the FCA may, at any time during its evaluation of a proposed related service, publish the proposed related service in the <E T="04">Federal Register for public comment. , (4) Within 60 days of the FCA receiving a completed proposal, including any additional information the FCA may require, the FCA will act on the request to authorize a new service. The FCA shall approve the request, deny the request, or publish the service for public comment in the <E T="04">Federal Register. For good cause and prior to the expiration of the 60 days, the FCA may extend this period for an additional 60 days. , (5) Within the time period established in paragraph (b)(4) of this section, the FCA shall notify the requesting institution of its actions. Following notification of the requesting institution, the FCA will notify all System banks and associations of its determination on the proposed service by bookletter or other means. If a service is not authorized, the reasons for denial will be included in the notifications to the System and the requesting institution. , (c) Previously authorized services. (1) For related services that have been authorized by the FCA, any System bank or association may develop a program and subsequently offer the related service to eligible recipients, subject to any special conditions or institutional limits placed by the FCA. These programs will be subject to review and evaluation during the examination and enforcement process. , (2) The FCA shall make available to all System banks and associations a list of such related services (“related services list” or “list”) and will update the list in accordance with paragraph (b)(5) of this section. The list will contain the following: , (i) A description of each related service; and , (ii) The types of institutions authorized to offer each type of related service; , (iii) Identification of any special conditions on how the related service may be offered. The special conditions and description of the service will be fully detailed in FCA's notice to System institutions under paragraph (b)(5) of this section. , (3) At least 10 business days prior to implementing a related service program already on the list, the System bank or association must notify the FCA Office of Examination field office responsible for examining that institution in writing and provide it with a description of the proposed related service program.

(a) Authority - (1) In general. This part (Regulation RR) is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System under section 15G of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, as amended (Exchange Act) (15 U.S.C. 78o-11), as well as under the Federal Reserve Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 221 et seq.); section 8 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (FDI Act), as amended (12 U.S.C. 1818); the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956, as amended (BHC Act) (12 U.S.C. 1841 et seq.); the Home Owners' Loan Act of 1933 (HOLA) (12 U.S.C. 1461 et seq.); section 165 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (Dodd-Frank Act) (12 U.S.C. 5365); and the International Banking Act of 1978, as amended (12 U.S.C. 3101 et seq.)., (2) Nothing in this part shall be read to limit the authority of the Board to take action under provisions of law other than 15 U.S.C. 78o-11, including action to address unsafe or unsound practices or conditions, or violations of law or regulation, under section 8 of the FDI Act., (b) Purpose. This part requires any securitizer to retain an economic interest in a portion of the credit risk for any asset that the securitizer, through the issuance of an asset-backed security, transfers, sells, or conveys to a third party in a transaction within the scope of section 15G of the Exchange Act. This part specifies the permissible types, forms, and amounts of credit risk retention, and establishes certain exemptions for securitizations collateralized by assets that meet specified underwriting standards or that otherwise qualify for an exemption., (c) Scope. (1) This part applies to any securitizer that is:, (i) A state member bank (as defined in 12 CFR 208.2(g)); or, (ii) Any subsidiary of a state member bank., (2) Section 15G of the Exchange Act and the rules issued thereunder apply to any securitizer that is:, (i) A bank holding company (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1842);, (ii) A foreign banking organization (as defined in 12 CFR 211.21(o));, (iii) An Edge or agreement corporation (as defined in 12 CFR 211.1(c)(2) and (3));, (iv) A nonbank financial company that the Financial Stability Oversight Council has determined under section 113 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (the Dodd-Frank Act) (12 U.S.C. 5323) shall be supervised by the Board and for which such determination is still in effect; or, (v) A savings and loan holding company (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1467a); and, (vi) Any subsidiary of the foregoing., (3) Compliance with this part is required:, (i) With respect to any securitization transaction collateralized by residential mortgages on December 24, 2015; and, (ii) With respect to any other securitization transaction on December 24, 2016.

(a) Authority - (1) In general. This part is issued by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) under section 15G of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, as amended (Exchange Act) (15 U.S.C. 78o-11), as well as the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1811 et seq.) and the International Banking Act of 1978, as amended (12 U.S.C. 3101 et seq.)., (2) Nothing in this part shall be read to limit the authority of the FDIC to take action under provisions of law other than 15 U.S.C. 78o-11, including to address unsafe or unsound practices or conditions, or violations of law or regulation under section 8 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1818)., (b) Purpose. This part requires securitizers to retain an economic interest in a portion of the credit risk for any asset that the securitizer, through the issuance of an asset-backed security, transfers, sells, or conveys to a third party in a transaction within the scope of section 15G of the Exchange Act. This part specifies the permissible types, forms, and amounts of credit risk retention, and it establishes certain exemptions for securitizations collateralized by assets that meet specified underwriting standards or that otherwise qualify for an exemption., (c) Scope. This part applies to any securitizer that is:, (1) A state nonmember bank (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1813(e)(2));, (2) An insured state branch of a foreign bank (as defined in 12 CFR 347.202);, (3) A state savings association (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1813(b)(3)); or, (4) Any subsidiary of an entity described in paragraph (c)(1), (2), or (3) of this section.

(a) Authority and OMB control number - (1) Authority. The authority for this part is 12 U.S.C. 1814-1817, 1819-1820, 1828, 1831u and 2901-2907, 3103-3104, and 3108(a). , (2) OMB control number. The information collection requirements contained in this part were approved by the Office of Management and Budget under the provisions of 44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq. and have been assigned OMB control number 3064-0092. , (b) Purposes. In enacting the Community Reinvestment Act (CRA), the Congress required each appropriate Federal financial supervisory agency to assess an institution's record of helping to meet the credit needs of the local communities in which the institution is chartered, consistent with the safe and sound operation of the institution, and to take this record into account in the agency's evaluation of an application for a deposit facility by the institution. This part is intended to carry out the purposes of the CRA by: , (1) Establishing the framework and criteria by which the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) assesses a bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community, including low- and moderate-income neighborhoods, consistent with the safe and sound operation of the bank; and , (2) Providing that the FDIC takes that record into account in considering certain applications. , (c) Scope - (1) General. Except for certain special purpose banks described in paragraph (c)(3) of this section, this part applies to all insured State nonmember banks, including insured State branches as described in paragraph (c)(2) and any uninsured State branch that results from an acquisition described in section 5(a)(8) of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3103(a)(8)). , (2) Insured State branches. Insured State branches are branches of a foreign bank established and operating under the laws of any State, the deposits of which are insured in accordance with the provisions of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act. In the case of insured State branches, references in this part to main office mean the principal branch within the United States and the term branch or branches refers to any insured State branch or branches located within the United States. The assessment area of an insured State branch is the community or communities located within the United States served by the branch as described in § 345.41. , (3) Certain special purpose banks. This part does not apply to special purpose banks that do not perform commercial or retail banking services by granting credit to the public in the ordinary course of business, other than as incident to their specialized operations. These banks include banker's banks, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 24 (Seventh), and banks that engage only in one or more of the following activities: providing cash management controlled disbursement services or serving as correspondent banks, trust companies, or clearing agents.

(a) Authority and limitations on permitted investments in covered funds. (1) Notwithstanding the prohibition contained in § 248.10(a) of this subpart, a banking entity may acquire and retain an ownership interest in a covered fund that the banking entity or an affiliate thereof organizes and offers pursuant to § 248.11, for the purposes of:, (i) Establishment. Establishing the fund and providing the fund with sufficient initial equity for investment to permit the fund to attract unaffiliated investors, subject to the limits contained in paragraphs (a)(2)(i) and (iii) of this section; or, (ii) De minimis investment. Making and retaining an investment in the covered fund subject to the limits contained in paragraphs (a)(2)(ii) and (iii) of this section., (2) Investment limits - (i) Seeding period. With respect to an investment in any covered fund made or held pursuant to paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, the banking entity and its affiliates:, (A) Must actively seek unaffiliated investors to reduce, through redemption, sale, dilution, or other methods, the aggregate amount of all ownership interests of the banking entity in the covered fund to the amount permitted in paragraph (a)(2)(i)(B) of this section; and, (B) Must, no later than 1 year after the date of establishment of the fund (or such longer period as may be provided by the Board pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section), conform its ownership interest in the covered fund to the limits in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section;, (ii) Per-fund limits. (A) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(B) of this section, an investment by a banking entity and its affiliates in any covered fund made or held pursuant to paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section may not exceed 3 percent of the total number or value of the outstanding ownership interests of the fund., (B) An investment by a banking entity and its affiliates in a covered fund that is an issuing entity of asset-backed securities may not exceed 3 percent of the total fair market value of the ownership interests of the fund measured in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section, unless a greater percentage is retained by the banking entity and its affiliates in compliance with the requirements of section 15G of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o-11) and the implementing regulations issued thereunder, in which case the investment by the banking entity and its affiliates in the covered fund may not exceed the amount, number, or value of ownership interests of the fund required under section 15G of the Exchange Act and the implementing regulations issued thereunder., (iii) Aggregate limit. The aggregate value of all ownership interests of the banking entity and its affiliates in all covered funds acquired or retained under this section may not exceed 3 percent of the tier 1 capital of the banking entity, as provided under paragraph (c) of this section, and shall be calculated as of the last day of each calendar quarter., (iv) Date of establishment. For purposes of this section, the date of establishment of a covered fund shall be:, (A) In general. The date on which the investment adviser or similar entity to the covered fund begins making investments pursuant to the written investment strategy for the fund;, (B) Issuing entities of asset-backed securities. In the case of an issuing entity of asset-backed securities, the date on which the assets are initially transferred into the issuing entity of asset-backed securities., (b) Rules of construction - (1) Attribution of ownership interests to a covered banking entity. (i) For purposes of paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the amount and value of a banking entity's permitted investment in any single covered fund shall include any ownership interest held under § 248.12 directly by the banking entity, including any affiliate of the banking entity., (ii) Treatment of registered investment companies, SEC-regulated business development companies, and foreign public funds. For purposes of paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section, a registered investment company, SEC-regulated business development companies, or foreign public fund as described in § 248.10(c)(1) will not be considered to be an affiliate of the banking entity so long as:, (A) The banking entity, together with its affiliates, does not own, control, or hold with the power to vote 25 percent or more of the voting shares of the company or fund; and, (B) The banking entity, or an affiliate of the banking entity, provides investment advisory, commodity trading advisory, administrative, and other services to the company or fund in compliance with the limitations under applicable regulation, order, or other authority., (iii) Covered funds. For purposes of paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section, a covered fund will not be considered to be an affiliate of a banking entity so long as the covered fund is held in compliance with the requirements of this subpart., (iv) Treatment of employee and director investments financed by the banking entity. For purposes of paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section, an investment by a director or employee of a banking entity who acquires an ownership interest in his or her personal capacity in a covered fund sponsored by the banking entity will be attributed to the banking entity if the banking entity, directly or indirectly, extends financing for the purpose of enabling the director or employee to acquire the ownership interest in the fund and the financing is used to acquire such ownership interest in the covered fund., (2) Calculation of permitted ownership interests in a single covered fund. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) or (4), for purposes of determining whether an investment in a single covered fund complies with the restrictions on ownership interests under paragraphs (a)(2)(i)(B) and (a)(2)(ii)(A) of this section:, (i) The aggregate number of the outstanding ownership interests held by the banking entity shall be the total number of ownership interests held under this section by the banking entity in a covered fund divided by the total number of ownership interests held by all entities in that covered fund, as of the last day of each calendar quarter (both measured without regard to committed funds not yet called for investment);, (ii) The aggregate value of the outstanding ownership interests held by the banking entity shall be the aggregate fair market value of all investments in and capital contributions made to the covered fund by the banking entity, divided by the value of all investments in and capital contributions made to that covered fund by all entities, as of the last day of each calendar quarter (all measured without regard to committed funds not yet called for investment). If fair market value cannot be determined, then the value shall be the historical cost basis of all investments in and contributions made by the banking entity to the covered fund;, (iii) For purposes of the calculation under paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section, once a valuation methodology is chosen, the banking entity must calculate the value of its investment and the investments of all others in the covered fund in the same manner and according to the same standards., (3) Issuing entities of asset-backed securities. In the case of an ownership interest in an issuing entity of asset-backed securities, for purposes of determining whether an investment in a single covered fund complies with the restrictions on ownership interests under paragraphs (a)(2)(i)(B) and (a)(2)(ii)(B) of this section:, (i) For securitizations subject to the requirements of section 15G of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o-11), the calculations shall be made as of the date and according to the valuation methodology applicable pursuant to the requirements of section 15G of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o-11) and the implementing regulations issued thereunder; or, (ii) For securitization transactions completed prior to the compliance date of such implementing regulations (or as to which such implementing regulations do not apply), the calculations shall be made as of the date of establishment as defined in paragraph (a)(2)(iv)(B) of this section or such earlier date on which the transferred assets have been valued for purposes of transfer to the covered fund, and thereafter only upon the date on which additional securities of the issuing entity of asset-backed securities are priced for purposes of the sales of ownership interests to unaffiliated investors., (iii) For securitization transactions completed prior to the compliance date of such implementing regulations (or as to which such implementing regulations do not apply), the aggregate value of the outstanding ownership interests in the covered fund shall be the fair market value of the assets transferred to the issuing entity of the securitization and any other assets otherwise held by the issuing entity at such time, determined in a manner that is consistent with its determination of the fair market value of those assets for financial statement purposes., (iv) For purposes of the calculation under paragraph (b)(3)(iii) of this section, the valuation methodology used to calculate the fair market value of the ownership interests must be the same for both the ownership interests held by a banking entity and the ownership interests held by all others in the covered fund in the same manner and according to the same standards., (4) Multi-tier fund investments - (i) Master-feeder fund investments. If the principal investment strategy of a covered fund (the “feeder fund”) is to invest substantially all of its assets in another single covered fund (the “master fund”), then for purposes of the investment limitations in paragraphs (a)(2)(i)(B) and (a)(2)(ii) of this section, the banking entity's permitted investment in such funds shall be measured only by reference to the value of the master fund. The banking entity's permitted investment in the master fund shall include any investment by the banking entity in the master fund, as well as the banking entity's pro-rata share of any ownership interest in the master fund that is held through the feeder fund; and, (ii) Fund-of-funds investments. If a banking entity organizes and offers a covered fund pursuant to § 248.11 for the purpose of investing in other covered funds (a “fund of funds”) and that fund of funds itself invests in another covered fund that the banking entity is permitted to own, then the banking entity's permitted investment in that other fund shall include any investment by the banking entity in that other fund, as well as the banking entity's pro-rata share of any ownership interest in the fund that is held through the fund of funds. The investment of the banking entity may not represent more than 3 percent of the amount or value of any single covered fund., (5) Parallel Investments and Co-Investments. (i) A banking entity shall not be required to include in the calculation of the investment limits under paragraph (a)(2) of this section any investment the banking entity makes alongside a covered fund as long as the investment is made in compliance with applicable laws and regulations, including applicable safety and soundness standards., (ii) A banking entity shall not be restricted under this section in the amount of any investment the banking entity makes alongside a covered fund as long as the investment is made in compliance with applicable laws and regulations, including applicable safety and soundness standards., (c) Aggregate permitted investments in all covered funds. (1)(i) For purposes of paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section, the aggregate value of all ownership interests held by a banking entity shall be the sum of all amounts paid or contributed by the banking entity in connection with acquiring or retaining an ownership interest in covered funds (together with any amounts paid by the entity in connection with obtaining a restricted profit interest under § 248.10(d)(6)(ii)), on a historical cost basis;, (ii) Treatment of employee and director restricted profit interests financed by the banking entity. For purposes of paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section, an investment by a director or employee of a banking entity who acquires a restricted profit interest in his or her personal capacity in a covered fund sponsored by the banking entity will be attributed to the banking entity if the banking entity, directly or indirectly, extends financing for the purpose of enabling the director or employee to acquire the restricted profit interest in the fund and the financing is used to acquire such ownership interest in the covered fund. , (2) Calculation of tier 1 capital. For purposes of paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section:, (i) Entities that are required to hold and report tier 1 capital. If a banking entity is required to calculate and report tier 1 capital, the banking entity's tier 1 capital shall be equal to the amount of tier 1 capital of the banking entity as of the last day of the most recent calendar quarter, as reported to its primary financial regulatory agency; and, (ii) If a banking entity is not required to calculate and report tier 1 capital, the banking entity's tier 1 capital shall be determined to be equal to:, (A) In the case of a banking entity that is controlled, directly or indirectly, by a depository institution that calculates and reports tier 1 capital, be equal to the amount of tier 1 capital reported by such controlling depository institution in the manner described in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section;, (B) In the case of a banking entity that is not controlled, directly or indirectly, by a depository institution that calculates and reports tier 1 capital:, (1) Bank holding company subsidiaries. If the banking entity is a subsidiary of a bank holding company or company that is treated as a bank holding company, be equal to the amount of tier 1 capital reported by the top-tier affiliate of such covered banking entity that calculates and reports tier 1 capital in the manner described in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section; and, (2) Other holding companies and any subsidiary or affiliate thereof. If the banking entity is not a subsidiary of a bank holding company or a company that is treated as a bank holding company, be equal to the total amount of shareholders' equity of the top-tier affiliate within such organization as of the last day of the most recent calendar quarter that has ended, as determined under applicable accounting standards., (iii) Treatment of foreign banking entities - (A) Foreign banking entities. Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(iii)(B) of this section, with respect to a banking entity that is not itself, and is not controlled directly or indirectly by, a banking entity that is located or organized under the laws of the United States or of any State, the tier 1 capital of the banking entity shall be the consolidated tier 1 capital of the entity as calculated under applicable home country standards., (B) U.S. affiliates of foreign banking entities. With respect to a banking entity that is located or organized under the laws of the United States or of any State and is controlled by a foreign banking entity identified under paragraph (c)(2)(iii)(A) of this section, the banking entity's tier 1 capital shall be as calculated under paragraphs (c)(2)(i) or (ii) of this section., (d) Capital treatment for a permitted investment in a covered fund. For purposes of calculating compliance with the applicable regulatory capital requirements, a banking entity shall deduct from the banking entity's tier 1 capital (as determined under paragraph (c)(2) of this section) the greater of:, (1)(i) The sum of all amounts paid or contributed by the banking entity in connection with acquiring or retaining an ownership interest (together with any amounts paid by the entity in connection with obtaining a restricted profit interest under § 248.10(d)(6)(ii) of subpart C of this part), on a historical cost basis, plus any earnings received; and, (ii) The fair market value of the banking entity's ownership interests in the covered fund as determined under paragraph (b)(2)(ii) or (b)(3) of this section (together with any amounts paid by the entity in connection with obtaining a restricted profit interest under § 248.10(d)(6)(ii) of subpart C of this part), if the banking entity accounts for the profits (or losses) of the fund investment in its financial statements., (2) Treatment of employee and director restricted profit interests financed by the banking entity. For purposes of paragraph (d)(1) of this section, an investment by a director or employee of a banking entity who acquires a restricted profit interest in his or her personal capacity in a covered fund sponsored by the banking entity will be attributed to the banking entity if the banking entity, directly or indirectly, extends financing for the purpose of enabling the director or employee to acquire the restricted profit interest in the fund and the financing is used to acquire such ownership interest in the covered fund., (e) Extension of time to divest an ownership interest - (1) Extension period. Upon application by a banking entity, the Board may extend the period under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section for up to 2 additional years if the Board finds that an extension would be consistent with safety and soundness and not detrimental to the public interest., (2) Application requirements. An application for extension must:, (i) Be submitted to the Board at least 90 days prior to the expiration of the applicable time period;, (ii) Provide the reasons for application, including information that addresses the factors in paragraph (e)(3) of this section; and, (iii) Explain the banking entity's plan for reducing the permitted investment in a covered fund through redemption, sale, dilution or other methods as required in paragraph (a)(2) of this section., (3) Factors governing the Board determinations. In reviewing any application under paragraph (e)(1) of this section, the Board may consider all the facts and circumstances related to the permitted investment in a covered fund, including:, (i) Whether the investment would result, directly or indirectly, in a material exposure by the banking entity to high-risk assets or high-risk trading strategies;, (ii) The contractual terms governing the banking entity's interest in the covered fund;, (iii) The date on which the covered fund is expected to have attracted sufficient investments from investors unaffiliated with the banking entity to enable the banking entity to comply with the limitations in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section;, (iv) The total exposure of the covered banking entity to the investment and the risks that disposing of, or maintaining, the investment in the covered fund may pose to the banking entity and the financial stability of the United States;, (v) The cost to the banking entity of divesting or disposing of the investment within the applicable period;, (vi) Whether the investment or the divestiture or conformance of the investment would involve or result in a material conflict of interest between the banking entity and unaffiliated parties, including clients, customers, or counterparties to which it owes a duty;, (vii) The banking entity's prior efforts to reduce through redemption, sale, dilution, or other methods its ownership interests in the covered fund, including activities related to the marketing of interests in such covered fund;, (viii) Market conditions; and, (ix) Any other factor that the Board believes appropriate., (4) Authority to impose restrictions on activities or investment during any extension period. The Board may impose such conditions on any extension approved under paragraph (e)(1) of this section as the Board determines are necessary or appropriate to protect the safety and soundness of the banking entity or the financial stability of the United States, address material conflicts of interest or other unsound banking practices, or otherwise further the purposes of section 13 of the BHC Act and this part., (5) Consultation. In the case of a banking entity that is primarily regulated by another Federal banking agency, the SEC, or the CFTC, the Board will consult with such agency prior to acting on an application by the banking entity for an extension under paragraph (e)(1) of this section.

(a) Authority and limitations on permitted investments in covered funds. (1) Notwithstanding the prohibition contained in § 351.10(a) of this subpart, a banking entity may acquire and retain an ownership interest in a covered fund that the banking entity or an affiliate thereof organizes and offers pursuant to § 351.11, for the purposes of:, (i) Establishment. Establishing the fund and providing the fund with sufficient initial equity for investment to permit the fund to attract unaffiliated investors, subject to the limits contained in paragraphs (a)(2)(i) and (iii) of this section; or, (ii) De minimis investment. Making and retaining an investment in the covered fund subject to the limits contained in paragraphs (a)(2)(ii) and (iii) of this section., (2) Investment limits - (i) Seeding period. With respect to an investment in any covered fund made or held pursuant to paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, the banking entity and its affiliates:, (A) Must actively seek unaffiliated investors to reduce, through redemption, sale, dilution, or other methods, the aggregate amount of all ownership interests of the banking entity in the covered fund to the amount permitted in paragraph (a)(2)(i)(B) of this section; and, (B) Must, no later than 1 year after the date of establishment of the fund (or such longer period as may be provided by the Board pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section), conform its ownership interest in the covered fund to the limits in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section;, (ii) Per-fund limits. (A) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(B) of this section, an investment by a banking entity and its affiliates in any covered fund made or held pursuant to paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section may not exceed 3 percent of the total number or value of the outstanding ownership interests of the fund., (B) An investment by a banking entity and its affiliates in a covered fund that is an issuing entity of asset-backed securities may not exceed 3 percent of the total fair market value of the ownership interests of the fund measured in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section, unless a greater percentage is retained by the banking entity and its affiliates in compliance with the requirements of section 15G of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o-11) and the implementing regulations issued thereunder, in which case the investment by the banking entity and its affiliates in the covered fund may not exceed the amount, number, or value of ownership interests of the fund required under section 15G of the Exchange Act and the implementing regulations issued thereunder., (iii) Aggregate limit. The aggregate value of all ownership interests of the banking entity and its affiliates in all covered funds acquired or retained under this section may not exceed 3 percent of the tier 1 capital of the banking entity, as provided under paragraph (c) of this section, and shall be calculated as of the last day of each calendar quarter., (iv) Date of establishment. For purposes of this section, the date of establishment of a covered fund shall be:, (A) In general. The date on which the investment adviser or similar entity to the covered fund begins making investments pursuant to the written investment strategy for the fund;, (B) Issuing entities of asset-backed securities. In the case of an issuing entity of asset-backed securities, the date on which the assets are initially transferred into the issuing entity of asset-backed securities., (b) Rules of construction - (1) Attribution of ownership interests to a covered banking entity. (i) For purposes of paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the amount and value of a banking entity's permitted investment in any single covered fund shall include any ownership interest held under § 351.12 directly by the banking entity, including any affiliate of the banking entity., (ii) Treatment of registered investment companies, SEC-regulated business development companies, and foreign public funds. For purposes of paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section, a registered investment company, SEC-regulated business development companies, or foreign public fund as described in § 351.10(c)(1) will not be considered to be an affiliate of the banking entity so long as:, (A) The banking entity, together with its affiliates, does not own, control, or hold with the power to vote 25 percent or more of the voting shares of the company or fund; and, (B) The banking entity, or an affiliate of the banking entity, provides investment advisory, commodity trading advisory, administrative, and other services to the company or fund in compliance with the limitations under applicable regulation, order, or other authority., (iii) Covered funds. For purposes of paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section, a covered fund will not be considered to be an affiliate of a banking entity so long as the covered fund is held in compliance with the requirements of this subpart., (iv) Treatment of employee and director investments financed by the banking entity. For purposes of paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section, an investment by a director or employee of a banking entity who acquires an ownership interest in his or her personal capacity in a covered fund sponsored by the banking entity will be attributed to the banking entity if the banking entity, directly or indirectly, extends financing for the purpose of enabling the director or employee to acquire the ownership interest in the fund and the financing is used to acquire such ownership interest in the covered fund., (2) Calculation of permitted ownership interests in a single covered fund. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) or (4), for purposes of determining whether an investment in a single covered fund complies with the restrictions on ownership interests under paragraphs (a)(2)(i)(B) and (a)(2)(ii)(A) of this section:, (i) The aggregate number of the outstanding ownership interests held by the banking entity shall be the total number of ownership interests held under this section by the banking entity in a covered fund divided by the total number of ownership interests held by all entities in that covered fund, as of the last day of each calendar quarter (both measured without regard to committed funds not yet called for investment);, (ii) The aggregate value of the outstanding ownership interests held by the banking entity shall be the aggregate fair market value of all investments in and capital contributions made to the covered fund by the banking entity, divided by the value of all investments in and capital contributions made to that covered fund by all entities, as of the last day of each calendar quarter (all measured without regard to committed funds not yet called for investment). If fair market value cannot be determined, then the value shall be the historical cost basis of all investments in and contributions made by the banking entity to the covered fund;, (iii) For purposes of the calculation under paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section, once a valuation methodology is chosen, the banking entity must calculate the value of its investment and the investments of all others in the covered fund in the same manner and according to the same standards., (3) Issuing entities of asset-backed securities. In the case of an ownership interest in an issuing entity of asset-backed securities, for purposes of determining whether an investment in a single covered fund complies with the restrictions on ownership interests under paragraphs (a)(2)(i)(B) and (a)(2)(ii)(B) of this section:, (i) For securitizations subject to the requirements of section 15G of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o-11), the calculations shall be made as of the date and according to the valuation methodology applicable pursuant to the requirements of section 15G of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o-11) and the implementing regulations issued thereunder; or, (ii) For securitization transactions completed prior to the compliance date of such implementing regulations (or as to which such implementing regulations do not apply), the calculations shall be made as of the date of establishment as defined in paragraph (a)(2)(iv)(B) of this section or such earlier date on which the transferred assets have been valued for purposes of transfer to the covered fund, and thereafter only upon the date on which additional securities of the issuing entity of asset-backed securities are priced for purposes of the sales of ownership interests to unaffiliated investors., (iii) For securitization transactions completed prior to the compliance date of such implementing regulations (or as to which such implementing regulations do not apply), the aggregate value of the outstanding ownership interests in the covered fund shall be the fair market value of the assets transferred to the issuing entity of the securitization and any other assets otherwise held by the issuing entity at such time, determined in a manner that is consistent with its determination of the fair market value of those assets for financial statement purposes., (iv) For purposes of the calculation under paragraph (b)(3)(iii) of this section, the valuation methodology used to calculate the fair market value of the ownership interests must be the same for both the ownership interests held by a banking entity and the ownership interests held by all others in the covered fund in the same manner and according to the same standards., (4) Multi-tier fund investments - (i) Master-feeder fund investments. If the principal investment strategy of a covered fund (the “feeder fund”) is to invest substantially all of its assets in another single covered fund (the “master fund”), then for purposes of the investment limitations in paragraphs (a)(2)(i)(B) and (a)(2)(ii) of this section, the banking entity's permitted investment in such funds shall be measured only by reference to the value of the master fund. The banking entity's permitted investment in the master fund shall include any investment by the banking entity in the master fund, as well as the banking entity's pro-rata share of any ownership interest in the master fund that is held through the feeder fund; and, (ii) Fund-of-funds investments. If a banking entity organizes and offers a covered fund pursuant to § 351.11 for the purpose of investing in other covered funds (a “fund of funds”) and that fund of funds itself invests in another covered fund that the banking entity is permitted to own, then the banking entity's permitted investment in that other fund shall include any investment by the banking entity in that other fund, as well as the banking entity's pro-rata share of any ownership interest in the fund that is held through the fund of funds. The investment of the banking entity may not represent more than 3 percent of the amount or value of any single covered fund., (5) Parallel Investments and Co-Investments. (i) A banking entity shall not be required to include in the calculation of the investment limits under paragraph (a)(2) of this section any investment the banking entity makes alongside a covered fund as long as the investment is made in compliance with applicable laws and regulations, including applicable safety and soundness standards., (ii) A banking entity shall not be restricted under this section in the amount of any investment the banking entity makes alongside a covered fund as long as the investment is made in compliance with applicable laws and regulations, including applicable safety and soundness standards., (c) Aggregate permitted investments in all covered funds. (1)(i) For purposes of paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section, the aggregate value of all ownership interests held by a banking entity shall be the sum of all amounts paid or contributed by the banking entity in connection with acquiring or retaining an ownership interest in covered funds (together with any amounts paid by the entity in connection with obtaining a restricted profit interest under § 351.10(d)(6)(ii)), on a historical cost basis;, (ii) Treatment of employee and director restricted profit interests financed by the banking entity. For purposes of paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section, an investment by a director or employee of a banking entity who acquires a restricted profit interest in his or her personal capacity in a covered fund sponsored by the banking entity will be attributed to the banking entity if the banking entity, directly or indirectly, extends financing for the purpose of enabling the director or employee to acquire the restricted profit interest in the fund and the financing is used to acquire such ownership interest in the covered fund., (2) Calculation of tier 1 capital. For purposes of paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section:, (i) Entities that are required to hold and report tier 1 capital. If a banking entity is required to calculate and report tier 1 capital, the banking entity's tier 1 capital shall be equal to the amount of tier 1 capital of the banking entity as of the last day of the most recent calendar quarter, as reported to its primary financial regulatory agency; and, (ii) If a banking entity is not required to calculate and report tier 1 capital, the banking entity's tier 1 capital shall be determined to be equal to:, (A) In the case of a banking entity that is controlled, directly or indirectly, by a depository institution that calculates and reports tier 1 capital, be equal to the amount of tier 1 capital reported by such controlling depository institution in the manner described in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section;, (B) In the case of a banking entity that is not controlled, directly or indirectly, by a depository institution that calculates and reports tier 1 capital:, (1) Bank holding company subsidiaries. If the banking entity is a subsidiary of a bank holding company or company that is treated as a bank holding company, be equal to the amount of tier 1 capital reported by the top-tier affiliate of such covered banking entity that calculates and reports tier 1 capital in the manner described in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section; and, (2) Other holding companies and any subsidiary or affiliate thereof. If the banking entity is not a subsidiary of a bank holding company or a company that is treated as a bank holding company, be equal to the total amount of shareholders' equity of the top-tier affiliate within such organization as of the last day of the most recent calendar quarter that has ended, as determined under applicable accounting standards., (iii) Treatment of foreign banking entities - (A) Foreign banking entities. Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(iii)(B) of this section, with respect to a banking entity that is not itself, and is not controlled directly or indirectly by, a banking entity that is located or organized under the laws of the United States or of any State, the tier 1 capital of the banking entity shall be the consolidated tier 1 capital of the entity as calculated under applicable home country standards., (B) U.S. affiliates of foreign banking entities. With respect to a banking entity that is located or organized under the laws of the United States or of any State and is controlled by a foreign banking entity identified under paragraph (c)(2)(iii)(A) of this section, the banking entity's tier 1 capital shall be as calculated under paragraphs (c)(2)(i) or (ii) of this section., (d) Capital treatment for a permitted investment in a covered fund. For purposes of calculating compliance with the applicable regulatory capital requirements, a banking entity shall deduct from the banking entity's tier 1 capital (as determined under paragraph (c)(2) of this section) the greater of:, (1)(i) The sum of all amounts paid or contributed by the banking entity in connection with acquiring or retaining an ownership interest (together with any amounts paid by the entity in connection with obtaining a restricted profit interest under § 351.10(d)(6)(ii) of subpart C of this part), on a historical cost basis, plus any earnings received; and, (ii) The fair market value of the banking entity's ownership interests in the covered fund as determined under paragraph (b)(2)(ii) or (b)(3) of this section (together with any amounts paid by the entity in connection with obtaining a restricted profit interest under § 351.10(d)(6)(ii) of subpart C of this part), if the banking entity accounts for the profits (or losses) of the fund investment in its financial statements., (2) Treatment of employee and director restricted profit interests financed by the banking entity. For purposes of paragraph (d)(1) of this section, an investment by a director or employee of a banking entity who acquires a restricted profit interest in his or her personal capacity in a covered fund sponsored by the banking entity will be attributed to the banking entity if the banking entity, directly or indirectly, extends financing for the purpose of enabling the director or employee to acquire the restricted profit interest in the fund and the financing is used to acquire such ownership interest in the covered fund., (e) Extension of time to divest an ownership interest - (1) Extension period. Upon application by a banking entity, the Board may extend the period under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section for up to 2 additional years if the Board finds that an extension would be consistent with safety and soundness and not detrimental to the public interest., (2) Application requirements. An application for extension must:, (i) Be submitted to the Board at least 90 days prior to the expiration of the applicable time period;, (ii) Provide the reasons for application, including information that addresses the factors in paragraph (e)(3) of this section; and, (iii) Explain the banking entity's plan for reducing the permitted investment in a covered fund through redemption, sale, dilution or other methods as required in paragraph (a)(2) of this section., (3) Factors governing the Board determinations. In reviewing any application under paragraph (e)(1) of this section, the Board may consider all the facts and circumstances related to the permitted investment in a covered fund, including:, (i) Whether the investment would result, directly or indirectly, in a material exposure by the banking entity to high-risk assets or high-risk trading strategies;, (ii) The contractual terms governing the banking entity's interest in the covered fund;, (iii) The date on which the covered fund is expected to have attracted sufficient investments from investors unaffiliated with the banking entity to enable the banking entity to comply with the limitations in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section;, (iv) The total exposure of the covered banking entity to the investment and the risks that disposing of, or maintaining, the investment in the covered fund may pose to the banking entity and the financial stability of the United States;, (v) The cost to the banking entity of divesting or disposing of the investment within the applicable period;, (vi) Whether the investment or the divestiture or conformance of the investment would involve or result in a material conflict of interest between the banking entity and unaffiliated parties, including clients, customers, or counterparties to which it owes a duty;, (vii) The banking entity's prior efforts to reduce through redemption, sale, dilution, or other methods its ownership interests in the covered fund, including activities related to the marketing of interests in such covered fund;, (viii) Market conditions; and, (ix) Any other factor that the Board believes appropriate., (4) Authority to impose restrictions on activities or investment during any extension period. The Board may impose such conditions on any extension approved under paragraph (e)(1) of this section as the Board determines are necessary or appropriate to protect the safety and soundness of the banking entity or the financial stability of the United States, address material conflicts of interest or other unsound banking practices, or otherwise further the purposes of section 13 of the BHC Act and this part., (5) Consultation. In the case of a banking entity that is primarily regulated by another Federal banking agency, the SEC, or the CFTC, the Board will consult with such agency prior to acting on an application by the banking entity for an extension under paragraph (e)(1) of this section.

(a) Authority and purpose - (1) In general. This part is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board) to implement the Expedited Funds Availability Act (12 U.S.C. 4001-4010) (EFA Act) and the Check Clearing for the 21st Century Act (12 U.S.C. 5001-5018) (Check 21 Act)., (2) Joint authority of the Bureau. The Board issues regulations under Sections 603(d)(1), 604, 605, and 609(a) of the EFA Act (12 U.S.C. 4002(d)(1), 4003, 4004, 4008(a)) jointly with the Director of the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection (Bureau)., (b) Organization. This part is divided into subparts and appendices as follows - , (1) Subpart A contains general information. It sets forth - , (i) The authority, purpose, and organization; , (ii) Definition of terms; and , (iii) Authority for administrative enforcement of this part's provisions. , (2) Subpart B of this part contains rules regarding the duty of banks to make funds deposited into accounts available for withdrawal, including availability schedules. Subpart B of this part also contains rules regarding exceptions to the schedules, disclosure of funds availability policies, payment of interest, liability of banks for failure to comply with subpart B of this part, and other matters., (3) Subpart C of this part contains rules to expedite the collection and return of checks and electronic checks by banks. These rules cover the direct return of checks and electronic checks, the manner in which the paying bank and returning banks must return checks and electronic checks to the depositary bank, notification of nonpayment by the paying bank, indorsement and presentment of checks and electronic checks, same-day settlement for certain checks, the liability of banks for failure to comply with subpart C of this part, and other matters., (4) Subpart D of this part contains rules relating to substitute checks. These rules address the creation and legal status of substitute checks; the substitute check warranties and indemnity; expedited recredit procedures for resolving improper charges and warranty claims associated with substitute checks provided to consumers; and the disclosure and notices that banks must provide., (5) Appendix A of this part contains a routing number guide to next day-availability checks. The guide lists the routing numbers of checks drawn on Federal Reserve Banks and Federal Home Loan Banks, and U.S. Treasury checks and Postal money orders that are subject to next-day availability., (6) Appendix B of this part is reserved., (7) Appendix C of this part contains model funds-availability policy disclosures, clauses, and notices and a model disclosure and notices related to substitute-check policies., (8) Appendix D of this part is reserved., (9) Appendix E of this part contains Board interpretations, which are labeled“Commentary,” of the provisions of this part. The Commentary provides background material to explain the Board's intent in adopting a particular part of the regulation and provides examples to aid in understanding how a particular requirement is to work. The Commentary is an official Board interpretation under section 611(e) of the EFA Act (12 U.S.C. 4010(e))., (10) Appendix F of this part contains the Board's determinations of the EFA Act and Regulation CC's preemption of state laws that were in effect on September 1, 1989.

(a) Authority and purpose. Regulation T (this part) is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (the Board) pursuant to the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the Act) (15 U.S.C.78a et seq.). Its principal purpose is to regulate extensions of credit by brokers and dealers; it also covers related transactions within the Board's authority under the Act. It imposes, among other obligations, initial margin requirements and payment rules on certain securities transactions., (b) Scope. (1) This part provides a margin account and four special purpose accounts in which to record all financial relations between a customer and a creditor. Any transaction not specifically permitted in a special purpose account shall be recorded in a margin account., (2) This part does not preclude any exchange, national securities association, or creditor from imposing additional requirements or taking action for its own protection., (3) This part does not apply to:, (i) Financial relations between a customer and a creditor to the extent that they comply with a portfolio margining system under rules approved or amended by the SEC;, (ii) Credit extended by a creditor based on a good faith determination that the borrower is an exempted borrower;, (iii) Financial relations between a customer and a broker or dealer registered only under section 15C of the Act; and, (iv) Financial relations between a foreign branch of a creditor and a foreign person involving foreign securities.

(a) Authority and purpose. Regulation X (this part) is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (the Board) under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, as amended (the Act) (15 U.S.C. 78a et seq.). This part implements section 7(f) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78g(f)), the purpose of which is to require that credit obtained within or outside the United States complies with the limitations of the Board's Margin Regulations T and U (12 CFR parts 220 and 221, respectively)., (b) Scope and exemptions. The Act and this part apply the Board's margin regulations to United States persons and foreign persons controlled by or acting on behalf of or in conjunction with United States persons (hereinafter borrowers), who obtain credit outside the United States to purchase or carry United States securities, or within the United States to purchase or carry any securities (both types of credit are hereinafter referred to as purpose credit). The following borrowers are exempt from the Act and this part:, (1) Any borrower who obtains purpose credit within the United States, unless the borrower willfully causes the credit to be extended in contravention of Regulations T or U., (2) Any borrower whose permanent residence is outside the United States and who does not obtain or have outstanding, during any calendar year, a total of more than $100,000 in purpose credit obtained outside the United States; and, (3) Any borrower who is exempt by Order upon terms and conditions set by the Board.

(a) Authority and purpose. Sections 11(e) (8) through (10) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1821(e) (8) through (10), provide special rules for the treatment of qualified financial contracts of an insured depository institution for which the FDIC is appointed conservator or receiver, including rules describing the manner in which qualified financial contracts may be transferred or closed out. Section 11(e)(8)(D)(i) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1821(e)(8)(D)(i), grants the Corporation authority to determine by regulation whether any agreement, other than those identified within section 11(e)(8)(D), should be recognized as qualified financial contracts under the statute. The purpose of this section is to identify additional agreements which the Corporation has determined to be qualified financial contracts. , (b) Repurchase agreements. The following agreements shall be deemed “repurchase agreements” under section 11(e)(8)(D)(v) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1821(e)(8)(D)(v)): A repurchase agreement on qualified foreign government securities is an agreement or combination of agreements (including master agreements) which provides for the transfer of securities that are direct obligations of, or that are fully guaranteed by, the central governments (as set forth at 12 CFR 324.2 (definition of sovereign exposure), as may be amended from time to time) of the OECD-based group of countries (as generally discussed in 12 CFR 324.32) against the transfer of funds by the transferee of such securities with a simultaneous agreement by such transferee to transfer to the transferor thereof securities as described above, at a date certain not later than one year after such transfers or on demand, against the transfer of funds., (c) Swap agreements. The following agreements shall be deemed “swap agreements” under section 11(e)(8)(D)(vi) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1821(e)(8)(D)(vi)): A spot foreign exchange agreement is any agreement providing for or effecting the purchase or sale of one currency in exchange for another currency (or a unit of account established by an intergovernmental organization such as the European Currency Unit) with a maturity date of two days or less after the agreement has been entered into, and includes short-dated transactions such as tomorrow/next day and same day/tomorrow transactions. , (d) Nothing in this section shall be construed as limiting or changing a party's obligation to comply with all reasonable trading practices and requirements, non-insolvency law requirements and any other requirements imposed by other provisions of the FDI Act. This section in no way limits the authority of the Corporation to take supervisory or enforcement actions, or to otherwise manage the affairs of a financial institution for which the Corporation has been appointed conservator or receiver.

(a) Authority and purpose. This part (Regulation F, 12 CFR part 206) is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board) under authority of section 23 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371b-2). The purpose of this part is to limit the risks that the failure of a depository institution would pose to insured depository institutions., (b) Scope. This part applies to all depository institutions insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.

(a) Authority and purpose. This part establishes mechanisms for carrying out the Board's statutory responsibilities relating to the disclosure, production, or withholding of information to facilitate the Board's interaction with financial institutions and the public. In this regard, the Board has determined that the Board or its delegees may disclose nonpublic information of the Board, in accordance with the procedures set forth in this part, whenever it is necessary or appropriate to do so in the exercise of any of the Board's authorities, including but not limited to authority granted to the Board in the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, Federal Reserve Act, 12 U.S.C. 221 et seq., the Bank Holding Company Act, 12 U.S.C. 1841 et seq., the Home Owners' Loan Act, 12 U.S.C. 1461 et seq., and the International Banking Act, 12 U.S.C. 3101 et seq. The Board has determined that all such disclosures made in accordance with the rules and procedures specified in this part are authorized by law, and are, as applicable, disclosures to proper persons pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 326. This part also sets forth the categories of information made available to the public, the procedures for obtaining information and records, the procedures for limited release of nonpublic information, and the procedures for protecting confidential business information., (b) Scope. (1) This subpart A contains general provisions and definitions of terms used in this part., (2) Subpart B implements the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) (5 U.S.C. 552)., (3) Subpart C sets forth:, (i) The kinds of nonpublic information made available to supervised financial institutions, governmental agencies, and others in certain circumstances;, (ii) The procedures for disclosure; and, (iii) The procedures with respect to subpoenas, orders compelling production, and other process.

(a) Authority and purpose. This part establishes mechanisms for carrying out the Federal Open Market Committee's (Committee) statutory responsibilities relating to the disclosure, production, or withholding of information to facilitate the Committee's interactions with the public. In this regard, the Committee has determined that the Committee, or its delegees, may disclose exempt information of the Committee, in accordance with the procedures set forth in this part, whenever it is necessary or appropriate to do so in the exercise of any of the Committee's authorities, including but not limited to authority granted to the Committee in the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, and section 12A of the Federal Reserve Act, 12 U.S.C. 263. The Committee has determined that all such disclosures made in accordance with the rules and procedures specified in this part are authorized by law. This part also sets forth the categories of information made available to the public, the procedures for obtaining information and records, the procedures for limited release of exempt information, and the procedures for protecting confidential business information., (b) Scope. (1) Subpart A of this part contains general provisions and definitions of terms used in this part., (2) Subpart B of this part implements the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) (5 U.S.C. 552)., (3) Subpart C of this part sets forth the procedures with respect to subpoenas, orders compelling production, and other process.

(a) Authority and purpose. This subpart provides rules to govern funds transfers through the Fedwire Funds Service, and has been issued pursuant to the Federal Reserve Act - section 13 (12 U.S.C. 342), paragraph (f) of section 19 (12 U.S.C. 464), paragraph 14 of section 16 (12 U.S.C. 248(o)), and paragraphs (i) and (j) of section 11 (12 U.S.C. 248(i) and (j)) - and other laws and has the force and effect of federal law. This subpart is not a funds-transfer system rule as defined in Section 4A-501(b) of Article 4A., (b) Scope. (1) This subpart incorporates the provisions of Article 4A set forth in appendix B to this subpart. In the event of an inconsistency between the provisions of the sections of this subpart and appendix B to this subpart, the provisions of the sections of this subpart shall prevail. In the event of an inconsistency between the provisions this subpart and section 919 of the Electronic Fund Transfer Act, section 919 of the Electronic Fund Transfer Act shall prevail., (2) Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (b)(3) and (4) of this section, including Article 4A as set forth in appendix B to this subpart, and operating circulars of the Reserve Banks issued in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section, this subpart governs the rights and obligations of:, (i) Federal Reserve Banks sending or receiving payment orders;, (ii) Senders that send payment orders directly to a Federal Reserve Bank;, (iii) Receiving banks that receive payment orders directly from a Federal Reserve Bank;, (iv) Beneficiaries that receive payment for payment orders sent to a Federal Reserve Bank by means of credit to an account maintained or used at a Federal Reserve Bank; and, (v) Other parties to a funds transfer any part of which is carried out through Fedwire to the same extent as if this subpart were considered a funds-transfer system rule under Article 4A., (3) This subpart governs a funds transfer that is sent through the Fedwire Funds Service, as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, even though a portion of the funds transfer is governed by the Electronic Fund Transfer Act, but the portion of such funds transfer that is governed by the Electronic Fund Transfer Act (other than section 919 governing remittance transfers) is not governed by this subpart., (4) In the event that any portion of this Subpart establishes rights or obligations with respect to the availability of funds that are also governed by the Expedited Funds Availability Act or the Board's Regulation CC, Availability of Funds and Collection of Checks, those provisions of the Expedited Funds Availability Act or Regulation CC shall apply and the portion of this Subpart, including Article 4A as incorporated herein, shall not apply., (c) Operating Circulars. Each Federal Reserve Bank shall issue an Operating Circular consistent with this Subpart that governs the details of its funds-transfer operations and other matters it deems appropriate. Among other things, the Operating Circular may: set cut-off hours and funds-transfer business days; address available security procedures; specify format and media requirements for payment orders; identify messages that are not payment orders; and impose charges for funds-transfer services., (d) Government senders, receiving banks, and beneficiaries. Except as otherwise expressly provided by the statutes of the United States, the parties specified in paragraphs (b)(2)(ii) through (v) of this section include:, (1) A department, agency, instrumentality, independent establishment, or office of the United States, or a wholly-owned or controlled Government corporation;, (2) An international organization;, (3) A foreign central bank; and, (4) A department, agency, instrumentality, independent establishment, or office of a foreign government, or a wholly-owned or controlled corporation of a foreign government., (e) Financial messaging standards. Financial messaging standards (e.g., ISO 20022), including the financial messaging components, elements, technical documentation, tags, and terminology used to implement those standards, do not confer or connote legal status or responsibilities. This subpart, including Article 4A as set forth in appendix B to this subpart, and the operating circulars of the Reserve Banks issued in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section govern the rights and obligations of parties to funds transfers sent through the Fedwire Funds Service as provided in paragraph (b) of this section. To the extent there is any inconsistency between a financial messaging standard adopted by the Fedwire Funds Service and this subpart, this subpart shall prevail.

(a) Authority and purposes. Each Bank is authorized to issue or confirm on behalf of members standby letters of credit that comply with the requirements of this part, for any of the following purposes:, (1) To assist members in facilitating residential housing finance;, (2) To assist members in facilitating community lending; , (3) To assist members with asset/liability management; or, (4) To provide members with liquidity or other funding., (b) Fully secured. A Bank, at the time it issues or confirms a standby letter of credit on behalf of a member, shall obtain and maintain a security interest in collateral that is sufficient to secure fully the member's unconditional obligation described in § 1269.4(a)(2) of this part, and that complies with the requirements set forth in paragraph (c) of this section., (c) Eligible collateral. (1) Any standby letter of credit issued or confirmed on behalf of a member may be secured in accordance with the requirements for advances under § 1266.7 of this chapter. , (2) A standby letter of credit issued or confirmed on behalf of a member for a purpose described in paragraphs (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section may, in addition to the collateral described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, be secured by obligations of state or local government units or agencies, where such obligations have a readily ascertainable value, can be reliably discounted to account for liquidation and other risks, and can be liquidated in due course.

(a) Authority and scope. This regulation is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System pursuant to title VII (Equal Credit Opportunity Act) of the Consumer Credit Protection Act, as amended (15 U.S.C. 1601 et seq.). Except as otherwise provided herein, this regulation applies to all persons who are creditors, as defined in § 202.2(1). Information collection requirements contained in this regulation have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget under the provisions of 44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq. and have been assigned OMB No. 7100-0201. , (b) Purpose. The purpose of this regulation is to promote the availability of credit to all creditworthy applicants without regard to race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, or age (provided the applicant has the capacity to contract); to the fact that all or part of the applicant's income derives from a public assistance program; or to the fact that the applicant has in good faith exercised any right under the Consumer Credit Protection Act. The regulation prohibits creditor practices that discriminate on the basis of any of these factors. The regulation also requires creditors to notify applicants of action taken on their applications; to report credit history in the names of both spouses on an account; to retain records of credit applications; to collect information about the applicant's race and other personal characteristics in applications for certain dwelling-related loans; and to provide applicants with copies of appraisal reports used in connection with credit transactions.

(a) Authority of presiding officer. All hearings governed by this subpart shall be conducted in accordance with the provisions of chapter 5 of title 5 of the United States Code. The presiding officer designated by the Board to preside at any such hearing shall have complete charge of the hearing, shall have the duty to conduct it in a fair and impartial manner and shall take all necessary action to avoid delay in the disposition of the proceeding. Such officer shall have all powers necessary to that end, including the following: , (1) To administer oaths and affirmations; , (2) To issue subpoenas and subpoenas duces tecum, as authorized by law, and to revoke, quash, or modify any such subpoena; , (3) To receive relevant evidence and to rule upon the admission of evidence and offers of proof; , (4) To take or cause depositions to be taken; , (5) To regulate the course of the hearing and the conduct of the parties and their counsel; , (6) To hold conferences for the settlement or simplification of issues or for any proper purpose; and , (7) To consider and rule upon, as justice may require, all procedural and other motions appropriate in a proceeding under this subpart, except that a presiding officer shall not have power to decide any motion to dismiss the proceeding or other motion which results in a final determination of the merits of the proceeding. This power rests only with the Board. Without limitation on the foregoing, the presiding officer shall, subject to the provisions of this subpart, have all the authority set forth in 5 U.S.C. 556(c). , (b) Prehearing conference. The presiding officer may, on his or her own initiative or at the request of any party, direct counsel for all parties to meet with him or her at a specified time and place prior to the hearing, or to submit suggestions to him or her in writing, for the purpose of considering any or all of the following: , (1) Simplification and clarification of the issues; , (2) Stipulations, admissions of fact and of the contents and authenticity of documents; , (3) Matters of which official notice will be taken; and , (4) Such other matters as may aid in the orderly disposition of the proceeding., (c) Exchange of information. Thirty (30) days prior to the hearing, parties shall exchange a list of the names of witnesses with a general description of their expected testimony, and a list and one copy of all documents or other physical exhibits which will be introduced in evidence in the course of the proceeding. , (d) Attendance at hearings. All hearings shall be private and shall be attended only by the parties, their counsel or authorized representatives, witnesses while testifying, and other persons having an official interest in the proceeding. However, if the Board, in its discretion, after fully considering the views of the party afforded the hearing, determines that a public hearing is necessary to protect the public interest, the Board may in its sole discretion order that the hearing be public. , (e) Transcript of testimony. Hearings shall be recorded. A copy of the transcript of the testimony taken at any hearing, duly certified by the reporter, together with all exhibits accepted into evidence shall be filed with the presiding officer. The presiding officer shall promptly serve notice upon all parties of such filing. The parties shall make their own arrangements with the person recording the testimony for copies of the testimony and exhibits. The presiding officer shall have authority to correct the record sua sponte with notice to all parties and to rule upon motions to correct the record. In the event the hearing is public, transcripts will be furnished to interested persons upon payment of the cost thereof., (f) Continuances and changes or extensions of time and changes of place of hearing. Except as otherwise provided by law, the presiding officer may extend time limits prescribed by these rules or by any notice or order issued in the proceedings, may change the time for beginning any hearing, continue or adjourn a hearing from time to time, and/or change the location of the hearing. Prior to the appointment of a presiding officer and after the filing of a recommended decision pursuant to § 622.12, the Board may grant such extensions or changes. Subject to the approval of the presiding officer, the parties may by stipulation change the time limits specified by these rules or any notice or order issued hereunder., (g) Closing of hearing. The record of the hearing shall be closed by an announcement to that effect by the presiding officer when the taking of evidence has been concluded. In the discretion of the presiding officer, the record may be closed as of a future date in order to permit the admission into the record, under circumstances determined by the presiding officer, of exhibits to be prepared., (h) Call for further evidence, oral arguments, briefs, reopening of hearing. The presiding officer may call for the production of further evidence upon any issue, may permit oral argument and submission of briefs at the hearing and, upon appropriate notice, may reopen any hearing at any time prior to the filing of his or her recommended decision. The Board may reopen the record at anytime permitted by law., (i) Order of procedure. The FCA shall open and close., (j) Ex parte communications. (1) No person shall make or knowingly cause to be made an ex parte communication relevant to the merits of the proceeding to the presiding officer or anyone who is or may reasonably be expected to be involved in the decisional process., (2) No person who is or may reasonably be expected to be involved in the decisional process shall make or knowingly cause to be made an ex parte communication relevant to the merits of the proceeding to any person., (3) Except as authorized by law, the presiding officer shall not consult anyone on any fact in issue, unless upon notice and opportunity for all parties to participate. The presiding officer shall not be responsible to, or subject to the supervision or direction of, any officer, employee, or agent of the FCA engaged in the performance of investigative or prosecuting functions. An officer, employee or agent engaged in the performance of such functions in any case shall not, in that case or a factually related case, participate or advise in the decision of the presiding officer, except as a witness or counsel in the proceedings, or as otherwise authorized by law., (4) If an ex parte communication is made or knowingly caused to be made, all such communications, and any responses, shall be placed in the record. , (5) Upon receipt of a communication knowingly made or caused to be made in violation of paragraph (j) of this section, the responsible party may be required to show cause why such party's claim or interest should not be dismissed, denied, or otherwise adversely affected. To the extent consistent with the interests of justice, a knowing violation of paragraph (j) of this section may be grounds for a decision adverse to a party in violation. , (6) The prohibitions against ex parte communications apply from the time a proceeding is noticed for hearing. However, when the person responsible for the communication has knowledge that the proceeding will be noticed, the prohibitions apply from the time such knowledge is acquired.

(a) Authority to buy interests in leases. A Farm Credit System institution may buy leases and interests in leases., (b) Policies. Each Farm Credit System institution that sells or buys interests in leases must do so only under a policy adopted by its board of directors that addresses the following:, (1) The types of leases in which the institution may buy or sell an interest and the types of interests which may be bought or sold;, (2) The underwriting standards for the purchase of interests in leases;, (3) Such limits on the aggregate lease payments and residual amount of interests in leases that the institution may buy from a single institution as are necessary to diversify risk, and such limits on the aggregate amounts the institution may buy from all institutions as are necessary to assure that service to the territory is not impeded;, (4) Identification and reporting of leases in which interests are sold or bought;, (5) Requirements for securing from the selling lessor in a timely manner adequate financial and other information about the lessee needed to make an independent judgment; and, (6) Any limits or conditions to which sales or purchases are subject that the board considers appropriate, including arbitration., (c) Purchase and sale agreements. Each agreement to buy or sell an interest in a lease must, at a minimum:, (1) Identify the particular lease(s) to be covered by the agreement;, (2) Provide for the transfer of lessee information on a timely and continuing basis;, (3) Identify the nature of the interest(s) sold or bought;, (4) Specify the rights and obligations of the parties and the terms and conditions of the sale;, (5) Contain any terms necessary for the appropriate administration of the lease, including lease servicing and monitoring of the servicer and authorization and conditions for action in the event of lessee distress or default;, (6) Provide for a method of resolution of disagreements arising under the agreement;, (7) Specify whether the contract is assignable by either party; and, (8) In the case of lease transactions through agents, comply with § 614.4325(h) of this chapter, reading the term “lease” or “leases” in place of the term “loan” or “loans,” as applicable., (d) Independent judgment. Each institution that buys an interest in a lease must make a judgment on the payment ability of the lessee that is independent of the originating or lead lessor and any intermediary seller or broker. This must occur before the purchase of the interest and before any servicing action that alters the terms of the original agreement. The institution must not delegate such judgment to any person(s) not employed by the institution. A Farm Credit System institution that buys a lease or any interest in a lease may use information, such as appraisals or inspections, provided by the originating or lead lessor, or any intermediary seller or broker; however, the buying Farm Credit System institution must independently evaluate such information when exercising its judgment. The independent judgment must be documented by a payment analysis that considers factors set forth in § 616.6300. The payment analysis must consider such financial and other lessee information as would be required by a prudent lessor and must include an evaluation of the capacity and reliability of the servicer. Boards of directors of jointly managed institutions must adopt procedures to ensure the interests of their respective shareholders are protected in participation between such institutions., (e) Sales with recourse. When a lease or interest in a lease is sold with recourse:, (1) For the purpose of determining the lending and leasing limit in subpart J of part 614 of this chapter, the lease must be considered, to the extent of the recourse or guaranty, a lease by the buyer to the seller, and in addition, the seller must aggregate the lease with other obligations of the lessee; and, (2) The lease subject to the recourse agreement must be considered an asset sold with recourse for the purpose of computing capital ratios., (f) Similar entity lease transactions. The provisions of § 613.3300 of this chapter that apply to interests in loans made to similar entities apply to interests in leases made to similar entities. In applying these provisions, the term “loan” shall be read to include the term “lease” and the term “principal amount” shall be read to include the term “lease amount.”

(a) Authority to grant or deny requests. The FOIA Officer, FOIA Official, and the Chief FOIA Officer are authorized to grant or deny any request for FHFA records., (b) Designated standard “cut-off” date for searches. In determining which records are responsive to a request, FHFA will include only records in its possession as of the date the FOIA request is received., (c) Multi-Track request processing. FHFA uses a multi-track system to process FOIA requests. This means that a FOIA request is processed based on its complexity. When FHFA receives your request, it is assigned to a Standard Track or Complex Track. FHFA will notify you if your request is assigned to the Complex Track as described in paragraph (h) of this section., (1) Standard Track. FHFA assigns FOIA requests that are routine and require little or no search time, review, or analysis to the Standard Track. FHFA responds to these requests in the order in which they are received and normally responds within 20 days after receipt. If FHFA determines while processing your Standard Track request, that it is more appropriately a Complex Track request, it will be reassigned to the Complex Track and you will be notified as described in paragraph (h) of this section., (2) Complex Track. (i) FHFA assigns requests that are non-routine to the Complex Track. Complex Track requests are those to which FHFA determines that the request and/or response may - , (A) Be voluminous;, (B) Involve two or more FHFA components or units;, (C) Require consultation with other agencies or entities;, (D) Require searches of archived documents;, (E) Seek confidential commercial information as described in § 1202.8 of this part;, (F) Require an unusually high level of effort to search for, review and/or duplicate records; or, (G) Cause undue disruption to the day-to-day activities of FHFA in regulating and supervising the regulated entities or in carrying out its statutory responsibilities., (ii) FHFA will respond to Complex Track requests as soon as reasonably possible, regardless of the date of receipt., (d) Referrals to other agencies. If you submit a FOIA request that seeks records originating in another Federal Government agency, FHFA will refer those records, as applicable, to the other agency for a direct response. FHFA will provide you notice of the referral, what records were referred, and the name of the other agency and relevant contact information., (e) Consultation with other agencies. When records originate with FHFA, but contain within them information of interest to another agency, FHFA will consult with the other agency(ies) prior to making a determination on your request., (f) Responses to FOIA requests. FHFA will respond to your request by granting or denying it in full, or by granting and denying it in part. The response will be in writing. In determining which records are responsive to your request, FHFA will conduct a search for records in its possession as of the date of your request., (1) Requests that are granted. If FHFA grants your request, the response will include the requested records or details about how FHFA will provide them to you and the amount of any fees charged., (2) Requests that are denied, or granted and denied in part. If FHFA denies your request in whole or in part because a requested record does not exist or cannot be located, is not readily reproducible in the form or format you sought, is not subject to the FOIA, or is exempt from disclosure, the written response will include the requested releasable records, if any, the amount of any fees charged, the reasons for denial, and a notice and description of your right to file an administrative appeal under § 1202.9. FHFA will not provide you with a Vaughn index during the administrative stage of processing your request., (g) Format and delivery of disclosed records. If FHFA grants, in whole or in part, your request for disclosure of records under the FOIA, the records may be made available to you in the form or format you requested, if they are readily reproducible in that form or format. The records will be sent to the address you provided by regular U.S. mail or by electronic mail unless alternate arrangements are made by mutual agreement, such as your agreement to pay express or expedited delivery service fees, or to pick up records at FHFA offices., (h) Extensions of time. (1) In unusual circumstances, FHFA may extend the statutory time limit in paragraph (c)(1) of this section for no more than 10 days and notify you of - , (i) The reason for the extension; and, (ii) The date on which the determination is expected., (2) When a request requires more than 30 days to process, FHFA will make available its FOIA Public Liaison or other FOIA contact to assist you in modifying or reformulating your request. If the request cannot be modified or reformulated, FHFA will notify you regarding an alternative time period for processing the request. FHFA will also notify you of the availability of the Office of Government Information Services to provide dispute resolution service., (3) For the purpose of satisfying unusual circumstances under the FOIA, FHFA may aggregate requests in cases where it reasonably appears that multiple requests, submitted either by a requester or by a group of requesters acting in concert, constitute a single request that would otherwise involve unusual circumstances. FHFA will not aggregate multiple requests that involve unrelated matters.

(a) Authority, purpose, and scope. Pursuant to section 3 of the Bank Protection Act of 1968 (12 U.S.C. 1882), member banks are required to adopt appropriate security procedures to discourage robberies, burglaries, and larcenies, and to assist in the identification and prosecution of persons who commit such acts. It is the responsibility of the member bank's board of directors to comply with the provisions of this section and ensure that a written security program for the bank's main office and branches is developed and implemented., (b) Designation of security officer. Upon becoming a member of the Federal Reserve System, a member bank's board of directors shall designate a security officer who shall have the authority, subject to the approval of the board of directors, to develop, within a reasonable time, but no later than 180 days, and to administer a written security program for each banking office., (c) Security program. (1) The security program shall:, (i) Establish procedures for opening and closing for business and for the safekeeping of all currency, negotiable securities, and similar valuables at all times;, (ii) Establish procedures that will assist in identifying persons committing crimes against the institution and that will preserve evidence that may aid in their identification and prosecution. Such procedures may include, but are not limited to: maintaining a camera that records activity in the banking office; using identification devices, such as prerecorded serial-numbered bills, or chemical and electronic devices; and retaining a record of any robbery, burglary, or larceny committed against the bank;, (iii) Provide for initial and periodic training of officers and employees in their responsibilities under the security program and in proper employee conduct during and after a burglary, robbery, or larceny; and, (iv) Provide for selecting, testing, operating, and maintaining appropriate security devices, as specified in paragraph (c)(2) of this section., (2) Security devices. Each member bank shall have, at a minimum, the following security devices:, (i) A means of protecting cash and other liquid assets, such as a vault, safe, or other secure space;, (ii) A lighting system for illuminating, during the hours of darkness, the area around the vault, if the vault is visible from outside the banking office;, (iii) Tamper-resistant locks on exterior doors and exterior windows that may be opened;, (iv) An alarm system or other appropriate device for promptly notifying the nearest responsible law enforcement officers of an attempted or perpetrated robbery or burglary; and, (v) Such other devices as the security officer determines to be appropriate, taking into consideration: the incidence of crimes against financial institutions in the area; the amount of currency and other valuables exposed to robbery, burglary, or larceny; the distance of the banking office from the nearest responsible law enforcement officers; the cost of the security devices; other security measures in effect at the banking office; and the physical characteristics of the structure of the banking office and its surroundings., (d) Annual reports. The security officer for each member bank shall report at least annually to the bank's board of directors on the implementation, administration, and effectiveness of the security program., (e) Reserve Banks. Each Reserve Bank shall develop and maintain a written security program for its main office and branches subject to review and approval of the Board.

(a) Authority. 12 U.S.C. 1467; 1467a, 1818, 5361, 5365., (b) Purpose. This subpart establishes the requirement for a covered company to conduct stress tests. This subpart also establishes definitions of stress test and related terms, methodologies for conducting stress tests, and reporting and disclosure requirements.

(a) Authority. 12 U.S.C. 321-338a, 1818, 1831p-1, 1844(b), 1844(c), 5361, 5365, 5366, sec. 401(e), Pub. L. 115-174, 132 Stat. 1296., (b) Purpose. This subpart implements section 165 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5365) and section 401(e) of the Economic Growth, Regulatory Relief, and Consumer Protection Act, which requires the Board to conduct annual analyses of nonbank financial companies supervised by the Board and bank holding companies with $100 billion or more in total consolidated assets to evaluate whether such companies have the capital, on a total consolidated basis, necessary to absorb losses as a result of adverse economic conditions.

(a) Authority. 12 U.S.C. 321-338a, 1818, 1831p-1, 1844(b), 1844(c), 5361, 5365, 5366., (b) Purpose. This subpart establishes the requirement for a covered company to conduct stress tests. This subpart also establishes definitions of stress test and related terms, methodologies for conducting stress tests, and reporting and disclosure requirements.

(a) Authority. 12 U.S.C. 321-338a, 1818, 1831p-1, 3906-3909, 5365., (b) Purpose. This subpart implements section 165(i)(2) of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5365(i)(2)), which requires state member banks with total consolidated assets of greater than $250 billion to conduct stress tests. This subpart also establishes definitions of stress tests and related terms, methodologies for conducting stress tests, and reporting and disclosure requirements.

(a) Authority. A Federal credit union may, to the extent permitted under Section 107(6) of the Act and this section, receive payments on shares, (regular shares, share certificates, and share draft accounts) from public units and political subdivisions thereof (as those terms are defined in § 745.1) and nonmember credit unions, and to the extent permitted under the Act, this section and § 701.34, receive payments on shares (regular shares, share certificates, and share draft accounts) from other nonmembers. , (b) Limitations - (1) Aggregate limit on public unit and nonmember shares. Except as permitted under paragraph (c) of this section, a federal credit union may not receive public unit and nonmember shares in excess of the greater of:, (i) 50 percent of the net amount of paid-in and unimpaired capital and surplus less any public unit and nonmember shares, as measured at the time of acceptance of each public unit or nonmember share (i.e.,, (ii) $3 million., (2) Required due diligence. Before receiving public unit or nonmember shares that, taken together with any borrowings, exceed 70 percent of paid-in and unimpaired capital and surplus, the board of directors must adopt a specific written plan concerning the intended use of these funds that is consistent with prudent risk management principles., (c) The limitations herein do not apply to accounts maintained in accordance with § 701.37 (Treasury Tax and Loan Depositaries; Depositaries and Financial Agents of the Government) and matching funds required by § 705.5(g) (Community Development Revolving Loan Program for Credit Unions). Once a loan granted pursuant to part 705 is repaid, nonmember share deposits accepted to meet the matching requirement are subject to this section.

(a) Authority. An FDIC-supervised insured depository institution that engages in retail forex transactions shall comply with the requirements of this part., (b) Purpose. This part establishes rules applicable to retail forex transactions engaged in by FDIC-supervised insured depository institutions and applies on or after the effective date., (c) Scope. Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, this part applies to FDIC-supervised insured depository institutions., (d) International applicability. Sections 349.15 and 349.17 through 349.28 do not apply to retail foreign exchange transactions between a foreign branch of an FDIC-supervised IDI and a non-U.S. customer. With respect to those transactions, an FDIC-supervised IDI must comply with any disclosure, recordkeeping, capital, margin, reporting, business conduct, documentation, and other requirements of applicable foreign law.

(a) Authority. Any Federal Reserve Bank shall have authority to apply book-entry procedure to Financing Corporation obligations., (b) Procedure. The book-entry procedure for Financing Corporation obligations shall be governed by the book-entry procedure established for Bank consolidated obligations, codified at part 1270 of this chapter. Wherever the terms “Bank(s),” “consolidated obligation(s)” or “Book-entry consolidated obligation(s)” appear in part 1270, the terms shall be construed also to mean “Financing Corporation,” “Financing Corporation obligation(s),” or “Book-entry Financing Corporation obligation(s),” respectively, if appropriate to accomplish the purposes of this section.

(a) Authority. FHFA hereby authorizes the Banks to approve or deny all applications for membership, subject to the requirements of this part. The authority to approve membership applications may be exercised only by a committee of the Bank's board of directors, the Bank president, or a senior officer who reports directly to the Bank president, other than an officer with responsibility for business development., (b) Decision resolution. For each applicant, the Bank shall prepare a written resolution duly adopted by the Bank's board of directors, by a committee of the board of directors, or by an officer with delegated authority to approve membership applications. The decision resolution shall state:, (1) That the statements in the digest are accurate to the best of the Bank's knowledge, and are based on a diligent and comprehensive review of all available information identified in the digest; and, (2) The Bank's decision and the reasons therefor. Decisions to approve an application should state specifically that:, (i) The applicant is authorized under the laws of the United States and the laws of the appropriate State to become a member of, purchase stock in, do business with, and maintain deposits in, the Bank to which the applicant has applied; and, (ii) The applicant meets all of the membership eligibility criteria of the Bank Act and this part., (c) Action on applications. The Bank shall act on an application within 60 calendar days of the date the Bank deems the application to be complete. An application is “complete” when the Bank has obtained all the information required by this part, and any other information the Bank deems necessary, to process the application. If an application that was deemed complete subsequently is deemed incomplete because the Bank determines during the review process that additional information is necessary to process the application, the Bank may suspend the 60-day processing period until the Bank again deems the application to be complete, at which time the processing period shall resume. The Bank shall notify an applicant in writing when it deems the applicant's application to be complete, and shall maintain a copy of the notice in the applicant's membership file. The Bank shall notify an applicant whenever it suspends or resumes the 60-day processing period, and shall maintain a written record of those notifications in the applicant's membership file. Within three business days of a Bank's decision on an application, the Bank shall provide the applicant and FHFA with a copy of the Bank's decision resolution.

(a) Authority. FHFA issues this part 1208 under the authority of 5 U.S.C. 5514 and 31 U.S.C. 3701-3720D, and in conformity with the Federal Claims Collection Standards (FCCS) at 31 CFR chapter IX; the regulations on salary offset issued by the Office of Personnel Management (OPM) at 5 CFR part 550, subpart K; the regulations on tax refund offset issued by the United States Department of the Treasury (Treasury) at 31 CFR 285.2; and the regulations on administrative wage garnishment issued by Treasury at 31 CFR 285.11., (b) Scope - (1) This part applies to debts that are owed to the Federal Government by Federal employees; other persons, organizations, or entities that are indebted to FHFA; and by Federal employees of FHFA who are indebted to other agencies, except for those debts listed in paragraph (b)(2) of this section., (2) Subparts B and C of this part 1208 do not apply to - , (i) Debts or claims arising under the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 1 et seq.), the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 301 et seq.) or the tariff laws of the United States;, (ii) Any case to which the Contract Disputes Act (41 U.S.C. 601 et seq.) applies;, (iii) Any case where collection of a debt is explicitly provided for or provided by another statute, e.g. travel advances under 5 U.S.C. 5705 and employee training expenses under 5 U.S.C. 4108, or, as provided for by title 11 of the United States Code, when the claims involve bankruptcy;, (iv) Any debt based in whole or in part on conduct in violation of the antitrust laws or involving fraud, the presentation of a false claim, or misrepresentation on the part of the debtor or any party having an interest in the claim, unless the Department of Justice authorizes FHFA to handle the collection; or, (v) Claims between agencies., (3) Nothing in this part precludes the compromise, suspension, or termination of collection actions, where appropriate, under standards implementing the Debt Collection Improvement Act (DCIA) (31 U.S.C. 3701 et seq.), the FCCS (31 CFR chapter IX) or the use of alternative dispute resolution methods if they are not inconsistent with applicable law and regulations., (4) Nothing in this part precludes an employee from requesting waiver of an erroneous payment under 5 U.S.C. 5584, 10 U.S.C. 2774, or 32 U.S.C. 716, or from questioning the amount or validity of a debt, in the manner set forth in this part.

(a) Authority. FHFA may collect debts owed by employees to the Federal Government by means of salary offset under the authority of 5 U.S.C. 5514; 5 CFR part 550, subpart K; and this subpart B., (b) Scope. (1) The procedures set forth in this subpart B apply to situations where FHFA is attempting to collect a debt by salary offset that is owed to it by an individual employed by FHFA or by another agency; or where FHFA employs an individual who owes a debt to another agency., (2) The procedures set forth in this subpart B do not apply to:, (i) Any routine intra-agency adjustment of pay that is attributable to clerical or administrative error or delay in processing pay documents that have occurred within the four pay periods preceding the adjustment, or any adjustment to collect a debt amounting to $50 or less. However, at the time of any such adjustment, or as soon thereafter as possible, FHFA or its designated payroll agent shall provide the employee with a written notice of the nature and the amount of the adjustment and a point of contact for contesting such adjustment., (ii) Any negative adjustment to pay that arises from an employee's election of coverage or a change in coverage under a Federal benefits program that requires periodic deductions from pay, if the amount to be recovered was accumulated over four pay periods or less. However, at the time such adjustment is made, FHFA or its payroll agent shall provide in the employee's earnings statement a clear and concise statement that informs the employee of the previous overpayment.

(a) Authority. Part 722 is issued by the National Credit Union Administration (“NCUA”) under title XI of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (“FIRREA”) (Pub. L. 101-73, 103 Stat. 183, 1989) and 12 U.S.C. 1757 and 1766., (b) Purpose and scope. (1) Title XI provides protection for federal financial and public policy interests in real estate-related transactions by requiring real estate appraisals used in connection with federally related transactions to be performed in writing, in accordance with uniform standards, by appraisers whose competency has been demonstrated and whose professional conduct will be subject to effective supervision. This part implements the requirements of title XI and applies to all federally related transactions entered into by the National Credit Union Administration or by federally insured credit unions (“regulated institutions”)., (2) This part: (i) Identifies which real estate-related financial transactions require the services of an appraiser;, (ii) Prescribes which categories of federally related transactions shall be appraised by a state-certified appraiser and which by a state-licensed appraiser; and, (iii) Prescribes minimum standards for the performance of real estate appraisals in connection with federally related transactions under the jurisdiction of the National Credit Union Administration.

(a) Authority. Regulation U (this part) is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (the Board) pursuant to the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the Act) (15 U.S.C. 78a et seq.)., (b) Purpose and scope. (1) This part imposes credit restrictions upon persons other than brokers or dealers (hereinafter lenders) that extend credit for the purpose of buying or carrying margin stock if the credit is secured directly or indirectly by margin stock. Lenders include “banks” (as defined in § 221.2) and other persons who are required to register with the Board under § 221.3(b). Lenders may not extend more than the maximum loan value of the collateral securing such credit, as set by the Board in § 221.7 (the Supplement)., (2) This part does not apply to clearing agencies regulated by the Securities and Exchange Commission or the Commodity Futures Trading Commission that accept deposits of margin stock in connection with:, (i) The issuance of, or guarantee of, or the clearance of transactions in, any security (including options on any security, certificate of deposit, securities index or foreign currency); or, (ii) The guarantee of contracts for the purchase or sale of a commodity for future delivery or options on such contracts., (3) This part does not apply to credit extended to an exempted borrower., (c) Availability of forms. The forms referenced in this part are available from the Federal Reserve Banks.

(a) Authority. Subject to the provisions of the Bank Act and this subpart, a Bank may make advances only to a housing associate whose principal place of business, as determined in accordance with part 1263 of this chapter, is located in the Bank's district. , (b) Collateral requirements - (1) Advances to housing associates. A Bank may make an advance to any housing associate upon the security of the following collateral: , (i) Mortgage loans insured by the Federal Housing Administration of HUD under title II of the National Housing Act; or , (ii) Securities representing a whole interest in the principal and interest payments due on a pool of mortgage loans insured by the Federal Housing Administration of HUD under title II of the National Housing Act. A Bank may only accept as collateral the securities described in this paragraph (b)(1)(ii) if the housing associate provides evidence that such securities are backed solely by mortgages of the type described in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section. , (2) Certain advances to SHFAs. (i) In addition to the collateral described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, a Bank may make an advance to a housing associate that has satisfied the requirements of § 1264.3(b) for the purpose of facilitating residential or commercial mortgage lending that benefits individuals or families meeting the income requirements in section 142(d) or 143(f) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 142(d) or 143(f)) upon the security of the following collateral: , (A) The collateral described in § 1266.7(a)(1) or (2). , (B) The collateral described in § 1266.7(a)(3). Solely for the purpose of facilitating acceptance of such collateral, a Bank may establish a cash collateral account for a housing associate that has satisfied the requirements of § 1264.3(b). , (C) The other real estate-related collateral described in § 1266.7(a)(4), provided that such collateral comprises mortgage loans on one-to-four family or multifamily residential property. , (ii) Prior to making an advance pursuant to this paragraph (b)(2), a Bank shall obtain a written certification from the housing associate that it shall use the proceeds of the advance for the purposes described in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section. , (c) Terms and conditions - (1) General. Subject to the provisions of this paragraph (c), a Bank, in its discretion, shall determine whether, and on what terms, it will make advances to a housing associate. , (2) Advance pricing. (i) A Bank shall price advances to housing associates in accordance with the requirements for pricing advances to members set forth in § 1266.5(b). Wherever the term “member” appears in § 1266.5(b) the term shall be construed also to mean “housing associate.” , (ii) A Bank shall apply the pricing criteria identified in § 1266.5(b)(2) equally to all of its member and housing associate borrowers. , (3) Limit on advances. The principal amount of any advance made to a housing associate may not exceed 90 percent of the unpaid principal of the mortgage loans or securities pledged as security for the advance. This limit does not apply to an advance made to a housing associate under paragraph (b)(2) of this section. , (d) Transaction accounts. Solely for the purpose of facilitating the making of advances to a housing associate, a Bank may establish a transaction account for each housing associate. , (e) Loss of eligibility - (1) Notification of status changes. A Bank shall require a housing associate that applies for an advance to agree in writing that it will promptly inform the Bank of any change in its status as a housing associate. , (2) Verification of eligibility. A Bank may, from time to time, require a housing associate to provide evidence that it continues to satisfy all of the eligibility requirements of the Bank Act, this subpart and part 1264 of this chapter. , (3) Loss of eligibility. A Bank shall not extend a new advance or renew an existing advance to a housing associate that no longer meets the eligibility requirements of the Bank Act, this subpart and part 1264 of this chapter until the entity has provided evidence satisfactory to the Bank that it is in compliance with such requirements.

(a) Authority. Subpart A of Regulation H (12 CFR part 208, Subpart A) is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board) under 12 U.S.C. 24, 36; sections 9, 11, 21, 25 and 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 321-338a, 248(a), 248(c), 481-486, 601 and 611); sections 1814, 1816, 1818, 1831o, 1831p-1, 1831r-1 and 1835a of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (FDI Act) (12 U.S.C. 1814, 1816, 1818, 1831o, 1831p-1, 1831r-1, and 1835); and 12 U.S.C. 3906-3909., (b) Purpose and scope of Part 208. The requirements of this part 208 govern State member banks and state banks applying for admission to membership in the Federal Reserve System (System) under section 9 of the Federal Reserve Act (Act), except for § 208.7, which also applies to certain foreign banks licensed by a State. This part 208 does not govern banks eligible for membership under section 2 or 19 of the Act. 1<FTREF/> Any bank desiring to be admitted to the System under the provisions of section 2 or 19 should communicate with the Federal Reserve Bank with which it would like to become a member., 1 Under section 2 of the Federal Reserve Act, every national bank in any state shall, upon commencing business, or within 90 days after admission into the Union of the State in which it is located, become a member of the System. Under section 19 of the Federal Reserve Act, national banks and banks organized under local laws, located in a dependency or insular possession or any part of the United States outside of the States of the United States and the District of Columbia, are not required to become members of the System but may, with the consent of the board, become members of the System., (c) Purpose and scope of Subpart A. This Subpart A describes the eligibility requirements for membership of state-chartered banking institutions in the System, the general conditions imposed upon members, including capital and dividend requirements, as well as the requirements for establishing and maintaining branches.

(a) Authority. Subpart B of Regulation H (12 CFR part 208, subpart B) is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System under 12 U.S.C. 24; sections 9, 11 and 21 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 321-338a, 248(a), 248(c), and 481-486); sections 1814, 1816, 1818, 1823(j), 1831o, 1831p-1 and 1831r-1 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1814, 1816, 1818, 1823(j), 1831o, 1831p-1 and 1831r-1); and the National Flood Insurance Act of 1968 and the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4001-4129)., (b) Purpose and scope. This subpart B describes certain investment limitations on member banks, statutory requirements for amortizing losses on agricultural loans and extending credit in areas having special flood hazards, as well as the requirements for issuing letters of credit and acceptances.

(a) Authority. Subpart C of Regulation H (12 CFR part 208, subpart C) is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System under 12 U.S.C. 24, 92a, 93a; sections 1818 and 1831p-1(a)(2) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818, 1831p-1(a)(2)); and sections 78b, 78l(b), 78l(g), 78l(i), 78o-4(c)(5), 78o-5, 78q, 78q-1, and 78w of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78b, 78l(b), 78l(g), 78l(i), 78o-4(c)(5), 78o-5, 78q, 78q-1, 78w)., (b) Purpose and scope. This subpart C describes the requirements imposed upon member banks acting as transfer agents, registered clearing agencies, or sellers of securities under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934. This subpart C also describes the reporting requirements imposed on member banks whose securities are subject to registration under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934.

(a) Authority. Subpart D of Regulation H (12 CFR part 208, Subpart D) is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board) under section 38 (section 38) of the FDI Act as added by section 131 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act of 1991 (Pub. L. 102-242, 105 Stat. 2236 (1991)) (12 U.S.C. 1831o)., (b) Purpose and scope. This subpart D defines the capital measures and capital levels that are used for determining the supervisory actions authorized under section 38 of the FDI Act. (Section 38 of the FDI Act establishes a framework of supervisory actions for insured depository institutions that are not adequately capitalized.) This subpart also establishes procedures for submission and review of capital restoration plans and for issuance and review of directives and orders pursuant to section 38. Certain of the provisions of this subpart apply to officers, directors, and employees of state member banks. Other provisions apply to any company that controls a member bank and to the affiliates of the member bank., (c) Other supervisory authority. Neither section 38 nor this subpart in any way limits the authority of the Board under any other provision of law to take supervisory actions to address unsafe or unsound practices or conditions, deficient capital levels, violations of law, or other practices. Action under section 38 of the FDI Act and this subpart may be taken independently of, in conjunction with, or in addition to any other enforcement action available to the Board, including issuance of cease and desist orders, capital directives, approval or denial of applications or notices, assessment of civil money penalties, or any other actions authorized by law., (d) Disclosure of capital categories. The assignment of a bank under this subpart within a particular capital category is for purposes of implementing and applying the provisions of section 38. Unless permitted by the Board or otherwise required by law, no bank may state in any advertisement or promotional material its capital category under this subpart or that the Board or any other Federal banking agency has assigned the bank to a particular capital category., (e) Timing. The calculation of the definitions of common equity tier 1 capital, the common equity tier 1 risk-based capital ratio, the leverage ratio, the supplementary leverage ratio, tangible equity, tier 1 capital, the tier 1 risk-based capital ratio, total assets, total leverage exposure, the total risk-based capital ratio, and total risk-weighted assets under this subpart is subject to the timing provisions at 12 CFR 217.1(f) and the transitions at 12 CFR part 217, subpart G.

(a) Authority. Subpart E of Regulation H (12 CFR part 208, subpart E) is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System pursuant to section 304 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act of 1991, (12 U.S.C 1828(o)), Title XI of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act, (12 U.S.C 3331-3351), and section 1473 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, (12 U.S.C. 3353)., (b) Purpose and scope. This subpart prescribes standards for real estate lending to be used by state member banks in adopting internal real estate lending policies. The standards applicable to appraisals rendered in connection with Federally related transactions entered into by member banks and the minimum requirements for appraisal management companies are set forth in 12 CFR part 225, subparts G and M respectively (Regulation Y).

(a) Authority. Subpart F of Regulation H (12 CFR part 208, subpart F) is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System under sections 9, 11, 21, 25 and 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 321-338a, 248(a), 248(c), 481-486, 601 and 611), section 7 of the International Banking Act (12 U.S.C. 3105), section 3 of the Bank Protection Act of 1968 (12 U.S.C. 1882), sections 1814, 1816, 1818, 1831o, 1831p-1 and 1831r-1 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1814, 1816, 1818, 1831o, 1831p-1 and 1831r-1), and the Bank Secrecy Act (31 U.S.C. 5318)., (b) Purpose and scope. This subpart F describes a member bank's obligation to implement security procedures to discourage certain crimes, to file suspicious activity reports, and to comply with the Bank Secrecy Act's requirements for reporting and recordkeeping of currency and foreign transactions. It also describes the examination schedule for certain small insured member banks.

(a) Authority. Subparts A and B of this part and subpart L of part 747 of this chapter are issued by the National Credit Union Administration (NCUA) pursuant to sections 120 and 216 of the Federal Credit Union Act (FCUA), 12 U.S.C. 1766 and 1790d (section 1790d), as revised by section 301 of the Credit Union Membership Access Act, Public Law 105-219, 112 Stat. 913 (1998)., (b) Purpose. The express purpose of prompt corrective action under section 1790d is to resolve the problems of federally insured credit unions at the least possible long-term loss to the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund. Subparts A and B of this part carry out the purpose of prompt corrective action by establishing a framework of minimum capital requirements, and mandatory and discretionary supervisory actions applicable according to a credit union's capital classification, designed primarily to restore and improve the capital adequacy of federally insured credit unions., (c) Scope. Subparts A and B of this part implement the provisions of section 1790d as they apply to federally insured credit unions, whether federally- or state-chartered; to such credit unions defined as “new” pursuant to section 1790d(b)(2); and to such credit unions defined as “complex” pursuant to section 1790d(d). Certain of these provisions also apply to officers and directors of federally insured credit unions. Subpart C applies capital planning and stress testing to credit unions defined as covered credit unions under § 702.302. This part does not apply to corporate credit unions. Unless otherwise provided, procedures for issuing, reviewing and enforcing orders and directives issued under this part are set forth in subpart L of part 747 of this chapter., (d) Other supervisory authority. Neither section 1790d nor this part in any way limits the authority of the NCUA Board or appropriate state official under any other provision of law to take additional supervisory actions to address unsafe or unsound practices or conditions, or violations of applicable law or regulations. Action taken under this part may be taken independently of, in conjunction with, or in addition to any other enforcement action available to the NCUA Board or appropriate state official, including issuance of cease and desist orders, orders of prohibition, suspension and removal, or assessment of civil money penalties, or any other actions authorized by law.

(a) Authority. The Banks are authorized to approve or deny all applications for certification as a housing associate, subject to the requirements of the Bank Act and this part. A Bank may delegate the authority to approve applications for certification as a housing associate only to a committee of the Bank's board of directors, the Bank president, or a senior officer who reports directly to the Bank president other than an officer with responsibility for business development. , (b) Application requirements. An applicant for certification as a housing associate shall submit an application that satisfies the requirements of the Bank Act and this part to the Bank of the district in which the applicant's principal place of business, as determined in accordance with part 925 of this title, is located. , (c) Bank decision process - (1) Action on applications. A Bank shall approve or deny an application for certification as a housing associate within 60 calendar days of the date the Bank deems the application to be complete. A Bank shall deem an application complete, and so notify the applicant in writing, when it has obtained all of the information required by this part and any other information it deems necessary to process the application. If a Bank determines during the review process that additional information is necessary to process the application, the Bank may deem the application incomplete and stop the 60-day time period by providing written notice to the applicant. When the Bank receives the additional information, it shall again deem the application complete, so notify the applicant in writing, and resume the 60-day time period where it stopped. , (2) Decision on applications. The Bank or a duly delegated committee of the Bank's board of directors, the Bank president, or a senior officer who reports directly to the Bank president other than an officer with responsibility for business development shall approve, or the board of directors of a Bank shall deny, each application for certification as a housing associate by a written decision resolution stating the grounds for the decision. Within three business days of a Bank's decision on an application, the Bank shall provide the applicant and the FHFA with a copy of the Bank's decision resolution. , (3) File. The Bank shall maintain a certification file for each applicant for at least three years after the date the Bank decides whether to approve or deny certification or the date the FHFA resolves any appeal, whichever is later. At a minimum, the certification file shall include all documents submitted by the applicant or otherwise obtained or generated by the Bank concerning the applicant, all documents the Bank relied upon in making its determination regarding certification, including copies of statutes and regulations, and the decision resolution.

(a) Authority. The Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board) has issued this part (Regulation W) under the authority of sections 23A(f) and 23B(e) of the Federal Reserve Act (FRA) (12 U.S.C. 371c(f), 371c-1(e)) section 11 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1468), and section 312(b)(2)(A) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5412)., (b) Purpose. Sections 23A and 23B of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c, 371c-1) establish certain quantitative limits and other prudential requirements for loans, purchases of assets, and certain other transactions between a member bank and its affiliates. This regulation implements sections 23A and 23B by defining terms used in the statute, explaining the statute's requirements, and exempting certain transactions. , (c) Scope. Sections 23A and 23B and this regulation apply by their terms to “member banks” - that is, any national bank, State bank, trust company, or other institution that is a member of the Federal Reserve System. In addition, the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(j)) applies sections 23A and 23B to insured State nonmember banks in the same manner and to the same extent as if they were member banks. The Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1468(a)) also applies sections 23A and 23B to insured savings associations in the same manner and to the same extent as if they were member banks (and imposes two additional restrictions).

(a) Authority. The Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (the Board) issues this part to implement the Community Reinvestment Act (12 U.S.C. 2901 et seq.) (CRA). The regulations comprising this part are issued under the authority of the CRA and under the provisions of the United States Code authorizing the Board: , (1) To conduct examinations of State-chartered banks that are members of the Federal Reserve System (12 U.S.C. 325); , (2) To conduct examinations of bank holding companies and their subsidiaries (12 U.S.C. 1844) and savings and loan holding companies and their subsidiaries (12 U.S.C. 1467a); and, (3) To consider applications for: , (i) Domestic branches by State member banks (12 U.S.C. 321); , (ii) Mergers in which the resulting bank would be a State member bank (12 U.S.C. 1828(c)); , (iii) Formations of, acquisitions of banks by, and mergers of, bank holding companies (12 U.S.C. 1842);, (iv) The acquisition of savings associations by bank holding companies (12 U.S.C. 1843); and, (v) Formations of, acquisitions of savings associations by, conversions of, and mergers of, savings and loan holding companies (12 U.S.C. 1467a)., (b) Purposes. In enacting the CRA, the Congress required each appropriate Federal financial supervisory agency to assess an institution's record of helping to meet the credit needs of the local communities in which the institution is chartered, consistent with the safe and sound operation of the institution, and to take this record into account in the agency's evaluation of an application for a deposit facility by the institution. This part is intended to carry out the purposes of the CRA by: , (1) Establishing the framework and criteria by which the Board assesses a bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community, including low- and moderate-income neighborhoods, consistent with the safe and sound operation of the bank; and , (2) Providing that the Board takes that record into account in considering certain applications. , (c) Scope - (1) General. This part applies to all banks except as provided in paragraph (c)(3) of this section. , (2) Foreign bank acquisitions. This part also applies to an uninsured State branch (other than a limited branch) of a foreign bank that results from an acquisition described in section 5(a)(8) of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3103(a)(8)). The terms “State branch” and “foreign bank” have the same meanings as in section 1(b) of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3101 et seq.); the term “uninsured State branch” means a State branch the deposits of which are not insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation; the term “limited branch” means a State branch that accepts only deposits that are permissible for a corporation organized under section 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 611 et seq.). , (3) Certain special purpose banks. This part does not apply to special purpose banks that do not perform commercial or retail banking services by granting credit to the public in the ordinary course of business, other than as incident to their specialized operations. These banks include banker's banks, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 24 (Seventh), and banks that engage only in one or more of the following activities: providing cash management controlled disbursement services or serving as correspondent banks, trust companies, or clearing agents.

(a) Authority. The Deputy Directors for Enterprise Regulation and for Federal Home Loan Bank Regulation, or their designees, may grant requests submitted by an Enterprise or by a Bank or the Office of Finance, respectively, seeking approval of any transaction, activity, or item that requires FHFA approval under any applicable statute, rule, regulation, policy, or order. The Director reserves the right to modify, rescind, or supersede an Approval, with such action being effective only on a prospective basis., (b) Requests. A regulated entity or the Office of Finance may apply for an Approval in accordance with § 1211.6, unless alternative application procedures are prescribed by the applicable statute, rule, regulation, policy, or order for the transaction, activity, or item at issue., (c) Reservation. The Deputy Directors for Enterprise Regulation and for Federal Home Loan Bank Regulation, as appropriate, may, in their discretion, prescribe additional or alternative procedures for any application for approval of a transaction, activity, or item.

(a) Authority. The Deputy Directors for Enterprise Regulation and for Federal Home Loan Bank Regulation, or their designees, may, in their discretion, issue to an Enterprise or to a Bank or the Office of Finance, respectively, a Non-Objection Letter stating that FHFA does not object to a proposed transaction or activity for supervisory, regulatory, or policy reasons. The Director reserves the right to modify, rescind, or supersede a Non-Objection Letter, with such action being effective only on a prospective basis., (b) Requests. A regulated entity or the Office of Finance may request a Non-Objection Letter in accordance with § 1211.6.

(a) Authority. The Director reserves the right, in his or her discretion and in connection with a particular transaction or activity, to waive any provision, restriction, or requirement of this chapter (or of any Office of Federal Housing Enterprise Oversight or Federal Housing Finance Board regulation), or any required submission of information, not otherwise required by law, if such Waiver is not inconsistent with the law and does not adversely affect any substantial existing rights, upon a determination that application of the provision, restriction, or requirement would adversely affect achievement of the purposes of the Authorizing Statutes or the Safety and Soundness Act, or upon a requester's showing of good cause. The Director also reserves the right to modify, rescind, or supersede any previously issued Waiver, with such action being effective only on a prospective basis., (b) Application. A regulated entity or the Office of Finance may apply for a Waiver in accordance with § 1211.6.

(a) Authority. The General Counsel may, in his or her discretion, issue a Regulatory Interpretation to a regulated entity or the Office of Finance, providing guidance with respect to the application of any applicable statute, rule, regulation, or order to a proposed transaction or activity. The Director reserves the right to modify, rescind, or supersede a Regulatory Interpretation, with such action being effective only on a prospective basis., (b) Requests. A regulated entity or the Office of Finance may request a Regulatory Interpretation in accordance with § 1211.6.

(a) Authority. The regulation in this part, known as Regulation E, is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System pursuant to the Electronic Fund Transfer Act (15 U.S.C. 1693 et seq.). The information-collection requirements have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget under 44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq. and have been assigned OMB No. 7100-0200. , (b) Purpose. This part carries out the purposes of the Electronic Fund Transfer Act, which establishes the basic rights, liabilities, and responsibilities of consumers who use electronic fund transfer services and of financial institutions that offer these services. The primary objective of the act and this part is the protection of individual consumers engaging in electronic fund transfers.

(a) Authority. The regulation in this part, known as Regulation M, is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System to implement the consumer leasing provisions of the Truth in Lending Act, which is title I of the Consumer Credit Protection Act, as amended (15 U.S.C. 1601 et seq.). Information collection requirements contained in this regulation have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget under the provisions of 44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq. and have been assigned OMB control number 7100-0202. , (b) Scope and purpose. This part applies to all persons that are lessors of personal property under consumer leases as those terms are defined in § 213.2(e)(1) and (h). The purpose of this part is:, (1) To ensure that lessees of personal property receive meaningful disclosures that enable them to compare lease terms with other leases and, where appropriate, with credit transactions;, (2) To limit the amount of balloon payments in consumer lease transactions; and, (3) To provide for the accurate disclosure of lease terms in advertising., (c) Enforcement and liability. Section 108 of the act contains the administrative enforcement provisions. Sections 112, 130, 131, and 185 of the act contain the liability provisions for failing to comply with the requirements of the act and this part.