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akwq6y
If space is ever so expanding, do we seen new/farther everyday we take photos of the outer edges of space? Do we add on to “observable universe” everyday too?
askscience
https://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/akwq6y/if_space_is_ever_so_expanding_do_we_seen/
{ "a_id": [ "ef8zi96", "ef96ssu" ], "score": [ 26, 3 ], "text": [ "Kind of.\n\nSo, the universe as a whole does not have a boundary. The expansion of the universe is not the expansion of the *edge* of the universe, but rather everything getting further away from everything else - it's not expanding at the edges, it's expanding *everywhere*. In fact, the evidence is somewhat pointing towards the universe being *infinite* in size.\n\nHowever, the *observable* universe *is* expanding. The edge of the observable universe represents the distance that light could have travelled since the beginning of the universe. The universe is about 13 billion years old, so the light from the edge of the observable universe is the light that has travelled about 13 billion light years (although the universe has continued to expand since the light was emitted and the images we see from this light are from objects that are now much more than 13 billion light years away).\n\nThis means that the images we see of the very edge of the observable universe are images of the very very young universe. This is the universe before there was any structure - it was a dense, uniform, opaque fluid of energy and particles. Because the universe was opaque, we can't actually see the light from the very beginning of the universe. Instead, we see the light that was emitted just as the universe got cool enough and sparse enough to become transparent. This light forms a background behind everything else in the universe. It has been redshifted over billions of years into microwave frequencies, which is why we call it the Cosmic Microwave Background, or the CMB.\n\nSo, as the observable universe expands, what happens is that the CMB radiation that we see is from slightly further away. What's happening is that the CMB radiation was emitted *everywhere*, but because it takes time for light to reach us, every second we're seeing CMB radiation that was emitted from gas about a light-second more distant than what we received the previous second.\n\nThis means we are technically seeing new parts of the observable universe, but it's not like we're seeing new galaxies turn up - we're just seeing slightly more distant \"slices\" of the CMB. The CMB is far too uniform over time for us to really see any change over decades though.", "Adding on, although we're seeing more of the observable universe as time passes, there will be a point where we are going to be seeing more and more of \"nothing\". \n\nIt is expected that much of what we can see today (anything outside our supercluster) will one day retreat out of our observable universe because those parts of the universe will be expanding faster than light speed away from us. " ] }
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35p93t
Any good non-Roman sources on the Roman military? Talking about tactics, formations, appearance, etc.
AskHistorians
http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/35p93t/any_good_nonroman_sources_on_the_roman_military/
{ "a_id": [ "cr6liqo", "cr6mukr" ], "score": [ 9, 16 ], "text": [ "In Plutarch's *Life of Crassus*, the author likely uses a first hand Mesopotamian source to describe the battle of Carrhae. This is because his account goes into great detail about the battle and aftermath in Ktesiphon. ", "Polybius is a Greek writing to Greeks trying to explain how Rome came to dominate the Mediterranean. His 6th book is an analysis of Rome's political and military practices systematically including the structure of the legion, recruitment, provisioning, layout of the camp etc.\n\nThe rest of it is a military history starting with the 1st Punic War down to 146, the year in which Rome destroyed Carthage and Corinth.\n\nPolybius lived for years in Rome as a hostage in the house of Paulus and apparently traveled widely in Italy and was friends with Scipio Aemelianus, so he probably has a fairly good idea what he's talking about.\n\n[LacusCurtius](_URL_0_) has the Loeb translation up." ] }
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[ [], [ "http://penelope.uchicago.edu/Thayer/E/Roman/Texts/Polybius/home.html" ] ]
3hpgv2
why do cuts get white when you take a shower?
I have a few cuts... not too deep. (well one of them is) & when I get out of the shower there is this white stuff that covers the top of them. (can put a pic) What is it? And why does that happen?
explainlikeimfive
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/3hpgv2/eli5_why_do_cuts_get_white_when_you_take_a_shower/
{ "a_id": [ "cu9fbmo", "cu9uiil" ], "score": [ 12, 2 ], "text": [ "It's a bodily fluid that mostly contains white blood cells and vitamins. It's to help speed the process of tissue/skin repair.", "Osmosis is happening here. The shower water is hypotonic compared to the fluids in your tissues. Certain cellular solutes therefore leave your tissues and rinse away with the water. This leaves the tissue with less color than before. Also, since the shower water is hypotonic, water will enter the tissues that are exposed to it, thus swelling the de-colorized tissues." ] }
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31iard
why are firefighters called to the scene of an emergency even if there is no fire involved?
explainlikeimfive
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/31iard/eli5_why_are_firefighters_called_to_the_scene_of/
{ "a_id": [ "cq1te44", "cq1tecw", "cq1tii6", "cq1tph3", "cq1ttye" ], "score": [ 8, 8, 2, 2, 2 ], "text": [ "You could almost call firefighters the engineers of the emergency services. They carry ladders, lifting gear, cutting tools, winches etc...", "They offer safety, rescue, and medical needs. \n\nMany departments train their firefighters to be firefighter/EMTs, so they are a valuable asset to have at a scene that could possibly need any of the three things mentioned above.", "Also in addition to the high level EMT training, at least in Finland, all fire trucks carry the same first response equipment that ambulances do, so they can start giving first aid possibly sooner than ambulance can be dispatched.\n\nPlus in many cases (e.g. car accidents) fire can start as a secondary incident, so having the people and equipment on site already is a good idea.", "Fire or not, they are always outfitted with a vast array of tools which can be useful in any emergency situation.\n\nThey are also trained in minor field medical treatment.", "as everyone else has already stated, they are trained in the Basic Life Support response. If they are close to it, they go and provide care to ones in need while an ambulance is still on its way. Also they are trained for rescue situations. Car accident for example where a patient needs to be extricated, they have the tools and knowledge to get that person out so the ambulance can then take the patient away. " ] }
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201rqg
How much of an impact did the ending of slavery have for the emancipation of women and women's rights in general? (USA)
Reposting a rephrased version of the original question that came off as hypothetical: In the book "Soul Murder and Slavery: Toward a fully loaded cost accounting" by Painter, Nell Irvin - 1995" It is noted that slavery and women's position in society was intertwined with many core beliefs i.e. Submission and Obedience overlapping in regards to women and slaves. So basically how much of an effect did the ending of slavery have on women's rights?
AskHistorians
http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/201rqg/how_much_of_an_impact_did_the_ending_of_slavery/
{ "a_id": [ "cfzsnqd" ], "score": [ 2 ], "text": [ "Well, the idea of giving black *men* the vote gained traction pretty quickly; this was actually used to try and suppress the Women's Rights groups by telling them that they should be quiet and wait as this was \"the Negro's hour.\" Elizabeth Cady Stanton took a somewhat dim view of this idea on the grounds that black *women* were going to be denied their rights, and expressed her views on the matter in [a letter to the National Anti-Slavery Standard](_URL_0_) (scroll down; it's the third document in the PDF.) " ] }
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[ [ "http://people.hofstra.edu/alan_j_singer/Gateway%20Slavery%20Guide%20PDF%20Files/5.%20Abolition_Complicity%201827-65/3.%20Activity%20Sheets/a33.%20Elizabet.%20Cady%20Stanton.pdf" ] ]
4ownwr
how does a strong currency affect a country's economy?
So from looking at Wikipedia I've read that the strongest currency and the most used in the world is the US Dollar. So I'm wondering why does that matter? And how would it affect it's economy? And how would a strong currency affect any country's economy as whole?
explainlikeimfive
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/4ownwr/eli5_how_does_a_strong_currency_affect_a_countrys/
{ "a_id": [ "d4g6hpc" ], "score": [ 4 ], "text": [ "a strong currency makes your exports comparably more expensive. and vice versa. \n\nConsider this. The canadian dollar is currently in the shitter. but canadians have not all had their annual salary adjusted. So their product cost in canadian dollars is the same. But to americans, due to the favorable exchange, you can buy a canadian product for less US dollars.\n\n" ] }
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1vf4s2
What did the ancient people that built Stonehenge do when it was cloudy on the Solstices?
AskHistorians
http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/1vf4s2/what_did_the_ancient_people_that_built_stonehenge/
{ "a_id": [ "cervfqy" ], "score": [ 2 ], "text": [ "Since this involves a time before written records, this may not be the best subreddit for the question. At the same time, since it is involves a time before written records, it is largely impossible to answer your question. I can say that with my experience involving winter in Britain and Ireland, the average day was indeed cloudy, but the sun more often than not appeared on the horizon as it rose, shined for a few minutes, and then rose into the bank of clouds. Stonehenge only \"works\" at the solstices at the moments of sunrise and sunset; not later when the sun is behind the clouds. " ] }
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2t7biz
if pets require protective collars to allow wounds to heal properly how do wild animals repair wounds?
_URL_0_
explainlikeimfive
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/2t7biz/eli5_if_pets_require_protective_collars_to_allow/
{ "a_id": [ "cnwd64k", "cnwe1r5" ], "score": [ 41, 11 ], "text": [ "They die a lot of the time from those types of wounds. The cones are generally used so the animal won't pick out the sutures. Any animal in the wild would probably die from a wound that needed sutures anyway.", "The simple answer is that they don't. They die, but enough of the population survives to not go extinct. The thing is, you're only concerned about your own pet's life, so you protect it." ] }
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[ "http://www.drsfostersmith.com/images/Categoryimages/normal/p-78083-61207C_510-dog.jpg" ]
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aebvc0
Why did the crafters of the various U.S. State Constitutions (except Nebraska) choose to create bicameral legislatures? Was this simply a matter of mirroring the federal Congress, or was there a prevailing political theory that suggested bicameralism was better than unicameralism?
As I understand the Founding documents as taught to me in high school, the Fathers created Congress as a bicameral legislature as part of the Connecticut Compromise to balance: - The need to balance the interests of smaller, less populous states with their larger brethren, and; - The need to balance the interests of the people with the interests of the states themselves, as directed by the state legislatures (as Senators were not directly elected by the voters until the early 1900's) As neither justification would have applied at the state level, why was it that 49 States nonetheless adopted bicameralism?
AskHistorians
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/aebvc0/why_did_the_crafters_of_the_various_us_state/
{ "a_id": [ "edon94t" ], "score": [ 24 ], "text": [ "Political Science major, worked in my college's Political Science Department performing spatial analyses of electoral data for professors studying electoral malapportionment. \n\nOriginally state legislatures were designed similarly to the federal legislature, with lower house districts based on population while upper house district based on territory. For example, the 1901 Alabama State Constitution divided the Alabama state legislature as such:\n\n > The legislature consisted of 106 representatives and 35 senators for the State's 67 counties and senatorial districts; each county was entitled to at least one representative; each senate district could have only one member; and no county could be divided between two senate districts. \n\nThis setup eventually led to some pretty egregious cases of malapportionment as rural areas depopulated and legislators proved unwilling to update electoral boundaries. In Alabama the most populous district was 41 times larger than the smallest district. These levels of malapportionment were by no means unique to Alabama, in an October 14, 1964 report to his constituents, Congressman Morris K. Udall of Arizona wrote of other outrageous cases of electoral malapportionment in other state legislatures:\n\n > \\*\\* In Connecticut one House district has 191 people; another, 81,000. \n > \n > \\*\\* In New Hampshire one township with 3 (three!) people has a state assemblyman; this is the same representation given another district with 3,244. The vote of a resident of the first town is 108,000 percent more powerful at the Capitol. \n > \n > \\*\\* In Utah the smallest district has 164 people, the largest 32,280 (28 times the population of the other). But each has one vote in the House. \n > \n > \\*\\* In Vermont the smallest district has 36 people, the largest 35,000 a ratio of almost 1,000 to 1. \n > \n > \\*\\* In California the 14,000 people of one small county have one State senator to speak for them; so do the 6 million people of Los Angeles County. It takes 430 Los Angelenos to muster the same influence on a State senator that one person wields in the smaller district. \n > \n > \\*\\* In Idaho the smallest Senate district has 951 people; the largest, 93,400. \n > \n > \\*\\* Nevada's 17 State senators represent as many as 127,000 or as few as 568 people -- a ratio of 224 to 1. \n > \n > \\*\\* In Arizona, Mohave County's 7,700 people have two State senators; so do the 663,000 people of Maricopa. The ratio is 86 to 1 \n\nThese state legislative districts were eventually overturned by the Supreme Court in *Reynolds v. Sims, 1964*. Following the principal of \"one man one vote\" previously established under *Baker v. Carr, 1962*, the Court found that \"legislators represent people, not trees or acres,\" and deemed that state legislative districts should be constructed to be roughly equal in population. \n\n[_URL_0_](_URL_0_) (Reynolds v. Sims, 1964)\n\n[_URL_1_](_URL_1_) (Rep. Morris K. Udall's report to his constituents)\n\n[_URL_3_](_URL_3_) (1901 Alabama State Constitution, Article IX concerns representation of the state legislature)\n\n[_URL_2_](_URL_2_) (A nice little summary of Reynolds v. Sims, 1964)\n\nEdit: Deleted the second instance of ‘egregious’" ] }
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[ [ "https://caselaw.findlaw.com/us-supreme-court/377/533.html", "http://speccoll.library.arizona.edu/online-exhibits/files/original/11ac559f0063813f0a80bed401b4597f.pdf", "https://www.oyez.org/cases/1963/23", "https://codes.findlaw.com/al/alabama-constitution-of-1901/#!tid=N16816FB0BAB511DB8E46AD894CF6FAAB" ] ]
oh9rw
If time is nonexistent for a photon, how can it be emitted from something and never be absorbed?
Say it's emitted in the direction of a completely empty part of space, on a path where it would never hit anything. How can time be nonexistent for the photon if it is travelling indefinitely?
askscience
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/oh9rw/if_time_is_nonexistent_for_a_photon_how_can_it_be/
{ "a_id": [ "c3ha2jv" ], "score": [ 5 ], "text": [ "Time isn't quite non-existent for a photon. A photon simply has no perspective in the first place; there's no way of putting a coordinate system on the Universe to describe things as a photon would see it. In Science-Speak, there's no such thing as a photon's frame of reference, because there's no such thing as a frame in which a photon can be at rest. Photons are only able to exist in other observers' reference frames and in those frames, photons travel at a definitive speed, the speed of light." ] }
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3yivel
Why have infirmaries at Auschwitz?
I just read Primo Levi's "If this is a man" and he talks about how it was actually a plus to get certain diseases, because you could rest in the infirmaries for a while. This brings up the question - Why didn't the Nazis send all the sick people at Auschwitz to the gas chamber? Why have infirmaries at all? Thanks!
AskHistorians
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/3yivel/why_have_infirmaries_at_auschwitz/
{ "a_id": [ "cyedfu2", "cyesjwk" ], "score": [ 10, 72 ], "text": [ "The same question was asked a few months ago where I answered the question.\n\n_URL_0_", "I'm a licensed tour guide at the Sachsenhausen Concentration Camp Memorial. Not Auschwitz, but the general policy for the infirmaries was the same throughout the concentration camp system.\n\nThe purpose of the concentration camp infirmaries was multi-faceted, and they were used both as sites of convalescence and healing, as well as murder and torture.\n\nThe SS doctors who ran the infirmaries were often poorly trained or not very well qualified (a notable exception being Mengele, who was a respected figure in his field at the time), and in any case had little to no interest in treating ill or weak prisoners. The day-to-day seeing of patients was actually done by prisoner-doctors. In many concentration camps (certainly in Sachsenhausen), for a number of years it was strictly forbidden for any prisoner who had actually been a doctor to work in the infirmary as a prisoner-doctor. This meant that the \"prisoner-doctors\" often had absolutely no clue what they were doing. In Sachsenhausen and throughout the concentration camp system that policy would change in 1942, when the war was turning against Germany and the slave labour was suddenly not as disposable as it had once been. From 1942, prisoners who had been doctors before their lives in the camp (often much more competent and qualified than the SS doctors) were allowed to work in the infirmary. They had to tread a fine line between helping prisoners to survive and not being seen by the SS to be too soft on other prisoners, keeping them in the infirmary when they could be out doing slave labour. Even after 1942, the level of medical care was nowhere near adequate and the shelves were rarely stocked with enough essential medicines. Furthermore, in the second half of the war the camps became increasingly overcrowded, compounding the problems of unhygienic conditions, malnutrition and debilitating slave labour which caused the disease and illness within the camp to ratchet upwards. At this point, even if the SS had wanted to give proper medical care to all the prisoners (which they did not), it would have been very difficult to do so. The best care generally went to well-connected prisoners within the camp hierarchy, i.e. the Kapos who ran the camp. As Primo Levi mentioned, many prisoners did not necessarily want to go into the infirmary to get adequate medical care, but to get out of doing a day's slave labour - which could be life-saving.\n\nThe infirmaries also had a propaganda purpose for the Nazis, who would occasionally allow visitors into the camps, either from Axis nations or even from neutral or enemy countries. They would often carry out staged tours for visitors in which they would be led to select areas of the camp. The infirmary could be used to try to prove that, actually, these camps were \"normal\" places of detention where inmates could receive medical care.\n\nThe SS doctors were perhaps more likely to kill patients than they were to help them. As the camps became increasingly overcrowded, they became full with Muselmänner (the concentration camp slang for prisoners so ill and weak that they were no longer really human anymore but walking skeletons. The translation is \"Muslims,\" apparently in reference to the fact that hunched-over, crawling prisoners resembled Muslims at prayer). Heinrich Himmler's solution was Action 14f13, a program to murder prisoners that were, in Himmler's words, \"excess ballast.\" In other words no longer able to work because of the debilitating conditions within the camps. This operation began in 1941, originally carried out by the same doctors who had been murdering mentally ill and disabled Germans during Action T4. Later the Camp SS doctors carried on this procedure of their own initiative, murdering primarily through lethal injection.\n\nThe infirmaries were places of quarantine when deadly diseases broke out, e.g. typhus, tuberculosis, and other diseases which could affect not just the prisoners, but the SS guards as well. Often prisoners were shut away in a certain wing of the infirmary (although sometimes they were locked in a few specific barracks within the camp) and left there to die.\n\nThe infirmary would also be used by the SS to carry out gruesome medical experiments on human beings. They were additionally used to castrate homosexual prisoners.\n\nTo answer the question of \"why didn't the Nazis send all the sick people at Auschwitz to the gas chamber?\" The fact is that often they did. The SS would sometimes go to the infirmary and select every prisoner that was no longer capable of work and send them to their deaths. But policy fluctuated with the changing circumstances of war and the various (often contradictory) policy goals of leading figures in the SS, e.g. Himmler, Oswald Pohl, Theodor Eicke. Sometimes they were more worried about preserving their labour force, or at least keeping them alive to get just a bit more labour out of them. Sometimes they were even thinking about perhaps retaining some prisoners so they could hold them as hostages to make some sort of deal with the Allies. The fate of the prisoners inside the infirmary often depended on events that were taking place far outside of the infirmary's walls.\n\nThe best book about the concentration camp system, and one which spends a good deal of time talking about the infirmaries, is Nicholaus Wachsmann's \"KL: A History of the Nazi Concentration Camps.\" It just came out this year and I really can't recommend it highly enough. A more Sachsenhausen-specific source (not what you're asking for but where I've gotten some of my information for this post) is \"Medical Care and Crime: The Infirmary at Sachsenhausen Concentration Camp\" by Günter Morsch and Astrid Ley." ] }
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[ [ "https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/31hpm2/why_did_auschwitz_have_infirmaries/" ], [] ]
9mx5yt
Is the Revolt of 1857 a War of Independence or just a major insurrection?
I see this debate everywhere. Some people argue it is not, as they were not lead by the goal of national unity and some kingdoms even sided with the British. Also the fact it was mainly confined to North India. Others argue it is because of the mass insurrection throughout the country. But what exactly is it, if it can be classified as such at all?
AskHistorians
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/9mx5yt/is_the_revolt_of_1857_a_war_of_independence_or/
{ "a_id": [ "e7idcz0", "e7ilm93" ], "score": [ 4, 6 ], "text": [ "I recently wrote a multi part [answer on 1857, it's historiography and the different interpretations](_URL_0_) \n - hopefully it's interesting for you. Should questions remain let me know and I could get back to it a bit later today (due to travels).\n\n*Edit:* The very short takeaway would be that the rebellion of 1857 was a complex war that engulfed different parts of South Asia, and so can't be redused to only one interpretation. And that most later interpretations of the event reflect interests of the groups that put them forward : With e.g. the \"insurrection\" narrative tied to British colonial views, and the \"war of independence\" one to certain strands of Indian nationalism going back to the early 20th century.", "The problem with the violence of 1857 is that it had so many meanings, so many in fact that categorising it as one thing or another is almost impossible. Indeed, Chris Bayly, one of the most prominent historians of the mutiny has stated \"it was not one, it was many,\" which in some respects might seem to be an admission of defeat but does help to do justice to the sheer variety of the characterisations of the rebellion. It was constitutional, racial, religious, the first modern war of information and a way of economic dislocation all at the same time. \n\nThe first thing I will say is that one thing it certainly was not was a war of independence. The argument that the rebellion represents the first flowering of Indian nationalism and leads directly to the independence of India in 1947 is a long one. Probably the most influential statement of this would be from V.D. Savarkar in his history of the rebellion \"the First Indian War of Independence\". He argued as early as 1909 that the mutineers of 1857 might be regarded as noble patriots, fighting in a good cause, pro rege and pro patria, for the king and the motherland, for swaraj and swadesh,\" while drawing on the writings of European nationalists like Mazzini. He chose to see the mutiny as a moment when Indians regardless of race and caste recognised their Indian-ness chose to make common cause to drive the British from India. While that is all well and more recent historians have, in my view wisely, decided to look at the above statement as an ideological statement of the Indian independence movement in 1909 rather than a statement of historical reality.\n\n​\n\nThis then begs the question, where did the impression of the mutiny as a nationalist struggle come from in the beginning. The answer is actually quite simple -- it came from the British themselves. The summation of the British judge at the trial of Badhur Shah (the last Mughal and leader of the rebellion) sums this up. That British rule had created the conditions for European style national consciousness -- \"Brahman and Mussulman met here as it were on neutral ground; they have had, in the army, one common brotherhood of profession, the same dress, the same rewards, the same objects to be arrived at by the same means”. This argument was then picked up by people like Sayyid Ahmad Khan (an Islamic Indian philosopher) amongst others.\n\n​\n\nIt would therefore seem that we have reached an impasse. If the rebellion was not India's first nationalist uprising, then what was it? That is a question that any historian could write a very long book on, but I will put forward one interpretation made by Faisal Devji about what the rebellion meant to the troops that participated in it. He argues that the revolt of the sepoys was a legitimist revolt which can be attributed to the feeling that the British had broken their moral obligations as Indian rulers.One way that this can be viewed is through a concept called the “empire of Distinctions.” Whereby the just ruler was meant to preserve and contain the distinctions within a deeply heterogeneous but just society. The soldiers believed that the British were trying to impose cultural and religious homogeneity on them. One thing that particularly drew their ire was the aggressive Christian preaching – something that Charles Grant (a missionary) characterised as “the introduction of light,”to darkened Asiatic despotism. This, was received especially poorly by the soldiers, with one officer commenting that his troops believed that they would “be compelled to eat the same food… that they would likewise be compelled to embrace one faith.” Such a status which the soldiers viewed as being little different from slavery and at least partly explains the position of Bahadur Shah at the head of the revolt, as an exemplar of a religiously tolerant and therefore legitimate constitutional ruler. Therefore, the decision to revolt was based on the idea that they would suffer for each other even though they had no intention of sharing religious or cultural practices. An example of this can be seen in the probably apocryphal story about the greased gun cartridges, which, it could be argued, only exists so as to establish an equivalence and commonality between the Hindus and Muslims.\n\nThe final bit that I will discuss here is economic dislocation. British rule from men like James Mill (the father of J.S. Mill was predicated on improvement) and a large part of this assumed that if British conditions were introduced then the Indians would begin to behave more like the British -- i.e. rationally. One of the main ways they did this was through the introduction of British style single title to land. This often had interesting consequences for the Zamindar class in general. For instance when proprietary title was introduced in Bengal it paved the way for many Zamindar Rajputs to be unable to charge rents as they had before. The problem with this is that they did not have enough land themselves to live on comfortably, and if they began to farm they would sink in caste status. As such the rajput class of north India became increasingly dependent on remittances from their sons in the army, but even then this source of income was threatened by the introduction of Sikhs into the army after the annexation of Punjab in 1842. While this community was relatively small in number they are disproportionately important because they were the local magnates in their communities. They provided the organisational know how to make the rebellion self sustaining while at the same time providing a link to their sons who were involved in the Dehli mutiny.\n​\nNow these are just two isolated but linked case studies, but there are many more out there, and an illustration of how the violence of 1857 defies categorisation. " ] }
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[ [ "https://de.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/99zkgu/how_have_historians_interpreted_the_indian/" ], [] ]
13rtp4
Coin from 1919; can somebody identify?
So, my roommate and I were doing laundry today and almost mistook this coin for a 5p coin (about same size, though this one is a lot thinner). Can you tell us something about it? Is it worth anything beyond the material it is made of? _URL_0_ _URL_1_ Thanks!
AskHistorians
http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/13rtp4/coin_from_1919_can_somebody_identify/
{ "a_id": [ "c76lhqp", "c76mzvh" ], "score": [ 3, 2 ], "text": [ "That's a British 3 pence coin featuring king George V. It appears to be of fine condition and could probably fetch anything from a pound up to 3-4 pounds at the most. An uncirculated version of the same coin would have been worth around 10 pounds.", "Looking at [this website](_URL_0_), it's probably not worth anything. (Scroll down to George V, 1919).\n\nIf it was extra fine or EF (in other words, barely touched) you could buy it for £3 from a dealer, and uncirculated or Unc would be about £10. Coins like this aren't normally particularly valuable: after all, nobody throws money away, and people always keep coins that go out of circulation if they've got any left over because they think they'll be valuable one day. They won't be, because people think like this.\n\nOn the other hand, decently old silver sixpences can be worth a bit." ] }
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[ "http://imgur.com/j7ush,4uLPa#0", "http://imgur.com/j7ush,4uLPa#1" ]
[ [], [ "http://www.coins-of-the-uk.co.uk/values/three.html" ] ]
1l84p5
A question about how colonization affected the languages of Africa.
I know that the French colonized a large portion of Africa, but I think Britain held about the same amount of territory. It seems like a lot of people from Africa that I have met in the USA speak French as their primary language. I'm looking for some insight into why French seems to dominate English or Dutch as the primary language. Also, if anyone would like to answer about how the native languages of Africa are fairing and being preserved, I'd love some insight into that as well.
AskHistorians
http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/1l84p5/a_question_about_how_colonization_affected_the/
{ "a_id": [ "cbwrs1s" ], "score": [ 2 ], "text": [ "This is in reference to the \"how the languages are faring\" question only, and is currentish info; if it's violating the 20-year rule too badly, my apologies (I trust it will meet a speedy end in that case!):\n\nThere are many, *many* languages in Africa; some of them are thriving (e.g., Yoruba, Kinyarwanda), others not. For *basic* information about current language situation, you might find the [Ethnologue section for Africa](_URL_1_) useful -- while the specific population figures for many of the languages will be off a bit (because of sampling error, the agenda of the organization (missionaries), and some out-of-date-ness in some cases etc.), it'll give you a general idea. If you move the cursor over regions of the map, it'll give you pop-up boxes with relative \"vitality\" counts for languages, and you can drill down to individual countries, etc. The [World Atlas of Languages](_URL_0_) may be useful as well, although it's focused more on specific linguistic characteristics.\n" ] }
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[ [ "http://wals.info/", "http://www.ethnologue.com/region/Africa" ] ]
1c9dhe
how do people find out who a reddit user is in real life?
If you don't reveal your name, where you work, what city you live in, or use the same user name you've used on other sites, can they still find you? EDIT: Okay, so it's mostly just good old fashion detective work from reading and searching and piecing it together then? But does this "doxxing" ever involve - not sure how to phrase this - computer trickery (not when authorities are involved, just the user brigade)? Are methods beyond the simplistic "read the person's history" ever implemented/possible - I don't know, like tracing a signal or something? (Yes, I am in a bit over my head with the questions I'm trying to ask about computers since my understanding is limited).
explainlikeimfive
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/1c9dhe/eli5_how_do_people_find_out_who_a_reddit_user_is/
{ "a_id": [ "c9eba6y" ], "score": [ 3 ], "text": [ "Probably not unless you mention doing something very illegal that warrants notifying authorities who can seize ip logs & shit. " ] }
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[ [] ]
4en93t
Do Coronal Mass Ejections have a significant impact on the life of a star?
askscience
https://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/4en93t/do_coronal_mass_ejections_have_a_significant/
{ "a_id": [ "d22kmdg" ], "score": [ 2 ], "text": [ "I assume you mean in terms of mass lost, and the answer is a resounding \"NO\". The mass lost in a typical CME from our Sun is [of the order of 10^15 grams](_URL_0_), while the mass of our Sun is of the order 10^33 grams. So every CME from our Sun releases approx 0.000000000000000001% of the Sun's mass. \n\nIn human terms, if you weigh 100Kg (220lbs) then it would be like losing 1^-13 grams in mass... which, if my math is correct, is about 0.00000000015% the mass of the average human hair." ] }
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[ [ "http://adsabs.harvard.edu/full/2002ESASP.506...91V" ] ]
9kt809
What did the diet of North American 19th century lumberjacks consist of?
AskHistorians
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/9kt809/what_did_the_diet_of_north_american_19th_century/
{ "a_id": [ "e72d7ft" ], "score": [ 5 ], "text": [ "from Roy B. Clarkson's description of a logging camp in West Virginia circa 1909:\n\n > A typical evening meal consisted of boiled or roast beef or pork or steak, turnips, hanovers, tomatoes, potatoes, beans, hash, \"light\" bread or corn bread, and two different kinds of pie ( quartered) and cake and cookies. The men were encouraged to eat all they wanted, and at the end o a hard day's work their appetites were prodigious... \n > \n > A typical breakfast consisted of hot biscuits, steak ( well done or rare) fried eggs, fried potatoes, oatmeal, cake, donuts, prunes or other fruit, and coffee. It was not uncommon for a man to eat half a dozen eggs along with generous helps of other \"vittles\"... \n > \n > One of the ways the men had of relieving the boredom of their existence was to invent nicknames for each other and for the objects around them. Thus, biscuits were \"cat-heads\", donuts were \"fried holes\" or \"doorknobs\", meat was \"sow-belly\" or \"long-hog\", light bread was \"punk\", milk was \"cow\" or \"white line\", sugar was \"sand train\", prunes were \"Rocky Mt. Huckleberries\", coffee was \"java or \"Arbuckles\", apple butter was \"Pennsylvania Salve\", cooks were called \"boilers\", women cooks were rare but were called \"she-boilers\" or \"Open bottom cooks\". \n > \n > *Tumult on the Mountains* (1964) p.63-65\n\nClarkson said nothing about lunch, but you suspect that there was enough consumed in two meals to equal three, and that if a man stuffed something into his pocket at breakfast for a noon break nothing would be said.. He also noted that a good cook made about $3.00 a day, and the loggers $1.75 to $2.00: but the cook worked seven days a week.\n\n & #x200B;" ] }
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3o8vkd
If I was in the center between two planets with the exact same gravity, would I be ripped apart? Or would I experience weightlessness?
askscience
https://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/3o8vkd/if_i_was_in_the_center_between_two_planets_with/
{ "a_id": [ "cvv6sbh", "cvvbqzm" ], "score": [ 2, 2 ], "text": [ "Whether or not gravity can rip you apart depends on the tidal forces or differences in gravitational attraction across a body's length. So the answer is \"it depends.\" If you [make a graph](_URL_0_) of -1/(r+1)^2 - 1/(r-1)^2 you'd see the potential does have a maximum in between the two point sources which means you'd be safe if you were small enough. \n\nFor a single attractive source, the tidal force (for a target body of length L) is approximately L/r^3 and it would be interesting to see what modification to this you'd need for a body balanced in the center. Of course the center is unstable so a push or shove in any direction will make you fall one way or the other, then you can use the L/r^3 equation to figure it out ignoring the source you didn't fall into.", "This depends on the gravitational gradient of the planets. In the case that you're likely talking about, where you are between two planets that are relatively far apart and not unusually dense, you'd simply experience weightlessness. \n\nHowever, if you were between two close super-dense planets or black holes, while the center of your body might experience weightlessness, the sides of your body would be strongly attracted to the closer planet and you would be ripped apart. (This is actually a really unfeasible scenario, as two closely orbiting very massive objects are thought to emit energy as gravitational waves.)" ] }
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[ [ "http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=-1%2F%28r%2B1%29%5E2+-+1%2F%28r-1%29%5E2" ], [] ]
1o6u5e
why are some corn fields allowed to go brown before they are harvested?
There are lots of corn fields in my area of the world and I'm amazed, and disheartened, at the number of corn fields allowed to go brown before being harvested. I'm guessing the corn is used for feed but have no idea why it would be better to allow the corn to go brown.
explainlikeimfive
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/1o6u5e/eli5_why_are_some_corn_fields_allowed_to_go_brown/
{ "a_id": [ "ccpamgj", "ccpano7", "ccpx857" ], "score": [ 2, 5, 2 ], "text": [ "It wouldn't keep if it was harvested when it was soft. Also, some of it is probably made into corn meal for stuff like corn flakes, corn chips, etc. ", "Don't worry, you're not seeing waste, its perfectly normal. You're seeing the corn plant, not the corn ear. The plant dries down and turns brown before the grain moisture gets low enough to harvest and store. If you harvest corn while its wet and store it, it will rot. What you're seeing is perfectly normal. Most corn for cattle actually gets harvested early, while there's still some green on the plant.", " > I'm guessing the corn is used for feed but have no idea why it would be better to allow the corn to go brown.\n\nThe majority of the corn grown is not for human consumption ( < 25% in the US).\n\nOnly the stuff consumed by humans needs to be picked \"fresh.\" Animal feed, or corn used for biofuels and other products does not need to be fresh and will is left to dry on the stalk so it is easier to transport and lasts longer." ] }
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7kyyha
why would we ever care about the distinction of a newtonian fluid and a non-newtonian fluid? (i put this with an engineering flair because i want to know if there’s any practical use, not theoretical)
explainlikeimfive
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/7kyyha/eli5_why_would_we_ever_care_about_the_distinction/
{ "a_id": [ "dri9377", "dricdpv" ], "score": [ 6, 9 ], "text": [ "For one example, [liquid armor](_URL_0_) can be made only of a non-Newtonian fluid.", "Imagine you're trying to fill a mold with a material. You'd likely want to do that as fast as you can. Well, what happens if the material doesn't behave like a Newtonian fluid? It becomes much more difficult to predict how the mold will fill without extensive experimentation. \n\nYou can also get neat things like _URL_1_ which lets us do _URL_0_" ] }
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[ [ "https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Liquid_Armor" ], [ "https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Semi-solid_metal_casting", "https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Thixotropy" ] ]
4yfnr4
Would supersonic air flowing across a wing fixed to the floor in a lab produce a constant sonic boom?
Imagine a big fan or pressure differential pushing supersonic air over a stationary wing that is anchored to a floor. Would there be just one sonic boom or would there be a continuous one? Or would there not be one at all?
askscience
https://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/4yfnr4/would_supersonic_air_flowing_across_a_wing_fixed/
{ "a_id": [ "d6ssswo" ], "score": [ 3 ], "text": [ "A sonic boom is the perceptual phenomenon caused by the passage of a shock wave over the human ear. Every object that is going faster than the speed of sound in a medium has an associated shock wave attached to or very near the object. This shock wave is always there once the object reaches a speed faster than Mach 1. In a stationary wind tunnel, with an object exposed to supersonic flow, the shock wave would be stationary relative to the object and therefore relative to the observer. If the observer were inside the tunnel, they would not hear a sonic boom unless they deliberately walked through the shock." ] }
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646k1q
What is the connection between Majorana Mass and a Majorana Particle?
i have read that a particle having a majorana massterm doesnt mean the particle is a majorana particle. but doesnt the direct coupling of the particle to ints antiparticle imply that? and if not, why would neutrinos being majorana particles support the seesaw mechnism if there isnt a connection between majorana mass und majorana particle?
askscience
https://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/646k1q/what_is_the_connection_between_majorana_mass_and/
{ "a_id": [ "dfzrygw" ], "score": [ 7 ], "text": [ "If you give a Majorana mass to a \"normal\" four-component spinor, so making it satisfy the Majorana *equation*, you obtain *two* particles. They are antiparticles of eachother and must be electrically neutral.\n\nOnly when you supplement the Majorana *condition*, that is that the spinor is its own charge conjugate, you get one single Majorana particle, neutral and its own antiparticle." ] }
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engu40
Floating Feature: Close Up Shop and Celebrate History Coming to an End as 'The Story of Humankind' Concludes With Volume XIII from 1947 to 2000 CE!
AskHistorians
https://i.redd.it/fonm48tm39a41.png
{ "a_id": [ "fgbdqgu", "fhhhdq8", "fg736z3", "fg7q0ix" ], "score": [ 5, 9, 12, 10 ], "text": [ "**The Agony and Exidy** \n\n\nVery few people know the name of Harold Ray \"Pete\" Kauffman. He ran what was a relatively obscure video arcade company who's heyday was in the 1970s, failing to make a major impact even as it persisted into 1999. However, the very fact that it persisted so long is one of the most fascinating stories in the history of the coin-op industry. Amidst rapid rises and falls all around them, the story of Exidy is an exemplary story of doing a lot out of passion in the face of horrid market conditions.\n\n & #x200B;\n\nExidy was always a technologist-driven company. Kaufmann himself was an engineer, and he first got his taste of video games from their very beginning. When Atari placed it's first unit of Pong on location in California in 1972, one of the owners of that bar was a man named Tom Adams, financial officer of a monitor company called Ramtek. Kaufmann was among the people who saw that very first unit there and he was behind the idea of Ramtek entering the business, which they did shortly thereafter. However, for reasons of ambition, Kaufmann decided that he could go it alone. With a few co-founders he started Exidy in October 1973, possibly the very first company post-Atari founded largely (though not exclusively) to create video games.\n\n & #x200B;\n\nSomething which isn't well remarked on by some scholars of the early video game period is just how much of a shakeup the video game was in personell terms. While many companies were able to create video games, a sustained output depended largely on having a solid state engineering staff. California had become one of the centers of the military industrial complex in the United States - largely due to it's advantageous location for aircraft operations against the Japanese during WWII. Out of that came not only Silicon Valley but hundreds of second generation engineers stifled by the purpose of that work which they saw as directly immoral. Many of them would not move from California either, meaning that much of the new opportunity for this coin-op business was rooted in California.\n\n & #x200B;\n\nBeing a new company wasn't all great however. One thing which Exidy never did was seek outside investment which would diminish Pete Kauffman's personal majority ownership in the company. This in part is why the company lasted for so long, and also why it never was able to achieve major success, lacking capitalization. In the very beginning, Exidy decided to supplement it's own light manufacturing by selling some game designs to the venerable Chicago Coin, who had far greater capacity and connections than they. The relationship was quite fruitful, and so it was proposed by top CC salesman Ken Anderson that the larger company could purchase Exidy and make the video game arm of the company. However, Chicago Coin could only see video games as a fad. They didn't want to invest in anymore than they had to in order to ride the wave. Solid state was not seen as the future.\n\n & #x200B;\n\nThe last positive benefit of this relationship was a co-design between the two companies on a driving game called Destruction/Demolition Derby (the game was named differently by both of them for release). Chicago Coin's machine shop helped create a cabinet with two sets of driving controls where players would mow down other vehicles for score. The agreement allowed both companies to sell their own version, but Chicago Coin started not paying Exidy as their mounting bankruptcy began to build. It's not quite clear as to why they needed to change the game - something to do with the contract - but they made a slight alteration and created a new game: The infamous Death Race. \n\n\n [_URL_0_](_URL_0_) \n\n & #x200B;\n\nDeath Race probably didn't sell more than 3,000 units - in a time when Atari's Breakout sold 11,000 - yet this boost created a ten fold increase to the company's sales. Even without robust capitalization, Exidy started exploring new areas for expansion. They began creating non-video arcade games like Old Time Basketball and even took on the idea of releasing a home computer: The Exidy Sorceror. They weren't the only arcade company to do this as Gremlin Industries had released the Noval desk computer, but the Sorceror was an actual personal computer and one they intended to support as a separate business. Programmers were hired in for both creating arcade games and stocking the Sorceror library, with ports and original games. This was further supplemented with contract development in the form of the hit Star Fire and even purchasing the flagging Vectorbeam company.\n\n & #x200B;\n\nWith great success though came a necessary weight to carry. Pete Kauffman was renowned through the industry as a gregarious personality, a true stand-out figure comparable to a Nolan Bushnell in terms of his likeability and drive. Unfortunately, he also had a love for the bottle. In the later hours of the day he was an absentee CEO hooked to the bar in his office. These stupors were impossible for anyone to penetrate through and so the company simply had to support itself during his absences. While a man who made many brilliant decisions and connections, Kauffman didn't know when to stop with anything.\n\n & #x200B;\n\nForward through the 80s, Exidy never had any monumental hits, but they always had interesting games. Chief among these were their light gun series of video games starting with Crossbow. They created the technology necessary for a non-cheatable light gun which established the way to do it through the entire CRT era as well as the gameplay one could get out of that.\n\n & #x200B;\n\nDespite surviving the massive downturn in the arcades suffered in the mid-80s, after the flagging period was over Exidy found itself on it's last ropes. While there was company investment from outside sources, Kauffman maintained his majority and did not bow to outside forces looking to acquire him. Sega was looking at making Exidy it's American arm at one point, but that deal did not happen (though people from Exidy would migrate to Sega over time). The competitive arm of video games had shifted to the Japanese and they simply could not compete anymore.\n\n & #x200B;\n\nKaufmann - who by this point had brought in his daughter Virginia - moved to the newly emerging field of redemption games. They mainly severed their ties with the fast excitement to fill the increasing needs of ski-ball, basketball, and novelty amusements which had less intense play value but more utility for the new arcade model. Exidy always remained small though, and the frequent offset of high-level work due to Pete's personal problems were always an impediment to staying ahead of the larger competition.\n\n & #x200B;\n\nAbout 26 years on from the company's founding, before the dawning of the new millennium, Exidy finally wrapped up it's operations. Kaufmann went to a quiet retirement before passing away in 2015. Exidy never had a name brand or solid franchise potential to keep itself relevant or memorable through the ages. It was a company built on new experiences and technology, sometimes decently successful and other times just behind the curve. It showcased the true relevance of the arcade at a critical juncture for the industry and what California truly meant for the emerging video game scene.\n\n & #x200B;\n\n\\----\n\n & #x200B;\n\nI hope this was a decent post. I hope I brought in greater relevant points rather than just point to point. The variety in these Features is very broad so I can only hope I made something with useful questions to further explore. Best of to all!", "So I thought I'd contribute a fascinating piece of history which highlights the relationship between academia and the \"real world\". It also gives me a way to discuss palimpsests of history.\n\nOn the 17th of May 1980 members of the Maoist group Shining Path (Sendero Luminoso) burned ballot boxes in their first major public appearance. This date was the 199th anniversary of the death of Tupac Amaru, leader of the largest indigenous revolt against Spanish colonial rule in the Andes. The importance of this date is paramount as it shapes the ideology of many in the region even today; for example during the reign of Evo Morales in Bolivia he would reference myths surrounding Tupac Katari (one of Amaru's generals).\n\nSendero Luminoso operated from 1980 to 1999 until internal divisions caused by the arrest of their leadership in 1992 split the group. At their peak in 1991 they controlled almost all of south and central Peru, and almost all of the highlands; effectively more of the country was in Shining Path's hand than the Government's. \n\nThe issue here is that the region before it became a hotbed for revolutionaries is that it was a hotbed for anthropologists. Key figures like Zuidema and Isbell had been working the region in the years before the revolt yet their works mention nothing of hostility towards the government or any Marxist influence. So why then did they fail to predict this? After living for years in these villages why did they fail to report on what was happening? \n\nI think its' worth approaching these questions from several angles. Firstly, to what extent was Shining Path actually present?, Secondly, was there methodological restrictions that failed to produce the information?", "**The 1980s neo-liberal reforms as an attempt to eliminate the military-industrial complex: part 1**\n\nNow that should be a provocative title!\n\nOver the 1970s, 1980s, and 1990s, there were pro-market reforms across much of the world. These reforms were and are highly controversial. My purpose in this post is to give a high-level description of the reforms and of the economic theory and practical experiences that motivated them, followed by what I think are the strongest criticisms of them. \n\nA bit of background, I’m a New Zealander, and thus this description will be somewhat biased towards New Zealand as an example. My interests are in economic history and the history of economic thought. Combined, this means that I don’t know much about the politics behind the reforms in most countries, including the USA, so I will probably struggle to answer follow-up questions that focus on the politics. \n\n*What we can agree on*\n\nThey say that when writing a persuasive essay on a provocative topic, you should start with outlining areas of agreement. (I will be a bit lazy and use terms like 'no one' 'everyone' and 'all' in a loose sense, I’m sure you can find someone on reddit who disagrees on something!)\n\nWe all agree that markets fail from time to time. We all agree that governments fail from time to time. No one has blind faith in markets, no one has blind faith in governments. And, while we're at it, we all agree that non-government, non-profit institutions have their uses. Different people do tend to be more inclined to view particular institutions as useful in more situations than other people do, but even Communists agree that people should be able to hold personal possessions as their own property, and only the most thorough-going libertarian would deny a role for government in services like military defence, or, to pick a NZ example, biosecurity (keeping out foreign pests). The relevant question is, for a given economic problem, which type of institution is best at solving it, or, for a more pessimistic view, least-bad. I presume a thorough pessimist would declare that it doesn't matter, whatever the problem, the worst possible institution will be picked for it. \n\nWe all agree that people do not always behave rationally, and people always have limited information to base their decisions on, and that this is true both of people acting in markets and people acting in government. \n\nWe also, I think, mainly agree, that within the things that fall in the scope of government, different types of structures might be useful for different problems. Most democracies insulate judges of criminal and civil matters from direct democratic pressures (the USA is unusual in that many states elect at least some judges). Public healthcare systems like the UK’s NHS mainly leave medical treatment to be decided by the relevant doctors and their patients. Etc.\n\nEveryone agrees? Onto the history.", "**The Later Life and Works of Ding Ling: Controversy in the Field of Feminism**\n\n[Ding Ling](_URL_5_) (Born Jiang Bingzhi, 1904-1986) was a Chinese writer and socialist revolutionary, but above all, an avowed feminist. She rose to international fame among the socialist states in the East first, and then her works became famous during the counter-culture movement in the West during the 1970s. Yet in 1942 fellow feminists decried her beliefs and unwavering support for the male-dominated CCP as traitorous, and in 1957 she was labelled as a \"righist\" by the CCP. Then, in the later 1960s to her death, she was labelled as a traitor to feminism as a movement. What led to Ding Ling's fall from grace as one of the greatest feminists of the 20th century? This post will explain the early life of Ding Ling, with the second part discussing how her life took a turn towards controversy.\n\n**Ding Ling the Feminist**\n\nDing Ling was born like many other [May Fourthers](_URL_4_); into a declining gentry class in the middle of an identity crisis for the Chinese people. When she was three her father died, leaving large sums of money to her mother. This would change Ding Ling's life forever. Her mother proved to be unusually rebellious and after the father's death she used the money to educate herself in teaching, and began a career shortly after in one of China's newly reformed schools. Nothing of note happens in Ding Ling's life next until 1922 when Ding Ling comes of age. In order to escape a pre-arranged marriage to her cousin, Ding Ling's mother helps her escape Hunan to Shanghai, giving her enough money to survive on her own and enroll in a newly established women's school founded by Chen Duxiu and Li Dazhao (the founders of the CCP).\n\nWhile in Shanghai, Ding Ling fell in love with Western literature. By the 1850s a new genre of literature became somewhat popular in the West, and that was the feminism found in works such as *Madame Bovary* by Gustave Flaubert, and most importantly for many Chinese literati, Henrik Ibsen's *A Doll House*. By the 1890s artists and writers such as Aubrey Beardsley began popularizing more erotic works. All these would come to influence Ding Ling tremendously.\n\nIn 1927 Ding Ling published two successful short stories, the first was *Mengke*, and the second was *Miss Sophie's Diary.* Both works focused on the psyche of young educated and urban women, and *Miss Sophie's Diary* especially focuses on the issues of women's erotic thoughts and perverted behavior of men towards women in public. In a revolutionary act, Ding Ling wrote about such controversial things like bisexuality, free-willed sex, and other erotic topics that could lead towards the psychological liberation of women.\n\n**Ding Ling the Socialist Revolutionary**\n\nThroughout the 1930s, Ding Ling becomes heavily involved in several left-wing writing circles. As early as 1931 her husband, Hu Yepin, was captured and then executed by the KMT. In 1933, she herself was captured and put under house arrest in Nanjing. She escaped in 1936 and fled to Ya'nan, smack dab in the middle of the Communist movement lead under Mao. She began teaching Chinese literature at the Red Army Academy. Yet despite her allure towards the legendary aura surrounding the CCP at this time, she quickly became critical of the treatment of women in the CCP. It was quite clear that despite all the theory and speeches given by prominent Party members, there were really no high ranking women. Women were still treated with contempt by men. It was all wrong, and not what Ding Ling envisioned true socialist feminism to be. She set herself to work, writing two of her most famous leftist works in 1941, \"[When I was in Xia Village](_URL_1_),\" and \"[In the Hospital](_URL_2_),\" both critiques of the treatment of women in the CCP. In 1942 she suffered her first serious censorship from the party after writing \"[Thoughts on March Eighth](_URL_0_),\" a critique that even in areas where class oppression has been lifted, gender inequality still existed. The essay did however have one lasting influence: along with other critical works, Mao responded by convening the \"[Yan'an Talks](_URL_3_),\" in 1942, a forum where all cultural critiques of the party would be solved once and for all. There a lot of stuff in this, but whats important for us is that Mao urged writers to \"overcome their petit-bourgeoisiness\" and place literature and art subordinate to politics. \n\n**Ding Ling the Controversial Figure**\n\nOK, SO, here's where the 1947+ dates become relevant (sorry about that long intro). \n\nIn 1948, Ding Ling wrote her first major socialist-realist novel: *The Sun Shines over Sanggan River* (the novel would take second place in the 1951 Stalin Prize for Literature). Her novels stopped focusing on one main, disenfranchised female character. Rather, they focused more heavily on how individuals could help **the state.** After the founding of the PRC, she held a high place in many literary cliques in Beijing and enjoyed a career writing propaganda and literature for the CCP. She expressed a love of China's new socialist policies and life under the CCP.\n\nIt is under these circumstances that Ding Ling becomes a controversial figure. Many fellow feminists were perplexed as to how one of the greatest feminist figures of the 20th century could have made such a deep 180 in writing and opinions. Everyone knew that the ill treatment of women didn't stop overnight with the Yan'an forum, so what led to her deciding to act as a female mouthpiece for Mao and the CCP afterwards? We don't exactly know, as she never came out and told anyone. During the Great Leap Forward she was labelled as an anti-Party leader and sent to Northeastern China to partake in hard labor on a farm due to her earlier anti-Party writings in the 1930s. \n\nUpon returning, she was once again imprisoned in Beijing for five years as she landed right in the middle of the Cultural Revolution. Through it all, however, she survived, and after her release and \"rehabilitation\" in 1976, she began to write essays and voice opinions again. She publishes her only work since Yan'an focusing on an individual woman, the novella *Du Wanxiang.* The story focuses on a model socialist woman, influenced by Ding Ling's years on the Northeastern farm, who selflessly works hard and is both considerate and accommodating. Again, a total 180 from the independent and rebellious women of her pre-1942 works. Instead of the main character focusing on destroying traditional values, this one works to reinforce them. \n\nThe work was also heavily criticized by Western feminists as well. Feminism in the West at its very core was individualist. And here was a once prominent feminist writer telling the tale of a conformist woman who sacrificed herself for the betterment of the commune/the state. It was totally against the basic principles of feminism. It was, to them, a total joke. \n\nIn the later years of her life, Ding Ling fought against what she saw as the encroachment of Westernism on Chinese society. In 1983 she supported the CCP's campaign against \"spiritual pollution\" in China. It puzzled many people as she remained a consistent vocal opponent to her death in 1986. \n\nBut some historians argue Ding Ling never fundamentally changed. Once introduced to communism, Ding Ling disregarded the individualism of feminism, and believed that true female liberation could only be achieved through national liberation. Feminist literature was a conduit for her to fulfill important political and social goals for women. In this sense, Ding Ling's various imprisonments and mistreatment by the CCP did not outweigh their contribution to the nation and to females all across China. In the words of [Jingyuan Zhang](_URL_6_), \"Ding Ling remained committed to the cause of revolution and feminism, a path on which she traveled and suffered, sometimes alone, sometimes with others, for more than sixty years, insisting to the end that in comparison with her cause, her personal sufferings were insignificant.\"" ] }
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[ [ "https://gamehistory.org/media-vs-death-race/" ], [], [], [ "https://libcom.org/library/thoughts-8-march-women%E2%80%99s-day", "https://www.cambridge.org/core/journals/china-quarterly/article/women-sexspies-chastity-national-dignity-legitimate-government-and-ding-lings-when-i-was-in-xia-village/0CB9289A19AC70089A7D1009578F888E", "https://journals.sagepub.com/doi/abs/10.1080/03064228008533022", "https://www.marxists.org/reference/archive/mao/selected-works/volume-3/mswv3_08.htm", "https://www.britannica.com/event/May-Fourth-Movement", "https://www.britannica.com/biography/Ding-Ling", "https://www.jstor.org/stable/10.7312/most11314.71?Search=yes&amp;resultItemClick=true&amp;searchText=Ding&amp;searchText=Ling&amp;searchUri=%2Faction%2FdoBasicSearch%3FQuery%3DDing%2BLing%26amp%3Bacc%3Doff%26amp%3Bwc%3Don%26amp%3Bfc%3Doff%26amp%3Bgroup%3Dnone&amp;ab_segments=0%2Fbasic_SYC-4946%2Fcontrol&amp;refreqid=search%3A007a9bb98d1550fe845941722d0beeab&amp;seq=6#metadata_info_tab_contents" ] ]
iwewz
Can theories be proven or is it that they have just failed to be disproved?
askscience
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/iwewz/can_theories_be_proven_or_is_it_that_they_have/
{ "a_id": [ "c2760i4", "c2762v6", "c2770wq", "c2771rg" ], "score": [ 18, 4, 3, 3 ], "text": [ "You are correct.\n\nThe general answer for the scientific method is that nothing can be proven, only disproven. \n\nHowever, once a hypothesis has passed enough experimental tests that the only other competing hypothesizes are clearly wrong, then the hypothesis becomes a \"theory\" meaning it has a great deal of acceptance in the scientific community.", "If one's using [Bayesian Inference](_URL_0_), one can indeed accumulate evidence that supports a hypothesis. As a caveat, however, since one can't really compute the implications of all possible hypotheses and shove that through the calculation each time, you can't, strictly speaking, be sure the evidence isn't supporting another hypothesis more strongly. (If one has a more restricted hypothesis space, one can at times effectively do the full computation over it)\n\nAlternately, it can be easier sometimes to spot outcomes that emphatically knock down the probability of a hypothesis relative to _at least one_ other hypothesis vs outcomes that would strongly raise the probability relative to _all_ other hypotheses.\n\nBut yes, there is such a thing as supporting evidence, not just refuting evidence.", "I think it's worth pointing out that you can prove theorems for the theory side of subjects like economics and physics (much like in pure mathematics), but you cannot prove that this is how the real world works. That is, theorems and scientific theories are not the same thing.", "Given axioms, theories can be \"proven\", but the axioms themselves are by definition not proven themselves.\n\nYou can have conditional proof \"If X then Y\" but not absolute proof \"Y is true\"." ] }
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[ [], [ "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bayesian_inference" ], [], [] ]
5bgez4
Are there any examples of animals practicing medicine in the wild?
From simple things as eating certain herbs when they feel sick to preparing any types of salves or even as complicated as mending wounds, are there any animals that do this or is this just something humans do? I know elephants have their young eat feces so they get the necessary bacteria in their stomachs to digest the greens they eat and I guess that's sort of medicinal, but what are, if there are any, other examples?
askscience
https://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/5bgez4/are_there_any_examples_of_animals_practicing/
{ "a_id": [ "d9obwqz", "d9ovjw8", "d9ph4j0" ], "score": [ 20, 14, 5 ], "text": [ "There are parrots in the amazon that eat fruit that is toxic to them. Every evening they fly to a riverbank with an exposed clay cliff and eat some of the clay. The minerals in the clay neutralise the poison. I wish I could remember more details, like the species of parrot and the specific type of fruit.", "I'm not sure if this is quite what you're looking for, but Leafcutter Ants famously cultivate Actinobacteria which secrete antibiotics that the ants use to protect their fungal farms from bacterial infection. So, more pesticide than medicine per se, but still.\n\n_URL_0_", "The word you're looking for is zoopharmacognosy. \n\n It's strongly theorized that domestic dogs eat grass when they have stomach irritation to facilitate vomiting and soothe their stomachs.\n\nNonhuman primates have a wide variety of self-medicating behaviors including eating kaolin-rich clay or charcoal to soothe their stomachs, and using plants or bugs to rub down their fur as insecticides. " ] }
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[ [], [ "https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Leafcutter_ant#Waste_management" ], [] ]
szd6q
Can someone lend a neutral analysis of Mao, the Cultural Revolution, and the Great Leap Forward?
I spend a lot of time on /r/communism and recently [this](_URL_1_) was posted there. Now, this is par for the course over there as many posters are very personally invested in both refuting and/or justifying the mainstream criticisms of, primarily, Stalin and Mao. I have very leftist tendencies myself but I've never viewed Stalinism or Maoism as admirable policies because of their authoritarian nature that, essentially, forces communism on their people by silencing opposition and demanding conformity. However, if I said that on /r/communism, I'd be crucified as a bourgeois, anti-revolutionary revisionist. According to them, the mainstream criticisms are pure fiction; propaganda created to turn people away from communism. So, I guess my question is: Are there any valid reasons to deny the mainstream views of Mao, his policies and the apparent atrocities that occurred under his leadership? Are the supposed facts, such as the ones in the article I linked, worthy of believing? Or are they just justifications of genocide, created in hindsight in order to defend very deep held political beliefs? I've heard both extremes of the arguments, the mainstream and the revolutionary, but I am at a loss when I try to determine which is more worthy of believing. It wouldn't be the first time I've come across mainstream history that was less than accurate, but it also could be very true. Honestly, I would love it if it turned out that the so called genocide that occurred under Mao turned out to be mere lies, but I'm not willing to forget or forgive factual history if it turns out to be true. So please, if someone has a neutral analysis, it would be of great help for me. Thank you in advance. EDIT: I didn't check before I posted this but [this post](_URL_0_) was recently put up and asks a similar question. However it's not exactly the same and I would like a little more detail than that OP was requiring. I would just like to point out that I acknowledge that that post exists and that it is similar.
AskHistorians
http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/szd6q/can_someone_lend_a_neutral_analysis_of_mao_the/
{ "a_id": [ "c4i90jb", "c4iaden", "c4ic9bj" ], "score": [ 12, 11, 4 ], "text": [ "Well I will be honest I don't have anything more than an undergraduate's understanding of China, having taken a few classes on the subject, but I have a few things to say here.\n\nFirst the problem with the article you linked is that it is overwhelmingly arguing from a position of \"well the evidence that this happened might not be true.\" The problem with that tactic is that it is sort of a rabbit hole, you can basically argue almost anything from that position but it doesn't prove the reverse happened.\n\nAdditionally, even if the numbers of people who died in the famine are disputed (they typically range from 30-50 million in most things I've seen), there does seem to be a general agreement that such a famine occurred. \n\nBasically I would say that unless some smoking gun evidence appears that suggests this massive famine didn't occur, it would be reasonable to assume it did.\n\nOh and Mao is still on the hook for the nightmare that was the Cultural Revolution. \n", "While I cannot really answer your question, what I will say is that you are specifically looking for evidence to show something that supports your ideology, and that is a terrible idea. You shouldn't let your beliefs influence the evidence that exists. You don't have to be maoist or stalinist to be communist, in fact, I would imagine Marx would be horrified with the \"communism\" of the 20th century and view it for the totalitarian horror that it was. So I would ask you to accept that yes Mao was terrible, and that Stalin was terrible and because of Soviet influence most communist regimes of the 20th century were terrible. But this doesn't mean communism as an ideology is terrible.\n\nAlso I just checked out /r/communism again, and wow, that place is probably the worst political community on Reddit, I mean most political subreddits are filled with rhetoric and circlejerkery but the people posting there truly terrify me.", "Disclaimer: I am no historian and my only credential is being a younger generation Chinese whose parents lived through that era. I am a little surprised that you used the word \"genocide\". I have always viewed the great leap forward and cultural revolution as major fcukups, especially the former. It's not like Mao was out to systematically eradicate millions of his own countrymen, is it? The famine is very real but I don't know if we will have an accurate death toll. A lot of atrocities were committed during the cultural revolution and obviously Mao is responsible. But from my understanding, the situation is very different from the Holocaust where the higher level officials laid out a plan to kill people and the soldiers just carried out orders. My impression is that a lot of ordinary Chinese people, swept up in a frenzy, made conscious decisions to actually commit cruelties against their neighbors, coworkers, etc. For example, there were large scale armed conflicts between different factions of revolutionary guards and many people died from this. I honestly think this is more human stupidity than genocide. On a side note, the article you linked mentioned a book by Jung Chang(author of Wild Swan). I'd be cautious about any claim she makes because I recently saw the play Wild Swan and got the impression that the author is a little disingenuous. " ] }
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[ "http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/sy3wq/how_do_we_know_how_many_people_died_under_stalin/", "http://monthlyreview.org/commentary/did-mao-really-kill-millions-in-the-great-leap-forward#.T5wbUSfm_x8.reddit" ]
[ [], [], [] ]
enjhs0
Is there any peculiarity about the places a supercontinent splits (e.g. the Atlantic coastlines of Africa and South America) or is it just about the subterranean magma flow?
askscience
https://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/enjhs0/is_there_any_peculiarity_about_the_places_a/
{ "a_id": [ "fe2igv3" ], "score": [ 6 ], "text": [ "There are a couple of things that (potentially) contribute to where the rift system that breaks up a supercontinent will localize, but all of them will generally lead to the rift system initiating broadly in the center of the supercontinent and roughly coincident with where the supercontinent was joined together in the first place. \n\nIn detail, the presence of the supercontinent contributes to (1) an accumulation of heat beneath the supercontinent from insulation of the mantle by the thick continental crust, which will be greatest roughly near the center of the continental mass and (2) the development of a [geoid](_URL_1_) high within the supercontinent (and a corresponding geoid low in the surrounding ocean basin). In a very general sense, warmer earth materials mean weaker earth materials, so the first property would tend to make areas in the center of the supercontinent weaker. The geoid high represents an instability that likely drives (or at least contributes to) the breakup of the supercontinent. Once there is a force driving supercontinent breakup, the resulting rifts will localize where the continental crust is the weakest (i.e. if you start deforming any heterogeneous material, the weakest portion will start deforming first). As mentioned earlier, the center of the supercontinent may be warmer and weaker due to the insulation effect, but anything that contributes to a reduction in strength in a particular area may help to initiate a rift in that region. One of the primary sources of weakness are preexisting structures, meaning that the [sutures](_URL_0_) marking the locations where the constituent continental portions of plates were joined during supercontinent assembly likely are important 'guides' for the localization of rifts during breakup. Pangea is a good example, at least in the North America - Europe portion, as the rifting largely followed the location of the mountain ranges (e.g. the Appalachians, etc) that were formed during the assembly of Pangea. For those interested in more details, there are a variety of review papers about the supercontitent cycle which discuss the breakup and assembly processes (and the variety of ideas related to them) in great detail, e.g. these papers [1](_URL_2_), [2](_URL_3_), or [3](_URL_4_)." ] }
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[ [ "https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Suture_(geology\\)", "https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Geoid", "https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S167498711200103X", "https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S1674987112001570", "https://www.researchgate.net/publication/259366715_The_supercontinent_cycle_A_retrospective_essay" ] ]
8dkde5
studying vs fun
Why am I able to play video games for hours but get sick of studying after like 2 hours
explainlikeimfive
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/8dkde5/eli5_studying_vs_fun/
{ "a_id": [ "dxnvlq9" ], "score": [ 2 ], "text": [ "Feel good now many times or feel good once later in the future? Your brain prefers the former.\n\nIt comes down to gratification frequency in your brain. The frequency of dopamine release you get from video games is shorter in video games since you can get instantly rewarded for your tasks, feeding into a cycle. Think about it each time you pick up treasure or beat a hard boss. Whereas studying has a long-term dopamine award that you won't see without seeing your exam grade. That's why people often suggest creating your own dopamine awards when you've finished a study period (e.g., I can continue watching my TV show if I finish writing this report or finish studying).\n\nThe same analogy can be applied to diets too. Eating a bag of chips is highly addictive for the average person, but following a healthy diet is better for your body. Unfortunately, your brain prefers the former earlier. The mentality of preference over instant gratification probably stems from primitive times when instant gratification was necessary to ensure immediate survival in a time before modern civilization and technology." ] }
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gxuyk
Would it be possible to make a device to see radio/TV/cell phone signals, the same way an infrared camera can "see" heat?
I can picture it in my mind. A broadcast tower on a mountain would be like a bright light and a person talking on a cell phone would be holding a bright light up to their head, etc.
askscience
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/gxuyk/would_it_be_possible_to_make_a_device_to_see/
{ "a_id": [ "c1r3bt8", "c1r3es2" ], "score": [ 4, 4 ], "text": [ "This is used a lot in astronomy [pic](_URL_0_)", "It is very difficult to resolve an image using large wavelengths. A cell phone operates around 900 MHz, which has a 33 cm wavelength. You can use the formula for [angular resolution](_URL_0_) to calculate the aperture size of the \"camera\" you are using. As the wavelength of the signal increases, the camera size increases. For radio signals, the size becomes unrealistically high for small objects like cell phones." ] }
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[ [ "http://www.astronomynotes.com/telescop/jupiter-visradio.jpg" ], [ "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Angular_resolution" ] ]
2bbdxo
why is it difficult for the investigators to find the flight recorder from the downed malaysia flight 17 , when there is supposed to be a beacon pin-pointing its location ?
For the other missing flight MH370 weren't they looking for this beacon all along in the Ocean ? Why is it difficult in this new case to find it when the crash site is already known ? I am aware of the video showing something resembling the flight recorder in the rebels hands. But, still it not declared found yet.
explainlikeimfive
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/2bbdxo/eli5why_is_it_difficult_for_the_investigators_to/
{ "a_id": [ "cj3p34n" ], "score": [ 2 ], "text": [ "Finding the proverbial black box is simple if it's left where it is. The moment someone picks it up, removes the pinger, and sticks it on a truck -- it becomes hard to find. Rebels (or Russians, I don't know that there's a practical way to distinguish) have been all over the site removing \"stuff\".\n\nThe working hypothesis, based on the fact that rebels or Russians aiding rebels, have shot down several aircraft in the past couple of weeks is that whoever shot the missile downing the plane probably thought that it was a Ukrainian transport plane (probably rebels, since I think it's unlikely a professional Russian soldier would make such a stupid mistake). Ukraine intelligence even offered up something they claim to be an intercepted communiqué between rebels and Russian forces indicating as much." ] }
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[ [] ]
2ue67t
Foggy London vs polluted Beijing
We read about how in the past London had thick fogs created by air pollution from burning coal. These days we see air pollution from coal in Beijing. Was air pollution in London or other European cities in the past worse than in Beijing now? Or is Beijing the worst pollution the world has ever seen?
AskHistorians
http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/2ue67t/foggy_london_vs_polluted_beijing/
{ "a_id": [ "co7rl1q" ], "score": [ 3 ], "text": [ "fyi, you'll find some previous discussions on this in the FAQ\n\n* [Air pollution](_URL_0_)" ] }
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[ [ "http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/wiki/economics#wiki_air_pollution" ] ]
1dnk8z
Did the Barbarians of the Classical Roman Era field any navies and if so was there ever any engagements between them and the Roman Empire?
I was curious about the Naval doctrines of Barbarian states during the Roman era. Its known that they were actually fairly organized and thriving groups that even had their own sprawling cities and trade networks, but I have never heard much about their naval military power if they even had one. Would it be just maybe a small group of raiding or pirating vessels? What type of ships did they use if any? Any elaboration would be great thanks.
AskHistorians
http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/1dnk8z/did_the_barbarians_of_the_classical_roman_era/
{ "a_id": [ "c9s1gco", "c9s2kom", "c9s7qwg" ], "score": [ 37, 18, 2 ], "text": [ "The Veneti, a Gallic tribe from Brittany in modern France, posed quite a naval threat to Caesar during the Gallic Wars. They had several coastal citadels that couldn't be sieged out, as the strong Venetian (no, not *that* Venetian) navy protected the supply ships from across the channel in Britain. A fascinating aspect of these coastal cities was the fact that at high tide, they were islands, and at low tide, peninsulas, creating a problem for Caesar.\n\nAt this point, the Romans had absolutely no naval power in the English Channel. To combat this, Caesar constructed a navy. However, the stormy seas of the English Channel and the oak ships of the Veneti were difficult to overcome for the Romans. The Romans did eventually, in the Battle of Morbihan, defeat the Venetians by cutting their halyards, causing their mainsails to fall, in turn leaving the ships as sitting ducks for the Romans' excellent boarding capabilities. ", "Yes! Sort of. During the Third Century Crisis the Goths, who had settled on the north shore of the Black Sea, attacked mainland Greece and Aegean Anatolia by sea. They had probably managed this by commandeering the vessels from the Hellenistic cities on the north shore.\n\nTo give an idea of the effect of this, it had been well over three centuries since any of those regions had seen war.", "'naval doctrine' and 'barbarian states' are fairly strong (and teleological) terms to describe what existed, particularly in north-west Europe. The Cultures of the late Hallstatt and early La Tene are complex but archaeological theory cannot place them into the modern conceptions of a politically centralised or ethnically organised group in that way.\n\nAnyway...\n\nCaesar's Gallic War 3.8 references to the Veneti (see here: _URL_0_), and as has already been mentioned, they posed the greatest naval difficulty to the Roman expansion into that area. Apart form that, the Roman's were generally pretty shocking at the whole naval shinannigans as a whole. Sextus Pompey, son of Pomey Magnus did cause some trouble for the new principate for some time, before being eventually captured. The Egyptian navy was also impressive (but did them little good at Actium). " ] }
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[ [], [], [ "http://classics.mit.edu/Caesar/gallic.3.3.html" ] ]
2a6t7j
if everyone says girls mature more quickly than boys, why do boys seem to have a higher sex drive than girls while teenagers?
explainlikeimfive
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/2a6t7j/eli5_if_everyone_says_girls_mature_more_quickly/
{ "a_id": [ "cis53p5" ], "score": [ 4 ], "text": [ "because sex drive and maturity have nothing to with each other?" ] }
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[ [] ]
2o0iow
If a person gains weight gradually, will their leg muscles (quadriceps, hamstrings, calves etc) grow proportionally to support the added weight?
I expect that they will grow as the increasing weight simulates a slim person doing leg workouts with gradually increasing weights.
askscience
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/2o0iow/if_a_person_gains_weight_gradually_will_their_leg/
{ "a_id": [ "cmjotp9" ], "score": [ 2 ], "text": [ "They would have to, otherwise you wouldn't be able to walk. On the other hand, it depends on what kind of weight you are gaining. Obviously gaining muscle mass will cause your muscles to grow. On the other hand, gaining a lot of weight in the form of fat has other consequences. The fat gets deposited all over the place, including within the muscle, and certainly within the walls of your blood vessels, limiting blood flow. \n\nYour muscles may get stronger to carry the weight, but the restricted blood flow limits the ability of the muscle to perform for long periods of time, because it doesn't get enough oxygen for oxidative phosphorylation. While overweight people may have an increased amount of glycogen providing the muscle with a larger \"fuel tank\" if you will, the muscle still will quickly be forced to switch to anaerobic metabolism. This is less efficient, and causes lactic acid to build up (which gives you cramps). Your heart beats faster to deliver more blood to the tissue, but it isn't getting there effectively because of the fat clogging up the blood vessels. You start to hyperventilate (technically speaking this is a misnomer, it would likely be hyperpnea in this case) to compensate for the increased oxygen demand and the increased acid load created by lactic acid. **You will tire out more quickly**\n\nThe consequence of this is that you walk less, and of course, without using the muscle, it gets weaker again, and you may end up with a weaker muscle as well as body fat that you cannot carry. **Your muscle ends up weaker in the long run, if you gain enough weight**. \n\nSee: [*Muscle strength is inversely related to prevalence and incidence of obesity in adult men*](_URL_0_)\n\nIn [this paper](_URL_1_), the results conclude that obese women are stronger than their lean counterparts, but only in terms of absolute strength. When you control for body weight, every muscle is weaker on a pound for pound basis in the obese women, with the exception of trunk flexors, which were stronger. Presumably, this might be because many obese women carry the weight in the abdomen and chest. \n\n\nEdit: tl;dr: Yes, gaining weight makes your legs stronger. But there is a diminishing return on this, and the growth is not linearly proportional. This does more harm than good. \n" ] }
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[ [ "http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/19960002", "http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/11360150" ] ]
300ilp
why do people's voices sound higher pitched in older recordings? were the vocal tastes for higher pitched voice in the past or was it due to the recording equipment used?
I've been going through listening to old labor speeches from the 30's and 40's recently as well as watching some movies from the 40's and 50's and I'm noticing that the average tone of most people's voices is markedly higher. What causes this? Is this just a peculiarity of recording equipment getting better over the years or was there an actual aesthetic preference for higher voices with actors and public speakers during these times?
explainlikeimfive
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/300ilp/eli5_why_do_peoples_voices_sound_higher_pitched/
{ "a_id": [ "cpnyjc8", "cpnyl7o" ], "score": [ 3, 3 ], "text": [ "Bass frequencies require more energy to record and reproduce than do higher ranges of audio. Old recording equipment didn't have the types of improvements we've made since then. The diaphragm in a modern microphone is much more sensitive to input and can record a sound with much less intensity than older equipment. The primary factor is production. Most music made these days is mixed for use on smaller speakers, like headphones, laptops, smartphones, etc. And is adjusted to try and be \"louder\" then the other guys. They butcher old recordings, strip out the dynamic range, and level-match everything for a \"digitally remastered\" sound that ruins classic albums, also. ", "The Loudness War: \n_URL_0_\n\nAn excellent visual example of what I described.\n\n" ] }
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[ [], [ "https://youtu.be/3Gmex_4hreQ" ] ]
8e1d9p
Do mental illnesses run in families? Will they be the same mental illness or can they vary between each offspring?
askscience
https://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/8e1d9p/do_mental_illnesses_run_in_families_will_they_be/
{ "a_id": [ "dxs1nq9", "dxsalz8" ], "score": [ 7, 4 ], "text": [ "There is a genetic role in some forms of mental illness like schizophrenia for example. There's also a lot of environmental factors that cause or worsen mental illness, like physical/emotional abuse/neglect, malnutrition, traumatic life events, etc. There are usually many factors at play and no case is exactly the same.", "Yes. Autism, ADHD, bipolar disorder, major depression and schizophrenia have remarkable heritability [(article)](_URL_0_). If the offsprings share the pathological phenotype depends upon whether the causal gene/genes are homozygous or heterozygous in the parental genome." ] }
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[ [], [ "https://www.nimh.nih.gov/news/science-news/2013/five-major-mental-disorders-share-genetic-roots.shtml" ] ]
2ee2d0
How did Polar Bears survive the Medieval Warm Period?
Is there any research on this?
askscience
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/2ee2d0/how_did_polar_bears_survive_the_medieval_warm/
{ "a_id": [ "cjymxey" ], "score": [ 5 ], "text": [ "It [wasn't that warm](_URL_0_) compared to today." ] }
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[ [ "http://www.skepticalscience.com/medieval-warm-period.htm" ] ]
1rllwb
Who were Turkish Sultans descended from?
Forgive my ignorance, I don't know much about this time in history but as I understand it, Turkish Sultans and a lot of middle eastern kings rather than having politically important wives to have their heirs had a lot of concubines who could have been anyone (foreigners, slaves, etc.) and their sons could inherit the throne. If I'm wrong about that I guess that's my answer, but if not, were the Turkish emperors eventually (after a few generations of interbreeding) descended mostly from hot, foreign, lower class women? Also, a lot of the slaves were from the Balkans or Eastern Europe I think, were the emperors white?
AskHistorians
http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/1rllwb/who_were_turkish_sultans_descended_from/
{ "a_id": [ "cdogvm1", "cdohrhg" ], "score": [ 6, 2 ], "text": [ "As strange as it may seem, your story is essentially correct. Ottoman Sultans didn't marry, and instead had lowborn concubines. I'm not sure how many of the Sultan's mothers were European, but some were, yes. And indeed since only the direct male line is the family of the Sultans, the vast majority of later Sultans' ancestors would have been commoners.\n\nAs to whether the Sultans were white... I think this sort of shows your nationality, if I'm guessing right that you're American. In the Old World Turks would generally be considered white. And to those who don't agree with that, they wouldn't really think Bulgarians or Romanians are white either! As the old proverb says after all, the \"wogs start at Calais\".", "The House of Osman was certainly very ethnically diverse. \n\nLet's look at Sultan Mustafa II (1664-1703) as a random example. His [mother](_URL_4_) was a Greek from Crete and his [grandmother](_URL_2_) was Ukrainian. \n\nThe mother of Mustafa's grandson, Osman III, was a [Serb](_URL_0_), and the mother of Osman's successor was [French](_URL_1_)\n\nSo after taking a random sample of just three generations we've found French, Greek, Serbian and Ukrainian 'blood'. \n\nI know what you're trying to say and I'll spare you the lecture on why 'Were the emperors white?' isn't a historically sound thing to say. Yes, of course some would have been rather 'European' in appearance, though the turban and beard is going to throw you off if you look up some of their portraits. [Look at Abdülmecid I for example](_URL_3_) - ignore the costume and you'd have a hard time telling me where in the world this guy is from." ] }
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[ [], [ "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/%C5%9Eehsuvar_Sultan", "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Emine_Mihri%C5%9Fah_Sultan", "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Turhan_Hatice", "http://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/9/98/Sultan_Abd%C3%BClmecid_-_Google_Art_Project.jpg", "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mah-Para_Ummatullah_Rabia_G%C3%BCl-Nush" ] ]
5nc6h6
The origins of the Abrahamic religions.
I've found that the origins of Judaism are nowhere near as simple as I thought. How did the religion begin, what came before it, how did it happen and how did this contribute to the differences between Islam, Christianity, and Judaism?
AskHistorians
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/5nc6h6/the_origins_of_the_abrahamic_religions/
{ "a_id": [ "dcb8cft" ], "score": [ 2 ], "text": [ "Can I ask a clarification question before my answer gets deleted? Are we allowed to use religious texts such as the old testament or Koran as sources while we acknowledge the disputed historicity? In particular, the book of Joshua?" ] }
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519law
Is the Multiverse a "God of the Gaps"-type explanation for something we don't understand?
By multiverse i'm referring to the idea that an alternate reality exists for every possible outcome
askscience
https://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/519law/is_the_multiverse_a_god_of_the_gapstype/
{ "a_id": [ "d7ago4d", "d7ai90v", "d7alx7k", "d7amvw6" ], "score": [ 15, 6, 2, 2 ], "text": [ "I think that this links directly to the question of the place of falsifiability in science more broadly, which is something that physicists are currently fighting over. [Some have argued](_URL_1_) that the multiverse theory, among others, fails a basic test of scientific rigor in being falsifiable. [Others](_URL_0_) have argued that falsifiability is unrelated to whether something is real or not, and that an idea shouldn't be rejected out of hand just because it's unfalsifiable. So some professional scientists would answer your question with a resounding \"Yes!\" while others would say \"Of course not!\" (My personal view is that the theories and their consequences should be explored, but held in suspicion until falsified or not, so both camps have a valid point. The ability to live with the tension of uncertainty is a virtue.)", "It seems some people think the multiverse is some extra assumption added to quantum mechanics. While it does make different assumptions than the CI (the wave function is real), the multiverse is not an assumption made by the mwi. It's simply a prediction that comes out of that view.\n\nNow, it's true it makes predictions we (probably) have no way of investigating. So how seriously should we take a theory's predictions that lie beyond what can be tested is the issue. The ironic part of your question is that if the multiverse actually did explain something we couldn't otherwise understand, that would be a strong argument in *favor* of it. ", "In short, yes. By the nature of that sort of multiverse, we can't run experiments on it. Which means it's just an idea, and if you believe in it, you're doing so more as a feat of imagination or faith rather than via any scientific process. \n\nThere are some examples of more rigorous attempts at arriving at the multiverse, such as [M-theory](_URL_0_). Even that, as /u/lmxbftw mentioned, is often questioned for its legitimacy by the scientific community, as doubts exist as to whether it will ever be falsifiable. ", "No. An important part about quantum physics is entanglement. You can't think of particles as each being independent waveforms. If they interact, you have to think of them as components of a single higher-dimensional waveform. Early on, it was assumed that the waveform would collapse into a single state after measurement, but eventually Everett realized it could be explained as the waveform never collapsing and all particles being entangled all the time. The multiverse theory is just the Copenhagen interpretation with waveform collapse taken out. It's the strictly simpler theory." ] }
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[ [ "http://www.preposterousuniverse.com/blog/2014/01/14/what-scientific-ideas-are-ready-for-retirement/", "http://www.nature.com/news/scientific-method-defend-the-integrity-of-physics-1.16535" ], [], [ "https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Introduction_to_M-theory" ], [] ]
ekvw4f
why can't i, a nearsighted person, use a vr headset without my glasses? shouldn't everything still be clear since it's just a screen close to my eyes?
explainlikeimfive
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/ekvw4f/eli5_why_cant_i_a_nearsighted_person_use_a_vr/
{ "a_id": [ "fdfbekj", "fdfkkt9", "fdfmcso", "fddwzn0", "fde1j5c", "fdenjyz" ], "score": [ 2, 3, 18, 33, 244, 6 ], "text": [ "The computer screen for each eye IS close to your eyes. But there are lenses in front of it that make it appear further away. Yes your near sighted eyes are better at seeing things closer than farther. But even if you're near sighted (or not), your eyes are also bad at seeing things super duper close. So the lenses make the image appear as if the screen was like 7 feet away instead of two inches away.\n\nYou want the computer screen to be super close to your face so that your headset is compact rather than bulkier and bigger.\n\nBut you're eyes are actually bad at focusing on things when they are that close. It gets uncomfortable for the eye to focus so close for so long. You don't normally look at things right in front of your eye. You'd have a much harder time reading a book with tiny text if it was an inch or two from your eyes than you would with normal sized text at normal book reading distance. Even though the text size would appear the same at your distance.\n\nThe lenses are fragmented into different parts to help create the illusion that the screen is wrapping around your field of view instead of just a flat screen in front of you.", "I am nearsighted and it doesn't matter whether I do or do not wear my glasses with a VR headset. It looks fine either way. \n\nBlew my goddamn mind.", "I don't know if this is against the rules, please remove it if it is\n\nFor yourself and anyone else who needs it - [VR Lens Lab](_URL_0_) makes prescription lenses for VR. If your glasses are too large/fragile/ or it's just uncomfortable to wear them", "The lenses in the headset simulate vision at a specific distance. If I recall that is 6 to 10 feet. Most nearsighted people have vision loss at this range.", "Glasses refocus light to correctly hit misshapen eyes. Each person, sometimes each eye, will have different corrections that need to be made. If a \"normal\" sighted person wears someones prescription glasses everything will look distorted.\n\nThe lenses in a VR set also refocus light, but are designed to simulate distance rather than correct for eye shape. Wearing your glasses or contacts with the vr headset will add the corrections needed for your eyes.", "VR headsets have unglasses (like glasses but the opposite) so that normal vision people feel like they're looking far away.\n\nSo then you have to wear glasses to get it closer again which is what your eyes think is far away.\n\nYou could maybe take out the unglasses (lenses) and be fine if you were really really nearsighted (like legally blind from it.)" ] }
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[ [], [], [ "https://vr-lens-lab.com/" ], [], [], [] ]
b7ol6u
why, when watching a live tv program, is there a delay on a screen in the shot when it shows the same program as being broadcast
So for example, watching the F1, the broadcast is being displayed on giant screens the same as what the public watch at home. But when at home I can see a delay to what is at the event on the giant screens.
explainlikeimfive
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/b7ol6u/eli5_why_when_watching_a_live_tv_program_is_there/
{ "a_id": [ "ejt31t7" ], "score": [ 2 ], "text": [ "Because there is a time delay in capturing video and displaying it.\n\nThe live view is capturing a display of itself. At one frame in time, that light information from the camcorder gets converted to electrical signals, decoded, then sent to be displayed elsewhere. This will take several frames of time before it pops up on screen for the live view to see. This time difference is the delay you see.\n\nYou can get the same effect by pointing a webcam to look at a screen with its own video feed, you'll get a repeating image of what you see but they will pop up one at a time due to the delay." ] }
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3m9r3t
why do people's ears tend to get hot when they drink alcohol?
[deleted]
explainlikeimfive
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/3m9r3t/eli5_why_do_peoples_ears_tend_to_get_hot_when/
{ "a_id": [ "cvd8oge" ], "score": [ 2 ], "text": [ "Alcohol causes your blood vessels to expand which increases circulation. This is more noticeable where there is very little skin and muscle to hide the changes. Like your ears. " ] }
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21i732
Why are older geological layers at the bottom and newer ones at the top?
So, the oldest fossils are the deepest down, in the oldest geological layers. How does that work? Why are the oldest layers the deepest? And how did those layers get buried so deep down anyway? Once upon a time those dinosaurs walked on the surface. In fact, even at archaeological digs where they find buildings and tools that are just a few thousand years old, they're always digging up things from underground. Does the earth somehow keep getting more soil that piles on top and buries everything? Where does that soil come from? Is the earth getting bigger or does it just recycle soil from the bottom back to the top again?
askscience
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/21i732/why_are_older_geological_layers_at_the_bottom_and/
{ "a_id": [ "cgdoqnb", "cgdsb6m" ], "score": [ 2, 2 ], "text": [ "An important concept is that of [isostatic subsidence](_URL_0_). Let's imagine a really simple scenario. Imagine a lake whose level is around sea-level. It is receiving sediment from rivers draining mountains and other surrounding upland areas. Let's say that we deposit 1 cm of sediment in that lake. That 1 cm of sediment has a mass associated with it which now adds to the total mass of the column of crust beneath it. This addition of mass causes a little more of the aesthenosphere (a part of the mantle beneath the lithosphere which is weaker, behaves plastically and is able to \"flow\" on a geologic timescale) to be displaced beneath this column so the column sinks a tiny bit, thus creating more space, referred to as \"accommodation space\" within this lake. Continue this process for a long time and you will progressively end up with a column of sediments that increases in age downward, but the surface of the earth (where sediment is being deposited in your simple lake) is about the same absolute elevation referenced to some external datum (like sea level). \n\nThere is also some amount of recycling that is happening as some areas are uplifted due to processes like mountain building. So you may have millions of years of deposition in an area and eventually this area may be involved in the formation of a mountain range and then a decent portion of those rocks will be uplifted, eroded and then deposited in a basin. ", "In the simplest sense, it's because there's gravity and tectonics. Large-scale forces of the earth, such as tectonics and volcanics, cause masses of rock to be moved up. At the same time, wind and water erode them and gravity pulls the eroded material down.\n\nThe result is that loose (eroded) sediment flows downhill, and settles in low areas. Over time, more and more sediment accumulates as erosion of the high areas continues. So the first-deposited sediment is oldest, and eventually hardens into the bottom-most layer of rock.\n\nIn a planet with no tectonics, eventually there would be equilibrium, with an essentially flat surface (disturbed only by the occasional meteor impact), under which there would be successively older layers of sedimentary rock. But on earth, tectonics keep pushing rocks up and aside, changing their relationship, and creating new high places for erosion to bring down. Hence, continuous formation of new sedimentary layers, new upon old." ] }
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[ [ "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Subsidence#Isostatic_subsidence" ], [] ]
d302ov
What was the journey to Auschwitz like?
I'm writing a story and have been doing some research about the holocaust, and found an article about Fabrikaktion. It was an an event during which many jews were rounded up, and put on good wagons and sent to a camp called Auschwitz. I was wondering how long the journey there was, and if there were any Nazis patrolling the wagons making sure no one got away, and if there were any wagons that crashed, or any jews who escaped on the way to the camp. Here the original website I found if it is of any importance: [_URL_0_](_URL_0_)
AskHistorians
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/d302ov/what_was_the_journey_to_auschwitz_like/
{ "a_id": [ "f8afjqm" ], "score": [ 3 ], "text": [ "What they were referring to as \"goods wagons\" were likely the trucks which were in this case used to take people from factories to centers from which they were deported to Auschwitz in cattle cars. The Nazis usually deported Jews to extermination camps such as Auschwitz Birkenau in cattle cars with very horrible conditions. Auschwitz was a large camp complex with concentration camp, labor camp, and extermination camp sections. Most of the German Jews deported in February of 1943 were murdered in the gas chambers in the Birkenau section of Auschwitz. About 4000 people escaped the Aktion, and about 1500 of these people survived in hiding. However there were no escapees once people were put on the trains. Some of the deportees from the Fabrikaktion survived because in Auschwitz they were selected for forced labor, a very small number of people, mostly able bodied young men and young women without children were chosen for forced labor and so were not immediately gassed as most of the deportees were. Most of these forced laborers were eventually killed, but some did survive.\n\nMost of the other Jews in Berlin had already been deported and murdered, most of the people deported in the Fabrikaktion were the spouses of non-Jews or were children of interfaith couples, or else were skilled workers or forced laborers in war production. Up until then these people had avoided deportation, however at the end of 1942 the Nazis decided to deport and murder these last Jews in Berlin by the end of March of 1943. This particular Aktion is well known historically because it was the day of the Rosenstrasse protests of women married to Jewish men occurred. This was particularly significant because it was the only mass demonstration against the deportation of Jews in Germany. \n\nThe deportations were ordered by the RSHA, and were organized by various groups, mainly the SS but also others, including local police. The deportations themselves were extraordinarily brutal. Usually between 75 to 100 people were stuffed in a cattle car, without windows, with no food, with no room to move or even sit down. Some cars had a bucket of water and an empty bucket for a toilet, but many did not even have these. The trip from Berlin to Auschwitz usually took a a day or two, sometimes longer. Many people died during the journey. These trains were heavily guarded, often with a guard with a machine gun on top of each car. Very few people escaped and almost all who did were murdered. Thousands of railway workers, and the Deutsche Reichsban were also complicit. The trains then arrived at Auschwitz and the prisoners underwent selection, a few able bodied prisoners were chosen to live and the rest were murdered and their bodies burned within a few hours. \n\n\"The Factory Action and the Events at the Rosenstrasse in Berlin: Facts and Fictions about 27 February 1943: Sixty Years Later\" by Wolf Gruner and Ursula Marcum \n\n [_URL_1_](_URL_1_) \n\n\"An Underground Life\" by Gad Beck, Beck's description of the Aktion is particularly heart wrenching because he remembers losing his first love, Manfred during the Aktion (though not the one on feb. 27).\n\n [_URL_0_](_URL_0_)" ] }
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[ "http://ww2today.com/27th-february-1943-the-jews-of-berlin-are-rounded-up" ]
[ [ "https://deportation.yadvashem.org/index.html?language=en&amp;itemId=5092745", "http://sfi.usc.edu/tags/fabrikaktion" ] ]
3kbt3w
Was American Artillery more effective and decisive than German Artillery in WW2? If so, why?
Scattered paraphrases of German war memoirs give me the impression that American Artillery was incredibly effective and greatly feared by German units. Was American artillery more effective than German Artillery? Why was this? What weapons, organization and tactics made it so? [This response](_URL_0_) has good information about targeting practices, but whatever other things were factors, if any?
AskHistorians
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/3kbt3w/was_american_artillery_more_effective_and/
{ "a_id": [ "cuwd1kk", "cuwfh7v" ], "score": [ 9, 11 ], "text": [ "I'll let others cover all of the other reasons why it was so, underlying everything was simple logistical superiority. The Americans not only had the capacity to lean on artillery heavily as a weapon of war, they had the willingness to do so. Artillery is expensive, and getting artillery shells from a US factory shipped to the Western Front even more so. But the US had the industrial capacity, the logistical capability, the wealth, and above all that the knowledge that they had such and the willingness to make use of it.\n\nThe US built more *new* merchant tonnage during the war than, for example, the Japanese had at the start of the war. Despite incredible losses of merchant marine sailors and ships the US was able to pump more artillery rounds into Western Europe (logistically and literally) from across an Ocean than the Germans could across a much shorter supply chain.", "[This response by /u/vonadler is exactly what you are looking for.](_URL_0_)\n\n" ] }
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[ "https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/2ptn4a/over_time_the_idea_that_british_artillery_during/" ]
[ [], [ "https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/3ixrvq/did_the_semiautomatic_m1_garand_give_the/cukognb" ] ]
2jp937
Why does it seem like early American civilizations' (Maya, Olmec, Aztec) art/architecture is much less developed or much less impressive than that of early Europe and Asia?
I was recently at the Museum of Science Boston's exhibit on the Mayan culture, and while it was a very interesting exhibit full of new knowledge, for me the artifacts just didn't compare to ones I've seen from Ancient Greece or the Roman Republic, or even from ancient China and India. Why is this?
AskHistorians
http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/2jp937/why_does_it_seem_like_early_american/
{ "a_id": [ "cldv0bc" ], "score": [ 30 ], "text": [ "This is a common misconception, in truth mesoamerican and south american cultures were very advanced, just in ways that were different than what is typically thought of as \"advanced\". Early American civilizations had very complex construction and architecture techniques as well as metallurgy and textiles. \n\nWhen people say that \"they weren't that advanced\" people are usually referring to the fact that the Incas didn't use wheels. Long story short; They did. But American cultures didn't use extensively for a couple of reasons, namely they didn't have any draft animals. Cattle and horses simply didn't exist in the american continents at the time. [Llamas](_URL_0_) aren't very strong, and the [American Bison](_URL_4_) was never tamed. This, in combination with the many steep, rocky, mountainous regions of the american continents meant that the wooden cart wheels of the time simply weren't useful to them on a large scale.\n\nAnother reason they tend to be thought of as less advanced is that the american cultures tended to favor natural defenses instead of the artificial method of castle building. See [Machu Picchu](_URL_1_) and the [Cliffdwellers](_URL_5_). Those, and many construction sites like them had very advanced construction and carving techniques employed throughout them. \n\nThere was also [Tenochtitlan](_URL_2_) the capital city of the Aztecs that was built in the middle of a lake using a combination of natural and artificial islands, complete with huge drawbridges that could be raised in case of an attack. This wasn't just one fortress either, the entire city was built like this. And in some places there was even running water thanks to two large aqueducts flowing into the city.\n\nAnd then we come to [Teotihuacan](_URL_3_) a *massive* city that existed centuries before the aztecs built Tenochtitlan. It is thought to have housed at least 125,000 people during its height making it the 6th largest city in the world at the time. These were the people the Aztecs worshipped as gods!\n\nThere are a couple of other reasons why they aren't thought of as \"advanced\" including their highly fragmentized cultures, their lack of large scale warfare (there are exceptions, but most ancient american conflicts were relatively small and over pretty quickly compared to the grand battles of european military history), and the difficulty of obtaining certain materials made certain tasks more difficult for the people of the american continents. \n\nTL;DR The many American cultures were advanced, in some cases just as much or moreso than their european counterparts. But due to differing circumstances and environments, they never developed, or never needed to develop those technologies in the first place. \n\n" ] }
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[ [ "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Llama", "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Machu_Picchu", "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tenochtitlan", "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Teotihuacan", "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/American_bison", "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ancient_Pueblo_peoples" ] ]
1lfhfr
Neutron Star Density question. (Chemistry/Astrophysics)
I read that a teaspoon of a neutron star would weigh 10 million tons. How is it that neutron stars can have more mass than the same amount of regular matter? What is happening with the atoms of the star?
askscience
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/1lfhfr/neutron_star_density_question/
{ "a_id": [ "cbyqpc2", "cbyqtp9" ], "score": [ 5, 2 ], "text": [ "The mass density of a neutron star is comparable to the mass density of the nucleus of an atom.\n\nIn ordinary matter, the density is much less, because the mass of an atom is almost all in the nucleus, but the nucleus takes up only a tiny fraction of the volume of an atom, so the density of ordinary matter is vastly less than the density of the nucleus.\n\nIn a neutron star, you basically have density comparable to what you'd get if you piled a bunch of nuclei as close to each other as you could.", "Neutron stars are incredibly densely packed. The reason why a teaspoon of neutron star would have so much weight associated with it opposed to a teaspoon of salt, for example, is because the neutrons in a neutron star are as densely packed as they can be. In salt (halite, for example), the crystalline structure allows for large, empty spaces between each of the Na^+ and Cl^- ions within the structure. Each salt crystal is then separated by more space through bonds to other crystals. \n\nFor a star undergoing the transformation into a neutron star, it has to undergo a process called electron degeneracy. This is the process which drives all electrons out of the core of a star while the star expels it's outer layers (keep in mind, this has to be a large star that doesn't under-go the black hole route). \n\nWhat remains is the densely-packed, neutron star, made almost entirely of neutrons (the remnant core of the large star that underwent electron degeneracy).\n\n[[Source]](_URL_0_)\n\nEdit: added a few words." ] }
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[ [], [ "http://astronomy.nmsu.edu/geas/lectures/lecture25/slide02.html" ] ]
2bou44
why are addresses depicted the way they are, and not postcode/zipcode first? surely this would be easier?
Like, why are addresses not... Post/zip code Town Street Flat/house number and or name Is there a reason they are always written out in the traditional format?
explainlikeimfive
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/2bou44/eli5_why_are_addresses_depicted_the_way_they_are/
{ "a_id": [ "cj7ff33", "cj7gcs4", "cj7grii", "cj7hmvp" ], "score": [ 6, 2, 2, 2 ], "text": [ "Pretty much you answered it yourself.\nIt's done that way because it's traditional.\nPeople haven't felt a need for change because there were no problems with the old way.\nThe cost to promote the change, and the cost of potential delays or disruptions from confusion or inconsistency, would outweigh the negligible benefits.", "The postcode *is* written first. Well, it is [for us here](_URL_0_) so if it isn't for you, that's just the way your country does it? Traditions are a strong thing, I suppose.", "I think the deliverer and receiver would need to know the name and address much more than they would the zip code.", "The machines that read the addresses are programmed to read from bottom up, so they read the zip code first. Then sort it to correct post office for delivery or to another sorting plant. " ] }
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[ [], [ "https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Japanese_addresses#Address_order" ], [], [] ]
6wrafd
In late medieval England, how were MPs chosen for the House of Commons?
AskHistorians
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/6wrafd/in_late_medieval_england_how_were_mps_chosen_for/
{ "a_id": [ "dmaonsd" ], "score": [ 9 ], "text": [ "Ah the pre reform house of commons.\n\nAs always the answer is it depends which ones. \n\nEssentially you had 2 main forms of MPs. The knights of the shires that represented counties and those that represented urban centres. Then you had varies other MPs such as those that represented the Cinque Ports (University constituencies though cam rather later.\n\nNow we've got that out of the way it depends on the date. 1430 is a critical year as is when the 40 shilling freeholders act was passed. After that date you needed to have a freehold worth 40 shillings a year in rent in order to vote in county elections (prior to that point is possible that all freeholders had the vote in theory). One big catch was that you had to vote in the county court. This meant if you didn't live near it voting wouldn't be very practical. An exception was Hampshire where you could vote in Newport on the Isle of Wight as well as Winchester. Voting was public so you might want to stick to candidates that the great and good of Winchester were happy with. So in practice such MPs were selected by who met the voting requirements, were able to get to the county town and were prepared to openly support them.\n\nFor MPs that represented towns the system was largely left up to the authorities of the town in question and a range of approaches were taken from giving the vote to most householders through just those that paid certain taxes to just the members of the borough corporation.\n\nOf course this assumes that any MP was chosen at all. Southampton for example repeatedly failed to provide an MP (at the time it was expected to produce two). This makes more sense when you realise that Southampton was frequently a poor town and parliaments could be held in some fairly random places." ] }
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1rjkfk
how can monsanto get away with virtually suing any farmer? how can the non-gmo farmer protect him/herself?
I am basing my understanding of this situation on the various articles I have read here on reddit, and Food INC (feel free to tell me this is an accurate/inaccurate documentary too). How is it that a modified seed can just seemingly arbitrarily land on a farmer's field, then monsanto agents can trespass on their property, test the crops, and discover it is their "brand", then sue the farmer? Can the farmers not put up signs anywhere that decree No-Trespassing? Additionally, can they not put up signs that say, don't know how to word this, "No Crop Trespassing"? Is there a situation where they could decree Monsanto's GMO's as an invasive species, and actually sue them when their crops land in their fields? Thanks!
explainlikeimfive
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/1rjkfk/eli5_how_can_monsanto_get_away_with_virtually/
{ "a_id": [ "cdnvx97", "cdnw33i", "cdnwkiw", "cdo2eud" ], "score": [ 16, 14, 28, 10 ], "text": [ " > I am basing my understanding of this situation on the various articles I have read here on reddit, and Food INC (feel free to tell me this is an accurate/inaccurate documentary too). \n \nIt's not accurate, Monsanto does not sue farmers over accidental cross pollination, only willful and intentional isolation of their seed and the planting/selling of it. ", "I'm going to take you up on your \"feel free to tell me this is an inaccurate documentary\" clause. Listing all of the errors would take far too long, but they were definitely biased in their presentation.\n\nI'll paste an excerpt from Monsanto's FAQ:\n\n > **What is Monsanto’s standard policy if we discover a farmer is violating his or her seed contract? **\n\n > If there is evidence of seed piracy, we work with the farmer to confirm the facts and discuss how to resolve the issue quickly, amicably and professionally in accordance with our Commitment on Farmers and Patents. This commitment clearly outlines a strict code of conduct we must operate under if we are investigating possible violations. In particular, we do not threaten farmers, we respect their privacy, we do not trespass, and we do not pursue farmers for the accidental presence of our patented technology in their fields or crops.\n\n\nFrom my knowledge (I worked on a farm for quite some time), the vast majority of farmers sued by Monsanto and similar companies are for what is known as \"saving seed.\" Under the contract for using the GM seeds, the farmer promises not to save seeds from the harvested crop to plant the next year. This is so that farmers cannot expand the seeds they bought earlier and is the farming equivalent of saying that you cannot pirate music.\n\nIn the case of Food Inc., one of the main farmers interviewed claimed to run a small family farm to have been harassed by Monsanto unfairly. Despite this, his farm was worth several million (I could be in the wrong range, but it was by no means small), and there was audio evidence of him trying to convince his neighbors to save seed.\n\nThere is a reason why those in the farming community have a significantly more positive viewpoint on average than the average member of the public.", "You have to go out of your way to get sued. Here's what happens...\n\nIt's suspected that you have GMO crops on your land, this is usually reported by other farmers or by seed elevators that buy crops from farmers.\n\nThe owners of the technology (Monsanto, usually (thanks to their patent portfolio)...but can be Dupont/Dow/BASF/Bayer/etc depending on the crop or technology) will approach the farmer/farm and ask for voluntary documentation on their seed source and/or a sample of their seed/crops.\n\nThings can go a couple ways from here...either they comply or they resist. If they resist, things can go into legal wrangling (especially since pretty much everyone who denies to comply in order to investigate the issue is in the wrong). If they comply (or once compliance is legally won) then they send the samples off to labs to test for priority genes. Sometimes it gets to the point where it's a case of \"well, go ahead and harvest and then we'll take samples\" when farmers are adamant they're doing nothing wrong...they will be busted or cleared once sampled after harvest without any impact to the value of the farmer's crop or harvest if in the clear.\n\nHere's the thing about GMO accidentally ending up on your land...Monsanto/etc. have programs in place which will pay for the contaminated crop, it's clean-up, and the labor/chemicals used to remove it from your land...even in border lands like ditches and runoff-protection areas that aren't in production fields.\n\nHere's the other thing...there is no way on this planet someone accidentally has 70-80-90%+ GMO contaminated seed in their fields. This only happens when buying illegal seed or (more commonly) cultivating, selecting, and saving GMO seed when you notice it's shown up on your property. If I happen to be driving a truck holding 10,000 copies of MS Windows and a copy falls off the back of my truck you don't have the right to install that on 1000 computers at your business or go around installing copies on other people's computers because you found it on the ground.\n\nMonsanto has never lost a case they've sued a farmer over...and it's only been a few dozen farmers in the past 18-ish years...and well over 1/2 of them happened in the early years of GMO adoption before a lot of people knew exactly what was up with the legal limits of using this technology.\n\nIf you're farming 100s-1000s of acres, you know exactly what you're getting into when you choose to cross the line into stealing intellectual property. The only farmers that have gone up against this system were either testing the system for it's limits and/or were simply trying to steal intellectual property. It's a very deliberate act in either case.\n\nBeyond all this, it's a case of farmers who WANT to crop GMO crops without actually paying the higher seed price for GMO seed. They are no different than GMO seed purchasing farmers, use no more or less chemicals, nor are they somehow saintly or innocent for wanting to do this...they just want to cut out the \"paying for it\" part that helps brings this intellectual property to market.\n", "Food, INC's presentation of this issue is somewhere between \"grossly simplified\" and \"intentionally deceptive.\" \n\nSeed piracy is common because [Monsanto doesn't use terminator genes](_URL_1_). The small fraction of these farmers that Monsanto brings to court are [guilty as fuck](_URL_0_). There is no way the contamination was accidental, and the court agrees. US Courts do not hold farmers liable for accidental contamination and the burden of proof lies with Monsanto. Proceeds from the lawsuits are donated to charity, so Monsanto only has negative incentives (court costs) to sue innocent farmers. The only benefit they expect to get from the lawsuits is increased compliance from other farmers." ] }
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[ [], [], [], [ "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Monsanto_Canada_Inc._v._Schmeiser", "http://www.monsanto.com/newsviews/Pages/terminator-seeds.aspx" ] ]
1cirz2
How does cortisone work?
Hi, I was wondering how cortisone works. I know it has to do with suppressing the immune system, stopping the cascades and over-reactions when the immune system has gone too far or is doing something otherwise unnecessary. I am wondering what it actually does from a biochemical perspective. What messengers does it interrupt, does it simply float around nomming antibodies or is the work done through harassing white blood cells? What actually happens? I have some basic knowledge of molecular biology so don't worry about going overly technical.
askscience
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/1cirz2/how_does_cortisone_work/
{ "a_id": [ "c9gy0c2" ], "score": [ 3 ], "text": [ "I think you mean cortisol, rather than cortisone. The two are interconverted in the cell by an enzyme system (11- beta HSD 1 and 2) and cortisone is actually much less active than cortisol.\n\nCortisol circulates in the blood bound to corticosteroid binding globulin, a carrier molecule. About 96% of cortisol is bound, but it is only the 4% free fraction that is biologically active. Free cortisol passes from the blood into the intracellular space, and then passes freely through the cell membrane.\n\nOnce inside the cell, cortisol binds to the glucocorticoid receptor, a molecule found in all nucleated cells. The binding of cortisol causes the receptor to shed heat shock proteins, then the cortisol and receptor complex migrate into the cell nucleus. It is here in the nucleus that cortisol has its effects. The complex binds to glucocorticoid response elements in the DNA and by so doing effects the regulation of genes - by either suppressing or stimulating them. Its is thought that cortisol can effect the regulation of over 2000 genes, so its actions are widespread- -not just the immune system, but on metabolic control, cardiovascular response and wound healing.\n\nThe immune system effects are very complicated. Some cortisol is necessary for a normal response to infection; animals without adrenal glands who don't secrete cortisol die when exposed to bacteria. However, cortisol also has anti inflammatory actions. A lot of its actions are mediated by control of cytokine release - TNF alpha, and especially NF kappa b.\n\nIf you don't have enough cortisol you won't survive a serious illness. having too much will suppress your immune system. Give extra steroid to critically ill patients is a deeply controversial practice at the moment." ] }
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33vgyc
Are the stars in the big dipper closer to Earth than other stars in the night sky and is that how they came to be a constellation?
I ask because the other night I was hanging out on my deck around twilight and as it slowly got darker those were the first stars I could make out. It got me wondering if the reason they were made into a constellation was because the guys who came up with them saw them early on in the night and it helped them remember where in the sky to look. I know for sure that I saw the stars in the Big Dipper before any other stars, but I just don't know if that's because they're closer or shine brighter(or more likely some combination of both) relative to other stars in the sky, and so can be seen before the sky gets completely black(like how you can sometimes see the moon during the day). And I was also wondering if maybe light pollution played a part and so maybe there's no relation between how the stars emerge now compared to when Ancient Man was creating the constellations. And a side observation: If punctuation and language had existed like they do now at the time the constellations were made and named, the big dipper would probably just be known as The Questionmark. Because from where I live(Long Island) that's what it looks like.
askscience
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/33vgyc/are_the_stars_in_the_big_dipper_closer_to_earth/
{ "a_id": [ "cqotcis" ], "score": [ 3 ], "text": [ "[This image](_URL_0_) shows the Big Dipper head on, and from the side. Distances to astronomical objects are essentially impossible to judge from a human perspective on Earth. Stars that are much brighter, but further away, can far outshine nearby dim stars. A star's location on the sky or in a constellation usually has little to do with it's distance to stars that are visually nearby, except in the case of clusters or binaries.\n\n*Edit*: To answer the constellation question, yes; constellations are essentially just groupings of bright stars in a region on the sky that helps make observing and recording the movements of celestial objects easy. This was originally done for calendar keeping and astrology, but they're still useful features for astronomy and the general public today." ] }
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[ [ "http://www.windows2universe.org/the_universe/images/big_dipper.jpg" ] ]
3zk8vt
Navigation in bombers during world war 2. Were the navigators able to compute the route on their own or their work was mostly handled by electronical devices?
I'm in a phase where I'm very interested to read about air warfare in western Europe in world War 2 (hopefully I will expand to the eastern front as well in the future). I read on secondary sources that often navigation in bombers was difficult, there were electronical devices to improve the navigation, but still mistakes were committed. The navigator in the airplane had only to handle the electronical devices or also had accurate maps, rulers, and so forth to establish the position of the plane on a map through computations? Can anyone explain their procedure (or link it) if they had to determine manually the position of the plane or if they relied on devices and precompiled tables? (like 'if you get the signal x, look in the precompiled map that we'll tell you the position related to the x signal' )
AskHistorians
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/3zk8vt/navigation_in_bombers_during_world_war_2_were_the/
{ "a_id": [ "cymzdan", "cyn6eds" ], "score": [ 6, 5 ], "text": [ "Mostly map work and instruments - at least early on - which is why the Blackouts actually worked as a measure to reduce the accuracy of Bomber attack. There are examples of long-range guidance by electronics; however, the Luftwaffe used radio transmitters and modified Lorentz blind-landing sets (short range radio receivers designed to guide pilots in to land in poor visibility) to produce the 'knickerbine' bomber guidance system.\n\nThe system essentially consisted of a radio that would pick up either dots or dashes if you strayed too far left or right of your flight path and a final beam that told aircrews they were over their targets. The system relied upon the fact Germany controlled France and Norway, so they could properly cross all the beams of radio signal required. The system was not incredibly successful because local interference (such as falsifying the signal for 'you are too far right' at the rightmost edge of the lane) could cause it to mislead the pilots it was supposed to lead, and it was rather expensive (directed high-power radio transmitters aren't cheap).", "Early war navigation was a manual affair in the RAF using techniques such as astronavigation (taking a fix on celestial bodies with a sextant) and dead reckoning (using airspeed and direction). This wasn't particularly accurate at night, meaning RAF bombing was inaccurate; the Butt Report of 1941 report famously concluded that only one in three bombers got within five miles of their target.\n\nThe Luftwaffe had adapted the Lorenz blind landing beacon into a navigational aid for bombing called *Knickebein* used during the Blitz, with one beam guiding bombers towards a target and a second intersecting beam indicating the bomb dropping position. As noted, when the British learned of *Knickebein* they began a programme of jamming or bending the beams to limit their usefulness. The Germans developed improved beam guidance systems, *X-Gerät* and *Y-Gerät*, though they in turn were also jammed.\n\nRAF navigation steadily improved, with devices such as an electromechanical Air Position Indicator for more accurate dead reckoning, and their own beam navigation systems: GEE, Oboe and Gee-H. They also employed H2S, centimetric ground scanning radar that gave a crude picture of terrain.\n\nThere was an RAF Historical Society seminar on [A History of Navigation in the Royal Air Force that may be of interest] (_URL_3_). *Most Secret War* by R V Jones is also a very readable account encompassing the \"Battle of the Beams\", though focused more on the technological side of things rather than the navigational.\n\nSome other useful material on the web:\n\n* [A US Dead Reckoning Procedure training film] (_URL_0_)\n* [Navigating in the Air] (_URL_2_) from the Smithsonian Time and Navigation exhibition, with examples of instruments and charts\n* [The Battle of the Beams] (_URL_1_); though the site design is a little dated, it has some interesting bits such as the audio examples of *Knickebein* tones" ] }
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[ [], [ "https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=BEatUIZzO_o0", "http://www.duxford-update.info/beams/beammain.htm", "https://timeandnavigation.si.edu/navigating-air", "http://www.rafmuseum.org.uk/documents/Research/RAF-Historical-Society-Journals/Journal-17A-Air-Navigationin-the-RAF.pdf" ] ]
5njc5w
what happens to our world (including its inhabitants) if the worst case scenario happens with global warming. i'm not even sure how to define worst case scenario. melting of polar ice caps? temperature going up globally 10 degrees (f)?
explainlikeimfive
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/5njc5w/eli5_what_happens_to_our_world_including_its/
{ "a_id": [ "dcbw4gw" ], "score": [ 2 ], "text": [ "The ice caps are going to melt. It is a question of when. The models use are always failing for predicting how much sea ice is melting.\n\nThere are unknown factors. We estimate based on what we know and what we guess. The unknowns can kill us.\n\nAs things warm up, we know they will, there will be more carbon dioxide released from soils, more released from the tundra, and there is a tremendous amount of methane clathrates on the ocean floor waiting for conditions to change a little for the methane to go back into solution and into the atmosphere. The ocean pH is changing. We know this. The ocean is warming. \"When the ocean changes enough that methane will go into the atmosphere.\nWe are conducting a tremendous experiment on the whole world. The US has just elected a president who is appointing a climate change denier to the EPA. \n\nWe really do not know what the worse case is. But we know that changes must be made which should happen as soon as possible with as many incentives from government as possible. The worst case scenario for doing this is that we will have a cleaner environment and pay a little more for it. There are many health care benefits from living in a clean environment. Do you have asthma? Know someone who does? That is one of the costs of a dirty environment." ] }
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7kfcmu
Is there a "filter" that can shift infrared light into the visible spectrum?
As far as I know, night vision goggles that are based on IR use a camera and a display for this "conversion". Is there a different way to make the infrared visible?
askscience
https://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/7kfcmu/is_there_a_filter_that_can_shift_infrared_light/
{ "a_id": [ "dre4eej", "dre5sf3", "drerqvg" ], "score": [ 15, 3, 2 ], "text": [ "Not all night vision goggles work that way. The more traditional approach is to use the photoelectric effect - incoming IR photons hit a screen, which emits electrons. These are then accelerated through an electric field and strike another screen, which causes the emission of even more electrons, and these then strike a phosphor screen which emits visible photons.", "Most CMOS and CCD sensors are sensitive to light in the near infrared, out to around 1100 nm (which corresponds to the bandgap energy of silicon). You can make most webcams IR sensitive by finding and removing the KG3 filter that blocks out NIR light. \n\nFor IR out past 1100 nm, you would have to use an [intensified ccd](_URL_0_). Incident IR light strikes a photocathode which produces electrons, which are then accelerated into a [microchannel plate](_URL_1_) that amplifies the electrons by a factor of ~ 1000 or so. The amplified electrons are then imaged with electron optics onto a phosphor screen, and the light produced at that screen is imaged to a conventional ccd. \n\nFor IR laser light, you can use certain birefringent crystals to [frequency double](_URL_2_) the light. Most green lasers you've seen are likely frequency-doubled Nd:YAG or Nd:YLF, which emit light in the NIR. ", "Thermodynamics in general prevent a photon with lower energy and therefore longer wavelength, for being converted into one of higher energy.\n\nThe opposite case can happen, and is important to quite a few physical processes. Fluorescent dyes for example, that are excited by ultraviolet light, and then give off visible light or infrared. The difference in energy is converted into motion of the atom or molecule in question, heat in other words.\n\nUsing LASERs you can exploit certain nonlinear optical effects to effectively ~~double~~ *halve* the wavelength of the laser beam, while also halving the beam's luminous intensity. This is extremely complex, but it requires the fact that LASERs are highly coherent light. This doesn't work with ordinary light." ] }
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[ [], [ "http://www.andor.com/learning-academy/intensified-ccd-cameras-the-technology-behind-iccds", "https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Microchannel_plate_detector", "https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Second-harmonic_generation" ], [] ]
7oxd3v
the mess of weird text you get when you turn a .png/.jpg file into a .txt
explainlikeimfive
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/7oxd3v/eli5_the_mess_of_weird_text_you_get_when_you_turn/
{ "a_id": [ "dscy4k9", "dscy9i3", "dscy9lf", "dsczxhi" ], "score": [ 2, 5, 17, 2 ], "text": [ "So, all data is stored in binary (1s and 0s), when you open a JPG in a text editor it tries to make text out of the JPGs binary data, which usually just results in nonsense.", "Every file on a computer is just a stream of numbers.\n\nWhile many file formats, like PNG & JPEG, have strict formats so you can't even open an arbitrary chunk of data, a text file does not. A text file is just a file containing text. If you try to open some other file as a text file, the text editor will carry on as if the numbers in the file represent text characters based on an encoding like [ASCII](_URL_0_) or UTF-8. Since ASCII includes a bunch of garbage characters & stuff like \"new line\", you end up with meaningless garbage.", "In the end, all files are just 1s and 0s.\n\nA jpg is only a jpg because the program opening it knows how to interpret those 1s and 0s as an image.\n\nBut notepad doesn't know how to interpret it as an image. It just assumes anything you open in it is meant to be text. So it interprets the data as if it was text.\n\nBut since the data wasn't meant to be text it looks weird. There are some characters that have special purposes and aren't really meant to be displayed. So they are represented by weird symbols. Chances are some of the numbers in that jpg file will happen to match up with the values of these special characters so you get these symbols which you wouldn't normally see in data that is actually meant to be text.", "01012018 \n12292017 \n03102017 \nConsider these three numbers. \nIf some one told you, it's dates, \nYou can read them and it makes sense. \nNow if you mixed it up and told them first two digits are the day, next two are the month, next four are the year. \nIt might make some sense, but you would get confused. \nNow if someone really messed up and told you they were phone numbers. \nYou could probably key them in to a phone, but they wouldn't do anything. \n \nThat's what a PNG is, a set of numbers. \nTo a computer, a text file is a set of numbers. \nJust that if they were written to be a PNG file, the numbers don't mean anything as a text file. " ] }
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[ [], [ "http://www.asciitable.com/" ], [], [] ]
3pc0k2
how do companies get paid from credit cards?
Basically, when someone uses a credit card at a business. Does the company receive the money in increments, or is it paid through one big check at the end of the month?
explainlikeimfive
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/3pc0k2/eli5_how_do_companies_get_paid_from_credit_cards/
{ "a_id": [ "cw4zuaa", "cw4zvit", "cw517c4" ], "score": [ 3, 2, 2 ], "text": [ "Short answer: They receive money in chunks throughout the month usually on a daily basis but it is on a 2 day delay. \n\nThe company has a bank that they process credit cards through, this is called the acquirer bank. The card the customer uses is also backed by a bank, this is called the issuer bank. When the merchant charges the customers card it goes to the acquiring bank which puts the transaction on to a network (MasterCard, VISA, etc) the transaction reaches the issuer bank where they make the decision to honor or decline the card. They send their decision back to the acquirer bank and the bank sends it back to the merchant. The transaction goes to ACH (automated clearing house) which is when the actual money moves from the issuer bank to the acquiring bank. ACH usually takes 2 days to process. ", "When you buy something with a credit card, you will send a \"purchase request\" to the merchant (which is whatever business you are buying from). \n\nThen, the merchant will send this request to the \"acquirer\", which is a financial institution that handles and authorizes credit/debit card transactions. \n\nFrom there, this acquirer would send another request to the issuer of your card, whether that would be American Express, some bank, etc. \n\nIf your card/account has valid credit or money, the issuer will send an authorization code back to the acquirer. \n\nThis code is authenticated again by the acquirer which then authorizes your payment to the merchant. Hope this helps!\n\nNote: I'm not exactly sure on how the business receives the money, but hopefully someone else can address that for you!\nSource: \n\"How Credit Card Transactions Work.\" \nCreditCardscom News. N.p., n.d. Web. 19 Oct. 2015.\n", "My business uses Verifone and ADP, along with a cloud based POS system (Lightning POS from Computer Perfect shameless plug because it's awesome.) \n\nI get deposits into my business checking four days a week. \n\nFriday, Saturday, Sunday, and Monday are deposited on Tuesday at 12am. Tuesday is deposited on Wednesday at 12am. Wednesday is deposited on Thursday at 12am. Thursday is deposited on Friday at 12am. \n\nADP handles my credit card processing fee deductions from these deposits (along with payroll and some other things.) " ] }
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26e0qv
Why did Staten Island remain mostly residential, and not develop more like Manhattan did?
Geography? Luck?
AskHistorians
http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/26e0qv/why_did_staten_island_remain_mostly_residential/
{ "a_id": [ "chq8ygg" ], "score": [ 114 ], "text": [ "Totally got this one. Native Staten Islander here, who has done research. I'm on my phone, so I cannot provide links at the moment though.\n\nFirst, one has to realize that Staten Island is the least populous borough--I think the current population is only about 500-600k. Staten Island historically has also been sparsely populated in relationship to the rest of the city. This is very much a result of the geography of the island. While not a problem now, Staten Island had difficult terrain to live: rocky hills (made of Serpentine rock) and wetland/marshland further south. This made it very difficult for many people to have farms, and the surroubdi by waterways (Arthur Kill and Kill van Kull) would have been too narrow and shallow for large scale exporting. \n\nStaten Island, therefore, remained as a sparsely populated farmland for a long time. Similarly, it's distance from Brooklyn and Manhattan made it difficult for regular travel and inter-county trade. There were ferries (such as Cornelius Vanderbilt's, which started him on to his fortune and later evolved into the Staten Island Ferry), but they were not as many as would have been needed for large scale trade.\n\nThat being said, Staten Island was always integrated with New York rather than New Jersey. Fort Wadsworth was paired with Fort Hamilton in Brooklyn to protect the harbor. Staten Island served as a quarantine for sick immigrants. It's proximity to the harbor allowed it to profit from New Yorks trade as well.\n\nWhen New York became a city, Staten Island was the last to join in 1898. Many Staten Islanders were not happy (and many are still not to this day).\n\nThe first easy access to the borough came in 1963, when the Verrazano Narrows bridge was completed. That started Staten Islands population growth. New Yorkers saw the free land and the proximity to the city (now with bridge access) and began to move there for residential purposes, while working in the rest of the city." ] }
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4npfo2
After reverse transcriptase creates a provirus, how does a retrovirus differ from a single-stranded DNA virus in its activity?
askscience
https://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/4npfo2/after_reverse_transcriptase_creates_a_provirus/
{ "a_id": [ "d46laqy" ], "score": [ 2 ], "text": [ "There are two major reasons, to my knowledge, that retrovirus replication using a provirus intermediate is different than an single stranded DNA virus.\n\nOne, proviruses directly integrate into the chromosomal genome, while DNA viruses (usually) integrate extrachromosomally ([there have been some reports that Herpes virus can integrate into the chromosome](_URL_1_). Whether or not there are any benefits to being integrated directly into the genome as opposed to not integrating directly but still sitting in the nucleus (and subsequently \"hidden\" from cytoplasmic DNA sensing immunity proteins) I do not know.\n\nTwo, creating a provirus is an error intensive process. Unlike the cell's normal method of replicating DNA, Reverse Transcriptase (RT) is notoriously sloppy. Regular DNA polymerases have an error rate of [about 1 in 1,000,000 to 100,000,000](_URL_0_) but RT has an error rate of about [1 in 1700](_URL_2_). Such high rates of mutation would be deleterious to most organisms, however, not all mutations would necessarily be negative (you could very possibly have silent mutations, or you could have gain of function mutations). Deleterious mutants would be quickly selected against because of their inability to replicate and subsequently infect other cells, while productive viruses can continue to replicate very quickly. Massive amounts of mutations can be a good thing for the virus, especially in the case of antiviral treatment. This is why HAART, the standard in HIV treatment, exists as a cocktail; when the first antiviral was released for HIV people that took the drug quickly found that the virus mutated to evolve resistance against it. But by giving a cocktail of multiple drugs you make it less likely that the virus will generate resistant mutations against all of the drugs at once." ] }
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[ [ "http://www.jbc.org/content/279/17/16895.full", "http://jvi.asm.org/content/84/23/12100.full", "http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/2460925" ] ]
1ap5lt
Why does our skin get numb when we're cold?
askscience
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/1ap5lt/why_does_our_skin_get_numb_when_were_cold/
{ "a_id": [ "c8zj9zg", "c8zjv6s" ], "score": [ 3, 2 ], "text": [ "Blood flow to exterior arteries is restricted to keep the internal organs warm. ", "So your sensation comes from neurons that brings information from your skin to your brain. When it's cold, you can imagine that reactions needed to send that information slows down, and then when numb, most of that signal can't move out of that area towards your brain simply because the nerves can't fire effectively any more. \n" ] }
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1m4zpb
Was there any presidential republics like the United States before the United States existed?
AskHistorians
http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/1m4zpb/was_there_any_presidential_republics_like_the/
{ "a_id": [ "cc5vaa4", "cc5zr64" ], "score": [ 9, 4 ], "text": [ "There were prior examples of mixed regimes. Aristotle advocated for them and the Roman Republic may be an example with its consuls, senators and assemblies. However, no prior regime deeply resembled the US.\n\nThe US arguably drew more on ideas than examples in its creation. The separation of powers, of which the US president is a product, was an Enlightenment idea perhaps inspired by Aristotle and Cicero but articulated more recently (and perhaps with greater influence on the US) by Locke. The framers also drew the constitution against things that they feared, the tyranny of monarchy and the tyranny of the majority. And they also had to reconcile their government with the conditions that already prevailed in their newly independent land: sovereign states. This meant that many executive powers would be reserved not for the president but the states. Lastly, much of the nature of the US presidency has evolved over time with gradual developments in the constitutional interpretation of presidential powers.\n\nOverall, then, the US presidential system was rather new to human experience and a product of its era and location. It has served as a model for others but did not really have close models itself.", "Other than Classical Greek and Roman models, the more recent \"democracies\" and \"republics\" studied as models by the founding fathers included the Venetian Republic, and Swiss cantons, as well, of course, as the British parliamentary system, and particularly the British parliamentary system under Oliver Cromwell, when there was no king." ] }
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2zt7mb
why do cats love to push things off tables?
What is with that?!
explainlikeimfive
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/2zt7mb/eli5_why_do_cats_love_to_push_things_off_tables/
{ "a_id": [ "cpm1jju", "cpm1phf", "cpm2qf4", "cpm319m", "cpm3rj2", "cpm44mi", "cpm6mub", "cpm7q5k", "cpm7ypx", "cpm83cd", "cpm86v5", "cpm98j1", "cpm9y9k", "cpmb5kr", "cpmfh2q", "cpmfpik", "cpmfzvc", "cpmgf5k", "cpmgxnb", "cpmh3h5", "cpmho3m", "cpmlb4h", "cpmmey1", "cpmmks4", "cpmo0pl", "cpmo4j2", "cpmoau3", "cpmogxa", "cpmox10", "cpmp4lr", "cpmq78y", "cpmqp3a", "cpmr584", "cpmt9mu", "cpmxvwg", "cpv90gm", "cpvabv6" ], "score": [ 976, 97, 11, 6, 12, 1448, 3, 2, 7, 3, 31, 2, 11, 6, 2, 4, 4, 2, 3, 7, 5, 3, 2, 3, 7, 20, 5, 18, 3, 9, 2, 2, 3, 10, 7, 2, 2 ], "text": [ "They do it to get your attention. Cats learn. And they learn that if they push things of the table, you'll stop ignoring them and interact with them.", "Animals just like children like to fool around with whatever amuses them, just like your \"for example\" two year old son wants to smear shit on the walls because he finds it funny, he doesn't know that it is wrong. Just like your cat, he sees an object he can move, and wonders what would happen if he pushed it off, we can't tell if he's laughing or enjoying because we don't normally connect animals with human feelings. But I'm pretty sure he's enjoying himself. \n\nFor shorts. Cat is curious, probably young and finds different ways to entertain himself. He could be very mischievous if you told him not to do it before. But of not, that's the main reason. ", "I heard somewhere from someone on here that they might do it to judge the distance to the ground for jumping. ", "Only guessing here, but it might be a way of measuring the distance to the floor.", "I think cats push things off tables because they know it's impossible for humans to force them to pick it up and put it back. \n\nThey're laughing the entire time. ", "I did a report for an animal behavior class in undergrad on animal play. It overwhelmingly focused on younger animals and why it is such a common trend across species to mess around with each other and fuck around with objects. As far as playing with each other, it seems to be a natural inclination to enjoy it but the evolutionary purpose seems to be that it reinforces social norms, learning how hard you can bite someone without it being aggressive, seeing how you can figure your social standing in the pack by whether or not you groom the others, as well as running and chasing to build hunting skills and refine motor movement/muscle memory/whatever you want to call it.\n\nPlaying with objects seems to be important for that latter part as well. It helps them develop and refine motor functions that can be applied later on in life for actually not ass hole tasks. So, that's why kittens would do that kind of thing, it feels enjoyable for them, and it feels enjoyable because a billion years ago, the saber tooth tigers that liked swatting hamsters off of rocks wound up with better developed neuromuscular systems which allowed more successful not-dying. Traits got passed on.\n\nI can only assume adults do it because that youthful drive to refine motor skills doesn't just disappear.\n\nEdit: Obligatory \"holy crap, thank you for the gold\" edit...holy crap, thank you for the gold!", "I've read one theory that cats do it to gauge the distance to the ground. ", "I wonder if it's like us stepping on thin ice to crack it, it's a pretty fun thing to do.", "Actual response, and i'm no animal behaviourist, would be that perhaps it's because they need more exercise. Another possibility would be that they are asserting dominance; \n\n*\"If it's small and not moving, it must be prey!\"*\n\nNot really a serious response, but I would imagine my cat thinks \n\n*\"Because fuck you, that's why.\"*", "Because said objects might contain food. They do it in the wild with eggs and small animals.\n\nEven if well-fed, cats kill for fun. Never forget that.", "Because they are agents of entropy. They love converting potential energy to kinetic energy.", "In a short term, can be because they like to see how playable is something on the floor. My cats and the fucking pencils.... hhgnnn", "Cats are evil. They were created by the devil himself to cause chaos and destruction. Humans don't own cats, cats own humans. They may look cute and sweet but that is the plan. The one true weakness humans have is cuteness. We are powerless over all thing cute. One day when we least expect it cats all over the world will rise up as one and rule the world. Cats will eventually own us as pets and we have to do their bidding. Before you know it we will have the first ever cat president. Resistance is futile. Even if we do organize ourselves and try to make a resistance, the cats will outnumber as and force us into concentration and labor camps such as meowchwitz. Our fate will end up in four ways. \n\n1.) We will die in war against the cats because we are outnumbered 6:1. Military weapons are no match against cuteness, cat reflexes and senses, and sharp ass claws and teeth.\n\n2.) They will force us to grow and process catnip to feed their never ending drug addiction.\n\n3.) We will end up destroying the ecosystem by fishing up every fish in the sea, rivers, lakes, and streams to satisfy their bottomless fish apatite.\n\n4.) They will force us to kill all of our dog brethren so felines will be the dominate species of the world.\n\nKnocking over things off tables is just the beginning of a fate all us humans are doomed to stop.\n ", "It's interesting. When they swat them, they move and make a neat sound as it hits the floor. They like interacting with objects and play. Also it gets your attention. Cats love attention", "It's weird. None of the cat's I've \"known\" personally has ever done this. Batting shit around on the floor, sure, but never \"fuck this\"-style sweeping things off tables.", "Cats perceive your tables as a vantage point, and as a 'nest' or whatever. They have instincts driving them to clean such vantage points, hence batting everything off.\n\nOther instincts they have is to hide in grass, hence the boxes.", "Because it makes things move on their own, as if they were prey. It's fun and stimulates their prey chasing instincts. ", "I read somewhere that cats (say when they are pushing something off the table) can't comprehend or understand the object, and their reaction is to touch it/push it. \n\nIt's just typical of humans to put things close to the edge of counters too haha", "Thinking about all the cat videos with them knocking shit over, it makes me wonder if reddit's interest in cats stems from severe stockholm syndrome.", "Cats want attention, whether it be positive or negative (they don't really know the difference). If they knock things off, they get attention. If you continually give them attention for these things, they'll keep on doing it. This is why you should ignore your cat at night if they are walking on you or messing with things; if he/she knows that doing this will get attention, they'll continue doing it. You're looking at a week or two of hell from them continuing to do it, but after they realize you won't engage they'll stop. \n\nThe best remedy is to use things like the [SSSCAT](_URL_0_), which has an infrared eye and will be triggered by the cat's presence on something they shouldn't be on. If you use a spray bottle, the cat will know it's you and will see that as \"I did this and got attention from him.\" The SSSCAT, alternatively, will give make them think \"table is super scary.\"\n\nSource: I have a previously dickish cat who, as a result of a strategically placed SSSCATs, wouldn't dare go anywhere near my counter, dining room table, sink, desk, or bookcase. ", "I think it's because of spite. My cat is a spiteful little bitch. She does it when she is hungry especially.", "The better question is why do I like to push cats of off tables.", "They like tables and I guess they are just clearing off space to sleep.", "My cat used to do this before I really managed to get her to understand the concept of playing. She was sort of bought by the neighbours as a toy for their kids and determinedly moved in with us instead, and she was very tetchy early on because she hadn't really been played with before I don't think. Once I got her used to some toys she stopped doing it. If she wants my attention now she does it by miawing, then flopping down for a belly scratch. She knows this will always tempt me over to spend some time with her, because who can resist kitty belly.\n\nTL:DR - I agree with the top comment, it's boredom.", "Because cats are assholes. Cute, furry, adorable assholes. ", "What is with all these long bullshit explanations here. Oh it's behavioral, oh it's a throwback from blah-blah era.... come on guys this is ELI5. \n\nThe real answer is obvious. Although cute and cuddly, secretly, deep down in their bones, all cats are assholes and knocking some shit off the desk, forcing you to pick it up feels good to them.", "Because things are on tables. Therefor things must be pushed off tables. Cat logic.", "They are studying physics. Seriously. Cats are all about jumping, perching, stalking, etc. If they were in the wild, their lives would depend on accuracy of both aim and timing of a pounce. ", "I'm 30 years old and I've lived with cats nonstop since I was 4. So that is 26 years of cat experience.\n\nI've never once had one of my cats or one of my parents cats knock anything off of a table unless it was an accident. And by accident I mean they were running away from another cat because they were playing and then they slammed into the table and something fell off because it was teetering on the edge because I'm the dumbass who left it like that. \n\n We had at one point 6 cats in a small house at once. But the thing is we gave them the attention they needed. When they asked to be pet we pet them. If a person ignores an animal of any type of course it will act out.\n\nThe only time they got up on tables is when we were all asleep. As soon as they heard alarms that woke us up you would immediately hear a thump of them jumping down from one table or another. \n\nSo play with your fucking cat if it's doing that shit. ", "A long time ago, I was in Burma. My friends and I were working for the local government. They were trying to buy the loyalty of tribal leaders by bribing them with precious stones. But their caravans were being raided in a forest north of Rangoon by a bandit. So, we went looking for the stones. But in six months, we never met anybody who traded with him. One day, I saw a child playing with a ruby the size of a tangerine. The bandit had been throwing them away. \n\nSo why steal them you may ask?\n\nWell, because he thought it was good sport. Because some beings aren't looking for anything logical, like money. They can't be bought, bullied, reasoned, or negotiated with. Some beings just want to watch the world burn.", "The same reason they kill small animals even when they aren't hungry: they're the psychopaths of the animal kingdom. ", "Sometimes by accident, sometimes playing with something that moved, quite frequently, deliberately for attention.", "Probably the same reason people would push things off tables unless told otherwise; it's awesome", "For the same reason that cats do everything else. Because fuck you, that's why. ", "Because cats are assholes and they like to watch their human slaves pick up their shit. Go get yourself a dog and see what love feels like. ", "Do cats actually do this? My cat never pushes shit off anywhere. She usually just sniffs said object and moves along.", "Mine absolutely does it to wake me up. I can tell because I watch him do it through slitted eyes, and he quite obviously will knock something off my desk, then look sharply at me to see if I react. If I continue to \"sleep\" he will knock something else off.\n\nAlso sometimes he will sit on my chest and punch me in the face." ] }
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8p9je7
I know that in the middle ages many towns were rather small (often the largest still only consisting of tens of thousands of people). How vital to the national economy were towns? What sort of professions were people practising there and were there any that weren't as common in more rural locations?
AskHistorians
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/8p9je7/i_know_that_in_the_middle_ages_many_towns_were/
{ "a_id": [ "e09s45i", "e09v2wm", "e0am60s" ], "score": [ 370, 42, 3 ], "text": [ "\"How important were towns\" is kind of a tough question to answer, because the existence/increase of towns is both a sign and a cause of overall exonomic restructuring over the later Middle Ages. Towns were essential to the economic system they were a part of/helped create. You can say something like by 1300, about 65% of England's economic production was shipped overseas, which meant it came through market towns, but obviously this was heavily agricultural/pastoral commodity. And of the 35% or so internal trade, that would be intimately bound up in a market/rural/urban web.\n\nAs Christopher Dyer neatly sums it up, by the late Middle Ages, tow key developments had happened. First, lords were thinking about economic productivity and how to get *more* out of their land. (But at the same time, we are in the days of the moral economy as well--fixing bread prices to make sure everyone can afford at least A Loaf of bread each day, even if it was a smaller load when grain prices rose). Second, the transition from crop to cash rents, which would be accelerated by the Great Famine in1315-1322, was already underway.\n\nThus, lords expected income in cash from their peasants, paid it in tax, and sold their share of crops on their land for cash. Day laborers in the countryside were paid in cash and needed somewhere to buy the necessary goods to stay alive. Conversion of crops to cash meant longer distance trade, which meant traders--and the people to support them. Who, in turn, produced more refined goods and services for each other, and maybe for rural dwellers who might spend more time gearing up for production of what brought them cash (either their own crops or as mill workers, harvest laborers, miners).Talking about towns is inseparable from talking about long-distance economies overall. (Since \"national\" can be a questionable term still at this time. Centralized/royal authority isn't even always an aspiration of rulers, much less a fact.)\n\nBut there are a couple of things we can look at to get a bit deeper. First, towns enabled specialization of profession--the ability to make a living from a very narrowly focused line of work which, overall, meant a greater variety of goods being produced in abundance. Secondly, towns were vital to economic *growth*.\n\nTowns were signs and causes of specialization in profession. And medieval people could be very, very specific about what constituted a \"profession.\" In Rouen, for example, the guilds for women (yes, women!) who made clothes out of new fabric versus those who made clothes out of secondhand fabric were not only separate but often at war in the courts for encroaching on each other's territory. Nuremberg had a dedicated craft (Nuremberg's formal guild system was abolished around 1348) of *gingerbread baking.*\n\nThe Nuremberg *Hausbücher* are a great example of how specialized professions could be. You can navigate around the site--I've sorted it by \"profession\" for you--and click through to see illustrations of the different jobs or people who did them in late medieval/early modern Germany.\n\n_URL_0_\n\n\nProbably the most important urban profession was not unique to towns, but it illustrates well the central role that towns played in economic development. In northwest Europe, it was increasingly popular for teenage men but *especially* women to move to cities and work as servants for a period of time, saving up money for marriage or to start a singlewoman's household. (The medieval demographic imbalance between women and men was heightened by the fact that a higher proportion of women moved to cities and stayed; a higher proportion of men stayed in or went back to the countryside.) \n\nWhat Hajnal originally identified as the \"European marriage pattern,\" of women and men both marrying later in northwest Europe connected to which countries' economies grew relatively stronger in the early modern era, isn't quite a *marriage* pattern. Women in Eastern Europe show a wide variety of ages at first marriage; even in Italy many women married later than we are often given to assume. Instead, it seems to be a *women's wages* pattern. Places with towns where women worked--acquiring cash income, spending cash income--generally speaking saw more economic growth from the late Middle Ages on.\n\nI'm still struggling to say \"how important were towns\" because without them, the late medieval economy would have had to look completely different. This would have been true at the local level, the regional level, the \"national\" level, and the international level. But within the system that existed, specialized professions and their products would seem to be a good illustration of the economic contributions of cities to local life rather than just long-distance trade.", "I am not a historian, but have studied a decent amount of economic geography and I think the \"central place theory\" may provide a theoretical explanation of the importance of small towns in the middle ages. The wikipedia article on central place theory provides a pretty decent breakdown of the important components, but I will provide some explanation of why I think it's relevant.\n\nAgriculture provides an important foundation for all societies and economies. This is true today and it was true in the middle ages. Farms require relatively large plots of land with relatively few residential premises. The people who who farm the products on that land require non-farm goods and services as well as markets to sell their agricultural products. The distance between the farm and these service centres and markets has an impact on the efficiency of the farm/farmer. It takes time to cover distance, and in that time the farmer could be doing other things and at a certain point their produce will go bad if it takes too long to get to market. Towns naturally develop because they act as aggregation centres for agricultural production. Larger towns develop because they act as the next level of economic aggregation, and this pattern of increasing settlement size goes through iterations until you get cities. This is why there are loads of small towns relative to cities; the small towns can provide a number of lower-tier functions for local residents, and large urban centres provide regional functions for dozens of small towns and rural areas. Agriculture was certainly more important to the national economic system hundreds of years ago than it is today, so there is no doubt that those small towns were critical components of the national agricultural economy. I would imagine that towns also played a crucial role in defending the nation from intruders. It's much easier to defend your agricultural land if it's occupied than if you need to march an army across the country to push your foe back across the border. I gather that's why there are so many castles in the UK, but here I'm only speculating based on my pop-culture knowledge of medieval history.\n\nAdam Smith, the \"father of economics\" provides a number of potentially relevant insights in his book the Wealth of Nations. I have not completed the book, but he essentially explains how an \"economy\" works from the ground up, and agriculture and distances between places play very important roles. The concepts he discusses kind of feed into the central place theory that I mentioned. He does mention that in the 1700s many of the jobs in small towns were also present in great towns, but the wages were almost always lower in the small town. This is primarily because rents are also lower, so the trade off between the two results in essentially a similar quality of life across space. I would assume that the case was similar in the middle ages because the book is very theoretical and the concepts still hold fairly consistent today. Obviously there would be unique instances of towns with specializations due to their geography, such as mining towns. \n\nI don't know if I directly answered your question, but your question kind of pokes at some major theories in economic geography, so hopefully the things I mentioned are somewhat informative.", "Follow on question for the OP - did the advent of modern last names arise with urbanization where first names would have required family last names?" ] }
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[ [ "http://www.nuernberger-hausbuecher.de/index.php?do=list&amp;tt=prs-jobnorm" ], [], [] ]
2f6r6g
when i uninstall a program using an unistallation .exe included in the program's folder, how is that .exe capable of uninstalling itself?
explainlikeimfive
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/2f6r6g/eli5_when_i_uninstall_a_program_using_an/
{ "a_id": [ "ck6g5ss", "ck6gk02", "ck6mdnw" ], "score": [ 4, 11, 15 ], "text": [ "A Windows executable cannot be deleted while running, and therefore cannot delete itself. \n\nYour Windows uninstaller removes everything it can and then must ask something else to remove it when its execution has finished. It often sets up a task to be run at startup which deletes the remnants of the uninstalled application.\n\nIn Linux, an executable can delete itself partly due to its being loaded into RAM. In fact, the entire operating system can be uninstalled or replaced while running.", "So a program runs when it is in memory (RAM). When you run a program, it is copied over from the hard disk to the RAM -- once its in the RAM there's nothing but operating system constraints that might force it to not be able to delete itself.\n\nIn Windows, the OS doesn't let you delete files/executables if you're using them. So the uninstaller schedules a task to delete itself with the main OS, and exits.\n\nIn Linux, you can delete a file while viewing it, or delete and executable while running it. (For lazily-loaded files, this can create a problem but usually it doesn't.) The hard drive copy is not needed to run the program since its already in RAM, so it can be removed.", "It is not possible for a Windows executable to delete itself. This is due to the way that executable files are loaded by Windows. Instead of reading the entire file into RAM (as some commenters have suggested), Windows *maps* the file into memory - it is more accurate to say it maps portions of the file to different places in memory. The file is then *paged* into memory as needed. (This process is handled by the operating system and is transparent to application developers and users).\n\nMost Windows applications' installation and uninstallation is handled by [Windows Installer](_URL_0_), a component of the operating system. To uninstall a product, an executable simply has to request that Windows Installer remove the product from the system and then terminate. The Windows Installer service handles all the of the file and registry operations. " ] }
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[ [], [], [ "http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc185688%28v=vs.85%29.aspx" ] ]
5rl9r5
how do items like peelers, graters, scissors etc. stay sharp but knives constantly need to be sharpened?
explainlikeimfive
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/5rl9r5/eli5_how_do_items_like_peelers_graters_scissors/
{ "a_id": [ "dd8og7w" ], "score": [ 3 ], "text": [ "It's not that they stay sharp, but for their purpose they don't need to be as sharp. They are also subject to lesser forces and materials than a knife, which might be used to cut a carrot one minute and a tomato the next. The knife's edge will also get rolled over and dulled by the cutting board/surface and how it is used. The degree to which this happens is determined by the metal used in the knife which can have different properties based on it's purpose (It's sharpness, hardness, and rust resistant properties are variable whereas the other devices are just regular old stainless steel so it won't rust). Lastly, scissors can be sharpened but most don't bother. " ] }
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1nw9mg
How did someone such as Ibn Battuta (practically and logistically) travel, and keep travelling?
Hi Askhistorians, long-time reader, occasional contributor, and first-time asker! I often raise Ibn Battuta as an example of "unknown" explorers that should be more known when I talk about the Age of discovery and/or Marco Polo/Christopher Columbus/and all that with my students. Today it struck me I have no idea about some more practical details. Some of the facts of his life suggests to me that he came from a decently wealthy background (legal scholars, and he got to study), so it is not surprising that he would manage to undertake a pilgrimage. The travels to Mecca took 16 months (mainly due to detours) and I guess it is at least feasible that a sum of money that will last that long can be taken in normal travel luggage. However, when he arrived in Mecca and was "done", instead of travelling home, he decided to keep traveling, and did so an enourmously long time. Whatever leftover cash was intended for the journey home can't have lasted long, the amount of enlistment possibilities (working as a caravan guard or aboard a ship) mostly covers travels expenses, so ... what gives? Finding a place to sleep without paying is one thing, but how did he afford food, and presumably, travel costs, and as the travels dragged on, new clothes and such? He even married! EDIT: I should clarify that I am mostly interested in the 1328-1330 time frame, as his later travels mostly were done while being employed.
AskHistorians
http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/1nw9mg/how_did_someone_such_as_ibn_battuta_practically/
{ "a_id": [ "ccmq4t9", "ccmuejx", "ccncqpp" ], "score": [ 98, 5, 3 ], "text": [ "While I cannot speak for Ibn Battuta's case (I think he is a really interesting figure though), you need to break away from the 20-21st century capitalist mentality that every service is paid for using cash currency. My guess (and I will defer to scholars of the Islamic world) is that given his high status he would have likely benefited from the hospitality of other high status individuals. He very well might not have needed to pay for lodging or food he might have been welcomed into someone's home. He could have become a dependent of that household (which is different than a servant). \n\nedit: punctuation", "Battuta largely depended on the charity of other Muslims who were obliged to help a fellow muslim on his journey. This is a major reason Battuta largely stuck to densely Muslim areas.", "Other posts have touched on Ibn Battutah's religious learning and his reliance on the Islamic communities, large or small, wherever he went. In the case of China, if I remember correctly, he stuck to trading/port towns like Guangzhou that had a sizable Muslim community.\n\nI want to offer an example of how his learning and status as a learned man got him places. He traveled into Asia Minor in the 14th century which was, at that time, a patchwork of principalities, beydoms, and tribal states. Many of those were ruled by recently converted Turks, referred to as the Turcoman. Many of the settled towns did not yet have a proper mosque and the worshipers gathered outside for friday prayers. As Ibn Battutah goes around, bouncing from Khan to Sultan to Bey, he gets gifts of horses (especially when his ride gets jacked which seems to happened regularly) and hospitality gifts including money, silk robes, and slaves. He could always exchange these valuable commodities down the line for whatever travel expense he encountered. Generally, it was considered a cool thing to have this well-traveled Islamic scholar around, a guy who had been to the Holy Cities and seen more of the world, especially to the recently-converted. He usually lodged in hospices for religious pilgrims or funded by eminent men of the city. The important people he would meet were particularly impressed by his fluent Arabic. He recounts amusing anecdotes of meeting local holy men who claimed to be able to speak Arabic, but could only utter a few phrases.\n\nOn a side note, he indeed was married and he married a lot. How THAT happened is still a mind boggling to me. On another side note, if you want to give your students an interesting travelogue to read that's a bit later than the Age of Discovery, but still pretty damn awesome, I'd recommend recommending the highly recommended Seyahatname of Evliya Celibi. Overlaps a lot of the same geographical space that Ibn Battutah journeyed over centuries previous. " ] }
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t06tp
If time is infinite...
If time is infinite, would it be fair to say that every configuration of the universe happens at least once, similar to how if the set of natural numbers is infinite, every number is in this set?
askscience
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/t06tp/if_time_is_infinite/
{ "a_id": [ "c4ifcfo" ], "score": [ 7 ], "text": [ " > If time is infinite, would it be fair to say that every configuration of the universe happens at least once,\n\nThat conclusion does not necessarily follow from that premise.\n\n > similar to how if the set of natural numbers is infinite, every number is in this set?\n\nOf course the set of natural numbers contains every number in that set, but that has nothing to do with the set being infinite. I don't even know what it would mean to say that some set *didn't* contain every element of itself. \n\nOn the other hand, it is clearly possible to construct infinite sets of numbers that don't contain every number. Or even every number of some particular type. For example, the set of all even numbers is just as infinite as the set of all integers, but doesn't contain the number 3.\n\nMoreover, and this is important, the fact that an event has nonzero probability per unit time does *not* guarantee that it will happen even if you have an infinite amount of time. While the probability will approach 1 as the time approaches infinity, a probability of 1 does not actually guarantee success." ] }
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5allal
Why doesn't gravity work on small scales?
Basically why aren't marbles around my house orbiting my body? Why aren't I "sucked" towards a large building when I walk by? I hope my question makes sense
askscience
https://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/5allal/why_doesnt_gravity_work_on_small_scales/
{ "a_id": [ "d9hfx8q", "d9hglyi", "d9hh35r", "d9htq8p" ], "score": [ 40, 3, 12, 5 ], "text": [ "Gravity is a very, very, very, very weak force.\n\nTo get appreciable gravitational effects, therefore, you need to have very large objects, like a planet.\n\nThere is a gravitational force between you and that building you walk by, but it is absolutely tiny.\n", "All of these attractions do take place, but, as /u/fishify pointed out, the forces are very weak.\n\nIf you were floating with these objects in space, then you could even observe the accumulation of these forces. However, the gravity of the Earth dominates the forces on these objects, so you can only easily observe it.", "The earth has a mass of 6,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000 kilograms. All of that mass acting gravitationally on a bunch of pieces of paper loses the battle against a comb that you rubbed against your shirt to just dislodge the absurdly tiniest of a fraction of the neutrality of negative and positive charges within it. Gravity is stupid weak. You and another human being ARE gravitationally attracted. But you both have a mass of about 50kg, which means your attaction at a distance of 1 meter is less than a millionth of a Newton. A Newton being about the weight you feel when you put two candy bars on your chest.", "It does work on small scales, it works at every scale, it's just incredibly weak on small scales. In fact, the force of gravity was measured precisely first on small scale, using incredibly sensitive instruments (which then allowed the calculation of the mass of the Earth and planets, etc.) Because gravity is so weak at small scales other forces often dominate. Forces like electrostatic repulsion or attraction, friction, aerodynamic drag, magnetism, van der waals force, etc.\n\nTake an ordinary magnet, for example, and stick it to your steel fridge. That force is strong enough to counteract the pull of the entire mass of the Earth on the magnet's mass. But take the magnet and pull it off the fridge, then move it a few feet away and drop it. It's still experiencing a force of attraction to the fridge, but it's much lower now due to distance, and now it's not enough to overcome the force of the Earth's gravity.\n\nCompare other forces. The Sears tower weighs about 200 thousand tonnes. If your body weighs 100kg and you're maybe about 200 meters away from its center of mass, that means the force of attraction between you and the building while you walk on the sidewalk is: 33 microNewtons. This is much smaller than the force of static cling that might keep a tiny piece of packing foam stuck to your clothes, which is why the gravitational force of a skyscraper is inconsequential to your daily life. It's just a tiny force lost in the noise forest of many other tiny forces. For example, the gravitational attraction of a nearby skyscraper is orders of magnitude smaller than the aerodynamic drag on your body when the wind is \"blowing\" at a speed of only 1 mm/s." ] }
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3c2kre
Why is carbonated water effervescent while other gas-liquid solutions (e.g. vinegar, hydrochloric acid, etc.) are not?
askscience
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/3c2kre/why_is_carbonated_water_effervescent_while_other/
{ "a_id": [ "csrvmwn" ], "score": [ 2 ], "text": [ "Two things: \n1. While carbondioxide can disolve in water it can also react following CO2 + H2O -- > H(+) + HCO3(-). This means the gas can be stored as ions and react back into gas when the relation between the amounts of CO2 and HCO3(-) changed. \n2. Carbonated drinks are made under pressure. At say 10 bar a lot more CO2 can dissolve in one liter water than at 1 bar. \nSo when you open a bottle the gas will come out of the liquid because of the lower pressure and reasons 2, and it will keep going for a while because of reason one.\n\nIn other gas-liquid solutions only a soluble amount of gas is dissolved making it a stable solution with no needs to bubble." ] }
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czkrwa
why shouldn’t you eat anything before going into a swimming pool?
explainlikeimfive
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/czkrwa/eli5_why_shouldnt_you_eat_anything_before_going/
{ "a_id": [ "eyyw8ri", "eyz0ymy" ], "score": [ 10, 2 ], "text": [ "People used to think that it would cause cramps, which could result in you drowning in the pool. This is an old wives tale - it doesn't cause cramps no matter how soon you swim after eating.\n\nHowever, it does have the benefit of keeping food out of and away from pools, thus keeping the pools cleaner, so no one is really interested in dispelling the inaccuracy.", "As a kid who used to drink the pool water by accident I think something could be said for not drinking chlorine on a full stomach. With that being said...\n\nThe rule is most likely an answer to a few problems parents have while at the pool. It's extremely taxing to watch your kids at the pool. Kids also go hard at the pool and overexhaust themselves. Sunscreen needs to be reapplied and the kid should probably hydate. A 'mandatory' no swim time that a parent can blame on a rule they didn't come up with...perfect." ] }
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9gjy1m
why does a computer need to "warm up"?
Warm up not in the sense of a car's engine but rather in the software/OS sense. You start up your computer and in the first few minutes of logging in everything is choppy/laggy, emails take an extra few seconds to load etc.
explainlikeimfive
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/9gjy1m/eli5_why_does_a_computer_need_to_warm_up/
{ "a_id": [ "e64nceh", "e64q71y" ], "score": [ 19, 3 ], "text": [ "Because (especially in the case of Windows), the operating system loads and runs just enough components to allow you to log in, and show the desktop, while literally hundreds of drivers and services continue to be loaded and run \"in the background\" .\n\nOlder versions of Windows would not allow use until everything was loaded and running, which meant that, for several minutes, the system was completely unusable. The newer method is a compromise.\n\nYou may find that installing an SSD disk drive greatly speeds up the time to usability.", "Hard drives are slow. RAM is fast.\n\nAfter the computer is on the OS will keep on caching data from HDD to RAM. So waiting a while can sometimes result in faster starting programs.\n\nThe OS loading data from HDD to RAM doesn't slow down your system so do not disable this feature even if some people say you should. The caching is done with lower priority so if you do something on the active action is given priority over the cache stuff.\n\nAlso after you close a program some of the data is kept on RAM. So starting the program again is much faster than on first start." ] }
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2f0gtq
How do anti-diarrheals work? Is a bowel movement is coming from the colon/rectum how does something like Imodium of pepto bismal work so quickly when digestion of food takes hours?
I'm familiar with the gastrocolic reflex but I'm curious how it turns diarrheal into solid fecal matter. Edit: alright, made the front page asking about poop. Thanks Reddit.
askscience
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/2f0gtq/how_do_antidiarrheals_work_is_a_bowel_movement_is/
{ "a_id": [ "ck4q3w9", "ck4wlrp", "ck520zv", "ck52f1a", "ck52qq6", "ck552mn" ], "score": [ 166, 31, 59, 251, 31, 4 ], "text": [ "There are four different ways:\nAnti-motility: they relax muscles in the digestive system to make sure more water is absorbed from the stool and it's less liquid. \n\nAbsorbents: these bind up excess water and toxins in the stomach and make the stools firmer. \n\nBismuth based: which nobody knows how they would work, if they did - they've never been clinically proven to work. Most brands actually contain aspirin too which may reduce inflammation. \n\nAntibiotics: these treat the illness, not the symptom, and it's pretty clear how that works. ", "Pepto Bismol contains a Bismuth compound. Now, Bismuth is a really cool element. It's a heavy metal (Right next to Lead and Thalium, known to be quite toxic heavy metals) but, Bismuth isn't toxic to humans (well, unless you eat a big chunk of it). However, it is highly toxic to bacterium. When you eat/drink Pepto, the Bismuth compound in it kills the bacteria and, due to Bismuth's amazing crystalline capabilities, it clumps with the stuff in you GI Tract and helps carry it out. \n\nI will provide a source when I have access to a computer. ", "Disappointed by lack of input here, I'll weigh in - I'm a new ER doctor so it is by no means my field of expertise but I see a lot of people who come in with \"diarrhea\"\n\nIn my mind, there really isn't anything like an \"anti-diarrhea\" agent like there is an anti-pyretic agent such as paracetamol/acetaminophen (Tylenol) or NSAIDs (aspirin, motrin). Whereas NSAIDs directly inhibit COX, thereby inhibiting PGE2 synthesis which is generally responsible for increasing your hypothalamus's thermostat thereby producing fever, I don't know of any \"anti-diarrhea\" medication that inhibits the process of diarrhea; there are however many medications which treat /alleviate symptoms or treat the underlying cause of diarrhea, such as infection or inflammation. \n \nFirst you must understand why diarrhea occurs. In general, the water content of your feces would depend on your water intake/free water balance, the relationship between the osmolarity of what your body is excreting in the feces and your blood osmolarity, the function of certain transport proteins in the gut membrane (like SGLT1 and SGLT2, the sodium/glucose cotransporters which you also have in your kidney), and the general state of your bowel epithelial/mucosal cells whatever you want to call them. \n\nSince normal bowel movements depend on so many factors, there are many different types of diarrhea. You can have a secretory, osmotic, inflammatory or infectious diarrhea.\n\nSecretory diarrhea is pretty scary and dangerous. This is the type of diarrhea seen in Cholera and the reason why cholera is so deadly if not treated properly. Cholera toxin has a crazy subunit that once absorbed into an intestinal epithelial cell, binds to one of the G-protein coupled transporters on the surface and puts it into a constant state of secretion of water, sodium, potassium and bicarb (which are essentially all your most important electrolytes). So cholera causes a secretory diarrhea that very quickly dehydrates the patient and kills them unless they are rehydrated and replenished with electrolytes. So ORT (oral replacement therapy) isn't an anti-diarrhea medication - it doesn't treat cholera; it just keeps you from dying while the cholera runs its course. \n\nOsmotic diarrhea is basically how a lot of laxatives work and also an example of the type of diarrhea you get when you're lactose intolerant. Since you lack the enzymes and transporters to absorb lactose, it just hangs out in your gut, but since the osmolarity of the intestinal luminal contents is lower than the other side (i.e. your blood), water gets sucked out to make up for the difference - thereby causing watery stools, i.e., diarrhea. I don't know of any true \"anti-diarrheal\" agent to fix this - people just learn not to eat certain things, or maybe in the future we will use gene therapy to re-teach our bodies to make those proteins.\n\nThen there is inflammatory which is what we see in Crohn disease or ulcerative colitis, as well as C Diff colitis; this is another really sucky type of diarrhea. You have constant auto-immune (at least in theory) damage to your gut epithelium and lining which just causes you to leech out proteins, waters and other nutrients that your gut was trying to absorb. With a decreased ability to absorb the food you're eating, your poop turns watery and nasty. \n\nInfectious is basically the same process as inflammatory but I was distinguishing inflammatory on the basis of auto-immune, chronic processes like Crohn or UC; Infectious is basically a spectrum of badness like Dysentery where you are actively spewing out blood because your bowel wall is so inflammed and damaged secondary to things like Shigella toxin, to more benign things like your viral diarrhea which we all get a few times over a year.\n\nAnyway - so what do you give people with diarrhea? That depends on what the problem is: \n\nPeople with gastric dumping or short bowel syndrome (because they needed to have it resected secondary to Crohn or UC) would benefit from immobilizers like opioids (which cause constipation in normal people) or octreotide/somatostatin (an amazing drug which does all sorts of shit we don't truly understand, but from a medical standpoint it inhibits all sorts of bowel/GI-related activity)\n\nPeople with cholera or secretory diarrhea need to be aggressively rehydrated and given electrolyte replacement that is isotonic to their blood chemistry or they will suffer badness (hyponatremia or hypernatremia, hypokalemia or hyperkalemia, etc)\n\nPeople with secretory diarrhea like lactose intolerance essentially have to learn to control their diets. \n\nPeople with infectious/inflammatory things generally need medicine to treat the underlying cause \"antibiotics in the case of shigella, salmonella or dystenery) or in the case of Crohn disease they require serious medications that treat auto-immune inflammation like steroids, methotrexate or \"biologics\", a terms that doctors generally use in reference to stuff like TNF-alpha inhibitors. Many times the treatment for these people is surgery and just having their bowel taken out. \n\n\nOh yeah - none of this is medical advice, etc - this is purely to explain how diarrhea works and how it is generally treated and how I think about diarrhea when I see it in a hospital. Also - lots of clinical pictures of diarrhea feature multiple \"types\" of processes, i.e. both inflammatory and secretory etc\n", "Gastroenterologist here: Short answer - there are multiple mechanisms:\n\n\n1) **Mu Receptor agonists** These bad boys are drugs like immodium (loperamide) and lomotil (diphynoxylate and atropine). They work by binding to Mu receptors on the smooth muslcles of the colon. By binding to these receptors the muscles of the colon wall (which normally contract like a worm) are slowed down. This is also the mechanism by which morphine, dilaudid, percocet, heroin, etc cause severe constipation - and people who undergo withdrawl from these drugs often have severe diarrhea.\n\n\n2) **Fiber Supplements** Most commonly Psyllium (Metamucil), Methylcellulose (synthetic fiber) and Guar Gum. These supplements are not absorbed by the colon (the cellulose is nonabsorbable). Like a sponge they absorb the water/liquid in the colon/SB. They also bulk the stool and can be used in constipation (dual use). The colonic bacteria are able to breakdown some of the fiber (via fermentation) and as a result produce hydrogen and methane which can cause gas/bloating.\n\n\n3)**Bile Acid Binding Resins** You may know these drugs as cholysteramine. They actually work when there is diarrhea due to Bile Acid Malabsorption (BAM). Bile acid is usually absorbed in the ileum (terminal small bowel). Patients that have had a surgical resection of the small bowel, a choleycstectomy, or disease of the small bowel (like Crohns) can result in failure of bile from being absorbed in the small bowel. Excess bile then enters the colon - which is actually an irritant to the colon wall - and cause diarrhea from the irritation (inflammatory diarrhea)\n\n\n4) **Somatostain analogues** Now we are getting into some specialized drugs - Octreotide (most common somatostatin analogue in Canada). Works be inhibiting secretion of fluids from the cells of the small bowel (these cells are responsible mainly for absorption of liquid, but they can also secrete liquid - like in cholera). The mechanism of Somatostatin analogues are complex and involve activating signalling proteins that downregulate the production of channels (like chloride and sodium channels) that are ultimately responsible for secreting water INTO the colon/small bowel.\n\n\n5) **Targeted treatment** most gastroenterologist will actually work to figure out the cause of the diarrhea and will prescribe medications that will treat the disease. These drugs are often very different from the drugs I describe above. Example Diseases **Inflammatory Bowel Disease** (5-amisosalycilic acid, azathiprine, 6-mp, infliximab), **Cholera** (oral rehydration solution), **Microscopic Colitis** (discontinue offending drug, 5-asa), **Infectious Colitis** (Antibiotics), **Irritible Bowel Syndrome** (antidpressants), etc**.\n\nHope that helps", "Pharmacist Here -- Most answers on here have been great, but too long and not really to the point. \n\nImodium (Loperamide) works by acting on Mu-opioid receptors in the large intestine. This in turn activates the opioid receptors, reduces the parasympathetic tone, and less movement occurs in the colon/GI tract. \n\nThis lack of movement allows the fecal matter to remain in the colon for longer time periods, resulting in more water loss from the stool. \n\nThe drug is absorbed and spread systemically very quickly through the gut wall, and it will start working on the fecal matter currently in the colon even if eaten hours ago. \n", "If your question has already been answered then feel free to ignore this. \n\nAnti-diarrheal medication are generally anti-motility drugs, effecting the gastrointestinal nervous or hormonal systems. Octreotide, for example acts similar to an endogenous hormone called somatostatin which inhibits multiplue hormones like GH, glucagon, insulin, LH and VIP. Narcotics bind to opioid receptors in the gut and reduce smooth muscle contraction. Loperamide (Imodium) also binds to opioid receptors in the gut. You can also use anticholinergic drugs to reduce parasympathetic nervous tone. The parasympathetic nervous system affects the whole body, so side effects of those drugs can be more widespread. \n\nAs for digestion, it is the process of breaking down food into small components so that is can be absorbed into the body. This is basically complete by the 3rd or 4th part of the duodenum. The rest of the bowel is for absorption of nutrients and water. Things that effect transit time through the gut will effect how much time the bowel has to pull nutrients (which act as osmolar agents) and water. The faster the transit, the more wasteful and watery the fecal matter is. The slower, the harder and more difficult to pass the stool becomes. The enteric nervous system and the bowel have to play a balancing act between these 2 extremes. This process of absorption is what may take a long time. " ] }
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1lbsg8
how do we know how much charge is left in a battery?
explainlikeimfive
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/1lbsg8/eli5_how_do_we_know_how_much_charge_is_left_in_a/
{ "a_id": [ "cbxn4xp" ], "score": [ 6 ], "text": [ "_URL_0_\n\nThis question has been asked before." ] }
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[ [ "http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/jora6/how_does_a_battery_know_how_much_charge_it_has/" ] ]
25q17b
why's it so important to recycle batteries?
Throw a few AA's in the trash and you get treated like you've just tossed acid on a baby's face. ELI5 the environmental harm of throwing batteries in the trash.
explainlikeimfive
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/25q17b/eli5whys_it_so_important_to_recycle_batteries/
{ "a_id": [ "chjmrww" ], "score": [ 3 ], "text": [ "We don't want the metals found in batteries in our drinking water. If they go into the trash, the go to the landfill. Water leaching from landfill ends up in someone's glass eventually.\n" ] }
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1i2ip0
What are the origins of Goebbels' Nazi identification?
When and why, and other things, perhaps.
AskHistorians
http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/1i2ip0/what_are_the_origins_of_goebbels_nazi/
{ "a_id": [ "cb0org5" ], "score": [ 2 ], "text": [ "This requires a few different answers in order to get to Nazism. For the TL;DF crowd - just check out the links if you're curious and here's your sum-up: Spengler's German Socialism stands *very* apart from Marxism and Stalinism & even Nazism (due to racism in nazism); Eugenics became an obsession for the Third Reich; Versailles left the German people in a vindictive mood *AND* the German Unification was the basis for Klein- vs Gross- Deutschland and a part of the NSDAP identity (National Socialist *German* Workers Party) which led to expansionism coinciding with territorial reacquisition and revenge.\n\n**I**. German Socialism can be dated back to German historian [Oswald Spengler](_URL_3_) who wrote *[Preußentum und Sozialismus](_URL_4_)*, a book dedicated to the betterment of the German people using Prussian values in connection to socialism: self-sacrifice, discipline and concern for the greater good (the values) are the core tenets a national community must embrace to better the nation (socialism). The Marxist-Leninist revolution in Tsarist Russia the year before scared Spengler, because he felt Marxism was wrong: \"Marxism is the capitalism of the working class\" and not true socialism.^1 Again, socialism for Spengler was a self-sacrificing act, not a selfish act; Therefore, he argued that all Marxism did was reverse the capitalist scales, serving no purpose other than to rob the businessmen in the same way businessmen robbed the working class, which would only train the proletariat to exploit the wealthy, resulting in stagnation and laziness. His approach towards nationalist socialism also stood as a conservative basis for the value of the individual, something the Bolshevik uprising greatly differed in (there's more, but the answer would get too disparate. I'd check out the wiki pages on Fascism and Communism to springboard your question)\n\nHis belief in the betterment of mankind and therefore the nation was a proactive approach that many intellectuals and individuals were attached to in the '20s and *early* '30s. I say *early* because while Spengler was a German Socialist, he was critical of national socialism, he was unimpressed with Hitler, and he believed anti-semitism & racial supremacy based on dodgy studies in Eugenics were wrong. As a result, he was effectively gagged and shunned by the German media after Hitler came to power and then died of a heart attack in '36.\n\n**II**. I wrapped up with Eugenics, because that's where a lot of the elements that make Nazism stand apart from Fascism come from. Eugenics stems from [Francis Galton](_URL_2_): He's the 19th century guy who coined the phrase \"Nature vs nurture\" in the modern sense, which is the hereditary nature vs the personal experiences (nurture) and how they impact the individual. Eugenics is the principle that desirable traits are heretical (read: natural), which is largely inspired by contemporary Darwinism. What's important to take away from Eugenics is the concept that racially, some races are inferior to others; This principle was co-opted by nationalists to argue that their race of people was superior to those not of their nation-state. When developing the fascist ideology of the NSDAP, eugenics was very popular because it was used to explain why Germans were superior to non-Germans like gypsies, Jews, blacks, Russians/Bolsheviks. William Shirer's [Rise and Fall of the Third Reich](_URL_0_) has a very good^2 section on the beginnings of the Nazi movement and the initial laws passed, which coincides with the racist agenda of Nazism.\n\n**III**. When discussing Nazi Germany, it's also important to note that Nazism used anti-semitism to scapegoat the Jews in order to press their agenda; Eugenics was a part of this, Jewish businessmen and bankers that survived the economic downturn following Versailles was another; Communist Jews from Russia was also a big issue - Hitler *hated* communists as much as he hated Jews... imagine both in one, which was a thing in Russia because the Bolsheviks gave the Jews rights that the Tsar did not (Pogroms were kind of an issue). One of the primary tenets of the Nazi party greatly sought the redemption of Germany following the very humiliating Treaty of Versailles; Article 231 stated that Germany was responsible for the war (\"war guilt clause\") and as a result, Article 232 forced the Germans to pay war reparations to the Entente.\n\n*Revanche* was one of the leading battle cries of the Germans going into the '30s as the Weimar Republic floundered. Since Alsace-Lorraine, the Polish Corridor (Danzig) and other parts of the *Kaiserreich* were taken apart at Versailles, the NSDAP under Hitler sought its reclaim. The Annexation of Austria is important for the Nazi identity because it follows the eugenics and nationalist paths towards their blood brothers; But here's the largest context: During the Unification Period, there was a question regarding which power in greater Germania - Prussia or Austria (This was \"The German Question)? A great, but long, read on the entire context and timeline of Unification is James Sheehan's [German History: 1780–1866](_URL_1_). The core concept of the time is this: Prussia was Protestant, Austria was Catholic. Otto von Bismarck argued for *Kleindeutschland,* a smaller Germany under Prussian guidance as a predominantly Protestant state; This was partially because Austria, as a Catholic nation, was under the influence of the Papacy in Rome. In 1866, Prussia and Austria went to war and Prussia won; Ergo, *Kleindeutschland.* The reason the papacy was an issue dates back to Martin Luther. Technically this is relevant, but I'm passing over this because I'd have to write a book to cover it all.\n\nSo, Nazi Germany looked back at Bismarck and said \"you know what, we're going to include our brothers this time, because they are ethnically German. The emphasis in Hitler's time wasn't on religion, but race. So, between seeking to reclaim lost lands, Hitler sought to creation of a greater German empire that would last a thousand years.\n\nIn conclusion, the Nazi identity is more than just anti-semitism. It largely draws from nationalism as well as recent German histories from the Unification to the failures of the Weimar Republic in the advent of Bolshevism.\n\n1. [Here's](_URL_4_) Spengler's book in English for those who missed the above link.\n\n2. I say \"good\" because while it's relevant for context and history, the book's section on early nazism is limited to the first portions of the book. The rest covers wartime Germany itself. Any additions that would add to a more timely context would be great! I can't find my books on the subject." ] }
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[ [ "http://www.amazon.com/gp/search?index=books&amp;linkCode=qs&amp;keywords=0671728687", "http://www.amazon.com/German-History-1770-1866-Oxford-Modern/dp/0198204329", "https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Francis_Galton", "https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Oswald_Spengler", "http://ia700302.us.archive.org/6/items/PrussianismAndSocialism/PrussianismAndSocialism.pdf" ] ]
6m3blf
Woodrow Wilson had a PHD. Was he addressed as Dr. President?
AskHistorians
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/6m3blf/woodrow_wilson_had_a_phd_was_he_addressed_as_dr/
{ "a_id": [ "djz6d9w" ], "score": [ 760 ], "text": [ "No—\"Mr. President\" is not just the name of the job preceded by the traditional male English honorific. It's the actual title of the sitting president, the way something like \"your majesty\" might be used for a monarch. *Edit:* /u/The_Alaskan's [comment reply](_URL_4_) notes that \"Madam President\" would be used by a female president, and that a formal decision to that effect was made in advance of the 2016 U.S. general election.\n\nSo did this hold true for Dr. Wilson? Yes! From my own study of America during that time period, I recalled seeing Wilson addressed as Mr. President in print, but I wanted to confirm that by finding a verifiable example with a source. The best I've got for now is a reference to a sign carried in the NAACP's 1917 \"Silent Protest Parade\" that read \"Mr. President, why not make America safe for democracy?\" [Source: Alan Dawley, *Changing the World: American Progressives in War and Revolution.*](_URL_5_) *Edit again:* /u/Lo-Jupiter pointed to additional, earlier examples of Wilson being addressed as Mr. President in [this comment reply!](_URL_2_)\n\nBut why is Mr. President the title, and not something else? Initially, after the formation of the young U.S. government, there was a bit of a debate over how to address the president. Some in the early U.S., including the first president and vice president, favored a more exalted title. VP John Adams suggested \"his highness,\" and George Washington preferred \"his mightiness.\" Adams believed the executive ~~was~~ appeared too weak in comparison to the other branches of the new government, and sought to ~~consolidate presidentail power~~ boost the appearance of the president's power by way of a grandiose form of address.\n\nHowever, there was vehement opposition to this style of address among many other leaders, who felt it was a bit too reminiscent of the monarchy they had all just worked so hard to escape (Thomas Jefferson said an exalted presidential title was \"the most superlatively ridiculous thing I ever heard of,\" and Benjamin Franklin called Adams' stance \"absolutely mad\"), and ultimately Washington and Adams yielded and accepted the title \"Mr. President.\" *Edit a third time:* /u/yodatsracist points to a source in [this comment reply](_URL_3_) suggesting that Washington himself never actually went by Mr. President. My sources (listed below) suggest that the title was adopted through common usage because the House of Representatives opposed anything more elevated than that, but don't say whether or not Washington himself ever used it.\n\n*****\n\nI'm not an expert on the American Revolution or its aftermath, and I'd be happy if a real expert could flesh out or correct any aspects of that hurried section of this explanation! Here are the sources I used for my quick study on it:\n\n- [James H. Hutson, *John Adams' Title Campaign*](_URL_0_)\n\n- [Albert Hart, *Formation of the Union, 1750-1829*](_URL_1_)\n\nEdits for clarity, and to add additional info!" ] }
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[ [ "http://www.jstor.org/stable/363331?origin=crossref&amp;seq=1#page_scan_tab_contents", "https://books.google.com/books?id=n41HAAAAIAAJ&amp;pg=PA143&amp;dq=%22title+of+Mr+President%22&amp;hl=en#v=onepage&amp;q=%22title%20of%20Mr%20President%22&amp;f=false", "https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/6m3blf/woodrow_wilson_had_a_phd_was_he_addressed_as_dr/djzk7x6/", "https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/6m3blf/woodrow_wilson_had_a_phd_was_he_addressed_as_dr/djz8wr5/", "https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/6m3blf/woodrow_wilson_had_a_phd_was_he_addressed_as_dr/djz7wkp/", "https://books.google.com/books?id=rYMASq481ZYC&amp;q=Mr.+President+why+not+make+america+safe+for+democracy#v=snippet&amp;q=Mr.%20President%20why%20not%20make%20america%20safe%20for%20democracy&amp;f=false" ] ]
cezyvy
what does it mean if a currency is ‘strong’ or ‘weak’
for example, if one currency (for example, the euro) is strong, and another currency (for example, the dollar) is weak, does that mean you get more euros for every dollar? what happens if two strong currencies come up against eachother? or two weak ones?
explainlikeimfive
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/cezyvy/eli5_what_does_it_mean_if_a_currency_is_strong_or/
{ "a_id": [ "eu662de", "eu6vtcl" ], "score": [ 2, 3 ], "text": [ "They are comparative words so currency A is strong against currency B. Yes you are correct the strong currency will exchange for more than 1 of the weak currency.\n\n Example use: the dollar is strong against the peso but weak against the euro", "A strong currency is a currency that has an increased value compared to other currencies. But this has little to do with the numerical value of the currencies, despite what other commenters above said.\n\n1 dollar is usually worth 100-120 yen. If the dollar becomes worth 80 yen, then it means the yen has become stronger relative to the dollar, and the dollar weaker relative to the yen. \n\nIt's completely meaningless to say that if 1 dollar = 1000 of X currency then X currency is weak, and if 1 dollar = 0.1 Y currency then Y currency is strong, because prices in the countries of those currencies will be adjusted accordingly.\n\nAnother example is the Brazilian Real, which is currently US$ 1 = R$ 3.70. The country is in recession so the dollar is strong compared to the real. But in 2008 US$ 1 = R$1.60. At that time, the US was in recession and the brazilian economy was still strong. The dollar was weak compared to the Real, even though one dollar was worth more than 1 real.\n\nEdit: another example is that governments with hyperinflation usually need to remove zeroes from their currency every few years. Imagine if the zimbabwe government changed its 100 trillion dollar (40 USD cents) and removed 14 zeroes. Now 1 zimbabwe dollar is worth 40 US cents. But why stop at 14 zeroes? They could remove 15 zeroes, so now 1 zimbabwe dollar is worth 4 US dollars. This would not make the zimbabwe dollar a stronger currency than the US dollar. It's just a numerical trick. To decide if a currency is strong or weak you can't just look at the numbers they are being traded for, but also their value history, and evaluate their purchasing power." ] }
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9fgtzr
How do thermophiles survive temperatures that would quickly cook animal tissue?
askscience
https://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/9fgtzr/how_do_thermophiles_survive_temperatures_that/
{ "a_id": [ "e5wr6lt" ], "score": [ 5 ], "text": [ "I found a website that has several different adaptations thermophiles have:\n\n_URL_0_\n\nBasically it boils down to having extra-tough proteins that can withstand the higher temperatures without denaturing. The flipside is though, that some of these tougher proteins are only viable at higher temperatures.\n\nIf the temperature drops too far the protein essentially freezes and the organism is ... going to have a bad day." ] }
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[ [ "https://bitesizebio.com/2169/the-secrets-of-thermophile-survival-part-i/" ] ]
yzqff
If the speed of light is constant, how does it "bounce" off of a mirror. Does'nt that imply that the light slowed to a velocity of zero and reversed its momentum?
Or is it absorbed somehow by the mirror and emitted back? If it is absorbed, does that not mean the light stops?
askscience
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/yzqff/if_the_speed_of_light_is_constant_how_does_it/
{ "a_id": [ "c608im7" ], "score": [ 8 ], "text": [ "Well...I'd like to clear up a subtle point in your post's title. You say \"if the speed of light is constant\" - remember that c is the speed of light *in vacuum*. The speed of light in a material is less than c, and has to do with the material properties that the light is traveling through (it's NOT due to photon absorption and re-emission, like many say).\n\nMirrors are complicated little things believe it or not. Your average metal mirror behaves the way it does because the the electric field of the incoming light moves the (unbound) electrons in the metal back and forth. The energy from the incoming light is absorbed and makes the electrons wiggle. These wiggling electrons then produce a secondary light wave, which we see as a reflection. This behavior is organized in such a way that we see clear reflections with very little scatter.\n\n[Source](_URL_0_)" ] }
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[ [ "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Reflection_%28physics%29#Mechanism" ] ]
5zykco
slightly new to reddit, why do people post their edits at the bottom of their posts
explainlikeimfive
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/5zykco/eli5_slightly_new_to_reddit_why_do_people_post/
{ "a_id": [ "df21rei" ], "score": [ 4 ], "text": [ "If you edit a post after a number of minutes it puts an asterisk in the header of the post.\n\nAdditionally, people generally do it as a form of courtesy, either to not force someone to re-read the entire post and figure out what the altered content is, or to maintain the flow of conversation. That is to say, if you post, and someone replies to your post, and you alter the original post, you can make the reply appear nonsensical. Posting that you have edited the post will clue other people in on why this mismatch may exist, and thus is courteous to both them (by aiding their reading comprehension) and the respondents (by making them look less crazy). " ] }
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7pfz7t
what is it about orange juice that dulls the taste of alcohol so well?
More than any other mixer, orange juice tends to cover the taste of alcohol. I'm guessing this is why there are so many mixers based on it. But what exactly is it about orange juice that dulls the taste of alcohol so well?
explainlikeimfive
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/7pfz7t/eli5_what_is_it_about_orange_juice_that_dulls_the/
{ "a_id": [ "dsh39s4" ], "score": [ 4 ], "text": [ "Ethanol causes a burning sensation because it activates the same [receptors](_URL_0_) as capsaicin. Acids also activate this class of receptors and so drinks like OJ and coke which are acidic will also activate them. " ] }
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[ [ "https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/m/pubmed/11992116/" ] ]
40axbg
the difference between discrimination & prejudice?
explainlikeimfive
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/40axbg/eli5_the_difference_between_discrimination/
{ "a_id": [ "cysshxi", "cyssi5v", "cyssjcx", "cyt4ed6" ], "score": [ 3, 8, 2, 2 ], "text": [ "If you have an opinion on an entire social group and base your judgement of each person belonging to that group on that opinion, that's prejudice.\n\nIf you treat a person based on the consideration you have of his/her social group (aka your prejudice) rather than on individual merits, that's discrimination.", "Prejudice is a feeling or an opinion, while discrimination is an actual act. Prejudice of course often leads to discrimination.\n\nFor example, if I believe people of a certain ethnicity are likelier to be shop lifters then I am prejudiced against them, but that doesn't mean I discriminate against them. It's discrimination when I act upon it, for example if I were to check every person of that ethnicity before they leave my store to make sure they haven't stolen anything.", "Discrimination is an action wherein an individual is treated unfairly - unfair treatment against another individual. This can be based on age, skin colour, education, gender, speech and many other things. Men can discriminate against women, and vice versa. The young against the old, and vice versa. You get the idea. This discrimination can *stem* from a prejudice however; the two are often linked but do not necessarily have to be. So, you could discriminate against one individual without harbouring a negative attitude against the entire group that are alike to that individual. Again, take elderly people: one could discriminate against one individual because they are old (maybe, say, in a workplace environment), but they may not have a prejudice against all old people, but they are discriminating that particular old person for whatever reason.\n\nPrejudice involves a negative attitude toward an entire group. So, this could mean an old person might have a prejudice against all youths, thus they discriminate against them. Same goes for the other examples. As someone else has said, prejudice could be the feeling toward a group, and discrimination the action. But again, the two do not always have to be linked.\n\nEdit: a word", "Prejudice is not liking someone because they are something. Discrimination is treating them worse because of that. " ] }
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70sgiu
how are vector illustrations not based on pixels if our screen is made up of pixels?
From my understanding, a pixel is the smallest distinguishable unit on a digital monitor. So how can a vector not be pixel based? Isn't everything that's on our screen made up of pixels? So even if we're using a software like Adobe Illustrator, isn't a vector line made up of a bunch of small pixels in actuality?
explainlikeimfive
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/70sgiu/eli5_how_are_vector_illustrations_not_based_on/
{ "a_id": [ "dn5liad", "dn5lr45", "dn5qy0v" ], "score": [ 31, 5, 5 ], "text": [ " > So even if we're using a software like Adobe Illustrator, isn't a vector line made up of a bunch of small pixels in actuality?\n\nThe vector itself is just a bit of math saying \"A line exists between point A and point B\". The resulting line is *displayed* using pixels, but the underlying mathematical representation means that you can display the same vector on a higher-resolution screen, and it would fully take advantage of the higher resolution by being drawn with more pixels. \n\nIf the image itself were stored as pixels, then showing it on a higher resolution monitor would just make the image smaller, and not more detailed.", "Rather than using literal pixel data (pixel by pixel with color data for each dot), vectors mathematically define the zones of a particular color.\n\nSo a line might start at (0,0) and end at (0.35,0.75). The image can be whatever size you want. 10x10 pixels or 100000x100000 pixels. The computer calculates which pixels are part of the line defined by the vector.\n\nVector graphics are independent of pixel count, so they can be made as big or as small as you need them. Vector graphics don't get blurry or pixelated as they get huge.\n\nAdobe represents your vector with pixels, but the actual line is more abstract and more \"pure\" if that concept makes sense.", "Say you take a photograph of your cat and you develop that photograph. When you look at the photograph, it looks realistic. But if you zoom in on the photograph, you'll start seeing pixels. However, if in real life, you simply move closer to your cat and take another photograph, you'll now have a \"zoomed in\" version of the cat but with much more detail than the original photograph.\n\nVector graphics are like the real-life cat. The photograph is a representation of the cat (the pixels drawn on the screen). The vector graphics, as well as the cat, have infinite detail, but the representation (photograph) does not.\n\nIf you were to draw vector graphics on the screen and zoom in, *without redrawing the vector graphics from scratch*, you'll start seeing pixels. The idea behind vector graphics is that you keep redrawing the infinitely detailed vector graphics in pixels on the screen, thereby giving infinite zoom and details. Basically, you're taking a new \"photograph\" every time." ] }
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31onno
Have any of the works of Greek & Roman Antiquity been recovered in contemporaneous form, and turned out to differ from their Renaissance-era translations?
That is, maybe at Herculaneum or Pompeii, more modern archaeology uncovers something like "first editions" of the works of the more famous Greek and Roman philosophers or historians, and it's been found that the transcribed versions that became famous again in the Renaissance were not the same.
AskHistorians
http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/31onno/have_any_of_the_works_of_greek_roman_antiquity/
{ "a_id": [ "cq3jg78" ], "score": [ 9 ], "text": [ "Not \"first editions\" (haha), but ancient copies, certainly. The most common avenue for finding ancient copies is via papyri preserved in Egyptian rubbish dumps, or turned into papyrus-mâché and used in sarcophaguses, though papyri have certainly turned up elsewhere too (e.g. in Herculaneum, as you mention).\n\nThey're nearly always very fragmentary. Often the surviving fragment preserves no more than a few letters. But yes, they're important sources of textual variants. They're not always *better* than the mediaeval manuscript tradition: transmission errors happened in antiquity too. But earlier witnesses always add more information, so even if there are errors, they're always *informative*.\n\nThe number of papyri that have been found varies depending on how popular the text was. For things like the New Testament and Homer, we have thousands of papyrus fragments. For example, we have fragments of at least 136 separate papyri of Euripides, 36 of Sophocles, and 32 of Aeschylus. For early epic, we have 1569 papyri of the *Iliad*, at least 252 of the *Odyssey*, 58 of the *Catalogue of Women*, 40 of the *Theogony*, and 32 of the *Works and Days*.\n\nA very few are relatively intact. There's one 5th/6th cent. CE papyrus that preserves substantial chunks from every book of the *Iliad*, and one 3rd/4th cent. CE papyrus that preserves most of 11 books of the *Odyssey*. A very few texts are known only from papyri: the main ones I know of are Aristotle's *Constitution of the Athenians*, the majority of what survives of the *Catalogue of Women*, and the Derveni papyrus.\n\nAs to how they shed light on surviving texts, [I wrote an old post here](_URL_0_) which gives one example of how a papyrus reading affected our understanding of the correct reading of a text. Papyri are and will always continue to be an important avenue for finding new corrections to ancient texts, which is why there are a few journals specifically devoted to papyrology. In a modern critical edition of a text, papyrus readings will normally be annotated in the apparatus (the list of textual variants at the bottom of the page) with the letter *p*, though the exact typography varies from edition to edition (e.g. sometimes an edition will use a lower-case italic *p*; some older editions use a capital *P* in blackletter script)." ] }
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[ [ "http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/10tvqa/reliability_of_medieval_manuscripts_of_classical/c6gtwlw?context=1" ] ]
192a36
why does wine give such wicked hangovers?
I know it has to do with sugar but I've drank 2 bottles tonight, bracing myself
explainlikeimfive
http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/192a36/why_does_wine_give_such_wicked_hangovers/
{ "a_id": [ "c8k4u24", "c8k5ffx", "c8k6zqs" ], "score": [ 10, 4, 5 ], "text": [ "You've got a mild allergy to the grape in that type of wine.\n\nSwitch types and/or color, and drink more water.\n\nOr switch to beer or hard liquor or heroin.", "In addition to any chemical composition reasonings, you might not have a good sense of the relative alcohol density of wine in comparison to beer or liquor. Each bottle has approximately 7.5 standard drinks (if you are drinking a standard sized bottle of red wine at 13%), thus drinking two bottles is the equivalent of 15 cans of beer or 1 oz. shots.\n\nThat's a lot of alcohol, my friend. You should consider taking milk thistle, an excellent herb for rebuilding liver cells.", "It's different for everyone. You may be sensitive to the sulphides in wine. It's basically a preservative. Some occur naturally and some are added.\n\nThis has a pretty straightforward/ELI5 explanation:\n\n_URL_0_" ] }
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[ [], [], [ "http://www.wineintro.com/glossary/s/sulfites.html" ] ]
77a8q0
Why are triangles, squares, and hexagons the only shapes that can tesselate?
Why can only these regular shapes (with equal angles at each vertex) form a continuous grid? I understand that the angles don't allow other shapes to do this, but I would like to understand it from a more conceptual and visual perspective.
askscience
https://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/77a8q0/why_are_triangles_squares_and_hexagons_the_only/
{ "a_id": [ "doknz7b", "dokufby" ], "score": [ 21, 13 ], "text": [ "Regular polygons are equilateral and equiangular. The only way a regular polygon can tesselate the plane is if some multiple of the interior angle equals 360 degrees. This is the only possible way you can actually fit a multiple of the polygons around each vertex.\n\nThe interior angle of an *N*-gon is (1- 2/N)π radians. Some multiple of this angle must be exactly equal to 2π. So the only regular *N*-gons that can tesselate the plate are those *N*-gons for which there is some integer *M* such that\n\n > M = 2N/(N - 2)\n\nThe function f(N) = 2N/(N - 2) decreases to 2 as N varies from 3 to infinity, and f(3) = 6. So we need only find those values of *N* that correspond to M = 3, 4, 5, 6. The corresponding values of *N* are N = 6, 4, 10/3, 3. Since 10/3 is not an integer, the only possible regular *N*-gons that can tesselate the plane are the 3-gon (triangle), 4-gon (square), and 6-gon (hexagon).\n\n > I understand that the angles don't allow other shapes to do this, but I would like to understand it from a more conceptual and visual perspective.\n\nWell, all of the relevant concepts are in the proof above. As for a visual, I'm not sure you can get any more insight than just looking at an image of tesselations for the regular polygons ([like this](_URL_1_)) and an attempted tesselation with some other regular polygon ([like this failed regular pentagon tesselation](_URL_0_)). Recall that above we found that f(5) = 10/3 = 3.33. So around each vertex you can fit at most 3 regular pentagons, but there will always be some room left over. \n\nIt all comes down to the fact that 360-degrees is not a multiple of the interior angle of any regular polygon other than the triangle, square, and hexagon.\n", "In around the 1930's or so, an absolutely brilliant man called Harold Scott MacDonald Coxeter started thinking about these things, not just in the plane, but in any number of dimensions. \n\nSpecifically, he attacked the problem using \"reflection groups\" - imagine you're in a room, all the walls are mirrors. You'll see, on the floor, an infinite extended rectangular grid stretching out to infinity. Or, if there are 3 mirrors are at 90 degrees, 60 degrees and 30 degrees to each other, you'll see an amazing pattern of little triangles, and you'll make out the tesselation of triangles and of hexagons in there too. \n\nCoxeter wondered what other angles are possible, if you wanted a \"discrete\" group of reflections - ie, one where all the images of a point are separated from each other.\n\nThe first insight is:\n\n* all the angles between the mirrors have to be 180/p, where p is some whole number. You can have mirrors at 90 degrees, or 60 degrees, or 45 degrees, or 36 degrees, but not (say) 50 degrees or 73.9 degrees and so on. \n\nThe reason is, that's the only way to ensure that an image of a point neqtly falls back on itse;f after being reflected a certain number of times.\n\nNext, he thought about what happens if you have multiple mirrors enclosing a space, and he was able to show that p had to be 2, 3, 4 or 6, in any number of dimensions.\n\nIn 2-D, it's simple enough to check this: if three mirrors enclosing a triangle are at angles 180/p, 180/q and 180/r, and the angles add up to 180, then 1/p + 1/q + 1/r = 1. The only (p,q,r) that allow that are (2,3,6), (2,4,4) and (3,3,3). Coxeter used a more sophisticated proof to show that in any number of dimensions, you can only tesselate space with regular polyhedra whose sides are triangles, cubes or hexagons. \n\nThen, he proceeded to list all the possibilities.\n\nIn 3D, and in 5D and up, you can tesselate space with (3D, or 5D, etc) cubes. That's it. \n\nIn 4D, though, you can tesselate space with 4D cubes (tesseracts), but there are a beautiful tesselation with \"24-cells\". The 24-cell is a 4D shape with octahedrons for faces. There's also a \"dual tesselation\" with cross-polytopes (the 4D equivalent of octahedra).\n\nYou can get many more tesselations if you decide to abandon euclidean space - then angles in triangles don't have to add to 180, and you can get almost any kind of tesselation you want. " ] }
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[ [ "http://mathstat.slu.edu/escher/upload/thumb/d/d5/Regular-pentagon-fail2.svg/144px-Regular-pentagon-fail2.svg.png", "https://www.mathartfun.com/RegularTess.jpg" ], [] ]
13367r
Question from my boy: Are some mammalian tails vestigial, and why haven't they disappeared?
My 13 year old boy asked what in humans is a holdover from evolution and not used anymore. I mentioned that we have tailbones, that used to be a tail. This raised the question of why any mammals at all have tails, and I mentioned that squirrels and cats use the tail for balance. But then the question became, why do some mammals have useless tails? How about horses? They don't need those for balance. I mentioned that horses can swat flies with them, though that was getting shaky. What about pig tails? Or the ultimate, what about elephant tails? Those have to be useless. So why do some mammals have apparently useless tails, and why haven't they disappeared? Why did they disappear in humans? And a bonus question from Dad, what was the original purpose for tails in the original mammal ancestor?
askscience
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/13367r/question_from_my_boy_are_some_mammalian_tails/
{ "a_id": [ "c70esl4" ], "score": [ 5 ], "text": [ "Human tails are vestigial because there's no selective pressure against them. In order for natural selection to act to discard a body part (e.g. a tail or appendix), there has to be some evolutionary *reason* to do so. If having a vestigial tail significantly decreased an individual's ability to mate or survive, there would be selection against that trait. Since there is not selection for or against the tail bone or the appendix, they simply remain as mostly useless appendages in our bodies.\n\nAs for why they disappeared in humans, at some point there arose selection against a tail. Human ancestors moved out of the trees and thus no longer needed a tail for gripping tree branches, so the selective pressure *for* the tail disappeared and some kind of selective pressure *against* the tail arose. So it became very short. But there was never any reason to completely get rid of it. And in fact, the vestigial does actually serve to protect some of the pelvic organs, so it does have slight selective pressure in its favor.\n\nHope this helps!" ] }
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5s87pn
why does inhaling steam seem to clear up clogged sinuses?
explainlikeimfive
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/5s87pn/eli5_why_does_inhaling_steam_seem_to_clear_up/
{ "a_id": [ "ddd2rsn", "dddy8zg" ], "score": [ 20, 2 ], "text": [ "Think of your mucous as a kind of hydrophilic (strongly attracted to water) slime. If you're sick, suffering from allergies, exposed to irritants, etc... then it can be valuable to move that mucous along faster than it would normally. By inhaling water vapor, you increase the water content of the mucous, and it becomes looser, less sticky and more subject to being cleared. \n\nAnother reality of the situation is that often what we perceive to be clogged sinuses due to mucous are actually just inflamed. Steam and warmth can be soothing, especially since dryness or the presence of an irritant is often a cause of that initial inflammation. ", "Inhaling steam? That sounds incredibly painful." ] }
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4f30qk
maslows hierarchy of needs.
What is it, and how does it effect modern psychology?
explainlikeimfive
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/4f30qk/eli5_maslows_hierarchy_of_needs/
{ "a_id": [ "d25h8q7" ], "score": [ 6 ], "text": [ "Basically it talks about what a person can focus time and energy on as one tries to be as complete and satisfied a human as possible.\n\nThe idea is that for example it is hard for someone to worry too much about whether they have an artistic outlet if they are worried about how they are going to find food for the night. Or if their spouse is going to beat them tomorrow. Or if they are about to get evicted.\n\nOnce you have basic needs (food and shelter) then you can worry about your saftey. Once you are safe and fed, yiu can worry about being loved. Once you feel safe, fed, loved, you can worry about building a meaningful social network. Once you have all that met, you can worry about whether your job is providing a means of self actualization.\n\nIt isn't a rigid or linear framework. A kid who isn't safe at home can have even greater need for social network and creative outlet, especially the more we learn about trauma's actual physical impact on the brain and development. Feeling greater esteme can give a woman the courage to risk basic need loss in order to flee a financially secure but unsafe relationship. \n\nBut it provides a general outline of prioritization, and a way of understanding why a person may respond or not respond to a situation compared to someone else who has a different circumstance and life experience.\n\nBasic safety social emotional actualization\n\n" ] }
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5owall
Why did China recieve Veto-power at the creation of the SC of the UN?
China was not industralized and severely weakened after the war. Why were they deemed important enough to recieve such great powers?
AskHistorians
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/5owall/why_did_china_recieve_vetopower_at_the_creation/
{ "a_id": [ "dcmnhdk", "dcmyml6", "dcnnv9j" ], "score": [ 1187, 115, 4 ], "text": [ "They were 'granted' this at the Conference of Cairo in 1943 by FDR and Churchill. The Americans needed the Chinese to continue the fight against the Japanese on the mainland, since most of the Japanese armed forces were occupied fighting the Chinese United Front (Both the Kwomingtang and the Communists). At Cairo FDR also was already preparing his 'New Order' by trying to get all allied powers to sign off on the United Nations Idea, and by giving China the seat they also participated in the United Nations.\n\nIt's also important to note that FDR and Churchill negotiated with Chiang Kai Shek, and as such the veto power in the Security Council went to the Kwomingtang, even after they were forced in exile to Taiwan. Only after the thaw in the '70s did the Pernament seat at the Security council and veto-right go to the Peoples Republic of China, instead of the Republic of China (Taiwan). \n\nSource:\nKERREMANS, B. and LAENEN R., International Politics since 1945, Leuven, 1999.\n\nEdit: Spelling Errors", "FDR's post-war vision is very different than the what the policy Truman implemented after FDR's death. FDR imagined the UN would be policed by the worlds 4 major powers: the US, USSR, England, and China. Together, these 'Four Policemen' would actively prevent conflicts around the world to prevent a future World War. They would lead the UN and give it real power to stop conflict- a direct contrast to the failed League of Nations. FDR saw no interest in SE Asia (Indochina specifically) and thought it belonged in China's realm of influence, and did not support France's effort to regain it's lost colony.\n\nAs the other post mentioned, China was not communist at this point in history. However, FDR's post-war vision did not include an idealogical battle against Communism. Lasting peace was his objective, not a Cold War with USSR, which led to comprise (critics would describe it as capitulation) with Russia over the issue of Poland soviergnty and USSR's declaration of war on Japan. So, the fact the China might fall into the hands of communism was not a deal breaker for FDR. \n\nTo answer your final question about China's weakness: China had existed as the major power in the region for thousands of years. However, due to European and Japanese imperialism in the last 200 years, China's position had fallen immensely. But it's size, population, and potential for economic growth and military growth made it a realistic choice to become the future power in the region. \n\nSource: His Final Battle: The Last Months of Franklin Roosevelt\nBook by Joseph Lelyveld\n", "This eventually happened in october 1971 when the US and decrease that of the advisors who were in his book Nehru The Invention of India." ] }
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1idp8f
How close could i get to building a modern day jet engine with the materials and techniques used at the time of the Wright brothers' first flight?
askscience
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/1idp8f/how_close_could_i_get_to_building_a_modern_day/
{ "a_id": [ "cb3ijne" ], "score": [ 3 ], "text": [ "It depends on which modern day jet engine you're talking about. \n\nA real actual [turbofan](_URL_4_) or [turbojet](_URL_2_) like on a jet airliner, no way. The tolerances for heat and stress just weren't available in 1903. [Turbine Blades are often the limiting part of the engine](_URL_1_) and are generally made form exotic materials and are processed in ways to make them more durable. Early Engine designs suffered from [issues in the combustion section of the engine](_URL_1_#Materials) which didn't get properly worked out until the 1940's\n\nNow a [pulsejet](_URL_0_), that should have been obtainable but not really all that usefull for air travel.\n\n*edit: Missed, a comma." ] }
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[ [ "https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pulsejet", "https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Turbine_blade", "https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Turbojet", "https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Turbine_blade#Materials", "https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Turbofan" ] ]
1yt2oq
Can someone explain heteroscedasticity in simple terms?
I'm currently working on a statistics project and one of the biggest barriers is in my inability to understand heteroscedasticity. I have a couple questions that'll help me out quite a bit: * What does the assumption of homoscedasticity tell us and why is it important? * When we this assumption fails, we have heteroscedasticity, which lowers our statistical power and opens the door for type I errors? Why is this? Only two questions, but I really don't understand. My textbook doesn't cover it too well, my professor is near useless in explaining it, and the TA only helped me out a bit. I figured I'd ask all of you to see if anyone can help. Thanks!
askscience
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/1yt2oq/can_someone_explain_heteroscedasticity_in_simple/
{ "a_id": [ "cfnjzfp" ], "score": [ 6 ], "text": [ "I'll try to do it in somewhat visual terms for you rather than in terms of the error statistic or matrix math -- let's look at the sample plot for the topic on Wikipedia (_URL_1_). In the sample, you can clearly see a couple of things. \n\nFirstly, there is apparently a clear line of best fit for the data that runs from the lower left to the upper right: it's obvious what your final regression model's linear equation will look like if you graph it as a line. It'll go right through the middle of those dots and will be very good about having equal numbers of dots above and below. \n\nSecondly, in any given region around the regression line, the average distance between the line and the dots above is comparable in scale to the distance between the line and the dots below. \n\nThink about the implications of this visually first. Your regression line is still an *unbiased* estimate of the data no matter where you are on the line. A real data point is as likely to be above the line as below, and if you go looking for a real data point above the line, on average you will not have to stray any farther than if you go looking for one below the line. \n\nThirdly, however, the dots toward the lower left side will crowd together close to your line. Toward the upper right, the average distance between the line and a data point, regardless of whether it is above or below the line, grows much larger. \n\nThe assumption of homoscedasticity is that this does *not* happen. Data points are not supposed to \"fan out\" as you move down the line, regardless of whether they keep the line in the center. Your error (or residual) term, ε , is supposed to be an equally useful guide to how good your line is, regardless of where you are on the line. \n\nThis is important for Type I errors because statistical inference has two parts, not just one: in a simple OLS case, it is a combination of *both* (a) how sloped your line is when you fit it to your data *and* (b) an estimate of how likely it is that the line is only sloped by chance, and that if you got a whole new data set on the same topic, the line would be flat or slope in the other direction. \n\nAnd the key to the second part is getting a good and consistent measure of how far the data points are spaced from the line. If they hew closely to the line, then you can have higher confidence that the trend is \"real\"; if they are scattered much further from the line, then your confidence will diminish. Intuitively, you can see in that picture that the line seems to be a very good description of the data toward the lower left, and it is not such a good description of the data toward the upper right. \n\nNow you have to consider what you are doing when you run a hypothesis test and say that you have 95+ percent confidence that there is a real, positive trend to this data (in other words, you are rejecting the null hypothesis, concluding that if you got all new data about this topic over and over again, you would keep seeing positive slopes in your regression lines). How do you determine the confidence interval? Well, you hypothesize that the \"real\" trend is zero, and that if you did the experiment over and over, recording the slope of the line you got, the data for all the slopes would cluster around zero: specifically, they would form a normal distribution around zero. If the slope you got in the experiment you really did is far away enough from zero (about two standard deviations), then it is really unlikely that you would have gotten it in a world where the reality is zero, so you conclude that the effect is real. \n\nThe key piece of the puzzle is that in every experiment, you have to redefine what a standard deviation actually means in numerical terms. With heteroscedastic data, you have compromised your ability to state how responsible the slope of your line is for keeping the points close to it (and remember also at the outset that you are using the squares of distances rather than the absolute value of distances when you are doing OLS regression). You are coming up with an estimate of how big the error term is going to tend to be every time you re-run the experiment, and in a Type I error case, you are understating it. This means that, while your estimate is still unbiased, it looks like it is straying very far from a world in which the \"truth\" is zero. In reality, though, the truth could be zero *and still* allow you to run a bunch of sloped lines that look like they're doing a good job at estimation. \n\nLook back at the sample plot to see this visually. Take a ruler or a piece of string and overlay it on the line of best fit. Now rotate it around back and forth, with the center of rotation being in the middle of the dense cluster of dots toward the lower left. You now can see how, even when you move the slope quite far off of what you think its \"true\" trend should be, the \"bad\" lines you are making are *still* able to capture a lot of brownie points, as it were, for being very close to the dots down there on the lower left. And because, further on the right, you are still in the thick of the \"fan\", you aren't being punished all that much for \"missing\" the middle of that section. \n\nNow consider what happens if you try that with homoscedastic data, like with the Wikipedia sample plot for linear regression in general (_URL_0_). Now, if you pick a point on the lower left (or anywhere on the line, really) and rotate the line around it (to give it an ''incorrect'' slope), you can still stay close to the dots near your axis of rotation. But your error term immediately starts to punish you severely elsewhere on the line, because when you look at the upper right, you are moving away from all of the data points and moving toward almost none of them. When you were in the fan, the punishment was not nearly so severe.\n\nTherefore, from a visual perspective, heteroscedastic data can cause you to make a Type I error because it may be capable of accommodating a relatively wide range of regression line slopes that each reports a relatively small average error. This can lead you to set tight definition for how ''bad'' a line slope has to be in order to be an outlier, since a line that has even a modest amount of error will look like a bad line. This is because the heteroscedastic data is making it artificially easy to be a ''good'' line. Since the null hypothesis is that zero slope is correct, then, if the null is true, you must have been *terribly, badly unlucky* to end up with a set of points that generates even your modestly-sloped line. You may have decided to say that ''if my line looks like one of the bottom-5-percent most unlucky lines in the world, I'm going to conclude that it's not me that's unlucky, it's that 'zero is the truth' is wrong.\" And then you'll pull that trigger, when the truth is that zero is the best answer but that this data is going to throw up more unlucky-looking line slopes than you expected." ] }
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[ [ "https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:Linear_regression.svg", "https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:Heteroscedasticity.png" ] ]
5ucwge
What number would our number system have to be based on for PI to be equal to 3.2?
askscience
https://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/5ucwge/what_number_would_our_number_system_have_to_be/
{ "a_id": [ "ddt6upz", "ddta4ww" ], "score": [ 10, 4 ], "text": [ "If b is the base, then you'd need pi=3+2/b. Solve for b to get b=2/(pi-3). This is closest to 14, and in base 14 pi is 3.1D ish, where D is 13, so it's the base 14 equivalent of 3.19", "It will never be *equal* to 3.2.\n\n3.2 is a decimal representation of a number, and pi is not that number.\n\nIf you believe in fractional/irrational bases, then in base 2/(pi-3) it would be *written* as \"3.2\", but it would still be an irrational number and would have the same intrinsic *value* it has always had." ] }
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1lhlgn
How did the Jewish working rise to prominence so quickly in the USA after WWII?
*working class
AskHistorians
http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/1lhlgn/how_did_the_jewish_working_rise_to_prominence_so/
{ "a_id": [ "cbzep3o" ], "score": [ 9 ], "text": [ "History minor focusing on Jewish History (Post diaspora, pre WWII) here.\n\nThis is on the periphery of my studies, but here it is:\n\nFirst some nomenclature: There were, at the time of WWII (and still are) several different types of \"Jews.\" The Jews of Poland and Lithuania were most likely Hasidic. If you have no experience with Hasidic jews, think of them as similar (not really, but for the purposes of analogy...) to charismatic christian churches. \n\nThe other big group were the so-called Ashkenazi Jews, or \"German Jews.\" Keep in mind at this time, the concept of \"nationality\" was an evolving one, and most people, pre WWI thought of themselves less-so as members of a particular nation, than as citizens of a country, so them being \"German\" had less to do with Germany and more to do with the language they spoke, and having a generalized western culture similar to that of christians of Western Europe; this lies in contrast to the distinctly eastern european culture that was prominent in Poland, Lithuania, Ukraine and the other Eastern European/Ural/Baltic states. When I say \"German Jew,\" think Western European.\n\nWith that out of the way, lets get some historical context. Laws limiting Jews to particular professions and trades were quite common, and had been around for centuries. So too had the practice of the State, at the behest of nobles or merchants, seizing resources from the Jews, burning their homes, and running them out of the city, only to realize in a few years that the reason they had so much stuff is that they were good at what they did and their services were in demand. So, eventually they would be ushered back in, even sometimes being offered incentives (protection, tax breaks, etc) for returning.\n\nThe end result of this is that Jews couldn't really become farmers, since farmers can't take their land and crops with them when they flee town. So what jobs were left? How does a Jewish man feed his family in 1900's Europe?\n\nMercantile and Professional jobs. You either become a trader/retailer, or a doctor/lawyer/etc. Reading was not a common skill even a few decades ago. In the 1900's it was not at all common for the general public to be well read. Ashkenazi Jews, on the other hand, studied their religious texts obsessively. They would be able to read and write in two languages by 10, with formal training beginning around 5 years of age. As a result, their cultural practices lent themselves to scholarly pursuits.\n\n*****SIDE NOTE*** I want to be clear here. This is not a racist \"jews make good lawyers Hyuck!\" argument. They started their children reading in Hebrew at a young age, and taught them the local language as well. This familiarity at a young age with reading and writing primes a young child's brain for such pursuits, and it will (and does) when anyone, not just the Jews does it. ***END SIDE NOTE*****\n\nSo as a scholar or a merchant with a portable trade, what do you do when anti-semitism begins to rise? You do the same thing the Jews had done for centuries, and you leave your current home for a nearby land where public sentiment lies more in your favor. Many Jews left Europe for the United States. (though nowhere near the numbers we saw in four decades) Keep in mind this is even pre-wwI. \n\nThe next thing you have to understand about European Jewry is that there was always a sense of community toward other Jews (not counting the Hasidim; their relationship with the Ashkenazi is more... complicated.) to the point that supporting a traveling scholar was considered a *mitzvah* or religiously obligated good deed. The Jewish community would take up alms for those among them that could not, for whatever reason, support themselves. \n\nSo lets take a quick inventory of what our context has created:\n\nWe have a community of people with a long history of relocating, engaged in trades that are lucrative wherever you go, who believe strongly in the importance of charity.\n\nNow, getting to your actual question:\n\nAfter WWII, when the horrors of the holocaust had been revealed, the surviving Europeans Jews made a choice. Many (more than you might think) stayed in Europe. Some left for Israel after it was founded a few years later, and some headed to the United States. Those Jews not directly affected by the holocaust engaged *heavily* in charities benefitting its victims. Additionally, Many were business owners who could easily give a job to a jewish immigrant just off the boat from Europe. \n\n\nSources: \n\nDubnow's History of the Jews in Russia and Poland. Link:_URL_2_\n\nBartal's \"The Jews of Eastern Europe: 1772-1881\" Link: _URL_1_\n\nStow's \"Alienated Minority: The Jews of Medieval Latin Europe\" Link: _URL_0_\n" ] }
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[ [ "http://amzn.com/0674015932", "http://amzn.com/0812219074", "http://amzn.com/144004239X" ] ]
1k4z4g
In this video of the tsunami in Japan there is a white cloud moving out of the water and disappearing. What is it?
[The video in question](_URL_0_).
askscience
http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/1k4z4g/in_this_video_of_the_tsunami_in_japan_there_is_a/
{ "a_id": [ "cblgzqi" ], "score": [ 4 ], "text": [ "You can see it happen at around the [10 min 32 sec mark](_URL_0_) too (just a little bit to the left of the spot in your video, under the tree).\n\nMaybe it's a punctured tank of gas, like propane. It's venting gas all the time, it just looks like that when it's above water.\n" ] }
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[ "https://www.youtube.com/watch?feature=player_embedded&amp;v=0gh3JrdL-Zg&amp;t=645" ]
[ [ "https://www.youtube.com/watch?feature=player_detailpage&amp;v=0gh3JrdL-Zg&amp;t=630" ] ]
6d6pdu
why is it illegal to download movies/music/games/etc, but people can sell used copies? either way the company isn't getting a cut after the first time.
explainlikeimfive
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/6d6pdu/eli5_why_is_it_illegal_to_download/
{ "a_id": [ "di0brlr", "di0hq0o" ], "score": [ 19, 2 ], "text": [ "First off, the difference is that a digital copy is endlessly duplicable, while a physical item changes hands -- if you sell a CD, you no longer have access to that CD. But you could copy a music or video file and still have that media while also selling it.\n\nSecondly, there are laws that define \"first-sale doctrine\" -- that specifically state one can sell, rent, loan, destroy, give away, etc. something once they purchase it. The company that produces it loses rights to dictate how product is used once bought. But this applies to physical items, not electronic media. So you can rent a DVD if you buy it for your video store, or your can donate that old Abercrombie logo sweatshirt to the homeless and there's nothing that the producer can do to stop that... but the law doesn't say you can duplicate an MP3.", "look at it backwards. would you be pissed if you couldnt sell something that you own? fuck the company. everyone should have the right to sell something they bought. it has been that way since the dawn of civilization. i'm not sure what happened with digital. maybe they came up with a specific contract against it that you agree to when you buy it.\n\nit's illegal to download it because you never paid for it through official channels. nobody was allowed to give it to you in the first place outside those channels. the only way to give you something like that is to steal it. so they had no right to give or sell it and neither do you." ] }
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1hkfty
Do we know when certain food and drink pairings first became popular? Eggs and bacon? Wine and cheese? Etc
AskHistorians
http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/1hkfty/do_we_know_when_certain_food_and_drink_pairings/
{ "a_id": [ "cav7699" ], "score": [ 2 ], "text": [ "This question has been removed because it's [an \"in your era\" or \"throughout history\" question](_URL_0_), which are not appropriate for this subreddit. If you have a specific question about a historical event or period or person, please feel free to re-compose your question and submit it again." ] }
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[ [ "http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/wiki/rules#wiki_no_.22in_your_era.22_or_.22throughout_history.22_questions" ] ]
82dpwi
why do pain killers help some types of pain, but not others?
For example, my pain killers work for joint pain, but the paper cut I got earlier today still hurts just as much.
explainlikeimfive
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/82dpwi/eli5why_do_pain_killers_help_some_types_of_pain/
{ "a_id": [ "dv9jrpr", "dv9mmnp", "dvaca74" ], "score": [ 3, 2, 3 ], "text": [ "Different kinds of pain killers (analgesics) react in the body in different ways so you need to identify what's causing the pain to effectively treat it. Basically it's a combination of the type of pain (Cancer/Inflammatory/Neuropathic/Nociceptive) and the severity of said pain. ", "Depends on the type of pain killer and its mode of action. (So, is it an opiate, an anti-inflammatory, a neuro-blocker, etc)\nDepends on which pain receptors are being stimulated, and how.\n\n", "Your joint pain probably comes from some sort of inflammation within them. One type of pain killer, NSAIDs, block the production of a molecule (Prostaglandin H2) that is produced at inflamed sites and is important for pain signaling in inflammation. So when the production of that inflammatory molecule is blocked, you will feel less pain. When you have something like a cut there are also other types of pain involved, for example nerves that respond to mechanical force (or, y´know, being cut in half). In that case a big chunk of the pain comes from those cut nerves and not from inflammatory molecules, so an NSAID won´t help as much. In that case an opiate like morphine would perform better because they weaken many pain signals that are trying to reach the brain. By the way, please don´t use morphine to treat a paper cut." ] }
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64g5bx
Why was Yugoslavia formed after WW1, rather than re-establishing the Kingdom of Serbia?
Was there a strong local desire for such a state? Or was it more to do with geopolitics?
AskHistorians
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/64g5bx/why_was_yugoslavia_formed_after_ww1_rather_than/
{ "a_id": [ "dg2vlfh" ], "score": [ 6 ], "text": [ "My first comment here. Hope my answer will suffice! \n\nYes, there was strong local desire for such a state before the First World War. Yugoslavism became a distinguished segment of the wider Pan-Slavic movement around the 17th century. It was popularised by the Illyrian movement in the 19th century and afterwards, throughout the territories populated by South Slavs, the idea of Yugoslavism was growing strong, helped by the general dissatisfaction with the Austro-Hungarian government. \n\nIn Croatia, the Serbs and Croats who lived under Austro-Hungarian thrall were often grouped together as they considered one another to be cast in the same mold. In the early 20th century, these stances were most explicitly espoused by the disciples of Svetozar Pribićević, the leader of the Serb Independent Party (Serbo-Croatian: *Srpska samostalna stranka*) who advocated for the creation of a Yugoslav state, thus welcoming collaboration with Croatian politicians, which resulted in the SIP merging into the Croat-Serb Coalition. The joint interests and friendship between the two parties culminated in 1905 when two documents were signed - the Rijeka Resolution and the Zadar Resolution, which both proclaimed solidarity and equality between the Croats and the Serbs. On the other hand, the Croatian Party of Rights, led by the likes of Ante Starčević and Josip Frank, opposed the idea of Yugoslavism with zeal.\n\nIn the Condominium of Bosnia and Herzegovina, following the Bosnian Crisis, the locals were very much dissatisfied with Béni Kállay's administration, and the Bosnian intelligentsia rallied behind pan-Serbian and anti-Austrian publications like *The Bosnian Vila* and *Zora* (Dawn), which helped preserve Serbian national identity. Such a sentiment was supported by many eminent authors, politicians and poets of the time, with the poet and politician Osman Đikić, a Serb Muslim, being an example. This was the ideological basis of the Young Bosnia organisation, frequented by many young intellectuals of the time, an organisation now famous primarily for assassinating Archduke Franz Ferdinand. \n\nIn the independent Kingdom of Serbia, the Yugoslav nationalists were influenced by the *Risorgimento* (Italian unification) and considered Serbia to be responsible of emulating the Kingdom of Piedmont by uniting all South Slavs into one state henceforth known as Yugoslavia. Slovene nationalists like Anton Korošec espoused pro-unification ideas, believing the unification to be a means of freeing Slovenia from Austro-Hungarian control. How deeply ingrained the idea of Yugoslavism was within the nationalist sentience of the time is best exemplified by this Gavrilo Princip quote: *'I am a Yugoslav nationalist, aiming for the unification of all Yugoslavs, and I do not care what form of state, but it must be free from Austria.'*\n\nSo, that said, the idea was rooted within the collective conscious of a majority of South Slavs of the era, but after the Great War, Yugoslavia wasn't immediately formed. The Corfu Declaration made the Serbian pro-unification intentions rather clear, and once the war ended the Kingdom of Serbia merged with the State of Slovenes, Croats and Serbs, and once the pro-Serbian Whites have outnumbered the pro-independence Greens in the Podgorica Assembly, so did Serbia merge with the Kingdom of Montenegro thus creating the Kingdom of Serbs, Croats and Slovenes, separated into nine *banovinas*. The newly-formed state was no stranger to separatist and nationalist turmoil, which is why King Aleksandar I changed the name of the country to Yugoslavia in 1929, and started working on eradicating the national identities of Yugoslav peoples from existence for the sake of creating a unified state, not separated by neither religion nor ethnicity. This process was later continued by the communists but has evidently failed to take hold, as shortly after Tito's death, Yugoslavia again found itself divided by separatism and nationalism promoted by all the parties involved in the conflict. \n\nSources:\n\nV. Ćorović - *Istorija Srba*\n\nJ. R. Lampe - *Yugoslavia as History: Twice There Was a Country*\n\nZ. Pavlović & J. Bosnić - *Mozaik prošlosti* \n\nLj. Antić - *Prvi svjetski rat i Hrvati*" ] }
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