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A rainfall type has the following characteristics: Common in the summer or in the hotter part of the day. Short duration heavy rainfall with thunder and lightening. Common in the equatorial regions and interior parts of the continents. Which of the following type of rainfall has all the above characteristics? | Orographic Rainfall | Conventional Rainfall | Cyclonic Rainfall | Orographic Rainfall | Convectional Rainfall: The air on being heated, becomes light and rises up in convection currents. As it rises, it expands and loses heat and consequently, condensation takes place and cumulous clouds are formed. With thunder and lightning, heavy rainfall takes place but this does not last long. Such rain is common in the summer or in the hotter part of the day. It is very common in the equatorial regions and interior parts of the continents, particularly in the northern hemisphere. | b | The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere | Agriculture | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:A rainfall type has the following characteristics: Common in the summer or in the hotter part of the day. Short duration heavy rainfall with thunder and lightening. Common in the equatorial regions and interior parts of the continents. Which of the following type of rainfall has all the above characteristics?##Option_A: Orographic Rainfall###Option_B: Conventional Rainfall##Option_C: Cyclonic Rainfall##Option_D: Orographic Rainfall##Answer:b##Explaination:Convectional Rainfall: The air on being heated, becomes light and rises up in convection currents. As it rises, it expands and loses heat and consequently, condensation takes place and cumulous clouds are formed. With thunder and lightning, heavy rainfall takes place but this does not last long. Such rain is common in the summer or in the hotter part of the day. It is very common in the equatorial regions and interior parts of the continents, particularly in the northern hemisphere.##Topic:The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b |
Consider the following statements: As we proceed from the equator towards the poles, rainfall goes on decreasing steadily. The coastal areas of the world receive greater amounts of rainfall than the interior areas. Wherever mountains run parallel to the coast, the rain is greater on the coastal plain. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? | 1 only | 2 and 3 only | 1 and 2 only | 1 only | Statement 1 is correct i.e. why tropical regions have the maximum precipitation and the volume goes on decreasing steadily as we move towards the poles. Temperature goes on decreasing and hence the tendency for condensation. Statement 2 is correct. The rainfall is more over the oceans than on the landmasses of the world because of being great sources of water. Statement 3 is correct. In orographic rainfall windward side receives more rainfall and leeward side receives very little i.e. why they are called rain shadow area. The coastal plains become part of the windward side and the interior of the continent are part of the leeward side | d | The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere | Agriculture | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: As we proceed from the equator towards the poles, rainfall goes on decreasing steadily. The coastal areas of the world receive greater amounts of rainfall than the interior areas. Wherever mountains run parallel to the coast, the rain is greater on the coastal plain. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 2 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct i.e. why tropical regions have the maximum precipitation and the volume goes on decreasing steadily as we move towards the poles. Temperature goes on decreasing and hence the tendency for condensation. Statement 2 is correct. The rainfall is more over the oceans than on the landmasses of the world because of being great sources of water. Statement 3 is correct. In orographic rainfall windward side receives more rainfall and leeward side receives very little i.e. why they are called rain shadow area. The coastal plains become part of the windward side and the interior of the continent are part of the leeward side##Topic:The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d |
Which of the following have bearing on the intensity of tides? 1. Centrifugal force 2. Distance from the shores 3. Shapes of bays and estuaries Select the correct answer using the code given below. | 1 and 2 only | 1 and 3 only | 1, 2 and 3 | 1 and 2 only | The periodical rise and fall of the sea level, once or twice a day, mainly due to the attraction of the sun and the moon, is called a tide. Following factors affect intensity of tides Centrifugal force is the force that acts to counter balance the gravity. The net difference between this force and the gravitational pull of sun and moon decides the tidal bulge With distance from the shore intensity decreases. The tidal bulges on wide continental shelves, have greater height. When tidal bulges hit the mid-oceanic islands they become low. The shape of bays and estuaries along a coastline also magnify the intensity of tides. Funnel-shaped bays greatly change tidal magnitudes | c | The Hydrosphere : Ocean water and their circulation | Agriculture | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following have bearing on the intensity of tides? 1. Centrifugal force 2. Distance from the shores 3. Shapes of bays and estuaries Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The periodical rise and fall of the sea level, once or twice a day, mainly due to the attraction of the sun and the moon, is called a tide. Following factors affect intensity of tides Centrifugal force is the force that acts to counter balance the gravity. The net difference between this force and the gravitational pull of sun and moon decides the tidal bulge With distance from the shore intensity decreases. The tidal bulges on wide continental shelves, have greater height. When tidal bulges hit the mid-oceanic islands they become low. The shape of bays and estuaries along a coastline also magnify the intensity of tides. Funnel-shaped bays greatly change tidal magnitudes##Topic:The Hydrosphere : Ocean water and their circulation##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c |
Which of the following are the useful applications of tides? Navigation Desilting of sediments from river estuaries Generation of electricity Select the correct answer using the code given below. | 1 and 2 only | 2 and 3 only | 1 and 3 only | 1 and 2 only | Since tides are caused by the earth-moon-sun positions which are known accurately, the tides can be predicted well in advance. This helps the navigators and fishermen plan their activities. Tidal flows are of great importance in navigation. Tides are helpful in desilting the sediments and in removing polluted water from river estuaries. Electricity generation is well known and a lot of tidal power plants are at work. | d | The Hydrosphere : Ocean water and their circulation | Agriculture | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following are the useful applications of tides? Navigation Desilting of sediments from river estuaries Generation of electricity Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Since tides are caused by the earth-moon-sun positions which are known accurately, the tides can be predicted well in advance. This helps the navigators and fishermen plan their activities. Tidal flows are of great importance in navigation. Tides are helpful in desilting the sediments and in removing polluted water from river estuaries. Electricity generation is well known and a lot of tidal power plants are at work.##Topic:The Hydrosphere : Ocean water and their circulation##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d |
Consider the following statements about the ocean currents: 1. Surface ocean currents affect larger volume of water than deep ocean currents 2. Cold currents are usually found on the west coast of the continents in the low and middle latitudes in northern hemisphere only 3. Warm currents are observed on the east coast of continents in the low and middle latitudes in both the hemispheres Which of the statements given above is/are correct? | 1 and 3 only | 2 only | 3 only | 1 and 3 only | Statement 1 is incorrect and it is just the reverse. Surface currents constitute about 10 percent of all the water in the ocean, while deep water currents make up the other 90 percent of the ocean water. Statement 2 is incorrect. Cold currents are usually found on the west coast of the continents in the low and middle latitudes in both the northern and southern hemisphere. For example Benguela current along the west African Coast in Southern hemisphere is also a cold current Statement 3 is correct. Warm currents bring warm water into cold water areas and are usually observed on the east coast of continents in the low and middle latitudes (true in both hemispheres). For example Gulf stream (along the east North America near Gulf of Mexico) in the Northern Hemisphere and the Brazilian current in the Southern hemisphere | c | The Hydrosphere : Ocean water and their circulation | Agriculture | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about the ocean currents: 1. Surface ocean currents affect larger volume of water than deep ocean currents 2. Cold currents are usually found on the west coast of the continents in the low and middle latitudes in northern hemisphere only 3. Warm currents are observed on the east coast of continents in the low and middle latitudes in both the hemispheres Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 and 3 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:3 only##Option_D:1 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect and it is just the reverse. Surface currents constitute about 10 percent of all the water in the ocean, while deep water currents make up the other 90 percent of the ocean water. Statement 2 is incorrect. Cold currents are usually found on the west coast of the continents in the low and middle latitudes in both the northern and southern hemisphere. For example Benguela current along the west African Coast in Southern hemisphere is also a cold current Statement 3 is correct. Warm currents bring warm water into cold water areas and are usually observed on the east coast of continents in the low and middle latitudes (true in both hemispheres). For example Gulf stream (along the east North America near Gulf of Mexico) in the Northern Hemisphere and the Brazilian current in the Southern hemisphere ##Topic:The Hydrosphere : Ocean water and their circulation##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c |
Which of the following are the effects of ocean currents? Arid areas in the west coasts of the continents in tropical and subtropical latitudes. Narrow annual range of temperature in the mid and high latitude on the western coast Replenishment of oxygen and the growth of planktons. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. | 1 and 2 only | 1 and 3 only | 2 and 3 only | 1 and 2 only | Statement 1 is correct. West coasts of the continents in tropical and subtropical latitudes (except close to the equator) are bordered by cool waters. Their average temperatures are relatively low with narrow diurnal and annual ranges. Fog will be there, but generally the areas are arid. Statement 2 is correct. West coasts of the continents in the middle and higher latitudes are bordered by warm waters which cause a distinct marine climate. They are characterized by cool summers and relatively mild winters with a narrow annual range of temperatures. Statement 3 is also correct. The mixing of warm and cold currents help to replenish the oxygen and favor the growth of planktons, the primary food for fish population. The best fishing grounds of the world exist mainly in these mixing zones | d | The Hydrosphere : Ocean water and their circulation | Agriculture | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following are the effects of ocean currents? Arid areas in the west coasts of the continents in tropical and subtropical latitudes. Narrow annual range of temperature in the mid and high latitude on the western coast Replenishment of oxygen and the growth of planktons. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. West coasts of the continents in tropical and subtropical latitudes (except close to the equator) are bordered by cool waters. Their average temperatures are relatively low with narrow diurnal and annual ranges. Fog will be there, but generally the areas are arid. Statement 2 is correct. West coasts of the continents in the middle and higher latitudes are bordered by warm waters which cause a distinct marine climate. They are characterized by cool summers and relatively mild winters with a narrow annual range of temperatures. Statement 3 is also correct. The mixing of warm and cold currents help to replenish the oxygen and favor the growth of planktons, the primary food for fish population. The best fishing grounds of the world exist mainly in these mixing zones##Topic:The Hydrosphere : Ocean water and their circulation##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d |
Identify the ocean current based on the following characteristics: It is formed by the eastward deflection of Gulf stream. Canaries current, a cold current along the Iberian Coast is formed because of it. It helps in moderating the climate of Europe. Which of the following currents is best described by the above statements? | Benguela current | Labrador current | North Atlantic Drift | Benguela current | The above all are statements related to the North Atlantic Drift. The eastward deflection of the Gulf Stream under the influence of westerlies and Coriolis takes it to the west Europe coast. It branches out in three directions, along the Arctic, eastwards towards the Britain and southwards towards the Iberian coast in the form of Canaries Current. It carries warm waters to the west coast of Europe and helps in moderating the Climate. | c | The Hydrosphere : Ocean water and their circulation | Agriculture | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Identify the ocean current based on the following characteristics: It is formed by the eastward deflection of Gulf stream. Canaries current, a cold current along the Iberian Coast is formed because of it. It helps in moderating the climate of Europe. Which of the following currents is best described by the above statements?##Option_A: Benguela current###Option_B: Labrador current##Option_C: North Atlantic Drift##Option_D: Benguela current##Answer:c##Explaination:The above all are statements related to the North Atlantic Drift. The eastward deflection of the Gulf Stream under the influence of westerlies and Coriolis takes it to the west Europe coast. It branches out in three directions, along the Arctic, eastwards towards the Britain and southwards towards the Iberian coast in the form of Canaries Current. It carries warm waters to the west coast of Europe and helps in moderating the Climate.##Topic:The Hydrosphere : Ocean water and their circulation##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c |
Consider the following statements: Prohibition of discrimination on ground of religion is a fundamental right under the right to freedom of religion. Abolition of untouchability and prohibition of its practice is fundamental right under rights against exploitation. Right to free and compulsory education to all children between 6 to 14 years is a fundamental right under Cultural and Educational rights. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct? | 1 only | 1 and 2 only | 2 and 3 only | 1 only | Prohibition of discrimination on ground of religion is a fundamental right under the right to equality under Article 15. (Article 15: Prohibition of Discrimination on Grounds of Religion, Race, Caste, Sex or Place of Birth.) Article 17: Constitution of India. Untouchability is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden The enforcement of any disability arising out of Untouchability shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law. Abolition of untouchability and prohibition of its practice is fundamental right under rights to equality. Right to free and compulsory education to all children between 6 to 14 years is a fundamental right under right to freedom. (Article 21A). Hence, all the statements are incorrect. | d | Fundamental Rights | Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: Prohibition of discrimination on ground of religion is a fundamental right under the right to freedom of religion. Abolition of untouchability and prohibition of its practice is fundamental right under rights against exploitation. Right to free and compulsory education to all children between 6 to 14 years is a fundamental right under Cultural and Educational rights. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Prohibition of discrimination on ground of religion is a fundamental right under the right to equality under Article 15. (Article 15: Prohibition of Discrimination on Grounds of Religion, Race, Caste, Sex or Place of Birth.) Article 17: Constitution of India. Untouchability is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden The enforcement of any disability arising out of Untouchability shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law. Abolition of untouchability and prohibition of its practice is fundamental right under rights to equality. Right to free and compulsory education to all children between 6 to 14 years is a fundamental right under right to freedom. (Article 21A). Hence, all the statements are incorrect.##Topic:Fundamental Rights##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d |
Constitution is referred to as an organic document. Organic, in this context, means: | Original document | Basic law | Evolving with times | Original document | nan | c | Features and Significant Provisions | Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Constitution is referred to as an organic document. Organic, in this context, means:##Option_A:Original document###Option_B:Basic law##Option_C:Evolving with times##Option_D:Original document##Answer:c##Explaination:nan##Topic:Features and Significant Provisions##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c |
What does a limited government refer to in the context of Constitutionalism? | Accountable government with limited powers. | Accountable government with unlimited powers. | Unaccountable government with limited powers. | Accountable government with limited powers. | . | a | Values : Meaning, Types, Nature | Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:What does a limited government refer to in the context of Constitutionalism?##Option_A:Accountable government with limited powers.###Option_B:Accountable government with unlimited powers.##Option_C:Unaccountable government with limited powers.##Option_D:Accountable government with limited powers.##Answer:a##Explaination:.##Topic:Values : Meaning, Types, Nature##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a |
Which of the following groups supported the British during the revolt of 1857? Indian rulers Middle class intelligentia Merchants Select the correct answer using the code given below. | 1 and 2 only | 1 and 3 only | 2 and 3 only | 1 and 2 only | Although the rebels received the sympathy of the people, the country as a whole was not behind them. The merchants, intelligentsia and Indian rulers not only kept aloof, but actively supported the British. Meetings were organized in Calcutta and Bombay by them to pray for the success of the British. Despite the Doctrine of Lapse, the Indian rulers who expected their future to be safer with the British liberally provided them with men and materials. Indeed, the sepoys might have made a better fight of it if they had received their support. | d | no_topic_assigned | Anthropology | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following groups supported the British during the revolt of 1857? Indian rulers Middle class intelligentia Merchants Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Although the rebels received the sympathy of the people, the country as a whole was not behind them. The merchants, intelligentsia and Indian rulers not only kept aloof, but actively supported the British. Meetings were organized in Calcutta and Bombay by them to pray for the success of the British. Despite the Doctrine of Lapse, the Indian rulers who expected their future to be safer with the British liberally provided them with men and materials. Indeed, the sepoys might have made a better fight of it if they had received their support.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d |
Consider the following statements with reference to "Fuse" used in the domestic electric installation They have very high melting point. They are made up of non-metals. They are arranged in series in circuit. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? | 1 only | 2 and 3 only | 3 only | 1 only | Fuse is a piece of wire of a material with a very low melting point. When a high current flows through the circuit due to overloading or a short circuit, the wires gets heated and melts. As a result, the circuit is broken and current stops flowing. The fuse is arranged in series to carry all the current passing through the protected circuit. They are always connected in live wire. The fuse wire is made of zinc, copper, silver, aluminum, or alloys to provide stable and predictable characteristics. Fuse should be of low resistance and low melting point as per the requirement current rating for over current protection. | c | no_topic_assigned | Economics | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with reference to "Fuse" used in the domestic electric installation They have very high melting point. They are made up of non-metals. They are arranged in series in circuit. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Fuse is a piece of wire of a material with a very low melting point. When a high current flows through the circuit due to overloading or a short circuit, the wires gets heated and melts. As a result, the circuit is broken and current stops flowing. The fuse is arranged in series to carry all the current passing through the protected circuit. They are always connected in live wire. The fuse wire is made of zinc, copper, silver, aluminum, or alloys to provide stable and predictable characteristics. Fuse should be of low resistance and low melting point as per the requirement current rating for over current protection.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:c |
With reference to Gold Monetisation Scheme and Sovereign Gold Bonds, consider the following statements: The Gold Monetisation scheme can be implemented by all Scheduled Commercial Banks including Regional Rural Banks. The Sovereign Gold Bonds scheme are issued in exchange of physical gold. In both the schemes, the customers will earn interest in the form of gold. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? | 1 only | 2 and 3 only | 1 and 2 only | 1 only | In order to mobilize gold for productive purpose and to reduce the country's reliance on imports of gold, two main schemes were launched in 2015: (i) the Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme (SGBS) and (ii) the Gold Monetization Scheme (GMS). GMS is intended to mobilise gold held by households and institutions of the country and facilitate its use for productive purposes, and in the long run, to reduce country’s reliance on the import of gold. All Scheduled Commercial Banks excluding RRBs are eligible to implement the scheme. The customer earns an interest rate decided by the bank, which will be exempted from income, wealth or capital gains taxes. Sovereign Gold Bond (SGB): government securities denominated in grams of gold, substitutes for holding physical gold. Investors have to pay the issue price in cash and the bonds will be redeemed in cash on maturity. Bond is issued by Reserve Bank on behalf of Government of India. The risks and costs of storage are eliminated. Investors are assured of the market value of gold at the time of maturity and periodical interest, free from issues like making charges and purity in the case of gold in jewellery form. The Bonds bear interest at the rate of 2.75 per cent (fixed rate) per annum on the amount of initial investment. Interest will be credited semi-annually to the bank account of the investor. | d | no_topic_assigned | Commerce & Accountancy | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Gold Monetisation Scheme and Sovereign Gold Bonds, consider the following statements: The Gold Monetisation scheme can be implemented by all Scheduled Commercial Banks including Regional Rural Banks. The Sovereign Gold Bonds scheme are issued in exchange of physical gold. In both the schemes, the customers will earn interest in the form of gold. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 2 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:In order to mobilize gold for productive purpose and to reduce the country's reliance on imports of gold, two main schemes were launched in 2015: (i) the Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme (SGBS) and (ii) the Gold Monetization Scheme (GMS). GMS is intended to mobilise gold held by households and institutions of the country and facilitate its use for productive purposes, and in the long run, to reduce country’s reliance on the import of gold. All Scheduled Commercial Banks excluding RRBs are eligible to implement the scheme. The customer earns an interest rate decided by the bank, which will be exempted from income, wealth or capital gains taxes. Sovereign Gold Bond (SGB): government securities denominated in grams of gold, substitutes for holding physical gold. Investors have to pay the issue price in cash and the bonds will be redeemed in cash on maturity. Bond is issued by Reserve Bank on behalf of Government of India. The risks and costs of storage are eliminated. Investors are assured of the market value of gold at the time of maturity and periodical interest, free from issues like making charges and purity in the case of gold in jewellery form. The Bonds bear interest at the rate of 2.75 per cent (fixed rate) per annum on the amount of initial investment. Interest will be credited semi-annually to the bank account of the investor. ##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Commerce & Accountancy##Answer:d |
Durand Line is an international border between: | North Korea-South Korea | India-Myanmar | India-Bangladesh | North Korea-South Korea | The Durand Line is an international border between Pakistan and Afghanistan. It was established in 1893 between Sir Mortimer Durand, a British diplomat. Afghanistan was considered by the British as an independent princely state at the time, although the British controlled its foreign affairs and diplomatic relations. | d | no_topic_assigned | Chemistry | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Durand Line is an international border between:##Option_A: North Korea-South Korea###Option_B: India-Myanmar##Option_C: India-Bangladesh##Option_D: North Korea-South Korea##Answer:d##Explaination:The Durand Line is an international border between Pakistan and Afghanistan. It was established in 1893 between Sir Mortimer Durand, a British diplomat. Afghanistan was considered by the British as an independent princely state at the time, although the British controlled its foreign affairs and diplomatic relations.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d |
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has formulated the "Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets" (S4A). It pertains primarily to which of the following? | Timely disposal of cases pending with Debt Recovery Tribunals | Allowing lenders to convert a part of the outstanding amount owed to them into shares. | Refinancing Domestic systemically important banks (D-SIBs). | Timely disposal of cases pending with Debt Recovery Tribunals | Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has formulated the 'Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets' (S4A) as an optional framework for the resolution of large stressed accounts. Banks will be allowed to convert up to half the loans held by corporate borrowers into equity or equity-like securities. The S4A envisages determination of the sustainable debt level for a stressed borrower, and bifurcation of the outstanding debt into sustainable debt and equity/quasi-equity instruments which are expected to provide upside to the lenders when the borrower turns around. In simple terms, a bank can determine the amount of debt that it thinks a firm can service with its current cash flows. This proportion of debt must not be less than half the loans or funded liabilities of the company. Once the sustainable level of debt has been determined, banks can convert the rest of the debt into equity or quasi-equity instruments. | b | no_topic_assigned | Anthropology | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has formulated the "Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets" (S4A). It pertains primarily to which of the following?##Option_A: Timely disposal of cases pending with Debt Recovery Tribunals###Option_B: Allowing lenders to convert a part of the outstanding amount owed to them into shares.##Option_C: Refinancing Domestic systemically important banks (D-SIBs).##Option_D: Timely disposal of cases pending with Debt Recovery Tribunals##Answer:b##Explaination:Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has formulated the 'Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets' (S4A) as an optional framework for the resolution of large stressed accounts. Banks will be allowed to convert up to half the loans held by corporate borrowers into equity or equity-like securities. The S4A envisages determination of the sustainable debt level for a stressed borrower, and bifurcation of the outstanding debt into sustainable debt and equity/quasi-equity instruments which are expected to provide upside to the lenders when the borrower turns around. In simple terms, a bank can determine the amount of debt that it thinks a firm can service with its current cash flows. This proportion of debt must not be less than half the loans or funded liabilities of the company. Once the sustainable level of debt has been determined, banks can convert the rest of the debt into equity or quasi-equity instruments.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b |
With reference to UN Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (UNCRPD), consider the following statements: It places an obligation on signatories to take measure to ensure equal access to persons with disabilities. India is a signatory to the convention. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? | 1 only | 2 only | Both 1 and 2 | 1 only | The purpose of the UN Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (UN CRPD) is to promote, defend and reinforce the human rights of all persons with disabilities. It places obligation on states parties undertake to ensure and promote the full realization of all human rights and fundamental freedoms for all persons with disabilities without discrimination of any kind on the basis of disability. India has signed and ratified the UN Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities | c | no_topic_assigned | Chemistry | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to UN Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (UNCRPD), consider the following statements: It places an obligation on signatories to take measure to ensure equal access to persons with disabilities. India is a signatory to the convention. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The purpose of the UN Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (UN CRPD) is to promote, defend and reinforce the human rights of all persons with disabilities. It places obligation on states parties undertake to ensure and promote the full realization of all human rights and fundamental freedoms for all persons with disabilities without discrimination of any kind on the basis of disability. India has signed and ratified the UN Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c |
With reference to Jainism, consider the following statements: It believes that cycle of life and birth is shaped through karma. It condemned the varna system. It believes that the entire world is animated. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? | 1 and 2 only | 1 and 3 only | 2 and 3 only | 1 and 2 only | The most important idea in Jainism is that the entire world is animated: even stones, rocks and water have life. Non-injury to living beings, especially to humans, animals, plants and insects, is central to Jaina philosophy. In fact the principle of ahimsa, emphasised within Jainism, has left its mark on Indian thinking as a whole. According to Jaina teachings, the cycle of birth and rebirth is shaped through karma. Asceticism and penance are required to free oneself from the cycle of karma. This can be achieved only by renouncing the world; therefore, monastic existence is a necessary condition of salvation. Jaina monks and nuns took five vows: to abstain from killing, stealing and lying; to observe celibacy; and to abstain from possessing property. | b | no_topic_assigned | Geography | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Jainism, consider the following statements: It believes that cycle of life and birth is shaped through karma. It condemned the varna system. It believes that the entire world is animated. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The most important idea in Jainism is that the entire world is animated: even stones, rocks and water have life. Non-injury to living beings, especially to humans, animals, plants and insects, is central to Jaina philosophy. In fact the principle of ahimsa, emphasised within Jainism, has left its mark on Indian thinking as a whole. According to Jaina teachings, the cycle of birth and rebirth is shaped through karma. Asceticism and penance are required to free oneself from the cycle of karma. This can be achieved only by renouncing the world; therefore, monastic existence is a necessary condition of salvation. Jaina monks and nuns took five vows: to abstain from killing, stealing and lying; to observe celibacy; and to abstain from possessing property.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Geography##Answer:b |
Which among the following were Upanishadic thinkers? Gargi Satyakama Jabala Maitreyi Select the correct answer using the code given below. | 1 and 2 only | 1 and 3 only | 2 and 3 only | 1 and 2 only | Most Upanishadic thinkers were men, especially brahmins and rajas. Occasionally, there is mention of women thinkers, such as Gargi and Maitreyi, who were famous for her learning, and participated in debates held in royal courts. Poor people rarely took part in these discussions. One famous exception was Satyakama Jabala, who was named after his mother, the slave woman Jabali. He had a deep desire to learn about reality, was accepted as a student by a Brahmin teacher named Gautama, and became one of the best-known thinkers of the time. Many of the ideas of the Upanishads were later developed by the famous thinker Shankaracharya. | d | no_topic_assigned | Geography | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following were Upanishadic thinkers? Gargi Satyakama Jabala Maitreyi Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Most Upanishadic thinkers were men, especially brahmins and rajas. Occasionally, there is mention of women thinkers, such as Gargi and Maitreyi, who were famous for her learning, and participated in debates held in royal courts. Poor people rarely took part in these discussions. One famous exception was Satyakama Jabala, who was named after his mother, the slave woman Jabali. He had a deep desire to learn about reality, was accepted as a student by a Brahmin teacher named Gautama, and became one of the best-known thinkers of the time. Many of the ideas of the Upanishads were later developed by the famous thinker Shankaracharya.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Geography##Answer:d |
The difference between National and Domestic income is that of: | net indirect taxes | net factor income from abroad | depreciation | net indirect taxes | Domestic Income: "It is the sum total of factor incomes generated by all the production units located within domestic territory of a country during an accounting year. National Income: "It is the sum total of factor incomes earned (generated) by normal residents of a country during an accounting year." Difference: Simply put, income generated by residents and non-residents (i.e., foreigners) within domestic territory of a country is called domestic income and income generated by normal residents within and outside the country is called national income. The difference between the two is net factor income from abroad which is added to domestic income to get national income. | b | no_topic_assigned | Anthropology | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The difference between National and Domestic income is that of:##Option_A: net indirect taxes###Option_B: net factor income from abroad##Option_C: depreciation##Option_D: net indirect taxes##Answer:b##Explaination:Domestic Income: "It is the sum total of factor incomes generated by all the production units located within domestic territory of a country during an accounting year. National Income: "It is the sum total of factor incomes earned (generated) by normal residents of a country during an accounting year." Difference: Simply put, income generated by residents and non-residents (i.e., foreigners) within domestic territory of a country is called domestic income and income generated by normal residents within and outside the country is called national income. The difference between the two is net factor income from abroad which is added to domestic income to get national income.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b |
With reference to working class movement, consider the following statements: There was large scale participation of working class in Swadeshi movement. During Congress rule between 1937-39, the trade union movement showed phenomenal decline. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. | 1 only | 2 only | Both 1 and 2 | 1 only | The Swadeshi upsurge of was a distinct landmark in the history of the labour movement. An official survey pinpointed the rise of the 'professional agitator' and the 'power of organization' of labour into industrial strikes as the two distinct features of this period. The number of strikes rose sharply and many Swadeshi leaders enthusiastically threw themselves into the tasks of organizing stable trade unions, strikes, legal aid, and fund collection drives. Hence, statement 1 is correct. During Congress rule that the trade union movement showed rise after years of lull. It was mainly due to civil liberties under the congress government and pro-labour attitude of many congress ministries. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect | a | no_topic_assigned | General Studies | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to working class movement, consider the following statements: There was large scale participation of working class in Swadeshi movement. During Congress rule between 1937-39, the trade union movement showed phenomenal decline. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The Swadeshi upsurge of was a distinct landmark in the history of the labour movement. An official survey pinpointed the rise of the 'professional agitator' and the 'power of organization' of labour into industrial strikes as the two distinct features of this period. The number of strikes rose sharply and many Swadeshi leaders enthusiastically threw themselves into the tasks of organizing stable trade unions, strikes, legal aid, and fund collection drives. Hence, statement 1 is correct. During Congress rule that the trade union movement showed rise after years of lull. It was mainly due to civil liberties under the congress government and pro-labour attitude of many congress ministries. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a |
With reference to inter-state water disputes, consider the following statements: The Indian constitution has provided for the Supreme Court to exercise jurisdiction in respect of inter-state water disputes. A River Board is established by the Central government for the regulation and development of inter-state rivers and river valley. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? | 1 only | 2 only | Both 1 and 2 | 1 only | Article 262 of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of inter-state water disputes. It makes two provisions: Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution and control of waters of any inter-state river and river valley. Parliament may also provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court is to exercise jurisdiction in respect of any such dispute or complaint. Under this provision, the Parliament has enacted two laws [the River Boards Act (1956) and the Inter-State Water Disputes Act (1956)]. The River Boards Act provides for the establishment of river boards for the regulation and development of inter-state river and river valleys. A river board is established by the Central government on the request of the state governments concerned to advise them. The Inter-State Water Disputes Act empowers the Central government to set up an ad hoc tribunal for adjudication of a dispute between two or more states in relation to the waters of an inter-state river or river valley. The decision of the tribunal would be final and binding on the parties to the dispute. Neither the Supreme Court nor any other court is to have jurisdiction in respect of any water dispute which may be referred to such a tribunal under this Act. | b | no_topic_assigned | Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to inter-state water disputes, consider the following statements: The Indian constitution has provided for the Supreme Court to exercise jurisdiction in respect of inter-state water disputes. A River Board is established by the Central government for the regulation and development of inter-state rivers and river valley. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Article 262 of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of inter-state water disputes. It makes two provisions: Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution and control of waters of any inter-state river and river valley. Parliament may also provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court is to exercise jurisdiction in respect of any such dispute or complaint. Under this provision, the Parliament has enacted two laws [the River Boards Act (1956) and the Inter-State Water Disputes Act (1956)]. The River Boards Act provides for the establishment of river boards for the regulation and development of inter-state river and river valleys. A river board is established by the Central government on the request of the state governments concerned to advise them. The Inter-State Water Disputes Act empowers the Central government to set up an ad hoc tribunal for adjudication of a dispute between two or more states in relation to the waters of an inter-state river or river valley. The decision of the tribunal would be final and binding on the parties to the dispute. Neither the Supreme Court nor any other court is to have jurisdiction in respect of any water dispute which may be referred to such a tribunal under this Act.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b |
Consider the following statements: The labour force participation rates is calculated as the labour force, i.e. both employed and unemployed population, divided by the total working-age population. Worker Population ratio is useful in knowing the proportion of population that is actively contributing to the production of goods and services in the economy. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? | 1 only | 2 only | Both 1 and 2 | 1 only | The labour force participation rates is calculated as the labour force (people employed or actively looking for work) divided by the total working-age population. Worker Population Ratio: The employment-to-population ratio is defined as the proportion of an economy’s working-age population that is employed. As an indicator, the employment-to-population ratio provides information on the ability of an economy to create jobs. Worker population ratio is defined as the number of persons employed per thousand persons. WPR= (No. of employed persons x 1000)/Total population. Worker Population Ratio is an indicator used for analyzing the employment situation in the country. This is also useful in knowing the proportion of population that is actively contributing to the production of goods and services in the economy. | c | no_topic_assigned | Anthropology | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: The labour force participation rates is calculated as the labour force, i.e. both employed and unemployed population, divided by the total working-age population. Worker Population ratio is useful in knowing the proportion of population that is actively contributing to the production of goods and services in the economy. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The labour force participation rates is calculated as the labour force (people employed or actively looking for work) divided by the total working-age population. Worker Population Ratio: The employment-to-population ratio is defined as the proportion of an economy’s working-age population that is employed. As an indicator, the employment-to-population ratio provides information on the ability of an economy to create jobs. Worker population ratio is defined as the number of persons employed per thousand persons. WPR= (No. of employed persons x 1000)/Total population. Worker Population Ratio is an indicator used for analyzing the employment situation in the country. This is also useful in knowing the proportion of population that is actively contributing to the production of goods and services in the economy.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c |
"Situated in Central Asia, it was the world"s fourth largest saline lake. The two rivers that feed it are the Amu Darya and Syr Darya rivers, respectively reaching the Sea through the South and the North. By establishing a program to promote agriculture and especially that of cotton of, it was deprived of its two main sources of water income, which almost immediately led to less water arriving to the water body." Which of the following is best described by the above passage? | Lake Baikal | Dead Sea | Aral Sea | Lake Baikal | The Aral Sea is situated in Central Asia, between the Southern part of Kazakhstan and Northern Uzbekistan. Up until the third quarter of the 20th century it was the world's fourth largest saline lake. The two rivers that feed it are the Amu Darya and Syr Darya rivers, respectively reaching the Sea through the South and the North. The Soviet government decided in the 1960s to divert those rivers so that they could irrigate the desert region surrounding the Sea in order to favor agriculture rather than supply the Aral Sea basin. It almost immediately led to less water arriving to the sea. Not only was all this water being diverted into canals at the expense of the Aral Sea supply, but the majority of it was being soaked up by the desert and blatantly wasted (between 25% and 75% of it, depending on the time period). Level of salinity rose from approximately 10g/l to often more than 100g/l in the remaining Southern Aral. | c | no_topic_assigned | Agriculture | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:"Situated in Central Asia, it was the world"s fourth largest saline lake. The two rivers that feed it are the Amu Darya and Syr Darya rivers, respectively reaching the Sea through the South and the North. By establishing a program to promote agriculture and especially that of cotton of, it was deprived of its two main sources of water income, which almost immediately led to less water arriving to the water body." Which of the following is best described by the above passage?##Option_A: Lake Baikal###Option_B: Dead Sea##Option_C: Aral Sea##Option_D: Lake Baikal##Answer:c##Explaination:The Aral Sea is situated in Central Asia, between the Southern part of Kazakhstan and Northern Uzbekistan. Up until the third quarter of the 20th century it was the world's fourth largest saline lake. The two rivers that feed it are the Amu Darya and Syr Darya rivers, respectively reaching the Sea through the South and the North. The Soviet government decided in the 1960s to divert those rivers so that they could irrigate the desert region surrounding the Sea in order to favor agriculture rather than supply the Aral Sea basin. It almost immediately led to less water arriving to the sea. Not only was all this water being diverted into canals at the expense of the Aral Sea supply, but the majority of it was being soaked up by the desert and blatantly wasted (between 25% and 75% of it, depending on the time period). Level of salinity rose from approximately 10g/l to often more than 100g/l in the remaining Southern Aral.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c |
With reference to Gurudwara reform movement, consider the following statements: It aimed to free Gurudwaras of mahants who were used by government to preach loyalism towards British to Sikhs. Non- violent protests were adopted as means to achieve the goal of the movement. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? | 1 only | 2 only | Both 1 and 2 | 1 only | Gurudwara reform movement arose with the objective of freeing the Gurdwaras (Sikh temples) from the control of ignorant and corrupt mahants (priests). The Government gave full support to the mahants. It used them and the managers to preach loyalism to the Sikhs and to keep them away from the rising nationalist movement. The Sikh reformers and nationalists, on the other hand, wanted a thorough reformation of the Gurdwaras by taking them out of the control of the mahants and agents of the colonial regime. The nationalists were especially horrified by two incidents - - when the priests of the Golden Temple at Amritsar issued a Hukamnama (directive from the Gums or the holy seats of the Sikh authority) against the Ghadarites, declaring them renegades, and then honoured General Dyer, the butcher of Jallianwala massacre, with a saropa (robe of honour) and declared him to be a Sikh. Under the influence of the contemporary Non-Cooperation Movement - and many of the leaders were common to both the movements - the Akali Dal and the SGPC accepted complete non-violence as their creed. | c | no_topic_assigned | General Studies | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Gurudwara reform movement, consider the following statements: It aimed to free Gurudwaras of mahants who were used by government to preach loyalism towards British to Sikhs. Non- violent protests were adopted as means to achieve the goal of the movement. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Gurudwara reform movement arose with the objective of freeing the Gurdwaras (Sikh temples) from the control of ignorant and corrupt mahants (priests). The Government gave full support to the mahants. It used them and the managers to preach loyalism to the Sikhs and to keep them away from the rising nationalist movement. The Sikh reformers and nationalists, on the other hand, wanted a thorough reformation of the Gurdwaras by taking them out of the control of the mahants and agents of the colonial regime. The nationalists were especially horrified by two incidents - - when the priests of the Golden Temple at Amritsar issued a Hukamnama (directive from the Gums or the holy seats of the Sikh authority) against the Ghadarites, declaring them renegades, and then honoured General Dyer, the butcher of Jallianwala massacre, with a saropa (robe of honour) and declared him to be a Sikh. Under the influence of the contemporary Non-Cooperation Movement - and many of the leaders were common to both the movements - the Akali Dal and the SGPC accepted complete non-violence as their creed.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c |
Consider the following statements: Parliament and state legislatures can restrict the fundamental rights of the members of armed forces. Law restricting fundamental rights of armed forces cannot be challenged in any court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? | 1 only | 2 only | Both 1 and 2 | 1 only | Article 33 empowers the Parliament to restrict or abrogate the FR of the members of armed forces, para military forces, police forces, intelligence agencies and analogous forces. This power is conferred only on Parliament and not on state legislatures. Hence, 1st statement is not correct. Any such law made by Parliament cannot be challenged in any court on the ground of contravention of any of the Fundamental Rights. Hence, 2nd statement is correct. A parliamentary law enacted under Article 33 can also exclude the court martials (tribunals established under the military law) from the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the high courts, so far as the enforcement of Fundamental Rights is concerned. | b | no_topic_assigned | Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: Parliament and state legislatures can restrict the fundamental rights of the members of armed forces. Law restricting fundamental rights of armed forces cannot be challenged in any court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Article 33 empowers the Parliament to restrict or abrogate the FR of the members of armed forces, para military forces, police forces, intelligence agencies and analogous forces. This power is conferred only on Parliament and not on state legislatures. Hence, 1st statement is not correct. Any such law made by Parliament cannot be challenged in any court on the ground of contravention of any of the Fundamental Rights. Hence, 2nd statement is correct. A parliamentary law enacted under Article 33 can also exclude the court martials (tribunals established under the military law) from the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the high courts, so far as the enforcement of Fundamental Rights is concerned.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b |
Which of the following are the local storms of hot weather season in India? Mango Shower Blossom Shower Nor Westers Select the correct answer using the code given below. | 1 and 2 only | 1 and 3 only | 2 and 3 only | 1 and 2 only | Famous Local Storms of Hot Weather Season: Mango Shower: Towards the end of summer, there are pre-monsoon showers which are a common phenomena in Kerala and coastal areas of Karnataka. Locally, they are known as mango showers since they help in the early ripening of mangoes. Blossom Shower: With this shower, coffee flowers blossom in Kerala and nearby areas. Nor Westers: These are dreaded evening thunderstorms in Bengal and Assam. Their notorious nature can be understood from the local nomenclature of 'Kalbaisakhi', a calamity of the month of Baisakh. These showers are useful for tea, jute and rice cultivation. In Assam, these storms are known as "Bardoli Chheerha". | d | no_topic_assigned | Agriculture | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following are the local storms of hot weather season in India? Mango Shower Blossom Shower Nor Westers Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Famous Local Storms of Hot Weather Season: Mango Shower: Towards the end of summer, there are pre-monsoon showers which are a common phenomena in Kerala and coastal areas of Karnataka. Locally, they are known as mango showers since they help in the early ripening of mangoes. Blossom Shower: With this shower, coffee flowers blossom in Kerala and nearby areas. Nor Westers: These are dreaded evening thunderstorms in Bengal and Assam. Their notorious nature can be understood from the local nomenclature of 'Kalbaisakhi', a calamity of the month of Baisakh. These showers are useful for tea, jute and rice cultivation. In Assam, these storms are known as "Bardoli Chheerha".##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d |
With reference to the Finance Bill, which of the following is/are correct? It gives effect to the supplementary financial proposals. Unlike the Appropriation Bill, it can be amended. It must be passed within 90 days. Select the correct answer using the code given below. | 1 only | 1 and 2 only | 2 and 3 only | 1 only | Under Rule 219 of the Lok Sabha, the 'Finance Bill' means the Bill ordinarily introduced in each year to give effect to the financial proposals of the Government of India for the next following financial year, and includes a bill to give effect to supplementary financial proposals for any period. It is subjected to all the conditions applicable to a Money Bill. Unlike the Appropriation Bill, the amendments (seeking to reject or reduce a tax) can be moved in the case of Finance Bill. According to the Provisional Collection of Taxes Act of 1931, the Finance Bill must be enacted (i.e. passed by the Parliament and assented to by the President) within 75 days. The Finance Act legalises the income side of the budget and completes the process of the enactment of the budget. | b | no_topic_assigned | Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Finance Bill, which of the following is/are correct? It gives effect to the supplementary financial proposals. Unlike the Appropriation Bill, it can be amended. It must be passed within 90 days. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Under Rule 219 of the Lok Sabha, the 'Finance Bill' means the Bill ordinarily introduced in each year to give effect to the financial proposals of the Government of India for the next following financial year, and includes a bill to give effect to supplementary financial proposals for any period. It is subjected to all the conditions applicable to a Money Bill. Unlike the Appropriation Bill, the amendments (seeking to reject or reduce a tax) can be moved in the case of Finance Bill. According to the Provisional Collection of Taxes Act of 1931, the Finance Bill must be enacted (i.e. passed by the Parliament and assented to by the President) within 75 days. The Finance Act legalises the income side of the budget and completes the process of the enactment of the budget.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b |
Consider the following pairs: Index Published by 1. Human Capital Index : International Monetary Fund 2. Logistics Performance Index : World Bank 3. Gender Inequality Index : United Nations Development Programme Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? | 1 and 2 only | 1 and 3 only | 2 and 3 only | 1 and 2 only | Human Capital Index is released by World Economic Forum. India is ranked at 105 out of the total 130 countries included in the index. Logistics Performance Index is released by World Bank. India’s ranking has jumped from 54 in 2014 to 35 in 2016 in this index. Gender Inequality Index is released by the United Nations Development Programme. | c | no_topic_assigned | Chemistry | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: Index Published by 1. Human Capital Index : International Monetary Fund 2. Logistics Performance Index : World Bank 3. Gender Inequality Index : United Nations Development Programme Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Human Capital Index is released by World Economic Forum. India is ranked at 105 out of the total 130 countries included in the index. Logistics Performance Index is released by World Bank. India’s ranking has jumped from 54 in 2014 to 35 in 2016 in this index. Gender Inequality Index is released by the United Nations Development Programme.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c |
India"s offshore and deep sea fishing is very poor as only 10-12 per cent of potential is caught at present. Which of the following is/are the prominent reasons for this? Tropical Climate Monsoonal Climate Lack of gulfs, bays and estuaries Select the correct answer using the code given below. | 1 only | 1 and 2 only | 2 and 3 only | 1 only | India's offshore and deep sea fish is very poor as only 10-12 per cent of potential is caught at present. Following is/are the prominent reasons for this sad state of affairs – Tropical Climate: India has tropical climate in which fish cannot be preserved for a long time and spoils very quickly. Indian coast does not have many gulfs, bays, estuaries and backwaters as is the case with Norway. As such, it lacks good fishing grounds. Monsoonal Climate: Marine fishing in India is a seasonal phenomena. Strong winds during the monsoon season accompanied by tropical cyclones often hinder fishing operations. | d | no_topic_assigned | Agriculture | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:India"s offshore and deep sea fishing is very poor as only 10-12 per cent of potential is caught at present. Which of the following is/are the prominent reasons for this? Tropical Climate Monsoonal Climate Lack of gulfs, bays and estuaries Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:India's offshore and deep sea fish is very poor as only 10-12 per cent of potential is caught at present. Following is/are the prominent reasons for this sad state of affairs – Tropical Climate: India has tropical climate in which fish cannot be preserved for a long time and spoils very quickly. Indian coast does not have many gulfs, bays, estuaries and backwaters as is the case with Norway. As such, it lacks good fishing grounds. Monsoonal Climate: Marine fishing in India is a seasonal phenomena. Strong winds during the monsoon season accompanied by tropical cyclones often hinder fishing operations.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d |
Which of the following leaders was/were associated with the Ghadar movement? Lala Har Dayal Rash Behari Bose Sachindranath Sanyal Select the correct answer using the code given below. | 1 only | 1 and 3 only | 2 and 3 only | 1 only | Lala Har Dayal founded the Ghadar Party in America. After finding limited support in Punjab frantically, the Ghadar made an attempt to find a leader; Bengali revolutionaries were contacted and through the efforts of Sachindranath Sanyal and Vishnu Ganesh Pingley, Rash Behari Bose, the Bengali revolutionary who had become famous by his daring attack on Hardinge, the Viceroy, finally arrived in Punjab in mid-January 1915 to assume leadership of the revolt. | d | no_topic_assigned | General Studies | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following leaders was/were associated with the Ghadar movement? Lala Har Dayal Rash Behari Bose Sachindranath Sanyal Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Lala Har Dayal founded the Ghadar Party in America. After finding limited support in Punjab frantically, the Ghadar made an attempt to find a leader; Bengali revolutionaries were contacted and through the efforts of Sachindranath Sanyal and Vishnu Ganesh Pingley, Rash Behari Bose, the Bengali revolutionary who had become famous by his daring attack on Hardinge, the Viceroy, finally arrived in Punjab in mid-January 1915 to assume leadership of the revolt.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:General Studies##Answer:d |
With reference to Government of India Act, 1919, consider the following statements: It provided separate electorates for Anglo Indians and Europeans. It introduced direct elections in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? | 1 only | 2 only | Both 1 and 2 | 1 only | Statement 1 is correct. Government of India act, 1919 provided for separate electorate for Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo Indians and Europeans, but for Muslims it was provided by Government of India Act, 1909 by Lord Minto who came to be known as the father of communal electorates. Statement 2 is correct. Government of India act, 1919 also introduced for the first time bicameralism and direct elections in the country. | c | no_topic_assigned | General Studies | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Government of India Act, 1919, consider the following statements: It provided separate electorates for Anglo Indians and Europeans. It introduced direct elections in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. Government of India act, 1919 provided for separate electorate for Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo Indians and Europeans, but for Muslims it was provided by Government of India Act, 1909 by Lord Minto who came to be known as the father of communal electorates. Statement 2 is correct. Government of India act, 1919 also introduced for the first time bicameralism and direct elections in the country.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c |
Which of the following rivers form meanders in its youth stage? | Indus | Jhelum | Tista | Indus | Srinagar, capital city of the state of Jammu and Kashmir is located on the banks of Jhelum river. Dal Lake in Srinagar presents an interesting physical feature. Jhelum in the valley of Kashmir is still in its youth stage and yet forms meanders - a typical feature associated with the mature stage in the evolution of fluvial land form. The meanders in Jhelum river are caused by the local base level provided by the erstwhile larger lake of which the present Dal Lake is a small part. | b | no_topic_assigned | Agriculture | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following rivers form meanders in its youth stage?##Option_A: Indus###Option_B: Jhelum##Option_C: Tista##Option_D: Indus##Answer:b##Explaination:Srinagar, capital city of the state of Jammu and Kashmir is located on the banks of Jhelum river. Dal Lake in Srinagar presents an interesting physical feature. Jhelum in the valley of Kashmir is still in its youth stage and yet forms meanders - a typical feature associated with the mature stage in the evolution of fluvial land form. The meanders in Jhelum river are caused by the local base level provided by the erstwhile larger lake of which the present Dal Lake is a small part.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b |
Which among the following is a part of United Kingdom but not of Great Britain? | Ireland | Scotland | Wales | Ireland | United Kingdom includes England, Scotland, Wales and Northern Ireland. Great Britain is an island which comprises of England, Scotland and Wales. | d | no_topic_assigned | Chemistry | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following is a part of United Kingdom but not of Great Britain?##Option_A: Ireland###Option_B: Scotland##Option_C: Wales##Option_D: Ireland##Answer:d##Explaination:United Kingdom includes England, Scotland, Wales and Northern Ireland. Great Britain is an island which comprises of England, Scotland and Wales.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d |
Recently, government came out with Model Shops and Establishments (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service) Bill, 2016. It is aimed at Creating many more job opportunities for women. Improving the working conditions of workers. Providing favourable environment for doing business. Select the correct answer using the code given below. | 1 only | 1 and 2 only | 2 and 3 only | 1 only | The Model Shops and Establishments (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service) Bill, 2016 is aimed at improving the working conditions of workers creating many more job opportunities for women and providing favourable environment for doing business. Workers' Rights and Welfare measures: The Model law provides for provision of common Latrines and urinals, Crèche, Canteen facility by a group of employers, which is a very progressive step. It provides paid holidays for the workers which will be 18 days Earned Leaves, 8 days Causal Leaves, weekly holiday and 5 festival leaves in addition to National holidays. Women: Allowing employment of women in night shifts, will enhance the gender diversity at work places and will also do away with the “protective discrimination” faced by women, who were exempted from working in night shift. The establishments will have to ensure safety and better working conditions for female employees by providing facilities such as late-night drops and creches. Business: The Model law would help the small shops from the restriction of opening and closing working hrs. and weekly close day. The provision of operating 24X7 is expected to boost up the retail market across the country and will give customer flexibility and convenience to shop any time. | d | no_topic_assigned | Chemistry | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Recently, government came out with Model Shops and Establishments (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service) Bill, 2016. It is aimed at Creating many more job opportunities for women. Improving the working conditions of workers. Providing favourable environment for doing business. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The Model Shops and Establishments (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service) Bill, 2016 is aimed at improving the working conditions of workers creating many more job opportunities for women and providing favourable environment for doing business. Workers' Rights and Welfare measures: The Model law provides for provision of common Latrines and urinals, Crèche, Canteen facility by a group of employers, which is a very progressive step. It provides paid holidays for the workers which will be 18 days Earned Leaves, 8 days Causal Leaves, weekly holiday and 5 festival leaves in addition to National holidays. Women: Allowing employment of women in night shifts, will enhance the gender diversity at work places and will also do away with the “protective discrimination” faced by women, who were exempted from working in night shift. The establishments will have to ensure safety and better working conditions for female employees by providing facilities such as late-night drops and creches. Business: The Model law would help the small shops from the restriction of opening and closing working hrs. and weekly close day. The provision of operating 24X7 is expected to boost up the retail market across the country and will give customer flexibility and convenience to shop any time.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d |
Which of the following bodies are associated with the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code 2016? Debt Recovery Tribunal National Company Law Tribunal Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India Select the correct answer using the code given below. | 1 and 2 only | 3 only | 1 and 3 only | 1 and 2 only | As per the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code 2016: Debt Recovery Tribunal and National Company Law Tribunal will act as Adjudicating Authority and deal with the cases related to insolvency, liquidation and bankruptcy process in respect of individuals and unlimited partnership firms and in respect of companies and limited liabilities entities respectively. An Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India will be established to exercise regulatory oversight over insolvency professionals, insolvency professional agencies and information utilities. | d | no_topic_assigned | Anthropology | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following bodies are associated with the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code 2016? Debt Recovery Tribunal National Company Law Tribunal Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:As per the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code 2016: Debt Recovery Tribunal and National Company Law Tribunal will act as Adjudicating Authority and deal with the cases related to insolvency, liquidation and bankruptcy process in respect of individuals and unlimited partnership firms and in respect of companies and limited liabilities entities respectively. An Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India will be established to exercise regulatory oversight over insolvency professionals, insolvency professional agencies and information utilities.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d |
Headquarter of IAEA is situated at | London | Vienna | Ottawa | London | , | b | Nuclear Fuel cycle in India, Nuclear fusion and Nuclear fission | Economics | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Headquarter of IAEA is situated at##Option_A:London###Option_B:Vienna##Option_C:Ottawa##Option_D:London##Answer:b##Explaination:,##Topic:Nuclear Fuel cycle in India, Nuclear fusion and Nuclear fission##Subject:Economics##Answer:b |
Fabrication comes at what stage in the Nuclear energy cycle and disposal? | After enrichment stage | Before enrichment stage | Just after survey and exploration stage | After enrichment stage | , | b | No_topic | Economics | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Fabrication comes at what stage in the Nuclear energy cycle and disposal?##Option_A:After enrichment stage###Option_B:Before enrichment stage##Option_C:Just after survey and exploration stage##Option_D:After enrichment stage##Answer:b##Explaination:,##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Economics##Answer:b |
A nuclear reactor has reached critical stage means | Stage when chain reaction can be initiated | When it goes out of control | When it shuts down and stop producing power | Stage when chain reaction can be initiated | , | a | Nuclear Fuel cycle in India, Nuclear fusion and Nuclear fission | Economics | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:A nuclear reactor has reached critical stage means##Option_A:Stage when chain reaction can be initiated###Option_B:When it goes out of control##Option_C:When it shuts down and stop producing power##Option_D:Stage when chain reaction can be initiated##Answer:a##Explaination:,##Topic:Nuclear Fuel cycle in India, Nuclear fusion and Nuclear fission##Subject:Economics##Answer:a |
Which of the following rivers have their origin in the Aravalli Range? Sabarmati Mahi Luni Banas Select the correct answer using the code given below. | 1, 3 and 4 only | 2 and 3 only | 2 and 4 only | 1, 3 and 4 only | Aravalli Range gives rise to several rivers, including the Banas, Luni, Sakhi, and Sabarmati. Mahi rises in the western Vindhya Range and flows into the Arabian sea. | a | no_topic_assigned | Agriculture | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following rivers have their origin in the Aravalli Range? Sabarmati Mahi Luni Banas Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 3 and 4 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 3 and 4 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Aravalli Range gives rise to several rivers, including the Banas, Luni, Sakhi, and Sabarmati. Mahi rises in the western Vindhya Range and flows into the Arabian sea.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a |
Consider the following statements about Tribunals: All tribunals can be established both by the Parliament and the State legislatures. Judicial remedies are available against the orders of tribunals. Administrative tribunal is guided by the principals of natural justice. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? | 1 and 2 only | 1 and 3 only | 2 and 3 only | 1 and 2 only | The original Constitution did not contain provisions with respect to tribunals. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added a new Part XIV-A to the Constitution entitled as 'Tribunals' and consists of two Articles- 323 A dealing with administrative tribunals and 323 B dealing with tribunals for other matters. While tribunals under 323 A can be established only by Parliament, those under 323 B can be established both by the Parliament and state legislatures with respect to matters falling within their legislative competence. In Chandra Kumar case, the Supreme Court declared those provisions of these two articles which excluded the jurisdiction of the high courts and the Supreme Court as unconstitutional. Hence, the judicial remedies are now available against the orders of these tribunals. The Central Administrative tribunal is not bound by the procedure laid down in the Civil Procedure Code of 1908. It is guided by the principles of natural justice. | c | no_topic_assigned | Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about Tribunals: All tribunals can be established both by the Parliament and the State legislatures. Judicial remedies are available against the orders of tribunals. Administrative tribunal is guided by the principals of natural justice. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The original Constitution did not contain provisions with respect to tribunals. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added a new Part XIV-A to the Constitution entitled as 'Tribunals' and consists of two Articles- 323 A dealing with administrative tribunals and 323 B dealing with tribunals for other matters. While tribunals under 323 A can be established only by Parliament, those under 323 B can be established both by the Parliament and state legislatures with respect to matters falling within their legislative competence. In Chandra Kumar case, the Supreme Court declared those provisions of these two articles which excluded the jurisdiction of the high courts and the Supreme Court as unconstitutional. Hence, the judicial remedies are now available against the orders of these tribunals. The Central Administrative tribunal is not bound by the procedure laid down in the Civil Procedure Code of 1908. It is guided by the principles of natural justice.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c |
With reference to the Khond uprising, consider the following statements: It was against the government’s attempt to suppress the practice of human sacrifice. The movement led by Sidho and Kanho was confined to Punjab. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. | 1 only | 2 only | Both 1 and 2 | 1 only | Khond uprising from 1837 to 1856 were directed against the British, in which tribal of Ghumsar, china-ki-medi, kalahandi and Patna actively participated. The movement was led by Chakra Bisoi in the name of young Raja. The main issue was the attempt by the government to suppress human sacrifice - Mariah System (Traditional Human Sacrifice practiced by the Khonds), introduction of new taxes, influx of Zamindars and sahookars into their areas. The British formed a Mariah Agency to counter this movement. Sidho and Kanho were leaders of Santhal uprising. Hence, statement 2 is wrong. | a | no_topic_assigned | General Studies | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Khond uprising, consider the following statements: It was against the government’s attempt to suppress the practice of human sacrifice. The movement led by Sidho and Kanho was confined to Punjab. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Khond uprising from 1837 to 1856 were directed against the British, in which tribal of Ghumsar, china-ki-medi, kalahandi and Patna actively participated. The movement was led by Chakra Bisoi in the name of young Raja. The main issue was the attempt by the government to suppress human sacrifice - Mariah System (Traditional Human Sacrifice practiced by the Khonds), introduction of new taxes, influx of Zamindars and sahookars into their areas. The British formed a Mariah Agency to counter this movement. Sidho and Kanho were leaders of Santhal uprising. Hence, statement 2 is wrong.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a |
Consider the following conventions: The Hague Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction The U.N. Convention on Child Rights Which of the above conventions is/are signed by India? | 1 only | 2 only | Both 1 and 2 | 1 only | The United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child (commonly abbreviated as the CRC, CROC, or UNCRC) is a human rights treaty which sets out the civil, political, economic, social, health and cultural rights of children. India is a signatory. The Hague Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction or Hague Abduction Convention is a multilateral treaty developed by the Hague Conference on Private International Law (HCCH) that provides an expeditious method to return a child internationally abducted by a parent from one member country to another. India is not a signatory. | b | no_topic_assigned | Chemistry | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following conventions: The Hague Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction The U.N. Convention on Child Rights Which of the above conventions is/are signed by India?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child (commonly abbreviated as the CRC, CROC, or UNCRC) is a human rights treaty which sets out the civil, political, economic, social, health and cultural rights of children. India is a signatory. The Hague Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction or Hague Abduction Convention is a multilateral treaty developed by the Hague Conference on Private International Law (HCCH) that provides an expeditious method to return a child internationally abducted by a parent from one member country to another. India is not a signatory.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b |
Which of the following crops is/are grown in all three cropping seasons - Kharif, Rabi and Zaid in India? Rice Maize Wheat Groundnut Select the correct answer using the code given below. | 1 only | 1 and 3 only | 1, 2 and 4 only | 1 only | Zaid Season: Traditionally some vegetables and fruits are grown in this season. Now with the provision of irrigation facilities rice, maize, groundnut and some pulses like moong and urad are successfully grown as zaid crop. | c | no_topic_assigned | Agriculture | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following crops is/are grown in all three cropping seasons - Kharif, Rabi and Zaid in India? Rice Maize Wheat Groundnut Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Zaid Season: Traditionally some vegetables and fruits are grown in this season. Now with the provision of irrigation facilities rice, maize, groundnut and some pulses like moong and urad are successfully grown as zaid crop. ##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c |
As per the guidelines of the Ministry of Finance, PPP projects in which of the following sectors can be considered for Viability Gap Funding? Inland waterways Power Solid Waste Management Tourism Infrastructure Select the correct answer using the code given below. | 1 and 2 only | 3 and 4 only | 1, 2 and 3 only | 1 and 2 only | Public Private Partnership (PPP) Project means a project based on a contract or concession agreement, between a Government or statutory entity on the one side and a private sector company on the other side, for delivering an infrastructure service on payment of user charges. Viability Gap Funding or Grant means a grant one-time or deferred, provided with the objective of making a project commercially viable. The common PPP Projects eligible for VGF are from the sectors: (i) Roads and bridges, railways, seaports, airports, inland waterways; (ii) Power; (iii)Urban transport, water supply, sewerage, solid waste management and other physical infrastructure in urban areas; (iv) Infrastructure projects in Special Economic Zones; and (v) International convention centres and other tourism infrastructure projects; | d | no_topic_assigned | Anthropology | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:As per the guidelines of the Ministry of Finance, PPP projects in which of the following sectors can be considered for Viability Gap Funding? Inland waterways Power Solid Waste Management Tourism Infrastructure Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Public Private Partnership (PPP) Project means a project based on a contract or concession agreement, between a Government or statutory entity on the one side and a private sector company on the other side, for delivering an infrastructure service on payment of user charges. Viability Gap Funding or Grant means a grant one-time or deferred, provided with the objective of making a project commercially viable. The common PPP Projects eligible for VGF are from the sectors: (i) Roads and bridges, railways, seaports, airports, inland waterways; (ii) Power; (iii)Urban transport, water supply, sewerage, solid waste management and other physical infrastructure in urban areas; (iv) Infrastructure projects in Special Economic Zones; and (v) International convention centres and other tourism infrastructure projects;##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d |
The movement initially opposed by C.R. Das was adopted at the Nagpur session of the congress. Upon its launch the movement received overwhelming response from all the sections including students and lawyers. The movement was later withdrawn through Bardoli resolution. Which of the following movements has been described above? | Civil Disobedience movement | Non Cooperation movement | Swadeshi movement | Civil Disobedience movement | The Congress met in September at Calcutta and accepted non-cooperation as its own. The main opposition, led by C.R.Das, was to the boycott of legislative councils, elections to which were to be held very soon. But even those who disagreed with the idea of boycott accepted the Congress discipline and withdrew from the elections. By December, when the Congress met for its annual session at Nagpur, the opposition had melted away; the elections were over and, therefore, the boycott of councils was a non-issue, and it was CR. Das who moved the main resolution on non-cooperation. The adoption of the Non-Cooperation Movement (initiated earlier by the Khilafat Conference) by the Congress gave it a new energy and, from January 1921, it began to register considerable success all over the country. In the first month itself, thousands of students (90,000 according to one estimate) left schools and colleges and joined more than 800 national schools and colleges that had sprung up all over the country. Many leading lawyers of the country, like C.R. Das, Motilal Nehru, M.R. Jayakar, Saifuddin Kitchlew, Vallabhbhai Patel, C. Rajagopalachari, T. Prakasam and Asaf Ali gave up lucrative practices. The Congress Working Committee of 12 February 1922 through the Bardoli resolution announced the withdrawal of the non - cooperation movement. | b | no_topic_assigned | General Studies | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The movement initially opposed by C.R. Das was adopted at the Nagpur session of the congress. Upon its launch the movement received overwhelming response from all the sections including students and lawyers. The movement was later withdrawn through Bardoli resolution. Which of the following movements has been described above?##Option_A: Civil Disobedience movement###Option_B: Non Cooperation movement##Option_C: Swadeshi movement ##Option_D: Civil Disobedience movement##Answer:b##Explaination:The Congress met in September at Calcutta and accepted non-cooperation as its own. The main opposition, led by C.R.Das, was to the boycott of legislative councils, elections to which were to be held very soon. But even those who disagreed with the idea of boycott accepted the Congress discipline and withdrew from the elections. By December, when the Congress met for its annual session at Nagpur, the opposition had melted away; the elections were over and, therefore, the boycott of councils was a non-issue, and it was CR. Das who moved the main resolution on non-cooperation. The adoption of the Non-Cooperation Movement (initiated earlier by the Khilafat Conference) by the Congress gave it a new energy and, from January 1921, it began to register considerable success all over the country. In the first month itself, thousands of students (90,000 according to one estimate) left schools and colleges and joined more than 800 national schools and colleges that had sprung up all over the country. Many leading lawyers of the country, like C.R. Das, Motilal Nehru, M.R. Jayakar, Saifuddin Kitchlew, Vallabhbhai Patel, C. Rajagopalachari, T. Prakasam and Asaf Ali gave up lucrative practices. The Congress Working Committee of 12 February 1922 through the Bardoli resolution announced the withdrawal of the non - cooperation movement.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b |
Consider the following statements about Preamble: It is based on the Objectives Resolution moved by Pandit Nehru. It stipulates January 26, 1950 as the date of the adoption of the Constitution. It states that it derives its authority from the Parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? | 1 only | 1 and 2 only | 2 and 3 only | 1 only | The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the objective resolution, moved by Pandit Nehru. It stipulates November 26, 1949 as the date of the adoption of the Constitution. The Preamble states that the constitution derives its authority from the people of India. Hence, only statements 1 is correct . 2nd and 3rd statements is incorrect. | a | no_topic_assigned | Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about Preamble: It is based on the Objectives Resolution moved by Pandit Nehru. It stipulates January 26, 1950 as the date of the adoption of the Constitution. It states that it derives its authority from the Parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the objective resolution, moved by Pandit Nehru. It stipulates November 26, 1949 as the date of the adoption of the Constitution. The Preamble states that the constitution derives its authority from the people of India. Hence, only statements 1 is correct . 2nd and 3rd statements is incorrect.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a |
Union Government has constituted Shankar Acharya Committee for which of the following purpose? | to suggest ways to reduce accidents in railways. | to examine desirability and feasibility of new financial year. | to suggest ways to increase the tax base. | to suggest ways to reduce accidents in railways. | The Government has constituted a Committee to examine the desirability and feasibility of having 'a new financial year’. The Committee is headed by Dr. Shankar Acharya (former Chief Economic Adviser). It will examine the merits and demerits of various dates for the commencement of the financial year including the existing date (April to March), taking into account the various relevant factors. | b | no_topic_assigned | Chemistry | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Union Government has constituted Shankar Acharya Committee for which of the following purpose?##Option_A: to suggest ways to reduce accidents in railways.###Option_B: to examine desirability and feasibility of new financial year.##Option_C: to suggest ways to increase the tax base.##Option_D: to suggest ways to reduce accidents in railways.##Answer:b##Explaination:The Government has constituted a Committee to examine the desirability and feasibility of having 'a new financial year’. The Committee is headed by Dr. Shankar Acharya (former Chief Economic Adviser). It will examine the merits and demerits of various dates for the commencement of the financial year including the existing date (April to March), taking into account the various relevant factors.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b |
With reference to Home Rule agitation, consider the following statements: The moderates in the Indian National Congress did not participate in it. The members Servants of India Society provided support to the Home Rule leagues in their agitations. It did not attract any repression from the government as they did not advocate overthrow of British rule. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? | 1 only | 2 only | 1 and 2 only | 1 only | Many Moderate Congressmen, who were dissatisfied with the inactivity into which the Congress had lapsed, joined the Home Rule agitation. Members of Gokhale’s Servants of India Society, though not permitted to become members of the League, were encouraged to add their weight to the demand for Home Rule by undertaking lecture tours and publishing pamphlets. The increasing popularity of the Home Rule Movement soon attracted the Government’s wrath. The Government of Madras was the most harsh and first came out with an order banning students from attending political meetings. | b | no_topic_assigned | General Studies | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Home Rule agitation, consider the following statements: The moderates in the Indian National Congress did not participate in it. The members Servants of India Society provided support to the Home Rule leagues in their agitations. It did not attract any repression from the government as they did not advocate overthrow of British rule. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 2 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Many Moderate Congressmen, who were dissatisfied with the inactivity into which the Congress had lapsed, joined the Home Rule agitation. Members of Gokhale’s Servants of India Society, though not permitted to become members of the League, were encouraged to add their weight to the demand for Home Rule by undertaking lecture tours and publishing pamphlets. The increasing popularity of the Home Rule Movement soon attracted the Government’s wrath. The Government of Madras was the most harsh and first came out with an order banning students from attending political meetings.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b |
The term "Einstein Ring" which was recently discovered by scientists is: | a proof to explain the theory of cosmic inflation, a concept of exponential expansion of space in the early universe just after big bang. | a cosmologial phenoemenon which occurs after collison of heavy bodies like Neutron stars and Black Holes in space. | a distorted image of a distant galaxy produced by the bending of the light rays due to another massive galaxy through gravitational lensing. | a proof to explain the theory of cosmic inflation, a concept of exponential expansion of space in the early universe just after big bang. | In observational astronomy an Einstein ring, also known as an Einstein-Chwolson ring or Chwolson ring, is the deformation of the light from a source (such as a galaxy or star) into a ring through gravitational lensing of the source's light by an object with an extremely large mass (such as another galaxy or a black hole). This occurs when the source, lens, and observer are all aligned. | c | no_topic_assigned | Economics | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The term "Einstein Ring" which was recently discovered by scientists is:##Option_A: a proof to explain the theory of cosmic inflation, a concept of exponential expansion of space in the early universe just after big bang.###Option_B: a cosmologial phenoemenon which occurs after collison of heavy bodies like Neutron stars and Black Holes in space.##Option_C: a distorted image of a distant galaxy produced by the bending of the light rays due to another massive galaxy through gravitational lensing.##Option_D: a proof to explain the theory of cosmic inflation, a concept of exponential expansion of space in the early universe just after big bang.##Answer:c##Explaination:In observational astronomy an Einstein ring, also known as an Einstein-Chwolson ring or Chwolson ring, is the deformation of the light from a source (such as a galaxy or star) into a ring through gravitational lensing of the source's light by an object with an extremely large mass (such as another galaxy or a black hole). This occurs when the source, lens, and observer are all aligned.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:c |
Which of the following is/are the characteristics of recession? General fall in demand High inflation Fall in employment rate Select the correct answer using the code given below. | 1 and 2 only | 1 and 3 only | 2 and 3 only | 1 and 2 only | Recession is a mild form of depression, the major traits of which are: General fall in demand as economic activities take a down turn. Low inflation, showing further signs of falling down. Fall in employment rate. Price cuts by industries to sustain their business. | b | no_topic_assigned | Anthropology | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are the characteristics of recession? General fall in demand High inflation Fall in employment rate Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Recession is a mild form of depression, the major traits of which are: General fall in demand as economic activities take a down turn. Low inflation, showing further signs of falling down. Fall in employment rate. Price cuts by industries to sustain their business.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b |
Which among the following places were associated with the life of Mahatama Gandhi? Natal Transvaal Pietermaritzburg Select the correct answer using the code given below. | 1 and 2 only | 1 and 3 only | 2 and 3 only | 1 and 2 only | Mahatama Gandhi established Phoenix settlement in Natal in 1904 inspired by reading of John Ruskin's Unto This Last, a work that extolled the virtues of the simple life of love, labour, and the dignity of human beings. Gandhi helped establish the Natal Indian Congress and the Transvaal British Indian Association to make representations to the authorities. He encouraged the youth to participate in public work and provided free legal services to indentured labourers. He organied satyagraha movement in the Transvaal against the Asiatic Registration Act of 1907 and the Transvaal Immigration Act. Pietermaritzburg was where Gandhiji was evicted from a train in 1893 for refusing to obey an order to move from a first-class compartment because of his race. | d | no_topic_assigned | General Studies | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following places were associated with the life of Mahatama Gandhi? Natal Transvaal Pietermaritzburg Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Mahatama Gandhi established Phoenix settlement in Natal in 1904 inspired by reading of John Ruskin's Unto This Last, a work that extolled the virtues of the simple life of love, labour, and the dignity of human beings. Gandhi helped establish the Natal Indian Congress and the Transvaal British Indian Association to make representations to the authorities. He encouraged the youth to participate in public work and provided free legal services to indentured labourers. He organied satyagraha movement in the Transvaal against the Asiatic Registration Act of 1907 and the Transvaal Immigration Act. Pietermaritzburg was where Gandhiji was evicted from a train in 1893 for refusing to obey an order to move from a first-class compartment because of his race.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:General Studies##Answer:d |
Reserve Bank of India recently came out with the "Payment and Settlement Systems in India: Vision-2018". It pertains to which of the following? | Restructuring stressed assets of wilful defaulters. | Encouraging the use of electronic payment. | Guidelines for infrastructural lending. | Restructuring stressed assets of wilful defaulters. | Payment and settlement systems are used to settle financial transactions (such as clearing cheques). "Payment and Settlement Systems in India: Vision-2018” aims at building best of class payment and settlement systems for a 'less-cash' India. It aims to encourage greater use of electronic payments by all sections of society so as to achieve a “less-cash” society". RBI aims to further bring down the share of paper-based transactions through means such as cheques, increase usage of digital channels, boost the customer base for mobile banking and push for greater Aadhaar usage. | b | no_topic_assigned | Chemistry | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Reserve Bank of India recently came out with the "Payment and Settlement Systems in India: Vision-2018". It pertains to which of the following?##Option_A: Restructuring stressed assets of wilful defaulters.###Option_B: Encouraging the use of electronic payment.##Option_C: Guidelines for infrastructural lending.##Option_D: Restructuring stressed assets of wilful defaulters.##Answer:b##Explaination:Payment and settlement systems are used to settle financial transactions (such as clearing cheques). "Payment and Settlement Systems in India: Vision-2018” aims at building best of class payment and settlement systems for a 'less-cash' India. It aims to encourage greater use of electronic payments by all sections of society so as to achieve a “less-cash” society". RBI aims to further bring down the share of paper-based transactions through means such as cheques, increase usage of digital channels, boost the customer base for mobile banking and push for greater Aadhaar usage.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b |
Which among the following factors facilitated the entry of extremists in Congress in 1916? Efforts of Annie Besant Support provided by Pherozshah Mehta Inactivity in Congress after Surat split. Select the correct answer using the code given below. | 1 and 2 only | 1 and 3 only | 2 and 3 only | 1 and 2 only | Many of the Moderate leaders of the Congress were also unhappy with the choice they had made in 1907 at Surat, and also with the fact that the Congress had lapsed into almost total inactivity. They were, therefore, quite sympathetic to Tilak’s overtures. Further, they were under considerable pressure from Mrs. Annie Besant, who had just joined the Indian National Congress and was keen to arouse nationalist political activity, to admit the Extremists. At the annual Congress session in December 1914 Pherozeshah Mehta and his Bombay Moderate group opposed the entry of Extremists. | b | no_topic_assigned | General Studies | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following factors facilitated the entry of extremists in Congress in 1916? Efforts of Annie Besant Support provided by Pherozshah Mehta Inactivity in Congress after Surat split. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Many of the Moderate leaders of the Congress were also unhappy with the choice they had made in 1907 at Surat, and also with the fact that the Congress had lapsed into almost total inactivity. They were, therefore, quite sympathetic to Tilak’s overtures. Further, they were under considerable pressure from Mrs. Annie Besant, who had just joined the Indian National Congress and was keen to arouse nationalist political activity, to admit the Extremists. At the annual Congress session in December 1914 Pherozeshah Mehta and his Bombay Moderate group opposed the entry of Extremists.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b |
Which among the following cave paintings belong to the Gupta period? Ajanta cave paintings Bagh cave paintings Lomas Rishi cave paintings Select the correct answer using the code given below. | 1 and 2 only | 1 and 3 only | 2 and 3 only | 1 and 2 only | The Gupta Empire existed between 320 to 550 AD. There are only two known examples of cave paintings of the Gupta period in ancient India. One of these is paintings of Ajanta Caves and other Bagh caves. The world famous paintings at Ajanta also fall into two broad phases. The earliest is noticed in the form of fragmentary specimens in cave nos. 9 & 10, which are datable to second century B.C. The headgear and other ornaments of the images in these paintings resemble the bas-relief sculpture of Sanchi and Bharhut. The second phase of paintings started around 5th – 6th centuries A.D. and continued for the next two centuries. There are seven Buddhist rock cut caves situated on the bank of Baghini river. These consist of Viharas stupa in chaitya hall and residential cells. There are several sculptures of Buddha and Boddhisattvas and was one covered lavishly with painting of which there are some traces now. A painting of the bodhisattva Padmapani, of these caves is reputed as a prototype of the well- known Padmapani figure at Ajanta. The rock cut caves were quarried between 5th -6th century AD. Bagh Caves: The Bagh Caves are a group of nine rock-cut monuments, situated among the southern slopes of the Vindhyas in Bagh town of Dhar district in Madhya Pradesh state in central India. These are examples of Indian rock-cut architecture. The Bagh caves, like those at Ajanta, were excavated by master craftsmen on perpendicular sandstone rock face of a hill on the far bank of a seasonal stream, the Baghani. Buddhist in inspiration, of the nine caves, only five have survived. Lomash caves: The Lomas Rishi Cave, is a sacred architectural feature located in the Barabar and Nagarjuni hills of Jehanabad district in the Indian state of Bihar. This rock-cut cave was carved out as a sanctuary. It was built during the Ashokan period of the Maurya Empire in the 3rd century BC, for Ajivikas. | a | no_topic_assigned | Geology | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following cave paintings belong to the Gupta period? Ajanta cave paintings Bagh cave paintings Lomas Rishi cave paintings Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The Gupta Empire existed between 320 to 550 AD. There are only two known examples of cave paintings of the Gupta period in ancient India. One of these is paintings of Ajanta Caves and other Bagh caves. The world famous paintings at Ajanta also fall into two broad phases. The earliest is noticed in the form of fragmentary specimens in cave nos. 9 & 10, which are datable to second century B.C. The headgear and other ornaments of the images in these paintings resemble the bas-relief sculpture of Sanchi and Bharhut. The second phase of paintings started around 5th – 6th centuries A.D. and continued for the next two centuries. There are seven Buddhist rock cut caves situated on the bank of Baghini river. These consist of Viharas stupa in chaitya hall and residential cells. There are several sculptures of Buddha and Boddhisattvas and was one covered lavishly with painting of which there are some traces now. A painting of the bodhisattva Padmapani, of these caves is reputed as a prototype of the well- known Padmapani figure at Ajanta. The rock cut caves were quarried between 5th -6th century AD. Bagh Caves: The Bagh Caves are a group of nine rock-cut monuments, situated among the southern slopes of the Vindhyas in Bagh town of Dhar district in Madhya Pradesh state in central India. These are examples of Indian rock-cut architecture. The Bagh caves, like those at Ajanta, were excavated by master craftsmen on perpendicular sandstone rock face of a hill on the far bank of a seasonal stream, the Baghani. Buddhist in inspiration, of the nine caves, only five have survived. Lomash caves: The Lomas Rishi Cave, is a sacred architectural feature located in the Barabar and Nagarjuni hills of Jehanabad district in the Indian state of Bihar. This rock-cut cave was carved out as a sanctuary. It was built during the Ashokan period of the Maurya Empire in the 3rd century BC, for Ajivikas.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Geology##Answer:a |
Certain minerals occur as alluvial deposits called placer deposits. Which of the following are found as placer deposits? Gold Silver Platinum Tin Select the correct answer using the code given below. | 1, 2 and 3 only | 1 and 3 only | 2 and 4 only | 1, 2 and 3 only | Certain minerals may occur as alluvial deposits in sands of valley floors and the base of hills. These deposits are called ‘placer deposits’ and generally contain minerals, which are not corroded by water. Gold, silver, tin and platinum are most important among such minerals. | d | no_topic_assigned | Agriculture | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Certain minerals occur as alluvial deposits called placer deposits. Which of the following are found as placer deposits? Gold Silver Platinum Tin Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Certain minerals may occur as alluvial deposits in sands of valley floors and the base of hills. These deposits are called ‘placer deposits’ and generally contain minerals, which are not corroded by water. Gold, silver, tin and platinum are most important among such minerals.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d |
With reference to departmentally related standing committees, consider the following statements: These are permanent and regular bodies. A minister is not eligible to be nominated for any of the standing committees. All parliamentary bills are referred to these committees. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? | 1 only | 1 and 2 only | 1 and 3 only | 1 only | 17 departmentally related standing committees were set up in 1993. In 2004, seven more such committees were set up increasing their number from 17 to 24. These 24 committees cover all ministries/departments of the central government. These are permanent and regular bodies. The main objective is to secure more accountability of the executive to the Parliament. Each standing committee consists of 31 members (21 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha). These are nominated by the speaker/chairman. A minister is not eligible to be nominated as a member of any of the standing committees . In case a member, after his nomination to any of the standing committees, is appointed a minister, he then ceases to be a member of the committee. Most bills are referred to such committees but this is not a mandatory requirement before passing a bill. In some cases, if a bill is not referred to a committee and passed by one house, the other house may constitute a select committee for detailed examination. The select committee is different as it's an ad hoc committee. Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct. | b | no_topic_assigned | Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to departmentally related standing committees, consider the following statements: These are permanent and regular bodies. A minister is not eligible to be nominated for any of the standing committees. All parliamentary bills are referred to these committees. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:1 and 2 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:17 departmentally related standing committees were set up in 1993. In 2004, seven more such committees were set up increasing their number from 17 to 24. These 24 committees cover all ministries/departments of the central government. These are permanent and regular bodies. The main objective is to secure more accountability of the executive to the Parliament. Each standing committee consists of 31 members (21 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha). These are nominated by the speaker/chairman. A minister is not eligible to be nominated as a member of any of the standing committees . In case a member, after his nomination to any of the standing committees, is appointed a minister, he then ceases to be a member of the committee. Most bills are referred to such committees but this is not a mandatory requirement before passing a bill. In some cases, if a bill is not referred to a committee and passed by one house, the other house may constitute a select committee for detailed examination. The select committee is different as it's an ad hoc committee. Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b |
Which of the following regions is also referred to as the "Molassis basin"? | Manipur | Mizoram | Nagaland | Manipur | Mizoram which is also known as the 'Molassis basin'. It is made up of soft unconsolidated deposits. | b | no_topic_assigned | Agriculture | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following regions is also referred to as the "Molassis basin"?##Option_A: Manipur###Option_B: Mizoram##Option_C: Nagaland##Option_D: Manipur##Answer:b##Explaination:Mizoram which is also known as the 'Molassis basin'. It is made up of soft unconsolidated deposits.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b |
Which of the following provisions of the constitution of India deals with the upliftment of the weaker section? Fundamental Rights DPSP Eleventh Schedule Twelfth Schedule Select the correct answer using the code given below. | 1 and 2 only | 1, 3 and 4 only | 2, 3 and 4 only | 1 and 2 only | Weaker section of society comprises of sc, st, obc, women, children, disabled and elderly Following provisions of the constitution deals with the upliftment of the weaker section Fundamenta Rights: A16 (abolition of untouchability); A15; A24 (prohibition of employment of children in factories) DPSP: A46 (promotion of educational and economic interest of sc, st and other backward classes) Eleventh Schedule: entry 27 : welfare of the weaker section Twelfth Schedule: entry9: safeguarding the interest of the weaker section | d | no_topic_assigned | Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following provisions of the constitution of India deals with the upliftment of the weaker section? Fundamental Rights DPSP Eleventh Schedule Twelfth Schedule Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Weaker section of society comprises of sc, st, obc, women, children, disabled and elderly Following provisions of the constitution deals with the upliftment of the weaker section Fundamenta Rights: A16 (abolition of untouchability); A15; A24 (prohibition of employment of children in factories) DPSP: A46 (promotion of educational and economic interest of sc, st and other backward classes) Eleventh Schedule: entry 27 : welfare of the weaker section Twelfth Schedule: entry9: safeguarding the interest of the weaker section##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d |
Terahertz imaging is an emerging and significant technology. It has has recently attracted a lot of attention due to | its ability to detect defect and see through in everyday objects. | its high resolution which can detect gravitational waves. | its usage in polar regions where normal imaging techniques don"t work. | its ability to detect defect and see through in everyday objects. | TERAHERTZ imaging, which exists between the microwave and infrared wavelengths, has recently attracted attention for its ability to “see through” everyday objects. Among other things, it has been used to detect defects in space shuttle panels and uncover the material composition and substructure of paintings and murals. Current terahertz devices remain inherently slow, invasive, and better suited to non-biological materials. Besides, they are extremely expensive to manufacture. The British scientist Rayko Stantchev and associates have devised a new type of apparatus that could spur the development of cheaper, easier-to-manufacture terahertz imaging systems. | a | no_topic_assigned | Economics | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Terahertz imaging is an emerging and significant technology. It has has recently attracted a lot of attention due to##Option_A: its ability to detect defect and see through in everyday objects.###Option_B: its high resolution which can detect gravitational waves.##Option_C: its usage in polar regions where normal imaging techniques don"t work.##Option_D: its ability to detect defect and see through in everyday objects.##Answer:a##Explaination:TERAHERTZ imaging, which exists between the microwave and infrared wavelengths, has recently attracted attention for its ability to “see through” everyday objects. Among other things, it has been used to detect defects in space shuttle panels and uncover the material composition and substructure of paintings and murals. Current terahertz devices remain inherently slow, invasive, and better suited to non-biological materials. Besides, they are extremely expensive to manufacture. The British scientist Rayko Stantchev and associates have devised a new type of apparatus that could spur the development of cheaper, easier-to-manufacture terahertz imaging systems.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:a |
Consider the following statements: Tertiary coal is of younger age as compared to Gondwana Coal. Both tertiary and gondwana coal have high percentage of moisture and sulphur. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? | 1 only | 2 only | Both 1 and 2 | 1 only | The coal bearing strata of India are geologically classified into two main categories: Gondwana Coal: It is said to be about 250 million years old. The volatile compounds and ash are present in too large a proportion to allow the carbon percentage to rise above 55 to 60. The Gondwana coal is almost free from moisture, but it contains sulphur and phosphorus in small variable quantities. Tertiary Coal: It bears coals of younger age; from 15 to 60 million years. This coal generally has low carbon and high percentage of moisture and sulphur. | a | no_topic_assigned | Agriculture | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: Tertiary coal is of younger age as compared to Gondwana Coal. Both tertiary and gondwana coal have high percentage of moisture and sulphur. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The coal bearing strata of India are geologically classified into two main categories: Gondwana Coal: It is said to be about 250 million years old. The volatile compounds and ash are present in too large a proportion to allow the carbon percentage to rise above 55 to 60. The Gondwana coal is almost free from moisture, but it contains sulphur and phosphorus in small variable quantities. Tertiary Coal: It bears coals of younger age; from 15 to 60 million years. This coal generally has low carbon and high percentage of moisture and sulphur.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a |
With reference to the recently launched National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme, consider the following statements: It proposes to work pro-actively with the industry including MSME to facilitate skill development. It incentivizes employers to engage apprentices by 50% stipend payable to an apprentice by Government of India. It is being implemented under Ministry of Human resources and development. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? | 1 only | 2 and 3 only | 1 and 3 only | 1 only | National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme: The Scheme targets of 50 lakh apprentices to be trained by 2019-20. The Scheme would be implemented by Director General of Training (DGT) under Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE). It provides for incentivizing employers to engage apprentices. 25% of the total stipend payable to an apprentice would be shared with employers directly by Government of India. It is for the first time a scheme has been designed to offer financial incentives to employers to engage apprentices. In addition, it also supports basic training, which is an essential component of apprenticeship training. 50% of the total expenditure incurred on providing basic training would be supported by Government of India. | a | no_topic_assigned | Chemistry | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the recently launched National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme, consider the following statements: It proposes to work pro-actively with the industry including MSME to facilitate skill development. It incentivizes employers to engage apprentices by 50% stipend payable to an apprentice by Government of India. It is being implemented under Ministry of Human resources and development. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme: The Scheme targets of 50 lakh apprentices to be trained by 2019-20. The Scheme would be implemented by Director General of Training (DGT) under Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE). It provides for incentivizing employers to engage apprentices. 25% of the total stipend payable to an apprentice would be shared with employers directly by Government of India. It is for the first time a scheme has been designed to offer financial incentives to employers to engage apprentices. In addition, it also supports basic training, which is an essential component of apprenticeship training. 50% of the total expenditure incurred on providing basic training would be supported by Government of India.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a |
Consider the following statements about RIMPAC (Rim of the Pacific): It is the world"s largest international maritime exercise. In 2016, India also participated in the exercise. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? | 1 only | 2 only | Both 1 and 2 | 1 only | RIMPAC, the Rim of the Pacific Exercise, is the world's largest international maritime warfare exercise. It is hosted and administered by the United States Navy's Pacific Fleet. It involves forces from Australia, Canada, New Zealand, the United Kingdom (UK), and the United States (US). Australia, Canada, and the US have participated in every RIMPAC since then. Other regular participants are Chile, Colombia, France, Indonesia, Japan, Malaysia, the Netherlands, Peru, Singapore, South Korea, Thailand, and the UK. In pursuance of India's Act East Policy and demonstration of India’s commitment to peace and prosperity of Indo-Pacific region, Indian Naval ship Satpura arrived at Hawaii on 30 Jun 2016 to participate in the 25th edition of Exercise RIMPAC. | c | no_topic_assigned | Chemistry | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about RIMPAC (Rim of the Pacific): It is the world"s largest international maritime exercise. In 2016, India also participated in the exercise. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:RIMPAC, the Rim of the Pacific Exercise, is the world's largest international maritime warfare exercise. It is hosted and administered by the United States Navy's Pacific Fleet. It involves forces from Australia, Canada, New Zealand, the United Kingdom (UK), and the United States (US). Australia, Canada, and the US have participated in every RIMPAC since then. Other regular participants are Chile, Colombia, France, Indonesia, Japan, Malaysia, the Netherlands, Peru, Singapore, South Korea, Thailand, and the UK. In pursuance of India's Act East Policy and demonstration of India’s commitment to peace and prosperity of Indo-Pacific region, Indian Naval ship Satpura arrived at Hawaii on 30 Jun 2016 to participate in the 25th edition of Exercise RIMPAC.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c |
Which of the following are the functions of Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)? Prohibiting insider trading in securities Education of investors Regulation of mutual funds Select the correct answer using the codes given below. | 1 only | 1 and 2 only | 2 and 3 only | 1 only | Functions of SEBI: Protective functions Developmental functions Regulatory functions. 1. Protective Functions: These functions are performed by SEBI to protect the interest of investor and provide safety of investment. As protective functions SEBI performs following functions: It Checks Price Rigging: Price rigging refers to manipulating the prices of securities with the main objective of inflating or depressing the market price of securities. SEBI prohibits such practice because this can defraud and cheat the investors. Prohibiting insider trading in securities. SEBI prohibits fraudulent and Unfair Trade Practices: SEBI does not allow the companies to make misleading statements which are likely to induce the sale or purchase of securities by any other person. SEBI undertakes steps to educate investors so that they are able to evaluate the securities of various companies and select the most profitable securities. SEBI promotes fair practices and code of conduct in security markets by taking steps such as: Issuing guidelines to protect the interest of debenture-holders wherein companies cannot change terms in midterm; investigating cases of insider trading imposing stiff fines and imprisonment, SEBI has stopped the practice of making preferential allotment of shares unrelated to market prices. 2. Developmental Functions: These functions are performed by the SEBI to promote and develop activities in stock exchange and increase the business in stock exchange. Under developmental categories following functions are performed by SEBI: SEBI promotes training of intermediaries, education of investors of the securities market. Facilitates better trading: internet trading through registered stock brokers, allowing initial public offers of primary market through stock exchanges. 3. Regulatory Functions: These functions are performed by SEBI to regulate the business in stock exchange. To regulate the activities of stock exchange following functions are performed: SEBI has framed rules and regulations and a code of conduct to regulate the intermediaries such as merchant bankers, brokers, underwriters, etc. These intermediaries have been brought under the regulatory purview and private placement has been made more restrictive. SEBI registers and regulates the working of stock brokers, sub-brokers, share transfer agents, trustees, merchant bankers and all those who are associated with stock exchange in any manner. SEBI registers and regulates the working of mutual funds etc. SEBI regulates takeover of the companies. SEBI conducts inquiries and audit of stock exchanges. | d | no_topic_assigned | Anthropology | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following are the functions of Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)? Prohibiting insider trading in securities Education of investors Regulation of mutual funds Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Functions of SEBI: Protective functions Developmental functions Regulatory functions. 1. Protective Functions: These functions are performed by SEBI to protect the interest of investor and provide safety of investment. As protective functions SEBI performs following functions: It Checks Price Rigging: Price rigging refers to manipulating the prices of securities with the main objective of inflating or depressing the market price of securities. SEBI prohibits such practice because this can defraud and cheat the investors. Prohibiting insider trading in securities. SEBI prohibits fraudulent and Unfair Trade Practices: SEBI does not allow the companies to make misleading statements which are likely to induce the sale or purchase of securities by any other person. SEBI undertakes steps to educate investors so that they are able to evaluate the securities of various companies and select the most profitable securities. SEBI promotes fair practices and code of conduct in security markets by taking steps such as: Issuing guidelines to protect the interest of debenture-holders wherein companies cannot change terms in midterm; investigating cases of insider trading imposing stiff fines and imprisonment, SEBI has stopped the practice of making preferential allotment of shares unrelated to market prices. 2. Developmental Functions: These functions are performed by the SEBI to promote and develop activities in stock exchange and increase the business in stock exchange. Under developmental categories following functions are performed by SEBI: SEBI promotes training of intermediaries, education of investors of the securities market. Facilitates better trading: internet trading through registered stock brokers, allowing initial public offers of primary market through stock exchanges. 3. Regulatory Functions: These functions are performed by SEBI to regulate the business in stock exchange. To regulate the activities of stock exchange following functions are performed: SEBI has framed rules and regulations and a code of conduct to regulate the intermediaries such as merchant bankers, brokers, underwriters, etc. These intermediaries have been brought under the regulatory purview and private placement has been made more restrictive. SEBI registers and regulates the working of stock brokers, sub-brokers, share transfer agents, trustees, merchant bankers and all those who are associated with stock exchange in any manner. SEBI registers and regulates the working of mutual funds etc. SEBI regulates takeover of the companies. SEBI conducts inquiries and audit of stock exchanges.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d |
Consider the following pairs: Peninsula Associated Country 1. Kamchatka Peninsula : Japan 2. Anatolian Peninsula : Turkey 3. Labrador Peninsula : Canada Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? | 1 and 2 only | 1 and 3 only | 2 and 3 only | 1 and 2 only | Kamchatka Peninsula: Kamchatka is a peninsula in Russian Far East lying between the Sea of Okhotsk on the west and the Pacific Ocean and Bering Sea on the east. Nineteen of Kamchatka's volcanoes constitute the "Volcanoes of Kamchatka" UNESCO World Heritage Site. Anatolain Peninsula: Anatolia or Asia Minor, is a peninsular landmass comprising the Asian portion of the modern Republic of Turkey. Geographically, the region is bounded by the Black Sea to the north, the Caucasus to the northeast, the Aegean Sea to the west, the Mediterranean Sea to the south, Greater Syria (Upper Mesopotamia) to the southeast and Transcaucasia and the Iranian plateau to the east. Labrador Peninsula: a peninsular region of eastern Canada between Hudson Bay and the Labrador Sea; contains most of Quebec and the mainland part of Newfoundland and Labrador. | c | no_topic_assigned | Agriculture | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: Peninsula Associated Country 1. Kamchatka Peninsula : Japan 2. Anatolian Peninsula : Turkey 3. Labrador Peninsula : Canada Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Kamchatka Peninsula: Kamchatka is a peninsula in Russian Far East lying between the Sea of Okhotsk on the west and the Pacific Ocean and Bering Sea on the east. Nineteen of Kamchatka's volcanoes constitute the "Volcanoes of Kamchatka" UNESCO World Heritage Site. Anatolain Peninsula: Anatolia or Asia Minor, is a peninsular landmass comprising the Asian portion of the modern Republic of Turkey. Geographically, the region is bounded by the Black Sea to the north, the Caucasus to the northeast, the Aegean Sea to the west, the Mediterranean Sea to the south, Greater Syria (Upper Mesopotamia) to the southeast and Transcaucasia and the Iranian plateau to the east. Labrador Peninsula: a peninsular region of eastern Canada between Hudson Bay and the Labrador Sea; contains most of Quebec and the mainland part of Newfoundland and Labrador.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c |
Which of the following statements regarding Andaman and Nicobar Islands is/are NOT correct? They are separated by a water body called the Eleventh degree channel. Majority of islands are believed to be of volcanic origin. These islands receive frontal and orographic rainfall. Select the correct answer using the code given below. | 1 and 2 only | 1 and 3 only | 2 and 3 only | 1 and 2 only | Andaman and Nicobar Islands are separated by a water body which is called the Ten degree channel. Therefore, statement 1 is not correct. It is believed that these islands are an elevated portion of submarine mountains. However, some smaller islands are volcanic in origin. Therefore, statement 2 is not correct. These islands receive convectional rainfall and not frontal and orographic rainfall. Therefore, statement 3 is not correct. | d | no_topic_assigned | Agriculture | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements regarding Andaman and Nicobar Islands is/are NOT correct? They are separated by a water body called the Eleventh degree channel. Majority of islands are believed to be of volcanic origin. These islands receive frontal and orographic rainfall. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Andaman and Nicobar Islands are separated by a water body which is called the Ten degree channel. Therefore, statement 1 is not correct. It is believed that these islands are an elevated portion of submarine mountains. However, some smaller islands are volcanic in origin. Therefore, statement 2 is not correct. These islands receive convectional rainfall and not frontal and orographic rainfall. Therefore, statement 3 is not correct.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d |
With reference to the Constitutional position of the President and Governor, consider the following statements: If any question arises whether a matter falls within the governor’s discretion or not, the decision of the governor is final, whereas, no such discretion is provided to the President. The council of minister"s advice has been made binding on the President, but no such provision has been made with respect to the Governor. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? | 1 only | 2 only | Both 1 and 2 | 1 only | Constitutional position of the governor differs from that of the president in the following two respects: While the Constitution envisages the possibility of the governor acting at times in his discretion, no such possibility has been envisaged for the President. After the 42nd Constitutional Amendment (1976), ministerial advice has been made binding on the President, but no such provision has been made with respect to the governor. The Constitution makes it clear that if any question arises whether a matter falls within the governor’s discretion or not, the decision of the governor is final and the validity of anything done by him cannot be called in question on the ground that he ought or ought not to have acted in his discretion. | c | no_topic_assigned | Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Constitutional position of the President and Governor, consider the following statements: If any question arises whether a matter falls within the governor’s discretion or not, the decision of the governor is final, whereas, no such discretion is provided to the President. The council of minister"s advice has been made binding on the President, but no such provision has been made with respect to the Governor. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Constitutional position of the governor differs from that of the president in the following two respects: While the Constitution envisages the possibility of the governor acting at times in his discretion, no such possibility has been envisaged for the President. After the 42nd Constitutional Amendment (1976), ministerial advice has been made binding on the President, but no such provision has been made with respect to the governor. The Constitution makes it clear that if any question arises whether a matter falls within the governor’s discretion or not, the decision of the governor is final and the validity of anything done by him cannot be called in question on the ground that he ought or ought not to have acted in his discretion.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c |
The Union Cabinet has approved setting up of "Fund of Funds" for Startups. In this context consider the following statements: It has been set up under Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI). It is in line with the Start up India Action Plan of Union Government. It aims to tackle the limited availability of domestic risk capital to start-ups. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? | 1 and 2 only | 2 and 3 only | 3 only | 1 and 2 only | The Union Cabinet has approved the establishment of "Fund of Funds for Startups" (FFS) at Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) for contribution to various Alternative Investment Funds (AIF), registered with Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) which would extend funding support to Startups. This is in line with the Startup India Action Plan. Start-ups face several challenges - limited availability of domestic risk capital, constraints of conventional bank finance, information asymmetry and lack of hand holding support from credible agencies. A large majority of the successful Start-ups have been funded by foreign venture funds and many of them are locating outside the country to receive such funding. | d | no_topic_assigned | Chemistry | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Union Cabinet has approved setting up of "Fund of Funds" for Startups. In this context consider the following statements: It has been set up under Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI). It is in line with the Start up India Action Plan of Union Government. It aims to tackle the limited availability of domestic risk capital to start-ups. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The Union Cabinet has approved the establishment of "Fund of Funds for Startups" (FFS) at Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) for contribution to various Alternative Investment Funds (AIF), registered with Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) which would extend funding support to Startups. This is in line with the Startup India Action Plan. Start-ups face several challenges - limited availability of domestic risk capital, constraints of conventional bank finance, information asymmetry and lack of hand holding support from credible agencies. A large majority of the successful Start-ups have been funded by foreign venture funds and many of them are locating outside the country to receive such funding.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d |
With reference to Parliamentary privileges, consider the following statements: Though President is part of the Parliament, the parliamentary privileges do not extend to him. Disobedience to a legitimate order of the House is a breach of privilege. The parliament has made special law to codify all the privileges. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? | 1 only | 1 and 2 only | 1, 2 and 3 | 1 only | Statement 1 is correct. Parliamentary privileges are accorded only to the members of the House not to the president. Statement 2 is incorrect. Disobedience to a legitimate order of the House is not a breach of privilege, but can be punished as contempt of the House. Statement 3 is incorrect. So far no law has been passed to codify all the privileges. | a | no_topic_assigned | Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Parliamentary privileges, consider the following statements: Though President is part of the Parliament, the parliamentary privileges do not extend to him. Disobedience to a legitimate order of the House is a breach of privilege. The parliament has made special law to codify all the privileges. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. Parliamentary privileges are accorded only to the members of the House not to the president. Statement 2 is incorrect. Disobedience to a legitimate order of the House is not a breach of privilege, but can be punished as contempt of the House. Statement 3 is incorrect. So far no law has been passed to codify all the privileges.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a |
With reference to the Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR), consider the following statements: It aims to slow the spread of missiles and other unmanned delivery technology that could be used for chemical, biological and nuclear attacks. It works under the aegis of United Nations. It imposes legally binding obligations on its member countries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? | 1 only | 1 and 2 only | 2 and 3 only | 1 only | Established in April 1987, it is a voluntary association of 35 countries with the recent addition of India as its member country in June 2017. The group aims to slow the spread of missiles and other unmanned delivery technology that could be used for chemical, biological and nuclear attacks. The regime urges members, which include most of the world’s major missile manufacturers, to restrict exports of missiles and related technologies capable of carrying a 500 kg payload at least 300 km, or delivering any type of weapon of mass destruction. There is no formal linkage between MTCR and United Nations. The MTCR is not a treaty and does not impose any legally binding obligations on Partners (members). Rather, it is an informal political understanding among states that seek to limit the proliferation of missiles and missile technology. | a | no_topic_assigned | Chemistry | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR), consider the following statements: It aims to slow the spread of missiles and other unmanned delivery technology that could be used for chemical, biological and nuclear attacks. It works under the aegis of United Nations. It imposes legally binding obligations on its member countries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Established in April 1987, it is a voluntary association of 35 countries with the recent addition of India as its member country in June 2017. The group aims to slow the spread of missiles and other unmanned delivery technology that could be used for chemical, biological and nuclear attacks. The regime urges members, which include most of the world’s major missile manufacturers, to restrict exports of missiles and related technologies capable of carrying a 500 kg payload at least 300 km, or delivering any type of weapon of mass destruction. There is no formal linkage between MTCR and United Nations. The MTCR is not a treaty and does not impose any legally binding obligations on Partners (members). Rather, it is an informal political understanding among states that seek to limit the proliferation of missiles and missile technology.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a |
Consider the following statements regarding "O" horizon found in soil profile: It largely consists of minerals with very little organic material. It is generally absent in forested areas. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? | 1 only | 2 only | Both 1 and 2 | 1 only | A soil horizon makes up a distinct layer of soil. The horizon runs roughly parallel to the soil surface and has different properties and characteristics than the adjacent layers above and below. The soil profile is a vertical section of the soil that depicts all of its horizons. The soil profile extends from the soil surface to the parent rock material. There are 5 master horizons in the soil profile. Not all soil profiles contain all 5 horizons; and so, soil profiles differ from one location to another. O: The O horizon is a surface horizon that is comprised of organic material at various stages of decomposition. It is most prominent in forested areas where there is the accumulation of debris fallen from trees. A: The A horizon is a surface horizon that largely consists of minerals (sand, silt, and clay) and with appreciable amounts of organic matter. This horizon is predominantly the surface layer of many soils in grasslands and agricultural lands. E: The E horizon is a subsurface horizon that has been heavily leached. Leaching is the process in which soluble nutrients are lost from the soil due to precipitation or irrigation. The horizon is typically light in color. It is generally found beneath the O horizon. B: The B horizon is a subsurface horizon that has accumulated from the layer(s) above. It is a site of deposition of certain minerals that have leached from the layer(s) above. C: The C horizon is a subsurface horizon. It is the least weathered horizon. Also known as the saprolite, it is unconsolidated, loose parent material. | c | no_topic_assigned | Agriculture | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding "O" horizon found in soil profile: It largely consists of minerals with very little organic material. It is generally absent in forested areas. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:A soil horizon makes up a distinct layer of soil. The horizon runs roughly parallel to the soil surface and has different properties and characteristics than the adjacent layers above and below. The soil profile is a vertical section of the soil that depicts all of its horizons. The soil profile extends from the soil surface to the parent rock material. There are 5 master horizons in the soil profile. Not all soil profiles contain all 5 horizons; and so, soil profiles differ from one location to another. O: The O horizon is a surface horizon that is comprised of organic material at various stages of decomposition. It is most prominent in forested areas where there is the accumulation of debris fallen from trees. A: The A horizon is a surface horizon that largely consists of minerals (sand, silt, and clay) and with appreciable amounts of organic matter. This horizon is predominantly the surface layer of many soils in grasslands and agricultural lands. E: The E horizon is a subsurface horizon that has been heavily leached. Leaching is the process in which soluble nutrients are lost from the soil due to precipitation or irrigation. The horizon is typically light in color. It is generally found beneath the O horizon. B: The B horizon is a subsurface horizon that has accumulated from the layer(s) above. It is a site of deposition of certain minerals that have leached from the layer(s) above. C: The C horizon is a subsurface horizon. It is the least weathered horizon. Also known as the saprolite, it is unconsolidated, loose parent material.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c |
Consider the following statements regarding Rajya Sabha elections: There is no model code of conduct for the elections of Rajya Sabha. All the members of a state legislative assembly take part in voting. All the states have equal representation in Rajya Sabha. Select the correct answer using the code given below. | 1 only | 1 and 2 only | 2 and 3 only | 1 only | There is no concept of model code of conduct for Rajya Sabha elections. The representatives of states in the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of state legislative Assemblies (not nominated members). The election is held with the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote. The seats are allotted to the states on the basis of population, hence states have varying representation in Rajya Sabha. Out of seven UTs, only two (Delhi and Pondicherry) have representation in Rajya Sabha. States do not have equal representation in Rajya Sabha. | a | no_topic_assigned | Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Rajya Sabha elections: There is no model code of conduct for the elections of Rajya Sabha. All the members of a state legislative assembly take part in voting. All the states have equal representation in Rajya Sabha. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:There is no concept of model code of conduct for Rajya Sabha elections. The representatives of states in the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of state legislative Assemblies (not nominated members). The election is held with the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote. The seats are allotted to the states on the basis of population, hence states have varying representation in Rajya Sabha. Out of seven UTs, only two (Delhi and Pondicherry) have representation in Rajya Sabha. States do not have equal representation in Rajya Sabha.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a |
Which of the following signify characteristics of "democratic elections in India"? Universal Adult franchise. Independent and powerful Election Commission The losing parties accept the electoral verdict. Select the correct answer using the code given below. | 1 and 2 only | 1 and 3 only | 2 and 3 only | 1 and 2 only | Characteristics of democratic elections in India: Election Commission of India is independent and powerful. In India, everyone above the age of 18 has a right to vote i.e. universal adult franchise. In India, the losing parties accept the electoral verdict i.e. free and fair election takes place where those currently in power have a fair chance of losing and acceptance of electoral verdict by the losing parties. | d | no_topic_assigned | Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following signify characteristics of "democratic elections in India"? Universal Adult franchise. Independent and powerful Election Commission The losing parties accept the electoral verdict. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Characteristics of democratic elections in India: Election Commission of India is independent and powerful. In India, everyone above the age of 18 has a right to vote i.e. universal adult franchise. In India, the losing parties accept the electoral verdict i.e. free and fair election takes place where those currently in power have a fair chance of losing and acceptance of electoral verdict by the losing parties.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d |
Consider the following statements about recently approved India Post Payments Bank (IPPB):
It aims to utilize the post office branches to provide financial inclusion.
It will not undertake lending service.
It will work under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
| 1 only
| 2 and 3 only
| 1 and 3 only
| 1 only
|
The Union Cabinet has approved for setting up the India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) as a Public Limited Company under the Department of Posts (which is under Ministry of Communications and IT), with 100% Government of India (GOI) equity.
The India Post Payments Bank will leverage the Department’s network, reach, and resources to make simple, low-cost, quality financial services easily accessible to customers all over the country.
A Payments Bank can hold a maximum balance of Rs 1 lakh per customer; can an issue ATM/debit cards but not credit cards; offer payments and remittance services; deal in simple financial products like mutual fund units and insurance products. They, however, cannot undertake lending service.
| d | no_topic_assigned | Chemistry | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements about recently approved India Post Payments Bank (IPPB):
It aims to utilize the post office branches to provide financial inclusion.
It will not undertake lending service.
It will work under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
The Union Cabinet has approved for setting up the India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) as a Public Limited Company under the Department of Posts (which is under Ministry of Communications and IT), with 100% Government of India (GOI) equity.
The India Post Payments Bank will leverage the Department’s network, reach, and resources to make simple, low-cost, quality financial services easily accessible to customers all over the country.
A Payments Bank can hold a maximum balance of Rs 1 lakh per customer; can an issue ATM/debit cards but not credit cards; offer payments and remittance services; deal in simple financial products like mutual fund units and insurance products. They, however, cannot undertake lending service.
##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d |
The term "Skyglow" sometimes seen in news is associated with: | Aurora Borealis | Solar flares | Light pollution | Aurora Borealis | 'Sky glow' is the brightness of the night sky in a built-up area as a result of light pollution. Light pollution is defined as light wastefully escaping into the night sky and causing a glow over urban/suburban areas. Sky glow is of particular irritation to astronomers, because it reduces contrast in the night sky to the extent where it may even become impossible to see the brightest stars. An Aurora is a natural light display in the sky. The Aurora Borealis (Northern Lights) and Aurora Australis (Southern Lights) are the result of electrons colliding with the upper reaches of Earth's atmosphere. | c | no_topic_assigned | Economics | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The term "Skyglow" sometimes seen in news is associated with:##Option_A: Aurora Borealis###Option_B: Solar flares##Option_C: Light pollution##Option_D: Aurora Borealis##Answer:c##Explaination:'Sky glow' is the brightness of the night sky in a built-up area as a result of light pollution. Light pollution is defined as light wastefully escaping into the night sky and causing a glow over urban/suburban areas. Sky glow is of particular irritation to astronomers, because it reduces contrast in the night sky to the extent where it may even become impossible to see the brightest stars. An Aurora is a natural light display in the sky. The Aurora Borealis (Northern Lights) and Aurora Australis (Southern Lights) are the result of electrons colliding with the upper reaches of Earth's atmosphere.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:c |
Consider the following sources of irrigation: Tank Irrigation Well and Tubewell Irrigation Canal Irrigation For which of the above sources share in the total irrigated area in the country has increased since independence? | 1 and 3 only | 2 only | 2 and 3 only | 1 and 3 only | Tank Irrigation: The ratio of tank irrigated land to the total irrigated land of the country has reduced from 14 per cent at the time of independence to about 3 per cent at present. Canal Irrigation: The ratio of canal irrigated land to the total irrigated land of the country has reduced from about 40 per cent at the time of independence to about 26 per cent at present. So, percentage of area under well and tubewell irrigation has increased in the total irrigated area since independence. Well and Tubewell Irrigation now accounts for 62 per cent of the net irrigated area in the country as against 26 per cent of canal and only 3 per cent of tank irrigation. | b | no_topic_assigned | Agriculture | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following sources of irrigation: Tank Irrigation Well and Tubewell Irrigation Canal Irrigation For which of the above sources share in the total irrigated area in the country has increased since independence?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Tank Irrigation: The ratio of tank irrigated land to the total irrigated land of the country has reduced from 14 per cent at the time of independence to about 3 per cent at present. Canal Irrigation: The ratio of canal irrigated land to the total irrigated land of the country has reduced from about 40 per cent at the time of independence to about 26 per cent at present. So, percentage of area under well and tubewell irrigation has increased in the total irrigated area since independence. Well and Tubewell Irrigation now accounts for 62 per cent of the net irrigated area in the country as against 26 per cent of canal and only 3 per cent of tank irrigation.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b |
Which of the following is/are possible reasons behind the recent decision of the Government of India to offer a bonus over and above the Minimum Support Prices for pulses and oilseeds? To reduce imports To improve water use efficiency in farming Select the correct answer using the code given below. | 1 only | 2 only | Both 1 and 2 | 1 only | To incentivise cultivation of pulses and oilseeds, the Cabinet in June 2016, has decided to give a bonus, over and above the recommendations of the Commission on Agricultural Costs and Prices(CACP), l for kharif pulses, namely Arhar (Tur), Urad and Moong, Sesamum andother kharif oilseeds namely, Groundnut-in-shell, Sunflowerseed, Soyabean, and Nigerseed. There is an increasing gap between the demand and domestic supply of pulses and oilseeds and reliance on import is increasing. Government has, therefore, announced this bonus on pulses and oilseeds to give a strong price signal to farmers to increase acreage and invest for increase in productivity of these crops so as to reduce import dependence. The increase in cultivation of leguminous pulses and oilseeds will also have additional environmental benefits as these crops are less water consuming and help in nitrogen fixation in the soil. | c | no_topic_assigned | Anthropology | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are possible reasons behind the recent decision of the Government of India to offer a bonus over and above the Minimum Support Prices for pulses and oilseeds? To reduce imports To improve water use efficiency in farming Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:To incentivise cultivation of pulses and oilseeds, the Cabinet in June 2016, has decided to give a bonus, over and above the recommendations of the Commission on Agricultural Costs and Prices(CACP), l for kharif pulses, namely Arhar (Tur), Urad and Moong, Sesamum andother kharif oilseeds namely, Groundnut-in-shell, Sunflowerseed, Soyabean, and Nigerseed. There is an increasing gap between the demand and domestic supply of pulses and oilseeds and reliance on import is increasing. Government has, therefore, announced this bonus on pulses and oilseeds to give a strong price signal to farmers to increase acreage and invest for increase in productivity of these crops so as to reduce import dependence. The increase in cultivation of leguminous pulses and oilseeds will also have additional environmental benefits as these crops are less water consuming and help in nitrogen fixation in the soil.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c |
Which of the following statements related to e-cigarettes is/are correct? It vapourises liquid nicotine using battery. It helps in tobacco de-addiction. Select the correct answer using the code given below. | 1 only | 2 only | Both 1 and 2 | 1 only | According to the Indian Medical Association, e-cigarette is a type of electronic nicotine delivery system. It is a battery operated device that heats a liquid to produce vapour to inhale. The main components of the liquid vaporized are nicotine, propylene glycol or glycerol, and flavourings. Nicotine content ranges from none (nicotine-free) up to 36 mg/mL. Metals such as tin, lead, nickel, and chromium have been found in e-cigarette liquids and vapour. E-cigarettes are banned in some countries (including Brazil, Singapore, Canada and Uruguay). Countries like India - which is a signatory to WHO’s Framework Convention on Tobacco Control (FCTC), a global treaty for tobacco control - have, however, been cautious by making it amply clear that e-cigarettes are not a "healthier" option and there is no evidence to say that it helps people who want to quit smoking. In May 2016, the US Food and Drug Administration for the first time acted upon e-cigarettes in an attempt to control to the e-cigarette industry which is a $5.2 billion market in the US. Also in June 2016, Karnataka banned e-cigarettes. The decision was taken after a study by the state health department and experts showed that e-cigarettes encourage the younger generation to use conventional cigarettes. | a | no_topic_assigned | Economics | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements related to e-cigarettes is/are correct? It vapourises liquid nicotine using battery. It helps in tobacco de-addiction. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:According to the Indian Medical Association, e-cigarette is a type of electronic nicotine delivery system. It is a battery operated device that heats a liquid to produce vapour to inhale. The main components of the liquid vaporized are nicotine, propylene glycol or glycerol, and flavourings. Nicotine content ranges from none (nicotine-free) up to 36 mg/mL. Metals such as tin, lead, nickel, and chromium have been found in e-cigarette liquids and vapour. E-cigarettes are banned in some countries (including Brazil, Singapore, Canada and Uruguay). Countries like India - which is a signatory to WHO’s Framework Convention on Tobacco Control (FCTC), a global treaty for tobacco control - have, however, been cautious by making it amply clear that e-cigarettes are not a "healthier" option and there is no evidence to say that it helps people who want to quit smoking. In May 2016, the US Food and Drug Administration for the first time acted upon e-cigarettes in an attempt to control to the e-cigarette industry which is a $5.2 billion market in the US. Also in June 2016, Karnataka banned e-cigarettes. The decision was taken after a study by the state health department and experts showed that e-cigarettes encourage the younger generation to use conventional cigarettes.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:a |
According to law of demand, with all other things remaining constant the consumer demand of a good depends on which of the following factors? Price of the good Price of the complementary good Preferences of the consumer Select the correct answer using the code given below. | 1 only | 1 and 2 only | 2 and 3 only | 1 only | The law of demand is a microeconomic law that states, all other factors being equal, as the price of a good or service increases, consumer demand for the good or service will decrease, and vice versa. Hence demand of a good only depends on its own price, according to law of demand. | a | no_topic_assigned | Anthropology | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:According to law of demand, with all other things remaining constant the consumer demand of a good depends on which of the following factors? Price of the good Price of the complementary good Preferences of the consumer Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The law of demand is a microeconomic law that states, all other factors being equal, as the price of a good or service increases, consumer demand for the good or service will decrease, and vice versa. Hence demand of a good only depends on its own price, according to law of demand.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a |
Which of the following are compiled by the Central Statistical Office (CSO)? National Accounts Index of Industrial Production (IIP) Consumer Price Indices Select the correct answer using the code given below. | 1 only | 1 and 2 only | 2 and 3 only | 1 only | The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation has two wings, one relating to Statistics and the other Programme Implementation. The Statistics Wing called the National Statistical Office (NSO) consists of the Central Statistical Office (CSO), the Computer Centre and the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO). The Central Statistical Office which is one of the two wings of the National Statistical Organisation (NSO) is responsible for coordination of statistical activities in the country and for evolving and maintaining statistical standards. Its activities include compilation of National Accounts; conduct of Annual Survey of Industries and Economic Censuses, compilation of Index of Industrial Production, as well as Consumer Price Indices. | d | no_topic_assigned | Anthropology | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following are compiled by the Central Statistical Office (CSO)? National Accounts Index of Industrial Production (IIP) Consumer Price Indices Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation has two wings, one relating to Statistics and the other Programme Implementation. The Statistics Wing called the National Statistical Office (NSO) consists of the Central Statistical Office (CSO), the Computer Centre and the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO). The Central Statistical Office which is one of the two wings of the National Statistical Organisation (NSO) is responsible for coordination of statistical activities in the country and for evolving and maintaining statistical standards. Its activities include compilation of National Accounts; conduct of Annual Survey of Industries and Economic Censuses, compilation of Index of Industrial Production, as well as Consumer Price Indices.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d |
Which of the following statement is correct regarding Governor? | He has a fixed tenure of five years. | He can pardon a death sentence. | He lays down the report of CAG relating to the accounts of the state. | He has a fixed tenure of five years. | Its a convention that the Governor should be an outsider, that is, he should not belong to the state where he is appointed. The Governor has no security of tenure and no fixed term of office. His term of five years is subject to the pleasure of the president. He can pardon, reprieve, respite, remit, suspend, or commute the punishment of any person convicted of any offence against a state law. BUT he can't pardon a death sentence. This power lies only with the president. Similarly, he doesn't possess powers with respect to court martial. The Governor has constitutional discretion in some cases like: reservation of a bill for the consideration of President; recommendation for the imposition of the President's rule; as an administrator of an adjoining Union territory; determine the amount payable by the government of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram to an autonomous tribal district council as royalty accrued from licensee for mineral exploration; and seeking information from the chief minister with regard to the administrative and legislative matters of the state. No constitutional discretion is envisaged for the President. | c | no_topic_assigned | Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statement is correct regarding Governor?##Option_A: He has a fixed tenure of five years.###Option_B: He can pardon a death sentence.##Option_C: He lays down the report of CAG relating to the accounts of the state.##Option_D: He has a fixed tenure of five years.##Answer:c##Explaination:Its a convention that the Governor should be an outsider, that is, he should not belong to the state where he is appointed. The Governor has no security of tenure and no fixed term of office. His term of five years is subject to the pleasure of the president. He can pardon, reprieve, respite, remit, suspend, or commute the punishment of any person convicted of any offence against a state law. BUT he can't pardon a death sentence. This power lies only with the president. Similarly, he doesn't possess powers with respect to court martial. The Governor has constitutional discretion in some cases like: reservation of a bill for the consideration of President; recommendation for the imposition of the President's rule; as an administrator of an adjoining Union territory; determine the amount payable by the government of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram to an autonomous tribal district council as royalty accrued from licensee for mineral exploration; and seeking information from the chief minister with regard to the administrative and legislative matters of the state. No constitutional discretion is envisaged for the President.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c |
Which of the following statements related to the National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF) is/are correct? It aims at attracting both domestic and foreign investors. It focuses solely on greenfield infrastructure projects. Select the correct answer using the code given below. | 1 only | 2 only | Both 1 and 2 | 1 only | NIIF was set up following the proposal made in the General Budget of 2015-16. It aims to attract investment from both domestic and international sources for maximizing economic impact mainly through infrastructure development in commercially viable projects, both greenfield and brownfield, including stalled projects. | a | no_topic_assigned | Anthropology | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements related to the National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF) is/are correct? It aims at attracting both domestic and foreign investors. It focuses solely on greenfield infrastructure projects. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:NIIF was set up following the proposal made in the General Budget of 2015-16. It aims to attract investment from both domestic and international sources for maximizing economic impact mainly through infrastructure development in commercially viable projects, both greenfield and brownfield, including stalled projects.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a |
Which of the following are the indirect sources for obtaining info about the interior of the earth? Volcanic Eruptions Meteors reaching the earth Gravitation force Seismic Activity Select the correct answer using the code given below. | 1 and 2 only | 2, 3 and 4 only | 3 and 4 only | 1 and 2 only | Sources for obtaining info about the interior of the earth: Direct Sources: The most easily available solid earth material is surface rock or the rocks we get from mining areas. Volcanic eruption forms another source of obtaining direct information. Indirect Sources: Meteors reaching the earth - It may be noted that the material that becomes available for analysis from meteors, is not from the interior of the earth. Gravitation force: The uneven distribution of mass of material within the earth influences this value. The reading of the gravity at different places is influenced by many other factors. These readings differ from the expected values. Such a difference is called gravity anomaly. Gravity anomalies give us information about the distribution of mass of the material in the crust of the earth. Seismic Activity: The study of seismic waves provides a complete picture of the layered interior. | b | no_topic_assigned | Agriculture | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following are the indirect sources for obtaining info about the interior of the earth? Volcanic Eruptions Meteors reaching the earth Gravitation force Seismic Activity Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Sources for obtaining info about the interior of the earth: Direct Sources: The most easily available solid earth material is surface rock or the rocks we get from mining areas. Volcanic eruption forms another source of obtaining direct information. Indirect Sources: Meteors reaching the earth - It may be noted that the material that becomes available for analysis from meteors, is not from the interior of the earth. Gravitation force: The uneven distribution of mass of material within the earth influences this value. The reading of the gravity at different places is influenced by many other factors. These readings differ from the expected values. Such a difference is called gravity anomaly. Gravity anomalies give us information about the distribution of mass of the material in the crust of the earth. Seismic Activity: The study of seismic waves provides a complete picture of the layered interior.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b |
Which among the following were the reasons behind fall of Mauryan empire? Adverse reaction of Brahmans Financial crisis Oppressive rule in provinces by mahamatras Neglect of North West frontier Select the correct answer using the code given below. | 1, 2 and 3 only | 1 and 3 only | 2 and 4 only | 1, 2 and 3 only | Causes of the fall of the Maurya empire: Brahmanical Reaction: The incomes of the brahmanas were affected by the policy of Ashoka. Many of the brahmans were not satisfied his tolerant policy and developed some kind of antipathy to him. They really wanted a policy that would favour them and uphold the existing intrests and privileges. Some of the new kingdoms that arose on the ruins of the Maurya emoire were ruled by the Brahmanas. Financial crisis: The enormous expenditure on the army and payment to bureaucracy created a financial crisis for the Maurya empire. Oppressive rule: Oppressive rule in the provinces was an important cause of the break up of the empire. Neglect of North west frontier: Since Ashok was mostly preoccupied with missionary activities at home and abroad, he could not pay attention to the safeguarding of the passage on the north-western frontier. This had become necessary in view of the movement of tribes in Central Asia in the third century B.C. | d | no_topic_assigned | Geography | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following were the reasons behind fall of Mauryan empire? Adverse reaction of Brahmans Financial crisis Oppressive rule in provinces by mahamatras Neglect of North West frontier Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Causes of the fall of the Maurya empire: Brahmanical Reaction: The incomes of the brahmanas were affected by the policy of Ashoka. Many of the brahmans were not satisfied his tolerant policy and developed some kind of antipathy to him. They really wanted a policy that would favour them and uphold the existing intrests and privileges. Some of the new kingdoms that arose on the ruins of the Maurya emoire were ruled by the Brahmanas. Financial crisis: The enormous expenditure on the army and payment to bureaucracy created a financial crisis for the Maurya empire. Oppressive rule: Oppressive rule in the provinces was an important cause of the break up of the empire. Neglect of North west frontier: Since Ashok was mostly preoccupied with missionary activities at home and abroad, he could not pay attention to the safeguarding of the passage on the north-western frontier. This had become necessary in view of the movement of tribes in Central Asia in the third century B.C.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Geography##Answer:d |
According to Census 2011, which of the following states/UTs do not have any Scheduled Caste? Punjab Arunachal Pradesh Nagaland Andaman and Nicobar Islands Select the correct answer using the code given below. | 1 only | 2, 3 and 4 only | 3 and 4 only | 1 only | According to Census 2011, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Lakshadweep and A & N Islands do not have Scheduled Caste population. | b | no_topic_assigned | Agriculture | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:According to Census 2011, which of the following states/UTs do not have any Scheduled Caste? Punjab Arunachal Pradesh Nagaland Andaman and Nicobar Islands Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:According to Census 2011, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Lakshadweep and A & N Islands do not have Scheduled Caste population.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b |
With reference to Koeppen’s Scheme of Climate classification, consider the following pairs: Type of Climate Associated Region 1. As : West Coast of India 2. E : Jammu and Kashmir 3. Aw : Extreme western Rajasthan 4. Cwg : Gangetic Plains Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? | 1, 2 and 3 only | 1, 3 and 4 only | 2 and 4 only | 1, 2 and 3 only | c | no_topic_assigned | Agriculture | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Koeppen’s Scheme of Climate classification, consider the following pairs: Type of Climate Associated Region 1. As : West Coast of India 2. E : Jammu and Kashmir 3. Aw : Extreme western Rajasthan 4. Cwg : Gangetic Plains Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c | |
Which of the following spacecrafts is/are related to exploring the Planet Jupiter? Juno Cassini Galileo Select the correct answer using codes given below. | 1 only | 2 and 3 only | 1 and 3 only | 1 only | National Aeronautics and Space Administration's (NASA) Juno spacecraft has successfully entered the orbit around Jupiter without being knocked down by the planet's intense magnetic field and radiation. It is not the first spacecraft to enter into orbit around Jupiter. The Galileo spacecraft that explored the planet between 1995 and 2003, however Juno will study Jupiter much more thoroughly given the array of nine scientific instruments that it carries on board. Cassini-Huygens is an unmanned spacecraft sent to the planet Saturn. It is a flagship-class NASA-ESA-ASI robotic spacecraft | c | no_topic_assigned | Economics | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following spacecrafts is/are related to exploring the Planet Jupiter? Juno Cassini Galileo Select the correct answer using codes given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:National Aeronautics and Space Administration's (NASA) Juno spacecraft has successfully entered the orbit around Jupiter without being knocked down by the planet's intense magnetic field and radiation. It is not the first spacecraft to enter into orbit around Jupiter. The Galileo spacecraft that explored the planet between 1995 and 2003, however Juno will study Jupiter much more thoroughly given the array of nine scientific instruments that it carries on board. Cassini-Huygens is an unmanned spacecraft sent to the planet Saturn. It is a flagship-class NASA-ESA-ASI robotic spacecraft##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:c |
Which of the following items are covered under Essential Commodities Act, 1955? Petroleum and its products Sugarcane and its products Fertilizers Jute Drugs Select the correct answer using the code given below. | 1, 3, 4 and 5 only | 2, 3 and 5 only | 1, 2 and 4 only | 1, 3, 4 and 5 only | The government has powers under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955 (EC Act) to declare a commodity as an essential commodity to ensure its availability to people at fair price. The EC Act, 1955 allows the government to control the production, supply, and distribution of these commodities for maintaining or increasing supplies and securing their equitable distribution. Essentially, the act aims to ensure easy availability of important commodities to consumers and check exploitation by traders. There are seven broad categories of essential commodities covered by the Act. These are: Drugs; Fertilizer, inorganic, organic or mixed; Foodstuffs, including edible oilseeds and oils; Hank yarn made wholly from cotton; Petroleum and petroleum products; Raw jute and jute textile; seeds of food-crops and seeds of fruits and vegetables; seeds of cattle fodder; and jute seeds. Both 'sugar' and 'sugarcane' are included as Essential Commodities per the 1955 Act. | d | no_topic_assigned | Anthropology | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following items are covered under Essential Commodities Act, 1955? Petroleum and its products Sugarcane and its products Fertilizers Jute Drugs Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 3, 4 and 5 only###Option_B: 2, 3 and 5 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 3, 4 and 5 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The government has powers under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955 (EC Act) to declare a commodity as an essential commodity to ensure its availability to people at fair price. The EC Act, 1955 allows the government to control the production, supply, and distribution of these commodities for maintaining or increasing supplies and securing their equitable distribution. Essentially, the act aims to ensure easy availability of important commodities to consumers and check exploitation by traders. There are seven broad categories of essential commodities covered by the Act. These are: Drugs; Fertilizer, inorganic, organic or mixed; Foodstuffs, including edible oilseeds and oils; Hank yarn made wholly from cotton; Petroleum and petroleum products; Raw jute and jute textile; seeds of food-crops and seeds of fruits and vegetables; seeds of cattle fodder; and jute seeds. Both 'sugar' and 'sugarcane' are included as Essential Commodities per the 1955 Act.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d |
With reference to the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC), consider the following statements: The Chairman should be a retired chief justice of India. It has no power to punish the violators of human rights. It submits its annual report to the Central Government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? | 1 and 2 only | 3 only | 1, 2 and 3 | 1 and 2 only | The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is a multi-member body consisting of a chairman and four members. The Chairman should be a retired Chief Justice of India. The functions of the commission are mainly recommendatory in nature. It has no power to punish the violators of human rights, nor to award any relief including monetary relief to the victim. However, it must be informed about the action taken on its recommendations with one month. The commission submits its annual report to the Central government and to the state governments concerned. These reports are laid before the respective legislatures, along with a memorandum of action taken on the recommendations of the commission and the reasons for non-acceptance of any of such recommendations. | c | no_topic_assigned | Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC), consider the following statements: The Chairman should be a retired chief justice of India. It has no power to punish the violators of human rights. It submits its annual report to the Central Government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 3 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is a multi-member body consisting of a chairman and four members. The Chairman should be a retired Chief Justice of India. The functions of the commission are mainly recommendatory in nature. It has no power to punish the violators of human rights, nor to award any relief including monetary relief to the victim. However, it must be informed about the action taken on its recommendations with one month. The commission submits its annual report to the Central government and to the state governments concerned. These reports are laid before the respective legislatures, along with a memorandum of action taken on the recommendations of the commission and the reasons for non-acceptance of any of such recommendations.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c |
Since 1956, RBI has been issuing currencies based on the Minimum Reserve System. Which among the following form the "minimum reserve"? Gold Silver Foreign currencies Select the correct answer using the code given below. | 1 and 2 only | 1 and 3 only | 2 and 3 only | 1 and 2 only | Currencies in our country are issued by the RBI with the backing of reserves comprised of gold and foreign exchange (foreign currencies). For the issue of currencies, the RBI follows Minimum Reserve System at present. The Minimum Reserve System (MRS) is followed from 1956 onwards. Under the Minimum Reserve System, the RBI has to keep a minimum reserve of Rs 200 crore comprising of gold coin, gold bullion and foreign currencies. Out of the total Rs 200 crores, Rs115 crore should be in the form of gold coins or gold bullion. The purpose of shifting to MRS was to expand money supply to meet the needs of increasing transactions in the economy. The minimum reserve is a token of confidence and doesn’t have any practical connection with amount new currencies issued by the RBI. Under the Minimum Reserve System, RBI can issue unlimited amount of currency by keeping the reserve. But RBI follows some principle or rule for issuing new currencies based upon economic growth and transaction needs of the people. | b | no_topic_assigned | Anthropology | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Since 1956, RBI has been issuing currencies based on the Minimum Reserve System. Which among the following form the "minimum reserve"? Gold Silver Foreign currencies Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Currencies in our country are issued by the RBI with the backing of reserves comprised of gold and foreign exchange (foreign currencies). For the issue of currencies, the RBI follows Minimum Reserve System at present. The Minimum Reserve System (MRS) is followed from 1956 onwards. Under the Minimum Reserve System, the RBI has to keep a minimum reserve of Rs 200 crore comprising of gold coin, gold bullion and foreign currencies. Out of the total Rs 200 crores, Rs115 crore should be in the form of gold coins or gold bullion. The purpose of shifting to MRS was to expand money supply to meet the needs of increasing transactions in the economy. The minimum reserve is a token of confidence and doesn’t have any practical connection with amount new currencies issued by the RBI. Under the Minimum Reserve System, RBI can issue unlimited amount of currency by keeping the reserve. But RBI follows some principle or rule for issuing new currencies based upon economic growth and transaction needs of the people.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b |
Consider the following statements: The corporations and the companies of Central government are not immune from state taxation. The Centre can tax the commercial operations of a state if parliament so provides. The Centre can impose excise duty on goods produced or manufactured by a state. Select the correct statements using the code given below. | 1 and 3 only | 2 only | 2 and 3 only | 1 and 3 only | Statement 1 is correct. The reason that corporation and the companies of the central government are not immune because they are a separate entity. Statement 2 is also correct. If Parliament makes a provision regarding it, centre can tax commercial operations of a state. Statement 3 is also correct. Centre can impose customs duty on goods imported or exported by a state or an excise duty on goods produced or manufactured by a state. | d | no_topic_assigned | Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: The corporations and the companies of Central government are not immune from state taxation. The Centre can tax the commercial operations of a state if parliament so provides. The Centre can impose excise duty on goods produced or manufactured by a state. Select the correct statements using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. The reason that corporation and the companies of the central government are not immune because they are a separate entity. Statement 2 is also correct. If Parliament makes a provision regarding it, centre can tax commercial operations of a state. Statement 3 is also correct. Centre can impose customs duty on goods imported or exported by a state or an excise duty on goods produced or manufactured by a state.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d |
The term Nine-Dash line is associated with which of the following disputed regions? | Korean Peninsula | South China sea | Gaza strip | Korean Peninsula | The nine-dash line refers to the demarcation line used by China for their claims of the major part of the South China Sea. | b | no_topic_assigned | Chemistry | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The term Nine-Dash line is associated with which of the following disputed regions?##Option_A: Korean Peninsula###Option_B: South China sea##Option_C: Gaza strip##Option_D: Korean Peninsula##Answer:b##Explaination:The nine-dash line refers to the demarcation line used by China for their claims of the major part of the South China Sea.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b |
The US National Institutes of Health has recently approved a proposal for using CRISPR tool in clinical trials on humans. What is it related to? | HIV treatment | Zika virus vaccine | Organ transplantation | HIV treatment | A federal advisory committee of US National Institutes of Health has approved a proposal for using the CRISPR CAS-9 genome editing tool in clinical trials on humans. The proposal is to test the treatment of cancer by picking out T-cells, which are a special type of immune cells found in the body, from patients with cancer and to modify the T-cells and use them to target the cancer cells. | d | no_topic_assigned | Economics | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The US National Institutes of Health has recently approved a proposal for using CRISPR tool in clinical trials on humans. What is it related to?##Option_A: HIV treatment###Option_B: Zika virus vaccine##Option_C: Organ transplantation##Option_D: HIV treatment##Answer:d##Explaination:A federal advisory committee of US National Institutes of Health has approved a proposal for using the CRISPR CAS-9 genome editing tool in clinical trials on humans. The proposal is to test the treatment of cancer by picking out T-cells, which are a special type of immune cells found in the body, from patients with cancer and to modify the T-cells and use them to target the cancer cells.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:d |
Which of the following statements regarding the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs is/are correct? It is chaired by the Union Finance Minister. It decides on matters of disinvestment. It decides on the price control of industrial raw materials. Select the correct answer using the code given below. | 1 and 2 only | 2 and 3 only | 3 only | 1 and 2 only | At present the CCEA is chaired by the PM. CCEA has a mandate to review economic trends on a continuous basis, as also the problems and prospects, with a view to evolving a consistent and integrated economic policy framework for the country. It also directs and coordinates all policies and activities in the economic field including foreign investment that require policy decisions at the highest level. Matters regarding fixation of prices of agricultural products as well as reviewing progress of activities related to rural development including those concerning small and marginal farmers are in CCEA's purview. Price controls of industrial raw materials and products, industrial licensing policies including industrial licensing cases for establishment of Joint Sector. Undertakings, reviewing performance of Public Sector Undertakings including their structural and financial restructuring are also within the purview of CCEA, as are all matters relating to disinvestment including cases of strategic sale, and pricing of Government shares in Public Sector Undertakings. In June 2014, the Cabinet Committee on Prices, Cabinet Committee on Unique Identification Authority of India related issues and Cabinet Committee on World Trade Organization Matters were merged with CCEA, subject to condition that whenever necessary, full cabinet will take decision on the WTO related matters. | b | no_topic_assigned | Anthropology | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements regarding the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs is/are correct? It is chaired by the Union Finance Minister. It decides on matters of disinvestment. It decides on the price control of industrial raw materials. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:At present the CCEA is chaired by the PM. CCEA has a mandate to review economic trends on a continuous basis, as also the problems and prospects, with a view to evolving a consistent and integrated economic policy framework for the country. It also directs and coordinates all policies and activities in the economic field including foreign investment that require policy decisions at the highest level. Matters regarding fixation of prices of agricultural products as well as reviewing progress of activities related to rural development including those concerning small and marginal farmers are in CCEA's purview. Price controls of industrial raw materials and products, industrial licensing policies including industrial licensing cases for establishment of Joint Sector. Undertakings, reviewing performance of Public Sector Undertakings including their structural and financial restructuring are also within the purview of CCEA, as are all matters relating to disinvestment including cases of strategic sale, and pricing of Government shares in Public Sector Undertakings. In June 2014, the Cabinet Committee on Prices, Cabinet Committee on Unique Identification Authority of India related issues and Cabinet Committee on World Trade Organization Matters were merged with CCEA, subject to condition that whenever necessary, full cabinet will take decision on the WTO related matters.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b |
Which of the following statements related to the riverine island "Majuli" in Assam is/are correct? It is the only island district in India. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. It is largely inhabited by the Mishing tribe. Select the correct answer using the code given below. | 1 only | 1 and 2 only | 1 and 3 only | 1 only | In June 2016, the government of Assam declared Majuli as a district. It is the only island district in India. Majuli, whose area has shrunk from about 1250 sq kms in 1891 to about 515 sq kms now because of massive river-bank erosion caused by the Brahmaputra, has been vying for a spot in the list of World Heritage Sites of UNESCO. With 22 satras (Vaishnavite monasteries) - and home to the colourful Mising tribals, Majuli has emerged as a major tourist destination despite seasonal floods and erosion. | c | no_topic_assigned | Chemistry | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements related to the riverine island "Majuli" in Assam is/are correct? It is the only island district in India. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. It is largely inhabited by the Mishing tribe. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:In June 2016, the government of Assam declared Majuli as a district. It is the only island district in India. Majuli, whose area has shrunk from about 1250 sq kms in 1891 to about 515 sq kms now because of massive river-bank erosion caused by the Brahmaputra, has been vying for a spot in the list of World Heritage Sites of UNESCO. With 22 satras (Vaishnavite monasteries) - and home to the colourful Mising tribals, Majuli has emerged as a major tourist destination despite seasonal floods and erosion.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c |
The drafting of Indian Constitution was done by a "Constituent Assembly", in this regard, consider the following statements: The Assembly was elected by universal adult franchise. The Assembly was dominated by the members of Indian National Congress. The Assembly worked in a systematic, open and consensus based manner. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? | 1 only | 1 and 2 only | 2 only | 1 only | The drafting of the document called the constitution was done by an assembly of elected representatives called the Constituent Assembly. Elections to the Constituent Assembly were held in July 1946. Its first meeting was held in December 1946. There was no universal adult franchise at that time. So the Constituent Assembly could not have been chosen directly by all the people of India. It was elected mainly by the members of the existing Provincial Legislatures. Hence, 1st statement is incorrect. The Assembly was dominated by the Indian National Congress, the party that led India's freedom struggle. Hence, 2nd statement is correct. Constituent Assembly worked in a systematic, open and consensual manner. First some basic principles were decided and agreed upon. Hence, 3rd statement is correct. | a | no_topic_assigned | Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The drafting of Indian Constitution was done by a "Constituent Assembly", in this regard, consider the following statements: The Assembly was elected by universal adult franchise. The Assembly was dominated by the members of Indian National Congress. The Assembly worked in a systematic, open and consensus based manner. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The drafting of the document called the constitution was done by an assembly of elected representatives called the Constituent Assembly. Elections to the Constituent Assembly were held in July 1946. Its first meeting was held in December 1946. There was no universal adult franchise at that time. So the Constituent Assembly could not have been chosen directly by all the people of India. It was elected mainly by the members of the existing Provincial Legislatures. Hence, 1st statement is incorrect. The Assembly was dominated by the Indian National Congress, the party that led India's freedom struggle. Hence, 2nd statement is correct. Constituent Assembly worked in a systematic, open and consensual manner. First some basic principles were decided and agreed upon. Hence, 3rd statement is correct.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a |
With reference to social reforms undertaken by Akbar, consider the following statements: He forbade the practice of sati. He legalized widow remarriage. He raised the age of marriage for girls and boys. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? | 1 and 2 only | 1 and 3 only | 2 and 3 only | 1 and 2 only | Akbar introduced a number of social and educational reforms: He stopped sati, the burning of a widow, unless she herself of her own free will, persistently desired it. Widow remarriage was also legalised. Akbar was also against anyone having more than more than one wife unless the first wife was barren. The age of marriage was raised to 14 for girls and 16 for boys. The sale of wines and spirits was restricted. He also revised the educational syllabus, laying more emphasis on moral education and mathematics. | d | no_topic_assigned | Geography | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to social reforms undertaken by Akbar, consider the following statements: He forbade the practice of sati. He legalized widow remarriage. He raised the age of marriage for girls and boys. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Akbar introduced a number of social and educational reforms: He stopped sati, the burning of a widow, unless she herself of her own free will, persistently desired it. Widow remarriage was also legalised. Akbar was also against anyone having more than more than one wife unless the first wife was barren. The age of marriage was raised to 14 for girls and 16 for boys. The sale of wines and spirits was restricted. He also revised the educational syllabus, laying more emphasis on moral education and mathematics.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Geography##Answer:d |
Which of the following writs is/are issued against judicial or quasi-judicial authorities only? Prohibition Certiorari Quo-warranto Select the correct answer using the code given below. | 1 only | 1 and 2 only | 2 and 3 only | 1 only | Prohibition is the only writ which is issued against judicial or quasi judicial authorities only. It cannot be issued again administrative authorities etc. Prohibition: It is issued by higher court to lower court to prevent the latter from exceeding its jurisdiction. Certiorari: It is issued by higher court to a lower court or administrative authority over excess of jurisdiction or error of law. Quo warranto: It is issued by the court to enquire into the legality over a public office claimed by an individual. It cannot be issued against ministerial office or private office.ministerial office or private office. | a | no_topic_assigned | Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following writs is/are issued against judicial or quasi-judicial authorities only? Prohibition Certiorari Quo-warranto Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Prohibition is the only writ which is issued against judicial or quasi judicial authorities only. It cannot be issued again administrative authorities etc. Prohibition: It is issued by higher court to lower court to prevent the latter from exceeding its jurisdiction. Certiorari: It is issued by higher court to a lower court or administrative authority over excess of jurisdiction or error of law. Quo warranto: It is issued by the court to enquire into the legality over a public office claimed by an individual. It cannot be issued against ministerial office or private office.ministerial office or private office.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a |
With reference to artificial Bionic leaf which of the statement given below is/are correct? It uses solar power to split water and make liquid fuel. It uses hydrogen-eating bacteria to make liquid fuel. Select the correct answer using code given below. | 1 only | 2 only | Both 1 and 2 | 1 only | A team of scientists from Harvard University has created a unique bionic leaf that uses sunlight (solar energy) to split water molecules into oxygen and hydrogen and hydrogen-eating bacteria to produce liquid fuels from CO2. This artificial photosynthesis device has been dubbed bionic leaf 2.0. The new system can convert solar energy to biomass with 10% efficiency. Its efficiency is much higher than the 1% seen in the fastest growing plants. Scientists had used a new cobalt-phosphorous alloy catalyst for this experiment in order to increase efficiency. The catalyst chemical design allows the system to self-heal i.e. doesn’t allow material to leech into solution. | c | no_topic_assigned | Chemistry | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to artificial Bionic leaf which of the statement given below is/are correct? It uses solar power to split water and make liquid fuel. It uses hydrogen-eating bacteria to make liquid fuel. Select the correct answer using code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:A team of scientists from Harvard University has created a unique bionic leaf that uses sunlight (solar energy) to split water molecules into oxygen and hydrogen and hydrogen-eating bacteria to produce liquid fuels from CO2. This artificial photosynthesis device has been dubbed bionic leaf 2.0. The new system can convert solar energy to biomass with 10% efficiency. Its efficiency is much higher than the 1% seen in the fastest growing plants. Scientists had used a new cobalt-phosphorous alloy catalyst for this experiment in order to increase efficiency. The catalyst chemical design allows the system to self-heal i.e. doesn’t allow material to leech into solution.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c |
With reference to the Indian constitution, which of the following articles show unitary features of the constitution?
1. Article 3
2. Article 249
3. Article 246
Select the correct answer using the code given below. | 1 only | 1 and 2 only | 2 and 3 only | 1 only | . | b | Others | Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Indian constitution, which of the following articles show unitary features of the constitution?
1. Article 3
2. Article 249
3. Article 246
Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:1 and 2 only ##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:.##Topic:Others##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b |
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Indian Monsoon? The Bay of Bengal branch is deflected towards India by Arakan Hills in Myanmar. Coromandal coast receives substantial rainfall from the Bay of Bengal branch of the Monsoon. Select the correct answer using the code given below. | 1 only | 2 only | Both 1 and 2 | 1 only | Statement 1 is correct. The Bay of Bengal branch is deflected towards India from the Arakan hills of Mayanmar which are part of the Purvanchal ranges. Great Himalayas are only found till diphu pass of Arunachal Pradesh. Statement 2 is not correct. Coromandal cost i.e. Tamilnadu coast is parallel to the Bay of Bengal branch of the monsoon, hence it does not receive rainfall from it. It receives rainfall from the northeast monsoon. | a | Spatial and temporal distribution of temperature, pressure winds and rainfall | Agriculture | This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Indian Monsoon? The Bay of Bengal branch is deflected towards India by Arakan Hills in Myanmar. Coromandal coast receives substantial rainfall from the Bay of Bengal branch of the Monsoon. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. The Bay of Bengal branch is deflected towards India from the Arakan hills of Mayanmar which are part of the Purvanchal ranges. Great Himalayas are only found till diphu pass of Arunachal Pradesh. Statement 2 is not correct. Coromandal cost i.e. Tamilnadu coast is parallel to the Bay of Bengal branch of the monsoon, hence it does not receive rainfall from it. It receives rainfall from the northeast monsoon.##Topic:Spatial and temporal distribution of temperature, pressure winds and rainfall##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a |
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