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Tau imaging in neurodegenerative diseases. Aggregated tau protein is a major neuropathological substrate central to the pathophysiology of neurodegenerative diseases such as Alzheimer's disease (AD), frontotemporal dementia, progressive supranuclear palsy, corticobasal degeneration and chronic traumatic encephalopathy. In AD, it has been shown that the density of hyperphosphorylated tau tangles correlates closely with neuronal dysfunction and cell death, unlike β-amyloid. Until now, diagnostic and pathologic information about tau deposition has only been available from invasive techniques such as brain biopsy or autopsy. The recent development of selective in-vivo tau PET imaging ligands including [(18)F]THK523, [(18)F]THK5117, [(18)F]THK5105 and [(18)F]THK5351, [(18)F]AV1451(T807) and [(11)C]PBB3 has provided information about the role of tau in the early phases of neurodegenerative diseases, and provided support for diagnosis, prognosis, and imaging biomarkers to track disease progression. Moreover, the spatial and longitudinal relationship of tau distribution compared with β - amyloid and other pathologies in these diseases can be mapped. In this review, we discuss the role of aggregated tau in tauopathies, the challenges posed in developing selective tau ligands as biomarkers, the state of development in tau tracers, and the new clinical information that has been uncovered, as well as the opportunities for improving diagnosis and designing clinical trials in the future.

What in vivo tau tracers are being used?

5a7d5580faa1ab7d2e00001a_006

Tau imaging in neurodegenerative diseases. Aggregated tau protein is a major neuropathological substrate central to the pathophysiology of neurodegenerative diseases such as Alzheimer's disease (AD), frontotemporal dementia, progressive supranuclear palsy, corticobasal degeneration and chronic traumatic encephalopathy. In AD, it has been shown that the density of hyperphosphorylated tau tangles correlates closely with neuronal dysfunction and cell death, unlike β-amyloid. Until now, diagnostic and pathologic information about tau deposition has only been available from invasive techniques such as brain biopsy or autopsy. The recent development of selective in-vivo tau PET imaging ligands including [(18)F]THK523, [(18)F]THK5117, [(18)F]THK5105 and [(18)F]THK5351, [(18)F]AV1451(T807) and [(11)C]PBB3 has provided information about the role of tau in the early phases of neurodegenerative diseases, and provided support for diagnosis, prognosis, and imaging biomarkers to track disease progression. Moreover, the spatial and longitudinal relationship of tau distribution compared with β - amyloid and other pathologies in these diseases can be mapped. In this review, we discuss the role of aggregated tau in tauopathies, the challenges posed in developing selective tau ligands as biomarkers, the state of development in tau tracers, and the new clinical information that has been uncovered, as well as the opportunities for improving diagnosis and designing clinical trials in the future.

What in vivo tau tracers are being used?

5a7d5580faa1ab7d2e00001a_007

18F-Labeled 2-Arylquinoline Derivatives for Tau Imaging: Chemical, Radiochemical, Biological and Clinical Features. Alzheimer's disease is the most common form of dementia among older people. Misfolding and aggregation of proteins (amyloid-β and tau) in the brain is the primary cause of neurodegeneration in the disease. Non-invasive detection of amyloid-β deposition can be realized using positron emission tomography probes, but a proportion of Aβ-positive subjects do not present with cognitive dysfunction, suggesting limitations in assessment using this method. Non-invasive detection of tau deposits in the brain can be used to diagnose, monitor, and predict Alzheimer's disease progression. Tau positron emission tomography radiolabelled probes such as T807, THK-5117, and PBB3 can image the pathology of the disease in vivo. The 18F-labeled tau imaging agents 18F-THK-5351, 18F-T807 (18F-AV-1451), and 18F-RO6958948 are presently under evaluation in clinical studies and clinical trials worldwide. This imaging methodology could be applied to enable preclinical diagnoses and disease-modifying drugs for Alzheimer's disease. In this review, we provide an overview of the pathology and potential imaging of tau in Alzheimer's disease, development of a THK series among tau tracers, and the chemical, radiochemical, biological, and clinical features of tau probes.

What in vivo tau tracers are being used?

5a7d5580faa1ab7d2e00001a_010

Corticostriatal dysfunction and glutamate transporter 1 (GLT1) in Huntington's disease: interactions between neurons and astrocytes. Huntington's Disease (HD) is a fatally inherited neurodegenerative disorder caused by an expanded glutamine repeat in the N-terminal region of the huntingtin (HTT) protein. The result is a progressively worsening triad of cognitive, emotional, and motor alterations that typically begin in adulthood and end in death 10-20 years later. Autopsy of HD patients indicates massive cell loss in the striatum and its main source of input, the cerebral cortex. Further studies of HD patients and transgenic animal models of HD indicate that corticostriatal neuronal processing is altered long before neuronal death takes place. In fact, altered neuronal function appears to be the primary driver of the HD behavioral phenotype, and dysregulation of glutamate, the excitatory amino acid released by corticostriatal afferents, is believed to play a critical role. Although mutant HTT interferes with the operation of multiple proteins related to glutamate transmission, consistent evidence links the expression of mutant HTT with reduced activity of glutamate transporter 1 (rodent GLT1 or human EAAT2), the astrocytic protein responsible for the bulk of glutamate uptake. Here, we review corticostriatal dysfunction in HD and focus on GLT1 and its expression in astrocytes as a possible therapeutic target.

List diseases caused by protein glutamine expanded repeats

5ac2776195d0062724000006_001

Polyglutamine pathogenesis. An increasing number of neurodegenerative disorders have been found to be caused by expanding CAG triplet repeats that code for polyglutamine. Huntington's disease (HD) is the most common of these disorders and dentatorubral-pallidoluysian atrophy (DRPLA) is very similar to HD, but is caused by mutation in a different gene, making them good models to study. In this review, we will concentrate on the roles of protein aggregation, nuclear localization and proteolytic processing in disease pathogenesis. In cell model studies of HD, we have found that truncated N-terminal portions of huntingtin (the HD gene product) with expanded repeats form more aggregates than longer or full length huntingtin polypeptides. These shorter fragments are also more prone to aggregate in the nucleus and cause more cell toxicity. Further experiments with huntingtin constructs harbouring exogenous nuclear import and nuclear export signals have implicated the nucleus in direct cell toxicity. We have made mouse models of HD and DRPLA using an N-terminal truncation of huntingtin (N171) and full-length atrophin-1 (the DRPLA gene product), respectively. In both models, diffuse neuronal nuclear staining and nuclear inclusion bodies are observed in animals expressing the expanded glutamine repeat protein, further implicating the nucleus as a primary site of neuronal dysfunction. Neuritic pathology is also observed in the HD mice. In the DRPLA mouse model, we have found that truncated fragments of atrophin-1 containing the glutamine repeat accumulate in the nucleus, suggesting that proteolysis may be critical for disease progression. Taken together, these data lead towards a model whereby proteolytic processing, nuclear localization and protein aggregation all contribute to pathogenesis.

List diseases caused by protein glutamine expanded repeats

5ac2776195d0062724000006_002

Polyglutamine pathogenesis. An increasing number of neurodegenerative disorders have been found to be caused by expanding CAG triplet repeats that code for polyglutamine. Huntington's disease (HD) is the most common of these disorders and dentatorubral-pallidoluysian atrophy (DRPLA) is very similar to HD, but is caused by mutation in a different gene, making them good models to study. In this review, we will concentrate on the roles of protein aggregation, nuclear localization and proteolytic processing in disease pathogenesis. In cell model studies of HD, we have found that truncated N-terminal portions of huntingtin (the HD gene product) with expanded repeats form more aggregates than longer or full length huntingtin polypeptides. These shorter fragments are also more prone to aggregate in the nucleus and cause more cell toxicity. Further experiments with huntingtin constructs harbouring exogenous nuclear import and nuclear export signals have implicated the nucleus in direct cell toxicity. We have made mouse models of HD and DRPLA using an N-terminal truncation of huntingtin (N171) and full-length atrophin-1 (the DRPLA gene product), respectively. In both models, diffuse neuronal nuclear staining and nuclear inclusion bodies are observed in animals expressing the expanded glutamine repeat protein, further implicating the nucleus as a primary site of neuronal dysfunction. Neuritic pathology is also observed in the HD mice. In the DRPLA mouse model, we have found that truncated fragments of atrophin-1 containing the glutamine repeat accumulate in the nucleus, suggesting that proteolysis may be critical for disease progression. Taken together, these data lead towards a model whereby proteolytic processing, nuclear localization and protein aggregation all contribute to pathogenesis.

List diseases caused by protein glutamine expanded repeats

5ac2776195d0062724000006_003

Abnormal dentatorubral-pallidoluysian atrophy (DRPLA) protein complex is pathologically ubiquitinated in DRPLA brains. Dentatorubral-pallidoluysian atrophy (DRPLA) is caused by expansion of a glutamine repeat in DRPLA protein. DRPLA protein undergoes greater complex formation in DRPLA brain tissue, and expanded glutamine repeat enhances complex formation of DRPLA protein. Immunoblots with and without reduction show that the DRPLA protein complex is ubiquitinated only in DRPLA brain tissue. Moreover, immunoblots of regional DRPLA brain tissues reveal that pathological ubiquitination of DRPLA protein complex is found selectively in affected lesions. Double-labeling immunohistochemical studies with antibodies against DRPLA protein and ubiquitin demonstrate that the DRPLA protein is co-localized with ubiquitin in DRPLA neurons and show characteristic neuronal cytoplasmic inclusions with ubiquitinated DRPLA protein complex in the center. Our findings suggest that DRPLA protein undergoes abnormal complex formation with expanded glutamine repeat, and then the complex is pathologically ubiquitinated in DRPLA brain tissue. Pathological ubiquitination of abnormal DRPLA protein complex plays a role in DRPLA pathology.

List diseases caused by protein glutamine expanded repeats

5ac2776195d0062724000006_004

Expanded glutamine repeat enhances complex formation of dentatorubral-pallidoluysian atrophy (DRPLA) protein in human brains. The genetic defect in dentatorubral-pallidoluysian atrophy (DRPLA) is expansion of the CAG repeat. The mutant gene is translated into the protein which carries the expanded glutamine repeat. Immunoblots of human brain tissues with and without reduction show that the DRPLA protein is a disulfide-bond complex and that more of this complex is formed in DRPLA brains than in control brains. This suggests that DRPLA protein undergoes greater complex formation in DRPLA brains and the expanded glutamine repeat may enhance complex formation of untruncated DRPLA protein in DRPLA brains. Immunohistochemical findings show that DRPLA protein is localized in the cytoplasm of the neuron, evidence that it undergoes rare disulfide bonding there.

List diseases caused by protein glutamine expanded repeats

5ac2776195d0062724000006_005

Rab7 GTPase controls lipid metabolic signaling in myeloid-derived suppressor cells. Lysosomal acid lipase (LAL) is a critical neutral lipid metabolic enzyme that regulates metabolic reprogramming in myeloid-derived suppressor cells (MDSCs) through over-activation of mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR). Affymetrix GeneChip microarray analysis of MDSCs from LAL deficient mouse (lal-/-) revealed upregulation of Rab7 GTPase protein, which belongs to a superfamily of small-molecular-weight GTPase known to regulate intracellular membrane trafficking from early to late endosomes and lysosomes. Here, the physical protein-protein interaction between Rab7 GTPase and mTOR has been detected by co-immunoprecipitation in the cell extract of wild type HD1A and lal-/- MDSC-like HD1B myeloid cell lines. The GST pull down assay using the recombinant GST-Rab7 GTPase fusion protein showed that Rab7 GTPase interacts with the mTOR N-terminal heat repeat domain. Rab7 GTPase siRNA knocking down reversed the altered lysosome/mTOR distribution and expression levels in HD1B cells. Rab7 GTPase siRNA knocking down in isolated bone marrow lal-/- MDSCs or HD1B cells not only reduced over-activation of mTOR and its downstream effector S6, but also decreased glucose consumption, decreased ROS over-production, and increased healthy mitochondria by membrane potential measurement. Inhibition of Rab7 GTPase led to reduced lal-/- MDSCs differentiation from bone marrow Lin- progenitor cells, reduced lal-/- MDSCs trans-endothelial migration, and reversed lal-/- MDSCs suppression of T cell proliferation. Furthermore, inhibition of Rab7 GTPase reduced lal-/- MDSCs ability to stimulate tumor cell proliferation in vitro, tumor growth in vivo, and tumor invasion. Together, these results showed that Rab7 GTPase is critically involved in MDSCs homeostasis and pathogenic functions.

List proteins with HEAT repeats

5abd44b1fcf4565872000030_001

TOG-tubulin binding specificity promotes microtubule dynamics and mitotic spindle formation. XMAP215, CLASP, and Crescerin use arrayed tubulin-binding tumor overexpressed gene (TOG) domains to modulate microtubule dynamics. We hypothesized that TOGs have distinct architectures and tubulin-binding properties that underlie each family's ability to promote microtubule polymerization or pause. As a model, we investigated the pentameric TOG array of a Drosophila melanogaster XMAP215 member, Msps. We found that Msps TOGs have distinct architectures that bind either free or polymerized tubulin, and that a polarized array drives microtubule polymerization. An engineered TOG1-2-5 array fully supported Msps-dependent microtubule polymerase activity. Requisite for this activity was a TOG5-specific N-terminal HEAT repeat that engaged microtubule lattice-incorporated tubulin. TOG5-microtubule binding maintained mitotic spindle formation as deleting or mutating TOG5 compromised spindle architecture and increased the mitotic index. Mad2 knockdown released the spindle assembly checkpoint triggered when TOG5-microtubule binding was compromised, indicating that TOG5 is essential for spindle function. Our results reveal a TOG5-specific role in mitotic fidelity and support our hypothesis that architecturally distinct TOGs arranged in a sequence-specific order underlie TOG array microtubule regulator activity.

List proteins with HEAT repeats

5abd44b1fcf4565872000030_002

DNA-PKcs, Allostery, and DNA Double-Strand Break Repair: Defining the Structure and Setting the Stage. DNA-dependent protein kinase catalytic subunit (DNA-PKcs) is central to the regulation of the DNA damage response and repair through nonhomologous end joining. The structure has proved challenging due to its large size and multiple HEAT repeats. We have recently reported crystals of selenomethionine-labeled DNA-PKcs complexed with native KU80ct (KU80 residues 539-732) diffracting to 4.3Å resolution. The novel use of crystals of selenomethionine-labeled protein expressed in HeLa cells has facilitated the use of single anomalous X-ray scattering of this 4128 amino acid, multiple HEAT-repeat structure. The monitoring of the selenomethionines in the anomalous-difference density map has allowed the checking of the amino acid residue registration in the electron density, and the labeling of the Ku-C-terminal moiety with selenomethionine has further allowed its identification in the structure of the complex with DNA-PKcs. The crystal structure defines a stage on which many of the components assemble and regulate the kinase activity through modulating the conformation and allosteric regulation of kinase activity.

List proteins with HEAT repeats

5abd44b1fcf4565872000030_003

HEATR1 Negatively Regulates Akt to Help Sensitize Pancreatic Cancer Cells to Chemotherapy. Elucidating mechanisms of chemoresistance is critical to improve cancer therapy, especially for the treatment of pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma (PDAC). Genome-wide association studies have suggested the less studied gene HEAT repeat-containing protein 1 (HEATR1) as a possible determinant of cellular sensitivity to different chemotherapeutic drugs. In this study, we assessed this hypothesized link in PDAC, where HEATR1 expression is downregulated significantly. HEATR1 silencing in PDAC cells increased resistance to gemcitabine and other chemotherapeutics, where this effect was associated with increased AKT kinase phosphorylation at the Thr308 regulatory site. Mechanistically, HEATR1 enhanced cell responsiveness to gemcitabine by acting as a scaffold to facilitate interactions between AKT and the protein phosphatase PP2A, thereby promoting Thr308 dephosphorylation. Consistent with these findings, treatment with the AKT inhibitor triciribine sensitized HEATR1-depleted PDAC cells to gemcitabine, suggesting that this therapeutic combination may overcome gemcitabine resistance in patients with low HEATR1 expression. Clinically, we found that HEATR1 downregulation in PDAC patients was associated with increased AKT phosphorylation, poor response to tumor resection plus gemcitabine standard-of-care treatment, and shorter overall survival. Collectively, our findings establish HEATR1 as a novel regulator of AKT and a candidate predictive and prognostic indicator of drug responsiveness and outcome in PDAC patients.

List proteins with HEAT repeats

5abd44b1fcf4565872000030_004

Rif1: A Conserved Regulator of DNA Replication and Repair Hijacked by Telomeres in Yeasts. Rap1-interacting factor 1 (Rif1) was originally identified in the budding yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae as a telomere-binding protein that negatively regulates telomerase-mediated telomere elongation. Although this function is conserved in the distantly related fission yeast Schizosaccharomyces pombe, recent studies, both in yeasts and in metazoans, reveal that Rif1 also functions more globally, both in the temporal control of DNA replication and in DNA repair. Rif1 proteins are large and characterized by N-terminal HEAT repeats, predicted to form an elongated alpha-helical structure. In addition, all Rif1 homologs contain two short motifs, abbreviated RVxF/SILK, that are implicated in recruitment of the PP1 (yeast Glc7) phosphatase. In yeasts the RVxF/SILK domains have been shown to play a role in control of DNA replication initiation, at least in part through targeted de-phosphorylation of proteins in the pre-Replication Complex. In human cells Rif1 is recruited to DNA double-strand breaks through an interaction with 53BP1 where it counteracts DNA resection, thus promoting repair by non-homologous end-joining. This function requires the N-terminal HEAT repeat-containing domain. Interestingly, this domain is also implicated in DNA end protection at un-capped telomeres in yeast. We conclude by discussing the deployment of Rif1 at telomeres in yeasts from both an evolutionary perspective and in light of its recently discovered global functions.

List proteins with HEAT repeats

5abd44b1fcf4565872000030_005

HEAT repeat 1 motif is required for B56γ-containing protein phosphatase 2A (B56γ-PP2A) holoenzyme assembly and tumor-suppressive function. Protein phosphatase 2A (PP2A) enzyme consists of a heterodimeric core (AC core) comprising a scaffolding subunit (A), a catalytic subunit (C), and a variable regulatory subunit (B). Earlier studies suggest that upon DNA damage, a specific B subunit, B56γ, bridges the PP2A AC core to p53, leading to dephosphorylation of p53 at Thr-55, induction of the p53 transcriptional target p21, and the inhibition of cell proliferation and transformation. In addition to dephosphorylation of p53, B56γ-PP2A also inhibits cell proliferation and transformation by an unknown mechanism. B56γ contains 18 α-helices that are organized into eight HEAT (Huntington-elongation-A subunit-TOR) repeat motifs. Although previous crystal structure study has revealed the residues of B56γ that directly contact the A and C subunits, the contribution of HEAT repeats to holoenzyme assembly and to B56γ-PP2A tumor-suppressive function remains to be elucidated. Here, we show that HEAT repeat 1 is required for the interaction of B56γ with the PP2A AC core and, more importantly, for B56γ-PP2A tumor-suppressive function. Within this region, we identified a tumor-associated mutation, C39R, which disrupts the interaction of B56γ with the AC core and thus was unable to mediate dephosphorylation of p53 by PP2A. Furthermore, due to its lack of AC interaction, C39R was also unable to promote the p53-independent tumor-suppressive function of B56γ-PP2A. This study provides structural insight into the PP2A holoenzyme assembly and emphasizes the importance of HEAT repeat 1 in B56γ-PP2A tumor-suppressive function.

List proteins with HEAT repeats

5abd44b1fcf4565872000030_006

Complex energy landscape of a giant repeat protein. Here, we reveal a remarkable complexity in the unfolding of giant HEAT-repeat protein PR65/A, a molecular adaptor for the heterotrimeric PP2A phosphatases. The repeat array ruptures at multiple sites, leading to intermediate states with noncontiguous folded subdomains. There is a dominant sequence of unfolding, which reflects a nonuniform stability distribution across the repeat array and can be rationalized by theoretical models accounting for heterogeneous contact density in the folded structure. Unfolding of certain intermediates is, however, competitive, leading to parallel unfolding pathways. The low-stability, central repeats sample unfolded conformations under physiological conditions, suggesting how folding directs function: certain regions present rigid motifs for molecular recognition, whereas others have the flexibility with which to broaden the search area, as in the fly-casting mechanism. Partial unfolding of PR65/A also impacts catalysis by altering the proximity of bound catalytic subunit and substrate. Thus, the repeat array orchestrates the assembly and activity of PP2A.

List proteins with HEAT repeats

5abd44b1fcf4565872000030_007

Topology and structure of an engineered human cohesin complex bound to Pds5B. The cohesin subunits Smc1, Smc3 and Scc1 form large tripartite rings which mediate sister chromatid cohesion and chromatin structure. These are thought to entrap DNA with the help of the associated proteins SA1/2 and Pds5A/B. Structural information is available for parts of cohesin, but analyses of entire cohesin complexes are limited by their flexibility. Here we generated a more rigid 'bonsai' cohesin by truncating the coiled coils of Smc1 and Smc3 and used single-particle electron microscopy, chemical crosslinking-mass spectrometry and in silico modelling to generate three-dimensional models of cohesin bound to Pds5B. The HEAT-repeat protein Pds5B forms a curved structure around the nucleotide-binding domains of Smc1 and Smc3 and bridges the Smc3-Scc1 and SA1-Scc1 interfaces. These results indicate that Pds5B forms an integral part of the cohesin ring by contacting all other cohesin subunits, a property that may reflect the complex role of Pds5 proteins in controlling cohesin-DNA interactions.

List proteins with HEAT repeats

5abd44b1fcf4565872000030_008

Role of agents for reversing the effects of target-specific oral anticoagulants. PURPOSE: The available clinical data on target-specific oral anticoagulant (TSOAC) reversal agents that are currently in development or have been approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) are reviewed. SUMMARY: The development of TSOACs such as dabigatran, rivaroxaban, edoxaban, and apixaban has presented benefits and new challenges. One of the main challenges associated with the use of TSOACs is the lack of suitable agent-specific reversal agents. Several treatment options for the management of life-threatening bleeding events associated with TSOAC use, such as fresh frozen plasma, prothrombin complex concentrates, and recombinant coagulation factor VIIa, have been used, with inconsistent results. Currently, two potential reversal agents for oral direct factor Xa inhibitors (andexanet alfa and ciraparantag) are at various stages of clinical development. Idarucizumab, a reversal agent for the oral direct thrombin inhibitor dabigatran, was approved by FDA in October 2015. Idarucizumab and andexanet alfa have been reported to produce anticoagulation reversal effects within minutes of administration. Ciraparantag was demonstrated to decrease whole blood clotting time to within 10% of baseline values in 10 minutes or less, with a return to baseline hemostasis in 10-30 minutes. TSOAC reversal agents have been generally well tolerated in clinical trials. CONCLUSION: Idarucizumab and other TSOAC reversal agents, such as andexanet alfa and ciraparantag, present the potential for consistent and effective treatment and management options when life-threatening or uncontrolled TSOAC-associated bleeding occurs or when emergency surgery is warranted in patients using TSOACs.

What are the 3 antidotes for anticoagulant (anti-blood clotting) drugs, including factor Xa inhibitors, as of November 2017.

5ac0f7b919833b0d7b000006_001

Role of agents for reversing the effects of target-specific oral anticoagulants. PURPOSE: The available clinical data on target-specific oral anticoagulant (TSOAC) reversal agents that are currently in development or have been approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) are reviewed. SUMMARY: The development of TSOACs such as dabigatran, rivaroxaban, edoxaban, and apixaban has presented benefits and new challenges. One of the main challenges associated with the use of TSOACs is the lack of suitable agent-specific reversal agents. Several treatment options for the management of life-threatening bleeding events associated with TSOAC use, such as fresh frozen plasma, prothrombin complex concentrates, and recombinant coagulation factor VIIa, have been used, with inconsistent results. Currently, two potential reversal agents for oral direct factor Xa inhibitors (andexanet alfa and ciraparantag) are at various stages of clinical development. Idarucizumab, a reversal agent for the oral direct thrombin inhibitor dabigatran, was approved by FDA in October 2015. Idarucizumab and andexanet alfa have been reported to produce anticoagulation reversal effects within minutes of administration. Ciraparantag was demonstrated to decrease whole blood clotting time to within 10% of baseline values in 10 minutes or less, with a return to baseline hemostasis in 10-30 minutes. TSOAC reversal agents have been generally well tolerated in clinical trials. CONCLUSION: Idarucizumab and other TSOAC reversal agents, such as andexanet alfa and ciraparantag, present the potential for consistent and effective treatment and management options when life-threatening or uncontrolled TSOAC-associated bleeding occurs or when emergency surgery is warranted in patients using TSOACs.

What are the 3 antidotes for anticoagulant (anti-blood clotting) drugs, including factor Xa inhibitors, as of November 2017.

5ac0f7b919833b0d7b000006_002

Role of agents for reversing the effects of target-specific oral anticoagulants. PURPOSE: The available clinical data on target-specific oral anticoagulant (TSOAC) reversal agents that are currently in development or have been approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) are reviewed. SUMMARY: The development of TSOACs such as dabigatran, rivaroxaban, edoxaban, and apixaban has presented benefits and new challenges. One of the main challenges associated with the use of TSOACs is the lack of suitable agent-specific reversal agents. Several treatment options for the management of life-threatening bleeding events associated with TSOAC use, such as fresh frozen plasma, prothrombin complex concentrates, and recombinant coagulation factor VIIa, have been used, with inconsistent results. Currently, two potential reversal agents for oral direct factor Xa inhibitors (andexanet alfa and ciraparantag) are at various stages of clinical development. Idarucizumab, a reversal agent for the oral direct thrombin inhibitor dabigatran, was approved by FDA in October 2015. Idarucizumab and andexanet alfa have been reported to produce anticoagulation reversal effects within minutes of administration. Ciraparantag was demonstrated to decrease whole blood clotting time to within 10% of baseline values in 10 minutes or less, with a return to baseline hemostasis in 10-30 minutes. TSOAC reversal agents have been generally well tolerated in clinical trials. CONCLUSION: Idarucizumab and other TSOAC reversal agents, such as andexanet alfa and ciraparantag, present the potential for consistent and effective treatment and management options when life-threatening or uncontrolled TSOAC-associated bleeding occurs or when emergency surgery is warranted in patients using TSOACs.

What are the 3 antidotes for anticoagulant (anti-blood clotting) drugs, including factor Xa inhibitors, as of November 2017.

5ac0f7b919833b0d7b000006_003

Role of agents for reversing the effects of target-specific oral anticoagulants. PURPOSE: The available clinical data on target-specific oral anticoagulant (TSOAC) reversal agents that are currently in development or have been approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) are reviewed. SUMMARY: The development of TSOACs such as dabigatran, rivaroxaban, edoxaban, and apixaban has presented benefits and new challenges. One of the main challenges associated with the use of TSOACs is the lack of suitable agent-specific reversal agents. Several treatment options for the management of life-threatening bleeding events associated with TSOAC use, such as fresh frozen plasma, prothrombin complex concentrates, and recombinant coagulation factor VIIa, have been used, with inconsistent results. Currently, two potential reversal agents for oral direct factor Xa inhibitors (andexanet alfa and ciraparantag) are at various stages of clinical development. Idarucizumab, a reversal agent for the oral direct thrombin inhibitor dabigatran, was approved by FDA in October 2015. Idarucizumab and andexanet alfa have been reported to produce anticoagulation reversal effects within minutes of administration. Ciraparantag was demonstrated to decrease whole blood clotting time to within 10% of baseline values in 10 minutes or less, with a return to baseline hemostasis in 10-30 minutes. TSOAC reversal agents have been generally well tolerated in clinical trials. CONCLUSION: Idarucizumab and other TSOAC reversal agents, such as andexanet alfa and ciraparantag, present the potential for consistent and effective treatment and management options when life-threatening or uncontrolled TSOAC-associated bleeding occurs or when emergency surgery is warranted in patients using TSOACs.

What are the 3 antidotes for anticoagulant (anti-blood clotting) drugs, including factor Xa inhibitors, as of November 2017.

5ac0f7b919833b0d7b000006_004

Role of agents for reversing the effects of target-specific oral anticoagulants. PURPOSE: The available clinical data on target-specific oral anticoagulant (TSOAC) reversal agents that are currently in development or have been approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) are reviewed. SUMMARY: The development of TSOACs such as dabigatran, rivaroxaban, edoxaban, and apixaban has presented benefits and new challenges. One of the main challenges associated with the use of TSOACs is the lack of suitable agent-specific reversal agents. Several treatment options for the management of life-threatening bleeding events associated with TSOAC use, such as fresh frozen plasma, prothrombin complex concentrates, and recombinant coagulation factor VIIa, have been used, with inconsistent results. Currently, two potential reversal agents for oral direct factor Xa inhibitors (andexanet alfa and ciraparantag) are at various stages of clinical development. Idarucizumab, a reversal agent for the oral direct thrombin inhibitor dabigatran, was approved by FDA in October 2015. Idarucizumab and andexanet alfa have been reported to produce anticoagulation reversal effects within minutes of administration. Ciraparantag was demonstrated to decrease whole blood clotting time to within 10% of baseline values in 10 minutes or less, with a return to baseline hemostasis in 10-30 minutes. TSOAC reversal agents have been generally well tolerated in clinical trials. CONCLUSION: Idarucizumab and other TSOAC reversal agents, such as andexanet alfa and ciraparantag, present the potential for consistent and effective treatment and management options when life-threatening or uncontrolled TSOAC-associated bleeding occurs or when emergency surgery is warranted in patients using TSOACs.

What are the 3 antidotes for anticoagulant (anti-blood clotting) drugs, including factor Xa inhibitors, as of November 2017.

5ac0f7b919833b0d7b000006_005

Reversal of Anticoagulation and Management of Bleeding in Patients on Anticoagulants. Bleeding is the most common complication of all anticoagulants. Any bleeding patient on an anticoagulant should be risk-stratified based on hemodynamic instability, source of bleeding, and degree of blood loss. Although minor bleed may be managed with discontinuation of anticoagulant, major bleed may require transfusion of blood products and use of specific antidote. The residual effects of each anticoagulant may be monitored with distinct coagulation assay. Intravenous or oral vitamin K can reverse the effect of warfarin within 24 to 48 hours and is indicated for any bleeding, international normalized ratio of >10 or 4.5 to 10 in patients with other risk factors for bleeding. Fresh frozen plasma or prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC) may be necessary in major bleeding related to warfarin. Protamine sulfate reverses the effect of unfractionated heparin completely and of low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) partially. Idarucizumab has recently been approved in United States for dabigatran reversal, whereas andexanet alfa is expected to get approved in the near future for reversal of oral factor Xa inhibitors. The PCC may reverse the effect of rivaroxaban to some extent, but no data are available regarding reversal of apixaban and edoxaban. Aripazine has shown promising results to reverse the effects of LMWH, fondaparinux, and direct oral anticoagulants but is still in the developmental phase.

What are the 3 antidotes for anticoagulant (anti-blood clotting) drugs, including factor Xa inhibitors, as of November 2017.

5ac0f7b919833b0d7b000006_006

Reversal of Anticoagulation and Management of Bleeding in Patients on Anticoagulants. Bleeding is the most common complication of all anticoagulants. Any bleeding patient on an anticoagulant should be risk-stratified based on hemodynamic instability, source of bleeding, and degree of blood loss. Although minor bleed may be managed with discontinuation of anticoagulant, major bleed may require transfusion of blood products and use of specific antidote. The residual effects of each anticoagulant may be monitored with distinct coagulation assay. Intravenous or oral vitamin K can reverse the effect of warfarin within 24 to 48 hours and is indicated for any bleeding, international normalized ratio of >10 or 4.5 to 10 in patients with other risk factors for bleeding. Fresh frozen plasma or prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC) may be necessary in major bleeding related to warfarin. Protamine sulfate reverses the effect of unfractionated heparin completely and of low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) partially. Idarucizumab has recently been approved in United States for dabigatran reversal, whereas andexanet alfa is expected to get approved in the near future for reversal of oral factor Xa inhibitors. The PCC may reverse the effect of rivaroxaban to some extent, but no data are available regarding reversal of apixaban and edoxaban. Aripazine has shown promising results to reverse the effects of LMWH, fondaparinux, and direct oral anticoagulants but is still in the developmental phase.

What are the 3 antidotes for anticoagulant (anti-blood clotting) drugs, including factor Xa inhibitors, as of November 2017.

5ac0f7b919833b0d7b000006_007

Reversal of Anticoagulation and Management of Bleeding in Patients on Anticoagulants. Bleeding is the most common complication of all anticoagulants. Any bleeding patient on an anticoagulant should be risk-stratified based on hemodynamic instability, source of bleeding, and degree of blood loss. Although minor bleed may be managed with discontinuation of anticoagulant, major bleed may require transfusion of blood products and use of specific antidote. The residual effects of each anticoagulant may be monitored with distinct coagulation assay. Intravenous or oral vitamin K can reverse the effect of warfarin within 24 to 48 hours and is indicated for any bleeding, international normalized ratio of >10 or 4.5 to 10 in patients with other risk factors for bleeding. Fresh frozen plasma or prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC) may be necessary in major bleeding related to warfarin. Protamine sulfate reverses the effect of unfractionated heparin completely and of low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) partially. Idarucizumab has recently been approved in United States for dabigatran reversal, whereas andexanet alfa is expected to get approved in the near future for reversal of oral factor Xa inhibitors. The PCC may reverse the effect of rivaroxaban to some extent, but no data are available regarding reversal of apixaban and edoxaban. Aripazine has shown promising results to reverse the effects of LMWH, fondaparinux, and direct oral anticoagulants but is still in the developmental phase.

What are the 3 antidotes for anticoagulant (anti-blood clotting) drugs, including factor Xa inhibitors, as of November 2017.

5ac0f7b919833b0d7b000006_008

Reversal of Anticoagulation and Management of Bleeding in Patients on Anticoagulants. Bleeding is the most common complication of all anticoagulants. Any bleeding patient on an anticoagulant should be risk-stratified based on hemodynamic instability, source of bleeding, and degree of blood loss. Although minor bleed may be managed with discontinuation of anticoagulant, major bleed may require transfusion of blood products and use of specific antidote. The residual effects of each anticoagulant may be monitored with distinct coagulation assay. Intravenous or oral vitamin K can reverse the effect of warfarin within 24 to 48 hours and is indicated for any bleeding, international normalized ratio of >10 or 4.5 to 10 in patients with other risk factors for bleeding. Fresh frozen plasma or prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC) may be necessary in major bleeding related to warfarin. Protamine sulfate reverses the effect of unfractionated heparin completely and of low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) partially. Idarucizumab has recently been approved in United States for dabigatran reversal, whereas andexanet alfa is expected to get approved in the near future for reversal of oral factor Xa inhibitors. The PCC may reverse the effect of rivaroxaban to some extent, but no data are available regarding reversal of apixaban and edoxaban. Aripazine has shown promising results to reverse the effects of LMWH, fondaparinux, and direct oral anticoagulants but is still in the developmental phase.

What are the 3 antidotes for anticoagulant (anti-blood clotting) drugs, including factor Xa inhibitors, as of November 2017.

5ac0f7b919833b0d7b000006_009

[Antidotes to novel direct oral anticoagulants]. During the last 10 years, several novel direct oral anticoagulants (NOACs) have entered the clinical arena and were registered in the Russian Federation for use in patients presenting with atrial fibrillation, venous thrombosis, and pulmonary artery thromboembolism. NOACs are classified into two groups: direct thrombin inhibitor (notably dabigatran) and factor Xa inhibitors (including rivaroxaban, apixaban, and edoxaban). Their disadvantage is lack of specific antidotes in case of an emergency situation (injury, infarction, stroke requiring thrombolysis, urgent operation). The review contains the data on the existing therapeutic regimens of treating haemorrhage on the background of taking these coagulants. This is followed by analysing the present-day results of clinical trials aimed at working out pharmaceutical agents (andexanet alpha, idarucizumab, aripazine) being antidotes to direct thrombin inhibitor and the factor Xa inhibitors. Administration of these agents makes it possible to reverse coagulation and minimize the aftermaths of haemorrhage in patients taking these drugs, in emergency situations.

What are the 3 antidotes for anticoagulant (anti-blood clotting) drugs, including factor Xa inhibitors, as of November 2017.

5ac0f7b919833b0d7b000006_010

[Antidotes to novel direct oral anticoagulants]. During the last 10 years, several novel direct oral anticoagulants (NOACs) have entered the clinical arena and were registered in the Russian Federation for use in patients presenting with atrial fibrillation, venous thrombosis, and pulmonary artery thromboembolism. NOACs are classified into two groups: direct thrombin inhibitor (notably dabigatran) and factor Xa inhibitors (including rivaroxaban, apixaban, and edoxaban). Their disadvantage is lack of specific antidotes in case of an emergency situation (injury, infarction, stroke requiring thrombolysis, urgent operation). The review contains the data on the existing therapeutic regimens of treating haemorrhage on the background of taking these coagulants. This is followed by analysing the present-day results of clinical trials aimed at working out pharmaceutical agents (andexanet alpha, idarucizumab, aripazine) being antidotes to direct thrombin inhibitor and the factor Xa inhibitors. Administration of these agents makes it possible to reverse coagulation and minimize the aftermaths of haemorrhage in patients taking these drugs, in emergency situations.

What are the 3 antidotes for anticoagulant (anti-blood clotting) drugs, including factor Xa inhibitors, as of November 2017.

5ac0f7b919833b0d7b000006_011

Epidermolysis bullosa simplex: evidence in two families for keratin gene abnormalities. Epidermolysis bullosa simplex (EBS) is characterized by skin blistering due to basal keratinocyte fragility. In one family studied, inheritance of EBS is linked to the gene encoding keratin 14, and a thymine to cytosine mutation in exon 6 of keratin 14 has introduced a proline in the middle of an alpha-helical region. In a second family, inheritance of EBS is linked to loci that map near the keratin 5 gene. These data indicate that abnormalities of either of the components of the keratin intermediate filament heterodipolymer can impair the mechanical stability of these epithelial cells.

Which genes are associated with Epidermolysis Bullosa Simplex?

5ace34eb0340b9f058000010_001

Linkage of epidermolysis bullosa simplex to keratin gene loci. Epidermolysis bullosa simplex (EBS) is an autosomal dominant disorder characterised by intraepidermal blistering of the skin. Two families with Weber-Cockayne EBS have been analysed for linkage to keratin gene loci. In the first family, linkage was found to chromosome 17 markers flanking the keratin 14 gene (D17S74: Zmax = +2.45, theta = 0.10; COL1A1: Zmax = +0.97, theta = 0.00) and markers near the keratin 5 gene on chromosome 12 were excluded (D12S17: Z less than -2.0, theta = 0.08; COL2A1: Z less than -2.0, theta = 0.13). In contrast, the second family showed linkage to the region containing the keratin 5 gene (D12S17: Zmax = +1.37, theta = 0.08; COL2A1: Zmax = +0.33, theta = 0.15) and was not linked to the keratin 14 gene (D17S74: Z less than -2.0, theta = 0.14). The Weber-Cockayne form of EBS is genetically heterogeneous with linkage to different keratin gene loci.

Which genes are associated with Epidermolysis Bullosa Simplex?

5ace34eb0340b9f058000010_002

Linkage of epidermolysis bullosa simplex to keratin gene loci. Epidermolysis bullosa simplex (EBS) is an autosomal dominant disorder characterised by intraepidermal blistering of the skin. Two families with Weber-Cockayne EBS have been analysed for linkage to keratin gene loci. In the first family, linkage was found to chromosome 17 markers flanking the keratin 14 gene (D17S74: Zmax = +2.45, theta = 0.10; COL1A1: Zmax = +0.97, theta = 0.00) and markers near the keratin 5 gene on chromosome 12 were excluded (D12S17: Z less than -2.0, theta = 0.08; COL2A1: Z less than -2.0, theta = 0.13). In contrast, the second family showed linkage to the region containing the keratin 5 gene (D12S17: Zmax = +1.37, theta = 0.08; COL2A1: Zmax = +0.33, theta = 0.15) and was not linked to the keratin 14 gene (D17S74: Z less than -2.0, theta = 0.14). The Weber-Cockayne form of EBS is genetically heterogeneous with linkage to different keratin gene loci.

Which genes are associated with Epidermolysis Bullosa Simplex?

5ace34eb0340b9f058000010_003

Linkage of epidermolysis bullosa simplex to keratin gene loci. Epidermolysis bullosa simplex (EBS) is an autosomal dominant disorder characterised by intraepidermal blistering of the skin. Two families with Weber-Cockayne EBS have been analysed for linkage to keratin gene loci. In the first family, linkage was found to chromosome 17 markers flanking the keratin 14 gene (D17S74: Zmax = +2.45, theta = 0.10; COL1A1: Zmax = +0.97, theta = 0.00) and markers near the keratin 5 gene on chromosome 12 were excluded (D12S17: Z less than -2.0, theta = 0.08; COL2A1: Z less than -2.0, theta = 0.13). In contrast, the second family showed linkage to the region containing the keratin 5 gene (D12S17: Zmax = +1.37, theta = 0.08; COL2A1: Zmax = +0.33, theta = 0.15) and was not linked to the keratin 14 gene (D17S74: Z less than -2.0, theta = 0.14). The Weber-Cockayne form of EBS is genetically heterogeneous with linkage to different keratin gene loci.

Which genes are associated with Epidermolysis Bullosa Simplex?

5ace34eb0340b9f058000010_004

Linkage of epidermolysis bullosa simplex to keratin gene loci. Epidermolysis bullosa simplex (EBS) is an autosomal dominant disorder characterised by intraepidermal blistering of the skin. Two families with Weber-Cockayne EBS have been analysed for linkage to keratin gene loci. In the first family, linkage was found to chromosome 17 markers flanking the keratin 14 gene (D17S74: Zmax = +2.45, theta = 0.10; COL1A1: Zmax = +0.97, theta = 0.00) and markers near the keratin 5 gene on chromosome 12 were excluded (D12S17: Z less than -2.0, theta = 0.08; COL2A1: Z less than -2.0, theta = 0.13). In contrast, the second family showed linkage to the region containing the keratin 5 gene (D12S17: Zmax = +1.37, theta = 0.08; COL2A1: Zmax = +0.33, theta = 0.15) and was not linked to the keratin 14 gene (D17S74: Z less than -2.0, theta = 0.14). The Weber-Cockayne form of EBS is genetically heterogeneous with linkage to different keratin gene loci.

Which genes are associated with Epidermolysis Bullosa Simplex?

5ace34eb0340b9f058000010_005

Keratin 14 gene mutations in patients with epidermolysis bullosa simplex. Mutations in genes encoding the keratin intermediate filaments expressed in basal cells have been identified in some families with epidermolysis bullosa simplex as the proximate cause of the fragility. We have systematically scanned genomic sequences of one of these keratins, keratin 14, for mutations in patients from 49 apparently independent kindreds using single-strand conformation polymorphism analysis. The ten mutations identified are clustered at three sites--the ends of the helices and the L12 linker region, mutation sites that have been identified in past, more limited studies. Early onset of blistering in these ten families is correlated with more widespread distribution of lesions.

Which genes are associated with Epidermolysis Bullosa Simplex?

5ace34eb0340b9f058000010_006

Keratin 14 gene mutations in patients with epidermolysis bullosa simplex. Mutations in genes encoding the keratin intermediate filaments expressed in basal cells have been identified in some families with epidermolysis bullosa simplex as the proximate cause of the fragility. We have systematically scanned genomic sequences of one of these keratins, keratin 14, for mutations in patients from 49 apparently independent kindreds using single-strand conformation polymorphism analysis. The ten mutations identified are clustered at three sites--the ends of the helices and the L12 linker region, mutation sites that have been identified in past, more limited studies. Early onset of blistering in these ten families is correlated with more widespread distribution of lesions.

Which genes are associated with Epidermolysis Bullosa Simplex?

5ace34eb0340b9f058000010_007

Keratin 14 gene point mutation in the Köbner and Dowling-Meara types of epidermolysis bullosa simplex as detected by the PASA method. Recent advances in molecular biology have enabled the association of epidermolysis bullosa simplex (EBS) with point mutations of keratin 14 and/or keratin 5 genes to be established. We describe here the detection of point mutations in genomic DNA from formalin-fixed and paraffin-embedded sections from five cases of epidermolysis bullosa using the PCR amplification of specific alleles (PASA) method. In two of four cases of Köbner-type EBS a point mutation of helix 2b (384 Leu-Pro) was detected and in one case of Dowling-Meara-type EBS a mutation in helix 1a (125 Arg-Cys) was detected. The results of this study are consistent with previous reports and they demonstrate that the PASA method is a rapid and reproducible method for the detection of single-base changes and small deletions.

Which genes are associated with Epidermolysis Bullosa Simplex?

5ace34eb0340b9f058000010_008

Keratin 14 gene point mutation in the Köbner and Dowling-Meara types of epidermolysis bullosa simplex as detected by the PASA method. Recent advances in molecular biology have enabled the association of epidermolysis bullosa simplex (EBS) with point mutations of keratin 14 and/or keratin 5 genes to be established. We describe here the detection of point mutations in genomic DNA from formalin-fixed and paraffin-embedded sections from five cases of epidermolysis bullosa using the PCR amplification of specific alleles (PASA) method. In two of four cases of Köbner-type EBS a point mutation of helix 2b (384 Leu-Pro) was detected and in one case of Dowling-Meara-type EBS a mutation in helix 1a (125 Arg-Cys) was detected. The results of this study are consistent with previous reports and they demonstrate that the PASA method is a rapid and reproducible method for the detection of single-base changes and small deletions.

Which genes are associated with Epidermolysis Bullosa Simplex?

5ace34eb0340b9f058000010_009

Keratin 14 gene point mutation in the Köbner and Dowling-Meara types of epidermolysis bullosa simplex as detected by the PASA method. Recent advances in molecular biology have enabled the association of epidermolysis bullosa simplex (EBS) with point mutations of keratin 14 and/or keratin 5 genes to be established. We describe here the detection of point mutations in genomic DNA from formalin-fixed and paraffin-embedded sections from five cases of epidermolysis bullosa using the PCR amplification of specific alleles (PASA) method. In two of four cases of Köbner-type EBS a point mutation of helix 2b (384 Leu-Pro) was detected and in one case of Dowling-Meara-type EBS a mutation in helix 1a (125 Arg-Cys) was detected. The results of this study are consistent with previous reports and they demonstrate that the PASA method is a rapid and reproducible method for the detection of single-base changes and small deletions.

Which genes are associated with Epidermolysis Bullosa Simplex?

5ace34eb0340b9f058000010_010

Homozygous deletion mutations in the plectin gene (PLEC1) in patients with epidermolysis bullosa simplex associated with late-onset muscular dystrophy. In a distinct autosomal recessive variant of epidermolysis bullosa, EB-MD, life-long skin blistering is associated with late-onset muscular dystrophy of unknown etiology. Electron microscopy of these patients' skin suggests that tissue separation occurs intracellularly at the level of the hemidesmosomal inner plaque, which contains plectin, a high molecular weight cytoskeletal associated protein, also expressed in the sarcolemma of the muscle. In this study, we report two patients with EB-MD, each with a homozygous deletion mutation in the plectin gene, PLEC1. In the first case, the proband and her similarly affected sister had a homozygous 9 bp deletion mutation, designated as 2719de19, which resulted in elimination of three amino acids, QEA, in a sequence of 23 amino acids entirely conserved between the mouse and human sequences. The proband in the second family demonstrated a single nucleotide deletion at position 5866, designated as 5866delC, which resulted in frameshift and a premature termination codon for translation 16 bp downstream from the site of deletion. The absence of plectin in the hemidesmosomes, as reflected by negative immunofluorescence with an anti-plectin antibody (HD-1), associated with fragility of basal keratinocytes, implicates plectin as critical for binding of intermediate keratin filament network to hemidesmosomal complexes. The function of plectin as a putative attachment protein also in the muscle would explain the clinical phenotype consisting of cutaneous fragility and muscular dystrophy in EB-MD.

Which genes are associated with Epidermolysis Bullosa Simplex?

5ace34eb0340b9f058000010_011

Homozygous deletion mutations in the plectin gene (PLEC1) in patients with epidermolysis bullosa simplex associated with late-onset muscular dystrophy. In a distinct autosomal recessive variant of epidermolysis bullosa, EB-MD, life-long skin blistering is associated with late-onset muscular dystrophy of unknown etiology. Electron microscopy of these patients' skin suggests that tissue separation occurs intracellularly at the level of the hemidesmosomal inner plaque, which contains plectin, a high molecular weight cytoskeletal associated protein, also expressed in the sarcolemma of the muscle. In this study, we report two patients with EB-MD, each with a homozygous deletion mutation in the plectin gene, PLEC1. In the first case, the proband and her similarly affected sister had a homozygous 9 bp deletion mutation, designated as 2719de19, which resulted in elimination of three amino acids, QEA, in a sequence of 23 amino acids entirely conserved between the mouse and human sequences. The proband in the second family demonstrated a single nucleotide deletion at position 5866, designated as 5866delC, which resulted in frameshift and a premature termination codon for translation 16 bp downstream from the site of deletion. The absence of plectin in the hemidesmosomes, as reflected by negative immunofluorescence with an anti-plectin antibody (HD-1), associated with fragility of basal keratinocytes, implicates plectin as critical for binding of intermediate keratin filament network to hemidesmosomal complexes. The function of plectin as a putative attachment protein also in the muscle would explain the clinical phenotype consisting of cutaneous fragility and muscular dystrophy in EB-MD.

Which genes are associated with Epidermolysis Bullosa Simplex?

5ace34eb0340b9f058000010_013

A compound heterozygous one amino-acid insertion/nonsense mutation in the plectin gene causes epidermolysis bullosa simplex with plectin deficiency. Plectin is a cytoskeleton linker protein expressed in a variety of tissues including skin, muscle, and nerves. Mutations in its gene are associated with epidermolysis bullosa simplex with late-onset muscular dystrophy. Whereas in most of these patients the pathogenic events are mediated by nonsense-mediated mRNA decay, the consequences of an in-frame mutation are less clear. We analyzed a patient with compound heterozygosity for a 3-bp insertion at position 1287 leading to the insertion of leucine as well as the missense mutation Q1518X leading to a stop codon. The presence of plectin mRNA was demonstrated by a RNase protection assay. However, a marked reduction of plectin protein was found using immunofluorescence microscopy of the patient's skin and Western blot analysis of the patient's cultured keratinocytes. The loss of plectin protein was associated with morphological alterations in plectin-containing structures of the dermo-epidermal junction, in skeletal muscle, and in nerves as detected by electron microscopy. In an in vitro overlay assay using recombinant plectin peptides spanning exons 2 to 15 the insertion of leucine resulted in markedly increased self-aggregation of plectin peptides. These results describe for the first time the functional consequences of an in-frame insertion mutation in humans.

Which genes are associated with Epidermolysis Bullosa Simplex?

5ace34eb0340b9f058000010_016

A compound heterozygous one amino-acid insertion/nonsense mutation in the plectin gene causes epidermolysis bullosa simplex with plectin deficiency. Plectin is a cytoskeleton linker protein expressed in a variety of tissues including skin, muscle, and nerves. Mutations in its gene are associated with epidermolysis bullosa simplex with late-onset muscular dystrophy. Whereas in most of these patients the pathogenic events are mediated by nonsense-mediated mRNA decay, the consequences of an in-frame mutation are less clear. We analyzed a patient with compound heterozygosity for a 3-bp insertion at position 1287 leading to the insertion of leucine as well as the missense mutation Q1518X leading to a stop codon. The presence of plectin mRNA was demonstrated by a RNase protection assay. However, a marked reduction of plectin protein was found using immunofluorescence microscopy of the patient's skin and Western blot analysis of the patient's cultured keratinocytes. The loss of plectin protein was associated with morphological alterations in plectin-containing structures of the dermo-epidermal junction, in skeletal muscle, and in nerves as detected by electron microscopy. In an in vitro overlay assay using recombinant plectin peptides spanning exons 2 to 15 the insertion of leucine resulted in markedly increased self-aggregation of plectin peptides. These results describe for the first time the functional consequences of an in-frame insertion mutation in humans.

Which genes are associated with Epidermolysis Bullosa Simplex?

5ace34eb0340b9f058000010_017

Primers for exon-specific amplification of the KRT5 gene: identification of novel and recurrent mutations in epidermolysis bullosa simplex patients. The KRT5 and KRT14 genes encode the proteins keratin 5 and 14, respectively, which are the primary structural components of the 10-nm intermediate filaments of the mitotic epidermal basal cells. A single mutation in either gene can disrupt the keratin intermediate filament cytoskeleton, resulting in the skin fragility and blistering that is characteristic of the group of inherited disorders known as epidermolysis bullosa simplex. We have established a mutation detection system that facilitates KRT5 gene analysis from leukocyte genomic DNA, obviating the need for a skin sample or keratinocyte culture for cDNA synthesis. KRT5 intronic regions that flanked each exon were sequenced and sets of facing intronic primers were designed for specific amplification of each of the nine KRT5 exons. Direct sequencing of KRT5-amplified exons identified three novel missense mutations. One mutation recurred in two unrelated patients with sporadic EBS. This glutamate to lysine substitution (E477K), located in the highly conserved KLLEGE motif at the end of the central rod domain, is the third recurrent mutation identified in dominant epidermolysis bullosa simplex disease. The corresponding glutamate in keratin 2e was previously reported to be frequently mutated in ichthyosis bullosa of Siemens, suggesting that this highly conserved residue may be a potential mutational hot spot in other type II keratins or nonkeratin intermediate filament proteins.

Which genes are associated with Epidermolysis Bullosa Simplex?

5ace34eb0340b9f058000010_019

Epidermolysis bullosa simplex with mottled pigmentation: clinical aspects and confirmation of the P24L mutation in the KRT5 gene in further patients. Epidermolysis bullosa simplex with mottled pigmentation (EBS-MP) is a rare dermatologic disorder of autosomal dominant inheritance with intraepidermal blistering after minor trauma, reticular hyperpigmentation unrelated to the blistering, nail dystrophy, and mild palmoplantar keratosis. Keratin 5 and keratin 14 are known to be essential for the basal keratinocyte cytoskeleton and are defective in several forms of epidermolysis bullosa simplex. Recently, a 71C-->T transition in the keratin 5 gene (KRT5) causing a P24L substitution was identified in some patients with EBS-MP. We present a family with three affected members and a sporadic patient with EBS-MP. They exemplify clinically mild expression with intrafamilial variability and the possibility of improvement with time. In all of them, mutation analysis of the KRT5 gene showed the P24L mutation. So far, other mutations in the same or in other genes have not been reported in patients with EBS-MP.

Which genes are associated with Epidermolysis Bullosa Simplex?

5ace34eb0340b9f058000010_021

Epidermolysis bullosa simplex with mottled pigmentation: clinical aspects and confirmation of the P24L mutation in the KRT5 gene in further patients. Epidermolysis bullosa simplex with mottled pigmentation (EBS-MP) is a rare dermatologic disorder of autosomal dominant inheritance with intraepidermal blistering after minor trauma, reticular hyperpigmentation unrelated to the blistering, nail dystrophy, and mild palmoplantar keratosis. Keratin 5 and keratin 14 are known to be essential for the basal keratinocyte cytoskeleton and are defective in several forms of epidermolysis bullosa simplex. Recently, a 71C-->T transition in the keratin 5 gene (KRT5) causing a P24L substitution was identified in some patients with EBS-MP. We present a family with three affected members and a sporadic patient with EBS-MP. They exemplify clinically mild expression with intrafamilial variability and the possibility of improvement with time. In all of them, mutation analysis of the KRT5 gene showed the P24L mutation. So far, other mutations in the same or in other genes have not been reported in patients with EBS-MP.

Which genes are associated with Epidermolysis Bullosa Simplex?

5ace34eb0340b9f058000010_022

Severe palmo-plantar hyperkeratosis in Dowling-Meara epidermolysis bullosa simplex caused by a mutation in the keratin 14 gene (KRT14). Mutant keratins 5 or 14 are implicated in the etiology of epidermolysis bullosa simplex (EBS). The catalog of mutations has established certain patterns of mutation clusters from which it may be possible, along with associated biochemical data, to predict phenotypic severity. It is becoming apparent that some of these assumptions may now require modification. We report a mutation in the gene encoding keratin 14 (KRT14) that changes the predicted amino acid at position 119, at the start of the helix initiation motif, from methionine to threonine (K14 M119T) in a patient with an EBS Dowling-Meara phenotype with severe palmo-plantar hyperkeratosis. This demonstrates that the three major types of EBS can arise from missense mutations in the same codon. The findings suggest that the specific nature of the missense mutation, in the context of the protein sequence, can contribute far more to the clinical severity than previously thought. The different EBS subtypes should be viewed as gradations of clinical severity rather than distinct genetic diseases.

Which genes are associated with Epidermolysis Bullosa Simplex?

5ace34eb0340b9f058000010_023

Verrucous carcinoma in epidermolysis bullosa simplex is possibly associated with a novel mutation in the keratin 5 gene. Epidermolysis bullosa simplex (EBS) is mainly caused by mutations in the KRT5 and KRT14 genes. Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) represents the second most frequent skin neoplasia with complex aetiology. The molecular events disrupting the orchestrated interplay between the cytoskeleton, cell adhesion molecules and signalling proteins are ill understood in SCC. We describe the molecular background and the unusual course of the disease in a patient with EBS Dowling-Meara, severe keratoderma and a massive verrucous carcinoma. Skin and tumour samples from the patient were analysed using light microscopy, immunohistochemistry and immunofluorescence mapping. Mutation analysis of the KRT5 and KRT14 genes identified the novel KRT5 mutation p.E477D. Invasive tumour areas were characterized by downregulation of keratins 5 and 14, reduced and irregular desmocollin-2 expression and increased expression of keratins 6, 16 and 17. Levels of Ki-67 were increased and levels of E-cadherin strongly reduced in the tumour tissue. In this case a novel KRT5 mutation led to increased fragility of keratinocytes. Desmosome and adherens junctions were destabilized, which may trigger keratinocyte-mediated inflammation, possibly via p120-catenin-dependent signalling, suggesting a link between a keratin mutation and SCC, which adds weight to the hypothesis that disturbance of the cytoskeleton represents a major cause in the appearance of the malignant phenotype. Some individuals with EBS may be at risk of developing secondary SCC.

Which genes are associated with Epidermolysis Bullosa Simplex?

5ace34eb0340b9f058000010_027

Keratin mutations in patients with epidermolysis bullosa simplex: correlations between phenotype severity and disturbance of intermediate filament molecular structure. BACKGROUND: Epidermolysis bullosa simplex (EBS) is an inherited skin disorder caused by mutations in the keratin 5 (KRT5) and keratin 14 (KRT14) genes, with fragility of basal keratinocytes leading to epidermal cytolysis and blistering. OBJECTIVES: In this study, we characterized mutations in KRT5 and KRT14 genes in patients with EBS and investigated their possible structure-function correlations. MATERIALS AND METHODS: Mutations were characterized using polymerase chain reaction (PCR) and DNA sequencing. Further, to explore possible correlations with function, the structural effects of the mutations in segment 2B of KRT5 and KRT14 and associated with EBS in our patients, as well as those reported previously, were modelled by molecular dynamics with the aid of the known crystal structure of the analogous segment of human vimentin. RESULTS: We have identified mutations in the KRT5 and KRT14 genes in 16 of 23 families affected by EBS in the Czech Republic. Eleven different sequence variants were found, of which four have not been reported previously. Novel mutations were found in two patients with the EBS-Dowling-Meara variant (EBS-DM) [KRT14-p.Ser128Pro and KRT14-p.Gln374_Leu387dup(14)] and in three patients with localized EBS (KRT14-p.Leu136Pro and KRT5-p.Val143Ala). Molecular dynamics studies show that the mutations p.Glu411del and p.Ile467Thr perturb the secondary alpha-helical structure of the mutated polypeptide chain, the deletion p.Glu411del in KRT14 has a strong but only local influence on the secondary structure of KRT14, and the structural impact of the mutation p.Ile467Thr in KRT5 is spread along the helix to the C-terminus. In all the other point mutations studied, the direct structural impact was significantly weaker and did not destroy the alpha-helical pattern of the secondary protein structure. The changes of 3-D structure of the KRT5/KRT14 dimer induced by the steric structural impact of the single point mutations, and the resulting altered inter- and intramolecular contacts, are spread along the protein helices to the protein C-terminus, but the overall alpha-helical character of the secondary structure is not destroyed and the atomic displacements induced by mutations cause only limited-scale changes of the quaternary structure of the dimer. CONCLUSIONS: The results of molecular modelling show relationships between patients' phenotypes and the structural effects of individual mutations.

Which genes are associated with Epidermolysis Bullosa Simplex?

5ace34eb0340b9f058000010_033

Keratin mutations in patients with epidermolysis bullosa simplex: correlations between phenotype severity and disturbance of intermediate filament molecular structure. BACKGROUND: Epidermolysis bullosa simplex (EBS) is an inherited skin disorder caused by mutations in the keratin 5 (KRT5) and keratin 14 (KRT14) genes, with fragility of basal keratinocytes leading to epidermal cytolysis and blistering. OBJECTIVES: In this study, we characterized mutations in KRT5 and KRT14 genes in patients with EBS and investigated their possible structure-function correlations. MATERIALS AND METHODS: Mutations were characterized using polymerase chain reaction (PCR) and DNA sequencing. Further, to explore possible correlations with function, the structural effects of the mutations in segment 2B of KRT5 and KRT14 and associated with EBS in our patients, as well as those reported previously, were modelled by molecular dynamics with the aid of the known crystal structure of the analogous segment of human vimentin. RESULTS: We have identified mutations in the KRT5 and KRT14 genes in 16 of 23 families affected by EBS in the Czech Republic. Eleven different sequence variants were found, of which four have not been reported previously. Novel mutations were found in two patients with the EBS-Dowling-Meara variant (EBS-DM) [KRT14-p.Ser128Pro and KRT14-p.Gln374_Leu387dup(14)] and in three patients with localized EBS (KRT14-p.Leu136Pro and KRT5-p.Val143Ala). Molecular dynamics studies show that the mutations p.Glu411del and p.Ile467Thr perturb the secondary alpha-helical structure of the mutated polypeptide chain, the deletion p.Glu411del in KRT14 has a strong but only local influence on the secondary structure of KRT14, and the structural impact of the mutation p.Ile467Thr in KRT5 is spread along the helix to the C-terminus. In all the other point mutations studied, the direct structural impact was significantly weaker and did not destroy the alpha-helical pattern of the secondary protein structure. The changes of 3-D structure of the KRT5/KRT14 dimer induced by the steric structural impact of the single point mutations, and the resulting altered inter- and intramolecular contacts, are spread along the protein helices to the protein C-terminus, but the overall alpha-helical character of the secondary structure is not destroyed and the atomic displacements induced by mutations cause only limited-scale changes of the quaternary structure of the dimer. CONCLUSIONS: The results of molecular modelling show relationships between patients' phenotypes and the structural effects of individual mutations.

Which genes are associated with Epidermolysis Bullosa Simplex?

5ace34eb0340b9f058000010_036

Identification of novel and known KRT5 and KRT14 mutations in 53 patients with epidermolysis bullosa simplex: correlation between genotype and phenotype. BACKGROUND: Basal epidermolysis bullosa simplex (EBS) is a hereditary skin blistering disorder resulting in most cases from missense mutations in the keratin 5 (KRT5) or keratin 14 (KRT14) genes. OBJECTIVES: To identify the underlying mutations in different EBS subtypes and correlate genotype and phenotype. METHODS: Mutation analysis was performed in 53 patients with EBS and their families by direct sequencing of the KRT5 and KRT14 genes. RESULTS: We identified 39 different mutations, of which 15 have not been published previously. Three novel deletion/insertion mutations, among them one in-frame duplication, were associated with the rare phenotype of EBS with mottled pigmentation. We identified for the first time a patient with compound heterozygosity for KRT5 mutations causing Dowling-Degos disease and EBS. CONCLUSIONS: Identification of novel mutations and genotype-phenotype correlations in EBS allow improved understanding of disease pathogenesis as well as better patient management.

Which genes are associated with Epidermolysis Bullosa Simplex?

5ace34eb0340b9f058000010_041

Identification of novel and known KRT5 and KRT14 mutations in 53 patients with epidermolysis bullosa simplex: correlation between genotype and phenotype. BACKGROUND: Basal epidermolysis bullosa simplex (EBS) is a hereditary skin blistering disorder resulting in most cases from missense mutations in the keratin 5 (KRT5) or keratin 14 (KRT14) genes. OBJECTIVES: To identify the underlying mutations in different EBS subtypes and correlate genotype and phenotype. METHODS: Mutation analysis was performed in 53 patients with EBS and their families by direct sequencing of the KRT5 and KRT14 genes. RESULTS: We identified 39 different mutations, of which 15 have not been published previously. Three novel deletion/insertion mutations, among them one in-frame duplication, were associated with the rare phenotype of EBS with mottled pigmentation. We identified for the first time a patient with compound heterozygosity for KRT5 mutations causing Dowling-Degos disease and EBS. CONCLUSIONS: Identification of novel mutations and genotype-phenotype correlations in EBS allow improved understanding of disease pathogenesis as well as better patient management.

Which genes are associated with Epidermolysis Bullosa Simplex?

5ace34eb0340b9f058000010_043

MicroRNAs in skin response to UV radiation. Solar ultraviolet (UV) radiation, an ubiquitous environmental carcinogen, is classified depending on the wavelength, into three regions; short-wave UVC (200-280 nm), mid-wave UVB (280-320 nm), and long-wave UVA (320- 400 nm). The human skin, constantly exposed to UV radiation, particularly the UVB and UVA components, is vulnerable to its various deleterious effects such as erythema, photoaging, immunosuppression and cancer. To counteract these and for the maintenance of genomic integrity, cells have developed several protective mechanisms including DNA repair, cell cycle arrest and apoptosis. The network of damage sensors, signal transducers, mediators, and various effector proteins is regulated through changes in gene expression. MicroRNAs (miRNAs), a group of small non-coding RNAs, act as posttranscriptional regulators through binding to complementary sequences in the 3´-untranslated region of their target genes, resulting in either translational repression or target degradation. Recent studies show that miRNAs add an additional layer of complexity to the intricately controlled cellular responses to UV radiation. This review summarizes our current knowledge of the role of miRNAs in the regulation of the human skin response upon exposure to UV radiation.

What are the 3 types of ultraviolet (UV) solar radiation?

5aae6a86fcf456587200000e_001

MicroRNAs in skin response to UV radiation. Solar ultraviolet (UV) radiation, an ubiquitous environmental carcinogen, is classified depending on the wavelength, into three regions; short-wave UVC (200-280 nm), mid-wave UVB (280-320 nm), and long-wave UVA (320- 400 nm). The human skin, constantly exposed to UV radiation, particularly the UVB and UVA components, is vulnerable to its various deleterious effects such as erythema, photoaging, immunosuppression and cancer. To counteract these and for the maintenance of genomic integrity, cells have developed several protective mechanisms including DNA repair, cell cycle arrest and apoptosis. The network of damage sensors, signal transducers, mediators, and various effector proteins is regulated through changes in gene expression. MicroRNAs (miRNAs), a group of small non-coding RNAs, act as posttranscriptional regulators through binding to complementary sequences in the 3´-untranslated region of their target genes, resulting in either translational repression or target degradation. Recent studies show that miRNAs add an additional layer of complexity to the intricately controlled cellular responses to UV radiation. This review summarizes our current knowledge of the role of miRNAs in the regulation of the human skin response upon exposure to UV radiation.

What are the 3 types of ultraviolet (UV) solar radiation?

5aae6a86fcf456587200000e_002

Atrial fibrillation and gastroesophageal reflux disease: the cardiogastric interaction. Atrial fibrillation (AF) is the most common sustained arrhythmia and is associated with significant morbidity and mortality. Multiple conditions like hypertension, heart failure, diabetes, sleep apnoea, and obesity play a role for the initiation and perpetuation of AF. Recently, a potential association between gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and AF development has been proposed due to the close anatomic vicinity of the oesophagus and the left atrium. As an understanding of the association between acid reflux disease and AF may be important in the global multimodal treatment strategy to further improve outcomes in a subset of patients with AF, we discuss potential atrial arrhythmogenic mechanisms in patients with GERD, such as gastric and subsequent systemic inflammation, impaired autonomic stimulation, mechanical irritation due to anatomical proximity of the left atrium and the oesophagus, as well as common comorbidities like obesity and sleep-disordered breathing. Data on GERD and oesophageal lesions after AF-ablation procedures will be reviewed. Treatment of GERD to avoid AF or to reduce AF burden might represent a future treatment perspective but needs to be scrutinized in prospective trials.

Please list 10 conditions which play a role in causing atrial fibrillation.

5aaef38dfcf456587200000f_001

Atrial fibrillation and gastroesophageal reflux disease: the cardiogastric interaction. Atrial fibrillation (AF) is the most common sustained arrhythmia and is associated with significant morbidity and mortality. Multiple conditions like hypertension, heart failure, diabetes, sleep apnoea, and obesity play a role for the initiation and perpetuation of AF. Recently, a potential association between gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and AF development has been proposed due to the close anatomic vicinity of the oesophagus and the left atrium. As an understanding of the association between acid reflux disease and AF may be important in the global multimodal treatment strategy to further improve outcomes in a subset of patients with AF, we discuss potential atrial arrhythmogenic mechanisms in patients with GERD, such as gastric and subsequent systemic inflammation, impaired autonomic stimulation, mechanical irritation due to anatomical proximity of the left atrium and the oesophagus, as well as common comorbidities like obesity and sleep-disordered breathing. Data on GERD and oesophageal lesions after AF-ablation procedures will be reviewed. Treatment of GERD to avoid AF or to reduce AF burden might represent a future treatment perspective but needs to be scrutinized in prospective trials.

Please list 10 conditions which play a role in causing atrial fibrillation.

5aaef38dfcf456587200000f_002

Atrial fibrillation and gastroesophageal reflux disease: the cardiogastric interaction. Atrial fibrillation (AF) is the most common sustained arrhythmia and is associated with significant morbidity and mortality. Multiple conditions like hypertension, heart failure, diabetes, sleep apnoea, and obesity play a role for the initiation and perpetuation of AF. Recently, a potential association between gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and AF development has been proposed due to the close anatomic vicinity of the oesophagus and the left atrium. As an understanding of the association between acid reflux disease and AF may be important in the global multimodal treatment strategy to further improve outcomes in a subset of patients with AF, we discuss potential atrial arrhythmogenic mechanisms in patients with GERD, such as gastric and subsequent systemic inflammation, impaired autonomic stimulation, mechanical irritation due to anatomical proximity of the left atrium and the oesophagus, as well as common comorbidities like obesity and sleep-disordered breathing. Data on GERD and oesophageal lesions after AF-ablation procedures will be reviewed. Treatment of GERD to avoid AF or to reduce AF burden might represent a future treatment perspective but needs to be scrutinized in prospective trials.

Please list 10 conditions which play a role in causing atrial fibrillation.

5aaef38dfcf456587200000f_003

Atrial fibrillation and hyperthyroidism: A literature review. Atrial fibrillation is the most common arrhythmia worldwide with increasing frequency noted with age. Hyperthyroidism is a well-known cause of atrial fibrillation with a 16%-60% prevalence of atrial fibrillation in patients with known hyperthyroidism Ross et al. (2016). While hyperthyroidism as a causative factor of atrial fibrillation is well established, this literature review aims to answer several questions on this topic including: 1. The relationship of atrial fibrillation to hyperthyroidism 2. Atrial fibrillation as a predictor of hyperthyroidism 3. The pathophysiology of thyrotoxic atrial fibrillation 4. Subclinical hyperthyroidism and the relationship with atrial fibrillation 5. Cardioversion and Catheter ablation of hyperthyroid patients with atrial fibrillation 6. Thrombotic risk of hyperthyroid patients with atrial fibrillation 7. Management of Thyrotoxic Atrial fibrillation 8. Pharmacological rhythm control in patients with hyperthyroidism and atrial fibrillation 9. Treatment of Hyperthyroidism to prevent atrial fibrillation 10. Clinical Implications of Hyperthyroidism and Atrial Fibrillation.

Please list 10 conditions which play a role in causing atrial fibrillation.

5aaef38dfcf456587200000f_004

Atrial fibrillation and hyperthyroidism: A literature review. Atrial fibrillation is the most common arrhythmia worldwide with increasing frequency noted with age. Hyperthyroidism is a well-known cause of atrial fibrillation with a 16%-60% prevalence of atrial fibrillation in patients with known hyperthyroidism Ross et al. (2016). While hyperthyroidism as a causative factor of atrial fibrillation is well established, this literature review aims to answer several questions on this topic including: 1. The relationship of atrial fibrillation to hyperthyroidism 2. Atrial fibrillation as a predictor of hyperthyroidism 3. The pathophysiology of thyrotoxic atrial fibrillation 4. Subclinical hyperthyroidism and the relationship with atrial fibrillation 5. Cardioversion and Catheter ablation of hyperthyroid patients with atrial fibrillation 6. Thrombotic risk of hyperthyroid patients with atrial fibrillation 7. Management of Thyrotoxic Atrial fibrillation 8. Pharmacological rhythm control in patients with hyperthyroidism and atrial fibrillation 9. Treatment of Hyperthyroidism to prevent atrial fibrillation 10. Clinical Implications of Hyperthyroidism and Atrial Fibrillation.

Please list 10 conditions which play a role in causing atrial fibrillation.

5aaef38dfcf456587200000f_005

Atrial fibrillation and hyperthyroidism: A literature review. Atrial fibrillation is the most common arrhythmia worldwide with increasing frequency noted with age. Hyperthyroidism is a well-known cause of atrial fibrillation with a 16%-60% prevalence of atrial fibrillation in patients with known hyperthyroidism Ross et al. (2016). While hyperthyroidism as a causative factor of atrial fibrillation is well established, this literature review aims to answer several questions on this topic including: 1. The relationship of atrial fibrillation to hyperthyroidism 2. Atrial fibrillation as a predictor of hyperthyroidism 3. The pathophysiology of thyrotoxic atrial fibrillation 4. Subclinical hyperthyroidism and the relationship with atrial fibrillation 5. Cardioversion and Catheter ablation of hyperthyroid patients with atrial fibrillation 6. Thrombotic risk of hyperthyroid patients with atrial fibrillation 7. Management of Thyrotoxic Atrial fibrillation 8. Pharmacological rhythm control in patients with hyperthyroidism and atrial fibrillation 9. Treatment of Hyperthyroidism to prevent atrial fibrillation 10. Clinical Implications of Hyperthyroidism and Atrial Fibrillation.

Please list 10 conditions which play a role in causing atrial fibrillation.

5aaef38dfcf456587200000f_006

Myocardial Ischemia as a Genuine Cause Responsible for the Organization and "Fertilization" of Conflictogenic Atrial Fibrillation:New Conceptual Insights Into Arrhythmogenicity. Atrial fibrillation continues to be a challenging arrhythmia. There are some conventional, time-tested explanations of atrial fibrillation genesis, however some uncertainty of its complete understanding still exists. We focused on atrial ischemia which, hypothetically, could be responsible for manifestation of the arrhythmia, irrespective of the underlying heart disease. Evidences abounds that atrial fibrillation has an extremely strong association with nutritional/oxidative status of myocardium. This arrhythmia seemingly may stem from the electrophysiological differences taking place in the boundary areas. To validate such assumptions we have surveyed widely accepted theories based on clinical and experimental evidence. There was an attempt to integrate some well-known theoretical explanations (focal, multifocal, ectopic, reentrant activity, atrial remodeling, etc.) into a new conceptually systematized arrhythmogenesis. Confronting ischemic and non-ischemic atrial zones electrophysiologically on their borderlines presumably creates a substrate vulnerable to the development of atrial fibrillation. The behavior of these interrelated areas is likely ischemia-dependent; the separating borderline(s) may be treated as conflictogenic, releasing triggers/drivers to commence and to perpetuate the arrhythmia. Ischemically damaged and non-damaged myocardial areas likely participate in the relay-race carousel of arrhythmogenicity due to their mutual interactions, accompanied by the "fireworks" at the separating borderlines. It could be concluded that myocardial ischemia as a nonspecific proarrhythmic factor presumably plays a key role in the genesis and sustenance of atrial fibrillation. Theoretically the most important step in eradication of arrhythmogenic substrate might be an overall abolition of ischemia regardless of the characteristics of underlying heart disease. Innovative intellectual and explorative research is needed to render innocuous the ischemia that might help us win the century's cardioarrhythmological battle.

Please list 10 conditions which play a role in causing atrial fibrillation.

5aaef38dfcf456587200000f_007

Myocardial Ischemia as a Genuine Cause Responsible for the Organization and "Fertilization" of Conflictogenic Atrial Fibrillation:New Conceptual Insights Into Arrhythmogenicity. Atrial fibrillation continues to be a challenging arrhythmia. There are some conventional, time-tested explanations of atrial fibrillation genesis, however some uncertainty of its complete understanding still exists. We focused on atrial ischemia which, hypothetically, could be responsible for manifestation of the arrhythmia, irrespective of the underlying heart disease. Evidences abounds that atrial fibrillation has an extremely strong association with nutritional/oxidative status of myocardium. This arrhythmia seemingly may stem from the electrophysiological differences taking place in the boundary areas. To validate such assumptions we have surveyed widely accepted theories based on clinical and experimental evidence. There was an attempt to integrate some well-known theoretical explanations (focal, multifocal, ectopic, reentrant activity, atrial remodeling, etc.) into a new conceptually systematized arrhythmogenesis. Confronting ischemic and non-ischemic atrial zones electrophysiologically on their borderlines presumably creates a substrate vulnerable to the development of atrial fibrillation. The behavior of these interrelated areas is likely ischemia-dependent; the separating borderline(s) may be treated as conflictogenic, releasing triggers/drivers to commence and to perpetuate the arrhythmia. Ischemically damaged and non-damaged myocardial areas likely participate in the relay-race carousel of arrhythmogenicity due to their mutual interactions, accompanied by the "fireworks" at the separating borderlines. It could be concluded that myocardial ischemia as a nonspecific proarrhythmic factor presumably plays a key role in the genesis and sustenance of atrial fibrillation. Theoretically the most important step in eradication of arrhythmogenic substrate might be an overall abolition of ischemia regardless of the characteristics of underlying heart disease. Innovative intellectual and explorative research is needed to render innocuous the ischemia that might help us win the century's cardioarrhythmological battle.

Please list 10 conditions which play a role in causing atrial fibrillation.

5aaef38dfcf456587200000f_008

Atrial Fibrillation: The New Epidemic of the Ageing World. The prevalence of atrial fibrillation (AF) increases with age. As the population ages, the burden of AF increases. AF is associated with an increased incidence of mortality, stroke, and coronary events compared to sinus rhythm. AF with a rapid ventricular rate may cause a tachycardia-related cardiomyopathy. Immediate direct-current (DC) cardioversion should be performed in patients with AF and acute myocardial infarction, chest pain due to myocardial ischemia, hypotension, severe heart failure, or syncope. Intravenous beta blockers, diltiazem, or verapamil may be administered to reduce immediately a very rapid ventricular rate in AF. An oral beta blocker, verapamil, or diltiazem should be used in persons with AF if a fast ventricular rate occurs at rest or during exercise despite digoxin. Amiodarone may be used in selected patients with symptomatic life-threatening AF refractory to other drugs. Digoxin should not be used to treat patients with paroxysmal AF. Nondrug therapies should be performed in patients with symptomatic AF in whom a rapid ventricular rate cannot be slowed by drugs. Paroxysmal AF associated with the tachycardia-bradycardia syndrome should be treated with a permanent pacemaker in combination with drugs. A permanent pacemaker should be implanted in patients with AF and symptoms such as dizziness or syncope associated with ventricular pauses greater than 3 seconds which are not drug-induced. Elective DC cardioversion has a higher success rate and a lower incidence of cardiac adverse effects than does medical cardioversion in converting AF to sinus rhythm. Unless transesophageal echocardiography has shown no thrombus in the left atrial appendage before cardioversion, oral warfarin should be given for 3 weeks before elective DC or drug cardioversion of AF and continued for at least 4 weeks after maintenance of sinus rhythm. Many cardiologists prefer, especially in elderly patients , ventricular rate control plus warfarin rather than maintaining sinus rhythm with antiarrhythmic drugs. Patients with chronic or paroxysmal AF at high risk for stroke should be treated with long-term warfarin to achieve an International Normalized Ratio of 2.0 to 3.0. Patients with AF at low risk for stroke or with contraindications to warfarin should be treated with aspirin 325 mg daily.

Please list 10 conditions which play a role in causing atrial fibrillation.

5aaef38dfcf456587200000f_009

Atrial Fibrillation: The New Epidemic of the Ageing World. The prevalence of atrial fibrillation (AF) increases with age. As the population ages, the burden of AF increases. AF is associated with an increased incidence of mortality, stroke, and coronary events compared to sinus rhythm. AF with a rapid ventricular rate may cause a tachycardia-related cardiomyopathy. Immediate direct-current (DC) cardioversion should be performed in patients with AF and acute myocardial infarction, chest pain due to myocardial ischemia, hypotension, severe heart failure, or syncope. Intravenous beta blockers, diltiazem, or verapamil may be administered to reduce immediately a very rapid ventricular rate in AF. An oral beta blocker, verapamil, or diltiazem should be used in persons with AF if a fast ventricular rate occurs at rest or during exercise despite digoxin. Amiodarone may be used in selected patients with symptomatic life-threatening AF refractory to other drugs. Digoxin should not be used to treat patients with paroxysmal AF. Nondrug therapies should be performed in patients with symptomatic AF in whom a rapid ventricular rate cannot be slowed by drugs. Paroxysmal AF associated with the tachycardia-bradycardia syndrome should be treated with a permanent pacemaker in combination with drugs. A permanent pacemaker should be implanted in patients with AF and symptoms such as dizziness or syncope associated with ventricular pauses greater than 3 seconds which are not drug-induced. Elective DC cardioversion has a higher success rate and a lower incidence of cardiac adverse effects than does medical cardioversion in converting AF to sinus rhythm. Unless transesophageal echocardiography has shown no thrombus in the left atrial appendage before cardioversion, oral warfarin should be given for 3 weeks before elective DC or drug cardioversion of AF and continued for at least 4 weeks after maintenance of sinus rhythm. Many cardiologists prefer, especially in elderly patients , ventricular rate control plus warfarin rather than maintaining sinus rhythm with antiarrhythmic drugs. Patients with chronic or paroxysmal AF at high risk for stroke should be treated with long-term warfarin to achieve an International Normalized Ratio of 2.0 to 3.0. Patients with AF at low risk for stroke or with contraindications to warfarin should be treated with aspirin 325 mg daily.

Please list 10 conditions which play a role in causing atrial fibrillation.

5aaef38dfcf456587200000f_010

[Epidemiology of atrial fibrillation]. Atrial fibrillation (AF) is the most frequent maintained arrhythmia and constitutes a major morbidity cause, especially because of its associated risk of ischemic stoke. Additionally, it represents an independent risk factor for global mortality. The incidence of AF varies, according to different studies, between a minimum of 0.25 per 1000 person/year (women) and 0.9 per 1000 person/year (men) and a maximum of 8.9 per 1000 person/year (women) and 11.5 per 1000 person/year (men). Several cross sectional and prospective studies indicate that the prevalence of AF is inferior to 1% in individuals who are less than 55 years old. It is estimated that this arrhythmia's suffers a significant increase throughout the entire life span, and that its highest raise occurs between the ages of 65 and 80. A Portuguese study performe d between June and November 2003, in the scope of Rede Médicos-Sentinela, showed an AF prevalence of 0.53% in a population of 32,185 Health Centres patients. The mean age of patients suffering from this disease is situated within the interval of 70 to 80 years old. It is inferior for those who suffer from a concomitant cardiovascular disease, being significantly higher for women versus men. The risk factors and comorbidities which are most commonly associated to AF are age, several cardiovascular conditions, alcoholism, family history of AF and hyperthyroidism. Considering the high rate of stroke mortality in Portugal and assuming that AF is present in 15% ischemic stroke triggering and that it increases its risk 2 to 7 times, it can be concluded that knowledge regarding AF's incidence and prevalence in the different age groups will be important in order to improve its level of control, which is essential for preventing stroke and better management of this condition's treatment in the cardiovascular diseases' general context.

Please list 10 conditions which play a role in causing atrial fibrillation.

5aaef38dfcf456587200000f_011

Prevalence, prognostic significance, and treatment of atrial fibrillation in congestive heart failure with particular reference to the DIAMOND-CHF study. Atrial fibrillation is a growing health problem and the most common cardiac arrhythmia, affecting 5% of persons above the age of 65 years. The number of hospital discharges for atrial fibrillation has more than doubled in the past decade. It occurs very often in patients with congestive heart failure and the prevalence increases with the severity of the disease. These two conditions seem to be linked together, and congestive heart failure may either be the cause or the consequence of atrial fibrillation. The prognosis of atrial fibrillation is controversial, but studies indicate that atrial fibrillation is a risk factor in congestive heart failure patients. In the last 10-15 years, significant advances in the treatment of heart failure have improved survival, whereas effective management of atrial fibrillation in heart failure patients still awaits similar progress. Empirically, two strategies have evolved for treatment of atrial fibrillation: 1) rhythm control, which means conversion to sinus rhythm and maintenance of sinus rhythm; and 2) rate control, which means reduction of heart rate to an acceptable frequency. It is unknown whether one of these strategies is better than the other. In this review the authors discuss the prevalence, impact, and treatment of atrial fibrillation in heart failure patients.

Please list 10 conditions which play a role in causing atrial fibrillation.

5aaef38dfcf456587200000f_012

Atrial fibrillation. The prevalence and incidence of atrial fibrillation increase with age. Atrial fibrillation is associated with a higher incidence of coronary events, stroke, and mortality than sinus rhythm. A fast ventricular rate associated with atrial fibrillation may cause tachycardia-related cardiomyopathy. Management of atrial fibrillation includes treatment of underlying causes and precipitating factors. Immediate direct-current cardioversion should be performed in persons with atrial fibrillation associated with acute myocardial infarction, chest pain due to myocardial ischemia, hypotension, severe heart failure, or syncope. Intravenous beta-blockers, verapamil, or diltiazem may be used to immediately slow a fast ventricular rate associated with atrial fibrillation. An oral beta-blocker, verapamil, or diltiazem should be given to persons with atrial fibrillation if a rapid ventricular rate occurs a rest or during exercise despite digoxin. Amiodarone may be used in selected persons with symptomatic life-threatening atrial fibrillation refractory to other drug therapy. Nondrug therapies should be performed in persons with symptomatic atrial fibrillation in whom a rapid ventricular rate cannot be slowed by drug therapy. Paroxysmal atrial fibrillation associated with the tachycardia-bradycardia syndrome should be managed with a permanent pacemaker in combination with drugs. A permanent pacemaker should be implanted in persons with atrial fibrillation in whom symptoms such as dizziness or syncope associated with non-drug-induced ventricular pauses longer than 3 seconds develop. Elective direct-current cardioversion has a higher success rate and a lower incidence of cardiac adverse effects than medical cardioversion in converting atrial fibrillation to sinus rhythm. Unless transesophageal echocardiography shows no thrombus in the left atrial appendage before cardioversion, oral warfarin should be given for 3 weeks before elective direct-current or drug cardioversion of atrial fibrillation and continued for at least 4 weeks after maintenance of sinus rhythm. Many cardiologists prefer the treatment strategy of ventricular rate control plus warfarin rather than to maintain sinus rhythm with antiarrhythmic drugs, especially in older patients. Digoxin should not be used in persons with paroxysmal atrial fibrillation. Patients with chronic or paroxysmal atrial fibrillation who are at high risk for stroke should be treated with long-term warfarin to achieve an International Normalized Ratio (INR) of 2.0 to 3.0. Persons with atrial fibrillation who are at low risk for stroke or who have contraindications to warfarin should receive 325 mg aspirin daily.

Please list 10 conditions which play a role in causing atrial fibrillation.

5aaef38dfcf456587200000f_013

[Heart arrhythmia in the elderly]. Cardiac arrhythmias are a major problem in elderly persons, because of the high prevalence of underlying heart disease and hypertension, arrhythmias are associated with significant morbidity and mortality in this age group. Atrial fibrillation (AF) is the most common sustained arrhythmia encountered in clinical practice. Its incidence increases with age and the presence of structural heart disease. It is a major cause of stroke, especially in the elderly. Although the established principles of evaluation and management of cardiac arrhythmias apply to all age groups, management in the elderly patient is especially challenging because of increased risk of interventional and pharmacologic therapies, altered pharmacokinetics of drugs, and sometimes unclear long-term benefits in the older patient.

Please list 10 conditions which play a role in causing atrial fibrillation.

5aaef38dfcf456587200000f_014

[Heart arrhythmia in the elderly]. Cardiac arrhythmias are a major problem in elderly persons, because of the high prevalence of underlying heart disease and hypertension, arrhythmias are associated with significant morbidity and mortality in this age group. Atrial fibrillation (AF) is the most common sustained arrhythmia encountered in clinical practice. Its incidence increases with age and the presence of structural heart disease. It is a major cause of stroke, especially in the elderly. Although the established principles of evaluation and management of cardiac arrhythmias apply to all age groups, management in the elderly patient is especially challenging because of increased risk of interventional and pharmacologic therapies, altered pharmacokinetics of drugs, and sometimes unclear long-term benefits in the older patient.

Please list 10 conditions which play a role in causing atrial fibrillation.

5aaef38dfcf456587200000f_015

Atrial fibrillation. Thromboembolic risk and indications for anticoagulation. The risk of embolic stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation is largely related to the underlying disorders responsible for the arrhythmia. Atrial fibrillation associated with rheumatic mitral valve disease has the highest stroke risk (about 17 times greater than unaffected controls), but even with nonvalvular heart disease, the risk is increased fivefold. The stroke risk is greater with chronic than with paroxysmal atrial fibrillation, is highest in the year after onset of the arrhythmia, and is lower in younger patients with idiopathic ("lone") atrial fibrillation. Major bleeding episodes, the most important risk of anticoagulation, occur in about 5% to 10% of patients. The decision to anticoagulate a patient with atrial fibrillation depends on the cause of the arrhythmia, especially any associated cardiovascular disease, and the individual's risk from anticoagulation. Growing evidence supports the effectiveness of anticoagulation of most patients with nonvalvular, as well as valvular, cardiac disease for the prevention of both primary and recurrent strokes.

Please list 10 conditions which play a role in causing atrial fibrillation.

5aaef38dfcf456587200000f_016

[Atrial fibrillation and atrial flutter: pathophysiology and pathogenesis]. Chronic atrial fibrillation is a very common arrhythmia affecting 2 to 4% of the population older than 60 years of age. Atrial fibrillation may cause disabling symptoms and serious adverse effects, such as impairment of cardiac function or thromboembolic events. It is also associated with an increased risk of death. In the past, the most common underlying heart disease related to chronic atrial fibrillation was rheumatic heart disease. Today, this disease occurs relatively rarely. Nevertheless, the incidence of atrial fibrillation is likely to increase in the future due to the aging of the population, since its prevalence increases with age. In most patients with chronic atrial fibrillation, the arrhythmia can be attributed to organic heart disease or metabolic disorders. In western countries ischemic and hypertensive heart disease (including sick sinus syndrome) and alcohol (holiday heart syndrome) are numerically more important than the classical causes of atrial fibrillation--rheumatic heart disease and thyrotoxicosis--which are declining in incidence. Overall, atrial fibrillation is associated with an increased mortality. In about 15% of patients with chronic atrial fibrillation, no underlying cardiac or metabolic abnormality can be found, also the arrhythmia can itself give right to atrial dilatation. Atrial fibrillation consists most probably of several coexisting reentrant wave fronts of activation within the atria. Atrial activation and atrial fibrillation is as follows: multiple wavelets sweep round the atria in irregular, shifting patterns; completed reentrant circuits are the exception. Atrial flutter in its common form is characterized by evidence of atrial activity at a rate of 250-350 bpm, and usually almost exactly 300 bpm.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)

Please list 10 conditions which play a role in causing atrial fibrillation.

5aaef38dfcf456587200000f_017

[Atrial fibrillation and atrial flutter: pathophysiology and pathogenesis]. Chronic atrial fibrillation is a very common arrhythmia affecting 2 to 4% of the population older than 60 years of age. Atrial fibrillation may cause disabling symptoms and serious adverse effects, such as impairment of cardiac function or thromboembolic events. It is also associated with an increased risk of death. In the past, the most common underlying heart disease related to chronic atrial fibrillation was rheumatic heart disease. Today, this disease occurs relatively rarely. Nevertheless, the incidence of atrial fibrillation is likely to increase in the future due to the aging of the population, since its prevalence increases with age. In most patients with chronic atrial fibrillation, the arrhythmia can be attributed to organic heart disease or metabolic disorders. In western countries ischemic and hypertensive heart disease (including sick sinus syndrome) and alcohol (holiday heart syndrome) are numerically more important than the classical causes of atrial fibrillation--rheumatic heart disease and thyrotoxicosis--which are declining in incidence. Overall, atrial fibrillation is associated with an increased mortality. In about 15% of patients with chronic atrial fibrillation, no underlying cardiac or metabolic abnormality can be found, also the arrhythmia can itself give right to atrial dilatation. Atrial fibrillation consists most probably of several coexisting reentrant wave fronts of activation within the atria. Atrial activation and atrial fibrillation is as follows: multiple wavelets sweep round the atria in irregular, shifting patterns; completed reentrant circuits are the exception. Atrial flutter in its common form is characterized by evidence of atrial activity at a rate of 250-350 bpm, and usually almost exactly 300 bpm.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)

Please list 10 conditions which play a role in causing atrial fibrillation.

5aaef38dfcf456587200000f_018

[Atrial fibrillation and atrial flutter: pathophysiology and pathogenesis]. Chronic atrial fibrillation is a very common arrhythmia affecting 2 to 4% of the population older than 60 years of age. Atrial fibrillation may cause disabling symptoms and serious adverse effects, such as impairment of cardiac function or thromboembolic events. It is also associated with an increased risk of death. In the past, the most common underlying heart disease related to chronic atrial fibrillation was rheumatic heart disease. Today, this disease occurs relatively rarely. Nevertheless, the incidence of atrial fibrillation is likely to increase in the future due to the aging of the population, since its prevalence increases with age. In most patients with chronic atrial fibrillation, the arrhythmia can be attributed to organic heart disease or metabolic disorders. In western countries ischemic and hypertensive heart disease (including sick sinus syndrome) and alcohol (holiday heart syndrome) are numerically more important than the classical causes of atrial fibrillation--rheumatic heart disease and thyrotoxicosis--which are declining in incidence. Overall, atrial fibrillation is associated with an increased mortality. In about 15% of patients with chronic atrial fibrillation, no underlying cardiac or metabolic abnormality can be found, also the arrhythmia can itself give right to atrial dilatation. Atrial fibrillation consists most probably of several coexisting reentrant wave fronts of activation within the atria. Atrial activation and atrial fibrillation is as follows: multiple wavelets sweep round the atria in irregular, shifting patterns; completed reentrant circuits are the exception. Atrial flutter in its common form is characterized by evidence of atrial activity at a rate of 250-350 bpm, and usually almost exactly 300 bpm.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)

Please list 10 conditions which play a role in causing atrial fibrillation.

5aaef38dfcf456587200000f_019

Atrial fibrillation (acute onset). INTRODUCTION: Risk factors for acute atrial fibrillation include increasing age, cardiovascular disease, alcohol, diabetes, and lung disease. Acute atrial fibrillation increases the risk of stroke and heart failure. Acute atrial fibrillation resolves spontaneously within 24-48 hours in over 50% of people, however many people will require interventions to control heart rate or restore sinus rhythm. METHODS AND OUTCOMES: We conducted a systematic review and aimed to answer the following clinical questions: What are the effects of interventions: to prevent embolism; for conversion to sinus rhythm; and to control heart rate in people with recent onset atrial fibrillation (within 7 days) who are haemodynamically stable? We searched: Medline, Embase, The Cochrane Library and other important databases up to October 2007 (Clinical Evidence reviews are updated periodically, please check our website for the most up-to-date version of this review). We included harms alerts from relevant organisations such as the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) and the UK Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA). RESULTS: We found 28 systematic reviews, RCTs, or observational studies that met our inclusion criteria. We performed a GRADE evaluation of the quality of evidence for interventions. CONCLUSIONS: In this systematic review we present information relating to the effectiveness and safety of the following interventions: amiodarone, antithrombotic treatment before cardioversion, digoxin, diltiazem, direct current cardioversion, flecainide, propafenone, quinidine, sotalol, timolol, and verapamil.

Please list 10 conditions which play a role in causing atrial fibrillation.

5aaef38dfcf456587200000f_020

Atrial fibrillation (acute onset). INTRODUCTION: Risk factors for acute atrial fibrillation include increasing age, cardiovascular disease, alcohol, diabetes, and lung disease. Acute atrial fibrillation increases the risk of stroke and heart failure. Acute atrial fibrillation resolves spontaneously within 24-48 hours in over 50% of people, however many people will require interventions to control heart rate or restore sinus rhythm. METHODS AND OUTCOMES: We conducted a systematic review and aimed to answer the following clinical questions: What are the effects of interventions: to prevent embolism; for conversion to sinus rhythm; and to control heart rate in people with recent onset atrial fibrillation (within 7 days) who are haemodynamically stable? We searched: Medline, Embase, The Cochrane Library and other important databases up to October 2007 (Clinical Evidence reviews are updated periodically, please check our website for the most up-to-date version of this review). We included harms alerts from relevant organisations such as the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) and the UK Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA). RESULTS: We found 28 systematic reviews, RCTs, or observational studies that met our inclusion criteria. We performed a GRADE evaluation of the quality of evidence for interventions. CONCLUSIONS: In this systematic review we present information relating to the effectiveness and safety of the following interventions: amiodarone, antithrombotic treatment before cardioversion, digoxin, diltiazem, direct current cardioversion, flecainide, propafenone, quinidine, sotalol, timolol, and verapamil.

Please list 10 conditions which play a role in causing atrial fibrillation.

5aaef38dfcf456587200000f_021

Atrial fibrillation (acute onset). INTRODUCTION: Acute atrial fibrillation is rapid, irregular, and chaotic atrial activity of less than 48 hours' duration. Risk factors for acute atrial fibrillation include increasing age, cardiovascular disease, alcohol, diabetes, and lung disease. Acute atrial fibrillation increases the risk of stroke and heart failure. The condition resolves spontaneously within 24 to 48 hours in over 50% of people; however, many people will require interventions to control heart rate or restore sinus rhythm. METHODS AND OUTCOMES: We conducted a systematic review and aimed to answer the following clinical questions: What are the effects of interventions to prevent embolism, for conversion to sinus rhythm, and to control heart rate in people with recent-onset atrial fibrillation (within 7 days) who are haemodynamically stable? We searched: Medline, Embase, The Cochrane Library, and other important databases up to April 2010 (Clinical Evidence reviews are updated periodically; please check our website for the most up-to-date version of this review). We included harms alerts from relevant organisations such as the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) and the UK Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA). RESULTS: We found 30 systematic reviews, RCTs, or observational studies that met our inclusion criteria. We performed a GRADE evaluation of the quality of evidence for interventions. CONCLUSIONS: In this systematic review we present information relating to the effectiveness and safety of the following interventions: amiodarone, antithrombotic treatment before cardioversion, digoxin, diltiazem, direct current cardioversion, flecainide, propafenone, quinidine, sotalol, timolol, and verapamil.

Please list 10 conditions which play a role in causing atrial fibrillation.

5aaef38dfcf456587200000f_022

Atrial fibrillation (acute onset). INTRODUCTION: Acute atrial fibrillation is rapid, irregular, and chaotic atrial activity of less than 48 hours' duration. Risk factors for acute atrial fibrillation include increasing age, cardiovascular disease, alcohol, diabetes, and lung disease. Acute atrial fibrillation increases the risk of stroke and heart failure. The condition resolves spontaneously within 24 to 48 hours in over 50% of people; however, many people will require interventions to control heart rate or restore sinus rhythm. METHODS AND OUTCOMES: We conducted a systematic review and aimed to answer the following clinical questions: What are the effects of interventions to prevent embolism, for conversion to sinus rhythm, and to control heart rate in people with recent-onset atrial fibrillation (within 7 days) who are haemodynamically stable? We searched: Medline, Embase, The Cochrane Library, and other important databases up to April 2010 (Clinical Evidence reviews are updated periodically; please check our website for the most up-to-date version of this review). We included harms alerts from relevant organisations such as the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) and the UK Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA). RESULTS: We found 30 systematic reviews, RCTs, or observational studies that met our inclusion criteria. We performed a GRADE evaluation of the quality of evidence for interventions. CONCLUSIONS: In this systematic review we present information relating to the effectiveness and safety of the following interventions: amiodarone, antithrombotic treatment before cardioversion, digoxin, diltiazem, direct current cardioversion, flecainide, propafenone, quinidine, sotalol, timolol, and verapamil.

Please list 10 conditions which play a role in causing atrial fibrillation.

5aaef38dfcf456587200000f_023

[Effect of diabetes mellitus in recovery and maintenance of sinus rhythm in patients with persistent atrial fibrillation]. INTRODUCTION: Diabetes mellitus is frequently accompanied by cardiac rhythm disorders. On the other hand, atrial fibrillation is the most frequent cardiac arrhythmia in adult population [1, 2]. According to some of the large epidemiological studies diabetes mellitus is among independent risk factors for development and persistence of atrial fibrillation [3]. Both diabetes mellitus and atrial fibrillation independently increase the risk of thromboembolism, especially of stroke [3-5]. It is obvious that rhythm control, i.e. restoration and maintenance of sinus rhythm, may be essential for prevention of thromboembolism in these patients. THE AIM OF THE STUDY: The aim of this study is to analyse the impact of diabetes mellitus on rhythm control in patients with persistent atrial fibrillation. METHODS: We analysed the impact of diabetes mellitus and other clinical and echocardiographic parameters (age, gender, current arrhythmia duration, presence of previous episodes of persistent atrial fibrillation, cardiac and/or noncardiac diseases, left atrial diameter and left ventricular ejection fraction) on outcome of attempted cardioversion in patients with persistent atrial fibrillation admitted to Cardiologic Department of the Institute of Cardiovascular Diseases, Clinical Centre of Serbia, between January 1992 and December 1999. We also analysed retrospectively the impact of diabetes mellitus and other parameters listed above on the presence of previous episodes of atrial fibrillation in our patients, that at our opinion reflected the possibilities of sinus rhythm maintenance in these patients. All continuous parameters were expressed as mean value and standard deviation. Statistical significance of differences between variables was examined using Chi-square test. For identification of independent predictors of examined outcomes we used multiple logistic regression model with 95% of confidence interval. Statistical analysis was performed using Statistical Package for Social Sciences (SPSS) programme. RESULTS: Of 378 patients with currently persistent atrial fibrillation, aged mean 53.98 +/- 11.69 years, there were 266 (70.4%) men. Diabetes mellitus was previously diagnosed in 27 (7.1%) patients, cardiac diseases in 223 (59.0%), noncardiac diseases in 47 (12.4%) and 140 (37.0%) patients had "lone" atrial fibrillation. Left atrial enlargement was noted in 224 (59.3%) patients, and reduced left ventricular ejection fraction in 82 (21.7%). Atrial fibrillation lasted 48 hours to 9 years, mean 8.5 +/- 18.14 months before cardioversion. While 43 patients had previous episodes of persistent AF for last 1-30 years, mean 10.5 +/- 7.3,335 patients never experienced AF before. There was a statistically significant difference in percent of diabetic patients (18.6%/43 vs. 5.7%/335, value of Chi-square test = 7.759, p < 0.01) in these two groups. We analysed the impact of diabetes mellitus on outcome of attempted cardioversion and on presence of previous episodes of AF reflecting the success in maintaining sinus rhythm. Multiple logistic regression models for all of 378 patients, with dependent variable being present in previous recurrent atrial fibrillations and independent variables of clinical and echocardiographic parameters as listed, identified diabetes mellitus to be an independent predictor of repeated atrial fibrillations with relative risk of 4.6 (CI 95%). When dependent variable in the same model was outcome of cardioversion (sinus rhythm is restored in 281/378 patients--74%) diabetes mellitus was not among independent predictors of successful cardioversion. DISCUSSION: The relationship between atrial fibrillation and diabetes mellitus is not completely understood, including the impact of known complications of diabetes mellitus on electrophysiological properties of atrial myocardium and development of atrial fibrillation [6]. Besides being the independent risk factor for occurrence of atrial fibrillation, diabetes mellitus, according to our results, appears to influence the possibilities of maintaining sinus rhythm after cardioversion of permanent atrial fibrillation in diabetic patients. We found that patients with diabetes mellitus and persistent atrial fibrillation may be successfully converted to sinus rhythm like any other group of patients, but the presence of diabetes mellitus increases the risk of arrhythmia recurrence for 4.6 times compared to patients without diabetes mellitus. Obviously, diabetic patients need to be treated with more efficacious antiarrhythmics from the very beginning, including amiodarone, which successfully prevents recurrent atrial fibrillation in the majority of patients [7, 8]. CONCLUSION: We concluded that diabetes mellitus independently predicts the presence of recurrent atrial fibrillation but does not influence the possibility of sinus rhythm restoration. The relationship between atrial fibrillation and diabetes mellitus needs further investigation.

Please list 10 conditions which play a role in causing atrial fibrillation.

5aaef38dfcf456587200000f_024

Atrial fibrillation (acute onset). INTRODUCTION: Acute atrial fibrillation is rapid, irregular, and chaotic atrial activity of recent onset. Various definitions of acute atrial fibrillation have been used in the literature, but for the purposes of this review we have included studies where atrial fibrillation may have occurred up to 7 days previously. Risk factors for acute atrial fibrillation include increasing age, cardiovascular disease, alcohol, diabetes, and lung disease. Acute atrial fibrillation increases the risk of stroke and heart failure. The condition resolves spontaneously within 24 to 48 hours in more than 50% of people; however, many people will require interventions to control heart rate or restore sinus rhythm. METHODS AND OUTCOMES: We conducted a systematic review and aimed to answer the following clinical questions: What are the effects of interventions to prevent embolism, for conversion to sinus rhythm, and to control heart rate in people with recent-onset atrial fibrillation (within 7 days) who are haemodynamically stable? We searched: Medline, Embase, The Cochrane Library, and other important databases up to April 2014 (Clinical Evidence reviews are updated periodically; please check our website for the most up-to-date version of this review). We included harms alerts from relevant organisations such as the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) and the UK Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA). RESULTS: We found 26 studies that met our inclusion criteria. We performed a GRADE evaluation of the quality of evidence for interventions. CONCLUSIONS: In this systematic review, we present information relating to the effectiveness and safety of the following interventions: amiodarone, antithrombotic treatment before cardioversion, atenolol, bisoprolol, carvedilol, digoxin, diltiazem, direct current cardioversion, flecainide, metoprolol, nebivolol, propafenone, sotalol, timolol, and verapamil.

Please list 10 conditions which play a role in causing atrial fibrillation.

5aaef38dfcf456587200000f_025

Atrial fibrillation (acute onset). INTRODUCTION: Acute atrial fibrillation is rapid, irregular, and chaotic atrial activity of recent onset. Various definitions of acute atrial fibrillation have been used in the literature, but for the purposes of this review we have included studies where atrial fibrillation may have occurred up to 7 days previously. Risk factors for acute atrial fibrillation include increasing age, cardiovascular disease, alcohol, diabetes, and lung disease. Acute atrial fibrillation increases the risk of stroke and heart failure. The condition resolves spontaneously within 24 to 48 hours in more than 50% of people; however, many people will require interventions to control heart rate or restore sinus rhythm. METHODS AND OUTCOMES: We conducted a systematic review and aimed to answer the following clinical questions: What are the effects of interventions to prevent embolism, for conversion to sinus rhythm, and to control heart rate in people with recent-onset atrial fibrillation (within 7 days) who are haemodynamically stable? We searched: Medline, Embase, The Cochrane Library, and other important databases up to April 2014 (Clinical Evidence reviews are updated periodically; please check our website for the most up-to-date version of this review). We included harms alerts from relevant organisations such as the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) and the UK Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA). RESULTS: We found 26 studies that met our inclusion criteria. We performed a GRADE evaluation of the quality of evidence for interventions. CONCLUSIONS: In this systematic review, we present information relating to the effectiveness and safety of the following interventions: amiodarone, antithrombotic treatment before cardioversion, atenolol, bisoprolol, carvedilol, digoxin, diltiazem, direct current cardioversion, flecainide, metoprolol, nebivolol, propafenone, sotalol, timolol, and verapamil.

Please list 10 conditions which play a role in causing atrial fibrillation.

5aaef38dfcf456587200000f_026

Atrial fibrillation (chronic). INTRODUCTION: Atrial fibrillation is a supraventricular tachyarrhythmia characterised by the presence of fast and uncoordinated atrial activation leading to reduced atrial mechanical function. Risk factors for atrial fibrillation include increasing age, male sex, co-existing cardiac and thyroid disease, pyrexial illness, electrolyte imbalance, cancer, and co-existing infection. METHODS AND OUTCOMES: We conducted a systematic review and aimed to answer the following clinical question: What are the effects of oral medical treatments to control heart rate in people with chronic (defined as longer than 1 week for this review) non-valvular atrial fibrillation? We searched: Medline, Embase, The Cochrane Library, and other important databases up to May 2014 (Clinical Evidence reviews are updated periodically; please check our website for the most up-to-date version of this review). We included harms alerts from relevant organisations such as the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) and the UK Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA). RESULTS: We found four studies that met our inclusion criteria. We performed a GRADE evaluation of the quality of evidence for interventions. CONCLUSIONS: In this systematic review we present information relating to the effectiveness and safety of the following interventions: beta-blockers (rate-limiting, with or without digoxin), calcium-channel blockers (with or without digoxin), and digoxin.

Please list 10 conditions which play a role in causing atrial fibrillation.

5aaef38dfcf456587200000f_027

Atrial fibrillation (chronic). INTRODUCTION: Atrial fibrillation is a supraventricular tachyarrhythmia characterised by the presence of fast and uncoordinated atrial activation leading to reduced atrial mechanical function. Risk factors for atrial fibrillation include increasing age, male sex, co-existing cardiac and thyroid disease, pyrexial illness, electrolyte imbalance, cancer, and co-existing infection. METHODS AND OUTCOMES: We conducted a systematic review and aimed to answer the following clinical questions: What are the effects of oral medical treatments to control heart rate in people with chronic (defined as longer than 1 week for this review) non-valvular atrial fibrillation? What is the effect of different treatment strategies (rate versus rhythm) for people with persistent non-valvular atrial fibrillation? We searched: Medline, Embase, The Cochrane Library, and other important databases up to June 2011 (Clinical Evidence reviews are updated periodically; please check our website for the most up-to-date version of this review). We included harms alerts from relevant organisations such as the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) and the UK Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA). RESULTS: We found 23 systematic reviews, RCTs, or observational studies that met our inclusion criteria. We performed a GRADE evaluation of the quality of evidence for interventions. CONCLUSIONS: In this systematic review we present information relating to the effectiveness and safety of the following interventions: beta-blockers (with or without digoxin), calcium channel blockers (with or without digoxin), calcium channel blockers (rate-limiting), digoxin, and rate versus rhythm control strategies.

Please list 10 conditions which play a role in causing atrial fibrillation.

5aaef38dfcf456587200000f_028

Atrial fibrillation (chronic). INTRODUCTION: Atrial fibrillation is a supraventricular tachyarrhythmia, which is characterised by the presence of fast and uncoordinated atrial activation leading to reduced atrial mechanical function. Risk factors for atrial fibrillation include increasing age, coexisting cardiac and thyroid disease, pyrexial illness, electrolyte imbalance, cancer, and coexisting infection. METHODS AND OUTCOMES: We conducted a systematic review and aimed to answer the following clinical questions: What are the effects of oral medical treatments to control heart rate in people with chronic (defined as longer than 1 week for this review) non-valvular atrial fibrillation? What is the effect of different treatment strategies (rate vs. rhythm) for people with persistent non-valvular atrial fibrillation? We searched: Medline, Embase, The Cochrane Library and other important databases up to August 2007 (Clinical Evidence reviews are updated periodically, please check our website for the most up-to-date version of this review). We included harms alerts from relevant organisations such as the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) and the UK Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA). RESULTS: We found 18 systematic reviews, RCTs, or observational studies that met our inclusion criteria. We performed a GRADE evaluation of the quality of evidence for interventions. CONCLUSIONS: In this systematic review we present information relating to the effectiveness and safety of the following interventions: beta-blockers (with or without digoxin), calcium channel blockers (with or without digoxin), calcium channel blockers (rate limiting), digoxin, and rate versus rhythm control strategies.

Please list 10 conditions which play a role in causing atrial fibrillation.

5aaef38dfcf456587200000f_029

Control Of Hypertension Improves The Outcome Of Therapies For Paroxysmal And Persistent Atrial Fibrillation. Hypertension is known to increase the risk of atrial fibrillation. It has a role to play in atrial fibrosis and remodeling which tends to propagate further atrial fibrillation. Current anti arrhythmic therapy is unsatisfactory due to its toxicity. Management of hypertension offers an attractive target for improving therapy of atrial fibrillation. We examine the current evidence for anti hypertensive therapy in atrial fibrillation.

Please list 10 conditions which play a role in causing atrial fibrillation.

5aaef38dfcf456587200000f_030

Adverse interactions between warfarin and nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs: mechanisms, clinical significance, and avoidance. OBJECTIVE: To review the mechanisms and clinical significance of adverse interactions between warfarin and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and discuss how these interactions can be avoided. DATA SOURCES: Previous studies of interactions between warfarin and NSAIDs or reports of adverse interactions were identified from a MEDLINE search (1976 to present) and from the reference lists of pertinent articles. STUDY SELECTION AND DATA EXTRACTION: All articles were considered for inclusion in the review. Pertinent information was selected for discussion. DATA SYNTHESIS: All NSAIDs can prolong bleeding time by inhibiting platelet function. High-dose aspirin has a direct hypoprothrombinemic effect. Phenylbutazone and its analogs enhance the hypoprothrombinemic effect of warfarin through a pharmacokinetic interaction by inhibiting the hepatic metabolism of warfarin. Mefenamic acid also enhances the anticoagulant effect of warfarin, but the mechanism is not known. The clinical relevance of protein binding displacement in the interaction between warfarin and NSAIDs has been overstated, although a significant one may be more likely in the presence of high concentrations of NSAIDs in patients with slow elimination of warfarin (e.g., those with severe heart failure or impaired liver function). NSAIDs can induce gastrointestinal bleeding, which is likely to be more severe if warfarin is also given. CONCLUSIONS: The combined use of warfarin and NSAIDs is generally discouraged because of the increased risk of bleeding in these patients. In patients receiving warfarin who also require NSAIDs, phenylbutazone and its analogs, high-dose aspirin, mefenamic acid, excessive use of topical methyl salicylate, and NSAIDs that are associated with a higher risk of bleeding peptic ulcers should be avoided. Patients should be closely monitored for anticoagulant control and bleeding complications during the combined use of warfarin and NSAIDs.

Please list 7 classes of drugs that interact with Warfarin.

5abce6acfcf4565872000022_001

Adverse interactions between warfarin and nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs: mechanisms, clinical significance, and avoidance. OBJECTIVE: To review the mechanisms and clinical significance of adverse interactions between warfarin and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and discuss how these interactions can be avoided. DATA SOURCES: Previous studies of interactions between warfarin and NSAIDs or reports of adverse interactions were identified from a MEDLINE search (1976 to present) and from the reference lists of pertinent articles. STUDY SELECTION AND DATA EXTRACTION: All articles were considered for inclusion in the review. Pertinent information was selected for discussion. DATA SYNTHESIS: All NSAIDs can prolong bleeding time by inhibiting platelet function. High-dose aspirin has a direct hypoprothrombinemic effect. Phenylbutazone and its analogs enhance the hypoprothrombinemic effect of warfarin through a pharmacokinetic interaction by inhibiting the hepatic metabolism of warfarin. Mefenamic acid also enhances the anticoagulant effect of warfarin, but the mechanism is not known. The clinical relevance of protein binding displacement in the interaction between warfarin and NSAIDs has been overstated, although a significant one may be more likely in the presence of high concentrations of NSAIDs in patients with slow elimination of warfarin (e.g., those with severe heart failure or impaired liver function). NSAIDs can induce gastrointestinal bleeding, which is likely to be more severe if warfarin is also given. CONCLUSIONS: The combined use of warfarin and NSAIDs is generally discouraged because of the increased risk of bleeding in these patients. In patients receiving warfarin who also require NSAIDs, phenylbutazone and its analogs, high-dose aspirin, mefenamic acid, excessive use of topical methyl salicylate, and NSAIDs that are associated with a higher risk of bleeding peptic ulcers should be avoided. Patients should be closely monitored for anticoagulant control and bleeding complications during the combined use of warfarin and NSAIDs.

Please list 7 classes of drugs that interact with Warfarin.

5abce6acfcf4565872000022_002

Systematic overview of warfarin and its drug and food interactions. BACKGROUND: Warfarin is a highly efficacious oral anticoagulant, but its use is limited by a well-founded fear of bleeding. Drug and food interactions are frequently cited as causes of adverse events with warfarin. We provide an updated systematic overview of the quality, clinical effect, and importance of these reported interactions. DATA SOURCES: MEDLINE, TOXLINE, IPA, and EMBASE databases from October 1993 to March 2004. Database searches combined the keyword warfarin with drug interactions, herbal medicines, Chinese herbal drugs, and food-drug interactions. STUDY SELECTION: Eligible articles contained original reports of warfarin drug or food interactions in human subjects. Non-English articles were included if sufficient information could be abstracted. DATA EXTRACTION: Reports were rated independently by 2 investigators for interaction direction, clinical severity, and quality of evidence. Quality of evidence was based on previously validated causation criteria and study design. DATA SYNTHESIS: Of 642 citations retrieved, 181 eligible articles contained original reports on 120 drugs or foods. Inter-rater agreement was excellent, with weighted kappa values of 0.84 to 1.00. Of all reports, 72% described a potentiation of warfarin's effect and 84% were of poor quality, 86% of which were single case reports. The 31 incidents of clinically significant bleeding were all single case reports. Newly reported interactions included celecoxib, rofecoxib, and herbal substances, such as green tea and danshen. CONCLUSIONS: The number of drugs reported to interact with warfarin continues to expand. While most reports are of poor quality and present potentially misleading conclusions, the consistency of reports of interactions with azole antibiotics, macrolides, quinolones, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, including selective cyclooxygenase-2 inhibitors, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, omeprazole, lipid-lowering agents, amiodarone, and fluorouracil, suggests that coadministration with warfarin should be avoided or closely monitored. More systematic study of warfarin drug interactions in patients is urgently needed.

Please list 7 classes of drugs that interact with Warfarin.

5abce6acfcf4565872000022_003

Systematic overview of warfarin and its drug and food interactions. BACKGROUND: Warfarin is a highly efficacious oral anticoagulant, but its use is limited by a well-founded fear of bleeding. Drug and food interactions are frequently cited as causes of adverse events with warfarin. We provide an updated systematic overview of the quality, clinical effect, and importance of these reported interactions. DATA SOURCES: MEDLINE, TOXLINE, IPA, and EMBASE databases from October 1993 to March 2004. Database searches combined the keyword warfarin with drug interactions, herbal medicines, Chinese herbal drugs, and food-drug interactions. STUDY SELECTION: Eligible articles contained original reports of warfarin drug or food interactions in human subjects. Non-English articles were included if sufficient information could be abstracted. DATA EXTRACTION: Reports were rated independently by 2 investigators for interaction direction, clinical severity, and quality of evidence. Quality of evidence was based on previously validated causation criteria and study design. DATA SYNTHESIS: Of 642 citations retrieved, 181 eligible articles contained original reports on 120 drugs or foods. Inter-rater agreement was excellent, with weighted kappa values of 0.84 to 1.00. Of all reports, 72% described a potentiation of warfarin's effect and 84% were of poor quality, 86% of which were single case reports. The 31 incidents of clinically significant bleeding were all single case reports. Newly reported interactions included celecoxib, rofecoxib, and herbal substances, such as green tea and danshen. CONCLUSIONS: The number of drugs reported to interact with warfarin continues to expand. While most reports are of poor quality and present potentially misleading conclusions, the consistency of reports of interactions with azole antibiotics, macrolides, quinolones, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, including selective cyclooxygenase-2 inhibitors, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, omeprazole, lipid-lowering agents, amiodarone, and fluorouracil, suggests that coadministration with warfarin should be avoided or closely monitored. More systematic study of warfarin drug interactions in patients is urgently needed.

Please list 7 classes of drugs that interact with Warfarin.

5abce6acfcf4565872000022_004

Systematic overview of warfarin and its drug and food interactions. BACKGROUND: Warfarin is a highly efficacious oral anticoagulant, but its use is limited by a well-founded fear of bleeding. Drug and food interactions are frequently cited as causes of adverse events with warfarin. We provide an updated systematic overview of the quality, clinical effect, and importance of these reported interactions. DATA SOURCES: MEDLINE, TOXLINE, IPA, and EMBASE databases from October 1993 to March 2004. Database searches combined the keyword warfarin with drug interactions, herbal medicines, Chinese herbal drugs, and food-drug interactions. STUDY SELECTION: Eligible articles contained original reports of warfarin drug or food interactions in human subjects. Non-English articles were included if sufficient information could be abstracted. DATA EXTRACTION: Reports were rated independently by 2 investigators for interaction direction, clinical severity, and quality of evidence. Quality of evidence was based on previously validated causation criteria and study design. DATA SYNTHESIS: Of 642 citations retrieved, 181 eligible articles contained original reports on 120 drugs or foods. Inter-rater agreement was excellent, with weighted kappa values of 0.84 to 1.00. Of all reports, 72% described a potentiation of warfarin's effect and 84% were of poor quality, 86% of which were single case reports. The 31 incidents of clinically significant bleeding were all single case reports. Newly reported interactions included celecoxib, rofecoxib, and herbal substances, such as green tea and danshen. CONCLUSIONS: The number of drugs reported to interact with warfarin continues to expand. While most reports are of poor quality and present potentially misleading conclusions, the consistency of reports of interactions with azole antibiotics, macrolides, quinolones, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, including selective cyclooxygenase-2 inhibitors, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, omeprazole, lipid-lowering agents, amiodarone, and fluorouracil, suggests that coadministration with warfarin should be avoided or closely monitored. More systematic study of warfarin drug interactions in patients is urgently needed.

Please list 7 classes of drugs that interact with Warfarin.

5abce6acfcf4565872000022_005

Effect of oral corticosteroids on chronic warfarin therapy. BACKGROUND: A potential drug interaction exists between oral corticosteroids and warfarin, but there is limited documentation. OBJECTIVE: To evaluate the potential drug interaction between oral corticosteroids and long-term warfarin therapy. METHODS: A retrospective review was conducted of 387 medical records for active patients within an anticoagulation clinic. Inclusion criteria were stable anticoagulation therapy, short-term oral corticosteroid therapy, international normalized ratio (INR) recorded within 30 days prior to corticosteroid initiation (pre-INR), and INR recorded during corticosteroid therapy or within 14 days of discontinuation (post-INR). Patients were excluded if they had been started on any antibiotic or other drug with a probable interaction with warfarin at the same time as corticosteroid initiation. Thirty-two patient encounters met the predetermined inclusion and exclusion criteria. The primary outcome assessed was the difference between pre- and post-INR values. Secondary endpoints included bleeding events, emergency department (ED) visits, hospitalizations, and warfarin dose modifications. RESULTS: The mean difference between pre- and post-INR values was 1.24 (95% CI 0.86 to 1.62). Ninety-seven percent of the 32 patient encounters resulted in a change in their post-INR value, and 62.5% of patients had supratherapeutic INR values at the post-corticosteroid assessment. The majority of patients assessed had an elevation of their INR following concomitant use of warfarin and corticosteroids. The INR change was observed at a mean +/- SD of 6.7 +/- 3.3 days following the first dose of corticosteroid. Overall, 16 patients (50%) required a modification of their anticoagulation therapy during or following corticosteroid therapy. Only one adverse event of minor epistaxis was reported, and no ED visits or hospitalizations occurred as a consequence of the drug combination. CONCLUSIONS: Use of oral corticosteroids in patients on long-term warfarin therapy may result in a clinically significant interaction, which requires close INR monitoring and possible warfarin dose reduction.

Please list 7 classes of drugs that interact with Warfarin.

5abce6acfcf4565872000022_006

Effect of oral corticosteroids on chronic warfarin therapy. BACKGROUND: A potential drug interaction exists between oral corticosteroids and warfarin, but there is limited documentation. OBJECTIVE: To evaluate the potential drug interaction between oral corticosteroids and long-term warfarin therapy. METHODS: A retrospective review was conducted of 387 medical records for active patients within an anticoagulation clinic. Inclusion criteria were stable anticoagulation therapy, short-term oral corticosteroid therapy, international normalized ratio (INR) recorded within 30 days prior to corticosteroid initiation (pre-INR), and INR recorded during corticosteroid therapy or within 14 days of discontinuation (post-INR). Patients were excluded if they had been started on any antibiotic or other drug with a probable interaction with warfarin at the same time as corticosteroid initiation. Thirty-two patient encounters met the predetermined inclusion and exclusion criteria. The primary outcome assessed was the difference between pre- and post-INR values. Secondary endpoints included bleeding events, emergency department (ED) visits, hospitalizations, and warfarin dose modifications. RESULTS: The mean difference between pre- and post-INR values was 1.24 (95% CI 0.86 to 1.62). Ninety-seven percent of the 32 patient encounters resulted in a change in their post-INR value, and 62.5% of patients had supratherapeutic INR values at the post-corticosteroid assessment. The majority of patients assessed had an elevation of their INR following concomitant use of warfarin and corticosteroids. The INR change was observed at a mean +/- SD of 6.7 +/- 3.3 days following the first dose of corticosteroid. Overall, 16 patients (50%) required a modification of their anticoagulation therapy during or following corticosteroid therapy. Only one adverse event of minor epistaxis was reported, and no ED visits or hospitalizations occurred as a consequence of the drug combination. CONCLUSIONS: Use of oral corticosteroids in patients on long-term warfarin therapy may result in a clinically significant interaction, which requires close INR monitoring and possible warfarin dose reduction.

Please list 7 classes of drugs that interact with Warfarin.

5abce6acfcf4565872000022_007

Interaction between lopinavir/ritonavir and warfarin. Drug interactions involving protease inhibitors are common. Protease inhibitors are well known inhibitors of the 3A4 isozyme of cytochrome P450. Select protease inhibitors, including co-formulated lopinavir/ritonavir, may induce glucuronidation or the activity of other CYP450 isozymes. We describe the case of a patient taking warfarin who experienced a significantly decreased international normalized ratio after the initiation of antiretroviral therapy that included lopinavir/ritonavir. We review the possible mechanisms of this interaction and the reported interactions between warfarin and other protease inhibitors.

Please list 7 classes of drugs that interact with Warfarin.

5abce6acfcf4565872000022_008

Warfarin-antibiotic interactions in older adults of an outpatient anticoagulation clinic. BACKGROUND: Several classes of drugs, such as antibiotics, may interact with warfarin to cause an increase in warfarins anticoagulant activity and the clinical relevance of warfarin-antibiotic interactions in older adults is not clear. OBJECTIVE: The aim of this study was to determine the effect of oral antibiotics, such as amoxicillin, azithromycin, cephalexin, ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin, and moxifloxacin, on the international normalized ratio (INR) in patients > 65 years on stable warfarin therapy. The secondary objective was to compare the effect of warfarin-antibiotic interactions on outcomes of overanticoagulation. METHODS: Data for this retrospective cohort study were collected through a medical record review of patients in an outpatient anticoagulation clinic of a Veterans Affairs medical center. Patients aged > 65 years on stable warfarin therapy and with at least 1 prescription of an oral antibiotic of interest during the period from January 1, 2003 to March 1, 2011 were included. A mixed-effects repeated-measures ANOVA model was used to determine the effect of antibiotics on the mean change in patients' INR. The Fisher exact test was used to determine the association between the antibiotics and secondary outcomes of overanticoagulation, using cephalexin as the control. Statistical significance was defined as a P value <0.05. RESULTS: A total of 205 patients had 364 prescriptions for warfarin and antibiotics concomitantly, and there was a significant interaction between antibiotic and time (F(15, 358) = 1.9; P = 0.0221). Antibiotics with a significant increase in INR were amoxicillin (P = 0.0019), azithromycin (P < 0.0001), ciprofloxacin (P = 0.002), levofloxacin (P < 0.0001) and moxifloxacin (P < 0.0001). There was a significant association between type of antibiotic and secondary outcomes of overanticoagulation. CONCLUSIONS: In older patients on stable warfarin therapy, antibiotics may lead to an increase in INR. However, this may not result in clinically significant outcomes of bleeding or hospitalization, suggesting that antibiotics may be prescribed for older adults taking warfarin as long as their INR is being routinely monitored.

Please list 7 classes of drugs that interact with Warfarin.

5abce6acfcf4565872000022_009

Drug-drug interactions between warfarin and psychotropics: updated review of the literature. As the number of psychotropics on the market expands, the likelihood increases that a patient requiring anticoagulation with warfarin will receive concurrent treatment with a psychotropic drug. Because warfarin undergoes hepatic metabolism and is highly protein bound, it is particularly prone to drug interactions; in addition, its relatively narrow therapeutic window places patients at risk of either hemorrhagic or thrombotic complications. Although warfarin's interactions with other drugs have long been studied, the most recent review of the literature of warfarin's interactions with psychotropics was over a decade ago. Thus, we conducted a systematic review of the literature documenting the interaction between warfarin and psychotropics, with a focus on interactions mediated through the cytochrome P450 system and protein binding. A search of the MEDLINE database was performed, and reports of warfarin interactions with psychotropics were identified. The results suggest that interactions between warfarin and psychotropic drugs are important and likely underrecognized. They also have notable implications for both safety and drug compliance. When certain psychotropics are started or discontinued in patients receiving warfarin therapy, or when warfarin is introduced to a patient receiving a stable dose of a psychotropic, clinicians should monitor a patient's international normalized ratio (INR) closely to ensure it remains within therapeutic range. Psychotropics that pose a particular risk of increasing the INR when used with warfarin include fluoxetine, fluvoxamine, quetiapine, and valproic acid. Psychotropics that may significantly decrease the INR when used with warfarin include trazodone, St. John's wort, carbamazepine, and the polycyclic aromatic carbons in tobacco cigarettes; however, nicotine itself, as in nicotine replacement strategies, is not known to alter warfarin's anticoagulant effect. In certain cases, the need for anticoagulation may also necessitate switching to a different psychotropic.

Please list 7 classes of drugs that interact with Warfarin.

5abce6acfcf4565872000022_010

Integrating interacting drugs and genetic variations to improve the predictability of warfarin maintenance dose in Chinese patients. OBJECTIVE: Compared with genetic factors, drug interactions are largely unexplored in pharmacogenetic studies. This study sought to systematically investigate the effects of VKORC1, STX4A, CYP2C9, CYP4F2, CYP3A4, and GGCX gene polymorphisms and interacting drugs on warfarin maintenance dose. METHODS: A retrospective study of 845 Chinese patients after heart valve replacement receiving long-term warfarin maintenance therapy was conducted. Thirteen polymorphisms in the six genes were genotyped, and 36 drugs that may interact with warfarin were investigated. RESULTS: Single-nucleotide polymorphism association analysis showed that VKORC1, CYP2C9 and CYP4F2 variations were highly associated with the warfarin maintenance dose. Among 36 drugs that may interact with warfarin, fluconazole, amiodarone, and omeprazole were associated with the requirement for 45.8, 16.7, and 16.7% lower median warfarin dose (all P<0.05 with a false discovery rate <0.05). The final pharmacogenetic equation explained 43.65% of interindividual variation of warfarin maintenance dose with age, body surface area, VKORC1 g.3588G>A, CYP2C9*3, CYP4F2 c.1297G>A, amiodarone, fluconazole, and diltiazem accounting for 1.97, 2.74, 24.12, 3.94, 1.64, 5.92, 2.47, and 0.84% of variation. CONCLUSION: The present study indicated that VKORC1, CYP4F2, and CYP2C9 genotypes and interacting drugs had a significant impact on the warfarin maintenance dose in Chinese patients with heart valve replacement and demonstrated that integrating interacting drugs can largely improve the predictability of the dose algorithm.

Please list 7 classes of drugs that interact with Warfarin.

5abce6acfcf4565872000022_011

Integrating interacting drugs and genetic variations to improve the predictability of warfarin maintenance dose in Chinese patients. OBJECTIVE: Compared with genetic factors, drug interactions are largely unexplored in pharmacogenetic studies. This study sought to systematically investigate the effects of VKORC1, STX4A, CYP2C9, CYP4F2, CYP3A4, and GGCX gene polymorphisms and interacting drugs on warfarin maintenance dose. METHODS: A retrospective study of 845 Chinese patients after heart valve replacement receiving long-term warfarin maintenance therapy was conducted. Thirteen polymorphisms in the six genes were genotyped, and 36 drugs that may interact with warfarin were investigated. RESULTS: Single-nucleotide polymorphism association analysis showed that VKORC1, CYP2C9 and CYP4F2 variations were highly associated with the warfarin maintenance dose. Among 36 drugs that may interact with warfarin, fluconazole, amiodarone, and omeprazole were associated with the requirement for 45.8, 16.7, and 16.7% lower median warfarin dose (all P<0.05 with a false discovery rate <0.05). The final pharmacogenetic equation explained 43.65% of interindividual variation of warfarin maintenance dose with age, body surface area, VKORC1 g.3588G>A, CYP2C9*3, CYP4F2 c.1297G>A, amiodarone, fluconazole, and diltiazem accounting for 1.97, 2.74, 24.12, 3.94, 1.64, 5.92, 2.47, and 0.84% of variation. CONCLUSION: The present study indicated that VKORC1, CYP4F2, and CYP2C9 genotypes and interacting drugs had a significant impact on the warfarin maintenance dose in Chinese patients with heart valve replacement and demonstrated that integrating interacting drugs can largely improve the predictability of the dose algorithm.

Please list 7 classes of drugs that interact with Warfarin.

5abce6acfcf4565872000022_012

Study of warfarin utilization in hospitalized patients: analysis of possible drug interactions. Background Drug-drug interactions in patients taking warfarin may contribute to a higher risk of adverse events. Objective To identify and evaluate the prevalence and characteristics of potential DDIs with warfarin. Methods A cross-sectional study was performed in a Brazilian tertiary hospital. The electronic prescriptions of the patients receiving warfarin between January 2004 and December 2010 were analyzed. Socio-demographic, clinical, and therapeutic variables were collected. Warfarin drug-drug interactions were classified as either risk A, B, C, D, or X according to the Lexi-Interact™ Online database. Results A total of 3048 patients were identified who were prescribed warfarin. Of the 154,161 total drug prescriptions issued, 42,120 (27.3 %) were for warfarin. Evaluation of the prescriptions showed that 63.1 and 0.1 % of patients received concomitant drugs classified as having class D or X risk. It was found that 20,539 (48.7 %) prescriptions had at least one drug with a D or X risk. Patients were prescribed an average of 1.4 (±0.4) concomitant medications with a class D or X warfarin-DDI risk, the most frequent being acetylsalicylic acid and amiodarone. Conclusion The results demonstrate a high prevalence of concomitant drug prescriptions with the potential for clinically relevant DDIs with warfarin, the most frequent being acetylsalicylic acid and amiodarone.

Please list 7 classes of drugs that interact with Warfarin.

5abce6acfcf4565872000022_013

Clinically important drug interactions with anticoagulants. An update. Coumarin derivatives combine 3 unfavorable properties which make them prone to potentially life threatening drug-drug interactions: (i) high protein binding; (ii) cytochrome P450 dependent metabolism; and (iii) a narrow therapeutic range. An entire list of drugs which are supposed to interact with coumarins (mostly with warfarin) comprises about 250 different compounds. Noteworthy are the interactions with cardiovascular or antilipidaemic drugs which are often coadministered with coumarins: amiodarone, propafenone and fibrates. Cardiovascular drugs which are obviously devoid or proven to be devoid of an interaction are angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, calcium antagonists, beta-blockers and cardiac glycosides. There are several other drugs which enhance the hypoprothrombinaemic response to coumarins by various mechanisms: inhibitors of the elimination of the eutomer S-(-)-warfarin (e.g. miconazole, phenylbutazone), combined with protein binding displacement (e.g., sulfinpyrazone, phenylbutazone), synergistic hypoprothrombinaemia (e.g. cefazoline). Furthermore, bleeding complications may occur with drugs affecting platelet function [aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) and several nonsteroidal anti-inflammatories (NSAIDs)]. Strong inducers of coumarin metabolism are rifampicin (rifampin) and carbamazepine. Biphasic interactions may occur where a drug first enhances the hypoprothrombinaemic response to a coumarin but has a sustained inducing effect on coumarin metabolism (e.g. phenytoin or sulfinpyrazone). The complex response of coumarins to concomitant drug therapy makes it difficult to predict the occurrence and degree of a deterioration of anticoagulant control in individual patients. For clinical practice, it seems advisable that one should monitor for changes in prothrombin time when adding or deleting any newly approved drug or any drug suspected (e.g. on the basis of this review) to cause an interaction to patients on coumarin therapy. The onset of the adverse prothrombin time response might be from between 1 to 2 days up to 3 weeks (in case of phenprocoumon) after starting a concomitant drug regimen. With amiodarone, an adverse prothrombin time response might occur up to 2 months after initiating therapy. For heparins, only a drug interaction with aspirin or nitroglycerin seems clinically relevant due to the possibility of coadministration during acute cardiac events. Both drugs are shown to enhance the activated partial thromboplastin time response to heparin.

Please list 7 classes of drugs that interact with Warfarin.

5abce6acfcf4565872000022_014

Clinically important drug interactions with anticoagulants. An update. Coumarin derivatives combine 3 unfavorable properties which make them prone to potentially life threatening drug-drug interactions: (i) high protein binding; (ii) cytochrome P450 dependent metabolism; and (iii) a narrow therapeutic range. An entire list of drugs which are supposed to interact with coumarins (mostly with warfarin) comprises about 250 different compounds. Noteworthy are the interactions with cardiovascular or antilipidaemic drugs which are often coadministered with coumarins: amiodarone, propafenone and fibrates. Cardiovascular drugs which are obviously devoid or proven to be devoid of an interaction are angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, calcium antagonists, beta-blockers and cardiac glycosides. There are several other drugs which enhance the hypoprothrombinaemic response to coumarins by various mechanisms: inhibitors of the elimination of the eutomer S-(-)-warfarin (e.g. miconazole, phenylbutazone), combined with protein binding displacement (e.g., sulfinpyrazone, phenylbutazone), synergistic hypoprothrombinaemia (e.g. cefazoline). Furthermore, bleeding complications may occur with drugs affecting platelet function [aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) and several nonsteroidal anti-inflammatories (NSAIDs)]. Strong inducers of coumarin metabolism are rifampicin (rifampin) and carbamazepine. Biphasic interactions may occur where a drug first enhances the hypoprothrombinaemic response to a coumarin but has a sustained inducing effect on coumarin metabolism (e.g. phenytoin or sulfinpyrazone). The complex response of coumarins to concomitant drug therapy makes it difficult to predict the occurrence and degree of a deterioration of anticoagulant control in individual patients. For clinical practice, it seems advisable that one should monitor for changes in prothrombin time when adding or deleting any newly approved drug or any drug suspected (e.g. on the basis of this review) to cause an interaction to patients on coumarin therapy. The onset of the adverse prothrombin time response might be from between 1 to 2 days up to 3 weeks (in case of phenprocoumon) after starting a concomitant drug regimen. With amiodarone, an adverse prothrombin time response might occur up to 2 months after initiating therapy. For heparins, only a drug interaction with aspirin or nitroglycerin seems clinically relevant due to the possibility of coadministration during acute cardiac events. Both drugs are shown to enhance the activated partial thromboplastin time response to heparin.

Please list 7 classes of drugs that interact with Warfarin.

5abce6acfcf4565872000022_015

Frequency of concurrent use of warfarin with potentially interacting drugs. STUDY OBJECTIVE: To determine the rates of concomitant use of drugs known to interact with warfarin by increasing the prothrombin time expressed as the international normalized ratio (INR), decreasing the INR, or increasing bleeding risk without apparent changes in INR in a cohort of patients receiving long-term warfarin therapy. DESIGN: Retrospective, longitudinal cohort study. SETTING: Large pharmacy benefits manager database. PATIENTS: A total of 134,833 patients who were prescribed long-term warfarin from June 1, 1999-May 31, 2000. MEASUREMENTS AND MAIN RESULTS: Longitudinal pharmacy claims from the pharmacy benefits manager database were reviewed to identify coprescription of warfarin and drugs associated with significant interactions with warfarin. Of the 134,833 patients receiving long-term warfarin therapy, 109,998 (81.6%) were prescribed a concurrent prescription for at least one potentially interacting drug, including 87,346 (64.8%) who were prescribed one or more concomitant drugs associated with interactions known to increase the INR. Acetaminophen-containing products, prescribed for 22.7% of patients receiving concomitant prescriptions, and thyroid hormones, prescribed for 17.5%, were the most commonly prescribed concurrent drugs associated with an increased INR response. The most frequently prescribed interacting agents associated with a decreased INR response were trazodone (2.2%) and carbamazepine (1.1%). The most commonly prescribed agents independently associated with increased bleeding risk were cyclooxygenase-2 inhibitors. CONCLUSION: Many patients receiving warfarin therapy are treated with concomitant drugs that may interact with the warfarin. The high percentage of patients taking drugs that may increase INR or bleeding risk is a reminder that bleeding events are a likely adverse outcome of combining drugs that interact with warfarin. Careful warfarin management is necessary to avoid adverse events associated with drug interactions.

Please list 7 classes of drugs that interact with Warfarin.

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