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mini-bioasq

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For what is Protein A from Staphylococcus aureus used in biochemistry?

Protein A from the bacterium Staphylococcus aureus (SpA) is used as an affinity ligand for purification of immunoglobulin G (IgG).

[23776704, 24033345, 22621885, 24184233, 12472184, 24291195, 23770556, 22136061]

What is the suggested therapy for Mycobacterium avium infection?

The activity of TLC G-65 (a liposomal gentamicin preparation), alone and in combination with rifapentine, clarithromycin, clofazimine and ethambutol, was evaluated in the beige mouse (C57BL/6J--bgj/bgj) model of disseminated Mycobacterium avium infection. TLC G-65 in combination with rifapentine appears to be an attractive regimen for the treatment of infections caused by bacteria in the M. avium complex. Rifampin 10 mg/kg daily, ciprofloxacin 500 mg twice daily, clofazimine 100 mg every day, and ethambutol 15 mg/kg orally daily for 24 weeks, with or without amikacin 10 mg/kg intravenously or intramuscularly 5 days weekly for the first 4 weeks. In vivo phage treatment may also be used in some cases.

[8733409, 16584300, 10714126, 1832527, 19929882, 1387133, 9875582, 11073759]

What is the treatment of acute pericarditis?

A multidisciplinary approach is frequently necessary to treat acute pericarditis; the most frequent treatments are: antiinflammatory steroid and non-steroid drugs, antibiotic therapy, pericardial drainage and, less frequently ,intrapericardial irrigation of fibrinolytics; antituberculous chemotherapy in presence of Tuberculous Agent

[7375968, 17415329, 308705, 20074469, 6727432, 10560235, 12405580, 12379412, 6966005, 6726718, 10920507, 18924029, 17180574]

What is the genetic basis of tuberous sclerosis?

The genetic basis of tuberous sclerosis has been attributed to mutations in one of two unlinked genes, TSC1 and TSC2. The functions of the TSC1 and TSC2 gene products, hamartin and tuberin, respectively, have remained ill defined until recently. Genetic, biochemical, and biologic analyses have highlighted their role as negative regulators of the mTOR signaling pathway. Tuberin, serving as a substrate of AKT and AMPK, mediates mTOR activity by coordinating inputs from growth factors and energy availability in the control of cell growth, proliferation, and survival. Emerging evidence also suggests that the TSC 1/2 complex may play a role in modulating the activity of beta-catenin and TGFbeta. These findings provide novel functional links between the TSC genes and other tumor suppressors.

[20073603, 15563017, 7546221, 24105488, 10823953, 9743993, 15579029, 15565817, 11520734]

What is the molecular function of the Chd1 protein?

The ATP-dependent chromatin-remodelling enzyme Chd1 is a 168-kDa protein consisting of a double chromodomain, Snf2-related ATPase domain, and a C-terminal DNA-binding domain. One of the two chromodomains of Chd1 specifically interacts with the methylated lysine 4 mark on histone H3 that is associated with transcriptional activity. Human CHD1 is an ATP-dependent chromatin remodeling protein, as a factor that directly and selectively recognizes histone H3 methylated on lysine 4.

[16468993, 23319591, 15647753, 17098252, 16263726, 21623345, 21177652, 16606615, 23533627, 19948887]

Which drugs are included in the FEC-75 regimen?

Fluorouracil, epirubicin, and cyclophosphamide are included in the FEC-75 regimen. This chemotherapy regiment is used for breast cancer treatment.

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Between which probes does the recurrent translocation breakpoint on chromosome 22 of neuroepithelioma lie?

The recurrent translocation breakpoint on chromosome 22 of neuroepithelioma has been localized between two probes, D22S1 and D22S15, by both in situ hybridization and somatic cell hybrids

[2303258]

Does administration of triiodothyronine improve outcome following coronary artery bypass grafting?

Perioperative administration of synthetic thyroid hormone therapy have positive hemodynamic effects (consisting of increases cardiac output, lowered systemic vascular resistance) determining improved postoperative ventricular function, reduced the need for treatment with inotropic agents and mechanical devices, in the absence of relevant effects on outcome ad exception of lower incidence of atrial fibrillation.

[19609889, 16820580, 8389710, 8633935, 7477166, 19303793, 12213743, 18290900, 7995828, 8594265, 23958074, 10343261]

Which are the most widely used computational methods for the identification of CRMs (cis-regulatory modules)?

Computational methods attempting to identify instances of cis-regulatory modules (CRMs) in the genome face a challenging problem of searching for potentially interacting transcription factor binding sites while knowledge of the specific interactions involved remains limited. When discriminating CRMs from non-coding regions, those methods considering evolutionary conservation have a stronger predictive power than methods designed to be run on a single genome. Furthermore, most methods appear to be sensitive to the composition and structure of the genome to which they are applied. CisMiner allows to perform a blind search of CRMs without any prior information about target CRMs nor limitation in the number of motifs.

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Which enzyme does MLN4924 inhibit?

MLN4924 is an investigational small molecule inhibitor of NEDD8-activating enzyme (NAE).

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Which protein has been found to interact with phospholamban (PLN) and is also an anti-apoptotic protein?

Phospholamban interacts with HAX-1, a mitochondrial protein with anti-apoptotic function.The discovery of the PLN/HAX-1 interaction therefore unveils an important new link between Ca(2+) homeostasis and cell survival, with significant therapeutic potential.

[17241641, 19920172, 24550830, 18971376, 18415121]

Is long QT syndrome a cause for sudden cardiac death in athletes?

One of several causes of sudden cardiac death in athletes is long QT syndrome

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What is the clinical value of MammaPrint?

MammaPrint has a prognostic value for distant metastasis and death, as well as predictive value for response to adjuvant chemotherapy in patients with breast cancer. However, the EGAPP Working Group found no evidence regarding the clinical utility of the MammaPrint.

[21847392, 20975745, 20110242, 19125125, 19214742, 19825882, 18159035, 22553468]

Is protein M3/6 a dual specificity phosphatase?

M3/6 (DUSP8) is a dual-specificity phosphatase implicated in the dephosphorylation and inactivation of JNK and, to a lesser extent, p38 MAPKs.

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Are there focused databases from which you can retrieve gene expression data on renal disease?

Biological databases are used to store and edit large amount of data, created from genomics data. In the most of the cases the data are stored according to their type but there are cases of focused databases that store database on a specific disease. In the case of renal disease there are plenty of databases, for example KUPKB a collection of omics datasets, Nephromine a renal genome-wide gene expression dataset based in transcriptomics, CDKD and Proteomics Database in Chronic Kidney Disease.

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What systems have been developed for the numbering of antibody residues?

The most prevalent antibody numbering systems are the Kabat system, the Chothia system as well as the IMGT numbering system.

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Are there any DNMT3 proteins present in plants?

Yes. The plant DOMAINS REARRANGED METHYLTRANSFERASE2 (DRM2) is a homolog of the mammalian de novo methyltransferase DNMT3. DRM2 contains a novel arrangement of the motifs required for DNA methyltransferase catalytic activity.

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What is the number of protein coding genes in the human genome?

The number of protein coding genes in the human genome is currently estimated between 20,000 and 25,000

[20175080, 18040051, 15034132, 22955987]

Has vitamin D has been shown to reduce incidence of falls in older people in clinical trials?

The rate of falls and the number of fallers was significantly reduced in two studies evaluating the effect of medication on preventing falls; one study (85 participants) compared vitamin D versus placebo in institutionalised women after stroke with low vitamin D levels, and the other study (79 participants) evaluated alendronate versus alphacalcidol in hospitalised people after stroke. Two studies testing vitamin D versus placebo and alendronate versus alphacalcidol found a significant reduction in falls and the number of people falling. Overall, vitamin D did not reduce rate of falls (RaR 1.00, 95% CI 0.90 to 1.11; seven trials; 9324 participants) or risk of falling (RR 0.96, 95% CI 0.89 to 1.03; 13 trials; 26,747 participants), but may do so in people with lower vitamin D levels before treatment. We found 26 eligible trials of moderate quality that enrolled 45,782 participants, the majority of which were elderly and female. Vitamin D use was associated with statistically significant reduction in the risk of falls (odds ratio for suffering at least one fall, 0.86; 95% confidence interval, 0.77-0.96)

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What is the indication for prophylactic use of antibiotics in COPD?

In a subset of patients with severe disease and prone to developing infections prophylactic use of antibiotics may reduce number of exacerbations and improve social and health care costs.

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Has depression been shown to be a predictor of frailty?

Yes

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What is the generic name of Gliolan?

5-aminolevulinic acid (or 5-ALA) is the generic name of Gliolan. It is approved for fluorescence-guided resections of adult malignant gliomas.

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Is there any association between Jarid2 and miR-155 in Th17 cells?

Yes. Activation-induced miR-155 targets the chromatin protein Jarid2 to regulate proinflammatory cytokine production in T helper 17 cells.

[24856900, 24950205]

What is enCHIP?

Engineered DNA-binding molecule-mediated chromatin immunoprecipitation (enChIP) is a novel method for purification of specific genomic regions retaining molecular interactions. EnChIP using the CRISPR system efficiently isolates specific genomic regions. In this form of enChIP, specific genomic regions are immunoprecipitated with antibody against a tag(s), which is fused to a catalytically inactive form of Cas9 (dCas9), which is co-expressed with a guide RNA (gRNA) and recognizes endogenous DNA sequence in the genomic regions of interest. enChIP-mass spectrometry (enChIP-MS) targeting endogenous loci identified associated proteins. enChIP using the CRISPR system would be a convenient and useful tool for dissecting chromatin structure of genomic regions of interest.

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How many genes does the human hoxD cluster contain?

The human HOXD complex contains nine genes: HOXD1, HOXD3, HOXD4, HOXD8, HOXD9, HOXD10, HOXD11, HOXD12 and HOXD13, which are clustered from 3′ to 5′ in an approximately 100-kb stretch on chromosome 2q31.1 with HOXD1 at the 3' end and HOXD13 the 5′ end.

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Is it safe to take isotretinoin during pregnancy?

No. The isotretinoin has severe teratogenic effects and it is not safe to use during pregnancy.

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Which protein is the E3-ubiquitin ligase that targets the tumor suppressor p53 for proteasomal degradation?

The p53 tumour suppressor protein is tightly controlled by the E3 ubiquitin ligase, mouse double minute 2 (MDM2). The RING domain E3 ubiquitin ligase Mdm2 is the master regulator of the tumor suppressor p53. It targets p53 for proteasomal degradation, restraining the potent activity of p53 and enabling cell survival and proliferation. p53 is inactivated in many human malignancies through missense mutations or overexpression of the human homologue of Mdm2 (Hdm2), an E3 ubiquitin ligase that ubiquitinates p53, thereby promoting its proteasomal degradation.

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Can DNA intercalators function as topoisomerase inhibitors?

The DNA unwinding suggests DNA intercalation, which could explain the inhibition of topoisomerase II. Among its many properties, amiloride is a DNA intercalator and topoisomerase II inhibitor. Amsacrine, a DNA intercalator and topoisomerase II inhibitor, is efficacious as an antileukemogenic agent. AQ4N (1,4-bis[[2-(dimethylamino)ethyl] amino]-5,8-dihydroxyanthracene-9, 10-dione bis-N-oxide dihydrochloride) is a prodrug which is selectively activated within hypoxic tissues to AQ4, a topoisomerase II inhibitor and DNA intercalator. Amonafide is a DNA intercalator and topoisomerase II inhibitor in clinical development for the treatment of neoplastic diseases.

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Which diseases is microRNA 132 (miR-132) implicated in?

Several targets for for miR-132 have been described and it is implicated in many diseases such as: neurodegenerative disease, epilepsy, schizophrenia, Huntington's disease (HD), Alzheimer's disease (AD), neuroinflammation, osteosarcoma, chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL), angiogenesis, eye disease, alcoholic liver disease, progressive supranuclear palsy (PSP taupathy), mild cognitive impairment.

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Which are the human glutamate transporters?

Glutamate/aspartate transporter (GLAST) and glutamate transporter-1 (GLT-1) are the most abundant subtypes and are essential for the functioning of the mammalian CNS, but the contribution of the EAAC1 subtype in the clearance of synaptic glutamate has remained controversial, because the density of this transporter in different tissues has not been determined. Using immunofluorescence and postembedding immunogold labeling, we investigated the distributions of the glutamate-aspartate transporter (GLAST or excitatory amino acid transporter 1), vesicular glutamate transporter (VGLUT1), and the AMPA receptor glutamate receptor 4 (GluR4) along the spiral.

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What are the functions of sorting nexin 27?

Sorting nexin 27 (SNX27) regulates endocytic sorting/recycling and intracellular trafficking of ion channels and receptors.

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Do orphan and gene related CpG islands follow power-law-like distributions?

Yes. Orphan and gene related CpG Islands follow power-law-like distributions in several genomes. The observed distributional pattern is independent of the analogous pattern that protein coding segments were reported to follow.

[25242375]

What is the proportion of non canonical splice sites in the human genome?

Between 1% and 2% of human splice sites do not contain the canonical GT-AG dinucleotides

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List protein gel staining methods visualizing the entire protein set.

Several staining protocols for the visualization of proteins separated by SDS-PAGE have been described in literature: fluorescence Sypro Ruby Colloidal Coomassie Blue Coomassie Blue Silver staining Coomassie Brilliant Blue

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What clinical use aptamers may have?

In the clinic, aptamers may be used to enhance the antigenicity of disseminated tumors, leading to their immune recognition and rejection; to target HPV16 E7 oncoprotein, inhibiting cell proliferation and activating apoptosis of infected cells; to act as inhibitors for targets such as VEGF, in age-related macular degeneration, and thrombin, or von Willebrand factor, in patients with acute coronary syndromes; to target the RNase H domain of the HIV-1 reverse transcriptase and inhibit viral replication; to transfect and activate B cells in human chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL); or finally, to be used as probes in CD4-cell phenotyping.

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What is the causative agent of the "Panama disease" affecting bananas?

Panama disease of banana is caused by the fungus Fusarium oxysporum f. sp. cubense.

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What is the mechanism of action of Nalmefene?

Nalmefene shows opioid receptor antagonism, binds the μ-opioid receptor (MOR1) and modulates opioidergic transmission in the CNS.

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Synostosis of which cranial structures are characteristic to the Mercedes Benz syndrome?

Synostosis of sagittal and lambdoid structures are characteristic to the Mercedes Benz syndrome.

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Can valproic acid act as an activator of AMPK?

Yes, valproic acid canact as an activator of AMPK.

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Which signaling pathways have been associated with medulloblastoma formation and growth?

Medulloblastoma comprises approximately 20% of all primary pediatric brain tumors. Multiple signaling pathways have been associated with disease formation and growth. These include the developmental pathways Hedgehog, Notch, and Wnt, as well as pathways in which the receptor tyrosine kinases (RTK) c-Met, erbB2, IGF-R and TrkC, and the oncoprotein Myc are involved.

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What is the role of invadopodia in EMT?

In a process of epithelial-mesenchymal transition (EMT), besides changing their adhesive repertoire, cancer cells employ developmental processes to gain migratory and invasive properties that involve a dramatic reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton and the concomitant formation of membrane protrusions required for invasive growth. An important type of such membrane protrusions are the invadopodia, which have been increasingly recognized as important drivers of local invasion in metastasis. They are basally-localized, actin-rich structures that concentrate protease activity to areas of the cell in contact with the extracellular matrix.

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What are cancer driver genes?

Recent sequencing and resequencing (i.e., polymorphism identification) efforts have catalyzed the quest for 'driver' mutations (i.e., those genetic alterations which contribute to the transformation of a normal cell to a proliferating cancerous cell) in distinction to 'passenger' mutations which reflect mutations that merely build up in course of normal and unchecked (i.e., cancerous) somatic cell replication and proliferation. Analysis of the frequency of specific mutations across different tumors has been able to identify some, but not all of the mutated genes that contribute to tumor initiation and progression. A subset of these mutations contribute to tumor progression (known as "driver" mutations) whereas the majority of these mutations are effectively neutral (known as "passenger" mutations).

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What is a mitochondrial nucleoid?

A naked mtDNA molecule is longer than a typical mitochondrion and is therefore compacted in vivo to form a nucleoprotein complex, denoted the mitochondrial nucleoid.

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What is the treatment of amiodarone-induced thyrotoxicosis?

Treatment of amiodarone-induced thyrotoxicosis is complex and may include drugs such as antithyroid drugs, beta-blockers, corticosteroids lithium as well as iopanoic acid in preparation of thyroidectomy. Total thyroidectomy and radioiodine represent alternative treatment options

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How does exercise affect thyroid hormone receptors expression in the heart?

Exercise has been shown to increase TRβ1 receptor expression in young rats. Exercise has been shown to increase both TRα1 and TRβ1 receptor expression in aged rats.

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Is the Drosophila Translational Control Element (TCE) involved in spermatogenesis?

Yes. The Drosophila Translational Control Element (TCE), a 12 nucleotide long sequence element, was demonstrated to be necessary for translational control of expression in the male germ line of Drosophila melanogaster.

[22984601, 8111973]

What are the symptoms of abacavir hypersensitivity?

Patients receiving abacavir develop an idiosyncratic hypersensitivity reaction that can include a wide range of symptoms. The most common are: fever, enathema, skin rash, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, cough, gastrointestinal disorders, anaphylactic shock, respiratory symptoms.

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What is the effect of ivabradine in heart failure with preserved ejection fraction?

I(f)-channel inhibition potentially exhibits beneficial effects in diastolic heart failure. In patients with heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF), short-term treatment with ivabradine increased exercise capacity, with a contribution from improved left ventricular filling pressure response to exercise as reflected by the ratio of peak early diastolic mitral flow velocity to peak early diastolic mitral annular velocity. Ivabradine has demonstrated benefits in HFpEF without improving mortality. In db/db, a model of HFpEF, ivabradine improved vascular stiffness, left ventricular contractility, and diastolic function. Furthermore, ivabradine reduces cardiac fibrosis in hypercholesterolemic rabbits.

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Is low T3 syndrome a prognostic marker in patients with renal insufficiency?

Low fT3 is an independent predictor of death in chronic kidney disease, in particular in dialised patients at end-stage renal diseases.

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Does burning mouth syndrome preferentially affect post-mepopausal women?

BMS is observed principally in middle-aged patients and postmenopausal women BMS mostly affects elderly citizens, especially postmenopausal women with prevalence up to 12-18%.

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Which biomarker is widely used in the diagnosis of Ewing sarcoma?

CD99 is a hallmark marker for Ewing sarcoma and primitive neuroectodermal tumors.

[12783138]

Proteomic analyses have revealed proteins associated with the triple-negative breast cancers. List some proposed proteins.

Selected proteins of interest proposed from triple-negative cancer proteomic studies are CD44, PARP1, Mage-A4, LSR, RAB25, S100A14, MUC1, Hsp90, Actin, 14-3-3, vimentin, HSP70, CK18, moesin, IDH2, CRABP2, SEC14L2, beta-catenin, MUC18, Stat1 and CD74.

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Which signalling pathway is involved in Tuberous Sclerosis?

Tuberous Sclerosis is a multisystem genetic disorder caused by mutation in TSC1 or TSC2 gene, that leads to hyperactivation of the mTOR signalling pathway, and subsequent dysregulation of cell growth control.

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Can life style changes reduce oxidative stress

Our results suggested that life style changes which related to migration might reduce DNA damage in Hasake nationalities.

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Which is the relation between sweating and anaerobic threshold?

There is no clear evidence of the relationship between sweating and anaerobic threshold

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Name monoclonal antibody against SLAMF7.

Elotuzumab is a humanized monoclonal antibody specific for signaling lymphocytic activation molecule-F7 (SLAMF7, also known as CS1, CD319, or CRACC) that enhances natural killer cell-mediated antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity of SLAMF7-expressing myeloma cells.

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What is the mode of action of bedaquiline?

Bedaquiline works by inhibiting bacterial adenosine triphosphate (ATP) synthase and represents the first novel class of antituberculosis agents that is used for treatment of multi drug resistant tuberculosis.

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Does helicobacter pylori infection increase risk for ischemic stroke?

Findings regarding association between helicobacter pylori infection and ischemic stroke risk are conflicting. There is evidence to suggest that helicobacter pylori infection is associated with increased risk for ischemic stroke and should be considered stroke risk factors. However, some studies reported no association between helicobacter pylori infection and stroke.

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Which are the major types of the motor speech disorder dysarthria?

Dysarthria is a motor speech disorder which can be classified according to the underlying neuropathology and is associated with disturbances of respiration, laryngeal function, airflow direction, and articulation resulting in difficulties of speech quality and intelligibility. There are six major types of dysarthria: "flaccid dysarthria" associated with lower motor neuron impairment, "spastic dysarthria" associated with damaged upper motor neurons linked to the motor areas of the cerebral cortex, "ataxic dysarthria" primarily caused by cerebellar dysfunction, and "hyperkinetic dysarthria" and "hypokinetic dysarthria", which are related to a disorder of the extrapyramidal system. The sixth is generally termed a "mixed dysarthria" and is associated with damage in more than one area, resulting in speech characteristics of at least two groups.

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Is oxidative stress affected by FOXO expression?

Yes. In different cell types, induction of forkhead transcription factor FOXO1 was found to increase expression of the mitochondrial antioxidant manganese superoxide dismutase, and lead to suppression of oxidative stress.

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Describe the mechanism of action of the LINX system for treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease.

LINX Reflux Management System is a sphincter augmentation device designed to prevent gastroesophageal reflux due to abnormal opening of the lower esophageal sphincter (LES) by augmenting the sphincter barrier. It is implanted via laparoscopic procedure that does not alter gastric anatomy and is easily reversible.

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Which enzyme deficiency can cause GM1 gangliosidoses?

GM1 gangliosidoses are associated with deficiency of β-galactosidase.

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What is the characteristic feature of the Dyke-Davidoff-Masson syndrome.

Cerebral hemiatrophy (atrophy of one cerebral hemisphere) is the characteristic feature of the Dyke-Davidoff-Masson syndrome. It develops due to an insult to the brain in fetal or early childhood period. Calvarial thickening, skull and facial asymmetry, contralateral hemiparesis, cognitive impairment and seizures are also characteristic to the Dyke-Davidoff-Masson syndrome. .

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Which gene is involved in the development of Barth syndrome?

Tafazzin is a mitochondrial phospholipid transacylase, and its mutations cause Barth syndrome (BTHS)

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What is the treatment of subacute thyroiditis?

Common treatment of subacute thyroiditis is with anti-inflammatory drug agents, namely corticosteroids

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What are the effects of BMAL1 deficiency?

BMAL1 deficiency is associated with premature aging and reduced lifespan and BMAL1 deficiency leads to development of stress induced senescence in vivo. Down-regulation of Bmal1 also accelerates the development of tumours, adipogenesis.

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Which histone modifications are associated with Polycomb group (PcG) proteins?

A member of the polycomb repressive complex 2 (PRC2) directly mediates the addition of K27me3 to histone H3, a modification associated with heterochromatin, and it is believed that this activity mediates transcriptional repression. At the same time PRC2 activity results in a global increase in H3K27 acetylation. Some members of the PcG display affinity towards both histone H3 trimethylated at K9 and H3K27me3, and one CD prefers K9me3.

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Where is the protein CLIC1 localized?

CLIC1 is an intracellular chloride ion channel that is localized both to the nucleus and to the cytolasm.

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List phosphorylation consensus motifs for Casein Kinase 1 (CK1)?

The most common consensus motifs for CK1 are: pSer-Xaa-Xaa-Ser, K/R-X-K/R-X-X-S/T, SLS and acidic cluster motifs and SerP/ThrP-Xaa-Xaa-Ser/Thr.

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What medication were compared in the ROCKET AF Trial?

ROCKET-AF trial compared rivaroxaban and warfarin for for prevention of stroke and embolism.

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Describe the usefulness of the SPIKE database in human signaling pathways

The rapid accumulation of knowledge on biological signaling pathways and their regulatory mechanisms has highlighted the need for specific repositories that can store, organize and allow retrieval of pathway information in a way that will be useful for the research community. SPIKE (Signaling Pathways Integrated Knowledge Engine; http://www.cs.tau.ac.il/&~spike/) is a database for achieving this goal, containing highly curated interactions for particular human pathways, along with literature-referenced information on the nature of each interaction. To make database population and pathway comprehension straightforward, a simple yet informative data model is used, and pathways are laid out as maps that reflect the curator’s understanding and make the utilization of the pathways easy. The database currently focuses primarily on pathways describing DNA damage response, cell cycle, programmed cell death and hearing related pathways. Pathways are regularly updated, and additional pathways are gradually added. The complete database and the individual maps are freely exportable in several formats. The database is accompanied by a stand-alone software tool for analysis and dynamic visualization of pathways.

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Is the Dictyostelium discoideum proteome known?

Yes, The Dictyostelium discoideum genome has been sequenced, assembled and annotated to a high degree of reliability. The parts-list of proteins and RNA encoded by the six chromosomes can now be accessed and analyzed. Consequently, this genomic sequence information can now be exploited to realize D. discoideum proteomics projects.

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List proteins of lipids droplets

perilipins adipose differentiation-related protein lipid storage droplet protein 5 tail-interacting protein of 47 kilodaltons S3-12

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What is the Barr body?

The Barr body is the inactive X chromosome in a female somatic cell. It is readily identified as plano-convex structure of 2-3 micron in diameter on the periphery of the nuclear membrane. One of the X-chromosomes by a random inactivation process condenses to form X-chromatin (Barr body) in early embryonic life. Once this occurs, it is final and fixed for that cell and all its descendants (1,2). Barr body is an inactivated X chromosome in the normal female somatic cell. Inactivation of these chromosomes is known as Lyonization. Lyonization has both genetic and clinical significance. Barr body can be easily identified with ordinary stains. It also helps in identifying the sex of an individual when used judiciously. The Barr body has long been recognized as the cytological manifestation of the inactive X chromosome (Xi) in interphase nuclei. Despite being known for over 50 years, relatively few components of the Barr body have been identified.

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Is single-cell analysis (SCA) possible in proteomics?

No, it is not yet feasible, although smaller pilot studies has been performed where a limited number of proteins has been analysed.

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Is shotgun lipidomics the direct infusion of a lipid sample into a mass spectrometer?

Yes, shotgun lipidomics relies on direct infusion of total lipid extracts into a high-resolution tandem mass spectrometer.

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How many genes are in the gene signature screened by MammaPrint?

Mammaprint has a 70 gene signature.

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Is apixaban effective for treatment of acute venous thromboembolism?

Apixaban is a direct inhibitor of factor Xa, and is a potential alternative for the treatment of acute venous thromboembolism. These results suggest a lack of clear superiority of apixaban relative to enoxaparin. Apixaban is an oral alternative with similar efficacy and safety to existing anticoagulant therapies.

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Is the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle affected in inflammation?

Metabolic reprogramming is implicated in macrophage activation. In many cases, intermediates of the TCA cycle are involved in the response to hypoxic conditions brought about by inflammation.

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What are the indications for treatment with anti-hepcidin?

improving anemia control anemia management in hemodialysis iron-restricted anemias

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How many genera comprise the Flaviviridae family?

The family Flaviviridae is comprised of three genera: Flavivirus, Pestivirus and Hepacivirus.

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Are reduced-nicotine cigarettes effective for smoking cessation?

Yes, reduced-nicotine cigarettes are effective for smoking cessation.

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Is the Wnt protein modified by notum?

Yes, Notum deacylates Wnt proteins to suppress signalling activity.

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List functions that are evaluated with the Full Outline of Unresponsiveness score?

The FOUR (Full Outline of UnResponsiveness) score, a new coma scale, evaluates 4 components: eye and motor responses, brainstem reflexes and respiration.

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For the constructions of which organs has 3D printing been tested?

Nose, ear and meniscus prototypes/constructs have been produced with 3D (3-dimesional) printing.

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Is ospemifene effective for treatment of dyspareunia?

Yes, ospamifene is effective for treatment of dyspareunia. Ospemifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator, or estrogen receptor agonist/antagonist, that was recently approved by the US Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of dyspareunia associated with vulvar and vaginal atrophy, a chronic condition that affects up to 60% of postmenopausal women. Ospemifene is the first non-estrogen treatment approved for moderate to severe dyspareunia in women with menopause-related vulvar and vaginal atrophy.

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Is pregabalin effective for treatment of patients with restless leg syndrome?

Yes, numerous evidence from clinical trials indicate that pregabalic is effective for treatment of patients diagnosed with restless leg syndrome.

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What is the biological role of expansins in fungi?

Expansins are extracellular proteins that increase plant cell-wall extensibility. These wall-loosening proteins are involved in cell wall extension and polysaccharide degradation. In fungi expansins and expansin-like proteins have been found to localize in the conidial cell wall and are probably involved in cell wall remodeling during germination.

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Can zinc finger nucleases be used to combat disease?

Yes, zinc finger nucleases are a useful tool for treating disease.

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What is known about depression in acoustic neuroma patients?

From 10.2% to 38% acoustic neuroma patients report depression. Depression is predicted by the number of symptoms, prolonged postoperative headache, deterioration of hearing and female gender.

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Mutation of which gene is associated with Achondroplasia?

Achondroplasia is due to mutations in the fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3) gene.

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What is the mode of action of Hsp90 inhibitors?

Pharmacologic inhibition of Hsp90 involves interaction with the ATP-binding site of the chaperone. This exerts antiproliferative effects resulting in a marked suppression of tumor growth. Following treatment with a Hsp90 inhibitor, expression of a number of proteins is affected, and most notably the Hsp90 clients, leading to dysregulation of intracellular signal transduction, immune response, cell growth and maintenance, transport, and metabolism, finally resulting in cancer cell death through activation of both intrinsic and extrinsic apoptotic pathways.

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Is RET the major gene involved in Hirschsprung disease?

The RET proto-oncogene is the major gene associated to Hirschsprung disease (HSCR) with differential contributions of its rare and common, coding and noncoding mutations to the multifactorial nature of this pathology.

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Which type of lung cancer is the most strongly associated with Lambert-Eaton syndrome?

Small-cell lung cancer is most commonly associated with Lambert-Eaton syndrome. Case reports suggest that other non-small-cell lung cancer types, such as large-cell neuroendocrine carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma, can be also very rarely associated this syndrome.

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What distinguishes lantibiotics from antibiotics?

Lantibiotic compounds are ribosomally synthesized antimicrobial peptides against which bacteria are not able to produce resistance, hence making them a good alternative to antibiotics. It is interesting that low levels of resistance have been reported for lantibiotics compared with commercial antibiotics. Given that there are very few examples of naturally occurring lantibiotic resistance, attempts have been made to deliberately induce resistance phenotypes in order to investigate this phenomenon. Other general forms of resistance include the formation of spores or biofilms, which are a common mechanistic response to many classes of antimicrobials.

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List three major features of the CCFDN syndrome.

Congenital cataracts, facial dysmorphism and peripheral neuropathy are three major features of the CCFDN syndrome. Other described signs and symptoms of the CCFDN syndrome include microcornea, microphthalmos, micropupil, floppy eyelid syndrome, pseudoptosis, nystagmus, congenital esotropia, impairment of distant visual acuity, ataxia, pyramidal signs, mild chorea, short stature, muscular atrophy, delayed early motor and intellectual development, hypogonadotrop hypogonadism, hypomyelination of the peripheral nervous system, serious complications related to general anaesthesia and parainfectious rhabdomyolysis.

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is intense physical activity associated with longevity ?

Several survival studies showed that professional athletes has higher longevity than general population. These epidemiological data matches the evidences that long-term endurance training induces in elderly subjects an increased HRV and a higher exercise working capacity, which are well-established predictors of cardiovascular and overall mortality, and also telomere length.

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Are cyclophilins proteins that bind to prolines?

Cyclophilins are ubiquitously expressed proteins that bind to prolines.

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Can a given genotype exhibit opposite fitness effects (beneficial and detrimental) within the same environment?

A given genotype can be either beneficial or detrimental, even deleterious, depending on the environment in which an organism lives. This is known as antagonistic pleiotropy. Antagonistic pleiotropy can operate even within the same environment. For example, in Escherichia coli, certain mutations can exhibit beneficial, deleterious or neutral fitness effects at different growth rates. Also, antagonistic pleiotropy is involved in the evolution of ageing, since a certain genotype may affect late- and early-life fitness in opposite directions.

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Has the protein SETMAR (Metnase) a transposase domain?

Yes, the protein SETMAR (Metnase) has a transposase domain.

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