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__label__positive \nReset Password Free Sign Up\n\n\nRemove ads\nDon't know (0)\nKnow (0)\nremaining cards (0)\n\nPass complete!\n\n\"Know\" box contains:\nTime elapsed:\nrestart all cards\n\n\n\u00a0 Normal Size \u00a0 \u00a0 Small Size show me how\n\nPharmacology ch 1-10\n\n1a. Pharmacology Midterm review ch 1-10\n\nWhat is the rate-limiting factor for drug distribution? blood flow\nWhat term is used to describe a drug which binds to a receptor and has an action similar to that of an endogenous chemical? agonist\nWhat can drugs combine with in addition to receptors? enzymes, transport proteins, and nucleic acids\nBy what process can one drug increase the metabolism of both itself and other drugs? induction\nWhat form of a drug crosses cell membranes easily? nonionized\nWhat term is used to decribe the situation when the effect of two drugs given together is more intense or longer in duration than the sum of their individual actions? synergism\nWhat term is used to describe the phemomenon in which elevating a dose of drug no longer improves the clinical effect for that drug? ceiling effect\nWhat term is used to describe the strength by which a particular messenger binds to its receptor site? affinity\nWhat is the study of the activity of drugs within the body known as? pharmacokinetics\nWhat term is used to describe a severe response to a chemical that is characterized by life-threatening respiratory distress and shock? anaphylactic reaction\nAn all-inclusive effect on the whole body is also called a(n)______ effect. systemic\nFrom what two organs are most drugs eliminated? kidney and liver\nWhat happens during an oxidative metabolic reaction? The drug loses an electron and gains an oxygen atom.\nHow does grapefruit interact with certain drugs? It contains a compound that can inhibit intestinal cytochrome P-450, allowing more drug to be absorbed.\nWhat is a classic example of a drug that is eliminated by a zero-order pharmacokinetic process? alcohol\nWhy are the intestines the major site of drug absorption after oral administration of drugs? They have a large surface area from which to absorb drugs.\nIf a drug has a half-life of 6 hours and a starting blood concentration of 100mg/kg, how long will it take until the concentration of the drug in the blood is 25mg/kg? 12 hours\nIn what way are the capillaries in the central nervous system (CNS) different from other capillaries? They are enveloped by glial cells, which present additional barriers against water-soluble compounds.\nWhat does bioavailability reflect? The fraction of an administered dose that is available to the target tissue.\nWhat does the abbreviation ADME stand for? absorption, distribution, metabolism, elimination\nWhat is the most serious allergic reaction to penicillins? anaphylaxis\nWhat is the biggest challenge in developing a new antibiotic? killing the bacteria without harming the patient.\nWhat bacterial pathway do sulfonamides interfere with? folic acid biosynthesis\nWhich of the following is not a mechanism by which bacteria develop antibiotic resistance? metabolism\nWhich of the following is an example of a gram-positive bacterium and infection it causes? staphylococcus resulting in toxic shock syndrome.\nWhat are two general signs that an infection is bacterial in origin? white blood cell count above 12,000 and fever above 101 degrees Fahrenheit.\nWhat is true of a bacteriostatic antibiotic? It inhibits the growth or multiplication of bacteria.\nBy which century were the organisms that cause cholera, syphilis, and leprosy isolated and identified? 20th\nWhich of the following drugs is associated with an adverse effect known as Red Man's syndrome? vancomycin\nWhich statement regarding linezolis (Zyvox) is incorrect? It should be stored in clear glass containers.\nWhat was the first true class of antibiotics? sulfonamides\nWhat term is used to describe antibiotic treatment that is begun before the results of the organism culture have been returned? empirical\nWhich of the following classes of antibiotics inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to ribosomes? tetracyclines\nWhich of the following drugs is classified as a macrolide? erythromycin\nWhat are the bacteria that require oxygen to survive known as? aerobic\nWhat is the most frequent form of bacterial resistance to antibiotics? destruction of the antibiotic by bacterial enzymes\nWhat type of infections are aminoglycosides such as amikacin or kanamycin used to treat? sepsis\nWhy should the counting tray be swabbed with alcohol after dispensing an antibiotic? to prevent cross-contamination\nWhen this drug is dispensed, a \"Do not drink alcohol\" sticker must be attached to the container. metronidazole\nHow do third-generation cephalosporins differ from earlier cephalosporins? improved activity against gram-negative bacteria\nWhy is it more difficult to develop antiviral drugs than it is to develop antibiotics? Because viruses utilize the host (patient) cell processes, killing them is often toxic to the patient.\nWhich of the following choices represents a class of antiretroviral drugs? nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI), non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI), protease inhibitor (PI), and fusion inhibitor\nWhat is common about the mechanism of action of antifungal drugs? Antifungals interfere with the synthesis of ergosterol, a building block for fungal cell membranes.\nWhat is an example of a chronic viral infection? herpes\nHow can antibiotics worsen fungal infections? Antibiotics may kill the body's natural flora, which tend to keep fungi in check.\nWhich of the following antifungal drugs should be taken with a fatty meal and can be used safely in children? griseofulvin\nWhat is a route by which most common viruses spread? direct contact, ingestion of contaminated food and water, ingalation of airborne particles, and exposure of contaminated body fluids and/or comtaminated equipment\nWhat pair of viruses below are examples of latent viruses? herpes and HIV\nWhat is a common target of fungal infections? nails\nWhat is another name for an individual virus particle? virion\nWhat is becoming a common dosing method for treating fungal nail infections? pulse dosing (one week per month)\nWhich of the following drugs is used to treat influenza A or influenza B? rimantadine, zanamivir, and oseltamivir\nWhich drug or drug class listed below is least likely to be used to treat side effects associated with amphotericin B? penicillin\nWhich of the antiviral drugs listed below is also effective in treating patients with parkinsonism? amantadine\nWhich of the following drugs acts by preventing the HIV virus from entering immune cells? enfuvirtide\nWhat aspect of the fungal cell wall is affected by amphotericin B? permeability\nWhat term is used to describe a specific molecule produced by B-lymphocyles with help from T helper cells and other mechanisms? immunoglobulin\nPatients taking which of the following drugs should not drive at night? viroconazole\nHow are fungal and human cells similar? They both have a defined nucleus\nWhich of the following drugs is classified as a nucloside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI)? abacavir\nWhich of the following drugs is an example of a selective 5-HT receptor agonist? sumatriptan (Imitrex)\nWhich local anesthetic drug does not relax vascular smooth muscle? cocaine\nWhich of the following narcotics is a controlled substance? morphine, codeine, oxycodone, and meperidine\nWhich of the following drugs can be used to reverse the effects of a narcotic? naloxone (Narcan)\nWhich narcotic is the standard against which all other narcotics are measured or compared? morphine\nWhat is not an aspect of balanced anesthesia? hypertension\nWhat neurotransmitter is also known as adrenaline? epinephrine\nWhat is the only neuromuscular blocker that acts via a depolarizing mechanism? succinylcholine (Quelicin)\nWhat class of drugs can be used to reverse the effects of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers? anticholinesterases\nWhich of the following general anesthetics is administered intravenously? ketamine (Ketalar)\nWhat class of drugs may be used to treat migraine headaches? triptans\nFollowing injection with a local anesthetic, what sensation is affected first? pain perception\nWhich of the following drugs are the most used preoperative sedatives? benzodiazepines\nWhat is the most inportant action of alpha-adrenergic receptors? vasoconstriction, raising blood pressure\nWhat are the two divisions of the peripheral nervous system? afferent and efferent\nWhich drug listed below can be administered as a nasal spray to treat a migraine attack? sumatriptan (Imitrex), zolmitriptan (Zomig), dihydroergotamine (Migranal), and butorphanol (Stadol)\nWhat did the Joint Commission on the Accreditation of Healthcare Organization (JCAHO) define, in 2001, as the \"fifth\" vital sign? pain\nWhat term describes the physical and emotional reliance of patients on narcotics? dependence\nWhat ate the primary opiate receptors associated with analgesia? mu, kappa, delta\nWhich of the following narcotics can be given intravenously as a preanesthetic medication and also administered as a patch or as a lozenge? fentanyl (Actiq)\nFluoxetine is an example of an antidepressant that appears to work through which of the following mechanisms? It inhibits the reuptake of serotonin into certain neurons in the brain\nWhat drug used to treat alcohol addiction interferes with the metabolism of ethanol? disulfiram (Antabuse)\nWhich monoamine oxidase inhibitor is used to treat Parkinson's patients rather than depressed patients? selegiline (Eldepryl)\nTardive dyskinesia is associated with the long-term use of which psychiatric medication? antipsychotics\nWhich two neurotransmitters are believed to be most involved with schizophrenia and the drugs used to treat this disorder? dopamine and serotonin\nWhich or the following new antipsychotic drugs is classified today as being \"atypical\"? olanzapine (Zyprexa)\nWhich of the following is a symptom of alcohol withdrawal? nausea and vomiting, delirium tremens (DTs), hallucinations, and sweating\nWhich of the following drugs is not a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor? amitriptyline\nWhich class of antidepressants inhibits enzymes that metabolize catecholamines? MAOIs\nWhich of the following is an anticholinergic drug used to treat the Parkinson-like side effects of antipsychotic therapy? benztropine (Cogentin)\nWith which psychiatric disorder do patients suffer from alternating episodes of major depression and mild-to-severe agitation? bipolar mood disorder\nWhich drug used to treat depression is also used for smoking cessation? buproprion\nWhich of the following antianziety drugs is not a benzodiazepine? buspirone (Buspar)\nWhich of the following drugs used to treat insomnia is not a DEA scheduled controlled substance? diphenhydramine\nWhat class of drugs is part of the standard of care for alcohol (ethanol) detoxification? benzodiazepines\nWhat system can be adversely affected by lithium and how? gastrointestinal-nausea, vomiting, and anorexia; neuromuscular-tremors; weight- weight gain; renal- increased thirst and urination\nWhich of the following drugs is classified as a tricyclic antidepressant and has significant anticholinergic side effects? imipramine\nDuring which stages of sleep does dreaming occur? stages III and IV\nWhat term is used to describe anxiety for which there is no identifiable source than from within the patient? endogenous\nWhat drug can be used as an alternative to lithium in the treatment of bipolar disorder, particularly with rapid cyclers? divalproex (Depakote)\nWhich of the following drugs has been shown to improve the cognitive function and social behavior of Alzheimer's patients and is sold over the counter? gingko\nWhat dopamine precursor is used to treat Parkinson patients? levodopa (Doplar)\nWhich pair of anticonvulsants is most likely to interact with other drugs a patient may be taking? phenobarbital (Luminal) and phenytoin (Dilantin)\nWhich anticonvulsant does not appear to act via GABA receptors and is frequently used to treat neuropathic pain? gabapentin (Neurontin)\nWhat is a characteristic pathologic feature in the midbrain of patients with Parkinson's disease? Lewy Bodies\nWhat are the most common side effects of antiseizure medications? sedation and some degradation of cognitive process\nWhich of the following anticonvulsants is also used to treat manic episodes in bipolar mood disorders? valproic acid (Depakene)\nWhat class of drugs may be used to diagnose and treat myasthenia gravis? acetylcholinesterase inhibitors\nWhich of the following anticonvulsants is correctly paired with the process it most likely affects? diazepam (Valium)--GABA\nWhat combination drug contains levodopa plus an inhibitor of peripheral levodopa metabolism? Sinemet\nWhat is the potential way in which antiepileptic medications can interact with each other and other drugs? They can alter the metabolism of other drugs\nWhat term is used to describe continuous tonic-clonic seizures, lasting over 30 minutes, during which consciousness may not return? status epiepticus\nThe prevalence of Parkinson's disease is highest in what age group? above age 60\nWhich drug used to treat ADD/ADHD is not a controlled substance? atomoxetine (Strattera)\nWhich drug listed below is used to treat patients with multiple sclerosis? interferon beta-1a (Avonex, Rebif), interferon beta-1b (Betaseron), mitoxantrone (Novantrone), and baclofen\nWhich anticonvulsant is the drug of choice for absence seizures? ethosuximide (Zarontin)\nWith what type of seizure may patients display blank stares, rotating eyes and rapid blinking; not have generalized convulsions; and have up to 100 occurrences a day? absence seizure\nWhich neurotranmitter is deficient in the nigrostriatal pathways of patients with Parkinson's disease? dopamine\nWhich of the following anticonvulsants is a DEA scheduled controlled substance? diazepam (Valium)\nWhat two neurotransmitters in the brain appear to play the greatest role in seizures? GABA and glutamate\nWhich of the following medication is least likely to be used to treat or stop an acute asthma attack? cromolyn sodium\nWhich of the following antitussives is a DEA controlled substance? codeine\nWhat is a potential symptom of nicotine withdrawal? anxiety, difficulty in concentrating, gastrointestinal diturbances, and increased appetite and weight gain\nIn what percent of asthma patients is there an allergic component? 35-55%\nWhich of the following is a reversible syndrome in which breathing may be difficult? asthma\nWhich of the following is a potentially life-threatening condition in which the patient has difficulty breathing, has blue lips, and nail beds, may lose consciousness, and does not respond to normal management? status asthmaticus\nWhich repiratory medication listed below is an inhaled coricosteroid? fluticasone (Flovent)\nWith which device, used to administer asthma or COPD medication, does a stream of air flow past a liquid to create a fine mist for the patient to inhale? nebulizer\nAn asthma attack consists of how many phases or responses? 2\nWhat is the least sedating OTC antihistamine and the only one approved by the FDA for cold symptoms? clemastine (Tavist Allergy)\nDornase alfa (Pulmozyme) may be used to treat what two lung diseases? bronchitis and cystic fibrosis\nWhat are two signs or symptoms of nicotine excess? dizziness and diarrhea\nWhich of the following forms of nicotine replacement therapy is only available by prescription? nicotine nasal spray\nWhich of the following drugs is only indicated for long-term maintenance therapy of bronchospasms associated with emphysema and bronchitis? tiotropim (Spiriva)\nWhich of the following drugs may be used to treat tuberculosis? isoniazid (Laniazid, Nydrzid), rifampin (Rifadin. Rimactine), ciproflozacin (Cipro), and rifapentine (Priftin)\nWhich of the following asthma medications blocks parasympathetic acetylcholine receptors and should not be given to patients with known peanut allergies? ipratropium (Atrovent)\nWhat is the most useful measure for assessing the severity of asthma on a regular basis? peak expiratory flow rate (PAOR)\nWhich of the following is an OTC expectorant available in caplet, capsule, liquid, syrup, tablet, and sustained-release forms? guaifesesin (Mucinex)\nWhat is a common adverse effect of many (older) antihistamines (H-1 blockers)? anticholinergic responses, hyperactivity in some children, and sedation\nWhat class of drugs used to treat hypertension, angina, cardiac arrhythmias, and migraine headaches is contraindicated in asthma patients? beta blockers\nWhat drug is metabolized by colonic bacteria and is used to prevent and treat hepatic-induced encephalopathy? lactulose (Enulose)\nWhich medication below is used in preteens to treat diarrhea and acts by interfering with enzyme-dependent electron transfer in anaerobic energy metabolism? nitazoxanide (Alinia)\nWhich of the drugs listed below is a monoclonal antibody that binds to tumor necrosis factor (TNF) and is indicated for the treatment of Crohn's disease? infliximab (Remicade)\nWhat three drugs given together are used to treat H. pyloric-induced peptic ulcers? bismuth subsalicylate-metronidazole-tetracycline (Helidac)\nWhich drug listed below forms a protective coat over an ulcer, helping it resist degradation by gastric acid, pepsin, and bile salts? sucralfate (Carafate)\nWhich drug listed below is an example of a phase II drug used to treat GERD? cimetidine (Tagamet), omeprazole (Prilosec), esomeprazole (Nexium), and famotidine (Pepcid)\nWhich drug below acts on 5-HT-4 receptors and is used to treat constipation-predominant irritable bowel syndrome? tegaserod (Zelnorm)\nWhich drug listed below acts to facilitate the admixture of fat and water to soften stool? docusate-senna (Senokot-S)\nWhat is a potential problem associated with low-fiber diets? constipation\nWhich histamine-2 receptor blocker affects cytochrome P-450 and may interact with many other drugs? cimetidine (Tagamet)\nIf abdominal pain is caused by the release of an allergy or inflammation mediator, what mast cell stabilizer may be prescribed? cromolyn sodium (Gastrocrom)\nWhat is another term for heartburn? gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)\nBy what criterion is dietary fiber characterized? fermentability, water-holding capacity, stool-bulking capacity, and solubility\nFor the treatment of hepatitis, which drug listed below is an interferon linked with a branched polyethylene glycol (PEG) molecule in order to allow once weekly dosing? peginterferon alfa-2a (Pegasys)\nvWhich drug or drug combination is correctly paired with its DEA control schedule? diphonoxylate-atropine (Lomotil)--C-V\nWhat receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) are blocked by metoclopramide (Reglan)? dopamine\nWhat is the drug of choice in treating malabsorption syndrome due to panceratic insufficiency? pancrelopase (Creon-10)\nWhich of the following drugs is used for chemotherapy-induced emesis and frequently causes headaches in patients treated with it? ondansetron (Zofran)\nWhat is praziquantel (Biltricide) used to treat? intestinal parasites (tapeworms)\nWhat GI disorder is characterized by inflammation of the large bowel with the patient experiencing diarrhea containing blood, mucus, and pus? ulcerative colitis\nCreated by: danz\n |
__label__positive \u2022 Shuffle\n Toggle On\n Toggle Off\n \u2022 Alphabetize\n Toggle On\n Toggle Off\n \u2022 Front First\n Toggle On\n Toggle Off\n \u2022 Both Sides\n Toggle On\n Toggle Off\n \u2022 Read\n Toggle On\n Toggle Off\n\nHow to study your flashcards.\n\n\n\nH key: Show hint (3rd side).h key\n\nA key: Read text to speech.a key\n\n\nPlay button\n\n\nPlay button\n\n\n\n\nClick to flip\n\n178 Cards in this Set\n\n \u2022 Front\n \u2022 Back\nWhat is the MOA of amphotericin B?\nBinds to ergosterol component of fungal cell membrane and alters permeability to allow leakage of ions and other intracellular components\nWhat is the basis for selective toxicity of amphotericin B?\n\nWhat can cause cytotoxicity?\nGreater selectivity for fungal membranes because they contain ergosterol instead of cholesterol;\n\nbinding of cholesterol component in mammalian cells\nWhat is the MOA of Flucytosine (5FC)?\n5FC is transported into fungal cells by a perm ease and is then converted to fluorouracil. The metabolite 5-FdUMP is formed and inhibits thymidylate synthetase stopping DNA synthesis\nWhat is the basis of selective toxicity of Flucytosine?\nperm ease affected by this drug is not found in mammalian cells\nWhat is the MOA for Azole antifungals (ketoconazole)?\nInhibits P450 isoenzyme that converts lanosterol to ergosterol. Inhibition of ergosterol production results in deficient fungal membranes with increased permeability and leakage of cellular components/inhibition of fungal growth\nWhat is the MOA for Capsofungin?\ninhibits synthesis of an essential cell wall component (beta-1,3-D-glucan) in aspergillus species resulting in osmotic fragility and fungal death\nWhat is the basis of selective toxicity for Capsofungin?\nIt targets the cell wall, which humans don't have\nWhat is the MOA of griseofulvin?\nInteracts with the fungal cell wall microtubules to disrupt the mitotic spindle and inhibit mitosis.\nWhere does griseofulvin accumulate?\nin infected keratin-containing tissues creating unfavorable growth conditions\nWhat is the basis of selective toxicity for griseofulvin?\nTargets cell walls, which are not present in humans\nWhat is the MOA of Terbinafine?\nInhibits squalene epoxidase which is an essential enzyme in fungal sterol synthesis. Produces a deficiency of ergosterol and an accumulation of squalene inside the fungal cell resulting in death.\nWhat is the MOA of Nystatin?\nare polyene abx similar in structure and MOA to amphotericin B (alters cell membrane permeability)\nWhat is the basis of selectivity for nystatin?\nsimilar to amphotericin B\nAmphotericin B can be either fungicidal or fungostatic depending on.....\ntissue concentration achieved and organisms susceptability\nWhat is the broadest spectrum anti fungal?\namphotericin B\nWhat is the DOC (anti fungal) for immunocompromised patients?\namphotericin B\nIs amphotericin B effective against meningitis? What routes of administration are there?\nachieves nontherapeurtc elves in CSF with/without inflammation however in some cases, IV administration may produce therapeutic levels for cryptococal meningitis\nWhat are the indications for the use of the liposomal formulations of Amphotericin B?\nPatients who cannot tolerate or fail the conventional IV formulation or for renal impairment where unacceptable toxicity occurs.\n\nIncludes: invasive aspergillosis, neutropenic pts with fungal infection, candidiasis, etc.\nWhat are some advantages to using the liposomal formulation of Amphotericin B?\nIncreased circulation time and reaches higher concentrations in vascularized areas (inflammation, infection, tumors) while being essentially impermeable to normal tissues;\n\nLocalizes the drug at disease sites and allows drug levels to be increased several times higher than amounts achieved with free drug from conventional products;\n\nintended to reduce serious renal toxicity by decreasing binding of drug in renal tissues\nWhen you are going to use the amphotericin B, what pretreatments would you want to use?\nNSAIDs, antihistamines, and steroids\nWhat is the major toxicity associated with amphotericin B?\nnephrotoxicity (decreased GFR And creatinine clearance, K+ loss)\nWhat is the mechanism of synergism between flucytosine and amphotericin B?\n\nIs this combination efficacious for meningitis?\nAmphotericin B alters the membrane permeability to flucytosine.\n\nyes- effective against cryptococcus neorformans and candidia\nAre systemic azole antifungals fungicidal or fungistatic?\n\nAre they broad or narrow spectrum?\nboth depending on dose;\n\nBroad spectrum treatment for systemic mycoses\nWhich azole anti fungal is effective against meningitis? What is the route?\nfluconazole (excellent penetration info CSF)\n\noral tablets, suspensions or IV injections\nWhy is concurrent use of amphotericin B with azole antifungals contraindicated?\nazoles contraindicate the actions of amphotericin B\nWhat are the indications for which fluconazole is the DOC?\ncryptococcal meningitis, serious systemic candidiasis (URI, peritonitis, pneumonia), and coccidiodomycosis\nWhat are the two serious ADRs associated with itraconazole?\nRisk of CHF in pts with existing heart disease; hepatic dysfunction\nDescribe the method of pulse dosing of itraconazole for onychomycosis.\neach pulse is 200mg BID for one week per month;\n\nneed 2 for fingernails, 3-4 for toenails (grow slower)\nSymptoms of endocrine disorders associated with the use of ketoconazole include:\n\nWhat is the mechanism that causes these symptoms?\ngynecomastia, impotence, loss of libido, menstrual irregularities;\n\ninhibits gonadal steroid synthesis in humans\nYou don't want to take ketoconazole with things that ____ gastric acidity or with ______ since it is required for dissolution and absorption.\ndecrease, food\nKetoconazole can ______ the P450 system and cause....\ninhibit; toxicity of other drugs\nWhich other azole anti fungal possibly has hepatic effects and needs to be monitored?\nWhich other azole anti fungal causes hepatic dysfunction and has strong warnings against liver failure?\nVoriconazole is the first line agent for the treatment of what three conditions?\nacute invasive aspergillosis * (in pts over 12)\n\nesophageal candidiasis\n\nnonneutropenic pts with candidemia or deep tissue candida infection\nWhat are the two indications for Posoconazole?\nprophylaxis of invasive aspergillosis and candidiasis who are severely immunocompromized;\n\noropharyngeal candidiasis\nEchinocandins have potent activity against ____ and ___ except for which 3 species?\naspergillosis; candidiasis\n\ncandida neoformans, zygomycetes, fusarium\nCapsofungin is used to treat what 4 conditions?\nAspergillosis, esophageal candidiasis, disseminated candida infections, empirical tx of presumed fungal infections in febrile neutropenic patients\nWhat is the DOC for secondary prophylaxis of PCP?\nIs primary prophylaxis (in HIV+ pts) recommended/done for candidiasis, cryptococcosis, and aspergillosis infections?\nWhat is the strongest recommendation of ART in a TB patient?\nPts with CD4 cell counts less than 50 cells/mm and it should be initiated within 2 weeks of starting TB treatment.\nWhat are the major toxicities associated with indinavir and what precautions must be taken?\nacute nephrolitiasis;\n\nensure adequate hydration, drinking about 1.5L of liquids per 24 hours\nWhat is the advantage of using the combination product Combivir compared to dosing with the two individual components? (antiretroviral drug)\nhas synergistic antiretroviral activity and is taken without regard to meals.\nWhat is the parameter used to decide whether ART regimens should be modified?\nregular monitoring of the viral load, CD4+ T cell count and pts clinical condition\nWhat are the 6 classic ADRs associated with Antiretroviral agents?\nlactic acidosis, hepatomegaly with steatosis, hyperglycemia, rash, hyperlipidemia, GI intolerance\nWhat are the three major characteristics of all preferred ART Regimens?\nuse at least 3 drugs; use a combination of drugs with different MOAs, and are class sparing\nWhat is the spectrum of activity of Griseofulvin?\nWhat are the indications for Griseofulvin?\nonly active aginst dermatophytes (trichophytan, microsporum and epidermophyton) and in the treatment of severe tinea infections that dont respond to other antifungals\nWhat are some ADRs with Griseofulvin\nGI distress, photosensitivity, possible antabuse reaction with alcohol\nWhat are some symptoms of an Antabse reactioin?\ntachycardia and flushing\nHow may the oral absorption of Grisofulvin be enhanced?\nUsing ultra-fine crystalline preps and eating with high fat meals\nWhere does Griseofulvin distribute to?\nkeratinized tissues (skin, hair, nails)\nHow long must therapy with griseofulvin be continued for?\nuntil normal tissue replaces infected tissue (weeks to months)\nWhat is the current clinical use of amantadine and rimantadine?\nagainst influenza A virus\nWhat is the oral availability for ACY (acyclovir) and DHPG (gangciclovir)?\nDescribe how Acyclovir is given via IV to avoid nephrotoxicity.\nGiven by a slow infusion over at least 1 hour with adequate hydration. Make sure to establish sufficient urine flow over the 1st 2 hours post-infusion\nHow does the spectrum of activity for gangciclovir differ from acyclovir?\nthe same but also effective against CMV\nWhat is the boxed warning for gangciclovir and what are the resulting hematological effects?\nmyelosuppression. Monitor for neutropenia, anemia and thrombocytopenia\nWhat is the action and indication for penciclovir dermatological cream?\nAntiviral activity against HSV-1 and HSV-2; indicated for treatment of recurrent herpes labialis in adults (cold sores)\nWhat is the DOC for tx of PCP pneumonia?\n\nAlternate agent (mod-severe)?\nAlternate agent (mild-mod)?\nTMP-SMX, IV pentamidine, atovaquone\nWhat is the DOC for post-exposure primary prophylaxis?\nvaricella-zoster immune globulin ASAP for at least 3 weeks\nWhat is the DOC for varicella infection?\nWhat is the spectrum of activity for Terbinafine?\nWhat are the indications for Terbinafine?\ntx of onychomycosis of the toenail or fingernail due to dermatophytes (superior to griseofulvin)\nWhat are the ADR of Terbinafine?\nGI distress, ageusia, asx elevation of liver enzymes, less commonly neutropenia, derm eruptions and ophthalmic complaints\nHow may oral absorption of terbinafine be enhanced?\ntake with food to increase bioavailability\nHow do the distribution properties of terbinafine relate to the clinical uses?\nhighly lipophilic with slow elimination from skin and adipose tissue\nHow long must therapy of terbinafine be continued?\ntreatment can last weeks to months\nWhat are the three preparations of ciclopirox and what are their indications?\nCream/lotion= tinea infections;\n\nshampoo=seborrheic dermatitis\n\nnail lacquer= nail infections\nWhat are the preparations of nystatin and what are they used for?\nTopical (cream, ointment, powder)= superficial cutaneous candida;\n\nOral (swish and swallow)= oral/mucous membrane candidiasis\n\nOral tablet= intestinal candida\n\nVaginal tablet= vulvovaginal candidiasis\nWhat are the preparations and clinical uses of Clotrimazole?\nOTC cream or solution= tinea infections\n\nOTC intravaginal cream= VVC\n\nRx buccal tablet= tx and prophylaxis of oropharyngeal candidiasis\nWhat are the preparations and clinical uses of Miconazole?\nIntravaginal cream and suppository= VVC\n\ntopical cream= cutaneous candidiasis\nWhat is the clinical use of Butoconazole?\nWhat is the DOC for trichomoniasis? What infections can Trich cause?\n\nvaginitis, NG urethritis, prostatitis\nWhat is the preferred regimen of Metronidazole for use against trichomonas?\n\nWhat is the alternative regimen\n2g PO single dose;\n\n500mg BID x 7 days\nIf treatment failure occurs with metrondiazole, what do you want to do?\n\nwhat do you want to take metronidazole with and what do you want to avoid?\n\nIf you are allergic to metronidazole, what do you want to do?\ntx with a single 2 g dose once daily x 5 days;\n\nfood; alcohol;\n\ndesensitize the pt\nWhat is the proposed MOA of mebendazole?\nselectively and irreversibly inhibits glc uptake in susceptible adult intestinal-dwelling helminthes; also a spindle poison that induces chromosome nondisjunction\nWhat is mebendazole indicated for?\npinworms (worms in general)\nWhen treating a pt with pinworms with mebendazole, what other things must be taken into consideration?\nrepeat dosing may be needed adn may need to treat family members in close contact. Also hygiene precautions need to be taken to prevent reinfection\nWhat organisms are susceptible to acyclovir?\nHSV-1/2, varicella and ebstein barr\nWhy is CMV resitant to acyclovir?\nit lacks a specific viral thymidine kinase\nWhat are the 4 groups of patients for whome ART is recommended regardless of CD4 cell count?\npregnancy, Hx of an AIDS-defining illness, HIV-associated nephropathy, HIV/hepatitis B coinfection\nWhat is the CD4+ t cell count associated with the strongest ART recomendation?\n<350 cells/mm3\nWhat are the specific toxicities associated with Zidovudine?\nmyelosuppression, neutropenia, severe anemia\nWhat is the resulting drug interaction of Zidovudine with ganciclovir?\nadditive hematology toxicity\nWhat is the major boxed warning for nevirapine?\nsevere, life-threatening skin reactions (steven-johnson syndrome, Toxic epidermal necrolysis) and potentially fatal hepatotoxicity\nState what effect the following drugs have on the P450 system:\n\n\n\nstrong inhibitor\nWhich ART drug inhibits the P450 system but is also a substrate for the enzyme (3A4) so induces of 2A4 may decrease the concentration of this drug?\nWhen using Zidovudine during pregnancy, what is the route of administration and when is it given?\nIV; at onset of labor until delivery\nWhen using Zidovudine in the infant, what is the route of administration and what are the treatment recommendations?\nOral; 2x daily as soon after birth as possible (within 6-12 hours) and continues for up to 6 weeks\nFor the post-exposure prophylaxis of HIV, what is the duration of all regiments used?\n\nWhat is the basic regimen?\n\nWhat is a reason for using the expanded regimen?\n\nWhat is the preferred expanded regimen?\n4 weeks;\n\nZDV + lamivudine;\n\nfor exposures posing an increased risk of transmission or where resistance to one or more of the agents is known or suspected;\n\nbasic regimen plus lopinavir/ritonavir\nWhat is the DOC for primary prophylaxis of Pneumocystic jirovecci pneumonia?\n\nWhat are the alternative regimens?\n\ndapsone, dapsone plus pyrimethamine (plus leucovorin), Aerosolized pentamidine or atovaquone\nWhat other parasitic infection is covered by the DOC for the treatment of PCP pneumonia? (TMP-SMZ)\nWhat is the regimen used for prophylaxis of PCP and toxoplasmosis when tolerance to TMP-SMZ occurs?\ndapsone + pyrimethamine + leucovorin\nWhat is the DOC for the tx of toxoplasmosis?\npyrimethamine plus sulfadiazine plus leucovorin\nWhy is leucovorin included in the treatment for toxoplasmosis?\nto prevent megaloblastic anemia effects that can occur from the pyrimethamine\nWhat is the major toxicity of sulfadiazine and what precaution must be taken?\nneutropenia, interstitial nephritis, crystalluria and nephrolitiasis.\n\ndrink 2-3L of fluid/day to decrease risk of crystalluria\nWhat is the alternative regimen for toxoplasmosis (for those allergic to sulfas)\npyrimethamine plus leucovorin plus clindamycin\nWhat is the MOA for pyrimethamine?\ninhibits dihydrofolate reductase preventing the conversion of dihydrofolate to the active form tetrahydrofolate. Activity is highly selective for DHFR from plasmodium or toxoplasma parasites\nWhat is the clinical uses for pyrimethamine?\nchemoprophylaxis of malaria; and as part of the treatment for toxoplasmosis\nWhat are some precautions that need to be taken when using pyrimethamine?\nmay cause folate deficiency (give leucovorin), may also precipitate hemolytic anemia in G6PD deficient patients\nWhat is the DOC for esophageal candidiasis?\nWhat is the DOC for oropharyngeal candidiasis?\nWhat is the DOC for cryptococcal meningitis?\namphotericin B plus flucytosine\nWhat is the DOC for aspergillosis?\nFor the treatment of TB in HIV patients, what are the induction phase drugs and how long are they used?\n\nHow about the continuation phase?\n8 weeks; INH, RIF (or RBN), PZA and EMB;\n\n18 weeks; either INH and RIF (or RBN) every day (((OR))) INH and RIF 3x weekly\nIs the use of DOT strongly recommended for HIV pts undergoing tx for TB?\nWhat is the preferred rifamycin drug used when a protease inhibitor-based ART regimen is to be used? Why?\nRifabutin; less potent 3A4 inducer\nWhat is the preferred agent for the primary prophylaxis of mycobacterium avium complex in adults with HIV?\nclarithromycin (or azithro)\nWhat is the the preferred agent for the treatment of an active MAC infection?\nclarithromycin with ethambutol. Addition of rifabutin may be considered (but need to think about DIs)\nWhat is the recommendations for the primary prophylaxis of CMV?\nnot generally recommended\nWhat is the treatment of CMV retinitis?\nganciclovir intraocular impant and valganciclovir PO\nWhat are the disadvantages of the ganciclovir ocular implant?\ncannot prevent CMV infection in the contralateral eye or systemic infection which is why concurrent PO treatment is needed\nWhat are some alternative therapies for treatment of cytomegalovirus?\nIV ganciclovir, foscarnet, or cidofovir\nWhat are the dosing recommendations for cidofovir and why?\nonce weekly;has a very long intracellular half-life\nWhat major ADR is associated with cidofovir? What precautions are needed to be taken?\nnephrotoxicity (dose-limited);\n\nadequate hydration with NS and concurrent probenecid (along with avoiding other nephrotoxic drugs)\nWhat is the DOC for secondary prophylaxis of CMV?\nWhat is the MOA for Zanamavir?\nselective inhibition of influenza virus neuraminidase.\nWhat is the function of viral neuraminidase?\nallows viral release from infected cells, prevents virus aggregation and decreases viral inactivation by mucus\nWhat are the indications for zanamavir?\nuncomplicated acute illness due to influenza A or B in pts >7 years old who have had sx less than 2 days\nWhich antiviral is also used for prevention of influenza illness in pts over 5 years old?\nWhat is the route of administration of zanamavir?\n\nWhat is the dose and course of treatment?\noral inhalation using a diskhaler devise\n\n2 inhalations BID x 5 days\nWhen is Zanamavir treatment not recommended?\nin pts with underlying airway disease due to risk of severe bronchospasm\nWhat is the MOA of Oseltamavir?\nOral prodrug which is converted by hepatic esterases to the active agent in vivo (oseltamivir carboxylate) which then inhibits viral neuraminidase altering virus partical release and aggregation\nWhat are the indications for Oseltamavir?\nType A and B influenza infections in pts over 1 year of age who have had sx for less than 2 days\nWhat is the route of administration for Oseltamavir?\noral suspension\nWhat are the major toxicities/ADRs with Oseltamavir?\nWhat are the 4 major goals of ART therapy\nreduction of HIV-related morbidity/mortality and to increase duration/QOL;\n\nRestoration and preservation of immunologic fxn;\n\nMaximal and durable suppression of viral load (goal=to suppress to undetectabe levels after 3-6 mo of tx);\n\nPrevent HIV transmission\nWhat is the spectrum of antiviral activity for Ribavirin?\nactive vs RSV and some activity vs Influenza A and B (low efficacy when given PO)\nWhat are the indications of Ribavirin?\nTx of severe lower respiratory tract infections due to RSV in hospitalized infants and young children (not adults!)\nWhat is the method of administration of Ribavirin?\nAerosol given via a generator, mechanically-ventilated through ET tube, via oxygen hood/tent/face mask\nWhat are some serious problems that result from the mode of administration of Ribavirin?\nDrug precipitation in ET tube and ventilators has caused inadequate ventilation and gas exchange with sudden deterioration of respiratory function;\n\nis also absorbed systemically and accumulates in RBCs decreasing their half-life to 40 ays\nRibavirin is contraindicated in which patients?\n\nWhat are precautions that need to be taken?\nPregnant women and male partners of pregnant women.\n\nChild-bearing aged women must use effective contraception during therapy and for 6 mo post-tx\nWhat toxicity can Ribavirin cause in caregivers with reactive airway diseases?\nbronchospasm and chestpain\nWhat is the MOA for palivizumab?\nmonoclonal Ab that neutralizes and has fusion-inhibitor activity against RSV and inhibits RSV replication\nWhat are the indications for Palivizumab?\nprevention of serious lower resp tract disease caused by RSV in high risk ped patients (premies, bronchopulm dysplasia pts, hemodynamically significant congestive heart disease pts)\nWhat is the dosing of Palivizumab?\n15 mg/kg once a month during RSV season IM in anterolateral thigh\nWhat are the toxcities associated with Efavirenz (given once daily)?\nRash, CNS/Psych symptoms, Teratogenicity in pregnancy, other symptoms (diarrhea, fever, and cough in ped pts)\nWhat are some symptoms of acute primary HIV infections?\nfever, lymphadenopathy, pharyngitis, rash, myagia/arthralgia, diarrhea (similar to flu, mono, etc and even asx)\nWhat is the first step in the MOA of Acyclovir?\n\nWhat are the subequent steps that form the ACY-triphosphates?\nacyclovir is a synthetic acyclic guanosine analog that is posphorylated in the viral-infected cell by the viral enzyme thymidine kinase;\n\nmonophosphate form is converted by host cell to the diphosphate and triphosphate forms. ACYTP competes with the endogenous substrate deoxyguanosine triphosphate as the substrate for viral DNA polymerase\nWhat is the basis for selective toxicity of acyclovir?\nreaction occurs 100x more rapidly inside the virus-infected cell that non-infected host cells\nWhat are the effects of Acyclovir on viral DNA polymerase?\nACYTP is incorporated into the viral DNA causing premature chain termination; ACYTP inactivates viral DNA polymerase but is less reactive towards the host DNA polymerase\nWhat is the first step of the MOA of ganciclovir?\n\nWhat occurs in CMV-infected cells?\n\nWhat are the subsequent steps that form the final product?\nProdrug which is converted intracellularly to an active triphosphate form.\n\nA viral protein kinase is responsible for the initial phosphorylation of ganciclovir and the subsequent phosphorylation steps to the active form.\n\nsame as acyclovir (?-look up)\nWhat are the effects of ganciclovir on DNA polymerase?\ncompetitive inhibition of viral DNA polymerase and direct incorporation into viral DNA which terminates DNA elongation\nWhat is the active drug produced from famciclovir?\nWhat are the indications (4) for acyclovir?\nInitial and recurrent mucosal and cutaneous HSV1/2 and VAV infections in immunocompromised pts;\n\nsevere initial genital herpes in immunocompetent pts;\n\ninitial and recurrent genital herpes in adults (PO);\n\nAcute tx of herpes zoster in immunocompetent adults (PO)\nHow is the oral availability of Famciclovir different from the active drug penciclovir?\n\nWhere does the conversion of the prodrug form occur?\nis well absorbed;\n\nliver and gut wall\nFamciclovir (and active drug) are indicated for...\nacute treatment of herpes zoster, genital herpes in immunocompetent pts, and recurrent mucocutaneous HSV infections in HIV-infected pts\nWhat is the active drug produced from Valacyclovir?\nHow is the oral availability different in valacyclovir compared to acyclovir?\nPO availability increases 3-5x resulting in increased acyclovir concentrations\nWhat are the indications for valacyclovir (and active drug form)?\nacute tx of herpes zoster, genital herpes in immunocompetent pts, recurrent mucocutaneous HSV infections in HIV-infected pts\nWhat is the major clinical uses of Foscarnet sodium?\nCMV retinitis in AIDS pts, tx of acyclovir-resistant or ganciclovir-resistant mucocutaneous herpes virus infections in immunocompromised pts\nWhat is the 3rd line tx for CMV retinitis in AIDS pts?\nWhat are the two boxed warnings for Foscarnet?\nrenal dysfunction and seizures\nWhat are the two boxed warnings for Cidofovir?\nnephrotoxicity and neutropenia\nWhat is the major risk factor for developing seizures when using foscarnet?\nlow serum calcium\nWhy does hypocalcemia occur when using foscarnet?\n\nWhat are some symptoms?\nchelation of divalent cations may cause the hypocalcemia;\n\nperioral tingling, numbness/paresthesias in lower extremities and seizures\nWhat precautions must be taken when giving Cidofovir to prevent nephrotoxicity?\ngive via a slow IV infusion with probenecid and IV saline prehydration\nWhat are the major clinical uses of ophthalmic antiherpetic agents (Trifluridine)\nPrimary keratoconjunctviitis and recurrent epithelial keratitis due to HSV1/2, epithelial keratitis that has not repsonded to topical idoxuridine or when ocular toxicity or hypersensitivity to this drug occurs, and in kids over 6 for tx of corneal inflammation due to HSV\nWhat are the major boxed warnings associated with abacavir?\n\nWhy is rechallenge contraindicated?\nhypersensitivity reactions (fever, skin, rash, NVD, etc), lactic acidosis, severe hepatomegaly with steatosis;\n\nsevere outcomes (hypotension, hepatic failure and renal failure), anaphylaxis or death can occur\nWhat are class sparing regimens/what is the idea behind it?\nIdea is that if you use only 2 of the 3 classes of hte preferred regimen, you have 'spared' one class in this category and you can use the spared one in the next regimen because resistance wont have been developed\nWhat are preferred regimens (definition)?\ntreatments that have been shown to have optimal and durable virologic efficacy, have favorable tolerability and toxicity profiels are easy to use\nWhy can viral load serve as a marker for improved clinical outcome due to ART?\ntrials have shown a significant association between a decrease in plasma viremia and improved clinical outcome\nViral load reduction to below limits of assay detection in an ART-naive pt usually occurs within the first _____ weeks of therapy.\nWhat levels are generally very high in acute HIV infections?\nYou can dx an HIV infection even though there are no Abs formed against the virus in early infections by testing for...\nWhat are the two major toxicities associated with didanosine?\npancreatitis and fatal lactic acidosis\nWhich drugs have significant DIs with didanosine and what occurs?\n\nRibavirin (increases intracellular levels of active metabolite of didanosine)\n\nTenofovir (increases didanosine levels)\nDidanosine is formulated as a ________ bead that degrades in acid and needs to be taken on a......\ndelayed-release capsule/enteric coated;\n\nIntrapartum IV zidovudine is recommended for all HIV-infected pregnant women regardless of.....\ntheir antepartum regimen to reduce perinatal transmission of HIV\nFor women who are receiving a stavudine-containing antepartum regimen, this drug should be ______ during labor while IV zidovudine is being administered.\nFor women who have received antepartum ARV drugs but have suboptimal viral suppression near delivery, what is recommended?\nIf the confirmatory HIV test is positive in a women who had an unknown status at presentation of labor, what do you want to do?\ngive infant ARV drugs for 6 weeks\nART Regimen #1 contains what 2 classes of drugs?\n\nWhat drugs were specified in the notes?\n\nWhat class does this spare?\none NNRTI and two NRTI's;\n\nefavirenz plus tenofovir/emtricitabine;\n\nTenofovir is a...... (ART drug class)......\nnucleotide RTI\nEmtricitabine is a ......(ART drug class).........\nnucleoside RTI\nART regimen #4 contains which drug classes?\n\nWhat drugs were specified in the notes?\n\nWhat classes does this spare?\nINSTI plus 2 NRTIs;\n\nRaltegravir plus tenofovir/emtricitabine;\n\nIn boosted regimens, Ritonavir is used at a lower dose that is not antiretroviral but is at a level that does what? This is so that.....\ninhibits the P450 system; it blocks the metabolism of another PI drug so the combined use results in a 20x increase in plasma levels\nART Regimens #2 and #3 contain which drug classes?\n\nWhich 2 regimens were listed in the notes?\n\nWhat classes were spared?\nRitonavir boosted PI plus NRTIs;\n\nRitonavir-boosted atazanavir plus tenofovir/emtricitabine;\nRitonavir-boosted darunavir plus tenofovir/emtricitabine; |
__label__positive Mean absolute deviation. What does it mean?\n\n35 teachers like this lesson\nPrint Lesson\n\n\nSWBAT use mean absolute deviation to make assumptions about the variability in the data.\n\nBig Idea\n\nThe students will be working with mean and learning about variablility. They will be making connections to real life applications to help assist them in making a connection to mean absolute deviation.\n\nDo Now\n\n10 minutes\n\nStudents will be looking at a set of data in a table and be asked to find the mean.\u00a0 I will be looking to see if they can add all the data values and divide by the number of values.\u00a0 I will also be taking note to see who can combine data values to make their calculations easier. (SMP 7).\u00a0 My goal is to get the students to see that when numbers are repeated they can simplify their calculations by multiplying first and then putting less numbers into the calculator. \u00a0 After they have found the mean, I want them to put the data into a line plot.\u00a0 The reason I\u2019m doing this is because the students will need to have a visual of the distance from the mean in order to calculate the mean absolute deviation.\u00a0 A line plot will be the best visual for this.\u00a0 You could even ask the students what display would best represent the data.\u00a0 Since it is numerical they may say stem and leaf, histogram, or line plot.\u00a0 From there I would ask them which best shows how to find the mean?\u00a0 They should be able to tell you line plot. (SMP 2) \u00a0\n\nTools: calculator\n\nWhat does MAD mean?\n\n60 minutes\n\nVocabulary :\u00a0 Give students the definition of mean absolute deviation.\u00a0 Allow them time to write it down and then ask them to translate it into their own words.(SMP 1)\u00a0 Partner share their version of the definition.\n\n(I\u2019m listening to for them to say:\u00a0 I know we will have to find the mean and if we are finding the average of the distance from the mean, we will probably have to subtract)\u00a0 In order to get them to think this way, I may say \u00a0\n\n \u2022 How do we find the mean?\n \u2022 When looking to find the distance between two points, what action is taking place?\n \u2022 If I\u2019m find the average distance, what is the key word here to let us know what is going on?\n\nDirect Instruction:\n\nUse slide #5 as a visual to show the data points in relationship to the mean.\u00a0 Discuss how far each value is from the mean in both directions.\u00a0 Ask them if it is possible to have a negative distance? (SMP2)\n\nSlide 6: The steps to finding the mean absolute deviation.\u00a0 I\u2019ve provided the steps to help the struggling students keep track of where they are in the problem.\u00a0 The steps will be provided for them in their notes.\u00a0 Show the students how they already came up with the process on their own when they translated the definition into their own words\n\nSlide 7, 8, 9:\u00a0 These slides take them through each step to show them how to find the MAD.\u00a0 Students should be able to complete step 1 on their own (finding the mean).\u00a0 Be sure to have students tell you what the mean, means.\u00a0 Understanding what they are answering\u00a0 and\u00a0 if their answer is reasonable supports SMP 6 (attending to precision). Next, the students will be finding the distance from the mean.\u00a0 I would have them use the line plot they created as a visual to \u201csee\u201d the distance.\u00a0 Finally, step 3 has them finding the average of the distances.\u00a0 Since students have worked with variability before (quartiles), I would ask them to describe what the MAD represents (SMP 2).\u00a0 Students should be saying that the mean consistently represents the data because the MAD is close to zero.\u00a0 Or that there is little variability within the data set. Or there is a small spread of data.\n\nIf needed, you may need to remind the students about variability in the box plots.\u00a0 We looked at box plots and their interquartile range which is another way to describe variability.\u00a0\n\nSlide 10:\u00a0 Now it is time for students to do this on their own.\u00a0 Before starting, have a whole group discussion on the steps to find MAD.\u00a0 Allow students time to complete the problem before going over it.\u00a0 As students complete the work, they can check with a partner.\u00a0 During this time, the partners should be discussing what they found, how they found it, and whether their answer seems reasonable.\u00a0 Also, they should provide a description of the data according the MAD.\n\n\nThe students can do one of several activities using the MAD activity power point.\u00a0 The slides can be turned in to an Around the room, Numbered Heads together, or Show down activity.\u00a0 Each slide has the students calculating MAD.\n\nQuestion 2:\u00a0 The students have to find the MAD of 2 data sets and then compare them.\u00a0 This slide will be good to see if students really understand what the MAD is describing.\u00a0 Watch to make sure students find the MAD for both data values and then write sentences to compare their variability.\u00a0\n\nQuestion 4:\u00a0 Students may be confused by this as they are not really finding the MAD.\u00a0 The question asks them find amount of data points that are 1 standard deviation from them mean.\u00a0 For students that are having difficulty understanding this, I would have them draw a line plot to \u201csee\u201d the data values.\u00a0 They will need to find the mean first.\u00a0\n\nQuestion 6:\u00a0 this question will be a challenge.\u00a0 Students will need to calculate the MAD.\u00a0 On top of that, they will need to know what twice the MAD means.\u00a0 In this case, MAD = 4.5 so twice the MAD = 9.\u00a0 Then they need to find out if any data values are 9 points from the mean (33.1), yes there are two (48 and 23).\u00a0 This is a great question to see if students really understand the different numbers.\u00a0 Working through the language with the students will be helpful.\u00a0 If using as an ATR, I would have this question by me so I could help them work through the problem.\u00a0 If using as a team activity, then I would use this question in my final wrap up.\u00a0\n\nTools: Calculator, whiteboards and markers if needed\n\n\n15 minutes\n\nUse questions 2, 4, 6 from the MAD activity to go over as whole group instruction. Each of these questions have a little something extra that students had to think about when trying to solve them. \u00a0 Allow students to come to the board to show how they solved the problems.\u00a0 Students should be given time to think aloud at the board to discuss their strategies.\u00a0 Ask the audience (students not at the board) to comment on their classmates work.\u00a0 Did they solve it the same way?\u00a0 Did they use a different strategy or did they come up with a different solution?\n\nToday\u2019s lesson objective was to learn how to find the mean absolute deviation.\u00a0 Wrap up by asking the students:\n\n \u2022 What are the steps to finding the mean absolute deviation.\n \u2022 What does the MAD describe? Give an example of a MAD that has little variability?\u00a0 Give an example of MAD that has a large variability?\n \u2022 Use the data set and find the MAD?\u00a0 (in power point)\n\nTools: Calculator |
__label__positive 66 terms\n\n\nexam 3\nthe best descriptive term for the resident biota is\nresident biota is absent form the\nvirulence factors include\ntoxins, enzymes, capsules\nthe specific action of hemolysinsis to\ndamage red blood cells\nthe ______ is the time that lapses between encounter with a pathogen and the first symptom\nperiod of incubation\na short period early in a disease that manifests with general malaise and achiness in the\na __________ is a passive animal transporter of pathogens\nmechanical vector\nan example of noncommunicatble infection is\na positive antibody test for HIV would be a _____________ of infection\nthe term infection refers to\nmicroorganisms colonizing the body\nnonspecific chemical defenses include\nlysozyme, lactic acid and electrolytes of sweat, skin's acidic pH and fatty acid, stomach hydrochloric acid\nacquired specific immunity involves the response of\nB and T lymphocytes\nrespiratory tract\nthe human body typically begins to be colonized by its normal biota\nduring, and immediately after birth\nwhat is not a symptom of type I hypersensitivity\ncontact dermititis\nthe region of each antibody molecule where amino acid composition is highly varied from one clone of B lymphocytes to another is the\nvariable region\nthe blood cells that function in allergic reactions and inflammation, contain peroxidase and lysozyme and particularly target parasitic worms and fungi are\nan infectious agent that originated from outside the body is called\nwhat white blood cell comprises of 3-7% of circulating WBC's, are phagocytic and can migrate into body tissues to differentiate into macrophages\nan endotoxin is\nindicative of gram negative organisms\nwhich of the following is not a major organ that can be a target of immune complex deposition\nthe four classic signs and symptoms of inflammation include what\nredness, pain, warmth, swelling\nwhat process provides many B cells and T cells that are activated against specific antigens?\nclonal expansion\nthe leakage of vascular fluid into tissues is called\nan example of artificial passive immunity would be\ngiving a person immune serum globulins to chicken pox virus after exposure to the disease\nsomeone who is inconspicuously harbors a pathogen and spreads it to other is a\nan inanimate object that harbors and transmits a pathogen is a\nthe study of the frequency and distribution of a disease in a defined population is\nwhat are four factors that may cause my normal flora to be different than yours\ndiet, birth entry, environment, exposure to disease\nwhat is the first defensive cell to respond\nPMN (neutrophil--phagocytosis)\nwhat is the largest portal to the body\nthe respiratory portal is largest entry way\n--biggest way is actually through the eyes not from breathing directly\nwhich is most likely to get you sick: a low infectious dose or a high infectious dose?\nwhy is the skin a good defense line\nwaterproof; has multiple layers; acidic; dry; keratinized\nhow do defensins work\nthey do not move, are in with cilia and they act as a spike to break cell wall which in turn causes lysis\nwhat are the granulocytes\nmast cells\nwhat are the agranulocytes\nB & T cells\nNK cells\nwhich cells contain histamine\nbasophils and eosinophils, mast cells\nwhat are the three major lymph nodes\naxillary, lingual, cervical\nWhat organ filters blood and looks for pathogens\nIs inflammation a good or bad thing\nwhen no bacteria is present, inflammation needs to be under control because eventually tissue damage will happen to healthy tissue\nwhen bacteria is present, inflammation should be allowed for some time to help get bacteria under control\nwhat are the stages of inflammation\ninjury/immediate, vascular reactions, edema/pus formation, resolution/scar formation\nan example of a nonspecific chemical barrier to infection is\nlysozyme in saliva\nwhich nonspecific host defense is associated with the trachea\nciliary lining\nwhich of the following blood cells function primarily as phagocytes\nwhich of the following is not a lymphoid tissue\nthyroid gland\nwhat is included in GALT\npeyer's patches\nmonocytes are _________ leukocytes that develop into _________\nagranular, macrophages\nan example of an exogenous pyrogen is\n_____________ interferon is secreted by ________ and is involved in destroying viruses\nalpha, NKC\nIn humans, B cells mature in the _____ and T cells mature in the ___________\nbone marrow, thymus\nsmall, simple molecules are _____ antigens\nthe cross-linkage of antigens by antibodies is known as\nT ________ cells assist in the functions of certain B cells and other T cells\nTc cells are important in controlling\nvirus infections\nwhich cells can serve as an antigen-presenting cell (APCs)\nB cells\ndendritic cells\na vaccine that contains part of virusesiscalled\nwidespread immunity that protects the population from the spread of disease is called\nherd immunity\npollen is which type of allergen\nb cells are responsible for which allergies\nasthma and anaphylaxis\nthe contact with allergen that results in symptoms is called the\nprovocative dose\nthe direct, immediate cause of allergic symptoms is the action of\nallergic mediators released from mast cells and basophils\ntheoretically, type ______ blood can be donated to all persons because it lacks __________\nO, antigens\nan example of a type III immune complex disease is\nserum sickness\ntype II hypersensitivities are due to\ncomplement-induced lysis of cells in the presence of antibodies\nrheumatoid arthritis is an _____ that affects the ________\nautoimmune disease, joints\nwhich disease would be most similar to AIDS in its pathology\nDiGeorge syndrome |
__label__positive Take the 2-minute tour \u00d7\n\nLet $X$ be the vector space of all Lebesgue-measurable functions $f:\\left[a,b\\right]\\rightarrow\u211d$ such that $\\int^{b}_{a}\\left|f\\left(x\\right)\\right|^{2}dx<\\infty$ (Lebesgue integral). Then we can define an equivalence relation on $X$ as follows: $f \\cong g$ if $f(x)=g(x)$ almost everywhere on $\\left[a,b\\right]$. Then we construct equivalence classes $\\tilde{f}=\\{g\\in X:f\\cong g\\}$, and the vector space of these equivalence classes is $L^{2}[a,b]$, on which we define the norm $||\\tilde{f}||_{1}=\\sqrt{\\int^{b}_{a}\\left|f\\left(x\\right)\\right|^{2}dx}$ (Lebesgue integral). Now some of these equivalences classes are rather special: they contain a continuous function in them, so this is the natural choice for a representative of the equivalence class. Let $D\\subseteq L^{2}[a,b]$ be the subspace containing these special equivalence classes. My basic question is, if we assign the equivalence classes in $D$ their continuous representatives, what are the natural representatives of the other equivalence classes?\n\nWe can make this more precise. Let $C[a,b]$ be the vector space of continuous functions $f:\\left[a,b\\right]\\rightarrow\u211d$, endowed with a norm $||f||_{2}=\\sqrt{\\int^{b}_{a}\\left|f\\left(x\\right)\\right|^{2}dx}$ (Riemann or Lebesgue integral). Then the norm-completion of this space is in fact $L^{2}[a,b]$. The upshot of all this is that $D$ is dense in $L^{2}[a,b]$, and we have a norm-respecting isomorphism $T:(D,||\\cdot||_{1})\\rightarrow(C[a,b] , ||\\cdot||_{2})$ defined by $T(\\tilde{f})\\in \\tilde{f}$ (assigning each element of $D$ its continuous representative). So now the question becomes, does there exist a continuous linear extension $S$ of $T$ defined on all of $L^{2}[a,b]$ such that $S|_{D}=T$ and $S(\\tilde{f})\\in \\tilde{f}$ ? Well, $T$ is a bounded linear transformation (with operator norm 1) defined on a dense subspace, so it meets all the conditions of the BLT theorem other than the fact that its codomain is not a Banach space. Thus we have to expand $C[a,b]$ to a larger subspace of $X$, so that the codomain of $T$ becomes complete.\n\nThere are two potential ways to do this, depending on whether we define the norm $||\\cdot||_{2}$ in terms of Riemann or Lebesgue integrals. If we use Riemann integrals, we would need a subspace of $X$ consisting of Riemann-integrable functions, so we would have to answer the following in order to establish completeness: if $f_{n}\\rightarrow f$ with respect to the the $||\\cdot||_{2}$ (where $f$ need not be continuous), is $f$ necessarily Riemann integrable? (My first instinct is no, because Riemann-integrability requires boundedness, and you can have a sequence of continuous functions with ever-increasing bounds, so that the limit is unbounded). If we use Lebesgue integrals, we would need to ensure that two distinct elements of the subspace cannot have zero distance, so we would have to answer the following: if $f_{n}\\rightarrow f$ and $g_{n}\\rightarrow g$ with respect to the $||\\cdot||_{2}$ norm (where $f$ and $g$ need not be continuous) and $f(x)=g(x)$ almost everywhere on $[a,b]$, then are $f$ and $g$ necessarily the same function? (Again I fear the answer is no, because perhaps you can have a sequence of continuous functions that converges to a function with a removable discontinuity).\n\nI know I've included a lot of convoluted detail, but my fundamental question is relatively simple: can we replace the equivalence classes in $L^{2}[a,b]$ with natural representative functions, using continuous representatives where possible? Or to put it another way: does there exist a subspace $Y$ of $X$ containing $C[a,b]$, on which we can define a norm which will make it isomorphic to $L^{2}[a,b]$?\n\nEDIT: As Gerald has pointed out, a simpler way to phrase my question is that I want a lifting of $L^{2}[a,b]$ or more generally $L^{2}(\u211d^{3})$.\n\nAny help would be greatly appreciated.\n\nThank You in Advance.\n\nshare|improve this question\nEven for the slightly more general case of equivalence classes containing piecewise continuous functions I don't see a natural way to proceed. How do we decide between $1_{(0, 1]}$ and $1_{[0, 1)}$ for example? \u2013\u00a0 Qiaochu Yuan Jan 1 '12 at 0:03\nDepending on one's ulterior goals, it might be useful to relate this to Sobolev space business. Let's look at the circle, instead of $[a,b]$, to dodge endpoint issues. Then $L^2(S^1)$ consists of constants + image of Sobolev space $H^2(S^1)$ under $d^2/dx^2$. By Sobolev imbedding/inequality, $H^2(S^1)$ is contained in $C^o(S^1)$, so functions in the \"space of equivalence classes\" $H^2(S^1)$ have a unique continuous representative. (Not all continuous functions are in $H^2$...) Then $L^2(S^1)$ is the image, plus constants. (If this direction is of interest, it is easy to elaborate...) \u2013\u00a0 paul garrett Jan 1 '12 at 0:10\nYemon, I mean something much more restrictive. I want $Y$ to be endowed with the specific norm $||f||=\\sqrt{\\int^{b}_{a}\\left|f\\left(x\\right)\\right|^{2}dx}$, but I'm open to this integral being either Riemann or Lebesgue. \u2013\u00a0 Keshav Srinivasan Jan 1 '12 at 2:28\nPaul, I don't think I know enough to know whether or not Sobolev spaces is the direction I want to go in, but I can tell you my ulterior motive: quantum mechanics. $L^{2}(\u211d^{3})$ is a space of equivalence classes, but in QM you need to actually evaluate wavefunctions at points, so you need to choose representatives. In most common situations, the wavefunction is required to be continuous, so you choose a continuous representative out of an equivalence class that has one. But if you don't have continuity (which is possible!), the question becomes how can you choose a representative? \u2013\u00a0 Keshav Srinivasan Jan 1 '12 at 16:27\nI would imagine that in practice it is not actually necessary to evaluate wave functions at every single point in order to do quantum mechanics. For instance, one can often proceed by interpreting all the equations of quantum mechanics in a distributional sense rather than a pointwise sense (note that the theory of distributions are very well adapted to linear PDE of the type encountered in QM). In many cases, the formal computations that appeared to require some regularity hypotheses can often be extended to the distributional setting by duality or a limiting argument. \u2013\u00a0 Terry Tao Jan 2 '12 at 18:44\n\n4 Answers 4\n\nYes and no.\n\nThe yes part is the Zorn lemma: consider the set of all subspaces $L\\supset C[a,b]$ in the vector space of measurable square integrable functions such that no two functions in $L$ are equivalent partially ordered by inclusion. Since the union of any linearly ordered chain of such subspaces is such subspace again, we have a maximal such subspace $L$. It is easy to check that each square integrable function $f$ is equivalent to some function in $L$ (otherwise $\\text{span\\,}(L,f)$ is a bigger subspace).\n\nThe no part has been spelled out by Simon: no such subspace is any more reasonable or easier to put one's hands on than the Hamel basis of $\\mathbb R$.\n\nshare|improve this answer\nFedja, what guarantee is there that $L$ is complete? If you have a sequence of continuous functions which converges to a square-integrable function $f$ (in the L2 norm), what guarantee is there that $f$ is actually in $L$, not just equivalent to some function in $L$? \u2013\u00a0 Keshav Srinivasan Jan 3 '12 at 23:06\nWhat do you mean? Equivalent functions are indistinguishable in $L^2$ and the limit in $L^2$ is defined up to a set of measure $0$. So, the function in $L$ that is the unique representative of the corresponding limit class is a limit of the sequence in the $L^2$-norm. Pointwise convergence has nothing to do with it. \u2013\u00a0 fedja Jan 4 '12 at 1:02\nSmall remark: Simon has withdrawn his original statement, although it seems like it should still be true \u2013\u00a0 Yemon Choi Jan 7 '12 at 2:44\n\nA \"lifting\" is exactly a choice of one element of each equivalence class. When done on $L^\\infty$, you want not only linear combinations of representatives to be representatives, but also products. There is a literature on this question. For example:\n\nTopics in the Theory of Lifting (Ergebnisse der Mathematik und ihrer Grenzgebiete. 2. Folge) by Alexandra Ionescu Tulcea and C. Ionescu Tulcea\n\nAlso found in the book: in a certain precise sense (which I don't remember) lifting is impossible for $L^p$ with $p<\\infty$.\n\nshare|improve this answer\nGerald, I think Tulcea's text is out of print. Do you know whether lifting is possible for $L^{2}$ is possible if we only require that linear combination of representatives yields representatives? \u2013\u00a0 Keshav Srinivasan Jan 3 '12 at 23:18\n\nOne way to partially answer your last question might be the following. To each $f\\in L^2(a,b)$, first associate its Lebesgue primitive $F(x)=\\int_a ^x f(t)dt$, then define $Tf$ as one of the four Dini derivatives of $F$, e.g. $$ Tf(x)=\\limsup _{h\\to 0^+}h^{-1}(F(x+h)-F(x)).$$ Then $Tf=Tg$ everywhere if $f=g$ almost everywhere, $Tf=f$ almost everywhere, and $Tf$ is continuous if $f$ is equivalent to a continuous function. Thus the map $T$ associates to all members of a class of equivalence in $L^2$ the same function, which is the continuous representative of the class when it exists. An additional advantage is that the method is 'constructive'.\n\nshare|improve this answer\n@ Piero D'Ancona: It seems to me that the construction you give does not make $T$ linear since $T(-f)=-Tf$ need not hold. Consider for example $f:t\\mapsto 1+\\sin(t^{-1})$ on $[0,1]$ with $f(0)=0$. Would taking the average of the upper and lower Dini derivatives be a cure? \u2013\u00a0 TaQ Jan 2 '12 at 18:06\nPiero, assuming the linearity issue raised by TaQ can be resolved, this looks promising. But can Dini derivatives be defined for functions of more than one variable? I was just considering $L^{2}[a,b]$ for simplicity, but what I'm really interested in is $L^{2}(\u211d^{3})$. How would you define $T$ for that? Perhaps you could use the Hardy-Littlewood maximal operator defined here: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hardy-Littlewood_maximal_operator But you again face the issue: Wikipedia claims it's nonlinear. \u2013\u00a0 Keshav Srinivasan Jan 3 '12 at 0:41\nActually, it seems to me that defining $T$ on $L^2[0,1]$ by $f\\mapsto\\frac12(D^+\\int_0f+D_+\\int_0f)$ does not make it linear either. Here $(\\int_0f)(t)=\\int_0^tf$, and $D^+$ and $D_+$ denote the upper and lower Dini derivatives from the right. But, as Terry Tao and Dmitri Pavlov have already pointed out, I also agree with the opinion that there is no need to get point values for the purpose of quantum mechanics. \u2013\u00a0 TaQ Jan 3 '12 at 18:41\nI wonder if you could use the Lebesgue differentiation theorem. Let $F(B)$ be the Lebesgue integral of $F$ over the open ball $B$, and let $Tf(x)=\\lim{|B|\\to 0}\\frac{F(B)}{|B|}$ where the limit is taken over open balls centered at $x$. Then $Tf=f$ almost everywhere, and thus $T$ chooses a unique representative out of each equivalence class, but does $T$ assign continuous representatives to the equivalence classes that have them, and is $T$ linear? If that doesn't work, is there anything we can do with the Hardy-Littlewood maximal operator? Does anyone know why it's not linear? \u2013\u00a0 Keshav Srinivasan Jan 3 '12 at 23:55\nThen you do not get a vector space of functions since $+\\infty$ and $-\\infty$ cannot be added. \u2013\u00a0 TaQ Jan 5 '12 at 18:45\n\nWell, there is a general sense in which your question can be answered in the affirmative. X = L^2 is a Banach space, and every Banach space X can be represented linearly and isometrically as a subspace of the continuous functions on a compact Hausdorff space K. The points of K are the continuous linear functionals on X. You deal with point functopns, not equivalence classes, but you have greatly extended the space of points.\n\nshare|improve this answer\n... it should read \"continuous linear functionals of norm <= 1\" ... \u2013\u00a0 Fred Dashiell Jan 2 '12 at 4:04\nI suppose this makes sense from a quantum mechanics standpoint; $X$ can consists of the vectors in the ket space, and $K$ can consist of normalized vectors (or \"rays\") in the bra space. \u2013\u00a0 Keshav Srinivasan Jan 3 '12 at 1:27\n\nYour Answer\n\n\n |
__label__positive SAP HCM Interview Questions\n\nSAP HCM Interview Questions\n\nList The Various Components Of The Enterprise Structure In Systems, Applications, And Products (SAP) In Human Capital Management (HCM)?\n\nThe components of the enterprise structure in SAP HCM are given as follows:\n\n 1. Client\n 2. Company code\n 3. Personnel area\n 4. Personnel subarea\n\nWhat Is Client In The SAP System?\n\nIn the SAP R/3 (R stands for Real-time) system, a client is an organization and a legal entity. A client is positioned at the highest level among all the organizational units. It contains the master data of various business processes, such as customers, products, and vendors. A three-digit number is used to represent clients in the SAP R/3 system.\n\nWhat Is Company Code?\n\nA company code is a unique four-character alphanumeric code that represents a legally independent enterprise.\n\nWhat Is Personnel Area?\n\nA personnel area is a subunit of company code. It is identified as an organizational unit representing an area in an enterprise, which is organized according to personnel administration, time management, and payroll accounting criteria. It is represented as a four-character alphanumeric code. For example, the personnel area code for a corporation is CORP.\n\nWhat Are Personnel Subareas?\n\nA personnel subarea is a part of personnel area, which can be subdivided according to the geographical location or the strategic line of business. It is represented as a four-character alphanumeric code. For example, if the branches or locations of an organization are defined as personnel area, then its departments, such as HR and ADMIN, are the personnel subareas of the organization.\n\nWhat Is SAP HCM Workflow?\n\nThe SAP HCM Workflow automates business processes and assigns tasks to appropriate person at the right time.\n\nWhat Do You Mean By Infotypes In SAP HCM?\n\nInfotypes are referred to as system-controlled characteristics of employees. Information related to employee is stored in the form of Infotypes,\n\nwhich are represented by a four-digit numeric code given as follows:\n\n 1. 0000 for actions\n 2. 0001 for organizational assignment\n 3. 0002 for personal data\n 4. 0003 for payroll status\n\nWhat Are Features In SAP HCM?\n\nFeatures are decision trees customized in the Implementation Guide (IMG) screen in SAP HCM that are made up of technical fields whose values are defaulted in the easy access.\n\nHow Do You Hire A New Employee?\n\nA new employee is hired with the PA40 transaction code. After that, all the Infotypes are maintained for the employee by using the PA30 transaction code.\n\nWhat are the three administrators ?\n\nThe three administrators are :\n\n 1. Personnel Administrator \u00a0\n 2. Payroll Administrator\n 3. Time Administrator\n\nHow does any company use an organizational plan?\n\nThe company organization structure and reporting structure is represented through the organization plan. The active plan version is the current plan version and the other plan versions are considered as various planning Stages. Used for manpower planning. Normally plan version\"01\" is always made the active plan version.\n\nWhat is an evaluation path?\n\nAn evaluation path describes a chain of relationships that exists between individual organizational objects in the organizational plan.\n\nYou can maintain evaluation paths on img -> Personnel Management ->Organization Management-> Basic Settings-> Maintain Evaluation Paths .\n\nWhat is the difference between a job and a position?\n\nJob is not concrete, it is is generic.(Eg: Manager, Assistant Manager, Consultant). Positions are related to persons .Position is concrete and specific which are occupied by Persons. (Eg: Manager \u2013 Finance , Consultant \u2013 SAP HR).\n\nWhat are Dynamic Actions? Give few examples?\n\nDynamic actions when triggered by the system. They are result of some personnel action. If changes are made (personnel action) to the personnel data of an info type, then has an effect on the data of a second info type, the system automatically displays the info type. One of the main purposes of the dynamic action (of the system) is to have a consistent and coherent data. These actions are started automatically by the system, unlike the Personnel actions which you start by yourself. The best example is when an action is carried out like hiring; it needs to populate a set of info types. In the initial entry of details in info type 0000 is personnel action. Then the system automatically displays next info types- which are result of dynamic action.\n\nSAP HCM Training\n\nWhat is the difference between Indian and US Payroll?\n\nDoes each of them have their own ITs and the taxation differs? Yes, since the Benefits which are more important in US. In US unemployment tax will come. Garnishments will come, Residence taxation, Work tax and others.\n\nHow can we evaluate wage types indirectly ?\n\nYou must define the characteristics of the wage-type to be evaluated indirectly. To do this, go to the IMG under Payroll *: Reimbursements, Allowances and Perks \u00ae Maintain Wage Type Characteristics.\n\nIn this activity, if the wage type has to be Indirectly Evaluated, you must first assign INVAL in the Indirect eval.module field.\n\nThen, you must assign the Module variant(A,B,C,D) for the wage type.Now when you populate the Basic Pay infotype (0008), the configured wage types will get defaulted, and those wage types configured for INVAL will also have their amounts defaulted.\n\nWhat ways are there to perform pay scale reassignment ?\n\nYou can reassign pay scale to any position through position maintenance(PO13). Go to change planned compensation and reassign the pay scale to the desired position.\n\n \u2022 Simple and extended pay increases\n \u2022 Simple Standard Pay Increase\n \u2022 Go to reporting. In the Program field enter report RPU51000.\n \u2022 The selection screen for the report is displayed.\n\nIn the Pay Scale Group, Pay Scale Level and Wage Type fields, enter the employees who should receive a standard pay increase. Enter the date from which the Customizing settings should be changed. In the Increase and Rounding sections, enter the necessary data, for example, an increasing amount or an increase percentage rate.\n\nThe amount of the indirectly valuated wage types is adjusted according to the data in the Customizing settings. No new infotype records have been created in the Basic Pay infotype (0008).\n\nExtended Standard Pay Increase\n\nIn the Program field enter report RPITRF00.In the Selection section, enter the selection criteria you want to use to effect an extended standard pay increase.\n\nChoose Batch Input.\n\nIf you do not select Batch Input, the pay scale reclassification will only be simulated. A results log is displayed, that you can evaluate as required.If necessary, enter the pay scale structure for which you want to effect a standard pay increase.\n\nProcess the batch input session.\n\nThe payments for the selected employees have been adjusted in accordance with the data specified in Customizing. New infotype records have been created in the Basic Pay infotype (0008).\n\nWhat is the employee subgroup grouping for primary wage types used for?\n\nYou can use these groupings to specify which wage types may be entered for which employee subgroups.\n\nThrough which T-Code you are able to create a remuneration statement?\n\nPC00_Mxx_CEDT (xx - denotes the molga for a country)\n\nHow can you define default wage types for the Basic Pay Infotype?\n\nThe system can suggest a default wage type for basic pay (IT0008), to do this appropriate wage type must be included in a wage type model. Here you define the default wage types and the sequence how they should appear in the infotype Basic Pay and whether you can overwrite the defaulted wage type or not.\n\nPersonnel Management -> Personnel Administration -> Payroll data -> Basic Pay -> Wage Type ->\n\nRevise Default Wage Types\n\nAfter setting wage type model, LGMST feature needs to be defined. Feature LGMST has two return values: firstly, the maximum number of wage types that can be entered in the Basic Pay infotype (IT0008), and secondly, the wage type model the system is to use, which was defined above.\n\nTo access feature LGMST use following SPRO path or transaction PE03.\n\nSPRO: Personnel Management -> Personnel Administration -> Payroll data -> Basic Pay -> Wage Type -> Enterprise Structure for Wage Type Model\n\nIn which feature, default wage type is defined for Basic Pay Infotype?\n\n\nHow does the system know when to trigger retroactive accounting for a particular employee?\n\nRetroactive accounting recognition consists of four steps:\n\n \u2022 If you edit an infotype that is relevant to retroactive accounting, the system enters the start date of the changed infotype record in the following fields of infotype 0003 Payroll Status:\n\n \u2022 Earliest MD change (earliest master data change since last payroll run)\n \u2022 MD chng.bonus (earliest payroll-relevant master data change (bonus)). This field is only displayed for specific country groupings, it is not displayed for all personnel numbers.\n\n \u2022 During the next regular payroll run or correction run (off-cycle payroll type B), the system determines whether the date in the Earliest MD change and (if applicable) MD chng.bonus fields comes before the date in the Accounted to field.\n \u2022 If this is the case, the system performs retroactive accounting. It starts with the payroll period in which the date entered in the Earliest MD change and MD chng.bonus fields occurs. The system recalculates all payroll periods that lie between the date in the Earliest MD change and MD chng.bonus fields and the date in the Accounted to field.\n \u2022 The system deletes the date in the Earliest MD change and MD chng.bonus fields\n\nWhat activities are possible when the payroll control record is set to \u201cReleased for Payroll\u201d?\n\nIf you choose the function Release Payroll from the menu, you are prevented from changing infotype data records if such changes affect the past or present. This lock applies to the personnel numbers included in the payroll area concerned. Changes that affect the future are still permitted. You must execute this function in the menu before starting the payroll. If the status of the payroll control record was previously Exit Payroll, the Release Payroll function also has the effect of increasing the period in the payroll control record by 1.\n\nCan a posting run be deleted?\n\nYes It can be reversed before the Bank transfer.Once the transfer is done the payments need to be adjusted in the next payments.\n\nDifference between PCR and CAP?\n\nDifference between PCR and CAP is mentioned below:\n\nPCR - The Personnel Calculation rule allows how one wage type is to be processed in different ways in payroll accounting.\n\nCAP - CAP is Collective Agreement Provision based on which the different groups of Employees are eligible for different kinds of pay scale structures and benefits and so on. CAP is based on the following components :\n\n 1. Pay scale type\n 2. Pay scale area\n 3. Employee subgroup grouping for CAP\n 4. Pay Scale Group and Pay Scale Level\n\nAn employee subgroup grouping for collective agreement provisions combines subgroups which are governed by the same valid collective agreement provisions. A provision is a specific labor law regulation within the collective agreement.\n\nNaming convention for wage types\n\nThe following naming conventions are used for wage types:\n\n \u2022 /0** \u2013 valuation bases\n \u2022 /1** \u2013 cumulation of gross amount\n \u2022 /2** \u2013 averages\n \u2022 /3** \u2013 country-specific, usually for social insurance\n \u2022 /4** \u2013 country-specific, usually for tax\n \u2022 /5** \u2013 legal net\n \u2022 /7** \u2013 wage/salary plus ER shares\n \u2022 /8** \u2013 \u00a0factoring\n \u2022 /84* \u2013 cost accounting\n \u2022 /A** \u2013 outgoing wage types in retroactive accounting period\n \u2022 /Z** \u2013 incoming wage types from the previous period\n\nDo you know in OM -> copy plan version?\n\n\u00a0To copy plan version use the Tcode: RE_RHCOPL00.\n\nThis report is only for copying objects from one plan version to another plan version to keep updated structures Always only one plan version would be active which is current. This report does not help to copy any master data.\n\nCan a posting run be deleted?\n\nYes, It can be reversed before the Bank transfer. Once the transfer is done the payments need to be adjusted in the next payments.\n\nWhat activities are possible when the payroll control record is set to \"Released for Payroll \"?\n\nWhen you set the status to Released for payroll you cant make any change to master data. Its actually released for payroll.\n\nIs it possible to branch directly from the payroll log to master data and time data maintenance\n\nYes, you can go in separate sessions.\n\nPayroll Results\n\nHow do you post the payroll results to FICO? I created one symbolic account and assigned the same to Salaries GL Account and then completed the other configuration steps needed to complete the procedure.\n\nHowever, when I tried to run the simulation for posting to FICO, I got the message \u201cDocument is not generated\u201d.\n\nIf you have selected \u201cOutput Log\u201d at the beginning of your configuration procedure, it will tell you at the bottom part what went wrong.\n\nDeduction Wage Type\n\nWe have a deduction wage type displayed in the window of our pay slip that shows a negative value.This causes problems and we have tried several measures to correct this including conversion rule 16 for our wage type in the same window but so far, without any success. How can we correct or delete the negative sign?\n\nYou can review OSS Note 406977.\n\nThis is a collective note of issues with RPCEDTx0 with examples of problems and solutions.\n\nPayroll Simulation\n\nHow do I correct the payroll simulation entry and check the correctness of our master data? What if one hundred employees get rejected due to error 167-process health plans? What does the following error mean: \u201cNo entry for plan DENT/cost variant. FMDN/key////x00000000000000\u201d ?\n\nYou should check for the cost element associated and the validity of cost rule for this plan. To do this, check your configuration under Benefits>Plans>Health Plans>Define cost variant and define cost rules.\n\nPayroll Simulation\n\nWhy is the system not picking up the values changed this month by default during payroll simulation? However, when I tried last month\u2019s retro date, it picks up correctly. How can this issue be corrected?\n\nYou can check the \u201cEarliest MD (master data) change\u201d date on infotype 0003. If you have done that already and payroll simulation still doesn\u2019t function by default, then there is a problem with your infotype and/or wage type retro settings. Check table T582A.\n\nSingle Payroll\n\nIs it possible to configure a single payroll to pay an individual in multiple currencies?\n\nNo. The system can be configured to pay in multiple currencies but not to pay an individual in multiple currencies.\n\n\nI need to capture a reason in the \"additional payment\" IT0015. The reason code is \u201csave\u201d in this infotype. I tried to capture for reason an Example to ADDWT 9999 if Reason ADDWT9998. How can I check the reason in IT0015 for accuracy?\n\nYou can try using this to start with: \u2018TABLE P0015 > VARGB PREAS\u2019\n\nThen, use the variable key to define the different reasons.\n\nWhich characteristics does a day with day type 1 have?\n\nIts OFF and Paid\n\n\nYou have to mention the retro active accounting date in IT 0003 in the relevant field. Otherwise it will take the earlier hiring date.\n\nIs it possible to branch directly from the payroll log to maser data and time data maintenance?\n\nYes you can go in separate sessions.\\\n\nWhat Do You Understand By Personnel Structure?\n\nPersonnel structure is defined as the structure of employees in an organization. It comprises employee groups and employee subgroups.\n\nThe employee group allows you to divide employees into groups and define their relationship to the enterprise.\n\nFollowing are some important organizational functions that can be performed using an employee group:\n\nCreating default values when data is input, such as creating default values for the payroll accounting area or basic pay of the employee\n\nCreating a criteria of selection to be used during evaluations\n\nCreating a unit to be used for authorization check.\n\nWhat Is Shift Planning?\n\nShift Planning is a component of Personnel Time Management. It is used to plan the shift time and location of the employees according to their qualification and the number of job requirements. The document used to record this information is called planned shift document, which is also known as roster. |
__label__positive \n\nLooking For Something at vustudents.ning.com? Click Here to Search\n\n\n+ Link For Assignments, GDBs & Online Quizzes Solution\n\n\n\n\n\nYe can share your paper here.\n\n\n+ How to Join Subject Study Groups & Get Helping Material?\n\n\n\nSee Your Saved Posts Timeline\n\nViews: 285\n\n\n\n\n\n+ Click Here To Join (Our facebook study Group)\n\nReplies to This Discussion\n\n: Mgt301 24/feb @8am ....bacho wala paper aya ... mcqs 100% past paers se ... short long questions 10 ae .. jis m ager ap sales wale ho tu bohat ezly paper kr sakte ho ... advertising k 2 question the ... market mixing ka ek ...or baqi agramm shagramm\n\nMgt301 40 mcq mostly 25 to 37.10q from past paper mcq difficult confusion Waly thy subjective easy tha.direct marketing.cut price effect on company,difeence b/w prsnl selling and advertisig,new products price stgy,VMS mn coperat n adminstrator,2 conceptual thy.time shortage agaye thi\n\nkindly share the past paper file\n\nkoi tu share kr dyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyy\n\n\ncurrent solved papers hainye\n\nMGT301 final term papers\n\nAre Services different from products?..If yes then HOW?\nDefine Business Market...What are the characteristics of Business Market\nWhat do u understand by business market and Business buying process?\nWhat are the three main steps which planners should think about?\n\nTotal 32 questions\n28 mcq's mostly from past papers, 4 subjective ques\u00a0\nWhy it is important to divide international market into segments? (3 marks)\nWhat are the uses of market research? (3 marks)\nWhat are the advantages and disadvantages of micro-environment marketing? (5 marks)\nsorry I forget 1 question of 5 marks\n\nMGT 301\nTotal question 32\nTotal mcq 28\nTwo question 3 marks\nTwo question 5 marks\n22 mcqs old papers and 6 mcqs new\u00a0\nwhat is a difference between idea generation and idea screening 3 marks\nNew product development related question 3 marks\nDefine the marketing research and describe four marketing research 5 marks\nlast question 5 marks\n\n\n\nWhat do u understand by business market and Businesss buying process?\n\nWhat are the three main steps which planners should think about?\n\nIf a comapny ABC is goin to launch a new product in tareget market They are looking the name of goods and what is the good characteristics of goods?\nMarketing researchers usually draw conclusions about large groups of consumers by\nwhat is the individual difference of adoption of innovation?\nsorry i forget 1 question of 3marks\n\nAdvantages of Adoption innovation 3 Marks\nExplain the Research process n characteristic 3 Marks\nResearch Groups and why important for the marketer 5 marks.\nif a company want s new business start and he decide to enter in the market how n why and why need to brand name. 5 Marks\n\n\nToday mgt 301 paper\n\nSocial media ke definition + three site names of social media.A company give full serives\u00a0 why explain.E_marketing definition.\n\n\n\nMgt301 4th March, 11:00am\n\n40 Mcqs: 5 mcqs were from past papers and the rest of them were from handouts.\n\n\nAdvertising styles.\n\nSocial media marketing.\n\nPricing techniques in small and large organizations.\n\nA statement was given. Identify distribution technique and explain.\n\nFor attraction of customer, what new marketing strategies should be followed by retailers.\n\nPersonal selling technique.\n\nList down 3 search engines.\n\nWrite down 3 social marketing sites.\n\nPaper was easy overall.\n\nBest of luck.\n\n1. As a manager your target is promotion of product. Describe the steps.\n\n2. What is difference between E-commerce, E-Marketing and E-Business.\n\njazak allah khair\n\nAssalam o alikum\n\nmgt301 modules 1-5\n\n\nAssalam o alikum\n\n\n(5 marks)\n\n==>\" Consumers are making purchase decisions based on recommendations from social networks\u201d. Do you agree with this statement in the context of current digital age?\n\n==>Define public relations and explain what are the major public relations decisions which marketers have to take?\n\n==>Enlist all promotional tools and explain any one of them in detail.\n\n==>Enlist the steps involved in channel design decisions and explain the types of intermediaries available for channel design decisions.\n\n==>Define discount and allowance pricing strategy. Explain what are the four types of discounts that can be used to adjust prices?\n\n\n(3 marks)\n\n==>Briefly describe the term \"E-marketing\"\n\n==>Direct mail marketing involves sending offers, announcements, reminder, and other items to customers on their specific address. What could be the advantages of direct mail marketing?\n\n==>Describe different situations where organizations can practice the sales promotion technique.\n\n==>If the Samsung company unexpectedly cuts the\u00a0 prices of its LCDs to one third. As a buyer how would you perceive this price cut?\n\n==>Companies keep various objectives while setting the pricing strategies for their products. State any two marketing objectives that affect the pricing decisions.\n\n\n\nToday Top Members\u00a0\n\n\u00a9 2020 \u00a0 Created by + M.Tariq Malik. \u00a0 Powered by\n |
__label__positive Correct the mistakes 1.the pyramids are in the is a hourglass.3. tne mark is a student.4.i have got a is an earth is a planet.7.they have got a old car.\n\n\n\u041e\u0442\u0432\u0435\u0442\u044b \u0438 \u043e\u0431\u044a\u044f\u0441\u043d\u0435\u043d\u0438\u044f\n\n\n1. The pyramids are in Egypt.\n2. It's an hourglass.\n3. Mark is a student.\n4. I have got the milk. (\u0438\u043b\u0438 \u0431\u0435\u0437 the)\n5. It is\u00a0a house.\n\n6. The Earth is a planet.\n\n7. They have got an old car.\n\n\u0412\u0440\u043e\u0434\u0435 \u0431\u044b \u0442\u0430\u043a... |
__label__positive Take the tour \u00d7\n\nI'm trying to prove that a set of all sets does not exist, meaning that the following does not exist: $$ D = \\{ S \\mid S \\text{ is a set} \\} $$ I can use Cantor's Theorem and the proof of cardinality of sets which says that if $A\u2286B$ then $A\u2264B$. But I'm stuck with where to go next.\n\nshare|improve this question\nadd comment\n\n2 Answers\n\nup vote 7 down vote accepted\n\nIf there were a set $D$ containing every set $S$ as an element, consider the power set $P(D)$. The elements of $P(D)$ are subsets of $D$, so in particular they are sets, so we must have $P(D) \\subseteq D$. Why does this contradict Cantor's Theorem?\n\nOne more technical push: if $\\iota: A \\hookrightarrow B$ is an injection of nonempty sets, then there is a surjection $s: B \\rightarrow A$. To define $s$, let $a_0 \\in A$. Then for $b \\in B$, if $b$ lies in the image $\\iota(A)$ then we must have $b = \\iota(a)$ for a unique $a$, and we set $\\sigma(b) = a$. If $b$ does not lie in $\\iota(A)$, we set $\\sigma(b) = a_0$. (For the cognoscenti: this does not use the Axiom of Choice. The converse does.)\n\nshare|improve this answer\nIt contradicts Cantor's Theorem because Cantor's Theorem says that the set of all subsets of a set must have a greater carindality than the set itself. But what D implies is that the set of all subsets of D is a subset of D, but because the cardinality of P(D) > D, we know that it's wrong. \u2013\u00a0 Jose Jul 24 at 20:40\nIs my explanation correct? Do I need to formalize that more? \u2013\u00a0 Jose Jul 24 at 20:52\nWhat you've said is correct. Some people might prefer more attention paid to subtleties in the meaning of $A \\leq B$ for sets: this means (right?) that there is an injection $\\iota: A \\rightarrow B$; $A < B$ means $A \\leq B$ and $A \\not \\equiv B$: there is no bijection between them. What Cantor's Theorem says is that there is no surjection $s: D \\rightarrow P(D)$.... \u2013\u00a0 Pete L. Clark Jul 24 at 20:53\nBy the second paragraph in my answer, this implies that $P(D) \\not \\leq D$. To get from this to $P(D) > D$ you need (I believe) to use cardinal trichotomy, i.e., that for any two sets $A$ and $B$, either $A < B$, $A \\equiv B$ or $A > B$, but this uses The Axiom of Choice. However, we don't need this since we already have both $P(D) \\leq D$ and $P(D) \\not \\leq D$: contradiction. I don't know whether cardinal trichotomy is something you can make use of, so I phrased my answer so as to avoid it. \u2013\u00a0 Pete L. Clark Jul 24 at 20:56\nThanks Pete, I'm fine with keeping this simple as I haven't learned about The Axiom of Choice yet. If possible, can you expand on the subtleties of this proof? I think I have the overall concept right, but I'm missing some details that make it rigorous. \u2013\u00a0 Jose Jul 24 at 20:58\nadd comment\n\nSince you seem to have an \"is a set\" predicate, I assume you are not using standard ZFC set theory. Not a problem. I also assume you are not necessarily prohibiting set self-membership. Much easier then, without using Cantor's theorem or cardinality, is to first assume to the contrary the existence of your $D$. Then select the subset $R$ of $D$ consisting of those and only those sets are that are not elements of themselves. This leads to the well known contradiction from Russell's Paradox since $R$, the so-called Russell Set, would also itself be a set. So, $D$, as defined here, cannot exist.\n\nshare|improve this answer\nadd comment\n\nYour Answer\n\n\n |
__label__positive Forum Thread: How to Use the Pythagorean Theorem to Solve Word Problems.\n\nApply the Pythagorean Theorem\nToday we are going to look at applying the Pythagorean Theorem.\nExample problem. A 12 foot ladder is placed four feet from the base of a wall,\nhow far up the wall will the ladder reach?\n\nRules of working with a word problems in Geometry.\nFirst rule is that you always draw a picture.\nGet out your marker and draw a scenario of what this situation looks like.\nThen I want you to label it.\nTake all the information and label the picture, and since this is the Pythagorean Theorem.\n\nWe will identify where is A where is B and where is C and then we will plug everything into the Pythagorean Theorem, and solve for the unknown.\n\nSo let's go through the steps.\n\nLet's draw a picture. We have a wall and we have a ladder leaning against the wall. (Draws this) and now let's label what we know.\n\nWe know this is a 12 foot ladder, and it is placed four feet from the base of the wall.\n\nThat means my four feet is here. (points to bottom of triangle) and I have the right angle here.\n\nNow opposite the right angle is the hypotenuse or C that means the floor is B so A is missing.\n\nI have now identified A, B, and C.\n\nApply the Pythagorean Theorem.\n\nSo let's square these out, four squared is 16, and 12 squared is 144 ,and I don't know my A squared.\n\nNow, let's subtract 16 from both sides.\nTo undo a square you take the square root so the square root of 128, so to find the square root of 128\n\nMake a factor tree.\nA = 8 is how far up the ladder will reach.\n\nYou could also get the decimal version by originally taking the square root of 128 on your calculator, but the exact answer is 8 square 2. Hope this was helpful.\n\nPythagorean Theorem word problems\n\nPythagorean Theorem word problems Directions for solving Pythagorean Theorem word problems. Includes many example word problems,and video tutorials\n\nBe the First to Respond\n\nShare Your Thoughts\n\n \u2022 Hot\n \u2022 Active |
__label__positive Psychodynamic Assumptions Flashcards Preview\n\nPsychology C1 > Psychodynamic Assumptions > Flashcards\n\nFlashcards in Psychodynamic Assumptions Deck (22):\n\nWhat are the 3 assumptions of the psychodynamic approach?\n\nInfluence of childhood experiences\nThe unconscious mind\nTripartite personality\n\n\nWhat is the Id?\n\n~Pleasure principle\nAims to gain pleasure and gratification at any cost\nUnconscious part of our personality\nPresent at birth\n\n\nWhat is the Ego?\n\n~Reality principle\nBalances the demands of the Id in a socially acceptable way\nConscious rational part of the mind\nDevelops around age 2\n\n\nWhat is the Superego?\n\nA persons sense of right as wrong as well as their ideal self\nSeeks to perfect and civilise behaviour\nLearned through identifying with ones parents, peers etc\nDevelops around age 4\n\n\nThe Id and the superego are often in conflict, how does the Ego resolve this?\n\nIt acts as a referee by considering the consequences of actions\n\n\nWhat does each stage of the psychosexual stages represent?\n\nThe fixation of libido (sexual drives\\instincts) on a different area of the body\n\n\nProblems at any psychosexual stage can lead to what?\n\nA child being fixated at the part of the body associated with this stage which will have an effect on personality\n\n\nHow can fixation occur?\n\nThrough frustration (when a stage is not resolved because the child\u2019s needs have not been met) OR overindulgence (when the needs of the child are over satisfied)\n\n\nWhat are the 5 psychosexual stages?\n\nOral (0-18 months)\nAnal (18 months- 3 years)\nPhallic (3-5 years)\nLatency (5 years- puberty)\nGenital (puberty onwards)\n\n\nAt each psychosexual stage what is the libido focus?\n\nOral- mouth: focus on breastfeeding\nAnal- anus: focus on potty training\nPhallic-genitals: masturbation and the Oedipus Complex\nLatency-little/no sexual motivation- focus on understanding the world and developing relationships\nGenital- genitals and heterosexual intercourse\n\n\nWhat is the outcome of overindulgence and frustration at the oral and anal stage?\n\nOverindulgence: they are fed too much or too often, as adults they may be optimistic or too dependent on others\nFrustration: aggressive adults or full of envy\n\nOverindulgence: messy, disorganised\nFrustration: overly tidy, possessive\n\n\nWhat are the 3 different levels of consciousness?\n\nThe conscious\nThe preconscious\nThe unconscious\n\n\nWhat is the conscious mind?\n\nWhat we are currently thinking and feeling and aware of. Logical and rational\n\n\nWhat is the preconscious mind?\n\nThe level just under the surface: what we are not currently thinking about by could be aware of it if we thought about it- similar to memories\n\n\nWhat is the unconscious mind?\n\nCannot be directly accessed, it is irrational and ruled by pleasure seeking\nIt is where all our repressed thoughts and feelings and contained\n\n\nWhat is a Freudian slip?\n\nWhen you say something accidentally which reveals something you are unaware of. It can happen when things which are unavailable to the conscious mind seep through and have an effect in our behaviour\n\n\nWhat are ego defence mechanisms?\n\nWhen conflicts between the id, ego and superego create anxiety, the ego protects itself using ego-defence mechanisms. These defences can cause disturbed behaviour if over used\n\n\nAside from ego defence mechanisms, what are 3 other types of defence mechanisms?\n\nDisplacement: transfer of impulses from one person or object to another\nProtection: undesirable thoughts are attributed to someone else\nRepression: pushing painful memories deep down into our unconscious mind, so they are effectively forgotten\n\n\nWhat is the libido focus at the phallic stage?\n\nThe Oedipus complex\n\n\nWhat is the outcome of fixation at the phallic stage?\n\nSelf assured, vain and problems with sexuality\n\n\nWhat is the outcome of fixation at the latency stage?\n\nNo fixation as no pleasure focus\n\n\nWhat is the outcome of fixation at the genital stage?\n\nWell-developed adult personality |
__label__positive Question DetailsNormal\n$ 30.00\nEntrepreneurs whose actions make current products and technologies\nQuestion posted by\n\nQuestion 1\n\nEntrepreneurs whose actions make current products and technologies obsolete adversely affect the economy.\n\n\n\nQuestion 2\n\nAn organizational feasibility analysis consists of judging the management's prowess (skill) and resource sufficiency.\n\n\n\nQuestion 3\n\nFor an entrepreneur, the advantages of becoming a franchisee include ALL below EXCEPT:\n\na. A proven product within an established market\n\n\u00a0b. franchisor's ongoing support\n\nc. cost of the franchise\n\nd. availability of financing\n\nQuestion 4\n\nThe purpose of a business plan is not to force an entrepreneur to systematically think through the new venture.\n\n\n\nQuestion 5\n\nThe reason given most commonly for becoming an entrepreneur is having a passion for the business.\n\n\n\n\nQuestion 6\n\nThe reason for planning growth of an entrepreurial firm is:\n\na.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Capturing economies of scale to lower buying costs and production costs\n\nb.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Capturing economies of scope to expand product lines\n\nc.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Ability to attract and retain talented employees\n\nd.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Market leadership\n\ne.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0All of the above\n\nQuestion 7\n\nExpression of an entrepreneurial idea is not copyrightable, but the actual idea\u00a0is copyrightable.\n\n\n\nQuestion 8\n\nThe entrepreneurial process always includes ALL of the following EXCEPT\n\na.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Developing business ideas.\n\nb.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Deciding to be an entrepreneur\n\nc.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Planning to go public\n\nd.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Moving from an idea to an entrepreneurial firm\n\nQuestion 9\n\nGenerally, industries are more attractive when the threat of substitutes is ________.\n\na.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0High\n\nb.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0low\n\nc.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0neutral (neither high or low)\n\nd.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0high for manufacturing firms and low for service firms\n\ne.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0high for service firms and low for manufacturing firms\n\nQuestion 10\n\nIn general, industries are more attractive when the ________.\n\na.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0majority of the threats are high\n\nb.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0majority of the threats are low\n\nc.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0threat of each of the forces is neutral-neither low nor high\n\nd.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0threat of each of the five forces is high\n\ne.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0threat of each of the five forces is low\n\nQuestion 11\n\nFinding ways to avoid need for external funding through creativity or any means necessary is called \"seeding.\"\u00a0\n\n\n\nQuestion 12\n\nWhich of the following statements about target markets is incorrect?\n\na.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0If you don\u2019t know who your target customers are, you won't be able to assess whether you are meeting their needs\n\nb.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Targeting your market is simply defining who your primary customer will be.\n\nc.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0By focusing on a target market, a firm can usually avoid head-to-head competition with competitive leaders and can serve a specialized market.\n\nd.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0A target market is a place within a larger market segment that represents a narrower group of customers with similar needs.\n\ne.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0It's easter to be \"all things to all people\" than to focus on a narrower market.\n\nQuestion 13\n\nRewards-based \"crowdfunding\" raises money for entrepreneurs in exchange for equity in the business.\n\n\n\nQuestion 14\n\n________ is the process of determining whether a business idea is viable\n\na.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Feasibility analysis\n\nb.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Opportunity recognition\n\nc.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Viability analysis\n\nd.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Achievability analysis\n\ne.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Scenario analysis\n\nQuestion 15\n\nAccording to the textbook, how do well-managed firms respond to the five forces that determine industry profitability?\n\na.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0They switch industries if the forces are too compelling.\n\nb.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0They focus on one force intently and excel by overcoming that force.\n\nc.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0They overcome each of the forces.\n\nd.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0They ignore the forces.\n\ne.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0They try to position their firms in a way that avoids or diminishes the forces.\n\nQuestion 16\n\nMarketing action that results in a product being thought of differently by consumers is called:\u00a0(choose one)\n\na.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0consumer commercialization\n\nb.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0skimming\n\nc.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0market segmentation\n\nd.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0penetration\n\ne.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0repositioning\n\n\nQuestion 17\n\nIn most industries, the major determinant of industry profitability is the level of competition among the firms already competing in the industry.\n\n\n\nQuestion 18\n\nOnce a firm decides to enter an industry and chooses a market in which to compete, it must gain an understanding of its competitive environment. This challenge can be undertaken by completing a(n) ________ analysis.\n\na.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Business\n\nb.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Industry\n\nc.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Competitor\n\nd.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Strategic\n\ne.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Market\n\nQuestion 19\n\n\u00a0The most important thing an entrepreneur can do to build a strong ethical culture is to lead by example.\n\n\n\nQuestion 20\n\nA complete misread of the customer is usually not fatal to business success if the business model is ambitious.\n\n\n\nQuestion 21\n\nWhich of the following is not an attribute of an attractive industry?\n\nA.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Is young rather than old\n\nB.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Is not crowded\n\nC.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Is late rather than early in its life cycle\n\nD.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Is important to the customer\n\nE.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Is fragmented rather than concentrated\n\nQuestion 22\n\nWhich ONE of the following most is important for an entrepreneur to be successful?\n\na.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Intelligence Quotient\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\n\nb.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Desire to be wealthy\n\nc.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Emotional Intelligence\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\n\nd.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Strategic Intelligence\n\nQuestion 23\n\nA potential entrepreneurial opportunity is limited by its \"window of opportunity.\"\n\n\n\nQuestion 24\n\nMulti-level marketing (MLM) is often criticized because:\n\na.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Some multi-level marketing (MLM) firms focus more on getting new distributors rather than selling products\n\nb.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Multi-level marketing usually doesn't give exclusive rights to an area or territory.\n\nc.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Multi-level marketing (MLM) is often compared to a \"pyramid scheme\" since the market can become saturated as new distributors are added.\n\nd.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0All of the above\n\ne.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0None of the above\n\nAvailable Solution\n$ 30.00\nEntrepreneurs whose actions make current products and technologies\n \u2022 This solution has not purchased yet.\n \u2022 Submitted On 21 Jan, 2018 06:58:18\nSolution posted by\n1. False 2. True 3. Cost of the fra...\nBuy now to view full solution.\n\n$ 629.35 |
__label__positive 69 terms\n\nMuscular System\n\nWhat are the three muscle types in the body?\nskeletal, cardiac, smooth\nWhat is the endomysium?\na thin layer of connective tissue that surrounds each muscle fiber\nWhat is the perimysium?\nconnective tissue that surrounds groups of 10-100 individual muscle fibers separating them into bundles called fascicles.\nWhat is the epimysium?\nConnective tissue layer(outside muscle); an overcoat of dense irregular connective tissue that surrounds the whole muscle\nWhere are smooth muscles found in the body?\nwalls of hollow organs (except heart) in the digestive system, blood vessels, and urinary system\nHow is cardiac muscle contraction regulated?\ninvoluntary contraction\nWhat are the functions of muscle?\nproducing movement, maintaining posture, stabilizing joints and generating heat\nWhat is the sarcolemma?\nspecialized plasma membrane of muscle cells\nWhat is the function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum?\nstores calcium\nWhat is myosin?\nThick filament protein with a head and elongated tail, the heads form cross bridges with the thin filaments during muscle contraction\nWhat is actin?\nThin filament protein. Twisted into a double helix and appears like a double-stranded chain of pearls. Contains the myosin-binding site.\nWhat is the neurotransmitter for muscle contraction?\nacetylcholine (ACh)\nWhat is the energy needed for muscle contraction?\nstored ATP\nWhat types of muscles are involuntary?\nsmooth and cardiac\nWhat types of muscle are striated?\nskeletal and cardiac\nWhat type of muscle is voluntary?\nWhat type of muscle has intercalated discs?\nWhere is glycogen stored in the muscle cells?\nin glycosomes\nWhat is the cytoplasm of the muscle cell?\nWhat is the light area of the sarcomere?\nI Band\nWhat structure attaches a bone to a muscle?\nWhat proteins are on actin?\ntropomysin and troponin (in skeletal muscle)\nWhat is the H Band?\nthe center part of the sarcomere that gets smaller when a muscle contracts and appears when the muscle relaxes\nWhat ion stimulates the contraction of muscle?\nWhat is the function of skeletal muscle?\nmovement of bones\nWhat type of muscle forms most of the heart?\nWhat type of muscle exhibits autorhythmicity (beats with a steady rhythm)?\nWhat type of muscle forms the walls of hollow internal structures?\nWhat type of muscles have a striped appearance?\nskeletal and cardiac\nWhat is the contractile unit of muscle?\nWhat is another name for a muscle cell?\nmuscle fiber\nWhat is the ability of an electrical impulse to stimulate a muscle cell to contract?\nWhat is the ability of muscle cells to shorten and generate a pulling force?\nWhat is the muscles' ability to be stretched back to its original length by contraction of an opposing muscle?\nWhat is a cross bridge?\nThe connection of a myosin head group to an actin filament during muscle contraction (the sliding filament theory)\nWhat is the ability of a muscle to recoil after being stretched?\nA sarcomere is the distance between two __ ?\nZ discs\nThe thicker filaments are the ________filaments.\nBoth actin and myosin are found in the _______band.\nWhat is troponin?\na regulatory protein that moves tropomyosin aside & exposes myosin binding sites when Ca+ is released during muscle contraction\nWhat causes the striations of skeletal muscles?\nArrangements of myofilaments\nWhat are striations?\nthe light and dark stripes in skeletal and cardiac muscles\nTrue or False--The sliding filament model of contraction involves actin and myosin sliding past each other but not shortening.\nWhat is tropomyosin?\nIt is a long, fibrous protein that winds around the actin polymer, blocking all the myosin-binding sites.\nWhat is myoglobin?\nA protein that holds a reserve supply of oxygen in muscle cells?\nWhat is the sarcoplasmic reticulum?\nWhat is sarcoplasm?\nthe cytoplasm of a striated muscle fiber\nWhat is the neuromuscular junction?\npoint of contact between a motor neuron and a skeletal muscle cell\nWhat is glycogen?\na complex carbohydrate consisting of stored glucose molecules in skeletal muscles; breaks down to release glucose when it is needed for energy.\nList the structures in order from largest to smallest -sarcomere, myofibrils, muscle, actin & myosin, muscle fibers, fascicle\nmuscle, fascicles, muscle fibers, myofibrils, sarcomere, actin & myosin\nWhat is a fascicle?\nWhat is the origin of a muscle?\nless moveable of the two bones is considered to be the starting point of the muscle\nWhat is the insertion of a muscle?\nthe end of a muscle attached to a movable part\nWhat is an aponeurosis?\nBroad, flat, sheet like connective tissue that connects muscles to a bone or another muscle\nWhat is a myofilament?\nthreadlike structures found in myofibrils which aid in contraction, composed of myosin (thick) and actin (thin)\nWhat is the M-line?\nsupporting proteins that hold the thick filaments together in the H zone\nWhat is a cross bridge?\nWhat is the sliding filament theory?\ntheory that actin filaments slide toward each other during muscle contraction, while the myosin filaments are still\nWhat is titin?\nelastic protein, keeps thick and thin filaments aligned\nWhat is acetylcholine?\nneurotransmitter that diffuses across a synapse and produces an impulse in the cell membrane of a muscle cell\nWhat is the function of calcium ions in muscle contraction?\nwhen released from the SR, they stimulate the reaction leading to muscle contraction by attaching to regulatory proteins on actin.\nWhat is an action potential?\nElectrical impulse that travels down the axon triggering the release of neurotransmitters\nsliding filament model\nneuromuscular junction\nmuscle fiber\nmuscle attachments\nLabel the skeletal muscle |
__label__positive Sunday, February 2, 2014\n\nClass 10 - Biology - How do Organisms Reproduce? (Fill In Blanks)\n\nClass 10 - Biology - How do Organisms Reproduce?\u00a0\nClass 10 - Biology - How do Organisms Reproduce?\nCross-section of Flower\nFill in the Blanks\n\n[Asexual Reproduction in Plants]\n\n1. The ability of plant cells to give rise to whole plant is called as ____.\n\n2. In Asexual reproduction the gametes are ______ (formed/not formed).\n\n3. In yeasts, ____ is the most common type of asexual reproduction.\n\n4. In grafting, the union occurs through formation of ____ between the two grafts.\n\n5. The process of formation of spores is called ____.\n\n6. Asexual reproduction method in spirogyra is called _______.\n\n7. Orchids and Ornamental Plants are generally reprodued asexually. One of the common vegetative propagation technique used for these plants is _______.\n\n[Sexual Reproduction in Plants]\n\n8. Plants like Hibiscus and mustard have ________ (bisexual/unisexual) flowers.\n\n9. In sexual reproduction, the male and female gametes fuse together and form a ____.\n\n10. Ovule develops from a cushion like part of the ovary ____.\n\n11. Pollen grains of a flower transfer to the stigma of the carpel of the same flower is called ____.\n\n12. Fertilization occurs ________ (inside/outside) the ovary.\n\n13. Ovary grows rapidly and ripens to forms a fruit, while the seed contains the future plant or embryo which develops into a seedling under suitable condition. This process is known as __________.\n\n[Sexual Reproduction in Animals]\n\n14. The male gametes are called _______\n\n15. The zygote undergoes multiple divisions, which are _____ (mitotic/meiotic) type.\n\n16: Earthworm is an organism of ____________ type i.e. it contains reproductive organs of both male and female genders.\n\n17: In male frog, thousands of spermatozoa are discharged in a group, which is called as ____.\n\n[Human Reproductive System]\n\n18. The period of sexual maturation is called ________\n\n19. The male hormone secreted by testes to regulate production of sperms is called ______\n\n20. The gestation period in human beings is _____.\n\n21. Two Fallopian tube unite into an elastic bag like structure known as ___________.\n\n22. Fertilization occurs in the ________(ovary/ Fallopian tube) of female genital tract.\n\n23. The Embryo gets nutrition from the mother's blood with the help of a\nspecial tissue called ________\n\n24. The stage which marks the end of menstruation in the woman is called _________.\n\n25. Female sex hormones are _____ and ____________ which are produced in ovary.\n\n26. Surgical methods of contraception are ________ and __________.\n\n1: Totipotency\n2: not formed\n3: budding\n4: parents\n5: sporulation\n6: fragmentation\n7: tissue culture\n8: bisexual\n9: zygote\n10. placenta\n11. self pollination\n12. inside\n13. Germination\n14: sperms\n15: mitotic\n16: hermaphrodite\n17: Milt\n18: puberty.\n19: testosterone\n20: 40 weeks\n21: uterus\n22: fallopian tube\n23: placenta\n24: menupause\n25: oestrogen, progesterone\n26: vasectomy and tubectomy\n\nNo comments:\n\nPost a Comment |
__label__positive Question DetailsNormal\n$ 30.00\nEntrepreneurs whose actions make current products and technologies\nQuestion posted by\n\nQuestion 1\n\nEntrepreneurs whose actions make current products and technologies obsolete adversely affect the economy.\n\n\n\nQuestion 2\n\nAn organizational feasibility analysis consists of judging the management's prowess (skill) and resource sufficiency.\n\n\n\nQuestion 3\n\nFor an entrepreneur, the advantages of becoming a franchisee include ALL below EXCEPT:\n\na. A proven product within an established market\n\n\u00a0b. franchisor's ongoing support\n\nc. cost of the franchise\n\nd. availability of financing\n\nQuestion 4\n\nThe purpose of a business plan is not to force an entrepreneur to systematically think through the new venture.\n\n\n\nQuestion 5\n\nThe reason given most commonly for becoming an entrepreneur is having a passion for the business.\n\n\n\n\nQuestion 6\n\nThe reason for planning growth of an entrepreurial firm is:\n\na.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Capturing economies of scale to lower buying costs and production costs\n\nb.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Capturing economies of scope to expand product lines\n\nc.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Ability to attract and retain talented employees\n\nd.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Market leadership\n\ne.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0All of the above\n\nQuestion 7\n\nExpression of an entrepreneurial idea is not copyrightable, but the actual idea\u00a0is copyrightable.\n\n\n\nQuestion 8\n\nThe entrepreneurial process always includes ALL of the following EXCEPT\n\na.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Developing business ideas.\n\nb.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Deciding to be an entrepreneur\n\nc.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Planning to go public\n\nd.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Moving from an idea to an entrepreneurial firm\n\nQuestion 9\n\nGenerally, industries are more attractive when the threat of substitutes is ________.\n\na.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0High\n\nb.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0low\n\nc.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0neutral (neither high or low)\n\nd.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0high for manufacturing firms and low for service firms\n\ne.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0high for service firms and low for manufacturing firms\n\nQuestion 10\n\nIn general, industries are more attractive when the ________.\n\na.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0majority of the threats are high\n\nb.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0majority of the threats are low\n\nc.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0threat of each of the forces is neutral-neither low nor high\n\nd.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0threat of each of the five forces is high\n\ne.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0threat of each of the five forces is low\n\nQuestion 11\n\nFinding ways to avoid need for external funding through creativity or any means necessary is called \"seeding.\"\u00a0\n\n\n\nQuestion 12\n\nWhich of the following statements about target markets is incorrect?\n\na.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0If you don\u2019t know who your target customers are, you won't be able to assess whether you are meeting their needs\n\nb.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Targeting your market is simply defining who your primary customer will be.\n\nc.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0By focusing on a target market, a firm can usually avoid head-to-head competition with competitive leaders and can serve a specialized market.\n\nd.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0A target market is a place within a larger market segment that represents a narrower group of customers with similar needs.\n\ne.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0It's easter to be \"all things to all people\" than to focus on a narrower market.\n\nQuestion 13\n\nRewards-based \"crowdfunding\" raises money for entrepreneurs in exchange for equity in the business.\n\n\n\nQuestion 14\n\n________ is the process of determining whether a business idea is viable\n\na.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Feasibility analysis\n\nb.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Opportunity recognition\n\nc.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Viability analysis\n\nd.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Achievability analysis\n\ne.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Scenario analysis\n\nQuestion 15\n\nAccording to the textbook, how do well-managed firms respond to the five forces that determine industry profitability?\n\na.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0They switch industries if the forces are too compelling.\n\nb.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0They focus on one force intently and excel by overcoming that force.\n\nc.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0They overcome each of the forces.\n\nd.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0They ignore the forces.\n\ne.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0They try to position their firms in a way that avoids or diminishes the forces.\n\nQuestion 16\n\nMarketing action that results in a product being thought of differently by consumers is called:\u00a0(choose one)\n\na.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0consumer commercialization\n\nb.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0skimming\n\nc.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0market segmentation\n\nd.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0penetration\n\ne.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0repositioning\n\n\nQuestion 17\n\nIn most industries, the major determinant of industry profitability is the level of competition among the firms already competing in the industry.\n\n\n\nQuestion 18\n\nOnce a firm decides to enter an industry and chooses a market in which to compete, it must gain an understanding of its competitive environment. This challenge can be undertaken by completing a(n) ________ analysis.\n\na.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Business\n\nb.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Industry\n\nc.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Competitor\n\nd.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Strategic\n\ne.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Market\n\nQuestion 19\n\n\u00a0The most important thing an entrepreneur can do to build a strong ethical culture is to lead by example.\n\n\n\nQuestion 20\n\nA complete misread of the customer is usually not fatal to business success if the business model is ambitious.\n\n\n\nQuestion 21\n\nWhich of the following is not an attribute of an attractive industry?\n\nA.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Is young rather than old\n\nB.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Is not crowded\n\nC.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Is late rather than early in its life cycle\n\nD.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Is important to the customer\n\nE.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Is fragmented rather than concentrated\n\nQuestion 22\n\nWhich ONE of the following most is important for an entrepreneur to be successful?\n\na.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Intelligence Quotient\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\n\nb.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Desire to be wealthy\n\nc.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Emotional Intelligence\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\n\nd.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Strategic Intelligence\n\nQuestion 23\n\nA potential entrepreneurial opportunity is limited by its \"window of opportunity.\"\n\n\n\nQuestion 24\n\nMulti-level marketing (MLM) is often criticized because:\n\na.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Some multi-level marketing (MLM) firms focus more on getting new distributors rather than selling products\n\nb.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Multi-level marketing usually doesn't give exclusive rights to an area or territory.\n\nc.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Multi-level marketing (MLM) is often compared to a \"pyramid scheme\" since the market can become saturated as new distributors are added.\n\nd.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0All of the above\n\ne.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0None of the above\n\nAvailable Solution\n$ 30.00\nEntrepreneurs whose actions make current products and technologies\n \u2022 This solution has not purchased yet.\n \u2022 Submitted On 21 Jan, 2018 06:58:18\nSolution posted by\n1. 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__label__positive Med Surg Final.txt\n\nHome > Preview\n\nThe flashcards below were created by user Anonymous on FreezingBlue Flashcards.\n\n 1. In pulmonary edema the medical management will often include what?\n Furosemide (Lasix) IV, oxygen therapy , orthopenic position, and morphine sulfate to decrease respiratory rate.\n 2. What would the nursing interventions be for a patient with pulmonary edema, excess fluid volume, and altered tissue permeability?\n Assess indicators of patient\ufffds fluid volume status, such as breath sounds, skin turgor, and pedal/sacral/periorbital edema, mx I&O, administer diuretics as ordered, and weigh daily.\n 3. What is the most common cause of pulmonary edema?\n Increased capillary pressure from left ventricular failure\n 4. What does sputum look like in pulmonary edema?\n Frothy, pink sputum\n 5. What type of diet is recommended for a pt with pulmonary edema?\n Low-sodium diet\n 6. What is pulmonary embolism?\n Foreign substance causing obstruction to the blood supply to lung tissue\n 7. What is the normal range for d-dimer?\n 8. How long is a pt on anticoagulant therapy for a pulmonary embolism?\n One year\n 9. What is the most definite method of diagnosing a pulmonary embolism?\n pulmonary angiogram\n 10. What is pulmonary edema?\n Accumulation of extravascular fluid in lung tissues and alveoli, caused by severe left ventricular dysfunction\n 11. What are the signs and symptoms of pulmonary edema?\n Severe respiratory distress, frothy sputum, coughing, choking\n 12. Most pulmonary embolisms (PEs) originate from where?\n deep vein thrombosis (DVT)\n 13. Chest pain from pulmonary embolism (PE) is typically what?\n pleuritic and worsens upon inspiration\n 14. What is the medical management and nursing interventions of the patient with pulmonary embolism?\n Bed rest, administration of IV Heparin per protocol, semi-fowlers position, and oxygen per mask or nasal cannula.\n 15. What position will the nurse instruct the pt with emphysema to enhance the effectiveness of breathing during dyspnea periods?\n sitting on the side of the bed, leaning on an overbed table\n 16. A nurse is caring for a client with emphysema who is receiving oxygen. The nurse checks the oxygen flow rate to ensure that it does not exceed what?\n 17. What is the purpose of pursed lip breathing?\n Promote carbon dioxide elimination\n 18. The low pressure alarm sounds on the ventilator. The nurse checks the client then attempts to determine the cause of the alarm but is unsuccessful. What initial action will the nurse take?\n Ventilate the client manually\n 19. What does a pt w/emphysema become barrel chested?\n Because of over inflation of the lungs\n 20. How much fluid should a pt w/emphysema consume each day?\n 2-3 L\n 21. What effective breathing technique is used for a pt w/emphysema?\n Pursed-lip breathing\n 22. What does Peak-flow monitoring measure?\n how well air moves out of the lungs-during forceful exhalation\n 23. Which type of medication is used as rescue medication in acute asthma exacerbation\n Short-acting beta,-agonists.\n 24. Asthma is best characterized as what type of disease?\n an inflammatory disease\n 25. What are the nursing interventions for a pt with ineffective breathing pattern related to decreased lung expansion during an acute attack of asthma?\n Administer oxygen therapy as ordered, remain with patient during acute attack to decrease fear and anxiety, incorporate rest periods into activities and interventions, and maintain semi-fowlers position to facilitate ventilation.\n 26. How is TB spread?\n inhaling the TB bacteria after a person coughs, speaks, or sneezes\n 27. What is the most common etiologic factor for this diagnosis in patients with Tb who do are not compliant?\n little or no motivation to adhere to a long-term drug regimen\n 28. The appropriate nursing intervention for Mr. K age 40, diagnosed with active Tb would be what?\n place the patient in acid -fast bacilli (AFB) isolation precautions\n 29. What diagnostic test that will confirm TB?\n Sputum culture\n 30. What identifies the route of transmission of TB?\n The airborne route\n 31. A nurse is reading the results of a Mantoux skin test on a client with no documented health problems. The site has no induration and a 1-mm area of ecchymosed. What are the results of this test?\n 32. A nurse is caring for a client who had a Mantoux skin test implantation 48 hours ago on admission to the nursing unit and reads the result of the skin test as positive. What nursing action is priority?\n Report the findings\n 33. A client being discharged from the hospital to home with a diagnosis of TB is worried about the possibility of infecting the family and others. What information would help the client get the most reassurance?\n The family will be treated prophylactically and the client will not be contagious after 2 to 3 consecutive weeks of medication therapy.\n 34. A nurse has reinforced discharge teaching with a client who was diagnosed with TB and has been on medication for 1\ufffd weeks. Which statement shows that the client has understood the teaching?\n \ufffdI should not be contagious after 2 to 3 weeks of medication therapy\ufffd\n 35. A client with TB asks a nurse about precautions to take after discharge from the hospital to prevent infection of others. The nurse develops a response based on the understanding that TB is transmitted how?\n By droplet nuclei\n 36. A nurse is preparing to give a bed bath to an immobilized client with TB. What should the nurse plan to wear when performing this care?\n Particulate respirator, gown, and gloves.\n 37. A client with TB, whose status is being monitored in an ambulatory care clinic, asks the nurse when it is permissible to return to work. When does the nurse tell the pt he can return to work?\n After three sputum cultures are negative.\n 38. What type of isolation is recommended for a patient w/TB?\n Acid-fast bacillus\n 39. What type of masks do visitors of TB pts use?\n Particulate respiration mask\n 40. Which of the following statements accurately describe the disease tuberculosis (TB)? Most people who become infected with TB organism do not progress to the active disease stage.\n 41. Ms. C., age 45, is being evaluated to rule out pulmonary tuberculosis. Which finding is most closely associated with TB?\n Night Sweats\n 42. The health care workers for Ms. C., who is diagnosed with active tuberculosis, are instructed in methods of protecting themselves from contracting tuberculosis. The centers of disease controls and prevention currently recommend that health care workers who care for TB-Infected patients wear what?\n a small micron fitted filtration mask\n 43. A nurse is assigned to care for a patient following a left pneumonectomy. The nurse would avoid positioning the client how?\n On the side\n 44. What is the most common surgical treatment for lung cancer?\n 45. What is a pneumonectly?\n Surgical removal of a lung\n 46. The primary goal for the patient with bronchiectasis is that the patient will what?\n maintain removal of bronchial secretions.\n 47. What is bronchiectasis?\n Irreversible chronic dilation of bronchi that destroys bronchial elastic & muscular elements\n 48. What are the signs & symptoms of bronchiectasis?\n Dyspnea, cyanosis & clubbing of the fingers\n 49. What volume is O2 delivered to the pt with bronchiectasis?\n Low flow\n 50. What is the cure for bronchiectasis?\n Surgical removal of the lung\n 51. What is a cystectomy?\n Surgical removal of the bladder\n 52. What type of surgery is less invasive and less stressful for a pt with BPH?\n 53. How is tissue removed during TURP?\n Through the urethra\n 54. What type of catheter is used on a pt with TURP?\n Closed bladder irrigation\n 55. What type of solution is used in a closed bladder irrigation?\n An isotonic solution\n 56. What should the pt expect after prostatic surgery?\n 57. Why should catheter drainage tubes be checked frequently?\n For kinks that would occlude urine and cause bladder spasms\n 58. What diet is important for a pt with nephrotic syndrome?\n Protein replacement, low salt\n 59. What meds are used to treat nehprotic syndrome?\n Corticosteroids, loop diurectics\n 60. What is cystitis?\n Inflammation of the wall of the urinary bladder\n 61. What are the signs and symptoms of cystitis?\n Dysuria, urinary frequency and pyuria\n 62. Cystitis is confirmed by a u/a that reveals a bacterial count greater than what?\n 63. What is interstitial cystitis?\n A chronic pain disorder in the urinary bladder and surrounding region\n 64. What statement by the client with Cushing\ufffds syndrome indicates that the instructions related to dietary management were understood?\n \ufffdI can eat foods that contain potassium.\ufffd\n 65. What is a feature of Cushing syndrome?\n Increased susceptibility to infection\n 66. What causes Cushing Syndrome?\n Overstimulation of ACTH\n 67. What is hypokalema?\n Not enough potassium\n 68. What are the clinical manifestations of Cushing syndrome?\n Moonface, buffalo hump\n 69. What is striae?\n A streak or linear scar that often results from stretching of the skin\n 70. In the pt with Cushings syndrome, what results in hyperglycemia?\n Impaired carbohydrate metabolism\n 71. What type of diet is indicated for a pt with Cushings syndrome?\n Low sodium, reduce calories and carbs, and high potassium\n 72. When a nurse notes that a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has lipodystrophy on both upper thights, what information should the nurse obtain from the client?\n Plan of injection rotation.\n 73. Which client complaint would alert the nurse to a possible hypoglycemic reaction?\n 74. After several diagnostic tests, a client is diagnosed with diabetes insipidus. The nurse understands that which symptom is indicative of this disorder?\n 75. What should the pt avoid when taking tolbutamide (Orinase) for diabetes mellitus?\n 76. What disorder caused by secretion of insufficient amounts of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?\n Diabetes insipidus\n 77. What is the main problem with diabetes mellitus type 2?\n Abnormal resistance to insulin action.\n 78. In caring for a patient with diabetes mellitus who is experiencing an acute hyperglycemic reaction (diabetic ketoacidosis), what interventions would be appropriate?\n Insulin IV via infusion pump\n 79. What is diabetes insipidus?\n A disorder of the pituitary in which ADH is deficient\n 80. How much urine can a pt with diabetes insipidus lose in an hour?\n 81. What are the characteristics of diabetes insipidus?\n Polyuria and polydipsia\n 82. What is the normal serum sodium level?\n 83. What happens to urine specific gravity in a pt with diabetes insipidus?\n it drops below 1.003\n 84. How much fluid should a pt with diabetes insipidus intake?\n 2600 ml\n 85. What causes polydipisa and polyuria related to diabetes?\n Fluid shifts resulting from the osmotic effect of hyperglycemia\n 86. In planning care for a patient with type 2 diabetes admitted to the hospital with pneumonia, the nurse recognizes that the patient may have what?\n Sufficient endogenous insulin to prevent ketosis but is at risk for development of hyperosmolar coma\n 87. At what time of day is a diabetic pt at risk for hypoglycemia?\n In the late afternoon and at bedtime\n 88. What is a diabetic diet designed to do?\n Help normalize blood glucose through a balanced diet\n 89. What is an appropriate instruction or the pt with diabetes related to care of the feet?\n Inspect all surfaces of the feet daily\n 90. Which oral hypoglycemic works primarily by reducing hepatic glucose production and lowers fasting blood glucose levels?\n Metformin (Glucophage)\n 91. What types of insulin are used in an insulin pump?\n Regular and rapid-acting\n 92. How long is the onset of regular insulin (Humulin R)?\n 30 minutes to an hour\n 93. How long is the onset of action of Lispro (Humalog)?\n 15 minutes\n 94. How long is the onset of action of NPH (Humulin N)?\n 2 hours\n 95. Why is caffeine restricted in a pt with diabetes insipidus?\n Because it acts as a diuretic\n 96. What is deficient in a pt with diabetes insipidous?\n 97. What is diabetes mellitus?\n Improper metabolism of carbs, fats, and proteins\n 98. When does insulin reach its peak level?\n 30 minutes after meals and returns to normal in 2-3 hours\n 99. What is the difference between type 1 and type 2 dibetes?\n Type 1 is insulin dependent (IDDM) and Type 2 is non insulin dependent (NIDDM)\n 100. What causes IDDM?\n Destruction of beta-cell function\n 101. What are the causes of NIDDM?\n Decreased tissue, overproduction of insulin, abnormal glucose regulation\n 102. How is glucose stored?\n As glycogen in the liver\n 103. What must be present for muscle cells and other body cells to utilize glucose?\n 104. What is hyperglycemia?\n Excess glucose in the bloodstream\n 105. How does the body get rid of excess glucose in the bloodstream?\n The kidneys will excrete it in urine, called glycosuria\n 106. What is a sign of diabetic ketoacidosis?\n Fruity smell to the breath\n 107. What causes diabetic ketoacidosis?\n Acute insulin deficiency, decreased peripheral glucose utilization, increased fat mobilization and ketogenesis\n 108. What are the normal lab values for fasting blood sugar?\n 109. What amount is considered abnormal in an FBS?\n 126 or more\n 110. What does the HbA1c measure?\n The amount of glucose that has become incorporated into the hemoglobin within an erythrocyte\n 111. What is the normal lab value for HbA1c?\n 112. When is a postprandial blood sugar taken?\n 2 hours after a meal\n 113. What level may indicate the presence of DM in a PPBS?\n Plasma glucose over 160\n 114. What affects the accuracy of an oral glucose tolerance test?\n Adequate pt preparation and cooperation\n 115. What is the medical management for DM?\n Education, monitoring, meal planning, medication, exercise\n 116. What type of diet is recommended for a pt with DM?\n 45%-50% carbs, 10%-20% proteins, no more than 30% fats\n 117. What is important about food intake for pts with IDDM?\n It should be evenly distributed throughout the day\n 118. How long does exercise reduce insulin and increase glucose uptake?\n 72 hours\n 119. How often should blood glucose be monitored during the times of stress or illness?\n Every 1-2 hours\n 120. When should the pt with DM be instructed to contact their physician?\n When blood glucose level is 250 or more\n 121. When is insulin given intramuscularly?\n During diabetic ketoacidosis\n 122. What are the classifications of insulin?\n Rapid-acting, insulin apart, short-acting, intermediate acting, long acting\n 123. What is a \ufffdpeakless\ufffd insulin that provides a continous insulin level?\n 124. What is lipodystrophy?\n The loss of local fat deposits\n 125. How can a nurse prevent lipodystrophy?\n Administer insulin at room temp and rotate injection sites\n 126. How does a nurse prevent medication errors when administering insulin?\n Have the dose drawn in the syringe and checked by another nurse\n 127. What is hypoglycemia?\n Not enough glucose in the blood\n 128. What are the signs of hypoglycemia?\n Faintness, weakness, excessive perspiration, irritability, hunger, palpitations, trembling, drowsiness\n 129. What are the signs and symptoms of hyperglycemia?\n Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia\n 130. Why is insulin not injected into the muscle?\n Because it enters the bloodstream too quickly and can cause hypoglycemia\n 131. Which part of the body provides the fastest, least variable absorption?\n The abdomen\n 132. What is as close a substitute to a healthy, working pancrease?\n An insulin pump\n 133. What is a bolus of insulin?\n A quantity of insulin delivered to cover a carbohydrate meal\n 134. What is the function of metformin (glucophage)?\n It reduces hepatic glucose production and lowers fasting blood glucose levels\n 135. What must a pt have for oral hypoglycemics to be effective?\n Some function insulin production\n 136. Why is calcium gluconate prescribed for a pt after a thyroidectomy?\n To treat hypocalcemic tetany\n 137. What nursing action is appropriate for a pt after a thyroidectomy who has developed hoarseness and a weak voice?\n Reassure the client that this is usually a temporary condition.\n 138. What would require the nurse\ufffds immediate attention when caring for a postop thyroidectomy pt?\n Laryngeal stridor\n 139. A nurse is caring for a client after thyroidectomy and monitoring for signs of thyroid storm. What manifestation is associated with this disorder?\n 140. What signs or symptoms should be reported immediately to the RN/MD for further evaluation in the pt who has undergone a thyroidectomy?\n Numbness in the fingers, Heart rate of 160, Noticeable arm twitching when you took patient's blood pressure\n 141. How is a pt placed after a thyroidectomy?\n Supine with pillows supporting the head and shoulders\n 142. What two conditions should the nurse monitor for after a thyroidectomy?\n Tetany and edema\n 143. What is Chvotek\ufffds sign?\n An abnormal spasm of the facial muscles elicited by light taps on the facial nerve\n 144. What condition will cause a pt to have a positive Chvotek\ufffds sign?\n 145. What is Trousseau\ufffds sign?\n A test in which a BP cuff is inflated to above systolic BP for 3 minutes.\n 146. What will happen with a positive Trousseau\ufffds sign?\n Carpal spasm in pts with hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia\n 147. What is a thyroid storm?\n A condition in which large amounts of thyroid hormones are released\n 148. What is administered for the emergency treatment of tetany?\n Calcium gluconate\n 149. When does a thyroid crisis generally occur?\n In the first 12 hours post op\n 150. What are the signs and symptoms of a thyroid crisis?\n Nausea, vomiting, severe tachycardia, hyperthermia, exaggerated symptoms of hyperthyroidism\n 151. What are the three goals of thyroid storm management?\n Induce normal thyroid state, prevent cardiovascular collapse, prevent excessive hyperthermia\n 152. What is a sign that damage to the laryngeal nerve may have occurred in a pt who has had a thyroidectomy?\n The pt is becoming increasingly hoarse.\n 153. What is hyperthyroidism?\n Overproduction of T4 and T3\n 154. What are the clinical manifestations of hyperthyroidism?\n Edema of the anterior portion of the neck, bulging eyes\n 155. What is the diet therapy for a patient with hyperthyroidism?\n Foods high n calories, vitamins, minerals, and carbs\n 156. What does a radioactive iodine uptake test determine?\n 157. How is the radioactive iodine given?\n By mouth to the fasting patient\n 158. What is important to obtain from a patient before a radioactive iodine uptake test?\n Allergies and signed consent\n 159. What drugs are given to treat hyperthyroid?\n PTU, methimazole (Tapazole)\n 160. What is the gold standard for treating hyperthyroidism?\n Ablation therapy using radioactive iodine\n 161. How often is the thyroid checked during a RAIU?\n 2, 6 & 24 hours\n 162. What type of diet is important for a pt w/hyperthyroidism?\n Foods high in calories, vitamins, minerals, and carbs\n 163. What is hypothyroidism?\n A condition in which the thyroid fails to secrete sufficient hormones, resulting in a slowing of all of the body\ufffds metabolic processes\n 164. What type of diet is important for a patient with hypothyroidism?\n High-protein, high-fiber, low-calorie\n 165. Appropriate nursing care for the patient with hypothyroidism would include what?\n Encourage fluids\n 166. What is severe hypothyroidism called?\n 167. What should the nurse watch for in a pt w/hypothyroidism that could indicate cardiac involvement?\n Chest pain, dyspnea, changes in rate and rhythm.\n 168. Mr. A., age 71, is admitted with an exacerbation of COPD. He has dependent edema and ascites as well as dyspnea. A complication that may occur in CIPD is which some of the capillaries surrounding the alveoli are destroyed, resulting in pulmonary hypertension, blood returning to the right side of the heart, and signs and symptoms of right-sided HF is what?\n cor pulmonale\n 169. A patient with COPD asks why the heart is affected by the respiratory disease. The nurse\ufffds response to the patient is based on the knowledge that cor pulmonale is characterized by what?\n right ventricular hypertrophy secondary to increased pulmonary vascular resistance\n 170. Ineffective airway clearance related to tracheobronchial obstruction and/or secretions is a nursing diagnosis for a patient with COPD. Which of the following are correct?\n Offer small, frequent, high-calorie, high-protein feedings. Encourage generous fluid intake. Have patient turn and cough every 2 hours;; teach effective coughing technique.\n 171. A nurse is caring for a client hospitalized with acute exacerbation of COPD. Which of the following would the nurse expect to note in evaluating the client?\n A hyper inflated chest on x-ray\n 172. Mr. F., age 52, had a laryngectomy due to cancer of the larynx. Discharge instructions are give to Mr. F. and his family. Which response, by written communication from Mr. F, or verbal response by the family, will be a signal to the nurse that the instructions need to be decalcified?\n It is acceptable to take over-the-counter medications now that conditions are stable.\n 173. What is orthopnea?\n A condition in which a person must sit or stand to breathe deeply or comfortably\n 174. What are the signs and symptoms of left-sided heart failure?\n Crackles, SOB, pink-frothy sputum, orthopnea, pulmonary edema\n 175. What is the number one dysrhythmia that occurs with an arterial embolism?\n 176. What is the most serious type of dysrhythmia?\n Ventricular fibrillation\n 177. Why would a physician perform carotid massage on a patient with a diagnosis of rapid rate atrial fibrillation? The procedure may stimulate the vagus nerve to slow the heart rate.\n 178. What is atrial fibrillation?\n A very rapid production of atrial impulses characterized by an atrial rate of 350 to 600 beats per minute (atria fibrillates or quivers rather than contracts)\n 179. What is ventricular fibrillation?\n Occurs when the ventricular musculature of the heart is quivering\n 180. What happens during atrial fibrillation?\n The atria quivers instead of contracts\n 181. What is cardiomyopathy?\n A term used to describe a group of heart muscle diseases that primarily affects the structural or functional ability of the myocardium\n 182. What are the primary forms of cardiomyopathy?\n Dilated (ventricular), hypertrophic (increased heart size), and restrictive (ventricular walls are rigid)\n 183. What are the secondary forms of cardiomyopathy?\n Infective, metabolic, nutritional, alcohol, peripartum, drugs, lupus, rheumatoid arthritis, \ufffdcrack\ufffd heart\n 184. What are the most common signs and symptoms of cardiomyopathy?\n Angina, syncope, fatigue, and dyspnea on exertion\n 185. What is a dysrhythmia?\n Any cardiac rhythm that deviates from normal sinus rhythm\n 186. How is tachycardia characterized?\n Heartbeat of 100-150 or more per minute\n 187. How is bradycardia characterized?\n By a pulse rate of fewer than 60 beats per minute\n 188. What is supraventricular tachycardia?\n The sudden onset of a rapid heartbeat characterized by a pulse rate of 150-250 beats per minute.\n 189. What is an arterial aneurysm?\n An enlarged, dilated portion of an artery\n 190. Why is the aorta prone to aneurysm?\n Because it is continuously exposed to high pressures\n 191. What is the first priority of care for a patient with an aneurysm?\n Control of hypertension\n 192. What are the nursing interventions of a patient diagnose with acute infective endocarditis?\n Restricted activity for several weeks.\n 193. What is endocarditis?\n An infection of inflammation of the inner membranous lining of the heart, valves\n 194. What are the signs and symptoms of endocarditis?\n Flu-like symptoms, undue fatigue, chest pain, headaches, petechia, oral mucosa\n 195. What is cardiogenic shock?\n Pump failure; Complication of MI and heart failure\n 196. Why was the term \ufffdcongestive heart failure\ufffd changed to just \ufffdheart failure\ufffd?\n Because not every patient suffering from heart failure has pulmonary congestion\n 197. How is nitroglycerin administered?\n PO, 1 tablet every 5 minutes times 3.\n 198. What is the first step to determine why a patient isn\ufffdt compliant with their meds?\n Ask them why they aren\ufffdt taking their meds\n 199. What symptoms are seen in angina pectoris?\n Chest pain that radiates down the left arm, dypsnea, anxiety, apprehension, diaphoresis and nausea\n 200. What would you expect to see in a patient with suspected cocaine use?\n An enlarged heart\n 201. What should be assessed in a patient before they are sent to the cardiac cath lab?\n Any allergies\n 202. When is the hormone b-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) released?\n It\ufffds secreted by the heart in response to pressure overload as in a heart failure\n 203. What type of medication is nitroglycerin?\n A vasodilator \ufffd it will lower BP\n 204. What are the signs and symptoms of left-sided heart failure?\n 205. What are the signs and symptoms of right-sided heart failure?\n Edema in legs, jugular vein distention, liver enlargement, ascites\n 206. What are the signs and symptoms of right-sided heart failure?\n Edema in legs, jugular vein distention, liver enlargement, ascites\n 207. What should a postmyocardial patient being prepared for discharge be instructed to do?\n Begin a cardiac rehab program\n 208. What is the primary function of patient teaching following a myocardial infarction?\n To assist the patient to develop a healthy lifestyle\n 209. What is an important nursing intervention when caring for a patient with remote telemetry?\n Never remove telemetry and allow patient to shower unless physician has written the order to allow a shower\n 210. What is the name of the neurohormone released from the left ventricle in response to volume expansion and pressure overload that has emerged as the blood marker for the identification of individuals with CHF?\n B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)\n 211. What is the normal range for B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)?\n 0 to 100 pg/ml\n 212. What is a myocardial muscle protein released into circulation after myocardial injury and is useful in diagnosing a myocardial infarction?\n Tropin l\n 213. What typical vital signs will display in a patient presenting with a myocardial infarction?\n Hypertension, tachycardia, weakened pulse, temperature elevation\n 214. What cardiac markers is specific to the heart, not influenced by skeletal muscle trauma or renal failure, and rises 3 hours following a myocardial infarction?\n Troponin I\n 215. What nursing care is followed for a patient with myocardial infarction?\n Bedrest with commode privileges for 24 to 48 hours.\n 216. What breath sounds would a nurse expect to hear in a patient with myocardial infarction who suddenly becomes tachycardic and shows signs of air hunger?\n 217. What is a myocardial infarction?\n An occlusion of a major coronary artery\n 218. How long does it take myocardial cells to die?\n 4-6 hours\n 219. Jaundice results when there is an excess amount of what in the bloodstream?\n 220. What is the preferred diagnostic test for visualizing the biliary tree in a pt with jaundice?\n Gallbladder ultrasound\n 221. What is multiple myeloma?\n Bone marrow cancer that metastasizes to the bone\n 222. What labs should the nurse monitor in a pt with multiple myeloma?\n Calcium\ufffdwatch for hypercalcemia\n 223. What is the best food item to administer with oral iron supplements?\n Orange juice\n 224. What nursing intervention should be incorporated into the plan of care for a child with aplastic anemia with WBC of 6000 and platelet of 27,000/mm?\n Encourage quiet play activities\n 225. What test is used to detect pernicious anemia?\n Schilling test\n 226. What would a nurse expect to specifically note with in a pt with a diagnosis of multiple myeloma?\n Increased calcium level\n 227. What is a priority nursing intervention for the client with multiple myeloma?\n Encourage fluids\n 228. What intervention is a priority in the nursing plan of care for a pt with thrombocytopenia?\n Monitor the client for bleeding\n 229. What medication is given to the patients with sickle cell anemia?\n IV Dulodid\n 230. What does anemia cause?\n Delivery of insufficient amounts of oxygen to tissues and cells\n 231. What is pernicious anemia?\n The absence of a glycoprotein intrinsic factor secreted by the gastric mucosa\n 232. What is thrombocytopenia?\n Blood platelets below 150,000\n 233. What is sickle cell anemia?\n An illness in which the blood cells shape in crescents and get stuck to one another and occlude vessels\n 234. What would the nurse expect to find during the physical assessment of a pt with thrombocytopenia?\n Petechiae and purpura\n 235. What is an important nursing intervention goal to establish for a person who has iron deficiency anemia?\n Alternate periods of rest and activity to balance oxygen supply and demand\n 236. What is a nursing intervention for a pt during a sickle cell crisis?\n Administration of large doses of continuous opioid analgesics\n 237. What foods should be included in the diet of a pt with iron deficiency anemia?\n Dark green leafy veggies ad organ meats\n 238. In addition to the general symptoms of anemia, the pt with pernicious anemia also manifests what?\n Neurological symptoms\n 239. What statement by the pt with pernicious anemia would indicate the she has understood the teaching?\n \ufffdI\ufffdll have to take B12 shots for the rest of m life.\ufffd\n 240. What type of data indicates that iron deficiency anemia is not currently managed effectively?\n 241. In a pt with sickle cell anemia, why does the sickling crisis not stop when oxygen therapy is started?\n when red cells sickle, they occlude small vessels, which causes more local hypoxia and more sickling\n 242. How is a pt positioned during a needle liver biopsy?\n Supine with the right arm over the head\n 243. What is the most common form of hepatitis, having an incubation period of 10-40 days.\n Hepatitis A\n 244. What snack choices would be appropriate for a pt suffering from acute pancreatitis?\n Reduced fat cheese and whole wheat crackers\n Gallbladder ultrasound\n 246. How is the pt instructed to breathe during a needle liver biopsy?\n Exhale fully and not breathe while the needle is inserted\n 247. What causes jaundice in a pt?\n An excess of bilirubin\n 248. What is a needle liver biopsy?\n A test in which a needle is inserted into the liver between the 6 & 7 or 7 & 8 intercostal spaces\n 249. After a cholesysectomy, why would a pt complain about shoulder pain?\n Diaphragmatic irritation secondary to residual carbon dioxide\n 250. What is jaundice?\n The appearance of yellowish skin, discoloration of the sclera and mucous membranes\n 251. What is the best form of preventing hepatitis A & B?\n 252. What is a critical aspect nursing interventions following a liver transplantation?\n Monitor for infection\n 253. What vitamins are given intravenously with fluids for the dehydrated hepatitis pt?\n C (healing), B (assists liver to absorb vit), K (blood clotter)\n 254. What can happen to a pt after a liver transplant, who has liver disease secondary to viral hepatitis?\n They often experience reinfection of the transplanted liver with hepatitis B or C\n 255. What are the signs and symptoms of hepatitis?\n General malaise, aching muscles, headaches, chills, abdominal pain, dyspepsia, nausea, diarrhea and constipation.\n 256. What would be an appropriate nursing intervention in a pt with viral hepatitis and no appetite?\n Offer small, frequent meals\n 257. What immunosuppressant drug is utilized in the success of a liver transplant?\n 258. What are the major postop complications of a liver transplant?\n Rejection and infection\n 259. How is hepatitis diagnosed?\n A normal lab test will be negative for the presence of the antigen\n 260. How is hepatitis G spread?\n Unsafe tattooing or piercing; coinfection of Hepatitis C\n 261. How is hepatitis B spread?\n Through contaminated blood transfusion, direct contact with body fluids, sexual contact\n 262. What are the nursing interventions following a liver biopsy?\n Ensure that platelet, clotting or bleeding time or okay and report any abnormal lab values to the doc; observe for the symptoms of bleeding\n 263. How is hepatitis A spread?\n Through the fecal-oral route, usually by contaminated food\n 264. How is hepatitis E spread?\n Oral-fecal route; spreads through fecal contamination of water\n 265. Following a liver biopsy, how long is a pt to lay on their right side?\n A minimum of 2 hours to splint the puncture site\n 266. How is hepatitis D spread?\n Coinfection of hepatitis B\n 267. What infection control method would be priority to include in the plan of care to prevent hepatitis B in a pt considered to be at high risk for exposure?\n Hepatitis B vaccine\n 268. What type of hepatitis is contracted from contaminated food?\n Hepatitis A\n 269. What should the nurse encourage in order to provide adequate nutrition to a pt with viral hepatitis, who is complaining of loss of apetite?\n Increase intake of fluids\n 270. What signs or symptoms would a nurse expect to note in a pt with acute viral hepatitis?\n 271. What physician order would a nurse verify on the chart of a pt with acute pancreatitis?\n Morphine sulfate for pain\n 272. What position will aggravate the pain in a pt with acute pancreatitis?\n Lying flat\n 273. What foods are allowed for a pt with hepatic encephalopathy?\n Toast, cereal, rice, tea, fruit, juice, and hard candies\n 274. What nursing interventions are included in planning care for a pt with metastatic cancer of the liver?\n Focus primarily on symptomatic and comfort measures\n 275. What is the treatment for cancer of the liver?\n 276. What do most pts already have when diagnosed with cancer of the liver?\n 277. What are the signs and symptoms of cirrhosis?\n Dyspepsia, changes in bowel habits, gradual weight loss, ascites, enlarged spleen and spider telangiectases\n 278. What causes ascites?\n Portal hypertension and hypoalbumin\n 279. What is the number one drug of choice for alieving pain of pancreatitis?\n 280. What is cirrhosis?\n A chronic, degenerative disease of the liver in which the lobes are covered with fibrous tissue and the lobules are infiltrated with fat\n 281. What are the signs and symptoms of cholecystitis and cholelithiasis?\n Low grade fever, elevated leukocyte count, clay-colored stools that contain fat, dark amber urine\n 282. What is hepatic encephalopathy?\n Brain damage caused by liver disease where there is ammonia intoxication\n 283. What are the various forms of cirrhosis?\n Alcoholic, postnecrotic, primary biliary, secondary biliary, cardiac\n 284. What type of diet is prescribed for a pt with hepatic encephalopathy?\n Very low protein to no protein diet\n 285. What is ascites?\n An accumulation of fluid and albumin in the peritoneal cavity\n 286. What is cholecystitis?\n An inflammation of the gallbladder\n 287. How can pain from pancreatitis be alleviated?\n By flexing the trunk, leaning forward from a sitting position, or by assuming the fetal position\n 288. Why is it especially important for the pt to cough and deep breathe postoperatively following an open cholecystectomy?\n The pt tends to take shallow breaths due to the placement of the incision\n 289. What will the administration of analgesic morphine cause in pts with acute pancreatitis?\n Spasms of the sphincter of Oddi\n 290. Hepatitis types B,C,D, & G are spread mainly through which routes?\n Blood transfusions, contaminated needles and instruments, direct contact with body fluids from infected people\n 291. What nursing diagnoses could be related to a liver needle biopsy?\n Pain, related to leakage of blood and bile into the peritoneal cavity\n 292. When caring for a pt with hepatic encephalopathy the nurse may give enemas, provide a low-protein diet, and limit physical activity. Why are these measures taken?\n To decrease the production of ammonia\n 293. In hepatic encephalopathy, what is the nurse assessing for when she requests the pt stretch out the arm and hyperextend the wrist with the fingers separated, relaxed, and extended to see whether rapid, irregular flexion and extension (flapping) of the wrist occur?\n 294. Which types of hepatitis now have vaccines for prevention?\n A & B\n 295. Why is a T-tube inserted during a cholecystectomy?\n To keep the duct open and allow drainage\n 296. What type of food is limited in a pt with advanced cirrhosis of the liver?\n 297. Following a laparoscopic cholecystecomty, what should the pt report?\n Bile-colored drainage or pus from any incision\n 298. Why is lactulose given to a pt with hepatic encephalopathy?\n It decreases the bowel\ufffds pH thus decreasing the production of bacteria within the bowel\n 299. What is the stool and urine color of a pt who is jaundiced?\n Dark tea-colored urine and clay-colored stools\n 300. When caring for a pt with acute pancreatitis, what lab reports may be anticipated?\n Hypoalbuminemia, hyperglycemia, and elevated hematocrit and leykocytosis\n 301. What is the nurses response to a pt with advanced cirrhosis who asks why his abdomen is so swollen?\n Portal hypertension and hypoalbuminemia cause a fluid shift into the peritoneal space\n 302. What labs are taken for cirrhosis?\n PT INR\n 303. What is the post op care for an open cholecystectomy?\n Monitor vital signs and observe dressing for exudates or hemorrhage\n 304. What is hepatitis?\n An inflammation of the liver resulting from several types of viral agents or exposure to toxic substances\n 305. How is hepatitis C spread?\n Needle sticks, contaminated blood transfusions\n 306. Why is neomycin given to a pt with hepatic encephalopathy?\n To reduce the bacterial flora of the colon\n 307. What is pancreatitis?\n Inflammation of the pancreas and may be acute or chronic\n 308. What types of drugs are avoided until the liver regains adequate function?\n Drugs that are normally detoxified in the liver\n 309. What is a cholesystectomy?\n A procedure to remove the gallbladder\n 310. What two major factors are most commonly associated with pancreatitis?\n Alcoholism and biliary tract disease\n 311. What are the signs and symptoms of pancreatitis?\n Severe abdominal pain radiating to the back; low-grade fever, vomiting, jaundice, weight loss, steatorrhea, and tachycardia\n 312. What is the primary use of nonabsorbable antibiotics as preparation for bowel surgery?\n To reduce the bacterial flora in the colon\n 313. What is the most important nursing intervention to decrease post op edema and pain in a male pt following an inguinal herniorraphy?\n Elevation of the scrotum with a support or small pillow\n 314. How is hernia reduced?\n Returned to its original position by manipulation\n 315. When can a temp colostomy be closed?\n 6 weeks to 3 months after the initial procedure\n 316. What is the treatment of diverticulus disease when muscle atrophy is responsible?\n Low-residue diet, stool softeners, and bed rest\n 317. How can dumping syndrome be relieved?\n Eating 6 small meals without fluids and by lying down after eating to slow the movement of food\n 318. What are the types of hernias?\n Ventral, femoral, inguinal and umbilical\n 319. What is a hernia?\n A protrusion of a viscus through an abnormal opening or a weakened area in the wall of a cavity\n 320. What is an incarcerate hernia?\n One that cannot be returned to its original position\n 321. What is the difference between ulcerative colitis and Crohn\ufffds disease?\n Ulcerative colitis is curable with a colectomy; Chrohn\ufffds often recurs after surgery\n 322. How would a stoma appear if a prolapse occurred?\n Protruding and swollen\n 323. Dumping syndrome is a disorder associated with what condition?\n Following gastric resection or peptic ulcer surgery\n 324. What is a nursing diagnosis for a pt with ulcerative colitis?\n Imbalanced nutrition, less than body related to bowel hyper\n 325. What is diverticulitis?\n The inflammation of one or more diverticula\n 326. What are the sings and symptoms of dumping syndrome?\n Diphoresis, nausea, vomiting, explosive diarrhea, borborygmi and dyspepsia\n 327. Which nursing measure will the nurse instruct the pt to follow to help prevent dumping syndrome?\n Limit the fluids taken with meals\n 328. What recommendations for food choices would you give a pt who has been diagnosed with diverticulosis as a result of muscle thickening and increased intracolonic pressure?\n Bran, fruits and vegetables\n 329. What are the difficulties of the hiatal hernia pt?\n Gastroesophageal reflux, heartburn, strangulation, infarction and ulceration\n 330. What is diverticulosis?\n The presence of pouchlike herniations\n 331. What is a hiatal hernia?\n A protrusion of the stomach through the diaphragm\n 332. What symptoms will indicate the occurrence of dumping syndrome?\n Sweating and pallor\n 333. What is ulcerative colitis?\n Abcessess in the rectum and up through the large intestine\n 334. What is dumping syndrome?\n A condition of weakness and sweating following eating related to rapid emptying of the stomach\n 335. What is the treatment for diverticulus when muscle thickening is responsible?\n High-fiber diet of bran, fruits and veggies\n 336. What lab values are decreased as a sign of a fat embolism?\n Hemoglobin and hematocrit\n 337. What are the signs and symptoms of a fat embolism?\n Chest pain, localized muscle weakness, spasticity and rigidity, all especially if a pt has multiple broken bones\n 338. What medications are used to control RA?\n Antiinflammatory drugs and aspirin\n 339. When may a prothesis be fitted?\n 2 or 3 weeks post op\n 340. Besides joints, what other systems can RA affect?\n Lung, heart, blood vessels, muscles, eyes and skin\n 341. Why is it necessary to warp an amputated extremity?\n To facilitate proper fit and use of a prothesis\n 342. What type of disease is RA?\n A chronic, systemic disease that\ufffds also though of as an autoimmune disorder\n 343. How are flexion hip contractures prevented postoperatively?\n By raising the foot of the bed slightly\n 344. How much sleep is recommended for a pt with RA?\n 8-10 hours a nig and a 2 hour nap during the day\n 345. What is the most common type of fracture treated in the hospital?\n Hip fracture\n 346. How is a fat embolism formed?\n When a bone breaks, the fat deposits in the marrow are released into the bloodstream\n 347. What is an extracapsular fracture?\n When a fracture occurs outside of the hip joint capsule\n 348. What is an impacted fracture?\n Where one bone fragment is forcibly impacted into another bone fragment\n 349. What is compartment syndrome?\n The progressive development of arterial vessel compression and reduced blood supply to an extremity\n 350. What are signs of a hip fracture?\n Inability to move the leg voluntarily, and shortening or external rotation of the leg\n 351. What is a transverse fracture?\n A break that runs directly across the bone\n 352. What are the signs of compartment syndrome?\n inability to flex the fingers or toes, coolness of the extremity and absence of a pulse\n 353. What is an oblique fracture?\n A break along the slant of the bone at a 45 degree angle\n 354. What is an intrascapular fracture?\n When the femur is broken inside the joint\n 355. What is a comminuted fracture?\n The bone is splintered into three or more fragments at the site of the break\n 356. What is the maximum elevation for the head of bed on a hip fracture patient?\n 45 degrees\n 357. How high can a limb with compartment syndrome be elevated?\n No higher than the heart\n 358. What is a complete fracture?\n A fracture entirely through the bone\n 359. Why does phantom pain occur?\n Because the nerve tracks that register pain in the amputated area continue to send a message to the brain\n 360. What diagnostic tests are performed prior to an amputation?\n CBC, BUN, potassium levels, urinalysis\n 361. In a pt with gout, what is the fluid intake increased to?\n 2000 ml\n 362. What is gout?\n A metabolic disease resulting from an accumulation of uric acid in the blood\n 363. What is a greenstick fracture?\n An incomplete fracture; the bone is only broken on one side\n 364. What is a spiral fracture?\n Where the break coils around the bone\n 365. What are the three compartment of the knee?\n Medial (inside), lateral (outside), patello-femoral (kneecap)\n 366. What is a unicompartmental knee arthroplasty?\n A partial knee replacement\n 367. What is a knee arthroplasty?\n Total knee replacement\n 368. What is seen in patients with compartmental syndrome?\n Absence of pulsation in the affected extremity\n 369. When does physical therapy begin following a partial knee replacement?\n The first day after surgery\n 370. Who is a partial knee replacement recommended for?\n Select pts 50 years and older\n 371. What is colchine used for?\n To treat gout\n 372. Which diagnostic test is used to assist in the confirmation of RA?\n 373. Who is not a candidate for a partial knee replacement?\n Pts with RA or lupus\n 374. When can a pt bear weight on the leg following a prosthetic hip replacement?\n 6 weeks to 3 months\n 375. What causes gout?\n Eating too many organ meats, yeast, herring, mackerel and scallops\n 376. What is RA?\n Most serious form of arthritis and leads to severe crippling\n 377. What is the preoperative preparations focused on prior to an amputation?\n The pts physical and emotional status\n 378. When is a lumbar puncture contraindicated?\n In a pt with suspected brain tumor or ICP\n 379. What is the earliest sign of ICP?\n Change in level of consciousness\n 380. What happens to vital signs in ICP?\n Increased BP, decreased Pulse, decreased respirations\n 381. What is the first, most subtle clue to trouble in ICP?\n Pupils reacting sluggishly\n 382. What type of pupil should be reported immediately?\n A blown pupil\n 383. What is Cushing\ufffds response?\n Widened pulse pressure, increased systolic BP, & bradycardia\n 384. What type of respirations are related to the level of brainstem compression or failure?\n Sterterous or Cheyne-stokes\n 385. What is the first step to manage ICP?\n Ensuring adequate oxygenation to support brain function\n 386. What three types of medications are used to treat ICP?\n Osmotic diuretics, corticosteroids, and anticonvulsants\n 387. How is a pt with ICP placed?\n Head of bed 30-45 degrees to promote venous return\n 388. Why is hip flexion avoided in a pt with ICP?\n It causes increased pressure\n 389. What medication actually reduces ICP?\n 390. How should a pt with ICP breathe when moving?\n They should exhale\n 391. What is atelectasis?\n The collapse of lung tissue that prevents respiratory exchange of CO2 & O2 most often occurring after surgery\n 392. How often is incentive spirometer recommended for a pt with atelectasis?\n 10 x\ufffds every hour while awake\n 393. How does chemotherapy work?\n By interfering with the cells\ufffd ability to multiply or reproduce\n 394. What is a common problem for a pt receiving chemo?\n 395. What does a temp of 100 or more indicate in the pt receiving chemo?\n An impending infection\n 396. What is one of the most common complications of the mouth of a chemo pt?\n Swallowing problems and systemic infections\n 397. What should the chemo pt rinse their mouth with every 2-4 hours?\n Normal saline or sodium bicarbonate\n 398. What should the pt taking chemo do to prevent lung infection?\n Cough, deep breathe, use incentive spirometer\n 399. What two types of colony-stimulating factors can prevent or manage neutropenia?\n G-CSF & GM-CSF\n 400. Why is fatigue a major problem for pts on chemo who have anemia?\n Decreased oxygenation to tissues from the decreased hemoglobin\n 401. What is tumor lysis syndrome?\n Rapid lysis of malignant cells as a result of chemotherapy\n 402. When is a pillow placed under a pt\ufffds head postoperatively?\n After the pt is fully conscious\n 403. Why is the postop pts head of bed raised to a 45 degree angle?\n To prevent aspirating of vomit\n 404. What is the first thing a nurse should do if she notices her pt going into shock?\n Administer oxygen\n 405. What is dehiscence?\n Separation of a surgical incision or rupture of a wound closure\n 406. What are the signs and symptoms of atelectasis?\n Chest pain, fever, productive cough or dyspnea\n 407. What is the acceptable urine output level postoperatively?\n 30 ml per hour\n 408. Why is preoperative teaching important?\n Wound healing then occurs more rapidly\n 409. When is preoperative pt teaching completed?\n 1-2 days before surgery\n 410. What type of drugs reduce spasms of smooth muscles and decrease gastric, bronchial, and salivary secretions?\n 411. What is urticaria?\n Presence of wheals or hives in an allergic reaction\n 412. What are wheals?\n Round elevations of the skin that are white in the center and pale red peripherally\n 413. What are the clinical manifestations of urticaria?\n Pruritus, edema and burning pain\n 414. What drugs can provide relief from urticaria?\n Antihistamine and epinephrine\n 415. What is hypovolemic shock?\n Severe blood and fluid loss makes the heart unable to pump enough blood to the body\n 416. What are the signs and symptoms of hypovolemic shock?\n Cool, clammy skin, anxiety, confusion, decreased urine output\n 417. What medications are given to a pt to treat hypovolemic shock?\n Dopamine, dobutamine, epinephrine and norepinephrine\n 418. What causes hypovolemic shock?\n Blood loss from injuries, burns, diarrhea, vomiting\n 419. What is the most common sign of a UTI in an elderly patient?\n 420. What chronic conditions can predispose a pt to recurrent UTI\ufffds?\n DM, MS, spinal cord injuries, hypertension, kidney disease\n 421. What are the common signs and symptoms of a UTI?\n Urgency, frequency, burning, hematuria\n 422. What type of UTI is a bladder infection?\n 423. What type of UTI is a kidney infection?\n 424. What is urosepsis?\n Septic poisoning due to retention and absorption of urinary products in the tissues\n\nCard Set Information\n\nMed Surg Final.txt\n2010-02-23 02:57:29\nMed Surg Final Exam\n\nMed Surg Final Exam\nShow\u00a0Answers:\n\nHome > Flashcards > Print Preview |
__label__positive Food-where does it come from Worksheet-3\n\nFood-where does it come from Worksheet-3\n\n\nFill in the blanks:\n\n 1. _______ is the other name of maize.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\n 2. In cold regions, people mostly drink ________ milk.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\n 3. Squirrels use their teeth to _______ food such as nuts.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\n 4. Wheat, rice etc are known as ________.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\n\n\nMultiple-Choice Question:\n\n 1. Identify the great French chemist who developed the process of \u201cpasteurization\u201d.\n\n(A) Charles Darwin\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\n\n(B) Louis Pasteur\n\n(C) Watson and Crick\n\n\n 1. The stem of potato plant is eaten as vegetable. There is a specific name given to the stem of potato plants. What is it?\n\n(A) Tuber\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 (B) Bulb\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 (C) Rhizome\n\n\n 1. Which of the following country produces almost half of the world\u2019s harvest of maize?\n\n(A) United States\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 (B) Australia\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 (C) Japan\n\n\n 1. Which of the following dairy product is prepared by churning fresh cream?\n\n(A) Ghee\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 (B) Butter\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 (C) Cheese\n\n\n 1. Animals that eat only plants and plant products are known as:\n\n(A) Herbivores\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 (B) Carnivores\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 (C) Omnivores\n\n\n 1. The mouth-part of butterflies and humming are shaped like ____ that helps them in sucking nectar from flowers.\n\n(A) Pipe\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 (B) Roll\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 (C) Straw\n\n\n 1. What kind of teeth do lions and tigers have that helps them to tear flesh?\n\n(A) Curved and pointed front teeth\n\n(B) Wide and blunt front teeth\n\n(C) Sharp and pointed front teeth (canines)\n\n\nMultiple Choice Questions: With More than one option:\n\n 1. Mark the plants whose flowers are consumed as food.\n\n(A) Broccoli\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 \u00a0 \u00a0 \u00a0 \u00a0\u00a0 (B) Ginger \u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 \u00a0 (C) Potato\n\n(D) Garlic\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 \u00a0 \u00a0 \u00a0 \u00a0\u00a0 (E) Pumpkin\n\n\n 1. Chicken eggs are rich sources of:\n\n(A) Proteins\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 (B) Carbohydrates\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 (C) Fats\n\n(D) Minerals\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 \u00a0 \u00a0 \u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 (E) Vitamins\n\n\n 1. Mark the herbivorous animals.\n\n(A) Cow\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 (B) Rabbits\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 (C) Dog\n\n(D) Sheep\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 (E) Human being\n\n\n 1. Mark the omnivorous animals.\n\n(A) Human being\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 (B) Bear\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 \u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 \u00a0 \u00a0 \u00a0 \u00a0 \u00a0\u00a0 (C) Jackals\n\n(D) Giraffe\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 (E) Crow\n\n\n\n 1. We should eat same variety of food in order to stay healthy.\n 2. Different parts of a plant serve as the source of food.\n 3. Honey is a sweet liquid produced by bees from the nectar of flowers.\n 4. Animals depend on plants and other animals for their food.\n 5. Deer are herbivores.\n 6. All the animals have same feeding habits.\n\n\nAnswer key:\n\n 1. Corn\n 2. Yak\u2019s/ Yaks/ Yak\n 3. Gnaw\n 4. cereal/ cereals\n 5. (B)\n 6. (A)\n 7. (A)\n 8. (B)\n 9. (A)\n 10. (C)\n 11. (C)\n 12. (A,E)\n 13. (A,E)\n 14. (A,B,D)\n 15. (A,B,E)\n 16. False\n 17. True\n 18. True\n 19. True\n 20. True\n 21. False |
__label__positive A Long and Illustrious History Test 5\n\nTime Left: 00:00:00\n\nYour Time: 00:00:00\n\nWhich Battle does the Bayeux Tapestry commemorate?\n\nWhich of the following countries were not on the allies side during the Second World War?\n\nWhich statement out of the following do you think about early 20th century Britain is NOT true?\n\nWhat was the name of the horrific battle of 1916 that had casualties over 60,000 British soldiers on the very first day?\n\nWho was elected Prime Minister in May 2010?\n\nWhat is the name of the modern political party which is sometimes referred by the name Tories?\n\nElizabeth-I was born to __________\n\nIn what way the balance of power between monarch and Parliament altered by the Bill of Rights?\n\nDuke of Wellington defeated Napoleon in 1815 which brought an end to the French Wars. Which of the following wars was that?\n\nSince which year did The Bill of Rights come into effect?\n\nWhich of the following statements is true about Anne Boleyn?\n\nWhich of these statements is true?\n\nFrom the given list of statements, identify the two factors that contributed to the emergence of a strong middle class in Britain.\n\nBritish army was eventually defeated by the North American colonists. In which year did Britain recognise these colonies?\n\nWilliam, Duke of Normandy lost his life in the Battle of Hastings.\n\nWhat is the term used for defining voting rights of every adult male and female?\n\nIs the statement below TRUE or FALSE?\n\nKingdoms of Anglo-Saxon communities were widespread in Wales and Scotland.\n\nSince how long were the Romans remained in Britain?\n\nIn which year was Margaret Thatcher first elected as Conservative MP?\n\nFill the gap with appropriate choice from the following. The prehistoric village of Skara Brae is situated in _____________.\n\nThe religious reforms of the Church of England that was introduced by Charles I, were agreed upon by the Puritans.\n\nA monastery on the Isle of Skye was founded by St Columba.\n\nNearly 28,000 Indian origin deportees from which country Britain admitted during 1970?\n\nWhat does it mean by Magna Carta? |
__label__positive 2013 December UGC NET Solved Question Paper in Social Medicine and Community Health, Paper III\n\n1. India is on the verge of eradicating which of the following diseases?\n\n(A) Poliomyelitis\n\n(B) Leprosy\n\n(C) Malaria\n\n(D) Lymphatic Filariasis\n\nAnswer: (A)\n\n\n2. Which of the following is a conditional cash transfer scheme implemented at the ICDs level?\n\n(A) Kishori Shakti Yojana\n\n(B) Rajiv Gandhi Scheme for employment of adolescent girls\n\n(C) Indira Gandhi Matratva Sahayog Yojana\n\n(D) Nutrition Programme for adolescent girls\n\nAnswer: (C)\n\n\n3. The most effective tool for measuring incidence of a disease in community is\n\n(A) Case control study\n\n(B) Cohort study\n\n(C) Cross sectional study\n\n(D) Retrospective study\n\nAnswer: (B)\n\n\n4. The relationship between prevalence incidence and duration of an illness for stable condition is expressed as\n\n(A) Prevalence = Incidence + duration\n\n(B) Prevalence = Incidence \u2013 duration\n\n(C) Prevalence =\n\n(D) Prevalence = Incidence \u00d7 duration\n\nAnswer: (D)\n\n\n5. Panchayati Raj at village level includes following bodies excepts:\n\n(A) Gram Sabha\n\n(B) Lok Sabha\n\n(C) Gram Panchayat\n\n(D) Nyaya Sabha\n\nAnswer: (B)\n\n\n6. Declaration of the Rights of the Child was adopted in 1959 by\n\n\n\n\n(D) United Nations\n\nAnswer: (D)www.netugc.com\n\n\n7. If a drug prevents mortality but does not give complete cure of a disease, then the effect will be\n\n(A) Increase in Incidence\n\n(B) Increase in Prevalence\n\n(C) Decrease in Incidence\n\n(D) Decrease in Prevalence\n\nAnswer: (B)\n\n\n8. In Biostatistics all are the parameters excepts\n\n(A) \u03bc\n\n(B) N\n\n(C) \u03c3\n\n(D) n\n\nAnswer: (D)\n\n\n9. Giving access to the suitable environment for ready expression of genes is called\n\n(A) Eugenics\n\n(B) Population Genetics\n\n(C) Euthenics\n\n(D) Human Genome Project\n\nAnswer: (C)\n\n\n10. All the following are criteria for identifying \u201cat risk\u201d infants except:\n\n(A) Birth weight less than 2.5 kg\n\n(B) Birth order of 3 or more\n\n(C) Weight below 70% of the expected weight.\n\n(D) Failure to gain weight during three successive months.\n\nAnswer: (B)\n\n11. The study of time, place, person distribution of a disease is known as\n\n(A) Descriptive Epidemiology\n\n(B) Experimental Epidemiology\n\n(C) Analytical Epidemiology\n\n(D) Clinical Epidemiology\n\nAnswer: (A)\n\n\n12. \u201cYates correction\u201d is applied to\n\n(A) Standard error of mean\n\n(B) Standard error of proportion\n\n(C) Paired \u2018t\u2019 test\n\n(D) Chi square test\n\nAnswer: (D)\n\n\n13. \u201cThe relative frequencies of each gene allele tends to remain constant from generation to generation\u201d is stated by\n\n(A) Mendelian Law\n\n(B) Genotype Expression\n\n(C) Hardy Weinberg Law\n\n(D) Phenotype Expression\n\nAnswer: (C)\n\n\n14. Years of potential life lost is a type of\n\n(A) Mortality Indicator\n\n(B) Morbidity Indicator\n\n(C) Disability Indicator\n\n(D) Utilization Rate\n\nAnswer: (A)\n\n\n15. The advantages of case control studies are the following except:\n\n(A) Quick result are obtained\n\n(B) Useful in rare disease\n\n(C) Costs less\n\n(D) Relative risk can be calculated\n\nAnswer: (D)\n\n\n16. All are the types of selection bias except\n\n(A) Volunteer Bias\n\n(B) Berkesonian Bias\n\n(C) Survivorship Bias\n\n(D) Observers Bias\n\nAnswer: (D)\n\n\n17. Turners Syndrome is a Genetic disease related to abnormality of\n\n(A) Chromosome 21\n\n(B) Y chromosome\n\n(C) Any Autosome\n\n(D) x chromosome\n\nAnswer: (D)\n\n\n18. Which of the following is a event type disability indicator?\n\n(A) Limitation of mobility\n\n(B) Bed disability days\n\n(C) Limitation to perform the basic Activities of Daily Living (ADL)\n\n(D) Confinement to Bed house\n\nAnswer: (B)\n\n\n19. The ratio between incidence among exposed persons and incidence among non-exposed persons is known as\n\n(A) Odds ratio\n\n(B) Attributable risk\n\n(C) Relative risk\n\n(D) Population attributable risk\n\nAnswer: (C)\n\n\n20. Daily requirement of folic acid during pregnancy as per ICMR 2010 recommendation is\n\n(A) 500 mcg\n\n(B) 200 mcg\n\n(C) 80-120 mcg\n\n(D) 300 mcg\n\nAnswer: (A)\n\n21. Out of total tuberculosis load the percentage contribution of childhood tuberculosis is\n\n(A) < 10\n\n(B) 10 to 20\n\n(C) 30 to 40\n\n(D) \u2265 50\n\nAnswer: (B)\n\n\n22. Subjective state of the person who feels aware of not being well is referred to as\n\n(A) Dysfunction\n\n(B) Diseases\n\n(C) Sickness\n\n(D) Illness\n\nAnswer: (D)\n\n\n23. A study was started in the year 2005 in Nashik with 30,000 population of alcoholics. The occurrence of cancer amongst them was studied in 2012-13. The study design is\n\n(A) Cash control study\n\n(B) Prospective cohort study\n\n(C) Retrospective cohort study\n\n(D) Cross sectional study\n\nAnswer: (B)\n\n\n24. Protein energy ratio is maximum for\n\n(A) Fish\n\n(B) Cow milk\n\n(C) Tur dal\n\n(D) Banana\n\nAnswer: (A)\n\n\n25. The first round of the National Pulse Polio Immunisation in India was held during\n\n(A) 1985-86\n\n(B) 1990-91\n\n(C) 1995-96\n\n(D) 2000-01\n\nAnswer: (C)\n\n\n26. Handicap in children refers to an impairment or other circumstances that interfere with all except\n\n(A) Normal Growth\n\n(B) Normal Development\n\n(C) Capacity to fulfil a social role\n\n(D) Capacity to learn\n\nAnswer: (C)\n\n\n27. A verbal autopsy means\n\n(A) examination of a dead body where post mortem facilities are not available.\n\n(B) finding out the cause of death by interviewing the relative of a dead person.\n\n(C) inquest report of panchanama.\n\n(D) periodic death conference.\n\nAnswer: (B)www.netugc.com\n\n\n28. Approximate Energy Expenditure in Kcal/hour on walking 4 kilometres/hour for 60 kg reference man is\n\n(A) 132\n\n(B) 160\n\n(C) 360\n\n(D) 750\n\nAnswer: (B)\n\n\n29. Persistent carrier state for hepatitis-B refers to carriers of more than\n\n(A) 3 months\n\n(B) 6 months\n\n(C) 9 months\n\n(D) 12 months\n\nAnswer: (C)\n\n\n30. Goal No. 4 is Millennium Development Goal (MDG) related to child health is, to reduce under 5 mortality rate between 1990-2015 by\n\n\n\n\n\nAnswer: (C)\n\n\n31. One of the unsaturated fatty acids of animal origin is\n\n(A) Milk\n\n(B) Mutton\n\n(C) Eggs\n\n(D) Fish oil\n\nAnswer: (D)\n\n\n32. Which article of the constitution of India covers all health subjects enumerated in union list, concurrent list & States list?\n\n(A) 39\n\n(B) 45\n\n(C) 47\n\n(D) 246\n\nAnswer: (D)\n\n\n33. Stop TB strategy was started by WHO in\n\n(A) 1996\n\n(B) 2002\n\n(C) 2006\n\n(D) 2012\n\nAnswer: (C)\n\n\n34. Abdominal fat accumulation is indicated by waist hip ratio\n\n(A) >1 in Men 8 > 0.85 in Women\n\n(B) >1 in Men 8 > 1 in Women\n\n(C) >2 in Men 8 > 0.5 in Women\n\n(D) >1 in Men 8 > 0.5 in Women\n\nAnswer: (A)\n\n\n35. Lowest Glycemic Index Food has to be selected by an obese person. The best, amongst the following will be\n\n(A) White Bread\n\n(B) Corn Flakes\n\n(C) Beans\n\n(D) Brown rice\n\nAnswer: (C)\n\n\n36. All are the models of Health Education except\n\n(A) Socio economic model\n\n(B) Medical model\n\n(C) Motivational model\n\n(D) Social interventional model\n\nAnswer: (A)\n\n\n37. As per 2011 census when is India predicted to reach the replacement level of fertility?\n\n(A) 2016\n\n(B) 2021\n\n(C) 2026\n\n(D) 2031\n\nAnswer: (B)\n\n\n38. \u201cJai Vigyan Mission Mode\u201d project is being carried out in India for community control of\n\n(A) Stroke\n\n(B) Hypertension\n\n(C) Rheumatic Fever/Rheumatic Heart Disease\n\n(D) Cancer\n\nAnswer: (C)\n\n\n39. As per the criteria decided by WHO Anemia in children aged 6 months to 5 years is defined as Haemoglobin below the following levels in venous blood\n\n(A) 13 g/dl\n\n(B) 12.5 g/dl\n\n(C) 12 g/dl\n\n(D) 11 g/dl\n\nAnswer: (C)\n\n\n40. Interruption of transmission of disease from a large geographic area is called as\n\n(A) Elimination\n\n(B) Eradication\n\n(C) Control\n\n(D) Monitoring\n\nAnswer: (A)\n\n\n41. Which of the following states/union territories has the lowest sex ratio as per 2011 census?\n\n(A) Haryana\n\n(B) Bihar\n\n(C) Uttar Pradesh\n\n(D) Chandigarh\n\nAnswer: (D)\n\n\n42. The optimum size of base population for a population based cancer registry is in the range of\n\n(A) 0.2 \u2013 0.4 million\n\n(B) 0.4 \u2013 0.7 million\n\n(C) 1 \u2013 2 million\n\n(D) 2 \u2013 7 million\n\nAnswer: (D)\n\n\n43. NALGONDA technique is used for the removal of\n\n(A) Ergot\n\n(B) Beta Oxalyl Amino Alanine\n\n(C) Fluorine\n\n(D) Sanguinarine\n\nAnswer: (C)\n\n\n44. Population in which of the following countries has 100% access to both safe water and adequate sanitation\n\n(A) Sri Lanka\n\n(B) Maldives\n\n(C) Thailand\n\n(D) India\n\nAnswer: (A)\n\n\n45. The optimum fluorine concentration in drinking water in India in ppm is\n\n(A) < 0.5\n\n(B) 0.5 to 0.8\n\n(C) 0.9 to 1.2\n\n(D) >1.2\n\nAnswer: (B)\n\n\n46. Natural history of disease is best established by\n\n(A) Cohort study\n\n(B) Case control study\n\n(C) Randomised controlled trial\n\n(D) Prevalence study\n\nAnswer: (A)\n\n\n47. Which of the following microorganisms is not killed by pasteurisation of milk?\n\n(A) Bacillus anthracis\n\n(B) Brucella\n\n(C) Staphylococcus\n\n(D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis\n\nAnswer: (A)\n\n\n48. The number of member countries in South East Asia Region of WHO is\n\n(A) 9\n\n(B) 10\n\n(C) 11\n\n(D) 12\n\nAnswer: (C)\n\n\n49. Immunisation of mother against tetanus provides immunity to the new born for a period of\n\n(A) one month\n\n(B) three months\n\n(C) six months\n\n(D) twelve months\n\nAnswer: (C)\n\n\n50. Ability of an infectious agent to undergo multiplication in a host is\n\n(A) Virulence\n\n(B) Communicability\n\n(C) Infectivity\n\n(D) Pathogecity\n\nAnswer: (C)\n\n\n51. According to ICMR guidelines 2010 the additional energy requirements during pregnancy and lactation are respectively.\n\n(A) 350 calories and 600 calories\n\n(B) 325 calories and 500 calories\n\n(C) 250 calories and 550 calories\n\n(D) 300 calories and 450 calories\n\nAnswer: (A)\n\n\n52. What is the size of the dust particle causing pneumoconiosis?\n\n(A) 1 to 3 microns\n\n(B) 2.0 to 3.5 microns\n\n(C) 0.5 to 3 microns\n\n(D) 0.5 to 5 microns\n\nAnswer: (C)\n\n\n53. The disease Dengue fever is transmitted by\n\n(A) Anopheles mosquitoes\n\n(B) Culex mosquitoes\n\n(C) Aedes mosquitoes\n\n(D) Mansonia mosquitoes\n\nAnswer: (C)\n\n\n54. Immunization is a type of\n\n(A) Primary Prevention\n\n(B) Secondary Prevention\n\n(C) Tertiary Prevention\n\n(D) Primordial Prevention\n\nAnswer: (A)\n\n\n55. Which of the following is not a \u201cbasic activity\u201d in the management process?\n\n(A) Planning\n\n(B) Organising\n\n(C) Communicating\n\n(D) Terminal Evaluation\n\nAnswer: (D)\n\n\n56. Plant foods having highest retinol equivalents in microgms/100 gms is\n\n(A) Spinach\n\n(B) Amaranth\n\n(C) Carrot\n\n(D) Orange\n\nAnswer: (C)\n\n\n57. Lymphatic Filariasis is not a public health problem in\n\n(A) Bihar\n\n(B) Kerala\n\n(C) Jammu & Kashmir\n\n(D) Gujarat\n\nAnswer: (C)\n\n\n58. Underlying cause of death in International form of death certificate is recorded on\n\n(A) Line (a) of Part I\n\n(B) Line (b) of Part I\n\n(C) Line (c) of Part I\n\n(D) Part II\n\nAnswer: (C)\n\n\n59. \u2018Rachet Principle\u2019 is applicable in relation to\n\n(A) Performance appraisal\n\n(B) Systems analysis\n\n(C) Network analysis\n\n(D) Behaviour analysis\n\nAnswer: (A)\n\n\n60. The single must sensitive tool for evaluating iron status is by measurement of\n\n(A) MCHC percentage\n\n(B) Haemoglobin concentration\n\n(C) Serum iron concentration\n\n(D) Serum ferritin\n\nAnswer: (D)\n\n\n61. Leprosy is considered as a eliminated if the prevalence is less than\n\n(A) 1 percent\n\n(B) 1 per 1,000 population\n\n(C) 1 per 10,000 population\n\n(D) 1 per 1,00,000 population\n\nAnswer: (C)\n\n\n62. Sample Registration System (SRS) estimates of child mortality rate in India is calculated as\n\n(A) Annual no. of deaths in children below 5 years per 1000 live births.\n\n(B) Annual no. of deaths in children below 5 years per 1000 under five children.\n\n(C) Annual no. of deaths in children below 5 years per 10,000 live births.\n\n(D) Annual no. of deaths in children below 5 years.\n\nAnswer: (B)\n\n\n63. The critical path method in health planning and management refers to\n\n(A) The shortest path taken to complete the project.\n\n(B) The longest path taken to complete the project.\n\n(C) The mid-point of reviewing the project.\n\n(D) The ideal path taken to complete the project.\n\nAnswer: (B)\n\n\n64. Specificity of a screening test is the ability to correctly identify:\n\n(A) True Negatives\n\n(B) True Positives\n\n(C) False Positives\n\n(D) False Negatives\n\nAnswer: (A)\n\n\n65. Peculiarity of AIDS epidemic in North Eastern State of India is\n\n(A) Spread by homosexuality\n\n(B) Higher mother to Child transmission\n\n(C) Female preponderance\n\n(D) Transmission by IV drug abuse\n\nAnswer: (D)\n\n\n66. The recommended method of disposal of waste sharps under biomedical waste guidelines is\n\n(A) Incineration\n\n(B) Disinfection and disposal in landfill\n\n(C) Disinfection and mutilation shredding\n\n(D) Autoclaving\n\nAnswer: (C)\n\n\n67. Notification of a disease is the important source of information. The internationally notifiable disease are the following except\n\n(A) Plague\n\n(B) Yellow fever\n\n(C) Measles\n\n(D) Cholera\n\nAnswer: (C)\n\n\n68. According to NFHS-3 the approximate percentage of anaemia in women is follows:\n\n(A) 57.9%\n\n(B) 50.5%\n\n(C) 70%\n\n(D) 45.5%\n\nAnswer: (A)\n\n\n69. Approximate population of India in the year 2011 was\n\n(A) 1.11 Billion\n\n(B) 1.21 Billion\n\n(C) 1.31 Billion\n\n(D) 1.41 Billion\n\nAnswer: (B)\n\n\n70. Characteristics of waste suitable for incineration are\n\n(A) waste having low heating volume\n\n(B) halogenated plastics\n\n(C) waste with high mercury content\n\n(D) pressurised gas containers\n\nAnswer: (A)\n\n\n71. The Peak Expiratory Flow Rate (PEFR) of a group of 11 years old girls follows a normal distribution with a mean of 300 litres per minute, with a S.D. of 20 litres/min. The correct statement would be\n\n(A) All girls lungs are functioning well.\n\n(B) About 95% girls have PEFR between 260 and 340 litres/minute.\n\n(C) About 5% of the girls have PEFR below 260 litres.\n\n(D) All the PEFR must be less than 340 litres/minute.\n\nAnswer: (B)\n\n\n72. The weight of two large hen eggs without shell is about\n\n(A) 80 gmswww.netugc.com\n\n(B) 100 gms\n\n(C) 120 gms\n\n(D) 150 gms\n\nAnswer: (B)\n\n\n73. Strength of sewage is expressed in terms\n\n(A) Biochemical oxygen demand\n\n(B) Chemical oxygen demand\n\n(C) Suspended solids\n\n(D) E.coli. count\n\nAnswer: (A)\n\n\n74. Which of the following \u201cCholesterol/HDL ratio\u201d values is recommended as a clinical goal for Coronary Heat Disease prevention:\n\n(A) < 2\n\n(B) < 2.5\n\n(C) < 3.5\n\n(D) < 4\n\nAnswer: (C)\n\n\n75. Type I error is\n\n(A) Accepting a Null Hypothesis\n\n(B) Accepting a Null Hypothesis when false\n\n(C) Rejecting a Null Hypothesis\n\n(D) Rejecting a Null Hypothesis when true\n\nAnswer: (D) |
__label__positive Chemistry Test 1\n\nCard Set Information\n\nChemistry Test 1\n2012-02-05 22:06:56\nChemistry Basic Theory\n\nTCC Chem Test 1.\nShow\u00a0Answers:\n\n 1. What is the definition of a theory?\n A theory explains what happens.\n 2. What is a Law?\n A law tells what happens.\n 3. What is Chemistry?\n Chemistry is the study of matter and its changes.\n 4. What are the two properties of matter?\n Physical and Chemical.\n 5. What are the two types of Physical Properties and what do they mean.\n \u2022 Intensive - Independent of quanity\n \u2022 Extensive - Depends on the quanity.\n 6. Chemical properties are all?\n 7. What is the two types of measurements\n \u2022 Quanitative: uses numbers\n \u2022 Qualititative: uses words\n 8. When are zeros considered Significant digits?\n \u2022 Zeros are consistant when they are\n \u2022 1. between significant digits\n \u2022 2. trailing zeros behind the decimal place\n 9. What is the unit of measure for Pressure?\n 10. What are the unit of measure for Energy?\n 11. What are the unit of measure for volume?\n \u2022 For solids it is measured in cubic meters\n \u2022 For Liquids it is measured in mLs\n 12. What is the formula for Density?\n Density = Mass/Volume\n 13. What are the 3 states of matter?\n Solid, Liquid, Gas\n 14. What are the 3 groups of matter?\n \u2022 1. Elements\n \u2022 2. Compounds\n \u2022 3. Mixtures\n 15. What are the 7 Diatomic Elements?\n Hydrogen(H2), Nitrogen (N2), Oxygen (O2), Fluorine (F2) Chlorine (Cl2), Iodine (I2), Bromine (Br2)\n 16. What is an element?\n element consists of only 1 type of atom and cannot be seperated by ordinary chemical means\n 17. What is a compound?\n compound consists of 2 or more elements per represenative particle that is made or seperated by chemical reactions in definite porportions. They have chemical and physical properties that are different than their contained elements.\n 18. What is a mixture?\n A mixture is 2 or more substances that are physically combines and are made or separated by physical means in any porportion.\n 19. What are the two types of mixtures?\n \u2022 Heterogenus - 2 or more phases\n \u2022 Homogenus - one have 1 phase and are uniform\n 20. What is an atom?\n an atom is the smallest particle of an element found free in nature that keeps it's properties.\n 21. What does Daltons Atomic Theory state?\n \u2022 1. elements are made up of indivisible particles called atoms\n \u2022 2. atoms of the same element are the same.\n \u2022 3. atoms of elements combine in definite porportions by mass to produce compounds\n \u2022 4. In a chemical reaction atoms of elements are combined,separated or rearranged.\n 22. What are the 3 laws derived from Dalton's Atomic Theory?\n \u2022 Law of Definite Porportions - means same compound with same properties\n \u2022 Law of Multiple Porportions - different porportions mean different compounds\n \u2022 Law of Conservation - matter can not be created or destroyed.\n 23. What does JJ Thompsons Theory state?\n Plum Pudding Model - electrons (e-) are scattered throughout the atom.\n 24. What does Rutherfords theory state?\n An atom is mostly space with a dense positive charged nucleus that contains protons and neutrons. electrons are outside of the nucleus. Protons and Neutrons have a mass of 1 AMU.\n 25. What part of an atom determines its chemial behavior?\n electron (e-)\n 26. In a neutral atom how many protons and electrons are there?\n a neutral atom has equal Protons and Electrons.\n 27. What are the two types of ions?\n \u2022 cat-ions - positive charge, more protons than electrons\n \u2022 anions - negative charge, more electrons than protons\n 28. What are the first three isotopes of Hydrogen (H)\n \u2022 Proteum - Most common form of Hydrogen\n \u2022 Deuterum- Heavy Hydrogen\n \u2022 Tritium - radioactive Hydrogen\n 29. What does the Bohr Theory state?\n electrons circle the nucleus in discrete orbits with fixed energy with no more than 8 electrons in the outer most shell.\n 30. What is a quantum?\n a measure of energy that is required for an electron to jump from 1 energy level to the next higher energy level.\n 31. What is the value of Planc's Constant?\n 32. What is the Speed of Light? (C)\n 33. What is the formula for the speed of light?\n 34. What is the measure of Wavelength?\n The distance from peak to peak on a sine wave\n 35. C\n 36. H\n 37. He\n 38. What is photoelectric effect?\n When a photon strikes a shiny metal, an electron is thrown off\n 39. What is Threshhold frequency?\n the lowest frequency at which an electron is thrown off\n 40. What is the DeBroglie Equation?\n (wavelength = planc constant/ mass*velocity)\n 41. What is the formula for Ryberg's Constant?\n n= energy level\n 42. What does the Heisenberg Uncertainity Theory state?\n you can not know where an object is and its velocity at the same time, only one or the other.\n 43. What do the quantum numbers n, l and and mean?\n n = principle quantum number - energy level\n\n l - angular momentum - sub level (tells shape)\n\n = magnetic quantum # (tells orbital orientation)\n\n = spin quantum # (tells direction)\n 44. What does the aufbau principle state?\n electrons enter the lowest energy sublevels first\n 45. What does Pauli's exclusion principle state?\n an orbital can describe at most 2 electrons and the electrons must have opposite spins - no 2 electrons can have the same quantum number\n 46. What does Hund's rule state?\n in a sublevel, when electrons fill it, each orbital must have 1 electron in it before electrons will pair up.\n 47. What is the electron configuration for Cr (chromium)?\n [s] [d]\n 48. What is the electron configuration for Cu (Copper)\n 49. What is an Acid\n an acid is anything that dissociates to form H+ ions and an anion\n 50. What is a binary acid and it's anion ends in -ide\n a binary acid is a gas that combines with water to form a hydro_____ic acid (ie HCl --> HCl(aq)\n 51. an acid with an anion ending in -ate\n acid forms to form a ________ic acid (ie = Nitric Acid)\n 52. an acid with an anion ending in -ite\n it has one less H than a similar -ate acid creates a _____ous acid (ie Nitrous Acid)\n 53. Column 1 on the Periodic table consists of the\n Alkali metals with the exception of Hydrogen\n 54. Column 2 of the Periodic table consists of the?\n Alkaline Earth Metals\n 55. Columns 3 through Column 12 on the Periodic Table are called the\n Transition elements\n 56. Column 18 on the Periodic Table consists of the...\n Noble Gases\n 57. Column 17 of the Periodic Table consists of the\n 58. The nonmetals on the Periodic Table are which\n starts on column 13 at B (Boron) diagonally down to Te (Tellurium) and then Column 17 down to Iodine.\n 59. As atomic size decreases\n atomic forces increase\n 60. Li\n 61. Be\n 62. Na\n 63. Mg\n 64. K\n 65. Ca\n 66. Rb\n 67. Sr\n 68. Cs\n 69. Fr\n 70. Ra\n 71. Cr\n 72. Mn\n 73. Fe\n 74. Co\n 75. Ni\n 76. Cu\n 77. Zn\n 78. Ag\n 79. Au\n 80. Pt\n 81. W\n 82. Cd\n 83. Hg\n 84. B\n 85. N\n 86. O\n 87. F\n 88. Al\n 89. Si\n 90. P\n 91. S\n 92. Cl\n 93. As\n 94. Se\n 95. Te\n 96. I\n 97. Pb\n 98. Bi\n 99. Po\n 100. At\n 101. Ne\n 102. Ar\n 103. Kr\n 104. Xe\n 105. Ra\n 106. U\n 107. Which columns on the Periodic Table are the S levels\n Columns 1 and 2\n 108. Which columns on the Periodic Table are the P levels?\n Columns 13-18\n 109. Which columns on the Perodic Table are the D levels\n Columns 3-12 : remember they are 1 energy level less than the row they are on.\n 110. What is electron affinity?\n the energy change associated with the addition of an electron to a gaseous atom.\n 111. what does the Wave Quantum mechanical model state?\n an electron is described as a standing wave and the exact position of an electron is never known.\n 112. What are the orbital shapes for each energy level\n \u2022 S- Sphere\n \u2022 P- Dumbell\n \u2022 D- Double Dumbell\n \u2022 F- Flower |
__label__positive Lower GI Bleeds Flashcards Preview\n\nGastro > Lower GI Bleeds > Flashcards\n\nFlashcards in Lower GI Bleeds Deck (5)\nLoading flashcards...\n\nWhat are the causes of a lower GI bleed?\nDifferentiate them based off of age, pain and size of bleed\n\nElderly \u2013 Diverticulitis, Colorectal Cancer, Angiodysplasia (vascular malformation in the gut), Ischaemic Colitis/Acute mesenteric ischemia\nYounger \u2013 Inflammatory Bowel Disease\nBoth \u2013 Haemorrhoids, Rectal Varices, Infection, C. diff, Rectal Varices, Severe Upper GI bleed\n\nPainful \u2013 Haemorrhoids (Local Pain/Itching), Upper GI bleed (Epigastric pain), Inflammatory Bowel Disease (Abdominal Pain), Anal Fissure (Local Pain), Acute mesenteric ischaemia Colitis (severely painful), Ischaemic colitis (Moderate flank pain), Infection (generalised abdominal discomfort)\nPainless - Diverticulitis, Colorectal cancer, Angiodysplasia, Rectal Varices\n\nLarge Bleed \u2013 Diverticulitis, Upper GI bleed, Rectal Varices, Acute mesenteric ischaemia\nSmall Bleed \u2013 Haemorrhoids, Colorectal cancer, Anal Fissure, Infection, Ischaemic Colitis\nVariable \u2013 Inflammatory Bowel Disease, Angiodysplasia\n\n\nWhat are the symptoms of a lower GI Bleed?\n\nHaematochezia (Fresh Blood) \u2013 Normally Seen in lower GI bleed, but can be seen in profuse upper GI bleed\nAnaemia - Chronic Bleeds\nShock \u2013 Fainting or postural dizziness\n\nSpecific Questions to ask:\nColorectal cancer \u2013 Change in bowel habit, weight loss, anorexia\nRectal Varices \u2013 History of alcoholism/Liver disease\nIschaemic Colitis/Acute mesenteric Ischaemia - Cardiovascular risk factors\n\n\nWhat will you find on examination of a lower GI bleed?\n\nWhat is the degree of anaemia/shock\nEnd of the bed:\nReduced skin turgidity - Hypovolaemia\nPale \u2013 Hypovolaemia\nLow urine output \u2013 Hypovolaemia\nIncreased capillary refill \u2013 Hypovolaemia\nWeak Peripheral pulses \u2013 Hypovolaemia\nCold peripheries \u2013 Hypovolaemia\nHypotension - Hypovolaemia\nTachycardia - Hypovolaemia\nDry Mucous membranes - Hypovolaemia\nBruit \u2013 May indicate ischemic colitis or mesenteric ischemia\nMass \u2013 Colorectal cancer\nWeak Peripheral pulses \u2013 Hypovolaemia\nCold peripheries \u2013 Hypovolaemia\nVisible Anorectal cancer\nEstablish presence of blood/melaena\n\n\nWhat investigations will you order in a lower GI bleed?\n\nStool cultures (send multiple samples)\u2013 Only if infection suspected, to rule out infective causes.\nTest any stool sent for C. Diff\nFull set of observations\n\nFBC - To assess severity of bleed with Hb levels and to look for infection (WCC\nU&E - A raised urea comparative to creatinine is classical of an upper GI bleed. May also see dehydration if lots of blood loss\nLFT\u2019s \u2013 Liver disease can predispose to rectal varices and reduced clotting levels\nClotting - They are bleeding, especially important in patients with signs of chronic liver disease and those on anticoagulants\nCross Match \u2013 Between 2 and 6 units depending on the severity of the bleed\nTotal Iron Binding Capacity/Ferritin - Looking for Iron deficiency due to a chronic bleed\n\nAbdominal X-Ray - To see any signs of colitis (oedema/thumb printing)\nErect CXR \u2013 Looking for any perforation\nColonoscopy - After patient stabilised and within 24 hours of admitting\nCT Scan \u2013 If no cause found\nAngiography \u2013 If no cause found, can help to localise site of bleeding\n\n\nWhat is the immediate management of a lower GI Bleed?\n\nWhat is the Treatment: (Indication for admission (>60, haemodynamic instability, still bleeding, NSAIDS/Anti coagulants, Severe Co-morbidity)\nA-E approach\nGet IV Access (2 wide bore cannulas)/Give O2 to maintain sats of 94+ /Attach 12 lead ECG\nMake sure not to use saline in liver disease\nInsert Urinary Catheter\nAssessment with AMPLE history and brief examination\nGet help - Medical reg on call/consider ITU if large bleed\nFrequent Observations - Constant or 15 minutely\nTransfusion with O- Blood or Cross matched blood if Hb<70\nTransudes with Platelets if platelet count >50\nKeep patient bedbound, they may feel the need to pass a large stool, but this could be another GI bleed resulting in collapse.\nGet advice from consultant/haematology on anticoagulation \u2013 Use FFP in patient with INR >1.5 and use PCC in actively bleeding patients taking warfarin. Factor VIIa can be used if either of these do not work. Stop any warfarin and talk to specialist about other blood thinners. Stop any NSAIDS in acute phase if possible.\nKeep Nil by Mouth\nArrange urgent colonoscopy - Immediately in severe bleeds, within 24 hours of all bleeds\n\nMedical: Treatment for massive bleeds (Other bleeds will likely not require specific treatment to stop the blood loss, simply treat the underlying cause)\nGeneral Management - Colonoscopy coagulation and injection with vasoconstrictors or sclerosing agents of any bleeding sites\nDiverticulitis - Colonoscopy with bipolar coagulation, adrenaline injection or metallic clips\nAngiodysplasia - Colonoscopy Thermal Therapy with Argon\nRectal Varices \u2013 Colonoscopy Endoscopic Injection Sclerotherapy\nIschaemic Colitis - Nil by Mouth and IV hydration\n\nIn Recurrent Bleeds - Resection of affected bowel |
__label__positive 64 Natural language processing interview questions and answers | 2019\n\nSpread the love\n\nAre you planning machine leaning expert or nlp engineer ? Here is the best list of 64 nlp interview questions that helps to crack the interview easily.\n\nIf you are not still yet completed machine learning and data science. Here is the list of machine learning interview questions, data science interview questions, python interview questions\u00a0and sql interview questions.\n\nWhat is NLP(natural language processing) ?\nNatural language processing is a subfield of computer science, information engineering, and artificial intelligence concerned with the interactions between computers and human languages, in particular how to program computers to process and analyze large amounts of natural language data\nWhat is applications of NLP ?\nText classification, Text summarization, Name entity recognization, part of speech tagging, language model building, Machine translation, Spell checking, speech recognization, character recognization.\nWhat is tokenization ?\nSplitting the sentence into words\nWhat is stemming ?\u00a0\nStemming is the process of reducing a word to its word stem that affixes to suffixes and prefixes.\nWhat is lemmatizing ?\u00a0\nLemmatizing is also same like stemming but the difference is lemmantizing words known with dictionary.\nWhat is Normalization ?\u00a0\nConverting different range of values to same scale from 0 to 1.\nWhat is POS (parts of speech) tagging ?\u00a0\nTagging a word with noun, pronoun, adverd, adjective etc.\nWhat is NER (name entity recognition)?\nNER refers to name entiyy recognization like places, organizations, companies etc.\nWhat are nlp libraries and tools ?\u00a0\nCoreNLP from Stanford group.\nNLTK, the most widely-mentioned NLP library for Python.\nTextBlob, a user-friendly and intuitive NLTK interface.\nGensim, a library for document similarity analysis.\nSpaCy, an industrial-strength NLP library built for performance.\nWhat are stop words ?\u00a0\na, the , an etc like repeated words in text, that doesn\u2019t give any additional value to context. we can filter those words by using nltk library standard function.\nWhat are punctuation\u2019s ? How can you remove it ?\u00a0\nWhat is Noise Removal ?\u00a0\nRemove unwanted data from corpus. Like if you are working sentiment analysis, we have to remove ?\u201d! etc.\nWhat is Wordnet ?\u00a0\nWordNet is a lexical database for the English language. It groups English words into sets of synonyms called synsets, provides short definitions and usage examples, and records a number of relations among these synonym sets or their members.\nHow can you find synonyms and antonyms for a word ?\u00a0\nRefer here\nWhat is NLG (Natural language Generation) ?\nIt\u2019s about generating new text from understanding old data.\nWhat is NLU (Natural language understanding) ?\nIt\u2019s about understanding of natural language. How humans are communicating in different scenarios.\nWhat is Corpus ?\u00a0\nIt\u2019s a collection of text documents.\nWhat is N- Gram, Unigram, Bigram \u00a0and Trigram?\u00a0\nit\u2019s about word analysis, unigram means single word, bigram means double words and trigram means tripple word.\nWhat is Language modeling ?\u00a0\nA statistical language model is a probability distribution over sequences of words. Given such a sequence, say of length m, it assigns a probability to the whole sequence. The language model provides context to distinguish between words and phrases that sound simila\nWhat is Latent semantic analysis ?\nWhat is word embedding ?\nWord embedding is the collective name for a set of language modeling and feature learning techniques in natural language processing where words or phrases from the vocabulary are mapped to vectors of real numbers\nWhat are word embedding libraries ?\u00a0\nWhat is word2vec ?\u00a0\nWhat is Glove ?\u00a0\nGloVe, coined from Global Vectors, is a model for distributed word representation. The model is an unsupervised learning algorithm for obtaining vector representations for words. This is achieved by mapping words into a meaningful space where the distance between words is related to semantic similarity.\nWhat is Fasttext ?\u00a0\nfastText is a library for learning of word embeddings and text classification created by Facebook\u2019s AI Research lab. The model allows to create an unsupervised learning or supervised learning algorithm for obtaining vector representations for words\nWhat is Genism ?\nGensim is a production-ready open-source library for unsupervised topic modeling and natural language processing, using modern statistical machine learning. Gensim is implemented in Python and Cython for top performance and scalability\nWhat is text mining ?\u00a0\nWhat is Information Extraction ?\u00a0\nWhat is object standardization ? When it will be used ?\u00a0\nText data often contains words or phrases which are not present in any standard lexical dictionaries. These pieces are not recognized by search engines and models.\nWhat is text generation ? When we will do it ?\nGenerate new text from understanding old data.\nWhat is text summarization ? When we will do it ?\nAutomatic summarization is the process of shortening a text document with software, in order to create a summary with the major points of the original document. Technologies that can make a coherent summary take into account variables such as length, writing style and syntax.\n\nIt\u2019s widely used in news article sites.\n\nWhat is Topic Modeling ? When we will do it ?\nTopic modeling\u00a0is a type of statistical\u00a0modeling\u00a0for discovering the abstract \u201ctopics\u201d that occur in a collection of documents. Latent Dirichlet Allocation (LDA) is an example of\u00a0topic model\u00a0and is used to classify text in a document to a particulartopic\nWhat is sentiment analysis ? When we will do it ?\nWhat Term frequency(TF) ?\nWhat is Inverse term frequency (IDF) ?\nWhat is difference between NLTK and Spacy ?\nWhat is difference between OpenNLP and NLTK ?\nWhat is sequence modeling ? How it\u2019s helpful in NLP ?\nWhat is dependency parsing \u00a0?\nWhat is semantic parsing ?\nWhat is constituency parsing ?\nWhat is difference between shallow parsing and dependency parsing ?\nHow does the PageRank algorithm work?\nWhat is Differentiate regular grammar and regular expression.\nHow will you estimate the entropy of the English language?\nWhat is bagofwords model ?\nWhat is cosine distance ?\nWhat is doc2vec model ?\nWhat is CBOW( continuous bag of words )\nWhat is Skip-gram ?\nWhat are models to reduce dimensionality of data in nlp\nLatent Dirichlet Allocation\nLatent Semantic Indexing\nKeyword Normalization\nWhat is document-term matrix ?\nA document-term matrix or term-document matrix is a mathematical matrix that describes the frequency of terms that occur in a collection of documents.\nWhat is pragmatic analysis in NLP?\nHow can you find word similarity in nlp ?\nHow can you find sentence similarity in nlp ?\nHow can you find document similarity in nlp ?\nWhat is NLP usage in recommendation engines ?\nWhat are conditional random fields ?\nWhat are hidden markov fields ?\nWhat is Naive bayes algorithm, When we can use this algorithm in NLP ?\nWhat is Text Matching / Similarity techniques ?\nLevenshtein Distance\nPhonetic Matching\nFlexible String Matching\nCosine Similarity\nWhat is Coreference Resolution ?\nWhat is Ambiguity in NLP ?\nExplain about one project you have done in Nlp from start to ending. |
__label__positive Central Processing\n\n59 terms by missdawa\u00a0\n\nReady to study?\nStart with Flashcards\n\nCreate a new folder\n\nAdvertisement Upgrade to remove ads\n\nThe ____________ reqires that the healthcare facilityreport malfuncation of the medical devices that have contributed to patient injury, illness , and / or death to the manufacturer and the FDA.\n\nSafe Medical Device\n\nThe largest operating channel of the an endoscop is the _ channel\n\nInstrument (biopsy)\n\nThe Process by Which the unwrapped instrument are steamed for immediate use when an emergency situtation arises, is called:\n\nFlash Sterization\n\nWhich of the following is a system used to treat the final rinse of water for cleaning?\n\n\nMedical Device reporting is regulated by the :\n\n\nChemical indicatrs are classifed by the FDA as devices:\n\nClass II\n\nWatches and other jewelry a should be worn in the central service department work areas because :\n\nthey harbor bacteria\n\nLoaner instrument should:\n\nbe decontaminated before use\n\nin ABC inventory Control system , \"A\" items represents:\n\nthe smallest number of items and the largest dollar value\n\nAsset Management\n\nwhich of the following is not an example of surgical asepsis?\n\nRod-shaped bacteria are classified as\n\n\nFloors in the Central Service Department should be in:\n\nWet mopped daily\n\nMicroorganisms reproduce by process called\n\nBinary fission\n\nPurified water should have the PH of :\n\n\nThe absence of microorganism that causes disease is called :\n\n\nStandards and regulations help set levels of _______ in Central Service Departments\n\nQuality, Safety, Efficiency\n\nIn medical terminology, the propose of a combinig vowel is to:\n\nmake the word easier to pronouce\n\nThese carry blood away from the heart\n\n\nA system that keeps track of the all incoming and outgoing supplies so that quantities of supplies in storage are known at all times, is:\n\nperpetual inventory systems\n\nwhen arranged plastic-paper pouches in the sterilizer, the pouches should be arranged :\n\n\nWhich of the following can be removed from water a reverse osmosis process is used?\n\n\nIn the event of a load recall, information about specfic load contents can be obtained from:\n\nthe sterilization log\n\nMechanical Sterilizer\n\nThe most efficient type of dry heat sterilizer is\n\nOrtho-phthalaldehyde (OPA) is classified as\n\na high disinfectant\n\nHealthcare regulation and Standard provide consistency of department activities by outlining\n\nminimal performance standard\n\nwater softner are used to remove __________ water\n\nCalcium and magnesium\n\nThe removal of kidney is called a:\n\n\nWhich type of scope is used to visualize the lower part of the large intestine?\n\n\nSterile Package should be stored no lower than _____ inches from the floor\n\n\nTo achieve a reasonable level of disnfecion, alchol used as an intermediate- level disinfectant must remain in wetcontac with the surface of the object being disinfected for minimum of of____________ minutes\n\n5 min.\n\nCommon Vechcile\n\nA mode of bacterial transmission that would take place when an infectious agent was transmitted through an item such as food or water is called:\n\nAgency which may intervene in a matter of worker protection even if there are no specfic postions is called a :\n\njob description\n\nWhen using the PHscale, which of the following numbers would suggest the most alkalines?\n\n\nWhich of the following is an example of regulated waste?\n\nBlood soaked sponges\n\nThe main theory of Standards Precuations is that:\n\nPatients may pose a risk of infection whether they have been diagonsed with an infection disease or not\n\nWhich of the following types of trsh must be red- bagged?\n\nregulated medical waste\n\nBacteria that growwell in warm temperture (122-158 F) are called:\n\n\nWhich of the following systems involves the transfer of the control of the healthcare facility's equipment mangenement to an external entity?\n\n\nThe percentage of items filled (available) when an order is placed is called the:\n\nInventory Service Level\n\nThis prion is of speical concern to Central Service technician because it cannot be destroyed by normal sterilzation cycle:\n\n\nWhat type of carts/baskets should be used in an EtO sterilizer?\n\n\nWhich of the following would be the best choice for the cleaning walls fixtures and floors in the decontamination areas?\n\nA Quaternary Ammoinum Compound\n\nWhich of the following instruments marking in methods is not recommended?\n\n\nThe angency responsible for the pre-market requirements od medical devices:\n\n\nWhich of the information is not included on MSDM Sheet\n\nrequired inventory levels\n\nHinge Joint\n\nThe knee is an example of a\n\nThese chemicals are used to slow the growth of bacteria on living tissue such as skin\n\n\nThe surgical procedure that removes tissue or displaced bone in the wrist area to release pressure on the median nerves is called:\n\nCarpal tunnel repair\n\nFlash Sterilization of implants is not recommended by the\n\n\nInformation on each package that identifies the date of sterilizationthe aterilizer, and the sterilizer cycle run is contianed in the\n\nLoad Control Number\n\nIf a sterilizer has successfully killed all the bacterial spores in a biologicial indicator\n\nIt is called a negative test\n\nThe 2 most common temperture used in steam sterilization process is:\n\n320-325 F\n\nSterilizer loads containing implants\n\nmust contain bioloigical indicator\n\nThe spore used in the testing of steam sterilization is:\n\nGeobacillus atrophaeus\n\nBiological testing should be performed in an ethlyene oxide sterilizer:\n\nIn every load\n\nThe first step in the sterilization process is:\n\nThrouogh Cleaning\n\nThe class C Fires involves\n\nenegerized electrical equipment\n\nSome bacteria develope hard shells around them which makesthem more difficult to destroy. these bacterias are called :\n\n\nRound-shaped Bacteria are classified as :\n\n\nPlease allow access to your computer\u2019s microphone to use Voice Recording.\n\nHaving trouble? 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__label__positive Mindterm 1 Flashcards Preview\n\nBIOL 331 > Mindterm 1 > Flashcards\n\nFlashcards in Mindterm 1 Deck (74):\n\nDescribe gated transport\n\nthe active transport of specific macromolecules through selective gates (such us the nuclear pore) and permits the free diffusion of small molecules b/w topologically equivalent spaces\n\n\nDescribe protein translocation\n\ntransmembrane protein translocators transport a protein into a across a membrane into a topologically distinct space. usually has to be unfolded. used to form integral proteins\n\n\nDescribe vesicular transport\n\nmembrane enclosed transport vesicles (can be small and circular or large and irregular) transport protein to a topologically equivalent compartment.\n\n\nDifferentiable b/w signal sequence, peptidase, and patch\n\na signal sequence is a stretch of 15-60 AA specifying a specific place in the cell; once sorting is complete it is cleaved by a specialized signal peptidase,\nsignal patches are formed by from internal signal squences that when folded create a 3D patch (used in nuclear import and vesicular transport)\n\n\nWhat signal sequence is used to return proteins to the ER\n\nKDEL at the C-terminus\n\n\nDifferentiate b/w the nuclear envelope, the inner membrane and the outer membrane\n\nthe nuclear envelope encloses DNA and defines the nuclear compartment, consists of two consecutive and continuous membranes with very different protein constituents, is penetrated by the nuclear pore. INM has binding sites of the chromosomes and for the nuclear lamina. ONM is continuous with the ER and contains ribosomes that secrete proteins into the perinuclear space.\n\n\nWhat is the nuclear pore complex and nucleoporin?\n\nthe NPC is is a pore in the NM that acts for active selective transport and free diffusion of small molecules. Nucleoporins are the proteins that make up NPC.\n\n\nWhat is the Nuclear Localization Sequence?\n\na signal sequence - consisting of one or two K and R residues, can be found anywhere on the pps, thought to form patches or loops on protein surface, only one subunit is needed in a multi complex. a nuclear import receptor is needed to bind to the NLS and transport it in. each NSR (imporins) recognizes a subset of sequences, the protein of interest can be transported folded.\n\n\nWhat is the function of FG repeats?\n\nThey interact weakly, which gives the protein tangle gel-like properties that\nimpose a permeability barrier to large macromolecules, and they serve as docking\nsites for nuclear import receptors\n\n\nWhat are the different RANs\n\nGAP converts ran-GTP to ran-GDP is on the cytosolic side while GEF on the nuclear. GAP - converts ran GDP to ran-GTP\n\n\nHow does nuclear import work?\n\nreceptors dock to FG repeats even with no cargo with the help of the FG repeats the receptor enters the nucleus where ran-GEF bind and causes the receptor to realize its cargo. the empty receptor with GTP goes back to the cytosol. Ran-GAP triggers Ran-GTP to hydrolyze its bound GTP, thereby converting\nit to Ran-GDP\n\n\nWhy is there only unloading on he nuclear side?\n\nBecause the Ran-GDP in the cytosol does not bind to import (or export)\nreceptors, unloading occurs only on the nuclear side\n\n\nHow does nuclear export work?\n\nran-gtp bound receptor on the nuclear side promotes binding of export cargo, it then moves through the pore, meets gap which hydrolyses GTP causing the receptor to release cargo\n\n\nHow can we regulate import vs export?\n\nIn high Ca2+,\nthe protein phosphatase calcineurin binds\nto NF-AT and dephosphorylates it. The dephosphorylation exposes nuclear import signals and the binding of calcineurin blocks a nuclear export signal.\nThe complex of NF-AT and calcineurin is therefore imported into the nucleus,.\n\n\nHow does the nuclear membrane dissolve during mitosis?\n\nnuclear lamina is POted by Cdk and depolymerizes, NPC are as well and causing them to dissemble and relocate into the cytosol. ran-gef remains anchored to chromosome therefore, as you move further away from the chromosome the concentration of ran-gap increases.\n\n\nWhat is TOM?\n\ntranslocase of the outer membrane. required for the translocation of all proteins. initially transports into the inter membrane space. helps insert proteins in the membrane\n\n\nWhat is TIM?\n\ntranslocase of the inner membrane.\nTIM 23 transfers soluble proteins and help insert proteins into the matrix and then into membrane\nTIM 22 mediates the insertion of only certain membrane proteins from the matrix for metabolites\n\n\nWhat is the SAM complex?\n\nbeta barrel specific sorting and assembly machinery. aid folding f beta barrel folding in the outer membrane\n\n\nWhat is the OXA complex?\n\noxidase assembly protein. insertion of proteins made in the mitochondria and some that were translocated from cytosol to the inner membrane.\n\n\nIn what state are Mitochondria protein precursors in for translocation?\n\nthey are unfolded and stablized by chaperone proteins like HSP 70 that bind directly onto the signal sequence. pon binding to tom they are stripped from the chaperone and are inserted signal first into the organelle.\n\n\nhow can you determine if the protein crosses both mitochondria membranes at once or one at a time?\n\nby cooling a cell-free mitochondrial import\nsystem to arrest the proteins at an intermediate step in the translocation process. arrested proteins no longer contain their N-terminal signal\nsequence, indicating that the N-terminus must be in the matrix space\n\n\nWhat is mtHsp 70?\n\nThe mitochondrial hsp70 is part of a multisubunit protein assembly that is bound\nto the matrix side of the TIM23 complex and acts as a motor to pull the precursor protein into the matrix space., mtHsp 70 binds to the pp being imported, conformational change. and releases the protein chain in an ATP-dependent step, exerting a ratcheting/pulling force on the protein being imported.\n\n\nwhere does translocation to the mitochondria get energy?\n\noutside the mitochondria ATP is needed for the pp to bind to TOM.\nonce bound to tim further translocation through the TIM translocation channel\nrequires the membrane potential made by the H+ gradient from the (H+ rich) inner membrane to the matix and one in the matrix space where mtHsp 70 uses it to act as a motor to pull the pp in.\n\n\nExplain pathway 1 for translation of an interregnal protein into the inter membrane space/ IMM\n\nusually only the N terminal SS enters the matrix, following it the stop transfer sequence (a stretch of hydrophobic AA) stops translation into the matrix. translation my tom continues and the ss is cleaved in the matrix. the stop transfer sequ is realesed my tim 23 into the membrane\n\n\nExplain pathway 2for the translation of an interregnal protein into the inter membrane space/ IMM\n\ntim 23 translates the entire protein to the matrix. a signal peptidase cleaves exposing the stop transfer sequ that directs it to the OXA complex that inserts it into the membrane.\n\n\nExplain pathway 3 for the translation of an interregnal protein into the inter membrane space/ IMM?\n\nmultipass proteins dont have a N-termi ss instead they and an internal one. they completly cross with tom and then chaperones guild it to tim 22. which inserts it into the membrane. tim 22 requires ia membrane potential.\n\n\nHow is REDOX chem used to drive protein import?\n\nproteins with cys motifs for disulphide bonds with Mia 40 which releases the protein in their oxidized form. Mia is in reduced form only to be deoxidized my passing e- from the ETC\n\n\nWhat is the import signal for most peroxysome proteins?\n\nSKL at the c-termini\n\n\nDifferentiate b/w co-translational and post-translational import.\n\nco-translational import is when the ribosome is attached to the ER, as one side of the pp elongates the other side in translocated into the lumen.\npost-translational- occurs for mitochondria, and chloroplast, where is synthesis is completed and the unfolded peptide is maintained for translocation.\n\n\nwhat is the signal hypothesis?\n\nWhen a ribosome translates an mRNA in vivo in the absence of the microsomes the protein synthesized was slightly longer than when translated in the presence of ER microsomes. this difference is due to the initial presence of the N-termi leader sequence that directs the secreted protein to the ER that is later cleaved by a signal peptidase before the pp is complete.\n\n\nhow is the ER ss directed to the ER?\n\na signal-recognition particle (SRP), which cycles between the ER membrane\nand the cytosol and binds to the signal sequence, and an SRP receptor in\nthe ER membrane.\n\n\nHow does the SRP bind to the pp and the ribosome?\n\none side binds to the leader sequence while the other binds to the elongation factor binding site of the ribosome, this causes a stall that gives the ribosome time to bind to the ER membrane ensuring the pp enters the ER, this also prevents misfolding, and reduces the need for chaperones.\n\n\nHow is the SRP receptor involved?\n\nonce the ss and the SRP bind a receptor on the SRP for the SRP receptor is exposed. The binding of the SRP to its receptor brings the SRP\u2013ribosome complex to an unoccupied protein translocator. the srp and the srp receptors are released and the translocator finishes the transfer.\n\n\nDifferentiate b/w membrane bound and free ribosomes.\n\nthey are functionally and anatomically identical only differing in the proteins that they are translating. membrane bound are attached to the cytsolic surface of the rER and translated proteins with the ER ss. while free ribosomes are used to translate all other proteins\n\n\nwhat is sec61?\n\nis a protein translocator complex that forms an aqueous pore across the membrane. has alpha helices that surround a central pore that is gated by a short alpha helix. when closed the the pore is impermeable. the pore is also able to open on its side allowing access to lateral transition in the hydrophobic core of the membrane.\n\n\nhow is post-translational import used to import to the ER?\n\nsimilar to import for the mitochondria. sec 61 assessory proteins span the lumenal domain and allow HSP 70 like chaperones to bind on to the growing pp as it emerges in the ER lumen. proteins that use this route are made in the cytosol and maintain the unfolded state by chaperones.\n\n\nhow is the ER signal used twice?\n\nfirst SRP binds to the ss. the ss also binds to specific place in the translocator, serving as a start transfer sequence opening the pore.\n\n\nhow are single pass proteins inserted to the membrane?\n\nthe N-termi ss starts translocation but an additional hydrophobic segment in the polypeptide chain stops the transfer process before the entire polypeptide chain is translocated.\nThis stop-transfer signal anchors the protein in the membrane after the\nER signal sequence has been cleaved off. with he (+) charged stretch following the internal sequ to be on the cytosolic side\n\n\nHow are multi-pass proteins made?\n\na second start-transfer sequence reinitiates\ntranslocation further down the polypeptide chain until the next stop-transfer sequence causes polypeptides release, and so on for subsequent start-transfer and stop-transfer sequences nearly all multipass proteins lack a cleavable ss\n\n\nHow does SRP recognize a stretch to be a start or stop sequence?\n\nBy recognizing the\nfirst appropriate hydrophobic segment to emerge from the ribosome, the SRP\nsets the \u201creading frame\u201d for membrane integration: after the SRP initiates translocation,\nthe translocator recognizes the next appropriate hydrophobic segment\nin the direction of transfer as a stop-transfer sequence\n\n\nhow does glycosolation occur?\n\na precursor oligrosaachride is added en bloc to proteins in the ER, the sugar is added to the NH2 group of ASN by oligrosaaccharyl transferase. A special lipid molecule called dolichol anchors the precursor oligosaccharide in the ER membrane\n\n\nare there any patterns to N linked glycosolation?\n\n\n\nHow does diversity in N linked glycsolation arise?\n\nfrom the later modification of the original precursor oligosaccharide.\nWhile still in the ER, three glucoses and one mannose are\nquickly removed from the oligosaccharides of most glycoproteins.\n\n\nwhat are calnexin and calreticulin?\n\nThese chaperones are carbohydrate-binding\nproteins, or lectins, which bind to oligosaccharides on incompletely folded proteins\nand retain them in the ER. also promote the association of incompletely folded proteins with another ER chaperone and aggregation of unfolded proteins. calanexin is in the membrane and calreticulin is soluble\n\n\nHow, then, do calnexin and calreticulin distinguish properly folded from incompletely folded proteins?\n\nglucosyl transferase that keeps adding a glucose to those oligosaccharides that have\nlost their last glucose. It adds the glucose, however, only to oligosaccharides that\nare attached to unfolded proteins. Thus, an unfolded protein undergoes continuous\ncycles of glucose trimming and addition until properly folded\n\n\nDescribe the process of retrotranslocation?\n\nfails are exported from the ER, degraded by proteasome, requires energy, chaperones, and PDI, E3 ubiquitin ligase\n\n\nhow are missfolded proteins found?\n\nN-linked oligosaccharides, which serve as timers that measure how long a protein has spent in the ER. The slow trimming of a particular mannose on the core oligosaccharide tree by an enzyme in the ER\ncreates a new oligosaccharide structure that ER-lumenal lectins of the retrotranslocation\napparatus recognize. Proteins that fold and exit from the ER faster than the mannosidase can remove its target mannose therefore escape degradation.\n\n\nwhat is the UPR-unfolded protein response?\n\nincludes an increased transcription of genes encoding proteins involved in retrotranslocation and protein degradation in the cytosol, ER chaperones, and many other proteins to increase the folding capacity.\n\n\ndescribe the IRE 1 path of activation the UPR\n\nThe oligomerization and autophosphorylation of IRE1 causes it to excise introns to produce an active transcription regulatory protein. This protein activates the transcription\nof genes encoding the proteins that help mediate the unfolded protein response\n\n\ndescribe the PERK path of activation the UPR\n\nactivates a second transmembrane kinase in the ER, PERK, that phosphorylates a translation initiating factor that reduces the production of new proteins. some proteins are translated when initiating factors are scare, these proteins help in activating the UPR.\n\n\ndescribe the ATF 6 pathway\n\nwhen missfolded proteins accumulate ATF6 ( a transmembrane protein) is sent to the golgi where it is cleaved by a protease. it is now able to relocate to the nucleus where it can activate genes encoding proteins for the UPR.\n\n\nwhat is Bpi?\n\na resident of the ER where it binds to the lumenal tails of ATF6, PERK, and IRE 1 to supress activity, when levels of unfolded proteins increase Bip is titrated away.\n\n\nhow does glycosolation act as a protein anchor to membranes?\n\nthe covalent attachment of glycosylphosphatidylinositol\n(GPI) anchor to the C-terminus of some membrane proteins. This linkage forms in the lumen of the ER, where, at the same\ntime, the transmembrane segment of the protein is cleaved off.\n\n\nhow does the Er assemble most lipid bilayers?\n\noccurs exclusively in the cytosolic leaflet. fatty acid bound proteins in the cytosol help move them to the membrane. After arrival in the ER membrane and activation with CoA, acyl transferases successively add two fatty acids to glycerol phosphate to produce phosphatidic acid (water insoluble and remains in the leaflet). the polar heads are then modified giving them their chemical nature.\n\n\nwhat is dark field microscopy?\n\nexploits that light rays can be scattered in any direction by allowing the light to enter the sample for the side. only some of the light enters the objective lens. this creates a bright image on a black background .\n\n\nwhat are phase contrast microscopy and differential interference contrast microscopy?\n\na wave's path length is changed as it refract through an organelle, the phases is shifted relative to light that has passed through an adjacent thinner. by increasing\nthese phase differences so that the waves are more nearly out of phase, producing\namplitude differences when the sets of waves recombine,\n\n\nwhat is the significance of phase-contrast, differential-interference-contrast, and dark-field microscopy?\n\nthey make it possible to watch the movements involved in such processes as mitosis\nand cell migration.\n\n\nhow does electronic image processing improve image quality?\n\nby using CCD and CMOS, which are greatly more sensitive to light than the human eye. these cameras produce electronic images, they can be processed in various ways to extract latent information and adjust for multiple flaws.\n\n\nwhat are the steps in sample preparation?\n\nfix, embed, and section with a microtome.\n\n\nhow can we reveal the chemical make up of sells and organelles?\n\nstaining with organic dyes that have an affinity for specific sub cellular components; stains absorb light of certain wavelengths and introduce contrast by reducing amplitude\nflorescent probes and in-situ hybridization.\n\n\nhow are antibodies used in microscopy?\n\nWhen labeled\nwith fluorescent dyes, antibodies are invaluable for locating specific molecules\nin cells by fluorescence microscopy (Figure 9\u201316); labeled with electron-dense\nparticles such as colloidal gold spheres, they are used for similar purposes in the\nelectron microscope\n\n\nhow can blurs be removed in optical microscopy?\n\nby focusing on a chosen plane in a thick specimen while\nrejecting the light that comes from out-of-focus regions above and below that\ndeconvolution: automated image capture system with precise z stack axis control to produce a z stack that are process by the computer to deblur\nconfocal: only light from a point of focus is captured, decreasing detector pinhole size results in thinner optical slice.\n\n\nWhat is FRET, how is it used and why is it important?\n\nflorescence resonance energy transfer. two molecules of interest are labels with flurophores where the emission spectrum of one overlaps with excitation of another. if the molecules are in close proximity there is a transfer of energy from one flurophore to the other, the emission of the second is seen although the molecule is excited by a photon specific to the excitation of the first.\n\n\nwhat is photo-activation?\n\nsynthesizing an inactive form of the fluorescent molecule of interest, introducing it into the cell, and then activating\nit suddenly at a chosen site in the cell; A microscope can be used to focus a strong pulse of light from a laser on a region.\nSince only the photoactivated proteins are fluorescent within the cell, the trafficking, turnover, and\ndegradative pathways of proteins can bemonitored.\n\n\nwhat is FRAP?\n\nfluorescence return after photobleaching. strong focused\nbeam of light from a laser to extinguish the GFP fluorescence in a specified region; after which one can analyze the way in which remaining unbleached\nfluorescent protein molecules move into the bleached area\n\n\nexplain examples of fluorescence indicators\n\nCa+ shifts the excitation and emissions spectra depending on their binding state\npH have spectra dependent on pH\n\n\nexplain single particle reconstruction\n\naveraging method where several images of a particle are combined into one image, about 0.5nm allows to see some secondary structures\n\n\nwhat is cryo-electron microscopy?\n\nby flash freezing we prevent the formation of ice crystals the interrupt the structures.\n\n\nhow is membrane fluidity dependent on the PL?\n\nif short and with double bonds, there is reduced interactions and less force keeping them together; reducing the phase transition point.\n\n\nhow is cholesterol used to maintain membrane fluidity?\n\nUnder normal conditions cholesterol enhances the permeability barrier and strengthens. b/c it prevents the hydrophobic tails from interacting, preventing phase transition.\n\n\nwhat are lipid rafts?\n\nspecific lipids and membrane proteins seam to associate in small micro-domains = lipid rafts\nhelp keep proteins together to function in concert,\n\n\ndescribe the asymmetry of the plasma membrane\n\nphosphatidylcholine and sphingomyelin are found on the outer leaflet\nphosphatidylserine and phosphatidylethanoloamine are found in the inner leaflet\nPS serves as an apoptosis signal\n\n\nHow does protein interaction limit lateral movement of lipids?\n\nself-assembly into large aggregates\ntethering to macromolecules outside the cell\ntethering to macromolecules inside the cell\nthrough interactions with proteins on an adjacent cell\n\n\nhow can FRAP be used to study the membrane?\n\nby marking a membrane protein of interest with a fluoroprobe or with GFT, by bleaching an area and timing how long it takes for fluorescence to return. |
__label__positive logo image\n\nSCMT Final Practice Questions\n\nIn the future, how is the heterogeneity of products on a given truckload expected to change?\nIt is expected to increase.\nAt the economy level, the price of transportation is ______________. At the carrier level, it is __________________.\nInelastic, elastic\nThe long tail of demand refers to an increased _____________________________.\nNumber of SKUs\nWhat percentage of total GDP does transportation account for?\nTransportation is a key part of retailers\u2019 strategies to?\nBridge the physical and digital environments\nIn the U.S., water transportation is divided into which categories?\nIn China, what product dominates rail movements?\nIn the U.S., which is largest in terms of ton miles moved?\nWhy might starting an LTL carrier be even more difficult than starting a TL carrier?\nThe capital investment required is much greater.\nIn the U.S., which mode represents the largest total spend?\nMotor Carriage\nWhich country is the world\u2019s second largest exporter of merchandise?\nHow is the capacity of ocean liners typically measured?\nWhich type of firm is an intermediary between an ocean carrier and a shipper?\nWhat has happened to the percentage of the population employed in manufacturing since the 1940s?\nIt has decreased\nWhat can be used to determine the classification in which a product fits?\nHarmonized Tariff\nWhat has happened to the total percentage of GDP associated with manufacturing since the 1940s?\nIt has not changed\nHow does the in-transit carrying cost % typically relate to the inventory carrying cost % when the inventory is stored in a warehouse?\nIn-transit carrying cost % is typically lower than the warehouse inventory carrying cost %\n_______________ is the time between when an order is placed and when it is received and becomes available for use.\nLead time\nGenerally, total annual cost = set up cost + holding cost + safety stock cost + average in-transit inventory cost.\nIf the cost of capital for a firm increases, what do you expect happens to the in-transit inventory carrying cost?\nIn-transit inventory carrying cost increases\nAnnual transit cost is a function of which two items?\nAnnual demand and the transit rate\nWhich of the following are true? (Mark all that apply.)\nIf a company is using LTL, then the transportation rate should be considered when calculating the EOQ.\n\nIf a company is using a truckload carrier, then the transportation rate should not be considered when calculating the EOQ.\n\nWhen comparing two different carriers or modes of transportation, there are probably two major differences; cost and service.\nIf using less-than-truckload transportation, which aspects of total cost are affected? (Check all that apply.)\nSafety stock cost\n\nTransit cost\n\nIn-transit inventory cost\n\nCycle stock cost\n\nIf lead time is constant, certain and always the same, then the cost of safety stock must be considered when calculating total inventory cost.\nTo estimate average in-transit inventory, the transit time (days) should be multiplied by the ________________________________.\nDaily Demand Rate\nIf using truckload transportation and the transit rate increases, what do you expect should happen to the company\u2019s order quantity?\nShould Stay the Same.\nTo take into account the effects of transportation on total cost, we replace item cost (C) with item cost plus transit rate (C + Cm)\nin the total annual cost equation\nIf using less-than-truckload transportation and the transit rate increases, what do you expect should happen to the company\u2019s order quantity?\nWhich of the following are generally true? (Mark all)\nAs a firm\u2019s degree of globalization increases, is potential for outsourcing internal capabilities for gain advantage with product design increases.\n\nTariffs are the taxes that countries levy on imports from other countries.\n\nWhich are reasons why a product, like jeans, might be produced in multiple countries?\nLabor Specialization\n\nAgreements between countries\n\nWhich primary motivation typically happens first for a U.S. company?\nThe company wants to produce globally to sell domestically.\nWhich capability is even more important when doing business globally?\nWhich of the following can be a big problem for U.S. companies when doing business internationally, such as in India and China?\nTime Zone Differences\n\nTransport Equipment Differences\n\nWhich are reasons why doing business in China may be challenging? (Check all that apply)\nRelationships between business partners are different.\n\nRelationships with the government are different.\n\nHow carriers are used may be different.\n\nWhat is the primary meaning of postponement?\nWhich if any of the following statements are true.\n\nA.) When a company makes finishing touches to a product close to its original point of manufacture, it is practicing postponement.\n\nB.) Practicing postponement is probably a losing strategy given the rapid advances in technology.\n\nC.) Postponement adds flexibility and agility to manufacturing and distribution processes.\n\nD.) Practicing postponement can be advantageous from both an inventory and forecasting standpoint.\n\nC. and D.\nHow does postponement likely affect forecast accuracy?\nIt increases acuuracy\nAs the degree of globalization increases, which cost is most likely to increase?\nIf a company shifts from domestic to offshore production, which of the following statements is/are likely to be true?\nSafety Stock increases\nReasons to do business globally include ___________.\nI. Access to new markets\nII. Access to new or needed products\nIII. Decrease transportation cost\nIV. Decrease manufacturing cost\nI, II, and III\nWhich is and example of postponement\n3D Printing\nAs the number of touch-points in a global supply chain increase, which of the following is likely true?\nLead time variability increases\nApplying the total cost concept within logistics often means trying to account for intangible costs, such as markdowns or lost sales. (T/F)\nThe continuous review model is a _________ order quantity model and a ________time model.\nfixed, variable\n______________ is the TMS ability to decide which shipment to tender first.\n______________ is pulling together shipments that are going to the same geographic area.\n______________ is making a shipment available to a specific carrier.\nTendering and dispaching\nWhat is one of the most important operational aspects of a WMS?\nThe accuracy of the information/data.\nIn a warehouse management system, records must be maintained for each item in stock showing:\nThe quantity on hand, received, and shipped.\nWhat technology may be used by the warehouse to keep accurate information on incoming items?\nRadio frequency identification.\nWhich of the following statements about MRP systems are TRUE?\nThe lowest quantity of a certain product that a supplier is willing to sell is known as their MOQ.\nWhich MRP system input element specifies how many, and when, the firm plans to produce each end inventory item?\nMaster Production Schedule\nWhat is MRP?\nA production planning, scheduling, and inventory control system mainly used to manage manufacturing processes.\nInventory requirements of a manufacturer that is part of a distribution requirements planning system are typically calculated from:\nforetasted end demand of the downstream partners.\nMRP and DRP are time-based planning systems. What is the significance of \u201ctime\u201d in these systems?\nBoth specify exactly when products are required to be available.\nCan DRP be applied to a retailer\u2019s business?\nWhich is often the most important output of a WMS?\nAccurate Inventory Information\nMost transportation management systems optimize mode selection.\nWhich type of inventory is being managed by a MRP system?\nRaw Materials\nWhich is NOT an input to an MRP system?\nTransportation Schedule\nTo which other information system is a WMS usually directly connected?\nIf using both MRP and DRP, at what level of the supply chain is the independent demand forecasted?\nDistribution points to where shipments are made.\nWhich firm uses and MRP system\n\nNeed essay sample on \"SCMT Final Practice Questions\"? We will write a custom essay sample specifically for you for only $ 13.90/page\n\nCan\u2019t wait to take that assignment burden offyour shoulders?\n\n\nAlready on Businessays? Login here\n\nNo, thanks. I prefer suffering on my own\nSign in / Sign up\nNo, thanks. I prefer suffering on my own\nNot quite the topic you need?\nWe would be happy to write it\nJoin and witness the magic\nService Open At All Times\nComplete Buyer Protection\nPlagiarism-Free Writing\n\nEmily from Businessays\n\n |
__label__positive Roundgod's blog\n\nBy\u00a0Roundgod, history, 6 days ago, In English,\n\nThis is a problem in CSAcademy Contest Romanian IOI 2017 Selection #3, Pitmutation, which basically is: Given two permutations A,\u2009B of length N with some positions fixed while some positions remains unknown, find the number of configurations such that there are exactly S positions p1,\u2009p2,\u2009...,\u2009pS, where Api\u2009>\u2009Bpi, both N,\u2009S\u2009\u2264\u2009300.\n\nI've already come up a solution when there are no fixed positions. For simplicity, we can consider B as identity permutation and later multiply the answer by N!. Then we decompose the permutation into cycles. Let dp[i][j] denote the number of configurations, when there are i elements remaining, and the needed number of Api\u2009>\u2009Bpi positions is j. Enumerate the length of cycle the smallest element is in for transferring, which involves precalculating another DP: dp2[i][j] denote the number of permutations A of length i that consists of one cycle such that there are j positions x where Ax\u2009>\u2009A(x\u2009+\u20091)%i. This precomputation can be done in O(N2). With the help of this array, the original can be calculated in O(N3). Also can be optimized to using FFT. Furthermore, since we only concern the answer with S such positions, and every time we are multiplying the same polynomial, so we only need 2 times of DFT, and thus the complexity is O(N2).\n\nHowever, I can't generalize this solution to the case where there are fixed positions, and also I can't find an editorial for this problem. Is there anyone willing to share some insights? Thanks in advance!\n\n \u2022 Vote: I like it \u00a0\n \u2022 +22\n \u2022 Vote: I do not like it \u00a0\n\n6 days ago, # |\n\nBy the way, how can I find tutorials to those CSAcademy problems without analysis?\n\n4 days ago, # |\n\u00a0 Vote: I like it +26 Vote: I do not like it\n\nAn important condition in the problem is : \"For some indices between 1 and N you know the cards of the first player, and for the other indices you know the cards of the second player.\", which I have missed initially. ._.\n\nWith this condition, the problem can be splitted into two independent subproblems, which is like \"Find the number of ways to match a sequence of integers (a1,\u2009a2,\u2009...,\u2009ak) with (1,\u20092,\u2009...,\u2009k) so that the number of api\u2009\u2265\u2009i is exactly k\".\n\nSort ai. Now, you can do something like dp[i][j]\u2009=\u2009 number of ways to pair the first i elements so that there are exactly j occurrences of api\u2009\u2265\u2009i (and not pair the elements with api\u2009<\u2009i). At the end, you have to multiply dp[k][j] by (k\u2009-\u2009j)! to pair the remaining elements, but we might overcount the ways to pair the elements so that the number of api\u2009\u2265\u2009i is more than k, so we should subtract for all j'\u2009>\u2009j. |
__label__positive Take the 2-minute tour \u00d7\n\nUse the basic null sequences to show that $\\left(\\dfrac{n^{10}10^n}{n!}\\right)_{\\large n\\in \\mathbb{N}}$ is a null sequence.\n\nWill someone provide a hint?\n\nshare|improve this question\n\"Let $\\varepsilon>0$ be given...\" \u2013\u00a0 andybenji Jan 10 '13 at 19:09\n@andybenji But the question indicates not to work from first principles, but instead to use basic null sequences to prove the statement. \u2013\u00a0 Ryan Jan 10 '13 at 19:12\n@Ryan I think he meant it as a joke. \u2013\u00a0 Git Gud Jan 10 '13 at 19:15\n@Ryan Yeah, factorials are very hard to work with using the definition. Can you think of a sequence that's greater in absolute value (after finitely many terms) than the given one but is still a null sequence? \u2013\u00a0 andybenji Jan 10 '13 at 19:25\n@Ryan Not at all. Let $a_n>0$. If $\\lim a_{n+1}/a_{n}<1$ then $\\lim a_n=0$. What's more, $\\sum a_n$ converges. \u2013\u00a0 Pedro Tamaroff Jan 10 '13 at 22:29\n\n2 Answers 2\n\nup vote 2 down vote accepted\n\nFor large enough $n$, $\\Bigl(\\frac{n^{10}10^n}{n!}\\Bigr)$ is less than $\\Bigl(\\frac{11^n}{n!}\\Bigr)$ because $1.1^n$ is eventually larger than $n^{10}$ (to prove this take logarithms). So we only need to show that $x_n = \\Bigl(\\frac{11^n}{n!}\\Bigr)$ is a null sequence and then an application of the Sandwich Theorem yields the result.\n\nTo this end, firstly note that $x_n$ > 0 for all n and so for n = 22 your sequence is equal to some constant greater than 0. Call this constant c.\n\nShow that for n > 22, $\\Bigl(\\frac{x_{n+1}}{x_{n}}\\Bigr) < 1/2$ and so, roughly speaking, getting from $x_n$ to $x_{n+1}$ requires you multiplying by a number less than $1/2$.\n\nThen write $x_n < c \\Bigl(\\frac{1}{2^n}\\Bigr)$ for all n > 22, and as mentioned above apply the Sandwich Therorem.\n\nshare|improve this answer\nThanks Adam. The key observation is that $1.1^n$ is eventually larger than $n^{10}$. Taking logarithms, this turns out to be clearly untrue, doesn't it? \u2013\u00a0 Ryan Jan 10 '13 at 20:08\nWell let me ask you: What is log $1.1^n$ ? What is log$(n^{10})$ ? \u2013\u00a0 Adam Rubinson Jan 10 '13 at 20:12\nright, and log1.1 > 0, so that (10logn)/(log1.1) > 0, and also logn is much much slower than n as n tends to infinity. Working in base 10 for example, log(1000000) = 6 < 1000000. You can formally prove that lim(log(x) / x) = 0 if you wanted to, but I assumed that this was known. \u2013\u00a0 Adam Rubinson Jan 10 '13 at 20:36\nCheck your original assertion \"$1.1^n$ is eventually greater than $n^{10}$\". This is equivalent to $\\frac{log (1.1)}{10} > \\frac{log(n)}n$, which is false, right? \u2013\u00a0 Ryan Jan 10 '13 at 20:45\n@Ryan Not false at all. You have a (positive) constant on the left hand side, and something that tends to $0$ as $n\\to\\infty$ on the right hand side. \u2013\u00a0 mrf Jan 10 '13 at 22:21\n\nFor $n$ sufficiently large $n^{10}<10^n$. Now consider:\n\n$$\\frac{100^n}{n!}=\\frac{100}{n}\\cdot \\frac{100}{n-1}\\cdots \\frac{100}{1}$$\n\nFor all $n>100:\\;\\;\\dfrac{100}{n}\\leq\\dfrac{100}{101}$ so from the above: $\\dfrac{100^n}{n!}\\leq N\\cdot\\left(\\dfrac{100}{101}\\right)^{n-100}$ which yields\n\n$$\\dfrac{10^n n^{10}}{n!}<N\\cdot\\left(\\dfrac{100}{101}\\right)^{n-100}\\;\\;\\text{etc.}$$\n\nOtherwise, a nice way is to consider:\n\n$$e^{100}=\\sum_0^{\\infty} \\frac{100^n}{n!}$$\n\n$\\to$ series converges so the summand must be a null-sequence.\n\nshare|improve this answer\n\nYour Answer\n\n\n |
__label__positive Glossary of muscoskeletal system\n\nStart Studying! Add Cards \u2193\n\nKyphosis is also known as?\nDowager's hump\nWhat is \"kyphosis\" ?\nante-posterior or forward bending of thoracic spine with convexity of curve in posterior direction\nscarring within a joint leading to stiffness or fixation: may be the result of chronic joint inflammation\nsmall fluid-filled synovial cyst usually on the dorsal surface of the wrist or foot\n\nWhat is the etiology?\nlumbar spine deformity resulting in ante-posterior curvature with concavity in posterior direction.\n\nEtiology: muscular dystrophy, obesity, flexion contracture of hip, congenital dislocation of hip.\ndeformity resulting in lateral curvature of the thoracic spine\nWhat is the etiology and significance of scoliosis?\nidiopathic or congenital condition, fracture, or dislocation, osteomalacia.\nMorton's neuroma is also known as ?\nMoron's toe or plantar neuroma\nWhat is a Morton's neuroma?\n\nWhat is the treatment?\nneuroma in web space between third and fourth metatarsal heads, causing sharp, sudden attacks of pain and burning sensations.\n\nSurgical excision\nHallux valgus\n\nalso known as a ?\nHallus Valgus can be described as?\ndeformity of the great toe consisting of lateral angulation of great toe toward the second toe.\nHow is a Hallus Valgus treated?\nshoes with wide forefoot\nuse of bunion pads\nsurgical removal: may include temporary or permanent internal fixation\nhammer toe\ndeformity of the second through the fifth toes,\ntearing of a ligament\nstrecthing of muscle an fascia sheath\ncomplete separation of articular surface of joint due to ligament injury\nincomplete separation of articular surfaces of joint due to ligamnet injury\nrepetitive strain injury\ntendon and mucle strain with inflammation and decreased circulation.\ninflammation of synovial membrane sac at friction sites\ncarpal tunnel syndrome\ncompression of median nerve in the wrist\nmeniscus injury\ncartilage compression and tearing associated with rotational stress\nimpingement syndrome\nentrapement of soft-tissue structure under coracoacromial arch of the shoulders\nrotator cuff injury\ntear within muscles or ligaments of shoulder\nRICE is indicate for initial management of what type of injury?\nsprains and strains\nThe earliest warning sign of compartmental syndrome\nprodressive pain that is distal to the injury and is unrelieved by usual analagesics\nadvantages of synthetic fiberglass cast\nlightweight and waterproof and support immediate mobilization\n\nAdd Cards\n\nYou must Login or Register to add cards |
__label__positive \n Dismiss Notice\nDismiss Notice\nJoin Physics Forums Today!\n\nExpected value question\n\n 1. Feb 6, 2010 #1\n A catalog contains 10 itmes. Two people, A and B each select 3 items from the catalog independently. What is the expected value of the number of items A and B ordered.\n\n My attempt:\n Let A chose any 3 items. The probability that B\n Chose 1 similar item is 3/10\n Chose 2 of the same items = 3/10*2/9\n Chose 3 of the same items = 3/10*2/9*1/8\n\n And so the expected value is 1*(3/10) +2*(3/10*2/9) + 3*(3/10*2/9*1/8) = 11/24\n But he awnsers page sais it is 0.9\n I don't really know what I'm doing wrong\n Guidance needed :)\n 2. jcsd\n 3. Feb 6, 2010 #2\n How did you compute your probabilities?\n Last edited: Feb 6, 2010\n 4. Feb 6, 2010 #3\n A chose any 3 items.\n Then the chance that B chose one of them is 3/10. He has three chances to chose one of ten objects. The chance that B chose 2 of the same is 3/10*2/9 since he had 3 chances for the first one and two chances out of the nine remaining for the next one. etc\n 5. Feb 6, 2010 #4\n The probability that the first item B chooses is one of A's items is 3/10. But what about the other two? With no restriction, they could be anything: one of A's or not one of A's, coincidental with the first item, etc.\n 6. Feb 6, 2010 #5\n I don't see why.\n The chance that B took one item is 3/10. Then to chose another item he has two choices left out of 9 other items. So 2/9 and multiply by 3/10 since to get the seconed item he had to get the first item.\n 7. Feb 6, 2010 #6\n Suppose you want to know the probability that B chooses exactly one of A's items. Then he has to choose one of the 3 items of A, and two of the remaining 7.\n 8. Feb 6, 2010 #7\n Ok. I got it. Thanks for the help, much apreciated.\n\nSimilar Discussions: Expected value question |
__label__positive Exam 4- Histamine and Histamine Blockers\n\n255 terms by mandee2024\n\nCreate a new folder\n\nAdvertisement Upgrade to remove ads\n\n\nLow molecular weight endogenous amine that is found in low concentrations in most tissue except for the brain:\n\nmast cells\n\nWhat cells are found in the skin, GOT and lungs and have high amounts of histamine?\n\n\nBesides mast cells, what other circulating cells have high amounts of histamine?\n\n\nIn order for cells to release histamine, what state does the cell have to be in?\n\n\nHistamine acts through which transmembrane receptors?\n\n\nHow many mechanisms can break down histamine?\n\nhistamine N- methyltransferase\n\nWhat metabolizes histamine first?\n\nmonoamine oxidase\n\nWhat enxyme plays a role in histamine degradation that, if inhibited, will cause an increase in histamine response?\n\n\nWhat drugs can inhibit monoamine oxidase resulting in increased histamine response?\n\ndiamine oxidase\n\nWhat is the second way that histamine can be metabolized?\n\n\nHistamine is stored in vesicles associated with what?\n\n\nHow any types of histamine receptors are there?\n\ng protein receptors\n\nWhen histamine binds to a receptor, what causes the physiologic and pathologic responses?\n\nstimulates gastric acid secretion\n\nPhysiologic response to histamine receptor activation?\n\nallergic reactions\n\nPathologic response to histamine receptor activation?\n\n\nWhat is a pathological total body event?\n\n\nWhich histamine receptor is found on all smooth muscle, endothelium, and CNS tissue?\n\nall of it\n\nWhich smooth muscle are h1 receptors found on?\n\n- vasodilation\n- bronchoconstriction\n- bronchial smooth muscle contraction\n- separation of endothelial cells\n- pain and itching due to insect stings\n\nFive things that h1 activation causes:\n\nbecause it causes bronchoconstriction\n\nHow can h1 receptor activation cause pulmonary HTN?\n\nseparation of endothelial cells\n\nHow does h1 cause hives?\n\n- allergic rhinitis\n- motion sickness\n\nH1 receptors are primarily involved in what two things?\n\nmotion sickness\n\nWhich one of the 2 symptoms that h1 causes do we care about?\n\nh1 antagonists\n\nWhat types of drugs will reverse the effects of h1 activation?\n\nparietal cells\n\nWhere are h2 receptors located?\n\nstimulate gastric acid secretion\n\nWhat is the primary action of h2 receptors?\n\nalpha 2\n\nH3 histamine receptor is like which adrenergic receptor?\n\nCNS and peripheral nervous tissue\n\nWhat 2 places are h3 receptors found?\n\n\nWhat 4 neurotransmitters are released by h3?\n\n\nWhich receptor is found in basophils, bone marrow, intestines, thymus, and spleen?\n\n\nH4 plays a role in what?\n\n\nWhich histamine receptor increases cAMP by stimulating adenylate cyclase?\n\n\nWhich histamine receptor stimulates phophoinositide turnover and influx of calcium?\n\n\nWhich histamine receptor has presynaptic regulation of neurotransmitter release (dopamine, GABA, glutamate, ACH, NE, and 5ht)?\n\n\nThe effects of these receptors on smooth muscles is rapid and transient, they are sensitive to lower histamine concentrations, they cause constriction and increased GI motility:\n\n\nThese receptors on neurons inhibits the release and synthesis of histamine:\n\n\nResponse of these receptors on smooth muscle is slow and sustained and they cause dilation:\n\n- hypotension from vasodilation\n- reflex tachycardia\n- increased capillary permeability\n- decreased peripheral resistance\n\nWhat are the 4 combined receptor responses of h1 and h2 on smooth muscle?\n\n\nIf a pt is on a beta blocker and they experience hypotension, will there be any reflex tachycardia?\n\n- fluid\n- increased capillary permeability causes total body edema and depleted intravascular volume\n\nWhat is one of the major treatments of anaphylaxis and why?\n\n\nWhat is h1's predominant action on the bronchi tissue?\n\n\nWhat is h2's action on the bronchi tissue?\n\n\nThe actions produced by h1 and h2 are the same or opposite?\n\n- slows av conduction\n- decreases HR\n- coronary vasoconstriction\n\n3 actions of h1 on the heart:\n\npromotes ca influx\n\nHow does h2 act an a positive inotrope (increases myocardial activity)?\n\n\nWhat does the cardiac h2 response do to automaticity, chronotropy, and HR?\n\n\nWhat does h2 do to the frequency of arrhythmias?\n\n\nWhat does h2 do to the coronary arteries?\n\nparietal cells\n\nWhich cells do h2 receptors cause increased secretion of hydrogen ions?\n\nallergic reaction\n\nWhat is an immune mediated reaction due to prior sensitization?\n\nno- they're one of several\n\nAre histamines the only signals in allergic reactions?\n\n\nAre the signal responses by allergens the same or variable?\n\n\nAnaphylaxis is an immune mediated response due to prior sensitization of what?\n\n\nWhich drug is protein from fish sperm and is the reversal agent for heparin?\n\nif they've ever had a vascetomy becuase they will be sensitive to the protamine that is given\n\nWhat do we have to ask male pts before having cabg and why?\n\n\nWhich substance causes a predominant histamine response but is more responsive to histamine receptor antagonism?\n\n\nLeukotrienes are predominant ____.\n\nedema and pruritis\n\nThe variable effect of histamines in human is seen when they are blocked by a h antagonist with:\n\nhypotension and bradycardia\n\nThe variable effect of histamines in human is seen when they are not completely blocked by a h antagonist with:\n\nsurface of the mast cell and inhibits histamine release\n\nWhere does cromolyn work and what does it do?\n\n\nWhen does cromolyn have to be given to be effective?\n\n\nYou're in the OR, the pts PAP and PIP both increase rapidly and the PAOP falls, what is occuring?\n\nfluid is leaving the vasculature and into the interstitium\n\nWhy does the PAOP fall in anaphylaxis?\n\n- hypotension\n- circulatory collapse\n- bronchial artery vasoconstriction\n- bronchospasm\n- angioedema\n- urticaria\n\n6 clinical manifestations of anaphylaxis:\n\nRV failure\n\nWhat is a risk of acute bronchial artery vasoconstriction?\n\nincreased PIP\naltered ETCO2 curve\n\n3 things that can mean bronchospasm:\n\n\nWhich ETCO2 waveform shows bronchospasm?\n\nangioedema can still persist that you cannot see\n\nWhy should you let the cuff down a few minutes before pulling the ETT?\n\nsevere hypotension\n\nWhen the IgE antigen stimulates histamine, tryptase, prostaglandins, leukotrienes, kinins, and nitric oxide, what occurs?\n\nmast cells\n\nWhich antigen's mechanism is via cellular signaling via phospholipase C and what are the inflammatory cells?\n\n\nWhich antigen's mechanism is via complement activation and anaphylatoxin generation and what are the inflammatory cells?\n\n\nAnaphylaxis or anaphylactiod:\nNo sensitization required and may occur at first drug exposure.\n\nsplit dosing\n\nWhat technique does Dr. Nolan suggest when trying to get around an anaphylactoid reaction?\n\n\nWhich drug class has the highest incidence of anaphylactic reactions?\n\nrocuronium, atracurium, succinylcholine\n\nWhat are the alleged 3 most common NMBs associated with anaphylaxis?\n\n\nWhat is the agent that is the second highest in causing anaphylaxis?\n\n\nWhat is the third highest in causing anaphylaxis?\n\n\nWhat 3 abx are the most associated with anaphylaxis?\n\nPCN and cephalosporins\n\nWhat two abx are cross reactive?\n\n- bananas\n- avocados\n- kiwis\n- mangos\n- stone fruits\n\n5 fruits that are associated with latex allergy:\n\nmultiple operations and other incidences of frequent contact with latex\n\nWhat other situations place people at risk for developing latex allergy?\n\ntest dose\n\nWhat can clinicians administer to see if a reaction is going to occur?\n\n\nCan nonreactive test doses be followed by analphylaxis?\n\nspeed of administration\n\nWhat is important in drugs that are known histamine releasers, but not for anaphylaxis, since small doses may trigger reactions?\n\nbecause they are histamine releasing events\n\nWhy doesn't pretreating work with dyes?\n\n\nCan pretreated patients for anaphylaxis with antihistamines or steroids still have anaphylaxis?\n\n\nAre radiocontrast media reactions immunologically related?\n\n\nA true drug allergy or allergic reaction has what 3 signs?\n\n\nWhat percent chance can pts with penicillin allergies have a reaction with cephalosporins?\n\n10 minutes\n\nHow many minutes before the initial loading dose of a drug should the test dose be administered?\n\n1) Discontinuation of drug that caused it\n2) 100% o2\n3) IVF\n4) IV epinephrine\n5) diphenhydramine\n6) rantidine or cimetidine\n7) albuterol\n8) cortocosteroids\n\nWhat are the steps in managing anaphylaxis?\n\nprofound vasodilation causes hypovolemia\n\nWhy do we need to give volume with anaphylaxis?\n\nnorepi or vasopressin\n\nIf hypotension is refractory in anaphylaxis then what can we give?\n\nrefractory hypotension or vasodilitary shock\n\nWhy give vasopressin in anaphylaxis (2)?\n\n5-10 mcg\n\nInitial epinephrine bolus in anaphylaxis?\n\n100-500 mcg\n\nEpinephrine for vascular collapse:\n\nafter the epi\n\nGive diphenhydramine when?\n\nalpha 1 and beta 2 agonist\n\nWhat kind of drug is epinephrine?\n\n\nDiphenhydramine blocks which receptor?\n\n\nRanditine or cimetidine blocks which receptor?\n\nrelax the bronchial smooth muscle\n\nWhy do we give albuterol and ipratropium in anaphylactic reaction?\n\n- to prevent late or delayed symptoms\n- early hours of the resuscitation period\n\nWhy do we give corticosteroids in anaphylaxis? When do we give them?\n\n\n2 mg in 250 mL can run at what rate for 1 mcg/min?\n\nBeta 2 agonists (terbutaline or albuterol)\n\nWhat do we treat bronchospasm with?\n\nmake it longer\n\nWhat do you need to do to the e time in bronchospasm?\n\nmilrinone, inhaled NO, inhaled prostacyclin\n\nWhat are 4 pulmonary vasodilating drugs that can treat pulmonary HTN if blood pressure is stable?\n\n\nDo histamine receptor antagonists inhibit histamine?\n\nthey prevent binding of the histamine to the receptor thus preventing the response\n\nHow do h blockers work?\n\n\nHow many generations of h blockers are there for the h1 receptor?\n\nclassical histamines\n\n1st generation antihistamines are considered what?\n\n\nSecond generation antihistamines are what?\n\n3-6 hours\n\n- Sedative and anticholinergic effects:\n- Antiemetic effects:\n- DOA:\n\n4 to 24 hours\n\n- Sedative effects:\n- Anticholinergic and antiemetic effects:\n\nfirst generation H1 antagonists\n\nDiphenhydramine and promethazine are what class?\n\n\nWhich second generation h1 antagonists have no sedative effects, anticholinergic activity, or antiemetic effects?\n\n\nWhich h2 blocker is the only one with mild sedative effects while the rest have none?\n\nfirst generation h1 blockers\n\nThese h blockers are lipid soluble and can cross the BBB, they are well absorbed, and metabolized:\n\n\nAre first generation h1 blockers able to be ionized?\n\nconstipation or diarrhea\ndry mouth\nblurred vision\nurinary retention\n\nAdverse reactions of 1st gen h1 blockers (8):\n\n\nAre h1 blockers the best choice for inhibition of allergic rhinitis?\n\n\nH1 receptor blockers are useful in what symptoms?\n\nmotion sickness\nAllergic reaction\nsleep aid\n\nH1 receptor blockers are prescribed for (4) in addition to conjunctivitis and urticaria:\n\nH1 antihistamine overdose\n\nFever, excitement, pupil dilation, hallucinations, and convulsions are all signs of what?\n\nactivated charcoal\ngastric lavage\n\nTreatment for H1 antihistamine overdose (4):\n\nhot as a stove\nred as a beet\ndry as a bone\nmad as a hatter\n\nWay to remember the S&Ss of H1 antihistamine overdose:\n\n2nd gen h1 antihistamines\n\nLipid soluble with highly ionized functional group resulting in less CNS penetration, well absorbed, metabolized in the liver, and the half life is 5-6 hours:\n\nperipheral receptors\n\nThe 2nd gen h1 antagonists are selective for which h1 receptors?\n\n- sedative\n- antipruritic\n- antiemetic\n- anticholinergic\n\nDiphenhydramine actions (4) as a h1 antagonist (1st gen):\n\n- allergenic and allergic reactions\n- sedation\n- prevention of motion sickness\n\nIndications of duphenhydramine (4):\n\n10-50mg IV q4hours\n400mg per day max\n\nAdult dose of diphenhydramine:\n\nprimarily hepatic metabolism and renal excretion\n\nClearance of diphenhydramine and promethazine:\n\nadverse effects of diphenhydramine\n\nHypotension, tachycardia, dizziness, urinary retention, seizures, sedation, delirium are all adverse effects of what drug?\n\n\nWhat adverse effect of diphenhydramine is the reason that we give epi first?\n\n\nPromethazine antagonizes what 3 receptors?\n\nantiemetic and sedation\n\nWhat are the muscarinic receptors responsible for?\n\n\nThe hypotensive and anticholinergic adverse effects of promethazine are mild or marked?\n\n\nThe action of the D2 receptor causes what adverse effects?\n\n\nWhat can occur with intraarterial or extravasated injections of promethazine?\n\n\nCan promethazine cross the placenta?\n\nif the etiology is known\n\nWhen should be the only time you use promethazine for vomiting?\n\nA- 1st gen h1 antagonists\nB- 2nd gen h1 antagonists\n\n2nd gen h1 blockers\n\nAll of these are what?\n\nthey are considered non-drowsy\n\n2nd gen h1 blockers have what main difference from 1st gen h1 blockers?\n\nallergic rhinitis\n\n2nd gen h1 blockers are recommended as the first line of treatment of what?\n\nchronic urticaria\n\n2nd gen h1 blockers are also used for what problem?\n\n\nAre injected corticosteroids without major reactions?\n\n\nThis 2nd gen h1 blocker shouldn't be given with fruit juice as it decreases the efficacy and is used to treat seasonal allergies like hay fever and chronic urticaria:\n\nperipheral h1 receptors\n\nWhich receptor do histamine blockers work on to relieve chronic urticaria?\n\n\nWhich 2nd gen h1 blocker has an active metabolite?\n\nSee More\n\nPlease allow access to your computer\u2019s microphone to use Voice Recording.\n\nHaving trouble? Click here for help.\n\nWe can\u2019t access your microphone!\n\n\n\nReload the page to try again!\n\n\nPress Cmd-0 to reset your zoom\n\nPress Ctrl-0 to reset your zoom\n\n\nPlease upgrade Flash or install Chrome\nto use Voice Recording.\n\nFor more help, see our troubleshooting page.\n\nYour microphone is muted\n\nFor help fixing this issue, see this FAQ.\n\nStar this term\n\nYou can study starred terms together\n\nNEW! Voice Recording\n\nCreate Set |
__label__positive Ask Your Question\n\nconfidence value and threshold in opencv\n\nasked 2013-04-21 07:32:27 -0500\n\nagile gravatar image\n\nWhat is the difference between \"confidence\" value in Face Recognizer predict method and \"threshold\" in model consrtuctor?\n\nI want to just grab the LBP histogram from the source image and compare it with the previous stored LBP Histograms and I want a probabilistic match. Like top three matches. I am presently grabbing the LBP Histogram through train method and I want a set of distances from the predict method not just a single predicted label.\n\n\nedit retag flag offensive close merge delete\n\n1 answer\n\nSort by \u00bb oldest newest most voted\n\nanswered 2013-04-21 07:54:05 -0500\n\nberak gravatar image\n\nthe 'confidence' value is actually the distance between the test and the closest found image.\n\nthe 'threshold' value passsed into the constructor is used in the predict method, any distance greater than that is ignored (thresholded).\n\nunfortunately, to achieve more than one result, you'd have to hack the source, or copy parts of it into your source code (contrib/src/facerec.cpp).\n\ndon't be afraid of it, the code is quite easy.\n\ngood luck!\n\nedit flag offensive delete link more\n\n\nif confidence is the distance between test and the closest it means it is the distance return by CompareHist. i.e \"dist\" in the code: double dist = compareHist(_histograms[sampleIdx], query, HISTCMP_CHISQR);\n\nIf that is the case, then why the dist is compared with minDist (which is confidence value). if((dist < minDist) && (dist < _threshold)) {..}\n\nagile gravatar imageagile\u00a0( 2013-04-21 08:21:44 -0500 )edit\n\ndist is Not the distance between test and the closest , but distance between test and the current item from the train set.\n\nfrom there on its just a nearest-neighbour search\n\nberak gravatar imageberak\u00a0( 2013-04-21 09:09:25 -0500 )edit\n\nThanks. I am doing it for android and using JavaCV. But I don't know if it source is available in JavaCV. But I can write my own predict method. i just need comareHist which is available in android opencv and javacv as well.\n\nagile gravatar imageagile\u00a0( 2013-04-22 05:53:59 -0500 )edit\n\nQuestion Tools\n\n\nAsked: 2013-04-21 07:32:27 -0500\n\nSeen: 5,208 times\n\nLast updated: Apr 21 '13 |
__label__positive Science Quiz\nQuestion 1 of 10\nWhat sterile animal is produced when a male donkey breeds with a female horse?\nQuestion 2 of 10\nWhat is hyperglycemia?\nQuestion 3 of 10\nTo escape snide coverage of his \"moon rockets,\" Robert Goddard fled to what community, which today is, ironically enough, best known as a supposed UFO landing pad?\nQuestion 4 of 10\nWhat British media mogul set a record for the fastest crossing of the English channel by an amphibious vehicle?\nQuestion 5 of 10\nWhat type of blood cell helps fight and eat germs?\nQuestion 6 of 10\nIn addition to inventing a proto-computer, Charles Babbage also invented the cowcatcher. What is this?\nQuestion 7 of 10\nWhat are circuits with more than one pathway for electrons called?\nQuestion 8 of 10\nBefore he designed the Saturn V that launched Apollo 11, he was a member of both the Nazi party and the SS, having used slave labor from the Dora concentration camp. Who?\nQuestion 9 of 10\nHow cold does it need to be outside before it can snow?\nQuestion 10 of 10\nWhich chemical element is named after the inventor of dynamite?\n\nMore interesting quizzes |
__label__positive Busy. Please wait.\n\nForgot Password?\n\nDon't have an account? \u00a0Sign up\u00a0\n\nshow password\n\n\n\n\nAlready a StudyStack user? Log In\n\nReset Password\n\nRemove ads\nDon't know (0)\nKnow (0)\nremaining cards (0)\n\nPass complete!\n\n\"Know\" box contains:\nTime elapsed:\nrestart all cards\n\n\n\u00a0 Normal Size \u00a0 \u00a0 Small Size show me how\n\nATI - Practice\n\nATI Practice Questions Part 1\n\nThis is a common side effect of albuterol if it is used excessively. tachycardia\nWhat is the greatest risk following a thoracentisis? pneumothorax\nIn a patient post thoracentisis, what might decreased breath sounds indicate? pneumothorax\nWhy would a blood specimen from a radial artery be aspirated into a heparinized syringe? Heparinization is required for an accurate sampling result.\nWhy is it necessary to perform the Allen test before drawing a blood sample from a radial artery? This prevents the use of an artery that has insufficient blood flow, which can damage the hand.\nWhy should patients with COPD receive a high calorie and high protein diet? Patients with COPD have difficulty obtaining enough calories and protein duet to fatigue and satiety. Therefore the food that is consumed should be high in calories and protein.\nIn the patient with COPD, when should respiratory treatments be scheduled in reference to meals? before meals\nWhat does continuout bubbling in the water seal chamber of a test tube indicate? A possible air leak which will require further action.\nIn a patient with a chest tube following surgery, drainage greater than what amount would require further action. 100 mL/hr\nWhy should the nurse have a pair of padded clamps in the room of a patient who has had a chest tube inserted? In case the chest tube becomes disconnected.\nIs a cough related to pneumonia usually productive or nonproductive? productive\nWith pneumonia, a SaO2 level below what is expected? 95%\nWhat would we expect the temperature of a patient with bacterial pneumonia to do? elevate\nWill a patient with bacterial pneumonia have tachypnea, or bradypnea? In an attempt to increase oxygen levels, respirations will increase, therefore tachypnea.\nIf a patient has lung cancer, we may expect to see what in the sputum and why? Blood because the tumor may be bleed.\nIn a patient with lung cancer what usually happens to the tactile fremitus? It is usually increased due to tumor spaces being replaced with tumor tissue or fluids.\nWhat condition can occure with too much or scheduled suctioning? Hypoxia\nIf a patient is hypoventilating, will the patient be more likely to develop respiratory acidosis or respiratory alkalosis? Respiratory acidosis\nWhat is the greatest risk for a patient who has just been diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism? This patient is at greatest risk for respiratory arrest related to extension of the clot.\nThis is a short acting Beta 2 agonist which acts quickly to produce bronchodilation and would be used for a patient with an acute asthma attack. albuterol (proventil)\nWhen a patient has a vent, what alarm will a kink in the tubing cause to go off? The high pressure alarm.\nWhen a patient has a vent, what alarm will a leak in the artificial airway cuff cause to go off? The low pressure alarm.\nWhat alarm will an excess of secretions cause to go off with the vent patient? The high pressure alarm.\nWhat alarm does biting of the tracheal tube cause to go off with the vent patient? The high pressure alarm.\nWhat color will Rifampin (Rifadin) which is given to patients with pulmonary tuberculosis, turn the urine? orange\nShould Rifampin (Rifadin) which is used for pulmonary tuberculosis, be taken on an empty stomach or with meals? It should be taken on an empty stomach.\nWhat happens to the PaO2 in acute respiratory failure? It is decreased.\nDoes acute respiratory failure result in respiratory acidosis or respiratory alkalosis? Respiratory acidosis\nWhat will happen to the carbon dioxide levels in acute respiratory failure? It will rise.\nA tension pneumothorax will cause the trachea to deviate to what side? The unaffected side.\nAn increase of respiratory rate indicates what in the work of breathing? An increase in the work of breathing and the need for improvement of oxygen delivery.\nWhat type of isolation precautions should be implemented for the patient who is admitted with active tuberculosis? Airborne isolation. Negative pressure room.\nWhat kind of precautions should be implemented with the patient with Rubella? Droplet precautions.\nThis type of isolation protects patients from outside infections, such as patients who are receiving bone marrow transplants. Neutropenic precautions.\nWhat type of precaustions would be implemented for the patient with Scabies> Contact precautions.\nWhat is the greatest risk to the patient following a bronchoscopy? Aspiration because of a depressed gag reflex.\nA patient taking the aminoglycoside Gentamicin(Garamycin) which is an antibiotic should be watched for signs of what condition? Nephrotoxicity\nIs Catopril used to reduce or increase blood pressure? reduce blood pressure\nIn patients with renal impairment, what can Sodium Bicarbonate cause? It can cause system alkalosis.\nAbsorption of sodium can either increase or decrease blood pressure. Which one is it? Increase blood pressure, but it is contraindicated in patients with renal impairment.\nWhat is Eryhropoeitn given to patients with chronic renal failure for? To treat the associated anemia.\nWhy would a patient with oliguric renal failure be given Dopamine (Intropin)? To enhance blood flow to the kidneys and to increase the patient's blood pressure.\nHemodialysis is contraindicated for patient who are not able to take what kind of medications? Anticoagulants\nIn acute renal failure what happens to the potassium level? It is usually elevated.\nIn acute renal failure what happens to the sodium level? It is usually decreased\nWhat happens to the hct in acute renal failure? It is usually decreased.\nWhy cant a chronic renal failure patient use salt substitute? Because it contains potassium.\nWhy cant a chronic renal failure patient take milk of magnesia? Because it is too high in sodium.\nWhat might weight gain indicate in a chronic renal failure patient? It might indicate fluid retention caused by poorly functioning kidneys.\nIn a patient who has just undergone a tranurethral resectioning of the prostate, what causes the strong urge to urinate and what should the nurse do in this situation? Bladder spasms are causing the urge to urinate, the nurse should administer a belladonna and opium suppository.\nWhat is the greatest risk to the patient who has had hemodialysis 1 hour ago? Hypoventilation\nAcute pylonephritis is an acute bacterial infection that is treated with IV antibiotics\nWhat is pyuria? Presence of WBC's in the urine.\nWhat type of a diuretic is Spironolactone? It is a potassium sparing diuretic.\nWhat action does polystyrene sulfonate have on the patient with elevated potassium levels? It is an exchange resin that will absorb excess potassium.\nWhat will Oxybutynin (Ditropan)do for the patient with mixed (urge and stress) incontinence? It will decrease the leaking of urine, relieving symptoms of stress incontinence.\nWhat color is the urine of a patient with acute glomerulonephritis? It is usually dark colored, a reddish brown color.\nDo patients with nephrotic syndrome experience hypoalbuminuria or hyperalbuminuria? Hypoalbuminuria\nPersons with gout need to limit the amount of foods high in what? Purines\nIn the patient receiving hemodialysis, a rapid increase of fluids can result in cerebral edema and IICP putting the patient at risk for what? seizures\nWhat type of technique is used for changing the dressing on a penrose drain? sterile technique\nIf a patient has an eviscerated wound, after covering it with a saline soaked dressing, what should be done next? Vitals should be taken to determine if the patient is in shock.\nIf a patient is on antihypertensive medications like Captopril (Catopen) what kind of a risk might it pose for the patient getting ready to undergo surgery? It could cause a hypotensive crisis when it is given with anethetic agents.\nIn the postoperative patient, reports of chest pain and SOB may indicate what occurence with the patient? Pulmonary Embolism |
__label__positive Portugal Flashcards Preview\n\n\u25ba Wine 1 > Portugal > Flashcards\n\nFlashcards in Portugal Deck (57):\n\nWhat are the primary grapes of Port?\n\nTouriga Nacional, Touriga Franca, Tinta Roriz (also known elsewhere in Portugal as Aragonez and everywhere else as Tempranillo)\n\n\nWhat is Portugal's most planted grape variety?\n\nThe white grape Fernao Pires, also called Maria Gomes, and is found mainly in the south.\n\n\nWhat is the most common red variety in Portugal?\n\nCastelao (also known as Periquita)\n\n\nCastelao (also known as Periquita)\n\nLess than a third\n\n\nWhat two white grapes are prominent in Vinho Verde?\n\nLoureiro and Alvarinho (known in Rias Baixas as Loureira and Albarino).\n\n\nWhat four grapes are important to Madeira?\n\nServial, Malvasia, Verdelho (known in Vinho Verde as Gouveio and in Spain as Godello), Boal (or Bual)\n\n\nWhat are \"lodges\" in reference to Port?\n\nThe warehouses where Port wines are traditionally aged until ready for shipping.\n\n\nWhat is the difference between the Duoro and the Duero?\n\nThe Duoro is what the river is called in Portugal and once it extends 60 miles eastward to the Spanish boarder, it becomes the Duero.\n\n\nWhat three subregions is the Duoro divided into?\n\nBaixo Corgo, Cima Corgo, and Duoro Superior.\n\n\nWhat style of port does the Baixo Corgo make?\n\nIn the westernmost section, the Baixo Corgo is a relatively fertile area with ample rainfall that makes mostly lighter styles of Port.\n\n\nWhat kind of climate does the Cima Corgo have and what type of port do they produce?\n\nThe central core of the Port region, this subzone has steep rocky slopes of schist and granite that have been terraced. It has hot summers, cold winters, less rain than Baixo Corgo and is considered to produced the finest ports.\n\n\nWhere is almost half the port vineyard acreage located?\n\nIn the Cima Corgo\n\n\nWhat is the climate like in the Duoro Superior?\n\nThe upriver, eastern part of the valley with more extreme temperatures than the Cima Corgo and very little rainfall. It is the largest subzone physically but contains less than a quarter of the area under vine for port.\n\n\nWhat are the 6 preferred varieties for Port production?\n\nTouriga Nacional, Touriga Franca, Tinta Roriz (Tempranillo), Tinta Barroca, Tinta Cao, and Tinta Amarela (also known as Trincadeira)\n\n\nWhat are the two predominant varieties for white Port?\n\nMalvasia and Gouveio\n\n\nDefine \"ruby\" Port.\n\nLight style of Port, with a dark ruby red color and youthful aromas. Rubies are aged in large oak casks for a minimum of two to three years.\n\n\nDefine \"reserve\" Port.\n\nA blend of premium ruby Ports bottled after four to six years aging in oak vats and are more like tawny Ports.\n\n\nDefine \"Aged Tawny\" Port.\n\nA Port with enough additional aging that its color has taken on brownish tones and more mature oxidized flavors. Some are aged in wooden casks for decades.\n\n\nWhat is a \"pipe\" in reference to Port production?\n\nA pipe refers to the wooden casks that an aged tawny Port is aged in.\n\n\nDefine \"vintage\" Port.\n\nA port from a single year's harvest, bottled young and then cellared for many more years before release. Producers individually \"declare a vintage\" in excellent years, typically 3 out of 10.\n\n\nDefine \"cadastro\".\n\nA unique and complex vineyard ranking system in the Port region. It assesses 12 factors such as altitude, yield, and locality. Each vineyard is classified A to F (high to low).\n\n\nDefine \"beneficio\".\n\nThe volume of Port that a vineyard is allowed to produced, which artifically raises prices. The beneficio is based on the ranking given by the cadastro.\n\n\nDefine \"late bottled vintage\" Port.\n\nA wine from a single vintage, matured like a tawny in large oak vats for four to six years and then bottled for immediate release.\n\n\nDefine \"white\" Port.\n\nA commercial style of Port made from white grapes.\n\n\nWhat is the only DOC covering Port wines from the Douro Valley?\n\n\n\nWhat are estates called in the upper Douro Valley?\n\n\n\nWhat does \"maderization\" refer to?\n\nThe \"cooking\" process of the wine. A process discovered when ships took local wines from Portugal to the Far East or the Americas. The time the wine spent among the hot cargo did something that improved its character, resulting in amber-colored wine with nutty, caramelized flavors.\n\n\nWhat grape varieties are considered the \"noble\" grapes of Maderia?\n\nSercial, Verdelho (gouveio), Boal, and Malvasia.\n\n\nWhat is the most widely planted grape on the island of Madeira?\n\nTinta Negra Mole\n\n\nWhat grapes are used to make dry styles of Madeira?\n\nSercial, Verdelho, or Tinta Negra Mole (fortified after fermentation like a Sherry)\n\n\nWhat grapes are used to make sweet styles of Madeira?\n\nBoal, Malvasia, or Tinta Negra Mole (have their fermentation arrested like a Port)\n\n\nWhat are the two methods used to maderize a Madeira wine?\n\nCanteiro method (placing wine in casks in the rafters or canteiros of an uncooled warehouse where it will be subjected to high temperatures under the subtropical sun. several years or ages but produces complex flavors and considered the highest quality)\nEstufa method (leaving the wine in a concrete vat...an estufa or \"oven\"...and circulating hot water through a submerged coil. Faster method made for commercial wines.\n\n\nClassic Maderia takes the names of the noble grapes used for the style. What are these grapes, from driest to sweetest?\n\nSercial: Dry and highly acidic.\nVerdelho: Off-dry\nBoal: Raisiny and sweet\nMalmsey: (British corruption of Malvasia) Very sweet but balanced by acidity\n\n\nAre Maderia wines still labled based on grape names?\n\nNot since joining the EU. They are required to contain at least 85% of the variety in order to be termed a \"Sercial\" etc.\n\n\nWhat is the coolest/wettest part of Portugal? What types of wine does it produce?\n\nMinho. It produces much more white than red.\n\n\nWhich DOC produces almost all of the quality wine in Minho?\n\nVinho Verde DOC - literally meaning \"green wine\" to imply it's youth.\n\n\nWhat is the officially recommended Vinho Verde white and red grape varieties?\n\nWhite = Alvarinho\nRed = Amaral\n\n\nWhat red and white grapes are most commonly used for Vinho Verde wines?\n\nWhite = Loureiro\nRed = Vinhao\n\n\nWhere does most quality wine from the Douro Valley come from?\n\nWhere does most quality wine from the Douro Valley come from?\n\n\nWines made in the Douro region from nontraditional varieties (such as Cab Sav) do not qualify for the DOC and use what?\n\nVR Durinese\n\n\nWhich VR in Portugal is known for making almost twice as much vinho de mesa as country wine?\n\nBeiras VR\n\n\nWhat are the two significant DOCs in the Beiras VR region?\n\nBairrado DOC with a cool Mediterranean climate and the Dao DOC which is farther inland, surrounded by mountains, and has a more continental climate. They both produce white, red, rose, and sparkling wines. Reds make up the majority of the output in both cases.\n\n\nWhich VR and DOC in southeastern Portugal have a wine production that is increasing faster than any other region in the country?\n\nDOC Alentejo for quality wine and VR Alentejano for country wine.\n\n\nWhat are the leading grapes in the Alentejo region?\n\nAragonez (Tempranillo) and Tricadeira (Tinta Amarela)\n\n\nWhat wine classification of Portugals is equivalent to the French's \"vin de pays\"?\n\nVR wines\n\n\nWhich regions in Portugal make up the bulk of CTR production and area under vine?\n\nLisboa, Ribatejano (and Tejo, the identically bordered DOC), and Tras-os-Montes\n\n\nFrom north to south, what are the major wine regions of Portugal?\n\nTransmontano VR (Tras-os-Montes DOC), Minho VR (Vinho Verde DOC), Duriense VR (Porto DOC and Douro DOC), Beiras VR (Bairrada DOC and Dao DOC), Lisboa VR, Tejo VR (Ribatejo DOC), Peninsula de Setubal (Setubal DOC), Alentejano VR (Alentejo DOC), and Algarve VR\n\n\nWhat are the four levels of Portugese wine classification? From lowest to highest?\n\nVinho de mesa (1/4 of production)\nVinho regional (VR) - country wine from one of the 11 VR regions\nIndicacao de proveniencia regulamentada (IPR) - minor entry level quality wine that is likely to be phased out soon (like France's VDQS)\nDenominacao de origem controlada (DOC) - 27 DOCs at present, including Port and Madeira\n\n\nIs Portugal better knwon for international or indigenous grape varieties?\n\n\n\nWhat are three internationally known wines from Portugal?\n\nVinho Verdo, Port, Madeira\n\n\nIs Port fortified before or after fermentation stops? Name a style of Madeira that is fortified at the same stage?\n\nBefore, Malmsy\n\n\nWhat are the two most northern VR regions in Portual?\n\nTransmontano VR (Trans-os-Montes DOC) and Minho VR (Vinho Verde DOC)\n\n\nWhat is Transmontano VR known for?\n\nTransmontano VR contains the Tras-os-Montes DOC which represents the bulk of VR production and area under vine.\n\n\nWhat is Minho VR known for?\n\nMinho VR is the coolest and wettest part of the country, so it is not surprising that it produces more white than red. It includes Vinho Verde DOC which literally means \"green wine\" but can be red, white, or pink. The \"green\" implies youth.\n\n\nWhat grapes are important to the Vinho Verde DOC?\n\nLoureiro is the grape variety most commonly used for white Vinho Verde but Alvarinho (the same variety of Albarino of Rias Baixas) is considered the standout grape of most authorized varieties. Red Vinho Verde is made mostly from Vinhao.\n\n\nWhat is the alcohol content of Vinho Verde?\n\nUsually quite low. The minimum for white Vinho Verde is 8.5%.\n\n\nWhat appelation is Portugal's largest in area and second largest in quantity after Port?\n\nVinho Verde DOC |
__label__positive Quick Answer: What Causes Low Oxygen At Night?\n\nDoes being on oxygen weaken your lungs?\n\n\n\nWhat happens when you have lack of oxygen to the brain?\n\n\nWhy do I feel short of breath but my oxygen saturation is good?\n\n\nWhat is the lowest oxygen level you can live with?\n\n\nHow do you test for hypoxia?\n\n\nHow do you increase oxygen levels while sleeping?\n\nBut even low oxygen levels\u2014hypoxia or hypoxemia\u2014can cause problems, while high levels can improve our health\u2026.Improve Blood Oxygen Levels During Sleep: 12 Things To DoEat Well. \u2026 Exercise. \u2026 Get Fresh Air. \u2026 Improve the Air Quality in Your Home. \u2026 Sing. \u2026 Sleep on Your Side. \u2026 Deal With Your Sinus Problems. \u2026 Avoid Alcohol.More items\u2026\u2022\n\nHow can I increase oxygen in my blood?\n\n\nHow can I check my oxygen level at home?\n\n\nWhat are the four stages of hypoxia?\n\nHypoxia can be classified into four stages based on altitude and the associated performance decrements and physiological symptoms.Indifferent Stage, 0 \u2013 1,500 m (0 \u2013 5,000 ft)Complete Compensatory Stage, 1,500 \u2013 3,500 m (5,000 \u2013 11,400 ft)Partial Compensatory Stage, 3,500 \u2013 6,000 m (11,400 \u2013 20,000 ft)More items\u2026\u2022\n\nDo COPD patients die in their sleep?\n\n\nHow do I improve my breathing?\n\n\nWhat foods increase oxygen in the blood?\n\nFocus on iron-rich foods such as meat, poultry, fish, legumes and green leafy vegetables. These dietary choices can correct an iron deficiency, which could increase your body\u2019s ability to process oxygen and make you feel more energetic. Stock up on green vegetables like kale, broccoli and celery.\n\nDoes lack of oxygen make you sleepy?\n\nWhen your body is low on oxygen, you feel tired. Fatigue comes more quickly when your lungs can\u2019t properly inhale and exhale air. This sets up an unpleasant cycle. When you\u2019re left feeling lethargic because of a lack of oxygen, you\u2019re less likely to engage in physical activity.\n\nWhat is the first sign of hypoxia?\n\n\nWhat vitamin is good for oxygen levels?\n\nOranges. Packed with Vitamin C, oranges are easy to find all year and are tasty, too. Oranges are also packed with fiber, and they are excellent sources of vitamins B and A as well as nutrients such as folate, pantothenic acid, calcium, copper and potassium.\n\nCan stress cause low oxygen levels?\n\n\nHow do you know if your body is low on oxygen?\n\nYour body needs oxygen to work properly, so if your oxygen levels are too low, your body may not work the way it is supposed to. In addition to difficulty breathing, you can experience confusion, dizziness, chest pain, headache, rapid breathing and a racing heart.\n\nCan low oxygen levels be reversed?\n\nOxygen therapy is a treatment for lung disease. It is not a cure. Oxygen therapy will not reverse lung damage. Oxygen only helps people who suffer from very low blood-oxygen levels.\n\nWhat are the 4 types of hypoxia?\n\n\nWhat are the symptoms of low oxygen at night?\n\n\nWhat are the signs that a person needs oxygen?\n |
__label__positive Study your flashcards anywhere!\n\nDownload the official Cram app for free >\n\n \u2022 Shuffle\n Toggle On\n Toggle Off\n \u2022 Alphabetize\n Toggle On\n Toggle Off\n \u2022 Front First\n Toggle On\n Toggle Off\n \u2022 Both Sides\n Toggle On\n Toggle Off\n \u2022 Read\n Toggle On\n Toggle Off\n\nHow to study your flashcards.\n\n\n\nH key: Show hint (3rd side).h key\n\nA key: Read text to speech.a key\n\n\nPlay button\n\n\nPlay button\n\n\n\n\nClick to flip\n\n30 Cards in this Set\n\n \u2022 Front\n \u2022 Back\n \u2022 3rd side (hint)\nWhat is Development?\nTwo types of nations are Developed & Less Developed/Developing\nWhat is a Developed Nation?\nA nation with a higher average level of material well-being.\nnations with highly developed infrastructure, highly industrialize & service oriented, high literacy rates\nWhat is a Less Developed Nation?\nA nation with a low level of material well-being.\nNations with poorly developed infrastructure & minimal industry, low literacy rates\nWhat is Per Capita Gross Domestic Product (per capita GDP)?\nA nation's gross domestic product (GDP) divided by its total population.\nused to compare the living standards within nations\nWhat is Industrialization?\nThe extensive organization of an economy for the purpose of manufacture.\nrequires large amounts of energy to manufacture products\nWhat is Subsistence Agriculture?\nLevel of farming in which a person raises only enough food to feed his/her family\nfarming using simple tools, few machines on small tracts of land\nWhat is the Literacy Rate?\nThe proportion of the population over age 15 that can read & write\nDeveloped nations have a higher literacy rate than less developed nations\nWhat is Life Expectancy?\nThe average expected life span of an individual.\nIndicator of how well an economic system supports life and fends off death.\nWhat is Infant Mortality Rate?\nThe number of deaths that occur in the first year of life per 1000 births\nThe U.S.A. has a rate of 6.4 or 6.4 deaths out of every 1000 births in the 1st yr. of life\nWhat is Infrastructure?\nThe services and facilities necessary for an economy to function.\nex. are transportation & communication systems, roads, power plants, schools, & banks.\nWhat is a Newly Industrialized Country (NIC)?\nLess developed country that has shown significant improvement in the measures of development.\nex. are Mexico, Brazil, Malaysia, Thailand, Singapore, Hong Kong, South Korea, & Taiwan.\nWhat is the World Bank?\nAn international organization devoted to assisting development.\nUses per capita gross national income (GNI) to categorize nations as high, middle, or low income.\nWhat is Population Growth Rate?\nThe increase in a country's population in a given year, expressed as a percentage of the population figure at the start of the year.\ntakes into account the # of births, deaths, & people migrating to/from a country; expressed as a percentage of the population figure at the start of the year.\nWhat is the Natural Rate of Population Increase?\nThe difference between the birth rate and the death rate.\nMany LCDs are experiencing an increase in life expectancy and population growth\nWhat is Arable?\nLand suitable for growing crops.\nAccounts for only 10% of Earth's land\nWhat is Malnutrition?\nInadequate nutrition.\nsuffered by the population in many of less developed nations. Causes low birth weight, brain damage & birth defects in children\nWhat is Internal Financing?\nFinancing derived from the savings of a country's citizens.\nDeveloping countries save for investment or look to the developed world for investment funds.\nWhat is Foreign Investment?\nInvestment originating from other countries.\nAmericans borrowed from othe countries in order to build the transamerican railroad.\nWhat is Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)?\nThe establishment of an enterprise by a foreigner.\nForeign investment is often a Multinational Corporation in an LDC.\nWhat is a Foreign Portfolio Investment?\nThe entry of funds into a country when foreigners make purchases in the country's stock and bond markets.\nEx. U.S. investor buys shares in a Mutual Fund which in turn buys shares in a Foreign company.\nWhat is the World Bank?\nThe largest provider of development assistance founded in 1940.\nIt raises money on financial markets & accepts contributions from the wealthier member nations.\nWhat is the United Nations Development Program (UNDP)?\nUnited Nations program dedicated to elimination of poverty through development\nworld's largest source of grant funding for economic & social development.\nWhat is Debt Rescheduling?\nLengthening the time of debt repayment and forgiving, or dismissing, part of the loan\nIn return the debtor nationis expected to accept an IMF stabilization program\nWhat is a Stabilization Program?\nAn agreement between a debtor nation and the IMF in which the nation agrees to revise its economic policy.\nProgram that provides incentives for higher export earnings & to lower imports.By increasing exports an LDC can earn more foreign money to repay debt.\nWhat is Privatization?\nThe sale or transfer of state-owned businesses to individuals\ngives individuals, not government, the right to make decisions about what to produce & how much to produce\nWhat is a Work Ethic?\nSystem of values that gives central importance to work.\nIn a free market, incentives, not quotas, influence people's labor.\nWhat is Glasnost?\nA policy of political \"openness\" introduced into the Soviet Union in the late 1980s\nEncouraged Soviet citizens to say what they wished without fear of government persecution.\nWhat is Perestroika?\nSoviet leader Gorbachev's plan for economic restructuring.\nCalled for a gradual change from a centrally planned system to free enterprise. Gorbachev desired to incorporate markets & incentives into the existing structure of communism.\nWhat is Light Industry?\nThe production of small consumer goods.\nEx. producing clothing, appliances, bicycles, etc.\nWhat are Special Economic Zones?\nDesignated regions in China where foreign investment is encouraged, businesses can make most of their own investment , and production decisions, and foreign companies are allowe to operate\nCoastal cities of Hong Kong & Taiwan are where China's places of Economic growth. Ex. Three Gorges Dam caused much displacement in population (>100 million) but brought economic growth to the area |
__label__positive [Unicode] \u00a0Frequently Asked Questions Home | Site Map | Search\n\n\nGeneral questions, relating to UTF or Encoding Forms\n\n\n\n\nByte Order Mark (BOM) FAQ\n\nGeneral questions, relating to UTF or Encoding Form\n\nQ: Is Unicode a 16-bit encoding?\n\nA: No. The first version of Unicode was a 16-bit encoding, from 1991 to 1995, but starting with Unicode 2.0 (July, 1996), it has not been a 16-bit encoding. The Unicode Standard encodes characters in the range U+0000..U+10FFFF, which amounts to a 21-bit code space. Depending on the encoding form you choose (UTF-8, UTF-16, or UTF-32), each character will then be represented either as a sequence of one to four 8-bit bytes, one or two 16-bit code units, or a single 32-bit code unit.\n\nQ: Can Unicode text be represented in more than one way?\n\nA: Yes, there are several possible representations of Unicode data, including UTF-8,\u00a0 UTF-16 and UTF-32. In addition, there are compression transformations such as the one described in the UTS #6: A Standard Compression Scheme for Unicode (SCSU).\n\nQ: What is a UTF?\n\nA: A Unicode transformation format (UTF) is an algorithmic mapping from every Unicode code point (except surrogate code points) to a unique byte sequence. The ISO/IEC 10646 standard uses the term \u201cUCS transformation format\u201d for UTF; the two terms are merely synonyms for the same concept.\n\nEach UTF is reversible, thus every UTF supports lossless round tripping: mapping from any Unicode coded character sequence S to a sequence of bytes and back will produce S again. To ensure round tripping, a UTF mapping must map all code points (except surrogate code points) to unique byte sequences. This includes reserved (unassigned) code points and the 66 noncharacters (including U+FFFE and U+FFFF).\n\nThe SCSU compression method, even though it is reversible, is not a UTF because the same string can map to very many different byte sequences, depending on the particular SCSU compressor. [AF]\n\nQ: Where can I get more information on encoding forms?\n\nA: For the formal definition of UTFs see Section 3.9, Unicode Encoding Forms in The Unicode Standard. For more information on encoding forms see UTR #17: Unicode Character Encoding Model. [AF]\n\nQ: How do I write a UTF converter?\n\nA: The freely available open source project International Components for Unicode (ICU) has UTF conversion built into it. The latest version may be downloaded from the ICU Project web site. [AF]\n\nQ: Are there any byte sequences that are not generated by a UTF? How should I interpret them?\n\nA: None of the UTFs can generate every arbitrary byte sequence. For example, in UTF-8 every byte of the form 110xxxxx2 must be followed with a byte of the form 10xxxxxx2. A sequence such as <110xxxxx2 0xxxxxxx2> is illegal, and must never be generated. When faced with this illegal byte sequence while transforming or interpreting, a UTF-8 conformant process must treat the first byte 110xxxxx2 as an illegal termination error: for example, either signaling an error, filtering the byte out, or representing the byte with a marker such as FFFD (REPLACEMENT CHARACTER). In the latter two cases, it will continue processing at the second byte 0xxxxxxx2.\n\nA conformant process must not interpret illegal or ill-formed byte sequences as characters, however, it may take error recovery actions. No conformant process\u00a0 may use irregular byte sequences to encode out-of-band information.\n\nQ: Which of the UTFs do I need to support?\n\nA: UTF-8 is most common on the web. UTF-16 is used by Java and Windows. UTF-8 and UTF-32 are used by Linux and various Unix systems. The conversions between all of them are algorithmically based, fast and lossless. This makes it easy to support data input or output in multiple formats, while using a particular UTF for internal storage or processing.\u00a0 [AF]\n\nQ: What are some of the differences between the UTFs?\n\nA: The following table summarizes some of the properties of each of the UTFs.\u00a0\n\nName UTF-8 UTF-16 UTF-16BE UTF-16LE UTF-32 UTF-32BE UTF-32LE\nSmallest code point 0000 0000 0000 0000 0000 0000 0000\nLargest code point 10FFFF 10FFFF 10FFFF 10FFFF 10FFFF 10FFFF 10FFFF\nCode unit size 8 bits 16 bits 16 bits 16 bits 32 bits 32 bits 32 bits\nByte order N/A <BOM> big-endian little-endian <BOM> big-endian little-endian\nFewest bytes per character 1 2 2 2 4 4 4\nMost bytes per character 4 4 4 4 4 4 4\n\nIn the table <BOM> indicates that the byte order is determined by a byte order mark, if present at the beginning of the data stream, otherwise it is big-endian.\u00a0[AF]\n\nQ: Why do some of the UTFs have a BE or LE in their label, such as UTF-16LE?\n\nA: UTF-16 and UTF-32 use code units that are two and four bytes long respectively. For these UTFs, there are three sub-flavors: BE, LE and unmarked. The BE form uses big-endian byte serialization (most significant byte first), the LE form uses little-endian byte serialization (least significant byte first) and the unmarked form uses big-endian byte serialization by default, but may include a byte order mark at the beginning to indicate the actual byte serialization used. [AF]\n\nQ: Is there a standard method to package a Unicode character so it fits an 8-Bit ASCII stream?\n\nA: There are three or four options for making Unicode fit into an 8-bit format.\n\na) Use UTF-8. This preserves ASCII, but not Latin-1, because the characters >127 are different from Latin-1. UTF-8 uses the bytes in the ASCII only for ASCII characters. Therefore, it works well in any environment where ASCII characters have a significance as syntax characters, e.g. file name syntaxes, markup languages, etc., but where the all other characters may use arbitrary bytes.\nExample: \u201cLatin Small Letter s with Acute\u201d (015B) would be encoded as two bytes: C5 9B.\n\nb) Use Java or C style escapes, of the form \\uXXXXX or \\xXXXXX. This format is not standard for text files, but well defined in the framework of the languages in question, primarily for source files.\nExample: The Polish word \u201cwyj\u015bcie\u201d with character \u201cLatin Small Letter s with Acute\u201d (015B) in the middle (\u015b is one character) would look like: \u201cwyj\\u015Bcie\".\n\nc) Use the &#xXXXX; or &#DDDDD; numeric character escapes as in HTML or XML. Again, these are not standard for plain text files, but well defined within the framework of these markup languages.\nExample: \u201cwyj\u015bcie\u201d would look like \u201cwyjście\"\n\nd) Use SCSU. This format compresses Unicode into 8-bit format, preserving most of ASCII, but using some of the control codes as commands for the decoder. However, while ASCII text will look like ASCII text after being encoded in SCSU, other characters may occasionally be encoded with the same byte values, making SCSU unsuitable for 8-bit channels that blindly interpret any of the bytes as ASCII characters.\nExample: \u201c<SC2> wyj\u00dbcie\u201d where <SC2> indicates the byte 0x12 and \u201c\u00db\u201d corresponds to byte 0xDB. [AF]\n\nQ: Which of these approaches is the best?\n\nA: That depends on the circumstances: Of these four approaches, d) uses the least space, but cannot be used transparently in most 8-bit environments. a) is the most widely supported in plain text files and b) and c) use the most space, but are widely supported for program source files in Java and C, or within HTML and XML files respectively.\u00a0 [AF]\n\nQ: Which of these formats is the most standard?\n\nA: All four require that the receiver can understand that format, but a) is considered one of the three equivalent Unicode Encoding Forms and therefore standard. The use of b), or c) out of their given context would definitely be considered non-standard, but could be a good solution for internal data transmission. The use of SCSU is itself a standard (for compressed data streams) but few general purpose receivers support SCSU, so it is again most useful in internal data transmission. [AF]\n\n\nQ: What is the definition of UTF-8?\n\nA: UTF-8 is the byte-oriented encoding form of Unicode. For details of its definition, see Section 2.5, Encoding Forms and Section 3.9, Unicode Encoding Forms \u201d in The Unicode Standard. See, in particular, Table 3-6 UTF-8 Bit Distribution and Table 3-7 Well-formed UTF-8 Byte Sequences, which give succinct summaries of the encoding form. Make sure you refer to the latest version of the Unicode Standard, as the Unicode Technical Committee has tightened the definition of UTF-8 over time to more strictly enforce unique sequences and to prohibit encoding of certain invalid characters. There is an Internet RFC 3629 about UTF-8. UTF-8 is also defined in Annex D of ISO/IEC 10646. See also the question above, How do I write a UTF converter?\n\nQ: Is the UTF-8 encoding scheme the same irrespective of whether the underlying processor is little endian or big endian?\n\nA: Yes. Since UTF-8 is interpreted as a sequence of bytes, there is no endian problem as there is for encoding forms that use 16-bit or 32-bit code units. Where a BOM is used with UTF-8, it is only used as an encoding signature to distinguish UTF-8 from other encodings \u2014 it has nothing to do with byte order.\u00a0 [AF]\n\nQ: Is the UTF-8 encoding scheme the same irrespective of whether the underlying system uses ASCII or EBCDIC encoding?\n\nA: There is only one definition of UTF-8. It is the precisely the same, whether the data were converted from ASCII or EBCDIC based character sets. However, byte sequences from standard UTF-8 won\u2019t interoperate well in an EBCDIC system, because of the different arrangements of control codes between ASCII and EBCDIC. UTR #16: UTF-EBCDIC defines is a specialized UTF\u00a0 that will interoperate in EBCDIC systems. [AF]\n\nQ: How do I convert a UTF-16 surrogate pair such as <D800 DC00> to UTF-8? A one four byte sequence or as two separate 3-byte sequences?\n\nA: The definition of UTF-8 requires that supplementary characters (those using surrogate pairs in UTF-16) be encoded with a single four byte sequence. However, there is a widespread practice of generating pairs of three byte sequences in older software, especially software which pre-dates the introduction of UTF-16 or that is interoperating with UTF-16 environments under particular constraints. Such an encoding is not conformant to UTF-8 as defined. See UTR #26: Compatability Encoding Scheme for UTF-16: 8-bit (CESU) for a formal description of such a non-UTF-8 data format. When using CESU-8, great care must be taken that data is not accidentally treated as if it was UTF-8, due to the similarity of the formats. [AF]\n\nQ: How do I convert an unpaired UTF-16 surrogate to UTF-8?\n\nA different issue arises if an unpaired surrogate is encountered when converting ill-formed UTF-16 data. By represented such an unpaired surrogate on its own as a 3-byte sequence, the resulting UTF-8 data stream would become ill-formed. While it faithfully reflects the nature of the input, Unicode conformance requires that encoding form conversion always results in valid data stream. Therefore a converter must treat this as an error. [AF]\n\n\nQ: What is UTF-16?\n\nA: UTF-16 uses a single 16-bit code unit to encode the most common 63K characters, and a pair of 16-bit code units, called surrogates, to encode the 1M less commonly used characters in Unicode.\n\nOriginally, Unicode was designed as a pure 16-bit encoding, aimed at representing all modern scripts. (Ancient scripts were to be represented with private-use characters.) Over time, and especially after the addition of over 14,500 composite characters for compatibility with legacy sets, it became clear that 16-bits were not sufficient for the user community. Out of this arose UTF-16. [AF]\n\nQ: What are surrogates?\n\nA: Surrogates are code points from two special ranges of Unicode values, reserved for use as the leading, and trailing values of paired code units in UTF-16. Leading, also called high, surrogates are from D80016 to DBFF16, and trailing, or low, surrogates are from DC0016 to DFFF16. They are called surrogates, since they do not represent characters directly, but only as a pair.\n\nQ: What\u2019s the algorithm to convert from UTF-16 to character codes?\n\nA: The Unicode Standard used to contain a short algorithm, now there is just a bit distribution table. Here are three short code snippets that translate the information from the bit distribution table into C code that will convert to and from UTF-16.\n\nUsing the following type definitions\n\ntypedef unsigned int16 UTF16;\ntypedef unsigned int32 UTF32;\n\nthe first snippet calculates the high (or leading) surrogate from a character code C.\n\nUTF16 X = (UTF16) C;\nUTF32 U = (C >> 16) & ((1 << 5) - 1);\nUTF16 W = (UTF16) U - 1;\nUTF16 HiSurrogate = HI_SURROGATE_START | (W << 6) | X >> 10;\n\nwhere X, U and W correspond to the labels used in Table 3-5 UTF-16 Bit Distribution. The next snippet does the same for the low surrogate.\n\nUTF16 X = (UTF16) C;\nUTF16 LoSurrogate = (UTF16) (LO_SURROGATE_START | X & ((1 << 10) - 1));\n\nFinally, the reverse, where hi and lo are the high and low surrogate, and C the resulting character\n\nUTF32 X = (hi & ((1 << 6) -1)) << 10 | lo & ((1 << 10) -1);\nUTF32 W = (hi >> 6) & ((1 << 5) - 1);\nUTF32 U = W + 1;\nUTF32 C = U << 16 | X;\n\nA caller would need to ensure that C, hi, and lo are in the appropriate ranges. [AF]\n\nQ: Isn\u2019t there a simpler way to do this?\n\nA: There is a much simpler computation that does not try to follow the bit distribution table.\n\n// constants\nconst UTF32 LEAD_OFFSET = 0xD800 - (0x10000 >> 10);\nconst UTF32 SURROGATE_OFFSET = 0x10000 - (0xD800 << 10) - 0xDC00;\n\n// computations\nUTF16 lead = LEAD_OFFSET + (codepoint >> 10);\nUTF16 trail = 0xDC00 + (codepoint & 0x3FF);\n\nUTF32 codepoint = (lead << 10) + trail + SURROGATE_OFFSET;\n\n\nQ: Why are some people opposed to UTF-16?\n\nA: People familiar with variable width East Asian character sets such as Shift-JIS ( SJIS) are understandably nervous about UTF-16, which sometimes requires two code units to represent a single character. They are well acquainted with the problems that variable-width codes have caused. However, there are some important differences between the mechanisms used in SJIS and UTF-16:\n\n\n \u2022 In SJIS, there is overlap between the leading and trailing code unit values, and between the trailing and single code unit values. This causes a number of problems:\n\n \u2022 It causes false matches. For example, searching for an \u201ca\u201d may match against the trailing code unit of a Japanese character.\n\n \u2022 It prevents efficient random access. To know whether you are on a character boundary, you have to search backwards to find a known boundary.\n\n \u2022 It makes the text extremely fragile. If a unit is dropped from a leading-trailing code unit pair, many following characters can be corrupted.\n\n \u2022 In UTF-16, the code point ranges for high and low surrogates, as well as for single units are all completely disjoint. None of these problems occur:\n\n \u2022 There are no false matches.\n\n \u2022 The location of the character boundary can be directly determined from each code unit value.\n\n \u2022 A dropped surrogate will corrupt only a single character.\n\n\n \u2022 The vast majority of SJIS characters require 2 units, but characters using single units occur commonly and often have special importance, for example in file names.\n\n \u2022 With UTF-16, relatively few characters require 2 units. The vast majority of characters in common use are single code units. Even in East Asian text, the incidence of surrogate pairs should be well less than 1% of all text storage on average. (Certain documents, of course, may have a higher incidence of surrogate pairs, just as phthisique is an fairly infrequent word in English, but may occur quite often in a particular scholarly text.) [AF]\n\nQ: Will UTF-16 ever be extended to more than a million characters?\n\nA: No. Both Unicode and ISO 10646 have policies in place that formally limit future code assignment to the integer range that can be expressed with current UTF-16 (0 to 1,114,111). Even if other encoding forms (i.e. other UTFs) can represent larger intergers, these policies mean that all encoding forms will always represent the same set of characters. Over a million possible codes is far more than enough for the goal of Unicode of encoding characters, not glyphs. Unicode is not designed to encode arbitrary data. If you wanted, for example, to give each \u201cinstance of a character on paper throughout history\u201d its own code, you might need trillions or quadrillions of such codes; noble as this effort might be, you would not use Unicode for such an encoding.\u00a0[AF]\n\nQ: Are there any 16-bit values that are invalid?\n\nA: Unpaired surrogates are invalid in UTFs. These include any value in the range D80016 to DBFF16 not followed by a value in the range DC0016 to DFFF16, or any value in the range DC0016 to DFFF16 not preceded by a value in the range D80016 to DBFF16. [AF]\n\nQ: What about noncharacters? Are they invalid?\n\nA: Not at all. Noncharacters are valid in UTFs and must be properly converted. For more details on the definition and use of noncharacters, as well as their correct representation in each UTF, see the Noncharacters FAQ.\n\nQ: Because supplementary characters are uncommon, does that mean I can ignore them?\n\nA: Just because supplementary characters (expressed with surrogate pairs in UTF-16) are uncommon does not mean that they should be neglected. They include:\n\n \u2022 emoji symbols and emoticons, for interoperating with Japanese mobile phones\n\n \u2022 uncommon (but not unused) CJK characters, important for personal and place names\n\n \u2022 variation selectors for ideographic variation sequences\n\n \u2022 important symbols for mathematics\n\n \u2022 numerous minority scripts and historic scripts, important for some user communities\n\nQ: How should I handle supplementary characters in my code?\n\nA: Compared with BMP characters, the supplementary characters are relatively uncommon in most contexts. That fact can be taken into account when optimizing implementations for best performance: execution speed, memory usage, and storage. This is particularly useful for UTF-16 implementations, and to a lesser degree in UTF-8 implementations.\n\nQ: What is the difference between UCS-2 and UTF-16?\n\nA: UCS-2 is obsolete terminology which refers to a Unicode implementation up to Unicode 1.1, before surrogate code points and UTF-16 were added to Version 2.0 of the standard. This term should now be avoided.\n\nUCS-2 does not describe a data format distinct from UTF-16, because both use exactly the same 16-bit code unit representations. However, UCS-2 does not interpret surrogate code points, and thus cannot be used to conformantly represent supplementary characters.\n\nSometimes in the past an implementation has been labeled \"UCS-2\" to indicate that it does not support supplementary characters and doesn't interpret pairs of surrogate code points as characters. Such an implementation would not handle processing of character properties, code point boundaries, collation, etc. for supplementary characters. [AF]\n\n\nQ: What is UTF-32?\n\nA: Any Unicode character can be represented as a single 32-bit unit in UTF-32. This single 4 code unit corresponds to the Unicode scalar value, which is the abstract number associated with a Unicode character. UTF-32 is a subset of the encoding mechanism called UCS-4 in ISO 10646. For more information, see Section 3.9, Unicode Encoding Forms in The Unicode Standard. [AF]\n\nQ: Should I use UTF-32 (or UCS-4) for storing Unicode strings in memory?\n\nA: This depends. If you frequently need to access APIs that require string parameters to be in UTF-32, it may be more convenient to work with UTF-32 strings all the time. However, the downside of UTF-32 is that it forces you to use 32-bits for each character, when only 21 bits are ever needed. The number of significant bits needed for the average character in common texts is much lower, making the ratio effectively that much worse. In many situations that does not matter, and the convenience of having a fixed number of code units per character can be the deciding factor.\n\nIncreasing the storage for the same number of characters does have its cost in applications dealing with large volume of text data: it can mean exhausting cache limits sooner; it can result in noticeably increased read/write times or in reaching bandwidth limits; and it requires more space for storage. What a number of implementations do is to represent strings with UTF-16, but individual character values with UTF-32.\n\nThe chief selling point for Unicode is providing a representation for all the world\u2019s characters, eliminating the need for juggling multiple character sets and avoiding the associated data corruption problems. These features were enough to swing industry to the side of using Unicode (UTF-16). While a UTF-32 representation does make the programming model somewhat simpler, the increased average storage size has real drawbacks, making a complete transition to UTF-32 less compelling. [AF]\n\nQ: How about using UTF-32 interfaces in my APIs?\n\nA: Except in some environments that store text as UTF-32 in memory, most Unicode APIs are using UTF-16. With UTF-16 APIs\u00a0 the low level indexing is at the storage or code unit level, with higher-level mechanisms for graphemes or words specifying their boundaries in terms of the code units. This provides efficiency at the low levels, and the required functionality at the high levels.\n\nIf its ever necessary to locate the nth character, indexing by character can be implemented as a high level operation. However, while converting from such a UTF-16 code unit index to a character index or vice versa is fairly straightforward, it does involve a scan through the 16-bit units up to the index point. In a test run, for example, accessing UTF-16 storage as characters, instead of code units resulted in a 10\u00d7 degradation. While there are some interesting optimizations that can be performed, it will always be slower on average. Therefore locating other boundaries, such as grapheme, word, line or sentence boundaries proceeds directly from the code unit index, not indirectly via an intermediate character code index.\n\nQ: Doesn\u2019t it cause a problem to have only UTF-16 string APIs, instead of UTF-32 char APIs?\n\nA: Almost all international functions (upper-, lower-, titlecasing, case folding, drawing, measuring, collation, transliteration, grapheme-, word-, linebreaks, etc.) should take string parameters in the API, not single code-points (UTF-32). Single code-point APIs almost always produce the wrong results except for very simple languages, either because you need more context to get the right answer, or because you need to generate a sequence of characters to return the right answer, or both.\n\nFor example, any Unicode-compliant collation (See UTS #10: Unicode Collation Algogrithm (UCA)) must be able to handle sequences of more than one code-point, and treat that sequence as a single entity. Trying to collate by handling single code-points at a time, would get the wrong answer. The same will happen for drawing or measuring text a single code-point at a time; because scripts like Arabic are contextual, the width of x plus the width of y is not equal to the width of xy. Once you get beyond basic typography, the same is true for English as well; because of kerning and ligatures the width of \u201cfi\u201d in the font may be different than the width of \u201cf\u201d plus the width of \u201ci\". Casing operations must return strings, not single code-points; see http://www.unicode.org/charts/case/ . In particular, the title casing operation requires strings as input, not single code-points at a time.\n\nStoring a single code point in a struct or class instead of a string, would exclude support for graphemes, such as \u201cch\u201d for Slovak, where a single code point may not be sufficient, but a character sequence is needed to express what is required. In other words, most API parameters and fields of composite data types should not be defined as a character, but as a string. And if they are strings, it does not matter what the internal representation of the string is.\n\nGiven that any industrial-strength text and internationalization support API has to be able to handle sequences of characters, it makes little difference whether the string is internally represented by a sequence of UTF-16 code units, or by a sequence of code-points ( = UTF-32 code units). Both UTF-16 and UTF-8 are designed to make working with substrings easy, by the fact that the sequence of code units for a given code point is unique. [AF]\n\nQ: Are there exceptions to the rule of exclusively using string parameters in APIs?\n\nA: The main exception are very low-level operations such as getting character properties (e.g. General Category or Canonical Class in the UCD). For those it is handy to have interfaces that convert quickly to and from UTF-16 and UTF-32, and that allow you to iterate through strings returning UTF-32 values (even though the internal format is UTF-16).\n\nQ: How do I convert a UTF-16 surrogate pair such as <D800 DC00> to UTF-32? A one 4-byte sequence or as two 4-byte sequences?\n\nA: The definition of UTF-32 requires that supplementary characters (those using surrogate pairs in UTF-16) be encoded with a single 4-byte sequence.\n\nQ: How do I convert an unpaired UTF-16 surrogate to UTF-32?\n\nA: If an unpaired surrogate is encountered when converting ill-formed UTF-16 data, any conformant converter must treat this as an error. By representing such an unpaired surrogate on its own, the resulting UTF-32 data stream would become ill-formed. While it faithfully reflects the nature of the input, Unicode conformance requires that encoding form conversion always results in valid data stream. [AF]\n\nByte Order Mark (BOM) FAQ\n\nQ: What is a BOM?\n\nA: A byte order mark (BOM) consists of the character code U+FEFF at the beginning of a data stream, where it can be used as a signature defining the byte order and encoding form, primarily of unmarked plaintext files. Under some higher level protocols, use of a BOM may be mandatory (or prohibited) in the Unicode data stream defined in that protocol. [AF]\n\nQ: Where is a BOM useful?\n\nA: A BOM is useful at the beginning of files that are typed as text, but for which it is not known whether they are in big or little endian format\u2014it can also serve as a hint indicating that the file is in Unicode, as opposed to in a legacy encoding and furthermore, it act as a signature for the specific encoding form used. [AF]\n\nQ: What does \u2018endian\u2019 mean?\n\nA: Data types longer than a byte can be stored in computer memory with the most significant byte (MSB) first or last. The former is called big-endian, the latter little-endian. When data is exchanged, bytes that appear in the \"correct\" order on the sending system may appear to be out of order on the receiving system. In that situation, a BOM would look like 0xFFFE which is a noncharacter, allowing the receiving system to apply byte reversal before processing the data. UTF-8 is byte oriented and therefore does not have that issue. Nevertheless, an initial BOM might be useful to identify the datastream as UTF-8. [AF]\n\nQ: When a BOM is used, is it only in 16-bit Unicode text?\n\nA: No, a BOM can be used as a signature no matter how the Unicode text is transformed: UTF-16, UTF-8, or UTF-32. The exact bytes comprising the BOM will be whatever the Unicode character U+FEFF is converted into by that transformation format. In that form, the BOM serves to indicate both that it is a Unicode file, and which of the formats it is in. Examples:\n\nBytes Encoding Form\n00 00 FE FF UTF-32, big-endian\nFF FE 00 00 UTF-32, little-endian\nFE FF UTF-16, big-endian\nFF FE UTF-16, little-endian\n\nQ: Can a UTF-8 data stream contain the BOM character (in UTF-8 form)? If yes, then can I still assume the remaining UTF-8 bytes are in big-endian order?\n\nA: Yes, UTF-8 can contain a BOM. However, it makes no difference as to the endianness of the byte stream. UTF-8 always has the same byte order. An initial BOM is only used as a signature \u2014 an indication that an otherwise unmarked text file is in UTF-8. Note that some recipients of UTF-8 encoded data do not expect a BOM. Where UTF-8 is used transparently in 8-bit environments, the use of a BOM will interfere with any protocol or file format that expects specific ASCII characters at the beginning, such as the use of \"#!\" of at the beginning of Unix shell scripts. [AF]\n\nQ: What should I do with U+FEFF in the middle of a file?\n\nA: In the absence of a protocol supporting its use as a BOM and when not at the beginning of a text stream, U+FEFF should normally not occur. For backwards compatibility it should be treated as ZERO WIDTH NON-BREAKING SPACE (ZWNBSP), and is then part of the content of the file or string. The use of U+2060 WORD JOINER is strongly preferred over ZWNBSP for expressing word joining semantics since it cannot be confused with a BOM. When designing a markup language or data protocol, the use of U+FEFF can be restricted to that of Byte Order Mark. In that case, any U+FEFF occurring in the middle of a file can be treated as an unsupported character[AF]\n\nQ: I am using a protocol that has BOM at the start of text. How do I represent an initial ZWNBSP?\n\nA: Use U+2060 WORD JOINER instead.\u00a0\n\nQ: How do I tag data that does not interpret U+FEFF as a BOM?\n\nA: Use the tag UTF-16BE to indicate big-endian UTF-16 text, and UTF-16LE to indicate little-endian UTF-16 text. If you do use a BOM, tag the text as simply UTF-16. [MD]\n\nQ: Why wouldn\u2019t I always use a protocol that requires a BOM?\n\nA: Where the data has an associated type, such as a field in a database, a BOM is unnecessary. In particular, if a text data stream is marked as UTF-16BE, UTF-16LE, UTF-32BE or UTF-32LE, a BOM is neither necessary nor permitted. Any U+FEFF would be interpreted as a ZWNBSP.\n\nDo not tag every string in a database or set of fields with a BOM, since it wastes space and complicates string concatenation. Moreover, it also means two data fields may have precisely the same content, but not be binary-equal (where one is prefaced by a BOM).\n\nQ: How I should deal with BOMs?\n\nA: Here are some guidelines to follow:\n\n 1. A particular protocol (e.g. Microsoft conventions for .txt files) may require use of the BOM on certain Unicode data streams, such as files. When you need to conform to such a protocol, use a BOM.\n\n 2. Some protocols allow optional BOMs in the case of untagged text. In those cases,\n\n \u2022 Where a text data stream is known to be plain text, but of unknown encoding, BOM can be used as a signature. If there is no BOM, the encoding could be anything.\n\n \u2022 Where a text data stream is known to be plain Unicode text (but not which endian), then BOM can be used as a signature. If there is no BOM, the text should be interpreted as big-endian.\n\n 3. Some byte oriented protocols expect ASCII characters at the beginning of a file. If UTF-8 is used with these protocols, use of the BOM as encoding form signature should be avoided.\n\n 4. Where the precise type of the data stream is known (e.g. Unicode big-endian or Unicode little-endian), the BOM should not be used. In particular, whenever a data stream is declared to be UTF-16BE, UTF-16LE, UTF-32BE or UTF-32LE a BOM must not be used. (See also Q: What is the difference between UCS-2 and UTF-16?.) [AF] |
__label__positive Featured Post\n\n9th August 2016 Current Affairs Questions and Answers\n\n\nIndia GK Question Paper 112\n\nIndia GK Question Sample Paper 112: India General Knowledge (GK) Sample Question Paper No. 112 with Collection of 20\u00a0 Question\u00a0of India GK Questions under GK Quiz in PDF @\u00a0\u00a0India GK Sample Papers. India General Knowledge (GK) and General Science (GS) Questions are also available with Quiz on daily basis.\n\nFor Update on India GK Quiz Follow us on\u00a0\nIndia GK Question Paper NO. 112:\nQ.1861 In India which one of the following is not a natural harbour?\nA. Chennai\nB. Cochin\nC. Mumbai\nD. Vishakhapatnam\n\nQ.1862 Where is the 'Black Pagoda'?\nA. Madurai\nB. Konark\nC. Khajuraho\nD. None of these\nQ.1863 The second largest Island (next to Greenland) of the world is-\nA. Borneo\nB. Malagasy\nC. Sumatra\nD. New Guinea\n\nQ.1864 Which of the following is not a fruit?\nA. Torato\nB. Cucumber\nC. Pumpkin\nD. Potato\nAns: D\n\nQ.1865 Sound waves do not travel in?\nA. Hydrogen\nB. Vacuum\nC. Iron\nD. Water\nAns: B\n\nQ.1866 The ozone is situated in-\nA. Troposphere\nB. Stratosphere\nC. Mesosphere\nD. Exosphere\n\nQ.1867 If two points are placed just on either side of the International Date Line, the difference in time between these two points will approximately be how many hours?\nA. 12 hours\nB. 18 hours\nC. 24 hours\nD. nil\nAns: C\n\nQ.1868 Which one of the following rivers flows near Paris?\nA. Rhine\nB. Volga\nC. Danube\nD. Thames\nAns: A\n\nQ.1869 Which one of the following latitudes forms a great circle?\nA. 00\nB. 23 \u00bd 0\nC. 66 \u00bd 0\nD. 900\nAns: A\n\nQ.1890 Which one of the following is known as the Pearl City?\nA. Cochin\nB. Tuticorin\nC. Rameswaram\nD. Masulippatanam\nAns: B\n\nQ.1891 The Pacific Ocean was so named by\nA. Bartholomew Diaz\nB. Magellan\nC. Vasco da Gama\nD. Columbus\nAns: B\n\nQ.1892 Who was the first man to reach the South Pole?\nA. Robert Walpole\nB. Amundson\nC. Robert Peary\nD. none of these\nAns: B\n\nQ.1893 Which of the following cities are situated on the banks of river \u2018Tigris\u2019?\nA. Sharjah\nB. Baghdad\nC. Dubai\nD. London\nAns: B\n\nQ.1894 Which of the following is not an island?\nA. Greenland\nB. Ireland\nC. Cuba\nD. Sweden\nAns: D\n\nQ.1895 Which of the following places are connected by the Adam\u2019s bridge?\nA. Israel and Jerusalem\nB. Amman and Damascus\nC. Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman\nD. Dhanushkodi and Talaimannar\nAns: D |
__label__positive Logo learn the Quran caption learn the Quran\nLearn the Quran\n\nThe Unseen = (AlGhayb)\n\nQ: Who owns the Unseen?\nA: And to Allah belongs the Unseen of the Heavens and the earth and the Command of The Hour (Day of Judgment) is as in the wink of an eye or it is nearer indeed Allah upon everything is All-Capable.\nTranslation of: Ayah 77, Surat AlNahl. (16:77)\nWords: Ghayb = Unseen, AlSamawat = The Heavens, AlArdh = The earth, AlSa'ah = The Day of the Judgment, KaLamhiLBasr = As in the wink of an eye - In a wink, Agrab = Nearer, Kuli Shaye' = Upon everything, Qadeer = All-Capable.\n\nQ: What is the answer to those who say that they will certainly get what is unseen?\nA: And did you see the one who had disbelieved in Our lines (Qur'an) and said that he would certainly get wealth and children. Had he been informed about the Unseen or had he taken a promise from The Most Merciful. Never! We will write what he says and We will prolong a lot the punishment for him and We will make him inherit what he says and he will come to us alone.\nTranslation of: Ayat 77 - 80, Surat Maryam.\nWords: Kafara = Disbelieved, Mal = Wealth - Money, Walad = Children, Ittala = Was informed, A'hd = Promise, Namudu = Prolong, AlAzab = The Punishment,\n\nQ: Do the prophets get some information about the Unseen World?\nA: He (Allah) knows the Unseen and He does not inform anyone of His Unseen; but whom He has chosen for a prophet; and He makes surveillance (by angels against the jinn) precede him (the prophet) from the front and follow him from the back; to make sure that they (prophets) had delivered the Messages of their God; and He (Allah) has knowledge of what they (prophets and angels) had and He had counted the numbers of everything.\nTranslation of: Ayat 26 - 28, Surat AlJinn.\nWords: Yudhir = Informs, Ahad = Anyone, Irtadha = Has chosen, Rasool = Prophet, Risalat = Messages, Aha'ta = Had knowledge, Ladaihim = They have, Ah'sa = Counted, Kula Shay' = Everything, Ahsa = Counted, Adad = numbers,\n\nQ: Does Allah know the secrets of our hearts?\nA: Those who fear their God secretly, for them is Forgiveness and a great Reward. And Keep your talk secret or say it; He (Allah) has full knowledge of what is in your hearts. How can The One Who created not know! and He is The Most Kind and The Expert.\nTranslation of: Ayat 12 - 14, Surat AlMulk.\nWords: Yakhsha = Fears, Maghfirah = Forgiveness, Ajr = Reward, Kabeer = Great, As'irou = Keep secret, Ijharou = Say, That AlSoudour = Heart.\n\nQ: How much is the knowledge of Allah about the hidden things?\nA: O my son (Luqman* said to his son) (even) if it (deed) is the weight of a seed of mustard and it is in a rock or in the Heavens or the earth Allah will bring it forth (for account) for Allah is All-Kind, All-Expert.\nTranslation of: Ayah 16, Surat Luqman. (31:16)\n\n* A wise man said to be a carpenter from a place south of Egypt in Africa. According to \"Tafseer waBayan Mufridat AlQuran\" in Arabic page 412: A righteous man who used to give formal advisory opinion \"fatwa\" before the prophethood of David \"= Dawood\". Then he gained the knowledge delivered by the Prophet David and stopped giving \"AlFatwa\". He said: Should it not be enough for me (giving Fatwa) when there is enough 'knowledge' above me for me (Allah's Message in the Qur'an) (= ala aktafi itha kufeetu).\nWords: Misthqal = Weight of, Habbah = Seed, Khardal = Mustard, Sakhrah = Rock, Ya'ti = Brings forth.\n\nQ: What comes under the knowledge of the the Unseen?\nA: Indeed Allah has the knowledge of the Hour (time of the Day of Judgment) and He sends down the rain and He knows what is in the wombs (before the fetus is made) and no soul knows what is going to earn tomorrow (what will happen) and no soul knows in what land it is going to die indeed Allah is All-Knowing, All-Acquainted.\nTranslation of: Ayah 34, Surat Luqman. (31:34)\nWords: Indahu = He has, Ilm = Knowledge, AlSa'ah = The Hour - Day of Judgment, Yunazil = Sends down, Ghaysth = Rain, Ya'lam = Knows, Ar'ham = Wombs, Tadri = Knows, Nafs = Soul, Taksib = Earns, Ghad = Tomorrow, Ardh = Land, Tamout = Dies.\n\nQ: Faith means to believe in the Unseen with your intellect without seeing it. Is it advisable for a person to become Muslim at the time of death for example?\nA: Are they waiting for the angels to come? Or for your God to come? Or for some of the Signs (miracles - punishment) of your God to come? The day when any of the Signs of your God comes then the soul's faith (in Allah) will be of no use to it if it did not have faith earlier or if it did not earn in its faith good deeds; Say: Wait (for the Signs)! For we are waiting (for Allah's Judgment)!\nTranslation of: Ayah 158, Surat AlAn'am.\nWords: Yanthur = Wait, Ta'tee = Comes, Ayat = Signs, Yanfe' = Be of use, Kasabat = Earned, Khairun = Good deeds, Muntathir = Waiting.\n\nQ: How far does Allah's knowledge extend?\nA: He (Allah) knows what goes into the earth (rain, the dead...etc) and what comes out of it (plants, animals...etc) and what comes down from the sky (angels, revelations, rain...etc) and what ascends (angels, souls...etc) into it and He is the Most-Merciful the Most-Forgiving. And those who disbelieve say: The Hour (Judgment Day) will not reach us. Say (command to Prophet Muhammad) yes indeed - by my God - it will certainly come upon you - (Allah) the All-Knowing of the the unseen - Not a tiny particle in the Heavens nor in the earth is hidden from Him and nothing smaller nor bigger except in a Clear Record (in the Heavens).\nTranslation of: Ayat 2 - 3, Surat Saba'.\nWords: Ya'lam = He knows, Yalij = Goes into, Yakhruj = Comes out, Yanzil = Comes down, Ya'ruj = Ascends, Ta'ti = Reaches - Comes, AlSaa'ah = The Hour, Ya'zab = Is Hidden, Misthqal Tharrah = Tiny particle, Asghar = Smaller, Akbar = Bigger, Kitab = Record - Book, Mubeen = Clear - Self-Explanatory.\n\nQ: Why did the Muslims around the Prophet Mohammad grieved when the Romans lost the war against the Persians? And what does Allah tell them about the Unseen?\nNote: Alif Lam Meem; The Romans were Christians. The Persians then were Magus (worshippers of Fire).\nA: The Romans have been defeated; In a land close by (Mecca) and they after their defeat will be victorious; In a few years; To Allah (refers) the whole matter from the past and in the future and then the faithful (Muslims) will rejoice. With Allah's support He makes victorious whoever He pleases and He is the All-Powerful, the Compassionist. It is the promise of Allah and Allah does not fail His promise but yet a lot of people do not know.\nTranslation of: Ayat 1 - 6, Surat AlRoum.\nNote: The Romans lost the war against Persia when the Muslims were in Mecca. Then the Romans won the war against Persia when the Muslims were in AlMadina.\nWords: Guliba = Has been defeated, Adna = Close by, Ardh = Land, Yaghlib = To be victorious, Bidh' = few, Tafrah = Rejoices, Yansur = Makes victorious, Wa'd = Promise, Ya'lam = Knows.\n\nQ: Are even the small details of everything in the world recorded?\nNote: Remember that Allah's standards of everything are sublime and higher than humans.\nA: And with Him (Allah) are the keys of the unseen - no one knows them except He - and He knows what is in the earth and sea and no leaf falls without Him knowing it and neither a grain in the depths of darkness of the earth nor a tender (plant) neither a dry (plant) except in an Unmistakable Record*.\nTranslation of: Ayah 59, Surat AlAn'am.\n* Called the Guarded Tablet (Al'Lowh AlMahfoudh) kept in the Heaven.\nWords: Ind = With, Mafateh = Keys, Ya'lam = Knows, Bar = Earth - Land, Bahr = Sea, Habbah = Grain, Ratb = Tender - Wet, Yabis = Dry, Kitab Mubeen = Unmistakable Record - Clear Book.\n\nQ: What are some points for contemplation from Allah's knowledge of the unseen?\nNote: What Allah swears by are extraordinary points for attention and contemplation. Reference can be both in life and in the World of the Unseen.\nA: By the Mount (Sinae)*; And by the (Initial) Record (with Allah) written in lines (Kitab Mastoor)**; In a scroll spread open*** (on the Day of Judgment); By the much-frequented House**** (of Allah); By the Ceiling (sky) that is lifted high*****; By the ocean which is overflowing******; For the punishment of your God is certainly coming to pass; For it there is no repellent.\nTranslation of: Ayat 1 - 8, Surat AlToor. (52:1-8)\n* Where Allah talked to the Prophet Moses.\n** In life refers to Allah's Holy Books. Also remember that the first thing Allah created was the pen.\n*** for reading. Also \" --- and We (Allah) will take out (= nukhrij) for him (everyone) on the Day of Judgment a record he will find it spread open;\" Translation of Line 13 in Chapter AlIsra' in the Qur'an.\n**** In a summary of a saying of the Prophet Muhammad to his companions: Do you know what is \"ALBayt AlMa'mour\" ( = The much-frequented House \"of Allah\")? They said: Allah and His Prophet know better! The Prophet said: It is a House of Allah in the Heaven exactly over the position of AlKa'bah (in Mecca) - if it falls it will fall on AlKa-bah. Everyday (differnt) seventy thousand angels pray in it (= itha kharajou minhu lem ya'oudou akhir ma alayhim)(each seventy thousand has the channce to pray only once). Source: Mukhtasar Tafseer Ibn Kastheer. Volume 3, page 389.\n***** The Sky will become fragile and will be split open on the Day of Judgment \"When the sky is split open;\" Translation of Line 1 in Chapter AlInshiqaq in the Qur'an.\n****** Water \"of life\" under Allah's Throne which will flow down to raise up the dead on the Day of Judgment. See Why is the creation of humans from earth compared to the creation of plants?\nNote: In a summary of a saying of the Prophet Muhammad: There is no day but the water becomes on the verge of overflowing on earth but Allah stops it. Source: Mukhtasar Tafseer Ibn Kastheer. Volume 3, page 389.\nWords: Toor = Mount, Kitab = Record, Mastoor = Written in lines, Riq = Scroll, Manshour = Spread open, Bayt = House, Ma'mour = Much-frequented, Saqf = Ceiling - Sky, Marfou' = Lifted high, Bahr = Ocean - Body of water, Athab = Punishment, Lawaqi' = Certainly is going to pass (happen), Da'fi' = Repellent.\n\nQ: Why should we control ourselves at times of grief or happiness?\nA: No misfortune happens on earth or in yourselves except (it is) in a Record* before We (Allah) bring it into existence - for that is for Allah easy; So that you do not grieve** over what you missed neither do you become maliciously delighted** with what turns well for you and Allah does not like anyone who is self-conceited, boastful.\nTranslation of: Ayat 22 - 23, Surat AlHadeed.\n* Remember that the first thing Allah created was the pen.\n** Man should be patient in time of grief and grateful to Allah in time of joy.\nNote: In a summary of two sayings of the Prophet Muhammad: The Prophet Moses debated with Adam so he told him: You caused man to be expelled from the Heaven with your sin so you made him suffer. Adam said: How many years you found out that Allah had written the Torah before I was created? Moses said: Forty years. Adam said: Did you see in it \"And Adam disobeyed His God so he was deluded.\" Moses said: Yes! Adam said: So do you blame me if I did something that Allah had written for me to do forty years before creating me! The Prophet Muhammad said: So Adam won the debate. Source: Mukhtasar Tafseer Ibn Kastheer. Volume 2, page 496.\nWords: Asaba = Happens - Museebah = Misfortune - Calamity, Kitab = Record, Nabra' = We bring into existence, Yaseer = Easy, LiKayla = So that, Fata= Missed, Tafrah = You become maliciously delighted, Aata = Turns well for you - Becomes in your favour - Comes your way, Kulu = Anyone, Mukhtal = Who is self-conceited, Fakhour = Boastful.\n\nQ: What did Allah prewrite before making the creation?\nNote: Remember to Allah the past, the present and the future of everything is an open book.\nA: And We (Allah) destined for Hell many Jinn and humans; They have hearts with which they do not understand (faith in Allah) and they have eyes with which they do not see and they have ears with which they do not hear; They are like the cattle; Yet they are further astray; Those are the unaware.\nTranslation of: Ayah 179, Surat AlA'raf.\nNote: In a summary of a saying of the Prophet Muhammad: Allah wrote the fate of all his creation before creating the Heavens and the earth by fifty thousand years and His Throne then was on water. Source: Mukhtasar Tafseer Ibn Kastheer, page 68.\nNote: From the Qur'anic line it is understood that Jinn, from whom is Satan, have hearts, eyes and ears.\nWords: Thara' = Destined - Made, Quloub = Hearts, Yafqah = Understands, A'yun = Eyes, Yubsir = Sees, A'than = Ears, Yasme' = Hears, An'am = Cattle, Adhal = Further astray, Ghafil = Unaware - Inattentive.\n\nQ: What is destiny (fate)?\nA: --- and the Command of Allah is a decreed destiny (fate).\nTranslation of: Ayah 38, Surat AlAhzab.\nNote: The complete line 38 and a line before it.\nWords: Amr = Command, Qadar = Destiny - Fate, Maqdoura = Decreed - Predestined - Has to be fulfilled.\n\nQ: With what other description is Allah's unseen in the Other World associated?\nNote: Allah's unseen world will be revealed on the Day of Judgment.\n\nA: And (command to Prophet Muhammad) say do (good) work for Allah will see your work and His Prophet and the believers (after the Prophet)* and then you will be returned to the All-Knowing (= Aalim) of the Unseen and Witness (= AlGhayb welShahadah) ** and He will inform you about what you were doing.\nTranslation of: Ayah 105, Surat AlTawbah.\n* Each Prophet is a witness upon his companions. Remember the Prophet Jesus (= Issa) was a witness on his people when he was among them. On the Day of Judgement there will be witnesses among the believers besides the Prophets and the angels.\n** Each of us will be either a witness or witnessed (The Day of Judgement will take place in the presence of spectators 'witnesses').\nNote: Muslims should compete to be witnesses for Allah on the Day of Judgment. The words \"shaheed\" and \"shuhada'\" are used many times in the Qur'an. Every time witness(es) is meant and not martyrs (in the Arabic Language \"shaheed\" also means a martyr).\nNote:Islam is based on the testimony \"I witness that there is no god but Allah and I witness that Muhammad is a prophet of Allah.\" Remember the Covenant with Allah.\nWords: E'malou = Do work, Saturadoun = You will be returned, Aalim AlGhayb = The All-Knowing of the Unseen - The All-Knowing of the Hidden, AlShahadah = The Witness - The Testimony.\n\nQ: How do you know that Allah has pre-knowledge of what is going to happen?\nA: And there is nothing unseen in the Heavens or the earth except in an explicit Record* (with Allah).\nTranslation of: Ayah 75, Surat AlNaml.\n* Allah's Record in which everything was written before creating man.\nWords: Ghaaibah = Hidden, Kitab = Record, Mubeen = Explicit - Clear.\n\nQ: What two things that man conceals does Allah the Holder of the Unseen know?\n\nA: He knows the treachery of the eyes* and what the hearts conceal.\nTranslation of: Ayah 19, Surat Ghafir (40:19).\n* (= Khaainat AlA'yun). Looking intentionally at the forbidden or signaling (winking) a forbidden thing with the eyes.\nNote: In a summary of a saying of the Prophet Muhammad: The Prophet wanted someone specific to be killed. When the person came to the gathering no one killed him. The Prophet asked the companions later why no one took action. One of them said only if you winked to us about him. The Prophet answered Allah's messengers should not have the treachery of the eyes (= Khaainat alA'yun). Source will be added later insha Allah.\nWords: Ya'lam = He knows, Khaainat AlA'yun = The treachery of the eyes, Tukhfi = Conceal, AlSudour = The hearts - The chests.\n\nQ: What is associated with the Unseen?\nA: (Everything belongs to) The All-Knowing of the Unseen and Witness* - so Exalted (= Ta'ala) is He above what they partner (with Him).\nTranslation of: Ayah 92 , Surat AlMo'minoun.\n* Note that the Other World is the world of the Unseen and Witness. The Unseen will then become seen and proved.\nNote: Ayat 88 - 89 in Surat AlMo'minoun in the Qur'an.\nWords: Aalim = The All-Knowing, AlShahadah = Witness, FaTa'ala = So Exalted is He, Yushrikoun = They partner.\n\nQ: Which god that people join as partner with Allah knows the World of the Unseen (the Hidden)?\nNote:: (Joining partner(s) with Allah (= yushrikoun from 'shirk'): Please read first the translation of the preceding Lines 59 - 64 in Surat AlNaml.\nA: Say (command to Prophet Muhammad) none of those in the Heavens or the earth knows the Unseen except Allah and they* do not (even) feel when they are going to be raised up.\nTranslation of: Ayah 65, Surat AlNaml. (27:65)\n* Idols are forms for creatures worshipped by disbelievers.\nWords: La Ya'lem = None knows, AlGhayb = The unseen - The future, Ma Yasharoun = They do not feel, Yubasthoun = They will be raised up.\n\nQ: What is the name of the Other World that is hidden from us?\nA: (Allah is) All-Knowing (= Aalim) of the Unseen and Witness* - The AlMighty The All-Wise.\nTranslation of: Ayah 18, Surat AlTaghabun. (64:18)\n* The Other World is the World of the Unseen and Witness.\nWords: Alim = All-Knowing, AlGhayb = The unseen - The hidden, AlShahdah = The Witness - The Testimony.\n\nQ: What is an example of supernatural truths (= Ghaybiyyat) which belong to Allah's Unseen/Invisible World?\nA: The Gardens of Eden (complete bliss) which the Most-Merciful had promised His servants in the Unseen (Invisible = BilGhayb) - indeed it is that His Promise is going to be realized.\nTranslation of: Ayah 61, Surat Maryam. (19:61)\nWords: Jannat = Gardens, Eden = Complete Bliss, Wa'ada = Had promised, Ibadahu = His servants, BilGhayb = In the Unseen - In the invisible, Kana Ma'tiyya = Is going to be realized.\n\nQ: What is the Attribute of Allah for All-Knowing the unseen of the past, present and future of this world?\nNote: Remember that Allah is All-Knowing of the 'Unseen and Witness' (= Aalim AlGhayb welShahadah) - indication here is to the coming Other World.\nA: Indeed Allah is All-Knowing of the Unseen of the Heavens and earth (Universe)* (= Aalim Ghayb AlSamawat welArdh) - indeed He is All-Knowing of what is in the bottom of hearts** .\nTranslation of: Ayah 38, Surat Fatir.\n* Remember where there are stars in the Universe that is only the lowest Heaven.\n** \"= BiThat AlSodour\": Place of deep hidden human secrets and feelings.\nWords: BiThat AlSodour = What is in the bottom of hearts.\n\nQ: Why should a believer seek refuge with Allah against the bad thoughts that pass through his mind?\nA: And if you raise your voice (Allah knows it) - because He (Allah) knows what is secret and what is more concealed*.\nTranslation of: Ayah 7, Surat Taha. (20:7)\n* For example when one winks. (In Surat Ghafir)\nWords: Tajhar BilQawl = Raise your voice, FaInnahu = Because He knows, AlSirr = What is secret, Akhfa = What is mroe concealed.\n\nBack learn the Quran |
__label__positive Select Board & Class\n\n\nBoard Paper of Class 12-Humanities 2018 Economics (SET 1) - Solutions\n\nGeneral Instructions:\n\n\u00a0(i) All questions in both sections are compulsory.\n\n(ii) Marks for questions are indicated against each question.\n\n(iii) Question No.1-4 and 13-16 are very short answer questions carrying 1 mark each. They are required to be answered in one sentence each.\n\n(iv) Question No.5-6 and 17-18 are short answer questions carrying 3 marks each. Answers to them should not normally exceed 60 words each.\n\n(v) Question No.7-9 and 19-21 are also short answer questions carrying 4 marks each. Answers to them should not normally exceed 70 words each.\u00a0\n\n(vi) Question No.10-12 and 22-24 are long answer questions carrying 6 marks each. Answers to them should not normally exceed 100 words each.\n\n(vii) Answers should be brief and to the point and the above word limits should be adhered to as far as possible.\n\n \u2022 Question 2\n At what level of production is total cost equal to total fixed cost? VIEW SOLUTION\n\n \u2022 Question 3\n Which of the following does not cause shift of supply curve of a good?\n (Choose the correct alternative)\n (a) Price of input\n (b) Price of the good\n (c) Goods and services tax\n (d) Subsidy VIEW SOLUTION\n\n \u2022 Question 4\n Which of the following measures of price elasticity shows elastic supply?\n (Choose the correct alternative)\n (a) 0\n (b) 0.5\n (c) 1.0\n (d) 1.5 VIEW SOLUTION\n\n \u2022 Question 5\n Explain the central problem of \"What is produced and in what quantities.\".\n\n In what circumstances may the production possibility frontier shift away from the origin? Explain. VIEW SOLUTION\n\n \u2022 Question 6\n A consumer buys 200 units of a good at a price of Rs 20 per unit. Price elasticity of deamnd is (\u2013) 2. At what price will he be willing to purchase 300 units? Calculate. VIEW SOLUTION\n\n \u2022 Question 7\n Write a budget line equation of a consumer if the two goods purchased by the consumer, Good X and Good Y are priced at Rs 10 and Rs 5 respectively and the consumer's income is Rs 100.\n\n Define marginal rate of substitution. Explain its behaviour along an indifference curve. VIEW SOLUTION\n\n \u2022 Question 8\n Explain the conditions of producer's equilibrium under perfect competition. VIEW SOLUTION\n\n \u2022 Question 9\n Explain the implications of \"freedom of entry and exit of firms\" under perfect competition. VIEW SOLUTION\n\n \u2022 Question 10\n A consumer consumes only two goods X and Y. Explain the conditions of consumer's equilibrium using Utility Analysis. VIEW SOLUTION\n\n \u2022 Question 11\n Draw Average Variable Cost (AVC), Average Total Cost (ATC) and Marginal Cost (MC) curves in a single diagram. State the relation between MC curve and AVC and ATC curves. VIEW SOLUTION\n\n \u2022 Question 12\n Define price floor. Explain the implications of price floor.\n Market of a good is in equilibrium. If the demand for the good 'decreases'. Explain the chain of effects of this change. VIEW SOLUTION\n\n \u2022 Question 13\n Give one example of negative externalities. VIEW SOLUTION\n\n \u2022 Question 14\n Credit creation by commercial banks is determined by (Choose the correct alternative)\n (a) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)\n (b) Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)\n (c) Initial Deposits\n (d) All the above VIEW SOLUTION\n\n \u2022 Question 15\n State the two components of M1 measure of Money Supply. VIEW SOLUTION\n\n \u2022 Question 17\n Distinguish between stock and flow variables with suitable examples.\n\n What are capital goods? How are they different from consumption goods? VIEW SOLUTION\n\n \u2022 Question 18\n Define investment multiplier. How is it related to marginal propensity to consume? VIEW SOLUTION\n\n \u2022 Question 19\n What is monetary policy? State any three instruments of monetary policy. VIEW SOLUTION\n\n \u2022 Question 20\n\n Define full employment in an economy. Discuss the situation when aggregate demand is more than aggregate supply at full employment income level.\n\n\n What are two alternative ways of determining equilibrium level of income? How are these related?\n\n\n \u2022 Question 21\n What is ex-Ante consumption? Distinguish between autonomous consumption and induced consumption. VIEW SOLUTION\n\n \u2022 Question 22\n What is government budget? Explain its major components.\n\n Explain (a) allocation of resources and (b) economic stability as objectives of government budget. VIEW SOLUTION\n\n \u2022 Question 23\n Discuss briefly the meanings of :\n (i) Fixed Exchange Rate\n (ii) Flexible Exchange Rate\n (iii) Managed Floating Exchange Rate VIEW SOLUTION\n\n \u2022 Question 24\n Calculate (a) Operating Surplus, and (b) Domestic Income :\n \u00a0 \u00a0 (Rs in crores)\n (i) Compensation of employees 2,000\n (ii) Rent and interest 800\n (iii) Indirect taxes 120\n (iv) Corporation tax 460\n (v) Consumption of fixed capital 100\n (vi) Subsidies 20\n (vii) Dividend 940\n (viii) Undistributed profits 300\n (ix) Net factor income to abroad 150\n (x) Mixed income 200\nMore Board Paper Solutions for Class 12 Humanities Economics\nWhat are you looking for? |
__label__positive wir gedenken seiner in Ehrfurcht.\n\nI have only understanding about genitive personal pronouns is that it is used with genitive verb like in above given example though I would like to know that Is there any other way to use genitive personal pronouns or Is it only used with genitive verb?\n\n\nGerman case inflection is governed mostly by verbs and prepositions. You've seen how genitive verbs (very rare) work.\n\nGenitive prepositions can in principle govern the same forms. For instance,\n\nDon't bother on my account\n\ncould translate to\n\nMach Dir wegen meiner keine Umst\u00e4nde\n\nbut in practice, the incorporated form meinetwegen/seinetwegen etc. is used instead. Some other genitive prepositions are semantically unlikely to take personal pronouns, e.g. \"gem\u00e4ss\", \"innerhalb\", or \"w\u00e4hrend\". Perhaps the most commonly used is \"statt\", which is semantically rather generic, so you do occasionally see the phrase \"statt meiner\"; but even this is more often said as \"an meiner Stelle\".\n\nFinally, cases can occur motivated by an entire construction rather than a governing word. A recent example here showed how a dative can express beneficiary semantics without a verb: \"Dem deutschen Volke\" (to the German people). There is such a constructino with the gentive, which expresses possession:\n\nDie H\u00f6hle des L\u00f6wen = the lion's den\n\nIn theory this could motivate constructions such as *\"Das Auto meiner\", but again, this is never done, since we have possessive pronouns for that task: \"mein Auto\".\n\nOverall, then, genitive pronouns are much more likely to be worked around than used. It's probably safe to say that they are threatened by total extinction.\n\n \u2022 Meiner Ansicht nach nicht. \u2013\u00a0Janka Jan 29 '19 at 10:50\n\nGenitive forms of personal pronouns are used with certain adjectives:\n\nals wir seiner ansichtig wurden\nEr ist ihrer \u00fcberdr\u00fcssig geworden.\nDieser Kerl mu\u00df sich seiner sehr sicher sein.\nDas Ich ist nur insofern, inwiefern es sich seiner bewu\u00dft ist.\nSie schmissen ihn und seine Leute, als sie ihrer gewahr wurden, sofort hinaus.\n\nYour Answer\n\n |
__label__positive \ufeff Molecules of Biology - Subject Review - SAT Biology E/M Subject Test \ufeff\n\nSAT Biology E/M Subject Test\n\nPart II:\u00a0Subject Review\n\nChapter 3\u00a0Molecules of Biology\n\nTo understand the complex topics covered in the Biology E/M Subject Test, you must first have a general understanding of basic organic chemistry. In this chapter, we will look at organic chemistry at its most basic level\u2014atoms, molecules, compounds\u2014and see how it directly applies to the biological concepts you will learn about.\n\nAtoms, Molecules, and Compounds\n\nAtoms\u00a0are the fundamental units of the physical world. Individual atoms combine in chemical reactions to form\u00a0molecules:\n\natom + atom \u2192 molecule\n\nH + H \u00a0\u00a0\u2192\u00a0\u00a0 H2\n\nThus, a molecule is just a combination of atoms. Molecules can also react with other atoms or other molecules to form larger molecules:\n\n\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0reactants \u2192 product\n\n2 H2\u00a0+ O2\u00a0\u2192 2 H2O\n\nIf a molecule contains different types of atoms (as does the molecule above), it is called a\u00a0compound. For example, CCl4\u00a0is a compound because the molecule has both carbon and chlorine in it. On the other hand, H2\u00a0is a molecule but is NOT a compound, because the only atoms in the molecule are hydrogen atoms. (If a molecule contains only a single type of atom, it is an\u00a0element.)\n\nIn chemical reactions, the molecules or atoms that are interacting are called\u00a0reactants\u00a0and are found on the left side of the arrow. The\u00a0products\u00a0(the results of the interactions) are found on the right side of the arrow.\n\nWhat Organic Chemistry Means\n\nOrganic chemistry is simply the chemistry of molecules and compounds that contain carbon. Molecules and compounds that contain carbon are said to be\u00a0organic, whereas molecules that do not contain carbon are said to be\u00a0inorganic. There\u2019s a single exception to this rule: carbon dioxide (CO2). Even though carbon dioxide contains carbon, it is an inorganic compound.\n\n\nCarbon is the main ingredient of organic molecules. Most molecules within a cell, other than water, are carbon based. Therefore, these molecules are sometimes called\u00a0biomolecules. Carbon is common in living things because it has only four electrons in the highest energy level of the electron shells that surround the nucleus. Carbon can therefore form up to four bonds with other atoms.\n\nQuick Quiz #1\n\nCheck the appropriate boxes:\n\n\u00a0\u00a01.\u00a0Water (H2O) is an [\u00a0\u00a0organic\u00a0\u00a0inorganic\u00a0] compound.\n\n\u00a0\u00a02.\u00a0Cl2\u00a0[\u00a0\u00a0is\u00a0\u00a0is not\u00a0] a compound.\n\n\u00a0\u00a03.\u00a0H2O [\u00a0\u00a0is\u00a0\u00a0is not\u00a0] a compound.\n\n\u00a0\u00a04.\u00a0Methane (CH4) is an [\u00a0\u00a0organic\u00a0\u00a0inorganic\u00a0] compound.\n\n\u00a0\u00a05.\u00a0Cl2\u00a0[\u00a0\u00a0is\u00a0\u00a0is not\u00a0] a molecule.\n\n\u00a0\u00a06.\u00a0Carbon dioxide (CO2) is an [\u00a0\u00a0organic\u00a0\u00a0inorganic\u00a0] compound.\n\n\u00a0\u00a07.\u00a0Products are found on the [\u00a0\u00a0right\u00a0\u00a0left\u00a0] side of the arrow in a chemical reaction.\n\nCorrect answers can be found in\u00a0Chapter 15.\n\nThere are many organic molecules. Fortunately, as far as biology is concerned, there are only four important types of organic molecules. Most of them are very large, and they\u2019re referred to as macromolecules. The four biologically important macromolecules are the only ones you need to worry about for the SAT Biology E/M Subject Test.\n\nThe four important organic molecules are\n\n1. proteins\n\n2. carbohydrates\n\n3. lipids\n\n4. nucleic acids\n\nThese four macromolecules are\u00a0polymers. Polymers are strings of repeated units. The individual units of polymers are called\u00a0monomers. An example you\u2019re probably more familiar with is a string of pearls. Each individual pearl would be a monomer; strung together, the monomers form a polymer: the whole necklace. Let\u2019s take a look at the first biologically important macromolecule: protein.\n\nBiologically Important Macromolecule #1: Protein\n\nProteins are polymers of\u00a0amino acids. In other words, the monomer that makes up a protein is an amino acid. There are 20 different amino acids, and they all have the same basic structure:\n\nThe box encloses the backbone of the amino acid. It\u2019s called the backbone because this is the part of the molecule that is constant from amino acid to amino acid. All 20 amino acids contain the same backbone structure.\n\nThere are two carbon atoms in the backbone. The first is bonded to a hydrogen (H) atom on one side and an NH2\u00a0group on the other side. The NH2\u00a0group is called the\u00a0amino group. The other carbon atom is bonded to an oxygen (O) atom and an OH group. Notice that the oxygen is bonded to the second carbon by a\u00a0double bond. The COOH group is called the\u00a0carboxyl group. If you know what the boxed structure looks like, with its amino and carboxyl group, you\u2019ll be able to recognize amino acids on the test. Take a good, long look at the structure in the box, then draw it (three times) on the next page so you\u2019ll really be familiar with it.\n\n\u2022\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Draw it:\n\n\u2022\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Draw it again:\n\n\u2022\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Draw it again:\n\nWe\u2019ve already said that all 20 amino acids contain the same backbone structure. But what about the R part of the molecule? The R part of the molecule is called the side-chain, and makes each amino acid different from all the others. All amino acids have the same basic backbone, but different amino acids differ with respect to R. R could be anything from a simple hydrogen atom to a whole long chain of carbon atoms with different groups bonded to them. The side-chain gives the amino acid its identity.\n\nThe R-Group\n\nThe fourth bond of the\ncentral carbon in an amino\nacid is sometimes called\nthe R-group, or the side\nchain. It is this side chain\non an amino acid that\ngives the amino acid its\nunique chemical\n\nIn the amino acid glycine, R is just a hydrogen atom:\n\nIn the amino acid cysteine, R is a carbon atom and a sulfur (S) atom, along with some hydrogen atoms:\n\nAgain, there are 20 different possibilities for R groups. You don\u2019t have to know all of them, but you should be able to recognize the backbone of an amino acid.\n\nAmino Acids Combine to Form Proteins\n\nAmino acids bond together in a chain to form a\u00a0protein. Remember, a long chain of repeated units (monomers; in this case, amino acids) is called a polymer (in this case, a protein). Let\u2019s look at how two amino acids join:\n\nNotice the circles around the OH group of amino acid #1 and around the H of amino acid #2. The carbon from amino acid #1 loses the OH and bonds instead to the nitrogen on amino acid #2. The nitrogen from amino acid #2 loses one H in the process:\n\nThe new bond between the amino acids is called a\u00a0peptide bond. Notice that water (H2O) is removed. Peptide bonds are said to be formed by\u00a0dehydration synthesis.\n\nWhen many amino acids join to form a long amino acid chain, this chain is called a protein. Because the amino acids in the chain are all held together by peptide bonds, the protein can also be referred to as a\u00a0polypeptide.\n\n\u2022\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Peptide bonds are formed by dehydration synthesis in which a molecule of water is removed to join two amino acids.\n\n\u2022\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Peptide bonds are broken in the reverse process, called\u00a0hydrolysis, when a water molecule is added to the structure.\n\nProteins have many different functions. They are enzymes, hormones, channels, structural elements, carriers, messengers, etc. Don\u2019t worry yet about these specific functions. They\u2019ll come up later as we talk about cells and the body. But do remember that proteins have many different three-dimensional shapes and many different functions.\n\nQuick Quiz #2\n\nFill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:\n\n\u00a0\u00a01.\u00a0The bond that holds two amino acids together is called a __________bond.\n\n\u00a0\u00a02.\u00a0The assembly of a protein from its amino acid constituents involves the [\u00a0\u00a0addition\u00a0\u00a0removal\u00a0] of water and is called ______________________________.\n\n\u00a0\u00a03.\u00a0An amino acid is a [\u00a0\u00a0monomer\u00a0\u00a0polymer\u00a0] of a protein.\n\n\u00a0\u00a04.\u00a0Because proteins are essentially chains of amino acids linked together by ________________ bonds, a protein might also be called a ______________________________.\n\n\u00a0\u00a05.\u00a0The disassembly of a protein into its component amino acids is called __________________ and involves the [\u00a0\u00a0addition\u00a0\u00a0removal\u00a0] of water.\n\nCorrect answers can be found in\u00a0Chapter 15.\n\nBiologically Important Macromolecule #2: Carbohydrate\n\nThe monomer for a carbohydrate is a\u00a0saccharide. The term\u00a0saccharide\u00a0refers to \u201csweetness\u201d; carbohydrates are essentially sugar molecules. All carbohydrates have a common factor: They are made only of carbon, oxygen, and hydrogen.\n\nThe carbohydrate is unique among the macromolecules because it is the only macromolecule for which the monomer by itself is considered to be a carbohydrate. A single saccharide can be called a carbohydrate. In fact, there is a whole group of carbohydrates that are made only of a single saccharide. They are called\u00a0monosaccharides\u00a0(mono\u00a0= one).\n\n\nCarbohydrates, or \u201ccarbs\u201d as they are sometimes referred to, include the sugar molecules dissolved in a bottle of soda as well as the starch molecules found in pasta and potatoes. Carbohydrates can be used by the body minutes after they are eaten, or they can be stored for use later. Although people involved in athletics seem more concerned with carbs than nonathletes, carbohydrates are an important source of energy for all of us, athlete or not.\n\nMonosaccharides are made of carbon, oxygen, and hydrogen in a fixed ratio. The number of carbon atoms is equal to the number of oxygen atoms, and the number of hydrogen atoms is equal to twice the number of either carbon atoms or oxygen atoms. In other words, the Cs, Hs, and Os exist in a 1:2:1 ratio.\n\nThe generic chemical formula for a monosaccharide is\n\n\nThe two monosaccharides you need to know for the SAT Biology E/M Subject Test are\u00a0glucose\u00a0and\u00a0fructose. Glucose and fructose have the same chemical formula: C6H12O6. So what is different about them?\n\nGlucose and fructose differ in the arrangement of their atoms:\n\nIn the glucose molecule, the double-bonded oxygen is located on the top carbon. In the fructose molecule, it\u2019s located on the second carbon from the top.\n\nGlucose and Fructose: A Quick Review\n\n\u2022\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Glucose and fructose are both carbohydrates.\n\n\u2022\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Both are monosaccharides.\n\n\u2022\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Both have the formula C6H12O6.\n\n\u2022\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Glucose and fructose differ in the way the double-bonded oxygen is oriented within the molecule.\n\nOne last thing you should know about glucose is that it can also form a ring structure:\n\n\nRemember that many carbohydrates are polymers: strings of repeated units. So it makes sense, then, that monosaccharides would link together to form larger carbohydrates. If only two monosaccharides link together, the result is a carbohydrate made of two monomers: a\u00a0disaccharide\u00a0(di\u00a0= two).\n\nThe disaccharides you need to know about for the SAT Biology E/M Subject Test are\u00a0maltose\u00a0and\u00a0sucrose. Maltose is formed from two molecules of glucose. When the two molecules bond together, a molecule of water (H2O) is removed. This is dehydration synthesis, just like we saw for peptide bond formation. The chemical formula for maltose\u00a0is not\u00a0C12H24O12\u00a0(2 \u00d7 glucose). Remember that two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom disappear, so the chemical formula for maltose is\u00a0C12H22O11.\n\nSucrose is commonly known as table sugar. It is formed when a molecule of glucose combines with a molecule of fructose in a dehydration synthesis reaction.\n\nThe two disaccharides to know are\u00a0maltose\u00a0and\u00a0sucrose.\n\n\n\n\nwater molecule\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\nwater molecule\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\nIf the number of monosaccharides joined together exceeds two, the molecule is simply known as a\u00a0polysaccharide\u00a0(poly\u00a0= many). There are three polysaccharides to know about for the SAT Biology E/M Subject Test: glycogen, starch, and cellulose. All three of these are polymers of glucose. In other words, they are formed from many, many, many molecules of glucose bonded together.\n\nIf glycogen, starch, and cellulose are all polymers of glucose, what\u2019s the difference between them? The difference is in the\u00a0way\u00a0the glucose molecules are linked\ntogether, and that\u2019s almost all you have to know.\n\nThe other bit of information you need to know about these large polysaccharides is their function. Because they\u2019re large chains of glucose, they act as a good storage form for glucose. We will see later that glucose is the primary form of cellular \u201cfood,\u201d so it makes sense that organisms would want to store it. Different organisms store glucose in different forms:\n\n\u2022\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Glycogen:\u00a0the form in which animals (including the human animal) store glucose\n\n\u2022\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Starch:\u00a0the form in which plants store glucose\n\nWhat about cellulose? Because of the way the glucose molecules are linked together in cellulose, cellulose is a much stronger, more rigid molecule. It is used for plant structures such as stems, leaves, and wood.\n\n\u2022\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Cellulose:\u00a0a structural polysaccharide that forms the plant\u2019s cell walls\n\nQuick Quiz #3\n\nFill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:\n\n\u00a0\u00a01.\u00a0Starch serves as a means of storing glucose in [\u00a0\u00a0plants\u00a0\u00a0animals\u00a0].\n\n\u00a0\u00a02.\u00a0A molecule of maltose is formed from two molecules of __________.\n\n\u00a0\u00a03.\u00a0Glucose and fructose [\u00a0\u00a0are\u00a0\u00a0are not\u00a0] identical molecules.\n\n\u00a0\u00a04.\u00a0A molecule of glucose and a molecule of fructose, both of which are _________________________, combine to form a molecule of ____________, which is a _______________________________.\n\n\u00a0\u00a05.\u00a0Cellulose is a _________________________.\n\n\u00a0\u00a06.\u00a0Glycogen serves as a means for storing glucose in [\u00a0\u00a0plants\u00a0\u00a0animals\u00a0].\n\n\u00a0\u00a07.\u00a0The chemical formula for both glucose and fructose is ___________.\n\n\u00a0\u00a08.\u00a0The chemical formula for sucrose is _________________________.\n\n\u00a0\u00a09.\u00a0Cellulose and glycogen differ in the way that ___________________molecules are bonded together.\n\n10.\u00a0The chemical formulas for sucrose and maltose [\u00a0\u00a0are\u00a0\u00a0are not\u202f]\u00a0identical.\n\nCorrect answers can be found in\u00a0Chapter 15.\n\nBiologically Important Macromolecule #3: Lipid\n\nLipids are fats\u2014oils, butter, lard, and so on. The function of lipids are many: they function as energy storage compounds and components of cell membranes in addition to providing insulation and cushioning. The monomer for a lipid is a\u00a0hydrocarbon. Simply put, this is just a carbon atom with two hydrogen atoms bonded to it.\n\nHydrocarbons can link together to form long chains:\n\nThe chains can vary in length and are usually between 12 and 24 carbons long. Hydrocarbon chains are very\u00a0hydrophobic, meaning that they do not interact well with water. Consider what would happen if you put equal amounts of water and cooking oil in a glass and shook it up, then let it sit on the table. The oil and water would begin to separate, and after some time they would be found in separate layers in the glass. The oil (a lipid) is hydrophobic, and it does not want to interact with the water. Another term for hydrophobic is\u00a0nonpolar. Lipids are also referred to as being nonpolar.\n\nLike Water Off a\u2026\n\nEver wonder why ducks\nand geese survive so well\nin wet environments? A\ngland just above the tail\nproduces an oily\n(hydrophobic) substance that\nthe bird spreads over\nits outer layer of feathers.\nThis helps waterproof the\nfeathers and keeps the\nthick down underneath\ndry and warm. In a related\nmanner, humans keep\ntheir skin from becoming\ntoo dry by spreading moisturizers\non it\u00a0\u2026\u00a0these\nhydrophobic creams keep\nwater in the skin cells by\nforming an oily barrier that\nwater cannot cross.\n\nThe three most common forms in which lipids are found in the body are as\u00a0triglyceridesphospholipids, and\u00a0cholesterol. Let\u2019s take a look at each of these molecules.\n\n\nTriglycerides consist of three fatty acids (tri\u00a0= three) bonded to a glycerol molecule (glyc\u00a0= glycerol). A fatty acid is just a long hydrocarbon chain with a carboxyl group at one end. A glycerol molecule is an alcohol that has three carbon atoms in it.\n\nMost of the fats you eat are in the form of triglycerides, and your body stores fats in the form of triglycerides.\n\n\nPhospholipids look very much like triglycerides, except that one of the fatty acid chains is replaced with a phosphate group (\u2013PO32\u2013).\n\nThe phosphate group is\u00a0hydrophilic\u00a0(can interact with water). Another word to describe it is\u00a0polar.\n\nPhospholipids are polar on one end (the phosphate end) and nonpolar on the other (the fatty acid end).\n\nA common way to represent phospholipids is something like the figure on the next page.\n\nWhen phospholipids interact with one another, they align themselves so that their polar phosphate head groups stay together and their nonpolar fatty acid tails stay together:\n\nOften they form a double layer:\n\nThis double layer of phospholipids is known as a\u00a0lipid bilayer. Lipid bilayers form cell membranes. We\u2019ll talk more about cell membranes a little later on.\n\n\nCholesterol is a unique lipid. It is not made of long hydrocarbon chains; instead, the hydrocarbons form rings. Cholesterol is found only in animal cells, in cell membranes along with phospholipids. Additionally, all the steroid hormones in the body (for example, estrogen, testosterone, and progesterone) are derived from cholesterol.\n\n\nCholesterol is probably best known because of its negative reputation. Cholesterol is most infamous for its association with cardiovascular diseases. You may have heard about \u201cgood\u201d cholesterol and \u201cbad\u201d cholesterol. \u201cGood cholesterol\u201d is HDL, or a high density lipoprotein. \u201cBad cholesterol\u201d is LDL, or a low density lipoprotein. Most doctors will recommend that people have an LDL level in their blood of <100 mg/dL, or even considerably less than that for people with a history of heart problems.\n\nCholesterol does have positive functions. Your body needs cholesterol to build and maintain cell membranes and to produce steroid hormones such as estrogen, testosterone, and progesterone. Cholesterol is found in the body tissues and blood of all animals.\n\nQuick Quiz #4\n\nFill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:\n\n\u00a0\u00a01.\u00a0Triglycerides are made of one molecule of _____________________and three _________________________.\n\n\u00a0\u00a02.\u00a0Lipids in general are [\u00a0\u00a0hydrophilic\u00a0\u00a0hydrophobic\u00a0].\n\n\u00a0\u00a03.\u00a0The primary lipid found in cell membranes is __________________.\n\n\u00a0\u00a04.\u00a0Steroid hormones are derived from _________________________.\n\n\u00a0\u00a05.\u00a0Steroid hormones [\u00a0\u00a0are\u00a0\u00a0are not\u00a0] hydrophobic.\n\n\u00a0\u00a06.\u00a0Fats are stored in the body in the form of _____________________.\n\nCorrect answers can be found in\u00a0Chapter 15.\n\nBiologically Important Macromolecule #4: Nucleic Acid\n\nNucleic acids are acidic macromolecules (\u201cacids\u201d) typically found in the nucleus of the cell (\u201cnucleic\u201d). Specifically, they are\u00a0DNA\u00a0(deoxyribonucleic acid) and\u00a0RNA\u00a0(ribonucleic acid). The monomer of a nucleic acid is a\u00a0nucleotide, so nucleic acids are sometimes referred to aspolynucleotides. A nucleotide is made up of a sugar, a phosphate, and a base:\n\nLet\u2019s consider the structure of DNA first. RNA is very similar to DNA, so once you understand how DNA is constructed, it will be easy to understand how RNA is constructed.\n\nThe \u201cbase\u201d in the figure above can be replaced by one of four different chemicals referred to as nucleotide bases.\n\nThe four possible nucleotide bases for DNA are\n\nAdenine\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Guanine\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Cytosine\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Thymine\n\nBecause there are four types of DNA bases, there are really four types of DNA nucleotides:\n\nNotice that the sugar and the phosphate are constant from nucleotide to nucleotide. The sugar and the phosphate are known as the backbone of the nucleotide.\n\nWhen nucleotides bond to form a long chain (a polynucleotide), the chain is a strand of DNA. Because the four types of nucleotides can bond in any order, many different strands of DNA can be made. Here\u2019s an example of three possible strands:\n\nEach is a strand of DNA, and each is a polymer of nucleotides, but each strand differs from the others because of the order in which the nucleotides are\nbonded together.\n\nDNA Is Double-Stranded\n\nAs you may already know, DNA is a double-stranded molecule. Two strands of DNA pair up to form a ladder like structure that twists on itself. This double spiral of DNA strands is known as a\u00a0double helix. The double helix was first discovered in 1956 by two scientists named James Watson and Francis Crick. (They were assisted by the work of Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin) Here\u2019s how the double helix is formed:\n\n1.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Two strands of DNA line up next to each other.\n\n2.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0The sugar-phosphate portions of the two nucleotide chains form the sides of the ladder.\n\n3.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0The bases bond to each other and form the rungs of the ladder.\n\n4.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0The ladder twists into a spiral to form the double helix.\n\nRosalind Franklin\n\nJames Watson, Francis Crick, and Maurice Wilkins were awarded the Nobel Prize for discovering the double-helix structure of DNA molecules. However, they were assisted by the pioneering work of Rosalind Franklin. She learned X-ray diffraction techniques while working in Paris as a physical chemist. In 1952 she produced X-ray photographs of DNA strands, which showed the \u201ctwisted ladder\u201d structure. Watson and Crick used these photographs when they published their model of the structure of DNA.\n\nBelow is a drawing of the DNA ladder before it twists into the double helix.\n\nNucleotide Base Pairing\n\nThere is one very important thing you should know about the rungs of the ladder: The bases that form the rungs bond to each other very specifically.\n\n\u2022\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Adenine and thymine will bond only with each other.\n\n\u2022\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Cytosine and guanine will bond only with each other.\n\nSometimes the bonding of a nucleotide base with its partner is referred to as forming a base pair or, simply,\u00a0base pairing.\n\nBase Pair Memory Trick\n\nHere\u2019s a mnemonic device to help you remember how bases pair up. Write down the bases in alphabetical order:\n\nAdenine\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Cytosine\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Guanine\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Thymine\n\nThen remember that\n\n\u2022\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0the two bases on the ends form a base pair (bond) with each other\n\n\u2022\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0the two bases in the middle form a base pair (bond) with each other\n\nTwo strands of DNA that can form base pairs with each other at each nucleotide are said to be\u00a0complementary. So the two strands of a double helix are complementary. Each nucleotide base on one strand is bonded to its partner on the other strand.\n\nA common question on the SAT Biology E/M Subject Test involves choosing the correct complementary strand if you\u2019re given a sequence of nucleotide bases. It\u2019s not a difficult question as long as you remember the base pairing rules. Look at the following example:\n\n\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0If a particular base sequence in DNA is Adenine-Guanine-Cytosine, then the complementary strand has the base sequence\n\n(A)\u00a0\u00a0Cytosine-Adenine-Guanine\n\n(B)\u00a0\u00a0Thymine-Adenine-Guanine\n\n(C)\u00a0\u00a0Cytosine-Thymine-Adenine\n\n(D)\u00a0\u00a0Thymine-Cytosine-Guanine\n\n(E)\u00a0\u00a0Guanine-Adenine-Thymine\n\nFollowing the base pairing rules (adenine pairs with thymine, and guanine pairs with cytosine), we quickly see that choice\u00a0D\u00a0presents the correct order of bases in the complementary strand.\n\nThere is one last thing to remember about DNA base pairing: the number of bonds that hold each pair together. The type of bond that holds the base pairs together is a\u00a0hydrogen bond. Look back at the figure of the \u201cuntwisted\u201d ladder. Notice that the A-T base pair is held together by two hydrogen bonds, while the G-C base pair is held together by three hydrogen bonds. What this means is that G-C base pairs are stronger than A-T base pairs. Thus, a DNA double helix that contains many G-C base pairs will be more stable (stronger) than a DNA double helix that contains many A-T base pairs.\n\n\nRNA is a polymer of nucleotides that\u2019s similar to DNA. The biggest difference between RNA and DNA is that RNA is a single-stranded molecule whereas DNA is double-stranded (a double helix). Another difference is that RNA does not use thymine as a nucleotide base; instead, it uses a base called\u00a0uracil. Uracil can form a base pair with adenine in RNA, just like thymine does in DNA (RNA can fold on itself to form base pairs). Below is a summary of the differences between RNA and DNA.\n\nThe fact that RNA is single-stranded allows it to assume various unique shapes. There is no second strand to lock it into a double-helix shape. It can form base pairs with itself, and this allows it to fold up into many different three-dimensional shapes. We\u2019ll talk more about RNA later on when we discuss protein synthesis in more detail.\n\nQuick Quiz #5\n\nFill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:\n\n\u00a0\u00a01.\u00a0The fact that double-stranded DNA forms a double helix was discovered by __________________ and __________________.\n\n\u00a0\u00a02.\u00a0The four DNA nucleotide bases are ______________________, ______________________, _______________________, and\n\n\u00a0\u00a03.\u00a0RNA [\u00a0\u00a0is\u00a0\u00a0is not\u00a0] a double-stranded molecule.\n\n\u00a0\u00a04.\u00a0RNA nucleotides [\u00a0\u00a0do\u00a0\u00a0do not\u00a0] contain the exact same bases as DNA nucleotides.\n\n\u00a0\u00a05.\u00a0In DNA, guanine forms a base pair with ______________________, whereas adenine forms a base pair with _______________________.\n\n\u00a0\u00a06.\u00a0The nucleic acid \u201cbackbone\u201d is made up of ____________________and _________________________.\n\n\u00a0\u00a07.\u00a0The sugar in DNA is [\u00a0\u00a0ribose\u00a0\u00a0deoxyribose\u00a0].\n\n\u00a0\u00a08.\u00a0In RNA, adenine can form a base pair with ____________________.\n\nCorrect answers can be found in\u00a0Chapter 15.\n\nKey Words\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\namino acids\n\namino group\n\ndouble bond\n\ncarboxyl group\n\n\npeptide bond\n\ndehydration synthesis\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\nlipid bilayer\n\ndeoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)\n\nribonucleic acid (RNA)\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\ndouble helix\n\nbase pairing\n\n\nhydrogen bond\n\n\n\n\u2022\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Atoms are the fundamental units of the physical world and combine in chemical reactions to form molecules.\n\n\u2022\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0An element is any substance that cannot be broken into simpler substances.\n\n\u2022\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0If two or more elements are combined, they form a compound.\n\n\u2022\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0The four biologically important macromolecules are proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, and nucleic acids.\n\n\u2022\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Proteins are polymers of amino acids. Each of the 20 amino acids has a basic backbone structure with one different R-group.\n\n\u2022\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Carbohydrates are made of only carbon, oxygen, and hydrogen. Common carbohydrates include monosaccharides (like glucose and fructose), disaccharides (like sucrose and maltose), and polysaccharides (like glycogen, starch, and cellulose).\n\n\u2022\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Lipids are composed of hydrocarbons linked to each other. A hydrocarbon is a carbon atom with two hydrogen atoms bonded to it.\n\n\u2022\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0The most common forms of lipids are triglycerides, phospholipids, and cholesterol.\n\n\u2022\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0Nucleic acids are biologically important macromolecules that are found in the nucleus of every cell.\n\n\u2022\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0DNA and RNA are the nucleic acids that make life possible. |
__label__positive Busy. Please wait.\nLog in using Clever\n\nshow password\nForgot Password?\n\nDon't have an account? \u00a0Sign up\u00a0\nSign up using Clever\n\nUsername is available taken\nshow password\n\n\n\nAlready a StudyStack user? Log In\n\nReset Password\nDidn't know it?\nclick below\nKnew it?\nclick below\nDon't know\nRemaining cards (0)\n\n\u00a0 Normal Size \u00a0 \u00a0 Small Size show me how\n\nTeam 7-1 Africa 2\n\nThe Equator passes through these 6 countries. Gabon, Congo Republic, Congo, Uganda, Kenya, and Somalia\nAfrica's largest island Madagascar\nAfrica's smallest country Seychelles\nOnly African country with much land above 10,000 feet. Ethiopia\nWhich mountain stretches across the length of Morocco and northern Algeria? The Atlas Mts.\nEgypt has an area of land below the sea level called? Qatara Depression\nThe world's largest river, winds its way from Lake Victoria to the Mediterranean Sea. Nile\nWhat is Nigeria's capital? Abuja\nWhat is Ethiopia's capital? Addis Ababa\nWhat is Sudan's capital? Khartoum\nWhat is Morocco's capital? Rabat\nWhy does the northern part of Africa have so few people? because of the Sahara Desert\nWhat is most of the land in Africa devoted to? subsistence farming\nWhich African countries were independent in 1940 Egypt, Liberia, and South Africa\nWhere is the Niger River Delta located? Nigeria\nWhere is the Cristal Mts. located? Gabon\nWhere is Lake Volta located? Ghana\nWhere is the Adomaoua Plateau located? Cameroon\nWhere is the Grain Coast located? Liberia\nWhat is the coastal desert in Namibia called? Namib Desert\nWhat percentage of South Africa's population is non-African? 24%\nWhat percentage of South Africa's imports come from European Union? 24.7%\nWhere is most of Africa's oil found? in the north\nLittle aluminum is mined in this part of Africa? in the south\nMost of Africa's copper is mined here? in the south\nMost of Africa's gold is mined in....... both northern and southern Africa\nMost slaves came from which part of Africa? the west coast\nThe Serengeti Plain is on the northern part of this country. Tanzania\nWhat is the vegetation around the Equator? broadleaf trees\nWhich animals live in scattered areas in southern and eastern Africa. black rhinoceros\nWhich animal only lives in one small area in eastern Africa? mountain gorilla\nWhich animal is especially equipped to live in dry regions? flightless ostrich\nWhat is the only enemy of the mountain gorilla? humans\nTanzania had more than 200 ivory seizures in how many years? 10 years\nMost of the world's ivory comes from where? African elephants\nCreated by: moonocean\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\nPass complete!\n\n\"Know\" box contains:\nTime elapsed:\nrestart all cards |
__label__positive Crisis Intervention Chapter 3\n\n29 terms by dmacdonald95\n\nCreate a new folder\n\nAdvertisement Upgrade to remove ads\n\nWhat is the overarching process that happens continuously during crisis intervention?\n\n\nWhat two categories contain the six-steps of crisis intervention?\n\nListening and Acting\n\nWhat is psychological first aid?\n\nEstablishing physical safety and linking clients to basic resources while reducing their immediate stressors\n\nWhat are the first 3 steps of the 6-step model?\n\nDefine the problem, ensure safety, provide support\n\nWhat are the next 3 steps of the 6-step model?\n\nExamine alternatives, making plans, obtaining comitment\n\nWhat is equilibrium?\n\nA state of stability or balance\n\nWhat is mobility?\n\nThe ability to change, cope or adapt to normal events\n\nWhat are the ABC's of assessment in crisis intervention?\n\nAffective, Behavioural, Cognitive\n\nWhat does affective state refer to?\n\nThe client's emotions or emotional stability\n\nWhat is behavioural functioning?\n\nThe client's actions, what they can and are doing\n\nWhat is cognitive state?\n\nThe client's mental state, thoughts and beliefs\n\nWhat does TAF stand for?\n\nThe Triage Assessment Form\n\nHow do we rate clients on the TAF?\n\nWe start with the highest number and \"rule it out\", working backwards\n\nWhat are the four factors used in assessing a client's emotional stability?\n\nDuration, Degree, Ecosystem, Developmental Stage\n\nHow do we tell the \"depth\" of a client's emotional strength reservoir?\n\nThe less the client is able to see towards the future, the shallower their reservoir\n\nWhat does it mean to own a feeling?\n\nTo use an \"I\" statement to communicate possession of a feeling\n\nWhy is it important to own feelings?\n\nSo that you don't group yourself with others and place your client in a position of hostility or defenceless compliance\n\nWhat is an assertion statement?\n\nAn owning statement (directed at the client) that asks for their commitment to some action or behaviour\n\nWhat are the four dimensions of listening?\n\nGive full attention to the client, respond in a way that lets the client know you understand, use facilitative responses that help the client move towards resolution, and help clients understand the impact of the crisis\n\nWhat is the creating awareness strategy of crisis intervention?\n\nBringing to awareness repressed thoughts and feelings that help the client to define the problem\n\nWhat does it mean to allow a client catharsis?\n\nAllowing the client to vent, which helps the client define the problem and be supported by the crisis worker\n\nWhat is increasing expansion?\n\nThis refers to activities to open up a client's view of the situation\n\nWhat 5 techniques are used in being empathetic?\n\nAttending, verbal and non-verbal empathetic understanding, reflecting feelings, and appropriate silence\n\nHow does a worker use verbal empathetic understanding?\n\nParaphrasing emotions (\"I hear that you're feeling very frustrated\")\n\nHow does a worker use reflection of feeling?\n\nMake an educated guess about the person is feeling with a conditional (\"It semes like you...\")\n\nWhen is a crisis worker nondirective?\n\nWhen the client is able to carry out their own actions\n\nWhen is a crisis worker collaborative?\n\nWhen the client has some level of mobility but is not immobile\n\nWhen is the crisis worker directive?\n\nWhen there is a serious risk (high teens low 20's on the TAF) of danger to the client or others\n\nWhat is the purpose of an action plan?\n\nTo provide short-term steps to give the client control and relieve the immediate crisis\n\nPlease allow access to your computer\u2019s microphone to use Voice Recording.\n\nHaving trouble? Click here for help.\n\nWe can\u2019t access your microphone!\n\n\n\nReload the page to try again!\n\n\nPress Cmd-0 to reset your zoom\n\nPress Ctrl-0 to reset your zoom\n\n\nPlease upgrade Flash or install Chrome\nto use Voice Recording.\n\nFor more help, see our troubleshooting page.\n\nYour microphone is muted\n\nFor help fixing this issue, see this FAQ.\n\nStar this term\n\nYou can study starred terms together\n\nNEW! Voice Recording\n\nCreate Set |
__label__positive Kapitel 01: Introduction\n\n\nPsychological testing is about individual differences and measuring differences between people.\n\nStatistics, validity and reliability are the key when evaluating test techniques.\n\nBasic questions related to chapter 1:\n\n\u2022 What are the basic principles behind psychological assessment?\n\u2022 Who are the key figures in the history of psychological assessment?\n\u2022 What are the core characteristics of (+ issues relating to) different approaches?\n\u2022 What is the use of different approaches in different areas of applied psychology?\n\u2022 Ways of classifying tests?\n\nA short history:\n\n\u2022 2000 BC \u2013 the Chinese use tests for job selection purposes\n\u2022 16th century \u2013 beginning focus on individualism + individual differences\n\u2022 LOCKE (17th century) \u2013 emphasis on empiricism (true knowledge comes from experience)\n\u2022 DARWIN (1870\u2019s)\u2013 focus on the significance of individual characteristics and differences\n\u2022 FECHNER, WUNDT, EBBINGHAUS \u2013 experimental psychologists\n\u2022 GALTON (1822-1911) \u2013 the importance of individual differences, ex mental ability tests, statistical analysis of data, the normal distribution, standard deviation, correlation etc.)\n\u2022 BINET (1857-1911) \u2013 identifying which children were in need of special education, tests to identify children\u2019s abilities at different ages, the Stanford-Binet Intelligence test.\n\u2022 PEARSON (1857-1936) \u2013 regression analysis, correlation coefficient, chi-square test.\n\u2022 THURSTONE (1887-1955) \u2013 techniques for measurement scales, assessment of attitudes, new methods of factor analysis.\n\u2022 RASCH (1901-1980) \u2013 statistical models known as Rasch models, measuring attitudes on a continuum/scale.\n\u2022 CATTELL (1905-1998) \u2013 contribution to the theoretical development of personality by applying empirical techniques to understand it\u2019s basic structure.\n\u2022 ANASTASI (1908-2001) \u2013 the \u201dtest guru\u201d, studies of cultural differences, test construction, test misuse, misinterpretation, cultural bias etc.\n\u2022 KLINE (1937-1999) \u2013 explaining psychometrics, arguing in favour of truly scientific forms of measurement, transforming psychology into a pure science.\n\nF\u00f8rst en interesse for individuelle forskelle, derefter udvikling af statistiske v\u00e6rkt\u00f8jer (ex analyser af forholdet mellem individuelle karakteristika).\n\nHas a psychiatric background which is problematic due to unclear diagnostic categories and discussions concerning the concept of \u201dmental illness\u201d ex Foucault who says that mental illness is a cultural construct.\n\nA short history:\n\u2022 Esquirol (18th C)\n\u2022 Charcot (19th C)\n\u2022 Freud (20th C)\n\u2022 DSM-IV & ICD-10 (20th-21th C)\n\n\nSTANDARDIZATION:\u00a0ensuring the test is administered in the same way to all people and providing means of comparing test results (ex normative info on how different groups score on test).\n\nRELIABILITY:\u00a0the accuracy and consistency of scores.\n\nVALIDITY:\u00a0making sure you measure what you think and want to.\n\n\nHow do you measure an abstract concept?\n\n\nHow do you know what you are measuring?\n\n\u201dEvidence of validity provides a justification of the inferences you can make from an assessment\u201d\n\n\n2 kinds of test:\n\u2022 Maximum performance (ex speed, power, intelligence)\n\u2022 Typical performance (ex personality, beliefs, interests)\n\nDifferent ways of classifying assessment:\n\u2013 Maximum performance or typical performance\n\u2013 Standardized or non-standardized\n\u2013 Individual administration or group administration\n\u2013 Method of scoring responses (ex objective or subjective)\n\u2013 Cognitive or affective\n\nQuality criteria of psychological tests:\n\u2013 Scope\n\u2013 Reliability\n\u2013 Validity\n\u2013 Acceptability\n\u2013 Practicality\n\u2013 Fairness\n\u2013 Utility\n\nUses of psychological tests:\n\u2013 Research\n\u2013 Practical\n\u2013 Diagnosis\n\u2013 Assessing change in response to therapy/treatment\n\n\nSkriv et svar\n\n\nWordPress.com Logo\n\nDu kommenterer med din WordPress.com konto. Log\u00a0Out\u00a0/\u00a0 Skift\u00a0)\n\nGoogle photo\n\nDu kommenterer med din Google konto. Log\u00a0Out\u00a0/\u00a0 Skift\u00a0)\n\nTwitter picture\n\nDu kommenterer med din Twitter konto. Log\u00a0Out\u00a0/\u00a0 Skift\u00a0)\n\nFacebook photo\n\nDu kommenterer med din Facebook konto. Log\u00a0Out\u00a0/\u00a0 Skift\u00a0)\n\nConnecting to %s |
__label__positive Monday, January 2, 2012\n\nNetwork Engineer Interview Questions and Answers\n\nInterview Questions\n\nA) Tell me something about yourself.\nTell about your eductaion, place you belong to, some struggle in life which shows that you have positive attitude and will to fight the odds.\n\nB) Technical Questions:\n\n1) What are the types of LAN cables used? What is a cross cable?\n\n\n\n\n5) What is Active Directory?\n\n\n7) What is IPCONFIG command? Why it is used?\n\n\nWe can't do the same with workgroup.\n\n\n\n\n13) What is RIS? What is Imaging/ghosting?\n\n14) What is VPN and how to configure it?\n\nUpdate the network card driver.\n\n\n\n\n19) What is a router? Why we use it?\n\n20) What are manageable and non manageable switches?\nSwitches which can be administered are calledmanageable switches. For example we can create VLAN for on such switch. On no manageable swiches we can't do so.\n\n21. What is NIC?\nA network card, network adapter or NIC (network interface controller) is a piece of computer hardware designed to allow computers to communicate over a computer network\n\n22. What is USB?\n\nUniversal Serial Bus (USB) is a serial bus standard to interface devices. Devices like Modem, Mouse, Keyboard etc can be connected.\n\n23. Dialup vs. Broadband\n\nA broadband connection (ADSL) provides high-speed Internet access over a standard phone line. The advantage of a broadband connection over a standard dialup service, is that Broadband is considerably faster, and is \"always-on\", meaning that once you\"re logged on, your PC is online until the PC is turned off again.\n\nBroadband offer high-speed Internet access and allows telephone calls and a permanent Internet connection to share a single phone line simultaneously whereas in Dialup connection either Internet connection or telephone call can made at given time.\n\n24. LAN and WAN\n\n\n\n25. Microsoft Access\n\nMicrosoft Office Access, previously known as Microsoft Access, is a relational database management system from Microsoft.\n\n26. What is RAS?\n\nRemote Access Services (RAS) refers to any combination of hardware and software to enable the remote access to tools or information that typically reside on a network of IT devices.\n\n27. Difference between Client Mail and Web Mail?\n\nEmail clients download your emails onto your computer. Using a specialized email program such as Outlook Express or Apple Mail has the advantage of giving you complete control over your email; every email you receive is placed on your computer and you can keep as many large file attachments as you want.\nChecking your email through our webmail is similar to using Hotmail or Yahoo! Mail. You never actually copy your messages to your computer; in fact, you are looking at them through your web browser on somebody else\"s computer. When you are not online, you are not able to see your email.\n\n28. RAM and ROM\n\n\nPronounced rahm, acronym for read-only memory, computer memory on which data has been prerecorded. Once data has been written onto a ROM chip, it cannot be removed and can only be read. Unlike main memory (RAM), ROM retains its contents even when the computer is turned off. ROM is referred to as being nonvolatile, whereas RAM is volatile.\n\n29. Spamguard\n\nSpam Guard is an Outlook add-in that filters email that arrives in your inbox. If the sender of any message cannot be identified then the message is moved into a spam quarantine folder. Messages deposited in the spam quarantine folder can be inspected and either deleted or approved at your leisure.\n\n30. Firewall and Antivirus\n\nAntivirus is a software program which helps protect a computer against being infected by a virus.\n\n31. DNS\n\nShort for Domain Name System (or Service or Server), an Internet service that translates domain names into IP addresses. Because domain names are alphabetic, they\"re easier to remember. The Internet however, is really based on IP addresses. Every time you use a domain name, therefore, a DNS service must translate the name into the corresponding IP address. For example, the domain name might translate to\n\n32. IPConfig\n\nIPConfig is a command line tool used to control the network connections on Windows NT/2000/XP machines. There are three main commands: \"all\", \"release\", and \"renew\". IPConfig displays all current TCP/IP network configuration values and refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings. Used without parameters, IPConfig displays the IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway for all adapters.\n\n33. Trace route\n\nTrace route is the program that shows you the route over the network between two systems, listing all the intermediate routers a connection must pass through to get to its destination. It can help you determine why your connections to a given server might be poor, and can often help you figure out where exactly the problem is. It also shows you how systems are connected to each other, letting you see how your ISP connects to the Internet as well as how the target system is connected.\n\n1) What is IP Address ?\n\n2) What are the layers of network ?\n\n3) What are the different types of network ?\n\n4) What is networking ?\n\n5) What is the difference between OSI and TCP/IP Model ?\n\n6) What is TCP/IP ?\n\n7) What is HTTP?\n\n8) What is Protocol ?\n\n9) What is communication medium ?\n\n10) What is PORT ?\n\n11) What is SOCKET ?\n\n12) What is the difference between PORT and SOCKET?\n\n13) What is wireless networking ?\n\n14) What is topology ?\n\n15) What are the different types of topology ?\n\n16) What is the size of IP Address?\n\n17) What is FTP ?\n\n18) What is SMTP ?\n\n19) What are the different types of protocol ?\n\n20) What is Dial-Up connection ?\n\n21) What is Broad Band Connection?\n\n22) What is the difference between Dial-up and broad band connection?\n\n23) What IEEE standard for wireless networking?\n\nAns: 802.11g\n\n24) What is IEEE standard ?\n\nAns: Institute of electrical and electronic engineer.They develop standard for networking |
__label__positive As an Amazon Associate I earn from qualifying purchases.\n\nWhat is Knowledge Discovery in Bioinformatics? PDF Download\n\nLearn Knowledge Discovery definition in bioinformatics with explanation to study \u201cWhat is Knowledge Discovery\u201d. Study knowledge discovery explanation with bioinformatics terms to review bioinformatics course for online degree programs.\n\nKnowledge Discovery Definition\n\n \u2022 Identification of connections between pieces of information that were not known when the information was first entered.\n\n Essential Bioinformatics by Jin Xiong\n\nKnowledge Discovery Explanation\n\nKnowledge discovery means to analyze the newly discovered data and extract the useful information from that raw data. For example, in term of biology, the genome of an organism is sequenced, to identify the coding genes from the sequence and find homolgs of that organism is termed as knowledge discovery.\n\nKeep Learning Bioinformatics Explanations\n\nWhat is Lateral Gene Transfer and Horizontal Gene Transfer?\n\nHorizontal gene transfer sometimes known as lateral gene transfer is a phenomenon in which transmission of genetic information from ...\n\nWhat is E-Value?\n\nThe E-value is a probability value that tells a given sequence match is by chance. The higher the E-value, higher ...\n\nWhat is Neural Network?\n\nNeural network is a network in which multiple nodes are interlinked with each other to solve a problem. ...\n\nWhat is Hairpin Loop?\n\nHairpin loop is a secondary structure formed when single stranded RNA or DNA formed base pair with itself and forms ...\n\nWhat is Bulge Loop?\n\nA secondary structure formed in nucleic acid helices when two or more consecutive bases remain unpaired and forms a bubble, ...\n\nWhat is Coiled Coils?\n\nWhen different alpha helices from same or different protein, interact with each other form the structure known as coiled coil. ... |
__label__positive Study your flashcards anywhere!\n\nDownload the official Cram app for free >\n\n \u2022 Shuffle\n Toggle On\n Toggle Off\n \u2022 Alphabetize\n Toggle On\n Toggle Off\n \u2022 Front First\n Toggle On\n Toggle Off\n \u2022 Both Sides\n Toggle On\n Toggle Off\n \u2022 Read\n Toggle On\n Toggle Off\n\nHow to study your flashcards.\n\n\n\nH key: Show hint (3rd side).h key\n\nA key: Read text to speech.a key\n\n\nPlay button\n\n\nPlay button\n\n\n\n\nClick to flip\n\n25 Cards in this Set\n\n \u2022 Front\n \u2022 Back\n \u2022 3rd side (hint)\nPerfect Competition exists when:\n-many firms sell an identical product to many buyers\n-there are no restrictions on entry or exit to the market\n-established firms have no advantage over new firms\n- sellers and buyers are well informed about prices\nA price taker is:\nsomeone who cannot influence price of its product.\nWhich market type is a price taker?\nperfect competition\nEconomic profit =\ntotal revenue - total cost of production\nMarginal revenue is\nthe change in total revenue that results from a one unit increase in quantity sold.\nIn the long run, a firm in perfect competition earns:\nNormal profit.\nWhat is normal profit?\nZero economic profit and zero economic loss in the long run.\nWhat is an incentive for new firms to enter perfect competition (or a market)?\nEconomic profit\nWhat happens as new firms enter the market in perfect competition?\nThe price falls and economic profit of each existing firm decreases.\nWhat is an incentive for firms to leave the market in perfect competition?\nEconomic loss\nWhat happens as firms exit the market in perfect competition?\nthe price rises and the economic loss of each remaining firm decreases.\nWhat are external economies?\nFactors beyond control of an individual firm that lower its costs as the market output increases.\nThe change in the long run equilibrium price depends on what?\nExternal economies and external diseconomies.\nExternal diseconomies?\nfactors outside the control of a firm that raise the firms's costs as market output increases.\nWhat is the long run market supply curve:\nshows the relationship b/w the quantity supplied and the price as the number of firms adjusts to achieve zero economic profit.\nWhat is the shut down point in perfect competition?\nthe output and price at which price equals minimum average variable cost.\nWhat is a monopoly?\narises when one firm sells a good or service that has no close substitutes and a barrier blocks the entry of new firms.\nWhat is Monopolistic competition?\nwhen a large number of firms compete by making similar but slighty different products.\nnike, fila, reebock..\nwhen a small number of firms compete. Can produce almost identical products or differentiated products.\nairplane manufacturer, kodak and fuji\nPeople in perfect competition face what kind of demand?\nperfectly elastic b/c the other firms have perfect subsitutes.\nProfit is maximized how?\nAt the output level at which total revenue exceeds total cost by the largest amount.\nBecause of __________, total cost eventually increases faster than total revenue.\nDecreasing marginal returns\nIn perfect competition, on a graph, economic profit is...\nthe vertical distance b/w the total cost and total revenue curves.\nIn perfect competition, marginal revenue equals...\nThe market price\nIn perfect competition, profit is maximized when\nmarginal cost equals marginal revenue. |
__label__positive APPENDIX 1. Interview questions used to describe hunting practices.\n\nHunting Practices\nHunter\u2019s name\nHow many times per month do you go hunting?\nDo you specifically hunt certain species?\nIs hunting is a way for you to cover your own consumption or to earn cash? If both, which is the most important motivation for hunting?\nAre there any perdiods during the year when you do not hunt? Why? Are there any periods during the year when you particularly hunt? Why?\nIs season an important factor? Why?\nDo you go hunting alone or in groups? How many people are there in a group?\nDo you sometimes hunt for someone else? For specific orders?\nWhere do you hunt during the rainy season? During the dry season? Iboutou (secondary forest)\nKouba (agricultural fields)\nIndombo (marshy forest)\nIssuaka (mature forest)\nAre there seasons when hunting is easier? Why? Short dry season\nMain rainy season\nShort rainy season\nMain dry season\nHow far from the village do you usually go to hunt? < 2 h\nbetween 2 and 5 h\nbetween 5 and 10 h\n> 10 h\nWhat weight can one hunter carry on the way back to the village?\nWhat are the different tecniques that you use to hunt?\nWhat animal is the most easy to hunt (using the different techniques mentioned above)?\nIn what type of forest is it easier to hunt (using the different techniques mentioned above)?\nIf gun hunting\n\nWas it easy to buy a gun? Where? How much?\nIs it easy to find cartridges? Where? how much?\nCan you estimate how many missed shots you have out of 10 cartridges?\nWhat species are easiest to shoot?\nDo you use calls to attract animals? When? Where? What animals?\nIf snare hunting\nHow many snares do you currently have?\nHow do you choose where and when to place snares? In what type of forest?\nAt what time of the day do you set snares? How often do you return to check the snares?\nHow long does a snare line stay in place? What makes you decide to change the location of your snare line?\nHow much does a snare cable cost?\nImagine that you set 100 snares. How many would have caught an animal by the first day that you returned to check them?\nWhat are the traditional practices that you use before or during hunting? |
__label__positive Study your flashcards anywhere!\n\nDownload the official Cram app for free >\n\n \u2022 Shuffle\n Toggle On\n Toggle Off\n \u2022 Alphabetize\n Toggle On\n Toggle Off\n \u2022 Front First\n Toggle On\n Toggle Off\n \u2022 Both Sides\n Toggle On\n Toggle Off\n \u2022 Read\n Toggle On\n Toggle Off\n\nHow to study your flashcards.\n\n\n\nH key: Show hint (3rd side).h key\n\nA key: Read text to speech.a key\n\n\nPlay button\n\n\nPlay button\n\n\n\n\nClick to flip\n\n95 Cards in this Set\n\n \u2022 Front\n \u2022 Back\nWhat are the causes of breast masses?\ninflammatory conditions, response to fluctuating hormones, benign neoplasms, malignant neoplasms\nHow do the breasts change from prepuberty to menarche? During menstrual cycle?\n-prepuberty: breast tissue has a few ducts;\n-menarche: ducts further develop-->terminal buds proliferate to give rise to lobules (sites of milk formation)\n-During secretory phase of menstrual cycle: stroma surrounding lobules gets edematous-->breast fullness\n@ what age, are you more likely to find a malignant mass?\nWhat is acute mastitis? What causes it? When does it occur? Sx's?\nIn first few wks post delivery; Principal organism: Staphylococcus (Streptococcus); Portal of entry: nipple crack;\n-Infection confined to 1 segment of breast leading to pain, localized swelling, & inflammation.\nHow does mammary duct ectasia present? At what age?\npalpable mass, often w/ bloody nipple discharge & necrotic debris thru nipple; Get enlarged ducts filled w/ debris & surrounded by fibrous tissue, lots of chronic inflammatory cells; Age: late reproductive life & post menopause;\nWhat is often in a post-menopasual obese patient & presents as a palpable mass that you think may be breast CA until further study?\nfat necrosis; since breast has lots of fatty tissue, subject to trauma or radiotherapy. Macro: well defined area <2cm, micro: anucleate fat cells surrounded by foamy histiocytes w/ Ca deposition & fibrosis (late)-->b/c fat is a lipid, so saponification of fat is a byproduct of calcium.\nWhat breast change is in 50% of women & thought to be due to hormonal stimulation? 10% get clinically apparent dz manifest by periodic discomfort & palpable masses like Breast CA. Age?\nfibrocystic change; 30-60 y/o age group;\nIn fibrocystic change, describe the microscopic lesions of a 30-45 y/o vs someone 40-menopause. What is thought to cause this?\n30-45: fibroadenosis & epithelial hyperplasia;\n40-menopause: fibrocystic change & cystic hyperplasia. b/c of imbalance b/w hyperplasia of ductule & lobular epithelium w/ each menstrual cycle.\nOn palpation, describe the differences w/ fibrocystic change in younger vs older age group.\nyounger: diffuse granularity & nodularity; tender esp during secretory phase or premenstrual period of cycle;\nolder: ill-defined rubbery mass;\n-areas of discrete swelling representing cyst presence-->making it hard to distinguish from localized CA\nWhat is 'blue domed cyst disease'?\nwhat breast surgeons call fibrocystic change; grossly on younger women: multiple nodules og gray tissue, in older women you have large cysts\nWhen does fibrocystic change tend to begin to appear?\npremenopausal women when breast CA incidence is starting to inc;\nDo benign proliferative breast lesions inc the chance of subsequently getting breast CA?\nw/ atypical hyperplasia (disorderly cell growth & nuclear pleomorphism) are inc risk for breast CA (5x higher risk!)\nDo women w/ cystic change tend to have atypical hyerplasia?\nno, majority (70%) do not-->so not @ inc risk of getting CA.\nWhat has a hobnail appearance?\nMicroscopy of apocrine metaplasia of fibrocystic change.\n@ what age does gynecomastia tend to occur? What are the causes? Unilateral or bilateral?\n-adolescence or older males;\n-from hormonal effect; assoc w/ Klinefelter's syndrome, liver dz, certain drugs like digitalis;\n-often unilateral; variable amt of ductule proliferation & prominent edematous & cellular stroma\nDescribe juvenile hypertrophy. When does it occur?\nExcessive & persistent enlargement of 1 or both breasts in 11-14 y/o females.\n-usually coincides w/ menarche, but may precede it\nWhat does juvenile hypertrophy look like micro & macro?\nmicro: proliferation of all elements of breast (epithelium, ductules, stroma)\nmacro: identical to adjacent breast tissue;\nWhat is metaplastic change?\nreplacement of 1 cell type w/ another type\nWhat are the characteristics of apocrine metaplasia?\n-cells w/ granular eosinophilic cytoplasm, round nuclei;\n-sometimes have decapitation secretions or coarse hyaline globules;\n-frequently in fibrocystic change;\n-papillary morphology common in cysts;\n-NO NECROSIS SEEN (ddx apocrine intraductal CA)\nWhat is clear cell metaplasia?\nclear of vacuolated cytoplasm rather than granular & eosinophilic\nWhat is squamous metaplasia associated w/?\ninfarcted papilloma which may follow FNA biopsy, Phyllodes tumor, syringomatous adenoma, ducts w/ perareolar abscess, lining of biopsy cavity (squamous metaplasia can be confused w/ CA!)\nDescribe the characteristics of mucinous metaplasia.\n-rare, typically affects nl isolated lobule, may occur in papilloma, no known pre-neoplastic potential;\nWho gets lactational change and how does it present?\n-Repro age females w/ recurrent hx of pregnancy; rarely, postmenopausal females (digitalis, neuroleptics); males on stilbestrol;\n-May present as mass during pregnancy or post-partum.\nDescribe the micro & macro changes of lactational change?\nmacro: sharply circumscribed, may involve a pre-existing tubular adenoma (=lactating adenoma) <5cm.\nmicro: expanded lobules, secretory or regressive patterns seen. Foamy (milk thats being produced) background differentiates it from CA.\ndescribe the characteristics of scerlosis adenosis. Bilateral or unilateral?\n-common lesion, often bilateral!\n-may form mass (<2cm), but usually microscopic finding;\nWhat do you seen w/ micro of sclerosing adenosis?\nmicro: lobular architecture preserved-->this is key to diagnosis; fibrosis may distort lumina & make myoepithelial cells prominent. (preservation of epithelium & myoepithelium=bening. If you lose myoepithelial cells, then its an invasive CA).\nWhat is in the differential diagnosis of someone w/ sclerosing adenosis?\n-atypical apocrine adenosis: atypical lobular cells w/ apocrine cells;\n-invasive CA: no myoepithelial cells (loses this layer!)\nWho is affected by complex sclerosing lesion/radial scar and how does it appear? Bilateral or unilateral?\n-middle age to older women.\n-frequently multiple & bilateral\n-radiology: stellate mass is suspicious\n-macro: may form palpable mass;\n-micro: central scar w/ stellate arrangement of ducts; pattern may be obscrued by only pt of lesion being sampled w/ core biopsy; 30% have atypia & CA.\nHow does someone w/ duct ectasia/periductal mastitis present?\nmajority are subclinical; pts present w/ nipple pain & tenderness or chronic nipple discharge.\nDescribe the lesion of duct ectasia/periductal mastitis.\n-Lesion shows lymphoplasma infiltrate & pigmented histiocytes w/ foam cells in epithelium & lumen which obliterate lumen rather than cause ectasia. Acute form w/ PMNs is rarely seen.\nWhat is collagenous spherulosis & what should be considered in its differential diagnosis?\n-incidental microscopic finding consisting of spheres of eosinophilic material surrounded by myoepithelial cells Epithelial cells around lesion may be benign, atypical or malignant.\n-DDx: DCIS, Adenoid cystic CA, lobular neoplasia\nWhat population is more likely to get acute mastitis? They have an increased chance of getting what?\noften cracks in nipple in nursing women-->allows bacterial entry (staph or anaerobes);\n-inc risk for inversion of nipple or congenital anomaly;\n-Micro: squamous metaplasia of lg ducts or thick walled abscess cavity from chronic infection.\nWhat is the cause of granulomatous mastitis? what should be in the differential?\n-idiopathic in US;\n-DDx: TB, fungi, protozoa, duct rupture, rxn to CA, sarcoid, Wegener's.\nLeakage/rupture of silicome implants can cause what? Whats in micro?\nMastitis-->from additives and/or silicone. Micro: histiocytes w/ FBG w/ fibrosis & empty spaces w/ refractile material. Changes in regional lymph nodes\nBesides gynecomastia, what other breast pathology can occur in males? It feels like painless dense rubbery fibrous tissue. Its also in women 24-72 age range.\nLymphocytic mastitisu (DM or fibrous mastopathy is the idiopathic form)\nA pt w/ systemic dz like RA or amyloidosis can get what in the breast? What does it look like w/ macro/micro?\namyloid tumor in breast; Macro: nodule w/ granular or waxy cut surface. Micro: amorphous eosinophilic material w/ FBG rxn. (Congo red-->apple green birefringence)\nwhat is the most common benign breast neoplasm in women 25-35 y/o? who is more likely to get them?\nfibroadenoma; african americans\ndo fibroadenomas predispose to breast CA?\nWhat does fibroadenoma feel like on palpation and on cut section?\nusually solitary, freely movable & not fixed to chest wall; don't infiltrate surrounding tissue; cut section: soft gray; micro: biphasic appearance of proliferation of ductules & mensenchyme\nThe myxoid change of a fibroadenoma is associate w/ Carney's complex. What is Carney's complex?\nmyxoma of heart, skin, hyperpigmentation of skin & endocrine changes.\nWhat benign neoplasm is in women >50 y/o & is the most common cause of bloody breast discharge from torsion/hemorrhage? Its found as single lesion w/ large duct, usually close to nipple\nIntraductal papilloma (no myoepithelail cells, have atypical intraductal proliferation; arborizing growth pattern projecting into lg duct; can get CA in papilloma)\nAre intraductal and intralobular CA invasive?\nNo, they're non-invasive in situ and early dz, but they can be assoc w/ fibrosis, may present as mass, & detect w/ mammography.\nWhat is it called when there is ductal (DIN) and lobular neoplasia (LIN)?\nIntraductal neoplasia (these are preneoplastic processes for malignnacy)\nWhat are the characteristics of DIN?\ndistinct cell borders, secondary lumens-rosettes, larger nuclei than LIN, variants: stratified, spindle cell, apocrine;\nWhat are the characteristics of LIN?\nindistinct cell borders, solid or loosely cohesive, intracytoplasmic lumens, small uniform nuclei, variants: pleomorphic;\nWhich stage of DIN has cribriform proliferation of uniform cells?\nDIN 1: low risk\nWhich stage of DIN has comedo necrosis (completely occludes duct?\nWhat is microinvasive CA? If you detect this, how is it managed?\ncluster of tumors cells break thru basement membrane, area <2mm; managed as DCIS;\nWhat % of DCIS has been found to have metastasized?\nWhat does microinvasive CA look like on micro?\ntongue-like invasion from duct; stroma frequently fibroblastic & myxoid.\nWhat condition will cause an inc risk for invasive lobular & ductal bilaterally, is not detectable macroscopically, and on micro is in a clover like pattern?\nHow are LIN 1, 2, & 3 lesions differentiated?\nbased on inc distention of acini to confluence of acini.\nAt 50 years old, what is your risk of developing breast CA?\nWhat is the risk of developing breast CA in American women?\n1 in 8\nBreast cancer is the _____ cancer in women, and ______in cancer deaths in women.\ntop, 2nd in most\nHow have the incidence and mortality of breast CA changes in the past half century?\n1% annual inc in incidence (lung cancer has had a much larger change inc in incidence), constant mortality (thus more cures & found @ much earlier stages-->more in situ & stage 1 b/c of inc emphasis of breast CA diagnosis & more mammograms)\nWhat is the 5 yr survival in someone w/ stage 1 vs stage 4 breast ca?\nstage 1: 84%, Stage 4: 48%\nWhat % of breast CA's now are node negative at diagnosis?\nWhat % of breast CA are small, noninvasive lesions picked up my mammograms?\nIs the incidence of breast CA higher in white or black women? Prognosis?\nincidence higher in whites, prognosis worse in blacks\nWhich countries have inc risk of breast ca: those in N America & N. Europe or those in Africa or Asia?\nN. America/N. Europe\nHow do you define regional spread of breast cancer/\nto lymph nodes, chest wall, or skin\nWhat are the risk factors for breast ca?\nage, country, fam hx, previous hx of CA or breast dz, estrogen: early menarche & late menopause & obesity, estrogenic drugs but OCPs seem ok, inc income or SES, previous fibrocytsic dz if atypical hyperplasia is detected in lesion\nshould a woman w/ breast cancer diagnosis take OCPS?\nno b/c breast CA growth is promoted by estrogen\nIs a patient w/ benign breast dz at inc risk of getting breast CA?\ndepends on type of dz; low risk w/ proliferative dz w/ no atypia; Significantly inc risk w/ proliferative dz w/ atypia.\nPts w/ which gene mutation have 85% chance of developing CA by 70?\nBRCA1 mutation\nPts w/ which gene have a worse breast CA prognosis?\nWhich Breast CA gene is assoc w/ inc risk of ovarian CA?\nWhich 2 gene mutations are responsible for 80% of familial early onset causes of IDC, NOS?\nBRCA1 (chromosome 17q21) & BRCA2 (chrom 13q12-13)\nWhat is the most common type of infiltrating ductal CA?\nWhat is the tx for infiltrating ductal CA?\nlumpectomy or simple mastectomy\nWhat is IDC w/ dermal lymphatic plugging by tumor emboli w/ LN mets?\n'inflammatory' CA\nWhen does infiltrating ductal CA have a nipple discharge?\nif its assoc w/ larger ducts\nWhat 3 things does the Scarff-Bloom-Richardson system measure?\ntubule formation, mitotic activity, nuclear pleomorphism\nWhat are the three grades of infiltrating ductal carcinoma accoding to the S-B-R system?\n3-5: well differentiated, grade 1; 6-7: moderately differtiated, grade 2; 8-9: poorly differentiated, grade 3.\nWhat age group gets infiltrative ductal CA vs intralobular CA?\ninfiltrative: pre and post menopausal women;\nintralobular: premenopausal women\nHow does intralobular ca present?\nNOT as mass--usually incidental finding; Usually bilateral and multifocal!\nWhat % of intralobular CA develops into invasive cancer?\n25%. Controversy about amt of surgery, sometimes bilateral mastectomy for invasive\nIs invasive breast CA usually w/ pre or post menopausal women?\nUsually post\nInvasive breast cancer is usually of what type?\nis premenopausal ca and those found in 20s and 30s usually aggressive?\nYES! usually aggressive, bilateral, assoc w/ fam hx of breast cancer\nWhich types of breast CA have a better prognosis?\nmucinous, tubular, medullary are better compared to infiltrating lobular and ductal which have a similar tx & prognosis.\nWhat is Paget's dz?\ntype of breast CA where overlying epidermis is infiltrated by individual Cancer cells arising in underlying adjacent breast CA; Sx: eczema centered primarily around nipple & areolar region;.\nWhat are the characteristics of male breast cancer/\n1% of all breast cancer; older men; Sx: asymtpomatic, nipple discharge or Paget's dz.\n-inc risk w/ Klinefelter's\n-same prognosis as female breast CA\n-higher incidence of mets (55%)\n-ER+. +/- PR +, +/-RSA\nWhat is a phyloddes utmor (aka giant fibroadenomas or cystosarcoma phyloddes)?\n-tend to occur in 40 y/0, presents as painless discrete mass, often longstanding w/ sudden enlargement;\n-consists of epithelium and assoc neoplastic stroma (biphasic tumor like fibroadenoma) & heterologous elements more often seen (chondroid, osseous, lipioud) than in fibroadenoma.\n-tend to recur but don't metastasize, good prognosis;\n-Image: leaf like processes protrude into cystic spaces lined by epithelial & myoepithelial cells;\nWhat is peau d'orange?\nas skin lymphaics are invaded, skin taken on characteristics dimpling similar to orange skin in appearance.\nWhat happens as the breast malignancy grows?\ncan palpate mass, infiltrates into surrounding breast tissue, attaches to underlying muscle, peau d'orange, nipple retraction w/ growth into surrounding muscle; malignancy can ulcerate thru skin, bleed, discharge necrotic material\nWhich lymph nodes does breast CA drain into?\nWhat are the most common places of breast CA mets?\nbrain, bone marrow (but can go anywhere; painful to bone as its osteoblastic)\nPost mastectomy, where does breast CA commonly occur?\nscar site, can recur as much as 20 yrs post initial tx\nWhat are the 4 stages of breast CA?\nStage I: node negative;\nStage II: breast mass w/ LN mets or involvement of overlying skin\nStage III: more extensive, involves extensive adherence to skin, muscle, fixed lymph nodes\nStage IV: widely metastatic dz\nWhich breast CA pt has the best prognosis?\nif their axillary LN's are negative (or one w/ less than 4 positive ones); if pt has hormone receptors (ER or PR)b/c can remove estrogen influence or anti-estrogens like tamoxifen\nWhich monoclonal Ab drug has been shown to slow growth of HER-2 positive tumors. It blocks HER-2 receptors and controls growth.\nDoes chemo inc breast CA pt survivial?\nyes, but if LN negative, reluctance to tx them w/ aggressive chemo-->should look at different prognostic factors\nPts w/ which gene amplification (aka erbB2/neu) have inc numbers of growth factor receptors, have more aggressive malignancies, and this is overexpressed in 25-35% of primary breast CA's and is assoc w/ inc risk of recurrent dz or shorter overall survivial?\nHER-2 gene |
__label__positive property>volumetric flowrate\n\nWhat is Volumetric Flowrate?\n\nwater flowing at treatment plant\n\nThe volumetric flow rate of a system is defined as a measure of the volume of fluid passing a point in the system per unit time. The volumetric flow rate, Q, can be calculated as the product of the cross-sectional area, A, and the average flow velocity, v. The volume of fluid that flows past a given cross sectional area per second is Q = A.v. Strictly v is a vector, but in internal flows through pipes, for example, there is only one possible flow direction. The SI units for volumetric flow rate are cubic metres per second, although many other units are commonly used depending on the industry, such cubic feet per second or litres per second.\n\nIn fluid dynamics and hygrometry, the volumetric flow rate is the volume of fluid which passes through a given surface per unit time. As defined by Darcy's law, volumetric flow rate should not be confused with volumetric flux. Volumetric flux is represented by the symbol q and its SI units are m3/(m2.s) or m/s. The volumetric flow rate is given by the integration of a flux over an area. When the fluid flows in an angle \u03b8, the volumetric flow rate Q can be calculated as:\n\nQ = A \u028b cos \u03b8\n\nwhere A is the area of the pipe and \u028b is the uniform velocity of the fluid with an angle \u03b8. When the fluid flow is perpendicular to the area A, the angle \u03b8 = 0. The volumetric flow rate is\n\nQ = A \u028b cos \u03b8\n\nThe above equation is for one-dimensional incompressible flows and it is commonly referred to as the continuity equation. If the velocity of the fluid through the area is non-planar then the volumetric flow rate must be calculated by using a surface integral.\n\nMeasuring Volumetric Flow Rate\n\nA fluid flow meter is a device used for measuring the rate of fluid flow or volumetric flow rate. In its simplest form it is comprised of a tube, and a tapered float which rises or falls depending on the flow. The float is often designed to spin with due to the fluid flow which reduces the chance of it getting stuck at low flow rates (or at least makes it obvious if it has done so), and because of this the device is known as a rotameter. An automatic version may have a light source and a light detecting device for remote measurement. A variety of other devices exist that work on a similar principle of a variable flow area.\n\nMany other devices have been devised for measuring volumetric flowrate. An important category is the positive displacement devices that repeatedly fill a vessel. These can be used where precise measurement is required because the fluid is being metered (e.g. for sale). Turbine flow meters have a small turbine that drives a generator to indicate the flowrate. The venturi meter uses a constriction in a pipe to provide a small amount of resistance to the flow and then uses a manometer to measure the pressure difference. Various other devices essentially measure the fluid velocity, from which the flowrate can be derived.\n |
__label__positive Science M3\n\nHideShow resource information\nB3- Where does respiration take place?\nMitochondria- respiration supplies energy for the cell. Cells that have a high energy requirement e.g. muscle cells have large amounts of mitochondria.\n1 of 34\nB3- How do the four bases in DNA pair up?\nA-T and G-C. This is complementary base pairing.\n2 of 34\nB3- What is the word equation for aerobic respiration?\nglucose + oxygen => carbon dioxide + water (+energy released)\n3 of 34\nB3- What is produced during anaerobic respiration?\nLactic acid- toxic to cells, cause cramp and fatigue.\n4 of 34\nB3- What are gametes?\nSex cells (egg&sperm). These are haploid so they only have half the amount of chromosomes.\n5 of 34\nB3- In which organs does meiosis occur?\nTestes and Ovaries\n6 of 34\nB3- What is mitosis and meiosis?\nMitosis- produces new cells for growth. Meiosis- cells in testess and ovaries divide to produce gametes for sexual reproduction(introduces genetic variation).\n7 of 34\nB3- Name the four components of blood.\nPlasma, Platelets, Red blood cells, White blood cells.\n8 of 34\nB3- What does the pulmonary artery do?\nTakes blood from the heart to the lungs to pick up oxygen.\n9 of 34\nB3- Name the process of producing organisms with desired characteristics through a breeding programme.\nSelective breeding. *intensive selective breeding reduces gene pool, number of different allelles in population decrease= less variation. This can lead to harmful recessive characteristics.\n10 of 34\nB3- What is gene therapy?\nChanging a persons genes in order to cure genetic disorders.\n11 of 34\nB3- How has genetic engineering helped people people with diabetes?\nThe production of human insulin by genetically engineered bacteria.\n12 of 34\nB3- Suggest some possible uses for cloning.\nMass production of animals with desirable characteristics, Producing lots of animals which produce a human product, Producing human embryos to supply stem cells for therapy\n13 of 34\nChemistry- What are the negative particles in an atom called?\n14 of 34\nChemistry- Where are the proton and neutrons found in an atom?\n15 of 34\nChemistry- What is an ion?\nA charged atom or group that has lost or gained electrons.\n16 of 34\nChemistry- What 3 things can displayed formula tell you?\nThe different types of atom found in a compound, the number of each type of atom, where the bonds are in a compound.\n17 of 34\nC3- What is rate of reaction?\nA measure of the amount of product made in a specific time.\n18 of 34\nC3- How can rate of reaction be increased?\nIncrease temperature, concentration(for reactants in solution), pressure(for reactants that are gases) or add a catalyst.\n19 of 34\nC3- How does temperature increase the rate of reaction?\nThe reactant particles have more kinetic energy and move around faster, making them more likely to collide and collisions are higher energy making them more likely to form a product.\n20 of 34\nC3- What is the process of making bonds called?\nENDOTHERMIC- chemical reactions that need more energy to break bonds than released when new bonds are made are endothermic reactions.\n21 of 34\nC3- What is the process of breaking bonds called?\nEXOTHERMIC- chemical reactions that release more energy when making bonds than breaking them are exothermic reactions.\n22 of 34\nC3- What are the 4 stages for extracting chemicals from plants?\nCrushing, boiling, dissolving and chromatography.\n23 of 34\nC3- Name 3 allotropes of carbon.\nDiamond, graphite and Buckminster fullrene.\n24 of 34\nP3- What 2 quantities are needed to calculate speed?\n25 of 34\nP3- What does the gradient of a dt graph represent?\n26 of 34\nP3- State the equation used to calculate acceleration.\nA(m/s2) = Change in speed(m/s) / Time taken for change(s)\n27 of 34\nP3- What does the acceleration of -5m/s2 tell you about the motion of the object?\nSlowing down- deceleration\n28 of 34\nP3- What are the main features of cars designed to prevent accidents?\nABS, traction control, cruise control, paddle shifts.\n29 of 34\nP3- What feature on a lorry reduces air resistance?\nA deflector.\n30 of 34\nP3- How does an increase in collision time affect the force felt by the driver?\nIt decreases.\n31 of 34\nP3- Which 2 forces on a skydiver are equal when falling at terminal speed?\nWeight and air resistance.\n32 of 34\nP3- When an object falls at terminal speed, what happens to its kinetic energy?\nStays the same- the speed isn't changing so the KE doesn't increase.\n33 of 34\nP3- What happens to the size of the KE of an object if its speed is doubled?\nIt quadruples.\n34 of 34\n\nOther cards in this set\n\nCard 2\n\n\nB3- How do the four bases in DNA pair up?\n\n\n\nCard 3\n\n\nB3- What is the word equation for aerobic respiration?\n\n\nPreview of the front of card 3\n\nCard 4\n\n\nB3- What is produced during anaerobic respiration?\n\n\nPreview of the front of card 4\n\nCard 5\n\n\nB3- What are gametes?\n\n\nPreview of the front of card 5\nView more cards\n\n\nNo comments have yet been made\n\nSimilar Science resources:\n\nSee all Science resources \u00bbSee all Living and Growing resources \u00bb |
__label__positive Name:\u00a0 \u00a0\u00a0 ID:\u00a0\n\nAstronomy Essentials\n\nShort Answer\n\n\nWhat does the Universe include?\n\n\nWhat is the Big Bang?\n\n\nHow long ago did the Universe form?\n\n\nExplain why the galaxies are moving outward.\n\n\nIf you had a spaceship that could move at the speed of light, could you visit another galaxy?\u00a0 Explain!\n\n\nWhat is astronomy?\n\n\nWhich six planets did the ancients know about?\u00a0 Why did they not know about the other three planets?\n\n\nWhy was astronomy important to the ancients?\n\n\nWhat did the ancients use when studying the sky?\n\n\nWho was the first astronomer to use a telescope?\n\n\nWhy did sailors use the stars and not the planets to find their way at sea?\n\n\nWhy did the Greeks call some stars planetes?\n\n\nGalileo, Kepler, and Copernicus believed in which model of the solar system?\n\n\nExplain the difference between the heliocentric and geocentric models of the solar system.\n\n\nExplain how our ideas about the solar system have changed over the last 2,000 years.\n\n\nWho came up with the Scientific Method and what is it?\n\n\nAristotle and Ptolemy believed what about the solar system?\n\n\nWhy did it take so long for people to accept the heliocentric model of the solar system instead of the geocentric model?\n\n\nHow has technology helped change our ideas about the Universe?\n\n\nWhat is the name of the telescope that orbits the Earth?\n\n\nGalaxies are made up of what?\n\n\nAstronomers classify galaxies on the basis of what?\n\n\nWhy do we use scale models while studying astronomy?\n\n\nThere are how many types of galaxies and what are their names?\n\n\nThe oldest stars are found in what type of galaxy?\n\n\nExplain what a nebula is and why is it important?\n\n\nDescribe the Milky Way Galaxy and tell where our solar system is located.\n\n\nCorrectly identify each of these three galaxies.\nA. sa028-1.jpg B. sa028-2.jpg\nC. sa028-3.jpg\n\n\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Start Over |
__label__positive In order to keep the correct degrees of freedom (which are 2) for massless gauge fields one imposes,\n\n$$p^\\mu \\epsilon_\\mu = 0 \\tag1$$\n\nTogether with the gauge redundacy/equivalence relation,\n\n$$\\epsilon_\\mu \\sim \\epsilon'_\\mu = \\epsilon_\\mu + F(p)p_\\mu \\tag2$$\n\nBecause $\\epsilon$ and $\\epsilon'$ satisfy Eq. (1).\n\nNow, the amplitude of any process with 2 gauge fields in the final state, $\\epsilon_\\mu\\epsilon_\\nu M_{\\mu\\nu}$, has to be gauge invariant and due to Eq. (2), that implies\n\n$$p^\\mu\u00b7M_{\\mu\\nu} = 0 \\tag3$$\n\nNevertheless, for non-abelian theories our massless gauge fields transform for small parameter $\\omega = \\omega(x)$ and $g$ the coupling constant as\n\n$$A_\\mu \\rightarrow A_\\mu + \\partial_\\mu\\omega - ig[A_\\mu, \\omega] \\tag4$$\n\nFrom here you can say that the gauge redudancy for non-abelian fields should be:\n\n$$\\epsilon_\\mu \\sim \\epsilon'_\\mu = \\epsilon_\\mu + F(p)p_\\mu + G(p)\\epsilon_\\mu \\tag5$$\n\nBut now, from Eq. (5) you get that Eq. (2) is changed, in order to preserve gauge invariance, by\n\n$$(p^\\mu + \\epsilon^\\mu)M_{\\mu\\nu} = 0 \\tag6$$\n\nBut in many book appears that in QCD we hold Eq. (2) which should imply null amplitude accordingly to Eq. (6). What am I misunderstanding?\n\n\n\nYour Answer\n\n\nBrowse other questions tagged or ask your own question. |
__label__positive Bookmark and Share\n\nFront Back\nwhat is cytology\nthe study of structure and function of cells\nwhat are the two types of microscopy\nlight and electron\nwhat magnification can light microscopy have\nup to 1000 times\nwhat do they call a photograph that has been taken through a light microscope\nlight micrograph\nwhat is the difference between TEM and SEM micrographs\ntransmission electron micrographs\u00a0are photos of very thin sections that reveal fine lines, and scanning electron micographs provide less but are 3D\nour body cell is surrounded by what watery medium\nextracellular fluid\nwhat is the extracellular fluid that is in most tissues\ninterstitial fluid\nwhat is cytoplasm\nthe cells contents\nthe cytoplasm can be subdivided into two things. what are they\nthe liquid-cytosol, and cellular structures called the organelles\nthe phosphlipids are two distinct layers, which are\nhydrophilic (heads on the outside) and hrdrophobic (tails on the outside)\nwhat are the most common membrane protiens\ntransmembrane protiens, which will span the width of the membrane, other membranes are patially emmbeded or loosley bound\nwhat may membrane protiens function as\nreceptors, channels, carriers, enzymes, anchors, or identifiers\nwhat are known as the lock and key protiens\nrecptor protiens, certian materials trigger them to open or close\nwhat function as cell lubricants and adhesives\nglycoproteins and glycolipids, they keep they bodys immune system from attcking itself\nwhat is the difference between passive and active processes\npassive moves ions and molecules across the membrane without any energy used by the cell, and active uses ATP (adenosine triphospate) to do the same thing\nwhat are the two types of passive processes\ndiffusion (osmosis) and filtration\nwhat is diffusion\nthe net movement of molecules from an area of high concentreation to an area of low concentration\nwhat is the differnce between high and low concentrations\nconcentration gradient\nwhat can alcohol, fatty acids, and steriods do\nthey can difffuse right through the lipid portions of the membrane, so can oxygen and carbon dioxide\nwhat is the diffusion of water across a membrane\nwhat is isotonic\na soulution that doesnt let water in or out\nwhat is hypertonic\na soulution where only water can come in, which may make it lyse or burst\nthe shrinking of a blood vessel is called what\ncrenation, they shrivel and dehydrate\nwhat is hypertonic\nwhere the blood vessel loses water\nwhat is the filtration process\nwhere it uses the blood pressure the push the water and nutreints into the body tissues\nwhat is active trasport\nwhere the cell uses ATP to move ions or molecules through the cell membrane\nhow much ATP is used in a resting cell in the sodium-potassium exchange\nabout %40 of the ATP\nwhat is endocytosis\nthe packaging of extracellular materials in a vesicle at the cell surface for import into the cell\nwhat is the sodium potassium concentration of the cytosol\nHigher potasium, where the opposite is true for extracellular fluid\nwhat are the organelles\nthey give the cell its structure, performs maintenance, and metabolism. They contain the nucleous, mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, golgi apparatus, lysomes, and peroxisomes\nwhat is the cytoskeleton\nthe internal protien framework of the cell\nwhat are the micofilaments made from\nthe protien actin, they act with filaments made of the protien myosin to produce powerful contractions\nwhat are microtubles\nthey are made from the protien tublin which give they cytoskeleton stength and rigidity\nwhat do the microvilli do\nthey are the small finger shaped projections on the cell that have the most surface area and do most of the absorbing\nwhat are the flagella\norganells that are sperm\nwhat is the differnce between centrioles and cilia\ncentrioles are short microtubules that produce the spindle fibers that move DNA, and cilia are long extensions of the cell membrane and they require ATP cause they move\nwhat are ribosomes\norganells that produce protiens using info from the DNA. Fixed ribosomes are attached to the endoplasmic reticulum\nwhat are the proteasomes\nthey are hollow and contain protien breaking ensymes (proteases) they are responsible for recycling damaged protiens\nwhat is the endoplasmic reticulum\nit is around the nucleus and has four functions, synthesis, storage, transport, and detoxification\nwhat is the difference between smooth and rough ER\nSER is where the lipids and carbs are produced, and the RER is on the outersuface and releases them\nwhat are the three functions of the golgi apperatus\nthe mod and packaging of hormones and enzymes, the renewal and mod of the cell membrane, and the packaging of special enzymes for use in the cytosol\nwhat are the three type of vessicles in the golgi apparatus\nlysomes, secretory (discharges from the cell), and membrane renewal (adds to the cell)\nwhat are lysomes\ndigestive ensymes that perform cleanup and recycle\nwhat does the lysomes do in dead or damaged cells\nthey release active enzymes into the cytosol that destroy the protiens and organelles. it is called autolysis, and this is basically suicide of the cell\nwhat do the mitochondria do for the cell\nthey provide the energy for it\nwhat is glycolysis\nwhere six-carbon glucose molecules are broken down into three-carbon\u00a0puruvic acid molecules for energy\ndefine aerobic metabolism\ncellular respiration\nwhat is the nucular envelope\nit consists of a double membrane that surounds the nucleous and separates it's fluid (nucleoplasm)\nwhat is a histone\nit is in the DNA strands\nwhat is a benign tumor\na tumor in where it stays within a connective tissue capsule, such a tumor can be removed with surgery\nx of y cards Next >| |
__label__positive Study your flashcards anywhere!\n\nDownload the official Cram app for free >\n\n \u2022 Shuffle\n Toggle On\n Toggle Off\n \u2022 Alphabetize\n Toggle On\n Toggle Off\n \u2022 Front First\n Toggle On\n Toggle Off\n \u2022 Both Sides\n Toggle On\n Toggle Off\n \u2022 Read\n Toggle On\n Toggle Off\n\nHow to study your flashcards.\n\n\n\nH key: Show hint (3rd side).h key\n\nA key: Read text to speech.a key\n\n\nPlay button\n\n\nPlay button\n\n\n\n\nClick to flip\n\n25 Cards in this Set\n\n \u2022 Front\n \u2022 Back\n \u2022 3rd side (hint)\nPerfect Competition exists when:\n-many firms sell an identical product to many buyers\n-there are no restrictions on entry or exit to the market\n-established firms have no advantage over new firms\n- sellers and buyers are well informed about prices\nA price taker is:\nsomeone who cannot influence price of its product.\nWhich market type is a price taker?\nperfect competition\nEconomic profit =\ntotal revenue - total cost of production\nMarginal revenue is\nthe change in total revenue that results from a one unit increase in quantity sold.\nIn the long run, a firm in perfect competition earns:\nNormal profit.\nWhat is normal profit?\nZero economic profit and zero economic loss in the long run.\nWhat is an incentive for new firms to enter perfect competition (or a market)?\nEconomic profit\nWhat happens as new firms enter the market in perfect competition?\nThe price falls and economic profit of each existing firm decreases.\nWhat is an incentive for firms to leave the market in perfect competition?\nEconomic loss\nWhat happens as firms exit the market in perfect competition?\nthe price rises and the economic loss of each remaining firm decreases.\nWhat are external economies?\nFactors beyond control of an individual firm that lower its costs as the market output increases.\nThe change in the long run equilibrium price depends on what?\nExternal economies and external diseconomies.\nExternal diseconomies?\nfactors outside the control of a firm that raise the firms's costs as market output increases.\nWhat is the long run market supply curve:\nshows the relationship b/w the quantity supplied and the price as the number of firms adjusts to achieve zero economic profit.\nWhat is the shut down point in perfect competition?\nthe output and price at which price equals minimum average variable cost.\nWhat is a monopoly?\narises when one firm sells a good or service that has no close substitutes and a barrier blocks the entry of new firms.\nWhat is Monopolistic competition?\nwhen a large number of firms compete by making similar but slighty different products.\nnike, fila, reebock..\nwhen a small number of firms compete. Can produce almost identical products or differentiated products.\nairplane manufacturer, kodak and fuji\nPeople in perfect competition face what kind of demand?\nperfectly elastic b/c the other firms have perfect subsitutes.\nProfit is maximized how?\nAt the output level at which total revenue exceeds total cost by the largest amount.\nBecause of __________, total cost eventually increases faster than total revenue.\nDecreasing marginal returns\nIn perfect competition, on a graph, economic profit is...\nthe vertical distance b/w the total cost and total revenue curves.\nIn perfect competition, marginal revenue equals...\nThe market price\nIn perfect competition, profit is maximized when\nmarginal cost equals marginal revenue. |
__label__positive AIIMS PG November 2014 Questions\n\nAIIMS PG Exam Preparation\n\nLatest AIIMS PG Nov 2014 Questions are updated here.\n\nAIIMS PG Entrance 2014 was conducted on 09 November.\u00a0AIIMS PG 2014 result will be published hereClick for AIIMS PG Jan 2015 Prospectus.\u00a0The general feedback is that there was a high proportion of AIIMS PG\u00a0questions were new, clinical scenarios and image questions. Questions are recollected from the memory of candidates and posted here on this post. You could post your answers and explanations as reply.\n\n1. Which of the following is the treatment option for stage T3N0M0 Laryngeal carcinoma?\n\nA. Radiotherapy\nB.\u00a0Radiation Therapy and Surgery\nC. Chemotherapy\nD.\u00a0None of the above\n\n2. Which of the following segments mediate H-reflex (Hoffmann reflex)?\n\nA. C2-C3\nB. T3-T4\nC. S1\nD. C3-T1\n\n3. Cri-Du-Chat syndrome is due to the deletion of :\n\nA. Chromosome 6\nB. Chromosome 5\nC. Chromosome 2\nD. Chromosome 4\n\n4. What is the fatal dose of Arsenic for human?\n\nA. 120 \u2013 200mg\nB. 30.75 \u2013 35.67mg\nC. 2 \u2013 3mg\nD. 0.456 \u2013 2.345mg\n\n5. What is the blood level of lithium that could reliably predict toxicity?\n\nA. 0.6-0.75 mmol/L\nB. > 0.8 mmol/L\nC. > 1.5 mmol/L\nD. > 2 mmol/L\n\n6. Which among the following arteritis is not seen in adults?\n\nA. Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN)\nB. Buerger\u2019s disease\nC. Kawasaki disease\nD. Thromboangiitis obliterans\n\n7. Which among the following is the drug for advanced prostate carcinoma?\n\nA. Goserelin acetate\nB. Fulvestrant\nC. Nateglinide\nD. Leflunomide\n\n8. Which of the following is the most common form of parasuicide?\n\nA. Cutting forearm\nB. Overdose of medication\nC. Self Burn\nD. Hanging\n\n\n\nFree Gold Pack \u2013 Register Now\n80+ mock tests and over 3000 MCQs for FREE\n\nCourses & Offers\nG2M Capsule packages for your medical pg entrance examinations with offer.\n\nYou may also like... |
__label__positive Take the tour \u00d7\n\nSuppose $K$ is a centrally symmetric, strictly convex body in $\\mathbb{R}^2$. Let denote the curvature and the support function of $\\partial K$, boundary of $K$, respectively with $\\kappa$ and $s$. If $m\\le\\frac{\\kappa}{s^3}(K)\\le M$ for some positive numbers $m$ and $M$, does it mean there are ellipsoids $E_1$ and $E_2$ such that $E_1\\subseteq K\\subseteq E_2$ and $$\\frac{\\kappa}{s^3}({E_1})=M,~~~ \\frac{\\kappa}{s^3}(E_2)=m ~~~~? $$\n\nshare|improve this question\nCould you say more about what $s$ is? I think of a \"support function of $X$\" as being a function that is 1 for points in $X$ and 0 otherwise. But apparently not in this case. \u2013\u00a0 Carl Feynman Apr 9 '11 at 16:38\n@Carl Feynman The support function $h_A:\\mathbb{R}^n\\to\\mathbb{R}$ of a non-empty closed convex set $A$ in $\\mathbb{R}^n$ is given by :$ h_A(x)=\\sup\\{ x\\cdot a: a\\in A\\},$ \u2013\u00a0 MINI Apr 9 '11 at 17:06\nI think it should be $M$ for the smaller ellipsoid and $m$ for the larger one. \u2013\u00a0 Sergei Ivanov Apr 9 '11 at 18:31\n@Sergei Ivanov edited. \u2013\u00a0 MINI Apr 9 '11 at 18:33\nSorry, I was confused by the word \"ellipsoid\" (rather than \"ellipse\") and thought that it was in $\\mathbb R^3$. \u2013\u00a0 Sergei Ivanov Apr 10 '11 at 22:09\nshow 3 more comments\n\n1 Answer\n\nup vote 4 down vote accepted\n\nYes this is true. Let me handle the inner ellipse, the outer one is similar.\n\nFor brevity, denote $\\kappa/s^3$ by $a$. It is easy to see that $$ a = \\frac{\\dot\\gamma\\wedge\\ddot\\gamma}{(\\gamma\\wedge\\dot\\gamma)^3} $$ where $t\\mapsto \\gamma(t)$ is any counter-clockwise parametrization of the boundary curve. For an ellipse, this is a constant inverse proportional to the square of the area. So we have to prove that the maximum-area ellipse contained in $K$ has $a\\le M$.\n\nSo let $E$ be the maximum-area ellipse contained in $K$. Since the problem is centro-affine invariant, we may assume that $E$ is the unit circle. Then we have to prove that $M\\ge 1$.\n\nConsider the points where $\\partial K$ touches $\\partial E$. One easily sees that the intervals between these points on the circle are no greater than $\\pi/2$, otherwise $E$ could be made larger. Choose coordinates so that one of the touch points is $(1,0)$, then there is another touch point of the form $(\\cos\\theta,\\sin\\theta)$ where $0<\\theta\\le\\pi/2$. Observe that the arc of $\\partial K$ between these touch points is contained in the square $[0,1]^2$.\n\nParametrize $\\partial K$ by spanned area, i.e. by a curve $t\\mapsto\\gamma(t)$ such that $\\gamma\\wedge\\dot\\gamma=1$. Then $\\gamma\\wedge\\ddot\\gamma=0$, hence $\\ddot\\gamma(t)=-a(t)\\gamma(t)$ for all $t$ where $a(t)$ is the centro-affine curvature. Let $\\gamma(t)=(x(t),y(t))$, then $\\ddot x(t)=-a(t)x(t)$ and $\\ddot y(t)=-a(t)y(t)$. Suppose that $M=\\sup a(t)<1$. Since $x(0)=1$, $\\dot x(0)=0$, $y(0)=0$ and $\\dot y(0)=1$, a standard comparison theorem for equations of the form $\\ddot x=-ax$ implies that $x(t)>\\cos t$ and $y(t)>\\sin t$ for all $t\\in(0,\\pi/2]$. Therefore $x(t)^2+y(t)^2>1$ for all $t\\in(0,\\pi/2]$ and $y(\\pi/2)>1$. This means that $\\gamma$ leaves the square $[0,1]^2$ before is has a chance to touch the circle again, a contradiction.\n\nshare|improve this answer\n@Sergei Ivanov Superbe! \u2013\u00a0 MINI Apr 11 '11 at 20:46\nadd comment\n\nYour Answer\n\n\n |
__label__positive OSU Phenology Garden Network\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\nWhat is phenology?\n\nPhenology is the study of recurring biological phenomena and their relationship to weather.\u00a0 Bird migration, hunting and gathering seasons, blooming of wildflowers and trees, and the seasonal appearance of insects are examples of phenological events that have been recorded for centuries.\u00a0 We have all observed that plants bloom earlier in warm springs.\u00a0 Insects also emerge earlier when it is warm than in cooler seasons.\u00a0 Because the development of both plants and insects is temperature dependent, plants can accurately track the environmental factors that determine when insects are active.\u00a0 For this reason, plant phenology can be used to predict insect emergence.\u00a0 Indeed, the use of plant phenology to predict insect activity is an old practice, with recorded observations dating back at least 300 years.\u00a0 In fact, research at The Ohio State University has shown that plants bloom and insects emerge in virtually the same order every year, no matter what kind of weather occurred that winter or spring.\u00a0 For this reason, the flowering sequence of plants can be used as a biological calendar to predict insect activity, and to time other gardening practices that are dependent on a particular stage of plant development, such as propagation or weed control.\u00a0 The trees and shrubs planted in the OSU Phenology Garden network sites will be monitored for the first and full bloom, which will assist with identifying insect activity. |
__label__positive Advertisement Upgrade to remove ads\n\nWhat are body planes?\n\nImaginary lines used for reference.\n\nWhat are the different planes in the human body used?\n\nMedian plane, coronal plane, and transverse plane.\n\nWhat is a section?\n\nA real or an imaginary cut made along a plane.\n\nWhat is a cut along the median plane?\n\nSagittal section.\n\nWhat is a cut along the coronal plane?\n\nFrontal section.\n\nWhat is a cut through the transverse plane?\n\n\nWhat is anatomical position?\n\nThe body is erect, feet are slightly apart, the head is held high, and the palms of the hands are facing forward.\n\nWhat are the directional terms?\n\nSuperior, inferior, anterior, posterior, medial, lateral, proximal, and distal.\n\nWhat is the dorsal cavity?\n\nIncludes the cranial and spinal cavities.\n\nWhat is the ventral cavity?\n\nIncludes the orbits and the nasal, oral, thoracic, and abdominalpelvic cavities.\n\nWhat is Histology?\n\nThe study of tissues.\n\nWhat is a tissue?\n\nA group of cells that act together to perform a specific function.\n\nWhat are the four fundamental tissues?\n\nEpithelial, connective, muscle, and nerve tissue.\n\nWhat is Epithelial tissue?\n\nCells over, line and protect the body and it's internal organs.\n\nWhat is Connective tissue?\n\nFramework of the body, providing support and structure for the organs.\n\nWhat is Nerve tissue?\n\nComposed of neurons and connective tissue cells that are referred to as neuroglia.\n\nWhat is Muscle tissue?\n\nTissue that has the ability to contract or shorten. Voluntary muscle (skeletal) and involuntary muscle (smooth muscle and cardiac muscle).\n\nWhat is a cell?\n\nThe basic unit of life and the building block of tissues and organs.\n\nWhat is an organelle?\n\nA object inside a cell that has a specific function.\n\nWhat is a nucleus?\n\nContains deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA). Main part of a Eukaryotic cell.\n\nWhat is a Ribosome?\n\nUsed for synthesis of proteins.\n\nWhat are enzymes?\n\nProteins (99%), that regulate all chemical reactions in the body.\n\nWhat is Mitosis necessary for?\n\nGrowth and repair.\n\nWhat happens during Mitosis?\n\nThe DNA is duplicated and distributed evenly to two daughter cells.\n\nWhat is Meiosis?\n\nSpecial cell division that takes place in the gonads (ovaries and testes), the chromosome number is reduced from 46 to 23, so when the egg and sperm unite in fertilization the zygote will have the correct number of chromosomes.\n\nWhat are the principal membranes?\n\nMucous, serous, synovial, and cutaneous - composed of epithelial tissue.\n\nWhat are the different types of glands?\n\nSudoriferous, sebaceous, and ceruminous.\n\nWhere does cartilage replace bone in embryonic development?\n\nJoints, the thorax, and various rigid tubes.\n\nWhat is the largest organ in the body?\n\nThe skin.\n\nWhat does the skin consist of?\n\nTwo layers: the epidermis (the outer most protective layer of dead keratinized epithelial cells; and the dermis which is the underlying layer of connective tissue with blood vessels, nerve endings, and the associated skin structures.\n\nWhat does the Dermis rest on?\n\nThe subcutaneous tissue that connects the skin to the superficial muscles.\n\nWhat are the layers of the Epidermis?\n\nStratum corneum, stratum lucedum, tratum granulosum, and the inner most stratum germinativum.\n\nWhat layer does mitosis occur in the Epidermis?\n\nThe stratum gerninativum.\n\nWhat is Melanin?\n\nA protein pigment found in epidermal cells, protect skin against radiation from the sun.\n\nWhat does the Dermis contain?\n\nFibrous connective tissue with blood vessels, sensory nerve endings, hair follicles, and glands.\n\nWhat are the two types of sweat glands?\n\nEccrine and apocrine.\n\nWhat are Eccrine glands?\n\nWidely most distrubuted sweat glands that regulate the body tempearture by releasing a watery scretion that evaporates from the surface of the skin.\n\nWhat are Apocrine glands?\n\nMainly in the armpits and the groin area. Contains bit of cytoplasm from the secreting cells. The cell debris attracts bacteria, and the presense of bacteria results in body oder.\n\nWhat do Sebaceous glands release?\n\nSebum - through the hair follicles that lubricates the skin and prevents drying.\n\nWhat is oil produced by?\n\nHolocrine secretion, in which whole cells of the gland are part of the secretion.\n\nWhat are the appendages of the skin?\n\nHair and nails.\n\nWhat are hair and nails composed of?\n\nA strong protein called keratin.\n\nWhat can hair, skin and nails be used for in diagnosis?\n\nThey may show changes in different diseases that can be used in clincal conditions. i.e., skin cancer is a clinical condition that is associated with the skin.\n\nWhat does the bodys framework consist of?\n\nBone, cartilage, ligaments, plus the joints between the bones.\n\nWhat are the functions of the skeletal system?\n\nSupport, permission of movement, blood cell formation (hemopoiesis), protection of internal organs, detoxification (removal of poisons), provision for muscle attachment, and mineral storage (particularly calcium and phosphorus).\n\nWhat are the different shapes of bones?\n\nLong, short, flat, irregular, and sesamoid.\n\nWhat is a Long bone?\n\nHas an iregular epiphysis at each end, composed mainly of spongy (cancellous) bone, and a shaft or diaphysis, composed mainly of compact bone.\n\nWhat are the cells that form compact bone?\n\n\nWhat do Osteoblasts turn into when they become fixed in the dense bone matrix?\n\nThey stop dividng but continue to maintain bone tissue as osteocytes.\n\nWhat does the axial skeleton consist of?\n\n28 bones of the skull. Separated into 14 facial bones, and the 14 bones of teh cranium.; and 33 bones of the veretebral column. Final portion consist of the bones of the thorax, the sternum and the 12 pairs of ribs.\n\nWhat are the facial bones?\n\nTwo nasal bones, two maxillary bones, two zygomatic bones, one mandible (only moveable bone in the skull), two palatine bones, one vomer, two lacrimal bones, and two inferior nasal conchae.\n\nWhat do the bones of the cranium consist of?\n\nSingle occipital, frontal, ehtmoid, and sphenoid and the paired parietal, temporal, and ossicles of the ear.\n\nWhat are the ossicles of the ear?\n\nMalleus, incus and stapes.\n\nWhat are the bones of the vertebral column?\n\nSeven cervical vertebrae, 12 thoracic vertebrae, five lumbar vertebrae, five sacral vertebrae (fused to form the sacrum), and the occygeal vertebrae (tailbone.\n\nWhat does the Appendicular Skeleton consist of?\n\nIncludes the bones of girdles and the limbs.\n\nWhat is the upper portion of the appendicular skeleton?\n\nConsists of the pectoral or shoulder girdle, the clavicle and scapula and the upper extremeity.\n\nWhat are the bones in the arm?\n\nThe humerus, the radius and ulna, the carpals (wrist bones), the metatarsals (bones of the hand), and the phalanges (bones of the fingers).\n\nWhat is the lower portion of the appendicular skeleton?\n\nConsists of the pelvic girdle or os coxae, and the lower extremitys.\n\nWhat does the os Coxae consist of?\n\nConsists of the fused ilium, ischium and pubis.\n\nWhat do the lower extremeitys of the appendicular skeleton consist of?\n\nFemur (thighbone), the tibia and fibula, the tarsals (ankle bones), the metatarsals (bones of the foot), and the phalanges.\n\nHow do Muscles produce movement?\n\nBy contracting in response to nervous stimulation.\n\nWhat does Muscle contraction result from?\n\nSliding together of actin and myosin filaments within the muscle cell or fiber.\n\nWhat does each muscle cell consist of?\n\nMyofibrils, which in turn are made up of still smaller units called sarcomeres.\n\nWhat needs to happen for a muscle cell to contract?\n\nCalcium and ATP (adenosine triphosphate) must be present. Nervous stimulation from motor neurons cause the release of calcium ions from the sacroplasmic reticulum. Calcium ions attach to inhibitory proteins on the actin filaments within the cell, moving them aside so that cross-bridges can form between actin and myosin filamens. Using energy supplied by ATP, the filaments slide together to produce contraction.\n\nWhat are Skeletal muscles?\n\nMake up the muscular system, also called voluntary muscle because they are under concious control. These muscles must work in pairs.\n\nWhat is a prime mover?\n\nA muscle that executes a given movement.\n\nWhat is the Antagonist?\n\nA muscle that provides the opposite movement.\n\nWhat are synergists?\n\nMuscles that may work in cooperation with the prime mover.\n\nHow can muscles be classified?\n\nAccording to the movement they elicit. There are flexors and extensors. Abducters and adducters.\n\nWhat is a flexor?\n\nReduce the angle at the joint.\n\nWhat is an extensor?\n\nIncrease the angle at the joint.\n\nWhat is an abductor?\n\nDraw the limb away from the midline.\n\nWhat is an adductor?\n\nReturn the limb back toward the body.\n\nWhat does the Nervous System consist of?\n\nBrain, spinal cord, and the nerves.\n\nWhat is the function of the Nervous System?\n\nThis vital system enables us to percieve many of the changes that take place in our external and internal environments and to respond to those changes (seeing, hearing, tasting, smelling and touching are examples of perception). It enables us to think, reason, remember and carry out other abstract activities. It makes possible body movements by skeletal muscles, by supplying them with nerve impulses that cause contraction. It works closely with endocrine glands, correlating and integrating body functions such as digestion and reprodution.\n\nWhat do all actions of the nervous system depend on?\n\nThe transmission of nerve impulses over neurons or nerve cells.\n\nWhat are Nerve cells?\n\nThe functional units of the nervous system.\n\nWhat are the main parts of a Neuron?\n\nBody, axon and dendrites.\n\nWhat are dendrites?\n\nTrasmit the impulse toward the cell body.\n\nWhat are axons?\n\nTransmit the impulse away from the body.\n\nHow is the Nervous System divided?\n\n\nWhat does the PNS consist of?\n\nAll the nerves that transmit information to and from the CNS.\n\nWhat do Sensory (Afferent) neurons trasmit?\n\nTrasmit nerve impulses toward the CNS.\n\nWhat do Motor (Efferent) neurons transmit?\n\nTransmit nerve impulses away from the CNS, toward the effector organs such as the muscles, glands, and digestive organs.\n\nWhat are the major parts of the brain?\n\nThe cerebrum (associated with movement and sensory input), the cerebellum (responsible for muscular coordiation), and the medulla oblongata (controls many vital functions such as respiration and heart rate).\n\nWhat is the Spinal Cord?\n\nApproximately 18 inches long and extends from the base of the skull (foramen magnum) to the first or second lumbar veretebra (L1 or L2).\n\nHow many pairs of spinal nerves exit the spinal cord?\n\n\nWhat are Simple Spinal Reflexes?\n\nRelfexes in which nerve impulses travel through the spinal cord only and do not reach the brain.\n\nWhat are the different tracts to and from the brain of the Spinal Cord?\n\nAscending and descending tracts.\n\nWhere do Sensory impulses enter?\n\nThe dorsal horns of the spinal cord.\n\nWhere do Motor impulses leave?\n\nThe ventral horns of the spinal cord?\n\nWhat is the Endocrine system?\n\nAssists the nervous system in homeostasis and plays important roles in growth and sexual maturation.\n\nWhere do the Endocrine System and the Nervous system meet?\n\nThe hypothalamus and the pituitary gland.\n\nWhat governs the Pituitary Gland?\n\nThe hypothalamus.\n\nWhat is the Hypothalamus controlled by?\n\nThe feedback of hormones in the blood?\n\nWhat is the difference between the control of the Central Nervous System and the Endocrine System?\n\nThe endocrine system has long-lasting and widespread effects.\n\nWhat are Hormones?\n\nChemical messengers that control the growth, differentiation, and metabolism of specific target cells.\n\nWhat are the two major groups of hormones?\n\nSteroid hormones, and protein hormones.\n\nWhat are Steriod hormones?\n\nHormones that target the cells and have direct effect on the DNA of the nucleus.\n\nWhat are Protein hormones?\n\nHormones that remain at the cell surface and act through a second messenger; usually adenosine mono phosphate (AMP).\n\nHow do most hormones affect cell activity?\n\nBy altering the rate of protein synthesis.\n\nWhat is the pituitary gland?\n\nThe master gland, it is attached to the hypothalamus by a stalk called the infundibulum. It has two major portions: the anterior lobe (adenohypophysis) and the posterior lobe (neurohypophysis).\n\nWhat are the hormones of the adenohypophysis called?\n\nTropic hormones because they act mainly on other endocrine glands. i.e.; Somatotropin (STH) or growth hormone (GH), adenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), luteinizing hormone (LH).\n\nWhat do hormones released from the posterior lobe of the pituitary consist of?\n\nOxytocin (the labor hormone) and antidiuretic hormone (ADH).\n\nWhat are the other important endocrine glands?\n\nThyroid, parathyroid, adrenals, pancreas and the gonads (the ovaries and the testes).\n\nWhat does whole blood consist of?\n\n55% plasma and 45 % formed elements.\n\nWhat are formed elements?\n\nErythrocytes (Red Blood Cells), Leukocytes (White Blood Cells), and platelets.\n\nWhere are formed elements produced?\n\nProduced from stem cells in red bone marrow.\n\nWhat are Erythrocytes?\n\nModified formed elements that are used for transport of oxygen.\n\nWhat is oxygen bounded too?\n\nBounded to the pigmented protein hemoglobin.\n\nHow are the five types of leukocytes distinguished?\n\nBasis of size, appearance of the nucleus, staining properties, and presense or absense of visible cytoplasmic granules.\n\nWhat are WBC's active in?\n\nPhagocytosis (neutrophils and monocytes), and antibody formation (lymphcytes).\n\nWhat is the purpose of platelets?\n\nActive in the process of blood clotting.\n\nWhat does Blood serve for?\n\nTransportation of oxygen and nutrients to body cells and to carry away carbon dixoide and metabolic waste.\n\nWhat does Plasma contain?\n\nApproximately 10% proteins, ions, nutrients, waste products and hormones, which are dissolved or suspended in water.\n\nWhat is the heart?\n\nA double pump that sends blood to the lungs for oxygenation through the pulmonary circuit and to the remainder of the body through the systemic circult.\n\nWhere is blood recieved?\n\nThe atria.\n\nWhere is blood pumped into circulation by?\n\nThe ventricles.\n\nWhat are the valves between the atria and the ventricles?\n\nInclude the tricuspid on the right side of the heart and the bicuspid on the left.\n\nWhat are Semilunar valves?\n\nFound at the entrances of the pulmonary trunk and the aorta.\n\nHow is blood supplosed to the heart muscle (the myocardium)?\n\nThrough the coronary arterties.\n\nWhere does Blood drains from the myocardium directly into?\n\nRight atrium through the coronary sinus.\n\nWhat is the hearts intrinsic beat initiated by?\n\nThe sinoatrial node and transmitted along a conduction system through the myocardium.\n\nWhat does the ECG measure?\n\nThe wave of electrical activity of the intrinsic beat that in initiated by the sinoatrial node and transmitted along a conuction system through the myocardium.\n\nWhat is the cardiac cycle?\n\n\nWhat is the contraction phase of the cardiac cycle?\n\n\nWhat is the relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle?\n\n\nWhat does the Vascular system include?\n\nArteries that carry blood away from the heart, veins that carry blood toward the heart, and the microscopic vessesl (the capillaries) through which exchanges take place betwen the blood and the cells of the body.\n\nWhere do the systemic arteries begin?\n\nThe aorta, which sends branches to all parts of the body.\n\nWhat happens to arteries as they get farther away from the heart?\n\nThey become thinner and thinner.\n\nWhat are the smallest arteries called?\n\n\nWhat is the Superior and Inferior Vena Cavae?\n\nLarge veins that empty into the right atrium of the heart.\n\nWhat is the structure of artery walls?\n\nThick and elastic. They carry blood under high pressure.\n\nWhat do Vasoconstriction and vasodilation result from?\n\nContraction and relaxation of smooth muscle in the arterial walls.\n\nWhat do Vasoconstriction and vasodilation influence?\n\nBlood pressure and blood distribution to the tissues.\n\nWhat is the structure of veins walls?\n\nThinner and less elastic then those of the arteries, they carry blood under lower pressure.\n\nWhat are Mechanisms that draw venous blood back to the heart?\n\nPressure of skeletal muscle on the veines, expansion of the chest in breathing, and valves in the veins of the legs that keep blood moving in a forward direction.\n\nWhat are the components of the Respiratory System?\n\nThe nose, phayrnx, larynx, trachae, bronchi, lungs with their alveoli, diaphragm and muscles surrounding the ribs.\n\nWhat is Respiration controllded by?\n\nThe respiratory control center in the medulla of the brain.\n\nWhat does the Respiratory System do?\n\nOxygen to the body and elimantes carbon dioxide.\n\nWhat is External Respiration?\n\nRefers to the exchange of gases between the atmosphere and the blood through the alveoli.\n\nWhat is Internal Respiration?\n\nRefers to the exchange of gases between the blood and the body cells.\n\nWhat do the passageways between the nasal cavity and the alveoli serve as?\n\nConduction of gases to and from the lungs. Also to warm, filter, and moisten upcoming air.\n\nWhat are the upper respiratory tubules lined with?\n\nCilia that help to trap debris and keep foreign substances from entering the lungs.\n\nWhat does Inhalation require?\n\nContraction of the diaphragm to enlarge the chest cavity and draw air into the lungs.\n\nWhat is Exhalation?\n\nA passive process during which the lungs recoil as the respiratory muscles relax and the horax decreases in size.\n\nWhen is oxygen released from hemoglobin?\n\nWhen the concentration of oxygen drops in the tissues.\n\nWhat is carbon dioxide converted to?\n\nBicarbonate ion by carbonic anhydrase within red blood cells. This also release hydrogen ions, Co2 remains as a regulator of blood pH.\n\nWhat does the ailentary canal consist of?\n\n\nSee More\n\nPlease allow access to your computer\u2019s microphone to use Voice Recording.\n\nHaving trouble? 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__label__positive Child Psych 1st test vocab\n\nHome > Preview\n\nThe flashcards below were created by user medic11 on FreezingBlue Flashcards.\n\n 1. Fetal Alcohol Syndrome\n Mental retardation, slow growth & facial abnormalities caused by alcohol consumption during pregnancy\n 2. Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorder\n Range of physical, mental & behavioral outcomes caused by prenatal alcohol exposure\n 3. Embryo\n Prenatal organism fr. 2-8 wks aft conception\n 4. Amnion\n Membrane that encloses the developing organism in amniotic fluid\n 5. Alcohol Related Neurodevelopmental Disorder\n Least severe FAS disorder causing brain inj but w/normal physical growth& absence of facial abnormalities\n 6. Age of Viability\n Age @ which a fetus can survive if born early\n 7. Teratogen\n Any environmental agent that causes damage during prenatal period\n 8. Developmental Science\n All changes we experience during our life span\n 9. Microsystem\n Bronfenbrenner's innermost level of environment that includes activities & interaction patterns in immediate surroundings\n 10. Mesosystem\n Bronfenbrenner's 2nd level of environment that encompasses connections between microsystems; home, school, neighborhood etc\n 11. Describe Sociocultural Theory\n The ways that culture of a social grp is transmitted fr generation to generation\n 12. Independent Variable\n One that an investigator expects to cause change in another variable\n 13. Describe an Environmental Design\n Design that permits inferences about cause & effect b/c researchers use an evenhanded procedure to assign ppl 2 or more tx conds\n 14. What is a structured observation?\n One where an investigator sets up a lab situation to evoke certain behavior so each participant has = opportunity to display a response\n 15. Describe a Naturalistic Observation.\n Observing behavior of interest in the field or natural environment\n 16. What is Bronfenbrenner's Macrosystem?\n Outermost level of environment & includes culture, values, laws, customs & resources\n 17. Describe Bronfenbrenner's exosystem.\n These are social settings that dont contain children but affect childrens experiences in immediate settings\n 18. What is plasticity?\n Ability for development to be open to change in response to influential experiences\n 19. What are contexts?\n Unique combinations of environmental & personal circumstances resulting in different paths of change\n 20. What is the fetus?\n A prenatal organism fr 9th wk to end of pregnancy\n 21. Describe implantation.\n Time when blastocyst burrows deep into uterine lining\n 22. Describe Partial Fetal Alcohol Sndrome.\n FAS disorder characterized by facial abnormalities & brain inj caused by consumption of sm amts of alcohol during pregnancy\n 23. What is the placenta?\n Structure that separates mother's bloodstream fr that of fetus while permitting exchange of nutrients & waste\n 24. What are trimesters?\n 3 equal periods in prenatal period\n 25. The umbilical card is. . . .\n The link between the prenatal organism & the placenta\n 26. A dependent variable is one that . . . .\n the investigator expects to be influenced by an independent variable\n 27. Describe random assignment.\n Unbiased procedure used to choose participants that increases chances that characteristics will be equally distributed across tx grp\n 28. A longitudinal design is one that. . . .\n participants are studied as they age & changes are noted\n 29. Childhood development is an area devoted to what?\n Understanding constancy & change fr conception thru adolescence\n 30. Behavior Modification is described as what?\n Procedures that combine conditioning & modeling t eliminate undesirable behaviors & increase desirable ones\n 31. What is mutation?\n A sudden permanent change to DNA\n 32. Genetic counseling . . . .\n Helps couples to assess their chances of giving birth to a baby with a heredity disorder & choose the best course of action\n 33. What are prenatal diagnostic methods?\n Medical procedures that permit detection of developmental problems b/f birth\n 34. What is coparenting?\n Mutually supporting each others parenting behaviors\n 35. What is Socioeconomic Status & 3 variables that determine it?\n Combined factors that help determine social position & economic well being. Determined by (1) Yrs of education (2) job prestige & skill requirements (3) Income\n 36. An extended family household is one that . . . .\n parents & children live with one or more adult relatives\n 37. What are fetal monitors?\n Electronic instruments that track fetal HR during labor\n 38. Describe induced labor.\n Labor is started artificially by breaking the amnion & admin oxytocin to stim contractions\n 39. What is a cesarian delivery?\n Surgical birth of a child\n 40. Describe Breech Position.\n When a fetus is presenting with feet or buttocks 1st.\n 41. What is a theory?\n An orderly, integrated set of statements that describes, explains & predicts behavior\n 42. What are cohort effects?\n A threat to accuracy in longitudinal findings caused by cultural/historical change\n 43. Describe behaviorism.\n Directly observable events - stimuli & responses\n 44. What does Maturation refer to?\n A genetically determined, naturally unfolding course of growth\n 45. Erikson's psychosocial theory states that. . . .\n In addition to mediating between Id impulses & superego demands, Ego makes positive contributions to development\n 46. Freud's psychosexual Theory say that. . . .\n The way parents manage their child's sexual & aggressive drives in 1st few yrs is crucial for healthy personality development\n 47. The psychoanalytic perspective says that. . . .\n Children move through a series of stages in which they confront conflicts between biological drives & social expectations. How they resolved determines persons ability to learn, get along w/others & cope w/anxiety\n 48. The social learning theory recognizes that . . .\n Children acquire skills by modeling, observing & imitating others\n 49. Information Processing is what?\n A view of human mind that ses it as a symbol manipulating system through which info flows\n 50. What is DNA?\n The chem substance that makes up chromosomes\n 51. A gene is . . . .\n Segment of DNA along the length of the chromosome\n 52. Gametes are what?\n Sex cells - sperm & ovum\n 53. Meiosis is the process of what?\n Cell division that forms gametes or sex cells\n 54. Resilience is described as what?\n Ability to adapt effectively in face of threats to development\n 55. What is mitosis?\n Process of DNA duplicating itself\n 56. A zygote is a . . . .\n cell that results when a sperm & ovum unite\n 57. Sex chromosomes are which ones?\n The 23rd pair. Males = XY Females = XX\n 58. A phenotypes is what?\n A directly observable characteristic of an individual\n 59. Kinship Studies are those that. . .\n Compare characteristics of family members in order to obtain heritability estimates\n 60. Public policies are . . .\n Laws & govt programs designed to improve current conditions\n 61. A stage is described as what?\n qualitative changes in thinking, feeling & behaving that characterize specific periods of development\n 62. An allele is . . . .\n One gene fr mother & one fr father that occur on the same place on a chromosome\n 63. Fraternal or dizygotic twins are described as what?\n 2 infants resulting fr the release & fertilization of 2 ova but are genetically NOT alike\n 64. Homozygous occurs when?\n Alleles fr both parents are alike & the child will display the inherited trait\n 65. Heterozygous occurs when?\n Alleles fr each parent are different\n 66. Continuous development is described as what?\n Process of gradually adding more of the same types of skills that were there to begin with\n 67. Identical or monozygotic twins occur when?\n A zygote separates into 2 clusters of cells that develop into 2 individuals w/same genetic make up\n 68. Autosomes are what?\n 23 matching pairs of chromosomes which geneticists number fr longest to shortest\n 69. A genotype is what?\n A complex blend of genetic info that determines our species & influences all our unique characteristics\n 70. Chromosomes are . . . .\n Rod like substances that store & transmit genetic info\n 71. X-linked inheritance applies when?\n A harmful allele is carried on the X chromosome. Males a more likely to be affected.\n 72. Describe dominant - recessive inheritance.\n Occurs when only 1 allele affects a childs characteristics\n 73. A carrier is a . . . .\n heterozygous individual w/1 recessive allele that they can pass on to their children\n 74. Natural or prepared child birth is one that utilizes . . .\n A grp of techniques aimed @ reducing pain & medical intervention & makes child birth as rewarding as possible\n 75. The APGAR scale is a way of. . .\n Assessing a newborn's condition quickly\n 76. A transition in labor occurs when?\n At climax of stage 1 when frequency & strength of contractions are @ their peak & cervix opens completely\n 77. Discontinuous development is what?\n Development process in which new ways of understanding & responding to the world emerge @ specific times\n 78. A clinical interview is described as what?\n A flexible, conversational style used to probe participants for their POV\n 79. The clinical or case study method is described as a. . . .\n Method for brining together a wide range of info on one child to include interviews, observation &/or test scores\n 80. Cognitive - developmental theory says that. . . .\n Children actively construct knowledge as they manipulate & explore their worlds\n 81. A sensitive period is one that is. . . .\n Biologically optimal for certain capacities to emerge b/c individual is especially responsive to environmental influences\n 82. Developmental cognitive neuroscience is described as . . .\n Info processing research that brings together researchers fr psychology, biology, neuroscience & medicine to study relationship between changes in brain & developing childs cognitive processing & behavior patterns\n 83. Visual acuity is what?\n Fineness of discrimination\n 84. SIDS is described as the . . . .\n Unexpected death of an infant <1 yr of age\n 85. Rapid eye mvmt sleep is defined as?\n Sleep state when brain wave activity is very similar to that of the waking state\n 86. States of arousal are defined as?\n Degrees of sleep or wakefulness\n 87. A reflex is an . . . .\n Inborn, automatic response to a particular form of stimulation\n 88. Bonding is the development of what?\n Feelings of affection & concern for an infant\n 89. Neonatal Mortality is the . . . .\n Rate of death within the 1st month of life\n 90. Nature vs nurture controversy is an age old argument that what?\n Questions whether genetic or environmental factors are more important in influencing development\n 91. Infant mortality is described as what?\n Number of deaths in 1st year of life/1000 live births\n 92. A small-for-date child is described as one that . . .\n Is below expected weight considering length of pregnancy\n 93. Anoxia defined as what?\n Inadequate O2 supply\n\nCard Set Information\n\nChild Psych 1st test vocab\n2011-09-29 11:37:04\nChild Psych\n\nVocab for 1st test\nShow\u00a0Answers:\n\nWhat would you like to do?\n\nHome > Flashcards > Print Preview |
__label__positive Section 5:DNA and Traits - part b\n\nS4.C2.PO(1-4) S2.C1.PO(1-4) C2.PO(1-4) S3.C2.PO(3)\n\nthe study of the traits of organisms.\n\nclick to find the answer to today's question What is a gene pool?\n\nSexual reproduction involves the combining of a sperm cell and an egg cell from two individuals. The offspring of this \"cross\" will have characteristics from both \"parents\". Organisms that are produced by crossing individuals with different traits are known as hybrids. In most cases, hybrid organisms are more successful than those that are produced from a very limited gene pool. This is sometimes called hybrid vigor. While gene sharing is well understood today, before Gregor Mendel the process was a mystery. Homeboy Mendel\n\nGregor Mendel link to an Internet Website is known as the father of modern genetics. Mendel's genius was that he noticed differences in peas being grown in his gardenlink to a local picture and applied the scientific method to determine the cause of these differences. He published a paper in 1865 with these three conclusions to his research:\n\nAt the time, chromosomes and the process of meiosis were unknown. Mendel's work was considered obscure and unimportant until 1900, when Walter Sutton proposed the Chromosome Theory.\n\nImportant genetic terms:\n\nGenotype - the genetic makeup of an organism.\nPhenotype - the external appearance of an organism.\nHomozygous trait - the genes for that trait are the same.\nHeterozygous trait - the genes for that trait are not the same.\nMonohybrid cross - a cross between individuals with one pair of contrasting genes.\nDihybrid cross - a cross between individuals with two pairs of contrasting genes.\nParents - the two organisms whose genes produce offspring.\nF1 generation - the offspring from parents.\nF2 generation - the offspring produced by crossing two F1 individuals.\n\nGene - A discrete unit of heredity information consisting of a specific nucleotide sequence of DNA carried on chromosomes.\n\nAllele - An alternative forma of a gene. (Stem length:\u00a0 T = tall stem\u00a0\u00a0 t = short stem)\n\nCodominant - both alleles are expressed in heterozygous individuals (AB blood type).\n\nComplete dominance - the dominant allele has the same phenotypic effect whether present in one or two copies\n\nIncomplete dominance - a phenotype of a heterozygous individual (Aa) is intermediate between the phenotype of the two types of homozygous individuals (AA, aa). (does not blend)\n\nSex linked gene - A gene located on either sex chromosome.\n\n\n\nTo understand genetics, one must understand probabilities.\n\nRandom events and probability The traits that are passed from parents to offspring are determined by the combination of genes that are in the gametes. This is a random event in nature. The probability of a particular event occurring is the fraction of outcomes in which that event occurs.\n\nWhat is the probability of the number 5 coming up when a dice is rolled?\n\nWhat is the probability of rolling an even number with a dice?\n\nWhat is the probability of cutting an ace from a deck of shuffled cards?\n\nIntroduction to Punnett Squares:\n\nA Punnett Square is a chart drawn to determine the probable results of a genetic cross. To be able to draw a Punnett Square, you must know the genotype of both parents.\n\nSample Problem 1. \u00a0 In roses, red flowers are dominant over white flowers. What are the possible offspring when a homozygous red rose is crossed with a homozygous white rose.\n\nNine steps are needed to solve problem 1:\n\nWrite genotype for each parent.\n \u2022 Use a capital case letter of the dominant trait to represent a dominant gene.\n \u2022 R - for the dominant trait red.\n \u2022 Use a small case letter of the dominant trait to represent a recessive gene.\n \u2022 r - for the recessive white.\n \u2022 If no dominant trait is present, use a small letter of each trait.\n \u2022 Both parents are homozygous in the sample problem. The genotypes for the cross are -\n RR X rr\nWrite the possible gametes of one parent across the top.\n\nWrite the possible gametes of the other parent down the side.\n\nDraw the lines of your Punnett Square. This is the first time you know how many squares are inside the Punnett Square.\n\nCombine the gametes from each parent in the squares. Always write capital letters first.\n\nCount the number of each possible combination present in your Punnett Square. These are the offspring genotypes.\n4 \u00a0 R r\nThe phenotypes are the way the offspring appear.\n4 \u00a0 red\nSince the genes are not the same,\nthis trait is heterozygous.\nDivide the number of each combination type by the total combinations.\n\nYou now have the probability ratio for the offspring of the parents.\n\n4 / 4\n\nFour out of Four, or all (100%), of the offspring will be heterozygous red,\nR r\n\nSample Problem 2. \u00a0 Draw a Punnett Square showing the possibilities when two of the Rr offspring above are crossed. \u00a0\n\nWhat genotypes are predicted by this square? \u00a0\n\nWhat phenotypes are predicted by this square? \u00a0\n\nSample Problem 3. \u00a0 In carnations, neither red nor white is dominant. What are the possible results when two pink carnations are crossed?\n\nSince neither trait is dominant, no capital letters are used in the Punnett Square. Use the first letter of each trait to indicate that gene in the square. \u00a0\n\nAssignment 1.5b - DNA and Traits\nScoring criteria\nlink to a local webpage\n\nPart 1: History of Genetics\n\n 1. Why is Gregor Mendel considered the father of genetics?\n 2. View this video on Mendel and Classical Genetics\u00a0 \u00a0\u00a0 in order to answer the following video questions.\n 1. Describe two rejected hypothesis about heredity and why they were rejected?\n 2. How did Mendel figure out that blending was not responsible for pink flower offspring of red and white flowers?\n 3. Draw a diagram describing and defining the term allele.\n 4. Explain how alleles are related to the terms homozygous and heterozygous?\n 5. What is the relationship between phenotype and genotype?\n 6. Explain how probability is part of genetics?\n 7. How does the canary breeder get reds into the genetics of canaries?\n 8. Why are test crosses important in genetics?\n 9. What lead to Mendel's discovery of the principles of inheritance?\n 3. Visit this site link to an Internet Website and explore inheritance patterns just as Gregory Mendel did. Complete the first four sections recording all data and questions on paperlink to a local webpage for each of these sections.\n 1. Pure breeding\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\n 2. Do Traits Blend\n 3. Patterns of Inheritance\n\n\nPart 2: Probability and The Punnett Square\n\n 1. Explain how probability can be used to predict the outcome of a random event?\n 2. What is needed to construct a Punnett square?\n 3. Explain why a Punnett square would be used?\n 4. What does a capital letter represent in a Punnett Square?\n 5. When you see a Punnett Square with no capital letters in it, what do you know about the traits represented in the square?\n 6. Explain the difference between an organisms genotype and phenotype.\n 7. Is the offspring used in sample question 2 above heterozygous or homozygous for the trait?\n 8. Complete the above sample Punnett square problems (in green boxes, problems 1,2, 3) here. Include the genotype and phenotype percentages for the f1 generation.\n\nPart 3: Practice monohybrid crosses (show all Punnett square work)\n\n 1. Let's say that in seals, the gene for the length of the whiskers has two alleles.\u00a0 The dominant allele (W) codes for long whiskers & the recessive allele (w) codes for short whiskers.\n\n a)\u00a0 What percentage of offspring would be expected to have short whiskers from the cross of two\n\n \u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 long-whiskered seals, one that is homozygous dominant and one that is heterozygous?\n b)\u00a0 If one parent seal is pure long-whiskered and the other is short-whiskered, what percent of\n\n \u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 offspring would have short whiskers?\n\n\n 2. In chimpanzees, straight fingers are dominant to bent fingers. Complete a Punnett square to show the genotypes and phenotypes expected for the following cross: heterozygous straight x homozygous bent.\n\n\nHonors biology:\n\n 1. Use this link to visit the University of Arizona's\u00a0 link to an Internet Website The Biology project Monohybrid Cross problem set. Read the directions at the site carefully and complete questions 1-8. Copy each of the questions along with the work you did to get your answers on a sheet of paper or in this assignment.\n\n\nResearch Links:\n\n\n\nBiology Class Nucleic Acid Page\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\nA gene pool refers to all the genes that can be shared by reproduction within a population. |
__label__positive VMware 2V0-622PSE Exam Review Questions \u2013 Updated 2017\n\nVMware Certified Professional 6.5 \u2013 Data Center Virtualization PSE certification as a profession has an incredible evolution over the last few years. VMware 2V0-622PSE Data Center Virtualization PSE exam is the forerunner in validating credentials against . Here are updated VMware 2V0-622PSE exam questions, which will help you to test the quality features of DumpsSchool exam preparation material completely free. You can purchase the full product once you are satisfied with the product.\n\nVersion: 8.0\nQuestion: 1\n\nWhat color indicates that the Liquid Contact Indicators inside a MacBook Pro (13-inch, Mid 2012, have been triggered?\n\nA. Red\nB. Blue\nC. White\nD. Yellow\n\nAnswer: A\n\nQuestion: 2\n\nWhat is the likely cause of an iMac (21.5-inch, Late 2013) producing a single error tone at startup that repeats every five seconds?\n\nA. The unit does not have RAM or RAM is not installed properly.\nB. The logicboard has failed and must be replaced.\nC. The RAM does not pass data integrity tests.\nD. The hard drive has failed S.M.A.R.T. status.\n\nAnswer: A\n\nQuestion: 3\n\nApple recommends a DIMM installation scheme for the Mac Pro (Late 2013) that:\n\nA. Increases processing power\nB. Enhances graphics processing\nC. Optimizes system cooling\nD. Enables use of special memory module\n\nAnswer: D\n\nQuestion: 4\n\nYou must know the AppleCare name of an Intel iMac before performing which of the following actions?\n\nA. Starting upfrom OS X Recovery HD\nB. Running Mac Resource Inspector.\nC. Replacing the logic board\nD. Resetting the NVRAM.\n\nAnswer: C\n\nQuestion: 5\n\nWhich of the following could indicate accidental damage when inspecting the inside of a Mac mini (Late 2012) before a repair?\n\nA. Light dust in the fans\nB. Third-party RAM installed\nC. Lint gathered near the rear vents\nD. Oxidation or discoloration of the logic board\n\nAnswer: D\n\nQuestion: 6\n\nWhich of the following is a valid electrical safety precaution when working on a computer or display with exposed, potentially energized parts?\n\nA. Use only metal screw drivers or fingers as needed to connect or disconnect cables.\nB. Always wear an ESD wrist or heel strap when working on plugged in systems.\nC. Be very careful handling the logic board or power supply while the computer is plugged in.\nD. Remove rings, watches, necklaces, metal-rimmed eyewear and other metallic articles before workingon the computer.\n\nAnswer: D\n\nClick Here to Get All VMware 2V0-622PSE Exam Questions: |
__label__positive 8th Physics Review 3 Week Assessment: Question Preview (ID: 16558)\n\nBelow is a preview of the questions contained within the game titled 8TH PHYSICS REVIEW 3 WEEK ASSESSMENT: 3 Week Assessment Review .To play games using this data set, follow the directions below. Good luck and have fun. Enjoy! [print these questions]\n\n\nAll elements in the same group have--\na) The same atomic number. b) the same atomic mass. c) the same color. d) similar chemical properties.\nIn a chemical reaction between (KSO4) and (CaCl2) which element cannot be on the PRODUCT side?\na) K b) S c) Fe d) Cl\nProtons are found--\na) in the energy levels b) in the nucleus of an atom c) in the nucleus of a cell d) paired up with electrons in energy levels.\nThe unit used to measure force is--\na) Celsius b) Newton c) Gram d) Meters\n2H4O In this chemical formula, how many Hydrogen atoms are present?\na) 3 b) 8 c) 4 d) 2\nThe fastest train in the world moves at 500 km/hr. How far will it go in 2 hours?\na) 1200 km b) 900 km c) 250 km d) 1000 km\nA track is 400 m around. If it takes a person 200 seconds to run one lap, how fast did they run the lap?\na) 6 m/s b) 3 m/s c) 7 m/s d) 2 m/s\nForce is a--\na) push or pull b) unbalanced c) balanced d) All of the above\nVelocity is--\na) speed with acceleration b) speed with direction c) acceleration d) inertia\nWhich example is best describing friction?\na) A feather falling from the sky b) rolling a bowling ball c) a rocket taking off from earth d) rubbing your hands together to create heat\nWhich formula represents Newton's 2nd law of motion?\na) M= f/a b) s=d/t c) d= s x t d) f= m x a\nAccording to Newton's 1st law (inertia) an object will stay in motion unless a force acts on it. What type of force must act on the object to make it move?\na) Outside b) Unbalanced c) Balanced d) Heavy\nA basketball bouncing off the gym floor is an example of which law?\na) Newton's 1st law b) Newton's 2nd law c) Newton's 3rd Law d)\nWhen Sally went sky diving, she first jumped from the airplane, then released her parachute to slow her fall. Why does the parachute slow Sally's fall?\na) It decreases air resistance b) It increases air resistance c) it increases gravity d) It makes her lighter\nAccroding to the laws of motion, motion will only occur if the force is---\na) Balanced b) Strong c) weak d) Unbalanced\nWhich statement best describes Newton's 3rd law of motion?\na) F= m x a b) An object in motion will stay in motion unless acted on by an unbalanced force. c) s=d/t d) For every action there is an equal reaction.\nHow much force is needed to stop a bus moving 300 Newtons West.\na) 300 N South b) 300 N East c) 300 N West d) 300 N North\nSodium carbonate is used to soften water. Its formula is Na2CO3. Which element is not in the formula?\na) NA b) H c) C d) O\nWhat instrument is used to measure force?\na) Metric Ruler b) Triple beam balance c) Spring Scale d) Graduated Cylinder\nIf two teams are playing tug-o-war and Team A pulls with a force of 50 Newtons, and Team B pulls with a force of 70 Newtons, what will the outcome be?\na) The teams will not move because the force is balanced. b) The teams will move in the direction of the weaker force, with a force of 30 Newtons. c) The teams will move in the direction of the stronger force, with a force of 20 newtons. d) The people will move in the direction of the stronger force, with a force of 50 Newtons.\nPlay Games with the Questions above at ReviewGameZone.com\nTo play games using the questions from the data set above, visit ReviewGameZone.com and enter game ID number: 16558 in the upper right hand corner at ReviewGameZone.com or simply click on the link above this text.\n\nLog In\n| Sign Up / Register |
__label__positive I'm trying to find some mathematical docs about the complex (analytic signal) band pass filtering in discrete time. I've read some text already but most of them describes the problem in real time only.\n\nI would really appreciate some equations.\n\n\nI found this coefficients' computation equation for real signals:\n\n$$ w_{bp}(n) = \\begin{cases} \\displaystyle\\frac{\\sin\\left[2\\pi f_{t2}\\left(n-\\frac M2\\right)\\right]}{\\pi\\left(n-\\frac M2\\right)}-\\frac{\\sin\\left[2\\pi f_{t1}\\left(n-\\frac M2\\right)\\right]}{\\pi\\left(n-\\frac M2\\right)}, & \\text{if } n \\ne \\frac M2 \\\\[2ex] 2\\left(f_{t2} - f_{t1}\\right), & \\text{if } n = \\frac M2 \\end{cases} $$\n\nI know I have to specify the FIR filter order ($M$) which is approximately 4 / Normalised width of transition band. The application of the filer is a simple convolution of the coefficients computed by the equation above and real signal samples.\n\nNow what I need to know is how to achieve this in complex plain. I also found a similar thread here, which describes the low pass filter design.\n\nPS: I already have my complex $f_c = 5 \\textrm{ kHz}$ signal sampled at $f_s = 32\\textrm{ kHz}$ and I'm familiar with the complex plain problematics.\n\n \u2022 $\\begingroup$ Could you be a bit more concrete? What exactly do you want to know? You could post the relevant equations in continuous-time, and ask about their discrete-time equivalents. You could also look up \"discrete-time Hilbert transformer\". I think many people here could help you if you clarified your question a bit. $\\endgroup$ \u2013\u00a0Matt L. Jan 7 '16 at 21:50\n \u2022 $\\begingroup$ @MattL. Thanks, i just did some update of the question. $\\endgroup$ \u2013\u00a0r.a.m- Jan 7 '16 at 22:14\n \u2022 $\\begingroup$ Solution: I used a GNU radio implementation of FIR filter designer class, which can be found here > github.com/gnuradio/gnuradio/blob/\u2026 $\\endgroup$ \u2013\u00a0r.a.m- Mar 6 '16 at 18:47\n\nTake a (real-valued) low pass filter with impulse response $h_{LP}[n]$ and with cut-off frequency $(f_2-f_1)/2$, where $f_1$ and $f_2$ are the lower and upper band edges of the desired band pass filter. Define a center frequency $f_0=(f_1+f_2)/2$. Then a real-valued band pass filter is obtained by\n\n$$h_{BP}[n]=2h_{LP}[n]\\cos(2\\pi f_0n)\\tag{1}$$\n\nDepending on the design of the low pass filter, the filter in $(1)$ can be identical to the one in your question.\n\nIf you want a complex-valued band pass filter with a pass band at positive frequencies (but not at negative frequencies), you simply have to modulate the low pass impulse response $h_{LP}[n]$ by a complex exponential instead of by a cosine:\n\n$$h^c_{BP}=h_{LP}[n]e^{j2\\pi f_0n}\\tag{2}$$\n\n\nperhaps the equation you need is the real-valued impulse response of, what is in the frequency domain, a one-sided BPF that is pushed up to $f_c$ (i think what Matt is calling \"$f_0$\").\n\ni think more generally it is\n\n$$ h[n] = h_\\text{re}[n] \\cos(\\omega_c n) - h_\\text{im}[n] \\sin(\\omega_c n) $$\n\n\n$$ h_\\text{im}[n] = \\mathcal{H} \\left\\{ h_\\text{re}[n] \\right\\} $$\n\nso whatever is the frequency response of $h_\\text{re}[n]$, the positive-frequency half of that frequency response is slide up from its left edge being at 0 (or $\\omega=0$) to its left edge being at $\\omega_c$.\n\n \u2022 $\\begingroup$ But your filter $h[n]$ is real-valued, so it can't be a \"one-sided BPF\", but its frequency response is (conjugate) symmetrical. Am I missing something? $\\endgroup$ \u2013\u00a0Matt L. Jan 7 '16 at 23:27\n \u2022 $\\begingroup$ Now I see what you mean. If $h_L[n]=h_{re}[n]+jh_{im}[n]$ is an analytic low pass filter, where $h_{im}[n]$ is the Hilbert transform of $h_{re}[n]$, then the complex-valued one-sided BPF is $$h[n]=h_L[n]e^{jn\\omega_c}=(h_{re}[n]\\cos(n\\omega_c)-h_{im}[n]\\sin(n\\omega_c))+j(h_{im}[n]\\cos(n\\omega_c)+h_{re}\\sin(n\\omega_c))$$. $\\omega_c$ is the lower band edge of the analytic BPF. In my answer, $f_0$ is the center frequency of the BPF. $\\endgroup$ \u2013\u00a0Matt L. Jan 7 '16 at 23:37\n \u2022 $\\begingroup$ your $f_0$ is the amount of frequency that the $H_{LP}(f)$ is translated. \"center\" is a more difficult thing to define if there happens to be no line of symmetry to base it on. but the amount something is translated is an fully objective thing to define. $\\endgroup$ \u2013\u00a0robert bristow-johnson Jan 8 '16 at 3:43\n\nYour Answer\n\n |
__label__positive Tuesday, October 25, 2011\n\n\n1. Which of the following pairs does not match ?\n(A) Trans Siberian Railway\u2014Moscow to Vladivostok\n(B) Canadian Pacific Railway\u2014Halifax to Vancouver\n(C) Orient Express Railway\u2014Paris to Istanbul\n(D) Cape Cairo Railway\u2014Warsaw to Madrid\n\n2. Which is the largest canal of the world ?\n(A) Suez canal\n(B) Panama canal\n(C) Kra canal\n(D) Bhakra canal\n\n3. Which of the following are connected by Suez canal ?\n(A) Red Sea and Dead Sea\n(B) Red Sea and Arabian Sea\n(C) Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea\n(D) Red Sea and Black Sea\n\n4. Which of the following ports is not situated at Pacific coast ?\n(A) Vancouver\n(B) Los Angeles\n(C) San Francisco\n(D) Miami\n\n5. Which of the following airports is not situated at New York-Tokyo air route ?\n(A) London\n(B) Paris\n(C) Rome\n(D) Panama\n\n6. Which of the following occupations is not related to tertiary economy ?\n(A) Transport\n(B) Hunting and gathering\n(C) Trade\n(D) Communication\n\n7. In which region of the world are nights the winters ?\n(A) Tundra region\n(B) Mediterranean region\n(C) Tropical desert region\n(D) Equatorial region\n\n8. Which of the following is not the most developed part of the world ?\n(A) Most of the Western Europe\n(B) Japan\n(C) Nepal\n(D) South-East Australia\n\n9. The school of Environmental Determinism was born in\u2014\n(A) Germany\n(B) India\n(C) England\n(D) France\n\n10. Who was the father of the school of possibilism ?\n(A) Davis\n(B) Chisolm\n(C) Vidal-de-la-Blache\n(D) Aristotle\n\n11. Which of the following is secondary consumer ?\n(A) Goat\n(B) Lion\n(C) Reindeer\n(D) None of these\n\n12. How much is the area of India ?\n(A) 32,87,263 sq. km\n(B) 99,76,140 sq. km\n(C) 95,97,000 sq. km\n(D) 31,40,200 sq. km\n\n13. Which is the southern-most point of India ?\n(A) Kanyakumari\n(B) Goa\n(C) Indira point\n(D) Rameshwaram\n\n14. From economic point of view, the most important rocks are\u2014\n(A) Dharwar\n(B) Gondwana\n(C) Vindhyan\n(D) Cuddapah\n\n15. The stretch of the Himalayas between the Indus and the Sutlej rivers is called\u2014\n(A) The Assam Himalayas\n(B) The Punjab Himalayas\n(C) The Nepal Himalayas\n(D) The Kumaon Himalayas\n\n16. The flood plain along river banks formed by newer alluvium is called\u2014\n(A) Bhabar\n(B) Khadar\n(C) Tarai\n(D) Bangar\n\n17. Which river is known as the 'Sorrow of Bihar' ?\n(A) Kosi\n(B) Chambal\n(C) Gandak\n(D) Son\n\n18. In which state are the Mahadeo hills located ?\n(A) Bihar\n(B) Rajasthan\n(C) Madhya Pradesh\n(D) Chhattisgarh\n\n19. The 'Kalabaisakhis' originate during\u2014\n(A) Winter season\n(B) Rainy season\n(C) Period of retreating monsoon\n(D) Summers\n\n20. What type of forests are the 'Sunderbans' ?\n(A) Tidal forests\n(B) Monsoon forests\n(C) Tropical Evergreen forests\n(D) Temperate Evergreen forests\n\n21. The 'Regur' soil is\u2014\n(A) Red soil\n(B) Black soil\n(C) Alluvial soil\n(D) None of these\n\n22. Which river basin has the maximum amount of water available for irrigation ?\n(A) The Ganga\n(B) The Indus\n(C) The Brahmaputra\n(D) Mahanadi\n\n23. Which state of India is the largest producer of Iron ore ?\n(A) Karnataka\n(B) Orissa\n(C) Jharkhand\n(D) Madhya Pradesh\n\n24. Which mineral is known as 'Black Gold' ?\n(A) Iron ore\n(B) Bauxite\n(C) Coal\n(D) Manganese\n\n25. Which food grain occupies the largest cropped area in India ?\n(A) Maize\n(B) Wheat\n(C) Rice\n(D) Sugarcane\n\n26. Which of the following states is the largest producer of wheat ?\n(A) Punjab\n(B) Uttar Pradesh\n(C) Haryana\n(D) Madhya Pradesh\n\n27. The leading jowar (Sorghum) producing state in India is\u2014\n(A) Maharashtra\n(B) Andhra Pradesh\n(C) Karnataka\n(D) Bihar\n\n28. Which of the following is a cash crop ?\n(A) Rice\n(B) Wheat\n(C) Jowar\n(D) Sugarcane\n\n29. Which of the following is a fibre crop ?\n(A) Sugarcane\n(B) Jute\n(C) Wheat\n(D) Maize\n\n30. Which of the following states is the leading producer of sugarcane in India ?\n(A) Uttar Pradesh\n(B) Madhya Pradesh\n(C) Punjab\n(D) Bihar\n\n31. Which Indian state has the highest per hectare production of cotton ?\n(A) Haryana\n(B) Maharashtra\n(C) Tamil Nadu\n(D) Punjab\n\n32. Which state is the largest producer of tea in India ?\n(A) Assam\n(B) West Bengal\n(C) Kerala\n(D) Karnataka\n\n33. Which of the following is a basis to divide agriculture into different types ?\n(A) Cropping system\n(B) Water supply and moisture\n(C) Availability of land\n(D) All of these\n\n34. In India, the local name of shifting cultivation is\u2014\n(A) Jhum\n(B) Kumari\n(C) Penda\n(D) All of these\n\n35. Which city of Madhya Pradesh, as per census of 2001, is most populated ?\n(A) Jabalpur\n(B) Mandsaur\n(C) Bhopal\n(D) Indore\n\n36. What is the problem faced by Indian farmers ?\n(A) Small and fragmented land holdings\n(B) Lack of capital\n(C) Faulty marketing system\n(D) All of the above\n\n37. Which of the following is not a merit of green revolution ?\n(A) Increase in agricultural production\n(B) Reduction in the import of food grains\n(C) Prosperity of the farmers\n(D) Regional imbalance\n\n38. What is National Water Grid Plan ?\n(A) To link the Himalayan rivers with peninsular rivers\n(B) To link east and west flowing rivers of the peninsular\n(C) To link the rivers of India with the rivers of Pakistan\n(D) None of the above\n\n39. Which of the following is called the 'Cottonopolis' of India ?\n(A) Kanpur\n(B) Agra\n(C) Mumbai\n(D) Ahmedabad\n\n40. After crushing the sugarcane, the left over baggasse is used as :\n(A) Fuel\n(B) Mixed with jaggery ('gur')\n(C) Mixed in sugar\n(D) None of the above\n\n41. Which of the following raw materials is needed for the manufacturing of cement ?\n(A) Limestone\n(B) Sea shells\n(C) Slag from steel plant\n(D) All of the above\n\n42. Which of the following cement plants is located in Madhya Pradesh ?\n(A) Satna\n(B) Durg\n(C) Narnaul\n(D) None of these\n\n43. Which of the following factors is responsible for regional disparities in India ?\n(A) Regional variations in relief\n(B) High incoherence of temperature in different parts of India\n(C) Regional variations in the availability of minerals\n(D) All of the above\n\n44. Which of the following is not an area of the highest agricultural productivity ?\n(A) Punjab\n(B) Haryana\n(C) Madhya Pradesh\n(D) Western Uttar Pradesh\n\n45. Who used the method of ranking coefficient for the first time in India in order to calculate agricultural productivity ?\n(A) Prof. Mohammed Shafi\n(B) Prof. Jasbir Singh\n(C) Prof. M.G. Kendall\n(D) Prof. Dudley Stamp\n\n46. Which of the following is a method to eradicate poverty ?\n(A) More investment in productive activities\n(B) Increased savings\n(C) Population control\n(D) All of the above\n\n47. Which is the period of rapid growth of India's population ?\n(A) 1901\u20131921\n(B) 1921\u20131951\n(C) 1951\u20131981\n(D) 1981\u20132001\n\n48. Which of the following is an effect of globalization on India ?\n(A) Increase in foreign trade\n(B) Increase in the number of foreign banks\n(C) Direct foreign investment\n(D) All of the above\n\n49. Which of the following is a result of 'Green House Effect' ?\n(A) Rise in temperature\n(B) Industrial development\n(C) Population growth\n(D) None of these\n\n50. Which disease is not caused by drinking polluted water ?\n(A) Cholera\n(B) Diarrhoea\n(C) Jaundice\n\n51. Which of the following states of India has the highest sex ratio ?\n(A) Chhattisgarh\n(B) Kerala\n(C) Tamil Nadu\n(D) Nagaland\n\n52. Which one of the following Indian cities has population more than 50 lakh, as per the census of 2001 ?\n(A) Rajkot\n(B) Ludhiana\n(C) Jaipur\n(D) Hyderabad\n\n53. Which of the following states does not have common boundary with Madhya Pradesh ?\n(A) Gujarat\n(B) Rajasthan\n(C) Jharkhand\n(D) Bihar\n\n54. Which of the following landforms is not found in Madhya Pradesh ?\n(A) Betul Plateau\n(B) Pulicat Lake\n(C) Bharner Mountain Range\n(D) Kaimur Hills\n\n55. The 'Bad land' landform is found in\u2014\n(A) Thar desert\n(B) Chambal valley\n(C) Sundarban delta\n(D) Gulf of Kachchh\n\n56. Which state of India is the largest producer of diamond ?\n(A) Madhya Pradesh\n(B) Chhattisgarh\n(C) Jharkhand\n(D) Rajasthan\n\n57. Which of the following pairs is not correct ?\n(A) Assam\u2014Magh Bihu\n(B) Haryana\u2014Tea Festival\n(C) Punjab\u2014Hola Mohalla\n(D) Madhya Pradesh\u2014Fair of Nagaji\n\n58. Which state is the only producer of tin in India ?\n(A) West Bengal\n(B) Jammu and Kashmir\n(C) Assam\n(D) Madhya Pradesh\n\n59. The total number of districts in Madhya Pradesh is\u2014\n(A) 25\n(B) 48\n(C) 47\n(D) 37\n\n60. What is the name of handicrafts emporia centres of Madhya Pradesh ?\n(A) Koel\n(B) Mayur\n(C) Kingfisher\n(D) Mriganayanee\n\n61. Which ocean, according to Wegener, surrounded Pangaea on all sides ?\n(A) Panthalassa\n(B) Indian Ocean\n(C) Atlantic Ocean\n(D) Arctic Ocean\n\n62. Many island arcs and peripheral trenches of the Pacific Ocean are the result of\u2014\n(A) The convergence of two continental plates\n(B) The convergence of a continental plate and an oceanic plate\n(C) The convergence of two oceanic plates\n(D) None of the above\n\n63. Exfoliation is most active\u2014\n(A) in regions where frost occurs regularly\n(B) in limestone areas\n(C) at high altitudes\n(D) in arid or semi-arid regions, which have a large diurnal range of temperature\n\n64. Which of the following landforms is not formed by weathering ?\n(A) Rift valley\n(B) Crevasses\n(C) Talus\n(D) Yardang\n\n65. Which of the following is not a process of river erosion ?\n(A) Hydraulic action\n(B) Deflation\n(C) Corrosion\n(D) Attrition\n\n66. Which of the following landforms is formed by glacier ?\n(A) Tarn\n(B) Lagoon\n(C) Lappies\n(D) Doline\n\n67. With what are the Inselberg and Hamada associated ?\n(A) Glacial erosion\n(B) Wind erosion\n(C) River erosion\n(D) Wind deposition\n\n68. Which of the following is a Caldera lake ?\n(A) Lake Chilka\n(B) Lake Pulicat\n(C) Lake Toba\n(D) None of these\n\n69. Which instrument is used for measuring the intensity of an earthquake ?\n(A) Seismograph\n(B) Hythergraph\n(C) Altimeter\n(D) None of these\n\n70. Which of the following pairs is correct ?\n(A) Alfred Wegener\u2014Plate Tectonics\n(B) Archdeacon pratt\u2014Continental Drift Theory\n(C) William Moris Davis\u2014Geographical Cycle of Erosion\n(D) Walter Penck\u2014Theory of Isostasy\n\n71. Which of the following is an example of volcanic mountains ?\n(A) Rockies\n(B) Fujiyoma\n(C) Salt range\n(D) Caucasus\n\n72. The example of an intermontane plateau is\u2014\n(A) The Plateau of Bolivia\n(B) The Plateau of Antrim\n(C) The Deccan Plateau\n(D) The Plateau of Pantagonia\n\n73. Monadnocks are situated in\u2014\n(A) Mountain\n(B) Fold mountain\n(C) Peneplain\n(D) Loess plain\n\n74. That layer of the atmosphere, where ozone gas is found\u2014\n(A) Troposphere\n(B) Stratosphere\n(C) Mesosphere\n(D) Thermosphere\n\n75. Radiant energy from the sun that strikes the earth is called\u2014\n(A) Solar constant\n(B) Insolation\n(C) Heat budget\n(D) Terrestrial radiation\n\n76. The maximum annual range of temperature occurs over\u2014\n(A) Poles\n(B) Near the equator\n(C) Coastal regions\n(D) Asia and North America at latitude 60\u00b0N\n\n77. Which of the following are horse latitudes ?\n(A) 30\u00b0to 35\u00b0latitudes in both the hemispheres\n(B) 10\u00b0North latitude\n(C) 60\u00b0latitude\n(D) None of the above\n\n78. Which of the following statements is not true ?\n(A) When the temperature of air increases, the pressure of air decreases\n(B) When the temperature of air decreases, the pressure of air increases\n(C) A rising thermometer shows a falling barometer\n(D) When air rises, the pressure of air increases\n\n79. Which pair is incorrect ?\n(A) Fohn\u2014Dry and warm wind\n(B) Chinook \u2014Snow eater\n(C) Mistral \u2014Winter season\n(D) Bora \u2014North America\n\n80. Which of the following is not a cyclone ?\n(A) Tornado\n(B) Hurricane\n(C) Typhoon\n(D) Sirocco\n\n81. Which one of the following is not erosional landform of wind ?\n(A) Cirque\n(B) Inselberg\n(C) Mushroom rock\n(D) Zeugen\n\n82. Which type of rainfall occurs over north-west India during winter season ?\n(A) Cyclonic rainfall\n(B) Orographic rainfall\n(C) Convectional rainfall\n(D) Anticyclonic rainfall\n\n83. In which of the spheres of the atmosphere temperature decreases at the rate of 6.5\u00b0centigrade with a height of one thousand metres ?\n(A) Mesosphere\n(B) Ionosphere\n(C) Ozonosphere\n(D) Troposphere\n\n84. Ratio between water and land on the earth is \u2014\n(A) 78 : 22\n(B) 71 : 29\n(C) 80 : 20\n(D) 20 : 80\n\n85. The northern hemisphere is called as\u2014\n(A) The land hemisphere\n(B) The water hemisphere\n(C) Water planet\n(D) None of these\n\n86. The ocean's greatest depth is\u2014\n(A) Aleutian Trench\n(B) Japan Trench\n(C) Mariana Trench\n(D) Java Trench\n\n87. The zone of highest salinity is\u2014\n(A) The tropical zone of the sea\n(B) The temperate zone of the sea\n(C) The polar zone of the sea\n(D) None of the above\n\n88. Which one of the following is a warm ocean current ?\n(A) Kurushio current\n(B) California current\n(C) Okhotsk current\n(D) Falkland current\n\n89. Which one of the following is an example of coral island ?\n(A) Ellice\n(B) Barren\n(C) Krakatao\n(D) Sandwich\n\n90. Which one of the following is an activity of the Eskimos and Lapps ?\n(A) Agriculture\n(B) Plantation agriculture\n(C) Hunting and fishing\n(D) None of these\n\n91. Bushman is associated with\u2014\n(A) Kalahari desert\n(B) Congo basin\n(C) Himalaya mountains\n(D) Malwa plateau\n\n92. Which one of the following is not a habitat of the Santhals ?\n(A) West Bengal\n(B) Orissa\n(C) Jharkhand\n(D) Punjab\n\n93. Which state of India has the highest percentage of scheduled tribe population ?\n(A) Mizoram\n(B) Nagaland\n(C) Meghalaya\n(D) Assam\n\n94. Which continent has the highest growth of population ?\n(A) Africa\n(B) South America\n(C) Europe\n(D) Asia\n\n95. Which is not a sparsely populated area ?\n(A) Cold Polar Region\n(B) Sahara\n(C) South-Eastern Asia\n(D) Kalahari\n\n96. Which one of the following has maximum farm-houses ?\n(A) India\n(B) United States of America\n(C) China\n(D) Japan\n\n97. Which one of the following is a mining city ?\n(A) Kalgoorlie\n(B) Oxford\n(C) Singapore\n(D) Islamabad\n\n98. Which one of the following pairs is correct ?\n(A) Concentric Zone Theory\u2014E.W. Burgess\n(B) Sector Theory\u2014Alfred Weber\n(C) Multi-Nuclei Theory\u2014Homer Hoyt\n(D) Fused Growth Theory\u2014Griffith Taylor\n\n99. The largest producer of rice in the world is\u2014\n(A) India\n(B) Sri Lanka\n(C) China\n(D) Bangladesh\n\n100. Which one of the following geographical conditions is not favourable for wheat cultivation ?\n(A) 10\u00b0celcius temperature at the time of sowing\n(B) Loamy soils\n(C) More than 250 cm annual rainfall\n(D) Level land\n\n101. Which of the following is also grown as a 'Zaid' crop ?\n(A) Sugarcane\n(B) Cotton\n(C) Maize for fodder\n(D) Jute\n\n102. Tea can be grown on\u2014\n(A) Hill slopes\n(B) Plains\n(C) Swamps\n(D) None of these\n\n103. Which of the following is a plantation crop ?\n(A) Wheat\n(B) Maize\n(C) Barley\n(D) Coffee\n\n104. Which of the following is not a rubber producing country ?\n(A) Thailand\n(B) India\n(C) Sri Lanka\n(D) None of these\n\n105. Which of the following statements is correct in relation to cotton production ?\n(A) Cotton is grown in tropical areas\n(B) Sri Lanka is the largest exporter of cotton\n(C) Cotton is a dominant crop in areas of over 1000 cm annual rainfall\n(D) Cotton can also be grown in Tundra region\n\n106. Which state of India has the largest area under forests ?\n(A) Punjab\n(B) Madhya Pradesh\n(C) Maharashtra\n(D) Bihar\n\n107. Grand Bank is a major producer of\u2014\n(A) Rice\n(B) Marine fisheries\n(C) Iron ore\n(D) Tea\n\n108. Which of the following is a type of iron ore ?\n(A) Anthracite\n(B) Lignite\n(C) Peat\n(D) Limonite\n\n109. Manganese is used for making\u2014\n(A) Iron and steel\n(B) Paint\n(C) China clay\n(D) In all these\n\n110. Which state of India is the largest producer of copper ?\n(A) Madhya Pradesh\n(B) Rajasthan\n(C) Jharkhand\n(D) Assam\n\n111. Bauxite is used for making\u2014\n(A) Coal\n(B) Gold\n(C) Aluminium\n(D) None of these\n\n112. Which continent of the world has the maximum known coal reserves ?\n(A) North America\n(B) South America\n(C) Australia\n(D) Africa\n\n113. Which of the following pairs is correct ?\n(A) Jharia coalfield\u2014Jharkhand\n(B) Girdih coalfield\u2014West Bengal\n(C) Korba coalfield\u2014Madhya Pradesh\n(D) Umaria coalfield\u2014Chhattisgarh\n\n114. In which rocks are the oil reserves mainly found in India ?\n(A) Igneous\n(B) Sedimentary\n(C) Metamorphic\n(D) None of these\n\n115. Which of the following pairs does not match ?\n(A) Lower Sileru\u2014Andhra Pradesh\n(B) Nagarjun Sagar\u2014Karnataka\n(C) Koyna\u2014Maharashtra\n(D) Pong\u2014Punjab\n\n116. Which of the following pairs is not correct ?\n(A) Jog\u2014Waterfall\n(B) Ankleshwar\u2014Mineral oilfield\n(C) Bokaro\u2014Gold mine\n(D) Paradwip\u2014Iron and steel plant\n\n117. Not related to textile industry is\u2014\n(A) Spinning\n(B) Weaving\n(C) Jute\n(D) Pulp\n\n118. Which is India's first oil refinery ?\n(A) Digboi\n(B) Panipat\n(C) Trombay\n(D) Vishakhapatnam\n\n119. Manchester is known for\u2014\n(A) Silk Industry\n(B) Woollen Textile\n(C) Cotton Textile\n(D) None of these\n\n120. Which is the most universal mode of transport ?\n(A) Road Transport\n(B) Rail Transport\n(C) Ocean Transport\n(D) None of these\n\n\n1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (C)\n11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (B) 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (D) 20. (A)\n21. (B) 22. (B) 23. (B) 24. (C) 25. (C) 26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (D) 29. (B) 30. (A)\n31. (D) 32. (A) 33. (D) 34. (D) 35. (D) 36. (D) 37. (D) 38. (D) 39. (C) 40. (A)\n41. (D) 42. (A) 43. (D) 44. (C) 45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (C) 48. (D) 49. (A) 50. (D)\n51. (B) 52. (D) 53. (D) 54. (B) 55. (B) 56. (A) 57. (B) 58. (D) 59. (B) 60. (D)\n61. (A) 62. (B) 63. (D) 64. (A) 65. (B) 66. (A) 67. (B) 68. (C) 69. (A) 70. (C)\n71. (B) 72. (A) 73. (C) 74. (B) 75. (B) 76. (D) 77. (A) 78. (D) 79. (D) 80. (D)\n81. (A) 82. (A) 83. (D) 84. (B) 85. (A) 86. (C) 87. (A) 88. (A) 89. (A) 90. (C)\n91. (A) 92. (D) 93. (A) 94. (A) 95. (C) 96. (B) 97. (A) 98. (A) 99. (C) 100. (C)\n101. (C) 102. (A) 103. (D) 104. (D) 105. (A) 106. (B) 107. (B) 108. (D) 109. (D)\u00a0\n\n110. (B) 111. (C) 112. (A) 113. (A) 114. (B) 115. (B)\n116. (*) In given pairs (C) and (D) pairs are incorrect. So this question is wrong.\n117. (D) 118. (A) 119. (C) 120. (A)\n\n1 comment: |
__label__positive Med Surg Final.txt\n\nHome > Preview\n\nThe flashcards below were created by user Anonymous on FreezingBlue Flashcards.\n\n 1. In pulmonary edema the medical management will often include what?\n Furosemide (Lasix) IV, oxygen therapy , orthopenic position, and morphine sulfate to decrease respiratory rate.\n 2. What would the nursing interventions be for a patient with pulmonary edema, excess fluid volume, and altered tissue permeability?\n Assess indicators of patient\ufffds fluid volume status, such as breath sounds, skin turgor, and pedal/sacral/periorbital edema, mx I&O, administer diuretics as ordered, and weigh daily.\n 3. What is the most common cause of pulmonary edema?\n Increased capillary pressure from left ventricular failure\n 4. What does sputum look like in pulmonary edema?\n Frothy, pink sputum\n 5. What type of diet is recommended for a pt with pulmonary edema?\n Low-sodium diet\n 6. What is pulmonary embolism?\n Foreign substance causing obstruction to the blood supply to lung tissue\n 7. What is the normal range for d-dimer?\n 8. How long is a pt on anticoagulant therapy for a pulmonary embolism?\n One year\n 9. What is the most definite method of diagnosing a pulmonary embolism?\n pulmonary angiogram\n 10. What is pulmonary edema?\n Accumulation of extravascular fluid in lung tissues and alveoli, caused by severe left ventricular dysfunction\n 11. What are the signs and symptoms of pulmonary edema?\n Severe respiratory distress, frothy sputum, coughing, choking\n 12. Most pulmonary embolisms (PEs) originate from where?\n deep vein thrombosis (DVT)\n 13. Chest pain from pulmonary embolism (PE) is typically what?\n pleuritic and worsens upon inspiration\n 14. What is the medical management and nursing interventions of the patient with pulmonary embolism?\n Bed rest, administration of IV Heparin per protocol, semi-fowlers position, and oxygen per mask or nasal cannula.\n 15. What position will the nurse instruct the pt with emphysema to enhance the effectiveness of breathing during dyspnea periods?\n sitting on the side of the bed, leaning on an overbed table\n 16. A nurse is caring for a client with emphysema who is receiving oxygen. The nurse checks the oxygen flow rate to ensure that it does not exceed what?\n 17. What is the purpose of pursed lip breathing?\n Promote carbon dioxide elimination\n 18. The low pressure alarm sounds on the ventilator. The nurse checks the client then attempts to determine the cause of the alarm but is unsuccessful. What initial action will the nurse take?\n Ventilate the client manually\n 19. What does a pt w/emphysema become barrel chested?\n Because of over inflation of the lungs\n 20. How much fluid should a pt w/emphysema consume each day?\n 2-3 L\n 21. What effective breathing technique is used for a pt w/emphysema?\n Pursed-lip breathing\n 22. What does Peak-flow monitoring measure?\n how well air moves out of the lungs-during forceful exhalation\n 23. Which type of medication is used as rescue medication in acute asthma exacerbation\n Short-acting beta,-agonists.\n 24. Asthma is best characterized as what type of disease?\n an inflammatory disease\n 25. What are the nursing interventions for a pt with ineffective breathing pattern related to decreased lung expansion during an acute attack of asthma?\n Administer oxygen therapy as ordered, remain with patient during acute attack to decrease fear and anxiety, incorporate rest periods into activities and interventions, and maintain semi-fowlers position to facilitate ventilation.\n 26. How is TB spread?\n inhaling the TB bacteria after a person coughs, speaks, or sneezes\n 27. What is the most common etiologic factor for this diagnosis in patients with Tb who do are not compliant?\n little or no motivation to adhere to a long-term drug regimen\n 28. The appropriate nursing intervention for Mr. K age 40, diagnosed with active Tb would be what?\n place the patient in acid -fast bacilli (AFB) isolation precautions\n 29. What diagnostic test that will confirm TB?\n Sputum culture\n 30. What identifies the route of transmission of TB?\n The airborne route\n 31. A nurse is reading the results of a Mantoux skin test on a client with no documented health problems. The site has no induration and a 1-mm area of ecchymosed. What are the results of this test?\n 32. A nurse is caring for a client who had a Mantoux skin test implantation 48 hours ago on admission to the nursing unit and reads the result of the skin test as positive. What nursing action is priority?\n Report the findings\n 33. A client being discharged from the hospital to home with a diagnosis of TB is worried about the possibility of infecting the family and others. What information would help the client get the most reassurance?\n The family will be treated prophylactically and the client will not be contagious after 2 to 3 consecutive weeks of medication therapy.\n 34. A nurse has reinforced discharge teaching with a client who was diagnosed with TB and has been on medication for 1\ufffd weeks. Which statement shows that the client has understood the teaching?\n \ufffdI should not be contagious after 2 to 3 weeks of medication therapy\ufffd\n 35. A client with TB asks a nurse about precautions to take after discharge from the hospital to prevent infection of others. The nurse develops a response based on the understanding that TB is transmitted how?\n By droplet nuclei\n 36. A nurse is preparing to give a bed bath to an immobilized client with TB. What should the nurse plan to wear when performing this care?\n Particulate respirator, gown, and gloves.\n 37. A client with TB, whose status is being monitored in an ambulatory care clinic, asks the nurse when it is permissible to return to work. When does the nurse tell the pt he can return to work?\n After three sputum cultures are negative.\n 38. What type of isolation is recommended for a patient w/TB?\n Acid-fast bacillus\n 39. What type of masks do visitors of TB pts use?\n Particulate respiration mask\n 40. Which of the following statements accurately describe the disease tuberculosis (TB)? Most people who become infected with TB organism do not progress to the active disease stage.\n 41. Ms. C., age 45, is being evaluated to rule out pulmonary tuberculosis. Which finding is most closely associated with TB?\n Night Sweats\n 42. The health care workers for Ms. C., who is diagnosed with active tuberculosis, are instructed in methods of protecting themselves from contracting tuberculosis. The centers of disease controls and prevention currently recommend that health care workers who care for TB-Infected patients wear what?\n a small micron fitted filtration mask\n 43. A nurse is assigned to care for a patient following a left pneumonectomy. The nurse would avoid positioning the client how?\n On the side\n 44. What is the most common surgical treatment for lung cancer?\n 45. What is a pneumonectly?\n Surgical removal of a lung\n 46. The primary goal for the patient with bronchiectasis is that the patient will what?\n maintain removal of bronchial secretions.\n 47. What is bronchiectasis?\n Irreversible chronic dilation of bronchi that destroys bronchial elastic & muscular elements\n 48. What are the signs & symptoms of bronchiectasis?\n Dyspnea, cyanosis & clubbing of the fingers\n 49. What volume is O2 delivered to the pt with bronchiectasis?\n Low flow\n 50. What is the cure for bronchiectasis?\n Surgical removal of the lung\n 51. What is a cystectomy?\n Surgical removal of the bladder\n 52. What type of surgery is less invasive and less stressful for a pt with BPH?\n 53. How is tissue removed during TURP?\n Through the urethra\n 54. What type of catheter is used on a pt with TURP?\n Closed bladder irrigation\n 55. What type of solution is used in a closed bladder irrigation?\n An isotonic solution\n 56. What should the pt expect after prostatic surgery?\n 57. Why should catheter drainage tubes be checked frequently?\n For kinks that would occlude urine and cause bladder spasms\n 58. What diet is important for a pt with nephrotic syndrome?\n Protein replacement, low salt\n 59. What meds are used to treat nehprotic syndrome?\n Corticosteroids, loop diurectics\n 60. What is cystitis?\n Inflammation of the wall of the urinary bladder\n 61. What are the signs and symptoms of cystitis?\n Dysuria, urinary frequency and pyuria\n 62. Cystitis is confirmed by a u/a that reveals a bacterial count greater than what?\n 63. What is interstitial cystitis?\n A chronic pain disorder in the urinary bladder and surrounding region\n 64. What statement by the client with Cushing\ufffds syndrome indicates that the instructions related to dietary management were understood?\n \ufffdI can eat foods that contain potassium.\ufffd\n 65. What is a feature of Cushing syndrome?\n Increased susceptibility to infection\n 66. What causes Cushing Syndrome?\n Overstimulation of ACTH\n 67. What is hypokalema?\n Not enough potassium\n 68. What are the clinical manifestations of Cushing syndrome?\n Moonface, buffalo hump\n 69. What is striae?\n A streak or linear scar that often results from stretching of the skin\n 70. In the pt with Cushings syndrome, what results in hyperglycemia?\n Impaired carbohydrate metabolism\n 71. What type of diet is indicated for a pt with Cushings syndrome?\n Low sodium, reduce calories and carbs, and high potassium\n 72. When a nurse notes that a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has lipodystrophy on both upper thights, what information should the nurse obtain from the client?\n Plan of injection rotation.\n 73. Which client complaint would alert the nurse to a possible hypoglycemic reaction?\n 74. After several diagnostic tests, a client is diagnosed with diabetes insipidus. The nurse understands that which symptom is indicative of this disorder?\n 75. What should the pt avoid when taking tolbutamide (Orinase) for diabetes mellitus?\n 76. What disorder caused by secretion of insufficient amounts of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?\n Diabetes insipidus\n 77. What is the main problem with diabetes mellitus type 2?\n Abnormal resistance to insulin action.\n 78. In caring for a patient with diabetes mellitus who is experiencing an acute hyperglycemic reaction (diabetic ketoacidosis), what interventions would be appropriate?\n Insulin IV via infusion pump\n 79. What is diabetes insipidus?\n A disorder of the pituitary in which ADH is deficient\n 80. How much urine can a pt with diabetes insipidus lose in an hour?\n 81. What are the characteristics of diabetes insipidus?\n Polyuria and polydipsia\n 82. What is the normal serum sodium level?\n 83. What happens to urine specific gravity in a pt with diabetes insipidus?\n it drops below 1.003\n 84. How much fluid should a pt with diabetes insipidus intake?\n 2600 ml\n 85. What causes polydipisa and polyuria related to diabetes?\n Fluid shifts resulting from the osmotic effect of hyperglycemia\n 86. In planning care for a patient with type 2 diabetes admitted to the hospital with pneumonia, the nurse recognizes that the patient may have what?\n Sufficient endogenous insulin to prevent ketosis but is at risk for development of hyperosmolar coma\n 87. At what time of day is a diabetic pt at risk for hypoglycemia?\n In the late afternoon and at bedtime\n 88. What is a diabetic diet designed to do?\n Help normalize blood glucose through a balanced diet\n 89. What is an appropriate instruction or the pt with diabetes related to care of the feet?\n Inspect all surfaces of the feet daily\n 90. Which oral hypoglycemic works primarily by reducing hepatic glucose production and lowers fasting blood glucose levels?\n Metformin (Glucophage)\n 91. What types of insulin are used in an insulin pump?\n Regular and rapid-acting\n 92. How long is the onset of regular insulin (Humulin R)?\n 30 minutes to an hour\n 93. How long is the onset of action of Lispro (Humalog)?\n 15 minutes\n 94. How long is the onset of action of NPH (Humulin N)?\n 2 hours\n 95. Why is caffeine restricted in a pt with diabetes insipidus?\n Because it acts as a diuretic\n 96. What is deficient in a pt with diabetes insipidous?\n 97. What is diabetes mellitus?\n Improper metabolism of carbs, fats, and proteins\n 98. When does insulin reach its peak level?\n 30 minutes after meals and returns to normal in 2-3 hours\n 99. What is the difference between type 1 and type 2 dibetes?\n Type 1 is insulin dependent (IDDM) and Type 2 is non insulin dependent (NIDDM)\n 100. What causes IDDM?\n Destruction of beta-cell function\n 101. What are the causes of NIDDM?\n Decreased tissue, overproduction of insulin, abnormal glucose regulation\n 102. How is glucose stored?\n As glycogen in the liver\n 103. What must be present for muscle cells and other body cells to utilize glucose?\n 104. What is hyperglycemia?\n Excess glucose in the bloodstream\n 105. How does the body get rid of excess glucose in the bloodstream?\n The kidneys will excrete it in urine, called glycosuria\n 106. What is a sign of diabetic ketoacidosis?\n Fruity smell to the breath\n 107. What causes diabetic ketoacidosis?\n Acute insulin deficiency, decreased peripheral glucose utilization, increased fat mobilization and ketogenesis\n 108. What are the normal lab values for fasting blood sugar?\n 109. What amount is considered abnormal in an FBS?\n 126 or more\n 110. What does the HbA1c measure?\n The amount of glucose that has become incorporated into the hemoglobin within an erythrocyte\n 111. What is the normal lab value for HbA1c?\n 112. When is a postprandial blood sugar taken?\n 2 hours after a meal\n 113. What level may indicate the presence of DM in a PPBS?\n Plasma glucose over 160\n 114. What affects the accuracy of an oral glucose tolerance test?\n Adequate pt preparation and cooperation\n 115. What is the medical management for DM?\n Education, monitoring, meal planning, medication, exercise\n 116. What type of diet is recommended for a pt with DM?\n 45%-50% carbs, 10%-20% proteins, no more than 30% fats\n 117. What is important about food intake for pts with IDDM?\n It should be evenly distributed throughout the day\n 118. How long does exercise reduce insulin and increase glucose uptake?\n 72 hours\n 119. How often should blood glucose be monitored during the times of stress or illness?\n Every 1-2 hours\n 120. When should the pt with DM be instructed to contact their physician?\n When blood glucose level is 250 or more\n 121. When is insulin given intramuscularly?\n During diabetic ketoacidosis\n 122. What are the classifications of insulin?\n Rapid-acting, insulin apart, short-acting, intermediate acting, long acting\n 123. What is a \ufffdpeakless\ufffd insulin that provides a continous insulin level?\n 124. What is lipodystrophy?\n The loss of local fat deposits\n 125. How can a nurse prevent lipodystrophy?\n Administer insulin at room temp and rotate injection sites\n 126. How does a nurse prevent medication errors when administering insulin?\n Have the dose drawn in the syringe and checked by another nurse\n 127. What is hypoglycemia?\n Not enough glucose in the blood\n 128. What are the signs of hypoglycemia?\n Faintness, weakness, excessive perspiration, irritability, hunger, palpitations, trembling, drowsiness\n 129. What are the signs and symptoms of hyperglycemia?\n Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia\n 130. Why is insulin not injected into the muscle?\n Because it enters the bloodstream too quickly and can cause hypoglycemia\n 131. Which part of the body provides the fastest, least variable absorption?\n The abdomen\n 132. What is as close a substitute to a healthy, working pancrease?\n An insulin pump\n 133. What is a bolus of insulin?\n A quantity of insulin delivered to cover a carbohydrate meal\n 134. What is the function of metformin (glucophage)?\n It reduces hepatic glucose production and lowers fasting blood glucose levels\n 135. What must a pt have for oral hypoglycemics to be effective?\n Some function insulin production\n 136. Why is calcium gluconate prescribed for a pt after a thyroidectomy?\n To treat hypocalcemic tetany\n 137. What nursing action is appropriate for a pt after a thyroidectomy who has developed hoarseness and a weak voice?\n Reassure the client that this is usually a temporary condition.\n 138. What would require the nurse\ufffds immediate attention when caring for a postop thyroidectomy pt?\n Laryngeal stridor\n 139. A nurse is caring for a client after thyroidectomy and monitoring for signs of thyroid storm. What manifestation is associated with this disorder?\n 140. What signs or symptoms should be reported immediately to the RN/MD for further evaluation in the pt who has undergone a thyroidectomy?\n Numbness in the fingers, Heart rate of 160, Noticeable arm twitching when you took patient's blood pressure\n 141. How is a pt placed after a thyroidectomy?\n Supine with pillows supporting the head and shoulders\n 142. What two conditions should the nurse monitor for after a thyroidectomy?\n Tetany and edema\n 143. What is Chvotek\ufffds sign?\n An abnormal spasm of the facial muscles elicited by light taps on the facial nerve\n 144. What condition will cause a pt to have a positive Chvotek\ufffds sign?\n 145. What is Trousseau\ufffds sign?\n A test in which a BP cuff is inflated to above systolic BP for 3 minutes.\n 146. What will happen with a positive Trousseau\ufffds sign?\n Carpal spasm in pts with hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia\n 147. What is a thyroid storm?\n A condition in which large amounts of thyroid hormones are released\n 148. What is administered for the emergency treatment of tetany?\n Calcium gluconate\n 149. When does a thyroid crisis generally occur?\n In the first 12 hours post op\n 150. What are the signs and symptoms of a thyroid crisis?\n Nausea, vomiting, severe tachycardia, hyperthermia, exaggerated symptoms of hyperthyroidism\n 151. What are the three goals of thyroid storm management?\n Induce normal thyroid state, prevent cardiovascular collapse, prevent excessive hyperthermia\n 152. What is a sign that damage to the laryngeal nerve may have occurred in a pt who has had a thyroidectomy?\n The pt is becoming increasingly hoarse.\n 153. What is hyperthyroidism?\n Overproduction of T4 and T3\n 154. What are the clinical manifestations of hyperthyroidism?\n Edema of the anterior portion of the neck, bulging eyes\n 155. What is the diet therapy for a patient with hyperthyroidism?\n Foods high n calories, vitamins, minerals, and carbs\n 156. What does a radioactive iodine uptake test determine?\n 157. How is the radioactive iodine given?\n By mouth to the fasting patient\n 158. What is important to obtain from a patient before a radioactive iodine uptake test?\n Allergies and signed consent\n 159. What drugs are given to treat hyperthyroid?\n PTU, methimazole (Tapazole)\n 160. What is the gold standard for treating hyperthyroidism?\n Ablation therapy using radioactive iodine\n 161. How often is the thyroid checked during a RAIU?\n 2, 6 & 24 hours\n 162. What type of diet is important for a pt w/hyperthyroidism?\n Foods high in calories, vitamins, minerals, and carbs\n 163. What is hypothyroidism?\n A condition in which the thyroid fails to secrete sufficient hormones, resulting in a slowing of all of the body\ufffds metabolic processes\n 164. What type of diet is important for a patient with hypothyroidism?\n High-protein, high-fiber, low-calorie\n 165. Appropriate nursing care for the patient with hypothyroidism would include what?\n Encourage fluids\n 166. What is severe hypothyroidism called?\n 167. What should the nurse watch for in a pt w/hypothyroidism that could indicate cardiac involvement?\n Chest pain, dyspnea, changes in rate and rhythm.\n 168. Mr. A., age 71, is admitted with an exacerbation of COPD. He has dependent edema and ascites as well as dyspnea. A complication that may occur in CIPD is which some of the capillaries surrounding the alveoli are destroyed, resulting in pulmonary hypertension, blood returning to the right side of the heart, and signs and symptoms of right-sided HF is what?\n cor pulmonale\n 169. A patient with COPD asks why the heart is affected by the respiratory disease. The nurse\ufffds response to the patient is based on the knowledge that cor pulmonale is characterized by what?\n right ventricular hypertrophy secondary to increased pulmonary vascular resistance\n 170. Ineffective airway clearance related to tracheobronchial obstruction and/or secretions is a nursing diagnosis for a patient with COPD. Which of the following are correct?\n Offer small, frequent, high-calorie, high-protein feedings. Encourage generous fluid intake. Have patient turn and cough every 2 hours;; teach effective coughing technique.\n 171. A nurse is caring for a client hospitalized with acute exacerbation of COPD. Which of the following would the nurse expect to note in evaluating the client?\n A hyper inflated chest on x-ray\n 172. Mr. F., age 52, had a laryngectomy due to cancer of the larynx. Discharge instructions are give to Mr. F. and his family. Which response, by written communication from Mr. F, or verbal response by the family, will be a signal to the nurse that the instructions need to be decalcified?\n It is acceptable to take over-the-counter medications now that conditions are stable.\n 173. What is orthopnea?\n A condition in which a person must sit or stand to breathe deeply or comfortably\n 174. What are the signs and symptoms of left-sided heart failure?\n Crackles, SOB, pink-frothy sputum, orthopnea, pulmonary edema\n 175. What is the number one dysrhythmia that occurs with an arterial embolism?\n 176. What is the most serious type of dysrhythmia?\n Ventricular fibrillation\n 177. Why would a physician perform carotid massage on a patient with a diagnosis of rapid rate atrial fibrillation? The procedure may stimulate the vagus nerve to slow the heart rate.\n 178. What is atrial fibrillation?\n A very rapid production of atrial impulses characterized by an atrial rate of 350 to 600 beats per minute (atria fibrillates or quivers rather than contracts)\n 179. What is ventricular fibrillation?\n Occurs when the ventricular musculature of the heart is quivering\n 180. What happens during atrial fibrillation?\n The atria quivers instead of contracts\n 181. What is cardiomyopathy?\n A term used to describe a group of heart muscle diseases that primarily affects the structural or functional ability of the myocardium\n 182. What are the primary forms of cardiomyopathy?\n Dilated (ventricular), hypertrophic (increased heart size), and restrictive (ventricular walls are rigid)\n 183. What are the secondary forms of cardiomyopathy?\n Infective, metabolic, nutritional, alcohol, peripartum, drugs, lupus, rheumatoid arthritis, \ufffdcrack\ufffd heart\n 184. What are the most common signs and symptoms of cardiomyopathy?\n Angina, syncope, fatigue, and dyspnea on exertion\n 185. What is a dysrhythmia?\n Any cardiac rhythm that deviates from normal sinus rhythm\n 186. How is tachycardia characterized?\n Heartbeat of 100-150 or more per minute\n 187. How is bradycardia characterized?\n By a pulse rate of fewer than 60 beats per minute\n 188. What is supraventricular tachycardia?\n The sudden onset of a rapid heartbeat characterized by a pulse rate of 150-250 beats per minute.\n 189. What is an arterial aneurysm?\n An enlarged, dilated portion of an artery\n 190. Why is the aorta prone to aneurysm?\n Because it is continuously exposed to high pressures\n 191. What is the first priority of care for a patient with an aneurysm?\n Control of hypertension\n 192. What are the nursing interventions of a patient diagnose with acute infective endocarditis?\n Restricted activity for several weeks.\n 193. What is endocarditis?\n An infection of inflammation of the inner membranous lining of the heart, valves\n 194. What are the signs and symptoms of endocarditis?\n Flu-like symptoms, undue fatigue, chest pain, headaches, petechia, oral mucosa\n 195. What is cardiogenic shock?\n Pump failure; Complication of MI and heart failure\n 196. Why was the term \ufffdcongestive heart failure\ufffd changed to just \ufffdheart failure\ufffd?\n Because not every patient suffering from heart failure has pulmonary congestion\n 197. How is nitroglycerin administered?\n PO, 1 tablet every 5 minutes times 3.\n 198. What is the first step to determine why a patient isn\ufffdt compliant with their meds?\n Ask them why they aren\ufffdt taking their meds\n 199. What symptoms are seen in angina pectoris?\n Chest pain that radiates down the left arm, dypsnea, anxiety, apprehension, diaphoresis and nausea\n 200. What would you expect to see in a patient with suspected cocaine use?\n An enlarged heart\n 201. What should be assessed in a patient before they are sent to the cardiac cath lab?\n Any allergies\n 202. When is the hormone b-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) released?\n It\ufffds secreted by the heart in response to pressure overload as in a heart failure\n 203. What type of medication is nitroglycerin?\n A vasodilator \ufffd it will lower BP\n 204. What are the signs and symptoms of left-sided heart failure?\n 205. What are the signs and symptoms of right-sided heart failure?\n Edema in legs, jugular vein distention, liver enlargement, ascites\n 206. What are the signs and symptoms of right-sided heart failure?\n Edema in legs, jugular vein distention, liver enlargement, ascites\n 207. What should a postmyocardial patient being prepared for discharge be instructed to do?\n Begin a cardiac rehab program\n 208. What is the primary function of patient teaching following a myocardial infarction?\n To assist the patient to develop a healthy lifestyle\n 209. What is an important nursing intervention when caring for a patient with remote telemetry?\n Never remove telemetry and allow patient to shower unless physician has written the order to allow a shower\n 210. What is the name of the neurohormone released from the left ventricle in response to volume expansion and pressure overload that has emerged as the blood marker for the identification of individuals with CHF?\n B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)\n 211. What is the normal range for B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)?\n 0 to 100 pg/ml\n 212. What is a myocardial muscle protein released into circulation after myocardial injury and is useful in diagnosing a myocardial infarction?\n Tropin l\n 213. What typical vital signs will display in a patient presenting with a myocardial infarction?\n Hypertension, tachycardia, weakened pulse, temperature elevation\n 214. What cardiac markers is specific to the heart, not influenced by skeletal muscle trauma or renal failure, and rises 3 hours following a myocardial infarction?\n Troponin I\n 215. What nursing care is followed for a patient with myocardial infarction?\n Bedrest with commode privileges for 24 to 48 hours.\n 216. What breath sounds would a nurse expect to hear in a patient with myocardial infarction who suddenly becomes tachycardic and shows signs of air hunger?\n 217. What is a myocardial infarction?\n An occlusion of a major coronary artery\n 218. How long does it take myocardial cells to die?\n 4-6 hours\n 219. Jaundice results when there is an excess amount of what in the bloodstream?\n 220. What is the preferred diagnostic test for visualizing the biliary tree in a pt with jaundice?\n Gallbladder ultrasound\n 221. What is multiple myeloma?\n Bone marrow cancer that metastasizes to the bone\n 222. What labs should the nurse monitor in a pt with multiple myeloma?\n Calcium\ufffdwatch for hypercalcemia\n 223. What is the best food item to administer with oral iron supplements?\n Orange juice\n 224. What nursing intervention should be incorporated into the plan of care for a child with aplastic anemia with WBC of 6000 and platelet of 27,000/mm?\n Encourage quiet play activities\n 225. What test is used to detect pernicious anemia?\n Schilling test\n 226. What would a nurse expect to specifically note with in a pt with a diagnosis of multiple myeloma?\n Increased calcium level\n 227. What is a priority nursing intervention for the client with multiple myeloma?\n Encourage fluids\n 228. What intervention is a priority in the nursing plan of care for a pt with thrombocytopenia?\n Monitor the client for bleeding\n 229. What medication is given to the patients with sickle cell anemia?\n IV Dulodid\n 230. What does anemia cause?\n Delivery of insufficient amounts of oxygen to tissues and cells\n 231. What is pernicious anemia?\n The absence of a glycoprotein intrinsic factor secreted by the gastric mucosa\n 232. What is thrombocytopenia?\n Blood platelets below 150,000\n 233. What is sickle cell anemia?\n An illness in which the blood cells shape in crescents and get stuck to one another and occlude vessels\n 234. What would the nurse expect to find during the physical assessment of a pt with thrombocytopenia?\n Petechiae and purpura\n 235. What is an important nursing intervention goal to establish for a person who has iron deficiency anemia?\n Alternate periods of rest and activity to balance oxygen supply and demand\n 236. What is a nursing intervention for a pt during a sickle cell crisis?\n Administration of large doses of continuous opioid analgesics\n 237. What foods should be included in the diet of a pt with iron deficiency anemia?\n Dark green leafy veggies ad organ meats\n 238. In addition to the general symptoms of anemia, the pt with pernicious anemia also manifests what?\n Neurological symptoms\n 239. What statement by the pt with pernicious anemia would indicate the she has understood the teaching?\n \ufffdI\ufffdll have to take B12 shots for the rest of m life.\ufffd\n 240. What type of data indicates that iron deficiency anemia is not currently managed effectively?\n 241. In a pt with sickle cell anemia, why does the sickling crisis not stop when oxygen therapy is started?\n when red cells sickle, they occlude small vessels, which causes more local hypoxia and more sickling\n 242. How is a pt positioned during a needle liver biopsy?\n Supine with the right arm over the head\n 243. What is the most common form of hepatitis, having an incubation period of 10-40 days.\n Hepatitis A\n 244. What snack choices would be appropriate for a pt suffering from acute pancreatitis?\n Reduced fat cheese and whole wheat crackers\n Gallbladder ultrasound\n 246. How is the pt instructed to breathe during a needle liver biopsy?\n Exhale fully and not breathe while the needle is inserted\n 247. What causes jaundice in a pt?\n An excess of bilirubin\n 248. What is a needle liver biopsy?\n A test in which a needle is inserted into the liver between the 6 & 7 or 7 & 8 intercostal spaces\n 249. After a cholesysectomy, why would a pt complain about shoulder pain?\n Diaphragmatic irritation secondary to residual carbon dioxide\n 250. What is jaundice?\n The appearance of yellowish skin, discoloration of the sclera and mucous membranes\n 251. What is the best form of preventing hepatitis A & B?\n 252. What is a critical aspect nursing interventions following a liver transplantation?\n Monitor for infection\n 253. What vitamins are given intravenously with fluids for the dehydrated hepatitis pt?\n C (healing), B (assists liver to absorb vit), K (blood clotter)\n 254. What can happen to a pt after a liver transplant, who has liver disease secondary to viral hepatitis?\n They often experience reinfection of the transplanted liver with hepatitis B or C\n 255. What are the signs and symptoms of hepatitis?\n General malaise, aching muscles, headaches, chills, abdominal pain, dyspepsia, nausea, diarrhea and constipation.\n 256. What would be an appropriate nursing intervention in a pt with viral hepatitis and no appetite?\n Offer small, frequent meals\n 257. What immunosuppressant drug is utilized in the success of a liver transplant?\n 258. What are the major postop complications of a liver transplant?\n Rejection and infection\n 259. How is hepatitis diagnosed?\n A normal lab test will be negative for the presence of the antigen\n 260. How is hepatitis G spread?\n Unsafe tattooing or piercing; coinfection of Hepatitis C\n 261. How is hepatitis B spread?\n Through contaminated blood transfusion, direct contact with body fluids, sexual contact\n 262. What are the nursing interventions following a liver biopsy?\n Ensure that platelet, clotting or bleeding time or okay and report any abnormal lab values to the doc; observe for the symptoms of bleeding\n 263. How is hepatitis A spread?\n Through the fecal-oral route, usually by contaminated food\n 264. How is hepatitis E spread?\n Oral-fecal route; spreads through fecal contamination of water\n 265. Following a liver biopsy, how long is a pt to lay on their right side?\n A minimum of 2 hours to splint the puncture site\n 266. How is hepatitis D spread?\n Coinfection of hepatitis B\n 267. What infection control method would be priority to include in the plan of care to prevent hepatitis B in a pt considered to be at high risk for exposure?\n Hepatitis B vaccine\n 268. What type of hepatitis is contracted from contaminated food?\n Hepatitis A\n 269. What should the nurse encourage in order to provide adequate nutrition to a pt with viral hepatitis, who is complaining of loss of apetite?\n Increase intake of fluids\n 270. What signs or symptoms would a nurse expect to note in a pt with acute viral hepatitis?\n 271. What physician order would a nurse verify on the chart of a pt with acute pancreatitis?\n Morphine sulfate for pain\n 272. What position will aggravate the pain in a pt with acute pancreatitis?\n Lying flat\n 273. What foods are allowed for a pt with hepatic encephalopathy?\n Toast, cereal, rice, tea, fruit, juice, and hard candies\n 274. What nursing interventions are included in planning care for a pt with metastatic cancer of the liver?\n Focus primarily on symptomatic and comfort measures\n 275. What is the treatment for cancer of the liver?\n 276. What do most pts already have when diagnosed with cancer of the liver?\n 277. What are the signs and symptoms of cirrhosis?\n Dyspepsia, changes in bowel habits, gradual weight loss, ascites, enlarged spleen and spider telangiectases\n 278. What causes ascites?\n Portal hypertension and hypoalbumin\n 279. What is the number one drug of choice for alieving pain of pancreatitis?\n 280. What is cirrhosis?\n A chronic, degenerative disease of the liver in which the lobes are covered with fibrous tissue and the lobules are infiltrated with fat\n 281. What are the signs and symptoms of cholecystitis and cholelithiasis?\n Low grade fever, elevated leukocyte count, clay-colored stools that contain fat, dark amber urine\n 282. What is hepatic encephalopathy?\n Brain damage caused by liver disease where there is ammonia intoxication\n 283. What are the various forms of cirrhosis?\n Alcoholic, postnecrotic, primary biliary, secondary biliary, cardiac\n 284. What type of diet is prescribed for a pt with hepatic encephalopathy?\n Very low protein to no protein diet\n 285. What is ascites?\n An accumulation of fluid and albumin in the peritoneal cavity\n 286. What is cholecystitis?\n An inflammation of the gallbladder\n 287. How can pain from pancreatitis be alleviated?\n By flexing the trunk, leaning forward from a sitting position, or by assuming the fetal position\n 288. Why is it especially important for the pt to cough and deep breathe postoperatively following an open cholecystectomy?\n The pt tends to take shallow breaths due to the placement of the incision\n 289. What will the administration of analgesic morphine cause in pts with acute pancreatitis?\n Spasms of the sphincter of Oddi\n 290. Hepatitis types B,C,D, & G are spread mainly through which routes?\n Blood transfusions, contaminated needles and instruments, direct contact with body fluids from infected people\n 291. What nursing diagnoses could be related to a liver needle biopsy?\n Pain, related to leakage of blood and bile into the peritoneal cavity\n 292. When caring for a pt with hepatic encephalopathy the nurse may give enemas, provide a low-protein diet, and limit physical activity. Why are these measures taken?\n To decrease the production of ammonia\n 293. In hepatic encephalopathy, what is the nurse assessing for when she requests the pt stretch out the arm and hyperextend the wrist with the fingers separated, relaxed, and extended to see whether rapid, irregular flexion and extension (flapping) of the wrist occur?\n 294. Which types of hepatitis now have vaccines for prevention?\n A & B\n 295. Why is a T-tube inserted during a cholecystectomy?\n To keep the duct open and allow drainage\n 296. What type of food is limited in a pt with advanced cirrhosis of the liver?\n 297. Following a laparoscopic cholecystecomty, what should the pt report?\n Bile-colored drainage or pus from any incision\n 298. Why is lactulose given to a pt with hepatic encephalopathy?\n It decreases the bowel\ufffds pH thus decreasing the production of bacteria within the bowel\n 299. What is the stool and urine color of a pt who is jaundiced?\n Dark tea-colored urine and clay-colored stools\n 300. When caring for a pt with acute pancreatitis, what lab reports may be anticipated?\n Hypoalbuminemia, hyperglycemia, and elevated hematocrit and leykocytosis\n 301. What is the nurses response to a pt with advanced cirrhosis who asks why his abdomen is so swollen?\n Portal hypertension and hypoalbuminemia cause a fluid shift into the peritoneal space\n 302. What labs are taken for cirrhosis?\n PT INR\n 303. What is the post op care for an open cholecystectomy?\n Monitor vital signs and observe dressing for exudates or hemorrhage\n 304. What is hepatitis?\n An inflammation of the liver resulting from several types of viral agents or exposure to toxic substances\n 305. How is hepatitis C spread?\n Needle sticks, contaminated blood transfusions\n 306. Why is neomycin given to a pt with hepatic encephalopathy?\n To reduce the bacterial flora of the colon\n 307. What is pancreatitis?\n Inflammation of the pancreas and may be acute or chronic\n 308. What types of drugs are avoided until the liver regains adequate function?\n Drugs that are normally detoxified in the liver\n 309. What is a cholesystectomy?\n A procedure to remove the gallbladder\n 310. What two major factors are most commonly associated with pancreatitis?\n Alcoholism and biliary tract disease\n 311. What are the signs and symptoms of pancreatitis?\n Severe abdominal pain radiating to the back; low-grade fever, vomiting, jaundice, weight loss, steatorrhea, and tachycardia\n 312. What is the primary use of nonabsorbable antibiotics as preparation for bowel surgery?\n To reduce the bacterial flora in the colon\n 313. What is the most important nursing intervention to decrease post op edema and pain in a male pt following an inguinal herniorraphy?\n Elevation of the scrotum with a support or small pillow\n 314. How is hernia reduced?\n Returned to its original position by manipulation\n 315. When can a temp colostomy be closed?\n 6 weeks to 3 months after the initial procedure\n 316. What is the treatment of diverticulus disease when muscle atrophy is responsible?\n Low-residue diet, stool softeners, and bed rest\n 317. How can dumping syndrome be relieved?\n Eating 6 small meals without fluids and by lying down after eating to slow the movement of food\n 318. What are the types of hernias?\n Ventral, femoral, inguinal and umbilical\n 319. What is a hernia?\n A protrusion of a viscus through an abnormal opening or a weakened area in the wall of a cavity\n 320. What is an incarcerate hernia?\n One that cannot be returned to its original position\n 321. What is the difference between ulcerative colitis and Crohn\ufffds disease?\n Ulcerative colitis is curable with a colectomy; Chrohn\ufffds often recurs after surgery\n 322. How would a stoma appear if a prolapse occurred?\n Protruding and swollen\n 323. Dumping syndrome is a disorder associated with what condition?\n Following gastric resection or peptic ulcer surgery\n 324. What is a nursing diagnosis for a pt with ulcerative colitis?\n Imbalanced nutrition, less than body related to bowel hyper\n 325. What is diverticulitis?\n The inflammation of one or more diverticula\n 326. What are the sings and symptoms of dumping syndrome?\n Diphoresis, nausea, vomiting, explosive diarrhea, borborygmi and dyspepsia\n 327. Which nursing measure will the nurse instruct the pt to follow to help prevent dumping syndrome?\n Limit the fluids taken with meals\n 328. What recommendations for food choices would you give a pt who has been diagnosed with diverticulosis as a result of muscle thickening and increased intracolonic pressure?\n Bran, fruits and vegetables\n 329. What are the difficulties of the hiatal hernia pt?\n Gastroesophageal reflux, heartburn, strangulation, infarction and ulceration\n 330. What is diverticulosis?\n The presence of pouchlike herniations\n 331. What is a hiatal hernia?\n A protrusion of the stomach through the diaphragm\n 332. What symptoms will indicate the occurrence of dumping syndrome?\n Sweating and pallor\n 333. What is ulcerative colitis?\n Abcessess in the rectum and up through the large intestine\n 334. What is dumping syndrome?\n A condition of weakness and sweating following eating related to rapid emptying of the stomach\n 335. What is the treatment for diverticulus when muscle thickening is responsible?\n High-fiber diet of bran, fruits and veggies\n 336. What lab values are decreased as a sign of a fat embolism?\n Hemoglobin and hematocrit\n 337. What are the signs and symptoms of a fat embolism?\n Chest pain, localized muscle weakness, spasticity and rigidity, all especially if a pt has multiple broken bones\n 338. What medications are used to control RA?\n Antiinflammatory drugs and aspirin\n 339. When may a prothesis be fitted?\n 2 or 3 weeks post op\n 340. Besides joints, what other systems can RA affect?\n Lung, heart, blood vessels, muscles, eyes and skin\n 341. Why is it necessary to warp an amputated extremity?\n To facilitate proper fit and use of a prothesis\n 342. What type of disease is RA?\n A chronic, systemic disease that\ufffds also though of as an autoimmune disorder\n 343. How are flexion hip contractures prevented postoperatively?\n By raising the foot of the bed slightly\n 344. How much sleep is recommended for a pt with RA?\n 8-10 hours a nig and a 2 hour nap during the day\n 345. What is the most common type of fracture treated in the hospital?\n Hip fracture\n 346. How is a fat embolism formed?\n When a bone breaks, the fat deposits in the marrow are released into the bloodstream\n 347. What is an extracapsular fracture?\n When a fracture occurs outside of the hip joint capsule\n 348. What is an impacted fracture?\n Where one bone fragment is forcibly impacted into another bone fragment\n 349. What is compartment syndrome?\n The progressive development of arterial vessel compression and reduced blood supply to an extremity\n 350. What are signs of a hip fracture?\n Inability to move the leg voluntarily, and shortening or external rotation of the leg\n 351. What is a transverse fracture?\n A break that runs directly across the bone\n 352. What are the signs of compartment syndrome?\n inability to flex the fingers or toes, coolness of the extremity and absence of a pulse\n 353. What is an oblique fracture?\n A break along the slant of the bone at a 45 degree angle\n 354. What is an intrascapular fracture?\n When the femur is broken inside the joint\n 355. What is a comminuted fracture?\n The bone is splintered into three or more fragments at the site of the break\n 356. What is the maximum elevation for the head of bed on a hip fracture patient?\n 45 degrees\n 357. How high can a limb with compartment syndrome be elevated?\n No higher than the heart\n 358. What is a complete fracture?\n A fracture entirely through the bone\n 359. Why does phantom pain occur?\n Because the nerve tracks that register pain in the amputated area continue to send a message to the brain\n 360. What diagnostic tests are performed prior to an amputation?\n CBC, BUN, potassium levels, urinalysis\n 361. In a pt with gout, what is the fluid intake increased to?\n 2000 ml\n 362. What is gout?\n A metabolic disease resulting from an accumulation of uric acid in the blood\n 363. What is a greenstick fracture?\n An incomplete fracture; the bone is only broken on one side\n 364. What is a spiral fracture?\n Where the break coils around the bone\n 365. What are the three compartment of the knee?\n Medial (inside), lateral (outside), patello-femoral (kneecap)\n 366. What is a unicompartmental knee arthroplasty?\n A partial knee replacement\n 367. What is a knee arthroplasty?\n Total knee replacement\n 368. What is seen in patients with compartmental syndrome?\n Absence of pulsation in the affected extremity\n 369. When does physical therapy begin following a partial knee replacement?\n The first day after surgery\n 370. Who is a partial knee replacement recommended for?\n Select pts 50 years and older\n 371. What is colchine used for?\n To treat gout\n 372. Which diagnostic test is used to assist in the confirmation of RA?\n 373. Who is not a candidate for a partial knee replacement?\n Pts with RA or lupus\n 374. When can a pt bear weight on the leg following a prosthetic hip replacement?\n 6 weeks to 3 months\n 375. What causes gout?\n Eating too many organ meats, yeast, herring, mackerel and scallops\n 376. What is RA?\n Most serious form of arthritis and leads to severe crippling\n 377. What is the preoperative preparations focused on prior to an amputation?\n The pts physical and emotional status\n 378. When is a lumbar puncture contraindicated?\n In a pt with suspected brain tumor or ICP\n 379. What is the earliest sign of ICP?\n Change in level of consciousness\n 380. What happens to vital signs in ICP?\n Increased BP, decreased Pulse, decreased respirations\n 381. What is the first, most subtle clue to trouble in ICP?\n Pupils reacting sluggishly\n 382. What type of pupil should be reported immediately?\n A blown pupil\n 383. What is Cushing\ufffds response?\n Widened pulse pressure, increased systolic BP, & bradycardia\n 384. What type of respirations are related to the level of brainstem compression or failure?\n Sterterous or Cheyne-stokes\n 385. What is the first step to manage ICP?\n Ensuring adequate oxygenation to support brain function\n 386. What three types of medications are used to treat ICP?\n Osmotic diuretics, corticosteroids, and anticonvulsants\n 387. How is a pt with ICP placed?\n Head of bed 30-45 degrees to promote venous return\n 388. Why is hip flexion avoided in a pt with ICP?\n It causes increased pressure\n 389. What medication actually reduces ICP?\n 390. How should a pt with ICP breathe when moving?\n They should exhale\n 391. What is atelectasis?\n The collapse of lung tissue that prevents respiratory exchange of CO2 & O2 most often occurring after surgery\n 392. How often is incentive spirometer recommended for a pt with atelectasis?\n 10 x\ufffds every hour while awake\n 393. How does chemotherapy work?\n By interfering with the cells\ufffd ability to multiply or reproduce\n 394. What is a common problem for a pt receiving chemo?\n 395. What does a temp of 100 or more indicate in the pt receiving chemo?\n An impending infection\n 396. What is one of the most common complications of the mouth of a chemo pt?\n Swallowing problems and systemic infections\n 397. What should the chemo pt rinse their mouth with every 2-4 hours?\n Normal saline or sodium bicarbonate\n 398. What should the pt taking chemo do to prevent lung infection?\n Cough, deep breathe, use incentive spirometer\n 399. What two types of colony-stimulating factors can prevent or manage neutropenia?\n G-CSF & GM-CSF\n 400. Why is fatigue a major problem for pts on chemo who have anemia?\n Decreased oxygenation to tissues from the decreased hemoglobin\n 401. What is tumor lysis syndrome?\n Rapid lysis of malignant cells as a result of chemotherapy\n 402. When is a pillow placed under a pt\ufffds head postoperatively?\n After the pt is fully conscious\n 403. Why is the postop pts head of bed raised to a 45 degree angle?\n To prevent aspirating of vomit\n 404. What is the first thing a nurse should do if she notices her pt going into shock?\n Administer oxygen\n 405. What is dehiscence?\n Separation of a surgical incision or rupture of a wound closure\n 406. What are the signs and symptoms of atelectasis?\n Chest pain, fever, productive cough or dyspnea\n 407. What is the acceptable urine output level postoperatively?\n 30 ml per hour\n 408. Why is preoperative teaching important?\n Wound healing then occurs more rapidly\n 409. When is preoperative pt teaching completed?\n 1-2 days before surgery\n 410. What type of drugs reduce spasms of smooth muscles and decrease gastric, bronchial, and salivary secretions?\n 411. What is urticaria?\n Presence of wheals or hives in an allergic reaction\n 412. What are wheals?\n Round elevations of the skin that are white in the center and pale red peripherally\n 413. What are the clinical manifestations of urticaria?\n Pruritus, edema and burning pain\n 414. What drugs can provide relief from urticaria?\n Antihistamine and epinephrine\n 415. What is hypovolemic shock?\n Severe blood and fluid loss makes the heart unable to pump enough blood to the body\n 416. What are the signs and symptoms of hypovolemic shock?\n Cool, clammy skin, anxiety, confusion, decreased urine output\n 417. What medications are given to a pt to treat hypovolemic shock?\n Dopamine, dobutamine, epinephrine and norepinephrine\n 418. What causes hypovolemic shock?\n Blood loss from injuries, burns, diarrhea, vomiting\n 419. What is the most common sign of a UTI in an elderly patient?\n 420. What chronic conditions can predispose a pt to recurrent UTI\ufffds?\n DM, MS, spinal cord injuries, hypertension, kidney disease\n 421. What are the common signs and symptoms of a UTI?\n Urgency, frequency, burning, hematuria\n 422. What type of UTI is a bladder infection?\n 423. What type of UTI is a kidney infection?\n 424. What is urosepsis?\n Septic poisoning due to retention and absorption of urinary products in the tissues\n\nCard Set Information\n\nMed Surg Final.txt\n2010-02-23 02:57:29\nMed Surg Final Exam\n\nMed Surg Final Exam\nShow\u00a0Answers:\n\nHome > Flashcards > Print Preview |
__label__positive Definition of Weak Atheism\n\nWeak atheism is defined as simply the absence of belief in gods or the absence of theism. This is also the broad, general definition of atheism. The definition of weak atheism is used as a contrast to the definition of strong atheism, which is the positive assertion that no gods exist. All atheists are necessarily weak atheists because by definition all atheists do not believe in any gods; only some go on to assert that some or no gods exist.\n\nSome people deny that weak atheism exists, confusing the definition with that of agnosticism. This is a mistake because atheism is about (a lack of) belief whereas agnosticism is about (a lack of) knowledge. Belief and knowledge are related by separate issues. Thus weak atheism is compatible with agnosticism, not an alternative to it. Weak atheism overlaps with negative atheism and implicit atheism.\n\nUseful Examples\n\n\"Weak atheists do not find the evidence for the existence of gods persuasive. While theists say that deities, or gods, do exist, weak atheists do not necessarily disagree. Some simply hold no opinion on the matter. Others more actively have doubts that gods exist. They consider it likely that gods do not exist because no one can prove that they do. In this respect, weak atheism is similar to agnosticism, or the view that gods might or might not exist but no one can know for certain.\"\n\n- World Religions: Primary Sources, Michael J. O'Neal and J. Sydney Jones |
__label__positive [RSArchive Icon]\nRudolf Steiner Archive Section Name Rudolf Steiner Archive & e.Lib\n\nCourse for Young Doctors\n\nRudolf Steiner Archive & e.Lib Document\n\n\nHighlight Words\n\nCourse for Young Doctors\n\nYoung Doctors Course: Lecture VII\n\nSchmidt Number: S-5573\n\nOn-line since: 10th September, 2008\n\n\nDornach, January 8, 1924\n\nWe will spend the first part of the time today in answering questions which do not belong to the general category of which I have already spoken. We will then continue the theme of yesterday's lecture in order, tomorrow, to come to the esoteric conclusion.\n\nMost of the questions fit into what I have said to you in general. There are only a few questions which call for a specific answer and we will take these more or less at random.\n\nQuestion: Are there definite exercises for strengthening the so-called magnetic healing forces, and what are these exercises?\n\nThis, of course, necessitates a few words about the nature of the forces of magnetic healing. The magnetic healing forces are forces which play, essentially, between the etheric body of the one person and the etheric body of the other. You must picture to yourselves that the efficacy of what goes by the name of healing magnetism is based on the following \u2014 suppose somebody has a very strong character, that is to say, it is possible for him to unfold his will very strongly. Indications can be given to such a person. I can, for instance, say to him when he is suffering from some illness or other; every morning at eleven o'clock you should think about the sun; think that the sun warms your head first, and then that the warmth of your head passes to your upper arm, lower arm, hands, so that your own power is strengthened; then, when you have strengthened your own power, try to make a clear mental picture of what you feel about your illness, in order, then, through the power of your will, to get rid of it. This procedure may help, when the illness is not connected with damage to a specific organ, whereby the damage can naturally extend itself to all four parts of the elemental body: the solid, fluid, aeriform, and warmth elements. Although I do not say that it will invariably help, for there is always something problematic about these things.\n\nThrough the indications given him, the astral body of the patient has been stimulated. The indication which he has put into practice, this picturing of the sun, the warmth in his head, and so on, which has still further strengthened his will \u2014 this has worked upon his astral body. The astral body has worked upon his etheric body and the etheric body in turn has worked in a healing way on his physical body and has been able to adjust, to nullify the trouble which is not a deep, organic one. It cannot be said that such healing can only occur in what modern medicine calls \u201cfunctional\u201d disturbance in contrast to organic disturbance where there is an actual disturbance of the organs themselves. This difference is, as a matter of fact, quite inexact. It is impossible to say where functional disturbances cease and organic disturbances begin. In functional diseases there are always slight organic disturbances as well, only these latter cannot be proved by the crude methods of physiology and pathology today. In a case like that which I have described, we are not applying the forces of magnetic healing, but we are calling upon the patient's power to heal himself and this method, when it can be used, is the best, under all circumstances. We thereby strengthen the patient's will, as we make him well.\n\nThe following is also possible. Out of our own astral body, without the patient exerting his own will, we can influence our own etheric body in such a way that our own etheric body works upon the etheric body of the patient in the same way as, in the previous case, the astral body worked. It is in this that healing magnetism consists. The magnetic healer does this unconsciously; he influences his own etheric body with his astral body. Instinctively, he can then so direct the forces he unfolds that as he passes them on to the patient they strengthen the patient's forces. You must realize that if it is to be a question of healing, the magnetic healer must use means that are able, somehow, to bring it about. If we have a patient who is weak, of whose will we can expect nothing, the forces of healing magnetism may sometimes be applied. But I want to say, with emphasis, that magnetic healing forces are pretty problematical and are not equally useful in all cases. The instinctive faculty of activating one's own astral body in order thereby to influence one's own etheric body and then work over into the etheric body of the patient \u2014 this instinctive faculty is an individual one. There are people in whom it is strong, others in whom it is weak, others who do not possess it at all. There are people who are, by nature, magnetic healers \u2014 certainly there are. But the important thing is this, that the faculty is, as a rule, of limited duration. The natural magnetic healers have this magnetism, as it is called. When they begin to apply it, it may work very well; after a time it begins to wane, and later on it often happens that magnetic healers, after this faculty has died down in them, go on acting as if they still had it, and then charlatanism begins.\n\nThis is the precarious element when magnetic healing becomes a profession. This kind of healing really cannot be made into a profession. That is what must be said about it. The process of magnetic healing \u2014 when a person has the faculty for it \u2014 is only unconditionally effective when it is carried out with genuine compassion for the patient, a compassion that goes right down into one's organism. If you practice magnetic healing with a real love for the patient, then it cannot be done as a profession. If real love exists it will always be able to lead to something good, if no trouble arises from another side. But it can only be done on occasions, when karma leads us to a person whom we are able, out of love, to help; then the outer sign may be a laying on of the hand, or a stroking and then what is happening is that the astral body is passing on its forces to the etheric body which then works upon the ether body of the other person.\n\nSomething must still be said from another aspect about what goes on here. The healing always proceeds from the astral body, either from the patient's own astral body or from the astral body of the magnetizer. The reverse is the case in therapy where medicaments are used. When you give medicaments you introduce into the physical body substances which then work partly upon the inner forces and partly upon the rhythm of the physical body in such a way that the etheric body of the patient is influenced. The healing always proceeds from the etheric body. If you influence the etheric body from the astral body \u2014 which is a psychical healing \u2014 this lies in the realm of magnetic healing and is somewhat problematic, having a humanitarian, social element in it, something to do with the relations of one human being to another. Rational therapy must proceed from intervention by means of medicaments which proceed from the physical body and pass into to the etheric body. Always, however, the healing proceeds from the etheric body. It is a complete illusion that the physical body, when it has become ill, can itself bring about any healing. The physical body has, precisely, the basis of illness within it, and the cause of healing must always come from the etheric body.\n\nQuestion: What relationships are there between the heart and the uterus and its position on the one hand, and experiences of the soul such as pain or joy, on the other?\n\nThere are direct relationships. In the first place, even though they are not in physical contact, heart and uterus belong together as closely as sun and moon. Sun and moon belong together in such a way that both of them throw the same light on an object. Sometimes the sun throws the light directly, at other times by the indirect way of passing first to the moon and being reflected back from there. The organ of the heart contains direct impulses for the human organism. It is the organ of perception for the blood circulation which goes on in the normal organism. The uterus is so constituted that it is the organ of perception for the circulation that comes about after fertilization. That is its purpose. It is just like the moon reflecting the sun's light; the uterus reflects what the heart perceives in the blood circulation; it radiates it back. They belong together as sun and moon inasmuch as what these organs perceive are like direct and reflected influences. When a human being is once in existence, he needs the heart forces; when he first begins to develop he needs reflected heart force and this comes from the uterus.\n\nThese organs, together with certain others \u2014 lungs bring it more down to the etheric-physical body \u2014 these organs, heart and uterus, are, physically, nothing else than that which, seen from the spiritual, is the soul nature of the human being. Perhaps I may put it as follows \u2014 suppose you develop imaginative cognition. When you have developed imaginative cognition and look at a human being, you actually get the picture of sun and moon when you look at heart and uterus. That is the corresponding spiritual reality which the human being experiences in his soul. There is a real correspondence between what goes on in the heart and in the uterus \u2014 goes on, that is, in the half-unconscious region of the soul, for generally speaking, the life of soul is otherwise influenced by thoughts. A delicate process is unveiled in imaginative cognition, namely, an intimate connection of heart and uterus. But those who can only observe a little, can see how, half-consciously or half-unconsciously, shall I say, the activity of the heart develops under the influence of the physical environment. A person whose life is such that he constantly\nreceives shocks through his profession, let us say, has in his subconsciousness an exact counterpart in his life of soul of the heart activity which is there set up, and this reflects itself \u2014 in the case of woman \u2014 in the uterus. We can then see how what takes place there is transferred to the constitution of the embryo.\n\nQuestion: Here is a question that is difficult to answer because it must either be answered superficially, that is to say as a mere communication, or one must go into it thoroughly. The question is: How does the wearing of pearls and precious stones work upon individual organs?\n\nThere is an effect, certainly, but the effect can only be judged when one is able to look into the spiritual world; the effect has to be judged according to the individual. It can quite well be said, for example: Sapphire works upon a certain temperament, upon a choleric temperament, but really only in an individual case. There certainly are effects but to answer the question completely one would have to enter into deeper things than is possible today.\n\nQuestion: This next question: \u201cHow can one get insight into karma in cases of individual illness?\u201d can only be answered out of what I have said in the lectures.\n\nMuch will have resulted from what has been said and much will come out of what I still have to say.\n\nQuestion: Here is another: Are there favorable connections between the degree and length of time of the post-mortem processes of decay (Verwesungsvorg\u00e4nge = processes of decay) and the destiny of the individual in the spiritual world?\n\nThere are really no connections which would have any significance for us as human beings. The process of decay is not, of course, the purely physical process which it is usually considered to be by chemistry. There is something deeply spiritual connected with it. This was felt in the days of the old, instinctive knowledge. It was said: The innermost kernel, or essence, of a thing is the real or essential being (Wesen) and the prefix ver always means the movement towards something. If, for example, you say, \u201cto have a sudden rapid movement (zucken),\u201d that is a movement. But if you say verz\u00fccken, that is the tendency, the movement towards a sudden rapid movement. If you say verwesen (to decay), this means a movement towards Wesen, towards real being, a rising into real being.\n\nMan is not an entirely self-enclosed being. Spiritual beings work and create in him. Spiritual beings are within our physical, etheric and astral bodies. It is only in the ego organization that we are free. These spiritual beings within the physical, etheric, and astral bodies are bound up with what happens in the physical body after death. The question of cremation and decay is closely connected with this. But all these things are bound up with human karma. One can only say this: So far as the individual human being as such is concerned the question is really not of very great importance.\n\nQuestion: Has a post-mortem examination any influence on the destiny of the dead from a certain point of time after death?\n\nIt has no influence at all upon the destiny of the dead.\n\nMost of the questions have been answered in the lectures. But here is still one that has a certain importance.\n\nQuestion: Are the healing faculties possessed by a physician of a purely personal nature or are they affected by community, that is to say, not only by connections between physician and patient but by community among physicians? Is it conceivable that the individual physician could acquire, through such community, powers that cannot be his if he works all by himself? Does not this happen, for example, in the communities of priests?\n\nThis is certainly the case, as it is with all communities of human beings. Forces can flow to an individual from every community of human beings, only the community must be real \u2014 it must be felt, experienced. What I have described to you and shall do more clearly still tomorrow is of such a nature that it can build a community among you in connection with us here, even if for the present we can only communicate by means of correspondence. It is meant to unite you in such a way that when you are alone, you will feel that forces flow to you not only by way of the intellectual, but also by way of the spirit.\n\nQuestion: Is there any value in iris diagnosis, graphology, chiromancy?\n\nThe ideal would be that you should be able to observe the general state of a human being from a small piece of his finger nail which you cut off. This is quite possible \u2014 a very great deal can be learned from this. Equally you can learn a great deal from one hair of a human being. But here you must remember how different, how individual is the hair of each person. Some of you are fair, some of you have black hair. What underlies this? Those of you who are dark have in the blackness of the hair an iron process which is going on in the hair. Blondeness comes from a sulfur process which is particularly strong in those people who have red hair. These things are of the very greatest interest. I have actually known people of whom it could be said that they were really fiery, with their bright red hair. A very strong sulfur process is present here, whereas in black hair there is a comparatively strong iron process. You must remember that this emanates from the whole human organism. A person who has red hair is always producing something that is a highly combustible substance \u2014 sulfur \u2014 and his hair is permeated with it. The other person who has black hair secretes iron \u2014 a substance that is not combustible but of a different character. This reveals a deep-seated difference between the two people in their whole organization. In individual cases, much can be learned about the whole human being from the kind of hair he has.\n\nIf this is so, why should it not be possible to learn about a person from the constitution of his iris? But you must remember that a very high form of knowledge is required for these things, not the nonsensical knowledge which the diagnosticians possess about the iris. That, of course, is dilettantism. The way to real knowledge of these things which rest on true foundations comes only at the end, just as the way to astrology comes only at the last stages of spiritual knowledge. Before that stage has been reached, astrology is terrible dilettantism. The same applies to chiromancy and graphology.\n\nFor graphology, genuine inspiration is necessary. The way a human being writes is entirely individual. At the very most there are indications, but they are quite crude. Inspiration is necessary before anything about a human being can be deduced by graphology. The strange thing about graphology is that from the handwriting of a person we can more or less get at the condition he was in seven years previously. Anyone, therefore, who wants to know something about a person as he is now, will have to take a circuitous path; he gets at the inner conditions which were there seven years previously and then, if he has the necessary vision, from what he perceives of seven years ago, he can arrive at a more fundamental knowledge than would otherwise be possible. So, you see, something can actually be accomplished.\n\nAs it is with the hair and the iris, so it is with chiromancy. For that you must have inspiration \u2014 not the superficial principles that are customarily given. A very special talent which someone or other may possess is necessary in order to be able to get to the bottom of the lines in the hand. The lines are, it is true, closely connected with the development of a human being. You need only compare your own hands and look at the lines in the left hand and in the right. Even in ordinary life there is a difference, for one person writes with his right hand, another with his left. With inspiration we can read the karma of a person from the lines in his left hand. In the right hand one usually sees the personal capacities and industriousness which a person has acquired during this life. His destiny has fashioned this earth life and his capacities lead him on into the future. None of these things is without foundation, but it is exceedingly dangerous to represent them in public because here we come to a region where seriousness and charlatanism border very closely upon each other.\n\nAt the end of the lecture yesterday, I said that out of the very nature of the world processes, medicine must be bound up with deep-seated morality of the soul. For I told you that real, true knowledge of a medicament to a certain extent deprives the knower himself of the power of this medicament; there is something in the knowledge of the medicament which excludes from the knower the possibility of being healed by its means. Naturally, the purely chemical working is not excluded, but that is not real knowledge. Just think of the following\u2014the muscular system of man is understood through imagination, as I said yesterday. We learn to know what is working in a muscle when we attain to pictorial, imaginative cognition. But if we want to know what has a healing effect in some organ that is of the nature of a muscle, then the therapeutic knowledge must also be imaginative. True knowledge of an inner organ is of the nature of inspiration; that is the real knowledge; it is not chemical knowledge. If you really know that some medicament works upon the muscular system in a certain way, then you have this knowledge through imagination. Yes, but imaginative knowing is not like the knowing which we usually visualize today. The latter kind of knowing does not go very deeply into the human being. It really exists only in the head, whereas imaginative knowing simultaneously takes hold of the muscular system. Therapeutic knowledge that is also imaginative is of such a nature that you actually feel this knowledge in your muscles. What matters is that you shall take these things in real earnestness.\n\nIn order that you may fully understand, I want to say something paradoxical on this subject, but the paradox here happens to be the truth. My Philosophy of Spiritual Activity has been little understood because people have not known how to read it. They have read it just as they would read any other book. But the Philosophy of Spiritual Activity is not the same as other books. It weaves in thoughts, but in thoughts that are truly experienced. Abstract, logical thoughts such as are current in science today are experienced in the brain. The thoughts to which I have given expression in my Philosophy of Spiritual Activity \u2014 and here comes the paradox \u2014 are experienced by one's whole being, in the bony system. And let me say something still stranger. It has happened\u2014only people have not noticed it because they did not connect the two things \u2014 it has happened that when people have really understood this book that often in the course of reading, and especially when they have finished the book, they have more than once dreamed of skeletons. This is connected in the moral sphere, with the position of the Philosophy of Spiritual Activity in regard to the freedom of the world.\n\nFreedom, or spiritual activity, consists in this: that from out the bones the muscles are moved in the external world. The unfree person follows his impulses and instincts; the free person directs himself in accordance with the demands and exigencies of the world which he must first love. He must acquire a relationship to the world. This expresses itself in the imagination of the bony system. Inwardly, it is the bony system that experiences the thoughts when they are truly experienced. They are experienced with the whole being, with the whole of the earthy man. Thoughts, then, that are truly experienced, are experienced with the bony system. There have been people who wanted to paint pictures after reading my books and they have shown me all kinds of things. They have wanted to bring the thoughts in the Philosophy of Spiritual Activity into the form of pictures. If one really wants to paint what it contains, one would have to produce dramatic scenes, performed by human skeletons. Free spiritual activity is something in which we must get rid of everything that is purely instinctive; similarly, what a person experiences when he has the thoughts of free spiritual activity is something in which he must unburden himself of his flesh and blood; he must become a skeleton, he must become of the earth. The thoughts must become earthy in the true sense. This means that one must free oneself by dint of hard work.\n\nI mention this in order that you may realize that even ordinary thoughts generate something that lays hold of the whole being of man.\n\nIf we pass on from thoughts to imagination, we experience imagination in the muscular system. Inspiration is experienced when we experience our own inner organs. When it is a matter of inspirations, however, we must not forget the saying: Naturalia non sunt turpia (the natural is not despicable). For under certain circumstances, the most wonderful inspirations are experienced with the kidneys or with other organs in the lower part of the body.\n\nHigher knowledge, therefore, is something that involves the whole being of man, and those who have no knowledge of imaginations and inspirations do not know that the activity of imagination is a labor that is quite like physical labor because it puts a strain on the very muscles. Real imagination is like actual physical labor. There is a relationship between physical labor and imagination. If I may be allowed to say something personal, I have always found that imagination was helped a great deal by the fact that when I was a boy, I used to hack wood, dig potatoes, work with a spade, sow seed, and such things. I do not want to blow my own trumpet by saying this, but to have done these things did help to exert the muscles and so made imagination easier. If you have exerted the muscles in youth, imagination will be easier for you in later life. But remember this: movements that do not involve exertion, that are not real labor, are of no use, play is of no use at all for imagination. I am not saying anything against play in itself, for you need only read what I say about educational subjects to find that I have nothing whatever against play. What imagination does is to bring the resting muscle\u2014for this must naturally take place while the muscle is at rest \u2014 to bring the resting muscle to an experience that is similar to actual physical labor.\n\nIf you embark on the medical path in association with us here, you will learn about these strange things and you will realize that the knowledge of these therapeutic matters takes hold of your muscular system; and this will be of significance in your own karma.\n\nLet us take a specific case. I will construct quite an idealistic one\u2014the true therapy of smallpox. Real smallpox calls up a very strong inspiration, with intuition as well. And the knowledge that comes to you here, when you are real therapists in this domain, works much more strongly upon you \u2014 when it is real knowledge \u2014 does a vaccination; in a different sense it works much more strongly, and in studying the therapy of smallpox as a physician you will bring about a kind of healing in yourself in advance, prophylactically, and will therefore be able, when you understand the connection, to go among smallpox patients without fear, and full of love.\n\nOf course all these things have their other side too. As I have said, if the knowledge of a medicament is a true imaginative or inspired knowledge, then the healing forces are there; it need not even be one's own imagination, it may be that of someone else. In itself it has healing forces. Even to have the idea of a medicament has an effect, and it works. But it works only so long as you are without fear. Fear is the opposite pole to love. If you go into a sick room with fear, none of your therapeutic measures will help. If you can go into a sick room with love, without thought of yourself, if you can direct the whole of your soul to those whom you have to heal, if you can live in love, in your imaginative and inspired knowledge, then you will be able to place yourselves within the process of healing not as a knower who is a bearer of fear, but as a knower who is a bearer of love.\n\nThus medicine is impelled into the realm of the moral not only from without but also from within. This is true to a high degree in the sphere of medicine, as it is true in all spheres of spiritual knowledge. Courage must be developed. I have told you that courage is all around us. Air is an illusion; it is courage that is everywhere around us. If we are really to live in the world in which we breathe, we need courage. If we are timid or cowardly, if we do not live together with the world but exclude ourselves from it, we breathe only in semblance. What is above all things for medicine is courage, the courage to heal. It is indeed so: if you confront an illness with the courage to heal, this is the right orientation which in ninety percent of cases leads you right. These moral qualities are most intimately connected with the process of healing.\n\nThus it should be as I have said: A first course for medical students should consist in creating a basis through knowledge of nature and of the being of man, knowledge of the cosmos as well as of man. Then, in a second course, there would come the esoteric deepening, the deepening of esoteric knowledge of the working of the healing forces, so that medicine would be regarded as I described in the fourth lecture and will speak of again tomorrow. A final course would aim at bringing therapy into connection with the development of the true moral faculties of the physician. If such a final course were able to produce these moral qualifications, then diseases would become, for the physician, the opposite of what they are for the patients; they would become something that he loves \u2014 not, of course, in order to be enhanced and cultivated so that the patient may remain ill as long as possible \u2014 but loved because illness only acquires its meaning when it is healed. What does this mean?\n\nTo be healthy means to have the so-called 'normal' qualities of soul and spirit within one; to be ill, to have some illness, however, also means that one is being influenced by some spiritual quality. I know, of course, that learned men of the modern age will say, on hearing this: \"Ah, now comes the old doctrine of being possessed.\" Yes, but it is really a question whether the old doctrine of being possessed is worse than the new. Which is worse\u2014to be possessed by spirits or by bacilli? It is a matter there of examining the relative values. Modern physicians with their theories acknowledge the fact of such \"possession\"\u2014only their mentality is more suited to preach a materialistic kind of possession.\n\nThe truth is that when a person has an illness, he has a spiritual quality within him which, in the ordinary course of his life, is not present. Yet it is a spiritual quality. Here again I must voice a paradox. I am going to speak now of a reality in connection with the Zodiac: Aries, Taurus, Gemini, Cancer, Leo, Virgo, Libra, Scorpio, Sagittarius, Capricorn, Aquarius, Pisces. Now there is a colossal difference between these upper seven constellations and the five lower constellations. If you can reach to imagination, you get a picture of a male being in the cosmos for these seven upper constellations, and the picture of a female being for the five lower constellations. So that in imaginative vision, male-female in an enclosed serpent form is spread over the Zodiac.\n\nNobody can have this imagination without going through the following experience. Think of the illness of smallpox which reveals itself in physical symptoms. But suppose you were able to do the following: picture to yourselves a person suffering from smallpox who in his astral body and ego organization had the power today to draw out the whole illness and to experience it only in the astral body and in the ego, so that in that moment his physical and etheric bodies would be well. Suppose such a thing were hypothetically possible. What I have said cannot actually happen, but if you want to have this imagination you must do the same thing as I have described as a hypothetical case, without your physical body and etheric body having smallpox. In the astral body and ego organization, free from the physical and etheric bodies, you must experience the illness of smallpox. In other words: you must experience, spiritually, a spiritual correlate of physical illness. The illness of smallpox is the physical image of the condition in which ego organization and astral body are when they have such an imagination. You will realize now that in smallpox there is proceeding, but in this case from the human being himself, the same influence out of which, in spiritual knowledge, the heavenly imagination comes.\n\nYou see, my dear friends, how closely illness is related to the spiritual life \u2014 not to the physical body; illness is closely related to the spiritual life. Illness is the physical imagination of the spiritual life and because the physical imagination is in the wrong, because it ought not to imitate certain spiritual processes \u2014 therefore that which in the spiritual world may be something very sublime, is, under certain circumstances, illness in the physical organization.\n\nIn trying to understand the nature of illness we must say to ourselves: Were it not possible for certain spiritual beings to be brought down into a realm where they do not rightly belong, then these beings would not be present even in the spiritual world. The close relationship of true spiritual knowledge with illness is clear from this. When we have spiritual knowledge we have knowledge of illness. If one has a heavenly imagination such as that of which I spoke, one knows what smallpox is, because it is only the physical projection of what is experienced spiritually. And so it is, really, with all knowledge of illness. We can say: If heaven, or indeed hell, take too strong a hold of the human being, he becomes ill; if they only take hold of his soul or his spirit, he becomes wiser, or cleverer, or a seer.\n\nThese are things which you must inwardly digest, my dear friends, and then you will realize what the task of Anthroposophy is in connection with medicine, for Anthroposophy reveals the true, divine archetypes of the illnesses which are their demonic counterparts. But this can lead you more and more deeply to the recognition that what is necessary today as a reform of medical study is to be sought in the domain of Anthroposophy.\n\nLast Modified: 31-Mar-2020\nThe Rudolf Steiner Archive is maintained by:\nThe e.Librarian: elibrarian@elib.com |
__label__positive wood burning stoves 2.0\nThe moose likes Programmer Certification (SCJP/OCPJP) and the fly likes About principal characteristics of OOP Big Moose Saloon\nRegister / Login\n\nBookmark \"About principal characteristics of OOP\" Watch \"About principal characteristics of OOP\" New topic\n\nAbout principal characteristics of OOP\n\nJack Lau\nRanch Hand\n\nJoined: Aug 30, 2002\nPosts: 166\nHello all,\nThe following question is from www.jchq.net\nName three principal characteristics of Object Oriented programming?\n1) encapsulation, dynamic binding, polymorphism\n2) polymorphism, overloading, overriding\n3) encapsulation, inheritance, dynamic binding\n4) encapsulation, inheritance, polymorphism\nThe answer is 4\nI know 4 is a correct answer, but I don't understand why 3 is not correct.\nLate binding, dynamic binding and polymorphism are not the same ?\nThanks in advance!\nBikhu Matre\n\nJoined: Nov 14, 2003\nPosts: 7\nTry this.\nvani vani\n\nJoined: Nov 19, 2003\nPosts: 1\nStatic binding means that the function being called is determined as the program is compiled\nDynamic binding is the opposite of static binding. The binding decision is delayed until runtime. This allows you to add components to your program while it is still running. If the runtime environment is designed to support this (and Rhapsody should be), it opens up a lot of interesting possibilities.\n\nThe C++ language supports a limited version of dynamic binding called late binding. In C++, a function call must type-match exactly the called function (called static typing) or else type-match exactly an inherited function. Though C++ virtual functions allow you to delay the binding until runtime, the type constraints still apply. Late binding is still restricted. Dynamic binding is unconstrained.\nAnupreet Arora\nRanch Hand\n\nJoined: Jun 17, 2003\nPosts: 81\nI believe that polymorphism is a broader term, which groups the concepts of dynamic binding, static binding, super class variables to access sub class objects, overriding, dynamic method dispatch etc.\nAnd Ans C is correct because its Polymorphism that is one of the pillars of OOPs and not just dynamic binding.\nComments are welcome.\nAnupreet Arora\nRanch Hand\n\nJoined: Jun 17, 2003\nPosts: 81\nCorrection : Ans D\nsubject: About principal characteristics of OOP\nIt's not a secret anymore! |
__label__positive HIS - Exam 3 Flashcards.txt\n\nHome > Flashcards > Print Preview\n\n\n 1. Where is the Congo River?\n Goes through Congo and the Northern portion of The Congo Basin\n 2. Where is Mt. Kilimanjaro?\n In Tanzania near the coast\n 3. Where is the \u201cbackbone mountain range?\u201d\n Africa does not have one\n 4. Where is Victoria Falls?\n Border of Zambia, and Zimbabwe\n 5. Where is Lake Victoria?\n Middle of Tanzania, Kenya and Uganda\n 6. Where is Cape of Good Hope?\n The Southern-most tip of Africa\n 7. Where is the Horn of Africa?\n The pointed coast area of Somalia\n 8. What is the capital of Nigeria?\n 9. What is the capital of South Africa?\n 10. What is the capital of Ethiopia?\n Abbis Ababa\n 11. What is the capital of Uganda?\n 12. What is the capital of Kenya?\n 13. What is the capital of Tanzania?\n 14. What is the capital of Zimbabwe?\n 15. What is the capital of Rwanda?\n 16. Where are the Atlas Mtns?\n Northern Africa on the coast near Spain\n 17. Where is the Sahara Desert?\n All of Northern Africa\n 18. Where is the Nile River?\n Goes through Egypt\n 19. Where is the Jordan River?\n Eastern border of Israel\n 20. Where is the Tigris River?\n East of Baghdad (In Iraq)\n 21. Where is the Euphrates River?\n West of Baghdad (In Iraq)\n 22. Where is the Red Sea?\n Between North Africa and Saudi Arabia (Southwest Asia/Middle East)\n 23. Where is the Persian Gulf?\n Between Saudi Arabia and Iran\n 24. Where is the Dead Sea?\n Borders Jordan on the East and Israel on the West (dumps into Red Sea)\n 25. Where is the Negev Desert?\n Central Israel\n 26. Where is Sudan?\n West of Ethiopia and the Red Sea\n 27. What is the capital of (South) Sudan?\n 28. Where is Darfur?\n Western border of Sudan\n 29. Where is Turkey?\n South of the Black Sea\n 30. What is the capital of Turkey?\n 31. What is the capital of Saudi Arabia?\n 32. What are the European Colonial Objectives? (4)\n -A port along the West African coast, -A water route to South Asia and Southeast Asia, -Resources and slaves (1500's), -Mineral resources and markets (1850s)\n 33. What was Belgium's role in colonialism?\n -King Leopold II gains Congo, -Signed \"agreements\" with chiefs, -Took hostages and money to enforce quotas of rubber, -King had a private army in the region to enforce his policies, -led to first major 20th cent. \"human rights\" movement, -8-10 mill dead, Congo still feels effects\n 34. Where was direct rule colonialism happening?\n France and Germany\n 35. In direct rule colonialism, who ruled?\n Imported nationals to rule\n 36. How did direct rule colonialism affect Africa(ns)?\n Made them \"French-like,\" ex: language, food, etc., and assimilated them and became part of \"Greater France\"\n 37. What affects did indirect rule have on the British?\n Used local language, created \"states,\" used locals to establish if possible, and defeated most popular ruler but kept his system\n 38. What affect did colonialism policies have on Portugal?\n \"Exploitation:\" first to enslave and colonize, one of the last to grant independence, maintained rigid control, raw resource oriented\n 39. How has colonialism affected religion in Islam?\n Becomes suppressed so it becomes \"rebellious\" against the Europeans\n 40. How has colonialism affected religion in West and South Africa?\n Christianity still growing w/more \"home grown\" versions\n 41. What affect did nationalism have?\n Pan-African view (result of colonialism), created nations out of previously \"disorganized\" lands\n 42. What is the Pan-African view?\n Result of colonialism, a movement that seeks to unify all African people into one African community\n 43. What are the great diseases of Africa?\n Malaria, yellow fever, AIDS, river blinds, sleeping sickness, bilharzia\n 44. What is an endemic?\n within a population (ex: chickenpox)\n 45. What is an epidemic?\n sudden outbreak at local, regional scale\n 46. What is a pandemic?\n Worldwide spread\n 47. What is the dominant language in 16 States of the realm?\n 48. What is oil's impact?\n Standard of living, Modernization, Regional disparities, Foreign investment, Political upheaval and strategic importance\n 49. What makes Israel different?\n Modern day Israel is a state that was created and and set up by Europe and given to the Jews.\n 50. Israeli-Palestinian conflict?\n Israel isn't considered a legit state by the Middle East which causes conflict, The Palestinians held the territory (modern Israel) prior to it being given to the Israelis so they weren't and still are not happy about it so there is constant fighting. Key issues are: mutual recognition, borders, security, water rights, control of Jerusalem, Israeli settlements, Palestinian freedom of movement and legalities concerning refugees\n 51. Struggle for Jerusalem?\n Jerusalem is a holy city that is important to both judaism (old capital, 1st & 2nd temples) and islam (Muhammad ascends into Heaven), so both the Israelis and the Palestinians REALLY want control of it.\n 52. What is the Fertile Crescent?\n Nicknamed the \"Cradle of Civilization:\" region containing the comparatively moist and fertile land of otherwise arid and semi-arid Western Asia; includes: Mesopotamia, the land around the Tigris and Euphrates River, the major nation is Iraq, & portions of Iran\n 53. 6 day war?\n (1967) Israel gains: Arab-Israeli conflict\n 54. Islam?\n Islam = \u201csubmission to God,\u201d Civil war between Muhammad\u2019s descendants (Shi\u2019ites) and the Umayyads (Sunnis), Shi\u2019ites eventually win and move capital to Baghdad, while Sunnis settle in Damascus, muhammad is way to Allah, works based, and the Five Pillars\n 55. Muslim?\n Muslim = \u201cone who surrenders,\u201d muslim sources: Q'uran and Hadith or Sunnah\n 56. What are the occupied territories of Israel?\n Golan Heights, West Bank, Gaza Strip\n 57. Zionism?\n Pogroms, Theodor Herzl,homeland\n 58. Balfour Declaration?\n Immigration to Palestine\n 59. War of Independence?\n (1948) Israel seizes more land\n 60. Armistice?\n (1949) 900,000 Palestinian \"Refugees\"\n 61. UN Partition Plan?\n Jewish and Arab, Economic union, British leave in 1948, Israel as a State (May 14, 1948)\n\nCard Set Information\n\nHIS - Exam 3 Flashcards.txt\n2011-11-03 01:22:43\n\nAfrica, Middle East\nShow\u00a0Answers:\n\nWhat would you like to do?\n\nHome > Flashcards > Print Preview |
__label__positive Honors Biology - Unit 2-1-2.1 Unit Systems test\n\nThe flashcards below were created by user veiwsonic2 on FreezingBlue Flashcards.\n\n 1. What are the five characteristics of life?\n \u2022 1. Cellular Respiration\n \u2022 2. Metabolism\n \u2022 3. Responsiveness\n \u2022 4. Growth and Development\n \u2022 5. Reproduction\n \u2022 (CMRGR)\n 2. What are the simplest organisms? (Think number of cells)\n 3. What are complex organisms (Think number of cells)\n Multi-celled with cells that have CELL SPECIALIZATION.\n 4. Name some unicellular organisms;\n bacteria, SOME protists (protozoans, phytoplankton), yeast\n 5. Name some complex organisms;\n Animals, plants, fungi, SOME protists (algae)\n 6. What is the order of the organization of life from smallest to largest?\n \u2022 -Atoms\n \u2022 -Biological macro-molecules\n \u2022 -Organelles\n \u2022 -Cells\n \u2022 -Tissues\n \u2022 -Organs\n \u2022 -Organ systems\n \u2022 -Organisms\n \u2022 (A bad orc could toast other obese orcs)\n 7. Name some biological macro-molecules\n \u2022 -Proteins\n \u2022 -Lipids\n \u2022 -Carbohydrates\n \u2022 -Nucleic acid\n 8. Name some organelles\n \u2022 -nucleus\n \u2022 -ribosomes\n \u2022 -mitochondria\n 9. Name some kinds of cells\n \u2022 -Muscle cells\n \u2022 -Nerve cells\n 10. Name some types of tissues\n \u2022 -Nerve tissue\n \u2022 -Wood tissue\n \u2022 -Parenchyma\n 11. Name some organs\n \u2022 -lung\n \u2022 -leaf\n \u2022 -root\n 12. Name some organ systems\n \u2022 -Cardiovascular system\n \u2022 -Muscular system\n \u2022 -Nervous system\n \u2022 -Root system\n 13. What is a stimulus?\n A change in an environment that causes a response\n 14. Give some examples of stimuli\n Temperature, pH, or acidity changes\n 15. What is a response?\n A reaction to a stimulus\n 16. Why does an organism have a response to stimuli?\n Because organisms want to maintain homeostasis\n 17. What is homeostasis?\n A steady state of unchanging, stable internal conditions\n 18. What systems figure out the stimulus and form a response?\n The nervous and endocrine systems\n 19. What is regulation?\n All processes which help an organism to maintain homeostasis\n 20. What is evolution?\n A long term response to environmental stimuli; species adapt and change in response to challenging environmental conditions\n 21. Give an example of evolution\n A food shortage -> Organism starts to eat a new kind of food -> Body slowly changes in order to obtain food\n 22. How to unicellular organisms grow and develop?\n They increase in size (grow in individual cell volume)\n 23. How to multicellular organisms grow and develop?\n They increase in the number of cells and their cells increase in volume\n 24. What is cell division called?\n 25. In growth and development of organisms, there is a balance between what two things having to do with cells?\n # of cells that die and # of cells reproduced\n 26. Wat is development?\n Changes that an organism goes through as it reaches mature adult form\n 27. What are the 9 stages of development?\n \u2022 1. Zygote\n \u2022 2. Morula (32)\n \u2022 3. Blastula (Hollow; in uterus wall)\n \u2022 4. Gastrula (MANY layers)\n \u2022 5. Embryo\n \u2022 6. Fetus\n \u2022 7. Newborn\n \u2022 8. Child\n \u2022 9. Adult\n 28. What are telomeres?\n The protective tips at the ends of strands of DNA\n 29. Is reproduction necessary to the life of an individual?\n 30. Is reproduction essential for the species's creation of new organisms?\n Heck, yeah!\n 31. What is A-sexual reproduction?\n One parent, NO genetic variation, ENERGETICALLY INEXPENSIVE\n 32. What is sexual reproduction?\n Two parents, genetic variation, ENERGETICALLY EXPENSIVE\n 33. What is the difference between sexual and a-sexual reproduction?\n -A-sexual reproduction has one parent whereas sexual has two\n\n -A-sexual reproduction has absolutely NO genetic variation through the generations, whereas sexual has a fair amount of genetic variation\n\n -A-sexual reproduction is NOT energetically expensive, where sexual reproduction is\n 34. What is DNA?\n A molecule that caries an individual's genetic code and determines the organism's identity and physical traits\n 35. What is a gene?\n A specific region of DNS that causes the expression of a particular physical trait\n 36. What are some physical traits that genes can effect?\n Eye color, hair color, number of muscle cells, etc\n 37. What's the difference between a gene, DNA, and a chromosome?\n A gene is a specific section of DNA which is a molecule that carries genetic code. A chromosome is essentially a grouping of DNA\n 38. Image Upload\n What is number one representing?\n A Zygote\n 39. Image Upload\n What is number two representing?\n A Morula\n 40. Image Upload\n What is number three representing?\n A Blastula\n 41. Image Upload\n What is number four representing?\n A Gastrula\n 42. What is a chromosome?\n Thread-like structures of packaged DNA with a centromere as a center point, and two sets of \"arms;\" The\u00a0p arms, or shorter set of arms, and the\u00a0q arms, or the longer set of arms\n 43. What are muscle striations?\n On muscles, they appear as stripes on segments of the muscle cells, and they help for the muscle cells to be stronger\n 44. Is Skeletal muscle voluntary or involuntary>\n 45. Is skeletal muscle striated or non-striated?\n 46. Where is skeletal muscle found\n Attatched to the skeleton\n 47. What is the purpose of skeletal muscle\n Movement of the body\n 48. Is smooth muscle voluntary or involuntary?\n 49. Is smooth muscle striated or non-striated?\n 50. Where is smooth muscle found?\n On the walls of hollow organs or blood vessels\n 51. What is the purpose of smooth muscle?\n Involuntary movements such as peristalsis\n 52. What is peristalsis?\n The involuntary movement that is a wave of contractions; ie peristalsis is used to squish/push food from the mouth to the stomach\n 53. Is cardiac muscle voluntary or involuntary?\n 54. Is cardiac muscle striated or non-striated?\n 55. Where is cardiac muscle found?\n The heart\n 56. What is the purpose of cardiac muscle?\n It causes contractions of the heart\n 57. Image Upload\n What kind of muscle is this?\n 58. What does smooth muscle look like?\n Oval-like things that just slightly overlap with nuclei anywhere\n 59. What does cardiac muscle look like?\n \"Random\" blobs with nuclei anywhere\n 60. What is an origin?\n A point where muscle attaches to the stationary bone (doesn't move during flexing)\n 61. What is the insertion?\n The point where muscle attaches to the moving bone. Muscles often work in antagonistic pairs at a joint\n 62. How to antagonistic pairs work?\n One muscle contracts to bend a joint and the other contracts to straighten the joint\n 63. What is a flexor?\n A muscle that bends the joing\n 64. What is an extensor?\n A muscle that straightens a joing\n 65. Image Upload\n Label the diagram\n Image Upload\n 66. What are the five functions of a skeletal system?\n \u2022 -Supports the entire body (fights gravity)\n \u2022 -Protects portions of the body\n \u2022 -Produces blood cells\n \u2022 -Stores calcium, a mineral which gives strength to bones (involved in muscular contractions and nerve functions)\n \u2022 -Provides a place for muscles to attach\n 67. What is the axial skeleton?\n The part of the skeleton that runs from the top of the head to the hips, containing the skull, vertebral column, and ribs (think central)\n 68. What is the appendicular skeleton?\n Bones that branch out from the axial skeleton, including the pelvis, scapula, clavicle, and bones of the arms and legs (think appendages)\n 69. Image Upload\n Label this Generalized Bone Structure Diagram\n Image Upload\n 70. True or false: Bone are not alive\n 71. What is the periosteum?\n THe touch membrane which covers the bone surface which contains many blood vessels and nerves\n 72. What is compact bone?\n The layer which is the hard part of the bone; contains \"Haversian\" canals\n 73. What are Haversian canals?\n Channels where blood vessels are found in compact bone\n 74. What is spongy bone?\n Hard, but not dense bone; makes bones light yet strong\n 75. What are the two types of blood marrow?\n Red and yellow marrow\n 76. Where is red marrow found?\n In spongy bones\n 77. What does red marrow do?\n It produces red blood cells and white blood cels\n 78. What is yellow marrow?\n consists of fat cells and acts as an energy reserve\n 79. What is ossification?\n The process of hardening cartilage into bone through the addition of minerals such as calcium\n 80. What is Cartilage?\n A type of flexible tissure\n 81. What does cartilage do?\n Provides support, flexibility, and cushioning\n 82. Where is cartilage found?\n In the nose, ears, between vertebrae, and in between bones in joints\n 83. What are joints?\n The location where to bones meet\n 84. What are the three types of joints?\n Fixed joints, semimovable joints, and movable joints\n 85. What are fixed joints?\n No movement where bones meet (ex. the skull)\n 86. What are semi-movable joints?\n joints that permit limited movement (ex. vertebral column and ribs)\n 87. What are movable joints?\n Joints that allow movement where bones meet\n 88. What are the five kinds of movable joints?\n \u2022 1. Hinge\n \u2022 2. Ball & socket\n \u2022 3. Pivot\n \u2022 4. Gliding\n \u2022 5. Saddle\n \u2022 (HBPGS)\n 89. What is a hinge joint (it's movable)\n A joint that moves back and forth (ex. elbow and knee\n 90. What is a ball and socket joint? (it's movable)\n A joint that rotates in a circle, up, down, forward, and backwards (ex. hip and shoulder)\n 91. What is a pivot joint? (it's movable)\n A joint that can move side to side and up and down (ex. top (1st and second vertebrae) of the vertaebral column)\n 92. What is a gliding joint? (it's movable)\n A joint which allows bones to slide over one another (ex. wrist and foot bones)\n 93. What is a saddle joint? (it's movable)\n A joint which allows to rotate the thumb and grasp objects\n 94. What is a ligament?\n A tough band of connective tissue which holds bones of a joint in place (BONE to BONE) (think of a GARMENT on a skeleton)\n 95. What is synovial fluid?\n A lubricating substance secreted by cells lining the surface of a joint\n 96. What is a tendon?\n Connective tissue which holds MUSCLE to a BONE (think that muscles TEND to get sore)\n 97. What is a hormone?\n a chemical secreted by an endocrine gland that specifically influences certain target cells (Hormones are the texts of the body)\n 98. What is the endocrine system?\n A system of glands that transmit chemical messages throughout the body\n 99. What are 7 examples of endocrine glands?\n \u2022 1. Pineal gland\n \u2022 2. Pituitary gland\n \u2022 3. Adrenal gland\n \u2022 4. Thyroid gland\n \u2022 5. Parathyroid gland\n \u2022 6. Ovaries/testes\n \u2022 7. Pancreas\n 100. Does it take a long or a short time for a message to be sent through the nervous system?\n a short time\n 101. Is the response of a nervous system message rapid or gradual?\n 102. What kinds of messages are sent through the nervous system?\n Electrochemical signals\n 103. Does it take a long or a short time for a message to be sent through the endocrine system?\n A long time (2-4 seconds)\n 104. Is the response of an endocrine system message rapid or gradual?\n Gradual over a couple of minutes\n 105. What kind of messages are sent through the endocrine system?\n Chemicals dissolved in blood\n 106. What is negative feedback?\n A change of bodily conditions outside the acceptable range that triggers an automatic response to maintain homeostasis\n 107. What is the Negative Feedback Mechanism/Loop?\n The release of a specific hormone that corrects or negates the original stimulus\n 108. Suppose the stimulus is you eat and your blood sugar level rises; form the negative feedback loop for this situation.\n \u2022 Normal blood sugar level\n \u2022 \"Eat!\"\n \u2022 Stimulus: blood sugar level rises\n \u2022 Receptor: pancreas\n \u2022 Control center: pancreas releases the hormone insulin\n \u2022 Effector: body cells open cell membranes to glucose\n \u2022 response: blood glucose lowers\n \u2022 Normal blood sugar level\n 109. What 3 things does the nervous system do?\n \u2022 -Senses changes in the environment\n \u2022 -Allows responses to stimuli\n \u2022 -Maintains homeostasis\n 110. What is the Central Nervous System (CNS comprised of?\n The brain in spinal chord\n 111. Name five functions of the brain\n \u2022 -Controls and coordinates voluntary muscular activity\n \u2022 -Think, learn, reason, and remember\n \u2022 -Receives input from sensory organs and responds\n \u2022 -Maintains balance\n \u2022 -Controls the movement of involuntary muscle\n 112. What is the Peripheral Nervous System comprised of?\n Nerve pathways outside of the CNS; made up of two divisions\n 113. What are the two divisions of the PNS?\n The sensory and motor divisions\n 114. What makes up the Sensory division of the PNS?\n Sensory receptors and neurons\n 115. What makes up the Motor division of the PNS?\n Motor neurons\n 116. What does the Sensory division of the PNS do?\n It acquires information from external and internal environments and relays it to the CNS\n 117. What are three types of Sensory neurons/nerve cells and what do they respond to?\n \u2022 Thermoreceptors - Changes in temperature\n \u2022 Pain receptors - Tissue damage\n \u2022 Mechanoreceptors - Movement and pressure\n 118. What does the Motor division of the PNS do?\n It conducts response of CNS to effectors and allows the body, through muscles and glands, to respond to sensory input; conducts electrochemical signals to muscles/glands\n 119. What is an effector?\n A muscle or gland stimulated by a neuron\n 120. What is a neurotransmitter?\n A chemical released by axon terminals that diffuse and carry the neuron's signal across the synapse\n 121. What does a cell body contain?\n The nucleus and organelles\n 122. What are dendrites?\n Membrane-bound extensions from the cell body that receive signals from other nerve cells\n 123. What is an axon?\n A long, membrane-bound projection that transmits signals away from the cell body\n 124. What is the axon terminal?\n The end of the axon which may stimulate a muscle, gland, or another nerve cell\n 125. What is the myelin sheath?\n A lipid layer around most nerve cells that insulates and speeds the transmission of electrochemical signals\n 126. Draw a reflex arc of someone stubbing their toe\n Image Upload\n 127. Label the diagram\n\n Image Upload\n Image Upload\nCard Set:\nHonors Biology - Unit 2-1-2.1 Unit Systems test\n2014-10-16 22:38:19\nHonors Biology Unit Systems test\n\nTest #1 on the Muscular and Skeletal System, the Muscular Movement of Bone, Nerves, and Characteristics of Life. ADD NERVOUS SYSTEM NOTES TO THIS.\nShow\u00a0Answers: |
__label__positive Mindterm 1 Flashcards Preview\n\nBIOL 331 > Mindterm 1 > Flashcards\n\nFlashcards in Mindterm 1 Deck (74):\n\nDescribe gated transport\n\nthe active transport of specific macromolecules through selective gates (such us the nuclear pore) and permits the free diffusion of small molecules b/w topologically equivalent spaces\n\n\nDescribe protein translocation\n\ntransmembrane protein translocators transport a protein into a across a membrane into a topologically distinct space. usually has to be unfolded. used to form integral proteins\n\n\nDescribe vesicular transport\n\nmembrane enclosed transport vesicles (can be small and circular or large and irregular) transport protein to a topologically equivalent compartment.\n\n\nDifferentiable b/w signal sequence, peptidase, and patch\n\na signal sequence is a stretch of 15-60 AA specifying a specific place in the cell; once sorting is complete it is cleaved by a specialized signal peptidase,\nsignal patches are formed by from internal signal squences that when folded create a 3D patch (used in nuclear import and vesicular transport)\n\n\nWhat signal sequence is used to return proteins to the ER\n\nKDEL at the C-terminus\n\n\nDifferentiate b/w the nuclear envelope, the inner membrane and the outer membrane\n\nthe nuclear envelope encloses DNA and defines the nuclear compartment, consists of two consecutive and continuous membranes with very different protein constituents, is penetrated by the nuclear pore. INM has binding sites of the chromosomes and for the nuclear lamina. ONM is continuous with the ER and contains ribosomes that secrete proteins into the perinuclear space.\n\n\nWhat is the nuclear pore complex and nucleoporin?\n\nthe NPC is is a pore in the NM that acts for active selective transport and free diffusion of small molecules. Nucleoporins are the proteins that make up NPC.\n\n\nWhat is the Nuclear Localization Sequence?\n\na signal sequence - consisting of one or two K and R residues, can be found anywhere on the pps, thought to form patches or loops on protein surface, only one subunit is needed in a multi complex. a nuclear import receptor is needed to bind to the NLS and transport it in. each NSR (imporins) recognizes a subset of sequences, the protein of interest can be transported folded.\n\n\nWhat is the function of FG repeats?\n\nThey interact weakly, which gives the protein tangle gel-like properties that\nimpose a permeability barrier to large macromolecules, and they serve as docking\nsites for nuclear import receptors\n\n\nWhat are the different RANs\n\nGAP converts ran-GTP to ran-GDP is on the cytosolic side while GEF on the nuclear. GAP - converts ran GDP to ran-GTP\n\n\nHow does nuclear import work?\n\nreceptors dock to FG repeats even with no cargo with the help of the FG repeats the receptor enters the nucleus where ran-GEF bind and causes the receptor to realize its cargo. the empty receptor with GTP goes back to the cytosol. Ran-GAP triggers Ran-GTP to hydrolyze its bound GTP, thereby converting\nit to Ran-GDP\n\n\nWhy is there only unloading on he nuclear side?\n\nBecause the Ran-GDP in the cytosol does not bind to import (or export)\nreceptors, unloading occurs only on the nuclear side\n\n\nHow does nuclear export work?\n\nran-gtp bound receptor on the nuclear side promotes binding of export cargo, it then moves through the pore, meets gap which hydrolyses GTP causing the receptor to release cargo\n\n\nHow can we regulate import vs export?\n\nIn high Ca2+,\nthe protein phosphatase calcineurin binds\nto NF-AT and dephosphorylates it. The dephosphorylation exposes nuclear import signals and the binding of calcineurin blocks a nuclear export signal.\nThe complex of NF-AT and calcineurin is therefore imported into the nucleus,.\n\n\nHow does the nuclear membrane dissolve during mitosis?\n\nnuclear lamina is POted by Cdk and depolymerizes, NPC are as well and causing them to dissemble and relocate into the cytosol. ran-gef remains anchored to chromosome therefore, as you move further away from the chromosome the concentration of ran-gap increases.\n\n\nWhat is TOM?\n\ntranslocase of the outer membrane. required for the translocation of all proteins. initially transports into the inter membrane space. helps insert proteins in the membrane\n\n\nWhat is TIM?\n\ntranslocase of the inner membrane.\nTIM 23 transfers soluble proteins and help insert proteins into the matrix and then into membrane\nTIM 22 mediates the insertion of only certain membrane proteins from the matrix for metabolites\n\n\nWhat is the SAM complex?\n\nbeta barrel specific sorting and assembly machinery. aid folding f beta barrel folding in the outer membrane\n\n\nWhat is the OXA complex?\n\noxidase assembly protein. insertion of proteins made in the mitochondria and some that were translocated from cytosol to the inner membrane.\n\n\nIn what state are Mitochondria protein precursors in for translocation?\n\nthey are unfolded and stablized by chaperone proteins like HSP 70 that bind directly onto the signal sequence. pon binding to tom they are stripped from the chaperone and are inserted signal first into the organelle.\n\n\nhow can you determine if the protein crosses both mitochondria membranes at once or one at a time?\n\nby cooling a cell-free mitochondrial import\nsystem to arrest the proteins at an intermediate step in the translocation process. arrested proteins no longer contain their N-terminal signal\nsequence, indicating that the N-terminus must be in the matrix space\n\n\nWhat is mtHsp 70?\n\nThe mitochondrial hsp70 is part of a multisubunit protein assembly that is bound\nto the matrix side of the TIM23 complex and acts as a motor to pull the precursor protein into the matrix space., mtHsp 70 binds to the pp being imported, conformational change. and releases the protein chain in an ATP-dependent step, exerting a ratcheting/pulling force on the protein being imported.\n\n\nwhere does translocation to the mitochondria get energy?\n\noutside the mitochondria ATP is needed for the pp to bind to TOM.\nonce bound to tim further translocation through the TIM translocation channel\nrequires the membrane potential made by the H+ gradient from the (H+ rich) inner membrane to the matix and one in the matrix space where mtHsp 70 uses it to act as a motor to pull the pp in.\n\n\nExplain pathway 1 for translation of an interregnal protein into the inter membrane space/ IMM\n\nusually only the N terminal SS enters the matrix, following it the stop transfer sequence (a stretch of hydrophobic AA) stops translation into the matrix. translation my tom continues and the ss is cleaved in the matrix. the stop transfer sequ is realesed my tim 23 into the membrane\n\n\nExplain pathway 2for the translation of an interregnal protein into the inter membrane space/ IMM\n\ntim 23 translates the entire protein to the matrix. a signal peptidase cleaves exposing the stop transfer sequ that directs it to the OXA complex that inserts it into the membrane.\n\n\nExplain pathway 3 for the translation of an interregnal protein into the inter membrane space/ IMM?\n\nmultipass proteins dont have a N-termi ss instead they and an internal one. they completly cross with tom and then chaperones guild it to tim 22. which inserts it into the membrane. tim 22 requires ia membrane potential.\n\n\nHow is REDOX chem used to drive protein import?\n\nproteins with cys motifs for disulphide bonds with Mia 40 which releases the protein in their oxidized form. Mia is in reduced form only to be deoxidized my passing e- from the ETC\n\n\nWhat is the import signal for most peroxysome proteins?\n\nSKL at the c-termini\n\n\nDifferentiate b/w co-translational and post-translational import.\n\nco-translational import is when the ribosome is attached to the ER, as one side of the pp elongates the other side in translocated into the lumen.\npost-translational- occurs for mitochondria, and chloroplast, where is synthesis is completed and the unfolded peptide is maintained for translocation.\n\n\nwhat is the signal hypothesis?\n\nWhen a ribosome translates an mRNA in vivo in the absence of the microsomes the protein synthesized was slightly longer than when translated in the presence of ER microsomes. this difference is due to the initial presence of the N-termi leader sequence that directs the secreted protein to the ER that is later cleaved by a signal peptidase before the pp is complete.\n\n\nhow is the ER ss directed to the ER?\n\na signal-recognition particle (SRP), which cycles between the ER membrane\nand the cytosol and binds to the signal sequence, and an SRP receptor in\nthe ER membrane.\n\n\nHow does the SRP bind to the pp and the ribosome?\n\none side binds to the leader sequence while the other binds to the elongation factor binding site of the ribosome, this causes a stall that gives the ribosome time to bind to the ER membrane ensuring the pp enters the ER, this also prevents misfolding, and reduces the need for chaperones.\n\n\nHow is the SRP receptor involved?\n\nonce the ss and the SRP bind a receptor on the SRP for the SRP receptor is exposed. The binding of the SRP to its receptor brings the SRP\u2013ribosome complex to an unoccupied protein translocator. the srp and the srp receptors are released and the translocator finishes the transfer.\n\n\nDifferentiate b/w membrane bound and free ribosomes.\n\nthey are functionally and anatomically identical only differing in the proteins that they are translating. membrane bound are attached to the cytsolic surface of the rER and translated proteins with the ER ss. while free ribosomes are used to translate all other proteins\n\n\nwhat is sec61?\n\nis a protein translocator complex that forms an aqueous pore across the membrane. has alpha helices that surround a central pore that is gated by a short alpha helix. when closed the the pore is impermeable. the pore is also able to open on its side allowing access to lateral transition in the hydrophobic core of the membrane.\n\n\nhow is post-translational import used to import to the ER?\n\nsimilar to import for the mitochondria. sec 61 assessory proteins span the lumenal domain and allow HSP 70 like chaperones to bind on to the growing pp as it emerges in the ER lumen. proteins that use this route are made in the cytosol and maintain the unfolded state by chaperones.\n\n\nhow is the ER signal used twice?\n\nfirst SRP binds to the ss. the ss also binds to specific place in the translocator, serving as a start transfer sequence opening the pore.\n\n\nhow are single pass proteins inserted to the membrane?\n\nthe N-termi ss starts translocation but an additional hydrophobic segment in the polypeptide chain stops the transfer process before the entire polypeptide chain is translocated.\nThis stop-transfer signal anchors the protein in the membrane after the\nER signal sequence has been cleaved off. with he (+) charged stretch following the internal sequ to be on the cytosolic side\n\n\nHow are multi-pass proteins made?\n\na second start-transfer sequence reinitiates\ntranslocation further down the polypeptide chain until the next stop-transfer sequence causes polypeptides release, and so on for subsequent start-transfer and stop-transfer sequences nearly all multipass proteins lack a cleavable ss\n\n\nHow does SRP recognize a stretch to be a start or stop sequence?\n\nBy recognizing the\nfirst appropriate hydrophobic segment to emerge from the ribosome, the SRP\nsets the \u201creading frame\u201d for membrane integration: after the SRP initiates translocation,\nthe translocator recognizes the next appropriate hydrophobic segment\nin the direction of transfer as a stop-transfer sequence\n\n\nhow does glycosolation occur?\n\na precursor oligrosaachride is added en bloc to proteins in the ER, the sugar is added to the NH2 group of ASN by oligrosaaccharyl transferase. A special lipid molecule called dolichol anchors the precursor oligosaccharide in the ER membrane\n\n\nare there any patterns to N linked glycosolation?\n\n\n\nHow does diversity in N linked glycsolation arise?\n\nfrom the later modification of the original precursor oligosaccharide.\nWhile still in the ER, three glucoses and one mannose are\nquickly removed from the oligosaccharides of most glycoproteins.\n\n\nwhat are calnexin and calreticulin?\n\nThese chaperones are carbohydrate-binding\nproteins, or lectins, which bind to oligosaccharides on incompletely folded proteins\nand retain them in the ER. also promote the association of incompletely folded proteins with another ER chaperone and aggregation of unfolded proteins. calanexin is in the membrane and calreticulin is soluble\n\n\nHow, then, do calnexin and calreticulin distinguish properly folded from incompletely folded proteins?\n\nglucosyl transferase that keeps adding a glucose to those oligosaccharides that have\nlost their last glucose. It adds the glucose, however, only to oligosaccharides that\nare attached to unfolded proteins. Thus, an unfolded protein undergoes continuous\ncycles of glucose trimming and addition until properly folded\n\n\nDescribe the process of retrotranslocation?\n\nfails are exported from the ER, degraded by proteasome, requires energy, chaperones, and PDI, E3 ubiquitin ligase\n\n\nhow are missfolded proteins found?\n\nN-linked oligosaccharides, which serve as timers that measure how long a protein has spent in the ER. The slow trimming of a particular mannose on the core oligosaccharide tree by an enzyme in the ER\ncreates a new oligosaccharide structure that ER-lumenal lectins of the retrotranslocation\napparatus recognize. Proteins that fold and exit from the ER faster than the mannosidase can remove its target mannose therefore escape degradation.\n\n\nwhat is the UPR-unfolded protein response?\n\nincludes an increased transcription of genes encoding proteins involved in retrotranslocation and protein degradation in the cytosol, ER chaperones, and many other proteins to increase the folding capacity.\n\n\ndescribe the IRE 1 path of activation the UPR\n\nThe oligomerization and autophosphorylation of IRE1 causes it to excise introns to produce an active transcription regulatory protein. This protein activates the transcription\nof genes encoding the proteins that help mediate the unfolded protein response\n\n\ndescribe the PERK path of activation the UPR\n\nactivates a second transmembrane kinase in the ER, PERK, that phosphorylates a translation initiating factor that reduces the production of new proteins. some proteins are translated when initiating factors are scare, these proteins help in activating the UPR.\n\n\ndescribe the ATF 6 pathway\n\nwhen missfolded proteins accumulate ATF6 ( a transmembrane protein) is sent to the golgi where it is cleaved by a protease. it is now able to relocate to the nucleus where it can activate genes encoding proteins for the UPR.\n\n\nwhat is Bpi?\n\na resident of the ER where it binds to the lumenal tails of ATF6, PERK, and IRE 1 to supress activity, when levels of unfolded proteins increase Bip is titrated away.\n\n\nhow does glycosolation act as a protein anchor to membranes?\n\nthe covalent attachment of glycosylphosphatidylinositol\n(GPI) anchor to the C-terminus of some membrane proteins. This linkage forms in the lumen of the ER, where, at the same\ntime, the transmembrane segment of the protein is cleaved off.\n\n\nhow does the Er assemble most lipid bilayers?\n\noccurs exclusively in the cytosolic leaflet. fatty acid bound proteins in the cytosol help move them to the membrane. After arrival in the ER membrane and activation with CoA, acyl transferases successively add two fatty acids to glycerol phosphate to produce phosphatidic acid (water insoluble and remains in the leaflet). the polar heads are then modified giving them their chemical nature.\n\n\nwhat is dark field microscopy?\n\nexploits that light rays can be scattered in any direction by allowing the light to enter the sample for the side. only some of the light enters the objective lens. this creates a bright image on a black background .\n\n\nwhat are phase contrast microscopy and differential interference contrast microscopy?\n\na wave's path length is changed as it refract through an organelle, the phases is shifted relative to light that has passed through an adjacent thinner. by increasing\nthese phase differences so that the waves are more nearly out of phase, producing\namplitude differences when the sets of waves recombine,\n\n\nwhat is the significance of phase-contrast, differential-interference-contrast, and dark-field microscopy?\n\nthey make it possible to watch the movements involved in such processes as mitosis\nand cell migration.\n\n\nhow does electronic image processing improve image quality?\n\nby using CCD and CMOS, which are greatly more sensitive to light than the human eye. these cameras produce electronic images, they can be processed in various ways to extract latent information and adjust for multiple flaws.\n\n\nwhat are the steps in sample preparation?\n\nfix, embed, and section with a microtome.\n\n\nhow can we reveal the chemical make up of sells and organelles?\n\nstaining with organic dyes that have an affinity for specific sub cellular components; stains absorb light of certain wavelengths and introduce contrast by reducing amplitude\nflorescent probes and in-situ hybridization.\n\n\nhow are antibodies used in microscopy?\n\nWhen labeled\nwith fluorescent dyes, antibodies are invaluable for locating specific molecules\nin cells by fluorescence microscopy (Figure 9\u201316); labeled with electron-dense\nparticles such as colloidal gold spheres, they are used for similar purposes in the\nelectron microscope\n\n\nhow can blurs be removed in optical microscopy?\n\nby focusing on a chosen plane in a thick specimen while\nrejecting the light that comes from out-of-focus regions above and below that\ndeconvolution: automated image capture system with precise z stack axis control to produce a z stack that are process by the computer to deblur\nconfocal: only light from a point of focus is captured, decreasing detector pinhole size results in thinner optical slice.\n\n\nWhat is FRET, how is it used and why is it important?\n\nflorescence resonance energy transfer. two molecules of interest are labels with flurophores where the emission spectrum of one overlaps with excitation of another. if the molecules are in close proximity there is a transfer of energy from one flurophore to the other, the emission of the second is seen although the molecule is excited by a photon specific to the excitation of the first.\n\n\nwhat is photo-activation?\n\nsynthesizing an inactive form of the fluorescent molecule of interest, introducing it into the cell, and then activating\nit suddenly at a chosen site in the cell; A microscope can be used to focus a strong pulse of light from a laser on a region.\nSince only the photoactivated proteins are fluorescent within the cell, the trafficking, turnover, and\ndegradative pathways of proteins can bemonitored.\n\n\nwhat is FRAP?\n\nfluorescence return after photobleaching. strong focused\nbeam of light from a laser to extinguish the GFP fluorescence in a specified region; after which one can analyze the way in which remaining unbleached\nfluorescent protein molecules move into the bleached area\n\n\nexplain examples of fluorescence indicators\n\nCa+ shifts the excitation and emissions spectra depending on their binding state\npH have spectra dependent on pH\n\n\nexplain single particle reconstruction\n\naveraging method where several images of a particle are combined into one image, about 0.5nm allows to see some secondary structures\n\n\nwhat is cryo-electron microscopy?\n\nby flash freezing we prevent the formation of ice crystals the interrupt the structures.\n\n\nhow is membrane fluidity dependent on the PL?\n\nif short and with double bonds, there is reduced interactions and less force keeping them together; reducing the phase transition point.\n\n\nhow is cholesterol used to maintain membrane fluidity?\n\nUnder normal conditions cholesterol enhances the permeability barrier and strengthens. b/c it prevents the hydrophobic tails from interacting, preventing phase transition.\n\n\nwhat are lipid rafts?\n\nspecific lipids and membrane proteins seam to associate in small micro-domains = lipid rafts\nhelp keep proteins together to function in concert,\n\n\ndescribe the asymmetry of the plasma membrane\n\nphosphatidylcholine and sphingomyelin are found on the outer leaflet\nphosphatidylserine and phosphatidylethanoloamine are found in the inner leaflet\nPS serves as an apoptosis signal\n\n\nHow does protein interaction limit lateral movement of lipids?\n\nself-assembly into large aggregates\ntethering to macromolecules outside the cell\ntethering to macromolecules inside the cell\nthrough interactions with proteins on an adjacent cell\n\n\nhow can FRAP be used to study the membrane?\n\nby marking a membrane protein of interest with a fluoroprobe or with GFT, by bleaching an area and timing how long it takes for fluorescence to return. |
__label__positive Exotics Q2 page 2\n\nmaxwheeler's version from 2015-11-12 16:06\n\n\nQuestion Answer\nBy what age are rats and mice sexually mature, and how long is gestationSexual maturity - 6 to 10 weeks, Gestation - 3 weeks\nWhy are rodents prone to heat stressNo sweat glands\nWhat is the best time to make appointments for ratsEvening (nocturnal)\nWhat is the normal color of rat and mice teethOrange\nShould rat and mice teeth be clipped No\nWhat gland behind the eyes of rats and mice produces porphyrin and lipid rich secretions (and tears) and can become excessive under stress or diseaseHarderian Gland\nShould rats and mice be fasted before surgeryNo, they do not vomit\nWhat effect will cause female mice housed together in large groups to not cycleWhitten effect\nWhat effect in female mice may cause an embryo not to implant if she is exposed to a strange maleBruce effect\nWhat type of castration technique should be used when castrating male rats and whyClosed, inguinal rings are open\nWhat is barberingDominant mouse chews fur off other mice\nWhat is the most common tumor in miceAdenocarcinoma\nWhat species of fur mites might you see on rats and miceMobia musculi, Mycoptes musculinus, Radfordia affinis\nWhat type of virus is responsible for mouse hepatitis virusCoronavirus\nWhat CS are associated with mouse hepatitisAffects neonates, severe enteritis, dehydration, no milk in GI tract\nWhat CS are associated with rotavirus in miceAffects neonates, mild enteritis, diarrhea with soiling on haircoat\nWhat CS are associated with Sendai virus in miceMild respiratory distress, fatal in neonates and weanlings, adults recover in 2 months\nWhat bacteria usually causes respiratory disease in miceMycoplasma pulmonis\nWhat zoonotic organisms wil lcause dematophytosis in mice and ratsTrichophyton mentagrophytes, Microsporum canis\nWhat is the most common tumor in ratsFibroadenoma\nIn the rat, what are your differentials for a skin swellingFibroadenoma, Adenocarcinoma, Abscess\nWhat are some CS of chronic progressive nephropathy in ratsPU/PD, Proteinuria, hydrothorax and ascites in advanced stages\nWhat coronavirus is commonly seen in ratsSialodacryoadenitis virus\nWhat agents may play a role in respiratory disease of ratsMycoplasma pulmonis, Streptococcus pneumonia, Corynebacterium kutscheri, CAR Bacillus |
__label__positive uploaded image\n\nConsider the triangular Voltage Signal (V) as a function of time in ms.\n\nEach coordinate is from 0 to .1, .2, .3 .... to .9.\n\na. Identify th end points in time where the function is discontinuous.\n\nb. What is the period of the signal?\n\nc. What is the voltage as t approaches .2 ms from the left?\n\nd. What is the voltage as t apporoaches .2 ms from the right?\n\ne. Plot the derivative of this function in the interval 0<.8 ms.\n\nf. What is the derivative at t=.2 ms?\n\nFrom this graph I know that the function is discontinuous at each point where there is a kink in the graph. ie., .2, .4, and .8\n\n\nFor the answer posted on this question, \"GURU\" says that this function is also discontinuous at 0 and .8, could someone please expain this? I thought that a function is only discontinuous where there is a kink or point in the function, not at 0 and the endpoint of the function?\n\nAlso the plot for the derivative of this function was explained by GURU and I'm not sure it is right or how he came up with the answer, please give a more detailed explanation.\n\n\nDetailed answers to tough\nhomework problems |
__label__positive Thread: C++ memory questions\n\n 1. #1\n Registered User\n Join Date\n Jul 2007\n\n C++ memory questions\n\n I'm trying to clear up a little bit of my beginner's confusion about how things are stored in memory.\n\n Suppose I have the following code:\n char buffer1[5];\n char buffer2[10];\n char *ptr1 = buffer1;\n char *ptr2 = buffer2;\n When I use gdb, I see that ptr1 contains an address ending in 07, and ptr2 contains an address ending in 1a. If I did my hex math correctly, that's 0x13 which is 19 bytes away. From this I gather that the stack is growing up. However, if buffer2 is sitting on top of buffer1 in the stack, and buffer2 is 10 bytes, shouldn't buffer2 be only 10 bytes away from the head of buffer1?\n\n Then I thought about memory only being word addressable, so really buffer1 takes up 8 bytes because that makes two words, and buffer3 takes up 3 bytes because that makes three words. Where does this \"extra\" storage get filled up? And even so, how can the blocks be 19 bytes away because that doesn't divide evenly into words.\n Last edited by jcafaro10; 04-05-2009 at 07:47 PM.\n\n 2. #2\n 30 Helens Agree neandrake's Avatar\n Join Date\n Jan 2002\n 5 bytes + 10 bytes + 4 bytes + 4 bytes. Maybe one of the pointers was located between one of the buffers. Sounds odd, but it might be the compiler trying to rearrange the stack frame in order to make exploiting more difficult. Either case, 19 can be acquired through both arrays and size of one of the pointers.\n Environment: OS X, GCC / G++\n Codes: Java, C#, C/C++\n\n 3. #3\n Registered User\n Join Date\n Jul 2007\n What about word addressing?\n\nPopular pages Recent additions subscribe to a feed\n\nSimilar Threads\n\n 1. Replies: 7\n 2. Random memory questions\n By Blackroot in forum Windows Programming\n Replies: 3\n Last Post: 04-04-2007, 09:33 PM\n 3. pointers\n By InvariantLoop in forum C Programming\n Replies: 13\n 4. Accessing Video Memory Information...need help\n By KneeLess in forum C++ Programming\n Replies: 8\n Last Post: 08-24-2003, 03:53 PM\n 5. Manipulating the Windows Clipboard\n By Johno in forum Windows Programming\n Replies: 2 |
__label__positive Top 50 Data Structures Interview Questions & Answers (2021)\n\n1) What is data structure?\n\nData structure\u00a0refers to the way data is organized and manipulated. It seeks to find ways to make data access more efficient. When dealing with the data structure, we not only focus on one piece of data but the different set of data and how they can relate to one another in an organized manner.\n\n2) Differentiate between file and structure storage structure.\n\nThe key difference between both the data structure is the memory area that is being accessed. When dealing with the structure that resides the main memory of the computer system, this is referred to as storage structure. When dealing with an auxiliary structure, we refer to it as file structures.\n\n3) When is a binary search best applied?\n\nA binary search is an algorithm that is best applied to search a list when the elements are already in order or sorted. The list is searched starting in the middle, such that if that middle value is not the target search key, it will check to see if it will continue the search on the lower half of the list or the higher half. The split and search will then continue in the same manner.\n\n4) What is a linked list?\n\nA linked list is a sequence of nodes in which each node is connected to the node following it. This forms a chain-like link for data storage.\n\n5) How do you reference all the elements in a one-dimension array?\n\nTo reference all the elements in a\u00a0 one -dimension array, you need to use an indexed loop, So that, the counter runs from 0 to the array size minus one. In this manner, You can reference all the elements in sequence by using the loop counter as the array subscript.\n\n6) In what areas do data structures are\u00a0applied?\n\nData structures are essential in almost every aspect where data is involved. In general, algorithms that involve efficient data structure is applied in the following areas: numerical analysis, operating system, A.I., compiler design, database management, graphics, and statistical analysis, to name a few.\n\n7) What is LIFO?\n\nLIFO is a short form of Last In First Out. It refers how data is accessed, stored and retrieved. Using this scheme, data that was stored last should be the one to be extracted first. This also means that in order to gain access to the first data, all the other data that was stored before this first data must first be retrieved and extracted.\n\n8 ) What is a queue?\n\nA queue is a data structure that can simulate a list or stream of data. In this structure, new elements are inserted at one end, and existing elements are removed from the other end.\n\n9) What are binary trees?\n\nA binary tree is one type of data structure that has two nodes, a left node, and a right node. In programming, binary trees are an extension of the linked list structures.\n\n10) Which data structures are applied when dealing with a recursive function?\n\nRecursion, is a function that calls itself based on a terminating condition, makes use of the stack. Using LIFO, a call to a recursive function saves the return address so that it knows how to return to the calling function after the call terminates.\n\n11) What is a stack?\n\nA stack is a data structure in which only the top element can be accessed. As data is stored in the stack, each data is pushed downward, leaving the most recently added data on top.\n\n12) Explain Binary Search Tree\n\nA binary search tree stores data in such a way that they can be retrieved very efficiently. The left subtree contains nodes whose keys are less than the node\u2019s key value, while the right subtree contains nodes whose keys are greater than or equal to the node\u2019s key value. Moreover, both subtrees are also binary search trees.\n\n13) What are multidimensional arrays?\n\nMultidimensional arrays make use of multiple indexes to store data. It is useful when storing data that cannot be represented using single dimensional indexing, such as data representation in a board game, tables with data stored in more than one column.\n\n14) Are linked lists considered linear or non-linear data structures?\n\nIt depends on where you intend to apply linked lists. If you based it on storage, a linked list is considered non-linear. On the other hand, if you based it on access strategies, then a linked list is considered linear.\n\n15) How does dynamic memory allocation help in managing data?\n\nApart from being able to store simple structured data types, dynamic memory allocation can combine separately allocated structured blocks to form composite structures that expand and contract as needed.\n\n16) What is FIFO?\n\nFIFO stands for First-in, First-out, and is used to represent how data is accessed in a queue. Data has been inserted into the queue list the longest is the one that is removed first.\n\n17) What is an ordered list?\n\nAn ordered list is a list in which each node\u2019s position in the list is determined by the value of its key component, so that the key values form an increasing sequence, as the list is traversed.\n\n18) What is merge sort?\n\nMerge sort, is a\u00a0 divide-and-conquer approach for sorting the data. In a sequence of data, adjacent ones are merged and sorted to create bigger sorted lists. These sorted lists are then merged again to form an even bigger sorted list, which continues until you have one single sorted list.\n\n19) Differentiate NULL and VOID\n\nNull is a value, whereas Void is a data type identifier. A variable that is given a Null value indicates an empty value. The void is used to identify pointers as having no initial size.\n\n20) What is the primary advantage of a linked list?\n\nA linked list is an ideal data structure because it can be modified easily. This means that editing a linked list works regardless of how many elements are in the list.\n\n21) What is the difference between a PUSH and a POP?\n\nPushing and popping applies to the way data is stored and retrieved in a stack. A push denotes data being added to it, meaning data is being \u201cpushed\u201d into the stack. On the other hand, a pop denotes data retrieval, and in particular, refers to the topmost data being accessed.\n\n22) What is a linear search?\n\nA linear search refers to the way a target key is being searched in a sequential data structure. In this method, each element in the list is checked and compared against the target key. The process is repeated until found or if the end of the file has been reached.\n\n23) How does variable declaration affect memory allocation?\n\nThe amount of memory to be allocated or reserved would depend on the data type of the variable being declared. For example, if a variable is declared to be of integer type, then 32 bits of memory storage will be reserved for that variable.\n\n24) What is the advantage of the heap over a stack?\n\nThe heap is more flexible than the stack. That\u2019s because memory space for the heap can be dynamically allocated and de-allocated as needed. However, the memory of the heap can at times be slower when compared to that stack.\n\n25) What is a postfix expression?\n\nA postfix expression is an expression in which each operator follows its operands. The advantage of this form is that there is no need to group sub-expressions in parentheses or to consider operator precedence.\n\n26) What is Data abstraction?\n\nData abstraction is a powerful tool for breaking down complex data problems into manageable chunks. This is applied by initially specifying the data objects involved and the operations to be performed on these data objects without being overly concerned with how the data objects will be represented and stored in memory.\n\n27) How do you insert a new item in a binary search tree?\n\nAssuming that the data to be inserted is a unique value (that is, not an existing entry in the tree), check first if the tree is empty. If it\u2019s empty, just insert the new item in the root node. If it\u2019s not empty, refer to the new item\u2019s key. If it\u2019s smaller than the root\u2019s key, insert it into the root\u2019s left subtree, otherwise, insert it into the root\u2019s right subtree.\n\n28) How does a selection sort work for an array?\n\nThe selection sort is a fairly intuitive sorting algorithm, though not necessarily efficient. In this process, the smallest element is first located and switched with the element at subscript zero, thereby placing the smallest element in the first position.\n\nThe smallest element remaining in the subarray is then located next to subscripts 1 through n-1 and switched with the element at subscript 1, thereby placing the second smallest element in the second position. The steps are repeated in the same manner till the last element.\n\n29) How do signed and unsigned numbers affect memory?\n\nIn the case of signed numbers, the first bit is used to indicate whether positive or negative, which leaves you with one bit short. With unsigned numbers, you have all bits available for that number. The effect is best seen in the number range (an\u00a0unsigned 8-bit number has a range 0-255, while the 8-bit signed number has a range -128 to +127.\n\n30) What is the minimum number of nodes that a binary tree can have?\n\nA binary tree can have a minimum of zero nodes, which occurs when the nodes have NULL values. Furthermore, a binary tree can also have 1 or 2 nodes.\n\n31) What are dynamic data structures?\n\nDynamic data structures are structures that expand and contract as a program runs. It provides a flexible means of manipulating data because it can adjust according to the size of the data.\n\n32) In what data structures are pointers applied?\n\nPointers that are used in linked list have various applications in the data structure. Data structures that make use of this concept include the Stack, Queue, Linked List and Binary Tree.\n\n33) Do all declaration statements result in a fixed reservation in memory?\n\nMost declarations do, with the exemption of pointers. Pointer declaration does not allocate memory for data, but for the address of the pointer variable. Actual memory allocation for the data comes during run-time.\n\n34) What are ARRAYs?\n\nWhen dealing with arrays, data is stored and retrieved using an index that refers to the element number in the data sequence. This means that data can be accessed in any order. In programming, an array is declared as a variable having a number of indexed elements.\n\n35) What is the minimum number of queues needed when implementing a priority queue?\n\nThe minimum number of queues needed in this case is two. One queue is intended for sorting priorities while the other queue is used for actual storage of data.\n\n36) Which sorting algorithm is considered the fastest?\n\nThere are many types of sorting algorithms: quick sort, bubble sort, balloon sort, radix sort, merge sort, etc. Not one can be considered the fastest because each algorithm is designed for a particular data structure and data set. It would depend on the data set that you would want to sort.\n\n37) Differentiate STACK from ARRAY.\n\nStack follows a LIFO pattern. It means that data access follows a sequence wherein the last data to be stored when the first one to be extracted. Arrays, on the other hand, does not follow a particular order and instead can be accessed by referring to the indexed element within the array.\n\n38) Give a basic algorithm for searching a binary search tree.\n\n 1. if the tree is empty, then the target is not in the tree, end search\n 2. if the tree is not empty, the target is in the tree\n 3. check if the target is in the root item\n 4. if a target is not in the root item, check if a\u00a0target is smaller than the root\u2019s value\n 5. if a target is smaller than the root\u2019s value, search the left subtree\n 6. else, search the right subtree\n\n39) What is a dequeue?\n\nA dequeue is a double-ended queue. This is a structure wherein elements can be inserted or removed from either end.\n\n40) What is a bubble sort and how do you perform it?\n\nA bubble sort is one sorting technique that can be applied to data structures such as an array. It works by comparing adjacent elements and exchanges their values if they are out of order. This method lets the smaller values \u201cbubble\u201d to the top of the list, while the larger value sinks to the bottom.\n\n41) What are the parts of a linked list?\n\nA linked list typically has two parts: the head and the tail. Between the head and tail lie the actual nodes. All these nodes are\u00a0linked sequentially.\n\n42) How does selection sort work?\n\nSelection sort works by picking the smallest number from the list and placing it at the front. This process is repeated for the second position towards the end of the list. It is the simplest sort algorithm.\n\n43) What is a graph?\n\nA graph is one type of data structure that contains a set of ordered pairs. These ordered pairs are also referred to as edges or arcs and are used to connect nodes where data can be stored and retrieved.\n\n44) Differentiate linear from a nonlinear data structure.\n\nThe linear data structure is a structure wherein data elements are adjacent to each other. Examples of linear data structure include arrays, linked lists, stacks, and queues. On the other hand, a non-linear data structure is a structure wherein each data element can connect to more than two adjacent data elements. Examples of nonlinear data structure include trees and graphs.\n\n45) What is an AVL tree?\n\nAn AVL tree is a type of binary search tree that is always in a state of partially balanced. The balance is measured as a difference between the heights of the subtrees from the root. This self-balancing tree was known to be the first data structure to be designed as such.\n\n46) What are doubly linked lists?\n\nDoubly linked lists are a special type of linked list wherein traversal across the data elements can be done in both directions. This is made possible by having two links in every node, one that links to the next node and another one that connects to the previous node.\n\n47) What is Huffman\u2019s algorithm?\n\nHuffman\u2019s algorithm is used for creating extended binary trees that have minimum weighted path lengths from the given weights. It makes use of a table that contains the frequency of occurrence for each data element.\n\n48) What is Fibonacci search?\n\nFibonacci search is a search algorithm that applies to a sorted array. It makes use of a divide-and-conquer approach that can significantly reduce the time needed in order to reach the target element.\n\n49) Briefly explain recursive algorithm.\n\nRecursive algorithm targets a problem by dividing it into smaller, manageable sub-problems. The output of one recursion after processing one sub-problem becomes the input to the next recursive process.\n\n50) How do you search for a target key in a linked list?\n\nTo find the target key in a linked list, you have to apply sequential search. Each node is traversed and compared with the target key, and if it is different, then it follows the link to the next node. This traversal continues until either the target key is found or if the last node is reached.\n\n\n 1. very informative and basic question about datastructure.\n\n 1. Nice\u2026 but still more topics need to cover.\n\n 2. tanq\u2026.it was very effective to me\u2026\n\n 3. Avatar krishnendu says:\n\n very helpfull, thank you very much\n\n 4. Thanks\u2026\u2026. This is really helpful To me\n\n 5. thanks \u2026it helped me a lot\u2026\n\n 6. Avatar vishwajeet says:\n\n thanku it is most important questions\n\n 7. Thank you,it was very helpful\n\n 8. Avatar Syeda anush Fatima says:\n\n Thanku this viva voice is so much important for me and I\u2019m glad that I found your page thanku sir \u2665\n Wish you luck \ud83d\ude0a\n\n 9. Avatar Dilipkumar says:\n\n Very use full..tq so much admin.\n\n 10. Avatar Sreelatha says:\u2019s very helpful for me\n\n 11. Avatar Anju Ashok says:\n\n Very helpful thank you\n\n 12. Avatar Priya ora says:\n\n Nice series of questions\n\n 13. Avatar Himanshu Joshi says:\n\n Can you also put some tricky questions of data structure in this.\n\n 14. Avatar Deekshitha says:\n\n Tq it was very helpfull to us\n\n 15. Avatar Solomon mamo says:\n\n Interesting. And helpfull kip it up\n\n 16. very informative and helpful\u2026\n\n 17. Avatar Pratiksha says:\n\n Tysm.. Its verv helhelp to me..\n\n 18. Avatar Premalatha v says:\n\n Got a clear idea about interview based questions on data structures.\n\n 19. Thanks its very helpful\n\n 20. Thank u sir\u2026today is my viva and I guess these are the most favourable questions which are going to be asked\u2026Thanks a lot..\n\n 21. Avatar Pradnya Ravindra Giri says:\n\n It is very helpful\u2026 Thank you\n\n 22. Avatar Pavani Andanapalli says:\n\n Preparing for Government exams .is dis career.guru99 was helpful to me or not can u please reply me\n\n 23. Avatar Mubarak miyan says:\n\n\n Helpfully question\n\n 24. Tqsm it\u2019s very useful for me thank you very much\n\n 25. very informative.. Thanks for putting all together\n\n 26. Avatar Alex Kirosso says:\n\n very helpfull, thank you very much\n\n 27. Avatar siddhi balaji shitole says:\n\n note for it\n\n 28. very useful \u2026 easy to understand\n\n 29. awesome!! the learning questions and answers was really easy and simple, and test in the end was the best price!!\n\n 30. Avatar s.vishnupriya says:\n\n tq very nice question my helpfull .\n\n 31. Thank you so much for giving these such a valuable questions\u2026\n\n 32. Avatar Milan sharma says:\n\n Good sets of questions but requirements of adding more questions to it\n\n 33. Very helpful thanks\u2026\u2026\u2026\u2026\u2026\u2026\u2026\u2026\u2026.\n\n 34. thanks\u2026\u2026\u2026\u2026\u2026\u2026\u2026\u2026\u2026\u2026\u2026..alot\n\n 35. Avatar Anushka Saha says:\n\n It was really helpful.\n\nLeave a Reply to akhil; Cancel reply\n |
__label__positive Make your own free website on\n\ndefinition| derivation |graph | application|sample problems| links\n\n\n\nWhat is Logistic growth?\n\nA logistic growth curve is an S-shaped (sigmoidal) curve that can be used to model functions that increase gradually at first, more rapidly in the middle growth period, and slowly at the end, leveling off at a maximum value after some period of time.\n\n\nIn 1838, the Belgian Pierre-Francois Verhulst suggested a revised model which would eliminate the undesirable effect of unlimited growth from the exponential model..\nwhich is the same as\n\n\nbirthrate of the population, under optimal conditions\n\nK carrying capacity-the level of the population that can be sustained by the given environment.\nm mortality constant\n\nSometimes it can be helpful to think of the equation in this form:\n\n\nValue of y 0 0<y<K K y>K\n\u00a0 0 + 0 -\n\nWe notice that y decreases and thus the slope of the tangent lines to be drawn is negative whenever y>K but that whenever 0<y<K, the slopes are positive, and y increases.\n\nAnalysis of the logistic growth curve:\nThe initial part of the curve is exponential; the rate of growth accelerates as it approaches the midpoint of the curve. At the midpoint (K/2), the growth rate begins to decelerate but continues to grow until it reaches an asymptote, K which is called the \"Carrying Capacity\" for the environment.\n\n\nPopulation growth, spreading of a rumor or virus,newton\u2019s law of cooling\n\nThe logistic growth model is a more accurate representation of population growth becauseit takes into account that there are outside factors that may effect growth.\n\nIt is frequently used to model biological growth patterns where there is an initial exponential growth period followed by a leveling off as more of the population is infected or as the food supply or some other factor limits further growth. |
__label__positive Solved Paper JE (Mechanical) - 2013 - Himachal Pradesh General Knowledge\n\n1)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Sulphur in pig iron tends to make it: - Ans. Hard\n\n2)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Maximum percentage of carbon in ferrite is: - Ans. 0.025\n\n3)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Surface plate is usually made of grey cast iron because it provides: - Ans. Lubricating due to graphite flakes\n\n4)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Which of the following is not the accessory of slip gauges? - Ans. Measuring Jaws\n\n5)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Prairie Grasslands are mainly found in: - Ans.\u00a0 USA\n\n6)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Cyclones in China Sea region are known as: Typhoons\n\n7)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 The Security Council of United Nations Organization has 5 permanent members\n\n8)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 The WTO (World Trade Organization) has its headquarters at: - Ans. Geneva\n\n9)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Benito Mussolini belonged to: - Ans. Italy\n\n10)\u00a0 World war-II commenced in: - Ans. 1939\n\n11)\u00a0 \u2018Azlan Shah Cup\u2019 is associated with: - Ans.\u00a0 Hockey \u00a0\n\n12)\u00a0 Who was the founder of Mughal Dynasty in India? - Ans.\u00a0 Babur \u00a0\n\n13)\u00a0 Who wrote \u2018Gora\u2019? - Ans. Rabindranath Tagore\n\n14)\u00a0 Cardiology is the \u00a0- Ans. Study of heart\n\n15)\u00a0 Who discovered \u2018X-ray\u2019? - Ans. W. Roentgen\n\n16)\u00a0 The loud speaker converts: - Ans. Electrical energy into sound energy\n\n17)\u00a0 A piece of bloating paper soaks ink because of the: - Ans. Capillary action\n\n18)\u00a0 Which of the following is the best conductor of heat? - Ans. Silver\n\n19)\u00a0 A device used to measure electric current is: - Ans. Ammeter\n\n20)\u00a0 Battery is a device used to convert: - Ans. Chemical energy into electrical energy\n\n21)\u00a0 Liquefied petroleum gas (LPG) has: - Ans. Methane \u00a0\u00a0\n\n22)\u00a0 Which part of flame is used by goldsmiths to heat the gold? - Ans. Outermost part\n\n23)\u00a0 Which is the main component of brass and bronze? - Ans. Copper \u00a0\n\n24)\u00a0 Which gas propels the cork of a champagne bottle? - Ans. Carbon dioxide\n\n25)\u00a0 Which of the following is not correct? - Ans. Water can be used as extinguisher in case of electrical or oil fire\n\n26)\u00a0 The main symptom of pneumonia is: - Ans.\u00a0 Decrease in respiratory efficiency \u00a0\n\n27)\u00a0 The study of heredity and variations is known as: - Ans. Genetics\n\n28)\u00a0 Oral polio vaccine was discovered by: - Ans. Albert Bruce Sabine\n\n29)\u00a0 Which of the following trees is worshipped by the people of Indus valley civilization? - Ans. Pipal\n\n30)\u00a0 What was the standard unit of exchange of the Aryans? - Ans. Cow\n\n31)\u00a0 Which of the following Vedas, contains charms and spells to ward off evils and diseases? - Ans. Atharvaveda\n\n32)\u00a0 The word \u2018Kaivalya\u2019 is associated with: - Ans. Vardhman Mahavira \u00a0\n\n33)\u00a0 Mahaprabhu Chaitanya, a saint of bhakti movement, belonged to: - Ans. Bengal \u00a0\n\n34)\u00a0 Whose reign is considered the \u2018Golden Age\u2019 of the Mughal empire? - Ans. Shahjahan\n\n35)\u00a0 Vasco-da-Gama was a: - Ans. Portuguese\n\n36)\u00a0 Who was severely beaten in lathi charge while opposing the Simon Commission? - Ans. Lala Lajpat Rai\n\n37)\u00a0 Who gave the slogan \u2018Do or Die\u2019? - Ans. Mahatma Gandhi\n\n38)\u00a0 Indian Constitution has adopted the Idea of Fundamental Duties from: - Ans. Erstwhile USSR\n\n39)\u00a0 \u2018Right to Equality\u2019 is a - Ans. Fundamental Right\n\n40)\u00a0 Who is the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces? - Ans. President\n\n41)\u00a0 As per Census 2011, what is the literacy rate in India? - Ans. 74.04%\n\n42)\u00a0 What is the equivalent of \u2018General\u2019 of Army in Navy? - Ans. Admiral\n\n43)\u00a0 Which was the first talkie of India? - Ans. Alam Ara\n\n44)\u00a0 \u2018Malihabad\u2019 is famous for : - Ans. Mangoes \u00a0\n\nDirection: (Question Nos. 47 to 51): In each of the following questions, four words are given, out of which three are alike in some manner and the fourth one is different. Choose the odd one.\n\n45)\u00a0 A) Cow\u00a0 B) Buffalo\u00a0 C) Goat\u00a0 D) Cub\n\n46)\u00a0 A) Gold\u00a0 B) Silver C) Platinum D) Necklace\n\n47)\u00a0 A) Oil\u00a0 B) Glue\u00a0 C) Yeast\u00a0 D) Gum\n\n48)\u00a0 A) Calculator\u00a0 B) Laptop\u00a0 C) Computer\u00a0 D) Palmtop\n\n49)\u00a0 A) Potato\u00a0 B) Tomato\u00a0 C) Ladyfinger\u00a0 D) Bamboo\n\n50)\u00a0 Kalatope is situated in the district of :- Ans. Chamba\n\n51)\u00a0 The river Satluj rises from: - Ans. Mansarovar \u00a0\n\n52)\u00a0 Which of the following districts does not touch the boundaries of Punjab? - Ans. Mandi\n\n53)\u00a0 \u2018Kamlahgarh\u00a0 Fort\u2019 is located at: - Ans. Sarkaghat\n\n54)\u00a0 Who was appointed by Ahmed Shah Durrani as Governor of Punjab in 1759 A.D.? - Ans. Ghamand Chand\n\n55)\u00a0 Raja Sansar Chand was the famous ruler of : - Ans. Kangra\n\n56)\u00a0 Which of the following was the capital of Rampur Bushahr State in the ancient time? - Ans. Kamru\n\n57)\u00a0 What is Pink Rhododendron? - Ans. A rose variety\n\n58)\u00a0 Which of the following hill stations has been declared \u2018Favorite Hill Destination\u2019, by the travel magazine \u2018Outlook Traveler\u2019 this year? - Ans. Dalhousie\n\n59)\u00a0 The famous Christ Church is located at: - Ans. Shimla\n\n60)\u00a0 Uranium in Himachal Pradesh is found at: - Ans. Kullu\n\n61)\u00a0 Parvati\u00a0 Hydroelectricity Project has the capacity of: Uranium in Himachal Pradesh are found at: 2051 MW\n\n62)\u00a0 As per the Census-2011, which of the following districts has the lowest literacy rate in H.P.? - Ans. Chamba\n\n63)\u00a0 \u2018Bahar\u2019 , \u2018Malhar\u2019 and \u2018Bageshwari\u2019 are the varieties of: - Ans. Tea\n\n64)\u00a0 Which of the following is the largest cottage industry in Himachal Pradesh? - Ans. Weaving and Knitting of Wool\n\n65)\u00a0 Trilokinath temple is in: - Ans. Lahaul Spiti \u00a0\n\n66)\u00a0 The Tapovana, known as \u2018Sandeepani Himalayas\u2019, is located near: - Ans. Dharmsala \u00a0\u00a0\n\n67)\u00a0 In which year was the Una Tehsil transferred to Himachal Pradesh? - Ans. 1966\n\n68)\u00a0 \u2018Presidential\u00a0 Retreat\u2019 is situated at: - Ans. Chharabara\n\n69)\u00a0 \u2018Dhungari Mela\u2019 is associated with: - Ans. Hidimba Devi\u00a0 \u00a0\n\n70)\u00a0 Who was the first Governor of Himachal Pradesh? - Ans. S. Chakarvarti\n\n71)\u00a0 \u2018Halog\u2019 is associated with: \u00a0- Ans. Dhami Firing Tragedy\n\n72)\u00a0 Who was the first to give call for the creation of separate of separate Hill State in 1946? - Ans. Pt. Padam Dev\n\n73)\u00a0 How many seats are there of Himachal Pradesh Vidhan Sabha? - Ans. 68\n\n74)\u00a0 Himachal Pradesh stands second in the production of Ginger on National level.\n\nDirections\u00a0 \u00a0\u00a0(Questions Nos. 77 to 80):\u00a0 Choose the correct spellings of the word, from the four alternatives A, B, C and D given below:\n\n75)\u00a0 A) Warrior B) Warrior C) Warrior D) Wareor\n\n76)\u00a0 A) Surrender B) Surender\u00a0 C) Surrander D) Surendder\n\n77)\u00a0 A) Japaneese\u00a0 B) Japanese\u00a0 C) Japanse D) Japanise\n\n78)\u00a0 A) Parsut\u00a0 B) Pursuit\u00a0 C) Pursoot\u00a0 D) Parsuit\n\nDirections\u00a0\u00a0 (Question Nos. 81 to 83):\u00a0 Choose the word which is most opposite to the word given in capital letter, from the given alternatives A, B, C and D.\n\n79)\u00a0 DOLEFUL: Happy\n\n80)\u00a0 FLEXIBILITY: Rigidity\n\n81)\u00a0 GROTESQUE: Natural\n\nDirections (Question\u00a0 Nos. 84 to 86): Fill the blanks by choosing the most appropriate\u00a0 word, form\u00a0 alternatives A, B, C and D given below.\n\n82)\u00a0 He is very fast in calculations.\n\n83)\u00a0 I am convinced by his innocence.\n\n84)\u00a0 The bright color of this shirt has faded away.\n\n\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 \u00a0\u00a0\u0928\u093f\u0930\u094d\u0926\u0947\u0936 : (\u092a\u094d\u0930\u0936\u0928 \u0938\u0902 \u00a087 \u0938\u0947 90) : \u0928\u093f\u092e\u094d\u0928\u0932\u093f\u0916\u093f\u0924 \u092a\u094d\u0930\u0924\u094d\u092f\u0947\u0915 \u0935\u0930\u094d\u0917 \u092e\u0947\u0902 \u090f\u0915 \u0936\u092c\u094d\u0926 \u0935\u0930\u094d\u0924\u0928\u0940 \u0915\u0940 \u0926\u0943\u0937\u094d\u091f\u093f \u0938\u0947 \u0905\u0936\u0941\u0926\u094d\u0927 \u0939\u0948 I \u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u0905\u0936\u0941\u0926\u094d\u0927 \u0935\u0930\u094d\u0924\u0928\u0940 \u0915\u093e \u091a\u092f\u0928 \u0915\u0930\u0947\u0902 I\n\n85)\u00a0 A) \u092a\u093f\u0936\u0941\u0928 \u00a0B) \u0928\u093f\u0937\u094d\u0920\u0941\u0930 \u00a0C) \u092e\u0943\u0926\u0941\u0932 \u00a0D) \u0905\u0935\u092f\u092f\u0940\n\n86)\u00a0 \u00a0A) \u0938\u0902\u092c\u0902\u0927 \u00a0B) \u0935\u093f\u0938\u094d\u092e\u092f\u093e\u0926\u0940 C) \u0938\u0902\u092a\u094d\u0930\u0926\u093e\u0928 \u00a0D) \u0924\u0902\u0926\u094d\u0930\u093e\n\n87)\u00a0 A) \u0917\u0935\u093f\u0936 B) \u092d\u093e\u0935\u0941\u0915 C) \u0916\u0947\u091a\u0930 D) \u0905\u0927\u093f\u0915\u0930\u0923\n\n88)\u00a0 A) \u092f\u0941\u0927\u093f\u0937\u094d\u0920\u0930 B) \u0905\u0924\u092f\u0902\u0924 C) \u0936\u093f\u0937\u094d\u092f D) \u0905\u0902\u0924:\u0915\u0930\u0923\n\n\u0928\u093f\u0930\u094d\u0926\u0936: (\u092a\u094d\u0930\u0936\u0928 91 \u0938\u0947 93):\u0928\u093f\u092e\u0902\u0932\u093f\u0916\u093f\u0924 \u092a\u094d\u0930\u0924\u094d\u092f\u0947\u0915 \u0932\u093f\u090f \u0909\u0938\u0915\u0947 \u0928\u0940\u091a\u0947 \u0926\u093f\u092f\u0947 \u0917\u090f \u0935\u093f\u092f\u0915\u0932\u094d\u092a\u094b\u0902 \u092e\u0947 \u0938\u0947 \u0938\u0939\u0940 \u0935\u093f\u0932\u094b\u092e \u0936\u092c\u094d\u0926 \u091b\u093e\u0901\u091f\u093f\u092f\u0947 |\n89)\u00a0 \u0906\u0932\u0938\u0940\nA)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 \u0938\u092e\u0930\u094d\u0925 B) \u0938\u0915\u094d\u0937\u092e C) \u0938\u093e\u0939\u0938\u0940 D) \u0909\u0926\u094d\u092f\u092e\u0940\n90)\u00a0 \u0936\u093e\u0902\u0924\nA)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 \u0909\u0926\u094d\u0935\u094d\u092f\u093f\u0917\u094d\u0928 B) \u092a\u0930\u0947\u0936\u093e\u0928 C) \u0906\u0928\u0926\u093f\u0924 D) \u0909\u0932\u094d\u0932\u093e\u0938\u093f\u0924\n91)\u00a0 \u0905\u0902\u0924\u0930\u0902\u0917\nA)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 \u092c\u093e\u0939\u0930\u0940 B) \u092c\u0939\u093f\u0930\u0902\u0917 C) \u0917\u094b\u092a\u0928\u0940\u092f D) \u0917\u0939\u0928\n92)\u00a0 \u0908\u092a\u094d\u0938\u093e\nA)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 \u0907\u091a\u094d\u091b\u093e B) \u0908\u0930\u094d\u0937\u094d\u092f\u093e C) \u0932\u093e\u0932\u091a D) \u0926\u094d\u0935\u0947\u0937\n93)\u00a0 \u0906\u0938\u094d\u0925\u093e\nA)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 \u0906\u0926\u0930 B) \u0938\u092e\u094d\u092e\u093e\u0928 C) \u092e\u0939\u0924\u094d\u0935 D) \u0935\u093f\u0936\u094d\u0935\u093e\u0938\n\n94)\u00a0 Air refrigeration cycle works on: -Ans. Bell-Coleman cycle\n\n95)\u00a0 Drop forging is used to produce: -Ans. Large components \u00a0\n\n96)\u00a0 Casting is a: -Ans. Primary shaping process\n\n97)\u00a0 The cutting tools are made from: -Ans. High speed steel\n\n98)\u00a0 Ball bearing are, usually, made from: -Ans. Chrome steel\n\n99)\u00a0 Which of the following is the case hardening process? -Ans. Carburising, Cyaniding and Nirtriding\n\n100)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Cold working of metal increases: -Ans. Tensile strength, Yield strength and Hardness\n\n101)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Alloy wheels are manufactured using which of these processes? -Ans. \u00a0Die casting\n\n102)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 When a pattern in three parts the top part is known as a: -Ans. Cope\n\n103)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Thermit, used in thermit welding is a mixture of: -Ans. Iron oxide and aluminum\n\n104)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 The flux commonly used in brazing is: -Ans. Borax\n\n105)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 The center of gravity of a plane figure is called: -Ans. Centroid\n\n106)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Coulomb friction is the name of: -Ans. Dry friction\n\n107)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 For self locking lifting machine the efficiency must be: -Ans. less than 50%\n\n108)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Impulse has the same unit as: -Ans. Momentum \u00a0\n\n109)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 The fuel mostly used in boilers is: -Ans. Bituminous\n\n110)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 The ratio of brake power to indicated power of an I.C. engine is called: -Ans. Mechanical efficiency\n\n111)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Molecular transmission of heat is smallest in case of: -Ans. Gases\n\n112)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 A perfect black body is: -Ans. One which absorbs total radiant energy\n\n113)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 The internal energy of an ideal gas is: -Ans. A function of temperature alone\n\n114)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 A choke is applied in a car: -Ans. For starting in cold weather\n\n115)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 In a 2 stroke engine we got one power stroke in: -Ans. 360\u00b0 of crank rotation\n\n116)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 A carburetor is used, to supply: -Ans. Petrol + Air\n\n117)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 The function of clutch in Automobiles: -Ans. To disengage power from engine to gear box \u00a0\n\n118)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 The fly wheel influence the: -Ans. mean speed of the prime mover\n\n119)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 The height of watt governor (in meters) is equal to: -Ans. 8.95/N2\n\n120)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 An automobile steering gear is an example of: -Ans. lower pair\n\n121)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 The crowning of pulley is done to: -Ans. make the belt run in the center of pulley face width\n\n122)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 The range of pressure angle for spur gear is: -Ans. 14.5 - 20\u00b0\n\n123)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 A bicycle remains stable in running through a bend because of: -Ans. Radius of curved path\n\n124)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 A typewriter constitutes a: -Ans. Mechanism\n\n125)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Which of the following laws is applicable for the behavior of a perfect gas? -Ans. Boyle\u2019s Law, Charles\u2019 Law and Gay-Lussac\u2019s Law\n\n126)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 According Boyle\u2019s law for a perfect gas: -Ans. P2/P1 = V1/V2, if kept constant\n\n127)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Intensive property of a system is one whose value: -Ans. does not depend on the mass of system, like temperature, pressure\n\n128)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Extensive property of a system is one whose value: -Ans. depends upon the mass of a system like volume\n\n129)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Work done in a free expansion process is: -Ans. zero\n\n130)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Properties of substances like pressure, temperature and density in thermodynamics co-ordinates are: -Ans. point function\n\n131)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Heat and work are: -Ans. path functions\n\n132)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 For reversible adiabatic process, change in entropy is: -Ans. zero\n\n133)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 When a system undergoes a process such that \u0283\u03b4Q/T=0 & \u0394S>0, the process is: -Ans. Reversible adiabatic\n\n134)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 A reversible heat engine operates between 1600K and T2K and another reversible heat engine operates between T2K and 400K. If both the engines have the same heat input and output, the temperature T2 must be equal to: -Ans. 800K\n\n135)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Super charging is the process of: -Ans. supplying the intake of an engine with air at a density greater than the density of surrounding atmosphere\n\n136)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Air standard auto cycle efficiency is expressed as: -Ans. 1-(1/r)Y-1/Y\n\n137)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Which of the following statements is correct? -Ans. all reversible engines working between the same temperature limits have the same efficiency\n\n138)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 The size of inlet valve of an engine in comparison to an exhaust wall is -Ans. less\n\n139)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Which of the following is more viscous lubricating oil? -Ans.SAE 30\n\n140)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Characteristic of a gas constant is equal to -Ans. Cp-Cv\n\n141)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Adiabatic process is-Ans. Reversible Process\n\n142)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 The economizer is used in boiler to-Ans. Extract heat form the exhaust flue gases\n\n143)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 The feed check valve is used in order to-Ans. regulate flow of boiler water\n\n144)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 The compressor capacity with decreases in suction temperature-Ans. increases\n\n145)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Gas turbine works on-Ans. Brayton or Atkinson cycle\n\n146)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 In gas turbines high thermal efficiency is obtained in-Ans. Closed cycle\n\n147)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Stefan Boltzmann Law is applicable for heat transfer by-Ans. Radiation\n\n148)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 According to Stefan\u2019s law, the total radiation from a black body per second per unit area is proportional to-Ans. T4\n\n149)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 The amount of radiation mainly depends on-Ans. nature of body, temperature of body and type of surface of body\n\n150)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Ammonia-absorption refrigeration cycle requires-Ans. very little work input\n\n151)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 The moisture in refrigerant is removed by-Ans. driers\n\n152)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Refrigerator in aero planes usually employs the following refrigerant: -Ans. Air\n\n153)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Domestic refrigerator working on vapour compression cycle uses the following type of expansion device: -Ans. thermostatic expansion valve\n\n154)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Absorption system normally uses the following refrigerant: -Ans. ammonia\n\n155)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 The co-efficient of friction depends on-Ans. nature of the surface\n\n156)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 For maximum range of projectile, the angle of projection should be - Ans. 45\u00b0\n\n157)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Kinetic friction as compared to static friction is-Ans. less\n\n158)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Which of the following remains constant during the flight of a projectile? -Ans. horizontal component of velocity\n\n159)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Which of the following materials is the most elastic? -Ans. rubber\n\n160)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Resilience of material is considered when it is subjected to-Ans. shock loading\n\n161)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 A tapered bar of length L with diameter D at base and having specific weight \u03c1 is suspended freely under its own weight. The elongation of the bar wills be-Ans. \u03c1I3/6E\n\n162)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 For the same lift and the same angle of ascent, a similar base circle wills give-Ans. Constant Isochronisim\u00a0\n\n163)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Mohr\u2019s circle can be used to determine the stress on inclined surface-Ans.\u00a0Principal stress, Normal stress and Tangential stress\n\n164)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 The power of a porter governor is-Ans. inversely proportional to s2\n\n165)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 The designation M 33*3 of a bolt means-Ans. metric threads of 33 mm outside diameter and 2 mm pitch\n\n166)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Eye bolts are used for-Ans. lifting and transportation of machines\n\n167)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 A riveted joint may fail due to-Ans. shearing of the rivet, tearing off the plate at an edge and crushing of the rivet\n\n168)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Delta iron occurs at- Ans. between 1400\u00b0 C and 1539\u00b0 C\n\n169)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Which of the following constitutes of steels is the softest and least strong? -Ans. ferrite\n\n170)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 The crystal structure of gamma iron is-Ans. F.C.C.\n\n171)\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Cast iron is characterized by minimum of the following percentage of carbon: -Ans. 2%\n\nShare on Google Plus\n\nAuthor: Karun Bharmoria\n\n Blogger Comment\n\n\nPost a Comment\n\nPopular Posts |
__label__positive Recent Posts\n\nRecent Posts Widget\n\nGA Questions Asked For IBPS PO RRB IV on 5th September 2015\n\nSubject : Questions and Answers For IBOS RRB PO - IV and Exam Analysis.\n\nMorning Shift:\u00a0\n\nEnglish Section/Hindi Section: English section was of easy difficulty level. Hindi Section was of Easy to Moderate difficulty level.\n\nReading Comprehension (Economics) \u2013 10 questions\nCloze Test (Story based) \u2013 10 questions(Easy)\nSpotting Error & Sentence Improvement \u2013 10 Questions\nFill in the Blanks (Two Blanks) \u2013 5 Questions\nSynonym/Antonym \u2013 5 Questions\nParajumbles \u2013 5 Questions(Easy)\nThe overall good attempt in this section is 28-30\n\nReasoning Section: Reasoning section was of moderate level.\u00a0\n\nSeating Arrangement (Circular) \u2013 5 Questions\nLinear Arrangement(floor-wise) \u2013 5 Questions \u2013 Difficult\nSyllogism \u2013 5 Questions\nPuzzle \u2013 5 Questions\nCoding \u2013 Decoding \u2013 5 Questions\nInequalities \u2013 5 Questions\nData Sufficiency\nBlood Relation \u2013 3 questions\nLogical Reasoning\nOverall Good Attempt in this section was 25-27\n\nNumerical Ability: The Numerical Ability Section was of moderate to high difficulty level.\u00a0\n\nData Interpretation (3 Set 1 graph, 1 table, 1 Pie Chart) \u2013 15 Questions) \u2013\u00a0 Lengthy & Difficult\nEquations - 5 Questions.\nSingle Marks - 15 Questions.\nNumber Series\u00a0 \u2013 5 Questions\u00a0 \u2013 Moderate.\n\nComputers Sections: computers was easier than all sections Just prepare general Questions and Internet topics, MS Office, Shortcuts,\n\nGeneral Awareness IBPS RRB PO - IV on 5th September Morning Shift:\nWhat is Egypt capital-\u00a0 Cairo\nWhat is Thailand currency- Baht\nWhere is PNB headquarter- New Delhi\nWho is NDB President -\u00a0 K.V. Kamath\nRamanujan award given to- Amalendu Krishna\nRenault Brand Ambassador- Ranbir Kapoor\nWho is the chief minister of Jharkhand - Raghubar Das\nThe International Atomic Energy Agency's headquarters locates at - Vienna, Austria\nWorld Vegetarian Day is observed annually on - October 1\nWhat is S in RTGS?- Settlement\nKisan Vikas Patra amount? - It is Available in denominations of Rs 1,000, 5000, 10,000 and Rs 50,000.\nNew Member of European Union - Croatia\nNew Governor of Sikkim - Sriniwas Patil\nPV sindhu related to - Badminton\nCommittee for NABARD - Shivaraman\nWhich company installed white label ATM first in country? - Tata\nKathakali is folk dance of -? Kerala\nLargest producer of Rice in world? - China\nCommercial paper is issued by - Corporate\nSaarc head office- Nepal\nTurning point author \u2013 APJ Abdul Kalam\nBlue revolution is related which \u2013 fish\nBrad Haddin related to?- Cricket\nState with largest area? Rajasthan\nTomato Festival location? Spain\nDICGC related to ? Banking\nDhanchayt video launch by? HDFC bank\nCERN member first Asian country ? Pakistan\nWorld information technology summit 2018- Hyderabad\nRRB sponser bank contribution - 35%\nChina contribution in NDB - 41%\nSmart humsafar - SBI\nRBI regulate - Money Market .\n\nEvening Shift:\u00a0\n\nGeneral Awareness IBPS RRB PO - IV on 5th September Evenning Shift:\u00a0\nGaddafi National stadium is located in: Lahore\nInternational Non violence day on: 2 Oct\nBhutan currency is: Ngultrum\nRicky ponting is related to: Cricket\nILO headquarter is situated at: Geneva\nIndia's rating in world football's Fifa ranking - 155th\nSuez Canal is connecting- Mediterranean Sea with the Red Sea.\nPhilippines President- Benigno Simeon Cojuangco Aquino III\nManas National Park is located in: Assam\nGugamal National Park is located: Maharashtra\nLongest river in Asia: Yangtze River\nSimhadri Super Thermal Power Plant is located in: Andhra Pradesh\nMost expensive city in India- Mumbai\nUnion Minister of Rural Development, Panchayati Raj, Sanitation & Drinking Water: Chaudhary Birender Singh\n7th BRICS Summit was hekd in: Ufa,Russia\nWhat is the maximum amount of pension in Atal Pension Yojana?- Rs. 5000.\n\n\nPost a Comment |
__label__positive Brain Teasers Trivia Mentalrobics\nOptimized for Wii (visit full site)\n\nComputing Acronyms 101\n\nAn acronym is a word formed from the initial letter(s) of each of the successive parts or major parts of a compound term. You may be familiar with many common computing acronyms, but do you know what they stand for?\n\n\nQuiz ID:#10097\nFun:*** (2.56)\nDifficulty:* (1.05)\nCategory:Technology > Computers\nCreated By:Scubee\n\n\n#1 \u00a0 What does CPU stand for?\n\n#2 \u00a0 What does RAM stand for?\n\n#3 \u00a0 What does CDROM stand for?\n\n#4 \u00a0 What does LCD stand for?\n\n#5 \u00a0 What does DSL stand for?\n\n#6 \u00a0 What does MODEM stand for?\n\n#7 \u00a0 What does OEM stand for?\n\n#8 \u00a0 What does MP3 stand for?\n\n#9 \u00a0 What does FTP stand for?\n\n#10 \u00a0 What does DOS stand for?\n\n\n\n\nYou cannot read comments until you complete the quiz.\n\nTo post a comment, please visit the Full Site\n\nBack to Top\n\nCopyright \u00a9 1999-2007 | Green | Privacy | Conditions\n\nSign In |
__label__positive Skip to content\nRegister Sign in Wishlist\n\nChapter 01\n\nStudent resources for Chapter 01: Introduction\n\nStudy guide for Chapter 01: Introduction\n\nHere are some study questions that you can use in preparing for your exams on this unit. You should be able to understand each question, its relevance, and to answer it in your own words (no more than a sentence or two should be necessary). Try to think up original examples to illustrate points where appropriate.\n\n1.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 In what way is language pervasive in your life?\n2.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Why is language crucial to the creation of society?\n3.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 What does it mean to say \u201clanguage is functional\u201d\n4.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 What is linguistic creativity, and why is it important?\n5.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Give examples of arbitrariness in language.\n6.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Give examples of non-arbitrary linguistic forms.\n7.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Give examples of language change in Modern English.\n8.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 How many languages are there in the world?\n9.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 How many languages are there estimated to be in 2100?\n10.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 What factors might contribute to the decline in the number of languages?\n11.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 What issues are involved when people consider using the term \u201clanguage\u201d or \u201cdialect\u201d?\n12.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 What does it mean to say that two languages are mutually intelligible?\n13.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 What does it mean to say that linguistics is scientific?\n14.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 What is the difference between a linguist and a polyglot?\n15.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 What do linguists do?\n16.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 What are some of the questions that shape the field of linguistics?\n17.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 What do we mean when we say \u201call languages are created equal\u201d?\n18.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 What is the difference between synchronic and diachronic?\n19.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 What is the difference between descriptive and prescriptive approaches to grammar?\n20.\u00a0\u00a0\u00a0 Discuss ways in which language is functional; why is this important?\n\nSign In\n\nPlease sign in to access your account\n\n\nNot already registered? Create an account now. \u00d7\n\nFind content that relates to you\n\nJoin us online\n\nThis site uses cookies to improve your experience. Read more Close\n\nAre you sure you want to delete your account?\n\nThis cannot be undone.\n\n\n\n\nPlease fill in the required fields in your feedback submission. |
__label__positive Concept Study Guide Chapter 1-17 Essay\n\nSubmitted By brookensullivan\nWords: 2334\nPages: 10\n\nCumulative Concept Guide Biology 1201\nChapters 1 \u2013 9, 12 \u2013 17\n\nChapter 1\n\n1a) What distinguishes a scientific theory from a simple claim?\n\n1b) Is a theory always true?\n\n2a) What is the difference between an organism and a population?\n\n2b) By definition, what makes something alive?\n\n3a) What are emergent properties, and how are they important to the study of biology? Give an example of an emergent property.\n\n3b) What is reductionism, and how is it limiting to the study of biology? What is meant by systems biology?\n\n3c) Starting with molecules, outline the hierarchy of life up to the biosphere.\n\nChapter 2\n\n1) What are valence electrons, and how do they account for activity among atoms?\n\n2a) What is an ionic bond? What is a covalent bond? What is meant by the term molecule?\n\n2b) What is the difference between polar and nonpolar covalent bonds? Give an example of a molecule for each.\n\n2c) Once a molecule is formed by covalent bonding, what determines how it will react with other molecules?\n\n3a) What are Van der Waals forces?\n\n3b) What is hydrogen bonding? Give an example of hydrogen bonding between molecules.\n\n4) What is a chemical reaction?\n\nChapter 3\n\n1a) Explain how the polarity of individual water molecules gives rise to water\u2019s emergent properties essential to life.\n\n1b) What is meant by cohesion, adhesion, and surface tension?\n\n1c) Explain why water has a relatively high boiling point compared to other substances.\n\n1d) Why does ice float in water? How is this fact important for lake water life?\n\n2a) What happens to ionic compounds when exposed to water? What is a hydration shell?\n2b) Label the following bonds as either strong or weak in the presence of water: ionic bonds, covalent bonds, hydrogen bonds, Van der Waals forces.\n\n2c) What is meant by the terms hydrophilic and hydrophobic? What kinds of molecules are hydrophilic? What kinds are hydrophobic? Are ions hydrophilic or hydrophobic?\n\n3a) What are acids and bases?\n\n3b) What is pH? What is pOH? What units are they measured in? What is the sum of the pH and the pOH for any given water based solution?\n\nKnow the specific properties of water and what they mean. You should also be able to calculate pH and pOH of solutions with actual numbers.\n\nChapter 4\n\n1) What properties of carbon make it ideal for forming large molecules?\n\n2a) What accounts for the diversity of interactions of carbon-based molecules?\n\n2b) Draw and label each of the seven functional groups, including charges where applicable.\n\n3a) What is an isomer? Define structural isomers, cis-trans isomers, and enantiomers.\n\n3b) How do isomers differ in chemical reactivity?\n\nKnow the chart on pages 64 \u2013 65 in the textbook!\n\nChapter 5\n\n1) What are monomers, and how are they combined into polymers? What type of bonds hold polymers together? How are polymers broken back down into monomers?\n\n2a) What are carbohydrates? What are monomers of carbohydrates called? What are polymers of carbohydrates called? What is the bond between carbohydrate monomers called?\n\n2b) What are the functions of carbohydrates to living things?\n\n2c) In what ways can organisms store energy using carbohydrates?\n\n3a) What are nucleic acids composed of? What is a nucleoside? What is the bond called that holds nucleic acids together?\n\n3b) What accounts for the uniformed width of DNA molecules?\n\n4a) What distinguishes lipids from other organic molecules?\n\n4b) What types of molecules are considered lipids?\n\n4c) What is the difference between saturated fatty acids and unsaturated fatty acids?\n\n4d) What type of bond links fatty acids to glycols?\n\n4e) What are phospholipids? What structure do they form that is essential to life?\n\n5a) What is an amino acid? What two functional groups do all amino acids share? What accounts for the differing reactivity of the various amino acids?\n\n5b) What is the name of the bond that\u2026 |
__label__positive What Are Three Categories of Organisms in the Ecosystem?\n\nBy Michael Ignatius\nMountain ecosystems are some of the most easily disrupted habitats in the world.\nJupiterimages/Photos.com/Getty Images\n\nAll ecosystems contain three basic types of organisms: producers, consumers and decomposers. Each type of organism plays a vital role in the ecosystem. If one of the three types of organisms were to disappear, all living things would die as the cyclical flow of life-giving energy collapsed.\n\n\nAn ecosystem is a network of living organisms and non-living things. The organisms in an ecosystem rely on each other and their environment to sustain themselves. An ecosystem may be any size, from a part of your home to regions larger than most nations. Different environments have their own unique ecosystems, but there is no such thing as a single, perfect environment. Organisms develop within a given environment and will adapt or perish as the environment changes.\n\n\nAlthough the three types of organisms work together in a cycle of energy, it is easiest to think of producers as the organisms that begin the cycle. Producers take energy from inorganic sources and convert it into sugars. Green plants are producers that take energy from the sun and create sugars through photosynthesis. Deep-sea bacteria are also producers; they live near vents in the ocean's floor and convert chemicals into sugar. Producers are autotrophs because they are at the base of the food chain (also known as trophic levels).\n\n\nAs their name suggests, consumers are the organisms that consume energy from producers. Insects and animals are consumers, and there are three types within this category. Herbivores are primary consumers because they eat only autotrophs (plants). Carnivores then consume these herbivores (insects and animals). If a carnivore only eats herbivores, it is a secondary consumer. A carnivore that eats the secondary consumer would be a tertiary consumer. Omnivores, such as humans, consume both autotrophs and herbivores (and occasionally carnivores).\n\n\nDecomposers are the final type of organism in an ecosystem. All producers and consumers eventually die and become detritus. The decomposers then consume this lifeless detritus and convert it into vital inorganic material. Decomposers return this inorganic material to the environment where it provides important nutrients for producers. Thus, the cycle begins again as nutrients provided by decomposers sustain producers, consumers feed on the producers and decomposers reintroduce the remaining energy.\n\nAbout the Author\n |
__label__positive Online Test \u2013 History Mains by Eminence\n\n1. Primitive man first learnt to\n2. The Indus valley civilization specialized in\n3. The salient feature of the Rigvedic religion was\n4. Purushasukta is found in the\n5. The word Buddha means\n6. who were the contemporaries of kanishka?\n7. which among the following is the oldest dynasty\n8. In whose court was a Chinese embassy sent by T'ang emperor?\n9. Harsha moved his capital from________ to ________\n10. Export trade in pre-gupta age was more extensive with\n11. Only three vedas were considered cononical.pointb the odd one out\n12. One of the major towns of the Godavari region in the satbahana kingdom was\n13. who were the immediate successors of the Mouryas in Magadha\n14. An image of dancing girl is found at\n15. The mighty gateways found at the temples of south India are called\n16. which of the following princely states was annexed by british\n17. Which of the following statesments is wrong?\n18. Pitt's India Act, which was meant to remove the defects of the Regulating Act,was passed in the year\n19. Match important court poets/scholars with there patrons\n\nA) Ravikirti Gupta\u00a0 \u00a0 \u00a01.Sumudra.\n\nB) Bhavabhuti\u00a0 \u00a0 \u00a0 \u00a0 \u00a0 \u00a0 2. Harsha.\n\nC) Harisena\u00a0 \u00a0 \u00a0 \u00a0 \u00a0 \u00a0 \u00a0 \u00a0 3) Pulakesin.\n\nD) Banabhatta\u00a0 \u00a0 \u00a0 \u00a0 \u00a0 \u00a0 4) Yashovarman of Kanauj.\n20. When did Muslim League adopt self government as one of its objectives?\n21. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?\n22. Which of the following Rajput clan does not belong to the Agnikula?\n23. Which among the following empires was located on the banks of Tungabhadra River?\n24. In which year Mohd. Ghori attacked first in India on Multan?\n25. Who among the following is said to be the pioneer of guerilla warfare in the Deccan region?\n26. Which among the following Mughal painters is credited for painting Siberian Crane and the Dodo for the first time?\n27. In which among the following battles, artillery was used for the first time?\n28. Who among the following was the founder of Gahadvala Dynasty?\n29. At which among the following places, Gokal Jat revolted against mughals in the 17th century?\n30. Which Mughal Emperor had put a ban on killing of animals in certain days?\n31. What was the main responsibility of Mir Bakshi during the Mughal Era?\n32. Dwarasamudra was the capital of which of the following dynasties?\n33. Which among the following states of India was ruled by the\u00a0Ahom Dynasty\u00a0in Sultanate and Mughal era?\n34. Which type of coins were\u00a0issued by the king of Vijayanagar empire, Tirumala Raya ?\n35. Consider the following statements about the Nasaq system of land revenue, prevalent in India during medieval India:\n 1. Nasaq system of Land revenue was prevalent in some parts of Akbar\u2019s territory\n 2. Nasaq System declined after death of Akbar\nWhich among the above statements is/ are correct?\n36. Who among the following were Saints of Varkari sect ?\n 1. Chakradhar\n 2. Jnanesvar\n 3. Namadev\n 4. Samarth Ramdas\nIndicate the correct answer form the codes given below.\n37. Via the treaty of Alinagar 1757, Nawab Sirj-ud-daula granted permission to the British to __:\n 1. Fortify Calcutta\n 2. Mint their own coins\n 3. Duty Free trade in Bengal\nSelect the correct option from the codes given below:\n38. Consider the following pairs:\nDepartment : Established byDiwan-i-Bandagan : Qutubuddin Aibak\nDiwan-i-Mustkharaj : Alauddin Khilji\nDiwan-i-Khairat : Firoz Shah Tughlaq\nWhich of the above is/are correctly matched?\n39. Consider the following:\n 1. Samarth Ramdas\n 2. Guru Ravidas\n 3. Kabir\n 4. Tulsidas\nWho among the above saints were contemporary of King Akbar?\n40. Which of the following is the modern site of ancient Hindu Kingdom of Kapisa?\n41. Which of the following kings was the successor of Mahmud of Ghazni?\n42. Which of the following built the first mosque in India, the \u2018Quwwat-ul-Islam\u2019 (Delhi)?\n43. Which of the following was the only Delhi Sultan who had received a comprehensive literary, religious, and philosophical education?\n44. Which of the following is correct regarding Delhi Sultanate?\n1. Most of\u00a0 Sultans were weak who gave themselves to pleasures and completely ruined themselves.\n2. The people obeyed the Sultans out of fear and not out of love.\n3. The Hindus were also forced to pay Jazia.\nSelect the correct option from the codes given below:\n45. Mahmud Khalji led campaigns against which of the following rulers?\n1) Gujarat\n2) Gondwana\n3) Orissa\nSelect the correct option from the codes given below:\n46. Ghiyas-ud-Din was succeeded by which of the following kings?\n47. Which of the following describes the Iqta land?\n48. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Deva Raya I?\n1. He was a patron of Kannada literature and architecture.\n2. A noted Jain poet, Madhura, was in his court.\nSelect the correct option from the codes given below:\n49. Which of the following is considered as the father of Carnatic music?\n50. Which of the following foreign travellers mention about slavery during the rule of the Vijayanagar kingdom?\n51. Which of the following king started the Bahmani expansion towards Berar?\n52. Which of the following succeeded Alauddin Ahmad Shah II?\n53. The Bahmani rulers employed which of the following people to train the soldiers in the latest weaponry?\n1) Turkish\n2) Arabs\nSelect the correct option from the codes given below:\n54. Shihab-uddin Mahmud during which of the following periods?\n55. Which of the following is identified as the founder of the Ram cult in north India?\n56. Who led Mahad\u00a0Satyagraha?\n57. The \u2018Tebhega\u2019 movement of 1946 is associated with which among the following current states of India?\n58. Which among the following events took place immediately before the massacre at Jallianwalla Bagh?\n59. With reference to the freedom struggle of India, who among the following was not a part of the \u201cBombay Triumvirate\u201d?\n60. Year 1757 is remembered to which among the following battles?\n61. Which Portuguese Viceroy followed the \u201cBlue Water\u201d policy in India?\n62. Which among the following was the most important reason of objection to Simon Commission by Indian nationalists?\n63. Who among the following is known to oppose the\u00a0Age of consent bill?\n64. James Augustus Hickey is also known as?\n65. In which year, Bengal British India Society was established?\n66. A notable newspaper \u201cSambad Prabhakar\u201d was published by whom?\n67. Salt has an important place while discussing the modern Indian History and freedom struggle. Consider the following statements in this context:\n 1. Exercise of British monopoly on salt began from Bengal in the 18th century\n 2. Government monopoly in salt ended immediately after the Salta Satyagraha\nWhich among the above statements is/ are correct?\n68. Which act provided for separate representation of presidency corporations, chambers of commerce, universities and zamindars?\n69. Vasco Da Gama died in which place of India?\n70. Which of the following were included in the fourteen points of Jinnah?\n 1. Separate set of Fundamental Rights for Muslims\n 2. Reservation of one Third of Seats for Muslims\n 3. Separation of Sindh from Bombay\n 4. One Third Muslim Ministers\nSelect the correct option from the codes given below:\n71. The Ilbert Bill was introduced for:\n72. Which among the following statements conform to the ideology of the Arya Samaj?\n 1. The Vedas are infallible\n 2. The marriageable age of the boys and girls should be 25 and 16 respectively\n 3. Encouraging female education\n 4. Recognition of interreligious marriages\nSelect the correct statements from the codes given below:\n73. Consider the following political leaders with their pen names:\n 1. Gopal Hari Deshmukh \u2013 Lokahitawadi\n 2. Chittaranjan Das \u2013 Deenbandhu\n 3. Subhash Chandra Bose \u2013 Prince of Patriots\nWhich of the above is/are correct?\n74. Who among the Odishan leader took part in the Great revolt of 1857?\n75. Who of following compared the British with the hive of Bees?\n76. Who of the following is known as the founder of the modern Indian postal service?\n77. Arrange the following places according to their chronological order of the date of broke out the revolt of 1857.\n1. Meerut\n2. Kanpur\n3. Delhi\n4. Lucknow\nChoose the correct option from the codes given below :\n78. Queen Victoria was declared the Empress of India in which year?\n79. By introducing which of the following act slavery was abolished in India?\n80. Which of the following was/ were the provisions of the Cabinet Mission?\n1. A Union of India would be constructed with British India and Princely State\n2. Provincial Assemblies were divided into three groups\n3. Provinces would enjoy autonomy and residual power\n4. An interim government would be formed\nChoose the correct option from the codes given below:\n81. Bal Gangadhar Tilak received the title Lokmanya during the time of which of the following incidents?\n82. Which of the following committee\u2019s main objective was to achieve the level of literacy in India similar to England within 40 years?\n83. Which among the following were the reason for the Santhal rebellion?\n1. Corrupt money lending practices by Mahajans\n2. Forced labour\n3. Forceful changing of religion by the Christian Missionaries\n4. Disrespect of women Santhals by the British\nChoose the correct option from the codes given below:\n84. In which year, East India Company acquired Bombay from Portuguese?\n85. Which among the following was the correct title of National Anthem of India, when it was originally penned by Rabindranath Tagore?\n86. In which of the following languages was the Ghadar Journal was first published?\n87. Basumati, the oldest Bengali Daily paper was edited by ___:\n88. Mahalwari System\u00a0of Revenue Settlement was introduced in which of the following?\n89. Treaty of Seringapatam was signed after which of the Anglo-Mysore wars?\n90. Consider the following matches:\n 1. Ashtapradan : Maratha Empire\n 2. AshtaDiggaja : Vijaynagar Empire\n 3. Navaratna : Chandra Gupta I\n 4. Dahasala : Administration of Akbar\nWhich among the above are matched correctly?\n91. Who was the author of the book \u201cThe Indian War of Independence \u2013 1857\u201d?\n92. Who was the Governor General of of British East India Company when Treaty of Seringapatnam (1792) was signed?\n93. India\u2019s first census was taken during the Viceroyship of whom?\n94. In which year, Bengal British India Society was established?\n95. Which of the following leaders were associated with Pagal Panthis Revolt (1825-50)?\n96. Who among the following personalities wrote a play \u2018Neel Darpan\u2019 to portray the oppression of indigo farmers?\n97. Brahmo Samaj:\n1.was founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy\n2.does not permit idol or image worship\n3.permitted worship only through prayers,meditation and readings from upanishads\nWhich of the above statements is/are correct?\n98. Consider the following organisations with their founders:\n 1. British India Society \u2013 William Adam\n 2. Indian National Union \u2013 A.O. Hume\n 3. National Indian Association \u2013 Mary Carpenter\nWhich of the above is/are correct?\n99. Consider the following statements about Abhinav Bharat Society:\n 1. The society was established by Dinabandhu\u00a0Mitra\n 2. It was a revolutionary association which was formally disbanded in 1952\nWhich of the above statements is/are correct?\n100. Which of the following Organization was founded by Willam Jones with the help of Warren Hastings? |
__label__positive 200 Astronomy 2 Midterm Review Questions\n\n1. The scientist who worked out the mathematics of the connections between electricity, magnetism, and light in the 19th century was:\n\n\u00a0a. Albert Einstein\n\u00a0b. James Clerk Maxwell\n\u00a0c. Isaac Newton\n\u00a0d. Wilhelm Wien\n\u00a0e. Ludwig Boltzmann\n\n2. Which of the following statements about the nucleus of a typical atom (such as the carbon in your little finger) is FALSE:\n\n\u00a0a. the nucleus has an overall positive charge\n\u00a0b. the nucleus takes up a very small amount of space compared to the entire atom\n\u00a0c. the nucleus can contain both protons and neutrons\n\u00a0d. the nucleus repels the electrons which move around it\n\u00a0e. the nucleus contains most of the mass of the atom\n\n3. In the 19th century, it became clear that magnetism was not a separate force, but was always produced by the action of\n\n\u00a0a. electric charges that were in motion\n\u00a0b. the gravitational pull of the Earth\n\u00a0c. the strong nuclear force acting on electrons\n\u00a0d. light moving through a vacuum\n\u00a0e. rubbing a boy scout and a girl scout together to produce a fire\n\n4. Which of the following statements about electromagnetic radiation is FALSE?\n\na. it always spreads out at the speed of light\nb. it is given off by all objects that are not at a temperature of absolute zero\nc. it is typically produced when charged particles oscillate\nd. different waves of electromagnetic radiation differ in their wavelength or frequency\ne. it consists of charged particles given off by the nuclei of atoms\n\n5. Consider a radio wave from the transmitter of your favorite radio station, which has just reached the antenna of the radio in your room. Which of the following statements about this radio wave is CORRECT?\n\na. it has a frequency very close to the highest possible frequency for electromagnetic waves\nb. it traveled between the transmitter and your radio's antenna at the speed of sound\nc. its wavelength is much longer than the wavelength of the light you see reflected from the page of this exam\nd. the wave was originally produced by electrons that were not moving (at rest) inside the transmitter\ne. the reason that it could reach your radio is because all of space is filled with a medium called the aether in which electromagnetic waves can vibrate\n\n6. Which of the following travels through space the fastest?\n\na. light\nb. radio waves\nc. infrared\nd. x-rays\ne. you can't fool me, all of these travel through space at the same speed\n\n7. The fastest speed in the universe is:\n\na. the speed of sound\nb. the speed of light\nc. the speed of electron oscillations\nd. the speed with which Mercury orbits the Sun\ne. the speed with which weekends seem to pass\n\n8. The light which allows you to see this very interesting exam is made up of waves. In these waves, the distance between crests is called the:\n\na. frequency\nb. velocity\nc. wavelength\nd. amplitude\ne. you can't fool me; in these waves, the distance between crests is zero\n\n9. Which of the following has the longest wavelength?\n\na. radio\nb. visible light\nc. ultraviolet\nd. x-rays\ne. you can't fool me, all these have the same wavelength\n\n10. Which of the following has the highest frequency?\n\na. visible light\nb. gamma rays\nc. radio waves\nd. ultraviolet\ne. you can't fool me, all these have the same frequency\n\n11. A Hertz is\n\na. a unit of wavelength\nb. a unit of frequency\nc. a unit of velocity\nd. a unit of loudness\ne. a well-known car-rental company\n\n12. A fashion designer decides to bring out a new line of clothing which reflects the longest wavelength of visible light. These articles of clothing will be what color to the human eye?\n\na. yellow-green\nb. blue\nc. violet\nd. red\ne. black\n\n13. Which of the following statements about photons is FALSE?\n\na. photons always travel at the speed of light\nb. photons each carry a specific amount of energy\nc. a photon of light cannot pass through the atmosphere of the Earth, and thus cannot be seen at the Earth's surface\nd. high energy photons have a high frequency\ne. a gamma-ray photon is more energetic than a visible light photon\n\n14. After a nice dinner around the campfire on a camping trip, you and a friend decide to get away from the fire to observe the stars. As you get farther and farther away, you see the brightness of the fire:\n\na. increase with distance\nb. remain the same\nc. decrease as the distance squared\nd. change more and more in color (becoming redder)\ne. this can't be answered without having more information\n\n15. Not all wavelengths of electromagnetic radiation can penetrate the Earth's atmosphere. Of the following types of waves that come from space, which one are you likely to be able to detect most easily from our planet's surface:\n\na. x-rays\nb. gamma rays\nc. infrared waves\nd. ultraviolet waves\ne. radio waves of the wavelength that carry FM broadcasts\n\n16. Most ultraviolet radiation does not penetrate to the Earth's surface. Instead it is absorbed in:\n\na. the ozone layer\nb. the ionosphere\nc. the region between the Earth and the Sun\nd. stratosphere\ne. tanning zone\n\n17. Human eyes evolved to detect visible light because:\n\na. it is the lowest energy band of the electromagnetic spectrum and thus easiest to detect\nb. it is the only kind of radiation that penetrates the Earth's atmosphere at all\nc. it is the band of the spectrum which is the least Doppler shifted coming from the Sun\nd. it is the band of the spectrum where the Sun puts out the most energy\ne. it is the band of the spectrum where the warm Earth glows the most effectively at night\n\n18. Which of the following statements about infrared radiation is TRUE?\n\na. it is the band of the electromagnetic spectrum where each wave or photon has the greatest energy\nb. it was first discovered in 1800 in an experiment using sunlight and thermometers\nc. unlike light, infrared can never travel as fast as the speed of light\nd. while many stars give off infrared, there is nothing on Earth at the right temperature to emit it\ne. it is the radiation responsible for giving sunburns (or in large doses, skin cancer)\n\n19. Which of the following is not a type of radio wave?\n\na. microwaves\nb. radar waves\nc. the waves that carry AM or FM broadcasts\nd. the sound waves coming from your transistor radio\ne. the waves that carry television transmissions\n\n20. A politician who has just said something very dumb on an AM all-talk radio station suddenly remembers the astronomy class he had in college,and starts to worry that his words are now moving outward into space at the speed of light (and will embarrass him forever). Does he have a reason to worry?\n\na. Yes, because all radio waves do travel at the speed of light and all of them escape from the Earth\nb. No, because radio waves travel much slower than the speed of light and will take a very long time to get anywhere\nc. No, because radio waves are all absorbed by the ozone layer in the Earth's atmosphere\nd. No, because AM radio waves are bounced back or scattered by the ionosphere\ne. Yes, because while all radio waves do not escape from the Earth, AM radio waves do\n\n21. (In the absence of a strong magnetic field), what is the chief factor that determines what type of electromagnetic radiation objects give off:\n\na. their mass\nb. their temperature\nc. their overall motion\nd. their chemical makeup\ne. their size\n\n22. The energy of random atomic and molecular motion is called\n\na. heat\nb. the Doppler shift\nc. spectroscopy\nd. velocity\ne. rock and roll\n\n23. Which of the following has the greatest average energy of random atomic and molecular motion?\n\na. a cube of ice\nb. a cube of water\nc. a cube of steam\nd. a cube of air (on Earth)\ne. a cube of the Sun\n\n24. An idealized object that does not reflect or scatter any radiation, but simply absorbs every bit of radiation that falls on it is called:\n\na. a Doppler surface\nb. an electromagnetic radiator\nc. a blackbody\nd. a spectrum\ne. a vice president\n\n25. Two stars are giving off electromagnetic radiation. The hotter star will:\n\na. give off more radiation at all wavelengths\nb. will have a higher average frequency of radiation\nc. will radiate energy at more than one wavelength\nd. will give off a continuous spectrum of waves\ne. all of the above\n\n26. An astronomer discovers a new star and wants to measure its temperature. She would do this by:\n\na. measuring the Doppler shift of its spectral lines\nb. making a blackbody curve and finding the wavelength of the peak (maximum)\nc. measuring the intensity of radio waves the star gives off\nd. measuring how much light the star reflects\ne. sending a graduate student with a very long (and durable) thermometer to the\nstar's vicinity\n\n27. An astronomer observes two ordinary stars. The first one turns out to be twice as hot as the second. This means that the first one radiates:\n\na. twice as much energy as the second\nb. roughly the same amount of energy as the second\nc. half as much energy as the second\nd. about 16 times the energy of the second\ne. this problem cannot be solved with just the information we were given\n\n29. Which of the following is NOT done best with a spectrometer?\n\na. measuring how bright sources of light in the universe appear\nb. measuring the different colors in the spectrum\nc. measuring the amount that lines are Doppler shifted\nd. measuring what elements are present in a star\ne. measuring what conditions are like in the cool atmosphere of a star\n\n30. An artist who likes working with sources of light decides to make a modern sculpture out of electrified glass tubes that contain very thin(rarified) neon gas. When the sculpture is finished, and the electricity is turned on, the tubes glow with a rich red color. What we are seeing is:\n\na. a continuous spectrum\nb. an absorption spectrum\nc. an emission spectrum\nd. a Doppler shift\ne. all of the above\n\n32. One of the great triumphs of spectroscopy was when astronomers identified a new element in the Sun (one that was only later found on Earth). Today, this element is called:\n\na. Solarium\nb. Hydrogen\nc. Einsteinium\nd. Helium\ne. Astronomium\n\n33. If I were to scale up an atom until it were the size of a sports arena, the space filled by the positive charges inside the atom (according to the work of Ernest Rutherford early in this century) would be:\n\na. as big as the entire stadium (and very thinly spread out)\nb. as big as the space filled by all the negative charges (that's why the atom is neutral)\nc. very small (perhaps the size of a soccer ball) and in the middle\nd. an extremely thin layer spread completely around the outer walls of the stadium\ne. this question cannot be answered (even roughly) without knowing which kind of atom we are discussing\n\n34. Atoms typically consist of electrons, protons, and neutrons. The most common isotope of one element, however, only has two of these three types of particles. This element is:\n\na. helium\nb. hydrogen\nc. uranium\nd. carbon\ne. silicon\n\n35. Two versions of an element with different numbers of neutrons are called:\n\na. molecules\nb. electron pairs\nc. isotopes\nd. ions\ne. re-runs\n\n36. As of the time our textbook went to press, 111 elements had been discovered. All of the ones over 92 have been made in physics laboratories. When element 112 is found, provided it is like the other artificially made elements, it will:\n\na. have only protons, no neutrons at all\nb. soon be used in industry to make new kinds of plastics\nc. have one of the smallest nuclei known\nd. only remain stable for an extremely small fraction of a second\ne. eventually be found in the Sun (with very high quality spectrometers)\n\n37. The idea that atoms radiate energy only when their electrons move from higher to lower energy levels was first advanced by:\n\na. J. J. Thomson\nb. Niels Bohr\nc. Ernest Rutherford\nd. Albert Einstein\ne. Christian Doppler\n\n38. Why do different types of atoms (elements) give off or absorb different spectral lines?\n\na. all elements have the same lines, but they are Doppler shifted by different amounts\nb. in some elements, electrons can only move to odd numbered levels, in others only to even numbered ones\nc. in heavier elements, diffraction spreads out the lines that the atom produces, making the colors different\nd. because the spacing of the energy levels is different in different atoms\ne. because some atoms do not have a ground state, while others have three or four\n\n39. When an atom has lost one or more electrons, it is said to be:\n\na. ionized\nb. excited\nc. in its ground state\nd. red shifted\ne. over the hill\n\n40. What happens as an electron falls from a higher level to a lower level in an atom?\n\na. a photon is given off\nb. the color of the wave involved shifts to the red\nc. a photon is absorbed\nd. another electron from the lower level takes its place\ne. nothing happens; electrons can only go from a lower level to a higher level\n\n41. How do astronomers learn what elements are present in a given star?\n\na. look at what color light dominates its continuous spectrum\nb. listen for coded signals in the radio waves it gives off in the FM band\nc. look at the absorption lines in its spectrum\nd. send spacecraft like Voyager to examine its make-up from close-up\ne. compare visible-light photographs of the star (taken with large telescopes) to those of the Sun.\n\n42. You are alone in a large, completely dark auditorium on Earth. What kind of telescope should I use from the other side of the auditorium to detect the electromagnetic radiation emitted by your body?\n\na. visible light\nb. infra-red\nc. ultra-violet\nd. black light\ne. no telescope will be effective if I am in a dark room\n\n43. I want to examine the surface of a planet which is covered by a thick atmosphere (which includes oxygen and contains a very thick layer of water clouds that never clear). What wavelength of electromagnetic radiation would I be smartest to use:\n\na. visible light\nb. x-rays\nc. radar waves\nd. ultra-violet\ne. none would work\n\n44. Planck's constant relates:\n\na. the energy of a wave to the number of protons in the nucleus of the atom that emitted it\nb. the frequency of a wave to its energy\nc. the maximum energy emitted by a blackbody to its temperature\nd. the energy emitted by a star to its temperature\ne. the Doppler shift of a light source to its speed\n\n45. Which of the following consists of electro-magnetic waves with the shortest wavelength?\n\na. a beam of green light\nb. TV transmissions bringing us Monday night football\nc. the sound of the instructor's voice\nd. the waves of a dental x-ray\ne. the rays that tan a sunbather on the beach\n\n46. The two regions of the electromagnetic spectrum where the Earth's atmosphere is transparent (radiation can get in) are visible light and\n\na. ultraviolet\nb. x-rays\nc. some radio waves\nd. gamma-rays\ne. you can't fool me, the atmosphere is transparent ONLY for visible light\n\n47. Astronomical observatories have been available since ancient times, and many cultures set aside special sites for astronomical observations. What was missing from these observatories until about 1610 was:\n\na. a dark site, where lights did not get in the way\nb. graduate students with the ability to climb up to higher altitudes\nc. instruments for detecting radio waves\nd. a way of measuring from what direction in the sky a beam of light was coming\ne. telescopes\n\n48. The most important function of an astronomical telescope is to:\n\na. collect as much light as possible and bring it to a focus\nb. magnify (enlarge) celestial objects so we can see them clearly\nc. measure the color of an object\nd. bring distant objects closer by pulling on the light\ne. pierce through the clouds so a cloudy night is not wasted\n\n49. The first person (to the best of our knowledge) to turn a telescope to astronomical observations was:\n\na. Isaac Newton\nb. Galileo Galilei\nc. Adam Refractor\nd. Edwin Hubble\ne. Karl Jansky\n\n50. The size of the device that gathers (collects) radiation is called a telescope's:\n\na. magnification\nb. resolution\nc. aperture\nd. focal width\ne. Galilean criterion\n\n51. At the largest and most modern astronomical observatories on Earth today, which of the following regularly happens to the image formed by the telescope?\n\na. it is viewed by a group of graduate students who then make a sketch of it to have a permanent record\nb. it is recorded on a piece of black and white film, which is then developed\nc. it is reflected by a special arrangement of mirrors back into the beam and up into the sky\nd. it is recorded using an electronic detector called a CCD for later analysis\ne. it is recorded as a radio signal and sent by satellite to other observatories around the world\n\n52. The earliest telescopes used by astronomers were:\n\na. reflectors\nb. refractors\nc. radio telescopes\nd. about the aperture of the telescope on Mount Palomar\ne. used late at night to look into the neighbors' windows\n\n53. Your friend, a graduate student in astronomy, is giving you a special tour of the local observatory. You notice that in viewing the image from the telescope you are seeing it from underneath the primary mirror; the beam of light has come through a small hole in the main mirror to an eyepiece below. This telescope uses what focusing arrangement?\n\na. prime focus\nb. Newtonian focus\nc. Cassegrain focus\nd. Galilean focus\ne. out of focus\n\n54. The largest visible-light telescopes in the world use what device to collect as much light as possible before the light is brought to a focus (to act as the light bucket)?\n\na. lens\nb. spectroscope\nc. CCD\nd. mirror\ne. a valley in Puerto Rico\n\n55. Today, the largest telescope in the world that uses visible light is:\n\na. the Mount Palomar telescope\nb. the telescope in the valley in Puerto Rico\nc. the 236-inch in the Caucasus Mountains of the former Soviet Union\nd. the Keck Telescope in Hawaii\ne. the Hubble Space Telescope\n\n56. Which of the following has a longer integration time (can collect light for a longer period of time) than the human eye?\n\na. photographic film\nb. photographic plates\nc. a CCD (charge coupled device)\nd. all of the above\ne. none of the above\n\n57. To get away from the pressures of your astronomy class you and some friends decide to go to a football game. In the stadium, a friend gives you her binoculars to look through, and suddenly you realize that you are back to a subject covered in astronomy class. What type of telescope are you looking through when you use binoculars?\n\na. reflecting\nb. infra-red\nc. refracting\nd. Newtonian\ne. CCD\n\n58. A graduate student is trying to follow the weather on Jupiter for her PhD thesis. To see individual storms in the upper atmosphere of the planet, she needs to have excellent resolution. What type of telescope would be best for her to use?\n\na. a refractor, with as small an aperture as possible\nb. a radio telescope\nc. a large reflector in an observatory located at sea level\nd. a large reflector located in orbit above the Earth's atmosphere\ne. you can't fool me, no telescope can show the weather on Jupiter\n\n59. A new technique called adaptive optics allows astronomers to:\n\na. change the eyepieces of their telescopes much more quickly than ever before\nb. compensate for changes in the Earth's atmosphere and achieve better resolution\nc. increase the aperture of their telescopes by a very large factor\nd. change the region of the electro-magnetic spectrum in which their telescope is able to detect radiation\ne. use the observatory shop to make better eye-glasses for their graduate students\n\n60. Why do telescopes have to have a good motorized drive system to move them quickly and smoothly?\n\na. because the Earth is rotating with the telescope\nb. because astronomers typically have to look at many objects in the sky in a few minutes\nc. because all objects in the sky vary in brightness very quickly\nd. because the telescope can then be moved out from under the clouds to where it is clear\ne. because shooting stars (which is what astronomers mainly follow) move so quickly across the sky during a typical night\n\n61. When an astronomer involved in a research project says he is going to look at the observatory's plate collection, what will he be looking at?\n\na. a collection of souvenir plates, with painting of other observatories from around the world (astronomers collect these as a hobby)\nb. a series of metal disks used for changing the aperture of reflecting telescopes\nc. a series of glass plates, with light-sensitive chemicals on them, on which the appearance of the sky is recorded\nd. a series of insulated plastic shields, which are used to prevent stray infrared radiation from the observatory from interfering with observations\ne. what the special of the day is in the observatory cafeteria\n\n62. Which of the following is NOT a detector of radiation from space that astronomers use or have used?\n\na. eyes in the head of the astronomer\nb. a piece of photographic film\nc. a photographic plate\nd. a charge-coupled device (CCD)\ne. a telescope\n\n63. What type of telescope can be used routinely on the surface of the Earth during the DAY?\n\na. a visible-light telescope\nb. a radio telescope\nc. an x-ray telescope\nd. a gamma-ray telescope\ne. you can't fool me, there is no telescope that can be used during the DAY\n\n64. You are an astronomer who wants to study a faint star in the process of being born, which gives off most of its faint radiation in the infra-red. Which of the following would NOT be a step you would want to take?\n\na. heat your telescope, so its delicate optics are not cold\nb. try to have your telescope as high above the layers of water vapor in the Earth's atmosphere as possible\nc. shield your telescope from the radiation given off by your graduate students\nd. isolate your telescope in very cold surroundings\ne. make sure your telescope optics are kept as free of dust as possible\n\n65. Which of the following types of telescopes can be used ONLY above the Earth's atmosphere?\n\na. x-ray telescope\nb. visible-light telescope\nc. radio telescope\nd. reflector\ne. none of the above\n\n66. To break up light into the component colors that it contains astronomers use a device called:\n\na. a telescope\nb. a CCD\nc. a spectrometer\nd. Cassegrain splitter\ne. interferometer array\n\n67. The largest refracting telescope in the world, financed by a Chicago millionaire in the 1890's is at the:\n\na. Lick Observatory\nb. Yerkes Observatory\nc. Keck Observatory\nd. Hale Observatory\ne. Fraknoi/Morrison/Wolff Observatory\n\n68. A very wealthy donor decides to give a large sum of money to your college or university to build the world's largest visible-light gathering telescope. From an astronomical perspective, where would be the best location to put such a telescope?\n\na. in a dark spot right on the campus\nb. on the west coast of the U.S. very close to sea level (a location like Seattle, for example)\nc. close to a large city where there are many astronomers to use it\nd. on a tall, dry mountain peak\ne. wherever the donor wants to put it\n\n69. The first radio telescope was built in the 1930's by\n\na. Karl Jansky\nb. George Ellery Hale\nc. Edwin Hubble\nd. a consortium of European astronomers\ne. Heinrich Hertz\n\n70. Radio telescopes of modest size can't make out as much detail (have a lower resolution) than visible light telescopes. How do astronomers overcome this limitation?\n\na. we have built a radio telescope in the desert that covers 1000 square miles\nb. this problem can't be solved; radio telescopes will always show less detail\nc. we can connect several radio telescopes some distance apart together electronically to give us the resolution of a larger telescope\nd. we have launched several radio telescope satellites into orbit; each of which make out much more detail than visible light telescopes\ne. the same engineers responsible for the shape of the mirror for the Hubble Space Telescope are working on this problem; stay tuned\n\n71. In a radio telescope, the role that the mirror plays in visible-light telescopes is played by\n\na. a spectrometer\nb. an interferometer\nc. computer software\nd. a special kind of lens\ne. a large metal dish\n\n72. Of the following, which has the highest resolution (ability to make out fine detail):\n\na. the German 100-meter radio dish\nb. the 305-meter Arecibo radio dish in Puerto Rico\nc. the 64-meter radio dish near Parkes, Australia\nd. the Very Large Array of radio telescopes in New Mexico\ne. the Very Long Baseline Array of Radio Telescopes, stretching from the Virgin Islands to Hawaii\n\n73. Which of the following is NOT an advantage that the Hubble Space Telescope has over large telescopes on Earth?\n\na. the Hubble is above the Earth's atmosphere, which makes the stars twinkle and jiggle\nb. the Hubble can observe at wavelengths (such as UV) which cannot be seen from the ground\nc. the Hubble has a larger aperture than any visible-light telescope on Earth\nd. the Hubble has a better resolution than visible-light telescopes on Earth\ne. you can't fool me, all of these are advantages the Hubble has over earth-bound telescopes\n\n74. The Kuiper Airborne Observatory was\n\na. a small Lear jet with an 8-inch visible-light telescope on Board used to search for lost NASA spacecraft\nb. an x-ray telescope flying many kilometers up (so high that it had to be automated)\nc. a balloon which was designed to fly above the ozone layer and search for ultraviolet radiation from space\nd. an airplane with an infra-red telescope on board designed to fly above much of the water vapor in the Earth's atmosphere\ne. an aircraft used by Hollywood movie makers when they wanted to show astronauts in free fall\n\n75. Which of the following major telescopes is or was not located in space?\n\na. the Hubble Space Telescope\nb. the Compton Gamma-ray Observatory\nc. the International Ultraviolet Explorer\nd. the Keck Telescope\ne. the Roentgensatellit (ROSAT) x-ray telescope\n\n76. What was the major problem with the Hubble Space Telescope when it was first launched into orbit?\n\na. its antenna wouldn't open, so the data could not be sent back to Earth\nb. it was in the wrong orbit, so it dipped down into the Earth's thicker atmosphere regularly\nc. its spectroscope broke during the launch\nd. the mirror's shape was slightly off, so all the light did not come to a single focus\ne. the mirror cover was stuck in the partly on position, making part of the mirror not usable\n\n77. In the summer of 1996, the European Space Agency announced that it would be suspending the operations of the International Ultraviolet Explorer. Astronomers who were most unhappy about that announcement are likely to be studying what types of objects?\n\na. distant galaxies at the limits of the observable universe\nb. cool stars just being born from cosmic raw material\nc. very hot stars\nd. the Moon\ne. gamma-ray bursts\n\n78. The first x-ray telescope capable of forming images of x-ray source was called:\n\na. Hubble\nb. Einstein\nc. Uhuru\nd. Compton\ne. Bayonne\n\n79. When a knowledgeable amateur astronomer tells you that she has a 14-inch telescope, what does the number 14 refer to?\n\na. the number of times the image is magnified (how much bigger it looks)\nb. the length of the main telescope tube\nc. the focal length\nd. the length of the eyepiece tube\ne. the diameter of the primary lens or mirror\n\n80. The most sophisticated telescope for studying cosmic gamma rays (including the mysterious gamma-ray bursts) that astronomers have today is the:\n\na. Keck Telescope\nb. Compton Observatory\nc. Hubble Space Telescope\nd. the Very Large Array in New Mexico\ne. Rosat\n\n81. As astronomers learn more about the structure of the Sun, they find that it\n\na. has a small solid core inside\nb. is made entirely of liquid and (on the outside) hot gas\nc. is solid throughout, but with a large very hot atmosphere\nd. is made entirely of hot gas\ne. is made of billions of individual pieces of hot rock, all orbiting around each other in a whirling arrangement\n\n82. You are out on the beach, enjoying the warm sunshine with friends. As you glance (briefly we hope) up at the Sun, the part of the Sun that you can see directly is called its:\n\na. corona\nb. photosphere\nc. chromosphere\nd. core\ne. heliopause\n\n83. How do astronomers know what the outer layers of the Sun are made of?\n\na. we send graduate students to get samples\nb. spacecraft with good shielding have approached the Sun and obtained samples\nc. the surface layers of Mercury have been laid down by the Sun and are thus made of the same material as the Sun\nd. the Sun's wind gives us an accurate measure of all the different elements in the Sun\ne. we take an absorption line spectrum of the Sun, and the absorption lines tell us what elements are present in the outer layers\n\n84. The most common element in the Sun is\n\na. helium\nb. iron\nc. hydrogen\nd. water\ne. nitrogen\n\n85. The hotter region directly above the Sun's visible surface is called the\n\na. chromosphere\nb. photosphere\nc. corona\nd. ionization region\ne. convection zone\n\n86. As you go upwards from the Sun's photosphere,\n\na. the temperature decreases\nb. the density (number of atoms in a unit volume) decreases\nc. the layers get easier to see with the unaided eye\nd. the kinds of atoms present change drastically\ne. only red light can emerge\n\n87. The Sun's chromosphere and corona were discovered\n\na. using the first telescopes Galileo built\nb. in the late 19th century through the use of a spectrograph\nc. during total eclipses of the Sun\nd. using spacecraft that orbited Venus, a planet with a better view of the Sun\ne. by ancient shepherds, who saw reflections of the Sun in quiet pools of water\n\n88. The Sun's chromosphere contains many jet like projections that stick up into the transition region. These spikes of gas are called:\n\na. coronae\nb. spicules\nc. plages\nd. flares\ne. prominences\n\n89. Which part of the Sun's atmosphere is the hottest?\n\na. chromosphere\nb. transition region\nc. corona\nd. just above the photosphere\ne. you can't fool me, all these regions are at roughly the same temperature\n\n90. Which part of the Sun's atmosphere has the lowest density (number of atoms per unit volume)?\n\na. corona\nb. transition region\nc. chromosphere\nd. just above the photosphere\ne. you can't fool me, all these regions are at roughly the same density\n\n91. What mechanisms do astronomers believe is responsible for making the Sun's outer atmosphere so much hotter than its photosphere?\n\na. stirring by comets, meteors, and other pieces of solid material being pulled in by the Sun's strong gravity\nb. light reflected back from the terrestrial planets\nc. the Sun's magnetic field interacting with the charged particles that make up the atmosphere\nd. the ionization of a new element called coronium\ne. astronomers really don't have even a theory about what heats the Sun's outermost layers\n\n92. Astronomers first detected the presence of a wind of particles coming from the Sun by\n\na. sending a spacecraft much closer to the Sun than the planet Mercury\nb. by noting its effects on the atmosphere of Venus\nc. by dramatic and sudden changes in the spectrum of coronium\nd. using the experiments aboard Sputnik 1, the first spacecraft to go above the Earth's atmosphere\ne. by noting the wind's effects on the tails of comets\n\n93. The ten million tons of particles that escape the Sun each year in the form of the solar wind get out mainly from regions called\n\na. sunspots\nb. spicules\nc. aurorae\nd. coronal holes\ne. transition regions\n\n94. Solar wind particles can be captured by the Earth's magnetosphere. When these particles spiral down along the magnetic field into the atmosphere, they are responsible for:\n\na. aurorae (northern and southern lights)\nb. tropical storms (regions of rapidly rotating air)\nc. the greenhouse effect\nd. the reddish color we see during sunsets\ne. the poor quality of television programming in the world's northern hemisphere\n\n95. The granulation pattern that astronomers have observed on the surface of the Sun tells us that:\n\na. the Sun is a lot cooler on the inside than on the outside\nb. the Sun's surface is made of a thin solid that cracks easily\nc. hot material must be rising from the Sun's hotter interior\nd. the solar wind must consist of very small (low-mass) particles\ne. the Sun accumulates a lot of dirt and dust because of its large gravity\n\n96. Sunspots are darker than the regions of the Sun around them because\n\na. they consist of different elements than the rest of the Sun\nb. they are located in the corona and not on the photosphere\nc. they move much faster around the Sun than other material and thus heat up\nd. they are the shadows of the planets and asteroids seen on the bright surface of the Sun\ne. they are cooler than the material around them (although still very hot compared to Earth temperatures)\n\n97. Astronomers have concluded that the Sun's activity varies in an 11-year cycle. Which of the following statements about this cycle is TRUE:\n\na. Every 11 years sunspots completely cover the Sun, making its surface much darker\nb. The number of sunspots gets larger and smaller over the course of 11 years\nc. When sunspots are at a minimum, we get the largest number of flares and prominences\nd. The Sun's activity cycle shows absolutely no connection to its magnetic field\ne. The Sun's activity cycle is directly connected to the number of earthquakes at the continental plate boundaries on Earth\n\n98. How do astronomers know how strong the magnetic field of the Sun is?\n\na. they measure the magnetic field of the Earth, which is a direct result of the magnetic field of the Sun\nb. they measure the Sun's rotation using the Doppler effect\nc. they count the number of days in the year that we get an aurora in the upper atmosphere\nd. the measure the Zeeman effect (the splitting of spectral lines)\ne. the diameter of a star is directly related to the size of its magnetic field\n\n99. A Canadian college student who has taken an astronomy class goes home for the holidays and persuades his parents to let him borrow the family car. When he returns, he finds that his parents are very angry with him, claiming he left the garage door open. Yet he remembers that he carefully closed the garage door. After consulting with his astronomy instructor, he comes up with an alternative explanation for why the garage door is open. Which of the following is PART of that explanation?\n\na. The Sun was so bright and high in the sky in December in Canada that it got into his parents' eyes\nb. There was an eclipse of the Sun\nc. It was a time of solar maximum, and there had been a flare on the Sun\nd. No aurorae had been seen in the sky for many months\ne. The number of sunspots had reached an all-time minimum\n\n100. Which of the following is not part of some active regions on the Sun?\n\na. sunspots\nb. flares\nc. plages\nd. prominences\ne. granulation\n\n101. Astronomers now realize that active regions on the Sun are connected with\n\na. the dark regions between the bright granulation cells on the photosphere\nb. loops of magnetic field emerging from the surface of the Sun\nc. the absence of sunspots during a solar minimum\nd. great tropical storm systems in the Earth's atmosphere\ne. changes in the gravitational pull of the Sun over different parts of its photosphere\n\n102. Astronomers have found that the level of the Sun's activity varies over the centuries. How did they come to realize that this is so:\n\na. historical records of the number of sunspots seen on the Sun\nb. measuring the amount of radioactive carbon in tree rings\nc. historical records of auroral activity\nd. all of the above\ne. none of the above\n\n103. On Earth, a period of low solar activity, such as the Maunder Minimum, means:\n\na. less volcanic activity\nb. a climate with cooler temperatures\nc. a significant increase in the number of aurorae seen\nd. a much larger number of cloudy days\ne. very little; there is no connection between the Sun's activity and what happens on Earth\n\n104. Recently, some engineers and scientists have proposed building spaceships with enormous \"sails\" that catch the solar wind and use it to move the ship. What kinds of particles would be hitting this sail (i.e. what is the solar wind mostly made of):\n\na. nuclei of heavier atoms such as iron and nickel\nb. calcium atoms\nc. electrons and protons\nd. gamma-rays\ne. scientists do not have any idea of the composition of the solar wind; it is very mysterious\n\n105. When we use the light of atoms such as hydrogen and calcium to examine the Sun's outer layers, we can see bright \"clouds\" in the chromosphere\nright around the location of sunspots. These bright clouds are given the name:\n\na. granules\nb. spot umbras\nc. active regions\nd. Zeeman rings\ne. plages\n\n106. A friend (who does not have the vast new awareness which you have gained from this course) suggests that the mechanism that keeps the Sun shining as brightly as it does is the burning of coal. You brilliantly challenge his theory! Your challenge comes in several steps; which of the following is one of those steps?\n\na. we have found many more neutrinos than we expected in our underground experiments\nb. new protostars shine by gravitational collapse (the heat of clumping)\nc. the dating of radioactive rocks show that the Earth and the Sun are billions of years old\nd. most of the Sun is made of antimatter (which explodes when it touches matter)\ne. the C-N-O cycle can also produce helium\n\n107. When did scientists begin to understand how the Sun produces all the energy that it does?\n\na. Most of the process was already understood by the ancient Greeks\nb. Most of the process was understood by the end of the 18th century (the year 1800)\nc. Most of the process was understood by the end of the 19th century (the year 1900)\nd. The process was not well understood until the 1930's\ne. You can't fool me; astronomers still don't have a clue about how the Sun produces energy\n\n109. Physicists Kelvin and Helmholtz in the last century proposed that the source of the Sun's energy could be:\n\na. radioactive rocks\nb. a slow contraction\nc. meteorites falling in\nd. the annihilation of antimatter\ne. nuclear fusion\n\n110. Today we realize that the source of energy for the Sun is a process called\n\na. nuclear fusion\nb. Kelvin-Helmholtz contraction\nc. mechanical to thermal energy conversion\nd. radioactivity\ne. dilithium crystal moderation\n\n111. According to the formula E=mc2\n\na. mass has to travel at the speed of light before it can produce any energy\nb. energy can travel much faster than light (in fact its speed can be the speed of light squared)\nc. a little bit of mass can be converted into a substantial amount of energy\nd. when two masses collide, we always get a lot of light\ne. Einstein was a male chauvinist twice over\n\n112. In the formula E=mc2 the letter c stands for\n\na. the speed of sound\nb. the speed of an electron around the nucleus\nc. the amount of energy contained in one hydrogen nucleus\nd. the energy of a neutrino emerging from the Sun\ne. the speed of light\n\n113. The antimatter version of an electron is called a\n\na. proton\nb. neutrino\nc. antitron\nd. positron\ne. gammatron\n\n114. In the Sun, when a positron and an electron collide, they will produce:\n\na. a deuteron\nb. a neutron\nc. hydrogen\nd. a neutron\ne. energy in the form of a gamma ray\n\n115. Which of the following statements about antimatter is true?\n\na. antimatter is only a theory, we have no evidence that it exists\nb. antimatter only exists in Earth laboratories; it cannot be made in stars\nc. antimatter cannot be made in laboratories; we have tried but it just can't be done\nd. when equal amounts of matter and antimatter meet, they become pure energy\ne. our telescopes clearly see many antimatter stars in the Milky Way galaxy\n\n116. As originally suggested by Wolfgang Pauli, neutrinos have the following property:\n\na. they travel at the speed of light\nb. they have no mass\nc. they interact very weakly with ordinary matter\nd. they can be considered little packets of energy\ne. all of the above\n\n117. A college friend of yours who has been postponing taking any science courses hears you talking about the generation of nuclear energy in the Sun and makes the following observation: \"The whole idea of the atomic nucleus is pretty ridiculous. If an oxygen nucleus consists of eight protons and eight neutrons, the charge on the nucleus is positive. Since even I learned in high school that like charges repel, such a nucleus would find itself repulsive and quickly fall apart.\" How would you answer his argument.\n\na. gravity is much stronger than electric repulsion and holds every nucleus together\nb. the neutrons in the nucleus are negative, so they cancel the positive charge on the protons\nc. the nuclear force, which is attractive and stronger than electricity, holds the nucleus together\nd. the electrons outside the nucleus repel the protons and keep them inside the nucleus\ne. there is no answer; scientists do not have a clue about how the nucleus manages to keep itself together\n\n118. Which of the following particles has the lowest mass?\n\na. a neutrino\nb. a proton\nc. a neutron\nd. an electron\ne. the nucleus of a hydrogen atom\n\n119. The strongest force we know is\n\na. gravity, which holds the Earth and the Sun together\nb. electricity, which pulls unlike charges together\nc. the nuclear force which holds nuclei together\nd. the attraction of Bayonne, New Jersey, for tourists\ne. none of the above\n\n120. When two light elements undergo nuclear fusion,\n\na. the total mass involved increases\nb. the like charges in the nuclei attract, pulling the nuclei together faster and faster\nc. some of the energy in their mass is released\nd. only one survives; the other turns into a release of pure energy\ne. the result is always to make nuclei of iron\n\n121. When a large nucleus breaks apart (or is broken apart) into two smaller pieces, this is called\n\na. nuclear fusion\nb. nuclear binding\nc. the p-p chain\nd. equilibrium breaking\ne. nuclear fission\n\n122. If the \"fuel\" for nuclear fusion is nuclei of hydrogen, and the Earth's oceans are filled with hydrogen atoms all being jostled together, why isn't there a lot of fusion happening in our oceans?\n\na. the hydrogen in our oceans is the wrong type of hydrogen for fusion\nb. for hydrogen nuclei to fuse, they must get very close to each other, which the nuclei in the oceans cannot do\nc. for hydrogen to fuse, the nuclei must first join together in long p-p chains of atoms\nd. on Earth, only hydrogen that is in deep mines under the Earth is far enough underground for fusion\ne. you can't fool me, hydrogen in the Earth's oceans does undergo fusion; that's what keeps our oceans warm\n\n123. Where in the Sun does fusion of hydrogen occur?\n\na. only in the core\nb. only near the photosphere (its visible surface layer)\nc. pretty much throughout the Sun\nd. only in the layer where there is a lot of convection going on\ne. nowhere\n\n124. If it takes an average of 14 billion years before any proton inside the Sun will undergo fusion, and the Sun is only about 5 billion years old, why do astronomers believe that fusion is going on there now?\n\na. fusion begins with particles even lighter than protons, which fuse more easily\nb. there are an enormous number of protons inside the Sun, so some will fuse much sooner than the average\nc. fusion takes place in the hot atmosphere of the Sun (where it can happen faster), not inside (where it is slow)\nd. fusion inside the Sun involves carbon, not protons; carbon fuses much more quickly\ne. there is no fusion going on inside the Sun, and the fact cited in the question is one of the reasons why\n\n125. The process of fusion that keeps our Sun shining begins with which building blocks?\n\na. two electrons\nb. two deuterons\nc. two protons\nd. two Einsteinium nuclei\ne. two neutrinos\n\n126. Which of the following is NOT a product of the first step in the p-p chain of nuclear fusion?\n\na. a form of hydrogen\nb. a positron\nc. a neutrino\nd. a deuteron\ne. a form of helium\n\n127. At the end of the p-p chain of nuclear fusion in the Sun, hydrogen nuclei have been converted into:\n\na. carbon nuclei\nb. heavy hydrogen nuclei\nc. antimatter and nothing else\nd. a helium nucleus\ne. a lithium nucleus\n\n128. Who pays the bill for the energy generated by nuclear fusion in the Sun? In other words, where does the energy pouring out of the Sun come from ultimately?\n\na. the Sun is spinning more slowly as time goes on; rotation energy is lost\nb. heavy nuclei are breaking apart into lighter nuclei\nc. a little bit of mass is lost in each reaction and is turned into energy (the Sun is losing mass)\nd. material is falling into the Sun and being vaporized to produce energy\ne. American taxpayers pay this bill, as they do so many others!\n\n129. What happens to the positron created during the p-p chain of nuclear reactions inside the Sun?\n\na. it merges with a proton to become a deuterium (heavy hydrogen) nucleus\nb. it quickly collides with an electron and turns into gamma-ray energy\nc. it ultimately forms an anti-helium nucleus\nd. it turns quickly into a neutrino, which can escape from the Sun\ne. it just sits there at the core of the Sun for billions of years, unable to interact\n\n130. The Sun is an enormous ball of gas. Left to itself, a ball of so many atoms should collapse under its own tremendous gravity. Why is our Sun not collapsing?\n\na. the gravity of the planets around the Sun pulls its material outward, preventing collapse\nb. the pressure of the corona keeps the Sun's main body of gases confined to a small volume\nc. nuclear fusion in the core keeps the temperature and the pressure inside the Sun at a high enough level so that gravity is balanced\nd. neutrinos from the core exert an enormous pressure on the layers of the Sun as they travel outward, and keep our star from collapsing\ne. you can't fool me, the Sun is shrinking all the time, it just happens very slowly\n\n131. When great currents of hot material rise inside the Sun (and cooler material sinks downward), energy is being transferred by a process known as:\n\na. convection\nb. radiation\nc. conduction\nd. equilibrium\ne. politics\n\n132. Which of the following, produced at the core of the Sun, will take the shortest time to emerge from the Sun's photosphere (surface)?\n\na. a photon (wave) of gamma-rays\nb. a positron\nc. a neutrino\nd. a deuteron\ne. an x-ray produced after radiation has interacted with matter in the core\n\n133. Which part of the Sun has the greatest density?\n\na. the photosphere\nb. the core\nc. the convection region\nd. the corona\ne. you can't fool me; since the Sun is made of gas, all its parts have the same density\n\n134. Which of the following is a way for astronomers to learn more about the interior of the Sun?\n\na. study the corona during eclipses of the Sun\nb. study the oscillations (pulsations) of the Sun's surface\nc. follow the orbit of Mercury, the closest planet to the Sun\nd. take photographs of the Sun in the light absorbed by hydrogen atoms\ne. study the accounts in ancient legends of the realm where the devil is supposed to live\n\n135. The Global Oscillations Network Group (GONG) Project is now engaged in:\n\na. measuring where earthquakes happen around the Earth by the waves they generate\nb. measuring the number of sunspots on the surface of the Sun at any given hour\nc. measuring the quality of the \"seeing\" (the jiggling of the Earth's atmosphere) at all the major observatories around the world\nd. measuring the pulsations of the Sun from stations around the world\ne. measuring how problems on the World Wide Web are affecting the communication among astronomers\n\n136. Which of the following is the best statement concerning the experiments that have been searching for neutrinos from the Sun?\n\na. So far, all the experiments have had technical problems detecting neutrinos, which are very \"antisocial\" and thus very hard to catch\nb. The experiments work OK, but they have so far found no neutrinos at all; not a single one\nc. All the neutrinos found in the experiments have been one of the other two types of neutrinos, not the electron neutrino that we expect coming from nuclear fusion in the Sun\nd. Now that they are working right, the experiments have found almost exactly the number of neutrinos that our models of the Sun have predicted should be coming\ne. The experiments have found only between 1/3 and 2/3 the number of neutrinos arriving from the Sun that our models predicted should be coming\n\n137. Which of the following is NOT an experiment that is searching for neutrinos coming from the Sun?\n\na. looking for radioactive argon atoms in a tank of cleaning fluid deep in an underground mine\nb. looking for changes in the Doppler shift of lines in the atmosphere of the Sun\nc. looking for radioactive gallium in a vast quantity of ordinary gallium\nd. looking with sensitive light meters in a giant vat of pure water deep underground in Japan\ne. all of the above are ways to search for neutrinos\n\n138. When an astronomer rambles on and on about the luminosity of a star she is studying, she is talking about:\n\na. what color the star is\nb. the total amount of mass in the star\nc. the star's apparent size (the size seen from Earth)\nd. how much energy the star gives off each second\ne. the elements she can see in the star's spectrum\n\n139. Two stars have the same luminosity, but star B is three times farther away from us than star A. Compared to star A, star B will look\n\na. three times brighter\nb. nine times brighter\nc. nine times fainter\nd. three times fainter\ne. just as bright as A\n\n141. An exhausted-looking astronomer comes off the mountain where his observatory is located and tells you he has been doing photometry. What has he been up to?\n\na. taking photos through bedroom windows in the valley below\nb. measuring the positions of stars on photographic plates taken over many years\nc. putting the light of stars through a spectrograph to measure what elements are present\nd. measuring the brightness of different stars\ne. counting the number of stars in different star clusters (groups)\n\n142. The first astronomer who did photometry in a systematic way (even though he did not have a telescope) was\n\na. Hipparchus\nb. Ptolemy\nc. Kepler\nd. Galileo\ne. Hubble\n\n144. Why are astronomers much more interested in the luminosity of a star than its apparent brightness?\n\na. because luminosity can be measured exactly, but apparent brightness can only be roughly estimated\nb. because the luminosity tells us how bright a star really is, while apparent brightness only tells us how bright it happens to look from Earth\nc. because the luminosity also tells us what elements the star is made of, while apparent brightness cannot tell us a star's chemical make-up\nd. because luminosity can tell us how bright it is inside the star, while apparent brightness only tells us about its outside layers\ne. you can't fool me, there is no difference between luminosity and apparent brightness; they are merely different terms for the same property of a star\n\n145. Which color star is likely to be the hottest?\n\na. red\nb. green\nc. blue-violet\nd. yellow\ne. orange\n\n146. Which type of star is the coolest (has the lowest surface temperature)?\n\na. O\nb. A\nc. M\nd. F\ne. G\n\n147. A team of astronomers takes spectra of thousands of different stars. The spectra show significant differences. The main reason the spectra of stars do not all look alike is that stars\n\na. are located in many different regions of the Milky Way\nb. have different temperatures\nc. are made of significantly different elements\nd. sometimes have atmospheres and sometimes do not\ne. change their spectra as they evolve, and so young stars have very different spectra from older ones\n\n148. If hydrogen is the most common element in the universe, why do we not see the lines of hydrogen in the spectra of the hottest stars?\n\na. in the hottest stars, hydrogen nuclei are forced to break apart into smaller nuclei\nb. in the hottest stars, all hydrogen in the star has quickly fused into helium\nc. in the hottest stars, hydrogen can quickly combine with oxygen to make H2O, whose spectrum consists of completely different lines\nd. in the hottest stars, the hydrogen atoms experience a huge Doppler shift, which moves the lines in the spectrum to a completely unrecognizable place\ne. in the hottest stars, hydrogen atoms are ionized, and so there are no electrons to produce lines in the spectrum\n\n149. Astronomers arrange the stars into groups called spectral classes (or types) according to the kinds of lines they find in their spectra. These spectral classes are arranged in order of decreasing:\n\na. decreasing surface temperature\nb. increasing mass\nc. increasing amount of hydrogen\nd. decreasing distance from us\ne. you can't fool me, there is no order to the spectral types (that's why the letters are not in alphabetical order)\n\n150. After days and days of work, a group of graduate students has finally measured the wavelengths of hundreds of lines in the spectrum of a distant star. If a number of the lines come from molecules such as titanium oxide, the star is likely to be which spectral type:\n\na. O\nb. B\nc. A\nd. M\ne. we need more information; lines from molecules can be found in stars of every spectral type\n\n151. The astronomer who, at the turn of the century, measured the spectra of hundreds of thousands of stars, leaving a catalog that astronomers used for the rest of the century, was:\n\na. Edwin Hubble\nb. Annie Cannon\nc. Cecilia Payne\nd. Joseph Fraunhofer\ne. James Lick\n\n152. A graduate student has spent a whole year doing a careful analysis of the spectrum of a star. While she has found lines from many elements, there was not a trace of the element helium in the spectra she has been analyzing. From this she can now conclude:\n\na. there is most likely no helium anywhere in the star\nb. all the helium must be in the core of the star; there is none of it in the outer regions\nc. since helium shows lines only in hot stars, this star must be relatively cool\nd. since helium is the kind of element that quickly bonds with others, all the helium in this star must be in the form of molecules\ne. the student was not surprised, because NO star ever shows any lines of helium\n\n153. At an astronomical conference, an astronomer gives a report on a star which has recently begun to interest astronomers because of hints that it may have a planet around it. In his report, the astronomer gives the speed with which this star is moving away from the Sun. How did the astronomer measure this speed?\n\na. by seeing how the luminosity of the star has been decreasing as it moves farther and farther away\nb. by seeing the star become much redder than it used to be\nc. by measuring the diameter of the star (which is easy to do) and noticing that it is getting smaller and smaller\nd. by looking at the Doppler shift in the lines of the star's spectrum\ne. the astronomer must be making up stories to impress his colleagues; there is no way to measure the speed with which stars move away or toward us.\n\n154. A star moving toward the Sun will show:\n\na. a shift in the spectral lines toward the blue end (as compared to the laboratory positions of these lines)\nb. a significant increase in its apparent brightness (magnitude)\nc. more and more helium lines as it approaches us\nd. a shift in the spectral lines toward the red end (as compared to the laboratory positions of these lines)\ne. no change that can be measured with our present-day instruments\n\n155. The motion of a star across the sky (perpendicular to our line of sight) is called its\n\na. radial velocity\nb. Doppler shift\nc. light travel time\nd. proper motion\ne. spectral type\n\n156. Imagine that a brilliant but quirky scientist in the biology department manages to put you in a deep freeze and you wake up in a million years. Which of the following statements about the sky you would see in that future time is correct?\n\na. all the stars and constellations would look exactly the same as they do now\nb. all the stars we can see in the sky today will have died in a million years\nc. if you could see them up close, almost all the stars in the sky today will have changed their color significantly in a million years\nd. because of proper motion, a number of the familiar constellations will look somewhat different in a million years\ne. at the present time, astronomers do not know enough about the universe to say what the sky might be like in a million years\n\n157. An astronomer whose secret hobby is riding merry-go-rounds has dedicated his career to finding the stars that rotate the most rapidly. But the stars are all very far away, so none of them can be seen to spin even when he looks through the largest telescopes. How then can he identify the stars that rotate rapidly?\n\na. all stars that rotate show a huge Doppler shift toward the blue end of the spectrum\nb. stars that rotate have a significantly lower luminosity than stars that do not rotate\nc. stars that rotate have much wider lines in their spectra than stars that do not\nd. stars that rotate bring the light atoms (like hydrogen) spinning up to their surfaces; so they can be identified by the elements they contain\ne. this astronomer better spend some more time enjoying his hobby, because he is not doing well at his job; there is no way we know about today to identify stars that rotate\n\n158. Most of the stars we can see with the unaided eye from Earth are\n\na. intrinsically fainter than the Sun\nb. very close to us (among the closest stars)\nc. more luminous (intrinsically brighter) than the Sun\nd. only visible to our eyes because they actually consist of three or more stars blending their light together\ne. undergoing some sort of explosion which makes their outer layers unusually bright\n\n159. Most of the really bright stars in our sky are NOT among the stars that are very close to us. Why then do they look so bright to us?\n\na. we see them in crowded regions of stars, which give us the impression that the stars there are brighter than they really are\nb. all the brightest stars are red, and red color is much easier to see against the black night sky\nc. these stars vary in brightness (flashing brighter and dimmer) and are thus easier to notice\nd. these stars are intrinsically so luminous, that they can easily be seen even across great distances\ne. actually, this is just an optical illusion; all stars are really the same brightness\n\n160. Some \"superstars\" give off more than 50,000 times the energy of the Sun. Why are there no such stars among the stars that are close to the Sun?\n\na. because conditions in the \"neighborhood\" of the Sun only permit low-mass (low luminosity) stars to form\nb. because such very luminous stars are extremely rare, and thus any small neighborhood in the Galaxy is unlikely to contain one of them\nc. because all stars in the vicinity of the Sun have planets, and planets rob a star of its brightness\nd. because such superstars only give off a lot of energy for a year or so, before they die\ne. because such superstars are really several hundred stars blending their light together (but so far away we can't distinguish individual stars); nearby stars are easy to separate\n\n161. The most common kinds of stars in the Galaxy have\n\na. low luminosity compared to the Sun\nb. spectra that show they contain mostly carbon\nc. enormous masses compared to the Sun\nd. diameters thousands of times greater than the Sun's\ne. a dozen or more stars in close orbit around them\n\n162. Which of the following characteristics of a single star (one that moves through space alone) is it difficult to measure directly?\n\na. its apparent brightness\nb. its temperature\nc. its chemical composition\nd. its mass\ne. you can't fool me, all of these are quite easy to measure directly\n\n163. Two stars that are physically associated (move together through space) are called\n\na. double stars\nb. main sequence stars\nc. brown dwarf pairs\nd. first contact stars\ne. binary stars\n\n164. Which of the following statements about spectroscopic binary stars is FALSE?\n\na. visually we can only see one star\nb. some of the lines in the spectrum are double, with the spacing changing over time\nc. an analysis of the ways the lines in the spectrum change allows us to calculate the star's distance directly\nd. we can use the spectrum to determine the sum of the masses of the two stars\ne. we can often use the changes in the positions of the spectral lines to measure the radial velocity of the stars in the system\n\n165. I am measuring the spectrum of the stars in a spectroscopic binary system. When one of the stars is moving toward the Earth in its orbit, we observe\n\na. that the lines in its spectrum get brighter\nb. that the lines in its spectrum merge with the lines of the other star\nc. that it is no longer possible to learn what elements are in the star\nd. that the lines in its spectrum show a blue-shift\ne. none of the above\n\n166. Which law do astronomers use to determine the masses of the stars in a spectroscopic binary system?\n\na. Wien's Law\nb. Kepler's Third Law\nc. Stefan-Boltzmann Law\nd. Hubble's Law\ne. Jenny Craig's Law\n\n167. Stars that do not have what it takes to succeed as a star (i.e. do not have enough mass to fuse hydrogen into helium at their centers) are called:\n\na. extras\nb. red giants\nc. spectroscopic stars\nd. brown dwarfs\ne. main sequence stars\n\n169. In 1995, astronomers identified a dim object called Gliese 229b, which appears to be a brown dwarf. Which of the following observations helped convince astronomers that they had indeed found an (elusive) brown dwarf?\n\na. its spectrum showed the molecule methane in the object's atmosphere\nb. its spectrum showed ionized helium (which can only exist at very cool temperatures)\nc. the star to which this object was a companion was also extremely dim\nd. it had an enormous radial velocity\ne. radio-telescope observations caught hints of the song \"Hi-ho, hi-ho, it's off to work we go...\"\n\n170. Why can astronomers not measure the diameters of stars directly?\n\na. stars are so bright, their light burns out all the delicate instruments we would use to measure their diameters\nb. stars change their diameters regularly, growing alternately larger and smaller\nc. stars are so far away, we cannot resolve (distinguish) their diameters\nd. stars are all in binary systems, and we can only see the combined diameter of both stars\ne. you can't fool me; measuring the diameter of any star is a relatively easy process\n\n171. For what type of star can astronomers measure the diameter with relative ease?\n\na. visual double stars\nb. white dwarf stars\nc. main sequence stars\nd. eclipsing binary stars\ne. any star that is not a brown dwarf\n\n172. An H-R Diagram plots the luminosity of stars against their:\n\na. mass\nb. diameter\nc. surface temperature\nd. age\ne. location in the sky\n\n173. In an H-R diagram, where can you check the spectral type of a star (whether it is an O type star or a G type star, for example)?\n\na. along the right (vertical axis)\nb. along the bottom (the horizontal axis)\nc. only in the red giant region\nd. only on the main sequence\ne. H-R diagrams have nothing to say about spectral types\n\n174. Who was the astronomer who is the \"H\" in H-R diagram?\n\na. Hubble\nb. Humason\nc. Hertzsprung\nd. Huggins\ne. Hoyle\n\n175. Ninety percent of all stars (if plotted on an H-R diagram) would fall into a region astronomers call:\n\na. the supergiant region\nb. the main sequence\nc. the white dwarf region\nd. the visual region\ne. the twilight zone\n\n176. Measurements show a certain star has a very high luminosity (100,000 x the Sun's) while its temperature is quite cool (3500\u00f8 K). How can this be?\n\na. it must be a main sequence star\nb. it must be quite small in size\nc. it must be quite large in size\nd. it must be brown dwarf and not a regular star\ne. this must be an error in observations; no such star can exist\n\n177. A white dwarf, compared to a main sequence star with the same mass, would always be:\n\na. larger in diameter\nb. smaller in diameter\nc. the same size in diameter\nd. younger in age\ne. less massive\n\n178. Imagine that powerful telescopes in the future give us a truly representative sampling of all the stars in the Sun's cosmic neighborhood. Where on the H-R diagram would most of the stars in our immediate vicinity lie?\n\na. in the upper right, among the supergiants\nb. in the upper left, among the bright main sequence stars\nc. in the middle of the main sequence, roughly where the Sun is\nd. in the lower left, among the white dwarfs\ne. in the lower right, among the least luminous main sequence stars\n\n179. A team of astronomers discovers one of the most massive stars ever found. If this star is just settling down in that stage of its life where it will be peacefully converting hydrogen to helium in its core, where will we find it on the H-R diagram?\n\na. among the supergiants, in the upper right\nb. a little bit below the Sun on the main sequence\nc. among the most brilliant of the white dwarfs, in the lower left\nd. near the very top of the main sequence, in the upper left\ne. it could be anywhere on the diagram; we would need more information to\ndetermine its place\n\n180. Astronomers identify the main sequence on the H-R diagram with what activity in the course of a star's life?\n\na. forming from a reservoir of cosmic material\nb. fusing hydrogen into helium in their cores\nc. letting go of a huge outer layer\nd. dying\ne. you can't fool me; so many stars are on the main sequence that there is no special stage in a star's life that can be identified with it\n\n181. Stars that lie in different places on the main sequence of the H-R diagram differ from each other mainly by having different:\n\na. compositions\nb. internal structure\nc. masses\nd. radial velocities\ne. ways that they formed\n\n182. One of your good friends who is on a diet asks you to point out the stars with the smallest mass on an H-R diagram that you are studying. Where are you sure to find the stars with the lowest mass on any H-R diagram?\n\na. among the white dwarfs\nb. among the stars at the top left of the main sequence\nc. among the stars at the bottom right of the main sequence\nd. among the supergiants\ne. stars with low mass can be located anywhere at all in the H-R diagram\n\n183. The apparent brightness of stars in general tells us nothing about their distances (i.e. we cannot assume that the dimmer stars are farther away.) In order for the apparent brightness of a star to be a good indicator of its distance, all the stars would have to be:\n\na. at the same distance\nb. the same composition\nc. the same luminosity\nd. by themselves instead of in binary or double-star systems\ne. a lot farther away than they presently are\n\n184. The original definition of a meter was\n\na. the distance from the extended index finger of the Emperor Napoleon to his nose\nb. one thousandth of the distance from Paris to London\nc. one billionth the distance from the Earth to the Sun\nd. one ten-millionth of the distance from the Earth's equator to its pole\ne. one thousandth the diameter of the town of Bayonne, New Jersey\n\n185. Kepler's Laws can give us the relative distance of objects in the solar system. To convert these relative distances into actual distances, we need to:\n\na. measure the mass of the Sun\nb. measure the size of the Earth\nc. measure the distance directly to any object orbiting the Sun\nd. measure the length of the year exactly\ne. measure the time it takes for the Earth to spin once on its axis\n\n186. An astronomical unit is:\n\na. the distance to the nearest star\nb. the distance covered by light in one year\nc. the distance covered by light in one month\nd. the time it takes for the solar system to turn once on its axis\ne. the average distance between the Earth and the Sun\n\n187. Today, astronomers can measure distances directly to worlds like Venus, Mars, the Moon, or the satellites of Jupiter by\n\na. bouncing radar beams off them\nb. using x-ray telescopes\nc. using the Hubble Space Telescope to triangulate with\nd. using Cepheid variable stars that lie behind the planets\ne. sending graduate students out with very long tape measures\n\n188. Why did it take astronomers until 1838 to measure the parallax of the stars?\n\na. because most stars are too faint to see without a good telescope\nb. because the stars are so far away that their annual shift of position in the sky is too small to see without a telescope\nc. because detecting parallax requires measuring a spectrum, which only became possible in the 1830's\nd. because cepheid variable stars had not been discovered earlier\ne. because no one before then could conceive of the Earth moving around the Sun\n\n189. As astronomers use the term, the parallax of a star is\n\na. one half of the Doppler shift due to its radial velocity\nb. always equal to 1 AU\nc. one half the angle that a star shifts when seen from opposite sides of the Earth's orbit\nd. the time it takes a Cepheid variable star to go through one cycle of its brightness changes\ne. the time it takes for a star to move one second of arc of proper motion\n\n190. How far away would a star with a parallax of 0.2 arcsec be from us?\n\na. 2 parsecs\nb. 5 parsecs\nc. 0.2 parsecs\nd. 0.5 parsecs\ne. we need more information to answer this question\n\n191. If a star is 10 parsecs away, how long ago did the light we see from it tonight begins its journey toward us?\n\na. 10 years\nb. 0.1 years\nc. 10,000 years\nd. 32.6 years\ne. 6100 years\n\n192. The instrument astronomers have been using to make the most precise measurements of stellar parallax we have ever had is\n\na. the Keck telescope in Hawaii\nb. the Very Large Array of radio telescopes\nc. the Compton Gamma Ray Observatory\nd. the Hipparcos satellite\ne. a swimming-pool sized vat of cleaning fluid deep in the shaft of a gold mine\n\n193. An astronomer is observing a single star (and one which does not vary) which she knows is located about 40 LY away. What is the most likely method she or her colleagues used to obtain that distance?\n\na. bouncing radar beams off the star\nb. measuring the star's parallax\nc. the period-luminosity relationship\nd. Kepler's laws\ne. Hubble's law\n\n194. A type of star that has turned out to be extremely useful for measuring distances is\n\na. the eclipsing binaries\nb. the Cepheid variables\nc. the main sequence stars\nd. the white dwarf stars\ne. the stars that lie in the constellation of Orion\n\n195. A light curve for a star measures how its brightness changes with\n\na. time\nb. distance\nc. mass\nd. radial velocity\ne. age\n\n196. How do astronomers know that pulsating variable stars are actually expanding and contracting in diameter?\n\na. it is clear just by looking at the light curve\nb. they discover this by looking at an H-R diagram\nc. they can measure a regularly varying Doppler shift in the spectral lines\nd. they can measure the star's changing pull on a companion star around it\ne. astronomers are just guessing; at the distances of the stars, there is no way to show that stars are expanding and contracting\n\n197. Why do Cepheid variables have that strange name?\n\na. they were discovered by an astronomer named George Cepheid\nb. the first star discovered to be this kind of variable had the Latin name Cepheidus\nc. the word Cepheid means changing in brightness in ancient Greek\nd. the first such variable was discovered in a constellation called Cepheus\ne. the astronomer who discovered them had a dog named Ceffie\n\n198. The period-luminosity relationship for Cepheid variables was discovered by\n\na. John Goodricke\nb. Henrietta Leavitt\nc. Edward Pickering\nd. Henry Norris Russell\ne. Edwin Hubble\n\n199. The measurement of cosmic distances was helped tremendously by the discovery, in the early part of the 20th century, that in Cepheid variable stars, the average luminosity was related to:\n\na. their radial velocity\nb. the abundance of hydrogen in their atmospheres\nc. their distance from the Sun\nd. the length of time they took to vary\ne. their parallax\n\n200. Which of the following stars is a Cepheid variable?\n\na. Sirius\nb. Betelgeuse\nc. Rigel\nd. Mizar\ne. Polaris |
__label__positive Closed Loop Control System Versus Open Loop Control System In Mechanical Engineering\n\nMechanical Engineering\n\nClosed loop control system and open loop control system are the two important control systems for the modern control system in Mechanical Engineering . You just need some basic concept about the Feedback control system to learn about the closed loop and open loop control.\n\nFeedback Control Systems Mechanical Engineering\n\nA system that maintains a prescribed relationship between the output and the reference input by comparing them and using the difference as a means of control is called a feedback control system. Feedback control systems are not limited to\u00a0Mechanical Engineering but can be found in various none engineering fields as well. The human body, for instance, is a highly advanced feedback control system. Both body temperature and blood pressure are kept constant by means of physiological feedback. In fact, feedback performs a vital function: It makes the human body relatively insensitive to external disturbances, thus enabling it to function properly in a changing environment.\n\nClosed-Loop Control Systems Mechanical Engineering\n\nFeedback control systems are often referred to as closed-loop control systems in Mechanical Engineering. In practice, the terms feedback control and closed-loop control are used interchangeably. In a closed-loop control system the actuating error signal, which is the difference between the input signal and the feedback signal (which may be the output signal itself or a function of the output signal and its derivatives and/or integrals), is fed to the controller so as to reduce the error and bring the output of the system to a desired value. The term closed-loop control always implies the use of feedback control action in order to reduce system error.\nResearch and development Open-Loop Control Systems: Those systems in which the output has no effect on the control action are called open-loop control systems. In other words, in an open- loop control system the output is neither measured nor fed back for comparison with the input. One practical example is a washing machine. Soaking, washing, and rinsing in the washer operate on a time basis. The machine does not measure the output signal, that is, the cleanliness of the clothes. In any open-loop control system the output is not compared with the reference input. Thus, to each reference input there correspond a fixed operating condition; as a result, the accuracy of the system depends on calibration. In the presence of disturbances, an open-loop control system will not perform the desired task. Open-loop control can be used, in practice, only if the relationship between the input and output is known and if there are neither internal nor external disturbances. Clearly, such systems are not feedback control systems. Note that any control system that operates on a time basis is open loop. For instance, traffic control by means of signals operated on a time basis is another example of open-loop control.\n\nClosed-Loop versus Open-Loop Control Systems in Mechanical Engineering\n\nAn advantage of the closed loop control system is the fact that the use of feedback makes the system response relatively insensitive to external disturbances and internal variations in system parameters. It is thus possible to use relatively inaccurate and inexpensive components to obtain the accurate control of a given plant, whereas doing so is impossible in the open-loop case in Mechanical Engineering . |
__label__positive How does \\detokenize work?\n\nThe e-TeX Short Reference Manual states:\n\nWhen followed by a <general text>, expands to yield a sequence of character tokens of \\catcode 10 (space) or 12 (other) corresponding to a decomposition of the tokens of the <balanced text> of the unexpanded <general text>; c.f. \\showtokens. The effect is rather as if \\scantokens applied to the <general text> within a r\u00e9gime in which only \\catcodes 10 and 12 existed. Note that in order to preserve the boundaries between control words and any following letter, a space is yielded after each control word including the last.\n\nWhat does that mean in plain English? I want to understand this snippet of code:\n\n\nI think that \\task is defined as a macro taking one argument which calls \\@task. I don't know what \\@nil means -- it is probably used to end the macro call. I also don't know what \\relax and \\detokenize do, but detokenize takes the second part of the argument for the task macro (the parts are separated with semicolons).\n\n| improve this question | | | | |\n\n\\task takes one argument, passing it to \\@task which is defined in such a way that its arguments are delimited; if the call is\n\n\\@task xyz:AB:cde:u\\@nil\n\nthe first argument is xyz, the second is AB and the third is cde:u. Here \\@nil doesn't mean anything, it's just required by the syntax of \\@task and TeX throws it away.\n\n\\relax is a primitive of TeX, its function is \"do nothing\". The test\n\n\nis a safe way to determine if the argument #2 is empty. If it is, \\detokenize{#2} expands to nothing, so \\if compares the tokens \\relax and \\relax, which are indeed equal, so the \"true\" branch is followed, which starts immediately after the second \\relax, up to and excluding \\else. If #2 is not empty, say it's 30, \\if will compare \\relax with 3 which are different, so the \"false\" branch is followed, which starts after \\else up to and excluding \\fi.[1]\n\nThe similar construct \\if\\relax#2\\relax does not work in all cases, because \"all control sequences are equal as far as \\if is concerned\"\u00a0[2]. It would not work if #2 was \\relax (or any other control sequence, possibly followed by other tokens)! So we use \\detokenize that, as explained also by Joseph, splits everything into a string. So, even in the weird case that #2 is \\relax, \\if would compare the token \\relax with the character \\, which are different.\n\n[1] This is not strictly true, but it's an approximation of the truth sufficient for the purpose of this description.\n\n[2] TeX by Topic (section 13.2.1)\n\n| improve this answer | | | | |\n \u2022 1\n Thank you again! I think that I understand it now. There are two more points that are not that clear to me: 1. Why are arguments for \\@task split like that? xyz+AB+cde or xyz+AB:cde+u or xyz+AB+cde:u all seem to satisfy <part>:<part>:<part>. 2. Will \\detokenize split \\relax into \\ r e l a x? \u2013\u00a0ipavlic Jun 6 '11 at 14:50\n \u2022 1\n @ipavlic 1. TeX takes always the shortest token list that satisfies the requests (as long as the braces are balanced) so the first argument is anything up to the first colon, the second is anything from the first to the second colon and the third is anything from the second colon to \\@nil. 2. Yes. \u2013\u00a0egreg Jun 6 '11 at 14:57\n \u2022 Doesn't then the third argument has to be cde:u instead of u as written in the answer? This should not be nitpicking, I am really not sure enough to edit it. If I am wrong, please explain why. \u2013\u00a0Patrick H\u00e4cker Oct 9 '12 at 17:19\n \u2022 @MMM You're right. \u2013\u00a0egreg Oct 9 '12 at 17:28\n\nThe \\detokenize primitive converts all of its input into category code 12 ('other') tokens, except for spaces which stay as category code 10 ('space'). It is used to convert tokens into strings. For example, if we have\n\n\nthen \\foo would be a control word, i.e. one token, which is converted into 5 string characters (\\, f, o, o, ), all which are 'other' characters other than the space, which is a 'space'. Note the additional space at the end here: \\detokenize adds a space after each 'control word' (see below).\n\nI'll take your example one step at a time. First, \\@nil is being used as a delimiter here. The definition of \\@task means that the argument must contain :, then : again and finally \\@nil. This is used to 'tidy up' awkward input\n\n\\task{stuff:more stuff}\n\nwill be turned into\n\n \\@task stuff:more stuff::\\@nil\n\nwhich means #1 is stuff, #2 is more stuff and #3 is :. Thus it ensures that everything is 'used up': this is a common requirement.\n\nTo see \\detokenize in action, try something like\n\n\nA bit more on the addition of spaces by \\detokenize, and indeed more generally. Whenever TeX writes something that can be one or more tokens as a 'string', it always inserts a space after each 'control word' (escape character followed by one or more 'letters') to avoid confusion. For example, with\n\n\\catcode`\\X=12 % 'Other'\n\nyou get\n\nmacro:-> \\bar X\n\nwhere the space is not there in the original but tells us that \\bar is a control sequence followed by X, rather than printing just \\barX, which looks like it's a different thing. This makes sense as TeX skips spaces after control words, so the two versions are equivalent as far as it is concerned.\n\nThis 'insert spaces' behaviour is respected by \\detokenize, meaning that you get a space after each control word. The only place TeX doesn't insert these spaces is with \\string, which can only be used on a single token and so in places where there is no possible 'confusion'.\n\n| improve this answer | | | | |\n \u2022 Let me see if I understand it correctly. #1 from task expands to stuff:more stuff in the command \\@task stuff:more stuff::\\@nil. The purpose of the added :: is to enable input without semicolons, e.g. \\task{1}. Now the semicolons will be concatenated to 1 to form 1:: which will satisfy the two-semicolons requirement of \\@task. \u2013\u00a0ipavlic Jun 6 '11 at 14:43\n \u2022 @ipavlic: #1 is never expanded, rather it is replaced by the input, but the result is as you say \\@task stuff:more stuff::\\@nil is executed. You are also right about the :: part - without this, you'd be in trouble with non-conforming input. \u2013\u00a0Joseph Wright Jun 6 '11 at 14:47\n \u2022 1\n @ipavlic: \\detokenize leaves the result in the input stream. Thus you end up with \\detokenize{foo} => foo wherever it was used. In the current case, this is as part of a test, which will throw away any excess tokens. On the other hand, if you use it in a typesetting context then the material will just be typeset. See my edit \u2013\u00a0Joseph Wright Jun 6 '11 at 14:49\n \u2022 1\n So why does \\detokenize{\\something}\\bye comes out as '\"something' in the typeset output? I'd expect '\\something'. \u2013\u00a0AlexG May 30 '13 at 8:07\n \u2022 1\n @AlexG Font issue: the OT1 (Knuth original) font encoding doesn't have a \\ in the appropriate slot, it has \". Assuming LaTeX, using \\usepackage[T1]{fontenc} will solve this as in T1 encoding the slot is correct. \u2013\u00a0Joseph Wright May 30 '13 at 9:22\n\nYour Answer\n\n |
__label__positive Vignette 2: Biobots reproduce!\n\nModule 1, Vignette 2: Biobots reproduce!\n\nScientists have developed a method to print millimeter-to-centimeter scale biological microrobots\u00a0or \u2018bio-bots.\u2019 These \u2018creatures\u2019 consist of soft-polymer materials and living cells. They\u00a0can be made in scales of 1 biobot per minute and thousands can be made in a few hours. They\u00a0are composed of three types of cells: \u2018sensing cells\u2019 that can sense the presence of neuro-toxins\u00a0in water supplies; \u2018actuator cells\u2019 that enable them to move and walk towards the source of the\u00a0toxins; and \u2018factory cells\u2019 that can release antidotes to neutralize the harmful effect of the toxins.\u00a0These biobot creatures can survive for months at a time and can be very beneficial for the\u00a0society.\n\nThe initial designs of the biobots produced above have now been improved to incorporate stem\u00a0cells so the biobots have self-healing characteristics. If they get minimally damaged, they can\u00a0heal themselves and continue the useful function that they are designed for. However, it was\u00a0found that during the healing process, some of the stem cells \u2018shed\u2019 and fall off of the parent\u00a0biobots. If these cells have already begun to differentiate into the sensing, actuating, and factory\u00a0cells, and if researchers provide the right chemical and physical environment, the daughter cells\u00a0have the capacity to produce identical biobots with the same functionalities as the parent bots.\u00a0While this was a very exciting discovery, the prospect of reproducing biobots can be daunting\u00a0and mixed. The number of biobots can increase by 2 over a month. It is not clear whether the\u00a0daughter cells can further reproduce or not.\n\n\n 1. Should the researchers determine whether the daughter cells can also reproduce and why?\n 2. What is the benefit or harm of investigating this line of research further?\n 3. Should the researchers publish or patent the designs and ideas?\n 4. What are the lessons learned?\n 5. Any comments: |
__label__positive I'm self-studying Kearns(2011), and here are two tricky questions I'm really curious about. I asked my classmates but they failed to answer it too. We really don't know how the first sentence can have another meaning, and we even couldn't figure out the meaning of the second question. Could you give some guidance? Thank you in advance!\n\n(1)The following sentence is scopally ambiguous. Give the formulae for both readings.\n\nClive wants to read the book that June is reading.\n\n(2) Ralph thinks that the man who lives upstairs from him is a spy. Ralph is a little paranoid \u2013 the flat upstairs is empty, and the noises Ralph hears on the stairs are merely a poltergeist. Does the sentence below encounter problems through the existential commitment of the?\n\nRalph thinks that the man who lives upstairs is a spy.\n\n \u2022 2\n (1) can mean that June is reading a particular book at the moment and Clive wants to read it, or that whatever book June happens to be reading at any given time, Clive always wants to read it. The second question is asking whether Ralph THINKS that the man who lives upstairs... involves a commitment to the existence of a man upstairs, and if so whether that is a problem, given that the flat is actually empty but for a poltergeist. \u2013\u00a0rchivers Oct 31 '20 at 14:38\n \u2022 1\n For the first question, the key point is that Clive may have wrong ideas about which book June is reading and thus about what she wants; does \"the book\" refer to the actual book June is reading (de re) or Clive's idea of what she's reading (de dicto)? \u2013\u00a0lemontree Oct 31 '20 at 15:35\n \u2022 1\n For the second question, the problem is that the man who lives upstairs doesn't actually exist (but Ralph thinks he does), so how to apply \"the\"? \u2013\u00a0lemontree Oct 31 '20 at 15:37\n \u2022 1\n If it's OK to posit a poltergeist, why isn't it OK for Ralph to posit a man upstairs? This one is a pretty opaque example, referentially speaking. \u2013\u00a0jlawler Oct 31 '20 at 16:42\n \u2022 @lemontree\u2666 Thank you for your reply very much! For the first question, I tried to write down the formulae according to the tips you provided :) Is this what you mentioned? (a) de dicto: WANT TO READ(c, [The x: BOOK(x) & READ(j, x)]) \"Clive has a thought of reading the book that June is reading.\" (b) de re: [The x: BOOK(x) & READ(j, x)] WANT TO READ(c, x) \"The speaker reports Clive\u2019s aspiration to read the book.\" \u2013\u00a0ronghe Nov 2 '20 at 14:23\n\nYour Answer\n\n\nBrowse other questions tagged or ask your own question. |
__label__positive 8. Agriculture Indian Economy MCQ Agriculture\n\n1. Where is the Central Food Technological Research Institute (CFTRI) situated ?\n\n(a) Bengaluru\n\n(b) Karnal\n\n(c) Mysore\n\n(d) Lucknow\n\n2. Indian Green Revolution started from :\u00a0\n\n(a) Pantnagar\n\n(b) Bengaluru\n\n(c) Kanpur\n\n(d) Delhi\n\n3. The Green Revolution in India has contributed to:\n\n(a) Inter-regional inequality\u00a0\n\n(b) Inter-crop inequality\n\n(c) Inter-class inequality\n\n(d) All of these\n\n4. The Bonded LabourSystem (Abolition) Act was legislated in:\n\n(a) 1974\u00a0\n\n(b) 1976\u00a0\n\n(c) 1977\u00a0\n\n(d) 1978\n\n5. In which of the following years was the Food Corporation of India (FCI) set up ? i o\n\n(a) 1955\u00a0\n\n(b) 1960\n\n(c) 1965\n\n(d) 1970\n\n6. Which of the following factors/policies were affecting the price of rice in India in the recent past ?\n\n1. Minimum Support Price\n\n2. Government\u2019s trading\n\n3. Government\u2019s stockpiling\n\n4. Consumer subsidies\n\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\n\n(a) 1, 2 and 4 only\n\n(b) 1, 3 and 4 only\n\n(c) 2 and 3 only\n\n(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4\n\n7. National Agricultural Insurance Scheme replace Comprehensive Crop Insurance Scheme was introduced in the year:\n\n(a) 1997\u00a0\n\n(b) 19980\n\n(c) 1999\n\n(d) 2000\n\n8. An objective of the National Food Security Mission is to increase the production of certain crops through area expansion and productivity enhancement in a sustainable manner in the identified districts of the country. What are those crops ?\n\n(a) Rice and wheat only\n\n(b) Rice, wheat and pulses only\n\n(c) Rice, wheat, pulses and oil seeds only\n\n(d) Rice, wheat, pulses, oil seeds and vegetables\n\n9. Consider the following statements:\n\n\n\nWhich of these statements are correct ?\n\n(a) 1 only\n\n(b) 2 only\u00a0\n\n(c) Both 1 and 2\n\n(d) Neither 1 nor 2\n\nIndian Economy MCQ Agriculture\n\n\n(a) Commercial Banks\u00a0\n\n(b) Co-operative Banks\n\n(c) Regional Rural Banks\n\n(d) Microfinance Institutions\n\n11. TheNationalBankforAgriculture and Rural Development\n\n(NABARD) was established in the year\n\n(a) 1970\n\n(b) 1975\n\n(c) 1977\n\n(d) 1980\n\n(e) 1982\n\n12. The head office of the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is located in\n\n(a) Lucknow\n\n(b) Hyderabad\n\n(c) New Delhi\n\n(d) Mumbai\n\n(e) None of these\n\n13. Which of the following is the organisation, which is the apex in co-operative sector and deals in procurement, distribution, export and import of selected agricultural\n\ncommodities ?\n\n\n\n\n(d) EXIM Bank\n\n(e) None of these\n\n14. As we all know, a lot of people from underdeveloped Statesmigratetovariousprogressive States as agricultural labour. What are the major problems of agriculture in India owing to which people have to leave their own land and work as labourer on somebody else\u2019s farm/land ?\n\n1. Lack of irrigation facilities, low productivity of land and uncertain monsoon\n\n2. Non-availability of fertilizers etc on subsidized rates\n\n3. Single crop cultivation\n\n(a) Only1\n\n(b) Only 2\n\n(c) Only 3\n\n(d) All the three\n\n(e) None of these\n\n15. Where is the Central Rice Research Institute located ?\n\n(a) Bengaluru\n\n(b) Kanpur\n\n(c) Coimbatore\n\n(d) Cuttack\n\n16. Which is NOTa source of Agriculture finance in India?\n\n(a) Co-operative Societies\n\n(b) Commercial Banks\n\n(c) Regional Rural Banks\n\n(d) None of these\n\n17. Agriculture sector directly employs one of the following percentages of labour force in India:\n\n(a) 20%\n\n(b) 30%%\n\n(c) 40%\n\n(d) 65%\n\nIndian Economy MCQ Agriculture\n\n18. NABARD was established in the:\n\n(a) Fourth Five Year Plan\n\n(b) Fifth Five Year Plan\n\n(c) Sixth Five Year Plan\u00a0\n\n(d) Eighth Five Year Plan\n\n19. The apex institution in the sphere of Agriculture credit is :\n\n(a) State Bank of India\u00a0\n\n(b) Reserve Bank of India\n\n(c) Regional Rural Bank\n\n\n20. The impact of Green Revolution was felt most in the production of:\n\n(a) Wheat\n\n(b) Rice\u00a0\n\n(c) Pulses\n\n(d) Oil Seeds\n\n21. Under which Five Year Plan agriculture register a negative growth ?\n\n(a) Third\u00a0\n\n(b) Fifth\n\n(c) Seventh\u00a0\n\n(d) Ninth\n\n22. Who is known as the Father of White Revolution in India ?\n\n(a) M. S. Swaminathan\n\n(b) V Kurien\n\n(c) K. N. Bahal\n\n(d) B. P. Pal\n\n23. The importance of agriculture in the Indian economy is indicated by its contribution to which of the following?\n\n(a) National income and employment\n\n(b) Industrial development and international trade\n\n(c) Supply of food-grains\n\n(d) All the above\n\n24. The apex organisation for Marketing Co-operatives at the national level is:\n\n(a) FCI\n\n(b) NAFED\u00a0\n\n(c) National Co-operative Union\n\n(d) National Agriculture Marketing Board\n\n25. Indian Pulse Research Institute is located in:\n\n(a) Allahabad\u00a0\n\n(b) Kanpur\n\n(c) Faizabad\n\n(d) Lucknow\n\n26. \u2018Everything else can wait, but not agriculture\u2019.\n\nThe above statement is attributed to:\u00a0\n\n(a) Jagjivan Ram\n\n(b) Jawahar Lal Nehru\n\n(c) Mahatma Gandhi\n\n(d) Sardar Patel\n\n27. Which of the following provides the largest credit to agriculture and allied sectors ?\n\n(a) Co-operative Banks\n\n(b) Regional Rural Banks\n\n(c) Commercial Banks\n\n(d) Co-operative and Regional Rural Banks\n\n28. The percentage of agriculture land is very high in all the following States except:\n\n(a) Punjab\n\n(b) Haryana\n\n(c) Uttar Pradesh\n\n(d) Sikkim\n\n29. Where was the first Agriculture University of India established ?\n\n(a) Kumarganj, Faizabad\u00a0\n\n(b) Pantnagar\n\n(c) Kanpur\n\n(d) Naini, Allahabad\n\n30. Where is the Indian Sugarcane Research Institute situated?\u00a0\n\n(a) New Delhi\n\n(b) Varanasi\u00a0\n\n(c) Kanpur\n\n(d) Lucknow\u00a0\n\nIndian Economy MCQ Agriculture\n\n31. Which is the agency the Government has engaged to grade and standardise various agricultural products ?\n\n(a) Food Corporation of India\n\n(b) Directorate of Marketing and Inspection\n\n(c) Bureau of Indian Standards\n\n(d) Central Statistical Organisation\n\n32. Which of the following has not been a component of the agriculture strategy that brought about the Green Revolution ?\n\n(a) Greater intensity of cropping\n\n(b) Guaranteed maximum prices\u00a0\n\n(c) New agricultural technology\n\n(d) Package of inputs\n\n33. The Blue Revolution is related with :\n\n(a) Fish Production\n\n(b) Food grain Production\n\n(c) Oilseed Production\n\n(d) Milk Production\n\n34. Indian agriculture is typically characterised as:\n\n(a) land surplus, labour scare economy\n\n(b) land surplus, labour surplus economy\n\n(c) land scare, labour surplus economy\n\n(d) land scare, labour scare economy\n\n35. The fertile land between two rivers is called:\n\n(a) Watershed\n\n(b) Water divide\n\n(c) Doab\n\n(d) Terai\n\n\n(a) Mulching\n\n(b) Shelter belt\n\n(c) Gully plugging\n\n(d) Terracing\u00a0\n\n37. The commission in India dealing with minimum support price, procurement price etc., in connection with agricultural goods is the\n\n(a) Planning Commission\n\n(b) Agricultural Costs and Price Commission\n\n(c) Agricultural Price Commission\n\n(d) National Marketing Commission\n\n38. The term Green Revolution has been used to indicate higher production through:\n\n(a) creation of grasslands\n\n(b) planting more trees\n\n(c) creation of gardens in urban areas\n\n(d) enhanced agricultural productivity per hectare\n\n\n(a) Nuclear Physics\n\n(b) Agriculture\n\n(c) Astrophysics\n\n(d) Medicine\u00a0\n\n40. The Green Revolution in India was the outcome of the efforts of who amongst the following ?\n\n(a) M.S. Swaminathan\n\n(b) C. Rangrajan\n\n(c) K.V. Kamath\n\n(d) Rakesh Mohan\n\n(e) None of these\n\n41. Which of the following are the chief characteristics of mixed farming?\n\n(a) Cultivation of both cash crops and food crops\n\n(b) Cultivation of two or more crops in the same field\n\n(c) Rearing of animals and cultivation of crops together\n\n(d) None of the above\n\nIndian Economy MCQ Agriculture\n\nNature Of Indian Economy\nNational income in India\nIndian Economy Planning\nPopulation of India\nNatural Resources Of India\u00a0\nInfrastructure Energy, Transportation, Communication\nIndian economy Social Sector\n\nIndian Economy MCQ Agriculture\n\nShare & Help Others\nTweet 20\nMCQ On Indian Economy\nIndian Economy GK Industry\n\nLeave a Comment\n |
__label__positive U3: Instructional Outcomes and Underlying Theories (EDID6503 unit 3)\n\nAnnika L-M\nFlashcards by , created over 4 years ago\n\nGraduate Instructional Design Flashcards on U3: Instructional Outcomes and Underlying Theories (EDID6503 unit 3), created by Annika L-M on 03/16/2015.\n\nAnnika L-M\nCreated by Annika L-M over 4 years ago\nICT in Education\nDherar Bani Faris\nInstructional Design\nSuvra Dash\nedexcel gcse german vocabulary\nAmerican West GCSE History Revision\nJasmine Box\nU2: Instructional Approaches and Underlying Theories flash cards (EDID6503 unit 2)\nAnnika L-M\nMethods of Instructional Design\nTaylor Walther\nProfessor Q\nU1: Framework for Instructional Theory revision quiz (EDID6503 unit 1)\nAnnika L-M\nQuestion Answer\nHow would you define reproductive skills? Activities that are repetitive, automated, and involving the same procedure. Algorithm\nHow are productive skills defined? Activities that involve the planning of a procedure through the application of theory, general principles, and creativity. Heuristic\nDistinguish between skills and knowledge Knowledge involves a combination of adding new elements to the store and reorganizing existing new elements to form new knowledge structures. Skills are developed with experience and practice\nProvide examples of interactive skills both for reproductive and productive skills Reproductive skills: good manners, tone of voice, socialized behaviours Productive skills: Leadership skills, supervision, persuasion\nWhat are the three steps in skills mastery for both reproductive and productive skills? 1. Imparting the essential knowledge content 2. Imparting the basic psychomotor skills 3. Developing proficiency\nWhat are the five stages in the development of psychomotor skills? 1.Acquiring knowledge of what should be done 2. Executing actions in a step-by-step manner 3. Transfer control from eyes to other sense 4. Automizing the skill 5. Generalizing the skill\nList the four categories that guide the principles of instruction 1. Information 2. Practice 3. Feedback 4. Transfer and generalization\nFor reproductive skills what teaching-learning approaches are appropriate Direct instruction\nWhat is the ideal way to impart essential knowledge for productive skills? Using expository methods\nWhat is the ideal way to impart psychomotor skills Using experiential methods\nWhat are the elements discussed under the Teaching for Understanding Framework? Generative topics, understanding goals, performances of understanding, ongoing assessment, reflective collaboration communities\nWhat does the term \u201cmultiple entry points\u201d imply? Learning is approached through different approaches e.g. visual arts, narratives, mathematics, etc.\nWhy should the Teaching for Understanding Framework focus on new technologies? 1) To foster students\u2019 understanding of important goals; 2) New technologies make curriculum more generative through a wider range of learning activities\nWhat are the four dimensions of understanding goals within and across disciplines? 1) Knowledge; 2) Methods; 3) Purpose; 4) Forms of expression\nTo enhance performances of understanding, what three sequences should be incorporated? 1) Introductory performance to relate prior knowledge to new content; 2) Structure a cycle of guided practice; 3) Culminating performance to help synthesize knowledge and skills\nWhat are the key features of effective assessment? Assessment from multiple sources, conducted frequently, embed informal assessment, assessment criteria made public\nWhat are the key features of a reflective collaborative community? Communicative, diverse perspectives, peer assessment, discussion and analysis. Respect, reciprocity\nHow should generative topics be approached to enhance understanding? Gradual transition into topics, structure curriculum around generative topics\nWhat is the best approach for integrating technology into the classroom? Through cycles of taking small steps, introducing new elements incrementally\nWhat factors influence the way technology is integrated into instruction? Access to reliable technology, teacher and student technical expertise, ability to make effective use of their expertise\nWhat five domains make up the taxonomy of affective outcomes proposed by Krathwohl, Bloom and Masia? Receiving, Responding, Valuing, Organizing, Characterization by value\nWhat is the underlying problem with understanding the affective domain in instruction? The definition of the domain and concepts are very broad and often unfocused\nWhat areas of research (disciplines) have conducted studies to refute the dualism of emotion and cognition? Neurobiology, psychiatry, research psychology\nWhat are the five domains of emotional intelligence? 1) Knowing ones emotions; 2) managing emotions; 3) motivating oneself; 4) recognizing emotions in others; 5) handling relationships\nWhat three instructional models have been implemented in educational settings to address emotional intelligence? 1) Emotional skill within a pedagogical approach; 2) Models that address the interrelationship between emotion and cognition to facilitate cognitive learning; 3) Programs that address emotional intelligence\nProvide an example of how Merrill\u2019s principle of problem\u2013orientation can be applied to teach emotional intelligence Through the use of stories\nWhen modelling the skills of emotional intelligence what aspects should the teacher pay attention to? 1) Reacting to the environment in an emotionally healthy way; 2) Teaching in an emotionally healthy way\nOf gender, cultural background, and student\u2019s home life, which external factor is most relevant to teachers but also most difficult to address? Students\u2019 home life\nWhen teachers are unable to control extreme disruptive behaviour in the classroom, what measures are recommended? Resorting to conventional methods like counselling psychology\nWhat strategy is suggested for helping older students regulate their own emotional state and that of others? Express how they feel verbally, or through emotion diaries\nHow is theme-based instruction defined? Theme-based instruction is an approach to facilitating learning that bring s together several domains of learning to support a unifying theme\nWhat other terms are used to refer to theme-based instruction? Integrated theme-based instruction, integrated or interdisciplinary curriculum, transdisciplinary or holistic learning\nWhat are the common features of theme-based learning? Development of instruction for a specified curriculum, instructional goals, activities, resources, assessment tied directly to an overarching, underlying, foundational theme.\nWhat are the advantages of using a theme-based instruction approach? Research shows that connecting instructional content and learning activities can improve student learning. A theme-based approach to instruction is a more natural way to learn.\nWhat are the two important theoretical foundations that guide theme-based instruction? Brain-based educational research and multiple intelligence theory\nWhat branch of brain-based research is most relevant to theme-based instruction? Pattern making through meaningful problem solving\nWhat five principles guide theme-based instruction? 1. Intelligence is a function of experience 2. Learning is an inseparable partnership between brain and body 3. There are multiple intelligences or ways of solving problems and/or producing products 4. Learning is a two-step process: i) Pattern seeking or meaning making through problem solving, and ii) Developing a mental program for using what we understand and wiring it into long term memory 5. Personality impacts learning and performance.\nWhat ten types of intelligences does Gardner propose? 1. Logical-mathematical; 2. Linguistic 3. Spatial; 4. Bodily-kinesthetic 5. Musical; 6. Intrapersonal 7. Interpersonal; 8. Naturalist 9. Existential; 10. Spiritual\nWhat are the fundamental principles in theme-based instructional theory? 1) Unifying theme; 2) focus on learning goals; 3) Variety in instructional method; 4) useful instructional resources; 5) Evaluation using authentic assessment\nWhat situationalities affect how theme-based instruction is implemented? 1) Administrative structures; Adapting instruction to individual learners; 3) Amount of interdisciplinary integration\nDefine: Knowledge The cluster of skills, abilities, habits, character traits, knowledge one must have in order to perform a job well\nDefine: Skill The quality of a person being able to perform a given task\nDefine: Competence Information of which a person, organization, or other entity is aware.\nDefine: Ability The capacity to perform a given type of task or activity with a given degree of effectiveness, efficiency, speed, or other measure of quantity or quality. Typically classified according to execution and management of performance\nDefine the following term related to skills: Reproductive skills Reproductive skills are activities that are repetitive and largely automatic\nDefine the following term related to skills: Productive skills Activities that involve planning or a procedure appropriate to the specific situation through the application of theory, general principles, and creativity\nList the four domains of skills Cognitive skills, psychomotor skills, reactive skills, interactive skills\nList four points that are important for a topic to be considered generative to foster understanding outcomes Generative topics are: 1. connected to multiple important ideas within and across academic disciplines, domains, and subject matters. 2. framed in authentic, accessible interesting ways related to experience. 3. approached from multiple entry points 4. framed in ways that generates and rewards continuous inquiry\nTo be successful in fostering understanding, what aspects must be addressed in assessment? 1. Assessment is most valuable when conducted often and when it suggestions for improvement in teaching and students\u2019 work. 2. Embed informal assessments during learning for example informal observations and formal assessment activities using structured rubrics 3. Assessments should come from multiple sources promote understanding 4. Assessment criteria should be made public 5. Involve students in developing and applying assessment rubrics to help them understand the criteria of quality work\nOne of the domains of emotional intelligence according to Goleman is that is a better indicator of life success than cognitive intelligence. True or False? False. The five domains noted by Goleman are: 1. Knowing one\u2019s emotions 2. Managing emotions 3. Motivating oneself 4. Recognizing emotions in others 5. Handling relationships\nList two ways to engage in instruction for emotional intelligence i. Through a school or district-wide program to develop emotional competence ii. Teacher acting individually in their own classroom to develop emotional competence\nWhat is one important precondition that must be met for theme-based approaches to be successful? The type and amount of administrative structure in the learning system. A supporting structure will encourage flexibility and creativity. A restrictive climate will hinder teachers from being creative.\nHow can yearlong themes in theme-based approaches be applied to the curriculum? The theme should be comprehensive, tie to the curriculum standards and also engage the students in their daily lives. The theme can be organized into major curricular components that are interrelated to topics throughout the school year.\nHow can multilevel instruction be applied to theme-based instruction? Multilevel instruction refers to instructional settings where students with different level levels of knowledge on the subject, different age level are working on different tasks to meet the same learning goals. Therefore multilevel instruction is important to meeting the individual needs or learning styles of the different students using different resources, thus providing them with multiple ways to learn. |
__label__positive Subtraction from base numbers of 10 using Vedic maths\n\nDoes your child find it difficult to solve subtractions? This second lesson of Vedic Mathematics will help your child to subtract from base numbers within seconds. Read this illustrative article on vedic maths for learning the trick.\n\nLesson 2 : Subtraction from 10, 100, 1000 using Vedic maths\n\nGenerally children find it difficult when they have to subtract a number from 100, 1000 or 10000. Since they have to borrow from the first digit and strike all the zeros make it no. 9 and so on. Finally the sum looks so shabby and the original number might not be seen. Here is an easy method using Vedic math no more mess or striking out, just a few seconds required to answer.\n\n\nNikhilam Navatascaramam Dasatah:\n\nMeaning : All from 9 the last from 10.\n\nThis sutra is used in subtraction from base numbers like 10,100,1000,10000 and so on.\n\nFor example 1000 \u2013 876 = 124.\n\nHere the last number is 6, so friend of 6 is 4 or 6 is 4 short of 10.\nAccording to this sutra the last digit is subtracted from 10, and the rest from 9.\n\nExample 1\n- 52\n\nExample 2\n\n- 759\n\nExample 3\n\n- 6543\n\nIn all the above cases the last digit is subtracted from 10 and remaining from 9.\n\nApplying the second sutra the subtraction can be done from left to right. Except the last number the other numbers are subtracted from 9 and the last digit from 10.\n\nIf we apply the friends concept to this, the last number is the friend of 10 and remaining is the number short of 9.\n\n5486 (here friend of 6 is 4)\n\nThe remaining numbers are written using the base 9,from 9 -8 is short of 1, similarly from 9 ---- 4 is short of 5 and like wise.\n\nIn all the above cases we saw that the number that get subtracted is one digit short of the above number. Subtracting 5486 from 10000, here 10000 is a 5 digit number and 5486 is a four digit number finding the answer is not a problem.\n\nAdding Zeroes\n\nIn all of the above sums you may have noticed that the number of zeros in the first number is the same as the number of figures in the number being subtracted.\n\nFor example 1000\u2013571 has three zeros and 571 has three figures.\n\nSuppose if we subtract 54 from 1000 , here 54 is a two digit number and 1000 is a four digit number, the above sutra can be applied here by adding a zero in front of 54.\n\n946 ( here the last digit is subtracted from 10 and remaining from 9)\n\nBefore applying this sutra remember that the number to be subtracted must be only one digit short of the larger number. Else add zero in front of the digits.\n\n009 Here two zeros are added to make 9 a 3 digit number.\n991 Last from 10 and remaining from 9.\n\nMental Problems for practice:\n\nIn the following exercise you will need to insert zeros, but you can do that mentally.\n\nSubtract the following:\n\na. 1000 \u2013 57 b. 1000 \u2013 95 c. 1000 \u2013 15 d. 10000 \u2013 668\n\nNumbers starting with other than 1\n\nNow Let us look at one more variation\n\nThis method otherwise known as 'One Less'\n\n500 \u2013 46.\n\nYou have 500 instead of 100.\n\nIn fact the 46 will come off from one of the five hundreds, so that 400 will be left.\n\nSo 500 \u2013 46 = 454\nThe 5 is reduced by one to 4,(one less) and the All from 9 . . . formula is applied to 46 to give 54\n\n3000 \u2013 113 = 2887. The 3 is reduced by one to 2, (one Less)\nand the formula converts 113 to 887.\n\nNext Variation is called \"One More\"\n\nConsider the example 6000 - 3485 = 2515\n\nConsidering the thousands, the 6 will be reduced by 4 (one more than 3)\nbecause you are taking over 4 thousand away.\n\nAll from 9. . . is then applied to the 485 to give 515.\n\nHere the first digit 3 is made 4 by adding 1 and this is reduced from 6.\n\nWhen you have a sum like 6000-3485 where both numbers have the same number of digits reduce the first digit of the first number by one more than the first digit of the second number to get the first digit of the answer.\nAnd apply the formula to the remaining digits.\n\nNext variation in subtraction\n\nFind 7000 \u2013 27.\nYou will see here that you have a 2-digit number to subtract from 7000 which has three zeros.\n\nThe sum can be written 7000 \u2013 027.\nThen 7000 \u2013 027 = 6973.\n\nThe 7 is reduced to 6, and the formula converts 027 to 973.\n\nRelated Articles\n\nIntroduction to Vedic maths\n\nWhat is Vedic maths? Origination of Vedic maths. Basic sutras. Who all can learn Vedic maths? Maths is made simpler, easier by following these sutras. How to do all calculations in few seconds?\n\nVedic Maths lesson one for Addition\n\nThis lessons introduces the basic concepts of additions in Vedic maths. Here we will study the first sutra and concept of numbers and their friends. This lesson will be useful for Grade 1 and Grade 2 students.Try solving the sums given in the worksheets for practice.\n\nMore articles: Vedic Maths Tricks Vedic Maths Tips Vedic Maths Vedic Mathematics Mathematics\n\n\nAuthor: Adesola Adeyeye23 Feb 2014 Member Level: Gold \u00a0\u00a0Points : 2\n\nThis is a very good article that seek to educate the kids about subtraction and addition at base 10 level. I will like to add my own questions and answer to buttress the above article.\n\n\n123 - 100 = 23\n\n352- 200= 152\n\n\n\n1000- 540 = 460\n\n25000 - 20050 = 4950\n\n \u2022 Name: |
__label__positive 9. Maurya Dynasty\n\n433. Who recognised Sandrokottos as Chandra Gupta Maurya?\n(A) William Jones\n(B) V. Smith\n(C) R. K. Mukherjee\n(D) D. R. Bhandharkar\nAns: (A)\n\n434. Chandragupta Maurya figures prominently in the book of\n(A) Bhasa\n(B) Sudraka\n(C) Vishakhadatta\n(D) Ashvaghosha\nAns: (C)\n\n435. Which among the following is India\u2019s oldest dynasty?\n(A) Gupta (B) Maurya\n(C) Vardhana (D) Kushana\nAns: (B)\n\n436. First Indian Empire was established by\n(A) Kanishka\n(B) Harsh\n(C) Chandra Gupta Maurya\n(D) Samundragupta\nAns: (C)\n\n437. Who was called as \u2018Sandrocottos\u2019 by Justin, the Greek Writer?\n(A) Chandragupta Maurya\n(B) Chandragupta I\n(C) Chandragupta II\n(D) Samudragupta\nAns: (A)\n\n438. Who of the following mentions about the meeting of Sandrokottos\n(Chandragupta Maurya) with Alexander, the Great?\n\n(A) Pliny\n(B) Justin\n(C) Strabo\n(D) Megasthenese\nAns: (B)\n\n439. By which name was Chanakya known in his childhood?\n(A) Ajaya (B) Chanakya\n(C) Vishnugupta (D) Deogupta\nAns: (C)\n\n440. Kautilya was prime minister of\n(A) Chandragupta Vikramaditya\n(B) Ashoka\n(C) Chandragupta Maurya\n(D) King Janak\nAns: (C)\n\n441. The Arthashastra of Kautilya is a\n(A) Play about Chandragupta Maurya\n(B) Biography\n(C) History of Chandragupta Maurya\n(D) Book on Principles of Government\nAns: (D)\n\n442. Another name of Chanakya was\n(A) Bhattswami\n(B) Vishnugupta\n(C) Rajshekhar\n(D) Vishakhdatta\nAns: (B)\n\n443. Kautilya\u2019s Arthashastra deals with the aspects of\n(A) Economic life\n(B) Political policies\n(C) Religious life\n(D) Social life\nAns: (B)\n\n444. Which one of the following is the seventh part of the State according to Saptang Theory of State?\n(A) Janapada (B) Durga\n(C) Mitra (D) Kosha\nAns: (C)\n\n445. Deimachus came to India during the reign of\n(A) Chandragupta Maurya\n(B) Bindusara\n(C) Ashoka\n(D) Kanishka\nAns: (B)\n\n446. Which of the following can be compared to \u2018Prince\u2019 of Machiavelli?\n(A) Kalidasa\u2019s \u2018Malvikagni Mitram\u2019\n(B) Kautilya\u2019s \u2018Arthashastra\u2019\n(C) Vatsyanana\u2019s \u2018Kamasutra\u2019\n(D) Thiruvalluvar\u2019s \u2018Thirukkural\u2019\nAns: (B)\n\n447. The remains of which ancient city have been found at the Kumrahar site?\n(A) Vaishali (B) Pataliputra\n(C) Kapilavastu (D) Shravasti\nAns: (B)\n\n448. Chandragupta\u2019s palace situated at Pataliputra is mainly made up of\n(A) Bricks (B) Stones\n(C) Woods (D) Clays\nAns: (C)\n\n449. Who amongst the following Mauryan rulers did conquer the Deccan?\n(A) Ashoka\n(B) Chandragupta\n(C) Bindusara\n(D) Kunala\nAns: (B)\n\n450. Bulandibagh was ancient site of\n(A) Kapilavastu (B) Pataliputra\n(C) Vaishali (D) Varanasi\nAns: (B)\n\n451. The Inscription which proves Chandragupta\u2019s way over Western India is\n(A) Kalinga Rock Inscription\n(B) Girnar Rock Inscription of Ashoka\n(C) Junagarh Rock Inscription of Rudradaman\n(D) Sopara Rock Inscription of Ashoka\nAns: (C)\n\n452. Who was the first king to conquer Malwa, Gujarat and Maharashtra?\n(A) Harsh\n(B) Skandgupta\n(C) Vikramaditya\n(D) Chandragupta Maurya\nAns: (D)\n\n453. Which Indian King defeated Seleucus, the administrator of Sindh and Afghanistan appointed by Alexander?\n(A) Samudragupta\n(B) Ashok\n(C) Bindusar\n(D) Chandragupta\nAns: (D)\n\n454. That Gujarat was included in the Kingdom of Chandragupta Maurya is proved by\n(A) Greek accounts\n(B) Junagarh Rock Inscription of Rudradaman\n(C) Jain tradition\n(D) Pillar Edict II of Ashoka\nAns: (B)\n\n455. The given map relates to\n(A) Kanishka at the time of his death\n(B) Samudragupta after the close of his South Indian campaign\n(C) Ashoka towards the close of his reign\n(D) Empire of Thaneswar on the eve of Harsha\u2019s accession\nAns: (C)\n\n456. In which year Chandragupta Maurya had defeated Seleucus?\n(A) 317 B.C. (B) 315 B.C.\n(C) 305 B.C. (D) 300 B.C.\nAns: (C)\n\n457. Which one territory of the following was not a part of Ashoka\u2019s empire?\n(A) Afghanistan (B) Bihar\n(C) Sri Lanka (D) Kalinga\nAns: (C)\n\n458. Who established \u2018Rajdharma\u2019 on triplex bases of longanimity, liberty and compassion?\n(A) Ashoka (B) Akbar\n(C) Ranjit Singh (D) Shivaji\nAns: (A)\n\n459. India\u2019s first hospital and herbal gardens were built by\n(A) Ashoka\n(B) Chandragupta Maurya\n(C) Lord Mahavir\n(D) Dhanvantari\nAns: (A)\n\n(A) Third Major Rock Edict\n(B) Second Major Rock Edict\n(C) Ninth Major Rock Edict\n(D) First Pillar Inscription\nAns: (B)\n\n461. A Buddhist Council during the reign of Ashoka was held at\n(A) Magadha (B) Pataliputra\n(C) Samastipur (D) Rajgriha\nAns: (B)\n\n462. \u2018Inspite of being Buddhist, Ashoka did not leave belief in Hinduism\u2019 validation of this fact is\n(A) Pilgrims\n(B) Belief in Moksha\n(C) Epithet of \u2018Devanampriya\u2019\n(D) Establishment of veterinary hospitals\nAns: (C)\n\n463. What were \u2018Sarthwah\u2019?\n(A) Brokers\n(B) Convoy of Merchants\n(C) Money lender\n(D) Pilgrims\nAns: (B)\n\n464. Rajjuka\u2019s were\n(A) Traders in the Chola Kingdom\n(B) Officers in the Mauryan administration\n(C) Feudal Lords in the Gupta empire\n(D) Soldiers in the Saka army\nAns: (B)\n\n465. Sarnath Pillar was built by\n(A) Harshavardhana\n(B) Ashoka\n(C) Gautam Buddha\n(D) Kanishka\nAns: (B)\n\n466. Which one of the following officials was not a part of the Mauryan administration?\n(A) Agraharika\n(B) Yukta\n(C) Pradeshika\n(D) Rajjuka\nAns: (A)\n\n467. Who of the following ruler constructed the \u2018Sanchi Stupa\u2019?\n(A) Bimbisara\n(B) Ashoka\n(C) Harshavardhana\n(D) Pusyamitra\nAns: (B)\n\n468. Which one of the following is considered the best Stupa?\n(A) Amaravati\n(B) Bharhut\n(C) Sanchi\n(D) Sarnath\nAns: (C)\n\n469. Language used in the inscription of Ashoka is\n(A) Sanskrit (B) Prakrit\n(C) Pali (D) Hindi\nAns: (B)\n\n470. Who constructed the \u2018Sanchi Stupa\u2019?\n(A) Chandragupta\n(B) Kautilya\n(C) Gautam Buddha\n(D) Ashoka\nAns: (D)\n\n471. The earliest inscription on stone was in which language?\n(A) Pali (B) Sanskrit\n(C) Prakrit (D) Brahmi\nAns: (C)\n\n472. Which one of the following Ashokan inscription is in \u2018Kharosthi\u2019 script?\n(A) Khalsi\n(B) Girnar\n(C) Shahbazgarhi\n(D) Meerut\nAns: (C)\n\n473. The first scholar who read Ashokan edicts was\n(A) Buhler\n(B) Robert Sebel\n(C) James Prinsep\n(D) Cordriguttan\nAns: (C)\n\n474. The Brahmi Script was first deciphered by letters inscribed on\n(A) Stone tablets (B) Seal\n(C) Pillars (D) Coins\nAns: (A)\n\n475. Who first deciphered the Brahmi Script?\n(A) A. Cunningham\n(B) A. H. Dani\n(C) Buhler\n(D) James Prinsep\nAns: (D)\n\n476. Ashokan inscriptions were first deciphered by\n(A) James Prinsep\n(B) George Buhler\n(C) Vincent Smith\n(D) Ahmad Hasan Dani\nAns: (A)\n\n477. Who of the following had first decipher the edicts of Emperor Ashoka?\n(A) George Buhler\n(B) James Prinsep\n(C) Max Muller\n(D) William Jones\nAns: (B)\n\n478. Who was the First Britisher to study Ashoka\u2019s edicts?\n(A) John Tower\n(B) Harry Smith\n(C) Charles Metcalfe\n(D) James Prinsep\nAns: (D)\n\n479. Which one of the following scripts of ancient India was written from right to left?\n(A) Brahmi (B) Nandnagari\n(C) Sharada (D) Kharoshti\nAns: (D)\n\n480. Pre-Ashokan Brahmi script was found at\n(A) Nagarjunakonda\n(B) Anuradhapura\n(C) Brahmagiri\n(D) Maski\nAns: (B)\n\n481. Which of the kings has been mentioned as \u2018Piyadassi\u2019 and \u2018Devanampriya\u2019 in inscriptions?\n(A) Chandragupta Maurya\n(B) Ashoka\n(C) Samudragupta\n(D) Harshavardhana\nAns: (B)\n\n482. The name by which Ashoka is referred to his inscriptions is\n(A) Chakravarti (B) Dharmadeva\n(C) Dharmakirti (D) Priyadarshi\nAns: (D)\n\n483. Which one of the following edicts mentions the personal name of Ashoka?\n(A) Kalsi\n(B) Rummindei\n(C) Special Kalinga Edict\n(D) Maski\nAns: (D)\n\n484. Which one of the following statements regarding Ashokan stone pillars is incorrect?\n(A) These are highly polished\n(B) These are monolithic\n(C) The shaft of pillars is tapering in shape\n(D) These are parts of architectural structures\nAns: (D)\n\n485. Which one of the following inscriptions contains the name of Ashoka?\n(A) Gujarra (B) Ahraura\n(C) Brahmagiri (D) Sarnath\nAns: (A)\n\n486. In which of the following inscriptions the name of \u2018Ashoka\u2019 has been mentioned?\n(A) Bhabru Edict\n(B) Rock Edict XIII\n(C) Rummindei Pillar Inscription\n(D) Minor Rock Edict of Maski\nAns: (D)\n\n(A) Mirzapur district of Uttar Pradesh\n(B) Datia district of Madhya Pradesh\n(C) Jaipur district of Rajasthan\n(D) Champaran district of Bihar\nAns: (B)\n\n488. The Rummindei Pillar of Ashoka was put up to mark\n(A) Birth of Buddha\n(B) Enlightenment of Buddha\n(C) First Sermon of Buddha\n(D) Demise of Buddha\nAns: (A)\n\n489. Kalsi is famous for\n(A) Buddhist Chaityas\n(B) Persian Coins\n(C) Rock edicts of Ashoka\n(D) Temples of Gupta period\nAns: (C)\n\n490. The only pillar on which Ashoka declares himself as the emperor of Magadha.\n(A) Minor pillar of Maski\n(B) Rummindei pillar\n(C) Queen pillar\n(D) Bhabru pillar\nAns: (D)\n\n491. Which Ashokan Rock Edict describes the victory and injuries of Kalinga war?\n(A) Rock Edict I\n(B) Rock Edict II\n(C) Rock Edict XII\n(D) Rock Edict XIII\nAns: (D)\n\n492. Where in Uttarakhand, was a copy of Emperor Ashok\u2019s Rock Edicts discovered?\n(A) Nainital\n(B) Pauri\n(C) Tehri\n(D) Kalsi (Dehradun District)\nAns: (D)\n\n(A) Rock Edict XIII\n(B) Rock Edict XII\n(C) Pillar inscription VII\n(D) Bhabru minor rock edict\nAns: (B)\n\n494. The accounts of Kalinga War is known to us by the\n(A) Rock Edict XIII\n(B) Rummindei Pillar Inscription\n(C) Accounts of Hiuen Tsang\n(D) Minor Rock Edict-I\nAns: (A)\n\n495. Which of the following South Kingdoms is not mentioned in the Ashokan inscriptions?\n(A) Chola (B) Pandya\n(C) Satiyaputta (D) Satavahana\nAns: (D)\n\n496. The Ashokan major rock edicts which tell us about the Sangam Kingdom include rock edicts\n(A) I and X (B) I and XI\n(C) II and XIII (D) II and XIV\nAns: (C)\n\n497. Ptolemy Philadelphus whose had diplomatic relation with Ashoka, was king of\n(A) Cyron (B) Egypt\n(C) Macedonia (D) Syria\nAns: (B)\n\n498. Which of the following inscriptions of Ashoka bans animal sacrifice on certain festive gathering, that probably included a ban on animal killing as well?\n(A) Rock Edict I\n(B) Pillar Edict V\n(C) Rock Edict IX\n(D) Rock Edict XI\nAns: (A)\n\n499. Rulers of which of the following dynasties had diplomatic relations with distant countries like Syria and Egypt?\n(A) Chola (B) Gupta\n(C) Maurya (D) Pallavas\nAns: (C)\n\n500. Turamaya, a contemporary of Ashoka was the ruler of\n(A) Egypt (B) Corinth\n(C) Macedonia (D) Syria\nAns: (A)\n\n501. In the Mauryan period, tax evasion was punished with\n(A) Death\n(B) Confiscation of goods\n(C) Imprisonment\n(D) None of the above\nAns: (A)\n\n502. Which one of the following ancient Indian records is the earliest royal order to preserve food-grains to be utilised during the crisis in the country?\n(A) Sohagaura Copper-plate\n(B) Rummindei Pillar-edict of Ashoka\n(C) Prayaga-Prasasti\n(D) Mehrauli Pillar inscription of Chandra\nAns: (A)\n\n503. In how many categories did Megasthenese divide the Indian Society?\n(A) Four (B) Five\n(C) Six (D) Seven\nAns: (D)\n\n504. Famous Greek ambassador Megasthenese came to the court of which emperor?\n(A) Ashoka\n(B) Harsha Vardhana\n(C) Chandragupta Maurya\n(D) None of the above\nAns: (C)\n\n505. The division of Mauryan \u2018Society into seven classes\u2019 is particularly mentioned in\n(A) Kautilya\u2019s Arthashastra\n(B) Ashokan Edicts\n(C) The Puranas\n(D) Megasthenes\u2019 Indica\nAns: (D)\n\n506. Which of the following sources states that there was no slavery in ancient India?\n(A) Arthashastra\n(B) Mudrarakshasha\n(C) Megasthenes\u2019 Indica\n(D) Vayupuran\nAns: (C)\n\n507. Which of the following sources gives a detailed account of city administration of the Mauryas?\n(A) Kautilya\u2019s Arthashastra\n(B) Megasthenes\u2019 Indica\n(C) Mudrarakashasa of Vishakha Datta\n(D) Inscription of Ashoka\nAns: (B)\n\n508. The description of the administration of Pataliputra is available in\n(A) Divyanadan\n(B) Arthashastra\n(C) Indica\n(D) Ashoka\u2019s inscription\nAns: (C)\n\n509. \u2018Indica\u2019 was originally written by\n(A) Nearchus (B) Megasthenes\n(C) Plutarch (D) Diodorus\nAns: (B)\n\n510. What is the name of Megasthenes\u2019s book?\n(A) Economics (B) Rig Veda\n(C) Purana (D) Indica\nAns: (D)\n\n511. \u2018Bhaga\u2019 and \u2018Bali\u2019 were\n(A) Military Departments\n(B) Sources of Revenue\n(C) Religious Ceremonies\n(D) Administrative Divisions\nAns: (B)\n\n512. Who was the author of \u2018Indica\u2019?\n(A) Vishnugupta (B) Megasthenes\n(C) Diamachus (D) Pliny\nAns: (B)\n\n513. \u2018Sita\u2019 in Maurya period means\n(A) A goddess\n(B) A religious sect\n(C) Revenue from Crown land\n(D) Barren land\nAns: (C)\n\n514. Land revenue, which was the chief source of income during the Mauryan period, was collected by which officer?\n(A) Agronomoi\n(B) Shulkadhyaksha\n(C) Sitadhyaksha\n(D) Akradhayaksha\nAns: (C)\n\n515. Which of the following Mauryan officers was incharge of weights and measures?\n(A) Pautavadhyaksha\n(B) Panyadhyaksha\n(C) Sitadhyaksha\n(D) Sunadhyaksha\nAns: (A)\n\n516. Who of the following was associated with the collection of revenue in Mauryan Mantriparishad?\n(A) Samaharta (B) Vyabharika\n(C) Antapala (D) Pradeshtha\nAns: (A)\n\n517. The most famous centre of learning during Maurya period was\n(A) Vaishali (B) Nalanda\n(C) Taxila (D) Ujjain\nAns: (C)\n\n518. \u2018Pankodakasannirodhe\u2019 was the Penalty in Mauryan administration, charged for\n(A) Filthy drinking water\n(B) Slushing the road\n(C) Throwing garbage\n(D) Stenching temples\nAns: (B)\n\n519. With reference to the cultural history of India, the memorising of Chronicles, dynastic histories, and epic tales was the profession of who of the following?\n(A) Shramana\n(B) Parivraajaka\n(C) Agrahaarika\n(D) Magadha\nAns: (D)\n\n520. Which aspect of municipal administration of today is continuing since the period of Mauryans?\n(A) Inspection of weight measure reamer\n(B) Determination of prices of goods\n(C) Registration of birth and death certificate\n(D) Protection of artisans\nAns: (C)\n\n(A) Kamasutra\n(B) Manavadharmashastra\n(C) Sukra Nitisara\n(D) Arthashastra\nAns: (D)\n\n522. The system governing villages through autonomous elected panchayats was evolved by\n(A) Kushans (B) Dravids\n(C) Aryans (D) Mauryans\nAns: (D)\n\n523. The social status assigned to the foreigners in Indian society by Manu was of the\n(A) Kshatriyas\n(B) Fallen Kshatriyas\n(C) Vaishyas\n(D) Sudras\nAns: (B)\n\n524. Which among of the following prohibits remarriage?\n(A) Jataka (B) Manusmiriti\n(C) Yagyavalkya (D) Arthashastra\nAns: (B)\n\n525. Realising the need of water, the first ruler who got a lake constructed in the Girnar area, was\n(A) Chandragupta Maurya\n(B) Ashoka\n(C) Rudradaman\n(D) Skanda Gupta\nAns: (A)\n\n526. The last Mauryan emperor was\n(A) Jaloka\n(B) Avanti Verma\n(C) Nandi Vardhana\n(D) Brihadratha\nAns: (D)\n\n527. In which of the following inscriptions, Ashoka\u2019s edicts are also found?\n(A) Junagarh inscription of Mahakshatrapa Rudradaman\n(B) Nashik Prashasti regarding Gautamiputra Satakarni\n(C) Hathigumpha inscription of Kharvavela\n(D) None of the above\nAns: (A)\n\n528. In which of the following inscription mentioned Chandragupta and Ashoka both?\n(A) Nasik inscription of Gautami putra Shatkarni\n(B) Junagarh inscription of Mahakshatrapa Rudradaman\n(C) Girnar inscription of Ashoka\n(D) Junagarh inscription of Skandgupta\nAns: (B)\n\n529. Which of the following sources mention the occurrence of the third Buddhist Council during the reign of Ashoka?\n1. Inscriptions of Ashoka\n2. Dipavamsa\n3. Mahavamsa\n4. Divyavadana Select the correct answer using the code given below.\n\n(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3\n(C) 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 4\nAns: (B)\n\n530. Consider the following statements.\n1. The last Mauryan ruler, Brihadaratha was assassinated by his commander-in-chief, Pushyamitra Sunga.\n2. The last Sunga King, Devabhuti, was assassinated by his Brahmana minister Vasudeva Kanva who usurped the throne.\n3. The last ruler of the Kanva dynasty was deposed by the Andhras. Which of these statements is/are correct?\n\n(A) 1 and 2 (B) Only 2\n(C) Only 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3\nAns: (D)\n\n531. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below. List-I (Place)\n(a) Kaushambi (b) Kushinagar\n(c) Sarnath (d) Shravasti List-II (Monuments/Ruins)\n1. Dhamek Stupa\n2. Ghositarama Monastery\n3. Ramabhar Stupa\n4. Saheth Maheth Code\n(a) (b) (c) (d)\n\n(A) 2 1 3 4 (B) 4 3 2 1\n(C) 2 3 1 4 (D) 4 2 1 3\nAns: (C)\n\n532. The following Mauryan rulers were the followers of Buddhism\n1. Chandragupta\n2. Ashoka\n3. Bindusara\n4. Dasaratha Select the correct answer.\n\n(A) 1 and 2\n(B) 2 and 3\n(C) 3 and 4\n(D) 2 and 4\nAns: (D)\n\n533. Assertion (A): Ashoka annexed Kalinga to the Mauryan Empire. Reason (R): Kalinga controlled the land and sea routes to South India. Select the correct answer using the code given below. Code\n(R) is the correct explanation of (A)\nAns: (A)\n\n534. In the course of pilgrimage, Emperor Ashoka visited the following places. Which route did he follow?\n1. Gaya\n2. Kapilavastu\n3. Kushinagar\n4. Lumbini\n5. Sarnath\n6. Shravasti Select the correct answer from the code given below. Code\n\n(A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6\n(B) 1, 3, 4, 2, 5 and 6\n(C) 4, 5, 6, 3, 2 and 1\n(D) 4, 2, 1, 5, 6 and 3\nAns: (B)\n\n535. Which of the following statements are correct about Mauryan Kings? They developed\n1. Culture, Art and Literature\n2. Gold coins\n3. Provincial Division\n4. Kingship to Hindukush Code\n\n(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2\n(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 3 and 4\nAns: (D)\n\n536. Assertion (A): The Mauryan kings did not bestow land grants on religious basis. Reason (R): The peasants revolted against land grants. Select the correct answer using the code given below. Code\n(R) is the correct explanation of (A)\nAns: (C)\n\n537. The following persons came to India at one time or another\n1. Fa-Hien 2. I-Tsing\n3. Megasthanese 4. Hieun-Tsang The correct chronological sequence of their visits are\n\n(A) 3, 1, 2, 4 (B) 3, 1, 4, 2\n(C) 1, 3, 2, 4 (D) 1, 3, 4, 2\nAns: (B)\n\n538. According to the \u2018Arthashastra\u2019 of Kautilya the following courts existed in the judicial system of Mauryan Age\n1. Dharmamahamatra\n2. Dharmasthiya\n3. Rajjuka\n4. Kantakshodhana Code\n\n(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3\n(C) 1 and 3 (D) 2 and 4\nAns: (D)\n\n539. Who among the following rulers paid attention to the resource management in Girnar region some centuries before the Christian era?\n1. Mahapadma Nanda\n2. Ashoka\n3. Chandragupta Maurya\n4. Rudradaman Select the correct answer using the code given below. Code\n\n(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3\n(C) 3 and 4 (D) 2, 3 and 4\nAns: (B)\n\n540. Match List-I with List-II select the correct answer by using the code given below. List-I\n(a) Chandragupta\n(b) Bindusara\n(c) Ashoka\n(d) Chanakya List-II\n1. Piyadarshi 2. Sandrocottus\n3. Amitraghat 4. Vishnugupta Code\n(a) (b) (c) (d)\n\n(C) 2 3 1 4 (D) 3 4 2 1\nAns: (C)\n\n541. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?\n1. Lothal \u2013 Ancient Dockyard\n2. Sarnath \u2013 First Sermon of Buddha\n3. Rajgir \u2013 Lion Capital of Ashoka\n4. Nalanda \u2013 Great Seat of Buddhist Learning Select the correct answer using the code given below. Code\n\n(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 3 and 4\n(C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 1 and 2\nAns: (C)\n\n\nLeave a Reply |
__label__positive The blood stem cell research that could change medicine of the future\n\n\nArtist's impression of blood stem cells\n\nBiomedical engineers have been trying to make blood stem cells in laboratory dishes to solve the problem of donor blood stem cell shortages. Image: Shutterstock\n\nBiomedical engineers and medical researchers at UNSW Sydney have independently made discoveries about embryonic blood stem cell creation that could one day eliminate the need for stem cell blood donors.\n\nThe achievements are part of a move in regenerative medicine towards the use of \u2018induced pluripotent stem cells\u2019 to treat disease, where stem cells are reverse engineered from adult tissue cells rather than using live human or animal embryos.\n\nBut while we have known about induced pluripotent stem cells since 2006, scientists still have plenty to learn about how cell differentiation in the human body can be mimicked artificially and safely in the lab for the purposes of delivering targeted medical treatment.\n\nRead more: Scientists are a step closer to developing 'smart' stem cells - and they're made from human fat\n\nTwo studies have emerged from UNSW researchers in this area that shine new light on not only how the precursor\u00a0blood stem cells occur in animals and humans, but how they may be induced artificially.\n\nIn a study published today in Cell Reports, researchers from UNSW School of Biomedical Engineering demonstrated how a simulation of an embryo\u2019s beating heart using a microfluidic device in the lab led to the development of human blood stem cell \u2018precursors\u2019, which are stem cells on the verge of becoming blood stem cells.\n\nAnd in an article published in Nature Cell Biology recently, researchers from UNSW Medicine & Health revealed the identity of cells in mice embryos responsible for blood stem cell creation.\n\nBoth studies are significant steps towards an understanding of how, when, where and which cells are involved in the creation of blood stem cells. In the future, this knowledge could be used to help cancer patients, among others, who have undergone high doses of radio- and chemotherapy, to replenish their depleted blood stem cells.\n\nEmulating the heart\n\nIn the study detailed in Cell Reports, lead author Dr Jingjing Li and fellow researchers described how a 3cm x 3cm microfluidic system pumped blood stem cells produced from an embryonic stem cell line to mimic an embryo\u2019s beating heart and conditions of blood circulation.\n\nShe said that in the last few decades, biomedical engineers have been trying to make blood stem cells in\u00a0laboratory dishes to solve the problem of donor blood stem cell shortages. But no one has yet been able to achieve it.\n\n\u201cPart of the problem is that we still don\u2019t fully understand all the processes going on in the microenvironment during embryonic development that leads to the creation of blood stem cells at about day 32,\u201d Dr Li said.\n\n\u201cSo we made a device mimicking the heart beating and the blood circulation and an orbital shaking system which causes shear stress \u2013 or friction \u2013 of the blood cells as they move through the device or around in a dish.\u201d\n\nTubes filled with coloured liquid join a microfluid device set in perspex\n\nThe microfluidic device that emulated an embryo's heartbeat and blood circulation. The cell seeding channels are filled with red food dye, while the heart ventricular contraction control channels and circulation valve control channels are filled with blue and green food dye respectively. Photo: UNSW/Jingjing Li\n\nThese systems promoted the development of precursor blood stem cells which can differentiate into various blood components \u2013 white blood cells, red blood cells, platelets and others. They were excited to see this same process \u2013 known as haematopoiesis \u2013 replicated in the device.\n\nStudy co-author Associate Professor Robert Nordon said he was amazed that not only did the device create blood stem cell precursors that went on to produce differentiated blood cells, but it also created the tissue cells of the embryonic heart environment that is crucial to this process.\n\n\u201cThe thing that just wows me about this is that blood stem cells, when they form in the embryo, form in the wall of the main vessel called the aorta. And they basically pop out of this aorta and go into the circulation, and then go to the liver and form what's called definitive haematopoiesis, or definitive blood formation.\n\n\u201cGetting an aorta to form and then the cells actually emerging from that aorta into the circulation, that is the crucial step required for generating these cells.\u201d\n\n\u201cWhat we've shown is that we can generate a cell that can form all the different types of blood cells. We've also shown that it is very closely related to the cells lining the aorta \u2013 so we know its origin is correct \u2013 and that it proliferates,\u201d A/Prof. Nordon said.\n\nThe researchers are cautiously optimistic about their achievement in emulating embryonic heart conditions with a mechanical device. They hope it could be a step towards solving challenges limiting regenerative medical treatments today: donor blood stem cell shortages, rejection of donor tissue cells, and the ethical issues surrounding the use of IVF embryos.\n\n\u201cBlood stem cells used in transplantation require donors with the same tissue-type as the patient,\u201d A/Prof. Nordon said.\n\n\u201cManufacture of blood stem cells from pluripotent stem cell lines would solve this problem without the need for tissue-matched donors providing a plentiful supply to treat blood cancers or genetic disease.\u201d\n\nDr Li added: \u201cWe are working on up-scaling manufacture of these cells using bioreactors.\u201d\n\nMystery solved\n\nMeanwhile, and working independently of Dr Li and A/Prof. Nordon, UNSW Medicine & Health\u2019s Professor John Pimanda and Dr Vashe Chandrakanthan were doing their own research into how blood stem cells are created in embryos.\n\nIn their study of mice, the researchers looked for the mechanism that is used naturally in mammals to make blood stem cells from the cells that line blood vessels, known as endothelial cells.\n\n\u201cIt was already known that this process takes place in mammalian embryos where endothelial cells that line the aorta change into blood cells during haematopoiesis,\u201d Prof. Pimanda said.\n\n\u201cBut the identity of the cells that regulate this process had up until now been a mystery.\u201d\n\nRead more: Baby mice have a skill that humans want \u2013 and this microchip might help us learn it\n\nIn their paper, Prof. Pimanda and Dr Chandrakanthan described how they solved this puzzle by identifying \u00a0the cells in the embryo that can convert both embryonic and adult endothelial cells into blood cells. The cells \u2013 known as \u2018Mesp1-derived PDGFRA+ stromal cells\u2019 -\u2013\u00a0reside underneath the aorta, and only surround the aorta in a very narrow window during embryonic development.\n\nDr Chandrakanthan said that knowing the identity of these cells provides medical researchers with clues on how mammalian adult endothelial cells could be triggered to create blood stem cells \u2013 something they are normally unable to do.\n\n\u201cOur research showed that when endothelial cells from the embryo or the adult are mixed with \u2018Mesp1 derived PDGFRA+ stromal cells\u2019 \u2013 they start making blood stem cells,\u201d he said.\n\nWhile more research is needed before this can be translated into clinical practice \u2013 including confirming the results in human cells \u2013 the discovery could provide a potential new tool to generate engraftable haematopoietic cells.\n\n\u201cUsing your own cells to generate blood stem cells could eliminate the need for donor blood transfusions or stem cell transplantation. Unlocking mechanisms used by nature brings us a step closer to achieving this goal,\u201d Prof. Pimanda said. |
__label__positive This is a continuation of Is tropone aromatic?\n\nResonance forms of tropone\n\nI'm looking at the resonance form that does have the carbonyl double-bond, 1a. Can this resonance structure also be considered aromatic? Would the electrons from the C=O double bond also be delocalized through extended conjugation?\n\nTo me, this looks like a very similar situation to styrene, when we have an alkenyl sidechain attached to a benzene ring. Apparently, for alkenyl side-chains, Huckel's number is not affected, leaving an already aromatic compound to stay aromatic even though more electrons come into the conjugation.\n\nIn the case of tropone, would the C=O double bond interfere with electron counting for H\u00fcckel's rule?\n\n\nIn addition to Philipp's answer I'd like to share some orbital pictures which shall make the case rather obvious.\n\nLet me shortly remind you of the key part of the IUPAC definition for aromaticity:\n\n 1. In the traditional sense, 'having a chemistry typified by benzene'.\n\nI will therefore follow the same approach as in my answer to \"Is phenoxide aromatic?\" in comparing the orbital pictures.\n\nThe following orbitals are for the \u03c0 system of benzene, in increasing order of energy (DF-BP86/def2SVP). The two orbitals on the right are degenerate:\n\nPi orbitals of benzene\n\nAnalogously, the \u03c0 system for cyclohepta-2,4,6-trien-1-one is extensively delocalised and holds eight electrons. Note that the symmetry of this molecule is only $C_\\mathrm{2v}$ removing a lot of constraint from the electronic structure. This is also why the H\u00fcckel rule breaks down, since there are no more degeneracies observed.\n\nPi orbitals of cycloheptatrienone\n\nAlso note, that the LUMO of this molecule (pictured below) still has considerable bonding character and that reduction would most likely not destroy aromaticity. (The same statement also applies to oxidation.)\n\nLUMO of cycloheptatrienone\n\n\nMaybe my answer concerning the question why aniline is considered aromatic might help a bit. There I describe that groups that are cross-conjugated with the aromatic ring are not included into the \"H\u00fcckel-count\" and give some arguments why this is so.\n\nA similar argument would apply here: The keto group is cross-conjugated with the ring's \u03c0-system but in a different way than the amino group is in aniline because the carbonyl carbon is part of the ring. So, the role of the keto group's \u03c0 system is only to act as a bridge between the $\\ce{C=C}$ \u03c0-orbitals so that the ring is \"closed\". Thus, you wouldn't count the keto group's electrons but only the $\\ce{C=C}$ \u03c0-electrons. And this would lead to the conclusion that your cyclic ketone will be aromatic if it really is flat (that will have to be checked by NMR or other methods) because there are 6 \u03c0-electrons in the ring.\n\n \u2022 $\\begingroup$ So para-quinone is antiaromatic because not counting the conjugated pi electrons there are four in the ring. Does that make sense? Para-quinone is usually described as nonaromatic instead, and a look at molecular orbitals (even qualitatively) should convince you that the eight total pi electrons are in fact optimal for pi bonding in this molecule. $\\endgroup$ \u2013\u00a0Oscar Lanzi Jan 29 '18 at 22:30\n\nYou can't apply Huckel's 4n+2 rule except for purely cyclic conjugation. When there are pendant pi bonds like the one in tropone all bets are off on 4n+2. You need to look at the MO structure to see if the total pi electron count, eight in this case, is optimal for the whole molecule, not just the ring. (In tropone it is.)\n\n\nYour Answer\n\n |
__label__positive Astronomy Related Multiple Choice Questions With Answers \u2013 Part 3\n\nAstronomy Questions Answers Part 3 Eduhyme\n\nWe know that the constellations are not true groups of stars but only appear that way from our solar systems. The stars within a constellation are at greatly varying distances.\n\n\nAlso Read:\n\n\n1. A solar flare can produce\n\n(a) Disturbances in the Earth\u2019s magnetic field.\n(b) Lunar libration.\n(c) A total solar eclipse.\n(d) A dark spot on the Sun.\n(e) A reddish glow on the Moon.\n\n2. Longitudes are not assigned values greater than 180 degrees east or 180 degrees west because\n\n(a) Doing so would result in a redundant set of coordinates.\n(b) The King of England forbade it in the seventeenth century, and no one has contradicted him since.\n(c) Galileo saw that such a thing could not possibly occur.\n(d) 180 degrees represents a full circle.\n(e) Oh, but they are! Latitudes are commonly assigned values greater than 180 degrees east or 180 degrees west.\n\n3. The Sun\u2019s declination is 0 degrees on\n\n(a) January 21.\n(b) July 21.\n(c) October 21.\n(d) December 21.\n(e) None of the above dates.\n\n4. The Moon\u2019s diameter is\n\n(a) About 1/81 that of the Earth.\n(b) About 1/30 that of the Earth.\n(c) About 1/4 that of the Earth.\n(d) About the same as that of the Earth.\n(e) Variable, depending on its phase.\n\n5. Which of the following constellations consists of a group of stars early in their lifespans, and still shrouded in the gas and dust from which they formed?\n\n(a) The Pleiades\n(b) Orion\n(c) Ursa Minor\n(d) Pollux\n(e) Bootes\n\n6. In the southern hemisphere, the Sun\u2019s right ascension is 12 hours on or around the twenty-first day of\n\n(a) September.\n(b) December.\n(c) March.\n(d) June.\n(e) No month; the Sun ever reaches a right ascension of 12 hours in the southern hemisphere.\n\n7. The reddish color of the Moon during a total lunar eclipse is caused by\n\n(a) Sunlight passing through the Earth\u2019s atmosphere.\n(b) Sunlight reflected from the Earth back to the Moon.\n(c) Sunlight scattered by particles in interplanetary space.\n(d) Solar flares.\n(e) Solar prominences.\n\n8. If you were at the south geographic pole, the elevation of Polaris, the North Star, would be approximately\n\n(a) -90\u00b0\n(b) 0\u00b0.\n(c) +90\u00b0\n(d) 180\u00b0W.\n(e) 180\u00b0E.\n\n9. Scattered artificial light, such as that produced by the lights of a large city,\n\n(a) obscures many of the dimmer stars and constellations, which can be seen easily from locations in the outback.\n(b) Causes the Moon to appear larger than it really is.\n(c) Affects star visibility near the zenith more than star visibility near the horizon.\n(d) Has no effect on stargazing whatsoever.\n(e) Renders the dimmest stars more visible than they would be in the outback.\n\n10. If Orion, the hunter, appears to be standing upright in the southern sky on a January evening as seen from New Hampshire, then at the same time, to view\u00acers in Santiago, Chile, the hunter is\n\n(a) standing upright in the northern sky.\n(b) Tying on his side in the northern sty.\n(c) Standing on his head in the northern sky.\n(d) Invisible because the seasons in the southern hemisphere are inverted with respect to the seasons in the northern hemisphere.\n(e) Invisible because it would never rise above the horizon.\n\n11. The constellation Octans, near the south celestial pole, can be seen rising in the east on evenings in the month of\n\n(a) April.\n(b) July.\n(c) October.\n(d) January.\n(e) None of the above\n\n12. The relatively dark, central part of a sunspot is called the\n\n(a) Core.\n(b) Ecliptic.\n(c) Pole.\n(d) Umbra.\n(e) Synodic.\n\n13. Assuming that interstellar travel is possible and that humans will do it someday, the constellations will not be usable by the captains of interstellar space ships because\n\n(a) Stars are invisible at warp speeds.\n(b) The constellations have their characteristic shapes only from the vantage point of our solar system and its vicinity.\n(c) All the stars will have moved to new positions and the present constellations will no longer exist.\n(d) They do not radiate electromagnetic fields of the proper type.\n(e) Wrong assumption! The constellations will be perfectly good navigational tools for long-distance interstellar travel.\n\n14. Meridians on the Earth\n\n(a) Are circles centered at the equator.\n(b) Are circles centered at the south pole.\n(c) Are half circles connecting the north and south poles.\n(d) Are half circles parallel to the equator.\n(e) Are straight lines passing through the Earth\u2019s physical center.\n\n15. At which of the following times of year would the number of hours of daylight change the least rapidly from one day to the next?\n\n(a) Late June\n(b) Late August\n(c) Early October\n(d) Early March\n(e) Early April\n\n16. The angular diameter of the Moon, considered as a whole and as viewed from the Earth, is\n\n(a) About Vs the angular diameter of the Earth.\n(b) About V2 the angular diameter of the Sun.\n(c) Largest at apogee, and smallest at perigee.\n(d) Tilted about 5 degrees with respect to the ecliptic.\n(e) About the same as the angular diameter of the Sun.\n\n17. How many hours of right ascension are there in 30 degrees of arc, measured along the ecliptic?\n\n(a) One hour\n(b) Two hours\n(c) Three hours\n(d) Four hours\n(e) Six hours\n\n18. Which constellation, easily visible at temperate latitudes in both the northern and southern hemispheres, is also known as the hunter?\n\n(a) Hercules\n(b) Libra\n(c) Orion\n(d) Pollux\n(e) Ursa Major\n\n19. An effect of libration is:\n\n(a) That the Moon\u2019s orbit is not a perfect circle.\n(b) To accelerate solar particles as they encounter the Earth\u2019s magnetic field.\n(c) To cause the tides to lag the gravitational effects that produce them.\n(d) To let us see slightly more than half the Moon\u2019s surface.\n(e) To allow viewing of the solar corona during a total solar eclipse.\n\n20. The summer solstice in London, England, occurs within a day of\n\n(a) March 21.\n(b) June 21.\n(c) September 21.\n(d) December 21.\n(e) None of the above\n\n21. At the time of the first-quarter moon,\n\n(a) The Earth is directly between the Sun and the Moon.\n(b) The Moon is directly between the Sun and Earth.\n(c) The Sun is directly between Earth and the Moon.\n(d) The Moon is 90 angular degrees from the Sun in the sky.\n(e) The Moon is 180 angular degrees from the Sun in the sky.\n\n22. Which of the following constellations lies in the same direction as the center of our galaxy?\n\n(a) Cancer\n(b) Ursa Minor\n(c) Gemini\n(d) Orion\n(e) Sagittarius\n\n23. From which vantage point on the Earth would the star Sirius rise in the west and set in the east?\n\n(a) The far northern hemisphere\n(b) The North Pole\n(c) The equator\n(d) The far southern hemisphere\n(e) Nowhere\n\n24. What do the two stars Epsilon Eridani and Tau Ceti have in common?\n\n(a) They are both red giants.\n(b) They are members of a double-star system.\n(c) They have both been suggested as possibly having Earthlike planets.\n(d) They are both in the process of formation.\n(e) Nothing; these are the names of constellations, not stars.\n\n25 As seen from a multitude location in the southern hemisphere at around sunset, the first-quarter moon\n\n(a) Would be in the northern sky.\n(b) Would be in the southern sky.\n(c) Would be rising in the east.\n(d) Would be beneath the horizon and therefore not visible.\n(e) Might or might not be visible depending on the season of the year.\n\n26. The Sun\u2019s declination is approximately +90\u00b0 on or around the twenty-first day of\n\n(a) September.\n(b) December.\n(c) March.\n(d) June.\n(e) No month; the Sun never reaches a declination of +90\u00b0.\n\n27. The brightest star in the sky, other than the Sun, is\n\n(a) Procyon.\n(b) Deneb.\n(c) Rigel.\n(d) Sirius.\n(e) Aldebaran.\n\n28. Suppose that we make a scale model of the Earth-Moon system. The Earth\u2019s is represented by a beach ball 1 meter in diameter. The Moon would best be represented as:\n\n(a) A basketball 30 meters away.\n(b) A baseball 5 meters away.\n(c) Another beach ball 100 meters away.\n(d) A marble 3 meters away.\n(e) Another ball, but we need more data to know how big it should be and how far from the beach ball to place it.\n\n29. Azimuth is essentially the same thing as\n\n(a) Celestial longitude.\n(b) Right ascension.\n(c) Compass bearing.\n(d) Elevation.\n(e) Declination.\n\n30. In the southern hemisphere, azimuth 0\u00b0 is sometimes considered to be\n\n(a) east.\n(b) West.\n(c) South.\n(d) At the zenith.\n(e) At the nadir.\n\n31. The Sun\u2019s rotational period, averaged between the poles and the equator, is roughly\n\n(a) The same as the period of the Moon\u2019s orbit around the Earth.\n(b) The same as the Earth\u2019s rotational period.\n(c) One synodic day.\n(d) Synchronized with the tides.\n(e) Synchronized with the equinoxes.\n\n32. At the north celestial pole,\n\n(a) None of the observed constellations are circumpolar.\n(b) The stars all stay above the horizon for 11 hours and 58 minutes a day and stay below the horizon for the other 11 hours and 58 minutes.\n(c) Half the constellations are circumpolar.\n(d) All the observed constellations are circumpolar.\n(e) Polaris is exactly on the northern horizon.\n\n33. Suppose that you are in Calcutta, India, on March 21. For how long is the Sun above the horizon that day, measured with respect to the center of its disk?\n\n(a) Much longer than 12 hours\n(b) A little longer than 12 hours\n(c) Exactly 12 hours\n(d) A little less than 12 hours\n(e) Much less than 12 hours\n\n34. The constellations as we know them today would no longer exist if we were to travel in time\n\n(a) 100 years into the future.\n(b) 200 years into the future.\n(c) 300 years into the future.\n(d) 400 years into the future.\n(e) The constellations would appear the same as seen from all the above time- journey destinations.\n\n35. Magellanic Clouds are\n\n(a) high-altitude weather phenomena visible long after sunset.\n(b) Vast tracts of interstellar dust.\n(c) A part of the Sun\u2019s corona.\n(d) Caused by solar flares.\n(e) None of the above.\n\n36. The Sun derives its energy primarily from\n\n(a) Hydrogen combustion.\n(b) Hydrogen fusion.\n(c) matter-antimatter reactions.\n(d) Nuclear fission.\n(e) Gravitational pressure.\n\n37. From April 1 to July 1, as viewed at 10:00 P.M. from a multitude northern place such as Colorado, the circumpolar constellations appear to rotate\n\n(a) 90 degrees clockwise.\n(b) 90 degrees counterclockwise.\n(c) 180 degrees.\n(d) 0 degrees; they are in the same positions.\n(e) By some amount, but we need more information to quantitatively answer this question.\n\n\n(a) north celestial pole.\n(b) South celestial pole.\n(c) Vernal equinox.\n(d) Celestial equator.\n(e) None of the above.\n\n39. As seen from the Earth\u2019s equator, Polaris is approximately how many angular degrees from the zenith?\n\n(a) 0\u00b0\n(b) 30\u00b0\n(c) 60\u00b0\n(d) 90\u00b0\n(e) There is not enough information given here to answer this.\n\n40. The circumference of the ninetieth parallel in the northern hemisphere is\n\n(a) The same as that of the equator.\n(b) Half that of the equator.\n(c) one-third that of the equator.\n(d) Zero because it is the north geographic pole.\n(e) Impossible to determine without more information.\n\n41. The polar ice caps of Mars consist of\n\n(a) Methane and ammonia ice.\n(b) Frozen nitrogen.\n(c) Frozen water and carbon dioxide.\n(d) White sand exposed by the action of dust storms.\n(e) Clouds in the upper atmosphere.\n\n42. A shepherd moon\n\n(a) Tends to grow in size by accumulating stray meteors and comets.\n(b) acts to keep a planetar}? Ring from spreading out.\n(c) Has several smaller moons orbiting around it.\n(d) Gets its name from the fact that shepherds once used it to keep track of their sheep.\n(e) is another name for a full moon.\n\n43. If an object reflects one-quarter of the light that strikes it, then its albedo is approximately\n\n(a) 25.\n(b) 2.5.\n(c) 0.25.\n(d) 0.40.\n(e) 4.00.\n\n44. The notion that the Earth is a huge, living cell is known as\n\n(a) The geobiological theory.\n(b) The Gaia hypothesis.\n(c) The tidal theory.\n(d) The geogenetic theory.\n(e) Nothing! No one has ever had such an idea.\n\n45. The full phase of an inferior planet takes place at and near\n\n(a) Superior conjunction.\n(b) Inferior conjunction.\n(c) Superior opposition.\n(d) Inferior opposition.\n(e) No time; inferior planets never appear in full phase.\n\n46. The Roche limit of a planet is\n\n(a) The smallest orbital radius a moon can have without being broken up by the parent planet\u2019s gravity.\n(b) The minimum temperature at which oxygen in the atmosphere of a planet can exist in a gaseous state.\n(c) The maximum axial tilt a planet can have in order to be a hospitable place for the evolution of life.\n(d) The smallest radius a planet can have and still manage to hold down an atmosphere.\n(e) The maximum amount of ultraviolet radiation that can reach a planet\u2019s surface without killing the living things on it.\n\n47. Deimos is\n\n(a) One of the moons of Mars.\n(b) One of the volcanoes on Mars.\n(c) The highland region on Venus.\n(d) One of the moons of Venus.\n(e) One of the moons of Mercury.\n\n48. The Sun is closest to Earth during the southern-hemispheric\n\n(a) Spring.\n(b) Summer.\n(c) Fall.\n(d) Winter.\n(e) Irrelevant! The Sun is always the same distance from the Earth.\n\n49. The layer of Earth just beneath the crust is called the\n\n(a) Basaltic layer.\n(b) Ferromagnetic layer.\n(c) Mantle.\n(d) Outer core.\n(e) Volcanic layer.\n\n50. The so-called greenhouse gases\n\n(a) Help heat to escape from a planet.\n(b) Increase ultraviolet radiation reaching a planet\u2019s surface.\n(c) Block ultraviolet radiation.\n(d) Tend to trap heat in a planet\u2019s atmosphere.\n(e) Keep Earth from becoming like Venus.\n\n51. Ozone gas is known for its\n\n(a) tendency to block ultraviolet radiation.\n(b) Environmentally destructive effects.\n(c) Greenhouse properties.\n(d) Role in the ice ages.\n(e) Presence in low-level clouds.\n\n52. The lack of a substantial magnetic field around Mars\n\n(a) Allows the existence of an ionosphere similar to that of Earth.\n(b) Allows an ozone layer to form in the Martian atmosphere.\n(c) Lets high-speed subatomic solar particles reach the surface.\n(d) Is the result of a magnetically polarized iron and nickel core.\n(e) Is the result of intense volcanic activity.\n\n53. Uranus is\n\n(a) About one-quarter the diameter of Earth.\n(b) Slightly smaller than Earth.\n(c) About the same diameter as Earth.\n(d) Slightly larger than Earth.\n(e) About four times the diameter of Earth.\n\n54. On an Earth desert at high altitude, the temperature difference between day and night is considerable because\n\n(a) Sand retains heat well.\n(b) The wind blows hard.\n(c) Sand does not retain heat well.\n(d) There is almost no wind.\n(e) The air is thick.\n\n55. The orbit of Venus is\n\n(a) Retrograde with respect to the orbits of the other planets.\n(b) Nearly a perfect circle.\n(c) slanted at 98 degrees relative to Earth\u2019s orbit.\n(d) An eccentric ellipse.\n(e) in sync with its rotation, so it always keeps the same side facing the Sun.\n\n56. A manned space vessel would not be advised to enter a low orbit around Jupiter because\n\n(a) The temperature is extremely low.\n(b) There is not enough sunlight to navigate.\n(c) The radiation reaches dangerous or deadly levels.\n(d) There is no ozone layer.\n(e) The planet spins rapidly on its axis.\n\n57. Which of the following pairs of planets are both closer to the Sun than Mars?\n\n(a) Mercury and Earth\n(b) Earth and Saturn\n(c) Saturn and Uranus\n(d) Venus and Jupiter\n(e) Earth and Neptune\n\n58. The atmospheric pressure on the surface of Venus\n\n(a) is near zero because Venus has almost no atmosphere.\n(b) is somewhat less than the pressure at the surface of Earth.\n(c) is about the same as the pressure at the surface of Earth.\n(d) is slightly greater than the pressure at the surface of Earth.\n(e) is much greater than the pressure at the surface of Earth.\n\n59. Which of the following pairs of planets are almost exactly the same sizes?\n\n(a) Mercury and Jupiter\n(b) Venus and Mars\n(c) Mars and Jupiter\n(d) Uranus and Neptune\n(e) Neptune and Pluto\n\n60. When Jupiter is at inferior conjunction,\n\n(a) it appears full.\n(b) it appears half full.\n(c) it appears as a crescent.\n(d) it transits the Sun.\n(e) No! Jupiter never attains an inferior conjunction.\n\n61. On a long journey in interplanetary space, artificial gravity might be provided by\n\n(a) Special pressure suits.\n(b) Vigorous daily exercise.\n(c) Rotation of the living quarters in the vessel.\n(d) A massive slab of metal in the back of the ship.\n(e) Nothing; there is no such thing as artificial gravity.\n\n62. The term precession refers to\n\n(a) The distortion of the geomagnetic field by the solar wind.\n(b) The variation of Jupiter\u2019s rotation rate with latitude.\n(c) The wobbling of the Moon so that we see more than half of it over time.\n(d) The wobbling of Earth\u2019s axis over long periods of time.\n(e) The ionization of Earth\u2019s upper atmosphere.\n\n63. A caldera is\n\n(a) A mountain.\n(b) A valley.\n(c) An escarpment.\n(d) A dried-up riverbed.\n(e) A volcanic crater.\n\n64. On the planet Venus, Ishtar is\n\n(a) A highland region.\n(b) A volcano.\n(c) A crater.\n(d) An escarpment.\n(e) Another name for the cloud deck.\n\n65. The layer of Earth\u2019s atmosphere in which weather occurs is known as the\n\n(a) ionosphere.\n(b) Isosphere.\n(c) Troposphere.\n(d) Stratosphere.\n(e) Thermosphere.\n\n66. Since the formation of the Solar System, the interior of Mars is believed to have cooled off faster than the interior of Earth because\n\n(a) Mars is farther from the Sun than is Earth.\n(b) Mars has a thinner atmosphere than does Earth.\n(c) Mars rotates faster than Earth.\n(d) The surface-area-to-volume ratio is larger than that of Earth because Mars itself is smaller.\n(e) No! Mars is believed to have cooled off more slowly than the Earth.\n\n67. The light regions in Jupiter\u2019s atmosphere, as seen through a telescope on Earth or from a great distance away in space, are\n\n(a) Whitecaps on the liquid surface.\n(b) Snow.\n(c) The tops of high clouds.\n(d) Blowing sand.\n(e) Volcanic eruptions.\n\n68. Some scientists think that the Pluto Charon system ought to be classified as\n\n(a) An asteroid.\n(b) A star.\n(c) A double comet.\n(d) A ring system.\n(e) A shepherd moon.\n\n69. Mercury does not often present itself well for observation because\n\n(a) It is extremely small.\n(b) It is extremely dense.\n(c) It is close to the Sun.\n(d) It is far from the Sun.\n(e) It always shows us its dark side.\n\n70. The temperature on the dark side of Mars\n\n(a) Is below 0\u00b0C.\n(b) Is about the same as the temperature on the daylight side.\n(c) Is a comfortable room temperature.\n(d) is hot enough to melt lead.\n(e) is near absolute zero.\n\n71. Jupiter\u2019s Great Red Spot is\n\n(a) A volcano.\n(b) A mountaintop.\n(c) An escarpment.\n(d) A crater.\n(e) A weather system.\n\n72. The upper clouds of Venus rush around the planet, completing one revolution in approximately\n\n(a) One Venus day.\n(b) One Venus year.\n(c) 24 Earth hours.\n(d) Four Earth days.\n(e) No! Venus has no clouds.\n\n73. Saturn\u2019s brightness, as we see it from Earth, is affected by\n\n(a) The angle at which Saturn\u2019s rings are presented to us.\n(b) The distance of Saturn from the Sun.\n(c) The tilt of Saturn on its axis.\n(d) The temperature on Saturn\u2019s surface.\n(e) The distance of Earth from the Sun.\n\n74. The most abundant gas in Earth\u2019s atmosphere is\n\n(a) Oxygen.\n(b) Hydrogen.\n(c) Helium.\n(d) Carbon dioxide.\n(e) Nitrogen.\n\n75. An escarpment is\n\n(a) A crater.\n(b) A volcano.\n(c) A tiny planetary Moon.\n(d) A moon that has escaped from a planet.\n(e) A cliff.\n\n76. The butterfly effect is another name for the fact that\n\n(a) Minor events always have small consequences.\n(b) Major events always have large consequences.\n(c) Minor events never have any consequences.\n(d) Seemingly insignificant events can have large consequences.\n(e) Life cannot exist on Mars.\n\n77. When Mars is at an ideal opposition,\n\n(a) It is closer to Earth than at any other time.\n(b) It is farther from Earth than at any other time.\n(c) It is brighter than Venus.\n(d) It is invisible because the light of the Sun washes it out.\n(e) It appears in a crescent phase.\n\n78. The most abundant gas in the atmosphere of Mars is\n\n(a) Oxygen.\n(b) Nitrogen.\n(c) Methane.\n(d) Carbon dioxide.\n(e) Carbon monoxide.\n\n79. Which of the following planets has not been observed to have rings?\n\n(a) Mars\n(b) Jupiter\n(c) Saturn\n(d) Uranus\n(e) Neptune\n\n80. Mercury is believed to have a core consisting of\n\n(a) Granite.\n(b) Water.\n(c) Solid metallic hydrogen.\n(d) Molten silicate rock.\n(e) Iron.\n\n81. The term epicycle refers to\n\n(a) The motion of a planet with respect to the stars.\n(b) The variation in the Moon\u2019s orientation with respect to Earth.\n(c) The speed of a planet\u2019s revolution around the Sun.\n(d) The wobbling of Earth on its axis.\n(e) A component of a planetary orbit according to Ptolemy.\n\n82. Which of the following planet has the most known moons?\n\n(a) Mercury\n(b) Mars\n(c) Saturn\n(d) Uranus\n(e) Pluto\n\n83. An accretion disk is\n\n(a) A ring around a planet such as Saturn.\n(b) A region around a planet in which orbits are stable.\n(c) The plane of the orbits of the planets around a star.\n(d) A rotating, flat cloud of matter from which planets form around a star.\n(e) a computer disk used for storing position data for celestial objects.\n\n84. Fill in the blank in the following sentence. The names of meteor showers derive from the positions of the ____________ in the sky, which tend to be the same, year after year, for any given meteor shower.\n\n(a) Escarpments\n(b) Originating comets\n(c) Originating asteroids\n(d) Radiants\n(e) Focal points\n\n85. Fill in the blank in the following sentence. The theory of __________, given sufficient time to operate, results in the evolution of life forms that are better and better suited to the particular environment in which they live.\n\n(a) Natural selection\n(b) Biological entropy\n(c) Conservation of energy\n(d) Thomas Malthus\n(e) Planetary evolution\n\n86. According to the geocentric theory\n\n(a) The Earth revolves around the Sun.\n(b) The Sun revolves around the Earth.\n(c) The Moon revolves around the Sun.\n(d) The distant stars are reflections of Earth.\n(e) Everything is sitting still in the Universe.\n\n87. A laser can be used in long-distance space communication when it is necessary to\n\n(a) Direct the energy in a narrow beam.\n(b) Use as wide a frequency range as possible.\n(c) Spread the radio waves over a wide angle.\n(d) Generate large amounts of intergalactic noise.\n(e) Slow down the rate of data transmission.\n\n88. Entropy has a tendency to\n\n(a) Turn chaos into order.\n(b) Equalize temperatures.\n(c) Create life.\n(d) Make stars shine.\n(e) Make planets form from cosmic dust.\n\n89. Thomas Malthus is known for his theory that\n\n(a) The human population increases geometrically, but the food supply increases arithmetically at best.\n(b) The human population increases arithmetically, but the food supply increases geometrically at best.\n(c) Both the human population and the food supply increase geometrically.\n(d) War ultimately will bring about the destruction of any technologically advanced civilization.\n(e) A desire to travel among the stars is a characteristic of any intelligent species.\n\n90. The Pluto-Charon system is unique in the sense that\n\n(a) The planet and the moon always keep the same faces toward each other.\n(b) The planet and the moon are the same size.\n(c) The moon is larger than the planet.\n(d) Both objects are believed to have once been moons of Neptune.\n(e) They are much warmer than the other outer planets or their moons.\n\n91. A comet might bum out because\n\n(a) It falls into the Sun.\n(b) A solar flare hastens the disintegration of its nucleus.\n(c) It is struck by a small asteroid, which shatters its nucleus.\n(d) Either a, b, or c take place.\n(e) No! Comets never burn out.\n\n92. Attempts to determine the number of advanced civilizations in the Milky Way galaxy have been carried out mathematically using\n\n(a) Radio waves.\n(b) Star charts.\n(c) Optical telescopes.\n(d) The Green Bank formula.\n(e) The Malthusian formula.\n\n93. The planet Venus has a retrograde orbit around the Sun\n\n(a) Because it was knocked out of alignment long ago by a collision with a protoplanet almost as large as itself.\n(b) Because it is influenced by the gravitational fields of Earth and Mercury.\n(c) Because it is tilted on its axis by almost 180 degrees.\n(d) Because it was originally from outside the Solar System and was captured by the Sun\u2019s gravity after all the other planets were formed.\n(e) No! The planet Venus does not revolve around the Sun in a retrograde manner, but in the same sense as all the other planets.\n\n94. So-called minor collisions, small asteroids striking planets, have been suggested as a catalyst for\n\n(a) Wiping out all life.\n(b) The evolution of intelligent life.\n(c) Creating dinosaurs.\n(d) Adding oxygen to the atmosphere.\n(e) Creating oceans.\n\n95. The Milky Way galaxy contains about\n\n(a) 20,000 stars.\n(b) 200,000 stars.\n(c) 2 million stars.\n(d) 20 million stars.\n(e) None of the above\n\n96. Copernicus was one of the earliest astronomers to hypothesize that\n\n(a) Earth revolves around the Sun.\n(b) The stars revolve around the Sun.\n(c) Epicycles exist within other epicycles.\n(d) The planets are more distant than the stars.\n(e) The Milky Way is not the only galaxy in the Universe.\n\n97. Planetary moons almost always have rotation periods that correspond to their orbital revolution periods\n\n(a) Because of tidal effects between the moon and the parent planet.\n(b) Because the moons orbit in the plane of the parent planet\u2019s equator.\n(c) Because the moons were captured from interplanetary space by the parent planet\u2019s gravity.\n(d) Because the moons are perfect spheres.\n(e) No! Planetary moons almost never have rotation periods that correspond to their orbital revolution periods.\n\n98. When we say a celestial body has a low albedo, we mean to say that it is\n\n(a) Relatively low in density.\n(b) Relatively low in specific gravity.\n(c) Nonspherical in shape.\n(d) Relatively dark in appearance.\n(e) not a good place for life to evolve.\n\n99. When a planet or moon that has many craters is viewed from a distance, some craters have bright lines that run outward from the center. Such lines are called\n\n(a) subcraters.\n(b) Crateroids.\n(c) Escarpments.\n(d) Rift valleys.\n(e) Rays.\n\n100. The age of the Solar System is believed by most scientists to be approximately\n\n(a) 4.6 million years.\n(b) 4.6 billion years.\n(c) 10 billion years.\n(d) 200 billion years.\n(e) 4.6 trillion years.\n\nCorrect Answers \u2013\n\n 1. A\n 2. A\n 3. E\n 4. C\n 5. A\n 6. A\n 7. A\n 8. A\n 9. A\n 10. C\n 11. E\n 12. D\n 13. B\n 14. C\n 15. A\n 16. E\n 17. B\n 18. C\n 19. D\n 20. B\n 21. D\n 22. E\n 23. E\n 24. C\n 25. A\n 26. E\n 27. D\n 28. A\n 29. C\n 30. C\n 31. A\n 32. D\n 33. C\n 34. E\n 35. E\n 36. B\n 37. B\n 38. E\n 39. D\n 40. D\n 41. C\n 42. B\n 43. C\n 44. B\n 45. A\n 46. A\n 47. A\n 48. B\n 49. C\n 50. D\n 51. A\n 52. C\n 53. E\n 54. C\n 55. B\n 56. C\n 57. A\n 58. E\n 59. D\n 60. E\n 61. C\n 62. D\n 63. E\n 64. A\n 65. C\n 66. D\n 67. C\n 68. C\n 69. C\n 70. A\n 71. E\n 72. D\n 73. A\n 74. E\n 75. E\n 76. D\n 77. A\n 78. D\n 79. A\n 80. E\n 81. E\n 82. C\n 83. D\n 84. D\n 85. A\n 86. B\n 87. A\n 88. B\n 89. A\n 90. A\n 91. D\n 92. D\n 93. E\n 94. B\n 95. E\n 96. A\n 97. A\n 98. D\n 99. E\n 100. B\n\nRelated Articles:\n\nLeave a Reply |
__label__positive HideShow resource information\n\nGlobular proteins\n\nAll enzymes are globular proteins (water soluble), act as catalysts, are specific, have an active site and their activity is affected by temperature and pH.\n\nThe active site of an enyme is where the catalytic activity of the enzyme occurs. It has a very specific, individual active site shape maintained by the tertiary structure. Often fewer than 10 amino acids form the actual active site, while the enyme consists of 100's.\n\nThey are often referred to as biological catalysts. A catalyst is defined as a molecule that speeds up a chemical reaction but doesn't get used up. Industries have started using enzymes. Metabolism can be described as enzyme-driven.\n\nThe substrate is turned into a product.\n\nExtracellular enzymes catalyse reactions outside the cell. Intracellular enzymes catalyse reactions inside the cell.\n\n1 of 9\n\nCommon enzymes\n\nLactase - Catalyses the breakdown of lactose (milk sugar) into glucose and galactose\n\nCatalase - Catalyses the breakdown of hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen gas\n\nRibulose biphosphate carboxylase (Rubisco) - Catalyses the binding of carbon dioxide to ribulose biphosphate\n\nATP-ase - Catalyses the breakdown of ATP to produce ADP and a phosphate group\n\nGlycogen synthase - Catalyses the joining together of glucose molecules to form glycogen\n\n2 of 9\n\nEnzyme action\n\nCovalently bonded molecules are very stable. The activation energy is the amount of energy that must be applied for the reaction to proceed.\n\nEnzymes drive metabolic reactions by lowering the activation energy needed. They are essential as otherwise reactions would be far too slow. The lock and key hypothesis is that the substrate is the key and the enzyme is the lock. Once they are in place then the reaction will proceed.\n\nA new hypothesis is the induced-fit hypothesis. This is that when a substrate molecule collides with an enyme then the active site shape changes slightly by fitting more closely around the substrate. Oppositely charged groups on the substrate and active site are close to each other to hold the substrate in place. This forms an enyme-substrate complex. This puts a strain on the substrate making it easier to destabilise it. The products formed are a different shape and so can move out of the enzyme, leaving it free to catalyse the same reaction with a new substrate.\n\n3 of 9\n\nTemperature, pH and concentration\n\nIncreasing temperature increases the kinetic energy the molecules have. There are more frequent collisions and this increases the rate of reaction.\u00a0However, the vibrations in the enzyme can break the weaker bonds holding together the tertiary structure which can unravel and the active site can be lost, so the enzyme stops working. This is irreversible and is known as denaturation\n\nThe lower the pH, the more hydrogen ions there are. These can interfere with hydrogen bonds and ionic bonds in the tertiary structure. The hydrogen ions can replace the hydrogen bonds by being attracted to the negative charges in the enzyme. This could also alter the charges in the active site which hold the substrate in place. At the optimum pH, the protons would give the active site it's best overall shape.\n\nIncreasing the concentration of enzymes means that more enzyme-substrate complexes can form and so rate of reaction increases. However the substrate concentration become a limiting factor. Increasing the concentration of substrates also has the same effect until the number of enzmes become a limiting factor.\n\n4 of 9\n\n\n\nCompetitive inhibitors have a similar shape to that of the substrate. They compete with the substrate molecules for a place in the active site. This reduces the rate of reaction as less enzyme-substrate complexes are formed. Increasing the substrate concentration will dilute the effect of a competitive inhibitor and increase the rate of reaction. It is usually reversible.\n\nNon-competitive inhibitors attach to part of the enzyme far away from the active site. They distort the tertiary structure and so the shape of the active site so the substrate no longer fits in. Increasing the substrate concentration will have no effect. This is usually irreversible but not always.\n\n5 of 9\n\n\nA cofactor is any substance that must be present in order for an enzyme-controlled reactions to take place at the appropriate rate.\n\nA coenzyme is a small, organic, non-protein molecule that binds to the active site for a short period of time. It takes part in the reaction but is then recycled. Often it carries chemical groups between enzymes in enzyme-controlled reactions that are part of a sequence. An example is when nicotinamide makes a cofactor that is essential for pyruvate dehydrogenase to work.\n\nA prosthetic group is a permanent coenzyme that contributes to the final 3D shape and the overall charge. An example is the zinc-based prosthetic group in carbonic anhydrase.\n\nAn inorganic ion cofactor is when the presence of a certain ion increases the rate of reaction. This can be by binding to either the enzyme or the substrate and making the enzyme-substrate complex easier to form. An example is chloride ions and amylase.\n\n6 of 9\n\nPoisons and drugs\n\nA poison can be because it inhibits or overactivates an enzyme. An example is potassium cyanide which is a non-competitive inhibitor for cytochrome oxidase which is used in respiration.\u00a0\n\nSnake venom also contains an inhibitor of acetylcholinesterase which is involved in nerve transmission, causing paralyis.\n\nEthylene glycol (used in car antifreeze) when digested can be broken down by alcohol dehydrogenase into oxalic acid which is toxic. To treat this, fomepizole can be used which inhibits the action of the enzyme.\n\nIn cystic fibrosis, a symptom is that digestive enzyme passage is blocked. An enzyme covered in acid-resistant coat cant be prescribed,\n\nInfections by viruses can be treated by inhibitors of the enzyme protease to stop viruses from replicating.\n\n7 of 9\n\n\nHow and why different variables are kept constant:\n\n \u2022 Temperature can be kept constant by using a water bath. This is because fluctuations in temperature can affect enzyme-controlled reactions.\n \u2022 Enzyme concentration can be in an accurately measured solution. This is because reaction rate depends on concentration of enzyme molecules. In live tissues you must assume that all pieces of tissue contain the same amount of enzymes so you measure the mass.\n \u2022 Substrate concentration can be in an accurately measure volume. This also affects the rate of the reaction.\n \u2022 pH value can be maintained by using buffer solutions to keep H+ concentration constant.This is because the pH has an effect on the shape of the active site.\n8 of 9\n\n\nThe turnover number of an enzyme molecule is how many reactions it can catalyse in one second.\n\nUncontrolled enzymes are dangerous. An example is in multiple sclerosis when there is uncontrolled synthesis of enzymes that are set against nerve cells.\n\nIn metabolic processes, the product of an enzyme-controlled reaction is usually the substrate for the next enyme-controlled reaction in the sequence. This is called a metabolic pathway. The end product is often a non-competitive inhibitor for an enzyme earlier on to prevent excess products.\n\nA vital enzyme is ATP-synthase. It makes ATP from ADP and an inorganic phosphate group.\n\nAn inborn error of metabolism is when an enzyme is mutated due to incorrect instructions. An example is phenylketonuria. The enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase doesn't function correctly to break down phenylalanine. This forms phenylpyruvic acid which can cause irreversible damage to developing brain tissue.\n\n9 of 9\n\n\nNo comments have yet been made\n\nSimilar Biology resources:\n |
__label__positive This is \u201cMetallurgy\u201d, section 23.3 from the book Principles of General Chemistry (v. 1.0M). For details on it (including licensing), click here.\n\n\nHas this book helped you? Consider passing it on:\n\n23.3 Metallurgy\n\nLearning Objective\n\n 1. To understand how metals are extracted from their ores.\n\nVery few of the transition metals are found in nature as free metals. Consequently, almost all metallic elements must be isolated from metal oxide or metal sulfide ores. MetallurgyA set of processes by which metals are extracted from their ores and converted to more useful forms. is the set of processes by which metals are extracted from their ores and converted to more useful forms.\n\nMetallurgy consists of three general steps: (1) mining the ore, (2) separating and concentrating the metal or the metal-containing compound, and (3) reducing the ore to the metal. Additional processes are sometimes required to improve the mechanical properties of the metal or increase its purity. Many ores contain relatively low concentrations of the desired metal; for example, copper ores that contain even 1% Cu by mass are considered commercially useful.\n\nAfter an ore has been mined, the first step in processing is usually to crush it because the rate of chemical reactions increases dramatically with increased surface area. Next, one of three general strategies is used to separate and concentrate the compound(s) of interest: settling and flotation, which are based on differences in density between the desired compound and impurities; pyrometallurgy, which uses chemical reduction at high temperatures; and hydrometallurgy, which employs chemical or electrochemical reduction of an aqueous solution of the metal. Other methods that take advantage of unusual physical or chemical properties of a particular compound may also be used. For example, crystals of magnetite (Fe3O4) are tiny but rather powerful magnets; in fact, magnetite (also known as lodestone) was used to make the first compasses in China during the first century BC. If a crushed ore that contains magnetite is passed through a powerful magnet, the Fe3O4 particles are attracted to the poles of the magnet, allowing them to be easily separated from other minerals.\n\nNote the Pattern\n\nMetallurgy depends on the separation of a metal compound from its ore and reduction to the metal at high temperature (pyrometallurgy) or in aqueous solution (hydrometallurgy).\n\nSettling and flotation have been used for thousands of years to separate particles of dense metals such as gold, using the technique known as panning, in which a sample of gravel or sand is swirled in water in a shallow metal pan. Because the density of gold (19.3 g/cm3) is so much greater than that of most silicate minerals (about 2.5 g/cm3), silicate particles settle more slowly and can be poured off with the water, leaving dense gold particles on the bottom of the pan. Conversely, in flotation, the compound of interest is made to float on top of a solution. Blowing air through a suspension of the crude ore in a mixture of water and an organic liquid, such as pine tar, produces a \u201cfroth\u201d that contains tiny particles of hydrophobic solids, such as metal sulfides, while more hydrophilic oxide minerals remain suspended in the aqueous phase (Figure 23.6 \"Froth Flotation\"). To make the separation more efficient, small amounts of an anionic sulfur-containing compound, such as Na+C2H5OCS2, are added; the additive binds to the sulfur-rich surface of the metal sulfide particles and makes the metal sulfide particles even more hydrophobic. The resulting froth is highly enriched in the desired metal sulfide(s), which can be removed simply by skimming. This method works even for compounds as dense as PbS (7.5 g/cm3).\n\nFigure 23.6 Froth Flotation\n\n(a) When air is blown through a mixture of a finely ground metal sulfide ore and water, the more hydrophobic metal sulfides form a froth that can be easily removed, allowing them to be separated from more hydrophilic metal oxides and silicates. (b) A froth containing precious metal sulfides is formed as a by-product during the production of metallic nickel. (c) An anionic sulfur additive with hydrophobic \u201ctails\u201d can be used to enhance the hydrophobic character of metal sulfide particles, which causes them to be attracted to the air/water interface in the foam.\n\n\nIn pyrometallurgy, an ore is heated with a reductant to obtain the metal. Theoretically, it should be possible to obtain virtually any metal from its ore by using coke, an inexpensive form of crude carbon, as the reductant. An example of such a reaction is as follows:\n\nEquation 23.4\n\nCaO(s)\u00a0 + \u00a0C(s) \u0394 Ca(l)\u00a0 + \u00a0CO(g)\n\nUnfortunately, many of the early transition metals, such as Ti, react with carbon to form stable binary carbides. Consequently, more expensive reductants, such as hydrogen, aluminum, magnesium, or calcium, must be used to obtain these metals. Many metals that occur naturally as sulfides can be obtained by heating the sulfide in air, as shown for lead in the following equation:\n\nEquation 23.5\n\nPbS(s)\u00a0 + \u00a0O 2 (g) \u0394 Pb(l)\u00a0 + \u00a0SO 2 (g)\n\nThe reaction is driven to completion by the formation of SO2, a stable gas.\n\nPyrometallurgy is also used in the iron and steel industries. The overall reaction for the production of iron in a blast furnace is as follows:\n\nEquation 23.6\n\nFe 2 O 3 (s)\u00a0 + 3 C(s) \u0394 2Fe(l)\u00a0 + 3 CO(g)\n\nThe actual reductant is CO, which reduces Fe2O3 to give Fe(l) and CO2(g); the CO2 is then reduced back to CO by reaction with excess carbon. As the ore, lime, and coke drop into the furnace (Figure 23.7 \"A Blast Furnace for Converting Iron Oxides to Iron Metal\"), any silicate minerals in the ore react with the lime to produce a low-melting mixture of calcium silicates called slag, which floats on top of the molten iron. Molten iron is then allowed to run out the bottom of the furnace, leaving the slag behind. Originally, the iron was collected in pools called pigs, which is the origin of the name pig iron.\n\nFigure 23.7 A Blast Furnace for Converting Iron Oxides to Iron Metal\n\n(a) The furnace is charged with alternating layers of iron ore (largely Fe2O3) and a mixture of coke (C) and limestone (CaCO3). Blasting hot air into the mixture from the bottom causes it to ignite, producing CO and raising the temperature of the lower part of the blast furnace to about 2000\u00b0C. As the CO that is formed initially rises, it reduces Fe2O3 to form CO2 and elemental iron, which absorbs heat and melts as it falls into the hottest part of the furnace. Decomposition of CaCO3 at high temperatures produces CaO (lime) and additional CO2, which reacts with excess coke to form more CO. (b) This blast furnace in Magnitogorsk, Russia, was the largest in the world when it was built in 1931.\n\nIron that is obtained directly from a blast furnace has an undesirably low melting point (about 1100\u00b0C instead of 1539\u00b0C) because it contains a large amount of dissolved carbon. It contains other impurities (such as Si, S, P, and Mn from contaminants in the iron ore that were also reduced during processing) that must be removed because they make iron brittle and unsuitable for most structural applications. In the Bessemer process, oxygen is blown through the molten pig iron to remove the impurities by selective oxidation because these impurities are more readily oxidized than iron (Figure 23.8 \"A Basic Oxygen Furnace for Converting Crude Iron to Steel\"). In the final stage of this process, small amounts of other metals are added at specific temperatures to produce steel with the desired combination of properties.\n\nFigure 23.8 A Basic Oxygen Furnace for Converting Crude Iron to Steel\n\n(a) A blast of oxygen is used to agitate the molten iron and oxidize impurities to products that dissolve in the less dense slag layer. The slag and the molten steel are removed by tilting the entire furnace and pouring the liquids out through the taphole. (b) A basic oxygen furnace is being filled with molten iron from a blast furnace.\n\n\nThe most selective methods for separating metals from their ores are based on the formation of metal complexes. For example, gold is often found as tiny flakes of the metal, usually in association with quartz or pyrite deposits. In those circumstances, gold is typically extracted by using cyanide leaching, which forms a stable gold\u2013cyanide complex\u2014[Au(CN)2]:\n\nEquation 23.7\n\n4Au(s)\u00a0+\u00a08NaCN(aq)\u00a0+\u00a0O2(g)\u00a0+\u00a02H2O(l) \u2192 4Na[Au(CN)2](aq)\u00a0+\u00a04NaOH(aq)\n\nVirtually pure gold can be obtained by adding powdered zinc to the solution:\n\nEquation 23.8\n\nZn(s)\u00a0+\u00a02[Au(CN)2](aq) \u2192 [Zn(CN)4]2\u2212(aq)\u00a0+\u00a02Au(s)\n\nA related method, which is used to separate Co3+, Ni2+, and Cu+ from Fe, Mn, and Ti, is based on the formation of stable, soluble ammonia complexes of ions of the late transition metals.\n\nExample 3\n\nSuppose you are working in the chemistry laboratory of a mining company that has discovered a new source of tungsten ore containing about 5% WS2 in a granite matrix (granite is a complex aluminosilicate mineral). You have been asked to outline an economical procedure for isolating WS2 from the ore and then converting it to elemental tungsten in as few steps as possible. What would you recommend?\n\nGiven: composition of ore\n\nAsked for: procedure to isolate metal sulfide\n\n\nDetermine which method would be most effective for separating the metal sulfide from the ore. Then determine the best method for reducing the metal to the pure element.\n\n\nYou need to separate and concentrate the WS2, convert it to a suitable form so it can be reduced to the metal (if necessary), and then carry out the reduction. Because the new ore is a binary metal sulfide, you could take advantage of the hydrophilic nature of most metal sulfides to separate WS2 by froth flotation. Then, because most metal sulfides cannot be reduced directly to the metal using carbon, you will probably need to convert WS2 to an oxide for subsequent reduction. One point to consider is whether the oxide can be reduced using carbon because many transition metals react with carbon to form stable carbides. Here is one possible procedure for producing tungsten from this new ore:\n\n 1. Grind the ore and separate WS2 from the silicate matrix by flotation.\n 2. Convert the crude WS2 to an oxide by roasting in air (because W is in group 6, you anticipate that roasting will yield WO3, the oxide in the highest possible oxidation state). The reaction will also produce SO2, which will have to be removed by scrubbing the exhaust gases to minimize environmental pollution.\n 3. Reduce the oxide with hydrogen gas at high temperature to avoid carbide formation:\n\n WO 3 (s)\u00a0 + 3 H 2 (g) \u0394 W(s)\u00a0 + 3 H 2 O(g)\n\n\nPropose an economical procedure for converting a silicate mineral deposit containing BaCO3 to the pure Ba metal.\n\n\n 1. Dissolve the sample containing barium carbonate in HCl(aq) to give Ba2+(aq), which will allow the insoluble silicate minerals to be removed by filtration.\n 2. Precipitate the barium from solution as BaCO3 by adding solid Na2CO3.\n 3. Dissolve the solid BaCO3 in concentrated HCl and remove the water by evaporation to obtain anhydrous BaCl2.\n 4. Reduce molten BaCl2 to the metal by electrolysis.\n\n\nThe conversion of metals from their ores to more useful forms is called metallurgy, which consists of three general steps: mining, separation and concentration, and reduction. Settling and flotation are separation methods based on differences in density, whereas pyrometallurgy is based on a chemical reduction at elevated temperatures, and hydrometallurgy uses chemical or electrochemical reduction of an aqueous solution. In pyrometallurgy, a reductant must be used that does not form stable compounds with the metal of interest. In hydrometallurgy, metals are separated via the formation of metal complexes.\n\nKey Takeaway\n\n \u2022 A metal is separated from its ore and then isolated by using pyrometallurgy or hydrometallurgy or by taking advantage of unusual chemical or physical properties of a particular compound.\n\nConceptual Problems\n\n 1. Coke is a plentiful and inexpensive reductant that is used to isolate metals from their ores. Of Cr, Co, W, Cu, Ni, Os, Fe, Mn, La, and Hf, which cannot be isolated using this reductant? Why?\n\n 2. Hydrometallurgy is the preferred method for separating late transition metals from their ores. What types of ligands are most effective in this process?\n\n\n 1. Coke cannot be used as a reductant for metals that form stable carbides, such as the early transition metals (La, Hf, and W).\n\nStructure and Reactivity\n\n 1. Tantalum and niobium are frequently found together in ores. These elements can be separated from other metals present by treatment with a solution of HF. Explain why this is an effective separation technique.\n\n 2. A commercially important ore of chromium is chromite (FeCr2O4), which is an analogue of magnetite (Fe3O4). Based on what you know about the oxidation states of iron in magnetite, predict the oxidation states of the metal ions in chromite.\n\n 3. Pure vanadium is obtained by reducing VCl4 with H2 or Mg or by reducing V2O5 with Ca. Write a balanced chemical equation for each reaction. Why is carbon not used for the reduction?\n\n 4. Manganese is an important additive in steel because of its reactivity with oxygen and sulfur, both of which contribute to brittleness. Predict the products of reacting Mn with these species.\n\n 5. The diagram of a blast furnace in Figure 23.7 \"A Blast Furnace for Converting Iron Oxides to Iron Metal\" illustrates several important features of the reduction of Fe2O3 to iron. Write a balanced chemical equation for each step of the process described in the figure and give the overall equation for the conversion. Oxygen is blown through the final product to remove impurities. Why does this step not simply reverse the process and produce iron oxides?\n\n 6. Metallic Zr is produced by the Kroll method, which uses Na as the reductant. Write a balanced chemical equation for each reaction involved in this process. The product is frequently contaminated with Hf. Propose a feasible method for separating the two elements.\n\n 7. The compound Cr2O3 is important commercially; among other things, it is used as a pigment in paint and as a catalyst for the manufacture of butadiene. Write a balanced chemical equation to show how you would produce this compound from\n\n 1. chromium metal.\n 2. ammonium dichromate.\n 3. CrCl3 in a basic solution.\n\n\n\n VCl 4 (l)\u00a0 + 2 H 2 (g) \u0394 V(s)\u00a0 + 4 HCl(g) VCl 4 (l)\u00a0 + 2 Mg(s) \u0394 V(s)\u00a0 + 2 MgCl 2 (g) V 2 O 5 (s)\u00a0 + 5 Ca(s) \u0394 2 V(s)\u00a0 + 5 CaO(s)\n\n Carbon cannot be used as a reductant because vanadium forms stable carbides, such as VC and VC2. |
__label__positive \nSkip Navigation\n\nMitosis and Cytokinesis\n\nDescribes the structure of chromosomes and the division of the nucleus.\n\nAtoms Practice\nEstimated5 minsto complete\nPractice Mitosis and Cytokinesis\nEstimated5 minsto complete\nPractice Now\nMitosis and Cytokinesis\n\nHow is your DNA organized?\n\nYour DNA is organized into chromosomes, the pink structures pictured above. Your DNA doesn't always look so pretty, though. It only winds tightly into chromosomes when the cell is getting ready to divide. If your DNA wasn't organized into chromosomes, your DNA would look like a mass of strings and would be difficult to divide up!\n\nMitosis and Chromosomes\n\nThe genetic information of the cell, or DNA, is stored in the nucleus. During mitosis, two nuclei (plural for nucleus) must form, so that one nucleus can be in each of the new cells after the cell divides. In order to create two genetically identical nuclei, DNA inside of the nucleus must be copied or replicated. This occurs during the S phase of the cell cycle. During mitosis, the copied DNA is divided into two complete sets, so that after cytokinesis, each cell has a complete set of genetic instructions.\n\n\nTo begin mitosis, the DNA in the nucleus wraps around proteins to form chromosomes. Each organism has a unique number of chromosomes. In human cells, our DNA is divided up into 23 pairs of chromosomes. Replicated DNA forms a chromosome made from two identical sister chromatids, forming an \"X\" shaped molecule (Figure below). The two chromatids are held together on the chromosome by the centromere. The centromere is also where spindle fiber microtubules attach during mitosis. The spindle fibers\u00a0separate sister chromatids from each other.\n\nThe DNA double helix wraps around proteins (2) and tightly coils a number of times to form a chromosome (5). This figure shows the complexity of the coiling process. The red dot shows the location of the centromere, which holds the sister chromatids together and is where the spindle microtubules attach during mitosis and meiosis.\n\nFour Phases of Mitosis\n\nDuring mitosis, the two sister chromatids must be divided. This is a precise process that has four individual phases to it. After the sister chromatids separate, each separate chromatid is now known as a chromosome. Each resulting chromosome is made of DNA from just one chromatid. So: each chromosome after this separation is made of \"1/2 of the X.\" Through this process, each daughter cell receives one copy of each chromosome. The four phases of mitosis are prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase (Figure below).\n\n 1. Prophase: The chromosomes \"condense,\" or become so tightly wound that you can see them under a microscope. The membrane around the nucleus, called the nuclear envelope, disappears. Spindles also form and attach to chromosomes to help them move.\n 2. Metaphase: The chromosomes line up in the center, or the equator, of the cell. The chromosomes line up in a row, one on top of the next.\n 3. Anaphase: The two sister chromatids of each chromosome separate as the spindles pull the chromatids apart, resulting in two sets of identical chromosomes.\n 4. Telophase: The spindle dissolves and nuclear envelopes form around the chromosomes in both cells.\n\nAn overview of the cell cycle and mitosis: during prophase the chromosomes condense, during metaphase the chromosomes line up, during anaphase the sister chromatids are pulled to opposite sides of the cell, and during telophase the nuclear envelope forms.\n\nAfter telophase, each new nucleus contains the exact same number and type of chromosomes as the original cell. The cell is now ready for cytokinesis, which literally means \"cell movement.\" During cytokinesis, the cytoplasm divides and the parent cell separates, producing two genetically identical cells, each with its own nucleus. A new cell membrane forms.\u00a0 In animal cells, a cleavage furrow is created that pinches into two daughter cells.\u00a0 In plant cells, a cell wall forms as well. Below is a representation of dividing plant cells (Figure below).\n\nThis is a representation of dividing plant cells. Cell division in plant cells differs slightly from animal cells as a cell wall must form. Note that most of the cells are in interphase. Can you find examples of the different stages of mitosis?\n\n\n \u2022 anaphase: Third phase of mitosis in which sister chromatids separate and move to opposite sides of the cell.\n \u2022 centromere: Region of a chromosome where sister chromatids are joined together.\n \u2022 cytokinesis: Division of the cytoplasm.\n \u2022 metaphase: Second phase of mitosis in which the chromosomes are aligned in the center of the cell.\n \u2022 mitosis: Division of the nucleus.\n \u2022 nucleus: Eukaryotic cell structure that contains the genetic material, DNA.\n \u2022 prophase: Initial phase of mitosis in which chromosomes condense, the nuclear envelope dissolves and the spindle begins to form.\n \u2022 sister chromatids: Two identical copies of a chromosome.\n \u2022 spindle fibers: Structure that helps separate the sister chromatids during mitosis.\n \u2022 telophase: Final phase of mitosis in which a nuclear envelop forms around each of the two sets of chromosomes.\n\n\n \u2022 The DNA in the nucleus wraps around proteins to form chromosomes.\n \u2022 During mitosis, the newly duplicated chromosomes are divided into two daughter nuclei.\n\n\nUse the resource below to answer the questions that follow.\n\n 1. When does the \"classic\" chromosome structure of DNA appear during mitosis? What form is the DNA in prior to this change?\n 2. What problems do you think might arise if the chromosomes did not align during metaphase?\n 3. When do the nuclear envelopes reform? What problems might arise if a cell started forming the nuclear envelopes earlier?\n 4. In what stage do cells spend most of their \"life\"?\n 5. How long does mitosis take in the typical eukaryotic cell?\n\n\n 1. What are chromosomes?\n 2. In what phase of mitosis are chromosomes moving toward opposite sides of the cell?\n 3. Is cytokinesis a stage of mitosis?\n\nImage Attributions\n\nExplore More\n\nSign in to explore more, including practice questions and solutions for Mitosis and Cytokinesis.\n\n\nPlease wait...\nPlease wait...\n\nOriginal text |