Datasets:

llamafactory

/

PubMedQA

like 1

Follow

LLaMA Factory 24

Answer the question based on the following context: The aim of the study was to elaborate a predictive model for the duration of chemotherapy-induced neutropenia (CIN) allowing the identification of patients with a higher risk of complications, especially complicated febrile neutropenia, who might benefit from preventive measures. A score ranging from 0 to 4 on the basis of expected CIN was attributed to each cytotoxic agent given as part of chemotherapy treatment in solid tumours for patients with febrile neutropenia (FN). The individual scores were combined into several overall scores. A total of 203 patients with FN were eligible for this retrospective analysis. We were able to identify two groups of patients with statistically different neutropenia durations with median durations until hematological recovery of ANC>or =0.5 and>or =1.0 x 10(9)/l, being respectively 6 versus 4 days (P = 0.03) and 8 versus 6 days (P = 0.01).

Question: Can we predict the duration of chemotherapy-induced neutropenia in febrile neutropenic patients, focusing on regimen-specific risk factors?

The duration of neutropenia is directly influenced by the aggressiveness of the chemotherapy regimen. In this retrospective study, we were able to identify a group of patients who needed two more additional days to recover from grade 3 and grade 4 neutropenia, based on the degree of aggressiveness of the cytotoxic agents used.

Answer the question based on the following context: Studies about the association between birth weight and circulating cortisol level have been published from 1998 onwards. However, their findings were inconsistent. To quantitatively assess the overall association between birth weight and circulating cortisol level, we aimed to perform a meta-analysis of the published literature. A literature search was conducted in PubMed, and selected papers were systematically reviewed. A pooled regression coefficient was calculated for the entire group as well as for males and females separately. Data from 11 study populations were pooled (n = 2301). These populations differed with respect to geographical area, age, sex distribution, inclusion criteria and gestational age. We found a statistically significant inverse association between birth weight and circulating cortisol level: a 1 kg lower birth weight was associated with a 25.3 nmol/l (95% confidence interval (CI): 5.9-44.8) higher cortisol level. Separate results were reported for males and females in six study populations. The association in males was 20.6 nmol/l per kg (95% CI: 4.2-37.0) and in females it was 30.9 nmol/l per kg (95% CI: 7.4-54.4).

Question: Could cortisol explain the association between birth weight and cardiovascular disease in later life?

Differences between study populations hampered the comparability of the included studies. Although the majority of studies were underpowered, by using a meta-analytic approach we found an inverse association between birth weight and circulating cortisol level. Thus, our findings suggest that there is some evidence for a possible role of the hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal axis in the epidemiological association between birth weight and cardiovascular disease. However, the strength of the overall association between birth weight and circulating cortisol level was weak.

Answer the question based on the following context: An acute mismatch on diffusion-weighted MRI (DWI) and perfusion-weighted MRI (PWI) may represent the "tissue-at-risk." It is unclear which "semiquantitative" perfusion parameter most closely identifies final infarct volume. Acute stroke patients underwent DWI and PWI (dynamic-susceptibility contrast imaging) on admission (baseline), and T2-weighted imaging (T2WI) at 1 or 3 months after stroke. "Semiquantitative" mean transit time (MTTsq=first moment of concentration/time curve), cerebral blood volume (CBVsq=area under concentration/time curve), and cerebral blood flow (CBFsq=CBVsq/MTTsq) were calculated. DWI and PWI lesions were measured at baseline and final infarct volume on T2WI acquired>or =1 month after stroke. Baseline DWI, CBFsq, and MTTsq lesion volumes were compared with final T2WI lesion volume. Among 46 patients, baseline DWI and CBFsq lesions were not significantly different from final T2WI lesion volume, but baseline MTTsq lesions were significantly larger. The correlation with final T2WI lesion volume was strongest for DWI (Spearman rank correlation coefficient rho=0.68), intermediate for CBFsq (rho=0.55), and weakest for MTTsq (rho=0.49) baseline lesion volumes. Neither DWI/CBFsq nor DWI/MTTsq mismatch predicted lesion growth; lesion growth was equally common in those with and without mismatch.

Question: Do acute diffusion- and perfusion-weighted MRI lesions identify final infarct volume in ischemic stroke?

Of the 2 PWI parameters, CBFsq lesions most closely identifies, and MTTsq overestimates, final T2WI lesion volume. "DWI/PWI mismatch" does not identify lesion growth. Patients without "DWI/PWI mismatch" are equally likely to have lesion growth as those with mismatch and should not be excluded from acute stroke treatment.

Answer the question based on the following context: Plantar sensation is considered to be a critical factor in the evaluation of limb-threatening lower extremity trauma. The present study was designed to determine the long-term outcomes following the treatment of severe lower extremity injuries in patients who had had absent plantar sensation at the time of the initial presentation. We examined the outcomes for a subset of fifty-five subjects who had had an insensate extremity at the time of presentation. The patients were divided into two groups on the basis of the treatment in the hospital: an insensate amputation group (twenty-six patients) and an insensate salvage group (twenty-nine patients), the latter of which was the group of primary interest. In addition, a control group was constructed from the parent cohort so that the patients in the study groups could be compared with patients in whom plantar sensation was present and in whom the limb was reconstructed. Patient and injury characteristics as well as functional and health-related quality-of-life outcomes at twelve and twenty-four months after the injury were compared between the subjects in the insensate salvage group and those in the other two groups. The patients in the insensate salvage group did not report or demonstrate significantly worse outcomes at twelve or twenty-four months after the injury compared with subjects in the insensate amputation or sensate control groups. Among the patients in whom the limb was salvaged (that is, those in the insensate salvage and sensate control groups), an equal proportion (approximately 55%) had normal plantar sensation at two years after the injury, regardless of whether plantar sensation had been reported to be intact at the time of admission. No significant differences were noted among the three groups with regard to the overall, physical, or psychosocial scores. At two years after the injury, only one patient in the insensate salvage group had absent plantar sensation.

Question: The insensate foot following severe lower extremity trauma: an indication for amputation?

Outcome was not adversely affected by limb salvage, despite the presence of an insensate foot at the time of presentation. More than one-half of the patients who had presented with an insensate foot that was treated with limb reconstruction ultimately regained sensation at two years. Initial plantar sensation is not prognostic of long-term plantar sensory status or functional outcomes and should not be a component of a limb-salvage decision algorithm.

Answer the question based on the following context: In light of the increasing rate of obesity among children in the United States, this study examines whether obese children have an increased rate of complications following surgical treatment of femoral shaft fractures. A retrospective review of the charts of children between six and fourteen years of age who were treated operatively for a femoral shaft fracture was performed, and complications were identified. One hundred and three children (104 fractures), with a mean age at the time of injury of 9.3 years, were identified. Fifty-nine fractures were treated with external fixation, and forty-five were treated with an intramedullary rod. Six children (6%) were considered obese, with a weight for age at the 95th percentile or higher. An additional four children were extremely heavy at the 90th to the 94th percentile of weight for age. Three complications occurred in the six obese children, and one complication occurred in the four extremely heavy children. Eleven (12%) of the remaining ninety-three children had a complication. When examined according to treatment groups, the complication rate for heavier children was higher for both the group managed with an intramedullary rod and the group that had external fixation (p = 0.004).

Question: Surgical treatment of femoral fractures in obese children: does excessive body weight increase the rate of complications?

Obese children have an increased rate of postoperative complications compared with children who are not obese. Therefore, parents of obese children should be warned that such children may have a potentially increased risk of complications associated with surgical management of a femoral fracture.

Answer the question based on the following context: Although large randomized trials have not shown benefits for breast self-examination (BSE), many organizations still endorse the practice. This study aimed to determine whether an instruction video or palpation aid improved the effectiveness of BSE. A total of 100 volunteers (50 men and 50 women) with no previous experience of BSE and/or clinical breast palpation were randomly assigned to the following intervention: instruction video seen versus not seen and use of palpation aids versus aids not used. Participants completed psychological trait and previous knowledge questionnaires before the intervention and/or breast examination. Examination was carried out on 24 different sized silicone breast forms, into 20 of which had been inserted tumor equivalents measuring 0.8-3.0 cm in diameter. The dependent variable was the rate of accurate tumor detection--the mean sum of correct positive hits (CPH)--defined as tumors detected within 20 s. Mean CPH values were then analyzed in relation to the interventions and other variables including gender and psychological measures (ANOVA and COVAR). Neither the instruction video nor interaction effects between gender and the instruction video influenced the mean CPH value. Furthermore, the palpation aid was strongly and significantly associated with a reduced detection (p=0.00003).

Question: Can an instruction video or palpation aid improve the effectiveness of breast self-examination in detecting tumors?

Using an instruction video or palpation aid did not improve the effectiveness of breast examination in detecting tumors--a finding which supports results from large randomized studies. It is difficult to understand why BSE is still promoted by various groups.

Answer the question based on the following context: Identification of peripheral vascular disease by angiography in patients undergoing coronary angiography may be considered as malpractice but sometimes seems to be justified under clear entry criteria. The present mata-analysis is aimed to analyze the appropriateness and results of screening angiography of subclavian or abdominal aorta performed at the time of coronary angiography. A search of published literature for peripheral angiography in patients undergoing coronary angiography over the last 10 years was performed using the MEDLINE database. No language restriction was employed. Only studies enrolling more than 100 patients for abdominal aortography and 50 patients for subclavian/internal mammary artery angiography were considered. Reference lists from identified studies were also reviewed to identify other potentially relevant references. Twenty-nine studies were retrieved: 8 articles about subclavian artery (SA) and internal mammary (IMA) angiography and 21 about renal (RA) and aortoiliac (AOI) angiography. The total number of patients enrolled was 27,936. Nine studies out of 29 were prospective. Defined entry criteria were reported in 24 out of 29 studies. Significant SA and IMA stenosis were reported in 5.5 and 9% of patients, respectively. RA stenosis>50% was present in 12.7% of patients with CAD. Finally, undetected AOI disease was reported in 35.5% of patients undergoing coronary angiography. Mean complication rate was 0.8 +/- 0.6%. Predictors of SA and IMA stenosis were unclear. Age, multi-risk profile, multi-vessel CAD, history of PVD or carotid disease, severe hypertension, unexplained renal dysfunction or decreased creatinine clearance have been reported most frequently as predictors of RA and AOI disease in patients undergoing coronary angiography.

Question: Malpractice in invasive cardiology: is angiography of abdominal aorta or subclavian artery appropriate in patients undergoing coronary angiography?

Consistent evidence of appropriateness of renal angiography in selected patients undergoing coronary angiography have been produced in literature. IMA and AOI angiography seem to be not justified unless they are part of SA in patients scheduled for arterial conduit with brachial differential pressure, thoracic irradiation or surgery, or of abdominal angiography to detect RA stenosis in laboratories with radiological digital peripheral equipment.

Answer the question based on the following context: Proper timing of stabilization for spine injuries is discussed controversially. Whereas early repair of long bone fractures is known to reduce complications. We investigated retrospectively 48 patients who were stabilized in a ventrodorsal approach for fractures of the thoracic spine. Patients were divided into three groups. All patients in groups I and II presented radiological or clinical signs of lung contusion. Patients were stabilized in the prone position via single-step dorsal stabilization with internal transpedicular fixation and ventral fusion with titanium cage or autologous bone graft using a minimally invasive video-assisted thoracotomy. The average duration of the procedures in group I was 213+/-40 min, in group II 250+/-75 min, and in group III 255+/-65 min (p: n.s.). Intraoperative blood loss did not differ significantly between the three groups. The PaO(2)/FiO(2) ratio improved in groups I and III, whereas in group II an significant impairment of lung function occurred perioperatively. Postoperative ICU stay was comparable in groups I and II (I: 10+/-5 days; II: 9+/-7 days); overall ICU stay tended to be shorter in group I versus II. The postoperative dependence on ventilator support did not differ significantly among the three groups. The mortality rate was 0% in this series.

Question: Does timing of thoracic spine stabilization influence perioperative lung function after trauma?

Our data provide further evidence that early stabilization of combined thoracic and thoracic spine injuries is safe, does not alter perioperative lung function, and results in a reduced overall ICU stay.

Answer the question based on the following context: Pandemic influenza strains originate in nonhuman species. Pigs have an important role in interspecies transmission of the virus. We examined multiple swine-exposed human populations in the nation's number 1 swine-producing state for evidence of previous swine influenza virus infection. We performed controlled, cross-sectional seroprevalence studies among 111 farmers, 97 meat processing workers, 65 veterinarians, and 79 control subjects using serum samples collected during the period of 2002-2004. Serum samples were tested using a hemagglutination inhibition assay against the following 6 influenza A virus isolates collected recently from pigs and humans: A/Swine/WI/238/97 (H1N1), A/Swine/WI/R33F/01 (H1N2), A/Swine/Minnesota/593/99 (H3N2), A/New Caledonia/20/99 (H1N1), A/Panama/2007/99 (H3N2), and A/Nanchang/933/95 (H3N2). Using multivariable proportional odds modeling, all 3 exposed study groups demonstrated markedly elevated titers against the H1N1 and H1N2 swine influenza virus isolates, compared with control subjects. Farmers had the strongest indication of exposure to swine H1N1 virus infection (odds ratio [OR], 35.3; 95% confidence interval [CI], 7.7-161.8), followed by veterinarians (OR, 17.8; 95% CI, 3.8-82.7), and meat processing workers (OR, 6.5; 95% CI, 1.4-29.5). Similarly, farmers had the highest odds for exposure to swine H1N2 virus (OR, 13.8; 95% CI, 5.4-35.4), followed by veterinarians (OR, 9.5; 95% CI, 3.6-24.6) and meat processing workers (OR, 2.7; 95% CI, 1.1-6.7).

Question: Are swine workers in the United States at increased risk of infection with zoonotic influenza virus?

Occupational exposure to pigs greatly increases workers' risk of swine influenza virus infection. Swine workers should be included in pandemic surveillance and in antiviral and immunization strategies.

Answer the question based on the following context: During adolescence, people tend to begin drinking alcohol and become involved in the culture that surrounds it.AIM: To compare the influence of peer relationships among females in mixed-sex schools versus single-sex schools on cigarette smoking and alcohol consumption. A cross-sectional study was carried out in four schools. The information was collected by means of a questionnaire. Two hundred and forty-eight questionnaires were completed. Of those questioned in single-sex schools, 34% had smoked a cigarette compared with 61% in mixed-sex schools (p<0.005). The lifetime prevalence of alcohol consumption in mixed-sex schools was 88% compared with 73% in single-sex schools (p<0.005).

Question: Smoking and drinking among 15-16-year-old girls: do male peers have an influence?

This study suggests that females in mixed-sex schools have a tendency to have earlier exposure to smoking and alcohol consumption than girls of the same age in single-sex schools.

Answer the question based on the following context: Job insecurity, such as non-standard work, is reported to have an adverse impact on health, regardless of health behaviors. The aim of this study was to examine the relationship between non-standard employment and health in Korea. We analyzed a representative weighted sample, which consisted of 2,112 men and 1,237 women, aged 15-64, from the 1998 Korea National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey. Non-standard employment included part-time permanent, short time temporary and daily workers. Self-reported health was used as a health indicator. This study indicated that women were more likely to report poorer health than men with standard jobs. Of all employees, 20.3% were female manual workers. After adjusting for potential confounders, such as age, education, equivalent income, marital, social and self-reported economic status and health behavior factors, nonstandard employment was found to be significantly associated with poor health among female manual workers (OR, 1.86; 95% CI, 1.24 to 2.79). No significant association was found in other working groups

Question: Does non-standard work affect health?

Among female manual workers, nonstandard employees reported significantly poorer health compared with standard workers. This result raises concern as there are increasing numbers of non-standard workers, particularly females.

Answer the question based on the following context: Emergence agitation or delirium (ED) is a frequent phenomenon in children recovering from general anesthesia (GA). Dexmedetomidine, an alpha2 receptor agonist, has analgesic and sedative properties that might be helpful in the management of ED. We studied the effects of a continuous perioperative infusion of 0.2 microg.kg(-1).h(-1) dexmedetomidine on the incidence of ED in 50 children aged 1-10 years scheduled for sevoflurane-based GA. Following inhalation induction of GA, the children were randomly assigned into dexmedetomidine or placebo Groups D and S, respectively. The infusion of 0.2 microg.kg(-1).h(-1) dexmedetomidine or equal volume of saline was started after securing the airway. Depth of anesthesia was maintained by adjusting the concentration of sevoflurane to achieve a Bispectral Index Score of 40-60. Intraoperative hemodynamics were recorded every 5 min and the trachea was extubated at the end of the procedure. Perioperative pain management was determined by the blinded anesthesia team, and the study drug infusion was maintained for 15 min following the postanesthesia care unit (PACU) admission. ED and pain scores were evaluated by a blinded observer. The incidence of ED was statistically significantly different between the two groups, 26% in Group D Vs 60.8% in Group S (P = 0.036). Additionally, the number of episodes of ED was lower in Group D (P<0.017). Pain scores and the times to extubate and discharge from PACU were the same.

Question: Does dexmedetomidine prevent emergence delirium in children after sevoflurane-based general anesthesia?

The perioperative infusion of 0.2 microg.kg(-1).h(-1) dexmedetomidine decreases the incidence and frequency of ED in children after sevoflurane-based GA without prolonging the time to extubate or discharge.

Answer the question based on the following context: To generalize findings from a nursing population to the general female population, the aim of this study was to compare lifestyle and health among Danish female nurses with that among Danish women. Furthermore, the aim was to compare lifestyle and health among Danish female nurses with women belonging to the same socio-economic group as nurses. Danish females above the age of 44 in 1999 (n = 22,715) were compared with a group of women from the Danish Health and Morbidity Survey conducted in 2000 (n = 4,445). Age standardized risk ratios (SRR) with 95% confidence intervals were calculated to compare the two groups. Nurses smoke less (SRR 0.74, CI: 0.70-0.78) and are more physically active (SRR 2.53, CI: 2.31-2.77) when compared with the general female population. A higher percentage of nurses consume five drinks or more on a weekday compared with the general female population (SRR 2.68, CI: 2.25-3.19). When comparing nurses with women belonging to the same socio-economic group, these differences are also found to be statistically significant, but no differences are found according to overweight/obesity, self-reported health and limitations in daily activities when nurses are compared with women belonging to the same socio-economic group.

Question: Comparison of lifestyle and health among Danish nurses and the Danish female population: is it possible to generalize findings from nurses to the general female population?

In general, Danish nurses have a healthier lifestyle than other Danish women. In future studies, differences and similarities in lifestyle and health between nurses and other women should be considered when generalizing findings from Danish nurses to the Danish female population.

Answer the question based on the following context: To investigate EGFR gene copy number heterogeneity in colorectal carcinomas compared with copy number of chromosome 7 and immunohistochemical expression of the EGFR protein. Fluorescence in situ hybridization of the EGFR gene and CEP7 was carried out on paraffin-embedded material from 48 rectal carcinomas combined with immunohistochemical detection of EGFR with a polymer detection kit. EGFR gene copy number had a range of 1.4-7.3 with a mean of 2.5. CEP7 copy number had a range of 1.5-6.1 with a mean of 2.5. The EGFR gene/CEP7 ratio ranged from 0.4 to 1.5 with a mean of 0.96. Most cases had a balanced EGFR gene/CEP7 ratio (37 cases = 77%). Copy gain was found in seven cases (15%) with a ratio of up to 1.5, consistent with gain of one EGFR gene copy in one chromosome. Copy loss was found in four cases (8%). All cases with EGFR gene copy loss were immunohistochemically positive.

Question: Demonstration of EGFR gene copy loss in colorectal carcinomas by fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH): a surrogate marker for sensitivity to specific anti-EGFR therapy?

Demonstration of EGFR gene copy loss might be a surrogate marker for EGFR mutation/deletion and could be used in a routine setting in pathology departments. Further studies are needed to determine whether this may be used to select patients that might benefit from specific anti-EGFR therapy.

Answer the question based on the following context: To appraise the degree of concordance in the interpretation of the technical quality of chest x-rays at a health centre between an expert in x-ray diagnosis, a family doctor, and a radiologist. Transversal study. Setting. Primary care. Cartuja Health Centre, Granada, Spain. Patients at the Cartuja Health Centre who had a simple chest x-ray in 2002. 150 studies were chosen by simple randomised sampling. Two were rejected because they dealt with a repeat examination of the same patient and seven because they did not reach minimum quality. The final sample was 141 x-rays. The observers filled in independently, for each examination, an 11-item protocol on the technical quality of the images. The kappa index between pairs of observers was calculated for each item, as was the overall kappa index. 96% of the examinations were conducted with large x-ray plates (3543). There was only acceptable or good concordance between the 3 observers in 2 questions (kappa, 0.559-0.858). In 5 questions concordance was homogeneously low (kappa, 0.034-0.375). In some questions there was a strong discrepancy between the appraisal of the expert and that of the 2 other observers.

Question: Do we agree on the technical quality of our chest X-rays?

General concordance can be considered low, although it is somewhat greater between the radiologist and the family doctor than between either of these and the expert. This poses the need to improve professional training in evaluation of the technical quality of images. In addition, there was unnecessary expense in large-size x-ray plates.

Answer the question based on the following context: There is a large proliferation of clinical practice guidelines (CPG), there being doubts on inconsistencies between the recommendations made and internal incongruencies, that affect the role of the guidelines as instruments helping the clinicians. This study aims to analyze the quality of a group of Spanish CPG and to assess the feasibility of use and consistency of the AGREE Instrument in its Spanish version, designed to evaluate the CPG. A total of 278 CPG produced in Spain between January 1990 and December 2002 were identified. The originals of 61 guidelines were recovered from their authors and passed to the AGREE Instrument independently by four raters. Quality of the guidelines feasibility and reproducibility of AGREE were analyzed. For all the attributes of AGREE except in the editorial independence, more than 60% of the guidelines evaluated obtained a poor quality score, there being no domain in which more than 10% of the guidelines was excellent. The worst grading areas are those of applicability, participation and rigour of development of the guidelines. Of the 61 guidelines evaluated, the reviewers graded 25 as "very poor quality", 26 as "non recommendable" and 6 and 4 as "recommendable" or "highly recommendable", respectively. Interrater consistency was high.

Question: Are the guidelines guiding us reliable?

The mean quality of the Spanish guidelines evaluated is very low. The AGREE Instrument in its Spanish version is consistent for the Spanish guidelines and easy to use.

Answer the question based on the following context: The purpose of this study was to assess the accuracy of the Allen's test (AT) in predicting hand ischemia in patients undergoing transradial coronary angiography. Patients with poor vascular communications between the radial artery (RA) and ulnar artery (UA), as indicated by an abnormal AT, are usually excluded from transradial coronary angiography to avoid ischemic hand complications. Over a four-month period, patients undergoing coronary angiography were screened for AT time. Circulation in the RA, UA, principal artery of the thumb (PAT), and thumb capillary lactate were measured before and after 30 min of RA occlusion. Fifty-five patients were studied (20 normal, 15 intermediate, 20 abnormal). Three patients with an abnormal AT were excluded, owing to absence of detectible flow in the distal UA. Patients with an abnormal AT were all men, had a larger RA (3.4 vs. 2.8 mm; p<0.001), and smaller UA (1.9 vs. 2.5 mm; p<0.001), compared with patients with a normal AT. After 30 min of RA occlusion in patients with abnormal AT, blood flow to the PAT improved (3.2 to 7.7 cm/s; p<0.001) yet remained reduced relative to patients with normal AT (7.7 vs. 21.4 cm/s; p<0.001. Thumb capillary lactate was elevated in patients with an abnormal AT (2.0 vs. 1.5 mmol/l; p = 0.019).

Question: Vascular communications of the hand in patients being considered for transradial coronary angiography: is the Allen's test accurate?

After 30 min of RA occlusion, patients with an abnormal AT showed significantly reduced blood flow to the thumb and increased thumb capillary lactate (compared with patients with a normal AT) suggestive of ischemia. Transradial cardiac catheterization should not be performed in patients with an abnormal AT.

Answer the question based on the following context: The objective of the present study was to evaluate whether horizontal cleavage and complex meniscus tears, which are degenerative tears, are associated with an increased incidence of cartilage damage, in comparison with patients having other patterns of meniscal injury. Case series study. Data were collected prospectively from 497 consecutive knee arthroscopies carried out from 1997 to 2001. Patient data (age, sex, duration of symptoms, injuries, and possible mechanism of injury), operative details (types and number of portals, equipment used), intra-articular findings (articular, meniscal and synovial lesions, and stability characteristics), and procedures performed were recorded. Articular lesions were noted on anatomic articular maps of the different functional zones using a system that presaged the current Internal Cartilage Repair Society system. A comparison of patients with horizontal cleavage and complex meniscal tears to patients with other types of meniscal tear showed for the former (1) increased incidence of chondral lesions (88.4% v 69.6%, respectively, P<.001), (2) increased severity--type III and IV Outerbridge classification--of chondral lesions (52.8% v 29.4%, respectively, P<.001), and (3) increased incidence of patients having more than 1 chondral lesion (65.3% v 33%, respectively, P<.001).

Question: Is there an association between articular cartilage changes and degenerative meniscus tears?

Complex and horizontal cleavage meniscal tears are highly associated with an increased incidence and severity of cartilage degeneration compared with other types of meniscal tears. Degenerative meniscus tears are not as benign as was previously thought. New age-related categories of chondral damage are emerging.

Answer the question based on the following context: To provide survival rates and associated factors from a 10-year study of in-hospital cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). Longitudinal prospective case register study of all adult in-hospital CPR attempts conducted from April 1993 to March 2003. 1200-bed general hospital in Plymouth (UK). 2121 adult in-hospital CPR attempts in Derriford Hospital, Plymouth during the period April 1993-March 2003. Immediate, 24 h, hospital discharge and 12 month survival rates. Following CPR the immediate survival rate (95% confidence interval (C.I.)) was 38.6% (36.5, 40.7), then 24.7% (22.8, 26.6) at 24 h, 15.9% (14.4, 17.6) at discharge and 11.3% (10.0, 12.7) at 12 months. The primary arrhythmia, age, duration of arrest and time of arrest were strongly related to survival at 24 h and discharge. There were very low survival rates for pulse-less electrical activity (PEA) and asystole compared to VT/VF arrests; survival rates were highest for those less than 60 years and decreased with increasing age. The longer the resuscitation the less the survival, and those who arrested at night were less likely to survive. The primary arrest, respiratory or cardiac, was also independently associated with survival at 24 h but not with hospital discharge. Sex and the commencement of basic life support (BLS) within 3 min was not an independent predictor of survival.

Question: A decade of in-hospital resuscitation: outcomes and prediction of survival?

The findings of this study show resuscitation survival rates from a 10-year study and indicate some of the key predictors of survival.

Answer the question based on the following context: The purpose of this study was to determine if previous cesarean section is an independent risk factor for incidental cystotomy at the time of hysterectomy. This is a case-controlled study that evaluated all cases of incidental cystotomy at the time of hysterectomy between January 1998 and December 2001. Five thousand and ninety-two hysterectomies were performed in the time period mentioned above, and 51 cases of incidental cystotomy were identified. Each case of incidental cystotomy was then matched to 3 controls with similar patient characteristics, medical histories, and surgical histories, as well as the absence of incidental cystotomy at the time of hysterectomy. Overall, 5092 hysterectomies were performed during the study period (total abdominal hysterectomy [TAH] 3140 [61.7%], total vaginal hysterectomy [TVH] 1519 [29.8%], laparoscopically-assisted vaginal hysterectomy [LAVH] 433 [8.5%]). Fifty-one cases of incidental cystotomy were identified (TAH: 24 [47.1%], TVH: 19 [37.3%] 8 [15.7%]). The overall incidence of cystotomy was 1.0%. When considering TAH, there were 24/3141 (0.76%) cases of incidental cystotomy, with 8 (33%) of these patients with a history of previous cesarean section. During TVH, we encountered 19/1519 (1.3%) cases of incidental cystotomy, with 4 (21%) of these women having undergone a previous cesarean. Finally, during LAVH, there were 8/433 (1.8%) cases of incidental cystotomy. Five (62.5%) of these patients had a previous history of cesarean section. In comparison, 19/72 (26.4%) TAH controls had a previous history of cesarean. Four out of 57 (7.0%) TVH controls had a history of cesarean section. Finally, 2/24 (8.3%) LAVH controls had a history of previous cesarean.

Question: Is previous cesarean section a risk for incidental cystotomy at the time of hysterectomy?

Previous cesarean section is indeed a significant risk factor for damage to the lower urinary tract at the time of hysterectomy (odds ratio [OR] 2.04; 95%CI 1.2-3.5). When analyzed separately, the OR of incidental cystotomy at the time of TAH, TVH, and LAVH in a woman with a history of previous cesarean was 1.26, 3.00, and 7.50, respectively. Only the value for LAVH was statistically significant (P = .005; 95%CI 1.8-31.4).

Answer the question based on the following context: To review the concept of remission in rheumatoid arthritis (RA), as defined by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA), the American College of Rheumatology (ACR), and the European League Against Rheumatism (EULAR). To delineate differences between significant clinical improvements, very low disease activity, and the achievement of true remission. To evaluate the prevalence of these outcomes with biologic therapy and traditional disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARD) regimens. The MEDLINE database was searched for the key words "remission" and "rheumatoid arthritis." Efficacy data of RA clinical trials from 1985 to 2004 are based on a literature review of medical journals and abstracts from rheumatology meetings. We review 3 well-defined sets of criteria established by the ACR, EULAR, and the FDA for measuring remission. Defining remissions in clinical trials and clinical practice requires appropriate standardized and objective outcome measures, such as the ACR and EULAR remission criteria. Traditional DMARDs often provide symptom relief, improvements in physical function, and the slowing of radiographic progression in patients with RA, but rarely lead to the complete cessation of RA activity. Remission, as defined by the ACR criteria, has been observed in 7 to 22% of patients treated with traditional DMARD monotherapy (ie, gold, penicillamine, methotrexate [MTX], cyclosporine A, or sulfasalazine), but these remissions have often been short-lived. Treatments with DMARD combinations, biologic monotherapy, and biologic combination therapy with MTX offer greater hope and may facilitate the higher rates of remission. Clinical trial results have shown that newer DMARDs such as leflunomide or the combination of multiple DMARDs can generally elicit greater EULAR remission rates (ranging from 13 to 42%) than monotherapies. Biologic combinations with MTX have also been shown to induce significant remission (as defined by the EULAR criteria) in RA patients, with a 31% rate observed with infliximab plus MTX at 54 weeks, a 50% rate observed for adalimumab plus MTX after 2 years of therapy, and a 41% rate observed for etanercept plus MTX after 2 years of therapy.

Question: Remission in rheumatoid arthritis: wishful thinking or clinical reality?

In the era of biologics and combination therapy, identifying remission or at least very low disease activity as the ultimate goal in RA therapy should become the new standard for the outcome of all RA trials. The criteria established by the FDA, the ACR, and the EULAR represent an important step toward achieving this goal.

Answer the question based on the following context: The purpose of this study was to examine the influence of caudal anesthesia on outcomes (pediatric intensive care unit [PICU] length of stay, hospital length of stay, ventilatory time, early extubation rate) in pediatric patients undergoing congenital heart disease repair requiring cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB). Retrospective. University teaching hospital. Pediatric patients undergoing surgery to treat congenital heart disease between 1999 and 2002. None. Thirty-four patients with atrial septal defect (ASD), 37 with ventricular septal defect, and 46 with tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) were included in the analysis. No differences were found in preoperative and intraoperative data between caudal and noncaudal group for each disorder. There was no difference between caudal and noncaudal groups in PICU and hospital stay. A statistically significant difference was found in the postoperative ventilatory time in patients with ASD and TOF between caudal and noncaudal groups. The early extubation rate was higher in the TOF caudal group compared with the noncaudal group.

Question: Caudal anesthesia in pediatric cardiac surgery: does it affect outcome?

This retrospective study demonstrated that postinduction placement of caudal anesthesia does not affect PICU or hospital length of stay. A well-controlled prospective study is needed to confirm these findings.

Answer the question based on the following context: Abnormal mineral metabolism is associated with increased cardiovascular morbidity and mortality. The exact pathogenesis linking mineral metabolism to cardiovascular risk is unknown. This study was undertaken to investigate the association between serum phosphate and/or Ca x PO(4) product with serum levels of soluble E-selectin (sE-selectin), soluble intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (sICAM-1) and soluble vascular cell adhesion molecule-1 and the degree of carotid artery atherosclerosis in patients on haemodialysis. Seventy-three patients (46 male, 27 female; mean age 48+/-13 years, on haemodialysis for 82+/-80 months) were included in the study. All patients were stable, had no evidence of vascular disease and/or active infection. Consecutive 6 months clinical and laboratory data were obtained for each patient from their medical records and mean values were used for analysis. Serum levels of soluble adhesion molecules were assayed by ELISA. All subjects underwent a detailed evaluation of the carotid arteries. The percentage of patients who met all three targets of NKF-K/DOQI for phosphate, calcium and Ca x PO(4) product was 27.1%, whereas those who did not achieve the target in one, two or three parameters was 28.1, 17.7 and 14.6%, respectively. The sICAM-1 levels were significantly higher in patients who had hyperphosphataemia (serum phosphate>5.5 mg/dl; P = 0.044) and hypercalcaemia (serum calcium>9.5 mg/dl; P = 0.014), both sE-selectin and sICAM-1 levels were significantly higher in patients with Ca x PO(4) product levels above 55 mg(2)/dl(2) (P = 0.002 and P = 0.000, respectively). Soluble E-selectin and sICAM levels demonstrated a near-linear increase in parallel to the degree of deviation from mineral metabolism targets. Soluble E-selectin and sICAM levels were correlated with serum phosphate and Ca x PO(4) product, but there were no correlations between adhesion molecules and carotid measurements.

Question: Association of mineral metabolism with an increase in cellular adhesion molecules: another link to cardiovascular risk in maintenance haemodialysis?

These findings suggest that in stable haemodialysis patients abnormal bone mineral metabolism was associated with increased soluble adhesion molecules. These alterations in adhesion molecules may favour the development of cardiovascular changes and contribute to high cardiovascular morbidity and mortality in patients with abnormal mineral metabolism.

Answer the question based on the following context: Infections such as malaria, schistosomiasis, hepatitis B and HIV have been suggested as major causes of the nephrotic syndrome (NS) in African children. We retrospectively analysed the course of the NS in 32 children from Ghana and reviewed the literature on NS from 18 different African countries for the presence of 'the tropical nephrotic syndrome'. Thirty-two children (22 boys, 10 girls, median age 12 years, range 1-18 years) with NS were treated from 2000-2003 at Battor Hospital, Ghana. Thirteen out of 32 children underwent a renal biopsy which was investigated by light, immune and electron microscopy. All 32 patients were initially treated with oral prednisone (PRED) therapy (29 with standard therapy for 8 weeks and three individually tailored), and steroid-resistant children received also intravenous methylprednisolone pulses (three children) or oral cyclophosphamide (two children). All patients fulfilled the clinical and laboratory criteria of a NS. The initial median serum creatinine was 65 micromol/l (range 44-133 micromol/l). Renal biopsy was performed in 13/32 children and revealed focal and segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS) in 10 patients, minimal change disease (MCNs) in two and no conclusive result in one patient. Glomerular immune complex deposition was absent in all biopsies. After treatment with PRED, oedema disappeared in 24/32 patients; however, proteinuria normalized in 16/32 patients only. The NS relapsed in 9/16 steroid-sensitive patients after cessation of PRED therapy, and two children were frequent relapsers. The steroid-resistant NS did not respond to an intensified immunosuppression in 5/16 children receiving methylprednisolone or cyclophosphamide. Five out of 32 children died, all were steroid resistant.

Question: Nephrotic syndrome in African children: lack of evidence for 'tropical nephrotic syndrome'?

There was no evidence for a dominating role of steroid-resistant 'tropical glomerulopathies' in children with a NS in Ghana. Similar to South Africa, focal and segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS) and minimal change disease were the most frequent findings on histology. Contrary to Nigeria, membrano-proliferative glomerulonephritis was not found in these patients. We conclude from this data and from the literature that the histological pattern of NS may vary between different African countries. Concerning therapy of NS under tropical conditions, we emphasize that despite the limited therapeutic facilities half of these patients may benefit from corticosteroids; however, steroid resistance and FSGS resulted in a high mortality.

Answer the question based on the following context: Antibiotics are over-prescribed for lower respiratory tract infection (LRTI). The influence of clinicians' history and examination findings on antibiotic prescribing for LRTI has not been directly assessed, and the extent to which these clinical findings predict appropriate antibiotic prescribing is unknown. A clearer understanding is crucial to achieving evidence-based prescribing. To directly assess the influence of general practitioners' history and examination findings on antibiotic prescribing for LRTI, and to explore the extent to which these clinical findings predict appropriate antibiotic prescribing. In this observational cohort study 25 GPs in The Netherlands were recruited during routine consultations and 247 adult patients with a clinical diagnosis of LRTI. The GPs recorded clinical information. Odds ratios (ORs) with 95% confidence intervals (CIs) for clinical variables predicting a prescription for an antibiotic were calculated. The relationship between antibiotic prescription and radiographic evidence of pneumonia was explored in order to gauge appropriateness of antibiotic prescribing. Auscultation abnormalities (OR 11.5; 95% CI 5.4-24.7), and diarrhoea (OR>11) were strongly associated with antibiotic prescribing. An antibiotic was prescribed for 195 (79%) patients. Assuming that an antibiotic definitely needs to be prescribed only for patients with pneumonia, antibiotics may have been inappropriately prescribed for 166/193 (86%) of the patients. Antibiotics were not prescribed for 5 of the 32 (16%) patients with a radiographic diagnosis of pneumonia.

Question: Do clinical findings in lower respiratory tract infection help general practitioners prescribe antibiotics appropriately?

Abnormal findings on auscultation in patients with LRTI strongly predict antibiotic prescribing and this is probably inappropriate for most patients. These results should prompt GPs to consider the extent to which finding 'crackles/rhonchi on auscultation' influences their decisions to prescribe antibiotics for their patients with LRTI, and to consider the predictive value of individual clinical signs in reaching evidence-based prescribing decisions.

Answer the question based on the following context: The crude mortality rate of the whole population and the mortality of children<5 years of age are the common indicators of the severity of a complex emergency situation. However, these indicators rarely take account of differences in socioeconomic conditions and vulnerability. We followed a population in Guinea-Bissau, which fled when fighting took place in the capital during the war in 1998-99. The population stayed close to the area of conflict and returned as soon as a cease-fire was negotiated. A peace treaty was signed after half-a-year. The following 6 months was a period of returning and re-settlement, even though two outbreaks of fighting occurred. In the first half-year the mortality rate was 78% [mortality ratio (MR) = 1.78; 95% CI 1.61-1.97] increased and mortality for children<5 years of age doubled (MR = 2.07; 95% CI 1.79-2.38). In the last 6 months of the war, mortality was slightly increased for children and not at all for the total population. In the first half-year, households living in better houses and having members with schooling were less affected. In the 're-settlement' period two inequalities emerged; the largest ethnic group, Pepel, continued to have high mortality when the mortality of other groups declined; likewise girls continued to have an elevated mortality whereas mortality of boys declined.

Question: Mortality patterns during a war in Guinea-Bissau 1998-99: changes in risk factors?

Whereas specific 'free' interventions reduced social inequalities for the groups affected, for the total population health-inequalities were slightly amplified during the war. Once the population returned to their urban homes, mortality fell to pre-war levels even though some fighting continued, limited humanitarian aid was available and the pre-war infra-structure had not been re-established.

Answer the question based on the following context: To evaluate trends in syphilis prevalence among antenatal women in a high HIV prevalence setting in northern Botswana. Laboratory logbooks of antenatal syphilis testing for 1992-2003 in Francistown, Botswana's second largest city, were reviewed, and a consecutive sample of 750 women per year from 1992-2003 were analysed. VDRL result and age were recorded. A positive result was considered a case. Overall syphilis prevalence (VDRL positive) among pregnant women in Francistown decreased from 12.4% in 1992 to 4.3% in 2003 (p<or =0.001). The downward trend in overall syphilis prevalence began in 1997. There was no change in syphilis prevalence from 1992-6. Beginning in 1997, there has been a significant decrease in syphilis prevalence in all age groups.

Question: Declining syphilis prevalence among pregnant women in northern Botswana: an encouraging sign for the HIV epidemic?

Syphilis in pregnant women in Francistown has been decreasing for the last 6 years, despite extremely high HIV prevalence (stable at>or =40% since 1996) in the same population. Reasons contributing to the decline in syphilis rates may include nationwide implementation of syndromic management of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) in 1992, improved access to health care, and less risky sexual behaviour. There is evidence from other sources indicating that risky sexual behaviour in Botswana has decreased during the HIV epidemic.

Answer the question based on the following context: Although, because of the disruption of perforators, abdominoplasty has been suggested as a major contraindication for patients undergoing autologous breast reconstruction with the transverse rectus abdominis musculocutaneous (TRAM) flap, many researchers encourage the search for a means of improving the survival of the skin paddle of the flap in patients who have undergone previous abdominoplasty. In this study, the effect of the surgical delay phenomenon on the survival of the TRAM flap following abdominoplasty was investigated. Thirty adult Wistar rats were used: the control group (n = 6), the short-term group (n = 12), and the long-term group (n = 12). In the control group, a standard superior pedicled TRAM flap was harvested with no abdominoplasty procedure, and the flap was replaced in situ. In all other animals, an abdominoplasty procedure was performed initially. The short-term and long-term groups were divided into two subgroups: the abdominoplasty plus TRAM-only subgroup (n = 6), and the abdominoplasty plus delay plus TRAM subgroup (n = 6). In the short-term group, the experiment was performed 1 month after abdominoplasty, whereas the same surgical procedures were applied 6 months after abdominoplasty in the long-term group. The short-term abdominoplasty plus TRAM subgroup, the long-term abdominoplasty plus TRAM subgroup, the short-term abdominoplasty plus delay plus TRAM subgroup, the long-term abdominoplasty plus delay plus TRAM subgroup, and the conventional superior pedicled TRAM flap group showed 2.33 +/- 3.01 percent, 13.33 +/- 8.76 percent, 24.17 +/- 13.57 percent, 60 +/- 8.94 percent, and 70.83 +/- 9.70 percent survival rates for the skin paddle, respectively.

Question: Is it possible to increase the survival of the transverse rectus abdominis musculocutaneous flap following previous abdominoplasty using a delay procedure?

The data demonstrate that surgical delay after long-term abdominoplasty can enhance the survival rate of the skin paddle of the TRAM flap.

Answer the question based on the following context: Loss of voluntary contraction of the external anal sphincter is thought to be a factor in fecal incontinence. During anal manometry, computerized systems produce several parameters including fatigue rate (FR), which is the basis for calculating the fatigue rate index (FRI). Our aim was to evaluate FR and FRI and their clinical importance in patients suffering from fecal incontinence or severe constipation. All patients scheduled for an anal physiology work-up were included in the study. FR was determined by a computer program and FRI was calculated manually with the following equation: FRI (minutes) = [squeeze pressure (mm Hg) - resting pressure (mmHg)] / - FR (mmHg/min). FR and FRI were compared in patients suffering from fecal incontinence (group I) and severe constipation (group II). Furthermore, subgroups (<50 and>or = 50 years of age) were compared. Lastly, a possible relation between length of the high-pressure zone (HPZ) and FR and FRI was assessed. Between January 2000 and December 2004, 131 patients (96 with fecal incontinence, 35 with constipation) were studied. Both FR and FRI were similar between groups I and II; no significant differences were found when younger and older patients were compared within the same group. We also did not find any relation between HPZ length and either FR or FRI.

Question: Anorectal manometry: are fatigue rate and fatigue rate index of any clinical importance?

FR and FRI do not seem to be helpful in routine colorectal practice for evaluating the strength of the external anal sphincter.

Answer the question based on the following context: Most surgeons consider Crohn's colitis to be an absolute contraindication for a continent ileostomy, due to high complication and failure rates. This opinion may, however, be erroneous. The results may appear poor when compared with those after pouch surgery in patients with ulcerative colitis (UC), but the matter may well appear in a different light if the pouch patients are compared with Crohn's colitis patients who have had a proctocolectomy and a conventional ileostomy. We assessed the long-term outcomes in a series of patients with Crohn's colitis who had a proctocolectomy and a continent ileostomy (59 patients) or a conventional ileostomy (57 patients). The median follow-up time was 24 years for the first group and 27 years for the second group. The outcomes in the two groups of patients were largely similar regarding both mortality and morbidity; the rates of recurrent disease and reoperation with loss of small bowel were also similar between groups.

Question: Is an ileal pouch an alternative for patients requiring surgery for Crohn's proctocolitis?

The possibility of having a continent ileostomy, thereby avoiding a conventional ileostomy-even if only for a limited number of years--may be an attractive option for young, highly motivated patients.

Answer the question based on the following context: The long-term outcome of laparoscopic ileocolic resection in patients with Crohn's disease is not well defined. This study was designed to define the surgical recurrence rate after laparoscopic ileocolic resection for Crohn's disease and to compare it with that seen after open ileocolic resection. A retrospective review of 113 records of patients who underwent index ileocolic resection for terminal ileal Crohn's disease was performed (1987-2003). Recurrence was defined as development of new preanastomotic Crohn's disease requiring surgical intervention. Details of recurrence and use of chemoprophylaxis was determined by phone interview and chart review. Sixty-three patients (26 males; mean age, 35.2 years) underwent laparoscopic ileocolic resection and 50 had open ileocolic resection (17 males; mean age, 37.1 years). Surgical recurrence developed in 6 of 63 patients (9.5 percent) in the laparoscopic ileocolic resection group (mean follow-up, 62.9 months) and in 12 of 50 patients (24 percent) in the open ileocolic resection group (mean follow-up, 81.8 months). Rates of chemoprophylaxis were similar between groups (laparoscopic ileocolic resection, 39 percent; open ileocolic resection, 54 percent; P = not significant). Median times to recurrence after laparoscopic ileocolic resection and open ileocolic resection were 60 (range, 36-72) months and 62 (range, 12-180) months, respectively. Fifty percent of the recurrences in the laparoscopic ileocolic resection group and 4 of 12 in the open ileocolic resection group were able to be retreated laparoscopically. Re-recurrence occurred in 4 of 12 open ileocolic resection patients (33 percent) at a mean of 63.6 months, and one patient had a third recurrence at 28 months.

Question: Is there any difference in recurrence rates in laparoscopic ileocolic resection for Crohn's disease compared with conventional surgery?

In this study, the long-term outcome after laparoscopic ileocolic resection was not shown to be statistically different from that of open ileocolic resection. The relatively low recurrence rates in both groups may be explained by our aggressive use of chemoprophylaxis.

Answer the question based on the following context: In this study, breast implant capsular tissues and blood samples from 25 cases were studied to characterize the relationship between capsular findings and serum analysis. The serum fibrosis indexes hyaluronan and the aminoterminal propeptide of procollagen type III (PIIINP) are fairly well correlated in several other studies with the inflammation grade and fibrosis in patients with progressive fibrotic disorders such as liver cirrhosis. The study enrolled 25 female patients (average age, 40 +/- 12 years) with capsular contracture after bilateral cosmetic breast augmentation using smooth silicone gel implants (Mentor). The implants were placed in a submuscular position through an incision in the inframammary fold. The implant removals were prompted by development of capsular fibrosis (Baker grades 1-4). Samples of capsular tissue were obtained from all the patients for standard histologic and immunohistochemical analyses. Blood samples were drawn from all the patients immediately before surgery. Sera from 20 healthy female patients (average age, 34 +/- 9 years) who had undergone plastic surgery for reduction mammaplasty were used as controls. Histology. Capsular tissue was significantly thicker in patients with grades 3 and 4 contracture than in women with grade 2 contracture according the classification by Baker. There was a moderate (n = 15) or severe (n = 10) chronic inflammatory reaction in the capsules around the implants. Fibroblasts and macrophages represented the major cell population found in the fibrous capsules. In addition, activated CD4+ cells were detected. An inner layer with synovia-like metaplasia and multinucleated giant cells was found. Fibroblast-like cells formed the most common cell type in the capsules, along with macrophages, scattered polymorphonuclear leukocytes, lymphocytes, plasma cells, and mast cells. Serum analysis. There was a significantly higher level (p<0.05) of hyaluronan serum concentration in patients with capsular contracture (26 +/- 14 microg/l) than in control subjects (12 +/- 6 microg/l). There was a positive correlation between the grade of capsular contracture (Baker 1-4) and the hyaluronan serum concentration (Baker 1-2: 15 +/- 3 microg/l; Baker 3-4: 35 +/- 12 microg/l) (r2 = 0.73; p<0.05).

Question: Serologic and histologic findings in patients with capsular contracture after breast augmentation with smooth silicone gel implants: is serum hyaluronan a potential predictor?

: In this study, serum hyaluronan levels were significantly elevated in patients with constrictive fibrosis after breast augmentation, and there was a positive correlation with the stage of capsular contracture. Serum hyaluronan concentration may help in defining patients at risk for capsular fibrosis. If treatment with new drugs can be started as a preventive measure, it may be possible to reduce the rate of patients who require surgical intervention.

Answer the question based on the following context: Stigma and discrimination toward mentally disabled persons might exist within the medical environment and may form a barrier for patients to receive appropriate care. The aim of this study is to determine the attitudes of medical students toward mentally disabled people and to understand the impact of schooling on attitude difference by evaluating second and sixth year medical students. The study was carried out among 452 students from the all the three public medical schools located in Istanbul, Turkey. Attitudes were assessed through a Likert scale by presenting vignettes for depression and schizophrenia. In both men and women, the scores of last year students for depression and schizophrenia scales were better compared with those of the second graders, and the differences were statistically significant (p<0.05). However, the proportion of students who did not perceive schizophrenia as "temporary" and "curable" and the perceived likelihood of dangerousness for schizophrenia were higher among the last year students compared with the second graders.

Question: Does stigma concerning mental disorders differ through medical education?

As a result of this study, it was determined that last year students had improved attitudes toward the mentally ill; however, they still had striking stigmatizing opinions and judgments. The improvement in the attitude score between the second and the sixth graders is considered a result of the students' contact and interaction with persons having mental disorders throughout their medical education. The challenge is to maintain a social environment that aims to reduce the distance between the patient and the medical staff through introducing a holistic approach in medical schools.

Answer the question based on the following context: As for any manual procedure, the learning curves for medical interventions can have undesirable phases, occurring mostly in the early experience of applying a technique. There have been impressive advances in endoscopic procedures during recent years, and there is an emerging trend that the number of procedures is increasing in parallel with these. In addition, the introduction of screening programs for colorectal cancer will also increase the numbers of procedures needed. Recent developments in medical simulation seem promising with regard to the possibility of "training out" undesirable parts of the learning curve outside the operating room. The aim of this study was to investigate whether the use of the AccuTouch flexible endoscopy simulator improves the early part of the learning curve in colonoscopy training. 12 endoscopy trainees, 10 surgeons and two medical gastroenterologists, all with experience in gastroscopy but with no specific colonoscopy experience, were randomly assigned to either simulator training or to a control group. They all received the same theoretical study package and the training group practiced with the AccuTouch colonoscopy simulator until a predefined expert level of performance was reached. All trainees performed their first ten individual colonoscopies described in detail in a separate protocol. Trainees in the simulator-trained group performed significantly better (P=0.0011) and managed to reach the cecum in 52% of their cases (vs. 19% in the control group), and were 4.53 times more likely to succeed compared with the controls. Additionally, there was a significantly shorter procedure time and less patient discomfort in the hands of the simulator-trained group.

Question: Virtual reality colonoscopy simulation: a compulsory practice for the future colonoscopist?

Skills acquired using the AccuTouch simulator transfer well into the clinical colonoscopy environment. The results of this trial clearly support the plan to integrate simulator training into endoscopic education curricula.

Answer the question based on the following context: Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) is usually performed with the patient lying in the prone position, on the assumption that this position is optimal for cannulation of the papilla and for obtaining good-quality radiographic images. The supine position, however, may be more comfortable for the patient and may facilitate airway management, and this study aimed to compare the two positions in terms of procedure outcome, safety, and patient tolerance. Consecutive patients who were undergoing ERCP were randomized to start the procedure in either the prone position or the supine position. Patients under the age of 18 years, intubated patients, and those who had already undergone endoscopic sphincterotomy were excluded. The difficulty of cannulation was assessed using the Freeman score (1=one to five attempts; 2=six to 15 attempts; 3=more than 15 attempts; 4=failure of cannulation). Total procedure time, patient tolerance, willingness to undergo ERCP in the future, and procedure-related adverse cardiorespiratory events (oxygen desaturation, tachycardia, bradycardia) were also recorded. A total of 34 patients were evaluated (21 men, 13 women; mean age 68, range 20-96), 17 patients in each group. Demographic and clinical features, and the indications for the procedure were similar for the two patient groups. The median Freeman score was significantly lower in the prone group compared with the supine group (1 vs. 3, P=0.0047, rank sum test). Biliary cannulation was achieved in all patients in the prone group, but was not achieved in five patients (29%) in the supine group (P=0.052). In four of these five patients, biliary cannulation was successfully achieved after turning the patient into the prone position. The percentage of patients unwilling to repeat the ERCP procedure in the future was higher in the supine group (29% vs. 6%, P=0.087); the mean tolerance score and mean total procedure time were similar in the two groups. Seven patients in the supine group experienced at least one adverse cardiorespiratory event, compared with only one patient in the prone group (41% vs. 6%, P=0.039).

Question: Is the supine position as safe and effective as the prone position for endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography?

ERCP performed with the patient in the supine position is technically more demanding for operators used to working with patients in the prone position and carries a greater risk of adverse cardiorespiratory events in nonintubated patients.

Answer the question based on the following context: The goals of the current study were to compare the clinicopathologic presentations of patients with lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS) as a component of breast carcinoma who were treated with breast conserving surgery (BCS) and radiation therapy (RT) with those of patients without LCIS as part of their primary tumor and to report rates of local control by overall cohort and specifically in patients with positive margins for LCIS and multifocal LCIS. Sixty-four patients with Stages 0-II breast carcinoma with LCIS (LCIS-containing tumor group, LCTG) that had received BCS+RT treatment at the University of Michigan between 1989 and 2003 were identified. These patients were matched to 121 patients without LCIS (control group) in a 1:2 ratio. The median follow-up time was 3.9 years (range, 0.3-18.9 yrs). There were no significant differences between the two groups with regard to clinical, pathologic, or treatment-related variables or in mammographic presentation, with the exception of a higher proportion of the LCTG patients who received adjuvant hormonal therapy (P = 0.01). The rates of local control at 5 years were 100% in the LCTG group and 99.1% in the control group (P = 0.86). The presence of LCIS at the margins and the size and presence of multifocal LCIS did not alter the rate of local control.

Question: Is lobular carcinoma in situ as a component of breast carcinoma a risk factor for local failure after breast-conserving therapy?

The extent of LCIS and its presence at the margins did not reduce the excellent rates of local control after BCS+RT. The data suggest that LCIS in the tumor specimen, even when multifocal, should not affect selection of patients for BCS and whole-breast RT.

Answer the question based on the following context: Recognition that early sun exposure is an important risk factor for cutaneous melanoma in white populations has led to efforts to reduce children's sun exposure. 'Kidskin' was a non-randomized, school-based sun protection intervention trial in Perth, Western Australia (1995-1999). Its aim was to determine the extent to which such a program could reduce children's sun exposure. Kidskin involved 1614 children assigned to one of three groups: a Control, a 'Moderate' and a 'High' intervention group of 14, 11 and 8 schools respectively. The unit of assignment was the school. Control schools received the standard health education curriculum, while intervention schools received a multi-component intervention including a specially designed curriculum. The High intervention group received additional components. Outcomes included parent reported sun-related behaviors and objectively measured suntan at the end of summer vacation. These outcomes were observed every 2 years. Statistical analyses allowed for correlations between students within schools. Kidskin initially had favorable effects on reported sun exposure and measured suntan. However, at the end of the 4-year program, and again 2 years later, little evidence of a favorable effect remained.

Question: The impact of the kidskin sun protection intervention on summer suntan and reported sun exposure: was it sustained?

The benefits of childhood sun protection interventions may not last beyond the life of the program.

Answer the question based on the following context: Epidemiological studies demonstrated that the high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol levels in Turkish people are lower compared to other populations. In the present study, the HDL cholesterol levels in subjects with or without angiographically documented coronary artery disease (CAD) were compared to assess whether HDL cholesterol levels were as low as expected. A total of 420 consecutive patients with age of>or =40 years (160 female, 260 male) undergoing coronary angiography were included in the study. Patients receiving fibric acid derivatives or niacin were excluded. Coronary artery disease group consisted of those patients with any atherosclerotic lesions in coronary angiography, and non-CAD group consisted of patients with no such lesions. Average HDL cholesterol levels were 45.0+/-10.5 mg/dl (44.4+/-10.9 mg/dl in men, 46.5+/-9.6 mg/dl in women) in CAD group, and 47.7+/-9.0 mg/dl (45.5+/-8.4 mg/dl in men, 48.9+/-9.2 mg/dl in women) in non-CAD group (p<0.05).

Question: High-density lipoprotein cholesterol in coronary artery disease patients: is it as low as expected?

Compared to non-CAD patients, patients with CAD had lower HDL cholesterol levels, but in general HDL cholesterol levels were not as low as to be expected from epidemiological studies.

Answer the question based on the following context: Serum lipoprotein(a) [Lp(a)] concentrations, determined in 665 persons in the 2003/04 survey of the Turkish Adult Risk Factor Study, were investigated in regard to distribution, determinants and relationship to cardiovascular risk factors, metabolic syndrome (MS) and coronary heart disease (CHD). Diagnosis of MS was based on Adult Treatment Panel III criteria, that of CHD on the presence of clinical findings and Minnesota coding of resting electrocardiograms. Metabolic syndrome was observed in 44%, CHD in 14% of the study sample. Behring nephelometry was used for Lp(a) values measurements which were log-transformed for analyses because of skewing. Geometric mean values of Lp(a) in 286 men and 379 women, aged 55.5 +/-12.0 years, were 9.46+/-2.90 mg/dL and 10.46+/-3.00 mg/dL (p>0.2), respectively. Apart from a slight correlation with age, Lp(a) exhibited significant positive correlations with apolipoproteins A-I and B, low density lipoprotein-cholesterol (LDL-C) (r =0.15), total cholesterol, high density lipoprotein-cholesterol (HDL-C), systolic blood pressure and log C-reactive protein, and inverse ones with thyroid stimulating hormone (r =-0.25) in men, and log gamma glutamyltransferase in women. Further 10 variables were not significantly correlated in either gender. In linear regression analyses for independent covariates of Lp(a), positive associations were noted with serum total cholesterol and systolic blood pressure, and inverse ones with waist circumference, triglycerides and (only in women) with gamma glutamyltransferase. Logistic regression analyses revealed in men no association with either MS or CHD likelihood. Among women, age-adjusted Lp(a) was associated inversely at a borderline significance with MS, as did levels of Lp(a)>30 mg/dl vs. the remaining sample, controlled for age and MS, display an odds ratio (OR) of 1.62 for prevalent CHD (p=0.20). An OR of 1.92 (p<0.19) was noted in all adults for the coexistence of Lp(a)>30 mg/dl and LDL-C>150 mg/dl, after controlling for age, MS, smoking status and LDL-C categories.

Question: Lipoprotein (a) in a population-based study: more significant in Turkish women than men?

Lipoprotein(a), the variance of which is known to be overwhelmingly due to the apo(a) isoforms, proved to have a significant inverse independent association with a measure of abdominal obesity. Lipoprotein(a) levels appeared not to be associated with risk for MS or CHD among men. In women, however, high Lp(a) levels were accompanied with an environment less prone to MS, and - without attaining significance -- tended to be associated with CHD likelihood, independent of age and MS. Further studies are warranted in this area.

Answer the question based on the following context: Metabolic syndrome (MS) is a condition, which is recognized as raising the risk of cardiovascular disease. The aim of our study is to estimate the left ventricular functions by atrioventricular plane displacement (AVPD), myocardial performance index (MPI) and conventional methods in patients with MS who were diagnosed according to NCEP (ATP III) criteria. Fifty-three female patients with MS (mean age 53.1+/-6.9 years) and 30 healthy female subjects (mean age 52.8+/-6.3 years, p>0.05) underwent complete echocardiographic assessment. All of the subjects had no heart and pulmonary diseases. The systolic mitral AVPD was recorded at 4 sites (septal, lateral, anterior, and posterior) by M-mode echocardiography and left ventricle ejection fraction (LVEF) was calculated from the AVPD-mean (EF-AVPD). The LVEF was also established by biplane Simpson's (EF-2D) and Teichholz's methods (EF-T). Left ventricular MPI was calculated as (isovolumic contraction time + isovolumic relaxation time) / aortic ejection time by Doppler echocardiography. Patients with MS showed mild left ventricular diastolic dysfunction (DD) in comparison to healthy subjects. The EF-2D and EF-T in patients with MS and healthy subjects were not different significantly and were within normal limits. Patients with MS showed LV global dysfunctions compared to healthy subjects (MPI: 0.56+/-0.12 and 0.46+/-0.11 respectively, p<0.01). Both the septal, anterior, lateral and posterior part of the atrioventricular plane values and also AVPD-mean during systole were statistically lower in patients with MS (12.85+/-1.76 mm) as compared with controls (14.65+/-2.19 mm, p<0.05). The EF-AVPD in patients with MS was statistically lower (65.58+/-11.95%) as compared with healthy subjects (74.45+/-11.07%, p<0.01).

Question: Do female patients with metabolic syndrome have masked left ventricular dysfunction?

Female patients with MS had both left ventricular DD and a global dysfunction with an increased MPI. The EF-2D and EF-T were not different significantly between patients and controls, but patients with MS had a relatively reduced EF-AVPD. The AVPD method may indicate a systolic dysfunction with a relatively lower AVPD-mean and relatively lower EF-AVPD. The presence of global dysfunction in patients with MS may lead to heart failure.

Answer the question based on the following context: Set-shifting difficulties have been reported in subjects with anorexia nervosa and appear to persist after recovery; therefore, they may be endophenotypic traits. The goals of this study were to investigate whether set-shifting difficulties are familial by examining discordant sister-pairs in comparison with healthy unrelated women and to replicate, with a broader battery, the lack of influence of an acute illness state on neuropsychological performance. Forty-seven pairs of sisters discordant for anorexia nervosa and 47 healthy unrelated women who were comparable in age and IQ completed neuropsychological tasks selected to assess set-shifting ability. Analyses of variance with standard errors that are robust against correlations within family clusters were used to compare the groups. Results were adjusted for obsessive-compulsive, anxiety, and depression symptoms. Subjects with acute (N=24) and fully remitted (N=23) anorexia nervosa were compared to assess state versus trait effects. Sisters with and without anorexia nervosa took significantly longer than unrelated healthy women to shift their cognitive set (CatBat task) and demonstrated greater perceptual rigidity (Haptic Illusion task) but did not differ significantly from each other. Women with anorexia nervosa were slower than other groups on Trail Making tasks. Women who had fully recovered from anorexia nervosa made significantly fewer errors than those with acute anorexia nervosa on the Trail Making alphabet task, but these subgroups did not differ on other measures.

Question: Is impaired set-shifting an endophenotype of anorexia nervosa?

Both affected and unaffected sisters had more set-shifting difficulties than unrelated healthy women. This finding, together with the replicated finding that set-shifting difficulties persist after recovery, suggests that set-shifting difficulties are trait characteristics and may inform the search for the endophenotype in anorexia nervosa.

Answer the question based on the following context: Little is known about the desire of patients with schizophrenia to be involved in medical decisions affecting their treatment. The authors administered the Autonomy Preference Index to 122 inpatients with schizophrenia. In addition, the patients filled out the Drug Attitude Inventory. Sociodemographic data and Positive and Negative Syndrome Scale ratings were available for all patients. The patients expressed a desire for shared decision making that was slightly greater than that of primary care patients. Negative attitudes toward medical treatment and younger age were associated with a higher desire for participation.

Question: Do patients with schizophrenia wish to be involved in decisions about their medical treatment?

It is important to meet the participation needs of patients who are dissatisfied with their psychiatric treatment.

Answer the question based on the following context: Retrospective, case series. A review of 10 surgical cases with symptoms of cervical angina. To stress the importance of symptoms of cervical angina in patients with cervical spine disorders. Fukui University Hospital, Japan. A total of 10 patients complaining of symptoms of cervical angina were admitted with a tentative diagnosis of coronary artery disease. Pain relief was achieved by anterior surgical decompression in all patients.

Question: Cervical angina: a seemingly still neglected symptom of cervical spine disorder?

We stress that physicians should be aware of the symptoms of cervical angina and that surgical intervention often leads to complete relief of symptoms.

Answer the question based on the following context: It has been suggested that the pelvis should not be habitually included on abdominal CT examinations, but the potential benefit of such a practice in childhood abdominal malignancies is unknown. To estimate the yield and potential diagnostic benefit of abnormal findings on CT of the pelvis in children with malignant primary tumours in the upper abdomen. From a paediatric tertiary referral hospital we retrospectively included patients having abdominal CT for primary upper abdominal tumours (1997-2004), the scan range routinely including the pelvis. We reviewed and tabulated any pelvic abnormality, and calculated group proportions with 95% confidence intervals. We identified 230 children (2 days to 17 years old, median 2.9 years). Six (2.6%; 95% CI 0.5-4.7%) had abnormalities in the pelvis that would not have affected clinical management. Four (1.7%; 95% CI 0.1-3.4%) had findings that might have influenced staging, but only one was not detected by other modalities within 1 week of the CT.

Question: CT in children with abdominal cancer: should we routinely include the pelvis?

Our data suggest that diagnostically significant findings in the pelvis are rare; consequently, the habitual inclusion of the pelvis on abdominal CT for primary malignant tumours in the abdomen is not justified.

Answer the question based on the following context: To examine the benefits and problems of a chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) and fibromyalgia (FM) support organization as reported by its participants. Active members (n = 32) and inactive members or dropouts (n = 135) of a regional support organization for people with CFS and FM completed a 26 item questionnaire by telephone interview or by self-completion and postal return. The most frequently endorsed benefits of membership were illness legitimization (67.8%), finding out helpful new information (66.4%), and feeling understood by others (62.2%). Lower frequency endorsements were given to: helped to find (35.0%) or deal with (38.5%) doctors, and helped to improve my illness (36.4%). The most frequently reported reasons for dropping out were inconvenient location (37.8%) or time (37.0%), too much negative talk or complaining (33.3%), too sick to attend (28.8%), and illness or coping improvement (29.6% each). The active-member group showed significantly higher (p<0.04) symptom severity scores and less illness improvement (p<0.01) in comparison to the inactive/dropout group.

Question: Do support groups help people with chronic fatigue syndrome and fibromyalgia?

This cross-sectional study suggests that support groups for CFS are viewed as helpful by participants on a number of illness related issues. On the other hand, active members reported greater symptom severity and less illness improvement than inactive members or dropouts.

Answer the question based on the following context: To explore primary care practitioners approach to and management of menstrual disorders using a sociological perspective. Semi-structured interviews of primary care practitioners with an iterative approach to recruitment and analysis informed by grounded theory. Two broad approaches to patient care were described-a biomedical approach, which concentrated on medical history taking and the search for disease, and a patient-as-person approach where a patient's individual ideas and concerns were elicited. Practitioners believed they had a role in integrating these approaches. Activities intrinsic to the biomedical approach such as the performance of examinations, the ordering of tests and making decisions about biomedical aspects of care were however not available for shared decision-making. The exercise of these decisions by medical practitioners was necessary for them to achieve their professional identity.

Question: Does the achievement of medical identity limit the ability of primary care practitioners to be patient-centred?

While practitioners accepted the ideology of patient-centred care the biomedical approach had the advantage of providing practitioners with a professional identity, which protected their status in relation to patients and colleagues.

Answer the question based on the following context: To investigate the influence of a pregnancy and other counselee characteristics on several aspects of counselor-counselee interaction during the initial clinical genetic consultation. The consultations, of a group of pregnant women (n = 82) and of a control group of non-pregnant women (n = 58), were compared specifically with regard to differences in global affective tone, extent of psychosocial exchange and women's participation in the decision-making process. Consultations were recorded, and subsequently coded from audiotape by 10 raters. Only two differences in outcome measures were found between the two study groups: the counselor was rated as slightly more nervous in consultations with pregnant women, and in consultations with non-pregnant women fewer decisions were taken. The length of the consultation, the contribution of a counselee's companion to the consultation and counselee characteristics (age, level of education, initiation of referral, affected person, degree of worry and preferred participation in decision-making) were more important in explaining the nature of the interaction.

Question: Counselor-counselee interaction in reproductive genetic counseling: Does a pregnancy in the counselee make a difference?

Our study yielded no important differences in counselor-counselee interaction during the initial clinical genetic consultation of pregnant versus non-pregnant women regarding the affective tone of the consultation, the degree to which psychosocial issues were discussed and the women's participation in the decision-making process.

Answer the question based on the following context: In Western populations, waist circumference (WC) is more predictive of cardiovascular disease (CVD) risk than is body mass index (BMI). It is unclear whether the same is true in Asian populations. The objective was to examine the independent effects of WC and BMI on CVD risk factors in China. CVD risk factors, BMI, and WC were measured in a nationally representative cross-sectional study of 15 540 Chinese adults aged 35-74 y. Higher WC tertiles were associated with higher blood pressure and higher cholesterol, triacylglycerol, and glucose concentrations within each tertile of BMI and vice versa. In men, the odds of hypertension, dyslipidemia, and the metabolic syndrome (MS) increased with successive WC tertiles (1.0, 1.1, and 1.8, respectively, for hypertension; 1.0, 1.4, and 2.0, respectively, for dyslipidemia; and 1.0, 2.3, and 4.8, respectively, for MS; P for trend<0.001 for all), even after adjustment for BMI. Similarly, the odds of hypertension, dyslipidemia, and MS increased with successive BMI tertiles (1.0, 1.5, and 2.6, respectively, for hypertension; 1.0, 1.3, and 1.8, respectively, for dyslipidemia; 1.0, 1.3, and 2.9, respectively for MS; P for trend<0.001 for all), even after adjustment for WC. However, BMI tertiles were not associated with the odds of diabetes after adjustment for WC (P for trend = 0.67), whereas tertiles of WC were significantly associated with the odds of diabetes after adjustment for BMI (1.0, 1.6, and 2.1, respectively; P for trend = 0.002). The results were similar in women.

Question: Are waist circumference and body mass index independently associated with cardiovascular disease risk in Chinese adults?

These data show that WC adds additional risk information to that of BMI in Chinese adults. Measurement of both WC and BMI in Chinese adults may enhance CVD risk stratification.

Answer the question based on the following context: Video trainers may best offer visually realistic laparoscopic simulation, whereas virtual reality (VR) modules may best provide multidimensional objective measures of performance. This study compares the construct and face validity of three different laparoscopic simulators. Subjects were voluntarily enrolled at the Learning Center during the 2004 SAGES annual meeting. Each subject completed two repetitions of a single task on each of three simulators, MIST-VR, Endotower, and CELTS; performance scores were automatically generated and recorded. Scores of individuals with various levels of experience were compared to determine construct validity for each simulator. Experience was defined according to four parameters: (a) PGY level, (b) fellowship training, (c) basic laparoscopic cases, and (d) advanced laparoscopic cases. Subjects rated each simulator regarding six face validity (realism of simulation) parameters using a 10-point Likert scale (10 = best rating) and participant scores were compared to previously established expert scores (proficiency goals for training). Ninety-one attendees completed the study. Construct validity was demonstrated for all three simulators; significant differences in scores were detected according to one parameter for MIST-VR, two parameters for Endotower, and all four parameters for CELTS. Face validity was rated as good to excellent for all three simulators (7.0 +/- 0.3 for MIST-VR, 7.9 +/- 0.3 for Endotower [p<0.001 vs MIST-VR], and 8.7 +/- 0.1 for CELTS [p = 0.001 vs MIST-VR, p = 0.01 vs Endotower]); 6%, 0%, and 36% of "expert" participants obtained expert scores on MIST-VR, Endotower, and CELTS, respectively.

Question: Construct and face validity of MIST-VR, Endotower, and CELTS: are we ready for skills assessment using simulators?

All three simulators demonstrated significant construct and reasonable face validity. Although virtual reality holds great promise to expand the scope of laparoscopic simulation, current interfaces may limit their utility for assessment. Computer-enhanced video trainers may offer an improved interface while incorporating useful multidimensional metrics. Further work is needed to establish standards for appropriate skills assessment methods and performance levels using simulators.

Answer the question based on the following context: The presentation and management of esophageal cancer are changing, as more patients are diagnosed at an earlier stage of the disease in which endoscopic treatment methods may be contemplated. Therefore, we conducted a study to determine whether symptomatic and endoscopic findings can accurately identify node-negative early-stage adenocarcinoma. A total of 213 consecutive patients (171 men and 42 women) with resectable esophageal adenocarcinoma seen from 1992 to 2002 were evaluated. None of these patients received neoadjuvant chemotherapy or radiation therapy. Using a multivariable model, model-based probabilities of early-stage disease (T1 im/sm N0) were calculated for each combination of the following three features: no dysphagia as main symptom at presentation, tumor length<or=2 cm, and noncircumferential lesion. Eighty-two percent of the patients with all three characteristics presented with early-stage disease. Even in the setting of small, visible, noncircumferential tumors/nodules in patients without dysphagia, 14% of the patients harbored node metastasis.

Question: Can clinical and endoscopic findings accurately predict early-stage adenocarcinoma?

Simple clinical and endoscopic findings predicted early-stage disease in 82% of cases, whereas a small but significant percentage had node metastasis. Because node metastasis predisposes to local failure in nonresectional treatment options such as endoscopic mucosal resection and photodynamic therapy, such findings should have a significant bearing on treatment decisions.

Answer the question based on the following context: In liver surgery, blood loss during hepatic transection is important. The use of an ultrasonic dissector was not always superior to conventional clamp crushing for performing hepatic parenchymal transections. The purpose of this study is to evaluate the effect of an ultrasonic dissector equipped with electrocautery in hepatic surgery. A prospective study was conducted in 66 consecutive patients who underwent a partial hepatectomy using a new small ultrasonic dissector equipped for electrocautery. To evaluate the effectiveness of using the new instrument, the surgical outcomes were compared with those of historical control. The surgical outcomes of procedures using the new ultrasonic dissector were comparable to those of patients in the conventional ultrasonic dissector group; median blood loss, transection time, transection speed, percentage of tumor exposure at surgical margin, morbidity rate. The number of technical errors and the percentage of patients with an incomplete landmark appearance were lower in the new dissector group, but the differences were not significant. The distribution of hepatectomy grades also did not differ significantly.

Question: Can a small ultrasonic dissector equipped for electrocautery improve the results of hepatic resection?

The surgical outcome of hepatectomies performed using an ultrasonic dissector cannot be significantly improved by the addition of an eletrocautery function to the dissector.

Answer the question based on the following context: Recent studies suggest that preoperative placement of bile duct stents increases morbidity after pancreatic surgery. The influence of pancreatic duct stenting on outcome after pancreatic surgery is unknown. The records of 264 consecutive patients who underwent lateral pancreaticojejunostomy, pancreaticoduodenectomy, or distal pancreatectomy for chronic pancreatitis were retrospectively reviewed and analyzed. There were 137 patients who received preoperative endoscopic pancreatic stents. The remainder underwent preoperative ERCP without stent placement. Both groups had a similar stage of disease measured by endoscopic, clinical, and histological findings. The overall postoperative morbidity was higher in the stent group (19.7% vs. 42.3%, p<0.001, odds ratio 3.0). Intra-abdominal complications occurred more frequently in the stent group (10.2% vs. 32.8%, p<0.001), including a difference in pancreatic leaks. There was no difference in extra-abdominal complications (10.2% vs. 13.1%) and mortality (1.6% vs. 1.5%).

Question: Do preoperative pancreatic stents increase operative morbidity for chronic pancreatitis?

Patients who undergo pancreatic duct stenting and require surgical drainage at a later point have a threefold increased risk for peri-operative complications. An increase in intra-abdominal complications might be related to stent associated pancreatic duct injuries, stent occlusion, and bacterial colonization of the stent.

Answer the question based on the following context: This study aimed to estimate chlamydia prevalence and risk factors for infection and to assess the performance of chlamydia-selective screening criteria among clients attending a large sexually transmitted infection (STI) clinic. Computerised records for all attendances between 1 July 2002 and 30 June 2003 were analysed. Chlamydia prevalence and risk factors for infection were determined for all new clients. The sensitivity and specificity of risk factors for chlamydia were assessed. 2642 male and 2084 female new clients were tested for chlamydia with a prevalence of 7.3% (95% CI: 6.3%, 8.4%) among men and 3.9% (95% CI: 3.1%, 4.9%) among women. Screening heterosexual men based on a positive contact or symptoms of non-specific urethritis or any two of age<25 years, 4+ partners last 12 months, inconsistent condom use or not presenting for an asymptomatic screen detected 88% of infections by screening 62%. Screening women based on a positive contact or injecting drug use or any two of age<25 years, 2+ partners last 12 months or inconsistent condom use would detect 86% of infections by screening 57%.

Question: Do the characteristics of sexual health centre clients predict chlamydia infection sufficiently strongly to allow selective screening?

Selective screening could be used to more efficiently identify heterosexual men and women at risk of chlamydia.

Answer the question based on the following context: Clinically nonfunctioning pituitary adenomas (CNFPAs) represent about 30% of pituitary macroadenomas, gonadotropinomas being the most frequent among them. The aim of the present study is to re-evaluate the usefulness of the measurement of alpha-SU serum level in response to TRH stimulation in detecting the gonadotropic nature of nonfunctioning pituitary adenomas before the neurosurgical treatment. We have studied 14 patients with CNFPAs. The response of alpha-SU to the administration of TRH was studied in each patient before the surgery. alpha-SU blood serum level increase over 50% of the baseline level after TRH treatment was considered to be significant. The patients were divided into 2 groups, each including 7 subjects. The first group included the patients with gonadotropinomas (tumors immunopositive for FSH and/or LH or their free subunits). The second group included the patients with adenomas immunonegative for gonadotropins and alpha-SU. The basal level of alpha-SU was elevated over the upper limit of normal range in two patients of the first group (gonadotroph adenomas) and in one in the second group. All but one patient from the first group and none of seven patients with tumors immunonegative for FSH, LH or alpha-SU, had a significant alpha-SU (over 50%) response to TRH. In three of seven patients with gonadotropins immunonegative tumors a decrease of alpha-SU serum level after TRH was observed.

Question: Serum alpha-subunit elevation after TRH administration: a valuable test in presurgical diagnosis of gonadotropinoma?

The measurement of alpha-SU serum level in response to TRH administration seems to be useful in preoperative identification of gonadotroph adenomas among other nonfunctioning pituitary adenomas.

Answer the question based on the following context: To determine if the quality of medical imaging reports differs significantly between radiologists and nonradiologists. A retrospective nonblinded review of randomly selected chest and long bone x-ray reports by orthopedists and primary care physicians compared with randomly selected imaging reports generated by radiologists. We randomly selected 1 report from each of 50 high self-referring physicians privileged by 2 metropolitan New York area health plans for both bone and joint studies and chest x-rays for a total of 200 reports (50 bone and joint x-rays from each plan and 50 chest x-rays from each plan). We compared them with 50 randomly selected radiologist-generated reports. The reports were evaluated for quality based on the American College of Radiology's Guideline for Communication: Diagnostic Radiology. The data were analyzed by the 2-sample t-test between proportions at the 95% confidence interval. Radiologists consistently provided higher-quality medical imaging reports than nonradiologists.

Question: Radiology by nonradiologists: is report documentation adequate?

To improve imaging service quality, all providers should be held to the same standards for reporting and communication of results.

Answer the question based on the following context: Religiosity has been related to positive health outcomes. Although this relationship is primarily based on studies of church attendance and health, more recent work has focused on the potential mechanisms that may mediate the religion-health findings. One principle that is taught by all of the world's major religions is compassion. It was hypothesized that one pathway through which religiosity may exert its positive influence on health is through encouraging compassionate attitudes and behaviors toward others. Two separate studies were conducted examining the relationships among intrinsic religiosity (IR), compassionate attitudes and behaviors, and measures of psychosocial health. Measures of psychosocial health included depressive symptoms, perceived stress, and social support. IR was related to positive psychosocial outcomes in both studies, and compassionate attitudes and behaviors mediated these relationships. Compassionate attitudes showed significant relationships with psychosocial outcome measures (depressive symptoms, r = -.46, p<.0001; perceived stress, r = -.45, p<.0001; satisfaction with social support, r = .54, p<.0001; marital adjustment, r = .44) and accounted for most of the mediating effect. Although social support was also related to the variables of interest, its effect was smaller than that of compassionate attitude, and controlling for social support did not significantly add to the mediating effect of compassionate attitude.

Question: Does compassion mediate the intrinsic religion-health relationship?

This study found compassionate attitude to be an important factor in the religion-health relationship and related to positive psychosocial outcomes, including reduced depressive symptoms and reduced perceived stress. Future research on religiosity and health may benefit from exploring the concept of a "compassionate personality" (i.e., a way of being in the world where others are treated with love and respect).

Answer the question based on the following context: To evaluate (a) the relation between frequency of church attendance, self-rated health, and health behaviors controlling for potential confounders and (b) the influence of acculturation on church attendance and health behaviors. Physical activity and dietary patterns, demographics, and acculturation levels were compared among Latinas who attended church frequently, infrequently, and not at all. Church attendance was independently and positively associated with healthier dietary and physical activity behaviors, but not with self-rated health. Acculturation attenuated the relation between physical activity and church attendance.

Question: Is church attendance associated with Latinas' health practices and self-reported health?

Latinas' health behaviors and self-rated health may be related to other variables that explain the salutary effects of church attendance.

Answer the question based on the following context: Appropriateness of prescribing is often assessed by standard instruments. We wished to establish whether judgements of appropriateness that included patients' perspectives and contextual factors could lead to different conclusions when compared with commonly used instruments. To explore the predictive accuracy of these instruments. The design was interviews of patients, audio recordings of the consultation and interviews of the doctors, in varied primary care practices in England. Participants were patients who were likely to discuss a medication issue. The outcome measures were judgements of appropriateness made by the researchers and by two instruments: the Prescribing Appropriateness Index and the Medication Appropriateness Index. Implications for the predictive accuracy of the measures was also investigated. From 35 cases there was agreement between the judges and the instruments in 22 cases, 16 were appropriate and 6 inappropriate. Of 10 cases classified as inappropriate by the instruments the judges thought four were appropriate. Of 18 cases classified as appropriate by the instruments, two were considered inappropriate by the judges. In seven cases the prescribing decisions could not be classified by the instruments because the decision was to not prescribe.

Question: Measuring the appropriateness of prescribing in primary care: are current measures complete?

Current measures of appropriateness of prescribing depend predominantly on pharmacological criteria, and so do not represent cases that would be judged appropriate when including the patient's views and contextual factors. If most prescribing is appropriate then use of these measures may lead to more false negatives than real negatives. The instruments should be renamed as measures of 'pharmacological appropriateness' and are useful where the incidence of this type of inappropriate prescribing is relatively high.

Answer the question based on the following context: To evaluate whether multidisciplinary pulmonary rehabilitation programme (PRP) provides additional benefit over tiotropium therapy in managing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in primary care. A randomized controlled trial to analyse the difference in outcomes of COPD patients receiving tiotropium plus PRP vs. tiotropium treatment alone. Two primary care teaching clinics affiliated with a university which serves a population of 600,000. Fifty primary care COPD patients. Fifty subjects underwent spirometry and their status of COPD was confirmed by using the Vitalograph Gold Standard. They were then assessed by the 6-min walking distance (6MWD), Peak Visual Analogue Scale (Peak VAS) and Chronic Respiratory Disease Questionnaire (CRQ). All subjects were given tiotropium to optimize their treatment. After a 6-week period, half were randomized to the intervention group (i.e. receiving PRP), whereas the rest were randomized to control group which received only medication. Spirometry, 6MWD, Peak VAS and CRQ were performed in both groups at 6 weeks, 12 weeks and 3 months. Spirometry, 6MWD, Peak VAS and CRQ. Significant improvement (P<0.05) was seen in 6MWD, symptoms of dyspnoea measured by Peak VAS and CRQ. The improvement was sustained at 3-month follow-up. However, no additional significant improvement was seen in the intervention group when compared with control.

Question: Does pulmonary rehabilitation give additional benefit over tiotropium therapy in primary care management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?

Tiotropium therapy has improved health outcomes in COPD patients in primary care settings. A 6 weekly PRP did not give any additional benefits in patients already given tiotropium.

Answer the question based on the following context: To determine whether the interval between prostate biopsy and radical prostatectomy (RP) affects the immediate postoperative outcome. The study was a retrospective chart review of 169 patients who had retropubic RP at our institution. Using a series of univariate and multivariate logistic regression analyses, we evaluated whether the interval between biopsy and RP was a significant independent predictor of operative duration, estimated blood loss, transfusion rate, nerve-sparing (yes/no), positive margin rate, length of stay, complications, and urinary continence after RP. The interval from biopsy to RP was 14-378 days; there were no significant differences in operative duration, estimated intraoperative blood loss, nerve-sparing rate, transfusion rate and amount, hospitalization time, positive margin rate, major postoperative complications, and continence in patients with biopsy to RP intervals above and below the median. The biopsy to RP interval was not an independent predictor of outcomes during or after RP. There were no direct or indirect correlations between biopsy to RP interval and any of the postoperative outcomes.

Question: Does the interval between prostate biopsy and radical prostatectomy affect the immediate postoperative outcome?

The interval between prostate biopsy and retropubic RP appears to have no effect on immediate postoperative outcomes. We were unable to determine a specific minimum required interval beyond 2 weeks after prostate biopsy before proceeding with RP.

Answer the question based on the following context: To evaluate the influence of preoperative serum prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level and other clinicopathological variables on the probability of biochemical failure and clinical recurrence after radical prostatectomy (RP) for localized prostate cancer. The study was a retrospective survival analysis in 211 patients undergoing retropubic RP for clinically localized prostate cancer in the period 1988-2000. Survival was estimated using the Kaplan-Meier method; survival endpoints were biochemical failure, defined as a PSA level of>or = 0.5 ng/mL or clinical recurrence consisting of palpable tumours in the prostatic fossa or distant metastases. In 58 patients with biochemical failure after surgery, we assessed the impact of the doubling time of serum PSA level (PSADT) on the risk of developing skeletal metastases or local recurrence. The median (range) observation period was 66 (9-160) months. Biochemical failure occurred in 92 patients (44%) of whom 39 (42%) had local recurrence or skeletal metastases. There was a highly significant association (P<0.001) between clinical T stage, histological grade, capsular penetration, surgical margin status, seminal vesicle invasion, preoperative serum PSA level and the probability of biochemical failure-free survival. By contrast there was no statistically significant association between preoperative serum PSA level, clinical T stage, surgical margin status, and clinical recurrence. There was a significant relationship between age (P = 0.021), histological grade (P = 0.025), capsular penetration (P = 0.018), seminal vesicle invasion (P = 0014), and clinical recurrence. Cox regression analysis showed that only histological grade and seminal vesicle invasion were independent predictors of clinical recurrence. In a subgroup of 58 patients with a rising serum PSA level after RP, a PSADT of<or = 12.8 months conferred a significantly higher risk (P = 0.015) of developing skeletal metastases than a PSADT of>12.8 months.

Question: Is preoperative serum prostate-specific antigen level significantly related to clinical recurrence after radical retropubic prostatectomy for localized prostate cancer?

In the present patients undergoing RP the preoperative serum PSA level was not associated with the clinical outcome, whereas it was significantly related to biochemical failure rate. The probability of skeletal metastases was significantly associated with the PSADT after biochemical failure.

Answer the question based on the following context: To estimate the morphological suitability of human connective tissue structures from different regions as graft material in Peyronie's disease, and to present preliminary results from 12 patients with grafting of corporal bodies using autologous rectus sheath. In five male cadavers the penile tunica albuginea was compared with the dorsal lamina of the rectus sheath, the palmar aponeurosis, the iliotibial tract and the Achilles tendon by using histological sections stained with haematoxylin and eosin, Crossmon's trichrome stain and resorcin-fuchsin. Surgical results and complication rates were investigated in 12 patients with Peyronie's disease after grafting the corporal bodies with autologous rectus sheath to correct their penile curvature. On histology, the penile tunica albuginea showed a three-dimensional meshwork of collagenous and elastic fibres. The dorsal lamina of the rectus sheath had a remarkably similar fibre structure. The other tissues had a different histology, with long collagenous fibres in parallel orientation and elastic fibres restricted to the loose connective tissue around blood vessels and nerves. Clinically, the penile deviation was successfully corrected in 10 patients; there were two residual deviations (15 degrees and 35 degrees ). There were minor complications after surgery in six patients, not requiring surgery.

Question: The dorsal lamina of the rectus sheath: a suitable grafting material for the penile tunica albuginea in Peyronie's disease?

The dorsal lamina of the rectus sheath has similar morphological characteristics to the tunica albuginea, and therefore represents an ideal autologous graft; the first clinical results are promising.

Answer the question based on the following context: To report clinical findings associated with an increased incidence of mumps orchitis in Liverpool, UK, as in the last 2 years there has been a four-fold increase in the number of notified viral mumps cases in the UK. In the 8 months before April 2005, patients presenting to the Accident and Emergency/Urology Departments of the Royal Liverpool University Hospital with a diagnosis of epididymo-orchitis were identified from the emergency urological admission database. Of 195 males presenting with an acute history of testicular pain and swelling, 25 gave a history of mumps parotitis 4-11 days earlier. Three had bilateral orchitis and two needed scrotal exploration to exclude torsion. Scrotal ultrasonography findings varied from increased vascularity to abnormal testicular echo texture. Treatment included analgesia, scrotal support, re-hydration and broad-spectrum antibiotics. Of the 10 patients followed-up to date, four had testicular abnormalities; one had persistent testicular pain, one a change in testicular consistency, one a noticeably reduced size of one testis, and one significant testicular atrophy.

Question: Mumps orchitis in the non-immune postpubertal male: a resurgent threat to male fertility?

As postpubertal mumps in males is associated with a 40% incidence of orchitis, parents should be made aware that failing to immunize their children threatens the future fertility of their sons. Young men not immunized as children should be counselled and offered urgent vaccination. Clinicians should be aware that epididymo-orchitis may be secondary to mumps infection even with no history or clinical evidence of parotitis.

Answer the question based on the following context: The purpose of the present paper was to examine patterns of surgical care and the likelihood of death within 5 years after a diagnosis of colorectal cancer, including the effects of demographic, locational and socioeconomic disadvantage and the possession of private health insurance. The Western Australian Data Linkage System was used to extract all hospital morbidity, cancer and death records for people with a diagnosis of colorectal cancer from 1982 to 2001. Demographic, hospital and private health insurance information was available for all years and measures of socioeconomic and locational disadvantage from 1991. A logistic regression model estimated the probability of receiving colorectal surgery. A Cox regression model estimated the likelihood of death from any cause within 5 years of diagnosis. People were more likely to undergo colorectal surgery if they were younger, had less comorbidity and were married/defacto or divorced. People with a first admission to a private hospital (odds ratio (OR) 1.31, 95% confidence interval (CI): 1.16-1.48) or with private health insurance (OR 1.27, 95% CI: 1.14-1.42) were more likely to undergo surgery. Living in a rural or remote area made little difference, but a first admission to a rural hospital reduced the likelihood of surgery (OR 0.76, 95% CI: 0.66-0.87). Residency in lower socioeconomic areas also made no difference to the likelihood of having surgical treatment. The likelihood of death from any cause was lower in those who were younger, had less comorbidity, were elective admissions and underwent surgery. Residency in lower socioeconomic status and rural areas, admission to a rural hospital or a private hospital and possession of private health insurance had no effect on the likelihood of death.

Question: Colorectal cancer surgical care and survival: do private health insurance, socioeconomic and locational status make a difference?

The present study demonstrates that socioeconomic and locational status and access to private health care had no significant effects on surgical patterns of care in people with colorectal cancer. However, despite the higher rates of surgery in the private hospitals and among those with private health insurance, their survival was no better.

Answer the question based on the following context: Hydatid disease of the lungs is still a serious health problem for some Mediterranean countries. The best surgical therapy for the treatment of this disease is still unclear. In this clinical retrospective study, we aimed to investigate whether capitonnage is an effective therapy method for a pulmonary hydatid cyst or not. Between 1990 and 2004, 89 patients (49 male and 40 female) each with a pulmonary hydatid cyst were treated surgically. The patients were divided into two groups based on whether capitonnage was carried out (group 1, n = 44) or not (group 2, n = 45). Cystotomy and the closure of the bronchial openings were carried out in both groups. The results were assessed in two groups during a 1 year follow-up period. The groups were comparable with regards to their clinical, operative and demographic characteristics. There was no mortality, and no significant difference in hospitalisation time between the two groups. It was 8.2 +/- 3.2 days for group 1 and 8 +/- 3.1 days for group 2 (P = 0.89). The most serious complications were restricted bronchopleural fistula (only one patient in group 2), empyema (only one patient in group 1 and two patients in group 2), and prolonged air leak (five patients in group 1 and six patients in group 2). These results were not valuable statistically (P = 1.00, P = 1.00 and P = 0.78, respectively).

Question: Methods of surgical therapy in pulmonary hydatid disease: is capitonnage advantageous?

We conclude that it is not an advantage to carry out capitonnage when treating pulmonary hydatid cysts.

Answer the question based on the following context: Hepatitis C is a major health problem in Egypt. Necrolytic acral erythema (NAE) is a recently described necrolytic erythema that has a distinctive acral distribution and a uniform association with hepatitis C. Some authors believe that NAE is a distinct entity and others consider it as a variant of necrolytic migratory erythema (NME). Five patients with clinical features consistent with NAE were included in this study. The patients were subjected to skin biopsy examination, CT scan of the pancreas and a liver biopsy. Liver function tests, serum glucagon, glucose, amino acids and zinc were measured. All patients were tested for hepatitis C by enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) and by polymerase chain reaction (PCR). Three patients presented with early (acute) lesions and two patients with chronic lesions. The distribution of the lesions was almost exclusively on the dorsae of the feet. Histopathological findings were similar to those of other necrolytic erythemas. Hepatitis C virus was uniformly detected in all patients. Serum glucagon was high in two patients, serum glucose was high in four patients, serum amino acids were low in three cases and serum zinc and albumin were low in two cases. Little or no improvement was reported after oral amino acid supplementation, while the response to oral zinc sulfate was moderate to good.

Question: Necrolytic acral erythema: a variant of necrolytic migratory erythema or a distinct entity?

Necrolytic acral erythema is closely associated with hepatitis C infection. Many findings indicate that NAE seems to be a variant of NME rather than a distinct entity. Hence, an alternative proposed term could be acral NME.

Answer the question based on the following context: To extend our previous research by determining whether, and how, the impact of managed care (MC) on substance abuse treatment (SAT) services differs by facility ownership. The 2000 National Survey of Substance Abuse Treatment Services, which is designed to collect data on service offerings and other characteristics of SAT facilities in the U.S. These data are merged with data from the 2002 Area Resource File, a county-specific database containing information on population and MC activity. We use data on 10,513 facilities, virtually a census of all SAT facilities. For each facility ownership type (for-profit [FP], not-for-profit [NFP], public), we estimate the impact of MC on the number and types of SAT services offered. We use instrumental variables techniques that account for possible endogeneity between facilities' involvement in MC and service offerings. We find that the impact of MC on SAT service offerings differs in magnitude and direction by facility ownership. On average, MC causes FPs to offer approximately four additional services, causes publics to offer approximately four fewer services, and has no impact on the number of services offered by NFPs. The differential impact of MC on FPs and publics appears to be concentrated in therapy/counseling, medical testing, and transitional services.

Question: Does the impact of managed care on substance abuse treatment services vary by provider profit status?

Our findings raise policy concerns that MC may reduce the quality of care provided by public SAT facilities by limiting the range of services offered. On the other hand, we find that FP clinics increase their range of services. One explanation is that MC results in standardization of service offerings across facilities of different ownership type. Further research is needed to better understand both the specific mechanisms of MC on SAT and the net impact on society.

Answer the question based on the following context: In view of the potential utility of personality-based groupings in eating disorders (EDs), and the lack of studies using this approach in large samples of individuals with anorexia nervosa (AN), this study set out to examine (i) the nature of personality-based clusters of women with lifetime AN and (ii) if these clusters are associated with either clinical symptoms or aetiological variables. The self-report Dimensional Assessment of Personality Pathology (DAPP) was completed by 153 women with a lifetime diagnosis of DSM-IV AN. A cluster analysis was used to identify personality-based subgroups. Clusters were then compared on clinical and aetiological variables. Three personality-based clusters were identified, defined by broad, avoidant and compulsive types of personality pathology. Dimensions of low dissocial behaviour, high inhibition and high compulsivity were common to all clusters, while dimensions related to emotional dysregulation appeared more heterogeneous. Clinical symptoms were not related to personality profile with the exception of a trend towards more fasting behaviour in the broad group. The compulsive cluster with the narrowest range of extreme personality traits reported the highest familial risk of eating pathology.

Question: Do illness characteristics and familial risk differ between women with anorexia nervosa grouped on the basis of personality pathology?

The three clusters identified in our AN sample were similar to those previously identified in broader eating disordered samples. Personality-based clusters did not correspond overall to clinical symptoms but aetiological differences supported their validity. Broader personality pathology indicative of emotional dysregulation, problems with identity and relationships, in addition to core traits, may increase vulnerability to AN in those with less familial risk.

Answer the question based on the following context: Pneumonectomy for complex aspergilloma is associated with high morbidity rates. This study aimed to improve the outcomes of this high-risk procedure by preventing postoperative complications. Between April 1999 and December 2004, 25 patients underwent pulmonary resection for complex aspergilloma at our institution. Of these patients, 11 (44%) patients (9 males and 2 females) undergoing a pneumonectomy were reviewed in this study. Median age was 63 years (range, 36-71 years). Associated pulmonary diseases were cavities secondary to tuberculosis (n=6) and a post-lobectomy destroyed lung (n=5). All patients presented with symptoms, including hemoptysis (n=10) and purulent sputum (n=1). To minimize the risk of empyema and bronchopleural fistula, careful extrapleural dissection and bronchial stump reinforcement with a latissimus dorsi muscle flap were employed in all patients. Follow-up was completed on March 31, 2005. We performed six pneumonectomies (two right and four left) and five completion pneumonectomies (one right and four left). Operating time ranged from 361 to 781 min (median, 432 min). The median intraoperative blood loss was 1050 ml (range, 200-2910 ml). There was no operative mortality. No patient required re-exploration for postoperative hemorrhage. The major complications were empyema caused by anaerobic bacteria (n=1) and chylothorax (n=1). The treatment of both complications was successful. All patients were free from aspergillosis at the time of follow-up.

Question: Pneumonectomy for complex aspergilloma: is it still dangerous?

Pneumonectomy for symptomatic complex aspergilloma can be performed with no mortality and low morbidity. The favorable results of this potentially deleterious procedure hinge on the efforts to prevent postoperative complications.

Answer the question based on the following context: The active metabolite of clopidogrel binds the P2Y12 ADP receptor on the platelet surface via a disulfide bond. N-Acetylcysteine (NAC) is able to reduce disulfide bonds. We postulated that NAC might reverse clopidogrel's effect on platelets. Two groups of patients were investigated. Group 1 included 11 patients with stable coronary disease who, after discontinuation of aspirin, received 14 days of clopidogrel, 75 mg/day. Bleeding time and whole-blood platelet aggregometry (with 5 micromol/L ADP) were compared before and after the 14 days. Patients were then treated with 6 g of NAC orally, followed by repeat measurement of bleeding time and aggregometry. In group 2, 14 patients were treated with clopidogrel (300 mg) and aspirin before a percutaneous coronary intervention. Blood was drawn 22 +/- 3 hours later and divided into 2 samples. One was sent immediately for platelet-rich plasma aggregometry (using 5 and 2 micromol/L ADP, collagen, and arachidonic acid as agonists), thromboelastography, and aggregometry using the Plateletworks assay (Helena Laboratories, Beaumont, Tex). The other sample was treated with NAC (500 mg/L), after which these same platelet function tests were performed. In group 1, NAC therapy did not significantly change the bleeding time or results of aggregometry. In group 2, neither aggregometry nor the Plateletworks assay suggested reversal of inhibition by NAC.

Question: Can N-acetylcysteine reverse the antiplatelet effects of clopidogrel?

These studies reveal that a large dose of NAC does not reduce inhibition of platelet aggregation by clopidogrel in vitro or in vivo.

Answer the question based on the following context: The question of whether Müllerian anomalies are significantly more often combined with endometriosis is a controversially discussed problem. Some publications described this association in patients with obstructive but not non-obstructive Müllerian anomalies or controls without Müllerian anomalies. The aim of this study was to evaluate the incidence of endometriosis in patients with a septate uterus as a non-obstructive form of Müllerian anomalies. In a retrospective study, we evaluated 120 patients (29.4 +/- 4.7 years; mean +/- SD) with a septate uterus. The control group consisted of 486 consecutive infertile patients (30.8 +/- 6.3 years) with a normal hysteroscopy and laparoscopy. The incidence of dysmenorrhoea was comparable in both groups, but the incidence of endometriosis was significantly higher in patients with a septate uterus (25.8 versus 15.2%, P = 0.006).

Question: Is there an association between septate uterus and endometriosis?

Our results suggest a higher incidence of endometriosis in patients with a septate uterus. If it can be confirmed by others, the initial finding of a septate uterus in infertile patients should be followed by a combined hysteroscopy and laparoscopy.

Answer the question based on the following context: The guidelines for asthma recommend that the use of anti-inflammatory therapy should be adapted to the severity of the disease. However, few data are available to assess the adequacy of the use of drugs and its influence on the control of asthma in 'real life'. The adequacy of the current use of anti-asthmatic medication according to the Global Initiative for Asthma (GINA) guidelines was assessed in a random sample of 400 asthmatics identified in the frame of the Italian Study on Asthma in Young Adults. Asthma severity was assessed using the GINA criteria; accordingly, a patient was classified as receiving inadequate treatment if his/her current use of drugs was lower than that suggested by the guidelines for the corresponding severity level. The absence of asthma attacks in the last 3 months was used as an indicator of the disease control. Fifty-five percent of the patients had persistent asthma. Overall, 48% (95% CI 41.2-54.8) of persistent asthmatics were receiving inadequate treatment, and 66% (95% CI 59.5-72.4) had not used their medication daily over the past 3 months. Persistent asthmatics who were inadequately treated had a significantly greater frequency of asthma attacks (geometric mean ratio 3.7; 95% CI 2.1-6.6) than those using an adequate dose of medication. Mild and moderate persistent asthmatics using an adequate medication regimen reported a low number of asthma attacks (median 0). At the multivariate analysis, a good control of the disease was positively associated with an adequate dose of anti-inflammatory medication (OR = 2.2; 95% CI 1.1-4.5) and was negatively associated with a later onset of asthma (OR = 0.96; 95% CI 0.93-0.99) and severe asthma (OR = 0.37; 95% CI 0.17-0.81).

Question: Are the asthma guideline goals achieved in daily practice?

Despite the increase in the use of inhaled corticosteroids, half of the persistent asthmatics from the general population are using a medication regimen below their severity level. When the use of drugs follows the GINA guideline recommendations, a good control of asthma is also achievable in the daily management of the disease, particularly in the case of mild and moderate asthmatics.

Answer the question based on the following context: A retrospective review was carried out of data collected on patients with TIA who were managed at the Durban Metropolitan Vascular Service over an 11-year period. All patients underwent carotid duplex scanning and CCT, followed by carotid endarterectomy (CEA) under general anaesthesia. The records of 140 patients were reviewed. There were 85 (61%) men and 55 (39%) women (F:M = 1:1.6). The mean age was 63 years (range 40-95 years). The presenting symptoms were amaurosis fugax, syncope and speech deficit. Risk factors for arterial disease were smoking (73%), hypertension (55%), diabetes mellitus (28%) and hyperlipidaemia (6%). Duplex ultrasonography showed significant internal carotid artery stenosis in 138 patients and occlusion in two. Arch angiography of the latter two patients showed pre-occlusive carotid stenosis. CCT scans showed abnormalities in 34 (24%) patients. These were lacunar infarcts (56%), old infarcts involving grey and white matter (32%), and cortical infarcts (12%). The findings did not influence management. All patients underwent routine CEA with selective shunting in 51 (36%) patients. Postoperative stroke rate was 2.9%.

Question: Transient ischaemic attack: is routine use of computerised cerebral tomography worthwhile?

Routine CCT scanning in patients with TIA did not influence patient management and outcome. It is not cost effective and its routine use is questioned.

Answer the question based on the following context: The current study evaluates the clinical significance and distinctiveness of purging disorder (PD), an eating disorder characterized by recurrent purging in the absence of objective binge episodes (OBE) among normal-weight individuals. Women with PD (n = 37), bulimia nervosa (BN; n = 39), or no eating disorder (n = 35) completed clinical assessments. Women with PD (n = 23) and BN (n = 25) completed 6-month follow-up assessments. Compared with controls, both eating-disordered groups reported significantly higher eating, Axis I, and Axis II pathology. Compared with BN, PD was associated with significantly lower eating concerns, disinhibition, and hunger. At 6-month follow-up, rates of remission did not differ significantly between PD and BN, and crossover between disorders was rare.

Question: Purging disorder: an ominous variant of bulimia nervosa?

PD appears to be a clinically significant and potentially distinctive eating disorder.

Answer the question based on the following context: Several retrospective studies comparing off-pump and on-pump coronary surgery and the largest randomized studies published to date showed a lower number of grafts performed in patients submitted to off-pump coronary artery bypass surgery (OPCAB). These findings bring about the question of the general applicability of the results. We eliminated the selection bias correlated with the number of grafts per patient by comparing the short-term outcomes of patients undergoing OPCAB and standard coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) matched for number of grafts. Eighty-seven consecutive patients undergoing OPCAB (group A) were selected from the database of our Institution during a 2-year period. Matching was performed by iterative selection prioritizing, in the following sequence: number of grafts, EuroSCORE, and age. A total of 87 patients operated upon with the on-pump technique represented the control group (group B). There were no significant differences in preoperative characteristics between the two groups. The number of grafts per patient was 2.2 +/- 0.5 in group A and 2.2 +/- 0.5 in group B. Early mortality did not differ between the two groups and it was 2.2% (2 patients) in group A and 3.4% (3 patients) in group B (p = NS). The incidence of myocardial infarction did not differ between the two groups. No patient in either group had stroke or coma. Five (5.7%) patients in group A and 7 (8.0%) patients in group B had atrial fibrillation (p = NS).

Question: Off-pump versus on-pump coronary artery bypass: does number of grafts performed represent a selection bias in comparative studies?

We were unable to demonstrate any significant differences in short-term mortality or morbidity outcome between OPCAB and standard CABG patients Our findings suggest that excellent results can be obtained with both surgical approaches.

Answer the question based on the following context: To compare endovascular aneurysm repair (EVAR) of ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysms (rAAA) to the results with open surgery. Between May 2001 and January 2004, 50 patients were diagnosed with rAAA. Fifteen (30%) patients (14 men; median age 73 years, range 58-85) underwent EVAR, while 26 (52%) patients (23 men; median age 75 years, range 60-84) had open surgery. Nine (18%) patients (5 men; median age 86 years, range 77-91) were not operated upon. Circulatory shock was defined as systolic blood pressure<80 mmHg. Mortality was defined as death within 30 days after operation; in cases where hospital stay exceeded 30 days, in-hospital mortality was registered. Five risk factors (age>76 years, loss of consciousness, hemoglobin<90 g/L, creatinine>190 micromol/L, and electrocardiographic ischemia) were analyzed. In the EVAR group, 93% (14/15) of the aneurysms were excluded from the bloodstream; there were 2 (13%) conversions: 1 intraoperatively for stent-graft migration and another owing to dissection prior to hospital discharge. Mortality after open surgery was 46% (12/26) versus 13% (2/15) in the EVAR group (p>0.05). Univariate analysis without considering variables other than mortality resulted in OR 5.4 (95% CI 0.9 to 58; p=0.07). Considering risk factors and shock, multivariate analysis resulted in OR 6.5 (95% CI 0.8 to 96; p=0.08). In the EVAR group, 60% (9/15) had complications; in the group with open surgery, the complication rate was 85% (22/26; p=0.13).

Question: Endovascular treatment of ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysms: a shift of the paradigm?

It is possible to treat rAAA with EVAR. Hypotensive patients can, at least initially, be operated under local anesthesia to stabilize blood pressure utilizing a percutaneously inserted occlusion balloon. There was a trend in our study for reduced mortality and morbidity with EVAR, but further studies are required to conclude whether EVAR significantly increases survival and reduces complications.

Answer the question based on the following context: Posttransplant diabetes mellitus (PTDM) has several pre- and posttransplant risk factors. The incidence and risk factors of PTDM were retrospectively evaluated in 2117 kidney allograft recipients from June 1984 to March 2004. Type and dosage of immunosuppressive agents, pretransplant weight and human leukocyte antigen (HLA) phenotypes in PTDM patients were compared with 61 matched controls. Sixty-one cases (2.8%) developed PTDM requiring insulin or oral hypoglycemic therapy, out of which 47.5% were men and 52.5% were women, although only 35% of our overall recipients are women. Onset occurred at a mean of 489 days following transplantation. Patients receiving more than 15 mg/d prednisolone developed PTDM more often than those on less than 15 mg/d (P = .000). Similarly PTDM was more frequent among patients who received more than 300 mg/d cyclosporine compared with those on less than 300 mg/d (P = .015). Mean weight in PTDM cases and controls was 65 +/- 13.4 kg and 57 +/- 13.6 kg, respectively (P = .005). HLA-DR6 was observed in 12.2% of nonaffected subjects but in none of the PTDM group (P = .002). Conversely, HLA-DR8 was seen only in PTDM patients (P = .012). In addition HLA-A26 was more common among PTDM patients (P = .02) and HLA-DR52 more frequent in nonaffected subjects (P = .025).

Question: Is HLA-DR6 a protective factor against posttransplantation diabetes mellitus?

Our findings suggest that female sex, dosages of prednisolone and cyclosporine, pretransplant weight, and genetic factors are associated with an increased risk of PTDM. The rate of PTDM appeared to be independent of weight gain in the first year posttransplant. Protection against PTDM may be afforded by HLA-DR6 and possibly HLA-DR52. Conversely and higher incidence of diabetes has been associated with HLA-DR8 and HLA-A26.

Answer the question based on the following context: Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection after solid organ transplantation is one of the most common viral infections, causing significant morbidity and mortality if not treated promptly. Ganciclovir has proven to be effective for the prophylaxis and treatment of CMV. However, oral absorption of ganciclovir is poor. Recently, oral administration of valganciclovir hydrochloride (Valcyte) has been observed to display 10-fold better absorption than oral ganciclovir. Valganciclovir has increasingly been used as prophylaxis against CMV after solid organ transplantation. The purpose of this study was to examine the efficacy of valganciclovir prophylaxis therapy after primary liver transplantation. Between July 2001 and May 2003, 203 consecutive liver transplant recipients, including 129 men and 74 women of overall mean age 53 +/- 11 years, received valganciclovir (900 mg/d or 450 mg every other day depending on renal function) for 3 to 6 months after primary liver transplantation. All patients were followed up for a minimum of 6 months. Mean follow-up was 19 +/- 5.8 months. CMV DNA in peripheral blood was tested using polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplification. Symptomatic CMV was stratified according to the CMV immunoglobulin (Ig)G status of the donor and recipient at the time of liver transplantation. Donors and recipients were classified preoperatively into groups according to the presence or absence of CMV as follows: group 1 (n = 73; donor CMV+, recipient CMV+); group 2 (n = 41; donor CMV-, recipient CMV+); group 3 (n = 54; donor CMV+, recipient CMV-; high-risk group); and group 4 (n = 35; donor CMV-, recipient CMV-). Twenty-nine patients (14.3%) developed symptomatic CMV disease at 169 +/- 117 days after liver transplantation: group 1, 16.4% versus group 2, 7.3% versus group 3, 25.9% versus group 4, 0%. Of these patients, 5 also had invasive CMV on liver biopsy, which was performed owing to abnormal liver functions. All 29 patients were treated with intravenous ganciclovir. One patient died owing to disseminated CMV, whereas the remaining 28 patients responded to treatment. Interestingly, 8 patients, including 1 who had invasive CMV hepatitis, developed symptomatic CMV within 90 days of liver transplantation even while on prophylactic valganciclovir.

Question: Does valganciclovir hydrochloride (valcyte) provide effective prophylaxis against cytomegalovirus infection in liver transplant recipients?

Valganciclovir failed to provide adequate prophylaxis following liver transplantation in our patients. The overall rate of CMV in seropositive donors and/or recipients was 17%, and in the high-risk group was 26%. Further prospective studies with measurement of ganciclovir concentrations are needed to elucidate the reasons for this unexpected failure.

Answer the question based on the following context: We sought to compare visual acuity results obtained with the original Teller Acuity Cards (TAC), which are no longer commercially available, and the modified, laminated Teller Acuity Cards II (TAC II), which recently became commercially available. Sixty children were tested, 20 at each of 3 ages: 3.5 months, 11 months, and 30 months. Each subject's binocular grating acuity was measured once with the TAC and once with the TAC II, with the order of testing counterbalanced across subjects. Testers were aware that acuity cards were arranged in ascending order of spatial frequency, but they were masked to the absolute spatial frequencies of the gratings in the subset of cards used. Testers were also masked to acuity results until testing of the child was completed. Repeated-measures analysis of variance with age as a between-subjects variable and card type as a within-subjects variable showed a significant effect of age (P<0.001) and a significant effect of card type (P<0.001), but no interaction between age and card type. Post hoc comparisons (with Bonferroni correction) showed that mean acuity score was significantly better with TAC than with TAC II at 3.5 months (0.2 octave, P<0.05), 11 months (0.4 octave, P<0.01), and 30 months (0.7 octave, P<0.001).

Question: Are norms based on the original Teller Acuity Cards appropriate for use with the new Teller Acuity Cards II?

These results suggest that normative grating acuity data obtained with the original Teller Acuity Cards need to be adjusted toward lower acuity values by approximately 0.5 octave to be appropriate for use with the new Teller Acuity Cards II.

Answer the question based on the following context: We aimed to measure temperament and investigate personality in children with high hyperopia considering that these could modify the individual response to uncorrected high hyperopia. Fifteen children (age range, 5 to 12 years) with orthotropia and ametropic amblyopia in the presence of uncorrected high hyperopia were identified (group 1). Among the children with refractive accommodative esotropia, 15 children (age range, 5 to 12 years) were enrolled to form group 2. We measured the temperament by using the Children's Behavior Questionnaire (CBQ) Short Form. The Children's Apperception Test (CAT-H) was also administered to all subjects. Regarding the temperament scales measured by CBQ, themes of discomfort, fear, and shyness were more dominant in group 2; high-intensity pleasure and smiling-laughter were dominant in group 1. However the difference was statistically significant only for fear scale (P = 0.045). CAT-H results revealed that aggression toward the parents was the most commonly encountered behavioral pattern in both groups. The children in group 1 were more likely to express passive-aggressive behavioral pattern. Obstinacy and anal period characteristics dominate in the children in group 2. Themes of narcissistic injury was more frequently expressed by these children.

Question: Could personality traits modify the response to uncorrected high hyperopia?

The temperament scales and personality traits could play a role in the modification of the individual response to uncorrected high hyperopia. This finding deserves more research in a larger study group.

Answer the question based on the following context: Distal cervical caries (DCC) in mandibular second molar teeth are responsible for the removal of up to 5% of all mandibular third molars. Our aim was to identify the clinical features of these patients. We evaluated the records of 100 patients who had 122 mandibular third molars removed because of distal cervical caries in the second molar. Eighty-two percent of third molars had a mesial angulation of between 40 degrees and 80 degrees. The peak age for removal of third molars was 5 years later than in other studies and patients had better dental health than average. The incidence of distal cervical caries DCC has been shown to increase with age.

Question: Distal cervical caries in the mandibular second molar: an indication for the prophylactic removal of the third molar?

Distal cervical caries is a late phenomenon and has been reported only in association with impacted third molars. The early or prophylactic removal of a partially erupted mesio-angular third molar could prevent distal cervical caries forming in the mandibular second molar.

Answer the question based on the following context: Dipyrone (Novalgin) is an effective analgesic, antipyretic agent also with spasmolytic effects on various types of smooth muscles. It has recently been reported that dipyrone relaxes tracheal smooth muscle of guinea pig. In this present study, we aimed to investigate whether this and previously reported in vitro results have any consequences on the respiratory function of normal healthy volunteers and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) patients. In this one-centered, non-randomized, non-comparative, open labelled study, 15 normal healthy volunteers and 15 stable COPD patients, with partially reversible bronchospasm, diagnosed according to the Global Initiative for Chronic Obstructive Lung Disease (GOLD) criteria were enrolled in the study at the time they had any indication of dipyrone use. The spirometric tests were performed by a portable notebook and Medikro Spiro2000 spirometry programme-software 1.6 version, before 30, 60, 90, and 120 min after 20 mg/kg of orally dipyrone intake. Groups were compared with the General Linear Model Repeated Measures analysis of variance. None of the spirometric parameters evaluated showed any significant differences when compared with the baseline values in both groups.

Question: Does dipyrone have any effect on respiratory function in COPD patients?

While dipyrone had no bronchodilator effects on either COPD patients or normal volunteers, it also did not impair the spirometric parameters. Since COPD is a disease characterized by a progressive and largely irreversible airflow limitation, dipyrone has no observable bronchodilator effect. However, since dipyrone does not impair the pulmonary function, it can be used safely in COPD patients when there is an indication.

Answer the question based on the following context: The objective was to assess the impact of electrocautery on complications in adenoidectomy. We sought to quantify cautery-related temperature changes in prevertebral fascia that may occur during the procedure, retrospectively evaluate the incidence of cautery-related complications, and prospectively assess the role of cautery in postoperative neck pain. Three consecutive related trials were performed. Initially, adenoidectomy was performed on 20 fresh cadavers, using a thermister to evaluate temperature changes in the prevertebral fascia after electrocautery (30 watts over a 30-second period). Next, retrospective analysis of adenoidectomy complications in 1206 children over a 5-year period was performed. Based on these findings, a prospective study of the incidence of neck pain following adenoidectomy was performed in a cohort of 276 children. Adenoidectomy technique, wattage, and duration of electrocautery were recorded for each child. Children with significant neck pain were evaluated with MRI. Peak thermister readings averaged 74 degrees C, for a mean change of 51.8 degrees C. Complications observed in retrospective analysis included neck pain (3), Grisel's syndrome (1), prolonged velopharyngeal insufficiency (1), retropharyngeal edema (1), and severe nasopharyngeal stenosis (1). The incidence of neck pain in the prospective study was 12% (33 pts), and was independent of adenoidectomy technique, cautery wattage, or duration of cautery use. MRIs revealed edema without abscess.

Question: Does increased electrocautery during adenoidectomy lead to neck pain?

Cautery can result in substantial temperature changes in the surgical adenoid bed. Despite this, the incidence of complications, specifically neck pain, associated with adenoidectomy is low, although underreported. Complications appear to be independent of adenoidectomy technique and cautery use.

Answer the question based on the following context: The objectives of this study were to compare outcomes and survival rates of subclavian vein re-catheterization through guide wire exchange (GWE) or de novo insertion (DN). The study was conducted in a retrospective manner. Medical records of 36 patients who received percutaneous subclavian vein re-catheterization for hemodialysis in our institution during the period from April 1, 2001 to September 30, 2004 were reviewed. All patients had at least 2 catheter insertions records in our institute. Incidences of adverse events (infection, thrombosis) were compared between GWE and DN groups using x2 test. Predictors for adverse event occurrences were analyzed using logistic regression models. Cox proportional hazard model was used to investigate the predictors for adverse event-free catheter days. Kaplan-Meire survival curves were computed and compared using log rank test. Information were generated from 98 catheters (41 from DN, 57 from GWE groups). The average catheter usage was 2.8+/-0.9 devices per patient and the mean catheter-indwelling-day was 125.4+/-129.5 days in this cohort. We found GWE group had significantly lower thrombosis rate (49.1% vs. 85.4% for DN group, P<0.000) in general. Surgical approach was a significant risk factors for catheter thrombosis (GWE vs. DN, odds ratio=0.261, P=0.05). The actuarial survival rates for GWE were>or =30 days, 85.4%;>or =60 days, 75.5%;>or =90 days, 64.5%;>or =180 days, 44.3%. The actuarial survival rates for DN were>or =30 days, 70.7%;>or =60 days, 58.5%;>or =90 days, 34.2%;>or =180 days, 18.4%. GWE group catheters had significantly higher catheter survival rates (P=0.0009). Mahukar catheter (hazard ratio 0.514, P=0.03), non-shock (hazard ratio 3.358, P=0.04), and older age (hazard ratio 0.958, P=0.026) were predictors of adverse event-free remaining catheter days.

Question: Is guidewire exchange a better approach for subclavian vein re-catheterization for chronic hemodialysis patients?

We suggest that GWE might be a favorable option over DN insertion when revised subclavian vein catheterization is inevitable. GWE can be performed repeatedly without compromising catheter outcomes.

Answer the question based on the following context: Trauma centres have been shown to reduce the number of preventable deaths from serious injuries. This is due largely to the rapid response of surgeons and health care teams to resuscitate, evaluate, and operate if necessary. Less is known about the effectiveness of trauma centre care on those patients who have not incurred immediate life-threatening problems and may not be as critically injured. The purpose of this study was to review the use of physician and hospital resources for this patient population to determine whether trauma team and trauma centre care is helpful or even needed. This was a retrospective study of consecutive trauma patients (n=1592) admitted from 1998 to 2002 to the trauma service of an urban level I trauma centre and recorded in the hospital trauma registry. Patients were triaged in a tiered response to more or less severely injured. All patients' care was directed by trauma surgeons. Of the 1592 patients, 398 (25%) received a full trauma team response (Class I), 1194 were less seriously injured (Class II). The ISS for the Class I patients was 19+/-18 and for Class II patients 10+/-10. Nineteen percent of Class II patients had an ISS>15. Overall mortality in Class II patients was 2% including 20 unexpected deaths. Four hundred and three Class II patients (34%) had multisystem injuries. Of the Class II patients 423 (35%) were sent to the ICU or OR from the ED, 106 of whom required an immediate operation and 345 required an operation prior to discharge. Complications developed in 129 patients (11%), the majority of which were pulmonary.

Question: Is trauma centre care helpful for less severely injured patients?

A large proportion of those patients thought initially to be less severely injured required resources available in a trauma centre, including specialty care, intensive care, and operating room accessibility. Over one-third of these patients had multisystem injuries and almost 20% were considered major trauma, needing prioritisation of care and expertise ideally found in a trauma centre environment. Complications developed in a sizable number of patients. This patient population, because of its heterogeneity and propensity for critical illness, deserves the resources of a trauma centre.

Answer the question based on the following context: There is a risk of myocardial ischemia in patients with pulmonary atresia and intact ventricular septum associated with the right ventricle-dependent coronary circulation. In this patient group, the oxygen delivery to the myocardium depends on the oxygen saturation of the right ventricular cavity. We hypothesized that bidirectional Glenn shunt would improve the oxygenation of right ventricle-dependent coronary circulation relative to a systemic-pulmonary artery shunt. The reduction of systemic venous return to the right atrium due to a bidirectional Glenn shunt could increase the oxygen saturation of the right ventricle in the clinical setting, when the mixture of systemic and pulmonary venous blood is unchanged at the atrial level. Patients with right ventricle-dependent coronary circulation were defined as those with right ventricle-coronary artery fistulas plus stenoses of the right or left coronary arteries. For 7 patients with right ventricle-dependent coronary circulation before and after bidirectional Glenn shunt, cardiac catheterization was performed and the oxygen saturation of the right ventricular cavity was measured. For all 7 patients, the bidirectional Glenn shunt was performed at a mean age of 18 months. Ischemic changes in the electrocardiogram before the bidirectional Glenn shunt improved after the procedure in 2 patients. The oxygen saturation of the right ventricular cavity before the bidirectional Glenn shunt was 54.6 +/- 8.8%, and that after the BGS significantly increased to 75.6% +/- 5.8% (P<.01). All 7 patients have subsequently undergone the Fontan procedure with excellent results.

Question: Does a bidirectional Glenn shunt improve the oxygenation of right ventricle-dependent coronary circulation in pulmonary atresia with intact ventricular septum?

Early bidirectional Glenn shunt could prevent progression of myocardial ischemia in pulmonary atresia with intact ventricular septum with right ventricle-dependent coronary circulation.

Answer the question based on the following context: To assess the effects of intermittent maximal androgen blockade (IMAB) on testosterone (T) levels during on- and off-treatment periods. A total of 51 patients with metastatic prostate cancer underwent a 6-months period of continuous maximal androgen blockade (MAB) consisting of leuprorelin (3.75 mg at monthly intervals) plus flutamide (250 mg t.i.d.) followed by IMAB. During each cycle, the cut-off prostate-specific antigen (PSA) levels to stop and resume treatment were 4 and 10 ng/ml, respectively. IMAB continued until progression under treatment occurred. Monthly PSA and T measurements were performed in central laboratories. From the 51 patients included (mean age 67.6 years), 27, 16, 12, 8 and 5 underwent a second, third, fourth, fifth and sixth cycle, respectively (mean follow up: 17 months). Before treatment, 4 patients had a T lower than normal laboratory value but these recovered all to a normal T value at the end of the first cycle. During the 6 cycles, only 8 patients did not recover a normal T at least once during the off-treatment periods (OTP). The mean T values at the end of each OTP did not change during these 6 cycles (Anova test, p=0.621) with a mean stable recovery delay of 32-43 days (Anova test, p=0.722).

Question: Intermittent androgen castration: a biological reality during intermittent treatment in metastatic prostate cancer?

IMAB protocol with an initial 6-month treatment period can result in an intermittent castration with the recovery of normal T levels in most patients during six consecutive cycles of treatment.

Answer the question based on the following context: The aim of this study is to evaluate the effect of the gonadal biopsy procedure on fertility and histology of the experimentally created undescended testis. Thirty Wistar-Albino rat litters were divided into three groups. In the first two groups, undescended testes were obtained by dividing the right gubernaculum in the first 48 h and the third group constituted the sham group. When the rats were 30 days old, orchidopexy was performed in the first group (O), whereas orchidopexy and testicular biopsy were performed in the second group (OB). After the fertility study all rats were sacrificed at week 11 and testicular weights, mean seminiferous tubular diameters (MSTD) and mean testicular biopsy scores (MTBS) were measured. One testis in the O group and three testes in the OB group were atrophied and these rats were excluded from the study. Testicular weights, MSTD and MTBS values of the operated side in the O and OB groups were lower than those in the sham group. There was a statistically significant difference between the MSTD values of the ipsilateral testes in the OB group and sham group (p<0.05). MTBS values of the ipsilateral testes in the O and OB groups were<8. There was no difference in all parameters in the contralateral testes between all groups (p>0.05). All the evaluated rats were fertile. While there was no difference in number of fetuses and fertility scores between the O and OB group, however, the differences were significant between each of these groups and the sham group (p<0.05).

Question: Testicular biopsy during orchidopexy procedure: does it have an adverse effect on fertility?

Testicular biopsy in the unilateral undescended testis model results in limited histological changes without affecting the fertility.

Answer the question based on the following context: To evaluate the efficacy of fluoxetine alone and fluoxetine+lidocaine ointment in the same patient group with premature ejaculation (PE). 78 patients with PE were given 20 mg fluoxetine by an 'as-needed treatment' 4 h before planned sexual activity for a period of 3 months. They were then told to add local lidocaine ointment to fluoxetine 30 min before sexual activity for an additional 3 months for most of their sexual attempts. They were asked to note their PE grades and intravaginal ejaculatory latency time (IELT) scores by stopwatch technique before and after each treatment modality; the results were compared statistically afterwards. Of 46 patients who completed the study, the mean pretreatment, fluoxetine alone and fluoxetine+lidocaine ointment treatment PE grades and IELT scores were found to be 6.52+/-1.42 and 2.58+/-0.49, 3.21+/-1.86 and 1.28+/-0.71, 2.17+/-1.56 and 1.04+/-0.72, respectively, showing a decrease in PE grades and IELT scores in combined therapy. On an individual patient basis, the total significant and moderate improvement rate of combined therapy was found to be 86.9%. Failure was observed in 6 (13.1%) patients.

Question: Does lidocaine ointment addition increase fluoxetine efficacy in the same group of patients with premature ejaculation?

The effective treatment with fluoxetine+lidocaine ointment offers the advantage of an 'as-needed treatment' in PE with minimal side effects and can be used as one of the first-line alternatives in the treatment of PE.

Answer the question based on the following context: To determine the complication rate during the catheterization in adults with congenital heart disease (CHD) in a pediatric catheterization laboratory (PCL). An increasing number of patients with CHD are surviving into adulthood, with diagnostic and interventional cardiac catheterization being essential for the management of their disease. The complication rate during the catheterization of adults with CHD has not been reported. A retrospective chart review was performed on all adult patients (>18 years) with CHD who underwent diagnostic or interventional catheterization in our PCL within the past 8.5 years. A total of 576 procedures were performed on 436 adult patients (median age 26 years). Complex heart disease was present in 387/576 (67%) procedures. An isolated atrial septal defect or patent foramen ovale was present in 115/576 (20%) procedures, and 51/576 (9%) procedures were performed on patients with structurally normal hearts with arrhythmias. Interventional catheterization was performed in 378/576 (66%) procedures. There were complications during 61/576 (10.6%) procedures; 19 were considered major and 42 minor. Major complications were death (1), ventricular fibrillation (1), hypotension requiring inotropes (7), atrial flutter (3), retroperitoneal hematoma, pneumothorax, hemothorax, aortic dissection, renal failure, myocardial ischemia and stent malposition (1 each). The most common minor complications were vascular entry site hematomas and hypotension not requiring inotropes. Procedures performed on patients>or = 45 years of age had a 19% occurrence of complications overall compared with 9% occurrence rate in patients of age<45 years (P<0.01).

Question: Is it safe to perform cardiac catheterizations on adults with congenital heart disease in a pediatric catheterization laboratory?

The complication rate during the catheterization of adults with CHD in a PCL is similar to the complication rate of children with CHD undergoing cardiac catheterization. The older subset of patients are more likely to encounter complications overall. The encountered complications could be handled effectively in the PCL. With screening in place, it is safe to perform cardiac catheterization on most adults with CHD in a PCL.

Answer the question based on the following context: Comparison of characteristic features, radiology, management and recurrence pattern of fungal sinusitis between children and adults. A prospective study conducted in the department of Otorhinolaryngology, Head and Neck Surgery, Post Graduate Institute of Medical Education and Research, Chandigarh in which all the cases presenting with the features of allergic fungal sinusitis (AFS) between January 2000 and January 2005 were enrolled. These cases were divided into two groups, group 1 comprised of cases with age less than 15 years and group 2 with age more than 15 years. Detailed history, physical examination and nasal endoscopic examination and computed tomography (CT) scan of the paranasal sinuses was done in all the cases. The cases with prior history of sinonasal surgery were excluded from the study. All patients refractory to medical management were subjected to endoscopic sinus surgery. All the cases were followed up for a period ranging from 6 to 39 months to see for the recurrence. The data of both the groups was analysed statistically using chi square test. The study population comprised of 200 cases, with 68 cases in group 1 and 132 cases in group 2. The most common symptom in both the groups was presence of nasal obstruction. The children had higher incidence of having unilateral disease (46 out of 68) compared with adults, where it was 38 out of 132. The bony erosion was seen more often in group 1. Surgery was done endoscopically in all the cases. The intra orbital or intra cranial extension was seen in 58 cases of group 1 and 47 cases of group 2 (p<0.001). Recurrence was seen in 18 (15 with intraorbital and 3 with intracranial extension) cases in group 1 and 13 cases (11 with intraorbital and 2 with intracranial extension) in group 2 (p<0.005).

Question: Is fungal infestation of paranasal sinuses more aggressive in pediatric population?

In our study, we found a higher incidence of facial deformities, proptosis, intraorbital/intracranial extension and a higher rate of recurrence in group 1, therefore, suggesting a more aggressive nature of AFS in children than adults mandating an early diagnosis, proper management and regular follow up in these cases.

Answer the question based on the following context: To determine whether the magnitude of ST-segment resolution after thrombolytic therapy (TT) predicts short- and long-term outcomes in an unselected population of patients with an acute myocardial infarction (AMI). Recent studies suggest that resolution of ST-segment elevation (STE) on the 2-hour post-TT electrocardiogram (ECG) is a useful predictor of prognosis. However, these studies were restricted to clinical trials where only 15% to 20% of the patients receiving TT were often enrolled. The present study evaluated an unselected consecutive group of patients who received TT. All clinical, investigational, and follow-up data had been collected in a prospective manner. The analysis of ECGs was done retrospectively with the reader blinded to the clinical course. STE at 80 milliseconds after the J point was measured on the baseline and 90-minute ECG using a hand-held caliper. The resolution of STE was categorized as complete (>or=70%), partial (30% to<70%), and none (<30%) as has been done in previous studies. Three hundred fifty-two patients (250 men, 102 women; age, mean+/-SEM, 61.8+/-1.0 years; peak creatine kinase, 1938+/-185 micromol/L; door to needle time, 50.0+/-6 minutes,<30 minutes, 50%;<45 minutes, 70%) with AMIs who received TT were included in the study. Inhospital deaths and recurrent AMI/postinfarct angina revealed no significant association with increasing ST-segment resolution (P>.05). A 70% or higher ST-segment resolution was associated with a significantly lower incidence of inhospital congestive heart failure (CHF) and CHF/death (P<.05). Similarly, with a 70% or higher ST-segment resolution, there was a lower incidence in the 1-year outcomes of CHF and death/CHF. However the 1-year occurrences of unstable angina or recurrent AMIs taken singly did not bear a correlation to increasing magnitudes of ST-segment resolution (P>.05). Although as a composite measure, there was an increasing trend with ST-segment resolution.

Question: Is the outcomes of early ST-segment resolution after thrombolytic therapy in acute myocardial infarction always favorable?

Magnitude of ST-segment resolution after TT appears to demonstrate a dichotomous relationship to measured outcomes. Although there is a lower incidence of death/CHF with increasing ST-segment resolution, there appears to be a higher likelihood for recurrent AMI/unstable angina.

Answer the question based on the following context: A retrospective observational study was performed to test the hypothesis that a lower incidence of atrial fibrillation (AF) would be observed in patients treated with either angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors or angiotensin II receptor antagonists (AIIRAs) than those without these drugs, 1-year following implantation of a dual chamber pacemaker for all indications. One hundred and sixty consecutive patients who underwent implantation of a dual chamber pacemaker between January and August 2002 were identified and their case notes were retrospectively analysed. The primary endpoint was the presence of persistent AF (confirmed by 12-lead ECG recorded from the visit to the pacemaker clinic) at 12-month follow-up. Overall, 8% patients developed new onset persistent AF at 1-year follow-up. The incidence of AF at 1-year was 4% in patients treated with ACE inhibitors, 8% in patients taking AIIRAs or 5% on either drug. Although a trend towards a higher incidence of AF was observed at 1-year (10%) in patients not receiving either of these drugs, this was not statistically significant (P = 0.21, drug vs. no drug). The incidence of AF in patients with a previous history of paroxysmal AF or cardioversion was significantly higher (23%) than those patients without (5%), P<0.0001. An odds ratio (95% CI) of 7.9 (2.3-27.8) was obtained.

Question: Does treatment with ACE inhibitors or angiotensin II receptor antagonists prevent atrial fibrillation after dual chamber pacemaker implantation?

To confirm these interesting initial results and to investigate this important relationship further, larger prospective randomised controlled studies are required.

Answer the question based on the following context: The main indications for implanting a cardiac pacemaker are either acquired atrio-ventricular block (AVB) or sick sinus syndrome (SSS). In general, the exact aetiology of these conditions is unknown. Genetic factors may play a role. Untreated AVB is associated with increased mortality but SSS seems to have a good prognosis. The present study was designed to assess whether first-degree relatives of these patients have an increased mortality risk. We investigated the survival pattern of the co-twins of twins who have had a cardiac pacemaker implanted, by linking two nationwide registries in Denmark: the Danish Pacemaker Register and the Danish Twin Registry. For each "pacemaker-twin" four control-twins matched with respect to age, sex, and zygosity were selected among the twins who were alive at the time of the pacemaker implantation. A total of 159 twins with a pacemaker treated bradycardia of unknown aetiology were identified of which 73 had AVB and 64 had SSS. A total of 622 matched control-twins could be identified. The survival from age six of the co-twins of the "pacemaker-twins" was compared with that of the co-twins of the control-twins. The follow-up period ended January 1st, 2000. The survival curves for the co-twins of the "pacemaker-twins" were virtually identical to those of the co-twins of the control-twins. This finding was consistent for both AVB and SSS and for monozygotic as well as dizygotic twins.

Question: Twins with implanted pacemakers: Is there an increased mortality risk for the co-twin?

No increased mortality risk could be demonstrated for first-degree relatives--including monozygotic twins--of patients with a cardiac pacemaker implanted due to either acquired AVB or SSS.

Answer the question based on the following context: Pacifier use has been reported to be associated with a reduced risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), but most countries around the world, including the United States, have been reluctant to recommend the use of pacifiers because of concerns about possible adverse effects. This meta-analysis was undertaken to quantify and evaluate the protective effect of pacifiers against SIDS and to make a recommendation on the use of pacifiers to prevent SIDS. We searched the Medline database (January 1966 to May 2004) to collect data on pacifier use and its association with SIDS, morbidity, or other adverse effects. The search strategy included published articles in English with the Medical Subject Headings terms "sudden infant death syndrome" and "pacifier" and the keywords "dummy" and "soother." Combining searches resulted in 384 abstracts, which were all read and evaluated for inclusion. For the meta-analysis, articles with data on the relationship between pacifier use and SIDS risk were limited to published original case-control studies, because no prospective observational reports were found; 9 articles met these criteria. Two independent reviewers evaluated each study on the basis of the 6 criteria developed by the American Academy of Pediatrics Task Force on Infant Positioning and SIDS; in cases of disagreement, a third reviewer evaluated the study, and a consensus opinion was reached. We developed a script to calculate the summary odds ratio (SOR) by using the reported ORs and respective confidence intervals (CI) to weight the ORs. We then pooled them together to compute the SOR. We performed the Breslow-Day test for homogeneity of ORs, Cochran-Mantel-Haenszel test for the null hypothesis of no effect (OR = 1), and the Mantel-Haenszel common OR estimate. The consistency of findings was evaluated and the overall potential benefits of pacifier use were weighed against the potential risks. Our recommendation is based on the taxonomy of the 5-point (A-E) scale adopted by the US Preventive Services Task Force. Seven studies were included in the meta-analysis. The SOR calculated for usual pacifier use (with univariate ORs) is 0.90 (95% confidence interval [CI]: 0.79-1.03) and 0.71 (95% CI: 0.59-0.85) with multivariate ORs. For pacifier use during last sleep, the SORs calculated using univariate and multivariate ORs are 0.47 (95% CI: 0.40-0.55) and 0.39 (95% CI: 0.31-0.50), respectively.

Question: Do pacifiers reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome?

Published case-control studies demonstrate a significant reduced risk of SIDS with pacifier use, particularly when placed for sleep. Encouraging pacifier use is likely to be beneficial on a population-wide basis: 1 SIDS death could be prevented for every 2733 (95% CI: 2416-3334) infants who use a pacifier when placed for sleep (number needed to treat), based on the US SIDS rate and the last-sleep multivariate SOR resulting from this analysis. Therefore, we recommend that pacifiers be offered to infants as a potential method to reduce the risk of SIDS. The pacifier should be offered to the infant when being placed for all sleep episodes, including daytime naps and nighttime sleeps. This is a US Preventive Services Task Force level B strength of recommendation based on the consistency of findings and the likelihood that the beneficial effects will outweigh any potential negative effects. In consideration of potential adverse effects, we recommend pacifier use for infants up to 1 year of age, which includes the peak ages for SIDS risk and the period in which the infant's need for sucking is highest. For breastfed infants, pacifiers should be introduced after breastfeeding has been well established.

Answer the question based on the following context: Bilateral extravesical ureteral reimplantation has been associated with urinary retention. We developed a critical pathway and modification of surgical technique to determine whether the bilateral extravesical procedure could be performed in toilet trained children with patients discharged home after a 1-day hospitalization and without urinary retention. A total of 50 consecutive toilet trained children were evaluated after undergoing bilateral extravesical ureteral reimplantation using a modified technique that limits ureteral dissection, ureteral mobilization and detrusor dissection to as distally as possible so that a 5:1 ratio of tunnel length to ureteral diameter can be accomplished. No surgical dissection occurs in proximity to the obliterated umbilical artery, nor is the artery ligated. Patients follow a strict postoperative critical pathway, and parents receive extensive preoperative and postoperative education. A child is required to fulfill 5 strict criteria to be discharged from the hospital. Patient age ranged from 1.9 to 12.8 years (mean 4.9), with 37 girls and 13 boys participating. All patients were discharged home on postoperative day 1. All patients were able to void postoperatively without any instances of urinary retention. None of the children had acute urinary tract infections or required rehospitalization. All patients had radiographic resolution of the vesicoureteral reflux on postoperative voiding cystourethrogram.

Question: Bilateral extravesical ureteral reimplantation in toilet trained children: Is 1-day hospitalization without urinary retention possible?

To our knowledge this is the first study to demonstrate that bilateral extravesical ureteroneocystostomy can be performed in selected patients without postoperative urinary retention and with uniform hospital discharge in 1 day. The critical pathway and limited dissection extravesical approach are essential for this success.

Answer the question based on the following context: Despite significant clinical advances in orthognathic surgery, a perceived decrease in recent years in the number of orthognathic cases was noted at the authors' institution. Word of mouth suggested that this phenomenon was region-wide. To explore this possible dichotomy, a one-page questionnaire was designed and sent to all plastic surgeons in the American Society of Maxillofacial Surgeons and to all active practicing oral surgeons and orthodontists in the state of Ohio. The questionnaire was designed to estimate both the surgeons' and the orthodontists' perception of whether the number of orthognathic cases was increasing, decreasing, or remaining the same over a 5-year period (from 1996 to 2000). A second questionnaire was then sent only to plastic surgeons and oral surgeons to further evaluate reasons for this possible increase or decrease. The overall response to the first survey was 39 percent (236 of 601 surveys sent); 87 responses (32 percent) were from plastic and oral surgeons, and 132 (40 percent) were from orthodontists. Seventy-five percent of responders perceived a decrease in the number of orthognathic operations. Of those, more than 80 percent claimed that reimbursement was the major reason for the reduction in the number of surgical procedures. The degree of reduction in reimbursement over this 5-year period was documented at the authors' institution, and the perceived reduction over this 5-year period was estimated by the respondents. Finally, reimbursement per hour was calculated for orthognathic cases and compared with three other standard plastic surgery procedures.

Question: Orthognathic surgery: is there a future?

Implications of this reduction in orthognathic surgery in Ohio are discussed, and suggestions for better documentation of this health care issue are suggested.

Answer the question based on the following context: Benchmarking techniques were implemented to optimize operating time and charges associated with laparoscopically assisted vaginal hysterectomy (LAVH). The baseline LAVH profile over a period of 4 years (167 cases) was compared with 1-year data (47 cases) after a benchmarking educational program (disseminating data ranking performance by each surgeon plus suggestions for improvement). Preintervention and postintervention profiles were compared by means of Student t test and wilcoxon rank sum analysis. Hierarchical multiple regression was used to identify additional sources of variation for operative charges and time. Mean operating times after implementing benchmarking were lower, averaging 182 versus 197 minutes in the control subjects (P = 0.05). We found no significant difference in total or operative charges. After adjusting for potential confounders, benchmarking remained associated with decreased operating time in the multivariate model (P = 0.01).

Question: Does physician benchmarking improve performance of laparoscopically assisted vaginal hysterectomy?

LAVH operating times decreased after a surgical benchmarking and education intervention, but operating charges did not.

Answer the question based on the following context: Due to organ shortage in renal transplantation, many transplant centers attempt to increase the donor pool. Non-heart-beating donors seem to be a promising alternative. We performed 14 renal transplantations from 8 non-heart-beating donors. 2, 1, 3 and 2 donors were from groups 1, 2, 3 and 4, respectively, according to Maastricht classification. In 6 of the patients' warm ischemia time was over 30 minutes. Three of them had primary non-function. In 6 patients delayed graft function was seen. The remaining 5 kidneys functioned immediately. Two patients whose kidney functioned returned to hemodialysis in the I I and 13th months after their transplantations. One of the patients with primary non-function died. 9 kidneys function well in their follow-up period between 5-111 months. 1 and 5-year graft survival rates were 69.8 and 61.1 percent, respectively. The mean graft survival time is 69.9 +/- 14.5 months.

Question: Non-heart-beating donors: is it worthwhile?

Despite the high primary non-function rate, we think that non-heart-beating donors especially in Maastricht classification 3 and 4 should be used due to dramatic shortage of organs.

Answer the question based on the following context: We investigated the prevalence and hazard ratios for insomnia complaints in a large cohort of middle-aged men and women. The Atherosclerosis Risk in Communities Study is a prospective study of cardiovascular disease. Using multivariate regression analysis, we predicted the likelihood of endorsing the insomnia complaints by age, sex, alcohol intake, smoking, diabetes, heart disease, menopausal status, use of hypnotics, hypertension, depressive symptoms, education level, body mass index, respiratory symptoms, and pulmonary function status. We predicted the hazard ratios (HR) of death at 6.3 +/- 1.1 year by endorsement of insomnia complaints and by hypnotic use controlling for covariates. North American communities. 13563 participants aged 45 to 69 years at baseline None. The prevalence of insomnia complaints in this cohort was 23%. Predictors of insomnia complaints were female sex (odds ratio [OR] 0.56, 95% confidence interval [CI]0.45-0.70 for men), annual family income below 50,000 dollars (OR 1.23, CI 1.09-1.40), age 40 to 49 years (OR 1.29, CI 1.11-1.50), depressive symptoms (OR 5.05, CI 4.60-5.55), heart disease (OR 1.89, CI 1.67-2.14), severe airflow obstruction (OR 1.61, CI 1.17-2.22), pulmonary symptoms (OR 1.71, CI 1.5-1.95), and restrictive lung disease (OR 1.27, CI 1.10-1.47). After controlling for covariates, insomnia complaints were not associated with an increased risk for death (OR 1.01, CI 0.85-1.21), nor was the use of hypnotics (OR 1.38, CI 0.90-2.13).

Question: Does insomnia kill?

In this cohort, the prevalence of insomnia complaints was 23%. After controlling for confounders, neither insomnia complaints nor hypnotic use predicted increased mortality over 6.3 years.