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Sex cord stromal tumours of the ovary include all except:
|
[
"Luteomas",
"Gynandroblastomas",
"Seoli-Leydig cell tumours of the ovary",
"Theca-fibroma"
] |
Explanation:
Sex cord stromal tumors of ovary- classification 1.granulosa stromal cell tumors cell tumor 2. Androblastoma cell tumor - Leydig cell tumor cell tumor cell tumor 3. Gynandroblastoma 4. Unclassified Reference : textbook of gynaecology Sheila balakrishnan, 2nd edition, pg no:280 <\p>
|
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
Who was the first to determine the sequence of a polypeptide?
|
[
"Pehr Edman",
"Frederick Sanger",
"John Kendrew",
"Oakley Fulthrop"
] |
Explanation:
Sanger was the first to determine the sequence of a polypeptide. Mature insulin consists of the 21-residue A chain and the 30-residue B chain linked by disulfide bonds. Frederick Sanger reduced the disulfide bonds, separated the A and B chains, and cleaved each chain into smaller peptides using trypsin, chymotrypsin, and pepsin.
Ref: Harper’s illustrated biochemistry. 30th edition page no: 29
|
b
| 1 |
medmcqa
|
Activity of glutathione reductase in RBCs gives an idea about functional index of which of the following?
|
[
"Riboflavin",
"Pyridoxine",
"Niacin",
"Biotin"
] |
Explanation:
Activity of glutathione reductase in RBCs gives an idea about functional index of flavin coenzyme activity- Riboflavin
|
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
all are causes of hypeension with hypokelemia except
|
[
"bilateral renal aery stenosis",
"end stage renal disease",
"primary hyperaldosteronism",
"cushings disease"
] |
Explanation:
liddle syndrome severe hypeension Hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis Polyuria polydipsia and muscle weakness low aldosterone and reninn levels Autosomal dominant Blood pressure does not improve with Aldactone but does improve with triamterene or amilor-ide Other Causes of Hypeension and pokalemia Renovascular Disease Diuretic therapy Cushing&;s Syndrome Licorice ingestion CAH Rare renin-secreting tumors ref : harrisons 21sted
|
b
| 1 |
medmcqa
|
The 'Key hole' pattern appearance in the cross section is feature of
|
[
"Aprismatic enamel",
"Prismatic enamel",
"Intertubular dentin",
"Intratubular dentin"
] |
b
| 1 |
medmcqa
|
|
1st evidence of calcification of maxillary 2nd molar is seen in
|
[
"2 year",
"2 ½ to 3 year",
"7-8 year",
"At birth"
] |
b
| 1 |
medmcqa
|
|
Mechanism of resistance of tetracyclines is due to?
|
[
"Drug efflux mechanism",
"Development of inactivating enzymes",
"DNA methylation",
"Cell wall alteration"
] |
Explanation:
Mechanism of Resistance Examples Enzymatic breakdown A: Aminoglycosides B: Beta lactams C: Chloramphenicol Decreased permeability Aminoglycosides Efflux pumps Tetracyclines Altered metabolic pathway Sulfonamides Altered target MRSA Vancomycin, Fluoroquinolones
|
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
A lady Dimple has a lytic lesion in X-Ray of upper end of humerus. The diagnosis is,
|
[
"Osteosarcoma",
"Osteochondroma",
"Unicarmel bone cyst",
"Osteoclastoma"
] |
Explanation:
C i.e. Unicameral bone cyst Simple/Solitary/Unicameral Bone cyst nearly always occurs during first two decades of life, mostly in metaphysis of proximal humerus (50%) or femur with a male predominance (Male-female ratio = 2:1).
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
TRUE about medulloblastoma is -
|
[
"Highly radiosensitive",
"Surgery is the only treatment",
"Occurs in adult age group",
"Chemotherapy is useful"
] |
Explanation:
Ans is 'a' i.e. Highly radiosensitive Let's see each option one by one Option c - Medulloblastoma occurs predominantly in children. Option a & b Medulloblastoma is a highly malignant tumor and the prognosis for untreated patients is dismal, but it is an exquisitely radiosensitive tumor. - Its treatment involves aggressive surgical removal of tumor followed by irradiation of the brain. Option d (i.e. Chemotherapy is useful) - We had always thought this option to be wrong, but Schwaz surgery says that "Chemotherapy is commonly used as well". - Still we would go with option 'a' as medulloblastoma is well known to be a highly radiosensitive tumor.
|
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
The 'd' in 'clef' stands for
|
[
"All primary decayed teeth which require silver fillings",
"All decayed primary teeth which require extraction",
"All decayed teeth which require extraction in a 10 year old child",
"All decayed primary anterior teeth"
] |
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
|
Abnormalities of bone metabolism is associated with excess of which vitamins -a) Vitamin Ab) Thiaminec) Vitamin Dd) Tocoferol
|
[
"ad",
"c",
"ac",
"ab"
] |
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
|
Which blood group is universal donor?
|
[
"A",
"B",
"O",
"AB"
] |
Explanation:
ANSWER: (C) OREF: Ganong 24th ed page 562Persons with type AB blood are "universal recipients" because they have no circulating agglutinins and can be given blood of any type without developing a transfusion reaction due to ABO incompatibility. Type O individuals are "universal donors" because they lack A and B antigens, and type O blood can be given to anyone without producing a transfusion reaction due to ABO incompatibility. This does not mean, however, that blood should ever be transfused without being cross-matched except in the most extreme emergencies
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
Bicipital aponeurosis lies over which structure in cubital fossa-
|
[
"Ulnar nerve",
"Radial nerve",
"Brachial artery",
"Anterior interosseous artery"
] |
Explanation:
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Brachial artery o Bicipital aponeurosis passes superficial to the brachial artery and median nerve. It lies deep to superficial veins.o During venipuncture, the bicipital aponeurosis provides limited protection for brachial artery and median nerve.
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
Continuous cell culture of bacteria
|
[
"U tube",
"Craige tube",
"Chemostat device",
"Agar dilution method"
] |
Explanation:
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Chemostat device Bacterial cultures can be maintained in a state of exponentional growth over long periods of time using a system of continuous culture. Continuous culture, in a device called chemostat, can be used to maintain a bacterial population at a constant density, a situation that is, in many ways, more similar to bacterial growth in natural environments. In a chemostat microbial cells are grown at a steady state where cell biomass production, substrates and products concentrations remains constant, and growth occurs at a constant rate. These features make a chemostat unique and powerful tool for biological and physiological research.
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
Most characteristic feature of acute inflammation is:
|
[
"Vasoconstriction",
"Vascular stasis",
"Vasodilatation and Increased vascular permeability",
"Margination of Leucocytes"
] |
Explanation:
Increased vascular permeability leading to the escape of protein rich fluid into the interstitium is the hallmark of acute inflammation. Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 6th edn/page 53.
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
Only sensory branch of anterior division of mandibular nerve is:
|
[
"Auriculotemporal nerve",
"Lingual",
"Long buccal",
"Inferior alveolar"
] |
Explanation:
Buccal branch of the mandibular nerve is purely sensory and is the only purely sensory branch of the anterior division of mandibular nerve.
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
Cancer cells derive nutrition from :
|
[
"Glycolysis",
"Oxidative phosphorylation",
"Increase in mitochondria",
"From a fast food joint"
] |
Explanation:
A i.e. GlycolysisCancer cells derive nutrition from glycolysisQ. Cancer cells are multiplying at a rapid rate for which they need energy. But they lack an extensive capillary network to supply the cells with 02. So the tumor cells have to depend on anaerobic process - Glycolysis for ATP productionRole of glycolysis in cancer therapyIn fast growing cancer cells, rate of glycolysis is very high, produces more pyruvic acid (PA) than TCA cycle can handle. Accumulation of pyruvic acid leads to excessive formation of lactic acid producing Lactic acidosis.
|
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
Therapeutic index indicates
|
[
"Drug toxicity",
"Drug potency",
"Drug safety",
"Drug's lethal effect"
] |
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
|
The ideal muscle relaxant used for a neonate undergoing porto-enterostomy for biliary atresia is:
|
[
"Atracurium.",
"Vecuronium",
"Pancuronium.",
"Rocuronium."
] |
Explanation:
Ans. is 'a' i.e. Atracurium In this case a muscle relaxant is required whose metabolism has nothing to do with liver (because liver is damaged in biliary' atresia)So Atracurium is the muscle relaxant of choice as it is inactivated in plasma by spontaneous non enzymatic degradation. (Hoffman elimination) so its duration of action will not be affected in patients with hepatic insufficiency.All other muscle relaxants given in the question undergo biliary excretion so they should be avoided in a case of biliary atresia.
|
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
Which one of the following morphological characteristic is representative of all posterior maxillary teeth?
|
[
"Marked mesial concavity on crowns and roots.",
"Tips of cusps are well within the confines of the root trunks.",
"From mesial/distal aspect, crowns are rhomboidal in shape.",
"From mesial/distal aspect, all maxillary posterior crowns are trapezoidal with shortest uneven side toward occlusal surface."
] |
Explanation:
From MD aspect, all posterior teeth have a trapezoidal outline with shortest uneven side toward the occlusal surface.
A, Present posteriorily on first premolar;
B, Exceptions may be the DB root of the maxillary second molar;
C, From mesial and distal aspect, all posterior mandibular teeth, not maxillary posterior teeth, have a rhomboidal outline
|
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
At what age do first permanent teeth appear ?
|
[
"5 years",
"6 years",
"7 years",
"8 years"
] |
Explanation:
First primary (milk) tooth erupts at 6 months.
First secondary (permanent) tooth appear at 6 year of age.
|
b
| 1 |
medmcqa
|
This is which Endotracheal tube:-
|
[
"Flexometallic tube",
"Laser tube",
"RAE tube",
"Double lumen tube"
] |
Explanation:
LASER TUBE USED FOR LASER SURGERY Laser Resistant Endotracheal Tubes The most frequent laser related complication is airway fire. Laser Resistant ETTs are used to prevent airway fires during laser surgery of the airway. Initially, fires are located on surface of ETT and cause thermal injury to tissues. If the fire burns through to interior of ETT, O2 and positive pressure ventilation create a blow torch effect, blowing heat and toxic products down into lung. Cuff puncture allowing O2 enriched atmosphere can also increase chance of fire after laser burst.
|
b
| 1 |
medmcqa
|
Epidemic Dropsy results due to:
|
[
"Aflatoxin",
"BOAA",
"Pyruvic acid",
"Sanguinarine"
] |
Explanation:
Sanguinarine
|
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
Which of the following is not present in pterygomandibular space
|
[
"Auriculo temporal nerve",
"Lingual nerve",
"Mandibular nerve",
"Myalohyoid nerve"
] |
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
|
Spontaneous release of acetylcholine at the neuro?muscular junction produces:
|
[
"Miniature end-plate potential",
"Action potential",
"Post-tetanic potential",
"Post-tetanic potential"
] |
Explanation:
A i.e. Miniature end plate potential Small quanta (packets) of acetylcholine (Ach) are released randomly from the nerve cell membrane at rest, each producing a minute depolarizing spike called a miniature end- plate potential.Q - Miniature end plate potential does not result in firing of muscle fibre Its about 0.5 my in amplitude. - The size of quanta of Ach released varies directly with Ca2+ concentration & inversely with Mgt' conc. At the end plate. When a nerve impulse reaches the ending, the number of quanta released increases by several order of magnitude, and the result is the large end plate potential that exceeds the firing level of muscle fiber.
|
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
Aedes transmit all except
|
[
"West Nile fever",
"Yellow fever",
"Dengue",
"Right valley fever"
] |
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
|
Hold Pull exercise is used for:
|
[
"Muscles of upper lip",
"Muscles of lower lip",
"Muscles of tongue",
"Masseter"
] |
Explanation:
Exercises of the Tongue
Exercises of the tongue are done to correct any aberrant tongue swallow patterns:
a. One elastic swallow
b. Two elastic swallow
c. Tongue hold exercise
d. Hold pull exercise
Exercises of the Lip
a. Lip pull exercises
b. Lip over lip exercises
Key Concept
Hold pull exercise: The tip of the tongue is made to contact the palate in the midline and the mandible is gradually opened. This allows the stretching of the frenum to relieve a mild tongue-tie.
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
Range of microalbuminuria is?
|
[
"10-99 mg/day",
"20-199 mg/day",
"30-299 mg/day",
"40-399 mg/day"
] |
Explanation:
Systemic hypeension causes major effects in three main organs--hea and its blood vessels, nervous system, and kidneys. An impoant and early clinical marker for renal injury from hypeension and risk factor for cardiovascular disease is macroalbuminuria (i.e. albuminuria > 150 mg/day or random urine albumin/creatinine ratio of >300 mg/gm creatinine), or microalbuminuria estimated by radioimmunoassay (i.e. microalbumin 30-300 mg/day or random urine microalbumin/creatinine ratio of 30-300 mg/gm creatinine). Ref: TEXTBOOK OF PATHOLOGY 6th EDITION - HARSH MOHAN PAGE NO:687
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
Screening is a type of -
|
[
"Primordial prevention",
"Secondary prevention",
"Primary prevention",
"Teiary prevalence"
] |
Explanation:
.<p>secondary prevention can be defined as"action which halts the progress of a disesease at its incipient stage and prevents complications.the specific interventions are early diagnosis including SCREENING tests ,case finding programmes and adequate treatment,secondary prevention attempts to arrest the disease process;restore health by seeking out unrecognised disease and treating it before irreversible pathological changes have taken place;and to reverse communicability of infectious disesases .it may also protect others in the community from acquiring the infection and thus provide at once secondary prevention for the infected individuals and primary prevention for their potential contacts.</p><p>ref:park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,22 nd edition,pg no39</p>
|
b
| 1 |
medmcqa
|
Which is the true statement regarding megaloblasitc anemia-a) Megaloblastic precursors are present in bone marrowb) Mean corpuscular volume is increasedc) Serum LDH is increasedd) Thrombocytosis occurse) Target cells are found
|
[
"ab",
"bc",
"abc",
"bcd"
] |
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
|
Pneumococcal vaccine is prepared from -
|
[
"Cell surface antigen",
"Capsular polysaccharide",
"From exotoxin",
"From M protien"
] |
Explanation:
Ans. is 'b' i.e.. Capsular polysaccharide Pneumaeoccal vaccineo There are two types of pneumococcal vaccines available : -Polyvalent (23 type) polysaccharide vaccineThis polysaccharide vaccine represents the capsular antigen of 23 most prevalent serotypes.It gives 80-90% protection which is long lasting (5 years).It is not meant for general use, but only in persons at enhanced risk of pneumococcal infection such as those with absent or dysfunctional spleen; sickle cell disease, coeliac disease; Chronic liver or renal or lung or cardiac disease, DM, CSF leaks (meningeal disruption: dural tear) and; immunodeficiency including HIV infection. It is not recommended in children under two years of age and those with lymphoreticular malignancies and immunosupprassive therapy.Conjugate vaccineA different pneumococcal vaccine containing pneumococcal polysaccharide coupled (conjugated) to a carrier protein (diphtheria toxoid) has been developed.The vaccine contains the capsular polysaccharide of seven most common pneumococcal serotypes.It can be given to children under the age of 2 years (but more than 6 weeks old).
|
b
| 1 |
medmcqa
|
What is referred to as differential expression of same gene depending on parent of origin?
|
[
"Genomic imprinting",
"Mosaicism",
"Anticipation",
"Nonpenetrance"
] |
Explanation:
Genomic imprinting refers to variation in the expression of a gene or group of genes that depend upon whether those genes came from male or female parent. This term refers to the fact that the process of gametogenesis in one sex apparently marks some genetic material as being different from its counterpa supplied by the opposite sex. Paternal imprinting refers to transcriptional silencing of paternal allele. Example: Prader-Willi syndrome. Maternal imprinting refers to transcriptional silencing of maternal allele. Example: Angelman syndrome. Ref: How the Human Genome Works By Edwin H. McConkey, Page 49; Concepts 0f Genetics (With Cd) By Klug, 7th Edition, Page 127; Harrisson's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Chapter 61
|
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
All of the following are true about BCG vaccine except.
|
[
"WHO recommends Danish 1331 strain of M.bovis",
"Given intradermally",
"Normal saline is a diluent",
"Site of injection should be cleaned with spirit"
] |
Explanation:
Site of injection should be cleaned with soap but not with disinfectant or spirit.
|
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
A patient gives a history of symptoms continuing over several weeks and reports episodes of pain and swelling in the jaw. On palpation, lymphadenopathy is observed. On clinical examination, evidence of sinus formation is also seen. The radiograph of the patient is shown below. What will be the diagnosis?
|
[
"Chronic suppurative (or rarefying) osteomyelitis",
"Acute osteomyelitis",
"Garre's osteomyelitis",
"Sclerosing osteomyelitis"
] |
Explanation:
Chronic suppurative (or rarefying) osteomyelitis:
The disease can occur de novo or represent a progression from the acute stage into a chronic form.
Radiological signs
The periphery of the lesion may be irregular and ill-defined or, in more established cases, a peripheral sclerosis may be seen separating normal from infected bone. Adjacent teeth, if involved in the inflammatory process, will show loss of the lamina dura. The involved bone shows ill-defined patchy radiolucency separated by loci of apparently “normal” bone. As the disease progresses, these radiolucent areas will coalesce and enlarge, often involving the cortex of the bone. The dense radiopacities are islands of non-vital necrotic bone or sequestra. The disease can induce new bone formation, a process referred to as proliferative periostitis or involucrum formation This is seen as one or more radiopaque lines parallel to the cortex and to each other.
Key Concept
|
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
The most common mechanism of drug resistance in staphylococci ?
|
[
"Conjugation",
"Plasmids",
"Transduction",
"Translation"
] |
Explanation:
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Transduction . Production of b-lactamase is usually controlled by plasmids which are transmitted by transduction (most common) or conjugation (some times).
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
All of the followings are type of fingerprinting except:
|
[
"Arch",
"Loop",
"Composite",
"Circle"
] |
Explanation:
D i.e. Circle
|
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
Multiple painful ulcers over glans without in duration is suggestive of –
|
[
"LGV",
"Granuloma inguinale",
"Chancroid",
"2° syphilis"
] |
Explanation:
Chancre, LGV, Donovanosis Indurated ulcer (firm induration).
HSV Non-indurated ulcer.
Chancroid → Can be both either Non-indurated or soft induration (but there is no firm induration, therefore usually considered as non-indurated).
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
Roopa Devi, a 65-year-old female with ovarian cancer is being treated with cisplatin-based chemotherapy. All of the following are used to limit the toxicityof cisplatin except:
|
[
"N-acetylcysteine",
"Slow rate of infusion",
"Chloride diuresis",
"Amifostine"
] |
Explanation:
(Ref: Harrison 18th/697) N-acetylcysteine is used for paracetamol poisoining whereas slow intravenous infusion and chloride dieresis along with amifostine can limit cisplatin induced nephrotoxicity.
|
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
Disulfiram like reaction is seen with:
|
[
"Metronidazole",
"Benzodiazepine",
"Fluoxetine",
"Acamprosate"
] |
Explanation:
Ans: a (Metronidazole)Ref: Goodman and Gilman's Manual of Pharmacology and TherapeuticsDisulfiram inhibits the enzyme aldehyde dehydrogenase probably after conversion into active metabolites.When alcohol is ingested after taking disulfiram, the concentration of acetaldehyde in tissues and blood rises and number of distressing symptoms like flushing, burning sensation, throbbing headache, perspiration, chest tightness, vomiting and mental confusion are produced which is called disulfiram reaction or aldehyde syndrome.Metronidazole has a well-documented disulfiram-like effect, and some patients will experience abdominal distress, vomiting, flushing, or headache if they drink alcoholic beverages during or within 3 days of therapy with this drug. Patients should be cautioned to avoid consuming alcohol during metronidazole treatment even though the risk of a severe reaction is low.Acamprosate, is a known drug used for treating alcohol dependence. Similar responses to alcohol ingestion are produced by various congeners of Disulfiram, namely, cyanamide, the fungus Coprinus atramentarius, the hypoglycemic sulfonylureas, certain cephalosporins, and animal charcoal.
|
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
Spider leg appearance in IVP is suggestive of -
|
[
"Renal cyst",
"Renal carcinoma",
"Renal Tb",
"Hydronephrosis"
] |
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
|
Damage to which of the following will cause a positive Trendelenburg sign?
|
[
"Genitofemoral nerve",
"Superior gluteal nerve",
"Pudendal nerve",
"Posterior tibial nerve"
] |
Explanation:
Trendelenburg sign is when the patient stands on one foot, the buttock falls on the opposite side. It is a sign of Superior gluteal nerve lesion.To learn - Nerve involved : Superior gluteal nerve (L4, L5, S1) innervates gluteus medius and minimus muscles. Muscles involved : The gluteus medius muscle abducts and medially rotates the femur at the hip joint. In addition, the gluteus medius holds the pelvis secure over the stance leg, preventing pelvic drop on the opposite swing side during gait. The action of the gluteus minimus muscle is the same as that of the gluteus medius.Ref: Moon D.A., Foreman K.B., Albeine K.H. (2011). Chapter 35. Gluteal Region and Hip. In D.A. Moon, K.B. Foreman, K.H. Albeine (Eds), The Big Picture: Gross Anatomy ---- G2M RANDOM TIP: How to use the website for your advantage? ----Difficulty Filter : When you use STUDY PANEL > RAPID TEST or MY TEST > Use the filters difficulty filters > HIGH > shows questions which >70% of candidates got wrong. This is impoant for a competitive advantage.
|
b
| 1 |
medmcqa
|
True statement among regarding autosomal dominant disorder:
|
[
"Present early in life",
"Complete penetrance common",
"New germ cell mutations in old fathers",
"Only one generation involved"
] |
Explanation:
(Refer: Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 8thedition, pg no: 140-141)
Autosomal dominant inheritance pattern
Successive or multiple generations of family are affected.
One faulty copy of gene (i.e. mutant allele) in any autosomeand one copy of normal allele.
Disease phenotype is seen in all such individuals.
Patients having disease have 50% chance of passing on thedisease to the next generation.
Both males and females are affected equally.
Both males and females can transmit the condition to progeny
There is atleast one instance of male to male transmission.
Disease manifests in heterozygous state, so at least oneparent of an index case is usually affected.
When an affected person marries an unaffected one, every child has one chance in two of having the disease.
Clinical features can be modified by variations in penetranceand expressivity.
Some individuals inherit the mutant gene but are phenotypicallynormal. This is referred to as incomplete penetrance
Penetrance is expressed in mathematical terms. Thus, 50%penetrance indicates that 50% of those who carry the geneexpress the trait.
In practice, penetrance risk is less than 10%.
If a trait is seen in all individuals carrying the mutant gene but isexpressed differently among individuals, the phenomenon iscalled variable expressivity. For example, manifestations ofneurofibromatosis type 1 range from brownish spots on the skinto multiple skin tumors and skeletal deformities.
In many conditions the age at onset is delayed.
Symptoms and signs may not appear until adulthood (as inHuntington disease).
Many autosomal dominant diseases (e.g. achondroplasia) havebeen shown to be associated with increasing paternal age,
Paternal age is an important determinant in new germ cellmutation, causing both autosomal dominant and X-linkedrecessive illnesses.
Types of mutation
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
Which drug are not used in severe persistent Asthma?
|
[
"Sho-acting beta 2 agonist",
"Oral coicosteroids",
"Long-acting beta 2 agonist",
"Inhaled high dose Steroids"
] |
Explanation:
Oral coicosteroids are given in very severe persistent asthma and not severe persistent asthma. Sho acting beta 2 agonists are used for emergency management of acute asthma. Regular prolonged usage of S.A.B.A /salbutamol results in tachyphylaxis and tolerance to the effects of the drug. Hence S.A.B.A should be used for symptomatic relief as and when required. L.A.B.A with inhaled high dose steroids is used for the management of severe persistent asthma.
|
b
| 1 |
medmcqa
|
Which of the following is not related to the menstrual cycle?
|
[
"Hormonal changes",
"Vaginal cytology",
"Estradiol changes",
"Endometrial sampling"
] |
Explanation:
cytohormonal evaluation: The ovarian hormones estrogen and progesterone influence the vaginal mucosa; thus,the epithelial cells exfoliated in the vagina reflect the influence of the prevailing dominant hormone in the system at that time. The estrogen dominated smear appears clean and shows the prescence of discrete cornified polygonal squames. The progesterone dominated smear appears diy and reveals predominate intermediate cells and navicular cells. After the menopause due to the deficiency of ovarian hormones, the vaginal mucosa thins down and the exfoliated cells are predominantly parabasal and basal types. In HPV infection,koilocytes with perinuclear halo and peripheral condensation of cytoplasm is seen. The neucleus is irregular and hyperchromatic. Shaw's textbook of Gynaecology 16th edition page no 89
|
b
| 1 |
medmcqa
|
4-year-old male child had febrile seizures, best prophylaxis –
|
[
"Paracetamol 6 hourly",
"Paracetamol & diazepam",
"Diazepam",
"Phenobarbitone"
] |
Explanation:
Prophylaxis in febrile seizures
Prophylactic anticonvulsants are not given routinely in febrile seizures. They are required when -
A febrile seizure is prolonged or complicated
Medical reassurance fails to relieve family anxiety.
Prophylaxis may be continuous or intermittent
Intermittent prophylaxis
It is currently the desirable form of therapy
It is used during episodes of fever
Indicated during first three days of fever:
Drugs that are used are - Diazepam and other benzodiazepines (these drugs are used because they attain desired levels quickly) Diazepam is given oral or rectal.
Continuous prophylaxis -
It is used when
Intermittent therapy has failed
Central nervous system disease
Drugs used are → Sodium valproate or phenobarbitone.
Recurrent atypical seizures
The family history of epilepsy
Note - Carbamazepine and phenytoin are ineffective for prevention of recurrence.
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
Imaging modality for confirming the diagnosis of hronchieactasis is -
|
[
"Chest CT Scan",
"MRI chest",
"X - ray Chest",
"Bronchoscopy"
] |
Explanation:
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Chest CT Scan Investigations of choice in respiratory systemDiseaseInvestigation* Intersitial lung disease* Bronchiectasis* HRCT* HRCT (1st choice)* Bronchography (2nd choice)* Pulmonary embolism* CT with i.v. Contrast (1st choice)* V/Q scan (2nd choice)* Solitary pulmonary nodule* Calcification* Pulmonary malignancy* Superior sulcus or pancoast tumor* CT scan* CT scan* CT scan (except in superior sulcus or pancoast tumor)* MRI
|
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
Regarding Listeriosis in pregnancy, which of the following is false?
|
[
"Cause 2nd trimester loss",
"Infection on drinking raw milk",
"Symptoms occur after 3 days of exposure",
"Leads to granulomatosisinfantiseptica"
] |
Explanation:
Nearly all cases of listeriosis are thought to be food bone Listerial infections are more common in pregnant women, immunocompromised patients, and he very old or young, Infections in pregnancy is estimated to be up to 100 times that in the general Fetal infections characteristically produces disseminated granulomatous lesions with micro abscesses Rx with ampicillin plus gentamicin is usually recommended.
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
Mitochondrial DNA linked disease is
|
[
"More common in males",
"Transmitted by females",
"Variable penetrance in families",
"Autosomal inheritance"
] |
Explanation:
(B) Transmitted by females# mtDNA inheritance is that it is transmitted strictly through the maternal line.> Low levels of paternal transmission of mtDNA have been observed in crosses between mouse species, but not within species41, although further studies showed that this paternal mtDNA was not transmitted to the subsequent generation.> Cytochrome c oxidase deficiency (mitochondrial DNA mutations), Kearns-Sayre syndrome (single, large deletion of mitochondrial DNA), Leber hereditary optic neuropathy (Mutations in four mitochondrial genes, MT-ND1, MT-ND4, MT-ND4L, and MT-ND6), Leigh syndrome (most commonly mutated mitochondrial gene in Leigh syndrome, MT-ATP6) are some of the examples for moitochondrial diseases.
|
b
| 1 |
medmcqa
|
In indirect larynogscopy not seen is -
|
[
"Base of tongue",
"Pyriform fossa",
"Glottis",
"Sub glottis"
] |
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
|
At the age of 12 years, total number of teeth are:
|
[
"12",
"20",
"24",
"30"
] |
Explanation:
24
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
Wof is cell cycle nonspecific antineoplastic drug
|
[
"Vincristine",
"Methotrexate",
"Bleomycin",
"None of the above"
] |
Explanation:
Vincristine act on 'M' phase by inhibiting polymerization of microtubules. Methotrexate act on 'S' phase by inhibiting DHFA reductase enzyme Bleomycin act on 'G2M' phase by causing oxidative damage to dna Ref:- kd tripathi; pg num:- 874
|
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
A 68-year-old man has many months history of progressive hearing loss, unsteady gait, tinnitus, and facial pain. An MRI scan reveals a tumor at the cerebellopontine angle. Which of the following cranial nerves is this tumor most likely to affect?
|
[
"fourth cranial nerve",
"sixth cranial nerve",
"eighth cranial nerve",
"tenth cranial nerve"
] |
Explanation:
An acoustic neuroma is most likely to lead to a palsy of the eighth cranial nerve. Deafness, headache, ataxia, tinnitus, and diplopia are seen, as well as facial paresthesia. Acoustic neuromas represent 5-10% of all intracranial tumors. They develop from Schwann cells and generally grow very slowly. They may be very large before symptoms develop.
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
All except one are true regarding Barrett's esophagus-
|
[
"More incidence of sq. cell ca",
"Metaplasia",
"Columnar epithelium",
"Involves lower oesophagus"
] |
Explanation:
There is an increased incidence of adenocarcinoma in Barret's esophagus. Barrett's esophagus is a premalignant condition with an increased incidence of adenocarcinoma of esophagus. The risk of adenocarcinoma increases with increasing length of columnar-lined epithelium Also, remember Barrett's esophagus is the single most impoant risk factor for adenocarcinoma of esophagus. The adenocarcinoma develops at the squamo-columnar junction (-85%) or within 2 cm of the junction. Ref : Bailey & Love 25/e p1022
|
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
The number of independent members in the sample is:
|
[
"Null",
"Degree of freedom",
"Bias",
"Significance"
] |
b
| 1 |
medmcqa
|
|
Mid-follicular phase of mestrual cycle is characterized by
|
[
"Decreased oestrogen",
"Increased FSH",
"Increased inhibin",
"Decreased LH"
] |
Explanation:
During mid-follicular phase, follicles produce increased oestrogen and inhibin resulting in decline in FSH levels through negative feedback.
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
Most common symptom of Acute pelvic inflammatory disease:
|
[
"Bleeding per vaginum",
"Abdominal pain",
"Vomiting",
"Amenorrhoea"
] |
Explanation:
Symptoms of Acute PID Abdominal pain Vomiting Dysuria Vaginal discharge Abnormal uterine bleeding Pain is the most common feature of symptomatic PID. Abnormal bleeding and vomiting may also occur.
|
b
| 1 |
medmcqa
|
Cholinesterase metabolizes following except:
|
[
"Propanolol",
"Procaine",
"Acetyl choline",
"Bupivacaine"
] |
Explanation:
D i.e. Bupivacaine
|
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
Caldwell lac view (occipito-frontal) can visualise -a) Sphenoid sinusb) Nasal bone c) Maxillary boned) Ethmoide) Frontal sinus
|
[
"bce",
"abd",
"abcd",
"bcde"
] |
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
|
Cork–screw opperance of esophagus is seen –
|
[
"Achalasia cardia",
"Carcinoma esophagus",
"Diffuse esophageal spasm",
"Caustic injury"
] |
Explanation:
Esophageal curling/corkscrew oppearance is seen in diffuse esophageal spasm.
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
Mean cerebral blood flow is
|
[
"1500 ml/min",
"2000 ml/min",
"756 ml/min",
"250 ml/min"
] |
Explanation:
The average cerebral blood flow in young adults is 54 mL/100 g/min. The average adult brain weighs about 1400 g, so the flow for the whole brain is about 756 mL/min.Ref: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, Twenty-Third Edition
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
Which of the following sugar is called as Arch Criminal:
|
[
"Fructose.",
"Sucrose.",
"Glucose.",
"Maltose."
] |
Explanation:
Sucrose is called as arch criminal because it is most cariogenic.
|
b
| 1 |
medmcqa
|
Which among the following is the commonest type of congenital cataract?
|
[
"Nuclear",
"Zonular",
"Capsular",
"Coralliform"
] |
Explanation:
Lamellar or zonular cataract is the most common type of congenital cataract, accounting for about 50% cases. Here, development of the lens is interfered at a later stage. Typically, this cataract occurs in a zone of foetal nucleus surrounding the embryonic nucleus. The main mass of the lens internal and external to the zone of cataract is clear, except for small linear opacities like spokes of a wheel (riders) which may be seen towards the equator. Ref: Ophthalmology by Khurana, 2005, Page 187.
|
b
| 1 |
medmcqa
|
Reversible change from on cell type to other is known as?
|
[
"Hyperplesia",
"Hypertrophy",
"Metaplesia",
"Dysplasia"
] |
Explanation:
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Metaplesia o Metaplasia is an adaptive change in which one adult (mature) cell type is replaced by another adult (mature) cell. It is completely reversibleo Hypertrophy refers to an increase in the size of cells without increase in the number, resulting in an increase in the size of tissue.o Hyperplasia refers to an increase in number of cells without increase in cell sizeo Dysplasia is disordered growth with lack of uniformity of individual cells.
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
Cancellous bone graft taken from:
|
[
"Femoral condyles",
"Pelvis",
"Greater trochanter",
"All of the above"
] |
Explanation:
A i.e. Femoral condyle; B i.e. Pelvis C i.e. Greater trochanter
|
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
Complication of measles are all except –
|
[
"Myocarditis",
"Appendicitis",
"SSPE",
"Pancreatitis"
] |
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
|
All of the following are true regarding the actions of endothelin-1 except ?
|
[
"Bronchodilation",
"Vasoconstriction",
"Decreased GFR",
"Has inotrophic effect"
] |
Explanation:
Endothelin-1 Potent vasoconstrictor agent Produced by endothelial cells. They are secreted locally and act in a paracrine fashion. Actions of Endothelin-1 (ET-1) Potent vasoconstrictor Platelet activation Inotrophic effect Closure of ductus aeriosus Have a role in the pathogenesis of hypeension, myocardial infarction, and congestive hea failure. In the brain, regulate the transpo of substances across blood brain barrier (BBB).. In the kidneys, they are involved in tubuloglomerular feedback- decreased GFR In the lungs, it causes bronchoconstriction (mediated ET-B receptors) In GIT, they are involved in the migration of myenteric plexus to distal colon (failure leads to Hirschsprung&;s/ Megacolon) Deletion of both alleles of ET-1 gene- craniofacial abnomalities and respiratory failure at bih. Ref: Ganong&;s Review of Medical Physiology 26th edition PGno: 584
|
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
In which type of memory are basal ganglia involved?
|
[
"Conditioning",
"Procedural",
"Explicit",
"None"
] |
Explanation:
Procedural Memory includes skills and habits, which, once accquired, become unconscious and automatic. This type of memory is processed in the striatum. Implicit Memory/Non-declarative memory: It doesnot require being conscious or awareness. Eg., Remembering how to brush your teeth. They are of 4 types: Procedural memory (skills and habits) in striatum, cerebellum, motor coex Priming in neocoex Non-associative learning (includes habituation and sensitization, e.g., Byheaing facts) Associative learning: Classical and operant conditioning. Exlicit/Declarative memory: Memory of words, rules, language etc., Associated with consciousness/awareness. Eg., recalling first day in school. They are of two types: Semantic Memory: (Facts) E.g., Knowing capital of India: Pas of brain involved are temporal coex and pre frontal coex. Episodic Memory: (Events) E.g., Recalling first day in college: hippocampus, medial temporal lobe and neocoex. Ref: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology 25th edition Pgno: 283-285
|
b
| 1 |
medmcqa
|
(NOT RELATED)"Filariform larvae" are seen with?
|
[
"Enterobius vermicularis",
"Ascaris lumbricoides",
"Necator americanus",
"Trichuris trichiura"
] |
Explanation:
Is infective third-stage larva of the hookworm, Ascaris, and other nematodes with penetrating larvae or with larvae that migrate through the body to reach the intestine.
|
b
| 1 |
medmcqa
|
Acute tonsillitis is caused by
|
[
"H. influenza",
"Beta-hemolytic streptococcus",
"Staphylococcus aureus",
"Pneumococcus"
] |
Explanation:
B. i.e. (Beta hemolytic streptococcus) (240 - Dhingra)ACUTE TONSILLITIS* Haemolytic streptococcus is the most commonly infecting organism others causes may be - staphylococcus pneumococci or H. influenzae* Penicillin is the drug of choice*** Complications include - chronic tonsillitis, peritonsillar abscess, Parapharyngeal abscess cervical abscess,Acute otitis media, Rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis, SABE* Tonsil is supplied by1. Tonsillar branch offacial artery*2. Ascending pharyngeal artery*3. Ascending palatine*4. Dorsal lingual*5. Descending palatine*TREATMENTS* Bedrest, giving plenty of fluids, analgesics* Penicilline is the drug of choice *** Erythromycin and ampicilline may be needed for resistant cases
|
b
| 1 |
medmcqa
|
World anti-tobacco day is celebrated on?
|
[
"31st May",
"5thJune",
"12th July",
"24th November"
] |
Explanation:
ANSWE R: (A) 31st MayREF: APPENDIX-70 below "HEALTH RELATED DAYS" APPENDIX - 70Health Related Days:World leprosy day30 JanuaryWorld cancer day4th FebruaryWorld disabled day15th MarchWorld TB day24th MarchWorld Health day7th AprilWorld Malaria day25th AprilRed cross day8th MayWorld no tobacco day31st MayAnti Filaria day5th JuneWorld blood donation day14th JuneInternational day against drug abuse26th JuneWorld diabetes day27th JuneWorld Zoonosis day6th JulyWorld population day11th JulyWorld breast feeding week1-7 AugustSuicide prevention day10th SeptemberAlzheimer's day21th SeptemberWorld Rabies day28th SeptemberWorld Heart day29th SeptemberInternational day for elderly1st OctoberMental health day10 OctoberEther day/ Anesthesia day16th OctoberWorld diabetes day14th NovemberWorld RTA day16th NovemberWorld COPD day19th NovemberAIDS day1st DecemberHepatitis day4th December
|
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
Synaptic potentials can be recorded by:
|
[
"Patch clamp technique",
"Voltage clamp technique",
"Microelectrode",
"EEG"
] |
Explanation:
C i.e. Microelectrode Nerve cells have a low threshold for excitation. The stimulus may be electrical, chemical or mechanical. Two types of physio chemical disturbances are produced: I) Local, non propagated potential - synaptic or electrotonic potential II) Propogated disturbance - action potential (nerve impulse) Measurement of electrical activity in nerve * The electric events in neurons are rapid being measured in millisecond (ms) and the potential changes are small, measured in millivolts (my) * The electrical activity can be measured by (I) MicroelectrodeQ with tip diameter of less than 1 micron (II) Electronic amplifier (III) Cathode ray oscilloscope
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
Below shown head control is achieved by
|
[
"3 months",
"4 months",
"5 months",
"6 months"
] |
Explanation:
In the above image, Infant lifts head from the supine position when about to be pulled at 5 months Supine and pull to sit:The infant is observed in supine and then gently pulled to sitting position. Control of head and curvature of the spine is observed. In the newborn period, the head completely lags behind and back is rounded.Staing at 6 weeks, the head control develops and by 12 weeks there is only a slight head lag. The spine curvature also decreases accordingly.The child has complete neck control by 20 weeks. This can be asceained by swaying him gently &;side-to-side&; when sitting. At this age, the baby loves to play with his feet and may take his foot to mouth as well. Infant lifts head from the supine position when about to be pulled at 5 months.Ref: Paediatrics; O.P. Ghai; 8th edition; Page no: 43
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
Treatment of choice in SSPE is
|
[
"Abacavir",
"Glatiramer",
"Interferon",
"Inosine pranobex"
] |
Explanation:
.
|
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
A 54-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with early-stage breast cancer undergoes surgery for a lumpectomy to remove a small tumor detected by mammography. the pathology repo confirms early stage of the cancer and fuher comments on the fact that there is significant desmoplasia in the surrounding tissue. The term desmoplasia refers to
|
[
"an irregular accumulation of blood vessels.",
"Scanty connective tissue causing the neoplasm to be soft and fleshy.",
"normal tissue misplaced within another organ",
"proliferation of non-neoplastic fibrous connective tissue"
] |
Explanation:
Desmoplasia:- refers to proliferation of non-neoplastic fibrous connective tissue within a tumor . Parenchymal cells stimulate the formation of abundant collagenous storms, referred to as desmoplasia. It is quite common in cases of breast cancer, which become Stony hard or scirrhous. An irregular accumulation of blood vessels is known as a hemangioma. An area of tissue misplaced within another organ is known as a choristoma
|
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
Population explosion (explosive growth) is defined as the growth rate ?
|
[
"0.5-1.0",
"1-1.5",
"1.5-2",
"> 2"
] |
Explanation:
Ans. is `d' i.e., > 2 Rate/Phase Stationary population Slow growth Moderate growth Rapid growth Very Raped growth Explosive growth Annual rate of growth in % No growth <5 0.5 to 0.1 1.0 to 1.5 1.5 to 2.0 > 2.0
|
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
Pupillary light reflex related with all except
|
[
"Retina",
"Pretectal nucleus",
"Edinger - westphal nucelus",
"Superficial longitudinal association tract"
] |
Explanation:
The constriction of pupil upon projection of light is called pupillary reflex.Afferent pathway :Retina>>optic N>>optic tract>>pretectal nucleus >>edingher Westphal nucleusEfferent pathway:Edinger Westphal nucleus>> oculomotor N >>ciliary ganglion>>sho ciliary N>>sphincter pupillae.Superficial longitudinal fasciculus is association fibres connecting frontal lobe and occipital lobe.(Ref: Vishram Singh textbook of clinical neuroanatomy second edition pg 217)
|
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
Epidermolysis Bullosa simplex is because of defect in:
|
[
"Collagen 7",
"Keratin 5 and Keratin 14",
"Laminin",
"BP1 and BP2"
] |
Explanation:
Epidermolysis Bullosa simplex : defect in K5 and K14
Epidermolysis Bullosa Junctionalis : defect in Laminin
Epidermolysis Bullosa Dystrophica : defect in collagen 7
Epidermolysis Bullosa Acquisita : absence of collagen 7
|
b
| 1 |
medmcqa
|
A young 25 year old man following A presented with proptosis (pulsatile in nature) ,chemosis and pain in right eye after 4 days. On Examination there was bruit on forehead and right eye. The probable diagnosis is
|
[
"Cavernous sinus thrombosis",
"Carotico cavernous Fistula",
"Fracture sphenoid",
"Internal Carotid Aery Aneurysm"
] |
Explanation:
B i.e. Carotico cavernos Fistula
|
b
| 1 |
medmcqa
|
Which anaesthetic induction agent produces cardiac stability. In other words cardiostable anaesthetic is –
|
[
"Ketamine",
"Propofol",
"Thiopental",
"Etomidate"
] |
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
|
All of the following are characterized by upper lobe Fibrosis except
|
[
"Silicolis",
"Busulphan",
"Cystic Fibrosis",
"Histoplasmosis"
] |
Explanation:
Busulphan causes lower lobe fibrosis.
|
b
| 1 |
medmcqa
|
Non enveloped ss - RNA virus is:
|
[
"Picornavirus",
"Poxvirus",
"Retrovirus",
"Bunyavirus"
] |
Explanation:
Ans. is 'a' i.e., PicornavirusRNA Viruses (+ Stranded)Virus FamilyRNA StructureVirion - Associated PolymeraseEnvelopeShapeMultiplies inMajor VirusesCalicivirusss (+) RNA LinearNo polymeraseNakedIcosahedralCytoplasmNorwalk agent Noro -like virusHepesvirusss (+) RNA linearNo polymeraseNakedIcosahedralCytoplasmHepatitis EPicornavirusss (+) RNA LinearNo polymeraseNakedIcosahedralCytoplasmPolio**ECHOEnterovirusesRhinoCoxsackieHepatitis AFlavivirusss (+) RNA LinearNo polymeraseEnvelopedIcosahedralCytoplasmYello feverDengueSt. Louis encephalitisHepatitis CWest Nile virusTogavirusss (+) RNA LinearNo polymeraseEnvelopedIcosahedralCytoplasmRubellaWEE, EEEVenezuelan encephalitisCoronavirusss (+) LinearNo polymeraseEnvelopedHelicalCytoplasmCoronaviruses SARS - CoVRetrovirusDiploid ss (+) RNA LinearRNA dep. DNA polymeraseEnvelopedIcosahedral or truncated conicalNucleusHIVHTLVSarcomaMnemonic: (+) RNA Viruses: Call Henry Pico and Flo To Come Rightaway** Mnemonic: Picornaviruses: PEE Co Rn A VirusesPolio, Entero, Echo, Coxsackie, Rhino, Hep A
|
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
Which one of the following influenza is most deadly?
|
[
"H1N1",
"H2N2",
"H3N2",
"H3N8"
] |
Explanation:
(A) H1N1 > Respiratory infection popularly known as SWINE FLU is caused by an influenza virus first recognized in spring 2009, near the end of the usual Northern Hemisphere flu season.> New virus, 2009 H1N1, spreads quickly and easily. A few months after the first cases were reported, rates of confirmed H1N1-related illness were increasing in almost all parts of the world. As a result, the World Health Organization declared the infection a global pandemic. That official designation remained in place for more than a year.
|
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
A 23 year old male who is otherwise normal complains of mild pain in his right iliac fossa in a waveform pattern which increases during the night and he becomes exhausted and is admitted in the hospital. On examination there is mild hematuria. Urine examination reveals plenty of RBCs, 50WBCs/hpf. Urine pH is 5.5. Most likely diagnosis is:
|
[
"Glomerulonephritis",
"Ca-Urinary bladder",
"Ureteral calculus",
"Cystitis"
] |
Explanation:
Ans. is 'c' ie. Ureteral calculus The patient's clinical picture is typical of ureteric calculus.Colicky renal pain associated with hematuria is suggestive of ureteric stone although a clot from a bleeding renal tumor can cause the same type of pain.A ureteric calculus pain is almost invariably associated with hematuria.Leukocytes in urine can be seen with urolithiasis.
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
Anti phospholipid syndrome (APS) is associated with all of the following except:
|
[
"Pancytopenia",
"Recurrent abortions",
"Venous thrombosis",
"Pulmonary hypertension"
] |
Explanation:
Venous thrombosis, recurrent abortions and pulmonary hypertension are all seen in case of antiphospholipid syndrome. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome leads to thrombocytopenia (in 40-50% cases) and hemolytic anemia in 25% cases but leucopenia is not seen in it. Also in causes of pancytopenia - No where is antiphospholipid syndrome mentioned so, it is the best answer.
|
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
Drug highly distributed to body fat -
|
[
"Digoxin",
"Heparin",
"Mannitol",
"Thiopentone"
] |
Explanation:
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Thiopentone Redistribution of drugso Highly lipid soluble drugs get initially distributed to organs with high blood flow i. e. brain, heart, kidney etc.o Later, less vascular but more bulky tissues take up the drug- plasma concentration falls and the drug is withdrawn from the highly perfused sites.o If the site of action was in the highly perfused tissues, redistribution results in termination of the action of drug,o Greater the lipid solubility' of the drug faster is its redistribution.o The drugs with high lipid solubility and faster redistribution are - thiopentone and diazepam.
|
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
Choose the appropriate lettered structure in this computed tomography scan of the male perineum and pelvis. Which structure secretes fluid containing fructose, which allows for forensic determination of rape?
|
[
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
] |
Explanation:
(b) The seminal vesicle is a lobulated glandular structure and produces the alkaline constituent of the seminal fluid, which contains fructose and choline. Fructose, which is nutritive to spermatozoa, also allows forensic determination of rape, whereas choline crystals are the preferred basis for the determination of the presence of semen.
|
b
| 1 |
medmcqa
|
A man presents with bullous lesions on his face, armpit, and chest. He initially had them only in his mouth. They appear round and oval with serous fluid and some are "flabby." When pressure is applied to the lesion, the fluid spreads laterally. A clinical diagnosis of pemphigus vulgaris (PV) is made. (See Figure below) Which of the following is the usual age of onset for this condition?
|
[
"under 10 years of age",
"10-20 years of age",
"20-40 years of age",
"40-60 years of age"
] |
Explanation:
PV is most common from 40 to 60 years of age, whereas bullous pemphigoid is seen most frequently after the age of 80. Dermatitis herpetiformis is most common in the age group from 30 to 40, but has a wide age range.
|
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
The majority of the waste produced by health-care proViders is-
|
[
"Chemical waste",
"Infectious waste",
"General waste",
"Sharps waste"
] |
Explanation:
Ans. is 'c' i.e., General waste
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
Most common cause of widening of C loop of duedenum
|
[
"Pancreatitis",
"Carcinoma head of pancreas",
"Choledochal cyst",
"Retroperitoneal masses"
] |
Explanation:
M/c cause - Carcinoma head of pancreas.
|
b
| 1 |
medmcqa
|
Pencil in cup deformity is seen in -
|
[
"Rheumatoid arthritis",
"Ankylosing spondylitis",
"AVN",
"Psoriatic arthritis"
] |
Explanation:
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Psoriatic arthritisImportant radiological featuresDiseaseo Trident Hando Champagne glass pelviso Scottish terrier dog or Scottish dog wearing a coloro Be-headed scotty dog signo Inverted napoleon's Hat signo Gull's wing appearanceo Opera glass deformityo Cup and pencil deformityo Chondrocalcinosiso Bamboo spineo Trolly tract signo Dagger signo Licked candy stick appearanceo Lincoin - Log appearance of vertebraeo Flowing candle wax or molten wax appearanceo Marble bone diseaseo Flowing candle wax appearanceAchondroplasiaAchondroplasiaOblique x-ray of ofSpondylolysisSpondylolisthesisSpondylolisthesisPsoriatic arthritisPsoriatic arthritisPsoriatic arthritisPseudogout (CPPD)Ankylosing spondylitisAnkylosing spondylitisAnkylosing spondylitisLeprosySickle cell anemiaMelorheostosisOsteopetrosisDISH (Foresteier's disease)
|
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
Breast milk is rich in _____ when compared to cow's milk:
|
[
"Lactose",
"Protein",
"Fat",
"Vitamin K"
] |
Explanation:
Ref: Core of The Newborn by Meharban Singh 7th Edition, Page No. 163 Preventive and social medicine by A'.Park. 18th edition ,page no.398Explanation:Difference between human and cow's milk {composition per 100 ml)ConstituentBreast milkCow's milkPROTEIN1.1g3.3g-Casein0.4g2.8g-Soluble protein0.7g0.5gLIPID3.5g3.5gCARBOHYDRATES7.0g5-0g-Lactose6.5g4.5gCalcium34mg122mgPhosphorous15mg90mgIron0.29-0.45 mg0.01-0.38 mgFolic acid0.14-0.36pg0.01-0.06pgVitamin B120.0008-0.45pg0.07-1.15pgVitamin A0.5-10 lU70-220 IUVitaminC1.2-10 mg1.2-1.5 mgVitamin D0.5-10 IU0.5-4.5 IUVitamin K1.5mg6mgENERGY67 kcl65 kcal
|
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
For restoring the occlusal plane of a tilted molar, which of the following is the best?
|
[
"Crown",
"Onlay",
"Amalgam restoration",
"None of the above"
] |
Explanation:
An onlay is excellent for restoring the occlusal plane of a mesially tilted molar. When the unprepared occlusal surface (mesial portion) is less than the desired occlusal plane, a corresponding decrease in occlusal surface reduction is indicated. To facilitate increasing the height of the tooth, while maintaining the desirable faciolingual dimension of the restored occlusal surface and good contour of the facial and lingual surfaces, the counterbevels on the latter surfaces often should be extended gingivally more than usual.
Sturdevant operative dentistry 7th Edition, Page No:e126
|
b
| 1 |
medmcqa
|
A 7 year old boy presented with generalized edema. Urine examination revealed marked albuminuria. Serum biochemical examinations showed hypoalbuminaemia with hyperlipidaemia. Kidney biopsy was undeaken. On light microscopic examination, the kidney appeared normal. Electron microscopic examination is most likely to reveal ?
|
[
"Fusion of foot processes of the glomerular epithelial cells",
"Rarefaction of glomerular basement membrane",
"Deposition of electron dense material in the basement membrane",
"Thin basement membrane"
] |
Explanation:
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Fusion of foot process of the glomerular epithelial cells o The child in presenting with features S/o Nephrotic syndrome most frequent cause of which amongst children is minimal change ds. o Light microscopic finding of MCD --> no abnormality o Electron microscopic finding of MCD --> fusion of foot processes of the glomerular epithelial cells o Note that loss of foot processes may also be seen in other proteinuric states (eg. Membranous glomerulonephritis, diabetes), but when the fusion is associated with normal glomeruli only then the diagnosis of MCD can be made. o MCD is also know as lipoid nephrosis as cells of the proximal tubules are often laden with lipids.
|
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
Ecchymosis and hematoma are treated with
|
[
"Intermittent ice pack",
"Continuous ice pack",
"Intermittent hot pack",
"Pressure and pack"
] |
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
|
Low Renin Hypeension is seen in all of the following, Except:
|
[
"Essential hypeension",
"Conn's syndrome",
"Renovascular hypeension",
"Liddle's syndrome"
] |
Explanation:
Answer is C (Renovascular Hypeension): Renovascular Hypeension is associated with High Renin levels (High Renin Hypeension) Addle Syndrome is associated with Low Renin and Low Aldosterone levels Liddle's syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition caused by mutations in the genes that encode the p and 7 subunits of the mineralocoicoid-dependent epithelial sodium channel. This results in continuous (constitutive) activation of the channel, even in the absence of mineralocoicoid. Clinically, the condition is characterised by early-onset hypeension, with hypokalemia and low levels of rennin and aldosterone. The condition responds to treatment with the potassium-sparing diuretic Amiloride (or triamterene).
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
Blackening of eye after forehead injury is due to :
|
[
"Friction abrasion",
"Patterned abrasion",
"Penny bruise",
"Ectopic bruise"
] |
Explanation:
Ectopic bruise/ Migratory bruise: Appearance of Bruise at a site other than the site of impact. Blood tracks along fascial planes or between muscle layers along the path of least resistance and then may appear where the tissue layers become superficial. Site of bruise does not always indicate the site of injury Site of Impact Bruising site Forehead Periorbital (Black eye/ spectacle hematoma/ Racoon eye) Iliac crest Lateral aspect of thigh Calf muscle Behind tendo-calcaneum
|
d
| 3 |
medmcqa
|
Structure posterior to transverse pericardial sinus is
|
[
"Aoa",
"Pulmonary trunk",
"SVC",
"Left atrium"
] |
Explanation:
The transverse sinus is a horizontal gap between the aerial and venous ends of the hea tube.It is bounded anteriorly by the ascending aoa and pulmonary trunk,and posteriorly by the superior venacava and inferiorly by the left atrium on each side it opens into the general pericardial cavity. <img src=" /> REF.B D Chaurasia's human anatomy vol.1,fifth edition
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
False about thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) is:
|
[
"secretion is pulsatile In nature",
"normal plasma level is 0.2-0.5 micro IU/ml",
"secretion is entirely under control of hypothalamus",
"increases synthesis and release of thyroid hormones"
] |
Explanation:
TSH secretion depends upon the levels of T3,T4 as it is affected by FEEDBACK REGULATION Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number: 555,556,557
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
Which is not involved in Ankylosing spondylitis -
|
[
"Knee & Ankle",
"Sacroilac Jt.",
"Wrist & elbow",
"Spine"
] |
Explanation:
Joints involvement in AS
Sacroiliac > spine & costovertebral > Hip > shoulder > knee > ankle
|
c
| 2 |
medmcqa
|
Osseous metastasis is most common if tumor is in:
|
[
"Bronchus",
"Colon",
"Pancreas",
"Adrenal"
] |
Explanation:
Ans. Bronchus
|
a
| 0 |
medmcqa
|
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